Poultry Production Egg Weight (G) : 1 Animal Science

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Animal Science
POULTRY PRODUCTION
SPECIES POULTRY
Common Name Scientific Name Egg weight (g) Incubation Period
(days)
1. Chicken Gallus gallus Linn 58 21
2. Ducks
Mallard Peking Anasplatyrhynchos 80-83 28
(meat) Anasplatyrhynchos(itik) 60 28
Mallard (egg) Cairinamoschata 70 35-37
Muscovy
3. Turkey Meleagrisgallopavo 85 28
4. Quail Coturnixcoturnix 12 16-18
japonica
5. Pigeon Columba livia 17 18
6. Geese Cygnopsiscygnoides 200 30-31
7. Swan Olorcolumbianus 285 35
8. Ostrich Struthioaustrialis 1400 42
9. Peafowl Pavocristiatus 95 28
10. Pheasant Phasianuiscolchicus 32 23-24
11. Guinea Fowl Numidameleagis 40 28
DEFINITION OF TERMS
Poultry – a collective term for all domestic birds rendering economic service to man.
Domesticated animals are those that can live and multiply freely under the care of man.
Fowl – generally is a term applied to all poultry species specifically, applied to designate mature
domestic cocks and hens. Poultry can refer also to the dressed carcass of fowls.
Poultry species – kinds of birds that are included in the term poultry (chicken, ducks, quail,
turkeys, pigeons, geese, etc.)
Average liveweight – average weight (in live form) of chicken during harvest/market age.
Beak – the projecting mouthpart of the chicken and turkey, consisting of upper and lower
mandibles; organs of prehension.
Bill – the projecting mouthpart of waterfowls, consisting of upper and lower mandibles.
Breeder – general term that designate the poultry raiser who produces fowls for any special
purpose with the object of improving their value or in conformity with and agreed
standard of excellence, the same term can be used to mean the animals used for breeding.
Breed – a race of domestic fowls which maintains distinctive characteristic shape, growth,
temperament and shell colors of eggs produced. Breed is a broader term than variety.
Breed includes varieties, examples: Barred, White and buff varieties of Plymouth Rock
breed.
Broiler – meat type chicken commonly grown up to 35-42 days and weighing 1.5-2.0 kg
liveweight.
Brooder – a place where young chicks/ducklings are cared for after hatching until they have
grown to a point where they no longer need additional heat.
Capon – caponized cockerels; usually grown up to 4 months and weigh up to 3 kg with more
improved quality of meat.
Chicken – the most popular poultry species; different from turkey, ducks, quails, geese, etc.
Agriculture Licensure Exam REVIEW CLASS

College of Agriculture, Mindanao State University – General Santos City
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Animal Science
Chick – young domestic chicken while in the downy stage.
Clutches – group of eggs laid for successive days.
Cock/Rooster – a male fowl one year old or over.
Cockerel – a male fowl less than one year old.
Comb – made of vascularized tissue growing on top of fowl’s head. This serves as an ornamental
function, signs of status and condition of the male and for heat dissipation. The standard
varieties of comb are single, rose, pea, V-shaped, strawberry, cushion and the buttercup;
all other being the modifications of these.
Crop – the receptacle in which the fowl’s food is accumulated before it passes through the
gizzard.
Culls – old hens that have passed their usefulness for commercial egg production.
Debeaking – cutting part of the lower and upper mandibles with the use of electrically controlled
cauterizing blade having the temperature of 815°C to destroy the tissue responsible to
generate beak growth. This is done to prevent cannibalism.
Down – the first covering of the chick whose major function is for insulation.
Drake – a male of the duck family.
Dubbing – cutting of the comb, wattle or earlobes so as to leave the head smooth.
Duckling – the young of the duck family in the downy stage of plumage.
Feed Conversion Ratio – volume of feed necessary to produce a kilogram gain in weight.
Hatching – the process where the fully-developed embryo (chick) breaks out of the egg.
Hatchery – a place where the facilities and process of incubation and hatching are done.
Harvest Recovery – the number or volume of chicken sold/marked based on the number of day-
old chicks raised.
Incubation – period (in days) where embryonic development takes place out of the body of the
hen.
Layer – egg-type or dual-type 6 months old female that lays eggs.
Morbidity weight – number of chicken afflicted by disease.
Mortality rate – number of chicken that dies based on the number of chickens raised.
Oviposition – act of laying eggs.
Ovulation – mature ova released from the ovary which is affected by hormonal secretion (LH).
Plumage – the feathers of a fowl.
Poult – a young domestic turkey; the term is properly applied until can be distinguished and when
they are called cockerels and pullets.
Pullet – a female fowl 5-6 months of age intended for egg production.
Pullet duck – a female duck less than 6 months old.
Primaries – the longest feather of the wing, growing between the pinions and secondaries, hidden
when the wing is folded, otherwise known as flight feathers.

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Animal Science
Quill – the hollow, horny basal part of stem of a feather.
Secondaries – long, large quill feathers that grow between the first and second joints of the wing
nearest to the body, these are visible when the wing is folded.
Shank – the portion of a fowl’s leg below the hock, exclusive of the foot and toes.
Single comb – a comb consisting of a single, fleshy, serrated formation extending from the beak
backward over the crown of the head.
Strain – family of any variety of poultry that possesses and reproduces with mark regularity,
common individual characteristics which distinguish it from the families of the same
variety.
Variety – a subdivision of a breed, a term used to distinguish fowls having a standard shape and
other characteristics of the breed to which they belong but differing in colors of plumage,
shape of combs, etc. from other groups of the same breed.
Wattle – the pendant growth at the sides and base of the beak.
Web of feet – the flat skin beside the toes.
Web – (web of feather) the flat portion of a feather, made up of a series of barbs on either side of
the shaft.
Web of wings – the triangular skin attaching the three joints of the wings, visible when the wing
is extended.
ANSC 1 Note: Definition/identification of terms/persons

TERM or NAME DEFINITON or IDENTIFICATION
Additive effect The effect of each allele in the locus where no interaction exist
Allelic genes Genes that occupy the same locus in the chromosome
Animal Breeding The art and science of genetic improvement of farm animals
Artificial Insemination Technique of introducing semen into the oviduct without the benefit of a
male
Autosomal linkage State when genes are located in the same autosome
Autosome The type of chromosome other than the sex chromosome
Bateson, William English biologists who found in 1906 that Mendelian inheritance applies to
animals
Bases The chemical component of the gene consisting of adenine, guanine,
thymine, and cytosine
Carnivores Species of animals that live on meat of other animals
Chromosomes The colored bodies in the nucleus that contain the DNA
Cloning Process of replicating an individual out of its own body cells
Crick, Francis Proposed the biochemical nature of gene together with James Watson in 1956
Crossbreeding The breeding of individuals from one population to individuals from another
distinctly different population
Darwin, Charles Proposed the theory of evolution in his book “The Origin of Species” in 1859
DNA Abbreviation of deoxyribonucleic acid, a biochemical substance that bear
genes
Dominance The condition where the expression of a gene suppresses that of its alternative
allele
Domestication Process of enabling animals to survive and reproduce normally under man’s
care
Environment The external factor, other the gene, that affects the character of an individual
Epistasis A type of genetic interaction where a gene in one locus suppresses the action
of a gene in another locus
Equilibrium population A population in which the gene and genotypic frequencies do not change
generation after generation
Evolution The long process of change in the characteristics of organisms that result into

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Animal Science
new species
Fertilization The process of introduction of the sperm cell into the egg to form zygote
Fisher, Ronald British scientist responsible for the integration of the concept of Darwinian
evolution and Mendelian inheritance into the discipline of population
genetics
Gamete The collective term for the reproductive cells from either male or female
Gametogenesis The process of production of gametes
Gene 1. The carrier of hereditary characteristics
2. A segment of the DNA that determines the base sequence of the
nucleotide in the mRNA that makes up the code for a certain
biological function
Gene frequency The proportion of particular gene at a given locus
Genetics The study of nature and functions of genes

Genotype The specific combination of genes in the diploid phase representing a
phenotype
Genotypic frequency The proportion of a particular phenotype present in the population or
breeding group
Herbivores Species of animals that live mainly on plants
Heritability The degree by which a character is genetically transmitted from parent to

offspring
Heterogametic sex The sex that carries different sex chromosomes; e.g. X and Y in the mammals
Homogametic sex The sex that carries identical sex chromosomes; e.g. X and Y in the mammals
Hybrid vigor or A condition where the heterozygote is better than the average of the
heterosis homozygotes
Inbreeding The process of mating animals that are closely related by descent
Law of Independence In Mendelian inheritance, members of one pair of genes segregate
independently with other pairs of genes
Johannsen, W. Danish biologist who coined the term gene in 1909
Locus The specific location of a pair of genes in the chromosome
(plural: loci)
Lush, Jay American scientist who introduced the application of the various theories of
the Genetics of populations to the practice of animal breeding
Maternal inheritance Inheritance of maternal characteristics through the distinctive maternal
phenotype; e.g. lack of teats in the under of the sow could retard the growth
of some piglets
Meiosis The process of cell multiplication in which the number of chromosomes in
the reproductive cells are reduced from diploid to haploid as gametogenesis
Mendel, Gregor An Austrian monk who founded genetics through his studies on
crossbreeding of garden peas in 1865
Migration Process of movement of individuals from one population to another
population
Mitosis Process of multiplication of identical cells
MOET Acronym for Multiple Ovulation and Embryo Transfer; a process of
hastening the reproduction rate of female animals
mRNA Acronym for messenger ribonucleic acid; the biochemical substance that
transcribes the genetic code in the process of protein synthesis
Mutation Spontaneous change in the biochemical or structural characteristic in the

genetic material that results in the different biological action
Omnivore Species of animals that live on plants, meat of animals, and other food
materials
Oogenesis Process of production of female gamete
Phenotype The observable effect of a gene action
Population A group of individuals sharing a common gene pool
Random mating Process where each individual of one sex has an equal chance of mating with
any other individual in the opposite sex
Recessive The state where the expression of a gene is suppressed by its alternative
allelic gene

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Animal Science
Recombinant type A gamete that carries two or more genes resulting from the crossover of
gamete segments of homologous chromosomes during meiosis
Segregation The separation of the pair of genes in the process of gametogenesis
Selection Process where certain individuals are able to contribute more progeny in the
next generation than other individuals
Sex chromosome The chromosome that determines the sex of the individual
Sex linkage The state where a gene is located in the sex chromosome
Spermatogenesis Process of producing sperm cells
Test-crossing Crossing of an individual of unknown genotype to a completely recessive
genotype
Transcription The process whereby the sequence of the bases in the DNA is transcribed by
the mRNA in the nucleus for subsequent translation into the corresponding
protein material
Translation The process of synthesis of the polypeptide chain based on the base sequence
in the mRNA
Watson, James Proposed the biochemical nature of the gene together with Francis Crick in
1956
Wright, Sewall American Biologist who contributed significantly to the integration of
evolutionary and genetic theories into the study of population genetics
RUMINANT PRODUCTION
CATTLE
Breed Classifications:
 Based on place of origin or adaptation
1. Bosindicus (Zebu breeds)

- Adapted to tropical conditions
 Has survived to centuries of exposure to inadequate conditions such as food
supplies, insect pests, parasite/diseases and extreme weather of tropical India.
2. Bos Taurus (European breeds)
- Adapted to temperate conditions
Characteristics of Zebu breeds as compared to temperate breeds:

- Large hump over top of shoulder and neck
- Large pendulous ears
- Dewlap having large amount of excess skin
- Highly developed sweat glands (perspire more freely)
- Oily secretion from the sebaceous gland ( believed to repel insect)
 Based on type of product

- Basically, cattle are kept to provide meat, milk and labor (draft animal power);
beast of burden.
1. Beef Cattle – for eat

2. Dairy Cattle – for milk
Breed – is a group of animals having common origin and possessing certain distinguishing
characteristics which set them apart from other groups.
Zebu breeds Products

Brahman - U.S. meat, hardiness
Indu-Brazil - Brazil meat
Kankref - India draft (fast-moving), meat, milk (largest pendulous ear,
heaviest)
Krishna - India draft, resistant to tick fever
Nellore - Brazil meat (hardiness, poor range drought)

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Animal Science
Red Sindhi - Pakistan milk (hardiness, heat resistance)

Sahiwal - India milk (tick resistant, heat tolerant, resistant to parasites)
Sta. Gertudis - U.S. beef quality (5/8 Shorthorn, 3/8 Brahman)
Tharparkar - India milk, draft (white Sindhi)
Temperate breeds
Angus - Scotland meat
Chianina - Italy draft (initially), meat
Simmental - Switzerland milk, butter, cheese, draft
Aryshire - Scotland milk, butter, cheese
Brown Swiss - Switzerland milk, cheese
Guernesey - France milk (high butterfat, high protein), adaptability to
Warmer climate
Holstein-Freisian - Netherlands high-producing dairy cow (developed to make best use
of grass, the most abundant feed resource in the area)
Jersey - France milk, butterfat
Breeding Management
- manipulative skills involved in producing the desired type of animals
Breeding –art and science of genetic improvement

- attained through proper mating of selected animals
Selection – process in which some individuals are chose over others as parent of the next
generation
 Basis of selection: individuals possessing desired traits and characteristics

Beef Cattle: calf crop, rate of gain (ADG), carcass quality grade, FCE, etc.
Dairy Cattle: milk yield, milk fat, FCE, etc.
Systems of Breeding:
1. Inbreeding
- is the mating of relatives (with common ancestor within the first 4 generations)
- results in increased homozygosity (the state in which animals has more uniform
offsprings because their chromosomes tend to be more alike).
1.1 Linebreeding
- is an inbreeding practice whereby several lines of pedigree are bred back to
certain individuals
- retains the favorable genetic traits of an ancestor to its offspring
2. Outbreeding
- is the breeding/mating of unrelated individuals (heterozygosity or less uniform
offspring)
- offers opportunity to combine better genes through selection
2.1 Crossbreeding
- Mating of individuals from two distinct breeds; crossbred is the resulting
offspring
2.2 Upgrading
- Mating of an animal for an unrecognized breed with a distinct breed; grade or
upgrade is the resulting offspring
Breeding Methods
1. Natural method
- conventional use of a bull to impregnate a heifer or a cow

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Animal Science
1.1 Handmating
- A bull in good condition can serve 3-4 times/week or one service every other day
18 months old - 1:12-15
2 years old - 1:20-25
3 years old - 1:40-50
1.2 Pasture mating (2-3 months)
2-3 year old bull - 10-15 cows
9 years old bull - 20-25 cows
2. Artificial insemination
- process of inducing fertilization in female without the benefit of sexual contact
between male and female animals
- involves collection of semen from bulls and artificially introducing it into the cow or
heifers to achieve pregnancy
- requires detection of heat or estrus to determine when to inseminate
- requires detection of pregnancy to determine whether further insemination is needed
Outward physiological manifestation of in-heat animals (signs of estrus)

1. reddening/swelling of vulva
2. mucus discharges from vagina
3. frequent urination
4. restless and lack of appetite
5. mounting other animals
6. female stands still when mounted
Some basic parameters related to breeding management

Parameters Goat Sheep Cattle
Weaning age (months) 3 3 6-8
Age at estrus (months) 7-9 7-8 8-10
Estrous cycle (days) 18-24 15-19 18-24
Estrus (heat) period (hours) 24-72 18-24 8-30
Occurrence of estrus after 2 months 17 days 3-8 weeks
parturition (post-partum)
Average length of gestation 150 150 283
period (days)
Suitable age for breeding
(months) M 8 12 18
F 10 12 18-24
Male:Female (pasture 1:20-25 1:20-25 1:10-25
mating)
HERD HEALTH MANAGEMENT
Hygiene and Sanitation Program

- aimed at maintaining the contact of the animals with agents of infections, diseases or
carriers/sources of these agents
Hygienic measures:
- confine animals in suitable housing whenever possible
- ample spaces for feeding, drinking, resting, clean house/disinfect, well-drained
area
- regular removal/proper disposal of manure
- proper disposal of dead animals
- check the drinking water supply (potable not contaminated with pathogenic
microorganisms)

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Animal Science
- quarantine of premises during outbreak of diseases

- regular grooming of animals
- to remove dirt
- stimulate the skin’s oil glands
Regular Vaccination Program

Vaccination – involves exposing an animal to an antigen derived from an infectious agent so that
immune response is stimulated and the animal acquires resistance to that infectious agent
before natural infection occurs.
Group of classic vaccines according to the status of organism or bioactive agent included:
1. live antigen
2. killed (inactive) antigen
a. killed – is for bacterial vaccines
b. inactivated is used for vaccines against viruses or toxins
Rendering immunity of animals against infectious diseases:

1. passive immunization
- provides temporary resistance by transferring antibodies
e.g. colostralimmunoglobulins
2. active immunization
- is the result of natural infection or vaccination which involves the administration
of an antigen
Some Important Disease in Cattle
1. Foot and Mouth - Apthovirus types A, O, C Phil
2. Hemorrhagic Septicimia- Pasteurellemultocida
3. Anthrax - Bacillus anthracis
4. Blackleg/malignant - Clostridium chauvei/septicum
5. Tetanus - Clostridium tetani
Regular Parasitic Control Program

Parasitism - most commonly encountered in the rural areas
- most important health problem considered by small farmers
Types of parasites:
1. Ectoparasites–found in the external surfaces of the animal’s body
2. Endoparasites – inhabit the internal body organs (lungworms, liverflukes, kidney worms,
intestinal worms)
Disease prevention procedures (biosecurity measures)

1. Quarantine measures
- isolation of animals upon arrival
- strict selection of animals free from diseases
Usual symptoms of diseases:

Fever, inappetence, coughing, sneezing, diarrhea, constipation, rapid breathing or
thumping, recumbency, poor condition, rough hair coat, runting, abortion, etc.
2. Isolation of diseased animals
FEEDING MANAGEMENT
Ruminants (like cattle, carabao, goat and sheep) can subsist on grasses and other fibrous
materials. The compound stomach of ruminants enables them to utilize low quality feeds.
Rumen – fermentation vat; microbial degradation of ingesta

Reticulum – microbial degradation; aids in regurgitation
Abomasum – further digestion

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Animal Science
Omasum – glandular (true) stomach
Esophageal groove –serve as passageway of milk in young ruminants to flow directly to

the omasum by-passing other compartments thus preventing microbial action
Microbial action include secretion of enzymes that convert carbohydrates and fiber in
feeds to volatile fatty acids (VFAs lie acetic acid, propionic acid and butyric
acid)
VFA – primary source of energy in ruminants
Group of feeds for ruminant feeding:

1. Roughages – contain >18% crude fiber (CF) e.g. grass leaves of fodder trees like
kakawate and ipil-ipil, rice straw, corn stover, etc.
2. Concentrates – contain <18% CF, high amount of digestible nutrients e.g. rice bran, copra
meal, etc.
3. Feed Additives and Mineral Supplements – added to improve feed utilization and balance
the nutrients
“Shotgun treatment” – giving of mineral mixture to prevent deficiency
Ration – is the amount of feed provided to the animal in one day.
Nutrient requirements – is the amount of nutrients required by the animal to meet the targeted
production or output.
Feeding Strategy
Confinement feeding (zero grazing) – cut and carry feeding system
- lower energy expenditure for foraging
- prevents trampling on high-yielding pasture
- lesser exposure to stresses imposed by weather changes, parasite infection
Tethering
- practiced by small hold farmers
- amount of feed intake is affected by the length of rope and the frequency of
tethering which is being dictated by the amount of available forage in the area
Extensive grazing
- animals freely forage feed by itself by an area that may be enclosed by fences
Feed Consumption Capacity

Daily dry matter (DM) consumption ranges from 2.5% of the body weight in mature
animals to 3.0% in younger or growing animals.
In practical feeding, additional 10-15% of the daily DM should be given to cover for
animal feed preferences as not all the feeds will be consumed.
Feed wastage in the bran results trampling of the animal and contamination of the
animal’s excreta. Animals will not consume such conditions of feeds.
Additional feed resource:

Leaves of leguminous fodder trees like ipil-ipil can supply up to 30% of the total
feed requirement. Legume leaves are good protein sources which can replace the
use of extensive protein feeds.
HOUSING
The functions of animal shelter are as follows:

- Protection against climatic elements (rain, wind and temperature)
- Protection against losses due to theft, predators, infectious diseases and traumatic injuries
Housing design must suit the desired performance and control of husbandry and breeding
measures such as feeding, breeding and selection, reproductive events, rearing of the young and
sanitation and hygiene.

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Animal Science
In feedlot cattle production

- Structure should be built with ample space for efficient health maintenance and manure
management
Items to be included
1. Roofed, concrete floor squeeze for animal restraint
2. Flow-through configuration to minimize distance to be traveled by the animal
3. Durability of materials
Other farm structures

1. Loading ramp
2. Processing (routine operations: marketing, treatment deworming, spraying, etc.)
3. Feeding pens
 Floor space per animal 3-5 m2
 One side lined with feeding trough
 0.45 m (18 in) elevated from the floor to the through bottom
 Shallow trough floor (prevent feed decomposition)
 0.45-0.60 m width
Manure Management
 Fresh manure
 About 5% of a feedlot animals liveweight
 Which is 2x its 2.5% DM daily ration
 Contains 20-25% DM, 75-80% H2O
BEEF CATTLE PRODUCTION
Glossary of Terms
Acaricide – a substance or preparation used in killing ticks and mites
Anthelimintic – a drug administered as drench, bolus, injectible or mixed in feed to get rid of
gastrointestinal parasites
Breed – a group of animals possessing certain well-defined distinguished characteristics and
having the ability to reproduce these characteristics in their offspring with reasonable degree of
surety
Breeder Stock – animal intended for breeding purposes
Breeding Herd – these are dry cows and heifers ready for breeding
Bull – a male breeding cattle of any age
Bull herd – the breeding males used for breeding the cows and heifers
Bulling – when a cow tries to ride other cows or when she stands when others try to ride her. A
“bulling” cow is in heat.
Calf – young cattle of either sex less than one year
Calf crop – the number of calves born
Calving – act of giving birth in cows
Calving interval – the average length of time in a day between the successive calvings
Castration – removal of the testis from the scrotum or any method that would render the testis
functionless
Cattle (oxen) – general term for any class of animals of bovine family, genus Bos
Cercaria – infective larval stage of flake in the snail host
Colostrum – milk produced during the first 3-5 days after parturition which contains high protein,
vitamins and minerals and antibodies that supply essential immune bodies to the newly born
animals
Concentrate – feed which contains less than 18% crude fiber with high digestible nutrients
Conception – pregnancy
Cow – mature cattle that has given birth
Crossbreeding – the mating of two different breeds
Dressing percentage – the percent which the weight of the chilled carcass is one of the liveweight
Enzootic – disease already known to prevail in an area, either indigenous or exogenous
Estrus cycle (heat cycle) – interval from one estrus to the next estrus
Estrus (heat period) – the sexual period in females when they are receptive to mating

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Animal Science
Extraction rate – relative proportion of the number of cattle slaughtered to the total cattle
production
Fattener-feeder or steer-herd – these consist of those ready to market and the growing cattle
Feeder stock – cattle which is fattened prior to slaughtering
Feedlot – area with its physical facilities used for cattle fattening
Fertilization – union of egg and sperm cells
Finishing/Fattening – deposition of unused energy as fat within the body tissues
Flukecide – drug used as drench, bolus, injectable or mixed in feed to get rid of flukes
Flushing – feed livestock with plenty of feeds to make gain weight just before or during the
breeding season
Grassland – a land or an area which the natural dominant plant form is grass
Gestation – pregnancy; period form fertilization to birth
Grade – an animal produced by mating a purebred sire with a female of less than purebred
Hand feeding – a system of feeding wherein feeds are brought to the animals
Hay – cut and dried forage for livestock feed
Heifer – young female cattle usually under three years old that has not yet given birth
Heifer herd – composed of heifers not yet ready for breeding
Herbage – grass and other herbaceous vegetation for animal feeding
Herd – any number of cattle under one management, maintained in one premise which are
allowed to associate or come in contact with one another
Heterosis – hybrid vigor, the increase vigor of F1 crosses over the average of the parent breeds
Inbreeding – the mating of closely related animals such as brothers and sisters
Marbling – deposition of intramuscular fat
Parturition – a general term for giving birth
Post-partum – the period after birth
Pregnant herd – these are pregnant females that are normally grouped with the breeding herd
during the breeding season
Proven sire – bull which has sufficient data to show its good genetic potential and excellent
breeding performance
Purebred – an animal of pure breeding eligible for registration in its receptive breed association
Ration – feed allowance for animal for 24 hours (1 day)
Replacement stock – yearling heifer or bull raised primarily for breeding purposes
Roughage – feed contains at least 18% crude fiber and low digestible nutrient
Shrink – a loss in weight from feedlot to market. Difference in feedlot or off-range weight and
selling weight or slaughter weight (usually in percent)
Silage – any fermented feed material stored in a silo for feeding
Silent heat – condition wherein animals are physiologically “in heat” but have not shown any
visible signs
Stag – castrated male cattle operated after the secondary sex characters have been developed
Steer – castrated male cattle operated before the secondary sex characters have been developed
Stocker – cattle purchased for utilization of considerable roughage from growth prior to fattening
Tethering – restraining an animal with a rope or chain so to allow limited movement
Upgrading – improving the genetic potential of an animal by using purebred sire on native animal
DAIRY CATTLE PRODUCTION TERMS
Adrenaline (Epinephrine) – also called “fear” or “fright” hormone, released by the adrenals as a
result of nervous stimulation such as rough treatment of the cow, loud noises, pain and irritation
Artificial insemination – the deposition of semen into the reproductive tract (usually the cervix or
uterus) of the female by a technician
Blind quarter – a quarter with its passage of milk into the teat is entirely closed by a membrane
Breed – a group of animals descended from common ancestors and having certain distinguishing
characteristics not common to other members of the same species
Breech presentation – a breech presentation at birth is one in which the rear portion of the fetus is
presented (Breech, the buttocks)
Bull – a sexually mature entire male of cattle
Casein – the major protein of milk
Cattle – domesticated Bovine animals collectively
Capacitation – the phenomenon in which the spermatozoa must be exposed to the secretion of the
female tract for a certain period before they acquire the capacity to fertilize eggs

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Animal Science
Cod – scrotal area of steer remaining after castration

Colostrum – the first milk given by a female following delivery of her young. It is high in
antibodies that give the young protection from invading microorganisms
Condition – the degree of fatness of an animal. With dairy or breeding animals, fatness is
prejudicial to their functional activities
Constitution – the size and quality of the vital organs of an animal determine its constitutional
vigor. Strong constitution refers to the superior capacity of the chest and barrel, which means that
their lungs, heart, and digestive organs are well-developed.
Cow – a mature female of cattle
Curd – coagulated milk
Days open – number of days between freshening and conception; also Service Period
Dry cow – a cow that is not presently producing milk
Dry the cow – stop milking her to help her body replenish fat and protein depleted by previous
lactation
Dystocia – difficult birth where the female will require some assistance while parturition
Foremilk – the first few streams drawn from the udder, usually contains a larger proportion of
bacteria than the last milk, called the stripping
Freshen – to give birth to young and initiate milk production
Hand mating – bring the female to a male for service (breeding), after which she is removed from
the area where the male is located
Hard (and Slow) milker – a cow with teat canal that is too small or the sphincter muscle too
strong
Homogenized milk – milk that has had the fat droplets broken into very small particles so that the
milk fat stays in suspension in the milk fluid
Insemination – the deposition of the sperm in the female genital organs by either natural or
artificial means
Involution – the return of the uterus to its normal size after calving
Judging – the systematic evaluation of the good and bad points of an animal in comparison with
another according to their type or the purpose for which they are raised
Lactation period – the time for which milk is produced
Lactiferous – yielding or conveying milk; forming a milky fluid
Lactose – milk sugar. When digested, it is broken down to one molecule each of glucose and
galactose.
Mamma (pl., mammae) – mammary gland, gland of secreting milk
Mammal – warm-blooded animals whose offspring are fed with milk secreted by the female
mammary gland
Mastitis – the inflammation of the udder of mammary gland
Meaty udder – one in which the amount of connective tissue is excessive (fibrosis)
Milk – the secretion of the mammary glands that suckle their young
Milk fat – the fat in milk
Milk let-down or Ejection – the moving of milk from the lumina of the alveoli and ducts to the
gland and teat cisterns, where it may be removed
Milk secretion – the synthesis and release of milk by the single layer of epithelial cells, which
lined the inner surface of the alveolus
Oxytocin – the milk let-down hormone, released form the posterior pituitary gland after a
stimulus such as washing the udder, manipulating the teats, the nursing of a calf, or other factors
that the cows relate to milking
Pasteurization – the process of heating milk to 161 degrees F and holding it at that temperature
for 15 seconds to destroy pathogenic organisms
Pasture mating – a system of breeding the cows done by placing the bull with them in the pasture
for the duration of the breeding season
Pedigree – the record of the ancestry of an animal
Performance testing – the evaluation of an animal on the basis of its own record
Persistency of lactation – the degree to which lactation is maintained
Presentation – the position of the fetus in the uterus at the time of delivery, with reference to the
part presenting itself at the mouth of the uterus (e.g. an animal arm or breech delivery)
Progeny testing – an evaluation of an animal on the basis on the basis of the performance of its
offspring
Prolapse – protrusion of an organ as of uterus due to abnormal birth
Proven sire – bull whose production-transmitting ability has been established or demonstrated
through the performance of its offspring

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Animal Science
Purebred – an animal that meets the standard of a recognized breed and whose ancestors are
registered in the herd book of that breed (also Fullblood, Straightbred)
Quality – this is denoted by fine, pliable skin, silky hair, fine bones and general refinement. An
animal of quality is relatively free from wrinkles of the skin.
Ration – feed allowance for one animal for one day. (A balanced ration is feed that meets the
animal’s nutrient requirements.)
Score card – a list containing the systematic, logical, brief and ideal description of the different
parts of an animal with their numeric values, which always total to 100, as set forth by breeders
or their association to be the standard for the animal concerned
Service period – length of time between calving and the commencement of the next pregnancy
Settle – to impregnate (a female) of a said animal
Solids-Non-Fat – milk’s total solid minus fat. It includes protein, lactose and minerals
Strip – to remove the last milk from (a cow) with a stroking movement of the thumb and the
forefinger
Stripping – the last portion of milk drawn during milking; the highest in fat and solids-no-fat
Temperament – this has reference to nervous structure. An animal of nervous temperament is
active and industrious.
Udder – the encased group of mammary glands of mammals. Each mammary gland is provided
with a nipple or teat
Udder breakdown – a condition that happens in high milk-producing cows that because of great
stress placed on the udder, the middle suspensory ligaments can no longer hold up the udder (thus
resulting in udder breakdown)
Weaning – 1. Taking a young animal from its dam so that it can no longer suckle from the
dam.
2. Terminating the milk feeding of artificially milk feed young.
Breeds of Dairy Cattle and their Characteristics

Breed Holstein- Brown Guernse Milking
Ayshire Jersey
Friesian Swiss y shorthorn
Origin Guernsey Jersey
Holland Scotland Switzerland England
Island Island
Weight
1000 kg 839 kg 908 kg 773 kg 682 kg 908 kg
Male
681 kg 545 kg 636 kg 500 kg 500 kg 636 kg
Female
Blackish
have
Color white tips
to give
Red and
gray
white, with
Brown, the Fawn, color, or Red, roan or
red varying
shade with red tips white, or red
Black and from light or
varying small to give and white,
white brownish
from light to amount fawn or roan and
shade to very
dark of white color, white
dark
also can
mahogany
be solid
black or
white
spotted
Yearly
Very high Intermediate Intermediate Low Low Low
Milk
6580 kg 5400 kg 5650 kg 4950 kg 4650 kg 4750 kg
Yield
Percent Very Low to
Very low Intermediate Intermediate High
fat high intermediate
3.70% 4.20% 4.20% 4.90%
5.40% 3.90%
Udders Medium
Large, Small, Large,
Very large Large, strong size,
strong strong strong
strong
Ancestor Bos B. longifrons Bos Bos Bos Bos
pronigeniu and B. longifrons longifron longifron longifrons

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Animal Science
s premigenius* s s
*Because cattle from Holland (Holstein) and the Channel Islands (Guernsey and Jersey) were
used to produce Ayshire
Breeds of Water Buffalos

I. River Type – Dairy Type
Indian Buffalo Breeds
Murrah Jet black; horn spirally-curved; well-developed udder
Surti Black to brown; horn coiled down and up; wedge-shaped
Jaffarabadi Black; broad flat horns; good udder
Pakistan Buffalo Breeds
Nili-Ravi Black; small horns; lightly coiled
II. Swamp Type – Draft and Meat Type

Philippine Carabao
Thai Buffalo Black; strong; broad body
Beef Cattle Breeds

Breed Color Origin
Hereford Cherry to mahogany red, white
face, white flanks, white tails, Great Britain
crest on its neck
Polled Hereford (due to
Same as Hereford but hornless Great Britain
mutations in 1901)
Aberdeen Angus (quality meat, Scotland
Solid black
smoothness, gain in weight) (Aberdeenshire/Angus)
Gallaway Black (curly hair) Scotland (Great Britain)
Shorthorn Red to roan, white with spots
Great Britain
(red)
Brahman (hump, excessive skin
in dewlap, heat tolerant, tick White to brown, red to black India
resistant)
SWINE PRODUCTION TERMS
Anestrus – the period during which a female does not come into heat (estrus) and so will not
allow herself to be bred
Atresia ani – a defect involving a closed rectum
Average backfat thickness – the thickness of fat over the loin muscle of a live pig measured
ultrasonically at the mid-back and loin, adjusted to a live weight of 90 kg
Barrow – a male swine, castrated (testicles removed), before it reaches sexual maturity
Boar – uncastrated male swine usually kept for breeding
Conception rate – the percentage of females conceiving in each estrous cycle compared to the
number that were bred
Creep – a separate area of a farrowing pen accessible only to the young, unweaned animals and
not their dams. High protein, palatable feeds for the little pigs up to weaning is provided in the
creep area.
Crossbred – a group of animals produced by interbreeding two pure but different breed of strains
Cryptorchidism – a defect involving the failure of one or both testicles to descend to the scrotal
sac
Dam – female parent, mother of an animal
Docking – removal of the portion of the tail by cutting to minimize tail biting among pigs
Dry sow – sow which is not milking, an unbred or unpregnant female
Drying-off – ending a sow’s lactation period by weaning her piglets
Estrus (or heat) – the period of the reproductive cycle during which the female is sexually
responsive to male

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Animal Science
Farm or herd deficiency – refers to the amount of feed consumed by all animal in the herd for
every unit of live animal sold
Farrow – to give birth to young pigs
Farrowing – the act of giving birth to young pigs
Farrowing crate – a metal stall used to confine the movement of the sow during farrowing
Farrowing index – refers to the average frequency of farrowing of a sow on a yearly basis
Farrowing or litter interval – refers to the period of birth of one litter to the birth of the
succeeding litter
Feed conversion efficiency (FCE) – the amount of feed required to produce a unit of weight gain
in a growing animal (feed efficiency)
Feeder pig – a pig that has been weaned and started on solid feed and is being fed to market
weight. A feeder pig is generally older than 8 weeks and weighs at least 20 kg
Finishing – the final stage of growth of a hog prior to slaughter. A finisher pig starts the period at
50 kg and reaches a market weight of 90 kg.
Flushing – increasing the daily feed intake of gilts for 14 days prior to breeding. Flushing can
increase the number of eggs ovulated and therefore the number of ova fertilized.
Gestation – pregnancy
Gilt – a young female swine usually kept for breeding and one that has not yet given birth
Grade – a domestic animal with one parent a purebred and the other an inferior breed
Hand mating – a mating system in which females in heat are brought individually to a boar for
mating
Heritability – a portion of observable difference between individuals that is caused by their
genetic make-up
Heterosis – the increased vigor and livability displayed by crossbred pigs
Hogs – refers to a domestic swine of either sex especially weighing more than 50 kg
Hog tie – to tie together the feet of a hog
Hybrid vigor – improved performance in growth rate and reproduction seen in crossbred
individuals as compared to their straightbred parents
Inbreeding – the interbreeding of closely related individuals to preserve and fix desirable
characteristics and to prevent undesirable characteristics from a stock
Inguinal hernia – this is a condition in females parallel to scrotal hernia in boars, involving the
escape of the intestines through the inguinal rings
Lactation – milk production in sows following farrowing and lasting until the piglets are weaned
Litter – a group of pigs belonging to one gestating; refers to the offspring at birth of a multiparous
animal like swine
Litter interval – refers to the period from the birth of one litter to the birth of the succeeding litter.
This is sometimes referred as farrowing interval.
Littermate – refers to one of the piglets in a litter in relation to the other pigs belonging to the
same gestation
Litter size – refers to the number of pigs farrowed or weaned form one gestation
Litter weight – refers to the collective weight usually at birth and at weaning of the piglets
belonging to one gestation
Multiparous sow – a female which has farrowed 2 or more litters and sometimes referred to as old
sow
Open sow – a sow whose litter has been weaned but which has not bred or is not pregnant. Good
breeding efficiency depends on low numbers of open sows in the field.
Parity – refers to the number of litters a sow or gilt has had
Pen-mating – a breeding system whereby a boar is allowed to run with a pen of sows or gilts to
breed then indiscriminately whenever they come into heat. Breeding records are difficult to
maintain within this system.
Pig – a broad term which usually refers to a young swine not yet sexually mature
Placenta (after birth) – the three membranes which surround the fetuses during pregnancy and
which supply the developing baby pigs with nutrients and oxygen from the sow’s blood stream.
The fluid between placental membranes allows pregnancy diagnosis using an ultrasonic machine.
Polytocous – a litter-bearing animal which gives birth to more than one individual at a time
Pork – refers to fresh meat as flesh of swine
Porker – a young pig fattened for table use as fresh pork
Primiparous sow – a female which has farrowed only once. It is sometimes referred to as young
sow.
Purebred – a group of animals bred from members of a recognized breed, strain nor kind without
a mixture of other breedline many penetrations and possess distinctive characteristics

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Animal Science
Rectal prolapsed – refers to the falling down or slipping of the portion of the rectum form its
original position
Ridgling (cryptorchid) – a male pig with one testicle retained in the abdominal cavity that cannot
be removed at castration. Ridglings are discounted to 67 market index because packers feel that
hormones produced by the testicle might cause boar taint in the meat.
Scours – a yellow-white, watery diarrhea in piglets normally caused by E. coli bacteria.
Dehydrated piglets will die in a matter of hours if not treated promptly with antibiotics. Sanitation
and vaccination will prevent or minimize the effects of scour.
Scrotal hernia – this involves the weakening of the musculature of the inguinal ring and other
structures, allowing the intestines to pass into the scrotum
Selection – the process of choosing replacement animals for the herd based on their genetic
potential to improve herd performance
Service – the breeding or mating process
Shoat – a young hog usually less than one year old and weighing less than 60 kg
Sow – an adult female usually kept for breeding and has farrowed at least once
Stillbirth – refers to a dead fetus at birth
Strain – straightbred pigs which has been bred and selected for certain heritable characteristics
Sty – a pen-enclosed housing for swine usually made of light materials
Suckling – a young pig under the care of a dam
Swine – a term used collectively for any stout bodied, short-legged, omnivorous mammals
(family Suidae) with a long mobile snout
Terminal sire – in three-way crossbreeding system, the boar which is used last in the rotation. All
pigs bred by terminal sire are sent to market.
Umbilical hernia – this involves a weakened supportive musculature at the umbilicus, allowing
the intestines to protrude into the orifice
Uterine prolapsed – refers to the falling down or slipping of the portion of the uterus from its
original position
Ventral hernia – an inherited defect occurring between abnormally arranged or weak muscle of
the abdomen
Weaner – a weaned pig of approximately eight to ten weeks of age weighing between 15 to 20 kg
Weanling – refers to a young pig of either sex which has been separated from its mother at the
end of lactation period.
Breeds of Swine, Origin and Characteristics

Breed Origin Characteristics (known as)
Philippine native pig Small and mostly solid black
Landrace Denmark Longest breed of swine
Berkshire South Central England Black with six points
Yorkshire/Large White England (Yorkshire) Mother breed
Duroc United States (Jersey) Red power (mahogany)
Pietrain Belgium (Pietrain) Spotted black and white
Hampshire Southern England White belt around shoulder
Poland China Ohio Black with six points
GOAT
Scientific name: Capra hircus
Some attributes
 “biological herbicide”
 Browsing ability
 Diet: 40% grasses and 60% forbs (shrubs, herds)
 Bipedal stance
 Ability to nibble barks of trees
 Mobile lips (prehensile organ)
 Walk long distance in search for food
 Very selective in terms of feed preference (young shoot first is eaten)
Some breeds of goat in the country

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Animal Science
Breeds Origin Characteristics

1. Anglo Nubian England Long wide pendulous ears
Convex roman nose
Anglo Nubian USA All purpose (meat, milk, hide)
2. Saanen Switzerland Cream to white
Known to have the longest milking period
“queen of dairy goat”
Alert breed, upright ears
3. Alpine France/Switzerland Straight face; clear pure white markings at
each side of the belly; dairy type
4. Toggenburg Switzerland Erect ears carried forward; white ears with
dark spot in the middle; tow strips down the
muzzle; white from hock (hind legs) and
knee (fore legs) downward; oldest known
dairy goat
5. La Mancha Oregon/Spain Straight face; very distinctive ear types
(rudimentary); “gopher ear (like squirrel or
tortoise” and elf ear (like dwarf); dairy (high
butterfat)
6. Boer South Africa The name means farmer in Dutch to
distinguish it from the Angora goats; meat
goats; the first goat breed involved in meat
production performance testing; horned with
lop ears
7. Native goat Small, stock and low-set; believed to have
originated from Katjang breed
Some Breeds/Strains of Goats in the Philippines and their Characteristics

Milk
Mature Lactation
production
Breed/Strain Characteristics and Color Weight period
Kg/ %
(kg) (days)
day fat
Long dropping ears, Roman nose,
Anglo- prominent forehead. Color: black, tan
75 1.5 5.6 165
Nubian and white, or red and white, or any of
these colors without markings
Hornless with dished nose and erect
ears. Color: chocolate brown with two
Toggenburg 60 1.5 3.81 200
white stripes on the face and white
legs below the knees
Some are pooled, although horned but
disbudded ones are preferred. Straight
Saanen 60 2 4.3 200
nose and erect ears. Color: cream
white to white
Horned or hornless; erect eras and
French
straight face. Multicolored coat with 60 1.5 4 200
Alpine
no standard markings
Small but hardy. Color: red, white or a
Native 20 0.4 4.6 185
combination of these colors
Mixture of Native, Nubian, Jamnapari,
Dadiangas Alpine and Saanen goats. Varies in 30 2 1 190
color
SHEEP
Scientific name: Oviesaries
Some attributes:
 “biological lawnmowers”
 Essentially grazers

18
Animal Science
 Flocking instinct
 Peeking order, a social behavior related to hierarchy of dominance
 Less selective of feed offered than goats
 Can utilize rice straw
 Feed preference and digestive efficiency
 Comparable to cattle (commonly used to evaluate nutritive value of feeds
intended for cattle)
 Less efficient than goats and water buffaloes in utilizing highly fibrous
roughages
Some breeds of sheep that has been brought into the country
Breeds Origin Characteristics
1. Barbados Barbados Island Adapted to wide range of environment;
Blackbelly with African high reproductive efficiency (2 lambs per
ancestry litter)
Hair type; sweet mutton; black color
covers under parts completely extending
up to the neck and down to the insides of
the legs
2. Priangan Indonesia Primary for ram fighting and meat
Thin-tailed; often lack external ears
3. Shropshire England Wool-type; believed to be one of the
ancestors of the Philippine sheep
4. Suffolk England Wool-type; meat; dark-colored feces and
legs
5. Merino Spain Finest wool producer; the ancestor of the
Philippine sheep
Housing: floor space requirement (m2)

Category Zero Grazing Daytime Grazing
Breeding females 1.5 0.8
Breeding bucks 2.0 1.5
Young stock (up to 1 year 0.8 0.5
old)
The estimation of the floor area of the goat house should be based on the number of
breeding females with some of its parameters. This includes conception rate at 80%; kidding
interval of 8 months (or 1.5 kidding per year); an average kidding size of 1.5 kids per kidding; a
disposal age of one year for grower animals; an annual replacement rate of 20% for female
breeders; and 80% livability rate up to 1 year of age. However, the idea for possible expansion
should be considered in the laying-out of the goat house.
Example: 25-doe level

1. Breeder females (doe)
25 does x 1.5 m2 per doe
2. Breeder male (buck)
1 buck x 2.0 m2 per buck
3. Young stock
25 does x 80% conception rate x 1.5 kids per kidding x 1.5 kidding/year
x
80% livability rate
= 36 offsprings/year x 0.8 m2 per animal
= 28.8 m2
68.3 m2 - total floor area
= 62 heads - total number of goats

19
Animal Science
Feeding space – 0.4 m per animal
Fool elevation – 1.0 – 1.5 m above the ground (for ease of manure disposal)
Fencing is needed to effectively control the animals in the pasture:

Goat – 1.5 m high (made of hog wire)
Sheep – 1.0 m high (made of hog wire)
Cattle – 1.0 m high (made of 3 strands of barbed wire)
ANIMAL NUTRITION
Ration Formulation
Important consideration in feed formulation

 acceptability
 digestibility
 cost
 presence of anti-nutritional factors and toxins
Methods of Ration Formulation

 Pearson square Method
 Simultaneous Equation Method
 Two-by-two matrix Method
 Trial-and-Run Method
 Linear Programming
Ration Formulation for Ruminants

 Nutrients: dry matter basis
o Total digestible nutrients (TDN, kg/day)
o Crude protein (CP, g/day)
o Calcium (Ca, g/day)
o Phosphorus (P, g/day)
 Pointers
o Listing of nutrients requirements of animals
o Nutrients analyses of feed ingredients and cost to be used
o Usage and limitation of feed ingredients
o Check ration for each nutrient content cost/kg of mixed feed
SLAUGHTER, PROCESSING AND MARKETING OF FARM ANIMALS
DEFINITION OF TERMS
Meat Terms
Meat – the carcass or carcass parts coming from animals sufficiently mature and healthy
Beef – meat from cattle more than one year old
Veal – meat from cattle less than one year old
Carabeef – meat from carabaos more than one year old
Chevon – meat from goats
Pork – meat from swine

20
Animal Science
Mutton – meat from sheep

Lamb – meat from lambs
Venison – meat from deers
Hot meat – meat coming from an illegal source
Fresh meat – meat that has undergone any substantial physical, chemical and microbiological
changes from the time of slaughter
Meat by-products – the edible by-products from the slaughterhouse
Abbatoir – the premises approved and registered as premises for slaughtering animals for human
food
Cold slaughter – slaughtering an animal dead of some causes prior to slaughter
Fabrication – process of cutting carcasses into standard wholesale and retail cuts
Flaying –act of removing hide from animals
Corned meat – prepared meat cured by soaking with or without one or more of nitrate, nitrite,
sugar dextrose, syrup, honey with or without the use of spices
Curing – the addition of salt with or without nitrate, nitrite and sugar for the purpose of
lengthening shelf life and/or enhancing the quality of odor, color and flavor
Quick freezing – freezing products at a temperature of -20°F or lower
Green hams – unsmoked cured hams
Hot boned meat – meat deboned before the development of rigor mortis
Milk Terms
Pasteurization – it is a process of heating a food stuff, usually liquid, for a definite time at a
definite temperature and thereafter, cooling it immediately. US Public Health
recommends heating milk to at least 145°F for 30 minutes or 161°F for at least 15
seconds.
Homogenization - fat globules are subjected to mechanical treatment, which breaks them down
into smaller globules, uniformly dispersed in the milk
Certified milk – fresh milk of higher purity to be delivered to the customer within 36 hours. The
number of bacteria is 10, 000 or less per mL.
Pasteurized milk – milk heated to a temperature of not lower than 145°F for a period of not less
than 30 minutes.
Homogenized milk – milk that contains finer globules of butterfat than those present in fresh
milk. It is prepared by passing fresh milk through small openings by pressure.
Evaporated milk – fresh milk which have been evaporated to a concentration of 73.7% water. It
contains 7% protein, 7.9% fat, 9.9 % lactose and 1% minerals.
Condensed milk – concentrated milk to which sugar has been added. It has 27% water, 8.1%
protein, 54.8% lactose and 1.7% minerals.
Dried or powdered milk – milk where the butterfat is replaced with vegetable fat such as coconut
fat
Recombined milk – dry skim milk, dry buttermilk plus butter oil
Reconstituted milk – milk powder plus water
Basic Principles of Selecting Animals for Slaughter
Selecting animals for slaughter depends mainly on the purpose for slaughtering and to
the usage and cost of the meat produced.
Sex Considerations. Barrow and gilt have no distinct differences in meat quality. Boar
taint becomes apparent in 7 months of age and that castrated male deposit mote fat than
uncastrated counterparts and females of the same age.
Steers and heifers have similar meat characteristics; however steers tend to have more
marling, more subcutaneous fat and less longissimusdorsi area than heifers and bulls.
Bull carcasses contain 8% more muscle and 38% less fat than steer carcasses. Boneless
bull carcasses contain 58% less crude protein than steer carcasses.

21
Animal Science
Meat from entire is generally less tender, darker, coarser and lower in overall
acceptability than that of castrated males.
Age Considerations. The recommended ages for the common livestock for intact meat
processing and fresh meat retailing are 4-8 months for swine, three years or younger for cattle and
carabaos and about a year for goats. Meat from older animals has the tendency to be darker,
tougher, fatter and usually poorer in quality than meat from younger animals. Meat from animals
is also dark, rough-textured but flavorful and has a high water binding and emulsion capacity is
associated with high degree of marbling.
Size Considerations. The recommended slaughter weights for animals for fresh meat
retailing and intact meat processing are: for hogs, 80-110 kg and for cattle and carabaos, 350-400
kg. Within these weight ranges, the retail cut yield from different livestock is optimum.
In goats, no standard size of animals is recommended. It seems that there are more
advantages in slaughtering large animals since theses produce big and meaty cuts. More lean and
less fat can be obtained from bigger animals than from smaller ones.
Class Considerations.The different classes of swine maybe ranked from the most
desired to the least desired for fresh meat retailing and intact meat processing purposes as
barrows and gilts, stags, shote, sows and boars. Meat from sows and stags have high water
binding capacity, hence is advantageous for the production of comminuted products.
Classes for beef and carabeef include steers, heifers, cows, bulls, stags and bullocks.
Differences in carcass characteristics seem to be a function of sex, age, size and nutrition of each
class receives.
Health Consideration. Only substantially healthy animals must be slaughtered
regardless of the purpose for which the meat will be used.
Finish Considerations. ]lean meat with 8-12% fat appears to be the most wanted for
intact meat preparations and about 30-40% fat for comminuted products. A well-finished animal
should have a carcass with about 20-30% total fat, which is firm and evenly-distributed.
Management of Animals Prior to Slaughter
There are four management practices given to animals prior to slaughter. These are
fasting, allowing them to relax, handling them gently and keeping them clean as possible.
Fasting. Feed is not given to the animal, however, sufficient amount of water is provided.
Simple stomach animals are fasted for 12 to 24 hours whereas the ruminants are fasted for 24 to
48 hours. Advantages of fasting include savings of feeds, ease of cleaning entrails and
eviscerating carcasses, thoroughly bled and brightly-colored carcass, long shelf life and low
shrinkage of resulting meat.
Relaxed animal. No form of stress should be given to the animal prior to slaughter. If
stress cannot be avoided, animals must be given enough time to rest and gain their composure
before they are slaughtered. One to three-day relaxation in the holding pen is enough to remove
the effects of stress on the animal depending on the degree of stress.
The disadvantages of stress include loss of muscle glycogen, high temperature of carcass,
low water holding/binding capacity of resulting meat, low aroma, flavor, texture and juiciness
scores. If the stress given to the animal is not very severe, pork tends to be pale, soft and
exudative (PSE), however, if the stress given is very severe, meat tends to be dry, firm and dark
(DED).
Handling animal gently. The part of an animal whipped, kicked or boxed prior to
slaughter develops blood clots and red spots in the meat. These blood clots are due to the
breaking of some blood vessels in those areas. Blood clots in meat are support for luxuriant
growth of microorganisms and causes accelerated meat spoilage.
Clean animal. Good sanitation practice is best started by keeping the animal clean. One
of the worst contaminant of meat is the microflora abundant in feces.
Basic Requirements in Slaughtering Animals
Basic factors to consider in slaughtering

22
Animal Science
There are four basic factors to consider in slaughtering animals.

o Cleanliness of meat produced
o Hygiene of production
o Efficiency of meat inspection
o Adequacy of meat preservation
The Slaughterhouse
A slaughterhouse, to be considered adequate for slaughtering, must meet the minimum

standard set by the National Meat Inspection Commission (NMIC). Some of the prerequisite of
the slaughterhouse to be accredited are the following:
There must be complete facilities for the proper care of animals prior to slaughter.Lairage
areas and holding pens must be wide enough to allow relaxation of the animals to be slaughtered.
Adequate ventilation and water must be provided at all times.
The slaughterhouse should have separate rooms for the slaughter of swine and ruminants.
For sanitary reasons and to avoid contamination of carcasses, a separate area for handling meat
and offal must be provided and there must be separate equipment and implements for handling
meat and by-products. Facilities for hanging carcasses, refrigeration units and adequate water
supply must be provided. The NMIC requires at least 60 gallons per head cattle and carabao, 30
gallons per hog, 15 gallons per goat and 7 gallons per poultry head available water.
The slaughterhouse must have good drainage and ventilation, must be at least 100 meters
away from residential houses and must have adequate pollution control device. It should not be
located along the highway but must be accessible to transportation.
Classification of slaughterhouses in the Philippines
The slaughterhouses in the Philippines are presently classified by the National Meat
Inspection Commission into four categories, namely:
 AAA – Those with facilities and operational procedures so adequate that the meat
processed herein is eligible for sale in any market in and out of the country.
 AA – Those with facilities and operational procedures sufficiently adequate that the meat
processed herein is eligible for sale in any market in the Philippines.
 A – Those with facilities and operational procedures of minimum adequacy as defined by
the National Meat Inspection Commission, the meat processed herein is eligible for sale
only in the city or municipality in which the plant is located.
 Non-accredited – Those with facilities and operational procedures of less than minimum
standards that must be closed until minimum standards are provided or achieved. This
also includes slaughterhouses which do not get accreditation even if they are qualified for
it.
Slaughtering Animals
The procedure of slaughtering animals is similar for all species. It follows the same basic
principles and steps. The execution of the different steps may differ from animals and from
butcher to butcher but they follow the same guidelines. The steps in slaughtering animals
arranged in the order these are performed are: ante-mortem inspection, stunning, bleeding or
sticking, cleaning of carcass, evisceration, splitting, washing, post-mortem inspection, shrouding,
chilling and aging.
Ante-mortem inspection is determining whether an animal is fit for slaughter or not.
Healthy animals are passed for slaughter while individuals found beyond doubt to yield
unwholesome meat such as those with communicable diseases are condemned. Those which are
newly parturated, vaccinated, administered with antibiotics and other treatments are rejected for

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Animal Science
slaughter while those suffering from abnormalities and defects but have not been identified are
adjudged suspects. These are subjected to thorough inspection and normally referred to the
provincial/city veterinarian.
Stunning is making animals unconscious but not killing them. It is done to make
restraining easy and slaughtering humane. It may be done by using stunning gun or cartridge
pistol, electric stunner, sledgehammer, CO 2 chamber, or the “matador” technique, which is
commonly used in stunning cattle and carabao.
Sticking. Animals must be stuck within 3 minutes after stunning. If sticking is done later,
the animal may regain consciousness or die. If too much time lapse from stunning to sticking, the
animal develops high blood pressure and as a consequence, some of the blood vessels may break
to cause bloody condition of the meat. Carcasses must be bled by cutting the jugular vein or
carotid artery. Instant death must be avoided so complete bleeding is effected. Thorough bleeding
is effected in 3 to 5 minutes in properly stuck animals.
Cleaning of the carcasses vary within species. These are three distinct methods of
cleaning carcasses. These are flaying, scalding and singering.
Flaying is removing the hide. This is commonly done in carabaos, cattle, horses and
goats. It is synonymous to skinning.
Scalding is submerging the hide in hot water to loosen the hairs and scurf. Scalding is
necessarily followed by scraping. The temperature of scalding must be controlled at 130-180°F.
too hot scalding water causes settling of the hairs while temperature below 130°F cannot affect
the hairs and scurf. All slaughter may be scalded; however, it is not practical for the large animals
such as mature horses, carabaos and cattle. Hogs and poultry are nearly always scalded.
Singering, as a method of cleaning carcasses, is burning the hairs as soon as these are
burned. This is commonly done in goats. The carcass leaned with this method has a unique flavor
and highly suited for the preparation of ‘kilawen’. Singering carcasses can be accomplished by a
blowtorch or by burning wood or even old newspaper and/or rice straw.
Evisceration starts from the time cuts to open the carcass are made and ends when the
slaughter by-products are removed from the body cavity. The procedure of eviscerating carcasses
is the same for all animals regardless of species. During the whole eviscerating procedure, care
must be exercised not to make any cut of the internal organs. Spillage of the contents of the
internal organs contaminates the carcass. Early spoilage of the meat coming from these carcasses
is enhanced.
Splitting/Washing. Splitting is cutting the carcass into two equal parts. The carcass must
be split at the backbone, but the tail normally goes with the left side if it not removed before
cutting. Right after splitting, the carcass is washed very thoroughly and the parts with blood clots
are trimmed. Emphasis is given to the point where sticking is made. Nearly always, the point of
sticking is bloody.
Post-mortem inspection. This is inspecting the carcass for final determination whether it
is fit for human consumption or not. Several judgments are given at this point: condemned,
passed, passed for refrigeration, passed for rendering, passed for sterilization and retained. Meat
found unfit for human consumption is condemned. Condemned, as a decision, can be given to the
whole carcass or to parts. Parts on carcasses found beyond reasonable doubt as fit for human
consumption are passed, while those parts on carcasses which can be used for human food, after
heat treatment, are passed for sterilization. Meat that must be frozen before these are rendered
wholesome are passed for refrigeration, and meat that must be heated first before selling are
passed for sterilization. Meat that can be processed for animal feed but cannot be used for human
consumption are passed for rendering while those where final decision cannot still be made are
retained. This is the decision given to doubtful cases.
Meat passed for refrigeration must be subjected to a temperature of -9.5°C for 10 days if
it is in an open container, 20 days if boxed or tightly packaged. Meat passed for sterilization must
be heated to 104°C for at least 30 minutes before it is utilized for human food.
Shrouding is wrapping the carcass with cheesecloth. It is done in all carcasses except
those where the skin is not removed. The cloth is first soaked in lukewarm water and wrapped
around the carcass while it is warm. The shrouding cloth absorbs remaining blood at the surface

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Animal Science
of the carcass, smoothens external fat covering, causes fat to appear white and dense, and
prevents excessive shrinkage and oxidation.
Chilling. The chilling room where the carcasses are laced after slaughter should have a
temperature of 0-4°C (32-40°F). Beef, carabeef, and horse carcasses should be chilled for 48
hours while goats, mutton and other smaller carcasses should be chilled for 24 hours. Chilling is
necessary to firm up the carcass, allow rigor mortis to pass and inhibit the growth of
microorganisms.
Aging is holding the meat for 7-14 days at 36°F to improve tenderness and flavor of meat.
Pork is not aged because it gets rancid fast and variation in tenderness of the different parts is not
substantial.
Fabrication of Carcasses
Fabrication is cutting carcasses into standard wholesale and retail cuts. Proper fabrication
leads to the lowering of cutting losses, makes buyers conscious of what they are buying and
giving confidence to both producers and consumers.
There are four basic principles in cutting carcasses. Thick portions must be separated
from the thin ones, the tender parts must be separated from the less tender portions, the high
priced cuts are separated from the less expensive parts, and cuts must be made across the muscle
fibers. Best results in term of income and quality of cuts produced are obtained if the above
principles are followed.
Dressing Yield of Common Livestock and Poultry
Expression of animal yield

 Dressing percent = carcass weight x 100
slaughter weight
= obtained after 24-48 hours chilling without the head and internal organs
 Lean-fat-bone yield = component x 100

live weight
 Boneless recovery = boneless carcass x 100

live weight
Boneless
Dressing Lean Yield Fat Yield Bone Yield
Species Yield
% % % %
%
Goat 43 27 4.6 9 31.6
Cattle 48 34 4 9 38
Carabao 48 33 4 9 37
Swine 69 - - - 60
Broiler 70 40 9 15 44
COMPOSITION OF MEAT, MILK AND EGGS
The Meat
General Characteristics
Meat is a high quality, concentrated and easily digested source of nutrients and is well-
balanced with regard to relative amounts of specific nutrients which it contains. It is an excellent
source of high quality protein, B-complex vitamins and of certain minerals.
Meat provides satiety unequaled by other food items, it can be prepared by several ways
and it provides nutrients almost in the proportion and amount needed by the human body.
Because of its high nutritive content, microorganisms also love to attack it, hence, spoils fast at
ordinary room temperature.
Physical components of meat

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Animal Science
The basic structures that can be seen are lean, fat, bone, skin, connective tissues and
blood vessels. Some meat cuts also have noticeable bone marrow inside bones.
The lean or muscle is considered the most important among the components because of
its palatability and nutritive value. Muscle also comprises the bulk of the carcass (about 50-65%).
The fat tissues are the most variable constituents of meat. The amount of fat in the body
is markedly influenced by the diet, age, exercise and other physiological factors.
The amount of connective tissues is also important in meat because it determines the
tenderness or toughness of the meat. The higher the amount of connective tissues, the tougher the
meat is.
Chemical composition of meat

The chemical component of meat is usually presented by its proximate composition. The
proximate composition of meat varies depending on (1) species from which the meat is obtained,
(2)degree of fatness to which the animal has been fed, (3) specific cut used, (4) extend of cutting
and trimming, (5) curing and processing treatment. The following table shows the average
proximate composition of meat at different conditions.
Average values for the proximate composition of (1) lean, (2) meat cut with ½ inch fat cover, and
(3) cured, smoked ham.
Composition (1) (2) (3)
Moisture, % 70.0 62.0 42.0
Ash, % 1.0 1.0 2.0
Fat, % 9.0 20.0 40.0
Protein, % 20.0 17.0 16.0
Chemical Composition of Meat from Different Sources

Composition
Species
Crude Protein Ether Extract Moisture Ash
Pork 18.5 4.7 73.8 1.0
Beef 19.2 1.1 76.3 1.1
Carabeef 20.2 1.0 74.4 1.1
Chevon 18.6 2.7 75.5 1.0
Sheep 20.2 4.7 74.1 1.0
Rabbit 19.8 2.8 76.2 1.2
Python 21.0 0.2 77.5 1.1
Deer 21.9 0.2 76.7 1.2
Tortoise 19.1 0.2 80.0 0.7
Chicken 22.6 0.1 76.3 1.0
Turkey 20.3 2.1 76.6 1.0
Duck 19.8 6.0 73.1 1.1
Geese 23.0 3.9 72.1 1.0
Frog 20.9 0.6 77.5 1.0
Dog 19.8 2.4 76.1 0.97
Testicle 12.8 1.7 82.8 1.36
Rat 18.0 8.9 71.5 0.8
Relationship of physical structure and chemical composition to the eating qualities of meat:
1. Kind of protein
2. Amount of fat specifically marbling
3. Carbohydrates
4. Moisture content
5. Nitrogenous extractives
6. Connective tissue
7. Muscle fiber bundle
Nutritive value of meat

The nutritional quality of food protein is determined largely by the relative proportions of
the essential amino acids which it contains. Meat proteins supplemented with other proteins is
capable of supporting normal growth and physiological function of adult humans when it is
supplied in adequate amounts. This indicates that protein in meat has high biological value and

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Animal Science
the nutritional requirements for protein can be met easily and efficiently if reasonable amounts of
meat are included in the diet. Two servings of meat daily provide the entire recommended intake
of most of the amino acids that are essential for the nutritional maintenance of a human adult
man. The relative amounts of the essential amino acids in meat correspond quite well to the
relative amounts required to maintain nitrogen balance in human adult.
The essential and non-essential amino acid composition of meat is quite constant
regardless of species or cut except meats containing large amounts of connective tissue.
Connective tissue proteins have high amount of proline, hydroxyl proline and glycine and has low
tryptophan and tyrosine.
Meat is an excellent source of the B vitamins, phosphorus and iron but relatively low in
calcium. The cooking and processing of meats do not appreciably affect the quantity or
availability of the mineral elements present as long when mineral salts are added. Meat in the diet
also provides a good source of efficiently utilized unsaturated fatty acids.
The Milk
General Characteristics of Milk

Milk ranges from a bluish white to almost golden yellow color. In large quantities, milk
appears entirely opaque. Milk has no pronounced taste but slightly sweet to most persons. Freshly
drawn milk has low characteristics odor but gets lost upon exposure to air. The pHof fresh milk is
about 6.5.When milk is allowed to stand undisturbed for a few hours, a layer forms on the
surface. This layer is the cream which is composed of fat globules. Since milk is very nutritious,
microorganisms grow in it very fast and spoils it. The normal freezing point is -0.545
Chemical composition of milk

Water is the principal constituent of milk. It is about 78-88% (average of 87%) of the
fresh whole milk. Fats are also present in the form of fat globules which amount to 3-10% of
milk. Fats are very good absorber of flavor and odor and usually come into two forms: the true fat
(glycerides) and the associated substances such as lecithin, cholesterol, carotene, and vitamin A,
D and E.
The carbohydrate of milk is in the form of lactose, which is about 4-5% (average of 4.9)
of the milk. Lactose is a complex disaccharide made up of glucose and galactose. This is easily
fermented by microorganisms to lactic acid.
The nitrogenous component of milk is made up of 95% protein and 5% non-protein. The
milk has around 3-5% protein. The 78.5% of protein in milk is casein while 16.5% rest is milk
serum protein. The protein milk is considered as of high quality; almost the same as in meat, but a
little bit lower than that of egg. Milk protein is slightly deficient in sulfur containing amino acid.
Milk has 0.7% of ash or inorganic minerals. Milk is a rich source of calcium, magnesium,
phosphate and citrate.
The cow’s colostrum has 73.9% of water, 1.17% protein, 6.74% fat, 2.30% lactose and
1.0% ash, while human milk has 87.6% water, 1.2% protein, 3.8% fat, 7.0% lactose and 0.4%
ash.
Milk Composition of Different Mammals (%)

Water Protein Fat Lactose Ash
Cattle 87.29 3.40 3.66 4.92 0.71
Buffalo 82.44 4.74 7.40 4.64 0.79
Carabao 78.58 5.66 9.68 5.10 0.98
Goat 87.81 3.50 3.80 4.10 0.78
Sheep 80.60 5.64 8.26 4.78 0.90
Constituent of Milk

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Animal Science
Whole Milk
Skim milk – cheese feed Cream churn
Curd
Water Dry Skim milk Butter Milk Butter Fat
Butter Fat
(whey) drying
Butter
Cheese
Water Dry Whey Water Dry Butter milk
Contents of Constituents of Milk
Milk
Water Fat Non-fatty Substance
TRIE Fat S’d Substances Lactose Minerals Other Constituents
Several Nitrogenous Phosphate -dissolved

gases
Glycerides Substances Citrate -vitamins B1, B2, C
Chlorides of -enzymes
Lecithin Non-Proteins K, Na, Ca,
Cholesterol traces
Carotene
Vit. ADE
Proteins (casein, albumin, globuli,
proteose peptone)
Nutritional value of milk

Milk contains broad distribution of nutrients. Milk is especially rich in high-quality
protein calcium, phosphorus, riboflavin, and other B vitamins. It is a poor source of vitamin D, C
and iron.
Milk protein is one of the highest quality proteins. The only principal deficiency of milk
protein contains high saturated fatty acids and low linoleic and linoleic fatty acid.
The fat-soluble vitamins of milk exist partially in a free state and partially bound to
proteins.
There, the biological activity of the bound forms may depend on their release upon ingestion.
The Egg
General characteristics
The egg is a compact package of well-balanced food nutrients. Eggs have high protein,
very low in carbohydrate; have high vitamin A, riboflavin and vitamin D. It is the richest source
of iron in animal foods. One chicken egg weighs on the average about 50-60 grams. Calcium is in
the form of CaCO3.
Constituent of egg
The egg is basically composed of around 31% yolk, 59% albumen or white and 10%
shell. The yolk is made up of 47-48% moisture, 16% protein, 32-35% ether extract or fat and

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Animal Science
around 1% carbohydrate. The ether extract component of yolk contains phospholipids,

tryglycerides and cholesterol. On the other hand, the albumen is made up of 87-89% moisture,
9.7-10.6% protein, 0.5-0.6% ash, 0.03% fat and 0.5-0.9% carbohydrates.
The chemical composition of various parts/components of an egg

Egg Components % of Part % of Egg
Yolk 31
Moisture 47-48
Dry Matter 52-53
Protein 16.0
Ether extract 32-36
Phospholipid 9.5
Tryglycerides 22.4
Cholesterol 1.7
NFE 1.0
Albumen or white 59
Moisture 87-89
Dry Matter 11-13
Protein 9.7-10.6
Ash 0.5-0.6
Ether extract 0.03
NFE 0.5-0.9
Shell 10
Calcium 98.2
Magnesium 0.9
Phosphorus 0.9
Common Tests to Determine Composition of Meat, Milk and Egg
Laboratory methods for chemical evaluation of meat, milk and egg

Laboratory Analyses
Composition
Meat Milk Egg
Moisture Oven Drying Oven Drying/Use of Oven Drying
Lactometer
Total Solids Oven Drying Use of Lactometer Oven Drying
Ash Ignition Ignition Ignition
Crude Fat Ether Extraction/ Babcock test Ether Extraction
Babcock test
Crude Protein Kjeldahl Analysis Kjeldahl Analysis Kjeldahl Analysis
Casein N/A Walker Method N/A
Proximate composition of eggs

MC CP EE Ash
Lizard 68.3 16.2 13.8 1.7
Ants 31.0 17.4 3.8 2.8
Chicken 72.8 12.14 11.0 1.0
Duck 70.6 11.7 12.6 1.0
Tortoise 78.6 12.0 10.2 1.2
Quail 73.9 11.8 10.6 1.0
Measures of Egg Quality

1. Whole egg characteristics
 Size, shape, color, texture, cleanliness, uniformity of eggs
 Floatation test
2. Candling characteristics
 Shell, air cell, yolk, white and germ.
 Bubbly air cell – state, weak shell membrane, rough handling

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Animal Science

Air cell moves – broken inner membrane

Normal yolk – faint shadow at the center of egg

Abnormal yolk – moves freely and cast darker shadow

Old egg – floats

High quality eggs have no germ development ( blood begins to show after 48
hours at 100-103 °F)
3. Broken out odor, flavor, physical characteristics
 Normal – yolk is well rounded
 Old – flattered and spread out
 Haugh unit – height of yolk – log of albumen
Height corrected to standard egg weight of 2.03
HU =100 log H − { (G ( 30W −37−100 ) +7 g)

100 }
HU=Haugh units
H= albumen height
G= gravitational constant
W= weight of eggs
Simplified formula:
HU= 100 log (H + 7.57 - 1.7W - 37)
4. Other measures of quality
 Yolk index= measure of standing up quality of yolk
= height of yolk
diameter
0.42 – 0.4 = normal
0.25 = low
Reaction of some egg quality parameters on storage
1 Weight loos
pH value
0.75 foam index

dry matter
albumen width
0.5
yolk percentage
0.25
AGE
0
-0.25
albumen percentage
-0.5
viscosity
foaming stability
albumen index
yolk index
Agriculture Licensure Exam REVIEW CLASS albumen weight
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Animal Science
-0.75
-1
BASIC PRINCIPLES OF PROPERTY MEAT HANDLING AND

PROCESSING OF MEAT, MILK AND EGG
Meat, milk and eggs are all highly nutritious products. Being so, microorganisms thrive
on them luxuriantly, hence spoil very fast. Eggs have its own natural protection (shell) thus can
keep longer at room temperature than milk and meat.
The basic principles of handling are the same for the three animal products. First, the
causes of deterioration must not be allowed to enter or to proceed and the second is that the forces
of deterioration that were able to enter must not be allowed to grow and/ or prosper.
Causes of Deterioration
There are several of meat, milk and egg spoilage. This can be grouped into three main
categories: Biological, physical and chemical forces. Among these forces of deterioration, the
biological forces especially microbiological are the most destructive. The three animal products
contain high-quality nutrients, hence supports luxuriant growth of organisms. About 99.9% of all
meat and milk spoilages are due to microbial growth. Preservation and handling efforts must
therefore consider possible entry and growth of organisms. Controlling microbial spoilages
involved minimization of contamination and application of procedures to inhibit or prevent the
growth of organisms.
Biological spoilages may also be brought about by flies, rodents and cockroaches.
Spoilages of these kinds are however easy to control. Working in ideal rooms may entirely
eliminate insect spoilage problems.
Oxidation is a common chemical costs of meat, milk and egg deterioration. Oxidation of
the fats causes rancidity while oxidation of the color pigment in meat causes darkening. There
are other chemical causes of meat, milk and eggs deterioration, however they are not as common
as oxidation.
Dehydration and enzymatic action are two of the physical processes causing food
deterioration. These two are expensive to minimize and impractical to completely stop or control.
For any preservation method to be effective, initial product must be sound and contains low
microbial load. The method must be practical, usable and should not render product unpalatable
or worsen its appearance. It should counteract the forces of meat deterioration.
Processing of Meat
Meat processing refers to any or combination of process utilized in altering fresh meat.
There are common simple processes done to meat: Examples are cold storage, drying, canning
and curing.
Cold storage may be divided into chilling and freezing. Chilling is subjecting meat to a
temperature of 32 to 40°F (0-4°C). There is rapid cooling but there is no hardening and freezing
of meat juices.
Freezing of meat is either slow or quick freezing. The meat hardens in 30 minutes in
quick freezing. Longer time is required in slow freezing. Quick freezing on the other hand can be
accomplished by blast, deep, cryogenic, direct immersion, indirect immersion, indirect contact
and spray freezing.
Quick freezing is more advantageous than slow freezing because there is less destruction
of the muscle fibers, less drip, minimal loss of water holding capacity and flavor of product.
Drying meat is lowering the available water in meat. This can be done by withdrawing
the water, by binding the water and renders it unavailable for microbial growth. For most
bacteria, their growth is inhibited when the available water is 13% or lower.
Salting is accomplished by the addition of salt, hypochlorites of calcium and/or other
salts. Through osmosis, salts withdraw water from meat and causes plasmolysis of bacterial cells.
Salts also ionize to yield chlorine ion, which is harmful to organisms. Other actions of salts
include reducing the availability of oxygen in the moisture, sensitizing bacterial cells to carbon
dioxide, reducing the action of proteolytic enzymes and accelerating development of rancidity.
Canning is hermetically sealing of meat in a container and then subjecting it to thermal
process. All the organisms present are killed in this process and the product is considered
commercially sterile.

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Animal Science
Curing started as a method of meat preservation; however, as time went by, people
developed the liking for cured flavor. Today, curing is done more for the cured meat flavor than
for its preservative effects.
There are basic ingredients required in meat curing. These are salt, sugar and
nitrate/nitrite. There are other ingredients and spices used in curing, however, their usage are
optional.
Ordinary table salt is the major portion of the curing ingredients. It inhibits the growth of
putrefying bacteria, hardens muscle fibers and draws out moisture from the meat. Together with
other ingredients, it adds desirable flavor and texture to the meat.
Sugar adds flavor, helps overcome saltiness and counteracts the toughening effect of salt.
It is also utilize as media by some beneficial organisms.
Nitrates/nitrites help develop cured color and flavor and inhibit microbial growth.
Normal meat color from common livestock

Species Normal Lean Color Normal Fat Color Consistency
Beef Bright cherry red to dark Cream white to Firm and dry
red yellow
Carabeef Different shades of dark Flinty white
red
Pork Grayish pink to grayish White Greasy
red
Chevon Light to dark red Chalk white Brittle and dense
Veal Pinkish to pinkish brown Seldom has fat
(Cream if any)
Horse Bright red Cream to yellow Soft
Quality in meat
 The word quality in first superiority and degree of excellence
 Measures used to evaluate quality in meat
o Lean color
 Bright colored meat gives so much appeal to the costumer
 Indicates how long a cut of meat has been held on meat stall
 Exposure of meat to the air will cause the surface to lose
moisture and turn dark in a period of 2-3 days (see color
reaction)
 Improves selling or marketability of meat.
 Helps identify species of animals from which is taken
o Lean firmness
o Lean texture
o Marbling
o Age or maturity of the carcass
Milk Processing
The following are the common dairy processes right after milk collection.
Straining – right after milking, the milk is strained using sterilized cheesecloth.
Cooling milk – the milk should be cooled to 50°F or lower as soon as it is milked out to minimize
microbial growth.
Clarification and filtration – this process is done to further remove dirts, which were not removed
during straining. Clarification is by the use of the principle of centrifugation, while
filtration is using the principle of filter paper.
Separation – this is separating the cream and the skimmed milk. This can be accomplished by
either gravity method or using a mechanical cream separator.
Pasteurization – treating milk with heat thereafter followed by rapid cooling to destroy bacteria.
About 98.99% of bacterial cells die. Pasteurization can be done by either:
1. Holding process – milk is heated to 145°F (62.8°C) for 30 minutes, then cooled
rapidly
2. Flash process
a. HTST (High Temperature Short Time) – milk is heated at 165-185°F (73.9-
82.2°C) for 15 seconds

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Animal Science
b. UHT (Ultra High Temperature) – milk is heated at 192-194°F (80-90°C) for 1-4
seconds
Homogenization – forcing through small opening under high pressure. Normal pressure is from
2,500-5,000 psi. Fat particles are reduced to less than 2 microns in diameter.
Forms of milk in the market

The following are forms of milk available in the market:
 Fresh whole milk
 Whole milk powder – water is removed
 Skim milk – fat or cream removed
 Skim milk powder (SKMP) – water is removed from skim milk, also known as non-fat
dry milk.
 Evaporated milk – some water removed
 Condensed milk – more water removed + sugar
 Filled milk – SKMP = vegetable oil + vitamin A and D
 Homogenized – small fat globules (2,500-5,000 psi)
 Flavored milk – SKMP + Water + flavor
 Whey powder
MARKETING OF LIVESTOCK AND LIVESTOCK PRODUCTS
Methods of Marketing Livestock in the Philippines

1. Livestock market/concentration yards – farmers or traders bring their animals to the
concentration yards for sale. Markets usually have facilities for the care of animals. The
transactions could be: 1) Trader to trader; 2) Farmer to trader; and 3) Trader to farmer.
2. Barrio agents – perform one or both of the following: 1) Buy livestock from scattered
backyard farms and sell these to Viajeros, and 2) Act as a viajero or wholesaler and sell
livestock directly to retailers. These agents are highly especially in liveweight estimation.
3. Wholesalers or viajeros – buys livestock in wholesale quantity, transport the livestock
and resell them to wholesalers, retailers and/or processors.
4. City dealers – are the intermediaries between the provincial viajeros and the wholesalers
in the cities.
5. Retailers – are those who buy animals and sell them to consumer. These are very
common in goat marketing.
6. Contract growing schemes – there are several approaches used in contract scheme. In all
of the schemes, a mother company takes the animals produced and takes care of the
processing before final sale to consumers.
Problems commonly encountered in the marketing of livestock

1. No grade standards
2. Lack of integrated information
3. Difficulty of transporting animals
4. Cost of transportation is very high
5. Lack of suitable public transport system
Meat and Meat Products Marketing

Traditionally, the meat distribution system is multi-layered with many middlemen
involved in the whole process. The most common is the five (5) level distribution system.
Producer Barrio agent Wholesaler Retailer End consumer
However, recent trends indicate that more products have resorted to direct marketing
system in an effort to reduce or totally eliminate the middlemen involved and maximize profits.
Producers retailers

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Animal Science
- Wet market
- Institutional markets
 Supermarkets
 Groceries
 Hotels
 Restaurants
Types of meat markets

1. Retailers
a. Wet markets – are those meat stalls in public markets where meat are usually hung in
bulk and sliced only when a customer comes. Wholesalers usually supply meats for
these markets
b. Supermarket style/meat shops – are components of grocery stores, supermarket or
individual meat shops. Meats are properly fabricated and handled.
2. Wholesalers
a. Pack trading
b. Packers to retailers
c. Retail outlets
d. Institutional outlets
SLAUGHTER, FABRICATION & MEAT INSPECTION TERMS
Abbatoir or Slaughterhouse – the premises approved and registered by the controlling agency,
used in the slaughter of animals for human consumption
Brand – any mark or stamp approved by the controlling authority; also any tag or label bearing
such mark or stamp
Boning – removing the bones from carcasses and meat cuts
Bung – cecum and part of the folded colon
Carcass – the body of any slaughtered animal after bleeding and dressing
Cleaning – the removal of objectionable matter
Cold slaughter – the act of slaughtering animals, dead of some cause before slaughtering
Controlling Authority – the National Meat Inspection Commission in relation to the

slaughterhouse or establishment pursuant to PD no. 7 and LOI no. 16
Contamination – the direct or indirect transmission of objectionable matters to the meat
Cutability – closely trimmed retail cuts yield
Deputized Meat Control Officer – any veterinarian of the Bureau of Animal Industry or any
agency properly trained in meat inspection work and authorized by the controlling authority to
perform the duties of a regular
Deputized Meat Inspector – an employee preferably a Livestock Inspector of the Bureau of

Animal Industry trained in meat inspection work and authorized to do the work of a regular meat
inspector
DFD Meat – dark, firm and dry meat
Disinfection – the application of hygienically satisfactory chemicals or physical agents and

processes to clear surfaces with the intention to eliminate microorganisms

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Animal Science
Downer – crippled or weakened animal unable to stand or showing abnormal locomotion; treated
as “suspect”
Dressed or dressing:
a. In slaughtered animals except for pigs, sheep and lams, goats and kids, it means the
removal of head, hide or skin, viscera (including or not including kidneys), genital
organs, urinary bladder and feet up to the carpal and tarsal joints, and udder of lactating
animals, animals that have calved or are in advanced pregnancy; and
b. In slaughtered pigs, it means the removal of hair and bristles or skin, claws, eyelids,
viscera (including or not including kidneys), genital organs, urinary bladder, udders in the
case of lactating animals, animals that have farrowed or are in advanced pregnancy , and
the external acoustic duct unless in that part, an alternative effective form of cleaning is
carried out; and
c. In relation to sheep and lambs, goats and kids, it means the removal of the head except in
the case of young lambs, goats and kids, the pelt or skin viscera (including or not
including the kidneys), genital organs, urinary bladder and feet up to the carpal or tarsal
joints, and, udders of lactating animals, animals that have lambed or are in advance
pregnancy.
d. In relation to cattle, pigs and solipeds, it includes necessary splitting of the carcass. (To
split means to provide the carcass lengthwise on the medial line.)
Edible By-Product – any clean, sound and properly dressed edible part other than meat
- Also known as meat by-products, variety meats
Emergency Slaughter – slaughter of an animal necessitated by a previous accident such as bone

fracture, danger of suffocation, etc.
Fabrication – process of cutting carcasses into standard wholesale and retail cuts
Fit for human consumption – in meat, it means an article which has been passed and
appropriately branded by an inspector and in which no changes due to disease, decomposition or
contamination have subsequently been found
Fleece – the skin or hairs obtained from the goats
Flaying/skinning – the act of removing the hide of animals being slaughtered
Food animals – in this order, it includes all domestic livestock killed for human consumption, e.g.
cattle, carabaos, buffaloes, horses, sheep, goats, hogs, deer, rabbit and poultry (chickens, duck,
geese, turkey and pigeons)
Fasting – withholding feed form an animal prior to slaughter nut providing lavish amount of
water
Fresh Meat – meat from an animal that has not undergone any substantial physical
microbiological and chemical change from the time of slaughter
Hot Meat – meat form food animal and poultry clandestinely slaughtered and sold to the public
Inedible By-Products – all slaughter by-products not utilized for human food, also sometimes
called by-products
Inspected and Condemned – (or any unauthorized abbreviation thereof) the carcasses and part of
carcasses marked are unsound, unhealthful, unwholesome or otherwise unfit for human food;
those that can be rendered into animal feed shall be dyed (food grade blue color) and cooked or
rendered; while those unfit for both human and animal consumption shall be denatured with
strong chemical disinfectants prior to disposition as called for in this order.
Quick Freezing – freezing food items such as the innermost part of the product hardens (freezes)
in 30 minutes

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Animal Science
Reduction – a chemical reaction resulting in the gain of an electron
Rigor Caloris – the stiffening of the muscles at the inset of cooking
Salinometer – an instrument used for measuring the saltiness of sea water, sometimes used
instead of the word salometer
Salt – when salt alone means common table salt, or sodium chloride, chemical formula NaCl
Saltpeter – food grade sodium nitrate (NaNO3)
Saturation – the condition of a solution that contains the largest possible quantity of dissolved salt
- When additional salt is added to the saturated solution, it does not dissolve anymore.
Sauce – product consisting of meat and/or meat by-products which after cooking is commonly
packed into containers and covered with vinegars
Slow Freezing – subjecting products to a freezing temperature which requires more than 30
minutes for forming ice crystals at the center
Smoked Heat – the product by subjecting fresh or cured meat or dried meat to the direct action of
smoke either by burning wood or other similar burning materials
Smoking – exposing the meat to the action of smoke
Sugar – when used alone means cane sugar or beet sugar, which are identical chemically
Sweet Pickled – prepared meat cured by soaking in, with or without injecting it, curing solutions
Thaw Rigor – the stiffening of meat during thawing.

- This phenomenon occurs only on pre-rigor frozen meat
Thawing – defrosting
Water-binding Capacity – the ability of meat to retain water in a firmly bound state
Wet Rendering – same as dry rendering except that a proportion of water is added
Cured meat – product obtained by subjecting meat to a process of salting, by employment of dry
common salt or brine, with or without the use of one or more of the following: sodium nitrite,
sodium nitrate, potassium nitrite/nitrate, dextrose syrup, honey and spices
Curing – the addition of salt with or without nitrate/nitrite and sugar for the purpose of
lengthening shelf life and/or enhancing the development of odor, color and flavor
Custom Curing – curing meat for another person by charging a service fee for processing
Deep Freezing – freezing products at a temperature of -20 degrees F or lower
Dehydration/Drying – the process of reducing the water activity in a food system. This may be
achieved by removal or binding the water in the food.
Dried meat – product obtained by subjecting fresh meat or cured meat to the process of drying.
With or without the aid of artificial heat, until a substantial portion of the water has been removed
Dry Rendering – the process of cooking raw animal tissues and separating moisture, fat and
protein. No water is added.
Dry Salt Meat – prepared meat with the application of common salt with or without other curing
ingredients
Erythrobates – chemical family closely related to ascorbates, but less expensive and just as useful
for curing
Fasciculi – a group of muscle fibers
Flavor – the combination of taste, feel and smell of food
Freezer Burns – evaporation of moisture from the surface of frozen meat, which causes the
formation of a bleached, unattractive appearance at the surface of the meat
Freezing – subjecting meat to a temperature of -17degrees C (28 degrees F) or lower
Glycogen – “animal starch” that serves as an energy reserve in animal muscle tissue
Greening – formation of green color in the skin and other collagenous tissue as a result of excess
nitrite. Green coloration may be also due to microbial action.

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Animal Science
Green Hams – unsmoked cured hams

Green Weight – the weight of a cut of meat in its fresh state before curing or processing
Hot Boned Meat – meat deboned before the development of rigor mortis
Head Cheese/Mock Brawn – product made from chopped or ground, cooked edible parts of meat
or meat by-products
Immersion Cure – cuing by a cover pickle
Injection Cure – stitch pumping, needling of curing ingredients to meat
Light Fading – the fading of surface color of cured meat with spice and/or cereals with or without
milk and/or eggs, pressed into a form of a loaf and cooked
Meat Processing – all processes utilized in altering fresh meat, except for simple grinding cutting
or mixing
Mycostat – a substance that reduces or stops the growth of molds
Nitrate – any one of a number of crystalline salts containing along with a metallic constituent, the
chemical radical NO3. Many nitrates are poisonous. The only two that are permitted in meat
curing are the sodium nitrate and potassium nitrate. In the cure, this must be first converted to
nitrite.
Nitric Oxide – chemical compound NO, the active part of nitrite which combines with myoglobin
to produce the cured meat reaction
Nitrite - any one of a number of crystalline salts containing along with a metallic constituent, the
chemical radical NO2. Many nitrites are poisonous. The only two that are permitted in meat
curing are the sodium nitrite and potassium nitrite.
Nitrite Burns – discoloration as a result of too much nitrite or oxidation of the cured fixed
pigment. This usually results in the browning of the muscle
Nitrosohemochrome – the pink pigment of the cured meat resulting from the combination of
myoglobin with nitrite oxide and heat
Overhaul – the rehandling or repacking of meat in cure to permit a more uniform distribution of
curing ingredients
Oxidation – a chemical reaction resulting in the loss of an electron
pH – a measure of the acidity of a substance on a 1 to 14 scale. 1 is very acid, 7 is neutral and 14
is very basic
Phosphate – oxygen compound of phosphorous
Pro-oxidant – anything that will speed up oxidation, particularly the oxidation that result in
rancidity of the fat
Potted Meat/Devilled Meat – the product obtained by comminuting and cooking fresh meat
and/or prepared meat with or without spice, it is usually packed in hermetically sealed containers.
Preblending – the grinding an mixing of separate meat ingredients with part or all of the cure (salt
and nitrate/nitrite) in proportion to the amount of meat
Prepared Meat – meat obtained by subjecting it to any process of curing, smoking, drying,
comminuting, cooking, seasoning or any combination of the above processes
Protein Denaturation – molecular change of protein brought about by pH hydrogen bonding
agents, thermal energy and hydrogen bond-disrupting reagents. Protein losses some or all of its
biological functions.
Pumping – the forcible introduction of pickle into a ham by means of a ham pump
Quick Cure – a term applied to a pickle containing sodium nitrite or a combination of nitrite and
nitrate
Kalberwurst – a product consisting of fresh whole milk added to ground veal in a beef casing. It
contains enough whole meat to give it a moisture content of about 30%. However, kalberwurst
should be considered on the same basis as Bockwurst, with no limit to water or milk.
Kielbasa – a cooked sausage of Polish origin made with coarsely ground pork or finely ground
beef, which is highly seasoned and stuffed in a casing (natural or artificial)
Kippered Beef – a cured or partially dried beef with some similarities to Beef Jerkey, but not as
dry, with M/P ratio of 2, 03:1
Knackwurst, Knockwurst, Knockblauch – synonymous names for a cooked, smoked sausage that
is similar to wieners except for its size and the fact that the meat is more finely ground. It is
composed of beef, pork and seasonings and garlic and those used in franks and bologna and is
characterized by its large size and short links.
Kobasica – Croatian term for sausage of the cooked and/or smoked variety
Korv – Swedish for sausage
Kosher – regardless of qualifications, may be used only in the labeling of meat and poultry
products under rabbinical supervision. Application for approval of labeling bearing the word
Kosher must identify the rabbinical authority under whose supervision the product is produced.

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Animal Science
Krakow – a cooked and smoked sausage of Polish origin, male with pork finely chopped and
seasoned
Meat block –the amount of meat utilized to make a specific sausage batch
Mix Cure – curing ingredient or reagents that contain nitrate and nitrite
Natural Casing – materials with which the sausage are stuffed; made of natural sources such as
intestines of swine, cattle, carabaos and others
Off-Conditioned Meat – spoiled meat
Over-Chopping – excessive chopping of sausage emulsion during preparation, principally the
fatty materials, resulting in the production of unstable emulsions
Partially Defatted Tissue – beef or pork tissue subjected to low temperature rendering to remove
fat but not denature the protein
Peelability – the removal of non-edible casings from sausages
Sausage Mix – raw, coarsely comminuted sausage showing discrete particles of lean and fat
Seasoning – any ingredient which by itself or, in combination, adds flavor to a product
Short Meat – meat which has lost its binding qualities; usual cause is over cutting or excessive
heating during comminution
Skinless Sausage – a sausage product processed in non-edible casing which are removed prior to
the consumption of the sausage
Stabilizers – substances which act as water binders to strengthen basically unstable emulsions by
producing interfacial films between two emulsion phases
Stuffing – the act of placing sausage mixtures into casings
CURING & MEAT PRESERVATION TERMS
Antioxidant – anything that will retard oxidation, particularly the oxidation of fats, which results
in rancidity
Ascorbates – chemicals of the vitamin C family used to speed up formation of the cure color and
to prevent cure color form fading
Artery Cure – injection of cure into femoral artery of ham and humeral artery in the shoulder
Bacteriostat – any substance that will stop or reduce the growth of bacteria
BHA – Butylated hydroxyl anisole. A popular antioxidant
BHT – Butylated hydroxul toluene. A popular antioxidant used for meat products
Blast Freezing – freezing products where forced draft is used
Brawn – product made from chopped or ground and cooked edible part of swine, chiefly form the
head, beef and/or legs, with or without the chopped or ground tongue
Brine – a solution of common salt in water. The strength of brine is measured by the proportion
of salt and water without regard to the amount of other substances present
Brine Tester – a graduated hydrometer, or float, that shows on a scale of strength of brine; often
called a salometer
Canadian Style Bacon – cured pork loin muscle specifically the longissimus dorsi muscle
Canned Meat – fresh or prepared meat packed in hermetically sealed containers with or without
subsequent heating for the purpose of sterilization
Chemical Fading – discoloration as a result of oxidizing chemicals applied to the surface of the
cured meat
Chilling – subjecting meat to a temperature of 0-10 degrees C (32 to 50 degrees F) but best done
at a temperature of 2.4 degrees C (36 degrees F)
Contractile Proteins – salt soluble, heat coagulable proteins, principally myosin, actin and
tropomyosin that are important to binding cure meat altogether. These are sometimes simply
called “myosin”.
Corned Meat – prepared meat cured by soaking with or without injecting into it a solution of
common salt with or without one or more of nitrate/nitrite, sugar, dextrose, syrup, honey and with
or without the use of spices
Cover Pickle – the pickle in which the ham is cured
Feathering – intermingling of lean and fat in the intercoastal masculator
Finish – the amount, character and distribution of fat in the carcass. It includes inter and
intramuscular, subcutaneous and seam fat
Gilts – female swine that has not given birth
Grade Factor – a parameter or characteristic of carcass evaluated for the determination of grade
Grading – classifying heterogeneous goods in to homogenous groups on the basis of
characteristics that buyers and sellers take into consideration when negotiating the terms of sale

38
Animal Science
Heifers – female cattle that has not given birth

Loin Eye Area/Rib Eye Area – the cross-sectional area of the longissimus dorsi muscle of
pork/beef
Marbling – intermingling of lean and fat in the muscles; intramuscular fat
Quality – degree of excellence of a product
Ribbing – cutting of the carcass between the 12 th and 13th rib for the purpose of exposing the rib
eye area (loin eye area)
Sample Joint – a part of the carcass which may be used to represent the whole carcass in terms of
yield and quality estimates)
Seam Fat – intermingling of lean and fat in the meat; intermuscular fat
Shotes or Shoats – swine which are considered too big to be weanlings but too small to be
considered regular slaughter stock. They range in weight from 20 to 60 kilograms.
Sow – female swine that has given birth
Stags – swine, cattle and carabao that has been castrated after the development of the secondary
sex organs
Steers – castrated while young; castrated before the development of the secondary sex
characteristics
Two-toned – a condition wherein one muscle exhibits two color shades. This is usually evaluated
at the longissimus dorsi muscle
Vealer – young cattle which are less than one year old and have largely subsisted on milk and
other concentrates. Usual age for vealers is 3 months.
SAUSAGE TERMS
Added Water – percentage of excess moisture, after multiplying the percent protein content of
sausages by 4
Artificial casing – materials for stuffing sausages and which are synthetically produced; e.g.
regenerated collagen, plastic casing, etc.
Bind – the water retention capability of lean meat or the cohesion of the exposed surface of two
or more chunks
Binding – a ability of sausage emulsion components to emulsify fat, as well bind water
Borderline Formulation or Emulsion – sausage formulation or emulsion that is extremely
subjected to emulsion breakdown
Case Hardened – a hardened outer surface or crust; an undesirable condition sometimes
associated with the manufacture of dry sausages
Cervelat – a general classification of semi-dry sausages but may refer to dry sausages as well
Cold or Cool Smoking – the application of smoke to meat products in a smokehouse that is not
heated above 38 degrees C or 100 degrees F
Comminution – the cutting of meat into small particles
Emulsatator – the generic term for all emulsification machines such as sausage cutters and
emulsion mills
Emulsifiers – materials that have the ability to coat fat globules and contribute to the formation of
stable emulsions
Emulsifying Capacity – the ability of both meat and non-meat additives to emulsify fat and bind
moisture
Emulsifier Efficiency – the ability of one emulsifier to satisfactorily stabilize on one emulsion at
a lower concentration than another
Emulsions – a multiple phase system consisting of a dispersion of solids in a liquid where
dispersion is not completely homogenous
Emulsion Breakdown – the separation of components making up emulsion when separation
occurs during cooking as in the usual case, breakdown products are fat, gelatin and moisture
Emulsion Mill – a continuously-fed machine used to comminute sausage meats; usually
emulsions are first comminuted in a grinder or sausage cutter
Emulsion Stability or Instability – the ability or inability of a sausage emulsion to emulsify fat
and bind moisture
Extenders – any non-meat product with the exception of water and salt, which is added to sausage
in sufficient quantity to contribute materially to sausage bulk or composition
Fat Cap – the accumulation of unbound fat at the end of finished sausages
Fillers – anything added to meat formulation and which adds bulk to the product
First and Second Tie – the first tie is the closure string or metal strip applied to the casing prior to
stuffing; the second tie is the closure applied after the casing has been stuffed

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Animal Science
Free Fat – unemulsified fat resulting from emulsion breakdown

Hard Sausage – dry sausages
CARCASS EVALUATION TERMS
Barrows – male swine castrated before the development of the secondary sex organs
Boars – male uncastrated swine
Boneless Recovery – the yield of the carcass devoid of bones
Bull – uncastrated male cattle
Calves – cattle less than 1 year old
Carcass Evaluation – assessment of the value of an animal
Conformation – the form, shape or general outline of the side or whole carcass
Cow – female cattle that has given birth
Dressing Percent/Dressing Recovery – percent yield of the carcass; carcass weight divided by the
slaughter weight multiplied by 100
Inspected and Passed – (or any authorized abbreviation thereof). The carcasses or parts of
carcasses so marked have been inspected and passed under these regulations, and at the time they
were inspected, passed and so marked, they were found to be sound, healthful, and wholesome
and fit for human food.
Lean Cuts – cuts of pork composed of the loin, ham and shoulder
Meat – the carcass or carcass part coming from animals sufficiently mautre and healthy
Meat Control Officer – a veterinarian of the National Meat Inspection Commission properly
trained and duly appointed by the Secretary of Agriculture in accordance with law
Meat Handling – includes slaughter, preparation, inspection, cutting, packaging, preservation, etc.
of meat
Meat Inspector – a properly trained officer appointed or deputized by the National Meat
Inspection Commission for the purpose of meat inspection and supervision of meat hygiene and
preservation
Meat Specialties/Variety Meats – edible by-products, meat by-products
NMIC - National Meat Inspection Commission
Offal – the by-products, organs, glands and tissues other than meat of the food animal. Such offal
in slaughtered animals may or may not be edible.
Passed for Rendering – the carcasses or parts of carcasses that may be converted to animal feed
after sufficient hat treatment
Passed for Sterilization – the carcasses or parts of carcasses so marked, inspected and passed for
food, subject to the condition that these must be sterilized by steaming in an appropriate
apparatus or by boiling in an open kettle
Post Abbatoir Handling – in meat inspection, the handling of meat as it is prepared and leaves the
abbatoir for the meat markets, processing plants, cold stores, etc.
Potable Water – water that is pure and wholesome at the point of usage with WHO requirements
contained in the International Standards for Drinking Water
Primal Cuts – cuts of pork composed of the loin, ham, belly and shoulder
PSE Meat – pale, soft and exudative meat
Reactor – any animal, which after the application of a specific test shows evidence of that disease
Residues – any foreign substances including metabolites, therapeutic or prophylactic agents
which are objectionable or a hazard to human health, remaining in “slaughter animals” prior to
slaughter or in any of the tissues after slaughter, either as a result of treatment or accidental
exposure
Retained – when the carcasses, viscera, parts of the carcasses, meat or other article so marked or
identified, are held for further examination by an inspector to determine their final disposal
Retail cuts – cuts of meat handled in small quantities and which may be prepared for the table
without further cutting or trimming
Rigor Mortis – the stiffening of the muscles after an animal dies, believed to be due to muscle
contraction
Ripening, Aging or Controlled Deterioration – practice of storing meat at a temperature of 32-40
degrees F in order to improve tenderness and flavor
Shrouding – the wrapping of a beef or carabeef carcass with cheese cloth or its equivalent soaked
in lukewarm water
Singering – application of flame to a carcass for the purpose of burning the unscraped and
unshaved hairs and killing some of the microorganisms at the surface
Skirt/Giblets Meat – the diaphragm muscles

40
Animal Science
Slaughter – the killing of food animals in accordance with approved meat inspection and
regulation
Stunning – process of making animals unconscious prior to bleeding
Suspect – animals suspected of being affected with a disease or a condition which may require
their condemnation, in whole or in part and when slaughtered, are subject to further examination
to determine their disposal
Tripe – the reticulum, rumen and omasum of compound stomach animals
Variety Meat – meat by-products, edible by-products
Wessand – the esophagus, including the muscles surrounding it, of cattle and/or carabao
Wholesale Cuts – meat cuts that are handled in bulk and usually required further cutting before
these are prepared for the table
ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF FARM ANIMALS
SKELETAL SYSTEM
BONES
 A highly specialized supportive tissue which is characterized by its rigidity and hardness
 Four main functions are:
 to provide mechanical support (e. g. ribs)
 to permit locomotion (e. g. long bones)
 to provide protection (e. g. skull)
 to act as metabolic reservoir of minerals
Composition:
1. Cells: The bone is composed of four cell types
a) Osteogenic cells
 Mesenchymal cells
 Located in the inner layer of the periosteum (fibrous membrane that covers the
surface of the bone) and by differentiation, they give rise to osteoblasts.
b) Osteoblasts
 These are bone-secreting cells.
 During bone formation, they first secrete the amorphous and fibrous (collagen)
components of unmineralized bone, and later they deposit their stored calcium to
mineralize or harden the bone.
 They line the trabecular (bone material) surfaces of the bone.
c) Osteocytes
 Mature bone cells that stop secreting the bone substance.
 They are actually osteoblasts which have been trapped in spaces called lacunae in
the bone substance during mineralization.
 Their main function is to maintain the integrity of the bone by supplying nutrient
derived from the blood vessels in the canaliculi.
d) Osteoclasts
 Believed to rise from the fusing of the osteocytes
 Remodeling cells which are multinucleated in structure and located in a
concavity called the Howship’s lacuna at the bone surface.
2. Osteoid: a non-mineral matrix of collagen and glycosaminoglycan.
3. Inorganic mineral salts deposited within the matrix.
Types of Bones:
 Bone is classified into two types based on the frequency of appearance of interosseous
spaces.
 Interosseous spaces – is the space between adjacent trabeculae.
 Trabeculae – a portion of the bone substance which is also called the bone spicule.
1. Cancellous Bone (Spongy Bone) –consisting of few trabeculae and many of the
interosseous spaces.

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Animal Science
2. Compact Bone (Lamellar Bone) – consists of extensive lamellae and fewer interosseous
spaces. This bone develops into existing trabeculae to form layers called lamellae.
Osteon or Haversian System

 Basic unit structure of a compact bone
 Circular structure composed of a central canal called the Haversian canal surrounded by
concentric layers (lamellae) of bone substance
 Embedded in the lamellae are the bone caniculi containing the cytoplasmic process of the
osteocytes
 The Haversian canal connects a transversely positioned Volksmann’s canal.
Osteogenesis
 The process by which bone is formed through the secretory activity of the osteoblasts
 In embryo, it occurs in two ways:
1. Intramembranous Ossification: bone develops in pre-existing mesenchymal
connective tissue (bones of this type are called membrane bones)
2. Endochondral Ossification: bones that develop from pre-existing cartilage (e. g. long
bones like femur and humerus). This type of bone growth is responsible for the
longitudinal growth of bones.
Epiphyseal Plate (Epiphyseal Line)

 Site of bone growth as seen in long bones
 Composed of different zones
a) zone of growth
b) zone of cartilage transformation
c) zone of ossification
CLASSIFICATION OF BONES BASED ON GROSS APPEARANCE

1. Long bones – great dimension
e.g. Forelimb = humerus, radia, ulna, metacarpals, phalanges
Hind limb = femur, tibia, fibula, metatarsals, phalanges
Functions: a. acts as levers
b. for support, locomotion
2. Short bones – cuboids or equal shape

e.g. carpals, tarsals
Function: absorbs concussion
3. Flat bones – thin and expanded
e.g. skull, ribs, scapula, pelvic bones
Functions: a. protects vital organs (e.g. brain, lungs)
b. provide areas for muscle attachment
4. Sesamiod bones – sesame-seed shape
 develops along the course of tendons
e.g. patella
Functions: a. reduce friction
b. change the course of tendons
5. Irregular bones – unpaired bones in median plane
e.g. vertebral column, some bones of the skull
Functions: a. for protection and support
b. for muscle attachment
6. Pneumatic bones – presence of air spaces or sinuses that communicate with the exterior
e.g. flying birds, maxillary and frontal bones
Axial Skeleton – includes all bones except those of the limbs or appendages
 composed of the skull, vertebrae and ribs
Appendicular Skeleton – made up of bones of the limbs

 bones in the front (pectoral) limbs and bones of the hind (pelvic)
limbs

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Animal Science
HORMONES OF THE HYPOTHALAMUS AND PITUITARY GLANDS

Locomotion Hormone Site of Action Biological Activity
Hypothalamus Gonadothropin Releasing Anterior Pituitary Release LH and
Hormone (GNRH) FSH
Thyrotropin Releasing Hormone Anterior Pituitary Release TSH
(TRH)
Corticotrophin Releasing Anterior Pituitary Release ACTH
Hormone (CRH)
Somatotrophin Releasing Anterior Pituitary Release STH
Hormone (STH- RH)
Somatotrophin Releasing – Anterior Pituitary Inhibits STH Output
Inhibiting Hormone (STH- RIH)
Prolactin Inhibiting Hormone Anterior Pituitary Inhibits Prolactin
(PIH) Output
Prolactin Releasing Hormone Anterior Pituitary Release Prolactin
(PRH)
Adenophysis Somatotrophin (STH, GH) General Soma Body growth (bone,
Pars muscle, organ),
Distalis(Interme Protein synthesis,
diate lobe) Carbohydrate
metabolism,
Regulation of renal
function (GFR), and
water metabolism,
increase cell
permeability to
amino acids,
lactation facilitation
Adrenocoticotrophic Hormone Adrenal Cortex Maintenance of the
(ACTH, Coticotrophin) structural integrity
of the adrenal
cortex, regulation of
the glucocorticoid
secretion of the zona
fasciculate
Thyrotropin Hormones Thyroid Maintenance of the
normal structure and
function of the
thyroid gland,
Production of
thyroxin and
analogues
Prolactin (Lactogenic Hormone) Mammary Glands Possible favoring
lactation
Gonadotropins
Follicle-Stimulating Hormone Ovary Growth and
maturation of
ovarian follicle
Testis Germ-cell
(Seminiferous production
tubules) (spermatogenesis)
Interstitial Cell Stimulating Ovary Synergistically with
Hormone (ICSH, LH) FSH causing
estrogen secretion,
follicle maturation
and ovulation,
Corpus luteum
development in
some species
Testis (Leydig Stimulation of
cells) interstitial tissue

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Animal Science
androgen secretion
Pars Intermedin ( Melanocyte- Melanophore cells Melanophore-
Intermedia(Inter stimulating Hormone, MSH) of amphibia and expanding activity
mediate lobe) reptiles with resultant skin
color (in mammals,
negligible
importance)
Neurohypophysi Antidiuretric Hormone (ADH, Renal Tubules Regulation of water
s Vassopressin) (distal convoluted) excretion by
reabsorption of
water. Pressor effect
only in high dose
Oxytocin Hormone Mammary Letdown of milk by
myoepithelium contraction of
myoepithelium
Uterine Contraction of
myometrium uterine musculature
to aid parturition and
sperm transport
NON-PITUITARY HORMONES
GLAND HORMONE SOME PRINCIPAL FUNCTION AND
EFFECTS
Thyroid Thyroxin (T4) and Increase BMR, O2 consumption, growth,
Triiodothyronine (T3) maturation and function of cells
Parathyroid Parathyroid Hormone Calcium and Phosphorus metabolism via
(PTH), Parathormone skeleton and/or kidney
Islets of Insulin Lower blood glucose by storage or utilization,
Langerhans Also fat and storage metabolism
Glucagon Elevated blood glucose by favoring liver
glycogenolysis
Adrenal Medulla Epinephrine Glycogenolysis to raise blood glucose
Norepinephrine Increase cardiovascular function. Pressor
effects mainly
Adrenal Cortex Glucocorticoids (Cortisol, Gluconeogenesis, Decrease peripheral glucose
cortisone, corticosterone) utilization, Anti-inflammatory effect, Anti-
allergic effect, Euphoric effect
Aldosterone Electrolyte and water metabolism
Ovary Estrogen (estradiol, Development, maintenance and cyclic changes
estrone, others) of female tubular genital tract, Glandular tract
development of mammary and uterus,
Secondary sex characteristics, Behavior,
Accessory sex organs, Calcium and fat
metabolism of birds
Progesterone With estrogens develop uterus for implantation
and pregnancy maintenance, Mammary and
uterine gland development
Relaxin Dissolution of symphysis pubis and relaxes the
pelvic tissues
Testis Testosterone Development of accessory sex organs and
secondary sex characteristics, Behavior,
Spermatogenesis, Anabolism
Placenta Chorionic Gonadotropin Mainly LH-like although FSH-like properties
(hCG, primates)
Gonadotropin (PMSG Mainly FSH-like although LH-like properties
equine only)
Estrogen Like ovary source
Progesterone Like ovary source
Relaxin Like ovary source
Many Tissues Prostaglandin Many effects such as labor induction, abortion,

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Animal Science
CL induction, gastric secretion, bronchial

dilation, vasodilation, diuresis, GI motility,
sweating
Glucose Homeostasis
Blood Islet of Glucagon

Glucose Langerhans
(α-cells)
Liver
(Glycogen)
Glucose
Blood Islet of Insulin
Glucose Langerhans
(β-cells)
Glucose Uptake
Liver and other cells
Calcium Homeostasis
Blood Parathyroid Parathormone

Calcium Gland PTH

Bone Kidney
(release (reabsorbs
stored Ca++)
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Animal Science
Thyroid Calcitonin
Blood
Gland
Calcium
Inhibit Ca++
reabsorption at
Deposition of Ca+ kidney
+
In the bone
Regulation of H2O Balance by ADH
Excess H2O Ingested
ECF Osmolarity (INC H2O Conc.)
Decrease ADH Secretion (PP)
Decrease H2O Reabsorbed
Increase Water Excreted
Hormonal Control of Testicular Function
HYPOTHALAMUS
(-)
Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone

(GnRH)
ANTERIOR PITUITARY
(-) (-)
FSH LH
Sertoli Interstitia
Cell l
Cells

Inhibit Stimulate Testosterone
Sperm
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Animal Science
Regulation of H2O Balance by ADH
Decrease Plasma Volume
Venous Left Atrial Pressure
Increase ADH Secretion (PP)
Increase Tubular Permeability
Decrease H2O Excretion
GENETICS AND ANIMAL BREEDING
DEFINITION/IDENTIFICATION OF TERMS/PERSONS
Additive effect – The effect of each allele in the locus where no interaction exists
Allelic genes – Genes that occupy the same locus in the chromosome
Animal Breeding – The art and science of genetic improvement of farm animals
Artificial Insemination – Technique of introducing semen into the oviduct without the benefit
of the male.
- Effective if the superior animal is the male
Autosomal Linkage – State when the genes are located in the same autosome
Autosome – The type of chromosome other than the sex chromosome
Bateson, William – English biologist who found in 1906 that Mandelian inheritance applies
to animals
Bases – The chemical component of the gene consisting of adenine, guanine, thymine, and
cytosine

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Animal Science
Carnivores – Species of animals that live on meat of other animals
Chromosomes – The colored bodies of the nucleus that contain the DNA
Chromosome number – diploid (2n) complement; haploid (n) complement; composed of

autosomes and sex chromosomes
Cloning – Process of replicating an individual out of its own body cells
Crick, Francis –Proposed the biochemical nature of the gene together with James Watson in
1956
Crossbreeding – The breeding of individuals from one population to individuals from another
distinctly different population
Darwin, Charles – Proposed the theory of evolution in his book “The Origin of Species” in
1859
DNA – Abbreviation of deoxyribonucleic acid, a biochemical substance that bear the genes
Dominance – The where the expression of the gene suppresses that of it alternative allele
Domestication – Process of enabling animals to survive and reproduce normally under man’s
care
Environment –The external factor, other than the gene, that affects the character of an
Individual
Non-genetic; modifies phenotypic expression; nutrition, climate, management,
season, housing, etc .
Epistasis – A type of genetic interaction where a gene in one locus suppresses the action of a
gene in another locus
Equilibrium Population – A population in which the gene and genotypic frequencies do not
change generation after generation
Evolution – The long process of change in the characteristics of organisms that result into
new species
Fertilization – The process of introduction of the sperm cell into the egg to form a zygote
Fisher, Ronald – British scientist responsible for the integration of the concept of Darwinian
evolution and Mendelian inheritance into the discipline of population genetics
Gamete – The collective term for the reproductive cells from either the male or female
Gametogenesis – The process of production of gametes
Gene – The carrier of hereditary characteristics

 A segment of the DNA that determines the base sequence of the
nucleotide in the mRNA that makes up the code for a certain
biological function
 Occurs in pairs
 Coined by Johannsen
 Helical structure by Crick and Watson
 Located in the chromosomes
 Located in the sex chromosomes
Gene frequency – The proportion of a particular gene at a given locus
Gene function – Copy and replicate itself

 Store and transmit genetic information

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Animal Science
 Undergo mutation
Generation interval – average age of parents when offspring are born
Genetics – the study of the nature and function of genes
Genetic parameters – heritability (narrow sense; broad sense), repeatability, covariance,

correlation
Genotype – The specific combination of genes in the diploid phase representing a phenotype
- Assemblage of gene in an individual; determined at the time of fertilization;
genetic make-up; genetic constitution
Genotypic frequency – The proportion of a particular phenotype present in a population or a

breeding group
Genotype x environment interaction – when certain genotypes perform well under certain
environments than other genotype
Hardy-Weinberg Law – gene and genotypic frequency remain constant from generation to
generation if population is large, there is random mating and there is
absence or if there is balance of selection, migration and mutation
 Violations of HWE: small population leads to genetic drift;
assortative or disassortative mating; natural or artificial selection;
movement of animals through importation of live animals, semen or
embryo; change in the biochemical structure of gene
Herbivores – Species of animals that live mainly on plants
Heritability – The degree by which a character id genetically transmitted from parent to

offspring
Heterogametic sex – The sex that carries the different sex chromosomes; e.g. X and Y in
mammals
Homogametic sex – The sex that carries identical sex chromosomes; e.g. X and X in
Mammals
Hybrid vigor or heterosis – a condition where the heterozygote is better than the average of
the homozygote
 F1 progeny is better than the average of the parents; better than the
average of the better parents; occurring in lowly heritable traits;
caused by non-additive gene action (dominance, epistasis) higher in
the F1 than in the F2
Inbreeding – The process of mating animals that are closely related by descent
- Increases genetic homozygosity; inbreeding depression; lowly heritable traits;
closest possible inbreeding in animals is full-sib mating and parent-offspring
mating
Law of Independence – In Mendelian inheritance, members of one pair of genes segregate

independently with other pairs of genes
Johannsen, W. –Danish biologist who coined the term gene in 1909
Locus – The specific location of a pair of genes in the chromosomes (pl., loci)
Lush, Jay – American scientist who introduced the application of the various theories of the
Genetics of populations to the practice of animal breeding
Maternal inheritance – Inheritance of maternal characteristics through the distinctive

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Animal Science
maternal phenotype; e.g. lack of teats in the udder of the sow could
retard the growth of some piglets
Meiosis – The process of cell multiplication in which the number of chromosomes in the
reproductive cells is reduced form diploid to haploid as in gametogenesis
Mendel, Gregor – An Austrian monk who founded genetics through his studies on
crossbreeding of garden peas in 1865
Mendelian traits – governed by few pairs of genes; qualitative; discrete classes; independent
segregation; independent assortment; coat/plumage color;
presence/absence of horns
Migration – Process of movement of individuals from one population to another population
Mitosis – Process of multiplication of identical cells
MOET – Acronym for multiple ovulation and embryo transfer – a process of hastening the
reproductive rate of female animals
- Effective if the superior animal is the female
mRNA – Acronym for messenger RNA – the biochemical substance that transcribes the
genetic code in the process of protein synthesis
Mutation – Spontaneous change in the biochemical or structural characteristic in the genetic

material that results in a different biological action
Non-Mendelian traits – governed by many pairs of genes interacting with one another;
quantitative traits; continuous distribution; sex-limited; sex-influenced;
sex-linked; cytoplasmic inheritance
Objective of animal breeding – increase/improve production, efficiency, product quality, and

aesthetic value
Omnivore – Species of animals that live on plants, meat of animals and other food materials
Oogenesis – Process of production of female gamete
Outbreeding – mating of individuals closely related than the average of the population;
crossbreeding is an example of outbreeding; crossbreeding is mating of the
different breed group; breed group can be breed variety, strain, line or genetic
group. Other forms of outbreeding include upgrading, topcrossing, interspecific
(between species), intra-specific (within species).
Phenotype – The observable effect of a gene action.
- a function of gene and environment; outward manifestation of a genotype; traits;
characteristics; measurable; expressed at different stages in life; same as
genotype if effect of environment is zero; qualitative or quantitative; production,
reproduction and adaptation; economically important or not.
Population – a group of individuals sharing a common gene pool
Random mating – process where individual of one has an equal chance of mating with any
other individual in the opposite sex
Recessive – The state where the expression of a gene is suppressed by its alternative allelic
gene
Recombinant type gamete – A gamete that carries two or more genes resulting from the
crossover of segment of the homologous chromosomes during
meiosis

50
Animal Science
Reproductive techniques – artificial insemination; multiple ovulation and embryo transfer;

super ovulation; in-vitro fertilization; in-vitro maturation
Response to selection – function of heredability and selection differential; selection

differential is difference between the mean of the selected
parents and the mean of the base population
Segregation – the separation of the pair of genes in the process of gametogenesis
Selection – Process where certain individuals are able to contribute more progeny in the next
generation than other individuals
Selection methods – based on records of individuals and/or relatives
Selection procedures for simultaneous trait improvement – tandem, independent culling

level and index selection
Sex chromosome – the chromosome that determines the sex of the individual
- male is heterogametic (XY) in mammals; male is homogametic (ZZ) in
poultry
Sex-linkage – The state where a gene is located in the sex chromosome
Spermatogenesis – Process of producing sperm cells
Test-crossing – crossing of an individual unknown genotype
Transcription – The process whereby the sequence of the bases in the DNA is transcribed by
the mRNA in the nucleus for subsequent translation into the corresponding
protein material
Translation – The process of synthesis of the polypeptide chain based on the base sequence
in the mRNA
Watson, James – Proposed the biochemical nature of the gene together with Francis Crick in
1956
Wright, Sewall – American biologist who contributed significantly to the integration of

evolutionary and genetic theories into the study of population genetics
Review Questions for Agriculturists Board Exam

Animal Science
1. This correspond to the knee of animal

a. Carpals b. tarsals c. humerus d. femur
2. This hormone is responsible for the characteristic buck odor
a. capric hormone c. codric hormone
b. castric hormone d. centric hormone
3. This is the fluid portion of uncoagulated blood
a. Serum b. plasma c. globulin d. hemoglobin
4. This is a lymphoid organ that acts as graveyard for old senile red blood cells
a. Liver b. lungs c. spleen d. thymus
5. This is the site of gastric juice production in chicken
a. crop b. proventriculus c. gizzard d. small intestine
6 This is the structional and functional units of the kidneys
a. alveoli b. glomerolus c. nephron d. nephrite
7. Gall bladder is absent in this animal
a. cattle b. dog c. horse d. cat
8. This is the site of fertilization in chicken
a. fimbrias b. infundibulum c. uterus d. isthmus
9. This is an animal where both testicles failed to descend to the scrotal sac

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Animal Science
a. crypterchid b. monorchid c. dourohid d. anestrus

10. The average gestation period of beef cattle
a. 283 days b. 300 days c. 330 days d. 250 days
11. The outer layer of extra-embryonic membranes which is in contact with the maternal
uterine tissues
a. allantois b. chorion c. amnion d. placenta
12. Which of these cells produce the hormone testosterone?
a. spermatogonia c. Leydig cells
b. spermatocyte d. sertoli cells
13. Part of the oviduct in chicken which is responsible for the secretion of albumen
a. uterus b. isthmus c. magnum d. fimbrae
14. What hormone is responsible for broodiness in chicken?
a. prolactin b. estrogen c. progesterone d. exytocin
15. This hormone is responsible for the development of sperm cells in the seminiferous
tubules
a. luteinizing hormone c. testosterone
b. follicle stimulating hormone d. adrenocorticotrophic hormone
16. This hormone stimulates glycogen breakdown and glycogenesis in the liver
a. Insulin b. Epinephrine c. Glucagon d. Estradiol
17. This is a protective mechanism of animals against profound cooling
a. hibernation b. estivation c. panting d. chilling
18. This refers to the range of environment5al temperature within which the animal does not
have to adopt to the environment
a. critical temperature c. body temperature
b. comfort zone d. subnormal temperature
19. The average body temperature of goat is
a. 37.0°C b. 38.3°C c. 39.1°C d. 40.1°C
20. This refers to a rise in body temperature that develops during pathological conditions
a. fever b. hypothermia c. hyperthermia d. heat stroke
21. This is the yellow body formed from the ruptured graafian follicle
a. corpus hemorrhagioum c. corpus luteum
b. corpus albicans d. corpus anthrum
22. Phase of estrous cycle where the corpus luteum is developed and progesterone is
secreted
a. proestrus b. melestrus c. estrus d. diestrus
23. The length of estrus period of cattle
a. 33 hours b. 18 hours c. 21 hours d. 24 hours
24. This is the muscle which restracts the testicles against the body to protect it from
excessive cold
a. bulbocavernous muscle c. retractor
b. cremaster d. urethral muscle
25. This refers to animal tissues which are suitable for food
a. meat b. fat c. lean d. muscle
26. Which is not considered as a red meat?
a. beef b. pork c. mutton d. none of the above
27. This refers to the meat of rabbit
a. mutton b. lapan c. star meat d. venison
28. This refers to the meat of cattle slaughtered before one year of age
a. venison b. veal c. beef d. mutton
29. Which of the following muscles yield the less tender meat?
a. leg muscle b. back muscle c. rib d. rump
30. Which of the following is not affected by water or moisture content in the meat?
a. texture b. color c. juiciness d. none
31. This is a protein that greatly influences the tenderness of the muscle after cooking
a. collagen b. elastin c. reticulin d. myosin
32. These substances in meat are responsible for the so-called “gamey” flavor of meat of
wild animals
a. nitrogenous extractives c. fats
b. sarcoplasmic proteins d. carbohydrates
33. Which is not an advantage of fasting animals prior to slaughter?
a. save feeds c. low shrinkage

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Animal Science
b. ease of cleaning entrails d. short shelf-life

34. The water requirement for slaughtering a head of a cattle or carabao
a. 30 gallons b. 60 gallons c. 15 gallons d. 35 gallons
35. This refers to the process of making the animal unconscious prior to slaughter
a. sticking b. stunning c. scalding d. evisceration
36. The process of wrapping the beef carcass with cheesecloth soaked in lukewarm water
a. chilling b. shrouding c. scalding d. singeing
37. This refers to the cutting of carcasses into standard wholesale and retail cuts
a. fabrication b. grading c. meat evaluation d. meat chopping
38. Which is not included as a wholesale cut of the front quarter of a beef carcass?
a. ribs b. plate c. loin d. brisket
39. Which of the following wholesale cuts of beef contains the sternum?
a. chuck b. brisket c. ribs d. loin
40. This refers to the process of making a stable milk emulsion
a. pasteurization b. homogenization c. cream separator d. curdling
41. This cut contains part of the 13 rib and the abdominal muscle
th
a. flank b. loin c. round d. brisket

43. Which is not included as primal cuts of pork?
a. loin b. ham c. shoulder d. belly
44. The predominant carbohydrate in milk
a. galactose b. lactose c. maltose d. fructose
45. Milk is not rich in this mineral
a. iron b. zinc c. calcium d. phosphorus
46. Commercial broiler strains available in the market except
a. Pilch b. Hybro c. H and N d. Starcross
47. Arbor Acre is locally known as
a. Lohmann b. Ross c. Magnolia d. H and N
48. The common type of house intended for broiler contract growing is
a. litter floor b. stat floor c. range d. battery cages
49. In brooding chicks, old newspapers are used as bedding to
a. serve as litter to absorb moisture of manure
b. teach birds recognize pictures
c. improve the walking stance of chicks for better growth
d. conserve heat for brooding as insulator
50. In raising 200 broilers in the litter floor, how many feeding trough of one meter length,
both sides can be used are required? The feeding space is 4 cm/bird
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
51. Removal of feathers in the processing plant
a. molting b. plucking c. scalding d. evisceration
52. The crude protein content of broiler parent stock
a. 12 – 14% b. 16 – 17% c. 17 – 18% d. 18 – 21%
53. Gumboro disease is also known as

a. Avian pest b. Fowl pox c. Infectious Bursal disease d. Marek’s disease
54. The disease commonly observed in brooding with moist litter or wet litter causing brooder
pneumonia or
a. coccidiosis b. aspergillosis c. avian pasteurellosis d. mycoplasmosis
55. The average bodyweight of modern broilers now is about ______ at 35 – 37 days
a. 2.0 kg b. 1.4 kg c. 1.7 kg d. 1.0 kg
56. When the FCE of broilers is 1.9, it means
a. broiler will have to eat 1 kg feed to produce 1.9 kg body weight
b. feeding 1.9 kg feed to produce one kg of broiler
c. the total feed intake of one broiler is 1.9 kg
d. bodyweight of 1.9 kg will be achieved by feeding only one kilo
57. Broilers can be raised any time of the year for about ______ per year if the duration of
one cycle is 38 days, cleaning of 3 days, selling of 14 days and chick order of 7 days
a. 5 batches b. 7 batches c. 9 batches d. 3 batches
58. The highest cost expenses aside from feeds in broiler production
a. labor costb. depreciation c. chick cost d. light, heat and water
59. The worldwide numbers of breeds of fowls
a. more than 300 c. more than 200

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Animal Science
b. more than 100 d. more than 400

60. Population of small number of birds isolated within the breed that is responsible with
specific characteristics
a. breed b. strain c. cross d. inbreed
61. Leghorn breed has plumage colors of
a. white b. black c. silver d. all of these
61. The progeny of two different breeds or strains belonging to single specie
a. cross b. hybrid c. strain d. inbreed
62. Progeny of crossing between different species
a. hybrid b. cross c. mutant d. hybrid vigor
63. The method of crossing wherein the first generation crosses are made with their parents
a. back cross b. criss cross c. upgrade d. cross breeding
64. Crossing the first generation with a male belonging to each of the parent breeds
alternately
a. criss cross b. back cross c. upgrade d. inbreeding
65. In the selection of breed, this trait is the aptitude to tolerate the environmental
conditions without drop in egg production
a. hardiness high productivity c. product quality
b. low feed consumption d. none of these
66. The breed of commercial hybrid layers with whit eggs
a. White Leghorn c. New Hampshire
b. Barred Plymouth Rock d. Rhode Island Red
67. Example of layer from the Institute of Animal Selection (IAS) strain
a. Warren b. Starcross c. Hissex d. Golden comet
68. The red jungle fowl from East Java, Burma, Thailand and Sumatra
a. Gallus bankoiva b. Gallus soneratti c. Gallus varius d. Gallus lafayetti
69. Class of chicken based on purpose/use of breeding
a. economicb. standard c. weight d. all of these
70. Native chickens are popular because people
a. like the eggs of native chickens c. maintenance costs are low
b. people prefer the tough meat d. all of the above
71. The annual egg production of native chicken
a. 50-60 eggs b. 100-150 eggs c. 200-240 eggs d. 260-280 eggs
72. Term applied to designate mature domestic cocks and hens
a. poultry b. fowl c. chicken d. chicks
73. Young domestic ostrich in the downy stage
a. chick b. poult c. keet d. goaling
74. A male fowl one year old or over
a. cob b. gobbler c. cock d. drake
75. Unsexed female fowl is known
a. capon b. pullet c. poulard d. poult
76. Race of domestic fowls which maintains distinctive characteristics of shape, growth,
temperament and color of egg shells
a. variety b. strain c. breed d. type
77. Poultry species having 38 pairs of chromosomes
a. chicken b. quail c. guinea fowl d. all of these
78. Poultry species having 40 pairs of chromosomes
a. duck b. geese c. turkey d. all of these
79. The incubation period of muscovy duck
80. This is the incubation period of quails
a. 16-18 days b. 30-34 days c. 20-28 days d. 22-24 days
81. The egg weight of geese is
a. 58-60 grams b. 70-80 grams c. 85-89 grams d. 130-200 grams
82. The egg weight off guinea fowl
a. 40-48 grams b. 13-15 grams c. 55-61 grams d. 17-18 grams
83. The incubation period of mallard duck is
84. The incubation period of turkey is
85. The fat soluble vitamin needed in calcium and phosphorus metabolism
a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin D c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin K

54
Animal Science
86. Most practical way to feed broiler

a. ad libitum b. skip-a-day c. restricted feeding d. phase feeding
87. A disease condition is observed when
a. there are subolinical pathological processes
b. there is imbalance between infection pressure and resistance of animals
c. normal body functions of tissues or organs are impaired
d. all of the above
88. This refers to the general susceptibility of animals to diseases either acquired or
genetically present at birth/development
a. predisposition b. condition c. constitution d. behavior
89. Disease which are easily spread from one animal to another animal
a. contagious disease c. acute diseases
b. zoonotic disease d. nutritional defects
90. Pathogens which can neither be classified as plants nor animals
a. viruses b. bacteria c. yeast d. fungi
91. Organisms that live at the expense of other live plants or animals
a. parasites b. saprophytes c. microorganism d. commensals
92. The process of anaerobic breakdown of carbohydrates used for the production of
alcohol, vinegar and lactic acid
a. fermentation b. biosynthesis c. symbiosis d. mineralization
93. The microorganism which can only be seen by an electronic microscope
a. yeast b. fungi c. viruses d. bacteria
94. Pathogenic agents can damage the tissue by loss of resistance known as
a. anemia b. necrosis c. immunosuppression d. diarrhea
95. The science of the specific defense mechanisms of the body against pathological
processes
a. immunityb. immunology c. pathology d. enzymology
96. The disease of poultry known as avian pest
a. Gumboro disease b. Newcastle disease c. Fowl pox d. Lymphoid Lenkosis
97. The basic unit of inheritance is
a. cell b. chromosomes c. genes d. nucleus
98. The disease that can be prevented by vaccination through the wing-web method
a. Avian pest c. Harpes virus of turkey
b. Fowl Pox d. Infectious Bursal Disease
99. During vaccination, skim milk is sometimes added to
a. supplement the feed as the protein source
b. decrease the effect of vaccination
c. increase potency of vaccine
d. improve the drinking capacity of poultry
100. Bacterial disease of poultry caused by Mycoplasma gallisepticum
a. Avian leucosis c. Chronic Respiratory disease
b. Infectious coryza d. Fowl cholera
101. Bacterial disease caused by Salmonella gallinarum

a. Fowl Typhoid b. Pullorum c. Fowl cholera d. Fowl pox
102. Aspergillosis, a disease caused by Aspergillus fumigatus and also known as Brooder
Pneumonia is a
a. viral disease b. bacterial disease c. protozoan disease d. fungal disease
103. The disease characterized by swollen face of poultry
a. Coryza b. Fowl pox c. Chronic Respiratory disease d. Avian pest
104. Hypodermic injection is similar to
a. intramuscular route b. intra ocular c. per os method d. intranasal method
105. Hitcher B1 starin of vaccine is
a. Fowl pox b. Avian pest c. Fowl cholera d. Marek’s disease
106. The vaccine usually administered in the hatchery at day old
a. fowl pox vaccine c. La sota vaccine
b. bursal disease vaccine d. Marek’s disease vaccine
107. These antibiotics are bacteriostatics except
a. tetracycline b. erythromycin c. bacitracin d. tylosine
108. These are bactericidal antibiotics that can kill bacteria except

55
Animal Science
a. penicillin b. streptomycin c. neomycin d. lincomycin

109. Ectoparasites that have no wings
a. ticks b. fleas c. mite d. house flies
110. Very small ectoparasites barely visible by the naked eye
a. mites b. tick c. fleas d. lice
111. Most endoparasites are roundworms and can also be called
a. annelids b. nematodes c. cestodes d. trematodes
112. Tapeworms are also known as
a. trematodes b. cestodes c. nematodes d. annelids
113. Excretion of pathogenic agents of this group is dangerous because detection is nearly
impossible and the quantity of pathogens is very high
a. sick animals c. recovered animals
b. animals in the incubation period d. subclinical animals
114. Any disease is a stress which can have this effect
a. immuno suppression c. increased metabolism
b. decreased intestinal function d. all of these
115. Protozoans that move by making projections like amoeba are called
a. sporozoa b. rhizopoda c. flagellates d. ciliates
116. Viral disease that can be prevented only by vaccination because
a. It is caused by viruses and no drugs exist against these diseases
b. Drugs act on the enzymes but no viruses uses the enzymes of host
c. When a virus enters a cell, it losses its mantle of proteins
d. All of the above
117. The management problem resulting to mortalities due to lack water and feed intake is
a. starve outs b. pilling c. cannibalism d. wet litter
118. Too high mortality in growing birds can be due to
a. disease and parasites c. poor debeaking
b. high stocking density d. all of these
119. Too much feed consumption during the rearing period can be de to
a. poor quality feed c. feed eaten by rats and mice
b. feed wastage d. all of these
120. High mortality in laying house can be due to
a. poor debeaking b. high stocking rate c. disease d. all of these
121. The reason why layers have poor quality eggs
a. poor design of nest b. age of birds c. high temperature d. all f these
122. Toxin produced by secondary metabolites of mold is
a. endotoxin b. attatoxin c. toxoid d. autotoxins
123. A chick can be resistant or immunologically adult at
a. 3 months b. 9 weeks c. 3 weeks d. 6 months
124. Deficiency of this nutrient can permanently damage he immunological system of bird
a. carbohydrates b. protein c. vitamins d. minerals
125. Organ lesions can lower resistance like liver which can be damaged by
a. intestinal disorders c. disease and stress
b. intoxication d. all of the above
126. The meat per capita in the Philippines

a. 43.1 kg b. 50 g c. 30 g d. 41.3 kg
127. The beef cattle production systems are composed of
a. backyard b. commercial c. semi-commercial d. all of the above
128. There are at least accredited feedlots in the Philippines
a. 18 b. 180 c. 280 d. 80
129. The largest feedlot in the Philippines at present is
a. Montereyb. Dealco c. El Rancho d. Del Monte
130. The scientific name of Aurochs is
a. Bos auros b. Bos longitnons c. Bos Taurus d. Bos premiginus
131. The 997,000 hectares Philippines pasture land can support
a. 500,000 A.U. b. 6,000 A.U. c. 500 A.U. d. none of the above
132. The commercial cow-calf operations of the country are located in
a. Pangasinan b. Masbate c. Bukidnon d. All of the above
133. Herd division is merely grouping the cattle/buffalo according to
a. age b. purpose c. size d. all of the above

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Animal Science
134. The A.U. equivalent of heifer

a. 0.75 b. 0.50 c. 0.25 d. 1
135. The total A.U. of 5 yearlings in the herd is
a. 1.5 b. 2.5 c. 3.5 d. 4.5
136. The daily dry matter requirement of a 300 kg feedlot cattle
a. 7.5 kg b. 8.5 kg c. 6.0 kg d. 9.0 kg
137. The roughage dry matter requirement of a 400 kg mature cattle with a roughage to
concentrate ratio of 80:20
a. 6.4 kg b. 8.4 kg c. 7.4 kg d. none of the above
138. This ensures the appropriate nutrition of the various age groups of the herd
a. herd division c. nutritional requirement
b. herd management d. none of the above
139. The most common and legal means of identifying beef cattle ownership
a. hide branding b. horn branding c. earnottching d. tattooing
140. The average gestation period of beef cattle is
141. Bullock is usually a stag that is used for

a. milk b. draft c. meat d. fattening
142. Beef cattle that are common in tropical countries are
a. Beef taurus b. Bos indicus c. Bos bubalus d. Bos aurochs
143. Gestation period of goat
144. Scientific name of goat
a. Capra aries b. Ovies hircus c. Capra circus d. Capra hircus
145.The largest part of cattle digestive system and serve asd fermentation chamber
a. omasum b. reticulum c. small intestine d. rumen
146. The heat cycle of goat
147. The matured weight of a native goat
a. 20 – 25 kg b. 15 – 20 kg c. 20 – 30 kg d. 30 – 40 kg
148. The latest breed of goat in the Philippines
a. Angio-Nubian b. Saanen c. Boer d. Kiko
149. The term foe female goat is
a. boe b. doe c. sow d. dam
150. The term for male goat is
a. buck b. boar c. ram d. stag
151. The term for female sheep is
a. doe b. dam c. ewe d. mare
152. The term for male sheep
a. ram b. buck c. stag d. steer
153. The term for mother goat or sheep
a. dam b. doe c. ewe d. stallion
154. The term for young goat is
a. kid b. nanny c. billy d. gouty
155. The act of parturition in goat is
a. goating b. kidding c. lambing d. farrowing
156. The breed of goat with long pendulous ears and distinct roman nose is
a. Bner b. Angio-Nubian c. Toggenburg d. Kambing kajang
157. The act of partition in sheep is
a. sheeping b. lambing c. darling d. ewing
158. The goat is said to be
a. grazers b. browsers c. growsers d. boers
159. The sheep is said to be
a. grazers b. growsers c. browsers d. bowsers
160. The first milk of goat is called
a. colostrums b. fresh milk c. non-allergenic milk d. skim milk
161. The queen of dairy goat is
a. Queeny b. Alpine c. Saanen d. Kiko
162. The castrated ram is called
a. wether b. fether c. bether d. rather
163. The meat of goat is called

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Animal Science
a. apan b. chevron c. mutton d. chevon

164. The meat of sheep is called
a. lapan b. shevron c. mutton d. chevon
165. The prehensile organ of goat is
a. lips b. mouth c. tongue d. teeth
166. The mature goat consumes
a. 1.5 liters b. 2 liters c. 2.5 liters d. 3 liters
167. The other term for female goat is
a. nanny b. jenny c. Kelly d. golly
168. The other term for male goat is
a. billy b. dilly c. timmy d. jonny
169. The purebred known to be the “biggest breed” among purebred hogs
a. Large White b. Duroc c. Landrace d. Pletrain
170.The weight at eight months that the gilt can be culled
a. less than 100 kgs c. Less than 110 kgs
b. less than 120 kgs d. less than 90 kgs
171. The average heat period of gilts and sows
a. 2 – 5 days b. 1 – 3 days c. 7 – 10 days d. 1 – 2 days
172. This swine is known to be the “red power” among purebred hogs
a. Pletrain b. Hampshire c. Landrace d. Duroc
173. This is done by the riding the back or pressing the lion or back of the gilt or sow
a. Haunch Pressure test c. Riding – the – back test
b. Semen – on – snout test d. Teaser method
174. This swine is known to be the “mother breed” among purebred hogs
175. This is known to be the “muscle pigs” among purebred hogs
176. The act of giving birth to a litter of the pigs
a. Flushing b. Farrowing c. Crushing d. Gestating
177. The most essential and the cheapest of all the nutrients
a. Proteins b. water c. Minerals d. energy
178. The swine is known to be the “Belted White” among purebred hogs
179. This is the timing or best period to breed the gilts
a. 8 months b. 7 months c. 10 months d. 8 months
180. The percentage of a crude protein for a brood sow ration
a. 14 b. 15 c. 18 d. 13
181. The percentage content of crude protein, Ca and P respectively, for a lactating sow
ration
a. 14, 0.5 and 0.6 b. 18, 0.7 and 0.5 c. 15, 0.6 and 0.4 d. 13, 0.4 and 0.8
182. The length of cutting the umbilical cord of the newly born piglet from the base
a. 3 – 4 inches b. 3 – 5 inches c. 1.5 – 2.0 inches d. 4 – 5 inches
183. The amount of CP, Ca and P; respectively for a creep ration
a. Not less than 18, 0.7 and 0.5 c. Not less than 20, 0.8 and 0.6
b. Not less than 22, 0.8 and 0.6 d. Not less than 18, 0.6 and 0.8
184. The type of roofing that is recommended for swine buildings
a. Monitor b. Semi-monitor c. Gable d. Gothic
185. The recommended quarantine period for swine

a. Not less than 20 days c. Not less than 40 days
b. Not less than 30 days d. Not less than 50 days
186. The superiority of crossbred offspring over the average of the purebred parents
a. Close breeding b. hybrid vigor c. inbred d. line breeding
187. This breed has major effects on its hind legs particularly the pastern
a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Large White d. Pletrain
188. Cherry red is the most common color of this breed
189. An example of hybrid swine present in our country today
a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Large White d. Nieuw Dalland
190. The ears of its kinds are medium and pointing upward
a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Large White d. Nieuw Dalland
191. This swine is very thin backfat thickness among breeds

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Animal Science
a. Pletrain b. Landrace c. Large White d. Duroc

192. This breed has a greater tendency to put on fat
193. This breed is black white band around the heart girth including the front legs
a. Duroc b. Landrace c. Hampshire Yorkshire
194. This breed is black in color with six (6) white points, at the forehead, forelegs and switch
a. Berkshireb. Duroc c. Hampshire d. Yorkshire
195. This breed has a characteristic 50% black and 50% white colored body, with good
mothering ability
a. Berkshireb. Hampshire c. Spotted Poland d. Yorkshire
196. This breed is known for the “thick backfat”
a. Pletrain b. Poland China c. Spotted Poland d. Yorkshire
197. The hybridization process of mating or crossing of two different species or animals
a. intaspecific b. interspecific c. criss crossing d. two way crossing
198. The hybridization process of mating animals belonging to different breeds or strain
a. intraspecific b. interspecific c. criss crossing d. two way crossing
199. This intensifies or fixes hereditary qualities and brings about homozygosity to the hogs
a. crossbreeding b. inbreeding c. purebreeding d. upgrading
200. The mating of closely related individuals such as brother to sister, sire to daughter and
son to dam
a. close breeding b. inbreeding c. line breeding d. triple crossing
201. The mating of animals in a lesser degree than close breeding like between cousins,
half-brother to half-sister, grandparents to grandchildren or vise-versa
a. close breeding b. cross breeding c. line breeding d. triple breeding
202. The successive crossing of progeny to common ancestor
a. backcrossing b. criss crossing c. triple breeding d. upgrading
203. This refer to the mating of a purebred male to a mongrel female animal
a. backcrossing b. crisscrossing c. triple breeding d. upgrading
204. Gilts should be bred to farrow the first litter at
a. about one year old above c. about 3 years old
b. about 2 years old d. about 4 years old
205. The lifetime reproductive performance of the sow is affected during
a. first farrowing b. second farrowing c. third farrowing d. fourth farrowing
206. This refers to the application of genetics and physiology of reproduction to animal
improvement of “procreation”
a. grading b. breeding c. marking d. farrowing
207. The mating of animals having diverse genotype or genetic composition
a. hybridization b. outbreeding c. purebreeding d. inbreeding
208. The mating of the back of crossbred progeny to the parental stock, using them
alternately
a. inbreeding b. grading c. criss crossing d. back crossing
209. This is done by applying pressure on the rump with both hands
a. Riding – the – back test c. Semen – on – snout test
b. Haunch pressure test d. Teaser method
210. This is done by riding the back or pressing the back of the animal
211. This is done by placing the sample of fresh semen on the snout of the female be either
plain hand or from the squeeze botlle
212. This is done by placing the boar beside the gilt or sows pigpen
213. Increasing the nutrient intake prior to breeding and during ovulation to increase the
productivity of the sow or gilt
a. flushing b. gestating c. breeding d. farrowing
214. The time or period between breeding and farrowing
a. lactation b. gestation c. ovulation d. parturition
215. The cat of giving birth to a litter of pigs

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a. lactating b. barrowing c. gestating d. farrowing

216. The time from farrowing unit weaning
a. lactation b. gestation c. parturition d. ovulation
217. The process in which certain individuals are preferred to produce in the next generation
a. ovulation b. lactation c. selection d. selection
218. A group of proteins that are polymers
a. amino acids b. energy c. vitamins d. minerals
219. They are composed of sugar and starches and are the primary source of energy for the
pigs
a. amino acids b. carbohydrates c. vitamins d. minerals
220. The indispensable amino acids
a. cystine b. alanine c. tyrosine d. Lysine
221. The dispensable amino acid
a. aspartic b. arginine c. leucine d. histidine
222. This serves also as major source of energy for pigs
a. minerals b. fats c. fiber d. ash
223. It has low energy nutrient content, which less digestible to pigs
a. minerals b. fats c. fiber d. ash
224. They are classified into complex organic compounds needed in pigs health and normal
body processes
a. minerals b. fats c. fiber d. vitamins
225. They are extremely important to proper animal development
a. minerals b. fats c. fiber d. vitamins
226. The most essential and cheapest of all nutrients
a. minerals b. fats c. water d. fiber
227. The most accepted way of testing the pig for leptospirosis and brucellosis
b. Haunch pressure test d. Blood test
228. The brood sow ration contains CP Evaluation to
a. 14% b. 15% c. 16% d. 17%
229. The digestible energy required in brood sow ration
a. 3 100 b. 3 200 c. 3 300 d. 3 400
230. The amount of calcium required in brood sow ratio
a. 0.70 b. 0.75 c. 0.80 d. 0.85
231. The amount of phosphorous required in brood sow ration
a. 0.35 b. 0.40 c. 0.45 d. 0.50
232. The digestible energy required in pregnant gilt
a. 8 200 b. 8 400 c. 8 600 d. 8 800
233. The minimum rest in days of the farrowing pens between farrowing
a. 7 b. 14 c. 21 d. 28
234. The gestation period of sow
235. The longest gestation period of normal pigs farrowed recorded
236. The number of hours when the milk is present in the sow about to farrow
a. 24 hours b. 48 hours c. 72 hours d. 96 hours
237. The lactating ration contains CP Equivalent to
a. 14% b. 15% c. 16% d. 17%
238. Feeding a newly farrowed sow will resume

a. on the second day c. on the fourth day
b. on the third day d. on the fifth day
239. The optimum feed allowance given to sow for piglet requirements during lactation
period
a. 0.50 kg per piglet c. 1.00 kg per piglet
b. 0.75 kg per piglet d. 1.25 kg per piglet
240. The cutting of umbilical cord from the base of newly born piglet
a. 0.60 to 0.65 inches c. 1.5 to 2.0 inches
b. 0.70 to 0.75 inches d. 2.5 to 3.0 inches
241. The good creep ration contains CP Equivalent to
a. 16% b. 18% c. 20% d. 22%

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Animal Science
242. The digestive energy required in lactating ration

a. 3 000 b. 3 500 c. 4 000 d. 4 500
243. The amount of calcium required in lactating ration
a. 0.60 b. 0.70 c. 0.80 d. 0.90
244. The amount of phosphorous required in lactating ration
a. 0.60 b. 0.70 c. 0.80 d. 0.90
245. The usual recommended of a sow’s feed before weaning
a. 2 to 3 days b. 4 to 5 days c. 6 to 7 days d. 8 to 9 days
246. The recommended number of days for the gradual change of feeds in the feeding of pig
247. The recommended period for the actual use of vaccines after mixing with diluent
a. 30 minutes b. 40 minutes c. 50 minutes d. 60 minutes
248. The number of days after vaccination that pigs should not be bathed
a. 2 to 3 days b. 4 to 5 days c. 6 to 7 days d. 8 to 9 days
249. The system of pig keeping wherein they are left free to find their own food
a. semi-intensive b. intensive c. extensive d. semi-extensive
250. The system of pig keeping wherein they are supplied with feeds consisting of tubers,
waste by-products and trimmings
251. The system of pig keeping wherein they are supplied with high quality feeds, optimal
utilization of facilities
252. The allowable sperm defects on abnormal head shape in boars
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%
253. The allowable sperm defects on abnormal chromosome in boars
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%
254. The allowable sperm defects on coiled tails in boars
a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%
255. A microcopy examination that measures the viability of the semen of boars
a. sperm morphological test c. sperm motility test
b. semen density test d. sperm concentration test
256. A microcopy examination that measures sperm abnormalities in boars
257. A microcopy examination that measures the total number of sperm cells
258. The reusable catheter that has a spiral tip which can be sterilized and used for about
two years
a. spiral plastic catheter c. graded catheter
b. foam catheter d. Melrose spiral catheter
259. The catheter, which is disposable fitting on all type of boar semen containers
260. The catheter with metric calibration to determine the length to be inserted
261. The catheter with soft tip to prevent trauma during its insertion
262. The digestible energy required in breeder ration

a. 3 000 b. 3 200 c. 3 400 d. 3 600
263. The pre starter ration contains CP Equivalent to
a. 14% b. 16% c. 18% d. 20%
264. Preliminary selection of breeding pig start at
a. 2 to 3 months old c. 5 to 7 months old
b. 4 to 5 months old d. 7 to 8 months old
265. The starter ration contains CP Equivalent to
a. 14% b. 16% c. 18% d. 20%
266. The average duration of pigs estrous cycle

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Animal Science
267. The period between weaning and the next service

a. gestation period b. production period c. lactation period d. dry period
268. The normal lactation period in pigs in the tropics
a. 28 to 42 days b. 30 to 50 days c. 35 to 60 days d. 40 to 70
days
269. The rearing period of weaner pigs
a. 20 to 30 days b. 26 to 30 days c. 30 to 40 days d. 40 to 60
days
270. The culling rate of sows population per year
a. 21 – 15% b. 4 – 20% c. 8 – 25% d. 8 – 33%
271. The culling rate of boars per year
a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50%
272. The average culling rate of sows with average age in 3.33 years of production
a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50%
273. The average culling rate of sows with average age in 2.8 years of production
a. 25% b. 30% c. 35% d. 40%
274. The generally recommended boar to sow ratio
a. 1 : 20-30 b. 1 : 35-40 c. 1 : 40-50 d. 1 : 45-55
275. A piglet of small size compared to its littermates
a. Barrow b. Starter c. Runt d. Suckling
276. The average weight of pig embryo within 30 days
a. 20 grams b. 30 grams c. 40 grams d. 50 grams
a.100 gramsb. 200 grams c. 300 grams d. 400 grams
a. 1 000 grams b. 1 100 grams c. 1 200 grams d. 1 400 grams
280. The acceptable rate of percentage in stillborn pigs
a. 4% b. 6% c. 8% d. 10%
281. The acceptable rate of percentage in pre-weaning mortality in pigs
a. 4% b. 6% c. 8% d. 10%
282. The acceptable rate of percentage in litter size at birth for sows
a. 4% b. 6% c. 8% d. 10%
283. The acceptable rate of percentage in litter size at birth for gilts
a. 6% b. 7% c. 9% d. 10%
284. The acceptable rate of percentage in culling replacement gilts
a. 10 to 15% b. 20 to 25% c. 30 to 35% d. 40 to 45 %
285. The target conception rate per gestation period
a. 60% b. 70% c. 80% d. 90%
286. The target lifetime farrowings per sow
a. 4 – 5 b. 8 – 12 c. 12 – 15 d. 16 – 20
287. The usual or normal range of heat period of the gilts and sows
a. 1-3 days b. 2-5 days c. 6-8 days d. 7-10 days
288. The average number of pigs weaned per sow year
a. 5.5-10.54 pigs b. 8.5-12.58 pigs c. 7.5-14.12 pigs d. 10.37-23.26 pigs
289. The maximum average backfat thickness for breeding animals weighing 90 kg
a. 2.0 cm b. 3.0 cm c. 3.2 cm d. 3.4 cm
290.m The 85 kg finished hog has an initial body of 15 kg. Its average daily gain is
equivalent to
a. 0.52 kg ADG b. 0.62 kg ADG c. 0.72 kg ADG d. 0.82 kg ADG
291. If a 90 kg finished hog has an initial body of 25 kg, its average daily gain is equivalent
to
a. 0.52 kg ADG b. 0.62 kg ADG c. 0.72 kg ADG d. 0.82 kg ADG
292. A 200 kg feed was consumed by a 85 kg finished hog with an initial body weight of 15
kg. Its feed efficiency is equivalent to
a. 2.76 FE b. 2.86 FE c. 2.90 FE d. 3.06 FE
293. A 200 kg feed was consumed by a 90 kg finished hog with an initial body weight of 25
kg. Its feed efficiency is equivalent to
a. 2.9 FE b. 3.0 FE c. 3.1 FE d. 3.2 FE
294. The acceptable rate of percentage mortality in sows, gilts and boars per year

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Animal Science
a. 2% b. 3% c. 4% d. 5%
295. The acceptable number of days interval between weaning nad subsequent conception
a. 166 b. 172 c. 190 d. 210
296. The acceptable farrowing index per year in sow
a. 1.8 – 1.95 b. 2.0 – 2.25 c. 2.5 – 2.65 d. 2.7 – 2.75
297. Enhancement of soil fertility restoration and conservation of natural resources can be
facilitated by
a. animals b. animal wastes c. animal by-products d. animal products
298. A food animal origin is high in
a. energy b. minerals c. protein d. vitamins
299. Meat, eggs and milk are good sources of
a. phosphorous b. iron c. calcium d. magnesium
300. Animal agriculture predominates in
a. upland ecosystems c. lowland ecosystems
b. highlands d. less populated areas
301. Cattle population is concentrate in
a. Luzon b. Mindanao c. Visayas
302. The major contributor to the total livestock output is
a. cattle b. swine c. carabao d. chicken
303. The top broiler-producing region at the Philippines is
a. Southern Tagalog c. Central Luzon
b. Central Visayas d. Southern Mindanao
304. Sensory organs are concentrated in the
a. head b. tail c. trunk d. abdomen
305. The frame work of hard structure, which supports and protects the soft tissues of
animals, is
a. bones b. anatomy c. skeleton d. joints
306. The bones that protect the organ they cover are
a. long bones b. flat bones c. short bones d. irregular bones
307. One of the functions stated below is not a function of bones
a. protection of vital organs c. gives rigidity and form of the body
b. acts as levers d. storage of minerals
308. The involuntary striated muscle is known as
a. skeletal muscles c. cardiac muscle
b. cutaneous muscles d. smooth muscles
309. The voluntary striated muscles are
a. covering the greater part
b. not requiring external stimuli of the body for contraction
c. found in visceral organs
d. with centrally located nuclei
310. Muscles that cause body parts to bend are
a. extensor muscles b. abductor muscles c. flexor muscles
311. Muscles expel or force out secretions of organs, except
a. accessory glands b. sweat glands c. endocrine glands d. lymph gland
312. It is responsible with the highest type of mental activities
a. pituitary gland b. cerebrum c. cerebellum d. brain stem
313. The organ that receives sensory fibers through the dorsal roots of the spinal nerves is
the
a. brain b. pituitary c. spinal cord d. hypothalamus
314. The braidlike arrangements of nerves are
a. sensory fibers b. stimulus c. motor fibers d. plexuses
315. The system, which includes all nervous structures outside the brain and spinal cord
a. Central nervous system c. Peripheral nervous system
b. Autonomic nervous system d. Sympathetic nervous system
316. Glucocorticoids stimulate the conversation of protein to carbohydrates for energy in a
process called
a. glycolysis b. gluconeogenesis c. glucogenesis d. hydrolysis
317. A hormone that augments the sympathetic nervous system and prepares for emergency
is
a. vasopressin b. intermedin c. oxytocin d. epinephrine

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Animal Science
318. The thyroid gland consists of colloid materials mainly protein-iodine complex called\
a. thyroxine b. calcitonin c. thyroglobulin d. thyroprotein
319. Hypothyroidism does not cause
a. critinism b. irregular estrus c. developed puberty d. irritability
320. Hyperthyroidism does not cause
a. increased metabolic rate c. loss of weight
b. decreased spermatogenesis d. nervousness
321. A gonadal hormone produced by the placenta, which maintains normal pregnancy
a. progesterone b. chronic gonadotropin c. estrogen d. prostaglandin
322. A structure, which forms part of the heart but not layer of the heart is
a. peticardium b. myocardium c. epicardium d. endocardium
323. The structures, which carry blood away from the heart are the
a. arteries b. capillaries c. veins d. lymph vessels
324. Red blood cells are
a. non-nucleated b. granulocytes c. nucleated d. agranulocytes
325. A wave of dilatation of an artery as blood flows into it is called
a. respiration b. heartbeat c. pulsed d. breathing
326. A common passage for food and air
a. pharynx b. trachea c. larynx d. esophagus
327. A cartilage of larynx that is in pair
a. cricoid b. thyroid c. arytenoids d. epigothic
328. A lobe of the lungs that is present only in the right lung
a. Apical b. diaphragmatic c. cardiac d. intermediate lobe
329. Animals whose lungs have no subdivisions or lobes, except for intermediate lobes
a. dogs b. swine c. cats d. horses
330. The exchange of gases between the blood and tissue is called
a. external respiration b. inspiration c. internal respiration d. expiration
331. A rapid and shallow breathing is called
a. eupnea b. polypnea c. dyspnea d. hyperpnea
332. The animal whose right and left kidneys are of different shape is
a. swine b. cattle c. goat d. horse
333. In farm animals, the seat of fetal development is
a. oviduct b.horn of uterus c. cervix d. body of uterus
334. Animals having bicornuate type uterus are
a. sows b. does c. cows d. ewes
335. Ampullae is absent in
a. buck b. ram c. boar d. bull
336. The stage of the estrus cycle where the female accepts the male in the act of mating
a. proestrus b. estrus c. metestrus d. diestrus
337. The region of the stomach where enzymes are secreted
a. esophageal b. cardiac c. fundus d. pyloric
338. The compartment of ruminant stomach where gastric juices and enzymes are secreted
a. rumen b. reticulum c. omasum d. abomasums
339. A natural means of alerting the body to prevent further damage to body tissues is
a. pain b. taste c. smell d. sight
340. A means of heat loss from the animals to cooler objects and heat gain by animals from
warmer ones
a. conduction b. convection c. evaporation d. radiation
341. The cattle population in the Philippines is more of the
a. draft type b. beef type c. dairy type d. dual-purpose type
342. Bones, which are similar in length, width and thickness are
a. long bones b. short bones c. flat bones d. irregular bones
343. Smooth muscles are

a. involuntary unstriated c. voluntary unstriated
b. involuntary striated d. red in color with varying shades
344. A very important aid in expelling fetus in parturition is
a. muscles b. nutrition c. good body condition d. reproductive organs
345. The caudal continuation of medulla oblongata
a. spinal cord b. tail c. brain stem d. vertebral column
346. Chemical substances produced by endocrine glands

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Animal Science
a. hormones b. enzymes c. gastric juices d. buffers

347. In the pituitary gland, melanocytes are produced at the
a. anterior lobe b. intermediate lobe c. posterior lobed. apical lobe
348. A hormone, which stimulates ovulation in females and intersititial secretion in males
a. adrenalin b. thyrotropin c. luteinizing hormone d. somatotropin
349. The enlargement of the thyroid gland is called
a. lymphocytes b. lymph node c. goiter d. thyroidites
350. Insulin is a hormone secreted by
a. liver b. pancreas c. spleen d. stomach
351. A hormone which maintains pregnancy and prepares the mammary glands for lactation
a. progesterone b. chronic gonadotroph c. prolactin d. lactogen
352. Fertilization takes place at the
a. cervix b. oviduct c. body of uterus d. horn of uterus
353. The type of uterus of rat, mice, rabbit and guinea pig is
a. duplex b. bicornuate c. bipartite d. simplex
354. Lactation is closely associated with
a. gestation b. parturition c. nutrition d. breeding
355. homoeotherms are also called
a.warm-blooded animals b. cold-blodded animals c. ectotherm d. amphibians
356. Evaporative cooling in non-sweating animals is accomplished by
a. deep breating b. panting c. fanning d. staying under the shade
357. The number of compartment of the ruminant stomach is
a. one b. two c. three d. four
358. Segments of the DNA in a chromosome considered top be the smallest unit of
inheritance
a. RNA b. gene c. nucleus of the cell d. none of the above
359. Genes that affect the same trait in a different ways are
a. heterozygous genes b. homozygous genes c. alleles d. none of the above
360. Genes that synthesize specific proteins and enzymes are
a. operator genes b. regulator genes c. structural genes d. none of the above
361. The 2n chromosome number for cattle, bison and goat is
a. 46 b. 64 c. 60 d. none of the above
362. The 2n chromosome number for pig is
363. The 2b chromosome number for horse is 64 and that of the donkey is 62, therefore
that of the mule is
364. A gene is said to be
a. recessive b. dominant c. overdominantd. none of the above
365. The case when to alleles express themselves in the phenotype
a. lack of dominance c. partial dominance
b. overdominance d. none of the above
366. The case when the heterozygote is superior in phenotype to the homozygote
a. lack of dominance c. partial dominance
b. overdominance d. epistasis
367. The mating of animals of different breeds or strains within a special
a. interspecific hybridization c. inbreeding
b. intraspecific hybridization d. none of the above
368. The form of crossbreeding typified by mating back of crossbred progeny to parents
a. single cross b. two way cross c. criss crossing d. none of the above
369. The mating of an exotic purebred male to mongrel or native female
a. backcrossing b. grading c. criss crossing d. none of the above
370. The kind of selection typified by survival of the fittest
a. artificial b. natural c. manual d. none of the above
371. A selection based on the performance of the offspring is

a. individual b. sib selection c. progeny test d. pedigree
372. A selection based on family average is
a. between family b. within family c. pedigree d. none of the above
373. A selection, which considers one trait at a time until improvement of such trait is
reached
a. selection index b. independent culling level c. tandem d. none of the above

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374. The setting minimum standard for traits being considered during selection is
a. selection index b. independent culling level c. tandem d. none of the above
375. It combines the value of each trait for all traits being considered into one score is
a. selection index b. independent culling level c. tandem d. individual selection
376. Defined as the physical appearance of an animal that is dependent upon its genetic
make up
a. genotype b. clone c. phenotype d. none of the above
378. The process of discriminating members or group of animals to retain the best as
parents of the next generation
a. selection b. breeding c. culling d. sib selection
379. A selection based on the deviation of individuals of a particular family from the mean
value of the family
a. between family b. within family c. pedigree d. none of the above
380. The age at which sperm or egg cells start to be produced is
a. puberty b. sexual maturity c. pregnancy d. none of the above
381. The process of super ovulating, harvesting and implanting fertilized ova to estrous
synchronized recipients to affect multiple births
a. cloning b. embryo transfer c. artificial insemination d. none of the above
382. Chickens incubate their eggs for
a. 21 days b. 28 days c. 35 – 37 days d. 17 – 18 days
383. The state when delayed copulation occurs leading to fertilization of aged ova with
several sperms entering the uttering membrane and produce a 3n chromosome number
a. polyspermy b. haploidy c. diploidy d. polyploidy
384. The special form or purpose for which an animal is to be used is defined as
a. variety b. type c. breed d. none of the above
385. The largest and most handsome of the Indian breed of goats
a. Jumnapari b. Toggenburg c. Saanen d. Alpine
386. A dairy cattle breed that has the highest milk fat content
a. Holstein-Friesian b. Brown Swiss c. Jersey d. none of the above
387. A dairy cattle that has the highest milk yield
a. Holstein-Friesian b. Brown Swiss c. Jersey d. none of the above
388. The breed of carabao/buffalo that produces the most milk
a. Thai buffalo b. Philippine carabao c. Murra buffalo d. Niti-Ravi
389. The breed of cattle consisting one-fourth Shorthorn, one-half Brahman and one-fourth
Hereford blood
a. Sta. Gerudis b. Beefmaster c. Charbaray d. Simbrah
390. The ideal roof type for backyard or semi-commercial ruminant production is
a. gable b. monitor c. semi-monitor d. gambrel
391. The type of floor consider ideal for small ruminants is
a. slatted b. clay c. concrete d. none of the above
392. The milking parlor where cows stand side-by-side with each other is
a. walk-through b. side opening c. herring bone d. abreast
393. To start breeding careheifer it should weigh at least
a. 350 kg b. 250 kg c. 300 kg d. none of the above
394. It is best to breed heifers at the gae of
a. 18-20 months b. 10-12 months c. 24-26 months d. none of the above
395. After calving cows and caracows, rebreeding is done from
a. one month b. 2 – 3 months c. 3 – 4 months d. none of the above
396. Feeds that are relatively high in fiber and low in digestible nutrients are called
a. fibrous feeds b. concentrates c. roughage d. none of the above
397. The fresh grass or forage that is cut and directly fed to animals in the barn/stable is
a. straw b. hay c. silage d. none of the above
398. Without adequate feeding of solid food, a calf can be weaned in 3 months. If given
concentrate and roughage as early as 2-3 weeks, but weaning is at
a. 6-8 months b. 10-12 monthsc. 3-4 months d. none of the above
399. From birth until five days old to build up disease resistance for calf it allows to suckle
a. whole milk b. milk replacer c. colostrums d. casein
400. The type of vaccine against tetanus is
a. tetanus toxoid b. tetanus antitioxin c. bacterin d. none of the above
401. In the Philippines, cattle and carabaos should be vaccinated against
a. foot and mouth disease c. both an and b

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b. hemorrhagic septicemia d. anthrax

402. Deforming in ruminants starts at the age of
a. one year b. 1-2 months c. 6-8 months d. none of the above
403. In carabeef population, backyard farms account for
a. 85% b. 70% c. 89% d. none of the above
404. In the county’s total, milk supply, the Philippine dairy farming sector produces about
a. 1% b. 15% c. 5% d. 10%
405. The procedure to check embryo development within an egg is called
a. dubbing b. hatching c. piping d. candling
406. A problem in which the funnel of the oviduct fails to pick-up or catches the yolk or ova is
known as
a. internal layers b. soft-shelled eggs c. double yolked eggs d. yolkiess eggs
407. The proper position of the chick that is ready to hatch is when the head is in the
a. small end of the egg c. either side of the egg
b. air cell end of the egg d. any of the above
408. A process which reduces the tendency of the embryo to stick to the shell membrane
and embryo malposition
a. turning b. marking c. warming d. none of the above
409. A rigid hierarchy in chickens which is determined simply by the problem of who can
peck whom is called
a. dominant behavior b. order of peck c. mating behavior d. none of the above
410. The removal of the comb and wattles from the males
a. clipping b. debeaking c. clubbed down d. dubbing
411. For the highest fertility hens should be inserminated/mated during the
a. latter part of the day c. early morning
b. middle part of the day d. any of he above
412. Eggs with no signs of embryonic development on candling are called
a. dead eggs b. clears c. empty eggs d. none of the above
413. It holds the yolk in place to prevent it from rising and bruising itself
a. shell membrane b. albumen c. chalazae d. viteline membrane
414. If live sperms are present, fertilization of eggs occur in the
a. magnum b. uterus c. ovary d. funnel
415. To prevent rupture of air cells in hatching eggs, store them with
a. small end down b. large end down c. flat on either side d. none of the above
416. The desire in a hen to sit on eggs is called
a. broodiness b. incubation c. laying behavior d. none of the above
417. The elimination of unproductive or undesirable birds
a. culling b. selection c. dusting d. grading
418. Part of the digestive system of poultry, which is responsible for grinding food
a. giblets b. gizzard c. stomach d. intestine
419. Removing the feathers and blood from a bird, which has been killed is known as
a. fabrication b. bleeding c. dressing d. processing
420. The edible viscera of the bird comprising its heart, liver and gizzard
a. proventiculus b. crop c. giblets d. entrails
421. The total number of eggs laid on the season divided by the average number of birds in
the house
a. hen-day production b. hen-housed average c. fertility rate d. hatchability rate
422. The period between setting and hatching out of eggs
a. oviposition b. incubation c. laying sequence d. none of the above
423. An egg laid by the hen without fertilization from the cock
a. infertile egg b. dead egg c. egg bound d. fertile egg
424. Laying sequence is the laying of eggs by the poultry birds on consecutive days and
otherwise known as
a. series b. chain c. clutch d. none of the above
425. The physiological process of shedding old feathers of a hen to grow a new coat annually
a. moulting b. shedding-off c. dressing d. perching
426. Birds spread oil from the uropyglal gland over their feathers with its back
a. oiling b. grooming c. preening d. none of the above
427. When the beak of the chick first pierces the shell, an incubated egg is said to have
a. piped b. hatched c. picked d. none of the above
428. The period just prior to the laying of the first eggs

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a. nesting period b. reproductive stage c. point of lay d. roosting time

429. The regulation of feed intake to prevent excessive fat deposition is known as
a. skip a day feeding b. ad lib feeding c. restricted feeding d. none of the above
430. Flashy protuberances on the heads and waffles of muscovy ducks
a. caruncles b. cap c. cape d. collar
431. A loose pouch of skin on the throat under the beak of geese
a. crest b. dewlap c. cushion d. down
432. A condition when each feather is turning back so that it point towards the head of the
bird
a. frizzled b. twisted c. booted d. none of the above
433. A layer of protective coating on the external surface of the egg
a. shell cover b. cuticle c. bloom d. b and c
434. The house used for rearing day-old chicks
a. grower house b. brooder house c. rearing house d. layer house
435. To prevent cannibalism, trimming the upper mandible of the beak of poultry is done and
known as
a. trimming b. cutting c. debeaking d. none of the above
436. The removal and replacement of all poultry on a farm after each cycle is popular, known
as
a. replacement program b. vacancy period c. all-in, all-out d. none of the above
437. A management system to minimize exposure of flocks to pathogen spread by
equipment, people, stray animals, vehicles and insects
a. biosecurity program b. vaccination program c. quarantine d. none of the above
438. The vacancy period required in an all-in, all-out management system
a. 1 month b. 1 week c. 2 months d. 3 days
439. Not keeping any other poultry or pet bird inside the farm is an important requisite in
a. all-in, all-out system c. vaccination program
b. sanitation program d. none of the above
440. As an indication of good performance under existing farm conditions, it is suggested
that beginners should raise
a. popular strain in the community c. imported strains
b. newly-introduced strains d. all of the above
441. Use of cheap, durable and locally available construction materials is related to
a. future expansion plans c. economy construction
b. environmental factors d. none of the above
442. It is used to house sickly and newly acquired birds
a. quarantine b. emergency house c. isolation house d. treatment house
443. Chicks that crowd and pile up under the heater indicate
a. low brooder temperature c. high brooder temperature
b. correct temperature d. none of the above
444. To allow pullets to recover their stress before the start of lay, pullets are transferred to
the layer house at the proper age
a. 17-18 weeks b. 6 months old c. 14-15 weeks d. 150 days
445. An indication of good layers
a. early moulters b. intermediate c. late moulters d. none of the above
446. The usual practice of raising ducks in rice growing areas
a. range type b. grazing system c. “Pagala” system d. none of the above
447. It indicates female sex in quails
a. plain brownish colored breast c. reddish-brown not speckled breast
b. red over sides d. gray speckles on light colored breast
448. To recover from dehydration during transport, the chicks are given
a. dextrose/electrolyte blend c. chick booster mash
b. immunization d. none of the above
449. The recommended land topography for poultry farms
a. steep elevation b. flat terrain c. slightly rolling d. none of the above
450. The roofing design which provides best ventilation to the birds
a. shed type b. gable type c. semi-monitor d. monitor type
451. To minimize odor and flies in a broiler farm, it is necessary to

a. remove manure daily b. a and c c. keep manure dry d. none of the above
452. To avoid full-crop penalty, feeds should be withdrawn from the broilers
a. 24 hours prior to hauling time c. 6 hours prior to hauling time

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b. 2 days prior to hauling time d. none of the above

453. A bisecurity measure for poultry farm entrance is to provide
a. dipping vat b. shower room c. germ killer washer d. none of the above
454. To facilitate proper mating in fowls with extra heavy plumage
a. clipping/trimming of feathers around vent c. clipping all feathers
b. confine males and females d. none of the above
455. Refers to the process of cutting carcasses into standard wholesale and retail cuts
a. meat fabrication b. slaughtering c. cutting d. slicing
456. The meat of mature sheep is called
a. lamb b. veal c. mutton d. venison
457. The color of rabbit meat
a. cherry pink b. white c. white gray d. pinkish brown
458. The color of beef
a. bright redb. purplish brown c. dark red d. cherry red to dark red
459. The color of cara-beef
a. dark red b. pinkish brown c. light red d. bright red
460. The following are the primal cuts of pork except
a. belly b. loin c. spare ribs d. ham
461. The following are wholesale cuts of beef carcass from the hindquarter except
a. round b. chuck c. flank d. sirloin
462. Retail cuts from pork belly
a. picnic slice b. short plate c. boneless d. bacon slice
463. One importance of proper meat fabrication
a. it makes everybody contented c. it establishes report in all channels
b. lowers cutting losses d. all of these
464. The number of hours that hogs be fast prior to slaughter
a. 48 b. 18 c. 24 d. 36
465. The marketing of eggs is based on
a. color b. sex c. weight d. all of these
466. Its meat is colored pink
a. venison b. pork c. mutton d. veal
467. Its meat is colored light red
a. lamb b. dog meat c. rabbit meat d. beef
468. The meat of a goat is known as
a. goat meatb. chevon c. mutton d. veal
469. The percentage of water in lean meat
a. 47-78% b. 63-90% c. 13-18% d. 85%
470. It is formed one centimeter ventral to the blade bone
a. ham b. loin c. spare ribs d. shoulder
471. The following are basic requirements for slaughtering except
a. the animal should be restrained
b. ante-morism and post-modem examination
c. slaughter should be done rapidly and humanly, slaughter should be done on public view
d. euthanasia and slaughter
472. It has an acid flavor and a smooth custard texture
a. ice cream b. yogurt c. butter d. cheese
473. A mixture of milk fat and water usually with salt and added colors is known as
a. milk lollies b. ice cream c. butter d. cheese
474. The sudden stress of an animal before slaughter causes
a. hydrolysis b. glycolysis c. loss of protein d. loss of water
475. The following are the cuts from the short loin except
a. club steak b. pinbone sirloin c. t-bone steak d. porterhouse steak
476. A slaughter hog of any sex weighing about 60 kilos is known as
a. piglet b. gilt c. shote d. stag
477. The meat of young cattle is called
a. lamb b. veal c. venison d. beef
478. The heating of milk at a temperature of 145-165°F in order to destroy germs that
maybe present is called
a. flash method b. holding method c. pasteurization d. milk preservation
479. A high calorie dairy product containing about 80 percent milk fat
a. cheese b. butter c. yogurt d. milk calories
480. The ripened or unripened cure of milk produced coagulating the milk organic or

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Animal Science
enzymes
a. ice cream b. milk ice c. cheese d. butter
481. The product obtained by curing the loin minus the bone
a. Canadian bacon b. breakfast bacon c. lamon d. pork tapa
482. Milk contains the following except
a. water b. milk fat c. lactose d. carbohydrates
483. Milk is rendered colostrum free at
a. three days before or five days after calving
b. five days before or five days after calving
c. seven days before or seven days after calving
d. one week
484. The percent fat content of carabao’s milk
a. 12.5 b. 3.9 c. 6.5 d. 1.2
485. The percent protein content of carabao’s milk
a. 6.3 b.60 c. 4.7 d. 4.0
486. The percent lactose content of cow’s milk
a. 7.0 b.40 c. 4.7 d. 4.8
487. The percent protein content of goat’s milk
a. 3.3 b.4.0 c. 3.6 d. 3.0
488. The meat of an avian specie is called
a. chicken meat b. turkey meat c. poultry meat d. goose meat
489. The meat of deer is called
a. lamb b. venison c. mutton d. veal
490. The percentage of the component of lean meat
a. 50 b. 60 c. 80 d. 83
491. The primary ingredient in curing meat
a. sugar b. salt c. spices d. Prague powder
492. The secondary ingredient in curing meat
a. sugar b. salt c. nitrates d. nitrites
493. It is responsible for the development of proper color in cured meat products
a. nitrate and nitrites b. Prague powder c. food coloring d. a and b only
494. It acts as preservative and color fixation agent
a. nitrates and nitrites b. salt c. food coloring d. sugar
495. The major components of meat are the following except
a. fat b. lean c. blood d. bone
496. Tocino is prepared from the following except
a. pork chop b. hem c. liempo d. legs
497. The process of keeping meat to make it stay longer or to retard spoilage
a. drying b. salting c. meat preservation d. curing
498. The application of salt, sugar, salitre and other preservatives to prolong the keeping
quality of the product
a. drying b. salting c. meat preservation d. curing
499. The exposure of meat to temperature of 36-50°F to retard mold and bacterial growth
for a limited period
a. drying b. freezing c. salting d. refrigeration
500. A preservative that helps tenderize meat
a. salt b. sugar c. acids d. nitrates
501. A preservative which increases the osmotic pressure thereby withdrawing moisture
from the meat
a. sugar b. salt c. acids d. nitrates
502. The exposure of meat to a temperature 0-32°F resulting in the crystallization of water
in the tissue
a. curing b. freezing c. salting d. refrigeration
503. This is the hermetic sealing of food in jars
a. irradiation b. canning c. cooking d. curing
504. It reduces growth of molds in sausages at 0.1% level
a. spices b. nitrates c. benzoates d. nitrites
505. The following are the principles involved in meat preservation except
a. inhibition of microbial growth c. inhibition of enzymatic reaction
b. inhibition of osmotic reaction d. inhibition of atmospheric oxidation
506. Marbling quality of meat contributes to the following except
a. juiciness b. flavor and appearance c. color d. palatability

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Animal Science
507. A ham style in which the meat is tied to give a rounded appearance
508. A ham style in which the top portion is made rectangular
a. Australian ham b. American style c. Chinese style d. boneless ham
509. In order to know the exact amount of ingredients used in curing, the meat should be
a. trimmed b. weight c. hang to dip d. all of these
510. It increases the water holding capacity of cure products
a. nitrite b. nitrate c. ascorbate d. phosphate
511. Carbohydrate products which absorb great quantities of water
a. binders b. extenders c. fillers d. all of these
512. Non-meat material which helps increase the bulk of the product
a. binders b. extenders c. fillers d. all of these
513. The vitamin that increases the absorption of calcium from the intestine and the
deposition of calcium in the bone
a. vitamin A b. vitamin D c. vitamin E d. vitamin K
514. Roughages contain fiber that is higher than
a. 10% b. 12% c. 18% d. 24%
515. The substances that make up protein
a. amino acids b. fatty acids c. nucleic acids d. simple sugars
516. Carbohydrates are made up of monosaccharides joined together by
a. peptide bonds b. glycosidle bonds c. ester bonds d. hydrogen bonds
517. They are inorganic group of nutrients
a. carbohydrates b. fats c. minerals d. protein
518. Organic substances that are grouped not because of similar chemical structure but
because of similar regulatory functions
a. carbohydrates b. fats c. proteins d. vitamins
519. A table that shows the requirement of the animals for the different nutrients
a. Feed Composition Table c. Water Table
b. Feeding Standard Table d. Mineral Table
520. The primary nutrient required for work
a. energy b. fats c. minerals d. protein
521. Substances known as organic catalysts
a. carbohydrates b. enzymes c. minerals d. protein
522. The mineral that is part of vitamin B12
a. calcium b. cobalt c. copper d. iron
523. The biological storage battery
a. ATP b. DNA c. NAD d. RNA
524. One of the following is a calcium-only source
a. bone meal b. dicaphos c. monophos d. oyster shell
525. The approximate component that represents the minerals
a. ash b. crude fiber c. crude protein d. moisture
526. The factor used to convert percent nitrogen to percent protein
a. 2.25 b. 3.25 c. 4.25 d. 6.25
527. The difference between NDF and ADF
a. cellulose b. hemicellulose c. lignin d. pectin
528. The process that prepares food/feed for digestion
a. digestion b. ingestion c. metabolism d. transport
529. The following are cereals except
a. cassava b. corn c. rice d. wheat oat
530. The following are microminerals except
a. calcium b. cobalt c. copper d. iron
531. The proximate component that is not analyzed directly
a. crude fiber b. crude protein c. either extract d. nitrogen free extract
532. The part of the cell wall that is not digestible even by rumen microorganisms
a. cellulose b. hemicellulose c. lignin d. pectin
533. The method used in feed formulation that is a simplified equation method
a. Chi-square b. Pearson square c. Punnett square d. Times square
534. The primary nutrient requirement for growth
a. energy b. minerals c. protein d. vitamins
535. The following are plant protein sources except
a. copra meal b. mungo meal c. skim milk d. soybean meal
536. The protein requirement of a growing pig

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Animal Science
a. 12% b. 14% c. 16% d. 18%

537. An animal that is not growing or producing anything has nutrient requirement for
a. gestation b. lactation c. maintenance d. work
538. A pregnant animal will have nutrient requirement for
a. fattening b. gestation c. lactation d. work
539. The following are animal protein sources except
a. fish meal b. meat and bone meal c. skim milk d. soybean meal
540. The nutrient that is made up of amino acids
a. carbohydrates b. fat c. proteins d. vitamins
541. The nutrient that is made up of simple sugars
a. carbohydrates b. fat c. proteins d. vitamins
542. The process of bringing nutrients from the site of absorption to the site of utilization
a. diffusion b. digestion c. metabolism d. transport
543. One of the following is not an essential nutrient
a. alanine b. linoleic acid c. linolenic acid d. methlonine
544. The following are fat soluble vitamins except
a. vitamin A b. vitamin C c. excitation D d. vitamin E
545. The amino acid that is essential to poultry but not to swine
a. glycine b. leucine c. lysine d. methionine
546. It is the sum of chemical changes occurring in an organism during the breakdown of
food and the synthesis of cellular materials
a. absorption b. digestion c. metabolism d. transport
547. The movement of nutrients from the point of absorption to the point of utilization
a. absorption b. digestion c. metabolism d. transport
548. The study of processes involved in the conversion of food/feed elements to body elements
a. absorption b. digestion c. metabolism d. nutrition
549. Percent nitrogen can be to percent protein by multiplying it with the factor
a. 2.25 b. 4.25 c. 6.25 d. 3.25
550. The process that prepares food/feed for absorption is
a. metabolism b. transport c. digestion d. ingestion
551. A condition in which a born twin male and female cattle, the female is 90% sterile
a. Freemartin b. Buller c. Springer d. Weaning
552. The carcass of meat of a three-month-old calf is called
a. veal b. beef c. chevon d. mutton
553. In ruminant animals, the volatile fatty acid are primarily absorbed in
a. abomasums b. lleum c. caecum d. rumen
554. The enzymes available for the fermentation of food in the rumen are largely secreted by
the
a. aerobic bacteria b. anaerobic bacteria c. host animal d. protozoa
555. The system of feeding ruminant animals in which the amount of feed offered is
unlimited
a. restricted feeding b. ad libitum c. cut and carry d. rotational grazing
556. Browser is the unique feeding habit of
a. goats b. sheep c. cattle d. carabao
557. The diaphysis is
a. the end of the long bone c. the covering of a bone
b. a bone found in a tendon d. the shaft of a long bone
558. Osteons are typical of the structure of
a. dense bone b. epiphyseal plates c. spongy bone d. the endosleum
559. Bones located in tendons are referred to as
a. tendonous bones b. loose bones c. sesamoid bones d. muscular bones
560. Cylindrical muscle cells that contain multiple nuclei located peripherally with the cell
would be
a. skeletal muscle cells only c. mulitiunit smooth muscle cells
b. single unit smooth muscle cells d. cardiac muscle cells only
561. The eye is closed by the
a. orbicularis oris b. buccinator c. orbicularis oculi d. platysma
562. The word “brevis” in a muscle name means
a. long b. short c. large d. small
563. Neuroglia in the central nervous system that produce the myelin sheath are the
a. astrocytes b. oligodendrocytes c. microglia d. enpendymal cells
564. The central nervous system contains the brain and the

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Animal Science
a. spinal nerves b. ganglia c. spinal cord d. motor nerves

565. The primary target for prolactin is the
a. ovaries b. hypothalamus c. adrenal cortex d. mammary glands
566. The thyroid gland is located
a. under the sternum
b. behind and beneath the stomach
c. in the sella turnica of the sphenoid bone
d. in the neck, anterior to the trachea
567. Antidiuretic hormone is secreted by
a. kidney b. adrenal cortex c. adenohypophysis d. neurohypophysis
568. Vasopressin is another name for
a. antidiuretic hormone b. thyrotropin c. aldosterone d. growth hormone
569. Blood plasma is made up mostly of
a. formed elements b. waterc. plasma proteins d. hemoglobin
570. The function of hemoglobin is to
a. carry oxygen c. protect the DNA of erythrocytes
b. produce red blood cells d. produce antibodies
571. The most abundant of plasma proteins are the
a. albumins b. hemoglobins c. gamma globulins d. clotting proteins
572. Eosinophilis are most commonly elevated in during
a. bacterial infection c. prolonged periods of hypoxia
b. chronic internal bleeding d. infections with parasitic worms
573. The function of epiglottis is to
a. produce surfactant c. hold the pharynx open during barking
b. close the nasal cavity d. close the larynx during swallowing
574. During external respiration, gases are exchanged between the
a. outside air and the alveoli c. blood and cells
b. alveoli and the blood d. outside air and blood in the dermis
575. Series of processes by which an organism takes in and assimilates food for promoting
growth and replacing worn out or injured tissues
a. nutrients b. metabolism c. digestion d. nutrition
576. Amino acids which are essential to be supplied in the diet of the animal to meet its
requirement
a. true protein c. essential amino acids
b. non-essential amino acids d. non-protein nitrogen
577. A water soluble vitamin which acts as an active group of different coenzymes which are
related to the citric acid cycle
a. pantothenic acid b. folic acid c. nicotinic acid d. ascorbic acid
578. The vitamin that works as a biological antioxidant and function in nucleic acid
metabolism and in endocrine glands
a. vitamin K b. vitamin E c. vitamin D d. vitamin A
579. A water soluble vitamin which is essential in the reduction of one-carbon compounds in
the fat and protein metabolism
a. vitamin B6 b. vitamin B1 c. vitamin B2 d. vitamin B12
580. What macromineral is deficient resulting to rickets in young animals and osteomalacia
or osteoporosis in older animals
a. calcium b. chlorine c. potassium d. magnesia
581. What micromineral is deficient resulting to delayed estrus, reduced ovulation and
fertility, and “knuckling over” in calves
a. iodine b. manganese c. molybdenum d. cobalt
582. What micromineral is deficient resulting to retained placenta, heart failure and
pancreatic fibrosis in chicks
a. zinc b. molybdenum c. selenium d. iodine
583. Medical specialty that deals with diagnosing and treating skin disorders
a. integumentum b. dermatology c. dermis d. dermatologist
584. Superficial covering of stratified squamuous epithelium
a. epidermisb. dermis c. subcutaneous layer d. pili
585. Comprised of the 80% of the epidermal cells and they produce a protein called keratin
a. melanocytes b. merkel cell c. keratinocytes d. langerhans cell
586. Produce the pigment melanin
a. melanocytes b. merkel cell c. keratinocytes d. langerhans cell

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Animal Science
587. Essentially a miniature digit and its covering resembles the hoof of the same animal
a. canon b. dew claw c. pastern d. hock
588. Covers almost the entire body of most domestic animals
a. ergots b. dew claws c. mane d. hair
589. Fasting is
a. feed ad libitum b. restricted feeding c. withdrawal of feed d. overcrowdling
590. Slaughterhouse with facilities and operational procedures so adequate that the meat
processed herein is eligible for sale in any market in end out of the country
a. class A b. class B c. class C d. class AA
591. Removal of the visceral organs
a. stunning b. sticking c. shrouding d. evisceration
592. The process in which the carcass is subjected to 0 to 4°C temperature
a. flaying b. splitting c. evisceration d. chilling
593. The normal fat color and consistency of pork
a. white and greasy c. cream white to yellow, firm and dry
b. flinty white d. seldom have fat
594. Animals that show change s in temperature following that of the environment
a. homeotherms b. warm blooded animals c. poikilotherms d. dog
595. Incubation period of ostrich
596. Process of choosing males and females with desirable characteristics
a. breeding b. selection c. genetics d. culling
597. Sexually mature female pig that has given birth
a. gilt b. boar c. sow d. shote
598. Gilts should be bred at
a. 7 months b. 5 months c. one year d. 8 months
599. Meat of pig
a. beef b. pork c. veal d. chevon
600. Technical term of pig
a. sow b. boar c. hog d. swine
601. Wean piglets of 30 days of age or at least when they are
a. 10 kg b. 12 kg c. 16 kg d. 20 kg
602. Castration of piglets should be done on
a. first week of life b. third week of life c. fourth week of life d. fifth week of life
603. Give piglets creep feed in small amount on the
a. fifth day b. tenth day c. seventh day d. ninth day
604. What law states that members of different pairs of alleles assort independently?
a. Principles of Segregation c. Principles of Independent Assortment
b. Chromosome Theory of Inheritance d. Principles of Linkage
605. What gene function is responsible in the reproduction of proteins in the animal body?
a. genetic make-up b. protein synthesis c. mRNA recombinant d. gene mutations
606. What is the factor that is due to a change in code sent by the DNA molecule by means
of mRNA for the amino acids to be assembles as proteins
a. genetic inheritance b. gene frequency c. gene mutations d. gene action
607. Who is the scientist who postulated the principles of Segregation and Independent
Assortment?
a. William Bateson b. Thomas Hunt Morgan c. Gregor Mendel d. Walter S. Sutton
608. What is the term given to the increased vigor of the offspring over the parents when
unrelated animals are mated
a. embryo transfer b. fertilization c. hybrid vigor d. outbreeding
609. A type of breeding system wherein purebred males are mated to grade females of low
quality
a. topcrossing b. inbreeding c. backcross d. grading
610. It is defined as the manipulation of biological differences between animals over time
using approaches in maximizing profitability
a. artificial breeding b. linebreeding c. animal breeding d. genetics
611. This method is practiced for only one trait and the least efficient of three methods
a. rational crossing b. tandem method c. inbreeding d. criss crossing
612. It is a form of inbreeding which is made to concentrate the inheritance of one ancestor
line or line of ancestors
a. linebreeding b. inbreeding c. backcrossing d. close breeding

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Animal Science
613. What method of selection involves separate determinations of the value of each trait
selected
a. backcrossb. selection index c. independent culling method d. selection
614. It is a transfer of embryo from a female to the uterine horn of a recipient female
a. embryo transfer b. cloning c. animal breeding d. in vitro fertilization
615. It is the production of identical copies of DNA sequences by recombinant DNA
technology
a. artificial insemination b. cloning c. gene mapping d. breedplan
616. This is a process of depositing semen in the female reproductive tract by using an
inseminating gun
a. embryo transfer c. artificial insemination
b. reproductive performance d. hand maxing
617. What technique which can be induced with PMSG or combination of FSH and LH?
a. embryo transfer b. synchronization c. cloning d. superovulation
618. It is one of the periods in the life cycle of reproduction
a. puberty b. sexual maturation c. senescent d. conception
619. What term is defined as the manipulation of biological differences between animals
over time aimed at maximizing profitability?
a. animal breeding b. breedplan c. selection d. artificial insemination
620. What organ is responsible in the aid of sperm production and regulation of
temperature?
a. scrotum b. external cremaster muscle c. tunica dartos d. pampiniform plexus
621. What organelle functions as the physiological unit of the kidney?
a. nephrons b. loop of Henlec. Proximal tubule d. none of the above
622. What hormone is associated with milk production?
a. prolactin b. estrogen c. androgen d. Leutinizing hormone
623. What hormone in the plasma enhances sodium retention by the kidney and expands
the volume of extracellular fluid?
a. androgen b. testosterone c. aldosterone d. ADH
624. An interrelationship between animals and their environment is referred to as ecological
system, wherein the environment embraces the following, except
a. duration and intensity of sunlight c. rainfall and its monthly distribution
b. bloat d. ambient temperature and its range
625. As a control measure for the prevention of farm contamination, any animal projects or
farms must be established at the recommended distance from the highway of about
a. 25 metersb. 50 meters c. 100 meters d. 200 meters
626. Semi-commercial or commercial livestock or poultry farms generate social and
economic benefits which include specifically the following, except
a. good source of family income c. source of good food for the family
b. increase living expenses d. best type of diversified farming
627. In order to satisfy the intake of good quality protein, The food and Nutrition Research
Council (FNRC) recommended per capita daily meat requirements an average of
628. The technical term for horse
a. bubaline b. equine c. bovine d. ovine
629. The technical term for pig
a. caprine b. swine c. bovine d. ovine
630. The technical term for goat
a. ovine b. caprine c. swine d. bovine
631. A sexually matured male horse for breeding purposes
a. stallion b. bull c. boar d. ram
632. A sexually matured male cattle for breeding purposes
a. bull b. stallion c. buck d. boar
633. A sexually matured male pig for breeding purposes
a. boar b. buck c. ram d. bull
634. A sexually matured male goat for breeding purposes
a. boar b. buck c. bull d. ram
635. A sexually matured male sheep for breeding purposes
a. bull b. boar c. buck d. ram
636. A sexually matured female horse for breeding purposes, and has given birth
a. cow b. sow c. mare d. doe

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Animal Science
637. A sexually mature female cattle for breeding purposes, and has given birth
a. sow b. ewe c. cow d. mare
638. A sexually matured female goat for breeding purposes, and has given birth
a. ewe b. sow c. doe d. mare
639. A sexually matured female sheep for breeding purposes, and has given birth
a. doe c. Cow c. ewe d. mare
640. A male horse castrated while young
a. stag b. steer c. barrow d. gelding
641. A male pig castrated while young
a. gelding b. steer c. stag d. barrow
642. A male cattle castrated while young
a. barrow b. gelding c. wether d. steer
643. A male goat castrated while young
a. gelding b. barrow c. steer d. wether
644. In the process of secreting milk by the mammary gland of a nursing dam
a. lactation b. ovulation c. castration d. flaying
645. A young female pig ready for breeding
a. gilt b. filly c. heifer d. doe kid
646. A young female cattle ready for breeding
a. heifer b. gilt c. filly d. ewe lamb
647. The height (inches) of the carabao is measured based from the lower end of the hoof of
the forelimb up to the point of the
a. back b. loin c. withers d. shoulder
648. The number of flanks found in all livestock species per unit head
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 6
649. Dewlap is a large piece of loose skin which can only be found in
a. pig b. goats c. cattle d. carabaos
650. It is the first seven cervical vertebrae
a. atlas b. axis c. lumber d. sacrum
651. These are bones which enclose the brain with its membranes, vessels and the
essential organs of hearing
a. cranial bones b. thoracic c. facial bones d. lumber
652. The occipital bone is situated at the posterior part of the cranium, and its lower part is
perforated centrally by a large almost circular opening, which is called
a. foramen magnum b. mental foramen c. obturator foramen d. infrorbital
653. It is a median segment bone which completes the skeleton of the thorax ventrally, and
articulates with cartilages of the sternal ribs laterally
a. sternum b. lumbar c. sacrum d. os coxae
654. The pelvic girdle of the pelvic limb consists of the following bones, except
a. lumbar b. os coxae c. symphysis pelvis d. sacrum
655. The following items are functions of the nose, except
a. air is humidified b. air is filtered c. air is warmed d. air is recycled
656. A complex valvular apparatus which regulates the volume of air in respiration, prevent
aspiration of foreign bodies, and also the chief organ of voice
a. trachea b. bronchus c. bronchiole d. larynx
657. The common passage for the air and food
a. larynx b. bronchi c. trachea d. pharynx
658. It is the inflow and outflow of air between the atmosphere and the lung alveoli
a. alveolus b. spirometry c. alveolar duct d. pulmonary
659. It is the process of recording the volume movement of air into and out of the lungs
a. alveolus b. pulmonary ventilation c. alveolar duct d. spirometry
660. It is the compartment of the compound stomach in ruminants where fermentation and
absorption of nutrients usually taking place
a. rumen b. reticulum c. omasum d. abomasums
661. The accessory organ in the digestive system which secretes bile is called
a. spleen b. pancreas c. kidney d. liver
662. The first division of the large intestine is called
a. ileum b. jejunum c. rectum d. caecum
663. The major product in the fermentation and digestion of the dietary carbohydrates in the
rumen is called
a. glucose b. amino acid c. glycerol d. volatile fatty acids
664. Bacterial proteins are digested and the product of the hydrolysis are absorbed in the

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Animal Science
a. reticulum b. omasum c. abomasums d. small intestine

665. Metabolic waste products are produced by the cells for proper disposal by the
a. heart b. intestine c. lungs d. excretory system
666. Our rapid reflex action is due to
a. nervous system b. digestive system c. respiratory system d. circulatory system
667. It jointly controls the voluntary and involuntary muscle to respond to the stimuli in the
environment
a. brain b. spinal column c. brain and spinal column d. none of the above
668. Hearing is made possible through our
a. hair cell receptor b. organ of corti c. rods d. rods and cones
669. The sense organ of our taste is
a. taste bud b. tongue c. mouth d. saliva
670. The following are homeotherms except
a. man b. birds c. hogs d. fishes
671. Physical defense mechanism is done by
a. sweating b. changing the rate of breathing c. altering the volume of blood flow
d. a, b and c
672. When the animal is in direct contact with the environment, heat dissipation is through
a. conduction b. convection c. radiation d. vaporization
673. When the heat is transformed to or from the animal by the movement of the heated air
particles, it is called
a. conduction b. convection c. radiation d. vaporization
674. When the heat transfer involves electromagnetic waves traveling at the speed of 186,
000 miles per second, it is called
a. radiation b. convection c. conduction d. vaporization
675. The most important process by which the animal losses heat to maintain body
temperature
a. radiation b. convection c. conduction d. vaporization
676. The most least industry developed livestock commodity in the Philippines
a. beef b. swine c. poultry d. rabbit
678. The cattle industry is faced with major constraints except
a. limited breeding base c. peace and order problem
b. poor nutrition and management d. relative low capital investment
679. The prospects and opportunities in beef industry include
a. credit facilities b. competitive local beef industry c. large marginal areas
c. a, b and c
680. Extensive system of cattle raising
a. ranching b. fattening c. cut-and-carry d. none of the above
681. The cheapest but the most important of all the nutrients
a. carbohydrates b. waterc. fats d. vitamins
682. Rumen can convert non protein nitrogen (NPN) to microbial protein to supply the amino
acid needs of the animal through the action of
a. microbial organisms b. organisms c. parasites d. microbes
683. A process which involves the exposure of strips of meat to the sun until moisture
content is brought down to about 14%
a. freeze drying b. slow freezing c. quick freezing d. sun drying
684. A method which takes 3 to 72 hours at –15 to -28°C to freeze meat
a. chilling b. quick freezing c. slow freezing d. freeze dehydration
685. It is subjecting meat to a temperature range below room temperature but higher than
freezing temperature at 10°C
a. chilling b. smoking c. freezing d. salting
686. Milk is heated at 63°C for no less than 30 minutes
a. pasteurized milk b. homogenized milk c. evaporated milk d. condensed milk
687. Milk has been passed through small opening by pressure to produce finer fat globules,
giving milk a uniform consistency and flavor
a. pasteurized milk b. homogenized milk c. skim milk d. condensed milk
688. A concentrated milk in which sugar has been added
a. skim milk b. pasteurized c. evaporated d. condensed
689. Preservation of meat by heating and air sealed in container
a. smoking b. salting c. drying d. canning
690. A white milk powder obtained by evaporating the moisture from the milk solids
a. skim milk b. homogenized c. evaporated d. dried milk

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Animal Science
691. Changes as those caused by freezing, burning, drying, pressure, etc. are classified as ______
category of meat spoilage
a. mirobiological b. macrobiological c. physical d. chemical
692. Bacteriostatics are used in meats to delay spoilage and to make bacteria population
low
a. ionization radiation b. antibiotics c. chemical preservation
d. hydrogen ion concentration
693. Foods are irradiated up to 5 to 6 M rad y-rays which penetrate the food, killing certain
or all bacteria
a. ionization radiation b. antibiotics c. chemical preservation
d. hydrogen ion concentration
694. It is used with caution, give pronounce effects on flavor and help prevent the
development of oxidative rancidity in meat
a. nitrates b. ascorbates c. phosphates d. salt
695. Hazards from tetracycline, streptomycine, neomycin are minimal but penicillin and
chloraphenicol are dangerous ______
a. pestiside residue b. veterinary drug residue c. parasites d. bacteria
696. It is the nature’s best balance food for mammals that it contains almost all of the
nutrients necessary for life
a. meat b. milk c. eggs d. processed milk
697. It is a sufficient vitamin B source that is 3 to 5 times absorbable than from plant
sources
698. Richest source of iron among the animal food
a. meat b. milk c. eggs d. fish
699. Meat that contains low level of myoglobin that leads to its white color
a. pork b. beef c. carabeef d. poultry
700. The protein component in meat
a. myosin b. water c. inorganic salts d. extractives
701. Made from mallard duck eggs which are subjected to artificial incubation for 17-18
days
a. balut sa puti b. balut mamalong c. fertile egg d. stale egg
702. The most popular meat sold in the market
a. veal b. beef c. pork d. chevon
703. Meat of all species of domesticated birds like chicken, turkey, ducks, pigeon, etc.
a. veal b. lapan c. pork d. poultry
704. It has higher fat content than meats of other animals
a. pork b. poultry c. lamb d. lapan
705. The yellow color of cow’s milk is imparted by
a. riboflavinb. butter fat c. carotene d. flavor
706. The milk of the dam few days after giving birth
a. homogenized b. condensed c. evaporated d. colostrums
707. Contains the highest protein content (19-23%) among the animal foods
a. meat b. milk c. eggs d. processed milk
708. The most attractive shape of poultry eggs
a. slender b. almost round c. elliptical d. pointed
709. Eggs weighing 62 grams and above
a. extra large/jumbo b. large c. medium d. small
710. Eggs weighing 48 to 54 grams
a. jumbo b. large c. medium d. pewee
711. It is gaining popularity and acceptability in modern market today usually on retail basis
a. capon b. stewing or broiler c. dressed or ready-to-cook d. broiler
712. Before eggs are marketed, they are prepared by
a. cleaning of dirty shells c. classification according to size and color
b. elimination of cracked eggs d. a, b and c
713. Meat from a 10 months old poultry or older is less tender and breastbone cartilage is
less flexible
a. broiler or stewing b. capon c. broiler d. fryer
714. The most common way of storing eggs
a. oil treatment c. refrigeration
b. frozen liquid eggs d. salted and century egg
715. The production-marketing channels of livestock are grouped and this group distributes

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Animal Science
livestock and livestock products

a. livestock producers and growers c. processors
b. traders/butchers/retailers d. institutional buyers
716. They convert fresh meat into value added processed meat products
a. livestock producers and growers c. processors
b. traders/butchers/retailers d. cooperative members
717. In marketing live animals
a. buyers will do he picking c. market sick animals
b. sell on per head basis d. dispose of all marketable animals readily
718. Improper handling of animals during transport will result in
a. shrinkage of weight from 50 to 20% c. inferior carcass quality
b. death losses due to injury d. a, b and c
719. Any chemical compound having specific functions in the nutritive support of animal life
is
a. nutrient b. food c. vitamins d. supplements
720. Any material eaten by an animal as part of its daily ration
a. fodder b. forage c. roughage d. feed
721. The feed resulting from the storage and fermentation of green or wet crops under
anaerobic conditions
a. soil b. silage c. forage d. roughage
722. A substance present in cottonseed and cottonseed meal, which is toxic to swine and
other non-ruminant animals
a. gossypol b. mimosine c. tannins d. saponins
723. A hexose monosaccharide found especially in ripe fruits and honey. Commonly known
as fruit sugar
a. fructose b. glucose c. galactose d. sucrose
724. A complex organic nitrogenous compound formed from various combinations of
different amino acids
a. nutrients b. carbohydrates c. protein d. mineral
725. A white crystalline, water-solluble substance used extensively as a source of non-protein
nitrogen for animal breeding
a. urea b. pellets c. molasses d. sugars
726. An ingredient or combination of ingredients added, usually in small quantities, to a
basic feed mix for the purpose of fortifying the basic mix with certain essential nutrients
and/or medicines
a. supplements b. enzymes c. additives d. vitamins
727. It is known also as an animal starch which is formed in the liver to serve as a ready
source of energy when needed by the animal
a. carotene b. hormone c. glycogen d. depofat
728. A semi-concentrated source of one or more nutrients to enhance the nutritional
adequacy of a daily ration or a complete ration mixture
a. supplement b. additive c. enzymes d. vitamin
729. The average percentage of nitrogen in protein
a. 12 b. 10 c. 16 d. 6.25
730. The most important polysaccharides of a non-fibrous nature found in plants, particularly
in grains and other root crops
a. starch b. glycogen c. pectins d. gums
731. Prevents night blindness in calves
a. vitamin A b. vitamin C c. vitamin D d. vitamin E
732. A total mineral content of plants or animals is often called
a. ash b. potash c. calcium d. zinc
733. A macro mineral
a. calcium b. copper c. cobalt d. zinc
734. Functions in blood clotting
a. vitamin C b. vitamin K c. vitamin 12 d. vitamin B1
735. Maximum percentage of protein normally found in soybean or meat
a. 36 b. 41 c. 44 d. 50
736. A condition sometimes caused by a deficiency of iodine
a. goiter b. osteoporosis c. anemia d. edema
737. The most abundant mineral element in the body

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Animal Science
a. phosphorus b. iodine c. calcium d. copper

738. A condition in older animals caused by a deficiency of calcium
a. anemia b. goiter c. osteoporosis d. edema
739. Number of macro elements that function in animal nutrition
a. 6 b. 11 c. 16 d. 20
740. Ether extract is another name for

a. crude protein b. crude fat c. crude d. fiber
741. Combination of glucose and fructose and is found in high concentration in plants such
as sugarcane or sugar beets
a. sucrose b. lactose c. maltose d. starch
742. It is that fraction of the total carbohydrates which is obtained when the sum total of
crude protein, ether extract, crude fiber and esh is subtracted from 100
a. NFE b. Dm c. MC d. TDN
743. The cheapest and most and most abundant feed nutrient
a. carbohydrates b. waterc. vitamin d. protein
745. One of the fat soluble vitamins
a. vitamin K b. vitamin C c. vitamin B d. folic acid
746. The conversion of simple substances into more complex substances by living cells
a. metabolism b. catabolism c. anabolism d. digestion
747. One of the groups of organic substances which in relatively small amounts are essential for
life
a. vitamins b. supplements c. water d. nutrients
748. Striations are seen in
a. osseous tissue c. muscle cells contain sarcomeres
b. smooth muscle cells d. deep fascia
749. A type of muscle tissue that is both striated and involuntary is
a. skeletal muscle tissue c. smooth muscle tissue
b. cardiac muscle tissue d. both cardiac and muscle tissue
750. Smooth muscle tissue is found
a. attached to bones c. in the wall of the heart only
b. lining hollow organs and body tubes d. lining long bones
751. The fibrous connective tissue that connects muscles to bone is
a. tendon b. ligament c. epimysilum d. perimysilum
752. Thick myofilaments are made mostly of
a. actin b. troponin c. myosin d. tropomysium
753. The property of muscle tissue that allows it to return to its original shape after
stretching or contracting is called
a. excitability b. contractility c. elasticity d. extensibility
754. The property of muscle tissue that describes its ability to receive and respond to stimuli
is
a. excitability b. contractility c. elasticity d. extensibility
755. The sarcolemma is the
a. storage site for calcium ions for myofibers
b. cell membrane of a myofiber
c. compound that binds oxygen for use in slow, oxidative muscle cells
d. separation between sarcomeres in a myofiber
756. Skeletal muscles are stimulated to contract
a. calcium ions bind to the sarcolemma causing an electrical disturbance
b. acethylcholine diffuses into sarcoplasm
c. acethylcholine binds to receptors on the sarcolemma, causing an electrical disturbance
d. ATP is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
757. The dense connective tissue surrounding individual muscle fibers is the
a. deep fascia b. epimysium c. perimysium d. endomysium
758. A tract is
a. the connective tissue surrounding a bundle of axons
b. a bundle of fascicles of axons in the peripheral nervous system
c. a bundle of fascicles of axons in the central nervous system
d. the grooves along the bones which nerves run
759. The part of a neuron that might be myelinated is the
a. axon b. neurofibral node c. cell body d. all of these except nucleus
760. The axon terminals of a neuron are found

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Animal Science
a. at the end of axons c. where dendrites meet axons of the same neuron
b. in the axolemma d. where the axon leaves the cell body
761. The branch of a neuron that carries a nerve impulse away from the cell body
a. axon b. dendrite c. perikaryon d. neurofibril node
762. Most cells within nervous tissue are
a. neurons b. neuroglia c. fibroblasts d. axons
763. The central nervous system contain the brain and the
a. spinal nerves b. ganglia c. spinal cord d. motor nerves
764. Afferent nerves conduct nerve impulses from
a. the central nervous system to effectors
b. effectors to the central nervous system
c. receptors to the central nervous system
d. the central nervous system to the receptors
765. Nerve impulses are conducted toward the cell body by the
a. axon b. dendrite c. cell body d. neurolemmocyte
766. The myelin sheath is composed mainly of
a. glycogen c. various neurotransmitters
b. sodium and potassium ions d. phospholipids
767. Nerve cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system generally cluster together to form
a. tracts b. nerves c. ganglia d. nuclei
768. Hormones secreted from the neuropophysis are synthesized by the
a. adenohypophysis b. thyroid gland c. neurohypophysis d. hypothalamus
769. The primary target for prolactin is the
a. ovaries b. hypothalamus c. adrenal cortex d. mammary glands
770. Thyroid gland is located
a. under the sternum c. in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
b. behind and beneath the stomach d. in the neck, anterior to the trachea
771. A primary effect minualocorticoids is to promote
a. increased urine production c. excretion of sodium ions by the kidney
b. excretion of potassium ions by the kidney d. decreased blood glucose
772. Androgens are
a. female sex hormones b. releasing hormones that target the pituitary gland
c. male sex hormones d. releasing hormones that target the gonads
773. Synthesis and secretion of insulin-like growth factors is promoted by
a. insulin only b. somatothropin c. thyroxin d. both insulin and glucagon
774. Male secondary sex characteristics developed primarily in response to
a. estrogens b. progesterone c. relaxin d. testosterone
775. Melatonin is a hormone produce in response to varying levels of day light by the
a. neuropophysis b. gonads c. pineal glands d. thymes
776. Vasopressin is another name for
a. antidiuretic hormone b. throtropin c. aldosterone d. growth hormone
777. Which of the following is not produced by the anterior pituitary gland?
a. ACTH b. FSH c. CRH d. TSH
778. The first sound heard when meaning blood pressure corresponds to
a. blood pressure at ventricular contraction
b. blood pressure at ventricular relaxation
c. the closing of semilumar values
d. the depolarization of SA node
779. Blood flows directly into the superior vena cava from the
a. inferior vena cava b. brachiocephalic veins c. axillary veins
e. internal jugular veins
780. Blood flows into the left common artery from the
a. arch of the aorta c. right common carotid artery
b. brachiocephalic trunk d. left subclauvian artery
781. The only postnatal arteries that carry deoxygenated blood are the
a. coronary arteries c. pulmonary arteries
b. bronchial arteries d. common carotid arteries
782. Lymphatic tissue is specialized form of
a. adipose tissue c. simple sqanous epithelium
b. dense connective tissue d. reticular connective tissue
783. The process of mastication results in
a. passage of food from the oral cavity into the esophagus

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Animal Science
b. removal of the pathogens from the partially digested food by MALT tissues
c. mechanical mixing of food with saliva and shaping food into a bulos
d. sudden movement of colonic contents into the rectum
784. Bile is produced by the
a. liver b. pancreas c. villi d. stomach
785. Most absorption of nutrients occur in the
a. large intestine b. small intestine c. duodenum d. stomach
788. True stomach of chicken
a. crop b. gizzard c. proventiculus d. small intestine
789. Which of the following is an example of mechanical digestion?
a. glycolysis b. hydrolysis c. oxidation-reduction d. mastication
790. The major digestive enzyme in saliva
a. emylase b. maltose c. carboxypeptidase d. lipase
791. Goats are important to man for their meat and ______
a. skin b. milk c. hair d. hoop
792. Goats being small animals are commonly know as “poor man’s cow” because
a. require small initial investment c. occupy only small space
b. subsistence farming especially for poor families d. a, b and c
793. The gestation period of goats
794. A goat bred known of its large body size and long pendulous ears
a. Saanen b. Nubian c. Toggenburg d. Jamnapari
795. It has a brown or cream hair color, medium body size about 60-70 kg thrives well in the
tropics and produces 3 kg of milk per day
a. Saanen b. Nubian c. Toggenburg d. Boer
796. Determinant for evaluating tha age of goat and sheep
a. body size b. weight c. teeth d. length of horn
797. The proper height of the fence to successfully confine goats
a. 3 m b. 1.5 m c. 1 m d. 4 m
798. Goats are usually kept in small herd of 5 to 10 heads and allowed to browse on waste
vegetation and hedges
a. tethering c. extensive production
b. intensive production d. complete confinement
799. Goats are raised into establish plantations of rubber, oil palm or coconut
a. integration into plantation agriculture c. intensive production
b. extensive production d. tethering
800. Daily goats are confined and allowed to feed on cut grasses and legumes with
concentrate ration
a. integration into plantation agriculture c. intensive production
b. extensive production d. tethering
801. Best age for disbudding of kids
a. 1-2 weeks b. 3-6 weeks c. 5-8 weeks d. 8-12 weeks
802. Age of male kids to be able to perform castration
a. 1 week b. 2-4 weeks c. 5-8 weeks d. 7-8 weeks
803. Age of buck allowed to serve does for the first time
a. 8 months b. 6 months c. less than 6 months d. none of the above
804. It is the mating of relatively unimproved female to a purebred or highly improved male
a. grading b. crossbreeding c. inbreeding d. line breeding
805. It is the period when doe shows signs and allows the buck to serve her
a. dry doe b. estrus c. estrous d. freshening doe
806. It is the period intervening between 2 successive heat periods in the absence of
conception
a. estrous cycle b. pregnancy c. estrus d. freshing
807. During the breeding season, the ration of the buck should be supplemented with
concentrate ration
a. 2 kg/day b. 0.40 to 0.80 kg/day c. 1.5 kg/day d. 3 kg/day
808. It is useful in determining the relative progress made in selection to improve various
traits
a. growth rate b. reproduction efficiency c. heritability estimates d. milk yields
809. It is the process in eliminating undesirable and unproductive animals in the breeding
herd
a. herd management b. breeding and selection c. record keeping d.

82
Animal Science
culling
810. The indication that the giving birth of the doe is finished
a. expulsion of the after birth c. presence of milk
b. expulsion of the fetus d. enlarged udder
811. Meat of barrows which are castrated hogs have the same quality with that of
a. boars b. sows c. gilts d. old stage
812. Boars have superior leanness over
a. castrates b. old stags c. piglets d. shotes
813. Boar color in meat is caused by
a. estrogen b. progesterone c. 5  androsterone d. prostaglandin F, 
814. The anabolic hormone that induces development of body muscle in bulls
a. leutenizing hormone c. testicular hormone
b. follicle stimulating hormone d. estrogen
815. The recommended age for cattle and carabaos for slaughter
a. five years c. six years or older
b. three years or younger d. one year or below
816. Swing is best slaughtered within
a. 110-120 kg liveweight c. 60-70 kg liveweight
b. 150-175 liveweight d. 85-110 kg liveweight
817. Highest dressing percentage (DP) among farm animals is obtained from
a. beef b. goats c. swine d. carabeef
818. The lowest DP among animals is obtained from
a. beef b. goats c. swine d. carabeef
819. The withdrawal of feeds prior to the slaughter of animals
a. fasting b. stunning c. sticking d. scalding
820. The bleeding of animals after restraining
a. fasting b. stunning c. sticking d. scalding
821. The cutting of carcass into standard wholesale and retail cuts
a. slaughtering b. eviscerating c. scrapping d. fabrication
822. The chuck in the cattle is also known as
a. “tadyang” b. “punia de pecho” c. “batuk” d. “kanto”
823. The ribs or castillas in cattle is also known as
a. “tadyang” b. “punia de pecho” c. “batuk” d. “kanto”
824. The ham in swine is also known as
a. “pata” b. “pige” c. “liempo” d. “lomo”
825. The loin in swine is also known as
a. “pata” b. “pige” c. “liempo” d. “lomo”
826. An efficient way in preventing cannibalism
a. vaccination b. caponization c. brooding d. debeaking
827. An important way of preventing disease
a. vaccination b. caponization c. brooding d. debeaking
828. A factor which controls the onset of lay and effects the performance of layers during the
production period
a. feeding b. lighting c. watering d. debeaking
829. To prevent direct sunlight from falling on the sidewalls on the hottest part of the day,
length of poultry house should be facing
a. north-south direction c. east-west direction
b. east-west direction d. west-south direction
830. The provision of artificial heat to chicks to help them maintain body temperature
a. incubation b. vaccination c. brooding d. debeaking
831. The feed given to broiler from day-old to 10 days of age
a. broiler starter b. broiler finisher c. grown mash d. chick booster mash
832. To prevent mortalities due to heat stroke, skip feeding is practical between
a. 2 am to 8 am b. 8 am to 2 pm c. 2 pm to 8 pm d. 8 pm to 2 am
833. The first vaccine given to chicks at 7 to 10 days of age
a. Hog cholera vaccine c. NCD-B1 B1 vaccine
b. NCD la sata vaccine d. Fowl fox vaccine
834. The feed given to layers from 19 weeks of age to termination of laying
a. layer mash b. grower mash c. layer developer mash d. layer starter mash
835. During summer, the recommended dimension of floor for the broilers is
a. 1.0 sq inch/bird b. 0.9 sq ft/bird c. 1.0 sq ft/bird D. 1.0 sq m/bird
836. The type of roofing recommended to provide an outlet for gases produced inside the

83
Animal Science
buildings
a. gabble type b. shade type c. semi-monitor d. monitor type
837. A hog with white belt around the shoulder and body including the forelegs with ears
pointed upward
a. Pletrain b. Hampshire c. Yorkshire d. Berkshire
838. A breed that is black in color with 6 white points on feet, face and switch of tail with
erect ears
a. Pletrain b. Hampshire c. Yorkshire d. Berkshire
839. A white hog with some freckles on the skin with ears that are dropping
a. Landrace b. Yorkshire c. Pletrain d. Duroc
840. An example of a hybrid pig
a. Hypor b. Landrace c. Pletrain d. Duroc
841. A type of crossbreeding where selected native gilts/sows are mated to standard
purebred boars
a. two-breed crossbreeding c. upgrading
b. three-breed crossbreeding d. inbreeding
842. Boars and gilts should be bred at the age of
a. 6 months b. 7 months c. 8 months d. 9 months
843. Group replacement gilts near boar pen to
a. stimulate feeding b. improve nutrition c. stimulate lactation d. estrus
844. Boars are kept in good physical condition therough proper feeding and
a. sleeping b. breeding c. lactation d. exercise
845. The giving of high energy feeds to breeders before breeding to increase ovulation rate is
known as
a. flushing b. breeding c. vaccination d. deworming
846. If the sow has developed hardening and reddening of the udder, it may indicate a
developing
a. metritis b. mastitis c. brucellosis d. cholera
847. Iron is injected to piglets on the third day to prevent
a. cholera b. pneumonia c. anemia d. SARS
848. An example of an internal parasite
a. lies b. ascaris c. flies d. mango
849. Animals should be comfortable at all times and therefore be provided with adequate
a. nutrition b. breeding c. vaccination d. housing
850. The functions of all genes are the following except
a. control the function of other (structural) genes
b. copy or replicate itself
c. store and transmit genetic information
d. undergo mutation
851. Inbreeding depression inmost reproductive traits in farm animals is caused by
a. outcrossing b. parent offspring mating c. species hybridization d. upgrading
852. The American Brahman breed is an exmple of
a. Bos indicus (Zebu) cattle c. Bos taurus humped cattle
b. Bos indicus humpless cattle d. Bos Taurus humpless cattle
853. In formula P (phenotype) = G (genetics) + E (environment), the following are the types of
gene action that may be exploited by crossbreeding except
a. additive gene effects b. dominance c. epistasis d. overdominance
854. The following are examples of non-Mendelian inheritance except
a. Autosomal linkage c. Cytoplasmic inheritance
b. Complete dominance d. Plieotropy
855. ______ leads to random genetic drift because of chance variation or sampling
effects/errors
a. migrationb. non-random mating c. selection d. small population size
856. The magnitude of inbreeding in inbred populations depends on
a. degree or coefficient of inbreeding
b. dominance effect (d)
c. frequency of heterozygotes before breeding (Zpg)
d. all of the above
857. The average gestation period in the sow is
858. Duroc is a breed of

84
Animal Science
a. beef cattle b. dairy cattle c. goat d. swine

859. When a gene suppresses the expression of the allele, the former is called the dominant
gene, while the latter is referred to as the ______ of the gene
a. homozygous b. regulator c. recessive d. structural
860. ______ determines the sex of the individual
a. autosomes b. mating system c. selection d. sex chromosome
861. ______ is the notation used to refer to the heterogametic sex chromosomes of a hen
a. XX b. XY c. ZZ d. ZW
862. ______ is the heterogametic sex in horses
a. male b. female c. either male or female d. both male and female
863. Milk production in cows and egg production in quails are examples of economically
important traits, which are known as
a. maternal effects b. sex-influenced c. sex-limited d. sex linked
864. ______ is when genes that are more closely linked tend to be inherited together more
often than those that are located further apart in the same chromosome
a. autosomal linkage b. Plietropy c. non-nuclear inheritance d. sex linkage
865. The following reproductive biotechnologies maybe used to manipulate the reproductive
process in cattle, carabaos, horses, and goats except
a. in vitro fertilization b. embryo transfer c. oocyte culture d. cloning
866. Value of heritability which suggests that all phenotypic variation among the individual in
the population is due to additive and non-additive gene effects
a. –1 b. 0 c. +1 d. 2
867. Which of the following breed of livestock or poultry was not developed by Filipino
breeders at the U.P. College of Agriculture in the 1920s?
a. Berkjala pigs chickens c. Peking ducks
b. Los Baños Cantonese d. Philamione cattle
868. The goal in inbreeding is to increase
a. Frequency of the homozygous dominant genotypes
b. Frequency of the homozygous recessive genotypes
c. Frequency of the heteozygotes
d. a and b only
869. The Hardy-Weinberg Law states that ______ frequencies remain constant from
generation to generation provided that the population is large, mating is random, and that
there is no migration, mutation, and selection
a. gene and genotypic c. genotypic and phenotypic
b. gene and phenotypic d. genetic
870. The following reproductive biotechnology increases the reproduction rate in the bull,
buck, boar or ram
a. Multiple Ovulation and Embryo transfer (MOET)
b. Artificial insemination (AI)
c. In vitro fertilization (IVT)
d. Cryopreservation
871. In Mendel’s Law of Segregation, the following are stated except
a. Genes determine character
b. Genes occur in pairs
c. Only one of the gene pair is transmitted by a particular gamete
d. Segregation and combination is random
872. In a segment of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), adenine is an example of
a. Amino acid b. Nucleotide c. Purine d. Pyrimidine
873. ______ is the term for gametogenesis for the cow
a. fertilization b. heterosis c. oogenesis d. spermatogenesis
874. ______ is a segment of the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) which determines the base
sequence of a nucleotide in the ribonucleic acid (mRNA) that makes up the code for a
certain biological function
a. chromosome b. gamete c. gene d. genotype
875. ______ is the process of the union of the sperm and the egg to form a zygote which
develops as a new individual
a. fertilization b. gametogenesis c. meiosis d. mitosis
876. ______ is a process by which the germinal cells divide to produce haploid cells each
carrying only one –half of the genetic complement of the individual
877. ______ is the process of producing the reproductive cells

85
Animal Science

878. ______ is a spontaneous change in the biochemical structure of the gene resulting in
an entirely different phenotypic effect
a. migrationb. mutation c. random genetic drift d. selection
879. ______ is the process in which individuals from one population transfer to another
population
880. ______ measures the proportion of the total phenotypic variance that are attributable to
the additives effects of genes that influence the trait
a. Heritability b. Repeatability c. Dominance d. Epistasis
881. ______ is a result of crossbreeding characterized by a large improvement in the

average performance of the F1 progeny over that of the parents
a. heterosis b. random genetic drift c. panmixia d. linkage
882. ______ is when individuals of the same phenotype (positive) or different phenotype
(negative) are mated
a. assortative b. outbreeding c. non-random mating d. panmixia
883. ______ is a capability of phenotype and a corresponding genotype to survive and
reproduce in a given environment
a. epistasis b. fitness c. genotype x environment interaction d. panmixia
884. ______ causes differential fitness among phenotypes
885. ______ is the change in population mean due to selection
a. selection differential c. selection intensity
b. response to selection d. genetic standard deviation
886. ______ is the mating between animals less closely related than the average of the
group to which they belong
a. inbreeding b. outbreeding c. outcrossing d. criss crossing
887. ______ is the difference of the mean phenotypic value between the offspring of the
selected parents and the whole of the parental generation before selection
a. selection differential c. selection intensity
b. response to selection d. genetic standard deviation
888. ______ is when certain genotypes perform well under certain environments than other
genotypes
a. epistasis b. fitness c. genotype x environment interaction d. panmixia
889. ______ is a form on non-random mating except
a. assortative mating b. disassortative c. inbreeding d. panmixia
890. The following are examples of outbreeding except
a. crossbreeding of inbred lines c. interspecific hybridization
b. full sib mating D. UPGRADING
891. According to the Hardy-Weinberg Law, the following are factors that affect gene and
genotypic frequency in a breeding population except
a. migrationb. mutation c. selection d. vetrification
892. The following is a consequence of inbreeding except
a. exposure of undesirable recessive gene combinations
b. Hybrid vigor c. inbreeding depression d. a and c only
893. The scientific name of chicken is
a. Anas platyrinchus c. Gallus gallus domesticus
b. Cotumix cotumix japonica d. Melleagris gallopavo
894. ______ is a technique wherein a young embryo is collected from a donor female parent
and then implanted into the uterus of a recipient
a. Multiple Ovulation and Embryo transfer (MOET)
b. Artificial insemination (AI)
c. In vitro fertilization (IVT)
d. Cryopreservation
895. In general traits that are associated with reproduction (e.g. fertility and litter size) have
______ heritabilities compared to those that are associated with production and product quality
traits (e.g. growth rate and back fat thickness).
a. higher b. lower c. the same d. unknown
896. The scientific name of goat is
a. Bubalus bubalis c. Equus caballus
b. Capra hircus d. Ovies aries

86
Animal Science
897. The chromosome number of carabao is

a. 2n = 38 b. 2n = 48 c. 2n = 54 d. 2n = 78
898. The total number of carabaos owned mostly by small holder farmers in the Philippines
is approximately
a. 30 000 b. 300 000 c. 3 million d. 30 million
899. The reproductive rate (i.e. expected number of young produced per year) in pigs is
a. 0.5 b. 1 to 3 c. 10 – 25 d. 50 – 300
900. Spianchnic circulation is a part of systemic circulation that supplies blood to the
a. heart b. kidney c. liver d. digestive tract.
Review Questions for Agriculturists Board Exam

Mindanao State University
Animal Science
1. A 31. A 61. D, A 91. A 121. D
2. A 32. A 62. A 92. A 122. B
3. B 33. D 63. A 93. C 123. B
4. C 34. B 64. A 94. C 124. B
5. B 35. B 65. A 95. B 125. D
6. C 36. B 66. A 96. B 126. A
7. C 37. A 67. A 97. C 127. A
8. B 38. C 68. A 98. B 128. B
9. A 39. B 69. A 99. C 129. D
10. A 40. B 70. A 100. C 130. D
11. B 41. A 71. B 101. A 131. A
12. C 42. 72. B 102. D 132. D
13. C 43. D 73. C 103. A 133. D
14. A 44. B 74. A 104. D 134. A
15. B 45. A 75. B 105. B 135. B
16. C 46. D 76. C 106. D 136. C
17. A 47. C 77. D 107. C 137. A
18. B 48. B 78. A 108. D 138. A
19. C 49. A 79. A 109. B 139. A
20. A 50. B 80. A 110. A 140. B
21. C 51. B 81. D 111. B 141. B
22. B 52. C 82. A 112. B 142. B
23. B 53. C 83. B 113. B 143. C
24. B 54. B 84. C 114. D 144. D
25. A 55. C 85. C 115. B 145. D
26. D 56. B 86. A 116. D 146. B
27. B 57. A 87. D 117. A 147. A
28. B 58. C 88. C 118. D 148. C
29. A 59. A 89. A 119. D 149. B
30. D 60. B 90. A 120. D 150. A
151. C 206. B 261. B 316. B 371. C

152. A 207. a 262. A 317. D 372. A
153. A 208. C 263. D 318. C 373. C
154. A 209. B 264. A 319. D 374. B
155. B 210. A 265. C 320. B 375. A
156. B 211. C 266. B 321. B 376. C
157. B 212. D 267. D 322. A 377. C
158. B 213. A 268. A 323. A 378. C
159. A 214. B 269. A 324. A 379. B
160. A 215. D 270. D 325. C 380. A
161. C 216. A 271. D 326. A 381. A
162. A 217. C 272. B 327. C 382. B
163. D 218. A 273. C 328. D 383. D
164. C 219. B 274. A 329. D 384. B

87
Animal Science
165. A 220. D 275. C 330. C 385. A

166. D 221. A 276. C 331. B 386. C
167. A 222. B 277. A 332. D 387. A
168. A 223. C 278. D 333. B 388. C
169. C 224. D 279. D 334. A 389. B
170. D 225. A 280. B 335. C 390. A
171. A 226. C 281. D 336. B 391. A
172. D 227. D 282. D 337. D 392. D
173. C 228. A 283. C 338. D 393. A
174. A 229. C 284. A 339. A 394. A
175. D 230. B 285. C 340. D 395. B
176. B 231. D 286. A 341. B 396. C
177. B 232. C 287. B 342. B 397. D
178. D 233. A 288. D 343. A 398. A
179. D 234. D 289. A 344. A 399. C
180. A 235. A 290. D 345. A 400. A
181. C 236. A 291. C 346. A 401. B
182. C 237. B 292. B 347. B 402. B
183. B 238. A 293. C 348. C 403. C
184. A 239. A 294. D 349. C 404. A
185. B 240. C 295. A 350. B 405. D
186. B 241. D 296. B 351. A 406. A
187. B 242. B 297. B 352. B 407. B
188. A 243. C 298. C 353. A 408. A
189. D 244. A 299. A 354. B 409. B
190. A 245. A 300. D 355. A 410. D
191. C 246. D 301. A 356. B 411. A
192. A 247. A 302. B 357. D 412. B
193. C 428. A 303. A 358. B 413. C
194. A 249. C 304. A 359. C 414. D
195. C 250. A 305. C 360. C 415. A
196. B 251. B 306. B 361. C 416. A
197. B 252. A 307. D 362. A 417. A
198. A 253. A 308. B 363. C 418. B
199. B 254. A 309. A 364. B 419. C
200. A 255. C 310. C 365. A 420. C
201. C 256. A 311. C 366. B 421. A
202. A 257. B 312. B 367. B 422. B
203. D 258. D 313. C 368. C 423. A
204. A 259. A 314. D 369. B 424. C
205. A 260. C 315. C 370. C
425. A 480. C 535. C 590. D 645. A

426. C 481. A 536. C 591. D 646. A
427. A 482. D 537. C 592. D 647. C
428. C 483. A 538. B 593. A 648. C
429. C 484. B 539. D 594. C 649. C
430. A 485. B 540. C 595. D 650. A
431. B 486. D 541. A 596. B 651. A
432. A 487. A 542. D 597. C 652. A
433. D 488. C 543. A 598. D 653. A
434. B 489. B 544. B 599. B 654. A
435. C 490. D 545. A 600. D 655. D
436. C 491. B 546. C 601. B 656. D
437. A 492. A 547. D 602. B 657. D
438. C 493. D 548. D 603. A 658. D
439. A 494. A 549. C 604. C 659. D
440. A 495. C 550. C 605. C 660. A
441. C 496. B 551. A 606. C 661. D
442. C 497. C 552. A 607. C 662. D

88
Animal Science
443. A 498. D 553. D 608. C 663. D

444. A 499. D 554. B 609. D 664. D
445. C 500. C 555. B 610. C 665. D
446. C 501. B 556. A 611. B 666. A
447. D 502. B 557. D 612. A 667. C
448. A 503. B 558. A 613. B 668. A
449. C 504. C 559. C 614. A 669. A
450. D 505. B 560. A 615. B 670. D
451. C 506. C 561. C 616. C 671. D
452. C 507. Boneless ham 562. B 617. D 672. A
453. A 508. A 563. B 618. C 673. B
454. A 509. D 564. C 619. A 674. A
455. A 510. D 565. D 620. A 675. D
456. C 511. C 566. D 621. A 676. A
457. B 512. B 567. D 622. A 677. D
458. D 513. B 568. A 623. C 678. D
459. A 514. C 569. B 624. B 679. D
460. C 515. A 570. A 625. C 680. A
461. B 516. B 571. A 626. B 681. B
462. C 517. C 572. D 627. B 682. A
463. D 518. D 573. D 628. B 683. D
464. C 519. B 574. B 629. B 684. C
465. C 520. A 575. D 630. B 685. A
466. B 521. B 576. C 631. A 686. A
467. A 522. B 577. B 632. A 687. B
468. B 523. A 578. D 633. A 688. D
469. A 524. D 579. D 634. B 689. D
470. B 525. A 580. A 635. D 690. D
471. D 526. D 581. B 636. C 691. A
472. B 527. B 582. C 637. C 692. B
473. C 528. B 583. B 638. C 693. A
474. B 529. A 584. A 639. C 694. A
475. B 530. A 585. C 640. D 695. B
476. C 531. D 586. A 641. D 696. B
477. B 532. C 587. B 642. D 697. Meat
478. C 533. B 588. D 643. D 698. C
479. B 534. 589. C 644. A 699. D
700. A 755. B 810. A 864. A

701. A 756. C 810. C 865. B
702. C 757. D 811. A 866. C
703. D 758. C 812. C 867. C
704. A 759. A 813. C 868. D
705. C 760. A 814. C 869. A
706. D 761. A 815. B 870. B
707. A 762. B 816. D 871. A
708. C 763. C 817. C 872. C
709. A 764. C 818. B 873. C
710. C 765. B 819. A 874. C
711. C 766. D 820. C 875. A
712. D 767. C 821. D 876. C
713. A 768. C 822. C 877. B
714. C 769. D 823. A 878. B
715. B 770. D 824. B 879. A
716. C 771. B 825. D 880. A
717. D 772. C 826. D 881. A
718. D 773. B 827. A 882. A
719. A 774. D 828. B 883. B
720. D 775. C 829. C 884. D
721. B 776. A 830. C 885. B

89
Animal Science
722. A 777. C 831. D 886. A

723. A 778. A 832. B 887. A
724. C 779. B 833. B 888. C
725. A 780. A 834. A 889. D
726. C 781. C 835. C 890. B
727. C 782. D 836. D 891. D
728. A 783. C 837. B 892. B
729. C 784. A 838. D 893. C
730. A 785. B 839. A 894. A
731. A 786. C 840. A 895. B
732. A 787. 841. B 896. B
733. A 788. C 842. C 897. B
734. B 789. D 843. D 898. C
735. C 790. A 844. D 899. C
736. A 791. B 845. A 900. D
737. C 792. D 846. B
738. C 793. C 847. C
739. C 794. B 848. B
740. B 795. D 849. D
741. A 796. C 850. A
742. A 797. B 851. B
743. B 798. C 852. A
744. 799. A 853. A
745. A 800. C 854. B
746. A 801. B 855. D
747. A 802. B 856. D
748. C 803. A 857. A
749. C 804. A 858. D
750. B 805. B 859. B
751. A 806. A 860. D
752. C 807. B 861. D
753. C 808. C 862. D
754. A 809. D 863. C
BEEF
Prof. Lily Dela Cuadra

Mindanao State University – General Santos City
1. The American Brahman breed is an example of

a. Bos indicus (Zebu) cattle c. Bos Taurus humped cattle
b. Bos indicus humplen cattle d. Bos Taurus humplen cattle
2. A sexually matured male cattle for breeding purpose
a. bull c. buck
b. stallion d. boar
3. Dewlap is a large piece of loose skin which can only be found in
a. pig c. cattle
b. goats d. carabao
4. The average gestation period of beef cattle
a. 283 days c. 330 days
b. 300 days d. 250 days
5. The length of estrus period of cattle
a. 33 hours b. 21 hours
b. 18 hours d. 24 hours
6. The beef cattle production systems are composed of
a. backyard b. semi-commercial
b. commercial all of the above
7. There are at least _________ accredited feedlots in the Philippines
a. 18 c. 280

90
Animal Science
b. 180 d. 80
8. The largest feedlot in the Philippines at present is
a. Monetary b. E l Rancho
b. Dealco d. Del Monte
9. The scientific name of auroch is
a. Bos auros c. Bos Taurus
b. Bos longifrons d. Bos premigenus
10. The 997, 000 has. Philippines pasture land car support
a. 500, 000 AU b. 500 AU
b. 5, 000 AU d. none of the above
11. The commercial cow-calf operations of the country are located in
a. Pangasinan b. Bukidnon
b. Masbate c. all of the above
12. Herd division is merely grouping the cattle according to
a. age c. size
b. purpose d. all of the above
13. The a. u. equivalent of a heifer is
a. 0. 75 c. 0. 25
b. 0. 5 d. 1.0
14. The total a. u. of 5 yearlings in the herd is
a. 1.5 c. 3.5
b. 2.5 d. 4.5
15. The daily DM requirement of a 300 kg feed cut cattle
a. 7.5 kg c. 6 kg
b. 8 .5 kg d. 9 kg
16. The roughage DM requirement of a 400 kg mature cattle with a roughage to concentrate
ratio at 80 : 20
a. 6.4 kg c. 7.4 kg
b. 8.4 kg d. none of the above
17. The most common and legal means of identifying beef cattle ownership
a. hide branding c. ear notching
b. horn branding d. tattooing
18. Bullock is usually a stag that is used for
a. milk c. meat
b. draft d. fattening
19. Beef cattle that are common in tropical countries
a. Bos Taurus c. Bos bubalus
b. Bos indicus d. Bos aurochs
20. The largest part of the cattle digestive system and serve as fermentation chamber
a. omassum c. small intestine
b. reticulum d. rumen
21. Young animal of cattle, usually under one year of age
a. calf c. kid
b. piglet d. all of the above
22. A female of cattle under 3 yrs old which has not produce a calf
a. gilt c. heifer
b. cows d. none of the above
23. A term used to denote the average length of time in days between successive calving
a. calving interval c. gestation period
b. estrus cycle d. none of the above
24. General term for any class of animals of bovine family, genus Bos
a. cattle c. bull
b. cows d. none of the above
25. A mating system when the bull is brought in and let loose with the herd of breeding
heifers and cows during the breeding season
a. pasture mating c. crossbreeding
b. hand mating d. inbreeding
26. Mature female of cattle, one that has given birth
a. heifers c. cow
b. gilts d. does
27. The major beef production systems in the Philippines
a. backyard cattle raising c. feedlot fattening

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Animal Science
b. ranching d. all of the above

28. any number of cattle under one management, maintained in one premise, allowed to
associate or come in contact with one another
a. cows c. herd
b. breed d. ranch
29. A system of feeding where feeds are brought to the animals
a. hand feeding c. cut and carry
b. grazing d. A and C
30. Act of giving birth in cattle
a. kidding c. farrowing
b. calving d. laying
31. Sexually mature male cattle
a. cow c. bull
b. boar d. buck
32. Restraining an animal with a rope or chain to allow limited movement
a. grazing c. cut and carry
b. tethering d. all of the above
33. The sexual period in females when they are receptive to mating
a. heat period c. gestation period
b. estrus period d. A and B
34. One or two year old cattle of either sex
a. yearling c. cow
b. calf d. sow
35. A mating system where as in heat cow is brought to the bull or vice versa
a. inbreeding c. pasture mating
b. cross breeding d. hand mating
36. Properly grown bulls on the range should be allowed to breed at _____ yrs. of age
a. one year c. 3 years
b. two years d. 4 years
37. A male cattle castrate after reaching the breeding age
a. steer c. heifer
b. stag d. bull
38. A burdizzo is used for
a. branding c. castration
b. dehorning d. none of the above
39. The breed of cattle consisting of ¼ Short horn, ½ Brahman and ¼ Hereford blood
a. Sta. Oertrudis c. Beefmaster
b. Charbaray d. Sim brah
40. The floor area per head for dry cows or steer is
a. 20-30 sq. ft. c. 100-150 sq. ft.
b. 40-50 sq. ft. d. none of the above
41. To start breeding care heifer it should weigh at least
a. 350 kg c. 300 kg
b. 250 kg d. none of the above
42. It is best to breed heifers at the age of
a. 18-20 mos. c 24-26 mos.
b. 10-12 mos. d none of the above
43. After calving cows, rebreeding is done from
a. one month c. 3-4 mos.
b. 2 – 3 mos. d none of the above
44. The most common system of feeding cattle in the backyard is
a. feed cut c. range
b. tethering d. none of the above
45. Without adequate feeding of solid food, a calf can be weaned in 3 hours if given
concentrate and roughage as early as 2-3 weeks, but weaning is at
a. 6-8 mos. c 3-4 mos.
b. 10-12 mos. d none of the above
46. From birth until 5 days old to build-up disease resistance for calf it allows to suckle
a. whole milk c. colostrums
b. milk replacer d. casein
47. In the Philippines, cattle should be vaccinated against
a. FMD c. both A and B

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b. Hemorrhagic septicemia d. anthrax

48. Dehorning in ruminants starts at the age of
a. 1 year c. 6-8 mos.
b. 1-2 mos. D. none of the above
49. The meat of young cattle is called
a. lamb c. venison
b. veal d. beef
50. The ceiling height (from the floor) of cattle animal building is
a. 8-10 ft. c. 12-14 ft
b. 7-8 ft d. none of the above
ANSWER KEY for BEEF

1 A 26 c
2 A 27 a
3 C 28 c
4 a 29 a
5 b 30 b
6 a 31 c
7 b 32 b
8 d 33 d
9 d 34 a
10 a 35 d
11 d 36 a
12 d 37 b
13 a 38 c
14 b 39 c
15 c 40 b
16 a 41 a
17 a 42 a
18 b 43 b
19 b 44 b
20 d 45 a
21 a 46 c
22 c 47 c
23 a 48 b
24 a 49 b
25 a 50 a

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SWINE
Prof. Lily Dela Cuadra

Mindanao State University – General Santos City
1. The average gestation in the sow is

2. Duroc is a breed of
a. Beef cattle c. goat
b. Dairy cattle d. swine
3. ___________ is the organ of prehension in the pig
a. muzzle c. snout
b. bill d. snood
4. Among the following animals, which is the one that can perceive many colors of the light
spectrum
a. Cattle c. goat
b. Sheep d. pig
5. The production system for this livestock species is very intensive, commercially-oriented
and depends heavily on commercially mixed feeds
a. Goat c. carabao
b. Cattle d. pig
6. Farrowing is a specific term for the act of parturition, or the act of giving birth in
a. Cattle c. pig
b. Horse d. goat
7. The pig produces sweat as a means of losing heat. It sweat glands are localized in the
a. Flank c. neck
b. Snout d. ham
8. Feeding gilt with high-energy rations before breeding is called
a. Full feeding c. flushing
b. Edlibitum d. all of the above
9. Early weaning of pigs is done at
a. 6 wks of age c. 10 weeks of age
b. 8 wks of age d. 4 wks of age
10. The process of choosing best boars and gilts from the herd: like the parent of the next
generation
a. Culling c. weaning
b. Selection d. A and B
11. The process of transferring one or more pigs from a litter of one sow to another sow is
called
a. Transferring c. parenting
b. Futering d. all of the above
12. Baby pig anemia is brought about by a deficiency of
a. Ca c. Fe
b. P d. none of the above
13. Pigs are born with 4 pairs of sharp teeth called

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Animal Science
a. Baby teeth c. needle teeth

b. Milk teeth d. permanent teeth
14. Swine herd can be maintained at high level of efficiency by
a. Culling c. selling
b. Breeding d. none of the above
15. How many equally spaced rudimentary teeth must a good gilt posses
a. At least 4 pairs c. at least 8 pairs
b. At least 5 pairs d. none of the above
16.Young female swine that has not yet given birth and usually kept for breeding
a. cow c. sow
b. gilt d. heifer
17. Common methods used for swine, which consist of piercing outlines of desirable numbers
or figures on the skin inside the ears.
a. Tattooing c. ear notching
b. Branding d. none of the above
18. Recommended age of castrating is
a. 3 days c. 3 weeks
b. 2 weeks d. 8 weeks
19. A castrated pig after sexual maturity is called
a. stud c. barrow
b. boar d. stag
20. When is the recommended age to offer creep feed
21. Breed of pig known as the “Red Power”
a. Duroc c. Tamworth
b. Berkshire d. Pietrain
22. White breeds of pigs
a. Duroc c. Hampshire
b. Yorkshire d. none of the above
23. if the average daily gain of the animals is 500 g/day . how long will it take a 15 kg
pig to reach 85 kg
24. If a sow farrowed on July 18, when was it bred?
a. March 28 c. March 12
b. November 9 d. November 20
25. Method(s) of identifying piglets
a. hat iron branding c. ear notching
b. wing web band d. tail docking
26. Breed of swine with six distinct white points in its body
a. Pietrain c. Duroc
b. Poland China d. none of the above
27. Reasons for castrating pigs
a. fast growth rate c. removes the boar taint
b. better feed efficiency d. thinner backfat
28. The physical characteristics of a replacement boar should be
a. two big testicle c. long body
b. The physical characteristics d. all of the above
29. Which of the following is an important management practice to prevent navel ill
a. cut needle teeth c. inject iron dextran
b. cut umbilical cord d. breeding
30. Which of the following is an important practice to prevent chilling
a. cut needle teeth c. give creep feed
b. cut umbilical cord d. brooding
31. Refers to the number of litters a sow or gilt has had
a. litter size c. litter mate
b. parity d. litter interval
32. Recommended age for iron dextran injection

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Animal Science
33. Weight gain of gilt and young sows during pregnancy
a. 15 kg c. 21 kg
b. 60 kg d. 41 kg
34. Hogs belong to class
a. Anitnalie c. Suidae
b. Chordata d. Mammalia
35. Measurement of gestating stalls
a. 0.5 m x 2.13 m c. 0.5 ft x 1.85 ft
b. 0.5 ft x 2.13 ft d. 0.5 m x 1.85 m
36. Technique in heat detection
a. swelling and reddening of vulva c. Haunch pressure test
b. clear viscous vaginal discharge d. all of the above
37. The purebred known to be the longest breed among purebred hogs
a. Large white c. Landrace
b. Duroc d. Pietrain
38. The earliest number

a. two c. four
b. three d. five
39. The weight at eight months that the gilt can be culled
a. less than 100 kg c. less than 120 kg
b. less than 110 kg d. less than 90 kg
40. The average heat period of gilts and sows
a. 2-5 days c. 1-3 days
b. 7-10 days d. 1-2 days
41. This swine is known to be the “matter breed” among purebred hogs
a. Large white c. Landrace
b. Duroc d. Pietrain
42. This is known to be the “muscle pigs” among purebred hogs
a. Large white c. Duroc
b. Landrace d. Pietrain
43. Best period to breed the gilts
a. 8 months c. 10 months
b. 7 months d. 8 months
44. The percentage of a crude protein for a brood sow ratio
a. 14 c. 18
b. 15 d. 13
45. The percentage content of CP, Ca and P respectively, for a lactating sow ration
a. 14, 0.5, 0.5 c. 15, 0.8, 0.4
b. 18, 0.7, 0.5 d. 13, 0.4, 0.8
46. The length of cutting the umbilical cord of the newly form piglet from the base
a. 3-4 inches c. 1.5-2 inches
b. 3-5 inches d. 4-5 inches
47. A slaughter hog of any sex weighting about 60 kg is known as
a. piglet c. shote
b. gilt d. stag
48. The protein requirement of a growing pig
a. 12% c. 16%
b. 14% d. 18%
49. Technical term of pig
a. sow c. hog
b. boar d. swine
50. The amount of CP, Ca and P; respectively for a creep ratio
c. not less than 18, 0.7 and 0.5 c. not less than 20, 0.8 and 0.6
d. not less than 22, 0.8 and 0.6 d. not less than 18, 0.6 and 0.8
51. The type of roofing that is recommended for swine buildings
a. Monitor c. Gable
b. Semi-monitor d. Gothic
52. The elevation or grade of the concrete floor for a 4-meter long pen
a. not less than 10 c. not less than 14

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Animal Science
b. not less than 8 d. not less than 12

53. This is the height where the automatic water for sucking pigs is placed
a. 5 to 8 cm from the floor c. 18 to 20 cm from the floor
b. 14 to 16 cm from the floor d. 15 to 20 cm from the floor
54. This is the height where the automatic waterer for weanling pigs is placed
55. This is the height where the automatic waterer for growing pigs placed
56. This is the height where the automatic waterer for finisher pigs placed
a. 16 to 17 from the floor c. 20 to 21 cm from the floor
57. The recommended quarantine period for swine
a. not less than 20 days c. not less than 40 days
b. not less than 30 days d. not less than 50 days
58. Cherry red is the most common color of this breed
a. Duroc c. Large white
59. The ears of its kinds are medium and pointing upward
b. Landrace d. Nieuw Dailand
60. This swine is very thin backfat thickness among breeds
a. Pietrain c. Large white
b. Landrace d. Duroc
61. This breed has a greater tendency to put on fat
62. This breed is black with white band around the heart girth including the front legs
a. Duroc c. Hampshire
b. Landrace d. Yorkshire
63. This breed is well known for the “thick backfat”
a. Pietrain c. Poland China
b. Spotted Poland d. Yorkshire
64. Gilts should be bred to farrow the first litter at
a. about 1 year old c. about 3 years old
b. about 2 years old d. about 4 years old
65. The time or period between breeding and farrowing
a. Lactation c. Ovulation
b. Gestation d. Parturation
66. The time from farrowing until weaning
a. lactation c. parturition
b. gestation d. ovulation
67. The minimum rest in days of the farrowing pens between farrowing
a. 7 c. 21
b. 14 d. 28
68. The number of hours when the milk is present in the sow is about to farrow
a. 24 hours c. 72 hours
b. 48 hours d. 96 hours
69. The systrem of pig keeping wherein they are left free to find their own food
a. semi-intensive c. extensive
b. intensive d. se-extensive
70. The system of pig keeping wherein they are supplied with feeds consisting of tubers,
waste by products and trimmings
71. The system of pig keeping wherein they are supplied with high quality feeds, optimal
utilization of housing facilities
72. A piggery farm that maintains purebred pigs or a specific line within a purebred
a. breeder farm c. nucleus farm

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Animal Science
b. boar service farm d. subnucleus farm

73. The period between weaning and the next service
a. gestation period c. lactation period
b. production period d. dry period
74. The normal lactation period in pigs in the tropics
a. 28 to 42 days c. 35 to 60 days
b. 30 to 50 days d. 40 to 70 days
75. The rearing period of weaner pigs
a. 20 to 30 days c. 30 to 40 days
b. 26 to 30 days d. 40 to 60 days
76. The culling rate of sows population per year
a. 15 - 21% c. 6 – 25%
b. 4 – 20% d. 8 – 33%
77. The culling rate of the boars per year
a. 20% c. 40%
b. 30% d. 50%
78. The generally recommended boar to sow ratio
a. 1:20-30 c. 1:40-50
b. 1:35-40 d. 1:45-55
79. A piglet of small size compared to its littermates

a. barrow c. runt
b. starter d. suckling
80. The acceptable rate of percentage in liter size at birth for gilts
a. 4 c. 8
b. 6 d. 10
81. The largest conception rate per gestation period
a. 60% c. 80%
b. 70% d. 90%
82. The maximum average back fat thickness for breeding animals weighing 90 kg
a. 2.0 cm c. 3.2 cm
b. 3.0 cm d. 3.4 cm
83. The acceptable rate of percentage mortality in sows, gilts and boars per year
a. 2% c. 4%
b. 3% d. 5%
ANSWER KEY for SWINE

1 a 26 b 51 a 76 d
2 d 27 c 52 d 77 d
3 c 28 d 53 d 78 a
4 d 29 b 54 a 79 c
5 d 30 d 55 c 80 d
6 c 31 a 56 81 c
7 b 32 a 57 b 82 a
8 c 33 d 58 a 83 d
9 d 34 d 59 c
10 b 35 a 60 a
11 b 36 b 61 c
12 c 37 c 62 c
13 c 38 b 63 b
14 a 39 d 64 a
15 d 40 a 65 b
16 b 41 a 66 a
17 a 42 d 67 a

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Animal Science
18 b 43 d 68 a
19 a 44 a 69 c
20 a 45 c 70 a
21 a 46 c 71 b
22 b 47 c 72 c
23 a 48 c 73 d
24 a 49 d 74 a
25 c 50 b 75 a
POULTRY PRODUCTION
1. The popularity of poultry raising could be attributed to the fact that poultry species are:
a. Fast multipliers
b. Quick growers
c. Relative efficient feed converters to meat eggs
d. All of the above
2. Cannibalism is a common management problem in raising chicken. It is caused by
overcrowding, unbalanced ration, too much light etc. it would be prevented by
a. Growing birds in individual cages c. Ad libitum feeding
b. Debeaking d. All of the above
3. Debeaking or beak trimming is done to prevent cannibalism. This is recommended for:
a. Broilers c. Ducks
b. Egg type chickens d. All of the above
4. Duck ranks second in popularity among the poultry species in the Philippines. The
popularity of duck enterprise is attributed to the high demand for processed duck egg
products such as:
a. “Balut” c. Century eggs
b. Salted eggs d. All of the above
5. The high cost of production for raising commercial strains of chicken is due mainly to the
high cost of inputs such as:
a. Labor c. Feeds
b. Electricity d. All of the above
6. The process where fully developed embryo (chicks) breaks out of the egg.
a. Breaking c. Hatching
b. Incubating d. Brooding
7. The most common roof design adopted by commercial chicken producers:
a. Shed c. Semi-monitor/monitor
b. Gable d. All of the above
8. A collective term for all domestic birds rendering economic services to man. Can also
refer to dressed carcass of fowls.
a. Poultry c. Chicken
b. Broilers d. All of the above
9. An egg-type or dual type female bird that lays egg
a. Ready to lay pullet c. Hen
b. Laye d. B & C
10. A male fowl one year old or over.
a. Cockerel c. Rooster
b. Capon d. B & C
11. A female fowl 5-6 months of age raised for egg production
a. Hen c. Pullet
b. Layer d. All of the above
12. A meat type chicken commonly raised up to 35-42 days and weighs 1.5-2.0 kg
a. Broiler c. Cull

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Animal Science
b. Spent hens d. B & C

13. Old hens that had past their usefulness for commercial egg production
a. Capon c. Cull
b. Spent hens d. B & C
14. The projecting mouth part of a chicken and turkey
a. Beak c. Bean
b. Bile d. None of the above
15. Place where young chicks/ducklings are cared for after hatching until they have grown to
a point where they will need anymore additional heat.
a. Pen c. Brooder
b. Cage d. Incubator
16. Period where embryonic development takes outside place outside the body of the hen.
a. Gestation c. Brooding
b. Incubation d. All of the above
17. The act of laying egg
a. Ovulation c. Deposition
b. Oviposition d. None of the above
18. Group of eggs layed for successive days.
a. Clutch c. Fertile eggs
b. Collection d. None of the above
19. Male of the duck family
a. Rooster c. Drake
b. Cockerel d. Gander
20. The scientific name for quail
a. Coturnix coturnix japonica c. Virginia colinianus
b. Coturnix cotrunix japonica d. Olor virginianus
21. The incubation period for chicken eggs
22. Incubation period for ostrich
a. 24 b. 22 c. 42 d. 31
23. Incubation period for Mallard Ducks
a. 35 b. 28 c. 31 d. 21
24. Recommended length hours for layers to stimulate egg production
a. 8-10 b. 12-13 c.14-16 d. 24
25. What is the feed efficiency of 100 broilers having an average final body weight of
2.0kg/head after consuming 3.75 kg of feed for 42 days.
a. 1.9 b. 1.8 c. 1.88 d. 0.53
26. Which broiler farm is the most efficient given the following FE values:
a. 1.88 b. 2.5 c. 1.6 d. 3.0
27. If the dressing percentage for chicken is 70% what should be the dressing recovery of
broilers weighing 2.0 kg live weight is.
a. 1.4 kg b. 1.5 kg c. 1.4 g d. 1.5 g
28. Scientific name of chicken
a. Gallus gallus linn c. Meleagris gallopavo
b. Anas boschas d. Colinus virginianus
29. The incubation period for quail eggs.
a. 16-19 days c. 14-16 days
b. 18-21 days d. 21-23 days
30. Brooder device whose major function is to keep from going astray
a. Curtains c. Crooder guard
b. Feeders d. Paper mating
31. an occasion job done during growing and laying stage to reduce boarders and ensure
efficiency of production:
a. Flock replacement c. Cleaning and disinfections
b. Culling d. None of the above
32. Recommended male to female ratio for egg type chicken breeders:
a. 1:10-12 c. 1:5
b. 1:8 d. 1:12-15
33. Recommended brooding temperature for broilers up to market age.
a. 32-35 0C c. 30-32 0C
b. 35-38 C0
d. 28-30 0C

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Animal Science
34. Floor space requirement for broilers up to market age.

a. 1 sq meter/bird c. 2.0 sq ft/bird
b. 1 sq feet/bird d. none of the above
35. Recommended length of light hours for growers delay sexual maturity at the growing
stage.
a. – 10 hrs/day c. 14-16 hrs/day
b. 12-14 hrs/day d. 24 hrs/day
Poultry Production
1. D 11. C 21. B 31. B
2. B 12. A 22. C 32. A
3. B 13. D 23. D 33. A
4. D 14. A 24. C 34. B
5. C 15. C 25. C 35. A
6. C 16. B 26. C
7. C 17. B 27. A
8. A 18. A 28. A
9. D 19. C 29. A
10. C 20. A 30. C
Animal Nutrition
1. Any feed constituent or group of feed constituents that aids in the support of life is
nutrient. It may include:
a. Synthetically produced vitamins such as A, D, and E.
b. Chemically produced o\inorganic salts such as ZnO, MgSO 4, and FeSo4.
c. Biogenically synthesized dl-menthionine and L-lysine.
d. Naturally occurring sugar, starch, cellulose and gums
e. All of the above.
2. Digestion is the breaking of feed particles into suitable products for absorption
a. May include mechanical forces such as mastication and muscular contraction of
the gastro-intestinal tract.
b. May include chemical processes such as action of HCl produced in the G.I. tract.
c. May include enzymatic action of proteases produced in the GI tract.
d. May include enzymatic actions produced by bacteria located in the cecum.
3. Absorption is the transfer of substance from gastro-intestinal tract to the circulatory
system.
a. Occurs primarily in the small and large intestines
b. Villi increase surface area for absorption
c. Occurs primarily in the stomach and intestines
d. All of the above.
4. Fats are insoluble in water but soluble in inorganic solvents. Yield more energy than
carbohydrates or proteins.
a. 1.25 times c. 3.25 times e. None of the above
b. 2.25 times d. 4.25 times
5. Fats are classified as simple, compound or delivered lipids. When hydrolyzed will yield:
a. Glycolipids and fatty acids d. Glycerol and fatty acids
b. Phospolipids and fatty acids e. None of the above
c. Phospolipids and glycerol
6. Fats function as source of essential fatty acids, such as;

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Animal Science
a. Oleic and linolic acid c. Arachdonic and oleic acid

b. Linoleic and linolenic acid d. None of the above
7. Deficiency or abnormal metabolism of fats may result:
a. Ketosis c. Diabetes mellitus
b. Acidosis d. All of the above
8. Absorption involves the movement of the basic units from areas of high concentration to
area of low concentration.
a. Absorption of glucose and proteins occurs primarily in the small intestines
b. Absorption o vitamins and minerals occur in the large intestine.
c. Water is absorbed in the large intestine
d. All of the above
9. Feed is any material of nutritive value fed to animals for the purpose of sustaining them.
a. Ground corm c. Vitamin prem
b. Salt d. All of the above
10. Proteins are basically large molecules and are made up of amino acids. Amino acids are
either essential or non-essential.
a. Essential amino acids must be supplied in the diet because the animal cannot
synthesize them at the rate they are required.
b. Non-essential amino acids must be supplied in the diet because the animal can
synthesize them at the rate they are required.
c. Essential amino acids are normally synthesized or sufficient in the diet and need
not be supplemented.
d. Essential amino acids are normally present in the feeds and may not be
supplemented in the diet.
e. None of the above.
11. Metabolism is a combination of anabolic and catabolic reactions occurring in the body
with the liberation of energy.
a. It occurs after glucose, amino acids, vitamins and minerals have been absorbed
into the blood.
b. It occurs after carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins and minerals have been absorbed
into the blood.
c. It occurs after starch, peptides, vitamins and minerals have been absorbed into
the blood.
12. Water is the cheapest and most abundant nutrient.
a. Makes up to 65-85% of animal body weight at birth & decreases with maturity.
b. Makes up to 40-50% of animal body weight at birth & increases with maturity
c. Has direct relationship with body fat
13. Water accounts for 90-95% of blood and many tissues contain 70-90% water. Which of
the following statement is not true about water.
a. Found in the animal muscles and skin as intracellular water.
b. Found in the blood plasma, lymph and cerebrospinal as extra cellular fluids
c. Present in urinary and gastrointestinal tract.
d. Present in feeds as metabolic water
14. Carbohydrates make up approximately ¾ of plant dry weight and make up the largest part
of animals food supply.
a. Made up of C (40%), H (7%) and O (53%) by molecular weight
b. Made up of C (53%), H (7%), O (23%), N (16%) and P (1%) by molecular
weight
c. Made up of C (40%), H (7%), O (53%), P (1%) and S (1%)by molecular weight
d. Made up of C (53%), H (7%), O (23%), N (16%), P (1%) and S (1%)by
molecular weight
e. None of the above.
15. Macrominerals are normally present at greater level in animal body and are needed in
relatively large amount in the diet. Examples of macrominerals are:
a. Ca and P c. Fe and Cu
b. Cu and Zn d. All of the above

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Animal Science
16. Trace minerals are normally present at lower level in animal body and they are required
by the animal in minute amount. Examples of trace minerals are:
a. Ca and P c. Na and Ci
b. Cu and Zn d. All of the above
17. Minerals that play important roles in the skeletal formation and maintenance, and thus,
found in the bones and teeth.
a. Calcium c. Magnesium
b. Iron d. All of the above
18. Minerals occur largely in the fluids and soft tissues to maintain osmotic pressure and
acid-based equilibrium.
a. Na. K and Cl c. Na, Cl and Mn
b. Na, P and Cl d. All of the above
19. Crude protein is composed of true proteins and any nitrogenous products. Using Kjeldahl
method, crude is equivalent to:
a. %N x 6.25 c. %N x76.25
b. %N x 5.25 d. None of the above
20. Protein quality refers to the amount and ratio of essential amino acid present in protein
feed. Which of the following is not true.
a. Fishmeal has higher protein quality than soybean meal
b. Skimmilk has higher protein quality than soybean meal
c. Soybean meal has higher protein quality than corn
d. Corn has higher protein quality than skimmilk
e. All of the above
21. Vitamin E is a biological antioxidant.
a. Vitamin E readily oxidizes itself, thereby minimizing the destruction by
oxidation of unsaturated fatty acids in the intestinal tract an in the tissues
b. Oxidation of vitamin E prevent oxidation of lipid materials to free radicals and
peroxides within cells thus protecting the cell membrane from damage
c. Vitamin E neutralizes free radicals and prevent oxidation of lipids within
membranes.
d. Vitamin E functions against the adverse effects of oxygen and free radicals that
initiate oxidation of unsaturated phospolipids
22. Poultry are extremely sensitive to vitamin E deficiency. Deficiencies of vitamin E may
produce:
a. Oxidative diathesis d. Encephalomalacia
b. Muscular degeneration e. All of the above
c. Reproductive failure
23. Vitamin K functions in the blood coagulation system.
a. Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clotting
factors.
b. Vitamin K is essential for the degradation of prothrombin and other plasma
clotting factors
c. Vitamin K prevents synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clotting factors
d. Vitamin K inhibits synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clotting factors
e. None of the above
24. Vitamins are organic compounds of natural feed but distinct from carbohydrates, fats,
proteins and water. Water soluble vitamins include:
a. Thiamine and riboflavin c. Vitamin E and K
b. Vitamin A and D d. All of the above
25. Fat soluble vitamins are stored in appreciable amount in the animal body. However,
excess amount of fat soluble vitamins is not excreted in the urine. Examples of fat soluble
vitamins are
a. Vitamin A and E d. Pantothenic acid and biotin
b. Thiamine and riboflavin e. All of the above
c. Vitamin C and D
26. Vitamin A helps maintain normal vision in dim light. Extreme vitamin A deficiency may
lead to night blindness. Such condition is called:
a. Xeropthalmia c. Encephalomalacia e. None of the above
b. Osteomalacia d. Agalacia
27. Vitamin D aids in assimilation and utilization of calcium and phosphorus. Lack of
vitamin D results to deficiency of calcium and phosphorus which is characterized by

103
Animal Science
enlarged joints, bowed legs, knocked knees and beaded ribs. In adult animals, such
condition is called:
a. Scurvy c. Osteomalacia e. None of the above
b. Rickets d. Encephalomalacia
28. Biotin is necessary for gluconeogenesis and fatty acid synthesis particularly in
carboxylation reactions. Clinical signs of biotin deficiency include:
a. Transverse cracking, cracking of the soles and top of hooves in swine
b. Hairloss and dermatitis in swine
c. Dermal lesions around the beak and eyes in birds
d. Perosis in birds
e. All of the above
29. Folic acid is indispensable in the formation of amino acids and nucleus acids.
a. Functions in the one-carbon metabolism
b. Functions in the two-carbon metabolism
c. Functions in the three-carbon metabolism
d. Functions in the four-carbon metabolism

e. None of the above
30. Niacin acts as an active group of different coenzymes which are related to the citric acid
cycle
a. As constituent of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
b. As constituent of mononucleotide (FMN)
c. As constituent of flavin adenine dinucleotides (FAD)
d. All of the above
31. Pantothenic acid functions as CoA and as acyl carrier protein in the body. Signs of
deficiency includes:
a. Goose-stepping gait in swine d. Wasting disease in cattle
b. Curled-toe paralysis in birds e. All of the above
c. Perosis in birds
32. Thiamine functions as coenzymes in energy metabolism particularly in the
transketolation process. Deficiency of thiamin produces:
a. Beri-beri in human d. All of the above
b. Polyneuritis in birds e. None of the above
c. Polioencephalomalacia in cattle
33. Riboflavin functions as a part of flavoprotein which is involved in the metabolism of
amino acids, fatty acids and carbohydrates. Deficiency of riboflavin results to:
a. Curled-toe paralysis in birds c. All of the above
b. Encephalomalacia in birds d. None of the above
34. Pyridoxine as a coenzyme form of pyridoxal phospate is involved in large number of
physiological functions. B6 is involved in the conversation of:
a. Tryptophan to nicotinic acid d. Phenylalanine nicotininc
b. Phenylalanine to tyrosine e. None of the above
c. Tryptophan to tyrosine
35. Vitamin containing cyanide group attached to the cobalt atom which is responsible for
the name cyanocobalamin
a. B1 c. B6 e. None of the above
b. B2 d. B12
36. Chorine serves as a source of labile methyl groups which facilities transmethylation
reaction. Chorine deficiency causes:
a. Goose-stepping in swine
b. Slipped tendons in chickens and turkeys
c. Cracked hooves in swine’s
d. All of the above
37. Lack of vitamins C is characterized by swollen, bleeding, ulcerated gums, loose teeth,
malformed and big joints and fragility of capillaries with resulting hemorrhages through
the body. Such conditions is called:
a. Beri-beri c. Pellagra e. None of the above
b. Scurvy d. Dermatitis
38. Utilization of minerals is influenced by several factors such as:
a. Interrelationships among minerals
b. Actual amount of mineral in the diets
c. Mineral status of the animal

104
Animal Science
d. Form of the mineral

e. All of the above
39. In young animals lack of calcium results to enlarged joints, soft and deformed bones.
Such as condition is called:
a. Rickets c. Osteoporosis e. All of the above
b. Osteomalacia d. None of the above
40. Ideal ratio of calcium and phosphorus in the diet for monogastric animals
a. 1:1 – 2:1 d. 1.5:2 – 2.5:3
b. 2:1 – 3:1 e. None of the above
c. 1:2 – 2:3
41. Macrominerals found in amino acids, cystine and methionine and in vitamins, biotin and
thiamine.
a. Calcium c. Sulfur e. None of the
above
b. Magnesium d. Phosphorus
42. Micromineral essential for the formation of enzymes related to oxygen transport and
utilization
a. Manganese c. Iron e. All of the
above
b. Iodine d. Zinc
43. Iodine plays role in the production of thyroxin by the thyroid gland. Deficiency in iodine
a. Goiter c. Scurvy e. None of the
above
b. Beri-beri d. Tetany
44. Trace mineral that is component of the vitamin B 12 molecules
a. Cu d. Mg
b. Co e. None of the above
c. Mn
45. Farm animals are classified according to type of G1 tract. Ruminants include:
a. Cattle, carabaos and horses d. Cattle, pigs and chicken
b. Cattle, carabaos and sheep’s e. None of the above
c. Cattle, carabaos and pigs
46. Non-ruminants are simple stomach animals such as:
a. Pig, horse and rabbit c. Pig, horse and cattle
b. Pig, horse and goat d. Pig, horse and sheep
47. Conditions in the rumen responsible for a significant pregastric fermentation
a. Abomasums d. Omasum
b. Rumen e. None of the above
c. Reticulum
48. Conditions in the rumen responsible for a significant pregastric fermentation
a. Anaerobic environment d. Moisture
b. Constant warm temperature e. All of the above
c. Constant food supply
49. It is one of the compartments of stomach in ruminants which is round muscular organ
containing many muscular laminae and sometimes called manyplies or “libro”
a. Rumen d. Abomasums
b. Reticulum e. None of the above
c. Omasum
50. Controlled vomiting where the ingesta is regurgitated back up to the esophagus and
swallowed again for additional remastication.
a. Mastication c. Regurgitation e. None of the above
b. Rumination d. Eructation
51. it corresponds to the true stomach in non-ruminants and is the site of HCl and pepsin
production in the bird
a. Crop c. Ventriculus e. None of the
above
b. Proventriculus d. Small intestine
52. For absorption to occur, nutrients must be broken down to very small molecules. The
basic unit of carbohydrates is:
a. Amino acid c. Glycerol e. None of the
above

105
Animal Science
b. Glucose d. Sucrose
53. After a mechanical breakdown, salivary amylase hydrolyzes nutrient to their basic units.
a. Starch to maltose d. Cellulose to volatile fatty acids
b. Starch to volatile fatty acids e. All of the above
c. Protein to amino acids
54. Enzymes produced by pancreas are secreted into the duodenum. Which of the following
is not true:
a. Trypsin hydrolyses protein to peptides and amino acids
b. Chymotrypsin hydrolyses protein to peptides and amino acids
c. Carboxypeptides hydrolyses protein to peptides and amino acids
d. Pepsin hydrolyses protein to peptides and amino acids.
e. All of the above
55. Which of the following is not an end product of fiber digestion in ruminants
a. Acetic acid c. Butyric acid e. All of the
above
b. Palmitic acid d. Propionic acid
56. Feedstuff is generally synonymous with feed except that it is of natural or artificial origin
that has nutritional value when property added. Example(s) of feedstuff is (are)
a. Hog grower mash c. Fish meal
b. Layer mash d. All of the above
57. Roughages are plant materials which contain greater than 18% CF. These feeds are suited
for animals such as:
a. Chicken c. Swine
b. Duck d. Carabao
58. Fiber content of a feedstuff is the first consideration in classifying the feeds into different
feed groups. Low-fiber feeds include:
a. Pasture c. Protein feeds
b. Silage d. All of the above
59. Protein feeds are relatively rich in protein so that when added to cereal grains will
improve performance of the animal. The CP content of protein feeds is:
a. More than 10% c. More than 20% e. More than
40%
b. More than 15% d. More than 30 %
60. Which of the following is not a concentrated source of mineral elements
a. Limestone c. Di-methionine e. Salt
b. Tricalcium phospate d. Oyster shell
61. Roughages/forages are classified as either succulent, or dry roughages and as crop
residues. Succulent roughages include:
a. Hay c. Soilages
b. Straw d. Rice hull
62. Has high available energy and can replace 100% of the corn in swine and poultry ration
but it contains hydrocyanic acid which limits its usefulness as animal feed.
a. Sorghum d. Barley
b. Rice Bran e. Cassava
c. Sweet potato
63. May be used effectively to replace 75% of cereal grains. Somewhat unpalatable due to its
tannin content.
a. Wheat d. Barley
b. Sorghum e. Copra
c. Rice bran
64. Composed of outer layer of wheat kernel. It has lower energy but higher protein than rice
bran.
a. Wheat bran c. Triticale
b. Corn bran d. Wheat flour
65. Which of the following is not a concentrated source of energy.
a. Coconut oil d. Tallow
b. Lard e. Peanut meal
c. Corn oil

106
Animal Science
66. Animal protein containing 80-85% CP but low in isoleucine. It is commonly used as by-
pass protein in ruminants.
a. Fish meal d. Feather meal
b. Blood meal e. Meat and bone meal
c. Tankage
67. Has highest nutritive value among plant protein sources. Normally contains 42-48%CP,
low in S-containing amino acids and variably low in lysine.
a. Peanut meal d. Soybean meal
b. Cotton seed meal e. Corn gluten meal
c. Rape seed meal
68. Ipil-ipil leaf meal contains mimosine which limits its usefulness as animal feed. Fresh
cassava tubers contain:
a. Hydrocyanic acid c. Oxalate e.
Glucosinolate
b. Goitrogen d. Gossypol
69. Animal proteins are very rich in lysine but usually limiting in sulfur containing amino
acids such as:
a. Cystine c. Leucine
b. Tryptophan d. Theonine
70. Peanut meat contains trypsin inhibitor as do many legumes and they may be
contaminated with molds producing toxin. The most commonly known mycoloxin in
peanut meal is:
a. Aflatoxicoses d. Aflatoxin
b. Mycosis e. Salmonella
c. Clostridium
71. Cottonseed meal is a good source of protein (41% CP) but contains antinutritional factor.
a. Gossypol c. Glucosinolatee. Hydrocyanic and acid
b. Stearic acid d. Mimosine
72. Feed additive(s) used to improve the digestivity of some feedstuffs under certain
conditions
a. Enzymes c. Sweeteners
b. Hormones d. All of the above
73. The protein content of soya meal is influenced by several factors such as:
a. Urease activity c. Heat-treatment process
b. Method of oil extraction d. Variation in color
74. The feeding value of fishmeal is affected by
a. Variation in color c. Nature of raw materials
b. Texture d. All of the above
75. Most abundant organic matter on earth
a. Amino acids c. Lipids vitamins
b. Carbohydrates d. None of the above
76. Predominant nutrient in the body of animals
a. Fats c. Protein e. None of the
above
b. Carbohydrates d. Water
77. The sweetest disaccharide
a. Maltose c. Mannose e. None of the above
b. Sucrose d. Lactose
78. The sweetest monosaccharide
a. Glucose d. Xylose
b. Fructose e. None of the above
c. Galactose
79. The most digestible polysaccharide
a. Hemicellulose c. Starch e. None of the
above
b. Cellulose d. Lignin
80. Main carbohydrate in the body
a. Lignin c. Cellulose e. None of the
above
b. Hemicellulose d. Starch
81. Storage form of carbohydrates in the body

107
Animal Science
a. Starch c. Glycolipid e. All of the

above
b. Glycogen d. Cellubiose
82. Nitrogenous compounds made up of amino acids
a. Proteins c. Lipids e. All of the
above
b. Carbohydrates d. Vitamins
83. Main basic unit of fats and oils
a. Fatty acids c. Sulfuric acid e. None of the
above
b. Amino acids d. Hydrochloric acid
84. Chemical substances in feed which support life

a. Carbohydrates c. Fats e. All of the
above
b. Proteins d. Vitamins
85. Main protein source of ruminants
a. Urea d. High quality protein
b. Ammonia e. None of the above
c. Microbial protein
86. Breakdown of feed nutrients to their basic units
a. Absorption c. Digestion e. None of the
above
b. Metabolism d. Prehension
87. Main energy source of non-ruminants
a. Starch d. Cellulose
b. Glycogen e. None of the above
c. Hemicellulose
88. One kilogram corn with 8.5% CP is equivalent to:
a. 8.5 grams CP d. 85 grams CP
b. 0.85 grams CP e. none of the above
c. 850 grams CP
89. A farmer has plenty of yellow corn (8.5% CP) and soya meal (44% CP). How much soya
meal will be needed for a 100 kg mixture containing 14% CP?
a. 14.59 c. 13.49 e. none of the above
b. 15.49 d. 12.59
90. A 100kg ration is deficient in metablolizable energy of 100 kcal. How much coco oil
(8600 kcal/kg) be needed to supplement the deficiency?
a. 0.120 kg c. 12.0 kg e. none of the
above
b. 1.20 kg d. 0.012 kg
91. A 100kg ration is deficient in methionine. How much di-menthionine (90%) be added to
supplement the 0.25% deficiency?
a. 0.28% c. 0.028% e. none of the
above
b. 2.8% d. 1.8%
92. A manufacturer recommended inclusion rate for a vitamin premix is 5kg per ton of feed.
How much vitamin premix will be added to 100 kg feed?
a. 1.0 kg c. 1.5 kg e. none of the
above
b. 0.5 kg d. 5.0 kg
93. Most limiting amino acid in soybean meal
a. Lysine c. Tryptophan e. None of the
above
b. Methionine d. Threonine
94. End-product of carbohydrate digestion in ruminants
a. Essential fatty acids d. Non-volatile fatty acids
b. Non-essential fatty acids e. All of the above
c. Volatile fatty acids
95. Amino acids which cannot be produced in the body

108
Animal Science
a. Lysine c. Valine e. All of the above

b. Methionine d. Threonine
96. Fat soluble vitamin synthesized by the microflora of the digestive system of herbivores.
a. A c. E e. None of the above
b. D d. K
97. How much CP will a 50 kg soybean meal provides if it contains 48% CO?
a. 24 grams c. 24 grams e. none of the above
b. 240 grams d. 2.4 grams
98. Mineral content of limestone
a. 36% Ca c. 16% P e. none of the above
b. 16% Ca d. 36P
99. Mineral content of tricalcuim phospate

a. 24% Ca, 11% P d. 24% avail. P, 11% Ca
b. 24% P, 11% Ca e. none of the above
c. 24% Ca, 11% avail. P
100. Good quality rice bran D1 contains how much CP?
a. 12 –13.5% CP c. 10 –12 .0% CP
b. 10 –11.5% CP d. 11 –12 % CP
101. Protein feed with 8% N contains how much CP?
a. 48% c. 56% e. none of the above
b. 42% d. 50%
102. Antivitamin found in raw egg white which binds biotin, making it unavailable to
animal:
a. Carotene c. Soylin e. None of the
above
b. Avidin d. Mimosine
103. One of the 4 compartments of stomach in ruminants which functions in the
regurgitation in ingesta during rumination:
a. Rumen c. Omasum e. None of the
above
b. Reticulum d. Abomasums
104. Part of the small intestine that serves as an active site of digestion because it
receives secretions containing enzymes from the liver, pancreas, and intestinal walls:
a. Duodenum c. Lieum e. None of the
above
b. Jejunum d. All of the above
105. Part of the large intestine that is well developed in horse and rabbit: contains
microorganisms which produce enzymes for fiber digestion:
a. Cecum c. Rectum e. None of the
above
b. Colon d. All of the above
106. Site of HCl and pepsin production in the bird:
a. Crop c. Ventriculus e. All of the
above
b. Proventriculus d. Small intestine
107. Enzymes produced by microorganisms in the rumen during digestion
a. Cellulose c. Pepsin e. All of the
above
b. Trypsin d. Urease
108. Enzymes produced by pancreas and secreted into the duodenum
a. Trypsin c. Carboxypeptide e. All of the above
b. Rennin d. Ptyalin
Animal Nutrition
1 e 21 e 41 c 61 c 81 b
2 e 22 e 42 c 62 e 82 a
3 b 23 a 43 a 63 b 83 a
4 b 24 a 44 b 64 a 84 e

109
Animal Science
5 c 25 a 45 b 65 e 85 c
6 b 26 a 46 a 66 b 86 c
7 a 27 c 47 a 67 d 87 a
8 c 28 e 48 e 68 a 88 d
9 a 29 a 49 c 69 a 89 b
10 a 30 a 50 b 70 d 90 b
11 a 31 a 51 b 71 a 91 a
12 a 32 d 52 b 72 a 92 b
13 d 33 a 53 a 73 b 93 b
14 a 34 a 54 d 74 c 94 c
15 a 35 d 55 b 75 b 95 e
16 b 36 b 56 c 76 c 96 d
17 a 37 b 57 d 77 b 97 c
18 a 38 e 58 c 78 b 98 a
19 a 39 a 59 c 79 c 99 a
20 d 40 a 60 c 80 c 100 a
101 d
102 b
103 b
104 a
105 a
106 b
107 d
108 a


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1

Agriculture Licensure Exam REVIEW CLASS

Chick – young domestic chicken while in the downy stage.

Clutches – group of eggs laid for successive days.

Cock/Rooster – a male fowl one year old or over.

Cockerel – a male fowl less than one year old.

Drake – a male of the duck family.

Layer – egg-type or dual-type 6 months old female that lays eggs.

Morbidity weight – number of chicken afflicted by disease.

Oviposition – act of laying eggs.

Plumage – the feathers of a fowl.

Pullet duck – a female duck less than 6 months old.

Agriculture Licensure Exam REVIEW CLASS

Quill – the hollow, horny basal part of stem of a feather.

Web of feet – the flat skin beside the toes.

ANSC 1 Note: Definition/identification of terms/persons

Agriculture Licensure Exam REVIEW CLASS

Genetics The study of nature and functions of genes

Heritability The degree by which a character is genetically transmitted from parent to

Mutation Spontaneous change in the biochemical or structural characteristic in the

Agriculture Licensure Exam REVIEW CLASS

 Based on place of origin or adaptation

1. Bosindicus (Zebu breeds)

Characteristics of Zebu breeds as compared to temperate breeds:

 Based on type of product

1. Beef Cattle – for eat

Zebu breeds Products

Agriculture Licensure Exam REVIEW CLASS

Red Sindhi - Pakistan milk (hardiness, heat resistance)

Breeding –art and science of genetic improvement

 Basis of selection: individuals possessing desired traits and characteristics

Agriculture Licensure Exam REVIEW CLASS

Outward physiological manifestation of in-heat animals (signs of estrus)

Some basic parameters related to breeding management

HERD HEALTH MANAGEMENT

Hygiene and Sanitation Program

Agriculture Licensure Exam REVIEW CLASS

- quarantine of premises during outbreak of diseases

Regular Vaccination Program

Rendering immunity of animals against infectious diseases:

Regular Parasitic Control Program

Disease prevention procedures (biosecurity measures)

Usual symptoms of diseases:

2. Isolation of diseased animals

Rumen – fermentation vat; microbial degradation of ingesta

Agriculture Licensure Exam REVIEW CLASS

Omasum – glandular (true) stomach

Esophageal groove –serve as passageway of milk in young ruminants to flow directly to

VFA – primary source of energy in ruminants

Group of feeds for ruminant feeding:

Ration – is the amount of feed provided to the animal in one day.

Feed Consumption Capacity

Additional feed resource:

The functions of animal shelter are as follows:

Agriculture Licensure Exam REVIEW CLASS

In feedlot cattle production

Other farm structures

BEEF CATTLE PRODUCTION

Agriculture Licensure Exam REVIEW CLASS

DAIRY CATTLE PRODUCTION TERMS

Agriculture Licensure Exam REVIEW CLASS

Cod – scrotal area of steer remaining after castration