Indian Penal Code MCQ Booklet

lOMoAR cPSD| 14133740
Practice Booklet
on
INDIAN PENAL CODE

with
250+ MCQS
Compiled By
Disclaimer: LawFoyer reserves no copyright on the compiled content,

the copyrights are vested with the owners only. This compilation is just a
“transformative use” of the provided content for “Educational Purposes”
only.
LawFoyer’s Practice Booklet on Indian Penal Code (IPC)
PRACTICE SET – I
Ans: B
1. When did the Indian Penal Code receive the 5. Intercourse by a man with his wife during
Governor General’s assent? separation is dealt under
A. October 3, 1850 A. Section 374 A of IPC
B. October 5, 1852 B. Section 375 A of IPC
C. October 6, 1860 C. Section 376 A of IPC
D. October 7, 1865 D. Section 377 A of IPC
Ans: C Ans: C
2. Wrongful confinement in secret is dealt under 6. All are true except one concerning the duty of
the Court in regard to the interpretation of the
A. Section 344 of IPC words of ambiguous import in a penal statute?
B. Section 345 of IPC A. The court must ascertain if the offence
charged is within the meaning of the words of the
C. Section 346 of IPC
statute
D. Section 347 of IPC
B. If the only reasonable way of construing a
Ans: C penal statute without stretching its legal language
is one, which goes against the accused, then it
3. After the submission of the draft of the Indian
must be fully upheld in its entirety.
Penal Code in 1837, who reviewed the draft
Code? C. It is the duty of the Court to interpret words
of ambiguous import in a broad and liberal sense
A. Sri Barnes Peacock
D. In case of penal statute is uncertain or
B. Sri Rajgopalachari
ambiguous or at capable of two interpretations,
C. Sir. J. W. Colvile the benefit of the ambiguity should go to the
accused
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans: B
Ans: D
7. Intercourse by public servant with woman in
his custody is dealt under
A. Section 373 B of IPC

4. The right to prosecution under the Indian
B. Section 374 B of IPC
Penal Code:
C. Section 375 B of IPC
A. is affected by the provisions of other statutes
D. Section 376 B of IPC
B. is not affected by the provisions of the other
statutes Ans: D
C. is not applicable under the provisions of the 8. Extortion by threat of accusation of an offence
Companies Act punishable with death, imprisonment for life, or
imprisonment for ten years is dealt under
D. is not applicable in the areas of Mikir Hills
2| www.lawfoyer.in
A. Section 385 of IPC 11. Fraudulent removal or concealment of

property, etc to prevent distribution among
B. Section 386 of IPC
creditors is dealt under
A. Section 421 of IPC
Ans: D
9. Mens rea involves:
A. crimes of basic intent
Ans: A
B. crimes of speculative intent
12. C and F and F invited C to have a fix of his
C. crimes of specific intent heroin. Each filled his own syringe and injected
each other several times during one night. Next
D. Both (A) and (C) morning F died on the question of causation:
Ans: D A. C must convicted of manslaughter
10. The accused booked two cases containing B. C must not be convicted of manslaughter
heroin on a flight from City A to City B and then
to City C. On reaching City C, he did not collect C. C can be convicted for the possession of
the heroin. He was charged with being heroin only
knowingly concerned in the fraudulent evasion
D. C is neither guilty of possessing heroin nor
of restrictions on importation of cannabis under
the death of F
customs and excise laws. He was held guilty of
the offence charged as he has brought about the Ans: A
importation by deliberate actions committed
13. The accused in order to evade arrest was
with a guilty intent. The accused took the victim
holding D against her will and was using her
to a hut and killed him striking over his head. In
body as a shield. He fired a shotgun at the police
order to make it an accidental death the dead
officer who returned the fire in which D was
body was rolled over a cliff. The medical report
killed. Which the following should be the first
revealed that death was due to exposure and it
step of the Court on the question of causation?
was not caused in the hut.
A. The Court must immediately convict the
A. The accused is guilty of murder in both the
accused
cases
B. The Court must direct the jury to be sure that
B. The accused is not guilty in the first case
the accused fired the first shot
however is guilty of manslaughter in the second
case C. The police officer must be convicted
C. The accused is not guilty in neither of the D. Both (A) and (B)
cases
Ans: D
D. The accused is guilty in the first case and not
in the second case 14. Assisting concealment or disposal of stolen
property knowing it to be stolen is dealt under
Ans: B
3| www.lawfoyer.in
C. Section 413 of IPC D. both (B) and (C).
D. Section 414 of IPC Ans: D
Ans: D 19. Lurking house trepass or house-breaking is

dealt under
15. All except one is false statement about legal
mens rea: A. Section 452 of IPC
A. it refers to mental element necessary for the B. Section 453 of IPC

particular crime
B. the mental element may be either intention to
do the immediate act or bring about the
consequences Ans: B
C. intention or recklessness as to the elements 20. Punishment for subjecting a married woman
constituting the actus reus to cruelty is dealt under
D. intention can always be satisfactorily defined A. Section 497 of IPC
Ans: D B. Section 498 of IPC
16. Mischief is dealt under C. Section 498AofIPC
A. Section 426 of IPC D. Section 500 of IPC
B. Section 427 of IPC Ans: C
C. Section 428 of IPC 21. Which of the following is a type of legal fault
that necessarily does not involve a mental state?
A. Negligence
Ans: A
B. Intention
17. To which of the following, the law of
presumption applies? C. Both (A) and (B)
A. volenti non fit injura D. None of them
B. mens rea Ans: A
C. de minimus non curat lex 22. Which of the following introduced Section
10-C of the IPC?
D. none of them
A. Amendment Act 10 of 1972
Ans: B
B. Amendment Act 30 of 1974
18. What is the position of the mens rea in its
purely technical sense for the offences under the C. Amendment Act’ 40 of 1976
Indian Penal Code?
D. Amendment Act 42 of 1980
A. it holds the same position as it does under the
English Criminal Law Ans: B
B. it has no application 23. Presumption of culpable mental state is a

part of:
C. it has indirect application
A. Section 7-C of the IPC
4| www.lawfoyer.in
B. Section 8-C of the IPC C. cases with criminal proceeding but is a mode
of enforcing a civil right
C. Section 9-C of the IPC
D. cases of domestic violence
D. Section 10-C of the IPC
Ans: D
Ans: D
28. In which of the following conditions a
24. Death or grievous hurt caused by one of
corporation can be prosecuted?
several persons jointly concerned in house
breaking by night, etc is dealt under A. if it is a person under Section 10 of the Penal
Code
A. Section 45 8 of IPC
B. if it is a person under Section 11 of the Penal
Code
C. if it is a person under Section 12 of the Penal
D. Section 461 of IPC Code
Ans: C D. if it is a person under Section 14 of the Penal

Code
25. Section 10-C was used in which of the
following cases? Ans: B
A. Devaki v. State (Kerala 2000) 29. The maxim of law impontia excusat legam is
intimately connected with which maxim of law.
B. Devamani v. State (Madras 1983)
A. lex cogit adimpossiblis
C. Devraj v. State of Punjab (1992)
B. lex non ad impossiblis
D. Devilal v. State (Delhi administration 1986)
C. lex non cogit ad impossiblis
Ans: B
D. lex actus reus impossiblis
26. A man by deceit causing a woman not
lawfully married to him to believe that she is Ans: C
lawfully married to him and to cohabit with him
30. Two brothers sleeping on the floor of a
in that behalf is dealt under
room. The victim was done to death admittedly
A Section 493 of IPC by the accused around midnight with a dao when
the victim was in deep slumber. The defence
B. Section 494 of IPC stated that the accused in his dream was being
C. Section 495 of IPC throttled by someone so he took out the dao
kept the head of the bed to apprehend his
D. Section 496 of IPC attacker. However the dao hit his brother and
Ans: A killed him.
27. All except one is false of the crimes that do A. The accused must be convicted under
not require legal fault on the part of the accused. criminal liability
A. quasi criminal cases which are prohibited in B. The accused must be absolved from criminal
public interest under a penalty liability
B. cases of public nuisance, libel and contempt C. it is a case of automatism

of court D. both (B) and (C)
5| www.lawfoyer.in
Ans: D be investigated__________ Letting guilty is not

doing justice, according to the law”
31. In which of the following case regarding the
‘degree of proof ‘ and ‘reasonable doubt’ the A. Gurbachan Singh v. Satpal Singh (1990)
Supreme Court has held that: “In a criminal trial
B. Nagar Swasthya Adhikari v. Kishan Singh
the degree of proof is stricter than what is
(1969)
required in a civil proceeding. In criminal trial
however intriguing may be facts and C. Ashrubindu Ray v. Chittaranjan Banerjee
circumstances of the case, the charges made (1978)
against the accused must be proved beyond all
reasonable doubt, does not stand altered even D. None of them
after the introduction of Section 498-A I.P.C Ans: A
and Section 113-A of Indian Evidence
Act___________The doubt must of reasonable 34. Making or counterfeiting a seal, plate, etc,
man and the standard adopted must be a with intent to commit a forgery punishable
standard adopted by a reasonable and just man otherwise than under section 467 of the Indian
for coming to a conclusion considering the Penal Code, or possessing with like intent any
particular subject matter.” such seal plate, etc, knowing the same to be
counterfeit is dealt under
A. State of West Bengal v. Orilal Jaiswal (1994)
B. Inder Singh v. State (Delhi Administration)
(1978) B. Section 472 of IPC
C. Uma Shankar v. State of UP (1979) C. Section 473 of IPC
D. Dhram Das Dadhwani v. State of UP (1974) D. Section 474 of IPC
Ans: A Ans: C
32. Marrying again during the lifetime of a 35. In case same set of facts attracts a civil suit
husband or wife is dealt under and also a criminal trial, what should be done?
A. Section 493 of IPC A. The civil suit should be stayed
B. Section 494 of IPC B. The criminal case should be stayed
C. Section 495 of IPC C. The civil suit should be quashed
D. Section 496 of IPC D. Both should be simultaneously carried out
Ans: B Ans: A
33. Regarding ‘reasonableness of doubt’ in 36. Act caused by inducing a person to believe
which of the following case the Supreme Court that he will be rendered an object of Divine
indicated: “That the conscience of the Court can displeasure is dealt under
never be bound by any rule but that is coming A. Section 506 of IPC
itself dictates the consciousness and prudent
exercise of the judgement. Reasonable doubt is B. Section 507 of IPC
simply that degree of doubt which would permit
a reasonable and just man to come to
conclusion. Reasonableness of the doubt be D. Section 509 of IPC
commensurate with the nature of the offence to
Ans: C
6| www.lawfoyer.in
37. Which of the following is a fundamental with the notification there under. It was argued
maxim of natural justice? that notification dated November 8, 1962 and
that the accused could have no idea about as it
A. audi alteram partem
was published in the Gazette of India while the
B. nullum tempus occurritregi accused left his country on November 27, 1962.
C. memo debet esse judex in propria causa sua A. the contention must be upheld as the plea of
ignorance is valid
D. Both (A) and (C)
B. the contention must be repelled as the plea of
Ans: D ignorance is not valid
38. As far as complaints are concerned, at which C. the case must be upheld because accused is a
of the following stage summons are issued? foreign national
A. Section 202 of Cr. PC D. None of them
B. Section 203 of Cr. PC Ans: B
C. Section 204 of Cr. PC 42. House-trespass in order to the commission
D. Both (A) and (C) of an offence punishable with imprisonment for
life is dealt under
Ans: C
39. X was accused of a criminal offence by Y and
the case pended on for 12 years, during which B. Section 449 of IPC
not a single witness was produced by the C. Section 450 of IPC
prosecution. Which of the following article of
the Constitution of India in this case was vio- D. Section 451 of IPC
lated?
Ans: C
A. Article 12, Constitution of India
43. In a certain case in the High Court an
B. Article 15, Constitution of India advocate made a complaint against A, a Sub-
Inspector of Police that A in course of
C. Article 21, Constitution of India investigation of a few cases against F in official
D. Article 25, Constitution of India capacity oppressed him in the exercise of his
official capacity which was offence under Section
Ans: C 124 Government of India Act 1910.
40. Criminal intimidation is dealt under A. the High Court have the jurisdiction to
A. Section 506 of IPC summon and punish the delinquent
B. Section 507 of IPC B. the High Court does not have the jurisdiction
to summon and punish the delinquent
C. the High Court have the jurisdiction only to
D. Section 509 of IPC summon the delinquent
Ans: A D. none of them
41. Mr. X was prosecuted for importing gold Ans: B
into India in contravention of Section 8(1) of the
Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947 read
7| www.lawfoyer.in
44. Which of the following are always exempted B. any person on ship or aircraft registered India
from the jurisdiction of criminal courts of every wherever it may be
country?
C. Both of (A) and (B)
A. Foreign sovereigns and ambassadors
D. None of them
B. Alien enemies, foreign army and warships
Ans: C
C. Presidents and Governors
49. Appellant’s son was married to the
D. All of them complainants and the appellant was
undisputedly a Mauritius citizen and her son and
Ans: D
daughter-in-law were residing in Kuwait. A
45. Mischief with intent to destroy or make complaint petition was filed before the chief
unsafe a decked vessel or a vessel of 20 tonnes judicial magistrate XYZ by complainant alleging
burden is dealt under therein mental torture and physical harassment
by her husband. Appellant (mother-in- law of the
A. Section 434 of IPC complainant) who was also made a party filed an
B. Section 435 of IPC application for quashing of proceeding on the
ground that cognizance taken by the magistrate
C. Section 436 of IPC was bad in law as she was Mauritius citizen and
D. Section 437 of IPC the alleged offence was committed in Kuwait
where only cause of action had arisen:
Ans: D
A. The entire proceeding as been illegally
46. Which of the following Section of the IPC initiated and without jurisdiction and actions
relate to extraterritorial operations of the Code? taken by the court is liable to be nullified
A. Section 2 and Section 3 B. The cognizance taken by the magistrate and
the process issued is in order
B. Section 3 and Section 4
C. Only the principle of res judicata will apply in
C. Section 2 and Section 3
such case
D. Section 2 and Section 4
D. None of them
Ans: B
Ans: A
47. Kidnapping for ransom, etc is dealt under
50. Fraudulently marking a false mark upon any
A. Section 361 A of IPC package or receptacle containing goods, with
intent to cause it to be believed that it contains
B. Section 362 A of IPC
goods which ir does not contain etc is dealt
C. Section 363 A of IPC under
D. Section 364 A of IPC A. Section 485 of IPC
Ans: D B. Section 486 of IPC
48. To which of the following section does the C. Section 487 of IPC
Section 4 of the IPC applies?
D. Section 488 of IPC Ans: C
A. any citizen of India in any place without and
beyond India
8| www.lawfoyer.in
PRACTICE SET – II
51. Piracy covers: Ans: C
A. jure gentium 55. Extortion by threat of accusations of an

offence punishable with death imprisonment for
B. statute law of England
life, or imprisonment for ten years and if the
C. Both (A) and (B) offence threatened be an unnatural offence is
dealt under
D. None of them
Ans: C
52. Making or using documents resembling
currency-notes or bank notes is dealt under C. Section 390 of IPC
A. Section 489 D of IPC D. Section 391 of IPC
B. Section 489 E of IPC Ans: A
C. Section 490 of IPC 56. Robbery if committed on the highway

between sunset and sunrise is dealt under
Ans: B
53. Being bound to attend on or supply the
wants of a person who is helpless from youth, C. Section 392 of IPC
unsoundness of mind or disease, and voluntarily
omitting to do so is dealt under
Ans: C
A. Section 489 D of IPC
57. Which Section of the IPC should be read as
B. Section 489 E of IPC
provision to Section 105 of the Evidence Act?
A. Section 5 of IPC
B. Section 4 of IPC
Ans: D
C. Section 3 and 5 IPC
54. Acts A, B and C constitute an offence under
D. Section 6 of IPC
the Prevention of Corruption Act and the same
acts A, B and C constitute an offence under Ans: D
Section 408, Penal Code. Therefore:
58. Using a false property mark with inten to
A. the offender can be punished under both the deceive or injure any person is dealt under
Acts
B. the offender cannot be punished at all
C. the offender can be punished under either of
the Acts but not both
D. none of them
9| www.lawfoyer.in
Ans: C Ans: B
59. Which of the following explains the ‘sense of 63. Which of the following is true is of the word
expression once explained’? “Judge” under Section 19 of IPC?
A. Section 6 and Section 7 of IPC A. denotes a person officially designated as a

Judge
B. Section 6 of IPC
B. denotes every person who is empowered by
C. Section 7 of IPC
law to give a definitive judgment in any legal
D. None of them proceeding, civil or criminal
Ans: C C. denotes of a body of persons which is

empowered by the law to give judgment
60. Which of the following is a limitation with
vicarious liability? D. all of them
A. certain crimes because of their nature cannot Ans: D

be committed by a corporation
64. Person voluntarily causing hurt in
B. corporal punishment cannot be imposed on committing or attempting to commit robbery, or
a corporation any other person jointly concerned in such
robbery is dealt under
C. cannot be convicted of manslaughter
D. both (A) and (C)
Ans: D
61. Criminal liability of a corporation arises
when: D. Section 397 of IPC
A. an offence is committed in the course of Ans: A

corporation’s business by the person in control
65. Which of the following does not fall under
of its affairs
the category of the word “Judge” as coined in
B. an offence is committed in the course of Section 19?
corporation’s business by a person in control
A. Magistrate
whose thought and intent becomes thought and
intent of the corporation B. Member of a Panchayat
C. Both (A) and (B) C. Collector
D. None of them D. Businessman
Ans: C Ans: D
62. Extortion by a putting a person in fear of 66. Which of the following amendment added
death or grievous is dealt under Clause 11 and Explanation 4 in Section 21 of
IPC?
A. Act XXXIX, 1920
B. Adaptation of Laws Order, 1950
C. Act II, 1950
10 | www.lawfoyer.in
D. Anti-Corruption Act, 1964 69. X is an owner of a property and he owe some

money to Y. X has not been able to pay the due
Ans: B
and Y forcibly took possession of his property
67. In which of the following case the principle against his will to pressurise him into paying up
was held by the Supreme Court that where a his debts.
subsequent Act incorporates provisions of a
A. Y has all the authority to do so
previous act, the burrowed provisions become
an integral and independent part of the B. X no longer has right over his property
subsequent Act and are totally unaffected by any
C.Y is guilty of theft
repeal or amendment in the Prevention Act,
does not apply? D. None of them
A. where the subsequent Act and the previous Ans: C
Act are supplemental to each other
70. In a certain case in Delhi the accused
B. where the two Acts are pari material and proposed marriage of his son with the gentleman
where the amendment of the previous Act either of a daughter who was pregnant with someone
expressly or by necessary intendment, applies else’s child (a fact that has not been concealed).
the said provisions to the subsequent Act However he concealed the fact that his son is
suffering from a mental disorder the gentleman
C. where the amendment in the previous Act if
marries his daughter to his son then the accused:
not imported into the subsequent Act would
render the Act unworkable and ineffectual A. cannot be hold guilty because even the
gentleman’s daughter is at fault
D. all of them
B. is prima facie guilty of cheating due to the
Ans: D
element of wrongful gain involved
68. Which of the following is not relevant to the
C. cannot be accused as it the gentleman’s
practice and procedures of Section 22 of IPC?
responsible to the ascertain complete fact
A. does not provide definition of “public concerning the would be bridegroom
servant”
D. none of them
B. no court can take cognizance of any offence
Ans: B
against a public servant except with the previous
sanction of the Central Government or the State 71. Oral threat or inducement allegedly given by
Government as per the provisions of Section lawyers to approver not to give any statement
197 Cr. P.C against accused:
C. the protection is available to a person, if on (a) amounts to commission of offence
the date of commission of offence he was public
servant irrespective of his subsequent (b) does not amount to commission of offence
retirement, resignation, dismissal or even (c) can attract discretion of the court to consider
removal as offence
D. deals with extra territorial applicability but (d) none of the above.
does not define any substantive offence or
procedure Ans. (b)
Ans: D 72. Theft under section 379 IPC is not tenable

if:
(a) property is not a movable property (a) child below 7 years of age
(b) property cannot be moved in order to such (b) child below 8 years of age
taking
(c) child between 7 and 10 years of age
(c) subject-matter is not a property
(d) child between 7 and 12 years of age having
(d) both (a) & (b). maturity of understanding.
Ans. (d) Ans. (d)
73. If the appellants are liable to be convicted 77. Under the general principle of Criminal
only for their individual acts then: Law, the jurisdiction to try a person for an
offence depends upon:
(a) section 34 IPC can be invoked
(a) place where such person is found
(b) section 34 IPC cannot be invoked
(b) place where crime committed within local
(c) section 149 IPC can be invoked
area
(d) section 149 IPC cannot be invoked.
(c) the nationality of the offender
Ans. (b)
(d) none of the above.
74. When all the incriminating facts and
Ans. (b)
circumstances are found to be incompatible with
the innocence of the accused then: 78. The imprisonment for the offence of
molestation under IPC amounts to:
(a) the inference of guilt can be justified
(a) imprisonment upto 2 years
(b) the inference of guilt cannot be justified
(b) imprisonment upto 1 year
(c) benefit of doubt should be given
(c) imprisonment upto 6 months
(d) imprisonment upto 3 months
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
75. In which case the Supreme Court held that
if a student and teacher fall in love with each 79. In which of the following cases the Supreme
other, it does not mean that the teacher has Court held that “Doctors cannot be held guilty
taken undue advantage of his official position: only because something has gone wrong”:
(a) Geejaganda Somaiah v. State of Karnataka (a) Maniben v. State of Gujarat, AIR 2010 SC
(2007) 1261
(b) Sanjay v. State of Maharashtra (2007) (b) Southern Railway Officer v. Union of India,
AIR 2010 SC 1241
(c) Omkar Prasad Verma v. State of Madhya
Pradesh (2007) (c) Tameswar v. Ramvishal, AIR 2010 SC 1209
(d) Kailash v. State of Madhya Pradesh (2007) (d) Malaya Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar, AIR
2010 SC 1162.
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
76. Under the Indian Penal Code who among
the following is liable for committing theft: 80. As per section 195A of IPC which was
inserted by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act,
2005 the offence of threatening any person to 83. “A” gave poisoned “Halwa” (sweet dish) to
give false evidence, is punishable with: “B” with intention to kill him. “B” ate one spoon
and kept it on the side. “C” who was sitting there,
(a) imprisonment upto 7 years or with fine or
picked up and ate it. “C” dies. Here “A” is guilty
with both
of:
(b) imprisonment upto 5 years or with fine or
(a) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
with both
(b) Offence of murder of “C”
(c) imprisonment upto 3 years or with fine or
with both (c) Here “A” is not guilty of murder as he never
intended to kill “C”
(d) imprisonment upto 1 year or with fine or with
both (d) Causing grievous hurt.
Ans. (a) Ans. (b)
81. As per section 153AA of IPC, which was 84. The term “Harbour” defined under Indian
inserted by the Code of Criminal Procedure Penal Code, 1860, does not include:
(Amendment) Act, 2005, the punishment for
(a) Supplying a person with shelter
knowingly carrying arms in any procession or
organising or holding or taking part in any mass (b) Supplying a person means of conveyance
drill or mass training with arms, is punishable
with: (c) Assisting a person to evade apprehension
(a) imprisonment upto 6 months and with fine (d) Prior to the commission of the offence,
upto Rs. 2,000 facilitating the commission thereof.
(b) imprisonment upto 3 months and with fine Ans. (d)

upto Rs. 2,000 85. When a women was taking bath in her
(c) imprisonment upto 2 months and with fine bathroom, “X” captures the image in his mobile
upto Rs. 2,000 and upload it on her facebook page. What
offence has been committed by “X”:
(d) imprisonment upto 1 month and with fine
upto Rs. 2,000. (a) Sexual assault
Ans. (a) (b) Insulting the modesty of a woman
82. The Information Technology (Amendment) (c) Voyeurism

Act, 2008 (10 of 2009) with effect from 27 (d) Stalking.
October, 2009 which amended the Indian Penal
Code in section 464, substituted “Electronic Ans. (c)
Signature” for: 86. Read the following:
(a) Digital signature (1) There is either theft or extortion in robbery
(b) Documentary Evidence (2) The offence of theft becomes robbery when
(c) Digital certificate it is coupled with danger to life.
(d) Electronically certified signature. Of the above:
Ans. (a) (a) (1) is true but (2) is false.
(b) (1) is false but (2) is true,
(c) (1) and (2) both are true. (d) None of the above.
(d) (1) and (2) both are false. Ans. (a)
Ans. (c) 90. ‘Z’ is carried off by a tiger. ‘A’ fires at the tiger
knowing it to be likely that the shot may kill Z
87. Read the following:
but not intending to kill Z; and in good faith
(1) Indian Courts have jurisdiction to try crime intending Z’s benefit. A’s bullet gives Z a mortal
committed by an Indian in a foreign country. wound. A shall be guilty of:
(2) Indian Courts do not have jurisdiction to try (a) Murder

crime committed by a foreigner in India.
(b) Culpable homicides not amounting to
Of the above: murder
(a) (1) is true but (2) is false. (c) Causing death by accident
(b) (1) is false but (2) is true. (d) No offence.
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true. Ans. (d)
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false. 91. In which of the following cases, recently the
Supreme Court has upheld the
Ans. (c) constitutional validity of a criminal statute in
88. Read the following: “offences against the order of the nature”:
(1) The maxim “Actus me invito factus non est (a) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of
mens acts” finds application in Section 94 of India
I.P.C. (b) Charu Khurana v. Union of India
(2) The maxim “diminmis non curat lex” has (c) Jaya Bhaduri v. Union of India
been incorporated in Section 95 of I.P.C.
(d) Suresh Kumar Khushal v. Naz Foundation.
Of the above:
Ans. (d)
(a) (1) is true but (2) is false.
92. Robbery is dacoity when the minimum
(b) (1) is false but (2) is true. number of persons committing robbery is:
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true. (a) 10 persons
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false. (b) 5 persons
Ans. (c) (c) 6 persons
89. In which case the Supreme Court of India (d) 4 persons
has said that the time has come when Section
309 of the I.P.C. should be deleted by Ans. (b)
Parliament:
93. Shatrughan Chauhan v. Union of India,
(a) Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union of (2014) 3 SCC 1 is the case related to:
India
(a) giving false evidence before the court
(b) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
(b) waging war against the state
(c) Both of the above
(c) commutation of death sentence to life (b) (1) is false but (2) is true
imprisonment
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false.
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
94. ‘A’ claiming to be a family planning expert
97. “A” under the influence of unsoundness
gave ‘X’ some chemical. After consuming the
attempt to kill “B”. “B” in attempting to defend
chemical, the child in the womb of ‘X’ dies in
himself caused grievous hurt to “A”. Here:
the womb. ‘A’ has committed:
(a) “A” is liable for attempt to murder and “B” is
(a) No offence
liable for causing hurt
(b) Offence of murder
(b) “A” commits no offence and “B” is liable for
(c) Offence of culpable homicide not amounting grievous hurt
to murder
(c) “B” commits no offence and “A” is liable for
(d) Offence of causing miscarriage. attempt to murder
Ans. (d) (d) Both “A” and “B” are excused from liability.
95. ‘A’ by falsely pretending to be in the civil Ans. (d)

service, intentionally deceives ‘Z’, and thus
98. In which of the following Sections of I.P.C.
dishonestly induces ‘Z’ to let him have on credit
‘preparation’ is punishable:
goods for which he does not mean to pay. ‘A’
has committed: (a) Sections 121, 125, 398
(a) Cheating by personation (b) Sections 122, 125, 399
(b) Cheating (c) Sections 122, 126, 399
(c) Extortion (d) Sections 121, 126, 398.
(d) None of the above. Ans. (c)
Ans. (b) 99. Which of the following is not “sine qua non”
for making a person criminally liable:
96. Read the following:
(a) Actus reus
(1) R. v. Mcnaughten is the case related with
insanity as a defence. (b) Mens rea
(2) R. v. Govinda is the case related with (c) Motive
common intention.
(d) All the above.
Of the above:
Ans. (c)
(a) (1) is true but (2) is false
PRACTICE SET – III
101. What should be the age of minor to (c) without the consent of a woman but with the
constitute the offence of kidnapping: consent of her husband
(a) 16 years (d) with the consent of a minor girl.
(b) 18 years Ans. (a)
(c) below 16 years in case of male and below 18 105. The expression “unsoundness of mind”:
years in case of female
(a) is not defined in I.P.C.
(d) Below 18 years in case of male and below 21
(b) is defined in I.P.C.
years in case of female.
(c) is not treated as equivalent to insanity
Ans. (c)
(d) is not general exception in I.P.C.
102. ‘A’ having joint property with Z in a horse,
intending thereby to cause wrongful loss to Z, Ans. (a)
shoots the horse. Under what section of I.P.C.
‘A’ shall be charged with: 106. State of A.P. v. R. Punnayya case deals with
distinction between which of following sections
(a) Section 426 of Indian Penal Code:
(b) Section 429 (a) Sections 501 and 502
(c) Section 437 (b) Sections 299 and 300
(d) Section 438. (c) Sections 304A and 304B
Ans. (b) (d) Sections 305 and 306.
103. ‘A’ has consensual sexual relations with ‘Z’s Ans. (b)
wife. She gives to ‘A’ a valuable property which
‘A’ knows to belong to her husband ‘Z’ and she 107. Which sections of Indian Penal Code
has no authority from ‘Z’ to give. ‘A’ takes the provides for the offences relating to the Army,
property dishonestly. Which one of the Navy and Air Force:
following offences has been committed by ‘A’: (a) Sections 171A to 171-1
(a) Criminal breach of trust (b) Sections 124 to 129
(b) Theft and criminal breach of trust (c) Sections 131 to 140
(c) Theft (d) Sections 165 to 171.
(d) Criminal misappropriation. Ans. (c)
Ans. (c) 108. In which case the court made a clear
104. Adultery is an offence committed: distinction between ‘common intention’ and
‘similar intention’:
(a) with the consent of a married woman
(a) Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. King Emperor
(b) with the consent of a woman
(b) Mahboob Shah v. King Emperor
(c) Kripal Singh v. State of U.P. 112. Which of the following sections have been
inserted in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 by the
(d) Rishi Deo Pandey v. State of U.P.
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, namely:
Ans. (b)
A. Section 376A
109. Which is not the ‘stolen property’:
B. Section 376B
(a) Possession whereof was obtained by cheating
C. Sections 166A, 166B, 354C
(b) Possession whereof was obtained by robbery
D. All of the above.
(c) Possession whereof was obtained by extortion
Ans. D
(d) Possession whereof was obtained by criminal
113. According to Criminal Law (Amendment)
breach of trust.
Act, 2013, the right of private defence of the
Ans. (a) body extends to the voluntary causing of death
or of any other harm to the assistant if the
110. In which of the following cases, the offence offence which occasions the exercise of the right
of ‘house-breaking’ is committed: is the act of:
(a) A commits house-trespass by entering Z’s A. Stalking
house through the door, having lifted a latch by
putting a wire through a hole in the door B. Voyeurism
(b) A finds the key of Z’s house-door, which Z C. Acid Attack

had lost, and commits house-trespass, by
entering Z’s house through that key
Ans. C
(c) Z, the doorkeeper of Y, is standing in Y’s
doorway. A commits house-trespass by entering 114. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw
the house, having deterred Z from opposing him acid is an offence punishable under Indian Penal
by threatening to beat him Code, 1860, under:
(d) All these. A. Section 326A
Ans. (d) B. Section 326B
111. Consider the following statement and select C. Section 228A

the correct answer:
D. Section 228.
A. All the recommendations of the Justice
Ans. B
Verma Committee are incorporated in the
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 115. A demand or request for sexual favour
from a woman is punishable offence under
B. Some of the recommendations of the Justice
Indian Penal Code, 1860, under:
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 A. Section 354A
C. Most of the recommendations of Justice B. Section 354B
Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 C. Section 354C
D. None of the above. D. Section 354D.
Ans. D Ans. A
116. A man shall be guilty of the offence of B. common intention and overt act both be
sexual harassment under section 354A of Indian proved
Penal Code, 1860, if he commits:
C. common intention need not be proved but
(i) Physical contact and advances involving overt act be proved
unwelcome and explicit sexual overtures.
D. all the above.
(ii) A demand or request for sexual favours.
Ans. A
(iii) Showing pornography against the will of a
120. Section 34 of IPC:
woman.
A. creates a substantive offence
(iv) Making sexually coloured remarks.
B. is a rule of evidence
A. (i) and (ii)
C. both (a) and (b)
B. (i) and (iii)
D. neither (a) nor (b).
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans. B
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv).
121. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’. ‘X’ stood on
Ans. D
guard with a spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at
117. A man is said to commit “rape” if he all. Y killed ‘Z’:
penetrates his penis, to any extent, into the
A. only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of Z
________ of a woman:
B. ‘X’ & ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’
A. Vagina
C. ‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform any
B. Mouth
overt act
C. Urethra or Anus
D. both (a) & (c).
Ans. B
Ans. D
122. ‘Voluntarily’ has been defined as an effect
118. When a man inserts, to any extent, any caused by means whereby a person intended to
object or a part of the body, not being the penis, cause it or by means, at the time of employing
into the vagina, the urethra or anus of a woman those means, know or had reason to believe to
or makes her to do so with him or any other be likely to cause it under:
person, he commits:
A. section 39
A. Rape
B. section 38
B. Sexual Harassment
C. section 37
C. Sexual Assault
D. section 40.
D. None of the above.
Ans. A
Ans. A
123. Under section 45 of IPC, life denotes:
119. To establish section 34 of IPC:
A. life of a human being
A. common intention be proved but not overt
B. life of an animal
act be proved
C. life of human being and of an animal both B. has to be wholly simple
D. life of either human being or animal. C. can be partly rigorous and partly simple
Ans. A D. either (a) or (b).
124. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes: Ans. C
A. death of a human being 129. Sentence of imprisonment for non-

payment of fine under section 64 of IPC:
B. death of an animal
A. shall be in excess of any other imprisonment
C. death of a human being and of an animal both
to which an offender has been sentenced
D. death of either human being or an animal.
B. shall be concurrent of any other
Ans. A imprisonment
125. Illegal signifies: C. shall not be in excess of any other

imprisonment
A. everything which is an offence
D. both (b) & (c).
B. everything which is prohibited by law
Ans. A
C. everything which furnishes ground for civil
action 130. Under section 65 of IPC sentence of
imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall be
D. all the above. limited to:
Ans. D A. one-third of the maximum term of
126. Animal denotes: imprisonment fixed for the offence
A. any living creature including human being B. one-fourth of the maximum term of
imprisonment fixed for the offence
B. any living creature other than a human being
C. one-half of the maximum term of
C. any creature – live or dead imprisonment fixed for the offence
D. either (a) or (c). D. equal to the maximum term of imprisonment
Ans. B fixed for the offence.
127. How many types of punishments have been Ans. B

prescribed under the Indian Penal Code: 131. In case of an offence punishable with fine
A. three only, imprisonment for non-payment of fine:
B. six A. has to be rigorous
C. five B. has to be simple
D. four. C. can be rigorous or simple
Ans. C D. can be partly rigorous and partly simple.
128. Under section 60 of IPC, in certain cases of Ans. B

imprisonment, the sentence of imprisonment: 132. Under section 498A of IPC cruelty
A. has to be wholly rigorous includes:
A. harassment of the woman 136. Imprisonment for non-payment of fine

shall terminate:
B. physical cruelty only
A. on payment of fine
C. mental cruelty only
B. on expiry of the term of imprisonment for
D. cruelty by wife.
non-payment
Ans. A
C. both (a) & (b)
133. In case of an offence punishable with fine
only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine
of not exceeding Rs. 100 but exceeding Rs. 50, Ans. C
the imprisonment in default of payment of fine
137. In case of imprisonment for non-payment
shall not exceed:
of fine, if a part of the fine is paid, such sentence:
A. two months
A. shall be reduced proportionately
B. three months
B. shall not be reduced in direct proportion to
C. four months the fine paid
D. six months. C. shall be reduced but subject to the discretion

of the court as to the quantum of reduction
Ans. C
D. all of the above.
134. In case of an offence punishable with fine
only, an offender who is sentenced to pay a fine Ans. A
exceeding Rs. 100, the imprisonment in default
138. Section 73 of IPC provides for the
of payment of fine shall not exceed:
maximum limit of solitary confinement to be:
A. one year
A. one year
B. six months
B. two years
C. four months
C. three months
D. two months.
D. six months.
Ans. B
Ans. C
135. Section 64 of IPC provides for:
139. If an offender has been sentenced to
A. nature & maximum limit of imprisonment for imprisonment not exceeding six months, the
non-payment of fine solitary confinement:
B. nature & minimum limit of imprisonment for A. shall not exceed 15 days
non-payment of fine
B. shall not exceed one month
C. nature but does not prescribe any limit of
C. shall not exceed two months
imprisonment for non-payment of fine
D. shall not exceed forty-five days.
D. limit of imprisonment for non-payment of
fine but does not prescribe the nature of Ans. B
imprisonment.
140. If an offender is sentenced to
Ans. C imprisonment for a term exceeding six months
but not exceeding one year, the term of solitary A. mistake of fact in good faith believes himself
confinement: to be bound by law to do it
A. shall not exceed one month B. mistake of law in good faith believes himself
to be bound by law to do it
B. shall not exceed forty-five days
C. mistake of fact believes himself to be bound
C. shall not exceed two months
by morals to do it
D. shall not exceed three months.
D. all the above.
Ans. C
Ans. A
141. If an offender is sentenced to
145. Under section 79, nothing is an offence
imprisonment for a term exceeding one year, the
which is done by a person who is justified by law
term of solitary confinement shall not exceed:
or who by reason of mistake of fact in goodfaith
A. one month believes himself to be:
B. two months A. bound by law to do it
C. three months B. justified by law to do it
D. six months. C. bound by morality to do it
Ans. C D. all the above.
142. Nothing is said to be done or believed to be Ans. B

done in goodfaith which is done or believed
146. The maximum ‘ignorantia juris non
without due care & intention – is the definition
excusat’ means:
of goodfaith contained in:
A. ignorance of law is no excuse
A. section 29 of IPC
B. ignorance of fact is no excuse
B. section 29A of IPC
C. ignorance of law is an excuse
C. section 52 of IPC
D. ignorance of fact is an excuse.
D. section 52A of IPC.
Ans. A
Ans. C
147. Section 76 & section 79 of IPC provide the
143. General exceptions are contained in:
general exception of:
A. chapter III of IPC
A. mistake of law
B. chapter IV of IPC
B. mistake of fact
C. chapter V of IPC
C. both mistake of law and fact
D. chapter VI of IPC.
D. either mistake of law or of fact.
Ans. B
Ans. B
144. Section 76 provides that nothing is an
148. Accident as an exception has been dealt
offence which is done by a person who is or who
with in:
by reason of:
A. section 77
B. section 78 D. all the above.
C. section 80 Ans. A
D. section 82. 150. The principle as to the way in which a man

should behave when he has to make a choice
Ans. C
between two evils is illustrated in:
149. Under section 80, the exception of accident
is available when an offence is committed while:
B. section 81 of IPC
A. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by lawful
means C. section 82 of IPC
B. doing a lawful act in any manner by any means D. section 78 of IPC.
C. doing a lawful act in a lawful manner by any Ans. B

means
PRACTICE SET – IV
151. Who was the President of the drafting A. If, in any construing the relevant provisions,
committee of the Indian Penal Code? “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will be
resolved against the person who would be liable
A. Lord William Bentinck
to the penalty.
B. Lord Curzon
B. If, in any construing the relevant provisions,
C. Lord Macaulay “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will be
resolved in the favour of the person who would
D. Lord Irwin be liable to the penalty.
Ans. C C. If, in any construing the relevant provisions,
152. Assault or use of criminal force on a woman “there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will
with intent to outrage her modesty is dealt under- attract life imprisonment.
A. Section 354 of IPC D. If, in any construing the relevant provisions,

“there appears any doubt of ambiguity,” it will
B. Section 355 of IPC attract capital punishment.
C. Section 356 of IPC Ans. B
D. Section 357 of IPC 156. Which of the following matches is incorrect
Ans. A relative to the use of the English law?
153. Under which name the Indian Penal Code A. Sections 96 to 106 of the Code – can be
came into application in Jammu and Kashmir? interpreted on the basis of principles governing
self defence under the English law
A. Indian Legislative Act
B. Reliance on case decided under the English
B. Ranbir Penal Code law – misleading
C. Indian Penal Act C. In defamation cases the court must with
reference – Section 499
D. Mahomedan Act
D. Indian Penal Code is based on – English
Ans. B
Common Law in respect to the major offences
154. Assault or use of criminal force in an which are universally applicable
attempt to wrongfully confine a person is dealt
Ans. A
under-
157. Putting or attempting to put a person in fear
of death or grievous hurt in order to commit
B. Section 358 of IPC extortion is dealt under-
C. Section 359 of IPC A. Section 385 of IPC
D. Section 360 of IPC B. Section 386 of IPC
Ans. A C. Section 387 of IPC
155. Which of the following is the principle D. Section 388 of IPC

applied in construing a penal Act?
Ans. C C. a criminal intent, a guilty knowledge and

wilfulness
158. actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea
means? D. All of the above
A. a deed, a material result of human conduct Ans. D
B. the intent and act must both concur to 162. The appellant stabbed the deceased in the
constitute the crime abdomen. The deceased was taken promptly to
hospital and the wound was stitched but few days
C. putting to death
later he died. The evidence showed that at the
D. uncommended manner time of death the wound had healed. But due to
terramycin injection being given in excess lungs
Ans. B had become over logged and caused pneumonia
159. X added potassium cyanide into Y’s drink on the question of causation:
intending to kill him. However, Z also happened A. The appellant can be acquitted
to sip from Y’s glass. They both died. The
medical report claimed that Y actually died of a B. The appellant cannot be acquitted
cardiac arrest, as the poisonous substance
C. The appellant and the doctor both cannot be
administered was insufficient to cause his death.
acquitted
In addition, Z died due to the effect of the
poison. So: D. The doctor must be acquitted
A. X is liable for the death of Y and not for the Ans. A

death of Z
163. Habitually dealing in stolen property is
B. X is not liable for the death neither of Y nor dealt under-
of Z
C. X is liable for the death of both Y and Z
D. X is liable for the death of Z only
Ans. B
160. Cheating and thereby dishonesty inducing
Ans. C
delivery of property, or the making alteration or
destruction of a valuable security is dealt under- 164. Cheating is dealt under-
A. Section 417 of IPC A. Section 417 of IPC
B. Section 418 of IPC B. Section 418 of IPC
C. Section 419 of IPC C. Section 419 of IPC
D. Section 420 of IPC D. Section 420 of IPC
Ans. D Ans. A
161. Literally, mens rea means: 165. Even though a man’s knowledge that a
particular consequence will probably result from
A. guilty mind
his act is sometimes an insufficient basis for
B. a guilty or a wrongful purpose saying that he intends it, there are strong reasons
for holding that as a legal matter he can be held
to intend something that he knows for sure he is 169. A had an argument with B and asked her to
doing. This is called: go leave him alone and go home. B refused and
A struck her on the head and rendered her
A. skewed intent
unconscious. A dragged B to the parking lot
B. oblique intent during which B’s head hit the pavement which
caused her death.
C. hypothetical intent
A. A is not responsible for her death as that was
D. square intent not the intent
Ans. B B. A is only responsible for assaulting her
166. In which of the following cases mens rea is C. A is responsible for B’s death as the death was
not an essential ingredient for offences under- caused due A’s negligence
A. Revenues Acts D. None of them
B. Public nuisance Ans. C
C. Criminal case which are in summary mode 170. Presumption of culpable mental state of a
D. All of these person as per Section 10-C of the IPC includes:
Ans. D I. Intention
167. During house trespass or house-breaking in II. Motive

order to the commission of an offence III. Knowledge of fact
punishable with imprisonment and if the offence
is theft is dealt under- IV. Belief in or reason to believe a fact
A. Section 169 of IPC A. I and II only
B. Section 170 of IPC B. I and III only
C. Section 171 of IPC C. II, III and IV only
D. Section 454 of IPC D. I, II, III and IV
Ans. D Ans. D
168. Defamation against the President or the 171. Grievous hurt caused whilst committing
Governor of a State or Administrator of a Union lurking house trespass or house breaking is dealt
Territory or Minister in respect of his conduct in under-
the discharge of his public functions when
instituted upon a complaint made by the Public
Prosecutor is dealt under- B. Section 459 of IPC
A. Section 497 of IPC C. Section 460 of IPC
B. Section 498 of IPC D. Section 461 of IPC
C. Section 498A of IPC Ans. B
D. Section 500 of IPC 172. Dishonesty breaking open or unfastening

any closed receptacle containing or supposed to
Ans. D
contain property is dealt under-
A. Section 458 of IPC resulting from the acts of some individuals must
depend on:
A. nature of the offense disclosed by the
allegations in the complaint or in the charge
D. Section 461 of IPC sheet
Ans. D B. the relative position of the officer or agent vis-

a-vis the corporate body
173. A President of a Pharmaceutical Company
for introducing into interstate commerce drugs C. other relevant facts and circumstances which
that were misbranded. The President pleaded could show the corporate body as such meant or
lack of knowledge of this fact? intended to commit that act
A. The President must be convicted D. all of them
B. The President must be acquitted Ans. D
C. The President and the company must be 177. Automation in legal sense implies:
convicted
A. self-acting of performance or involuntary acts
D. none of them
B. without any knowledge of acting or action
Ans. A
C. with no consciousness of what is being done
174. False statement, rumour, etc, with intent to
D. all of them
create enmity, hatred or ill-will between different
classes is dealt under- Ans. D
A. Section 169 of IPC 178. Which of the following is false about the
presumption of innocence?
A. this holds good in all kinds of trials including
criminal trials
B. in this case the crime must be brought to a
Ans. B prisoner
175. X an employee of Y was driving the vehicle C. it can be easily rebutted

which was without insurance. Y was convicted
D. graver the crime, the greater will be the
for violation of Road Traffic Act, 1988, who was
degree of doubt that is reasonable
not even driving the vehicle at that time. Y
appealed against it in the court. Ans. C
A. the conviction should be upheld 179. Which of the following is pointed out by
the Supreme Court regarding the rejection of the
B. the conviction must be set aside
prosecution case on paltry ground?
C. both the X and Y must be convicted
A. The public are generally reluctant to come
D. only X must be convicted forward to depose before the court hence it not
correct to reject the prosecution version on the
Ans. B ground that all witnesses to the occurrences have
176. The question whether a corporate body not been examined.
should or should not be liable for criminal action
B. Invariably the witnesses add embroidery to the document is one of the description
the prosecution story, perhaps for the fear of mentioned in section 466 of the Indian Penal
disbelief, which is not a ground to throw the case Code is dealt under-
overboard.
C. It is not proper to reject the case for want of
corroboration by the independent witnesses if
the case made out is otherwise true or C. Section 473 of IPC
acceptable.
D. All of them
Ans. D
Ans. D
184. In which of the following case the Supreme
180. Enticing or taking away or detaining with a Court pointed out this fact in relation to the
criminal intent a married woman is dealt under- above question?
A. Section 497 of IPC A. State of Punjab v. Bhajan Singh (1975)
B. Section 498 of IPC B. M.S. Sheriff v. State of Madras (1954)
C. Section 498A of IPC C. Tika v. State of UP (1974)
D. Section 500 of IPC D. None of them
Ans. B Ans. B
181. Which of the following is not true of the 185. Attempting to commit offences punishable
absence of explanation from the accused? with imprisonment of life or imprisonment, and
in such attempt doing any act towards the
A. it is not sufficient to rebut so strong a
commission of the offence is dealt under-
presumption as that of innocence
B. it is capable of being taken into account to
corroborate other evidence B. Section 511 of IPC
C. proof of guilt can be inferred from the mere C. Section 512 of IPC
absence of explanation
D. it is not material
Ans. B
Ans. C
186. Which of the following is the facet of audi
182. Forgery is dealt under- alteram partem?
A. Section 464 of IPC A. notice of the case to be met
B. Section 465 of IPC B. good faith
C. Section 466 of IPC C. opportunity to explain
D. Section 467 of IPC D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. B Ans. D
183. Having possession of a document, knowing
it to be forged, with intent to use it as genuine; if
187. In respect to cases instituted otherwise than and fraudulently opening the same is dealt
on Police report, under which section charges under-
are framed?
A. Section 240 Cr. PC.
B. Section 246 Cr. PC.
C. Section 256 Cr. P.C.
D. None of them
Ans. A
Ans. B
192. Under which of the following a corporation
188. False statement rumour, etc., made in place is indictable?
of worship etc, with intent to create enmity
A. Vicarious liability
hatred or ill-will is dealt under-
B. Personal liability for breach of statutory duty
C. Personal liability on the basis of attributing to
the corporation the conduct and state of mind of
C. Section 505 of IPC an individual
D. Section 302 of IPC D. All of them
Ans. C Ans. D
189. Under which section of the IPC a person 193. X participated in the child marriage of Y in
irrespective of his nationality can be held guilty another country. Both X and Y were still Indian
and is liable to punishment for any offence citizens at the time the marriage took place.
within India?
A. Y is liable for punishment under Section 3
A. Section 2 of IPC
B. Y is not liable as the marriage took place on a
B. Section 5 of IPC foreign soil
C. Section 7 of IPC C. Both X and Y are liable for punishment

under Section 3
D. Both (A) and (C)
D. None of them
Ans. A
Ans. C
190. Mischief committed after preparation made
for causing death, or hurt, etc. is dealt under- 194. Running vessel ashore with intent to
commit theft, etc. dealt under-
Ans. C
Ans. B
191. Being entrusted with any closed receptacle
containing or supposed to contain any property,
195. Which of the following section makes all Ans. D

the offences under the Code without exception
198. Knowingly selling goods marked with
to be extra territorial?
counterfeit property mark is dealt under-
A. Section 2
B. Section 4
C. Section 5
D. Section 7
Ans. B
Ans. B
196. Kidnapping or abducting a woman to
199. Over which of the following admiralty
compel her marriage or to cause her defilement
jurisdiction extends?
etc. is dealt under-
A. Offences committed on Indian ships on the
seas
B. Offences committed on foreign ships in
C. Section 367 of IPC Indian territorial waters
D. Section 368 of IPC C. Piracy
Ans. B D. All of them
197. Extradition is: Ans. D
A. to surrender of one State to another of a 200. Which of the following is true about special
person desired to be dealt with crimes of which law?
he has been accused or convicted and which are
A. relates to a particular subject
justifiable in the Courts of the other countries
B. applies only to a particular part of the country
B. a political act done in pursuance of a treaty or
an arrangement ad hoc C. excise, opium and cattle trespass act
C. it can be sought on either in terms of treaty or D. both (A) and (C)
on reciprocal arrangement
Ans. D
D. all of them
PRACTICE SET – V
201. On refusal to disclose the name and 205. False statement in connection with elections
address of the printer is dealt under- is dealt under-
A. Section 489 D of IPC A. Section 170 G of IPC
B. Section 489 E of IPC B. Section 171 G of IPC
C. Section 490 of IPC C. Section 172 G of IPC
D. Section 491 of IPC D. Section 173 G of IPC
Ans. C Ans. B
202. Which of the following section of the IPC 206. Promoting enmity between classes in place
does not affect the provisions of any Act for of worship, etc. is dealt under-
punishing mutiny and desertion of officers,
A. Section 153A of IPC
soldiers, sailors or airmen in the service of the
Government of India or the provisions of any B. Section 154A of IPC
special or local law?
C. Section 155A of IPC
A. Section 3 of IPC
D. Section 156A of IPC
B. Section 4 of IPC
Ans. A
C. Section 5 of IPC
207. A, surgeon, in good faith communicates to
D. Both (A) and (C) a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The
patient dies in consequence of the shock.
Ans. C
A. A is guilty as he should have withheld the
203. The law of contempt is exercised in case of:
communication
A. contempt committed in facie curiae
B. A is not guilty as he rightly discharged his
B. contempt committed in generalia specialibus duties
non derogrant
C. A is not guilty as he did not give any false
C. contempt committed in ultra vires hopes
D. contempt committed in ad hoc D. Both (B) and (C)
Ans. A Ans. D
204. Robbery is dealt under- 208. The defendant was set to watch his master’s
premises. He saw a man on the garden wall and
hailed him and then shot at him aiming at his
B. Section 392 of IPC legs. He missed and shot the deceased whom he
had not seen.
A. the defendant is justified in shooting the
D. Section 394 of IPC deceased
Ans. B B. the defendant is guilty of manslaughter
C. the defendant is not guilty as his own life was 213. A person is stated to be partially incapax
danger under section 83, IPC if he is aged:
D. none of them A. above seven years and under twelve years
Ans. B B. above seven years and under ten years
209. The motive under section 81 of IPC should C. above seven years and under sixteen years
be:
D. above seven years and under eighteen years.
A. prevention of harm to person
Ans. A
B. prevention of harm to property
214. Section 83 of IPC lays down:
C. both (a) and (b)
A. a presumption of fact
D. either (a) or (b).
B. an inconclusive or rebuttable presumption of
Ans. D law
210. ‘Infancy’ as an exception has been provided C. conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of law
under:
D. irrebuttable presumption of fact.
A. section 80
Ans. B
B. section 81
215. Section 82 of IPC lays down the rule of:
C. section 82
A. wholly incapax
D. section 84.
B. partially incapax
Ans. C
C. both (a) & (b)
211. Section 82 of IPC provides that nothing is
an offense which is done by a child under:
Ans. A
A. six years of age
216. Under section 82 & section 83 of IPC an
B. seven years of age
offense is punishable if it is done by a child:
C. nine years of age
A. of below seven years of age
D. ten years of age.
B. of above seven years of age but below twelve
Ans. B years if he has not attained sufficient maturity
and understanding
212. Section 82 of IPC enunciates:
C. of above seven years of age but below
A. a presumption of fact
twelve years having attained sufficient maturity
B. a rebuttable presumption of law and understanding
C. a conclusive or irrebuttable presumption of D. all the above.

law
Ans. C
D. none of the above.
217. Which of the following pair is not correctly
Ans. C matched:
A. Mens Rea – R. v. Prince
B. Necessity – D.P.P. v. Beard C. moral insanity
C. Insanity – Mc’Naughten case D. unsoundness of mind of any kind.
D. Intoxication – Basudeo v. State of Pepsu. Ans. B
Ans. C 212. Irresistible impulse is a defence:
218. The maxim ‘actus non facit rea nisi mens A. in India
sit rea’ means:
B. in England
A. crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
C. in India and England both
B. there can be no crime without a guilty mind
D. neither in India nor in England.
C. crime is the result of guilty mind
Ans. D
D. criminal mind leads to crime.
213. A hangman who hangs the prisoners
Ans. B pursuant to the order of the court is exempt
from criminal liability by virtue of:
219. “In every statute, mens rea is to be implied
unless the contrary is shown.”: A. section 77 of IPC
This view was expressed in- B. section 78 of IPC
A. Sherras v. De Rutzen C. section 79 of IPC
B. R. v. Dudley & Stephen D. section 76 of IPC.
C. Harding v. Price Ans. B
D. R. v. Prince. 214. Insanity as a defence means that a person at

the time of doing an act, by reason of
Ans. A
unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing:
220. Which of the following is correct for the
A. the nature of the act
aforesaid:
B. that what he is doing is wrong
I. The physical aspect of crime is actus reas.
C. that what he is doing is contrary to law
II. The mental aspect of crime is mens rea.
D. either (a) or (b) or (c).
III. The motive is the desire to commit crime
Ans. D
A. I & II are correct but III is not correct
215. Which of the following is correct:
B. only II & III
A. the burden of proof that the accused was not
C. only II & III
insane at the time of commission of offence is on
D. all the above. the prosecution
Ans. D B. the burden of proving that the accused was

insane at the time of commission of offence is on
211. Section 84 of IPC provides for: the accused
A. medical insanity
B. legal insanity
C. there is a rebuttable presumption of fact that Ans. B

accused was insane at the time of commission of
220. In cases where the act involves a specific
the offence
mens rea, in cases of intoxication under section
D. it is a matter of inference to be drawn by the 86 of IPC:
court on the facts proved by the prosecution.
A. the existence of mens rea is presumed
Ans. B
B. the specific mens rea is not presumed
216. For unsoundness of mind, the impairment
C. the specific mens rea depends upon the
of the cognitive faculty of mind to escape
attending circumstances & the degree of
criminal liability:
intoxication
A. must be total
B. must be partial
Ans. C
C. both (a) & (b)
221. The doctrine ‘volenti nonfit injuria’ is
D. none of the above. contained in:
Ans. A A. section 87 of IPC
217. Intoxication as defence is contained in: B. section 88 of IPC
A. section 85 of IPC C. section 89 of IPC
B. section 86 of IPC D. all the above.
C. section 87 of IPC Ans. D
D. both (a) & (b). 222. The defence of ‘consent’ applies to:
Ans. D A. private wrongs
218. For a defence of intoxication, to escape B. public wrongs

criminal liability, the degeneration of mental
C. both (a) & (b)
faculties:
A. must be total
Ans. A
B. must be partial
223. The defence of ‘consent’ is restrictive in its
C. both (a) & (b)
applicability in cases involving:
D. only (b) above is correct & (a) is incorrect.
A. alienable rights
Ans. A
B. inalienable rights
219. For a defence of intoxication, to escape
C. both (a) &(b)
criminal liability, the intoxication:
A. can be self-administered
Ans. B
B. administered against his will or knowledge
224. The defence of ‘consent’ is not available in
C. should not be self-administered
cases of:
D. all the above.
A. consent to cause death A. excuses the causing of death
B. consent to cause grievous hurt B. excuses causing of any offence against the
state punishable with death
C. both (a) & (b)
C. both (a) & (b)
Ans. C
Ans. D
225. Operation of consent to all offences, short
of causing death intentionally, has been 229. The maxim ‘de minimus non curat lex’
extended under: means:
A. section 88 of IPC A. law would not take action on small & trifling
matter
B. section 90 of IPC
B. law does not ignore any act which causes the
slightest harm
D. section 87 of IPC.
C. law would not take action in serious matters
Ans. A
D. all the above.
226. Under section 89 the consent in respect of
Ans. A
infants under 12 years of age or persons of
unsound mind: 230. The principle ‘de minimus non curat lex’ is
contained in:
A. can be given by their guardians without any
restriction A. section 92 of IPC
B. can be given by the guardian subject to B. section 93 of IPC

restrictions mutually agreed upon
C. can be given by the guardians subject to
restrictions imposed by law
Ans. D
D. all the above.
231. The right of private defence is contained in:
Ans. C
227. The consent is not a valid consent under
section 90: B. section 95 of IPC
A. if given under a fear of injury or C. section 96 of IPC
misconception of fact
B. if given by a person of unsound mind
Ans. C
C. if given by a child below 12 years of age
232. The right to private defence is based on the
D. all the above. natural instinct of:
Ans. D A. self-preservation
228. Consent given under compulsion arising B. self-respect
out of threat of injury:
C. self-sufficiency
D. self-reliance. 237. Under section 98 right to private defence

also is available against a:
Ans. A
A. person of unsound mind
233. The right to private defence is:
B. person who does not have maturity of
A. unrestricted
understanding
B. subject to restriction contained in section 99
C. both (a) & (b)
of IPC
C. subject to restrictions contained in Chapter
IV of IPC Ans. C
D. subject to restrictions contained in any other 238. Every person has a right of private defence
provision of IPC. of his own body and the body of any other
person against any offence affecting the human
Ans. B
body, has been provided:
234. Right to private defence is:
A. under section 96 of IPC
A. available under all circumstances
B. under section 97 of IPC
B. available where there is time to have the
C. under section 98 of IPC
recourse to the protection of public authorities
D. under section 99 of IPC.
C. available where there is no time to have
recourse to the protection of public authorities Ans. B
D. all of the above. 239. Under Article 32 a writ petition can be

made to the Supreme Court by a person who
Ans. C
himself has suffered only. Under which of the
235. The law on private defence in India: following, a relative or friend of a person
aggrieved can file a writ petition:
A. is the same as in England
A. Habeas Corpus
B. is narrower than the one in England
B. Mandamus
C. is wider than the one in England
C. Certiorari
Ans. C
Ans. A
236. The right to private defence is available with
respect to: 240. The right guaranteed under Article 32 can
be suspended:
A. harm to body
A. by the Parliament
B. harm to movable property
B. by the State Legislature
C. harm to immovable property
C. by the Supreme Court of India
D. all the above.
D. when proclamation of emergency is in
Ans. D operation.
Ans. D
241. Petitions to the Supreme Court under 245. Under Article 32:
Article 32 are subject to the rule of Res judicata
A. time limit can be imposed on filing of
except:
petitions and so the Indian Limitation Act
A. Quo Warranto applies
B. Habeas Corpus B. there is no lower and upper limit. The party

aggrieved must move the court at the earliest
C. Certiorari
possible time and it is the discretion of the court
D. Prohibition. to decide whether it is reasonable delay or not.
Ans. B C. time limit can be imposed by council of

ministers
242. The right given by Article 32:
A. cannot be abrogated by the Act of Legislature
Ans. B
B. cannot be abrogated unless the Constitution
itself is amended 246. According to Article 30 ‘minorities’ have
the right for the administration of educational
C. can be altered by the State Legislature institutions:
D. none of the above. A. which have been established by them only
Ans. B B. which not necessarily have not been
243. The Supreme Court has power under established by them but belong to their religion
Article 32 to issue directions or orders or writs or language
in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, C. Article 30 does not speak about minority but
prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari: deals with Scheduled Tribes only
A. only when there is a question of D. none of the above.
enforcement of a fundamental right
Ans. B
B. when there is a question of internal disputes
among communal groups 247. According to Articles 25 and 26, what
constitutes an essential part of religion or
C. when there is a question of election disputes religious practice is to be decided by the court
D. when there is a question of riotous situation. on the basis of:
Ans. A A. doctrines of particular religion
244. Under which one of the following cases the B. by referendum

traditional rule of filing petition only by the C. by majority
person aggrieved except in the case of habeas
corpus is relaxed: D. by convening a religious meeting.
A. Trilokchand Moichand v. H.B. Munshi Ans. A
B. Joginder Nath v. UOI 248. The fundamental rights as envisaged under

Articles 12-35 are:
C. Rabindranath Bose v. UOI
A. absolutely flexible
D. Upendra Baxi v. State of UP.
B. can be amended
Ans. D
C. not justiciable 252. In case of A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras,

the Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was found
D. cannot be amended at all.
conflicting with the two Articles:
Ans. B
A. Articles 14 and 17
249. Right of disabled employee as equal citizens
B. Articles 19 and 21
not to be defeated by their superiors and they
have no right to defeat their lawful rights: C. Articles 23 and 25
A. Sunil Poddar v. Union Bank of India D. Articles 23 and 32.
B. Mani v. State of Tamil Nadu Ans. B
C. Bhagwan Dass v. Punjab State Electricity 253. Which section of Preventive Detention
Board Act, 1950 was declared ultra vires by the
Supreme Court in case of A.K. Gopalan v. State
D. None of the above.
of Madras:
Ans. C
A. Article 17
250. In the case of People’s Union for
B. Article 11
democratic Rights v. UOI:
C. Article 14
A. non-payment of minimum wages is violative
of Article 21 D. Article 19.
B. the decision in this case did not hearld for Ans. C

right to live with basic human dignity
254. In a Calcutta case, Manager of a Bank took
C. Article 21 does not envisage right to live with security for overdraft from the customer and
human dignity caused the security to be entered into the books
of the banks. The Manager shortly afterwards
returned the security to the customer before
Ans. A satisfaction of the overdraft. The fact of return of
security was mentioned in the books of accounts.
251. The protection given to the accused under
Article 20(3) against compulsion ‘to be witness’ A. The Manager acted dishonesty under Section
also includes ordinary documentary and 24
testimonial evidence:
B. The customer acted of dishonesty under
A. the protection given under Article 20(3) is not Section 24
attracted by the above statement
C. both the Manager and the customer acted
B. the protection given under Article 20(3) is dishonestly under Section 24
attracted by the above statement
D. Neither of them is guilty
C. witness means other than an accused to whom
Ans. C
protection is not given
255. One Mrs. Komai bought a car on the name
of her daughter, Kiran, who is a minor, and got
Ans. B the insurance policy transferred on her name
(Mrs. Komal). The car met with an accident on
two counts and she file for a claim on both the
counts, from the insurance agency. She
acknowledged the receipt of the money as Kiran. D. it is a penal provision

The insurance company her prosecuted under
Ans. D
Section 467 of the IPC alleging fraud on the
appellant’s part? 259. In a case P, a married lady was found in a
pool of blood and lying on the ground. On the
A. Mrs. Komal is guilty of forgery because she
way to hospital in ambulance she breathed her
made the insurance company believed that she
last. It transpired in the evidence that when P was
is Kiran
seated outside her jhuggi, her brother came near
B. Mrs. Komal is not guilty of forgery because her and challenged as to why she made a
the said deceit did not secure her any advantage complaint against her own brother R to the
as the entire transaction was that of Mrs. Komal police, Her other brother R and Sharma too
came. There was an altercation wherein Sharma
C. Mrs. Komal is guilty of forgery because she
stabbed her to death. Which of the following is
signed all the papers in the name of Kiran
true regarding this particular case?
D. Both (A) and (C)
A. As to the vicarious liability of R & C, that the
Ans. B accused Sharma was not carrying an open knife
in his hand and there was no evidence to show
256. Dishonest misappropriation of property, that this fact was in the knowledge of the other
knowing that it was in possession of a deceased accused.
person at his death and that it has not since been
in the possession of any person legally entitled to B. Sharma had not given any call to his brothers
it is dealt under- that P should be stabbed to death. Otherwise all
the accused had not come together and for that
A. Section 402 of IPC reason it is difficult to assume that all had a prior
B. Section 403 of IPC meeting of mind to cause the death of their
sister.
C. The words used by C were to teach P a lesson
D. Section 405 of IPC for making false accusations. Keeping in view the
Ans. C close relationship, it is difficult to assume that all
of them had shared the common intention to kill
257. 148 Criminal breach of trust is dealt under- P. Under these circumstances, there is no reason
to rope C and R by aid of Section 34, IPC and
they were acquitted.
D. All of them
Ans. D
260. Belonging to gang of persons associated for
Ans. A the purpose of habitually committing dacoity is
dealt under-
258. Which of the following is false of Section
34 of the Indian Penal Code? A. Section 398 of IPC
A. it is only a rule of evidence B. Section 399 of IPC
B. it does not create a distinct offence C. Section 400 of IPC
C. lays down principle of liability D. Section 401 of IPC
Ans. C B. Some active participation in crime is required

in S. 34 while it is not needed in S. 149
261. Buying or obtaining possession of a minor
for the same purposes is dealt under- C. S. 34 speaks of common intention while S.
149 contemplates common object
D. S. 34 requires at least five persons who must
share the common intention while S. 149
C. Section 373 of IPC requires at least two persons to share the
common intention
Ans. D
Ans. C
265. A attacks Z under such circumstances of
262. Which of the following does not attract grave provocation that his killing of Z would be
Section 34 of the IPC? only culpable homicide not amounting to
A. the accused husband killed his wife and threw murder. B, having ill-will towards Z, and
her dead body into the well to the knowledge of intending to kill him and not having been subject
co- accused. As yet co-accused took the false to the provocation, assists A in killing Z. Which
plea that on date and hour incident the deceased of the following judgment under Section 38 of
was present in the house. IPC applies to A and B?
B. the accused was involved in looting the victims A. A is guilty of culpable homicide and B is guilty
in broad daylight on the main public road. Main of murder
accused indulged in looting but co-accused was B. B is guilty of culpable homicide and A is guilty
simply standing nearby. of murder
C. Driver and cleaner of a bus when form a C. Both A and B are guilty of culpable homicide
common intention to kill the deceased and in
pursuance of the plan kill him and take away the D. Both A and B are guilty of murder
sale proceeds of the grain sold by him
Ans. A
D. all of them except the co-accused in B.
266. The basic principle which runs through
Ans. D Section 32 to 38 of IPC is that:
263. Habitual dealing in salves is dealt under- A. in certain circumstances some part of the act
is attributed to a person who may have
A. Section 371 of IPC performed only a fractional part of it.
B. Section 372 of IPC B. in certain circumstances an entire act is
C. Section 373 of IPC attributed to a person who may have performed
only a fractional part of it.
C. in certain circumstances an entire act is
Ans. A attributed to a person who may have performed
264. Which of the following is false of Section the whole of it.
34 and Section 149 of the IPC? D. in certain circumstances no act is attributed to
A. S. 34 does not by itself create any specific a person who may have performed only a
offence whereas S. 149 does so fractional part of it.
Ans. B
267. Abetment of any offence, if the act abetted D. all of them

is committed in consequence, and where no
Ans. D
express provision is made for its punishment is
dealt under- 271. Several persons assemble at the door of the
house of one K and the appellant struck a blow
with a kencha which fell on the left thigh of a
B. Section 110 of IPC workman working in the house of one K whom
the appellant and others wanted to attack, and as
the appellant struck at the very first person who
D. Section 112 of IPC opened the door and that was how that came to
receive the injury.
Ans. A
A. every person is guilty of vicarious liability
268. A quarrel arose between C on the one side excluding the appellant
and A and B on the other. C abused A,
whereupon A struck him with a stick, and B B. only the appellant is to be convicted for the
struck him down with an axe on the head. He said injury
also received two other wounds with the axe on
C. none is guilty of vicarious liability
the other parts of the body. Any one of the three
axe wounds was sufficient enough to cause D. none of them
death, especially the one on the head.
Ans. B
A. C is guilty for voluntarily provoking the attack
272. Abetment of any offence when one act is
while B is guilty of culpable homicide
abetted and a different act is done; subject to
B. A is guilty of culpable homicide, while B is proviso is dealt under-
guilty of voluntarily causing hurt
C. B is guilty of culpable homicide, while A is
guilty of voluntarily causing hurt
D. Both A and B are guilty of culpable homicide
Ans. C
Ans. C
269. All about ‘intention’ is true except one:
273. In a case the accused was convicted u/s. 325
A. is a state of mind
I.P.C. and was sentenced by trial Court to two
B. is an objective element months R.I. with fine of Rs. 500 for offence
under S. 325 I.P.C. The trial pended for seven
C. rarely susceptible to proof
long years.
D. always a matter of inference
A. the sentence is improper for an offence under
Ans. B Section 325 I.P.C
270. The word ‘illegal’ is applicable to B. the sentence is proper and appropriate
everything:
C. the accused should be sentenced to fine and
A. which is an offence imprisonment till the rising of Court
B. which is prohibited by law D. both (A) and (C)
C. which furnishes ground for civil action Ans. D
274. A gives Z fifty strokes with a stick. Here A Ans. C

may have committed the offence of voluntarily
275. Abetment of any offence, punishable with
causing hurt to Z by the whole beating and also
death or imprisonment for life, if the offence be
by each of the blows which make up the whole
not committed in consequence of the abetment
beating. As per Section 71 of IPC which of the
is dealt under-
following should be the punishment?
A. A is liable for every blow and should be
imprisoned for fifty years one for each blow B. Section 116 of IPC
B. A is only liable for blows he delivered on the C. Section 117 of IPC
victim
C. A is liable to one punishment for the whole
beating Ans. A
D. A should be separately punished for beating

and delivering blows
∆∆∆

Indian Penal Code MCQ Booklet

Uploaded by

Document Information

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Indian Penal Code MCQ Booklet

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

lOMoAR cPSD| 14133740

INDIAN PENAL CODE

Disclaimer: LawFoyer reserves no copyright on the compiled content,

A. October 3, 1850 A. Section 374 A of IPC

B. October 5, 1852 B. Section 375 A of IPC

C. October 6, 1860 C. Section 376 A of IPC

D. October 7, 1865 D. Section 377 A of IPC

A. Section 373 B of IPC

A. Section 385 of IPC 11. Fraudulent removal or concealment of

B. Section 412 of IPC

C. Section 413 of IPC D. both (B) and (C).

D. Section 414 of IPC Ans: D

Ans: D 19. Lurking house trepass or house-breaking is

A. it refers to mental element necessary for the B. Section 453 of IPC

B. it has no application 23. Presumption of culpable mental state is a

Ans: C D. if it is a person under Section 14 of the Penal

B. cases of public nuisance, libel and contempt C. it is a case of automatism

Ans: D be investigated__________ Letting guilty is not

C. Uma Shankar v. State of UP (1979) C. Section 473 of IPC

D. Dhram Das Dadhwani v. State of UP (1974) D. Section 474 of IPC

A. Section 493 of IPC A. The civil suit should be stayed

B. Section 494 of IPC B. The criminal case should be stayed

C. Section 495 of IPC C. The civil suit should be quashed

D. Section 496 of IPC D. Both should be simultaneously carried out

D. Section 364 A of IPC A. Section 485 of IPC

Ans: D B. Section 486 of IPC

51. Piracy covers: Ans: C

A. jure gentium 55. Extortion by threat of accusations of an

A. Section 489 D of IPC D. Section 391 of IPC

B. Section 489 E of IPC Ans: A

C. Section 490 of IPC 56. Robbery if committed on the highway

A. Section 6 and Section 7 of IPC A. denotes a person officially designated as a

Ans: C C. denotes of a body of persons which is

A. certain crimes because of their nature cannot Ans: D

A. an offence is committed in the course of Ans: A

C. Both (A) and (B) C. Collector

D. None of them D. Businessman

D. Anti-Corruption Act, 1964 69. X is an owner of a property and he owe some

Ans: D 72. Theft under section 379 IPC is not tenable

Ans. (d) Ans. (d)

Ans. (a) Ans. (b)

(b) imprisonment upto 3 months and with fine Ans. (d)

Ans. (a) (b) Insulting the modesty of a woman

82. The Information Technology (Amendment) (c) Voyeurism

(d) Electronically certified signature. Of the above:

Ans. (a) (a) (1) is true but (2) is false.

(b) (1) is false but (2) is true,

(d) (1) and (2) both are false. Ans. (a)

(2) Indian Courts do not have jurisdiction to try (a) Murder

(b) (1) is false but (2) is true. (d) No offence.

(c) Both (1) and (2) are true. Ans. (d)

95. ‘A’ by falsely pretending to be in the civil Ans. (d)

PRACTICE SET – III

(a) 16 years (d) with the consent of a minor girl.

(b) 18 years Ans. (a)

(b) A finds the key of Z’s house-door, which Z C. Acid Attack

(d) All these. A. Section 326A

Ans. (d) B. Section 326B

111. Consider the following statement and select C. Section 228A

D. None of the above. D. Section 354D.

C. life of human being and of an animal both B. has to be wholly simple

Ans. A D. either (a) or (b).

124. Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes: Ans. C

A. death of a human being 129. Sentence of imprisonment for non-