REVIEWER:

_____1. How many components are there in Philippine Criminal Justice System?
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5

_____2. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of human fetus before
the natural time of birth which results in death?
a. Abortion c. Murder
b. Infanticide d. Parricide

_____3. This refers to an immediate initial investigative or incident report address to

higher headquarters pertaining to the commission of the crime, occurrence of
natural or man-made disaster or unusual incidents involving loss of lives and
damage of properties.
a. Police Blotter c. Progress Report
b. Special Written Report d. Spot Report

_____4. This refers to death of asphyxia thru the application of direct force to a ligature
device tightened around the neck to suffocate the victim or self.
a. Hanging c. Strangulation
b. Drowning d. Throttling

_____5. The following are medico-legal deaths, except:

a. Natural Death c. Poisoning
b. Violent Death d. Abortion

_____6. The following are the forms of counter measures, except:

a. Physical c. Education
b. Pharmaceuticals d. Mental

_____7. What are the general rules in question formulation?

a. Questions must be simple and direct
b. They must not involve legal terminology
c. Questions must contain inference (opinion)
d. They must be answered by “Yes or NO” only and should be as short as
possible

_____8. The following are the common uses of polygraph test, except one?
a. Criminal Investigation c. Evidence in Court
b. Periodic Screening d. Pre-Employment

_____9. Paint as evidence maybe collected in one of the following forms:

a. Small Flakes of Chips
b. Traces of Oxidized (Chalking) Paint
c. Smears from Fresh Paint
d. None of the above

_____10. The following are theories governing glass fracture:

a. Glass is somewhat flexible, it tends to bend upon application of force
b. Glass first tend on the direction where force is applied causing the
opposite side to stretch
c. Glass can withstand or bending rather that stretching causing the
opposite side to start breaking
d. None of the above

_____11. It is one of the methods of identifying the suspect through physical description
by a witness.
a. Composite Criminal Illustration c. Cartographic Sketch
b. Identification d. Photography/Video
_____12. They and their immediate family members shall be encourage to actively
getting involved in religious, social and civic activities without affecting their
official duties.
a. Social Responsiveness c. Public Responsiveness
b. Public Awareness d. Social Awareness

_____13. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the laws of the land,
of the acts in issue in a case for the purpose of determining such issue?
a. Trial c. Pre-Trial
b. Arraignment d. Judgment

_____14. What will the investigator do upon arrival at the crime scene?
a. Receive briefing from the first responder regarding the incident
b. Turn-over the crime to the COP
c. Record the date, time and place of crime reported
d. Record the weather condition

_____15. It is the process of skilful questioning of witness/es and suspect/s?

a. Interrogation c. Interview
b. Interrogative d. Inquiry

_____16. One, who at the time of his trial for
convicted of final judgment of another
Revised Penal Code.
a. Recidivism
b. Habitual Delinquency
one crime shall have been previously
crime embraced in the same title of the
c. Reiteration
d. Quasi-Recidivism

_____17. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an authorized magistrate
or officer.
a. Subpoena c. Warrant
b. Writ d. Affidavit

_____18. A pillar where the prosecution is given the opportunity to prove that there is
strong evidence of guilt against the accused.
a. Prosecution c. Correction
b. Court d. Community

_____19. They shall help in the development and conservation of our natural resources
for ecological help in balance and posterity.
a. Conservation of natural resources
b. Protection of environmental resources
c. Conservation of ecological resources
d. Protection of natural resources

_____20. What will be the time that the SOCO will be requested to process the Crime
Scene?
a. If the suspect/s had already fled at the crime scene
b. If the investigator is already satisfied that all pieces of evidence had been
recorded.
c. If the investigator is already done on the investigation of the crime scene
d. If the evidence encountered need special processing due to significant or
sensational cases.

_____21. It is known as the concept and ideas within each of us that we deem important.
a. Organizational Values c. Values
b. Individual Values d. Personal Values

_____22. It is one of the basic requirements of a photograph admitted as evidence.

a. Develop Well c. Relevant
b. Unbiased d. Photograph of the Crime Scene
_____23. It is the elevated portion of skin which makes the print. The result from the
fusion of separate skin layer, sweat pores run in single row along the ridges
and are deposited on a surface when print is made?
a. Ridge c. Shoulder
b. Delta d. Core

_____24. The systematic transfer of non-current records from the office to any storage
area, the identification and preservation of permanent records and the
destruction of valueless records.
a. Records maintenance and use c. Records Creation
b. Records disposition d. Records management

_____25. Records that express legal decisions, opinions and those that generally gives
protection of the civil, legal property and other rights of the citizen?
a. Legal Value c. Fiscal Value
b. Research Value d. Administrative value

_____26. A system for generating, sending, receiving, storing or otherwise processing

electronic documents or which data is recorded in any procedures related to the
recording of electronic documents.

a. Electronic Data Message c. Cyber Crime

b. Information and Communication System d. Computer

_____27. Refers to the trading and dealing with children, including but not limited to, act
of buying and selling of child for money or for any other consideration.
a. Child Exploitation c. Child Trafficking
b. Child Prostitution d. Cruelty

_____28. What is the component of polygraph machine that are fastened around the
subjects abdominal and thoratic part of the body to monitor the subjects
breathing?
a. Pneumograph c. Cardiophymograph
b. Galvanograph d. Kymograph

_____29. A branch of digital forensic science pertaining to legal evidence found in

computers and digital storage media.
a. Forensic Laboratory c. Computer Forensic
b. Computer Laboratory d. Forensic Evidence

_____30. This refers to gunshot wound characteristic which is contact range gunshot
entrance wound with gray-black discoloration from the burned entrance.
a. Smoke Smudging c. Soot
b. Tattooing d. Stellate

_____31. The investigative process also promote public safety by identifying and bringing
to court, the persons who post a serious threat to the safety of the community
due to violent or otherwise anti-social behavior.
a. Community safety c. Protection of the innocent
b. Deterrence to others d. Public safety

_____32. This is for prisoners whose sentence are more than six (6) months but not more
than three (3) years?
a. Bureau of Correction c. Provincial Jail
b. National Bilibid Prison d. BJMP

_____33. I believe in the responsible ____________ and stewardship over material

things.
a. Devotion c. Dedication
b. Denomination d. Dominion
_____34. What will be the receiver do when a Crime Scene is reported?
a. Proceed immediately to the crime scene
b. Conduct hot pursuit operations
c. Secure/Cordon the crime scene with Police Line
d. Record date, time and place of crime reported

_____35. It is the control in the camera that controls the light going into camera?
a. Lens c. Aperture
b. Shutter Speed d. Focusing Control

_____36. It is called the mechanical result of photograph?

a. Micro-Photography c. Film
b. Photograph d. Photography

_____37. The following are the DO’s in collecting glass or glasses fragments, except:
a. Rubber or fabric gloves should not be worn
b. Carefully avoid smudging any fingerprints or disturbing any substance
such as dust or dirt, bloodstains or other foreign matter which maybe on
the glass.
c. Rubber-tipped tweezers or similar device should be used for handling
small fragments so as not to scratch the glass. Metal tweezers with
adhesive tape placed over the inner surface of the points make a good
field expedient.
d. Glass should be picked up edges, avoiding the plain surface as much as
possible.

_____38. In the examination of documents, at least how many standards are required to
constitute sufficient amount for examination?
a. 10 c. 5
b. 3 d. 7

_____39. A form of corruption that arises naturally out of the performance of an officer’s
routine duties.
a. Negotiable Graft c. Acceptance of Petty Bribe
b. Opportunistic Theft d. Extortion

_____40. It is in-charge in the preservation and control of crimes through enforcement of

laws and ordinances.
a. Policemen c. Law Enforcement
b. Prosecutor d. Prosecution

_____41. This pillar has the responsibility to participate in the promotion of peace and
order through crime prevention or deterrence and in the rehabilitation of
convicts and their reintegration to society.
a. Public c. Law Enforcement
b. Community d. Society

_____42. It refers to the reason or cause why a person or group of persons will perpetrate
a crime.
a. Opportunity c. Motive
b. Intent d. Instrumentality

_____43. It is a voluntary acknowledgment in express terms or by implication, by a party

in interest or by another whose statement he is legally bound, against his
interest of the existence or truth of a fact in dispute material to the issue.
a. Revelation c. Disclosure
b. Admission d. Confession

_____44. Collection techniques, preservation, packaging, transportation, storage and

creation of the inventory list are all part of the process used in establishing,
what type of case file record?
a. Chain of Custody c. Cold Case
 b. Evidence d. Crime Scene

_____45. This law provides stronger deterrence and special protection against child
abuse.
a. RA 9262 c. RA 7160
b. RA 7610 d. RA 9344

_____46. It is the proper conduct in court and obedience to court proceeding.

a. Court Demeanor c. Court Obedience
b. Court Courtesy d. All of the above

_____47. Records or documents contain information and materials, the unauthorized

disclosure of which would cause exceptionally grave damage to the nation
politically, economically or from the point of National Security. This kind of
records deserves the most guarded secrets by the person involved?
a. Top Secret Documents
b. Secret Records or Documents
c. Confidential Records or Documents
d. Restricted Records or Documents

_____48. Refers to the managerial activities involved with respect to the records creation,
records maintenance and use, transmission, retention and records disposition
in order to achieve adequate and proper documentation of policies and
transactions of government for its efficient, effective and economical operation.
a. Records Management c. Records Officer
b. Records Creation d. Records Maintenance and use

_____49. It is the follow-up investigation information regarding the previous crimes

committed in order to gather more information, evidence and other related data
to strengthen the crime/s committed for possible filing of cases. It is the
additional gathering of fact and evidence in order to complete the necessary
data needed.
a. Standard Tactical Plan c. Investigation Plan
b. Lead Sheet d. Allegation

_____50. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
a. Secondary Evidence c. Corroborative Evidence
b. Prima Facie Evidence d. Best Evidence

_____51. It is the presentation of concrete and detailed information and evidence and
how the crime/s been committed based on time, place and how the crime was
transpired or committed. It is what, who, where, when, how and why the crime
has been committed.
a. Allegation c. Elements
b. Offense d. Avenue of Inquiry

_____52. It is the detailed analysis and intensive study of a certain case under
investigation that stresses factors contributing to its success or failure.
a. Case Creation c. Case Tracking
b. Case Review d. Case Management

_____53. It define the elements of the case, parties involved, nature of the investigation
and the case stages and statuses of interest. Is also correlates related cases so
that the investigator can get a fuller on the case or person of interest.
a. Case Creation c. Case Tracking
b. Case Review d. Case Management

_____54. Ability to “Queue” matters to different individuals and agencies so as the cases
can be monitored and nothing falls between the “Cracks”.
a. Case Creation c. Case Tracking
b. Case Review d. Case Management
_____55. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself without authority of
law.
a. Alias c. Fictitious Name
b. Common Name d. Common Name

_____56. Records created as an administrative tool to accomplish the mission of the

organization?
a. Fiscal Value c. Legal Value
b. Administration Value d. Archival Value

_____57. Most widely used form of filing. It stresses the name, subject or the important
item?
a. Alphabetical c. Geographical
b. Chronological d. Numerical

_____58. It is the protection resulting from the application of measures to prevent the
unauthorized disclosure of classified information or by the use of methods to
delay the enemy or any unauthorized person from gaining information or
access to the records or disclosing the same, by means of any kind of
communication?
a. Physical Security c. Personal Security
b. Communication Security d. Community Security

_____59. An information data, figures, symbols or other modes of written expression,

described or however represented, by which a right is established or an
obligation extinguished or stored, process, retrieved of produced electronically.
a. Cellular Phone c. Electronic Document
b. E-Mail d. Service Provider

_____60. Is a lawful clandestine intelligence and detective networking to gather

information and evidence to determine with certainty the commission of a
crime?
a. Police Operation c. Police Procedure
b. Police Investigation d. Police Action

_____61. It is a process of skillful questioning of witnesses and suspects?

a. Interview c. Interrogative
b. Interrogation d. Inquiry

_____62. It is inaction, the failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to do.
a. Commission c. Committed
b. Omission d. None of the above

_____63. It is an application or relieved rather than a pleading.

a. Motion c. Complaints
b. Relief d. Pleadings

_____64. An investigation being conducted by law enforcement officer after a person has
been arrested or deprived freedom of action.
a. Interview c. Custodial Investigation
b. Interrogation d. Admission

_____65. It is the over-all strategy applied in order to achieve the desired outcome of the
case being investigated?
a. Investigation and Management System
b. Research and Management System
c. Information and Management System
d. None of the above

_____66. It is the strategic plan that requires proper format and procedure that include
tools to be used in managing investigation by applying the basic principle of
Situation, Mission, Execution, Contingency, Administration and Logistics Cost
and Command and Signal (SMECAC).
 a. Logistic Plan c. Administration Plan
b. Investigation Plan d. None of the above

_____67. It is an objective statement of the investigator’s findings, it is an official record of

information relevant to the investigation which the investigator submits to his/her
superior.
a. Investigative Reporting c. Note Taking
b. Communication d. Reporting

_____68. Principle on the right of the suspect from force self incrimination during police
interrogation as enshrined in the 1987 Philippine Constitution, Bills of Right (Art
3, Sec 12)?
a. Miranda Doctrine c. Both A & B
b. Writ of Habeas Corpus d. All of the above

_____69. Is defined as brief notation concerning specific events that are recorded while
fresh in your mind and used to prepare a report.
a. Reporting c. Both A & B
b. Note Taking d. None of the above

_____70. It is a specific violation/s of law under the Revised Penal Code and their Special
Laws as well as its amendments. It is the determination of possible crime/s for
filing cases in court and other judicial and extra judicial bodies.
a. Commission c. Offense
b. Allegation d. None of the above

_____71. Procedure done by first responder to the investigator/s in-charge.

a. Turn-over of Crime Scene c. Both A & B
b. Turn-Over of Physical Evidence d. None of the above

_____72. PD 1866 as amended by RA 8294 and further amended by RA 10591?

a. Anti-illegal Gambling
b. Anti-illegal Drugs
c. Anti-illegal Possession of FAs and Explosive
d. Anti-trafficking of a Person

_____73. PD 1602 as amended by RA 9287?

a. Anti-illegal Gambling
b. Anti-illegal Drugs
c. Anti-illegal Possession of FAs and Explosive
d. Anti-trafficking of a Person

_____74. RA 6425 as amended by RA 9165?

a. Anti-illegal Gambling
b. Anti-illegal Drugs
c. Anti-illegal Possession of FAs and Explosive
d. Anti-trafficking of a Person

_____75. To protect Life, Liberty and Property from Acts of Terrorism?

a. RA 9372 c. RA 9218
b. RA 9165 d. RA 9273

_____76. As define, is the interrogation of witness upon a trial hearing or taking a

deposition, by the party opposed to the one who produced him, upon his
evidence given in chief, to test its truth and to further develop in it?
a. Cross-Examination c. Both A & B
b. Court Demeanor d. None of the above

_____77. Refers to the misuse of police authority for personal gain. It is often used in
reference to all kind of wrongful police conduct including police brutality or
excessive use of force, racial discrimination and perjury?
a. Corruption c. Abuse of Authority
 b. Extortion d. None of the above

_____78. ________ is defined as the “Standards of Conduct and Moral Requirements”

necessary to function effectively within an organization or profession?
a. Professionalism c. Integrity
b. Ethics d. Patriotism

_____79. “Public Office is a Public Trust”?

a. True c. Sometimes True
b. False d. Sometimes False

_____80. Is a process to determine the existence of probable cause based on the

allegation on the complaint/s and supporting evidence/s.
a. Pre-Charge Evaluation c. Summary hearing
b. Action of the Complaint d. Moto Propio

_____81. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by
previous or simultaneous acts.
a. Accomplices c. Principal Actors
b. Suspects d. Accessories

_____82. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final
sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.
a. Prescription of Time c. Prescription of Judgment
b. Prescription of Period d. Prescription of Penalty

_____83. A king of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended.

a. Pardon c. Amnesty
b. Communication d. Reprieve

_____84. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another person without any
legal grounds?
a. Illegal Detention c. Forcible Abduction
b. Arbitrary Detention d. Forcible Detention

_____85. Which of the following is not a person in authority?

a. Municipal Mayor c. Police Officer
b. Private School Teacher d. Municipal Councilor

_____86. In it general sense, it is the raising of commotions or disturbances in the state?

a. Sedition c. Treason
b. Rebellion d. Coup ‘d etat

_____87. It indicates deficiency of perception?

a. Negligence c. Imprudence
b. Diligence d. Inference

_____88. It is the process of illustrating the trial proceeding of the actual court hearing.
a. Cross-Examination c. Moot Case
b. Moot/Mock Court d. Oral Testimony

_____89. Define as a process of court trial from trial to promulgation process wherein
everybody has its own rule to do.
a. Cross-Examination c. Direct Observation
b. Court Observation d. Oral Testimony

_____90. The knowledge of the factual data decisive of the controversy must of necessity
spring from the testimony of witnesses given in the manner prescribed by
accepted procedure not from evidence dehors.
a. Cross-Examination c. Direct Examination
 b. Re-Cross Examination d. Re-Direct Examination

_____91. It is any word or action which debases, degrades or demands the dignity of a
child as a human being.
a. CICL c. Cruelty
b. Address d. Records

_____92. Series of activities which are designed to address issues that caused the child
to commit an offense.
a. Diversion c. Program
b. Intervention d. Activities

_____93. Crimes that have three stages of execution?

a. Material c. Seasonal
b. Formal d. Continuing

_____94. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are malicious?
a. Culpable c. Deliberate
b. Intentional d. Inculpable

_____95. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the first instance?
a. Appellate Jurisdiction c. Original Jurisdiction
b. General Jurisdiction d. Exclusive Jurisdiction

_____96. SPO1 Bagsic entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will on suspicion
that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home. What was the crime committed
by SPO1 Bagsic?
a. Trespass to Dwelling c. Usurpation of Authority
b. Violation of Domicile d. Forcible Trespassing

_____97. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than six (6) moths. They live
together with the children of Lea from her first husband. Charlie had sexual
relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter Lea. Jane loves Charlie very much.
What was the crime committed by Charlie?
a. Simple Seduction c. Consented Abduction
b. Qualified Seduction d. Rape

_____98. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and
accomplishment are present?
a. Attempted c. Consummated
b. Frustrated d. Accomplished

_____99. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there in

sufficient ground to engender a well founded belief that an offense has been
committed and the offender is probably guilty thereof and should be held for
trial?
a. Pre-Trial c. Preliminary Investigation
b. Arraignment d. Plea Bargaining

_____100. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done?
a. Misfeasance c. Nonfeasance
b. Malfeasance d. Dereliction

“GOOD LUCK”
ANSWERS KEY:

1. D 21. C 41. B 61. A 81. A

2. A 22. B 42. C 62. B 82. D
3. D 23. A 43. D 63. A 83. D
4. C 24. B 44. A 64. C 84. A
5. A 25. A 45. B 65. A 85. C
6. C 26. D 46. A 66. B 86. A
7. B 27. C 47. A 67. A 87. A
8. C 28. A 48. A 68. A 88. B
9. D 29. C 49. B 69. B 89. B
10. D 30. B 50. C 70. C 90. C
11. A 31. A 51. A 71. A 91. C
12. D 32. C 52. B 72. C 92. B
13. A 33. D 53. A 73. A 93. A
14. A 34. D 54. D 74. B 94. B
15. C 35. C 55. C 75. A 95. C
16. A 36. B 56. B 76. A 96. B
17. D 37. A 57. A 77. A 97. B
18. B 38. D 58. B 78. B 98. C
19. A 39. B 59. C 79. A 99. C
20. D 40. C 60. A 80. A 100. B

20. d. If the 42. Motive

1. b. 3 evidence encountered 43. Confession
2. b. Infanticide need special processing 44. b. Evidence
3. d. Spot Report due to significant or 45. b. RA 7610
4. c. Strangulation sensational cases. 46. a. Court
5. d. Abortion 21. b. Individual Demeanor
6. d. Mental Values 47. a. Top Secret
7. a. Questions must be 22. a. Authenticity Documents
simple and direct 23. Ridge 48. a. Records
8. d. Pre-Employment 24. Records Management
9. a. Small Flakes of disposition 49. b. Lead Sheet
Chips, b. Traces of 25. Legal Value 50. d. Best
Oxidized (Chalking) 26. Information Evidence
Paint, c. Smears from and Communication 51. c. Elements
Fresh Paint System 52. b. Case
10. b. Glass first 27. Child Review
tend on the direction Trafficking 53. c. Case
where force is applied 28. Pneumograph Tracking
causing the opposite 29. Computer 54. c. Case
side to stretch Forensic Tracking
11. a. Composite 30. Soot 55. a. Alias
Criminal Illustration 31. Public safety 56. b.
12. a. Social 32. Provincial Jail Administration Value
Responsiveness 33. Dominion 57. a.
13. a. Trial 34. Record date, Alphabetical
14. a. Receive time and place of crime 58. b.
briefing from the first reported Communication Security
responder regarding the 35. Aperture 59. c. Electronic
incident 36. Photography Document
15. a. 37. Rubber or 60. b. Police
Interrogation fabric gloves should not Investigation
16. a. Recidivism be worn 61. b.
17. d. Affidavit 38. 10 Interrogation
18. a. Prosecution 39. Acceptance of 62. b. Omission
19. c. Petty Bribe 63. a. Motion
Conservation of 40. Law 64. c. Custodial
ecological resources Enforcement Investigation
41. Community
65. a.
Investigation and
Management System
66. b.
Investigation Plan
67. d. Reporting
68. a. Miranda
Doctrine
69. b. Note
Taking
70. a. Elements
71. b. Turn-Over
of Physical Evidence
72. b. Anti-illegal
Drugs
73. a. Anti-illegal
Gambling
74. b. Anti-illegal
Drugs
75. a. RA 9372
76. a. Cross-
Examination
77. a. Corruption
78. b. Ethics
79. a. True
80. a. Pre-Charge
Evaluation
81. a.
Accomplices
82. a. Prescription
of Time
83. d. Reprieve
84. b. Arbitrary
Detention
85. b. Private
School Teacher
86. b. Rebellion
87. a. Negligence
88. b. Moot/Mock
Court
89. b. Court
Observation
90. c. Direct
Examination
91. c. Cruelty
92. a. Diversion
93. b. Formal
94. b. Intentional
95. c. Original
Jurisdiction
96. b. Violation of
Domicile
97. d. Rape
98. c.
Consummated
99. c. Preliminary
Investigation
100. a.
Misfeasance