Enthu Allen PDF

PRE-MEDICAL - 2022
ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES
TEST NO - 07 DATE : 16 - 01 - 2022

SYLLABUS
PHYSICS : CENTER OF MASS, MODERN PHYSICS-I
CHEMISTRY : SURFACE CHEMISTRY
BOTANY : ANATOMY IN FLOWERING PLANTS
ZOOLOGY : DIGESTION & ABSORPTION, BREATHING & EXCHANGE
OF GASES, MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME
TARGET: PRE-MEDICAL-2022/NEET/ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES/TEST NO-07/16.01.2022/SOLUTION
(Academic Session : 2021 - 2022)
TARGET : PRE - MEDICAL : 2022

ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES
TEST TYPE: ONLINE TEST DATE : 16.01.2022 TEST PATTERN: NEET
Time : 3 Hours TEST NO - 07 Maximum Marks : 720
ANSWER KEY & SOLUTION

Q. No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 4 1 4 3 1 3 1 4 1 3 1 1
Q. No. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 1 1 3 1 2 2 4 4 2 4 3 3 1 1 1 1 4 4 1
Q. No. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 1 3 4 1 4 1 3 3 1 1 2 2 4 4 2 4 1 4 2
Q. No. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 2 1 4 2 2 3 1 2 1 1 2 4 1 1 2 3 4 2 2
Q. No. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 1 2 1 1 2 1 1 2 2 1 1 1 4 3 2 2 1 1 3 3
Q. No. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 2 3 1 4 2 1 1 3 2 4 4 3 3 1 2 4 4 3 1 2
Q. No. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 3 4 4 3 2 1 3 1 2 4 3 3 1 3 2 2 4 2 1 3
Q. No. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 1 4 1 1 2 4 3 4 3 2 3 1 2 4 1 1 3 1 3 1
Q. No. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans. 4 2 4 1 3 4 2 2 2 3 1 2 4 2 4 4 1 2 4 1
Q. No. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans. 4 2 3 4 2 4 2 2 1 3 1 4 1 2 2 3 3 4 3 4
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) Ans. 1

This section contains 35 questions. h 3
For each question, darken the bubble Sol. l = , E = KT
2mE 2
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one h
\l =
of the following categories : 3mkT
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble 2. An electron of mass m and a photon have same
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths
associated with them is
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
1 1
darkened.
1 æ E ö2 æ E ö2
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (1) ç ÷ (2) ç ÷
c è 2m ø è 2m ø
1. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal
equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T 1
(Kelvin) and mass m is: 1 1 æ 2m ö 2
(3) c(2mE) 2 (4) ç ÷
h 2h cè E ø
(1) (2)
3mkT 3mkT
2h h
(3) (4)
mkT mkT
1/25
Ans. 1 Ans. 1
h h
Sol. l e =
2mE Sol. Q l = p
hc dl dp
l ph = =-
E l p
1
l 1 é E ù2 0.5 p
\ e = ê = 1 Þ p1 = 200p
l ph c ë 2m úû 100 p
3. Which of the following figures represent the 6. Electrons used in an electron microscope are
variation of particle momentum and the associated accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the voltage is
de-broglie wavelength? increased to 100 kV then the de-Broglie wavelength
p p associated with the electrons would become
(1) Double (2) Half
(3) Quadruple (4) Quarter
(1) (2)
Ans. 2
l l
p p 1
Sol. l µ
v
(3) (4) l1 v2
\ = =2
l2 v1
l l
Ans. 1 l1
\l 2 =
1 2
Sol. P µ 7. In the Davisson and Germer experiment, the
l
4. The de-Broglie wavelength of neutron in thermal velocity of electrons emitted from the electron gun
equilibrium at temperature T is can be increased by
(1) Increasing the potential differenece
30.8 3.08 between the anode and filament
(1) Å (2) Å
T T (2) Increasing the filament current
0.308 0.0308 (3) Decreasing the filament current
(3) Å (4) Å
T T (4) Decreasing the potential differenece
Ans. 1 between the anode and filament
Ans. 1
h 30.8
Sol. l = = Å Sol. Velocity of emitted electrons can be increased by
2mkT T increasing the p.d. between anode and filament.
5. If the momentum of electron is changed by P, then 8. A particle of mass 1 mg has the same wavelength
the de-Briglie wavelength associated with it as an electron moving with a velocity of 3 × 106
changes by 0.5%. The initial momentum of electron ms–1. The velocity of the particle is: (mass of
will be: electron – 9.1 × 10–31 kg)
(1) 200 P (2) 400 P (1) 2.7 × 10–18 ms–1 (2) 9 × 10–2 ms–1
P (3) 3 × 10–31 ms–1 (4) 2.7 × 10–21 ms–1
(3) (4) 100 P Ans. 1
200
2/25
h h hc
Sol. l1 = mv = (1´ 10-3 ) ´ v Sol. Q eV = -f
l
h hc
l2 = 3eV0 = -f ...(1)
-31
(9.1 ´ 10 ) ´ (3 ´106 ) l
Q l1 = l 2
hc
eV0 = -f ...(2)
2l
-21 -1
\ v = 2.7 ´ 10 ms
hc
9. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is \f =
3250 × 10–10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected 4l
from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of hc
wavelength 2536 × 10–10 m nearly is (Given h = \l 0 = = 4l
4.14 × 10–15 eV s and c = 3 × 108 ms–1) f
(1) 0.4 ´ 10 6 ms - 1 (2) 61 ´ 10 3 ms - 1

11. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively
l
(3) 0.3 ´ 10 6 m s - 1 (4) 6 ´ 10 5 m s - 1 by monochromatic light of wavelength l and .
2
Ans. 4 If the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted
photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times that in
hc 4.14 ´ 10-15 ´ 3 ´ 108 the first case, the work function of the surface of
Sol. f = =
l0 3250 ´ 10-10 the material is: (h = Planck’s constant, c = speed
of light)
= 3.82 eV
hc 4.14 ´ 10-15 ´ 3 ´ 108 hc 2hc
hv = = (1) (2)
l 2536 ´ 10-10 l l
= 4.89 eV hc hc
(3) (4)
K max = hv - f 3l 2l
Ans. 4
1 2
mv = (4.89 - 3.82) = 1.077eV
2 hc
Sol. KE1 = -f
\ v = 6 ´ 105 m / s l
10. A certain metallic surface is illuminated with hc
KE 2 = -f
monochromatic light of wavelength l . The stopping l/2
potential for photo-electric current for this light is
3V0. If the same surface is illuminated with light Q KE 2 = 3KE1
of wavelength 2l , the stopping potential is V0. hc
The threshold wavelength for this surface for photo- \f =
2l
electric effect is
12. A source of light is placed at a distance of 50 cm
l from a photocell and the stopping potential is found
(1) 4l (2) to be V0. If the distance between the light source
4
and photocell is made 25 cm, the new stopping
l potential will be
(3) (4) 6l
6 (1) 2V0 (2) V0/2
Ans. 1 (3) V0 (4) 4V0
Ans. 3
Sol. Since stopping potential is independent of distance.
\ Stoping potential remains unchanged.
3/25
13. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of 17. A photo-cell employs photoelectric effect to
wavelength 0.6 mm . Assuming it to be 25% efficient convert
in converting electrical energy to light, the number (1) Change in the intensity of illumination into a
of photons of yellow light it emits per second is change in photoelectric current.
(1) 1.5 × 1020 (2) 6 × 1018 (2) Change in the intensity of illumination into a
change in the work function of the
(3) 62 × 1020 (4) 3 × 1019 photocathode.
Ans. 1 (3) Change in the frequency of light into a
25 change in the electric current.
Sol. N = 5 ´ 1024 ´ ´ 200 ´ 0.6 ´ 10-6 (4) Change in the frequency of light into a
100
change in electric voltage
= 1.5 × 1020
Ans. 1
14. Which of the following statements is incorrect about
the photons? Sol. Photocell converts light energy to photoelectric
current
h 18. The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in
(1) Momentum of photon is kg m/s, will be
l
(2) Rest mass of photon is zero (1) 7 × 10–24 (2) 10–22
(3) Photons exert no pressure (3) 5 × 10–22 (4) 0.33 × 106
(4) Enerrgy of photon is hv Ans. 3
Ans. 3 E
Sol. P= = 5 ´ 10-22 kgms-1
Sol. Photons exert pressure. c
15. The work function of a surface of a photosensitive 19. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the
material is 6.2 eV. The wavelength of incident graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons
radiation for which the stopping potential is 5 V ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is
lies in the
Kinetic energy
(1) Ultraviolet region (2) Visible region

(3) Infrared region (4) X-ray region
(1)
Ans. 1
Frequency
hc
Sol. \ eV0 + f0 =
l
Kinetic energy
hc
l= = 1.10 ´ 10-7 M (2)
eV0 + f0
This wavelength of incident radiation lies in UV- Frequency
region
Kinetic energy
16. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz is

produced by a laser. The power emitted is
2 ´10-3 W . The number of photons emitted, on the (3)
average, by the sources per second is
Frequency
(1) 5 × 1016 (2) 5 × 1017
Kinetic energy
(3) 5 × 1014 (4) 5 × 1015

Ans. 4
Sol. P = nh u (4)
P Frequency
n= = 5 ´ 1015
hu Ans. 1
4/25
Sol. KE = hu - f [y = mx - c] 24. Doubly ionised helium atoms and hydrogen ions

are accelerated from rest through the same
20. As the intensity of incident light increases potential drop. The ratio of the final velocities of
(1) Photoelectric current increases the helium and the hydrogen ion is
(2) K.E. of emitted photoelectrons increases (1) 1/2 (2) 2
(3) Photoelectric current decreases (3) 1/ 2 (4) 2
(4) K.E. of emitted photoelectrons decreases Ans. 3
Ans. 1
1 2
Sol. i µ I Sol. mv = qv
2
21. The de-broglie wavelength of an electron moving
in the nth Bohr orbit of radius r is given by 2qV
v=
2pr m
(1) (2) npr
n q vne 2q m
vµ , = ´
nr nr m vH q 4m
(3) (4)
2p p 1
=
Ans. 1 2
Sol. 2pr = nl 25. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric effect
on sodium corresponds to a 5000Å. Its work
2pr function is
l=
n
(1) 4 × 10–19 J (2) 1 J
22. Kinetic energy of an electron, which is accelerated
in a potential difference of 100 V is (3) 2 × 10–19 J (4) 3 × 10–19 J
(1) 1.6 × 10–17 J (2) 1.6 × 10–19 J Ans. 1
(3) 1.6 × 10–21 J (4) 1.6 × 10–25 J hc
Sol. f =
Ans. 1 l
Sol. KE = qv = 4 × 10–19 J
= 1.6 × 18–19 × 100 26. The position of centre of mass of a system
= 1.6 × 10–17 J consisting of two particles of masses m1 and m2
separated by a distance L apart, from m1 will be:
23. In photoelectric effect the work function of a metal
is 3.5 eV. The emitted electrons can be stopped by m1L m2 L
applying a potential of –1.2 V. Then (1) m + m (2) m + m
1 2 1 2
(1) The energy of the incident photon is 4.7 eV
(2) The energy of the incident photon is 2.3 eV m2 L L
(3) m1 (4)
(3) If higher frequency photon be used, the 2
photoelectric current will rise Ans. 2
(4) When the energy of photon is 3.5 eV, the Sol. Q m1x = m 2 (L - x)
photoelectric current will be maximum
m2 L
Ans. 1 \x =
m1 + m2
Sol. Q hv = kE 0 + f0
= (1.2 + 3.5) eV
= 4.7 eV
5/25
27. A system consists of mass M and m (<<M). The
centre of mass of the system is: pb 2 cb2
(1) (2)
(a 2 - c2 ) (a 2 - b2 )
(1) At the middle
(2) Nearer to M pc 2 ca 2
(3) (4)
(3) Nearer to m (a 2 - b2 ) (c 2 - b 2 )
(4) At the position of larger mass Ans. 2
Ans. 2
0 - pb2 .c
Sol. COM is Nearer to M Sol. x cm =
pa 2 - pb 2
28. Three rods of the same mass are placed as shown
in the figure. What will be the co-ordinate of centre cb 2
of mass of the system? =-
(a 2 - b 2 )
y 31. The centre of mass of a body
(0,a) (1) Lies always at the geometrical centre
(2) Lies always inside the body
x (3) Lies always outside the body
O (a,0)
(4) May lie within or outside the body
æa aö æ a a ö Ans. 4
(1) ç , ÷ (2) ç , ÷
è 2 2ø è 2 2ø Sol. Com of a body may lie within or outside the body
32. The position of the centre of mass of a cube of
æ 2a 2a ö æa aö uniform mass density will be at
(3) ç , ÷ (4) ç , ÷
è 3 3 ø è 3 3ø (1) The centre of one face
Ans. 4 (2) The centre of the interaction of diagonals
of one face.
æa aö
Sol. (x cm, ycm ) = ç , ÷ (3) The geometric centre of the cube
è3 3ø
29. Photoelectric emmision occurs only when the (4) The edge of a cube
incident light has ____ more than a certain minimum Ans. 3
(1) Power (2) Wavelength Sol. Com of cube is at geometrical centre
(3) Intensity (4) Frequency 33. The reduces mass of two particles having masses
m and 2 m is
Ans. 4
(1) 2m (2) 3m
Sol. Frequency of incident radiations should be more
that threshold frequency. ( u ³ u0 ) 2m m
(3) (4)
30. A uniform circular disc of radius a is taken. A 3 2
circular portion of radius b has been removed from Ans. 3
its as shown in the figure. If the centre of hole is at
a distance c from the centre of the disc, the distance m1m 2 2
x2 of the centre of mass of the remaining part from Sol. m = m + m = 3 m
1 2
the initial centre of mass O is given by:
a
O b
O2 O1 x-axis
x2 c
6/25
3 3
34. Three particles of masses 1 kg, kg , and 2 kg 4 ´1 - 1´
2 Sol. x cm = 2 =5
are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle (4 - 1) 6
of side a. The x, y coordinates of the centre of
mass are y
æa 3 ö
2kg çç , a ÷÷
è2 2 ø
2 C1
x
0 2
3
kg 3
1kg 2
(0,0) (a,0) 4 ´ 1 - 1´
ycm = 2 =5
4 -1 6
æ 5a 2a ö æ 2a 5a ö
(1) ç , ÷ (2) ç , ÷
è 9 3 3ø è3 3 9 ø SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)
˜ This section contains 15 questions.
æ 5a 2a ö æ 2a 5a ö
(3) ç , ÷ (4) ç , ÷ ˜ Attempt any 10 questions.
è 9 3ø è 3 9 ø
˜ For each question, darken the bubble corresponding
Ans. 1 to the correct option in the ORS.
3 a 5a ˜ For each question, marks will be awarded in one
0+ a +2
x cm = 2 2 = 2 = 5a of the following categories :
Sol. 9 9 9 Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
2 2 corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
2 3
0+0+ a Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
2 2 3 2
ycm = = a= a 36. The centre of mass of a system of two particles of
9 9 3 3 masses m1 and m2 is at a distance d1 from m1 and
2 at a distance d2 from mass m2 such that
35. The x,y coordinates of the centre of mass of a
uniform L-shaped lamina of mass 3 kg is d1 m 2 d1 m1
(1) = (2) =
y d 2 m1 d2 m2
d1 m1 d1 m2
(3) d = m + m (4) d = m + m
2 1 2 2 1 2
2m
Ans. 1
x com
2m m1 m2
Sol.
d1 d2
æ5 5 ö m1d1 = m2d2
(1) ç m, m ÷ (2) (1m, 1m)
è6 6 ø d1 m 2
=
æ6 6 ö d 2 m1
(3) ç m, m ÷ (4) (2m, 2m)
è5 5 ø
Ans. 1
7/25
37. Two particles A and B initially at rest move towards
r m(2iˆ + 2ˆj) ˆ ˆ
each other under a mutual force of atraction. At Sol. v cm = =i+ j
the instnat when the speed of A is v and speed of 2m
B is 2v. The speed of centre of mass of the system
r m(3iˆ + 3j)
ˆ +0 3
is a cm = = (iˆ + ˆj)
2m 2
(1) Zero (2) v
r r
(3) 1.5 v (4) 3v Q vcm a cm
Ans. 1 they move along straight line
41. A child is standing at one end of a long trolley
Sol. n cm = 0 moving with a speed v on a smooth horizontal floor.
Q there is no external force acting. If the child starts running towards the other end of
38. Two particles of mass 1 kg and 3 kg have position the trolley with a speed u, the centre of mass of
the system (trolley + child) will move with a speed
vectors 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ and - 2iˆ + 3jˆ - 4kˆ
(1) Zero (2) (v + u)
respectively. The centre of mass has a position
vector of (3) (v – u) (4) v
(1) î + 3jˆ - 2kˆ (2) -î - 3jˆ - 2kˆ Ans. 4
Sol. Since no external force is acting on the system.
(3) -î + 3jˆ + 2kˆ (4) -î + 3jˆ - 2kˆ So, com of the system will move with ‘v’
Ans. 4 42. Two masses m1 = 1 kg and m2 = 2 kg are
r r connected by a light inextensible string and
r m1 r1 + m2 r2 suspended by means of a weightless pulley as
r
Sol. cm = shown in the figure. Assuming that both the masses
m1 + m 2
start from rest, the distance travelled by the centre
1(2iˆ + 3jˆ + 4k)
ˆ + 3( -2iˆ + 3jˆ - 4k)
ˆ of mass in two seconds is (take g = 10 ms–2)
=
4
-4iˆ + 12ˆj - 8kˆ
=
4
= -î + 3jˆ - 2kˆ
39. The velocity of centre of mass of the system
remains constant, if the total external force acting
on the system is m1
(1) Minimum (2) Maximum 1kg
m2 2kg
(3) Unity (4) Zero
Ans. 4 20 40
r (1) m (2) m
Sol. Fext = 0, vcom = constant 9 9
40. Two particles of equal mass have velocities 2 1
r r (3) m (4) m
v1 = 2iˆ ms-1 and v 2 = 2ˆj ms -1 . First particle has 3 3
r
an acceleration a1 = (3iˆ + 3j) ˆ ms -2 while the Ans. 1
acceleration of the other particle is zero. The centre g
of mass of the two particles moves in a path of Sol. a =
3
(1) Straight line (2) Parabola
(3) Circle (4) Ellipse 1´ g - 2´ g
a com = 3 3 = -g
Ans. 1 3 9
1 20
S= a com t 2 = m
2 9
8/25
43. A uniform metal sheet is cut in the form of letter T A1 x1 - A 2 x 2
as shown. The distance of centre of mass of this x cm =
plate from O is A1 - A 2
2m a 2 æ -a ö
0- ç ÷
4è 4 ø a
= =
3m
3 2 12
a
4
8m
2m
O a
ycm =
6m 12
\d = x 2 + b2
2a
2 4 =
(1) m (2) m 12
7 7 45. Mass 1 Kg each are placed at the corners G and E
of a uniform square plate ACEG. A mass of 2Kg is
19 27
(3) m (4) m to be placed on the plate so that the centre of mass
7 7 of the system should be at the centre O. Then the
Ans. 3 mass should be placed at
Sol. A1 = 16 m2 A2 = 12 m2 G F E
(x1, y1) = (1,0) (x2,y2) = (5, 0)
A1 x1 + A 2 x 2 H D
x cm O
A1 + A 2
19 A B C
= m
7
(1) B (2) D
44. A square of side a and uniform thickness is divided
into 4 equal squares. If one of them is cut off, the (3) F (4) H
distance of centre of gravity of the remaining part Ans. 1
from the centre of the original square is Sol. 2 kg should be placed at B
46. Four particles, each of mass m, are placed at the
corners of a square of side ‘a’ in the X-Y plane. If
a the origin of the co-ordinate system is taken at the
point of intersection of the diagonals of the square,
the co-ordinates of the centre of mass of the system
are
a
(1) (a, a) (2) (–a, a)
a a
(1) (2) (3) (a, –a) (4) (0, 0)
12 8
Ans. 4
a 2a y
(3) (4) m m
16 12
Ans. 4
x
a2 Sol.
Sol. A1 = a 2
A2 = (0,0)
4
m m
æ -a -a ö com = (0, 0)
(x1,y1) = (0,0) (x2,y2) = ç , ÷
è 4 4 ø
9/25
47. From a uniform circular plate of diameter 1m,

circular portion of diameter 0.5 m is cut out as
shown in the figure. Then the position of centre of 2
mass from the centre of original plate (OG2) Sol. 4 C1 C2
(0,0) (6,0)
G2 G1
A1 = p(4)2 A 2 = p(2) 2
O
A1 x1 + A 2 x 2
x cm =
A1 + A 2
1 5 p´ 4 ´ 6 24
(1) m (2) m = = = 1.2cm
12 12 20p 20
49. The coordinates of the centre of mass of a system
3 1 is shown in figure.
(3) m (4) m
4 4
Y
Ans. 1
solid M
(0,2a)
sphere
1
4
1
hollow M M disk
Sol. m
2 sphere
(0,0) (a/2,0)
pr 2
A1 = pr 2 A2 =
4
æa aö æa aö
æ1 ö (1) ç , ÷ (2) ç , ÷
(0,0) ç ,0 ÷ è 3 3ø è 2 2ø
è4 ø
æ a 2a ö æ aö
pr 2 1 (3) ç , ÷ (4) ç 0, ÷
0- ´ è6 3 ø è 3ø
x cm = 4 4 =- 1 m
3 2 12 Ans. 3
pr
4 a
M´0+ M´ + M´0
48. Two uniform circular discs of radii 4 cm and 2 cm Sol. x cm = 2
respectively are attached as shown in the figure. 3M
The centre of mass of the system from C1 is
a
=
6
0 + 0 + M ´ 2a
C1 C2 ycm =
3M
2a
(1) 1 cm (2) 2 cm =
3
(3) 1.2 cm (4) 1.4 cm
Ans. 3
10/25
50. Centre of mass of uniform half ring and uniform 53. Which of the following is an example of associated
half disc will be respectively at following distance colloid ?
from their centre: (1) Protein in water (2) Soap in water
2R 4R 4R 2R (3) Rubber in benzene (4) FeCl3 in H2O
(1) , (2) , Ans. 2
p 3p 3p p
Sol. Conceptual
2R 2R 2R 3R 54. Which of the following is not a gel?
(3) , (4) ,
p 3p p 4p (1) Cheese (2) Jellies
Ans. 1 (3) Curd (4) Milk
2R Ans. 4
Sol. com of half ring = Sol. Milk is an emulsion
p
55. Hardy- Schulze law states that
4R
com of half disc = (1) Solution must have higher gold number
3p
(2) Disperse phase and dispersion medium must be
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) of the same sign
This section contains 35 questions. (3) Micelles coagulate in presence of surfactants
For each question, darken the bubble (4) The ions carrying more opposite charge to that
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. of Sol particle are effective in coagulation
For each question, marks will be awarded in one Ans. 4
of the following categories : Sol. Coagulating power a charge
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble 56. The method usually employed for the destruction of
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. a colloidal solution is
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is (1) Dialysis
darkened. (2) Addition of electrolytes
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (3) Diffusion through animal membrane
51. The size of particles in suspension, true solution and (4) Condensation
colloidal solution varies in the order Ans. 2
(1) Suspension > colloidal > true solution Sol. By addition of electrolytes
(2) True solution > suspension > colloidal 57. Colloids can be purified by
(3) Suspension > colloidal = true solution (1) Condensation (2) Peptization
(4) Suspension = colloid = true solution (3) Co-agulation (4) Dialysis
Ans. 1 Ans. 4
Sol. True solution < colloidal solution < suspension Sol. It is a method to purify
58. Protective sols are
¯
(1) Lyophilic (2) Lyophobic
< 10-9 m 10-6 m - 10-9 m > 10-6 m (3) Both 1 & 2 (4) None of these
52. Which of the following statements is incorrect Ans. 1
regarding physissorptions ? Sol. Lyophilic sols are protective sols
(1) Under high pressure it results into multi 59. Select incorrect statement
molecular layer on adsorbent surface
(1) Micelles are associated colloids
(2) Enthalpy of adsorption (DH adsorption ) is low and (2) The electrical charge on a colloidal particle is
positive indicated by electrophoresis
(3) It occurs because of Van der Waal’s forces (3) Formation of micelles takes place above Kraft
(4) More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed temperature
readily (4) Formation of micelles takes place below CMC
Ans. 2 Ans. 4
Sol. Formation of micelles takes place above CMC
11/25
60. The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of oils is

(1) Fe (2) Ni
x x
(3) CuCl2 (4) V2O 5 m
(3) m
Ans. 2
Sol. Conceptual T T
61. Shape selective catalysis is a reaction catalysed by
(1) Enzymes x x
(4) m m
(2) Ziegler-Natta catalyst
(3) Zeolites T T
(4) Platinum Ans. 2
Ans. 3 Sol. Conceptual
Sol. Zeolite is shape selective catalyst 66. Small liquid droplets dispersed in another liquid is
62. Peptization involves :- called
(1) Precipitation of colloidal particles (1) Suspension (2) Emulsion
(2) Disintegration of colloidal aggregates (3) Gel (4) True solution
(3) Purification of colloids Ans. 2
(4) Impact of molecules of the dispersion medium Sol. Liq in liq is emulsion.
on the colloidal particles 67. Blue colour of the sky is due to
Ans. 2 (1) Absorption of light by dust particles
Sol. In peptization, suspended state converts into colloidal (2) Reflection of light by dust particles
state (3) Scattering of light by dust particles
63. An emulsifying agent is a substance which (4) Presence of clouds
(1) Stabilizes the emulsion Ans. 3
(2) De-stabilizes the emulsion Sol. Due to scattering of light by dust particles
(3) Co-agulated the emulsion 68. Adsorption is multilayer in case of :
(4) Breaks the interfacial film between suspended (1) Physical adsorption (2) Chemisorption
particle and medium
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) H2 on Ni surface
Ans. 1
Ans. 1
Sol. Emulsifying agent stabilizes the emulsion.
Sol. Conceptual
64. Which one of the following is not represented by
sols 69. Reversible adsorption is :
(1) Adsorption (2) Tyndall effect (1) Chemical adsorption (2) Physical adsorption
(3) Flocculation (4) Paramagnetism (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
Ans. 4 Ans. 2
Sol. Conceptual Sol. Conceptual
65. Select correct adsorption isobars for chemisorption 70. The effect of pressure on adsorption is high if :
and physisorption respectively : (1) Temperature is low
(2) Temperature is high
x x (3) Temperature is very high
m m (4) No effect of pressure on adsorption
(1)
Ans. 1
T T
Sol. Conceptual
x x
(2) m m
T T
12/25
76. A catalyst in the finely divided form is most effective
éxù because :
71. A plot of log ê ú against log P for the adsorption
ëmû (1) Less surface area is available
of a gas on a solid gives a straight line with slope (2) More active sites are formed
equal to :
(3) More energy gets stored in the catalyst
1 (4) None of these
(1) (2) N
n Ans. 2
(3) Log K (4) K Sol. Conceptual
Ans. 1 77. Which statements about catalyst is universally
1 correct ?
x
Sol. = KP n (1) A catalyst does not take part in reaction
m (2) A catalyst changed physically and chemically
x 1 at the end of reaction
log = log K + log P (3) A catalyst changes the energy of activation
m n
(4) A catalyst is highly specific in action
1 Ans. 3
Slope =
n Sol. Conceptual
72. Adsorption of a gas on solid metal surface is 78. Which of the following has minimum flocculation
spontaneous and exothermic, then for gas : value for positively charged sol?
(1) DH increases (2) DS decreases (1) CI - (2) SO 24-
(3) DS increases (4) DG increases
(3) PO34- (4) [Fe(CN) 6 ]4 -
Ans. 2
Sol. Conceptual Ans. 4
73. Which is correct in case of van der walls adsorption? Sol. For positive charge colloids coagulating
(1) High temperature, low pressure power coagulation value ¯ .[Fe(CN)6]4-
(2) High temperature, high pressure 79. On adding AgNO3 solution into KI solution, a
(3) Low temperature, low pressure negatively charged colloidal sol is obtained when
they are in :
(4) Low temperature, high pressure
(1) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50mL of 0.1 M KI
Ans. 4
Sol. Conceptual
74. In Freundlich adsorption equation x/m = kp1/n, the (4) Both 1 & 3
value of n is :
Ans. 2
(1) Zero to one
(2) Always smaller than one Sol. AgNO3 + KI ® AgI(s) + KNO3
(3) Always equal to one 5 ´10-3 10 ´ 10-3
(4) Greater than one at low temperature and smaller
than one at high temperature 0 5 ´10-3 5 ´10-3
Ans. 1 AgI(s) + I- ® AgI : I -
Sol. Conceptual 80. The gold numbers of protective colloids A,B,C and
75. An inhibitor is essentially : D are 0.04, 0.004, 10 and 40 respectively. The
(1) A negative catalyst protective powers of A, B,C and D are in the order:
(2) A heterogeneous catalyst (1) A > B > C > D (2) B > A > C > D
(3) An auto catalyst (3) D > C > A > B (4) D > C > B > A
(4) A homogeneous catalyst Ans. 2
Ans. 1 Sol. Smaller is the ‘gold number’ of protective colloid,
Sol. Conceptual greater is its protective power.
13/25
81. Gold number is associated with : SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)

(1) Protective colloids This section contains 15 questions.
(2) Denaturation of caseins Attempt any 10 questions.
(3) Electrophoresis For each question, darken the bubble
(4) Amount of pure gold corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
Ans. 1 For each question, marks will be awarded in one
Sol. Protective colloids have gold number. of the following categories :
82. Smoke is a colloidal sol of : Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble
(1) Gas dispersed in a solid corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
(2) Solid dispersed in a gas Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
(3) Solid dispersed in a liquid darkened.
(4) Gas dispersed in a liquid Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
Ans. 2 86. The critical micelle concentration (CMC) is defined
Sol. Solid dispersed in a gas is called aerosol e.g., smoke as :
83. Which is not a colloid? (1) The concentration at which micellization starts
(1) Chlorophyll (2) Ruby glass (2) The concentration at which micelle starts
(3) Milk (4) Egg behaving like an electrolyte
Ans. 1 (3) The concentration at which dispersed phase is
separated from dispersion medium
Sol. Chlorophyll is compound.
(4) The concentration at which a colloid is converted
84. Fog is an example of colloidal system of : to suspension
(1) Liquid in gas (2) Gas in liquid Ans. 1
(3) Solid in gas (4) Gas in solid Sol. Conceptual
Ans. 1 87. Why is gelatin mixed with gold sol?
Sol. Conceptual (1) Gold sol is lyophobic sol, gelatin acts as stabilising
85. Which of the following is not correctly matched? agent
(1) Gelatin-Lyophilic colloid (2) Gold sol a lyophilic sol, gelatin acts as stabilising
(2) Gold sol-Lyophilic colloid agent
(3) Arsenious sulphide-Lyophobic colloid (3) Gelatin produces negative charge on gold
(4) Ferric hydroxide-Lyophobic colloid particles in gold sol.
Ans. 2 (4) Gelatin helps gold sol to get its critical micelle
concentration
Sol. Conceptual
Ans. 1
Sol. Conceptual
88. Why is ferric hydroxide colloid positively charged
when prepared by adding ferric chloride to hot
water?
(1) Due to precipitation of ferric hydroxide there is
an excess of Fe3+ ions.
(2) Due to preferential adsorption of Fe3+ ions by
the sol of Fe(OH)3
(3) Due to absence of any negatively charged ion.
(4) Due to adsorption of OH- and CI- ions. the
remaining sol has only Fe3+ ions.
Ans. 2
Sol. Conceptual
14/25
89. Brownian movement is due to Sol. Fe3+ ion coagulated-ve sol particles of blood and
(1) Unbalanced bombardment of D.P. particles over seals the cut.
D.M. particles 95. Colloidal solution commonly used in treatment of
(2) Unbalanced bombardment of D.M. particles eye disease is :
over D.P. particles (1) Colloidal sulphur (2) Colloidal silver
(3) Balanced bombardment of D.P. particles over (3) Colloidal gold (4) Colloidal antimony
D.M. particles Ans. 2
(4) Balanced bombardment of D.M. particles over Sol. Because of larger surface area in colloidal state,
D.P. particles adsorption is more, also it acts as germ killer.
[D.P. = Dispersed phase 96. Which of the following is an anionic degergent ?
D.M. = Dispersed medium] (1) Sodium stearate
Ans. 2 (2) Sodium lauryl sulphate
Sol. Conceptual. (3) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide
90. On addition 1 mL of 10% NaCl solution to 10mL (4) Glyceryl oleate
gold sol in the presence of 0.025 g of starch, the
Ans. 2
coagulation is just prevented. Starch has gold
number :- 97. The potential difference between the fixed charged
layer and the diffused layer having opposite charge
(1) 25 (2) 2.5
is called :
(3) 0.025 (4) 0.25
(1) Zeta potential (2) Colloidal potential
Ans. 1
(3) Streaming potential (4) Dorn potential
91. ZSM-5 is used to convert :
Ans. 1
(1) Alcohol to petrol (2) Benzene to toluene
Sol. Conceptual
(3) Toluene to benzene (4) Heptane to toluene
98. Medicines are more effective if they are used in :
Ans. 1
(1) Colloidal state (2) Solid state
Sol. ZSM-5 acts as an effective catalyst to convert
(3) Solution state (4) None of these
alcohol to alkanes (petrol).
Ans. 1
92. Gas masks containing activated charcoal to remove
poisonous gases from atmosphere acts on the Sol. Conceptual
principle of : 99. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols
(1) Adsorption (2) Absorption because :
(3) Sorption (4) All of these (1) The colloidal particles have positive charge
Ans. 1 (2) The colloidal particles have no charge
Sol. The application of adsorption (3) The colloidal particles are solvated
93. The use of alum in purifying muddy water involves: (4) There are strong electrostatic repulsions
between the negatively charged colloidal
(1) Absorption (2) Adsorption
particles
(3) Dialysis (4) Coagulation
Ans. 3
Ans. 4
Sol. Conceptual
Sol. Alum having multivalent different ions and thus is
100. 3.6 g of oxygen is adsorbed on 1.2g of metal powder.
very good coagulating agent.
What volume of oxygen adsorbed per gram of the
94. Bleeding is stopped by the application of ferric adsorbent at 1 atm and 273k ?
chloride. This is because
(1) 0.19 Lg–1 (2) 1 Lg–1
(1) The blood starts flowing in the opposite direction –1
(3) 2.1 Lg (4) 0.09 Lg–1
(2) The blood reacts and a solid is formed which
Ans. 3
seals the blood vessel
(3) The blood is coagulated and the blood vessel is
sealed
(4) The ferric chloride seals the blood vessel
Ans. 3
15/25
3.6 104. Size of the vascular bundles in the dorsiventral leaf
Sol. Mass of O2 per gram of adsorbent = = 3. No.
1.2 will be
3 (1) Independent of the size of veins
of moles of O2 per gram of adsorbent = . Volume (2) Wider than the size of the veins
32
3 0.0821 ´ 273 (3) More than the size of the veins
of O2 per gram of adsorbent = ´ (4) Depenednt on the size of the veins
32 1
Ans. 4
= 2.1 Lg–1
Sol. NCERT - 93
105. What is the position of xylem in the dicot leaf vertical
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) section
This section contains 35 questions. (1) Towards abaxial epidermis
For each question, darken the bubble (2) Towards adaxial epidermis
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. (3) Next to cambium
For each question, marks will be awarded in one (4) Below the phloem
of the following categories : Ans. 2
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble Sol. NCERT - 93
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. 106. What condition of the cells in the leaf, makes the
leaf curl inwards during water stress
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
(1) Flaccid (2) Partially turgid
darkened.
(3) Fully turgid (4) Swollen
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases
Ans. 1
101. Ring like arrangement of vascular bundles is a
characteristic feature of Sol. NCERT - 94
(1) Monocot stem (2) Dicot stem 107. From the following pick all the correct statements
related to monocot stem
(3) Dicot leaf (4) Monocot leaf
i. Water containing cavities are present within
Ans. 2
vascular bundles
Sol. NCERT - 93
ii. Vascular bundles are conjoint and open
102.Pith Region in the dicot stem is composed of
iii. Sclerenchymatous Hypodermis
(1) Rounded parenchymatous cells without
iv. Less number of scattered vascular bundles
intercellular spaces
v. Large Conspicuous parenchymatous ground
(2) Disc shaped parenchymatous cells with small
tissue
intercellular spaces
(1) i, iii, v (2) i, iii, iv, v
(3) Round shaped parenchymatous cells with
large intercellular spaces (3) i, ii, iii, v (4) i, ii, iii, iv, v
(4) Oval shaped parenchymatous cells without Ans. 1
intercellular spaces Sol.NCERT - 93
Ans. 3 108. Meristematic layer that is responsible for cutting
Sol. NCERT - 93 off vascular tissue xylem and phloem is
103. Monocotyledonous stem are devoide of (1) Cork cambium
(1) Phloem parenchyma (2) Intrafascicular cambium only
(2) Hypodermis (3) Vascular cambium
(3) Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath (4) Inter fascicular cambium only
(4) Conjoint and closed vascular bundles Ans. 3
Ans. 1 Sol. NCERT - 94
Sol. NCERT - 93
16/25
109. Intrafascicular cambium in young dicot stems is 115. All Tissue exterior to the vascular cambium is called
found as (1) Cork (2) Bark
(1) Patches in couple layers between xylem and (3) Phellem (4) Phloem
phloem
Ans. 2
(2) Patches in single layer between xylem and
Sol. NCERT - 97
phloem
116. Which cells produced by the phellogen are
(3) Continuous layer
responsible for lenticel formation
(4) Patches in between vascular bundles
(1) Cork cells
Ans. 2
(2) Phellem
Sol. NCERT - 95
(3) Collenchyma cells
110. Secondary medullary rays formed during secondary
(4) Parenchymatous cells
growth in dicot plants are composed of
Ans. 4
(1) Xylem fibres (2) Xylem tracheids
Sol. NCERT - 97
(3) Sclerenchyma (4) Parenchyma
117. Pick the odd one with respect to secondary growth
Ans. 4
(1) Dicot stem (2) Dicot root
Sol. NCERT - 95
(3) Gymnosperm roots (4) Monocot root
111. Formation of annual rings in Trees is because of
Ans. 4
(1) Uniform climate conditions in temperature
regions Sol. NCERT - 98
(2) Uniform climate conditions in tropical regions 118. In Transverse section of dicot stem which layer is
made up of sclerenchyma and is present as semi
(3) Uniform climate conditions in coastal areas
lunar patches ?
(4) Non uniform climate conditions in temperate
(1) Hypodermis (2) Cambium
regions
(3) Pericycle (4) Cortex
Ans. 4
Ans. 3
Sol. NCERT - 96
Sol. NCERT - 90
112. What is the nature of early wood
119. On what basis monocot root is similar to dicot
(1) Lighter coloured with higher density
root
(2) Darker coloured with lower density
(1) Casparian strips
(3) Lighter coloured with lower density
(2) Larger pith
(4) Darker coloured with higher density
(3) More vascular bundles
Ans. 3
(4) Secondary growth
Sol. NCERT - 96
Ans. 1
113. In odd trees, greater part of secondary xylem is
Sol. NCERT - 91
composed of
120. Radial vascular bundles are found in
(1) Sap wood
(1) Dicot stem (2) Monocot roots
(2) Manoxylic wood
(3) Only dicot roots (4) Dicot leef
(3) Heart wood
Ans. 2
(4) Heteroxylous wood
121. Trichomes in the shoot system are
Ans. 3
(1) Always Branched (2) Never secretory
114. Phellogen is composed of
(3) Usually multicellular (4) Always soft
(1) Narrow, Thin walled and nearly rectangular
cells Ans. 3
(2) Broad, Thick walled cells and nearly spherical Sol. NCERT - 89
cells 122. Cell with Thin outerwalls and Thick Inner walls
(3) Broad, Thin walled cells and nearly oval cells which posses chloroplast belongs to
(4) Narrow, Thick walled cells and Rectangular (1) Hypodermis (2) Endodermis
cells (3) Cortex (4) Stomata
Ans. 1 Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT - 96 Sol. NCERT - 89
17/25
123. Phloem parenchyma is absent in 130. Complex permanent tissue is absent in

(1) Dicot stem (1) Gametophyte of gymnosperms
(2) Dicot root (2) Gametophyte of angiosperms
(3) Gymnosperm stem (3) Gametophyte of pteridophytes
(4) Monocot Leaf (4) All Gametophytes
Ans. 4 Ans. 4
Sol. NCERT - 88 Sol. Allen module
124. Pressure gradient in the sieve tubes is maintained 131. Xylem fibres are abundantly found in
by (1) Primary xylem of angiosperms
(1) Sieve tube elements (2) Primary xylem of Gymnosperms
(2) Phloem parenchyma (3) Secondary xylem of angiosoperms
(3) Companion cells (4) Xylem of dicot leaf
(4) Sieve cells Ans. 3
Ans. 3 Sol. Allen module
Sol. NCERT - 88 132. Conducting elements of phloem is called
125. Seed coats of legumes commonly have (1) Hadrome (2) Bast fibres
(1) Fibres (2) Sclereids (3) Leptome (4) Companion cells
(3) Only parenchyma (4) Only collenchyma Ans. 3
Ans. 2 Sol. Allen module
Sol. NCERT - 87 133. Conjoint , bicollateral and open vascular bundles are
126. In which of the plant apical Meristem is made up of found in
single cell ? (1) Cucurbita stem (2) Sunflower stem
(1) Lower pteridophytes (3) Sunflower root (4) Maize stem
(2) Higher pteridophytes Ans. 1
(3) Lower Gymnosperms Sol. Allen module
(4) Higher Gymnosperms 134. In sunflower root formation of vascular cambium is
Ans. 1 partially contributed by
Sol. Allen module (1) Pericycle above phloem
127. According to histogen theory plerome region of (2) Pericycle above metaxylem
Histogen is known to form (3) Pericycle above protoxylem
(1) Epidermis (2) General cortex (4) Pericycle below phloem
(3) Stele (4) Endodermis Ans. 3
Ans. 3 135. Undifferentiated Ground Tissue is found in
Sol. Allen module (1) Dicot stem (2) Monocot stem
128. Quiescent center was discovered by clowes in which (3) Dicot root (4) Monocot root
plant
Ans. 2
(1) Maize root (2) Mustard root
Sol. Allen module
(3) Hibscus root (4) Sunflower root
Ans. 1
Sol. Allen module
129. Prosenchyma is found in
(1) Endodermis
(2) Pericycle of roots
(3) Hypodermis
(4) Vascular bundle sheath
Ans. 2
Sol. Allen module
18/25
SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) (4) Loose parenchyma - Spongy parenchyma

This section contains 15 questions. cells rupturing the
Attempt any 10 questions. epidermis and forms
For each question, darken the bubble lense shaped opening
corresponding to the correct option in the ORS. in bark
For each question, marks will be awarded in one Ans. 3
of the following categories : Sol. NEET - 2021
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble 141. Match the following
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. A. Stellate parenchyma 1. Buoyancy
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is B. Mucilage parenchyma 2. Leaf Bases of
darkened. Banana
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases C. Aerenchyma 3. Water storage
D. Idioblast cells 4. Waste Material
storage
136. Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells
of A B C D
(1) Pericycle (2) Medullary rays 1 2 3 1 4
(3) Xylem parenchyma (4) Endodermis 2 4 1 2 3
Ans. 2 3 2 3 4 1
Sol. NEET - 2013 4 3 4 2 1
137. Water containing cavities in vascular bundles are Ans. 1
found in Sol. Allen module
(1) Cycas (2) Pinus 142. Bast - fibres are obtained from which part of woody
(3) Sunflower (4) Maize stem ?
Ans. 4 (1) Cork (2) Cortex
Sol. AIPMT - 2012 (3) Xylem (4) Phloem
138. Specialised epidermal cells surounding the Guard Ans. 4
cells are called Sol. Allen module
(1) Complementary cells (2) Subsidary cells 143. Growth of leaf primordia is
(3) Bulliform cells (4) Lenticels (1) First apical then marginal
Ans. 2 (2) Only apical
Sol. NEET - 2016 (3) Only marginal
139. Stomata in Grass leaves are (4) Lateral
(1) Dumb - bell shaped (2) Kidney shaped Ans. 1
(3) Rectangular (4) Barrel shaped 144. Match the followin
Ans. 1 A. Parenchyma 1. Living mechanical
Sol. NEET - 2018 support
140. Select the correct pair B. Collenchyma 2. Storage
(1) Large colourless empty - Subsidary cells C. Sclerenchyma fibres 3. Fruit walls of Nuts
cells in the epidermis D. Sclereids 4. Coir of coconut
of Grass leaves
A B C D
(2) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive cells
1 2 1 4 3
bundles are surrounded
2 1 2 4 3
by large thick walled
3 2 1 3 4
cells
4 1 2 3 4
(3) Cells of medullary rays - Inter fascicular
that form part of cambial cambium Ans. 1
ring
19/25
145. Match the following 149. The diagram below is a three-dimensional
A. Pericycle fibres (Bast) 1. Boehmeria representation of a cell found in many plant roots
nivea
Suberised and lignified region
B. Phloem fibres 2. Sunn Hemp
C. Longest fibres 3. Flax
D. Wood fibres 4. Saccharum
munja
A B C D
1 4 3 2 1
2 3 2 1 4
3 2 3 1 4
4 1 2 3 4 Which one of the following description applies to
Ans. 2 the cell shown above ?
146. Match the following (1) A xylem vessel, produced during secondary
thickening
A. Tetrach xylem 1. dorsiventral leaf
(2) A phellogen cell with a thickened wall
B. Polyarch xylem 2. dicot stem
(3) An endodermal cell with a casparian strips
C. Starch sheath 3. monocot root
(4) An immature sclerenchymatous fiber
D. Palisade mesophyll 4. dicot root
Ans. 3
A B C D 150. Observe the fibre (A-E) given below and select the
1 3 4 2 1 right option out of 1 - 4, in which all the five structure
2 3 4 1 2 A, B, C , D & E are identified correctly
3 4 3 1 2
4 4 3 2 1
Ans. 4
147. Pick the Incorrect pair A
(1) Xylem fibres - Obliterated central lumen
(2) Phloem fibres - Generally absent in primary
phloem
(3) Sieve tube - Dead syncyte
(4) Callose - b - (1 - 3) glucans B
Ans. 3
148. Which is not a character of monocot stem
(1) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
(2) Absence of pericycle
(3) Absence of multicellular hair
(4) Presence of endodermis
Ans. 4
20/25
152. The primary dentition in human differs from
permanent dentition in not having one of the
following types of teeth :
(1) Premolars (2) Molars
(3) Incisors (4) Canine
Ans. 1
153. Both the crown and root of a tooth is covered by a
layer of bony hard substance. It is called
D (1) Enamel (2) Dentine
(3) Bony socket (4) Cementum
Ans. 2
154. Ptyalin is an enzyme present in
(1) Gastric Juice (2) Pancreatic juice
(3) Intestinal Juice (4) Saliva
Ans. 4
155. HCl of gastric juice
(1) Inactivates ptyalin and activates pepsin
(2) Activates ptyalin and inactivates pepsin
E (3) Inactivates both ptyalin and pepsin
(4) Activates both ptyalin and pepsin.
Ans. 1
A B C D E
156. Choose the correct pair
Inter
Perforated Simple (1) Casein - Rennin
1 cellular Vacuole Lumen
end wall pits (2) Protein - Amylase
space
Inter (3) Carbohydrate - Lipase
Bordered Simple
2 cellular Vacuole Lumen (4) Lactose - Maltase
pits pits
space Ans. 1
Pit simple Bordered 157. The optimum pH for pepsin is:
3 Vacuole Protoplasm
cavity pits pits (1) 11 (2) 5 - 6
Cell Thickened Perforated
4 Pith Lumen (3) 1.6 - 2.4 (4) 4 - 7
wall corners end wall
Ans. 3
Ans. 2 158. Cystic duct comes out from the
(1) Gallbladder (2) Hepatic lobes
SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) (3) Pancreatic libes (4) Kidney
This section contains 35 questions. Ans. 1
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding 159. Brunner's glands are found in
to the correct option in the ORS. (1) Submucosa of stomach
For each question, marks will be awarded in one (2) Wall of rectum
of the following categories : (3) Submucosa of duodenum
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble (4) Mucosa of ileum
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. Ans. 3
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened. 160. Sphincter of Oddi guards
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (1) Hepato-pancreatic duct
151. Wisdom teeth in man are (2) Common bile duct
(1) Incisors (2) First premolar (3) Pancreatic duct
(3) Last molars (4) All (4) Cystic duct
Ans. 3 Ans. 1
21/25
161. Emulsification of fats by bile juice takes place in: 169. Which statement is true ?
(1) Liver (2) Stomach (1) By the contraction in diaphragm, volume of
(3) Oesophagus (4) Duodenum thoracic cavity increases dorso-ventrally.
Ans. 4 (2) By the contraction in diaphragm, volume of
thoracic cavity increases antero-posterior
162. Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal
axis.
portion of the small intestine are known as
(3) By the contraction in EICM, volume of
(1) Villi (2) Peyer's patches
thoracic cacity increases antero-posterior axis
(3) Rugae (4) Choroid plexus
(4) By the contraction in IICM, volume of
Ans. 2 thoracic cavity increases in antero-posterior
163. Which of the following statement is incorrect? axis.
(1) Faecal accumulation in the rectum initiates a Ans. 2
neural reflex causing an urge for its removal. 170. We have the ability to increase the strength of
(2) Reflex action for vomiting is controlled by forceful expiration by the contraction of which set
medulla. of muscles ?
(3) Irregular bowel movements causes A. Diaphragm
constipation B. EICM
(4) In diarrhoea the absorption of food get C. IICM
enhanced D. Abdominal muscles
Ans. 4 (1) A, B, C and D (2) A, C and D
164. The deficiency of which of the following vitamin (3) C and D (4) A and D
will cause xerophthalmia ? Ans. 3
(1) A (2) B 171. Which of the following muscles help to increase the
(3) C (4) K volume of thoracic cavity ?
Ans. 1 (1) Diaphragm and EICM
165. Anxiety and eating spicy food together in an (2) EICM and IICM
otherwise normal human, may lead to (3) Diaphragm and Abdominal muscles
(1) Diarrhoea (2) Vomiting (4) IICM and abdominal muscles
(3) Indigestion (4) Jaundice Ans. 1
Ans. 3 172. The total volume of air accommodated in the lungs
166. Which of the following is a common passage for at the end of forced inspiration is sum total of :
food and air ? (1) IRV + TV + ERV
(1) External nostrils (2) Oesophagus (2) ERV + TV + RV + IRV
(3) Trachea (4) Pharynx (3) TV + IRV
Ans. 4 (4) IRV + TV + RV
167. Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the.... Ans. 2
(1) End of thoracic cavity 173. Which of the following is primary muscle of
(2) Anterior of thoracic cavity inspiration ?
(3) End of the neck (1) Abdominal muscles
(4) Middle of the neck (2) Oblique muscles
Ans. 2 (3) Intercoastal muscles
168. Primary, secondary, tertiary bronchi and initial (4) Diaphragm
bronchioles are supported by : Ans. 4
(1) Complete cartilaginous rings
(2) Incomplete cartilaginous rings
(3) Complete chitinous rings
(4) Incomplete chitinous rings
Ans. 2
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174. The partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air and 180. Emphysema is characterised by
oxygenated blood respectively : (1) Permanent enlargement and destruction of
(1) 40 mm Hg, 45 mm Hg alveolar area leading to reduction in respiratory
(2) 104 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg surface
(3) 159 mm Hg, 104 mm Hg (2) Inhibition of respiratory centre
(4) 104 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg (3) Accumulation of fluid in lungs
Ans. 2 (4) Spasm of muscles of trachea
175. Which of the following statement is/are true ? Ans. 1
(1) Diffusion capacity of CO2 is 20-25 times 181. Nutritionally curd is more suitable then milk. Which
higher than that of O2 of the following reason not supporting to this view
(2) The solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher (1) It increasing vitamin B12
than that of O2 (2) It checks disease causing microbes
(3) The diffusion capacity of O2 is 20-25 times (3) LAB convert lactose into lactic acid
higher than that of CO2 (4) It provide additional proteins
(4) More than one statement are correct Ans. 4
Ans. 4 182. Large holes in "Swiss cheese" are due to production
176. Which of the following statement are/is true ? of large amount of CO2 by ............... bacterium
(1) Alveolar wall is one celled thick. (1) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
(2) The total thickness of diffusion membrane is (2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
much less than a millimeter. (3) Thermococcus proteus
(3) At the level of alveoli gaseous exchange (4) Staphylococcus thermophilus
occurs by simple diffusion.
Ans. 2
(4) All of these
183. Which of the following is not a product of distillation
Ans. 4
(1) Whisky (2) Brandy
177. Find out correct statement :
(3) Wine (4) Rum
(1) About 97 percent of O2 is transported by
Ans. 3
RBCs in the blood
184. Find out odd one with refrence to distillation
(2) About 90-93 percent of CO2 is transported
by RBCs is the blood (1) Beer (2) Wine
(3) About 7 percent of O2 and 3 percent of CO2 (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Vodka
is carried in dissolved form through plasma Ans. 4
(4) More than one are correct 185. Which of the following bacteria was associated with
Ans. 1 discovery of penicillin
178. The amount of O2 delivered by 100 ml blood to the (1) Streptococus
tissue under normal physiological condition : (2) Staphylococcus
(1) 200 ml (2) 5 ml (3) Saccharomyces cerveisiae
(3) 1.34 ml (4) 20 ml (4) Propionobacterium
Ans. 2 Ans. 2
179. Which of the following is incorrect about
occupational respiratory disorder ?
(1) It occurs in some industries, especially those
involving grinding or stone breaking
(2) Long exposure in such industries leads to
fibrosis (proliferation of fibrous tissues)
(3) Workers in such industries can be protected
from these disorders by wearing protective
masks
(4) It is an allergic disease always
Ans. 4
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SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) 190. Match the following

This section contains 15 questions. A. Citric acid i. Haemolytic
Attempt any 10 questions. streptococcus
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding B. Streptokinase ii. Aspergillus niger
to the correct option in the ORS. C. Cyclosporin - A iii. Monascus
purpureus
For each question, marks will be awarded in one
D. Statins iv. Trichoderma
of the following categories : polysporum
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble A B C D
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. (1) i ii iii iv
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened. (2) ii i iii iv
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases (3) ii i iv iii
186. Full potential of penicillin as an effective antibiotic (4) iv ii iii i
was established by
Ans. 3
(1) Alexander Flemming
191. Functioning of statin is based on
(2) Ernest chain
(1) Competitive inhibition
(3) Howard florey
(2) Endproduct inhibition
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) Allosteric inhibition
Ans. 4
(4) Negative feed back inhibition
187. Which of the following is "Clot buster"
Ans. 1
(1) Citric acid (2) Streptokinase
192. The technology of biogas production was developed
(3) Cyclosporin (4) Statins in India mainly due to efforts of
Ans. 2 (1) IARI (2) KVIC
188. Which of the following chemicals, used as an (3) IPM (4) Both (1) and (2)
immunosuppressive agent in organ transplantation
Ans. 4
(1) Streptokinase (2) Cyclosporin - A
193. Bacillus thuringiensis show their inhibitory effect
(3) Statins (4) Citric acid on which part of the insect body
Ans. 2 (1) Gut
189. Match the following (2) Respiratory tract
A. Pectinases i. Blood cholesterol (3) Nervous system
lowering agents
(4) Circulatory system
B. Streptokinases ii. Immunosuppressive
Ans. 1
agents
194. Which of the following biological agents are used
C. Cyclosporin - A iii. Clot-busters for species specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal
D. Statin iv. Clarifying agents applications
A B C D (1) Adenoviruses
(1) iv iii ii i (2) Nucleopolyhedrosis viruses
(2) iv iii i ii (3) Retroviruses
(3) iii iv ii i (4) Trichoderma
(4) i ii iii iv Ans. 2
Ans. 1
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198. Members of which of the following fungal genus
195. Which of the following is one of the advantage of mainly participate in the mycorrhiza formation
application of viruses as bioinsecticides
(1) Azotobacter (2) Fusarium
(1) They are less effective
(3) Rhizopus (4) Glomus
(2) They are host specific
Ans. 4
(3) They are costly
199. Which of the following is not an advantage of
(4) They can not obtain easily mycorrhiza
Ans. 2 (1) Phosphorus absorption
196. Assertion (A) : Gastrin is a hormone that is (2) Resistance to root borne pathogens
released from the gastrointestinal tract and helps in
digestion. (3) Nitrogen fixation
Reason (R) : It promotes secretion of HCl and (4) Tolerance to salinity and draught
trypsinogen. Ans. 3
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct 200. In which of the following conditions use of
explanation of A baculoviruses is desirable
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the (1) When they are used as part of IPM
correct explanation of A (2) When an ecologically sensitive area is being
(3) If A is true, but R is false treated
(4) If A is false, but R is true (3) When beneficial insects are being conserved
Ans. 3 (4) All of the above
197. Assertion (A) : In normal breathing, inspiration is Ans. 4
an active process.
Reason (R) : exspiration is facilitated by
contraction of diaphragm and external intercostal
muscles.
(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the
correct explanation of A
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If A is false, but R is true
Ans. 3
25/25

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PRE-MEDICAL - 2022

ENTHUSIAST REVISION TEST SERIES

TEST NO - 07 DATE : 16 - 01 - 2022

CHEMISTRY : SURFACE CHEMISTRY

BOTANY : ANATOMY IN FLOWERING PLANTS

ZOOLOGY : DIGESTION & ABSORPTION, BREATHING & EXCHANGE

OF GASES, MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE

TARGET : PRE - MEDICAL : 2022

ANSWER KEY & SOLUTION

SECTION – A : (Maximum Marks : 140) Ans. 1

(1) 0.4 ´ 10 6 ms - 1 (2) 61 ´ 10 3 ms - 1

(1) Ultraviolet region (2) Visible region

16. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 1014 Hz is

(3) 5 × 1014 (4) 5 × 1015

Sol. KE = hu - f [y = mx - c] 24. Doubly ionised helium atoms and hydrogen ions

47. From a uniform circular plate of diameter 1m,

60. The catalyst used in the hydrogenation of oils is

81. Gold number is associated with : SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40)

123. Phloem parenchyma is absent in 130. Complex permanent tissue is absent in

SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) (4) Loose parenchyma - Spongy parenchyma

SECTION – B : (Maximum Marks : 40) 190. Match the following

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