Sri Sathya Sai Institute of Higher Learning: Second Semester Examinations, April 2019

UAEN-201
Sri Sathya Sai Institute of Higher Learning

(Deemed to be University)
Vidyagiri, Prasanthi Nilayam
B.A./B.A.(Hons)/B.Sc./B.Sc.(Hons)/B.Com.(Hons)/B.B.A./B.C.A./B.P.A.(Music)
Second Semester Examinations, April 2019
PART–I(B) : ANOTHER LANGUAGE : : ADDITIONAL ENGLISH
Additional English: Literature and Life–II

Duration : 3 Hours 15/04/2019 Max. Marks : 100
Note: 1. Answer Sections A, B & C in the answer book provided.
2. Time allotted for Section–A is 20 minutes; hand over Section–A of the Question Paper back to the
Invigilator, after answering it in the first twenty minutes.
3. Comply with the instructions given in the Main Answer Book carefully.
SECTION – A
(20 Marks)
IA) Read the passage and answer, in a sentence or two, the questions that follow:
(5x2=10 Marks)
In the Middle Ages, the Roman Church burned books that dared present contradictory view–points.
Authors who failed to heed this warning risked being burned at stake. Though we no longer live in the
Dark Ages, we are naturally disturbed by the burning of Arun Shourie's book – Worshipping False Gods –
by some Members of Parliament recently. They claimed that Shourie had twisted facts, misquoted Dr.
Ambedkar, to make him appear anti–national, instigated prejudice and violence against the Dalits. And so
they demanded a ban. The reasons given by the Roman Church for burning books and authors too, were
disturbingly similar. The Church too professed to be a guardian of morality and order, and accused
liberals from Galileo to Voltaire of twisting facts, hurting the sentiments of people, proclaiming untruths,
sowing seeds of conflict and encouraging violence. Our book–burning Members of Parliament may feel
outraged by Shourie's book, but should remember that the Roman Church felt no less outraged in its time.
The progress of civilization lies in rising above such narrow outlook and honoring dissent. Voltaire once
said – "I might disagree with what you say but I will defend to death your right to say it.”
(Excerpt from “Books Are Not for Burning” by Swaminathan S. Aiyar)
1. Why did the Roman Church burn books?
2. What happened to the authors who remained unaffected by this warning?
3. What charges were foisted against Arun Shourie?
4. How is the progress of civilization realized?
5. Provide synonyms for the words ‘profess’ and ‘dissent’.
IB) Fill in the blanks with appropriate words from the prescribed text. (5x1=5 Marks)
6. And ________ must be the storm–

That could _____ the little Bird….
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7. It is only stupid people who take remarks too________, as we say; that is, who do not look for the real
meaning in the ____________ people make.
8. You have to look above and how you look does not depend upon this ____________ or that
_____________; it depends on the nature of man.
9. All pessimism has a secret ________ for its ___________.
10. In all battles two things are usually required of the Commander-in-Chief: to make a good_______ for his
army and, secondly, to keep a strong _______.
IC) Match the words in Column A with those in Column B. (5x1=5 Marks)
‘A’ ‘B’
11. Emily Dickinson A) Punch
12. E.V. Lucas B) Indian Philosophy
13. John Keats C) The World Crisis
14. S. Radhakrishnan D) The Bird of Time
15. Sir Winston Churchill E) “Because I could not stop for death”
F) “Ode on a Grecian Urn”
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PART–I(B) : ANOTHER LANGUAGE : : ADDITIONAL ENGLISH
Additional English: Literature and Life–II

SECTION – B
(40 Marks)
II. Annotate ANY THREE of the following in about 150 words each. (3x5=15 Marks)
1. “Some things must go wrong your whole life long,

And the sooner you know it the better.”
2. “What care I for the world’s loud weariness,

Who dream in twilight granaries Thou dost bless
With delicate sheaves of mellow silence?”
3. “To the ungodly it is a day jeopardized by an interest in barometers that is almost too poignant.”
4. “It is an adventure of mind, an imaginative adventure of mind.”
III. Answer ANY ONE of the following questions in about 150 words. (1x5=5 Marks)
5. Elaborate J. C. Hill’s views on ‘good manners’.
6. Describe how Churchill in his “Painting as a Pastime” likens painting to fighting a battle.
IV. Answer ANY ONE of the following questions in about 150 words. (1x5=5 Marks)
7. Show how the mood of optimism pervades, “As you go through life” by Ella Wheeler Wilcox.
8. Capture the jubilation of the soul of the poet in “In Salutation to the Eternal Peace”.
V. Answer ANY ONE of the following questions in about 350 words. (1x15=15 Marks)
9. Keats pines for hope, amidst sordid realities of life – Discuss.
10. Discuss how G. K. Chesterton sees having both legs as the beauty of God’s image in man.
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SECTION – C
(40 Marks)
VI. Answer ANY TWO of the following questions in about 250 words. (2x10=20 Marks)
11. Recall the plot of “The Bishop’s Candlesticks”.
12. Narrate what happened at the trial of Billy Scott in the play “The Trial of Billy Scott”.
13. Trace the supernatural atmosphere in “The Monkey’s Paw”.
14. Discuss the ill-effects of the ‘hire purchase system’ as exemplified in the play “The Never–Never Nest”.
VII. Do as directed: (5x2=10 Marks)
15. Audacious (Supply the Noun and Adverb forms)
16. Despondency (Supply the Adjective and Adverb forms)
17. Estrangement (Supply the Verb form and Antonym)
18. Propagate (Supply the Noun form and Synonym)
19. Swindle (Make a meaningful sentence)
VIII. Provide the meaning of ANY ONE of the proverbs and expand it into a paragraph.
(1x10=10 Marks)
20. Least said, soonest mended.
21. A danger foreseen is half avoided.
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PART-I(B) : ANOTHER LANGUAGE : : ADDITIONAL ENGLISH
Additional English: Literature and Life-II

2. Time allotted for Section-A is 20 minutes; hand over Section-A of the Question Paper back to the
SECTION – A
(20 Marks)
I.A) Read the passage and answer, in a sentence or two, the questions that follow:
(5x2=10 Marks)
In today’s corporate world, where global competition, technical advancement, team-based management
and multi-cultural workforce are the order of the day, what is more important than technical skills is a
cluster of soft skills. In India, the most common reasons top companies reject applicants are inadequate
basic employability skill such as language proficiency, courtesy, teamwork, self-confidence etc. In his
article, ‘The Growing Need for Soft Skills’, Brad Eldredge asserts that “Employees’ soft skills, or lack
thereof, can affect a firm’s bottom line.” He points out to the findings of Benjamin Schneider’s research
that reveals the indispensability of soft skills in industries. Schneider observes that “in operations as
diverse as bank branches, insurance companies, credit card call centres and hospitals… the service climate
predicted business results.” Thus, there is an urgent need to offer courses in soft skills in academia in
addition to the traditional curriculum. Even in industries considered highly technical and staffed by
technically-oriented people, customer-focused soft skills can make a big contribution to profitability. Peter
Drucker in his book The Practice of Management makes a strong case for soft skills by stating that, “As
soon as you move one step from the bottom, your effectiveness depends on your ability to reach others
through the spoken or written word. This ability to express oneself is perhaps the most important skill a
person can possess.”
Soft skills are essentially people skills – the non-technical, intangible, personality-specific skills that
determine our strengths as a leader, listener, negotiator, and conflict mediator. Hard skills are more along
the lines of what might appear on our resume: education, experience and expertise. Very interestingly,
employers value soft skills, because research suggests that they are a reliable indicator of job performance
in terms of cognitive ability and work efficiency.
– From Soft Skills and Personality Development
1. What are soft and hard skills?
2. What has research on soft skills revealed?
3. How do an individual’s soft skills impact his career trajectory?
4. Why do many Indian graduates fail to get jobs?
5. Define and use the term people skills in a sentence of your own.
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I.B) Fill in the blanks with appropriate words from the prescribed text. (5x1=5 Marks)
6. The tree of life is sustained ___________, the tree of death ___________.
7. Let us, then, be up and doing, with a heart for any fate;
still achieving, still pursuing, learn to ___________ and to ___________.
8. This lonely leg on which I rest has all the simplicity of some ___________.
9. Should ___________, parent of Despair,

Strive for her son to seize my ___________ heart.
10. Sarojini Naidu is also known by the sobriquet ___________.
I.C) Match the words in Column A with those in Column B. (5x1=5 Marks)
‘A’ ‘B’
11. G.K. Chesterton A) Fireside and Sunshine
12. E.V. Lucas B) The Monkey’s Paw
13. Stanley Houghton C) Thoughts and Adventure
14. Emily Elizabeth Dickinson D) Slant Rhyme
15. Sir Winston Churchill E) “The Dear Departed”
F) Prince of Paradox
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PART-I(B) : ANOTHER LANGUAGE : ADDITIONAL ENGLISH

SECTION - B
(40 Marks)
1. “And sings the tune without the words – And never stops – at all”
2. “What care I for the world’s desire and pride,

Who know the silver wings that gleam and glide
The homing pigeons of Thine eventide?”
3. “It is only stupid people who take remarks too literally, as we say; that is, who do not look for the real
meaning in the statements people make.”
4. “It is a Sufi poet who said that there are as many ways to God as there are human hearts.”
5. Elaborate on Chesterton’s idea of ‘small worries’.
6. Provide the characteristics of any two days of the week as enunciated by E.V. Lucas.
7. Discuss Wilcox’s perspective of God in “As You Go Through Life”.
8. Comment on Keats’ conviction that hope is the only panacea for all despair.
9. Deliberate upon the central idea of the poem, “The Psalm of Life”.
10. Discuss Churchill’s views on painting as a pastime.
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SECTION – C
(40 Marks)
11. Attempt a character sketch of the Convict from “The Bishop’s Candlesticks”.
12. Describe in detail, the defence that Billy Scott presents to the jury, for the charge levelled against him.
13. Elaborate on how the playwright humorously depicts greed in “The Dear Departed”.
14. Analyse the three main characters of the play, “The Never Never Nest”.
15. Provoke (Supply the Noun form and Synonym)
16. Felicity (Supply the Synonym and make a meaningful sentence)
17. Annoyance (Supply the Verb form and Antonym)
18. Cessation (Supply the Antonym and Synonym)
19. Instantaneous (Make a meaningful sentence)
(1x10=10 Marks)
20. Cut your coat according to your cloth.
21. Believe all that you see nor half what you hear.
S S S 
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Second Semester Examinations, May 2021

SECTION – A
(20 Marks)
I.A) Read the passage and answer, in a sentence or two, the questions that follow:
(5x2=10 Marks)
There are thousands of languages in the world today. Some of them are strong languages spoken by many
millions of people, while others are spoken by smaller groups of people, sometimes numbering in the
hundreds. As languages die, benefits accrue to human society, but also drawbacks. It is certainly not
advantageous for everybody everywhere. From a practical point of view, having fewer languages can lead
to greater ease in communication. This is because when people share a language, then information and ideas
can flow more easily, which is of utmost importance in a globalised world. In addition, there is an economic
advantage, or economies of scale, since information can be presented in written form in greater bulk,
meaning there is no need for translations, which can be costly. Thus, internationally, the flow of ideas and
information is facilitated through the common language.
There is another side, though. First of all, those who have lost a language have also lost a culture, a way of
expressing themselves, and a way of understanding the world and their experience of the world. They will
never be able to express themselves fully in their new language. Secondly, the quality of communication in
the common language is limited. The reason for this is that people are writing and reading in an acquired
language, not the mother tongue. Also, this acquired language may simply be unable to express some of the
culturally-bound ideas of the non-native speaker.
In brief, then, language death is a tragedy. Those whose language dies lose part of their identity, and a way
to give expression to their deep thoughts and feelings. For the rest of the world, there is a loss of diversity.
Along with the language, a whole culture and way of expressing this culture die. Things of deep human
value that could be expressed before are now silenced.
1. How does the author view the death of a language?
2. What is the loss of a language equated with?
3. Is an acquired language similar to or different from a mother tongue? How?
4. Are the deaths of languages beneficial in some way?
5. a) Pick a word from the passage that is synonymous to disadvantage, flaw, downside.
b) Pick a word from the passage that relates to details, particulars, knowledge.
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B) State whether the following sentences from the prescribed texts are TRUE or FALSE.
(5x1=5 Marks)
6. Apart from writing poetry, Henry Wadsworth Longfellow also wrote novels.
7. Slant rhyme is also called near rhyme or perfect rhyme.
8. Experiments are sometimes made by experts to find out how many errors people so make in their statements.
9. An Introduction to Citizenship is among J. C. Hill’s lesser known works.
10. G. K. Chesterton’s humorous style earned him the title ‘Prince of Paradox’.
C) Match the Following: (5x1=5 Marks)
‘A’ ‘B’
11. Winston Churchill A) “Solitude”
12. John Keats B) Harvest Home
13. Norman McKinnel C) The Broken Wings
14. E. V. Lucas D) Philosopher
15. Dr. Radhakrishnan E) Romantic Poet
F) Thoughts and Adventures
G) Bishop’s Candlesticks
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SECTION - B
(40 Marks)
1. “It is folly to fight with the Infinite,

And go under at last in the wrestle;”
2. “So, when dark thoughts my boding spirit shroud,

Sweet Hope, celestial influence round me shed,
Waving thy silver pinions o‘er my head.”
3. “I’ve heard it in the chillest land-

And on the strangest sea-
Yet, never, in Extremity,
It asked a crumb- of me.”
4. “All pessimism has a secret optimism for its object.”
5. Winston Churchill compares painting with fighting a battle. Do you agree? Justify your stand.
6. Why, according to J. C. Hill, are good manners important in a society?
7. “The purpose is not to experience pleasure or sorrow, but ―to act.” Elaborate.
8. How does Sarojini Naidu juxtapose the ecstasy of the soul with the materialistic world?
9. Justify the title of the essay “The Town Week” by E. V. Lucas.
10. Discuss Dr Radhakrishnan’s views on humanities vis-à-vis science.
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SECTION – C
(40 Marks)
11. Define the role of the bishop in the play The Bishop’s Candlesticks.
12. Briefly discuss the testimonies given by Mrs. Noun, Addie Adjective and Adam Adverb during the trial of
Billy Scott.
13. How does the playwright humorously depict greed in the play The Dear Departed?
14. Elaborate on the theme of the play The Monkey’s Paw.
15. Bivouac (Supply the Meaning and use it in a sentence of your own)
16. Incorrigible (Supply the Meaning and use it in a sentence of your own)
17. Atheist (Supply one Antonym and Synonym each)
18. Ostentatious (Supply the Noun form and use it in a sentence of your own)
19. Gallivant (Supply the Meaning and use it in a sentence of your own)
(1x10=10 Marks)
20. From hearing comes wisdom, from speaking repentance.
21. A civil denial is better than a rude grant.
≈≈≈≈≈
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B.A/B.A.(Hons)/B.Sc./B.Sc.(Hons)/B.Com(Hons)/B.B.A/B.P.A.(Music)

SECTION – A
(20 Marks)
IA) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow in a sentence or two,:
(5x2=10 Marks)
Insect behaviour generally appears to be explicable in terms of unconscious stimulus-response
mechanisms; when scrutinized, it often reveals a stereotyped, inflexible quality. A classic example is the
behaviour of the female sphex wasp. In a typical case, the mother leaves her egg sealed in a burrow
alongside a paralyzed grasshopper, which her larva can eat when it hatches. Before she deposits the
grasshopper in the burrow, she leaves it at the entrance and goes inside to inspect the burrow. If the
inspection reveals no problems, she drags the grasshopper inside by its antennae. Scientific experiments
have uncovered an inability on the wasp's part to change its behaviour when experiencing disruptions of
this routine.
Charles Darwin discovered that if the grasshopper's antennae are removed, the wasp will not drag it into
the burrow, even though the legs or ovipositor could serve the same function as the antennae. Later Jean-
Henri Fabre found more evidence of the wasp's dependence on predetermined routine. While a wasp was
performing her inspection of a burrow, he moved the grasshopper a few centimetres away from the
burrow's mouth. The wasp brought the grasshopper back to the edge of the burrow, then began a whole
new inspection. When Fabre took this opportunity to move the food again, the wasp repeated her routine.
Fabre performed his disruptive manoeuvre forty times, and the wasp's response never changed.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
2. Explain the ‘inflexible insect behaviour’ with an example from the passage.
3. Which word in the passage serves the same function for the wasp as the grasshopper’s antennae. Does the
wasp use it in its operation?
4. How does Jean-Henri Fabre strengthen the insect behaviour theory?
5. Pick a word each from the passage that is antonymous to the following words:
a) incomprehensible,
b) quiet.
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B) State whether the following sentences from the prescribed texts are ‘TRUE’ or ‘FALSE’
(5x1=5 Marks)
6. Emily Elizabeth Dickinson was born to a successful family with strong communist ties.
7. Slant rhyme is also called rhyme royal.
8. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman to become the Governor of Andhra Pradesh state.
9. Dante ‘s Divine Comedy was translated into English by Henry Wadsworth Longfellow.
10. J. C. Hill’s “Good Manners” is an extract from his famous book An Introduction to Democracy.
IC) Match the words in Column A with those in Column B: (5x1=5 Marks)
‘A’ ‘B’
11. Winston Churchill A) Thinker
12. John Keats B) “prince of paradox”
13. Mazie Hall C) “The Broken Wings”
14. G.K. Chesterton D) Boer War
15. Dr. Radhakrishnan E) Hellenism
F) Adam Adverb
G) Punch
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B.A/B.A.(Hons)/B.Sc./B.Sc.(Hons)/B.Com(Hons)/B.B.A/B.P.A.(Music)

SECTION - B
(40 Marks)
1. “The wiser man shapes into God‘s plan

As water shapes into a vessel.”
2. “What care I for the world‘s desire and pride,

Who know the silver wings that gleam and glide,
The homing pigeons of Thine eventide?”
3. “And sweetest - in the Gale - is heard -

And sore must be the storm -
That could abash the little Bird
That kept so many warm -.”
4. “It takes two to speak the truth-one to speak, and

another to hear.”
5. Discuss Churchill’s observations on Painting as illustrated in “Painting as a Pastime”.
6. ‘To appreciate anything we must always isolate it’. Justify the statement with reference to the essay, ‘The
Advantages of Having One Leg’
7. With Hill’s views in mind, bring out the significance of good manners in life.
8. Attempt a thematic analysis of the poem ‘A Psalm of Life’.
9. Justify the title of the essay “The Town Week” by E. V. Lucas.
10. Recount Dr. Radhakrishnan’s views on Humanities and Religion as enunciated in his “Science,
Humanities and Religion.”
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SECTION - C
(40 Marks)
11. Discuss in detail the basic tenets of Christianity from the play, The Bishop’s Candlesticks.
12. Describe how things take a turn for a naïve couple who capitalizes on the concept of EMI in The Never-
Never Nest.
13. Bring out the moral of the play The Dear Departed?
14. Trace the supernatural element in the play The Monkey’s Paw.
15. Abstract (Supply the Meaning and use it in a sentence of your own)
16. Emanate (Supply the Meaning and use it in a sentence of your own)
17. Gallivant (Supply one Antonym and Synonym each)
18. Seize (Supply the Noun form and use it in a sentence of your own)
19. Trifle (Supply the Meaning and use it in a sentence of your own)
VIII. Provide the meaning of ANY ONE of the following proverbs and expand it into a paragraph.
(1x10=10 Marks)
20. A soft answer turns away wrath.
21. An archer is known by his aim, not by his arrows.
@@@@@
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UCHM–201

Bachelor of Science (Honours)

PART–II : CHEMISTRY
Chemistry: Inorganic, Organic and Physical Chemistry–I

SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
I. Answer the following questions. Each question carries ONE Mark.
A) Choose the correct answer:
1. The colour of potassium is
A) crimson B) yellow C) lilac D) blue
2. Bulk quantities of group I and group II elements are required for living beings mainly for
A) balancing electric charges.

B) maintaining osmotic pressure inside the cells.
C) keeping the cells turgid and prevent its collapse.
D) all the above.
3. The following isomers cannot be separated.
A) configurational B) constitutional C) conformational D) cis–trans
4. The rate constant for the second–order reaction between bromoethane and hydroxide ions in water is
8.5×10–4 Lmol–1s–1 at 45o C and the activation energy of the reaction is 89 kJmol–1. What is the value of
pre–exponential factor (A) for the reaction?
A) 2.07 × 10–18 Lmol–1s–1 B) 3.491× 1011 Lmol–1s–1

C) 8.79 ×10–4 Lmol–1s–1 D) 1.08 × 1018 Lmol–1s–1
5. The following element forms nitrides.
A) Li B) Na C) Rb D) Cs
6. LiOH is _________ in water.
A) explosive B) soluble C) insoluble D) sparingly soluble
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7. Be(OH)2 is
A) acidic B) basic C) amphoteric D) neutral
8. The hydration energy is the highest for
A) Ba2+ B) Be2+ C) Cs+ D) Li+
9. Which among the following is most soluble in water?
A) BeF2 B) MgF2 C) CaF2 D) SrF2
10. Which is the most stable alkene among the following?
A) ethene B) propene C) 2–butene D) 1–butene
11. Two bromine atoms on adjacent sp3 carbons are __________.
A) vinylic B) vicinal C) geminal D) allylic
12. The units for the rate constant of a zero order reaction are
A) mol.dm–3.s–1 B) mol3.dm–3.s–1 C) mol.dm3.s–1 D) mol3.dm3.s–1
13. The substituent –NO2 on a benzene ring is meta directing and
A) strongly activating. B) moderately activating.

C) strongly deactivating. D) weakly deactivating.
14. For an adsorbate–adsorbent system obeying Langmuir adsorption isotherm with constant K = 0.16 bar–1,
the fraction of surface covered by adsorbed molecules at pressure 0.48 bar and temperature 90 K is
A) 0.48 B) 0.07 C) 0.05 D) 0.16
15. The half–life for first order reaction if 68% of a substance is reacted in 66 seconds is
A) 40.0 s B) 40.5 s C) 39.0 s D) 38.5 s
B) Answer the following in a sentence or two:
16. Gauche conformation
17. Kink
18. Ionisation energy
19. Rate law
20. Aromatic sextet
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PART–II : CHEMISTRY
Chemistry: Inorganic, Organic and Physical Chemistry–I

SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
II. Answer the following questions. Each question carries FIVE Marks.
1. Discuss different conformations of cyclohexane using the potential energy diagram.
2. Draw the metal complexes of EDTA, salicylaldehyde, crown ether, cryptand and acetyl acetone.
3. Discuss any five uses of noble gases.
4. Predict the product formed when 1–butene reacts with hydrogen bromide in the presence of a peroxide.
Substantiate with mechanism.
5. Mention the postulates of collision theory of reaction rates. Give the expression for collision frequency
and explain the terms.
6. Distinguish between chemisorption and physisorption.
7. Discuss the mechanism of nitration of benzene.
OR
8. Outline the mechanism of the synthesis of benzaldehyde from benzene and formyl chloride in the
presence of Lewis acid catalyst.
9. Illustrate and explain the effect of ring size on stability of cycloalkanes.
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
III. Answer the following questions. Each question carries TEN Marks.
10. What is an adsorption isotherm? Derive Langmuir adsorption isotherm. Explain the adsorption kinetics at
low and high pressure. Give the limitations of Langmuir isotherm.
OR
11. What is aromaticity? How are aromatic and anti–aromatic compounds distinguished? How does the
molecular orbital energy diagram reveal the nature of a compound? Illustrate.
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12. a) Justify that –CN is a meta–directing group in an aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction.
b) Mention the rules governing E– Z nomenclature with appropriate examples.

(4+6=10 Marks)
OR
13. a) How do alkali metals behave in presence of liquid ammonia? Highlight its characteristics.
b) Explain why lithium exhibits anomalous behaviour among group I elements with suitable illustrations.
(5+5=10 Marks)
14. a) Derive integrated rate equation for a second order reaction, A + B → P when concentrations of the
reactants are equal. Derive the expression for half–life period of the reaction.
b) Define the order of a reaction and explain any two methods for determining reaction order.
(5+5=10 Marks)
OR
15. a) The rate law for the reaction, 2Cl2O → 2Cl2 + O2 at 2000C was found to be rate = k[Cl2O]2
i) How would the rate change if [Cl2O] is reduced to one–third of its original value?
ii) How should the [Cl2O] be changed in order to double the rate?
iii) How would the rate change if [Cl2O] is raised to threefold of its original value?
b) If the rate of disappearance of N2O5 in the reaction N2O5(g)  2NO2(g) + 1/2O2(g) is 6.25×10–3 moles
per liter per second, what is the rate of formation of NO2 and O2?
(6+4=10 Marks)
16. a) Explain the diagonal relationship between beryllium and aluminium with suitable examples.
b) Explain the role of Mg in photosynthesis. (5+5=10 Marks)
OR
17. Write a short note on:

a) Heterogeneous catalysis and mechanism of catalysis.
b) Clathrates of noble gases. (5+5=10 Marks)
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PART-II : CHEMISTRY
Chemistry: Chemical Thermodynamics

SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
Choose the correct answer:
1. Identify the intensive variable among the following.
A) Gibbs free energy B) Entropy C) Internal energy D) Molar heat capacity
2. Which of the following statements is incorrect for a perfect gas?
A) It cannot be converted into a liquid.

B) There is no interaction between the molecules.
C) All molecules of the gas move with the same speed.
D) At a given temperature, PV is proportional to the amount of the gas present.
3. Gases deviate from the ideal gas behaviour because their molecules
A) have forces of attraction between them B) possess negligible volume

C) are polyatomic D) are not attracted to one another
4. Real gases approach perfect gas behaviour at
A) low temperature and low pressure B) low temperature and high pressure
C) high temperature and low pressure D) high temperature and high pressure
5. Pick out the incorrect statement for adiabatic expansion of a gas in vacuum.
A) Real gases undergo heating below the lower inversion temperature.

B) Real gases undergo cooling below the upper inversion temperature.
C) Joule–Thomson coefficient (μ) is zero for a perfect gas.
D) μ is non–zero for a real gas at inversion temperature.
6. The gas that is heated up during Joule–Thomson expansion at ordinary temperature is
A) O2 B) H2 C) CO2 D) SO2
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UCHM-201
7. A perfect gas that undergoes adiabatic expansion in vacuum has
A) B)
C) D)
8. Standard heat of formation of an element is
A) 200 J B) –200 J C) zero D) infinite
9. Maximum heat is absorbed by the system when a perfect gas undergoes
A) adiabatic irreversible expansion B) adiabatic reversible expansion

C) isothermal irreversible expansion D) isothermal reversible expansion
10. Clausius inequality is given by the expression
A) TdS dq B) TdS dq C) TdS > dqrev D) TdS = dqirr
11. Work done when 1 mol of zinc dissolves in HCl at 273 K in a sealed flask is
A) 0.00 J B) – 2.27 kJ C) 100.00 J D) – 2.27 J
12. The expression for the coefficient of thermal expansion ( ) is
A) ( ) B) ( ) C) ( ) D) ( )
13. Which of the following is not a postulate of kinetic molecular theory?
A) The molecular collisions are inelastic in nature.

B) Gas molecules are infinitesimally small points.
C) A gas consists of a collection of molecules in continuous random motion.
D) There are no forces of attraction or repulsion between the gas molecules.
14. Magnitude of work done by 0.5 mol of a perfect gas during an isothermal reversible expansion from 1 L
to 50 L at 273 K is
A) 44.40 kJ B) 17.76 kJ C) 8.88 kJ D) 4.44 kJ
15. A certain engine which operates in Carnot cycle absorbs 3.347 kJ at 400oC. How much heat is evolved at
100oC in each cycle?
A) 1.492 kJ B) 1.855 kJ C) 2.347 kJ D) 0.166 kJ
16. Pick out the incorrect statement.
A) Heat absorbed at constant pressure is equal the increase in enthalpy of the system.
B) Change in Gibbs free energy at constant T and P is equal to the net available non–mechanical work.
C) A chemical reaction where, ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS > 0, will never be spontaneous.
D) Heat capacity is infinite at the boiling point of a liquid.
Page 2 of 6
UCHM-201
17. Efficiency of a Carnot heat engine operating between a higher temperature Th and a lower temperature Tc
is highest for the set of temperatures
A) Th = 100 oC ; Tc = 0 oC B) Th = 25 oC ; Tc = 0 oC
C) Th = 0 oC ; Tc = –25 oC D) Th = –40 oC ; Tc = –100 oC
18. An inexact differential among the following is
A) dG B) dA C) dw D) dP
19. Identify the correct Maxwell relation among the following.
A) ( ) ( ) B) ( ) ( )
C) ( ) ( ) D) ( ) ( )
20. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the compression factor, Z?
A) Z = 1 for a perfect gas at all temperatures and pressures.

B) For hydrogen, Z < 1 at low pressures and Z > 1 at high pressures.
C) For nitrogen, Z = 1 at low pressures and Z > 1 at high pressures.
D) For methane, Z < 1 at low pressures and Z > 1 at high pressures.
Page 3 of 6
UCHM-201


PART-II : CHEMISTRY

SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
1. What are path functions and state functions? Show that volume is a state function.
2. Derive a relation between the isochoric and isobaric heat capacities in terms of the expansion coefficient
( ) and isothermal compressibility ( ).
3. What is Trouton’s rule? Under what conditions would you expect a deviation from Trouton’s
generalization? Explain giving examples.
4. a) The escape velocity (the speed at which molecules can escape the earth’s gravitational field) is
approximately 1.1 106 cm s–1. At what temperature will the root mean square velocity value for H 2
be equal to the escape velocity?
b) The critical constants of water are 647 K, 22.09 MPa and 0.056 dm3 mol–1. Calculate the values of its
van der Waals constants ‘a’ and ‘b’.
(3+2=5 Marks)
5. What is the significance of Maxwell’s relations? Derive any two Maxwell’s relations starting from first
principles.
6. Explain the underlying principle of adiabatic demagnetization, a technique to achieve very low
temperatures.
7. One mole of a perfect gas is expanded isothermally at 298 K to triple its initial volume. Calculate
and when the expansion is
i) carried out reversibly.

ii) carried out irreversibly where 836.8 J of heat is absorbed less as compared to reversible expansion.
iii) free.
8. Show that for a perfect gas undergoing reversible expansion, the magnitude of work obtained in an
isothermal expansion is greater than that involved in an adiabatic expansion.
OR
9. Deduce the different relationships between the various state variables (pressure, volume and temperature)
during a reversible adiabatic expansion of a perfect gas.
Page 4 of 6
UCHM-201
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
10. a) Draw the isotherms for a gas obeying the van der Waals equation. Discuss their main characteristics.
b) Calculate (373 K) for the reaction ( ) ( ) ( )
Given: (298 K) = –33.18 kJ mol–1 ; ̅ (NO2, g) = 37.20 J K–1 mol–1 ;

̅ (O2, g) = 29.36 J K–1 mol–1 ; ̅ (N2, g) = 29.13 J K–1 mol–1
(6+4=10 Marks)
OR
11. a) Explain with appropriate equation and graph, the law of distribution of molecular speeds. Comment
on the plots of Maxwell distribution of speeds for
i) different gases at the same temperature.

ii) same gas at different temperatures.
b) Calculate the enthalpy change during the following reaction
( ) ( )
Given: ( ) ( ) ( ) () = –1.300 MJ mol–1
( ) ( ) ( ) () = –3.302 MJ mol–1
(7+3=10 Marks)
12. a) From the Carnot cycle involving a perfect gas, show that entropy is a state function.
b) An ideal heat engine operates between –40 oC and 40 oC. It absorbs 100 J of heat at higher
temperature. Determine the heat it rejects at the lower temperature and the work it delivers.
(6+4=10 Marks)
OR
13. a) Show that the change in Gibbs free energy is equal to the maximum, non–expansion work for
isothermal and isobaric processes.
b) It has been proposed to synthesise –cyanopyridine from cyanogen and butadiene as shown in the
reaction
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
Considering the thermodynamic data provided, predict the feasibility of this reaction in the laboratory.
Molecule (298 K) /kJ mol–1 (298 K) /J K–1 mol–1

Butadiene (g) 111.9 277.9
Cyanogen (g) 300.5 241.2
–cyanopyridine (s) 225.2 322.5
( ) 0.0 103.6
(5+5=10 Marks)
Page 5 of 6
UCHM-201
14. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas occupying a volume of 3 dm3 at 298 K is expanded adiabatically and
reversibly to a pressure of 101.325 kPa. It is then compressed reversibly and isothermally at the new
temperature until the volume is again 3 dm3. Calculate q, w, U, H and S for the entire process.
OR
15. A gas obeying the van der Waals equation undergoes isothermal and reversible expansion. Deduce the
expressions for the heat absorbed (q), work done (w), changes in internal energy ( U) and enthalpy ( H)
during the process.
16. a) Calculate the collision diameter ( ), mean free path ( ) and number of bimolecular collisions per unit
time per unit volume (Z11) for oxygen at 298.15 K and 101.325 kPa.
Given: van der Waals constant b = 3.183 × 10–2 dm3 mol–1 ; k = 1.3806 × 10–23 J K–1.
b) Calculate (348 K) for the reaction ( ) ( ) ( )

Given the following data at 298 K:
̅ (N2, g) = 29.13 J K–1 mol–1 ; ̅ (O2, g) = 29.36 J K–1 mol–1 ; ̅ (NO2, g) = 37.20 J K–1 mol–1
̅ (N2, g) = 191.61 J K mol ; ̅ (O2, g) = 161.06 J K mol ; ̅ (NO2, g) = 240.06 J K–1 mol–1
–1 –1 –1 –1
(6+4=10 Marks)
OR
17. Draw and describe the Joule–Thomson experimental set–up. Show that the Joule–Thomson expansion is
an isenthalpic process. What is Joule–Thomson effect? Comment on the sign of the Joule–Thomson
coefficient, for a perfect gas and different real gases.
Page 6 of 6
UCHM-201


PART-II : CHEMISTRY

SECTION – A
(20×1=20 Marks)
1. Real gases deviate from perfect gas behaviour at
A) low temperature and low pressure B) low temperature and high pressure
C) high temperature and low pressure D) high temperature and high pressure
2. At 0oC, the compression factor (Z) is greater than one at all pressures for
A) NH3 B) CO2 C) H2 D) NO2
3. The critical pressure of H2 and NH3 are 12.8 atm and 111.3 atm respectively. What will be the pressure at
which 1.0 mol of NH3 will be in a state that corresponds to 1.0 mol of H2 at 1.0 atm and 25C?
A) 8.7 atm B) 1.0 atm C) 12.8 atm D) 111.3 atm
4. The values of van der Waals constant ‘a’ for the gases O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 are 1.360, 1.390, 4.170 and
2.253 L2 atm mol–2 respectively. The gas which can most easily be liquefied is
A) NH3 B) N2 C) CH4 D) O2
A) The molecular collisions are elastic in nature.

B) Gas molecules have finite size.
D) There are no forces of attraction or repulsion between the gas molecules.
6. Trouton’s rule is obeyed by all the liquids given below except
A) water B) cyclohexane C) hydrogen sulphide D) carbon tetrachloride
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UCHM-201
7. Which of the following is an extensive thermodynamic state variable?
A) Density B) Pressure C) Molar concentration D) Heat capacity
8. What is the change in enthalpy when 2.0 mol CO2 (Cp,m = 37.11 J K−1 mol−1) is heated at a constant
pressure of 1.25 atm, resulting in an increase in its temperature from 250 K to 277 K?
A) 2.0 kJ B) 1.0 kJ C) 1.6 kJ D) 2.5 kJ
9. Maximum drop in temperature is observed in the system when a perfect gas undergoes
A) adiabatic irreversible expansion B) adiabatic reversible expansion

C) isothermal irreversible expansion D) isothermal reversible expansion
7
10. What is the final pressure when a sample of CO2 (γ = ) at 100 kPa expands reversibly and adiabatically
5
to five times its initial volume?
A) 10.5 kPa B) 13.0 kPa C) 9.5 kPa D) 20.0 kPa
11. What will be ΔrHº at 298 K for the reaction, 2 C6H5COOH(s) + 13 O2 (g) → 12 CO2(g) + 6 H2O(g) for
which ΔrUº = ─772.7 kJ mol−1?
A) 772.7 kJ mol−1 B) ─760.3 kJ mol−1 C) 761.0 kJ mol−1 D) ─765.3 kJ mol−1
12. The expression for the isothermal compressibility (κT ) is
1 ∂V 1 ∂V 1 ∂P 1 ∂V
A) ( ) B) ( ) C) ( ) D) − V (∂P)
P ∂T P V ∂T P V ∂T V T
13. A perfect gas that undergoes isothermal expansion in vacuum has
A) w = 0, q = 0, ∆U = 0, ∆T = 0 B) w < 0, q = 0, ∆U < 0, ∆T < 0
C) w > 0, q = 0, ∆U > 0, ∆T > 0 D) w > 0, q > 0, ∆U = 0, ∆T = 0
14. A sample of 4.5 g methane occupies 12.7 L at 310 K. What is the work done if the volume increases by
3.3 L as the gas undergoes isothermal reversible expansion?
A) ─167J B) ─977 J C) 593J D) 160 J
15. Entropy change is maximum for the reaction,
A) CO2(g) + 2NH3(g)  H2NCONH2(s) + H2O(ℓ) B) CO(g) + 2H2(g)  CH3OH(ℓ)

C) EtOH(ℓ) + 3O2(g)  2CO2(g) + 3H2O(g) D) 4KClO3(s)  3KClO4(s) + KCl(s)
16. Pick out the incorrect statement.
A) Heat absorbed at constant volume is equal the increase in enthalpy of the system.
C) A chemical reaction where, ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS > 0, is always spontaneous.
D) Heat capacity is infinite at the boiling point of a liquid.
Page 2 of 6
UCHM-201
17. The expression for the expansion coefficient of a perfect gas is
1 1 1 1
A) 𝑃 B) 𝑉 C)
𝑇
D) 𝑃𝑉
18. An inexact differential among the following is
A) dG B) dA C) dq D) dP
19. Pick out the incorrect statement for adiabatic expansion of a gas in vacuum.
A) Joule-Thomson coefficient (μ) is zero for a perfect gas.

B) μ is zero for a real gas at inversion temperature.
C) Real gases undergo cooling below the lower inversion temperature.
D) Real gases undergo heating above the upper inversion temperature.
20. Which of the following is a version of third law of thermodynamics?
A) It is impossible to construct a perpetual motion machine that performs work without the input of
energy to it.
B) It is impossible to construct a perpetual motion machine that can continuously convert all the energy
taken in as heat into work.
C) It is impossible to construct a device that can transfer energy as heat from a low temperature reservoir
to a reservoir at a higher temperature without the input of energy as work.
D) It is impossible to construct a device capable of reducing the temperature of any macroscopic system to
absolute zero of temperature.
Page 3 of 6
UCHM-201


PART-II : CHEMISTRY

SECTION – B
(8×5=40 Marks)
1. Derive the relation between CP and Cv for a perfect gas.
2. Distinguish between an open, closed or isolated system. Classify the following as open, closed or isolated
system: cold pack, sealed vacuum flask, electric battery, thermometer, rocket, and a living cell.
3. Derive the relation between critical temperature (Tc) and van der Waals constants a and b for a gas.
4. For O2 gas molecules, the average velocity at T1 and the most probable velocity at T2 are equal to
1.5 x 103 m s−1. Calculate T1 and T2.
5. Derive the following relations starting from the fundamental expressions of first and second laws of
thermodynamics. Derive Maxwell relation from these equations.
i) dU = TdS – PdV ii) dH = TdS + VdP
6. Explain the principle behind cooling brought about by adiabatic demagnetization and Joule-Thomson
effect.
7. Explain Trouton’s rule with an example. Under what conditions would you expect a deviation from
Trouton’s rule? Explain giving examples.
8. State and explain the second law of thermodynamics for a spontaneous process. Prove thermodynamically
that expansion of a perfect gas is a spontaneous process.
OR
9. a) State third law of thermodynamics and give molecular interpretation of it.
b) Calculate the standard reaction entropy at 298 K for the reaction,

C12H22O11(s) + 12 O2(g) → 12 CO2(g) + 11 H2O(l)
The standard third law entropies in J K–1 mol–1 are:

C12H22O11(s) = 360.2, O2(g) = 205.14, CO2(g) = 213.74, and H2O(l) = 69.91.
Page 4 of 6
UCHM-201
SECTION – C
(4×10=40 Marks)
10. a) Write van der Waals equation of state. Explain the behaviour of a real gas at very low and high
pressure based on this equation?
b) For a certain refrigerant, the van der Waals parameters are , a = 16.20 L2 atm mol−2 and
b = 8.40 × 10−2 L mol−1. Estimate the pressure when 3.0 mol of the gas occupies 4.00 L at 0oC.
Calculate the pressure of a perfect gas under the same conditions. Comment on the result.
(5+5=10 Marks)
OR
11. a) Derive the following relations:
P
i) w = – nRT ln Pi , for a gas undergoing isothermal reversible expansion.
f
c Cv,m
ii) Vi Ti = Vf Tfc, for a gas undergoing adiabatic reversible expansion, where, c = R
b) The standard enthalpy of formation of gaseous H2O at 298 K is –241.82 kJ mol–1. Estimate its value
at 100oC, given the following values of Cp,m (in J K–1 mol–1):
H2O (g) = 33.58, H2 (g) = 28.84, O2 (g) = 29.37. Assume the heat capacities are independent of the
temperature.
(7+3=10 Marks)
12. a) Deduce the relevant expression to prove that Carnot efficiency is always less than unity for a
reversible heat engine.
b) A certain heat engine operates between 1000 K and 500 K. What is the maximum work done by the
engine for 2.0 kJ of heat supplied by the hot source?
(7+3=10 Marks)
OR
13. Distinguish between the following taking suitable illustrations.
a) Extensive and intensive thermodynamic variables

b) State and path function
c) Isothermal reversible and irreversible expansion of a perfect gas
d) Isochoric and isobaric heat capacity of a substance.
(2½×4=10 Marks)
14. a) Derive a relation for entropy change (∆Sgas ) of ‘n’ moles of a sample of perfect gas when it expands
isothermally and reversibly from an initial volume Vi to a final volume Vf. Give the molecular
interpretation for ∆Sgas .
b) Calculate the entropy change when argon (CP,m = 20.786 J K–1 mol–1) at 25oC and 1.0 atm in a
container of volume 500 cm3 is allowed to expand to 1000 cm3 and is simultaneously heated to 100oC.
(5+5=10 Marks)
OR
Page 5 of 6
UCHM-201
15. a) State law of corresponding states for gases. Give the significance of reduced equation of state.
Calculate the pressure and the temperature at which 1.0 mol of CO2 will be in a state that corresponds
to 1.0 mol of Ar at 1.0 atm and 25oC.
gas Pc / atm Tc / K
Ar 48.0 150.7
CO2 72.9 304.2
b) Describe the effect of molar mass and the temperature on the Maxwell distribution of molecular
velocities of a gas sample.
(5+5=10 Marks)
16. a) Show that the change in Gibbs free energy is equal to the maximum non–expansion work for
isothermal and isobaric processes.
b) Show that for a perfect gas undergoing reversible expansion, the magnitude of work obtained in an
isothermal expansion is greater than that involved in an adiabatic expansion.
(5+5=10 Marks)
OR
17. A sample consisting of 2.0 mol of He gas is expanded isothermally at 0oC from 5 L to 20 L
i. reversibly
ii. against a constant external pressure equal to the final pressure of the gas
iii. freely (against zero external pressure).
For each of the three processes, calculate q, w, ∆U and ∆H.
Page 6 of 6
UCHM-201


Second Semester Examinations, July 2019
PART-II : CHEMISTRY

SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
1. Average kinetic energy of gas molecules is _________ to/of temperature.
A) equal B) directly proportional C) independent D) inversely proportional
2. The compressibility factor (Z) of an ideal gas is
A) 0 B) 0.5 C) 1 D) 2
3. Total kinetic energy of 0.5 mol of an ideal gas at 0 oC is
A) 1513 J B) 1702 J C) 3026 J D) 3404 J
4. A thermodynamic function which is both a state function as well as an intensive property is
A) P B) U C) w D) density
5. Which of the following gases have the same Maxwell’s distribution of velocity at a given temperature?
A) NH3 and CO2 B) CO and N2 C) CH4 and O2 D) H2O and Cl2
6. The standard enthalpy of formation is zero at 298.15 K for
A) dry ice B) ice C) monoclinic sulphur D) rhombic sulphur
7. In which of the following processes would we see a decrease in entropy?
A) Rusting of iron B) Melting of ice

C) Vaporization of camphor D) Crystallization of salt from solution
Page 1 of 5
UCHM-201
8. What is the change in entropy when 1 mole of a perfect gas expands isothermally from 22.0 L to 44.0 L?
A) – 57.6 JK–1 B) – 5.76 JK–1 C) 5.76 JK–1 D) 57.6 JK–1

o o
9. A block of aluminium originally at 80 C is placed in an insulated container of water originally at 25 C.
o
After some time, the system reaches an equilibrium temperature of 31 C. Which of the following must be
true for this process?
A) SAl < 0 B) SAl > 0 C) Swater = 0 D) Swater < 0
10. For which of the following processes, Ssys is zero?
A) Adiabatic, irreversible B) Isothermal, irreversible

C) Adiabatic, reversible D) Isothermal, reversible
11. A sample of 0.164 mol argon occupies 18.5 dm3 at 305 K. What is the work done by the gas when it
expands isothermally until its volume has increased by 2.5 dm3?
A) – 832.4 J B) 53.0 J C) – 52.7 J D) 800.0 J
12. If heat absorbed by a Carnot engine is 10 kJ, what is the work done, if the engine is operating between the
o o
temperatures 127 C and 527 C?
A) 2.4 kJ B) 5.0 kJ C) 7.6 kJ D) 10 kJ
A) The molecular collisions are inelastic in nature.

B) Gas molecules are infinitesimally small points.
D) There are no intermolecular interactions between the gas molecules.
14. Which of the following is the correct statement for the second law of thermodynamics?
A) It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature.
B) It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher temperature,
without the aid of an external source.
C) It is possible to construct an engine whose sole purpose is to covert the heat energy into work.
D) It is impossible to construct a device which while working in a cyclic process produces no effect other
than the absorption of heat and its conversion into an equivalent amount of work.
15. A perfect gas that undergoes adiabatic expansion in vacuum has
A) w > 0, q = 0, ∆U > 0, ∆T > 0 B) w < 0, q = 0, ∆U < 0, ∆T < 0

C) w = 0, q = 0, ∆U = 0, ∆T = 0 D) w > 0, q > 0, ∆U = 0, ∆T = 0
16. Pick the incorrect statement among the following.
A) Heat absorbed at constant pressure is equal the increase in enthalpy of the system.
C) A chemical reaction where, ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS < 0, can be spontaneous.
D) Heat capacity is zero at the boiling point of a liquid.
Page 2 of 5
UCHM-201
17. A chemical reaction is endothermic and spontaneous when
A) H is + ve & |H| < |TS| B) H is – ve & |H| < |TS|

C) H is + ve & |H| > |TS| D) H is – ve & |H| > |TS|
o
18. In a modern coal–fired power plant, the temperature of high pressure steam would be about 400 C and
o
the cooling tower water temperature would be about 20 C. For this type of power plant, the maximum
(ideal) efficiency will be
A) 95 % B) 56 % C) 44 % D) 20 %
19. Identify the Maxwell’s relation among the following.
∂S ∂P ∂S ∂V ∂S ∂T ∂V ∂T
A) (∂V) = (∂T) B) ( ) = ( ) C) ( ) = − ( ) D) ( ) = − ( )
T V ∂P T ∂T P ∂P T ∂V P ∂S T ∂P V
20. Which of the following is a version of first law of thermodynamics?
A) It is impossible to construct a perpetual motion machine that performs work without the input of
energy to it.
B) It is impossible to construct a perpetual motion machine that can continuously convert all the energy
taken in as heat into work.
C) It is impossible to construct a device that can transfer energy as heat from a low temperature reservoir
to a reservoir at a higher temperature, without the input of energy as work.
D) It is impossible to construct a device capable of reducing the temperature of any macroscopic system to
the absolute zero of temperature.
Page 3 of 5
UCHM-201


Second Semester Examinations, July 2019
PART-II : CHEMISTRY

SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
1. Enumerate and discuss the postulates of kinetic theory of gases.
2. Deduce a general expression to relate the heat capacity at constant pressure (CP) and the heat capacity at
constant volume (CV) for a real gas.
3. What are Maxwell’s relations? What is their significance? Derive any two Maxwell’s relations.
γ
4. For a perfect gas undergoing adiabatic reversible expansion, derive the expression PV = constant.
Cp,m
(γ = ).
Cv,m
o
5. Explain Trouton’s rule. Account for the deviation of liquids such as water (Δvap S = 109.1 J K–1 mol–1) and
o
methane (ΔvapS = 73.2 J K–1 mol–1) from Trouton’s rule.
6. Show how very low temperatures can be attained for a paramagnetic substance. Explain the principle
involved.
7. Calculate the work obtained when 1 mol of a van der Waals gas expands isothermally and reversibly from
1 dm3 to 50 dm3 at 273 K. Given: a = 0.655 dm6 MPa mol–2 and b = 0.055 dm3 mol–1.
8. Calculate the pressure exerted by 22 g of CO2 contained in a 0.5 L vessel at room temperature using the
ideal gas law and van der Waals equation. Given: a = 363.76 kPa dm6 mol–2 and b = 42.67 cm3 mol–1.
OR
9. The critical constants for water are 647 K, 22.09 MPa and 0.0566 dm3 mol–1. Calculate the values of the
van der Waals constants a and b and the gas constant, R. Explain the abnormal value of R.
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
10. a) Write a note on Maxwellian distribution of molecular speeds.
Page 4 of 5
UCHM-201
b) Describe the Joule–Thomson experiment. Show that the expansion in this experiment is isenthalpic.
(6+4=10 Marks)
OR
11. a) Derive expressions for the critical constants in terms of van der Waals constants a and b for a gas.
b) 20 g of N2 at 300 K is compressed reversibly and adiabatically from 20 dm3 to 10 dm3. Calculate the
final temperature, q, w, ΔU and ΔH for process. (CV,m= 2.5 R) (5+5=10 Marks)
12. 20.0 L of a diatomic perfect gas (Cv,m = 2.5R) at 673 K and 700 kPa expands until the pressure of the gas
is 200 kPa. Calculate q, w, U and H for the process if the expansion is
i) isothermal and reversible ii) adiabatic and reversible
iii) against 200 kPa and adiabatic iv) against 200 kPa and isothermal
v) free expansion
OR
13. Calculate the values of collision diameter (), mean free path (), collision number (Z1) and collision
frequency (Z11) for oxygen at 25 oC and 1 atm. Given: van der Waals constant b = 3.183 × 10–2 L mol–1.
14. a) Derive an expression (in terms of the temperatures involved) for the efficiency of a Carnot cycle
where the working substance is a perfect gas. Comment on the expression.
b) Show that heat (q) is a path function. (6+4=10 Marks)
OR
15. Write short notes (5–6 lines) on the following.

a) Compression factor b) Nernst heat theorem c) Clausius inequality d) Gibb’s free energy
(4×2½=10 Marks)
16. a) Deduce an expression for the variation in enthalpy of a reaction with temperature.
b) Calculate the standard enthalpy of the following reaction at 373 K.
1
N (g) + O2 (g) → NO2 (g)
2 2
The standard enthalpy of the above reaction at 298 K is –33.18 kJ mol–1. The molar heat capacities of
o o
NO2, O2 and N2 are given as Cp,m (NO2, g) = 37.20 JK–1 mol–1, Cp,m (O2, g) = 29.36 JK–1 mol–1,
o
Cp,m (N2, g) = 29.13 JK–1 mol–1. Assume the heat capacities to be constant over the temperature range.
c) Express root mean square and most probable speeds as a ratio in terms of average speed. Arrange
them in the order of decreasing value. (4+4+2=10 Marks)
OR
17. a) Show that Gibbs free energy is the maximum non–expansion work that can be obtained from a system
at constant temperature and pressure.
b) Calculate the standard Gibbs free energy of the reaction, 2 N2O5 (g) → 4 NO2 (g) + O2 (g).
Given: ΔfHo (N2O5) = 11.3 kJ mol–1 , ΔfHo (NO2) = 33.18 kJ mol–1,
o o o
Sm (N2O5) = 355.7 JK–1mol–1, Sm (NO2) = 240.06 JK–1mol–1, Sm (O2) = 205.14 JK–1mol–1
(5+5=10 Marks)
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PART-I(A) : GENERAL ENGLISH
General English: English Language Skills-II

SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
I. Do as directed. Each question carries ONE mark.
A) Choose the most appropriate alternative from the brackets:
1 I don’t think I (shall, should, can) be able to go.
2. He (need, dare, would) not ask for a rise, for fear of losing his job.
B) Identify the following as a Strong Verb or a Weak Verb:
3. Sink
4. Catch
C) Make a sentence each with
5. a) broke as a transitive verb b) broke as an intransitive verb
D) In each of the following sentences, supply a verb in agreement with its subject:
6. The cost of all these articles _____ risen.
7. The jury _____ divided in their opinions.
8. Two-thirds of the city ____ in ruins.
E) Rewrite the following sentences converting the adjective into its adverb form:
9. He spoke in a loud voice.
10. Are you an early riser?
F) Correct the following sentences:
11. This question is too simple.
12. Trains on this line do not run very fastly.

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G) Change the voice of the following sentences:
13. I will present my ideas in the conference tonight.
14. The professor told him not to talk in the class.
15. They were interviewing him for the job.
16. Why are they tearing down the old theatre?
H) Report the following sentences in indirect speech:
17. "Don’t play on the grass, boys," she said.
18. "The film began at five in the evening," my friend said.
19. "Where have you spent your money?" said the teacher.
20. “Does he know the local customs well enough to settle there?” she asked.
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SECTION – B
(40 Marks)
II. Answer the following questions in about 150 words each: (4x5=20 Marks)
1. Compare and contrast the life in the village and the city of Moscow as depicted by Vanka in his letter to
his grandfather.
2. Discuss Wordsworth’s depiction of nature as a living entity watching over humanity at all times in ‘The
Stolen Boat Ride’.
3. Bring out the originality of Miss Beam’s ‘system’ of education.
4. Briefly describe Emperor Akbar’s ‘way of life’.

OR
5. Comment on the central theme of the poem, 'The Queen's Rival'.
III. Answer ANY TWO of the following questions in about 250 words each: (2x10=20 Marks)
6. Bring out the significance of the different stages in Tiya’s journey.
7. Elaborate on any five new reflections that Tiya made in the course of its journey.
8. Discuss the significance of Hans in Tiya’s life.
SECTION – C
(40 Marks)
IV. Write a narrative paragraph in about 200 words: (1x15=15 Marks)
9. If I could go back in time

OR
10. A choice that has changed my life
V. Write a brief description in about 75 words: (1x5=5 Marks)
11. Walking down a quiet street

OR
12. My most favourite vacation destination
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VI. Make notes on the passage below using an appropriate method. (1x10=10 Marks)
13. Mount Vesuvius, a volcano located between the ancient Italian cities of Pompeii and Herculaneum, has
received much attention because of its frequent and destructive eruptions. The most famous of these
eruptions occurred in A.D. 79.
The volcano had been inactive for centuries. There was little warning of the coming eruption, although
one account unearthed by archaeologists says that a hard rain and a strong wind had disturbed the celestial
calm during the preceding night. Early the next morning, the volcano poured a huge river of molten rock
down upon Herculaneum, completely burying the city and filling the harbor with coagulated lava.
Meanwhile, on the other side of the mountain, cinders, stone and ash rained down on Pompeii. Sparks
from the burning ash ignited the combustible rooftops quickly. Large portions of the city were destroyed
in the conflagration. Fire, however, was not the only cause of destruction. Poisonous sulfuric gases
saturated the air. These heavy gases were not buoyant in the atmosphere and therefore sank toward the
earth and suffocated people.
Over the years, excavations of Pompeii and Herculaneum have revealed a great deal about the behavior of
the volcano. By analyzing data, much as a zoologist dissects an animal specimen, scientists have
concluded that the eruption changed large portions of the area’s geography. For instance, it turned the
Sarno River from its course and raised the level of the beach along the Bay of Naples. Meteorologists
studying these events have also concluded that Vesuvius caused a huge tidal wave that affected the
world’s climate.
In addition to making these investigations, archaeologists have been able to study the skeletons of victims
by using distilled water to wash away the volcanic ash. By strengthening the brittle bones with acrylic
paint, scientists have been able to examine the skeletons and draw conclusions about the diet and habits of
the residents. Finally, the excavations at both Pompeii and Herculaneum have yielded many examples of
classical art, such as jewelry made of bronze, which is an alloy of copper and tin. The eruption of Mount
Vesuvius and its tragic consequences have provided everyone with a wealth of data about the effects that
volcanoes can have on the surrounding area. Today, volcanologists can locate and predict eruptions,
saving lives and preventing the destruction of other cities and cultures.
VII. Read the following passage and answer, in 2–3 lines each, the questions that follow:
(5x2=10 Marks)
I have often thought it would be a blessing if each human being was stricken blind and deaf for a few days
at some time during his adult life. Darkness would make him more appreciative of sight, silence would
teach him the joy of sound. Now and then I have tested my seeing friends to discover what they see.
Recently, I asked a friend, who had just returned from a long walk in the woods, what she has observed.
"Nothing in particular," she replied. How was it possible I asked myself to walk for an hour through the
woods and see nothing worthy of note. I, who cannot see find hundreds of things to interest me through
mere touch. I feel the delicate symmetry of leaf. I pass my hands lovingly about the smooth skin of a
silver birch or the rough, shaggy bark of a pine. In spring, I touch the branches of trees hopefully in search
of a bud, the first sign of awakening nature after her winter's sleep. Occasionally, if I am fortunate & place
my hand gently on a small tree and feel the happy quiver of a bird in full song.
(Extract from Hellen Keller’s Three Days to See)
14. Why does Hellen Keller want people to be stricken with disabilities for a few days in their adult life?
15. How did Keller experience nature?
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16. Why do people with sight see ‘Nothing in particular’ even after being with nature for considerable period
of time?
17. Make a sentence each using

a) verb form of the word appreciative b) adverb form of the word delicate
18. Provide a synonym and an antonym each for the following words:
a) symmetry b) smooth

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SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
I. Do as directed. Each question carries ONE Mark.
A) Fill each of the following gaps with an appropriate form of an auxiliary verb:
1. Teacher: You _________(obligation) read the play, but you _________ (No obligation) read the Preface.
2. I have come without any money. __________ you possibly lend me ₹ 100?
3. a) Abide b) Bend
C) Make a sentence each with:
4. boil as a transitive verb
5. boil as an intransitive verb
D) In each of the following sentences, supply a verb in agreement with its subject:
6. Either Govind or his parents __________ responsible for this.
7. The wages of sin _________ death.
8. Each man and each woman _________ the right to vote.
9. His late arrival caused some trouble.
10. He made a beautiful sketch.
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F) Fill in with the correct verb form:
11. I ________ (go) to his clinic since January.
12. I ________(go) to his clinic yesterday.
13. Previous climbers had cut steps in the ice.
14. Someone switched on a light and opened the door.
15. They are pulling down the old theatre.
16. Did the idea convince you?
17. “I have something to show you,” I said to him.
18. “The mirror is there so that you can see yourself when you are dancing,” the instructor told him.
19. “What happened to Mr. Shyam?” said one of the men.
20. “Lend me your pen for a moment,” I said to Rakesh.
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SECTION – B
(40 Marks)
1. Bring out the element of pathos in the story “Vanka” by Anton Chekov.
2. Discuss how ‘the act of stealth’ disturbs Wordsworth in his ‘troubled pleasure’ as narrated in “The Stolen
Boat Ride”.
3. Describe how the students at Miss Beam’s school learn to step into the shoes of misfortune.
4. Briefly describe Akbar’s routine as an emperor.

OR
5. Recall how the Queen finally found her rival in the poem, “The Queen’s Rival”.
6. Discuss what the different stages in Tiya’s journey signify.
7. Recall at least five lessons that Tiya learns in the course of its journey.
8. Analyse the role of Leaktons and Fays in Tiya.
SECTION – C
(40 Marks)
9. If I could rectify at least one mistake of my life

OR
10. An incident that changed the course of Indian history
11. A busy market place

OR
12. My most favourite book
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13. Conversation is indeed the most easily teachable of all arts. All you need to do in order to become a good
conversationalist is to find a subject that interests you and your listeners. There are, for example,
numberless hobbies to talk about. But the important thing is that you must talk about other fellow’s hobby
rather than your own. Therein lies the secret of your popularity. Talk to your friends about the things that
interest them, and you will get a reputation for good fellowship, charming wit, and a brilliant mind. There
is nothing that pleases people so much as your interest in their interest.
It is just as important to know what subjects to avoid and what subjects to select for good conversation. If
you don’t want to be set down as a wet blanket or a bore, be careful to avoid certain unpleasant subjects.
Avoid talking about yourself, unless you are asked to do so. People are interested in their own problems
not in yours. Sickness or death bores everybody. The only one who willingly listens to such talk is the
doctor, but he gets paid for it.
To be a good conversationalist you must know not only what to say, but how also to say it. Be mentally
quick and witty. But don’t hurt others with your wit. Finally, try to avoid mannerism in your conversation.
Don’t bite your lips or click your tongue, or roll your eyes or use your hands excessively as you speak.
Don’t be like that Frenchman who said, “How can I talk if you hold my hand?”
(Source: www.cbsetuts.com)
(5x2=10 Marks)
There are basically three choices available to you when trying to influence people. The first is to ignore
people and simply hope they will act in your best interest. You probably will agree that this is not a very
practical option since the results can be neither effective nor predictable. By ignoring other people, you
are giving up any hope of influencing them and thus are surrendering yourself to the whims of fate. In
effect, you are saying to the world, "I will leave you alone and, in return, I want you to do what I want", a
naive and unrealistic expectation.
The second option is to use coercion and force to compel others to act in a specific way you desire. The
use of threats and intimidation may produce results, at least in the short term. Fear-inducing tactics,
however, never bring out the best in the people, since people themselves must be the driving force behind
their motivation if they are to put their hearts and souls into what they are doing. Fear forces people to
operate in a survival mode. They may follow your instructions and orders to the letter, but seldom will
they contribute any real energy or enthusiasm to their efforts.
The third option is to persuade people to do what you want them to do simply because they really want to.
People will do what you want them to do willingly in direct proportion to how they see their self-interest
is served. In other words, you must convince people that they will receive very real benefits and rewards
if they follow the path you are suggesting. These benefits must be something the other party understands
and inherently wants, for whatever reasons. In effect, you are offering a reward that is valued by others in
exchange for a reward that is valued by you. The highest reward you can offer people is to provide them
with opportunities to maximize their full potential.
(Source: www.bankersadda.com)
14. What happens when you ignore people while trying to influence them?
15. What is the outcome of using fear-tactics in influencing people?
16. What is the best way to influence people?
17. Make a sentence each using
a) verb form of the word intimidation b) adverb form of the word compel
18. Provide a synonym and an antonym each for the following words:
a) naïve b) persuade
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UGEN-201


SECTION – A
(20 Marks)
I. Do as directed. Each question carries ONE Mark. (20x1=20 Marks)
A) Fill each of the following gaps with an appropriate form of an auxiliary verb:
1. You _____ leave those papers on my desk and go. (permission)
2. I ______ read without glasses when I was in college. (past ability)
3. a) Drive b) Keep
C) Make a sentence each with:
4. speak as a transitive verb
5. speak as an intransitive verb
D) In each of the following sentences, choose a correct verb in agreement with its subject from the
bracket:
6. Age and experience __________ wisdom to man. (bring/brings)
7. Neither Ram nor Shyam _______ any right to the property. (has/have)
8. The wages of sin _______death. (is/are)
9. He is an early riser.
10. It is very hard work.
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F) Fill in with the correct verb form:
11. The aeroplane _______(fly) at 2300 meters.
12. The gardener _______(water) the plants since morning.
13. Students must not leave bicycles in the hall.
14. Engineers are doing a lot of work.
15. We will not admit students without an entry pass.
16. Put up this picture on the wall.
17. Mohan said, “I have bought a new shirt.”
18. “Please do not touch the exhibits,” the guide said to the tourists.
19. The accountant said to the man, “Do you wish to open an account?”
20. The teacher said to the boys, “You may go home.”
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UGEN-201


SECTION – B
(40 Marks)
1. Bring out the character sketch of Vanka in the story by Anton Chekov.
2. Discuss the central theme of the poem “The Stolen Boat Ride” by William Wordsworth.
3. What is the philosophy behind the education given at Miss Beam’s school?
4. Sketch the physical appearance of Akbar as described by Laurence Binyon.

OR
5. Recall how the Queen finally discovered what she was craving for.
6. Describe the life of Tiya before he meets Hans.
7. Recall Tiya’s experiences at the land of walking birds.
8. Narrate Tiya’s adventure in the land of the Zarys.
SECTION – C
(40 Marks)
9. A terrifying incident of my life

OR
10. My favourite vacation with my family
11. A scene at a railway station

OR
12. My school campus
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13. In early civilisations, most communities were sharply divided into two classes, those who laboured and
those who did not. The small number of rulers - kings, priests, military leaders - lived in great comfort,
and did very little work. The vast majority of the population enjoyed very few comforts, did lot of work,
and had scarcely any political power. In some societies, there was an even more wretched class, the
slaves, who had no rights at all.
The Industrial Revolution of Europe led to the production of vast quantities of goods, and workers began
to be dissatisfied with their poverty. The factory owners needed skilled workers, and gradually they
realised that they must show goodwill to their workforce, in order to stay in business. As in many other
reforms, some enlightened slowly spread that workers were entitled to some consideration. Since men
were free to work for any master they chose, good master soon had the pick of the workers, and old-
fashioned employers found themselves with a factory full of lower-grade workforce. Such a situation soon
led to an all-round improvement in standards, and good employers tried to raise working conditions still
higher. These improvements were speeded up by the increased orgnisation of workers in Trade Union
movements, particularly in low-standard factories, where the owner often had to deal with strike action by
dissatisfied workers.
Now that the working classes are getting better and better working conditions, the need to strike has
lessened considerably; and employers and workers alike have come to realise that they depend on each
other for their livelihood.
VII. Read the following passage and answer, in 2-3 lines each, the questions that follow:
(5x2=10 Marks)
The chief object of the repetitive form of advertisement is to help people to remember the product. The
general principle is similar to that followed by Bajaj Automotives Ltd: “You just can’t beat a bajaj”. The
repetition of a phrase, the inclusion of a trade name or a trade mark in every advertisement is intended to
impress upon the mind of the reader/listener that name or phrase or picture. The response sought by the
advertiser is achieved when a customer enters a shop for, say, toothpaste. To the shop-keeper’s question,
“Any particular brand, please?” the customer gives the reply that is in his mind, not necessarily because he
has arrived at a decision by any process of reasoning, nor because some strong feeling has been aroused
for some particular brand, but simply because he has repeatedly seen the name, and it is associated in his
mind with the idea of a good toothpaste. Some trade names become so common that they displace the true
name of the commodity itself, such as ‘vaseline’, the well-known trade name for ‘petroleum jelly’.
Advertisements which have relied on repetition have, in the past, proved very powerful, but with the
increased variety of proprietary articles and products intended for the same purpose, this kind of
advertising is losing some of its value because of the confusion of names that arise in a customer’s mind
when he wishes to buy, say, cigarettes, tobacco, soap, chocolates, tea and other goods which are widely
used.
14. Why do companies repeat their advertisements?
15. What is often repeated in an advertisement?
16. How does a customer decide which product to buy?
17. Why is the repetition of advertisement losing its effectiveness?
18. Provide a synonym each for the following words:
a) intend b) repetition
≈≈≈≈≈
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UGEN-201


SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
I. Do as directed. Each question carries ONE Mark.
A) Make a sentence each with:
1. ‘speak’ as a transitive verb
2. ‘speak’ as an intransitive verb
B) In each of the following sentences, choose the right verb in agreement with its subject:
3. My uncle and guardian want/ wants me to study abroad.
4. The long and short of the matter is/ are that the whole system is corrupt.
5. Both the siblings has/ have the right to their father’s property.
C) Change the voice of the following sentences:
6. You must understand that such a thing will not be permitted again.
7. Prepare yourself for the worst.
8. Rash driving causes many accidents.
9. Not a word was spoken by the criminal in self-defence
D) Report the following sentences in indirect speech:
10. The Prime Minister said, “Do not panic, the situation will soon be under control”.
11. Ramesh said, “I have been studying a lot”.
12. How will they get here? she asked.
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E) Correct the following sentences, wherever necessary:
13. One of my friend has agreed to help with my relocation.
14. The police had seen the culprit yesterday.
15. Neither Nick nor Tom is good at Mathematics.
16. Taj Mahal is too aesthetic.
17. I met my school teacher three years before.
18. If I were an artist, I should paint the sky silver.
19. I shall have reached home by next weekend.
20. I was enough foolish to believe the media.
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SECTION – B
(40 Marks)
1. Briefly explain the ill-treatment meted out to Vanka by his master.
2. Highlight Wordsworth’s guilt after ‘the act of stealth’ in “The Stolen Boat Ride”.
3. Discuss the relevance of Miss Beam’s system of education in the current times.
4. Give a brief character-sketch of Akbar as an emperor.
OR
5. Bring out motherhood in the poem, “The Queen’s Rival”.
6. Bring out the significance of the line, “Know yourself and you will know everything else” in the light of
the parrot’s journey in Tiya.
7. Highlight the symbolic representation of Hans and Tiya.
8. Enlist the lessons learnt by Tiya in the land of revolutionary birds and Leaktons.
SECTION – C
(40 Marks)
9. An incident that thrust maturity on you
OR
10. The day your entrance exam results were announced
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11. The taste of your favourite dish
OR
12. An object that brought you luck
VI. Make notes of the following passage, using an appropriate method. (1x10=10 Marks)
13. The U.S.-India Climate and Clean Energy Agenda 2030 Partnership raises expectations that the
coming decade will see sustained financial and technological cooperation between the two countries to cut
greenhouse gas emissions. At the Leaders Summit on Climate organised by U.S. President Joe Biden, the
world’s attention was focused on countries responsible for the highest carbon emissions. India ranks third,
behind the U.S. and China, although its per capita CO2 emissions are less than 60% of the global average,
as Prime Minister Narendra Modi pointed out. There is little confidence in a pandemic-stricken world,
however, that future growth pathways will be aligned away from fossil fuels. The International Energy
Agency, in fact, expects a dramatic rise in emissions as countries race to shake off the impact of the
coronavirus, as they did after the 2008 financial crisis. Yet, the years to 2030, as President Biden put it,
are part of a “decisive decade”, and action to scale up funding and innovation can help all countries move
closer to keeping global warming well below 2°C or even 1.5°C, as the Paris Agreement envisages. There
are many aspects to the bilateral pact that could be transformative for energy-intensive sectors in India,
starting with renewable power expansion to 450 GW. With open source technologies, India could
incorporate innovative materials and processes to decarbonise industry, transport and buildings, the
biggest emitters, apart from power.
Many developed countries tend to view India’s reluctance to commit to a net zero emissions
target as recalcitrance, but the climate change crisis originated not here but in the industrialised world,
which has used up much of the world’s carbon space. A forward-looking policy should, therefore,
envision green development anew, providing funding and green technologies as compensation for the
emissions space lost by poorer countries. This is a win-win game, since it would aid sustainable
development, boost employment, clean up the environment and, crucially, help all countries emerge
healthier from the pandemic. British Prime Minister Boris Johnson, who announced enhanced ambition at
the summit for Britain to cut carbon emissions by 78% by 2035 over 1990 levels, advanced the agenda by
calling for climate funding by rich nations to exceed the decade-old goal of $100 billion. For the India-
U.S. agreement to yield results, Mr. Biden would have to persuade industry and research institutions at
home to share knowledge and subsidise transfer of technologies. He has won commendations for steering
America around from the science-deprived Trump years and announcing enhanced ambition: cuts in
emissions by 50% to 52% by 2030 over 2005 levels. But much of his climate effort will rely on executive
authority, rather than bipartisan support. With political will on both sides, the engagement with India can
become a model.
(“A Green Partnership: On U.S.-India Climate Pact” - The Hindu 2021)
(5x2=10 Marks)
Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study
of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO’s
assistance in 1959. The inter-governmental organisation with 126 member states has done a commendable
job by training more than 4,000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical
expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an
assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement.
Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the
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positive lessons to imbibe. Countries such as Italy have demonstrated that prioritising heritage with
significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural
capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6,600 protected monuments, there
are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the
service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In
order to overcome this severe shortage the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training
institutions. It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and
engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.
Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to
redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing
the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps overemphasise. The
effort has to be broad-based: It must also serve as a means to improving the quality of life in the area
where the heritage structures are located. The first task therefore is to integrate conservation efforts with
sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western
countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to
support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage
conservation can be mobilised by aligning it with the green building movement. Heritage structures are
essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices
campaign in future.
(“Broadening Conservation” - The Hindu 2009)
14. Highlight the central idea of the passage.
15. When did the outlook regarding conservation heritage change?
16. What should India learn from Europe, to conserve its cultural heritage?
17. What are the international practices of heritage conservation that India can imbibe from other countries?
18. Make a sentence each using the words ‘endowed’ & ‘sustainable’.
≈≈≈≈≈
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UMAT-201A


PART-II : MATHEMATICS
Mathematics: Probability
SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
A) Match the following:
‘A’ ‘B’
1. Poisson distribution A) Water levels in a dam during a season
2. Discrete uniform distribution B) distribution with 2 parameters
3. Normal distribution C) the number of times rain at Puttaparthi during a year
4. Continuous random variable D) distribution with no parameters
5. Continuous Uniform distribution E) the number of heads in the 2 successive flips of a coin
F) the number of heads in the 100 successive flips of a coin
B) Fill in the blanks:
6. Events A and B are said to be independent if ____________.
7. A continuous random variable X has f(x) = k exp(– kx ) for x > 0 and 0 elsewhere, then k = _________.
8. If E [ X ] = 3, then E [ 2X – 10 ] =__________.
1
9. If the moment generating function of some random variable X is . Then the moment generating
1−𝑡
𝑋−𝑏
function of is ___________, where 𝑎 and 𝑏 are non zero constants.
𝑎
10. The average amount of weight gained by a person over the winter months is uniformly distributed from 0
to 30 lbs. Then P(20 ≤ X ≤ 25 ) is ____________.
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UMAT-201A
C) Identify TT/TF/FT/FF:
11. If A and B are any two events. Then
a) P (A ∪ B) ≤ P (A) + P (B).
b) P (A ∩ B) ≥ P (A) + P (B).
12. For any event A,
a) P (A) + P ( Ā) < 1.
b) P ( Ā ) > 1.
13. In a Gaussian distribution,
a) the curve extends along y – axis from −∞ to ∞.

b) the curve is symmetric about the point 0.
14. In a Poisson distribution,
a) the mean and variance are same.

b) it is a continuous random variable.
15. Following random variables are discrete uniform:
a) the outcomes of a throwing a fair die.

b) the sum of the faces when throwing two fair dice.
D) Write the probability distribution/density functions for the following:
16. Continuous Uniform
17. Standard Normal
18. Poisson
19. Discrete Uniform
20. Bernoulli
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UMAT-201A


SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
1. If A, B and C are random events in a sample space and if A, B and C are pairwise independent and A is
independent of B ∪ C, then prove that A, B and C are mutually independent.
OR
2. For any events 𝐴1 , 𝐴2 and B of a sample space, prove the following:
a) 𝑃(𝐴1 ∪ 𝐴2 ) = 𝑃(𝐴1 ) + 𝑃(𝐴2 ) − 𝑃(𝐴1 ∩ 𝐴2 ).
b) 𝑃((𝐴1 ∪ 𝐴2 )⁄𝐵) = 𝑃(𝐴1 ⁄𝐵) + 𝑃(𝐴2 ⁄𝐵) − 𝑃((𝐴1 ∩ 𝐴2 )⁄𝐵). (2+3=5 Marks)
3. Suppose that the population of a certain city is 40% male and 60% female. Suppose also that 50% of the
males and 30% of the females can drive a vehicle. Find the probability that a randomly selected person
from the population can drive.
4. Find the distribution function of the total number of heads obtained in four tosses of a balanced coin.
Also, sketch the graph of the distribution function.
(4+1=5 Marks)
5. The distribution function F(x) of random variable X is given as:
0, for 𝑥 < 0;
1 1
𝑥 + , for 0 ≤ 𝑥 < ;
𝐹(𝑥) = 2 2
1
{ 1, for 𝑥 ≥ ;
2
Answer the following:

a) Sketch F(x)
b) Compute the probability density function of F(x)
c) 𝑃(𝑋 ⩽ 1⁄4)
d) P(X = 0)
e) 𝑃(0 ⩽ 𝑋 ⩽ 1⁄4)
(5x1=5 Marks)
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UMAT-201A
6. Let X be uniformly distributed on 0,1, . . . , 99. Calculate
a) 𝑃(𝑋 ≥ 25) b) 𝑃(2.6 < 𝑋 < 12.2)

c) 𝑃(25 ≤ 𝑋 ≤ 30) d) P (8.5 < 𝑋 < 12 or 10.5 < 𝑋 ≤ 14)
(1+1+1+2=5 Marks)
OR
1 2 +𝑥−𝑎)
7. Consider a function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝜋 𝑒 (−𝑥 , −∞ < 𝑥 < ∞. Find the value of 𝑎 such that f(x) is p.d.f. of a
√
continuous random variable X.
1
8. Let variate X have the distribution 𝑃{𝑋 = 0} = 𝑃{𝑋 = 2} = 𝑝; 𝑃{𝑋 = 1} = 1 − 2𝑝, for 0 ⩽ 𝑝 ⩽ 2. For
what values of 𝑝, Var ( X ) is maximum ?
𝐸(𝑋)
9. If X is random variable with f(x) = 0 with x < 0. Prove Markov’s inequality:𝑃(𝑋 ≥ 𝑎) ≤ 𝑎
for 𝑎 > 0.
10. Suppose that X is a binomial random variable with 𝑛 = 150 and 𝑝 = 0.4. Approximate the probabilities
a) 𝑃(𝑋 ≤ 50)
b) 𝑃(50 ≤ 𝑋 ≤ 75) by using normal distribution. (2+3=5 Marks)
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
11. a) State the rule of total probability and Bayes’ theorem.

b) In answering a question on a multiple-choice test, a student either knows the answer or guesses. Let 𝑝
be the probability that the student knows the answer and (1 − 𝑝) the probability that the student
1
guesses. Assume that a student when guesses the answer will be correct with probability , where 𝑚
𝑚
is the number of multiple choice alternatives. What is the probability that the student knew the answer
to the question given that the question is answered correctly?
(4+6=10 Marks)
OR
12. a) State and prove Chebyshev’s inequality for a discrete random variable.
b) What is the smallest value of 𝑘 in Chebyshev’s theorem for which the probability that a random
variable will take on a value between 𝜇 − 𝑘𝜎 and 𝜇 + 𝑘𝜎 is
i) at least 0.95; ii) at least 0.99? (6+2+2=10 Marks)
13. The joint probability distribution of 𝑋 and 𝑌 is given below.

X 1 1 2 4
Y 3 4 5 6
f(x, y) 1/8 1/4 1/2 1/8
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UMAT-201A
Answer the following:
a) find the marginal distribution of X; b) find the marginal distribution of Y;
c) find the conditional probability of Y given X = x; d) Are they independent? Justify.
(2+2+4+2=10 Marks)
OR
14. a) Define the joint probability distribution function.

b) Find the joint probability density function two random variables 𝑋 and 𝑌 whose joint distribution is
given below:
2 2
(1 − 𝑒 −𝑥 )(1 − 𝑒 −𝑦 ), for 0 < 𝑥, 0 < 𝑦;
𝐹(𝑥, 𝑦) = {
0, elsewhere
c) Find 𝑃(1 < 𝑋 ≤ 2, 1 < 𝑌 ≤ 2). (1+7+2=10 Marks)
15. a) Define the Binomial distribution.

𝑋
b) If X has a binomial distribution with parameters 𝑝 and 𝑛 and 𝑌 = 𝑛, then find the mean and variance
of 𝑌.
c) You arrive at a bus stop at 10 o’clock, knowing that the bus will arrive at some time uniformly
distributed between 10 and 10:30. What is the probability that you will have to wait longer than 10
minutes? If at 10:15 the bus has not yet arrived, what is the probability that you will have to wait at
least an additional 10 minutes?
(2+4+4=10 Marks)
OR
16. a) Find the moment generating function of Poisson distribution. Find the mean and variance of a Poisson
distribution by using moment-generating function.
b) A manufacturer of cotter pins knows that 3% of his product is defective. Find the probability that in a
box of 150 cotter pins has i) at most 2 defective, ii) no defective.
(6 + 2+2=10 Marks)
1 2 2
17. a) Prove that moment generating function of the normal distribution is given by 𝑀𝑋 (𝑡) = 𝑒 𝜇𝑡+2𝜎 𝑡
where 𝜇 and 𝜎 are respectively the mean and standard deviation of the distribution.
b) A certain type of light bulb has an output that is normally distributed with mean 2,000 end foot
candles and standard deviation 85 end foot candles. Determine a lower specification limit K so that
only 5 % of the light bulbs produced will be defective. (5+5=10 Marks)
OR
18. a) Define moment generating function.
b) If X is a random variable having the Poisson distribution with the parameter 𝜆 and 𝜆 → ∞, then the
𝑋−𝜆
moment-generating function of 𝑍 = approaches the moment-generating function of the standard
√𝜆
normal distribution.
(2+8=10 Marks)
≈≈≈≈≈
Page 5 of 5
UMAT-201A


SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
A) Fill in the blanks:
1. The number of permutations of letters in the word “indistinguishable” is ________.
2. If P(A/B) = 0.6, P(A)= 0.1 and P(B)= 0.2, then P(A∩B) is_________.
3. If is a constant, then ( ) ( ), where denotes moment generating function.
4. Let be a random variable taking values such that ( ) ( ) ( )

then the mean of = __________.
5. If A B, then P(A/Bc)= _________.
B) Choose the correct answer:
6. Let P(A)= 0.9 and P(B)= 0.8 and P(A ∩ B) = k. Then
A) k < 0.7 B) 0.2 < k < 0.7 C) k < 0.6 D) k
7. In a binomial distribution, and = 1/5. Its standard deviation is __________.
A) √ B) √ C) 4 D) 8
8. If the moment generating function of a random variable X is 4et, then what is E(X)?
A) 2 B)et C) 1 D) 4
9. If a random variable X has a uniform distribution with a mean of 10 and the lowest value of X is 5, what
is the largest value that X can take?
A) 5 B) 15 C) 10 D) 20
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UMAT-201A
10. A company produces fans. The probability that a fan is defective is 0.01. The probability that a sample of
300 fans will contain exactly one defective fan is
A) 0.3 B) 3e-3 C) (1/6)*e-1 D) 0.03
C) Given below are pairs of statements. Each statement is either True (T) or False (F) resulting in four
possibilities – TT / TF / FT / FF. State your choice.
11. Let A and B be events defined in a sample space S. Suppose both P(A)and P(B) are nonzero, then
A) events A and B cannot be mutually exclusive.

B) events A and B cannot be independent.
12. A) The shape of the standard normal curve is Bell Shaped.

B) The standard normal curve is symmetric about the value 0.5.
13. A) If A B, then P(A/B) = 1

B) If B A, then P(A/B) = P(A)/P(B)
14. A) The number of telephone calls arriving at a switching center during various intervals of time follows
Poisson distribution.
B) Total time spent on Facebook by an individual up to age 18 is an example of discrete uniform
distribution.
15. If ( ) (Z ) where Z is standard Normal distribution. Then
A) P(Z< a) = ( ) = P(Z ≤ a)
B) P(a < Z ≤ b) = (b) – (a)
D) Define following:
16. Axiomatic definition of probability
17. Bernoulli trail
18. Discrete uniform distribution
19. Moment generating function
20. Probability density function
Page 2 of 5
UMAT-201A


SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
1. There are two identical decks of cards, each possessing a distinct symbol so that the cards from each deck
can be identified. One deck of cards is laid out in a fixed order, and the other deck is shuffled and the
cards laid out one by one on top of the fixed deck. Whenever two cards with the same symbol occur in the
same position, we say that a match has occurred. Let the number of cards in the two deck be 10 each. Find
the probability of getting a match at the first four positions.
OR
2. A number is selected at random from (1, 2, . . . , 100). Given that the number selected is divisible by 2,
find the probability that it is divisible by 3 or 5.
3. Suppose that in a hill station, the probability that a rainy fall day is followed by a rainy day is 0.80 and the
probability that a sunny fall day is followed by a rainy day is 0.60. Find the probabilities that a rainy fall
day is followed by
a) A rainy day, sunny day and another rainy day.

b) Two sunny days and then a rainy day.
c) Two rainy days and then two sunny days.
d) Rain two days later.
(1+1+1+2=5 Marks)
4. The joint pdf of a bivariate random variable (X, Y) is given by

( ) {
a) Find the value of .

b) Are X and Y independent?
c) Find P(X+Y<1). (1+2+2=5 Marks)
Page 3 of 5
UMAT-201A
5. For the below function ( ) { ( )
a) Verify whether it is probability mass function of a discrete random variable?
b) Find (i) ( ), (ii) ( ) (iii) ( ). (2+1+1+1=5 Marks)
OR
6. Show that if three events , , and are independent, then and ( ) are independent.
7. Let X be uniformly distributed over (p,q). Find (a) E[X] and (b) Var(X). (2+3=5 Marks)
8. Prove the following for a discrete random variable with as its cumulative distribution function:
a) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
b) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
c) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) (1+2+2=5 Marks)
9. Suppose distribution function of a random variable Z is given as
( ) { ( )
Find P(Z= -2), P(Z=2) , P(-2 < Z < 1) and P(0 ≤ Z ≤ 2).
( )
10. If is a random variable with ( ) , . Prove Markov‟s inequality: ( ) for .
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
11. a) State and prove Chebyshev‟s theorem.

b) The mean age of staff in a Institute is 30, with a standard deviation of 6. Between which two age
limits must 75% of the data set lie?
(5+5=10 Marks)
OR
12. a) State and prove Bayes‟ theorem.

b) In a TV Game show, a contestant selects one of three doors; behind one of the doors there is a prize
and behind the other two there are no prizes. After the contestant selects a door, the game-show host
opens one of the remaining doors, and reveals that there is no prize behind it. The host then asks the
contestant whether they want to SWITCH their choice to the other unopened door, or STICK to their
original choice. Is it probabilistically advantageous for the contestant to SWITCH doors, or is the
probability of winning the prize same whether they STICK or SWITCH? (Assume that the host selects
a door to open, from those available with equal probability.)
(5+5=10 Marks)
13. a) Prove that moment generating function of the normal distribution is given by ( )
where and are respectively the mean and standard deviation of the distribution.
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UMAT-201A
b) Entry to a certain University is determined by a national test. The scores on this test are normally
distributed with a mean of 500 and a standard deviation of 100. Mr. X wants to be admitted to this
university and he knows that he/she must score better than at least 70% of the students who took the
test. X takes the test and scores 585. Will X be admitted to this university?
(6+4=10 Marks)
OR
14. Consider an experiment of drawing randomly three balls from an urn containing two red, three white, and
four blue balls. Let (X, Y) be a bivariate random variable where X and Y denote, respectively, the number
of red and white balls chosen.
a) Find the joint pmf's of (X, Y).

b) Find the marginal pmf's of X and Y.
c) Are X and Y independent? Justify. (3+3+4=10 Marks)
15. a) Define Poisson distribution with parameter . Prove that the mean and the variance of a Poisson
distribution are both equal to
b) Show that Poisson distribution can be obtained as limiting form of Binomial distribution. Prove that
the mean and variance of the binomial distribution are given by and ( ), where
and are parameters of the distribution.
(5+5=10 Marks)
OR
16. a) Show that rth derivative of moment generating function at the point 0 is rth moment about „0‟.
b) Find the moment generating function for a random variable whose probability density is given
by: ( ) { (5+5=10 Marks)
17. Prove that the mean and variance of the binomial distribution are given by and ( ),
where and are parameters of the distribution.
OR
18. Given the joint probability distribution ( ) for Find the

following:
a) The joint marginal distribution of and .
b) The joint marginal distribution of and .
c) The marginal distribution of .
d) The conditional distribution of given and .
e) The joint conditional distribution of and given . (2+2+2+2+2=10 Marks)
$$$$
Page 5 of 5
UMAT-201A


SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
A) Fill in the Blanks:
1. Number of ways can eight persons form a circle for a folk dance is ___________.
2. The probability of a certain event is __________.
3. Number of ways in which a distributor can choose 2 of 15 warehouses to ship a large order is _________.
4. An assembler of electronic equipment has 20 integrated-circuit chips on her table, and she must solder three
of them as part of a larger component. Number of ways can she choose the three chips for assembly is
___________?
5. A die is loaded in such a way that each odd number is twice as likely to occur as each even number.
Probability of event that a number greater than 3 occurs on a single roll of the die is ___________
B) Choose the most appropriate option for below:
6. At the end of the day, a bakery gives everything that is unsold to food banks for the needy. If it has 12
apple pies left at the end of a given day, in how many different ways can it distribute these pies among six
food banks for the needy?
A) 6188 B) 1209 C) 8560 D) 4189
7. Near a certain exit of a highway, the probabilities, that a truck stopped at a roadblock will have faulty
brakes, badly worn tires are 0.23, 0.24, respectively. Also, the probability is 0.38 that a truck stopped at
the roadblock will have either faulty brakes or badly worn tires. What is the probability that a truck
stopped at this roadblock will have faulty brakes as well as badly worn tires?
A) 0.09 B) 0.47 C) 0.61 D) 0.64
8. If the probability that a bomb dropped from a place will strike the target is 60% and if 10 bombs are
dropped, find mean and variance?
A) 0.6, 0.24 B) 6,2.4 C)0.4, 0.16 D) 4, 1.6

Page 1 of 5
UMAT-201A
9. What is the mean and variance for standard normal distribution?
A) Mean is 0 and variance is 1 B) Mean is 1 and variance is 0

C) Mean is 0 and variance is ∞ D) Mean is ∞ and variance is 0
10. A batsman hits 6 boundaries out of 30 balls. Find the probability that he does not hit a boundary.
A) ⅕ B) ⅖ C) ⅗ D) ⅘
C) State whether the following statements are “TRUE” or “FALSE:
11. F(∞,∞) = -1
12. Given A and B independent events, then 𝐴 and B∩Bc are independent.
13. If P(A/B) < P(A), then P(B/A) < P(B).
14. P(B/B) = 1
15. Any two mutually exclusive events are independent.
D) Define briefly:
16. Expectation
17. Sample space
18. Continuous uniform distribution
19. Conditional probability
20. General addition rule of probability
Page 2 of 5
UMAT-201A


SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
1. Derive expression for 𝑃(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 ∪ 𝐶 ∪ 𝐷) given any four events A, B, C and D.
OR
2. A hat contains 20 white slips of paper numbered from 1 through 20, 10 red slips of paper numbered from
1 through 10, 40 yellow slips of paper numbered from 1 through 40, and 10 blue slips of paper numbered
from 1 through 10. If these 80 slips of paper are thoroughly shuffled so that each slip has the same
probability of being drawn, find the probabilities of drawing a slip of paper that is
a) blue or white;
b) numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5;
c) red or yellow and also numbered 1, 2, 3, or 4;
d) numbered 5, 15, 25, or 35;
e) white and numbered higher than 12 or yellow and numbered higher than 26.
3. Suppose that if a person visits Disneyland, the probability that he will go on the Jungle Cruise is 0.74, the
probability that he will ride the Monorail is 0.70, the probability that he will go on the Matterhorn ride is
0.62, the probability that he will go on the Jungle Cruise and ride the Monorail is 0.52, the probability
that he will go on the Jungle Cruise as well as the Matterhorn ride is 0.46, the probability that he will ride
the Monorail and go on the Matterhorn ride is 0.44, and the probability that he will go on all three of these
rides is 0.34. What is the probability that a person visiting Disneyland will go on at least one of these three
rides?
4 If X is the proportion of persons who will respond to one kind of mail-order solicitation, Y is the
proportion of persons who will respond to another kind of mail-order solicitation, and the joint probability
density of X and Y is given by
0.4 ∗ (4𝑦 + 𝑥) 0 < 𝑥 < 1, 0 < 𝑦 < 1;

f(x,y) = {
0 𝑒𝑙𝑠𝑒𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒
find the probabilities that
a) at least 30 percent will respond to the first kind of mail-order solicitation;
b) at most 50 percent will respond to the second kind of mail-order solicitation given that there has been
a 20 percent response to the first kind of mail-order solicitation.
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UMAT-201A
5. The joint probability density function of a two-dimensional random variable (X,Y) is given by
(𝑦 + 𝑥) 0 < 𝑥 < 1, 0 < 𝑦 < 1;

f(x,y) = {
Find the joint distribution function of these two random variables.
OR
6. Define independent events. Show that if A and B are independent, then A and Bc are also independent.
7. Show that moment generating function of the normal distribution is given by

1 2 2
Mx(t) = 𝑒 𝑢𝑡+2𝜎 𝑡
.
1
8. If X is a discrete uniform random distribution f(x) = 𝑘
for x = 1,2,…,k, then show that
𝑘+1
a) its mean is 2
𝑘 2 −1
b) its variance is 12 (2+3=5 Marks)
9. Find the probability of getting five heads and seven tails in 12 flips of a balanced coin.
10. If 2 percent of the books bound at a certain bindery have defective bindings, use the Poisson
approximation to the binomial distribution to determine the probability that 5 of 400 books bound by this
bindery will have defective bindings.
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
11. a) Define Poisson distribution and show that it’s a limiting case of Binomial distribution.
b) Show its mean and variance are equal. (6+4=10 Marks)
OR
12. a) State and prove 𝐶ℎ𝑒𝑏𝑦𝑠ℎ𝑒𝑣’𝑠 𝑇ℎ𝑒𝑜𝑟𝑒𝑚.
b) If the probability density of X is given by
630𝑥 4 (1 − 𝑥)4 , 0<𝑥<1

𝑓(𝑥) = {
0, 𝑒𝑙𝑠𝑒𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒
i) Find the probability that it will take on a value within two standard deviations of the mean.
ii) Compare this probability with the lower bound provided by Chebyshev’s theorem.
(5+5=10 Marks)
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UMAT-201A
13. a) State and prove Bayes’ theorem.
b) It is estimated that 50% of emails are spam emails. Some software has been applied to filter these
spam emails before they reach your inbox. A certain brand of software claims that it can detect 99%
of spam emails, and the probability for a false positive (a non-spam email detected as spam) is 5%.
Now if an email is detected as spam, then what is the probability that it is in fact a non-spam email?
(5+5=10 Marks)
OR
14. a) Find probability distribution of the total number of heads obtained in four tosses of a balanced coin.
b) Find distribution function in the above case. (5+5=10 Marks)
15. a) Derive multiplication rule of probability for any 3 events A, B and C.
b) If a person visits his dentist, suppose that the probability that he will have his teeth cleaned is 0.44, the
probability that he will have a cavity filled is 0.24, the probability that he will have tooth extracted is
0.21, the probability that he will have his teeth cleaned and a cavity filled is 0.08, the probability that
he will have his teeth cleaned and a tooth extracted is 0.11, the probability that he will have his cavity
filled and a tooth extracted is 0.07, and the probability that he will have his teeth cleaned, tooth
extracted and a cavity filled is 0.03. What is the probability that a person visiting his dentist will have
at least one of these things done to him? (5+5=10 Marks)
OR
16. If X is the amount of money (in dollars) that a salesperson spends on gasoline during a day and Y is the
corresponding amount of money (in dollars) for which he or she is reimbursed, the joint density of these
two random variables is given by
find
a) the marginal density of X;
b) the conditional density of Y given X = 12;
c) the probability that the salesperson will be reimbursed at least $8 when spending $12.
(3+3+4=10 Marks)
17. Show that moment generating function of binomial distribution with parameters 𝑛 and 𝑝 approaches to
that of standard normal distribution as 𝑛 approaches infinity.
OR
18. Find mean and variance of binomial distribution with parameters 𝑛 and 𝑝.
@@@@@
Page 5 of 5
UMAT-201A


SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
A) Fill in the blanks:
1. The probability of a sure event is __________.
2. If X represents the number of points rolled with a balanced die, then the expected value of g(X) =2X 2+1 is
___________.
3. The probability of getting an odd number or number less than 5 on tossing a die is __________.
4. The probability of getting 5 heads of five tosses of a coin is __________.
5. The value of c for which f(x) =c(𝑥5) for k = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 can be probability distribution of a random
variable is ___________.
B) Define the following:
6. Axiomatic probability
7. rth moment about origin
8. Variance
9. Bernoulli distribution
10. Standard normal distribution
Page 1 of 5
UMAT-201A
C) Choose the most appropriate option for below:
11. At a sales meeting, there were 15 men and 24 women. Eight of the men and 10 of the women were
selected to sell a new product. If a salesperson was selected at random, then probability that salesperson
was a female or a person who was selected to sell the new product is given by
A) 32/39 B) 31/39 C) 24/39 D) 18/39
𝟐
12. If the mean and variance of a binomial distribution are 2 and , respectively, then the sample size n is
𝟑
A) 3 B) 6 C) 5 D) 4
13. An automobile safety engineer claims that 1 in 10 automobile accidents is due to driver fatigue. Using the
formula for the binomial distribution and rounding to four decimals, what is the probability that at least 3
of 5 automobile accidents are due to driver fatigue?
A) 0.00045 B) 0.0081 C) 0.00001 D) 0.0086
14. If f(x) and F(x) are the values of the probability mass function and the distribution function of X at x
respectively, then P(a≤X≤b) is given by
A) F(b)–F(a) b) F(b)–F(a)+f(a) C) F(b)–F(a)–f(a) D) F(b)–F(a)–f(b)
15. The number of printing errors in a page of a book follows a Poisson distribution with mean equal to 1.8.
The probability that there will be no error on a certain page of the book is :
A) 0.18 B) 𝑒 −1.8 C) (1.8)𝑒 −1.8 D) 𝑒 −1.8 /1.8
D) State whether the following statements are “TRUE” or “FALSE”:
16. f(x)=x2/30 can serve as the probability distribution of a random variable with range for x=0, 1, 2, 3, 4.
17. If two events are not mutually exclusive, they must be independent.
18. b(x;n,p)= B(x;n,p) – B(x–1;n,p) for a Binomial distribution.
19. If 𝐴 and 𝐵 are two events in the sample space, then 𝑃(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ≥ 𝑃(𝐴) + 𝑃(𝐵) − 1.
20. If X has the discrete uniform distribution f(x)=1/k for x=1, 2,…, k , then its mean is (k–1)/2.
Page 2 of 5
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SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
1. Show that if A and B are independent events, then A and 𝐵′ are also independent.
2. Considering 𝑚 independent flips of a balanced coin, let Xi be the number of heads (0 or 1) obtained in the
ith flip for i =1, 2, …, m. Find the joint probability distribution of these 𝑚 random variables.
𝑛
3. Show that [(aX+b)n] =∑ (𝑛𝑘)𝑏 𝑘 𝑎𝑛−𝑘 𝐸(𝑋 𝑛−𝑘 )
𝑘=0
4. The joint probability density function of a two-dimensional random variable (X, Y) is given by
(𝑦 − 𝑥) 0 < 𝑥 < 1, 0 < 𝑦 < 1;

f(x,y) = {
Find the joint distribution function of these two random variables.
5. Four candidates are seeking a vacancy on a school board. If A is twice as likely to be elected as B, and B
and C are given about the same chance of being elected, while C is twice as likely to be elected as D, what
are the probabilities that (a) C will win; (b) A will not win? (2½ x2=5 Marks)
1 2 2
6. Show that moment generating function of the normal distribution is given by Mx(t) = 𝑒 𝑢𝑡+2𝜎 𝑡
.
OR
7. The number of complaints that a dry cleaning establishment receives per day is a random variable having
a Poisson distribution with 𝜆=3.3. Using the formula for the Poisson distribution find the probability that
it will receive only two complaints on any given day.
8. A social scientist claims that only 50 percent of all high school seniors capable of doing college work
actually go to college. Assuming that this claim is true, find the probabilities that among 18 high school
seniors capable of doing college work
a) exactly 10 will go to college;

b) at least 10 will go to college;
c) at most 8 will go to college
1
9. If X is a discrete uniform random distribution f(x) =
𝑘
for x = 1,2,…,k, then find its moment–generating
function.
Page 3 of 5
UMAT-201A
OR
10. The number of marriage licenses issued in a certain city during the month of June may be looked upon as
a random variable with μ = 124 and σ = 7.5. According to Chebyshev’s theorem, with what probability
can we assert that between 64 and 184 marriage licenses will be issued there during the month of June?
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
11. a) State and prove 𝐵𝑎𝑦𝑒𝑠’ 𝑇ℎ𝑒𝑜𝑟𝑒𝑚.
b) Given that one percent of women over 50 have breast cancer, ninety percent of women who have
breast cancer test positive on mammograms and eight percent of women will have false positives.
What is the probability that a woman has cancer if she has a positive mammogram result?
(5+5=10 Marks)
OR
12. a) The manager of a bakery knows that the number of chocolate cakes he can sell on any given day is a
random variable having the probability distribution f(x) = 1/6 for x = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. He also
knows that there is a profit of $1.00 for each cake that he sells and a loss (due to spoilage) of $0.40 for
each cake that he does not sell. Assuming that each cake can be sold only on the day it is made, find
the baker’s expected profit for a day on which he bakes
i) one of the cakes;
ii) two of the cakes;
iii) three of the cakes;
iv) four of the cakes;
v) five of the cakes.
vi) How many should he bake in order to maximize his expected profit?
b) A hat contains 20 white slips of paper numbered from 1 through 20, 10 red slips of paper numbered
from 1 through 10, 40 yellow slips of paper numbered from 1 through 40, and 10 blue slips of paper
numbered from 1 through 10. If these 80 slips of paper are thoroughly shuffled so that each slip has
the same probability of being drawn, find the probabilities of drawing a slip of paper that is
i) blue or white;
ii) numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5;
iii) red or yellow and also numbered 1, 2, 3, or 4;
iv) numbered 5, 15, 25, or 35;
v) white and numbered higher than 12 or yellow and numbered higher than 26. (5+5=10 Marks)
13. a) Define moment generating function for a discrete random variable X.
b) If a and b are constants, then MX+a(t)= eat MX(t)
c) MbX(t)= MX(bt)
d) M(X+a)/b(t)= eat MX(t/b) (1+3+3+3=10 Marks)
Page 4 of 5
UMAT-201A
OR
14. a) Find the moment generating function of the binomial distribution.

b) Show that if the limiting conditions n → ∞, θ → 0, while nθ remains constant, are applied to the
moment generating function of the binomial distribution, we get the moment–generating function of
the Poisson distribution (5+5=10 Marks)
15. a) Define Poisson distribution.
b) Show its mean and variance are equal.
c) Find its moment generating function. (2+4+4=10 Marks)
OR
16. a) If Z is a random variable having the standard normal distribution, find the respective values z1, z2, z3,
and z4 such that
i) P(0 < Z < z1) = 0.4306;
ii) P(Z ≥ z2) = 0.7704;
iii) P(Z > z3) = 0.2912;
iv) P(−z4 ≤ Z < z4) = 0.9700.
b) Find z if the standard–normal–curve area

i) between 0 and z is 0.4726;
ii) to the left of z is 0.9868;
iii) to the right of z is 0.1314;
iv) between −z and z is 0.8502 (5+5=10 Marks)
17. a) Let X be a random variable with the following probability distribution:
X : –3 6 9
P(X=x) : 1/6 ½ 1/3
Find E(X) and E(X2) and using the laws of expectation and hence evaluate E(2X+1)2.
b) Given the probability density function of a continuous random variable X as

𝑥
, 0≤𝑥<1
2
1
, 1≤𝑥<2
𝑓(𝑥) = 2
3−𝑥
, 2≤𝑥<3
2
{ 0, 𝑒𝑙𝑠𝑒𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒
Find the cumulative distribution function F(x). (5+5=10 Marks)
OR
18. Given the joint probability density

4𝑥𝑦 𝑓𝑜𝑟 0 < 𝑥 < 1, 0 < 𝑦 < 1
𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) = {
a) Find the marginal densities of X and Y
b) Find conditional density of X given Y=y. (5+5=10 Marks)
Page 5 of 5
UMAT-202


Mathematics: Methods of Ordinary Differential Equations

SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
A) Choose the most appropriate alternative:
𝒅𝒚
1. The general solution of = 𝒆𝒙+𝒚 is
𝒅𝒙
A) 𝒆𝒙 + 𝒆𝒚 = 𝒄 B) 𝒆𝒙 + 𝒆−𝒚 = 𝒄 C) 𝒆−𝒙 + 𝒆𝒚 = 𝒄 D) 𝒆−𝒙 − 𝒆−𝒚 = 𝒄
2. Which one of the following is not a UC function?
A) 𝒙𝟐 𝒆𝟑𝒙 B) 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒙 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝟑𝒙 C) 𝒆𝒂𝒙 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝒃𝒙 D) 𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝒙
𝒅𝒚
3. The equation 𝒚 = 𝒑𝒙 + 𝒑𝟐 where 𝒑 = is called
𝒅𝒙
A) Bernoulli Equation B) Ricatti’s Equation C) Clairaut Equation D) Euler Equation
4. Which one of the following transformation does not reduce the equation (𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 3)𝑑𝑥 +
(2𝑥 + 4𝑦 + 7)𝑑𝑦 = 0 to a separable equation?
A) 𝒛 = 𝒙 + 𝒚 B) 𝒛 = 𝟐𝒙 + 𝟒𝒚 + 𝟔 C) 𝒛 = 𝒙 + 𝟐𝒚 D) 𝒛 = 𝒙 + 𝟐𝒚 + 𝟑
5. Which one of the following is not an integrating factor of 𝒚𝒅𝒙 − 𝒙𝒅𝒚 = 𝟎
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
A) − 𝒙𝟐 B) 𝒙+𝒚
C) − 𝒙𝒚 D) 𝒚𝟐

𝑑𝑦
6. The integral curves of the differential equation 𝑑𝑥 = 2𝑥 are _________.
7. A problem consisting of a differential equation together with conditions at one point 𝑥0 , is

called _________.
Page 1 of 4
UMAT-202
8. The expression 𝑀(𝑥, 𝑦)𝑑𝑥 + 𝑁(𝑥, 𝑦)𝑑𝑦 is equal to dF(𝑥, 𝑦) , for some function F (𝑥, 𝑦) , if
𝑀(𝑥, 𝑦) = _______ and 𝑁(𝑥, 𝑦) = _________.
9. The transformation __________ reduces the equation 𝑎0 𝑥 𝑛 𝑦 (𝑛) + 𝑎1 𝑥 𝑛−1 𝑦 (𝑛−1) + ⋯ + 𝑎𝑛−1 𝑥𝑦 ′ +
𝑎𝑛 𝑦 = 𝐹(𝑥) to an equation with constant coefficients.
10. The roots of an auxiliary equation corresponding to a 5th order homogeneous ordinary differential
equation are 1 + 𝑖 , 2 , 1 , 1 , 1 − 𝑖. Then the general solution of the differential equation is ___________.
11. The condition for a function 𝐹(𝑥, 𝑦) to be a homogeneous equation of degree 𝑛 is __________.
𝑑2 𝑦
12. The particular solution of + 𝑦 = 𝑥 2 is ____________.
𝑑𝑥 2
13. The Initial value problem (𝑡 − 3)𝑦 ′ + (ln 𝑡)𝑦 = 2𝑡 , 𝑦(1) = 2 has solution in the interval ___________.
C) Match the following:
‘A’ ‘B’
14. (𝒚 + 𝟏)(𝒙 + 𝟐)𝒅𝒙 + (𝒙𝟑 + 𝒙)𝒅𝒚 = 𝟎 i) exact
𝒅𝒚
15. 𝒙𝟒 𝒅𝒙 + 𝟐𝒙𝟐 𝒚 = 𝟏 ii) homogeneous
16. (𝟑𝒙𝟐 + 𝟒𝒙𝒚)𝒅𝒙 + (𝟐𝒙𝟐 + 𝟐𝒚)𝒅𝒚 = 𝟎 iii) linear
17. (𝒙𝟐 − 𝟑𝒚𝟐 )𝒅𝒙 + (𝒙𝟐 + 𝒚𝟐 )𝒅𝒚 = 𝟎 iv) homogeneous and exact
v) separable
D) State whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE:
18. If the Wronskian of two functions is non-zero in an interval, then the functions are linearly independent.
19. Every homogeneous equation can be reduced to a separable equation.
𝑑2 𝑦
20. The boundary value problem 𝑑𝑥 2 + 𝑦 = 0, 𝑦(0) = 1, 𝑦(𝜋) = 5 has a unique solution.
Page 2 of 4
UMAT-202



SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦
1. Solve 𝑦 − 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = 𝑎 (𝑦 2 + 𝑑𝑥 ).
2. Solve the initial value problem (2𝑥𝑦 − 3)𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥 2 + 4𝑦)𝑑𝑦 = 0, 𝑦(1) = 2.
OR
3. Solve the initial value problem (𝑦 + √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 , 𝑦(1) = 0.
4. Solve 𝑥𝑑𝑦 + (𝑥𝑦 + 𝑦 − 1)𝑑𝑥 = 0.
𝑑𝑦 𝑦 𝑥
5. Solve + = .
𝑑𝑥 2𝑥 𝑦3
𝑑4 𝑦 𝑑3 𝑦 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
6. Given that sin 𝑥 is a solution of + 2 𝑑𝑥 3 + 6 𝑑𝑥 2 + 2 𝑑𝑥 + 5𝑦 = 0 , find the general solution.
𝑑𝑥 4
7. A certain college graduate borrows $8000 to buy a car. The lender charges interest at an annual rate of
10%. Assuming that interest is compounded continuously and that the borrower makes payments
continuously at a constant annual rate 𝑘, determine the payment rate 𝑘 that is required to pay off the loan
in 3 years. Also, determine how much interest is paid during the 3 year period.
OR
8. Prove that if 𝑓1 (𝑥) and 𝑓2 (𝑥) are two solutions of 𝑎0 (𝑥)𝑦 ′′ + 𝑎1 (𝑥)𝑦 ′ + 𝑎2 (𝑥)𝑦 = 0, then 𝑐1 𝑓1 (𝑥) +
𝑐2 𝑓2 (𝑥), where 𝑐1 and 𝑐2 are arbitrary constants, is also a solution of the given differential equation.
9. Consider the non-homogeneous differential equation 𝑦 ′′ − 3𝑦 ′ + 2𝑦 = 4𝑥 2 .

a) Show that ex and e2x are linearly independent solutions of the corresponding homogeneous equation.
b) What is the complementary function of the given non-homogeneous equation?
c) Show that 2𝑥 2 + 6𝑥 + 7 is a particular integral of the given equation.
d) What is the general solution of the given equation.
(1½+1+1½+1=5 Marks)
𝑑𝑦
10. Solve : (𝑥 + 𝑦 − 1) 𝑑𝑥 = (𝑥 − 𝑦 + 2).
Page 3 of 4
UMAT-202
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
𝑑𝑦
11. Derive the one-parameter family of solutions of the equation + 𝑃(𝑥)𝑦 = 𝑄(𝑥).
𝑑𝑥
OR
12. a) Prove that if 𝑀𝑑𝑥 + 𝑁𝑑𝑦 = 0 is a homogeneous equation, then the change of variables 𝑥 = 𝑢𝑦
transforms this equation into a separable equation in the variables u and y.
b) Using the result in Part (a) Solve (𝑥 2 − 3𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑥 + 2𝑥𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0. (5+5=10 Marks)
13. Obtain the general solution of the differential equation 𝑦 ′′ + 4𝑦 ′ + 4𝑦 = 4𝑥 2 + 6𝑒 𝑥 .
OR
1
14. Obtain the general solution of the differential equation 𝑦 ′′ + 𝑦 = 1+sin 𝑥 .
15. Given f is a nontrivial solution of a second order homogeneous linear differential equation, find a linearly
independent solution by reducing the order and write the general solution.
OR
16. a) Show that if the equation 𝑀(𝑥, 𝑦) 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑁(𝑥, 𝑦)𝑑𝑦 = 0 is homogeneous and 𝑀(𝑥, 𝑦) 𝑥 +
1
𝑁(𝑥, 𝑦)𝑦 ≠ 0, then is an integrating factor.
𝑀(𝑥,𝑦) 𝑥+𝑁(𝑥,𝑦)𝑦
b) Solve (2𝑥𝑦 2 + 𝑦)𝑑𝑥 + (2𝑦 3 − 𝑥)𝑑𝑦 = 0 by finding a suitable integrating factor.

(5+5=10 Marks)
17. At time 𝑡 = 0, a tank contains 𝑄0 lb of salt dissolved in 100 gal of water. Assume that water containing
1⁄ lb of salt /gal is entering the tank at a rate of 𝑟 gal/min and that the well-stirred mixture is draining
4
from the tank at the same rate.
a) Set up the initial value problem that describes this flow process.
b) Find the amount of salt 𝑄(𝑡) in the tank at any time, and also find the limiting amount QL that is
present after a long time.
c) If 𝑟 = 3 and 𝑄0 = 2𝑄𝐿 , find the time T after which the salt level is within 2% of 𝑄𝐿 .
d) Find the flow rate that is required if the value of T is not to exceed 45 min.
(3+3+2+2=10 Marks)
OR
18. Solve: 𝑥 2 𝑦 ′′ + x𝑦 ′ + 𝑦 = 4 sin ln 𝑥.
@@@@@
Page 4 of 4
UMAT-202



SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
A) Choose the most appropriate response:
1. The differential equation of ( )( ) is
A) Ordinary, Seventh order, linear B) Ordinary, Seventh order, nonlinear

C) Ordinary, Sixth order, linear D) Ordinary, Sixth order, nonlinear
2. The differential equation formed by eliminating the arbitrary constants P and Q from ( )
( ) is
A) B) C) D)
3. The function defined for all real by ( ) is an explicit solution of the following
differential equation
A) B)
C) D) where ( ) and ( )
4. The solution of the differential equation ( ) is
A) B) C) D)
5. The solution of the initial – value problem y(3) = 4 is
A) √ B) √ C) √ D) √
Page 1 of 4
UMAT-202
6. If the differential equation ( ) ( ) (M and N have continuous partial derivatives at

all points (x, y) in a rectangular domain D) is exact in D, then _________.
7. The differential equation ( ) +( ) is _________.
8. If the differential equation ( ) ( ) is not exact in a domain D but the differential

equation ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) is exact in D, then ( ) is called as _________.
9. The solution of the differential equation is _________.
10. If ( ) ( ) is a homogeneous equation then the change of variables which transforms

the given equation into a separate equation is _________.
11. The integrating factor of the linear equation ( ) is __________.
12. The transformation that reduces the Bernoulli equation ( ) ( ) to a linear equation is
_________.
C) Match the Following:
‘A’ ‘B’
13. ( ) ( ) A) Non-homogeneous equation

of first degree in and
14. B) Homogeneous Equation
15. =√ C) Separable equation
16. D) Exact equation
17. C1 C2 is the general solution of for all x, .
18. The solution of the differential equation is ( ) ( )
19. The Particular integral of the differential equation is .
20. The solution of the differential equation is ( )
Page 2 of 4
UMAT-202



SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
1. Solve: ( )
2. Solve the initial value problem ( ) ( ) .
OR
3. Prove that the boundary value problem , ( ) =1, ( ) has no solution.
4. Solve: √ .
5. Solve:
6. Solve: [ ] [ ]
OR
7. The number N of bacteria in a Culture grew at a rate proportional to N. The Value of N has initially 100
and increased to 332 in one hour. What was the value of N after 1 ½ hours?
8. Find the general solution of
9. Find the general solution of
10. Prove that if ( ) ( ) are two solutions of ( ) ( ) ( ) then ( )

( ) where and are arbitrary constants, is also a solution of the given differential equation.
Page 3 of 4
UMAT-202
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
11. a) Explain the method of solving the homogeneous equation ( ) ( )
b) Solve the initial value problem ( ) ( )

(5+5=10 Marks)
OR
12. In a bank principal increases at the rate of 5% per year. In how many years Rs.1000 double itself?
13. Solve ( ) ( )
OR
14. A tank contains 100gallons of brine made by dissolving 60kg of salt in water. Salt water containing 1kg of
salt per gallon runs in at the rate of 2gal./minute and the mixture kept uniform by stirring, runs out at the
rate of 3gal./minute. Find the amount of salt in the tank at the end of 1hour.
15. Solve ( ) , given that is an integrating factor.
OR
16. Solve: ( ) ( )
17. Solve: ( )
OR
18. Solve: using the method of variation of parameters.
≈≈≈≈≈
Page 4 of 4
UMAT-202



SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
A) Choose the most appropriate response:
𝑑4 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 3
1. Determine the order, degree and linearity of differential equation of 5𝑡 + 3𝑡 2 ( ) − sin(𝑡) 𝑦 6 = 0.
𝑑𝑡 4 𝑑𝑡
A) Fourth order, Third degree, linear B) Third order, First degree, nonlinear
C) Fourth order, First degree, nonlinear D) First order, Third degree, linear
2. Which of the following equations is an exact differential equation?
A) (𝑥 2 + 1)𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0 B) 2𝑥𝑦𝑑𝑥 + (2 + 𝑥 2 )𝑑𝑦 = 0

C) 𝑥𝑑𝑦 + (3𝑥 − 2𝑦)𝑑𝑥 = 0 D) 𝑥 2 𝑦𝑑𝑦 − 𝑦𝑑𝑥 = 0
3. If 𝑑𝑦 = 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥, what is the equation of 𝑦 in terms of 𝑥 such that 𝑦(1) = 1?
A) 𝑥 2 − 3𝑦 + 3 = 0 B) 2𝑦 + 𝑥 3 + 2 = 0
C) 𝑥 3 + 3𝑦 2 + 2 = 0 D) 𝑥 3 − 3𝑦 + 2 = 0
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
4. The complementary function of the differential equation 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 2 + 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = ln(𝑥) is
A) 𝑦 = 𝑐1 + 𝑐2 x B) 𝑦 = 𝑐1 + 𝑐2 𝑒 𝑥 C) 𝑦 = 𝑐1 + 𝑐2 ln(𝑥) D) 𝑦 = (𝑐1 + 𝑐2 𝑥)𝑒 𝑥
𝑑2𝑦 𝑑𝑦
5. The particular integral of the differential equation 𝑑𝑥 2 + 𝑑𝑥
− 2𝑦 = 𝑒 𝑥 is
𝑥𝑒 𝑥 𝑥+𝑒 𝑥
A) 3
B) 3
C) 𝑥𝑒 𝑥 D) 𝑥 + 𝑒 𝑥
𝑑𝑦 𝑎1 𝑥+𝑏1 𝑦+𝑐1 𝑎1 𝑏1
6. If = , where = , then the differential equation is reducible to
𝑑𝑥 𝑎2 𝑥+𝑏2 𝑦+𝑐2 𝑎2 𝑏2
A) Exact form B) Variable Separable form

C) Homogeneous form D) Non-exact form
Page 1 of 4
UMAT-202
7. The total differential of 𝐹(𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑥𝑦 2 + 2𝑥 3 𝑦 is _________.
8. A differential equation 𝑦′ = 𝑓(𝑥, 𝑦) is homogeneous if _________.
9. The differential equation (𝐴𝑥 2 𝑦 + 2𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥 3 + 4𝑥𝑦)𝑑𝑦 = 0 is exact if 𝐴 = _________.
10. The integrating factor of the linear equation [𝑄(𝑥)𝑦 − 𝑃(𝑥)]𝑑𝑥 + 𝑑𝑦 = 0 is _________.
11. For what value of 𝜆 = _________ , the functions 𝑓1 (𝑡) = 𝑡 2 and 𝑓2 (𝑡) = 𝑡 2 + 𝜆𝑡 3 are linearly dependent?
12. A differential equation whose auxiliary equation is having the roots 1 + 𝑖, 1 is _________.
𝑑4 𝑦 𝑑2 𝑦
13. The fundamental set of solutions of 𝑑𝑥 4
− 5 𝑑𝑥 2 + 4𝑦 = 0 is _________.
C) State whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE:
14. If two functions are linearly independent, then one function is the constant multiple of the other.
15. If 𝑠𝑖𝑛ℎ 𝑥 is a solution of a homogeneous differential equation with constant coefficients, then 𝑐𝑜𝑠ℎ 𝑥 is
also its solution.
16. An 𝑛𝑡ℎ order non-homogeneous linear differential equation always have 𝑛 linearly independent solutions.
17. If the roots of the auxiliary equation of a differential equation are 1, 2, 2, 𝑖, then the given differential
equation is of order 4.
18. The one parameter family of solutions contains all solutions of 𝑦′ = 2𝑥.
𝑑𝑦
19. Let 𝑑𝑡
= 1 + 𝑦 2 . Then the solution will be valid for all 𝑡.
20. A homogeneous differential equation always has a solution.
Page 2 of 4
UMAT-202



SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
𝑑𝑦
1. Show that 𝑥 3 + 3𝑥𝑦 2 = 1 is an implicit solution of the differential equation 2𝑥𝑦 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 0 on
the interval 0 < 𝑥 < 1.
2. Discuss the existence and uniqueness of the solutions of the following initial value problem:
𝑑𝑦
= 𝑥 2 sin(𝑦) ; 𝑦(1) = −2.
𝑑𝑥
OR
3. Solve : (2𝑥𝑦 − 3)𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥 2 + 4𝑦)𝑑𝑦 = 0; y(1) = 2.
4. Solve : (𝑥𝑦 + 2𝑥 + 𝑦 + 2)𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥 2 + 2𝑥)𝑑𝑦 = 0.
5. Solve : 𝑥𝑑𝑦 + (𝑥𝑦 + 𝑦 − 1)𝑑𝑥 = 0; 𝑦(1) = 1 by using linear differential equations.
6. Solve: (𝑦 + √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0.
7. Solve : (2𝑥 2 + 𝑦)𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥 2 𝑦 − 𝑥)𝑑𝑦 = 0 using a suitable integrating factor.
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
8. Solve the initial-value problem 𝑑𝑥 2 + 7 𝑑𝑥 + 10𝑦 = 0; 𝑦(0) = −4, 𝑦 ′ (0) = 2.
9. Define the terms “UC function 𝑓” and “UC set of 𝑓”. Find the UC set of 𝑥 3 cos(2𝑥).
OR
10. There were 20 rabbits on an island. After six months the number of rabbits had increased to 100. Let
𝑑𝑁(𝑡)
𝑁(𝑡) be the number of rabbits at time 𝑡, and 𝑑𝑡
is proportional to 𝑁(𝑡), then how many rabbits will
there be at the end of one year?
Page 3 of 4
UMAT-202
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
𝑑𝑦 3⁄
11. Solve: 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑦 = (𝑥𝑦) 2 ; 𝑦(1) = 4.
OR
12. Solve: (𝑥 − 2𝑦 + 1)𝑑𝑥 + (4𝑥 − 3𝑦 − 6)𝑑𝑦 = 0.
13. A large tank initially contains 50 gal of brine in which there is dissolved 100 lb of salt. Brine containing 2
lb of dissolved salt per gallon flows into the tank at the rate of 5 gal/min. The mixture is kept uniform by
stirring, and the stirred mixture simultaneously flows out at the rate of 3 gal/min. How much salt is in the
tank at any time 𝑡 > 0?
OR
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
14. Let 𝑦 = 𝑥 be a solution of the differential equation (𝑥 2 + 1) 2 − 2𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 0. Then find the general
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
solution.
𝑑3 𝑦 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
15. Find the general solution of the differential equation 𝑑𝑥 3
− 6 𝑑𝑥 2 + 11 𝑑𝑥 − 6𝑦 = 𝑒 𝑥 using the method of
undetermined coefficients.
OR
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
16. Find the general solution of the differential equation +4 + 5𝑦 = 𝑒 −2𝑥 sec(𝑥) using the method of
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
variation of parameters.
𝑑3 𝑦 𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
17. Solve: 𝑥 3 𝑑𝑥 3 − 4𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 2 + 8𝑥 𝑑𝑥 − 8𝑦 = 4 ln 𝑥.
OR
18. Show that the value of the Wronskian of two solutions 𝑓1 and 𝑓2 of the differential equation
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
𝑎0 (𝑥) + 𝑎1 (𝑥) + 𝑎2 (𝑥)𝑦 = 0,
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
where 𝑎0 , 𝑎1 , and 𝑎2 are continuous real functions on a real interval 𝑎 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 𝑏 and 𝑎0 (𝑥) ≠ 0 for any 𝑥
on 𝑎 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 𝑏, either is zero for all 𝑎 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 𝑏 or is zero for no 𝑥 on 𝑎 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 𝑏.
≈≈≈≈≈
Page 4 of 4
UMAT-202



SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
I. Answer the following questions. Each question carries ONE mark:
A) Choose the appropriate answer:

y
1. The differential equation (𝑥 𝑡𝑎𝑛 – 𝑦) 𝑑𝑥 – 𝑥 𝑑𝑦 = 0 𝑖𝑠:
x
A) exact B) separable C) homogeneous D) linear
𝑑𝑥
2. The integrating factor of the differential equation 𝑑𝑦 + 𝑃(𝑦)𝑥 = 𝑄(𝑦) is:
A) 𝑒 ∫ 𝑝(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 B) 𝑒 ∫ 𝑝(𝑦)𝑑𝑦 C) 𝑒 −∫ 𝑝(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 D) 𝑒 −∫ 𝑝(𝑦)𝑑𝑦
3. The equation 𝑦𝑑𝑥 + 2𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 can be made exact by multiplying the equation with the integrating
factor.
𝑥
A) 𝑥 B) 𝑦 C) 𝑥𝑦 D)
𝑦
4. Which one of the following functions is a UC – function:
A) 𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 B) 𝑥 −2 𝑒 𝑥 C) sec 𝑥 D) 𝑐𝑜𝑠ℎ 𝑥
5. The differential equation (3𝐴2 𝑥 2 + 𝐵𝑦 cos 𝑥)𝑑𝑥 + (2 sin 𝑥 − 4𝐴𝑦 3 )𝑑𝑦 = 0 is exact for
A) A = 3, B = 2 B) A = 2, B = 3 C) A = 3, B = 4 D) A = 2, B = 5
6. What is the transformation that reduces the equation (𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 3)𝑑𝑥 + (2𝑥 + 4𝑦 + 1)𝑑𝑦 = 0 to a
separable equation in the variables 𝑥 and 𝑧?
A) 𝑧 = 2𝑥 + 𝑦 B) 𝑧 = 𝑥 + 2𝑦 C) 𝑧 = 𝑥 + 𝑦 D) 𝑧 = 4𝑥 + 𝑦
7. What is the Wronskian of the solutions of the differential equation 𝑦 ′′ + 𝑦 = 0 ?
A) non–zero B) zero C) positive D) a function of x
Page 1 of 4
UMAT-202
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
8. The equation 𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 𝑥 3 can be classified as :
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
A) fourth order equation B) non–linear equation

C) homogenous equation D) Cauchy–Euler equation
B) Fill in the Blanks:

𝑑𝑦
9. The graphs of the solutions of the differential equation
𝑑𝑥
= 𝐹(𝑥, 𝑦) is called _______.
10. The roots of auxiliary equation corresponding to a 5th order homogeneous ordinary differential equation
are 1+i, 2, 1, 1, 1-i. Then the general solution y(x) is__________.
11. The substitution 𝑦 = 𝑣𝑥 transforms a homogeneous equation of first order into _________.
12. The UC set of 𝑒 𝑎𝑥 cos(𝑏𝑥 + 𝑐) is _________.
13. The Wronskian of 𝑒 𝑥 , 𝑒 −𝑥 , 𝑒 2𝑥 is _________.
𝑑2 𝑦
14. A particular solution of + 𝑦 = 𝑥 is __________.
𝑑𝑥 2
C) Match the following:
‘A’ ‘B’
15. (𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑥 + 2𝑥𝑦𝑑𝑦 = 0 A) Separable and exact
16. (𝑒 2𝑥 𝑦 2 − 2𝑥)𝑑𝑥 + 𝑒 2𝑥 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 = 0 B) homogeneous and exact
17. (𝑦 + √𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥𝑑𝑦 = 0 C) exact
18. 𝑦 2 𝑥𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥 2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦 = 0 D) linear
19. 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦 − (𝑥𝑦 + 1)𝑑𝑥 = 0 E) Bernoulli
𝑑𝑦 𝑥𝑦
20.
𝑑𝑥
− 𝑥 2 +1 = 𝑥𝑦 2 F) homogeneous and Separable
G) homogeneous
H) linear and exact
Page 2 of 4
UMAT-202



SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
II. Answer the following questions. Each question carries FIVE marks.
𝑑𝑦
1. Solve: (2𝑥𝑦 − 9𝑥 2 ) + (2𝑦 + 𝑥 2 + 1) 𝑑𝑥 = 0.
1
2. Solve the initial value problem 𝑦 ′ (t) + 𝑦 cos(𝑡) = 0 , 𝑦(0) = 2 .
𝑑𝑦 𝑥 2 +𝑦 2
3. Solve: 𝑑𝑥 = .
𝑥𝑦
4. State Bernoulli equation. Describe how it can be reduced to a linear form.
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
5. Solve by reducing the order of the differential equation 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 4𝑦 = 0 given that 𝑦 = 𝑥 is a
solution.
6. Prove that if 𝑀𝑑𝑥 + 𝑁𝑑𝑦 = 0 is a homogenous equation, then the change of variables 𝑥 = 𝑢𝑦 transforms
this equation into a separable equation in the variables 𝑢 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑦.
OR
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
7. If f1 and f 2 are any two linearly independent solutions of the differential equation 𝑎0 (𝑥) 2 + 𝑎1 (𝑥) +
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝑎2 (𝑥)𝑦 = 0, then show that every solution 𝑓 of the above differential equation can be written as a suitable
linear combination 𝑐1 𝑓1 + 𝑐2 𝑓2 of these two linearly independent solutions.
8. Find the general solution of the differential equation 𝑦 𝑖𝑣 + 4𝑦 ′′′ + 10𝑦 ′′ + 6𝑦 ′ + 9𝑦 = 0.
9. Solve the initial value problem 𝑥𝑦 ′ + 2𝑦 = 4𝑥 2 , 𝑦(1) = 2 and determine the interval in which the
solution exists.
OR
10. Solve (𝑥 + 2)𝑦 ′′ − (𝑥 + 2)𝑦 ′ − 3𝑦 = 0
Page 3 of 4
UMAT-202
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
III. Answer the following questions. Each question carries TEN marks:
11. a) Define Integrating factor. Find the integrating factor of the first order linear differential equation
𝑑𝑦
+ 𝑃(𝑥)𝑦 = 𝑄(𝑥).
𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑦 2 0 ≤ 𝑥 < 1,
b) Solve: + 𝑦 = 𝑓(𝑥), where 𝑓(𝑥) = { 𝑦(0) = 0. (5+5=10 Marks)
𝑑𝑥 0 𝑥 ≥ 1,
OR
1 𝜕𝑀(𝑥,𝑦) 𝜕𝑁(𝑥,𝑦)
12. a) Consider 𝑀(𝑥, 𝑦)𝑑𝑥 + 𝑁(𝑥, 𝑦)𝑑𝑦 = 0. If 𝑝(𝑥, 𝑦) = 𝑁(𝑥,𝑦) [ − ] depends upon 𝑥 only,
𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑥
then prove that exp[∫ 𝑝(𝑥, 𝑦)𝑑𝑥] is an integrating factor of the given differential equation.
b) Solve (2𝑥 2 + 𝑦)𝑑𝑥 + (𝑥 2 𝑦 − 𝑥)𝑑𝑦 = 0. (5+5=10 Marks)
𝑑2 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
13. Show that two solutions 𝑓1 and 𝑓2 of 𝑎0 (𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 2 + 𝑎1 (𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑎2 (𝑥)𝑦 = 0 are linearly
independent on a  x  b if and only if the value of the Wronskian of 𝑓1 and 𝑓2 is different from
zero for some x on the interval 𝑎 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 𝑏.
OR
1
14. Solve the initial value problem: (6𝑥 + 4𝑦 + 1)𝑑𝑥 + (4𝑥 + 2𝑦 + 2)𝑑𝑦 = 0, 𝑦 (2) = 3.
x
15. Solve 𝑦ʹʹ– 2𝑦ʹ – 3𝑦 = 2 𝑒 – 10 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑥.
OR
16. Solve the differential equation 𝑦 + 𝑦 = 𝑠𝑒𝑐 𝑥.
17. The population of mosquitoes in a certain area increases at a rate proportional to the current population
and, in absence of other factors, the population doubles each week. There are 200000 mosquitoes in the
area initially, and predators (birds, etc.) eat 20000 mosquitoes per day. Determine the population of
mosquitoes in the area at any time.
OR
18. A 1500 gallon tank initially contains 600 gallons of water with 5 lbs of salt dissolved in it. Water enters
1
the tank at a rate of 9 gal/hr and the water entering the tank has a salt concentration of 2 (1 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑡)
lbs/gal. If a well-mixed solution leaves the tank at a rate of 6 gal/hr, how much salt is in the tank when it
overflows?
$$$$$
Page 4 of 4
UPHY–201


PART–II : PHYSICS
Physics: Optics
SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
1. Which of these phenomena prove the transverse nature of light?

A) Reflection B) Interference C) Diffraction D) Polarization
2. The critical angles of two different media are 45° and 60° respectively. The ratio of speed of light in the
two media is
A) 1:1 B) √2: √3 C) √3: √2 D) 2: √3
3. The focal lengths of a converging lens for blue, yellow and red light are f F, fD and fC respectively. Which
of the following is the correct ordering of their magnitudes?
A) fF > fD > fC B) fC > fD > fF C) fD > fF > fC D) fC > fF > fD
4. An optical system consists of two lenses of focal lengths +20 cm and +30 cm separated by 10 cm. The
combination
I) has minimum spherical aberration
II) behaves as an achromat
III) has a focal length of +15 cm
A) I alone is true B) I and II are true C) II and III are true D) I and III are true
5. The Coddington shape factor for a plano–concave lens of radius 10 cm is

A) –1 B) 0 C) +1 D) +∞
6. The object used in an optical system having astigmatism is Its image in the tangential focus plane
will appear as
A) B) C) D)
Page 1 of 6
UPHY–201
7. If the angle of minimum deviation of a biprism of index 1.5 is 0.5°. If the biprism is placed 20 cm from
the point source of light, the distance (in m) between the two virtual sources formed by the biprism is
A) 0.35 B) 0.2 C) 0.0035 D) 0.0017
8. The frequency bandwidth of the emission from an LED is 1.5 x 1013 Hz. The coherence length of the
emitted radiation in m is
A) 4.5 x 1021 B) 5 x 104 C) 2 x 10–5 D) 6.6 x 10–14
9. The index of the glass on which a MgF2 anti–reflection coating (n = 1.38) will cause complete destructive
interference of reflected light of wavelength 632.8 nm is
A) 1.17 B) 1.38 C) 1.50 D) 1.90
10. If the reflection coefficient r for external reflection of TE mode light is 0.25, the reflection coefficient and
transmission coefficient of the same light for internal reflection in the same pair of media are
A) 0.25, 1.25 B) –0.25, 0.75 C) –0.25, –1.25 D) –0.25, –0.75
11. The fringe contrast of a two beam interference pattern is ½. The ratio of the intensity of the bright fringe
to that of the dark fringe is
A) 1/3 B) 1/2 C) 2 D) 3
12. In order to get a steady interference pattern in the Young’s double slit experiment, the source of light used
must be
A) spatially coherent B) temporally coherent
C) both spatially and temporally coherent D) neither spatially nor temporally coherent
13. The Jones vector representing polarized light that has a phase difference of 30° between the x and y
components of its electric field is
1 2 1
A) (√3) B) ( ) C) ( ) D) ( )
1 √3 1 + 𝑖√3 √3 + 𝑖
14. Vertically linearly polarized light is passed through an element that rotates the plane of polarized light by
30° in the anticlockwise direction. The Jones vector of the resultant light is
−1/2 1/2 0
A) ( ) B) (√3/2) C) ( ) D) ( )
√3/2 1/2 √3/2 1
15. If equal amplitudes of left circularly polarized light and right circularly polarized light are added, the
resultant light is
A) linearly polarized B) left circularly polarized
C) right circularly polarized D) unpolarized
16. Double refraction will occur when the angle between the incident light and the OA of the birefringent
material is
A) 0° B) 40° C) 90° D) 180°
17. If the maximum transmitted intensity of light passed by a pair of polarizers is 100 W/m2, the relative angle
between their transmission axes, so that 50 W/m2 of light is transmitted by the pair is
A) 0° B) 30° C) 45° D) 60°
Page 2 of 6
UPHY–201
18. The ratio of the intensity of the central maximum to that of the first secondary maximum in the single slit
Fraunhofer diffraction pattern is
A) 1 B) 11 C) 21.2 D) 90
19. The angular spread of the central maximum in when light of wavelength 𝜆 diffracts through a slit of width
𝑏 is
2𝜆 𝜆 2𝑏 𝑏
A) B) C) D)
𝑏 𝑏 𝜆 𝜆
20. For a white light source, the free spectral range of a transmission grating encompasses the entire visible
range only for order
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
Page 3 of 6
UPHY–201


PART–II : PHYSICS
Physics: Optics
SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
1. a) Derive the law of reflection, using the incidence diagram of an electromagnetic wave at an interface.
b) Calculate the percentage of light that will be reflected when TE mode light is normally incident on
water from air.
(3+2=5 Marks)
2. Using Huygens’ geometrical construction, prove the law of refraction.
3. Differentiate between Huygens and Ramsden eyepieces.
4. A glass hemisphere of radius 5 cm and refractive index 1.5 is placed in air in such a way that light rays
first enter its plane surface. Using the matrix approach, determine the positions of its focal points.
5. A thin film of ethyl alcohol (n = 1.36) spread on a flat glass plate and illuminated with white light shows a
coloured pattern in reflection. If a region of the film reflects only green light of 500 nm at a 30° angle of
incidence, what is the thickness of the film there?
OR
6. Newton’s rings are observed in the air film formed between a plano–convex lens and an optical flat when
illuminated with 546 nm light. If the 20th bright ring has a radius of 1 cm, what is the radius of curvature
of the lens? What is the thickness of the film at the position of the 20th bright ring?
7. a) Derive the Jones’ matrices for a Phase retarder and hence a HWP with FA vertical.
b) If the refractive indices of mica for  = 546 nm are 1.592 and 1.586, calculate the thickness of a mica
sheet that will act as a half wave plate for 546 nm light.
(3+2=5 Marks)
8. With suitable diagrams, explain how a Glan Air prism achieves the separation of the o–ray and the e–ray.
Page 4 of 6
UPHY–201
9. Light from a laboratory sodium lamp has two strong yellow components at 589.592 nm and 588.995 nm.
a) At what angles will these wavelengths emerge in the first order spectrum of a diffraction grating that
has 10,000 lines/cm?
b) What is the resolving power required to resolve these wavelength components in the first order.
(3+2=5 Marks)
OR
10. The Mount Palomar telescope has an objective mirror of 508 cm diameter. For 550 nm light, compare its
angular limit of resolution to that of the human eye assuming a pupil diameter of 2 mm. How far apart
must two objects be on the surface of the Moon, if they are to be resolvable by the Palomar telescope?
Assume the distance of moon from the earth to be 3.844 x 105 km.
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
11. a) Assuming paraxial rays, derive the matrices for reflection and refraction at any curved/spherical
interface.
b) Discuss how the system matrix for an optical system is obtained.
(8+2=10 Marks)
OR
12. a) Explain the principle of the achromatic contact doublet.
b) Design an achromatic doublet of net power 2.00 D, with the given glasses:
Glass 𝑛𝐶 𝑛𝐷 𝑛𝐹
Fused Silica 1.456 1.458 1.463
Flint (DF) 1.616 1.620 1.632
(3+7=10 Marks)
13. Derive the expression for the total path difference between two interfering beams
a) in the Young’s double slit experiment
b) reflected from a plane parallel film of index nf, thickness t and transmission angle t.
(4+6=10 Marks)
OR
14. Give a schematic ray diagram of the Michelson Interferometer, and write down the expression for the total
path difference. Discuss any two applications of the Michelson Interferometer.
15. Derive the expression for the intensity pattern obtained on the screen when Fraunhofer diffraction occurs
through 2 slits of width b. Explain the features of the pattern.
OR
16. Deduce the expression for the irradiance obtained in the Fraunhofer diffraction due to a grating of N slits.
Discuss the variation of intensity and plot it.
Page 5 of 6
UPHY–201
17. a) With the help of the incidence diagram and boundary conditions applicable at an interface, derive
Fresnel’s equation for the reflection coefficient for TM mode and plot its variation.
b) Show that the vanishing of rTM gives Brewster’s law.
(7+3=10 Marks)
OR
18. a) Obtain the Jones matrices for a linear polarizer.

b) Explain polarization by reflection and hence obtain Brewster’s law.
(5+5=10 Marks)
*****
Page 6 of 6
UPHY-201


PART-II : PHYSICS
Physics: Optics
SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
1. Sound waves in air do not exhibit
A) diffraction B) interference C) polarization D) scattering
2. Young’s double slit experiment demonstrates the ___________ of the light source.
A) beat frequency B) polarization C) temporal coherence D) spatial coherence
3. Circularly polarized light normally incident on a quarter wave plate produces an emergent ray which is
A) unpolarized B) plane polarized C) circularly polarized D) elliptically polarized
4. The linewidth (in Å) of He-Ne laser light of mean wavelength 632.8 nm, whose coherence length is 1 m is
A) 6328 B) 0.4  10-2 C) 1.5  10-4 D) 2.8  10-6
5. The minimum deviation angle of a Fresnel biprism that has a refracting angle of 178° is 10°. In an
interference setup, if the slit is 8 cm away from the biprism, the distance (in m) between the virtual
sources causing interference is
A) 1.6 B) 0.50 C) 0.028 D) 0.014
6. A electric field of a plane harmonic wave travelling in a medium is represented as:
( ) ( ) The refractive index of the medium is
A) 1.863 B) 1.935 C) 2.0 D) 2.1
7. Light travelling between two points takes a path for which ___________ is an extremum.
A) distance B) velocity C) time of travel D) displacement
8. A grating intercepts the light covering the entire visible range from 380 – 760 nm. Its free spectral range
in the second order is
A) 380 – 760 nm B) 380 – 570 nm C) 380 – 507 nm D) 380 – 420 nm
9. Which of these monochromatic aberrations is off-axial and non-symmetric about the principal axis?
A) Spherical aberration B) Chromatic aberration C) Distortion D) Coma
Page 1 of 4
UPHY-201
10. A source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 495 nm in air. When the light passes through a liquid,
its wavelength reduces to 434 nm. The index of refraction of the liquid is
A) 1.14 B) 1.26 C) 1.49 D) 2.03
11. When unpolarized light is incident on a dielectric at Brewster’s angle, which of the following is FALSE?
A) The parallel component of light is completely reflected.
B) The reflected light is polarized.
C) The incident light is both reflected and refracted.
D) The reflected light direction is perpendicular to that of the refracted light.
12. Light comprised of two wavelengths 5997Å and 6003 Å illuminates a diffraction grating of width 0.025
m. The maximum size of the grating element required to resolve the two wavelengths in first order is
A) 25 mm B) 25 µm C) 12.5 mm D) 12.5 µm
13. The values of the reflection coefficients and for internal reflection are not equal at (the)
A) normal incidence B) critical angle C) polarizing angle D) grazing incidence
14. The thick lens is placed between two media. The medium to its left is air and that to its right is an oil of
index 1.35. If the system matrix of the lens is ( ) , the value of (in appropriate units) is
A) 0.18 B) 0.24 C) 0.33 D) 0.71
15. Which of the following about Newton’s rings is FALSE?
A) They are fringes of equal thickness

B) The interference is of amplitude division type
C) The centre of the pattern is dark
D) The radii of the bright rings are proportional to the square root of natural numbers
16. Unpolarized light is passed through a linear polarizer whose TA is inclined at 30° to the horizontal and
then through a QWP. The resultant light is
A) unpolarized B) linearly polarized C) circularly polarized D) elliptically polarized
17. An object placed 36 cm away from a biconvex lens produces an image at 18 cm on the other side of lens.
If the distance of the object from the lens is reduced to 12 cm, the image is formed at
A) 6 cm B) 12 cm C) 18 D)
18. The phase difference between the x and y components of the electric field of the light that is represented
by the Jones vector ( ) is
A) 26.6° B) 36.7° C) 45° D) 63.43°
19. A monochromatic light of wavelength 540 nm falls on a slit. If the angular separation between the first
minimum on either side of the central maximum is 21°, the slit width is approximately
A) 2.96 µm B) 1.51 µm C) 51.4 nm D) 25.7 nm
20. If a thin transparent sheet is introduced in the path of one of the beams in Young’s double slit experiment,
the fringe width
A) decreases B) increases
C) does not change D) does not change but the intensity decreases
Page 2 of 4
UPHY-201


PART-II : PHYSICS
Physics: Optics
SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
1. a) Construct the ray diagram of a compound microscope.
b) A Ramsden eyepiece of a telescope is made of two positive lenses of focal length 2 cm each,
separated by 2 cm. Determine its system matrix.
(2+3=5 Marks)
2. Coherent light containing two wavelengths 640 nm and 440 nm passes through slits separated by 400 µm,
and the interference pattern is observed on a screen at 5 m distance. Find the distance between the first
order bright fringes on either side of the central bright fringe for the two wavelengths.
OR
3. a) Differentiate between wavefront splitting and amplitude splitting interference.

b) A soap bubble of refractive index 1.33 is illuminated normally with light of wavelength λ = 670 nm.
Calculate the minimum thickness of the film that results in constructive interference of reflected light.
(2+3=5 Marks)
4. Show that the electric field vector in circularly polarized light traces a complete circle in one time period.
Hence determine its Jones vector.
5. Give the expression for the intensity distribution on the screen when Fraunhofer diffraction takes place
through two slits of width each, spaced apart. Plot the intensity variation for the case and
explain how the pattern differs from that obtained by double slit interference.
6. a) Define dispersion of a grating.

b) Light from an argon laser strikes a diffraction grating having 5310 grooves /cm. The first order
principal maxima are separated by 0.488 m on a wall 1.72 m from the grating. Determine the
wavelength of the laser light.
(2+3=5 Marks)
OR
7. a) Give the Rayleigh criterion of resolution.

b) A navy cruiser uses a radar system that transmits at 1.4 cm wavelength from a circular antenna of
radius 1.1 m. At a range of 6 km, what is the smallest distance between two fishing boats such that
they can be resolved by the radar system?
(2+3=5 Marks)
Page 3 of 4
UPHY-201
8. Determine the focal lengths of the two lenses of a fused doublet of net focal length 10 cm with the given
glasses, so that the combination is achromatic for two colours.
Glass nF nD nC
Light barium crown 1.5795 1.5726 1.5696
Dense flint 1.8277 1.8052 1.7961
9. Construct the Jones matrix for a linear polarizer with TA horizontal and a half wave plate with SA
vertical. Give one use of each.
10. a) Explain polarization by reflection.

b) Calculate the polarizing angle for internal reflection for sapphire, if the critical angle for total internal
reflection for sapphire surrounded by air is 32°.
(2+3=5 Marks)
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
11. Obtain thin lens formula using translation and refraction matrices for a lens of thickness t and refractive
index n, placed in air.
OR
12. What are cardinal points of an optical system? Using the system matrix, determine the positions of the
cardinal points of an optical system with appropriate diagrams.
13. Prove the law of reflection using Huygen’s principle and Fermat’s principle.
OR
14. a) Draw the ray diagram for TE mode light incident on an interface.
b) Derive Fresnel’s equations for the reflection and transmission coefficients for TE mode light.
(2+8=10 Marks)
15. Explain the construction of a Michelson Interferometer. Draw the equivalent diagram and derive the
expression for the total path difference between the two beams.
OR
16. Derive the expression for the total intensity when two beams of intensity I1 and I2 interfere. Plot the
intensity as a function of the phase difference. Mention thereby, the conditions for interference.
17. Using Huygens-Fresnel principle, derive the expression for the intensity distribution obtained in the
Fraunhofer diffraction from a rectangular slit, whose length is much larger than its width. Plot it.
OR
18. a) Explain the behaviour of a birefringent material and the character of emergent light when the incident
light
i) is parallel to its OA ii) is perpendicular to its OA
iii) makes an angle 0 90° with its OA
b) Discuss how the o-ray and e-ray are separated by a Wollaston prism. (6+4=10 Marks)
≈≈≈≈≈
Page 4 of 4
UPHY-201


PART-II : PHYSICS
Physics: Optics
SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
Choose the correct alternative:
1. Which of the following electromagnetic wave has the least energy?

A) visible light B) infra-red C) x-ray D) radio wave
2. Fermat’s principle of ray optics states that, “A ray of light follows that path between points which requires
the least time.” This principle can be used to derive which of the following?
I. Snell’s law of refraction
II. Law of reflection
III. Rayleigh’s criterion for resolution
A) I only B) II only C) I and III D) I and II
3. Phase difference of π/2 corresponds to path difference of

A) λ B) λ/2 C) λ/4 D) λ/6
4. The speed of light in dense flint glass of refractive index 1.80 in ms-1 is
A) 1.33 x 108 B) 1.67 x 108 C) 1.80 x 108 D) 3.00 x 108
𝐴 𝐵
5. In a system matrix ( ), when B = 0, the linear magnification is given by
𝐶 𝐷
A) A B) B C) C D) D
6. The medium on the left of an equiconvex lens of radii 10 cm and index 1.5, is air and that on its right side
has a refractive index of 1.6. The determinant of the matrix of this system is
A) 0.625 B) 0.66 C) 1.0 D) 1.6
7. The aberration caused when lateral magnification increases with distance from the axis of the lens is
A) spherical aberration B) coma C) astigmatism D) distortion
8. The focal length of a lens does not depend upon the

A) object-image distances B) refractive index of its material
C) radii of curvature D) wavelength of the light used
Page 1 of 4
UPHY-201
9. The final image in a compound microscope is
A) virtual, erect and diminished B) real, inverted and magnified
C) real, erect and diminished D) virtual, inverted and magnified
10. Colours in thin films of oil slicks on are due to

A) interference of refracted rays B) polarization
C) interference of reflected rays D) diffraction
11. Which of the following is an example of wavefront-division interference?

A) Newton’s rings B) Air wedge
C) Fresnel’s biprism D) Michelson interferometer
12. In the case of single slit diffraction, which of the following is false?
A) The maxima are equispaced
B) The minima are equispaced
C) The width of the central maximum is proportional to wavelength
D) The width of the central maximum is inversely proportional to the slit width
13. In a Michelson interferometer, if a glass plate of thickness t, and index n is inserted in one arm, the optical
path difference introduced is
A) t B) 2 n t C) (n-1) t D) 2 (n-1) t
14. Haidinger fringes are fringes of equal

A) thickness B) inclination C) chromatic order D) refractive index
15. The smallest angular separation in radians that can be resolved by the human eye when the pupil is dilated
to a diameter of 4 mm with light of wavelength 550 nm is
A) 1.68 x 10-4 B) 3.35 x 10-4 C) 6.71 x 10-4 D) 5.21 x 10-4
16. The missing orders for a double slit diffraction pattern when slit width is 0.16 mm and the distance
between the centres of slits is 0.48 mm are
A) 2, 4, 6, ... B) 3, 6, 9, ... C) 6, 12, 18, ... D) 8, 16, 24, ...
17. The thickness (in mm) of a quarter wave plate with refractive indices for ordinary and extraordinary ray
being 1.544 and 1.553 respectively for wavelength 500 nm is
A) 1.39 B) 0.139 C) 0.0139 D) 1.39 x 10-3
18. When light is polarized by reflection, the angle between reflected ray and refracted ray is
A) π B) π/2 C) π/4 D) 0
19. The property of certain crystals to absorb either the o-ray or the e-ray to a larger extent than the other is
known as
A) double refraction B) optical activity C) dichroism D) polarization
20. A calcite crystal is placed over a black dot on a white piece of paper and rotated. On seeing through the
crystal one sees
A) one dot B) two stationary dots
C) one dot rotating about the other D) two rotating dots
Page 2 of 4
UPHY-201


PART-II : PHYSICS
Physics: Optics
SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
1. With the help of a neat ray diagram, explain the image formation in a Galilean telescope.
2. A plano-convex lens (n = 1.523) of 1/8 Diopter is placed, convex surface down, on an optically flat
surface. Using a traveling microscope and sodium light (λ = 589.3 nm), interference fringes are observed.
Determine the radii of the third and ninth dark rings.
OR
3. Derive the Stokes relations between amplitude reflection and transmission coefficients for electric fields
incident on an interface between two different media.
4. What is dichroism? How can it be used to produce polarized light?
5. What is chromatic aberration? Describe how a fused achromatic doublet minimizes chromatic aberration.
6. Define the term free spectral range of a grating. Derive the formula and discuss its significance.
OR
7. Calculate the reflection and transmission coefficients for both TE and TM modes of light incident from air
at 45° onto glass of index 1.60.
8. With the help of neat ray diagrams, explain the cardinal points of an optical system.
9. What are optically active materials? With help of neat diagram explain the construction of a setup to
measure the optical activity of a new material.
10. Imagine a parallel beam of 650 nm light passing through a slit of width 0.25 mm. Calculate the angular
position of the first minimum. Calculate also the distance of the first minimum from the central maximum
on a screen 10 m away from the slit.
Page 3 of 4
UPHY-201
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
11. Derive the 2x2 matrices for translation, reflection from a spherical surface and refraction at a spherical
interface under the paraxial approximation.
OR
12. Derive the Jones matrices for a linear polarizer, phase retarder and a rotator.
13. Prove Snell’s law using Huygens principle and Fermat’s principle.
OR
14. a) Draw the ray diagram for TM mode light incident on an interface.
b) Derive Fresnel’s equations for the reflection and transmission coefficients for TM mode light.
(2+8=10 Marks)
15. How can a Michelson interferometer be used to measure the refractive index of an unknown gas?
How can it be used to determine the wavelength difference between two closely spaced components of a
spectral line? Elaborate.
OR
16. Discuss the formation of fringes in the Young’s double slit experiment and derive the expression for
fringe width.
17. Derive the expression for the intensity distribution on the screen in Fraunhofer diffraction from a double
slit and give the condition for missing orders of interference.
OR
18. Obtain the irradiance expression for the Fraunhofer diffraction pattern from an N-slit grating.
S S S 
Page 4 of 4
UPHY-201


PART-II : PHYSICS
Physics: Optics
SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
1. Which of these phenomena prove the transverse nature of light?
A) Reflection B) Interference C) Diffraction D) Polarization
2. Which among the following regions of the electromagnetic spectrum corresponds to waves of highest
energy?
A) ultraviolet B) infrared C) x-ray D) radio wave
3. Fermat’s principle of ray optics states that, “A ray of light follows that path between two points which
requires the least time.” This principle can be used to derive which of the following?
I) Snell’s law of refraction II) Law of reflection III) Rayleigh’s criterion for resolution
A) I only B) II only C) I and III D) I and II
4. What is the coherence length of light from a sodium atom that has a coherence time of 4x10-12 seconds?
A) 12 mm B) 0.6 mm C) 6 mm D) 1.2 mm
5. Which of the following experiment is an example of wavefront–division interference?
A) Newton’s rings B) Air wedge between two glass slides

C) Fresnel’s biprism D) Michelson interferometer
6. The maximum intensity in an interference pattern is 6 times the minimum value. The fringe contrast is
A) 0.8 B) 0.7 C) 0.6 D) 0.5

7. In a Michelson interferometer, if a glass plate of thickness t, and index n is inserted in one arm, the path
difference introduced is
A) t B) nt C) (n-1)t D) 2(n-1)t
Page 1 of 4
UPHY-201
8. When the source of light used is the sodium vapour lamp, the only aberration possible for points lying in
the axis of a convex lens is
A) chromatic B) coma C) spherical aberration D) distortion
9. The focal length of a plano-convex lens (n=1.5) whose curved surface has a radius of 10 cm, is (in cm)
A) 5 B) 20 C) 10 D) 40
10. In the case of single slit diffraction, which of the following is false?
A) The maxima are equispaced

B) The minima are equispaced
C) The width of the central maximum is propotional to wavelength
D) The width of the central maximum is inversely proportional to the slit width
11. If the minimum resolvable wavelength difference in the region =500 nm is 0.0125 nm, the resolving
power of the grating is
A) 6.25 B) 400 C) 4000 D) 40,000
12. The missing orders for a double slit diffraction pattern when slit width is 0.16 mm and distance between
centers of slits is 0.48 mm are
A) 2, 4, 6,… B) 3, 6, 9,… C) 6, 12, 18,… D) 8, 16, 24, …
13. What should be the angle of incidence so that the light reflected from a pond of water (n = 1.33) is
polarized?
A) 36.9o B) 41.2o C) 48.8o D) 53.1o
14. The plane of polarized light is turned through 28.8o by a 20% solution of maltose kept in a 10 cm long
cylinder. The specific rotation of maltose is
A) 288o B) 144o C) 72 o D) 14.4o
15. The focal length of a lens does not depend upon the
A) object–image distances B) refractive index of its material

C) radii of curvature D) wavelength of light used
16. Consider an optical system, whose matrix elements are A, B, C, D. The element that is zero when the
input and output planes are conjugate planes is
A) A B) B C) C D) D
17. For the system in Question. 16, the element that represents the linear magnification is
A) A B) B C) C D) D
B. Answer in one sentence
18. List the monochromatic Seidel aberrations.
19. Give the expression relating power and dispersive power for an achromatic doublet.
20. Define nodal points of an optical system.
Page 2 of 4
UPHY-201


PART-II : PHYSICS
Physics: Optics
SECTION – B
(8x5=40 Marks)
1. State Huygens principle and use it to arrive at Snell’s law.
2. What are principal points of an optical system? Arrive at the expression for the position of the principal
points of an optical system in terms of its matrix elements.
3. Explain image formation in a compound microscope with the help of a ray diagram. Give the expression
for the angular magnification for an image viewed at infinity.
4. For a system of two separated lenses made up of the same glass, arrive at the separation distance, L, for
zero longitudinal chromatic aberration.
5. a) The threshold of sensitivity of the human eye is about 100 photons per second. The eye is most
sensitive at a wavelength of around 550 nm. For this wavelength, determine the threshold in watts of
power.
b) What is the energy, in electron volts, of light photons at the ends of the visible spectrum, that is, at
wavelengths of 380 nm and 770 nm?
(3+2=5 Marks)
OR
6. A thin film of MgF2 (n = 1.38) is deposited on glass so that it is antireflecting at a wavelength of 580 nm
at normal incidence. What wavelength is minimally reflected when the light is incident instead at 45°?
7. The width of a rectangular slit is measured in the laboratory by means of its diffraction pattern at a
distance of 2 m from the slit. When illuminated normally with a parallel beam of laser light (632.8 nm),
the distance between the third minima on either side of the principal maximum is measured. An average
of several trials gives 5.625 cm. Assuming Fraunhofer diffraction, what is the slit width?
OR
8. How thick should a half-wave plate of mica be in an application where laser light of 632.8 nm is being
used? Appropriate refractive indices for mica are 1.599 and 1.594.
9. Derive the Stokes’ relations relating the reflection and transmission coefficients for electric fields incident
on an interface between two different media using relevant figures.
10. Explain free spectral range of a grating with the help of a suitable example.
Page 3 of 4
UPHY-201
SECTION – C
(4x10=40 Marks)
11. Derive the expression for irradiance when light is diffracted from an aperture consisting of N equispaced
slits. Give the conditions for principal maxima and secondary minima. Sketch the plot of irradiance for the
case of N = 8.
OR
12. a) Give the expression for irradiance when light is diffracted from a circular aperture of diameter D. Use
it to arrive at the expression for angular half-width of the Airy disc.
b) Define Rayleigh Criterion for resolution. Calculate the minimum distance at which the human eye can
resolve objects 1 mm apart. The typical size of the pupil of the human eye in daylight is 2 mm.
Assume average wavelength of 550 nm.
(4+6=10 Marks)
13. With the help of a neat diagram describe the apparatus used for viewing Newton’s rings. Explain the
formation of fringes of equal thickness observed in this case. Derive an expression for the radius of the n th
dark ring in reflected light in terms of radius R of the plano-convex lens and wavelength λ of the light.
OR
14. How can one construct a Michelson interferometer? Explain how it can be used to determine the
difference in wavelengths between two closely spaced components of a spectral “line”.
15. Derive 2 x 2 matrices to represent

a) linear polarizer with transmission axis at 45° to horizontal;
b) a quarter wave plate with vertical slow axis;
c) a rotator that rotates incoming linearly polarized light by 30°.
(4+4+2=10 Marks)
OR
16. Derive Fresnel equations for reflection and transmission coefficients in TE mode with the help of an
appropriate diagram.
17. Derive the 2 x 2 matrices that can be used to represent refraction at a spherical interface and reflection
from a spherical mirror using appropriate diagrams.
OR
18. What is the difference between unpolarized light and polarized light? Explain how one can produce
polarized light using the following phenomena:
a) dichroism b) reflection and c) birefringence.

(1+3+3+3=10 Marks)
≈≈≈≈≈
Page 4 of 4
USAN-101

B.A./B.A.(Hons)/B.Sc./B.Sc.(Hons)/B.Com.(Hons)/B.B.A./B.P.A.(Music)
First Semester Examinations, April 2022
PART-I(B) : ANOTHER LANGUAGE : : SANSKRIT
Sanskrit: Prose, Poetry and Grammar

SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
1. Who is the writer of Panchatantram?
A) Vishnu Gupta B) Vishnu Sarma C) Vidura
2. ““Kumarasambhavam”” Is a –
A) Maha kavyam B) Laghu kavyam C) Puranam
3. Who is Divakaraha?
A) Sun B) Subhrahmanya C) Shiva
4. विदु रनीवि पाठ्यभागः is taken from –
A) Santi parvam B) Uttarkanda C) Udyoga parva
5. Who sacrificed their life for giving hospitality?
A) Male pigeon B) Female pigeon C) Hunter
6. Who is एकरदः ?
A) Shiva B) Kubera C) Ganesha
7. Who told this – ““स्वकृिैरेि बद्धाहं प्राक्तनै ः पूिवकर्व वभः ?””
A) Male pigeon B) Female pigeon C) Hunter
Page 1 of 4
USAN-101
8. Who invented π value?
A) Kanada B) Aryabhatta C) Ramanujan
9. This is one of the ways to hell.
A) अवहं सा B) कार्ः C) प्रीविः
10. Who killed the demon Taraka?
A) Subrahmanya B) Sankara C) Ganesha
B) Answer the following in a sentence.
11. Who is – सिवर्ां गल्ययुक्ता?
12. Who is the poet of the epic रघुिंशर््?
13. What is the slogan of Income tax department?
14. How does one get the unexpected meal?
15. What is the meaning of पुविन्दः ?
C) State the following statements as TRUE or FALSE:
16. The abode of Lord Shiva is वपिृसद्मर्् ।
17. Kalidasa is familiar in similes.
18. ““विद्यया अर्ृ िर्श्नु िे”” this slogan is belonging to All India radio.
19. शीिािवश्च क्षु धािवश्च पूजार्स्मै सर्ाचर – This line is taken from Vidura Neeti.
20. Lord Shiva came in the form of Brahmachari.
Page 2 of 4
USAN-101

B.A./B.A.(Hons)/B.Sc./B.Sc.(Hons)/B.Com.(Hons)/B.B.A./B.P.A.(Music)
First Semester Examinations, April 2022
Sanskrit: Prose, Poetry and Grammar

SECTION – B
(50 Marks)
II. A) Answer ANY SIX of the following questions, each in about 120 words. Each question
carries FIVE Marks. (6x5=30 Marks)
1. Write the story of ““कपोिस्य अविविसत्कारः ””.
2. Describe ““Godess Saraswathi”” as per your lesson Prarthana Chamatkara.
3. Annotate ““विषन्ति र्न्दाश्चररिर्् र्हात्मनार््””
4. How does Parvathi replies for the words of Lord Shiva, one who came in the form of Brahmachari?
5. Describe the Role of Sanskrit Language in India?
6. ““अवििृष्णा न किवव्या”” – Explain.
7. Explain ““िं विवचत्र चररिं वशिर्ीडे ””।
II. B) Answer as directed. Each carries ONE Mark. (15 Marks)
8. Split or join the sandhi as the case may be (3x1=3 Marks)
a) गजाननः b) िृद्धोक्षर्् c) िोकाः + सर्स्ाः
9. Explain the following compounds. (3x1=3 Marks)
a) विदु रनीविः b) पािविीपरर्े श्वरौ c) सुराग्रगण्यः .
10. Give the forms of the following sabdas as per the direction. (3x1=3 Marks)
a) रार् – पञ्चर्ीविभन्तक्तः b) अस्मद् – प्रिर्ाविभन्तक्तः c) हरर – िृिीयाविभन्तक्तः
11. Give the forms of the following root words as per the direction. (3x1=3 Marks)
a) पठ् – िङ् – प्रिर्पुरुषः b) गर्् – िोट् – र्ध्यर्पुरुषः c) कृ – िट् – उत्तर्पुरुषः
12. Write the forms of the following as per the direction. (3x1=3 Marks)
a) पठ् – क्त्वा b) भू – क्तः c) हस् – ल्यप्

Page 3 of 4
USAN-101
II. C) Translate the following slokas into English (2x2½=5 Marks)
13) सिविीिे षु िा स्नानं सिवभूिेषु चाजव िर्् ।

उभे एिे सर्े स्यािार्ाजव िं िा विवशष्यिे ।।
14) सप्तसन्तप्तिहप्रीि सप्तिोकप्रदीपन।

सप्तर्ीसवहिॊ दॆ ि सप्तजन्माघनाशन॥
SECTION – C
(30 Marks)
III. A) Answer the following question each in about 400 words. (15 Marks)
15. Explain the achievements of Indians in the field of Mathematics. And give your opinion on Indian
Scientists.
OR
16. How does, one can change his life style by following ViduraNeeti? Explain based on your text.
III. B) Explain the following shloka with respect to: (15 Marks)
a) Introduction.
b) Prose order.
c) Word to word meaning.
d) Translation and appreciation.
e) Grammatical points.
17. इयं च िेsन्या पुरिो विडम्बना यदू ढया िारणराजहायवया ।

वििोक्य िृद्धोक्षर्वधवििं त्वया र्हाजनः स्मेरर्ु खो भविष्यवि ।।
OR
18. एकरद िै र्ािुर वनविगुण चिुभुवजॊऽवप पन्चकर।

जय षण्मुखनु ि सप्तच्छदगन्तिर्दाष्टिनु िनय॥
Page 4 of 4
USAN-201

PART–I(B) : ANOTHER LANGUAGE : : SANSKRIT
Sanskrit: Upanishads, Subhashithas, Champu and Grammar

SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
A) Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given below:
1. Ishavasyopanishad is taken from
A) Rigveda B) Yajurveda C) Samaveda
2. Meaning of the word अवद्य is
A) Blind practice B) wrong practice C) good practice
3. According to Upanishad अन्तेवासी refers to
A) Teacher B) Student C) Mentor
4. The unexhausted treasury according to Subhashitas is
A) Air B) Water C) Knowledge
5. The Manu who found ईशावस्योपनिषद् is
A) Svaymbhuva B) vaivasvatha C) Yajna
B) Answer the following in a word or sentence.
6. According to Bhartuhari, which kind of people are really rare to be found?
7. Who completed the work Champu Ramayana?
Page 1 of 4
USAN-201
8. According to Subhashitas, world is compared to which type of tree?
9. According to Bhoja, how did Valmiki vision Ramayana, before composing as a kavya after instructed by
Brahma?
10. What is the nature of helping persons?
C) Answer as directed:
11. Give the meaning of the word उपनिषत् .
12. What is वारुणीनवद्या ?
13. Mention the other two names of सीता as referred by Bhoja.
14. According to Subhashita’s whose body is devoid of old age and death?
15. Who is the brother of Maricha?
16. According to Yama Mind is supreme instrument in achieving our goals.
17. Optimists look at moon and stand up from challenges.
18. One should not do charity by feeling shy.
19. Persons of helping nature expect calamities to the original helper.
20. Laxmana accused Sita as equal to Kaikeyi during his exile.
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USAN-201

PART–I(B) : ANOTHER LANGUAGE : : SANSKRIT

SECTION – B
(50 Marks)
II. A) Answer ANY SIX of the following. Each question carries FIVE Marks.(6x5=30 Marks)
1. Write a note on the characteristics of a good friend?
2. How did Maricha help Ravana in abducting Sita?
3. Write a note on the upanishadic instructions passed on to a student on respecting the food at various
stages. Base your answer on the text.
4. Explain: पुिः दरिद्रः पुििे व पापी |
5. Annotate the statement ‘‘ये चैवम् पुरुषाः कलासु कुशलाः तेष्वेव लोकस्थिनतः ” |
6. What are the instructions of the preceptor to a passing out graduate, according to Upanishads?
7. Write a note on the importance of इस्ियनिग्रह and मिोनिग्रह । Base your answer on the text Katopanishad.
B) Answer as directed. Each carries ONE Mark.
8. Split or join the Sandhi as the case may be. (3x1=3 Marks)
a) युगान्तिे b) फल+ उद्गमै ः c) अभ्यु दये
9. Expand the following terms. (3x1=3 Marks)

a) िीनतनिपुणाः b) नपनशताशिे िः c) सीतापहिणम्
10. Give the forms of the following shabdas. (3x1=3 Marks)

a) मिस् शब्दः –पंचमीनवभस्तः
b) िाजि् शब्दः –तृतीयानवभस्तः
c) गौ शब्दः – प्रिमानवभस्तः
11. Write the verbal forms of the following root words. (3x1=3 Marks)
a) दृश् धातुः –लोट् –प्र.पु . b) िृ त् धातुः –लट् –उ.पु. c) इष् धातुः –लट् –म.पु
12. Write participles of the following. (3x1=3 Marks)

a) लभ्–शािच् b) वन्द् –अिीयि् c) िच्–तव्यत्
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C) Translate the following slokas in to English. (2x2 ½=5 Marks)
13.उनिष्ठत जाग्रत प्राप्य विानिबोधत ।

क्षु िस्य धािा निनशता दु ित्यया दु गं पिः तत् कवयो वदस्न्त।।
14. उद्यमेि नह नसद्यस्न्त कायाा नण ि मिोििै ः ।

ि नह सुप्तस्य नसंहस्य प्रनवशस्न्त मु खे मृ गाः ।।
SECTION – C
(30 Marks)
III.A)Answer the following in about 450 words. (15 Marks)
15. Write an essay on the message of Ishavasyopanishad to the spiritual aspirant. Use proper quotations from
the text.
OR
16. Discuss the role of small Subhashitas in inspiring your daily life. How can they bring transformation in
your life? Base your answer on the text Subhashitani- 1.
B) Explain the following sloka with respect to

a) Introduction.
b) Pada vibhaga.
e) Grammatical points. (1+2+4+4+4=15 Marks)
17. वान्छा सज्जिसंगतौ पिगुणे प्रीनतगुािौ िम्रता

नवद्यायां व्यसिं स्वयोनषनत िनतः लोकापवादाद्भयम् ।
भस्तः शू नलनि शस्तिात्मदमिे संसगामुस्तः खलै ः
एते येषु वसस्न्त निमा लगुणास्तेभ्यो िमः कुमा हे ।।
OR
18. यस्तु नवज्ञािवाि् भवनत समिस्कः सदा शु नचः ।

स तु तत्पदमाप्नोनत यस्माद् भू यो ि जायते ।।
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USAN-201


SECTION – A
(20x1=20 Marks)
A) Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given below:
1. वेदानश
ु ासनम ् is taken from
A) कठोऩननषत ् B) तैत्तरीयोऩननषत ् C) ईशावास्योऩननषत ्
2. Meaning of the word अऱककः is
A) Demon B) Deer C) Dog
3. According to Upanishad मातररश्वा refers to
A) Air B) Water C) Sun
4. According to Subhashitas world depends on
A) काव्यकुशऱाः B) नाट्यकुशऱाः C) कऱाकुशऱाः
5. These will enter into blinding darkness, as they worship -
A) Avidyaa B) Vidyaa C) Asura
B) Answer the following in a word or sentence.
6. Who wish to repay the help?
7. Who is कुशशकसत
ु ः?
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USAN-201
8. According to Subhashita, what are the ways of utilising wealth?
9. When does our action would not affect us?
10. Who feels no hatred?
C) Answer as directed:
11. Give the meaning of the word आर्कवम ्.
12. What is the nature of ब्रह्मन ्?
13. दष्ु टाश्वा इव सारथेः –here what is implied by दष्ु टाश्वा?
14. According to उऩननषत ् which is higher than बद

ु ्धः?
15. According to Subhashita, why a person gets poverty?
16. Men of patience never divert from the path of justice.
17. Work accomplishes by wishes.
18. One should do charity with modesty.
19. Bhoja completed Champu Ramayana.
20. वेदान्त is another name of उऩननषत ्.
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USAN-201


SECTION – B
(50 Marks)
II. A) Answer ANY SIX of the following. Each question carries FIVE Marks. (6x5=30 Marks)
1. Write a note on the characteristics of a courageous people.
2. Mareecha played the key role in abduction of Seetha. Describe.
3. Write a note on ईशावास्योऩननषत ्.
4. Explain: “सवे गण
ु ाः काञ्चनमाश्रयन्न्त” |
5. Annotate the statement „„तेभ्यः नमः कुमकहे” ||
6. What are the instructions of the preceptor to a student on respecting food at various stages, according to
Upanishads?
7. Write a note on the importance of control of mind and senses. Base your answer on the text Katopanishad.
B) Answer as directed. Each carries ONE Mark.
a) मनसस्तु b) तेष+
ु एव c) ज्योनतरन्नादम ्
9. Expand the following terms. (3x1=3 Marks)

a) सत्सङ्गनतः b) ऱोकन्स्थनतः c) महात्मा
10. Give the forms of the following shabdas. (3x1=3 Marks)
a) पऩतश
ृ ब्दः–ऩंचमीपवभन््तः
b) गणु णन ् शब्दः–तत
ृ ीयापवभन््तः
c) मात ृ शब्दः– षष्ठीपवभन््तः
11. Write the verbal forms of the following root words. (3x1=3 Marks)
a) वन्द धातःु –ऱोट्–प्र.ऩ.ु b) ऱभ ् धातःु –ऱट्–उ.ऩ.ु c) अस ् धातःु –ऱट्–म.ऩु
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12. Write participles of the following. (3x1=3 Marks)
a) दृश ् – शत ृ b) रच ् – अनीयर् c) नत
ृ ् – तव्यत ्
C) Translate the following slokas in to English. (2x2½=5 Marks)
13. उऩकाररषु यः साधःु साधुत्वे तस्य को गण

ु ः|
अऩकाररषु यः साधुः स साधःु सदशभरुच्यते ||
14. यन्स्मन ् सवाकणण भत

ू ान्यात्मैवाभद
ू पवर्ानतः |
तत्र को मोहः कः शोकः एकत्वमनऩ
ु श्यतः ||
SECTION – C
(30 Marks)
III.A) Answer the following in about 450 words. (15 Marks)
15. Write an essay on the चम्ऩू रामायण, बाऱकाण्ड and अरण्यकाण्ड. Use proper quotations from the text.
OR
16. Discuss the contribution of Bhartruhari in inspiring your daily life through Subhashitas. Base your answer
on the text.
B) Explain the following sloka with respect to

a) Introduction.
b) Pada vibhaga.
e) Grammatical points. (1+2+4+4+4=15 Marks)
17. र्ाड्यं ्धयो हरनत शसञ्चनत वा्च सत्यम ्

मानोन्ननतं ददशनत ऩाऩमऩाकरोनत |
चेतः प्रसादयनत ददऺु तनोनत कीनतकम ्
सत्सङ्गनतः कथय ककं न करोनत ऩस
ंु ाम ् ||
OR
18. उपत्तष्ठत र्ाग्रत प्राप्य वरान ् ननबोधत |

ऺुरस्य धारा ननशशता दरु त्यया दग
ु ं ऩथस्तत ् कवयो वदन्न्त ।।
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USAN-201

SECTION – A
)20x1=20 Marks)
A) Fill in the blanks with proper words from the text:
1. According to Upanishat, the head (शिरः ) of vijnanamaya Brahmha is _________.
2. उत्तम ः धनं इच्छन्ति म नॊ शि _________.
3. मनशि च पररतुष्टॆ कॊ ___________.
4. िर्वं िून्यं ___________.
5. यतॊ र्व चॊ ___________ िि.
B) Choose the correct answer from the alternatives given below:
6. Author of the work चम्पूर मयणं is
A) Bhavabhuti B) Bharavi C) Bhartruhari D) Bhoja
7. Taiittiriyopanishad is taken from
A) Krishnayajurveda B) Shukla yajurvada. C) Rigveda D) Samaveda
8. The total no. of mantras present in Shvetashvetaropanishad is
A) 113 B) 108 C) 1008 D) 504
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9. According to छ न्दॊग्यॊपशनषत्, after अभ्र jiva becomes
A) म घः B) मॆ घः C) धूमः D) ध न्यः
10. According to Chandogyopanishat, kalas present in jiva are numbered as:
A) Ten B) Eighteen C) Sixteen D) Eight
C) Answer the following questions in a sentence or two:
11. Mention the five types of fathers as said Rajaniti.
12. According to Bhartruhari, who is poor?
13. द्वयं न्तथिरम् -What are these two permanent aspects in the world?
14. According to the poet, what unites the Hindus, Muslims, Christians and Parsis?
15. Why did Hanuman become angry in the Simhika episode?
16. Laxmanasuri completed Champuramayana.
17. Mainaka stood up on his own to help the Hanuman while he was going to Lanka.
18. The tongue can be controlled by intelligence.
19. According to Subhashita, those who desire for only money are inferior.
20. The concept of Udgitha is discussed in Taittriyopanishat.
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USAN-201

SECTION – B
)50 Marks(
II. A) Answer the following. Each question carries FIVE Marks.
(6x5=30 Marks)
1. Summarize the journey of the soul, from this world by mentioning the path of Devayana & Pitruyana. Base
your answer on Upanishat.
2. Explain the statement fully “शिष्यप पं गुरुस्ति ”.
3. Mention the six relatives of Dharmaraja as said in Rajaniti.
4. Annotate – “तस्म दन्नं तदु च्यत इशत” ।।
5. Annotate – हुतं च दत्तं च तिैर्व शतष्ठशत ।
6. Write a note on the advice given to the passing out graduate by the teacher. Base your answer on the chapters
of Taittiriyopanishat.
OR
7. Describe the beauty of the series of events happened while hanuman set to cross the ocean.
II. B) Answer as directed. Each carries ONE Mark. (15 Marks)
a) य र्वदन्तस्त b) यत्+शनश्चलः c) नै तॆ
9. Expand the following compounds: (3x1=3 Marks)
a) शपतृदॆर्वः b) दररद्रत c) शर्वनय शिर मः
10. Give the forms of the following shabdas: (3x1=3 Marks)
a) म तृिब्दः –िप्तमीशर्विन्ततः |
b) मनि् िब्दः –प्रिम शर्विन्ततः |
c) तद् िब्दः (स्त्रीशलङ्ग ) –तृतीय शर्विन्ततः |
11. Write the verbal forms of the following root words: (3x1=3 Marks)
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a) नृ त्—ऌट् –उत्तमपुरुषः b) र्वन्द् —लट् -प्रिमपुरुषः c) रच्---लॊट् --मद्यमपुरुषः
12. Write the forms of the following: (3x1=3 Marks)
a) दृि् +ितृ b) युध् +ल्यप् c) लि् +तव्यत्
II. C) Translate the following slokas in to English: (2x2½=5 Marks)
13. अत्यि कॊपः कटु त च र्व णी दररद्रत च स्वजनॆषु र्वैरं ।

नीचप्रिंगः कुलिीनिॆर्व शचह्न शन दॆ िॆ नरकन्तथित न म् ॥
14. िुश्रूष श्रर्वणं चैर्व ग्रिणं ध रणं ति ।

ऊि पॊि िथ शर्वज्ञ नं तत्वज्ञ नं च धीगुण ः ॥
SECTION – C
(30 Marks)
III. A) Answer the following in about 400 words. (15 Marks)
15. Write an essay on the lesson Taittiriyopanishad including the topics of Vedanushasanam & Aanandavali &
Briguvalli. What are the messages which we can learn from them? Base your answers on the text.
OR
16. Write an essay on the message of the subhashitas composed by ancient & recent poets. Use proper
quotations from the text.
III. B) Discuss the following sloka with respect to:
i) Introduction.
ii) Word division and word by word meaning.
iii) Explanation and appreciation.
iv) Grammatical points. (2+5+4+4=15 Marks)
17. र्वयशमि पररतुष्ट ः र्वल्कलै ः त्वं दु कूलै ः

िम इि पररतॊषॊ शनशर्वथिॆषॊ शर्विॆ षः ।
ि तु िर्वशत दररद्रॊ यस्य तृष्ण शर्वि ल
मनशि च पररतुष्टॆ कॊऽिथ र्व न् कॊ दररद्रः ॥
OR
18. ज्ञ त्व दॆ र्वं िर्वथप ि पि शनः

क्षीणैः क्लॆिैजथन्ममृ त्युप्रि शणः ।
तस्य शिध्य न त् तृतीयॆ दॆ ििॆ दॆ
शर्वश्वै श्वयं केर्वलं आप्तक मः ॥
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Sri Sathya Sai Institute of Higher Learning: Second Semester Examinations, April 2019

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UAEN-201

Sri Sathya Sai Institute of Higher Learning

Additional English: Literature and Life–II

1. Why did the Roman Church burn books?

2. What happened to the authors who remained unaffected by this warning?

3. What charges were foisted against Arun Shourie?

4. How is the progress of civilization realized?

5. Provide synonyms for the words ‘profess’ and ‘dissent’.

6. And ________ must be the storm–

9. All pessimism has a secret ________ for its ___________.

11. Emily Dickinson A) Punch

12. E.V. Lucas B) Indian Philosophy

13. John Keats C) The World Crisis

14. S. Radhakrishnan D) The Bird of Time

F) “Ode on a Grecian Urn”

Sri Sathya Sai Institute of Higher Learning

Additional English: Literature and Life–II

1. “Some things must go wrong your whole life long,

2. “What care I for the world’s loud weariness,

4. “It is an adventure of mind, an imaginative adventure of mind.”

5. Elaborate J. C. Hill’s views on ‘good manners’.

9. Keats pines for hope, amidst sordid realities of life – Discuss.

11. Recall the plot of “The Bishop’s Candlesticks”.

13. Trace the supernatural atmosphere in “The Monkey’s Paw”.

VII. Do as directed: (5x2=10 Marks)

15. Audacious (Supply the Noun and Adverb forms)

16. Despondency (Supply the Adjective and Adverb forms)

17. Estrangement (Supply the Verb form and Antonym)

18. Propagate (Supply the Noun form and Synonym)

19. Swindle (Make a meaningful sentence)

21. A danger foreseen is half avoided.

Sri Sathya Sai Institute of Higher Learning

Additional English: Literature and Life-II

1. What are soft and hard skills?

2. What has research on soft skills revealed?

3. How do an individual’s soft skills impact his career trajectory?

4. Why do many Indian graduates fail to get jobs?

6. The tree of life is sustained ___________, the tree of death ___________.

9. Should ___________, parent of Despair,

10. Sarojini Naidu is also known by the sobriquet ___________.

11. G.K. Chesterton A) Fireside and Sunshine

12. E.V. Lucas B) The Monkey’s Paw

13. Stanley Houghton C) Thoughts and Adventure

14. Emily Elizabeth Dickinson D) Slant Rhyme

15. Sir Winston Churchill E) “The Dear Departed”

Sri Sathya Sai Institute of Higher Learning

Additional English: Literature and Life-II

2. “What care I for the world’s desire and pride,

5. Elaborate on Chesterton’s idea of ‘small worries’.

7. Discuss Wilcox’s perspective of God in “As You Go Through Life”.

10. Discuss Churchill’s views on painting as a pastime.

VII. Do as directed: (5x2=10 Marks)

15. Provoke (Supply the Noun form and Synonym)

16. Felicity (Supply the Synonym and make a meaningful sentence)

17. Annoyance (Supply the Verb form and Antonym)

18. Cessation (Supply the Antonym and Synonym)

19. Instantaneous (Make a meaningful sentence)

Sri Sathya Sai Institute of Higher Learning

Additional English: Literature and Life-II

1. How does the author view the death of a language?

2. What is the loss of a language equated with?

3. Is an acquired language similar to or different from a mother tongue? How?

9. All pessimism has a secret for its ___.

6. The tree of life is sustained _, the tree of death _.