Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 2

SB I CLERK PRELI M S M ODEL TEST- 2

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-5): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical

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error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of
that part is the answer. If there is no error the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of
punctuation, if any.)
1. When bacterium become fit in one environment, (A)/ they either lose fitness (B)/
or fail to increase fitness(C)/ in other environments. (D)/ No error (E)

2.
1) A 2) B
ha 3) C 4) D 5) E
The State government undertakings too had (1) / to avail of loans from (2) / the
financial institutions at 10% to 11% interest per annum, and it was (3) / not

2) B

E
difficult to imagine the plight of the private sector (4) / NO ERROR (E).
1) D 3) E 4) C 5) A
d
3. Eight books published to commemorate the occasion,(A)/ including the coffee
table book(B)/ brought out by Sanjay Baru on P.V. Narasimha Rao,(C)/ was also
ee

released at the event.(D)/ No error (E)

1) E 2) C 3) A 4) D 5) B
4. The authorities have (A)/ urged students parents (B)/ to check the official website
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only(C)/ for information.(D)/ No error (E)
1) B 2) A 3) C 4) E 5) B
Sr

5. Businessmen running stationary,(A)/ puja material and essential commodities

(B)/shops faced heavy losses after water(C)/ gushed into their shops.(D)/ No
error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (6-10): In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with
four words in bold. Choose the option which gives the correct sequence of these
C
words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.
6. The court directed (A) the State to consider age relaxation (B) in case of direct
participate(C) for the project so that the petitioners can recruitment (D) in the
process.
1) A-D 2) B-C 3) C-D 4) B-D 5) All Correct
7. The teams had to present (A) their strategies on how to get more increase (B)
and women to invest in mutual funds and millennials (C) MF penetration to six
per cent by 2025 from (D) two per cent now.
1) A-D &C-D 2) B-C 3) C-D&A-B 4) B-D 5) All Correct
8. There could be other parameters (A) that can be defined in lieu of profitability
(B) that provide equal confidence for existing (C) such as the investment
commitment from investors(D) and future investors.
1) A-D 2) B-C 3) C-D 4) B-D 5) All Correct

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 2

9. The virtual platform also audiences (A) opportunities to artistes to perform (B)
and connect with their offered (C), since virtual festivals reached diverse and
global (D) audiences.
1) B-D 2) A-B & C-D 3) A-C 4) C-D 5) All Correct
10. The meeting was convened (A) to discuss evidence-based research (B) and
surveillance (C) strategies with the discovery of brand new species (D) living
underwater.
1) A-D &C-D 2) B-C 3) C-D&A-B 4) B-D 5) All Correct
Directions (11-15): In the given passage there are blanks, each of which has

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been denoted by numbers. Beside each a word, group of words is/are suggested
in bold which are may or may not fit the blank appropriately. If the word or group
of words given in the bold fits that blanks, mark ‘No improvement required’, or
mark that word, which fits the blank appropriately from among the given options
as your answer.
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Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC), a U.S. government agency
created under the Banking Act of 1933 (also known as the Glass-Steagall Act).
The primary role of the FDIC is to (11) and protect bank depositors’ funds against

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loss in the event of a bank failure. The FDIC also plays a critical role in (12)
banking practices. The FDIC became a permanent government agency through
d
the Banking Act of 1935 after many state sponsored deposit insurance plans
proved to be unsuccessful. The FDIC (13) its income from fees charged to insured
banks and savings (14). The FDIC’s bank fees are based on a bank’s deposit
ee

amounts. After deducting funds for losses and corporate expenses, banks are (15)
a credit for two-thirds of their annual payment to the FDIC.
11. 1) lay bare 2) indemnify 3) insure 4) warrant 5) cinch
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12. 1) regulating 2) liberate 3) expressing 4) interrupting 5) represses
13. 1) induces 2) perform 3) terminate 4) generates 5) divide
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14. 1) isolation 2) associations3) separation 4) intimacy 5) combination

15. 1) different 2) accustomed 3) chosen 4) endorsed 5) allowed
Directions (16-20): In the following question, sentences are given with a part in
bold. The given phrase in the bold may or may not contain an error. The options
following can replace the incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to be replaced
will be your answer. If the sentences are correct then select ‘No improvement
C
required’ as your answer.
16. students at rishi public school are encouraged to pursue only those extracurricular
activities from which success stems in college applications.
1) success in college applications stems
2) successful in college application stems
3) stems successful in college applications
4) stems success over college applications 5) No improvement
17. many directors have a suspicion of there being an attempt by mangers to
conceal the extent of losses at the company.
1) have a suspicion of being an attempt by managers to conceal
2) suspect the mangers are trying to conceal
3) have a suspicion on being an attempt by mangers to conceal
4) suspects that the managers are attempting to conceal 5) No improvement

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 2

18. One of the main characteristics of organic agriculture is the use of local resources
including on-form biological processes such as availability of pest predators.
1) much as availability for 2) as such as availability of
3) on such as available of 4) such as available for 5) No improvement
19. For most rural communities, the link between the environment and the life of
the peoples are very strongly, the environment serves a large number of their
needs.
1) life of the people is very strong 2) lives for the people is very stronger
3) lives of the people is very strong

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4) lives of the peoples are very strong 5) No improvement
20. Human Development Index expand the mean of development to include social
indicators of education and health which are very essential for human life.
1) expends the mean by ha 2) expands the meaning of
3) expanded the means for 4) expanding the meaning on 5) No improvement
Directions (21-23): Rearrange the following four parts(P), (Q), (R) and (S) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful sentence.
21.

E
P. Seriously violated relevant agreements, protocols and important consensus
reached
d
Q. Between the two countries, and severely damaged peace and
R. India’s move has grossly violated China’s territorial sovereignty,
ee

S. Tranquillity along the China-India border areas

1) SPQR 2) RPQS 3) QRSP 4) PSRQ 5) QPRS
22. P. New marketing channels (like e-commerce), increasing efficiency to reduce
losses, and improving
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Q. The quality of products available and storage facilities, which are critical to
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R. Flows of healthy foods and income to those who produce them

S. We need to find ways to increase resilience across our food systems by identifying
1) SPQR 2) RPQS 3) QRSP 4) PSRQ 5) QPRS
23. P. Cherished ideals that have been invested with strong emotions
Q. The persistent voice of reality reveals the leader’s vision to be
R. Hollow or his authenticity as fake, the disappointment is likely to be
C
S. Not politics-as-usual but eruption of rage at the betrayal of deeply
1) SPQR 2) RPQS 3) QRSP 4) PSRQ 5) QPRS
Directions (24-30) : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words/phrases have been given in bold to help you locate
them while answering some of the questions.
The melting of Antarctica’s Thwaites Glacier, has long been a cause of
________ because of its high potential of speeding up the global sea level rise
happening due to climate change. Researchers are now saying that fears related
to Thwaites’s melting are worse than previously thought, owing to the supply of
warm water flowing underneath at a rate underestimated in the past. The Glacier
is 120 km wide at its broadest, fast-moving, and melting fast over the years.
Because of its size, it contains enough water to raise the world sea level by more
than half a metre. Studies have found the amount of ice flowing out of it has
nearly doubled over the past 30 years. The glacier is melting already contributes

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 2

4% to global sea level rise each year. It is estimated that it would collapse into
the sea in 200-900 years. Thwaites is important for Antarctica as it slows the ice
behind it from freely flowing into the ocean. Because of the risk it faces and
poses, it is often called the Doomsday Glacier.
Researchers from New York University detected warm water at a vital point
below the glacier. They reported water at just two degrees above freezing point at
Thwaites’s grounding line.
The grounding line is the place below a glacier at which the ice transitions
between resting fully on bedrock and floating on the ocean as an ice shelf. The

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location of the line is a pointer to the rate of retreat of a glacier.
When glaciers melt and lose weight, they float off the land where they used
to be situated. When this happens, the grounding line retreats. That exposes
more of a glacier’s underside to seawater, increasing the likelihood it will melt
faster. This results in the glacier speeding up, stretching out, and thinning,
ha
causing the grounding line to retreat ever further. In the study, scientists dug a
600mdeep and 35cmwide access hole, and deployed an ocean-sensing device
called Ice fin to measure the waters moving below the glacier’s surface.
The study shows that warm water is approaching the pinning points of the

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glacier from all sides, impacting these locations where the ice is connected to
d
the seabed and where the ice sheet finds stability. This has the potential to make
things worse for the glacier, whose ice shelf is already retreating.
24. Fill the blank ‘______’ given in the passage to make the sentence grammatically
ee

and meaningfully complete.

1) involvement 2) disruption 3) burden 4) conform 5) concern
25. Which of the following is the SAME in meaning as the word ‘vital’ as used in the
C
passage?
1) trivial 2) docile 3) integral 4) evitable 5) enigma
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26. What does the author want to convey through the line “Researchers are now
saying that fears related to Thwaites’s melting are worse than previously thought
“?
1) The Thwaite’s is one of the fastest melting Glacier in the world posing threat to
mankind at an alarming level.
2) Researchers have identified that there is another major threat of supply of
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warm water circulating beneath the Glacier.
3) Researchers have identified that the melting of Glacier portrays why the Thwaites
Glacier is often called the Doomsday Glacier.
4) Both 2&3 5) None of these
27. Which of the following is/are the effect(s) of “The study shows that warm water is
approaching the pinning points of the glacier from all sides” as mentioned in the
passage?
1) The approach of warm water will melt the ice sheet and it will destabilize the
Glacier.
2) Once the ice sheet of the Glacier melts, it breaks down into chunks of ice and
they float off the land they used to be situated.
3)Thwaites is important for Antarctica as it slows the ice behind it from freely
flowing into the ocean.
4) Both (A) and (B) 5) only (A) and (C)

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 2

28. Which of the following is the theme touched on in the passage?

1) Scientists have dug a deep hole to identify the cause of melting.
2) The Thwaites Glacier is often regarded as the Doomsday Glacier.
3) Beneath the Glacier there is a flow of warm water which has the potential to
destabilize it.
4)The Thwaites Glacier would eventually melt away in a few hundreds of years.
5) Scientists have observed the grounding line of the Thwaites Glacier in Antarctica.
29. Which of the following is suitable title for the passage?

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1) The adverse effects of climate change.
2) The Grounding line of Antarctica’s Glacier.
3) The probable effects of melting of a Glacier.
4) The situation of Doomsday. 5) Antarctica’s largest Glacier.
30. Which of the following is the ANTONYM of the word ‘retreat’ as used in the
passage?
ha
1) evacuation 2) retirement 3) advance 4) alienation 5) resignation
QUANTITTIVE APTITUDE

E
Direction (31-33): Refer to the data and answer the following question.
d
48 people who like different music Jazz, Sufi and Both. Persons who like jazz is 12
less than that of Sufi. Persons who like both and persons who like only Sufi are in
the ratio of 1:2.
ee

31. Find the number of Students who like both Sufi and Jazz?
1) 12 2) 24 3) 36 4) 48 5) 30
32. If 25% of total students are increased, then the students who are newly joined
C
are in Jazz then find the number of students in Jazz?
Sr

1) 30 2)24 3) 48 4) 36 5) 12
33. Find the difference between the number of students who like both to the difference
between only jazz and only Sufi?
1) 8 2) 10 3) 24 4) 12 5)0
Direction (34-38): In each of these questions a number series is given. In each
series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong number.
34. 121,122,130,210,1235
C
1)121 2)122 3)130 4)210 5)1235
35. 8,20,44,80,130,188,260
1) 20 2) 44 3) 260 4) 80 5)130
36. 8,10.5,13.5,19.5,31.5,55.5
1)8 2)10.5 3)19.5 4)31.5 5)55.5
37. 7,8,18,57,232,1165,6695
1) 232 2)6695 3) 1165 4) 57 5) 18
38. 1,2,5,16,65,326,1956
1) 16 2) 1 3) 1956 4) 326 5) 65
39. Speed of a boat in still water is six times that of speed of current and a boat can
row 140 km downstream distance in 10 hours. Find the time taken by boat to
cover 132 km distance upstream?
1) 13.2 2) 12.5 3) 13 4) 14.2 5) 15.6

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 2

40. Pipe K can fill the tank in 20hrs and pipe R can fill it in 40 hrs. If both pipes are
opened simultaneously and Pipe R is closed after 8 hours. Find the time taken by
pipe K alone to fill the remaining tank?
1) 16 2) 8 3) 24 4) 10 5) 9
41. The Investment ratio of H and L in a business is 7:4. H left after X months and
profit share of H is 31.25% more than that of L at the end of 2 years. Find the
value of X?
1) 12 2) 22 3) 18 4) 20 5) 16
42. 150L of mixture of milk & water are in the ratio of 5 : 1. 42 liters of mixture is

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taken out and 9 liters milk & 3 liters water added to the mixture. Find final the
ratio of milk & water?
1) 4:3 2) 12:7 3) 32:7 4) 33:7 5) 35:6
43. An item is markup by 20% and 8% discount is given on that, if the profit on that
ha
item is Rs.20.8 then find the cost price of an item?
1) 100 2) 250 3) 130 4) 150 5) 200
Direction (44-49): Read the following information carefully and answer the given
below question

E
d
Telugu Hindi Maths Science Social
Names
(100) (100) (100) (100) (100)
ee

Sathvik 92 85 96 54 65
Sarayu 85 78 65 91 82
C
Sarah 73 69 99 84 79
Sr

saran 78 87 84 69 35
Swapna 60 55 100 57 64

44. Find the sum of marks of Sathvik in Telugu, Sarah in Hindi and Swapna in
Science?
1) 218 2) 232 3) 225 4) 248 5) 264
C
45. Total marks scored in Hindi by all the persons are what percent less than the
total marks scored by Sarah in all subjects together? (Approx)
1) 8.54 2) 7.42 3) 6.15 4) 9.25 5) 6.45
46. Find the difference between total marks scored by Sarayu and total marks scored
by Swapna and saran together?
1) 128 2) 279 3) 288 4) 388 5) 498
47. If Swapna got 90 marks in English then find the average marks got by Swapna in
an examination, If all subjects having same maximum marks of 100?
1) 66 2) 76 3) 75 4) 71 5) 80
48. If the average marks scored by Sarah in Maths ,Hindi and Geography is 80 then
find the number of marks scored by Sarah in Geography?
1) 85 2) 80 3) 82 4) 74 5) 72

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 2

49. Find the sum of average marks of both Sarayu and Saran in all subjects together?
1) 150.8 2) 151.3 3) 162.8 4) 124.6 5) 148.5
50. 4 years ago the age of A was 1.5 times of B. 4 years hence the difference between
the age of A and B will be 20 years. Find the sum of present ages of A and B?
1) 118 2) 108 3) 120 4) 98 5) 120
2
51. If the area of rectangle is 120m , the ratio of length and breadth is 6:5 then find
the perimeter of circle, radius of circle is 5m less than the length of a rectangle?
1) 66 2) 56 3) 44 4) 121 5) 60

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52. A School contains 4500 students. Out of all students 47% went to science exhibition
remaining went to industrial tour. Find the number of students who went to
industrial tour?
1) 1296 2) 2781 3) 2500 4) 2385 5) 2485
53. If A:B= 3:7,B:C= 7:9 and the difference between A and C is 18 then find the value
ha
of D, if D is 3 less than B?
1) 17 2) 15 3) 22 4) 21 5)18
Direction (54-65): What will come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following

54.
question.
3219+6542 -5412=?

E
d
1) 4349 2) 3561 3) 4620 4) 2329 5) 3569
55. (5.6×4.9÷0.7)+12= ?
ee

1) 21.4 2) 51.2 3) 41.2 4) 36.9 5) 23.9

2 9
56. 15 +17 =?
3 7
C
2 1 20 20 1
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1) 23 2) 43 3) 33 4) 43 5) 21
3 3 21 21 3
1 2
57. 33 +66 +25=5×?
3 3
1) 20 2) 75 3) 30 4) 25 5) 50
58. 441 + 6084 – 3136 =?
C
1) 29 2) 50 3) 63 4) 33 5) 43
59. 9.6 + 196 – 5.2 + 225 =?
1) 33.4 2) 32.6 3) 28.9 4) 30.6 5) 23.4
1 1 1
60. 2 ×3 – 1 =?
2 5 2
1) 5.5 2) 6.5 3) 4.5 4) 3 5) 6
61. 1205+6541-? =3412
1) 3956 2) 2589 3) 4334 4) 3434 5) 1256
4
62. 3×12×11× =? – 66
3
1) 542 2) 651 3) 549 4) 594 5) 624

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 2

63. 4.7×1.3+2.6×1.4=?
1) 7.25 2) 9.25 3) 8.75 4) 8.25 5) 9.75
64. 3
216 + 4 16 + ? = 14
1) 6 2) 8 3) 4 4) 12 5) 10
65. 3
125 + 3
729 =?
1) 25 2) 14 3) 16 4) 18 5) 20
REASONING

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Direction (66-69): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living in a building that contains
eight floors. Ground floor is numbered as one and immediately above floor is
numbered as two and so on top most floor is numbered as eight, one person is
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living in each floor, but not necessarily in the same order.
D is living in an odd numbered floor but above the fourth floor. Two persons are
living between E and D. The number of persons live between E and G is same as
between H and B. G is living above H. F lives below A. No one lives between E and

E
F. B lives in sixth floor. E lives above C.
d
66. Which of the following person is living on 5th Floor?
1) E 2) H 3) B 4) A 5) G
67. The number of persons live between B and F is same as the number of persons
ee

lives between____ and ____?

1) D, C 2) A, D 3) G, A 4) H, E 5) G, H
68. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, then
C
which one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) B 2) F 3) H 4) G 5) E
Sr

69. Which of the following person lives on 4th Floor?

1) A 2) F 3) D 4) C 5) E
Direction (70-72): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below. In each of the questions below are given four statements
followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions
C
logically follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer____.
70. Statements: Some Books are Pens All Pens are Inks
Only a few Inks are Papers All Papers are Tables
Conclusions: I. Some Tables are Inks II. All Tables can be Pens
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows
4) Neither conclusions I nor II follows 5) Both conclusions I and II follow
71. Statements: Some SO3’s are CO2 Only a few CO2’s are H2O
No H2O is O2 All O2’s are PO4
Conclusions: I. Some PO4‘s are not CO2 II. Some CO2‘s are not O2
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows
4) Neither conclusions I nor II follows 5) Both conclusions I and II follow

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 2

72. Statements: Only a few Oxides are Chlorides

No Chloride is Carbon Some Carbons are Coppers
All Coppers are Mercury
Conclusions: I. Some Oxides are Mercury’s
II. Some Oxides are not Mercury’s
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows
4) Neither conclusions I nor II follows 5) Both conclusions I and II follow
73. If all the letters of the word ‘ABSORBABILITY’ are arranged in a way that all the

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vowels are arranged in the beginning in alphabetical order and then all the
consonants are arranged in the alphabetical order then position of how many
letters remains unchanged?
1) One 2) Two
ha 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four
Direction (74-77): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
E, F, G, H, K, L, M and N are sitting around a circular table some of them are
facing the center while some are facing away from the center but not necessarily

E
in the same order. Not more than two persons are facing the same direction sits
together.
d
M sits third to the left of H. Two persons are sitting between M and E. G sits
second to the left of K but neither immediate to H nor L. L sits second to the right
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of N. Immediate neighbours of F are facing opposite directions (e.g. If A’s immediate

neighbours facing opposite direction means, one neighbour facing South then
another neighbour facing North). F sits second to the left of M and facing to L. N is
facing the center. E is second from G and facing opposite direction to L.
C
74. _____ is third to the left of K?
Sr

1) M 2) F 3) H 4) G 5) K
75. How many persons are sitting between K and N when counted right side of N?
1) None 2) Three 3) One 4) Two 5) More than three
76. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, then
which one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) M 2) H 3) L 4) K 5) E
C
77. Which of the following statements was ‘TRUE’?
I. M and L are facing same direction. II. G sits second to the left of L.
III. K sits third to the right of N.
1) Only I 2) Only I and II 3) Only II and III 4) Only III 5) All I II and III
Direction: (78-80) Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
O @ K 9 M $ U 6 H B ^ G 3 & H B V # 5 S X C € V 1 E R © G 8
X C % G H 7  ¥ B
78. Which of the following element is sixth to the left of fifteenth from the right end?
1) # 2) X 3) V 4) 5 5) S
79. How many letters are there in the above arrangement which is immediately
preceded by a symbol and immediately followed by a number?
1) Two 2) One 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four

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Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 2

80. How many elements are their which is immediately preceded by a number and
immediately followed by a symbol in the given series?
1) Two 2) One 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four
Direction: (81-84) Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
A Certain number of persons are sitting in a linear row with an equal distance
between them and all of them are facing the north direction. Five persons are
sitting between R and S. T sits third to the left of R. Number of persons are sitting
to the right of S is one less than number of persons are sitting to the left of M. V
is sitting second from the right end. N sits exactly between R and S. The number

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of persons are sitting between T and N is same as the number of persons are
sitting between T and Q. W sits left of Q but doesn’t sit at any end. The number of
persons are sitting between N and S is same as the number of persons are sitting
between S and V. M sits exactly between Q and T.
81. How many persons are sitting in a row?
ha
1) 20 2) 21 3) 22 4) 23 5) 24
82. How many persons are sitting between T and N?
1) Four 2) Six 3) Three 4) Five 5) Seven
83.

E
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, then
which one doesn’t belong to that group?
d
1) R-N 2) S-V 3) N-S 4) T-M 5) Q-W
84. How many persons are sitting to the right of the one who sits third to the right of
R?
ee

1) Six 2) Seven 3) Five 4) Eight 5) Two

Direction: (85-87) Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
C
Seven students K, L, M, N, O, P and Q scored different marks in History
subject. M scored more marks than N and P but not the highest. Only three
Sr

persons are scored fewer marks than P. Q scored more marks than L but fewer
marks than N. K scored fewer marks than Q but not least marks. P scored 83
marks.
85. How many persons are scored more marks than Q?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Five 4) One 5) Four
86. If M scored 86 marks, then sum of marks scored by N and P is?
1) 167 2) 166 3) 168 4) Either 1 or 3
C
5)Can’t be determined
87. Which one scored least marks?
1) K 2) L 3) Q 4) O 5) M
Direction: (88-91) Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions.
Seven persons E, F, G, H, K, L and M are visiting the golden temple one after
another in a week starts from Monday to Sunday. One person is visiting on each
day but not necessarily in the same order.
L is visiting golden temple on Thursday. Two persons are visiting between L
and M. E is visiting after G. Three persons are visiting between H and F who is
visiting neither Tuesday nor Saturday. K is visiting after F. At least two persons
are visiting between K and G. E is visiting either Tuesday or Saturday.
88. Which person is visiting on Tuesday?
1) K 2) E 3) F 4) G 5) H

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89. How many persons are there between F and one who visiting on Saturday?
1) One 2) Three 3) Two 4) None 5) More than three
90. The number of persons visiting between G and L is same as the number of persons
visiting between____ and ____?
1) E, F 2) H, K 3) M, E 4) F, L 5) K, M
91. Which of the following pair will second person is visiting before the first person?
1) G-E 2) L-H 3) F-M 4) K-H 5) M-E
Direction: (92-94) Study the following information carefully and answer the given

r’s
questions
In a certain Code language,
“Visit That Before Four” is coded as “er mr zr cr”
“Are Good Visit Before” is coded as “mr tr ur cr”
“Last Visit Was Four” is coded as “fr mr er lr”

92.
ha
(All the codes are two letter codes only)
What is the code for “Visit”?
1) er 2) mr 3) fr 4) cr 5) zr
93.

E
What is the code for “Was”?
d
1) lr 2) er 3) fr 4) Either 1 or 2
5) Either 1 or 3
94. What is the code for “That”?
ee

1) zr 2) lr 3) ur 4) cr 5) er
95. In a row of students U is 14th from the right end W is 12th from the left end. If 20
students are there between U and W, then how many students are there in a
C
row?
Sr

1) 45 2) 47 3) 46 4) 44 5) 48
Direction: (96-98) In the question, relationship between some elements is shown
in the statement(s). These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read the
statements and given answer.
96. Statements: A < S  E = R > T  D = F < G; H < W  R= N < X  M = K  C
Conclusions: I. F < C II. A < H
C
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusions I or II follows 4) Neither conclusions I nor II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
97. Statements: M > V = B  D = G  H  T = R ;P<K  H=Q  S=N  U  W
Conclusions: I. G = W II. G < W
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusions I or II follows 4) Neither conclusions I nor II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
98. Statements: Q > O = U  T= Y  B = F > G ; S>D=H  T  K=C<V=E
Conclusions: I. F < E II. S > O
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusions I or II follows 4) Neither conclusions I nor II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow

11
Sreedhar’s CCE SB I CLERK PRELI M S M T- 2

99. Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting in row and all of them facing the
North direction, how many persons sit to the left of T?
I. R sits second to the left of S who is third to the right of U. V sits second from
the left end. T sits immediate to R.
II. P sits second to the right of Q. Only two persons are sitting between T and P
and both don’t sit at any end.
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in the statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

r’s
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
4) The data even in both statement I and statement II together are not sufficient
to answer the question.
ha
5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

E
100. In a class contains six students A, B, C, K, L and M secured marks in English
subject. No two students score the same marks. Then which of the following
d
student secure the second highest marks?
I. M scored more marks than L who scored 72 marks. K scored more marks than
ee

B but less marks than A.

II. C scored more marks than L but less marks than A. Only two persons are
scored more marks than L.
C
1) The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Sr

2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) The data either in statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
4) The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer
the question.
C
5) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
question.

KEY
1.1 2.2 3.4 4.3 5.1 6.3 7.2 8.3 9.3 10.5 11.3 12.1 13.4
14.2 15.5 16.1 17.2 18.5 19.3 20.2 21.2 22.1 23.3 24.5 25.3 26.2
27.4 28.3 29.1 30.3 31.1 32.4 33.5 34.4 35.5 36.1 37.2 38.3 39.1
40.2 41.3 42.4 43.5 44.1 45.2 46.3 47.4 48.5 49.1 50.2 51.3 52.4
53.5 54.1 55.2 56.3 57.4 58.5 59.1 60.2 61.3 62.4 63.5 64.1 65.2
66.4 67.3 68.2 69.5 70.5 71.2 72.3 73.5 74.2 75.4 76.3 77.4 78.4
79.5 80.1 81.3 82.4 83.5 84.2 85.5 86.4 87.2 88.4 89.3 90.2 91.3
92.2 93.5 94.1 95.3 96.1 97.3 98.5 99.5 100.2

12