CHAPTER V

ORGANIZED CRIME (CDI 4)

Complex set of people and functions:

Interestedly in hierarchical structure specifically for the purpose of attaining set goals.

Definition of Organized crime

-is both a social system and a social world. The system is composed of relationships binding
professional criminals, politicians, law enforcers, and various entrepreneurs. (Block, Alan A.
1983)

- Any group having a corporate structure whose primary objective is to obtain money through
illegal activities, often surviving on fear and corruption. (Paul Nesbitt Interpol 1993)

- "organized crime" means any continuing unlawful activity by an individual, singly or jointly,
either as a member of an organized crime syndicate or on behalf of such syndicate, by use of
violence or threat of violence or intimidation or coercion, or other unlawful means, with the
objective of gaining pecuniary benefits, or gaining undue economic or other advantage for
himself or any person or promoting insurgency; (MCOCA 1996)

CHARACTERISTICS OF ORGANIZED CRIME

o Team Work
 o Hierarchical Structure
o Planning
o Division of Labor
o Violence
o Effective control of its members
o Not limited to illicit services

ACTIVITIES OF ORGANIZED CRIME

o Narcotics distribution
o Gambling.
o Prostitution.
o Illegal Sale or Distribution of Firearms.
o Money Laundering. Kidnapping.
o Human Trafficking.
o Bank Robberies.
o Blackmailing.

TYPES OF ORGANIZED CRIME

o GANG CRIMINALITY The Gangs operate on a large scale. Hard criminals are the
member of this. They don’t hesitate to kill or use of violence. They use modern arms.
These criminals are disciplined but dangerous.
o RACKETEERING It includes dishonest way of getting money. They live on other
men’s money. Racketeers don’t like gang criminals. They give regular fixed money to
their bosses.  They take protection money from the businessmen.

SYNDICATED CRIME The syndicates create their own business procedure. They avoid using
violence. Society knows these syndicate members as respectable citizens and high status persons.
They operate in big metropolitan areas. The leaders gather at fixed place to discuss problems.
STRUCTURE OF ORGANIZED CRIME

o At the top of the family is the boss.

o Beneath the boss is a counselor and an under-boss.
o Beneath the under-boss are the lieutenants.
o Below the lieutenants.
o Membership in the family entitles the member to run his own rackets using the family’s
connections and status.
o Corporate model: A formal hierarchy in which the day-to-day activities of the
organization are planned and coordinated at the top and carried out by subordinates.
o The feudal model of the LCN (La Cosa Nostra: Commonly referred to as the Mafia)
views it as a loose connection of criminal groups held together by kinship and patronage.

STANDARD HIERARCHY

PSYCHOLOGICAL TRAITS

o Antisocial Personality (or Sociopath) Dependent Personality

o ANTISOCIAL PERSONALITY 2-3% of population (80% male; primarily urban

settings)
 o Genetic and Environmental influences

Core Clinical Features

o Pathological deceptions and manipulations Underdeveloped autonomic nervous system

Intolerant to frustration (delay of gratification)

o Disregard for the rights of others (little or no remorse) Difficulty learning from
experience (absence of internal guilt) Unstable work and personal relations (exploitation)
Repeated brushes with law (abuse alcohol or drugs)

DEPENDENT PERSONALITY

- Fear of Abandonment or Separation (Clinging Behavior). Needs others to assume

responsibilities for major life areas. Difficulty expressing disagreement. Excessive
efforts to obtain nurturance (volunteering). Outcomes Resentment (inability to control
frustration and anger).

☺DIFFERENT LEVELS OF RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN O.C. AND CORRUPTION

1st Level: Bribery

2nd Level: Continuous Acts of Bribery (“On payroll”)

3rd Level: Infiltration into Government Agencies

4th Level: Infiltrating the Government (Higher level)

5th Level: Infiltrating the Political Arena

FIRST LEVEL:

BRIBERY
The bribe is offered or solicited for a single act. For example: to obtain a passport, licenses

or to get information designed to enable Criminal advantage.

 BENEFITS OF THE BRIBERY ACTS

The O.C. Groups obtains an advantage. False identities and documents. Advance information
about police activity. Manipulation of official records. Disappearing evidence. Access to jury
identities.

SECOND LEVEL:

CONTINUOS ACTS OF BRIBERY (“ON THE PAYROLL”)

- Bribe payments are ongoing. Ensures a continuous flow of information and protection
from police intrusion into criminal activities. 

 BENEFITS OF THE CONTINUOS BRIBERY ACTS O.C.

Groups obtain constant access to confidential information allowing them to maintain patterns of
illegal activity  The O.C. Groups remain “one step ahead” of Police
  MEASURES TO AVOID THE BRIBERY ACTS

Strength the socio-economic status of public officers with fair and competitive salaries.
Implement strong penalties for breaches of public duties. Encourage “whistle-blowers”. Train
and assign Integrity Officers to corruption-prone government operations. Reduce individual
discretion.

THIRD LEVEL:

INFILTRATION INTO GOVERNMENT AGENCIES.

- Infiltration is sporadic within lower ranking official positions. OC members and

friends gain employment in law enforcement agencies, judiciary Prosecutor’s Office
and other operations.

 HOW IS INFILTRATION ACCOMPLISHED?

1) Applying for Job Vacancies  The O.C. group supports one or more members or friends to
participate and apply for job vacancies with the Government.

2) “Buying” the Job. The O.C. group bribes or blackmails officials to place its members and
friends in the government post.

FOURTH LEVEL:
INFILTRATING THE GOVERNMENT (HIGHER LEVEL)

- This infiltration can encompass entire branches or higher ranking officers. Top
Officials in Law Enforcement, Prosecutor’s Office and other sensitive government
offices.

 METHODS USED TO INFILTRATE THE HIGHER LEVELS OF

GOVERNMENT

1. Placement of Corrupted Officers into Higher Office  The O.C. group use bribery and
blackmail to support Officers previously corrupted by their organization to higher ranks with
broader access to information. This “support” is repaid to OC with increased protection and
access to more useful secret police information.

2. Control of the Chief of Section/Region. Bribery, blackmail and coercion is used to control the
chief decision-maker of an entire branch of government. OC can continue operating with very
little risk of discovery or successful prosecution.

 MEASURES TO AVOID THE INFILTRATION OF O. C. GROUPS

Transparency in the hiring process including public notification of potential candidates.

Strengthening promotional testing and strict secrecy of test questions  Vetting process thorough
background investigations and polygraph test (updated financial statements, family ties, etc.).
Public disclosure of assets
FIFTH LEVEL:

INFILTRATING THE POLITICAL ARENA O. C. Groups Congressmen Politicians

(Mayors, Governors) Law Enforcement (Security) Ministers

 HOW IS POLITICAL INFILTRATION ACCOMPLISHED?

Participating in Political Campaigns (giving money, media support and others). Buying votes for
candidates and corrupting the democratic election process. Lobbying other politicians for support
using bribery and blackmail. Exploiting O.C. Members’ family links. Creating “debts” for
politicians to “repay” later by using blackmail and extortion.

 BENEFITS OF POLITICAL INFILTRATION

“Friendly” prosecutors and judges more easily ignore criminal activity. O.C. Groups can gain
public support by performing or supporting “civic” functions. O.C. criminal activity can be
masked or overlooked by favorable public perception. Impartial juries are more difficult to
empanel. Perceived alliances with elected political figures tend to legitimize O.C.

 MEASURES TO AVOID THE POLITICAL INFILTRATION OF O.C. GROUPS

The State have to increase the financial support of the political parties, during political
campaigns. Strengthening the Laws of Media concentrations, combating monopoly. Increasing
the transparency of contributions. Knowing better the previous profiles of the Politicians

-------------------------------------------------- E N D -------------------------------------------------
EVALUATION:

ORGANIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION

===========================================================

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in each of the following questions. Mark only one answer
on each item by a putting a circle corresponding to the letter of your choice

1. It is defined as the procedure for collecting, recording, organizing and preserving all various
information gathered in an investigation.

A. investigation B. trial preparation

C. case screening D. case management

2. In administrative case designation as considerations in case management, it means that the case
is assigned to an officer and investigative efforts are presently active and on-going.

A. open investigation B. continuing investigation

C. all of these D. preliminary investigation

3. In administrative case designations as considerations in case management, it means that all

available leads have been exhausted but the case has not been brought to a conclusion and investigative
efforts may resume.

A. follow-up investigation B. suspended investigation

C. initial investigation D. none of these

4. In administrative case designation as considerations in case management, it means that the case
has been concluded, it includes exception, arrest, and unfounded cases.

A. open investigation B. suspended investigation

C. closed investigation D. follow-up investigation

5. The objective of case screening is to apply available manpower to those investigations that have
the best chance of being successful; the written criteria should specify how such is to be conducted, by
whom, and what criteria should be used.
 A. solvability factor B. initial investigation

C. modus operandi D. physical evidence

6. It can be defined as a pre-trial procedure whereby the opposing litigants supply information to
each other that is necessary to their positions at trial.

A. plea bargaining B. discovery

C. investigation D. pre-trial conference

7. This refers to the inter-exchange of information, and which typically occurs prior to trial, but as
evidences surfaces, may extend well into a given trial period.

A. investigation period B. trial period

C. discovery period D. prosecution period

8. It is an enormous electronic filing cabinet that can store information and retrieve it in any
desired format.

A. artificial data B. computerized data

C. collected data D. automated database

9. It is a term used to describe the confiscation of assets, by the state, which are either, i.e., the
proceeds of crime or the instrumentalities of crime, and more recently, terrorism.

A. sequestration B. escheating

C. asset forfeiture D. all of these

10. These are properties used to facilitate crimes, to commit a crime or intended to be used of
committing crimes, or any properties or materials used in committing crimes.

A. equipment B. instrumentalities

C. instrument D. properties

11. This doctrine allows courts to strip a person of property if the property was involved in a certain
offense.

A. doctrine of guilty property B. doctrine of silver platter

C. doctrine of plain view D. doctrine of parens patriae

12. These are properties for which ownership itself is a crime, e.g., illegal drugs, smuggled goods,
and any other properties subject of the offense.

A. contraband B. prohibited articles

C. illegal items D. assets & net worth

13. Properties that results from, or can be traced back to illegal activity of those properties stolen of
embezzled.

A. property stolen or embezzled B. proceeds of illegal activity

C. property subject of the offense D. property used in committing crime

14. This involves the ability to trace a connection between money and illegal activities, and it
cannot always be certain that there is a connection between them, but often it is not difficult to come up
with one that sounds reasonable.

A. administrative case B. criminal cases

C. forfeiture cases D. civil cases

15. It is a sentencing option if the statute used to convict the offender also provide for forfeiture,
and in some accounts, less common mainly because of the burden of proof in criminal cases, namely
proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

A. asset forfeiture B. freezing of asset

C. sequestration D. criminal forfeiture

16. What the government needs to prove is the preponderance f the evidence that the property in
question was used or obtained illegally, thus making it subject to forfeiture.

A. forfeiture B. asset forfeiture

C. confiscation D. civil forfeiture

17. Generally, it is the first step in the forfeiture process, and this can occur in several ways,
including warrants or restraining orders.

A. forfeiture of assets B. searches of assets

C. seizure of assets D. freezing of assets

18. It is illegal to possess and, as such, is subject to forfeiture, and no one can assert a legal interest in
contraband property, so any property interest in it cannot exist.

A. illegal article B. contraband property

C. forbidden property D. prohibited article

19. It is sometimes called instrumentality forfeiture, meaning the property targeted for forfeiture
was instrumental to the commission of the crime or in the fulfillment of a crime.

A. facilitation procedure B. forfeiture proceedings

C. confiscation procedure D. standard procedure

20. Asset forfeiture is beneficial for at least three reasons, as follows, EXCEPT:

A. crime reduction B. increased arrest rate

C. budget boost D. seizure of property

21. It is not an easy, natural thing; it is important that the investigator has to look at it as naturally as
possible; and show your interest, and pay your attention to what people are saying.

A. investigating B. witnessing

C. testifying D. all of these

22. It is the initial questioning of a witness or defendant by the prosecution who is using the
person’s testimony to further the case.

A. re-cross examination B. re-direct examination

C. witness examination D. direct examination

23. It is the questioning by the defense lawyer for the purpose of assessing the validity of the testimony
made by the investigator in the witness stand.

A. re-cross examination B. cross examination

C. officer’s testimony D. witness presentation

24. The investigators appearance in court is extremely important. How the court will perceive the
investigator’s credibility will in part determine by the following, EXCEPT:
A. appearance B. demeanor

C. professionalism D. intelligence

25. They are often called into court to present testimony, and the courts are often influenced by their
appearance and demeanor on the witness stand.

A. police officers B. witnesses

C. all of these D. investigators

26. This is an “Act Defining and Penalizing the Crime of Plunder.”

A. R.A. No. 7080 B. R.A. No. 7008

C. R.A. No. 8770 D. R.A. No. 7800

27. This is an “Act Defining the Crime of Money Laundering, Providing Penalties and for Other
Purposes.”

A. R.A. No. 9610 B. R.A. No. 9160

C. R.A. No. 9106 D. R.A. No. 9061

28. These are the various forms of discovery in connection with case management, and which is
having importance with organized crime investigations, to wit, EXCEPT:

A. more common forms is a deposition

B. discovery is interrogatory

C. involves the production of physical evidence

D. formalized case management procedures

29. These should contain a copy of preliminary investigative reports and all the originals should be
maintained in central records, records of statements, result of examinations of physical evidence, case
status reports, and other reports and records needed for investigative purposes.

A. case management B. case folders

C. case files D. filing cabinets

30. Case management includes the following activities, as follows, EXCEPT:

A. taking notes on the facts observed

B. preparing official reports

C. maintaining a separate case folder

D. allow the presentation of information

31. It involves gathering, collecting, and preparing the raw material for a court or hearing, and can
include evidence gathering, forensic investigation, private investigations, evidence analysis, and
preparing witness testimony.

A. case management B. court preparation

C. trial preparation D. case preparation

32. It tends to be a gold mine, a synthesis of not only the information collected by the plaintiff's
attorney, but also the strategy and thinking of all of the other parties involved in criminal proceedings.

A. depositions B. testimony

C. affidavits D. statements

33. They are creatures of habit and emotion, and they have a certain set of written and unwritten
rules they follow in their courtrooms.

A. lawyers B. prosecutors

C. judges D. witnesses

34. They are intensely stressful, regardless of how many cases one has tried, and when the stakes
are big, the stress skyrockets.

A. prosecutions B. trials

C. hearings D. investigations

35. These are having an undeniable impact that no amount of verbal description can capture, and it
should clarify and solidify the message of the investigator in presenting evidence.

A. audio visuals B. LCD presentation

C. overhead projector D. visual aids

36. This encouraged citizens to report crimes; then the agency then responds; and this type of law
enforcement is used in dealing with conventional crimes.

A. reactive law enforcement B. crime prevention & control

C. eliminating opportunity D. none of these

37. This requires the police officers and agents to seek out indications of criminal behavior, a
necessity when the nature of violation includes victim participation.

A. criminal investigation B. proactive law enforcement

C. all of these D. special crime investigation

38. These crimes are often referred to as “__________,” because victims are unlikely to report the
crime to the police or law enforcement agencies.

A. violation of penal code B. violation of special laws

C. crimes against person D. victimless crimes

39. This is the basic starting point of organized crime investigation, by which the investigators
thoroughly mine to learn the structure of the organization, the identity of its leaders and membership.

A. publicly available information

B. privately available information

C. need to know and compartmentation

D. police intelligence operations security

40. It is unlike the investigation of other types of crime in that it is proactive instead of reactive; and the
law enforcement does not anymore simply respond to the scene after the crime has been committed.

A. special crime investigation

B. investigation of organized crime

C. miscellaneous field investigation

D. crimes against person investigation

41. The investigation of the criminal activity associated with organized crime involves __________
than that of the more traditional forms of crimes.
 A. inter-agency liaisons activities

B. news clipping and de-briefing

C. greater cooperation and coordination

D. rapport from other pillars of the CJS

42. It is not necessarily an international activity; most organized criminal activity of interest in a
particular country will occur within its borders.

A. transnational crimes B. enterprise crimes

C. drug trafficking D. organized crime

43. It range from minor bribery of law enforcement agents to “look the other way,” to paying off judges
and high-ranking officials.

A. threat and violence B. sphere of influence

C. corruption practices D. monopoly of goods

44. They are likely to be very sophisticated, and generally, they would not have attained this level
of criminal activity without some knowledge of how to avoid detection and prosecution.

A. syndicated crimes B. enterprise criminals

C. transnational crimes D. organized crimes

45. It is the single most important tool in countering organized crime, which is supported by files
detailing over time the collection and analysis of information and intelligence.

A. good intelligence unit B. good operations units

C. good police organization D. good community relations

46. It can be defined as government seizure of property derived from or used in criminal activity,
and it is designed to strip criminals of their financial rewards and is widely used because the threat of
imprisonment and fines has been inadequate to deter crimes netting huge profits.

A. confiscation B. escheating

C. revocation D. forfeiture
47. It has proved to be one of the most useful types of law in combating organized crime, and its
use can have many benefits for the criminal investigator.

A. secrecy law B. bank deposits law

C. conspiracy law D. complex crime law

48. It is helpful in providing a computerized investigative data base and some products of
investigative analysis, such as toll call analysis and link charting, as well as technical assistance and
referrals for law enforcement agencies needing technical assistance.

A. information sharing B. information sharking

C. information giving D. information lending

49. It is the key to success in virtually all counter-measures against criminal enterprises due to the
fact that criminal syndicates are multi-territorial and trans-national.

A. inter-agency cooperation B. lateral coordination

C. rapport and coordination D. international cooperation

50. The purpose of this inquiry is to determine the extent to which a person, group, of organization
receives and benefits from money obtained from other than legitimate sources.

A. income analysis B. cash analysis

C. source analysis D. net worth analysis

 CHAPTER VI

CDI 5 – DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL

RA no. 9165 - Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.

RA no 6425 - Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972 - the law that was repelled by RA no. 9165.

Dangerous Drugs Board (DDB) - the policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning and
formulation of policies and programs on drug prevention and control.

Duties/Function of the DDB -To develop and adopt a comprehensive, integrated, unified and balanced national
drug abuse prevention and control strategy.

Composition of the DDB

1. 3 permanent members
2. 2 regular members
3. 12 ex officio members

The 12 ex officio members are the following:

1. DOJ secretary or his/her representative

2. DOH secretary or his/her representative
3. DND secretary or his/her representative
4. DOF secretary or his/her representative
5. DOLE secretary or his/her representative
6. DILG secretary or his/her representative
7. DSWD secretary or his/her representative
8. DFA secretary or his/her representative
9. DECS secretary or his/her representative
10. CHED chairman or his/her representative
11. National Youth Commission chairman or his/her representative
12. PDEA director general

 The DDB is under the office of the President.

  The Department Secretary's representative shall in no case be lower than Under Secretary.

The Two Regular Members of the DDB are:

1. The President of the Integrated Bar of the Philippines (IBP)

2. The Chairman or President of a non-governmental organization involved in dangerous drug campaign to be
appointed by the President of the Philippines.

Permanent Consultants of the DDB

1. Director of the NBI 2. Chief of the PNP

PDEA - implementing arm of the DDB.

Qualification of the 3 Permanent members of the DDB

- at least 7 years training and experience in the field of dangerous drugs and in any of the following fields: law,
medicine, criminology, psychology or social work. They are appointed by the President.

 The President shall designate a Chairman of the DDB from among the 3 permanent members who shall
serve for 6 years.
 The Chairman of the DDB shall have a rank of Under Secretary.
 Term of office of the permanent members of the DDB - 6 years and until their successors shall have been
duly appointed and qualified.
 The PDEA shall be headed by a Director General with the rank of undersecretary.
 The PDEA Director General shall be appointed by the President of the Philippine

Duties/Functions of PDEA Director General

1. Responsible for the general administration and management of the agency.
2. Perform other duties that may be assigned to him/her by the President.

 The PDEA Director General and the 2 Deputy Director General must possess adequate knowledge, training
and experience in the field of dangerous drugs and in any of the following field: law enforcement, law,
medicine, criminology, psychology and social work.

There are 2 PDEA Deputy Director General

1. One for Administration 2. One for Operation

They shall have a rank of Assistant Secretary and both are appointed by the President of the Philippines upon
recommendation of the board.
Mandatory Services of the PDEA
1. Intelligence and Investigation
2. International Cooperation and Foreign Affairs
3. Preventive Education and Community Involvement
4. Plans and Operation
5. Compliance, Legal and Prosecution
6. Administrative and Human Resource
7. Financial Management
8. Logistic Management
9. Internal Affairs

 PDEA shall establish regional offices.

 PDEA Academy - Shall be established either in Baguio City or Tagaytay City and in such other places as
may be necessary.
 PDEA Academy shall be headed by a Superintendent with the rank of Director. He shall be appointed by
the PDEA Director General.

3 Pronged Approached in the Solution of Drug Problems

1. Law enforcement activities

2. Preventive Drug Education and Information
program in school and in communities.
3. Treatment and Rehabilitation programs for drug
dependent.

Classification of Drugs according to effect

1. Depressant - "downers" - a drug reducing functional or nervous activity. Lower the level of
arousal when taken
2. Stimulants - "Uppers" - increase mental and/or physical function. A substance that raises the
levels of physiological or nervous activity in the body.
3. Hallucinogens - "psychedelics" - a drug that causes hallucinations. Psychoactive drugs that cause
subjective change in perception, thought, emotion and consciousness.

Classification of Drugs according to Pharmacology

 1. Depressants 4. Stimulants
2. Narcotics 5. Hallucinogens
3. Tranquilizers 6. Solvents/Inhalants

Classifications of Drugs according to Legal Categories

1. Prohibited Drugs 2. Regulated Drugs 3. Volatile substances

Golden Triangle of Drug Trafficking

Laos 2. Thailand 3. Burma

The Golden Crescent

1. Afghanistan 2. Pakistan 3. Iran 4. India

Classification of Drug user/Abuser

1. Situational user - those who use drugs to keep them awake or for additional energy to perform an important
work. Such individual may or may not exhibit psychological dependence.
2. Spree user - school age user who take drugs for "kicks", adventure, daring experience or a means of fun.
3. Hardcore addicts - those whose activities revolves almost entirely around drug use and securing supplies.
They show strong psychological dependence on the drug.
4. Hippies - Those who are addicted to drugs believing that drug is an integral part of life.

Commonly abused drugs:

1. Sedatives - are depressant drugs which reduce anxiety and excitement such as barbiturates, tranquilizers and
alcohol.
2. Stimulants - are drugs which increase alertness and activity such as amphetamine, cocaine and caffeine.
3. Hallucinogen/Psychedelics - drugs which affect sensation, thinking, self-awareness and emotion.
4. Narcotics - drugs that relieve pain and often induce sleep. This includes opium and its derivatives like
morphine, codeine and heroin.
5. Solvents - volatile substances which are found to be the most commonly abused.

Primary causes of drug addiction:

1. Pride - excessive feeling of self-worth or self-esteem or sense of self-importance.

2. Anger - against, himself, family, friends and society in general.
3. Lust - burning sexual desire can distort the human mind to drug abuse.
 4. Gluttony - "food trip" in the lingo of junkies.
5. Greed - wealth, fame, recognition as exemplified by people under pressure in their work of art such as
musician, actors and athletes who indulge in drug abuse.
6. Envy - to get attention from someone as sign of protest.
7. Laziness - "i can’t syndrome" incapacity to achieve is a breeding ground of drug abuse and boredom
coupled with poor self-image

Warning Signs of Commonly Abused Drugs

1. Marijuana
 glassy red eye
 loud talking
 inappropriate laughter followed by sleepiness
 loss of interest, motivation
 weight gain or loss
2. Depressant
 contracted pupils
 drunk-like
 difficulty concentrating
 clumsiness
 poor judgement

3. Stimulants - ex. cocaine, amphetamines

 dilated pupils
 hyperactivity
 euphoria
 irritability
 anxiety
 excessive talking followed by depression or excessive sleeping
 may go long period of time without eating or sleeping
 weight loss
 dry mouth and nose

4. Inhalants - ex. glues, aerosols, vapors

 watery eyes
 impaired vision, memory and thought
 secretions from the nose or rashes around the nose and mouth
 headaches and nausea
 appearance of intoxication
 drowsiness
 poor muscle control
 changes in appetite
  anxiety
 irritability
 lots of cans, aerosols in the trash

5. Hallucinogens - ex. LSD, PCP

 dilated pupils
 bizarre and irrational behavior including paranoia, aggression, hallucination
 mood swings
 detachment from people
 absorption with self or other objects
 slurred speech
 confusion

6. Heroin
 contracted pupils
 no response of pupils to light
 needle marks
 sleeping at unusual time
 sweating
 vomiting
 coughing, shuffling
 twitching
 loss of appetite

7. Alcohol
 clumsiness
 difficulty walking
 slurred speech
 sleepiness
 poor judgement
 dilated pupils
 possession of false ID cards

8. Tobacco/Nicotine
 smell of tobacco
 stained fingers or teeth

Analgesic - any drugs such as salicylates, morphine or opiates used primarily for the relief of pain.
Drug Education Definition of Terms

Acute tolerance - The development of tolerance within the course of a single exposure to a drug.

Addiction - Implies a very severe form of dependence, one involving an overwhelming compulsion for the
use of a particular drug.

Adulterant - Material used to increase the mass of a controlled substance. Adulterants produce
physiological effects and give the illusion that more controlled substance is present than its actual content.

Alkaloid - One of a group of nitrogenous organic bases, especially one of vegetable origin, having a
powerful toxic effect on animals and man, such as nicotine, cocaine, strychnine, or morphine.

Amitriptyline - A tricyclic antidepressant drug, found to impair skilled performance and to be additive with
ethanol in its adverse effects.

Amobarbital - A barbiturate derivative used as a sedative or hypnotic; available in ampules for intravenous
or intramuscular injection for the control of seizures.

Amphetamine - A drug that is representative of a class of structurally related compounds known as

phenethylamines. Basis of a group of hallucinogenic, habit-forming drugs that affect the central nervous
system. The sale and use restricted to physicians; name Benzedrine.

Analgesic - Any drugs, such as salicylates, morphine, or opiates used primarily for the relief of pain.

Anaphylaxis - An allergic hypersensitivity reaction of the body to a foreign protein or drug.

Antidepressant - A drug, such as imipramine and tranylcypromine, that relieves depression

by increasing central sympathetic activity.

Antisera - Injecting human serum into various animals, such as the horse, goat, sheep, rabbit, duck, hen, or
guinea pig, can produce antihuman sera.

Antiserum - Any immune serum that contains antibodies active chiefly in destroying a specific infecting
virus or bacterium.

Barbiturate - A derivative of barbituric acid that produces depression of the central nervous system and
consequent sedation.

Benzoylecognine - A cocaine metabolite.

Butabarbital - A short- to intermediate-acting barbiturate derivative.

Butalbital - An occasionally encountered short-acting barbiturate closely related to Talbutal and less closely
to Amobarbital and Secobarbital. Intoxication can result in lethargy, confusion, disorientation, and ataxia.

Cannabidiol - A constituent of cannabis, which, upon isomerization to a

tetrahydrocannabinol, has some of the physiologic activity of marijuana.

Cannabinol - (C21H26O2) A physiologically inactive phenol formed by spontaneous dehydrogenation of

tetrahydrocannabinol from cannabis.

Cannabis - A genus of tall annual herbs in the family Cannabaccae having erect stems, with 3 to 7 elongated
leaflets and pistillate flowers in spikes along the stem. Commonly known as marijuana or sometimes
referred to on the street as grass or pot.

Chronic - Persistent, prolonged, repeated.

Chronic effect - A pathologic process caused by repeated exposures over a period of long duration.

Chronic tolerance - The gradual decrease in degree of effect produced at the same blood concentration in
the course of repeated exposure to that drug.

Cocaine - A colorless to white crystalline powder. Used as a local anesthetic (medicine or dentistry), usually
as the hydrochloride. Also known by street names, such as coke, snow, or freebase.

Codeine - A narcotic alkaloid that is used in medicine and cough syrups; highly toxic and habit-forming
narcotic.

Concentration - The amount of a substance in a stated unit of a mixture or solution. Common methods of
stating concentration are percent by weight, percent by volume, or weight per unit volume. Amount of a drug
in a unit volume of biological fluid, expressed as weight/volume.

Confirmatory test - Second test by an alternative chemical method for unambiguous identification of a drug
or metabolite.

Crack - Concentrated form of cocaine, which is used in vapor form. It is smoked or inhaled through crack
pipes. It is a highly addictive drug that causes psychotic behavior, which is often violent. Almost pure form
of the drug cocaine hydrochloride, obtained from a shrub native to Bolivia and Peru. It can cause increased
alertness and energy, runny nose, and decreased appetite when snorted, injected, or smoked.

Cut-off concentration - Concentration of a drug in a specimen or sample used to determine whether

the specimen or sample is considered positive or negative. In some circumstances it is recommended that the
cut-off concentration should be set equal to the limit of detection.

Depressants - Drugs that depress the action of the central nervous system such as phenobarbital,
pentobarbital, and alcohol.

Designer drugs - Drugs that are produced illicitly by means of chemical technology. They can cause
uncontrollable tremors, chills, or sweating and faintness and paranoia when injected or taken in pill form.

Diazepam - (valium) The second benzodiazepine derivative to have been approved for human usage has
been one of the most frequently prescribed drugs in the United States. It is administered as an antianxiety
agent, muscle relaxant, or anticonvulsant.

Drug - Any natural or synthetic substance that is administered to produce specific physiological or
psychological effects.

Drug abuse - The nonmedicinal use of a drug in a manner that is not socially acceptable.

Drug dependence - The primary hazard of the abusive use of drugs is the likelihood for some individuals to
develop a “need” or compulsive desire that may occur as a result of a psychological or a physical craving.

Hallucinogens - Drugs like marijuana, LSD, PSP, and ecstasy that produce changes in mood, thought and
perception.

Hashish - Purified resin prepared from the flowering tops of the female cannabis plant and smoked or
chewed as a narcotic or an intoxicant.

Impramine - The prototype of the tricyclic antidepressant drugs.

Marijuana - Popular name for the dried flowers and leaves of Cannabis sativa.

Meperidine hydrochloride - A fine, white, odorless, crystalline powder; very soluble in water, soluble in
alcohol, and used in medicine as a narcotic.

Methadone hydrochloride - A synthetic narcotic. Used medicinally as a sedative and also useful in treating
heroin addiction.

Methamphetamine - Colorless, volatile liquid; characteristic strong odor and slightly burning taste. Highly
toxic, flammable, as well as a dangerous fire risk. Basis of a group of hallucinogenic, habit-forming drugs
that affect the central nervous system.

Morphine - White crystalline alkaloid, slightly soluble in water, alcohol, and ether; highly toxic, narcotic,
habit-forming drug.

Mushroom - (Drugs) Umbrella-shaped fungus, some varieties of which contain a drug that can cause
hyperventilation, tremors, and hyperactivity when the fungus is chewed, smoked, or ground and infused in
water and drunk as a tea.

Narcotic - Pharmacologically, any substance that produces narcosis, a stuporous state resembling sleep, and
characterized by loss of sensation. Addictive substance that reduces pain, alters mood and behavior, and
usually induces sleep or stupor.

Opiates - Natural, semi-synthetic, or synthetic substances with morphine-like effects in the body. They are
primarily employed as analgesics and can be considered narcotic in their effects.

Opium - A highly toxic plant alkaloid that is a habit-forming narcotic; one source of opium is morphine.

Overdose - An excessive dose of medicine or narcotic substance.

Peyote - The common name for the small Mexican cactus, Lophophora Williams, which contains the
hallucinogen, mescaline.
Pharmacodynamics - The study of the relationship of drug concentration to drug effects.

Pharmacokinetics - The study of the time course of the processes (absorption, distribution, metabolism, and
excretion) a drug undergoes in the body.

Pharmacologic - Relating to the study of drugs and their origin, natural properties, and effects on living
organisms.

Phencyclidine (PCP) - Has an anesthetic activity and is manufactured legitimately for use as a veterinary
anesthetic. It has no legitimate use in humans because of its hallucinogenic actions. The effects on humans
are considered euphoric, but at times depression or anxiety and aggressive behavior are produced. Common
street names are PCP, peace pill, hog, and angel dust.

Picking - Adherence of a drug to the face of the punch used to produce a tablet. Picking creates holes in the
surfaces of pressed tablets, usually near letters such as A or R.

Propoxyphene - A mildly effective narcotic analgesic, somewhat less potent than codeine, that bears a close
structural relationship to methadone.

Qualitative test - A test that determines the presence or absence of specific drugs or metabolites, proteins, or
enzymes in the specimen or sample.

Quinine - Bulky, white, amorphous powder or crystalline alkaloid; very bitter taste; odorless and
levorotatory. Used in medicine as an antimalarial drug.

Secobarbital - A barbiturate derivative of short duration of action; used as either a sedative or hypnotic.

Solvent - A substance capable of dissolving another substance (solute) to form a uniformly dispersed
mixture (solution) at the molecular or ionic size level.

Stimulants - Drugs that increase the activity of the central nervous system, creating feelings of confidence
and energy. A drug that produces a temporary increase of functional activity or efficiency. A drug that
increases alertness and motor activity and, at the same time, reduces fatigue, allowing the individual to
remain awake for an extended period of time. It can cause weight loss, increased respiration and heart rate,
blurred vision, and anxiety when snorted, injected, smoked, or swallowed in capsule, tablet, or pill form.
 Strychnine - An alkaloid found together with the less active brucine in the seed of Strychnos nux-vomica, a
tree indigenous to India. It is a potent central nervous system stimulant and conversant, acting by the
selective blockage of postsynaptic neuronal inhibition.

Substance abuse - Use of alcohol or drugs that results in adverse effects on the user. Substance abuse is
a major health and social problem in the United States among adolescents.

Tolerance - A state that develops after long-term exposure to a drug. Metabolic tolerance infers a faster
removal and oxidation by the liver. Functional tolerance infers a change in sensitivity of the organ to the
effects of the drug.

-------------------------------------------------- E N D --------------------------------------------------------

EVALUATION:

DRUG EDUCATION & VICE CONTROL

===========================================================

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in each of the following questions. Mark only one answer
on each item by a putting a circle corresponding to the letter of your choice.

1. It is described as stream of fantastic images and kaleidoscope-like play of colors, a user whose
eyes are closed will experience some pattern of images.

A. blackouts B. closed-eyes imagery

C. stimulus intensification D. escapist

2. It is one which the LSD taker believes that frightening bodily changes are resulting from the
drug.

A. bad environment trips B. bad head trips

C. bad body trips D. flashback

3. It is the distortion of ordinary perception.

A. illusion B. blackouts

C. flashback D. bad trips

4. It is the result of LSD induced illusions and dysphoria. In these bad trips walls may seem
coming in and trees may seem to grasp the drug user.

A. bad head trips B. bad body trips

C. bad environment trips D. flashback

5. It is the strongest effects of LSD, and described as a sensory crossing or all acoustic perception
that makes every sound causing a corresponding colored hallucination.

A. synesthesia B. bad trips

C. dysphoria D. euphoria

6. It involves the LSD taker confronting an emotional crisis that has been suppressed until normal
defense were lowered by the LSD.

A. bad body trips B. bad environment trips

C. bad trips D. bad head trips

7. It is a state of hearing and seeing thing which does not actually exist.

A. hallucination B. illusion

C. dysphoria D. euphoria

8. When the person became chronically confused because of the use of drug for several times in a
week, they are being nicknamed what?

A. jelly brain B. confusional syndrome

 C. closed-eyes imagery D. hallucinations

9. It is usually viewed by the LSD user as an enviable brief nostalgic experience and it usually
involve fairly simple and common illusions.

A. flashback B. illusions

C. dysphoria D. euphoria

10. Dry mouth and throat experienced by marijuana user is known as:

A. dry mouth B. dry throat

C. cotton mouth D. none of these

11. It is one of the obvious manifestations of marijuana use.

A. dropping eyelids B. blood shot eye

C. cotton mouth D. coughing

12. It is the loss of identify and humanness experience by marijuana user.

A. personalization B. depersonalization

C. all of the above D. none of these

13. It is an exaggerated sense distress or unhappiness.

A. dysphoria B. euphoria

C. depersonalization D. inhibition

14. These are the two successive phases that can be experienced in taking PCP.

A. stimulus intensification B. escapists

C. intensification & escapist D. all of these

15. These are the requirements during the conduct of actual buy-bust operations.

A. poseur buyer B. marked money

C. all of these D. none of these

16. It is refers to any act of introducing any dangerous drugs into the body of any person, with or
without his knowledge by injecting, ingestion or other means of taking a dangerous drug to himself or
herself.

A. administer B. taking

C. using D. introducing

17. It is the sale, distribution, supply or transport of legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured
or procured controlled precursor and essential chemicals.

A. cultivate B. culture

C. chemical diversion D. all of the above

18. Any facility used for the illegal manufacturing of any dangerous drug, controlled precursor or
essential chemicals.

A. instrumentation B. clandestine laboratory

C. centers D. chemical diversion

19. It is an analytical test conducted to a suspected drug uses by using a device, tool or equipment
with a different chemical or physical principle that is more specific, purposely to validate the result of
initial screening test.

A. confirmatory test B. screening test

C. drug test D. none of the above

20. This is an investigative technique made by the law enforcement agency of allowing an unlawful
or suspected consignment of any dangerous drugs and/or controlled precursor and essential chemicals.

A. chemical diversion B. cultivate or culture

C. deliver D. controlled delivery

21. It is any act of knowingly planting, growing, raising, or permitting the planting, growing or
raising of any plant which is the source of a dangerous drugs.

A. cultivate B. culture

C. cultivate or culture D. all of the above

22. It is any act of knowingly passing a dangerous drug to another, personally or otherwise, and by
any means, with or without consideration.

A. chemical diversion B. cultivate or culture

C. deliver D. controlled delivery

23. A place where any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical is
administered, delivered.

A. den B. dive

C. resort D. den, dive or resort

24. Any act of giving away of selling or distributing medicine or any dangerous drug with or
without the use of prescription.

A. dispense B. deliver

C. administer D. all of these

25. It is a cluster of physiological, behavioral and cognitive phenomena of variable intensity in

which the use of psychoactive drug takes on a high priority.

A. drug addiction B. physical dependence

C. drug habituation D. drug dependence

26. Any organized group of two (2) or more persons forming or joining together with the intention
of committing any offense prescribed by RA 9165.

A. syndicated crime group B. organized crime group

C. drug syndicate D. drug traffickers

27. These are any person who pays for, raises or supplies money for, or underwrites any of the
illegal activities prescribed by RA 9165.

A. employee B. caretaker

C. financier D. lookout

28. The illegal cultivation, culture, delivery administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale, trading,
transportation, etc. of any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor.
 A. pushing B. selling

C. illegal trafficking D. manufacture

29. It is the production, preparation, compounding or processing of nay dangerous drugs or

controlled precursor and essential chemical.

A. cultivate B. culture

C. illegal trafficking D. manufacture

30. It refers to the coagulated juice of the opium poppy and e3braces every kind, class and character
of opium.

A. opium B. cocaine

C. shabu D. ecstacy

31. It is any willful act by any person of maliciously and surreptitiously inserting, placing, adding
any dangerous drugs.

A. planting evidence B. illegal arrest

C. unlawful search D. none of the above

32. Any person who sells, trades, administers, dispenses, delivers or gives away to another any
dangerous drugs controlled precursor and essential chemical.

A. pushers B. traffickers

C. sellers D. administer

33. Any act of giving away any dangerous drug whether for money or any other consideration.

A. push B. sell

C. traffic D. administer

34. Transactions involving the traffic of dangerous drugs or controlled precursor and essential
chemicals.

A. trading B. manufacturing

C. administering D. trafficking
35. Any act of injecting, intravenously or intramuscularly, of consuming any of dangerous drugs.

A. use B. administer

C. taking D. dispense

36. A rapid test performed to establish potential presumptive positive result.

A. confirmatory test B. screening test

C. drug test D. none of these

37. Any person who knowingly and willfully consents the unlawful acts provided by RA 9165.

A. protector B. coddler

C. protector or coddler D. all of these

38. It is an Act Instituting the Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.

A. RA 9165 B. RA 1956

C. RA 9156 D. RA 1965

39. When 2.5% of the population are drug dependents, or there are existence of pushers and
laboratories in the community it is being categorized as.

A. seriously affected B. less seriously affected

C. threatened D. cleared barangay

40. When 1.0% to 2.49 of the local population is drug dependents is being categorized as.

A. seriously affected B. less seriously affected

C. threatened to be affected D. cleared barangay

41. When less 1% of the local populations are drug dependents it is being categorized as.

A. seriously affected B. less seriously affected

C. threatened to be affected D. cleared barangay

42. When there are no drug pushers and drug users in a given barangay it is being categorized as.
 A. seriously affected B. less seriously affected

C. threatened to be affected D. cleared barangay

43. It is learning process that influences an individual emotionally, intellectually, psychologically

and socially may result in the modification of attitudes that influence behavior.

A. drug seminar B. drug symposium

C. drug education D. all of these

44. It relies on the passage of prohibitory laws and the infliction of threat to prevent drug abuse.

A. law enforcement model B. medical model

C. educational model D. psychological model

45. Attempts to treat drug as if it were an infectious epidemic.

A. law enforcement model B. medical model

C. educational model D. psychological model

46. Assumes that drug abuse result from bad choice made in ignorance of the true effects and
hazards of drugs.

A. law enforcement model B. medical model

C. educational model D. psychological model

47. Sees drugs as a means of coping with the problems and frustration of adolescence.

A. law enforcement model B. medical model

C. educational model D. psychological model

48. Sees the roots of drug abuse in our society and not in the individual.

A. socio-cultural model B. prevention model

C. all of the above D. none of the above

49. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness, and
corruption of individual person.
 A. addiction B. vice

C. alcoholism D. gambling

50. Means any part of the plant of the species papaver somniferum L, including the seeds thereof.

A. opium poppy B. opium seeds

C. opium leaves D. opium

CHAPTER VII

FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION (CDI 6)

Fire - is simply the perceptible phase of burning or combustion, which is the chemical

Combustion – is a self-sustaining chemical reaction producing energy or products the cause

more reactions of the same kind is an exothermic reaction

Arson Investigation

- is conducted to established the element of the Crime (Arson) identify the suspect and
gather evidences to prove his guilt.
ARSON

– the willful and malicious destruction of all kinds of building, property, structure
including personal property.

Properties of FIRE:

A. Physical Properties

1) Specific Gravity- the ratio of the weight of a solid or substance to the weight of a
volume of water
2) Vapor density – the weight of a volume of pure gas compared to the weight of a volume
of dry air at the same temperature and pressure.
3) Vapor pressure – the force exerted by the molecules on the surface of the liquid at
equilibrium.
4) Temperature – the measure of thermal degree of the agitation of molecules of a given
substance; the measure of the molecular activity within a substance.
5) Boiling point – the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid is
equal to the atmospheric pressure.
6) Ignition temperature or kindling temperature - the minimum temperature to which the
substance the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause self-contained combustion
without the addition of heat from outside sources.

7) Fire point- the temperature at which the material will give off ample vapors to keep
burning. There is usually about 5 to 10 degrees’ differences between the flashpoint and
the fire point of most materials. Since these two are just a few degrees apart.

8) Flashpoint- the temperature at which a material is not hot enough to keep burning, but
still gives off enough vapors to cause a flame to “flash” across the surface. The term
“flashpoint” is used to express the condition of a fuel vaporizing, whether or not it is
vaporizing fast enough to keep burning.
B. Chemical Properties:

1. Endothermic reaction – are changes whereby energy (heat) is absorbed or is

added before the reaction takes place.
2. Exothermic reaction – reactions or changes that release or give off energy (heat)
thus they produce

substance with less energy than the reactants.

3. Oxidation – a chemical change in which combustible material (fuel) and an

oxidizing agent react.
4. Combustion/flame – the manifestation of fire when the fire is in its gas-phased
combustion. A matter that is produced by fire.

Fire - is simply the perceptible phase of burning or combustion, which is the chemical

Combination of oxygen in the air with carbon contained in matter.

Combustion – is a self-sustaining chemical reaction producing energy or products the cause

more reactions of the same kind is an exothermic reaction

Theories of Combustion

Fire Triangle Theory

The graphical representation of the three elements of fire.

Elements of fire:

1. Heat 2. Oxygen 3. Fuel (reducing agent)

NOTE: Air Atmosphere Oxygen Requirement

1. 21% Oxygen 1. 12% No Fire

2. 78% Nitrogen 2. 14% Flashpoint

3. 1% other gases 3. 21% Fire Point

Fire Tetrahedron Theory

Components/elements

1. Oxygen 3. Heat
2. Fuel 4.Chemical Chain Reaction

Product of Combustion

1. Fire gasses - are those that remain when other products of combustion cool to normal

temperature.
Example: Hydrogen sulfide, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide, ammonia,

hydrogen cyanide, nitrous and nitric oxide.

2. Flame - it is the luminous body of a burning gas which gets hotter and less luminous
when

mixed with more oxygen.

- Incandescent gas

Types of Flames:

A. According to Color and Completeness of Combustion:

1. Luminous Flame – a reddish-orange in color; incomplete combustion lower

Temperature.

2. Non-Luminous Flame – Bluish in color: a product of complete combustion:

Highest temperature

B. According to burning Fuel and Air Mixture

1. Premixed Flame – example of a Bunsen Burner

 2. Diffusion Flame – example of Flame of the Oxyacetylene torch

C. Based on Smoothness

1. Laminar Flame – Smooth Flame

2. Turbulent Flame – Rough Flame

3. Heat – a form of energy measured in degree of temperature, it is the product of

combustion that spread the fire.

NOTE: Water freezing point 32oF 0oC Boiling point 212oF 100oC

4. Smoke – it is the visible product of incomplete combustion usually a mixture, oxygen,

nitrogen, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, finely divided particles of soot and carbon.

Phases of Burning/three stage of fire

1. Incipient/Beginning Phase – it is the initial stage of fire

2. Free Burning Phase – the second phase of burning in the presence of oxygen
 3. Smoldering Phase – the final phase of burning where in flame ceases but dense smoke
and heat completely fill the confined room.

Type of Poisonous Gases:

1. Hydrogen Sulfide (H2S) – a fire gas formed during fires involving organic material
containing sulfur such as rubber, hair, wood, meat hide. It is colorless highly toxic gas
with the strong odor of rotten eggs. Ignites at 500oF (260oC)
2. Hydrogen Cyanide (HCN) – a toxic fire gas found in oxygen-starve fires involving
nitrogen-containing materials such as wool, silk, methane, polyimides and acrylics.
Hydrogen Cyanide smells like bitter almonds which may not be easily detected.
3. Hydrogen Chloride (HCL) – a gas which can be fatal after only a breath’s is produced
in fires involving chloride containing plastics.

Classification of Fire

A. Based on Cause:

1. Natural Fire

2. Accidental Fire

3. Intentional Fire

Based on Burning Fuel

Types of Heat Transmission

1. Conduction – By direct contact

2. Radiation – Heat waves

3. Convection – Air motion

4. Direct Flame Contact

Method of Extinguishment

1. Cooling – lowering the temperature

2. Smothering – suppression of oxygen

3. Separation – Removal of fuel from the area

NOTE:

Fire Suppression- means slowing down the rate of burning

Fire Control – means keeping the fire from spreading or holding the fire to one are.

Extinguishment – is putting the completely out

Halon – Halogenated Hydrocarbon

Fire/Arson Investigation
Four General Classes of Fire Causes

1. Natural Fire – lighting, spontaneous ignition

2. Accidental Fire

3. Arson – Touch off fires

4. Unknown Fires – Fires which are not classified as to cause

Three (3) General Classification of Fire

1. Innocent Fire – ex. natural and accidental

2. Incendiary Fire – ex. Arson cases

3. Unknown Fire – ex. Fire of unknown causes

NOTE:

Cause – that which made the fire start

Reason – motive leading to action

Types of Fire/Arson Investigation

Basic Investigation

Purposes:

1. To determine what property was damage.

2. What the causes and reasons were

3. The number and extent of injuries or fatalities

4. And the recommended corrective actions to prevent recurrence

Technical Investigation

- It is an in-depth investigation to determine more specific details of the cause and

effect and to establish necessary corrective action.

Reasons:

1. There is suspicion of Arson in connection with any fire

2. There is suspicion of negligence or violation of regulation

3. The cause of any Fire is undetermined (to establish most probable cause).
 4. There is evidence of negligence or mismanagement in the fire suppression or rescue
operation

5. Loss of life or disabling as a result of fire.

NOTE:

Arson Investigation

- is conducted to established the element of the Crime (Arson) identify the suspect and gather
evidences to prove his guilt.

ARSON

– the willful and malicious destruction of all kinds of building, property, structure including
personal property.

The legal aspects of Arson/Fire Investigation.

1. It is the concern of the fire investigation to prove, otherwise no crime exists.

2. The law presumes that fire is Accidental, hence criminal design must be shown.
3. Fire caused by Accident or negligence does not constitute Arson.

Elements of Arson:

1. Actual burning took place

2. Actual burning is done with malicious intent.
3. The actual burning is done by person legally and criminally liable.
Basis of Criminal liability in Arson

1. Kind and Character of the building burned.

2. Location of the building.
3. Extent of value of the damage
4. Whether inhabited or net

What constitute Arson?

1. Burning - there must be burning or charring.

2. Will fullness – act was done purposely and with intention
3. malice – will to do harm to another
4. Motive - is what induces the criminal act
5. Intent – the purpose or design with which the act is done and involves the will to do the
act.

☺NOTE: Willfulness and Malice are the two mental elements of criminal intent.

1. Origin

2. Motive

3. Identification of prime suspect

4. Identification of sitter

Method of Proof in Arson

Most of the physical evidence in Arson is often destroyed. To prove Arson was committed,
corpus delicti must be shown and the identity of the Arsonist must be established.

Corpus Delicti

1. Burning – that there was fire that nay be shown by direct testimony

Ex. Witness, Firemen, Complaint: The Burned Building

2. Criminal Design – A willful and intent action done must be shown

Ex. Incendiary device, Flammable substance/materials

3. Evidence of Intent – valuable were removed from the building prior the fire.

- ill-feeling between accused and occupants

Motives of Arson:

1. Economic Gain

- Insurance fraud

- Desire to dispose merchandize

Concealment of crime – to destroy evidence

 2. Punitive measure – to inflict injury to another

3. Intimidation/Economic Disabling – to intimidate; to sabotage

4. Pyromania – the uncontrollable impulse of a person to burn anything without any

motivation.

Example: abnormal youth, Hero type, Drug addict & alcoholics, Sexual deviates pervert

NOTE: Fires are set two type of person

1. Person with motives

- those with desire to defraud insurer

- employees or such other person who has grievance

- those with desire to conceal evidence of crime.

- those who sets fire for purpose of intimidation

2. Person without motives

- those who are mentally ill

- pathological fire setters

- pyromaniac

- psychos
Three types of Fire-setter

1) Plants
2) Trailer
3) Accelerants
4) Mechanical Contrivance
5) Chemical Contrivance

Indication of color of Smoke & Fire

Color of Smoke Material/Substance

Black smoke with deep red flame Petroleum products such as Tar, Rubber,
Plastics, etc.

Nitrogen Products
Heavy brown with bright red flame
Magnesium Product
White smoke with bright flame
Asphalt
Black smoke with red & blue

Green flame
Potassium Products
Purple-violet flame
Calcium Products
Bright reddish Yellow flame
Plant products such as Hay, Straw, Grasses.
Grayish smoke
☺NOTE: Red Flames indicate presence of petroleum products. Blue Flames indicate use of

alcohol as accelerant.

PD 1613 Amended law on Arson.

Sec. 4 Special Aggravating Circumstances in Arson

1) If committed with intent to gain;

2) If committed with the benefit of another,
3) If offender is motivated by spite or hatred towards the owner or occupant of the property
burned;
4) If committed by a syndicate

Sec. 6 Prima Facie Evidence of Arson

1) If the fire started simultaneously in more than one part of the building or establishment;

2) If substantial amount of flammable substances or materials are stored within the building
not necessary in the business of the offender nor for household use;

3) If gasoline, kerosene, petroleum, or other flammable or combustible substance or

materials soaked therewith or containers thereof, or any mechanical, electrical, chemical,
or electronic contrivance designed to start a fire, or ashes, or traces of any of the
foregoing are found in the ruins or premises of the burned building or property;
 4) If the building or property is insured for substantially more than its actual value at the
time of the issuance of the policy;

5) If during the lifetime of the corresponding fire insurance policy more than two fires have
occurred in the same or other premises owned or under the control of the offender and/or
insured

6) If shortly before the fire, a substantial portion of the effects insured and stored in a
building or property had been withdrawn from the premises

7) If a demand for money or other valuable consideration was made before the fire in
exchange for the desistance of the offender or for the safety of the person or property of
victim.

Sec. 8 Confiscation of object of Arson

- The building which is the object of arson including the land on which it is situated
shall be confiscated and escheated to the state, unless the owner thereof can prove
that he has no participation.
- The authority on the issuance of the fire certificates in the NCR and other regions.

Authority Aggregate Damage

1. Municipal Fie Marshall Not exceeding P 10,000

2. City Fire Marshall Not exceeding P 20,000

3. District/Provincial Fire Marshall Not exceeding P 30,000

4. Regional Fire Marshall Above P 30 M but not exceeding P 50 M

----------------------------------------- E N D ---------------------------------------------

EVALUATION:

FIRE TECHNOLOGY & ARSON INVESTIGATION

===========================================================

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer in each of the following questions. Mark only one answer
on each item by a putting a circle corresponding to the letter of your choice.

1. This Act shall be known as the "Revised Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008."

A. R.A. No. 9145 B. R.A. No. 9541

C. R.A. No. 9415 D. R.A. No. 9514

2. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.

A. controlling B. abatement

C. firefighting D. preventing

3. A hot piece or lump that remains after a material has partially burned, and is still oxidizing
without the manifestation of flames.

A. lights B. ashes

C. ember D. sparks
4. A building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or because it lacks adequate exits or
fire escapes.

A. fire trap B. fire cage

C. fire hazard D. fire zone

5. Any visual or audible signal produced by a device to warm the occupants of the building or
firefighting elements of the presence or danger of fire.

A. fire alarm B. fire warning

C. fire signal D. fire call

6. Any condition or act which increases or may cause an increase in the probability of the
occurrence of fire, or which may obstruct, delay, hinder or interfere with firefighting operations and the
safeguarding of life and property.

A. fire trap B. fire hazard

C. fire danger D. fire door

7. The portion of a roadway or public-way that should be kept opened and unobstructed at all
times for the expedient operation of firefighting units.

A. fire street B. fire road

C. fire lane D. fire line

8. The minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient concentration to
form an ignitable mixture with air.

A. ignition point B. spark point

C. kindling point D. flash point

9. Passageway from one building to another or through or around a wall in approximately the
same floor level.

A. vertical exit B. diagonal exit

C. emergency exit D. horizontal exit

10. A piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in an electrical
system.
 A. overloading B. octopus’s connection

C. jumper D. all of these

11. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consume electrical
current beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.

A. electrical failure B. overloading

C. load capacity D. short-circuiting

12. An integrated network of hydraulically designed piping installed in a building, structure or area
which automatically discharges water when activated by heat.

A. sprinkler system B. wet pipe system

C. stand pipe system D. dry pipe system

13. A system of vertical pipes in a building to which fire hoses can be attached on each floor,
including a system by which water is made available to the outlets as needed.

A. fire control system B. fire hoses and boxes

C. standpipe system D. fire pipe system

14. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor, as well as from the base
to the top of the building.

A. diagonal shaft B. vertical shaft

C. circular shaft D. horizontal shaft

15. A passage hall or antechamber between the outer doors and the interior parts of a house or
building.

A. abatement B. shaft

C. vestibule D. jumper

16. These are employed by the arsonist to delay the start of a fire and allow them to establish an
alibi.
 A. candles B. matches

C. cigarettes D. timing devices

17. This is a chemical element which ignites upon exposure to air, and has been employed to start
or delayed a fire.

A. chlorine B. phosphorous

C. sulfuric acid D. ammonium chloride

18. It is the most common form of accelerant.

A. kerosene B. turpentine

C. gasoline D. diesoline

19. To optimize limited human and material resources in fire and arson investigation, the concerned
fire service authorities had to develop a _________.

A. case management system

B. case tracking system

C. case monitoring system

D. case recording system

20. There are three main reasons to use an investigative checklist in fire or arsons investigation,
EXCEPT:

A. to ensure that pertinent fact has been identified

B. to identify cases to be assigned to management system

C. to serve as supervisory tool in evaluating performance

D. to preserve and maintain the crime scene and evidence

21. These are used to extend the fire from the plant or set to other parts of the structure, and
sometimes they lead from the starter plant to one or more secondary plants.

A. trailers B. streamers

C. all of these D. none of these

22. The purpose of examining the scene and attempting to recognize and collect physical evidence
in a case of suspected arson is threefold, except:

A. to determine where the fire started

B. to establish the corpus delicti of the crime of arson

C. to establish whether the fire was intentionally set

D. to connect the arsonist to the crime scene

23. In arson cases, especially arson-for-profit, uncovering this in the burned property can be a
formidable task.

A. uncovering ownership of financial interest

B. connecting the suspect from the fire scene

C. proper collection and preservation of evidence

D. determining those posing as straw owners

24. These are least likely to be of immediate service, but later, in the investigation of fire or arson
they may be invaluable in establishing a motive.

A. reports B. physical evidence

C. crime scene D. records

25. This report in arson investigation contains a word picture of all information developed during
the investigation, and all materials included should be concise, accurate, and complete.

A. spot report B. final reports

C. reports & records D. investigation reports

26. As provided by Art. 326-B of the Revised Penal Code, any of the following circumstances shall
constitute prima facie evidence of arson, EXCEPT:

A. if after the fire, are found materials soaked in accelerant or other inflammables

B. that substantial amount of inflammable substance or materials were stored within the building
or premises

C. that is intentional, neither accidental or attributable to some other causes

D. that the fire started simultaneously in more than one part of the building

27. As provided by Section 4, P.D. No. 1613, as amended the following are the aggravating
circumstances of arson, EXCEPT:

A. if there is conspiracy to commit the crime of arson

B. if committed with intent to gain or benefit of another

C. one of the offender is motivated by spite or hatred

D. if committed by two or more persons or syndicated arson

28. This is the later provision of the existing laws, amending the laws on arson and other forms of
destructions as provided by Article 320 to Article. 326-B, Chapter VIII, RPC.

A. PD No. 7144 B. PD No. 1613

C. P.D. No. 1185 D. R.A. 9514

29. This is otherwise known as the Fire Code of the Philippines.

A. PD No. 1185 B. R.A. No. 9514

C. P.D. 1744 D. P.D. No. 1613

30. As provided by P.D. No. 1744, the penalty of reclusion temporal in its maximum period to death
shall also be imposed upon any person who shall burn:

A. any arsenal, shipyard storehouse or military powder

B. inhabited place, or factory of inflammable materials

C. all of these

D. none of these

31. This is done with the use of water, and the temperature of the substance is lowered below the
burning point.

A. cooling B. quenching

C. all of these D. none of these

32. It is also known colloquially as a “fire plug;” it is a source of water provided in most urban,
suburban and rural areas with water services to enable firefighters to tap into the water supply to assist
in extinguishing fire.

A. fire hydrant B. tanker truck

C. turntable ladder D. quint and quad

33. It is the analysis by the firefighter of the forewarning of a thermal accident—flashover, back
draft, smoke explosion, which is performed during fire suppression maneuvers.

A. watching the fire B. observing the fire

C. none of these D. reading of the fire

34. It is the first step of the operation to search for the origin of fire, especially when there are no
witnesses, and spot the specific risks and the possible casualties.

A. reconnaissance B. surveillance

C. all of these D. casing of fire

35. It is either the venting, or containment—isolation, actions by on-scene firefighters, in an effort

to gain tactical advantage during interior structural firefighting operations.

A. positive ventilation B. isolation of fire

C. tactical ventilation D. pressure ventilation

36. It is the result of an object blocking the heat transfer through radiation and convection or direct
flame contact from its source to the surface of the material on which the pattern is produced.

A. heat tailing B. heat source

C. heat marking D. heat shadowing

37. It refers to the cracking of glass into smaller segments or sub-divisions in an irregular pattern.
The extent of which a glass item, e.g., window pane, will crack in relation to the type of glass involved.

A. crazing B. grazing

C. splitting D. crackling
38. This refers to the changes that occur during a fire in either plaster or gypsum wall surfaces; and
this may include the elimination of water from the gypsum to charring the paper surface off the wall
board.

A. carbonization B. calcination

C. acclimation D. oxigination

39. It is a condition ordinarily associated with masonry and cement-concrete, building materials,
and it may appear as a distinctive discoloration of brick or concrete objects subjected to heat.

A. none of these B. spilling

C. spalling D. sampling

40. It is the basic chemical process of combustion; or of some materials that do not burn can
produce lines of demarcation and fire patterns useful to the fire investigator.

A. oxidation B. pyrolysis

C. oxidative D. oxidize

41. It is the carbonization of a fuel by the action of heat or burning materials, and the term is
generally applied to the combustible residue remaining after the pyrolyis of the wood material.

A. graze B. craze

C. spall D. char

42. It appears between the affected and adjacent unaffected or less affected area of the structure and
its contents, and it is very much dependent on the material, the heat release of fire.

A. line of separation B. area of demarcation

C. delineation D. division

43. It can be seriously impeded by indiscriminate or haphazard handling of the routine fire-fighting
operation known as the overhaul.

A. examination of the fire scene

B. reconstruction of the fire scene

C. all of the above

D. none of the above

44. In the case of s suspicious fire, it should be minimized, and if circumstances permit, the room of
origin should not be subjected to this before an investigator is on the fire scene and can supervise the
operation.

A. controlling process B. overhaul process

C. revising process D. checking process

45. It is a prima facie evidence that the fire was of incendiary origin, since such condition is highly
improbable and virtually impossible under normal conditions.

A. discovery of heat source in the scene

B. discovery of fuel source in the scene

C. discovery of multiple points of origin

D. discovery of physical evidence

46. It is also known as drop down fires, or burning materials falling to the floor, or explosion can
also give the appearance of the multiple points of origin.

A. falling materials B. fall down fires

C. dropping materials D. burning materials

47. This is used when the cause of the fire cannot be proven, whether the fire is still under
investigation or awaiting further information; and this is one of the four (4) categories of fire.

A. undetermined B. natural

C. incendiary D. accidental

48. When it is believed to have been the initiating factor, there is a need to determine if this is of an
adequate temperature to have been ignited the fuel source of the burned motor vehicle.

A. oxygen source B. fuel source

C. all of these D. heat source

49. The presence of either separate and distinct or primary and second burn patterns on the exterior
suggests __________.
A. deliberate damage B. collision damage

C. intentional damage D. accidental damage

50. It may indicate that the fire burned itself out, possibly due to the lack of oxygen, and neither
windows nor doors were open to supply oxygen where fire was started.

A. primary burn patterns C. all of these

B. secondary burn patterns D. none of these

PART III

, Final Assessment – Major Examination.

Final output – Submission of Compliance on given

Tasked/Activities

REFERENCES:

1. PNP Human Resource and Doctrine Development Manual S-2014

2. Revised PNP Operational Manual, S-2013
3. Republic Act No. 11200 entitled, “An Act Providing for the Rank
Classification in the Philippine National Police”
4. Basic Security Guard Handbook by ET ADE,JR Camino & OC Badilla
5. PNP People’s Freedom of Information Manual
6. Military Intelligence Agent Course Manual, Philippine Army Training and
Doctrine Command.
7. Basic Signal Operation Course Manual, Philippine Army Training and
Doctrine Command. S-97
8. Basic Infantry NCO Course Manual, Philippine Army Training and
Doctrine Command. S-97

9. Republic Act No. 9165 June 7, 2002 - The Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act
Of 2002

10. Revised PDEA Manual on Anti-illegal drug operations and investigation, S-2009.

11. Basic and Clinical Pharmacology 11th edition by Masters, Trevor and Katzung
12. BFP Operation Procedures Manual S-2015

13. BFP Fire/Arson Investigation Handbook

14. RPC Book II, Title Ten, Chapter Eight, – Arson and other Crimes Involving
Destruction