Test Series 2 PDF

Test Pattern
English (1001CMD303121067) )1//1CMD3/3121/67)

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET(UG)
MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2021 - 2022) 29-06-2022
PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE PHASE - ALL ENTHUSIAST , LEADER-(I-X),ACHIEVER-(I-VII),
ACHIEVER PLUS-I,ALPHA ACHIEVER-I,SPARK-I
This Booklet contains 32 pages.

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.
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2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of
35 questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be
considered as answer.
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2022

English / 29062022 Page 1/32
ALLEN
SUBJECT : BOTANY
Topic : FULL SYLLABUS.
SECTION-A 8. Lysosome is:
Attempt All 35 questions (1) Single membrane bound cell organelle
1. Which of the following provide index to plants (2) Double membrane bound cell organelle
species found in particular area ?
(3) Membrane less cell organelle
(1) Manual (2) Monograph
(4) Inclusion body
(3) Flora (4) Catalogue
9.
2. Function of heterocyst :-
(1) Respiration (2) Photosynthesis
(3) Cell wall formation (4) Nitrogen fixation
3. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in
having a different :-
(1) cell membrane (2) cell wall
Function of cell organelle shown in above
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) mitochondria mentioned diagram is :-
4. The spores of slime moulds are dispersed by :- (1) Digestion
(1) Air current (2) water current (2) Synthesis of glycoprotein and glycolipid
(3) Humans (4) Birds (3) ATP production
5. Which of the following is also called Red wood tree ? (4) Protein synthesis
(1) Pinus (2) Cycas (3) Sequoia (4) Cedrus 10. RER is frequently observed in the cells actively
6. Branched stem is found in involved in protein synthesis and secretion.
(1) Cycas and Pinus (2) Cycas and Cedrus They are extensive and continuous with the
(3) Pinus and Cedrus (4) Cycas only outer membrane of the _________ .
7. How many of the following are the examples (1) Mitochondria
of rhodophyceae
(2) Chloroplast
Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Chara, Gracilaria,
Gelidium (3) Nucleus
(1) Six (2) Four (3) Five (4) Three (4) Chromoplast
ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE PHASE - ALL ENTHUSIAST, LEADER-(I-X), ACHIEVER-(I-VII),
ACHIEVER PLUS-I, ALPHA ACHIEVER-I, SPARK-I 1001CMD303121067
Page 2/32 Space for Rough Work English / 29062022

ALLEN
11. Statement-A :- Interkinesis is generally short 15. During Calvin cycle___and___molecules of ATP
lived.
are consumed in reduction and regeneration steps
Statement-B :- Preparations of meiosis-II occur respectively for synthesis of glucose.
during interkinesis. (1) 6 and 6 (2) 12 and 6
(1) A-Correct, B-Incorrect (3) 12 and 12 (4) 6 and 12
(2) A-Incorrect, B-Correct 16. TCA cycle starts with the :
(3) A-Correct, B-Correct (1) Condensation of acetyl group with OAA
(4) A-Incorrect, B-Incorrect (2) Isomerisation of citrate to isocitrate
12. During meiosis-II how many times of nucleus (3) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvic Acid
division, DNA replication and division of
centromere take place respectively. (4) Formation of OAA from malic acid
(1) Two, One, One 17. The site of perception of light induction for
flowering is ________.
(2) One, Two, One
(1) Roots (2) Flowers
(3) Two, Zero, One
(3) Buds (4) Leaves
(4) One, Zero, One
18. How many of given statements are correct :-
13. When a researcher made a cut on small (a) Downhill journey of protons releases
herbaceous plant in the garden, he found that a enough energy that activates ATPase enzyme.
liquid comes out from the cut part, when this (b) F0 particle is a trans membrane protein that
liquid was analysed, it was found that, it contains. carries out facilitated diffusion of protons.
(1) Pure water only (c) Only protons are required for reductions
(2) Phloem sap only of NADP+ to NADPH + H+.
(d) During light reaction, protons decrease in

(3) Water with inorganic salt only stroma while it increases in lumen .
(4) Water with inorganic and organic materials (1) One (2) Two
14. Minerals are not completely absorbed passively (3) Three (4) Four
because ?
19. In grass embryo, epicotyl has a shoot apex and
(1) Concentration of minerals are higher in soil a few leaf primodia which are covered by
(2) Minerals are neutral particles hollow foliar structure, which is called :–
(3) Minerals in soil present in charged form (1) Scutellum (2) Epiblast
(4) Membrane is impermeable for all these minerals (3) Coleorrhiza (4) Coleoptile
English / 29062022 Space for Rough Work Page 3/32

ALLEN
20. Figure (A) and (B) show female reproductive organs of 23. Which of the following is mainly source
Papaver and Michelia, respectively, which are : of medicine ?
(1) Tulip (2) Yucca (3) Aloe (4) Lily
24. The standard petal of papilionaceous corolla
is called:
(1) Pappus (2) Vaxillum
(3) Keel (4) Wing
25. Grittiness in pear fruit and flexibility in dicot
(1) (A)–Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium
stem due to presence of respectively :-
(B)–Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium (1) Sclereids and collenchyma
(2) (A)–Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium
(2) Collenchyma and parenchyma
(B)–Multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium (3) Parenchyma and sclerenchyma
(3) Both (A) and (B) are multicarpellary (4) Fibres and parenchyma
syncarpous gynoecium. 26. During the study of inheritance of one gene
(4) Both (A) and (B) are monocarpellary
mendel observed that F1 progeny plants were :
gynoecium.
(1) Resesembles blended form of parents
21. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(2) Resembles both of the parent
(1) The egg apparatus consists of
(3) Resembles either one of the parents
two synergids and one egg cell.
(4) Producing 1/4th of recessive parental trait
(2) Filiform apparatus, play an important role
in guiding the pollen tube into entry in embryosac 27. A true-breeding line is one that, having
undergone :
(3) Three cells which are present at the
chalazal end are called antipodals cells. (1) Continuous self pollination and shows
stable trait inheritance
(4) Polar nuclei are situated above the egg
apparatus in central cell (2) Continuous cross pollination and shows
The perianth in members of liliaceae have stable trait inheritance
22.
six tepals, which are arranged in two whorls. In (3) Continuous self pollination and shows
each whorl of tepals aestivation is........ unstable trait inheritance
(1) Valvate (2) Twisted (4) Continuous cross pollination and shows
(3) Imbricate (4) Vexillary unstable trait inheritance

ALLEN
28. Fill in the blanks :-
33. Which of the following is the correct sequence
Regulation of lac operon by _____ is referred of hydrosere ?
to as negative regulation (1) Phytoplanktons → Rooted submerged
(1) Lactose (2) Glucose plants → Rooted floating plants → Free
(3) Repressor (4) Inducer floating plants → Reed swamp → Marsh
29. In paddy field, which microbe is used as bio fertilizer - Meadow → Scrub → Trees
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis (2) Phytoplanktons → Rooted submerged
(2) Streptococci plants → Free floating plants → Rooted
(3) Saccharomyces floating plant → Reed swamp → Marsh
Meadow → Scrub → Trees
(4) Cyanobacteria
30. Find the correct match :- (3) Trees → Rooted submerged plants →
Rooted floating plants → Free floating
(1) Vitamin A → Bathua plants → Marsh meadow → Reed swamp
(2) Vitamin C → Spinach → Scrub → Phytoplanktons
(3) Iron & Calcium → Bathua (4) Marsh meadow → Rooted submerged
(4) Protein → Carrot plants → Free floating plants → Rooted
floating plants → Reed swamp → Scrub
31. Which of the following statement is correct ? → Trees → Phytoplanktons
(1) Solar radiation before entering 34. For which of the following population, the
the atmosphere carries energy at a constant population size measured indirectly without
rate i.e. 2 cal cm–2 min–1 known as the
Albedo value. actually counting them or seeing them ?
(2) In solar radiation wavelength of light is (1) Fishes (2) Tigers
400–700 nm, it called as photosynthetically (3) Siberian cranes (4) All of the above
active radiation (PAR). 35. Match the following columns :
(3) The ability of a surface to reflect the Column-I Column-II
incoming radiation is called solar constant A More amphibian diversity (i) Eastern Ghats
(4) Plants capture only 1–5% of the PAR. B Less amphibian diversity (ii) Western Ghats
32. Waste water from industries often contains :- C Genetically different strain of rice (iii) more than 1000
Genetically different strain of more than
(1) Undesirable pathogenic micro-organisms. D
mango
(iv)
50000
(2) Heavy metals only
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) Toxic susbstances and variety of organic
(2) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
compounds.
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) Toxic substances only. (4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

ALLEN
SECTION-B 38. By inducing dormancy, ABA helps seeds to-
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (1) Successfully germinate during
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of unfavourable conditions
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts (2) Withstand desiccation and other adverse
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted conditions for growth
questions will be considered for marking.
(3) Increase secretion of pectinases
36. Find out the correct statements from (4) Consume their food reserves rapidly
the following :
39. Column - I Column - II Column - III
(i) Chlamydomonas and Spirogyra were placed
separately in two-kingdom classification system.
Positive
(ii) Whittaker's classification is phylogenetic

Hypotonic
A I P turgor
(iii) R.H. Whittaker placed unicellular eukaryotic Solution

pressure
organisms in kingdom Protista
(iv) Carl Woese classified organisms into

four domains. Negative
Hypertonic
(1) ii and iii only (2) i and iv only B II Q turgor
Solution
Pressure
(3) iii only (4) ii and iv only
37. Read the following statements ?
(a) The stage between the two mitotic divisions

Turgor
is called interkinesis
Isotonic
C III R Pressure
(b) Interkinesis is followed by prophase-I

Solution
(c) Meiosis increases the genetic variability in is zero
the population of organisms from one generation
to the next

(d) Meiosis-II is similar to mitosis

Match the column - I , II & III and choose the
Choose the option which have all the correct correct option :
statement :
(1) A - I - Q, B - III - P, C - II - R
(1) a,b,c
(2) c and d (2) A - II - P, B - III - Q, C - I - R
(3) b,c,d (3) A - II - Q, B - III - R, C - I - P
(4) a,c,d (4) A - I - Q, B - II - R, C - III - P

ALLEN
40. Which of the following statements are correct ?
42. Match column I with column II and select
(a) Polymorphism can range from single correct match ?
nucleotide change to very large scale changes.
Column I Column II
(b) DNA fingerprinting cannot be used
A Honey bee I XX female - XY male
in determining population and genetic diversities.
(c) Size of VNTR varies from 0.1 to 20kb.

Grass-
B II ZW female - ZZ male
(d) DNA polymorphism play very important role hopper
in evolution & speciation.
Haploid & diploid
C Birds III
(e) Satellite DNA codes for many proteins. mechanism
(1) a, b and d D Human IV XX-female - XO male
(2) a, c and e (1) A - I, B - II, C - III, D - IV
(3) a, c and d (2) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(4) a, d and e (3) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
41. Match the name of organisms given (4) A - I, B - III, C - II, D - IV
under Column-I with their genome size given 43. In dicotylendonae root, conjunctive
under Column-II. Choose the correct parenchymatous cells are present :-
combination from the options given :- (1) Between xylem and phloem patches
Column-I Column-II (2) Just below each xylem strand only
(A) Homo sapiens (i) 4.6 × 106bp (3) Between endodermis and pericycle
(4) Between endodermis and periderm
(B) Escherichia coli (ii) 3.3 × 109 bp
44. Which one of the following microbes forms
(C) Bacteriophage ϕ × 174 (iii) 48502 bp
symbiotic association with the roots of plants
(D) Bacteriophage lambda (iv) 5386 Nucleotides and helps them in their nutrition ?
(1) A – (i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) (1) Glomus
(2) A – (ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv) (2) Trichoderma
(3) A – (i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii) (3) Azotobacter
(4) A – (ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) (4) Aspergillus

ALLEN
45. Which of the following are not disease resistant 49. Match the following columns :-
varieties :- Column-I
Column-II
(Steps of
(1) Pusa subhra decomposition)
(Characteristic)
(2) Pusa sawani Inorganic matter seep into

(A) Fragmentation (1)
soil horizon
(3) Pusa komal
Release of inorganic
(4) Pusa sadabahar (B) Humification (2) nutrients due to the action
of microbes
46. Which part of the Ophrys flower bears an
Breakdown of detritus
uncanny resemblance to the female of the bee (C) Leaching (3)
into smaller particles
in size, colour and markings ? Nutrient rich dark
(D) Mineraliztion (4) coloured amorphous
(1) Sepal
substance is formed
(2) Petal
(3) Stamen A B C D
(4) Carpel (1) 4 3 1 2
47. In general when we move away from the (2) 3 4 1 2
equator towards the pole, species (3) 2 3 4 1
diversity___________ :
(4) 3 1 4 2
(1) Increases
50. Which statements are not correct ?
(2) Decreases
(a) Ratio of H2SO4 & HNO3 in acid rain is 7 : 3
(3) Does not show any change

(b) PAN + O3 + Nitrogen oxides are formed in
(4) Depends upon the season
photochemical smog.
48. High concentration of DDT disturbs _____ (c) Electrostatic precipitator can remove gases
metabolism in birds, which causes ______ of like sulphur oxide
egg shell
(d) Without green house effect the average
(1) calcium, thickening temperature at surface of earth would have
(2) phosphate, thinning been 15°C
(3) calcium, thinning (1) c & d (2) Only d
(4) phosphate, thickening (3) b & c (4) a & b

ALLEN
SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A 55. The diagram given below is type of tissue
Attempt All 35 questions present in :-
51. Which of the following character is present
only in Aschelminthes ?
(1) True coelom
(2) Pseudocoelom
(3) Internal fertilization
(4) Extra & intracellular digestion
(1) Adipose tissue
52. In which of the following subphylum,
notochord is present only in larval tail? (2) Areolar tissue
(1) Urochordata (2) Hemichordata (3) Dense irregular connective tissue
(3) Cephalochordata (4) All of the above (4) Dense regular connective tissue
56. The kind of epithelium which forms the inner
53. Pneumatic bones are found in:
walls of blood vessels :-
(1) Birds (2) Reptiles
(3) Mammals (4) Amphibians (1) Cuboidal
54. In given fig identify A, B, C, D respectively (2) Columnar
(3) Ciliated columnar
(4) Squamous epithelium
57. Exoskeleton of cockroach has hardened plates
called sclerites [tergites ____A____ & sternites
___B___]. A and B are respectively.
(1) Postanal tail, gill slits, nervecord, notochords (1) Ventrally & dorsally
(2) Postanal tail, gill slits, notochord, nerve cord (2) Dorsally & laterally
(3) Gill slits, post anal tail, notochord, nerve cord (3) Dorsally & ventrally
(4) Gill slits, nerve cord, post anal tail, notochords (4) ventrally & laterally

ALLEN
58. The abnormal frequency of bowel movement 63. Blood group antigens are found :-
and increased liquidity of fecal discharge (1) In plasma
(1) Constipation (2) Vomiting (2) On WBC
(3) Indigestion (4) Diarrhoea (3) On RBC
59. The digestive wastes, solidifiy into ___A___ in (4) On Platelets
the rectum initiate a ___B___ causing an urge
or desire for it's removal. Identify A and B 64. Papillary muscles are found in :
(1) A - Chyme, B - Neural reflex (1) Ventricles of brain
(2) A - Bolus, B - Neural reflex (2) Ventricles of heart
(3) A - Coherent faeces, B - Neural reflex (3) Lumen of alimentary canal
(4) A - Neural reflex, B - Coherent faeces (4) Atrium of heart
60. Partial pressure of CO2 in alveolar air & 65. Cardiac activity of heart is controlled by which
Oxygenated blood respectively is :- part of brain -
(1) 45 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg (1) Cerebral cortex
(2) 40 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg (2) Hypothalamus
(3) 40 mm Hg, 45 mm Hg (3) Medulla oblongata
(4) 45 mm Hg, 45 mm Hg (4) Mid brain
61. The gradient in counter current mechanism is 66. In front of lens, the aperture surrounded by the
caused by - iris is called the :
(1) NaCl only (1) Pupil
(2) Urea only (2) Opsin
(3) Sclera
(3) either NaCl or urea
(4) Choroid
(4) Both NaCl & urea
67. The waves in the lymphs of internal ear induce
62. Neutrophils, Basophils, Acidophils, Monocytes a ripple in the :
Lymphocyte, Eosinophils, Erythrocyte
(1) Basilar membrane

How many cells given above are granulocyte
WBC (2) Tectorial membrane
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) Ear ossicles
(3) 2 (4) 5 (4) Ear drum

ALLEN
68. Dark bands contain myosin as well as actin 73. A contraceptive drug–saheli was developed by
both and are also called - CDRI is located in:
(1) A - Bands or Isotropic bands (1) Chennai
(2) I-Band or Isotropic bands (2) Delhi
(3) A-Band or Anisotropic bands (3) Lucknow
(4) I-Band or anisotropic bands (4) Pune

74. Upto how many weeks of pregnancy MTPs are
69. Pancreas is a :-
considered relatively safe:
(1) Endocrine gland
(1) 12 weeks
(2) Composite gland
(3) Exocrine gland (2) 24 weeks
(4) None of these (3) 18 weeks
70. Which hormone increase heart beat & cause (4) 28 weeks
pupillary dilation -
75. Bacteria like streptococcus pneumonie and
(1) Insulin Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for :
(2) Thymosin (1) Typhoid
(3) Adrenaline
(2) Pneumonia
(4) Aldosterone
(3) Filariasis
71. Which of the following is secondary messenger
generated by membrane bound receptor? (4) Malaria
(1) IP3 (2) Ca+ + 76. Memory based acquired immunity evolved in
(3) Cyclic AMP (4) All of these ........... It is based on the ability to differentiate
72. Which follicle ruptures to release secondary foreign organisms from self cells :-
oocyte ? (1) Lower vertebrates
(1) Secondary follicle
(2) Invertebrates
(2) Primary follicle
(3) Higher vertebrates
(3) Graffian follicle
(4) Tertiary follicle (4) Plants

ALLEN
77. Which of the following substance is given to the 81. In gene gun method DNA coated with
cancer patients to activate their immune system ? microparticle of :-
(1) α- interferons (1) Tungsten (2) Iron
(2) Interleukins (3) Lead (4) Sulphur
(3) Histamines 82. Fill in the blanks :-
(4) Morphines ______, a pathogen of several____ plants is able

to deliver a piece of DNA known as T-DNA.
78. Find incorrect statements about Entamoeba
histolytica :-
(1) Agrobacterium, Monocot
(A) Parasite of small intestine
(2) Retrovirus, Dicot
(B) Spreads through food and water
(3) Agrobacterium tumifaciens, Dicot
(C) House flies acts as mechanical carriers
(D) It is incurable disease (4) E.coli, Dicot

(1) A, B 83. Maturation of proinsulin into insulin
takes place by -
(2) B, C
(1) Addition of C peptide
(3) C, D
(2) Modification of A peptide
(4) A, D
(3) Removal of C peptide
79. Discovered fire, probably ate meat, 900 cc
(4) Removal of B peptide
cranial capacity, prognathous jaws.
84. Which of the following is not a nucleotide ?

Above features are true for :-
(1) ATP (2) GTP
(1) Homo habilis
(3) Adenosine (4) Uridylic acid
(2) Handy man
85. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(3) Homo erectus
(1) Amphibians can live in marine as well as
(4) Neanderthal man terrestrial habitats.
80. Single step large mutations are known as - (2) In amphibians body is divisible into head,
(1) Saltation neck, trunk and tail.
(2) Variations (3) Amphibians are cold blooded animals
(3) Charaters (4) Amphibians are oviparous and
(4) Factors development is always direct

ALLEN
SECTION-B 89. How much percent of CO2 and O2 carried in a
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate dissolved state through the plasma respectively -
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of (1) 3% and 20-25% (2) 7% and 3%
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
(3) 20-25% and 3% (4) 77% and 3%
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking. 90. Human Kidneys are situated at the level of :-
86. Which junction help to stop substances from (1) T3 and T12
leaking a cross a tissue ? (2) T12 and L5
(3) T12 and L3
(1) Gap junction
(4) T8 and T12
(2) Adhering junction 91. Cell body collection present outside the spinal
(3) Tight junction cord is known as -
(1) Ventral root ganglia
(4) Interdigitation
(2) Basal Nuclei
87. During hibernation, frog respires through
(3) Dorsal root ganglia
(1) Lung only (4) Hypothalamic Nuclei
(2) Moist skin only 92. The external layer of eye is composed of a
dense connective tissue and is called :
(3) Buccal cavity only
(1) Choroid
(4) External gills and lungs (2) Sclera
88. Mucosa of stomach has gastric glands, which (3) Retina
of the following statement is correct about (4) Conjunctiva
them :- 93. The bones of the limbs along with their girdles
(1) Mucus neck cell secretes saliva constitute the
(2) Parietal cell secrete proenzyme pepsinogen (1) Appendicular skeleton
(3) Oxyntic cell secrete HCl and castle intrinstic (2) Axial skeleton
factor (3) Skull skeleton
(4) Chief cell secrete HCl and pro enzyme (4) Limbs skeleton

ALLEN
94. How many parathyroid gland present in 98. Study the given figure carefully and select the
human body : correct statements regarding this -
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
95. Clitoris lies at :- I. Lane 1, contains undigested DNA
II. Smallest DNA bands are present at B

(1) Lower junction of Labia majora
position and largest DNA bands are present at
(2) Below the urethral opening
A position
(3) Upper junction of labia minora

III. It represent PCR showing amplification of
(4) Inside vagina DNA
96. Milk production in mammary glands is called IV. Lane 2 to 4 contains digested DNA
as A and it occurs under the effect of (1) I and IV only
hormone B . A & B are :- (2) II, III and IV
(1) Milk synthesis, Oxytocin (3) II and III
(2) Lactation, Progesterone & Estrogen (4) I, II and IV
(3) Milking, HCG 99. The choice of the Bt - toxin depends upon -
(4) Lactation, Prolactin (1) Type of the crop
97. (2) Type of target pest

The Neanderthal man with a brain size of
_____A______ lived in east and central Asia (3) Type of donor bacteria
between ____B_____ years back.
(4) 1 and 2 both
Here A and B are - 100. Head of femur is articulated with pelvic girdle
by a joint :-
(1) 900 CC; 1,00,000 - 40,000
(1) Hinge joint
(2) 1400 CC; 1,00,000 - 40,000 (2) Ball and socket joint
(3) 1400 CC; 75000 - 10,000 (3) Immovable joint
(4) 1650 CC; 10,000 (4) Pivot joint

ALLEN
SUBJECT : PHYSICS

SECTION-A 105. A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal
Attempt All 35 questions circle of radius r, under a centripetal force
equal to –(k/r2) where k is constant. The total
101. The internal and external diameters of a hollow
energy of the particle is:-
cylinder are measure with the help of a Vernier
calliper. Their values are 3.87 ± 0.01 cm k k
(1) − (2) −
r 2r
and 4.23 ± 0.01 cm respectively. The thickness
of the wall of the cylinder is :- k 2k
(3) (4)
2r r
(1) 0.36 ± 0.02cm (2) 0.18 ± 0.02cm 106. Two identical mass M moving with velocity u1
(3) 0.36 ± 0.01cm (4) 0.18 ± 0.01cm and u2 collide perfectly inelastically. The loss
102. A body falls freely from the top of a tower. It in energy is :
covers 36% of the total height in the last (1) M 2
(u 2 − u 1 )
second before striking the ground level. The 2
height of the tower is : (2) M 2
(u 1 − u 2 )
2
(1) 50 m (2) 75 m
M 2
(3) 100 m (4) 125 m (3) (u 1 − u 2 )
4
103. A pendulum is suspended from the ceiling of a M 2
(4) (u 2 − u 1 )
train. When the train is moving with accleration 4
'a' the pendulum is inclined at an angle of 30° 107. Two bodies have their moments of inertia I and
with verticle, then value of a is :- 2I respectively about their axis of rotation. If
– g 2g g their kinetic energies of rotation are equal, their
(1) √ 3 g (2) – (3) – (4)
√ 3 √ 3 2 angular momentum will be in the ratio :–
104. A chain of mass (M) and length (L) is held on a – –
(1) 1 : 2 (2) √ 2 : 1 (3) 1 : √2 (4) 2:1
3
smooth table in such a way that its ( ) part
4 108. The kinetic energy needed to project a body of
is on the table then calculate work done to pull mass m from the surface of earth to infinity is
the hanging part of the chain on table :- (R = Radius of earth)
MgL 9
(1) (2) MgL (1) mgR (2) 2mgR
32 32
MgL 9 mgR
(3) (4) MgL (3) (4) – mgR
16 16 2

ALLEN
109. A wooden block is taken to the bottom of a 113. The coefficient of performance of a Carnot
lake of non-viscous water and then released. refrigerator working between 30°C and 0°C is :-
Now it rises up with a (1) 10 (2) 1 (3) 9 (4) 0
(1) Constant acceleration 114. Which of the following is constant in SHM ?
(2) Decreasing acceleration (1) mechanical energy
(3) Constant velocity (2) acceleration
(4) Decreasing velocity (3) potential energy
110. The surface energy of a liquid drop is E. It is (4) kinetic energy
sprayed into 1000 equal droplets. Then,
total surface energy becomes: 115. Two points on a travelling wave having
(1) E (2) 10E (3) 100E (4) 1000E frequency 500 Hz and velocity 300 m/s are 60°
out of phase, then the minimum distance
111. A vessel contains two non-reactive gases neon between the two points is :
(monoatomic) and oxygen (diatomic). The ratio of
their partial pressure is 3 : 2. The ratio of number (1) 0.2 m (2) 0.1 m
of molecules present in the two gases will be :- (3) 0.5 m (4) 0.4 m
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 1 : 2 (4) None 116. In this figure, electric field lines in a certain
112. Figure show the P-V diagram for an ideal gas region are shown. The figure suggests that
undergoing a change of state from A to B. four
different path I,II,III and IV as shown in figure
may lead to same change in state then
(1) Ex = Ey = Ez
(2) Ex < Ey < Ez
(3) Ex > Ey > Ez
(1) Change in internal energy is same in III & (4) Ex = Ez < Ey

IV but not in I & II 117. The capacitance of a spherical condenser is
(2) Change in internal energy is same in all 1μF. If the spacing between the two spheres is
the four cases 1 mm, then the radius of the outer sphere is :
(3) Heat supplied is maximum in case III (1) 30 cm (2) 6 m
(4) Work done by the gas is maximum in case I (3) 5 cm (4) 3 m

ALLEN
118. A metal sphere (of radius R) is charged untill it 121. The current in the windings of a toroid is 2.0A.
gains 1 coulomb. Determine energy stored in There are 400 turns and the mean
the capacitor :– circumferential length is 40cm. If the inside
1 magnetic field is 1.0T, the relative permeability
(1) (8π∈0R) (2) 8π∈ 0 R is near to
1
(3) 4π∈0R (4) 4π∈ 0 R (1) 100 (2) 200
119. The difference in the variation of resistance (3) 300 (4) 400
with temperature in a metal and a 122. For which magnetic material magnetic
semiconductor arises essentially due to the 1
susceptibility is 𝛘 ∝ (T-absolute temperature)
T
difference in the :-
(1) Diamagnetic
(1) crystal structure
(2) Paramagnetic
(2) variation of the number of charge carriers
with temperature (3) Ferromagnetic
(3) type of bonding (4) Non magnetic
(4) variation of scattering mechanism with 123. A circular coil of diameter 21 cm is placed in a
temperature magnetic field of induction 10–4 T. The
magnitude of flux linked with coil when the plane
120. The internal resistance of the cell is negligible. of coil makes an angle 30° with the field is :-
On closing the key K :-
(1) 1.44 × 10–6 Wb (2) 1.732 × 10–6 Wb
(3) 3.1 × 10–6 Wb (4) 4.2 × 10–6 Wb
124. A coil having an area A0 is placed in a
magnetic field with plane perpendicular to
magnetic field which changes from B0 to
4B0 in a time interval t. The average emf
(1) Power drawn from the cell decreases induced in the coil will be
3A0 B 0 4A0 B 0
(2) Current through the R increase (1) (2)
t t
(3) Current through the R decreases 3B 0 4B 0
(3) (4)
(4) Current drawn from the cell increases A0 t A0 t

ALLEN
125. The vector diagram of current and voltage for a 128. A concave mirror of focal length ƒ produces an
circuit is as shown. The components of the image n times the size of the object. If the
image is real, then the distance of the object
circuit will be from the mirror is :
(1) (n – 1)ƒ (2) [(n – 1)/n]ƒ
(3) [(n + 1)/n]ƒ (4) (n + 1)ƒ
129. The equations of two interfering waves are
y1 = b cos ωt and y2 = b cos (ωt + ϕ)
respectively. Destructive interference will
(1) LCR take place at the point of observation for the
(2) LR following value of ϕ.
(3) LCR or LR (1) 0° (2) 360° (3) 180° (4) 720°
(4) None of these 130. The first diffraction minimum due to a single
126. An electric lamp which runs at 80 V DC slit diffraction is seen at θ = 30° for a light of
wavelength 5000 A° falling perpendicularly on
consumes 10 A current. The lamp is connected the slit. The width of the slit is :-
to 100 V - 50 Hz ac source compute the (1) 5 × 10–5 cm (2) 2.5 × 10–5 cm
inductance of the choke required to keep same (3) 1.25 × 10–5 cm (4) 10 × 10–5 cm
current through lamp. 131. The stopping potential as a function of
(1) 0.2 H frequency of incident radiation is plotted for
two different surfaces A and B. The graphs
(2) 2 show that the work function of A is
(3) 0.02 H
(4) 20 H
127. Which of the following is not the application of
infra-red waves:
(1) Thermal imaging camera
(1) Greater than that of B
(2) Astronomy
(2) Smaller than that of B
(3) Remote signals (3) Same as that of B
(4) Sterlising lamps (4) No comparison can be done from given graphs

ALLEN
132. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron at 27°C 135. During regulation action of a Zener diode
is λ. What will be its wavelength at 927°C :- correct statement is :-
(1) λ/2 (a) the current and voltage across the Zener
(2) λ/3 remains fixed.
(3) λ/4 (b) the current through the series resistance

(4) λ/9 (RS) changes.
133. The mass defect for the nucleus of helium is (c) the Zener resistance is constant.
0.0303 a.m.u. What is the binding energy (d) the resistance offered by the Zener diode
energy per nucleon for helium in MeV :- changes.
(1) 28 (1) a and c (2) a and d
(2) 7 (3) b and c (4) b and d
(3) 4 SECTION-B
(4) 1 This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
134. The circuit shown in the figure contains three can choose to attempt any 10 question out of
diodes each with forward resistance of 50 ohms these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
and with infinite backward resistance. If the more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
battery voltage is 6 V, the current through the questions will be considered for marking.
100 ohm resistance is :- A4 B 1 3
/
136. If Z = and ΔA, ΔB, ΔC, and ΔD are

CD 3 2
/
the absolute errors in A, B, C and D

respectively, The maximum relative error in Z
is :-
ΔZ ΔA 1 ΔB ΔC 3 ΔD
(1) = 4 + + +
Z A 3 B C 2 D
(1) 0 (2) = 4 + − −
Z A 3 B C 2 D
(2) 36 mA ΔZ ΔA 1 ΔB ΔC 3 ΔD
(3) = 4 + + −
Z A 3 B C 2 D
(3) 43 mA
(4) 50 mA (4) = 4 + − +
Z A 3 B C 2 D

ALLEN
137. 2 km wide river flowing at rate of 5 km/hr. A 141. When temperature is increased from 0°C to
man can swim in still water with 10 km/hr. If
273°C, in what ratio of final to initial the
he want to cross the river along shortest path
then time elapsed in swimming will be :- average kinetic energy of molecules change ?
– 2 (1) 1
2√3
(1) hr (2) – hr
5 5√3 (2) 3
3√–2 5√–2
(3) hr (4) hr (3) 4
5 3
138. A block of mass m is kept on the floor of a freely (4) 2
falling lift. During the free fall of lift the block is 142. During isothermal, isobaric and adiabatic
pulled horizontally with a force of 2N μs = 0.1. processes, work done for same change in
The frictional force on the block will be :-
volume will be maximum for :-
(1) Zero (2) 2 N (3) 1 N (4) 10 N
139. A uniform solid sphere of mass 200 gm rolls
without slipping on a plane surface so that its
centre moves at a speed of 2.00 cm/sec. Its
kinetic energy is :-
(1) 5.6 × 10–5 J (2) 5.6 × 10–4 J
(3) 5.6 × 10–3 J (4) 5.6 × 10–2 J (1) Isothermal
140. For the given diagram, find the gravitational (2) Isobaric
potential at the centre of the square is : – (3) Adiabatic
(4) None of the above
143. Two waves of intensity I1 and I2 propogate in a
medium in same direction. Then sum of
(1) – Gm maximum and minimum intensity is :-
2 2
− √
a
−− −− 2
– Gm
(1) I
(√ 1 − √ 2 )I
(2) 4 2
− √
a (2) 2(I1 + I2)
Gm
(3) − 4 (3) I1 + I2
a
−− −− 2
– Gm (4) I
(√ 1 + √ 2 )I
(4) 2 3
− √
a

ALLEN
144. At any point on the perpendicular bisector of the 147. Locate the image of an object at S formed by
line joining two equal and opposite charges :- refraction in the situation shown in figure :-
(1) the electric field is zero
(2) the electric potential is zero
(3) the electric potential decreases with
increasing distance from their mid point
(4) the electric field is perpendicular to the (1) 100 cm left (2) infinity
line joining the charges (3) 1 cm to the right (4) 18 cm to the left
145. A,B,C are voltmeters of resistance 2R, 3R and 148. An astronomical telescope has an angular
6R respectively are connected as shown in magnification of magnitude 5 for distance
figure. When some potential difference is applied objects. The separation between the objective
between P and Q then reading of voltmeters are and the eye-piece is 36 cm and the final image
VA , VB and VC respectively then is formed at infinity. The focal length f0 of the
objective and fe of the eye-piece are
(1) f0 = 45 cm and fe = – 9 cm
(2) f0 = 50 cm and fe = 10 cm
(1) VA ≠ VB = VC (2) VA = VB ≠ VC (3) f0 = 7.2 cm and fe = 5 cm
(3) VA ≠ VB ≠ VC (4) VA = VB = VC (4) f0 = 30 cm and fe = 6 cm
146. A particle of mass m and charge q, accelerated 149. Which is correct relation of half life :-
by a potential difference V enters a region of a
(1) t1/2 = log 2
uniform transverse magnetic field B. If d is the
thickness of the region of B, the angle θ through λ
(2) t1/2 =
which the particle deviates from the initial log 2
direction on leaving the region is given by λ
(3) t1/2 = (2.303)
log 2
q 1/2
(1) sin θ = Bd( )
2.303 log 2
2mV (4) t1/2 =
q 1/2 λ
(2) cos θ = Bd( )
150. A common emitter amplifier has input
2mV
q 1/2 impedance of 100Ω and output impedance of
(3) tan θ = Bd( )
200Ω. If α for the transistor is 0.9 then power
2mV
q 1/2 gain of the CE amplifier would be :-
(4) cot θ = Bd( )
2mV (1) 1.62 (2) 1.8 (3) 18 (4) 162

ALLEN
SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 156. The first ΔiH values of Na, Mg and Si are
Attempt All 35 questions respectively 496, 737 and 786 kJ mol–1. First
151. In complex Mercury (I) tetrathiocyanato-S- ΔiH value for Al will be :-
cobaltate (III) magnetic moment of Co ion is :- (1) 760 kJ mol–1
−−
(1) 0 (2) √ 24 (2) 575 kJ mol–1
–
(3) √
−−
15 (4) √ 8 (3) 480 kJ mol–1
152. Which of the following will show highest (4) Can't be predicted
paramagnetic character 157. Diagonal relation is not present between :-
(1) [Mn(CN)6]–3 (2) [Cr(CN)6]–3 (1) Li and Mg (2) Be and Al
(3) [Fe(CN)6]–3 (4) [FeF6]–4 (3) Be and Mg (4) Both (1) and (2)
153. What is the electronic configuration of Thulium ? 158. In which of the following species 'N' atom
(z = 69) doesn't show formal charge of +1.
(1) [Xe] 6s2 5d10 4f13 (1) N3

−
(2) NH 4+
(2) [Xe] 6s2 5d10 4f14 (3) HNO3 (4) NH3

(3) [Xe] 6s2 5d1 4f13 159. Incorrect order of dipole moment is :-
(4) [Xe] 6s2 5d0 4f13 (1) H2O > HF > NH3 > NF3
154. CaF2 ore is known as :- (2) BF3 = CH4 = CO2 = CCl4
(1) Carnetlite (2) Horn silver (3) HF > H2O > NH3 > NF3
(3) Fluorspar (4) Ruby silver (4) H2O > HF > NF3 > CH4
155. Partial roasting is done for the ores 160. Hydrogen resembles in properties with :-
(1) Galena and Cinnabar only (1) Group 1 and 17
(2) Copper glance and zinc blende (2) Group IA and VIIA
(3) Galena, Cinnabar and copper glance (3) Alkali metals and halogen
(4) Galena, Cinnabar and zinc blende (4) All of the above

ALLEN
161. Radioactive element of IA group whose half 166. Which of the following has maximum number
life period is 21 minute can be :- of atoms ?
(1) Caesium (1) 2 gram-molecules of H2SO4
(2) Radium (2) 2 gram of H2SO4
(3) Francium (3) 1 mole of H2SO4
(4) Uranium (4) 49 gram of H2SO4
162. If you are supposed to make a good quality of 167. Correct quantum number set for last electron of
cement, the according to you what should be Al is :-
the ratio of silica to alumina :- 1
(1) n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0, s = +
(1) exactly 2 2
1
(2) exactly 7.3 (2) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 0, s = −
2
(3) between 2.5 and 4 1
(3) n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = 0, s = −
(4) between 1 and 5 2

1
163. What is the number of hydrated H2O molecules (4) n = 3, ℓ = 2, m = 1, s = −
2
in borax ?
168. Which of the following mixture can act as a
(1) 4 H2O buffer ?
(2) 6 H2O (1) C6H5COOH and C6H5COONa
(3) 10 H2O (2) C6H5COONH4 (aq.)
(4) 2 H2O
(3) NH4Cl + NaOH (aq.)
164. To make stable species [SiX6]2–, element X
will be :- (4) All of the above
(1) I (2) Br (3) Cl (4) F 169. Which of the following enthalpy change is
correct match ?
165. Which of the following can not be a
disproportionate redox reaction ? (1) Na(s) + 1 Cl2(g) → NaCl(s) ; ΔH = ΔfH
2
(1)
(2) C(s) + 1 O2(g) → CO(g) ; ΔH = ΔcH
(2) 2
(3) (3) CuSO4(s) + aqueous → CuSO4(aq.) ; ΔH = ΔHydH
(4) (4) All of the above

ALLEN
170. Which of the following is correct for cubic unit 174. Which of the following can exist in cis and
cell ? trans form ?
(1) For bcc vacant space is 26%
(2) For scc coordination number is 6. (1)
(3) For fcc occupied space is 72%
(4) Packing efficiency of bcc is greater then
fcc
(2)
171. For reaction 2CO(g) + O2(g) —→ 2CO2(g),
concentration of CO decreases by 0.2 M in 20
second then find out rate of formation of (3)
CO2(g) :-
(4) Ph – CH = C(CH3)2
(1) 10–2 M.min–1
175. Which of the following compound can produce
–3 –1
(2) 10 M.s aromatic species after deprotonation ?
(3) 0.1 M.s–1
(1)
(4) 10–2 M.s–1
172. Which of the following aqueous solution has (2)
highest boiling point ?
(1) 0.1 m HCl (3)
(2) 0.2 m CH3COOH

(3) 0.2 m H2SO4 (4)
(4) 0.15 m NaCl 176. Correct statement about the product
173. Which of the following has least pKa value ?

(1) H–COOH (1) Product exist in cis form
(2) CH3–COOH (2) Product exist in trans form
(3) CH3–CH2–COOH (3) Product is racemic mixture
(4) CH3–CH2–OH (4) Product has two chiral centre

ALLEN
177. Which of the following can be reduced by 180. In which of the following reaction
NaBH4 ? benzaldehyde is not formed :-
(1) (1)
(2)
(2)
(3)
(3)
(4)
178. Which of the following is bactericidal

antibiotic ? (4)
(1) Tetra cycline
181.
(2) Erythromycin
Above reaction is known as :-
(3) Chloramphenicol
(1) Sandmeyer reaction
(4) Penicillin
(2) Gattermann reaction
179. Which of the following can be purified by (3) Gattermann Koch reaction
NaHSO3 ?
(4) HVZ reaction
(1) CH3–CHO
182. Which of the following compound is not
oxidised by KMnO4 ?
(2)
(1) CH3 – CH = CH2
(3) (2) CH3 – C ≡ CH
(3)
(4)
(4) CH3–CH2–CH3

ALLEN
183. All carbon atoms of styrene are :- 187. Which of the following ligand will show
(1) sp3 hybridised (2) sp2 hybridised different strength with metal ions Co+3 and
(3) sp hybridised (4) All Fe+3 in a complex ?
(1) F–
184.
(2) NH3
(3) SCN–
Path of reaction is :- (4) H2O
(1) SN 2 (2) SN 1 (3) E1 (4) E2 188. Acidic K2Cr2O7 on on reaction with a pale blue
185. compound 'x' gives CrO5, then compound 'x' is :-

(1) O3 (2) H2O2

Compound X is :- (3) H2O (4) NH4Cl
189. Covalent and vander waal radius of Cl are
(1) respectively :-
(2) (CH3–CO)2O (1) 180 pm, 99 pm
(3) CH3–CH2–OH (2) 99 pm, 99 pm
(3) 180 pm, 180 pm
(4) (4) 99 pm, 180 pm
SECTION-B 190. Catalyst V2O5 is used in :-
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 question out of (1) Contact process
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts (2) Haber process
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted (3) Deacon process
questions will be considered for marking.
(4) Solvay process
186. Amphoteric oxides are :- 191. Which of the following gas diffuses with
(1) Al2O3 and As2O3 fastest rate at same conditions of temperature
(2) ZnO and Cr2O3 and pressure ?
(3) BeO and SnO2 (1) CH4(g) (2) O2(g)
(4) All of the above (3) N2(g) (4) O3(g)

ALLEN
192. For cell Co(s)/ Co 2 +
|| Au 3
+ o
Au(s), E cell
/ 196. Thermosetting plastic can be prepared by using :-
0.01M xM
and Ecell is 1.68 V and 1.72 V respectively (1) Phenol and formaldehyde
then value of x will be :- (2) Polyvinyl chloride
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.01 (3) Adipic acid and hexamethyl tetramine
(3) 0.001 (4) 1 (4) Polystyrene
193. Among the following incorrect statement is :-
(1) The colour of colloidal solution depends 197.
on the wavelength of light scattered by the
dispersed particle
(2) Colloidal solution of Fe2O3.xH2O/Fe+3 has (1)
positive charge
(3) In electrophoresis colloidal particles move
towards same charged electrodes, get
discharged and precipitated
(4) Generally, the value of colligative (2)
property for colloidal solution is lesser
than that for true solution
194. During the lassigne test of nitrogen, prussian blue
colour is appeared which is due to formation of
(1) Na4[Fe(CN)6] (2) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (3)
(3) Fe2[Fe(CN)6] (4) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4
195. Product
(4)
Which statement is not correct about the
reaction
(1) It is S N 1 reaction. 198. When Benzaldehyde is heated with conc. NaOH
then benzyl alcohol and product X is formed.
(2) It is E2 reaction X is used as :-

(3) Product is unsaturated compound (1) Soap (2) Detergent
(4) Ether is not formed in this reaction (3) Preservative (4) Polymer

ALLEN
199.

200.
IUPAC name of product is :-
(1) 4-methyl pent-3-en-2-one (1) (2)
(2) 3-methyl pent-3-ene-2-one
(3) 4-methyl pent-2-en-3-one (3) (4)
(4) 3-methyl pent-3-on-2-ene

Space for Rough Work
English / 29062022 Page 29/32

MAJOR TEST PLAN (2021-2022)
TEST DATE SYLLABUS TEST DATE SYLLABUS TEST DATE SYLLABUS
MLA, MLB, MLC, MLC1L, MLD, MLD1L, MLE, MLE1L, MLM1L, MLN1L, MLM+MLN, MLK+MLO, MLQ1L, MLP, MLQ,
MLG1L+MLJ1L, MLG+MLJ, MLH +MLI
MLF, MAZA, MAZB, MAZC & MAZD MLR, MAZE & MAZF, MAZG, MAZH, MAPA, SPARK 1, MAAX
10/04/2022 SYLLABUS-1
16/04/2022 SYLLABUS-2
22/04/2022 SYLLABUS-3
28/04/2022 SYLLABUS-4 25/04/2022 SYLLABUS-1+2
13/05/2022 SYLLABUS-1+2 13/05/2022 SYLLABUS-1+2 13/05/2022 SYLLABUS-1+2
12/06/2022 FULL SYLLABUS-(AIOT) 12/06/2022 FULL SYLLABUS-(AIOT) 12/06/2022 FULL SYLLABUS-(AIOT)
18/06/2022 FULL SYLLABUS 18/06/2022 FULL SYLLABUS 18/06/2022 FULL SYLLABUS
NOTE :- 1)ALL MAJOR TEST WILL BE ON NEW PATTERN .
2) TEST TIME WILL BE 3 HOURS 20 MINUTES .
3) AIOT (ALL INDIA OPEN TEST - ALL CCP STUDENTS + ALL DLP STUDENT)
PROPOSED SYLLABUS 1 to 6 (SESSION 2021-2022)
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BIOLOGY
Some basic concepts of Chemistry,

The Living World, Biological Classification, Plant Kingdom,
Basic Mathematics used in physics & Vectors, Units, Dimensions Atomic Structure, Chemical Equilibrium, Ionic Equilibrium,
SYLLABUS 1 Structural Organisation In Animals (Animal Tissue), Animal
and Measurements, Kinematics, Laws of Motion and Friction. Thermodynamics & Chemical Energetics, Redox reactions,
Kingdom, Cockroach, Earthworm, Frog,
Behaviour of Gases
Cell : The Unit Of Life, Cell Cycle And Cell Division, Photosynthesis
in Higher Plants, Enzyme
Work, Energy & Power, Circular Motion, Collisions and Centre of
Periodic Table Chemical Bonding s-Block Elements Digestion And Absorption (Digestive System), Excretory Products
SYLLABUS 2 Mass, Rotational Motion, Gravitation, Properties of matter and Hydrogen & It’s Compounds And Their Elimination (Excretory System), Breathing And
Fluid Mechanics.
Exchange Of Gases (Respiratory System), Body Fluids And
Circulation (Circulatory System)
Transport in Plants, Mineral Nutrition, Plant Growth and

Thermal Physics (Thermal Expansion, Calorimetry, Heat Transfer, Classification & Nomenclature, Isomerism, Reaction Mechanism-I, Development, Respiration in Plants,
SYLLABUS 3 KTG & Thermodynamics), Oscillations (SHM, Damped and Forced Reaction Mechanism-II, Hydrocarbons, Environmental Chemistry Neural Control And Co-ordination (Nervous System, Sensory
Oscillations & Resonance), Wave Motion and Doppler's Effect. and Qualitative and Quantitative Analysis of Organic Compounds, Organs), Chemical Co-ordination And Integration (Endocrine
System), Locomotion And Movement (Muscles, Skeletal System)
Reproduction in Organisms, Sexual Reproduction in Flowering

Electrostatics, Capacitor, Current electricity and Heating Effects of Solid State Chemical kinetics Solutions Electrochemistry Surface Plants, Morphology Of Flowering Plants, Anatomy Of Flowering
SYLLABUS 4 Current . chemistry Plants
Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health, Origin And Evolution
Principles Of Inheritance And Variation, Molecular Basis Of

Inheritance, Strategies For Enhancement In Food Production
Magnetic effect of current and Magnetism, Electromagnetic P-block elements (group 13 to 18) d & f-block elements
SYLLABUS 5 Induction, Alternating current, EM Waves. (Plant Breeding), Microbes In Human Welfare
Coordination Compounds Metallurgy
Biotechnology : Principles And Processes Biotechnology And Its
Applications, Biomolecules
Organisms and Populations, Ecosystem, Biodiversity and

Halogen derivatives, Oxygen containing organic compounds, Conservation, Environmental Issues, Demography Biology In
Ray optics and optical Instruments, Wave optics, Modern Physics,
SYLLABUS 6 Nitrogen containing organic compounds, Biomolecules, polymers Human Welfare :
Semiconductor and Digital Electronics.
and chemistry in everyday life Human Health and Disease, Strategies For Enhancement In Food
Production (Animal Breeding)
Read carefully the following instructions :
1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Allen ID Card to the Invigilator.
2. No candidate, without special permission of the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
3. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet
to the Invigilator on duty.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to
their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules
and Regulations of this examination.
6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
7. The candidates will write the Correct Name and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet.
Corporate Office : ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-2757575 info@allen.ac.in www.allen.ac.in
Page 32/32 English / 29062022
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
(Academic Session : 2021 - 2022)
ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE

PHASE : ALL ENTHUSIAST, LEADER-(I-X), ACHIEVER-(I-VII), ACHIEVER PLUS-I,
ALPHA ACHIEVER-I, SPARK-I
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2022
Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : NEET (UG)
TEST DATE : 29-06-2022
ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A. 3 4 3 1 3 3 2 1 2 3 3 4 4 3 2 1 4 3 4 1 4 1 3 2 1 3 1 3 4 3
Q. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 3 1 2 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 3 1 1 2 2 2 3 2 1 2 1 1 2 4 4 3 4 3 2
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 3 2 3 1 1 3 2 3 4 3 3 1 2 3 1 4 3 1 1 3 3 3 3 3 2 3 2 3
Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 2 1 1 3 4 2 4 4 2 4 4 2 1 2 3 3 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 2 4 4 2 2 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 2 1 3 3 4 3 3 4 2 1 2 2 4 1 2 1 1 2 4 2 2 2 4 1 1 4 4 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 4 3 3 2 3 4 3 4 3 3 3 4 3 1 2 4 1 2 4 3 1 3 2 1 1 4 1 4
Q. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 4 2 2 2 4 4 2 4 1 1 1 3 2 1 1 2 3 1 2
HINT – SHEET
SUBJECT : BOTANY 7. Ans ( 2 )

NCERT Pg.# 34, Para 1
SECTION-A
8. Ans ( 1 )
1. Ans ( 3 ) NCERT–XI, Pg # 134
NCERT Pg. No. 14 9. Ans ( 2 )
2. Ans ( 4 ) NCERT–XI, Pg # 133 (Fig.-8.6)
NCERT Pg # 19 10. Ans ( 3 )
3. Ans ( 3 ) NCERT–XI, Pg # 133
NCERT Pg # 19 11. Ans ( 3 )
4. Ans ( 1 ) NCERT Page No. # 169
NCERT Pg # 21 12. Ans ( 4 )
5. Ans ( 3 ) NCERT Page No. # 169,170
NCERT,Pg. # 38 13. Ans ( 4 )
6. Ans ( 3 ) NCERT Pg # 186
NCERT Pg # 38
1001CMD303121067 HS-1/12
TARGET:PRE-MEDICAL 2022/29-06-2022
14. Ans ( 3 ) 34. Ans ( 2 )
NCERT–XI, Pg#200 NCERT, Pg#228
16. Ans ( 1 ) 35. Ans ( 1 )
NCERT XI Pg.No.231 NCERT, Pg#259
17. Ans ( 4 ) SECTION-B
NCERT Pg.#252, Para-I
36. Ans ( 1 )
18. Ans ( 3 )
NCERT XI-th Pg.#17,18
a, b, d correct
37. Ans ( 2 )
19. Ans ( 4 )
NCERT, Pg#169/170/171, (c) and (d) are
NCERT XII Pg. # 36
correct
20. Ans ( 1 )
38. Ans ( 2 )
NCERT XII Pg. # 25
NCERT Pg.#250, Para-V
21. Ans ( 4 )
39. Ans ( 3 )
NCERT XII Pg. # 26, 27
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 182
22. Ans ( 1 )
40. Ans ( 3 )
NCERT-XIth, Pg.#.#81
NCERT XII Pg.# 121,122
23. Ans ( 3 )
41. Ans ( 4 )
NCERT-XIth, Pg.#.#81
NCERT-XII, Pg.-96, Paragraph=6.1
24. Ans ( 2 )
42. Ans ( 3 )
NCERT XI Pg.No. 79
NCERT Page# 86-87
25. Ans ( 1 )
43. Ans ( 1 )
NCERT XI, Page : 86, 87
NCERT Pg. # 91
26. Ans ( 3 )
44. Ans ( 1 )
NCERT-Pg : 71
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 188
27. Ans ( 1 )
45. Ans ( 2 )
NCERT-Pg : 70
28. Ans ( 3 )
46. Ans ( 2 )
NCERT (XII) Pg. # 117
NCERT XII Pg.No.238
29. Ans ( 4 )
47. Ans ( 2 )
NCERT Page - 188
NCERT XII Pg.No. 261
30. Ans ( 3 )
48. Ans ( 3 )
NCERT, Pg#276
31. Ans ( 2 )
49. Ans ( 2
)
Module–3 Pg.No.21
NCERT Pg. # 243
32. Ans ( 3 )
50. Ans ( 1 )
NCERT, Pg#276
NCERT (XIIth) Pg.# 146-149, (Para 8.1)
33. Ans ( 1 )
NCERT XII Pg.No.251
HS-2/12 1001CMD303121067
ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE/PHASE-ALL ENTHUSIAST, LEADER-(I-X), ACHIEVER-(I-VII),
ACHIEVER PLUS-I, ALPHA ACHIEVER-I, SPARK-I/29-06-2022
SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY 71. Ans ( 4 )

NCERT_Page No.340
SECTION-A
72. Ans ( 3 )
52. Ans ( 1 ) NCERT Page # Eng. 49, Hindi 53
NCERT, Pg#55, Para.-4.2.11 73. Ans ( 3 )
53. Ans ( 1 ) NCERT-XII, Pg#58-59
NCERT, Pg#58, Para. 4.2.11.6 74. Ans ( 1 )
54. Ans ( 2 ) NCERT-XII, Pg#62
NCERT Pg.# 55 75. Ans ( 2 )
56. Ans ( 4 ) NCERT-Pg : 147
NCERT Pg. # 101 76. Ans ( 3 )
57. Ans ( 3 ) NCERT XII (Bio)_Pg-153
NCERT Page-111 77. Ans ( 1 )
58. Ans ( 4 ) NCERT, Pg. # 158
NCERT XI, Pg. # 265 78. Ans ( 4 )
59. Ans ( 3 ) NCERT XII (Bio)_Pg-148
NCERT XI, Pg. # 265 80. Ans ( 1 )
60. Ans ( 2 ) NCERT Page No. 135
NCERT Pg. No. 272 81. Ans ( 1 )
61. Ans ( 4 ) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 201
NCERT Pg # 297 82. Ans ( 3 )
62. Ans ( 2 ) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 200
NCERT-Pg : 279 83. Ans ( 3 )
63. Ans ( 3 ) NCERT Page - 211
NCERT–XI, Pg#280, 18.1.3.1 85. Ans ( 3 )
65. Ans ( 3 ) NCERT, Pg#57, Para. 4.2.11.4
NCERT Page No # 321
SECTION-B
66. Ans ( 1 )
NCERT XI Pg.No.323 87. Ans ( 2 )
NCERT Page No. 118
67. Ans ( 1 )
NCERT XI Pg.No.327 88. Ans ( 3 )
NCERT XI, Pg. # 262
68. Ans ( 3 )
NCERT Pg. No.305 89. Ans ( 2 )
NCERT Pg. No.274
69. Ans ( 2 )
NCERT_Page No.337 90. Ans ( 3 )
NCERT XII Pg.# 00
70. Ans ( 3 )
NCERT Pg.# 336 91. Ans ( 3 )
NCERT Page No # 322
1001CMD303121067 HS-3/12
92. Ans ( 2 ) 103. Ans ( 2 )
NCERT XI Pg.No.323
93. Ans ( 1 )
NCERT-XI, Pg#311

94. Ans ( 1 )
NCERT XIth Pg.#335
95. Ans ( 3 )
NCERT XII, Pg.# 46 a = g tanθ
g
96. Ans ( 4 ) a= –
NCERT XII Pg.# 54 √ 3
97. Ans ( 2 ) 104. Ans ( 1 )

NCERT Page No. 141 Ui = M L
−( ) g( )
4 8
98. Ans ( 4 )
NCERT Pg # 198
99. Ans ( 4 ) Uf = 0
NCERT Page - 208
MgL
SUBJECT : PHYSICS Wext = Uf – Ui =
32
SECTION-A 105. Ans ( 2 )

101. Ans ( 4 ) Since the particle is moving in horizontal
Subtract 3.87 from 4.23 and then divide by 2.
circle, centripetal force,
102. Ans ( 4 )
mv2 k
Let height of tower is h and body takes t time to F = =
r r2
reach to ground when it fall freely.
k
mv2 = ...(i)
Kinetic energy of the particle,
1
∴ h = gt 2 …(i)
1 2 k
2 K =mv = (Using (i))
2 2r
In last second i.e. tth sec body travels = 0.36 h
−dU
As F =
It means in rest of the time i.e. in (t – 1)sec it dr
travels
∴ Potential energy,
r r r
= h – 0.36 h = 0.64 h
U = −∫ F dr = − ∫ (
−k
) dr = k ∫ r − 2
dr =
−k

r2 r
∞ ∞ ∞
Now applying equation of motion for (t – 1) sec
1

0.64h = g(t − 1)2 …(ii)

2 k k −k
∴ Total energy = K + U = − =
From (i) and (ii) we get, t = 5 sec and h = 125 m 2r r 2r
HS-4/12 1001CMD303121067
106. Ans ( 3 ) 113. Ans ( 3 )
Coefficient of performance
pf ⃗ = pi⃗
T2 273 273
K = = = = 9
T1 − T2 303 − 273 30
2MV = Mu1 + Mu2
114. Ans ( 1 )
u1 + u2
In SHM total energy remains conserved
V = ( )
2 115. Ans ( 2 )
Δx Δϕ
loss in KE = =
2 λ 2π
1 1 1 u1 + u2 Δx π/3
M u 21 + M u 22 − × 2M ( )

2 2 2 2 .6
=
2π
M v
= (u 1 − u 2 )2 Here λ = = .6m
4 f
107. Ans ( 3 ) Δx = .1m
Relation between, kinetic energy (K) and 116. Ans ( 4 )

E.F. (E) ∝ relative sepration between electric
angular momentum (L) is :-
field lines.
−−−−
L = √2IK {where, I = moment of inertia}
117. Ans ( 4 )
−
−−
−−
−
so, L 1 = √
I1
= √
I
= 1 : √–2 C =
4πC ε 0 R 1 R 2

L2 I2 2I R2 − R1
108. Ans ( 1 ) Here R2 – R1 = 1 mm C = 1 μF
KE + PE = 0 R2 − R1 4πε 0
So =
GMm R 2R 1 C
KE = –PE = = mgR 1
R =
9 × 109 × 1 × 10 − 6
109. Ans ( 1 )
R2 − R1 10 3 −
For wooden block ρBlock < ρWater

R 2R 1 9
10 3 −
10 3 −
So FB > Mg, hence it will rise up with an =
R 1R 2 9
constant acceleration. 9 = R1 R2
110. Ans ( 2 )
EF
= n1
/ 3
= ( 1000)1 3
/

Ei
Ef = 10Ei
111. Ans ( 1 )
As P ∝ N also R1 = (R2 – 10–3)m
9 3
112. Ans ( 2 ) = R 2 − 10 −

R2
ΔU is independent from path R22 = 9
R2 = 3 m
1001CMD303121067 HS-5/12
118. Ans ( 2 ) 123. Ans ( 2 )

Magnetic flux, ϕ = B.A = BAcosθ, where θ is
Work done to charge a sphere
an angle between normal to the area A and
Q2 magnetic field B.
=
8π∈ 0 R
Here θ = (90° – 30°) = 60°
1
= ∵ Q = 1C 21
2
8π∈ 0 R and ϕ = 10 − 4
× π( × 10− 2
) × cos 60
∘
2
119. Ans ( 2 ) (∵ A = πr2)
m
R ∝ ρ =
= 1.732 × 10–6 Wb
ne2 τ
T↑ ⇒ n↑ & τ↓
124. Ans ( 1 )
dϕ − 3B 0 A0
e=− =
conductor → effect of τ dominant
dt t
125. Ans ( 3 )
Semiconductor → effect of n dominant
X
f = 45° tan 45 ∘
= ⇒X=R
120. Ans ( 4 ) R
X = XL ⇒ RL
Before closing key k
V
= XC ⇒ RC
I =
= XL~XC ⇒ LCR
R
After closing key k
126. Ans ( 3 )
2V R V 80
I′ = ∵ R eq =
Resistance of lamp R = = = 8Ω
R 2 I 10
* current through R remain same because Let Z be the impedance which would maintain a
potential across R remain same
current of 10 A through the Lamp when it is run
on 100 Volt a.c. then.
* Power drown = VI
2 2 2 2 2
⇒ (ωL) = Z – R = (10) – (8) = 36 ⇒ ωL = 6
I↑ ⇒ power drown ↑
6 6
⇒ L = = = 0.02H
ω 2π × 50
121. Ans ( 4 )
127. Ans ( 4 )
N
B = μ0μr ( ) i
According to properties of electromagnetic
2πr
400
wave (theory)
1= 4π × 10–7 × μr × 2
× 2
40 × 10 −
128. Ans ( 3 )
4
10
μr = ≃ 400 − f
8π –n = ⇒ nf + nu = – f
− f −u
122. Ans ( 2 )
1
nu = –nf – f = – (n+1)f
x∝ for paramagnetic
n + 1) f
T (
According to Curie law u = –

n
HS-6/12 1001CMD303121067
129. Ans ( 3 ) 135. Ans ( 4 )
For destructive interference Δϕ = (2n – 1)λ According to zener diode theory
130. Ans ( 4 )
λ SECTION-B
For first minimum sin θ
=
a
λ 136. Ans ( 1 )
Slit width a =
sin θ
7 A4 B 1 / 3
5 × 10 −
6 Z = . The maximum relative error in
= = 10 m
CD 3 2
/
sin 300
a = 10 × 10–5 cm Z is given by
131. Ans ( 2 ) ΔZ ΔA 1 ΔB ΔC 3 ΔD
Theoritical = 4 + + +
Z A 3 B C 2 D
132. Ans ( 1 )
1 λ1 T2
−−
− 137. Ans ( 2 )
λ neutron ∝ ⇒ = √
√
−−
T λ2 T1
− − −−−− −−−−
−−−−−
λ ( + 273 927
) 1200
⇒ = √ = √ = 2
λ2 ( + 273 27
) 300

λ
⇒ λ 2 = .
2
133. Ans ( 2 )
0.0303 × 931
E(Mev) = W W
4 t= =
Vm r cos θ
/
Vm g
/
134. Ans ( 2 )
W 2 2
t= =
−−−
=
– hr
−−−
2
−− −−−−
2
−
2 −−−−
2 5√3
√ Vm 2 − r
/
Vr g
/
√ 10− 5
138. Ans ( 1 )

In freely falling lift normal reaction on block
will be zero.
139. Ans ( 1 )

1 K2
KE = mV 2 ( 1+ )
2 R2
2
1 200 2.00 2
= × ×( ) (1+ )
2 1000 100 5
7 5
= 4× × 10 −
= 5.6 × 10 5 J −
140. Ans ( 2 )

Vnet = –4 Gm

–
6V a/√2
I = = 36mA
166.67Ω = −4√–2 Gm
a
1001CMD303121067 HS-7/12
141. Ans ( 4 )
E∝T → (Kelvin) Using (1) and (2), we have
142. Ans ( 2 ) 1/2 1/2

m 2qV 1 2mV
Work = Area under PV curve
r = ( ) = ( )
qB m B q
Area under curve A (Isobaric) is maximum
143. Ans ( 2 ) BD d
In triangle BCD, sin θ = = . Therefore,
Imax + Imin = I 1(√

−− −− 2
I −− −− 2
+ √ 2 ) + (√ 1 − √ 2 ) I I
BC r
= 2(I1 + I2) q 1/2
144. Ans ( 2 ) sin θ = Bd( ) , which is choice (a).

2mV
147. Ans ( 1 )
μ1 = 1 , μ2 = 1.5, R = 20 cm (Radius of
curvature), u = –25cm
145. Ans ( 4 )
3R) (6R)
(
Effective resistance of B and C =
3R + 6R
= 2R ; In series sequence V ∝ R

So voltage across 'A' = Voltage across B and C

Now B and C are parallel then VB = VC
Hence VA = VB = VC μ2 μ1 μ2 − μ1 1.5 1 0.5

− = ⇒ − =
v u R v −25 20
146. Ans ( 1 ) 1.5 1 1
⇒ = − ⇒ v = −100cm
Refer to Fig. Let v be the velocity of the v 40 25
particle. Its kinetic energy is

1 2 2qV 1 /2
So, the image is 100 cm from (P) the surface on
mv = qV or v = ( ) …(1)
2 m
the side of S.
148. Ans ( 4 )

m = 5 = f0/fe ⇒ f0 = 5fe
Length = f0 + fe
36 = 5fe + fe
The particle follows a circular path from A to B fe = 6 cm
of radius r which is given by
f0 = 5fe
mv2 mv
= qV B or r = …(2)
r qB f0 = 30 cm
HS-8/12 1001CMD303121067
149. Ans ( 4 ) 155. Ans ( 3 )

Partial roasting is done for PbS, HgS, Cu2S
ℓn2
t1/ 2 =
156. Ans ( 2 )
λ
2.303 log 2 Order of first IP = S1 < P1 < S2 < P2 < P4 < P3 <
=
λ P5 < P6 (upto 4th period)
150. Ans ( 4 ) when n is common
α
α = 0.9 ⇒ β = = 9
1−α ∴ First ΔiH order Na < Al < Mg < Si
Power gain Ap = β 2 ( R out )

∴ Al will show between Na (496 kJ mol–1) and
R in
= (9)2 (
200
) = 162
Mg (737 kJ mol–1) i.e. 575 kJ mol–1
100
157. Ans ( 3 )
150. Ans ( 4 )
α
α = 0.9 ⇒ β = = 9
diagonal relationship
1−α
R
Power gain Ap = β 2 ( out )
158. Ans ( 4 )
R in
200 NH3 formal charge of N = O
= (9)2 ( ) = 162
100
SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
151. Ans ( 2 ) 159. Ans ( 3 )

H2O > HF > NH3 > NF3
Co+3 → 3d6
160. Ans ( 4 )
Group 1 = IA = alkali metals
SCN– → WFL, 4 unpaired e–
−−−−−−−−−
Group 17 = VIIA = halogen
−−
µ = √ 4 × (4 + 2) = √ 24
Hydrogen resembles in properties with both
152. Ans ( 4 ) group IA and VIIA.
(FeF6)4– ⇒ Fe2+ → t 2g 4 eg2
161. Ans ( 3 )
n = 4
Francium is radioactive its 223Fr isotope has a
−−−−−−−
μ = √4(4 + 2)
half life of 21 minutes.
−−
= √ 24 163. Ans ( 3 )
153. Ans ( 4 ) Borax Na2B4O7
Thulium (Tm) 6s2 5d0 4f13 164. Ans ( 4 )
154. Ans ( 3 ) [SiF6]2– is stable while [SiCl6]2–, [SiBr6]2– and
Fluorspar → CaF2 [SiI6]2–are non existing due to steric reason.
1001CMD303121067 HS-9/12
165. Ans ( 3 ) 171. Ans ( 4 )
Rate of reaction
CH3COOH + PCl3 —→ CH3COCl + H3PO3
1 d[CO] −d[O 2 ] 1 d[C O 2 ]

Above reaction is non-redox = − = =
2 dt dt 2 dt
d[C O 2 ] −d[CO] −[−0.2 m]
166. Ans ( 1 ) = =
dt dt 20 s
2 gram-moles of H2SO4 = 2 moles of H2SO4 = 10–2 M.s–1
167. Ans ( 2 ) 172. Ans ( 3 )
Al → 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p1

(Tb)solution = (Tb)solvent + ΔTb
last electron enter in 3p1

Here ΔTb = i.m. kb
n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = –1 or 0 or 0 + 1
ΔTb ∝ i.m {∵ kb → same}
1 1
s = + or − i = 1 – α + nα
2 2
168. Ans ( 4 ) For HCl, n = 2 and α = 100%
Option (1)
CH3COOH, n = 2 and α < 100%
C6H5COOH → weak acid

H2SO4, n = 3 and α = 100%
C6H5COONa → Salt of same weak with strong NaCl, n = 2 and α = 100%
base
173. Ans ( 1 )
Strongest acid has least pka value
Option (2)
174. Ans ( 3 )
Salt of weak acid with weak base act as buffer
Option (3) If we take NH4Cl in excess then

final mixture have NH4Cl and NH4OH which 175. Ans ( 2 )
act as basic buffer
NH4Cl + NaOH → NH4OH + NaCl

176. Ans ( 1 )
excess H 2 /Pd−CaCO3
CH3–C≡CH3 −−−−−−−−− →
169. Ans ( 1 )
Option (2) :
177. Ans ( 1 )
It is not combustion because for combustion NaBH4 reduce only acid chloride, Aldehyde
carbon should change in CO2
and ketones, imine
Option (3) :
178. Ans ( 4 )
It is show enthalpy of solution
NCERT-XII, (Chemistry in every day life),
Option (1) : It show enthalpy of formation of Topic → Antibiotic
NaCl(s)
HS-10/12 1001CMD303121067
179. Ans ( 1 ) 187. Ans ( 4 )
NaHSO3 is used to purify aldehyde
H2O act as SFL with Co+3
180. Ans ( 4 ) H2O act as WFL with Fe+3

188. Ans ( 2 )
K2Cr2O7 + 2H+ + 4H2O2 → 2CrO5 + 5H2O
189. Ans ( 4 )
for an element
183. Ans ( 2 ) covalent radius < vander waal radius

191. Ans ( 1 )
1

Rate of diffusion (r) ∝ −−−
√ M
w
All carbon atoms are sp2 hybridised 192. Ans ( 1 )
2 3
0.06 [C o
+
184. Ans ( 2 ) Ecell = o
E cell − log10
]

n [Au
+ 3 ]2
Reaction proceeds through carbocation

2 3
0.06 [10
−
]
intermediate, it is SN 1 reaction 1.72 = 1.68 – log10
6 [Au
+ 3 ]2
185. Ans ( 2 ) 194. Ans ( 2 )

Fact

195. Ans ( 1 )

SECTION-B
196. Ans ( 1 )
186. Ans ( 4 ) Bakelite is thermosetting plastic which is
Amphoteric oxides
prepared by using phenol and form aldehyde.
SnO2, Sb2O3, PbO2, BeO, ZnO, Al2O3
198. Ans ( 3 )
As2O3, Ga2O3, Cr2O3 etc. X is sodiumbenzoate, which used as
preservative
1001CMD303121067 HS-11/12
199. Ans ( 1 ) 200. Ans ( 2 )
HS-12/12 1001CMD303121067

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English (1001CMD303121067) )1//1CMD3/3121/67)

This Booklet contains 32 pages.

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals)

Form Number : in figures

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) :

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature :

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2022

Page 2/32 Space for Rough Work English / 29062022

(d) During light reaction, protons decrease in

English / 29062022 Space for Rough Work Page 3/32

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English / 29062022 Space for Rough Work Page 5/32

(ii) Whittaker's classification is phylogenetic

(iii) R.H. Whittaker placed unicellular eukaryotic Solution

(iv) Carl Woese classified organisms into

(1) ii and iii only (2) i and iv only B II Q turgor

(a) The stage between the two mitotic divisions

(b) Interkinesis is followed by prophase-I

(d) Meiosis-II is similar to mitosis

Page 6/32 Space for Rough Work English / 29062022

(c) Size of VNTR varies from 0.1 to 20kb.

English / 29062022 Space for Rough Work Page 7/32

(2) Pusa sawani Inorganic matter seep into

(3) Does not show any change

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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS.

(1) Urochordata (2) Hemichordata (3) Dense irregular connective tissue

English / 29062022 Space for Rough Work Page 9/32

(1) Basilar membrane

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(4) I-Band or anisotropic bands (4) Pune

English / 29062022 Space for Rough Work Page 11/32

(4) Morphines ______, a pathogen of several____ plants is able

(D) It is incurable disease (4) E.coli, Dicot

84. Which of the following is not a nucleotide ?

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English / 29062022 Space for Rough Work Page 13/32

II. Smallest DNA bands are present at B

(3) Upper junction of labia minora

97. (2) Type of target pest

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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS.

English / 29062022 Space for Rough Work Page 15/32

(1) Change in internal energy is same in III & (4) Ex = Ez < Ey

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English / 29062022 Space for Rough Work Page 17/32

Page 18/32 Space for Rough Work English / 29062022

(3) λ/4 (b) the current through the series resistance

136. If Z = and ΔA, ΔB, ΔC, and ΔD are

the absolute errors in A, B, C and D

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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS.

(1) [Xe] 6s2 5d10 4f13 (1) N3

(2) [Xe] 6s2 5d10 4f14 (3) HNO3 (4) NH3

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(4) between 1 and 5 2

(3) (3) CuSO4(s) + aqueous → CuSO4(aq.) ; ΔH = ΔHydH

(4) (4) All of the above

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(4) Morphines __, a pathogen of several plants is able