EXAM IN CM 10.

Viscoureteral reflux or the reflux of urine from

the bladder back into the ureters mayresult to:
1. The primary chemical constituents of normal A. Acute glomerulonephritis
urine are: B. Cystitis
A. Protein, sodium and water C. Acute pyelonephritis
B. Urea, water and protein D. Acute interstitial nephritis
C. Urea, chloride and water
D. Urea, bilirubin, and glucose 11. The presence of white blood cells and bacteria
and the absence of casts may be an indication
2. This provides a three dimensional image of:
showing very fine structural details by splitting A. Acute interstitial nephritis
the light ray so that the beams pass through B. Cystitis
different area of the specimen C. Acute pyelonephritis
A. Interference contrast D. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Polarizing microscope
C. Fluorescent microscope 12. They serve as nurse cells for the developing
D. Electron microscope sperm cells:
A. Sertoli cells
3. A black, tarry stool may be indicative of: B. Spermatids
A. Hematochezia C. Round cells
B. Upper GI Bleeding D. Cytotrophobilast cells
C. Melena
D. B and C 13. Broad and waxy casts are most likely associated
with:
4. A clinically significant epithelial is/are the: A. Nephrotic syndrome
A. RTE cell B. Acute renal failure
B. Clue cell C. End stage renal disease
C. Caudate cell D. Focal segment glomerulosclerosis
D. A and B
14. Casts are formed primarily in which portion of
5. When using the glass slide and coverslip the kidney?
method, which of the following might be missed A. PCT
if the coverslip is overflowed? B. Glomerulus
A. Crystals C. Collecting duct
B. WBCs D. A and C
C. Casts
D. RTE cells 15. A parasite associated with positive leukocyte
esterase is:
6. The finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of: A. Enterobius vermicularis
A. Renal lithiasis B. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Schistosoma haemotobium
C. Glomerulonephritis D. Candida albicans
D. Hemophilia A
16. Which of the following amino acids is/are not
7. The primary component of urinary mucus is: affected cystinuria?
A. Tamm-Horsfallprotein 1. Arginine
B. Uromodulin 2. Leucine
C. Protein 3. Ornithine
D. Both A and B 4. Cysteine
A. 2 only
8. What is the normal value for urinary B. 1,3 and 4
eosinophils? C. 1,2,3 and 4
A. >10% D. NOTA
B. <1%
C. >1% 17. Incorrect statement regarding renal tubular
D. <10% acidosis:
1. Urine pH is acidic
9. It is described as a genetic disorder showing 2. Blood pH is alkaline
lamellated and thinning of glomerular basement 3. Inability to secrete hydrogen ions
membrane: 4. Metabolic acidosis
A. Good Pasteur syndrome A. 1 and 2
B. Alport syndrome B. 2,3 and 4
C. Nephrotic syndrome C. 3 and 4
D. Wegener’s granulomatosis D. 1,2,3 and 4
 B. Amorphous urates
18. Some of the urea which is filtered by the C. Bacteria
glomerulus is reabsorbed in the tubules D. Amorphous phosphates
approximately:
A. 40% 27. Which of the following dyes are used in
B. 10% sternheimer malbin stain?
C. 70% A. Hematoxylin and eosin
D. 100% B. Crystal violet and safranin
C. Methylene blue and eosin Y
19. A reagent test strip impregnated with D. Toluidine blue and safranin
diisopropylbenzene dehydroperoxide
tetramethlybenzidine may be used to detect 28. Bilirubinuria may be associated with:
which analyte? A. Extravascular hemolytic anemia
A. Bilirubin B. Viral hepatitis
B. Blood C. Bile duct obstruction
C. Nitrite D. B and C
D. Urobilinogen
29. Which of the following substances are excreted
20. What is the expected pH range of a first morning in the urine in the largest amount?
urine specimen? A. Urea and NaCL
A. 3.5-8.0 B. Creatine and NaCl
B. 5.0-6.0 C. Creatinine and ammonia
C. 4.0-8.5 D. Urea and glucose
D. 4.5-8.0
30. Urine reagent strips should be stored in a:
21. False positive levels of 5-HIAA can be caused by A. Refrigerator
a diet high in : B. Incubator
A. Bananas C. Cool dry area
B. Tomatoes D. Open jar exposed to air
C. Pineapples
D. AOTA 31. Urine samples should be examined within 2
hours of voiding because:
22. Blue diaper syndrome is associated with: A. RBCs, WBCs and Cast agglutinate after
A. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome standing for several hours at room
B. Hartnup disease temperature
C. Alkaptonuria B. Bacterial contamination will cause
D. Dubin Johnson syndrome alkalinization of urine
C. Urobilinogen increases and bilirubin
23. Hurler, Hunter and sanfilippo syndrome are decreases after prolonged exposure to light
hereditary disroders affecting metabolism of: D. Ketones will increase due to bacterial and
A. Tryptophan cellular metabolism
B. Purines
C. Mucopolysaccharides 32. Urine from a 60-year old man was noted to turn
D. Porphyrins burgundy red on standing. This change is
caused by:
24. In lead poisoning , the characteristic urine color A. Indican
is: B. Melanin
A. Normal/colorless C. Homogentisic acid
B. Red A. Porphyrin
C. Purple
D. Brown black 33. Orange sand in diapers:
A. Hartnup disease
B. Lesch nyhan syndrome
25. He published a book about the pisse prophets or C. Indicanuria
charlatans without medical credentials who offer D. Hyperoxaluria
their predictions to the public for a health fee;
A. Ivan folling 34. The concentration of a normal urine specimen
B. Garrod can be estimated by which of the following?
C. Thomas Bryant A. Color
D. Fredrik dekkers B. Clarity
C. Foam
26. Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear; D. Odor
however, if its alkaline, a white turbidity may be
present due to: 35. Rapid screening test for urinary porphobilinogen
A. Bilirubin :
 A. Watson-schwartz test A. Cholera
B. Hoesch test B. Dysentery
C. Diazon reaction C. Typhoid fever
D. Ehrlich reaction D. Cystic fibrosis

36. Associated with hematuria, EXCEPT: 45. Which of the following will not be detected by the
A. Renal calculi leukocyte esterase pad?
B. Strenuous exercise A. Neutrophils
C. Intravascular hemolytic anemia B. Eosinophils
D. Glomerulonephritis C. Trichomonas
D. Lymphocytes
37. Causes of oligohydramnios :
1. Neural tube defects 46. All of the following can be found incorporated
2. Decreased fetal swallowing into a cast matrix, EXCEPT:
3. Urinary tract defects A. WBCs
4. Increased fetal swallowing B. Bacteria
A. 1 and 2 C. Urothelial cells
B. 3 and 4 D. Lipids
C. 1,3 and 4
D. 2,3 and 4 47. In lesch-Nyhan syndrome, the gene that codes
for __ enzyme is absent:
A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
38. A total CSF cell count on a turbid should be: B. Homogentisic acid oxidase
A. Diluted 1:20 C. Tyrosine transaminase
B. Not reported D. Hypoxanthine guanine
C. Diluted 1:10 phosphoribosyltransferase
D. Diluted 1:10,000
48. A medical technologist performs urinalysis on a
39. The CSF tube kept at refrigeration temperature if yellow cloudy urine specimen. The results are
not yet tested is: the following:
A. Tube 1 CHEMICAL EXAMINATION
B. Tube 2 Ph= 7.0
C. Tube 3 Ketone= negative
D. Tube 4 S.G= 1.020
Bilirubin = negative
40. Renal calculi that are associated with increased Blood= trace
intake of foods with high purine content: Urobilinogen = 1.0mg/dl
A. Cystine Protein = trace
B. Uric acid Nitrite = negative
C. Phosphate Glucose = negative
D. Calcium phosphate Leukocyte = 4+
Microscopic examination
41. CSF/Serum IgG index of less than 0.70 is RBCs = 2-4/hpf
indicative of: WBC casts= 2-3 / lpf
A. Damage to the blood brain barrier WBCs = 40-50 / hpf
B. Multiple sclerosis Bacteria = rare
C. Multiple myeloma These findings suggest:
D. Normal condition A. Cystitis
B. Acute pyelonephritis
42. The primary reason to dilute a semen specimen C. Acute interstitial nephritis
before performing a sperm concentration is to: D. Menstrual contamination
A. Immobilize the sperm
B. Facilitate the chamber count 49. A specimen containing 2 g/dl of glucose and
C. Decrease the viscosity 2g/dl of protein has a specific gravity reading of
D. Stain the sperm 1.026 using a reagent strip. What is the actual
specific gravity reading?
43. Measurement of neutral-a-glucosidase is A. 1.032
performed to detect a disorder of the: B. 1.012
A. Seminiferous tubules C. 1.018
B. Prostate gland D. 1.026
C. Bulbourethral gland
D. Epididymis 50. The precursor of the oval fat body is :
A. Ovalocyte
44. A pea soup like consistency of a stool specimen B. Urothelial cell
could be indicative of: C. Squamous epithelial cells
 D. Renal tubular cell D. 1,2,3 AND 4

51. Leukocytes that stain pale blue with sternheimer 59. True about rivalta’s test:
malbin stain a and exhibit Brownian movement A. Identifiy an unknown body fluid as synovial
are: fluid
A. Indicative of pyelonephritis B. Positive in transudates
B. Basophils C. Positive in exudates
C. Mononuclear leukocytes D. Indentify fetal hemoglobin from stool or
D. Glitter cells vomitus

52. An acceptable disinfectant for blood and body 60. Cyanide nitroprusside test is positive in:
fluid decontamination is: A. Cystinuria
A. NaOH B. Cystinosis
B. Sodium chloride C. Both of these
C. H2O2 D. NOTA
D. Sodium hypochlorite
61. What is the purpose of adding bluing agent to
53. Initial screening of the urine sediment is the toilet water reservoir in drug specimen
performed using an objective power of: collection procedure?
A. 4X A. To prevent specimen aldulteration
B. 10X B. To check for the urine temperature
C. 40X C. To prevent false positive results
D. 100X D. To avoid bacterial contamination

54. Which of these is used to remove dust from

optical surfaces of the microscope? 62. Which of the following crystals may be usually
A. Cytobrush found in acidic urine?
B. Paint brush A. Apatite
C. Xylene B. Leucine
D. Camel hair brush C. Struvite
D. Ammonium biurate
55. Reaction time for C-stix reagent strip for
ascorbic acid: 63. A urine specimen with low concentration of
A. 10 seconds urochrome may indicate:
B. 30 seconds A. Dehydration
C. 45 seconds B. Recent fluid intake
D. 60seconds C. Presence of amorphous urates in the
sediment
56. Failure to mix a specimen prior to inserting the D. High metabolic rate
reagent strip will primarily affect the:
A. Blood reading 64. A reagent strip with a brown color reaction on
B. Glucose reading the pad impregnated with potassium iodide
C. Nitrite raeding indicates:
D. pH reading A. Proteinuria
B. Glucosuria
C. Bilirubinuria
57. A step by step documentation of the handling D. Myoglobinuria
and testing of legal specimens.
1. Chain of custody 65. Positive result in the Guthrie bacterial inhibition
2. Chain of legality test for phenylketonuria:
3. Chain of evidence A. No growth around the impregnated disc
A. 1 and 2 B. Growth around the impregnated disc
B. 1 and 3 C. Hemolysis
C. 2 and 3 D. Loss of mousy odor
D. 1,2, and 3
66. A urine with characteristic sulfur odor may be
seen in:
58. Ketones in urine are formed due to: A. Cystinuria
1. Inability to metabolize carbohydrates B. Trimethylaminuria
2. Beta oxidation of fats C. Acute renal failure
3. Starvation D. Glutaric academia
4. Insulin deficiency
A. 1 AND 2 67. A specimen with a strong ammonia odor and a
B. 2 AND 3 heavy white precipitate when it arrives in the
C. 1,3 AND 4 laboratory may require:
 A. Collection of a fresh specimen B. Hemocyanin
B. Centrifugation C. Hemozoin
C. Urine culture D. Hematein
D. Addition of acetic acid
76. Which of the following parasites can be seen in
68. Urinalysis on a patient with sever back and sputum samples?
abdominal pain is frequently performed to check 1. Round worms
for: 2. Thread worm
A. Bilirubinuria 3. Hookworm
B. Proteinuria 4. Oriental lung fluke
C. Hematuria A. 1,2,3 AND4
D. Hemoglobinuria B. 1,2 AND 3
C. 1,3, AND 4
69. All of the statements below regarding urine D. 2,3, AND 4
bilirubin tests are true, EXCEPT
A. A positive test indicates either liver or 77. All of the following are indication of CSF
hepatobilliary disease traumatic tap EXCEPT:
B. The test detects only unconjugated A. Uneven blood distribution
bilirubin B. A clear supernatant after centrifugation
C. High levels of ascorbate usually interfere C. No clot formation
D. Prolonged light exposure can cause false D. Absence of erythrophages
negative results
78. Pilocarpine iontophoresis refers to the specific
70. A positive test for blood in urine can occur in the process of:
following , EXCEPT: A. Separating proteins in CSF
A. Extravascular hemolysis B. Inducing sweat production
B. Rhabdomyolysis C. Measuring pilocarpine in sweet
C. Intravascular hemolysis D. Measuring ions in sweat
D. Renal lithiasis
79. The following are results for a certain urine
71. Factors that differentiate amorphous urates and sample analyzed on a morning shift:
phosphates is/are Glucose by reagent strip = negative
1. Color of the urine sediment Ketones by reagent strip= negative
2. pH The results are most consistent with:
3. morphology A. Normal condition
4. solubility B. DM
A. 1,2 AND 3 C. Starvation
B. 1,2 AND 4 D. High carbohydrate diet
C. 2,3, AND 4
D. 1,3AND 4 80. Which protein test does not detect bence jones
protein?
72. Crystals associated with severe liver disease A. Heating urine at 40’-60’C up to 100’C
include: B. SSA precipitation test
A. Bilirubin C. Serum immunoelectrophoresis
B. Tyrosine D. Reagent strip
C. Lysine
D. A and B 81. Which of the following situations requires
corrective action before proceeding with
73. Urinalysis on a patient being evaluated for renal specimen testing?
calculi would be most beneficial if it showed: A. Room temperature of the laboratory is 25’C
A. Microscopic hematuria B. Specific gravity of distilled water by
B. Calcium oxalate crystals refractometer is 1.000
C. Hemoglobinuria C. Temperature of the refrigerator that stores
D. Heavy proteinuria the QC materials is 4’C
D. Reagent strip protein result is 1+ when
74. The correct method for labeling urine specimen using negative control
container is to:
A. Attach the label to the lid 82. The following results were obtained on a urine
B. Attach the label to the bottom specimen at 9:00 AM:
C. Attach the label to the container Ph =6.5 Bilirubin = 2+
D. Use only a waxy pencil for labeling Protein = 3+ Nitrite = positive
Glucose = 4+ Blood = negative
75. The pigment responsible for the blue color of Ketones = 3+
horseshoe crab blood is: If this urine specimen was stored uncapped at
A. Hemoglobin 4’C without preservation and retested at 3:00
 PM, which of the following test results would be 90. The “tram tracking” appearance of the
changed due to these storage conditions? glomerulus when seen under the microscope can
A. glucose be indicative of which renal disorder?
B. Ketones A. Membranous glomerulonephritis
C. Bilirubin B. Membranopriliferative glomerulonephritis
D. Nitrite C. IgA nephropathy
D. Nephrotic syndrome
83. Which of the following matches regarding
specimen collection is/are incorrect? 91. Performing bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) is
1.Lumbar puncture- cerebrospinal fluid important in the diagnosis of ___ in
2.Suprapubic aspiration – urine immunocompromised patients:
3.arthrocentesis – ascetic fluid A. Primary atypical pneumonia
4.Paracentesis – pleural fluid B. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
A. 1 and 2 C. TB
B. 3 and 4 D. Paragonomiasis
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 AND 4 92. Which of the following cell types is responsible
for the secretion of HCL in the stomach?
84. When the medical technologist performs the A. Parietal cells
microscopic examination of urine sediment, B. Chief cells
which of the following is/are enumerated C. G cells
/estimated using Low power magnification? D. AOTA
1.RBC 2. WBC 3. CASTS 4. YEASTS
5.Squamous epithelial cells 93. Which of the following pleural fluid values
6.Calcium oxalate crystals represents a hemothorax?
A. 1,2,4,5 AND 6 A. Blood hct: 44 Fluid Hct :25
B. 1,2 AND 5 B. Blood hct: 40 Fluid Hct: 32
C. 3 AND 5 C. Blood hct: 36 Fluid hct:20
D. 3 ONLY D. AOTA

85. RA cell seen in synovial fluid is described as a: 94. The molecules of CPPD crystals align
A. Vacuolated macrophage with ingested perpendicular to the long axis of the crystal.
neutrophils When the slow vibration passes through the
B. Neutrophil containing characteristic crystal, it will show:
ingested round body A. Positive birefringence
C. Large , multinuclead cell B. Negative birefringence
D. Neutrophil with dark cytoplasmic C. No birefringence
granules containing immune complexes D. Weak birefringence

86. The normal GFR is approximately: 95. Acetic acid should not be used as a diluents for
A. 60ml/min synovial fluid cell count because:
B. 120ml/min A. It will cause synovial fluid to clot
C. 650ml/min B. It will polymerize the hyaluronic acid
D. 1,200ml/min C. It will decrease the viscocity of the fluid
D. A and B
87. What is the negative color in micral test?
A. Yellow 96. Renal disease characterized by deposition of IgA
B. Red on the glomerular basement membrane:
C. White A. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
D. Purple B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Berger’s disease
88. Which urinary crystals can assume the greatest D. Membranous glomerulonephritis
variety of forms?
A. Cystine 97. The two stage of heme formation affected by lead
B. Oxalate poisoning are:
C. Phosphate A. Porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin
D. Uric acid B. Aminolevulinic acid and porphobilinogen
C. Aminolevulinic acid and protoporphyrin
89. A lack of odor in urine from patient indicates: D. Coproporphyrin and protoporphyrin
A. Prerenal failure
B. Nephritic syndrome 98. A type of mucopolyssacharide disorder where
C. Chronic renal failure mucopolyssacharides accumulate in the cornea
D. Acute tubular necrosis of the eye:
A. Hurler syndrome
B. Alder-reilly anomaly
 C. Hunter syndrome 107. A synovial fluid was received in the
D. Sanfilippo syndrome laboratory for a 27year old man who had a
recent football injury. In the days following the
99. What is the earliest form of sperm cell? injury, he reported progressively increasing pain
A. Spermatid and swelling. The lab result are:
B. Spermatozoon Color = yellow-green
C. Spermatocyte Clarity= cloudy
D. Spermatogonium Viscocity= low
WBC count = 110,000/ul
100. What is the sequence of cast formation Neutrophils = 95%
starting from the most significant? Lymphocyte = 5%
A. Waxy, hyaline, cellular, coarsely granuler, Glucose = decreased
finely granular
B. Cellular, coarsely granular, finely granular, What is the diagnosis?
hyaline, waxy A. Hemmorhagic arthritis
C. Waxy, cellular, finely granular, coarsely B. Crystal induced arthritis
granular, hyaline C. Septic arthritis
D. Waxy, finely granular, coarsely granular, D. Rheumatoid arthritis
cellular, hyaline
108. Eosinophils and curschmann’s spiral
101. An amniotic fluid creatinine level of may be found In which of the following
>2.0mg/dl indicates: conditions?
A. Mature fetal lungs A. Bronchiectasis
B. Renal disorder B. Chronic bronchitis
C. Fetal age of more than 36 weeks C. Lobar pneumonia
D. Neural tube defect D. Bronchial asthma

102. A clean catch urine is submitted to the 109. Failure to observe RBC casts in urine
laboratory for routine urinalysis and culture. specimen can be caused by:
The routine urinalysis is done first, and 3 hours A. Centrifuging an unmixed specimen
later, the specimen is sent to the microlab B. Staining the specimen
section for culture. The specimen should be: C. Examining the sediment first under LPO
A. Centrifuged ,cultured when nitrite is positive D. Mixing the sediment after decantation
B. Cultured when gram stain shows bacteria
C. Rejected 110. Use of the refractometer over a
D. Autoclaved, centrifuged then cultured urinometer is preferred due to the fact that the
refractometer uses:
103. The following are the recommended A. Small urine volume and compensates for
conditions in using and preserving reagent temperature
strips, except: B. Small urine volume and compensates for
A. Keep at room temperature protein
B. Closed tightly C. Large urine volume and compensates for
C. Stored in a dark container temperature
D. Blotted on the tissue faced down D. Small urine volume and compensates for
glucose
104. HcG is produced by which of the
following? 111. Ten calcium oxalate crystals were seen
A. Cytotrophoblast cells per HPF. How do you report this finding?
B. Argentaffin cells A. Rare
C. Endocervical glandular cells B. Few
D. Type II pneumocytes C. Moderate
D. Many
105. A tea colored urine may be caused by:
A. Drinking green tea 112. How do you report bladder cells?
B. Bilirubin A. Average number per LPF
C. Rifampin B. Average number per HPF
D. Clorets C. Rare, few, moderate or many per LPF
D. Rare, few, moderate or many per HPF
106. How many neutrophils per high power
are indicative of invasive diarrhea? 113. Which of the following test is least
A. 0-2 affected by standing or unpreserved urine?
B. 1-3 A. Glucose
C. 2-3 B. Protein
D. ≥3 C. Ph
D. Bilurubin
 B. Tested for blood and bilirubin
114. The results of a urinalysis on a first C. Returned to the nurse’s station
morning specimen are: D. Discarded and the doctor is notified
S.G = 1.025
Ph=8.0 122. If alcohol is added to urine with tyrosine
Protein = negative crystals this other type of abnormal crystals may
Glucose = negative be precipitated:
Microscopic exam shows moderate uric acid A. Bilirubin
crystals. B. Sulfonamide
The results were unsatisfactory. What should be C. Leucine
done next? D. Cysteine
A. Repeat the S.G by using refractometer
B. Repeat the pH and microscopic 123. Storage of reagent strips should include:
examination 1. Refrigeration
C. Perform confirmatory test for protein and 2. Dark container
glucose 3. Dessicant in the bottle
D. Report the results. Nothing is discrepant 4. Tightly closed bottle
A. 1,2 AND 3
115. A physician requested for sperm count B. 1,3 AND 4
using undiluted semen. Which of the following C. 2,3 AND 4
can be used for counting? D. 1,2,3 AND 4
A. Neubauer counting chamber
B. Hemocytometer
C. Makler counting chamber 124. Ghost RBC are most frequently seen in:
D. NOTA A. High Ph, high SG
B. High Ph, low SG
116. What is the specific gravity of triple C. Low Ph, High SG
distilled water when measure by refractometer? D. Low ph, low SG
A. 1.002
B. 3.000 125. Renal calculi that is described as yellow
C. 1.000 brown in color and somewhat greasy:
D. 1.001 A. Phosphate
B. Uric acid
117. This type of renal stone is mostly C. Calcium oxalate
associated with urinary infections involving urea D. Cysteine
splitting bacteria:
A. Struvite 126. Examination of the urine sediment for
B. Sulfonamide the presence of casts should be performed:
C. Triamterene A. With increased light under high power
D. Silica B. With increased light under low power
C. With reduced light under high power
118. What type of tube for gastric fluid D. With reduced light under low power
collection is passed through the nose?
A. Rehfuss tube 127. The finding of increased hyaline and
B. Levin tube granular casts in the urine of an otherwise
C. Diagnex tube healthy person may be the result of:
D. NOTA A. Fecal contamination
B. Recent strenuous exercise
119. When heated at 40-60’C, a cloudy urine C. Early UTI
becomes clear. This may be due to the presence D. Renal disease
of:
A. Urates 128. A device used to calibrate centrifuge:
B. Phosphates A. Tachometer
C. WBCs B. Galvanometer
D. Bence jones protein C. Stopwatch
D. A AND C
120. Centrifuge should be disinfected every:
A. 1 week 129. Which of the following factor is most
B. 2 weeks likely to cause a brown colored seminal fluid?
C. 3 months A. Bile pigment
D. 1 month B. Blood
C. Continence
121. A black urine with a pH of 8.0 should D. Urine contamination
be:
A. Tested for melanin and homogentisic acid
130. Characteristic urine odors are C. 5
associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: D. Either A or B
1. Alkaptonuria
2. Phenylketonuria 138. Class K fire extinguisher is used for:
3. MSUD A. Wood, paper, clothing
4. Isovaleric academia B. Flammable chemicals
A. 1,2,3 and 4 C. Electrical
B. 1 only D. Grease fats and oils
C. 2,3, and 4
D. 1 and 4
139. It is the time from ordering a test
through analysis in the laboratory to the
131. WBC counts on clear CSF specimens are
charting of the report:
performed:
A. Real time
A. Using electronic counters
B. Short time
B. Only if more than 200 cells are present
C. Turn around time
C. On undiluted specimens if there is no cell
D. Request time
overlapping
D. On specimens diluted 1:200 with gentian
violet 140. Yellow hazard symbol indicates:
A. Stability
132. LDH isoenzymes appearing in the CSF B. Reactivity
are derived from: C. Both A and B
A. Damage to the BBB D. Specific hazard
B. Contamination due to traumatic tap
C. Neutrophils and lymhpocytes 141. Identify the Type of transmission:
D. Neutrophils, lymphocytes and brain cells Centrifugation of unstoppered tubes
A. Ingestion
133. A mixture of RBC casts, fatty casts, and B. Airborne
waxy casts indicates: C. Mucous membrane contact
A. A mix up of specimens D. AOTA
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. A telescoped sediment 142. In chemical spills, When skin contact
D. Upper UTI occurs, the best first aid is to flush the area with
large amount of ___ or at least ___
134. Darkening of urine is due to: A. Bleach, 5 minutes
A. Homogentisic acid B. Water, 5 minutes
B. Methemoglobin C. Water, 15 minutes
C. Melanin D. Neutralizing agent, 15 minutes
D. AOTA
143. In the three-glass procedure , this
135. A synovial fluid collected in a lavender specimen is used as a control for kidney and
top tube has a WBC count of 50/ul. The patients bladder infection
serum uric acid is normal. Examination under A. First specimen
polarized light reveals extracellular birefringent B. Second specimen
crystals of varying shapes. A possible reason for c. Third specimen
these finding is that: d. Any of these
A. The patient has septic arthritis
B. The specimen was collected in powdered
144. In what sequence does urine formation
EDTA
occur?
C. The specimen should not have been
A. Proximal convoluted tuble, loop of henle, DCT,
anticoagulated
CD
D. The patient has gout
B. Glomerulus, Bowman’s capsule, PCT, Loop of
Henle, DCT, CD
136. Normal fasting gastric fluid appears:
C. PCT, DCT, Collecting Ducts
A. Yellow and frothy
D. Glomerulus ,Bowmans space, PCT ,DCT,
B. Crystal cealr
Collecting duct , afferent arteriole
C. Pale yellow with food particles
D. Pale gray and slightly mucoid
145. Formulas have been developed to
137. The chain of infection is a contious link provide estimates of the GFR based on the
in the transmission of harmful microorganism serum creatinine without the urine creatinine.
between a source and a susceptible host. It is The most frequently used formula was developed
composed of how many components? by Cockcroft and gault. Variables included in the
A. 3 original formula are:
B. 6 A. Age
B. AOTA A. PCT, Descending loop of henle, DCT
C. Sex B. PCT, Ascending loop of henle, DCT
D. Body weight in Kg C. Ascending, Descending loop of henle
D. PCT, DCT, Collecting duct
146. In the normal adult, the human kidneys
receive approximately __ % of the blood pumped 153. Which of the tubules is impermeable to
throught the heart water?
A. 15% A. PCT
B. 20% B. Descending loop of henle
C. 25% C. Ascending loop of henle
D. 30% D. Both B and C

147. Test used to measure tubular secretion 154. The concentration of which substances
of nonfiltered substances and renal blood flow provide the best means of distinguishing urine
1. PSP dye excretion from other body fluids?
2. Urinary ammonia 1. Uric acid
3. Fishberg 2. Urea
4. Titrable acidity 3. Creatinine
A. 1 and 2 4. Ammonia
B. 1,2,3 A. 1 and 3
C. 1,2,4 B. 2 and 3
D. 1,2,3,4 C. 2,3, and 4
D. 1,2 3 and 4
148. When the body is dehydrated , the
kidneys: 155. Which renal function is assessed using
A. Excrete excess solutes in a constant volume of specific gravity and osmolality measurements?
urine A. Tubular secretion ability
B. Excrete solutes in a small volume of urine as B. Concentration ability
possible C. Glomerular filtration ability
C. Decrease the amount of solutes excreted and D. AOTA
decrease the urine volume
D. Increase the amount of solutes excreted while 156. What is the definition of osmolality per
holding the urine volume constant liter of solvent?
A. The density of solute particles per liter of solvent
149. Susbtances that bound to plasma B. The number and size of particles per liter of
proteins in the blood can be eliminated in the solvent
urine by: C. The number of particles per liter of solvent
A. Glomerular secretion D. The weight of solute particles per liter of solvent
B. Tubular Secretion
C. Tubular reabsorption 157. If refrigeration is used to preserve a
D. Both A and B urine specimen, which of the following may
occur?
150. Substances that show a diurnal A. Cellular or bacterial glycolysis will be
variation in their urinary excretion pattern are encountered
best evaluated using a: B. Formed elements will be destroyed
A. First morning specimen C. Amorphous crystals may precipitate
B. Fractional specimen D. Bacteria will proliferate
C. Timed collection
D. Midstream clean catch 158. In routine urinalysis, clarity is
determined by visually examining the mixed
specimen while holding it in front of a light
151. The renin angiotensin-aldosterone source. The specimen should, of course be in a
system is responsible for all of the following clear container. Urine with many particulates,
EXCEPT: print blurred through urine:
A. Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole A. Clear
B. Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole B. Hazy
C. Reabsorbing sodium C. Cloudy
D. Releasing ADH D. Turbid

152. Active transport is responsible for the 159. All of the following are insoluble with
reabsorption of glucose , aminod acids and salts dilute acetic acid, EXCEPT:
in the ___(1), Chloride in the ___ (2), and sodium A. Bacteria
in the ___(3). B. Spermatozoa
C. RBC’s
D. WBCs 168. Size of Acrosomal cap
A. ½ of head and ¾ of the nucleus
160. Differentiation of synovial fluid crystals, B. ¾ of the head and ½ of the nucleus
based on their birefringence, is achieved using: C. ½ of head and 2/3 of nucleus
A. Transmission electron microscopy D. 2/3 of head and ½ of nucleus
B. Direct polarizing microscopy 169. In suspected case of Reye’s syndrome, it
C. Compensated polarizing microscopy is useful to measure in CSF:
D. Both B and C A. Glucose
B. LDH
161. Which of the following is a characteristic C. Lactic acid
of normal synovial fluid? D. Glutamine
A. It forms small clots upon standing
B. It is dark yellow 170. Limulus lysate test will detect the
C. It is slightly turbid presence of:
D. It is viscous A. Grampositive bacteria
B. Gram negative bacteria
162. To assess sperm motility: C. Acid fast organism
A. Place a drop of semen in the slide and D. All microorganism
cover it with coverslip
B. Make a smear in the slide and stain with 171. Which of the following semen analysis is
pap’s, wright or giemsta stain abnormal?
C. Add diluting fluid and charge in a neubauer A. Liqeufaction is 50 minutes at RT
counting chamber B. pH of 7.7
D. Stain with eosin- nigrossin C. motility 50% progressive movement
D. volume of 1.5ml
163. A process of surgical anastomosis of the
vas deferens: 172. The normal sperm concentration is:
A. Vasectomy A. Above 20 million per/ml
B. Oophorectomy B. Above 20 million per microliter
C. Vasovasostomy C. Above 120 million per millimeter
D. Both A and C D. None of the above

164. The concentration of which of the 173. Maturation of spermatozoa takes place
following substances can be used to positively in the:
identify a fluid as seminal fluid? A. Sertoli cells
A. Zinc B. Seminiferous tubules
B. Alkaline phosphatase C. Seminal vesicles
C. Acid phosphatase D. Epididymis
D. Glucose
174. Clot formation in CSF may be present in
165. Seminal fluid for fructose level should be patients with:
tested within 2 hours or ___ to prevent 1.traumatic tap
fructolysis. 2.Subarachnoid hemorrhage
A. Frozen 3.Complete spinal block (Froin’ssyn drome)
B. Incubated 4. Suppurative or tuberculous meningitis.
C. Boiled A. 1 and 3
D. Room tem B. 2and 4
C. 1,2 and 3
166. CASA(Computer assisted spermanalysis) D. 1,2,3 and 4
provides information of:
A. Sperm trajectory and velocity 175. Which of the following statements about
B. Sperm trajectory, velocity and motility CSF glucose is FALSE?
C. Sperm trajectory, velocity, morphology A. Increased CSF glucose values are
and concentration diagnostically significant
D. Sperm motility, concentration, trajectory B. Glucose enters the CSF by active transport
and velocity and simple diffusion
C. Decreased CSF glucose values reflect a
167. Seminal fluid is counted undiluted and defective blood brain barrier and increased
the sperms are immobilized by heat: glycolysis
A. Makler counting chamber D. CSF glucose values reflect the plasma
B. Neubauer counting chamber glucose concentration 30 to 90 minutes
C. Fuchs-rosenthal counting chamber preceding collection
D. Speirs- levy counting chamber
176. Which statement below regarding CSF is
TRUE?
 A. Normal values for monocytes are higher significance and should be enumerated and
for infants than adults reported as ___ cast
B. Absolute neutrophilia is not significant if the A. Granular
total WBC count is less than 25/ul B. Hyaline
C. The first aliquot of CSF should be sent to the C. Waxy
microbiology laboratory D. Fatty
D. Neutrophils comprise the majority of WBCs
in normal CSF. 186. In case of acute tubular necrosis,RTE
cells containing large, nonlipid-filled vacuoles
177. The term to denote a high WBC count in may be seen, referred as:
the CSF is: A. Oval fat bodies
A. Empyema B. Bubble cells
B. Neutrophilia C. Ghost cells
C. Pleocytosis D. Glitter cells
D. Hyperglycorrchachia
187. It is an allergic response to drug
178. A cloudy CSF dilution for cell counts: associated with moderate proteinuria. The
A. 1:10 presence of eosinophils is especially
B. 1:20 characteristic, together with neutrophils, RBCS
C. 1:100 and cellular or granular casts
D. 1:200 A. Acute tubular necrosis
179. An unknown fluid can positively B. Acute interstitial nephritis
identified as being CSF by: C. Chronic glomerulonephritis
A. Determining the lactate concentration D. Minimal change disease
B. Determining the albumin concentration
C. Determining the presence of oligoclonal 188. Most commonly seen broad cast are:
banding of electrophoresis A. Hyaline and granular
D. Determining the presence of B. WBC and RBC
carbohydrate deficient transferrin on C. RBC and granular
electrophoresis D. Granular and waxy
180. All of the following protein are normally
present in the CSF, EXCEPT 189. It is a genetic disorder showing
A. Transferrin lamellated and thinning glomerular basement
B. Albumin membrane
C. Prealbumin A. Henoch shconlein
D. Fibrinogen B. Good pasture syndrome
181. Regarding CSF, all of the following are C. Alport’s syndrome
indications of a traumatic tap, except: D. Wegener’s granulomatosis
A. Clearing of the fluid as it is aspirated
B. A clear supernatant after centrifugation 190. Massive amount of crystals are
C. Xanthochromia frequently produced in ethylene glycol poisoning:
D. Presence of clot in the sample A. Dihydrate caOx
182. During a lumbar puncture procedure, B. Wedellite
the first collection tube of CSF removed should C. Monohydrate caOx
be used for D. Both A and B
A. Microbiology studies
B. Cytology studies 191. The renal stones are yellow-brown
C. Hematology tests resembling an old soap and feels greasy:
D. Chemistry tests a. Uric ac]id
b. Phosphates
183. A web-like pellicle in a refrigerated CSF c. Calcium oxalate stones
specimen is indicative of: d. Cysteine stones
A. Tubercular meningitis
B. Multiple sclerosis 192. With which crystals are urinary uric
C. Primary CNS malignancy acid crystals often confused?
D. Viral meningitis a. Calcium pyrophosphate
184. The most frequently observed cast in b. Calcium oxalate
urine is: c. Cysteine
A. Red cell d. Leucine
B. Hyaline
C. Waxy 193. Phenylketonuria is an inherited
D. Cellular metabolic disease in which there is a deficiency
of an enzyme:
185. Cylindroids are ___ casts with one end a. Phenylalanine oxidase
that has not rounded off; they have the same b. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
c. Phospoalanine hydroxylase collected it the previous evening, but it was clear
d. Phospoalanine phosphatase in the morning. What could be the most
probable cause?
194. A generalized loss of proximal tubular a. PNH
function is a characteristic of : b. Rifampin medication
a. Fanconi syndrome c. Strenuous exercise
b. Nephrotic syndrome d. Brown recluse spider bite
c. Renal glucosuria
d. Renal tubular acidosis
203. Increased urinary excretion of heparin
195. Which of the following disorders is sulfate can be observed on patients with:
characterized by the urinary excretion of large a. Heparin therapy
amounts of arginine, cysteine, lysine and b. Hunter syndrome
ornithine? c. Varigatae porphyria
a. Cystinosis d. Cystinuria
b. Cystinuria
c. Lysinuria 204. Based on urinalysis findings, one can
d. Tyrosinuria differentiate acute and chronic
glomerulonephritis by the:
196. Which of the following hereditary a. Presence of RBC casts in the acute form
diseases results in accumulation and excretion b. Presence of waxy and broad casts in the
of large amounts of homogentisic acid? chronic form
a. Melanuria c. Presence of waxy and broad casts in the acute
b. Alkaptonuria form
c. Phenylketonuria d. Presence of RBC casts in the chronic form
d. Tyrosinuria
205. Urine specimen was sent to the
197. A disease that causes large amounts of laboratory for analysis. During physical
valine, leucine, and isoleucine to be excreted in examination, you notice a distinct caramel odor.
urine is: You can presumptively identify this disorder
a. Hurler’s syndrome when:
b. Cystinuria a. Ferric chloride tube test yields a blue-green color
c. MSUD b. It gave an orange-red color reaction with
d. Alkaptonuria nitrosonaphtol
c. It produced yellow turbidity after adding
198. Forms of triple phosphate crystals: Dinitrophenylhydrazine
a. Colorless; three to six sided prisms, “coffin lids” d. It turned black after addition of silver nitrate
b. Sheets, flakes and ammonium hydroxide
c. Flat, fern leaf form
d. AOTA 206. Increased amounts of 5-hydroxy indole
acetic acid (5HIAA) in the urine is indicative of:
199. Reporting for RTE cells: a. Platelet disorders
a. Rare, few , moderate, many per LPF b. Intestinal obstruction
b. Rare ,few, moderate, many per HPO c. Malabsorption syndrome
c. Average number per 10 HPF d. Argentaffin cell tumors
d. Present, based on laboratory procotol
207. Which of the following statements
200. The following are initial results obtained accurately describes hCG levels in pregnancy?
during a routine urinalysis. Which results a. Levels of hCGrise throughout pregnancy
should be investigated further? b. In ectopic pregnancy, serum hCG doubling
a. Negative protein; 2 to 5 waxy casts time is below expected levels
b. Cloudy, brown urine; 2 to 5 red blood cells c. Molar pregnancies are associated with lower
c. Urine pH 7.5; ammonium biurate crystals levels that expected for the time of gestation
d. Clear, colorless urine specific gravity 1.010 d. hCGreturns to nonpregnan levels within 2 days
following delivery, stillbirth, or abortion

201. Cysteine crystals are reported: 208. The best specimen for urine pregnancy
a. Average number per LPF testing is the ___
b. Average number per HPF a. First morning specimen
c. Rare, few, moderate, or many b. 8 hour urine specimen
d. Present or absent c. 24 hour urine specimen
d. Both A and B
202. A concerned male athlete brings a clear,
red urine specimen to the physician’s office. He 209. Clot formation in CSF may be present in
reported that the urine appeared cloudy when he patients with:
 1.traumatic tap b. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
2.Subarachnoid hemorrhage c. Congenital porphyria
3.Complete spinal block (Froin’s syndrome) d. Alkaptonuria
4. Suppurative or tuberculous meningitis.
A. 1 and 3 218. Produces foam in urine:
B. 2and 4 a. Protein and bilirubin
C. 1,2 and 3 b. Bilirubin and pyridium
D. 1,2,3 and 4 c. Phenazopyridine
d. Bilirubin, protein and phenazopyridine
210. Total or complete absence of
spermatozoa in the seminal fluid. This may be 219. A gastric stimulant to determine a
due to bilateral small underdeveloped testes or successful vagotomy procedure is:
obstruction from the precious traumatic or a. Insulin
operative procedures, with gonorrhea now a b. Pepsin
secondary cause. c. Histamine
a. Necrospermia d. Pentagastrin
b. Azospermia
c. Oligospermia 220. Serum gastrin levels would be greatest
d. None of these in
a. Atrophic gastritis
211. An abnormally __ may cause the sperm b. Zollinger-ellison syndrome
head to bend backward and interfere with c. Pernicious anemia
motility d. Cancer of the stomach
a. Amorphous head
b. Giant head 221. A condition in which the patient shows
c. Long neckpiece no response to gastric stimulation is:
d. Short neckpiece a. Pernicious anemia
b. Zollinger elison syndrome
212. If alpha amylase is added into semen: c. Ulcers
a. Semen liquefies d. Diabetes
b. Semen coagulates
c. Sperm cells are immobilized 222. To diagnose genetic disease and
d. Fructose is broken down developmental defects, ___ amniocentesis is
usually carried out.
213. Which of the following is a characteristic a. First trimester
of normal synovial fluid? b. Second trimester
a. It forms small clots upon standing c. Third trimester
b. It is dark yellow d. ANY SEMESTER
c. It is slightly turbid
d. It is viscous 223. Reliable indicator of differentiation
between amniotic fluid and maternal urine:
214. Differentiation of synovial fluid crystals, a. Glucose and protein
based on their birefringence, is achieved using: b. Urea and creatinine
a. Transmission electron microscopy c. Sodium and chloride
b. Direct polarizing microscopy d. NOTA
c. Compensated polarizing microscopy
d. Bright field microscopy 224. Which of the following conditions can
cause erythroblastosis fetalis?
215. Which of the following crystals is a. Immaturity of the fetal liver
characteristically seen In patients with gout? b. Decreased amounts of amniotic fluid
a. Cholesterol crystals c. Inadequate fetal pulmonary detection
b. Monosodium urate monohydrate crystals d. Maternal immunization by fetal antigens
c. Hydroxyapatite crystals
d. Calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals 225. All of the following statements regarding
gastric acidity are true, EXCEPT
216. An obsolete way of collecting sweat is: a. The BAO: MAO is normally below 0.2
a. Shcwchman’s plastic bag method b. Pentagastrin is the stimulant of choice for
b. Pilocarpine iontophoresis determining MAO
c. Direct application of chloride electrode on c. A fasting gastric pH above 4 is diagnostic of
skin achlorhydia
d. Sunlight exposure d. Highest BAO levels are associated with zollinger-
ellison syndrome
217. A orange brown discoloration from an
infant’s diapers may be suspected of: 226. It is used as a safer alternative for
a. Hartnup disease testing vagal stimulation of gastric acid
 secretion. The procedure also requires gastric eliminates urine contaminants from external
intubation; however, instead of administering genitalia and distal urethra?
insulin, patients are given a sandwich to chew a. First morning specimen
and spit it out. b. Midstream clean catch specimen
a. Sweat test c. Random specimen
b. Sham feeding d. Timed collection
c. Secretin test
d. Breath test

227. The test is based on the measurement of 234. Which of the tubules is impermeable to
14CO2 in expired air following the ingestion of water?
various- C-labeled triglycerides. Steatorrhea A. PCT
from either pancreatic or other causes results in B. Descending loop of henle
a decreased absorption of triglycerides by the C. Ascending loop of henle
digestive system. This in turn results in a D. Both B and C
decrease in expire CO2 derived from metabolism
of triglycerides fatty acids
a. Sweat test
b. Sham feeding 235. If refrigeration is used to preserve a
c. Secretin urine specimen, which of the following may
d. Breath test occur?
A. Cellular or bacterial glycolysis will be
228. It is a valuable test for the differential of encountered
malabsorption. In this procedure, a 25g dose of B. Formed elements will be destroyed
pentose is administered orally. Blood level is C. Amorphous crystals may precipitate
determined two hours later; urine excretion over D. Bacteria will proliferate
a five hour administration period is also
determined. 236. A correlation exists between a specific
a. D-xylose test gravity of 1.050 and a:
b. Sham feeding A. 2+ glucose
c. Malabsorption assay B. 2+ protein
d. Secretin test C. First morning specimen
D. Radiographic dye
229. The most abundant cell seen in the BAL
is: 237. The method for determining a urine S.G
a. Neutrophils that is based on the principle that the frequency
b. Macrophages of a sound wave entering a solution changes in
c. Lypmphocytes proportion to the density if the solution is:
d. Ciliated columnar epithelium A. Colorimetric
B. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
230. Myelin globules have little to no C. Urinometry
significance in sputum, except It resembles: D. Refractometry
a. Aspergillus
b. Blastomyces 238. In a patient with chronic renal disease,
c. Saccharomyces the urine specific gravity would be:
d. Coccidoides A. 1.000
B. 1.010
231. Abnormally decreased viscosity in C. 1.030
synovial fluid results from: D. 1.003-1.035
a. Mucin degradation by leukocytic lysosomes
b. Overproduction of synovial fluid by synoviocytes 239. Under what conditions will a port wine
c. Autoimmune response of synoviocytes in joint color be observed in a urine specimen
disease A. Lead poisoning
d. Depolymerization of hyaluronate by B. Porphyria
neutrophilic enzymes C. Cloret ingestion
D. Both A nad B
232. Which of the following conditions is
commonly associated with an exudative 240. Lack of odor in urine from patient is
effusion? seen in :
a. CHF A. Acute tubular necrosis
b. Malignancy B. Tubular interstitial nephritis
c. Nephrotic syndrome C. Tyrosinemia
d. Cirrhosis D. Oliguria

233. Which of the following specimen usually

241. Nocturia is excretion of more than ___ of 249. A urine specimen is tested for protein by
urine at night with specific gravity of less than reagent strip and by the SSA test. The reagent
__ . strip result is negative and the SSA result is 2+.
A. 500 ml, 1.010 Which of the following statements best explains
B. 2000ml, 1.010 this discrepancy?
C. 500 ml, 1.018 A. The reagent strip result is falsely negative
D. 2000ml , 1.018 due to the urine’s pH of 8
B. A large amount of amorphous urates in the
242. Which ofn the following methods is an urine caused the false positive SSA result
indirect measure of S.G? C. A protein other than albumin is present
A. Falling drop method in urine
B. Harmonic oscillation method D. The time interval for reading the reagents
C. Urinometer strip was exceeded, causing a false negative
D. Reagent strip (chemical) result

243. The reagent strip method for detecting 250. Glucosuria not accompanied by
S.G is unaffected by the following: hyperglycemia can be seen in which of the
A. Protein following?
B. X-ray contrast dye A. DM
C. AOTA B. Hormonal disorders
D. `Glucose C. Gestational diabetes
D. Renal disease
244. A patient with SIADH secretion would
produce a urine with: 251. The glucose reagent strip is more
A. Low volume sensitive and specific for glucose than the
B. High glucose clinitest method because it detects:
C. High volume A. Other reducing susbtances and higher
D. Low S.G concentration of glucose
B. No other susbtances and higher
245. A specimen diluted 1:5 with a reading of concentrations of glucose
1.010 would have an actual S.G of : C. No other substances and lower
A. 1.050 concentrations of glucose
B. 1.025 D. Other reducing substances and lower
C. 1.002 concentrations of glucose
D. 5.000
252. All are components of clinitest, Except:
246. Following rhabdomyolysis, which of the A. Copper sulfate
following is true? B. Sodium carbonate, sodium citrate
A. RTE cells are observed in urine C. Sodium hydroxide
B. It produces clear red urine not D. Lactose
precipitated by ammonium sulfate
C. It causes tea-colored urine that produces 253. A 17 year old girl decided to go on a
yellow foam when shaken starvation diet. After one week of starving
D. Plasma creatinine is decreased. herself, what substances would most likely be
found in her urine?
247. The double indicator system employed A. Protein
by commercial reagent strips to determine urine B. Ketones
pH uses which two indicator dyes? C. Glucose
A. Methyl red and bromphenol blue D. Blood
B. Phenol red and thymol blue
C. Methyl red and bromthymol blue 254. Which of the following ketones are not
D. Phenolphthalein and litmus detected by the reagent strip or tablet test?
A. Acetone
248. Which of the following statements about B. Acetoacetate
Bence Jones protein is correct? C. B-hydroxybutyrate
A. It consists of kappa or lambda light D. Acetone and aceto acetate
chains
B. It is often found in the urine of patients with 255. All are components of Acetest, EXCEPT:
multiple sclerosis A. Sodium nitroprusside
C. It can produce a positive reagent strip B. Glycine, disodium phosphate
protein test and a negative SSA test C. Lactose
D. It precipitates when the urine is heated at D. Glucose oxidase
100 oC and redissolves when cooled to 60oC 256. The ketone reagent strip and tablet tests
are based on the reactivity of ketones with:
A. Ferric chloride
 B. Nitroprusside B. A positive test for bilirubin and a decrease
C. Ferric nitrate amount of urobilinogen
D. Nitroglycerin C. A negative test for bilirubin and an
increase amount of urobilinogen
257. Which of the following aids in the D. A negative test for bilirubin and a decrease
differentiation of hemoglobinuria and amount of urobilinogen
hematuria?
A. Urine Ph 265. Which of the following is true regarding
B. Urine color uric acid and cysteine?
C. Microscopic examination 1.Both crystals polarize
D. Leukocyte esterase test 2.both are soluble in ammonia
3.Both will dissolve in dilute HCL
258. Urobilinogen is formed from the : 4.Cystine is cyanide nitroprusside (+)
A. Conjugation of bilirubin in the liver A. 2 and 4
B. Reduction of conjugated bilirubin in bile B. 1,2 and 4
C. Reduction of bilirubin by intestinal C. 4 only
bacteria D. 1,2,3 and 4
D. Oxidation of urobilin by anaerobic intestinal
bacteria 266. Which of the following organism, when
present in urine will not produce a positive
259. Red colored-compound produced with nitrite test?
the Watson-Schwartz test that is insoluble in 1.yeast
chloroform and butanol is: 2.Enterococcus
A. Uroporphyrin 3.Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Porphobilinogen
C. Urobilinogen A. 1 and 3
D. Protoporhyrin B. 1,2 and 3
C. 2 and 3
260. Which of the following will NOT cause D. 1 only
ketonemia and ketonuria?
A. An inability to use carbohydrates 267. Which of the following blood cells will
B. Inadequate intake of carbohydrates not be detected by the leukocyte esterase pad?
C. Increased metabolism of carbohydrates A. Monocyte
D. Excessive loss of carbohydrates B. Neutrophil
C. Lymphocyte
261. Speckled pattern on blood reagent pad: D. Eosinophil
A. Hematuria
B. Hemoglobinuria 268. The principle of most automated
C. Myoglobinuria analyzer in CM?
D. AOTA A. Spectrophotometry
B. Reflectance photometry
262. Which of the following reagent strip tests C. Fluorometry
can be affected by ascorbic acid, resulting false D. Turbidimetry
negative results?
A. Blood 269. This type of microscope enhances
B. Bilirubin visualization of elements with low refractive
C. Nitrite indices, such as hyaline casts, mucus threads
D. AOTA and Trichomonas.
A. Bright field
263. Which of the following statements about B. Phase –contrast
bilirubin is TRUE? C. Polarizing
A. Conjugated bilirubin is water insoluble D. Interference contrast
B. Bilirubin is a degradation product of
heme catabolism 270. All of the following can cause a negative
C. Unconjugated bilirubin readily passes nitrite reading, EXCEPT
through the Glomerular filtration barrier A. Gram positive bacteria
D. The liver conjugates bilirubin with albumin B. Gram negative bacteria
to form conjugated bilirubin C. Random urine specimens
D. Heavy bacterial infection
264. Which of the following are
characteristics urine findings from a patient with 271. Which of the following statements about
hemolytic jaundice? urobilinogen is TRUE?
A. A positive test for bilirubin and an increase A. Urobilinogen is not normally present in
amount of urobilinogen urine
 B. Urobilinogen excretion is usually decreased B. The same wavelength of light is used to
following a meal evaluate all reaction pads
C. Urobilinogen excretion is an indicator of C. The intensity of light reflected from a
renal function polished surface is quantified
D. Urobilinogen is labile and will readily D. The relationship between reflectance and
photo-oxidize to urobilin concentration is not linear
272. The hoesch test is used to monitor 280. Personnel in the urinalysis laboratory
patients for the presence of: should wear lab coats that:
A. Urobilinogen A. Do not have buttons
B. Nitrite B. Are fluid resistant
C. Porphobilinogen C. Have short sleeves
D. Leukocyte esterase D. Have full length zippers
273. Which of the following situations will not
be requested for a repeat collection? 281. When combining acid and water, ensure
A. An intense blue color in the pH pad and a that
uniform pink color in the nitrite pad in the A. Acid is added to water
reagent strip B. They are added simultaneously
B. Presence of thorny apple crystals C. Water is added to acid
C. A cloudy urine with a strong odor of D. Water is slowly added to acid
ammonia
D. A hazy specimen with a specific gravity of 282. Which of the following is not considered
1.000 as P.P.E?
A. Gloves
274. How will RBC appears in hypertonic B. Lab coat
urine? C. NOTA
A. Biconcave disk D. Eyeglasses
B. Crenated
C. Swollen 283. Which of the following information is Not
D. Lysed found on a material safety data sheet?
A. Exposure limits
275. Glitter cells are: B. Catalog number
A. Crenated RBC C. Hazardous ingredients
B. Infected tubular cells D. Flammability of the chemical
C. Macrophages with inclusion
D. Swollen leukocytes 284. Which of the following actions present a
good laboratory practice?
276. Urinary cast are formed with a core A.Washing or sanitizing hands frequently
matrix of: B. wearing lab coats outside the laboratory
A. Albumin C. Removing lab coats from the laboratory for
B. Tamm horsfall protein laundering at home in 2 % bleach
C. Bence jones protein D. wearing the same gloves to perform
D. Transferrin venipuncture on 2 different patients because the
patient are in the same room
277. All of the following will enhance cast
formation EXCEPT 285. What agency is responsible for defining,
A. Urinary stasis establishing and monitoring safety and health
B. Alkaline pH hazards in the work place?
C. Increase in the ultrafiltrate’s solute A. Occupational safety and health
concentration administration
D. Increase in the amount of plasma proteins B. Occupational safety and health agency
in the ultrafiltrate C. Centers for disease control and prevention
D. Chemical hygiene agency

278. How much urine is usually required for 286. Amniotic fluid is immediately protected
a manually performed routine urinalysis? from light to preserve which of the following
A. 5 to 10 mL substances?
B. 10 to 15 mL A. Phospolipids
C. 20 to 30 Ml B. Fetal cells
D. 50 to 100 ml C. Meconium
279. Select the true statement regarding D. Bilirubin
reflectance photometry
A. The amount of light that is absorbed is 287. Liley graph: indicates moderate
detected and measured hemolysis and require careful monitoring
 anticipating an early delivery or exchange
transfusion upon delivery 296. mass screening for occult blood ( most
A. Zone 1 frequently performed fecal analysis) in the feces
B. ZONE 2 is primarily performed to detect:
C. ZONE 3 A. Colorectal cancer
D. None of these B. Hemorrhoids
C. Ulcer
288. Which of the following is not a test to D. Esophageal varices
evaluate the surfactants present in the fetal
pulmonary system? 297. Due to variability in bowel habits, the
A. Foam stability index most representative timed fecal sample is:
B. L/S ratio A. 2-day collection
C. Phosphatidyl glycerol B. 3-day collection
D. O.D 450 C. 4-day collection
D. 5-day collection
289. The best available guide in assessment
of gestational age is the amniotic determination 298. In the APT test, maternal hemoglobin
of: will produce a:
A. Bilirubin A. Pink solution
B. Uric acid B. Yellow brown supernatant after standing
C. Creatinine for 2 minutes
D. Protein C. Yellow- brown precipitate after standing for
2 minutes
290. Which of the following terms is another D. Red-brown supernatant after standing for 2
name for peritoneal fluid? minutes.
A. Synovial
B. Ascetic 299. Which of the following dietary
C. Pelvic substances can cause a false negative fecal
D. Abdominal occult blood slide test?
A. Ascorbic acid
291. Adenosine deaminase levels of ___ or B. Fish
greater are present in about 99.6% of patients C. Red meat
with verified tuberculosis pleuritis D. Fruits and vegetables
A. 40%
B. 100% 300. In an examination of stool preparations
C. 100 U/L under high power, as few as __ can be indicative
D. 40 U/L of an invasive condition
A. One neutrophil per/HPF
292. RBC Count in a peritoneal lavage B. Two neutrophil per/ HPF
indicative of blunt trauma injury C. Three neutrophils/ HPF
A. >100 RBCS/ul D. Four neutrophils per / HPF
B. >1000 RBCs/ul
C. >10, 000 RBCS/ul 301. Which part of the microscope magnifies
D. >100,000 RBCs/ul the image from the high power objective lens?
a. Eyepiece
293. Which of the following substances is b. Low power objective
NOT a component of “normal” feces? c. Condenser
A. Blood d. Oil immersion objective
B. Bacteria 302. Which of the following substances is
C. Electrolytes associated with Melanuria?
D. Water a. Sodium bicarbonate
b. Tyrosine
294. Which of the following conditions is c. Phenylpyruvic acid
characterized by the excretion of greasy, pale, d. Homogenistic acid
foul smelling feces? 303. Which of the following functions are
A. Steatorrhea performed by the kidneys?
B. Secretory diarrhea a. Filtration, reabsorption and secretion
C. Osmotic diarrhea b. Filtration and reabsorption
D. Intestinal hypermotility c. Secretion and dehydration
d. Filtration and secretion
295. A normal stool Ph: 304. CSF Tube labeled 2 will be sent to
A. pH 4 to 5 ______.
B. pH 5 to 6 a. Chemistry
C. pH 7 to 8 b. Microbiology
D. pH 8 to 9 c. Hematology
 d. Serology a. Blue, green and yellow
305. Which of the following has been b. Green, yellow and orange
observed in urine as the MOST common sign of c. Orange and red
fecal contamination? d. Blue and green
a. Enterobius ova 315. The substance which forms the moulds
b. Schistosoma haematobium of urinary casts are produced by the ___ cells.
c. Trichomonas vaginalis a. Loop of Henle
d. Entamoeba histolytica b. Renal tubular
306. Turbidity of alkaline urine upon c. Bladder
standing is usually due to _________. d. Transitional epithelial
a. Pus cells 316. What is the chemical component of
b. Urates calculi which is often produced by persons with
c. Albumin Leukemia, Lymphoma and Polycythemia?
d. Phosphates a. Uric acid
307. With regards to hazardous chemical, b. Calcium oxalate
what warnings to alert on dangers are posted on c. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
the labels of chemicals? d. Cysteine
a. Hazardous, very hazardous, non- 317. First morning urine is the specimen of
hazardous choice EXCEPT for _____.
b. Poisonous, corrosive, carcinogenic a. Routine Urinalysis
c. Toxic, non-toxic b. Urobilinogen
d. Normal, dangerous, very dangerous, c. Urine Culture
deadly d. Pregnancy Test
308. Which of the following is the criterion for 318. Describe the appearance of a urine
polyuria? protein test done by qualitative wet method
a. The urine colume / 24 hours exceeds 3 graded as positive 1+ ?
Liters a. Turbidity with granulation but
b. The patient urinates more than 10 flocculation
times/ 24 hours b. Turbidity with flocculation
c. Urine consistently exceeds a total c. Distinct turbidity with no granulation
volume of 2,000 ml/ 24 hours d. Noticeable turbidity
d. The patient urinates more than 20 times 319. Which urine clarity described as few
in 24 hours particulates, print easily seen through
309. Which vitamin should NOT be taken newsprint?
prior to FOBT testing? a. Very cloudy
a. Vitamin B12 b. clear
b. Vitamin E c. Hazy
c. Vitamin D d. Cloudy
d. Vitamin C 320. The measurement of amniotic fluid
310. What is the normal value of leukocytes Biliburin is by ____.
in synovial fluid? (per hpf) a. Jaffe reaction
a. 0-25 b. Diazo reaction
b. 0-10 c. Spectrophotometric analysis
c. Less than 1000 d. Schlesinger test
d. Less than 200 321. The presence of more than 25 aquamous
311. Which formula for calculated glomerular epithelial cells and less than 25 neutrophils in
filtration rate includes BUN and serum albumin? sputum indicates that _____ .
a. Inulin clearance a. The patient has vital infection
b. Creatinine clearance b. The patient has parasitism
c. MDRD c. The patient has bacterial infection
d. Cocroft and gault d. The specimen is admixed with saliva
312. Which of the following is the reagent is 322. What standard is used in calibrating the
used for Amniotic fluid Foam Stability Test? baseline of a urinometer?
a. 40% isopropanol a. Glucose solution
b. Anhydrous ether b. Distilled water
c. 95% ethanol c. Levulose
d. 70% ethyl alcohol d. Saline solution
313. Which blood vessel supplies blood to the 323. Which form of biliburin is detectable in
kidney? urine?
a. Collecting ducts a. Conjugated
b. Renal vein b. Unconjugated
c. Renal artery c. Biliverdin
d. Glomerular tuft d. All forms
314. Copper sulfate was used to test sugar in 324. While a patient is under treatment for
urine. Which colors indicate glycosuria? the presence of renal stones, which of the
 following findings would be of importance to the c. Nephrosis
clinician? d. Oliguria
a. Calcium oxalate 335. Which of the following is the most
b. Proteinuria common form of calcium oxalate crystals seen
c. Microscopic hematuria microscopically?
d. pH a. Cold wedges
325. What part of a microscope is replaced to b. Elongated hour glass
convert a bright field to a dark field microscope? c. Octahedral envelopes
a. Polarizing filter d. Oval shaped
b. A split aperture 336. What important procedure is done after
c. Iris diaphragm removal of gloves?
d. Condenser a. Hand washing
326. Blondheim test is used for differentiating b. Rubbing hands with 40% alcohol
which chemicals found in urine? c. Rubbing hands with 70% alcohol
a. Ferritin and hemoglobin d. Apply any antiseptic
b. Glucose from other sugars 337. One of the following is a diluent for CSF
c. Myoglobin and hemoglobin WBC?
d. Hemosiderin and myoglobin a. 3% HAc
327. What is the anticoagulant of choice for b. HABA
pleural fluid chemistry tests? c. 0.1 HCL
a. Heparin d. 10% H2S04
b. EDTA 338. 2, 6- dichlorobenzene-diazonium-
c. Potassium oxalate tetraflouroborate is a chemical embedded in the
d. None urine strip test for ___.
328. Which of the following organisms will a. Hemoglobin
produce a positive reaction of Nitrite in urine? b. Bilirubin
a. Coliform c. Leukocyte esterase
b. Koch’s bacilli d. Nitrite
c. All gram negative bacilli 339. How much urine which should be placed
d. Staphylococci in a urinometer to get an accurate reading?
329. The type of microscope BEST to view a. 30 ul
casts is ___. b. 50 ml
a. Phase contrast c. 10 ml
b. Dark field d. 100 ul
c. Polarizing 340. Under which category will synovial fluid
d. Bright field with a wbc count of 800/ul fall?
330. Pleural fluid extraction is referred to as a. Non-inflammatory
____. b. Hemorrhagic
a. Paracentecis c. Inflammatory
b. Thoracentecis d. Septic
c. Amniocentesis 341. In automated urinalysis Sysmex UF
d. Arthrocenthesis series, the DNA within the cells are stained by
331. What condition has the peculiar output ___.
of odorless urine? a. Oil red O
a. Ketosis b. Penathridine
b. Tubular necrosis c. Alkaline phosphatase
c. Diabetes d. Carbocyanin
d. nocturia 342. Specimens for Sperm count is kept at
332. Which bag is used for the disposal of _____°C
biodegradable materials? a. -5
a. Yellow b. 22
b. Black c. 37
c. Green d. 0
d. red 343. What debilitating disease can be
333. Which is a cause of transudative assessed by monitoring oligoclonal bands in
peritoneal fluid? CSF?
a. Ruptured appendicitis a. TB Meningitis
b. Cancer of the colon b. AIDS
c. Cirrhosis of the liver c. Neurosyphillis
d. Perforated intestines d. Multiple myeloma
334. What term is used to describe the 344. Which reagent is necessary for
condition in which a person fails to produce cytocentrifugation of CSF to increase the cell
urine? yield?
a. Nephritis a. LISS
b. Anuria b. 30% Albumin
 c. 10% albumin 354. A urine sample has a specific gravity of
d. NSS 1.005, what is the appropriate term for this
345. Which of the following is an application condition?
of the usefulness of Fecal Occult blood test? a. Oligosthenuria
a. Mass screening for colo-rectal cancer b. Hyposthenuria
b. Test for parasitism c. Isosthenuria
c. Test for orchitis d. Hypersthenuria
d. Test for pancreatitis 355. After a 12 round boxing game, the
346. POCT pregnancy test is ______. boxer’s urine was red in color. Other than blood,
a. Capable of detection at 1 IU/ml what could cause such color?
b. An indirect test for the presence of a a. Urobilinogen
fetus b. Myoglobin
c. Also be used as an indicator for hydatid c. Haptoglobin
mole d. Biliburin
d. An accurate test to determine the 356. What viscosity grade is appropriate if the
presence of a fetus semen is described as “watery”?
347. A decrease in sperm motility and a. 5
presence of clumping is an indication of _____. b. 0
a. Male antisperm antibodies c. 2
b. Low level of fructose d. 10
c. Female antisperm antibodies 357. A POSITIVE reaction in the strip test for
d. Low volume of acid phosphatase bilirubin is ____ color.
348. Cleaning of hands in a Clinical a. Pink to violet
Microscopy laboratory is done ____. b. Orange to brick red
a. Up to the elbow for 5 minutes c. Pale green to emerald green
b. Up to the wrist for 15 seconds d. Beige to brown
c. For a minimum of 10 minutes 358. What causes the normal color of feces?
d. In an upward position for 1 minute a. Pancreatic enzymes
349. Which crystal is found in acid urine as b. Muscle fibers
single or double envelopes? c. Urobilin
a. Dihydrate calcium oxalate d. Cellulose
b. Uric acid 359. A freshly voided urine has strong
c. Monohydrate calcium oxalate ammoniacal scent. Which of the following is the
d. Cysteine MOST possible reason?
350. What is the color of normal gastric a. Urinary tract infection
juice? b. Alkaptonuria
a. Pale yellow and turbid c. Phenylketonuria
b. Clean and colorless d. Diabetic acidosis
c. Pale gray 360. In manual, routine urinalysis, how are
d. White and transparent squamous epithelial cells reported?
351. Synovial fluid for microscopic study a. Average number /0 HPF
should be collected in ____. b. Few, moderate, many, abundant /
a. Liquid EDTA LPF
b. Red top tube and refrigerated c. Few, moderate, many, abundant / HPF
c. Powdered EDTA d. Present / none seen
d. Heparinized syringe 361. A semen sample arrives with an order
352. How is CSF preserved for Resorcinol for fructose. How is it preserved?
test? a. Put it in the refrigerator
a. Keep frozen b. Freeze it
b. Store at room temperature c. Keep in a dry area at room temperature
c. Store in gray top tube d. Keep it at body temperature
d. Keep in heparinized tube 362. Which sample of sputum/bronchial
353. If you receive a urine sample which is aspirate is MOST suitable for bacteriologic
improperly labeled, which is the appropriate study?
corrective action? a. NaCl induced sputum
a. Reject the specimen, inform the b. Mouthwash induced secretion
station and ask for a new sample c. Naso-pharyngeal washes
b. Call the ward, ask who collected and d. Bronchio-alveolar lavage
help out by putting a new label 363. Which describe how red cells from a
c. Call the ward, return the sample and dilute urine sample left unattended at room
ask them to relabel temperature for hours will look microscopically?
d. Send communication to the ward about a. Brownian movement
their mistake but continue offer solution b. Swollen, like faint halos
c. Crenated
d. Isomorphic
364. The term PYURIA refers to the _____. c. Flush the eyes with boric acid for 15
a. Urinary tract infection minutes
b. Inflammation of the glomeruli d. Close your eyes and tears will wash the
c. Abnormal presence of wbc in urine liquid out
d. Presence of blood in the kidney 374. Alkaline urine is produced if a diet rich
365. What abnormality is associated with in ______.
poor sperm motility but the count is normal? a. Meat
a. Lack of seminal vesicle support medium b. Lipids
b. Presence of male antisperm antibody c. Vegetables
c. Female antisperm antibodies d. Proteins and fats
d. Viability of the sperm cells 375. Which of the following is a significant
366. A urine specimen using a refractometer, value of AER?
after being diluted 1:5 had a reading of 1.009. a. 10-20 mg
what is the actual specific gravity? b. 20 mg/24 hr
a. 1.0045 c. 5-20 ug/min
b. 1.45 d. 20-200 µg/min
c. 1.045 376. What test is used to differentiate
d. 1.014 porphobilinogen, urobilinogen and other related
367. The presence of many eosinophils in compounds?
urine is associated with what disease? a. Nitroso-naphtol
a. Chronic glomerulonephritis b. Watson-Schwartz
b. End stage renal disease c. Diazo
c. Drug-induced interstitial nephritis d. Guthrie
d. Diabetes insipidus 377. Parietal cells produce Hydrochloric acid
368. What is the principle of the current in response to ______.
pregnancy test kit? a. Lipase
a. Precipitation b. Pepsin
b. Immunologic c. Gastrin
c. Chemical d. Amylase
d. Nephelometric 378. Which chemical test for CSF is
369. Which of the following is a predictive of Multiple Sclerosis?
recommended precaution about the use of a. MBP
dipsticks? b. Glutamine
a. Urine kept in the refrigerator must be c. D-dimer
pre-warmed to room temperature d. Lactate
before testing 379. You are asked to do eosinophil count
b. Dip reagent strips in urine for exactly 5 from urine sediment. How many white cells do
seconds you need to count, and at least how many
c. Expired strips can be used as long as eosinophils constitute a significant finding?
there is no discoloration of pads a. 500-5
d. Lay the reagent strips flat, face down b. 200-10
and direct on the workbench surface c. 500-50
370. Apatite is another name for _______. d. 100-10
a. Calcium phosphate 380. Negrosin-eosin stain will color live sperm
b. Calcium carbonate cells ____ against a purple background.
c. Magnesium ammonium phosphate a. Red
d. Calcium oxalate b. Bluish white
371. What is the principle used in the protein c. Dark green
test using urine strips? d. Black
a. The error of indicator 381. Which of the following stones are caused
b. Enzymatic property of protein by inherited metabolic abnormality?
c. Combining capacity with the substrate a. Calcium oxalate
d. Reducing property of protein b. Struvite
372. Meningitis caused by Cryptococcus c. Cysteine
meningitis will have _____ in CSF? d. Calcium phosphate
a. High protein 382. What important precaution is done
b. Increased lactate when collecting synovial fluid for glucose study?
c. All of these a. Use sodium fluoride tube
d. Increase wbc b. Keep at room temperature
373. While performing Benedict’s test, the c. Collect anaerobically
reagent accidentally spilled while boiling and d. Use heparinized tube
splashed into your eyes. What must you do? 383. Which of the following is a clinically
a. Cry for help and ask someone to significant squamous epithelial cell?
splash water on your eyes a. Urothelial cell
b. Wash eyes with mild vinegar b. Clue cell
 c. Caudate cell b. Nigrosin
d. Cuboidal cell c. Phenathridine
384. Which of the following is an important d. Carbocyanin
characteristic finding in Nephrotic Suyndrome? 394. Dark red brown color of amniotic fluid is
a. Glucosuria indicative of _____.
b. Hematuria a. Liver disease
c. Biliburinuria b. Fetal death
d. Proteinuria c. Hemolytic disease
385. What disorder produces in urine d. Meconium
characteristics crystals which look like 395. At what temperature range do proteins
rectangular plates with a notch in one corner? associated with multiple myeloma coagulate in
a. Lipiduria urine ?
b. Hepatitis A. 60 to 100 ‘C
c. Multiple myeloma B. 60 to 80 ‘ C
d. Gout C. 80 TO 90 ‘ C
386. What is the screening test used by D. 40 to 60 ‘C
DOTS centers for the detection of Tuberculosis?
a. Gram stain 396. False positive of 5-HIAA can be caused
b. DSSM by ingestion of
c. Fluorescence technique a. Brown rice
d. X-ray b. Banana
387. An increase in the amount of peritoneal c. Beef
fluid is called ______. d. Cassava
a. An exudate
b. An effusion 397. Which is the correct fasting preparation
c. Pleurisy prior to collection of semen? (Number of days
d. A transudate after the last coitus)
388. Which of the following will not be able to a. 7 to 10
pass through the glomeruli if the kidneys are b. 5 to 10
healthy? c. 2 to 7
a. Creatinine d. 15 to 30
b. Sodium
c. Albumin 398. Which of the following is associated with
d. Urea polyuria and low specific gravity
389. Why would the physician be interested a. Fanconi syndrome
in tail morphology of sperm cells? b. Renal glycosuria
a. The tail is vital to the release of enzymes c. Chronic cystitis
b. The tail is vital to the penetration of the d. Diabetes insipidus
ovum 399. Cholesterol crystals are seen
c. Morphology of the tail affects the microscopically as __
motility a. Rectangular plate with a notch in one or
d. The nucleus of the sperm is in the tail two corners
390. Which of the following is the correct way b. Yellow to orange rossettes
to clean the lenses of a microscope? c. Fine colorless to yellow needles
a. Lens paper d. Colorless, dimpled hexagonal plates
b. Any of these
c. Cotton dipped in Xylene 400. The formation of a web-like pellicle in
d. Mild soap and water CSF after overnight refrigeration is indicative
391. How are uric acid crystals differentiated of__
from cysteine? a. Cerebral malaria
a. Dissolve in Acetic Acid b. AIDS
b. Become hexagonal after adding HCL c. TB meningitis
c. Highly refringent under polarized d. Neurosyphilis
light
d. Form maltese cross under phase 401. What is the appropriate grade of
contrast microscope viscosity of semen described as gel like
392. Which urine test is used as screening a. 10
test for liver disease? b. 5
a. Creatinine c. 4
b. Cysteine d. 0
c. Bilirubin
d. Hemoglobin 402. Which protein secreted by the kidney
393. What stain is used for nuclear material cells can be seen microscopically in renal
in automated microscopy? disease?
a. Acridine orange a. None of these
 b. Tamm-horsefall protein b. Bacteria
c. Bence jones protein c. Electrolytes
d. Globulin d. Water

403. Which of the following are the 412. What is the color of positive resorcinol
designated fire hazard flash points? test
a. 0 to 4 a. Black
b. A to D b. Blue
c. 0 TO 10 c. Green
d. A,B,C d. Orange

404. The normal amount of lymphocyte in 413. Which biologic waste do not need to be
BAL? disposed in biohazard containers?
a. 10 to 25% a. Urine
b. 1 to 15 % b. Plueral samples
c. 50 to 80% c. Stool and urine
d. 100% d. Serum and plasma

405. Which of the following crystals found in 414. Which of the following is the best gauge
urine with PH 7 and below? of acute tubular necrosis of the kidney?
a. Amorphous phosphates, calcium a. Dysmorphic rbc
carbonate, triple phosphate b. >100/hpf Pus cells
b. Calcium oxalate, uric acid,and c. Dirty brown cast
amorphous urates d. Hemoglobinuria
c. Uric acid, a.urates, calcium
carbonate 415. The most reliable test for the
d. A.biurates, a.urates, and uric acid differentiation of transudative from exudative
pleural fluid is
406. which compound is elevated in A. Wbc count
congenital erythropoeitic porphyria? B. Fluid:serum Protein ratio
a. protoporphyrin C. Rbc count
b. amino levulinic acid D. Differential count of tissue cell
c.uroporphyrin
d.porphobilinogen 416. Oval fat bodies are product of :
a. Cast
407. What change in urine is an indicator of b. RTE
pre-eclampsia? c. Lipidemia
a. 4+ glucose d. Bile pigments
b. Albuminuria
c. Hematuria 417. Synovial fluid with WBC OF 150 is
d. 4+ nitrite classified as
a. Septic
408. Which of the following is correct about b. Inflammatory
filtration? c. Non-inflammatory
a. An absolute secretory type of filtration d. Normal
b. A type of mechanical filtration 418. Which is best time collection for urine
c. A chemical process of filtration microscopic study of crystals?
d. A discriminative type of filtration a. First morning
b. 2 hr post prandial
409. Which of the following are chemicals c. 1 hr after a heavy meal
found in a normal urine ? d. 24 hours
a.urea, creatinine, and sugar
b.urea, creatinine,and nitrate 419. How can bacteria be counted in
c.ketones,sugar, and protein automated slideless urinalysis?
d.sodium, nitrine, and Leukocyte esterase a.colorimetric reaction
b.reflectance photometry
410. What other crystals will be seen in urine c.use of small particle histogram
in liver disease besides bilirubin? d.indirectly through nitrite test
a. Cholesterol
b. Leucine 420. What peculiar odor does urine exude in
c. Sulfonamide the presence of breakdown product of urea?
d. Calcium carbonate a. Fruity
b. Pungent
411. Which is abnormal constituent of feces? c. Sweaty feet
a. Rbcs d. Mousy
 430. Which of the following is/are principles
421. Which among the following will appear applied in the mechanism of the slide less
as yellow stone which is moderately hard in automated machine for microscopy?
urine? a. Fluorescence
a. Calcium oxalate b. Impedance and reflectance photometry
b. Calcium phosphate c. Fluorescence, impedance and light
c. Uric acid scatter
d. Cysteine d. Light scatter
422. Which inorganic substance has the
highest concentration in urine? 431. The home kit or point of care test kit
a. Creatinine used for pregnancy testing makes use of an
b. Sodium antibody which his directed against_
c. Phosphates a. Beta subunit of the aminoacid
d. Urea b. Gamma subunit of the glycolipid
c. Beta subunit of the glycolipid
423. A breakdown product of serotonin d. Alpha subunit of the mucoprotein
which is eliminated through the urine is ___ 432. Ideally, when is quality control done in
a. 5-HIAA urinalysis section?
b. Cystine a.once a week
c. Mucopolysaccharide b. once a month
d. 17-ketosteroid c.together with each specimen
424. Which of the following statement is d.at the beginning of the shift
correct about sputum?
a. It is a normal body fluid 433. When is the collection ,in number of
b. Its usual color is greenish weeks after gestation , of amniotic fluid for the
c. It is secreted by the trachea bronchial early intervention for down syndrome?
tree a. 15 to 18 weeks
d. A 24 hour collection is necessary to do an b. 20 to 22 weeks
accurate test c. 10 to 15 weeks
d. 20 to 42 weeks
425. What cell is present in normal CSF? 434. Pinky crystals are seen at the bottom of
A.Plasma cell a urine container under HPO, you saw dark
B. lymphocyte yellow granules. What are these?
c.Eosinophil a. Ammonium biurates
D. Neutrophil b. Urates
c. Cysteine
426. Differentiation of yeast cells, RBC, and d. Dicalcium phosphate
fat globules in urine sediment may be 435. Gradual change in one direction of the
accomplished by all of these EXCEPT mean of a control substances
a. Increased refractility of oil globules A. Shift
b. Observations of buds in yeast cell B. Trend
c. Lysis of yeast cells in acetic acid C. Both B and C
d. Use of supravital stain D. Kurtosis
427. A freshly voided urine has strong
pungent odor. Which of the following is the most 436. Which statement about hemoglobin and
possible reason? myoglobin is true?
a. Renal failure A. They are both heme containing proteins
b. Bacteriuria involved in oxygen transport
c. DM B. Their presence is suspected when both the
d. Phenylketonuria urine and the serum are color red
C. Their presence in serum is associated with
428. The result of glucose in peritoneal fluid hight creatinine kinase values
was lower than that obtained from plasma. D. They precipitate out of solution when the
Which of the following is correlated? urine ois 80% saturated with ammonium
a.appendicitis sulfate
b. pancreatitis
c.Diabetis insipidus
d.bacterial peritonitis 437. A repeat semen analysis for fertility
testing is reported as follows:
429. If synovial fluid forms a string 6cm Volume = 3.5ml
long, it is considered as __ Viscosity = normal
a. Low , abnormal pH-= 7.5
b. Invalid test Sperm concentration = 6 million/ml
c. Normal Sperm motility= 30% - grade 1.0
d. High, abnormal Morphology = <30 % normal forms
 445. Which of the following amniotic fluid
What are the abnormal parameters? values represents a risk for respiratory distress
A. Volume, sperm concentration and syndrome?
morphology A. L/S ratio of 2.5
B. pH, sperm morphology and volume B. Lamellar body count of 30,00/ ul
C. morphology, sperm concentration and C. Absorbance level of 0.30 at 450nm
motility D. Increased acetylcholinesterase activity
D. all parameters are normal
446. Photo oxidation of bilirubin imparts a
yellow-green color to the urine. Photo oxidation
of large amounts of excreted urobilinogen to
438. Wbc count in peritoneal fluid found in
urobilin also produces yellow foam when
bacterial peritonitis?
shaken:
A. >5 cells/ul
B. >25 cells/ ul A. Only 1st statement is true
C. >50 cells/ ul B. Only 2nd statement is true
D. >500 cells/ul C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false

447. Daily loss of protein in urine normally

439. Low to absent seminal fluid fructose in does not exceed ;
semen corresponds to a: A. 30mg
A. Abnormal morphology B. 50mg
B. Low motility C. 100mg
C. Low sperm concentration D. 150mg
D. Low WBC count
448. A urine specimen is tested for protein by
reagent strip and by the SSA test. The reagents
440. What is a nubecula? strip result is negative and the SSA result is 2+.
A. An oily layer in urine Which of the following statements best explains
B. A faint cloud in urine this discrepancy?
C. A dark spot in urine A. A protein other than albumin is present
D. A foamy urine in urine
B. The reagent strip result is falsely negative
441. A flash point number 4 indicates: due to the urine’s pH of 8.0
A. Burning below 100’C C. A large amount of amorphous urates in the
B. Burning above 200’F urine caused the false positive SSA result
C. Burning below 73’F D. The time interval for reading the reagents
D. Burning below 100’C strip was exceeded, causeing a false negative
result
442. Reading time for micral test reagent
strip: 449. Which of the following characterizes
A. 30 seconds nephrotic syndrome?
B. 120 seconds 1.proteinuria
C. 45 seconds 2.edema
D. 60 seconds 3.hypoalbuminemia
4.Hyperlipidemia
443. All of the following are safe to do when A. 1,2 AND 3
removing the source of an electric shock B. 1 AND 3
EXCEPT: C. 4 is correct
A. Pulling the person away from the instrument D. All are correct
using a wood
B. Turning off the circuit breaker 450. Increased amounts of uric acid crystals,
C. Pulling the person away from the particularly in fresh urine, are associated with
instrument using a bare hands. increased levels of purines and nucleic acids and
D. Unplugging the equipment are seen in patients with:
A. Leukemia who are receiving chemotherapy
444. Failure to produce bubbles in the foam B. Lesch –nyhan syndrome
stability index indicates: C. Gout
A. Presence of lecithin D. AOTA
B. Decreased protein
C. Decreased lecithin
D. Increased bilirubin