GATE ZONE - TRB MODEL EXAM

1. Presence of moisture in a refrigerant affects the working

A. Compressor B. Condenser
C. Evaparator D. Expansion valve
2. Which one among the following is not the consequence of first law of thermodynamics?
A. Heat transfer is a path function. B. Energy is a property
A machine which develops work continuously
C. Energy of an isolated system is constant D. without absorbing energy from outside in any
other form is possible
3. In an Otto cycle, the compression ratio increase from 8 to 10. The efficiency will increase by ____ %.

A. 6.1 B. 6.4
C. 6.6 D. 6.89
4. Gas turbine works on:
A. Brayton cycle B. Carnot cycle
C. Rankine cycle D. Erricsson cycle
5. What is the maximum work that can be obtained, if one kg of water at 90 °C is cooled to ambient
temperature of 27 °C (Specific heat of water = 4.18 kJ/kg-K)
A. 35.1 KJ B. 24.3 KJ
C. 27 KJ D. 20 KJ
6. A Carnot refrigerator requires 1.3 kW per tonne of refrigeration to maintain a region at low temp of
-38 ºc. The C.O.P. of this device when used as a heat pump:
A. 3.69 B. 2.69
C. 1.69 D. 4.1
7. In a Rankine cycle, the enthalpies at turbine entry and outlet are 3159 kJ/kg and 2187 kJ/kg
respectively. If the specific pump work is 2 kJ/ kg. The specific steam consumption (in kg/kW-h) of the
cycle based on net output is _________
A. 3.711 B. 5.223
C. 5.243 D. 5.244
8. A gas expands in a frictionless piston-cylinder arrangement. The expansion process is very slow, and is
resisted by an ambient pressure of 100 kPa. During the expansion process, the pressure of the system
(gas) remains constant at 300 kPa. The change in volume of the gas is 0.01 m 3. The maximum amount
of work that could be utilized from the above process is
A. 0 KJ B. 1 KJ
C. 3 KJ D. 2 KJ
9. In an ideal gas turbine plant, it is assumed that the compression and expansion processes are
A. isothermal B. isentropic
C. polytropic D. isenthalpic
10. When gas is heated at constant pressure, the heat supplied is utilised in
A. increasing the internal energy of gas B. doing some external work
increasing the internal energy of gas and also
C. D. work done is zero
for doing some external work
11. The kinetic energy per kg molecule of any gas at absolute temperature T is equal to (where Ru =
A. Ru x T B. 1.5 Ru x T
C. D.
2Ru xT 3Ru xT
12. The highest temperature at which vapour pressure of a liquid can be measured is..
A. the boiling point of the liquid B. critical solution temperature
 C. D.
ionisation temperature inversion temperature
13. According to kinetic theory of heat
A. temperature should rise during boiling B. temperature should fall during freezing
C. at low temperature all bodies are in solid state D. at absolute zero there is absolutely no
vibration of molecules
14. Superheated vapour behaves
A. exactly as gas B. as steam
C. as average of gas and vapour. D. approximately as a gas

15. The value of n = 1 in the polytropic process indicates it to be

A. adiabatic process B. isothermal process
C. D.
isobaric process isentropic process
16. In a non-flow reversible process for which 𝑝 = (− 3𝑉 + 15) × 105 𝑁/𝑚2, V changes from
1 𝑚3 to 2 𝑚3 . The work done will be about
A. 10 MJ B. 100 MJ
C. D.
1 MJ 25 MJ
17. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration
A. Brayton cycle B. Reversed-Brayton cycle
C. Joule cycle D. Bell-Coleman cycle
18. For high speed engines, the cam follower should move with
A. uniform velocity B. simple harmonic motion
C. uniform acceleration and retardation D. cycloidal motion
19.
The Kutzbach criterion for determining the number of degrees of freedom (n) is (where l = number of
links, j = number of joints and h = number of higher pairs)

A. 𝑛 = 3(𝑙 − 1) − 2𝑗 − ℎ B. 𝑛 = 2(𝑙 − 1) − 2𝑗 − ℎ
C. 𝑛 = 3(𝑙 − 1) − 3𝑗 − ℎ D. 𝑛 = 2(𝑙 − 1) − 3𝑗 − ℎ
20.
The speed of an engine varies from 210 rad/s to 190 rad/s. During a cycle the change in kinetic
energy is found to be 400 Nm. The inertia of the flywheel is

A. 0.10 𝑘𝑔𝑚2 B. 0.20 𝑘𝑔𝑚2

C. 0.30 𝑘𝑔𝑚2 D. 0.4 𝑘𝑔𝑚2
21.
For a vibration system, equation of motion is given as 20𝑥 + 6𝑥 + 25𝑥 = 0. The value of
frequency of damped vibration is________(rad/s)

A. 1.11 rad/s B. 0.11 rad/s

C. 2.1 rad/s D. 1.5 rad/s
22. A For
1m along cantilever
vibration beam
system, carrier aofmass
equation of 40
motion as 20
kg at the
is given 𝑥 +end.
free 6𝑥 + 25𝑥second
If the = 0. The
moment of area and
value of
Young’s modulus are 600 𝑚𝑚 4 and 600 Gpa respectively, the natural frequency of the system will be
frequency of damped vibration is________(rad/s)

A. 5.196 rad/sec B. 36.3 rad/sec

C. 363 rad/sec D. 1 rad/sec
23. Critical damping is a function of
A. mass and stiffness B. mass and damping co-efficient
C. stiffness and natural frequency D. natural frequency and damping co-efficient
24. Whirling speed of a shaft coincide with the natural frequency of the
A. transverse vibration B. torsional vibration
longitudinal vibrations provided the shaft is
C. longitidunal vibration D.
vertical
25. Match List - I (force transmissibility) with List II (frequency ratio) and select the correct answer using
the codes given below the list:
List - I List - II
𝜔
A. 1 1. > 2
𝜔𝑛
𝜔
B. Less than 1 2. = 2
𝜔𝑛
𝜔
C. Greater than 1 3. ≫ 2
𝜔𝑛
𝜔
D. Tending to zero 4. < 2
𝜔𝑛
A. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 B. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
C. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 D. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
26. The combined motion of rotation and translation may be assumed to be a motion of pure rotation
about some centre which goes on changing from time to time. The centre is known as

A. Shear centre B. Meta centre

C. Instantaneous centre D. Gravitational centre
27. A body moves along a straight line and the variation of its kinetic energy with time is linear. The force
acting on the body is
A. Directly proportional to velocity B. Inversely proportional to velocity
C. zero D. constant
28. A ball of weight of 100 N is tied to smooth wall by a chord making an angle of 300 to the wall. The
tension in the cord is

A. 200 N B. 100 N
200
C. 𝑁 D. 50 3 N
3
29. A rod of length L and diameter D is subjected to a tensile load P. Which of the following is sufficient
to calculate the resulting change in diameter?
A. Young's Modulus B. Shear Modulus
C. Poisson ratio D. Both Young's Modulus and Shear Modulus
30. Euler's formula holds good only for
A. short columns B. long columns
C. both short and long columns D. weak columns
31 A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another tensile stress of 600
MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the
same planes. The maximum shear stress will be
A. 400 MPa B. 500 MPa
C. 900 MPa D. 1400 MPa
32. A shaft of diameter D is subjected to a twisting moment (T) and a bending moment (M). If the
maximum bending stress is equal to maximum shear stress developed, then M is equal to
A. T /2 B. T
C. 2T D. 4T
33. A free bar of length l is uniformly heated from 00 𝐶 to a temperature 𝑡 0 𝐶, α is the coefficient
of linear expansion and E is the modulus elasticity. The stress in the bar is
 𝛼𝑡𝐸
A. 𝛼𝑡𝐸 B.
2
C. Zero D. None of these
34. In liquid, viscosity is mainly due to
A. Molecular Momentum Transfer B. Intermolecular Adhesion
C. Intermolecular Cohesion D. Intramolecular cohesion
35. The vertical component of the hydrostatics force on a submerged surface is the
A. Mass of liquid vertically above it B. weight of liquid vertically above it
product of pressure at the centroid and the
C. force on a vertical projection of the surface D.
surface area
36. In flow field, the streamlines and equipotential lines
A. are parallel B. are orthogonal everywhere in the flow field
cut orthogonally except at the stagnation
C. cut at any angle D.
points
37. In case of pelton turbine installed in a hydraulic power plant, the gross head availbale is the vertical
distance between
A. forebay and tail race B. resorvoir level and turbine inlet
C. forebay and turbine inlet D. resorvoir level and tail race
38. If the relationship between the shear stress 𝜏 the rate of shear strain 𝑑𝑢 is expressed as
𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑢 𝑛
𝜏=𝜇 , then the fluid with exponent n<1 is known as which one of the following?
𝑑𝑦

A. Bingham Plastic B. Dilatant fluid

C. Newtonian fluid D. Pseudo Plastic Fluid
39. Match list I (Pipe flow) with list II (Type of acceleration) and Select the correct answer
Flow at constant rate passing through a bend
A. 1. Zero acceleration
Flow at constant rate passing through a
B. 2. Local and convective acceleration
straight uniform diameter pipe
C. Gradually changing flow through a bend 3. Convective acceleration
Gradually changing flow through a straight
D. 4. Local accleration
pipe
A. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 B. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
C. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 D. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
40. Euler equation of a turbine giving energy transfer per unit mass 𝐸0 (𝑊ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑈, 𝑉𝑤 , 𝑉𝑟 and 𝑉
represents the inlet and peripheral, whirl, relative and absolute velocities respectively. Suffix 1 and 2
refer to the turbine inlet and outlet respectively) is given by
A. 𝐸0 = 𝑈1𝑉𝑤1 − 𝑈2 𝑉𝑤2 B. 𝐸0 = 𝑈1 𝑉𝑟1 − 𝑈2 𝑉𝑟2
C. 𝐸0 = 𝑈1 𝑉1 − 𝑈2 𝑉2 D. 𝐸0 = 𝑉1 𝑉𝑤1 − 𝑉2 𝑉𝑤2
41 What is the height of rise in glass tube of 2.5 mm diameter when immersed vertically in mercury?
Surface tension of mercury 𝜎 = 0.52 𝑁/𝑚. Specific gravity of air is given as 13.6.
A. 0.4 cm B. -0.6 cm
C. -0.4 cm D. 0.6 cm
42. If the atmospheric pressure at sea level is 10.143 𝑁/𝑐𝑚2, the pressure at a height of 1000 m

A. 1.1772 𝑁/𝑐𝑚2 B. 11.3202 𝑁/𝑐𝑚2 ,

2
C. 8.9578 𝑁/𝑐𝑚 , D. 10.143 𝑁/𝑐𝑚2 ,
43. A centrifugal pump with peripheral speed V was selected for a total lift of 100 m. Actually pump was
to be operated for a total lift of 400 m. The peripheral speed should actually be
 A. 2V B. 4V
C. 8V D. V
44. Water at 25°C is flowing through a 1.0 km long G.I. pipe of 200 mm diameter at the rate of 0.07 m 3/s.
If value of Darcy friction factor for this pipe is 0.02 and density of water is 1000 kg/m 3, the pumping
power (in kW) required to maintain the flow is
A. 1.8 B. 17.4
C. 20.5 D. 41
45. A husband and wife appear in an interview for two vocancies for same post. The probability of
husband getting selected is 1/5 while the probability of wife getting selected is 1/7. Then the
probability that anyone of them getting selected is
11
A. B. 12
35 35
1
C. D. 34
35 35
46. The rank of a 3 x 3 matrix C (= AB), found by multiplying a non-zero column matrix A of size 3 x 1 and
a non-zero row matrix B of size 1 x 3, is
A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3
47.
Which one of the following equations is a correct identity for arbitrary 3 x 3 real matrices P, Q and R?

A. det 𝑃 + 𝑄 = det 𝑃 + det 𝑄 B. (𝑃 + 𝑄)2 = 𝑃 2 + 𝑄𝑃 + 𝑃𝑄 + 𝑄2

C. 𝑃 𝑄 + 𝑅 = QP + PR D. (𝑃 − 𝑄)2 = 𝑃 2 − 2𝑃𝑄 + 𝑄2
48. The value of c which makes the angle 450
between 𝑎 = 𝑖 + 𝑐𝑗 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑏 = 𝑖 + 𝑗 is
1
A. 1 B.
2
C. −1 D. 0
2 for the following differential equation with boundary condition 𝑦 0 = 2 and
49. Solution

𝑑2 𝑦
𝑦 1 = −3 𝑖𝑠 = 3𝑥 − 2
𝑑𝑥 2

𝑥3 𝑥2 𝑥2
A. 𝑦 = − + 3𝑥 − 6 B. 𝑦 = 3𝑥 3 − − 5𝑥 + 2
3 2 2
𝑥3 9𝑥 𝑥2 3
C. 𝑦 = − 𝑥2 − +2 D. 𝑦 = 𝑥 3 − + 5𝑥 +
2 2 2 2
50. 𝜋
log 𝜃 − 2
lim𝜋 𝑖𝑠
𝜃→ 2 tan ϑ
A. 1 B. 0
C. 𝜋 D. 𝜋
51. 4 𝑑𝑥 2
𝑖𝑠
𝑥 𝑥 2 − 𝑎2

1 𝑥 1 𝑥
A. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 −1 B. 𝑠𝑖𝑛−1
𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎
1 𝑥 1 𝑥
C. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐 −1 D. 𝑠𝑒𝑐 −1
𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎
52. The values of k for which the lines 2𝑥 + 𝑦 − 1 = 0, 4𝑥 + 3y = 0 and 3𝑥 + ky − 2 = 0 are
 A. -2 B. 3
C. 2 D. -3
53. Consider a function u which depends on position x and time t.The partial differential equation
𝜕𝑢 𝜕 2 𝑢
= 𝑖𝑠 𝑘𝑛𝑜𝑤𝑛 𝑎𝑠
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑥 2
A. Wave equation B. Heat equation
C. Laplace's equation D. Elasticity equation
54. Amoung the four normal distributions with probability density functions as shown below, which one
has the lowest varience?
IV

III
II
I

A. I B. II
C. III D. IV
55. The defect responsible for the phenomenon of slip, by which most metals deform plastically, is
known as
A. Fracture B. Twinning
C. Twinning D. Strain hardening
56. Which of the following has maximum hardness
A. Austenite B. Pearlite
C. Troostite D. Martensite
57. Vanadium in high speed steel:
Forms very hard carbides and thereby
A. Has a tendency to promote decarburization B.
increases the wear resistance of the tool
Has a tendency to promote retention of
C. Helps in achieving high hot hardness D.
Austenite
58. What is the diameter of the largest sphere in terms of lattice parameter a, which will fit the void at
the centre of the cube edge of a BCC crystal?
A. 0.134a B. 0.25a
C. 0.433a D. 0.5a
59. Match List-I (Composition) with List-II (Application) and select the correct answer using the codes
give below the lists:
A. Commercial bronze (10% Zn) 1. Radiator
B. Red brass (15% Zn) 2. Spring metal
C. Aluminium brass (22% Zn 2% Al) 3. Forging and stamping
D. P-bronze (11% tin, small amount of P) 4. Power plant and chemical equipment
A. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 B. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
C. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 D. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
60. Abbe's princple of alignment is used to be followed in
A. vernier calipers B. depth vernier
C. internal caliper micrometer D. height vernier
61. Appropriate instrument to check the flatness of slip gauge is
A. dial indicator B. pneumatic comparator
tool makers microscope with projection
C. optical interferometer D.
facility
62. The fit on a hole shaft pair system is specified as H7 - H6, the type of fit is
A. Clearance fit B. Running fit(Sliding fit)
 C. Push fit(Transition fit) D. Force fit(Interference fit)
63 Match List-I (Instrument) with List-II (Principle of inspection) and select the correct answer using the
P. dial indicator 1. Non contact
Q. Pneumatic gauge 2. Limit of size
R. GO/NO GO gauge 3. Comparator
A. P - 2, Q - 3, R - 1 B. P - 3, Q - 1, R - 2
C. P - 1, Q - 2, R - 3 D. P - 2, Q - 1, R - 3
64 Which of the following is a technique for forecasting?
A. Exponential smoothing B. PERT/CPM
C. Gantt Chart technique D. Control chart
65 Setup costs do not include
A. Labour cost of setting up machines B. Ordering cost or raw material
C. Maintenance cost of the machines D. Cost of processing the work piece
If at the optimum in a linear programming problem, a dual variable corresponding to a particular
66 primal constraint is zero, then it means that
Right hand side of the primal constraint can be Changing the right hand side of the primal
A. B.
altered without affecting the optimum constraint will disturb the optimum solution
C. The objective function is unbounded D. The objective function is unbounded
67 Simplex method of solving linear programming problem uses
A. all the points in the feasible region B. only the corner points of the feasible region
C. intermediate points within the infeasible region D. only the interior points in the feasible region.
68. In the construction of networks, dummy activities are introduced in order to
transfer resources, if necessary, during
A. Compute the slack on all events B.
monitoring
C. clearly designate a precedence relationship D. simply the crashing plan
69. A dummy activity is used in PERT network to describe
A. precedence relationship B. necessary time delay
C. resource restriction D. resource idelness
70. In PERT analysis a critical activity has
A. maximum float B. zero float
C. maximum cost D. minimum cost
71. Following data refers to the activities of a project, where, node 1 refers to the start and node 5 refers
to the end of project.
Activity Duration (Days)

1-2 2

2-3 1

4-3 3

1-4 3

2-5 3

3-5 2

4-5 4
A. 1-2-3-5 B. 1-4-3-5
 C. 1-2-3-4-5 D. 1-4-5
72. The jobs arrive at a facility, for service, in a random manner. The probability distribution of number
of arrivals of jobs in a fixed time interval is
A. Normal B. Poisson
C. Erlang D. Beta
On an average 100 customers arrive at a place each hour, and on the average the serve can proces
73. 120 customers per hour. What is the proportion of the server is idle?
A. 0.167 B. 0.152
C. 0.182 D. 0.147
74.
In the blanking operation to produced steel washer, the maximum punch load used is 2 * 105. The
plate thickness is 4 mm and percentage penetration is 35% the work done in shearing operation is

A. 200 J B. 400 J
C. 600 J D. 280 J
75. The temperature of the heat generated due to discharge in Electrical Discharge machining is of the
range:
A. 8000 - 12000 deg C B. 800 - 1200 deg C
C. 8000 - 12000 deg C D. 5000 - 8000 deg C
76. Which of the following option are true matched?
A. Roll forming - Mandrel B. Blanking - Shear angle
C. Flow forming - Coined stock D. All of these
77. Calculate the blank diameter to make a steel shell as shown in figure

A. 226.23 B. 126.25
C. 22.33 D. 446.25
78. An opening at the top of the mould that is connected to the mould cavity through runners from
which the molten metal is poured is known as?
A. Gate B. Sprue hole
C. Cope D. Riser
79. In which of the following operation, feed is parallel to the surface being machined:
A. Facing B. Cylindrical turning
C. Boring D. Thread cutting
80. Match list I (welding effects) with list II (causes) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List - I (Welding defects) List - II( Causes)
P. Spatter 1. Wet electrodes
Q. Distortion 2. Arc blow
R. Slag inclusion 3. Improper cleaning in multipass welding
S. Porosity 4. Poor joint selection
A. P - 2, Q - 3, R - 1, S-4 B. P - 2, Q - 1, R - 4, S-3
C. P - 3, Q - 2, R - 1, S-4 D. P - 2, Q - 4, R - 3, S-1
81. Following is a process used to form powder metal to shape
A. Sintering B. Explosive Compacting
C. isostatic moulding D. All of these
82. In a single point turning operation with a cemented carbide and steel combination having a Taylor
exponent of 0.25, if the cutting speed is halved, then tool life will become
A. Half B. Sixteen times
C. two times D. Eight times
83. The main objective of 'shot peening' is to improve which property of metal parts
A. Surface finish B. Ductility
C. Fatigue strength D. Hardness
84. In a heat exchanger, the hot liquid enters with a temperature of 200 °C and leaves at 180 °C. The
cooling fluid enters at 50 °C and leaves at 130 °C. The capacity ratio of the heat exchanger is
__________.
A. 0.25 B. 0.35
C. 0.45 D. 0.4
85. Sun’s surface at 6000 K emits radiation at a wavelength of 0.25 µ. a furnace at 500 °C will emit

A. 10𝜇 B. 5𝜇
C. 1.94𝜇 D. 0.025𝜇
86. The shields used between two surface is usually reduce the heat transfer by radiation between the
two surfaces by
A. increasing surface resistance B. decreasing surface resistance
C. removing overall heat D. none of these
87. A energy transfer from a gray body is considered. A equivalent electrical network for heat radiation
is produced, the resistance in an electrical circuit corresponds to;
A. 𝑄𝑛𝑒𝑡 B. 𝑒𝑏 − 𝐽
1−𝜖
C. D. 𝜌𝐺
𝜖𝐴
88. In a metal forming operation when the material has just started yielding, the principal stresses are
𝜎1 = 180 𝑀𝑃𝑎, 𝜎2 = −100 𝑀𝑃𝑎, 𝜎3 = 0 𝑀𝑃𝑎. Following Von Mises criterion, the yield stress is

A. 245.76 B. 240.12
C. 251.98 D. 248.57
89. If the wire diameter of a closed coil helical spring subjected to compressive load is increased from
1cm to 2 cm, other parameters remaining same, the deflection will decrease by a factor of

A. 16 B. 8
C. 1 D. 4
90. Which of the following machine element is does not transmit power between the source and the
machine absorbing the power.
A. Counter shaft B. Spindle
C. Front axel D. Sprockets
91. The key can have two wedge shaped pieces or a single rectangular or square piece-
A. Woodruff key B. Feather key
C. Gib-head key D. Tangent key
92. The difference between tensions on the tight and slack sides of a belt drive is 8000 N. If the belt
speed is 80 m/s, the transmitted power in kW is
A. 40 KW B. 100 KW
C. 10 KW D. 640 KW
93. Friction material used in the breaking system should have posses the following properties and
common friction material are
Ability to withstand high temperature, woven
A. High wear resistance , cotton lining B.
asbestos lining
 Flexibility and conformability to any surface,
C. D. All of these
molded asbestos lining
94. A helical compression spring is to be designed for a force of 200N. The spring index of the spring, if
mean coil diameter is 48 mm and wire diameter is 9.6 mm.
A. 3 B. 5
C. 4 D. 6
95. In a belt drive, if the pulley diameter is doubled keeping the tension and belt width constant, then it
will be necessary to
A. increase the key length B. increase the key depth
C. increase the key width D. decrease the key length
96. Which of the following statement is wrong ?
A. The solid length of a spring is the product of B. The spring index is the ratio of mean diameter
total number of coils and the diameter of the of the coil to the diameter of the wire
C. The spring stiffness is the load required per D. The pitch of the coil is the axial distance
unit deflection of the spring between adjacent coils in the compressed
97.
An imaginary circle which by pure rolling action gives the same motion as the actual gear, is called
A. addendum circle B. dedendum circle
C. pitch circle D. clearance circle
98. The steel widely used for motor car crankshafts is
A. nickel steel B. chrome steel
C. nickel chrome steel D. high speed steel
99. The cam follower generally used in automobile engines is
A. knife edge follower B. flat faced follower
C. spherical faced follower D. roller follower
In helical gears, the distance between similar faces of adjacent teeth along a helix on the pitch
100. cylinders normal to the teeth, is called
A. normal pitch B. axial pitch
C. diametral pitch D. module
101. Which water body is to the east of Tamil Nadu?
A. Gulf of Kutch B. Bay of Bengal
C. Gulf of Cambay D. Arabian Sea (
102. The DANIDA-TNAHCP initiative of Tamil nadu is related to which among the following
sectors?
A. Infrastructure B. Health
C. Education D. Industry
Prime Minister Narendra Modi had inaugurated farmers' conclave 'Krishi Kumbh 2018' in which
103. place?
A. Ranchi, Jharkhand B. Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh
C. Patna, Bihar D. Jaipur, Rajasthan
Which institute is the National Coordinating Institute to implement the SPARC (Scheme for
104. Promotion of Academic and Research Collaboration) programme across the country?
A. IIT Kanpur B. IIT Delhi
C. IIT Kharagpur D. IIT Madras
The NATO's (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) biggest military maneuvers (since the Cold War)
105. started in which country?
A. Norway B. Canada
C. France D. Germany
106. Pooja Dhanda is in news recently. She is associated with which sports?
A. Badminton B. Cricket
C. Weightlifting D. Wrestling
 Who has been selected for the prestigious 2016 Tagore Award by the Union Ministry of Culture?
107.
A. Chhayanaut B. Ram Vanji Sutar
C. Niladri Kumar D. Anoushka Shankar
Which country won the prestigious 2018 Commonwealth Association for Public Administration and
108. Management Award?
A. South Africa B. Bangladesh
C. India D. Canada
109. Former SBI chairperson Arundhati Bhattacharya has been appointed as an independent director of
which IT company?
A. TCS B. Wibro
C. Tech Mahindra D. Infosys
110. India and which country have signed agreement for enhancing inland and coastal waterways
connectivity for trade and cruise movements?
A. South Africa B. Bangladesh
C. India D. China
 Answer Question Type
D
KNOWLEDGE

KNOWLEDGE

C
PROBLEM

A
KNOWLEDGE

B
PROBLEM

A
ANALYSIS

h) of the A
PROBLEM

slow, and is
the system
um amount D
PROBLEM

B
KNOWLEDGE

C
KNOWLEDGE

B
ANALYSIS

A
KNOWLEDGE
 KNOWLEDGE

D
KNOWLEDGE

D
KNOWLEDGE

B
ANALYSIS

C
PROBLEM

B
KNOWLEDGE

D
KNOWLEDGE

b
ANALYSIS

A
PROBLEM

A
PROBLEM

A
PROBLEM

A
KNOWLEDGE
A
KNOWLEDGE

ANALYSIS

C
KNOWLEDGE

B
ANALYSIS

C
PROBLEM

D
KNOWLEDGE

B KNOWLEDGE

D PROBLEM

A ANALYSIS

C ANALYSIS
 C ANALYSIS

C KNOWLEDGE

B KNOWLEDGE

D KNOWLEDGE

B KNOWLEDGE

A ANALYSIS

A ANALYSIS

fix 1 and 2
A ANALYSIS

C PROBLEM

C PROBLEM

A PROBLEM
 A PROBLEM

/s.

B PROBLEM

A PROBLEM

B ANALYSIS

b ANALYSIS

D PROBLEM

C PROBLEM

B PROBLEM

D KNOWLEDGE

C PROBLEM
C PROBLEM

B KNOWLEDGE

D ANALYSIS

C KNOWLEDGE

D KNOWLEDGE

B KNOWLEDGE

A ANALYSIS

B ANALYSIS

B KNOWLEDGE

C KNOWLEDGE

A ANALYSIS
A ANALYSIS

means that
B

B
 B

D
B

D
D

D
B