GEN.

PATHO/ OPATH/ MICROBIO- REVALIDA APRIL 11, 2021

1. In which of the following mycotic infections are the organisms characteristically found
within the reticuloendothelial cells?

a. Histoplasmosis
b. Blastomycosis
c. Blastomycosis and Aspergillosis
d. Candidiasis
e. Aspergillosis

2. Lymphatic nodules are formed in the following lymphoid organs, except

a. Peyer's patch
b. Lymph node
c. Thymus
d. Tonsils
e. spleen

3. Which of the following is useful in differentiating between Salmonella typhi and Escherichia
coli?

a. Fermentation of lactose
b. Test of motility
c. Phenylalanine deaminase
d. Urease test
e. Production of acid from glucose

4. Enamel contains:

a. 96% inorganic material

b. 70% inorganic material
c. 30% inorganic material
d. 100% inorganic material

5. Which of the following is the most numerous group of microorganisms in the oral cavity?

a. Enterococci
b. Facultative streptococci
c. Anaerobic streptococci
d. Aerobic streptococci
e. Beta-hemolytic streptococci
6. The core of a cilium is composed of:

a. Tonofilaments
b. Microvilli
c. Microfibrils
d. Microtubules
e. microfilaments

7. A patient has two or more of her teeth joined only by cementum. This phenomenon is known
as:

a. Hypercementosis
b. Concrescence
c. Gemination
d. fusion

8. What kind of immunity would result in a susceptible person given tetanus antitoxin?

a. Natural, passive
b. Artificial, passive
c. Natural, active
d. Artificial, active

9. Each of the following structures is bound by a membrane, except:

a. Lysosome
b. Nucleolus
c. Mitochondria
d. Nucleus
e. Pinocytotic vesicle

10. Shock during infection with the gram-negative bacteria is most likely caused by:

a. A capsular antigen
b. A flagellar antigen
c. Ribonuclease
d. An exotoxin
e. An endotoxin

11. Which of the following forms of oral ulcerations involves oral, ocular and genital lesions?

a. Recurrent aphthous
b. Herpetiform and recurrent aphthous
c. Behcet’s
 d. Herpetiform

12. The submucosa is present in each of the following, except:

a. Duodenum
b. Jejunum
c. Colon
d. Gallbladder
e. Stomach

13. Antibiotics are obtained from growth of:

a. Bacteria and fungi

b. Mycoplasma and rickettsiae
c. Tissue cell culture
d. Bacteria, fungi and spirochetes
e. Fungi and virus

14. Genetic disorders influencing permanent teeth eruption:

1. `genetic disorders influencing permanent teeth eruption

2. Apert syndrome
3. cherubism

a. 1&2
b. 1&3
c. 2&3
d. 1, 2 & 3

15. The following are characteristics of bronchioles, except?

a. Segmented cartilage plates

b. Absence of glands
c. Ciliated columnar cells
d. Irregularly shaped lumen
e. Complete ring of smooth muscle

16. The following are characteristics of spleen, except:

a. Presence of blood-forming tissues

b. Cortex has lymphatic nodules
c. Capsule has smooth muscle fibers
d. Billroth cords
e. Periarterial lymphatic sheath
17. MOST viral antigens of diagnostic importance are:

a. Proteins
b. Polysaccharides
c. Nucleic acid
d. Lipids
e. Lipopolysaccharides

18. Known as proliferation stage:

a. Bell stage
b. Cap stage
c. Bud stage
d. Cap, bell, bud stage

19. A rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant neoplasm derived from:

a. Striated muscle tissue

b. The blood vessels
c. The nerve tissue
d. Smooth muscle tissue

20. In the digestive tract, glands in the submucosa are round only in:

a. Duodenum and jejunum

b. Liver and gallbladder
c. Stomach and esophagus
d. Liver and pancreas
e. Esophagus and duodenum

21. Tunica media of blood vessels is generally made up of:

a. Loose areolar tissue

b. Smooth muscle and elastic fibers
c. Fibrous tissue
d. All of the choices
e. Collagen bundles

22. A cigarette-smoking patient notices a gradual onset of progressive, labored breathing

characterized by prolonged, expiratory effort. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Bronchopneumonia
b. carcinoma of the lung
c. chronic bronchitis
 d. left sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and edema
e. pulmonary emphysema

23. Dry heat destroys microorganisms primarily by:

a. lysis
b. precipitation of salts
c. oxidation
d. coagulation of protein
e. acceleration of enzyme metabolism

24. A zoonotic disease that spread among cattle, sheep and wild animals by tics and acquired
by humans through inhalation of the airborne organism, Coxiella Burnetii

a. Rocky Mountain Spotted fever

b. Epidemic Typhus fever
c. Human Q Fever
d. fever blister
e. African swine fever

25. In which of the following do adenomatoid odontogenic tumors most often occur?

a. Anterior maxilla
b. Anterior mandible
c. Posterior maxilla
d. Posterior mandible

26. Gustatory sweating is the chief symptom in

a. Bell’s palsy
b. orolingual paresthesia
c. Menlere’s disease
d. auriculotemporal syndrome
e. glossopharyngeal neuralgia

27. The wound is ‘rebuilt’ with new granulation tissue and a new network of blood vessels
develop.

a. Hemostasis
b. Remodelling
c. Inflammation
d. Proliferation

28. Which of the following is a soft tissue cyst?

 a. Incisive canal cyst
b. Nasopalatine cyst
c. Nasolabial cyst
d. Median alveolar cyst

29. Tooth is derived from the:

a. Ectoderm only
b. Mesoderm and endoderm
c. Ectoderm and mesoderm
d. Mesoderm only

30. The most serious immunodeficiency disorders is:

a. Ataxia-telangiectasia
b. hyper-IgE syndrome
c. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
d. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

31. Areas of hypersegmentation of the skin of the axilla, ther neck and the groin with marked
hyperkeratosis and papillomatosis which may be indicative of internal malignancy are the
characteristics of

a. acanthosis nigricans
b. malignancy melanoma
c. junctional nevus
d. pigmented squamous cell carcinoma
e. basal cell carcinoma

32. Which of the following is not a category of external resorption?

a. Inflammatory
b. Regenerative
c. Replacement
d. surface

33. The biological purpose of meiosis is to maintain in somatic cells:

a. 46 pairs of chromosomes
b. 23 chromosomes
c. haploid number of chromosomes
d. none of the above
e. diploid number of chromosomes
34. Which of the following is the single most numerous group of microorganisms in the oral
cavity?

a. Enterococci
b. Anaerobic streptococci
c. Beta-hemolytic streptococci
d. Facultative streptococci

35. Defensive cells of the pulp that usually acts as macrophages:

a. histiocytes
b. resting wandering cells
c. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells and fibroblasts
d. Fibroblasts
e. undifferentiated mesenchymal cells

36. Which of the following is most likely to be cultured from chronic bilateral ulcerations at the
corners of the mouth?

a. Mucor
b. Treponema
c. Candida
d. Brucella
e. Aspergillus

37. Persons having anti-A and anti-B isoagglutinins in their serum belong in the blood group:

a. B
b. AB
c. O
d. A

38. The walls of the pulmonary alveoli are line with:

a. Simple squamous
b. Pseudostratified epithelium
c. Simple cuboidal
d. Stratified squamous

39. Staphylococci are characteristically grouped in:

a. Irregular clusters
b. Tetrads
c. Chains
 d. Palisade arrangement
e. pairs

40. Microorganisms of which the following general are most predominant in the normal oral
flora?

a. Streptococcus
b. Lactobacillus
c. Bacillus
d. Staphylococcus
e. corynebacterium

41. What type of epithelium is one cell layer thick?

a. Stratified
b. Simple
c. Cuboidal
d. squamous

42. The interstitial tissue of the testi contains

a. Spermatogenic cells
b. All of the choices
c. None of the choices
d. Leydig cells
e. Sertoli cells

43. Which of the following represents the main support of the wall of a bronchus?

a. Elastic membrane
b. Elastic and collagenous connective tissue
c. Hyaline cartilage
d. Smooth muscle
e. Dense irregular connective tissue

44. Hypertensive heart disease is consistently associated with which of the following anatomic
findings?

a. Tricuspid stenosis
b. Left ventricular hypertrophy
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Pericardial effusion
e. Right ventricular hypertrophy
45. The renal corpuscle is made up of:

a. Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule

b. Collecting tubules
c. All of the choices
d. Convoluted tubules
e. Loops of Henle

46. A virus which persists in the oral tissue throughout the life of most individuals is:

a. Varicella virus
b. Herpes zoster virus
c. Rubella virus
d. Herpes simplex virus

47. A tropical disease characterized by frambesiomas and gangosa which shows many
resemblances to syphilis.

a. Yaws
b. Chlamydia
c. Gonorrhea
d. pinta

48. Which of the following laboratory results is diagnostic of acute pancreatitis?

a. Decreased albumin
b. Elevated alkaline phosphatase
c. Elevated serum amylase
d. Elevated serum lipase
e. Decreased serum amylase

49. Most predominant microorganisms in the normal oral flora?

a. Lactobacillus
b. Corynebacterium
c. Staphylococcus
d. Streptococcus
e. Bacillus

50. A chronic obstructing fibrosis of the lymph nodes caused by the organism,
Wuchereriabancrofti or by Brugia Malayi

a. schistosomiasis
b. filariasis
 c. ancylostomiasis
d. ascariasis
e. pediculosis

51. All are undergoing changes in the plasma membrane with cell injury, except:

a. Loosening of intracellular attachments

b. Blunting of microvilli
c. Formation of cytoplasmic blebs
d. Swelling
e. Detachment of ribosomes

52. Immediate phase of wound healing; occurs during dental surgical procedures.

a. Hemostasis
b. Inflammation
c. Remodelling
d. proliferation

53. Which of the following reactive lesions of the gingival tissue reveals bone formation
microscopically?

a. Osteoma
b. Peripheral ossifying fibroma
c. Traumatic neuroma
d. Irritation fibroma

54. Most antibodies are produced in the:

a. Heart and the liver

b. Thymus and the appendix
c. Spleen and the lymph nodes
d. Brain and the meninges
e. Upper and lower G.I. Tract

55. A lysogenic bacterium is one that:

a. Produces properdin
b. Lyses red cells
c. Produces spheroplasts when incubated anaerobically
d. Produces lecithinase when incubated anaerobically
e. Harbors a temperate bacteriophage

56. Acute osteomyelitis is most frequently caused by which of the following microorganisms?
 a. Gonococcus
b. streptococcus
c. Enterococcus
d. staphylococcus

57. Bacterial capsules usually consists of:

a. Polypeptides
b. Chitins
c. Polysaccharides
d. cellulose

58. An individual that presents with keratoconjunctivitis, parotid gland enlargement and a
positive Rh factor is most likely to be diagnosed with:

a. Polyarteritis nodosa
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Reiter’s syndrome
d. Sjogren's syndrome
e. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

59. Tuberculosis of the vertebrae or of the spine is called

a. scrofula
b. tabes mesenterica
c. tabes dorsalis
d. Pott’s disease
e. Tabes Spinae

60. The following are characteristics of thymus, except:

a. Lymphocytes are abundant in the cortex

b. None of the choices
c. Presence of Hassall’s bodies
d. Each lobule has cortex and medulla
e. Entire organ has cortex and medulla

61. Each of the following cell types secretes the substance with which it is paired, except:

a. Chromaffin cells of the suprarenal- catecholamine

b. Corpus luteum- progesterone
c. Alpha cells of the pancreas-glucagon
d. Sertoli’s cells-testosterone
62. Which of the following are viral diseases?

1. Mumps
2. Influenza
3. Scarlet fever
4. Herpes simplex
5. Whooping cough

a. 1&5
b. 2,3 & 5
c. 2, 4 & 5
d. 1, 2 & 4
e. 1&3

63. Tissues formed from the fusion of the maxillary and medial nasal process:

a. Palatine shelves
b. Primary palate
c. Secondary palate
d. Branchial arch

64. Mycotic organisms are characteristically found microscopically within reticuloendothelial

cells in:

a. Mucormycosis
b. Candidiasis
c. Aspergillosis
d. Histoplasmosis

65. Which of the following genera MOST frequently develops resistance to penicillin?

a. Staphylococcus
b. Actinomyces
c. Streptococcus
d. Treponema
e. Neisseria

66. Organisms belonging to which of the following genera can tolerate the lowest pH?

a. Staphylococcus
b. Lactobacillus
c. Bacteroides
d. Streptococcus
e. veillonella
67. Each of the following structures is bound by a membrane, except:

a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
c. Lysosome
d. Pinocytotic vesicle
e. nucleolus

68. Dens invaginatus (dens in dente) occurs most commonly in which teeth?

a. Maxillary and mandibular lateral incisors

b. Maxillary lateral incisors
c. Maxillary canines
d. Mandibular first premolars

69. Systemic inflammatory disease with acute febrile attacks that occurs in the heart with
characteristic Aschoff nodules.

a. Impetigo contagiosa
b. Rheumatic fever
c. Scarlet fever
d. Erysipelas
e. Epidemic spotted fever

70. Wirtz Conklin is a special stain used to demonstrate:

a. Flagella
b. Capsule
c. Spore
d. Flagella and capsule

71. Which of the following acids is the chief product of carbohydrate metabolism of
Streptococcus mutans?

a. Propionic
b. Formic
c. Lactic
d. Acetic
e. butyric

72. Death of the odontoblasts usually results to:

a. Sclerotic dentin
 b. Dead tracts formation
c. Tertiary dentin
d. Reparative dentin formation
e. Transparent dentin formation

73. The following are characteristics of trachea, except:

a. Muco-serous glands
b. Ciliated pseudostratified with goblet cells
c. None of the choice
d. C-shaped hyaline cartilages
e. Trachealis muscle

74. A disease of childhood characterized by mental retardation, delayed growth, and delayed
tooth eruption:

a. Testicular hormone
b. Oxytocin
c. Growth hormone
d. Mineralocorticoids
e. Thyroid hormone

75. An maculopapular rash caused by obligate intracellular organism that is transmitted from
human to human by body lice is:

a. Rheumatic fever
b. Scarlet fever
c. Typhoid fever
d. Winter fever
e. Epidemic typhus fever

76. Cells are involved in active growth and early keratin synthesis:

a. Stratum spinosum
b. All of the choices
c. Keratin layer
d. Stratum granulosum
e. Stratum basale

77. White matter of the spinal cord consists chiefly of which of the following?

a. Unmyelinated axons
 b. Loose connective tissue
c. Myelinated axons
d. Nerve cell bodies
e. perineurium

78. In adult cells, the regressive change shown by variation in their size, shape and orientation
is known as:

a. Hyperplasia
b. Aplasia
c. Metaplasia
d. Dysplasia
e. Anaplasia

79. These are non calcified cementum:

a. Cementoid and cellular cementum

b. Cellular cementum
c. Amyloid
d. Cementoid
e. dentinoid

80. A sudden increase in the severity of the signs and symptoms during the course of a disease
is called:

a. Exacerbation
b. Complication
c. Sequel
d. Lesion
e. remission

81. Dry heat destroys microorganisms primarily by:

a. Lysis
b. Coagulation of protein
c. Precipitation of salts
d. Acceleration of enzyme metabolism
e. oxidation

82. When this enzyme, lipase escapes into fatty depots, it will give rise to:

a. Coagulative necrosis
b. Gangrene necrosis
c. Caseous necrosis
 d. Enzymatic fat necrosis

83. This disease refers to iron overload associated with organ failure.

a. Siderosis
b. Hemosiderosis
c. Hemoglobinuria
d. Hemochromatosis
e. Biliary pigmentation

84. What histologic feature differentiates a periapical granuloma from a periapical cyst?

a. Presence of lymphocytes
b. Presence of an epithelial line cavity
c. Presence of mast cells
d. Presence of plasma cells

85. A dark striae of retzius that occurs at the time of birth.

a. Enamel tuft
b. Neonatal line
c. DEJ
d. Gnarled enamel
e. Enamel lamellae

86. Infection of the kidney is usually caused by:

a. Traumatic introduction of bacteria

b. Septic emboli
c. Bacteria from the large bowel migrating to the kidney through retroperitoneal
lymphatics
d. Bacteria ascending from the lower urinary tract
e. Bacteria in the bloodstream

87. It is possible to distinguish histologically between the stomach and the duodenum because
of the presence of:

a. Mucosal glands in the stomach only

b. Submucosal glands in the duodenum only
c. Simple columnar epithelium lining the stomach only
d. Muscularis mucosa in the stomach only
e. Smooth muscle in the external musculature of the duodenum only

88. Glycocalyx is located:

 a. None of the choices
b. Internal to nucleolemma
c. Within the plasma membrane
d. External to plasma lemma
e. External to nucleolemma

89. An organism which thrives in a 8.5 % NaCl solution is said to be:

a. Bacteriostatic
b. Antagonistic
c. Thermophilic
d. Pleomorphic
e. Halophilic

90. A child has a history of generalized growth failure (failure to thrive) during the first six months
of his life. Which of the following sequela is likely in this child?

a. enamel hypoplasia
b. retrusive mandible
c. retrusive midface
d. small permanent teeth
e. dentinogenesis imperfecta

91. The bacterial population in the gingival sulcus or the pocket that influences the courses of
periodontal disease involves:

a. Essentially a pure culture

b. Essentially the same organisms found in the healthy sulcus
c. Mostly aerobic bacteria
d. Organisms that are not usually found in the healthy sulcus
e. Bacteria not indigenous to the oral cavity

92. A low grade indolent infection caused by an obligate intracellular parasite with a strong
tropism for macrophages and Schwann cells and affects primarily the cooler areas of the body
like the skin and the peripheral nerves

a. tuberculosis
b. syphilis
c. leprosy
d. gonorrhea
e. diphtheria
93. One of the distinguishing characteristics of all viruses is:

a. Growth in cell-free medium

b. Failure to grow in the absence of living cells
c. Absence to nucleic acids
d. Adaptability to external environment
e. Constant route of infection

94. An infectious disease caused by a fungus which spreads from the lungs to the brain and
CNS, skin, skeletal system and urinary tract, characterized by development of tumors filled with
gelatinous material in visceral and subcutaneous tissues

a. candidiasis
b. cryptococcosis
c. actinomycosis
d. thrush
e. amebiasis

95. All of the following are DNA viruses except:

a. Coronaviridae
b. Hepadnaviridae
c. Adenoviridae
d. Poxviridae
e. Herpesviridae

96. In glycogen nephrosis, a complication of diabetes mellitus wherein the glycogen Infiltration
occurs in the

a. distal convoluted tubule

b. loop of Henle
c. glomerular tuft
d. proximal convoluted tubule
e. Bowman’s capsule

97. Which of the following forms of connective tissue has a preponderance of amorphous
ground substance over fibers?

a. Cartilage
b. Loose
c. Dense, irregularly arranged
d. Reticular
e. Dense, regularly arranged
 98. This causes the changes in the coloration of the enamel.

a. Water
b. DEJ
c. Enamel tuft
d. Enamel lamellae
e. Striae of Retzius

99. Which of the following cell types is associated with antibody formation?

a. Basophil
b. Neutrophil
c. Plasma cell
d. Eosinophil
e. monocyte

100. Malignant malaria is caused by:

a. Plasmodium malariae
b. Plasmodium vivax
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Plasmodium ovale

GEN. PATHO/ OPATH/ MICROBIO- REVALIDA MAY 3, 2021

1. What type of tissue lines the esophagus?

a. Simple columnar epithelium

b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Stratified squamous epithelium
d. Transitional epithelium
e. Simple squamous epithelium

2. Which of the following muscle tissues have the greatest chance for regeneration after
healing?

a. Skeletal muscle
b. Both smooth and cardiac muscle
c. Smooth muscle
d. Cardiac muscle
3. What is another term for an acinar gland?

a. Tubuloalveolar
b. Tubular
c. Simple gland
d. Compound gland
e. alveolar

4. What type of epithelium appears stratified, but is not?

a. Endothelium
b. Mesothelium
c. Epithelioid tissue
d. Transitional
e. pseudostratified

5. Which of the following explains why the Barr body found in certain epithelial cells is
significant?

a. It suggests mitotic activity.

b. It indicates protein synthesis.
c. It indicates a metaplasmic change.
d. It is a symptom of nuclear disintegration.
e. It assists in differentiating between the sexes.

6. What forms the striated border?

a. Cilia
b. Microvilli
c. Stereocillia
d. Keratinization
e. Microvilli and stereocilia

7. Which of the following groups of organs are all retro-peritoneal?

a. Kidney, transverse colon and ovary

b. Pancreas, transverse colon and descending colon
c. pancreas , stomach and ovary
d. Ureter, gallbladder, transverse colon
e. kidney , adrenal and rectum

8. The core of a cilium is composed of:

a. Microfilaments
 b. Tonofilaments
c. Microtubules
d. Microfibrils
e. microvilli

9. The basophils in the circulating blood are similar to which cell?

a. Platelet
b. Kupffer cell
c. Mast cell
d. macrophage

10. An active fibroblast is characterized by?

a. Abundant endoplasmic reticulum

b. Multiple nucleoli
c. An unusually large nucleus
d. A bloated appearance
e. A thick plasma membrane

11. Which of the following is NOT a cytoplasmic organelle?

a. Lysosome
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. DNA
d. Golgi apparatus

12. What type of epithelium is more than one layer thick?

a. Simple
b. Squamous
c. Cuboidal
d. Stratified
e. columnar

13. The formation of the secondary palate completes around:

a. 6th month
b. 3rd month
c. Between 2nd and 3rd month
d. 5th month
e. 4th month

14. What type of tissue lines blood vessels?

 a. Simple cuboidal epithelium
b. Transitional epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Simple squamous epithelium

15. What is the collective name given to lifeless substances- such as yolk, fat and starch- that
may be stored in various parts of the cytoplasm?

a. ectoplasm
b. metaplasm
c. protoplasm
d. nucleoplasm

16. The renal corpuscle is made up of:

a. Collecting tubules
b. Convoluted tubules
c. Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule
d. Loops of Henle

17. Which of the following is a pure serous gland?

a. Glands of brunner
b. Glands of von Ebner
c. Glands of Blandin-Nuhn
d. Sublingual gland
e. Submandibular gland

18. Each of the following cell types secretes the substance with which it is paired, except:

a. Sertolli’s cells-testosterone
b. Alpha cells of the pancreas-glucagon
c. Corpus luteum-progesterone
d. Chromaffin cells of the suprarenal-catecholamine

19. What are the characteristics of the cells in the epidermis of the skin?

a. Cilia
b. Stereocillia
c. Keratinization
d. microvilli

20. The nucleolus of a cell functions to:

 a. synthesize t-RNA
b. synthesize r-RNA
c. synthesize m-RNA
d. synthesize DNA

21. Why are deeper carious lesions more injurious to the dental pulp?

a. Increased dentin permeability in deeper areas

b. Decreased density of dentinal tubules in deeper areas
c. Increased length of the dentinal tubules in deeper areas
d. Decreased diameter of dentin tubules in deeper areas

22. Dentin tubules are S-shaped in the crown of the tooth due to the:

a. Formation of peritubular dentin

b. Calcification pattern of maturing dentin
c. Epithelial diaphragm
d. Incremental pattern
e. Crowding of odontoblasts

23. Death of the odontoblasts usually results to:

a. Transparent dentin formation

b. Dead tracts formation
c. Tertiary dentin
d. Reparative dentin formation
e. Sclerotic dentin

24. At what week does the tongue begin to develop?

a. 3rd week
b. 6th week
c. 4th week
d. 7th week
e. 5th week

25. The cribriform plate:

a. Does not contain bundle bone

b. Is avascular
c. Is compact bone
d. Is spongy bone
e. Is supporting bone
26. Compared with intertubular dentin, peritubular dentin is characterized by which of the
following?

a. Greater sustainability
b. Greater content of inorganic salts
c. Higher quantity of fluids
d. Greater content of large collagen fibers
e. Lesser content of inorganic salts

27. Which of the following is derived from ectomesenchyme?

a. Stratum intermedium
b. Reduced enamel epithelium
c. Stellate reticulum
d. Odontoblasts
e. ameloblasts

28. Which of the following dentat entities is derived from the mesoderm?

a. Dental lamina
b. Permanent anlage
c. Lamina propia
d. Enamel spindle
e. Vestibular lamina

29. What type of collagen is the most prominent found in the dental pulp?

a. Type IV
b. Type III
c. Type I
d. Type II

30. Development of the body of the mandible involves:

a. Intramembranous bone development

b. A complete cartilage model
c. Reichert’s cartilage
d. A complete cartilage model and reichert’s cartilage

31. Kroff’s fibers are

a. Intracellular
b. Related to reticular fibers
c. The same as enamel spindles
 d. Found in odontoblastic processes
e. The same as the enamel tufts

32. Known as proliferation stage:

a. Bud stage
b. Bell stage
c. Cap stage
d. Cap, bell, bud stage

33. During which of the following stages of tooth development does fused or geminated teeth
occur?

a. Calcification
b. Initiation and proliferation
c. Eruption and exfoliation
d. Apposition

34. What is anachoresis?

a. Artificial formation of an apical barrier

b. Induction of a biologic calcified apical barrier
c. Systemic infection resulting from infected pulp tissue
d. Microorganism transport from blood vessels into damaged tissue

35. Tooth formation is similar to exocrine gland formation in that:

a. A proliferation of basal cells occurs

b. The secretions both calcify and the cells retreat
c. The secretory cells are cuboidal
d. Both are formed mostly by ectoderm
e. The dental lamina is a hollow cord of cells

36. What is the usual sequence of events in the histogenesis of s tooth?

1.deposition of the first layer of enamel

2.deposition of the first layer of dentin
3.elongation of inner enamel epithelial cells
4.differentiation of odontoblasts

a. 1,2,3,4
b. 3,4,1,2
c. 3,4,2,1
d. 4,1,2,3
 e. 4,3,2,1

37. Hertwig’s epithelial sheath plays an important role in the development of:

a. Roots
b. Crown
c. Pulp
d. Dentin
e. enamel

38. Cellular cementum and compact bone contain:

a. Sharpey’s fibers and elastic fibers

b. All of the choice
c. Collagen fibers and blood vessels
d. Lacunae and elastic fibers
e. Canaliculi and incremental lines

39. The thickness of coronal dentin in primary teeth, compared with that in corresponding
permanent teeth, is approximately:

a. one-fourth
b. one-half
c. one-third
d. one-fifth
e. same thickness

40. During which trimester of pregnancy does calcification of teeth begin?

a. First
b. third
c. Second
d. fourth
e. Fifth

41. All are undergoing changes in the plasma membrane with cell injury, except

a. swelling
b. formation of cytoplasmic blebs
c. blunting of microvilli
d. detachment of ribosomes
e. loosening of intracellular attachments

42. Which of the following is MOST characteristic of cervicofacial actinomycosis?

 a. Incrustation of the skin of the cheek and neck
b. Enlarged cervical lymph nodes
c. Multiple abscesses with sinuses
d. Indurated nodules in the skin of the neck
e. Single or multiple ulcers

43. Which adaptive response is most likely to fit the description of the uterus during pregnancy?

a. Aplasia
b. Hyperplasia
c. Hypertrophy
d. Dysplasia
e. metaplasia

44. A cigarette-smoking patient notices a gradual onset of progressive, labored breathing

characterized by prolonged, expiratory effort. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Bronchopneumonia
b. carcinoma of the lung
c. chronic bronchitis
d. left sided heart failure with pulmonary congestion and edema
e. pulmonary emphysema

45. The virus that causes acute herpetic gingivostomatitis is closely related to the virus that
causes

a. Mumps
b. measles
c. chickenpox
d. cat-scratch disease

46. The most serious immunodeficiency disorder is a:

a. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
b. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
c. Ataxia-Telangiectasia
d. Hyper-IgE syndrome

47. Acute leukemia may be characterized by which of the following?

1. Anemia
2. Thrombocytopenia
3. Prolonged bleeding time
4. Elevated leukocyte count
 a. 1,3,4
b. 1,2,3,4
c. 3,4
d. 1,2
e. 2,3

48. Which of the following has been shown to have a relationship to carcinoma of the cervix?

a. Papovavirus
b. Herpesvirus hominis type II
c. Varicella-zoster virus
d. Herpesvirus hominis type I

49. Vitamin A functions to:

a. Maintain the integrity of connective tissues

b. Promote absorption of calcium
c. Promote differentiation of epithelial cells
d. Prevent pellagra
e. Maintain skin hue

50. A non-specific stomatitis with severe and painful ulcerations and bloody encrustations,
malaise, fever and photophobia with lesions often in the pharynx and accompanied by
generalized cutaneous eruptions, conjunctivitis and balanitis or vaginal ulcer in women are the
findings of :

a. Behcet’s syndrome
b. lupus erythematosus
c. Steven-Johnson syndrome
d. Reiter’s syndrome
e. Darier white disease

51. Which type of chromosome is usually missing from the cells of persons with Turner’s
syndrome?

a. An autosome
b. a sex chromosome
c. Chromosome 21
d. a “ring” chromosome
e. a group A chromosome

52. Lymphangioma is most closely related to

a. Hemangioma
 b. cystic hygroma
c. Angiosarcoma
d. Hemangiopericytoma

53. The pulmonary neoplasm to which the endocrine effect of hyperparathyroidism is attributed
is:

a. Medullary carcinoma
b. Oat cell carcinoma
c. Pheochromocytoma
d. Adenocarcinoma
e. Squamous cell carcinoma

54. When this enzyme, lipase escapes into fatty depots, it will give rise to:

a. Enzymatic fat necrosis

b. Gangrene necrosis
c. Caseous necrosis
d. Coagulative necrosis

55. The MOST common cause for megaloblastic anemia is:

a. Gastric bleeding
b. Lack of dietary folic acid
c. Lack of absorption of vitamin B12
d. Lack of dietary iron
e. Lack of dietary pyridoxine

56. Tuberculosis of the vertebrae or of the spine is called

a. scrofula
b. tabes mesenterica
c. tabes dorsalis
d. Pott’s disease
e. tabe spinae

57. Rigor mortis occurs approximately in how many hours after death?

a. 1-2
b. 2-4
c. 6-8
d. 4-6
58. A chronic obstructing fibrosis of the lymph nodes caused by the organism,
Wuchereriabancrofti or by Brugia Malayi

a. schistosomiasis
b. filariasis
c. ancylostomiasis
d. ascariasis
e. pediculosis

59. A two-year-old baby fractured his femur while crawling. He has pale blue sclera, porosity of
the long bones, is extremely fragile, and is deaf. He suffers from:

a. Osteogenesis imperfecta
b. Craniofacial dysostosis
c. Mandibulofacial dysostosis
d. Cleidocranial dysostosis
e. Albers-Schonberg disease

60. The deletion theory which is a widely accepted concept of carcinogenesis is based on:

a. Heredity
b. Viruses
c. Loss of control mechanisms
d. Induction of chemical carcinogens
e. DNA destruction

61. Stiffening or fixation of a tooth as the result of a disease process, with fibrous or bony union
or fusion.

a. Ectopic eruption
b. Eruption cysts
c. Ankylosis
d. impaction

62. The oral vesicular lesions of herpangina and hand-foot-mouth disease are caused by:

a. Respiratory syncytial virus

b. Epstein-barr virus
c. Varicella-zoster virus
d. Herpes simplex type 1
e. coxsackievirus

63. Clear Cell Odontogenic Tumor is a rare neoplasm of the mandible and maxilla and the
etiology is unknown.
 a. if the first statement is correct and the second statement is incorrect
b. if the first statement is incorrect and the second statement is correct
c. if both statements are correct
d. if both statements are incorrect

64. The enlarged mandible of adults who have an eosinophilic adenoma of the pituitary is due
to:

a. Frohlich’s syndrome
b. Simmond’s disease
c. Addison’s disease
d. Cushing’s syndrome
e. Acromegaly

65. In which of the following do adenomatoid odontogenic tumors most often occur?

a. Posterior maxilla
b. Anterior mandible
c. Anterior maxilla
d. Posterior mandible

66. The use of the suffix “blastoma” in oral neoplasia means:

a. Made of immature cells

b. Slow growing
c. Malignant
d. Rapidly growing
e. Benign

67. Examination of a 6-year old girl discloses macroglossia on the left side of her tongue. It
displays a diffuse distribution of 2-3mm elevated, gary-pink nodules, some of which contain
fluid. The remainder of the oral cavity is normal. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. lymphangioma
b. neurofibromatosis
c. cystic hygroma
d. granular cell tumor
e. Sturge-Weber syndrome

68. Described as an out of place path of eruption that causes root resorption of a portion of the
adjacent primary tooth.

a. Eruption cyst
b. Ectopic eruption
 c. Ankylosis
d. Impaction

69. A rhabdomyosarcoma is a malignant neoplasm derived from:

a. The blood vessels

b. Smooth muscle tissue
c. The nerve tissue
d. Striated muscle tissue

70. An individual with Addison’s disease is most likely to experience which of the following?

a. Decreased ACTH levels

b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hypernatremia
d. Water retention
e. weight gain

71. Which of the following are common sites of intraoral squamous cell carcinoma?

1. Hard palate
2. Tongue
3. Gingiva
4. Labial mucosa
5. Floor of the mouth

a. 2&5
b. 2, 3, & 4
c. 3, 4, & 5
d. 1, 2, & 3
e. 1 & 3 only

72. Biopsy of a smooth, red, protruding lesion at the tip of the tongue reveals a stratified
squamous epithelium covering loose, fibrous connective tissue that contains many thin-walled,
engorged, vascular spaces. The diagnosis is:

a. Peripheral giant cell granuloma

b. Granular cell tumor (myoblastoma)
c. Papilloma
d. Hemangioma
e. Fibroma

73. Which of the following characteristics most readily distinguishes amelogenesis imperfecta
from dentinogenesis imperfecta?
 a. Color of the teeth
b. Associated hair loss
c. Radiographic appearance
d. Presence of blue sclera
e. Hereditary background

74. A maxillary first premolar shows a typical wedge-shaped notch from dentifrice abrasion. The
area is sensitive to scratching with an explorer. This may be explained as:

a. Hypersensitive cementum’
b. Hypersensitive dentin
c. Neuritis
d. Hypersensitive ename
e. None of the choices

75. The characteristics oral manifestation of agranulocytosis (malignant neutropenia) consists

of:

a. Gingival hyperplasia
b. Ulceration of oral mucosa and gingiva
c. Acute stomatitis
d. Multiple palatal petechiae

76. Periapical cemento osseous dysplasia features include the following except:

a. usually involves more than one tooth

b. usually involves maxillary anterior teeth
c. involved tooth or teeth retain its vitality
d. initial lesion presents as radiolucency

77. A patient complains of severe pain and fever. A poorly circumscribed radiolucency of the
body of the mandible with a central sclerotic nidus is detected. The disease is probably:

a. osteosarcoma
b. ameloblastoma
c. osteomyelitis
d. fibrous dysplasia
e. ossifying fibroma

78. Chondrosarcoma more often involves the mandible and both gender affects with equal
distribution.
 a. if the first statement is correct and the second statement is incorrect
b. if the first statement is incorrect and the second statement is correct
c. if both statements are correct
d. if both statements are incorrect

79. In osteogenesis imperfecta, the maxilla and mandible:

a. The teeth have elongated roots

b. Show failure in eruption of teeth
c. Show complete anodontia
d. Are easily fractured because they are thin
e. Contain well-calcified teeth

80. Of the following, which is most likely to recur after initial surgery?

a. Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor

b. Ameloblastoma
c. Cementoblastoma
d. Ameloblastic fibroma
e. Complex odontoma

81. High levels of Porphyromonas gingivalis-specific antibodies are seen in most adult
periodontitis. These antibodies are which of the following?

a. IgE
b. IgD
c. IgG
d. IgA
e. IgM

82. Which of the following bacterial exotoxins converts plasminogen to plasmin?

a. M-protein
b. Plasmolysis
c. Coagulase
d. Hyaluronidase
e. Streptokinase

83. A number of fungi that commonly cause superficial skin infections belong to the genus:

a. Aspergillus
b. Histoplasma
c. Blastomyces
d. Coccidioides
 e. Trichophyton

84. Gram positive bacteria have been demonstrated:

1. To have a higher occurrence in post-instrumentation samples

2. To be more resistant to antimicrobial treatments
3. To able to adapt to harsh environmental conditions

a. 1 & 2
b. 1, 2 & 3
c. 2 & 3
d. 1 & 3

85. What kind of immunity would result in a susceptible person given tetanus antitoxin?

a. Natural, passive
b. Artificial, active
c. Artificial, passive
d. Natural, active

86. Type of organism needing small amounts of oxygen for existence is known as?

a. Obligate anaerobe
b. Microaerophile
c. Obligate aerobe
d. Facultative aerobe

87. Antibiotics are obtained from growth of:

a. Bacteria and fungi

b. Fungi and virus
c. Bacteria, fungi and spirochetes
d. Mycoplasma and rickettsiae
e. Tissue cell culture

88. The most likely source of bacteria found in diseased periodontal tissue?

a. Sub and supra gingival plaque

b. Serum
c. Saliva
d. Supragingival plaque
e. Subgingival plaque
89. Protection against encapsulated bacterial pathogens is mediated mainly by:

a. Cellular immunity
b. Non-specific anatomic barriers
c. Cellular and humoral immunity
d. Humoral immunity

90. Which of the following is not considered a natural or acquired discoloration source?

a. Calcific metamorphosis
b. Intrapulpal hemorrhage
c. Tetracycline stain
d. Stain from amalgam

91. Which of the following is the single most numerous group of microorganisms in the oral
cavity?

a. Beta-hemolytic streptococci
b. Facultative streptococci
c. Anaerobic streptococci
d. enterococci

92. Persons having anti-A and anti-B isoagglutinins in their serum belong in the blood group:

a. AB
b. A
c. O
d. B

93. Shock during infection with gram-negative bacteria is most likely caused by:

a. A capsular antigen
b. A flagellar antigen
c. Ribonuclease
d. An endotoxin
e. An exotoxin

94. In which of the following mycotic infections are the organisms characteristically found within
the reticuloendothelial cells?

a. Aspergillosis
b. Histoplasmosis
c. Candidiasis
d. Blastomycosis and aspergillosis
 e. blastomycosis

95. Which of the following is an example of natural passive immunity?

a. Vaccination with dead organisms

b. Placental transfer of mother’s antibody
c. Treatment with antibiotics
d. Injection of gamma globulin’

96. Which of the following is most likely to be cultured from chronic bilateral ulcerations at the
corners of the mouth?

a. Mucor
b. Treponema
c. Aspergillus
d. Brucella
e. candida

97. Which of the following genera MOST frequently develops resistance to penicillin?

a. Staphylococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. Actinomyces
d. Treponema
e. Neisseria

98. A lysogenic bacterium is one that:

a. Harbors a temperate bacteriophage

b. Produces spheroplasts when incubated anaerobically
c. Produces properdin
d. Lyses red cells
e. Produces lecithinase when incubated anaerobically

99. The major cariogenic property of Streptococcus mutans is associated with its ability to
produce which of the following enzymes?

a. Glucosyltransferase
b. Aminopeptidase
c. Chondroitinase
d. Fructosyltransferase
e. hyaluronidase
100. An Rh-negative mother delivered a normal first child. Her second child developed
symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis. Which of the following can be concluded?

a. The first baby is Rh-negative

b. The mother has very high levels of serum complement and anti-Rh IgE
c. The first baby is a girl; the second baby is a boy
d. None of the choices
e. The father is Rh-negative