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2023-JEE Advanced-Full Length-1 - PAPER-1 - (Gen 3 To 7)
2023-JEE Advanced-Full Length-1 - PAPER-1 - (Gen 3 To 7)
1. The question paper consists of 3 Subject (Subject I: Physics, Subject II: Chemistry, Subject III: Mathematics).
Each Part has two sections (Section 1 & Section 2).
Type B contains SIX (06) Multiple Correct Answers Type Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE THAN ONE CHOICE is correct.
3. Section 2 contains THREE (03) Paragraphs. There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each Paragraph.
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value
of the answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
If the answer is an Integer value, then do not add zero in the decimal places. In the OMR, do not bubble the
sign for positive values. However, for negative values, Θ sign should be bubbled. (Example: 6, 81, 1.50,
3.25, 0.08)
4. For answering a question, an ANSWER SHEET (OMR SHEET) is provided separately. Please fill your Test Code,
Roll No. and Group properly in the space given in the ANSWER SHEET.
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MARKING SCHEME
SECTION-1 | Type A
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of
these four options is the answer. For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
SECTION-1 | Type B
This section contains SIX (06) questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR
MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are
correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct
option;
Zero Marks : 0 If unanswered;
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.
For example, in a question, if (A), (B) and (D) are the ONLY three options corresponding to correct answers,
then
choosing ONLY (A), (B) and (D) will get +4 marks; choosing ONLY (A) and (D) will get +2 marks;
choosing ONLY (A) will get +1 mark;
choosing no option(s) (i.e. the question is unanswered) will get 0 marks and
choosing any other option(s) will get –2 marks.
SECTION-2
This section contains THREE (03) Paragraphs. There are TWO (02) questions corresponding to each
Paragraph. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value of the answer. If the answer is a decimal numerical value, then round-off the value to
TWO decimal places. If the answer is an Integer value, then do not add zero in the decimal places. In the
OMR, do not bubble the sign for positive values. However, for negative values, Θ sign should be
bubbled. (Example: 6, 81, 1.50, 3.25, 0.08)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks: +3 If ONLY the correct Integer value is entered. There is NO negative marking.
Zero Marks: 0 In all other cases.
SECTION-1 | Type A
2. If mass m1 of ice at 0C is mixed with mass m2 of liquid water at T C , and all the ice melts, the final
temperature is: [Latent heat of fusion of ice = L, Specific heat of water = C] [Assume no heat
interaction with surroundings]
L L
m1 m2T m2T m1
(A) C (B) C
m1 m2 m1 m2
L L
m2T m1 m2T m1
(C) C (D) C
m1 m2 m1 m2
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
3.
A particle is moving in an isolated x–y plane. At an instant, the particle has velocity 4iˆ 4 ˆj m/s and
acceleration 3iˆ 5 ˆj m / s 2 . At that instant what will be the radius of curvature of its path?
4. A body of mass m hangs by an inextensible string that passes over a smooth massless pulley
that is fitted with a light spring of stiffness k as shown in the figure. If the body is released
from rest and the spring is initially relaxed, the maximum elongation of the spring is :
4mg 2mg
(A) (B)
k k
mg
(C) (D) None of these
k
5. A bent tube is lowered into a water stream as shown in figure. The velocity of
the stream relative to the tube is equal to v = 2.5 m/s. The closed upper end of
the tube located at the height h0 = 12 cm has a small orifice. To what height h
will the water jet spurt?
(A) 0.3m (B) 0.2m
(C) 0.4m (D) 0.5m
6. A body cools from 50°C to 40°C in 5 min. The surrounding temperature is 20°C. By how many °C does the
temperature decreases in the next 5 min? (Round off your answer to nearest integer)
(A) 5°C (B) 6°C (C) 7°C (D) 8°C
7. An artificial satellite in a circular orbit around the earth has time period T. Assuming the mass of the
satellite to be constant, choose the correct options.
2
(A) The radius of the orbit is proportional to T3
1
(B) The velocity of the satellite is proportional to T 3
3
(C) The force on the satellite due to the earth is proportional to T 4
2
(D) The total energy of the satellite is proportional to T 3
8. For two gases, A and B with molecular weights MA and MB, it is observed that at a certain temperature T,
the mean velocity of A is equal to the Vrms of B. Thus the mean velocity of A can be made equal to the
mean velocity of B, if :
(A) A is at temperature T and B at T such that T > T
(B) Temperature of A is lowered to T2 while B is at T such that T2< T
(C) Both A and B are raised to a higher temperature
(D) Heat energy supplied to A
100
(A) Acceleration of A is 6m / s 2 (B) Tension T in the rope is N
3
(C) Force applied F0 is equal to 200N (D) Acceleration of point x on the rope is 8 m / s 2
In the figure shown coefficient of friction between 2kg block and 4kg block is μ = 0.1 and between 4 kg block and
ground is μ = 0.2. Then answer the following questions : (t is time, take g = 10m/s2)
1
1. Force of friction on 2kg block at t s will be ______(in Newton).
2
2. At t 4 s the friction between 4kg block and ground will be _________(in Newtons).
A rocket is projected vertically upwards and its velocity time graph is shown in the figure.
Some quantity of monatomic gas makes the process 1 2 3 shown in the figure. The algebraic sum of the heat
taken up and given out by the gas in the course of the process is 7.5 P0V0.
5. The change in internal energy of the gas for the total process is n P0V 0. Find n.
SECTION-1 | Type A
This section consists of 6 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. Nitrophenol is a colorless weak monoprotic acid (pK a 7.2) whose conjugate base is bright yellow. To
2.00 mL solution of 0.0100 M nitrophenol, 1.00 M NaOH in 0.01 mL portions is added and the absorbance
of the solution at 485 nm is monitored. What does graph of A485 as a function of added volume of NaOH
look like? [Note : Absorbance concentration of the coloured solute]
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
11.
12. Which of the following statement(s) regarding the oxides of alkali and alkaline earth metals is/are correct?
(A) The reactivity of K 2O towards water is more than that of Na 2 O
(B) The oxide of alkaline earth metals are more basic than those of alkali metals
(C) MgO is used as a refractory material for lining of electric furnaces
(D) The milk of lime and lime water are two different solutions
2. 200 g of CaCO3 (s) taken in 4 L container at a certain temperature. K c for the dissociation of CaCO3 at
this temperature is found to be 1/4 mol/L then the concentration of CaO in terms of moles of CaO per unit
volume (L) of it is ________. [Given : CaO 1.12 g cm 3 ] [Ca 40, O 16]
(vii) (viii)
3. How many compounds are chiral and also have chiral centre?
SECTION-1 | Type A
This section consists of 6 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
ONLY ONE CHOICE is correct.
1. We have 3m balls, out of which m are identical and the rest are all different. The number of ways of
selecting m objects from the group is.
2m
Cm 1 2m
(A) (B) Cm1 2 2m 1
2 2
1 1 2m
(C) 2m
C m 2 m 1 (D) Cm 22m1
2 2
3
2. The number of distinct complex numbers z such that z 1 and z is purely imaginary is.
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
4. A 6 alphabet word is formed form the set of vowels a, e, i, o, u such that each alphabet which appears in
the word, appears atleast twice, then number of words that can be formed is:
(A) 1405 (B) 1400 (C) 1100 (D) 1200
5. Let S be the set of integral value of ' a ' for which one root of quadratic equation
a2 2a 3 x2 6ax 4 0 is less than 1 while the other is greater than it, then the number of point(s)
P a 2 , a where a S lies in the region between the lines x y 6 & x y 12 is (are):
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
7. 2
If the inequality x 2n x n 4n 9 0 n N is true for exactly 11 integral values of x then
n x, x I can be :
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 14 (D) 2
8. Consider lines L1 : y x 3 and L2 : y x 3 and point P 2, 2 lying between them. If A & B are
points on L1 & L2 such that PAB is equilateral then centroid of PAB be
(A) 2 3, 2 3 (B) 2 3, 2 3
(C) 2 3, 2 3 (D) 2 3, 2 3
F1 : x 2 y 2 25 x 2 y 2 2 x 33 0
x y 1
and F2 : x 8 x y 3 y 2 k 8 3 1 0, where , , k R then possible value(s) of
2 1
for which there exist a common member of the two families is/are :
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 7 (D) 9
cos x 2 1 cos x
then n is divisible by:
1 cos x tan x 2sin 2 x sin x 1
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 11 (D) 1
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
(B)
The remainder when 97 79 is divide by 32 is 0.
11
1 11C7 .24
(C) The coefficient of the term independent of ' x ' in the expansion of 2 x 2 is
3x 27
th
(D) The only value of ' r ' for which the coefficient of 2r 4 term is equal to the coefficient of
2. If | z 1| | z i |, (where z a i b, a 0) then arg( z ) where p ______
p
through 5,15 .
3. Then value of 4a 2b is :
4. Sum of 100 terms of A.P. if first term is 2a and common difference 2b is:
End of JEE Advanced Full Length Test - 1 | Paper - 1 |JEE -2023 (GEN 3 to 7)