CHEMISTRY , PHYSICS, BIOLOGY

Time : - 3 Hours Max. Marks:- 720 Date : .................

INSTRUCTIONS :

1. The test is of 3 hours duration.

2. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Chemistry, Physics having 45 questions each
and Biology having 90 questions of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct
response. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction
from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be
treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly.

SYLLABUS
CHEMISTRY : SOME BASIC CONCEPTS IN CHEMISTRY, STATES OF MATTER - GASEOUS STATE, LIQUID STATE,
ATOMIC STRUCTURE, CHEMICAL BONDING AND MOLECULAR STRUCTURE.

PHYSICS : UNITS AND DIMENSIONS, KINEMATICS (MOTION IN 1D, PROJECTILE MOTION), LAWS OF MOTION.

BIOLOGY : DIVERSITY IN THE LIVING WORLD : THE LIVING WORLD, BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION, PLANT
KINGDOM ANIMAL KINGDOM.

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 PART A – CHEMISTRY Q.6 A compound contains 69.5% oxygen and
Q.1 The percentage composition of carbon by mole 30.5% nitrogen and its molecular weight is 92.
in methane is : The molecular formula of the compound is :
(1) 80% (2) 25% (1) N2O (2) NO2
(3) 75% (4) 20% (3) N2O4 (4) N2O5
Q.2 The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH3 is Q.7 The size of the iso-electronic species Cl–, Ar
approximately :- and Ca2+ is affected by -
(1) 1 × 1023 (2) 1.5 × 1023 (1) Principal quantum number of valence shell.
(3) 2 × 1023 (4) 6 × 1023 (2) Nuclear charge.
Q.3 For a reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) ; (3) Azimuthal quantum number of valence
identify dihydrogen (H2) as a limiting reagent shell.
in the following reaction mixtures. (4) Electron-electron interaction in the outer
(1) 14g of N2 + 4g of H2 orbitals
(2) 28g of N2 + 6g of H2 Q.8 The quantum number of four electrons are
(3) 56g of N2 + 10g of H2 given below -
(4) 35g of N2 + 8g of H2 I. n = 4,  = 2, m = –2, ms = – ½
Q.4 Which one of the following about an electron
II. n = 3,  = 2, m = 1, ms = + ½
occupying the 1s orbital in a hydrogen atom is
incorrect ? (The Bohr radius is represented by III. n = 4,  = 1, m = 0, ms = + ½
a0)
IV. n = 3,  = 1, m = 1, ms = – ½
(1) The electron can be found at a distance 2a0
from the nucleus. The correct order of their increasing energies
(2) The probability density of finding the will be -
electron is maximum at the nucleus. (1) IV < III < II < I (2) IV < II < III < I
(3) The magnitude of potential energy is double (3) I < II < III < IV (4) I < III < II < IV
that of its kinetic energy on an average. Q.9 In the vander wall's equation which will have
(4) The total energy of the electron is highest value of 'a' :-
maximum when it is at a distance a0 from (1) H2 (2) Ne2
the nucleus. (3) NH3 (4) He
Q.5 Which of the following diagram show correct Q.10 Which of the following mixtures of gases at
change in the ionic character of given room temperature does not obey Dalton's law
compounds according to Fajans rule ? of partial pressure ?
(1) He and O2 (2) NH3 and HCl
(3) H2 and He (4) N2 and He
Q.11 During change of O2 to O2– ion, the electron
adds on which one of the following orbitals ?
(1) σ* orbital (2) σ orbital
(3) π* orbital (4) π orbital

Q.12 The ion that has sp3d2 hybridization for the

central atom, is :

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
 (1) [ICl2]– (2) [IF6]– (1) 13.6% (2) 3.4%
(3) [ICl4]– (4) [BrF2]– (3) 34% (4) 1.7%
Q.13 The number of molecules present in 1 cm3 of Q.20 The shape of a molecule which has EB5L2
water is :- molecular formula :- {E = Central atom, B =
(1) 2.7 × 1019 (2) 3.3 × 1022 Terminal atom, L = Lone pair}
(3) 6.02 × 1020 (4) 1000 (1) Square pyramidal (2) Pentagonal planar
Q.14 Among the following molecules / ions, (3) Octahedral (4) Pentagonal
pyramidal
, which one is diamagnetic Q.21 At a given temperature T, gases Ne, Ar, Xe and
and has the shortest bond length? Kr are found to deviate from ideal gas
(1) C22– (2) N22– behaviour. Their equation of state is given as
(3) O2 (4) O22–
Q.15 Calculate the compressibility factor for SO2, if
1 mole of it occupies 0.35 L at 300 K and 50 at T. Here, b is the van der Waals
atm pressure : constant. Which gas will exhibit steepest
(1) 0.71 (2) 1 increase in the plot of Z (compression factor)
(3) 2 (4) 1.41 vs p?
Q.16 The correct order of Cl–O bond order is : (1) Ne (2) Ar
(1) ClO3– < ClO4– < ClO2– < ClO– (3) Xe (4) Kr
(2) ClO– < ClO4– < ClO3– < ClO2– Q.22 What would be the molality of 20%
(3) ClO– < ClO2– < ClO3– < ClO4– (mass/mass) aqueous solution of KI?
(4) ClO4– < ClO3– < ClO2– < ClO– (Molar mass of KI = 166 g mol–1)
Q.17 The correct statement about ICl5 and ICl4– is (1) 1.08 (2) 1.48
(1) ICl5 is trigonal bipyramidal and ICl4– is (3) 1.51 (4) 1.35
tetrahedral. Q.23 When 1L of CO2 is heated with graphite, the
(2) ICl5 is square pyramidal and ICl4– is volume of the gases collected is 1.8 L. What
tetrahedral. will be the number of moles of CO produced at
(3) ICl5 is square pyramidal and ICl4– is square STP ?
planar. (1) 0.0357 (2) 0.0714
(4) Both are isostructural. (3) 0.0803 (4) 14
Q.18 If p is the momentum of the fastest electron Q.24 At 300 K and 1 atmospheric pressure, 10 mL of
ejected from a metal surface after the a hydrocarbon required 55 mL of O2 for
irradiation of light having wavelength λ, then complete combustion and 40 mL of CO2 is
for 1.5 p momentum of the photoelectron, the formed. The formula of the hydrocarbon is :
wavelength of the light should be: (Assume (1) C4H8 (2) C4H7Cl
kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron to be (3) C4H10 (4) C4H6
very high in comparison to work function)
(1) (1/2) λ (2) (3/4) λ Q.25 The isoelectronic set of ions is :
(3) (2/3) λ (4) (4/9) λ (1) N3–, Li+, Mg2+ and O2–
(2) Li+, Na+, O2– and F–
Q.19 The strength of 11.2 volume solution of H2O2
(3) F–, Li+, Na+ and Mg2+
is :
(4) N3–, O2–, F– and Na+
[Given that molar mass of H = 1 g mol–1 and
O = 16 g mol–1]
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Q.26 The graph between |ψ|2 and r (radial distance)
is shown below. This represents :
(1) 3s orbital (2) 1s orbital
(3) 2p orbital (4) 2s orbital
Q.27 Points I, II and III in the following plot
respectively correspond to (Vmp : most
probable velocity)
(1) Vmp of N2 (300K); Vmp of H2 (300K);
Vmp of O2 (400K)
(2) Vmp of H2 (300K); Vmp of N2 (300K);
Vmp of O2 (400K)
(3) Vmp of O2 (400K); Vmp of N2 (300K);
Vmp of H2 (300K)
(4) Vmp of N2 (300K); Vmp of O2 (400K);
Vmp of H2 (300K)
Q.28 The minimum amount of O2(g) consumed per
gram of reactant is for the reaction :
(Given atomic mass : Fe = 56, O = 16, Mg =
24, P = 31, C = 12, H = 1)
(1) C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3 CO2(g) + 4 H2O ()
(2) P4(s) + 5O2(g) → P4O10(s)
(3) 4 Fe(s) + 3 O2(g) → 2FeO3(s)
(4) 2 Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)
Q.29 Which of the following contain maximum
number of carbon atoms?
(1) 15 gm ethane, C2H6
(2) 40.2 gm sodium oxalate, Na2C2O4
(3) 72 gm glucose, C6H12O6
(4) 35 gm pentene, C5H10
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Q.30 5 moles of AB2 weigh 125 × 10–3 kg and 10
moles of A2B2 weigh 300 × 10–3 kg. The molar
mass of A (MA) and molar mass of B (MB) in
kg mol–1 are
(1) MA = 50 × 10–3 and MB = 25 × 10–3
(2) MA = 25 × 10–3 and MB = 50 × 10–3
(3) MA = 5 × 10–3 and MB = 10 × 10–3
(4) MA = 10 × 10–3 and MB = 5 × 10–3
Q.31 How many electrons in an atom can have n = 3,
= 1, m = –1 and s = +½
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 6
Q.32 NH2–, NH3 and NH4+ do not show similarity in
the following :-
(1) Hybridisation state of nitrogen
(2) No. of lone pair of electrons
(3) Atomic no. of N
(4) Type of overlapping in N–H bond.
Q.33 If ionisation potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6
eV, then ionisation potential of He+ will be
(1) 54.4 eV (2) 6.8 eV
(3) 13.6 eV (4) 24.5 eV
Q.34 The correct order of bond angle
(1) PF3 < PCl3 < PBr3 > PI3
(2) PF3 < PCl3 < PBr3 < PI3
(3) PF3 > PCl3 > PBr3 > PI3
(4) PF3 > PCl3 < PBr3 > PI3
Q.35 Correct stability order for N2 & its given ions is
(1) N2 > N2+ > N2– > N22–
(2) N2– > N2+ > N2 > N22–
(3) N2+ > N2– > N2 > N22–
(4) N2 > N2+ = N2– > N22–
Q.36 Select systematic diagram which represent the
correct change in the Bond angle in the hybrid
orbital of beryllium :-
(1) (2)
 Q.44

(3) (4) Compare x and y bond angles for the above

Q.37 Which contains both polar and non-polar given molecules :-
covalent bonds : (1) y > x (2) x > y
(1) NH4Cl (2) HCN (3) x = y (4) None of these
(3) H2O2 (4) CH4 Q.45 The amount of sugar (C12H22O11) required to
Q.38 In which of the following species the hybrid prepare 2 L of its 0.1 M aqueous solution is :
state of the central atom is same? (1) 68.4 g (2) 17.1 g
(1) SO2, SO3 (2) SO3, SO42– (3) 34.2 g (4) 136.8 g
(3) SO2, SO32– (4) CH4, HCOOH
Q.39 What will be uncertainty in velocity of an e– if
uncertainty in its position is 1Å
PART B – PHYSICS
Q.46 Kinetic energy of a particle moving along
(1) 8.76 × 106 m/s (2) 5.76 × 105 m/s
(3) 5 × 10–24 m/s (4) 1 × 1023 m/s elliptical trajectory is given by K = α S2, where
Q.40 The frequency of first line of paschen series in S is the distance travelled by the particle. The
spectrum of Be+3 ion is :- dimensions of α are :-
(1) 7RC / 9 (2) 7RC / 144 (1) [α] = [M1T–2] (2) [α] = [M2T–2]
(3) 9RC / 25 (4) 20RC / 9 (3) [α] = [M2T–1] (4) [α] = [M–1T2]
Q.41 The radius of second stationary orbit in Bohr's Q.47 A window is 50 cm long. A stone is falling
atom in R. The radius of 3rd orbit will be : from a height of 40 cm above the window. It
(1) 9R (2) R/4 crosses the window in:-
(3) 9R/4 (4) 2R (1) (3/7) s (2) (2/7) s
Q.42 Which set contain molecules with µ = 0 : (3) (1/7) s (4) (4/7) s
Q.48 A body is projected vertically upwards with a
velocity of 10 ms–1. It reaches the maximum
(1) SF4, , benzene vertical height h in time t. In t/2, the height
covered is:-
(1) h/2 (2) 2h/5
(2) Borazine, , BF3 (3) 3h/4 (4) 5h/8

Q.49 The radius of a ball is [5.4 ± 0.2]cm. The

(3) ClF3, SiF4, SO3 percentage error in the volume of the ball is :-
(1) 11% (2) 4%
(3) 7% (4) 9%
(4) Borazine, , SO3 Q.50 The pulleys and strings shown in the figure are
smooth and of negligible mass. For the system
Q.43 The correct order regarding electronegativity of to remain in equilibrium, the angle θ should
hybrid orbitals of carbon is : be:-
(1) sp < sp2 < sp3 (2) sp > sp2 > sp3
(3) sp < sp2 > sp3 (4) sp > sp2 < sp3
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
 4km/h. What should be the direction of the
swimmer with respect to the flow of the river to
cross the river straight ?
(1) 60° (2) 150°
(1) 0º (2) 30º (3) 90° (4) 120°
(3) 45º (4) 60º Q.55 A ball is suspended on a thread from the ceiling
Q.51 The position vector of a particle changes with of a car. The brakes are applied and the speed
time according to the relation What is the of car changes from 5 m/sec to 5/3 m/sec
magnitude of the acceleration at t = 1 ? during the time interval of 3 seconds. The angle
(1) 40 (2) 100 that the thread will deviate from vertical.
(3) 25 (4) 50 (1) θ = tan–1 (1/9) (2) θ = tan–1 (8/9)
Q.52 There are four forces acting at a point P (3) θ = sin–1 (1/9) (4) θ = cos–1 (1/9)
produced by strings as shown in figure, point P Q.56 Which relation can not obtained dimensionally
is at rest. The forces F1 and F2 are respectively (1) Pressure = Force /Area
(2) Volume = Length × Area
(3) Thermal energy = (Momentum)2 / Area
(4) Distance = speed × time
Q.57 A food packet is dropped from a helicopter
rising up with a velocity of 4 ms–1. The
velocity of the packet after three second will
be:-
(1) (2) (1) 20.4 ms–1 (2) 25.4 ms–1
(3) 28.4 ms–1 (4) 30.4 ms–1
Q.58 A shell is fired from a fixed artillery gun with
(3) (4) an initial speed u such that it hits the target on
Q.53 The trajectory of a projectile near the surface of the ground at a distance R from it. If t1 and t2
the earth is given as y = 2x – 9x2. If it were are the values of the time taken by it to hit the
launched at an angle θ0 with speed v0 then target in two possible ways, the product t1t2 is:
(g = 10 ms–2) : (1) R/g (2) R/4g
(3) 2R/g (4) R/2g
Q.59 A person throws some balls into the air after
(1) every second. The next ball is thrown when the
velocity of the first ball is zero. How high do
the balls rise above his hand :-
(2) (1) 2 m (2) 5 m (3) 8 m (4) 10 m
Q.60 If surface tension (S), Moment of inertia (I) and
Planck's constant (h), were to be taken as the
(3)
fundamental units, the dimensional formula for
linear momentum would be :
(4) (1) S3/2 I1/2h0 (2) S1/2I1/2h0
Q.54 The stream of a river is flowing with a speed of (3) S1/2I1/2h–1 (4) S1/2I3/2h–1
2km/h. A swimmer can swim at a speed of
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
Q.61 A ball is thrown vertically up (taken as +z-axis) the bullet after emerging from the other side of
from the ground. The correct momentum- the wall is close to
height (p-h) diagram is : (1) 0.4 ms–1 (2) 0.1 ms–1
(3) 0.3 ms–1 (4) 0.7 ms–1
Q.66 Three blocks of masses 4kg, 6kg and 8kg are
hanging over a fixed pulley as shown. The
tension in the string connecting 8kg and 4kg
block is
(1) (2)

(3) (4)
Q.62 On a long horizontal belt, a child runs to and
fro with a speed of 9 km/h (with respect to the
belt) between his father and mother located
50m apart on the moving belt. The belt moves
with a speed of 4 km/h. For an observer on the (1) 4 N (2) 6 N
platform the speed of the child in the direction (3) 160 N (4) 80/3 N
of motion of the belt is:- Q.67 Between the two stations a train accelerates
(1) 9 km/h (2) 4 km/h uniformly at first, then moves with constant
(3) 13 km/h (4) 5 km/h velocity and finally retards uniformly. If the
Q.63 A weight can be hung in any of following four ratio of the time taken be 1 : 8 : 1 and the
ways by using same string. In which case is the maximum speed attained be 60 km/h, then what
string more likely is break is the average speed over the whole journey:-
(1) 48 km/h (2) 52 km/h
(3) 54 km/h (4) 56 km/h
Q.68 A particle starts its motion from rest under the
(1) A (2) B action of a constant force. If the distance
(3) C (4) D covered in first 10 seconds is S1 and that
Q.64 The water drops fall at regular intervals from a covered in the first 20 seconds is S2, then:-
tap 5 m above the ground. The third drop is (1) S2 = 3S1 (2) S2 = 4S1
leaving the tap at the instant the first drop (3) S2 = S1 (4) S2 = 2S1
touches the ground. How far above the ground Q.69 The area of a square is 5.29 cm2. The area of 7
is the second drop at that instant:- such squares taking into account the significant
(1) 1.25 m (2) 2.50 m figures is :
(3) 3.75 m (4) 4.00 m (1) 37 cm2 (2) 37.0 cm2
Q.65 A bullet of mass 20 g has an initial speed of (3) 37.03 cm2 (4) 37.030 cm2
1m/s, just before it starts penetrating a mud Q.70 In a motion with constsant acceleration the
wall of thickness 20 cm. if the wall offers a velocity is reduced to zero in 5 second and after
mean resistance of 2.5 × 10–2 N, the speed of
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 covering a distance of 100 m. The distance (1) 14 cm (2) 20 cm
covered by the particle in next 5 second will be (3) 18 cm (4) 26 cm
(1) zero (2) 250 m Q.75 A particle is thrown vertically upward. Find its
(3) 100 m (4) 500 m velocity so that it covers same distance in fifth
Q.71 Find the minimum value of m that should and sixth second :-
placed on 20 kg, so that system remain at rest. (1) 48 m/s (2) 14 m/s
(3) 49 m/s (4) 7 m/s
Q.76 A cricket ball of mass 500 g collides with a bat
with speed 15 m/s and returns with the same
speed within 0.01 second. The force acted on
bat is :-
(1) 750 N (2) 1500 N
(1) 10 kg (2) 20 kg (3) 500 N (4) 1000 N
(3) 30 kg (4) 40 kg Q.77 Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each
Q.72 A thief is running away on a straight road in a other on a table. Each coin has a mass m. The
jeep moving with a speed of 9 ms–1. A reaction of the 4th coin (counted from the
policeman chases him on a motor cycle moving bottom) on the 5th coin is :-
at a speed of 10 m/s. If the instantaneous (1) 4 mg (2) 5 mg
separation of the jeep from the motor cycle is (3) 6 mg (4) 7 mg
100 m, how long will it take for the policeman Q.78 A force-time graph for the motion of a body is
to catch the thief :- shown in the figure. The change in the
(1) 1 s (2) 19 s momentum of the body between zero to 10 sec
(3) 90 s (4) 100 s is :-
Q.73 Two cars A and B are moving with same speed
of 45 km/h along same direction. If a third car
C coming from the opposite direction with a
speed of 36 km/h meets two cars in an interval
of 5 min, the distance of separation of two cars
A and B should be:
(1) 6.75 km (2) 7.25 km
(3) 5.55 km (4) 8.35 km
Q.74 A plane is inclined at an angle α = 30° with a (1) zero (2) 4 kg-m/sec
respect to the horizontal. A particle is projected (3) 6 kg-m/sec (4) 10 kg-m/sec
with a speed u = 2 ms–1 from the base of the
plane, making an angle θ = 15° with respect to
the plane as shown in the figure. The distance Q.79 A block pressed against the vertical wall is in
from the base, at which the particle hits the equilibrium. The minimum coefficient of
plane is close to : friction is:-
(Take g = 10 ms–2)

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Q.84 Two blocks A and B of masses mA = 1 kg and
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.2
(3) 0.5 (4) none of these
Q.80 The position of a particle as a function of time
t, is given by x (t) = at + bt2 – ct3, where a, b
and c are constants. When the particle attains
zero acceleration, then its velocity will be :
(3) (4)
mB = 3 kg are kept on the table as shown in
figure. The coefficient of friction between A
and B is 0.2 and between B and the surface of
the table is also 0.2. The maximum force F that
can be applied on B horizontally, so that the
block A does not slide over the block B is :
(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) a + (2) a +

(3) a + (4) a + (1) 16 N (2) 40 N

Q.81 A box of mass m kg is placed on the rear side
of an open truck accelerating at 4 m/s2. The
coefficient of friction between the box and the
surface below it is 0.4. The net acceleration of
the box with respect to the truck is zero. The
value of m is :- [g = 10m/s2]
(1) 4 kg (2) 8 kg
(3) 9.78 kg (4) It could be any value
Q.82 A block of mass 8 kg is at rest on a rough
inclined plane as shown in figure. The
magnitude of net force exerted by the surface
on the block will be:-
(3) 12 N (4) 8 N
Q.85 A block of mass 4 kg rests on an inclined
plane. The inclination of the plane is gradually
increased. it is found that when the inclination
is 3 in 5 (sin θ = 3/5), the block just begins to
slide down the plane. The coefficient of friction
between the block and the plane is :-
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.6
(3) 0.8 (4) 0.75
Q.86 A uniform rope of mass 1.0 kg is connected
with a box of mass 2.0 kg, which is placed on a
smooth horizontal surface. The free end of the
rope is pulled horizontally by a force 6 N. Find
the tension at the midpoint of the rope.

(1) 4 N (2) 1 N
(1) zero (2) 48N (3) 5 N (4) 2 N
(3) 64N (4) 80N Q.87 A bullet of mass 25 g moving with a velocity of
Q.83 An object of mass 3 kg is at rest. If a force 200 m/s is stopped within 5 cm of the target.
The average resistance offered by the target is:-
is applied on the object,
(1) 10 kN (2) 20 kN
then the velocity of the object at t = 3 s will be
(3) 30 kN (4) 40 kN
:-
(1) (2)

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Q.88 Figure shows four blocks that are being pulled
along a smooth horizontal surface. The masses
of the blocks and tension in one string are
given. The pulling force F is :-

(1) (a) Hydra; (b) Ctenoplana

(1) 12 N (2) 6 N (2) (a) Ctenoplana ; (b) Ascaris
(3) 40 N (4) 20 N (3) (a) Ascaris ; (b) Taenia
Q.89 A body of mass 1 kg crosses a point O with a (4) (a) Fasciola ; (b) Obelia
velocity 60 ms–1. A force of 10 N directed Q.95 The phylum Aschelminthes is :-
towards O begins to act on it. It will again cross (1) Acoelomate (2) Pseudocoelomate
O in:- (3) Enterocoelomate (4) Schizocoelomate
(1) 24 sec (2) 12 sec Q.96 Which of the following is not correctly
(3) 6 sec (4) will never return to matched ?
O Name Stored food
Q.90 A paratrooper after bailing out falls 50 m (1) Diatoms – Chrysolaminarin and fat
without friction. When parachute opens, it (2) Euglenoids – Paramylum and fat
decelerates at 2m/s2. He reaches the ground (3) Dinoflagellates - Starch
with a speed of (4) Slime moulds – Fucoxanthin
3m/s. At what height did he bail out :- Q.97 In which animal, body is divided into segments
(1) 293 m (2) 111 m and serial repetition of at least few
(3) 91 m (4) 182 m organs/structures?
(1) Fasciola (2) Ascaris
PART C – BIOLOGY (3) Hydra (4) Earthworm
Q.91 Term "taxonomy" was given by :- Q.98 The body of animals of phylum porifera shows
(1) Carolus linnaeus (2) Gaspard Bauhin :-
(3) A.P.de. Candolle (4) J. Huxley (1) Labour of division among cells
Q.92 The animals of which group are mostly (2) Organs show great complexities
asymmetrical? (3) Cells are arranged as loose cell aggregates
(1) Coelenterata (2) Porifera (4) Both (1) & (3)
(3) Echinodermata (4) Ctenophora Q.99 Dikaryophase of fungi is found in which class?
Q.93 Radial symmetry is shown by which set of (1) Ascomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes
animals? (3) Phycomycetes (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Porifera, Coelenterata, Ctenophora Q.100 Trypanosoma, which causes sleeping sickness
(2) Coelenterata, Mollusca, Arthropoda disease, is a :-
(3) Coelenterata, Ctenophora, Echinodermata (1) A flagellated protozoan
(4) Ctenophora, Porifera, Hemichordata (2) A ciliated protozoan
Q.94 Identify the given diagram (a) and (b). Choose (3) A sporozoa protozoan
the correct option, in which given animals (4) An amoeboid protozoan
represents (a) and (b) :-

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Q.101 Megaspores of pteridophytes form :- C. Fungi are divided into different classes on
(1) Monoecious gametophytes the basis of morphology of mycellium and
(2) Female gametophyte sexual reproduction.
(3) Male gametophyte D. Branched, aseptate and multinucleate
(4) Embryo sac mycelium are found in club fungi.
Q.102 The oldest relatives of animals are :- (1) B, C and D are correct
(1) Protista (2) Protozoans (2) A, C and D are incorrect
(3) Slime moulds (4) Euglenoids (3) A, B and C are correct
Q.103 Longitudinal binary fission method is used for (4) A and D are incorrect
reproduction by which animal ? Q.110 Identify which of the following is not correctly
(1) Amoeba (2) Paramoecium matched :-
(3) Trypanosoma (4) Plasmodium Column I Column II Column III
Q.104 Slime moulds are ___________ :-
(1) Saprophytic protists
(2) Parasitic fungi A . Cocci E. coli
(3) Saprophytic or photosynthetic protists
(4) Parasitic protists
Q.105 The path of water, in water canal system is :-
(1) Osculum → Spongocoel → Ostia
(2) Madreporite → Ring canal → Radial canal B. Bacilli Treponema
(3) Ostia → Spongocoel → Osculum
(4) Ampulla → Madreporite → Radial canal
Q.106 Fresh water sponge is : C. Spirilla Spirillum volutans
(1) Sycon (2) Euspongia
(3) Spongilla (4) Leucosolenia
Q.107 Megaspore mother cell is differentiated from
one of the cells of :- D. Vibrio Vibrio cholerae
(1) Archegonia (2) Nucellus
(3) Integument (4) Embryo (1) B and C (2) A and B
Q.108 Kingdom protista includes how many from the (3) A, B and C (4) Only C
followings ? Q.111 Gastrovascular cavity is found in :-
Dinoflagellates, Deuteromycetes, Protozoans, (1) Sponges (2) Coelenterates
Phycomycetes, Euglenoids, Lichens, Slime (3) Echinodermates (4) Arthropods
moulds, Archaebacteria, Ascomycetes, Q.112 Choose the incorrect statement about
Chrysophytes. ctenophores
(1) Three (2) Six (1) Radially symmetrical and diploblastic
(3) Four (4) Five (2) Body bears eight internal comb plates
Q.109 Which of the following option is correct :- (3) Light emission property
A. In basidiomycetes class asexual spores are (4)External fertilisation and indirect
generally not found. development
B. Yeast are a unicellular fungi.
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 (d) Nephridia for osmoregulation and excretion
(e) Dioecious
Q.113 Identify the given diagram and choose the
option which is not correct about it :- How many characters are correct for Nereis ?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
Q.121 What is the unique characteristics of moss
gametophyte is :-
(1) Presence of leaf like structures
(2) Differentiated into foot, seta and capsule
(1) Body is dorsoventrally flat
(3) Presence of vascular tissues.
(2) Triploblastic and Acoelomate
(4) Unicellular and branched rhizoids.
(3) Posses high regeneration power
Q.122 Pteridophytes are more adapted terrestrial
(4) Flame cells help in osmoregulation and
plants as compared to bryophytes because:-
excretion.
(1) Vascular tissues present
Q.114 In Mangifera indica, indica represents:-
(2) Vessels and companion cells are absent
(1) Generic name (2) Name of author
(3) Microphyllous leaves present
(3) Specific epithet (4) Sub-specific name
(4) Transpiration is absent
Q.115 Which statement is not correct about keys ?
Q.123 Choose the correct option with respect to the
(1) Keys are applicable only on the plants.
given diagram :-
(2) Keys are based on the contrasting
characters.
(3) Keys include pairs of characters, called
couplet.
(4) Keys are generally analytical in nature.
Q.116 Fungi show great diversity in :-
(1) Morphology (2) Habitat (1) Rhizopus – Truffle fungi
(3) Morphology and habitat (4) Flagella (2) Aspergillus– Also known as weed of
Q.117 The actual account of habitat and distribution laboratory
of plants of a given area is provided by :- (3) Agaricus – Member of basidiomycetes class
(1) Flora (2) Manual (4) Penicillium – Source of penicillin
(3) Journal (4) Catalogue Q.124 What is the unique character of sporophylls of
Q.118 First time organ system level of organisation ferns.
occured in :- (1) They show xerophytic adaptation
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes (2) They bears two types of gametes
(3) Annelida (4) Coelenterata (3) They are photosynthetic
Q.119 Lateral appendages parapodia are found in :- (4) They are of different size
(1) Pheretima (2) Hirudinaria Q.125 Metamerism is shown by which animal ?
(3) King crab (4) Nereis (1) Tape worm (2) Wuchereria
Q.120 Few characters are given below :- (3) Hirudinaria (4) Ancylostoma
(a) Radula Q.126 Economically important insect is :-
(b) Pseudocoelomate (1) Locusta (2) Culex
(c) Closed circulatory (3) Aedes (4) Bombyx
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 Q.131 Gymnosperms can withstand in physiological
dryness because :-
(1) They are well adapted to extreme
condition like temperature, humidity
Q.127 Gregarious pest is :- (2) They are without vessels.
(3) They are without sunken stomata
(4) Both (1) and (3)
Q.132 "Aristotle's lantern" occurs in which class of
enchinodermata ?
(1) Echinoidea (2) Asteroidea
(3) Holothuroidea (4) Ophiuroidea
Q.133 In mollusca gills perform the functions :-
(1) Respiration and circulation
(2) Circulation and excretion
(3) Excretion and respiration
(4) Excretion and reproduction
Q.134 Identify B, D and F in these figures :
(1) (a) (2) (b)
(3) (c) (4) (d)
Q.128 Few points are given below :-
(a) Second largest phylum
(b) Chitinous exoskeleton
(c) Solid, double, ventral nerve cord
(d) Bilateral symmetrical (1) B = Collar, D = RNA, F = Sheath
(e) Open circulatory system (2) B = Capsid, D = Sheath, F = DNA
How many points are incorrect for arthropoda (3) B = Sheath, D = Capsid, F= Collar
phylum ? (4) B = Sheath, D = Capsid, F = RNA
(1) One (2) Two Q.135 Read the following statements carefully
(3) Three (4) Four (A) Viruses are smaller than bacteria.
Q.129 Why in gymnosperm plants fruits are not (B) Viruses are always made up of DNA and
formed? protein only
(1) Endosperm is haploid. (C) Viruses contain approximately 5% RNA
(2) Ovules are unitegmic and 95% DNA
(3) Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall. (D) Viruses contain nucleic acid so they are
(4) Ex-situ fertilization. capable of protein synthesis independently.
Q.130 Which one is not a xerophytic adaptation of How many of the above statements is/are
gymnosperm ? correct?
(1) Needle like Leaves. (1) A and B (2) A, B and D
(2) Symbiotic association with N2 fixing (3) B and C (4) A only
organisms. Q.136 Fungi which are common to make mycorrhiza
(3) Sunken stomata is/are ?
(4) Thick cuticle. (1) Amanita (2) Puccinia

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 (3) Glomus (4) Both 1 and 3 (1) Urochordata (2) Hemichordata
Q.137 Name the organisms which are used as (3) Cephalochordata (4) Vertebrata
pollution indicator ? Q.144 In bryophytes, zygote produces -
(1) Mycorrhiza (2) Lichen (1) Sporophyte. (2) Gametophyte
(3) Mushroom (4) Orchid (3) Prothallus (4) Spore

Q.138 Read the following statements carefully :-

(A) Members of protista are primarily aquatic. Q.145 First complete chordate is :-
(B) Majority of protists have cilia as well as (1) Ascidia (2) Herdmania
flagella (3) Branchiostoma (4) Petromyzon
(C) Most of dinoflagellates have two flagella, Q.146 Which one of the following show isogamy with
one lies longitudinally and the other flagellated gametes ?
transversely. (1) Spirogyra (2) Chara
(D) The spores of slime moulds are extremely (3) Ectocarpus (4) Polysiphonia
resistant but survive only for one month. Q.147 Endostyle, which is homologous to thyroid
How many of the above statements are gland, is found in :-
incorrect ? (1) Urochordates (2) Cyclostomates
(1) one (2) two (3) Cephalochordates (4) Hemichordates
(3) four (4) three Q.148 Read the following four statements (A-D)
Q.139 Which of the following pair is correctly carefully
matched :- (A) Mycoplasma can not survive without
(1) Facultative anaerobe – Lactobacillus oxygen.
(2) Frankia – In stem nodules of Alnus (B) Mycoplasma are the smallest living cells
(3) Nostoc – N2 fixation known.
(4) Obligate parasite – Staphylococcus (C) Bacteria completely lack a cell wall.
Q.140 A file like rasping organ present in the mouth (D) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission.
of which animal ? How many of the above statements are correct
(1) Apis (2) Pila ?
(3) Ophiura (4) Echinus (1) one (2) two
Q.141 As we go from kingdom to species, the number (3) three (4) four
of common characteristic goes on- Q.149 Identify the given diagram and choose the
(1) Decreasing correct option about it ?
(2) Increasing
(3) Remain same
(4) First increasing then decreasing
Q.142 The body of Balanoglossus is divided into :-
(1) Head, thorax, abdomen (1) All members of the class are endoparasites.
(2) Head, collar, visceral mass (2) Their body bears 4-7 pair of gills
(3) Proboscis, collar, trunk (3) They having sucking and circular mouth but
(4) Proboscis, head, visceral mass without jaws
Q.143 Notochord occcurs through out the life and (4) Body is devoid of scales and paired fins are
through the length of body in :- present.

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Q.150 Read the option carefully and choose the Q.157 What is common between amphibians and
correct option for Scoliodon, Pristis and reptiles?
Trygon :- (1) Body is divided into 4 parts
(1) They have terminal mouth. (2) Scales are present on body
(2) Notochord is persistent throughout life. (3) Both are homeothermous
(3) Skin is tough, without scales. (4) Tympanum represents the ear
(4) Air bladder is present. Q.158 Poikilothermic animal with 4 chambered heart
is :-
(1) Psittacula (2) Crocodilus
Q.151 Which fish lives in marine but migrate for (3) Hemidactylus (4) Balaenoptera
spawing to fresh water ? Q.159 The characteristic feature of Aves is :-
(1) Dog fish (2) Lamprey (1) Pneumatic bones
(3) Saw fish (4) Sting ray (2) Laws are modified into beak
Q.152 Which fish has bony endoskeleton ? (3) Skin is dry, without glands
(1) Scoliodon (2) Carcharodon (4) Presence of feathers
(3) Exocoetus (4) Trygon Q.160 The skin of mammals is unique because :-
Q.153 Identify the micro organisms which are present (1) Possess hair
in gut of several ruminants and are responsible (2) Presence of scales
for production of methane ? (3) Presence of nails on digits
(1) Halophiles (2) Methanogens (4) glands on skin
(3) Thermoacidophiles (4) Both (2) and Q.161 The universal photosynthetic pigments of algae
(3) is:-
Q.154 Which of the following statement is not correct (1) Chlorophyll-a and phycobilins
about cyanobacteria ? (2) Chlorophyll-b and xanthophyll
(1) The name cyanobacteria was suggested by (3) Chlorophyll-a and β-carotene.
ICBN. (4) Chlorophyll-a, β-carotene and phycobilins
(2) They were the first organisms that produced Q.162 The name of common dolphin is :-
O2 on earth. (1) Balaenoptera (2) Equus
(3) They have pigments for photosynthesis. (3) Delphinus (4) Pteropus
(4) They are not always of blue green colour. Q.163 The character shared by both aves and
Q.155 Few statements are given below for mammals, is:-
osteichthyes fishes. Choose the incorrect (1) Dry skin without glands
among given option :- (2) Digestive tract has crop and gizzard
(1) It include both marine and fresh water (3) Homoiothermous body
fishes (4) Oviparity
(2) They have to swim constantly to avoid Q.164 Which one of the following do not perform
sinking sexual reproduction :-
(3) They are mostly oviparous (1) Bacteria (2) Bryophyta
(4) Four pairs of gills with operculum (3) Fungi (4) Algae
Q.156 In sea horse, how many pair of gills are found ? Q.165 Which play an important role in plant
(1) 6–15 pairs (2) 4 pairs succession on a bare rock ?
(3) 5-7 pairs (4) They don't have gills (1) Gymnosperm (2) Angiosperm

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 (3) Bryophytes (4) Cycas-Coralloid root Q.172 Which endophytic algae is found in the
Q.166 Green, Multicellular, asexual bud produced in coralloid root of Cycas :
bryophytes is:- (1) Oscillatoria (2) Anabaena
(1) Gemma (2) Protonema (3) Spirulina (4) Chlamydomonas
(3) Prothallus (4) Meiospores Q.173 Read following four statements (A-D) :-
Q.167 Choose the correct option without any (A) Manuals are useful in providing information
exception in their class :- for identification of names of species found
(1) Aves – dry skin in an area.
(2) Mammalia – Hairs on the body (B) Monograph contains information on any
(3) Aves – Ability to fly one taxon.
(4) Mammalia – Diaphragm improves (C) Flora contains the index, name and actual
respirations account of habitat and distribution of
Q.168 In five kingdom classification Euglena was animals of a particular area.
placed in:- (D) Each statement in the key is called couplet.
(1) Plantae kingdom (2) Animalia kingdom Which of the above statements are not correct
(3) Protista kingdom (4) Monera kingdom (1) A and D (2) C and D
Q.169 According to R.H. Whittaker in the given (3) B, C and D (4) D only
figures the organisms belongs to how many Q.174 Identify the incorrectly matched pair :-
kingdoms ? (1) Blue green algae– Cyanophycean starch
(2) Dinoflagellates – Starch
(3) Diatoms – Laminarin
(4) Euglena – Paramylum
Q.175 In bacteria, flagella and pili are made up of
which protein respectively ?
(1) Tubulin and pilin
(2) Flagellin and tubulin
(3) Flagellin and pilin
(4) Non contractile and contractile protein
Q.176 According to Oswald Tippo thallophyta is the
name of ?
(1) Sub-kingdom (2) Divison
(3) Class (4) Sub-division
(1) 6 (2) 3 Q.177 In the list given below maximum members are
(3) 4 (4) 5 of which kingdom ?
Q.170 The mycelium in basidiomycetes is :- Rhizobium, Azolla, Ascobolus, Golden Algae,
(1) septate and unbranched Euglena, Frankia, Nostoc, Anthoceros,
(2) branched and septate Oscillatoria, Rumenococcus.
(3) aseptate and coenocytic (1) Protista (2) Monera
(4) aseptate and uninucleate (3) Fungi (4) Plantae
Q.171 Viruses are :- Q.178 Carl Woese placed prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(1) Obligate saprophyte (2) Facultative parasite in how many kingdoms respectively ?
(3) Obligate parasite (4) Facultative saprophyte (1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 4

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 (3) 2 and 1 (4) 1 and 5
Q.179 In ascomycetes and basidiomycetes, the
ascospores and basidiospores are produced
respectively :-
(1) Exogenously and endogenously
(2) Endogenously and endogenously
(3) Exogenously and exogenously
(4) Endogenously and exogenously

Q.180

Identify A, B, C and D in the above table :-

(1) A-Eukaryotic, B-Absent, C-Absent
D-Autotrophic
(2) A-Prokaryotic, B-Present in all
C-Absent, D-Autotrophic and heterotrophic
(3) A-Prokaryotic, B-Present in some,
C-Present, D-Autotrophic and heterotrophic
(4) A-Prokaryotic and Mesokaryotic, B-Present
C-Absent, D-Heterotrophic

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