Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region VI – WESTERN VISAYAS
Schools Division of Bago City
RAMON TORRES DULAO NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Brgy. Dulao, Bago City, Negros Occidental

SCIENCE 10

Multiple Choice: Write the letter only.

1. They are the major divisions of the nervous system.

I. Autonomic Nervous system III. Central Nervous System
II. Somatic Nervous System IV. Peripheral Nervous System
A. I and III B. II and IV C. I and II D. III and IV
2. Which of the following statements below is correct about the difference between the CNS and the PNS?
I. The CNS is the basis of all mental and behavioural activity, while the PNS gets all information into the brain
and controls directly all responses you make.
II. The CNS contains about 99% of all the neurons, while the PNS consists of the nerves going to and from the
central nervous system.
III. The CNS connects the senses to the PNS, while the PNS carries out the higher, more complex mental and
behavioural activities.
IV. The CNS connects the PNS to the organs and limbs, while the PNS serves as the main processing center for
the entire nervous system.
A. I and II B. II and III C. III and IV D. I, II, III and IV
3. It is one of the main components or parts of the CNS.
A. Spinal Nerves B. Neurons C. Spinal Cord D. Anterior Sensory
4. Which of these describes the function of the cranial nerves?
A. They carry information into and out of the brain stem.
B. They serve as organizers and distributors of information for the body.
C. They serve as channels for signals between the brain and the rest of the body.
D. They carry motor and sensory signals between the spinal cord and the body.
5. This system is associated with the involuntary control of body movements and has two subdivisions: sympathetic
and
parasympathetic.
A. Somatic Nervous System B. Autonomic Nervous System C. CNS D. PNS
6. Which of the following describes a neuron?
A. It is an electrically excitable cell that processes and transmits information by electro-chemical signaling.
B. It allows communication to occur in the brain.
C. It produces the chemical called neurotransmitters, to be released when a nerve impulse comes to the end of an
axon.
D. All of the above
7. The following are parts of a nerve cell except:
A. dendrites B. axon C. synapse D. cell body
8. Which statement about the function of dendrites is true?
A. They send information to other neurons in the nervous system.
B. They are constantly receiving information from the environment and sending messages to the brain.
C. They control all of the functions of the nerve cell.
D. They branch out in treelike fashion and serve as the main apparatus for receiving signals from other nerve cells.
9. One of the characteristics of a nerve impulse is:
A. It cannot jump from one neuron to another, and it produces the chemical called neurotransmitters.
B. It never divides, and neither does it die off to be replaced by new ones.
C. It contains several important organelles that help the cell performs its function.
D. It is the main conducting unit of the neuron, capable of conveying electrical signals along far distances.
10. __________ are chemical messengers which neurons use to tell other neurons that they have received an impulse.
A. nerve impulses B. neurotransmitters C. organelles D. axons
11. In what way do the sense organs assist the nervous system in receiving and relaying messages?
A. The sense organs serve as the catalyst in speeding up the information highway of the nervous system.
B. The sense organs are continuously exchanging information with the environment and the nerve impulse, which in
turn bring the messages to the brain through the neurons.
C. The sense organs are constantly receiving information from the environment and sending messages to the brain.
D. All of the above
12. You were asked to describe the nerve pathway that the message followed when you saw the ruler fall Which of the
following is the correct sequence of events?
I. The brain sends a response through the muscles in the hand.
II. The muscles contract to allow the person to catch the ruler.
III. The eye sees the ruler then it sends a message to the brain.
A. I, II and III B. III, II and I C. II, III and I D. III, I and II
 13. Which of these statements explain why a message moving along nerve pathways takes time?
I. The message travels from one neuron to another until it reaches the brain.
II. The brain’s response is also transmitted by another set of neurons.
III. The neurons are separated by a space called the synaptic cleft which slows down the nerve impulse in reaching
the brain.
IV. Many axons split into several branches, thereby conveying information to different targets.
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV
14. An organism must be able to ___________________ in order to survive.
A. be alert, awake, alive and enthusiastic C. eat, drink and work
B. response to a stimulus D. interact with the environment
15. It is a nerve impulse moving along a neuron.
A. neurotransmitter C. enviro-chemical transmitter
B. postsynaptic receptor D. electrochemical signal
16.The brain receives the information through the _____________ that transmit the message from one neuron to
another.
A. motor neuron B. sensory neuron C. bipolar neuron D. projection interneuron
17. Based on the simulation activity, which of the following explain how information travels in the nervous system?
I. Information travels through the nervous system through the neurons that transmit the impulse.
II. The sense organ receives, and the information is sent by the sensory neurons to the brain.
III. The brain then processes the information and sends a response through the motor neurons to the organ, gland or
muscle.
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III
18. When a receptor such as an organ perceives a stimulus, which correct sequence of events takes place?
I. The message coming from the brain is sent through the motor neurons.
II. When a receptor such as an organ perceives a stimulus, the impulse is sent to the brain by the
sensory neurons, which then transmit information from one nerve cell to another.
III. As the message reaches the brain, it processes the information and commands an effector such
as a muscle or an organ to respond.
A. I, II, III B. III, II, I C. II, III, I D. I, III, II
19. They transmit impulses from the brain to muscles, glands or other neurons in the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS).
A. Motor neurons B. Sensory Neurons C. Bipolar neurons D. Projection interneurons
20. Which of the following relay course shows the correct sequence on how a message is passed on from start to finish?
A. Organ  Sensory neurons  Brain  Motor neurons  Organ
B. Organ  Sensory neurons  Motor neurons  Brain  Organ
C. Sensory neurons  Organ  Brain  Motor neurons  Organ
D. Motor neurons  Brain  Organ  Sensory neurons  Organ
21. Which gland of the endocrine system and nervous system controls the other glands in the body?
A. Hypothalamus B. Pituitary gland C. Adrenal gland D. Pineal gland
22. The thymus gland enables the body to produce __________ that help in fighting infections and diseases.
A. cytokines B. phagocytes C. T-cells D. B-cells
23. Why is injecting insulin an essential part of the daily regime for most people with diabetes?
I. Because the diabetic person’s pancreas does not produce enough insulin for the body,
II. Insulin injections must be administered to the body to regulate blood sugar levels.
III. To regulate the body metabolism by producing calcitonin that reduces blood calcium level.
IV. To enable the body to have the energy in doing spontaneous work during emergency situations.
A. I and II only B. III and IV only C. I, II and III only D. I, II, III and IV
24. The following are ways on how oral contraceptives, specifically birth control pills, prevent pregnancy except:
A. Most pills have the combination of the hormones estrogen and progesterone to prevent ovulation.
B. Birth control pills contain hormones that control the functioning of the ovaries and the uterus.
C. Keeping eggs from leaving the ovaries and making cervical mucus thicker.
D. Most pills contain synthetic chemicals which destroys the egg cell upon leaving the ovary.
25. Which of these is not a major gland in the body?
A. Pineal B. Pituitary C. Thyroid D. Pancreas
26. What condition may arise if the pituitary gland is not producing enough growth hormones?
A. Dwarfism B. Hydrocephalus C. Paganism D. Gigantism
27. They affect various processes in the body as they regulate and balance the functioning of organs, tissues, and cells.
A. Glands B. Hormones C. Body systems D. Chemical molecules
28. The gland cannot make enough thyroid hormone if it does not have enough iodine in the blood. Which of the
following
is helpful in a situation like this?
A. Refrain from eating processed food C. Use iodized salt in your food
B. Use only organic ingredients in your food D. All of these
29. Most common disorders specialists found in the clinic at UCSF are pituitary tumors. The following are symptoms of
 pituitary tumor except:
A. Sexual dysfunction B. Frequent hiccups C. Sleep apnea D. Visual loss

30. What will happen to a person with excessive secretion of growth hormones from the pituitary gland?
A. Dysmenorrhea B. Heart enlargement C. Dwarfism D. Gigantism
31. The ___________ is a system of sex organs within an organism which work together for the purpose of sexual
reproduction.
A. Endocrine system B. Reproductive system C. Nervous system D. Respiratory system
32. Which of the pairs listed below does not belong to the group?
A. Fallopian tube – site of egg fertilization
B. Vas deferens – carries sperm from testes to urethra
C. Uterus – serves as site of egg implantation
D. Follicle - a fluid-filled sac that contains the oocyte
33. The changes that a girl undergoes during puberty are beginning of breast development, growth of pubic hair
followed
by the growth of hair in the armpits, regular pattern of ovulation and the:
A. onset of self-awareness C. start of menstruation
B. susceptibility to obesity D. growth of acne
34. Puberty is also the time when the body:
A. develops the capacity to conceive
B. develops the start of sexual maturity and the ability to reproduce
C. develops the egg cells start to develop in ovaries that produce the sex cells
D. All of these
35. Which of these is the correct function of the scrotum?
A. holds the testis C. carries sperm and urine out of the body
B. provides liquid in which sperm can swim D. produces sperm cells
36. Which of these is the role of the prostate gland in the male reproductive system?
A. It secretes fluid that nourishes and protects sperm.
B. It carries sperm and urine out of the body
C. It produces the sperm cells
D. It carries sperm from testes to urethra
37. The production of sperms and release of semen are regulated by hormones or special chemicals coming from the
following except the:
A. testis B. brain C. pituitary gland D. hypothalamus
38. The __________ produce hormones that control the growth and release of eggs from the ovaries.
A. endometria B. follicles C. fimbriae D. special chemicals
39. On the 14th day of the menstrual cycle, the pituitary gland secretes a hormone that causes the ovary to release the
matured egg cell. This phase is known as the:
A. menstrual phase B. ovulation phase C. luteal phase D. follicular phase
40. If a sperm cell does not impregnate the egg cell within that time of the luteal phase:
A. menstrual cycle stops for 9 months C. the egg cell disintegrates
B. ovary gives off estrogen D. the egg moves through the oviduct towards the uterus
41. How long does it take the egg cell to reach maturity?
A. 16 days B. 9 days C. 21 days D. 13 days
42. In her lifetime, the female’s monthly cycle continues for about:
A. 40 years B. 30 years C. 55 years D. 25 years
43. Which of the following ovarian hormones is involved in a positive feedback loop with the hypothalamus and the
anterior pituitary?
A. progesterone C. gonadotropin releasing hormone
B. luteinizing hormone D. estrogen
44. Which of the following hormones is released by the anterior pituitary as a part of that positive feedback loop
between
it and the ovary?
A. Progesterone C. gonadotropin releasing hormone
B. luteinizing hormone D. estrogen
45. Which of the following hormones is released by the corpus luteum after ovulation and causes a negative feedback
loop with the hypothalamus and the anterior pituitary?
A. Progesterone C. gonadotropin releasing hormone
B. luteinizing hormone D. estrogen
 46. A positive feedback loop causes a self-amplifying cycle where a physiological change leads to even greater change
in
the same direction.
A. True B. False
47. A negative feedback loop is a process in which the body senses a change, and activates mechanisms to reverse that
change.
A. True B. False
48. A ___________________ is the process through which the level of one substance influences the level of another
substance.
A. Compulsive response C. defense mechanism
B. Self-retaliation D. feedback mechanism
49. Which hormone inhibits the release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone from the hypothalamus and luteinizing
hormone from the anterior pituitary?
A. Estrogen C. Follicle-stimulating hormone
B. Progesterone D. Prolactin
50. Negative feedback occurs when the rate of the process:
A. increases as the concentration of the product increases
B. decreases as the concentration of the product increases
C. fluctuates with the increase or decrease of the product
D. is not affected by the increase or decrease of the concentration of the product
51. To achieve homeostasis, the nervous and the endocrine systems maintain a normal range of the following variables
except:
A. Body temperature C. Amount of water in the body
B. Blood calcium level D. Blood sugar level
52. When the brain does not produce enough of the neurotransmitter dopamine that helps relay impulses from nerve to
nerve, it can cause:
A. Parkinson’s Disease C. Horner's Syndrome
B. Alzheimer’s Disease D. Down Syndrome
53. Listed below are the component molecules that compose the DNA molecules except:
A. Sugar ribose C. Phosphate group
B. Sugar deoxyribose D. Bases adenine, thymine, cytosine and guanine
54. ____________ are the monomers (building blocks) of nucleic acids and are made up of a
5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base.
A. amino acids B. gene codes C. nucleotides D. nucleolus
55. Which of these are the component molecules that compose the RNA molecules?
A. amino acid B. nucleic acid C. muriatic acid D. chloric acid
57. Which statement is incorrect about the difference between the molecular structure of DNA and RNA?
A. RNA is single stranded, whereas DNA is double stranded – a helix
B. The sugar in RNA is ribose, whereas in DNA is deoxyribose
C. Both RNA and DNA contain four nitrogenous bases but instead of thymine, RNA contains a similar base
called uracil (U)
D. Uracil pairs with guanine (G)
58. The major types of RNA are:
I. rRNA II. cRNA III. tRNA IV. mRNA
A. I, II and IV only B. I, III and IV only C. II, III and IV only D. I, II and III only
59. Across the strands of the helix of one of the four bases of DNA, which of the following describes the characteristics
Of nucleotides?
A. Adenine always pairs with Thymine C. Guanine always pairs with Adenine
B. Guanine always pairs with Uracil D. Uracil always pairs with Thymine
60. Watson and Crick determined that 'A' nucleotides always join with 'T' nucleotides and 'G's always join with 'C's.
These are called __________________.
A. Nucleotide base pairs C. Contemporary nitrogenous base pairs
B. Complementary base pairs D. Ribosomal pentose base pairs
61. At what point is deoxyribonucleic acid being copied?
A. DNA is copied during the interphase. C. DNA is copied during meiosis
B. DNA is copied during mitosis and meiosis. D. DNA is copied during prophase
62. What mechanism is provided by DNA to make copies of the molecule?
A. The characteristic of DNA C. The structure of DNA
B. The nucleic acid in DNA D. The amino acid in DNA
 63. It is the process of making copies of DNA.
A. Duplication B. Replication C. Facsimile D. Cloning
64. DNA built into the nucleus of a gamete may also be changed due to a random event called ________, which may
alter or even prevent the normal activity of a gene inside cells.
A. mutation B. deviation C. malformation D. deformation
65. Mutations in these genes can cause this genetic disease which is a common inherited sex-linked disorder that affects
a person's ability to see or recognize certain colors.
A. cystic fibrosis B. sickle cell anemia C. Tay-Sachs disease D. color-blindness
66. The shape of DNA is a double helix and is made up of nucleotides containing the following except:
A. sugars C. ribosomal protein
B. phosphate groups D. nitrogenous bases
67. The following are the events which take place while DNA copies itself except:
A. The two chains of nucleotides in a DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds between the bases.
B. An enzyme called helicase breaks the bond between nitrogenous bases. The two strands of DNA split.
C. The bases attach to each strand then pair up with the free nucleotides found in the cytoplasm.
D. The complimentary nucleotides are added to each strand by DNA polymerase to form new strands. Two DNA
molecules, each with a parent strand and each with a new strand are formed.
68. The statement that describes the role played by the amino acid in protein synthesis is:
A. It provides RNA with the instructions for making the proteins.
B. Its molecules or workers for protein synthesis get the instructions from the DNA on how the protein
should be assembled in the nucleus.
C. It brings parts or components needed for protein synthesis in the nucleus.
D. It holds tightly into the mRNA using its information to assemble the proteins in correct order.
69. What is added to the strand when a DNA molecule unzips to form two strands?
A. Ribosomal proteins C. Hydrogen bonds
B. Complementary bases D. Amino acids
70. Before a cell can divide by mitosis or meiosis, it must first make a copy of its chromosomes. The DNA in the
chromosomes are then copied in a process called:
A. duplication B. imitation C. extraction D. replication
71. The gene in the DNA is usually coded by a particular sequence of base triplet called:
A. base pairs B. nitrogenous bases C. anti-codons D. codons
72. How many types of RNA are involved in building proteins?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
73. ___________ is a type of RNA that supplies amino acids to the ribosomes to be assembled as protein.
A. cRNA B. mRNA C. tRNA D. rRNA
74. The order of nucleotides in DNA determines the order of nucleotides in messenger RNA in a process called:
A. Duplication B. Replication C. Transcription D. Translation
75. The statement that explains how the structure of DNA enables the molecule to be easily transcribed is:
A. it can be unzipped by RNA polymerase and make corresponding RNA that may be translated proteins required
by the cell.
B. the genetic code found in the DNA sequence is “copied” and transcribed into RNA sequence.
C. the double-stranded DNA makes copies of itself, each strand, as it separates, synthesizing complementary
strand.
D. All of these
76. If a codon is A-G-C, its anticodon is:
A. T-C-G B. U-C-G C. T-G-C D. U-G-C
77. Why is specific base pairing essential to the processes of transcription and translation?
I. Because the complementary of the base pairing is essential in transcription and translation.
II. Because the final products coded by the DNA sequences are regulatory sequences that do not code for RNA or
proteins but are important in gene expression.
III. Protein synthesis is the basis of expression of hereditary characteristics in both structure and form.
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III
The following is the base sequence on one strand of a DNA molecule: ACGGAATCAGGTCA
78. If transcribed into an mRNA, what would be the resulting strand?
A. TGCCTTAGTCCAGT C. UGCCUUAGUCCAGU
B. ACGGAAUCAGGUCA D. GGAATGCACCAGCA
79. During translation, the tRNA sequence of nucleotides arranged linearly is ____________.
A. UCGGUUACUGGACU C. ACGGAATCAGGTCA
B. ACGGAAUCAGGUCA D. TGCCTTACTGGACT
 80. How many codons does arginine have?
A. 4 B. 5 C. 3 A. 2
81. The codon GAU is for __________.
A. Aspartic acid C. Alanine
B. Glycine D. Glutamine
82. In a stop codon, if the third base is G, the first and the second bases are:
A. U and G B. A and U C. G and U D. U and A

83. Listed below are common mistakes that occur during DNA replication which may cause changes in the kind,
sequence
and number of amino acids of proteins synthesized by the cells except:
A. converting the information in mRNA into a sequence of amino acids
B. any change in the sequence of nitrogenous bases in the DNA
C. any mistake in the transcription of genetic information from DNA to RNA
D. pairing of the codon and anticodon
84. What do you call the factors that may induce mutation?
A. antigens B. androgens C. mutagens D. carcinogens
85. The type of cells where mutations can occur are:
I. stem cells II. body cells III. gametes IV. reproductive cells
A. I and II only B. II and III only C. III and IV only D. I, II, III and IV
86. The statement that correctly describes the effect of mutations to the reproductive cells of an organism is:
A. it causes rearrangement within the gene that may occur during the cell cycle and meiosis.
B. a part of the gene breaks off or rejoins incorrectly
C. the order of some of the genetic material is reversed or switched
D. it changes the sequence of nucleotides within the gene in a sperm or an egg cell
87. If mutation to a fertilized sex cells is severe:
A. incorrect amino acid is inserted in a growing protein chain during the process of meiosis
B. the resulting protein may be non-functional, and the embryo may not develop
C. the mutated cells will lose oxygen and the affected person may die
D. a single base is deleted from a DNA strand
88. The two types of mutations that can occur in gamete cells are chromosomal mutation and ______.
A. gene mutation C. amino acid mutation
B. body cell mutation D. protein mutation
89. Which explains why most mutations are harmful?
A. Mutations in a body cell are known to cause cancer.
B. Mutations in a body cell affect the rate of DNA replication.
C. Mutations in a body cell are known to cause deletion of nitrogenous bases.
D. Mutations in a body cell delay the processes of mitosis and meiosis.
91. Mutation in sex cells are heritable because:
A. of the fertilization that occurs after a woman’s ovulation
B. the DNA sequence in a defective gene usually carries the inherited traits
C. they may be passed from one generation to the next if present in gametes
B. All of these
92. Which of the following is not a type of chromosome mutation?
A. translocation B. duplication C. reversion D. deletion
93.When can inversion chromosomal mutation occur?
A. when a portion of the chromosome is copied and replicated, so that there is extra information
B. when a piece of one chromosome breaks off and is transferred to a new location on another chromosome
C. when parts of chromosomes are broken off and lost during mitosis or meiosis
D. when the order of some of the genetic material is reversed or switched
94. Which condition results to loss of chromosome material due to chromosomal aberrations?
A. Down’s Syndrome B. Klinefelter’s Syndrome C. Turner’s Syndrome D. Cri-du-chat Syndrome
95. Which of the following statements is correct about duplication?
A. A piece of chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome.
B. It refers to the loss of segment of DNA or chromosome.
C. When a portion of the chromosome is copied and replicated.
D. When a piece of chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome.
96. What base in mRNA can only join with the adenine base of RNA?
A. Thymine B. Uracil C. Cytosine D. Guanine
97. __________ is a set of three nitrogenous bases in mRNA which codes for a specific amino acid.
 A. Codon B. Termination codon C. Nucleotide D. Genetic code
98. The process of converting the information in messenger RNA into a sequence of amino acids that make a protein is
known as __. A. Complementary base pairing C. translation B. replication D. protein synthesis
99. ___are made up of DNA which act as instructions to make molecules called proteins and are the basic physical and
functional unit of heredity. A. Nucleic acids B. Genes C. Peptides D. Polymers
100. It is a set of three-letter combinations of nucleotides called codons, each of which corresponds to a specific amino
acid or stop signal.
A. Genetic code C. Mechanism of protein synthesis
B. Polypeptide chain D. Termination codon