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Competishun
52/6, Opposite Metro Mas Hospital, Shipra Path, Mansarovar

Date: 06/05/2023
Time: 3 hours Max. Marks: 180

CATS/AFST-5_(ADVANCE PATTERN)_Paper-2

Physics
Multiple Choice Question

Q1 A non–conducting uniform ring of mass m and radius R is charged with uniform


charge density λ as shown placed at rest on a rough non–conducting horizontal
surface. A uniform electric field of magnitude E0 is switched on towards right in
horizontal direction. Choose the correct options if ring start rolling without sliding:

a)    Centre of mass of the ring will not move if surface is frictionless


b)    Net torque of electric force on the ring will be clockwise and 2λR2E0
c) Friction will increase speed of centre of mass of the ring but decrease the angular
   speed of the ring
d)    Frictional force on the ring will be right and magnitude will be 2λRE0

Q2 Current in a resistor R uniformly decreases from some value to zero in time Δ t. Total
charge, that crosses the cross section is q. Choose the correct option(s)
a)   
Heat generated in the resistance during this process is

b)   
Heat generated in the resistance during this process is
c)   
maximum current is i0 = ​

d)   
maximum current is i0 = ​

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Q3 AB is part of a circuit as shown, that absorbs energy at a rate of 50 W. E is an emf


device that has no internal resistance.

a)    Potentialdifference across AB is 48 V.
b)    Emf of the device is 48 V.

c)    PointB is connected to the positive terminal of E.


d)    Rate of conversion from electrical to chemical energy is 48 W in device E.

Q4 Circuit of three capacitor shown in the figure, initially switch is at position 1. Now it
is shifted to position 2, after the switch S is shifted from position 1 to position 2.

a)   
Initially charge on capacitor C1 is μC

b) Charge flow to the battery when switch is shift from position 1 to position 2 is
   2.5 μC
c)    Potential energy of system of capacitors remains unchanged.
d)    Heat produce in redistribution of charge is 12.5 μJ

Q5 A current carrying conductor is in the form of a sine curve as shown, which carries
current I. If the equation of this curve is Y = 2sin ( ) and a uniform magnetic field B
exists in space.

a)    Forceon wire is BIL if field is along Z axis.


b)    Force on wire is 2BIL if field is along Y axis
c)    Force on wire is zero if field is along X axis
d) Force on wire is BIL if field is in the XY plane making an angle 30° with X-
   axis.

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Q6 A capacitor of capacitance C and an ideal inductor of inductance L are connected in


series with an ideal battery of emf E. The resistance of circuit is negligible. If initially
capacitor is uncharged and key is closed at t = 0 then select the correct statements :

a)    Maximumcharge on capacitor is CE
b)    Maximum charge on capacitor is 2CE
c)    Maximum potential difference across inductor is E
d)    Maximum potential difference across inductor is 2E

Single Choice Question

Q7 A metal ball (Neutral) with radius r is concentric with hollow metal sphere of radius
‘R’, having charge ‘Q’ as shown in figure, Now ball is connected with a very long
wire to earth. Then :

Potential difference between sphere and metal ball, after grounding is :


a)    b)    c)    d)   

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Q8 A metal ball (Neutral) with radius r is concentric with hollow metal sphere of radius
‘R’, having charge ‘Q’ as shown in figure, Now ball is connected with a very long
wire to earth. Then :

After grounding :
a)    net electric field between sphere and ball is zero.
b)    electric field between ball and sphere is zero due to ball only.
c)    electric field between sphere and ball due to ball is non–zero.
d)    electric field between sphere and ball is non-zero, due to sphere

Q9 Consider a star and two planet system. The star has mass M. The planet A and B have
the same mass m, radius a and they revolve around the star in circular orbits of radius
r and 4r respectively (M > > m, r > > a). Planet A has intelligent life, and the people
of this planet have achieved a very high degree of technological advance. They wish
to shift a geostationary satellite of their own planet to a geostationary orbit of planet
B. They achieve this through a series of high precision maneuvers in which the
satellite never has to apply brakes and not a single joule of energy is wasted. S1 is a
geostationary satellite of planet A and S2 is a geostationary satellite of planet B.
Neglect interaction between A and B, S1 and S2, S1 and B & S2 and A.

If the radius of the geostationary orbit in planet A is given by rG = , then the


time in which the geostationary satellite will complete 1 revolution is
I. 1 planet year = time in which planet revolves around the star
II. 1 planet day = time in which planet revolves about its axis.
a)    I b)    II c)    both I and II d)    neither I nor II

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Q10 Consider a star and two planet system. The star has mass M. The planet A and B have
the same mass m, radius a and they revolve around the star in circular orbits of radius
r and 4r respectively (M > > m, r > > a). Planet A has intelligent life, and the people
of this planet have achieved a very high degree of technological advance. They wish
to shift a geostationary satellite of their own planet to a geostationary orbit of planet
B. They achieve this through a series of high precision maneuvers in which the
satellite never has to apply brakes and not a single joule of energy is wasted. S1 is a
geostationary satellite of planet A and S2 is a geostationary satellite of planet B.
Neglect interaction between A and B, S1 and S2, S1 and B & S2 and A.

If planet A and B, both complete one revolution about their own axis in the same time,
then the energy needed to transfer the satellite of mass m0 from planet A to planet B is
a)    b)    c)    d)    Zero

Numerical

Q11 In the figure shown, a charged particle of mass 2 g and charge 5 μC enters a circular
region of radius 10 cm, in which there is a uniform magnetic field of strength 4 T and
directed perpendicular to the plane of circular region in the figure. If the particle
velocity vector rotates through 90º angle in passing through this region, then find its
speed (in mm/s).

Ans. 01

Q12 In the L–C circuit, the capacitor C1 is charged to a potential of 1 volt, and the
capacitor C2 and the inductor were initially uncharged. Now switch S1 is closed at t =
0, and at t = sec. switch S2 is closed and S1 is opened. After sec. , S2 is also
opened. Find final potential difference across the capacitor C2 in volt.

Ans. 03

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Q13 The final image Ι of the object O shown in the figure is formed at point 20 cm below a
thin equi-concave lens, which is at a depth of 65 cm from principal axis of convex
lens. From the given geometry, calculate the radius of curvature in cm of lens kept at
"A".

Ans. 60

Q14 Distance between two images formed by upper and lower part of the point object
placed at 30 cm from given lens is (60 + x) cm, then the value of x is :

Ans. 6

Q15 An object is kept on the principal axis of a diverging mirror of focal length 90 cm at a
distance of 90 cm from the pole. The object starts moving with velocity 2 cm/s
towards the mirror at angle 30º with the principal axis. If speed of the image (in cm/s)
is , find x + y. Here x and y are least possible positive integers.
Ans. 23

Q16 Two resistances are measured in Ohm.


R1 = 3Ω ± 1%
R2 = 6Ω ± 2%
When they are connected in parallel, maximum percentage error in equivalent
resistance is α. Find 3α.
Ans. 04

Q17 In a hydrogen like atom an electron is moving in an orbit having quantum number n.
Its frequency of revolution is found to be 13.2×1015 Hz. Energy required to move this
electron from the atom to the above given orbit is 54.4 eV. In a time of 7 nano second
the electron jumps back to orbit having quantum number . τ  be the average torque

acted on the electron during the above process, then find × 1027 in Nm. (given :
= 2.1 × 10–34 J–s, frequency of revolution of electron in the ground state of H–atom v0
= 6.6 × 1015 Hz and ionization energy of H–atom, E0 = 13.6 eV)
Ans. 03

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Q18 The only source of energy in a particular star is the fusion reaction given by -
32He4 ⎯→ 6C12 + energy
Masses of 2He4 and 6C12 are given
m(2He4) = 4.0025u m(6C12) = 12.0000u
speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 m/s. Power output of star is 4.5 × 1027 watt. The
rate at which the star burns helium is n × 1013 kg/s. Here n is an integer. Find n.
Ans. 08

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Chemistry
Multiple Choice Question

Q19 Identify the wrong statement related to the above graph :

a) between 50 K and 150 K temperature and pressure ranging from 10 atm to 20 atm
   matter may have liquid state.
b)    zerois the maximum value of the slope of P-V Curve
c) If vander waal equation of state is applicable above critical temperature then cubic
   equation of V m will have one real and two imaginary roots.
d)    At 100 K and pressure below 20 atm it has liquid state only

Q20 A 2.5 g impure sample containing weak monoacidic base (Mol. wt. = 45 u) is
dissolved in 100 mL water and titrated with 0.5 M HCl. When of the base was
neutralised, the pH was found to be 9 and at equivalence point, pH of solution is 4.5.
Select correct statement(s) :
a)    K b of base is less than 10 –6 .
b)    Concentration of salt (C) at equivalent point is 0.25 M.

c)    Volume of HCl is used at equivalent point is 100 mL.


d)    Weight percentage of a base in given sample is 80%.

Q21 Which of the following statements is/are correct :


a) 0.2 moles of KMnO 4 will oxidise one mole of ferrous ions to ferric ions in acidic
   medium.
b) 1.5 moles of KMnO4 will oxidise 1 mole of ferrous oxalate to one mole of ferric
   ion and carbon dioxide in acidic medium in acidic medium.
c) 0.6 moles of KMnO4 will oxidise 1 mole of ferrous oxalate to one mole of ferric
   ion and carbon dioxide in acidic medium.
d) 1 mole of K2Cr2O7 will oxidise 2 moles of ferrous oxalate to ferric ions and
   carbon dioxide in acidic medium.

Q22 Which of the following plots are correctly made for the reaction nA (A)n if it
obeys first order reaction ?
a)    b)    c)    d)   

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Q23 Poor shielding of nuclear charge by d or f- orbital electrons is responsible for which
of the following facts?
a)    Atomic radius of Nb (4d-series) is comparable to that of Ta (5d-series)
b)    The I st ionisation enthalpy of copper is less than that of zinc
c)    The value of electron gain enthalpy is more negative for sulphur than for oxygen.
d)    The I st ionisation energy for gold is greater than that of silver.

Q24 Select the correct statement with respect to the deep blue solution of an alkali metal in
liquid ammonia.
a)    Its paramagnetism decreases with increasing concentration.
b)    It has lower density than pure solvent (i.e. liquid ammonia).
c) Its conductivity decreases with increasing concentration to minimum at about
   0.05 molar; thereafter it again increases.
d)    Evaporation of ammonia from the solution yields alkali metal.

Single Choice Question

Q25 Generally, during the clemmenson reduction >C=O group converts into >CH2 after
reacting with (conc. HCl + Zn–Hg). But in case of β-diketo compounds, its give
unexpected products.
Ex :
Mechanism : Zn ⎯→ Zn2+ + 2e–

Product (X), (X) will be :

a)    b)    c)    d)   

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Q26 Generally, during the clemmenson reduction >C=O group converts into >CH2 after
reacting with (conc. HCl + Zn–Hg). But in case of β-diketo compounds, its give
unexpected products.
Ex :
Mechanism : Zn ⎯→ Zn2+ + 2e–

Product (X), (X) will be :


a)    b)   

c)    d)   

Q27 Study the two photochemical reactions and answer the question at the end.
For the overall reaction between A and B to yield C and D, two mechanisms are
proposed :
I. A + B AB* C + D ,         k1′ = 1 × 10–5 M–1 s–1
II. A A* E ,                        k1 = 1 × 10–4 s–1
E+B C + D ,                               k2 = 1 × 1010 M–1 s–1
(species with * are short-lived)
 
 
Rate according to mechanism I when concentration of each reactant is 0.1 M will be :
a)    1 × 10 –7 Ms –1 b)    1 × 10 –6 Ms –1 c)    1 × 10 –5 Ms –1 d)    1 × 10 –4 Ms –1

Q28 Study the two photochemical reactions and answer the question at the end.
For the overall reaction between A and B to yield C and D, two mechanisms are
proposed :
I. A + B AB* C + D ,        k1′ = 1 × 10–5 M–1 s–1
II. A A* E ,                        k1 = 1 × 10–4 s–1
E+B C + D ,                              k2 = 1 × 1010 M–1 s–1
(species with * are short-lived)
 
 
Rate according to mechanism II when concentration of each reactant is 1 M will be:
a)    1 × 10 –4 Ms –1 b)    1 × 10 10 Ms –1 c)    1 × 10 –6 Ms –1 d)    1 × 10 –10 Ms –1

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Numerical

Q29 How many different type of bonds can be formed if any two d orbitals of two different
atoms are overlapping with each other?
Ans. 3

Q30 There are two samples of H and He+ atom. Both are in some excited state. In
hydrogen atom total number of lines observed in Balmer series is 4 and in He+ atom
total number of lines observed in paschen series is 1. Electron in hydrogen sample
make transitions to lower states from its excited state, then the photon corresponding
to the line of maximum energy line of Balmer series of H sample is used to further
excite the already excited He+ sample. Then maximum excitation level of He+ sample
will be :
Ans. 12

Q31 Consider : (I) C(s) + O2 CO2(g)


                 (II) 2 C(s) + O2 2 CO(g) atm
As 100 L of air (80 % N2, 20% O2 by volume) is pased over excess heated coke to
establish these equilibrium the equilibrium mixture is found to measure 105 L at
constant temperature & pressure (105 atm). Assuming no other reaction, find the sum
of partial pressure of CO and CO2 in the final equilibrium mixture.
Ans. 15

Q32 Find total number of the position where positive charge can be delocalized by true
resonance.

(Excluding the given position)

Ans. 10

Q33 A sample of 3 mg of an unknown alcohol (ROH) is added to methyl magnesium iodide


then 1.12 ml gas is evolved. What will be the molecular weight of alcohol is
Ans. 60

Q34 A mineral of iron contains an oxide containing 72.36% iron by mass and has a density
of 5.2 g/cc. Its unit cell is cubic with edge length of 839 pm. What is the total number
of atoms (ions) present in each unit cell? (Fe - 56, O-16)
Ans. 56

Q35 A detergent (C12H25SO4Na) solution becomes a colloidal solution at a concentration


of 10–3 mol/lit. On an average 1013 colloidal particles are present in 1 mm3 what is
average number of C12H25SO4Na in one colloidal particle?
Ans. 60

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Q36
Value of equilibrium constant for above reaction is 10x then find x:
Given :

Ans. 20

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Mathematics
Multiple Choice Question

Q37 The function f (x) = 2 log (x – 2) – x2 + 4x + 1 increases in the interval.


a)    (1, 2) b)    (2, 3) c)    (5/ 2, 3) d)    (2, 4)

Q38 Suppose f ′(x) exists for each x and h(x) = f(x) – (f (x))2 + (f (x))3 for every real
number x. Then:
a)    h is increasing whenever f is increasing
b)    h is increasing whenever f is decreasing
c)    h is decreasing whenever f is decreasing
d)    Nothing can be said in general

Q39

a)    h(x) is increasing whenever f(x) is increasing

b)    h(x) is decreasing whenever f(x) is decreasing


c)    h(x) is increasing whenever f(x) is decreasing
d)    nothing could be said in general

Q40
If I = , then -

a)    0 <I<1 b)    c)    0 <I< d)    I > 2π


0<I<

Q41 If I = then which of the following integral also equal to I


a)    b)   
dx

c)    d)   
dx

Q42 Area enclosed between the curves | y | = 1 – x2 and x2 + y2 = 1 is


a)    enclosed area is symmetric with respect to coordinate axis

b)   
π  – sq. unit

c)   
2π – sq. unit
d)    enclosed area is symmetric about y = 2 line

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Single Choice Question

Q43 If a circle Co, with radius 1 unit touches both the axes and as well as line (L1) through
P(0, 4), cut the x-axis at (x1, 0). Again a circle C1 is drawn touching x-axis, line L1
and another line L2 through point P. L2 intersects x-axis at (x2, 0) and this process is
repeated n times
The centre of circle C2 is:
a)    (3, 1) b)    c)    d)    none of these

Q44 If a circle Co, with radius 1 unit touches both the axes and as well as line (L1) through
P(0, 4), cut the x-axis at (x1, 0). Again a circle C1 is drawn touching x-axis, line L1
and another line L2 through point P. L2 intersects x-axis at (x2, 0) and this process is
repeated n times
 
The is
a)    4 b)    0 c)    1 d)    2

Q45 A circle C1 touches the circle x2 + y2 – a2 = 0 at A internally and the parabolas y4 –


16x2 = 0 at B and C externally.
 
If Δ ABC formed is an equilateral then AB =
a)    b)    c)    d)   

Q46 A circle C1 touches the circle x2 + y2 – a2 = 0 at A internally and the parabolas y4 –


16x2 = 0 at B and C externally.
Which of the below is true?
a)    b)   
radius of
c)    d)   
radius of

Numerical

Q47
The value of tan is ……..

Ans. 01

Q48
If f(x) = cot–1 & g(x) = cos–1 , and the value of , (0 < t < 1) is
α then the value of (–2α) will be ………
Ans. 02

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Q49 = then k is.


Ans. 08

Q50 If the planes x – cy – bz = 0, cx – y + az = 0 and bx + ay – z = 0 pass through a


straight line, then find the value of a2 + b2 + c2 + 2abc.
Ans. 01

Q51 If the reflection of the point P(1, 0, 0) in the line is (α, β, γ). Find – (α +
β + γ)
Ans. 07

Q52 If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that |A| = 2 then find the value of |(adj A–1)–1| .
Ans. 04

Q53 An urn containing '14' green and '6' pink ball. K


(< 14, 6) balls are drawn and laid a side, their colour being ignored. Then one more
ball is drawn. Let P(E) be the probability that it is a green ball, then 20 P(E)
=..............
Ans. 14

Q54 There are N + 1 identical boxes each containing N wall clocks. The first box contains
zero defective clocks. The second box contains one defective and (N – 1) effective
clocks, in general rth box contains (r – 1) defective and (N – r + 1) effective clocks (1
≤ r ≤ N +1). Thus, the (N + 1)th box contains all defective clocks. A wall clock is
selected and found an effective one. The probability that it is from kth box is
find λ.
Ans. 02

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