Financial Attest Audit

Financial Attest Audit
1. Who is the statutory auditor with respect to accounts of the Government Companies?
a. CAG b. Board of Management
c. Chartered Accountant appointed by the CAG
d. Chartered Accountant appointed by the Board of Management
2. Financial Statement of an autonomous body includes
i. Trial Balance ii. Trading and Profit Account
iii. Income and Expenditure Account iv. Balance Sheet
a. iii and iv b. ii, iii and iv
c. i, iii and iv d. All of the above
3. Financial statements include Appropriation and Finance Accounts pertaining to
i. Central Government ii. State Government
iii. Union Territories iv. Externally Aided Project
a. All of the above b. ii, iii and iv
c. i, ii and iv d. i, ii and iii
4. Audit of all the expenditure from Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund and Public Accounts is
governed by which Section of the DPC Act, 1971?
a. Section 11 b. Section 13
c. Section 15 d. Section 16
5. The audit of the accounts of authorities and bodies receiving financial assistance in the form of
Grant-in-aid/loans from Government is carried out in accordance with the provision of
a. Section 13 and 16 of DPC Act b. Section 14 and 15 of DPC Act
c. Section 17 and 18 of DPC Act d. Section 19 and 20 of DPC Act
6. Which section of the DPC Act deals with the audit of receipt of the Government?
7. Pick the correct one
i. Financial Attest Audit is primarily concerned with expression of audit opinion on a set of
financial statement
ii. FAA includes Examination and evaluation of financial records and expression of opinion on
Financial Statements
iii. FAA includes audit of financial system and transactions including evaluation of compliance
with applicable statutes and regulations which affect the accuracy and completeness of
accounting records.
iv. FAA includes audit of internal control and internal audit functions that assist in safeguarding
assets and resources and assures the accuracy and completeness of accounting records.
a. i, ii and iii b. i, iii and iv
c. i, ii and iv d. All of the above.
8. Which type of audit seeks to address the issues of risks to regularity, propriety and financial
conrol?
a. Transaction Audit b. Financial Audit
c. Performance Audit d. All of the above.
9. i. The opinion on financial statements provides a positive annual assurance on the financial
statements to the Parliament or Legislature.
ii. Transaction Audit conducted by the IA&AD is not linked to a specific assurance on an
individual set of financial statements in a particular year.
iii. Transaction Audit does not result in a formal audit opinion on financial statements but rather in
reports either to management or Parliament or Legislature
iv. Transaction Audit focuses on the Government Department or its units rather than on the
financial statements
v. Financial Attest Audit does not cover all the units of Government Departments every year, but
seeks to cover them over a period of time
a. ii, iii, iv and v b. i, iii, iv and v
c. i, ii, iii and iv d. All of the above.
10. State whether true or false
Transaction Audit seeks to cover risks of significant irregularity, which may not be material for the
purpose of qualifying audit opinion on the financial statements
a. True b. False
11. The audit of the accounts of authorities and bodies receiving financial assistance in the form of
grants and /or loans from the Government of India or a State or Union Territory has been provisioned in
a. Section 17 & 18 of the DPC Act b. Section 14 & 15 of the DPC Act
c. Section 13 & 16 of the DPC Act d. Section 19 & 20 of the DPC Act
12. Section 16 of the DPC Act, 971 requires the CAG to be satisfied that the rules and procedures in
that behalf are designed to secure an effective check on the
a. Assessment of revenue b. Assessment & collection of revenue
c. Collection and proper allocation of revenue
d. Assessment, Collection and proper allocation of revenue
13. Match the following
Sl Section Sl No. Provision of the Section
No. of the
DPC Act
A 17 I To inspect any office of accounts under the control of the Union or of
a State, including treasuries and such offices responsible for the
keeping of initial and subsidiary accounts, as submit accounts to the
CAG
B 18 II Audit of the accounts of certain bodies or authorities, not covered by
Section 19 or whose audit has not been entrusted by or under any
law made by Parliament to the CAG can be entrusted to the CAG
C 19 III Audit and report on the accounts of the stores and stock kept in any
office or department of the Union or a State or a Union Territory.
D 20 IV Duties and powers of the CAG in relation to the audit of the accounts
of Government Companies and Corporations
a. A-III, B-II, C-IV and D-I b. A-I, B-III, C-IV and D-II
c. A-III, B-I, C-IV and D-II d. A-I, B-II, C-III and D-IV
i. Section 20 (1) deals with audit the accounts of such authority or body if the CAG is requested in
this behalf, after prior consultation, by the President or the Governor of State/Administrator of a
Union Territory having a Legislative Assembly, on such terms and conditions as may be agreed
upon between the CAG and the Government concerned
ii. Section 20 (2) empowers the President or the Governor of a State or the Administrator of a
Union Territory having a Legislative Assembly to entrust the CAG to undertake the audit of the
accounts of anybody or authority, not entrusted to the CAG for audit, with the prior approval of
the CAG, if the President or the Governor of a State or the Administrator of a Union Territory is of
the opinion that such audit is necessary
iii. Audit under Sub-sections (1) and (2) of Section 20 of the Act can be entrusted to the CAG only
in public interest and only after giving a reasonable opportunity to the concerned authority or
body to represent in respect of the proposal for such audit
iv. Audit of Government Companies is conducted in accordance with the provisions of the
Companies Act, 1956 contained in Sections 617 and 619 and of Corporations set up by or under
law made by the Parliament, in accordance with provisions of the respective Legislations
c. ii, iii and iv d. All of the above
i. Section 19 (1)- Audit of Government Companies is conducted in accordance with the provisions
of the Companies Act, 1956 contained in Sections 617 and 619
ii. Section 19(2)- Audit of Corporations set up by or under law made by the Parliament, in
accordance with provisions of the respective Legislations
iii. Section 19 (3)- Audit of a Corporation established by law by the Legislature of a State or Union
Territory can be entrusted to the CAG in the public interest by the Governor of the State or the
Administrator of the Union Territory concerned after consultation with the CAG
iv. Section 19A- The reports of the CAG in relation to the accounts of a Government Company or
a Corporation audited under Section 19 are to be submitted to the Government or Governments
concerned for being laid before the Parliament/legislature
a. i, ii and iii b. ii, iii and iv
c. i, ii and iv d. All of the above
a. Section 18 (1) of the DPC Act requires the person in charge of the office or department, the
accounts of which are to be inspected and audited by the CAG, to afford all facilities for such
inspection and to comply with requests for information in as complete a form as possible and with
all reasonable expedition
b. Section 18 (2) of the DPC Act empowers the CAG to Inspect any office of accounts under the
control of the Union or of a State, to require that any accounts, books, paper and other
documents which deal with or form the basis of or are otherwise relevant to the transactions to
which his duties in respect of audit extend and to pose such questions or make such
observations as the CAG may consider necessary to the person in charge of the office and to call
for such information as the CAG may require for the preparation of any account or report which it
is his duty to prepare.
c. None of the above
d. Both of the above
17. Pick the incorrect one
a. Section 22- The Indian Audit and Accounts Department, functioning under the CAG, derives its
authority and the powers for performance of its duties on his behalf
b. Section 23- The CAG is authorised to make regulations for carrying into effect the provisions of
the DPC Act.
c. Section 24- The CAG is authorised to dispense with, when circumstances so warrant, any part
of detailed audit of any account or class of transactions and to apply such limited checks in
relation to such accounts or transactions as the CAG may determine under Section
d. None of the above.
a. IFAC- International Federation of Auditors
b. IAPC- International Auditing Practices Committee
c. INTOSAI-International Organisation of Supreme Audit Institutions
d. ISA- International Standards on Auditing
i. The Auditing Standards Committee of the International Organisation of Supreme Audit
Institutions (INTOSAI) issued the Auditing Standards at the XIVth Congress of INTOSAI in 1992
in New Delhi as amended by the XVth Congress of INTOSAI in 1995 in Cairo, Egypt.
ii. The Auditing Standards Committee of the International Organisation of Supreme Audit
Institutions (INTOSAI) issued Code of Ethics for auditors in the public sector in 1998.
iii. While they do not have mandatory application, they reflect a “best practices” consensus
among the Supreme Audit Institutions (SAIs) and each SAI is required to judge the extent to
which the Standards are compatible with the achievement of its mandate.
iv. INTOSAI Standards will continue to provide the necessary framework and overriding principles
for financial audit by SAIs
In SAI, India, Auditing Standards of the CAG of India were first issued in 1994. The Standards
were comprehensively restructured and updated in a second edition of the Auditing Standards
issued in 2002. These Standards are in harmony with the International Standards on Auditing
(ISAs) issued by IFAC.
a. True b. False
21. i. The Auditing Standards of the CAG of India comprise of General Standards, Field Standards,
Reporting Standards and Follow-up reporting.
ii. The General Standards are concerned with the relationship of the auditor to the audited
organisation and with the personal conduct of the auditor in carrying out the audit
iii. The Field Standards regulate the audit activity.
iv. The Reporting Standards regulate what the auditor has to say after completing the audit.
v. The Follow-up Standards regulate the department activity in pursuing reply to inspection
report.
a. i, ii, iii and iv b. ii, iii and iv
c. i, ii, iii and v d. All of the above.
22. The objective of Financial Audit has been categorised into
a. The primary objective of financial audit
b. The primary objectives of financial audit and objectives which might be set by the CAG or
Statute
c. The primary objective of financial audit and the general audit objective of any financial audit.
d. . The primary objectives of financial audit, objectives which might be set by the CAG or Statute
and the general audit objective of any financial audit
i. The Primary objective of financial audit is the "expression of an opinion" on the financial
statements.
ii. The CAG’s objectives may determine the way the financial audit is carried out reflecting his
audit mandate and policy.
iii. The CAG of India may set his audit objectives taking into account the provisions of the
Constitution of India, the CAG’s DPC Act, 1971 and any governing legislation.
iv. The general audit objectives determine the responsibility of an auditor, before certifying an
account, to make sure that competent, relevant and reasonable evidence was obtained to
support the auditor’s judgement and conclusions.
24. Assertions in Financial Statements means
a. Primary audit objective b. CAG’s audit objective
c. General audit objective d. All of the above
25. Assertions are
a. positive statements about the state of being
b. negative statements about the state of being
c. positive statements about the state of not being
d. negative statements about the state of not being
26. There are five general audit objectives for receipts and payments or income and expenditure
account items. Pick the correct one
i. Relevant ii. Completeness
iii. Occurrence iv. Measurement
v. Disclosure v. Regularity
vii. Availability
a. i, ii, iii, iv and v b. ii, iii, iv, v and vi
c. i, ii, iv, v and vi d. i, ii, v, vi and vii
a. Completeness: all transactions relevant to the year of account have been recorded.
b. Occurrence: all recorded transactions occurred and were relevant to the year of account.
c. Measurement: the recorded transactions have been correctly valued, properly calculated, or
measured in accordance with established accounting policies, on an acceptable and consistent
basis.
d. Disclosure: the recorded transactions have been properly classified and disclosed where
appropriate
e. Regularity: the recorded transactions are in chronological and on regular basis of their
occurrence.
28. The assertion that directly tests for potential overstatement of figures in the accounts is
a. Occurrence/Existence b. Measurement/Valuation
c. Completeness/Ownership d. Disclosure/Regularity
29. The general audit objectives in respect of balance sheet or items of assets and liabilities are
a. Three b. Four
c. Five d. Seven
30. Pick the correct general audit objectives in respect of balance sheet or items of assets and
liabilities
i. Completeness ii. Relevant
iii. Existence iv. Valuation
v. Disclosure v. Regularity
vii. Ownership
. i, ii, iii, iv and v b. ii, iii, iv, v and vi
c. i, ii, iv, v and vi d. i, iii, iv, v and vii
31. Misclassification of revenue expenditure as capital expenditure is an example of
a. Completeness objective b. Measurement Objective
c. Disclosure Objective d. Regularity objective
32. The audit opinion provides
i. reasonable assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement and
irregularity
ii. absolute assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement and
irregularity
iii. reasonable and absolute assurance that the financial statements are free from material
misstatement and irregularity
iv. reasonable, reliable and absolute assurance that the financial statements are free from
material misstatement and irregularity
a. A matter is, therefore, considered material if its omission or misstatement would reasonably
influence the decision of an intended user of the audit report.
b. Materiality should be considered by Audit when determining the nature, timing and extent of
audit procedures and evaluating the effect of misstatements.
c. These are sometimes known as "planning materiality", “Field Materiality” and "reporting
materiality"
d. None of the given.
34. Thus, materiality is of
a. two kinds-Materiality by Value and Materiality by Nature
b. three kinds-Materiality by Value, Materiality by Nature and Materiality by Context
c. four kinds- Materiality by Value, Materiality by Nature, Materiality by period and Materiality by
Context
d. five kinds- Materiality by Value, Materiality by Nature, Materiality by period, Materiality by
population and Materiality by Context
35. i. The materiality thresholds depend on the basis of accounts and their sensitivity.
ii. Materiality is a relative term and requires the exercise of professional judgment.
iii. Materiality should be chosen to reflect the drivers behind the account, and could be
expenditure, income, average surplus or asset values.
iv. The level of materiality by value is set at the outset of the audit, but should only be considered
as a guide. It should not be considered a hard and fast figure. A range of values can be
considered for materiality
a. When deciding on a figure to use as materiality the auditor should be guided by two questions
firstly how great is Parliament’s / Legislature’s and other users’ interest likely to be and secondly
what are they most likely to be concerned about?
b. The level of interest in the account dictates the sensitivity of the account, more interest in the
account results in less error being tolerated
c. Both a & b
37. Materiality base for the determining materiality percentage for Accounts prepared on Cash Basis
i.e. Finance and Appropriation Accounts is
a. Gross Receipts/ Expenditure b. Net Receipt/Expenditure
c. Both a & b d. None of the given.
38. Pick the correct one regarding materiality percentage for Accounts prepared on Cash Basis i.e.
Finance and Appropriation Accounts
i. Very Sensitive- ½ % ii. Sensitive- ½ % to 2%
iii. Not sensitive-2% iv. Less sensitive-2%
a. i, ii and iv b. i, ii and iii
c. i and ii d. All of the above
39. For Accounts prepared on Accruals basis the materiality bases are
i. Normal net surplus ii. Gross income / expenditure
iii. Turnover (Sales) iv. Total assets
v. Net assets
a. i, ii, iii and iv b. ii, iii, iv and v
c. i, iii, iv and v d. All of the above
40. For Accounts prepared on Accruals basis, taking into various materiality base the range of
percentage of materiality from very sensitive to not sensitive is
a. ½ % to 5% b. ½ % to 7 ½ %
c. ½ % to 10% d. ½ to 15%
It is necessary to set separate materiality levels for different financial statements like the Balance
Sheet and Income and Expenditure Account
a. True b. False
42. The budgetary excesses, misclassification between voted and charged expenditure, chief
executive’s salary, the cash balance, Auditor's remuneration and details of special payments, write-offs
and losses are the examples of
a. materiality by value b. materiality by context
c. materiality by nature d. All of the above.
43. Due to a misstatement, the financial statements indicate that a department has savings when it
has, in fact, exceeded its budget, it will become material
a. by context b. by nature
c. by value d. by exception
i. Planning materiality is primarily concerned with materiality by value. At this stage highest
amount which would not distort the overall view of the accounts given to the addressee of the
audit report.
ii. The materiality of errors by nature and by context is a matter to be considered specifically at
the end of the audit. At the planning stage, the possibility of such errors occurring should be
recognised by ensuring that audit programmes include year-end procedures to detect them.
iii. Reporting materiality applies at the end of the audit when all errors are evaluated and viewed
in relation to their known effects on the financial statements. At this stage, the Auditor has to
consider the audit findings by value, by nature and by context, and errors or omissions may be
considered material which otherwise by value would not.
iv. As a matter of abundant caution, planning materiality may be taken at a higher figure than
reporting materiality.

45. i. Most likely error is a term used in planning and evaluating the results of audit.
ii. In planning it is more properly known as advanced most likely error (AMLE) and is the error the
auditors predict they will find as a result of audit testing based on the errors found in the previous
year’s audit.
iii. Precision represents the degree of uncertainty in the auditor’s estimate of error (the MLE).
iv. It is a range of error that auditors could accept in the account between MLE and materiality

As auditors cannot be sure that the errors predicted and found in testing are the only errors in the
account, the sample chosen should ensure that the auditors can be 95% sure that they have found any
error.
a. True b. False
47. i. Precision forms the basis of the calculation used to determine the sample size which should be
tested by auditors to gain audit assurance.
ii. If auditors base their sample sizes on materiality and AMLE alone, this would allow no room for
the unexpected errors the auditors could find. Auditors, therefore, set a level for precision
between 80% and 90% of the possible range between AMLE and materiality.
iii. The auditors should ensure that the level of error predicted in the account is a genuine
estimate. If there is an over-estimation of the level of error anticipated in the account, a smaller
precision increases sample sizes and this usually leads to too much work being done.
iv. If the auditors anticipate very low levels of error and find more errors than planned for, this
may cause problems in extrapolation.
48. Precision is calculated as
a. (Materiality + Anticipated Most Likely Error) x Range of error possible but with no room for
unexpected error
b. (Materiality + Anticipated Most Likely Error) x Range of error possible but with room for
unexpected error
c. (Materiality – Anticipated Most Likely Error) x Range of error possible but with no room for
unexpected error
d. (Materiality – Anticipated Most Likely Error) x Range of error possible but with room for
unexpected error
49. Precision is used in
a. the calculation of the size of non-statistical sample drawn and the evaluation of the results of
testing the sample.
b. the calculation of the size of statistical sample drawn and the evaluation of the results of
testing the sample.
c. the calculation of population, materiality and the size of statistical sample drawn and the
evaluation of the results of testing the sample.
d. . the calculation of population, materiality and the size of non-statistical sample drawn and the
evaluation of the results of testing the sample.
50. The normal level or percentage of assurance (confidence) and risk in auditing is
a. Assurance 80% Risk 20% b. Assurance 85% Risk 15%
c. Assurance 90% Risk 10% d. Assurance 95% Risk 5%
51. Audit risk has three components, pick the incorrect one
a. Hidden risk-is the risk that a misstatement that could occur in an account balance or class of
transactions and that could be material individually or when aggregated with misstatements in
other balances or classes due to the hidden weakness of the system.
b. Inherent risk- is the susceptibility of an account balance or class of transactions to
misstatement that could be material, individually or when aggregated with misstatements in other
balances or classes, assuming that there were no related internal controls.
c. Control risk- is the risk that a misstatement that could occur in an account balance or class of
transactions and that could be material individually or when aggregated with misstatements in
other balances or classes, will not be prevented or detected and corrected on a timely basis by
the accounting and internal control systems
d. Detection risk- is the risk that an auditor’s substantive procedures will not detect a
misstatement that exists in an account balance or class of transactions that could be material,
individually or when aggregated with misstatements in other balances or classes
52. Audit risk is
a. Inherent Risk + Control Risk + Detection Risk b. Inherent Risk X Control Risk X Detection
Risk
c. Inherent Risk X Control Risk + Detection Risk d. Inherent Risk + Control Risk - Detection
Risk
53. Anything which has an influence on whether or not an error is likely to occur in the first place is
called
a. Audit Environment b. Audit Matrix
c. Accounting Environment d. Accounting Matrix
54. Previous history of non-production of records to audit is an example of
a. Control Risk b. Exceptional Risk
c. Detection Risk d. Inherent Risk.
55. As per the Auditing Standards, the auditor in support his judgement and conclusions should
obtain audit evidence that should be
a. Competent and relevant b. competent, relevant and reasonable
c. Complete, competent, relevant and reasonable
d. Complete, competent, relevant, reliable and reasonable
The principal source of evidence for audit conclusions will be the records of the auditee. It is the
primary duty of Audit to ensure that evidence is planned, gathered and analysed after any conclusion
can be reached.
a. True b. False
57. Evidence may be gather by
i. physical observation, including joint inspection
ii. confirmation, enquiry and survey
iii. evaluation of the quality of internal control mechanisms
iv. interviews with executives
v. computer assisted audit techniques (CAATs) and analytical anaylsis.
a. i, ii and iii b. i, ii, iii and iv
c. i, ii, iii and v d. All of the above
58. Which of following audit procedures is not commonly used to obtain audit assurance.
a. Analytical Procedures (APs) b. Systems Based Audit (SBA)
c. Descriptive Procedures (DPs) d. Direct Substantive Testing (DST)
59. Comparisons involving a single component and across components, system analysis, predictive
analysis, regression analysis and business analysis are tools of
a. Analytical Procedures (APs) b. Systems Based Audit (SBA)
c. Descriptive Procedures (DPs) d. Direct Substantive Testing (DST)
60. The analysis that involves the creation of an expectation using not just financial data but also
operating or external data, independent of the accounting system is termed as
a. System analysis b. Predictive analysis
c. Regression analysis d. Business Analysis
61. This is a statistical technique that creates an equation to reveal how one variable is related to
one or more other variables with added mathematical rigor and objectivity is
62. Analysis of financial statements involving critical ratios related to profitability, liquidity, financial
stability, debt, etc. which is likely to prove a useful tool for the more experienced members of the audit
team who can apply their cumulative knowledge of the particular entity being audited is
63. The steps involved in analytical review are
i. Develop an expectation ii. Define significant differences
iii. Compare the actuals with the expectation
iv. Investigate any significant differences between actuals and expectation
v. Document the first four steps and make an audit conclusion as to whether assurance can be
drawn
vi. Ensure follow-up the above
a. ii, iii, iv, v and vi b. i, ii, iii, iv and v
c. i, ii, iv, v and vi d. All of the above.
64. Analytical procedures can be used for different purposes at different stages of audit pick the
incorrect one
a. in planning the audit, to assist Audit by pointing areas requiring examination
b. as substantive tests, in areas where analytical procedures can be used to obtain evidential
matter regarding the accuracy of figures
c. in reporting stage, to assist in the final stage of the audit in assessing the conclusions Audit
has reached and in evaluation of the overall financial statement presentation by identifying odd or
unusual figures in the final accounts.
d. None of the above
65. Which of the following constitute(s) basic audit approaches?
a. System Based Approaches (SBAs) and Direct Substantive Testing (DST)
b. Direct Substantive Testing (DST) and Analytical Procedures (APs)
c. System Based Approaches (SBAs) and Analytical Procedures (APs)
d. System Based Approaches (SBAs), Analytical Procedures (APs) and Direct Substantive
Testing (DST)
66. The approach whereby the auditor relies upon the entity's system of internal control is known as
the Systems Based Approach (SBA). The Various steps involved in SBA are as follows:
i. the identification and in-depth evaluation of relevant key controls, and assessment of the
extent, if any, to which the auditor can rely upon these controls provided that they are found to be
operating effectively
ii. the testing of the operation of those key controls to establish whether they have operated
effectively throughout the period under examination
iii. the evaluation of the results of the tests of control to establish whether the degree of reliance
foreseen can be taken from the examination of the controls
iv. substantive testing of a number of transactions, account balances, etc. to determine (as
relevant to the audit objectives) whether, irrespective of the entity's system of controls, the
financial statements of the entity are properly presented, free from material misstatements and
the underlying transactions were regular.
c. i, iii and iv d. All of the above.
67. When the audit objectives can be achieved without relying on the systems in place in the auditee
and without undertaking tests of control, it is known as the
a. Detailed Audit Approach b. Test Check Approach
c. Direct Substantive Testing approach d. None of the above
68. Various steps involved in performing direct substantive testing are
i. Identification of the sub-system to be tested.
ii. Identification of the sub-audit objective to be tested for the selected sub-system.
iii. Identification of the technique for gathering evidence.
iv. Determination of the sample size and performance of a test check using the identified
technique for evidence gathering.
v. Formulation of conclusions on the fulfilment or otherwise of the sub-audit objective for the
selected sub-system.
a. ii, iii, iv and v b. i, ii, iii and iv
c. i, iii, iv and v d. All of the above.
69. Generally, a population should be divided or stratified into at least three segments. Pick the
incorrect one
a. high value items b. no value items
c. key items d. the remainder.
a. The high-value and key items are separately examined 100% and Audit would examine a
sample of the remainder.
b. The high-value items are separately examined 100% and Audit would examine a sample of the
key items and the remainder.
c. The key items are separately examined 100% and Audit would examine a sample of the high
value items and the remainder.
d. The remainders are separately examined 100% and Audit would examine a sample of the key
items and the remainder
i. The Block selection and Judgemental selection methods can be expected to produce
representative samples and are generally considered as acceptable.
ii. The Attribute Sampling’ is generally used for testing of controls
iii. Monetary Unit Sampling (MUS) is an important sampling method, which is mainly used in
Substantive test of details in financial audits.
iv. MUS helps in the projection of findings, based on test results, in Rupee terms to the
population tested.
c. ii, iii and iv d. All of the above.
i. Statistical sampling unlike subjective selection of the individual transactions to be tested is free
from auditor’s bias and uncertainty.
ii. While using statistical sampling, a random mechanism is applied to choose the transactions to
be tested in which each transaction has the same chance of being included in the sample.
iii. A pre-condition for any statistical sampling is the availability of a sampling frame, in effect, a
listing of all the transactions which make up the account or account area.
iv. Where accounting records are computerised, this listing may be readily accessible. The use of
computer assisted audit techniques (CAATs), in particular IDEA, is likely to provide a cost-
effective means of sample selection in such cases.

i. In most cases, 100 per cent testing of an account area is impracticable on cost grounds.
However, in some instances, the auditors may be able to identify a relatively small group of
transactions which are sufficiently important that an error in any one of them would have serious
implications for the account area.
ii. The auditors may also wish to carry out 100 per cent testing irrespective of the results of the
first phase of testing whether suggests or does not suggest that unexpected errors may be
present in a precisely defined group of transactions. The 100 per cent testing would be applied
only to the identified group of suspect transactions.
iii. The auditors can also use 100 per cent testing to audit a group of transactions within an
account area which they believe have either a particular sensitivity, or a particular risk.
iv. Where the auditors apply 100 per cent testing to a group of transactions, they will know the
monetary value of error for that group. For the remaining account areas, where the auditors have
tested a sample of transactions, they can only estimate the error.
74. The most commonly used sampling methods in connection with tests of detail are
i. simple random sampling ii. stratified random sampling
iii. monetary unit sampling (MUS) iv. Multi stage sampling
5. Pick the correct one regarding the simple random sampling
i. The main characteristics of simple random sampling is that all transactions have the same
chance of being included in the sample.
ii. Its application to sampling for tests of detail is generally restricted to situations where both the
values and the risks associated with the transactions making up the account area are believed to
be fairly homogeneous.
iii. The extrapolation of results from simple random sampling in general leads to significantly
biased estimates of total population error.
iv. Where either monetary values or assessed risks of error vary widely between transactions,
alternative sampling methods are usually preferable.
76. Thee extension of simple random sampling, in which the population is first divided into discrete
bands etc. each being fairly homogeneous with respect to value and risk is called
a. Advance simple random sampling b. Stratified random sampling
c. Block sampling d. Multi-stage sampling
77. Pick the correct in respect of Monetary Unit Sampling (MUS)

i. Monetary Unit Sampling (MUS), as its name implies, is a statistical sampling method in which a
high value transaction is more likely to appear in the sample than one of lower value.
ii. It is a particular case of the statistical technique of probability proportional to size (PPS)
sampling.
iii. It is more widely used than simple random sampling because it is usually more efficient, in the
sense that the margins of uncertainty in the estimates of error are generally narrower with MUS
than those based on a simple random sample of the same size.
iv. In most audit applications of MUS, a 100 per cent probability of selection is attached to
transactions in excess of the Average Sampling Internal (ASI).

78. Sampling approach that is required if transactions are processed or accounting records are held
at a number of locations in such a way that we cannot directly extract a sample from across the entire
population is
a. Multi-stage sampling b. Stratified random sampling
b. Monetary Unit Sampling (MUS) d. Average Sampling

The Statistical Advisor at Headquarters Office may be consulted when a multi-location sampling
approach is planned, and in connection with the extrapolation of sample results.
a. True b. False

i. The person in-charge of the office or the department, the accounts of which are to be
inspected/audited by the functionaries of the CAG, to afford all facilities for the inspection/audit
and comply with requests for information in as complete a form as possible and with all
reasonable expedition.
ii. In the eventuality of non-production of vital records, the audit should be continued but the
matter should be reported by the A.G to the Chief Secretary in the State or to the Secretary to the
Government of India in the Centre, or the chief executive of the auditee entity, as the case may
be.
iii. In case the problem persists, an omnibus draft paragraph on all such problems that arise
during the year should be considered for inclusion in the Audit Report for bringing the matter to
the notice of the Legislature through the PAC or the Committee on Public Undertakings.
iv. In addition, in the Audit Certificates on Accounts, appropriate qualification / disclaimer on
account of ‘limitation in scope’ caused by the non-production of records should be considered.
a. i, ii and iii b. i, ii and iv

81. The numerous steps in the financial audit process can be broadly grouped in three phases, pick
the incorrect one
a. Planning b. Executing
c. Reporting d. Following-up
82. When the level of error is not judged to be material, the certificate on the financial statements
provided by the audit is
a. qualified certificate b. unqualified certificate
c. disclaimer d. any of the given.
83. The financial audit plan would contain

i. details of the areas to be audited ii. the starting date of the audit
iii. the ending date of the audit iv. the manpower and other resources
a. i, ii and iii b. i, ii and iv

84. Depending upon the basis adopted for their preparation, accounts are categorised into:
a. Government Accounts and non-Government Account
b. Cash Accounts and Accrual Accounts c. Public Account and Private Accounts
d. Real and Nominal Accounts

a. Central and State Governments: Cash based accounting
b. The Corporations and autonomous bodies: Cash based accounting
c. The Government Companies: Accrual based accounting
d. None of the given
86. The Externally aided projects follow the method of

a. Cash based accounting b. Accrual based accounting
c. accounting method adopted by the implementing agency.
d. accounting method adopted by the funding agency.
87. The auditor's certificate is made up of two parts

a. Scope and Opinion b. Shor title and Detail Case
c. Finding and Opinion d. Title and Statement
88. The words used in the audit opinion depend on the basis of accounting employed are given
below. Pick the incorrect one
a. Properly presents-Cash based accounting
b. Presents fairly-Accrual based accounting
c. True and fair view- Full Accrual basis accounting
89. Every field office will prepare the detailed annual programme for financial (attest) audits of
various auditee entities (including the Union / State / Union Territory Government concerned) to be
undertaken during the ensuing financial year in the month of
a. March b. April
c. August d. January

i. A single detailed audit plan will integrate and include Central audit of vouchers and other
records, routine inspections (phase audit), financial (attest) audits and performance audits
ii. Financial Attest Audit is a mandatory audit
iii. Normally the financial audits are of recurring nature every year.
iv. If required, audit resources may be diverted from other non-mandatory audits for carrying
mandatory financial (attest) audits.
a. i, ii and iv b. ii, iii and iv

91. Steps in planning process of financial attest audit are

a. Understanding the auditee entity>auditee entity operation>Materiality>Risk Assessment>Plan
finalisation
b. Plan Finalisation> Understanding the auditee entity>auditee entity operation>Materiality>Risk
Assessment
c. Understanding the auditee entity>auditee entity operation> Risk Assessment>Materiality> Plan
finalisation
d. Plan Finalisation> Understanding the auditee entity>auditee entity operation> Risk
Assessment >Materiality

In cases where the Treasuries and Pay and Accounts Offices are inspected by the Office of the
Accountant General (A&E), the inspection should include carrying out a review of the IT systems used by
the Treasuries and Pay and Accounts Offices and copies of the inspection reports should be sent to the
Office of the Accountant General (Civil Audit).
a. True b. False
93. In cases where there are developing systems, the use of IT is extensive or the entity’s computer
systems are assessed as being very important or technologically complex, the review of the IT systems
of Treasuries and PAO is required to be done
a. by hiring an IT professional b. by associating IT trained personnel of AG
(A&E)
c. by associating IT audit trained personnel of audit office
d. by IT system developer and steering committee of Treasuries and PAOs
94. External IT experts

a. shall not be appointed
b. may be associated only with the prior approval of Headquarters Office
c. may be associated only with the prior approval of A.G (Audit) concerned.
d. may be associated only with the prior approval of Head of the auditee entity’s
Department/Ministry
95. i. The control environment comprises the conditions under which the entity’s accounting process
and internal controls are designed, implemented and function.
ii. Based on the understanding, the audit team should seek to arrive at a conclusion as to
whether the control environment is generally conducive to reliable accounting systems and
effective internal control and determines if specific components increase or decrease the
effectiveness of some or all application systems and controls.
iii. If, based on understanding of the control environment, the audit team has fundamental doubt
about the effectiveness of the accounting system or controls, this should not be reported to the
entity and kept in mind while carrying financial audit
iv. To obtain an understanding of the control environment, Audit needs to consider (i)
management's characteristics, philosophy, operating style and commitment to accurate financial
reporting, (ii) the operating environment and culture (iii) management's commitment to designing
and maintaining reliable accounting systems and (iv) the ability of management to control the
operations
a. ii, iii and iv b. i, ii and iv
96. Analytical procedures can

i. serve as part of the risk assessment
ii. identify non-routine and unusual transactions and balances
iii. confirm and also improve on our understanding of the business
iv. be used as a starting point for substantive assurance

97. It will usually be necessary to base the analytical procedures on

i. previous years’ audit reports ii. interim financial statements
iii. budgets or estimates iv. prior period's financial statements
v. any other Management Information
a. i, ii, iii and iv b. i, ii, iii and v

c. ii, iii, iv and v d. All of the above
98. Classes of assets, liabilities, income and expenditure which have similar underlying
characteristics and transaction streams are called
a. Audit areas b. Account area
c. Transaction area d. Functional area

a. All audit areas should be assessed for significance and non-significance to the financial
statements
b. This analysis should be based upon materiality by value and not materiality by nature and
context
c. The results of auditor’s Understanding the operations (business) of the entity should also
inform this assessment
d. Identification of non-significant audit areas is usually dependent upon analysing audit areas
into their smaller constituent parts. The auditors can make use of accounts, trial balance, print out
of ledger accounts, etc. when doing this.
100. At which stage the audit team is concerned primarily with materiality by value?
a. Planning Stage b. Execution Stage
c. Reporting Stage d. All the stages
101. Who shall determine an appropriate materiality base and planning materiality in the course of
financial attest audit?
a. the CAG b. the Head of the audit team
c. the A.G (Audit) d. Planning Committee of field office
102. Misclassification of revenue expenditure resulting in a saving in a grant when in fact there has
been an excess is materiality by
a. value b. nature
c. context d. combination of value, nature and context.
103. Some of the important risk indicators are

i. Previous Audit Observations with amounts involved not yet settled
ii. Number and amount of accounting adjustments made in last 5 years
iii. Changes in key management and accounts personnel in last 5 years
iv. Any new activities undertaken and any formation of new offices, branches, locations, etc.
during the period under audit
a. i and iv b. ii and iii

c. i, ii and iii d. All of the above
104. Which of the following is not a risk indicator

a. Expenditure trends b. Income trends
c. Persistent and unexplained excess drawals d. Political or managerial sensitivity of
activities
105. A separate Standing Order on the position of Audit in relation to fraud and corruption was issued
by the Headquarters Office in
a. 2004 b. 2007
c. 2005 d. 2006
106. The risk defined as the susceptibility of an account balance to material misstatement, irrespective
of related internal controls is
a. Control Risk b. Inherent Risk
c. Detection Risk d. Secret Risk
107. The levels/degree of inherent risk can be recognised in audit

a. five- Extreme Risk, High Risk, Medium Risk, Low Risk and No Risk
b. two-High Risk and Low Risk
c. four- High Risk, Medium Risk, Low Risk and No Risk
d. three-High Risk, Medium Risk and Low Risk
108. Inherent risks are identified at two level
a. Entity level and Audit area level b. Entity level and Accounts areas level
c. Entity level and Operation level d. Entity level and Regulation level
109. Factors which can be taken for the purpose of risk identification at the entity level are
i. the overall control environment ii. external pressures on the entity
iii. experience and competence of staff iv. reliability of accounting systems
v. stability of the entity

110. Factors which can be taken for the purpose of risk identification at the accounts area level are
i. Transactions governed by complex regulations
ii. Services and programmes delivered through third parties
iii. Transactions not in the normal course of business or operations
iv. Payments and receipts made on the basis of claims or declarations rather than in exchange
for goods and services.
v. Single source of funds

111. Match the given
Sl. Risk Area Sl. Mitigating Control

No. No.
A Complex regulations I Management may require internal checking at a higher
level than in normal circumstances.
B Services delivered by II Management may draw evidence on claimants'
third parties circumstances from other sources, or exercise rights of
investigation
C Payments on the III Management may require independent verification by
basis of claims external or internal inspectors or auditors
D Unusual transactions IV management may ensure clear desk instructions for all
staff concerned;
a. A-I, B-II, C-III and D-IV b. A-II, B-I, C-IV and D-III
c. A-IV, B-III, C-II and D-I d. A-IV, B-I, C-II and D-III
a. All the cases where the audit team identifies specific risk factors without corresponding
mitigating controls should be specially kept in view in deciding the audit approach.
b. Such cases should also be brought to the notice of the Accountant General (Audit) for possible
introduction of mitigating controls
c. Both a & B
113. The process for identifying material risk factors has

a. two key stages b. three key stages
c. five key stages d. six key stages.
114. The VLC data containing Drawing and Disbursing Officer (DDO)-wise information on various
parameters like monthly expenditure pattern, expenditure on contingencies, AC bills pending, position of
PD accounts etc., would help in risk assessment and selection of DDOs for audit with respect to financial
attest audit of
a. Central Government b. State Government
c. Both Central and State Government d. Government Corporation and Companies
115. A cost-effective audit approach is one that achieves the objective of

a. minimising sampling risk - the risk that audit procedures will fail to detect material
misstatement or irregularity due to drawing a non-representative sample;
b. minimising audit cost - by achieving the most efficient deployment of audit resources taking
account the overall timetable and minimising potential disruption to the normal functioning of the
auditee
c. maximising assurance on the audit objectives.
d. an optimum mix of as given above in a, b and c.
116. The substantive procedures can be performed at one of three levels, depending on the amount of
assurance required. They are
a. High, Medium and Low b. Intense, Focused and Normal
c. Focused, Standard and Minimum d. Exceptional, Special and General
117. For each audit objective where specific risk factors were identified, the audit team should
a. rely on mitigating controls and perform a minimum level of substantive procedures
b. perform focused substantive procedures
c. Both a and b
d. either a or b.
Where reporting deadlines are tight, or if there are constraints on audit resources at the time of
main audit visit, the audit team should normally perform some of the substantive procedures at an
interim date.
a. True b. False
119. Where the team audits income or expenditure or receipts and payments figures at an interim
date, it can adopt audit approaches to the remainder of the accounting period at the time of final audit
a. place reliance on controls, together with a minimum level of substantive procedures
b. perform a standard level of substantive procedures.
c. Both a and b
d. either a or b.
120. Detailed audit programmes explaining the procedures to be followed by the audit team in order to
implement the chosen audit approach should be prepared
a. before determining audit approach but after preparing audit planning memorandum
b. after determining audit approach and preparing audit planning memorandum
c. before determining audit approach and preparing audit planning memorandum
d. after determining audit approach but before preparing audit planning memorandum
121. In the case of State Government Accounts, the planning should cover the
a. central audit function b. Central Audit and local audit functions
c. Central Audit, local audit and information technology audit functions
d. Central Audit and information technology audit functions
122. Pick the correct ones

i. In the case of Union Government Accounts, the three Offices of Director General Audit (Central
Revenues), Principal Director of Audit (Economic and Service Ministries) and Principal Director of
Audit (Scientific Departments) should prepare Audit Plans in respect of financial audit of the
Departments covered by their respective offices.
ii. Where other Sub Auditors carry out the financial audit of some Departments and provide an
audit certificate to the Principal Auditor (as in the case of Railways, Posts and Defence), the
respective Sub Auditors should prepare their Audit Plans.
iii. The Office of the Director General Audit (Central Revenues) may require other Sub Auditors
and the Offices of the State Accountants General to carry out test audit of the transactions of field
offices of the Union Government Ministries / Departments covered under their audit jurisdiction.
iv. When the auditee entity falls under the audit jurisdiction of more than one audit office, the
audit planning should be carried out by the primary auditor without the involvement of the sub-
auditor.
123. Based on the planning process who may revise/ update auditee specific sub-directions to be
issued to the statutory auditors in respect of supplementary audit of Government Companies?
a. Headquarter Officer, CAG b. A.G concerned
c. AG with the prior consent of the Headquarter
d. Headquarter Officer, CAG with prior consent of A.G concerned.
124. The letter sent by the A.G to the secretary / chief executive of the entity, communicating the
launch of the audit along with the entity units tentatively selected for audit, respective responsibilities of
Audit and the entity management, the time-frame for audit and request him/her to issue necessary
directions to the functional officers and field units to provide documents is called
a. Letter of Understanding b. Engagement Letter
c. Letter of Understanding for statutory financial attest audit and Engagement Letter for and non-
statutory audit
d. Engagement Letter for statutory financial attest audit and Letter of Understanding for non-
statutory audit
125. Pick the correct one regarding the reliability of audit evidence
i. Evidence, of which the auditor has direct personal knowledge, is the most reliable evidence.
ii. Independent evidence obtained from external sources is more reliable than internal evidence
(obtained from the audited entity) if that evidence is truly independent and complete.
iii. Visual evidence is highly reliable for confirming the existence of assets as well as their
ownership and value.
iv. Drawing conclusions solely through examining relationships between figures in the account
(analytical review) is less reliable evidence.
a. i, ii and iv b. i, ii and iii

126. Pick the correct one regarding reasonable audit evidence

a. Reasonable audit evidence is information that is economical in that the cost of gathering it is
commensurate with the result that the auditor is trying to achieve.
b. Generally, audit evidence is persuasive rather than conclusive and, for this reason, the auditor
should seek evidence from different sources or of a different nature to support the same audit
objective.
c. None of the given
d. Both a and b
a. Audit should ensure that evidence obtained from deliberations or interviews with executives is
documented and signed by both the participating audit personnel and executives.
b. Interview substitute the direct audit procedure and therefore evidence gathered is not required
to be cross-checked through verification of records.
c. In auditing government accounts, evidence may not be obtained by making independent
enquiries from private individuals or members of the general public
d. Evidence may be gathered by enquiry from third parties through a reputed agency only when
Audit is of the view that the evidence gathered directly from the auditee organisation is
insufficient to arrive at proper conclusions.
128. How may testing control approaches are there in financial attest audit?
a. five b. four
c. three d. two
129. Pick the correct about testing control methods

a. enquiry and confirmation b. observation.
c. sampling d. All of the above
130. The failures of key controls should be reported to

a. management through management letter b. Government through letter of understanding
c. Parliament/Legislature as the case may be d. All of the above.
131. Before sampling any transactions the auditors should carry out a preliminary review of the listing
of population items, which should include the application of planning analytical procedures and the same
is intended to
i. establish that the sampling frame the auditors intend to sample from does, in fact, match the
planning expectations (for example, in terms of completeness)
ii. contribute to auditors’ judgement as to where the main sensitivities or risks are in the
population
iii. provide an analysis of the population, as a basis for grouping the population by transaction
type or value
iv. allow auditors to determine our sampling methodology and enable auditors to decide which
sampling unit should be tested

132. An error which will only occur in defined circumstances and hence affects only a proportion of the
population is
a. random error b. planned error
c. systematic error d. unexpected error
133. An error which could have also occurred in any of the transactions that were not selected for
testing is
a. unexpected error b. random error
c. planned error d. systematic error
134. If the Accountant General concludes that the tests of detail do not indicate material misstatement
or irregularity in any account area, then he
a. may not take the planned level of substantive assurance
b. may take the planned level of substantive assurance
c. may revise the audit approach
d. All of the above
135. i. If the A.G concludes that there is material misstatement in the financial statements, then he
should request the auditee entity to make appropriate disclosures in or adjustments to the
financial statements. Ii. Where they do not agree to make appropriate disclosures in or
adjustments to the financial statements, then the Accountant General should propose a qualified
opinion.
iii. If the Accountant General concludes that there is material irregularity then he should propose
a qualified opinion, if the irregularity is not capable of correction by management.
iv. Sometimes, the Accountant General may conclude that material misstatement or irregularity
might be present, but he is unable to quantify it. This would usually occur due to a limitation on
the scope of work. In such a situation, he may propose a disclaimer of opinion.

136. Which is regarded as an opportunity for the entity to discuss the audit findings with the audit
representatives. This also affords opportunity to the audit officer/group supervisory officer to clarify any
points of doubt that the entity may like to raise?
a. Exit conference b. Entry Conference
c. Settlement Conference d. Review Conference
137. a. The audit working papers should document the audit procedures undertaken, the conclusions
drawn and the implications for the audit opinion. They should record the reasoning on all
significant matters where the members of the audit teams have exercised judgment.
b. The audit working papers help individual audit team members ensure that they have
completed all the work necessary and provide the evidence to back up the opinion reached and
allow review of the audit work to be carried out.
c. both a & b
138. The acid test for good documentation is that

a. an experienced auditor with no previous connection with the audit should be able, without
difficulty, to ascertain the evidence gathered and understand and support the conclusions
reached
b. an experienced auditor with previous connection with the audit should be able, without
reached
c. an unexperienced auditor with no previous connection with the audit should be able, without
reached
d. an unexperienced auditor with previous connection with the audit should be able, without
reached
139. Quality in fieldwork is assured through

i. Adherence to the Field Standards and policy of the CAG regarding fieldwork
ii. Ensuring staffing of audit teams with persons possessing appropriate knowledge and skills
iii. Increase participation of the auditee entity in the course of audit
iv. Supervision, monitoring and review
v. Peer review.
a. i, ii, iii and iv b. i, ii, iv and v

140. The review of the procedures and practices by a professional, who has not been associated with
the specific audit with a view to ensuring that the best practices and standards have been followed is
called
a. Cadre Review b. Associate Review
c. Peer Review d. Supplementary Review
141. Subsequent events are those relevant events which occur and those facts which are discovered
after the close of the period covered by the financial statements under audit and before the date of the
audit certificate and are of
a. favourable nature b. unfavourable nature
c. either favourable or unfavourable nature d. None of the given.
142. Procedures to identify subsequent events are:

i. making enquiries of management to ascertain their procedures for identifying subsequent
events
ii. reading minutes of management meetings and board meetings
iii. reviewing the latest available financial information such as post period accounts, budgets and
management information
iv. obtaining revised guidelines from Headquarters Office
v. considering Parliamentary or State Legislature proceedings occurring after the period end
which might have an impact on the auditee.
a. i, iii, iv and v b. ii, iii, iv and v

c. i, ii, iii and iv d. i, ii, iii and v
143. The audit team should ensure that it has considered the auditee’s ability to continue as a going
concern in the foreseeable future at
a. completion stage b. execution stage
c. planning stage d. post-completion stage

In the context of auditing the accounts of Governments, all the Government Departments can be
considered as going concerns
a. True b. False
145. Management representations are usually sought for the reasons except
a. where knowledge of the facts pertaining to a matter is confined to management alone
b. to acknowledge management's responsibility for the regularity of expenditure
c. to acknowledge management's responsibility for the preparation of the financial statements.

a. Before beginning, the audit procedures, the audit team should prepare an executive summary
of audit findings.
b. This summary explains the key audit issues, their resolution, agreed adjustments and
concludes on the appropriate form of audit certificate.
c. The summary is reviewed and signed by the Audit Officer, Group Officer (supervising the audit)
and Accountant General.
147. The executive summary should include
i. a summary of the auditee's operations and purpose, the regularity framework within which the
auditee operates, the key risks identified and audit issues and their resolution.
ii. a commentary on the expenditure and income of the auditee, key balances, unadjusted error
and accounting policies in significant account areas
iii. details of areas where difficult questions of principle or judgement were involved
iv. conclusion on the appropriate form of audit certificate.

148. The full rationale should be given in the executive summary, where the proposed audit certificate
will be
a. other than qualified b. other than unqualified
c. other than disclaimer d. other than adverse.
149. Effective documentations

i. confirm, support the auditor's opinions and reports and help the auditor's professional
development.
ii. serve as a source of information for preparing reports or answering any enquiries from the
audited entity or from any other party and increase the efficiency and effectiveness of the audit;
iii. serve as evidence of the auditor's compliance with Auditing Standards, facilitate planning and
supervision and help to ensure that delegated work has been satisfactorily performed
iv. save the auditor from audit procedures at planning stage in audits of ensuing years.

c. i, ii and iii d. All of the above.
150. The method of filing documents should recognise that documents fall into category
a. those relevant to the audit of the entity (Government, Department etc. under audit) generally
b. those relevant only to the audit of the entity (Government, Department etc. under audit) for a
particular year of account
c. Both a & b
151. The documents to which the auditor needs to refer each year should be placed in a Standing File.
This file should contain current information about the organisation itself, such as
i. the authority for the audit ii. List of key audit personnel
iii. governing legislation iv. organisation’s chart and key personnel
v. descriptions of accounting systems and manuals
vi. systems evaluations
a. i, ii, iii, iv and v b. i, iii, iv, v and vi

c. ii, iii, iv, v and vi d. All of the above.
152. The working paper folders should include documentation which shows
i. the names of audit personnel who carried out the audit work
ii. the dates when the audit work was carried out by the respective audit personnel
iii. the sources of the information / evidence obtained
iv. the nature and purpose of the audit tests carried out and the results obtained.

153. The broad characteristics of a good working paper are

i. Completeness and accuracy ii. Clarity and conciseness
iii. Ease of preparation iv. Persistency and continuity

154. Who shall be responsible for documenting a good working in following standards?
a. Audit Officer b. Group Officer
c. Audit Officer and Group Officer individually and jointly
d. Audit Officer and Group Officer jointly
155. What is TeamMate?

a. an electronic audit sampling software b. an electronic documentation software
c. an electronic audit procedure and method software
d. an electronic audit reporting software
156. Account Area Lead Schedule pertaining to financial attest audit is

a. reviewed by the Audit officer in charge of certification of financial statement and approved by
the Group Officer concerned
b. reviewed and approved by the Group Officer in charge of certification of financial statement
c. reviewed by the Group Officer in charge of certification of financial statement and approved by
the Accountant General
d. reviewed by the Audit Officer/Group Officer in charge of certification of financial statement and
approved by the Accountant General
Generally, the audit reports on completion of financial audit will be in the form of audit certificates.
However, in appropriate cases, a detailed report can be annexed to the audit certificate.
a. True b. False
158. The general principles of reporting standard are

i. Title ii. Signature and date.
iii. Objectives and scope iv. Completeness.
v. Addressee vi. Identification of subject matter
a. i, ii, iii, iv and v b. i, iii, iv, v and vi

c. ii, iii, iv, v and vi d. All of the above.
159. The audit opinion will also contain separate sections dealing with except
a. respective responsibilities of the executive and auditors
b. the basis of the opinion expressed
c. remedial action taken or proposed by executive
d. the opinion on the financial statements
160. In States where the Finance and Appropriation Accounts are compiled by the AG (A&E), primarily
responsible for the correctness of the initial and subsidiary accounts as well as ensuring the regularity of
financial transactions in accordance with the applicable laws, standards, rules and regulations
concerning such accounts and transactions is
a. the AG (A&E) b. the State Government
c. treasuries, offices or departments functioning under the State Government
d. All of the above.
161. The audit certificate should include a statement expressly setting out the basis of the audit
opinion. This will include
i. a statement certifying that the C&AG has performed his examination in accordance with
relevant legislative authority - where there is a legal requirement for him to certify;
ii. a statement as to compliance or otherwise with Auditing Standards, together with the reasons
for any departure therefrom;
iii. a statement that the audit process includes examining, on a test basis, evidence relevant to
the amounts, disclosures and regularity of transactions included in the financial statements; and
iv. a statement that the audit is planned and performed so as to obtain reasonable assurance that
the financial statements are free from material misstatement

162. When, in the judgement of the Accountant General, the financial statements properly present
receipts and payments or give a true and fair view and have been prepared in accordance with relevant
accounting requirements, the opinion given will be
a. qualified b. unqualified
c. disclaimer d. adverse
163. Before forming the unqualified opinion, the Accountant General must be satisfied that
i. the financial statements have been prepared in accordance with relevant legislation,
regulations, instructions of Finance Department, Government Accounting and applicable
accounting standards. Any departures are justified and adequately explained in the financial
statements
ii. there is adequate disclosure of all information relevant to a proper understanding of the
financial statements
iii. appropriate accounting policies have been consistently applied in the preparation of financial
statements.
iv. the financial statements are free from material irregularity and therefore that the transactions
recorded in them conform with the authority which governs them.
a. ii, iii and iv b. i, ii and iii

164. In forming the judgement about absence of material irregularity, the Accountant General must be
satisfied that in all material respects
i. transactions comply with the legislation (both primary and secondary) governing them
ii. transactions comply with any regulations relating to them issued by a body with the power to
do so under the governing legislation;
iii. approval of Finance Department or any sponsoring Department has been sought and obtained
as required;
iv. the financial transactions do not fall within the ambit of the Vote of the Parliament or
Legislature.

165. Where the Accountant General is unable to satisfy himself that the financial statements are free
from material misstatement whether caused by fraud, error or other irregularity, the opinion given will be
a. disclaimer b. unqualified
c. qualified d. adverse
166. Opinion to be given on all Excess votes for Appropriation Accounts will be
a. adverse b. qualified
c. unqualified d. disclaimer
167. Three types of opinion other than unqualified can be issued are except
a. except for b. adverse
c. disclaimer d. unacceptable.
168. The manner in which the Accountant General qualifies his opinion depends on
a. which of the groups the qualification falls into: uncertainty or disagreement
b. the strength of the qualification
c. Both a & b
169. i. The Accountant General should not sign the certification journal until the financial statements
and all other financial information contained in a report of which the audited financial statements
form a part have been approved by the accounting officer, board, or equivalent persons.
ii. Normally, the audit certificate should be positioned immediately after the financial statements
and immediately before the statement of executive’s/directors'/management’s responsibilities.
iii. The date of a certificate on financial statements is the date on which the C&AG, or his
delegate, signs his report expressing his opinion on those statements.
iv. The C&AG will personally sign certificates on financial statements with the exception of those
where he has delegated the responsibility of signing to another Officer

170. i. The recommendations to the auditee towards improvement in their financial management and
controls would be auditor’s value addition in the overall financial management on completion of
financial attest audit is communicated to the management through Management Letter.
ii. The Management Letter is distinct from and issued in place of the inspection reports after the
completion of transaction audit.
iii. It should be ensured that the facts presented are correct and the recommendations are
realistic and cost-effective.
iv. Audit must ensure that nothing communicated to the auditee entity is inconsistent with the
audit opinion.
a. i, iii and iv b. i, ii and iv

171. Pick the incorrect one regarding submission of report
a. Article 151- to the President of India relating to the accounts of the Union
b. Article 152- to the Governor of the State relating to the accounts of the State
c. Section 49 of the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963- to the Administrator relating to
the accounts of the UT having a Legislative Assembly

The C&AG will personally sign certificates on financial statements with the exception of those
where he has delegated the responsibility of signing to another Officer
a. True b. False
173. The Section of the DPC Act, 1971 that authorises the CAG to delegate any power exercisable by
the CAG under the provisions of the Act, or any other law, to any officer of his department, by general or
special order is
174. Authorised for Submission of the report to the President/Governor/Administrator

a. CAG alone in all the case b. Any authority power to whom delegated by the
CAG
c. Any authority so authorised in case of CAG’s absence on leave or otherwise
d. Any authority so authorised by the Union Government in consultation with the CAG.

a. Supervision is a day-to-day control to ensure that the audit proceeds satisfactorily and that any
problems are immediately attended to.
b. Review can take place in stages during the progress of work and after its completion.
c. According to the field standards in the Auditing Standards of the CAG, the work of the audit
staff at each level and audit phase should be properly supervised during the audit, and a senior
member of the audit staff should review documented work.
176. Supervision ensures that

i. the members of the audit team have a clear and consistent understanding of the audit plan
ii. the audit is carried out in accordance with the auditing standards and practices
iii. working papers contain evidence adequately supporting all conclusions, recommendations
and opinions
iv. auditee entity responses to audit finding and recommendation are timely and promptly.
v. the audit report includes the audit conclusions, recommendations and opinions, as appropriate.
a. i, ii, iii, and iv b. i, ii, iii and v
b. ii, iii, iv and v d. All of the above
177. Pick the incorrect one regarding Supervision at various level

a. Planning of individual financial audit- Group Officer>Accountant General
b. Execution- Audit Officer > Group Officer
c. Review of periodical report, monitoring and interim appraisal-Accountant General
d. Post reporting-Audit Officer>Group Officer
178. Assurance memo

a. It is assurance that shall be furnished by the audit team on completion of the financial audit
and on completion of the audit of each unit
b. It is assurance that shall be furnished by the auditee entity on completion of the financial audit
and on completion of the audit of each unit
c. Both a & b
d. None
179. The stages of review

a. Three-First, Second and third stage review b. Three-Lower, Middle and Top stage review
c. Two stages- First and Second stage review d. Two Stages- Low and Top stage review
180. Who may design the internal post audit quality review tests for all financial audits?
a. Audit officer in charge of financial audits b. Group Officer in charge of financial audits
c. Public Accounts Committee wing d. Accountant General
181. Quality assurance of audit reports depends upon

i. Basic conditions ii. quality features
iii. supporting elements iv. controls and reviews


i. Quality assurance is ‘product-centric’ while quality control is ‘process-centric’
ii. Quality assurance system concerns all steps and techniques that the auditors must follow to
assure good quality audit while quality control system attempts to make sure that the results of
audit are what were expected.
iii. The quality assurance is for the entire life cycle of the audit while quality control measures
apply to individual stages or products.
iv. Quality assurance system is put in place before the work is undertaken or done while quality
control is applied during and after the work is completed.

183. Other Information Published with Financial Statements are

i. Annual Reports ii. Foreword
iii. Report of the Chief Executive Officer of the entity or the Minister or Secretary of the
Government
iv. Review of activities
v. Commentary on performance and achievement of targets
vi. Compliance with Citizens’ Charter or other Government initiatives
a. i, ii, iii, iv and v b. i, ii, iii, iv and vi

c. ii, iii, iv, v and vi d. All of the above
184. Which of the following are broadly considered equivalent to directors' reports for Corporations or
Government Companies?
a. Forewords b. Review of activities
c. Commentary on performance and achievement of targets
d. Compliance with Citizens’ Charter or other Government initiatives

a. If the inconsistency or misstatement is relatively minor and is in a report or commentary that
has little direct linkage to the financial statements, the Accountant General should raise the
matter in a report to management and it may not be necessary to propose a comment within the
audit certificate.
b. In such cases, the full details with supporting documents should not be furnished to the
Headquarters Office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India, while sending the draft audit
certificate.
c. Where the other information is significantly wrong and is likely to be read with the financial
statements, the Accountant General should propose to include an explanatory paragraph within
the audit certificate to draw the reader’s attention to audit concerns and clearly identifying the
inconsistency or inaccuracy and its location
i. Unless the terms of appointment stipulate something to the contrary, it is the audit's main
purpose in carrying out a financial audit to determine whether any fraud has been perpetrated.
ii. Detection of fraud is not the main purpose of financial audit and frauds involving collusion,
particularly at senior management level, may not be ordinarily detected by normal auditing
procedures.
iii. In financial audit aims to give a reasonable assurance to detect material misstatement in the
account, so if a material fraud was perpetrated and not discovered by audit, the conduct of audit
can be called in question, particularly if the evidence was such as would arouse suspicion in an
auditor of normal prudence.
iv. The audit party needs to be aware of the possibilities of fraud at the planning stage and should
be vigilant while carrying out the audit work

187. An in-depth analysis of the mechanics of a system reveals that it is designed with appropriate
controls, checks and balances to safeguard against errors, frauds, etc. is called
a. System Audit b. Concrete Audit
c. Focused Audit d. Detective Audit
188. Possible fraud indicators are

i. Missing vouchers
ii. Production of photocopies of documents instead of originals
iii. Discrepancies between predicted figures and actual figures during analytical review
procedures
iv. Employees in sensitive posts not taking leave

189. The auditee may be required by law or regulation to report certain fraud or illegal acts to specified
internal or external parties (a Central/State Government investigating agency or Central/State Vigilance
Commission). If auditors have communicated such illegal acts to the auditee, and it fails to report them,
then the auditors should
a. report the fraud or illegal acts to specified internal or external parties as the case may be
b. report the matter to Central/State Government concerned.
c. include the matters in their report
d. lodge and FIR against the person held responsible prime facie.
190. Certification of financial statement pertaining to World Bank Aided Projects

a. Balance Sheet b. Statement of Expenditure
c. Profit and Loss Account/ Revenue Account
d. Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss Account/ Revenue Account
191. Match the following
Sl Auditee Entity Sl Financial Statement Certification

No. No.
A Central/State/UT Govt. I Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss Account/Revenue
Account
B Statutory Corporation II Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss Account
C Government Companies III Appropriation and Finance Accounts
D Externally Aided Projects IV Statements of Expenditure
a. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV b. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

c. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I d. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
192. For the purpose of certifying the financial Statement in respect of externally aided projects, the
SAI India acts as
a. a sole auditor b. a statutory auditor
c. an independent auditor d. an artificial juridical auditor
193. Off-site audit is

a. audit of third party to arrive at conclusion of auditee entity
b. audit of books of accounts of an auditee entity for more than six years preceding to current
year.
c. audit of books of accounts of an auditee entity for a block of years
d. audit of books of accounts of an auditee entity from vouchers and data available in audit office
without visiting the auditee entity.
194. The Chartered Accountants, who act as Statutory Auditors and carry on the primary audit work
and the CAG certifies the ‘true and fair view’ of the accounts in accordance with the requirements of the
Companies Act, 1956.
a. True b. False
195. Pick the incorrect one regarding responsibility for Audit of Entities of State Governments and
Union Territory Governments
Optio Nature of Assurance Responsible authority
n
a For the certification of the annual accounts as a A.G (Civil Audit)
whole, including the audit of Civil Departments
b For providing assurance regarding the internal A.G (Civil Audit)
controls in Treasuries, Sub-Treasuries and Pay &
Accounts Offices in cases where they are being
inspected by the Accountant General (A&E)
c For financial (attest) audit of Autonomous Bodies A.G (Civil Audit)/A.G
(Commercial Works and
Receipt Audit)
d For financial (attest) audit of Government A.G (Civil Audit)/A.G
Companies and Corporations (Commercial Works and
Receipt Audit)
196. Pick the incorrect one regarding providing assurance in connection with audit of entities of the
Union Government
Optio Nature of Assurance Responsible authority
n
a For the certification of the Finance and The Director General of Audit
Appropriation Accounts as a whole, including the (Central Revenues)
audit of Civil Departments under his audit
jurisdiction
b For providing assurance regarding the portion of The Principal Director of Audit
the Accounts pertaining to Economic and Service (ESM)
Ministries
c For providing assurance regarding the portion of The Principal Director of Audit
the Accounts pertaining to Scientific Departments (Scientific Departments)
d For providing assurance regarding the portion of The Principal/Accountant
Accounts pertaining to the Pay and Accounts General (Civil Audit) in
Offices and Union Government Offices located respective States
outside Delhi

a. The Accountant General responsible for the certification of the annual accounts as a whole is
termed as ‘principal auditor’ and the other Accountants General who are also responsible for the
audit of the units of the entity are termed as ‘sub auditors’
b. It is preferable to hold meeting between the principal auditor and sub auditors for better co-
ordination and smoothening the audit process.
c. The sub auditors shall communicate their findings, together with working papers. They shall
also, if required by the principal auditor, furnish copies of their findings as set out in the inspection
reports and any management letters issued by them, together with supporting working papers.
d. For the purposes of any clarifications regarding sampling and projection of errors involving the
transactions audited by sub auditors, the advice of the principal auditor may be obtained.
198. To deal with the certification work, a separate cell on financial (attest) audit may be formed within
each Group in every Audit Office headed by
a. a Senior/Audit Officer b. An Assistant Account General
c. a Dy. AG/ Sr. Dy. AG d. the AG
199. In respect of a State Government the Accountant General (A&E) (who compiles the accounts and
prepares Finance and Appropriation Accounts) receives accounts from different sources
i. Treasury Accounts ii. Compiled Accounts
iii. Inter-Government transactions iv. Transactions originating in AG’s office
v. Finalisation of annual accounts
a. i, ii, iii and iv d. ii, iii, iv and v

c. i, iii, iv and v d. All of the above.
200. Where IT systems are used for the purpose of generating financial statements, it is essential to
carry out IT Audit of such systems. Pick the incorrect pair
Optio IT System in the Office Audit by

n
a AG (A&E) like VLC, GPF and AG (AE)
Pension
b Treasuries AG (A&E)
c Controller General of Accounts DG (Audit-CR), PDs (Central) and AsG (Audit) in
case of branches/regional offices
d None of the given
201. VLC stand for

a. Voucher Listing Cell b. Voucher Level Computerisation
c. Voucher Levelling Cell d. Voucher Listing & Computerisation
202. VLC uses the software

a. IBM b. Lunix
c. Oracle d. Unix
Answer
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
D A D B B C D A C A B D
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
B B D C A A B A B D D C
25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
A B E A C D C A C B D C
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
A B D C B C A A B A D C
49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B D A B C D B B D C A B
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72
C D B D A D C D B A C D
73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84
B D C B D A A C D B D B
85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96
B C A B D D A A C B B D
97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108
C B B A C C A B D B D B
109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
D A C A D B D C D A D B
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132
C A B C A D B D D A D C
133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144
B B D A C A B C C D A A
145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156
D A D B C C B D A C B D
157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168
A D C C D B D A C B D C
169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
B A B A C C D B D A C D
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192
D B D A B B A D C B A C
193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204
D B B D D A D A B C --- ---
Explanatory note
3. Different types of auditee entities and associated financial statement
Auditee Entity Financial Statement
Union/State/UT Government Finance and Appropriation Accounts
Autonomous Bodies Balance Sheet, Income & Exp./Revenue Account
Statutory Corporation Balance Sheet, Profit & Loss Account/Revenue
Account
Government Companies Balance Sheet, Profit & Loss Account
World Bank Aided Projects Statements of Expenditure relating to Projects
9. Transaction audit does not cover all the units of Government Departments every year, but
seeks to cover them over a period of time
14. Section 20 (2) empowers the CAG to propose to the President/Governor to entrust the CAG to
undertake the audit of the accounts of anybody or authority, not entrusted to the CAG for audit
16. Section 18 (1) of the DPC Act empowers the CAG to Inspect any office of accounts under the
control of the Union or of a State, to require that any accounts, books, paper and other documents which
deal with or form the basis of or are otherwise relevant to the transactions to which his duties in respect
of audit extend and to pose such questions or make such observations as the CAG may consider
necessary to the person in charge of the office and to call for such information as the CAG may require
for the preparation of any account or report which it is his duty to prepare
Section 18 (2) of the DPC Act requires the person in charge of the office or department, the
accounts of which are to be inspected and audited by the CAG, to afford all facilities for such inspection
and to comply with requests for information in as complete a form as possible and with all reasonable
expedition
17. The Indian Audit and Accounts Department, functioning under the CAG, derives its authority and
the powers for performance of its duties on his behalf under Section 21.
Section 22 enables the Central Government to make rules after consultation with the Comptroller
and Auditor General for carrying out the provisions of the Act in so far as they relate to maintenance of
accounts.
19. XIVth Congress of INTOSAI in 1992 was held at Washington DC and not in Delhi.
21. The Auditing Standards of the CAG of India comprise of three standards only- (i) General
Standards (ii) Field Standards and (iii) Reporting Standards.
27. The audit objective Regulatory requires that the recorded transactions are in accordance with the
primary and secondary legislation and other specific authorities required by them.
33. Only Planning materiality and Reporting materiality
38. The classification of accounts has been done into 3 classes- (i) Very Sensitive- ½ % (ii)
Sensitive- ½ % to 2% and iii. Not sensitive-2%
41. It may not be necessary to set separate materiality levels for different financial statements like the
Balance Sheet and Income and Expenditure Account. Each statement should be audited as part of an
integrated set of financial statements.
44. Planning materiality may be taken at a lower figure than reporting materiality.
45. AMLE stands for Anticipated Most Likely Error and not Advanced Most Likely Error
56. It is the primary duty of Audit to ensure that evidence is planned, gathered and analysed before
any conclusion can be reached.
63. Steps involve in analytical review are 5 in number as listed. Ensure follow up the steps is not
there.
71. The Block selection and Judgemental selection methods cannot be expected to produce
representative samples and are not generally considered as acceptable
73. The auditors may also wish to carry out 100 per cent testing when the results of the first phase
of testing suggest that unexpected errors may be present in a precisely defined group of transactions
and not irrespective of the results of the first phase of testing whether suggests or does not suggest so.
75. The extrapolation of results from simple random sampling does not in general lead to
significantly biased estimates of total population error.
80. In the eventuality of nonproduction of vital records, the audit should be called off and the matter
should be reported by the Accountant General to the Chief Secretary in the State or to the Secretary to
the Government of India in the Centre, or the chief executive of the auditee entity, as the case may be.
95. If, based on understanding of the control environment, the audit team has fundamental doubt
about the effectiveness of the accounting system or controls, this should be reported to the entity and
kept in mind while carrying financial audit
97. 4 Bases of analytical review- (i) interim financial statements (ii) budgets or estimates (iii) prior
period's financial statements and (iv) Any-other Management Information
103. Number and amount of accounting adjustments made and changes in key management and
accounts personnel in last 3 years. There are 26 plus illustrative risk indicators as mentioned in Para
3.67 FAAM.
110. One of the factors which affect the risk of financial misstatement especially in the government
accounts is the fact that there could be more than one/multiple source of funds from where
expenditures are met.
112. Such cases should also be brought to the notice of the entity’s management and not to the
notice of the AG for possible introduction of mitigating controls.
113. The six-stages are- Establish Entity Objectives (ii) Detail business / operations (iii) characteristics
Identify risks (iv) Risks screening and prioritisation (v) Assess implications for financial statements and
(vi) Determine entity management response to risk.
122. When the auditee entity falls under the audit jurisdiction of more than one audit office, the audit
planning should be carried out in close co-ordination between the primary auditor and sub auditors
including the method of sampling, materiality level and audit approach to be adopted, for the purpose of
obtaining assurance regarding the portion of the Accounts pertaining to their respective audit jurisdiction.
125. Visual evidence is highly reliable for confirming the existence of assets, but not their ownership or
value.
139. (i) Adherence to the Field Standards and policy of CAG regarding fieldwork (ii) Ensuring staffing
of audit teams with persons possessing appropriate knowledge and skills (iii) Supervision, monitoring
and review (iv) Holding of Workshops of audit teams engaged in similar audits (v) Documentation of the
fieldwork and (vi) Peer review.
142. In place of obtaining revised guidelines from Headquarters Office, it is obtaining written
representation from Management.
146. After completing the audit procedures and not at the beginning, the audit team should
prepare an executive summary of audit findings.
149. According to the Auditing Standards, adequate documentation is important for- (i) confirm and
support the auditor's opinions and reports (ii) increase the efficiency and effectiveness of the audit (iii)
serve as a source of information for preparing reports or answering any enquiries from the audited entity
or from any other party (iv) serve as evidence of the auditor's compliance with Auditing Standards (v)
facilitate planning and supervision (vi) help the auditor's professional development (vii) help to ensure
that delegated work has been satisfactorily performed and (viii) provide evidence of work done for future
reference.
151. Standing file consists of (i) the authority for the audit (ii) governing legislation (iii) organisation
chart and key personnel (iv) descriptions of accounting systems (v) manuals and (vi) systems
evaluations
153. Characteristics of a good working paper- (i) Completeness and accuracy (ii) Clarity and
conciseness (iii) Ease of preparation (iv) Legibility and neatness (v) Relevance (vi) Ease of Review and
(vii) Organisation and ease of reference.
164. The financial transactions fall within the ambit of the Vote of the Parliament or Legislature.
169. Normally, the audit certificate should be positioned immediately before the financial statements
and immediately after the statement of executive’s (directors' or management’s) responsibilities.
170. The Management Letter is distinct from and does not replace the inspection reports issued
after the completion of transaction audit.
176. Supervision ensures that (i) the members of the audit team have a clear and consistent
understanding of the audit plan (ii) the audit is carried out in accordance with the auditing standards and
practices (iii) the audit plan and action steps specified in that plan are followed unless a variation is
authorised (iv) working papers contain evidence adequately supporting all conclusions,
recommendations and opinions (v) the auditor achieves the stated audit objectives and (vi) the audit
report includes the audit conclusions, recommendations and opinions, as appropriate.
177. Only three level of supervision have been mentioned there in CAG Auditing standards (i)
Planning of individual financial audit- Group Officer>Accountant General (ii) Execution- Audit Officer >
Group Officer and (iii) Review of periodical report, monitoring and interim appraisal-Accountant General
182. Quality assurance is ‘process-centric’ while quality control is ‘product-centric’.
185. The full details with supporting documents should be furnished to the Headquarters Office of
Comptroller and Auditor General of India, while sending the draft audit certificate.
186. Unless the terms of appointment stipulate something to the contrary, it is not the audit's
purpose in carrying out a financial audit to determine whether any fraud has been perpetrated.
194. The Chartered Accountants, who act as Statutory Auditors and carry on the primary audit work
and NOT the CAG certify the ‘true and fair view’ of the accounts in accordance with the requirements
of the Companies Act, 1956.
195. For providing assurance regarding the internal controls in Treasuries, Sub-Treasuries and Pay &
Accounts Offices in cases where they are being inspected by the Accountant General (A&E), the AG
(A&E) or Sr. DAG/DA (A&E) will be responsible.
196. For providing assurance regarding the portion of Accounts pertaining to the Pay and Accounts
Offices and Union Government Offices located outside Delhi-Pr. Director Audit (Central), Mumbai and
Kolkata, Pr.AG/AG (Civil Audit) of respective States and AG (Commercial, Works and Receipt
Audit) in respective States.
197. For the purposes of any clarifications regarding sampling and projection of errors involving
the transactions audited by the primary auditor and sub auditors, the advice of the Statistical Advisor
at Headquarters Office may be obtained.
200. System in Offices of AG (A&E) like VLC, GPF and Pension is audited by AG (Audit).

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Financial Attest Audit

a. i, ii and iii b. i, iii and iv

a. i, ii and iii b. i, iii and iv

a. i, ii and iii b. i, iii and iv

77. Pick the correct in respect of Monetary Unit Sampling (MUS)

a. i, ii and iii b. i, iii and iv

79. State whether true or false

80. Pick the correct one

a. i, ii and iii b. i, ii and iv

83. The financial audit plan would contain

a. i, ii and iii b. i, ii and iv

85. Pick the incorrect one

86. The Externally aided projects follow the method of

87. The auditor's certificate is made up of two parts

90. Pick the correct one

a. i, ii and iv b. ii, iii and iv

91. Steps in planning process of financial attest audit are

92. State whether true or false

94. External IT experts

96. Analytical procedures can

a. ii, iii and iv b. i, ii and iv

97. It will usually be necessary to base the analytical procedures on

a. i, ii, iii and iv b. i, ii, iii and v

99. Pick the incorrect one

103. Some of the important risk indicators are

a. i and iv b. ii and iii

104. Which of the following is not a risk indicator

107. The levels/degree of inherent risk can be recognised in audit

a. i, ii, iii and iv b. i, ii, iii and v

a. i, ii, iii and iv b. i, ii, iii and v

111. Match the given

Sl. Risk Area Sl. Mitigating Control

113. The process for identifying material risk factors has

115. A cost-effective audit approach is one that achieves the objective of

122. Pick the correct ones

a. i, ii and iv b. i, ii and iii

126. Pick the correct one regarding reasonable audit evidence

129. Pick the correct about testing control methods

130. The failures of key controls should be reported to

a. i, ii and iii b. ii, iii and iv

a. i, ii and iii b. ii, iii and iv

138. The acid test for good documentation is that

139. Quality in fieldwork is assured through

a. i, ii, iii and iv b. i, ii, iv and v

142. Procedures to identify subsequent events are:

a. i, iii, iv and v b. ii, iii, iv and v

144. State whether true or false

146. Pick the incorrect one

a. i, ii and iii b. ii, iii and iv

149. Effective documentations

a. ii, iii and iv b. i, ii and iv

a. i, ii, iii, iv and v b. i, iii, iv, v and vi

a. i, ii and iii b. ii, iii and iv

153. The broad characteristics of a good working paper are

a. i, ii and iii b. ii, iii and iv

155. What is TeamMate?

156. Account Area Lead Schedule pertaining to financial attest audit is

158. The general principles of reporting standard are