Chem Class 11th & 12th QB and FS PDF

1 Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Chemistry : According to Roald Hoffman Chemistry is study of molecules and their transformations.
It is not only the science of 100 elements but it is a science of infinite varieties of molecules obtained from
them.
Thus, chemistry is a science of molecules, variety of compounds and their transformations. Chemistry
deals with the structure, composition and properties of the matter.
1. The full form of AZT is .......... .
(A) Azothymine (B) Azidotaxol (C) Azidothymine (D) Azidothymidine
2. Which of the following drug is useful for treatment of cancer ?
(A) cis-platin (B) trans-platin (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
3. Which drug is effective for treatment of patients suffering from AIDS ?
(A) Taxol (B) cis-platin (C) AZT (D) All of the given
4. Which substance is used in refrigerators nowadays instead of CFC ?
(A) 1, 1, 2, 2 - Tetrafluoroethane (B) 1, 1, 1, 2 - Tetrafluoroethane
(C) 1, 1, 2, 2 - Tetrachloroethane (D) 1, 1, 1, 2 - Tetrachloroethane
Answers : 1. (D), 2. (A), 3. (C), 4. (B)
NATURE OF MATTER
Matter
¯
¯ ¯
Mixture Pure substance
¯ ¯
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
Homogeneous Heterogeneous Elements Compounds
mixture mixture
(1) Element : According to Lavoisier, element is made up of same type of atoms.

(2) Compound : A compound is formed when two or more than two elements combine chemically.
(3) Mixture : A mixture contains two or more than two substances.
(4) Homogeneous mixture : The components of a homogeneous mixture mix well with each other
and its composition is uniform throughout. The components of homogeneous mixture do not
separate by a definite boundary.
(5) Heterogeneous mixture : The components of a heterogeneous mixture do not mix with each
other and the components are separated by a definite boundary.
1
5. Which of the following statement is not true for compound ?
(A) The ratio of number of atoms of different elements present in compound is fixed.
(B) In a molecule of compound, atoms of different elements are there.
(C) The physical properties of component elements are not retained in compound.
(D) The component elements present in a compound can be separated using physical methods.
6. Which of the following statements are true ?
(i) The molecules of a compound are heteronuclear.
(ii) The molecules of an element are homonuclear.
(iii) A compound possess homogeneous nature.
(iv) A molecule never exists independently.
(A) (i), (iii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii), (iii) (C) (ii), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (ii), (iv)
7. Which of the following is not a mixture ?
(A) Cement (B) Iodized salt (C) Ozone (D) Air
8. Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture ?
(A) Petrol (B) Kerosene (C) Milk (D) Brass
Answers : 5. (D), 6. (B), 7. (C), 8. (C)
PHYSICAL QUANTITIES
SI unit system
Fundamental Symbol Symbol of Name of

physical of SI unit SI unit
quantity quantity
Length l m metre
Mass m kg kilogram
Time t s second
Thermodynamic temperature T K kelvin
Amount of substance n mol mole
Electric current I A ampere
Luminous intensity IV cd candela
Prefixes used in SI system
No. Multiple Prefix Symbol No. Multiple Prefix Symbol No. Multiple Prefix Symbol
1. 10- 24 yocto y 8. 10- 3 milli m 15. 109 giga G
2. 10- 21 zepto z 9. 10- 2 centi c 16. 1012 tera T
3. 10- 18 atto a 10. 10- 1 deci d 17. 1015 peta P
4. 10- 15 femto f 11. 101 deca da 18. 1018 exa E
5. 10- 12 pico p 12. 102 hecto h 19. 1021 zeta Z
6. 10- 9 nano n 13. 103 kilo k 20. 1024 yotta Y
7. 10- 6 micro m 14. 106 mega M
2
9. Which of the following is not an SI unit ?
(A) (metre)3 (B) litre (C) kgm-3 (D) kelvin
3
10. 1m = .......... ?
(A) 10 cm3
6
(B) 103 L (C) 103 dm3 (D) All of the given
11. For which value of temperature both Celcius and Farenheit scales show same value ?
(A) 32 (B) - 40 (C) 50 (D) 65
12. ° = .......... nm.
10 A
(A) 1 (B) 0.1 (C) 100 (D) 0.01
13. How is 0.00506 expressed in scientific notation ?
(A) 0.0506 × 10- 1 (B) 5.06 × 103 (C) 50.6 × 10- 4 (D) 5.06 × 10- 3
14. Find the volume of a vessel having length 0.6 m, breadth 10 cm and depth 150 mm in litres.
(A) 90 L (B) 9 L (C) 0.9 L (D) 0.09 L
15. The density of a substance is 12.6 g/cm3 Find the density of this substance in kilogram per litre.
(A) 12.6 (B) 1.26 (C) 12600 (D) 126000
-2
16. Convert 1.8 × 10 km into centimetres.
(A) 180 (B) 1800 (C) 18000 (D) 180000
17. The difference in boiling points of two liquids X and Y is 40K. What will be the difference in
their boiling points in Farenheit scale ?
(A) 72° F (B) 104° F (C) 40° F (D) 345° F
18. How many Gg is equal to 1012 m g?
(A) 103 (B) 10- 5 (C) 1031 (D) 10- 3
19. The difference in boiling points of two liquids is 18 ° F. If boiling point of one of the liquids is
111° C, find the boiling point of another.
(A) 118.2° C (B) 101° C (C) 103.2° C (D) 93° C
20. State the number of significant digits in 0.050.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Answers : 9. (B), 10. (D), 11. (B), 12. (A), 13. (D), 14. (B), 15. (A), 16. (B), 17. (A), 18. (D),
19. (B), 20. (B)
PRECISION AND ACCURACY : Precision indicates closeness between different measurements of
same quantity whereas, accuracy indicates the agreement between the true value of result and given
value of result.
21. Two students A and B measure a substance having mass 3.0 g. The measures obtained by them
are shown below:
Student Observation From the given data find correct option from the
(i) gram (ii) gram statements given below:
A 3.01 2.99 (A) The results of student A are both precise and accurate
B 3.05 2.95 (B) The results of student A are neither precise nor accurate
(C) The results of student B are both precise and accurate
(D) The results of both students are precise and accurate
Answers : 21. (A)
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THE LAWS OF CHEMICAL COMBINATION
No. Law Scientist
1 Law of conservation of mass Antonie Lavoisier
2 Law of definite composition Joseph Proust
3 Law of multiple proportion John Dalton
4 Law of combining weights Richter
5 Law of combining volumes of gases Gay-Lussac
6 Avogadros law Avogadro
22. Which of the following statement is correct for given reaction ?

3Fe(s) + 2O2(g) ® Fe3O4(s)
(A) The law of conservation of mass is followed because the total mass of reactants = total mass of
products.
(B) The law of multiple proportion is followed because the total mass of reactants = total mass of
products.
(C) The amount of product will decrease by taking one of the reactants in more quantity.
(D) The amount of product will increase by taking one of the reactants in less quantity.
23. Which reaction is not balanced according to the law of conservation of mass ?
(A) 4Fe + 3O2 ® 2Fe2O3 (B) P4 + 5O2 ® P4O10
(C) 2Ca + O2 ® 2CaO (D) CH4 + O2 ® CO2 + 2H2O
24. How many grams of silver nitrate will combine with 7.45 g KCl to give 14.35 g silver chloride and
10.1 g potassium nitrate ?
(A) 31.9 (B) 17 (C) 34 (D) 21.8
25. Which law is followed while balancing a chemical equation ?
(A) Law of conservation of mass (B) Law of definite composition
(C) Law of multiple proportion (D) Avogadros law
26. Which of the following pair is an illustration of law of multiple proportion ?
(A) MgO and Mg(OH)2 (B) H2O and D2O
(C) CO and CO2 (D) KCl and KBr
27. 2L H2 gas combines with 1 L O2 gas and forms 2 L water vapour. Which law is illustrated by this
statement?
(A) Gay-Lussacs law of combining volumes of gases (B) Law of combining weights.
(C) Law of definite composition (D) Law of multiple proportion
Answers : 22. (A), 23. (D), 24. (B), 25. (A), 26. (C), 27. (A)
Atomic mass, molecular mass, molar mass and mole concept :
1 amu = 1.66056 ´ 10- 24 gram

1 mole = 6.022 ´ 1023
4
mass of 12
C atom = 1.992648 ´ 10- 23 gram
mass
Number of moles =
molar mass
Volume of gas at STP (L)

Number of moles of particles of gaseous substance =
22 ⋅ 4
m1a + m 2 b
Average atomic mass =
a+b
Where, m1 and m2 = atomic masses

a and b = percentage proportion
nA × 100
% of element in compound =
Molar mass
Where, n = Number of atoms of element

A = Atomic mass
28. What will be the mass of 3.01 ´ 1021 oxygen molecules ?
(A) 16 amu (B) 0.16 amu (C) 0.16 gram (D) 16 gram
10
29. The two isotopes of Boron are B (19 %) and 11B (81 %). Calculate average atomic mass of Boron.
(A) 10.0 (B) 10.2 (C) 11.2 (D) 10.8
1−
30. Calculate the number of valence electrons in 4.2 g N 3 ion.
(A) 2.1 NA (B) 4.2 NA (C) 1.6 NA (D) 3.2 NA

31. There is 21 % by volume oxygen gas in 1 litre air at STP. Calculate number of moles of oxygen.
(A) 2.10 Mole (B) 0.0093 Mole (C) 0.186 Mole (D) 0.21 Mole
32. Calculate percentage proportion of Zn in ZnSO4.7H2O
[Zn = 65, S = 32, O = 16, H = 1]
(A) 33.65 % (B) 32.56 % (C) 23.65 % (D) 22.65 %
33. Hemoglobin contains 0.33 %. Iron by mass. Molar mass of Hemoglobin is 67,200. Calculate the
number of iron atoms in a molecule of Hemoglobin. [Atomic mass : Fe = 56]
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 6
34. Calculate the number of atoms in 4.25 g NH3.
(A) 4 ´ 1023 (B) 2 ´ 1023 (C) 1 ´ 1023 (D) 6 ´ 1023
35. Peroxydase anhydrase - enzyme contain 0.5 % Se by mass. What will be the minimum molecular
weight of peroxydase anhydrase enzyme ?
(A) 1.568 ´ 104 (B) 1.568 ´ 105 (C) 1.568 ´ 102 (D) 1568
10- 2 cc/g, radius is 7 A and length is
D
36. The specific volume of a cylindrical virus particle is 6.02 ´
1023, then calculate molecular weight of virus.

D
10 A . If NA = 6.02 ´
(A) 15.4 kg/mol (B) 1.54 ´ 104 kg/mol (C) 3.08 ´ 104 kg/mol (D) 3.08 ´ 103 kg/mol
37. Which of the following contain maximum number of molecules ?
(A) 7 g N2 (B) 2 g H2 (C) 16 g NO2 (D) 6 g O2
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38. Which of the following contains maximum number of molecules ?
(A) 15L H2 gas at STP (B) 5L N2 gas at STP (C) 0.5 gram H2 gas (D) 10 gram O2 gas
39. The percentage proportions of isotopes of element X is as follows.
200
X : 90 %, 199X : 8.0 %, 202X : 2.0 %
Calculate average atomic mass of element X.
(A) 201u (B) 202u (C) 199u (D) 200u
40. What will be the volume of one molecule of water ? (density of water = 1 g cm- 3)
(A) 9.0 ´ 10- 23 cm3 (B) 6.023 ´ 10- 23 cm3
(C) 3.0 ´ 10- 23 cm3 (D) 5.5 ´ 10- 23 cm3
41. In a gaseous mixture the ratio by masses of oxygen and nitrogen is 1:4 then what will be the ratio
of their number of molecules ?
(A) 1:4 (B) 1:8 (C) 7:32 (D) 3:16
42. How many moles of electrons weights 1 kilogram ?
1 6.023 1
(A) 6.023 ´ 1023 (B) ´ 1031 (C) ´ 1054 (D) ´ 108
9.108 9.108 9.108 × 6.023
43. Calculate the total number of electrons in 18 mL water.
(A) 6.02 ´ 1023 (B) 6.02 ´ 1024 (C) 1.8 ´ 1023 (D) 1.8 ´ 1024
44. Calculate the mass of 1 ´ 1022 CuSO4.5H2O molecules in grams.
g g g
(Cu = 63.5 ,S = 32 ,O = 16 )
mol mol mol
(A) 249.5 gram (B) 2.41 ´ 1022 gram (C) 4.14 gram (D) 41.2 ´ 1022 gram
Answers : 28. (C), 29. (D), 30. (C), 31. (B), 32. (D), 33. (C), 34. (D), 35. (A), 36. (A), 37. (B),
38. (A), 39. (D), 40. (C), 41. (C), 42. (D), 43. (B), 44. (C)
EMPIRICAL FORMULA, MOLECULAR FORMULA AND STOICHIOMETRY OF

CHEMICAL REACTIONS
Empirical formula : It indicates simple whole number ratio of different atoms present in a
compound.
Molecular formula : It shows exact number of different atoms present in a compound.
Molecular formula = (Empirical formula) ´ n
Where, n is a simple whole number
Molecular weight
n =
Empirical formula weight
The word stoichiometry is derived from two Greek words : Stoicheion means element
and metron means to measure. Thus, stoichiometry means calculation of masses (sometimes
volumes also) of reactants and products involved in chemical reaction.
45. The percentage proportion of Fe and O in oxide of iron was found to be 69.94 % and 30.06 %
respectively. Find empirical formula of oxide. (Fe = 56, O = 16)
(A) FeO (B) Fe2O3 (C) Fe3O4 (D) FeO2
6
46. If percentage proportion of nitrogen in its oxide is 30.4 % then find empirical formula of that oxide.
(A) N2O (B) NO (C) NO2 (D) N2O3
47. In a substance there are 2.65 ´ 1022 carbon atoms, 2.04 gram sodium and 0.132 mole oxygen atoms,
g
find empirical formula of substance. (Na = 23 )
mol
(A) Na2C2O4 (B) Na2CO3 (C) NaCO4 (D) Na2C2O2

48. An organic substance contains C, H and O elements. Combustion of 1.8 gram of this substance gave
2.64 gram CO2 and 1.08 gram H2O. Find empirical formula of organic substance.
(A) CH2O (B) C2HO (C) C2H4O3 (D) C3H2O3
49. The percentage of C, H and O in an organic substance are 54.55, 9.06 and 36.39 respectively. If
molar mass of this substance is 88 gram/mole, then find its molecular formula.
(A) C2H4O (B) C4H2O2 (C) C4H8O2 (D) C6H8O2
50. When 1.615 gram anhydrous salt was placed in a moist air its mass was found to be 2.875 gram.
The percentage amount of elements in anhydrous salt is as follows. Zn = 40.6, S = 19.8 and
O = 39.6. If complete hydration of a salt is taking place, then calculate the number of molecules of
water of crystallisation.
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
51. Calculate the ratio of volumes of hydrogen gas produced when same amount of Zinc is reacted
separately with excess of sulphuric acid and sodium hydroxide.
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 2:1 (D) 9:4
52. Calculate the mass of residue left on strongly heating 2.76 gram silver carbonate.
(Ag = 108, C = 12, O = 16)
(A) 2.16 gram (B) 2.48 gram (C) 2.32 gram (D) 2.64 gram
53. A mixture X containing 0.02 mole [Co(NH3)5SO4] Br and 0.02 mole [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 in 2L
solution was prepared.
1 L mixture X + AgNO3(aq) (excess) ® Y
1 L mixture X + BaCl2(aq) (excess) ® Z
Calculate the number of moles of Y and Z.
(A) 0.01, 0.01 (B) 0.02, 0.01 (C) 0.01, 0.02 (D) 0.02, 0.02
54. What mass of oxygen would require for complete combustion of 2.8 kilogram ethene (C2H4) ?
(A) 2.8 kg (B) 6.4 kg (C) 9.6 kg (D) 96 kg
55. Combustion reaction of liquid benzene (C6H6) with oxygen is as follows :
2C6H6(l) + 15 O2(g) ® 12CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)
How many litres of O2 at STP would require for combustion of 39 gram liquid benzene ?
(A) 74 L (B) 11.2 L (C) 22.4 L (D) 84 L
Answers : 45. (B), 46. (C), 47. (B), 48. (A), 49. (C), 50. (D), 51. (A), 52. (A), 53. (A), 54. (C),
55. (D)
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DIFFERENT METHODS OF EXPRESSING CONCENTRATION OF SOLUTION
W × 1000 W × 10
6 6
(1) Molarity =
M × V(ml ) (9) ppm = or W × 10
V W’
Where, W = mass of solute in grams Where, W = mass of solute in grams
M = Molar mass of solute, V = volume of solution in mL
V = Volume of solute W = mass of solution in grams
W × 1000 %W / W × d × 10
(2) Normality =
E × V(ml ) (10) Molarity =
M
Where, E = Equivalent weight of solute Where, d = density of solution in gm/mL
W × 1000 M = Molecular mass of solute
(3) Molality =
M × Wo (11) Equivalent weight of acid =
Where, Wo = mass of solvent in grams
Molecular weight of acid
W × 1000 Basicity
(4) Formality =
FM × V(ml )
(12) Equivalent weight of base =
Where, FM = Empirical formula mass
Molecular weight of base
n
(5) Mole fraction of solute = Acidity
n+ N
Where, n = Number of moles of solute (13) Equivalent weight of salt =
N = Number of moles of solvent Molecular weight of salt
W × 100 Total positive charge of positive ion
(6) % w/w =
W + Wo
(14) Normality Formula : N1 V1 = N2 V2
V × 100
(7) % V/V Where, N1 = Initial normality of solution
=
V + V0
V1 = Initial volume of solution
V = Volume of solute in mL
Vo = Volume of solvent in mL N2 = Final normality of solution
W × 100 V2 = Final volume of solution

(8) % W/V =
V (15) Equivalent weight of element =
Where, W = mass of solute in grams
Atomic mass
V = Volume of solute in mL Oxidation number
(16) Equivalent weight of compound in redox reaction =
Molecular weight
Changein oxidation number per mole of compound
Molarity ×1000
(17) Molality =
(1000 d) -(Molar mass of solute × Molarity)
Molality × Molar mass of solute

(18) Mole fraction of solute =
1000 + molality × Molar mass of solute
WA WB
(19) If a reaction takes place between A and B then, E =
EB
A
(20)Limiting reagent : In a chemical reaction, the reactant taken in lesser amount is consumed
after some time and reaction does not proceed further however larger amount of another
8
reactant is taken. Therefore, the reactant which gets consumed and limits the amount of
products is called limiting reactant or reagent. This matter should be considered while
doing stoichiometric calculations.
56. The density of 98 % W/W aqueous solution of H2SO4 is 1.8 gm/mL. What would be its molarity ?
(A) 20 M (B) 10 M (C) 18 M (D) 24 M
57. Calculate normality of aqueous solution of 0.5M Al2 (SO4)3.
(A) 1.0 N (B) 1.5 N (C) 2.5 N (D) 3.0 N
58. How much water should be added to a mixture of 1500 mL 0.8 M and 500 mL 0.4 M aqueous
solutions so that the resulting solution will have molarity 0.5 M ?
(A) 800 mL (B) 700 mL (C) 2800 mL (D) 2000 mL
59. Calculate the molality of a solution formed by mixing 500 gram solution of 25 % W/W NaOH and
500 gram solution of 15 % W/W NaOH. (Na = 23, O = 16, H = 1)
(A) 5.0 m (B) 9.0 m (C) 6.25 m (D) 0.0625 m
W g
60. Calculate % of NaCl in 1.2 m NaCl aqueous solution. (NaCl = 58.5 )
W mol
(A) 3.27 (B) 5.62 (C) 4.67 (D) 6.56
61. Calculate the molality of resulting solution when aqueous solutions of 400 gram 0.5m, 100 gram
0.8 m and 600 gram 1.5 m urea are mixed.
(A) 1.2 m (B) 1.26 m (C) 1.06 m (D) 1.60 m
62. How many number of moles of KMnO4 will be required to react with 1 mole sulphite ion in acidic
solution ?
4 2 3
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D)
5 5 5
63. How much oxygen would be required at 0° C temperature and 1 atmospheric pressure for complete
combustion of 1L propane (C3H8) gas ?
(A) 7 L (B) 6 L (C) 5 L (D) 10 L
64. How many moles of Lead (II) chloride will form by reaction of 6.5 gram PbO and 3.2 gram HCl ?
(Pb = 207, O = 16, Cl = 35.5, H = 1)
(A) 0.044 (B) 0.333 (C) 0.011 (D) 0.029
65. How many moles of MnO4- 1 will be required for the oxidation of 1 mole ferrous oxalate in acidic
medium?
(A) 0.6 Mole (B) 0.4 Mole (C) 7.5 Mole (D) 0.2 Mole
66. How many moles of water will form by reaction between 10 gram hydrogen and 64 gram oxygen ?
(A) 1 Mol (B) 2 Mol (C) 3 Mol (D) 4 Mol
67. How much mass of a dibasic acid (Molecular weight = 200) will be required to form 100 mL
0.1N aqueous solution ?
(A) 1 gram (B) 2 gram (C) 10 gram (D) 20 gram
68. What will be the molarity of liquid HCl if its density is 1.17 gram / cm3.
(A) 36.5 M (B) 18.25 M (C) 32.05 M (D) 42.10 M
69. Calculate the molarity of a resultant mixture when 1 M 2.5 L NaOH and 0.5 M 3 L NaOH are
mixed ?
(A) 0.8 M (B) 1.0 M (C) 0.73 M (D) 0.50 M
9
70. The density of a concentrated solution of sulphuric acid is 1.80 gm/mL and it contains 98 % by mass
of sulphuric acid. What volume of this acid will be required to prepare 1L 0.1 M H2SO4 solution ?
(A) 11.10 mL (B) 16.65 mL (C) 22.20 mL (D) 5.55 mL
71. How many maximum number of moles of Ba3(PO4)2 will form if 0.5 mole BaCl2 and 0.2 mole
Na3PO4 are mixed ?
(A) 0.70 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.1
72. 250 mL aqueous solution containing 6.3 gram oxalic acid dihydrate was prepared. What volume of
0.1 N NaOH will be required for complete neutralisation of 10 mL of this acid ?
(A) 40 mL (B) 20 mL (C) 10 mL (D) 4 mL
Answers : 56. (C), 57. (D), 58. (A), 59. (C), 60. (D), 61. (C), 62. (B), 63. (C), 64. (D), 65. (B),
66. (D), 67. (A), 68. (C), 69. (C), 70. (D), 71. (D), 72. (A)
73. The vapour density of a mixture of NO2 and N2O4 at 26.7 ° C is 38.3. Calculate number of moles of
NO2 in 100 gram mixture. (NO2 = 46, N2O4 = 92)
(A) 1.74 (B) 0.437 (C) 0.21 (D) 0.87
74. Calculate the equivalent weight of H3PO4 in a reaction given below :
Ca (OH)2 + H3PO4 = CaHPO4 + 2H2O
(A) 98 (B) 32.66 (C) 49 (D) 24.5
75. A compound contains 28 % nitrogen and 72 % metal by mass. Three atoms of metal combines with
two atoms of nitrogen. Calculate atomic mass of metal.
(A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 28 (D) 72
76. The density of 3 M aqueous solution of sodium thiosulphate (Na2S2O3) is 1.25 gram/mL. Calculate
molality of Na+ and S2O32- ions in this solution.

(A) 3.865, 3.865 (B) 7.732, 7.732 (C) 3.865, 7.732 (D) 7.732, 3.865
77. How many millilitres of 0.5 M H2SO4 will be required to dissolve 0.5 gram copper (II) carbonate ?
g
(Cu = 63.5 )
mol
(A) 8.097 mL (B) 20.0 mL (C) 7.77 mL (D) 10.0 mL

78. On mixing 45 mL 0.25 M lead nitrate and 25 mL 0.1 M chromic sulphate solutions, lead sulphate is
precipitated. How many moles of lead sulphate is produced ? What will be the molarity of lead
nitrate after the reaction ?
(A) 2.5 ´ 10- 3 mole, 0.0714 M (B) 2.5 ´ 10- 3 mole, 0.0536 M
(C) 7.5 ´ 10- 3 mole, 0.0536 M (D) 7.5 ´ 10- 3 mole, 0.0714 M
79. A reaction between 2320 kilogram Fe3O4 and 280 kilogram CO is as follows:
(Fe = 56, O = 16, C = 12)
Fe3O4 + 4CO(g) ® 3Fe(s) + 4CO2(g) Calculate the mass of iron produced during the reaction.
(s)
(A) 420 kg (B) 1680 kg (C) 168 kg (D) 3360 kg
10
80. How much CaO will be obtained by decomposition of 200 kg CaCO3 having purity 95% ?
(A) 190 kg (B) 106 kg (C) 109 kg (D) 60 kg
2+
81. 1 litre hard water contains 12.00 milligram Mg , then calculate number of milli equivalents of
washing soda required for removal of hardness of water.
(A) 1 (B) 12.16 (C) 1 ´ 10- 3 (D) 12.16 ´ 10- 3
82. If 5.0 mL conc. H2SO4 (d = 1.8 gram/mL) is neutralised by 82.4 mL of 2.0 M NaOH, then what will
be the percentage purity of acid ?
(A) 89.72 (B) 92.12 (C) 98.2 (D) 85.7
83. Find the volume of ammonia at STP that must be passed through 30 mL 0.5 M H2SO4 in order to
make its normality 0.2 N.
(A) 672 mL (B) 707 mL (C) 537.6 mL (D) 326.7 mL
84. A regular copolymer of ethylene and vinyl chloride contains both monomers alternatively. Calculate
percentage by mass of ethylene in this copolymer.
(A) 27.8 % (B) 28.2 % (C) 25 % (D) 30.93 %
85. Mole fraction of iodine (I2) in benzene (C6H6) is 0.2. Calculate molality of iodine in benzene.
(A) 2.35 m (B) 3.20 m (C) 2.75 m (D) 3.6 m
86. 5 mL 8 N nitric acid, 4.8 mL 5 N HCl and a certain volume of 17 M H2SO 4 were mixed and
the volume of a mixture was made up to 2 L. 30 mL of this mixture neutralise 42.9 mL of
solution of 1 gram sodium carbonate (Na2CO3 . 10H2O) dissolved in 100 mL solution. Calculate
the mass of sulphate ions in solution.
87. How many mL of 0.1 M nitric acid solution will be required to react completely with 1 gram
mixture containing equal number of moles of Na2CO3 and NaHCO3 ?
(A) 158 mL (B) 65 mL (C) 42 mL (D) 110 mL
88. On heating 1 gram metal carbonate, 0.56 gram oxide is obtained. Calculate the equivalent weight of
metal.
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 12 (D) 24
89. Combustion of 3 litre gaseous mixture of propane and butane at 25 ° C temperature produce 10 litre
CO2 gas. Calculate the percentage proportion of butane in a gaseous mixture.
(A) 66.66 % (B) 44.44 % (C) 33.33 % (D) 48.55 %
90. A hydrocarbon contains 10.5 gram carbon per gram of hydrogen. The mass of 1 litre vapours of this
hydrocarbon is 2.8 gram at 127 ° C temperature and 1 atmospheric pressure. Find molecular formula
of hydrocarbon.
(A) C3H8 (B) C5H8 (C) C4H10 (D) C7H8
Answers : 73. (B), 74. (C), 75. (B), 76. (D), 77. (A), 78. (C), 79. (A), 80. (B), 81. (A), 82. (A),
83. (C), 84. (D), 85. (B), 86. (C), 87. (A), 88. (B), 89. (C), 90. (D)
11
Two statements are given below in each question. In that one is assertion (A) and another
is reason (R). Study the statements carefully and select correct option as per instructions
given below :
(A) If A and R both are correct and R is correct explanation of A.
(B) If A and R both are correct but R is not correct explanation of A.
(C) If A is correct but R is incorrect.
(D) If A and R both are incorrect.
1
91. Assertion (A) : 1 amu is part of the mass of C12.
12th
Reason (R) : Carbon-12 is the most abundant isotope of carbon and is accepted as standard.
92. Assertion (A) : The combustion of 30 gram ethane yields 54 gram water.
Reason (R) : Water is one of the products obtained on combustion of ethane.
93. Assertion (A) : Pure water always contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 2:16 by mass
irrespective of source.
Reason (R) : The law of conservation of mass is followed in chemical reactions.
94. Assertion (A) : For a reaction NH3 + HCl ® NH4Cl, Gay-Lussacs law does not follow.
Reason (R) : NH4Cl is a solid substance.

95. Assertion (A) : Galena is chemical compound, whereas solution of salt in water is a mixture.
Reason (R) : There is always 6.5 times lead than the mass of sulphur in Galena, whereas solution
of salt in water can be prepared by taking any amounts of salt and water.
96. Assertion (A) : Sulphuric acid is dibasic acid.
Reason (R) : The normality of 0.2 M H2SO4 is 0.1 N.
97. Assertion (A) : Atomic mass of sodium is 11.
Reason (R) : Sodium atom is 23 times heavier than atom of carbon-12.
98. Assertion (A) : The value of molarity does not vary with temperature.
Reason (R) : Molarity does not depend on temperature.
99. Assertion (A) : A substance is made up of three components A, B and C. If mole fractions of A
and B are 0.2 and 0.3 respectively, then the mole fraction of C will be 0.5.
Reason (R) : The sum of mole fractions of all components is always 1.
100. Assertion (A) : Molecular weight and equivalent weight of sodium hydroxide are same.
Reason (R) : The basicity of sodium hydroxide is 1.
Answers : 91. (B), 92. (B), 93. (B), 94. (A), 95. (A), 96. (C), 97. (D), 98. (D), 99. (A), 100. (C)
12
2 States of matter
Gas state
Gas laws
Boyles law : At constant temperature, for a fixed amount of gas the pressure (P) varies in-
versely with its volume (V).
1
P a
V
\ PV = K (T, n constant)
for two different condition, P1V1 = P2V2 = K
d1 d2 d1 P1
with respect to density, =
P1 =
P2 , \
d2 =
P2
Charles law : At constant pressure, for a fixed amount of gas. its volume is directly proportional to
its absolute temperature.
V a T (P, n constant)
V
\ = K
T
V1 V2 V1 T1
For two different conditions, T =
T2 = K, \
V2 =
T2
1
Gay-lussacs law : At constant volume, for a fixed amount of gas. its pressure is directly
proportional to its absolute temperature.
P a T (v, n constant)
P
\ = K
T
P1 P2 P1 T1
For two different conditions, T =
T2 = K, \
P2 =
T2
1
Avagadros law : At same temperature and pressure, equal volume of all gases contain equal
number of molecules.
\ V a n (P, T constant)
V = kn
V1 V2
\ n1 = n
2
STP conditions
Standard Temperature : 273 K or 0° C
Standard Pressure : 1 bar = 1 ´ 105 pascal
Standard molar volume : 22.71 litre (For ideal gas) 22.4 litre
Standard number of particles : 6.022 ´ 1023 particles
Combined gas equation :
1
V a (Boyles law), V a T (Charles law)
P
13
T
\ V a
P
PV a T \ PV = KT
PV
\ = K
T
P1V1 P2 V2
For two different conditions, T1 =
T2
Ideal gas equation

1
V a (Boyles law), V a T (Charles law), V a n (Avagadros law)
P
nT
\ V a
P
\ PV a nT
\ PV = nRT (R = universal gas constant)
mRT m
\ PV = n =
M M
m RT m
\ P = d =
V M V
dRT
\ P =
M
Values of gas constant R

R = 0.0821 litre atm K- 1 mol- 1
R = 82.1 ml atm K- 1 mol- 1
R = 8.314 ´ 107 erg K- 1 mol- 1
R = 1.987 cal K- 1 mol- 1
R = 8.314 joule K- 1 mol- 1
R = 0.08314 litre bar K- 1 mol- 1
Compressibility Factor
PV
Z =
nRT
(i) For ideal gas, Z = 1

(ii) For non ideal gas Z > 1 or Z < 1
If Z > 1 then positive deviation PV > nRT
If Z < 1 then negative deviation PV < nRT
At zero pressure, Z = 1 all gases behave as an ideal gas.
14
Pressure and volume for non ideal gas
an 2
(i) Pressure for non ideal gas Pideal = Preal +
V2
where n = number of moles of gas, V = volume in litre a = Van der waals constant, which depends
on the characteristics of gas. It indicates the measurement of intermolecular attractive forces which is free
from effect of temperature and pressure.
(ii) Volume for non ideal gas Videal = Vreal nb
Where n = number of moles of gas and b = Van der waals constant
 an 2 
\  P + 2  (V
 V 
- nb) = nRT (Van der waals equation)
Various Critical conditions

a
(i) Critical Pressure PC = (ii) Critical Volume, VC = 3b
27b 2
8a PC VC 3
(iii) Critical Temperature TC =
27 R b (iv) TC = R
8
a 2a
(v) Boyles Temperature Tb = (vi) Inversion Temperature Ti = 2Tb =
R ×b Rb
Where a and b are Van der waals constnat and R = universal gas constant.
1. At a given temperature, definite quantity of N2 gas is filled in a 100 ml centainer at 200 millibar
pressure. If this gas is filled in a one litre container, what will be its pressure ?
(A) 20 millibar (B) 2000 millibar (C) 200 millibar (D) 100 millibar
2. If density of gas at sea level is 2.5 ml/gm, then what would be its density at 0.5 bar pressure ?
(A) 5.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.25 (D) 0.5
3. At 400 K temperature. A gas has volume 4 litre. What should be the temperature to make volume
half ?
(A) - 73° C (B) + 73° C (C) - 173° C (D) 173° C
4. Pressure of N2 gas filled in a 5 litre closed container at 27° C is 1 bar, what will be its pressure at
77° C ?
(A) 0.117 bar (B) 1.17 bar (C) 11.7 bar (D) 2.7 bar
5. Pressure of Cl2 gas filled in a 5 litre closed container at 400 K temperature is 4 bar. If the pressure
is to be made 5 bar. What should be its temperature in °C ?
(A) 500 (B) 227 (C) 300 (D) 27
15
6. At 300 K temperature, pressure of 200 ml N2 gas is 1.75 bar, what would be the volume of N2 at
STP ?
(A) 239 ml (B) 139 ml (C) 339 ml (D) 250 ml
7. What will be the pressure of 0.1 mole SO3 gas filled in a 2 litre container at 300 K temperature ?
(A) 2.46 bar (B) 1.23 bar (C) 1 bar (D) 2 bar
8. What is the value of gas constant R in calorie K- 1 mol- 1 unit ?
(A) 0.0821 (B) 0.08314 (C) 8.314 (D) 1.987
9. Find the pressure of 10 mole chlorine gas filled in a 2 litre container at 300 K temperature.
(A) 6.235 (B) 0.6235 (C) 62.35 (D) 6.325
10. How many moles of chlorine gas should be filled in a 500 ml container at 350 K temperature to
have pressure of 125 bar ?
(A) 2.15 (B) 4.30 (C) 0.43 (D) 0.215
11. Find pressure of Neon gas at 400 K temperature, having density of 0.8 gm/litre ? (Atomic Mass
of Ne = 20)
(A) 1.3 (B) 3.10 (C) 3.31 (C) 1.33
12. Find volume of 6.022 ´ 1021 molecules of O2 gas at STP ?
(A) 22.4 litre (B) 0.224 litre (C) 2.24 litre (D) 0.0224 litre
13. If 50° C temperature of N2 gas is made 100° C its volume becomes.
(A) twice (B) more than twice (C) less than twice (D) remains same
14. What will be the compressibility factor (Z) for He gas ?
(A) 1 (B) >1 (C) <1 (D) zero
15. Which gas at low pressure shows positive deviation ?
(A) He (B) CO2 (C) CH4 (D) N2
16. Which of the following is the true for real gas equation ?
 aV2   an 2 
(A)  P +  (V - nb) = RT (B)  P +  (V - nb) = nRT
 n2   V2 
 aV2   an 2 
(C)  P +  (V + nb) = RT (D)  P +  (V - nb) = RT
 n2   V2 
1
17. If a gas kept at 1 bar pressure has its volume decreased and made , then its pressure becomes ?
4
1
(A) 1 times (B) 2 times (C) 4 times (D) times
4
18. If density of a gas at 300 K temperature and 1 bar pressure is d, then at what temperature will its
density become 0.75 ?
(A) 20 ° C (B) 30 ° C (C) 400 K (D) 300 K
16
19. At 303 K temperature, on increasing pressure on He gas its volume becomes half. At what tempera-
ture should the gas be heated to make the volume double than its original volume ?
(A) 303 K (B) 606 K (C) 1212 K (D) 30° C
20. What will be the volume occupied by 14 g N2 and 36 gm O3 at identical temperature and pressure ?
(A) 2VN = 3VO (B) 3VN = 2VO (C) 3VN = 4VO (D) 4VN = 3VO
2 3 2 3 2 3 2 3
21. N2 gas stored in a 10 litre closed container at 4 bar pressure. There is a leakage in the con-
tainer, by the time the leakage is repaired the pressure of left out N2 in container is 2.36 bar at
27° C temperature, then find amount of N2 gas leaked ?
(A) 18.7 gm (B) 0.67 gm (C) 52.6 gm (D) 10.0 gm
22. Calculate density of CH4 gas at 27° C temperature and 2 bar pressure (Molecular Mass of
CH4 = 16).
(A) 0.13 g/L (B) 0.26 g/L (C) 1.3 g/L (D) 26 g/L
23. What will be the value of compressibility factor (Z) for an ideal gas ?
(A) Z = 1 (B) Z > 1 (C) Z £ 1 (D) Z ³ 1
24. Methane and Hydrogen gas of identical mass are filled in a closed container at 25° C calculate the
pressure of Hydrogen gas in the container.
1 8 1 16
(A) P (B) P (C) P (D) P
2 9 9 17
Answers : 1. (A), 2. (C), 3. (A), 4. (B), 5. (B), 6. (A), 7. (B), 8. (D), 9. (C), 10. (A), 11. (D),
12. (B), 13. (B), 14. (B), 15. (A), 16. (B), 17. (C), 18. (C), 19. (C), 20. (B),
21. (A), 22. (C), 23. (A), 24. (B)
Daltons law of partial pressure : The total pressure exerted by the mixture of non reactive gases
is equal to the sum of the partial pressure of individual gases.
Ptotal = PA + PB + PC .........
nRT WRT
Partial pressure of a gas Based on mass and volume P = =
V MV
Based on mole fraction and total pressure
cgas
n2
Pgas = ´ PTotal =
n1 + n 2 ´ PTotal
Based on percentage volume
% by volume of gas × P
Pgas = Total
100
When gas is collected over water :

PTotal = Pdrygas + PH \ Pdry gas = PTotal - PH
2O 2O
Grahams law of gasseous diffusion : Under identical conditions of temperature and pressure. The
rate of diffusion for various gases varies inversely to the square root of their densities.
17
1
r a r = rate of diffusion of gas, d = density of gas
d
r1 d2
r2 =
d1
d2 M2
Q, d a M, d =
M1
1
r1 d2 M2
\ r2 = =
d1 M1
V
now r =
t
r1 V1 t1 d2 M2
\ r2 = = =
V2 t 2 d1 M1
t d2 M2
If V1 = V2 then, t2 =
d1 =
M1
1
V1 d2 M2
If t1 = t2 then, =
d1 =
M1
V2
25. If 4 mole Cl2, 4 mole N2 and 2 mole O2 are filled in a 5 litre container at 27° C then calculate total
pressure of the gasseous mixture ?
(A) 100 bar (B) 50 bar (C) 5 bar (D) 10 bar
26. Total pressure of a gasseous mixture containing 4 mole N2, 3 mole Cl2 and 3 mole O2 gas at 27° C
is 50 bar, then calculate partial pressure of N2 gas ?
(A) 20 bar (B) 50 bar (C) 10 bar (D) 15 bar
27. If equal mass of H2, N2 and O2 gas are filled in a container at a definite temperature, then partial
pressure of which gas will be highest ?
(A) N2 (B) O2 (C) H2 (D) H2 and N2
28. If O2 takes 40 seconds to travel from sun to earth, then how much time will He take for the same ?
(A) 14.15 seconds (B) 28.30 seconds (C) 20 seconds (D) 40 seconds
29. Which of the following gases will have highest rate of diffusion ?
(A) CO2 (B) Cl2 (C) NO2 (D) H2
30. If 50 ml of N2 gas and 70 ml of unknown gas have same time of diffusion, then calculate the
molecular mass of unknown gas.
(A) 14.3 gm/mole (B) 28 gm/mole (C) 25 gm/mole (D) 18.3 gm/mole
31. At a definite temperature, rate of diffusion of CH4 gas is twice that of gas X, then calculate Molecu-
lar mass of X ?
(A) 64 (B) 32 (C) 16 (D) 4
18
32. If volume of a gas is made half by increasing pressure, then how many moles of gas will be present
in the container ?
(A) 2 times (B) Half (C) remain same (D) more than 2 times
33. If O2 and CH4 are filled in a container at 25° C temperature, then what will be the pressure of O2 in
the container ?
1 1
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) 3
2 3 3 2
34. In a long glass tube, from one end of the tube a cotton plug dipped in NH3(aq) and from other end
cotton plug dipped in HCl are fixed at the same time, the white fumes of NH4Cl will be obtained at.
(A) centre of the tube (B) closer to HCl end (C) closer to NH3 end (D) in the whole tube
35. Calculate total number of atoms in 50 gm CaCO3 ?
(A) 3.011 ´ 1023 (B) 6.022 ´ 1023 (C) 12.044 ´ 1023 (D) 15.055 ´ 1023
36. Which of the following compounds contain maximum number of atoms ?
(A) 20 gm H2 (B) 44 gm CO2 (C) 100 gm CaCO3 (D) 28 gm CO
37. Calculate mass of 2.24 litre of H2 gas at STP.
(A) 2.24 gm (B) 0.2 gm (C) 1 gm (D) 0.1 gm
38. Calculate volume of 14 gm N2 gas at STP.
39. If 10 gm H2, 12 gm He and 28 gm N2 are filled in a container at a definite temperature, which gas
in the container will have maximum partial pressure ?
(A) He (B) H2 (C) N2 (D) He and H2.
40. At 298 K temperature and 760 mm pressure 5 gm of which of the following gases will have mini-
mum volume ?
(A) HCl (B) HF (C) HBr (D) HI
41. What will be the ratio of rate of diffusion of SO2 and O2 ?
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:2 (C) 2:1 (D) 1:1.414
42. At which temperature a gas can be liquified ?
(A) greater than its critical temperature (B) at its critical temperature
(C) less than its critical temperature (D) at any temperature
(A) B (B) D (C) C (D) A
43. If a hole is made in a container containing 0.5 mole of each H2, SO2 and CH4 gas, then after some
time, what will be the order of their partial pressure ?
(A) PH > PCH > PSO (B) PSO > PCH > PH (C) PSO > PH > PCH (D) PCH > PSO > PH
2 4 2 2 4 2 2 2 4 4 2 2
44. One litre ideal gas is equal to how many moles ?
(A) PT/R (B) PRT (C) P/RT (D) RT
P
45. Critical temperature of gases A, B, C and D are 25° C, 10° C, - 80° C and 15° C respectively.
Which of the gases can be liquified easily ?
(A) B (B) C (C) D (D) A
Answers : 25. (B), 26. (A), 27. (C), 28. (A), 29. (D), 30. (A), 31. (A), 32. (C), 33. (C), 34. (B),
35. (D), 36. (A), 37. (B), 38. (C), 39. (B), 40. (D), 41. (D), 42. (C), 43. (B), 44. (C),
45. (D).
19
Solid States
There are five states of matter known which are as follows :
Solid, liquid and gas : Which exist at normal temperature and pressure and in these conditions
study of properties of this matter is done.
Plasma : It is obtained at high temperature. It is such a state of matter where atoms have electrons
free from attraction due to which existance of structure of atom is not possible and so electronic configu-
ration is not formed in such a state quantity of free electron existing increases.
Bose Einstein Condensate (B.E.C.) : It is obtained at very low temperature. A state of matter in
which all elements show identical properties and there remains no difference in the property of the
element.
Solid substances are availabe in two forms : crystalline and amorphous forms
Difference between crystalline and Amorphous solid
Property Crystalline solid Amorphous solid
(1) Shape Definite shape and possessing Irregular shape

characteristic geometry
(2) Melting point Definite and sharp melting point does not have definite and
sharp melting point. Becomes
soft gradually during the small
temperature range.
(3) Fusion enthalpy Definite and characteristic Not definite and characteristic
fusion enthalpy fusion enthalpy
(4) Cleavage property Divides into two parts on Divides in two parts on cutting the
cutting with sharp tools like crystal with sharp tools like knife
knife. The surface of the new but the surface of new part is
part obtained is plain and soft not as original one. It is irregular.
(5) Nature True solid Pseudo solid or super cooled
liquids
(6) Order of Arrange- The order is maintained till a The order is maintained in a
ment of constituent long range short range
particle
(7) Effect of temperature The graph of (T ® t) obtained on The graph of (T ® t) obtained
cooling after heating is not a on cooling after heating is a
curvature. The temperature remains curvature. Temperature range is
definite during crystalization obtained during crystalisation.
(8) Other properties Their properties like electrical Their properties like electrical
conductivity, thermal conductivity, conductivity, thermal conductivity,
mechanical strength and refractive mechanical strength and
index are different in different refractive index are same in all
directions. directions.
20
The classification of solid substances on the basis of intermolecular attraction forces involved in them,
can be divided into four classes.
Type of Constituent Attraction Physical Melting Electrical Exmaple
solid particles forces nature point conductivity
(1) (i) Nonpolar Molecules Dispersion soft very low Non Ar, CCl4,
Molecular or london conductor H2, I2, CO2
solid forces P4, S8
(ii) Ploar Molecules Dipole - soft low Non HCl, SO2,

Dipole conductor NH3
attraction
(iii) H-bond Molecules H-bond hard low Non H2O (ice)
possessing conductor
(2) Ionic solid Ions coulombic hard high Solid state, NaCl,
or electro- but non MgO,
static brittle conductivity ZnS,
but molten CaCl2
or aqueous
solution
conductor
(3) Metallic solid positive ion Metallic Normally for some conductors Fe
in sea of bond hard, but metals in solid Au
delocalised S-block high and Na etc.
electrons metals and (eg. Os) molten
some others some metals state
are soft. medium
ductile and (eg. Ba)
Malleable some metals
low eg. Hg
and Ga.
(4) Covalent or Atoms Covalent Hard very High Non eg. quartz
Network solid bond condutors (SiO2)
Silicon
carbide
(SiC)
Diamond
and graphite
21
1. Which type of solids are SO2, Ar and H2O respectively. (At definite temperature and pressure)
(A) Non polar Molecular solid, Polar Molecular solid, H-Bond possessing Molecular solid.
(B) Polar Molecular solid, Non-Polar Molecular solid, H-Bond possessing Molecular solid
(C) Non polar Molecular solid, H-Bond possessing Molecular solid, polar molecular solid
(D) H-Bond possessing molecular solid, polar Molecular solid, non polar molecular solid.
2. Which of the following is not a property of crystalline solid ?
(A) It is a true solid
(B) Constituent particles are in an ordered arrangement for a longer period
(C) Shape possesses definite and characteristic geometry
(D) Their properties like electrical conductivity, thermal conductivity, mechanical strength and
refractive index are same in all directions.
3. Match the following Group 1 (Type of solid) and Group 2 (example).
Group-1 Group-2
(A)Molecular solid (I) SiC (A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(B) Ionic solid (II) CO2 (B) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(C) Metallic solid (III) CaF2 (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(D) covalent solid (IV) Mg (D) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
4. Column (I) (types of solid) and column II (physical properties) Match the columns and select proper
choice given below.
Column-1 Column-2
(A) Molecular solid (I) Hard but ductile and malleable(A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(B) Ionic solid (II) Hard (B) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(C) Metallic solid (III) soft (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(D) covalent solid (IV) Hard but brittle (D) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
5. Column I (Type of solid), column II (physical properties) and column III (electrical conductivity)
Match the columns and select proper choice given below.
Column-1 Column-2 Column-3
(A) Metallic Solid (I) Hard (X) Conductor
(B) Covalent Solid (II) Hard but brittle (Y) Non Conductor
(C) Non-polar Molecular (III) Soft (Z) Conductor in solid and
solid Molten state
(D) Ionic solid (IV) Hard but ductile and (W) Non conductor in solid state
malleable but conductor in molten state
(A) A-II-X, B-I-Z, C-III-X, D-II-W (B) A-IV-Z, B-I-Y, C-III-Y, D-II-W
(C) A-III-Y, B-I-Y, C-II-Y, D-IV-W (D) A-II-Z, B-IV-Y, C-III-Y, D-I-Z
6. Select the correct option for the given statements : T = True statement, F = False statement
(i) Melting point of polar molecular solid is lower than non polar molecular solid
(ii) Inspite of possessing +ve and ve ions, ionic solid cannot conduct Heat and electricity
(iii) luster of metal and in some cases colour is due to free electrons in the metal
(iv) Graphite is a rigid network crystalline solid.
(A) FFTT (B) TFTF (C) TFFT (D) FTTF
Answers : 1. (B), 2. (D), 3. (A), 4. (B), 5. (B) 6. (D)
22
Crystal lattice : Ordered arrangement of constituent particles in three dimensional space is called
crystal lattice.
Unit cell : Smallest part of the crystal made up of atom, ion or molecule, which is repeated periodi-
cally in a three dimensional arrangement to form a crystal. Such smallest part of the crystal is called unit
cell. Unit cell possesses all the characteristics properties of the crystal and it describes the shape of the
crystal.
A unit cell can be described by 6 parameters : It has three edges a, b, c and the angles between
the edges a , b and g .
a
b
b
a g
Laltice site and number of lattice site in a unit cell
Corners Face centre Body centre Edge centre

Number 8 6 1 12
1 1 1
Required constituent particle for the 1
8 2 4
site
1 1 1
Total number of particle for the sites ´ 8 = 1 ´ 6 = 3 1 ´ 1 = 1 ´ 12 = 3
8 2 4
in unit cell
Types of unit cell
Primitive unit cell Centered unit cell
Where constituent particles Where one or more constituent particles are arrnaged at other
are arranged at the corners places in addition to the sites of the corner.
of the unit cell only.
Body centred unit cell : Face centred unit cell : End centred unit cell :
constituent particles are Constituent particles In such a unit cell one
arranged at corners and are arranged at corners constituent particle is
Body centre of a unit and face centres of a present at the centre of
cell. unit cell. any two opposite faces
besides the ones present
at its corners.
23
There are in all seven types of Crystal system
Cube Tetragonal OrthoRhombic Hexagonal
c c
c
a
b
b a
a
c
a b
b b
b
g
b
a g
a g
a
g
a
b
a = b = c a = b ¹ c a ¹ b ¹ c a = b¹ c
o o o
a = b = g = 90 a = b = g = 90 a = b = g = 90 a = b = 90o, g = 120o
Rhombohedral Monoclinic Triclinic
c
c c
a a
b b a
b b b
a b
g a g a g
a = b =c a ¹ b¹ c a ¹ b ¹ c
a = b = g ¹ 90o < 120o a = g = 90o, b ¹ 90 o
a ¹ b ¹ g ¹ 90o
Seven Primitive unit cells and deviation possible as centred unit in Them
Sr. Crystal Possible Axialdistance Axis Example
System variation or distance of angle
(Bravice lattice) edge
(1) Cube Primitive, Body a = b = c a = b = g = 90o NaCl, Cu, ZnS
centred, Face centred Ag
(2) Tetragonal Primitive, Body centred a = b ¹ c a = b = g = 90o white tin,
SnO2, TiO2, CaSO4
(3) Ortho Primitive, Body centred, a ¹ b ¹ c a = b = g = 90o Rhombic S
Rhombic Face centred, End centred KNO3, BaSO4
(4) Hexagonal Primitive a = b ¹ c a = b = 90o, graphite, ZnO, CdS
g = 120o
(5) Rhombohed- Primitive a=b=c a = b = g ¹ 90o calcite, (CaCO3),
ral or Trigonal Cinnabar (HgS)
(6) Monodinic Primitive, a ¹ b ¹ c a = g = 90o, Monoclinic S
End centred b ¹ 90o Na2SO4, 10H2O
(7) Triclinic Primitive a ¹ b ¹ c a ¹ b ¹ g ¹ 90o K2Cr2O7, H3BO3
CuSO4. 5H2O
24
7. Body centred unit cell (Bravice lattice or possible variation) is observed in which type of
crystal system ?
(A) Rhombohedral (B) Tetragonal (C) Triclinic (D) Monoclinic
8. Which type of unit cell (Bravice lattice or possible variation) are found in Monoclinic crystal
system ?
(A) Body centred (B) End centred (C) Face centred (D) Mentioned all
9. Calcite (CaCO3) is an example of which type of crystal system ?
(A) Rhombohedral (B) Tetragonal (C) Orthorhombic (D) Triclinic
10. .......... Crystal system unit cell has edges a ¹ b ¹ c and angle between edges a ¹ b ¹ g ¹ 90o.
(A) Triclinic (B) Monoclinic (C) Orthorhombic (D) Tetragonal
11. .......... Crystal unit cell has edges a = b ¹ c and angle between edges a = b = 90o, g = 120o
(A) KNO3 (B) CuSO4.5H2O (C) graphite (D) HgS
12. .......... Crystal unit cell has edges a = b = c and angle between edges a = b = g ¹ 90o
is not less than 120o.
(A) Cinnabar (B) CaSO4 (C) CaCO3 (calcite) (D) Mentioned all three
13. Which of the following parameters are true for Tetragonal unit cell ?
(A) a = b = c and a = b = g ¹ 90o (B) a = b = c and a = b = g = 90o
(C) a = b ¹ c and a = b = g = 90o (D) a ¹ b ¹ c and a ¹ b ¹ g ¹ 90o

14. Which of the following parameters are true for Triclinic unit cell ?
(A) a ¹ b ¹ c and a = b = g = 90o (B) a = b = c and a = b = g = 90o

15. Which parameters are possible for face centred unit cell ?
(A) a ¹ b ¹ c and a ¹ b ¹ g ¹ 90o (B) a ¹ b ¹ c and a = b = g = 90o
(C) a = b ¹ c and a = b = g = 90o (D) a = b = c and a = b = g ¹ 90o

16. Which parameters are true for unit cell of NaSO4.10H2O ?
(A) a ¹ b ¹ c and a = g = 90o, b ¹ 90o (B) a = b = c and a = b = g = 90o

17. For the given unit cell which option is true ?
(A) Cube and body centred
(B) Cube and primitive
(C) Tetragonal and body centred
(D) Orthorhombic and Body centred
25
18. Each corner of a unit cell in a crystal is associated jointly with other unit cells in contact with it.
Considering all such corners of a unit cell. How many other unit cells are in contact with it ?
(A) 18 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 26
19. Column I (Type of unit cell) Column (II) (Sides and angles) If correctly matched, which is the right
option ?
Column-1 Column-2
(A) Cube (I) a ¹ b ¹ c, a ¹ b ¹ g ¹ 90o (A) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(B) Tetragonal (II) a = b = c, a = b = g ¹ 90o (B) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(VI)
(C) Trigonal (III) a = b ¹ c, a = b = g = 90o (C) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(D) Triclinic (IV) a = b = c, a = b = g = 90o (D) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)s
20. Column (I) (Type of unit cell) Column (II) (examples) If correctly matched, which is the right
option ?
Column-1 Column-2
(A) Orthorhombic (I) ZnO (A) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(B) Monoclinic (II) BaSO4 (B) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(C) Hexagonal (III) H3BO3 (C) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(D) Triclinic (IV) Na2SO4, 10H2O (D) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
Answers : 7. (B), 8. (B), 9. (A), 10. (A), 11. (C), 12. (B), 13. (C), 14. (D), 15. (B), 16. (A),
17. (C), 18. (D), 19. (C), 20. (B)
Total number of atoms per unit cell

Serial Type of Number of Number of Number of Total
No. unit cell atoms on the atoms on the atoms in atoms (Z)
corner face body centre
1
(1) Primitive ´ 8 = 1 0 0 1
8
1 1
(2) Face centred ´ 8 = 1 ´ 6 = 3 0 4
8 2
1
(3) Body centred ´ 8 = 1 0 1 2
8
Total number of atoms in end centred orthorhombic unit cell

1 1
( ´ 8 corners = 1) + ( ´ 2 (pair of opposite sides) = 1) = 2
8 2
Total number of atoms in end centred monoclinic unit cell
1
(Total number of atoms including 8 corner is 1) + ( ´ 2 (pair of opposite side) = 1) = 2
2
26
For a simple cube unit all
edge length a = b = c and a = b = g = 90o
D Any face diagonal = right angle D ABC where length of hypotenuse AC
3a (AB)2 + (BC) 2
= AC = =
a +a
2 2 = 2a
a and body diagonal = right angle D DAC, where length of
a C
2a hypotenuse CD
B a A
= CD = (AC) 2 + (AD)2 =
2a + a
2 2 = 3a
Packing efficiency in a cubes crystal

number of atoms in a unit cell = Z
3
Volume of a constituent particle (volume of sphere) = v =
4 × πr , Volume of unit cell = V = a3
3
\ Packing efficiency of a cubic crystal (packing efficiency of a unit cell)
 3
100 × Z ×  4 × πr 
100 × Z × v  3  100 × Z × 4 × πr 3
= = =
V 3× a3
a3
Packing efficiency of a simple cubic crystal

Here constituent particles are arranged only at the corners. r r
The particles touch each other along the edges.
\ a = 2r, where r = radius of each particle
Number of atoms in a simple cube Z = 1
a
100 × Z × 4 × πr 3 100 ×1× 4 × 3.14 × r 3 314
Packing efficiency = = =
3× a3 3 × (2r)3 6
= 52.33 » 52 % (52.36 %)
Packing efficinecy in a face centred unit cell

Here constituent particles are arranged at the eight corners and
the centres of each face. These particles touch each other on
the face diagonal.
\ 4r = 2 . a \ a = 2 2 . r where r = radius of the particle
4r
number of atoms in the unit cell Z = 4
100 × Z × 4 × πr 3 100 × 4 × 4 × 3.14 × r 3

a \ Packing efficiency = = 3
3 × a3 3 × (2 2r )
314
= = 74.0 %
3 2
27
Packing efficiency in a body centred unit cell
Here constituent particles are arranged at the eight corners and
the centre of the body. These particles touch each other on the
body diagonal.
4r
\ 4r = 3 .a \ a = where r = radius of the particle
3
Number of atoms in unit cell Z = 2
4r 100 × Z × 4 × πr 3
\ Packing efficiency =
3 × a3
a 100 × 2 × 4 × 3.14 × r 3 314 × 3

= 3 = = 67.98 » 68 %
  8
3 ×  4r 
 3
Number of atoms in Hexagonal close pack unit cell and its packing efficiency
Height (c) of Hexagonal close pack unit cell and
volume (V) of unit cell can be calculated as follows :
X S
Centre of spheres P, Q, R, and S in contact with
each other form equilateral Tetrahedron.
D PQR is an equilateral triangle and PQ = QR = RP
Q
= 2r In equilateral triangle D PQR, PX is the me-
X G c
dian and height and G is the centroid.
R
In right angle D PQX mÐ PQR = 60° P
3
\ PX = PQ sin60° = 2r = 3 .r b
2
Y
2PX 2 3. r 2. r a
PG = = = M
3 3 3
In right angle D SGP = 2r and SG2 + PG2 = SP2
2
 2.r 
 
2 2 2 2 .r
\ SG2 = SP2 - PG2 = 4r 2
-
 3 = 4r2 - 4r =
8r \ SG =
3 3 3
2 2.r 2
Now, Height of Hexagonal close pack unit cell is C = MS = 2SG = 2 ´ = 4. 3 . r
3
OR
In, D XRY, XY = c, XR = YR = 2r and mÐ XRY = 109o28 ’ = ( 3)
cos1 − 1
cos  cos (− 1 )

2 2 2 2 2 2
By the laws of cosine, cos(mÐ XRY) =
XR + YR − XY \
−1
=
XR + YR − XY
2.XR.YR  3  2.XR.YR
2 2 2 2
\ −1 =
4r + 4r − c \ - 8. r2 = 24r2 - 3c2 \ 3c2 = 32r2 \ c2 =
32r
3 2 × 2r × 2r 3
2
\ c = 4 r
3
Now, base of a Hexagonal close pack unit cell is a regular Hexagon, whose surface area
= 6 ´ area of equilateral triangle DPQR = 6 ´ 3 r2
28
volume of Hexagonal close pack unit cell = Surface area of regular Hexagon ´ Height of Hexagonal
close pack unit cell
2.
V = 6 ´ 3 r2 ´ 4 r = 24 2 . r3
3
1
In a Hexagonal close pack unit cell, it gets the share of part of atoms present in its 12
6 th
1
corners and gets atom (s and M) present in the centre of Hexagon at the top and bottom. The three
2
atoms P, Q and R present in centre of the body are not shared by other unit cells.
\ Number of atoms in a unit cell of Hexagonal close pack Z = (12 × 16 ) (2 × 12 )

+ + 3 = 6
 4 × 3.14 × r 3 
Packing efficiency of Hexagonal close pack unit cell =

( )
100 × Z × 4 πr
3
3
=
100 × 6 × 


3



V 24 2r
3
314
= = 74%
3 2
Z× M
Density of a solid crystal substance : d =
N×V
Z = number of atoms in unit cell,
M = Molecular/atomic mass
N = 6.022 ´ 1023, V = volume of unit cell
Z× M
For a simple cube (a = b = c) density d =
N × a3
Volume of unit cell of any solid crystal substance
1
V = abc 1 − cos 2 α − cos 2 β − cos 2 γ + 2cos α. cos β. cos γ  2
 
Volume of Hexagonal close pack unit cell

Type of Relation Length of a Length of a Surface Total volume
unit cell between Face diagonal body diagonal area of surface of unit
a & r ( 2 a) ( 3 a) face (a2) area (6a2) cell (a3)
(1) Primitive a = 2r 2 2r 2 3r 4r2 24r2 8r3
(2) Face centred 2a = 4r 4r 2 6r 8r2 48r2 16 2 r3
2 3
64r
(3) Body centred 3a = 4r 4 2r 4r 16r 32r2
3 3 3 3
21. The atomic radius of Ag is 144 pm. If a crystal is made up of only Ag atom, then what is the edge
length of its unit cell ?
(A) 288.24 pm (B) 407.35 pm (C) 576.4 pm (D) 432 pm
22. What is the packing efficiency of ccp or fcc unit cell ?
50 3π 25 3π
(A) % (B) 25 2π % (C) 50 2π % (D) %
2 3 3 2
29
23. If in a given unit cell of ccp or fcc, radius of constituent particle is r, then what is the length
of a face diagonal ?
(A) 2r (B) 2 2 r (C) 4r (D) 2r
24. In a bcc unit cell, If radius of constituent particle is r, then what is the length of any one
body diagonal. (What is the distance between opposite corners of a unit cell ?)
(A) 2r (B) 4 2 r (C) 4r (D) 3 6 r

25. What is the ratio of atomic radius r to edge length (l) in a fcc or ccp unit cell ?
(A) 0.433 (B) 0.3535 (C) 2.83 (D) 2.309
26. If the ratio of atomic radius r to edge length (l) is 0.433, then what will be its packing
efficiency ?
(A) 52.36 % (B) 36.52 % (C) 68 % (D) 74 %
27. Which of the following will be the atomic radius of a solid crystal having fcc structure with a
density 19.3 gm/cm3 and atomic mass 197 gm/mole ?
(A) 110 pm (B) 174 pm (C) 195 pm (D) 144 pm
28. How many atoms will be present in 208 gm of an element having bcc unit cell whose density
is 7.2 gm/cm3, having edge length 208 pm ?
(A) 1.208 ´ 1023 (B) 4.216 ´ 1024 (C) 2.418 ´ 1024 (D) 1.208 ´ 1024
29. Calculate density of Cu metal having atomic mass of 63.1 gm/mole with an edge length of
360.8 pm.
(A) 8.92 gm/cm3 (B) 4.46 gm/cm3 (C) 6.44 gm/cm3 (D) 9.82 gm/cm3
30. Density of a metal having fcc unit cell is 10.5 gm/cm3 If the atomic radius is 144.44 pm, then
calculate its atomic mass ?
(A) 197 gm/mole (B) 63.5 gm/mole (C) 107.9 gm/mole (D) 56 gm/mole
31. Edge length of Al unit cell is 405 pm, its density is 2.7 gm/cm3. The unit cell of Al is ..........
(Atomic mass of Al = 27 gm/mole).
(A) Body centred (B) End centred (C) Primitive (D) Face centred
32. Diamond has fcc structure, where each carbon is attached to four other carbon atom, having
CC bond length 154.48 pm, calculate the edge length of its unit cell ?
(A) 356.75 pm (B) 178.38 pm (C) 437.0 pm (D) 308.96 pm
33. Diamond has fcc structure, where each carbon is attached to four other carbon atoms. How
many atoms are present in one such unit cell ?
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 12
34. What will be the volume of a Rhombohedral (Triagonal) unit cell of a crystal with edge length
a and a = b = g = 60o .
3
3
3a 3 a
(A) a3 (B) a (C) (D)
2 2 2
30
35. What will be the packing efficiency of diamond, having fcc structure of unit cell in which each
carbon is attached to four carbon atoms by covalent bond.
(A) 74 % (B) 34 % (C) 68 % (D) 56.5 %
36. Atomic radius of a metal having hcp arrangement is r, then according to the prevailing
symbolic method. Which of the following is the valuce of c for its unit cell ?
2. 3. 2.
(A) 2 r (B) 3 r (C) 4 r (D) 2 3 .r
3 2 3
37. How many % of space of a face diagonal is occupied by spheres (atoms) in a fcc crystal
lattice arrangement ?
(A) 50.25 % (B) 30.44 % (C) 48.24 % (D) 40.82 %
38. In as hcp unit cell, axial distance a : b : c = ..........
(A) 3 : 3 : 2 (B) 2 : 2 : 3 (C) 2 3 : 3 : 5 (D) 3 : 3 : 2 2

o
39. A metal having hcp arrangement has atomic radius 6 A . According to prevailing symbol its c
for the unit cell is ......
o o o o
(A) 8 A (B) 6 A (C) 5.5 A (D) 7.5 A
40. If in a complete Hexagonal close pack arrangement spheres are replaced by cylinder then
calculate its packing efficiency ?
(A) 65.42 % (B) 80.25 % (C) 74 % (D) 90.64 %
41. If r is radius of a sphere column I (unit cell), column II (length of face diagonal of unit cell)
and column III (length of body diagonal of unit cell, which option is right, if these columns
are correctly matched ?
4 6r
(A) Primitive (I) (X) 2 6 r (A) (A)-(III)-(Z), (B)-(II)-(X), (C)-(I)-(Y)
3
(B) fcc (II) 2 2 r (Y) 4r (B) (A)-(II)-(Z), (B)-(III)-(X), (C)-(I)-(Y)
(C) bcc (III) 4r (Z) 2 3 r (C) (A)-(II)-(X), (B)-(III)-(Z), (C)-(I)-(Y)

(D) (A)-(I)-(Z), (B)-(III)-(X), (C)-(II)-(Y)
42. If a Triagonal crystalline arrangement has edge length a and a = b = g = 60o then the length
of the longest body diagonal is ?
(A) 2 2 a (B) 3a (C) 6a (D) 2 3 a
Answers : 21. (B), 22. (C), 23. (C), 24. (C), 25. (B), 26. (C), 27. (D), 28. (C), 29. (A), 30. (C),
31. (D), 32. (A), 33. (B), 34. (D), 35. (B), 36. (C), 37. (D), 38. (D), 39. (A), 40. (D),
41. (B), 42. (C)
31
Body-centred close pack arrangement
A
Co-ordination number of constituent particle is = 8
Hexagonal close pack arrangement

A
Tetrahedral void octahedral void

Co-ordination number of constituent particle = 12
Face centred cubic close pack arrangement

A B
C
Co-ordination number of constituent particle is = 12
On crystallization most of the metal produce body centred close pack arrangement, Hexagonal
close pack arrangement and face centred cubic close pack arrangement.
Metals having bcc arrangement : Alkali metal (Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs) Fe, Ba, V, Ra, Cr, Mn....
Metals having fcc arrangement : Sr, Ca, Ni, Cu, Ag, Au, Pt, Pd.....
Metals having hcp arrangement : Mg, Sc, Ti, Co, Zn....
In fcc and hcp arrangement constituent particles are arranged very close to each other. Such
close pack arrangements are known as closest pack arrangement.
In closest pack arrangement (hcp and fcc) of constituent particles, (sphere) on stacking two
consecutive layers, there are two types of voids created : (1) Tetrahedral void and (2) Octahedral
void.
32
A
Tetrahedral Void (T) Octahedral Void (o)
(1) Tetrahedral void : When three identical

spheres are in mutual contact of each other such that
the centres of these spheres create equilateral triangle T
and fourth identical sphere is placed above or below
the void created between them, then the void created
by these four identical spheres is called a Tetrahedral
void (T)
(2) Octahedral Void : When four identical spheres are in mutual contact of each other
such that the centres of these spheres create square planar and two identical spheres are placed
above and one below the void created between them, then the void created by these six
identical spheres is called an Octahedral void (O)
In closest pack arrangement (hcp and fcc) The number of Tetrahedral voids is twice the number of
Octahedral voids.
In closest pack arrangement (hcp and fcc) If number of constituent particle is n, then number of
octahedral void is n and Tetrahedral void is = 2n
Therefore, number of constituent particle : number of octahedral void : number of Tetrahedral
void = 1 : 1 : 2
When a cation is arranged in a triangular void created by anion, the co-ordination number of

r r
cation becomes 3 and smallest ionic radii ratio ( or R )
r
Radius of a cation = r+ or r and radius of anion = r- or R
33
A, B and C are centres of anions and D the centre of
cation arranged in their triangular void. In Right angle D DEB
mÐ DEB = 90o, mÐ DBE = 30o
A
BE = R and DB = R + r
BE 3 R
cos(mÐ DBE) = cos(30o) = \ =
DB 2 R+r
D 3R 3r
\ + = 2R
C r 2− 3
B E \ 3r = R(2 - 3) \ =
R 3
= 0.1547 » 0.155
\ Smallest ionic radii ratio for triangular void r = 0.155

R
When a cation is arranged in a tetrahedral void. Created by anion, the co-ordination number

r r
is 4 and the smallest ionic radii ratio ( OR R )
r
D
D
C Q
C Q
P P
2(R + r) a
A
A
2 .a = 2R
B B
Corners A, B, C and D are centres of anions spheres arranged at corners of tetrahedral voids. P is the
centre of cation sphere arranged in tetrahedral void of anions.
Cation radius = r+ or r and anion radius = r- or R
Edge length in cube unit cell BQ = a, length of body diagonal AQ = 3a = 2(R + r) and length
of face diagonal
AB = 2a = 2R (as anions touch each other on a face diagonal)
\ a = 2R \ 3 ´ 2R = 2(R + r) \ 3R = 2 (R + r) \ 2r = ( 3 - 2 )R
r 3− 2 r
\ = = 0.2249 » 0.225 \ Ionic radii ratio of tetrahedral void = = 0.225
R 2 R
Octahedral void produced by anions when is occupied by cation then the co-ordination num-

r r
ber is 6 and smallest ionic radii ratio ( or R )
r
Radius of a cation = r+ or r and radius of anion = r- or R
34
A, B, C and D are centres of sphere of anions. Which are
in mutual contact of each other such that centres of spheres
are corners of square planar. The cation with centre E oc-
A B
cupy the void created by four anion.
Right angle D BEC, mÐ BEC = 90o and BC is the chord.

F
EB = EC = R + r and BC = 2R
\ EB2 + EC2 = BC2 \ 2(R + r)2 = (2R)2
D C \ R + r = 2R \ r = ( 2 - 1)R
r r
\ = 2 - 1 = 1.414 - 1 \ = 0.414
R R
r
Ionic radii ratio for octahedral void construction = 0.414
R
 r+ 
Ionic radii ratio  -  Arrangement of anion Co-ordination example
r 
number of cation
+
r
0 <
− < 0.155 linear 2
r
+
r
0.155 <
− < 0.225 planar Triangular 3 B2CO3
r
+
r
0.225 <
− < 0.414 Tetrahedral 4 ZnS
r
+
r
0.414 <
− < 0.732 Octahedral 6 NaCl
r
+
r
0.732 <
− < 1.0 cubic 8 CsCl
r
Cubic void created by anion (Body centred void created in a primitive cube unit cell) occupied by cation
+
r r
Co-ordination number of cation is 8 and ionic radii ratio ( − or R )
r
radius of cation = r+ and radius of anion = r or R
Edge length of unit cell = a, cationic radius = r and
anionic radius = R a
Length of Body diagonal in a unit cell = 3a
\ 2(R + r) = 3 . a and a = 2R \ 2(R + r) = 3 (2R)
2(R + r)
\ R + r = 3 .R \ r = ( 3 −1 R )
r r
\ = 3 - 1 = 1.732 - 1 \ = 0.732
R R
r
\ ionic radii ratio for Body centred void = 0.732
R
35
The co-ordination number of a cation occupying the void created by bcc arrangement of anion

r r
is 4 and smallest ionic radii ratio is ( or R )
r
radius of cation = r+ or r radius of anion = r- or R
Shown in the figure are two consecutive unit
cell created by bcc arrangement of anions.
A and B are centres of anion spheres arranged
S
in the common corners of two consecutive unit
cells and C and D are centre of anion spheres
D C occupying bcc void of consecutive unit cells. P
R is the centre of cation sphere occupying the void
P created by the above mentioned anion spheres.
B
Q and R are mid points of AB and CD re-
A Q spectively. Mid point of QS is also R. Mid point
of QR is P (Centre of cation occupying void)
4R a
edge length of unit cell = a \ AB = CD = QS = a = , QR =
3 2
\ In a right angle D DRP, DR = QR = a , PR = a ,
2 4
mÐ DRP = 90° and DP is chords, length of the chord DP = (R + r)
2 2
\ DR2 + PR2 = DP2 \ a +
a = (R + r)2
4 16
2
2
5a = (R r)2 16 × 5R (R r)2
\ + \ = + \ 5R = 3 (R + r) \ 3r = ( 5 - 3)R
16 16 × 3
r 5− 3
\ = = 0.291 \ cation radius occupying void created by bcc arrangement of anion
R 3
r
is r and radius of anion is R and their ratio = 0.291
R
Position of octahedral void and tetrahedral void in a fcc arrangement.
a
The position of a Tetrahedral void (T) is at 1 th length
4
T
3. a
of each body diagonal i.e. of the unit cell. Therefore
4
there are eight tetrahedral voids in each unit cell. There is
one octahedral void (o) in the centre of the body of unit O  3a 
 4 
cell and 1 th octahedral void in the mid point of each edge  
4
line (Total 12 edge lines). Therefore total octahedral voids
1
in a unit cell is (1 + 12 ´ = 4)
4
Anions of element A form fcc or hcp arrangement, the octahedral voids in this arrangement
are occupied by cations of element B and Tetrahedral voids are occupied by cations of element C,
then the simplest formula of crystal line solid is : BC2A.
Q Number of octahedral voids : Number of Tetrahedral voids : Number of atoms in fcc or hcp = 1 : 2 : 1
36
Flourite (CaF2)
= Ca2+ having co-ordination number 8 and fcc arrangement
= F- having co-ordination number 4 and occupying all

tetrahedrel voids
Antiflourite arrangement eg., (Na2O)
= O2- having co-ordination number 8 and fcc

arrangement
= Na+ having co-ordination number 4 and occupy
ing all tetrahedral void.
Sphalerite (ZnS) (Zinc Blende)
= S2- having co-ordination number = 4 and Fcc arrangement
= Zn2+ having co-ordination number = 4 occupying alternate

tetrahedral voids. i.e. half of the total tetrahedral voids.
Rocksalt (NaCl)
= Cl - having co-ordination number = 6 and fcc

arrangement
= Na+ having co-ordination number = 6 occupying all
octahedral voids.
43. Oxide ions are arranged in hcp. one fourth of tetrahedral voids are occupied by ions of metal B and
one third of octahedral voids are occupied by ions of metal A, then what will be the formula of
metal oxide ?
(A) A3B2O6 (B) A2B3O6 (C) A2B3O4 (D) A3B4O
44. Oxide ions are arranged in Fcc all octahedral voids are accupied by ions of metal A and one fourth
of tetrahedral voids are occupied by ions of metal B, then what will be the formula of metal oxide ?
(A) AB2O2 (B) ABO2 (C) A2BO (D) A2BO2
45. an oxide compound have oxide ions arranged in fcc. one fourth of its tetrahedral voids are occupied
by ions of metal B. One third of octahedral voids are occupied by ions of metal A, then what is the
possible oxidation state of ions A & B respectively ?
(A) + 2, + 3 (B) + 3, + 3 (C) + 2, + 2 (D) + 3, + 2
37
46. Which of the following statement is correct for an oxide having formula AB2O4 and. O2-
(oxide) ions arranged in ccp ?
(A) half of the octahedral voids are occupied by ions of metal A and one fourth of tetrahedral
voids are occupied by ions of metal B
(B) one fourth of octahedral voids are occupied by ions of metal A and one fourth of
tetrahedral voids are occupied by ions of metal B
(C) One fourth of octahedral voids are occupied by ions of metal A and half of the tetrahedral
(D) half of the octahedral voids are occupied by ions of metal A and half of the tetrahedral
47. If ions of equal size arranged in bcc have radius R, then what will be the radius of created
void in it?
 5   
(A)  − 1 R
 3  
3
(B)  2 − 1 R

(C) ( )
3 −1 R (D) R
48. An ionic compound AB2 has A2+ ion forming fcc arrangement and B- ion occupying all
tetrahedral voids. If the edge length of the unit cell is 310 pm. Then calculate the minimum
distance between centres of two anions ?
(A) 134.23 pm (B) 219.24 pm (C) 155 pm (D) 179 pm
49. A solid crystalline oxide with formula A3BO3 has oxide ions arranged in ccp while ions of
metal A and metal B are occupying tetrahedral void and octahedral void respectively. Calculate
percentage space occupied by ions of metal A and B in tetrahedral and Octahedral voids
respectively ?
(A) 50 %, 33.33 % (B) 33.33 %, 12.5 % (C) 25 %, 12.5 % (D) 50 %, 25 %
50. In a primitive simple cube unit cell crystal lattice arrangement. Spheres with radius 180 pm are
touching each other along the edges, then calculate the radius of void developed in it ?
(A) 131.76 pm (B) 74.52 pm (C) 40.5 pm (D) 52.38 pm
51. In a fcc crystal lattice arrangement radius of sphere is 180 pm, then calculate the radius of
voids created in it ?
(A) 131.76 pm (B) 74.52 pm (C) 40.5 pm (D) 52.38 pm
52. An oxide compound has oxide ions forming fcc. The tetrahedral voids are filled by ions of
metal B and the octahedral voids are filled by ions of metal A. If all atoms on two body
diagonals are removed. What will be the simplest formula of the solid. (Do not consider
electrical neutrality of the compound.)
(A) A6B8O7 (B) A4B3O2 (C) AB4O3 (D) A4B8O5

38
53. In the given figure of fcc arrangement of unit cell, 4 3
which number spheres are occupying tetrahedreal 13
voids ? 1 2
(A) 1, 13, 11, 12 11

12 10
(B) 3, 10, 13, 2 9
(C) 8, 11, 12, 14
(D) 6, 10, 9, 11 8 7
14
5 6
54. In a triagonal crystalline arrangement If a = b = g = 60° Then how many body diagonals will
be perpendicular to each other ?
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 3
(D) None of them
55. Volume of 10 moles of a metal having fcc arrangement of its atoms is 101.76 cm3 then
calculate the atomic radius of the metal ?
(A) 128 pm (B) 100 pm (C) 162 pm (D) 144 pm
56. An ionic compound has bcc arrangement. In the crystalline arrangement if the distance between
cation and anion is 175 pm, then calculate its molar volume (anions are at the corners of the
cube and cations in the body centre)
(A) 2.48 cm3 (B) 0.31 cm3 (C) 4.96 cm3 (D) 0.62 cm3
57. A metal crystalizes into fcc arrangement, then calculate the distance between centres of two
tetrahedral voids ?
3. r
(A) 2r (B) 2r (C) (D) 3.r
2
58. KCl and Nacl have identical crystalline arrangement. If their ionic radii ratio is 0.74 and 0.55
respectively then calculate their edge length ratio ?
(A) 1.3454 (B) 1.1226 (C) 1.5432 (D) 1.4525
59. An ionic compound has antiflourite arrangement (anions form Fcc arrangement and cations
occupy tetrahedral voids). In its regular crystalline arrangement if the edge length of its unit
cell is 545 pm, then radius of cation and anion respectively is ?
(A) 67.4 pm, 168.585 pm (B) 70.83 pm, 181.511 pm
(C) 60.47 pm, 168.225 pm (D) 72.342 pm, 175.723 pm
60. An ionic compound has antiflourite arrangement (anion form fcc arrangement and cations
occupy tetrahedral voids) If r +
+ r- = 205 pm, calculate minimum distance between centres of
two anions ?
(A) 314.38 pm (B) 228.38 pm (C) 268.25 pm (D) 334.76 pm
61. CsCl crystallizes into bcc crystal lattice arrangement. If edge length of its unit cell is a, then
which of the following formula is true ?
3a 3. a
(A) rCs+ + rCl - = 3 .a (B) rCs+ + rC l- = 3a (C) rCs+ + rCl - =
2
(D) rCs+ + rCl - =
2
39
62. In a crystalline arrangement of ZnS (wurtzite) Zn2+ forms hcp arrangement and S2- ions
occupy alternate tetrahedral voids. Ioinc radius of Zn2+ and S2- is 74 pm and 29.7 pm
respectively. Calculate the edge length c of its unit cell. (Note : as per the value given here
size of cation is larger than that of anion)
(A) 349.18 pm (B) 218.42 pm (C) 326.28 pm (D) 276.53 pm
Answers : 43. (B), 44. (D), 45. (D), 46. (B), 47. (A), 48. (C), 49. (A), 50. (A), 51. (D),
52. (A), 53. (C), 54. (C), 55. (D), 56. (C), 57. (B), 58. (B), 59. (A), 60. (D), 61. (D),
62. (D)
Crystal defect : The irregularities in the structure of crystal due to particles is called crystal
defects.
Type of Crystal defect
¯
¯ ¯
Point defect Line defect

It is due to the irregularity It is due to the irregularity
around the atoms or points in the ideal or deviation in the ideal arrangement
structure of crystalline substance of the entire rows of lattice points.
Three Types of Point defect

¯
¯ ¯ ¯
Stoichiometric defect Non stoichiometric defect Impurity defect

It is a point defect It is a point defect which Little amount of SrCl2 is
which does not distrub the disturbs the stoichiometry of added to molten NaCl and
stoichiometry of the solid the solid. then crystalise, then in the crystal
It is called intrinsic or some sites of Na+ are occupied
thermodynamic defect by Sr2+ each Sr2+ ion displaces
two Na+ ion. It occupies one site
and second site remains vacant.
Thus the number of cationic
vacancy is same as
number of Sr2+ ions.
Stoichiometric defect in non Ionic Solid

¯
¯ ¯
Vacancy defect Interstitial defect

Some of the sites of the excess particles get arranged
lattice are vacant. in the interstitial sites of the
Due to such defects there is crystal. Due to this defect
decrease in density of the density of the substance
substance increases.
40
Stoichiometric defect in ionic solid
¯
¯ ¯
Schottky defect Frenkel defect

¯ ¯
To maintain electrical neutrality in compounds Smaller cations displace from its general site and
like Alkali Halides equal number of cation and arranges in the interstitial site in the middle. There
anion are missing due to this defect density of is large difference between the ionic sites of cation
solid decreases. The cations and anions in ionic and anions that is co-ordination number of cation
solids whose sizes are same or whose co-ordi- is low then ionic crystal show such defect eg. AgCl.
nation numbers are high show schottky defect AgBr, AgI, Zns. Due to this defect there is no ef-
eg. NaCl, KCl, AgBr fect on the density of the crystal due to Frenkel de-
fect dielectric constant of the crystal increases and
covalent nature of crystal increases.
Non Stoichiometric defect

¯
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
Metal excess defect Excess metal Metal defficiency Displacement defect
due to the vacancy by defect due to defect Sometimes the atoms
anion
presence of extra In many solids there in the lattice of the
Alkali Halides like
NaCl and KCl show cations on the are less number of crystal are exchanged
this type of defect. Sup- interstitial site metal atoms seen mutually from their
pose NaCl is heated in Zinc oxide is a due to which there sites to the sites of
presence of vapour of white colour sub- is change in their the other lattice of
Na, Sodium deposits on stance at room tem- stoichiometry for- the crystal and pro-
the surface of the crys- perature. It becomes mula. For eg. due to duce displacement de-
tal. Hence, Cl ion dif- yellow when heated less number of Fe fect. For eg. in Cu
fuse in the layer of the
because it looses atoms in FeO. Its and Au mixture of
crystal and combine
with Na atom and forms Oxygen ZnO stoichiometry for- metals and Cu and
NaCl. The e released heat → Zn +2 mula range between Ag mixture of metals.
 +
from Na atom diffuse in Fe 0.93 O to Fe 0.96 O
1O 2e Now
the crystal and reach + and mostly Fe 0.95O
2 2
the side of anion. Be- is seen. In crystal of
Zn 2+ increases in
cause of this there is in- FeO, some Fe 2+
crease in Na in the the crystal and so
its formula will be ions are found miss-
crystal. The anionic
ing and the decrease
sites occupied by un- Zn1 + xO This extra
paired e are called F- in positive charge is
Zn2+ ion will be satisfied by Fe 3+
centres. Hence the crys-
arranged in intersti- ions.
tal of NaCl possesses
yellow coluor due to tial site and e will
such defect LiCl crystal be arranged in the
is pink and KCl crystal neighbouring inter-
is violet. stitial site.
Braggs equation to calculate distance between two consecutive layers of a crystal haivng close
pack arrangement.
nl = 2d sinq , where l = wave length of the X-ray used, d = distance between two consecutive
layers in a crystal, q = angle of incidence, n = 1, 2 ......
41
63. Which of the following type of defect is a stoichiometric defect ?
(A) metal excess defect (B) Schottky defect
(C) Impurity defect (D) Metal deficiency defect
64. Crystals having .......... show frenkel defect
(A) large difference in size of cation and anion (B) Higher coordination number of cation
(C) Almost equal size of cation and anion (D) Size of anion smaller than that of cation
65. Which of the following does not show Schottky defect ?
(A) KCl (B) AgBr (C) ZnS (D) CsCl
66. .......... are called F-centres (colour centres) ?
(A) holes created in Schottky defect (B) holes created in Frenkel defect
(C) unpaird electron occupying anionic site (D) vacant space occupied by impurity
67. Which type of defect is seen in the given figure ?
+ - + - + - + -
(A) Frenkel defect (B) Metal excess defect
- + - + + - +
(C) Interstitial defect (D) Schottky defect
+ - - + - + -
- + - + - + - +
+ - - + + -
- + - + - + - +

(A) Interstitial defect (B) Frenkel defect
(C) vacancy defect (D) Schottky defect
(A) Metal excess defect due to vacancy by Anion

(B) Excess metal defect due to presence of extra
cations on the interstitial site
e (C) vacancy defect
(D) Schottky defect
Cl Na+ Cl Na+

(A) Metal excess defect due to vacancy by anion. Cl Na+ Cl
Sr+2
(B) impurity defect
Cl Cl Na+
(C) Vacancy defect
(D) Schottky defect Na+ Cl Na+ Cl
42
71. Calculate percentage proportion of Fe2+ and Fe3+ ions in FexO having metal deficiency defect ?
(A) 95 %, 5 % (B) 57.5 %, 12.5 % (C) 85 %, 15 % (D) 89.5 %, 10.5 %
72. Based on practical information formula of a metal oxide is M0.98O. Metal M in its oxide is in
M2+ and M3+ form, then calculate % M3+ ion in the oxide ?
(A) 4.08 % (B) 6.05 % (C) 5.08 % (D) 7.01 %
Answers : 63. (B), 64. (A), 65. (C), 66. (C), 67. (D), 68. (B), 69. (A), 70. (B), 71. (D), 72. (A)
Band principle : Accroding to this principle a band is formed due to overlapping of valence
orbitals having equal energy in the constituent particles. These bands are of two types valence band and
conduction band.
Conduction band : It has high energy level (overlapping of
orbitals having high energy) Electrons present in this band conduct
electricity. Normally this band has less electrons or it is empty.
Energy gap (Eg) : Energy difference between conduction band

and valence band.
Valence band : It has low energy level (overlapping of orbits

having low energy) electrons present in this band do not conduct
electricity. Normally this band has more electrons.
For a substance to conduct electricity it must possess electrons in conduction band. Those substances
which have small energy gap (Eg) can allow, electrons to jump from valence band to conduction band
easily. Such substances are good conductor of electricity or show high conductivity.
Condu-
In metals, valence band and conduction band are ction
overlapped or valence band is half filled (incompletely 1234567890
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(Electrical conductivity of semiconductors ranges from 106 to 104 W 1m1 )
43
conduc-
The value of energy gap (Eg) is very large between tive
valence band and conduction band in a non conductor. The band
electorns cannot jump from valence band to conduction band
easily. Due to which such substances are non conductor of
electricity. Large engergy
gap (E )
g
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Semiconductors : They behave as non conductor at normal temperature but on increasing tempera-
ture thier conductivity increases. eg., Si, Ge....
Doping : In semi conductors if any suitable substance in some suitable proportion is added to it as
an impurity, its conductance can be increased. This process is called Doping.
N-type (Negative type) semiconductor : In the periodic table elements of Grp 14 (Si, Ge....) have
four electrons in this valence orbit and are identified as tetravalent. In them, if Grp 15 element (P, As, Sb,
Bi, ....) whose valence orbit contains five electrons and are identified as pentavalent is added as impurity
in suitable proportion then it becomes a semiconductor with more electron and is called n-type (Negative
type) semiconductor.
P-type (positive type) semiconductor : In the periodic table elements of Grp 14 (Si, Ge...) have four
electrons in their valence orbit and are known as tetra valent. In them, if Grp 13 elements (B, Al, Ga, In ....)
whose valence orbit contains three electrons and are known as trivalent is added as impurity in suitable propor-
tion then it becomes a semiconductor with less electrons and is called p-type (positive type) semiconductors.
n-type and p-type semiconductors are very useful in electronic industries.
Diode is formed by joining n-type and p-type semiconductor
By combination of semiconductor of the type pnp or npn can be prepared having different properties.
Semiconductors like gallium arsenide (GaAs) have created a revolution by things having such semi-
conductors because of their very fast response.
Transition metal oxides show notable differnce in electrical conductance
¯
¯ ¯ ¯
oxide having electrical conductivity Non conductors Semiconductors
like metal TiO, CrO2 TiO2, VO, VO2 Ti2O3
ReO3 has appearance and
conductivity like that of Cu metal
73. Which of the following has appearance and conductivity like Cu ?
(A) TiO (B) VO3 (C) CrO2 (D) ReO3
74. Cu and Ge are which type of conductors ?
(A) electrical conductor and non electrical conductor
(B) Semiconductor and electrical conductor
(C) electrical conductor and semiconductor
(D) semiconductor and semiconductor
75. Dopping of which type of element should be added in Ge to produce p-type semiconductors ?
(A) As (B) P (C) Al (D) Sb
Answers : 73. (D), 74. (C), 75. (C)
44
Magnetic properties
¯
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
Diamagentic Paramagnetic Ferromagnetic Anti Ferrimagnetic
Ferromagnetic
Diamagnetic : Those substances which when placed in magnetic field they get weakly repelled
by magnetic field and move from stronger area of magnetic field to weaker area of magnetic field.
Substance having all electrons paired are called diamagnetic substance.
Such substance when subjected to magnetic field they will show lesser weight.
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
eg. Benzene, TiO2, NaCl etc.
Paramagnetic : Those substances which when placed in magnetic field they get attracted by
magnetic field and move from weaker area of magnetic field to stronger area of magnetic field are called
paramagnetic substance.
Those substances which have one or more unpaired es are called paramagnetic substance.
Such substance when subjected to magnetic field they will show more weight.
eg., FeO, Fe3+, Cr3+, Cu2+ etc.

¬
¬ ¯
¬

¯
®
subject to magnetic field

¬
¬ ¯
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¬

removing magnetic field
¬

In this substance magnetic moment of unpaired electrons remain non aligned in absence of
magnetic field and they do not possess magnetic attraction, but in presence of magnetic field they get
aligned in one direction and behave as a magnet and possess magnetic attraction. On removal of
magnetic field the magnetic moment again get non aligned and does magnetic attraction.
Ferromagnetic : In certain substances smaller domains and the magnetic moment of their
unpaired electron are aligned in one direction, different domains are aligned in different directions.
Such that domains and mag. Moment are aligned in opposite direction and net magnetic moment
becomes zero and does not possess magnetic attraction.
When magnetic field is subjected to this substance and this magnetic moment and domain get
aligned and they possess strong magnetic attraction and it acts as a magnet.
Now even on removal of magnetic field of this substance and their magnetic moment and
domain remain aligned. Such substances are permanent magnets and they are called as magnets
eg., Fe, Co, Ni, Gd, CrO2......
45
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Applying mag. field
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Antiferro magnetic : Such substances, when are subjected to magnetic field, the unpaired
electrons magnetic moment are arranged in such a manner that magnetic moment value is zero due
to which, such substances can not become a magnet.
eg., MnO
¯ ¯ ¯
Ferrimagnetic : In certain substance domains and magnetic moment of unpaired es are
aligned antiparallel to each other but are in unequal number and so net magnetic moment is not zero.
eg., Magnetite (Fe3O4), Ferrites (MgFe2O4 and ZnFe2O4)
76. Which pair of substances are paramagnetic and diamagnetic respectively ?

(A) NaCl, N2 (B) O2, Cr3+ (C) Co3+, Fe3+ (D) Cr3+, H2O
77. Which pair of substances are ferromagnetic and antiferromagnetic respectively ?
(A) MgFe2O4, MnO (B) FeO, ZnFe2O4 (C) MnO, Fe3O4 (D) C6H6, H2O
78. Connect in a suitable way 4×4 matrix for column-I given crystal column-II given unit cell.
Column-1 Column-2
(A) cube (P) Primitive unit cell (A) P Q R S
(B) orthorhombic (Q) Face centred Cubic unit cell (B) P Q R S
(C) Tetragonal (R) Body centred Cubic unit cell (C) P Q R S
(D) Monoclinic (S) End centred Cubic unit cell (D) P Q R S
Answers : 76. (D), 77. (A), 78. (A) P Q R S
(B) P Q R S
(C) P Q R S
(D) P Q R S

46
3 Atomic Structure
h ⋅c
Energy of a photon : E = h×v = where h = 6 ×626 ´ 10-34 joule second (plancks constant),
λ
c = 3×0 ´ 10 8 ms-1 (velocity of light).
N.h.c
NE = N× h×v = , where N = 6.022 ´ 1023 (Avagadro Number)
λ
Isotopes : Atoms having same atomic number (Z) and different atomic mass number (A) are called
isotopes.
Isobars : Atoms having same atomic mass number (A) and different atomic number (Z) are called
Isobars.
Isotones : Atoms having different atomic number (Z), different atomic mass number (A) and same
number of neutron (N) are called Isotones.
de-Broglies principle : Every moving particle possesses wave nature.
h
de-Broglie derived the equation relating wavelength and momentum of matter particle l =
mv and
it is known as de-broglies equation (where, l = wavelength of matterwave, h = plancks constant,
m = mass of moving particle, v = velocity of moving particle)
h
If kinetic energy of moving particle is K, then the wavelength associated with it is l =
2 mk
de-broglies principle is applicable to microscopic particles like electron, proton, hydrogen atom.
Wavelength of a moving macroscopic particle is so small that it cannot be practically measured. Hence de-
broglies principle is of no importance to moving macroscopic particles.
Heisenbergs Uncertainty principle :
The position and momentum of moving microscopic particle cannot be determined simultaneously
and precisely.
Mathematical form of Heisenberges uncertainty principle : The product of experimentally
measured uncertainty in position (Dx) and experimentally measured uncertainty in momentum (Dp) of a
h
moving microscopic particle is at least .
4π
h
D x ´ D p > .
4π
1. Which phenomena can not be explained by particle nature of light ?
(A) Diffraction (B) Interference (C) Polarization (D) given all three
2. Which phenomena can be explained by particle nature of light ?
(A) Diffraction (B) Interference (C) Photoelectric effect (D) given all three
3. Which phenomena can be explained by wave nature of light ?
(A) Diffraction (B) Interference (C) Reflection (D) given all three
47
4. Which phenomena cannot be explained by wave nature of light ?
(A) Diffraction (B) Interference (C) Photoelectric effect (D) given all three
5. Which phenomena can explain particle nature and wave nature of light ?
(A) Diffraction (B) Interference (C) Refraction (D) given all three
6. Which phenomena can explain any one of the particles nature or wave nature of light ?
(A) Reflection (B) Interference (C) Refraction (D) given all three
7. Based on which of the phenomena particle nature of light can be proven ?
(A) Interference (B) Photoelectric effect (C) Diffraction (D) Dispersion
8. Isotopes have ....
(A) same atomic mass number and different atomic numbers.
(B) same atomic mass number but different number of electrons.
(C) same atomic number but different atomic mass numbers.
(D) same atomic number but different number of electrons.
9. Which of the following is the limitation of Bohrs model of an atom ?
(A) cannot explain the doublet spectral lines obtained in Hydrogen spectrum.
(B) cannot explain the atomic spectrum of atoms other than hydrogen atom.
(C) cannot explain zeeman effect.
(D) given all three
10. Isobars have ....
(A) same atomic mass number but different atomic number.
(B) same atomic mass number but different number of electrons.
(C) same atomic number but different atomic mass number.
(D) same atomic number but different number of electrons.
11. Isotones have ...
(A) Different atomic mass number and atomic number but same number of neutrons.
(B) Different atomic mass number and atomic number but same number of electrons.
(C) Same atomic number, different atomic mass number and same number of neutrons.
(D) Same atomic mass number and atomic number but different number of neutrons.
12. Which pair of atomic mass number (A) and atomic number (Z) is of isotones ?
(A) (i) A = 30, Z = 15 (ii) A = 31, Z = 14 (B) (i) A = 31, Z = 15 (ii) A = 30, Z = 14
(C) (i) A = 32, Z = 15 (ii) A = 30, Z = 14 (D) (i) A = 31, Z = 16 (ii) A = 32, Z = 14
13. Which pair of atomic number (Z) and number of neutron (n) is of isotopes ?
(A) (i) Z = 18, Z = 21 (ii) Z = 20, n = 20 (B) (i) Z = 18, n = 22 (ii) Z = 20, n = 19
(C) (i) Z = 18, n = 22 (ii) Z = 20, n = 21 (D) (i) Z = 18, n = 22 (ii) Z = 20, n = 20
48
14. Which of the following species have electron, proton and neutron 24, 26 and 30 respectively ?
(A) Fe3+ (B) Mn2+ (C) Zn2+ (D) Fe2+
15. Which of the following species have electron, proton and neutron 10, 9 and 10 respectively ?
(A) Na+ (B) F2- (C) F- (D) F+
16. Which molecule is isoelectronic to CN- ?
(A) O2 (B) CH4 (C) N2 (D) NO
17. How many electrons are there in 36 gm of pure water (H2O) ?
(A) 2.44 ´ 1025 (B) 6.022 ´ 1024 (C) 1.2044 ´ 1021 (D) 1.2044 ´ 1025
18. What is the thickness of goldsheet in scattering of a -particle experiment ?
(A) 10-9 m (B) 10-2 m (C) 100 m
m (D) 10-5 cm
19. In an atom if an electron in orbit emits radiation, then how much time will be required to attract the
electron into the nucleus ?
(A) 10-5 s (B) 10-8 s (C) 10-10 s (D) 10-7 s
20. Which of the following is directly proportional to energy of a photon ?
1
(A) U (B) l (C) v (D) v
21. Which of the following shows relation between wavelength (l), its kinetic energy (E) and mass (m)
of a moving particle ?
h hm h m
(A) l = (B) l = (C) l = (D) l =
2mE 2E mE 2hE
22. Which of the following is directly proportional to velocity of a photon ?
1 1
(A) λ (B) v (C)
C
(D) m
23. Which of the following is inversely proportional to energy of a photon ?

(A) frequency (B) momentum (C) wavelength (D) motion
24. Construction of electron microscope is based on which of the following ?
(A) wave nature of light (B) particle nature of light
(C) particle nature of electron (D) wave nature of electron
25. Construction of a normal microscope is based on which of the following ?
(A) wave nature of light (B) particle nature of light
(C) particle nature of electron (D) wave nature of electron
26. How many times magnification can be done using electron microscope ?
(A) 1.5 ´ 105 times (B) 1.5 ´ 106 times (C) 1.5 ´ 107 times (D) 1.5 ´ 104 times
27. Which of the following particles wave nature is not measurable ?
(A) H-atom (B) e- (C) p+ (D) particle having mass 1 mg
49
28. Calculate wavelength of an electron having kinetic energy 1.64 ´ 10-17 joule ?
(mass of electron 9.109 ´ 10-31 kg)

(A) 1.2 nm (B) 0.21 nm (C) 12.0 nm °
(D) 1.2 A
29. Calculate energy of a photon having wavelength 500 nm ?
(A) 3.97 ´ 10-19 joule (B) 3.97 ´ 10-12 joule (C) 3.97 ´ 10-17 joule (D) 3.97 ´ 10-10 joule
30. ° ?
What will be the value of one einstein of photon having wavelength 400 A
joule joule
(A) 2.99263 ´ 1012 mole photon (B) 2.99263 ´ 106 mole photon
joule joule
(C) 2.99263 ´ 105 mole photon (D) 2.99263 ´ 1014 mole photon
31. If value of one Einstein photon is 4.0 ´ 105 KJ mole-1, then calculate the wavelength of its radiation ?
(A) 2.99 ´ 106 nm (B) 29.9 nm (C) 2.99 ´ 108 nm (D) 2.99 ´ 10-1 nm
32. Calculate the energy of a photon having frequency 6.67 ´ 1014 Hz ?
(A) 4.42 ´ 10-12 joule (B) 4.42 ´ 10-19 joule (C) 4.42 ´ 10-17 joule (D) None of these
33. Calculate value of one Einstein of photon having frequency 5.0 ´ 1014 Hz ?
(A) 199.5 joule mole-1 (B) 1.995 ´ 105 KJ mole-1
(C) 199.5 KJ mole-1 (D) 199.5 ´ 105 J mole-1

34. How many photons of wavelength 400 nm are required to produce 1 joule energy ?
(A) 2.01 ´ 1011 (B) 2.01 ´ 1016 (C) 2.01 ´ 109 (D) 2.01 ´ 1018
35. Calculate wave frequency number of a photon having 1.5 ´ 10-16 joule energy ?
(A) 754 (B) 7546030 (C) 75460 (D) 7546
36. Which of the following option is true for two particles having identical wavelength ?
(A) both will have same velocity (B) both will have same mass
(C) both will have same momentum (D) None
37. Which of the following particle having identical velocity have maximum wavelength ?
(A) H atom (B) e- (C) p+ (D) n0
38. Calculate wavelength of a ball, having 0.01 kg mass and 10 ms-1 velocity ?
(A) 6.626 ´ 10-26 m (B) 6.626 ´ 10-33 m (C) 6062 ´ 10-32 m (D) 60.626 ´ 10-25 m
39. ° with microscope. Calculate uncertainty in velocity of electron ?
The position of electron located at 1 A
(mass of electron = 9.11 ´ 10-31 kg.)
(A) 5.79 ´ 107 ms-1 (B) 5.79 ´ 105 ms-1 (C) 5.79 ´ 104 ms-1 (D) 5.79 ´ 1012 ms-1
50
40. If a moving microscope particle has mass m and have equal value of uncertainty in position and
uncertainty in velocity, then calculate the total uncertainty value ?
h h h h
(A) (B) 4πm (C) (D)
2 πm 2 πm 2 πm
41. If a moving microscopic particle has mass m and have equal value of uncertainty in position and
uncertainty in momentum, then calculate the total uncertainty value.
h h h h
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 πm 2π 2 πm 2 π
42. If a moving microscopic particle having mass m has value of uncertainty in velocity 16 times more
than its uncertainty in position, then calculate its least possible uncertainty in momentum ?
hm mh 2 mh h
(A) π
(B) (C) (D)
2 π π 2πm
1
43. If a moving microscopic particle having mass m has value of uncertainty in postion times the
4
uncertainty in velocity, then calculate its least possible uncertainty in momentum ?
hm mh h mh
(A) π (B) (C) 4πm (D)
2 π 4πm
Answers : 1. (D), 2. (C), 3. (D), 4. (C), 5. (C), 6. (B), 7. (B).8. (C), 9. (D), 10. (A), 11. (A),
12. (B), 13. (D), 14. (D), 15. (C), 16. (C), 17. (D), 18. (D), 19. (B), 20. (A),
21. (A), 22. (B), 23. (C), 24. -(D), 25. (A), 26. (C), 27. (D), 28. (D), 29. (A),
30. (B), 31. (D), 32. (B), 33. (C), 34. (D), 35. (B), 36. (C), 37. (B), 38. (B),
39. (B), 40. (D), 41. (D), 42. (C), 43. (A)
According to Bohrs principle (for single electron system)
10-10 cm
h
(1) Bohr models atomic radius : a0 =
2 2
= 52.9 ´ = 52.9 pm
4π me
Where, h = 6.626 ´ 10-27 erg seconds (Plancks constant), m = 9.109 ´ 10-28g (mass of e-)
charge of e- = 4.803 ´ 10-10 esu (unit of charge in CGS)

(2) System containing single electron : (H-atom or ions like He+, Li2+) radius of any orbit,
2 2
rn = a0 ´
n = 52.9 ´
n pm,
Z Z
where Z = atomic number, n = Orbit number (principal Quantum number)
rn
1
n 21 Z2
=
2
´ (single electron containing system) (for atom or ion)
rn n2 Z1
2
If the electron moving in the nth orbit has wavelength l, then nl = 2pr (circumference of the orbit)
51
nh
(3) Angular momentum of an electron : mvr =
2π
6
Speed of an electron : V =
nh
=
Zh
=
2.19 ×10 × Z ms-1,
2πmr 2πma 0 n n
Where, n = orbit number (principal quantum number), m = 9.109 ´ 10-31 kg (mass of electron),
V = speed of electron, h = 6.626 ´ 10-34 J sec. (Plancks constant)), Z = Atomic number
V
(4) Number of rotations made by electron around the nucleus =
2πr
44. According to Bohrs postulates, which of the following is possible value of angular momentum of an
accepted orbit of an electron ?
h 5h h 3h
(A) 4π (B) (C) π (D)
4π 4π
45. According to Bohrs postulates, which of the following is not a possible value of angular momentum
of an accepted orbit of an electron ?
2h 5h h
(A) (B) (C) π (D) all three not possible
π 4π
46. Which of the following is the limitation of Bohrs model of an atom ?
(A) cannot explain Zeeman effect.
(B) cannot explain Doublet in a spectrum.
(C) cannot explain the ability of atoms to form molecule by chemical bond.
(D) Mentioned all three
47. According to Bohrs postulates, if angular momentum of an electron in a H-atom is 4.22 ´ 10-34
joule second, then e- will be present in which orbit ?
(A) K (B) L (C) M (D) N
48. According to Bohrs postulates, calculate the angular momentum of an electron in the 4th orbit ?
4h 2h h h
(A) π (B) (C) 4π (D) π
π
49. In a Bohrs model of an atom, what will be the angular momentum of an electron in the 5th orbit?
10h 2.5h 25h
(A) hπ (B) π (C) π (D) π
4
50. If radius of 1st orbit in a Bohrs model is x, then what will be the de-broglie wavelength of an
electron rotating in its third orbit ?
(A) 3px (B) 2px (C) 4px (D) 6px
51. What will be the speed of electron rotating if it covers wavelength amount of distance in
1 second ?
h m h h
(A) (B) (C) p (D)
m h 2KE
52. According to Bohrs postulates, what will be the angular momentum of an electron of H atom in its
thrid orbit ?
(A) 3.165 ´ 10-34kgm2s-1 (B) 6.33 ´ 10-34kgm2s-1
(C) 1.055 ´ 10-34kgm2s-1 (D) 1.41 ´ 10-34kgm2s-1
52
53. According to Bohrs postulates, what will be the speed of e- in P orbit of a H atom ?
h 6h 3h 3h
(A) (B) πmr (C) (D) πmr
2πmr 2πmr
54. According to Bohrs postulates, if radius of 2nd orbit in H atom is 2.12 ´ 10-10 m, then what is the
speed of e- in the second orbit ? (mass of e- = 9.11 ´ 10-31kg)
(A) 2.1 ´ 106ms-1 (B) 2.3 ´ 104ms-1 (C) 1.1 ´ 106ms-1 (D) 2.46 ´ 105ms-1
°
55. Calculate the mass of a photon having 3.6 A wavelength ?
(A) 6.135 ´ 10-26kg (B) 6.135 ´ 10-33kg (C) 6.135 ´ 10-33gm (D) 6.135 ´ 10-26gm
Answers : 44. (C), 45. (B), 46. (D), 47. (D), 48. (B), 49. (C), 50. (D), 51. (A), 52. (A),
53. (D), 54. (C), 55. (B)
Photoelectric effect :
When light is bombarded on the surface of a metal, e-s are emitted. Such effect of light is called
photoelectric effect of light.
Kinetic energy of e- emitted : When surface of a metal is bombarded with light of definite wavelength,
1  
K = mv 2 = D E - D E0 = hc  1 − 1  = hc(v - v 0) where, D E = Energy of photon emitted,
2
 λ λ 0 
l = wavelength of emitted photon, v = frequency of emitted photon, D E0 = minimum amount of energy

required for emission of e- from the surface of a metal = Ionization energy of a metal (Threshold energy),
l0 = Threshold wavelength, v0 = Threshold frequency, m = mass of e-, v = Speed of e-.
56. Ionization enthalpy of potassium atom is 416 KJmole-1. Calculate the maximum wavelength of
radiation required to remove e- from gaseous potassium atom ?
(A) 2877 nm (B) 287.7 ´ 103 nm (C) 0.02877 nm (D) 287.7 nm
57. Ionization enthalpy of Cesium (Cs) atom is 373 KJmole-1. Radiation of which of the following
-
wavelength is required to remove e from gaseous cesium (Cs) atom ?
(A) 301 nm (B) 351 nm (C) 421 nm (D) 371 nm
58. Ionization enthalpy of lithium atom is 520 KJmole-1. Calculate the radiation of minimum frequency
-
required to remove e from gaseous lithium atom ?
(A) 1.3 ´ 1015s-1 (B) 1.3 ´ 1012s-1 (C) 1.3 ´ 108s-1 (D) 1.3 ´ 1013s-1
59. Ionization enthalpy of magnesium (Mg) atom is 737 KJmole-1 Radiation of which frequency is
required to remove e- from Mg atom ?
(A) 1.847 ´ 1014Hz (B) 1.847 ´ 1019Hz
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) e- will not be emitted by given frequency
53
60. A metal requires minimum 7.0 ´ 1014s-1 frequency of a photon to emit electron. What will be the
kinetic energy of e- having frequency of radiation 1.0 ´ 1015s-1.
(A) 1.99 ´ 10-10 joule (B) 1.99 ´ 10-17 joule (C) 1.99 ´ 10-19 joule (D) 1.99 ´ 10-12 joule
61. Wavelength of 242 nm is required for ionization of sodium, calculate ionization enthalpy of sodium ?
(A) 494 joule mole-1 (B) 494 KJ mole-1 (C) 49400 KJ mole-1 (D) 4940 J mol-1
62. Which option is right for a metal which requires wavelength of x to remove electron. If l is wavelength
of radiation bombarded on surface to remove e-?
(A) l > x (B) l < x (C) l = 2x (D) None
63. A metal requires wavelength of x to remove electron. If l wavelength radiation is bombarded on its
surface e- is not removed then which of the following is right ?
x
(A) l > x (B) l < x (C) l = (D) all three
2
64. In order to remove electron from a metal atom, radiation of frequency x is required. If radiation of
frequency v is bombarded on its surface and e- is removed, then which of the following is right ?
x
(A) v > x (B) v < x (C) v = (D) all three
2
65. In order to remove electron from a metal atom, radiation of frequency x is required. If radiation of
frequency v is bombarded on its surface e- is not removed then which of the following is right ?
(A) v > x (B) v < x (C) v = 2x (D) all three
66. If a metal is bombarded with radiation having wavelength l , electrons are emitted. If radiation of
same intensity but wavelength smaller than l is bombarded on the metal, what will be the observation ?
(A) Number of emitted electrons decreases (B) Kinetic energy of emitted electron decreases
(C) Number of emitted electrons increases (D) Kinetic energy of emitted electron increases
67. If a metal is bombarded with radiation having wavelength l , electrons are emitted. If radiation of
same intensity but wavelength larger than l is bombarded on the metal. What will be the observation ?
68. If a metal is bombarded with radiation having frequency v, electrons are emitted. If radiation of same
intensity but frequency larger than v is bombarded on the metal, what will be the observation ?
54
69. If a metal is bombarded with radiation having frequency v, electrons are emitted. If radiation of same
intensity but frequency lesser than v is bombarded on the metal, what will be the observation ?
70. If a metal is bombarded with radiation having wavelength l, electrons are emitted. What will be the
effect if intensity of radiation increases ?
71. If a metal is bombarded with radiation having wavelength l, electrons are emitted. What will be the
effect if intensity of radiation decreases ?
Answers : 56. (D), 57. (A) 58. (A), 59. (B), 60. (C), 61. (B), 62. (D), 63. (A), 64. (A), 65. (B),
66. (D), 67. (B), 68. (D), 69. (B), 70. (C), 71. (A)
Energy of electron in Bohrs model of an atom or ion

2
Z
En = - RH ´ 2 where, RH = Rydbergs constant = 2.18 ´ 1018 joule
n
Z = atomic number, n = orbit number (principal quantum no.)
For interpretation of Hydrogen spectrum, according to the Bohrs postulate the energy difference due
 
to the transition of electron n2 ® n1 is DE = En1 - En2 = RH ´ Z 2
´
 1 − 1  joule electron-1, where
 n 22 n12 
n2 > n1 , if D E < 0 (ve) means electron is transited from lower energy orbit to higher energy orbit and
energy is released during this process.
If n2 < n1, D E > 0 (+ve) means electron is transited from lower energy orbit to higher energy orbit
and energy is absorbed during this process.
 
-1
electron-1 to calculate ionization energy
1 − 1 
D E = Enf - Eni = 1312.796 ´ Z2  2 KJ mole
 n i n f 
2
ni = 1, nf = ¥
1 
Ionization energy of 1H-atom, D E = En¥ - En1 = 1312.796 ´ (1)2  − 12  = 1312.796 KJ/mole
1 ∞ 
2
1 
Ionization energy of 2He+ DE = E¥ - E1 = 1312.796 ´ (2)2  − 12  = 5251.184 KJ/mole
1 ∞ 
2
55
1 
Ionisation energy of 3Li+2 DE = E¥ - E1 = 1312.796 ´ (3)2  − 12  = 11815.164 KJ/mole
1 ∞ 
2
With respect to Hydrogen spectrum, the total number of lines obtained due to transition of electron
n2 ® n1 (n2 > n1) is
(n 2 − n1 + 1)(n 2 − n1 )
2
Series of lines obtained during Hydrogen emission spectrum

RH = 2.18 ´ 10-18 joule, R = 109737 cm-1, h = 6.626 ´ 10-34 Jsec., c = 3.0 ´ 108 ms-1
max
vmax
No. series Region Transition emitted emitted emitted emitted =
vmin
min
2
n2
(n )
maximum minimum maximum minimum =
2 2
2 − n1
wavelength wavelength frequency frequency
2
h × c × n1 RH
l
max
= l
min
=
RH
vmax= 2
vmin =
h × n1
wavelength
2 2
h × c ×n1 ×n 2 2 2
R H (n 2 − n1 )
(
R H n 2 − n1
2 2
) or
h × n12 × n 22
or l
max
=
2 2
n1 ×n 2
n12
R ( 2
n2
2
− n1 ) l
min
=
R
h × c ×1 RH RH ×3 4
(1) lyman ultra n1 = 1 n1 = 1, n2 = 2 l =
RH vmax = vmin=
min h ×1 h×4 3
violet n2 = 2, 3.. l =
h ×c× 4 or
max RH ×3
1
or l
min
=
R
4
l =
max 3× R
h ×c× 4 RH RH ×5 9
(2) Balmer visible n1 = 2 n1 = 2, n2 = 3 l =
RH vmax = vmin=
min h×4 h × 36 5
n2 = 3, 4... lmax= h × c × 36 or
RH × 5
4
or l =
min R
36
l =
max 5× R
56
h ×c×9 RH RH × 7 16
(3) Paschen Infrared n1 = 3 n1 = 3, n2 = 4 l = vmax = vmin=
min RH h ×9 h × 144 7
n2 = 4, 5... lmax=h × c × 144 or

RH × 7
9
or l
min
=
R
144
l =
max 7×R
h × c × 16 RH RH × 9 25
(4) Brack- Infrared n1 = 4 n1 = 4, n2 = 5 l = vmax= vmin=
min RH h × 16 h × 400 9
ett n2 = 5, 6...lmax= h × c × 400 or

RH ×9
16
or l =
min R
400
l =
max 9×R
h × c × 25 RH 36
(5) Pfund Infrared n1 = 5 n1 = 5, n2 = 6 l = vmax= vmin=
min RH h × 25 11
R H ×11
n2 = 6, 7... l = or
max h × 36 × 25
h × c × 36 × 25 25
R H × 11 l
min
=
R
or
36 × 25
l =
max 11 × R
h × c × 36 RH 49
(6) Hum- Infrared n1 = 6 n1 = 6, n2 = 7 l = vmax= vmin=
min RH h × 36 13
R H ×13
phrey n2 = 7, 8... l = or
max h × 49 × 36
h × c × 49 × 36 36
R H × 13 l
min
=
R
or
49 × 36
l =
max 13 × R
57
72. Which of the following is the possible principal quantum number of valence e- in its ground state in
an atom ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) all three
73. Which of the following transition of an electron in a Hydrogen emission spectrum possess maximum
frequency ?
(A) 2 ®1 (B) 3 ®2 (C) 4 ®3 (D) 5 ®4
wavelength ?
(A) 2 ®1 (B) 4 ®2 (C) 7 ®5 (D) 6 ®4
energy of photon ?
(A) 2 ®1 (B) 3 ®2 (C) 4 ®3 (D) 5 ®4
76. Which of the following transition of an electron in a Hydrogen emission spectrum possess minimum
energy of a photon ?
(A) 2 ®1 (B) 3 ®2 (C) 4 ®3 (D) 5 ®4
77. Calculate energy of a photon emitted due to transition of e- from 4 ® 1 in a Hydrogen atom ?
(A) 2.044 ´ 10 joule (B) 2.044 ´ 10 joule (C) 2.044 ´ 10 erg (D) 8.0 ´ 10 joule
18 -18 -18 -17
78. Calculate frequency of photon emitted due to transition of e- from 5 ® 2 in a Hydrogen atom ?
(A) 6.14 ´ 10 Hz
7
(B) 9.87 ´ 10 Hz
14
(C) 2.63 ´ 10 Hz 7
(D) 6.91 ´ 10 Hz 14
79. Calculate wavelength of a photon emitted due to tansition of e- from 6 ® 4 in a Hydrogen atom ?
(A) 2.63 ´ 10 nm
3
(B) 1.09 ´ 10 m-6
(C) 2.63 ´ 10 cm -6
(D) 2.63 ´ 10 nm -12
80. If ionization energy of H atom and energy required to remove an electron from exited state of He+
is same, then calculate the principal quantum of electron in He+.
(A) 3 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4
81. In Paschen series for a certain frequency energy of photon is 22.29 Kcalmol-1 is possible for which
of the following transition ? (1Kcal = 4.184 joule)
(A) 4 ®3 (B) 6 ®3 (C) 5 ®3 (D) None
82. What can be the maximum emitted wavelength in a Balmer series ?
(A) 565.5 nm (B) 364.7 nm (C) 656.5 nm (D) 556 nm
83. What can be the minimum emitted wavelength in a Paschen series ?
(A) 1875.8 nm (B) 820.6 nm (C) 1785 nm (D) 187.5 nm
84. What can be the minimum emitted frequency in a Lyman series ?
(A) 3.29 ´ 1015s-1 (B) 2.4675 ´ 1015s-1 (C) 4.2675 ´ 1015s-1 (D) 2.47 ´ 1013s-1
85. What can be the minimum emitted frequency in a Brackett series ?
(A) 2.056 ´ 1014s-1 (B) 7.4 ´ 1015s-1 (C) 2.56 ´ 1015s-1 (D) 7.4025 ´ 1013s-1
58
86. What can be the minimum emitted frerquency in a Pfund series ?
(A) 4.2 ´ 1013s-1 (B) 4.02 ´ 1013s-1 (C) 1.316 ´ 1014s-1 (D) 1.316 ´ 1013s-1
87. What can be the maximum emitted frequency in Lyman series ?
(A) 3.29 ´ 1015s-1 (B) 2.4675 ´ 1015s-1 (C) 4.2675 ´ 1015s-1 (D) 2.47 ´ 1013s-1
88. Calculate the difference in energy (DE) for a transition of electron from 5 ® 2 in a H-atom ?
(A) -5.758 ´ 10-19 joule/electron (B) -4.578 ´ 10-19 joule/electron
(C) -4.578 ´ 10-19 joule/electron (D) -4.857 ´ 10-7 joule/electron
(C) -1.867 ´ 1019 joule/electron (D) -1.8167 ´ 10-19 joule/electron
(C) -2.9 ´ 10-20 joule/electron (D) -2.9 ´ 10-17 joule/electron

91. When electron in Hydrogen atom jumps from 4th exited energy level to lower energy levels, then
how many lines are seen in U.V.region, visible region, I.R.region and total number of lines
respectively are ?
(A) 3, 2, 1, 6 (B) 4, 2, 2, 8 (C) 3, 3, 4, 10 (D) 4, 3, 3, 10
Answers : 72. (D), 73. (A), 74. (C), 75. (A), 76. (D), 77. (B), 78. (D), 79. (A), 80. (C), 81. (C),
82. (C), 83. (B), 84. (B), 85. (D), 86. (B), 87. (A), 88. (B), 89. (D), 90. (B), 91. (D)
Schrödingers wave equation

Schrödinger derived an equation for energy of an electron moving around the nucleus, which is
known as Schrödingers wave equation and it is as follows :
2
d2Ψ
2
d Ψ d2Ψ 8π m
+
2
+ +
2 (E - V)Y = 0
dx 2 dy dz 2 h
where, x, y, z are cartesian coordinates describing position of electron is a H-atom. m = mass of

electron, E = Energy of electron proton system, v = potential energy, Y = is known as wave function,
2
d Ψ
which is similar to the amplitude of wavelength, (E - V) = Kinetic energy, h = plancks constant, 2 =
dx
Mathematical operation performed on Y to find solution of the equation.
59
Position of an electron in a H-atom is described by cartesian co-ordinates (x, y, z) and spherical co-
ordinates (r, q and ϕ )
Z Relation between x, y, z and r, q and ϕ are

as follows :
rsinq x = r.sinq.cos ϕ
90° e-(x, y, z) y = r.sinq.sin ϕ
rcosq z = r.cosq
r
x2 + y2 + z 2 = r2, r = distance between
\
electron and nucleus. Using the above mentioned

q
relation, schrodinger wave equation containing
Nucleus rsinq cos ϕ cartesian co-ordinates is converted into spherical
ϕ 90° X co-ordinate wave equation and thus the equation
rsinq sin ϕ is seperated into three parts such that every part
will show only one variable r, q or ϕ . In this
three equation at constant q variation in r and
ϕ , at constant ϕ , variation in q and r and at
constant r, variation in ϕ and q are done using
these three variable, the total wave function Y
total
of the system is as follows:
Ytotal
= R. Θ . Φ or Y
total
= Rn,l(r). Θ l,m(q). Φ m( ϕ )
92. Which of the following is the correct Schrödingers equation ?

2 2
d Ψ
2
d2Ψ 8π m 2
d Ψ d2Ψ 8π m
(A) d Ψ d2Ψ
2
+ + -
2
(E - V)Y = 0 (B) + + +
2
(E - V)Y = 0
2
dx dy
2
dz 2 h dx 2 dy
2
dz 2 h
2
d Ψ
2
d2Ψ 8m π 2
d Ψ d2Ψ 8π m
2
(C) d Ψ (E - V)Y = 0 (D) d Ψ
2 2
+ + -
2 + + + (E - V)Y = 0
dx2
dy
2
dz 2 h dx 2 dy
2
dz 2 h
93. If electron is 3 unit away from the nucleus, then which of the follwoing is the possible Cartesian
co-ordinates of the electron ?
(A) (1, -1, 1) (B) (2, 1, -1) (C) (2, 0, 1) (D) (-1, 2, 2)
94. How many acceptable solution of Y are possible for n = 4, l = 3, m = + 2?
(A) 16 (B) 7 (C) 1 (D) 32
3π π
95. If spherical co-ordinate of electron in an atom, r, q and ϕ are 2 2 , and respectively, then the
4 4
cartesian co-ordinates for it is ...
(A) (1, -2, 3) (B) (1, 3, -2) (C) (- 3 , 1, 6) (D) ( 3 , 1, 6)

60
96. What will be the value of z, if spherical coordinate q is 45o and cartesian co-ordinate for electron in
atom is (2, - 5 , z).
(A) -2 (B) 3 (C) 9 (D) 2
97. Which of the following is not a possible value of Y at a point around the nucleus ?
(A) -0.0004 (B) 1.2 (C) 0.00005 (D) 0
Answers : 91. (D), 92. (B), 93. (D), 94. (C), 95. (B), 96. (B), 97. (B)
Principal Quantum Number
(1) Value of principal quantum number is positive (n = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ......)
(2) It decides the energy (En) of an electron in an atom or ion (for single electron containing atom
or ion)
(3) distance between electron and nucleus can be decided for different values of n. Higher the value
of n, more is the distance between electron and nucleus.
(4) Using this quantum number energy level that is orbit can be decided.
(5) For nth energy level there are n types of orbital, n2 number of orbital and 2n2 number of electron.
Principal orbit Total type of Total number Total possible number of

Quantum orbitals (n) of orbital electron to be filled (2n2)
number (n) (n2)
1 K one (s) 1 2
2 L two (s, p) 4 8
3 M three (s, p, d) 9 18
4 N four (s, p, d, f) 16 32
5 O five (s, p, d, f, g) 25 50
6 P six (s, p, d, f, g, h) 36 72
Angular Momentum Quantum Number (l) (Azimuthal or secondary quantum number)

(1) It is related to principal quantum number (n) and its value ranges from 0 to (n - 1).
(2) from the value of this quantum number shape (type) of orbital can be decided.
(3) value of this quantum number (l) indicates angular momentum of the electron.
(4) Kinetic energy of an electron is due to angular momentum of the electron. Value of Angular
Kinetic energy of electron is limited to total energy of electron due to which acceptable value of l depends
on acceptable value of n.
(5) Total energy of electron in multielectron atoms is decided by (n + l).
61
Principal Quantum Acceptable values of l Total Value of Type of
number (n) (0 to (n - 1) integer value l orbital
1 0 0 s
2 0, 1 1 p
3 0, 1, 2 2 d
4 0, 1, 2, 3 3 f
5 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 4 g
6 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 5 h
(Magnetic Quantum Number) (m or ml)
(1) electron having angular momentum possess magnetic field and value of magnetism is decided by
m.
(2) Magnetism is originated due to angular momentum hence acceptable value of m are related to
value of l.
(3) for any value of l there are (2l + 1) number of m values.

(4) for any value of l, value of m is an integer ranging from +l to -l including zero.
(5) for any value of l (any type of orbital) there are (2l + 1) number of acceptable value of m which
indicates number of orbital.
Value of Type of Total number of Acceptable value of m, +l to l

l orbital acceptable value of m integers
(2l + 1) (Total number of
orbital of each type)
0 s one 0
1 p three +1, 0, -1
2 d five +2, +1, 0, -1, -2
3 f seven +3, +2, +1, 0, -1, -2, -3
4 g nine +4, +3, +2, +1, 0, -1, -2, -3, -4
5 h eleven +5, +4, +3, +2, +1, 0, -1, -2, -3, -4, -5
Spin Quantum Number (s)
Quantum number n, l and m are originated from Schröndigers wave equation, but for complete
description of electron spin quantum number is required, which does not originate from Schödingers wave
equation. In 1925 A.D. scientist Goudsmitt and Uhlenbeck stated that axial rotation of an electron possess
angular momentum. This momentum is quantised and to calculate its value spin quantum number (s) is
required. Electron possess two opposite spin clockwise and anticlockwise. For which it has quantum
1 1
number + and - only two values. Due to angular momentum of electron magnetic field is created,
2 2
62
moreover due to axial rotation of electron property of internal magnetic field is created. These magnetic
1 1
fields are in two opposite direction due to which they have two spin quantum number values + and - .
2 2
98. Which of the following cannot be explained by quantum number n, l and m ?

(A) orbit number (B) doublet, triplet etc. obtained in a spectrum
(C) Type of orbit (D) cannot explain any of the three
99. How many orbits of multielectron atom or ion can have 2 £ n + l £ 4?
(A) 5 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 10
100. Which of the following set of quantum number is not possible ?
(A) n = 1, l = 0, ml = 0 (B) n = 4, l = 3, ml = 3
(C) n = 2, l = 1, ml = + 2 (D) n = 6, l = 2, ml = - 1
101. On giving energy which of the following quantum number possessing orbital will loose electron
first ?
(A) n = 4, l = 0 (B) n = 3, l = 2 (C) n = 3, l = 1 (D) n = 2, l = 1
102. Which of the following quantum number possessing orbital will be filled by electrons first ?
(A) n = 3, l = 1 (B) n = 3, l = 2 (C) n = 3, l = 0 (D) n = 2, l = 1
103. Which of the following quantum number possessing orbital will be filled by electron last ?
(A) n = 4, l = 0, ml = 0 (B) n = 3, l = 2, ml = + 1
(C) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0 (D) n = 3, l = 1, ml = - 1
104. For different excited state of H-atom, quantum state of which electron shows least energy ?
1 1
(A) n = 5, l = 2, ml = + 1, s = - (B) n = 6, l = 0, ml = 0, s = +
2 2
1 1
(C) n = 4, l = 3, ml = - 2, s = + (D) n = 5, l = 0, ml = 0, s = -
2 2
105. In atoms other than H atoms, how many equienergic orbitals are possible in an orbit ?
(A) n2 (B) 2l + 1 (C) n (D) none
106. How many electrons will have quantum number l = 0 for all completely filled orbitals between
nucleus and P orbit?
(A) 5 (B) 25 (C) 10 (D) 30
107. What is the maximum possible atomic number of element containing four electrons in ground state
with magnetic momentum quantum number ml = - 1?
(A) 23 (B) 18 (C) 24 (D) 16
108. Maximum how many electrons can be filled in an orbital in a given energy state ?
(A) 4l + 2 (B) 2n2 (C) n2 (D) 2l + 1
63
109. Total how many electrons can have 2 £ n + l £ 5 in multi electron species (atom or ion) ?
(A) 18 (B) 36 (C) 8 (D) 16
110. Maximum how many electrons can be filled in P orbit ?
(A) 6 (B) 36 (C) 12 (D) 72
111. What is the minimum possible atomic number of element centaining four electrons in ground state
with magnetic momentum quantum number ml = + 1?
(A) 18 (B) 14 (C) 12 (D) 16
112. Maximum how many electrons can be filled in all orbitals together between nucleus and O orbit ?
(A) 60 (B) 30 (C) 32 (D) 16
1
113. Maximum how many electrons will have s = + for all completely filled orbitals between nucleus
2
and O orbit ?
(A) 60 (B) 30 (C) 32 (D) 16
114. Maximum how many electrons will have ml = 0 for all completely filled orbitals between nucleus
and O orbit ?
(A) 10 (B) 30 (C) 20 (D) 16
115. Maximum how many electrons will have ml = - 1 for all completely filled orbitals between nucleus
and O orbit ?
(A) 6 (B) 30 (C) 12 (D) 16
Answers : 98. (B), 99. (B), 100. (C), 101. (A), 102. (D), 103. (B), 104. (C), 105. (B),
106. (C), 107. (A), 108. (A), 109. (B), 110. (D), 111. (B), 112. (A), 113. (B),
114. (C), 115. (A)
Shape of ns orbitals
The shapes of orbitals are determined by the values of acceptable solution of Y . The electron of
Hydrogen atom in the energy level having (n = 1) is in the ground state. This energy level has only one
orbital. If Schrödingers equation is solved for n = 1 and l = 0, the acceptable solution of Y is given by
3 −r
1  1 2 a0 h2
Ψ n =1 =   . e , where a0 = ,r = distance of electron from nucleus
l =0 π  a0  4π me 2
2
Note that the value of Y depends only on r but not on q or ϕ . Therefore the value of Y at all
2
equidistant points from a nucleus are the same, irrespective of directions. Therefore, values of Y also are
the same at all equidistant points from nucleus. It means that the probability of finding electron at all such
points is the same. If a surface is passed through all such points at which the probability of finding
electron is the same, the resulting shape of the surface would be spherical. Therefore, the shapes of the
orbitals having n = 1 and l = 0 values is supposed to be spherical. Similarly, in all other energy levels, the
acceptable solutions of Y for l = 0 contain only r variable and therefore all orbitals having l = 0 values are
supposed to be spherical in all energy levels. There is one such orbital in each energy level which is
represented by symbol ns.
64
Node : There is a space in orbital where probability of finding an e- is zero (Y = 0). This is called
Node. 2s orbital
1s orbital
1s and 2s orbitals
Node
2p orbitals OR number of 2p orbitals, shape and their directional properties

In Schrödingers equation, the acceptable solutions of Y for n = 2, we get four solutions. One of
these solutions n = 2, l = 0 contains only r variable. This indicates 2s orbitals.
Remaining three solutions are obtained for n = 2 and l = 1 corresponding to +1, 0 and -1 values of
m, which indicates three p-orbitals. Out of the three acceptable solution of wave function, two acceptable
wave function solution have r, q and ϕ variable while the third acceptable wave function solution have r
and q variable due to which the three p-orbitals show directional properties (or vectors). Shape of p-
orbitals is dumbell shaped and the three p-orbitals are equienergic.
Z
Z Z
+
-
Y - + Y Y
+ -
X
X
X
px orbital py orbital pz orbital
d-orbitals or number of d-orbitals, shape and their directional properties

For l = 2, there are five values of m. These values are +2, +1, 0, -1, -2. Therefore, there are five
acceptable solutions of wave function Y for l = 2. These wave functions also depend upon r, q and ϕ , the
five d-orbitals have directional character. Their shapes are irregular double dumbells.
Z Y Z
+ - + - +
- - X Y
Y
+ - + -
+
X
Z X
dz2 orbital dxy orbital dyz orbital
65
Y
- -
+
Z + + X
+ - -
Y Z
dzx orbital dx2- y2 orbital
f-orbital : For f orbital l = 3, acceptable values of m are as follows, m = + 3, +2, +1, 0, -1,-2,-3
Therefore in one energy level there are seven types of f orbital :
f 2 2 , f y(x 2 − y2 ) , f z(x 2 − y2 ) , f xy2 , f yz2 , f zx 2 , f z3
x(x − y )
f orbital are directional and all f-orbital in an energy level are equienergic.
Relative energies of atomic orbitals :
All orbitals of the same level are of equal energy in case of H-atom. Which means all orbitals
containing same principal quantum number (n) are equienergic. The order of energies of orbital in H-atom
is as follows :
1s < 2s = 2p < 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s = 4p = 4d = 4f < 5s = 5p = 5d = 5f = 5g < 6s = 6p = 6d = 6f
= 6g = 6h < ....
In atoms other than H-atom in an energy level (for same value of n) orbitals of any one type are
equienergic. For example in second energy level the three p-orbitals are equienergic (2px = 2py = 2pz). But
order for energy in different orbitals of a given energy level (for same value of n) is s < p < d < f.
Normally in atoms other than H the order of energies of orbitals of different energy level is determined by
the sum of n and l. An orbital having a higher value of (n + l) has higher energy. If two orbitals of
different types have equal values of (n + l), then the orbital having a higher value of n has higher energy.
In this manner order of energy level in atoms other than H is as follows :
1s < 2s < 2p< 3s < 3p < 4s< 3d < 4p < 5s <4d <5p <6s < 4f < 5d < 6p <7s< 5f < 6d <7p <8s<...
value of n : 1 2 2 3 3 4 3 4 5 4 5 6 4 5 6 7 5 6 7 8
value of l : 0 0 1 0 1 0 2 1 0 2 1 0 3 2 1 0 3 2 1 0
value of (n + l) : 1 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 5 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8
In addition to this, if same type of orbitals are half filled or completely filled it increases the stability
of the atom.
Due to this electronic configuration of 24
Cr is not [Ar] 3d4 4s2 but [Ar] 3d5 4s1 in the same way
electronic configuration of 29
Cu is not [Ar] 3d 4s2 but [Ar] 3d10 4s1.
9
3d 4s 3d 4s
24
Cr[Ar]
29
Cu[Ar] ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
Laws of electron configuration :

(1) Auf-baus principle : Electrons in an atom enter the orbitals of the lowest energy first. Later on
they enter into orbitals of higher energy. The order of energies of orbitals is as under :
1s < 2s < 2p < 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d < 4p < 5s < 4d < 5p < 6s < 4f < 5d < 6p < 7s < 5f < 6d < 7p < 8s < .....
66
(2) Paulis Exclusion principle : An orbital in an atom cannot accommodate more than two
electrons. or
No two electrons in an atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers.
(3) Hunds principle (maximum spin multiplicity principle) : When electrons are filled in
equienergic orbitals, maximum number of electrons remains unpaired and their spins remain parallel as far
as possible. That is pairing of electrons in equienergic orbitals does not take place until each of these
orbitals has got one electron each.
h
Orbital angular momentum = l(l + 1) .
2π
h
axial (spin) angular momentum = s(s + 1) .
2π
1
spin multiplicity = 2S + 1, where S (Total spin) = n ´
2
n = number of unpaired e-
Total number of radial (spherical) nodes in an orbital = n - l - 1
Total number of angular nodes in an orbital = l
Total number of nodes (radial and angular) in an orbital = n - 1
116. With respect to H atom which of the following equation is acceptable solution of Y, n = 1, l = 0 (for
IS orbital) ?
−r −r r 3 −r
a0 −1 a0 −1 a0 a
a 0 .e a 0 .e a 0 .e a 02 .e 0
(A) Ψ n =1 = (B) Ψ n =1 = (C) Ψ n =1 = (D) Ψ n =1 =
l =0 πa 0 l =0 πa 0 l =0 πa 0 l =0 π
117. How many acceptable solutions are possible on solving Schrödingers wave equation for n = 4, l = 2 ?
(A) 16 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6
118. According to p-orbital, filling of electron in orbital is wrong according to which law ? ¯
(A) Paulis Exclusion principle (B) Hunds maximum multiplicity law

(C) Aauf-baus principle (D) Mentioned all three
119. Which electronic configuration is wrong for d-orbital ?
(A) ¯ (B) ¯ (C) ¯ ¯ (D)
120. How many radial (spherical) nodes are possible in an orbital ?

(A) n - 1 (B) l (C) n - l - 1 (D) n + l
121. How many angular nodes are possible in an orbital ?
(A) n - 1 (B) l (C) n - l - 1 (D) n + l
122. How many nodes (angular and radial) are possible in an orbital ?
(A) n - 1 (B) l (C) n - l - 1 (D) n + l
123. For which orbital possibility of electron in xy direction is zero ?
(A) 2px (B) 2py (C) 2pz (D) 3dxy

124. For which orbital possibility of electron in xy direction is not zero ?
(A) 3dzx (B) 3dyz (C) 2pz (D) 3dxy

67
16
125. Calculate mass of sample of dioxygen gas which is isotope to 0.5 kg Neutron and 8O
. (mass of
Neutron = 1.67493 ´ 10-27kg)

(A) 1982.86 gm (B) 991.4 gm (C) 9.982 gm (D) None
126. Atomic mass of He and Ne are 4 and 20 amu de-broglie wave length of He at -73oC is M times de-
broglie wave length of Ne at 727oC, then calculate value of M ?
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12

o
127. Using a microscope uncertainty in position of electron is 0.2 A . In the same experiment if velocity
is measured calculate the uncertainity in its velocity ? (mass of electron is 9.11 ´ 10-31kg)
(A) 2.9 ´ 106 ms-1 (B) 2.9 ´ 107 ms-1 (C) 3.5 ´ 106 ms-1 (D) None
128. Ionization energy of a metal is 416 KJmole-1. If radiation of wavelength 4.0 ´ 108 m is bombarded
on the surface of the metal then calculate velocity of emitted electron ?
(mass of electron is 9.109 ´ 1031kg)

(A) 3.65 ´ 106 ms-1 (B) 3.065 ´ 106 ms-1 (C) 3.30 ´ 106 ms-1 (D) 1.04 ´ 108 ms-1
129. In atom having atomic number Z = 16 out of the last two electrons filled in the ground state. The set
of quantum numbers for the second last electron is n = 3, l = 1, ml = 0, s = +

1
2
then what would
be the set of quantum numbers for last electron ?
1 1
(A) n = 3, l = 1, ml = - 1, s = + (B) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, s = +
2 2
1 1
(C) n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, s = - (D) n = 3, l = 1, ml = - 1, s = -
2 2
130. Calculate wavelength of an electron in Hydrogen atom in second orbit in its excited state ? Where
radius of nth orbit in Hydrogen atom is described by the formula rn = 52.9 ´ n2 pm.
(A) 6.64 ´ 10-11 m (B) 6.64 ´ 10-8 m (C) 6.64 ´ 10-10 m (D) 6.64 ´ 10-9 m
131. Wavelength of electron in excited state in H atom is 1 nm then what would be the principal quantum
number of electron ? Where radius of nth orbit in Hydrogen atom is described by the formula
rn = 52.9 ´ n2 pm.
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4
132. If electron of H-atom is jumping from 3rd energy level excited state to lower energy level then the
wavelength of emitted photon is 486.3 nm. What will be the decrease in de-broglie wavelength of
electron ? where radius of nth orbit in H atom is described by the formula rn = 5.29 ´ 10-11 ´ n2 m.
(A) 6.644 A
o
(B) 6.644 ´ 10-10 cm (C) 6.644 pm (D) 6.644 nm
68
133. Find proper option for given statement ?
Statement A : Electrons are emitted, when radiation of wavelength greater than the threshold
wavelength of metal is bombarded on the surface of the metal.
Statement B : Energy of a photon of radiation of wavelength greater than the threshold wavelength
of metal is more than the threshold energy of the metal.
(A) statement A and B are correct and statement B is reason of statement A
(B) statement A and B are correct and statement B is not the reason of statement A
(C) statement A and B are incorrect
(D) statement A is incorrect and statement B is correct
134. Find proper option for given statement
Statement A : In a Hydrogen atom energy of electron increases as it moves away from the nucleus.
Statement B : In a Hydrogen atom, de-broglie wavelength of electron decreases as it moves away
from the nucleus.
(A) statement A and B are correct and statement B is the reason of statment A
(B) statement A and B are correct and statement B is not the reason of statement A
(C) statement A and B are incorrect
(D) statement A is incorrect and statement B is correct
´
135. Join the 4 5 matrix correctly for column I given orbital and column II number of nodes.
column-I column-I
(A) 4s (P) 3 angular node and 0 radial node (A) P Q R S T
(B) 4p (Q) 0 angular node and 3 radial node (B) P Q R S T
(C) 4d (R) 2 angular node and 1 radial node (C) P Q R S T
(D) 4f (S) 1 angular node and 2 radial node (D) P Q R S T
(T) Total number of nodes 3
136. Join the 3 ´
3 matrix correctly for column I given wavelength and column II quantum number
connected to wave function
column-I column-II
(A) Y(R) (P) n (A) P Q R
(B) Y( Θ ) (Q) l (B) P Q R
(C) Y( Φ ) (R) m (C) P Q R
Answers : 116. (B), 117. (B), 118. (B), 119. (B), 120. (C), 121. (B), 122. (A), 123. (C),
124. (D), 125. (B), 126. (A), 127. (D), 128. (B), 129. (D), 130. (C), 131. (B),
132. (A), 133. (C), 134. (D).
Answer : 135. Answer : 136.
(A) P Q R S T (A) P Q R
(B) P Q R S T (B) P Q R
(C) P Q R S T (C) P Q R
(D) P Q R S T
69
4 Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
The group of atoms combine and exist as species having characteristic properties which are known
as molecules.
The attraction force that keeps the different components (atom/ions) combined together is called
chemical bond.
When two components join to each other, more stronger the force of attraction (chemical bond)
between them lower will be their energy.
Stability of a molecule is more than its joining components (atom/ions)
Formation of a chemical bond is normally an exothermic reaction. In this process only the valence
electrons of atom take part in bond formation.
Chemical bond
¯
¯ ¯
Weak Bond Strong Bond

¯ ¯
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
Hydrogen Vanderwaals Ionic Covalent Co-ordinate Metallic

bond bond Bond Bond Bond Bond
Kossel-Lewis Approach
Approach of Kossel for chemical bond
Strongly electronegative elements (Halogen elements) and strongly electropositive elements
join with each other by transfer of electron and achieve inert gas configuration (ns2np6).
Ionic bond is formed by joining atoms with low ionization enthalpy to atoms with high electron
gain enthalpy.
Such type of attraction between cation and anion is called electrostatic attraction and the bond
between them is called electrovalent bond.
Approach of Lewis for chemical bond
According to Lewis, formation of chemical bond is due to transfer or sharing of valence electron in
atoms forming molecule electrons present in the inner orbit of atom are not involved in bonding.
Lewis dot representation
Valence electrons of elements are represented as dots arround the symbol of elements. Such a
method is known as Lewis dot representation
· ·O· ·
O · · 2−
↑  • • ×× •• 
-
(1) Sulphite ion (SO32 ) − O − S − O − •• O ×
• S • O •
×
•• • 
e.g.
 • • ××
70
2−
 •• 
 •O• 
O • •

−
↑ ••
• •
××
•
••
− • O × S O • 
(2) Thiosulphate ion (S2O3)2 O − S − O  •• ×× •• ´ 
↓  •S• 
 • • 
S ••
−3
 •• 
−  •O• 
O • •
|  •• ×• •• 
− − •• O ×• P ×• O •• 
(3) Phosphate ion (PO4)3 O −P−O  • • ×× • • 
↓  • • 
 •O• 
O ••
−
 •• 
   •O• 
O • •
 ↑   • • ×× • • 
• × × •

O ¬ −
Mn − O  K + • O × Mn • O •
• • ×× • •
(4) Potassium permanganate (KMnO4) K+  ↓   
 O   •O• 
   • • 
 • • 
−
 • • ×× • • 
• O •× N × O •
-
(5) Nitrite ion (NO2 ) O =N- O  • • × • • • • 
-
 
 •O• 
• •
O  • • 
 • • ×× •• 
• × Cr × • Cl • 
||
(6) Chromyl chloride (CrO2Cl2) Cl − Cr − Cl • •Cl• • ×× •
•• 
||  
••
O  •O• 
 • • 
 
×× ××
× O × • C • • C • •C •× O ×
(7) Carbon suboxide (C3O2) : O =C=C=C=O × ×• • • • • • × ×
1. Chemical bond is an example of ....... .

(A) attraction (B) repulsion
(C) (A) and (B) (D) no attraction or repulsion
2. When two atoms join and form molecule ..........
(A) energy is released. (B) energy is adsorbed
(C) energy is neither created nor absorbed (D) energy is absorbed or released
3. Formation of which of the following ionic compound is against Kossel approach ?
(A) CaF2 (B) KBr (C) FeCl3 (D) LiCl
4. In covalent bond electron dot representation is known as .......... .
(A) Lewis structure (B) Bohrs structure (C) Muliken structure (D) Kossel structure
5. Show the correct dot representation of an atom having atomic no. seven ?
•• •• ••
(A) •• x •• (B) •• x •• (C) x• (D) x ••
• •
71
6. Which of the following is a dot representation for group two elements ?
•• ••
(A) ••
x (B) ••
x• (C) x •• (D) •• x ••
•
7. In which of the following central atom has incomplete octet ?
(A) NH4+ (B) BCl3 (C) CCl4 (D) PCl3
8. In which of the following expanded octet can be seen ?
(A) BF3 (B) NF3 (C) SF6 (D) CCl4
9. How many non bonding electron pairs are present in Hydrazine (N2H4).
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4
10. Mention total number of valence electron in acetate ion ?
(A) 32 (B) 24 (C) 23 (D) 36
11. How many electrons are there in peroxide ion ?
(A) 18 (B) 20 (C) 16 (D) 34
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (A), 3. (C), 4. (A), 5. (D), 6. (A), 7. (B), 8. (C), 9. (B), 10. (B), 11. (A)
Ionic Bond (electrovalent bond)

Ionic bond is formed when one or more electron of metal atom transfer into non-metal atom.
 + −
e.g,  Na → −Na + e−  This way cation is formed from metal atom and anion is formed from non metal atom
 Cl + e → Cl 
e.g.,
Metal Non metal ® common ® ions ® example
grp grp formulla
1A + 7A ® MX ® M+, X- ® NaCl
2A + 7A ® MX2 ® M+2, 2X- ® MgCl2
3A + 7A ® MX3 ® M+3, 3X- ® AlCl3
1A + 6A ® M2X ® 2M+, X-2 ® Li2O
2A + 6A ® MX ® (M+2, X-2) ® CaO
3A + 6A ® M2X3 ® 2M3+, 3X2- ® Al2O3
1A + 5A ® M3X ® 3M+, X3- ® Li3N
2A + 5A ® M3X2 ® 3M+2, 2X3- ® Ca 3P 2
3A + 5A ® MX ® (M+3, 3X-) ® AlP

Factors affecting ionic bond
(i) There should be large difference in electronegativity of atoms forming bond.
(ii) Cation forming atom should have less ionization enthalpy and anion forming atom should have high
electron gain enthalpy.
(iii) It should have high lattice enthalpy.
72
Characteristics of Ionic compound
(i) definite geometric and crystalline structure. (ii) High melting point and boiling point
(iii) High density (iv) less volatility
(v) less vapour pressure (vi) poor conductor/insulator for electricity in solid state
(vii) good conductor of electricity in molten state (viii) soluble in polar solvent
(ix) good conductor of electricity in solution (x) indicates ionic reaction
Born-Haber Cycle-Lattice enthalpy
The energy required to remove ions to infinite distance from ionic compound in one mole solid state
is called crystal lattice enthalpy.
e.g. Crystal lattice enthalpy of NaCl is 787 KJ/mole
1
Born-Haber Cycle : M(s) + x ® Mx(s) : D HF
2 2(g)
∆H ∆H
M(s) 
1
→ M(g) 
2
→ M
+
∆H
1 ∆H3 ∆H 4

5→
Mx(s)
2 2(g)  → x(g) 
-
x → x
D H1 = sublimation enthaply, DH2 = ionization enthalpy, DH3 = dissociation enthalpy

D H4 = electron gain enthalpy, DH5 = lattice enthalpy
According to hesss law of heat summation, D Hf = D H1 + DH2 + D H3 + DH4 + D H5
Solubility of Ionic solid
Information on solubility of ionic compound is based on coloumbic force of attraction between cation
and anion is an ionic solid compound.
Z1Z2 e 2
eg, F = 2
where, F = coloumbic force of attraction, Z1, Z2 = charge of ions
Dr
e = charge of electron, D = Dielectric constant of the medium

r = interionic distance (bond length)
As attraction between ions increases, solubility of ionic solid decreases
In a given solution if value of dielectric constant is high then attraction between cation and anion
is less and solubility increases.
eg., D(H2O) > D(C2H5OH) > D(CH3OCH3)
H O > C H OH > CH OCH

\ 
2 2 5 3
solubility decreases
3
→
As interionic distance between ion is more, attraction is less and solubility of ionic solid is more.
LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI
eg.,   → solubility increases
LiF < NaF < kF < RbF < CsF

eg.,  → solubility increases
73
If the size of one of the two ions is very large, then with the decrease in size of the other ion
solubility of ionic solid increases
eg., 
CsI < CsBr < CsCl < CsF
→ solubility increases
CsI < kI < NaI < LiI

eg., → solubility increases
CsNO < KNO < NaNO < LiNO

eg., →
3 3 3 3
solubility increases
More the electric charge of ions, higher is the attraction and solubility decreases.
eg., NaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO4
-
(Cl ) (SO4)2 -
(PO4)3 -
® solubility decreases
12. Which of the following has higher melting point ?
(A) NaCl (B) NaF (C) NaBr (D) NaI
13. In KF ionic radius of F- is more than F, than ionic radius of K+ is ......... .
(A) less than K (B) more than F- (C) equal to F- (D) None
14. Which of the following pairs shows the highest and lowest ionic characteristics ?
(A) LiCl, RbCl (B) RbCl, BeCl2 (C) RbCl, MgCl2 (D) MgCl2, BeCl2
15. In which of the following electrovalent bond is present ?
(A) NaCl (B) Br2 (C) PF5 (D) XeF4
16. Which of the following compound is possible if element X with 1s22s22p63s2 configuration combine
with chlorine atom ?
(A) XCl3 (B) XCl2 (C) XCl (D) X3Cl
17. x = 1s2, y = 1s22s22p2, z = 1s22s22p5, w = 1s22s22p6

out of the elements x, y, z and w which of them has maximum possibility of forming ionic bond ?
(A) x (B) y (C) z (D) w
18. If formula of a metal phosphate is MPO4 , then the metal nitrate compound formula is ......... .
(A) MNO3 (B) M2(NO3)2 (C) M(NO3)2 (D) M(NO3)3

19. If formula of a metal oxide is MO, then what can be possible formula of metal phosphate ?
(A) M2(PO4)2 (B) M(PO4) (C) M2PO4 (D) M3(PO4)2

20. If atomic number of an atom is 20, then which atomic number atom can chemically combine with
this atom ?
(A) 11 (B) 16 (C) 14 (D) 10
21. Which of the following is the strongest ionic bond ?
(A) Cs - Cl (B) Al - Cl (C) C - Cl (D) H - Cl
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22. What does lattice enthalpy of a compound depend on ?
(A) only ionic charge (B) only size of ion
(C) size and charge of ion (D) None
23. Ionic compound A+ . B- is only possible when ......... .
(A) Ionization enthalpy of A is less and e- gain enthalpy of B is less
(B) Ionization enthalpy of A is less and e- gain enthalpy of B is more
(C) Ionization enthalpy of A is more and e- gain enthalpy of B is less
(D) None
24. If ion is ......... then lattice enthalpy is high.
(A) small size (B) less electric charge (C) zero electric charge (D) None
25. Due to what reason electrical conductivity in molten NaCl is possible ?
(A) free electron (B) free ion (C) free molecules (D) Na and Cl atom
26. If electronic configuration of four elements L, Q, P and R are respectively
L = 1s22s22p4, Q = 1s22s22p63s23p5
P = 1s22s22p63s1, R = 1s22s22p63s2 then the ionic compound produced by them are respectively ......
(A) L2P, RL, PQ, R2Q (B) LP, RL, PQ, RQ (C) P2L, RL, PQ, RQ2 (D) LP, R2L, P2Q, RQ
27. Statement 1 : Born Haber cycle is based on Hesss law.

Statement 2 : Lattice enthalpy can be calculated using Born Haber cycle.
(A) Statement 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the explanation of statement 1
(B) Statement 1 and 2 are correct, but statement 2 is not the explanation of statement 1
(C) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(D) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
28. Which of the following ionic compound has least solubility ?
(A) LiCl (B) LiI (C) LiF (D) LiBr
29. Which of the following ionic compound has highest solubility ?
(A) NaF (B) CsF (C) KF (D) RbF
30. Which of the following ionic compound has least solubility ?
(A) CsNO3 (B) NaNO3 (C) LiNO3 (D) KNO3
Answers : 12. (B), 13. (A), 14. (B), 15. (A), 16. (B), 17. (C), 18. (D), 19. (D), 20. (B),
21. (A), 22. (C), 23. (B), 24. (A), 25. (B), 26. (C), 27. (B), 28. (C), 29. (B),
30. (A)
75
Fajans Rule (Covalent characteristic in ionic bond)
When cation and anion are very strongly bonded to each other the positive charge of cation attracts
the electron cloud of anion towards itself at the same time possitive charge of cation and electropositive
charge nucleus of anion experience repulsion due to this combined effect, anion cloud spreads towards the
cation and increases size. Such type of distortion is known as polarization.
(1) Smaller the size of cation, more is its capacity to attract the electron cloud of anions. Due to
which distortion (anionic polarity) of anion electron cloud increases due to which covalent characteristics
increases and its melting point / boiling point decreases.
\ covalent characteristics a anionic polarity
1
\ covalent characteristic a
size of cation
\ covalent characteristics a size of anion

CaF2 < CaCl2 < CaBr2 < CaI2
eg.,  → size of anion increases
covalent characteristic increases

Melting point/Boiling point decreases
BaCl2 < SrCl2 < CaCl2 < M g Cl2

eg.,  → size of cation decreases
covalent character increases

Melting point / Boilling point decreases
(2) As electric charge on cation or anion increases the anionic polarity increases (size increases) and
covalent character of such compound increases and melting point and boiling point decreases.
eg., In KCl, CaCl2 ionic charge of Ca+2 is greater than that of K+ due to which CaCl2 shows more
covalent characteristics and melting point boiling point decreases.
eg., NaCl < MgCl2 < AlCl3 +ve charge of cation increases
covalent characteristic increases
Melting point and Boiling point decreases
(3) Valence orbit eight electron (Inert)
eg., (Na , K , Ca 2, Mg 2)
+ + + +
Valence orbit eighteen electron (Pseudo Inert)

eg., (Cu , Ag , Zn 2, Cd 2, Sn 4)
+ + + + +
If there are 18 electrons in valence orbit, then the polarity is more than 8 electrons, hence covalent
characteristic increases and melting point/Boiling point decreases.
eg., In Cu2Cl2, KCl K ® 2, 8, 8
+
Cu ® 2, 8, 18 so,
+
Cu2Cl2 shows more covalent characteristic and less Melting point/Boiling point than KCl.
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* small size cation
(higher polarization It means
capacity) bond
* size of anion large has It means
* (More polarised e cloud less more
more is the distortion) polarity covalent
character
* low Melting point/Boiling point and less
* less lattice enthalpy ionic
* less stability character
* less electrical conductivity

* less soluble in polar solvent
* more soluble in non polar solvent
* solubility product (Ksp) is high
31. Which of the following shows correct order of melting point of compounds ?
(A) Li2CO3 < Cs2CO3 < Rb2CO3 < K2CO3 (B) Cs2CO3 < Li2CO3 < Rb2CO3 < K2CO3
(C) Cs2CO3 < Rb2CO3 < K2CO3 < Li2CO3 (D) Li2CO3 < K2CO3 < Rb2CO3 < Cs2CO3
32. Which of the following shows correct order of covalent characteristic in compounds ?
(A) LiCl > BeCl2 > BCl3 (B) BCl3 > BeCl2 > LiCl
(C) BCl3 > LiCl > BeCl2 (D) BCl3 > BeCl2 = LiCl
33. Which of the following shows correct order of covalent characteristic in compounds ?
(A) SnI4 > SnBr4 > SnCl4 > SnF4 (B) SnBr4 > SnI4 > SnCl4 > SnF4
(C) SnI4 > SnCl4 > SnF4 > SnBr4 (D) SnF4 > SnCl4 > SnBr4 > SnI4
34. Which of the following has the lowest melting point ?
(A) PbCl2 (B) NaCl (C) MgCl2 (D) SnCl4
35. Which of the follwing shows maximum covalent characteristic ?
(A) PbCl2 (B) NaCl (C) MgCl2 (D) SnCl4
36. Which of the following shows correct order of solubility in polar solvent ?
(A) PbO2 < RbI < CdI2 (B) CdI2 < RbI < PbO2
(C) PbO2 < CdI2 < RbI (D) RbI < CdI2 < PbO2
37. Which of the following carbonate does not give oxide on heating ?
(A) ZnCO3 (B) CaCO3 (C) Na2CO3 (D) MgCO3
38. Which of the following compound has maximum ionic characteristics ?
(A) BeCl2 (B) LiCl (C) SnCl2 (D) MgCl2
77
39. Which of the following compound has minimum ionic characteristics ?
(A) Cu2Cl2 (B) KCl (C) RbCl (D) NaCl
40. Which of the following has maximum polarity ?
(A) Mg+2 (B) K+ (C) Sc+3 (D) Ni+2
41. Mention the correct order of solubility in water for the following compound ?
(A) NaF < MgO < AlN (B) AlN < NaF < MgO
(C) AlN < MgO < NaF (D) AlN = NaF < MgO
42. Which of the following has maximum solubility in water ?
(A) AgI (B) AgF (C) AgCl (D) AgBr
43. Which of the following carbonate has maximum stability ?
(A) MgCO3 (B) CaCO3 (C) SrCO3 (D) BaCO3
44. Which of the following has maximum solubility product ?
(A) BeCl2 (B) BaCl2 (C) CaCl2 (D) SrCl2
45. Which of the following has minimum solubility product ?
(A) SnBr4 (B) SnF4 (C) SnCl4 (D) SnI4
Answers : 31. (D), 32. (B), 33. (A), 34. (D), 35. (D), 36. (C), 37. (C), 38. (C), 39. (A),
40. (D), 41. (C), 42. (B), 43. (D), 44. (A), 45. (B)
Covalent Bond
Bond formed by sharing of one or more electrons of valence orbit of atoms resulting into completion
of octet of the atoms is called covalent bond.

eg., H2 : H ´ ´ H [H - H] O2 : O

O
[O = O]
××
Cl2 : C Cl
× × [Cl - Cl] N2 : N
N [N º N]

×××
Covalency
The total number of electrons of an atom of an element shared by other atoms for covalent bond
formation is called the covalency of the element.
eg., Group 14 covalency of element =4
Group 15 covalency of element = 3
Group 16 covalency of element =2
Group 17 covalency of element = 1
Atoms of elements having d-orbital show more than one type of covalency
eg., element covalency
Phosphorous ® 3, 5
Sulphur ® 2, 4, 6
Iodine ® 1, 3, 5, 7
78
Factors affecting covalent bond
(i) Atoms taking part in bond formation should have same electronegativity or should have minimum
difference in electronegativity.
(ii) On sharing electrons the atoms should complete octet
Characteristics of covalent bond
poor conductor/insulator of electricity
less soluble in polar solvent
They experience non ionic process, which are normally slow.
They possess relatively low Melting point/Boiling point. (exception : SiC, Diamond ..... )
46. How many electrons take part in bond formation of N2 ?
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 1
47. L : 1s22s22p1, M : 1s22s22p5,
Q : 1s22s22p63s1, R : 1s22s22p2
which of the mentioned has maximum capacity to form diatomic molecule ?

(A) Q (B) M (C) R (D) L
48. Which of the following shows pair of covalent Hydrides ?
(A) NaH and CaH2 (B) NH3 and B2H6 (C) NaH and NH3 (D) CaH2 and B2H6
49. Which of the following has covalent bond ?
(A) Na2S (B) AlCl3 (C) NaH (D) MgCl2
50. Compared to ionic compounds covalent compounds have melting point ......... and boiling point ..........
(A) Low, High (B) High, Low (C) High, High (D) Low, Low
51. How many electron pairs are present in valence orbit of oxygen atom in H2O ?
(A) 4 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

52. Which of the following compound has ionic and covalent bond both ?
(A) CCl4 (B) NH4Cl (C) CaCl2 (D) H2O
53. Mention True (T) or False (F) for the following statement.
(i) There is sharing of electron between two atoms in a covalent compound
(ii) The bond formed in such compounds are polar or non polar.
(iii) In such compounds there is no transfer of electrons between two atoms.
(iv) In such compounds bonds do not possess directional properties.
(A) FFFT (B) TTTF (C) TTFT (D) TFFT
79
54. Due to what reason boron forms covalent bond ?
(A) small size (B) high ionization enthalpy
(C) low ionization enthalpy (D) (A) and (B) both
55. Bond energy of O-H covalent bond in water is ..........
(A) greater than bond energy of H-bond. (B) equal to bond energy of H-bond.
(C) less than bond energy of H-bond. (D) None
56. In which of the following compound PH bond shows least covalent character ?
(A) PH3 (B) P2H6 (C) PH+6 (D) P2H5
57. Which of the following compound has strongest bond and highest bond energy ?
(A) F2 (B) Cl2 (C) Br2 (D) I2
58. Which of the following shows strongest covalent bond ?
(A) HCl (B) ClCl (C) CCl (D) BCl
59. In which of the following are covalent bond soluble ?
(A) Polar solvent (B) Non polar solvent (C) Strong acid (D) all solvents
60. What will be the electronic configuration of x if x2 molecule is trivalent ?
(A) 1s22s22p5 (B) 1s22s22p3 (C) 1s22s1 (D) 1s22s22p1
Answers : 46. (C), 47. (B), 48. (B), 49. (B), 50. (C), 51. (A), 52. (B), 53. (B), 54. (D),
55. (A), 56. (C), 57. (B), 58. (A), 59. (B), 60. (B)
Co-ordinate covalent bond :
Sharing of electron between two atoms/ions where any one atom/ion donate electron pair for sharing,
such a bond is called co-ordinate covalent bond.
This bond is denoted by ® and the direction of arrow is from the atom donating the electron pair
towards the atom receiving electron pair.
+
H O → H 
eg., H2O + H ® H3O
+ +
 H 
+
H 
eg., NH3 + H ® NH4
+ +
H N → H
 H 
80
61. What kind of bonding takes place between NH3 and BF3 ?
(A) covalent bond (B) co-ordinate covalent bond
(C) ionic bond (D) H bond
62. Due to what reason co-ordinate covalent bond is formed ?
(A) Migration of electron (B) sharing of electron
(C) donating electron for sharing (D) None
63. Which of the following does not have co-ordinate covalent bond ?
(A) NO2 (B) O3 (C) NH4+ (D) CCl4
64. Which of the following has co-ordinate covalent bond ?
(A) N2O5 (B) BeCl2 (C) HCl (D) H2O
(A) CH3NC (B) CH3OH (C) CH3Cl (D) NH3
(A) O3 (B) SO3 (C) H2SO4 (D) mentional all
67. In which of the following co-ordinate covalent bond is not present ?
(A) BH4- (B) CO32- (C) H3O+ (D) NH4+
68. Which of the following does not have co-ordinate covalent bond ?
(A) SO2 (B) HNO3 (C) H2SO3 (D) HNO2
(A) CH3NO2 (B) AlCl3 (C) NaCl (D) CH2Cl2
Answers : 61. (B), 62. (C), 63. (D), 64. (A), 65. (A), 66. (D), 67. (B), 68. (D), 69. (A)
Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion principle (VSEPR principle)
According to detailed presentation of principle by Nyhlom and Gillespie, the shape of the
molecule depends upon the number of electron pairs bonding and nonbonding electron pairs in
valence shells around the central atom. Based on repulsion between such electron pair shape of
molecule is decided lone pair electron and bond pair electron.
The magnitude of the repulsion produced between such electron pair is as follows :
LP - LP > LP - BP > B P - B P
81
These electron pairs possess the tendency of obtaining such an arrangement in the space that the
repulsion between them is minimum and as a result there is maximum distance between them.
Serial Molecule Shape

No.
(1) AB2 2 0 linear
(2) AB3 3 0 planar triangle
(3) AB2E 2 1 V-shape, angular
(4) AB4 4 0 Tetrahedral
(5) AB3E 3 1 Pyramidal
(6) AB2E2 2 2 V-shape, angular
(7) AB5 5 0 Triagonal bipyramidal
(8) AB4E 4 1 See-Saw
(9) AB3E2 3 2 T-shape
(10) AB2E3 2 3 linear
(11) AB6 6 0 octahedral
(12) AB5E 5 1 square pyramidal
(13) AB4E2 4 2 squareplanar
(14) AB7 7 0 Pentagonal bipyramidal
(15) AB6E 6 1 distorted octahedral
70. Which of the following has least bond angle ?

(A) H2O (B) NH3 (C) CH4 (D) PCl5
71. According to VSEPR principle, what will be the shape of the molecule in which central atom have
4 bonded pair of electron in valence shell ?
(A) Linear (B) Tetrahedral (C) Octahedral (D) Trigonal bipyramidal
72. In which molecules all atoms are planar ?
(A) CH4 (B) BF3 (C) PF3 (D) NH3
73. Water is .........
(A) linear (B) Angular (C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None
74. Which of the following shows decreasing order of bond angle ?
(A) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (B) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3
(C) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3 (D) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3
75. According to VSEPR theory, which of the molecule can be explained inspite of central atom not
possessing lone pair ?
(A) PCl5 (B) PCl3 (C) NH3 (D) SF4
82
76. Which of the following pair of molecule has same shape ?
(A) CF4, SF4 (B) XeF2, CO2 (C) BF3, PCl3 (D) PF5, IF5
77. In XeF6, what is the oxidation number of Xe, type of hybridisation and shape of molecule
respectively ?
(A) +6, sp3d3, distorted octahedral (B) +4, sp3d2, square planar
(C) +6, sp3, pyramidal (D) +6, sp3d3, square pyramidal
78. In which of the following do we see maximum bond angles of 90o between bonded-bonded electron
pair ?
(A) dsp2 hybridisation (B) sp3d hybridisation (C) dsp3 hybridisation (D) sp3d2 hybridisation
79. According to VSEPR what is the shape of ClO3- ion ?

(A) planar triangle (B) pyramidal (C) tetrahedral (D) square planar
80. Which of the following is not a linear molecule ?
(A) C2H2 (B) H2S (C) BeCl2 (D) CS2
81. Which of the following component is not linear ?
(A) ICl2- (B) I3- (C) N3- (D) ClO3-
82. Which of the following has maximum bond angle between two covalent bond ?
(A) CO2 (B) CH4 (C) NH3 (D) H2O
83. According to VSEPR, what is the shape of XeOF2 ?
(A) like seesaw (B) V shape (C) T shape (D) planar triangle
84. BCl3 is a planar molecule while NCl3 molecule is pyramidal because ......... .
(A) NCl3 has lone pair while BCl3 does not have lone pair
(B) BCl bond is more coplanar than NCl bond.
(C) size of N atom is smaller than B-atom.
(D) NCl bond is more covalent than BCl.
Answers : 70. (B), 71. (B), 72. (B), 73. (B), 74. (A), 75. (A), 76. (B), 77. (A), 78. (D),
79. (A), 80. (B), 81. (D), 82. (A), 83. (C), 84. (D)
Valence Bond Theory

It was presented by Heitler and London and developed by Pauling and Slater.
The bond is formed by overlapping of valence orbitals of atoms.
Each orbital shares one elecron in overlapping.
Strength of the bond depends on extent of overlapping.
Strength of overlapping of p-orbitals is less than s-orbital.
due to axial overlapping of orbitals s bond is formed and due to parallel overlapping of orbitals p
bond is formed.
83
s-bond p-bond
axial overlapping of orbital parallel overlapping of orbital
It is an independent bond formation. p bond is formed only after formation of s bond
more strong compared to s bond it is weak
maximum overlapping minimum overlapping
free rotation of bond is possible free rotation of bond is not possible
eg., H2 molecule eg., F2 molecule

overlap
s ↑
® ↑↓ (pp)
ss overlapping
s ↑ H 2 molecule
2p ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ 2p
2s ¯ ¯ 2s
1s ¯ ¯ 1s
eg., N2 molecule
eg., O2 molecule
(p)(pp)
p
(pp) (p)
p
(pp) s (pp)
p
(pp)
s
(pp)
2p ¯ ¯ 2p
2s ¯ ¯ 2s 2p 2p
1s ¯ ¯ 1s 2s ¯ ¯ 2s
1s ¯ ¯ 1s
eg., NH3 molecule
1s 1s 1s H atom

N atom
sp
overlap 2p 2p 2p
Limitations of valence bond theory

(1) It cannot explain magnetism of O2 molecule.
(2) It cannot explain what is the effect of bond formation of valence orbit on inner orbits.
(3) This principle cannot explain molecules having odd number of e-.
84
85. Which of the following overlapping is possible in F2 molecule formation ?
(A) axial overlapping of ss orbitals (B) parallel overlapping of pp orbitals
(C) axial overlapping of pp orbitals (D) axial overlapping of sp orbitals
86. A double bond is formed by sharing of how many electrons between two atoms ?
(A) 2 electrons (B) 4 electrons (C) 1 electron (D) all electrons
87. Angular shaped ozone molecule contains .......... .
(A) 1 sigma and 1 p bond (B) 2 sigma and 1 p bond
(C) 1 sigma and 2 p bond (D) 2 sigma and 2 p bond
88. Which of the following has shortest CC bond ?
(A) spsp (B) sp2sp (C) sp2sp2 (D) sp3sp
89. In which of the following dp - pp bond is formed ?
(A) NO3- (B) CO32- (C) BO33- (D) SO32-
90. What is the number and type of bond between 2 carbon atom in calcium carbide ?
(A) 1s and 1p (B) 1s and 2p (C) 2s and 1p (D) 2s and 2p
91. Order of strength of bond produced by 2s2s, 2p2p and 2p2s overlapping is ......... ?
(A) ss > pp > ps (B) pp > ps > ss (C) ss > ps > pp (D) pp > ss > ps
92. Xylene possesses .......... s bonds.
(A) 6 (B) 9 (C) 12 (D) 18
93. Which of the following does not possess p bond ?
(A) C2H2 (B) C2H4 (C) C6H6 (D) C6H12
94. In P4O10 the number of sigma bonds is ..........
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) 17 (D) 16
95. The number of s and dp - pp bond in pyrophosphoric acid [H4P2O7] is respectively ......... ?
(A) 8, 2 (B) 6, 2 (C) 12, 0 (D) 12, 2
96. Acetate ion contains .......... .
(A) one C - O single bond and one C = O double bond
(B) two C - O single bond
(C) two C = O double bond
(D) None
97. ............ bond is always formed by s-orbital.
(A) sigma (B) p (C) sigma and p (D) None
98. Which of the following molecule possess more than one sigma bond ?
(A) F2 (B) N2 (C) CH4 (D) H2
99. Which of the following is the strongest bond ?
(A) C - C (B) C = C
(C) C º C (D) They are of equal strength
100. The number of p bonds in XeO3 and XeO4 are ......... respectively.
(A) 3, 4 (B) 4, 2 (C) 2, 3 (D) 3, 2
Answers : 85. (B), 86. (B), 87. (B), 88. (A), 89. (D), 90. (B), 91. (B), 92. (D), 93. (D),
94. (D), 95. (D), 96. (A), 97. (A), 98. (C), 99. (C), 100. (A)
85
Hybridisation
In a given atom, atomic orbitals with negligible difference in energy when overlapped with each
other, they produce same number of new equienergic orbitals, such orbitals are called hybrid orbitals and
the phenomena is known as Hybridisation.
characteristics of hybridisation
orbitals with equal/less energy difference overlapp with each other.
The number of hybrid orbitals produced is equal to the number of overlapped atomic orbitals.
Shape, size and energy of hybrid orbitals is same.
There are two types of geometry created due to hybridisation.
Regular Irregular
Geometry Geometry
¯ ¯
In each orbital there In each orbital there are
are bonded pairs bonded or lone pair
Type of hybridisation Hybridisation involving d-orbitals

(1) sp ®s+p (1) sp3d ® dz2
(2) sp2 ®s+p+p (2) sp3d2 ® dz2, dx2 - y2
(3) sp3 ®s+p+p+p (3) sp3d3 ® dxy, dyz, dzx
(4) sp3d ®s+p+p+p+d (4) dsp2 ® dx2 - y2
(5) sp3d2 ®s+p+p+p+d+d (5) dsp3 ® dx2 - y2
(6) sp3d3 ®s+p+p+p+d+d+d
(7) dsp2 ® d +s+p+p
(8) dsp3 ®d+s+p+p+p
Hybridisation and shape
Hybridisation Shape bond angle example
sp Linear 180o BeCl2
sp2 Planar triangle 120o BF3
sp3 Tetrahedral 109o28 ’ CH4
sp3d Trigonal Bipyramidal 90o and 120o PCl5
sp3d2 Octahedral 90o SF6
sp3d3 Pentagonal Bipyramidal 90o and 72o IF7
dsp2 Square planar 90o [Ni(CN)4]2-
86
Hybridisation and shape of important ions.
Ions Hybridisation Shape Number of non bonded

electron pair
SO42- sp3 Tetrahedral 0
PO43- sp3 Tetrahedral 0
ClO-4 sp3 Tetrahedral 0
NH4+ sp3 Tetrahedral 0
CO32- sp2 Planar triangle 0
NO3- sp3 Planar triangle 0
ClO3- sp3 pyramidal 1
ClO2- sp3 V-shape 2
I 3- sp3d linear 3
ICl2- sp3d linear 3
ICl2+ sp3 V-shape 2
Method to determine hybridisation

Sum up the total number of electrons in valence orbit of each atom/ion.
If the total is greater than 8 then divide by 8 and if the total is 8 or less than 8, then divide by 2
and if the answer is 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 then the hybridisation is as follows :
eg., Total ® Hybridisation
2 ® sp
3 ® sp2
4 ® sp3
5 ® sp3d
6 ® sp3d2
7 ® sp3d3
eg., CO32- : 1(4) + 3(6) + 2 = 24 e-
\ 24
8
= 3[sp2 hybridisation]
eg., NH4+ = 1(5) + 4(1) - 1 = 8 e
8
\ = 4[sp3 Hybridisation]
2
eg., PCl5 = 1(5) + 5(7) = 40
87
40
\ = 5[sp3d Hybridisation]
8
eg., SF6 = 1(6) + 6(7) = 48
48
\ = 6[sp3d2 Hybridisation]
8
eg., XeF6 = 1(8) + 6(7) = 50
50 2
\ + (2) remainder (less than 8 value) \ 6 + = 6 + 1 = 7[sp3d3 Hybridisation]
8 2
101. Show hybridisation in SF6 and percentage of d character.

(A) sp3d2, 33.33 % (B) sp3d, 20 % (C) sp2d, 25 % (D) sp3d, 75 %
102. In which of the compounds there are carbon with sp2 and sp3 hybridisation ?
(A) CH3 - CH = CH2 (B) CH2 = CH2
(C) CH º CH (D) CH2 = CH - CH = CH2
103. Show hybridisation of C in C2[CN]4
(A) sp2 (B) sp and sp2 (C) sp and sp3 (D) sp
104. Hybridisation of SO2 and SO3 molecule is .......... respectively.
(A) sp, sp2 (B) sp2, sp2 (C) sp2, sp3 (D) sp, sp3
105. Show the increasing order of size of hybrid orbitals.
(A) sp < sp3 < sp2 (B) sp < sp2 < sp3 (C) sp3 < sp < sp2 (D) sp3 < sp2 < sp
106. Show the s character in methane, ethene and ethyne.
(A) 25 %, 33 %, 50 % (B) 25 %, 50 %, 75 % (C) 50 %, 75 %, 100 % (D) 10 %, 20 %, 40 %
107. Hybridisation of C in diamond, graphite and Acetylene is ..........
(A) sp3, sp2, sp2 (B) sp, sp2, sp3 (C) sp2, sp3, sp3 (D) sp3, sp2, sp
108. In which of the following central atom has sp2 hybridisation ?
(A) NO2-, NH2- (B) NH2-, H2O (C) NO2-, H2O (D) BF3, NO2-
109. If the central atom has sp2 hybridisation in a molecule what will be the shape of the molecule ?
(A) pyramidal (B) Tetrahedran (C) Octahedran (D) planar triangle
110. What is the Hybridisation of S atom in SF2, SF4 and SF6 ..........
(A) sp2, sp3, sp3d2 (B) sp3, sp3, sp3d (C) sp3, sp3d, sp3d2 (D) sp3, spd2, d2sp3
111. Which of the following hybridisation has maximum bond angle ?
(A) sp2 (B) sp (C) sp3 (D) dsp2
112. In Buta-1, 2diene there is ..........
(A) Only sp hybridised carbon (B) Only sp2 hybridised carbon
(C) sp and sp2 hybridised carbon
(D) sp, sp2 and sp3 all three type hybridised carbon
113. What will be the hybridisation of central atom in NH3, [PtCl4]2-, PCl5 and BCl3 respectively ?
(A) dsp2, dsp3, sp2, sp3 (B) sp3, dsp2, dsp3, sp2
(C) dsp2, sp2, sp3, dsp3 (D) dsp2, sp3, sp2, dsp3
88
114. What is the shape of NH3 molecule and hybridisation of N ?
(A) Tetrahedral, sp3 (B) Triagonal pyramid, sp3 (C) Triangular, sp2 (D) None
115. Which of the following has inter atomic bond angle 109o28 ’ ?
(A) NH4, BF3 (B) NH2-, BF3 (C) NH3, BF4- (D) NH3, BF4
116. Which of the following pair is correct based on hybridisation and shape ?
(A) BeCl2, sp2 linear (B) BeCl2, sp2 angular
(C) BCl3, sp2 triagonal pyramid (D) BCl3, sp3 tetrahedron
Answers : 101. (A), 102. (A), 103. (B), 104. (B), 105. (B), 106. (A), 107. (D), 108. (D),
109. (D), 110. (C), 111. (B), 112. (D), 113. (B), 114. (B), 115. (C), 116. (C)
Dipole moment
Covalent bond formed between two atoms having difference in electronegativity is called a polar
covalent bond.
+d -d
••
eg., (H ´ • Cl •• ) = H - Cl polarity of such molecule is measured by dipole moment
••
Dipole moment (m) = d ´ d.

Where, d = charge developed due to differernce in electronegativity
d = distance between nucleus of two atoms
Unit of Dipole moment is Debye
1 Debye = 10-18esu cm
= 1.6 ´ 10-29 coloumb meter
Direction of Dipole moment is always from electropositive to electronegative as well as denoted by
® from central atom to atom containing non bonded electron pair.
Take m = 0 for all molecules having regular geometry like PCl5, SF6.
Take m = 0 for all molecules having planar structure like benzene and napthalene etc.
Take m = 0 for all non polar molecules like CO2, BF3, CCl4, BeCl2, CH4 etc.
% ionic character of a compound based on dipole moment can be determined as follows :
Experimental value of dipole moment
eg., % ionic character =
Theoretical value of dipole moment ´ 100
1
Normally in symmetric compound as bond angle increases dipole moment decreases. m a
bondangle
eg., Cl Cl Cl
Cl
> > m = 0
Cl
Cl
m decreases
89
Out of cis and trans isomers dipole moment of cis isomers is more than trans isomers.
eg., I -C - H IC - H
-
|| ||
I - C - H H - C - I
(cis) (trans)
(m ¹ 0) (m = 0)
In C = C If two groups having opposite inductive effect are attached on both sides, then dipole moment
of trans isomer is more.
eg., H3 C H H Br -I
+ I C C
|| ||
C + I C
- I
Br H H3C H
(less m) (Cis) (more m) (Trans)
Shape of molecule based on dipole moment
Common formula Shape Dipole moment Example
AX linear cannot be zero HF, HCl
AX2 linear zero CO2, CS2

bent (V-shape) Not zero H2O, NO2
AX3 planar triangle zero BF3

pyramidal Not zero NH3, PCl3
T-shape Not zero ClF3
AX4 tetrahedral zero CH4, CCl4

square planar zero XeF4
see-saw Not zero SF4, TeCl4
AX5 triagonal bipyramidal zero PCl5

square pyramidal Not zero BrCl5
AX6 octahedral zero SF6

distorted octahedral Not zero XeF6
AX7 pentagonal bipyramidal zero IF7
Dipole moment in polar molecule = ionic charge ´ ionic distance
(charge in esu unit and ionic distance in cm unit)
o
10-8 10-10
esu esu
1A = 1 ´ = 1 ´
cm m
90
117. Which of the following compound has maximum dipole moment ?
(A) CH3Cl (B) CH2Cl2 (C) CHCl3 (D) CCl4
118. Which of the following has property of lowest polarity ?
(A) water (B) ethanol (C) ethane (D) ether
119. CCl4 does not show dipole moment because ........
(A) it has planar structure.
(B) it has definite tetrahedral structure.
(C) size of carbon and chlorine is same.
(D) carbon and chlorine have same electronegativity.
120. Which of the following pair has permenant dipole moment ?
(A) SiF4, NO2 (B) NO2, CO3 (C) NO2, O3 (D) SiF4, CO2
121. Which of the following has maximum dipole moment ?
(A) CO2 (B) BF3 (C) SO2 (D) trans-but-2-ene
122. Calculate dipole moment of a polar molecule having ionic charge 4.8 ´ 10-10 esu and interionic
o
distance is A .
(A) 48.1D (B) 4.18D (C) 4.8D (D) 0.48D
123. HCl is a completely polar molecule with a dipole moment of 6.12D. If its experimental value of
dipole moment is 1.03D, then calculate percentage of ionic character ?
(A) 17 % (B) 83 % (C) 50 % (D) 90 %
124. Show the correct order of dipole moment ?
(A) CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O (B) NH3 < CH4 < NF3 < H2O
(C) NH3 < NF3 < CH4 < H2O (D) H2O < NH3 < NF3 < CH4
125. Why is bonded electron pair arranged unequally between two atoms in a molecule ?
(A) Dipolar (B) covalent bond (C) disintegration of molecule (D) None
H CH3 CH 3 H H CH3
H | | | | | |
(A) C =O (B) C === C (C) C === C (D) C = C
| | | | | |
H CH3 H CH 3 H CH3 CH3

(A) AsH3 (B) SbH3 (C) PH3 (D) NH3
128. If dipole moment of chlorobenzene is 1.73D, then what will be the dipole moment of
P-dichlorobenzene ?
(A) 3.46D (B) 0.00D (C) 1.73D (D) 1.00D
129. Which of the following molecule shows dipole moment ?
(A) 1, 4-dichlorobenzene (B) Cis-1, 2-dichloro ethene
(C) Trans-1, 2-dichloro ethene (D) Trans-2, 3-dichloro But-2-ene
91
(A) CH4 (B) CHCl3 (C) CCl4 (D) CH2Cl2
131. Mention the correct order of polarity for the given molecule ?
(A) NH3 < H2O < HF > H2S (B) H2S < NH3 < H2O < HF
(C) H2O < NH3 < H2S < HF (D) HF < H2O < NH3 < H2S
132. Arrange the molecules in increasing order of dipole moment ?
(I) Toluene (II) m-dichlorobenzene (III) 0-dichlorobenzene (IV) P-dichlorobenzene
(A) I, IV, II, III (B) IV, I, II, III (C) IV, I, III, II (D) IV, II, I, III
133. Which of the following molecule has both polar and non polar bond ?
(A) NH4Cl (B) HCN (C) H2O2 (D) CH4
Answers : 117. (A), 118. (C), 119. (B), 120. (C), 121. (C), 122. (C), 123. (A), 124. (A),
125. (A), 126. (A), 127. (D), 128. (B), 129. (B), 130. (D), 131. (B), 132. (B),
133. (A)
Resonance
When any substance/molecule/ion can be described by more than one electronic structure, where
any one electronic structure can describe all the characteristic property of the molecule then all the
possible electronic structures are called resonating structure and the phenomena is known as resonance.
eg., Resonance in O3

O O O
1.2
1.4
A
1
8
8
« º
1.2
A
A

O O O O O O

Resonating structures have identical arrangement of components.

Resonating structures have same bond angle between components.
Resonating structures have different electronic arrangement.
Resonating structures have same number of bonds
Resonating structures are more stable than normal structure of substance.
Minimum energy required for interconversion between resonating structures is called resonance
energy.
Resonating structures have same number of paired and unpaired electron.
134. Which of the following molecule shows resonance ?
(A) O3 (B) NH3 (C) CH4 (D) H2O

135. How many resonating structures are possible in carbonate ion ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 9
92
136. Which of the following does not show resonating structure ?
(A) C6H6 (B) CO2 (C) CO32 (D) SiO2
137. How many non bonded electron pair are present in the central atom of O3 molecule ?
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 2 (D) 3
138. Which of the following statement is not correct for resonating structures ?
(A) Resonating structures have equal energy
(B) Resonating structures do not have same number of electron pair.
(C) Arrangement of electron is different in resonating structures.
(D) Resonating structures have identical arrangement of atoms.
139. What is different in resonating structures ?
(A) Atomic arrangement (B) Electronic arrangement (C) Reactive group (D) Alkali group
140. Because of resonance ....
(A) bond length decreases. (B) energy of molecule decreases.
(C) stability of molecule increases. (D) all given are true.
Answers : 134. (A), 135. (B), 136. (D), 137. (A), 138. (B) 139. (B) 140. (D)
Molecular Orbital Theory (MOT)

Atomic orbitals of equal energy undergo complimentry and opposing overlapping with each other
producing Molecular orbital.
electrons are arranged in atomic orbital and molecular orbitals on the basis of Aaf-bau, Pauli and
Hunds rule.
The number of atomic orbitals that combine with each other is the same number of molecular
orbitals. Half the number of these molecular orbitals are called Bonding Molecular Orbital (BMO) and
remaining half number are called Antibonding Molecular Orbitals (ABMO).
Energy of BMO is less than the energy of ABMO.
Conditions for Linear Combination of Atomic Orbitals (LCAO)
(1) The atomic orbitals of the combining atoms must possess similar energies.
(2) The combining atoms must be as near as possible so that the overlapping can be maximum on
the axis of atomic orbitals.
(3) The symmetry of the atomic orbitals of combining atoms must be same.
Order of energy of molecular orbitals for 14 or less than 14 electron containing system (atom/ion)
* * * * *
s 1s < s 1s < s 2s < s 2s < (p2px = p 2py) < s 2px < (p 2 px = p 2 py) < s 2 pz
Order of energy of molecular orbitals more than 14 electron containing system (atom/ion)
* * * * *
s1s < s 1s < s 2s < s 2s < s 2Pz < (p2px = p 2py) < (p 2 px = p 2 py) < s 2 pz
(Number of e- in BMO number of e- in ABMO)

1
Bond order = B.O. = -
2
1
= [Nb - Na]
2
93
M.O. diagram for 14 or M.O. diagram for
less than 14 e- system more than 14 e- system
*
s 2 pz
s *2 pz * *
p 2 px = p2 py
2p 2p
p *2 px *
p2p
y
p2px = p2py
2p 2p
s2pz s2pz
p2px 2py
p
Energy
s*2s
Energy
s*2s
2s 2s
2s 2s
s2s
s2s
s*1s s*1s
1s 1s 1s 1s
s1s s1s
M.O. diagram for M.O. diagram for

N2 molecule O2 molecule
1 1 1 1
B.O. = [Nb - Na] = (10 - 4) = 3 B.O. = [Nb - Na] = (10 - 6) = 2
2 2 2 2
94
Method to calculate bond order
Electron Bond order Example
08 0.0 Be2
09 0.5 B2+, Be2-
10 1.0 B2, Be22-
11 1.5 C2+, B2-
12 2.0 C2, N2+2
13 2.5 N2+, C2-
14 03 N2, O2+2
15 2.5 O2+, N2-
16 2.0 O2, N22-
17 1.5 O2-, F2+
18 1.0 O22-, F2
19 0.5 F2-
20 00 F2-2, Ne2
Method to calculate bond order of multiatomic ion or molecule
Benzene [C6H6] ¬-®

Total no. of bonds between two atoms in a molecule
B.O. =
number of resonating structure of molecule
2 +1
= = 1.5
2

O
CO32- :
4
O = C \ B.O. = = 1.33
3

O

O
||
ClO-4 :
7
O = Cl − O

\ B.O. = = 1.75
|| 4

1 1 1
Bond order a stability a dissociation enthalpy a lattice enthalpy a Bond length a
activity a
reactivity
95
141. Which of the following shows correct order of stability of component ?
(A) Li2 < Li2+ < Li2- (B) Li2- < Li2+ < Li2 (C) Li2 < Li2- < Li2+ (D) Li2- < Li2 < Li2+
142. Which of the following components does not exist ?
(A) H2+, He22- (B) H2-, He22- (C) H22+, He (D) H2-, He22+
143. Which of the following has same bond order ?
(A) N2+, O2 (B) N2+, O22+ (C) N2-, O2 (D) N2, O2
144. What is correct for peroxide ion according molecular orbital principle ?
(A) It has bond order 2 and is diamagnetic (B) It has bond order 1 and is paramagnetic
(C) It has bond order 1 and is diamagnetic (D) It has bond order 2 and is paramagnetic
145. Which of the following component has bond order different from that of CO ?
(A) NO- (B) NO+ (C) CN- (D) N2
146. Based on MO theory how many nonbonded electron pair are present in O2-2 ?
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 5
147. Which of the following has the least bond length ?
(A) O2+2 (B) O2+ (C) O2- (D) O22-
148. Show decreasing order of bond length.
(A) N22- > N2 > N2- (B) N22- > N2- > N2 (C) N2 > N22- > N2- (D) N2- > N22- > N2
149. For the following molecules show the correct order of bond length in O-O bond.
(A) H2O < O2 < O3 (B) O2 < H2O2 < O3 (C) O2 < O3 < H2O2 (D) O3 < H2O < O 2
150. Show the correct order of bond length in C-O bond.
(A) CO < CO32- < CO2 (B) CO < CO2 < CO32-
(C) CO2 < CO32- < CO (D) CO32- < CO < CO2
151. In which of the following ionization process, bond order increases and there is change in magnetic
property ?
(A) C2 ®C 2
+
(B) NO ® NO +
(C) O2 ®O 2
+
(D) N2 ®N 2
+
152. Based on MO theory, which of the following statement is true with respect to magnetic property and
bond order for O2+.
(A) paramagnetic and bond order < O2 (B) paramagnetic and bond order > O2
(C) diamagnetic and bond order < O2 (D) diamagnetic and bond order > O2
153. Based on MO theory what is diamagnetism of O2 dependent on ?
(A) unpaired electron in bonding sigma molecular orbital.
(B) unpaired electron in non bonding sigma molecular orbital.
(C) unpaired electron in bonding p molecular orbital.
(D) unpaired electron in non bonding p molecular orbital.
96
154. When N2 ® N2+ and O2 ® O2+ where is electron removed from respectively ?
(A) (p*2py or p*2px) and (p*2py or p*2px)
(B) (p2px or p2py) and (p2px or p2py)
(C) (s2pz) and (p*2py or p*2px)
(D) (p*2py or p*2px) and (p2py or p2px)
155. Which of the following is the correct order for bond energy of given component ?
(A) NO -
> NO > NO (B) NO > NO > NO (C) NO > NO > NO (D) NO > NO > NO
+ - + + - + -
156. Which of the following components is not paramagnetic ?

-
(A) ClO2 (B) ClO 2
(C) NO2 (D) NO
157. Which of the following components is paramagnetic ?
- - +
(A) CO (B) O 2
(C) CN (D) NO
158. Which of the following components is/are diamagnetic ?
(A) C2 (B) N2 (C) O2 (D) S2
159. Which of the following component is diamagnetic ?
- 2 +
(A) O2 (B) O2 (C) O2 (D) NO
160. Which of the following component is diamagnetic ?
- + +
(A) H2 (B) H2 (C) H2 (D) He2
161. Which of the following molecule is paramagnetic ?
(A) Na2O2 (B) O3 (C) N2O (D) KO2
162. Which one has same bond order ?
- + - - + + - +
(A) CN , CN (B) O2 , CN (C) NO , CN (D) CN , NO
163. Which of the following does not have bond order ?
(A) N2 +
(B) O22 +
(C) N2 (D) NO +
164. Show the correct order of strength of bond for dioxygen molecule, peroxide ion, superoxide ion as
well as mono positive di oxygen ion ?
(A) O2 +
> O2 > O22 > O2
- -
(B) O2 +
> O2 > O2 > O22
- -
(C) O22 -
> O2 > O2 > O2
- +
(D) O22 -
> O2 > O2
- +
> O2
165. In a N2 molecule having bond order 3, if there are four electrons in ABMO, then how many electrons
are there in BMO ?
(A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 10 (D) 8
166. Bond order of PO43- ion is .......... .
(A) 1.33 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.25 (D) 3.0
-
167. Bond order of perchlorate (ClO4) ion is .......... .
(A) 1.35 (B) 2.35 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.75
97
168. In which of the following components there are maximum electrons in ABMO ?
(A) O2 (B) O22- (C) O2- (D) O2+
169. Based on MO theory, how many electron pairs are present in M.O. diagram of Ne2 molecule ?
(A) 7 (B) 10 (C) 5 (D) 3
Answers : 141. (B), 142. (C), 143. (B), 144. (C), 145. (A), 146. (A), 147. (A),
148. (B), 149. (C), 150. (B), 151. (B), 152. (B), 153. (D), 154. (C),
155. (C), 156. (B), 157. (B), 158. (A), (B) 159. (A), 160. (C), 161. (D),
162. (D), 163. (A), 164. (B), 165. (C), 166. (C), 167. (D), 168. (B),
169. (B)
Hydrogen bond (H-bond)
The attraction produced between N, O, F elements having high electronegativity with negative charge
and less electronegativity (electropositive) possessing H-atom is called Hydrogen bond.
Type of H-Bond
¯ ¯
Intramolecular H-Bond Intermolecular H-Bond
¯ ¯
Even Intermolecular H-Bond Odd intermolecular H-Bond
Intra molecular H bond : In one molecule itself one component with high electronegativity forms
a bond with less electronegative component.
O H O H
O # O #
N O C O
|| |
. O H
o-nitrophenol salicylaldehyde
Intermolecular H Bond : Formation of H bond in two or more same or different type of compounds
is called Intermolecular H-bond.
H-bond between molecule H-bond between molecules

of same compound of different compound
H H H H H H H H
O O O O
O O O O
R H R H
H H H H
effect of H-bond
(1) Those organic compounds which form H-bond with water are water soluble and those which
do not form H-bond will remain water insoluble.
98
(2) With increase in strength of H-bond in compounds (liquid) viscosity increases.
(3) Dielectric constant increases as polarity increases due to H-bond.
(4) There is increase in melting point / boiling point of compound due to H-bond.
(5) Due to H-bond experimential molecular mass increases eg. CH3COOH exist as a dimer due
to H-bond.
(6) Physical state of a substance changes due to H-bond. eg. H2O is liquid, while H2S is gas.
Van der waal force of attraction

Deviation in behaviour of ideal gas : On studying this phenomena Van der Waal mentioned weak
attractive force exist between any two gaseous molecules which cannot be explained by any principle
or any other chemical reaction. Such force of attraction is known as Van der Waal force of attraction.
o
It is a weak force of attraction which prevails upto 4.5 A distance.
As its magnitude is less as 10 Kcal, it is mostly hidden under by other attractive forces.
Factors affecting Van der Waals force of attraction are
- shape of molecule
- contact surface of molecule
- number of electrons in molecule
- average intermolecular distance
Type of Van der Waals force of attraction
- dispersion / london force
- dipole-dipole force
- dipole induced dipole force
170. Why is density of water maximum at 277 K temperature ?

(A) due to H-bond (B) due to Ionic bond
(C) due to Co-ordinate bond (D) due to metallic bond
171. Which of the following has maximum number of H-bond ?
(A) Ethanol (B) Diethylether (C) ethylchloride (D) Triethylamine
172. Which of the following is the strongest bond ?
(A) F H F (B) F H O
(C) O H S (D) O H N
173. Compared to other Hydrogen Halides, Hydrogen flouride is liquid, because ....
(A) small size of F atom (B) HF is a weak acid
(C) H-F molecules are joined by H-bond (D) Flourine is strong reagent
99
174. In which of the following there is no H-bond ?
(A) phenol (B) liquid NH3 (C) water (D) liquid HCl
175. Boiling point of H2S is less than that of H2O because .......... .
(A) H-bond (B) high specific density
(C) less ionization (D) high dielectric constant
176. Hydrogen bond is formed in those substances which possess H bond and ......... .
(A) more electronegative atom (B) more electro positive atom
(C) metal atom with completely filled d-orbital (D) metalloid
177. Show the pair having strongest H-bond.
(A) SiH4, SiF6 (B) CH3 C CH3, CHCl3

||
O
(C) H C OH, CH3 C OH (D) H2O, H2O2

|| ||
O O
178. Which of the following has strongest H-bond ?
(A) Methanol (B) Dimethylamine
(C) Acetic acid (D) Methyl thio alcohol
179. Which of the following has H-bond ?
(A) SiH4 (B) LiH (C) HI (D) NH3
180. Which of the following has maximum strongest H-bond ?
(A) H2O (B) H2Se (C) H2Te (D) HF
181. Boiling point of p-nitrophenol is more than o-nitrophenol because ............
(A) behaviour of NO2 group is diferent in at o and p-positions
(B) p-nitrophenol has intramolecular H-bond.
(C) p-nitrophenol has intermolecular H-bond.
(D) molecular mass of p-nitrophenol is more than o-nitrophenol
182. Which of the following does not have H-bond ?
(A) Acetic Acid (B) Ammonia (C) Ethanol (D) Diethyl ether
183. Which of the following has maximum possibility of H-bond formation ?
(A) NH3 (B) NH2OH (C) HF (D) CH3F
100
184. Methanol and ethanol are water soluble because .........
(A) covalent bond (B) H-bond (C) O-bond (D) None
185. Nature of H-bond is ..........
(A) ionic (B) covalent (C) co-ordinate covalent (D) None
186. Which factor increases Van der Waals force of attraction ?
(A) Number of electron (B) Inter molecular distance
(C) Number of proton (D) Number of neutron
187. Why is Van der Waals force of attraction created ?
(A) Nucleus of molecules attract each other.
(B) Electrons on the surface of the molecule attract other molecules electron on the surface
(C) Electrons on the surface of the molecule are attracted by the nucleus of other molecules
(D) Electrons on the surface of the molecule are repelled by the nucleus of other molecules.
188. Which of the following is not a factor affecting Van der Waals force of attraction ?
(A) Shape of molecules (B) Number of electrons in molecule
(C) Bond formed between atoms in a molecule (D) Contact surface of molecule
189. Show the correct order of strength of Van der Waals force of attraction.
(A) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2(B) F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2 (C) Br2 < Cl2 < F2 < I2 (D) Cl2 < F2 < Br2 < I2
190. On what basis the less stability of liquid organic compound can be explained ?
(A) H-bond (B) Metalic bond
(C) Van der Waals force of attraction (D) None
Answers : 170. (A), 171. (A), 172. (A), 173. (C), 174. (D), 175. (A), 176. (A), 177. (C),
178. (C), 179. (D), 180. (D), 181. (C), 182. (D), 183. (D), 184. (B), 185. (A),
186. (A), 187. (C), 188. (C), 189. (B), 190. (C)
Metallic Bond :
Bonds present in solid metallic crystals are called Metallic Bond.

Metallic Bond is formed between positively charged atomic kernel and negatively charged delocalised
electron.
Electron sea model :
⊕ - - - ⊕ metallic bond
- ⊕ - ⊕ - metal crystal
- - - - -
- ⊕ - ⊕ - delocalised electron
- - ⊕ - -
- ⊕ - ⊕ - Atomic kernel
Metalic bond does not have directional properties and it is weaker than covalent bond.
101
Due to metallic bond, properties like electrical conductivity, ductileability, mleability, heat conductor
etc. are seen in metal.
191. Which of the following is not possible in metallic bond ?

(A) overlapping (B) free electron
(C) delocalised electron (D) None
192. Which oxide indicates metal like conductivity ?
(A) ReO3 (B) VO (C) CrO2 (D) given all
193. Which of the following has no contribution of metallic Bond ?
(A) Brass (B) Copper (C) Germanium (D) Zinc
194. Which of the following is the example of solid metallic crystal ?
(A) C (B) Si (C) W (D) AgCl
195. Iron is more stronger than sodium because ..........
(A) size of Iron atom is small (B) Iron atoms are more closely arranged
(C) Metallic bond in Iron is more (D) None
196. Which of the following shows strongest bond formation ?
(A) Van der Waals (B) Metallic bond (C) Dipole-Dipole (D) H-bond
197. ............ crystals are known as good conductors of Heat and electricity.
(A) Ionic crystal (B) Covalent crystal (C) Metallic crystal (D) Molecular crystal
198. If there is increase in charge of the metal ion in the crystal then it .......... strength of metallic bond.
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) no increase or decrease (D) increases or decreases
199. Which of the following has highest melting point ?
(A) Pb (B) Diamond (C) Fe (D) Na
200. Which properties can be explained using metallic Bond ?
(A) Heat conductivity (B) Maleability (C) Ductileability (D) given all
Answers : 191. (A), 192. (B), 193. (A), 194. (C), 195. (C), 196. (B), 197. (C), 198. (A),
199. (B), 200. (D)
102
5 Thermodynamics
Thermodynamics
A branch of science in which various energy changes associated with physical and chemical
reaction are studied is called Thermodynamics.
The branch which studies energy changes in chemical reactions is called chemical thermodynamics.
Entire thermodynamics is constructed on the basis of zeroth low, first law, second law and third law.
Application
(1) It can predict wether a physical or chemical reaction will occur dpontaneously or not in a
definite condition.
(2) Upto what extent will a reaction occur before it achieves equilibrium and how much product
will be obtained can be predicted.
(3) energy changes occuring during a process can be determined.
(4) Law of active masses, phase rule etc. can be derived.
Limitation
(1) Thermodynamics can study macroscopic properties of a system. While it cannot describe the
properties of free atom or molecules.
(2) Cannot give any information of rate of reaction.
(3) Does not give any information on mechanism of reaction. It is simply related to the initial and
final state of reaction.
System
An extremely small part of the universe which is seperated from the remaining part of universe on
which we note the observations of the experiments carried out by externel changes is called system.
The remaining part of the universe excluding the system is called surrounding.
System + Surrounding = universe
Types of system
¯
¯ ¯ ¯
Open system Closed system Isolated system
¯ ¯ ¯
exchange of energy and Exchange of energy No exchange of energy
matter between system and between system and and matter between
surrounding on its own. surrounding on its own system and surrounding on its own.
State function
The values of the properties of the system which depend on the state of the system but do not
depend on the method how the state can be obtained are called the state function.
Extensive properties : Depends on quantity of matter.
Example : quantity, mass, volume, Heat capacity, enthalpy, entropy, internal energy, free energy,
pressure etc.
Intensive properties : Does not depend on quantity of matter but depend on characteristic of matter.
Example : Temperature, refractive index, viscosity, density, surface tension, specific Heat, melting
point, boiling point, cell potential, pH of solution, molefraction etc.
103
Thermodynamical equilibrium : With change in time, if microscopic properties like temperature,
pressure of system does not change, then such a system is said to be in thermodynamical equilibrium.
Thermodynamical process : If system changes its state from one equilibrium state to another equi-
librium state then it is called a thermodynamical process and they are of different types as follows :
Types of process
¯
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
Isothermal process Adiabatic process Isocohric process Isobaric process
during process during process during process during process
temperature heat remains volume remains pressure remains
remains constant constant constant constant
dT =0 dq =0 dV =0 dP =0
Reversible process : If the state of a system is changing with infinitesimal rate, then the difference
in state function values of system and surrounding are very small and at each microscopic stage there exist
an equilibilian between system and surrounding. This type of process are called reversible process.
irreversible process : If a system changes its state very fast in one step, such process is called
irreversible process. In this process the system cannot be brought into initial state from final state on same path.
1. Which of the following is not related to thermodynamics ?
(A) rate of reaction (B) direction of reaction
(C) energy changes during reaction (D) on the proportion of reaction completion
2. What is the type of system if it does 20 joule work when 30 joule heat is added to the system ?
(A) Open (B) closed (C) isolated (D) Free
3. If boiling point of 1 litre water is 373 K, then boiling point of 500 ml water .......
(A) decreases and becomes half (B) Increases and becomes double
(C) will remain constant (D) Increases and becomes four times
4. If fusion enthalpy of ice at 0° C is 6 KJ/mole, then what is the fusion enthalpy of 36 gm ice ?
(A) 6 (B) 36 (C) 12 (D) 3
5. What is true for adiabatic process ?
(A) D p = 0 (B) D v = 0 (C) D q = 0 (D) D T = 0
6. Adiabatic process occurs in .......
(A) open system. (B) closed system. (C) isolated system. (D) given any system.
7. Which of the following characteristics is not true for a reversible process ?
(A) State of the system changes at extremely slow rate.
(B) System passes through many stages while changing state from one to another.
(C) Such type of process take lot of time for completion.
(D) In such type of process, equilibrium is not established between system and surrounding in every step.
Answers : 1. (A), 2. (B), 3. (B), 4. (C), 5. (C), 6. (B), 7. (D)
104
Zeroth law of Thermodynamics : The process of achieving thermal equilibrium between two
thermally conducting bodies having different temperatures is called zeroth law. In other way If two
thermally conducting bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third substance, then the two thermally
conducting bodies are also in equilibrium with each other.
Internal Energy (U) : In every substance definite energy is stored in it on the basis of its mass and
characteristics, is called internal energy. It is the sum of different types of energies of atoms and molecules.
U = Ep + Ek
It is a state function and an extensive property.
Its absoulte value cannot be measured but change (D U) can be measured.
D U = Uf - Ui or D U = UP - UR
Internal energy of system can be changed in two different ways : (1) By adding or removing
heat (2) By work done on the system or work done by the system.
First law of Thermodynamics
Total energy of the universe remains constant.
Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed.
Symbolic form : D U = q + w
U is a state function, while q and w are not state functions.
(1) If heat is added to the system, value of q is +ve and heat is released from the system, value
of q is ve.
(2) If work is done on the system, value of w is +ve if work is done by the system, value of w is ve.
Mainly two types of work are considered in Thermodynamics
(1) Electrical work : Welect = nFEcell
(2) Mechanical work (Pressure volume type of work) :
(a) Work done when volume of system increases during an isothermal reversible process :
V2 P1
w = - nRTln V = - nRTln P
1 2
(b) Work done when volume of system decreases during a isothermal reversible process :
V2 P1
w = nRTln V = nRTln P
1 2
(c) Work done when volume of system changes at constant external pressure in an isother-
mal irreversible process
w = - PD V = - P(V2 - V1) = - P(Vf - Vi)
If volume increases w = - ve, and volume decreases w = + ve
(d) Work done during expansion of ideal gas in vaccum in an isothermal irreversible
process :
w = 0
105
Unit of q and w :
with respect to q, with respect to w,
1 calorie = 4.184 joule 1 joule = 1 newton meter = 1 kg m2 s2-
1 joule = 0.239 calorie 1 litre bar = 101.3 joule
1 litre bar » 100 joule
According to first law of thermodynamics, change in energy at constant volume, qv = D U
Enthalpy (H) : Sum of internal energy and work energy is called enthalpy (H), Mathematically,
H = U + PV
Enthalpy is a state function and extensive property. Absolute value of H is not possible, but
change in enthalpy (D H) can be measured.
D H = D U + PD V
and D H = qp
For system having gasseous form of matter
D H = D U + D n(g)RT Where D n(g) = np(g) - nr(g)
or qp = qv + D n(g)RT where, R = 8.314 JK-1 mole-1

Process occurring at constant volume Process occurring at constant pressure
(1) energy is removed (Exothermic reaction) (1) energy is removed (Exothermic reaction)
then qv = D U = - ve then qp = D H = - ve
(2) energy is absorbed (Endothermic reaction) (2) energy is absorbed (Endothermic reaction)
then qv = D U = + ve then qp = D H = + ve
Isothermal expansion or contraction of ideal gas,
D H = 0 and D U = 0
8. Which of the following option is correct for a system, In which 240 KJ of internal energy increased
when system does 90 KJ of work ?
(A) 330 KJ heat is added from surrounding to system.
(B) 150 KJ heat is added from surrounding to system.
(C) 330 KJ heat is added to surrounding from system.
(D) 150 KJ heat is added to surrounding from system.
9. In a system having ideal gas if 607.8 joule work is done, calculate the change in volume of a system
having 20 atmospheric pressure ? (1 litre atm = 101.3 joule)
(A) 3.5 litre volume decreases (B) increases volume by 0.3 litre
(C) Increases volume by 2.4 litre (D) decreases volume by 1.2 litre
10. Volume of ideal gas under external atmospheric pressure changes from 250 cm3 to 500 cm3. During this
process if 10 joule of heat is added to the surrounding, calculate change in internal energy of the system ?
(A) - 35.32 joule (B) - 15.32 joule (C) 15.32 joule (D) 35.32 joule
11. What will be the amount of work done for 3 mole of ideal gas at 27° C temperature doubling its
volume during an isothermal reversible expansion ?
(A) + 8157 joule (B) - 5187 joule (C) - 5871 joule (D) + 8751 joule
106
12. What will be the work done when temperature of 1 mole ideal gas under constant external pressure
increases from 0°C to 100°C ?
(A) 831.4 joule (B) - 100 joule (C) 0 joule (D) - 831.4 joule
13. What will be the value of D H - D U for formation of carbon monoxide at 298 K temperature ?
(A) - 1238.78 joule mole-1 (B) 1238.78 joule mole-1
(C) - 2477.57 joule mole-1 (D) 2477.57 joule mole-1
14. Calculate D U for converting 72 gm of water into vapour at 100°C assume that water vapour behaves
as ideal gas. Heat of vapourisation of water is 540 calorie gm-1.
(A) 35.896 K cal (B) 41.864 K cal (C) 38.88 K cal (D) 27.452 K cal
15. Calculate amount of heat released when 2.7 gm Al reacts with Fe2O3 ?
[2Al + Fe2O3 ® 2Fe + Al2O3, D H° = - 852KJ]
(A) 852 KJ (B) 426 KJ (C) - 42.6 KJ (D) + 42.6 KJ

16. For which of the following reactions D H = D U?
(A) N2O4(g) ® 2NO2(g) (B) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ® 2SO3(g)
1
(C) H2(g) + Cl2(g) ® 2HCl(g) (D) H2(g) + O ® H2O(l)
2 2(g)
17. For combustion of propane gas D H - D U = ..........

(A) - RT (B) + RT (C) - 3RT (D) + 3RT
18. Calculate value of D H - D U for formation of carbon monoxide at 298 K from its elements ?
(A) - 0.5 RT (B) 0.5 RT (C) - RT (D) + RT
19. In different open containers CaC2, Al4C3 and Mg2C3 are reacted with one mole water each, then
which of the following options is correct for order of work done by the system ?
(A) CaC2 = Mg2C3 < Al4 C3 (B) CaC2 = Mg2C3 = Al4 C3
(C) CaC2 < Al4C3 < Al4 C3 (D) CaC2 < Al4C3 = Mg2C3
20. Calculate enthalpy of combustion of ethanol if using bomb caloriemeter heat measured for
combustion of 1 mole of ethanol at 25 ° C is 1364.47 KJ ? (R = 8.314 jouleK-1mole-1)
(A) - 1366.95 KJmole-1 (B) - 1361.95 KJmole-1
(C) - 1460.50 KJmole-1 (D) - 1350.50 KJmole-1
Answers : 8. (A) , 9. (B), 10. (A), 11. (B), 12. (C), 13. (B), 14. (A) , 15. (C), 16. (C),
17. (C), 18. (B), 19. (A), 20. (A)
107
Heat of reaction
Heat of reaction D H°
r
= åD
f
H° (product) - åD
f
H° (Reaetant)
Standard enthalpy change = Standard energy of formation Standard energy of formation
of proudct of reactant
(1) Enthalpy of combustion (D cH) : Amount of heat released when 1 mole of organic
compound undergo combustion at 1 bar pressure is called enthalpy of combustion.
enthalpy of combustion of 1 gm substance is called calorie value.
∆cH
Calorie value =
mass
(2) Enthalpy of formation (D fH) : When one mole of compound is formed under standard
conditions from elemental state of constituent elements, the change in enthalpy is called standard
enthalpy of formation. (D fH°)
The value of standard enthalpy of formation of any element is zero.
(3) Enthalpy of Neutralisation (D nH) : When one gm equivalent weight of any strong acid in
its dilute solution neutralises one gm equivalent weight of any strong acid in its dilute solution, the
heat produced is called enthalpy of Neutralisation.
H+ (aq) + OH-(aq) ® H 2O ( l ) D n H = - 57.1 KJmole- 1
If acid or base or both (acid, base) are weak, then value of heat of neutralisation is less than 57.1 KJ .
(4) Enthalpy of solution (D solH) : Amount of enthalpy change when one mole solute is
completely dissolved in a solvent is called enthalpy of solution.
(5) Hydration Enthalpy (D hydH) : When 1 mole dehydrated or partly hydrated salt joins with
necessary moles of H2O the enthalpy changes is known as hydration enthalpy.
(6) Ionization Enthalpy (D ionH) : When 1 mole weak acid or weak base is completely
dissociated in a solution the enthalpy changes is known as Ionisation Enthalpy.
(7) Atomisation Enthalpy (D aH) : When all bonds in one mole substance are broken and all
atoms are seperated in gaseous state the enthalpy changes is called Atomisation Enthalpy (D aH) .
(8) Bond enthalpy (D bondH) : minimum amount of energy required to break one mole bond
and seperates atoms in gaseous state is called Bond enthalpy (D bondH).
D
r
H = Bond enthalpy of reactants - Bond enthalpy of products
(9) Enthalpy changes during transformation in physical state
gas ∆ vap H ∆ H
Example : H2O(s)  →
fusion enthalpy H2O(l)

Evaporation enthalpy
→ H O
2 (g )
∆ H
I2(s) sub
sublimation enthalpy
→ I
2(g)
108
(10) Hesss law : The total change in enthalpy in a chemical reaction is equal to the algebric
sum of the changes in enthalpy occuring during different steps.
Using Hesss law enthalpy of formation, enthalpy changes during conversion of different
allotropes of elements, various enthalpy of reaction can be calculated.
21. Based on the given information calculate enthalpy of formation of ethanol.
241.8 KJ mole-1
1
(i) H2(g) + O ® H2O(g), D H = -
2 2(g)
(ii) C(s) + O2(g) ® CO2(g), D H = - 393.5 KJ mole-1
(iii) C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) ® 2CO2(g)+ 3H2O(l), D H = - 1234.7 KJ mole-1

-1
(A) - 2747.1 KJ mole (B) - 277.7 KJ mole-1
(C) 277.7 KJ mole-1 (D) 2747.1 KJ mole-1
22. If standard enthalpy of combustion of ethane is 1564.5 KJ mole-1 then calculate standard
enthalpy of formation of ethane ? Standard enthalpy of formation of CO2(g) and H2O(l) is - 395
and - 286 KJmole-1 respectively.
(A) - 83.5 KJmole-1 (B) 108.5 KJmole-1 (C) - 167 KJmole-1 (D) - 123 KJmole-1
23. Based on given information calculate enthalpy of combustion of benzene ?
(i) 6C(s) + 3H2(g) ® C6H6(l), D H = 49 KJ
1
(ii) H2(g) + O ® H 2 O( g ) , D H = - 285.8 KJ
2 2(g)
(iii) C(s) + O2(g) ® CO2(g), D H = - 389.3 KJ
(A) - 162.1 KJmole-1 (B) + 3242.2 KJmole-1
(C) - 3242.2 KJmole-1 (D) 1621.1 KJmole-1
24. Enthalpy of combustion of graphite and diamond is - 393.5 and - 395.4 KJ mole-1 respectively then
calculate enthalpy changes to convert 1 mole graphite into 1 mole diamond.
(A) + 2.5 KJmole-1 (B) - 2.5 KJmole-1 (C) 1.9 KJmole-1 (D) - 1.9 KJmole-1
25. If dissociation enthalpy of CH3COOH is 0.005 Kcalgm-1 then calculate the energy released when 1
mole Ca(OH)2 is neutralised by CH3COOH ?
(A) 27.4 Kcal (B) 13.6 Kcal (C) 26.8 Kcal (D) 27.1 Kcal
26. Lattice enthalpy of NaCl(s) is 788 KJmole-1 and hydration enthalpy of NaCl(s) is - 784 KJmole-1
then NaCl(s) solution enthalpy is ........... .
(A) 4 KJmole-1 (B) - 4 KJmole-1 (C) - 1572 KJmole-1 (D) 1572 KJmole-1
109
27. What is the amount of energy released when 50 ml 0.1 M HCl(aq) is neutralised by 50 ml 0.1 M
NaOH(aq) ?
(A) 57.1 KJ (B) 114.2 KJ (C) -57.1 KJ (D) 2.9 KJ
28. At 298 K if solution enthalpy of solid MgSO4 is - 91.21 KJmole-1 and solution enthalpy of
MgSO4 .7H2O(s) is 13.81 KJmole-1 then calculate Hydration enthalpy of solid MgSO4 ?
(A) - 91.21 (B) - 105.02 (C) 105.02 (D) 91.21
29. At 298 K bond enthalpy of C -H, C - C, C = C and H - H bond is respectively 414, 347, 615
-1
and 434 KJ mole then calculate enthalpy changes of reaction at same temperature ?
CH2 = CH2(g) + H2(g) ® CH3 CH3(g)
(A) 250 KJ mole-1 (B) - 250 KJ mole-1 (C) 125 KJ mole-1 (D) - 125 KJ mole-1
30. Enthalpy of formation of Ammonia is - 45 KJ mole-1 and bond enthalpy of HH and NH is
435 KJ mole-1 and 390 KJ mole-1, calculate bond enthalpy of N º N?
(A) - 872.5 KJ mole-1 (B) -945 KJ mole-1 (C) 872.5 KJ mole-1 (D) 945 KJ mole-1
Answers : 21. (B), 22. (A), 23. (B), 24. (C), 25. (C), 26. (A), 27. (D), 28. (B). 29. (D),
30. (D)
Heat Capacity : Heat required to raise the temperature of the substance by 1°C
(unit : joule K-1)

q q
Heat capacity (C) = =
T2 − T1 ∆T
(unit : joule gm-1K-1)

q
Specific Heat Capacity (C) =
m ⋅ ∆T
q ⋅ Mw
Molar Heat capacity (Cm) = (unit : joule mole-1K-1)
m ⋅ ∆T
Heat capacity at constant volume (Cv) = ( ∆∆UT )v , Heat capacity at constant pressure (C ) ( ∆∆HT )p
p =
Cp - Cv = R (For 1 mole gas)

\ Cp - Cv = nR (For n mole gas)
(i) For monoatomic gas, Cp = 5 calorie Cv = 3 calorie
Cp
5
\ V =
Cv = = 1.67
3
(ii) For diatomic gas Cp = 7 calorie Cv = 5 calorie
Cp
7
\ V =
Cv = = 1.4
5
(iii) For triatomic gas Cp = 8 calorie, Cv = 6 calorie

Cp
8
\ V =
Cv = = 1.33
6
110
31. 0.1 mole of gas absorbs 41.75 joule of heat and temperature increases by 20° C, then the gas is
.......... .
(A) Triatomic (B) Diatomic (C) Polyatomic (D) Monoatomic
32. If one mole Helium gas has 1 C increase in temperature then the increase in internal energy is ......
°
(A) 2 calorie (B) 3 calorie (C) 4 calorie (D) 5 calorie

33. For a gas at STP having 4.48 litre constant volume if 12 calorie heat is required to increase
temperature by 15° C, then calculate value of Cp ?
(A) 3 calorie (B) 4 calorie (C) 7 calorie (D) 6 calorie
Answers : 31. (B), 32. (B), 33. (D)
Application of first law of Thermodynamics

Various types of energy changes, enthalpy changes in a chemical reaction can be determined.
Limitation of First law of Thermodynamics
Cannot determine the direction of the reaction occurring on its own and cannot determine upto what
extent reactant are converted into product.
Second law of thermodynamics
(i) Free energy of the system in all the spontaneous processes decreases.
(ii) In all spontaneous processes, the entropy of the universe increases.
Entropy
Measure of randomness in a system is called entropy S. It is an extensive property and a state
function. On increasing temperature, entropy increases. In given substance going from solid state to gaseous
state entropy increases. Absolute value of entropy and change in entropy can be measured.
D S = Sfinal - Sinitial, D S = Sp - SR
q rev
D S =
T
If there is a physical change in a state of a system, then entropy change can be obtained from the
following formula.
∆H Fusion ∆H vapourisation
D Sfusion = , D Svapourisation =
T T
∆Hsublimation
D Ssublimation =
T
To determine the direction of a spontaneous reaction. D STotal = D Ssystem + D Ssurrounding
If D STotal (universe) > 0, The reaction will occur in forward direction on its own
D Stotal < 0, the reaction will not occur in forward direction on its own
D Stotal = 0, The reaction will remain in equilibrium

Formula to calculate standard entropy of a substance,
S° = 2.303Cp log T
For n mole of ideal gas at constatnt temperature if volume changes then entropy change is,
V2 P1
D S = nRln V = nRln P
1 2
111
34. Which of the following reaction has maximum D S° ?
1
(A) CaCO3(g) ® CaO(s) + CO2(g) (B) Ca(s) + O ® CaO(s)
2 2(g)
(C) C(s) + O2(g) ® CO2(s) (D) N2(g) + O2(g) ® 2NO(g)
35. Calculate boiling point of a liquid, whose enthalpy of vapourisation is 6 KJmole-1 and entropy
change 16 joule mole-1 ?
(A) 273 K (B) 375° C (C) 375 K (D) 273° C
36. In irreversible adiabatic expansion of ideal gas increases volume from V1 to V2 then which of the
following statement is true ?
(A) D S(syst) = 0 and D S(surrounding) = +ve value (B) D S(syst) = +ve value and D S(surrounding) = 0
(C) D S(syst) = 0 and D S(surrounding) = 0 (D) D S(syst) = +ve value and D S(surrounding) = ve value
37. If DS(A → C) = 50 joule K-1, DS(C → D) = 30 joule K-1, DS(B → D) = 20 joule K,-1 DS(A → B) = ?
(A) 100 joule K-1 (B) 60 joule K-1 (C) - 100 joule K-1 (D) - 60 joule K-1
Answers : 34. (A) , 35. (C), 36. (A) , 37. (B)
Free energy
Free energy of a system is an extensive property and a state function. Absolute value of free
energy cannot be measured but change in free energy can be measured.
G = H - TS
\ D G = D H - TD S
or D G = GFinal - Ginitial
or D G = G(P) - G(R)
If value of D G < 0, reaction will occur in forward direction on its own
If value of D G > 0, reaction will not occur in forward direction on its own.
If D G = 0, The reaction remains in equilibrium.
For n mole of ideal gas at constant temperature, if volume changes then free energy change
V1 P2
D G = nRTln V and D G = nRTln P
2 1
From standard free energy of formation (D f G° ) standard free energy change can be measured
as
D
f
G° = åD
f
G° (p) - åD
f
G° (R)
Other Formulae
D
r
G° = - RTlnKc (relation between D
r
G° and equilibrium constant)
D
r
G° = - nFE° cell (relation with standard cell potential)
D
r
G° = D H° - T D S°
D G° = - WMax, D G = D G° + RTlnK
112
38. Which option is correct for process of H2O(l) ® H2O(g) ?
(A) D G = 0, D S = 0 (B) D G =+ ve, D S = 0 (C) D G = 0, D S = + ve (D) D G = - ve, D S = + ve
39. Partial pressure of CO2 on heating CaCO3(s) at 1000K temperature is 0.003 atm. If standard free
energy of formation is +27.2 calorie then calculate free energy change in the reaction ?
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) ?
(A) 12.6 Kcal (B) 15.6 Kcal (C) 13.4 Kcal (D) 14.2 Kcal
40. Which of the following statement is true for precipitation reaction of NaCl in AgNO3 solution ?
(A) D H of reaction = 0 (B) D H of reaction = D G
(C) D G of reaction is ve (D) given all
41. Value of D H and D S is positive for a reversible reaction at temperature T. If Te is the equilibrium
temperature, then for reaction to occur on its own .......... .
(A) Te > T (B) T > Te (C) T = Te (D) Te = ST
42. For reaction CaCO3(s) ® CaCO(s) + CO2(g) value of D H° and D S° are + 179.1 KJmole-1 and
160.2 joule K- 1. If value of D H° and D S° do not change with temperature. Then above which
temperature the reaction will occur in forward direction on its own ?
(A) 1008 K (B) 1200 K (C) 845 K (D) 1118 K
43. Equilibrium constant of P Q at 298 K is .......... . If standard enthalpy change and standard
entropy change for the reaction are - 54.07 KJmole-1 and 10 jolue K-1 mole- 1.
(A) 5 (B) 95 (C) 10 (D) 100
44. Standard entropy of A2, B2 and AB3 are 60, 40 and 50 JK- 1mole- 1 respectively. At which
temperature the following reaction will achieve equilibrium ?
1 3
A + B AB3, D H = - 30 K joule.
2 2 2 2
(A) 500 K (B) 750 K (C) 1000 K (D) 1250 K
45. On the basis of D fG° for the following reaction which of the following is the characteristic
oxidation state of lead and Tin ?
PbO2 + Pb ® 2PbO, D
f
G° < 0
SnO2 + Sn ® 2SnO, D
f
G° > 0
(A) + 4, + 2 (B) + 2, + 2 (C) + 4, + 4 (D) + 2, + 4
Answers : 38. (C), 39. (B), 40. (C), 41. (B), 42. (D), 43. (C), 44. (B), 45. (D)
46. 0.04 mole of ideal gas is filled in a cylinder. At constant temperature of 37° C this gas expands from
50 ml to 375 ml and gains 208 joule of heat. The value of q and w for this process is ......
respectively. [R = 8.314 joule mole-1K-1, . ln7.5 = 2.01]
(A) + 208 joule, - 208 joule (B) - 208 joule, - 208 joule
(C) - 208 joule, + 208 joule (D) + 208 joule, + 208 joule
113
47. Which of the following relation is not correct ?
∆Gsyst Vf
(A) ∆S = - T (B) For isothermal process wreversible = - nRTln V
Total i
∆H° − T∆S° −∆G ° RT

(C) ln K = (D) K = e
T
48. 2 moles of ideal gas during an isothermal reversible expansion increases from 10 dm3 to 100 dm3
then calculate entropy change ?
(A) 38.3 Jmole-1K-1 (B) 35.8 Jmole-1K-1 (C) 32.3 Jmole-1K-1 (D) 42.3 Jmole-1K-1
49. 4NO2(g) + O2(g) ® 2N2O5(g), D H

r
= - 111 KJ. If in this reaction instead of N2O5(g) , N2O5(s) is
obtained then calculate its D
f
H ? [D subH(N O )
= 54 KJmole-1]
2 5
(A) - 165 Kjoule (B) + 54 Kjoule (C) 219 Kjoule (D) - 219 Kjoule
50. At 298 K temperature standerd free energy of formation of CH3OH(l), H2O(l) and CO2(g) is - 166.2,
- 237.2 and - 394.4 KJmole- 1 respectively and if combustion enthalpy of CH 3OH(l ) is
- 726 KJmole-1 what will be the effeciency of the fuel cell using CH3OH as fuel ?
(A) 80 % (B) 87 % (C) 90 % (D) 97 %
51. From the given information of a thermodynamic reaction calculate D

f
H° (OH) at 298 K.
[D f H° (H+aq) = 0]
H2 O( l ) ® H+ (aq) + OH- (aq) ; D H= + 57.32 KJ
1
H2(g) + O ® H2O(l) ; D H = - 286.02 KJ
2 2(g)
(A) - 22.88 KJ (B) - 228.88 KJ (C) 228.88 KJ (D) - 343.52 KJ
52. If D
diss
H° (Cl = 240 KJ mole-1, D
eg
H° Cl = - 349 KJ mole-1, KJ D
hyd
H° (Cl- ) = - 381 KJmole-1.
2)
1
Calculate change in enthalpy for Cl Cl - (aq) ?
2 2(g)
(A) 152 KJmole-1 (B) - 850 KJmole-1 (C) - 610KJmole-1 (D) + 120 KJmole-1
53. Calculate the change in internal energy to convert 1 mole water into 1 mole vapour at 1 bar pressure
and 100° C temperature ? Assume water vapour behaves as ideal gas and enthalpy of vapourisation
of water at 370 K and 1 bar pressure is 41 KJmole-1.
(A) 4.100 KJmole-1 (B) 3.7904 KJmole-1 (C) 37.904 KJmole-1 (D) 41.00 KJmole-1
54. Which of the following statement is true for a reaction occurring on its own ?
(A) Change in entropy is positive for a reaction occuring on its own in an isolated system.
(B) Endothermic reactions never occur on their own.
(C) Exothermic reactions always occur on their own.
(D) Decrease in energy during a reaction is the only measure of its spontaneity.
114
55. If ratio of enthalpy of formation of CO2(g ) and SO 2(g ) is 4:3 and enthalpy of formation of CS2
is 26 KJmole-1, then for the following reaction calculate enthalpy of formation of SO2(g) ?
CS2(l) + 3O2(g) ® CO2(g) + 2SO2(g)
(A) - 88.6 Kcal mole-1 (B) - 52.5 Kcal mole-1 (C) - 71.7 Kcal mole -1 (D) - 47.8 Kcal mole -1
56. Ratio of bond enthalpy of XY, X2 and Y2 is 1:1 : 0.5 and D

f
H(xy) = - 200 KJmole-1 then calcualte
bond enthalpy of X2 ?
(A) 100 KJmole-1 (B) 300 KJmole-1 (C) 800 KJmole-1 (D) 400 KJmole-1
57. Calculate the energy released when 500 cm3 of 0.1 MHCl solution is mixed with 200 cm3 of 0.2 M
NaOH solution ?
(A) 2.292 KJmole-1 (B) 1.292 KJmole-1 (C) 0.292 KJmole-1 (D) 3.392 KJmole-1
58. Which of the following thermodynamic relation is true ?
(A) dG = VdP - Sdt (B) dE = PdV + TdS (C) dH = VdP + TdS (D) dG = VdP + SdT
59. If molar heat capacity of Al is 25KJmole-1, calculate the heat required to raise temperature of 54 gm
Al from 30° C to 50° C ? [MAl = 27 gm/mole]
(A) 1.5 KJ (B) 0.5 KJ (C) 1.0 KJ (D) 2.5 KJ
60. If combustion enthalpy of carbon and methane is - x KJmole-1 and + z KJmole-1 and formation
enthalpy of water is - y KJ mole-1 then calculate enthalpy of formation of methane ?
(A) (- x - y + z) KJ (B) (- z - x + 2y) KJ (C) (- x - 2y - z) KJ (D) (- x - 2y + z) KJ
61. Standard enthalpy of formation of CO2(g), H2O(l) and glucose at 25° C temperature is
-400 KJmole-1, - 300 KJmole- 1 and - 1300 KJmole- 1 respectively then calculate enthalpy of
combustion of 1 gm glucose at 25° C temperature and 1 bar pressure ?
(A) 2900 KJ (B) - 2900 KJ (C) - 16.11 KJ (D) 16.11 KJ
62. Calculate molar heat capacity of a monoatomic ideal gas in a reaction where ratio of P and V is 1 ?
4R 3R 5R
(A) (B) (C) (D) 0
2 2 2
63. In an adiabatic reversible process a sample of Argon gas at 1 atmosphere and 27° C temperature
increases its volume from 1.25 dm3 to 2.50 dm3 Calculate enthalpy changes during a reaction ?
Cv = 12.49 KJmole-1 for Argon.
(A) + 22.32 J (B) + 2.232 J (C) - 11.64 J (D) - 11.64 J
64. For which of the following D H = D U?
(A) PCl5(g) ® PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (B) 2CO(g) + O2 ® 2CO2(g)
(C) H2(g) + Br2(g) ® 2HBr(g) (D) C(s) + 2H2O(g) ® 2H2(g) + CO2(g)
115
65. Calculate combustion enthalpy of cyclopropane at 298 K from the given information ?
D
f
H° CO = - 300 KJmole-1, D
f
H° H O
= - 250 KJmole-1
2 2
D
f
H° propane = - 50 KJmole-1,
Cyclopropane ® propane, D H = - 30 KJmole-1.
(A) - 1470 KJmole-1 (B) - 1730 KJmole-1 (C) - 1670 KJmole-1 (D) - 1530 KJmole-1
66. H 2, cyclohexene and cyclohexane have enthalpy of combustion - 241, - 3800 and - 3920
-1
KJmole . Calculate Hydrogenation enthalpy of cycloHexene ?
(A) - 121 KJmole-1 (B) + 121 KJmole-1 (C) + 242 KJmole-1 (D) - 242 KJmole-1
67. If combustion enthalpy of methane and ethane is - 210 K cal mole-1 and - 368 K cal mole-1 respec-
tively. Calculate combustion enthalpy of Decane ?
(A) - 158 Kcal (B) - 1632 Kcal
(C) - 1700 Kcal (D) incomplete information
68. 1 atm
A(l) YZZZZZ
ZZZZZX A(g), D Hvap = 460.6 Kcalmol-1, Boiling point = 50 K. Calculate its boiling point at
10 atm ?
(A) 150 K (B) 75 K (C) 100 K (D) 200 K
69. Hydrogenation enthalpy of ethene is x1 and hydrogenation enthalpy of benzene is x2. Calculate
resonance energy of benzene ?
(A) x1 - x2 (B) x1 + x2 (C) 3x1 - x2 (D) x1 - 3x2
-1
70. Enthalpy of neutralisation of oxalic acid with strong base is - 25.4 Kcalmole . Enthalpy of
neutralisation of a strong acid and a strong base is - 13.7 Kcalequivalent-1 then calcualte
ionization enthalpy of H2C2O4 ?
(A) 1 Kcalmole-1 (B) 2 Kcalmole-1 (C) 18.55 Kcalmole-1 (D) 11.7 Kcalmole-1
71. Value of D U and q is ...... respectively for 1 mole ideal at 27° C temperature undergoing reversible
isothermal expansion from 2 atmosphere to 10 atmosphere ? (R = 2 calorie)
(A) 0, - 965.84 cal (B) - 965,84 cal, - 865.58 cal
(C) - 865.84 cal, - 865.58 cal (D) + 965.84 cal, + 865.58 cal
72. What will be the value of D H and D S at any temperature for a reaction occuring on its own ?
(A) D H and D S both have +ve value. (B) D H and D S both have ve value
(C) D H +ve and D S ve value. (D) D H ve and D S +ve value.
73. If 0.1 mole ideal gas at constant pressure absorbs 41.75 joule and increase temperature by 20°C then
the gas is ...... .
(A) diatomic (B) monoatomic (C) triatomic (D) polyatomic
74. Which of the following reaction will have entropy change positive ?
(A) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) (B) HCl(g) + NH3(g) NH4Cl(s)
(C) NH4NO3(s) N2O(g) + 2H2O(g) (D) MgO(s) + H2(g) Mg(s) + H2O(l)
75. When a 1 mole of monoatomic ideal gas at T K temperature and 1 bar pressure due to isothermal
expansion change volume from 1 litre to 2 litre, then calculate its temperature in K ?
T 2 2
(A) (B) T + (C) T (D) T -
2 3 × 0.0821 3 × 0.0821
23
116
76. Calculate the change in entropy on heating 200 gm water at constant pressure and increasing
temperature from 10°C to 20°C ? (at constant pressure, molar heat capacity is 75.3 joule K-1.mole-1]
(A) 29.0 joule K-1 (B) 227.0 joule K-1 (C) - 227.0 joule K-1 (D) - 29.0 joule K-1
77. At 298 K temperature, value of bond enthalpy for C - H, C - C, C = C and H - H is 414, 347, 615
-1
and 434 KJmole respectively then calculate hydrogenation enthalpy of ethene ?
(A) + 250 KJ (B) - 250 KJ (C) + 125 KJ (D) - 125 KJ
78. Based on the given bond enthalpy values, calculate enthalpy of formation of N2H4(g) ?
N - N ® 159 KJ mole-1 H - H ® 436 KJ mole-1
N = N ® 418 KJ mole-1 N - H ® 389 KJ mole-1
N º N ® 941 KJ mole-1
(A) + 711 KJ mole-1 (B) + 98 KJ mole-1 (C) - 98 KJ mole-1 (D) - 711 KJ mole-1
79. Calculate standard enthalpy change for the given reaction
Na2O(s) + SO3(g) ® Na2SO4(s)
146 KJ mole-1
1
(i) Na(s) + H2O(l) ® NaOH(s) + H D H° = -
2 2(g)
(ii) Na2SO4 + H2O(l) ® 2NaOH(s) + SO3(g) D H° = + 418 KJ mole-1
(iii) 2Na2O(s) + 2H2(g) ® 4Na(s) + 2H2O(l) D H° = + 259 KJ mole-1
(A) + 823 KJ (B) - 581 KJ (C) - 435 KJ (D) + 531 KJ
80. Enthalpy of formation of SF6(g), S(g) and F(g) are - 1100, 275 and 80 KJmole- 1 respectively.
Calculate average bond enthalpy of S - F bond ?
(A) 301 KJmole-1 (B) 220 KJmole-1 (C) 309 KJmole-1 (D) 280 KJmole-1
Answers : 46. (A), 47. (C), 48. (A), 49. (A), 50. (D), 51. (B), 52. (B), 53. (C), 54. (A),
55. (C), 56. (C), 57. (A), 58. (A), 59. (C), 60. (D), 61. (C), 62. (A), 63. (C),
64. (C), 65. (B), 66. (A), 67. (B), 68. (A), 69. (C), 70. (B), 71. (A), 72. (D),
73. (B), 74. (C), 75. (B), 76. (A), 77. (D), 78. (C), 79. (B), 80. (C)
Questions having one or more than one option correct :

81. Which of the following is a state function ?
(A) internal energy (B) irreversible expansion work
(C) reversible expansion work (D) molar enthalpy
82. Which of the following acid base have enthalpy of neutralisation - 53.7 KJ ?
(A) HCN and NaOH (B) HNO3 and NaOH (C) HCl and KOH (D) HCl and NH4OH
83. Which of the following thermodynamic condition is responsible for a spontaneous reaction at 300 K
temperatrue ?
(A) D G° = - 400 KJmole-1
(B) D H° = 200 KJmole-1, D S° = - 4 joule K-1mole-1
(C) D H° = - 200 KJmole-1, D S° = 4 joule K-1mole-1
(D) D H° = - 200 Jmole-1, D S° = 40 joule K-1mole-1
84. Which of the following is extensive property ?
(A) Elevation in Boiling point (B) Boiling point
(C) E.M.F. of the cell (D) Standard cell potential
117
85. In standard conditions, if the reaction is at equilibrium then,
(A) equilibrium constant K = 0 (B) equilibrium constant K = 1
(C) D H° = TD S° (D) D H° - TD S° < 0
86. For which of the following reaction D H > D U?
(A) H2(g) + I2(g) ® 2HI(g) (B) PCl5(g) ® PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(C) 2H2O2(l) ® 2H2O(l) + O2(g) (D) C(s) + O2(g) ® CO2(g)

87. Which of the following is not correct at 298 K ?
(A) D
f
G° (graphite) = 0 (B) D S° (graphite) = 0 (C) D
f
H° (graphite) = 0 (D) D
f
H° CO = 0
2
Answers : 81. (A), (D), 82. (B), (C), 83. (A), (C), (D), 84. (A), (C) 85. (B), (C), 86. (B), (C),
87. (B), (D)
88. Which type of enthalpy is related to Born Haber cycle ?
(A) D H
sub
(B) D
i
H (C) D
D
H (D) D
U
H
89. In which reaction entropy increases ?
(A) dissolution of salt in water
(B) evaporation of camphor
(C) crystalisation of sugar from its aqueous solution
(D) at constant temperature increase in pressure from 1 bar to 10 bar
90. Enthalpy change for C(graphite) ¾® C(g) is
(A) vapourisation enthalpy. (B) sublimation enthalpy
(C) enthalpy of conversion of allotropes (D) atomisation enthalpy
Each of the following questions have two statements. In which (A) statement of Assertion and
second (R) statement of reason studying the statements carefully on the basis of the given
instructions select the correct option.
(A) both statements are correct and reason (B) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) both statements are correct, but reason (B) is not the explanation of (A).
(C) Statement (A) is correct and reason (B) wrong.
(D) Statement (A) is wrong and reason (B) correct.
91. Assertion (A) : During isothermal expansion of ideal gas the absorbed heat is zero.
Reason (B) : volume occupied by ideal gas molecule is zero.
92. Assertion (A) : For all chemical reactions standard free energy of reaction is zero.
Reason (B) : At constant temperature and pressure decrease in free energy of system favours
spontaneous reaction.
93. Assertion (A) : Enthalpy of formation of H2O(l) is more than Enthalpy of formation of H2O(g).
Reason (B) : Enthalpy value is ve for H2O(g) ¾® H2O(l) .
94. Assertion (A) : Enthalpy of reaction of KOH and HClO4 and enthalpy of reaction of KOH and
HCl is same.
Reason (B) : HClO4 and HCl both are strong acids.
95. Assertion (A) : Entropy of elements is zero at zero kelvin temperature.
Reason (B) : All elements have standard entropy value more than 1.
Answers : 88. (A), (B), (C), (D) 89. (A), (B) 90. (B), (C), 91. (B), 92. (D), 93. (A), 94. (A),
95. (B)
118
Column type questions
96. Column : I Column : II
(i) H2(g) + Cl2(g) ® 2HCl(g) (p) D H = D U + RT
(ii) N2(g) + O2(g) ® 2NO(g) (q) D H = D U
(iii) PCl5(g) PCl3(s) + Cl2(g) (r) D H = D U - 2RT
(iv) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g) (s) D H < D U
Answers : (i) ® (q), (ii) ® (q), (iii) ® (p), (iv) ® (r), (s)

(i) (Theoretical enthalpy of formation) (p) enthalpy of reaction
(practical enthalpy of formation)
(ii) (reactant bond enthalpy) (q) Resonance energy
(product bond enthalpy)
(iii) CpD T (r) D U
(iv) CvD T (s) D H
Answers : (i) ® (q), (ii) ® (p), (s) (iii) ® (p), (s) (iv) ® (r)

1
(i) CO(g) + O ® CO2(g) (p) Hydrogenation enthalpy
2 2
(ii) C2H4(g) + H2(g) ® C2H6(g) (q) enthalpy of formation
(iii) NaOH(aq) + HCl2(aq) ® NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) (r) combustion enthalpy

1 3
(iv) N + H ® NH3(g) (s) Neutralisation enthalpy
2 2(g) 2 2(g)
Answers : (i) ® (r), (ii) ® (p), (iii) ® (s), (iv) ® (q)
Integer type Questions

99. Value of specific heat ratio is 1.66 for AX gas, then value of X can be ?
Answers : 1
100. N2(g) + 3H2(g) ® 2NH3(g) reaction heat capacity at constant volume is XRT more than heat capacity
at constant pressure then calcualte value of X ?
Answers : 2
101. For Melting point of a solid substance P is 1.502 KJmole-1 enthalpy change for converting 1 mole
liquid P to solid is - 5.5 JK-1, then at what temperature in celcius can liquid p be solified ?
Answers : 0

119
6 Solutions
Various methods to determine concentration of a solution are molality, molarity, molefraction,
percentage by volume, percentage by mass.
Solution : When two or more substances mix and form a uniform or homogeneous mixture then
such a mixture is called a solution.
Component or components whose proportion is relatively less in the solution are called solute.
Component whose proportion is maximum in the solution is called a solvent.
A solution having one solute and one solvent are called binary solution.
Particle of solute present in a homogeneous mixture have 109 meter diameter of size.
Concentration
Amount of solute dissolved in unit volume of solution or unit mass of solvent is called concentration.
Various methods indicating concentration of solution
¯
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
Normality Molarity Molality Formality Mole Fraction Mass fraction Parts per
(N) (M) (m) (F) (X) ¯ million (ppm)
¯ ¯
Percentage by volume Percentage by mass

¯ ¯
V W
(% ) (% )
V V
Molality (m)
When 1 gm mole of solute is dissolved in 1 kg of solvent the produced solution is called 1 molal
solution or molality of solution is said to be 1.
no. of moles of solute

\ molality (m) =
Mass of solvent (in kg)
mass of solute (in gm)

\ molality (m) =
Molecular mass of solute × weight of solvent (in kg)
for eg., 0.2 molal glucose solution - means 0.2 mole glucose is dissolved in 1000 gms of water.
Molality of solution does not change with temperature because there is no effect of temperature on
weight.
Concentration of a molal (m) solution is less than the concentration of a molar (M) solution.
Mathematically molaity is
gm mole of solute
m = wt of solvent in kg
120
mass of solute 1000
m = ´
mass of solvent (in gram)
molecular mass of solute
milimoles of solute
m =
mass of solvent (in gm)
10 × solubility
m =
100 × percentage by weight of solute(x)

m =
(100 − x ) × molecular mass of solute
Molarity (M)
When 1 gm mole of solute is dissolved in 1 litre of solution it produces 1 molar solution or molarity
of the solution is 1.
gm/litre
In short, Molarity (M) =
Molecular mass
Molarity (M) =
number of moles of solute in short molarity =
mole
volume of solution in litre litre
eg. 1 molar sugar solution means, 1 mole sugar (342 gm or 6.022 ´ 1023 molecules of sugar)
dissolved in 1 litre solution.
Molarity of solution depends on temperature as there is effect of temperature on volume of the
solution.
unit of molarity is mole/litre or mole/dm3.
Mathematically Molarity,
number of moles (n) of solute dissolved in 1 litre of solution

M =
Molecular mass of solute
Mass of solute (in gm) 1000

M = ´
volume of solution (n ml)
millimoles of solute
M =
Volume of solution (in ml)
M =
% 0f solute × 10
strength of solute in gm/litre

M =
Molarity and Normality of a mixture of solution produced by mixing two solutions having
same solvent
M1V1 + M 2 V2 N1V1 + N 2 V2
M (Molarity) = OR N (Normality) =
V1 + V2 V1 + V2
121
Relation between Molarity (M) and molaity (m)
Molarity
Molality (m) = molarity × Molecular mass
density-
1000
Molality ×density
Molarity (M) = molality × Molecular mass
1+
1000
in short,
M
Molality (m) =
d − MM 2
Where, M = Molarity, d = Density of solution in gm/ml, M2 = molecular mass of solute

Mole Fraction (X)
Ratio of number of moles of one component in the solution to the total number of moles of all
components in the solution is called mole fracion.
If a binary solution has n2 moles of solute and n1 moles of solvent then ....
n2 n1
Mole fraction of solute (X2) = , mole fraction of solvent (X1) =
n1 + n 2
n1 + n 2
i.e.,
number of moles of a component

Mole fraction of a component (X) =
number of moles of all components in the solution
Sum of mole fraction of all components in a solution is 1. i.e. X1 + X2 = 1

multiplying mole fraction by 100 percentage mole can be calculated.
Relation between mole fraction of solute (X2) and molarity (M)
MM1
X2 =
M(M1 − M 2 ) + d
where, M = Molarity
M1 = Molecular mass of solvent in kg/mole, M2 = Molecular mass of solute
d = density of solution in kg/litre
Mass Fraction
W
(1) Percentage by mass (% ) : amount of solute in gm dissolved in 100 gm solution is called
W
W
(% ) percentage by mass.
W
W wt of solute (in gm)

% =
wt of solution (in gm) × 100
W
122
V
(2) Percentage by volume (% ) : Volume in ml of solute dissolved in 100 ml solution is called
V
V
(% ) percentage by volume.
V
V 100 × volume of solute (in ml)

% =
volume of solution (in ml)
V
W
(3) Mass by volume percentage (% ) : Amount of solute in gm dissolved in 100 ml solution is
V
W
called (% ) percentage mass by volume.
V
W 100 × amount of solute (in gm)

% =
V
In short,
mass fraction means fraction obtained by dividing mass of any one component in the solution by
mass of all the components in the solution.
eg. In a given solution, component A has WA gm and component B has WB gms, then,
WA
Mass fraction of component A is (XA) =
WA + WB
WB
Mass fraction of component B is (XB) =
WA + WB
as result, XA + XB = 1
Multiplying mass fraction by 100 mass percentage can be obtained.
Normality (N)
When 1 gm equivalent weight of solute is dissolved in 1 litre of solution it produces 1 normal solution
and the normality of the solution is 1.
gm/litre
Normality N =
equivalent weight
OR
amount of solute (in gm)

N =
Equivalent wt. of solute × volume of solution in litre
molecular mass of Acid (gm/mole)

equivalent weight of Acid =
Basicity of Acid
molecular mass of Base (gm/mole)

equivalent weight of Base =
Acidity of Base
123
Mathematically
weight of solute 1000

N =
Equivalent weight of solute ´
percengate of solute × 10
N =
Equivalent weight of solute
Normality of mixture of two or more solutions mixed together
N1V1 + N 2 V2 + N3 V3 .....
N =
V1 +V2 + V3 .....
Relation between molarity and Normality
Molecular mass
Normality (N) = Molarity (M) ´
Equivalent mass
Normality ´ Equivalent mass = Molarity ´ molecular mass

Normality of Acid = Molarity ´ basicity
Normality of Base = Molarity ´ acidity
Formality (F)
When 1 gm formula weight of solute is dissolved in one litre of aqueous solution is called one formal
(1F) solution.
1000 × wt. of solute (in gm)

Formality (F) =
Formula wt. of solute × volume of solution (in ml)
Unit formality is very famous in pharmacy and medical science field.

Parts per million (ppm)
Sometimes amount of solute dissolved in the solution is very small in proportion and the concentra-
tion is expressed in parts per million (ppm)
eg., proportion of pollutant in air, amount of O2 gas dissolved in ocean water, amount of pollutant in
water etc.
amount of solute (in mg)

Parts per million for mass by volume =
amount of solution (in ml) OR
amount of solute (in gm)

Parts per million for mass by volume =
amount of solution (in ml) ´ 106
effect of temperature on units of concentration

Value of Molality, mole fraction and percentage by mass do not change with change in temperature.
Value of Normality, molarity, percentage by volume, formality, parts per millian for mass by volume
changes with change in temperature.
124
1. Calculate molarity of 98% percentage by mass H2SO4 at 308 K temperature having density
1.84 gm/ml ?
(A) 18.4 M (B) 4.18 M (C) 8.14 M (D) 1.8 M
2. Calculate mole fraction of amount of solute dissolved in 1.00 molal (m) of aqueous solution ?
(A) 0.1770 (B) 0.0177 (C) 0.0344 (D) 1.7700
3. Calculate concentration of urea having 6.022 ´ 1020 molecules in 100 ml urea (NH2CONH2) solution ?
(A) 0.01 M (B) 0.001 M (C) 0.2 M (D) 0.1 M
4. 0.5 M H2SO4 solution is more concentrated than 0.5 m H2SO4 solution then calculate its density ?
(A) 1.07 gm ml1 (B) 1.06 gm ml1 (C) 1.05 gm ml1 (D) 1.04 gm ml1
W
5. Calculate molality of the mixture of solution produced by mixing 25 % of NaOH solution with
W
W
15 % solution ? (Molecular mass of NaOH = 40 gm/mole)
W
(A) 12.74 m (B) 5.5 m (C) 9.0 m (D) 4.0 m
6. Calculate concentration of the mixture of solution produced by mixing 300 gm 25% solution of NH4NO3
with 150 gm 40% NH4NO3 solution ?
(A) 30 % (B) 35 % (C) 32.25 % (D) 37.25 %
W
7. Calculate mole fraction of 18 % of glucose solution ?
W
(A) 0.18 (B) 0.1 (C) 0.017 (D) 0.021
8. Calculate concentration of NO3 ion in the mixture of solution produced by mixing 2 litre 3M AgNO3
solution with 3 litre 1 M BaCl2 solution ?
(A) 1.2 M (B) 1.8 M (C) 0.5 M (D) 0.4 M
9. How much water should be added to have 3M molarity of a mixture of solution produced by mixing
250 ml of 6M HCl solution with 650 ml. of 3M HCl solution ?
(A) 250 ml (B) 1150 ml (C) 500 ml (D) 575 ml
10. Calculate density (d) of H2SO4 solution having molality and molarity 94.5 and 11.5 respectively ?
(A) 1.15 gm/litre (B) 1.25 gm/litre (C) 1.35 gm/litre (D) 1.45 gm/litre
11. Calculate molarity of solution produced by dissolving 5.85 gm NaCl in 0.5 litre water ?
(A) 0.2 M (B) 0.4 M (C) 1.0 M (D) 0.1 M
12. To make a decimolar solution in 100 ml how many grams of a dibasic acid having molecular mass
200 gm/mole should be added ?
(A) 20 gm (B) 1 gm (C) 2 gm (D) 10 gm
125
13. Calculate molar concentration of solution having 20 % FeCl3 solution having density 1.1 gm/ml ?
(A) 0.028 (B) 1.357 (C) 0.163 (D) 1.47
14. Calculate concentration of solution when 25 gm Na2SO4 is dissolved in 103 kg of solution ?
(A) 2.5 ppm (B) 25 ppm (C) 250 ppm (D) 100 ppm
W
15. How many grams of sugar is required to prepare 5 % sugar (C12H22O11) in 2 litre aqueous
V
solution ?
(A) 200 gm (B) 500 gm (C) 100 gm (D) 10 gm
16. If 200 ml water is added to 0.2 M 500 ml solution calculate molarity (M) of diluted solution ?
(A) 0.5010 M (B) 0.2847 M (C) 0.7093 M (D) 0.1428 M
17. Calculate molarity of the solution produced by dissolving 120 gm urea (molecular mass = 60u) in
1000 gm of water having density 1.15 gm ?
(A) 0.50 M (B) 1.78 M (C) 1.02 M (D) 2.05 M
18. Which of the following has molar concentration same as 2N HCL ?
(A) 4.0 N H2SO4 (B) 0.5 N H2SO4 (C) 1 N H2SO4 (D) 2 N H2SO4
19. Concentration of Ca2+ ion in a sample of water is 0.0002 M, then calculate concentration of Ca2+ in
concentration mass by volume ppm ?
(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 10.08 (D) 0.4
Answers : 1. (A), 2. (B), 3. (A), 4. (D), 5. (B), 6. (A), 7. (D), 8. (A), 9. (A), 10. (B),
11. (A), 12. (C), 13. (B), 14. (B), 15. (C), 16. (D), 17. (D), 18. (A), 19. (B)
Vapour pressure of solution and Raoults law

Vapour pressure : At certain temperature the rate for the process of vapour to liquid phase and
liquid to vapour phase becomes equal and hence equilibrium is established. Due to this at certain temperature
pressure of vapour on surface on the solution becomes constant which is called vapour pressure of solution
at that temperature.
Factors affecting vapour pressure : (1) Nature of liquid (2) temperature.
Raoults law for a non volatile solute : If dilute and ideal solution is prepared by dissolving non-
volatile solute in a volatile solvent the relative lowering of vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the
mole fraction of the dissolved solute.
P10 − P1 n2
Mathematically Raoults law : =
P10 n1
W2 W1
where, n2 = and n1 = M
M2 1
P10 − P1 W2 × M1
\ =
P10 M 2 × W1
126
where, P10 = vapour pressure of pure solvent, P1 = vapour pressure of solution, W1 = wt. of
solvent, W2 = wt. of solute, M1 = molecular mass of solvent and M2 = molecular mass of solute
Raoults law for volatile solute and volatile solvent : Vapour pressure of solution prepared
from volatile substances is proportional to their mole fraction.
For a Binary solution having components A and B,
PA = P0A . XA and PB = P0B . XB
From that,
Total pressure P = P0B + (P0A - P0B)XA or P = P0A + (P0B - P0A)XB
On plotting a graph of PA and PB with mole fraction XA and XB is,
P 0B
PB
=
PA+
P
0
P B
Total vapour press (bar)
.
0
P A X B
=
PB
P
A =
X .
A P0
A
XA = 1 B mole fraction XA = 0
XB = 0 XB = 1
As shown in the figure, based on above equation. P 0B > P 0A which means component B is
more volatile compared to component A. The lowest vapour pressure is P 0A and highest vapour
pressure is P 0B.
When XA = 1 Total vapour pressure of the solution is P0A.
When XB = 1 Total vapour pressure of the solution is P0B.

molefraction of component A and B is YA and YB respectively to calculate partial pressure PA and PB
at equilibrium following formula is used :
PA = YA . Total pressure
PB = YB . Total pressure
Raoults law for gasseous solute and liquid solvent
When a gasseous solute is dissolved in a liquid solvent when a gasseous solute is dissolved in a liquid
solvent then the vapour pressure of the solution according to Raoults law is,
PA = P0A . XA Where, PA = vapour pressure of component A
P0A = Vapour pressure of pure solvent A

XA = Mole fraction of A
127
When a gasseous solute is dissolved in a liquid solvent then according to Henrys law
P = KH . XA where, P = Total pressure
KH = Henrys constant
XA = mole fraction of component A
Limitations of Raoults law
(1) This law is applicable to very dilute solutions.
(2) This law is applicable to ideal solutions.
(3) This law is applicable to solutions, whose heat of dilutions does not change.
(4) It is applicable to solutions whose total volume is equal to the sum of the volumes of solute and
solvent, if they are in liquid state.
(5) This law is applicable to the non-electrolyte aqueous solutions which do not undergo any disso-
ciation or association when solute is dissolved in solvent.
20. Raoults law for dilute solution ..........

(A) Relative decrease in vapour pressure of solution is proportional to amount of solute in solution.
(B) Relative decrease in vapour pressure of solution is equal to mole fraction of solute.
(C) relative decrease in vapour pressure of solution is equal to mole fraction of solvent.
(D) vapour pressure of solution is equal to mole fraction of solvent.
R W
. Y
21. For the given graph ............ RU - YQ UV = ............
Vapour pressure
(A) VW . QU (B) RS . TU T
(C) QY . QU (D) YW . QV
U
Q molefraction V
22. At a given temperature for a binary solution at equilibrium made up of liquid A and B has mole
fraction of vapour state of liquid A 0.4 and partial pressure 400 mm then calculate partial pressure of
liquid B ?
(A) 600 mm (B) 300 mm (C) 500 mm (D) 200 mm
23. Vapour pressure of benzene and toluene is 0.9 bar and 0.85 bar respectively. Calculate the pressure
of the solution prepared by mixing 7.8 gm benzene in 180 gm 100
Toluene ? 80 B
Vapour pressure
(A) 85.24 bar (B) 0.8524 bar

60 A
(C) 0.08524 bar (D) 0.4860 bar
40
24. Based on the given figure. Calculate vapour pressure of
solution prepared by mixing 1 mole of component A and 3 mole 20
of component B.
(A) 20 mm (B) 140 mm A0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0 B
XA
1.0 XB 0
(C) 75 mm (D) 70 mm
mole fraction
128
25. Vapour pressure of CCl4 at 25°C is 143 mm. If 0.5 gm non volatile solute is added in 100 cm3 of
CCl4 calculate vapour pressure of the solution (density of CCl4 = 1.58 gm/cm3)
(A) 141.93 mm (B) 94. 39 mm (C) 199.34 mm (D) 143.99 mm
26. If ratio of partial pressure of substance A and B is P0A : P0B = 1 : 2 and ratio of molefraction is 1:2,
then calculate molefraction of A in vapour state ?
(A) 0.33 (B) 0.25 (C) 0.52 (D) 0.2
27. Vapour pressure of a mixture of ethanol and propanol at 300 K is 290 mm. If vapour pressure of
propanol at 300 K is 200 mm and mole fraction of ethanol is 0.6 then at the same temperature
calculate vapour pressure of ethanol ?
(A) 300 mm (B) 700 mm (C) 350 mm (D) 360 mm
28. At a definite temperature vapour pressure of pure benzene is 0.85 bar. When 0.5 gm of solid
nonvalatile electrolyte is dissolved in 39.0 gm benzene vapour pressure of solution becomes
0.845 bar calculate molecular mass of the solid substance ?
(A) 58 gm mole1 (B) 170 gm mole1 (C) 180 gm mole1 (D) 135 gm mole1
29. According to Raoults law relative lowering in vapour pressure of non volatile solute is equally
proportional to .......
(A) mole fraction of solvent. (B) mole fraction of solute.
(C) mass fraction of solute. (D) mass fraction of solvent.
30. On dissolving definite amount having molecular mass 60 gm/mole of substance in 180 gm of water,
the vapour pressure of water decreases by 10% then calculate the amount dissolved ?
(A) 30 gm (B) 120 gm (C) 12 gm (D) 60 gm
31. A binary ideal solution having two pure liquid substance A and B having vapour pressure PA and PB
respectively. If liquid A has mole fraction XA then what will be the total pressure of the solution ?
(A) PA + XA (PB - PA) (B) PA + XA (PA - PB) (C) PB + XA (PB - PA) (D) PB + XA (PA - PB)
W
32. Calculate vapour pressure of 4% of aqueous solution of urea ? (At 298 K temperature, vapour
W
pressure 0.025 bar)
(A) 0. 000313 bar (B) 0.02469 bar (C) 0.04269 bar (D) 0.0246 bar
33. If relative decrease in vapour pressure of a non volatile solute containing solution is 0.0125, then
calculate molality of the solution ?
(A) 0.70 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.60 (D) 0.80
34. Vapour pressure of liquid P and Q are 80 and 60 torr respectively. If 3 mole of liquid P and 2 mole
of liquid Q are mixed. Calculate vapour pressure of the mixture.
(A) 140 torr (B) 68 torr (C) 72 torr (D) 20 torr
Answers : 20. (B), 21. (A), 22. (A), 23. (B), 24. (C), 25. (A), 26. (D), 27. (C), 28. (B),
29. (B), 30. (D), 31. (D), 32. (B), 33. (A), 34. (C)
129
Ideal and non Ideal solution
Ideal solution : A solution which obeys Raoults law at any concentration or temperature is called
Ideal solution.
For Ideal solution, Ptotal = PA + PB = P0A . XA + P0B . XB
For such solution intermolecular force of attraction between A A and B B is same as
intermolecular force of attraction of AB.
For such solution when solute is dissolved in a solvent, the solution produced have enthalpy changes
zero (DH = 0)
For such solution when solute and solvent in liquid form, when form a solution, the change in volume
is zero (DV = 0).
eg., (1) Bromo ethane and chloro ethane (2) Benzene Toluene (3) Hexane and Heptane
(4) Chlorobenzene and Bromo benzene (5) Ethyl bromide and Ethyl iodide.
Non Ideal solution/True solution
A solution which does not obey Raoults law at any concentration or temperature is called non ideal
solution (True solution)
For such solution, According to Raoults law, vapour pressure of solution is more or less than the
expected value.
For such solutions intermolecular force of attraction between A A and B B is not same as
intermolecular force of attraction of A B.
For such solution enthalpy change and volume change is not zero.
i.e., DH ¹ 0, DV ¹ 0
Non ideal solutions show +ve and ve deviation from Raoults law, the information regarding it
is given in the table below :
Positive deviation of non ideal solution negative deviation of non ideal solution from
from Raoults law Raoults law
(1) Does not obey Raoults law. (1) does not obey Raoults law..
(2) D Hmix > 0 endothermic reaction and absorbs (2) D Hmix < 0 exothermic reaction and energy
energy is released.
(3) DVmix > 0 Volume increase on dissolution. (3) D Vmix < 0 volume decreases on dissolution.
0 . 0 . 0 .
(4) PA > P A
XA; PB > P XB
B
(4) PA P0A.XA + P0B.XB \ PA + PB < P0A.XA + P0B.XB
(5) Intermolecular force of attraction of A B (5) Intermolecular force of atteraction of A B
is weaker than intermolecular force of is stronger than intermolecular force of
attraction of A A and B B (H bond attraction of A A and B B (H-bond
breaks due dissolution) is formed due to dissolution)
(6) eg., ® Acetone and ethanol (6) eg, ® Acetone and Aniline
® Acetone and CS2 ® Acetone and chloroform
® water and methanol ® CH3OH and CH3COOH
® CCl4 and toluene ® Water and HCl
® CCl4 and CHCl3 ® Chloroform and benzene
® Acetone and benzene ® water and HNO3
130
35. Solution of Acetone in ethanol ..........
(A) shows positive deviation from Raoults law. (B) acts as an Ideal solution.
(C) Obeys Raoults law. (D) shows negative deviation from Raoults law.
36. Which of the following pair will make an ideal solution ?
(A) Chlorobenzene + Chloroethane (B) Benzene + Toluene
(C) Acetene + Chloroform (D) water + HCl
37. Which condition is favourable for non ideal solution ?
(A) D H ¹ 0, DV = 0 (B) D H = 0, DV = 0 (C) D H ¹ 0, DV ¹ 0 (D) D H = 0, D V ¹ 0
38. If 30 ml chloroform and 50 ml Acetone are mixed to form a non ideal solution, then volume of the
solution is ...... .
(A) > 80 ml (B) < 80 ml (C) = 80 ml (D) ³ 80 ml
39. Ideal solution ..........
(A) shows +ve deviation from Raoults law. (B) shows ve deviation from Raoults law.
(C) has no relation with Raoults law. (D) Obeys Raoults law.
40. Ideal solution possesses which of the following characterisitcs ?
(A) Obyes Raoults law. (B) D H = 0
(C) D V = 0 (D) all three given.
41. To which of the following compound Raoults law is not applicable ?
(A) 1M NaCl (B) 1M urea (C) 1M glucose (D) 1M sucrose

42. A Binary solution is prepared by mixing n-Heptane and ehtanol, with respect to the nature of the
solution, which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) It makes an ideal solution.
(B) Non ideal solution shows positive deviation of Raoults law.
(C) Non ideal solution shows negative deviation of Raoults law.
(D) n-Heptane will show positive deviation and ethanol shows negative deviation of Raoults law.
43. Which of the following mixture shows positive deviation of Raoults law ?
(A) CHCl3 + (CH3)2CO (B) (CH3)2CO + C6H5NH2
(C) CHCl3 + C6H6 (D) (CH3)2CO + CS2
44. Select the correct statement from the given option ?
(1) liquid mixture of CH3COOH and CH3OH shows negative deviation
PTotal < P0A.XA + P0B.XB.
(2) liquid mixture CH3COCH3 and CHCl3 solution have heat of dilution DH < 0 and DV < 0 vapour
pressure shows negative deviation.
131
(3) For mixed solution of CH3COCH3 and C6H6, D H > 0 and DV > 0 PTotal > P0A.XA + P0B.XB.
(4) For these components in the solution PA > P0A.XA and PB > P0B.XB for such solution D H > 0,
D V < 0 where vapour pressure shows positive deviation.
(A) (1), (2), (3) (B) (1), (2), (4)
(C) (2), (3), (4) (D) (3), (4)
45. Statement I : Mixture of Benzene and Toluene make ideal solution.
Statement II : Total volume of a mixture becomes 200 ml when 100 ml Benzene is mixed with 100
ml Toluene ie. DV = 0 as well as there is no change in enthalpy.
(A) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
(B) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(C) Statement I and II are correct and statement II is the reason of statment I
(D) Statement I is incoruct and statement II is correct.
46. Solutions produced by mixing of two components are given
(1) Pure solvent ® separated solvent molecules, DH1
(2) Pure solute ® separated solute molecules, DH2
(3) separated solute and solvent molecule ® solution, DH3

If prepared solution is ideal than ......
(A) D Hsolution = D H3 - D H1 - D H2 (B) D Hsolution = D H1 + D H2 + DH3
(C) DHsolution = D H1 + DH2 - DH3 (D) D Hsolution = D H1 - D H2 - D H3
47. Which of the following does not show negative deviation from Raoults law.
(A) Acetone-chloroform (B) Acetone-Benzene (C) Chloroform-ether (D) Chloroform-Benzene
48. Ideal solution is prepared from liquid A and B if ...........
(A) enthalpy of mixture is zero (B) entropy of mixture is zero.
(C) Free energy of mixture is zero. (D) Free energy and entropy of mixture is zero.
49. Vapour pressure of non ideal solution is ...... from vapour pressure obtained by Raoults law.
(A) more (B) less (C) equal (D) Both (A) and (B).
50. Which of the following pair will not make an ideal solution ?
(A) C6H6 + C6H5CH3 (B) C4H9OH + H2O (C) CCl4 + SiCl4 (D) C2H5Br + C2H5I
51. Ideal solution is prepared by mixing Benzene (A) and Toluene (B), then which option is not correct
for the solution ?
(A) PA = XA.P0A (B) PTotal > PA + PB (C) PTotal = XA.P0A + XB.P0B (D) PB = XB.P0B
Answers : 35. (A), 36. (B), 37. (C), 38. (B), 39. (D), 40. (D), 41. (A), 42. (B), 43. (D),
44. (D), 45. (C), 46. (B), 47. (B), 48. (A), 49. (D), 50. (B), 51. (B)
132
Vapour pressure composition - Henrys law
Henrys law : (Quantitative relation between solubility of the gasseous solute in a liquid solvent and
pressure)
The solubility of a gasseous solute in a liquid solvent at constant temperature is directly proportional
to the pressure of gasseous solute
Dalton independently concluded that the solubility of a gasseous solute in liquid solution is a function
of the partial pressure of the gas. If the mole fraction is considered for the solubility of gasseous solute.
The partial pressure of a gasseous solute over the solution is directly proportional to the mole fraction of
the gasseous molecules.
In the solution X is the mole fraction of gasseous solute dissloved in unit volume of solvent and its
partial pressure is P, then according to Henrys law it is expressed as,
p µ X. \ p = KH . X where, KH = Henrys constant
If in the solution mole fraction of gas is X 1000 -
and its partial pressure is P and graph is plotted
Partial pressure of HCl

between them the graph is a straight line as indi-
cated in graph and the value of the slope is equal
to value of KH. The unit of KH is bar.
500 -
As value of K H increases, solubility of
gasseous solute decreases.
With increase in temperature, value of KH
increases and solubility decreases.
O 0.010 0.020
Limitations of Henrys law
Solubility of HCl (mole fraction) ®
(1) This law is applicable to the gasseous solutes which show only ideal behaviour at high
temperature and low pressure.
(2) This law is applicable to solute which does not undergo association or dissociation when the
solute is dissolved in solvent.
(3) This law is applicable to gasseous solute which does not form any product by the chemical
reaction, when gasseous solute is dissolved in liquid solvent.
Application of Henrys law
(1) To increase the solubility of CO2 gas in cold drinks, soda water, beer, champagne, the gases are
filled in bottle at high pressures and then sealed.
(2) Due to higher partial pressure of oxygen gas entering into the lungs, it reacts with haemoglobin and
forms oxyhaemoglobin. The partial pressure of oxygen gas is low in tissue. Hence, the oxygen is
released from the oxehaemoglobin itself and is useful in the utilisation of the function of cell.
(3) The sea-divers use the cylinders filled with mixture of 2% O2 and 98 % He gas during the
diving in sea. Nowadays a cylinder filled with 11.7 % He, 56.2 % N2 and 32.1 % O2 gas
mixture are used.
52. How many millimoles of H2S is dissolved when it is passed through 1 litre of water at 300 K
temperature ? (value of KH = 5.6 ´ 104 bar and partial pressure is 3 ´ 108 bar)
(A) 2.9758 (B) 5.357 (C) 3.9758 (D) 29.758
133
53. In which condition Henrys law is obeyed ?
(A) gaseous solute has ideal behaviour at high temperature and low pressure.
(B) gaseous solute should not undergo association and dissolciation in the solution.
(C) gaseous solute react with the solvent.
(D) All three conditions are applicable
54. Statement : If at 1 atm 900 gm water can dissolve 0.003 mole of gas and under 2 atm pressure
0.006 mole gas is dissolved This statement is obeying which of the law ?
(A) Daltons law of partial pressure (B) Grahams law of diffusion of gas
(C) Raoults law (D) Henrys law
55. Solubility of N2 gas obeys Henrys law at 298 K temperature and 1.0 ´ 105 atm pressure. In the
same way N2 gas in air has mole fraction 0.8. How many moles N2 gas will dissolve in 10 mole of
water at 5 atm pressure and 298 K temperature ?
(A) 4.0 ´ 104 (B) 4.0 ´ 105 (C) 5.0 ´ 104 (D) 4.0 ´ 106
56. Which of the following gases will have lowest Henrys constant ?
(A) N2 (B) He (C) H2 (D) CO2
57. Ratio of O2 and N2 in air is 1 : 4, based on their mole fraction calculate the ratio of their solubility
at room temperature and pressure ? (Henrys constant : O2 = 3.3 ´ 107, N2 = 6.6 ´ 107 torr)
(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 4:1 (D) 1:4
58. At a definite temperature Homogeneous mixture of gas A and gas B over water in a closed con-
tainer at 2.0 bar pressure has mole fraction ratio 1 : 6. If their KH are respectively 2.4 ´ 104 bar and
4.8 ´ 104 bar, then calculate the ratio of molefraction of these gases soluble form in water ?
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 3 : 1 (D) 1 : 3
Answers : 52. (A) 53. (B) 54. (D) 55. (A) 56. (D) 57. (A) 58. (D)
Graph for ideal and non ideal solution

Graph for ideal solution
P =
P 0A P
A + P
B
D Hmix = 0
P 0B
Total pressure
D Vmix = 0
XA = 1 XA = 0
XB = 0 Mole fraction XB = 1
134
Graph for non ideal solution
Positive deviation negative deviation
Total pressure
P 0A P = Total pressure
P P 0A
A + P
B
P 0B P
Vapour pressure
PB
Vapour pressure
= PA + P P 0B
B
PB
PA
PA
XA = 1 Mole fraction XB = 1 XA = 1 Mole fraction XA = 0

> P .X 0 : PA < P0A.XA
0
XB = 0 DHmix > 0 : P
A A A
XA = 0 XB = 0 D Hmix < XB = 1
D Vmix > 0 : PB > P0B.XB D Vmix < 0 : PB < P0B.XB
59. Based on the given figure. Select the correct
statement for two valatile liquid in a solution.
(1) AB and CD indicates vapour pressure of liquid
B and A respectively.
D
(2) Maximum pressure of the solution is indicated
by AB and minimum pressure by CD B
Vapour pressure
(3) AD and BC indicates liquid B and A obey

Raoults law
(4) BD indicates total pressure of the solution
(A) Statement 1 and 3 are correct
(B) Statement 2 and 4 are correct
(C) Statement 1 and 4 are correct A XA C
XA = 0 XA = 1
XB
(D) Statement 2 and 3 are correct XB = 1 XB = 0
Mole fraction
60. What does point S indicate in the given figure ?
P 0B (A) Both liquid have same partial pressure and mole

fraction
P 0A
(B) Both liquid have same mole fraction but different
Vapour pressure
partial pressure
S
(C) Both liquid have different partial pressure and mole
fraction
(D) Both liquid have different mole fractions. But same

XA = 0 Mole fraction XA = 1 partial pressure.
XB = 1 XB = 0
135
61. For the given graph of mole fraction versus vapour
pressure select the correct option.
T = correct statement, F = incorrect statement
(i) Aziotropic mixture of liquid A and liquid B will
have maximum Boiling point.
Vapour pressure
(ii) When vapour pressure of both the liquid in the
mixture is same XA < XB.
(iii) Given liquid mixture shows positive deviation
for Raoults law.
(iv) When XA = XB then PA < PB.
(A) TFTF (B) FFTF XA
XA = 1 = 0 mole fraction
(C) FTFT (D) FFTT = XB
XB = 0 1
62. For two volatile liquids a graph of vapour pressure versus mole fraction is given below, then for the
given graph which of the following is true.
P 0B (A) When XA = 1 and XB = 0, then P = P0A

P 0A
Vapour pressure
(B) When XB = 0 and XA = 0, then P = P0B

Vapour pressure
(C) When XA = 1 and XB = 0, then P < P0B
XA = 1 mole fraction XA = 0 (D) When XB = 1 and XA = 0, then P > P0A

XB = 0 XB = 1
Answers : 59. (C), 60. (D), 61. (C), 62. (A)
Colligative Properties for dilute solutions

(1) Relative lowering in vapour pressure (2) depression in freezing point (3) elevation in
boiling point (4) Osmotic pressure.
Colligative Properties of a solution
Changes in certain properties of dilute solution depend on number of molecules of solutes but not on
nature of solute such properties are called colligative properties.
When a substance is dissolved in a pure solvent and a solution is prepared, then certain properties of
solvent are changed.
(1) Vapour pressure of solution decreases compared to that of its pure solvent.
(2) Boiling point of solution increases compared to that of its pure solvent.
(3) Freezing point of solution decreases compared to that of its pure solvent.
(4) There are changes in osmotic pressure of the solution compared to that of its pure solvent.
136
Colligative properties of solution do not depend on concentration of solution but depend on total
number of solute particle in the solution.
(1) Relative lowering in vapour pressuer : vapour pressure of a solution prepared from a pure
solvent is always less than the vapour pressure of pure solvent, hence, according to Raoults law.
When a very dilute or ideal solution is prepared by dissolving a non volatile solute, the relative
lowering in vapour pressure is equal to molefraction of solute.
If in a solution, vapour pressure of solution is P1 and its mole fraction of solvent is X1
P1 a X1 \ P1 = P01.X1
Where, P01 = vapour pressure of pure solvent
P 01 − P1
Relative lowering in vapour pressure by dissolving non volatile solute in a volatile solvent is
P 01
and it is equal to mole fraction of dissolved solute X2

\ For very dilute solution,
P 01 − P1 n2
=
P 01 n1
W2 W1
but n2 = and n1 = M
M2 1
P 01 − P1 W2 × M1
\ =
P 01 M 2 × W1
where, W1 = weight of solvent, W2 = weight of solute,
M1 = molecular mass of solvent, M2 = molecular mass of solute
Vapour pressure of pure volatile solute is P0A and vapour pressure of pure volatile solvent P0B then,
PA = P0A.XA and PB = P0B.XB \ PTotal = PA + PB
Mole fraction of gaseous components can be calculated as follows :
Partial pressure of a component

Molefraction of component =
Total pressure
When gasseous solute is dissolved in a liquid solvent the solution then according to Raoults law it
vapour pressure PA = P0A.XA and its solubility according to Henrys law P = KH.XA.
(2) Elevation in Boiling point : The temperature at which vapour pressure of liquid is equal to
vapour pressure (1 bar) of atmosphere is called boiling point.
137
Boiling point of the solution is more than the boiling point of its pure solvent (DTb).
solvent solution Graph of relation between vapoure pressure of

pure solvent and its solution at different temperature
is given.
Vapour pressure
Suppose boiling point of pure solvent is T0b and

boiling point of solution is Tb, then the rise in the boil-
DTb
ing point is, DTb = Tb - T0b and is called elevation in
boiling point.
T0b Tb
Temperature
Practical observation indicates that, elevation in boiling point (DTb) is directly proportional to molal
(m) concentration of solute in a dilute and ideal solution. It can be mathematically written as
DTb µ m \ D Tb = Kb . m
1000 × W2 K b × 1000 × W2 ∆Tb × M 2 × W1

but molality (m) =
M 2 × W1 \ D Tb =
M 2 × W1 \ Kb =
1000 × W2
Where, Kb = molal elevation constant W2 = weight of solute
D Tb = elevation in boiling point M2 = molecular mass of solute
W1 = weight of solvent
Calculation of Kb based on molar vapourisation enthalpy
M × R(Tb )2
Kb =
where, M = Molecular mass of solvent
∆ vap H ×1000
Tb = boiling point of solvent
R = gas constant
D
vap
H = Molar enthalpy of vapourisation
Unit of molal elevation constant (Kb) is K Kg mole1.
(3) Depression in Freezing point
The temperature at which solid and liquid state of a substance (solute or solvent) are in equilibrium
then that temperature of the substance is called freezing point.
Freezing point of the solution is less than the freezing point of its pure solvent. This decrease in
Freezing point is called depression in Freezing point (DTf).
138
Graph of relation between vapour pressure of pure solvent and its solution at different temperature.
t
so lven
d
liqui
tion
en
t solu
lv
so
ld
co
Vapour pressure
DTf
Tf T0f
Temperature
Suppose freezing point of pure solvent is T0f and of solution Tf then, decrease in Freezing point is
given by D Tf = T0f - Tf and is known as depression in Freezing point.
Practical observation indicates that, depression in Freezing point (DTf) is directly proportional to molal
(m) concentration of solute in a dilute and ideal solution. Mathematically it can be written as,
D Tf a m \ D Tf = Kf . m
1000 × W2
but molality (m) =
M 2 × W1
K f × 1000 × W2 ∆Tf × W1 × M 2
D Tf = Kf =
1000 × W2
M 2 × W1
where, Kf = molal depression constant W2 = wt. of solute
D Tf = depression in Freezing point M2 = molecular mass of solute
W1 = wt. of solvent
Calculation of Kf based on Molar vapourisation enthalpy
M × R(Tf ) 2
Kf =
∆ fus H × 1000
Where, M = molecular mass of solute,
Tf = Freezing point of solute,
R = gas constant
D
fus
H = Molar fusion enthalpy
Relation between elevation in boiling point and depression in Freezing point
∆Tb ∆K b
= Where, D Tb = elevation in boiling point, DTf = depression in Freezing point,
∆Tf ∆K f
Kb = molal elevation constant, Kf = molal depression constant

139
(4) Osmotic Pressure : Osmosis : When a semipermeable membrane is placed between two
solutions of different concentration or between pure solvent and its solution, a spontaneous flow of
solvent starts from a solution, having lower concentration to higher concentration or from a solvent to a
solution respectively. This phenomena is called Osmosis.
Semi permeable membrane
¯
¯ ¯
Natural Synthetic
cell wall of plant parchment paper
cell wall of animal cellophane
urinary bladder of animal butter paper
copper ferrocyanide Cu2[Fe(CN)6]
of all the given semipermeable membranes copper ferrocyanide is considered to be the best
semipermeable membrane.
Osmosis (Osmotic) pressure
It is the minimum amount of pressure applied on the solution that just stops the flow of solvent
towards solution across the semi permeable membrane.
Laws of osmotic pressure
(1) Boyle-Vant Hoff law : At constant temperature osmotic pressure (p) is directly proportional
to the molar concentration of the solution
n n
\ p a C but, C = p a n = Soluble mole
V V
n = 1
1
\ p a .........(1)
V
(2) Gay-Lussac Vant Hoff law : If the concentration of solute is constant then the osmotic pressure
of solution is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.
\ p a T ..........(2)
(3) Avagadro-Vant Hoff law : The number of molecules in the same volume of different solution
having the same osmotic pressure at the same temperature.
\ p a n.....(3)
nT
Now, from equation (1) (2) and (3) p a
V
nRT
\ p = \ p V = nRT
V
n
now, = C p = CRT
V
W WRT WRT
n = pV = \ p =
V M MV
Where, p =Osmotic pressure W = weight of solute
R = gas constant T = absolute temperature
M = Molecular mass of gas V = volume of solute (litre)
If two different solutions of the same component has osmotic pressure p
1
and p
2
,
140
p
1
V1 + p
2
V2 = p
R
(V1 + V2) where, p
R
= Total osmotic pressure
Two different soluble components have n1 and n2 mole respectively with volume V1 and V2 their
osmotic pressure,
 n1i1 + n2 i2 
p =  V +V  RT
1 2
Isoosmotic (Isotonic) solution

Solution having same osmotic pressure at given temperature are called iso osmotic solution.
The vapour pressure of iso osmotic solutions are equal. Hence such solutions are called Isotonic
solutions.
Isoosmotic solutions have their concentrations equal.
Hypotonic solution : If osmotic pressure of two solutions are different then the solution having less
osmotic pressure is called a hypotonic solution with respect to the other solution.
Hypertonic solution : A solution with higher osmotic pressure is called hypertonic solution with
respect to the solution having less osmotic pressure.
In short, solution having lower osmotic pressure is called Hypotonic and having higher osmotic pressure
is called Hypertonic solution.
Relation of osmotic pressure with various colligative properties
 P0 + P 
(1) p = 
1 1
 ´
dRT
 P 0  1000 × K f
1
dRT
(2) p = D Tb ´
1000 × K b
(3) p = D Tf ´
dRT where, p = osmotic pressure, d = density
1000 × K f
R = universal gas constant, Kb = molal elevation constant

Kf = molal depression constant
63. Which of the following aqueous solution has highest boiling point ?
(A) 0.1M KNO3 (B) 0.1M Na3PO4 (C) 0.1M BaCl2 (D) 0.1M K2SO4
64. Which of the following solution has highest freezing point ?
(A) 1m K4[Fe(CN)6] solution (B) 1m C6H12O6 solution
(C) 1m KCl solution (D) 1m salt solution

65. A solution has freezing point 0.186°C, then calculate its elevation in boiling point ?
(A) 0.0512 °C (B) 0.326 °C (C) 0.0592 °C (D) 0.0256 °C
66. Osmotic pressure of solution of urea at 10°C is 500 mm. If the solution is diluted and temperature is
raised to 25° C the osmotic pressure becomes 105.3 mm. Then how much is the solution diluted ?
(A) 4 times (B) 3 times (C) 5 times (D) 2 times
141
67. If Boiling point of glucose solution is 100.128o C then calculate freezing point of solution ?
(For solution Kf = 1.86o C and Kb = 0.512o C)
(A) - 0.346o C (B) -0.465o C (C) +0.465o C (D) - 0.256o C

68. At 750 mm Height of mercury column boiling point of water is 99.63°C. Then how many
grams of sucrose should be added in 500 gm water to make boiling point of solution 100°C ?
(Kb = 0.52 K Kg mole1)
(A) 121 gm (B) 150 gm (C) 180 gm (D) 300 gm
69. For the given figure select the correct option.
(A) Putting less pressure on piston B then
the osmotic pressure water moves
from (A) side to (B) side. Piston (A) Piston (B)
(B) Putting higher pressure on piston B

then the osmotic pressure, water
moves from (B) side to (A) side. Pure water (NaCl) sodium
(H2O) (A) chloride aqueous
(C) Putting pressure on piston equal to
that of osmotic pressure water
solution (B)
moves from side B to side A
(D) On putting pressure on piston (A)
water will move from A side to B
side.
70. Which of the following solutions have same osmotic pressure ?
(i) 0.1 M NaCl solution (ii) 0.1M glucose solution
(iii) 0.6 gm urea in 100 ml solution (iv) 1.0 gram nonvolatile in 50 ml solution
(Molecular mass of X = 200 gm mole1)
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) (B) (ii), (iii), (iv) (C) (i), (ii), (iv) (D) (i), (iii), (iv)
71. 5 % (by mass) sugar cane water solution has freezing point 271 K and freezing point of pure water
is 273.15 K. Calculate freezing point of 5% glucose solution.
(A) 250 K (B) 269 K (C) 310 K (D) 275 K
72. Value of Kf for water is 1.86 K kg mole1. If your vehicles radiator can accomodate 1.0 kg water,
then how many grams of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) can be disolved in it so that freezing point of
solution becomes 2.8°C ?
(A) 72 gm (B) 93 gm (C) 39 gm (D) 27 gm
73. How many grams of sucrose (Molecular mass 342 gm/mole) should be added in 100 gm water so
that the difference between freezing point and boiling point of the solution is 105° C ?
(Kf = 1.860o C mole1, Kb = 0.151o C mole1)
(A) 72 gram (B) 34.2 gram (C) 342 gram (D) 460 gram
142
74. Calculate the boiling point of the solution produced by dissolving 13.44 gm CuCl2 in 1 kg of water ?
(Kb = 0.52 K kg mole1; Molecular mass of CuCl2 = 134.4 gm/mole)
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.1 (C) 10.16 (D) 0.92
75. At 273 K temperature in 250 ml water if 10 gm glucose (P1) 10 gm urea (P2) and 10 gm sucrose
(P3) are dissolved then which of the following relation of their osmotic pressure is true ?
(A) P1 > P2 > P3 (B) P3 > P2 > P1 (C) P2 > P1 > P3 (D) P2 > P3 > P1
76. Which of the following is a Hypotonic solution ?
(A) 0.01M FeCl3 (B) 0.01M NaOH (C) 0.1M urea (D) 0.1M Na2SO4
77. For every 100 gm Acetone its molal elevation constant is 17.2° C, calculate boiling point of solution
prepared by dissolving 0.456 gm camphor (molecular mass = 152 gm/mole) in 31.4 gm Acetene
(Boiling point of Acetone = 56.30o C)
(A) 0.16o C (B) 46.56o C (C) 56.46o C (D) 5.64o C
78. Osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 36 gm glucose in one litre solution at 300 K is
4.98 bar. If the osmotic pressure of solution at same temperature is 1.76 bar then calculate concen-
tration of the solution ?
(A) 0.071 M (B) 0.0075 M (C) 0.71 M (D) 1.76 M
79. At 300 K temperature an aqueous solution of a non electrolyte has osmotic pressure 2 atm then
calculate its freezing pt [Kf = 1.86 Kmole1, R = 0.082 litre atm K1 mole1]
(A) + 0.151o (B) - 0.151o (C) - 15.1o (D) - 0.511o
80. Boiling point of solution of area in water is 100.18°C then calculate its freezing point ? [value of Kf
and Kb for water is 1.86 and 0.512 K mole1 respectively]
(A) - 0.654o C (B) + 0.654o C (C) - 65.4o C (D) - 0.456o C
Answers : 63. (B), 64. (B), 65. (A), 66. (C), 67. (B), 68. (A), 69. (B), 70. (B), 71. (B),
72. (B), 73. (A), 74. (C), 75. (B), 76. (D), 77. (C), 78. (A), 79. (B), 80. (A)
Methods to determine molecular mass using colligative properties

(1) Using Raoults law : Using Raoults law for nonvolatile solute molecular mass (Mi) can be
calculated as follows
P 01 − P1 W2 × M1 P 01 W2 × M1
= OR M2 = ´
P 01 M 2 × W1 P 01 − P1 W1
(2) Molal elevation measurement method : Using equation of molal elevation constant (Kb)
molecular mass (M2) of non volatile solute can be calculated as follows.
∆Tb × W1 × M 2 K b ×1000 × W2
Kb = OR M2 = ∆Tb × W1
1000 × W2
(3) Molal depression measurement method : Using equation of molal depression constant (Kf)
molecular mass (M2) of nonvolatile solute can be calculated as follows :
143
∆Tf × W1 × M 2 K f × 1000 × W2
Kf =
1000 × W2 OR M2 = ∆Tf × W1
(4) Osmotic pressure measuremenet method : In fixed amount of solvent if fixed amount of
solute is dissolved and solution is prepared at fixed temperature and the osmotic pressure is noted and then
by using formula given below, molecular mass can be calculated.
WRT WRT W
p = OR M = OR = C \ p = CRT
MV πV M
mass of solute × RT
\ Molar mass of solute substance =
Osmotic pressure of solution × Volume of solution
81. Substance is mixed 300 gm to prepare 25% by mass solution and is mixed 400 gm to prepare 40%
by mass solution. Calculate percentage by mass of solute present in the mixture of the solution ?
(A) 33.57 (B) 66.43 (C) 87.23 (D) 19.24
82. 5.25% solution of a compound is isotonic with 1.5% solution of urea (molecular mass = 60
gm/mole). Both solutions are prepared from one solvent. If density of both the solution is 1.0 gm/
cm3. Calculate molecular mass of a compound ?
(A) 90.0 gm/mole (B) 115.0 gm/mole (C) 105.0 gm/mole (D) 210.0 gm/mole
83. At 15°C temperature 20 gm solute is dissolved in 500 ml of water with osmotic pressure of 600 mm
height of Hg column, calculate molar mass of solute ?
(A) 1000 (B) 1200 (C) 1400 (D) 1800
84. At fixed temperature 5 gram non electrolyte is dissolved in 100 gm water and vapour pressure of
solution is 2985 newton meter2. If vapour pressure is 3000 newton m2 calculate molecular mass of
solute ?
(A) 60 gm (B) 120 gm (C) 180 gm (D) 380 gm
85. In 35 gm chloroform 0.5143 gram Anthracene is dissolved 0.5143 gm and there is rise in boiling
point of 0.323 K. Then calculate molecular mass of Anthraeene ? (CHCl3, Kb = 3 .9 K kg mole1)
(A) 79.42 gm/mole (B) 132.32 gm/mole (C) 177.42 gm/mole (D) 242.32 gm/mole
86. At a fixed temperature vapour pressure of pure Benzene is 0.85 bar. If a 0.5 gm of nonvolatile and
non electrolyte solid substance is dissolved in 39 gm Benzene the vapour pressure of the solution
becomes 0.845 bar then calculate molecular mass of the solid substance ?
(A) 58 (B) 170 (C) 180 (D) 145
87. To make a solution of urea (Molecular mass = 60 gm/mole) having freezing point of 0.372°C How
many grams of urea should be added in 8 Kg of water ? (Kf = 1.86o C kg mole1)
(A) 96 gm (B) 106 gm (C) 90 gm (D) 120 gm
88. At 17o C temperature 34.2 gm/litre of aqueous solution of sucrose [C12H22O11] has osmotic pressure
2.38 atm then ...... gm/ml of glucose solution will be iso osmotic to the above solution ?
(A) 34.2 (B) 17.1 (C) 36.0 (D) 18.0
144
89. The difference between boiling point and freezing point of 100 gm sugar [C12H22O11] aqueous solution
at 1 atm is 105°C then calculate solubility of sugar in the solution (molecular mass of sugar = 342
gm/mole, Kb = 0.512 and Kf = 1.86o C kg mole1)
(A) 0.63 gm (B) 72.09 gm (C) 126.8 gm (D) 2.98 gm
90. At 298 K temperature when 10 gm nonvolatile solute is dissolved in 540 gm water, it reduces the
vapour pressure of water from 0.0335 bar to 0.033 bar then calculate molecular mass of unknown
solute ?
(A) 22 gm/mole (B) 20 gm/mole (C) 42 gm/mole (D) 2.2 gm/mole
91. At 298 K temperature when 30 gm non volatile solute is dissolved in 90 gm water the vapour
pressure of solution is 2.8 K pascal. At the same temperature if 18 gm water is added in the solution
the new vapour pressure is 2.9 K pascal then calculate molecular mass of solute ?
(A) 23 gm (B) 43 gm (C) 34 gm (D) 28 gm
92. When 3.24 gm of sulphur is dissolved in 40 gm of benzene. Compared to benzene the boiling point
of its solution is 0.81 K more. If Kb of benzene is 2.53 K kg mole1. Calculate molecular formula of
sulphur ?
(A) S4 (B) S8 (C) S6 (D) S2
93. On dissolving 12.5 gm of non electrolyte substance in 175 gm water the rise in boiling point of the
solution is 0.70 K. Calculate molecular mass of solute ? (Kb of water = 0.52 k kg mole1)
(A) 53.06 gm (B) 16.4 gm (C) 35.60 gm (D) 5.306 gm
94. Two elements A and B have molecular formula of two compounds AB2 and AB4 when 1 gm of AB2
is dissolved in 20 gm of benzene there is decreas in freezing point of 2.3 K and in the same way 1
gm of AB4 is dissolved the freezing point decreases to 1.3 K. If molal depression constant of
Benzene is 5.1 K kg mole1, then calculate molecular mass of A and B respectively ?
(A) 196 and 110.87 gm (B) 25.59 and 42.64 gm
(C) 20 and 24.64 gm (D) 26.95 and 24.46 gm
95. At 37o C temperature osmotic pressure of blood is 8.21 atm, then intraveneous injections which are
isotonic to blood can dissolve, how many grams of glucose per litre in it ?
(A) 58.06 gm (B) 180 gm (C) 18.06 gm (D) 82.1 gm
96. When 15 gm of unknown solute is dissolved in 450 gm of water the solution freezes at -0.34o C
temperature then calculate molecular mass of compound ? (Kf = 1.86 K kg/mole)
(A) 180.53 gm mole1 (B) 186.35 gm mole1 (C) 158.0 gm mole1 (D) 182.35 gm mole1
Answers : 81. (A), 82. (D), 83. (B), 84. (C), 85. (C), 86. (B), 87. (A), 88. (D), 89. (B),
90. (A), 91. (C), 92. (B), 93. (A), 94. (B), 95. (A), 96. (D)
Abnormal molecular mass and vant Hoff factor

Abnormal molecular mass :
When a solute is dissolved in a solvent and a solution is prepared there is dissociation or association
taking place in it, so using colligative properties actual molecular mass of solute cannot be obtained. Hence
molecular mass obtained experimentally is called Abnormal molecular mass.
145
Dissociation : When polar solute is dissolved in polar solvent, solute is ionized in solution and
number of particles in solution increases. This is phenomena is called Dissociation.
eg., NaCl, K2SO4, FeCl3 and Fe2(SO4)3 are dissolved in water number of ions (particles) formed are
2, 3, 4 and 5 respectively.
In dissociation, number of solute particle in the solution increases.
Association : Some solute molecules when dissolved in solvent. Two or more than two molecule
combine and forms associated molecules. This process is called association.
eg. Acetic acid, benzoic acid when dissolved in benzene two molecules of solute associates.
Association decreases number of solute particles in solution.
The experimental molecular mass is more than the actual molecular mass. Hence such experimental
molecular mass is called as Abnormal molecular mass.
Since colligative properties of a solution is applicable to dilute solution actual molecular mass of
concentrated. Solution based colligative properties is not obtained and abnormal mass is obtained.
Vant-Hoff factor (i)
Using colligative properties actual molecular mass cannot be calculated and abnormal molecular mass
is obtained in such conditions scientist Vant Hoff introduced a new factor, which is known as Vant Hoff
factor (i)
Normal mass of solute
Vant Hoff factor (i) =
Abnormal mass of solute
Theoretical molar mass of solute
Experimental molar mass of solute
Observed colligative property

theoretical colligative property
Mathematical form of formula of colligative properties with vant hoff factor (i)
P 01 − P1 n2
(1) Raoults law (i) : = in
P 01 1
(2) Molal elevation : DTb = i.Kb.m
(3) Molal depression : D Tf = i.Kf.m
nRT n
(4) Osmotic pressure : p = i but = C p = iCRT
V V
Solute in a solution
On Association i < 1 ................................ means value of i is less than 1.
On Dissociation i > 1 ................................ means value of i is greater than 1.
No Association or Dissociation i = 1 ........... means value of i = 1
146
Degree of Dissociation
The proportion of the mass of the given solute in the solution which gets dissociated is called
degree of dissociation (µ).
i −1
\ Degree of dissociation (µ) = , where, i = Vant Hoff factor, n = number of particles on
n −1
dissociaties
Degree of Association
The proportion of the mass of the given solute in the solution which gets associated is called degree
of Association (X).
n
\ Degree of Association (X) = (1 - i) , where i = Vant Hoff factor, n = number of particles
n −1
combined due to association
97. 20 gm Napthoic acid (C11H8O2) is dissolved in 50 gm Benzene and solution is prepared with decrease
in freezing point of 2K, calculate value of Vant Hoff factor ?
(Kb of benzene 1.72 K Kg mole1)
(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 13
98. Which of the following is the correct relation between weak electrolyte AxBy, degree of dissociation
(µ) and Vant Hoff factor ?
i −1 i −1 x + y −1 x + y +1
(A) µ =
(x + y − 1) (B) µ =
x + y +1 (C) µ = (D) µ =
i −1 i −1
99. To calculate molecular mass Vant Hoff factor (i) for Na2SO4 having µ degree of dissociation is ?
(A) 1 + µ (B) 1 - µ (C) 1 + 2µ (D) 1 - 2µ
o
100. For water molal depression constant is 1.8 C. If 5 gm Na2SO4 is dissolved in 45 gm water the
freezing point changes to 3.82°C, calculate Vant Hoff factor i for Na2SO4 option ?
(A) 0.381 (B) 2.05 (C) 2.63 (D) 3.11
101. Following formula are given for Vant Hoff factor (i) from which of these formula Vant Hoff factor
cannot be calculated ?
(A) p V = in RT (B) D Tf = i.Kf.m
P 0solvent -Psolution
i  N + n 
. . n
(C) D Tb = i Kb m (D) =
P 0solvent  
102. On dissolving 0.5 gm KCl in 100 gm water its freezing point becomes 0.24° C then calculate
percentage dissocation of salt (Kf for water 1.86 K mole1)
(A) 90 % (B) 92 % (C) 94 % (D) 82 %
103. Suppose Vant Hoff factor for NaCl is 1.87. Now how many grams of NaCl molecular mass = 58.5
gm/mole should be dissolved in 65 gm of water to get decrease in freezing point of 7.5°C
(Kf for water = 1.86 K kgmol1)
(A) 2.8 gm (B) 10.0 gm (C) 8.2 gm (D) 5.8 gm
104. When 19.5 gm CH2FCOOH (Flouroacetic acid) is dissolved in 500 gm water. Which decreases the
freezing point by 1 then calculate Vant Hoff factor and dissociation constant of Flouro acetic acid ?
(Kf for water = 1.86 K kgmol1)
(A) 0.93 and 7.03 ´ 103 (B) 1.09 and 3.07 ´ 103
(C) 1.0753 and 3.07 ´ 103 (D) 1.753 and 30.7 ´ 103
147
105. Calculate the amount of CaCl2 (i = 2.47) to be added to 2.5 litre of water at 27°C temperature to
produce osmotic pressure of 0.75 atm ?
(A) 0.03 mole (B) 3.0 mole (C) 0.03 mole (D) 30 mole
106. Calculate degree of dissociation of Na2SO4 if 0.004 M Na2SO4 solution is isotonic to 0.01 M
glucose solution ?
(A) 50 % (B) 75 % (C) 85 % (D) 25 %
107. The depression in freezing point of 0.01 m K3[Fe(CN)6] solution is 0.062 K, then calculate its degree
of dissociation (µ) ? (molal depression constant of solvent (Kf = 1.86 K kg mole1)
(A) 0.734 (B) 0.778 (C) 0.877 (D) 0.0778
108. Depression in freezing point of solution produced by dissolving 1.5 gm phenol in 100 gm and toluene
is 0.56 K. If its association produces dimer, calculate its degree of association. (molal depression
constant of solvent Kf = 4.0 K kg mole1.)
(A) 0.879 (B) 24.2 (C) 0.242 (D) 0.0242
109. If a compound undergoes dissociation in one solvent and undergoes association in another solvent
than the Vant Hoff factor (i) is respectively ............ .
(A) less than 1 and more than 1 (B) less than 1 and less than 1
(C) more than 1 and more than 1 (D) more than 1 and less than 1
110. At 300 K temperature 0.1 M potassium ferocyanide K4[Fe(CN)6] aqueous solution undergoes 50%
dissociation then calculate osmotic pressure of the solution ? (R = 0.082 litre atm/mole K)
(A) 7.38 atm (B) 3.78 atm (C) 3.83 atm (D) 8.38 atm
111. At 283 K temperature, osmotic pressure of aqueous solution of urea is 500 mm. If the temperature is
made 298 K, then how many times should the solution be diluted to have osmotic pressure 105.3 mm ?
(A) 10 times (B) 2.5 times (C) 5 times (D) 4 times
112. Concentration of four solutions of K2SO4 is 0.1 m, 0.01 m, 0.001 m and 0.0001 m. Which of this
solution will have highest Vant Hoff factor (i) ?
(A) 0.0001 m solution (B) 0.001 m solution (C) 0.01 m solution (D) 0.1 m solution
Answers : 97. (A), 98. (A), 99. (C), 100. (C), 101. (A), 102. (B), 103. (C), 104. (C),
105. (A), 106. (B), 107. (B), 108. (C), 109. (D), 110. (A), 111. (C), 112. (A)
For each of the following questions there are two statements from which one is Assertion
(A) and second is reason (R) study the statements carefully and select correct option as
per the instruction.
(A) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are correct, where reason (R) is the explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are correct, where reason (R) is not the explanation of
Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect and Reason (R) is correct.
148
113. Assertion (A) : In liquid state molarity changes with change in temperature.
Reason (R) : Volume changes with change in temperature.
114. Assertion (A) : For ideal solution D Hmix and D Vmix is zero.
Reason (R) : In ideal solution intermolecular attraction AB is equal to intermolecular attrac-
tion AA and BB.
115. Assertion (A) : When NaCl is added to water, freezing point decreases.
Reason (R) : Due to lowering of vapour pressure of solution freezing point decreases.
116. Assertion (A) : Compared to 1 molal aqueous solution, 1 molar aqueous solution is more
concentrated.
Reason (R) : Molality of solution depends on its density while molarity does not depend on
density.
117. Assertion (A) : When a concentrated solution is diluted by adding more water. It does not change
molarity of the solution.
Reason (R) : Ratio of moles of solute to volume is called molarity.
118. Assertion (A) : Ideal solution is prepared by mixing benzene and Toluene.
Reason (R) : On mixing 50 ml benzene with 50 ml to Toluene, the volume of solution is 100
ml, so DV = 0 and DH = 0.
119. Assertion (A) : Isotonic solutions do not show osmosis.
Reason (R) : Isotonic solutions have equal osmotic pressure.
120. Assertion (A) : 1 molal aqueous solution of glucose contains 180 gm glucose in 1 kg water.
Reason (R) : 1 mole solute dissolved in 1000 gm solvent is called a 1 molal solution.
121. Assertion (A) : When molecular mass of Acetic acid in Benzene and in water is calculated
using depression in freezing point it gives different values.
Reason (R) : Water is polar and benzene is non polar.
122. Assertion (A) : On increasing pressure on water freezing point decreases.
Reason (R) : Density of water is maximum at 273 K.
123. Assertion (A) : Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M urea solution is less than that of 0.01 M NaCl
solution.
Reason (R) : Osmotic pressure is not a colligative property.
124. Assertion (A) : To remove snow from the road NaCl is used.
Reason (R) : Sodium chloride decreases freezing point of water.
125. Assertion (A) : Iodine is more soluble in CCl4 (carbon tetrachloride) than water.
Reason (R) :Non polar solutes are more soluble in polar solvents.
126. Assertion (A) : Pressure cooker decreases time of cooking food.
Reason (R) : In the inner part of pressure cooker boiling point decreases.
Answers : 113. (A), 114. (A), 115. (A), 116. (B), 117. (D), 118. (A), 119. (B), 120. (A),
121. (A), 122. (C), 123. (C), 124. (A), 125. (A), 126. (B)
149
Passage type Questions :
On the basis of the given paragraph answer the given multiple choice questions. Each
question has one correct answer. Find the correct answer from them.
Passage : 1
At a definite temperature each liquid possesses definite vapour pressure, but when a solid or liquid
solute substance is added to it then its vapour pressure changes. F.M. Raoult in 1986 studied colligative
properties for vapour pressure of solution and the law given by him is called Raoults law. When solute and
solvent both are liquid their individual pressure is called partial pressure. It depends on the mole fraction of
the components present in the solution. If a solution has two liquid components with different volatility then
their mole fraction of soluble state and vapour state are different. If solute is a solid substance then vapour
pressure of solution is less than that of its pure solvent. This decrease is known as relative lowering of
vapour pressure. Relative lowering in vapour pressure of solution is equal to molefraction of solute. This
law is useful to calculate molecular mass of solute.
127. At a definite temperature pure components A and B have vapour pressure 108 and 36 torr respectively.
If solution has equal moles of A and B components, calculate its vapour pressure ?
(A) 144 torr (B) 72 torr (C) 90 torr (D) 126 torr
128. Calculate molefraction of vapour form of B component ?
(A) 0.50 (B) 0.75 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.33
129. When a non volatile solute is dissolved in a solvent the vapour pressure of the solvent decreases 10
mm Height of Hg column. If mole fraction of solute is 0.2 calculate molefraction of solvent vapour
pressure decreases 20 mm Height of Hg column ?
(A) 0.8 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.04
130. Vapour pressure of pure component A is 10 torr. At identical temperature if one gram B component
is added to 20 gm component A the vapour pressure decreases by 9 torr. If molecular mass of
component A is 200 a.m.u. calculate molecular mass of component B ?
(A) 100 a.m.u. (B) 90 a.m.u. (C) 75 a.m.u. (D) 120 a.m.u.
Passage 2
Ideal solutions obey Raoults law while non ideal solutions do not obey Raoults law. In the same way
when ideal solution is mixed, its volume and enthalpy do not change. Whereas for non ideal solution these
properties changes based on their characteristics. Non ideal solutions can be classified into positive deviation
form and negative deviation form. In a definite mixture both solutions produce Azeotropic mixture.
131. Which of the following is not true for ideal-solution ?
(A) D Smix = 0 (B) D Vmix = 0
(C) DHmix = 0 (D) It obeys Raoults law
132. In Azeotropic mixture of HCl and H2O ..........
(A) 48 % HCl (B) 22.2 % HCl (C) 36 % HCl (D) 20.2 % HCl
150
133. Which of the following does not show positive deviation of Raoults law ?
(A) Benzene chloroform (B) benzene Acetone
(C) Benzene ethanol (D) Benzene carbon tetrachloride
Passage : 3
Whenever colligative property of any electrolyte is calculated using any equation its experimental
value will be more than the theoretical value because an electrolyte always undergoes dissociation in a
solution. In the same way. Association of substance takes place (eg. Benzene, Acetic Acid) then the
experimental value of colligative property is less than the theoretical value. This way experimentally calcu-
lated molecular mass is different from the theoretical value. It is known as abnormal molecular mass to
rectify these errors Vant Hoff factor (i) is introduced. If value of Vant Hoff factor is known then degree
of dissociation or association can be calculated.
134. Which of the following aqueous solution has maximum freezing point ?
(A) 0.1 M urea (B) 0.1M sucrose (C) 0.1M AlCl3 (D) 0.1M K4[Fe(CN)6]
135. Calculate boiling point of 0.1 molal K4[Fe(CN)6] solution. (Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mole1)
(A) 100.52o C (B) 100.104o C (C) 100.26o C (D) 102.6o C
136. If Vant Hoff factor of 0.1 M Ba(NO3)2 solution is 2.74 then calculate its percentage of dissocation ?
(A) 91.3 % (B) 87 % (C) 100 % (D) 74 %
Passage : 4
When a solute is added to a pure solvent and a homogenous solution is prepared, then properties
like boiling point, freezing point, vapour pressure etc. of pure solvent changes. All these properties are
colligative properties. Colligative properties are very useful in daily life, like a mixture of ehylene glycol and
water is used as anti-freezing reagent in the radiator of vehicles.
Given ethanol is mixed in water and solution M is prepared.
In this mixture mole fraction of ethanol is 0.9 molal depression constant of water is Kfwater = 1.86 K
kg mole1, molal depression constant of ethanol is Kf ethanol
= 2.0 K kg mol1, molal elevation constant of
water (K b water ) = 0.52 K kg mole 1, molal elevation constant of ethanol (K b eth anol) = 1.2 K kg
1
mol standard freezing point of water = 273 K, standard freezing point of ethanol is = 155.7 K, standard
boiling point of water is = 373 K, and standard boiling point of ethanol is = 351.5 K, vapour pressure of
pure water = 32.8 mm, vapour pressure of pure ethanol is = 40 mm, Molecular mass of water = 18 gm/
mole, molecular mass of ethanol is = 46 gm/mole.
If solvent is nonvolatile and non electrolyte and solution is dilute and ideal. Answer the following
question.
151
137. What will be the freezing point of solution M ?
(A) 268.7 K (B) 268.5 K (C) 234.2 K (D) 150.9 K
138. What will be the vapour pressure of solution M ?
(A) 39.3 mm (B) 36.0 mm (C) 29.5 mm (D) 28.8 mm
139. On adding water to solution M, and mole fraction of water is 0.9. Calculate boiling point of water ?
(A) 380.4 K (B) 376.2 K (C) 375.5 K (D) 354.7 K
Answers : 127. (B), 128. (C), 129. (B), 130. (B), 131. (A), 132. (D), 133. (A), 134. (B),
135. (C), 136. (B), 137. (D), 138. (A), 139. (B)
Match the column type questions :
For the given question match the information of column I with column II. Select the correct option
from the option (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below the question.
140. Column-I Column-II
gm
(A) 10.6 gm NaCl dissolved in 100 ml water (density = 1.06 ) (p) 0.1 M
ml
(A) 34.2 gm/litre sucrose solution (density = 1.0342 gm/ml) (q) 1 M
(C) 9.8 % H2SO4 solution (density = 1.25 gm/ml) (r) 1.25 M
(D) 20 % by volume ethanol 20 % solution (density = 0.938 gm/ml) (s) 3.0 M
(A) (A)-(p), (B)-(q), (C)-(r), (D)-(s) (B) (A)-(q), (B)-(p), (C)-(s), (D)-(r)
(C) (A)-(q), (B)-(r), (C)-(p), (D)-(s) (D) (A)-(q), (B)-(p), (C)-(r), (D)-(s)
(A) 0.91 % NaCl solution in contact with blood cells (p) Hypertonic solution
(B) 1.25 % NaCl solution in contact with blood cells (q) Hypotonic solution
(C) 0.75 % NaCl solution in contact with blood cells (r) Isotonic solution
(D) 5.85 % NaCl solution in contact with glass wall (s) Common solution
(A) (A)-(p), (B)-(q), (C)-(r), (D)-(s) (B) (A)-(r), (B)-(p), (C)-(q), (D)-(s)
(C) (A)-(s), (B)-(p), (C)-(q), (D)-(r) (D) (A)-(q), (B)-(p), (C)-(r), (D)-(s)
152
(different solute equimolal solution) (Elevationing Boiling point)
(P) Sucrose, NaCl, BaCl2 (i) 1 : 1 : 1
(Q) KCl, CaCl2, K2SO4 (ii) 3 : 2 : 5 : 2
(R) Sucrose, glucose, urea (iii) 2 : 3 : 3
(S) Na3PO4, K4[Fe(CN)6], C6H5NH2Cl (iv) 1 : 2 : 3
(v) 1 : 1 : 2
(vi) 2 : 2 : 5 : 1
(A) (P)-(iv), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i), (S)-(vi) (B) (P)-(iv), (Q)-(v), (R)-(i), (S)-(ii)
(C) (P)-(iv), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(v), (S)-(ii) (D) (P)-(v), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iv), (S)-(vi)
(P) PTotal (i) PTotal > P0A.XA + PB.XB
(Q) attraction between molecule A and B (ii) PTotal < P0A.XA + PB.XB
(R) Liquid heat of dilution (iii) more attraction for AA and BB from.
(S) Total volume of solution is volume of liquid (iv) less attraction for AA and BB
(T) indicates (ve) deviation.
(T) Solution having negative deviation (v) D H < 0
(vi) D H = 0
(vii) D V < 0
(viii) D H > 0
(ix) cyclohexane + Ethanol
(x) Acetone + Aniline
(A) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(v), (S)-(vii), (T)-(x) (B) (P)-(iii), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(vi), (S)-(viii), (T)-(ix)
(C) (P)-(vi), (Q)-(v), (R)-(vii), (S)-(ii), (T)-(iii) (D) (P)-(vii), (Q)-(vi), (R)-(i), (S)-(iii), (T)-(ii)
(P) Positive deviation of non ideal solution (i) n-Hexane-n-heptone

(Q) Negative deviation of non ideal solution (ii) CCl4 + Benzene
(R) Abnormal molecular mass (iii) chloroform + benzene
(S) Ideal solution (iv) acetic acid + Benzene
(A) (P)-(i), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv) (B) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(iv), (S)-(i)
(C) (P)-(i), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(iv), (S)-(ii) (D) (P)-(ii), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(iii), (S)-(i)
Answers : 140. (D), 141. (B), 142. (A), 143. (A), 144. (B)
153
True or false type of question :
For every correct statement T and wrong statement (F) select the correct option from the given
options :
145. (1) For a nonvolatile solute containing solution vapour pressure and mole fraction are equal.
(2) 0.1 M Ba(NO2)2 solution is dioosmotic to 0.1 M Na2SO4 solution.
(3) Boiling point is a colligative property.
(4) When solute undergoes association and their Vant Hoff factor (i) is more than I
(A) TTFF (B) FFTT (C) TTTT (D) FFFF
146. (1) For a solution prepared by mixing CH3COCH3 and C6H6 as DH > 0 and V
D > 0 PTotal > P0A.XA
+ P .X
0
B B
W
(2) If density of 5 % is 1.043 gm/ml then its molality is 0.549 m.
W
(3) liquid having low vapour pressure has high boiling point.
(4) Two solutions A and B are separated by semipermeable membrane. If liquid flows from A to B
side then concentration of A is more than that
(A) FTFT (B) TFTF (C) TTTT (D) FFFF
Answers : 145. (A), 146. (B)
Match the matrix type question (more than one correct Answer)
Match column I with column II for given question, but information of column I is connected to more
than one option. For e.g. 4 × 4 matrix is as follows.
p q r s
A p q r s
B p q r s
C p q r s
D p q r s
(A) 95.4 % aqueous ethanol solution (p) maximum boiling azeotrope is obtained
(B) 68 % aqueous HNO3 (q) minimum freezing azeotrope is obtained.
(C) 20.3 % aqueous HCl solution (r) DVmix = + Ve
(D) 6.8 % solution of chloroform in ethanol (s) DHmix = - Ve
solution
(A) Relative lowering in vapour pressure (p) Increasing proportion of solute.
(B) Osmotic pressure (q) Salt is deposited at the bottom of the sea
(C) Rise in Boiling point (r) Construct base for Rast technique
(D) depression in freezing point (s) Familiar technique to calculate molecular
mass of polymer substance
Answers : 147. (A)-(q), (r), (B)-(p), (s); (C)-(p), (s), (D)-(q), (r)
148. (A)-(p), (B)-(p), (q); (C)-(p), (D)-(p), (r)
154
Number (0 to 9) based Question
Answer of the following question is in form of 0 to 9 decide the answer and follow the given
method in column for eg. Question 1 to 4 have answers 4, 0, 9 and 2.
1 2 3 4
0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7
8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9
149. Suppose mole fraction of N2 in air is 0.78. If at 25o C room temperature and 1 atm pressure concen-
tration of Nitrogen in one glass of water is x ´ 104 mole/litre, then calculate value of x ?
(Henrys constant KH = 8.42 ´ 107)
150. Calculate osmotic pressure of the solution prepared by mixing 100 ml 1.4% urea solution (molecular
mass = 60) and 100 ml 3.42% sugarcane (sucrose) solution (Molecular mass = 342) at 20°C tem-
perature (R = 0.0821 lit atm/mole K)
151. Calculate Vant Hoff factor for 75% dissociated potassium Ferocyamide K4[Fe(CN)6] solution ?
152. How many pairs of solution show positive deviation from Raoults law ?
(CH3)2CO - CS2; CHCl3 - C6H6; C2H5OH - H2O;
HNO3 - H2O; CCl4 - C6H6; (CH3)2CO - C2H5OH;
CCl4 - CHCl3; HCl - H2O; (CH3)2CO - CHCl3
153. How many ml of 0.1 M AgNO3 solution will be needed to completely precipitate chloride ion into
silver chloride from 30 ml 0.01 M [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 solution.
154. How many solutions will boil above 372 K temp ?
0.1 M NaCl, 0.1 M glucose, 0.1 M BaCl2, 0.1 M sucrose
0.1 M KNO3, 0.1 M Na2SO3, 0.1 M K4[Fe(CN)6]
0.1 M K2CO3
155. From the following how many concentration units are temperature based ?
Molarity, mole fraction, Normality, formality, molality, percentage by volume and percentage by mass.
155
156. If ratio of depression in freezing poing for the solution 1M urea, 0.5 M glucose, 1 M NaCl, and 1 M
K2SO4 is x : 1 : y : z, then calculate value of x + z ?
157. Calculate moles of NaCl in 3 M NaCl 3 litre solution ?
158. Calculate mass of ascorbic acid (vitamin C-C6H8O6) dissolved in 75 gm Acetic acid [CH3COOH]
having decrease in melting point of 1.5° C ?
(Kf = 3.9 K kg mole1)
159. Calculate degree of association (x) for benzoic acid having abnormal mass 244 gm/mole and actual
molecular mass is 122gm/mole. Benzoic acid form dimer compound ?
160. 2 ´ 106 kg of sulphur is soluble in 2 litre solution then from mass by volume of solution calculate its parts
per million ?
Answers : 149. (5), 150. (4), 151. (4), 152. (6), 153. (6), 154. (8), 155. (3), 156. (8),
157. (9), 158. (5), 159. (1), 160. (1)
156
7 Equilibrium
Irreversible and reversible reactions
(1) Irreversible reaction : A reaction which moves only in one directions and all reactants
are converted into products is called an irreversible reaction.
(2) Reversible reaction : The reaction occurs in both the directions and the reaction is never
completed is called Reversible reaction.
In a reversible reaction if gases are involved, they are in closed container.
Equilibrium : at a constant temperature for any physical or chemical reaction rate of forward
reaction is equal to rate of backward reaction and a stable state is created which is called eqilibrium.
Equilibrium
¯ ¯
Physical equilibrium Chemical Equilibrium

(obtained in physical process) (obtained in chemical reactions)
Equilibrium
¯ ¯
Homogeneous equilibrium Heterogeneous equilibrium

an equilibrium state an equilibrium state in which
in which all components all components are in different
are in same physical state. physical state.
Laws of chemical equilibrium and equilibrium constant

Homogeneous equilibrium : aA + bB U cC + dD,
According to law of active masses,
Rf µ [A]a[B]b therefore Rf = Kf.[A]a[B]b
Rr µ [C]c[D]d therefore Rr = Kr.[C]c[D]d
at equilibrium, Rf = Rr
c d
[C] [D]
\ Ke = a b = Kc
[A] [B]
If concentration of component at equilibrium is expressed in partial pressure then
c d
(PC ) (PD )
Kp = a b
(PA ) (PB )
157
If concentration of components at equilibrium is expressed in mole fraction then
c d
(X C ) (X D )
Kx =
(X A )a (X B ) b
KP = KC.(RT)Dn(g), KP = Kx.(P)Dn(g)
Certain characteristics of equilibrium constant

c d
[C] [D]
(i) At a definite temperature equilibrium constant of the reaction aA + bB U cC + dD, KC = a b
[A] [B]
1
\ cC + dD U aA + bB reaction at the same temperature equilibrium constant K ’C =
KC
[C][D]
(ii) At a definite temperature equilibrium constant of the reaction A + B U C + D , KC =
[A][B]
\ equilibrium constant of the reaction nA + nB U nC + nD at the same temperature
K ’C = (KC)n
(iii) At a definite temperature equilibrium constant of the reaction A + B U P + Q is K3.
This reaction is addition of the following two reactions.
(a) A + B U C + D, equilibrium constant = K1
(b) C + D U P + Q, equilibrium constant = K2
\ K3 = K1 . K2
In the same way A + B U P + Q, equilibrium constant = K3
This reaction is difference of the following two reactions
(a) A + B U C + D, equilibrium constant = K1
K1
(b) P + Q U C + D, equilibrium constant = K2 \ K3 =
K2
Using equilibrium constant direction of reaction can be predicted. Calculate reaction Quotient
> Product@
QC = > Reactant@ and compare with KC,
(i) If KC < QC, Reaction will occur in forward direction

(ii) If KC > QC Reaction will occur in reverse direction
(iii) If KC = QC Reaction will remain in equilibrium
From the equation DG = D Go + RTln QC if D K = 0, QC = KC
\ D Go = - RTlnKC
\ D Go = - 2.303RTlogKC
158
RT
For reaction occuring in an electrochemical cell, Eocell = lnKC
nF
2.303RT
\ Eocell = logKC
nF
If for an equilibrium reaction, equilibrium constant is K1 at temeprature T1 and equilibrium constant is
K2 at temperature T2, than the enthalpy change is
K2 ∆H  1 − 1 
log =
K1 2.303R  T1 T2 
(i) If D H = 0, K1 = K2, (ii) If DH > 0, K1 < K2, (iii) If DH < 0, K1 > K2

Le-chateliers Principle
For equilibrium reaction at a definite temperature and pressure
A + B U C + D
(i) If concentration of A and/or B is increased or concentration of C and/or D is decreased, equilibrium
will move in forward direction but equilibrium constant will not change.
(ii) If concentration of A and/or B is decreased or concentration of C and/or D is increased, equilibrium
will move in backward direction but equilibrium constant will not change.
(iii) If reaction is endothermic and temperature is increased, equilibrium will move in forward direction,
equilibrium constant will increase and equilibrium is established faster.
(iv) If reaction is exothermic and temperature is increased, equilibrium will move in backward direction,
equilibrium constant will decrease and equilibrium is established slower
(v) In the above reaction if components are in gasseous state
(a) np(g) = nr(g), then there is no effect of pressure on equilibrium
(b) np(g) ¹ nr(g), then there is increase or decrease in pressure then equilibrium respectively will
move in direction of more number of moles to less number of moles or less number of moles
to more number of moles, equilibrium constant will not change.
(vi) If catalyst is used equilibrium is achieved faster but equilibrium constant is not changed.
1. On reacting Br2 with Nitric oxide, Nitrosyl Bromide is obtained,
2NO(g) + Br2(g) U 2NOBr(g)

when 0.087 moles of NO and 0.0437 moles of, Br2 are mixed in a closed container at constant
temperature and pressure at equilibrium 0.0518 moles of NOBr is obtained, then calculate concentration
of NO and Br2 at equilibrium.
(A) 0.0352, 0.0178 (B) 0.0872, 0.0259 (C) 0.0518, 0.0259 (D) 0.0259, 0.0518
2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of equilibrium involving a physical process.
(A) At a given temperature equilibrium is possible in closed centainer.
(B) All measurable properties of the system are constant.
(C) At equilibrium all physical processes stop.
(D) Opposite to stable state equal rate is applicable to all processes.
159
3. For the following reaction at 25o C, value of equilibrium constant is 2 ´ 1050. At that temperature
concentration of O2 is 1.6 ´ 102M then calculate concentration of O3 ?
(A) 2 ´ 1015 ´ (1.6 ´ 102)3 (B) 2.86 ´ 1028
(C) (1.6 ´ 102)4 (D) Both (A) and (B)
4. HI(g) filled in a closed container at 0.2 atm pressure and definite temperature undergoes
dissociation. If partial pressure of HI at equilibrium is 0.04 atm then calculate value of KP ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
5. H2(g) gas used in Habers process is obtained from water gas of Methane. In this process
there are two steps in 1st step CO and H2 are produced in second step CO obtained in second
step is reacted with excess of water gas. What will be PH at equilibrium ? In the reaction
2
container at 400o C initially PCO = PH = 4.0 bar.
2O
(KP at 400° C = 10.1)
Reaction : CO(g) + H2O(g) U CO2(g) + H2(g)
(A) 12.71 (B) 3.17 (C) 5.32 (D) 3.04
6. For the following reaction at 500 K its value of KC is 5
1 1
H + I U HI(g) at the same temperature if
2 2(g) 2 2(g)
2HI(g) U H2(g) + I2(g) what will be its KC value ?
(A) 0.04 (B) 0.4 (C) 25 (D) 2.5
7. For the following reaction at 899 K its KP = 0.04 atm when C2H6 gas is filled in a centainer at
4 atm, calculate its partial pressure at equilibrium ?
(A) 0.30 (B) 3.6 (C) 4.0 (D) 2.8
8. Dissociation of PCl5(g) in a closed container is as follows
PCl5(g) U PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
If pressure of the total mixture at equilibrium is P and degree of dissociation of PCl5 is x, then
calculate partial pressure of PCl3 ?
(A) ( x x+ 1) P (B) (12x− x ) P (C) ( x x−1) P (D) (1 −x x ) P

9. In a closed container at 800 K temperature and at equilibrium concentration of N2, O2 and NO
are 3 ´ 103 M, 4.2 ´ 103 M and 2.8 ´ 103 M respectively, then calcualte KC for the following
reaction ?
N2(g) + O2(g) U 2NO(g)
(A) 0.622 (B) 6.22 (C) 0.0622 (D) 0.266

160
10. Pressure of the reaction NH4COONH2(s) U 2NH3(g) + CO2(g) at equilibrium is 3 bar then calculate
its KP value ?
4 1
(A) 4 (B) 27 (C) (D)
27 27
11. For the reaction A(g) + 3B(g) U 4C(g) Initially concentration of A is equal to concentration of B and
at equilibrium concentration of A is equal to concentration of C, then calculate value of KC ?
1
(A) 0.08 (B) 0.8 (C) 8 (D)
8
12. According to law of active masses, rate of reaction is proportional to which of the following ?
(A) volume of container (B) equilibrium constant
(C) nature of Reaction (D) concentration of reactant
13. At 400 K temperature pressure of PCl5(g) is 1 atmosphere. If it undergoes dissociation as follows
having degree of dissociation 0.4. Calculate the density of mixture at equilibrium :
Reaction : PCl5(g) U PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(A) 45.4 gm/litre (B) 4.54 gm/litre (C) 55.4 gm/litre (D) 3.45 gm/litre
14. Calculate concentration of I2 and ICl at equilibrium obtained by dissocation of ICl having initial
concentration 0.78M ? 2ICl(g) U I2(g) + Cl2(g), KC = 0.14
(A) 0.167 and 0.446 (B) 0.446 and 0.167 (C) 0.339 and 0.104 (D) 0.80 and 0.17
15. at 1000 K temperature there is a reaction as follows
CO2(g) + C(s) U 2CO(g), KP = 3.0 bar. If initially in presence of graphite PCO = 0.48 bar and
2
PCO = 0 , then calculate partial pressure of CO and CO2 respectively at equilibrium ?
(A) 0.66 and 0.15 bar (B) 0.15 and 0.66 bar (C) 6.6 and 1.5 bar (D) 0.066 and 0.015 bar
16. At a definite temperature and 105 pascal total pressure Iodine vapour contains 40% Iodine atoms
than volume, then calculate KP at equilibrium ? I2(g) U 2I(g)
(A) 6.72 ´ 104 (B) 2.67 ´ 104 (C) 2.67 ´ 104 (D) 2.67 ´ 106
17. A sample of HI(g) gas is filled in a flask at 0.2 atm pressure, at equilibrium partial press of HI(g) is
0.04 atm, then calculate KP for the equilibrium reaction ?
2HI(g) U H2(g) + I2(g)
(A) 4.0 (B) 0.4 (C) 6.0 (D) 8.0
18. At a definite temperature for the following equilibrium calculate value of KC respectively ?
(i) 2NOCl(g) U 2NO(g) + Cl2(g) KP = 1.8 ´ 102, T = 500 K
(ii) CaCO3(s) U CaO(s) + CO2(g) KP = 167, T = 1073 K
(A) 4.38 ´ 104, 2.89 (B) 4.38 ´ 104, 1.89 (C) 4.38 ´ 105, 28.9 (D) 4.38 ´ 105, 18.9
19. At 450 K temperature for the following reaction value of KP = 2 ´ 1010 bar, then calculate value of
KC at same temperature ?
2SO2(g) + O2(g) U 2SO3(g)
(A) 2.67 ´ 107 (B) 5.24 ´ 1010 (C) 5.41 ´ 108 (D) 7.38 ´ 1011
161
20. At 1127 K temperature and 1 bar pressure solid carbon is in equillibrium with gasseous mixture of CO
and CO2 possessing 90.55 % by mass CO, then calculate value of KC at the same temperature ?
C(s) + CO2(g) U 2CO(g)
(A) 0.283 (B) 0.513 (C) 0.153 (D) 0.365
KP
21. For CO(g) + Cl2(g) U COCl2(g) which of the following is equal to ?
KC
1
(A) (B) RT (C) RT (D) 1.0
RT
22. For the following reactions which of the following relation between equalibrium constants is true ?
CO(g) + H2O(g) U CO2(g) + H2(g), K1
CH4(g) + H2O(g) U CO(g) + 3H2(g), K2
CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) U CO2(g) + 4H2(g), K3
(A) K1 . K2 = K3 (B) K2 . K3 = K1 (C) K3 = K1 . K2 (D) K3 . K23 = K12
23. For 2NO 2(g) U 2NO (g) + O 2(g), K C = 1.8 ´ 10 6 . Temperature 184 o C and R = 0.0831
KJ mole1 , then on comparing KP and KC ,
(A) Depending upon the total pressure of the gas KP can be less than, guales than or equal to KC.
(B) KP = KC (C) KP < KC (D) KP > KC
24. Al 700 K temperature for the reaction 2SO3(r) U 2SO2(g) + O2(g) value of KP is 1.8 ´ 103
K pascal, then at same temperature calculate value of KC in mol dm3 ?
(A) 9.03 ´ 107 (B) 3.09 ´ 107 (C) 3.09 ´ 104 (D) 3.09 ´ 109
25. For phosphorilation of glucose, glycolysis reaction has value of D Go 13.8 KJmole1, then at 298 K
temperature, calculate value of KC ?
(A) 2.83 ´ 103 (B) 3.86 ´ 103 (C) 3.82 ´ 103 (D) 3.82 ´ 103
26. at 1000 K temperature for the reaction C(s) + H2O(g) U CO(g) + H2O(g) value of D Go is
- 8.1 KJmole1, calculate equilibrium constant ?
(A) 6.24 (B) 3.84 (C) 2.64 (D) 4.64
27. At 298 K temperature, standard free energy of formation of NO2, NO is 52.0 and 87.0 KJ/mole1
calcualte equilibrium constant for the reaction ?
1
NO(g) + O U NO
2 2(g) 2(g)
(A) 1.362 ´ 106 (B) 1.362 ´ 106 (C) 2.287 ´ 106 (D) 4.862 ´ 105
162
28. For 3X(g) + Y(g) U X3Y(g) What is the mass of X3Y dependent on the following ?
(A) only pressure (B) only temperature
(C) temperature, pressure and catalyst (D) temperature and pressure
29. In which of the following reactions at constant volume addition of small amount of Argon does not
affect equilibrium constant ?
(A) H2(g) + I2(g) U 2HI(g) (B) PCl2(g) U PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(C) N2(g) + 3H2(g) U 2NH3(g) (D) All the reaction
30. If reaction A U B is completed half, then which of the following option is right ?
(A) D Go > 0 (B) D Go < 0 (C) D Go = 0 (D) D Go = RTlog2

-
31. Eqilibrium constant for the reaction H2(g) + S(s) U H2S(g) at 925 K and 1000 K is 18.5 and 9.25
respectively, then calculate enthalpy of reaction ?
(A) 2 KJmole1 (B) 71 KJmole1 (C) -71 KJmole1 (D) 57 KJmole1
32. At 500 K temperature in a 20 litre container 1.57 mole N2, 1.92 mole H2 and 8.13 mole NH3 is
mixed, at that temperature value of equilibrium constant is 1.57 ´ 10 m2 ?
(A) Reaction is at equilibrium (B) Reaction occurs in direction of reactant
(C) Reaction occurs in direction of product (D) Cannot be predicted
If concentration of OH - is decreased
1
33. th time in the following reaction at equilibrium
4

Fe(OH)3(aq) U Fe3+(aq) + 3OH (aq) then concentration of Fe3+ becomes .......... time.
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 64 (D) 4
34. Which of the following equilibrium reactions is not affected by change in volume of the container ?
(A) PCl5(g) U PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) (B) N2(g) + 3H2(g) U 2NH3(g)
(C) N2(g) + O2(g) U 2NO(g) (D) SO2Cl2(g) U SO2(g) + Cl2(g)
35. For 2SO2(g) + O2(g) U 2SO3(g), DHo = -198 KJ, which of the following conditions will favour
forward reaction ?
(A) Decrease in temperature and pressure.
(B) Increase in temperature and pressure.
(C) Increase in temperature and decrease in pressure.
(D) Decrease in temperature and increase in pressure.
Answers : 1. (A), 2. (C), 3. (B), 4. (B), 5. (D), 6. (A), 7. (B), 8. (A), 9. (A), 10. (A),
11. (C), 12. (D), 13. (B), 14. (A), 15. (A), 16. (C), 17. (A), 18. (B), 19. (D),
20. (C), 21. (A), 22. (C), 23. (D), 24. (B), 25. (C), 26. (C), 27. (A), 28. (D),
29. (D), 30. (C), 31. (C), 32. (B), 33. (C), 34. (C), 35. (D)
163
Ionic Equilibrium
Electrolyte and Non Electrolyte
A compound whose aqueous solution or molten state can conduct electricity is called an electrolyte.
A compound whose aqueous solution or molten state cannot conduct electricity is called non-electrolyte.
Amount of electrolyte compound dissolved is proportional to amount of compound undergoing disso-
ciation (or ionisation) and it is known as degree of dissociation (ionisation) µ of the electrolyte
compound.
An electrolyte which undergoes complete ionization (dissociation) in its aqueous solution is called
a strong electrolyte but electrolytes which undergoes partial ionization in its aqueous soultion
(dissociation) are called as weak electrolytes.
Strong acid, strong base and salts act as strong electrolytes while weak acid and weak base act as
weak electrolyes.
Principle of Acid-Base
(1) Arrhenius Acid-Base : Substances which ionize in aqueous solution and release H+ ions are
called acid and substances which ionize in aqueous solution and release OH- ions are called base.
(2) Bronstead-Lowry Acid-Base : A substance which donate H+ ion during a reaction is acid and
which accept H+ ion is base.
According to this principle acid which lose H+ ion produce conjugate base and base which gain H+
ion produce conjugate acid. A conjugate base and conjugate acid derived from strong acid and strong base
repectively are weak base and weak acid.
(3) Lewis Acid-Base : Substance which donate electron pair during the reaction is called base and
which accepts electron pair is called acid.
Ionic product of water
At 298 K temperature H2O(l) + H2O(l) U H3O+(aq) + OH-(aq) equilibrium constant of this reaction is
called ionic product of water.
Kw = [H3O+] [OH-] = 1 ´ 1014M2
\ [H3O+] = [OH-] = 1 ´ 107M and [H2O] = 55.6M
−7
\ µ =
10 = 1.8 ´ 109
55.6
pH Scale
pH = - log10[H3O+] and pOH = - log10[OH-]
in an aqueous solution at 298 K temp.
Kw = [H3O+] [OH-] = 1 ´ 1014
\ pH + pOH = 14
For acid solution pH < 7, and base solution pH > 7 and for neutral solution pH = 7
Weak acid and weak base ionization constant
For any weak monobasic (monoprotic) acid.
164
2 + 2
ionization constant Ka =
α C =
[H3 O ]
and [H3O+] = Kb . C
1− α C
[H3O+] = a . C
where a = degree of ionization, C = concentration of acid (Molarity)

For any weak monoacidic base ionization constant,
2 − 2
Kb =
α C =
[OH ]
and [OH-] = Kb . C
1− α C
[OH-] = a . C
pKa = - log Ka and pKb = - log Kb

Relative strength of any weak acid or any weak base can be measured from their value of Ka(pKa)
and Kb(pKb) and from [H3O+] and [OH-] in their aqueous, solution pH and pOH can be measured.
If ionization constant of any weak acid is Ka and ionization constant of its conjugate base is Kb,
then Ka . Kb = 1014 or pKa + pKb = 14.
36. Ionization constant of 0.05 M solution of phenol is 1 ´ 1010 . If its concentration in a sodium
phenoate solution is 0.01 M calculate its degree of ionization ?
(A) 1 ´ 1010 (B) 1 ´ 104 (C) 1 ´ 108 (D) 1 ´ 106
37. On dissolving 0.16 gm N2H4 in 500 ml water an aqueous solution is prepared. If ionization constant
of N2H4 is 4 ´ 106 calculate % ionization of N2H4 in its solution ?
(A) 12 % (B) 8 % (C) 2 % (D) 5 %
38. If ionization constant of acetic acid is 1.74 ´ 105, then for 0.05 M solution of CH3COOH calculate
degree of ionization and pH respectively ?
(A) 1.86 ´ 102, 4 (B) 1.24 ´ 103, 4 (C) 1.24 ´ 103, 3 (D) 1.86 ´ 102, 3
39. Weak bases have strong conjugate base, then arrange the following in decreasing order of basicity
of conjugate bases.
(A) RO- > OH- > CH3COO- > Cl- (B) OH- > RO- > CH3COO- > Cl-
(C) Cl- > RO- > OH- > CH3COO- (D) CH3COO- > RO- > OH- > Cl-
40. Three reactions involving H2PO4- are shown :
(i) H3PO4 + H2O U H3O+ + H2PO4-, (ii) H2PO4- + H2O U HPO42- + H3O+,
(iii) H2PO4- + OH- U H3PO4 + O2-
In which of the following reactions H2PO4- is acting as an acid ?
(A) Only I (B) Only III (C) I and II (D) Only II
165
41. Four species are shown below
(I) HCO3- (II) H3O+ (III) HSO4- (IV) HSO3F
Which of the following is correct for their acid strength ?
(A) (IV) < (II) < (III) < (I) (B) (II) < (III) < (I) < (IV)
(C) (I) < (III) < (II) < (IV) (D) (III) < (I) < (IV) < (II)
42. Which of the following can act as Bronstead acid and base both ?
(A) H2PO2- (B) HPO3- (C) HPO42- (D) given all
43. Which of the following is conjugate base of OH- ion ?
(A) O2- (B) O- (C) H2O (D) O2

44. Calculate pH of solution produced by disloving 0.023 gm Na metal in 100 cm3 of water ?
(A) 10 (B) 11 (C) 9 (D) 12
45. Calculate pH of 0.1M CH3COOH solution having pKa value 4.78 ?
(A) 1.89 (B) 2.89 (C) 4.89 (D) 3.19
46. Which of the following is conjugate base of [Al(H2O)6]3+ ?
(A) [Al(H2O)5]2+ (B) [Al(H2O)5OH]2+ (C) [Al(H2O)5OH]3+ (D) not possible

47. Calculate value of pKb for 0.004M Hydrazine solution having pH 9.7 ?
(A) 6.20 (B) 7.20 (C) 8.20 (D) 9.20
48. 0.1M Bromoactic acid solution has degree of ionisation 0.132 then calculate pKa value of acid ?
(A) 2.7 (B) 7.2 (C) 12.3 (D) 14
49. Calculate conjugate acid dissociation constant for CO32- ionization constant of CO32- is 2.1 ´ 104.
(A) 1.47 ´ 1011 (B) 4.76 ´ 1011 (C) 8.76 ´ 108 (D) 3.42 ´ 1010
50. H3PO4 + H2O U H2PO4 + H3O+ in which condition Ka, is affected most ?
(A) adding H2PO4 ion (B) adding H3PO4 (C) adding catalyst (D) On Heating
51. Which of the following is correct for diprotic acid H2X ?
(A) Ka2 > Ka1 (B) Ka1 > Ka2 (C) Ka1 = Ka2 (D) Ka1 = 1
Ka 2
52. If 200 ml of HCl solution having pH = 2 is mixed having pH = 12, then calculate pH of the
mixture.
(A) 2 (B) 12 (C) 11.3 (D) 7
53. If aqueous solution of 0.005 M cocaine (C18H21NO3) has pH 9.95, then calculate its pKb value ?
(A) 8.92 (B) 3.76 (C) 4.29 (D) 5.81
54. An aqueous solution passess 10 % by mass ammonia and its density is 0.99 gm/cm3 If Ka of
NH4+ is 5 ´ 1010 M then concentration of hydrogen ion is ?
(A) 9.27 ´ 1013 M (B) 9.27 ´ 1011 M (C) 9.27 ´ 1010 M (D) 9.27 ´ 106 M
166
55. Strong acid solution has pH = 5. If the given solution is diluted 100 times, then calculate pH of
diluted solution ?
(A) 5.8 (B) 6.7 (C) 9.3 (D) 13
56. How many moles of [Ca(OH)2] is required to be dissolved in 250 ml of water to have pH of the
solution 10.65 ? Ca(OH)2 undergoes complete ionisation.
(A) 0.47 ´ 104 (B) 0.48 ´ 104 (C) 0.56 ´ 104 (D) 0.68 ´ 104
57. 0.1 M aqueous solution of acid HQ has pH 3, then calculate its ionization constant ?
(A) 3 ´ 101 (B) 1 ´ 103 (C) 1 ´ 105 (D) 1 ´ 107
58. 0.2 M Hydrocyanic acid solution has Ka value of 4.9 ´ 1010 calculate the percentage ionizatoin in
it ?
(A) 4.95 % (B) 0.00549 % (C) 0.0495 % (D) 0.00495 %
59. Which of the following acid has lowest pKa value ?
(A) CH3COOH (B) HCOOH (C) (CH3)2 CHCOOH (D) CH3CH2COOH
Answers : 36. (B), 37. (C), 38. (D), 39. (A), 40. (D), 41. (C), 42. (C), 43. (A), 44. (D),
45. (B), 46. (B), 47. (A), 48. (A), 49. (B), 50. (D), 51. (B), 52. (C), 53. (D),
54. (A), 55. (B), 56. (C), 57. (C), 58. (D), 59. (C)
Hydrolysis of salt
Hydrolysis reaction of salt (MA) produced from strong acid with a weak base is as follows :
M+ + A- + H2O(l) U H+ + A- + MOH
weak base
Hydrolysis constant of the salt,
+ 2
Kw [H3O ]
Kh = = where, C = concentration of salt
Kb C
Kb = ionization constant of base

\ Acidic salt solution will have pH less than 7
Hydrolysis reaction of salt (MA) produced from weak acid with a strong base is as follows
M+ + A- + H2O(l) U M+ + A- + HA
weak acid
Hydrolysis constant of salt,
Kw [OH − ]2
Kh = = where, C = concentration of salt
Ka C
Ka = ionization constant of acid

\ Basic salt solution will have pH more than 7
Aqueous solution of salt produced from weak acid and weak base will have pH = 7.
Nature of solution of salt produced from weak acid and strong base depends on value of Ka and Kb.
167
If, Ka = Kb, Neutral salt
Ka > Kb, Acidic salt
Ka < Kb, Basic salt

Buffer solution, type of Buffer solution and pH Buffer solution
Buffer solution : A solution which resist changes in pH due to small addition of acid or base is
called buffer solution.
Type of Buffer solutions
(1) Acidic Buffer solution : A solution prepared by mixing equal proportion of weak acid + salt of
weak acid and strong base pH < 7 of solution.
(2) Basic Buffer solution : A solution prepared by mixing equal proportion of weak base + salt of
weak base and strong acid pH > 7 of solution.
(3) Neutral Buffer solution : equal mixture of weak acid and weak base solution has pH = 7.
[salt]
Acidic buffer solution, pH = pKa + log [Acid]
 [salt] 
Basic buffer solution pH = 14 -  pK b + log [Base] 
 
60. 0.02M aqueous solution of pyridinium hydrochloride has pH = 3.44 then calculate ionization constant
of pyridine ?
(A) 1.84 ´ 107 (B) 2.63 ´ 109 (C) 1.5 ´ 109 (D) 3.62 ´ 107
61. pKa value of a weak acid HA 4.8, weak base BOH has pKb value of 4.78. Calculate pH of the
aqueous solution of the salt BA ?
(A) 9.58 (B) 4.79 (C) 7.01 (D) 9.22
62. Calculate pH of a buffer solution made by equal molar concentrat of weak base and its chloride salt ?
(weak base Kb = 2 ´ 105)
(A) 5 (B) 9 (C) 4.7 (D) 9.5
63. pH of a mixture of 0.1M NH4OH and 0.1M NH4Cl is 9.25. Then calculate value of pKb for NH4OH?
(A) 9.25 (B) 3.75 (C) 4.75 (D) 8.25
64. Calculate pKb value of Ammonium Hydroxide. If pH of ammonium acetate solution is 7.005 and
pKa of CH3COOH is 4.76 ?
(A) 5.35 (B) 3.45 (C) 2.25 (D) 4.75
65. How many moles of CH3COONa should be added in a l litre 0.1 M CH3COOH solution to have
pH = 4 ? Ka = 1.8 ´ 105
(A) 1.80 ´ 102 (B) 4.70 ´ 102 (C) 2.86 ´ 104 (D) 3.32 ´ 104
168
66. Which of the following is a buffer solution ?
(I) NH4Cl + NH3 (II) CH3COOH + HCl
(III) CH3COONa + CH3COOH (IV) HCl + NaOH
(A) (II) and (III) (B) (I), (II) and (IV) (C) (II) and (IV) (D) (I) and (III)
67. 1 litre dilute solution is prepared by mixing 0.1 mole CH3NH2 (Kb = 5 ´ 104) and 0.08 mole HCl,
calculate concentration of H+ ion in the solution ?
(A) 8 ´ 102M (B) 8 ´ 1011M (C) 1.6 ´ 1011M (D) 8 ´ 105M
Answers : 60. (C), 61. (C), 62. (D), 63. (C), 64. (D), 65. (A), 66. (D), 67. (B)
Sparingly soluble salt and solubility product

Sparingly soluble salt : A salt whose 0.01 M concentrated solution is a saturated solution or
a salt whose solubility is less than 0.01 M is called a sparingly soluble salt.
The equilibrium constant established in a sparingly soluble salt solution is called solubility
product (Ksp).
For AB type salt
AB(s) U A+(aq) + B-(aq)
\ Ksp = [A+][B-]
\ Ksp = (s)(s)
\ Ksp = s2
\ s = Ksp
K sp
For A2B or AB2 type salt, Ksp = 4s3 , \ s =
3
4
For A3B or AB3 type salt, Ksp = 27s4 \s = 4

K sp
27
For A2B3 or A3B2 type salt, Ksp = 108s5 \s =

5
K sp
108
Common Ion effect

When aqueous solution of a weak electrolyte or saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt
has any other common ion possessing electrolyte added to them, it shifts the equilibrium in backward
direction, which is known as common ion effect.
Due to common ion effect solubility of sparingly soluble salt decreases and pH of weak acid
solution increases and pH of weak base solution decreases.
169
68. Solubility of product of Al(OH)3 is 2.7 ´ 1011, then its solubility and pH are ...... respectively.
(A) 7.8 ´ 102, 11.5 (B) 7.8 ´ 103, 9.5 (C) 7.8 ´ 102, 9.5 (D) 7.8 ´ 103, 11.5
69. How much water is needed to prepare a saturated solution of 0.1 gm lead (II) chloride ?
(Ksp of PbCl2 = 3.2 ´ 108, molecular mass of PbCl2 = 278)
(A) 100 ml (B) 80 ml (C) 120 ml (D) 150 ml
70. Solubility of a completly soluble salt AxBy at 25o C is 1.4 ´ 104M . If solubility product is
1.1 ´ 1011, then which of the following is possible ?
(A) x = 1, y = 2 (B) x = 2, y = 1 (C) x = 3, y = 1 (D) x = 1, y = 3
71. Solubility product of Mg(OH)2 at 25o C is 1.0 ´ 1012 from the 0.001M Mg2+ ion solution at what
pH, Mg2+ ion will start precipitating as Mg(OH)2 ?
(A) 9 (B) 10 (C) 11 (D) 8
72. Solubility product of salt having common formula MX2 is 4 ´ 1012, then calculate concentration
of M2+ ion in its aqueous solution ?
(A) 4 ´ 1010M (B) 1.6 ´ 104M (C) 1 ´ 104M (D) 2 ´ 106M
73. If solid Ba(NO3)2 is dissolved completly in a 1.0 ´ 104M Na2CO3 solution, then calculate
concentration Ba2+ ion that will be precipitated ? (ksp of BaCO3 = 5.1 ´ 109)
(A) 4.1 ´ 105M (B) 5.1 ´ 105M (C) 8.1 ´ 108M (D) 8.1 ´ 107M
74. Solubility product of salts MX, MX2 and M3 at T temperature is 4.0 ´ 108, 3.2 ´ 1014
and 2.7 ´ 108 respectively. Then which of the following is order of solubility at temperature T.
(A) MX > MX2 > M3X(B) M3X > MX2 > MX (C) MX2 > M3X > MX (D) MX > M 3X > MX2
75. At 298K solubility of Sr(OH)2 is 19.32 gm/litre, then calculate its pH ?
(A) 12.60 (B) 11.50 (C) 13.50 (D) 10.60
76. Calculate solubility of Barium sulphate in 0.05M Baruim chloride solution ? Ksp of BaSO4 = 1.1 ´ 1010
(A) 2.2 ´ 107M (B) 2.2 ´ 109M (C) 4.2 ´ 109M (D) 8.9 ´ 109M
77. Solubility product of A2X3 is 1.1 ´ 1023. If any type of the ions of this salt do not react with
water, then calculate solubility of A2X3 in pure water ?
(A) 1 ´ 105M (B) 2.5 ´ 104M (C) 1 ´ 106M (D) 2.5 ´ 106M
Answers : 69. (B), 70. (A), 71. (B), 72. (C), 73. (B), 74. (D), 75. (C), 76. (B), 77. (A)
Miscelleneous type of Questions

78. If pH of 1 litre HCl solution is 1, then How much water should be added to make pH = 2 of the
solution ?
(A) 0.1 liter (B) 0.9 liter (C) 2.0 liter (D) 9.0 liter
79. CO2 gas filled in closed container at 1000 K temperature has 0.5 atm pressure. If graphite is added
then CO2 is converted into CO. It total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm, calculate value of kp ?
(A) 1.8 atm (B) 13 atm (C) 0.3 atm (D) 0.18 atm
170
80. Ksp of Cr(OH)3= 1.6 ´ 1030. Then molar solubility of Cr(OH)3 is .......... .
−30 −30
−30 4 −30 4
(A) 2
1.6 × 10 (B) 1.6 × 10 (C) 1.6 × 10 27 (D) 1.6 × 10 27
81. Ionization constant of aqueous solution of carbonic acid is K1 = 4.2 ´ 107 and K2 = 4.8 ´ 1011 then
which of the following statement is correct for 0.034 M saturated solution of carbonic acid ?
(A) Concentration of CO32 ion is 0.034 M.
(B) Concentration of CO32 ion is more than concentration of HCO3.
(C) Concentration of H+ and HCO3 is approximately same.
(D) Concentration of H+ is double than concentration of CO32.
82. Calculate pH of 0.005M calcium acetate solution ? pKa of CH3COOH is 4.74.
(A) 7.04 (B) 9.37 (C) 8.37 (D) 10.26
83. Which of the following compound has more tendency to accept a proton ?
(A) H2O (B) H2S (C) NH3 (D) PH3
84. Which of the following is a formula for equilibrium constant for the reaction P4(s) + 5O2(g) U P4O10(s) ?
[P4 O10 ] [P4 O10 ] 1

(A) Kc = (B) Kc = 5 (C) Kc = [O2]5 (D) Kc =
[P4 ][O 2 ] 5
5[P4 ][O 2 ] [O2 ]5
Calculate concentration of H+ ion at neutralization pt when 2.5 ml

2
85. M weak monoacidic base
5
2
(Kb = 1 ´ 1012) is neutralised by M HCl ?
15
(A) 3.7 ´ 1013M (B) 3.2 ´ 107M (C) 3.2 ´ 102M (D) 2.7 ´ 102M
86. Reaction : Ag+ + NH3 U [Ag(NH3)]+; K1 = 3.5 ´ 103
[Ag(NH3)5]+ + NH3 U [Ag(NH3)2]+; K2 = 1.7 ´ 103. [Ag(NH3)2]+ Calculate equilibrium constant

for preparation of [Ag(NH3)2] ?
(A) 6.08 ´ 106 (B) 6.08 ´ 106 (C) 6.08 ´ 109 (D) 6.08 ´ 109
87. Weak acid HX having Ka = 105 reacts with 0.1 M concentrated caustic soda and produce salt
NaX. Calculate degree of ionisation of Na X ?
(A) 0.01 % (B) 0.0001 % (C) 0.1 % (D) 0.5 %
88. If solubility product of sparingly soluble salt ApBq is (Ls) and solubility (S), then
(A) Ls = Sp + q . pp.qq (B) Ls = Sp + q . pq.qp (C) Ls = Spq . pp.qq (D) Ls = Spq . (pq)p + q
89. Which of the following is the increasing order of pH for 0.1 M salt solutions ?
(A) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl (B) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN
(C) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl (D) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl
90. Calculate pH of the mixture produced by mixing 40 ml 0.1 M Ammonia solution with 20 ml 0.1 M
HCl solution ? (pKb (NH3) = 4.74)
(A) 4.74 (B) 2.26 (C) 9.26 (D) 5.00
171
91. What is the temperature of neutral water having pH = 6.5 ?
(A) 25o C. (B) more than 25o C.
(C) less than 25o C. (D) more or less than 25o C.
K1
92. pH of HCOOH and CH3COOH solution is same. If is ratio of ionization constant of both the
K2
acid and its value is 4.0, then calculate their molar concentration ratio ?
(A) 2 (B) 0.5 (C) 4 (D) 0.25
93. If two equal volume of AgNO3 and NaCl solution are mixed then AgCl (Ksp = 1.81 ´ 1010)
is precepitated, then concentration of Ag+ and Cl- is .......... respectively.
(A) 103M, 1010M (B) 105M, 105M (C) 106M, 105M (D) 104M, 104M
94. If solubility of M molecular mass calcium phosphate at 25o C is w gm per 100 ml then calculate its
solubility product at the same temperature ?
(W ) (M ) (M ) (M )
5 5 5 3
(A) 109 M (B) 107 W (C) 105 W (D) 103 W
95. 0.1M aqueous solution of weak base MOH undergoes 1 % ionisation. If 0.2 M MCl is added to 1
litre MOH aqueous solution then calculate ionisation constant of MOH ?
(A) 0.02 (B) 0.005 (C) 5 ´ 105 (D) 2 ´ 103
96. Reaction 2AB2(g) U 2AB(g) + B2(g) has degree of dissociation X whose value is very small compared
to 1 then which of the following indicates relation between dissociation constant (X), equilibrium
constant (Kp) and total pressure P ?
1 1
 2K p 2  Kp   2K p   2K p 3
(A)  
 (B)  P 
 (C)  P 
 (D)  


P
     
P

97. Reaction A(g) + 3B(g) U 4C(g) has initial concentration of A and B equal. At equilibrium concentration
of A and C are same. Then Kc = .......... .
(A) 0.08 (B) 0.8 (C) 80 (D) 8
98. Reaction NH4COONH2(s) U 2NH3(g) + CO2(g) at equilibrium has pressure 6 atm then calculate its
Kp ?
4 4
(A) 32 (B) (C) 27 (D)
27 32
99. 2PQ U P2 + Q2; K1 = 2.5 ´ 10+5
1
PQ + R U PQR; K2 = 5 ´ 103
2 2
What will be the value of equilibrium constant K3 if the following reaction occurs from the above
reaction ?
1 1 1
P + Q + R U PQR
2 2 2 2 2 2
(A) 2.5 ´ 103 (B) 2.5 ´ 103 (C) 1 ´ 105 (D) 5 ´ 103
172
100. X U 2Y and Z U P + Q reactions have equilibrium constant kp and kp respectively ratio of this
1 2
equilibrium constant is 1:9. If degree of dissociation of X and Z is same, then ratio of total pressure
at equilibrium is ...... .
(A) 1:1 (B) 1:3 (C) 1:9 (D) 1:36
o
101. Which of the following statement is true for 2XY U X2 + Y2, DH = 50 KJ ?
(A) Value of K increases on adding XY.
(B) Value of K increases with increase in temperature
(C) Value of K decreases with decrease in temperature.
(D) value of K is independent of temperature.
102. Which of the following graph can be used to calculate value of DfH° for CaCO3(s) U CaO(s) +
CO2(g) at equilibrium ?
(A) (B)
2
2
logPCO
logPCO
1 T
(C) T (D)
2
logPCO
2
P CO
log10T 1
T
103. For reaction NH4HS(s) U NH3(g) + H2S(g) at equilibrium and 300 K temperature has pressure 100
atm. Then calculate value of equilibruim constant ?
(A) 2500 atm2 (B) 50 atm2 (C) 100 atm2 (D) 200 atm2
104. AB(g) U A(g) + B(g) reaction of 33 % dissociation of AB at total pressure, P mention relation
between total pressure and equilibrium constant ?
(A) P = Kp (B) P = 3Kp (C) P = 4Kp (D) P = 8Kp
105. For reaction PCl5(g) U PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
at 500k temperature and Kp = 0.497. These three gases are filled in a container of initial pressure of
these gases is 1 atm. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(A) PCl5 is produced more.
(B) PCl3 is produced more.
(C) equilibrium is established after 50 % reaction is completed.
(D) Cl2 is produced more.
106. SO2Cl2(g) U SO2(g) + Cl2(g) reaction at equilibrium has vapour density 50. Calculate percentage of
dissociation of SO2Cl2(g) ?
(A) 32 (B) 35 (C) 60 (D) 66
173
107. Aqueous solution of 0.1 M NaZ has pH = 8.90 then HZ has Ka = .......... .
(A) 6.3 ´ 1011 (B) 6.3 ´ 1010 (C) 1.6 ´ 105 (D) 1.6 ´ 106
108. For which of the following titration phenol is not a useful indicator ?
(A) HCl and NH4OH (B) Ca(OH)2 and HCl
(C) NaOH and H2SO4 (D) KOH and CH3COOH
109. When a weak base is neutralised by strong acid the pH of the solution is 8 then calculate Kb of the
base ?
(A) 1 ´ 104 (B) 1 ´ 106 (C) 1 ´ 108 (D) 1 ´ 1010
110. PbSO4 of ksp = 1.8 ´ 108 and Ka of HSO4 is ka = 1.0 ´ 102.
calculate equilibrium constant for PbSO4(s) + H+(aq) U HSO4-(aq) + Pb2+(aq)
(A) 1.8 ´ 106 (B) 1.8 ´ 1010 (C) 2.8 ´ 1010 (D) 1 ´ 102
111. [OH-] = 106 M in an aqueous solution of NH4Cl and NH4OH. If equal volume of above
mentioned solution and which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solution of metal ion should be mixed
to precipitate metal Hydroxide ?
Mg(OH)2 (Ksp = 3 ´ 1011) Cd(OH)2 (Ksp = 8 ´ 106)
Fe(OH)2 (Ksp = 8 ´ 1016) AgOH (Ksp = 5 ´ 103)
(A) Mg2+ (B) Fe2+ (C) Cd2+ (D) Ag+

112. Buffer solution having equal concentration of B and HB has Kb for B to 1010, then calculate pH
of the solution ?
(A) 10 (B) 7 (C) 6 (D) 4
113. Calculate concentration of H+(aq) ion if equal volume of three acid solution having pH 3, 4 and 5 are
mixed ?
(A) 3.7 ´ 103 M (B) 1.11 ´ 103 M (C) 1.11 ´ 104 M (D) 3.7 ´ 104 M
114. Which compounds will be precipitated if H2S is passed through mixture of acid solution having
Mn2+, Ni2+, Cu2+ and Hg2+ ion ?
(A) CuS and HgS (B) MnS and CuS (C) MnS and NiS (D) NiS and HgS
+ 4
115. Calculate the concentration of H ion if 0.1 mole CH3NH2(Kb = 5 ´ 10 ) and 0.05 mole HCl are
mixed and one litre aqueous solution is formed ?
(A) 8 ´ 102M (B) 8 ´ 1011M (C) 1.6 ´ 1011M (D) 8 ´ 105M
116. Solubility of C6H5COOAg in water and solution having pH 2, 3 and 4 are S1, S2, S3 and S4
respectively then which of the following is decreasing order of solubility of C6H5COOAg ?
(A) S1 > S2 > S3 > S4 (B) S4 > S3 > S2 > S1 (C) S2 > S3 > S4 > S1 (D) S3 > S2 > S4 > S1
117. Calculate the volume required to dissolve 1 mg PbSO4 at 25° C temperature ?
(Ksp of PbSO4 = 1.44 ´ 108, MW = 303 gm/mole)
(A) 80 ml (B) 43 ml (C) 27.5 ml (D) 10 ml
174
−4
118. Calculate solubility of CH3COOAg in a buffer solution having pH = 4 (Kw = 1012, Ka = 10 3 )
(A) 106M (B) 0.5 ´ 106M (C) 5 ´ 106M (D) 2 ´ 106M

119. Which of the following substance has it aqueous solution with pH greater than 7 ?
(I) BaF2 (II) RbI (III) C6H5COONa (IV) (CH3COO)2Ba
(A) I (B) I, III (C) I, II, III (D) I, III, IV
Questions having more than one correct options :
120. From the mixture of which of the following substance buffer solution can be prepared ?
(A) Sodium acetate and Acetic acid (B) Sodium acetate and Hydrochloric acid
(C) Ammonia and Ammonium chloride (D) Ammonia and sodium hydroxide
121. Which of the following aqueous solution will have pH =13 ?
(A) 2 gm NaOH in 500 ml solution (B) 0.05M Ca(OH)2 in 100 ml solution
(C) 0.1N Ca(OH)2 in 100 ml solution (D) 4 gm NaOH contaning 500 ml solution
122. Which of the following is true for various dissociation constant of H3PO4 ?
(A) Ka = Ka ´ Ka ´ Ka (B) Ka < Ka < Ka
1 2 3 1 2 3
(C) Ka = Ka = Ka (D) Ka > Ka > Ka
1 2 3 1 2 3
123. Which of the following is true if 0.1 litre 0.0015 M MgCl2 is mixed with 0.1 litre of 0.025 M NaF
(Ksp of MgF2 = 3.7 ´ 108)
(A) MgF2 remains in solution. (B) MgF2 will be precipitated
(C) MgCl2 is precipitated. (D) Cl remains in the solution
124. Which of the following aqueous solution on dilution will not change pH ?
(A) NH4CN (B) NH4Cl (C) CH3COONa (D) CH3COONH4
125. Which of the following statement is correct :
(A) On adding more salt pH of acid buffer solution decreases.
(B) On adding more salt pH of acid buffer solution increases.
(C) On adding more salt pH of basic buffer solution increases.
(D) On adding more salt pH of basic buffer solution decreases.
Given below each question has two statements. Where one is assertion (A) and second is reason
(R). Studying the statement carefully according to given instruction select correct option :
(A) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are correct and reason (R) is not correct explaination of
assertion (A).
(B) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are correct but reason (R) is not correct explanation
of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is not correct while reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect while reason (R) is correct.
126. Assertion (A) : On passing HCl gas in saturated solution of NaCl, precipitation of NaCl occurs.
Reason (R) : HCl is a strong acid.
175
127. Assertion (A) : If H2S is passed through alkaline solution Sb (III) is not precipitated as sulphide.
Reason (R) : Proportion of S2 ion in alkaline medium is not enough.
128. Assertion (A) : CHCl3 is stronger acid than CHCl3.
Reason (R) : Conjugate base of CHCl3 is more stable than conjugate base of CHF3.
129. Assertion (A) : Equal concentration containing HCl solution has pH less than pH of CH3COOH
solution.
Reason (R) : Equimolar concentration solution of HCl does not have enough proton to undergo
Neutralisation.
130. Assertion (A) : Calcium phosphate is more soluble in HNO3 than water.
Reason (R) : Phospate which is a weak base, reacts with H+ ion and produce soluble nitrate
of calcium.
Integer type Questions
131. How many acids from the following acids are diprotic ?
H3PO4, H2SO4, H3PO3, H2CO3, H2S2O3, H3BO3, H3PO2, H2CrO4, H2SO3
132. At 25o C temperature, C6H5COOH has Ka = 1 ´ 104 then what will be the pH of its 0.01M
sodium salt solution ?
133. In 1 litre saturated solution of AgCl (Ksp(AgCl) = 1.6 ´ 1010), if 0.1 M CuCl (Ksp = 1 ´ 106) is
added, then concentation of Ag+ in the solution is 1.6 ´ 10x, then what will be the value of X ?
Answers : 78. (D), 79. (A), 80. (C), 81. (C), 82. (A), 83. (C), 84. (D), 85. (D), 86. (A),
87. (A), 88. (A), 89. (B), 90. (C), 91. (B), 92. (D), 93. (B), 94. (B), 95. (C),
96. (D), 97. (D), 98. (A), 99. (C), 100. (D), 101. (C), 102. (A), 103. (A),
104. (D), 105. (A), 106. (B), 107. (C), 108. (A), 109. (B), 110. (A), 111. (B),
112. (D), 113. (D), 114. (A), 115. (B), 116. (C), 117. (C), 118. (D), 119. (C),
120. (A), 121. (A), (B), (C), 122. (A), (D), 123. (B), (D), 124. (A), (D),
125. (B), (C), 126. (B), 127. (A), 128. (A), 129. (C), 130. (A), 131. (6),
132. (8), 133. (7)
176
8 Redox Reactions and Electro Chemistry
Electrochemical cell (Galvanic cell) : An apparatus which converts chemical energy into
electrical energy is called electrochemical cell.
Principle of electrochemical cell : Conversion of chemical energy into electrical energy.
A redox reaction takes place in electro chemical cell. For example, following redox reaction
takes place when metallic strip of zinc is dipped in aqueous soluion of copper sulphate.
Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) U Zn2+
(aq)
+ Cu(s) In reality this reaction is the sum of following two half
reactions.
Zn(s) U Zn2+(aq) + 2e- (oxidation)
Cu2+(aq) + 2e- U Cu
(s)
(reduction)
Above both reactions occur in a same container. But these reactions can be made to occur in
two different containers as follows.
- -
e e
G
- +
Zn anode Cu cathode
Salt bridge
soln of
NH4NO3 or
KNO 3
aq. ZnSO4
aq. CuSO4
Cotton
plugs
Metallic strips dipped in solution are called electrodes.

The strip on which oxidation takes place is called anode and that on which reduction takes place is
called cathode.
On connecting both the electrodes by copper wire electrons flow from anode (Zn) to cathode (Cu)
in external circuit.
The conduction of electricity in solution is by ions and that in external circuit is by electrons.
The flow of electric current in external circuit is from cathode (Cu) to anode (Zn).
Salt-bridge : The U shaped glass tube connecting two solutions of electrochemical cell and filled
with proper electrochemical cell and filled with proper electrolytic solution (NH4NO3) is called salt-bridge.
Function of salt bridge : It connects two solutions of electrochemical cell and maintains its
electrical neutrality. Besides this, it completes the electrical circuit of the cell.
177
Types of electrodes :
The three main types of electrodes are as follows :
(1) Active metal electrodes : eg. Zn, Ag, Cu, Al etc.
(2) Inert electrodes of metal or non-metals eg. Pt (metal), steel (alloy), graphite (non-metal) etc.
(3) Gas electrodes : eg. H2, Cl2 etc.
Half-cell : An electrode and a solution in which it is dipped are collectively known as half-cell.
Standard half-cell : If concentration of a solution of half cell is 1 M or the pressure of a gas
is 1 atmosphere and temperature is 25° C, then such a half-cell is termed as standard half cell.
Standard cell : A standard cell is formed by connecting two standard half-cells.
Symbolic representation of electrochemical cell : Anode is shown at left hand side and cathode
is shown at right hand side.
For example, Zn | Zn2+(C ) || Cu2+(C ) | Cu For standard cell, Zn | Zn2+(1.0 M) || Cu2+(1.0M) | Cu 25o C
1 2
Similarly, symbollic representation involving gas electrode as one of the half-cell is :
Pt | H2(1 atmosphere)
| H+(C ) || Cu2+(C ) | Cu.
1 2
For the same cell under standard state,

Pt | H2(1 atmosphere) | H+(1.0 M) || Cu2+(1.0 M) | Cu 25o C
Cell potential : In electrochemical cell, when two electrodes are joined the electrons flow
from anode to cathode in external circuit due to electrical pressure produced from chemical reaction.
This electrical pressure is called cell potential. (Ecell)
If cell is in standard condition then it is called standard cell potential (E0cell).
Voltmeter does not measure the true potential of cell therefore potentiometer is used to
measure the true cell potential.
In reality, the cell potential is a measure of difference of intensities of tendencies of two
electrodes to release (or gain) electrons.
The absolute value of intensity of tendency of an electrode to release electrons cannot be measured.
Because a single half-cell cannot produce electric current and it cannot complete a redox reaction.
E.M.F. Series : A cell potential measured with respect to standard hydrogen electrode is
called electromotive force (E.M.F.) of the electrode joined with standard hydrogen electrode.
When different electrodes are arranged in decreasing order of their standard reduction
potentials, the resulting series is called emf series.
Following informations are obtained from emf series.
(1) The tendency to undergo oxidation, to release electrons and strength to act as reducing
agent increases moving down the series.
(2) The tendency to undergo reduction, to accept electrons and strength to act as oxidizing
agent decreases moving down the series.
(3) The standard cell potential of a cell constructed by joining any two half cells can be
calculated from this series.
(4) Which electrode would act as cathode and which would act as anode can be predicted.
The cell potential of electrochemical cell depends on nature of electrode, temperature of cell
and concentration of solution.
178
1. When copper strip is dipped in aqueous solution of silver nitrate, .....
(A) solution becomes colourless. (B) intensity of blue colour increases.
(C) intensity of blue colour decreases. (D) chemical reaction does not take place.
2. What is observed when zinc strip is dipped in aq. solution of CuSO4 ?
(Atomic mass of Zn is more than that of Cu).
(A) The intensity of blue colour of solution decreases. (B) The mass of zinc strip increases.
(C) The intensity of blue colour of solution increases. (D) None of the given.
3. What is not observed when zinc strip is placed in aq. solution of CuSO4 ?
(Atomic mass of Zn is more than Cu)
(A) The colour of surface of zinc strip is changed.
(B) The mass of zinc strip decreases.
(C) The mass of zinc strip increases
(D) The intensity of blue colour of solution decreases
4. What is the observation when Zn-rod is dipped in aq. CuSO4 ?
(Atomic mass of Zn is more than Cu)
(A) The intensity of blue colour of solution decreases.
(B) The mass of zinc rod increases.
(C) The concentration of SO24- ions in solution increases.
(D) The concentration of SO24- ions in solution decreases.

5. What is observed when copper rod is dipped in aq. AgNO3 ?
(Atomic mass of Ag is more than Cu) ?
(A) The mass of copper rod does not change.
(B) The mass of copper rod decreases.
(C) Solution becomes blue gradually.
(D) The colour of surface of copper rod does not change.
6. What is not observed when Cu rod is dipped in aq. AgNO3 ?
(A) The mass of copper rod increases. (B) The mass of copper rod decreases.
(C) Solution becomes blue gradually. (D) Ag deposits on surface of Cu.
7. When Zn strip is dipped in Cu(NO3)2 .....
(A) Zn undergoes reduction. (B) Zn undergoes oxidation.
(C) Cu undergoes reduction. (D) Cu undergoes oxidation.
8. Zn rod is dipped in 1.5 L aqueous solution of 0.1M CuSO4. Choose correct option for following state-
ments doing theoretical calculations.
(Atomic mass : Zn = 65 gm mole1 and Cu = 63.5 gm mole1) T = True, F = False.
(i) 13 gram Zn dissolves when its mass decrease by 0.3 gram.
(ii) Concentration of Cu2+ becomes 0.08 M when 1.95 gram Zn dissolves.
(iii) number of Zn 2+ ions is 4.5165 ´ 1024 when molarities of Cu2+ and Zn2+ are equal in solution.
(iv) The molarity of Zn2+ is 0.04 M when 3.6132 ´ 1022 Cu atoms deposit.
179
(A) TTTF (B) FFFT (C) TTFT (D) FFTT
9. Which observations are true when Zn strip is dissolved in aq. Cu(NO3)2 ?
(i) Blue colour of solution fades gradually.
(ii) Concentration of NO3- ions in solution decrease gradually.
(iii) Concentration of Zn2+ ions in solution increase gradually.
(iv) Cu2+(aq) ions are displaced by Zn2+(aq) ions in solution.
(A) (i), (ii) (B) (ii), (iii) (C) (i), (iii), (iv) (D) (i), (iv)
10. Which option is incorrect for a stoichiometric reaction taking place according to following diagram ?
(Atomic mass : Al = 27 gm mole1 and Ag = 108 gm mole1) Al strip
(A) For reduction of all Ag+ ions in solution, 90

gram Al is required.
(B) 648 gram Ag+ ions are reduced by 54 gram

Al
(C) If 81 gram Al is reduced, then 972 gram Ag+ 5 litre, 2.0M

AgNO3
ions will be left unreacted in solution.
(D) During oxidation of 2 mol Al, 3.6132 ´ 1024

Ag+ ions will reduce.
11. Zn strip is dipped in 1.5 L aqueous solution of 0.1 M CuSO4. Choose correct option with reference
to following statements. (Atomic mass : Zn = 65 gm mole1 and Cu = 63.5 gm mole1)
(i) When 13 gram Zn dissolves 12.7 gram Cu deposits and there is increase of 0.3 gram in mass of
strip.
(ii) When there is decrease of 0.02 M in concentration of Cu2+, 1.3 gram Zn dissolves.
(iii) When molarities of Cu2+ and Zn2+ are equal, the number of Zn2+ ions is 3.011 ´ 1022
in solution.
(iv) When 3.6132 ´ 1022 Cu atoms deposit, molarity of Zn2+ ions is 0.04 M.
(A) (iv) (B) (ii) (C) (ii), (iv) (D) (i), (iv)
12. Which carbon having following oxidation number is not there in methyl acetate (CH3COOCH3
OR C3H6O2) ?
(A) +3 (B) -2 (C) +4 (D) -3
13. In which of the following compound oxidation number of oxygen is zero ?
(A) HOCl (B) HOF (C) HOI (D) HOBr
14. In a compound containing Xe and F, xenon is 53.85% by mass. State the oxidation number of Xe in
compound. (Atomic mass : Xe = 133, F = 19).
(A) +2 (B) 0 (C) +4 (D) +6
180
15. How many moles of Ag2S would have been consumed theoretically when 1.93 ´ 106 coulomb of
electricity is associated with a redox reaction Ag2S + CN- + O2 ®
Ag(CN)-2 + S in basic medium ?
-
(1 mole e = 96500 coulomb)
(A) 10 (B) 2 (C) 8 (D) 4
16. Choose correct option from following statements with reference to emf series.
(A) electron accepting tendency increases moving down.
(B) Strength to act as oxidizing agent decrease moving upward.
(C) Tendency of undergoing oxidation increase moving down.
(D) If rod of metal present downward is immersed in a solution of salt of metal present upward in
a series, then it does not dissolve.
17. Which electrolyte cannot be used in salt bridge of an electrochemical cell : Fe | Fe2+(1.0 M) || Ag+(1.0 M) | Ag ?
(A) KNO3 (B) NaCl (C) NH4NO3 (D) NaNO3
18. If standard reduction potentials of half cells : X2+ |X, Y2+|Y, Z2+| |Z and W2+|W are in increasing order then
select correct option from following statements. (T = true statement, F = False Statement)
(i) rod of metal X dissolves in solution of Y2+.
(ii) solution of X2+ cannot be filled in container of metal Z.
(iii) reaction W(s) + Y2+(aq 1.0 M) U W2+
(aq 1.0 M)
+ Y(s) is spontaneous in forward direction.
(iv) metal atoms Z cannot displace Y2+(aq) ions from solution of Y2+ ions.
(A) TFFT (B) FTTF (C) FTFT (D) TFTF
19. Aq. solution of a salt of metal Y can be filled up in a vessel of a metal X and aq. solution of a salt
of metal Z can be filled up in a vessel of a metal Y. Which of the given decreasing order of X, Y
and Z as reducing agent is correct ?
(A) X >Y>Z (B) X >Z>Y (C) Z >Y>X (D) Z >X>Y
20. At 25° C under standard state conditions, (i) On dipping metallic rod of A in B2+(aq) metal A does not
dissolve. (ii) aqueous solution (C2+(aq)) of metallic salt of C, cannot be filled up in a vessel of metal
A. (iii) on dipping a spoon of metal C in (D2+(aq)) metal deposits on spoon. (iv) Give correct order of
metals as reducing agents.
(A) A >B>C>D (B) D >B>C>A (C) D >C>A>B (D) B >A>C>D
21. If standard oxidation potentials of M | M2+, N | N2+, Q | Q2+ and R | R2+ half cells are in increasing
order then which of the given statement is correct ?
(A) Solution of a salt of M2+ can be stored in vessel of metal N.
(B) Solution of a salt of R2+ cannot be stored in vessel of metal Q.
(C) Solution of a salt of R2+ can be stored in vessel of metal N.
(D) All given three statements are wrong.
22. On what does cell potential of electrochemical cell not depend ?
(A) Concentration of solution associated with cell reaction.
(B) Substance present in salt bridge.
(C) temperature
(D) nature of electrode
181
23. When electrochemical cell Fe | Fe2+(C ) || Cu2+(C ) | Cu is operating, then .......
1 2
(A) oxidation potentials of half cells at L.H.S. and R.H.S. increases gradually.
(B) oxidation potential of half cells at L.H.S. and R.H.S. decreases gradually.
(C) oxidation potential of half cell at L.H.S. decrease while that of at RHS increase gradually.
(D) reduction potential of half cell at L.H.S. and oxidation potential of half cell at RHS decrease
gradually.
24. Which instrument measures cell potential accurately ?
(A) ameter (B) voltmeter (C) galvanometer (D) potentiometer
25. The potential of a cell constructed by joining a std. half-cell with S.H.E. by salt bridge is measured
using potentiometer. If S.H.E. is cathode, then measured potential is equal to ......
(A) E0red of another electrode (B) E0ox of another electrode
(C) Eox of another electrode (D) Ered of another electrode
26. Select true and false statements with respect to electrochemical cell.
Where, T = True Statement and F = False statement
(i) electricity is conducted from anode to cathode in external circuit.
(ii) electricity is conducted by ions in solution.
(iii) negative ions at anode move towards solution at cathode through salt bridge.
(iv) electrons flow from cathode to anode in external circuit.
(A) FFFT (B) FTFF (C) TFTF (D) FTTF
Answers : 1. (B), 2. (A), 3. (C), 4. (A), 5. (C), 6. (B), 7. (B), 8. (C), 9. (C), 10. (C),
11. (A), 12. (C), 13. (B), 14. (D), 15. (A), 16. (C), 17. (B), 18. (A), 19. (C),
20. (D), 21. (C), 22. (B), 23. (C), 24. (D), 25. (B), 26. (B)
Nernst equation : An equation showing relation between cell potential of non standard
electrochemical cell and concentration of solution associated with cell reaction at definite
temperature is called Nernst equation.
This equation can be derived on the basis of principles of thermodynamics.
D G = DG0 + RTlnQc But DG = - nFEcell and D G0 nFE0cell Substituting these values in equation,
= -
RT 2.303RT
-nFEcell = - nFE0cell + RTlnQ So, Ecell = E0cell - lnQc Therefore Ecell = E0cell - logQc
nF nF
2.303RT 2.303 × 8.314 × 298

At 298 K, the value of , = 0.059 V.
F 96500
0.059
\ Nernst equation at 298 K Ecell = E0cell - logQc. Where, n = change in oxidation number in
n
Product of concentration of products

cell reaction, Qc =
Product of concentration of reactants
eg. For a cell, Zn | Zn2+(C ) || Ag+(C ) | Ag, cell reaction is :
1 2
182
Zn(s) + 2Ag2+(aq) U Zn2+
(aq)
+ 2Ag(s)
Nernst equation for above cell reaction is as follows :
2+ 2+
2.303RT [Zn ] 0.0592 . [Zn ]
0
Ecell = E cell - . log Therefore at 298K temprature Ecell = E cell - 0
log
nF [Ag + ]2 n [Ag + ]2
where n = Change in oxidation numbner of rejaction in balanced equation of cell reaction or number of moles of
2+
= 2. \ At 298 K temperature Ecell = 0.0592 . [Zn ]

electrons associated with reaction. Here n E0cell - log
2 [Ag + ]2
With the help of Nernst equation half cell potential of non standard half cell also can be calculated.
eg., oxidation potential of Ni | Ni2+ half cell is given by writing oxidation reaction.
Ni(s) U Ni2+(aq) + 2e-. n =2 \ ENi | Ni2 = E0Ni | Ni2

+ +
-
0.0592 .
2
log[Ni2+]
In order to determine reduction potential of Ni/Ni2+ half cell reduction half reaction is written as :
1
Ni2+(aq) + 2e-
U Ni
(s)
n =2 ENi2 +
| Ni
= E0Ni2+
| Ni
-
0.0592 .
2
log [N 2+ ]
i
Concentration cell : An electrochemical cell made up of two same electrodes but having different
concentrations of electrolytic solutions is called concentration cell.
eg. Ag | Ag+(C ) || Ag+(C ) | Ag (C1 < C2) In this cell, ions move from a solution containing higher
1 2
concentration to a solution having lower concentration.
anode : Ag(s) U Ag+(aq)(C1) + e-

cathode : Ag+(aq)(C2) +e -
U Ag
(s)
Cell reaction : Ag +
(aq)
(C2) U Ag +
(aq)
(C1)
For this cell, n = 1 and E°cell = 0.0V
0.059 . C1
\ Ecell = E0cell - log C
n 2
0.059 . C1
\ Ecell = 0 - log C
1 2
C1
\ Ecell = 0.059.log C
2
The potential of concentration cells are relatively low. Because E0cell = 0.0 V. When the cell is
operating, ions of a concentrated solution move towards dilute solution and when concentrations of both the
solution is equal Ecell = 0.0 V.
The equilibrium constant for concentration cell is 1.
183
2.303RT
27. What is the value of a term in Nernst equation at 80° C ?
F
(A) 0.007 V (B) 0.01587 V (C) 0.01857 V (D) 0.07 V

28. Give the unit of a value 0.059 obtained in Nernst equation at 25o C.
(A) coulomb (B) volt (C) faraday (D) has no unit
29. Which equation is appropriate to find E0cell ?
(A) E0cell = E0red(anode) + E0red(cathode) (B) E0cell = E0oxi(cathode) + E0oxi(anode)

(C) E0cell = E0oxi(cathode) - E0oxi(anode) (D) E0cell = E0red(anode) + E0oxi(cathode)
30. What is the value of Q if n = 3 taken for the cell : Al | Al3+(0.02M) || Pb2+(0.2M) | Pb ?
−1 −1
2 2
(A) 0.05 M1 (B) 0.2236 M (C) 0.01 M (D) 0.05 M
31. Which Nernst equation is correct for a cell : Co | Co2+(C ) || Ag1+(C ) | Ag ?

1 2
1
+ 2 2+
[Ag ] [Co ] 2
(A) E0cell = Ecell + (B) E0cell = Ecell +
RT . RT .
ln ln
2F [Co 2 + ] F +
[Ag ]
2+ 2+
RT . [Co ] RT . [Co ]
(C) E0cell = Ecell - ln (D) E0cell = Ecell + ln
2F [Ag + ]2 F [Ag + ]2
32. Which Nernst equation is correct for finding oxidation potential of Ni|Ni2+ half cell ?
(A) E0Ni|Ni2+ = ENi|Ni2+ - ln[Ni2+] (B) ENi|Ni2+ = E0Ni|Ni2+ + ln[Ni2+]

RT . RT .
2F 2F
1
(C) E0Ni|Ni2+ = ENi|Ni2+ + ln[Ni2+] - ENi|Ni2+ =
RT . RT .
(D) E0Ni|Ni2+ l 2+
2F 2F [Ni ]
33. Which option is proper for the value of Q for given value of n for the cell :
Zn | Zn2+(0.005M) || Ag+(0.04M) | Ag ?
−1
(A) n = 1, Q = 3.125 M 2 (B) n = 2, Q = 1.7677 M
−3
(C) n = 3, Q = 5.5243 M 2 (D) n = 4, Q = 0.156 M2
34. Which option is true for the values of n and Q for the cell : Pt | Br2(l ) | Br-(C ) || Au3(C+ ) | Au ?
1 2
3+ - 3 3+ 2 - 6
(A) n = 3, Q = [Au ][Br ] (B) n = 6, Q = [Au ] [Br ]
[Au 3+ ]2 [Br − ]6 1
(C) n 6, Q (D) n 3, Q
[Au 3+ ][Br − ]3
= = = =
1
184
35. If Qc = 20 M-4 for the cell; Pt | Cl2(g.1.0bar) | Cl-(0.5M) || Au3+(0.4M) | Au then .......... .
(A) n =6 (B) n =2 (C) n =3 (D) n =4
36. Give the oxidation potential of a half cell : Pt | H2(g.1.0bar) | H+(pOH = 11) at 25°C.
(A) 0.177 V (B) 0.0282 V (C) 0.616 V (D) 0.649 V
37. If EZn2+(XM)|Zn < EoZn2+|Zn what is the possible value of x ?
(A) 1.2 M (B) 0.2 M (C) 1.0 M (D) cannot be determined
38. The actual potential of a cell Fe | Fe2+(xM) || Ag+(yM) | Ag is 1.295 V at 25o C. If potential of
Fe2+(XM) | Fe is 0.455 V at 25°C, what will be the potential of Ag+(yM) | Ag half cell at the same
temperature ?
(A) 0.84 V (B) -2.135 V (C) 3.125 V (D) -0.84 V
39. For a reaction Co(s) + 2Ag+(aq) U Co2+
(aq)
+ 2Ag(s), E0cell = 1.08 V. What will be the change in
E0cell if concentration of Co2+(aq) is doubled ?
(A) doubles (B) halves (C) no change (D) increase less than half
40. When will the cell potential of electrochemical cell be zero ?
(A) When EOX(anode) = Ered(Cathode)
(B) When E0red(anode) = E0red(cathode)
(C) When EOX(anode) = EOX(cathode)
(D) When concentration of solution of both half cells are equal.
41. For given options when will Ecell = E0cell in electrochemical cell ?
(A) Only when concentrations of both half-cells are same (B) If K =1
(C) When cell reaction reaches equilibrium (D) None of the given
42. If Ecell = E0cell for a cell Zn | Zn2+(0.04M) || Ag+(C ) | Ag, then what is the value of C2 ?
2
(A) 0.04M (B) 0.02M (C) 0.2M (D) 0.0016M
43. What will be the change in cell potential when concentration of cathode solution is increased in a
cell Fe | Fe3+(C ) || Cl-(C ) | Cl2(g) | Pt at definite temperature ?
1 2
(A) increase (B) decrease (C) no change (D) Ecell = E0cell.

44. When identical decrease of 0.1 M is done in concentration of both the solution in a cell
Mg | Mg2+(C ) || Fe2+(0.5M) | Fe at definite temperature then what will be the value of C1 ?
1
(A) 0.7 M (B) 0.5 M (C) 0.4 M (D) none of the given
45. What will be the change in cell potential if concentration of both half cell solutions is decreased by
0.1 M in a cell : Co | Co2+(C ) || Sn2+(C ) | Sn ; C2 > C1 ?
1 2
(A) increase (B) decrease (C) No change (D) Ecell = E0cell

46. What will be the value of C1 if cell potential is increases on increasing concentration of both solutions
by 0.1M in a cell Ni | Ni2+(C ) || Cu2+(0.4M) | Cu at definite temperature ?
1
(A) 0.8 M (B) 0.1 M (C) 0.4 M (D) none of the given
185
47. What will be the change in cell potential if concentration of both half cell solutions is decreased by
0.1 M in a cell : Cd | Cd2+(C ) || Cu2+(C ) | Cu ? (C1 and C2 > 0.1 M)
1 2
(A) increase (B) decrease (C) no change (D) cannot be said
48. Give oxidation reaction of Pt | H2(g.1.0bar) | OH-(aq) half cell.
(A) H2(g) + 2OH-(aq) U 2H2O(1) + 2e- (B) 2OH-(aq) U H2(g) + O2(g) + 2e-
(C) 2H2O(1) + 2OH-(aq) U 3H2(g) + 2e- (D) H2(g) + 2OH-(aq) U 2H2O(1) + O2(g) + 2e-
49. Which cell representation is not proper according to the actual cell reaction occuring in the cell at
25o C ?
(E0Pb2+ | Pb = - 0.13V, E0Sn2+ | Sn = - 0.14V)
(A) Sn | Sn2+(0.1M) || Pb2+(0.01M) | Pb (B) Sn | Sn2+(0.02M) || Pb2+(0.2M) | Pb
(C) Pb | Pb2+(0.01M) || Sn2+(0.1M) | Sn (D) Sn | Sn2+(0.05M) || Pb2+(0.5M) | Pb
50. The cell potential of a cell constructed by joining Ag | Ag+(0.4M) and Al | Al3+(0.1M) half cells at
25° C, is 2.456 V then what will be standard cell potential ?
(A) 1.46 V (B) 2.46 V (C) 2.64 V (D) 2.76 V
51. What will be the theoretical change in cell potential of a cell Ni | Ni2+(0.001M) || Ag1+(0.01M) | Ag when
its temperature is increased ?
52. What will be the theoretical change in cell potential of a cell Zn | Zn2+(0.05M) || Co2+(0.08M) | Co when
its temperature is increased ?
53. On decreasing the temperature of a cell : Mg | Mg2+(c M) || Fe2+(0.08M) | Fe the cell potential
increases theoretically, then what is the possible value of C ?
(A) C = 0.5 (B) C = 0.02 (C) C = 0.05 (D) C = 0.04
54. On decreasing the temperature of a cell : Zn | Zn2+(C ) || Sn2+(C ) | Sn (C1 < C2), what will be
1 2
theoretical change in cell potential ?
55. The values of Ecell and E0cell at 25o C are 2.3629 V and 2.36 V respectively for a cell :
2+ +
Mg | Mg (0.2M)
|| H (XM)
| H2(g.1.0 bar) | Pt, then X = ..........
(A) 0.4 M (B) 0.5 M (C) 0.1 M (D) 0.25 M
56. If standard cell potential of a reaction 2H2O(l) U O2(g.1.0 bar) + 4H+(aq) + 4e- is -1.23V at 25o C
and [H+] = 107 M, then what will be the potential of this cell ? or what will be the oxidation
potential of pure water at 25°C ?
(A) -0.41 V (B) -2.62 V (C) -0.817 V (D) 0.41 V
186
57. At 25o C, for a reaction 2H2O(l) + 2e U H2(g.1.0 bar) + 2OH-(aq.107M) E
-
= - 0.417 V or If reduction
potential of pure water is -0.417 V then what will be the E° of this reaction ?
(A) - 0.83 V (B) - 2.62 V (C) - 0.817 V (D) 0.41 V
+
58. What are Ecell and K eq respectively of Fe(s) + 2Ag U Fe 2+ + 2Ag (s) at 25°C ?
(aq.0.5M) (aq.0.1M)
(E0Fe2+|Fe = 0.44 V, E0Ag+|Ag = 0.80 V)
(A) 1.25V, 1.04 ´ 1021 M1 (B) 1.23V, 1.507 ´ 1012 M1
(C) 1.23V, 1.264 ´ 106 M1 (D) 1.25V, 1.081 ´ 1042 M1
59. E0Cr3+/Cr = - 0.74 V, E0MnO /Mn3+ = 1.51 V, E0Cr O2/Cr3+ = 1.33 V and E0Cl/Cl = 1.36 V, which of the
4 2 7
following is strongest oxidizing agent according to given data ?

(A) Cr3+ (B) Mn2+ (C) MnO4 (D) Cl
Applications of cell potential.
(1) Keq can be calculated.
(2) KSP (solubility product of sparingly soluble salts), pH of acids and ionic product of water (KW)
can be calculated.
(3) Certain titrations can be carried out using cell potential.
(4) Spontainity of a reaction can be determined using cell potential.
60. What is the E° cell of reaction if equilibrium constant K = e 20.2537 (n = 2) of a reaction,

Cd(s) + Sn2+(aq) U Cd2+(aq) + Sn(s) at 298 K temperature ?
(R = 8.314 J mol1 K1, F = 96500 couloub mol1)
(A) 0.52 V (B) 0.26 V (C) 0.13 V (D) 0.48 V
61. For a reaction occuring in an electrochemical cell at 25o C, Kc = 1.3141 ´ 10107 M1 and n = 2
then E0cell for cell will be ?
(A) 6.32 V (B) 0.1186 V (C) 0.32 V (D) 3.16 V
62. For a reaction occuring in an electrochemical cell Kc = 1.3141 ´ 10 M and n = 6. If standard reduction
307 8
potential of cathode is 1.36 V, then what will be the standard oxidation potential of anode ?
(A) 6.32 V (B) 1.66 V (C) 2.71 V (D) 3.16 V
63. The E° cell of an electrochemical cell is 3.16 V at 25 o C and value of Kc =
1.727 ´ 10214 M2 then give value of n for cell reaction.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
64. What will be the oxidation potential of Pt | H2(g.1.0 bar) | H+(aq. pH = 4) at 25o C ?
(A) 0.118 V (B) 0.649 V (C) 0.236 V (D) -0.118 V
65. The oxidation potenital of hydrogen half cell at 25o C temperature and 1.0 bar pressure is 0.118 V.
What will be the pOH of its solution ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 12
66. The Ecell of Pt | H2(g.1.0 bar) | HCl(XM) || Cu+(0.01
2
M)
| Cu is 0.635 V at 25°C. What will be the pH of
HCl ? (E0Cu+2|Cu = 0.34 V)
(A) 2.0 (B) 5.0 (C) 6.0 (D) 4
187
67. The Ecell of Mg | Mg2+(0.01 M) || HCl(XM) | H2(g.1.0 bar) | Pt is 2.09V at 25°C. What will be the pH of
HCl ? (E0Mg2+|Mg 2.36 V)
= -
(A) 6.58 (B) 5.58 (C) 3.58 (D)4.58

68. The Ecell of Pt | H2(g.1.0 bar) | HCl(XM) || Au3+(0.001 M) | Au is 1.6655 V. What will be the pH of HCl ?
(E0Au3+|Au = 1.40 V)
(A) 3.5 (B) 4.17 (C) 5.5 (D) 4.83
69. What is the potential of a cell : Pt | H2(g.1.0 bar) | OH-(aq.pH = 4.5) || H+(aq.pH = 2.5) | H2(g.1.0 bar) | Pt at 298 K ?
(A) 0.118 V (B) 0.205 V (C) 0.08 V (D) 0.124 V
70. What is the potential of a cell : Pt | H2(g.1.0 bar) | OH-(aq.pOH = 10.5) || H+(aq.pH = 2.0) | H2(g.1.0 bar) | Pt at 298 K?
(A) 0.5015 V (B) 0.0885 V (C) 0.0452 V (D) 0.05015 V

71. Which reaction will be spontaneous in forward direction at 25o C ? The standard oxidation potentials
of Pt | I2(s) | I-, Cu | Cu2+, Cr | Cr3+, Zn | Zn2+, Sn | Sn2+, Pb | Pb2+, Ag | Ag+ and Fe | Fe3+ are
-0.54 V, -0.34 V, 0.74 V, 0.76 V, 0.14 V, 0.13 V, -0.80 V and 0.037 V respectively.
(A) 2I-(aq. 0.1 M) + Cu2+(aq. 0.05 M) U I2(s) + Cu(s)
(B) 2Cr3+(aq. 0.001 M) + 3Zn(s) U 2Cr(s) + 3Zn2+(aq. 0.1 M)
(C) Pb2+(aq. 0.02 M) + Sn(s) U Pb(s) + Sn2+(aq. 0.2 M)
(D) 3Ag(s) + Fe3+(aq. 0.01 M) U 3Ag+(aq. 0.1 M) + Fe(s)
72. +
E0red of Fe | Fe2 and Fe | Fe3 are +
-0.44 V and +0.77 V respectively. What is the E0OX value of
+
Fe | Fe3 ?
(A) 0.037 V (B) 0.33 V (C) -0.33 V (D) - 0.11 V
73. If E0Cu|Cu2+ = -0.34 V and E0Cu2+|Cu+ = + 0.16 V then what is the value of E0Cu|Cu+ ?
(A) -0.12 V (B) -0.48 V (C) + 0.48 V (D) - 0.52 V
74. Standard oxidation potential of Co | Co3+, Co2+ | Co3+, Fe | Fe3+ and Fe2+ | Fe3+ are -0.4167 V, -1.81 V,
+ +
0.0367 V and -0.77 V respectively. What will be the standard cell potential of Fe | Fe2 || Co2 | Co?
(A) 0.72 V (B) -0.11 V (C) 1.0 V (D) 0.16 V
75. The value of E0OX of Pt | H2(g.1.0 bar) | OH-(aq) half cell at 50° C temperature is +0.83 V, then what
will be the value of ionic product (KW) of water at 50° C ?
(A) 1.12 ´ 10-13 (B) 1.102 ´ 10-12 (C) 1.105 ´ 10-12 (D) 1.0 ´ 10-14
76. What will be the oxidation potential of half cell at L.H.S. in a cell Sn | Sn2+(0.1 M) || Pb2+(0.5 M) | Pb at
25°C when equilibrium is established ? (E0Sn2 +
| Sn
= - 0.14V, E0Pb2 +
| Pb
= - 0.13 V)
(A) 0.128 V (B) 0.0 V (C) 0.114 V (D) 0.151 V
188
77. What will be the % decrease in concentration of Ni 2 + (aq) when a reaction
Co(s) + Ni2+(aq 0.1 M) U Co2+
(aq 0.01 M)
+ Ni(s) at 25° C comes to an equilibrium ?
(E0Co2 +
| Co
= - 0.28 V and -0.23 V)
(A) 97.82 % (B) 8.74 % (C) 95.4 % (D) 92.5 %
78. An excess of liquid mercury is added into a solution of 1.0 ´ 10-3 M Fe3+. At 25°C temperature 5%
Fe3+ is left at equilibrium. If only following reaction is possible, then what will be the value of
E0Hg2 +
| Hg
? (E0Fe3 +
| Fe2+
= 0.77 V)
2Hg(l) + 2Fe3+(aq) U Hg 2+
2 (aq)
+ 2Fe2+(aq)
(A) 0.793 V (B) 0.643 V (C) -0.793 V (D) -0.643 V
79. What will be the values of reduction potentials of anode and cathode when equilibrium is established
in electro chemical cell : Fe | Fe2+(0.1 M) || Cd2+(0.5 M) | Cd at 25°C ? (n = 2). E0Fe2+| Fe = -0.44 V,
E0Cd2+| Cd = - 0.40 V.
(A) - 0.477 V (B) +0.477 V (C) - 0.447 V (D) - 0.575 V
80. The reaction occuring in a following cell is in equilibrium at 298 K, then which option is appropriate ?
Zn | Zn2+(XM) || Cu2+(yM) | Cu
(A) EZn | Zn2+ = - ECu2+ (B) EZn | Zn2+ = - ECu | Cu2+

(XM) (yM) | Cu (XM) (yM)
(C) EZn | Zn2+ = ECu2+ (D) EZn | Zn2+ + ECu2+ = 0.0 V

(XM) (yM) | Cu (XM) (yM) | Cu
81. The reaction occuring in a cell Co | Co2+(1.0 M) || Ni2+(XM) | Ni at 298 K is in equilibrium, then x =
..........
E0Co2+| Co = - 0.28 V and E0Ni2+| Ni = - 0.23 V. (n = 2)
(A) 1.0 M (B) 1.02 M (C) 0.02 M (D) 0.5 M

82. The following half-cell reactions are given :
Mn2+ + 2e- ® Mn; E0 = -1.18V, 2(Mn3+ + e- ® Mn2+); E0 = + 1.51 V
then what is E° of 3Mn2+ ® Mn + 2Mn 3+

? (and decide the spontaneity of a reaction)
(A) -0.33 V; reaction spontaneous (B) -2.69 V; non spontaneous reaction
(C) -2.69 V; reaction spontaneous. (D) -0.33 V; non spontaneous reaction

Answsers : 27. (D), 28. (B), 29. (D), 30. (B), 31. (B), 32. (C), 33. (C), 34. (D), 35. (C),
36. (A), 37. (B), 38. (D), 39. (C), 40. (C), 41. (D), 42. (C), 43. (B), 44. (C),
45. (B), 46. (A), 47. (A), 48. (A), 49. (A), 50. (A), 51. (B), 52. (B), 53. (C),
54. (B), 55. (B), 56. (C), 57. (A), 58. (D), 59. (C), 60. (B), 61. (D), 62. (B),
63. (D), 64. (C), 65. (D), 66. (C) 67. (B), 68. (C), 69. (A), 70. (B), 71. (A),
72. (A), 73. (D), 74. (D), 75. (A) 76. (D), 77. (A), 78. (A), 79. (C), 80. (A),
81. (C), 82. (B)
189
Electrolysis : When electric current is passed into electrolytic cell containing aqueous solution of
electrolyte or molten electrolyte with proper electrodes dipped in to it. Redox reaction takes place and
products are obtained at electrodes. This reaction is called electrolysis.
Principle of electrolysis : Conversion of electrical energy into chemical energy.
Faradays Laws of electrolysis :
(1) First law : The amount of products liberated at electrodes during electrolysis is directly propor-
tional to the quantity of electricity passed through electrolytic cell.
m µ Q. Therefore m = z.Q, z = electro chemical equivalent
(2) Second law : When different electrolytic cells containing different electrolytes are connected in
a series and same quantity of electricity is passed through them, the amount of products liberated at
different electrodes is directly proportional to their equivalent weights.
m µ Eeq. Therefore m = Eeq.Q, Eeq = equivalent weight, Q = quantity of electricity passed.
Modern interpretation of Faradays laws :
The number of moles of products obtained at electrodes by oxidation and reduction half reactions
are stoichiometricelly related to the quantity of electricity passed through electrolytic cell.
The quantity of electric charge carried by 1 mole electrons is called 1 Faraday. Its symbol is F.
1 (F) = 1 mol ´ electronic charge
= (6.022 ´ 1023) ´ (1.602 ´ 1019 coulomb)
= 96487 colulomb » 96500 colulomb
I×t
F = 96500
Faraday, where 1 = electric current (ampere), t = time (second)
The products obtained by electrolysis of aq. solution of electrolytes depend on following three
factors.
(1) nature of electrodes used (2) concentration of solution (3) emf (electrical pressure)
Electrolysis of molten NaCl

Electrolysis of molten NaCl using graphite anode and steel cathode gives (Cl2(g)) gas at anode and
(Na(s)) metal at cathode. Reactions are as follows :
Reaction : NaCl(l) ® Na +
(l)
+ Cl-(l)
Anode (graphite) : Cl-(l) ® + e-

1
Cl
2 2(g)
Cathode (Steel) : Na+(l) + e -

® Na(s)
Electrolysis of dilute aqueous NaCl

Electrolysis of dilute aqueous NaCl using inert electrodes like graphite or platinum is in reality
electrolysis of water. As explained below electrolysis of diulte aq. NaCl using inert electrodes gives (O2(g))
gas at anode and (H2(g)) gas at cathode.
190
At anode : In dilute aq. NaCl, concentration of Cl- is low and hence its oxidation is difficult.
Compared to it oxidation of water is easier therefore instead of Cl2 gas, oxygen gas is obtained.
(Q Cl-(aq) ® Cl + e- E0 = 2H+(aq) + 2e- E0 = -1.23 V)

1 1
- 1.36 V; H2O(l) ® O +
2 2(g) 2 2(g)
At cathode : Reduction of Na+ is difficult and compared to it reduction of water is easier therefore
instead of Na+, water is reduced and H2 gas is obtained.
(Q Na + (aq) + e -
® Na (s) E 0 = - 2.70 V; 2H 2 O (l) + 2e -
® H 2(g) + 2OH - (aq)
E0 = -0.83 V)
2H+(aq) + 2e-
1
Anode : H2O(l) + O +
2 2(g)
Cathode : 2H2O(l) + 2e- + H2(g) + 2OH-(aq)
Cell reaction : 2H+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) ® 2H2O(l)
Net reaction : H2O(l) ® 1

O
2 2(g)
+ H2(g)
Thus electrolysis of dilute aq. NaCl using inert electrodes is in reality electrolysis of water. (The pH
of solution does not change during electrolysis of dil. aq. NaCl using inert electrodes. Phenolphthalin will
not give any colour change and solution will remain colourless during electrolysis. Similarly, methyl orange
will also not show any colour change and as solution is neutral it will remain orange in colour. As amount
of water decreases, concentration of NaCl increases in solution.)
Electrolysis of concentrated aqueous NaCl :
Electrolysis of conc. aq. NaCl using inert electrodes like graphite or platinum gives Cl2(g) gas at
anode and H2(g) gas at cathode as follows.
At anode : Concentration of Cl- is higher in conc. aq. NaCl compared to that of H2O and hence
Cl- is oxidized easily and Cl2(g) gas produce at anode.
At cathode : Reduction of Na+ is difficult and that of H2O is comparatively easier and hence at cathode
water is reduced and H2 gas is obtained. (Q Na+(aq) + e -
® Na (s)
E0 = -2.70 V; 2H2O(l) + 2e -
® H2(g) + 2OH-
(aq)
E0 = -0.83 V)
anode : Cl-(aq) Cl + e-
1
®
2 2(g)
cathode : 2H2O(l) + 2e -
® H2(g) + 2OH-(aq)
In solution Cl-(aq) ions are displaced by OH-(aq) ions.
Thus electrolysis of concentrated aq. NaCl using inert electrodes gives Cl2(g) gas at anode, H2(g) gas
at cathode and NaOH is produced in solution. Thus electrolysis of conc. aq. NaCl is in reality industrial
production of NaOH.
(As solution becomes basic by electrolysis of conc. aq. NaCl using inert electrodes the pH of solution
increases. If electrolysis is carried out adding phenolphthalein, solution turns pink from colourless and if
done adding methyl orange it turns yellow from orange.)
Electrolysis of aqueous solution of copper sulphate (CuSO4) using active electrodes of copper (Cu)
If electrolysis of aq. solution of CuSO4 is carried out using active electrodes of copper (Cu) then by
overall reaction copper of anode deposits at cathode.
191
As copper electrode is active electrode it undergo reaction during electrolysis.
During electrolysis as the time elapse Cu(s) atoms of copper anode undergo oxidation and produce
Cu2+ ions and goes into the solution. Hence the mass of copper anode decrease as the time elapse. Cu2+
ions present in solution undergo reduction at the surface of cathode and converts into Cu(s) atoms and
deposits at copper cathode. Hence the mass of copper cathode increases.
anode (Copper) : Cu(s) = Cu2+(aq) + 2e-

Cathode (Copper) : Cu2+(aq) + 2e- = Cu(s)
Overall reaction : Cu(s) (anode) = Cu(s) (cathode)
In the metallurgy of copper during electrochemical refining impure copper is taken as anode and
when electrolysis is done at proper electrical pressure, impurities of inert metals like Au, Pt present in
anode do not undergo oxidation and they collect at the bottom of the cell. This is called anode-mud.
Thus during electrolysis of aq. CuSO4 using active electrodes of copper, no products are obtained
at anode but at the bottom of the cell inert and precious metals like Ag, Au, Pt are obtained in anode mud
and Cu(s) deposits at cathode.
When electrolysis of aq. CuSO4 is done using active electrodes of Cu, there is no chage in conc. of
Cu2+ ions and therefore there is no change in blue colour and pH of solution.
If electrolysis of aq. CuSO4 is carried out using inert electrodes like graphite or platinum then at
anode O2(g) gas by oxidation of water and copper is obtained at cathode as explained below.
At anode : Oxidation of SO24- ions is difficult compared to that of water and hence water is
oxidized and produce H+ ions and O2 gas.
At cathode : Reduction of Cu2+ ions present in solution takes place and copper metal is produced.
The Cu2+ ions in solution are replaced by H+ ions. Therfore H2SO4 is produced in solution.
Thus electrolysis of aq. (CuSO4) using inert electrodes like graphite or platinum gives O2(g) gas at
anode, Cu metal deposits at cathode and H2SO4 is produced in solution.
When electrolysis of aq. (CuSO4) is carried out using inert electrodes like graphite or platinum,
acidity of solution increase because H2SO4 is produced in solution and hence pH decreases.
(Cu2+ ions present in solution are reduced to Cu(s) and therefore the blue colour of solution fades.)
Application of electrolysis (OR Importance)

(1) It is used in production of metals like Na, Mg, Al production of gases like Cl2, F2 and
production of chemicals like NaOH, KOH etc.
(2) Refining of metals like Au, Cu, Pt, Ag is done by electrolysis.
(3) Electrolysis is useful in electroplating.
192
No. Electrolysis Product at anode Product at cathode
1. molten NaCl Cl2(g) Na metal

2. Con. aq. NaCl Cl2(g) H2(g) and NaOH
in solution
3. dil. aq. NaCl O 2(g) H 2(g)
4. Al2O3 (Na3AlF6) graphite electrodes O2(g), F2(g), CO2(g) Al metal
5. KHF2 in anhydrous HF F 2(g) H 2(g)
Difference between electrochemical cell and electrolytic cell

Electrochemical cell Electrolytic cell
(1) Chemical Energy is converted into (1) Electrical energy is converted into chemi -
electrical energy in this cell. cal energy in this cell.
(2) Redox reaction is spontaneous and (2) Readox reaction is not spontaneous and
(DG < 0) (DG > 0)
(3) Generally the two electrodes are in (3) Both the electrodes are dipped in electro
different containers lytic solution or molten electrolyte.
(4) Anode is (-) and cathode is (+) (4) Anode is (+) and cathode is (). i.e. an
electrode joined with positive terminal of
battery is anode and that joined with nega-
tive terminal is cathode
(5) Generally salt bridge is required in its (5) Generally salt bridge is not required in its
construction. construction.
(6) eg. Daniel cell (6) eg. Electrolytic cells used for
production of Na, Al, Cl2 etc.
83. The potential of a cell is 2.0 V. If DG for cell reaction is -50 Kcal, then how many coulombs of
electric charge would have been drawn ? (1 cal = 4.184 J)
(A) 1.08 coulomb (B) 104600 coulomb (C) 25000 coulomb (D) 0.26 coulomb
84. How many moles of O2(g) and H2(g) would obtain on passing 10 F electricity in electrolysis of water
theoretically ?
(A) 5 mol and 10 mol (B) 10 mol and 5 mol (C) 5 mol and 2.5 mol (D) 2.5 mol and 5 mol
85. How many grams of Ag would obtain at cathode on passing 5F of electricity from aq. AgNO3
theoretically ? (Ag = 108 gram.mol1)
(A) 270 gram (B) 540 gram (C) 180 gram (D) 135 gram
193
86. How many grams of Al will obtain at cathode experimentally on passing 15.0 F of electricity from Al3+(l)?
(efficiency of cell = 80 %.) (Atomic mass Al = 27 gram mol1)

(A) 135 gram (B) 121.5 gram (C) 108 gram (D) 94.5 gram
87. How much litres of O2(g) would obtain theoretically on passing 20 F electricity in electrolysis of water ?
(A) 224 litre (B) 448 litre (C) 112 litre (D) 62 litre
88. At STP, 84 L of Cl2(g) is obtained experimetally on passing 10 F electrical charge in electrolysis of
molten NaCl, then what is the efficinecy of the cell ?
(A) 80 % (B) 75 % (C) 50 % (D) 90 %
89. What will be the change in pH of a solution when aq. CuSO4 is electrolysed using inert electrodes ?
(A) pH increase (B) pH decrease (C) No change in pH (D) Cannot be said
90. The standard potential of an oxidation of sulphur dioxide into sulphur trioxide in closed container at
298 K is 0.182 V. The DG0 = -3512.6 J for this reaction. If standard free energy of formation of
SO2(g) is -300.37 KJ mol1 , then what will be the same for SO3(g)?
(R = 8.314 Jmol1 K1, F = 96500 F mol electron1)
(A) -313.933 kg joule mol1 (B) -235.335 kg joule mol1
(C) -296.854 kg joule mol1 (D) -335.496 kg joule mol1
91. Reduction of H2O takes place instead of that of Na+(aq) in electrolysis of dil. solution of NaCl using
inert electrodes. Because, ....
(A) Standard reduction potential of Na+(aq) is more than that of H2O.

(B) Standard oxidation potential of H2O is very large.
(C) inert electrodes are there.
(D) Standard potenital of reduction reaction of Na+(aq) is very small.

92. What is the proportion of moles at cathodes when same quantity of electricity is passed through
electrolytic cells containing molten NaCl, CaCl2 and AlCl3 joined in a series ?
(A) 1 : 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 : 1 (C) 6 : 2 : 3 (D) 6 : 3 : 2
93. Choose correct option for given statements. (T = True statement, F = False statement)
(i) The blue colour of solution fades on electrolysis of aq. CuSO4 using active electrodes of Cu.
(ii) The pOH of solution increase on electrolysing aq. CuSO4 using inert electrodes.
(iii) The solution becomes basic on electrolysing aq. CuSO4 using active electrodes of Cu.
(iv) The mass of cathode increase on electrolysing aq. CuSO4 using inert electrodes.
(A) FTFT (B) TFFT (C) FFTT (D) FTTF
94. What are the products obtained at cathode and anode respectively on electrolysing a mixture of
KHF2 in anhydrous HF ?
(A) K and F2 (B) K and H2 (C) O2 and F2 (D) H2 and F2
194
95. How many moles of Ca will be obtained at cathode experimentally on passing 5 F electrical charge
through molten CaCl2 ?
(A) 2.5 mol (B) less than 2.5 mol (C) more than 2.5 mol (D) 5 mol
96. What is the ratio of number of moles of metals obtained at different cathodes on passing same
quantity of electricity through electrolytic cells containing CuSO4, AgNO3 and NiSO4 joined in a
series ?
(A) 2 : 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 1 : 2 (D) 1 : 2 : 1
97. In an experiment of electroplating m gram Ag deposits at cathode on passing 4 ampere electric
current for 2 minutes. How many grams of Ag will deposit if 6 ampere electric current is passed for
40 seconds ?
m m
(A) 2 m (B) 4 m (C) (D)
2 4
98. How many faradays of electric charge are required theoretically in order to reduce 1 mole
Cr2O2-7 into Cr3+ ions ?
(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) 4
99. Which relation is true for Faradays second law of electrolysis ? Where m1 and m2 are amount of
substances and E1 and E2 are their equivalent weights respectively.
(A) m1E2 = m2E1 (B) m1E1 = m2E2 (C) m1 + m2 = E2 + E1 (D) E1E2 = m1m2
100. Electrolysis of CrCl3 in order to do chromium plating was carried out using 220.0 gram iron plate as
negative electrode by passing 10 ampere electric current for 1221 seconds. The mass of plate in-
creased and became 221.84 gram. What will be the efficiency of this cell ? (At mass : Cr = 52)
(A) 90.2 % (B) 83.90 % (C) 95 % (D) 63.89 %
101. How much quanitity of electricity in coulombs is required theoretically to reduce 1 mol MnO4- into Mn2+ ?
(A) 96500 C (B) 1.93 ´ 105 C (C) 5.62 ´ 105 C (D) 4.83 ´ 105 C
102. How much quantity of electricity is required theoretically in order to reduce all Ag+ in 250 ml of 1.0
M AgNO3 ?
(A) 2412.5 C (B) 24125 C (C) 4825 C (D) 25250 C
3+
103. On passing required quantity of electricity through Al(l) , 4.5 gram of Al is deposited at cathode
experimentally. If same quantity of electricity is passed through solution containing enough concen-
tration of H+(aq) what volume of hydrogen will be produced at STP ?
(At wt : Al = 27 g mol1)
(A) 44.4 Litre (B) 222.4 Litre (C) 11.2 Litre (D) 5.6 Litre
104. By electrolysing CdCl2 using 2g Hg cathode, Cd-Hg amalgam is obtained. How many amperes of
electric current should be passed theoretically for 100 seconds in order to obtain Cd-Hg amalgam
containing 20 % Cd at cathode ? (At mass Cd = 112.5 gmol1)
(A) 34.32 A (B) 17.16 A (C) 4.29 A (D) 8.58 A
195
105. On electrolysing unknown salt solution of Pd by passing 5A electric current for 2.15 hours, 10.64
gram Pd is deposited at cathode theoretically. What will be the oxidation state of Pd in that salt ?
(Atomic mass Pd = 106.4 gm mol1)
(A) +2 (B) +3 (C) +4 (D) +1
106. Preparation of MnO2 by electrolysis of aq. solution of MnSO4 is done according to following equa-
tion. If 1.0 kg MnO2 is obtained by passing 25A electric current for 30 hours, then what is the
current efficiency ?
(molecular mass MnO2 = 87 gmol1)
Mn2+(aq) + H2O(l) ® MnO2(s) + 2H+(aq) + H2(g)
(A) 82.16 % (B) 20.54 % (C) 25 % (D) 49.2 %
107. Calculate the experimental mass of metal depositing on cathode when 15 ampere electric current is
passed for 2 hours through electrolytic cell having efficiency 75 %. Electrochemical equivalent of
metal is 4.0 ´ 104 gram coulomb1.
108. The concentration of AgNO3 decrease from 4M to 3M when aq. solution of AgNO3 is electrolysed
using platinum electrodes. If the same solution is electrolysed using Ag electrodes, what result is
obtained ?
(A) the result is same (B) concentration of solution increase
(C) decrease in concentration is less (D) no change in concentration of solution
109. What will be the theoretical concentration of Ni(NO3)2 solution if 0.5 L of 2.0 M Ni(NO3)2 is electrolysed
by passing 9.65 A electric current for 3 hours using graphite anode and nickel cathode ?
(A) 0.46 M (B) 1.46 M (C) 0.92 M (D) 0.36 M
110. What will be the decrease in concentration of Ag+(aq) when 4L of 0.8 M AgNO3 is electrolysed by
passing 5 ampere electric current for 10 hours using inert electrodes ?
(Current efficiency = 80 %)
(A) 0.466 M (B) 1.865 M (C) 1.492 M (D) 0.373 M
111. How much amperes of electric current should be passed through water in order to produce 100 ml
O 2 per minute at 25°C temperature and 1 bar pressure ? Current efficiency = 90%.
L bar
R = 0.08314 )
mol K
(A) 23.16 A (B) 14.35 A (C) 28.85 A (D) 31.88 M
112. In order to obtain 36.47 gram sodium at cathode by electrolysis of molten NaCl for how much time
10 A electric current should be passed ? Current-efficiency = 85% (At mass Na = 23 gmol1)
(A) 4.25 hr (B) 3.6 hr (C) 5 hr (D) 4 hr
113. When 5 L aq. solution of CuSO4 is electrolysed using inert electrodes by passing 25A electric cur-
rent, the molarity of CuSO4 becomes 1.2 M from 0.7 M, then for how much time electric current
would have been passed theoretically ?
(A) 1.716 hr (B) 8.58 hr (C) 17.16 hr (D) 4.29 hr
196
114. When 10 L aq. solution of CuSO4 is electrolysed using inert electrodes by passing electric current for
20 hours, the molarity of CuSO4 becomes 0.2 M from 0.7 M, then how many amperes of electric
current would have been passed theoretically ?
(A) 13.4 A (B) 1.34 A (C) 6.7 A (D) 26.8 A
115. By electrolysing CdCl2using 2 gram Hg cathode, Cd-Hg amalgam is obtained. How many amperes
of electric current should be passed theoretically for 1000 seconds to obtain Cd-Hg amalgam con-
taining 20% Hg ? (At mass : Cd = 112.5 gmol1)
(A) 34.32 A (B) 17.16 A (C) 4.29 A (D) 13.72 A
116. To what is Faradays law of electrolysis related ?
(A) With atomic number of positive ion (B) With atomic number of negative ion
(C) With speed of positive ion (D) With equivalent of electrolyte
117. What is the mass deposited at electrode when 1 coulomb electric charge is passed through solution
of electrolyte ?
(A) equal to 1 Chemical equivalent (B) equal to 1 atomic mass
(C) equal to 1 gram (D) equal to 1 electro chemical equivalent
118. What electric charge will be required in order to deposit 1 equivalent of mass at electrode ?
(A) 1 coulomb (B) electric charge on 1 mol e
(C) 96500 faraday (D) None of the given
119. The electrochemical equivalent of a substance is 0.0006735 gram, what will be its chemical equivalent ?
(A) 65 g (B) 0.0007635 g (C) 34.5 g (D) 130 g
120. On electrolysing aq. solution of acid 44800 ml O2 is produced at anode, then what will be the volume
of H2 gas produced at cathode during this ?
(A) 11200 ml (B) 44800 ml (C) 22400 ml (D) 89600 ml
121. On passing 2A electric current for 2 hours from aq. CuSO4 W gram copper deposits at cathode. If
4A electric current is passed for 4 hours in the same cell what will be the mass of copper deposit at
the cathode ?
W W
(A) 2W gram (B) gram (C) 4W gram (D) gram
2 4
122. When 9650 electrons are associated with electrolysis, the mass of metal deposited at cathode is 1.2
gram, then what will be the chemical equivalent of metal ?
(A) 24 gm/eq (B) 0.12 gm/eq (C) 12 gm/eq (D) 2.4 gm/eq
123. How many amperes of electric current should be passed theoretically in order to collect 112 mL H2
gas at cathode at STP from acidified water in 965 seconds ?
(A) 0.1 A (B) 1.0 A (C) 0.5 A (D) 2.0 A
124. In a galvanic cell, in a 1 L of 1.0 M CuSO4 aqueous solution Zn electrode having mass 100 gram is
dipped. If this cell gives 1.0 A electric current continuously, then how long this cell will last ?
(A) 26.8 hr (B) 53.61 hr (C) 82.48 hr (D) 33.78 hr
197
125. The surface area of a metalic state is 150 cm2. How long 15 ampere electric current should be
passed from aq. solution of Ag+ in order to coat its surface with 0.01 nm thick layer of Ag ?
gm
(Current efficiency = 90 % ) density of Ag = 10.5 gram cm3 Atomic mass Ag = 108 mol
(A) 227.979 second (B) 205.1811 second (C) 253.31 second (D) 233.45 second
126. For how much time 10 ampere electric current should be passed from aq. solution of Au3+ to coat
metallic bars having dimensions 5 cm ´ 10 cm ´ 2 cm with 0.01 nm thick gold layer ? (Current
efficiency = 80%)
gram
density of Au = 19.3 gram cm3 Atomic mass of Au = 197 mol
(A) 45393.63 second (B) 45034.94 second (C) 52572.23 second (D) 56748.51 second
127. For plating on a spoon 0.01 gram silver is consumed. How many spoons will be plated if 0.1A
electric current is passed for 27 hours if electrolyte is aq. solution of AgNO3 ?
(Atomic mass Ag = 108 gram mol1)
(A) 100 (B) 1088 (C) 108 (D) 80
128. For how much time 10 ampere electric current should be passed through aq. AgNO3 in order to plate
silver on 1080 spoons ? 0.02 gram silver is being plated on each spoon. (Current efficiency = 90%)
(Atomic mass of Ag = 108 gram mol1)

(A) 2144 second (B) 1544 second (C) 1930 second (D) 2130 second
129. When 19,3000 coulomb of electrical charge is passed through electrolytic cell 1 gram atomic weight
of metal deposits on cathode theoretically. What will be the relation between molar mass (M) and
equivalent weight (Eq) of that metal ?
(A) M = 2Eq (B) M = 4Eq (C) M = Eq (D) M = 3Eq
130. 3.0 mole Ag deposits at cathode theoretically when x coulombs of electricity is passed through aq.
solution of AgNO3 . How many moles of Al will deposit at cathode theoretically if x coulombs of
electricity is passed through aq. solution of Al(NO3)3 ?
(A) 1 mole (B) 2 mole (C) 9 mole (D) 3 mole
131. x coulombs of electrical charge is passed through aq. solution of Al(NO3)3 . When current efficiency
is 90%, 3 mol Al deposits at cathode experimentally. If x coulombs of electrical charge is passed
through aq. solution of AgNO3 and current efficiency is 80%, then how many moles of Ag will
deposit at cathode experimentally ?
(A) 7.2 mol (B) 10 mol (C) 8 mol (D) 8.5 mol
Answers : 83. (B) 84. (D) 85. (B) 86. (C) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (B), 90. (D), 91. (D),
92. (D), 93. (A), 94. (D), 95. (B), 96. (D), 97. (C), 98. (A), 99. (A), 100. (B),
101. (D), 102. (B), 103. (D), 104. (D), 105. (C), 106. (A), 107. (A), 108. (D),
109. (C), 110. (D), 111. (C), 112. (C), 113. (B), 114. (A), 115. (D), 116. (D),
117. (D), 118. (B), 119. (A), 120. (D) 121. (A), 122. (C), 123. (A), 124. (B),
125. (C), 126. (D), 127. (B), 128. (A), 129. (A), 130. (A), 131. (C)
198
Electrical resistance
The resistance of a uniform conductor is directly proportional to its lenght (l) and inverssely
proportional to its area of cross section (A).
Electric resistance is expressed by R. Its unit is ohm (W). It is measured by wheatstone bridge.
l
\ R µ where, R = resistance, l = length, A = area of cross section
A
\ R = r ( Al ) where, r = resistivity (specific resistance) and its SI unit is (Wm). Generally it is
expressed by (Wcm).
Resistivity (Specific resistance) : The resistance of a conductor having 1 m length and 1m2 cross
section of area is called resistivity or specific resistance.
SI unit of resistivity is ohm metre (Wm). It is generally expressed ohm cm (Wcm).
1 Wm = 100 W cm
Conductivity : The inverse of resistance is called conductivity.
G=
1
R
\
A
G = . (QR = r A )
ρl (l)
. A 1
\ G = K where K = = specific conductivity
l ρ
The SI unit of conductance is Siemens (S). It is generally expressed as ohm1 or ohm W1 or mho ).
Specific conductivity (k) : The conductance of a conductor having length equal to 1m and area
of cross section equal to 1m2 is called its specific conductivity or simply conductivity. It is the inverse of
resistivity (r).
1 R .A 1
\ K = and r = \ K =
ρ l R .A
Unit of K : mho.cm1 ( cm1) SI unit = Sm1.
l
Cell constant (G*) : The term in the formula of specific conductivity is known as cell constant
A
G*. Unit of cell constant (G*) : cm1, SI unit is m1.
The conduction of electricity in metallic conductors is done by electrons present in outermost shell or
conduction band of metal atoms.
The conduction of electricity in electrolytic solutions is by ions.
In metals there is no chemical change during the conduction of electricity.
The temperature of metals increase during conduction of electricity.
Molar conductivity ( / m) : The conductance of a solution kept between two electrodes at a distance
of unit length with unit area of cross section containing 1 mole of electrolyte is called molar conductivity.
Suppose V litre of solution placed between two electrodes contain 1 mole electrolyte, therefore
1 1
molarity of solution M = therefore V = .
V M
199
A
G = k . , where l = 1 cm and A = V and G = k . V, where according to definition, G = Λm
l
\ Λm = k . V
k
\ Λm = (If molarity of solution is M, then M mol = 1 L solution. Therefore solution will be
M
1
1 mol litre.)
M
mol M mol M mol

M = = 3 = 3
L dm 1000 cm
k k
1 0 0 0 cm3 × k mho cm −1 1000 × k
Λm = =
M mol
=
M mo l
= mho.(cm)2 mol1 or S(cm)2 mol1
M M
3

1000 cm
1 Sm2 mol1 = 104 S cm2 mol1
1000 × k
Equivalent conductivity ( Λ ) =
2 1 2
Normality (N) Unit : mho (cm) eq , SI unit : S (cm) eq
1
When aq. solution of any electrolyte is diluted by adding water into it the number of ions conducting
electric current per unit volume decrease and hence specific conductance decrease. But due to dilution,
dissociation of electrolyte increase and therefore the number of ions conducting electric current per mole
increase and hence molar conductivity increases.
Super Conductors : The substances having zero resistivity or infinite conductivity are called super
conductors.
Earlier metals and alloys at a temperature (0 to 15 K) were known to behave as super conductors,
but now a days a number of ceramic materials and mixed oxides are also known to show super conductivity
at temperatures as high as 150 K.
The conductivity of solutions is mainly due to the presence of ions in them. It is called ionic conductivity.
Factors affecting ionic conductivity are :
(1) Nature of electrolyte added (2) Concentration of electrolyte (3) temperature (4) viscosity
(5) Nature of solvent (6) size of the ions produced and their solvation.
132. Which is the correct order of specific conductance of the metals given ?
(A) Cu > Ag > Au > Na > Fe (B) Ag > Cu > Au > Fe > Na
(C) Ag > Cu > Au > Na > Fe (D) Ag > Au > Cu > Fe > Na
133. The resistance of aq. solution of KCl having conductivity x mho cm1 at definite temperature is
y W . If resistance of aq. solution of NaCl measured with the same instrument is z W then what
is the conductivity of this solution ?
yz xy xz x
(A) mho (cm)1 (B) mho (cm)1 (C) y mho (cm)1 (D) yz mho (cm)1
x z
200
134. The electrical resistance and conductivity (k) of 0.2 M aq. solution of an electrolyte are 50 W and
1.3 Sm1 respectively. If electrical resistance of 0.4 M aq solution of same electrolyte is 260 W, then
what will be its molar conductivity ?
(A) 6.25 ´ 104 Sm2 mol1 (B) 625 Sm2 mol1 (C) 62.5 Sm2 mol1 (D) 6.25 ´ 102 Sm2 mol1
N
135. The electrical resistance and specific conductivity of a cell containing KCl solution are 400 W
50
and 0.002765 S cm1, then what will be the value of its cell constant ?
(A) 6.91 cm1 (B) 1.106 cm1 (C) 14.46 cm1 (D) 2.212 cm1
N
136. If conductivity and electrical resistance of a conductivity cell containing KCl solution at 18°C are
10
1.12 ´ 102 S cm1 and 65 W respectively then what will be the value of cell constant of this cell ?
(A) 0.728 cm1 (B) 0.580 cm1 (C) 0.172 cm1 (D) 0.0172 cm1
137. What will be the quantity of electricity passed when a potential difference of 20 V is applied to a
wire having resistance 10 W for 2 minutes ?
(A) 120 C (B) 240 C (C) 20 C (D) 4 C
138. 2.5 Sm1 = .......... Scm1
(A) 250 (B) 25 (C) 0.025 (D) 0.25
139. According to conventional symbol system

l
AR
= .......... .
1
(A) r (B) K.G (C) G (D) ρ
140. At what temperature metals and alloys were termed as super conductors earlier ?
(A) 150 K (B) -273o C to -288o C (C) 0o C to15o C (D) 0 K to 15 K
141. Which substances are known as super conductors at 150 K temperature ?
(A) metals (B) alloys
(C) ceramic materials and mixed oxides (D) plastic
142. Whose conductivity is most at room temperature ?
(A) 0.1M HCl (B) 0.1M NaCl (C) Teflon (D) glass
143. Which substance is semi conductor ?
(A) Teflon (B) CuO (C) Glass (D) Cu2O
Answers : 132. (C) 133. (B) 134. (A) 135. (B) 136. (B) 137. (B), 138. (C), 139. (D),
140. (D), 141. (C), 142. (A), 143. (B)
Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions : The molar conductivity (/ 0) of an elec-

trolyte at infinite dilution is equal to the sum of molar conductivities of its cation and anion (l0+
and l0-) at infinite dilution.
201
Debye Huckel and Onsager equation for molar conductivity of aqueous solution of electrolyte
Λ m = Λ 0m - A . C where, Λ m = molar conductivity of given solution, Λ 0m = Limiting molar conductivity
For aq. solution of strong electrolytes the graph of Λ m ® C is straight line. The value of slope is
equal to -A and the intercept of Y-axis is equal to Λ 0m.
The value of A depends on type of electrolyte, solvent and temperature.
The value of A for same type of electrolytes is same (when solvent and temperature are same)
For aq. solutions of weak electrolytes the graph of Λ m ® C is not a straight line but curve.
Therefore, from the graph of Λ m ® C , molar conductivity ( Λ 0m) at infinite dilution of aqueous solutions
of strong electrolytes can be determined but the same for aqueous solutions of weak electrolytes cannot be
determined.
KCl, NaCl, CsCl ... etc are 1 : 1 type of

electrolytes.
CuSO4, ZnSO4, FeSO4 ..... etc. are 1:2 type of
molar conductivity mho cm2
graph of weak electrolytes.

300 electrolyte CaCl2, MgBr2, .........etc. are 2 : 1 type of
eg. CH3COOH electrolytes. (Based an valency)
graph of strong Ostwalds law of dilution : The increase in
200 electrolyte eg. KCl) molar conductivity of aq. solution of weak
100 electrolytes is specifically more when diluted by
mol-1)
adding water compared to that for strong

electrolytes. Because, the increase in dissociation is
0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4
specifically more in aq. solution of weak electrolytes
CM1/2
when diluted by water than that in strong
electrolytes.
Application of Kohlrausch law : Molar conductivity ( Λ 0) of weak electrolytes can be
obtained from molar conductivities of strong electrolytes at infinite dilution by doing algebraic addition.
For example, molar conductivity of weak electrolyte like CH3COOH can be obtained from molar
conductivities at infinite dilution of strong electrolytes like CH3COONa, HCl and NaCl.
Λ 0CH = Λ 0CH + Λ 0HCl - Λ 0NaCl because according to the kohlraush law,

3COOH 3COONa
Λ 0CH COONa + Λ 0HCl - Λ 0NaCl = (l0CH + + l

0
+ ) + ( l 0H + + l
0
- ) - (l0Na + + l
0
- )
3 3COO Na Cl Cl
0 0 0 0 0 0
= l + + l + + l + + l - - l + + l -
CH3COO Na H Cl Na Cl
= l
0
CH3COO
+ + l
0
H
+ = Λ 0CH
3COOH
202
144. Λ 0 m M g 2 = 106 S cm 2mol 1, Λ 0m C a2 = 119 S cm 2mol 1, Λ 0mCl = 76.3 S cm 2mol 1,
+ +
-
Λ 0mSO42 = 160 S cm2mol1 Choose correct option for compound given in group-I and molar con-
ductivity at infinite dilution in Group II.
Group-I compound Group-2 / 0m S cm2 mol1
(i) MgSO4 (A) 195.3 (E) 182.3 (A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(H), (iv)-(B)
(ii) CaCl2 (B) 279 (F) 266 (B) (i)-(F), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(G)
(iii) MgCl2 (C) 186 (G) 219.5 (C) (i)-(F), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(H), (iv)-(B)
(iv) CaSO4 (D) 271.6 (H) 258.6 (D) (i)-(C), (ii)-(G), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(E)
145. 1 Λ 0 m A 1 3
3
+
= 63 S cm 2mol 1, 1 0
2
Λ mMg2+ = 53 S cm 2mol 1, Λ 0m OH = 199.1 S cm 2mol 1,
-
Λ SO 3 = 80 S cm2mol1 Choose correct option for compound given in Group-I and molar conduc-
1 0
2 m 4
tivity at infinite dilution in Group-II.
Group-1 Compound Group-2 / 0m S cm2 mol1
(i) MgSO4 (A) 504.2 (E) 786.3 (A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(H), (iv)-(B)
(ii) Al2(SO4)3 (B) 133 (F) 451.2 (B) (i)-(F), (ii)-(A), (iii)-(E), (iv)-(G)
(iii) Mg(OH)2 (C) 266 (G) 858 (C) (i)-(F), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(H), (iv)-(B)
(iv) Al(HO)3 (D) 660.3 (H) 366 (D) (i)-(C), (ii)-(G), (iii)-(A), (iv)-(E)
1
146. For which of the given compound the graph of molar conductivity and (molarity) 2 is straight line ?
(A) CsCl (B) NH4OH (C) HCOOH (D) All three given
1
147. To which compound Λ m = Λ 0m - A.C 2 is applicable ?
(A) NaCl (B) NH4OH (C) HCOOH (D) HCN
148. Whose equivalent conductivity at infinite dilution is most ?
(A) K+(aq) (B) Na+(aq) (C) Cs+(aq) (D) Rb+(aq)
149. For a strong electrolyte when C = 0.04 M, Λ m = 250 S cm2mol1 and when C = 0.09 M then
Λ m = 200 S cm2mol1 then what will be Λ and Λ m0 respectively for this electrolyte ?
(A) 550, 265 S cm2mol1 (B) 450, 365 S cm2mol1
(C) 500, 350 S cm2mol1 (D) 340, 450 S cm2mol1
203
150. For which given option slope of graph of Λ m ® C is same for aq. solutions of all electrolytes ?
(i) NaCl (ii) NH4OH (iii) KNO3 (iv) HCOOH (v) KBr (vi) HCN (vii) CaCl2 (viii) FeCl3
(A) (i), (v), (vi) (B) (iii), (viii) (C) (i), (iii), (v) (D) (ii), (iv), (viii)
151. If values of Λ 0m of A2B, X3Y2 and A3Y are 2.4, 1.5 and 1.8 mho (cm)2 mol1 respectively then what
will be the value of, Λ 0m for XB ?
(A) 1.7 mho (cm)2 mol1 (B) 8.1 mho (cm)2 mol1
(C) 2.1 mho (cm)2 mol1 (D) 0.7 mho (cm)2 mol1
152. Λ 0KCl - Λ 0NaCl = 23.4 mho (cm)2 mol1 and Λ 0NaBr - Λ 0NaCl = 1.8 mho (cm)2 mol1, which increasing
order of molar conductivities at infinite dilution for NaCl, KCl, NaBr and KBr is correct ?
(A) NaCl < KCl < NaBr < KBr (B) NaCl < NaBr < KCl < KBr
(C) KBr < NaCl < NaBr < KCl (D) KCl < NaCl < NaBr < KBr
153. For an electrolyte, when C = 0.01 M, Λ m = 255 S cm 2 mol 1 and when C = 0.04 M,
Λm = 200 S cm2 mol1, then what will be Λ m when C = 0.09 M ?
(A) 400 S cm2 mol1 (B) 145 S cm2 mol1 (C) 150 S cm2 mol1 (D) 250 S cm2 mol1
154. Which increasing order of molar conductivities at infinite dilution for LiCl, NaCl and KCl is correct for
aqueous solution ?
(A) KCl < NaCl < LiCl (B) LiCl < NaCl < KCl
(C) LiCl < KCl < NaCl (D) NaCl < KCl < LiCl
N
155. If resistance of a decinormal ( ) salt solution placed between two platinum electrodes having area
10
5.4 cm2 and 1.8 cm apart is 32 W , then what will be the equivalent conductivity of that solution ?
(A) 104.17 S cm2 g.eq1 (B) 10.41 S cm2 g.eq1
(C) 1.0417 S cm2 g.eq1 (D) 1041.0 S cm2 g.eq1
156. The resistance of 0.05 M KOH at 298 K is 31.6 W . If cell constant is 0.367 cm1, then equivalent
conductivity of that KOH solution will be ...... ?
(A) 0.2322 S cm2 eq1 (B) 2.322 S cm2 eq1
(C) 23.22 S cm2 eq1 (D) 232.28 S cm2 eq1
157. The resistance of a 0.05 M solution kept between two platinum electrodes 1.5 cm apart having area
10 cm2 is 50 W. What is the molar conductivity of this solution ?
(A) 66.6 S cm2 mol1 (B) 15 S cm2 mol1 (C) 60 S cm2 mol1 (D) 6.66 S cm2 mol1
204
158. The molar conductivity at infinite dilution of a weak acid having concentration 0.01 M is 100 times
the molar conductivity. What will be the degree of dissociation (a) of this acid ?
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.001 (C) 10 (D) 0.01
159. If Λ 0m of Ag +
= 5.0 ´ 103 S cm2 mol1 then what will be the ionic mobility of Ag at infinite dilution ?
+
−1 −1
(A) 5.2 ´ 108 cm.sec− 1 (B) 2.4 ´ 108 cm.sec− 1
V.cm V.cm
−1 −1
(C) 1.52 ´ 108 cm.sec− 1 (D) 8.25 ´ 108 cm.sec− 1
V.cm V.cm
160. If Λ 0ClCH = 224 S cm2 mol1, Λ 0NaCl = 38.2 S cm2 mol1 and Λ 0HCl = 203 S cm2 mol1 then
2COONa
what will be the value of Λ 0ClCH ?
2COOH
(A) 288.5 S cm2 g eq1 (B) 289.5 S cm2 g eq1
(C) 388.8 S cm2 g eq1 (D) 59.5 S cm2 g eq1
161. The ionization constant of a weak electrolyte is 2.5 ´ 105 at 298 K and molar conductivity of its
0.01 M solution is 19.6 S cm2 mol1. What will be its approximate molar conductivity at infinite
dilution ?
(A) 250 S cm2 mol1 (B) 196 S cm2 mol1
(C) 402 S cm2 mol1 (D) 384 S cm2 mol1
162. Specific conductivity of 0.001028 M acetic acid at 300 K is 4.95 ´ 10 5 S cm 2 mol 1
and its limiting molar conductivity is 390 S cm2 mol1, then what will be its dissociation constant ?
(A) 1.75 ´ 106 M (B) 1.78 ´ 105 M (C) 3.5 ´ 104 M (D) 3.5 ´ 106 M
2
Scm
163. The equivalent condutivity at infinite dilution of aq HCl at 298 K is 425 and its specific conduc-
Eq
S
tivity is 3.825 . If HCl is 90% dissociated, then what will be the normality of HCl ?
cm
(A) 10.0 N (B) 1.0 N (C) 1.2 N (D) 0.9 N
164. What is the change in specific conductivity and molar conductivity respectively of aq. solution of
electrolyte when diluted by water ?
(A) Both increase (B) Both decrease
(C) decreases and increases. (D) increases and decreases.
165. The molar conductivity of aq. solution of electrolyte at definite temperature increases by increasing
its volume adding water. Because, ......
(A) number of ions decrease. (B) degree of dissociation of electrolyte decrease.
(C) distance between the ions increase. (D) number of ions conducting current increases.
166. If molar conductivity of a given solution is 1.26 ´ 104 S cm2 mol1 and molarity is 0.01 M then
what will be its specific conductivity ?
(A) 1.26 ´ 1025 S cm2 mol1 (B) 1.26 ´ 105 S cm2 mol1
(C) 1.26 ´ 104 S cm2 mol1 (D) 0.00063 S cm2 mol1
205
167. If 0.1 M KCl solution is added into aqeous soltution of 0.1 M NaCl, then molar conductivity of
solution ......
(A) remains constant. (B) increases.
(C) decreases. (D) increases initially and then decreases.
2
Scm
168. If molar conductivity of aq. solution of sulphuric acid at definite temperature is 150 then what
mol
will be its equivalent conductivity ?
2 2 2
Scm Scm Scm
(A) 75 (B) 150 (C) 300 (D) none of the given
Eq Eq Eq
169. Equivalent conductivity of NaCl at concentration C and infinite dilution are lC and l¥ respectively.
Which of the following relation for l
C
and l¥ is true ? (where constant B is positive)
(A) lC = l¥ + (B) C (B) lC = l¥ + (B)ClC = l¥ + (B)C (D) lC = l¥ - (B) C
(C)
170. The resistance of a 0.2 M electrolytic solution is 50 W. The specific conductivity of solution is 1.4
Sm1. The resistance of the 0.5 M solution of same electrolyte is 280 W. Then what will be the
molar conductivity of 0.5 M solution of that electrolyte ?
(A) 5 ´ 10 2
(B) 5 ´ 10
4
(C) 5 ´ 10 3
(D) 5 ´ 103
171. If molar conductivities of AgNO3, AgCl and NaCl at infinite dilution are 116.5, 121.6 and 110.3
2
Scm
then what will be the molar conductivity of NaNO3 at infinite dilution ?
mol
Scm 2 Scm 2 Scm 2 Scm 2

(A) 105.2 (B) 130.6 (C) 111.4 (D) 150.2
mol mol mol mol
Scm 2
172. The molar conductivity of 0.1 N CH3COOH at 398 K is 80 . White its molar conductivity at
mol
Scm 2
infinite dilution is 400 . Then what will be the degree of dissociation of solution of CH3COOH ?
mol
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.2 (D) 0.4
Answers : 132. (C) 133. (B) 134. (A) 135. (B) 136. (B) 137. (B), 138. (C), 139. (D),
140. (D), 141. (C), 142. (A), 143. (B), 144. (C), 145. (D), 146. (A), 147. (A),
148. (C), 149. (C), 150. (C), 151. (A), 152. (B), 153. (B), 154. (B), 155. (A),
156. (D), 157. (C), 158. (D), 159. (A), 160. (C), 161. (C), 162. (D), 163. (A),
164. (C), 165. (D), 166. (B), 167. (B), 168. (C), 169. (D), 170. (B), 171. (A),
172. (C)
Primary cells : Those cells which become dead after a long use and cannot be recharged are
called primary cells. Eg. dry cell.
Secondary cells : Those cells which become dead after a long use but can be recharged are called
secondary cells. eg. Lead storage cell, Ni-Cd storage cell.
206
Dry cell (Lenclanche cell)
anode : Zn(s) = Zn2 + 2e-
cathode : 2MnO2 + 2NH4+ + 2e- = Mn2O3 + 2NH3 + H2O
The manganesge containing product obtained at

cathode depends on the continuous use of cell and
Seal
duration between two successive use of the cell.
Mn(III) cannot be oxidized into Mn(IV) by Graphite Cathod

reversing the direction of current and hence this cell MnO2 + C
cannot be recharged once it becomes dead.
Dry cell is not dry in reality because it consists Paste of

of moist paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2. If it is com- NN4Cl + ZnCl2
pletely dry then it cannot conduct electric current.

Zinc anode
The potential of this is 1.5 V.
Uses : It is used in torch, transistor, radio and other small and large instruments.
Lead storage cell
When both the electrodes are connected with con-
Anode Cathode
ducting wire, electric current is produced by following
PbO 2
Pb reactions.
(Discharging reactions)
Anode : Pb(s) + SO24-(aq) = PbSO4(s) + 2e-

30 % W/W Cathode : PbO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + SO24-(aq) + 2e- =
H2SO4 PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l)
The potential of this cell is 2.0 V.
When this cell is working H2SO4 is consumed and water is produced therefore density of
H2SO4 decreases. Initial density is 1.25 - 1.30 gmL1 and when the cell stops working it beocmes
1.10 - 1.15 gmL1.
The charging reactions occuring at electrodes are as follows :
Anode : PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l) = PbO2(s) + 4H+(aq) + SO24-(aq) + 2e- anode cathode
Cathode : PbSO4(s) + 2e- = Pb(s) + SO24-(aq)

Mercury Cell
anode : Zinc-mercury (Zn-Hg) layer
cathode : Mercury oxide (HgO) and carbon
Electrolytes : KOH and ZnO paste container
gasket separator cathode
207
Electrode reactions
anode : Zn(Hg) + 2OH- ® ZnO(s) + H2O(l) + 2e-
cathode : HgO + H2O(l) + 2e- ® Hg(l) + 2OH-
overall reaction : Zn(Hg) + HgO ® ZnO(s) + Hg(l)
cell potential : 1.35 V
No ions are produced during overall reaction in this cell.
Nickel-Cadmium (Ni-Cd) storage cell
The life of this cell is more than that of lead stroage cell but its production cost is high.
Discharging reaction of the cell : Cd(s) + 2Ni(OH)3(s) ® CdO(s) + 2Ni(OH)2(s) + H2O(l)
The potential of cell is 1.2 V.
Hydrogen fuel cell
water
Hydrogen fuel cell : Hydrogen gas is used as anode cathode
fuel in this cell.
Concen-
Construction : In a container between two
trated aq.
membranes of porous carbon containing catalyst con- solution
centrated aq. NaOH solution is filled. of NaOH
These membranes work as electrodes. H2 O2
Platinum is used as catalyst in anode and
mixed powder of platinum and silver oxide is used as
catalyst in cathode.
anode : 2H2(g) + 4OH-(aq) = 4H2O(l) + 4e-

cathode : O2(g) + 2H2O(l) + 4e- = 4OH-(aq)
The potential of cell is 1.23 V.
Theoretically current efficiency of this cell is expected to be 100% but in reality it is 70-75%.
∆G
Efficiency of fuel cell = ´ 100 %
∆H
Advantages of fuel cell : Compared to other cells, fuel cell has many advantages.
It does not create air pollution.
It does not create noise pollution.
Its current producing efficiency is very high compared to that of thermal power stations.
American scientists used this type of cell in Apollo space programme. In addition, the
vapour of water produced during reaction was cooled and was used for drinking purpose.
Limitation : It works at very high temperature.
Corrosion : A salt is produced on the surface of metal by a redox reaction between metal and
oxygen present in air on the surface of metal. This reaction is called corrosion.
208
The actual reactions of corrosion are complex. The rusting of iron can be explained as follows :
air rust O2
(Fe2O3) Fe2+ water
cathode e- anode
O2 + 4H+ + 4e- = 2H2O Fe = Fe2+ + 2e-

Iron
The iron atoms present at the bent surface of metal undergo oxidation.
anode : Fe(s) = Fe2+(aq) + 2e- (oxidation)
The water required for this reaction is available from moist air.
The oxygen present in air undergo reduction in presence of H+. This point acts as cathode.
Cathode : O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e- = 2H2O(l)(reduction)

The H+ ions required for the reduction are obtained by decomposition of H2CO3 formed on
surface of metal by dissolution of CO2 in moisture.
The Fe2+(aq) produced by oxidation are further oxidized into Fe3+ by oxygen of air and diffuse
towards cathode and eventually rust Fe2O3. xH2O is formed.
If H+ are not available as cathode then oxygen gas dissolved in moisture is reduced
O2(aq) + 2H2O(l) + 4e- = 4OH-(aq)
Methods of preventing corrosion
One of the methods to prevent iron from rusting is that moisture should not be allowed to
come in contact with it, so that oxidation reaction does not occur.
The most easiest method for this is applying paint on the surface of iron. But it does not last
for long time and as the paint is removed rusting starts.
Iron does not rust if a thin layer of Zn is applied on it. Such iron coated with layer of Zn is
called galvanised iron and this process is called galvanizing.
If a little layer of Zn is peeled off even then iron does not get rusted. Because E0Zn/Zn2+ is
greater than E0Fe/Fe2+.
If a layer of tin (Sn) is applied on iron and a little layer of tin is peeled off rusting of iron
takes place. Because E0Fe/Fe2+ is greater than E0Sn/Sn2+.
In another method of preventing rusting of iron, it is connected with metals like Mg or Zn
having high E0OX and metal is burried under the earth.
In order to prevent corrosion of the iron plates of steamer they are connected with large
blocks of Mg or Zn and kept in contact with water. By doing so, iron plates act as cathode and Mg
or Zn blocks act as anode. Thus blocks get corroded and hence to be replaced periodically.
Therefore Mg and Zn blocks are called sacrificial anodes.
In addition to this, some chemicals called inhibitors are used. By using them they combine with
metal surface by chemical bonds and prevents corrosion.
209
173. Which of the following cell cannot be recharged once it is dead ?
(A) Lead storage cell (B) Ni-Cd storage cell (C) Leclanche cell (D) All three given
174. Which is the charging reaction occuring at anode in Lead storage cell ?
(A) PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l) ® PbO2(s) + SO24-(aq) + 4H(aq)

+
+ 2e-
(B) PbSO4(s) ® Pb(s) + SO24-(aq) 2e-
(C) Pb(s) + SO24-(aq) ® PbSO4(s)
+ 2e-
(D) PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l) ® Pb2(s) + SO24-(aq) + 4H+(aq) + 2e-
175. The reaction occuring in hydrogen fuel cell is 4H2(g) + 2O2(g) ® 4H2O(l) . Give the value of DHrea.
(A) 571.7 KJ (B) 1503.4 KJ (C) 157.5 KJ (D) 1143.4 KJ
176. Which catalysts are used in fuel cell at anode and cathode respectively ?
(A) Ag2O and Pt (B) Pt and Pt + Ag2O mixed powder
(C) Pt and Ag2O mixed powder (D) graphite and Pt
177. From the options given below which cell has different principle ?
(A) Daniel cell (B) Lead storage cell (C) Leclanche cell (D) Electrolytic cell
178. From the research of which scientist on urea a separate branch of organic chemistry was evolved ?
(A) Wohler (B) Faraday (C) Nernst (D) Raoult
179. What is the change in E0cell on multiplying the electrode reactions occuring in electrochemical cell by n ?
(A) no change. (B) becomes n times. (C) becomes 1/n times. (D) becomes 2n times.
180. In Group-1 cells and in Group-2 potentials are given. Choose the correct option for that :
Group-1 Group-2
(i) Leclanche cell (A) 1.23 V (E) 1.32 V (A) (i)-(C), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(F), (iv)-(A)
(ii) Lead storage cell (B) 2.35 V (F) 1.35 V (B) (i)-(H), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(B), (iv)-(G)
(iii) Mercury cell (C) 1.53 V (G) 1.75 V (C) (i)-(E), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(F), (iv)-(A)
(iv) Fuel cell (D) 2.0 V (H) 1.5 V (D) (i)-(H), (ii)-(D), (iii)-(F), (iv)-(A)
181. What is present as electrolyte in mercury cell ?
(A) Paste of NH4Cl and ZnCl2 (B) Paste of KOH and HgO
(C) Paste of KOH and ZnO (D) HgO and graphite
182. The dissociation constant of a weak acid is 1.77 ´ 105. Its Λ 0m is 390.5 S cm2 mol1, then what will
be the molar conductivity of its 0.01 M aqueous solution ?
(A) 4.53 S cm2 mol1 (B) 16.78 S cm2 mol1 (C) 45.3 S cm2 mol1 (D) 164.3 S cm2 mol1
210
183. What is the efficiency of hydrogen fuel cell ?
(A) 35 % (B) 100 % (C) 70 to 75 % (D) 50 to 60 %
184. The blocks of which metals are used as sacrificial anodes to prevent rusting of iron plates of steamer ?
(A) Sn and Mg (B) Zn and Co (C) Ni and Cu (D) Zn and Mg
185. Which of the given metal is beneficial for electroplating of iron in order to prevent it from rusting ?
(A) Sn (B) Ni (C) Cu (D) Zn
186. The Eox of Cr | Cr3+ and Zn | Zn2+ are 0.74 V and 0.76 V respectively. Which statements are true
for reaction given below ? 2Cr3+(aq.0.001M) + 3Zn(s) U 2Cr
(s)
+ 3Zn2+(aq.0.1M) T = 298 K
(1) The rate of forward reaction is more than that of reverse reaction.
(2) Forward reaction takes place but reverse reaction does not take place.
(3) Both forward and reverse reactions take place.
(4) The rate of reverse reaction is more than that of forward reaction.
(5) Both forward and reverse reaction occurs at same rate.
(A) (1), (3) (B) (2) (C) (5) (D) (3), (4)
187. Standard reduction potentials at 25o C are given as follows :
E0Fe3+|Fe2+ = 0.77 volt, E0Fe2+|Fe = - 0.44 volt, E0Cu2+|Cu = + 0.34 volt, E0Cu+|Cu = + 0.52 volt,
+ -
E0Cr3+|Cr = - 0.74 volt, E0Cr2+|Cr = - 0.91 volt, O2(g) + + 4H + 4e ® 2H2O E0 = + 1.23 volt,
O2(g) + + 2H2O + 4e -
® 4H -
E0 = + 0.40 volt.
For the redox couples given in column-I, potentials are given in column-II, if column-I is correctly
matched with column-II, then which option is true ?
Column-I Column-II P Q R S
(P) E0Fe3+|Fe (1) -0.18 volt (A) 4 1 2 3
(Q) 4H2O ® 4H+ + 4OH- (2) -0.40 volt (B) 2 3 4 1
(R) Cu2+ + Cu ® 2Cu+ (3) -0.04 volt (C) 1 2 3 4
(S) E0Cr3+|Cr2+ (4) -0.83 volt (D) 3 4 1 2
188. Choose correct option for given statements. (T = True statement, F = false statement)
(i) Due to conduction of current the temperature of metal increases and the composition of aque-
ous solution of electrolyte does not change.
(ii) Due to conduction of current metal undergo chemical reaction and the composition of aqueous
solution of electrolyte changes.
(iii) Due to conduction of current there is no change in composition of metal and aqueous solution of
electrolyte.
(iv) Due to conduction of current the temperature of metal increase and the composition of aqueous
solution of electrolyte changes.
(A) FFFT (B) TFTF (C) TTFF (D) FFTF
211
189. Choose the correct option for given statements. (T = True statement, F = False statement)
(i) The concentration of Na+(aq) increase on electrolysing conc. aq NaCl using inert electrodes.
(ii) The concentration of NaCl increase in the solution obtained on electrolysing dil. aq. NaCl
using inert electrodes.
(iii) The concentration of Cl-(aq) decrease on electrolysing con. aq. NaCl using inert electrodes.
(iv) The concentration of OH-(aq) increase on electrolysing dil aq. NaCl using inert electrodes.
(A) TFTF (B) FTTT (C) FTFT (D) TTTT
190. Choose the correct option for given statements (T = True statement, F = False statement)
(i) The blue colour fades on electrolysing aq. CuSO4 using inert electrodes
(ii) The pH of solution increase on electrolysing aq. CuSO4 using inert electrodes.
(iii) The mass of anode decrease on electrolysing aq. CuSO4 using active electrodes of copper.
(iv) Precious metals are separated from cathode on electrolysing aq. CuSO4 using active
electrodes of copper.
(A) FTFT (B) TFFF (C) TFTT (D) TFTF
(i) The pH of solution increase on electrolysing dilute aq NaCl using inert electrodes.
(ii) The Cl2 gas is produced at anode on electrolysing con. aq. NaCl using inert electrodes
(iii) The H2 gas is produced at cathode on electrolysing dil aq NaCl using inert electrodes.
(iv) The solution obtained on electrolysing con. aq. NaCl using inert electrodes turns pink an
adding phenolphthalein
(A) TFTT (B) FTTT (C) FFTT (D) TFTF
(i) The pH of solution increase on electrolysing dilute aq NaCl using ineert electrodes.
(ii) The solution obtained on electrolysing dilute aq NaCl using inert electrodes turns orange
on adding methyl orange
(iii) The pOH of solution increase an electrolysing concentrated aq. NaCl using inert electrodes.
(iv) The solution obtained on electrolysing concentrated aq. NaCl using inert electodes turns
moist litmus paper blue
(A) TFTF (B) FTTT (C) FTFT (D) FFTT
212
193. In column-I the substance electrolysed and in column-II and column-III the products obtained at
anode and cathode respectively are given, then match them properly :
(1) NaCl (molten) (A) O2(g) (P) Al metal

(2) NaCl (Conc..aq.) (B) O2(g), CO2(g) (Q) Cl2
(3) NaCl (dil. aq.) (C) Cl2(g) (R) Na metal
(4) Al2O3 (Na3AlF6) (D) F2(g) (S) H2(g) and NaOH in solution
(5) KHF2 anhyd HF (E) H2(g) (T) H2(g)
(A) (1)-(C)-(R), (2)-(C)-(T), (3)-(A)-(T), (4)-(B)-(P), (5)-(D)-(T)

(B) (1)-(C)-(R), (2)-(C)-(S), (3)-(A)-(T), (4)-(B)-(P), (5)-(D)-(T)
(C) (1)-(C)-(R), (2)-(C)-(S), (3)-(A)-(Q), (4)-(B)-(P), (5)-(D)-(T)
(D) (1)-(C)-(R), (2)-(C)-(S), (3)-(C)-(T), (4)-(B)-(P), (5)-(D)-(T)
194. The cell potential at 298 K temperature for Pt | H2(g.1.0 bar) | OH-(aq.0.02M) || H+(aq) | H2(g.1.0 bar) | Pt is
0.61V, then what will be the pH of solution of half-cell at R.H.S. ? The ionic product of water
(KW) at 298K is 1.02 ´ 1014.
(A) 1.95 (B) 12.05 (C) 3.15 (D) 2.5
195. Choose the correct option for given statements with reference to electrochemical cell :
Zn(s) | Zn2+(aq.0.02M) || Cu2+(aq.0.05M) | Cu(s).
Assertion(A) : Ecell increase on increasing concentration of Zn2+(aq)
Reason (R) : EOX of anode increase on increasing concentration of Zn2+(aq).
(A) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are correct and (R) is reason of (A).
(B) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are correct but (R) is not the reason of (A).
(C) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are wrong.
(D) Assertion (A) is wrong and reason (R) is correct.
196. Two statements are given in every question given below. One is assertion (A) and another is
reason (R). Study the statements carefully and choose proper option as per given instruction.
Assertion (A) : The oxygen gas is libertated at anode on electrolysing aq. Na2SO4 using pt
electrodes.
Reason (R) : 2SO42-(aq) U S2O82-(aq) + 2e- (i)
2H2O(l) U O2(g) + 4H+(aq) + 4e- (ii)

The standard potential of (ii) is more than that of (i)
(A) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are correct and R is the reason of (A)
213
197. Choose correct option for given statements.
Assertation (A) : The molar conductivity of aq. solution of electrolyte increase when diluted by
adding water.
Reason (R) : The dissociation of electrolyte decrease on adding water to aq. solution of
electrolyte.
(A) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are correct and R is the reason of (A)
198. The cell reaction occuring in a cell : Cd | CdCl2(0.1 M) || AgCl(s) | Ag is Cd(s) + 2AgCl(s) ® 2Ag(s) +
Cd 2+(aq) + 2Cl-(aq). The voltage of this cell at 273 K and 298 K is 0.6915 V and 0.6753 V
respectively, then what will be the change in enthalpy of this reaction at 298 K ?
(A) -167.6 KJ (B) -176 J (C) -234 KJ (D) 123.5 KJ

199. For the cell representations given in column-I there may be one or more than one true statements
in column-II. Join the cell representations with 4×5 matrix given for column II properly.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Mg(s) | Mg2+(aq.0.02M) || Cl-(aq.0.05M) | Cl2(g.1 bar) | Pt (P) Ecell increase if conc. of half
cell at RHS is increased keep
ing conc of half cell at LHS
constant
(B) Pt | Br2(l) | Br-(aq.0.02M) || Au3+(aq.0.05M) | Au (Q) Ecell increases if conc of half
cell at LHS is increased keep
ing conc of half cell at RHS
constant.
(C) Ni(s) | Ni2+(aq.0.02M) || Cu2+(aq.0.05M) | Cu(s) (R) Ecell increase if conc of half
cells of LHS and RHS are in
creased by same xM.
(D) Pt | Br2(l) | Br-(aq.0.02M) || Cl-(aq.0.05M) | Cl2(g.1 bar) | Pt (S) Ecell increase if conc of half
cells at LHS and RHS are de
creased by same xM
(T) QC >1
(A) P Q R S T (A) P Q R S T
(B) P Q R S T (B) P Q R S T
(C) P Q R S T (C) P Q R S T
(D) P Q R S T (D) P Q R S T
214
200. For the electrolyses given in Column-I there may be one or more true statements in column-II.
Connect the electrolyses of Column-I properly with 4 × 5 martix given for column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(A) On electrolysis of dilute aq. NaCl using inert (P) O2 gas is obtained at anode
electrodes.
(B) On electrolysis of concentrated aq. NaCl (Q) H2 gas is obtained at cathode.
using inert electrodes.
(C) On electrolysis of aq. CuSO4 using inert (R) pH of solution decreases.
electrodes.
(D) On electrolysis of aq. Na2SO4 using inert (S) pH of solution increases.
electrodes.
(T) No. of spectator ions increases.
(A) P Q R S T (A) P Q R S T
(B) P Q R S T (B) P Q R S T
(C) P Q R S T (C) P Q R S T
(D) P Q R S T (D) P Q R S T
Answers : 173. (C) 174. (A) 175. (D) 176. (B) 177. (D) 178. (A), 179. (A), 180. (D),
181. (C), 182. (B), 183. (C), 184. (D), 185. (D), 186. (D), 187. (D), 188. (A),
189. (D), 190. (D), 191. (B), 192. (C), 193. (B), 194. (A), 195. (D), 196. (A),
197. (C), 198. (A).
215
9 Chemical Kinetics
Chemical Kinetics
It is a branch of chemistry in which rate of reaction and factors affecting it are studied.
Kinetics : Greek word Kinesis º Movement
Types Of Reactions Based On Rate Of Reaction :
(1) Very fast reactions : Ionic reactions (109 sec)
(2) Very slow reactions : Corrosion of iron, decay of uranium
(3) Slow reactions : Reaction between N2 and H2 under specific conditions
Factors Affecting Rate Of Reactions :
(1) State of substance and surface area (2) Concentration of solution (3) Temperature of system
(4) Pressure of system (5) Effect of catalyst (6) Presence of light
If there is any impurity in a catalyst which decreases the rate of reaction, then it is called catalytic
poison.
1. Which reaction possessing following units of time will be the fastest ?
(A) pico seconds (B) micro seconds (C) femto seconds (D) nano seconds
2. Under which of the following conditions a match stick will lit faster ?
(A) in air (21 % O2) (B) in vacuum
(C) in atmosphere of He (D) in a jar containing 100% O2

3. .......... does not affect rate of reaction ?
(A) D H of reaction (B) Volume of reaction vessel
(C) Amount of reactants (D) Physical state of reactants
4. Which of the following reactant will react fastest under identical conditions ?
(A) PCl5(s) (B) PCl5(g) (C) PCl5(aq) (D) PCl5(l)
5. Which statement is wrong ?
(A) More time is required to cook rice in Massoorie than that required in KanyaKumari.
(B) Compared to piece of sugar its powder dissolves earlier in water.
(C) The time taken to boil potatoes in closed pressure cooker is same at both sea level and top of mountain.
(D) Reaction of sodium is faster than sodium-amalgam with ethanol.
6. What is rate of reaction ?
(A) decrease in concentration of reactants.
(B) increase in concentration of products.
(C) Change in concentration of reactants or products in unit time.
(D) All three given above are true.
216
7. Which of the following reaction will be comparatively slower ?
(A) reverse reaction in presence of catalyst.
(B) Combination of N2 and O2 in sky during lightening.
(C) Corrosion of iron in presence of inhibitors
(D) hydrolysis of urea in presence of enzyme urease.
8. The rate of reaction of spontaneous reaction is generally slow because .....
(A) equilibrium constant of reactions is < 1 (B) Energy of activation of reactions is high
(C) reactions are endothermic (D) reactions are exothermic
9. Rate of reaction increases with increase in temperature usually because,
(A) energy barrier decreases (B) activation energy increases
(C) effective collisions increases (D) threshold energy increases
10. For reaction A : 10 g CaCO3(s) + 20 ml 2 M HCl if rate of reaction is ra and for reaction B :
10 g CaCO3(s) + 2 ml 4 M HCl rate of reaction is rB then which of the following relation is true ?
(A) ra > rB (B) rB = 1 - ra (C) ra = rB (D) ra < rB
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (D), 3. (A), 4. (B), 5. (C), 6. (D), 7. (C), 8. (B), 9. (C), 10. (A).
Rate of reaction and its determination

The change in concentration of reactants or products in unit time is called rate of reaction.
∆[R] ∆[P]
Average rate of rean : raV = -
∆t
= +
∆t ∆[R] (c1 − c 2 )
R raV = - = -
∆t (t 2 − t1 )
∆[R] ∆[P]
Instantaneous rate of rean rinst = - = +
∆t ∆t
Conc. of reactant
D t ® 0 for small change C1

D[R]
C2 ∆[P]
Rate of reaction is always positive. Negative rinst = - = slope
∆t
sign is used to indicate the decrease in
(obtained from graph only)
concentration of reactants.
®
Rate determination : In chemical kinetics d[R]

following convention is accepted.
dt
∆t
1  d[R]  1  d[P]  Time ®
Rate of reaction = - ν R  dt  = + ν P  dt 
For any reaction : n1A + n2B ® n3C + n4D,
1 d[A] 1 d[B] 1 d[C] 1 d[D]

Rate of reaction = - = - = + = +
n1 dt n2 dt n3 dt n4 dt
- - +
For a reaction, 5Br(aq) + BrO3 (aq)
+ 6H (aq)
U 3Br2(aq) + 3H2O(l)
−
1 d[Br ] d[BrO3− ] +
1 d[H ] 1 d[Br2 ]
Rate of reaction = - = - = - = +
5 dt dt 6 dt 3 dt
Note : In aqueous solution, there is negligible change in concentration of water and so the change in
its concentration is not expressed.
217
11. Which expression of rate of reaction is correct for a reaction H2 + I2 U 2HI ?
2d[H 2 ] 2d[I2 ] d[HI] d[H 2 ] d[I 2 ] d[HI]

(A) - = - = + (B) - = - = +
dt dt dt 2dt 2dt 4dt
d[H 2 ] d[I2 ] d[HI] d[H 2 ] d[I 2 ] d[HI]

(C) - = - = +
dt
(D) - = - = +
dt dt 2dt 2dt dt
12. The balanced equation for a reaction having rate of reaction
1 d[Br2 ] d[BrO3− ] −
1 d[Br ]
+
1 d[H ]
+ = - = - = - is
3 dt dt 5 dt 6 dt
- - +
(A) Br2(aq) + BrO3 (aq)
® 5Br (aq)
+ 6H (aq)
- - +
(B) BrO3 (aq)
+ 5Br (aq)
+ 6H (aq)
® 3Br2(aq) + 3H2O(l)
- - +
(C) 3Br2(aq) ® BrO3 (aq)
+ 5Br (aq)
+ 6H (aq)
- - +
(D) BrO3 (aq)
+ 5Br (aq)
+ 6H (aq)
® 3Br2(aq)
13. Which of the following statement is wrong for 4A + B ® 2C + 2D ?
(A) rate of production of C and D is same.
(B) rate of production of C is half than rate of consumption of A.
(C) rate of production of C is half than rate of consumption of B.
(D) The rate of consumption of B is one-fourth the rate of consumption of A.
14. The rate of production of D in 2A + B ® 2C + 4D is 1.6 ´ 103 Ms1. Which of the following
statement is true for this reaction ?
d[B] d[A]
(A) - = 3.2 ´ 103 Ms1 (B) - = 6.4 ´ 103 Ms1
dt dt
d[C] 1 d[A]
(C) = 8.0 ´ 104 Ms1 (D) - = 1.6 ´ 103 Ms1
dt 2 dt
15. For a reaction : 2N2O5 ® 4NO2 + O2 the rate law can be presented in three different ways as
follows, then which relation between K and K ’ and K and K ’’holds ?
−d[N 2 O5 ] d[NO 2 ] d[O 2 ]
= K[N2O5] = K ’[N2O5] = K ’’[N2O5]
dt dt dt
K
(A) K ’= 2K, K ’’ = (B) K ’= 2K, K ’’ = K
2
(C) K ’ = K, K ’’ = K (D) K ’ = 2K, K ’’ = 2K

- - + -
16. In a reaction : BrO3 (aq)
+ 5Br (aq)
+ 6H (aq)
® 3Br2(l) + 3H2O(l) the rate of consumption of Br is
1.5 ´ 102 Ms1 . The rate of consumption of H and rate of production of Br2 will be respectively .......
+
(A) (5 ´ 6) 1.5 ´ 102, (3 ´ 6) 1.5 ´ 102 (6 )

(B) 5 1.5 ´ 102, 5 1.5 (3 ) ´ 102
(5 )
(C) 6 1.5 ´ 102, 3 (5 ) ´ 1.5 ´ 102 (D) (5 + 6) 1.5 ´ 102, (3 + 6) 1.5 ´ 102
218
17. The change in concentration of hydrogen in a reaction N2 + 3H2 U 2NH3 is - 0.3 ´ 104 Ms1.
The change in concentration of ammonia at that time is ......
(A) 0.2 ´ 104 (B) -0.2 ´ 104 (C) 0.1 ´ 104 (D) 0.3 ´ 104
18. The pressure of N2O4 in a reaction N2O4(g) ® 2NO2(g) reduces from 0.5 atm to 0.32 atm in 30
minutes. Find rate of production of NO2.
(A) 0.012 atm min1 (B) 0.024 atm min1 (C) 0.006 atm min1 (D) 0.003 atm min1
d[A] d[B]
19. In a reaction : A + 2B ® C, at a time t1, - = 2.6 ´ 102 M sec1, then at a time t1, - =
dt dt
........ ?
(A) 2.6 ´ 102 (B) 5.2 ´ 102 (C) 1.0 ´ 101 (D) 6.5 ´ 103
+ - +
20. In a reaction H + OH ® H2O, the time required for a decrease of 0.02 M in concentration of H
ions is 2 nano second. What will be the average rate of reaction ?
(A) 2 Ms1 (B) 1 ´ 107 Ms1 (C) 0.02 Ms1 (D) 0.02 ´ 109 Ms1
Answers : 11. (B), 12. (B), 13. (C), 14. (C), 15. (A), 16. (B), 17. (A), 18. (A), 19. (B), 20. (B)
Rate law, rate constant and order of reaction

The presentation of rate of reaction with reference to concentration of reactants is called rate law.
This rate law in the wide range of concentrations of reactant or product is studied and the law that
is established is called differential rate equation or rate expression. For eg.,
H2(g) + I2(g) U 2HI(g) rate = K[H2][I2]
Rate constant and order of reaction :
In most of the reactions the simple rate equation can be obtained in which rate is proportional to
exponent of the concentration of reactant. This exponent is called order of reaction.
H2 + I2 ® 2HI, Rate of reaction µ [H2][I2] \ Rate of reaction = K[H2][I2]
1 1
H2 + Br2 ® 2HBr , Rate of reaction µ [H2] [Br] 2 \ Rate of reaction = K[H2] [Br] 2
2N2O5 ® 4NO2 + O2 , Rate of reaction µ [N2O5] \ Rate of reaction = K[N2O5] where K is rate
constant and it is called specific rate constant when concentration of reactant is 1M. At that time, rate of
reaction = rate constant.
For a reaction : n1A + n2B U n3C + n4D
x y
Rate of reaction = K[A] [B]
Here, order of reaction with respect to A is x and that with respect to B is y. Hence total order of
reaction = x + y. Thus, total order of reaction is equal to the sum of exponent of concentration of all
reactants.
- - +
For example, 5Br + BrO 3
+ 6H ® 3Br2 + 3H2O
Rate of reaction = K[Br ] [BrO 3] [H ]2
- - +
\ Overall order of reaction = 1 + 1 + 2 = 4

The order of reaction can be positive integer, zero or even a fraction.
219
Reaction Rate law order of
reaction
(1) 2NH3(g) 
Mo → N
2(g)
+ 3H2(g) rate = K[NH3]0 0
1
(2) H2O2 ® H2O + O rate = K[H2O] 1
2 2
(3) 2NO2 ® F2 + 2NO2F rate = K[NO2] [F] 2

(4) 2NO + O2 ® 2NO2 rate = K[NO]2 [O2] 3
(5) CH3CHO ® CH4 + CO rate = K[CH3CHO]1.5 1.5
(6) CO + Cl2 ® COCl2 rate = K[CO]2 [Cl2]1.5 3.5
21. If for a reaction : pA + qB ® products, rate of reaction = K[A]m[B]n then ...
(A) (p + q) = (m + n) (B) p + q ¹ m + n
(C) (p + q) > (m + n) (D) (p + q) = (m + n) OR (p + q) ¹ (m + n)
22. Which reaction has its order in fraction ?
(A) 2N2O5 ® 4NO2 + O2 (B) 2NO2 + F2 ® 2NO2F
(C) H2 + Br2 ® 2HBr (D) 2NO + O2 ® 2NO2
23. A reaction 2A + 2B ® D + E takes place in two steps
(i) A + 2B ® 2C + D (slow) (ii) A + 2C ® E (fast)
The rate law of the reaction is
(A) rate = K[A]2[B]2 (B) rate = [A]2[B]2[C]
(C) rate = K[A][B] (D) rate = K[A][B]2
238
24. The decay of 100 Fm
is ..... order reaction.
(A) zero (B) first (C) 100 (D) 138

25. The rate of reaction doubles on increasing concentration of reactant by 8 times, then what will be
the order of reaction ?
1 1 1
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
2 3 4
26. In a reaction having rate determining step A + 2B ® C, if concentration of B is doubled, then rate ......
1
(A) will be double (B) will remain constant (C) will be times (D) will be four times
2
27. In a reaction having rate law, rate = K[A]2[B]. On doubling the concentrations of A and B the rate
of reaction x will be .........
(A) 8x (B) 9x (C) x3 (D) 4x2
28. The rate of reaction doubles by increasing concentration of reactant 16 times. What will be the
order of reaction ?
1 1
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) (D)
2 4
220
29. The rate of reaction becomes 100 times on changing concentration of reactant A from 0.1M to 1M.
What will be the order of reaction with respect to A ? (Reaction : A ® B)
(A) 10 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
30. rate = K[A][B]2 for a reaction 2A + B ® products. By doubling the concentration of A and decreasing
the concentration of B to half in this reaction, rate of reaction will be...
(A) double. (B) half. (C) constant. (D) four times.
31. Experimental data for reaction A + 2B ® C + D is as follows. Give the rate law of reaction.
Exper- Initial concentration (M) rate in term of D M Min1

iment [A] [B]
(1) 0.1 0.1 6.0 ´ 103
(2) 0.3 0.2 7.2 ´ 102
(3). 0.3 0.4 2.88 ´ 101
(4) 0.4 0.1 2.4 ´ 102
(A) rate = K[A]2 [B] (B) rate = K[A]2 [B]2

(C) rate = K[A] [B]2 (D) rate = K[A] [B]
32. The rate of reaction increases by 4 times on doubling the concentration of reactant A in a reaction
A + B ® products. There is no effect on rate when concentration of reactant B is doubled. What
will be the rate equation ?
(A) rate = K[A]2 (B) rate = K[A] (C) rate = K[A]2[B]2 (D) rate = K[A][B]
33. For a reaction containing only gaseous components, rate = K[A][B]. What will be the rate if volume
1
of container is made of original volume. (Reaction : 2A + B ® C + D)
4
1 1
(A) times (B) 4 times (C) times (D) 16 times
16 8
34. The volume is made half of the original volume in a reaction 2NO(g) + O2(g) ® 2NO2(g). If order of
reaction with respect to O2 is one and that with respect to NO is two, then initial rate is how many
times more than the rate ?
1 1
(A) 8 (B) (C) (D) 2
4 2
35. In a reaction two reactants take part. Rate of reaction is directly proportional to concentration of
one reactant and inversely proportional to concentration of second reactant. What will be the order
of reaction ?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2.0 (D) 0.5
1
36. The rate determining step for the reaction Y2 + 2Z ® products is Y + Z ® Q. If concentration
2
of Z is double then rate of reaction will ......
(A) constant. (B) increase by 4 times. (C) increase by 1.414 times. (D) double.
221
37. The rate of reaction becomes 8 times on doubling the concentration of reactant. What will be the
order of reaction ?
(A) 2.5 (B) 2 (C) 1.5 (D) 0.5
Answers : 21. (D), 22. (C), 23. (D), 24. (B), 25. (C), 26. (D), 27. (A), 28. (D), 29. (C),
30. (B), 31. (C), 32. (A), 33. (D), 34. (A), 35. (A), 36. (C), 37. (C)
Units of rate constant :

dx
rate = = K(concentration)n
dt
dx 1 conc. 1
\ K = ´ = ´
n
dt (conc.)
n time (conc.)
\ K = (concentration)1n time1
order of reaction Units of rate constant K
0 M s1 mol L1 time1
1 s1 time1
2 M1 s1 L mol1 time1
n M1n s1 L1n moln1 time1
38. What is the unit of rate constant for zero order reaction ?
(A) litre sec1 (B) litre mol sec1 (C) mol litre1 sec1 (D) mol sec1
39. What will be the order of reaction if units of rate of reaction and rate constant are same ?
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
40. The rate constant of a reaction is 3 ´ 103 bar1 sec1 then state the order of reaction.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0

41. Which dimensions are included in the unit of a third order reaction ?
(A) only time (B) time and concentration
(C) time, concentration and temperature (D) only concentration
42. The rate constant of a reaction is 5 ´ 102 L3 mol3 min1 then state the order of reaction.
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
43. The rate equation of a reaction Cl3.C.CHO + NO ® CHCl3 + NO + CO, is rate = K[Cl3.C.CHO] [NO].
If concentrations of reactants are in molar units, then state the units of rate constant K.
(A) L2 mol2 s1 (B) mol L1 s1 (C) L mol1 s1 (D) s1
44. On what does the unit of rate constant depend ?
(A) on rate of reaction. (B) on molecularity of reaction.
(C) on order of reaction. (D) All three given.
222
45. The rate constant of a reaction containing gasseous components is 5.0 ´ 104 bar2 min1. State the
order of reaction.
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
Answers : 38. (C), 39. (D), 40. (B), 41. (B), 42. (D), 43. (C), 44. (C), 45. (D)
Molecularity and order of reaction

Molecularity :
The number of atoms, ions, or molecules that participate in an elementary reaction and collide
simultaneously as a result of which reaction takes place is called moelcularity of reaction.
The order of reaction and molecularity of bimolecular, trimolecular elementary reactions are the
same.
The probability of collision between more than three molecules is very less. Therefore, molecularity
more than three is not found.
Molecularity Order of reaction
It is a sum of number of molecules It is a sum of exponents of molar concentration
participating in one step reaction. of reactants expressed in rate equation derived
experimentally.
It is always an integer. It may be a fraction.
It can never be zero. It can be zero.
Molecularity is applicable for one step The order of reaction can be applied to all steps
reaction or any of the step of a reaction indicating its completion
occuring in more than one step. It has no
meaning for reactions involving more than
one step.
It can be obtained from simple balanced It can be obtained only from experimentally
equation for one step reaction. derived rate law.
It is not helpful in explaining mechanism of It is helpful in explaining mechanism of
reaction. reaction.
46. A reaction containing two different reactants is never ...........

(A) bimolecular. (B) unimolecular. (C) of first order. (D) of second order.
47. What will be the order of reaction 3A ® products ?
(A) 3 (B) 1, 2, or 3 (C) 0 (D) any one from 1 to 3
48. Reactions having very high order are very rarely seen. Because ......
(A) more activation energy is required for the active collision of more molecules.
(B) the possibility of active collision between more molecules is very less.
(C) with reference to energy active collision of more molecules is not supported.
(D) Active collision of more molecules is possible in gas phase only.
223
49. The molecularity of a single step reaction A + 2B ® products is......
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
50. Which of the following is unimolecular reaction ?
1 1 1
(A) HI ® H + I (B) N2O5 ® N2O4 + O
2 2 2 2 2 2
(C) H2 + Cl2 ® 2HCl (D) PCl3 + Cl2 ® PCl5
1
51. From the experimental results for a reaction H2(g) + Br2(g) ® 2HBr(g), if rate = K[H 2 ][Br2 ] 2 , then its
molecularity and overall order are respectively ......... .
1 1 1 1
(A) 2, 2 (B) 2, 1 (C) 1 , 2 (D) 1 , 1
2 2 2 2
52. The order and molecularity of a hydrolysis reaction between ethyl acetate and ethanol in basic
medium are ............ respectively.
(A) 1, 1 (B) 1, 2 (C) 2, 1 (D) 2, 2
53. Hydrolysis of organic chloride in presence of excess of water occurs as
R - Cl + H2O ® R-OH + HCl. The molecularity and order of reaction are ............. respectively.
(A) 1, 1 (B) 2, 1 (C) 2, 2 (D) 1, 2
Answers : 46. (B), 47. (D), 48. (B), 49. (D), 50. (B), 51. (B), 52. (D), 53. (B)
Reactions of various order and half reaction time
Zero order reaction :
Rate of reaction is directly proportional to the zeroth power of concentration of reactant.
d[R]
- = K[R]0 \ [R] = - Kt + [R]0
dt
So, the graph of [R] ® t is a straight line with the slope = - K and intercept = [R]0
[R]0 [R]0
t1 µ i.e. t 1 =
2 2
2K
2
First order reaction :

Rate of reaction is directly proportional to the first power of concentration of reactant.
d[R] [R]0
- K.t
- = K[R] \ Kt = ln [R] and [R]t = [R]0 e
dt t
K
and log[R]t = - ´ t ´ log[R]0, hence graph of log[R]t ® t is straight line.
2.303
K
Slope = - and intercept = log[R]0
2.303
t1 0.693
=
2
K
224
Pseudo first order reaction
Several reactions are not of first order but under certain conditions they become first order reactions.
Such reactions are ....
(1) Hydrolysis of ethyl acetate (2) Hydrolysis of cane sugar
Determination of order of reaction
Methods : (1) Initial rate method
(2) Integrate rate equation method or graphical method
(3) Half reaction time method : Time required for half completion of reaction =
Half reaction time = t 1 It is very simple method.

2
For zero order reaction t 1 µ [R]0

2
For first order reaction t 1 is independent of concentration of reactant

2
1
For nth order reaction t 1 µ [R]01n or t 1 µ
n −1
2 2 [R]0
54. The rate of a zero order reaction is always independent of ........

(A) volume of reaction vessel. (B) temperature.
(C) presence of light. (D) concentration of reactant.
+
55. CH3COCH3 + I2 
H
→ products. If rate =
+
K[CH3COCH3] [H ] , then what will be order of
reaction with respect to I2 ?
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
56. Zeroth order reaction means....
(A) rate is independent of concentration.
(B) rate independent of concentration of active reactants.
(C) rate of formation of activated complex is zero.
(D) rate of decomposition of activated complex is zero.
57. Which of the following statement is wrong ?
(A) The rate of zeroth order reaction varies with temperature.
(B) Order and molecularity of a reaction are always same.
(C) If 128 gram HI is in 2 L container then its active mass = 0.5
(D) The rate of reaction is halved on decreasing concentration of reactant to half in first order reaction.
58. How much time would require for completion of a reaction if in a zeroth order reaction the initial
concentration of reactant is a and rate constant is K.
a K a K
(A) (B) (C) (D)
K 2a 2K a
59. For a zero order reaction, ..... .
[A]0 [A]0
(A) K = (B) Kt = [A]t - [A]0 (C) Kt = 2.303ln [A] (D) Kt = [A]0 - [A]t
t t
225
60. The half reaction time becomes double on doubling the initial concentration of reactant, then state
the order of reaction is ...... .
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
61. For a zero order reaction ......
(A) t 1 µ Co (B) t 1 µ Co2 (C) t 1 µ Co (D) t 1 µ Co1

2 2 2 2
62. The initial concentration of reactant of nth order reaction is a, the half reaction time will be directly
proportional to
1
(A) an +
(B) a1 - n
(C) an - 1
(D) an
63. If concentration of reactant is made x times, then its rate constant = ..........
K K
(A) ln (B) (C) K.x (D) K
x x
64. The half reaction time of a zero order reaction is 1 hr. The initial concentration of reactant A is 2M.
How much time will be required for the concentration of reactant to become 0.25 M from 0.5 M ?
(A) 1 hr (B) 4 hr (C) 0.5 hr (D) 0.25 hr
65. For a first order reaction, ...
[A] 2.303 [A]

(A) t = K ´ 2.303 log (B) K = log
[A]0 t [A]0
K.t
- 2.303 a
(C) [A] = [A]0 e (D) t = log
K a+x
66. For a first order reaction ......
0.693 0.693 0.693 0.693

(A) t 1 = (B) t 1 = (C) t 1 µ (D) t 1 µ
K Co K Co
2 2 2 2
3
67. Which of the following indicates th reaction time for first order reaction ?
4
K 4 2.303 3 2.303 2.303

(A) log (B) log (C) log 4 (D) log 3
2.303 3 K 4 K K
68. The half reaction time of a first order reaction is 14 second. How much time will be required to
1
reduce initial concentration to th of its original concentration ?
8
(A) 28 s (B) 42 s (C) (14)2 s (D) (14)3 s

69. The time required to reduce original concentration of reactant to its 25 % is 1 hour for first order
reaction. State half reaction time.
(A) 120 min (B) 4 hr (C) 30 min (D) 15 min
70. How much approximate time would be required to decrease original concentration of a reactant
M M
from to in a first order reaction ? The half life period of reaction is 150 seconds.
10 100
(A) 600 s (B) 900 s (C) 500 s (D) 1500 s

226
71. How much amount of reactant would be left after one hour in a first order reaction having half life
period of 15 min ?
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 8 16
1
72. The t 1 = 24 hours for a reaction : N2O5 ® 2NO2 + O . What amount of N2O5 will be left on
2 2
2
decomposing 10 gram N2O5 after 96 hours ?
(A) 0.63 g (B) 0.5 g (C) 1.77 g (D) 1.25 g
73. The decomposition of 75 % reactant takes place in 1.386 hours in a first order reaction. Give the
value of rate constant.
(A) 3.6 ´ 103 s1 (B) 2.8 ´ 104 s1 (C) 17.2 ´ 103 s1 (D) 1.8 ´ 103 s1
74. The half life period of a first order reaction is 6.93 minutes. How much time would require for 99 %
completion of this reaction ?
(A) 460.6 min (B) 23.03 min (C) 46.06 min (D) 230.5 min
1
75. The time required to reduce to th of its original concentration of a first order reaction is 20
4
1
minutes. What will be the time to decrease initial concentration to its th.
16
(A) 20 min (B) 10 min (C) 80 min (D) 40 min
3
76. What will be the half life period if a radio active substance decay to its th in 2 hours ?
4
(A) 60 min (B) 30 min (C) 45 min (D) 15 min
77. A molecule decompose to 50 % in 120 minutes. How much time would require for 90 % of this first
order thermal decomposition ?
(A) 360 min (B) 398.8 min (C) 300 min (D) 400 min
78. The time required to decrease concentration of reactant R from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in a first order
reaction R ® P is 40 minutes. State the rate of reaction when concentration of reactant R in this
reaction is 0.01M.
(A) 1.733 ´ 104M min1 (B) 3.466 ´ 104M min1
(C) 3.466 ´ 105M min (D) 3.466 ´ 103M min1
t1
79. If the time required for 25 % completion of first order reaction is expressed by and its rate
4
constant is K, then its t 1 is equal to what ?

4
1.38 0.25 0.346 0.29

(A) (B) (C) (D)
K K K K
Answers : 54. (D), 55. (A), 56. (B), 57. (B), 58. (A), 59. (D), 60. (D), 61. (A), 62. (B),
63. (D), 64. (D), 65. (C), 66. (A), 67. (C), 68. (B), 69. (C), 70. (C), 71. (D),
72. (A), 73. (B), 74. (C), 75. (D), 76. (A), 77. (B), 78. (B), 79. (D).
227
Arrhenius equation and collision theory
− Ea
RT Ea
Arrhenius equation : K = A e \ ln K = ln A -
RT
Ea 1
\ log K = log A - ´
2.303R T
1
the graph of log K ® is straight line.
T
Ea
slope = -
2.303R
K2 Ea  1 − 1  Ea ∆T
Also, log
2.303R  T1 T2 
= =
K1 2.303R T1 × T2
 
Threshold energy :
Arrhenius equation indicates that rate constant increases exponentially with temperature.
By increasing temperature from 300 K to 310 K, the kinetic energy increases only by 3 % because
it is proportional to temperature.
For most of the reactions the rates almost double by increase in temperature by 10 K.
The explanation for this can be given that there must be some pushing energy or threshold energy
required for the reaction of molecules.
Arrhenius Parameters
Ea = NA E* where, Ea = activation energy, NA = Avogadro number E* = Kinetic energy
− Ea
RT
K = A e where, A = pre exponential or frequency factor
Here, A and Ea are called Arrhenius parameters.

Theory of collision
Developed by Max Trauz and Willium Lewis (1916-18).
In chemical reaction, the number of collision per second per unit volume is called collision frequency (Z).
For a bimolecular reaction, A + B ® products
− Ea − Ea
RT RT
Rate = ZAB e and Rate = P ZAB e
where, ZAB = collision frequency of reactants A and B whose energy is equal to or more than
activation energy
P = Steric factor or probability parameters
Those collisions in which molecules possess sufficient kinetic energy (threshold energy) and molecules
collide in proper directions are called fruitful collisions or effective collisions. Such collisons results into a
chemical reaction.
228
80. The minimum energy that must be required by reactants for a reaction to occurs is ......
(A) potential energy (B) internal energy (C) activation energy (D) threshold energy
81. Which of the following is correct Arrhenius equation ?
K2 Ea  1 − 1  − Ea
(A) ln K =   (B) K = A e RT
1 R  T1 T2 
Ea
(C) ln K = ln A - (D) given all three
RT
82. What is changed by increasing concentration of reactants ?

(A) Collision frequency (B) Heat of reaction (C) Threshold energy (D) Activation energy
83. For exothermic reactions, activation energy ..........
(A) is zero. (B) is negative. (C) is positive. (D) cannot be predicted.
84. Reactions which require high activation energy are mostly ..........
(A) slow. (B) fast. (C) very fast. (D) spontaneous.
85. Activation energy of reaction = ..........
(A) threshold energy + energy of products (B) threshold energy - energy of reactants
(B) threshold energy + energy of reactants (D) threshold energy - energy of products
86. Theory of collision is more satisfactory for .......... reactions.
(A) first order (B) second order (C) bi-molecular (D) None
87. The rate constant of a reaction at 290 K is 3.2 ´ 103. What will be its rate constant at 300 K ?
(A) 1.6 ´ 103 (B) 6.4 ´ 103 (C) 3.2 ´ 104 (D) 3.2 ´ 102
88. How many times rate of reaction will be on increase of temperature from 10 K to 100 K ?
(A) 512 (B) 614 (C) 400 (D) 112
89. The rate constants of a reaction at 300 K and 320 K are 0.0231 min1 and 0.0693 min1 respectively.
What will be the activation energy of reaction ?
(A) 84 KJ mole1 (B) 34.84 KJ mole1 (C) 43.84 KJ mole1 (D) 30 KJ mole1
90. If Ea = 0, for a reaction then its rate constant

(A) increase with increase in temperature (B) increase with decrease in temperature
(C) decrease with decrease in temperature (D) is independent of temperature
− Ea
91. Decrease of which term in the equation, K = P Z e RT would result into a faster reaction ?
(A) E (B) T (C) Z (D) P
92. The rate of reaction doubles by increase of 10o C temperature. If there is an increase of 50o C in
temperature, how many times rate of reaction would increase ?
(A) 64 times (B) 32 times (C) 10 times (D) 24 times
229
93. The activation energy of a reaction at definite temperature is 2.303 RT Jmol1, then the ratio of rate
constant and Arrhenius constant will be ............
(A) 0.001 (B) 0.01 (C) 0.02 (D) 0.1
94. For a reaction C2H5I + OH -
® C2H5OH + I at 30oC and 60oC temperature, the values of rate
-
constants are 0.325 and 6.735 L mol1 s1 respectively, what will be the value of activation energy ?
(A) 20260 K.cal. (B) 84773 cal (C) 361.44 cal (D) 20260 cal
1
95. The energy of activation of a reaction is 9 K.cal mol . How many times the rate constant will
increase by increasing temperature of a reaction from 295 K to 300 K ?
(A) 1.289 times (B) 0.1289 times (C) 12.89 times (D) 25%
96. The reactant A gives two products :
K
(i) A 
1
→ B , activation energy E1
K
(ii) A →
2
C activation energy E2 If, E2 = 2E1, then what is the relation between K1 and K2 ?
E1 E2 E1 E2
RT RT RT RT
(A) K2 = K1 e (B) K2 = K1 e (C) K1 = K2 A e (D) K1 = 2K2 e
97. The energy of activation of two reactions are E1 and E2. where, E1 > E2. If temperature is made T2
from T1 then rate constant K1of the first reaction becomes K1 ’ and that of second reaction becomes
K2 ’ from K2 , which of the following reaction is true for this ?
K1’ K 2’ K1’ K 2’ K1’ K 2’ K1’ K 2’
(A) K >
K2
(B) K <
K2
(C) K =
K2
(D) K =
K2
= 0
1 1 1 1
−2000 −1000
98. Rate constants of two different chemical reactions are K1 = 1016 e T and K2 = 1015 e T
respectively. At which kelvin temperature K1 = K2 ?

2000 1000
(A) 1000K (B) K (C) 2000K (D) K
2.303 2.303
Answers : 80. (D), 81. (D), 82. (A), 83. (C), 84. (A), 85. (B), 86. (C), 87. (B), 88. (A),
89. (C), 90. (D), 91. (A), 92. (B), 93. (D), 94. (D), 95. (A), 96. (C), 97. (A),
98. (D)
Exothermic and Endothermic reactions

A reaction is exothermic if minimum potential energy of products is less than that of reactants.
A reaction is endothermic if minimum potential energy of products is more than that of reactants.
For endothermic reactions : D H = Hp - Hr = + Ve
D H = Ea - E ar = +Ve where, Ea > Ear
For exothermic reactions : D H = Hp - Hr = - Ve
D H = Ea - E ar = -Ve where, Ea < Ear
where, Ea = Activation energy of forward reaction
Ear = Activation energy of reverse reaction
99. If activation energies of forward and reverse reaction of an exothermic reaction are Ef and Er
respectively, then
(A) Ef < Er (B) Ef > Er (C) Ef >>> Er (D) Ef = Er
230
100. The enthalpy change of a reaction for an endothermic reaction is DH. The minimum value of activation
energy of reaction will be ......... .
(A) equal to DH (B) zero (C) more than D H (D) less than D H
101. The energy of activation and change in enthalpy of an endothermic reaction A ® B are 15 and
1
5 Kcal mol respectively. What will be the energy of activation for a reverse reaction ?
(A) 10 Kcal mol1 (B) 20 Kcal mol1 (C) 15 Kcal mol1 (D) zero
102. The activation energy and change in enthalpy of an exothermic reaction are 70 and -30 KJmol1 .
What will be the energy of activation for a reverse reaction ?
(A) 70 KJ mol1 (B) 30 KJ mol1 (C) 40 KJ mol1 (D) 100 KJ mol1
103. The energy of activation for a reaction A ® B is Ea in forward direction, then activation enegy in
reverse direction will be ..........
(A) equal to Ea (B) less than Ea (C) more than Ea (D) less or more than Ea
Answers : 99. (A), 100. (C), 101. (A), 102. (D), 103. (D)
Effect of catalysts
The main function of catalysts is to decrease the energy of activation of reaction. As a result the
height of energy barrier decreases and rate of reaction increases.
By using catalysts the value of equilibrium constant (K) does not change, only the value of rate of
reaction increases.
104. A catalyst will increase rate of reaction by ...........
(A) reacting with reactants. (B) decreasing energy of activation.
(C) reacting with products. (D) increasing energy of activation.
105. The rate of reaction increases according to the adsorption of catalyst. Because, ......
(A) adsorption decreases Ea.
(B) Ea of molecules increases in adsorption reaction.
(C) concentration of reactants increases on the active sites of catalyst.
(D) adsorption energy is produced which increase rate of reaction.
106. The rate of a biochemical reaction out of human body in absence of an enzyme is found to be
106 times. If this reaction takes place inside the human body then what will be the activation energy
of reaction?
(A) The value of (Ea) for reaction occuring inside the human body is less.
(B) cannot be said
6
(C) (D) external pressure required
RT
107. Catalyst is a substance, which ........
(A) increases concentration of products at equilibrium. (B) vary the equilibrium constant of a reaction.
(C) provides energy to the reaction. (D) changes the time to acquire equilibrium.
108. Oxidation of acidic KMnO4 by oxalic acid is an example of auto catalysis. What is responsible for
that ?
(A) SO42 -
(B) MnO42 -
(C) Mn2 +
(D) K +
Answers : 104. (B), 105. (A), 106. (A), 107. (D), 108. (C)
231
Mechanism of chemical reaction
(1) A reaction involving two consecutive steps of first order
K K
Reaction occurs in two steps R  1
→ I and I → 2
P
Both steps are first order reactions. In the first step intermediate I is produced and accumulates.
When it is maximum it decomposes to product in second step.
(2) A reaction involving slow step
For reactions involving more than one step, the slowest step is rate determining step (r.d.s.).
There may be two reasons for slow step.
(i) The concentration of one or more species participating in elementary reaction is low.
(ii) The value of rate constant is low.
K K
e.g., R 
1
→ I I →
2
P
If K1 <<< K2 then, conversion of I into product will be as soon as I is formed.
(3) Steady state hypothesis
Suppose a chemical reaction occurs in more than one step and certain intermediates are possible.
Here, we assume that intermediates react such that in the short time at begining (induction time)
their concentration increases to some higher value than zero and remains constant during the time
period of that reaction. i.e. concentration of such intermediates which can react is zero. Based on this
hypothesis the equation for the rates of complex reactions can be derived.
(4) Reactions involving intermediates in equilibrium with reactants : Especially, in the
+ -
reactions involving H and OH ions the rate constants of forward and reverse reactions are very high
and equilibrium is established between them.
The intermediate so formed, reacts so slowly that there is negligible change in its concentration.
- -
eg. The C2H5O ion obtained from o-hydroxy aminoethyl benzoate (º E) is catalyzed by OH ion.
Its mechanism is as follows,
1X K
E +
ZZZ
-
OH YZZZ I + H2O ..... fast ..... (i)
K2
K
I →
3
P + C2H5O -
..... slow ..... (ii)
From (ii), rate = k3 [I] ................ (iii)
–
k1[E][OH]
From (i), [I] = k2 ................ (iv)
Substituting (iv) into (iii)

K1 K 3 K1
rate = K3 [E][OH-] = K0[E][OH ] -
where, K0 =
K2 K2
R P
109. Which hypothesis of mechamism of reaction a
graph given indicates ?
(A) Hypothesis of a reaction involving two
consecutive steps of first order.
(B) Hypothesis of a reaction involving any one slow c

step.
(C) Hypothesis in which steady state is valid
(D) Hypothesis of a reaction involving intermediate I
in equilibrium with reactant t ®
232
110. A reaction A2 + B2 U 2AB occurs in following steps. Give net order of reaction.
(1) A2 ® 2A (fast) (2) A + B2 ® AB + B (slow) (3) A + B ® AB (fast)
(A) 1.5 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 1
111. A reaction 2O3 ® 3O2 takes place in following two steps. Give correct rate law of reaction.
(1) O3 U O2 + O (fast) (2) O + O3 U 2O2 (slow)
(A) r = K[O3]2 (B) r = K[O3]2[O2]1 (C) r = K[O3][O2] (D) r = K[O3]2[O2]
112. The equilibrium constant of reaction : N2(g) + O2(g) U 2NO(g) is K1.
The equilibrium constant of reaction : 2NO(g) + O2(g) U 2NO2(g) is K2.
1
For reaction : NO2(g) U N2(g) + O2(g) , K = ..........
2
1
1 1  2 1
(A) (B) (C)  1  (D)
(2K1K 2 ) (4K1K 2 ) (K1K 2 )
 (K1K 2 ) 
113. The rate law of a reaction is rate = K[A]n[B]m. If concentration of A is doubled and that of B is
halved what will the ratio of rate and original rate of reaction ?
1
(A) m + n (B) n - m (C) 2(n - m) (D) (m + n)
2
114. The half life period of a reaction A ® products is 1 hr. The initial concentration is 2 M. How many
hours it will take to decrease concentration of reactant from 0.5 M to 0.25 M if reaction is of zero
order ?
(A) 0.25 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 0.5
115. The initial pressure and rate constant of a reaction 2N 2O 5(g) ® 4NO 2(g) + O 2(g) are 500
atmosphere and 3.38 ´ 105 s1 respectively. What will be the pressure of N2O5 after 10 minutes ?
(A) 490 atm (B) 250 atm (C) 480 atm (D) 420 atm
1
116. A reaction N2O5 ® 2NO2 + O is of first order. Its half-life period is 2.4 hours. If initial amount
2 2
of reactant is 10.8 gram then how much oxygen would be obtained after 9.6 hours ? (At STP)
(A) 0.07 L (B) 3.36 L (C) 1.5 L (D) 1.05 L
117. For a first order gaseous state reaction : A(g) ® 2B(g) + C(g) if initial pressure of A is P0 atmosphere
and at a time t total pressure is P atmosphere then its differential rate equation is .............. .
2.303 P0 2.303 P0 2.303 P0 2.303 2P0

(A) log P − P (B) log P − P (C) log (D) log 2P − P
t 0 t t 0 t t 2P0 − Pt t 0 t
Answers : 109. (C), 110. (A), 111. (B), 112. (C), 113. (C), 114. (A), 115. (A), 116. (D), 117. (B)
118. Decide the true (T) and false (F) statements for a reaction : 2N2O5 ® 4NO2 + O2
(1) concentration of reactants decrease exponentially with time
(2) Half reaction time of reaction decrease with increase in temperature
(3) The t 1 of reaction depends on initial concentration of reactants.
2
(4) Reaction will be 99.6 % completed after eight half lives.

(A) TTFT (B) FFTT (C) TTTT (D) TTFF
233
119. In what condition can nitrogen and oxygen combine ? Decide true (T) or false (F) statements for
that.
(1) Collision must take place between N2 and O2.
(2) In order to collide molecules must have certain minimum amount of potential energy.
(3) In order to collide molecules must have certain minimum amount of threshold energy.
(4) Collision must take place in proper direction
(A) TFTT (B) FFTT (C) TTTF (D) TFTF
120. Which of the following relations are true (T) or false (F) ?
1 1
(1) rate µ
energy barrier µ
Ea µ effective collisions
1 1
(2) rate µ
energy barrier µ Ea µ
effective collisions
K1 Pgas
(3) Rate of adsorption of gas in heterogeneous system =
1 +K 2 Pgas
(4) Rusting of iron º first order reaction

(A) TFTF (B) TTTT (C) TTFF (D) FFTT
121. Which statements are true (T) and false (F) for the relations between rate of consumption of A and
1
rate of formation of B for a reaction A ® 2B ?
2
d[A] d[B] d[A] d[B] d[A] 1 d[B] d[A] 1 d[B]

(1) - = (2) - = 4 (3) - = (4) - =
dt dt dt dt dt 2 dt dt 4 dt
(A) TTTF (B) FFFT (C) TTFF (D) FFTT
122. Which statements are true (T) and false (F) with reference to reaction 2A + B ® C,
rate = K[A][B] ?
(1) Value of K is independent of concentration of A and B.
(2) Unit of K is time1.
(3) Half reaction time is constant.
(4) rate of formation if C is double than the rate of consumption of A.
(A) TFFF (B) FFFT (C) TTFF (D) FFTT
Answers : 118. (A), 119. (A), 120. (A), 121. (B), 122. (A)
123. Match the section-I with section-II in true meaning.

section-I section-II
Au →
(a) 2HI 
∆
H2 + I2 (k) 1
(b) 2N2O5 ® 4NO2 + O2 (l) 2
−
OH
(c) CH3COOCH3 → CH3COO -
+ CH3OH (m) 1.5
(d) H2 + Br2 ® 2HBr (n) 0
(A) (a)-(k), (b)-(n), (c)-(l), (d)-(m) (B) (a)-(n), (b)-(k), (c)-(l), (d)-(m)
(C) (a)-(m), (b)-(k), (c)-(l), (d)-(n) (D) (a)-(n), (b)-(k), (c)-(m), (d)-(l)
234
124. Match the section-I and section-II correctly
section-I section-II
(a) zeroth order reaction (k) unit of K is Lmol1 s1
(b) first order reaction (l) half-reaction time is directly proportional to initial
concentration of reactant
(c) second order reaction (m) reaction of acetic anhydride with excess ethanol is example
of it.
(d) pseudo first order reaction (n) % decomposition of reactant at time t = (1 - e − Kt ) ´ 100
(A) (a)-(l), (b)-(n), (c)-(k), (d)-(m) (B) (a)-(k), (b)-(n), (c)-(l), (d)-(m)
(C) (a)-(k), (b)-(l), (c)-(m), (d)-(n) (D) (a)-(l), (b)-(k), (c)-(n), (d)-(m)
125. Study the graph and match column-I with column-II
70
column-I column-II
®
(a) Ea of forward reaction (k) 70 KJ mol1
40
P.E. kJ
(b) Threshold energy (l) 30 KJ mol1
(c) Ea of reverse reaction (m) 15 KJ mol1 25
(d) Enthalpy change of reaction (n) 45 KJ mol1 reaction axis ®
(A) (a)-(k), (b)-(l), (c)-(n), (d)-(m) (B) (a)-(l), (b)-(k), (c)-(m), (d)-(n)
(C) (a)-(m), (b)-(k), (c)-(n), (d)-(l) (D) (a)-(l), (b)-(k), (c)-(n), (d)-(m)
Answers : 123. (B), 124. (A), 125. (D)
Questions containing one or more than one correct options
126. For a zero order reaction,

(A) half reaction time is inversely proportional to rate constant.
(B) half reaction time is directly proportional to initial concentration of reactant.
(C) time required for completion of reaction, is independent of initial concentration of reactant
(D) there is no effect of doubling concentration of reactant on rate of reaction.
- -
127. The rate of reaction between [BrO3 ] and [Br ] ions in acidic medium is as follows:
d [BrO3− ]
- = K[BrO3 ] [Br ] [H ]2
- - +
dt
that means,
+
(A) rate constant is dependent of concentration of H ions.
(B) order of reaction is independent of concentration of acid.
(C) change in pH of a reaction mixture will affect order of reaction.
+
(D) Rate of reaction increases 4 times by doubling the concentration of H ions.
235
128. Which of the following is correct for a first order reaction ?
e − Kt
1 Co 2.303 a . 2
(A) K = ln (B) t = log (C) [A]0 = [A] (D) t 1 = ln
t Ct K a−x 2 K
129. Which of the following statements are incorrect ?
(A) A catalyst initiates a reaction faster.
(B) A catalyst decreases activation energy of reaction.
(C) A catalyst changes the value of reaction enthalpy.
(D) A catalyst does not affect the rate of a reverse reaction.
130. Which of the following Arrhenius equations are correct ?
A Ea ln K E
(A) ln = (B) = -
K RT ln A RT
(C) logA = logK +

Ea
2.303 RT ( )
Ea
(D) log − RT =
K
A
131. Which of the following reaction is of second order ?

(A) 2N2O5 ® 4NO2 + O2 (B) 2HI ® H2 + I2
(C) 2NO + Br2 ® 2NOBr (D) 2NO2 + F2 ® 2NO2F
132. A catalyst ....
(A) increase average kinetic energy of reactant.
(B) decreases activation energy of reaction
(C) alters the mechanism of reaction
(D) increases number of molecules colliding
133. The activation energies of foward and reverse reactions of a reaction x ® y are 15 and 9 KJ mol1
The potential energy of x is 10 KJ mol1. For this reaction,
(A) threshold energy of reaction is 25 KJ. (B) potential energy of y is 16 KJ.
(C) reaction enthalpy is 6 KJ. (D) the reaction is endothermic.
134. For a reaction R-Cl + NaOH ® R-OH + NaCl the rate law is, rate = K[R-Cl]. The rate of this
reaction will ......
(A) double on doubling concentration of NaOH
(B) become half on decreasing concentration to R-Cl ot half
(C) increase by increasing temperature
(D) does not affect by temperature
135. For the given graphs which statement is correct ?
1
(A) log KP ® = straight line
T
(B) for first order reaction, log [x] ® t = straight line
1
(C) at constant volume, log P ® = straight line
V
1
(D) at constant temperature, P ® = straight line
V
236
136. For a zero order reaction ....
(A) unit of K is mol L1 time1.
(B) rate of reaction is independent of concentration of reactant.
(C) Half reaction time depends on initial concentration of reactant.
(D) Rate of reaction is independent of temperature.
137. Which of the following graphs are correct ?
(A) for zero order reaction (B) for zero order reaction
t1
2
Conc.
Conc t
(C) For first order reaction (D) For second order reaction
log[A] t1
2
t (Conc.)2
Answers : 126. (A), (B), (D), 127. (C), (D), 128. (A), (B), (D), 129. (A), (C), (D),
130. (A), (B) (C), 131. (B), (D), 132. (B), (C), 133. (A), (B), (C), (D),
134. (B), (C), 135. (A), (B), (D). 136. (A), (B), (C), 137. (A), (B), (C)
237
10 Surface Chemistry
Adsorption
Physical and chemical adsorption and their characteristics
Surface chemistry : The study of the boundary separating two bulk states or phases is called
surface chemistry.
The boundary separating the two bulk phases is called interface. The interface on boundary is
indicated by a hyphen or slash.
Surface phenomenon : The phenomenon that keeps the solid and liquid or solid and gas phases in
contact even though they are being separate.
Ex. Dissolution, crystallization, reactions of electroly sis, heterogeneous catalysis, corrosion of
metals etc.
The surface should be pure and clean. For this 108 - 109 pascal high vaccum is created and the
surfaces of metals can be used. So as to keep them free from the effect of the air they are kept in vacuum.
Adsorption : Adsorption is the phenomenon in which molecules are maintained on the solid or
liquid surface and the concentration of molecules on the surface becomes more than the concentration of
the molecules in the bulk.
Example : If powder of activated charcoal or clay is added to a dilute solution of a dye the intensity
of the colour decreases in the bulk solution.
The substance which is adsorbed on the surface of the solid (or liquid) is called adsorbate and the
solid substance on which adsorption takes place is called adsorbent and that overall phenomenon is called
Adsorption.
Surface energy decreases due to Adsorption.
Charcoal, silica gel, chalk, alumina clay etc. act as a good adsorbents because they are more porous
and possess more contact surface.
Desorption : If for some reason (like decreasing pressure or increasing temperature), the
absorbed molecules are released from the surface of the adsorbent or mix in the gas, the phenomenon is
called desorption.
This phenomenon is opposite of Adsorption.
Absorption : Absorption is the phenomenon in which molecules of the substance are spread in the
whole part of solid or liquid.
Sorption : When both adsorption and absorption sometimes occur simultaneously it is called sorption.
Example, H2 is first adsorbed on palladium metal and then it is absorbed into pd metal. Hence it is the
phenomenon of sorption.
Some Examples of Adsorption
(1) Gases filled in closed vessels containing charcoal, their pressure decreases because of their
adsorption on the surface of charcoal.
(2) Intensity of the colour of dye solution decreases when charcoal is added due to adsorption of the
dye on charcoal.
(3) Yellow sugar solution passed through the layer of charcoal so that yellow colour is adsorbed on
charcoal and sugar becomes colourless.
(4) To remove moisture from air, it is kept in a closed vessel which contains silica gel.
Mechanisum of adsorption : Reason for Adsorption phenomenon...
(1) Imbalance or Residual forces
Residual forces are responsible for the phenomenon of adsorption.
At given temperature and pressure adsorption depends upon surface area.
238
(2) Enthalpy of Adsorption
Adsorption is an exothermic process.
DH is negative. Thus, Entropy of adsorbate molecules decreases so, DS is negative for
adsorption.
Adsorption phenomenon is related to decrease in DH and DS.
(3) According to Second Law of Thermodynamics DG = DH - TDS (Gibs Helmholtz
Equation)
Adsorption is spontaneous process, so value of DG will be negative.
Types of Adsorption
There are two types of adsorption (1) Physical adsorption or physisorption (2) Chemical
adsorption or chemisorption.
Distinguish between physical adsorption and chemical adsorption below.
Physical Adsorption Chemical Adsorption
(1) There are weak Van-der Waals forces (1) There are chemical bond type forces
between molecules of adsorbent and between adsorbent and adsorbate.
adosorbate.
(2) The value of adsorption energy is less (2) The value of adsorption energy is
negative. comparatively high negative, about 80 to
about 20 to 40 KJ/mol 240 KJ/mol
(3) Physisorption generally takes place at (3) It takes place relatively at higher
low temperature and it decreases with temperature. There is no specific effect
rise in temperature. of change in temperature.
(4) It is not specific i.e. all gases are (4) It is highly specific, If there is some
adsorbed in more or less proportion on possibility of chemical bond formation
all solid adsorbents. betweenadsorbent and adsorbate
chemisorption can occur.
(5) It is instantaneous. (5) It can be slow or fast.
(6) Multi-molecular layers can be formed on (6) Generally uni molecular layer is formed
the surface of adsorbent. on the surface or adsorbent.
(7) It is a reversible process. (7) It is an irreversible process.
(8) Activation energy is low. (8) Activation Energy is high.
(9) It depends upon the nature of gas. (9) There is no relation between extent of ad
Gases which can be easily liquefied sorption and the ease of liquefaction of
are adsorbed rapidly. the gas.
(10) Ex. Adsorption of H2 gas on charcoal. (10) Ex. Adsorption of H2 gas on Ni metal.
1. Due to Adsorption phenomenon ....

(A) surface energy decreases. (B) surface energy increases.
(C) surface energy becomes zero. (D) surface energy remains same.
2. In which of the following surface phenomenon is used ?
(A) Production of NH3 (B) In Industries
(C) Analytical chemistry (D) All the given
239
3. From below which characteristics is false for physical adsorptiom ?
(A) Adsorption is reversible process.
(B) Adsorption increases by increasing in temperature.
(C) Adsorption is sponteneous process.
(D) Both entropy and enthalpy for this adsorption is negative.
4. Which of the following will be true for adsorption phenomenon ?
(A) D G < 0; D H < 0; D S < 0 (B) D G > 0; D H > 0; D S > 0
(C) D G > 0; D H < 0; D S > 0 (D) D G < 0; D H > 0; D S > 0
5. Which of the following is not example of surface phenomenon ?
(A) Heterogeneous catalysis (B) Corrosion
(C) Water and its vapour in close vessel (D) Crystallization
6. Which of the following statement is false for chemical adsorption ?
(A) No specific effect of change in temperature.
(B) Multimolecular layer can be formed on the surface of absorbent.
(C) It depends upon the nature of gas.
(D) It is irreversible process.
7. How many Pascal high vacuum is required for obtaining completely pure surface of metals ?
(A) 108 to 109 (B) 108 to 109 (C) 106 to 108 (D) 109 to 1010
8. Which of the following statements is not correct for the phenomenon of adsorption ?
(A) Adsorption increases as the pressure increases.
(B) Adsorption increases as the temperature increases.
(C) Adsorption can be unimolecular or multi-molecular.
(D) Size of Adsorbent will not effect Adsorption.
9. Which of the following will increase Rate of physical adsorption ?
(A) By decreasing pressure. (B) By increasing temperature.
(C) By decreasing temperature. (D) by decreasing volume of system.
10. Which of the following statement is incorrect for physical adsorption ?
(A) It is evolved by Van der Waals attraction forces.
(B) Easily liquified gases adsorbes rapidly.
(C) Multi-molecular layers generated at high pressure
(D) Value of DH (Adsorption Enthalpy) will be less and positive.
11. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(A) Physical adsorption is reversible. Where as chemical adsorption is irriversible.
(B) At high pressure, physical adsorption will occur where as at low pressure chemical adsorption
will occur.
(C) Physical adsorption is not specific where as chemical Adsorption is specific.
(D) High activation Energy is required for chemical adsorption.
12. Spontaneous adsorption of gase on solid surface is a enothermic reaction, because...
(A) D H of system increases. (B) D S of gas increases.
(C) DS of gas decreases. (D) DG of gas increases.
13. Which of the following gas will be maximum adsorbed on solid adsorbent ?
(A) CO2 (B) N2 (C) CH4 (D) Ar
240
14. During adsorption....
(A) TDS will positive. (B) DH will positive.
(C) DH - TDS will negative. (D) TDS and DG both will zero.
15. At 298 K temperature what is the decreasing order of H2, CH4, CO2 and NH3 gases on 1 gm
charcoal ?
(A) H2 > CH4 > CO2 > NH3 (B) CO2 > NH3 > H2 > CH4
(C) NH3 > CO2 > CH4 > H2 (D) CH4 > CO2 > NH3 > H2
16. Which of the following example is of adsorption ?
(A) Water on silica gel (B) Water on calcium chloride
(C) H2 on pure Nickel metal (D) Oxygen on metal surface
17. Physical adsorption of gases increases...
(A) by increasing temperature.
(B) by decreasing temperature.
(C) by decreasing surface area of adsorbent.
(D) by increasing in Van der waals attraction forces.
18. What is correct for adsorption phenomenon at equilibrium ?
(A) DH > 0 (B) DH = TDS (C) DH > TDS (D) DH < TDS
19. Adsorption of any gas by adsorbent in physical adsorption is not possible, because...
(A) Van der Waals attraction forces are universal.
(B) gases Act as ideal gase.
(C) less value of adsorption enthalpy.
(D) it will be reversible.
20. Which of the following will not be correct for adsorption if m is amount of adsorbent and x is
amount of adsorbate ?
x x
(A) at constant temperature (T) = f(P) (B) at constant pressure (P) = f(T)
m m
(C) at constant ( mx ) , P = f(T) (D)

x
m
= P ´ T
21. Which force is responsible for adsorption of gas on solid surface in physical adsorption ?
(A) Chemical force (B) Electrostatic attraction force
(C) Gravitational Force (D) Van der Waals attraction force
Answers : 1. (A), 2. (D), 3. (B), 4. (A), 5. (C), 6. (B), 7. (A), 8. (D), 9. (C),
10. (D), 11. (B), 12. (C), 13. (A), 14. (C), 15. (C), 16. (B), 17. (B), 18. (B),
19. (A), 20. (D), 21. (D)
Factors effecting adsorption of gas on solid Adsorbent-Freundich and Langmuir isotherm

Adsorption of gases on adsorbent depends upon the following factors :
(1) Nature of adsorbate (2) Nature of adsorbent (3) Specific area of adsorbent (4) The
pressure on the gas which is adsorbed (5) Temperature (6) activation of adsorbent.
(1) Nature of adsorbate
At given temperature and pressure gases like, NH3, HCl, CO2 which can be easily liquefied.
Such gases are adsorbed to a greater extent.
Permanent gases like H2, O2, N2 which can not be liquefied easily are adsorbed to a less
extent.
241
Liquefaction of gas has relation with critical temperature (TC). Gases with higher critical
temperature are adsorbed to a greater proportion.
(2) Nature of adsorbent
Substances like carbon, animal charcoal, metal oxides, silica gel, alumina, clay etc. act as adsorbents.
They have their characteristic adsorption properties on the basis of their structure.
(3) Specific area of adsorbent
Specific area of adsorbent is defined as the surface area available for adsorption per gram of
adsorbent.
More is the surface area, more will be adsorption.
More porosity of adsorbent offers more specific area which ultimately leads to more adsorption.
(4) Pressure on the gas that is adsorbed (adsorption isotherm)
Generally magnitude of adsorption of an adsorbate
x
gas is expressed as
m
295K
where, m = mass of the adsorbent

x = concentration at definite temperature. x
m
x 244K
Experimentally is determined at definite
m
temperature. If we plot x ® against pressure p of

m
the gas at constant temperature we get a curve this curve 273K
is known as adsorption isotherm curve.
P ®
(5) Temperature : Adsorption is exo thermic. According to Le-chatelers principle, increase in
temperature will decrease the process of adsorption.
Freundlich adsorption isotherm
Adsorption of gaseous adsorbate on solid adsorbent at definate temperature is proportional to the
pressure of the absorbed gas. This relation can be written as :
1 1
x x
µ P n or = KP n (n > 1)
m m
x
where, = is adsorption of the gas per gram of adsorbent.
m
x = 0 number of moles of Adsorbate gas
K and n = constants, m = mass of adsorbent,
P = atmospheric pressure
Y
Taking log on both side of above equation,
x 1
log = logK + logP. If we plot,
m n
x 1
log ® logP, a straight line is obtained as shown below : Slope =
m
n
x
m
log
1 intercept
indicates slope of the graph and log k is given by
n logK
the intercept. Thus n and k can be calculated. ® X
logP®
242
Limitations of Freundlich Adsorption isotherm
(1) The isotherm is applicable within certain limit of pressure. It shows deviation at higher pressure
and the curve of isotherm is changed.
(2) K and n are constants but for the same adsorbent and adsorbate they change with temperature.
(3) Freundlich adsorption isotherm is emperical i.e. there is no theoretical proof of it.
1 x
(4) If the value of is 1, then = KP so adsorption will be directly proportional to the
n m
1 x
pressure. If the value of becomes 0, then = Kp° so adsorption will be independant of
n m
pressure.
Langmuir Adsorption Isotherm
Irving Langmuir derived a simple adsorption isotherm on basis of theoritical considerations on the
basis of kinetic theory of gases.
In this isotherm both opposite process condensation and evaporation are taken in consideration.
Langmuir adsorption isotherm can be expressed as :
x ap
=
m 1 + bp
x
where, = the adsorption of gas per gram of adsorbent, P = pressure, a and b = constant
m
For this equation, two situations can be considered
x
(1) At low pressure : = ap.
m
Thus, at low pressure, adsorption of gas is directly proportional to the pressure.
x a
(2) At High Pressure : = = constant
m b
Thus, at high pressure adsorption will be almost constant.
x ap
To determine constants a and b, equation = may be written by inverting it.
m 1 + bp
m 1 b
i.e. = + .
x ap a
m 1 a straight line is
This equation is the equation for a straight line so if we plot the graph of ®
x p
1 b
obtained. The value of solpe will be and the value of intercept will be thus a and b can be calculated.
a a
x
22. Which of the following value of the slope obtained when graphs of log ® logP is plotted in
m
Freundlich adsorption isotherm ?
1 1 1
(A) p (B) (C) (D) - K
n a
23. Langmuir derived isotherm on what basis ?
(A) On gaseous kinetic principles (B) On Thermodynamics principles
(C) On collision principles (D) On wave mechanics principles
24. From the following which one is the equation of Langmuir adsoprtion isotherm ?
m 1 + bp x ab x ap x ap
(A) = (B) =
1 + bp
(C) =
1 + bp (D) =
x ap m m m 1 + bc
243
25. Which one of following is correct form of Langmuir adsorption isotherm ?
x a x x ap x b
(A) = (B) = ap (C) =
1 + bp (D) =
m b m m m a
26. What is the value of slope obtained when graphs of m ®

1 is plotted in Langmuir adsorption
x p
isotherm ?
1 b a
(A) (B) (C) (D) K
a a b
27. Which of the following factor does not effect on adsorption of gase on solid adsorbent ?
(A) Specific area of adsorbent (B) Pressure of gas
(C) Temperature (D) Volume of adsorbent
28. Which of the following statement is not correct for Freundlich adsorption isotherm ?
(A) Applies within certain range of pressure.
(B) Constants K and n change with temperature.
(C) Freundlich adsorption isotherm is empirical. It has no theoretical basis.
(D) Shows deviation at low pressure.
29. For the phenomenon of adsorption of gas on solid surface, Langmuir adsorption isotherm indicates
that...
(A) many molecules of gas combine with every single molecule of exterior monomolecular layer on
solid surface.
(B) the rate at which molecules of gas colloid at specific sites on solid surface is proportional to
pressure of the gas.
(C) rate of colliding molecules of gas on solid surface is independant of pressure of the gas.
(D) the rate of desorption of gas molecules from surface of solid does not depend on the surface of
the solid.
30. What is the relation between solid adsorbent and gaseous adsorbate in adsorption at constant temperature ?
1 1
x m x x PK n
(A) = KP n (B) = KP n
(C) = KP n
(D) =
m x m m
1
31. In Freundlich adsorption isotherm value of is ......... .
n
(A) 1 in physical adsorption (B) 1 in chemical adsorption
(C) between 0 and 1 in all cases (D) between 2 and 4 in all cases
32. Which of the following assumption is for Langumir adsorption isotherm ?
(A) This adsorption is multimolecular layer.
(B) All adsorption site are equal and it have tendency to adsorbe molecules.
(C) Value of adsorption enthalpy is very low.
(D) Adsorbed molecules/atom attract each other.
33. Which one of following is true for Freundlich adsorption isotherm ?
1 1
x x
(A) = KP n (B) x = m. KP n (C) = KPn (D) above all
m m
x
34. Why the value of ® P is not changes in freuindlich adsorption isotherm if we increase value of
P
pressure p ?
x
(A) Because of value of is low (B) Because it is unimolecular adsorption
m
(C) Because it is multimolecular adsorption (D) Because it is not multimolecular adsorption
244
35. Which is the equation for Freudlich adsorption isotherm ?
x 1 m 1
(A) log = logK + logP (B) log = logK + logP
m n x n
x 1 x 1
(C) log = logR + logP (D) log = logC + logK
m K m n
36. Which of the following equation is true for Langmuir adsorption isotherm, at high pressure ?
x a x x 1 x b
(A) = (B) = ap (C) = (D) =
m b m m a.p m a
37 . On the basis of which of the following assumptions Langmuir adsorption isotherm is derived?
(A) Adsorption possess multi molecular layer.
(B) All adsorption sites are equal and have equal adsorption capacity.
(C) Adsorption enthalpy value is related to adsorption.
(D) Adsorption molecules settle over each other.
38. Which of the following curves does not correspond to adsorption isotherm ?
(A) (B)

x
x
m
m
(C) (D)
p ® p ®

x x
m m
p ® p ®
39. Which of the following statement is false for Freuindlich and Langmuir adsorption isotherm ?
(A) Adsorption can be unimolecular or multimolecular.
(B) Volume of adsorbent molecule doesnt effect on adsorption.
(C) Adsorption increases by increasing pressure.
(D) Adsorption decreases by increasing temperature.
40. Which of the following statement is wrong for Langmuir adsorption isotherm ?
(A) at high pressure

x
m
= Kp (B) graph of log m (x ) ® logP will be straight line
1
x m KP n
(C) at low pressure = Kp (D) at ordinary pressure =
m x
Answers : 22. (B), 23. (A), 24. (C), 25. (A), 26. (A), 27. (D), 28. (C), 29. (B), 30. (A),
31. (C), 32. (B), 33. (D), 34. (C), 35. (A), 36. (A), 37. (B), 38. (C), 39. (B), 40. (B).
245
Adsorption from solutions and Catalysis and its different types
Adsorption from solution
Adsorption isotherm is also applicable to liquid systems as gaseous system.
Freundlich and Langmuir adsorption isotherm can be write as below for adsorption from
solution.
Freuidlich Adesorption Langmuir adsorption isotherm
(1) Physical adsorption

1
x x 1 x ap 1 b
= KP n or log = logK + logP = or m = +
m m n m 1 + bp x ap a
(2) Chemical adsorption
1
x x 1 x ac b 1
= KC n or log = logK + logC = or log m = log + log
m m n m 1 – bc x a ac
Catalysis
The substance which is not consumed in the chemical reaction and is obtained in its original form
at the end of the reaction and increases the rate of reaction or decreases the time required for getting
product is called catalyst.
Increase in rate of reaction with the help of catalyst that phenomenon is called catalysis.
A catalyst increases equally both the rate of forward reaction as well as the rate of reverse
reaction. It does not affect equilibrium constant i.e. more product is not obtained.
A catalyst decreases activation energy by providing a different path way of reaction. It lowers
the potential energy barrier, hence reaction occurs in less time.
Types of catalysis : There are two main type of catalysis :
(1) Homogeneous catalysis : If the catalyst is in same phase as the reactants are, it is
called homogeneous catalyst and the phenomenon is called homogeneous catalysis.
[Cl(g) ]
(1) Decomposition of ozone : O3(g) + O2(g)  → 2O2(g)
[NO (g) ]
(2) Oxidation of CO : 2CO(g) + O2(g)  → 2CO2(g)
+
(3) Inversion of sucrose : C12H22O11(aq) [H (aq) ]
H2O(l) 
+
→ C6H12O6(aq) + C6H12O6(aq)
1 [NO (g) ]
(4) Lead chamber process for H2SO4 : SO2(g) O → SO3(g)
2 2(g) 
+
+
(5) Hydrolysis of Ester : CH3COOCH3(l) [H (aq) ]
H2O(l) 
+
→ CH3COOH(l) + CH3OH(l)
(2) Heterogeneous Catalysis : When the catalyst is in different phase from that of
reactants the catalyst is called heterogeneous catalyst and the phenomenon is called heterogeneous
catalysis. Example,
[Au (s) ]
(1) Decomposition of gaseous HI on gold surface : 2HI(g)  → H2(g) + I2(g)
1 [V2O5(s) ]
(2) Oxidation of SO2 in contact process for H2SO4 : SO2(g) O SO3(g)
2 2(g) →
+
[Fe(s) ]
(3) Haber process for ammonia : N2(g) + 3H2(g)  → 2NH3(g)
(4) Methanal from water gas : CO(g) [Cu / ZnO − Cr2 O3 ]

2H2(g) 
+
→ CH3OH(l)
(5) Preparation of vegetable ghee by hydrogenation of oil in presence of Raney Ni.
246
Shape-selective Catalysis by Zeolite
When catalytic reaction depends upon size of pore of the catalyst; size of molecules of reactant and
product; it is known as shape-selective catalysis
Zeolites are good shape selective catalysts because of their structure like Honey comb.
They are alumino silicates [Na2Al2Si4O12].
They occur naturally or they are prepare synthetically.
Before using zeolites are heated in vaccum to remove water of hydration.
Reaction of Zeolite catalyst depends upon the size and shape of reactant and products that is why
they are shape selective catalysts.
Zeolites are mainly used in petro chemical industries for isomerisation and cracking of hydrocarbons.
One important zeolite is ZSM-5 that directly converts alcohol into petrol by hydrolysis reaction.
Enzyme Catalysis
Large number of organic reactions occur in the body of plants and animals to sustain life processes.
They occur in dilute solution at ordinary temperature and pressure. Like this process. So many other
biological process are catalysis by biochemical catalyst thats called Enzyme Catalysis.
Such Biochemical catalyst are called Enzyme.
Enzyme increases the rate of reaction by 108 to 1020 times and those are specific.
The rate of reaction increases as the concentration of substrate increases. The reaction changes
from first order to zero order reaction as concentration of substrate increase at high temperature its activity
is destroyed.
One Enzyme molecule may transform one million molecules of the reactant per minute.
41. Which of the following formula is applicable to the Fruindlich Adsorption isotherm for solution ?
1 1
x x ac m 1. n m 1 + bc
(A) = K. C n (B) = (C) = C (D) =
m m 1 + bc x K x ac
42. Which one of the following is true Equation for Langmuir adsorption isotherm for solutions ?
1
x x ac m 1. 1 m 1 + bc
(A) = K. C n (B) = (C) = (D) =
m m 1 + bc x K 1 x ac
Cn
43. 20 % N2 gas is adsorbed on a solid surface. If we provide heat on surface then some of gaseous
molecules leave surface and deposite in a container of volume 2.43 cm3 at 0.001 atomospheric
pressure and 298 K temperature. If density of surface is 6.023 ´ 1014 cm2 and area of surface is
1000 cm2 than calculate site of surface which coverd by N2 gas ?
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 8
44. If we stirr 0.5 gm dust of wood and 1 M 50 ml oxalic acid than adsorption phenomenon is possible.
Concentration of solution become 0.6 m after adsorption, what is amount of oxalic acid adsorbed
by per gram wood dust ?
45. At 27oC temperature in 1 litre volume container if we pass gas over activated charcoal, than
pressure of gas decreases by 700 to 400 mm then calculate volume of gas ? (Density of charcoal
3
= 1.5 gm/m )
(A) 30 ml (B) 60 ml (C) 90 ml (D) 120 ml

247
46. Which of the following reaction is of Heterogeneous catalysis ?
NO (g)
(I) 2SO2(g) + O2(g)  → 2SO3(g)
[Pt (s) ]
(II) 2SO2(g) → 2SO3(g)
[Fe(s) ]
(III) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  → 2NH3(g)
+
(IV) CH3COOCH3(l) [H (aq) ]
H2O(l) 
+
→ CH3COOH(aq) + CH3OH(aq)
(A) (IV) (B) (I), (II), (III) (C) (II), (III) (D) (II), (III), (IV)
47. In catalytic reactions explain contribution of catalyst.
(A) decreases activation Energy. (B) increases activation energy
(C) effect on change in free Energy. (D) effect on change in enthalpy
48. Which of the following factor is responsible for increasing rate of reaction of surface catalysis?
(I) Catalyst will provide proper orientation of reactant molecule for Reaction.
(II) Catalyst decreases activation energy of reactant molecule with the help of reactant
moleculs adsorption enthalpy.
(III) Catalyst increases activation energy of reactant.
(IV) Due to active centre on surface of catalyst concentration increases of reactant molecule
due to adsorption phenomenon.
(A) (I) and (II) (B) (I), (II) and (III) (C) (I), (II) and (IV) (D) (II) and (IV)
49. For reversible process catalyst is ..........
(A) increasing in rate of forward reaction.
(B) decreasing in value of change in reaction enthalpy.
(C) decrease time to get equilibrium state.
(D) decreases rate of reversible process.
50. Which of the following convert directly Alcohol into petrol by dehydration method in petrochemicals ?
(A) Pt (B) ZSM5 (C) Fe (D) Ni
51. Which catalyst is used for preparation of vegetable ghee by hydrogenation of oil.
(A) Pt (B) Mo (C) Raney Ni (D) Fe
52. Which of the following is example of surface catalyst ?
(A) inversion of sucrose (B) Haber process for NH3
(C) Lead chamber process for H2SO4 (D) Hydrolysis of Ester
53. On which of the following shape selective catalysis will depend ?
(A) Size of Reactant (B) Pore structure of catalyst
(C) Product molecule (D) given all
54. Which of the following statement is true for preparation of Hydrogen gas from (CO + H2) ?
(A) To remove CO it has to adsorbed on CaCl2.
(B) To remove H2 it has to adsorbed on Pd.
(C) Convert CO into CO2 by oxidation with water vapour then adsorbed CO2 gas in alkali.
(D) Separating CO and H2 by minor difference in their density.
55. Which of the following catalyst is used for preparation of aldehyde from a-olefin, CO and H2 ?
(A) Ni / Pd complex compound (B) Rh / Pd complex compound
-
(C) [Rh(CO)2I 2] (D) Mo(VI) complex
248
56. On which of the following activity of catalyst will depend ?
(A) On type of chemical adsorption. (B) On type of physical adsorption.
(C) On Tendency of chemical adsorption. (D) On selectivity of catalyst.
57. at 300 K temperature and 0.7 atmosphere pressure 3.0 gm O2 gas adsorbed on 1.2 gm
charcoal. So 300 K temperature and 0.7 atmosphere pressure what is the volume of O2 gas ?
(A) 2741 cm3 (B) 1746 cm3 (C) 4127 cm3 (D) 4617 cm3
58. Which of the following biochemical process require Urearse Enzyme ?
(A) In digetion of lipid (B) In digension of starch
(C) Hydrolysis of urea (D) Hydrolysis of maltose
Answers : 41. (A), 42. (B), 43. (C), 44. (A), 45. (B), 46. (C), 47. (A), 48. (C), 49. (C),
50. (B), 51. (C), 52. (B), 53. (D), 54. (C), 55. (B), 56. (C), 57. (A), 58. (C)
Colloids
Difference between True Solution, Colloid and Suspension
A system between true solution and suspension is called colloidal dispersion.
Colloid : Colloid is a heterogeneous system. In which one substance is called dispersion
medium which contain very small particles.
True solution and colloid contain very large difference in their particle size.
In below table difference between true solution, calloid and suspension is given.
True Solution Colloid Suspension
(1) diameter of particle is very (1) Diameter of colloid particle (1) Diameter of this particle
low even microscope cant is bigger than suspension are very high even can
measure it. diameter of particle and lower than measured by eyes. diameter
particles are < 1 nm or true solution. It can be of particle is >100 nm or
9 9
< 10 meter. mesure by ultra microscope. > 10 meter.
Partical diameter is
1 nm - 1000nm means
109 to 106 meter.
(2) Homogeneous mixture. (2) Heterogeneous mixture. (2) Heterogeneous mixture.
(3) Can not be separated by (3) It can not be separated by (3) It can be separated by
simple filter paper and simple filter paper but can simple filter paper as well
ultra filter paper. be separated by ultra filter as ultra filter paper.
(4) Do not settle at bottom or (4) Do not settle under gravity (4) Settle at bottom under
aggregate. but can be made to settle gravity.
under centrifugation.
(5) Does not show tyndall (5) Shows tyndall effect and (5) Shows tyndall effect and
effect and Brownian sometimes it is observed observe Brownian motion.
motion. Brownian motion.
(6) e.g. Solution of sugar and (6) e.g. milk, starch, solution (6) e.g. Sand in water or
salt in water. gold sol, sulfur sol, Muddy water and oil mixture
water. organic liquid and water.
249
Classification of Colloids
Calssification of colloids based on following three types :
(1) Physical state of dispersion phase and dispersing medium.
(2) The nature of attraction between dispersing phase and dispersion medium.
(3) Types of particles of dispersed phase.
(1) The classification of colloids on the basis of physical states of dispersed phase and
dispersion medium :
Based on state of dispersing phase and dispersion medium as solid, liquid or gas.
There are 8 types of colloidal systems as follows :
No. Dispersing Dispersion Type of Colloid Examples
phase Medium
(1) Solid Solid Solid Sol Some coloured glass, gemstone,
ruby glass
(2) Solid Liquid Sol cell fluid, gold Sol
(3) Solid Gas Aerosol Smoke, dust haze
(4) Liquid Solid Gel Cheese, Butter Jelly
(5) Liquid Liquid Emulsion Milk, Hair cream
(6) Liquid Gas Aerosol Mist, Cloud, Fog, stray of
pesticides
(7) Gas Solid Solid Sol Purmice stone, Foam Rubber
(8) Gas Liquid Foam Forth, Foam
(2) Classification on the Basis of nature of interaction between dispersing phase and dis-
persion Medium :
There are two types of colloids :
(1) Lyophilic colloids
(2) Lyphobic colloids
Following table shows difference between lyophilic colloids and lyophobic colloids :
Lyophilic Colloids Lyphobic colloids
(1) They are Liquid attracting colloid. They (1) They are liquid repelling by nature. Colloids are
can be directly obtained by mixing with are made by special method.
solvent.
(2) If dispersion medium is removed from (2) If dispersion medium is removed and again mixed
colloidal solution the dispersion system with dispersion, medium the precipitate obtained
are obtained. If liquid is added again does not give sol again.
original lyphilic colloid is obtained.
(3) They cannot be easily coagulated so (3) They can easily coagulated by addition of
they are called stable colloid. electrolytes. So, they are not stable colloid.
(4) This colloidal system possesses reversible (4) If dispersion medium is removed and again mixed
property and are called reversible sols. with dispersion medium the precipitate obtained
does not give sol again. Hence they are
irreversible sols.
250
(5) They are stable so they does not need (5) They need stabilizing agents for their preservation.
any stabilizing agents.
(6) Viscocity is much higher compared to (6) Viscocity is nearly the same as that of solvent.
that of solvent.
(7) Surface tension is usually lower than that (7) Surface tension is nearly the same as that of
of dispersion medium. dispersion medium.
(8) This colloids do not show tyndall effect. (8) This colloids show tyndall effect.
(9) Examples : Gum, gelatin, starch, rubber, (9) Examples : Ag, Au, Al(OH)3, Fe(OH)3 etc.
etc.
Dispersion of solid in Liquid ® sols.
Dispersion of Liquid in solid ® gel
Dispersion of Liquid in Liquid ® emulsion.
If dispersion medium is water, those colloid are called ® Aqua sol.
If dispersion medium is alcohol : those colloid called ® Alcosol
59. What is the size of a colloid particle ?
(A) 109 - 106 meter (B) > 109 meter (C) < 109 meter (D) 1 nm - 100 nm
60. Foam rubber is which type of colloid ?
(A) Sol (B) Solid sol (C) Aerosol (D) Jell
61. Pumice stone is which type of colloid ?
(A) Sol (B) Solid sol (C) Aerosol (D) Jell
62. Which of the following factors is responsible for more tendency of adsorption of colloid particle ?
(A) Charge on colloid particle (B) Surface area of colloid particle
(C) Brownian motion of colloidal particle (D) strong attraction of colloidal particle towards
solvent
63. All colloidal dispersion...
(A) contains very high osmotic pressure. (B) contains very low osmotic pressure.
(C) does not contain any osmotic pressure. (D) contains high osmotic pressure.
64. Lyophilic colloids are....
(A) irriversible colloids. (B) prepared from inorganic compound.
(C) coagulated by addition of electrolytes. (D) self stabilizers.
65. Which substances 4% solution is added to alcohol-ether mixture to make colloid ?
(A) Nitroglycerin (B) Cellulose acetate (C) Glycodin nitrate (D) Nitro cellulose
66. What is the volume of colloidal particle of volume Vc if we dissolve it in true solution Vs ?
VC VC VC VC
(A) V ~ 1 (B) V ~ 1023 (C) V ~ 103 (D) V ~ 103
S S S S
67. If suspension particle radius of 1 mm is converted into colloidal particle of radius 1000 Å then what
is the surface area of this colloidal particle compare to suspension particle ?
(A) 103 (B) 104 (C) 105 (D) 106
68. In saturated solution of Calcium acetate if we add alcohol then it first forms Sol then if we add
heavy gelatin in it; becomes solid alcohol than what will be it ?
(A) gel (B) Solid foam (C) liquid sol (D) Aerosol
251
69. Which of the following characteristic is not correct for hydrophilic sol ?
(A) Dispersed phase is obtained easily at high concentration.
(B) Its coagulation is reversible.
(C) Viscosity and surface tension are nearly the same as those of water.
(D) The charge on the particles depends on pH of the medium and it can be positive, negative
or zero.
70. Which of the following species colloidal system is irreversible in dispersing medium ?
(A) Soil (B) Pt (C) Fe(OH)3 (D) mentioned all
71. Which of the following characteristics is not true for lyophilic and lyophobic colloid ?
(A) Lyophobic colloid contains high hydration energy, while lyophilic colloid does not.
(B) Viscocity and Surface tension of lyophobic colloid is less then that of dispersion medium.
(C) lyophobic colloid easily coagulate where as lyophobic colloid is not easily coagulated.
(D) Colloid of gold is irriversible because gold cannot be obtained from the sol.
72. Which of the following characteristic is of colloid solution ?
(A) Colloid particle moves slowly from semipermiable membrane.
(B) Colloid particle does not settle down under gravitational force.
(C) Colloid particle is not observed even by the microscope.
(D) above all statement are true.
73. If dispersion phase is liquid and dispersion medium is solid, then that colloid is called ...... .
(A) sol (B) emulsion (C) gel (D) foam
74. Stability of lyophilic colloid is due to ......
(A) charge on particle (B) dispersion medium on particle.
(C) particle size is small (D) particle size is big.
75. Which of the following is Hydrophobic sol ?
(A) Starch solution (B) Gum solution
(C) Protien solution (D) As2S3 solution
76. Milk is ......
(A) dispersion of fat in oil. (B) dispersion of fat in water .
(C) dispersion of water in fat. (D) dispersion of gas in liquid.
77. Fog is which type of colloidal system ?
(A) Dispersion of gas in liquid. (B) Dispersion of gas in gas.
(C) Dispersion of solid in gas. (D) Dispersion of gas in liquid.
(A) Every solid substance can convert into colloid.
(B) Colloid particle has charge.
(C) Every solid substance have tendency to become lyophilic colloid.
(D) Floculation occurs if we add electrolyte in colloid particle.
79. Which of the following pairs is wrong ?
(i) Starch solution - Sol
(ii) Aqueous NaCl = True solution
(iii) Milk - Emulsion
(iv) Aqueous BaSO4 - True Solution
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
252
Answers : 59. (A), 60. (C), 61. (B), 62. (A), 63. (B), 64. (D), 65. (D), 66. (D), 67. (B),
68. (A), 69. (C), 70. (D), 71. (C), 72. (D), 73. (C), 74. (B), 75. (D), 76. (C),
77. (A), 78. (C), 79. (C)
Multimolecular colloids, Macromolecular colloids and Associated colloids (micelle)

Colloids can be classified on the basis of the types of dispersing phases as follows :
(1) Multi Molecular colloids : On dissolution when a large number of atoms or small molecules
associate together with one another. The species so formed is called multimolecular colloid. Such a
cluster has diameter more than 1 nm i.e. with in the range of colloids. e.g., Gold sol and Sulphar sol.
(2) Macromolecular colloids : Molecular mass of macromolecules are very large when such
molecules are dissolved in proper solvent a solution is obtained in which the small size of macro
molecules may change to the size of colloidal particles. Such a system is called macromolecular colloid.
e.g. Organic polymers like : gum, protein, cellulose, enzymes
Manmade macromolecular substances like : nylon, polystyrene, polyethylene synthetic rubber,
plastic etc.
(3) Associated Colloids : Substances whose molecules aggregate spontaneously in a given
solvent to form particles of colloidal dimensions are called associated colloids
Formation of micelle takes palce at a definite temperature called kraft temperature (Tk).
The minimum concentration required for micelle formation is called Critical Micelle Concentration
(CMC).
On dilution these colloids change into their original ions.
Micelle possess both lyophilic part as well as lyophobic part.
Micelle contain more than 100 atom/particle.
e.g. surface active substance : soap and detergent.
Mechanism of micelle formation
Soap is sodium salt of higher fatty acids. So, by taking example of soap solution to explain the
mechansim of micelle formation.
- + - +
Sodium Stearate - CH3(CH2)16COO Na Or RCOO Na where, R = CH3(CH2)16
- +
When dissolved in water, it dissociates into RCOO and Na ions.
-
There are two parts in the ion RCOO ion (1) R is known as non-polar tail which is hydrophobic.
-
(2) The polar group COO is known as polar ionic head which is hydrophilic.
- -
RCOO ions are present on the surface the COO part remains in water. Hydrocarbon part R,
remains away from it on the surface.
At high concentration, they are dragged in the bulk of the solution. They associate in spherical
-
form. The hydrocarbon chains remain attracted towards the centre of the sphere. At this time COO part
remains outside the surface. This type of formation association of ions is called Ionic Micelle.
- +
Ex. Sodium lauryl Sulphate [CH3(CH2)11SO4 Na ]
253
Micelle
Stearate
ion
Water
Initial state Micelle

80. Starch solution is which type of colloid ?
(A) Multi molecular colloid (B) Macromolecular colloid
(C) Associated colloid (D) Micelle
- +
81. Which of the following statement is wrong for CH3(CH2)16COO Na ?
(A) Size of atom/ions is in range of colloid particle.
(B) It forms micelle at more than certain concentration.
(C) In micelle form polar part arrnaged towards water and hydrocarbon part is arranged towards centre.
(D) There are total 100 ions/atoms in this micelle.
82. Which of the following is correct for sodium stearate Micelle ?
(A) Head and tail both are hydrophobic. (B) Hydrophobic head and hydrophilic tail.
(C) Hydrophilic Head and hydrophobic tail. (D) Both head and tail are hydrophilic.
83. Which of the following saturated solution forms micelle at higher concentration ?
(A) Urea (B) Sodium acetate
(C) Sodium dedosile sulphate (D) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
84. Under which of the following conditions will the micelle be formed ?
(A) Below critical Micelle concentration and below Kraft temperature
(B) Above critical Micelle concentration and below Kraft temperature
(C) Above critical Micelle concentration and above Kraft temperature
(D) Below critical Micelle concentration and above Kraft temperature
- +
85. Pottasium stearate is formed by Soponification of oil or fat. Formula will be CH3-(CH2)16-COO K .
- +
In this equation (CH3) is lyphobic end and COO K is lyophilic end. So, Pottasium stearate is example
of what ?
(A) Lyophilic colloid (B) Multimolecuar colloid
(C) Macromolecuar colloid (D) Micelle
86. At constant/fixed condition and lower molar concentration which of the following surface active
substances form micelle in its aqueous solution ?
+ - - +
(A) CH3(CH2)15N (CH3)3Br (B) CH3(CH2)11OSO3 Na
- + + -
(C) CH3(CH2)6COO Na (D) CH3(CH2)11N (CH3)3Br
254
87. Consider following statement for micelle :
(i) Drastically changing properties like molar conductivity, surface tension, osmotic pressure etc.
at critical micelle concentration for surface active substance.
(ii) Surface active substance cannot form micelle at lower temperature.
(iii) Enthalpy will be negative for micelle of Aqueous solution.
Which of the above statement is true ?
(A) (i) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (i), (ii), and (iii) (D) (i) and (iii)
88 . Which of the followng method is used to remove grease with the help of soap?
(A) Adsorption (B) Emulsification (C) Coagulation (D) Floculation
89. Removal of oil by soap is which type of process ?
(A) Adsorption (B) Emulsification (C) Coagulation (D) Floculation
90. At what temperature micelle is possible ...
(A) at inversion temperature. (B) at boil temperature.
(C) at critical temperature. (D) at kraft temperature.
91. Which of the following graph is true for critical micelle temperature ?
(A) (B)
Conductivity ®
Conductivity ®
(C) (D)
CMC concentration® CMC concentration®
Conductivity ®
Conductivity ®
CMC concentration® CMC concentration®
92. Which of the following example of multimolecular colloid ?

(A) Dispersion of soap in water (B) Dispersion of protein in water
(C) Dispersion of gold in water (D) Dispersion of glue in water
255
93. Which of the following substance is not surface active substance ?
(A) CH3 (B) CH3-(CH2)14-CH2-NH2
|
CH3-(CH2)15-N+-CH2Br-
|
CH3
(C) CH3- (CH2)16- CH2OSO2-Na+ (D) OHC-(CH2)14-CH 2COO-Na+
94. Sulphur sol is which type of colloid ?
(A) Multimolecular colloid (B) Macro molecular colloid
(C) Associated colloid (D) Micelle
95. During formation of micelle...
(A) DH = -Ve, DS = -Ve (B) DH = + Ve, DS = - Ve
(C) DH = +Ve, DS = +Ve (D) DH = - Ve, DS = + Ve
Answers : 80. (B), 81. (A), 82. (C), 83. (D), 84. (B), 85. (D), 86. (A), 87. (B), 88. (B),
89. (D), 90. (D), 91. (B), 92. (C), 93. (B), 94. (A), 95. (C)
Methods of preparing colloid-sol
Colloid-Sol Preparation
¯
¯ ¯
Preparation of lyphobic sols Preparation of lyophilic sols

¯ ¯
¯ ¯ lyophilic + substance
(A) (B) ¯
Condensation Method Dispersion Method dispersion medium

¯ ¯ ¯
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ Colloid-Sol
(1) (2) (1) (2) (3)
Chemical Physical Mechanical Electric Peptization
Method Method dispersion dispersion
¯
¯ ¯
(a) (b)
By exchange Excessive
of solvent cooling
Preparation of lyophobic sol
This type of sol can be prepared by two method :
(A) Condensation Method : In this type of method atoms or molecules are attracted towards
each other to form a colloid. It contain main two types
(1) Chemical Method : Colloidal solutions can be prepared by chemical processes like double
decomposition, oxidation-reduction or hydrolysis.
As2O3 + 3H2S 
Double decomposition
→ As2O3 + 3H2O
256
SO2 + 2H2S 
oxidation → 3S + 2H2O
2AuCl3 + 3HCHO + 3H2O 
Reduction → 2Au
(s)
+ 3HCOOH + 6HCl
FeCl3 3H2O 
+ Hydrolysis
→ Fe(OH)3 + 3HCl
(2) Physical Methods :
(a) By exchange of solvent : When a true solution is mixed with other solvent in excess in which
the dissolved solute is insoluble but the sovlent is soluble a colloidal solution is formed. e.g. colloidal sol of
sulphur is obtained when excess of water is added to the solution of Sulphur prepared in alcohol.
(b) Excessive cooling : Colloidal solution of ice in an organic solvent like ether, chloroform can
be obtained by freezing the solution of water in that solvent. The molecules of water which can not
remain separate in this solution tend to associate and form particles of colloidal size. Thus sol of water is
obtained in the organic solvent.
(B) Dispersion Methods : In this type of method to large size molecules are broken into small
size particle in presence of dispersion medium.
(1) Mechanical dispersion : In this method particles of original suspension are made smaller in
presence of dispersion medium by grinding with colloidal mill and are turned into colloidal state. Such mills
are ball mills, ultrasonic disperser colloid mill.
(2) Bredigs Arc Method or Electrodispersion : This method is suitable for the preparation of
colloidal solution of metals like Au, Ag, Pt, Cu etc.
This method involves both condensation and dispersion.
Electric spark is applied between the electrodes of the metal kept in dispersion medium. High
degree of heat is produced due to the spark which evaporates the metal. Hence particles of the size of
the colloids of the metals are obtained in the medium.
(3) Peptization : The process of converting a freshly prepared precipitate into colloidal form by
addition of a suitable electrolyte is called peptization.
e.g., When aqueous solution of FeCl3 is added to freshly prepared precipitates of Fe(OH)3 and the
mixture is stirred, Fe3+ ions are adsorbed on the surface of Fe(OH)3 precipitates. Due to repulsion
between like charged particles of precipitates. They are changed to the size of colloidal particles and sol
is obtained. FeCl3 acts as peptizing agent.
Preparation of lyophilic Sol
Lyophilic sols are quite stable and can be easily prepared by shaking or warming lyophilic
substance with dispersion medium. eg. Gelatin, gum, starch, egg albumin etc.
Purification of colloidal Solution
(1) Dialysis : By using semipermeable membrane like parchment or cellophane bag to remove
ionic and other soluble impurities from sols is called dialysis
Sol containing impurities is filled in a bag of semipermeable membrance. It is dipped in a trough
filled with distilled water. Particles of electrolyte come out but the colloidal particles can not come out.
Distilled water may be purified. Distilled water is changed regularly to avoid accumulation of
diffused out impurities. A Siphon system can be arranged so that continuous purification can be
carried out.
257
If two electrodes are kept outside the bag and electric current is passed cation and anions of the
electrodes will be attracted. Rapidly to the electrods of opposite charges. This way impurity is removed
very fast. Such dialysis is called electrodialysis.
In hospital kidney dialysis works on this phenomenon.
(2) Ultra filtration : Special type of filter paper known as ultrafilter is used for filtration.
(3) Ultra Centrifugaiton : Filtration is done by ultracentrifuge machine.
Important properties of colloidal Sol
(1) Colligative Properties : As the average molecular mass of colloidal particles is very large its
mole fraction is very low in the solution. Hence noticeable change is not observed in colligative properties.
Only osmotic pressure method is used to determine the molecular mass of polymer molecules like colloids
as the changes are measurable.
(2) Optical Properties
Tyndall effect : Tyndall observed that if a strong beam of light is passed through colloidal solution
kept in a dark place, the path of the beam of light is illuminated. This phenomenon is called Tyndall effect.
True solutions do not show. Tyndall effect because the particles are so small that they can not
scatter the rays of light.
e.g., (1) when a beam of sunlight enters through a hole in dark room, the illuminated path of the light
can be seen due to presence of dust particles like colloids. (2) At night when the head light of a vehicle is
on, an illuminated path of light on the road can be seen.
(3) Mechanical Properties
Brownian movement : A British botanist named Robert Brown first observed that pollen grains of
flowers when placed on water continuously and randomly move in zigzag direction. Later on this
phenomenon was in case of colloidal particles. When observed under ultra microscope colloidal particles
were also noticed moving continuosly and randomly in zigzag direction. This movement is known as Brownian
movement after the name of Robert Brown
The following are the important results obtained from the phenomenon of Brownian motion :
(1) It provides a direct demonstration of continuous motion of the dispersion medium as postulated
by kinetic theory.
(2) Brownian movment oppose gravitational force and that is why colloid particles never settle down
in bottom that is why colloid particle get stability.
(4) Electrical Properties : Electrophoresis : Existence of positive or negative charge on colloids
is displayed by the phenomenon of electrophoresis.
A colloidal particle possesses positive or negative electric charge.
Negatively charged Colloid solution of : Metals metal sulphides, arsenious sulphide, gold, silver
paltinum acidic dyes, clays etc.
Positively charged colloid solution of : Metal oxides hydroxides like Fe(OH)3, Al(OH)3, Zirconium
hydroxide Zr(OH)4 basic dyes, haemoglobin etc.
Colloidal particles get attracted towards negative or positive electrode according to their charge.
Coagulation of Colloids
The formation of association of colloidal particle by addition of an electrolyte to form an insoluble
precipitate is called coagulation.
Flocculation : If concentration of electrolyte is less association of particle occurs but they do not
get precipitated and they can go back to the colloidal form. This phenomenon is called Flocculation.
258
Coagulation value or precipitation value of an electrolyte
The minimum amount of an electrolyte that must be added to one litre of colloidal solution so as to
cause complete coagulation is called coagulation value or precipitation value.
Hardy-Schulze rules
(1) The effective ion for coagulation of sol is the one that possesses opposite electric charge com-
pared to that on colloidal particles.
(2) The coagulation power of an electrolyte is in the fourth power of the valency of the coagulating ion.
The order of coagulating power of positively charged ions is
monovalent ion < bivalent ion < trivalent ion
Na+ < Ba
2+
< Fe
3+
Similarly the order of coagulating power of negatively charged ions is

monovalent ion < bivalent ion < trivalent ion
Cl- < SO42- < PO43-
96. Digestion of fat in body is which type of process ?
(A) Emulsification (B) Peptization (C) Flocculation (D) Brownian motion
97. The process of converting a freshly prepared. Precipitate into colloidal form by addition of suitable
electrolyte is called ....... .
(A) Coagulation (B) Flocculation (C) Tyndall effect (D) Brownian motion
98. Peptization process is...
(A) conversion of colloid into precipitation.
(B) conversion of precipitate into colloid.
(C) formation of true solution by coagulated particle.
(D) making true solution by dissolving precipitation.
99. Which one of the following is useful for coagulation of Fe(OH)3 colloid solution ?
(A) Na3PO4 (B) Na2SO4 (C) KCl (D) K2CO3
100. Transfer of colloidal particle in colloidal solution is done by which of the following process ?
(A) Brownian movement (B) Electro dilysis (C) Electrophoresis (D) Tyndall effect
101. Which of the following process is useful for making gold colloid ?
(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction
(C) Hydrolysis (D)Double-decomposition
102. Bredigs arc method is not useful for making which of the following colloidal solution ?
(A) Gold (B) Silver (C) Iron (D) Pt
103. Which of the following colloid is made by both electronic dispersion and reduction process ?
(A) Sulphur (B) Fe(OH)3 (C) Gold (D) As2S3
104. Placing a colloid sol under electric field then particle moving towards Anode. Study of coagulation
of this colloid is done by NaCl, BaCl2 and AlCl3 solution then what is true order of coagulation
strength ?
(A) NaCl > BaCl2 > AlCl3 (B) BaCl2 > AlCl3 > NaCl
(C) AlCl3 > BaCl2 > NaCl (D) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3
105. Which of the following has highest value of coagulation for Fe(OH)3 colloidal solution ?
(A) NaCl (B) Na2S (C) (NH4)3PO4 (D) K2SO4
259
106. Addition of 0.73 gm of HCl into 200 ml positive charge colloid without changing its volume than
what is coagulation value of HCl ?
(A) 0.365 (B) 36.5 (C) 100 (D) 150
107. Coagulation value of AlCl3 and NaCl is 0.093 and 52. What is coagulation tendency of AlCl3 in
comparison to NaCl ?
(A) (52 ´ 0.093) times (B) (52/0.093) times (C) (0.093/52) times (D) (52 - 0.093) times
108. Blue colour of sky is due to ?
(A) Scattering of light by dust particle. (B) Scattering of Sun light.
(C) Scattering of light by ozone layer. (D) Above all
109. Which of the following process is not useful in making colloidal sol ?
(A) Electronic dispersion (B) Peptization
(C) Coagulation (D) Mechanical dispersion
110. To precipitate 10 litre solution in 2 hour required 0.585 gm of NaCl, then what is coagulation value
of NaCl ?
(A) 0.585 (B) 0.0585 (C) 0.1 (D) 1.0
111. Tyndall effect will be maximum effective on ?
(A) Hydrophillic sol (B) Hydrophobic sol (C) Starch sol (D) (B) and (C) Both
112. Hardy-Schulz rules prove that....,
(A) the coagulation power of an electrolyte is in the fourth power of the valency of the coagulating ion.
(B) gold number of solution should be zero.
(C) dispersion medium and dispersion phase both contain same charge.
(D) micelle will coagulate only in presence of surface active substance.
113. Which of the following factor is responsible for delta where river meets the sea ?
(A) Emulcification (B) Preparation of colloid
(C) Coagulation (D) Peptization
114. To stop the bleeding FeCl3 is used because ....
(A) Fe3+ ion coagulate negative charge in blood.
(B) Fe3+ ion coagulate positive charge in blood.
(C) Cl- ion coagulate positive ion in blood.
(D) Cl- ion coagulate negative charge in blood.
115. Which of the following shows Tyndall effect ?
(A) Soap solution at lower critical Micelle temperature.
(B) Soap solution at high critical Micelle temperature.
(C) Aqueous solution of NaCl .
(D) Aqueous solution of C12H22O11.
AgI
116. Which of the following electrolytes coagulation value is maximum for solution of ?
Ag +
(A) Na2S (B) Na3PO4 (C) Na2SO4 (D) NaCl

117. How will you write KI in AgNO3 solution ?
(A) AgI I- (B) AgI Ag+ (C) AgI NO3- (D) NO3- AgI Ag+
260
118. Particles of a colloidal solution moves towards cathode by attraction to cathode. What is the
correct order of colloidal strength if we study those colloide by K 2SO 4 (I), Na 3PO 4 (II),
K4[Fe(CN)6 (III) and NaCl (IV) ?
(A) (I) > (II) > (III) > (IV) (B) (III) > (II) > (I) > (IV)
(C) (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV) (D) (IV) > (III) > (I) > (II)
119. Which of the following is not included into coagulation ?
(A) Coagulation of blood by FeCl3 sol
(B) Formation of Delta
(C) Purification of water by potash alum
(D) Peptization
Answers : 96. (B), 97. (A), 98. (B), 99. (A), 100. (C), 101. (B), 102. (C), 103. (C),
104. (C), 105. (A), 106. (C), 107. (B), 108. (A), 109. (C), 110. (D), 111. (B),
112. (A), 113. (C), 114. (A), 115. (B), 116. (B), 117. (B), 118. (B), 119. (D)
Protecting Colloid and Gold Number

Protecting Colloid : Lyophobic colloid like gold and silver metal can be prepared by adding
lyophilic colloid like gelatin and albumin in it.
Added lyophilic colloid make a layer over lyophobic colloid and protecting it by electrolytes.
By adding lyophic colloid into lyophobic colloid precipitation process stops that is called protection.
Colloid which stops the coagulation of sol that colloid is called Protecting Colloid.
Gold Number : Protective power of colloids is measured by gold number.
Gold number of some protective colloids are given below :
Colloid gold number

Gelatin 0.005 - 0.01
casein 0.01 - 0.02
Haemoglobin 0.03 - 0.07
egg albumin 0.1 - 0.2
Gum orabic 0.15 - 0.25
starch 20 - 25
Dextrin 6 - 20
Value of gold number smaller, higher is value of protective power

So, gold number is in reciprocal of protective power.
261
120. Gold number is ......
(A) to prevent coagulation of 10 ml Fe(OH)3 sol by adding 10% NaCl, that is called gold number.
(B) to prevent coagulation of 10 ml gold sol by adding 10% NaCl solution, the required protective
colloids concentration is called gold number.
(C) ammount of gold required in milligram for coagulation of lyophilic colloid is called gold number.
(D) ammount of colloid required for coagulation of electrolyte is called gold number.
121. Gold number of protective colloid A,B, C and D is respectivity 0.50, 0.04, 0.10 and 0.005. then
which of the following order of protective power of colloid is true ?
(A) C < B < D < A (B) A < C < B < D (C) B < D < A < C (D) D < A < C < B
122. 0.25 gm starch is required to prevent coagulation of 100 ml gold sol by 1 ml 10% NaCl solution.
What is the gold number of starch ?
(A) 25 (B) 250 (C) 2.5 (D) 0.25
123. Gold number of some protective colloids are given below :
Colloid sol. Gold number
A 0.01
B 2.5
C 2.0
Which of the following is true for protective colloid.
(A) C > B > A (B) A > B > C (C) A = B = C (D) B > A > C
124. Gold number is related with which of the following ?
(A) Colloid (B) Radio activity (C) gas equation (D) Kinetic energy
125. Gold number can measure...
(A) protection of lyophilic colloid over lyophobic colloid.
(B) protection of lyophobic colloid over lyophiliz colloid.
(C) miligrams of gold colloid in standard red gold sol.
(D) stability of gold colloid sol
126. Gold number of gelatin, haemoglobin and sodium acetate is 0.005, 0.05 and 0.7 respectivly then what
will be the correct order of their protective power.
(A) Gelatin < Heamoglobin < Sodium acetate (B) Gelatin > Heamoglobin > sodium acetate
(C) Heamoglobin > Gelatin > Sodium acetate (D) Sodium Acetate > gelatin > Heamoglobin
127. 0.25 gm starch is required to prevent coagulation of gold sol, then what is the gold number of starch ?
(A) 0.025 (B) 0.25 (C) 2.55 (D) 250
128. Gold number of A, B, C and D is respectivily 0.04, 0.002, 10 and 25 which of the following order is
true for protective power of A, B, C and D ?
(A) A > B > C > D (B) B > A > C > D (C) D > C > B > A (D) C > A > B > D
129. Gold number is related with which of the following ?
(A) Only lyphobic colloid. (B) Only lyophilic colloid.
(C) lyophilic and lyophobic colloid both. (D) None of above.
262
130. Which of the following is a very good colloid ?
(A) Gelatin (gold no = 0.005) (B) Gum arabic (gold number = 0.15)
(C) Egg albumin (gold no. = 0.008) (D) None of above
131. Which of the following has least gold number ?
(A) Gelatin (B) Starch (C) Albumin (D) Blood
Answers : 120. (B), 121. (B), 122. (A), 123. (B), 124. (A), 125. (A), 126. (B), 127. (D),
128. (B), 129. (B), 130. (A), 131. (A)
Emulsion and their characteristics

Emulsion : Emulsions are colloids in which dispersion medium and dispersed phase both are in
liquid form.
Emulsion can be classified into two types :
(1) Oil in water emulsion : In this type of emulsions oil acts as dispersed phase and water acts as
dispersion medium. e.g. milk, vanishing cream, hair cream, most of the ointments.
(2) Water in oil emulsion : In this type of emulsions, water is the dispersed phase and oil acts as
dispersion medium.
Tests of emulsions
(1) Dye test : Certain dyes soluble in oil are added to emulsion. If the back ground becomes
coloured it is water in oil type emulsion. If coloured droplets or small coloured particles are formed it is oil
in water type emulsion.
(2) Dilution Test : If dilution of emulsion with water is possible, then it can be concluded, that
dispersion medium is water and hence it is oil in water type emulsion. If water added forms a separate
layer, it is water in oil type emulsion.
Emulsification : The method of preparing emulsion is called emulsification.
Emulsifying Agent : For stabilizing an emulsion, a third substance is added in small portion. It is
called emulsifier or emlsifying Agent.
e.g., soaps, detergents, protein etc.
In presence of soluble soap oil in water type emulsion is favoured.
In presence of insoluble soap, water in oil type emulsion is favoured.
In presence of insoluble soap like emulsifier favour water in oil emulsition.
De-emulsification : Separation of an emulsion into its constituent liquid is called de-emulsification.
e.g., freezing, boiling, centrifugation and electrostatic precipitator.
Uses of colloids : Colloids and emulsions are extensively used in everyday life and industries.
Some of them are as follows :
(1) Rubber plating (2) disposal (3) cottrell smoke precipitator (4) preparation of nano materials
(5) In medicines (6) Germicides (7) In metallurgy (8) Construction of roads.
132. Vanishing cream is which type of emulsion ?

(A) oil/oil (B) water/water (C) oil/water (D) water/oil
133. Which of the following is emulsifing agent ?
(A) Milk (B) Agar (C) Cream (D) Coodliver oil
263
134. Emulsiflying agent is ...
(A) to stablize emulsion (B) to make emulsion homogeneous
(C) to make coagulation (D) to inspire liquid to liquid dispersion
135. Butter is what type of colloid ?
(A) Liquid in solid (B) Solid in Liquid (C) Liquid in Liquid (D) Liquid in gas
136. Cow milk is a netural emulsion. Which is stabilized by which of the following ?
(A) fat (B) water (C) protein (D) Mg2+
137. Which of the following is used for making water/oil emulsion ?
(A) Protein (B) Gum (C) Insoluble soap (D) Soluble soap
138. Which of the following is used to preserve milk for long time ?
(A) Formic acid solution (B) Formaldehyde solution
(C) Acetic acid solution (D) Acetaldehyde solution
139. If gelatin is added to ice cream then precipitation occurs. So what is the role of gelatin in it ?
(A) Coagulating agent (B) Precipitating agent (C) Emulsifying agent (D) Flocculating agent
140. By ...... and ...... we can divide Emulsion.
(I) By heating it (II) Adding despersion medium in more proportion
(III) By cooling (IV) By adding emulsifier
Which of the following will be correct?
(A) (I) and (II) (B) (II) and (III) (C) (II) and (IV) (D) (I), (II) and (III)
141. Hair cream is an example of ?
(A) Gel (B) Foam (C) Aerosol (D) Emulsion
142. Which of the following pair is appropriate ?
(A) Emulsion - Smoke (B) Gel - Butter (C) Aerosol - Hair cream (D) Foam - Fog
143. Which of the following used as emulsifying agent ?
(A) Soap (B) Detergent (C) Lyophilic sol (D) Above all
144. Which of the following is oil/water emulsion ?
(A) Milk (B) Vanishing cream (C) Butter (D) Codliver oil
145. Which of the following is not an emulsion ?
(A) Butter (B) ice cream (C) Milk (D) Cloud
146. Whipped cream is example of ?
dispersion medium dispersion phase
(A) Gas Liquid
(B) Liquid Gas
(C) Liquid Liquid
(D) Liquid Solid
147. Which of the following is uses of colloid ?

(A) Making of nano compound (B) Rubber platting
(C) Sewage system (D) All above
148. Which of the following is respectively example of dispersion medium and despersion phase in soap ?
(A) Gas and liquid (B) Liquid and gas (C) Gas and solid (D) Solid and liquid
264
Answes : 132. (C), 133. (B), 134. (A), 135. (C), 136. (B), 137. (C), 138. (B), 139. (C),
140. (C), 141. (D), 142. (B), 143. (D), 144. (A), 145. (D), 146. (B), 147. (D),
148. (A)
The questions given below consist of an Assertion (A) and the Reason (R). Use the
following keys to choose the appropriate answer :
(A) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) If both (A) and (R) are correct R is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) If (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(D) If (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
1
x
149. Assertion (A) : According to Fruendlich adsorption isotherm, = K Pn
m
Reason (R) : Isotherm shows that proportion of adsorbed gas on adsorbent is depends upon
temperature.
150. Assertion (A) : Coagulation tendency of Al3+ is more than that of Na+
Reason (R) : Charge on ion is more, more is its coagulation tendency.
151. Assertion (A) : ZSM5 is used as catalyst in petrochemical.
Reason (R) : Zeolite is three dimentional silicate in which Al atoms substitute Si atoms.
152. Assertion (A) : Soap is used for preparation of stable emulsion.
Reason (R) : Soap decreases interfacial tension between oil and water.
153. Assertion (A) : - COO- group is on surface of water in micelle of sodium stearate.
Reason (R) : Surface tension decreases by adding stearate in water.
154. Assertion (A) : Conversion of fresh precipitate into colloid is called peptization.
Reason (R) : It is possible by gathering same ions.
155. Assertion (A) : Aqueous solution of gold is of red colour.
Reason (R) : Colour of gold is due to light scattering.
156. Assertion (A) : for coagulation of As2S3, Fe3+ ion is used.
Reason (R) : Fe3+ gives Fe2S3 by reacting with As2S3.

157. Assertion (A) : Lyophilic colloid is reversible sol.
Reason (R) : Lyophic sol is hydrophilic.
158. Assertion (A) : Colloid particle shows Brownian movement.
Reason (R) : Brownian movement are produced because of collision between colloid
particle and particle in dispersion medium.
159. Assertion (A) : NH3 is more adsorbed on charcoal than CO2.
Reason (R) : NH3 is polar.
160. Assertion (A) : Physical adsorption is not possible on surface.
Reason (R) : In this process bonds of adsorbed molecules are broken.
265
161. Assertion (A) : Specific catalyst is for specific reaction, so use of any catalyst is useless.
Reason (R) : Rate of reaction of enzyme catalyst is more between 5 to 7 pH.
162. Assertion (A) : Coagulation of As2S3 is very fast with BaCl2 instead of 0.1 M NaCl.
Reason (R) : BaCl2 produces double Cl ion then NaCl.
163. Assertion (A) : Micelle of sodium stearate in water is due to COO group on surface.
Reason (R) : By adding sodium stearate surface tension of water decreases.
164. Assertion (A) : For coagulation positive colloid sol PO43 is very useful than SO42 and Cl.
Reason (R) : It follows Hardy and Schulze rule.
165. Assertion (A) : Viscocity of liquid decreases by increasing temperature.
Reason (R) : Evaporation increases by increasing temperature.
Answers : 149. (C), 150. (A), 151. (B), 152. (A), 153. (A), 154. (B), 155. (A), 156. (B),
157. (B), 158. (A), 159. (C), 160. (C), 161. (C), 162. (B), 163. (A), 164. (A),
165. (B)
Match the following :

166. Match column - I with column-II by selecting correct options :
Column-I Column-II
(1) Smoke (p) Foam
(2) Butter (q) Emulsion
(3) Hair cream (r) Aerosol
(4) Whipped cream (s) Jell
(A) (1)-(r), (2)-(s), (3)-(q), (4)-(p) (B) (1)-(r), (2)-(q), (3)-(s), (4)-(p)
(C) (1)-(p), (2)-(s), (3)-(q), (4)-(r) (D) (1)-(s), (2)-(p), (3)-(r), (4)-(q)
Column-I Column-II
(a) Stirring egg white in water (p) Multimolecular colloid
(b) Mercury vapour passing through cold water (q) Macromolecular colloid
(c) Stirring cellulose nitrate with water (r) Associated colloid
(d) Disolving detergent in water (s) colloid
(A) (a)-(p), (b)-(q), (c)-(r), (d)-(s) (B) (a)-(r), (b)-(p), (c)-(s), (d)-(q)
(C) (a)-(s), (b)-(p), (c)-(r), (d)-(q) (D) (a)-(q), (b)-(p), (c)-(s), (d)-(r)
266
168. Select proper catalyst for proper reactant and product :
Column-I Column-II
(1) Methanol + CO ® Acetic acid (a) [Rh(CO)2I2]
(2) Propelene + NH3 + O2 ® Aerylonitrile (b) Bismuth molybdenum
(3) Ethylene ® High density polyethene (c) Organochromium and Titanium
(4) Preparation of H2SO4by lead chamber (d) No gas
process
(A) (1)-(a), (2)-(b), (3)-(c), (4)-(d) (B) (1)-(d), (2)-(c), (3)-(b), (4)-(a)
(C) (1)-(a), (2)-(b), (3)-(c), (4)-(d) (D) (1)-(b), (2)-(c), (3)-(d), (4)-(a)
Column-I Column-II
(1) On handle of kitchenware and other (p) cottrel smoke

things deposition of colloid. precipitor
(2) Dispersion of negative ion of carbon (q) rubber plating
colloid particle
(3) Reversible micelle as catalyst (r) sewage system
(4) Removal of charge colloid particle of dirt (s) preparation in nano
with the help of electrodes substance.
(A) (1)-(p), (2)-(q), (3)-(r), (4)-(s) (B) (1)-(q), (2)-(p), (3)-(s), (4)-(r)
(C) (1)-(s), (2)-(r), (3)-(q), (4)-(p) (D) (1)-(r), (2)-(s), (3)-(p), (4)-(q)
Column-I Column-II
(1) for separation of ideal gases in Dewars process (a) Activated charcoal
(2) for adsorption of moisture from electronic (b) Silica gel
devices
(3) for concentration of sulphide ore (c) Terpentine or pine oil
(4) titration of AgNO3 with Halide (d) Fluorescent indicator
(A) (1)-(c), (2)-(d), (3)-(b), (4)-(a) (B) (1)-(d), (2)-(a), (3)-(c), (4)-(b)
(C) (1)-(a), (2)-(b), (3)-(c), (4)-(d) (D) (1)-(b), (2)-(c), (3)-(d), (4)-(a)
267
171. Select proper catalyst for proper reaction by matching Column-I and Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
(1) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) ® 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) (a) Platinized asbestos.
2NO(g) + O2(g) ® 2NO2(g)
4NO2(g) + 2H2O(l) + O2(g) ® 4HNO3(aq)
(2) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ® 2SO3(g) (b) V2O5
SO3(g) + H2SO4(g) ® H2S2O7(l)
H2S2O7(l) + H2O(l) ® 2H2SO4(aq)
(3) CO(g) + 2H2(g) ® CH3OH(l) (c) [Cu / ZnO - Cr2O3]
(4) 2HI(s) ® H2(g) + I2(g) (d) Au(s) (Solid gold)
(A) (1)-(a), (2)-(b), (3)-(c), (4)-(d) (B) (1)-(b), (2)-(c), (3)-(d), (4)-(a)
(C) (1)-(c), (2)-(d), (3)-(a), (4)-(b) (D) (1)-(d), (2)-(a), (3)-(b), (4)-(c)
Answers : 166. (A), 167. (D), 168. (A), 169. (B), 170. (C), 171. (A)
Questions based on passage

Passage 1
At constant temperature adsorption of different gases on one adsorbent is different. Factors affecting
on adsorption like nature of adsorbed gas and nature of adsorbent is depends upon critical temperature of
gas or Van der waals force a. But adsorption may be physical phenomenon or chemical phenomenon.
Concentration of solution depends upon amount of substance like adsorption value of gas depends upon
pressure of adsorbed gas. Study of this topic is done by Fruendlich and Langmuir. Mathematical equation
given by them one known as Fruendlich adsorption isotherm and Langmuir adsorption isotherm which is as
follows :
(1) Fruendlich adsorption isotherm
1
x
= KP n
m
(2) Langmuir adsorption isotherm
x ap x
=
1 + bp where, = ammount of adsorption, p = pressure of gas
m m
a and b are constant, m = weight of adsorbent,
268
172. Which of the following statement is true ?
(A) Critical temperature low, Adsorption will be high.
(B) Critical temperature high. Adsorption will be high.
(C) For gas value of Van-der waals force a is low, adsorption will be low.
(D) Adsorption is not possible at more than critical temperature.
173. Which of the following value will be zero during adsorption ?
(A) DG (B) DS (C) DH (D) all of above
(A) Physical adsorption is unimolecular while chemical adsorption is multi-molecular.
(B) Physical adsorption is multi molecular while chemical adsorption is uni-molecular.
(C) Both physical and chemical adsorption are uni molecular.
(D) Both physical and chemical adsorption are multimolecular.
175. Graph of
m
x
® 1
p will be linear. What is the value of slope and inter cept ?
a 1 1 b 1 b 1 a
(A) , (B) , (C) , (D) ,
b a a a b a b b
Passage 2
A colloidal particle possesses positive or negative electric charge. The polarity of the sol not only
depends on the dispersing phase but also on dispersion medium which has equal but opposite charge.
Hence, colloidal system is neutral. Colloidal particles possesing similar electric charge experience repulsion.
Hence they are not able to form large molecule by combination. So the sol remains stable and the colloid
particles accroding to their electric charge are attracted towards positive or negative electrode under the
effect of electric field this phenomenon is called electrophoresis. But for the stability of the colloids presence
of electrolyte in small proportion is essential is if the concentration of electrolyte is increased, then the
colloid particles in the solution attract the ions of opposite electric charge and become neutral. Neutral
particles combine with each other and start forming association and become larger in size. As a result they
get precipitated and separate from colloidal solution. The formation of association of colloid particles by
addition of electrolyte to form an insoluble precipitate is called coagulation. The coagulation values of
different electrolytes are different. Scientists Hardy and Schulze studied the behaviour of different electrolytes,
the two laws that they have given are as follows :
(1) The effective ion for the coagulation of sol is that which possesses opposite electric charge
compared to electric charge of colloidal particles.
(2) The coagulating power of the electrolyes is in the fourth power of the valency of the coagulating ions.
Similarly, precipitation due to common ion, due to electrophoresis, heating or cooling or dialysis coagulation
does not occur.
176. Which of the following process is useful to decide charge of positive and negative of colloidal
particle ?
(A) Electrodialysis (B) Electrophoresis
(C) Bredigs Arc Method (D) Electric adsorption
177. Coagulation value of As2S3 colloide sol is respectively 53 and 0.093 milimol litre so, ......
(A) coagulation tendency of AlCl3 is 51 times more then NaCl.
(B) coagulation tendency of NaCl is 548 times more then AlCl3.
(C) coagulation tendency of AlCl3 is 548 times more than NaCl.
(D) ratio of coagulation tendency of AlCl3 : NaCl, is 51 : 0.093.
269
178. Which of the following electrolyte is very effective for colloid sol of [Fe(OH)3] ?
(A) K3[Fe(CN)6] (B) Na2C2O4 (C) K2SO4 (D) KCl
179. Stability of Colloidal sol depends on .....
(A) size of colloidal particle
(B) charge of colloidal particle
(C) motion of colloidal particle under electric field
(D) tendency to show Tyndall effect.
180. Which of the following electrolyte is more effective for As2S3 colloid sol ?
(A) AlCl3 (B) MgSO4 (C) K3[Fe(CN)6] (D) KCl
passage : 3
According to scientist Boradly Colloidal particles are classified into three types. Multimolecular,
macromolecular and associated colloids. They are lyophilic or lyophobic colloids. Lyophilic colloid sol can
be obtained directly while Lyophobic sol can be obtained by dispersion like method. The formation of
association of colloid particles by addition of electrolyte to undergo coagulation. Generally lyophobic colloid
is less stable; but protective tendency of lyophilic colloid is indicated by gold number.
181. Which of the following is not a macro molecular colloid ?
(A) Protein in water (B) Rubber in benzene (C) Starch in water (D) Soap solution
182. What is range of critical micelle concentration of soap ?
(A) 105 - 104M (B) 104 - 103M (C) 103 - 102M (D) 102 - 101M
183. What is charge of colloidal particle of starch sol ?
(A) Positive charge (B) Negative charge

(C) Neutral (D) Positive or negative charge
184. When SnO2 is stired with little NaOH sol sodium stanet sol is obtained, then which of the following
will be effective for its coagulation ?
(A) Na 3PO 4 (B) AlCl3 (C) K3[Fe(CN)6] (D) HCl
185. 0.1 gram starch of potato is needed for preventing 50 ml gold colloid sol from coagulation then what
is gold number of potato starch ?
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C)20 (D) 25
Answers : 172. (B), 173. (D), 174. (B), 175. (B), 176. (B), 177. (C), 178. (A), 179. (B),
180. (D), 181. (D), 182. (B), 183. (B), 184. (B), 185. (C)
270
Questions baed on true and false statements :
186. (I) Cleaning by soap results into preparation of associated colloid.
(II) To stabilize emulsion a compound is added such a compound is called emulsifier.
(III) FeCl3 is used in laboratory to coagulate blood from body because Fe3+ coagulates negative
charge blood.
(IV) By adding two-three drops of HCl into freshly prepared Fe(OH)3 solution, solution turns red
such process is called peptization.
(A) FFTT (B) TTTT (C) FFFF (D) TFTF
x
187. (I) In Freundlich adsorption isotherm graph of log ® log p gives a straight line
m
(II) Silica gel is used to generate high vaccum

(III) Catalyst decreases activation energy means decrease gap of status energy that is why rate of
reaction increases.
(IV) Invertase enzyme is used for conversion of glucose into ethanol and CO2 gas.
(A) FTFT (B) TTFF (C) TFTF (D) FFTT
188. (I) 298-310 K temperature is best for enzyme catalyst.
(II) Foam rubber is solid sol colloid.
(III) Sulfur colloid can be made up by hydrolysis.
(IV) insoluble soap fever water in oil emulsion.
(A) TTFF (B) FFTT (C) FFFF (D) TTTT
189 . (I ) For dialysis going on adding pure water in the container and removing impure water is called
syphen system.
(II) Physical adsorption occurs at low temperature, on increasing temperature adsorption decreases.
(III) Chemical adsorption enthalpy value, is bwetween 20 to 40 KJ mole1 and it is negative.
(IV) Butter is oil in water type emulsion.
(A) FTFT (B) FFTT (C) TFTF (D) TTFF
190. (I) Because of Tyndall effect colloid particle resist against gravitational force
(II) Colloidal solution of (Zr(OH)3) is negative charge.
(III) Metals and their sulphide can be mixed with dispersion medium and form lyophobic colloid.
(IV) Reaction can be done in specific way then specific product can be form that is called selectivity.
(A) FFTT (B) TFTF (C) TTFF (D) FTFT
Answers : 186. (B), 187. (C), 188. (A), 189. (D), 190. (A)
271
More than one answer :
191. Match column-I with column-II by selecting correct options :
Column-I Column-II
(A) Whipped cream (p) Emulsion
(B) Medicines (q) Sol
(C) Cell fluids (r) Colloid in which gas is in dispersion phase
(C) Foam (s) Colloid in which liquid is in dispersion phase
(A) (A)-(s), (B)-(p)(s), (C)-(q)(s), (D)-(r) (B) (A)-(r)(p), (B)-(q), (C)-(p)(s), (D)-(r)
(C) (A)-(s), (B)-(s)(r), (C)-(-q), (D)-(s) (D) (A)-(p), (B)-(q)(r), (C)-(p)(q), (D)-(s)
192. Match column-I with column-II by selecting correct options :
Column-I Column-II
(A) Lyophobic colloid (p) fat dispersed in water
(B) Lyophilic colloid (q) at lower concentration act as elecrolyte and high
concentration act as colloid praticle.
(C) Micelle (r) electrolyte
(D) Emulsion (s) Tyndall effect
(A) (A)-(p), (B)-(q), (C)-(r) (D)-(r)(s) (B) (A)-(r)(s), (B)-(r), (C)-(q), (D)-(p)
(C) (A)-(s)(p), (B)-(p), (C)-(q), (D)-(p)(q) (D) (A)-(q)(r), (B)-(p),(s), (C)-(B), (D)-(p)
(A) Salicylic acid (p) Produced negative charged colloid sol
(B) As 2S 3 (q) Macromolecular colloid
(C) Glue (r) Prepare lyophobic colloid sol
(D) Gold (s) Non-elastic gel
(A) (A)-(r)(s), (B)-(q)(r), (C)-(p)(s), (D)-(q)(r)
(B) (A)-(q)(r), (B)-(p)(s), (C)-(r), (D)-(p)(q)
(C) (A)-(s)(r), (B)-(p)(q), (C)-(q)(r), (D)-(p)(s)
(D) (A)-(p)(s), (B)-(p)(r), (C)-(p)(q), (D)-(p)(r)
272
(A) Lead chamber process for production of H2SO4 (p) solid catalyst
(B) Decomposition of (H3PO4) in negative (q) negative catalyst

catalyst presence of H2O2
(C) Catalytic hydrolysis of ester (r) homogeneous catalyst
(D) Bosch process in production of H2 (s) heterogeneous catalyst
(Bosch Process) (t) auto Catalysis
(A) (A)-(p)(r), (B)-(q)(r), (C)-(r)(t), (D)-(p)(s)

(B) (A)-(q)(s), (B)-(p)(s), (C)-(s)(r), (D)-(p)(r)
(C) (A)-(r)(t), (B)-(p)(s), (C)-(r)(s), (D)-(s)(t)
(D) (A)-(p)(s), (B)-(r)(t), (C)-(q)(r), (D)-(p)(r)
(A) Lyophilic colloid (p) light scattering

(B) Lyophobic colloid (q) naturally irreversible
(C) Macromolecule colloid (r) act as a protective colloid
(D) Associated colloid (s) act as a Emulcifying Agent
(A) (A)-(p)(r), (B)-(p)(q), (C)-(p)(r)(s), (D)-(p)(s)
(B) (A)-(q)(p), (B)-(p)(r), (C)-(q)(p)(s), (D)-(q)(r)
(C) (A)-(p)(s), (B)-(r)(s), (C)-(p)(s)(r), (D)-(q)(p)
(D) (A)-(s)(r), (B)-(p), (C)-(p)(s), (D)-(q)(p)(r)
Answers : 191. (A), 192. (B), 193. (D), 194. (A), 195. (A)
Question according to integer (0 to 9). Answers of following questions are between 0 to 9

number. By deciding answers give it proper method like answers of questions 1 to 4 are 4, 0,
9 and 2.
196. 2 milligram glue is added to 100 ml red gold sol before 10 ml. 10% NaCl to prevent from coagulation
then what is protective tendency ?
197. How many negative charged colloid sol in following example ?
gold sol, Fe(OH)3 sol, Al2O3.xH2O sol, As2S3 sol, Starch colloid sol, salisilic sol, congoRed sol, Persian
blue sol, Hemoglobin
198. 0.525 gram charcoal added in 1 M H2C2O4 and stired well. So after adsorption concentration of
solution is 0.5 M. So how many, kilogram Oxalic acid is adsorbed per gram of charcoal.?
273
199. How many of them are Aerosols from the following ?
Paints, Milk, Smoke, Dust, Foam rubber, Cheese, Fog, Clouds, Insectisides, Sprays, Mist.
200. 0.16 M electolyte required for coagulation of 100 mili colloid sol than what is flocculation value for
electrolyte ?
(x)
201. In one experiment of adsoption graph of m log p will be straight line, and slope will be 45o and
then value of intercept will be 0.3010, than how much gram gas be adsorbed at 2 atmosphere
pressure ?
202. Density of silver is 10.5 gram/cm3. Number of silver molecule on 1012 m2 surface is y ´ 10x. Then
what is value of x ?
203. How many of them are emulsions from the following ?
cold cream, butter, codliver oil, hair cream, milk, protein, glue, agar, gelatin, rubber, soap foam, cataclysm,
pyumic stone.
Answers : 196. (5), 197. (5), 198. (6), 199. (6), 200. (8), 201. (4), 202. (7), 203. (6).
274
11 Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
The English, Physicist, Henry Moseley observed regularity in characteristics of x-ray spectra of the
elements.
Henry Moseley plotted two types of graphs v → Z and v → A .
Where, v is frequency of x-rays emitted.
Graph of v → Z was found to be a straight line but graph v → A was not found to be straight line.
It indicated that atomic number is the fundamental property and not the atomic weight.
As a result, periodic law of Mendeleev was corrected by putting the word atomic number instead of
atomic weight.
It is known as modern periodic law. It can be stated that :
The physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic function of their atomic
numbers.
Elements are classified into groups and periods according to increasing order of their atomic number and
electronic configuration in their ourtermost orbit that classification called modern periodic table.
Period No. of elements Name of period according Elements of the period and electron
no. in period to no. of element configuration in their outermost orbit
1. 2 very small period Hydrogen (1s1) to Helium (1s2)
2. 8 first small period Lithium (2s1) Neon (2s2 2p6)
3. 8 second small period Sodium (3s1) Argon (3s2 3p6)
4. 18 first long period Pottasium (4s1) to Krypton (4s2 4s6)
5. 18 second long period Rubidium (5s1) to Xenon (5s2 5p6)
6. 32 first very long period Cesium (6s1) to Radon (6s2 6p6)
7. Incomplete second very long period Francium (7s1) to incomplete
Types of Elements : s-, p-, d-, f-blocks

The s-block The d-block The p-block
 group − 2 
(
group − 1
alka li metals )  alka li ne 
 earth metals 
 
(group 3 to group 12) (group 13 to group 18)
The last electron elements in which last electron fill The last electron enters into p-orbital.
enters into S orbital. in d-orbital are known as d-block Electronic configuration : ns2 np1 to
element ns2np6
Electronic configuration Electronic configuration : Group 16 elements are known as

110 12
of outermost orbit of (n 1) d ns chalcogen.
12
elements are ns
They are reactive metals Four series are available for these Group 17 elements are known as
with low ionization Enthalpy. elements. which is in period 4, 5, 6 and 7. Halogen.
These elements are transition metals. All orbitals of valence shell of elements
Most of the elements will give colour in of group 18 are completely fill with
aqueous solution. electrons. Hence these elements do
not gain or lose electrons. These
gaseous element are known as noble
gases.
275
The f block (inner transition elements)
Electronic configuration : (n 2)f114 (n 1) d01 ns2
Lanthanoids Ce(Z = 58) to Lu(Z = 71), Common electronic configuration : [Xe] 4f n5d016S2
where n = 1 to 14
Actinoids Th(Z = 90) to Lr(Z = 103), Common electronic configuration : [Rn] 5f n6d027s2
where n = 1 to 14
Due to electronic configuration of helium, it should be the element of s block, but its place is
considered in group 18 of p-block in the periodic table.
Electronic configuration of Hydrogen is 1s1. So it can be placed in group 1 but it can achieve
the electronic configuration of noble gas helium by gaining one electron. Thus it behaviour is similar
to elements of group 17. Hence as a special case Hydrogen is placed separately in the middle at the
top of the periodic table.
Nomenclature of elements with Atomic Numbers (Z) > 100
Notation for IUPAC Nomenclature of elements have atomic number more than 100.
Digit Name Abbreviation Z Name Symbol IUPAC official Name IUPAC symbol
0 nil n 101 Unnilunium Unu Mendelevium Md
1 un u 102 Unnilbium Unb Nobelium No
2 bi b 103 Unniltrium Unt Low rencium Lr
3 tri t 104 Unnilquadium Unq Ruther fordium Rf
4 quad q 105 Unnilpentium Unp Dubnium Db
5 pent p 106 Unnilhexium Unh Seaborgium Sg
6 hex h 107 Unnilseptium Uns Bohrium Bh
7 sept s 108 Unniloctium Uno Hassium Hs
8 oct o 109 Unnilennium Une Meitnerium Mt
9 enn e 110 Ununnillium Uun Darmstadium Ds
111 Unununnium Uuu Rontgenium Rg
112 Ununbium Uub Copernisium Cn
113 Ununtrium Uut
114 Ununquadium Unq
115 Ununpentium Uup
116 Ununhexium Uuh
117 Ununseptium Uus
118 Ununoctium Uuo
1. Which of the following graph is straight line drawn by Moseley ? v and l are frequency and wave
length respectively ?
(A) v → atomic number (B) v → Atomic mass
(C) l → Atomic number (D) l → Atomic mass
276
2. Why atomic number is more useful than atomic mass in periodic law ? or why atomic
number was the fundamental property and not the atomic weight ?
(A) graph of v → atomic number is a straight line.
(B) graph of v → atomic mass is a straight line.
(C) l → atomic number is a straight line.
(D) l → atomic weight is a straight line.
(v and l are frequency and wavelength respectively.)

3. What is the name and notation for Number 4 in nomenclature of elements with atomic
number > 100.
(A) quod, d (B) tetra, t (C) four, f (D) quod, q
4. What is the name for atomic number 106 according to nomenclature of elements with atomic
number > 100 ?
(A) Unnilhexium (B) Ununhexium (C) Unnilseptium (D) Unnilpentium
5. What is IUPAC Name of atomic number 109 ?
(A) Hassium (B) Rontgenium (C) Meitnerium (D) Darmstadium
6. What is IUPAC name of atomic number 111 ?
(A) Hassium (B) Darmstadium (C) Meitnerium (D) Rontgenium
7. What is symbol of Darmstadium according to nomenclature of elements with atomic number
> 100 ?
(A) Unh (B) Uus (C) Uun (D) Unh
8. Which is period number and group number for element which contain configuration of
4s2 4p3 ?
(A) 4, 13 (B) 4, 5 (C) 4, 15 (D) 5, 13
9. In morden periodic table which elements place are controversial ?
(A) He and Ne (B) H and Ne (C) H and N (D) H and He
10. How many elements are there in s block in modern periodic table ?
(A) 18 (B) 12 (C) 14 (D) 17
11. Which elements are known as Representative elements in modern periodic table ?
(A) d block elements (B) p and d block elements
(C) s and p block elements (D) f block elements
12. Which of the following electronic configuration is of s block elements ?
(A) 1s2 2s2 2p6 (B) [Ar]3d34s2 (C) 1s22s22p1 (D) [Ne]3s 2
13. What is common electronic configuration of d block elements ?
(A) (n1)d10ns12 (B) (n1)d110ns12 (C) nd110(n1)s12 (D) None of above
277
14. What is outer most electronic configuration of f block elements ?
(A) (n2)f114 (n1)do1ns12 (B) (n 2)f214 (n 1)d110ns12
(C) (n2)f114 (n1)do1ns2 (D) (n 2)f14 (n 1)do1ns2

15. What is the common outer most electronic configuration of Lanthanoids ?
(A) 4fn5d016s12 (B) (n2)f 5d1106s12 (C) 4fn5d016s2 (D) 4f1-145d017s2
16. What is the common outer most electronic configuration of Actinoids ?
(A) 5f1-146d017s2 (B) 5f1-146d1107s12 (C) 5f1-76d017s2 (D) 5f1-106d027s2
17. What is the common electronic configuration of element which is in 16th group and 4th period ?
(A) 4s24p4 (B) 4s24p6 (C) 4s2np3 (D) 4s24p5
18. What is common outer most electronic configuration of 3rd group of d block elements ?
(A) 3d1104s12 (B) 5d1106s12 (C) 4d1105s12 (D) 6d1107s12
19. Which of the given element is semimetal or metalloids ?
(A) Hg (B) As (C) Sc (D) Ga
20. By going down in group 1 of modern periodic table what is the change in reactivity by
increasing in atomic number ?
(A) decreases (B) increases (C) constant (D) cant explain
Answers : 1. (A), 2. (A), 3. (D), 4. (A), 5. (C), 6. (D), 7. (C), 8. (D), 9. (B), 10. (C),
11. (D), 12. (D), 13. (B), 14. (C), 15. (D), 16. (A), 17. (A), 18. (B), 19. (B),
20. (B)
Periodic Trends
(1) Atomic Radius (2) Ionization Enthalpy (DiH) (3) electron gain enthalpy (∆ H )
eg
(4) Electronegativity (5) Oxidation state.

(1) Atomic Radius :
Atomic Radius can be measured by X-Rays or other spectroscopic methods.
Covalent Atomic Radius : Average half value of distance between nuclei of two atoms in
covalent molecules is considered as covalent radius of element. eg. covalent radius of Cl2 gas
is 99 pm.
Metallic Radius : Average half value of distance of
nucleus between two adjacent atoms in metallic crystal Li
is called radius of metal element. eg. metallic radius of
Atomic Radius (pm)
copper will be 128 pm.

Atomic Radius decreases of elements when we move
from left to right in the period.
Be
Because of almost same electronic configuration there B
is a negligible change in the atomic radius of a block C
N
and f-block elements present in the middle of long OF
period.
order of atomic Radius in 2nd period.
Li > Be > B > C > N > O > F Atomic Number (Z)
278
Order of atomic Radius in 3rd period.
Na > Mg > Al > Si > P > S > Cl R(262)
When we move from top to bottom in
Rb(244)
Atomic Radius (pm)

K(231)
a group atomic radius decreases.
Na(186)
Atomic radius in 1st group :
Li(152)
Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs < Fr I(133)
Br(114)
In isoelectronic species effective Cl(99)
nuclear charge is increased due to F(72)
higher positive charge in positive ion so
its radius will be small, the effective
nuclear charge is decreased due to Atomic Number (Z)
higher negative charge in a negative ion
which results in bigger radius.
Ex., N3 > O2 > F > Ne > Na+ > Mg2+ >
Al3+ (Here No. of electrons are 10.)
P3 > S2 > Cl > Ar > K+ > Ca2+ (all contain 18 electron.)
Mg > Al > Mg2+ > Al3+
If effective nuclear charge increases, atomic/ionic radius decreases.
Ionization Enthalpy ( i + )
The minimum energy required for formation of positive ion from gaseous neutral atom (M) by
removing. electron is called ionization enthalpy ( i + ) .
M(g) + Energy → M+(g) + e
Required Minimum Energy ( i + )
The value of successive ionization enthalpy increases gradually as
DiH1 < DiH2 < DiH3 < DiH4 < ...............

In second period order of ionization enthalpy :
Li < B < Be < C < O < N < F < Ne
Exception : Be : 1s2 2s2 B : 1s2 2s2 2p1
The energy required to remove electron from 2s orbital of Be is more than the energy required
to remove electron from 2p orbital in B.
Exception : N : 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py 1 2pz1, O : 1s2 2s2 2px2 2py 1 2pz1
In N 2p orbital is half filled and stable
279
so its required more energy. In O the electron-electron repulsion value increases due to two electrons
paired in 2px orbital.

So it is requires less energy to remove an electron compared to N.
+ (kJmole1)
i
atomic number (Z)
Order of 1st ionization enthalpy of Na, Mg, Al and Si of 3rd period : Na < Al < Mg < Si.
Ionization enthalpy decreases as we go down in group.
order of ionization enthalpy in 1st period : Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs.
550
500
DiH (kJmole1)
450
400
350
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
atomic number (Z)
If all the factors remain same then the orbitals havign same principle quantum number from
s→p→d→f ionization entholpy decreases. ex: DiH B < DiH Be, DiH Al < DiH Mg

Electron gain enthalpy  +  : Addition of an electron to neutral gaseous atom (X) converts it
 eg 

into negative ion which results in change of enthalpy. This is known as electron gain Enthalpy  +  .
 eg 
X(g) + e → X(g) ; eg +
elements of group 17 (Halogens) have very high negative electron gain enthalpy. Because it
contains ns2 np5 electronic configuration so it accepts one electron and achieve the stable electronic
configuration similar to nearest noble gas element.
280
Order of electron gain enthalpy of 2nd period : Li > Be N < O
Exception : Be : 1s2 2s2
Electron is added in 2p which is higher than the valance orbital 2s so electron gain enthalpy
becomes more negative than lithium.
Exception : N : 1s2 2s2 2px1 2py 1 2pz1 so electron added in 2px orbital and two electrons get
paired. This causes increase in electron-electron repulsion due to which it becomes unstable. So
negative value or electron gain enthalpy of N is less than that of C atom :
Negative value of electron gain enthalpy decreases as we go down from top to bottom in
group.
exceptionally the electron gain enthalpy of O or F is less negative than that of succeeding
elements S or Cl of the same group. So, DegH(O) < (DegH)(S) < (DegH)(F) < (DegH)(Cl)
In O and F the added electron takes place in lower energy level n = 2 which is more
electron. Electron repulsion which decreases the stability of negative ion. where as in S and Cl
added electron takes the place at higher energy level n = 3. Therefore less electron repulsion occurs.
Order of negative value of electron gain enthalpy of group 17 (Halogen) F < Cl > Br > I or
Cl > F > Br > I
Value of electron gain enthalpy for ideal gas, group 1 and group 2 is positive.
Electronegativity
The tendency of an atom to attract the shared electorn pair towards itself is called
electronegativity
It is not possible to measure its absolute value. Although many numerical scales of
electronegativity of elements have been developed such as Pauling scale. Mulliken-Jaffe scale and
Alfred Rochow scale.
As per Pauling scale
± (
A B
Where ( ( AB ( AA ×E BB ) 2
EAB = Bond Enthalpy of A B (ev/mole), EAA = Bond Enthalpy of A A (ev/mole)

EBB = Bond Enthalpy of B B (ev/mole), c and c are electonegativity.
A B
As per Pauling scale electronegativity of H, C and F elements are respectively 2.1, 2.5 and
4.0. Which is used as reference to measure electronegativity of other elements.
1 eV = 23 kilo calories mole1
Electronegativity increases by increasing atomic number as we go left to right side in period.
In group electronegativity decreases as go down in group.
Electronegativity decreases as electropositivity increases.
Electronegativity increases as non-metallic character increases and metallic characteristic
decreases.
In a period as we move to left to right side electronegativity increases.
So non metallic character increases and metallic character decreases.
281
In a group from top to bottom electronegativity decreases so non metallic character decreases
and metallic character increases.
Two elements with different electronegativity combine by a covalent bond then electron pair of
bond will set more near to more electronegative element. So, more negative element possess partial
negative change and second element possess partial positive charge that is why that bond becomes
polar and possess ionic characteristics.
Two elements with same electronegativity combine by a covalent bond then bonded electron
pair. retain at centre so that bond becomes non polar in nature.
Two element combine by a chemical bond, contain more difference in electronegativity then
ionic character of bond is more than covalent character.
In diatomic compound electronegativity of element having negative oxidation state increases, the
ionic character of that compound increases while covalent character of that compound decreases.
In a diatomic compound electro negativity of positive oxidation state element having increases.
the ionic character of that compound decreases while covalent character of that compound increases.
Practicle dipole moment

Ionic character of Bond = Theoritical dipole moment ´ 100 %
Theoritical dipole moment = e × d where, e = charge of electron = 4.803 × 1010 esu,

d = Bond length, unit = cm.
1.0 D = 1018 esu cm = 3.3564 1030 cm
If c and c are electronegativity of elements combine by bond,

A B
then Ionic character according to Pauling equation is = 18 [cA cB]1.4 or
According to Henery and Smith Ionic character = 16 [cA cB] + 3.5 [cA cB]2 (cA > cB)
A 2 2
Polarity of this type of angular molecule 1 2 1 2 FRV
B C
If the difference in electronegativity is 1.7 then bond will contain 50 % ionic character.
Oxidation state or valency : an element loses electron from their outer most orbit and
become positive charged ion or get positive oxidation state.
If an nutrul elements gain electron in their outer most orbit and get that much negative charge
on it self and get negative oxidation state.
The valence of representative elements is usually equal to the number of electrons in the
outermost orbit and elements of p block gain the negative valence by minus 8 from valence electron.
282
21. Assertion (A) : In mordern periodic table ionisation enthalpy decreases of group 1 by
going down group.
Reason (R) : Screening effect increases by going down in a group.
(A) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(B) If both (A) and (R) are not correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) If (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(D) If both (A) and (R) is incorrect.
22. Assertion (A) : In morden periodic table if we go down in group 17 value of electron gain
enthalpy increases.
Reason (R) : atomic size increases as we go down group.
(A) If both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).
(B) If both (A) and (R) are not correct and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) If (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect.
(D) If both (A) and (R) is incorrect.
23. What is difference in reactivity if we move down in group 17 in modern periodic table ?
(A) increases (B) decreases (C) stay constant (D) can not say
24. What is difference in reactivity if we go left to Right in period in modern periodic table ?
(A) increases (B) decreases (C) stay constant (D) can not say
25. Which of the following element has highest atomic radius ?
(A) P (B) Mg (C) O (D) Sr
26. Which of the following relation is true for atomic radius ?
(A) Na > K > Rb > s (B) Ca < Mg < Sr < Ba
(C) Al > Si > P > S (D) F > Cl > Br > I
27. Which of the following relation is true for atomic/ionic radius ?
(A) S > S2 (B) Al3+ < Mg2+ (C) Br > 1 (D) F > Cl
28. Which of the following relation is true for atomic ionic radius ?
(A) Mg > Al > Mg2+ > Al3+ (B) Al > Mg > Mg2+ > Al3+
(C) Mg > Mg2+ > Al > Al3+ (D) Mg > Al > Al3+ > Mg2+
29. Which of the following process is endothermic ?
(A) electron gain reaction (B) Ionization reaction
(C) Crystallization reaction (D) above all
30. Which of the following energy change considered as enthalpy change ?
(A) M(s) → M+(g) + e (B) M(s) → M+(s) + e (C) M(g) → M+(g) + e (D) M(s) → M+(s) + e
31. Which of the following is correct for 1st ionisation enthalpy ?
(A) Li B > Be > C > N > O (D) Li < B < Be < C < N < O
283
32. If all the factors remain constant than which one of following order is correct for the
ionization enthalpy decreases for same principal quantum number ?
(A) s → p → d → f (B) f → d → p → s (C) f → p → d → s (D) s → p → d → f
33. Which of the following species have highest effective nuclear charge ?
(A) Mg (B) Al (C) Mg2+ (D) Al3+
34. Which of the following element contain highest negative value of electron gain enthalpy ?
(A) F (B) Cl (C) Br (D) I
35. Which of the following Relation is true for High negative value of electron gain enthalpy ?
(A) F < Cl (B) B < Be (C) C < N (D) C < B
36. Which of the following relation is true for high negative electron gain enthalpy of same group
elements ?
(C) No change (D) increases or decreases
37. What is effect on metallic character of electro negativity ?
(C) no change (D) increases then decreases
38. Which of the following is not correct for electronegativity ?
(A) Cs > K (B) O > N (C) C < N (D) Na > K
39. Which of the following Bond is most polar ?
(A) CF (B) NF (C) OF (D) BF
40. Which of the following possess more tendency to form covalent bond ?
(A) S (B) P (C) B-Cl (D) B-F
41. On which orbital of outer orbit the screening effect is maximum for s, p, d, f orbital of a
same orbit for a given atom ?
(A) s (B) p (C) d (D) f
42. From which of the following is correct order for screening effect of an electron of s, p, d, f
orbit of same orbital in an element ?
(A) s p > d > f (D) s > p > f > d
43. Which of the following order is correct for a specis for atomic size ?
(A) I < I < I+ (B) I+ < I < I (C) I < I+ < I (D) I < I < I+
44. Which of the following electronic configuration is possess more negative value for electron
gain enthalpy ?
(A) 1s22s22p5 (B) 1s22s22p63s23p5 (C) 1s22s2p63s1 (D) 1s22s22p63s2
45. Which of the following electronic configuration have more difference between 1st and 2nd
ionization Enthalpy ?
(A) 1s22s22p1 (B) 1s22s22p63s23p1 (C) 1s22s22p63s1 (D) 1s22s22p63p4
46. Which of the following element possess more difference between 1st and 2nd ionization
enthalpy ?
(A) N (B) B (C) Na (D) Ca
284
47. Which of the following element possess more sheilding effect in outer most orbit electron ?
(A) group 14th and 2nd period element (B) element of 14th group and 5th period
(C) element of 14th group and 3rd period (D) element of 14th group and 4th period
48. Which of the following Relation is true for more negative electron gain enthalpy ?
(A) B < C < N (B) N < O < C (C) C < N < O (D) N > C < O
49. Which of the following atomic number group is belonged to same group in modern periodic
table ?
(A) 4, 12, 20, 28 (B) 7, 15, 33, 83 (C) 14, 22, 40, 72 (D) 13, 21, 39, 61
50. Choose correct option for number draw of arrow from following figure. (arrow indicate
increasing in characteristics)
4
(A) Ionisation enthalpy
(B) Electronegativity
2
(C) Atomic radius 3
1
(D) Non-metallic characteristic
(A) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A (B) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
(C) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A (D) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
51. Choose correct option for number indicating an arrow from following figure. (arrow indicates
increase in characteristics) 1
(A) Ionization enthalpy
(B) Electronegativity 2
(C) Atomic radius 4

3
(D) Non-metallic charactor
(A) 1-C, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A (B) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B (C) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A (D) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D
52. Which of the following relation is true for atomic radius ?
(A) F < S < Mg < Rb < Sr < Cs (B) F < Mg < S < Sr < Cs
(C) F < S < Mg < Sr < Cs < Rb (D) F < S < Mg < Sr < Rb < Cs
53. Which of the following two elements bond will be less covalent ?
(A) 17 and 8 (B) 16 and 55 (C) 6 and 14 (D) 9 and 7
(1) Atomic number increases, electronegativity increases.
(2) Positive oxidation state increases in diatom electronegativity increases as ionic charector
of compound increases.
(3) Negative ion has higher radius than its parent natural atom.
(4) Negative oxidation state increases in diatom electronegativity increases as covalent
charactor decreases.
(A) 1, 3, 4 (B) 3 (C) 1, 2, 3 (D) 3, 4
285
55. Calculate electron gain enthalpy of Na+ if 1st ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 ev.
(A) 5.1 eV (B) 10.2 eV (C) + 2.55 eV (D) 2.55 eV
56. What is group of element containing electronic configuration [Ne] 3s23p4 ?
(A) 14 (B) 15 (C) 16 (D) 17
57. Which of the following is electronic configuration of S block element ?
(A) [Ar] 3s23p4 (B) [Ar] 3s2 (C) [Ar] 3d34s2 (D) [Xe] 4f 145d16s2
58. Which of the following is not suitable for atomic radius ?
(A) Atomic radius decreases as we go down in a group.
(B) Atomic radius increases as we go down group.
(C) Atomic number increases atomic radius increases.
(D) Positive charge increases atomic radius increases.
59. Which of the following is ture ?
(A) Size of Al3+ < size of Al (B) Size of Al3+ > size of Al
(C) Size of F < size of F (D) Size of Na+ = size of Na
60. Which of the following is correct order for speices ?
(A) Pb < Pb2+ < Pb4+ (B) Pb4+ > Pb2+ > Pb (C) Pb > Pb2+ > Pb4+ (D) Pb2+ < Pb < Pb4+
61. Which of the following elements oxide is acidic ?
(A) Sodium (B) Cesium (C) Calcium (D) Sulphur
62. Which of the following pair of atomic number have maximum positive oxidation state ?
(A) Z = 9, Z = 16 (B) Z = 19, Z = 38 (C) Z = 15, Z = 51 (D) Z = 13, Z = 22
63. Match group-I and group-II and select the correct answer :
Group-1 Group-2
(A) Representative element (I) Si
(B) P-orbital is Half fill (II) Br
(C) Element of group-14 (III) S
(D) Halogen element (IV) P
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
64. Which of the following increasing order is true for metallic characteristics ?
(A) Si < Al < Mg < Na (B) Si < Mg < Al < Na
(C) Na < Mg < Al < Si (D) Al < Si < Mg < Na
65. Match group-I and group-II and select the correct answer ?
Group-1 Group-2
(A) Correct order for 1st ionization enthalpy (I) Li > Be N
(B) Correct order for negative value of electron
gain enthalpy (II) Be B < C < N > O
(A) A-III, B-III, C-I (B) A-I, B-III, C-II (C) A-III, B-II, C-I (D) A-III, B-I, C-II
286

66. Which of the following is isoelectronic with (CN ) ?
(A) O2 (B) CH4 (C) N 2 (D) NO

67. Which of the following option is isoelectronic ?
(A) O2, S, NaF (B) CH4, Ne, N2 (C) CO2, SO2, C4H8 (D) CO2, C3H4, NO2
(i) Electropositivity increases : increase metallic properties of element
(ii) If negative oxidation state of element is same then electropositivity of positive oxidation
state increases, increasing polar characteristics of bond
(iii) If positive oxidation state of element is same then electronegativity increases, increasing
covalent character of bond
(iv) If electropositive difference increases between two element than ionic characteristics of
bond increases.
(A) (i), (ii), (iv) (B) (i), (ii) (C) (ii), (iii) (D) (iii), (iv)
69. Which of the following order is correct for atomic/ionic radius ?
(A) Al3+ < O2 < Ne < Na+ (B) Al3+ < Ne < Na+ < O2
(C) Al3+ < Na+ < Ne < O2 (D) Na+ < Ne < Al3+ < O2
70. If the electron gain enthalpy of element X, Y and Z is respectively 1.46, 3.40 and
3.61 Kjoule/mol than which of the following option is true ?
(A) X = N, Y = Cl, Z = F (B) X = O, Y = F, Z = Cl
(C) X = F, Y = Cl, Z = Br (D) X = Li, Y = Be, Z = B
Answers : 21. (A), 22. (C), 23. (A), 24. (D), 25. (D), 26. (C), 27. (B), 28. (A), 29. (B),
30. (C), 31. (A), 32. (D), 33. (D), 34. (B), 35. (A), 36. (B), 37. (B), 38. (A),
39. (D), 40. (B), 41. (A), 42. (C), 43. (B), 44. (B), 45. (C), 46. (C), 47. (B),
48. (D), 49. (B), 50. (B), 51. (A), 52. (D), 53. (B), 54. (B), 55. (A), 56. (C),
57. (B), 58. (D), 59. (A), 60. (C), 61. (D), 62. (C), 63. (D), 64. (A), 65. (D),
66. (C), 67. (D), 68. (A), 69. (C), 70. (B).
287
12 General principles and processes
of Isolation of Elements
A few elements are available in free state in nature.
Metal like copper, non-metals like carbon, sulphur and inert gas like Helium and others are available
in free form in nature.
Many more metals and non-metals other than these are available naturally in combined from in the
crust of the earth.
Processes like extraction, isolation involving physico chemical principles can be used to obtain metal.
By metallurgy obtained metals are based on the economical and industrial aspects.
Mineral is the susbtance available in nature which is present in the crust of the earth.
The mineral from which metals can be obtained in good proportion is called ore.
There may not be only the element to be obtained being present but undesirable and certain earthly
substances are present which can be called impurities this is called gangue.
The main steps to obtain metal from the ore are as follow :
(1) Concentration of ore (2) Isolation of metal from concentrated ore (3) Purification of metal.
The total procedure to isolate metals from their scientific and industrial processes is called
Metallurgy.
1. Which of the following metal is available in free state ?
(A) Fe (B) Zn (C) Cu (D) Al
2. Which of the following metals are available in free state in nature ?
(A) C, S (B) P, S (C) C, P (D) P, Cl
3. From which type of ore, Aluminium can not be obtained ?
(A) Hydroxide (B) oxide (C) Carbonate (D) Silicate
4. What is metallurgy used for ?
(A) to obtain pure non metals. (B) to obtain pure metals.
(C) to obtain pure compounds. (D) to obtain pure ideal gas.
5. What is meant by ore ?
(A) to obtained metals from mineral. (B) to obtained non-metals from minerals.
(C) to obtained more metals from minerals. (D) to obtained compound from minerals.
6. What is meant by gangue ?
(A) undesirable or earthly substance are called impurities.
(B) Combined form of pure metals.
(C) non-metals found in combine form from earths crust
(D) metals found in combined form from earths crust.
288
7. Which of the following is steps to obtain metal from the ore ?
(A) Concentration of ore. (B) Isolation of metal from concentrated ore.
(C) Purification of metal. (D) All above
8. Which of the following metal is not available in free state in nature ?
(A) Au (B) Pt (C) Fe (D) S
9. Which of the following metal is available in free state in nature ?
(A) Au (B) Ag (C) Cu (D) Na
10. On which principles metallurgy do work to form metal ?
(A) thermodynamical (B) electro chemical (C) reduction (D) above all
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (A), 3. (C), 4. (B), 5. (C), 6. (A), 7. (D), 8. (C), 9. (A), 10. (D)
Occurrence of metals
The abundance of aluminium is the highest. Its place is 3rd in the elements available from the
earths crust. It is about 8.3% by weight.
Its chief minerals are mica and china clay.
Some of the gem stones are impure forms of Al2O3.
Ruby contains Cr as impurity, and sphire contains cd as impurity.
The element available at second place is iron.
It is present in combined form in the haemoglobin present in blood in our body.
Metal Ore Composition proportion

(1) Aluminium Bauxite AlOX(OH)3 2X where 0 <X<l
Kaolinite [Al2(OH)4 Si2O3]
(2) Copper Copper pyrites CuFeS2
Malachite CuCO3 . Cu(OH)2
Cuprite Cu 2O
Copper glance Cu2S
(3) Iron Haematite Fe 2O 3

Magnetite Fe 3O 4
Siderite FeCO 3
Iron pyrites FeS 2
(4) Zinc Zinc blande or ZnS

Sphalorite -
Calamine ZnCO3
Zincite ZnO
The oxide mineral is preferably selected to obtain metal from ores because SO2 gas evolved from
sulphide minerles causes pollution and their reduction is also difficult.
289
11. Abudance of which metal is highest in earths crust ?
(A) Fe (B) Cu (C) Al (D) Zn
12. Which is place of aluminium and % by mass of aluminium in earths crust ?
(A) 2nd, 10 % (B) 3rd, 8.3 % (C) 4th, 7.5 % (D) 5th, 5 %
13. Which is found as impurities in gem stone ?
(A) Al2O3 (B) Cr (C) Cd (D) Fe
14. In which of the following ore impurities of Cr is found ?
(A) Cu (B) Cr (C) Cd (D) Fe
15. Sapphire contain impurity of which metal ?
(A) Cu (B) Cr (C) Cd (D) Fe
16. Which element is in combined form in the haemoglobin present in blood in our body ?
(A) Mg (B) Fe (C) Al (D) Cu
17. Which element occur at second position in earths crust ?
(A) Al (B) Fe (C) Zn (D) Cu
18. Which of the following is ore of aluminium ?
(A) Calamine (B) Kaolinite (C) Malachite (D) Siderite
19. Which is formula of malachite ore ?
(A) CuFeS2 (B) Cu2O (C) Cu2S (D) CuCO3 . Cu(OH)2
20. Siderite is ore of which metal ?
(A) Fe (B) Zn (C) Cu (D) Al
21. What is composition proportion of bauxite ore of aluminium ?
(A) AlOX(OH)3 X where, 0 <X>l (B) AlOX(OH)3 2X where, 0 <X<l
(C) AlO3 X(OH)3 X where, 0 <X<l (D) AlXOX(OH)3 2X where, 0 <X>l
22. Assertion (A) : The oxide mineral is preferably selected to obtain metal from ores.
Reason (R) : SO2 gas obtained from sulphide minerles causes pollution.
(A) (A) and (R) both are correct statement (R) gives explanation of statement A.
(B) Statement (A) and (R) both are correct but statement (R) does not give explanation of statement (A).
(C) Statement (A) is correct and statement (R) is wrong.
(D) Statement (A) is wrong and statement (R) is correct.
23. Which of the following is not ore ?
(A) Bauxite (B) Malachite (C) Zinc blande (D) Pig ron
24. Which of the following is oxide ore ?
(A) Malachite (B) Feldspar (C) Bauxite (D) Zinc bland
25. Which of the following metal will be highest obtained from earths crust ?
(A) Fe (B) Al (C) Ca (D) Na
290
26. Which ore contain formula of Cu(OH)2 . CuCO3 ?
(A) cuprite (B) copperglance (C) copperpyrites (D) malachite
27. What is molecular formula of siderite ?
(A) Fe2O3 (B) Fe3O4 (C) FeS2 (D) FeCO3
Answers : 11. (C), 12. (B), 13. (A), 14. (D), 15. (C), 16. (B), 17. (B), 18. (B), 19. (D),
20. (A), 21. (B), 22. (B), 23. (D), 24. (C), 25. (B), 26. (D), 27. (D)
Concentration of ores
As we have seen earlier, there are impurities in the ores. viz. Sand, clay etc. To obtain ore by
removal of impurities as much as possible is called concentration. The selection of these steps depends on
the physical properties of ore and the properties of the gangue.
(1) Hydraulic Washing : The principle of relative density of ore and gangue is involved.
(2) Magnetic Separation : The principle of magnetic properties of the components of the ore is
involved.
(3) Froth Floataion Method : Ores of sulphide can be seperated by forming foam.
(4) Leaching : This method is used when the ore is soluble in some suitable solvent.
Ex. Leaching of alumina from bauxite, leaching of silver by NaCN and leaching of gold by KCN.
28. To remove impurities like sand and clay from minerals that process called ...... .
(A) calcination (B) electronation (C) concentration (D) extraction
29. Selection of steps of concentration depends upon
(A) physical properties of ores (B) chemical properties of ore
(C) properties of gangue (D) Both (A) and (C)
30. Which of the following have principle of relative density of ore and gangue ?
(A) Hydraulic washing (B) Magnetic separation (C) Froth floatation (D) Leaching
31. Which of the following is added as froth stabilisers in froth floating method ?
(A) Cresol, Phenol (B) Phenol, Aniline (C) Aniline, Cresol (D) Phenol, Benzene
32. Which of the following added as depressant in ores containing ZnS and PbS ?
(A) NaOH (B) KCN (C) NaCl (D) NaCN
33. Assertaion (A) : NaCN is added as depressant to the ore containing ZnS and PbS, then PbS
skims off on the upper part with the froth.
Reason (R) : ZnS form water soluble Na2[Zn(CN)4] complex.
(A) (A) and (R) both are correct statement (R) gives explanation of statement (A).
(B) (A) and (R) both are correct but statement (R) does not give explanation of statement (A).
(C) Statement (A) is correct and statement (R) is wrong.
291
(D) Statement (A) is wrong and statement (R) is correct.
34. Which method is used when the ore is soluble in some suitable solvent ?
(A) Hydraulic washing (B) Calcination (C) Leaching (D) Froth Floatation
35. In metallurgy Leaching of which metal is carried out by NaCN in presence of oxygen ?
(A) Au (B) Ag (C) Cu (D) Al
36. Which method is used in concentration of bauxite ore ?
(A) Hydraulic washing (B) Magnetic separation (C) Leaching (D) Froth floatation
37. Which substances are added to sulphide ore to produce froth and concentrate the ore ?
(A) Fatty acids (B) Xanthates compound (C) Turpentine (D) Above all
38. X + CN- + H2O + O2 ® Y + OH-

Y + Zn ® Z + X
indicate X, Y and Z from equation
(A) X = Ag, Y = [Ag(CN)2]2-, Z = [Zn(CN)4]- (B) X = Ag, Y = [Ag(CN)2]2-, Z = [Zn(CN)4]2-

(C) X = Au, Y = [Au(CN)2]-, Z = [Zn(CN)4]2- (D) X = Au, Y = [Au(CN)2]2-, Z = [Zn(CN)4]-
39. In Froth floatation method why mineral particle is floting on upper surface ?
(A) They are light in weight. (B) Surface of them are not wet by water.
(C) They are insoluble. (D) they cant form electrolyte.
40. In which ores the principles of magnetic properties used for concentration of ores ?
(A) Horn silver (B) Calamine (C) Haematite (D) Bauxite
41. Which of the following method is used in concentration of ores ?
(A) Distillation (B) Liquation (C) Forth flotation (D) Electrolysis
Answers : 28. (C), 29. (D), 30. (A), 31. (C), 32. (D), 33. (A), 34. (C), 35. (B), 36. (C),
37. (D), 38. (C), 39. (B), 40. (C), 41. (C)
Extraction of Crude Metal from the concentrated ore

The metal to be obtained is in ionic form of the compound of concentrated ore. So that they
can be obtained by reduction.
The concentrated ore has to be converted into the suitable form so that it can be reduced.
Steps to obtain metal from the ore can be divided into two parts :
(1) Conversion to oxide (2) Reduction of oxide to metal.
(1) Two process for conversion to oxide
(A) Calcination : The ore is heated very strongly during calcination so that all volatile
substances are removed and metal oxide is left out.
(B) Roasting : The ore is heated below the melting point of the metal in a reverbetroy
furnace by introducing air continuously.
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The roasting of sulphide containing ore takes place in reverbetory furnace.
If the ore is iron containing, then silica is added to it before heating so that iron oxide combines with
silica and forms iron silicate (FeSiO3). It is known as slag.
A mixture of Cu2S and FeS is called matte.
(2) Reduction of oxide of Ore to Metal :
During Reduction reaction suitable reducing agent like Co or C or any other metal is used with the
ore. Reducing Agent like carbon combines with oxide of metal and reduces the metal oxide giving metal.
Metal oxides can be reudced easily or with difficulty depending upon their stabilities.
The reduction reaction by accepting electron is called electronation.
Heat is required during reduction reaction.
The study of metallurgy with changes in temperature is called pyrometallurgy.
42. If metal is in ion form in concentrated ore of metal then which process is used ?
(A) Reduction (B) Froth floatation (C) Oxidation (D) Electrolysis
43. What is done in calcination process ?
(A) Heat vary to ore of metal. (B) Heating in reverbetory furnace.
(C) Used proper reducing Agent. (D) Convert it into dust and suspention in water.
44. When will be slag form ?
(A) Heating sulphide containg ore into reverberatory furnace.
(B) Heating iron containg ore into reverberatory furnace.
(C) Silica is added before Heating in sulphide containg ore.
(D) Silica is added before Heating in iron containg ore.
45. What is called the study of metallurgy with change in temperature ?
(A) Rosting (B) Pyrometallurgy (C) Heat metallurgy (D) Metallurgy
46. Which reducing agent is used to convert metal ore into metal ?
(A) Carbon (B) Carbonmonoxide (C) Silicon (D) Both (A) and (B)
47. Which of the following reaction is called electronation ?
(A) 2Al2O3(s) + 3C(s) ® 4Al(s) + 3CO2(g) (B) Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) ® 2FeO(s) + CO2(g)
(C) FeO(s) + C(s) ® Fe(s) + CO(g) (D) FeO(s) + CO(s) ® Fe(s) + CO2(g)
48. Which of the following reaction is called calcination ?
(A) 2ZnS(s) + 3O2(g) ® 2ZnO(s) + 2SO2(g) (B) ZnCO3(s) ® ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
(C) ZnO(s) + C(s) ∆→

 Zn(s) + CO(g) (D) 2CuS(s) + 3O2(g) ® 2Cu2O(s) + 2SO2(g)
49. Which type of ores are required for roasting ?
(A) oxide ore (B) silicate ore (C) sulphide ore (D) carbonate ore
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50. Which of the following is common method for obtaining metal from ore ?
(A) Reduction by hydrogen (B) Reduction by Aluminium
(C) Reduction by carbon (D) By Electrolysis reaction
Answers : 42. (A), 43. (A), 44. (D), 45. (B), 46. (D), 47. (A), 48. (B), 49. (C), 50. (C)
Thermodynamic principles of metallurgy

It is essential to have information about certain principles like chemical equilibrium, equilibrium constant,
Gibbs free energy entropy and enthalpy.
Gibbs-Helmholtz equation D G = D H - TDS.
0
Relation with equilibrium constant DG = - RT ln K.
Three values of DG° can be possible positive, zero and negative. If the value of DG° is Negative
then the reaction will spontaneous. If it is zero reaction will be equilibrium state and if it is positive then
reaction will not be spontaneous.
the value of K < 1 then proportion of products will be less in comparison to reactants.
the value of K = 0 then proportion of both will be equal.
the value of K > 1 then proportion of product obtained will be more.
The value of D G° is constant at standard state.
Scientist Ellingham had studied the relations by plotting graphs of DG° versus T and so these graphs
are known as Ellingham diagrams.
The function of reducing agent is to make the value of D G° negative.
We can have combination of temperature, pressure and reducing agent in such a manner that the
optimum state can be formulated and maximum product. i.e. maximum amount of metal can be obtained by
reduction.
Thermodynamical principles are also called physicochemical principles.
51. Which term of thermodynamics is essential to have information about to understand metallurgy
principles ?
(A) Chemical equilibrium (B) Gibbs free energy (C) Entropy (D) All of the mentioned
52. What is value of gibbs free energy for spontaneous process ?
(A) positive (B) negative (C) zero (D) infinite
53. What is value of K in D G0 = - RT lnK in case of higher products in chemical reaction ?
(A) K > 1 (B) K < 1 (C) K = 1 (D) K = 0
54. Which graphs are known as Ellingham diagrams ?
(A) D G0 ® D H (B) D G0 ® D S (C) DG0 ® DT (D) DG0 ® T
55. Which of the following statement is false ?
(A) Value of D G0 is positive than value of k is more than 1.
(B) Value of DG0 is negative than value of k is less than 1.
(C) Value of free energy of oxidation reduction process become zero when D G°s value become
negative.
(D) D G = DH - TDS in this equation value of T increases, product increases
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56. How does optimum state can be formulated ?
(A) By combining Temperature, pressure and concentration.
(B) By combining Temperature, concentration and reducing agent.
(C) By combining Temperature, pressure and reducing agent.
(D) By combining Temperature and reducing agent.
57. Value of equilibrium constant more than one then ....
(A) product will be less. (B) product will be more.
(C) concentration of product and reactant become equal. (D) product cant form.
Answers : 51. (D), 52. (B), 53. (A), 54. (D), 55. (A), 56. (C), 57. (B)
Electrochemical principles of metallurgy

The principles of electrochemistry can be useful for reduction of metal ions present in the aqueous
solutions or in molten states.
Electrolysis or addition of some other metal and ions of the metals can be reduced and metal can be
obtained.
The equation combining thermodynamics and electrochemistry is DG° = -nFE°.
The oxidation potentials of the electrods doing reactions will be very high and positive so their
reduction potentials will be very low and negative and so their reduction will be very difficult.
If the value of E° is positive, the value of DG° will be negative and so the reaction will be spontaneous.
The electrolysis of molten solid can be carried out as above but if the melting point of molten solid
is very high, some substances are added to bring it down which is known of flux.
Ex., Cryolite (Na3AlF6) or calcium fluoride (CaF2) is added in the process of obtaining Al from
Al 2O3.
Oxidation-Reduction
Oxidation-Reduction method is mostly for non-metals.
Oxidation-Reduction method is used for obtain chlorine from sea water.
2Cl-(aq) + 2H2O(l) ® 2OH-(aq) + H2(g) + Cl2(g)
The value of DG0 = +422 KJ for this reaction if we calculate the value of E° from this by the
equation DG0 = -nFE0 then, its value obtained is -2.186 V. As we have studied earlier the value of E°
being negative, the reaction will not occur in forward direction.Hence if we apply external e.m.f. higher
than 2.186 V, then the reaction will occur and Cl2 gas will be obtained on anod and NaOH will remain in
solution because H2 will be obtained as gas at cathod.
If we electrolyse molten NaCl then Cl2 will be obtained on anode and Na metal will be obtained on
cathode.
Sodium cyanide (NaCN) is used to obtain gold and silver by oxidation reactions, cynide complex ions
of gold and silver will be obtained respectively. It can be reduced by zinc metal and so gold and silver
metals can be obtained.
58. Which principles can be useful for reduction of metal ions present in the aqueous solution or in
molten states ?
(A) By using Reducing Agent like carbon (B) By electrolysis
(C) By formation of optimum state (D) By adding flux
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59. When will be reduction of reaction become tough ?
(A) Value of reduction potential low and negative.
(B) Value of oxidation potential high and negative.
(C) Value of reduction potential low and positive.
(D) Value of oxidation potential high and negative.
60. When will be reaction become spontaneous ?
(A) Value of E° is positive and DG° positive. (B) Value of E° negative and DG° negative.
(C) Value of E° negative and DG° negative. (D) Value of E° positive and DG° negative.
61. What is meaning by flux ?
(A) Melting point of molten solid is very low, some substance are added to make it high.
(B) Melting point of molten solid is very high. So some substance are added to bring it low.
(C) Some substance are added to make temperature high of Reaction.
(D) Some substance are added to make Rate higher of Reaction.
62. For which of the following oxidation-Reduction process mainly used ?
(A) Metal (B) Non-metal (C) Semi-metal (D) Above all.
63. Which of the following reaction is to obtain chlorine from sea water ?
(A) 2Cl-(aq) ® Cl2(g) + 2e- ® Na(s) + 1

(B) NaCl(l) Cl
2 2(g)
(C) 2Cl-(aq) + 2H2O(l) ® H2(g) + Cl2(g) + 2OH- (D) above all
64. Which of the following substance obtain at anode and cathod and which retain in solution in
electrolysis of sea water ?
(A) H2(g) at anode, Cl2(g) at cathod and NaOH in solution
(B) Cl2(g) at anode, O2(g) at cathod and NaOH in solution
(C) O2(g) at anode, H2(g) at cathod and NaCl in solution
(D) Cl2(g) at anode, H2(g) at cathod and NaOH in solution
65. Ag and Au are form by leaching of which compound ?
(A) KCN (B) NaCN (C) (A) and (B) both (D) Zn
66. By which of the following metal is used for reduction of [Au(CN)2]- complex ion to form Au ?
(A) Fe (B) Al (C) Cu (D) Zn
67. What is value ofDG° and DE° of reaction of formation of Cl2 gas from sea water ?
(A) +422 KJ, -2.186 V (B) +422 J, +2.186 V (C) -422 KJ, -2.186 V (D) -422 J, +2.186 V
68. Which of the following can be extracted by electrolysis method ?
(A) transition metals (B) High active metals (C) ideal Gas (D) Soft metals
Answers : 58. (B), 59. (A), 60. (D), 61. (B), 62. (B), 63. (C), 64. (D), 65. (B), 66. (D),
67. (A), 68. (B)
Refining of Impure metals

There is a possibility to have impurity in the metals obtained by any of the methods or processes
discussed earlier. Hence to obtain very pure metals, their refining can be carried out and refining as high
as possible can be obtained. For this the methods used for refining are applied after taking into
consideration the properties of the metal impurities present in it etc. Some of these are listed below :
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Refining Methods
(1) Distilation, (2) Liquation, (3) Electrolysis, (4) Zone Refining, (5) Vapour Phase Refining
(6) Chromatographic Method.
(1) Distilation : This refining method is used for metals like zinc and mercury which have
comparatively low melting points.
(2) Liquation : This method is used for the rifining of metals like tin which have low melting
points.
(3) Electrolysis : In this method the impure metal is made anode and the strip of pure metal is
made cathode. Now, these two electrodes are dipped in the aqueous solution of proper salt. If suitable
electric current is passed in the solution electrolysis takes place and pure metal is deposited on the
cathode and the impure metal on the anode undergoes oxidation and enters into the solutions as ions.
Some noble metals are collected near the anode in the form of mud which is called anodic mud. In this
method the principle of metals like zinc and copper can also be obtained in pure from by this method.
(4) Zone Refining : Semi metals like silicon and germanium can be refined by this method.
The principle of this method is that the impurities of some metals are more soluble in molten state
but is less soluble in solid state.
(5) Vapour Phase Refining : In this method, the impure metal is reacted with suitable substance
then this volatile compound is decomposed so that pure metal is obtained. ex. Mond carbonyl process for
refining of nickel.
Ni(s) + 4CO(g) 330 − 350 K


450 − 470 K
→ [Ni(CO)4](g)  → Ni(s) + 4CO(g)
(impure) (pure)
Metals like zirconium or titanium can be refined by using Van Arkel method.
By this method, oxygen and nitrogen present in the form of impurities in metals can be removed.
The metal iodides obtained in this way are heated electrically on tungsten filament at 1800 K
temperature so that they are decomposed and the pure metal is deposited on the wire.
(6) Chromatographic Method : In this method the principle of adsorption is involved.
If solid substance like Al2O3 is used then it is filled in a glass tube and it can be used, so that the
glass tube will become one column and so this chromatography is called column chromatography.
If we cut filter paper strip and carry out seperation of metal ions by suitable solvent on it, it is
called paper chromatography.
If on any suitable support gaseous substance is used and separation is carried out it is called gas
chromatography.
Some dyes, cations, anions etc. can be separated by suitable chromatographic method.
69. Which of the following method is used for refining of zinc like metals which have low melting
points ?
(A) Liquiation (B) Zone refining (C) Distilation (D) Vapour phase refining
70. Distilation method is used for purification of which of the following metals ?
(A) Zn (B) Hg (C) Ti (D) Sn
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71. When will pure metal deposite on cathode by reduction of metal ion in solution by electrolysis ?
(A) Reduction potential will high and positive.
(B) Reduction potential will low and negative.
(C) Value of DG° positive.
(D) Value of E° negative .
72. Which of the following principle is used for zone refining ?
(A) Impurities of some metals are soluble in their aqeous solutions.
(B) Impurities of some metals are more soluble in their molten stage but less soluble in solid
state.
(C) Impurities of some metals are insoluble in their aqueous solution.
(D) Impurities of some metals are partialy soluble in their molten stage.
73. Which of the following metals are purified by zone refining method ?
(A) Si, Ge, Ti, Zn, Cu (B) Si, Ge, Ti, B, Hg
(C) Si, Ga, B, Cu, Sn (D) Si, Ga, B, In, Ge.
74. Which of the following process is for refining pure nickel ?
(A) Van Arkel (B) Mond Carbonyl (C) Electrolysis (D) Liquation
75. Pure nickel 

X→
tetra nickel carbonyl 
Y→
pure nickel indicates X and Y in following
reaction.
(A) X = CO2, 300 - 350 K Y = 400 - 450 K
(B) X = CO, 300 - 350 K Y = 400 - 450 K
(C) X = CO, 330 - 350 K Y = 450 - 1470 K
(D) X = CO2, 330 - 350 K Y = 450 - 470 K
76. Which of the following metal can be purity by Van Arkel method ?
(A) Zr, Ti (B) Ti, Zn (C) Zn, B (D) In, Ga
77. Which type of impurity are present in titanium ?
(A) Oxygen (B) Nitrogen (C) Sulphur (D) Both (A) and (B)
78. Which of the following principle is involved in chromatograpy method ?
(A) Precipitation (B) Hydrolysis (C) Decomposition (D) Adsorption
79. Which of the following is used as adsorbate in chromatography method ?
(A) Al2O3 (B) ideal gas (C) filter paper (D) All of these
80. Which of the following can be separated in chromatography method ?
(A) Dyes (B) Cation (C) Anion (D) All of these
81. Zone refining process is useful for which process ?
(A) For concentration of ore (B) For oxidation-Reduction of metal
(C) Purification of metals (D) For purification of ore
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82. Which of the following process is used for silicon which is used in semi-conductor ?
(A) Heating method (B) Forth flotation method (C) distilation (D) zone refining method
83. In purification by electrolysis pure metal form on which electrode ?
(A) positive (B) negative
(C) non-reactive (D) Both positive and negative
84. Which purification method is shown by following equation ?
Ti(impure) + 2I2 

500K →
TiI4 →
1675K Ti(pure) + 2I2
(A) Zone refining (B) Van Arkel (C) Vapour phase refining (D) None of above
Answers : 69. (C), 70. (D), 71. (A), 72. (B), 73. (D), 74. (B), 75. (C), 76. (A), 77. (D),
78. (D), 79. (D), 80. (D), 81. (C), 82. (D), 83. (A), 84. (B)
Extraction of metals : (1) Al, (2) Cu, (3) Fe, (4) Zn

Aluminium (Al)
(1) The extraction of aluminium can be divided into two parts.
(A) To obtain pure alumina (Al2O3) from ore.
(B) To obtain aluminium metal by reduction of alumina.
(A) To obtain pure alumina from ore : Silica, oxides of iron and titanium dioxide are impurities in
impure bauxite.
The mineral bauxite is grinded and converted to small particles, then it is digested with 6 to 8%
concentrated NaOH solution at 473-523 K temperature and 35-36 bar pressure. Because of this soluble
hydrated sodium aluminate complex Na[Al(OH)4] is formed. The remaining components also dissolve in
sodium hydroxide and form soluble sodium silicate but hydroxides of iron and titanium being insoluble get
precipitated.
By filtering solution, by neutralising the solution by passing CO2 gas, hydrated Al2O3 gets precipitated.
Sodium silicate remains in solution. Insoluble hydrated alumina is filtered. On heating it at 1470 K
temperatuer, pure alumina is obtained.
(B) To obtain pure aluminium from alumina. Al2O3 does not conduct electricity and its melting points
is very high. Hence substance like cryolite (Na3AlF6) or CaF2 aer added to Al2O3 by electrolysis aluminium
metal is obtained on graphite cathode by reduction.
The system formed is such that the value of DG0 becomes more negative.
Carbon of graphite act as a reducing agent.
That process is known as Hall-Heroult process.
Uses : It is used in the preparation of parts of aeroplane, household vessels, parts of car for race,
electric wire, as reducing agent and to form alloy, parts of scientific balances, coinage, thin sheets are used
in cigaratte cases and used in packaging. Carbon is chewed up at anode. 0.5 kg carbon is chewed up per
1 kg of alluminium.
85. From which ore aluminium can be formed ?

(A) Bauxite (B) Kaolinite (C) Calamine (D) Malachite
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86. Which of following impurities are not their in impure bauxite ?
(A) TiO2 (B) FeO (C) CuS (D) SiO2
87. Which of the following is IUPAC Name of Na[Al(OH)4] ?
(A) Hydrated sodium aluminate (B) Sodium tetra hydroxy aluminate (III)
(C) Sodium tetra hydrate aluminate (III) (D) Sodium tetra hydroxo aluminium (III)
88. To form precipitate of Al 2O 3 in solution of sodium aluminate which compound is added into
it ?
(A) Aqueous solution of NaOH (B) Freshly prepared aqueous Al2O3
(C) Freshly prepared Al(OH)3 precipitate (D) Both (B) and (C)
89. Which of the following takes as electrolyte in Hall-Herout process ?
(A) Al2O3 + NaOH (B) Molten Al2O3 + Na3AlF6
(C) Molten Al2O3 (D) Molten Al2O3 + NaOH
90. In which of the following uses aluminium is not used ?
(A) Electronic instrument (B) Household vessel
(C) Parts of cars of race (D) Measuring Tap
91. Which of the following not alloy of aluminium ?
(A) Alnico (B) Magnalium (C) Constant (D) Duralumin
92. Which of the following metal is used to make parts of scientific balance ?
(A) Al (B) Cu (C) Fe (D) Zn
93. Which of the following process is useful for extraction of aluminium metal ?
(A) Molten alumnia and electrolysis of cryolyte.
(B) By heating Alumina with carbon.
(C) By heating Alumina in Air.
(D) By pyrometalurgy.
94. Which of the following is formula of bauxite ?
(A) Al2O3 (B) Al2O3.2H2O (C) Al2O3.H2O (D) None of above
95. Which of the following is alloy of aluminium ?
(A) Steel (B) German silver (C) Alnico (D) Delta metal
96. How much carbon reduce in formation of 1 kilogram aluminium at anode in Hall Heroult
process ?
(A) 0.5 gram (B) 0.5 kilogram (C) 5 gram (D) 0.25 kilogram
Answers : 85. (A), 86. (C), 87. (B), 88. (D), 89. (B), 90. (D), 91. (C), 92. (A), 93. (A),
94. (B), 95. (C), 96. (B)
Extraction of Copper (Cu)

For the extraction of copper, copper pyrites is used.
Copper available in free state, is obtained as copper metal by removal of the impurities existing
with it by this method 5% copper metal is obtained.
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Wet metallurgical process is used for pyrites ores of lower grade; while dry metallurgical process is
used for the higher grade of pyrites ores.
As copper has more attraction for sulphur, its reduction is difficult.
Dry metallurgical method can be divided into five steps :
(1) Concentration, (2) Roasting, (3) Smelting, (4) Bessemerisation, (5) Refining.
(1) Concentration : About 2% copper is present in copper sulphide minerals available in nature.
Froth flotation process is used for concentration of ore. The grinded mineral is suspended in water and
turpentine oil or cryolite oil is added to it. By concentrating in this way about 25% copper containing ore is
obtained.
(2) Roasting : The ore obtained by froth floatation is roasted in air so that moisture as steam,
sulphur and arsenic as their oxides. During roasting, until iron sulphide is not iron oxide, cuprous sulphide is
not converted to its oxide.
(3) Smelting : The ore obtained by roasting is smelted with sand (SiO2) in blast furnace so that
sand and iron oxide combine to form iron silicate which is called slag. As it is light floats in the mixture and
so it is repedtedly removed. This iron oxide is removed as slag during the smelting mixture of iron sulphide
and cuprous sulphide is called matte.
(4) Bessemerisation : The iron left out in the mixture is removed by this method.
The fluid obtained by smelting is poured in Bessemers converter and required amount of sand is
added then the converter is kept in vertical position. Air at high pressure is introduced into it. So that iron
sulphide is converted to iron oxide which combines with sand and form iron silicate. When cuprous oxide
is formed in the sufficient proportion introduction of air is stopped. As this copper gets cold bubbles of
sulphur dioxide gas from fluid are evolved. Hence it appears that blisters are there on the surface of Cu
and is called blister copper. This copper is about 95% pure. Mainly impurities of sulphur and iron are
present in it. Impurities like Zn, Si, As, Sb, Bi, Au, Pt are present in trace amounts.
(5) Refining
(A) Thermal Refining : Blister copper is heated in presence of air in furnace. So that volatile
oxides of As, Sb etc. are removed, silicates of Fe, Bi, Zn etc. float as slag on copper. The remaining
impurities like Ag, au, Pt can not be removed.
During this some cuprous oxide is produced which dissolves in copper and so it becomes brittle.
Hence to stop this powder of coal is spread on the fluid copper and the fluid is shaken with the freshly cut
branches of tree. Because of the heat of copper destructive distillation of branches of wood produces gas
like methane. It reduces cuprous oxide to copper. Copper obtained this way is about 99.5% pure.
(B) Electrolysis : Solution of copper sulphate in dilute H2SO4 is taken as an electrolyte in a vessel.
In this small strips or rod of impure copper is dipped as the anode and strip of pure copper is dipped as
cathode. Pure copper will deposited on cathode. As noble metals like Ag, Au and Pt metals oxidized they
are collected below the anode which is known as anode mud. The purity of copper obtained at the cathode
is about 99.96 to 99.99%.
Uses : Copper is used in preparation of electrical appliances, tubes of boiler, sheet, household
vessels, currency coins and also it is added to gold ornaments so that they become strong.
It is also used for obtaining metals like Ag and Au from their ions in the solution of their salts.
97. From which of the following main ores copper mainly extrated ?
(A) Cuprite (B) Copper glance (C) Copper pyrites (D) Malachite
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(A) 2% copper is available in copper sulphide ores in nature.
(B) 5% copper obtained by remove impurities from free form of copper.
(C) Wet metallurgical process is used for pyrites ores of lower grade.
(D) Copper has low attraction towards sulphur so thats why it is easily reduced.
99. In extraction of copper which compound form slag ?
(A) Sand and Iron oxide (B) Silica and Iron oxide
(C) Iron oxide and cuprous sulphide (D) Sand and Cuprous oxide.
100. Which impurities are in 95% pure copper ?
(A) Mainly-sulphur, Iron, Trace amount : As, Sb, Zn, Bi, Si, Au, Pt
(B) Mainly sulphur, Zinc, Trace amount : As, Sb, Fe, Bi, Ag, Au, Pt
(C) Mainly - Iron, zinc, Trace amount : Al, Ag, Au, Pt, Sn
(D) Mainly sulphur, Trace amount : Zn, Sb, Fe, Si, As, Au
101. Which of the following is not done during heating Blister copper in presence of air in furnace ?
(A) Silicates of Fe, Bi, Zn etc. Float as slag on copper.
(B) Volatile oxides of As and Sb are remove.
(C) During this some aqrous oxide is produced.
(D) Copper become brittle.
102. In which of the following uses copepr is not used ?
(A) Scientific balance (B) Tubes of boiler
(C) Currency coins (D) Electrical appliances
103. Which of the following is alloy of copper ?
(A) Duralamin (B) Aluminium bronze (C) Alnico (D) Magnalium
104. Which of the following is not alloy of copper ?
(A) Delta metal (B) Muhtz metal (C) Constantant (D) magnalium
105. In Extraction of copper what is matte ?
(A) Copper (II) sulphide and Iron (II) sulphide (B) Copper (II) sulphide and Iron (III) sulphide
(C) Copper (I) sulphide and Iron (II) sulphide (D) Copper (I) sulphide and Iron (III) sulphide
106. Why copper become brittle during thermal refining ?
(A) Because methan gas is obtained.
(B) Because powder of coal is spread on the fluid copper
(C) Because cuprose oxide is formed which is dissolve in copper
(D) Because of destructive distilation of branches of wood.
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107. Heating pyrites for removing sulphur that process called ...... ?
(A) Roasting (B) Calcination (C) smelting (D) Bessemerisation
108. Cu metal is reduced from what in extration of copper from copper sulphide ore ?
(A) FeS (B) Cu2O (C) SO2 (D) SO3
109. By heating Cu2O and Cu2S which product is obtained ?
(A) Cu + SO2 (B) CuO + CuS (C) Cu + SO3 (D) Cu2SO3
Answers : 97. (C), 98. (D), 99. (B), 100. (A), 101. (C), 102. (A), 103. (B), 104. (D),
105. (C), 106. (C), 107. (A), 108. (B), 109. (A)
Extraction of Iron metal (Fe)

Haematite (Fe2O3) is used to obtain iron.
There are total 3 steps for this.
(1) Roasting and Calcination : The oxide form ore containing iron is first roasted by heating with
some coal in furnace so that the volatile impurities are removed. Ferrous oxide is oxidised to forric oxide
which does not combine with silica and does not form slag.
(2) Reduction and Smelting : The porous mixture obtained by roasting is mixed with lime stone,
coke etc. are added into the blast furnance from the upper part. Here oxide is reduced to iron metal.
Thermodynamics is useful in understanding the reactions occuring in blast furnace. Blast furnace is very
tall furnace and there are different temperatures at different heights in the furnace. Iron obtained from
blast furnace contains 4% carbon and many impurities like S, P, Si, Mn, etc. in trace. It is called Pig iron.
It can be casted into different shapes. Cast iron is different from pig iron. Cast iron can be prepared by
blowing hot air in the mixture of pig iron, iron scrap and coke. The proportion of carbon in it is compara-
tively less. It is hard and brittle.
(3) Refining : Wrought iron or malleable iron is the purest form of general iron. Wrought iron is
prepared from cast iron in reverbertory furnace in which there is a layer of haemitite. Limestone is added
as a flux and is removed with oxidation of sulphur, silicon and phosphorus.
Uses :
Cast iron : Used in stoves, rails of railway, pipes of gutter, toys etc.
Wrought iron : Preparation of anchors, wires, bolts, chains, agricultural tools etc.
Steel containing Nickel : Used in ropes, automobiles, parts of aeroplanes, pendulums,
measurment tap etc.
Steel containg chromium : Used in machines for cutting and grinding and stainless steel is used in
cycles, automobiles, vessels, pans etc.
110. Mainly from which ores iron can be extracted ?
(A) Iron pyrites (B) Megnatite (C) Heamatite (D) Sidarite
111. Which of the following reaction is seen during calcination process ?
(A) Convert iron sulphide into iron oxide.
(B) Conversion of cuprous oxide into cuprous shlphide
(C) Conversion of cuprous sulphide into cuprous oxide
(D) Conversion of ferrous oxide into ferric oxide
303
112. Reaction occuring in blast furance wroking on which principle ?
(A) Thermodynamics (B) Electrochemical laws (C) La-chatelier (D) Electronation
113. Which of the following process is done in blast furnace at 500-800 K temperature ?
(A) FeO(s)+ CO(g) ® Fe(s) + CO2(g) (B) Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) ® 2FeO(s) + CO2(g)
(C) FeO(s) + C(s) ® Fe(s) + CO(g) (D) CaO(s) + SiO2(s) ® CaSiO3
114. FeO(s) + CO(g) ® Fe(s) + CO2(g) this reaction is done at which temperature at blast furnace ?
(A) 500 - 600 K, (B) 500 - 900 K,
(C) 500 - 800 K, (D) 900 - 1500 K,
115. At which temeperature pig iron is form ?
(A) 1270 K (B) 2170 K and high temperature
(C) 2170 K (D) 1270 K - 2170 K
116. When will be cast iron form ?
(A) By passing hot air in mixture of pig iron and coke.
(B) By heating pig iron at high temperature.
(C) By heating pig iron and iron scrap at high temperature.
(D) By heating mixture of pig iron, iron scrap and coke at very high temperature.
117. Which of the following statement is wrong for conversion of cast iron into wrought iron ?
(A) layer of graphite in blast furnace.
(B) addition of limestone as a flux.
(C) oxidation of S, Si and P and they are removed with slag.
(D) conversion of hematite carbon into carbon monoxide.
118. Which of the following used by cast iron ?
(A) Wire (B) Chains (C) Vessel (D) Toys
119. Which of the following is use of wrought iron ?
(A) Both (B) Stove (C) Ropes (D) Cycle
120. Which of the following is use of nickel containing steel ?
(A) grinding machines (B) parts of plan
(C) agricultural tools (D) preparations of anchors
121. Which of the following is use of steel containing chromium ?
(A) Cutting machines (B) Automobile (C) Toys (D) Pen
122. Which of the following is use of stainless steel ?
(A) Automobile (B) Cycle (C) Measuring Tap (D) Pen
123. Which of the following reaction is not possible in blast furnance ?
+ 3C ® 4Fe + 3CO2
(A) 2Fe2O3(s) (B) CO2+ C ® 2CO
(C) CaCO3 ® CaO + CO2 (D) CaO + SiO2 ® CaSiO3
Answers : 110. (C), 111. (D), 112. (A), 113. (B), 114. (D), 115. (B), 116. (D), 117. (A),
118. (D), 119. (A), 120. (B), 121. (A), 122. (C), 123. (A)
304
Extraction of Zinc
Zinc blende is mostly used for extraction of zinc.
extraction takes place in four different steps :
(1) Concentration : Zns which is the sulphide containing ore of zinc, froth floation process is used
for its concentration. It contains galena and send etc. as the impurities.
If mineral is calamine this method is not necessary because the ore does not contain galena.
(2) Roasting : Concentrated ore Zns or calamine is roasted in presence of air so that it is converted
to oxide from ZnO.
(3) Reduction : Zinc oxide obtained by roasting is mixed with powder form coal or anthracite coal
and heated in the cylindrical retort which is made up of fire clay brickes. So, strongly that it becomes red
hot. One end of the retort is closed and other retort is joined with the other open part so that it works as
a condensor and cools the vapour of zinc that is coming out. This metal is taken out and is casted into
blocks, the zinc metal that we get on commerical basis is called spelter.
(4) Refining : Zinc obtained by reduction which is called spelter contains impurities like Fe, Al, As,
Sb etc., which can be removed by repeated distillation. But zinc is reacted with dilute H2SO4 so as to
obtain puer zinc. Cadmium is precipitated by zinc dust. Iron is converted to ferric state. Al, sb and As are
separated from solutions of suitable acidity electrolysis of Zinc sulphate which filtered out. The electrolyte
is zinc sulphate solution containing dilute H2SO4.
Uses :
Zinc is used in preparation of electrical cells, in electroplating of zinc and in galvanising. It is used in
certain alloys like brass, german silver and by reduction with zinc Ag and Au can form.
124. Which of the following ore is mainly used for extraction of zinc ?
(A) Zinc bland (B) Calamine (C) zincite (D) above all
125. Which ore of zinc is concentrated by froth flotation method ?
(A) zinc bland (B) calamine (C) zincite (D) sidarite
126. Which of the following metter is important during roasting of Zns ?
(A) minimum Zno occur. (B) maximum Zno can occur.
(C) SO2 gas can librate. (D) ZnSO4 can form.
127. Which of the following impurites are there in spelter form by reduction ?
(A) Fe, Al, Cu, Si (B) Fe, Cu, Si, Sb (C) Al, Sb, Bi, As (D) Al, As, Sb, Fe
128. By reacting with whom pure zinc sulphate solution can form ?
(A) dilute HCl (B) dilute H2SO4 (C) aqueous NaOH (D) CuSO4
129. Which of the following method is used for extraction of pure zinc from spetter ?
(A) By reacting with dilute H2SO4.
(B) By precipitation of Cd by Zinc dust
(C) Al, Sb and As are separated from solutions of suitable acidity.
(D) Above all.
305
130. Which of the following use of zinc metal ?
(A) electrical cell. (B) to prepare german silver alloy.
(C) extraction of Ag and Au by reduction. (D) above all
131. In purification of zinc by electrolysis...
(A) graphite is act as anode. (B) impure metal as cathod.
(C) metal ion reduced at anode. (D) acidic ZnSO4 act as electrolyte.
132. How to extract zinc from zinc bland ?
(A) By electrolytic reduction and roasting (B) reduction and roasting by carbon
(C) reduction and roasting by other metal (D) self reduction.
133. Match Column-I with Column-II.
Column-I (A) (Metal) Column-II (B) (ore)

(1) Aluminium (P) Magnetite (A) (1)-(S), (2)-(Q), (3)-(T), (4)-(R)
(2) Copper (Q) Siderite (B) (1)-(R), (2)-(T), (3)-(P), (Q), (4)-(S)
(3) Iron (R) Kaolinite (C) (1)-(R), (2)-(T), (Q), (3)-(P), (4)-(S)
(4) Zinc (S) Calamine (D) (1)-(S), (2)-(R), (3)-(Q), (4)-(T)
(T) Malachite
134. Column-I (A) (ore) Column-II (B) (formula)
(1) Kaolinite (P) Cu2O (A) (1)-(T), (2)-(R), (3)-(S), (4)-(Q)

(2) Cuprite (Q) ZnO (B) (1)-(T), (2)-(S), (3)-(R), (4)-(Q)
(3) Siderite (R) Fe3O4 (C) (1)-(T), (2)-(P), (3)-(S), (4)-(Q)
(4) Zincite (S) FeCO3 (D) (1)-(T), (2)-(P), (3)-(R), (4)-(Q)
(T) [Al2(OH)4Si2O5]
135. Column-I (A) (Method) Column-II (B) (Reaction)
(1) Calcination (P) 2FeS(s) + 3O2(g) ® 2FeO(s) + 2SO2(g)
(2) Roasting (Q) Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) ® 2FeO(s) + CO2(g)
(3) Smelting (R) ZnCO3(s) ® ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
(S) 2CuFeS2(s) + 4O2(g) ® Cu2S(l) + 2FeO(g) + 3SO2(g)
(A) (1)-(R), (2)-(S), (3)-(P) (B) (1)-(Q), (2)-(P), (3)-(S)

(C) (1)-(S), (2)-(R), (3)-(Q) (D) (1)-(R), (2)-(Q), (3)-(P)
306
136. Column-A (Method) Column-B (rifining)
(1) Liquation (P) Purification for titanium

(2) Leaching (Q) Metals like Hg which contain lower boiling point
(3) Distilation (R) Metals like Tin which contain lower boiling point
(S) Ores in proper solvent
(A) (1)-(R), (2)-(P), (3)-(S) (B) (1)-(Q), (2)-(S), (3)-(P)
(C) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(S) (D) (1)-(R), (2)-(S), (3)-(Q)
137. Column-(A) (Metal) Column-(B) (Method)
(1) Zerconium (P) Mond carbonyl (A) (1)-(Q), (2)-(R), (3)-(S)

(2) Nickel (Q) Distilation (B) (1)-(S), (2)-(P), (3)-(R)
(3) Indium (R) Zone refining (C) (1)-(S), (2)-(Q), (3)-(R)
(S) Van arkel (D) (1)-(Q), (2)-(P), (3)-(S)
138. Column (A) (Temperature) Column (B) (Reaction)

(1) 500 - 800 K (P) FeO(s) + CO(g) ® Fe(s) + CO2(g)
(2) 900 - 1500 K (Q) FeO(s) + C(s) ® Fe(s) + CO(g)
(3) 500 - 900 K (R) Fe2O3(s) + CO(g) ® 2FeO(s) + CO2(g)
(4) 1270 K (S) CaO(s) + SiO2(g) ® CaSiO3(s)
(T) Fe3O4(s) + CO(g) ® 3FeO(s) + CO2(g)
(A) (1)-(R), (T), (2)-(P), (3)-(S), (T), (4)-(P), (Q) (B) (1)-(R), (2)-(Q), (3)-(T), (P), (4)-(Q), (S)
(C) (1)-(T), (2)-(R), (3)-(S), (P), (4)-(P) (D) (1)-(T), (2)-(P), (S), (3)-(T), (4)-(P), (R)
139. Column (A) (Metal) Column (B) (uses)
(1) Aluminium (P) Electrical cell
(2) Copper (Q) Toys
(3) Iron (R) Parts of racing Cars
(4) Zinc (S) Currency coin
(T) Measuring tap
(A) (1)-(T), (2)-(S), (P), (3)-(Q), (4)-(S), (P) (B) (1)-(S), (2)-(T), (P), (3)-(P), (4)-(R)
(C) (1)-(Q), (S), (2)-(S), (3)-(Q), (T), (4)-(P) (S) (D) (1)-(Q), (2)-(P), (T), (3)-(T), (4)-(R), (S)
140. Column (A) (Metal) Column (B) (Alloy)
(1) Aluminium (P) German silver (A) (1)-(S), (2)-(Q), (3)-(R), (P), (4)-(T), (S)
(2) Copper (Q) Aluminium Bronze (B) (1)-(Q), (S), (2)-(R),(Q),(P), (3)-(T), (4)-(P)
(3) Iron (R) Delta Metal (C) (1)-(S), (R), (2)-(R), (3)-(T), (4)-(P)
(4) Zinc (S) Alnico (D) (1)-(Q), (2)-(S), (Q), (3)-(R), (4)-(T), (P)
(T) Steel
307
141. Pure alumina from bauxite ore can be shown by following reaction ?
(1) Al2O3(s) + 2NaOH(aq) + 3H2O(l) ® 2Na[Al(OH)4](aq)
(2) 2Na[Al(OH)4](aq) + 2CO2(g) ® Al2O3 . XH2O(s) + 2NaHCO3(aq)
(3) Al2O3 . XH2O(s) ® Al2O3(s) + XH2O(g)
choose proper option from above equation and method.
(1) Process in equation (1) is done at what temperature and pressure ?
(A) 473-573 K, 35-40 bar (B) 450-550 K, 30-35 bar
(C) 473-523 K, 35-36 bar (D) 450-573 K, 30-40 bar
(2) In equation (2) by doing what we can increase proportion of Al2O3 ?
(A) By adding Al2O3
(B) Addition of freshly solution of Al2O3 or Al(OH)3.
(C) By adding Al(OH)3.
(D) By adding aquieous solution of Al2O3 and Al(OH)3 .
(3) What is temperature of equation (3) ?
(A) 1200 K (B) 1400 K (C) 1450 K (D) 1470 K
142. Select true or false option from following statements :
(i) Calamine is a carbonate ore of zinc.
(ii) Leaching of gold is done by NaCN.
(iii) Sulphide ores are very useful for extraction for metals.
(iv) Purification of zinc is done by distilation.
(A) TFTF (B) TFFT (C) FTFT (D) FTTF
143. Select true and false statement from below :
(i) Wet metallurgical process is used for pyrites ores of higher grade.
(ii) Mixture of iron sulphide and cuprus sulphide called matte.
(iii) German silver is alloy of copper.
(iv) 4 % of carbon is present in wrought iron.
(v) Galena is present as impurities in calamine ore.
(A) TTFFT (B) FTTFT (C) TFTFT (D) FTTFF
144. Check balancing of following four reaction is true or false state that. (T = True, F = Wrong)
(i) MXOY + YC ® XM + YCO
(ii) 2Al2O3 + 3C ® 4Al + 3CO2
(iii) FeO + SiO2 ® FeSiO3
(iv) Cu2S + 2Cu2O ® 6Cu + SO2
(A) TTTT (B) TTTF (C) TFTF (D) TTFT
308
145. Select proper option in case of X, Y and Z
(i) Heat refining is used for purification of X metal.
(ii) Zone refining is used for purification of Y metal.
(iii) Seperation of deyes Z is useful.
(A) X = Iron Y = Ge Z = Mond Carboxyl process
(B) X = Iron Y = Ge Z = Van Arkel Method
(C) X = Copper Y = Si Z = Cromatography Method
(D) X = Copper Y = Si Z = Liquation
146. Match Column-I with Column-II.
Column (A) Column (B)
(1) PbS ® PbO (P) Rosting
(2) CaCO3 ® CaO (Q) Calcination
(3) ZnS ® Zn (R) Carbon Reduction
(4) Cu2O ® Cu (S) Self Reduction
(A) (1)-(P), (2)-(Q), (3)-(P),(R), (4)-(P),(R),(S)

(B) (1)-(P), (2)-(Q), (3)-(P), (Q), (4)-(R), (S)
(C) (1)-(P), (2)-(P), (Q), (3)-(Q), (4)-(P)
(D) (1)-(P), (2)-(P),(R),(S) (3)-(S),(Q), (4)-(P), (R)
Answers : 124. (A), 125. (A), 126. (B), 127. (D), 128. (B), 129. (D), 130. (D), 131. (D),
132. (B), 133. (B), 134. (C), 135. (A), 136. (D), 137. (B), 138. (A), 139. (C),
140. (B), 141. (1)-(C), (2)-(B), (3)-(D), 142. (B), 143. (D), 144. (A), 145. (C),
146. (A).
309
13 Hydrogen
The dihydrogen (H2) available in the most abundance in the world comes third in the
proportion on the surface of the earth. It is seen as the largest source of energy in future.
Symbol : H
Atomic number : 1
Atomic weight : 1.008 u
Position of Hydrogen in periodic table
Similarity with Alkali metals
No. Property Hydrogen Alkali metals
(1) Electronic configuration 1s1 ns1

(2) Oxidation state +1 +1
(3) Reductant strong strong
(4) Halogen elements and reaction with stable halide stable halide
oxygen and oxide and oxide
Non-similarity with Alkali metals
No Property Hydrogen Alkali metals

(1) Ionization Enthalpy very high very less
1312 KJ/mole Li = 520 KJ/mole
(2) Physical state Diatomic Gas Solid
Similarity with Halogen
No Property Hydrogen Halogen
(1) Oxidation state -1 (Hydride) -1

(2) Atomic Diatomic Diatomic
(3) Ionization enthalpy 1312 KJ/mole F=1680 KJ/mole
(4) Reaction with metals Hydride e.g. NaH Halide e.g NaCl
Non-similarity with Halogen

No. Property Hydrogen Halogen
(1) Electronic configuration 1s1 ns2 np5

(2) Colour Colourless Coloured
(3) Oxidant Weak Strong
310
Thus position of hydrogen is not definite, so it is placed in the middle of first period.
Isotopes of Hydrogen
No Name and Atomic Atomic Number Number Proportion Stability
symbol Number mass of of and t 1
2
proton neutron
(1) Protium 1 1 1 0 Highest Stable

1
1H 99.98
(2) Deuterium 1 2 1 1 0.015 % Stable
2
1H
1
(3) Tritium 1 3 1 2 T : H Radio active
®
1
3 17 3 3
T, .
1
H 1 : 10 1
H 2
He +-1e0
t1
= 12.33 year
2
The physical properties of these isotopes differ from each other due to large difference in atomic
weight.
Their electronic configuration are same, so their chemical properties are similar, but have different
rate of reaction.
1. Which element is seen as the largest source of energy in future ?
(A) Monoatomic gas (B) Diatomic non metal gas
(C) least weight of diatomic gas (D) triatomic gas
2. Which of the following possess electronic configuration similar to that of hydrogen ?
(A) strong oxidant elements (B) Noble gases
(C) Anhydrous substance (D) Strong reductant elements
3. Which property of hydrogen differ from strong reducing agent elements ?
P. Preparation of stable peroxide Q. DiH R. physical state
(A) Q, R (B) only P (C) only Q (D) P, R
4. To which of the following reagent hydrogen acts as oxidant ?
(A) Na (B) Fe2O3 (C) Cl2 (D) CH2 = CH2
5. Which of the elements show similarity when hydrogen gains one electron to attain stable
electronic configuration like inert gas ?
(A) Alkali metal (B) Alkaline Earth metal (C) Halogen (D) Chalcogen
6. Which oxidation states are possible in hydrogen ?
(A) only 0 (B) + 1, - 1, 0 (C) only +1 (D) only -1
7. Which property of hydrogen differs from halogen ?
(A) Electronegative characteristics (B) Ionization enthalpy
(C) Non-metallic (D) Reductant
8. Which of the following statement is incorrect for protium, duterium and tritium ?
(A) They are isotopes of each other (B) They have 1, 2 and 3 nucleons respectively
(C) They have same electronic configuration, so physical properties are also same
(D) Their relative proportion of isotopes : 99.98 : 0.0516 : 10-15
311
3 -
9. 1
H ® X + b particle, X = .............
(A) 12 H (B) 32 He (C) 11 H (D) 24 He
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (D), 3. (A), 4. (A), 5. (C), 6. (B), 7. (D), 8. (C), 9. (B)
Preparation of dihydrogen
Generally : Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) ® ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Zn(s) + 2NaOH(aq) ® Na2ZnO2(aq) + H2(g)
Sodium zincate
Industrially : Zn(s) + H2SO4(aq) ® ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)
Industrial Preparation of Dihydrogen

(i) Initial substances : H2O CH4 CH3OH
vapour Natural gas Methanol
1270 K [Ni] 673 K
Heated H2O(g) 1270 K 50 bar
Coke [Cu2O]
CO(g) + H2(g)
Synthetic gas
673K
H2O
(FeCrO4)
CO2(g) + H2(g)
Pass from H2O
CO2 dissolve H2 insoluble

(ii) Electrolysis of water
Electrolyte Electrode
(a) Acidic water Pt
(b) Aqueous solution of Ba(OH)2 Ni
H2 gas obtained on cathode.

Physical properties of Dihydrogen
(1) Colourless, odourless, Tasteless gas (2) Lighter than air
(3) Insoluble in water (4) Diamagnetic
(5) Reduction potential 0.0 V
312
Chemical reactions of dihydrogen
X

2(g)
→ 2HX (X = F, Cl, Br, I)
O

2(g)
→
catalyst,∆ H2O(l) DH = -285.9 KJ/mole
N 2 ( g ) 773 K
→ NH3(g) D H = - 92.6 KJ/mole
200bar[ Fe ]
2M
→
(s)
2MH(s) M = alkali metal
Pd 2+

(aq)
→ Pd(s) + 2H+(aq)
M O (S)
x y
H2(g)  → xM(s) + yH2O(l)
CH = CH

2 2 →
CH3 - CH3 Ethane
[Ni] 390K
CH ≡ CH
 → CH - CH3 Ethane
Raney Ni, 390K 3
CO( g ) 573K
 →
50 bar ,[ Cu 2 O ] CH3OH(l) Methanol
Hydride
Noble gases, Indium (In), Thalium (Tl) and Group 7, 8 and 9 do not give hydride.
General formula : MH or MmHn.
Types of Hydride Element Properties Uses
(1) Saline s-block (i) Crystalline, solid, non volatile Uses of LiH is to
or Group-1 and non conductor prepare LiAlH4 and
Ionic MH LiBH4 which act as
Group 2 MH2 (ii) 2H - anode →
 H2(g) + 2e- reducing agent
(iii) Polymeric structure like
(BeH2)n and (MgH2)n
(iv) MH(s)+H2O(l)®MOH(aq)+H2(g)
(2) Metallic d-block, f-block, Non-stoichiometric because catalyst

or only Cr from 6th hydrogen is absorbed in the
Intertitial Group. interstitial place of metal.
(3) Molecular Metallic and (i) Gas, liquid form
or non metallic (ii) stable
Co-valent p-block elements,
Electron deficient
hydride : B2H6
Electron precise
hydride : CH4
Electron rich
hydride :H2O,
NH3, HF
313
10. When Zn metal is added to concentrated NaOH it produces combustible gas and gives ...... .
(A) Na2ZnO3 (B) Na3ZnO2 (C) Na2ZnO2 (D) NaZnO2
11. Which electrolysis gives pure dihydrogen ?
(A) Aqueous solution of KOH (B) Aqueous solution of Ba(OH)2
(C) Water containing H2SO4 (D) Water containing NaOH
12. Water gas + H2O(g) 

673K → CO + 2H2(g) Z = .......... .
[Z] 2(g)
(A) Cu2O (B) Fe (C) Ni (D) FeCrO4

13. Which of the following passes through CO2(g) + H2(g) to get H2 gas ?
(A) H2O (B) Con. H2SO4 (C) dil. HCl (D) Hot solution of KCl
14. Which electrolysis produces H2 gas on anode ?
(A) Aqueous solution of Ba(OH)2 (B) Acidic water
(C) Fused sodium hydride (D) concentrated NaCl
15. Which of the following pair of elements do not give hydride compounds ?
(A) Ca, Be (B) In, Tl (C) Li, P (D) Sb, V
16. Which hydride of s-block possess covalent and polymeric structure ?
(A) BeH2 (B) LiH (C) CaH2 (D) NaH
17. 2MH + B 2H 6 ® 2MBH4 which block of M-element belong ?
(A) d (B) s (C) p (D) f
18. Position of element in periodic table, which of the following is electron precise hydride ?
(A) period 2, group 14 (B) period 2, group 15 (C) period 2, group 13 (D) period 2, group 16
19. What is the set of quantum no of valence electron in which it is electron deficient hydride ?
(A) n = 3, l = 1 (B) n = 2, l = 0 (C) n = 2, l = 1 (D) n = 4, l = 2
Answers : 10. (C), 11. (B), 12. (D), 13. (A), 14. (C), 15. (B), 16. (A), 17. (B) 18. (A), 19. (C)
Water : Universal Solvent

Physical Property :
(1) colourless, odourless, tasteless liquid
(2) Melting Point : 273K, boiling point : 373K, density 1.0 gm cm3 at 298 K
(3) Polar, anomalous volume expansion between 273K to 277K
Structure :
(1) Types of hybridisation : sp3
104.5o
Bond angle : 104.5o, Bond length : 95.7 pm H H
Due to two non-bonding e pairs bond angle decreases from 109o 28 ’

(2) Ice : A definite three dimensional structure is formed by hydrogen bonds. It is lighter than
water.
314
Chemical Properties of Water

concentration
→ 55.55 mol lit1 at 298 K
H 2O
 → H3O+(aq) + OH(aq) At equilibrium [H3O+] = [OH-] = 107M
NH3(g)
 → NH4+(aq) + OH-(aq)

2
Base
H S
Acid
→ HS-(aq) + H3O+(aq) } Amphoteric nature
HS− →
 S-2(aq) + H3O+(aq)
Acid
Na →
 NaOH(aq) + H2(g) Oxidizing agent
CO
H2O(l)  2
→ CH O + O2 Reducing agent

Photo synthesis
F2
→
P4O10
6 12 6
HF(aq)
H3PO4
+ O2(g) }
 →
AlCl3 [Al(H2O)6]3+(aq) + 3Cl-(aq)
}
 → Hydration reaction
SiCl4
 → SiO2 + HCl
Ca 3 N 2
 → Ca(OH)2 + NH3
Some compounds are hydrous. The number of molecules of water associated with it is called
water of crystallization. Metallic salt : CuSO4 . 5H2O, FeSO4.7H2O, BaCl2.2H2O
Complex salt : [Ni(H2O)6] (NO3)2, [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
The water which does not easily form leather with soap is called hard water.
2C17H35COONa + M2+(aq) ® (C17H35COO)2M(s) + 2Na+(aq)
(salt of fatty acid)
Hardness of water
Temporary Permanent
Due to soluble Mg(HCO3)2 and Ca(HCO3)2 Due to soluble salt of CaCl2, CaSO4,
MgCl2 and MgSO4
Methods of removal of hardness
(1) Boiling of water (2) Clarks method

∆ → MCO
M(HCO3)2(aq)  + CO2(g) Ca(HCO3)2(aq) + Ca(OH)2(aq)
3(s)
+ H2O(1) lime water
¯
2CaCO3(s) + 2H2O(l)
315
Methods to remove permanent hardness
(i) Chemical Method (ii) Ion-Exchange (iii) Synthetic Resin
(a) Add determined amount uses of zeolite Very effective
of washing soda
MCl2(aq) + Na2CO3(s) It is aluminosilicate. Exchange Ca2 and Mg2 + +
Na2Al2Si4O12 from cation exchange region

MCO3(s) + 2NaCl(aq) Structure like honey comb. (RSO3Na)
2+ 2+
M = Ca / Mg
+ +2
(b) By use of sodium hexa Na present in void exchange 2R Na(s) + M (aq)
+ +
meta phosphate by Ca2 and Mg2 ion. ¯
+ + +
Ca2 and Mg2 ions can R2M(s) + 2Na (aq)
be made ineffective.
+ -2 + - + + -
Na6P6O18 ® 2Na + Na4P6O18 2Na Z + Ca2 ® Ca2 (Z )2 To remove anions from water,
+
calgon + 2Na anion exchange resins are used.
+ - +
M2 + Na4P6O18 2 ® 2Na + To make efficient resin
2-
[Na2MP6O18] (M = Ca, Mg). again NaCl is passed through it.
20. HOH bond angle in water is 104.5o instead of 109o 28 ’because ......
(A) it possess sp3 hybridisation. (B) it contains hydrogen bond
(C) it has non-bonding e-pair effect (D) it is polar
21. What is the concentration of pure water at 298 K temperature ?
(A) 107 M (B) 55.55 M (C) 1014 M (D) 7.00 M
22. In the reaction : H2S(l) + H2O(l) U HS(aq) + H3O(aq)+ H2O acts as ......
(I) Acid (II) Base (III) Reductant
(A) only (I) (B) (II) and (III) (C) (I) and (III) (D) only (II)
23. Hard water is not suitable for washing clothes because ......
(A) water forms micelle with soap (B) sodium salt of fatty acid is precipitated
(C) soap is hydrolysis by water (D) magnesium salt of fatty acid is precipitated
24. Which method is used to remove temporary hardness of water ?
(A) Distillation (B) Sublimation (C) Filteration (D) Boiling
25. Which substance is used for hard water becomes soft by Clarks method ?
(A) CaCl2 (B) Ca(OH)2 (C) CaCO3 (D) Ca(NO3)2
26. Removal of permanent hardness of water calgon is used because ......
(A) to form soluble complex with RCOO- (B) precipitation of negative components
(C) to form soluble complex with Ca2+ and Mg2+ (D) precipitation of positive components.
27. Which method is used to soften hard water completely without salt ?
(A) Ion exchange (B) Electrolysis (C) Synthetic resin (D) Clarks method
Answers : 20. (C), 21. (B), 22. (D), 23. (D), 24. (D), 25. (B), 26. (C), 27. (C)
316
Hydrogen Peroxide (H2O2)
Physical Properties :
(i) H2O2 in pure form is colourless but is in more proportion,
it is a blue coloured dense liquid.
(ii) Its density in solid form is 1.64 g cm3 and in liquid form
1.44 gcm3. H
(iii) Melting Point = 272.4 K, boiling point = 423 K 98.8 pm
145.8 pm 90.2°
Strong oxidizing agent.
H2O2 sold in market has H2O2 30% in 100 volume with water. 101.9°
H
At STP in one millilitre 30% H2O2 gives 100 ml of oxygen.
Structure (Solid Form)
- There are two bonds OO and HO in H2O2.
- In peroxide (OO)2- ion is present. Its molecule is non planar.
H
Uses :
(i) As bleaching agent. 95.0 pm
147.5 pm 111.5°
(ii) As mild disinfectant in dentistry which is sold in market as
perhydral. 94.8°
H
(iii) In preparation of chemicals like sodium percarbonate,
sodium perborate etc. (Gas Form)
(iv) As the controller in pollutants.
Preparation and properties of H2O2
(1) J. L. Thenard (2) Industrially (3) High current density of
-
HSO4
BaO2 + H2SO4 2ethyl anthraquinol
Barium peroxide Anodic
O2 H2/Pd oxidation
Air Oxidized
Oxidize H2S2O8 perdisulphuric acid
-
- 2HSO4 Hydrolysis
Hydrolysis +
H2O2 - 2H 2H2O
Oxidant Reductant
H2O2 ® H2O H2O2 ® O2
-1 -2 -1 0
H2SO3 + -
H2SO4(aq) + H2O(l) ←  HOCl→
 H3O + Cl + O2(g)
HNO3(aq) + H2O(l) HNO2

←  Cl2 + 2OH− 2Cl -
2H2O O2(g)
 → + +
PbSO4(aq) + H2O(l) PbS(s) I2 + 2OH − 2I -

2H2O O2(g)
 → + +
←
2Fe3 +
+ 2H2O(l) 2Fe2+ 
← 2Fe3+ + 2OH −
→ 2Fe2 +
+ 2H2O + O2(g)
2H +
(aq)
Basic →

KMnO4 MnO2 + KOH + H2O + O2
317
Heavy water (D2O)
Oxides of dueterium
Chemical Properties
SO3 + D2O ® D2SO4,
CaC2 + 2D2O ® C2D2 + Ca(OD)2,
Al4C3 + 12D2O ® 3CD4 + 4Al(OD)3
Uses
As moderator, to obtain compounds of dueterium to understand mechanism of a reaction
exchange of ions etc.
Economic utility of Dihydrogen
Because of decrease in quantity of crude oil available from the earth, not possible to store
electrical energy and limitations of obtaining nuclear energy, the utility of dihydrogen can be the
source of energy in its place
Hydrogen fuel is ecofriendly
Problems
(i) production of low cost (ii) storage (iii) transformation
Uses of dihydrogen :
(i) As a fuel in rocket (ii) As reductant (iii) Production of NH3, CH3OH, HCl etc. (iv) Used in
cutting and welding work of metals.
Formulas of Examples
W W
(1) M = Where, M = molarity (2) N = Where, N = normality
M’× V E×V
W = weight of solute (gm.) W = weight of solute (gm.)
M ’ = molecular weight of solute (gm) E = equivalent weight of solute
V = volume of solution (lit.) V = volume of solution (lit)
gram
(3) = N ´ Equivulent weight (4) Equivalent weight of H2O2 = 17
litre
W
(5) N for H2O2 = 2M (6) % = gm of H2O2 dissolve in 100 ml
V
volume of solution
W W
(7) Volume = % ´ 3.294 (8) % = 3.4 ´ M
V V
(9) % Volume = 11.2 ´ M (10) N1V1 = N 2V 2
(11) (strength)1 ´ (volume of solution)1 + (strength)2 ´ (volume of solution)2 + (strength)3 ´
(volume of solution)3 = Strength ´ Volume of mix solution
W gram
where, strength = % = = volume
V litre
318
28. Which statement is wrong according to H2O2 ?
(A) It is blue coloured dense liquid. (B) It contains two-OH group in one plane.
(C) It possess open book like structure. (D) As bleaching agent in leather industry.
29. Which behaviour of H2O2 show in the reaction ? H2O2(l) ® 2H +

+ O2(g) + 2e-
(A) oxidant (B) reductant (C) acidic (D) catalyst
30. Which of the following substance is reduced by H2O2 in basic medium ?
(A) Fe2+ (B) PbS (C) HOCl (D) SO32-
31. Structure of H2O2 is .......... .
(A) planar (B) spherical (C) linear (D) non planar
32. Which product is obtained when calcium carbide reacts with heavy water ?
(A) CD4 (B) CD2 (C) Ca2OD (D) C2D2
33. What litre of O2 gas produced by decomposition of 40 gm litre of H2O2 at STP ?
34. How many litres of O2 gas is produced when 440 gm solute dissolved in 6 lit. H2O2 at STP ?
(A) 5.19 lit. (B) 24.156 lit. (C) 0.865 lit. (D) 144.9 lit.
35. What strength volume and % W/V of 48 gm solubility in 500 ml aqueous solution of H2O2 ?
(A) 31.62, 9.6 (B) 63.24, 19.2 (C) 3.162, 0.96 (D) 6.324, 1.92
36. What amount (gm) of 3.72 mol lit.1 aqueous solution of H2O2 in 8 lit volume ? As well as
what strength in % W/V of its solution ?
Amount (gm) % W/V
(A) 505.92 12.648
(B) 1011.8 12.648
(C) 101.189 1.2648
(D) 50.592 1.2648
37. What is molarity (M), normality (N) and strength of solution in gm/lit respectively of 20 volume
H2O2 solution ?
(A) 3.57, 3.57, 121.42 (B) 3.57, 7.14, 121.42 (C) 1.785, 3.57, 60.70 (D) 1.785, 1.78, 60.70
38. What is molarity (M), strength in gm/lit and volume of H2O2 solution, when 30 ml 0.1M KMnO4
solution is required for complete oxidation of 30 ml acidic solution of H2O2 ?
(A) 0.12, 0.9, 0.6 (B) 0.06, 0.7, 0.8 (C) 0.1, 1.0, 0.9 (D) 0.05, 1.7, 0.56
319
39. What is molarity (M), normality (N), strength (%w/v), gm/lit and in volume of 10 lit H2O2 solution
containing 284 gm H2O2 ?
W
M N % gm/ml volume
V
(A) 1.67 1.67 5.68 56.78 18.70

(B) 1.67 3.34 2.839 5.678 18.70
(C) 0.835 1.67 2.839 28.39 9.352
(D) 0.835 0.835 1.419 28.39 9.352
W
40. What is strength in % , gm/lit and volume of solution of H2O2 prepared by mixing 400 ml
V
W W W
1.25% , 350 ml 2.1% and 250 ml 2.65% strength of H2O2 ? As well as what is the
V V V
molarity (M) and normality (N) of the resulting solution ?
W
% gm/lit Volume M N
V
(A) 1.006 10.06 3.31 0.03 0.06
(B) 1.006 1.006 3.31 0.03 0.03
(C) 1.897 1.897 6.25 1.116 1.116
(D) 1.897 1.897 6.25 0.558 1.116
41. What is the normality of KMnO4 solution, when 10 ml KMnO4 aqueous solution is required for
complete oxidation of acidic solution of 30 mol 1.5 volume H2O2 ?
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.19 (C) 0.8 (D) 0.65
Answers : 28. (B), 29. (B), 30. (C), 31. (D), 32. (D), 33. (C), 34. (B), 35. (A), 36. (B),
37. (C), 38. (D), 39. (C), 40. (D), 41. (C)
Column Type Questions

42. Match column I with column II.
Column I (Substance) Column II (Use)
(1) D2O (P) As a fuel
(2) H2O2 (Q) As moderator
(3) Liquid hydrogen (R) As disinfectant
(4) P6O186- (S) To understand mechanism of reaction
(t) To make of Ca2+ and Mg2+ effective in hard water
(A) (1) ® (Q), (2) ® (R), (S), (3) ® (P), (4) ® (t)
(B) (1) ® (Q), (R), (2) ® (P), (3) ® (S), (4) ® (t)
(C) (1) ® (Q), (S), (2) ® (R), (3) ® (P), (4) ® (t)
(D) (1) ® (Q), (P), (2) ® (R), (S), (3) ® (P), (4) ® (t)
320
Column I Column II
(Compounds) (Types of hydride)
(1) LaH3 (P) Saline (A) (1) ® (Q), (2) ® (R), (3) ® (P), (4) ® (Q), (R)
(2) H2S (Q) Molecular (B) (1) ® (S), (2) ® (Q), (3) ® (P), (4) ® (Q)
(3) CaH2 (R) Electron rich (C) (1) ® (Q), (S), (2) ® (R), (3) ® (P), (4) ® (R)
(4) B2H6 (S) Interstitial (D) (1) ® (S), (2) ® (Q), (R), (3) ® (P), (4) ® (Q)

Column I Column II
(1) Calgon (P) Complex salt (A) (1)®(R), (2)®(P), (3)®(Q), (4)®(S)
(2) BaCl .2H O
2 2
(Q) Market name of H2O2 (B) (1)®(T), (2)®(S), (3®(Q), (4)®(U)
(3) Perhydral (R) Na4P6O18 (C) (1)®(R), (2)®(P), (3)®(Q), (4)®(U)
(4) Paladium hydride (S) Metallic salt (D) (1)®(T), (2)®(S), (3)®(Q), (4)®(P), (U)
(T) P6O186-
(U) Non-stoichiometric
Answers : 42. (C), 43. (D), 44. (B)
T = True, F = False Type Questions

45. (i) To prevent the decomposition of aqueous solution of H2O2 stabilizer PO43- is added.
(ii) H2O2 is useful to prepare good quality of detergent.
(iii) Use of H2O2 is dangerous to environment.
(iv) In basic medium H2O2 does not make colourless the aqueous solution of KMnO4.
(A) TTTF (B) FTTT (C) TTFF (D) FTTF
46. (i) Dihydrogen is paramagnetic.
(ii) Ozone gas is used in cutting and welding of metals.
(iii) Hydrogenation of edible oil in presence of Ni catalyst to give edible fat.
(iv) Water gas is known as synthetic gas.
(A) FFTT (B) TFTT (C) TTTT (D) FFFT
47. (i) Na2CO3 is used to remove temporary and permanent hardness of water.
(ii) Basic solution containing Fe3+ ion becomes blue by addition of H2O2.
(iii) Oxidation number of hydrogen is +1 in saline hydride.
(iv) Percentage of deuterium in heavy water is 11.11.
(A) TTTF (B) FFFF (C) FFTF (D) FFTT
Answers : 45. (C), 46. (A), 47. (B)
321
There are two statements are given: Among this one is statement (A) and other is reason
(R). Select correct option to study instructions carefully.
(A) Statement (A) and Reason (R) both are true and reason (R) is correct explanation of
statement (A)
(B) Statement (A) and Reason (R) both are true and reason (R) is not correct explanation of
statement (A)
(C) Statement (A) is correct but reason (R) is wrong.
(D) Statement (A) and Reason (R) both are incorrect.
48. Statement (A) : Calgon is used to remove Ca2+ and Mg2+ from hard water.
Reason (R) : Calgon gives precipitate with Ca2+ and Mg2+

49. Statement (A) : In acidic medium, H2O2, reacts with KMnO4 to produce O2.
Reason (R) : KMnO4 oxidised of H2O2 in presence of O2.
50. Statement (A) : Boron hydride is co-valent hydride.
Reason (R) : Difference of electronegativity is more between boron and hydrogen.
Answers : 48. (D), 49. (A), 50. (C).
322
14 s-block elements
Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals
Group-1 (Group of Alkali Metals)
Elements, Atomic Number and Electronic configuration of first group in periodic table.
Element Atomic Number Electronic configuration
Li (Lithium) 3 [He] 2s1

Na (Sodium) 11 [Ne] 3s1
K (Potassium) 19 [Ar] 4s1
Rb (Rubidium) 37 [Kr] 5s1
Cs (Cesium) 55 [Xe] 6s1
Fr (Fransium) 87 [Rn] 7s1
Occurence
® The proportion of sodium and potassium in the composition of soil is about 4%.
® Francium is highly radio active.
® The half life period of its isotope 223
Fr is having longest life of only 21 minutes.
® The chief minerals and compositions of elements of group-1 are as follows :
(i) Lithium Spodumine- Li(AlSiO3)2
Lapidolyte (Li, Na, K)2 Al2(SiO3)3 [F(OH)]6
(ii) Sodium Rock salt- NaCl
Carnite - Na2B4O7.4H2O
Borax - Na2B4O7.10H2O
Chilie salt petre - NaNO3
(iii) Potassium : Sylvine - KCl
Carnalite - KCl, MgCl2.6H2O
These metals give different colour flames in oxidizing (blue) flame.
Metal Li Na K Rb Cs
Colour Crimson red Yellow Violet Red violet Blue violet
l (nm) 670.8 589.2 766.5 780.0 455.5
® The amounts of Na and K can be determined with the help of instruments like flame
photometer or atomic absorption spectrophotometer.
® Cesium and potassium are used in photoelectric cells because of this property.
323
Atomic size and Ionic size : As we move from Li to Cs, atomic number increases,
atomic size increases and ionic size decreases.
Ionization Enthalpy : Ionization enthalpy is the lowest for alkali metals.
As we move from Li to Cs, ionization enthalpy gradually decreases.
Alkali elements are good conductors of heat, some of them are used as coolants in nuclear
reactor.
Hydration Enthalpy : The hydration enthalpy of alkali elements decreases with increase
in their ionic sizes.
+ + + + +
Li > Na > K > Rb > Cs
The degree of hydration of Li is the highest due to which lithium salts are mainly hydrated.
eg. LiCl.H2O.
1. Which salt of Na and K are in more proportion obtained in ash of shrubs or plants ?
- - - -1
(A) CO32 (B) PO43 (C) SO42 (D) NO3
2. Which of the following element of first group is radio active ?

(A) Li (B) Na (C) K (D) Fr
3. Which metals are obtained as by-product during metallurgy of lithium ?
(A) Rb (B) Cs (C) both Rb and Cs (D) None
4. What is electronic configuration of francium ?
(A) [Kr] 6s1 (B) [Rn] 7s1 (C) [Xe] 5s1 (D) [Xe] 6s1
5. Which form of salt of sodium is chilie saltpetre ?
(A) Silicate (B) Nitrate (C) Borate (D) Chloride
223
6. Half life of Fr is ...... minute.
(A) 21 (B) 42 (C) 63 (D) 84
7. How much Fr will remian in sample of 500 gm Fr after 63 minutes ?
(A) 166.66 gm (B) 500 gm (C) 250 gm (D) 62.5 gm
8. Which metal is used in photoelectric cell ?
(A) Cd (B) K (C) Rb (D) Na
9. Match correct pair :
Alkali Metal Colour in flame test
(P) Li (T) Blue (A) (P)-(W), (Q)-(V), (R)-(U), (S)-(T)
(Q) Na (U) Purple (B) (P)-(T), (Q)-(W), (R)-(V), (S)-(U)
(R) K (V) Yellow (C) (P)-(U), (Q)-(T), (R)-(W), (S)-(V)
(S) Cs (W) Dark red (D) (P)-(V), (Q)-(U), (R)-(T), (S)-(W)
324
10. Cesium is more reactive in alkali metals because ....
(A) Its incomplete orbital is closer to nucleus.
(B) Its valence shell has only one electron
(C) It is the heaviest alkali metal.
(D) Its outermost electron combine weakly than other alkali metals
11. Elements of group (I) gives coloured flame when heated in Bunsen burner flame because ...
(A) low ionization enthalpy (B) low melting point
-
(C) soft (D) only one e in valence orbit
12. Which alkali metal starts melting if room temperature increases more than 30°C ?
(A) Na (B) K (C) Rb (D) Cs
13. Select the factor of Li to prepare strong reducing agent in aqueous solution.
(A) Sublimation enthalpy (B) Ionization enthalpy
(C) Hydration enthalpy (D) Electron gain enthalpy
14. Which of the following is decreasing order of ionization enthalpy for alkali metal elements ?
(A) Na > Li > K > Rb(B) Li > Na > K > Rb(C) Rb > Na > K > Li(D) K < Li < Na < Rb
15. Which alkali metal having more wavelength emit light in flame test ?
(A) Na (B) K (C) Cs (D) Li
16. ..........has maximum photoelectric effect.
(A) Cs (B) K (C) Na (D) Li
17. Which of the following statement is not appropriate for alkali metal elements ?
(A) Their ions are isoelectronic with noble gas. (B) Their melting point are low.
(C) It possess low electro negativity. (D) It possess high ionisation enthalpy
18. Sylvine is a mineral of ....... metal.
(A) K (B) Na (C) Li (D) Rb
- +
19. Arrange the species Li2, Li2 , Li2 in the increasing order of stability.
- + - + - + + -
(A) Li2 < Li2 < Li2 (B) Li2 < Li2 < Li2 (C) Li2 < Li2 < Li2 (D) Li2 < Li2 < Li2
+
20. Sodium cant be possible to make Na2 ion because...
(A) Its first and second ionization enthalpy are very low.
(B) Its first and second ionization enthalpy are very high.
(C) Its first ionization enthalpy is high but second ionization enthalpy is low.
(D) Its first ionization enthalpy is low but second ionization enthalpy is high.
+
21. First ionization potential of Na is 5.1 eV; then what is the value of electron gain enthalpy of Na ion ?
(A) - 5.1 eV (B) - 10.2 eV (C) + 2.55 eV (D) - 2.55 eV
Answers : 1. (A), 2. (D), 3. (C), 4. (B), 5. (C), 6. (A), 7. (D), 8. (B), 9. (A), 10. (D),
11. (A), 12. (D), 13. (C), 14. (B), 15. (B), 16. (A), 17. (D), 18. (A), 19.(A),
20. (D), 21. (C)
325
Chemical Reactivity of Alkali metals
The reactivity of these elements increase as we go down the group.
Chemical Reactions
(1) Reactivity towards air or oxygen : The alkali metals get tarnished in dry air because of
the formation of their oxides which further reacts with moisture and forms hydroxides. They burn
vigorously in air and form oxides.
Lithium forms monoxide.
® 4Li +
∆ → 2Li O
O2 (limited amount)  2
(Lithium monoxide)
Sodium forms peroxide.
® 4Na +
∆ → Na O
O2 (Enough amount)  2 2
(Sodium peroxide)
The other metals form superoxides. Superoxide ions (O21- ion) are stable only in presence of
large cations like K, Rb, Cs.
M(s) + O2(g) ® MO2(s) (Super oxide) (M = K, Rb, Cs)
The oxidation state of alkali metal in all these oxides is +1.
Lithium as an exception also form lithium nitride (Li3N) by direct reaction with nitrogen of air.
Alkali metals are kept in kerosene because of their high reactivity.
Oxide and hydroxide compounds and reactions towards dihydrogen, dihalogen, water,
ammonia.
(1) M 2O type oxides of alkali metals react with water and gives strong basic
solutions :
M2O(s) + H2O(l) ® 2MOH(l)
® Sodium hydroxide is called caustic soda and potassium hydroxide is called caustic potash. It
burns the skin.
® LiOH is sparingly soluble in water while the hydroxides of Na, K, Rb and Cs are
soluble in water.
(2) Reactivity towards water : Alkali metals react with water and form hydroxides and
dihydrogen.
2M(s) + 2H2O(l) ® 2M+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) + H2(g) (M = alkali metal)
Due to its small size and high hydration enthalpy, it reacts less vigorously than sodium.
(3) Reactivity towards dihydrogen (H2) : Alkali metals when heated with dihydrogen form
their hydrides which on reaction with water release hydrogen gas.
2M(s) + H2(g) ® 2MH(s) (Metal hydride)
MH(g) + H2O(l) ® MOH(aq) + H2(g)
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Reduction Nature
Alkali metals are strong reducing agents.
Lithium is the strongest and sodium is the least strong reducing agent.
The standard electrode potential (E°) determines the strength as reducing agent.
M(s) ® M(g) (sublimation enthalpy)
+ -
M(g) ® M (g)
+ e (Ionization enthalpy)
+ + -
M (g)
+ H2O(1) ® M (aq)
+ OH (Hydration enthalpy)
(4) Reactivity towards halogen : The distortion electron cloud of electron produced by cation
is called polarization.
Lithium halide is partially covalent due to high polarization capability of lithium ions.
Lithium iodide is the most co-valent.
Halogens act as oxidizing agent in formation of halides.
The melting point and boilling point of any alkali metal is in order : F > Cl > Br > I
All halide compounds except lithium fluoride are soluble in water.
(5) Reactivity towards liquid ammonia : The alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia and
gives deep blue coloured solutions which are electric conductor in nature.
+ -
M(s) + (x + y)NH3(l) ® [M(NH3)x] (am)
+ [e(NH3)y] (am)
® The blue colour of the solution is due to ammoniated electron which absorbs light from
visible spectrum and gives blue colour to solution. These solutions are paramagnetic and liberate
hydrogen slowly on standing and form amide.
+ - 1
M + e + NH3(l) ® MNH2(am) + H
(am) 2 2(g)
Where, am indicates ammonia solution.

® The blue colour in strong solution changes to bronze colour and becomes diamagnetic.
573− 673K
2Na(s) + 2NH3(g) → 2NaNH2(s) + H2(g)
sodamide
(6) Salts of oxoacids : Alkali metals form salts with all oxo acids. They are generally soluble
in water and are thermally stable.
® Their carbonates (M CO ) and most of the hydrogen carbonates (bicarbonates) (MHCO )
2 3 3
are more stable towards heat.
® As we go down in the group the stability of carbonates and bicarbonates increases.
® Lithium carbonate is unstable towards heat.
® Lithium being small in size, in Li O and CO . Its hydrogen carbonate does not exist as solid.
2 2
327
22. What is obtained when sodium is heated with enough amount of oxygen and low temperature ?
(A) Na2O (B) Na2O2 (C) NaO2 (D) Na2O3
23. Which alkali metal forms super oxide with excess oxygen at high temperature ?
(A) K (B) Rb (C) Cs (D) All above
24. Which alkali metal gives common oxide like M2O when heated in presence of air ?
(A) Rb (B) K (C) Li (D) Na
25. Which of the following is the strongest base ?
(A) LiOH (B) KOH (C) NaOH (D) RbOH
26. Which of the following compound is insoluble in water ?
(A) LiF (B) LiCl (C) LiBr (D) LiI
27. ......... is sparingly soluble in water.
(A) Li2CO3 (B) LiCl (C) Li3PO4 (D) LiOH
28. Which of the following compound is the most stable ?
(A) LiF (B) LiCl (C) LiBr (D) LiI
29. Which salt does not exist in solid state ?
(A) Na2CO3 (B) NaHCO3 (C) LiHCO3 (D) KHCO3
30. Which of the following is the highest co-valent compound ?
(A) LiCl (B) LiF (C) LiBr (D) LiI
31. What is obtained when sodium is heated with moisturised air ?
(A) NaO (B) NaOH (C) Na2O (D) Na2CO3
32. Which reaction does not occur when enough amount of Na metal dissolve in liquid ammonia at
low temperature ?
+
(A) give blue coloured solution (B) Na ion prepared in solution
(C) Sodium amide (D) Ammonium sodium ion.
33. Which of the following is responsible for blue coloured solution, when sodium dissolves in liquid
ammonia ?
(A) Sodium ion (B) Ammonium electron
(C) Sodium amide (D) Ammonium sodium ion
34. Which of the following compound is generally not possible ?
(A) K2O (B) KO4 (C) KO2 (D) K2O2
35. Which acts as reductant and oxidant both ?
(A) NaNO3 (B) N2O (C) Na2O2 (D) KNO3
36. KO2 is used in oxygen cylinder in spaceship and submarine because .....
(A) It absorbs CO2 and increase proportion of O2 (B) It decreases moisture
(C) It prepares ozone. (D) None
328
37. Give tendency of co-valency in increasing order for alkali halide compounds.
(A) MI > MBr > MCl < MF (B) MF < MCl < MBr < MI
(C) MBr < MCl < MI < MF (D) MF < MBr < MCl < MI
38. Which of the following is unstable towards heat ?

(A) K2CO3 (B) Na2CO3 (C) BaCO3 (D) Li2CO3
39. How many elements from Li, Na, K, Rb and Cs form directly superoxide with oxygen in
presence of heat ?
(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

40. Which reaction is not correct ?
∆ → ∆ →
(A) 2Li2O 
673 K
Li2O2 + 2Li (B) 2K2O 
673 K
K2O2 + 2K
∆ → ∆ →
(C) 2Na2O 
673 K
Na2O2(s) + 2Na (D) 2Rb2O 
673 K
Rb2O2 + 2Rb
41. Select correct option to complete following reaction. When alkali metals dissolve in liquid
ammonia then .......
(A) gives blue coloured solution.

(B) The blue colour in strong solution changes to bronze colour.
(C) The blue colour of this solution is due to ammoniated electron.
(D) All statements are correct

42. Which of the following option is wrong ?
(A) 4LiNO3(s) ® 2Li2O(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
(B) 2NaNO3(s) ® 2NaNO2(s) + O2(g)
(C) Li2O and MgO do not form super oxides combine with more amount of oxygen
(D) LiHCO3 is in solid form.
43. Very pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia ...

(A) gives blue colour. (B) show electric conductance.
(C) produces sodium amide. (D) both (A) and (B).
44. Which metal gives amide with ammonia at 300o C temperature ?

(A) Mg (B) Pd (C) Al (D) Na
∆→
45. xLiNO3  yLiO + zNO2 + w NO2 stoichiometric co-efficient x,y,z, w in given reaction
are respectively ....... .
(A) 4, 2, 4, 1 (B) 2, 4, 2, 1 (C) 3, 2, 3, 2 (D) 3, 2, 3, 1
329
46. P metal heated with nitrogen gives X(M3N) compound. X is heated high temperature P metal
obtained back. X heated with H2O produces Y gas, which passes through aqueous solution of
CuSO4 gives dark blue coloured. So what is P metal and Y gas ?
(A) Al and NH3 (B) Li and NH3 (C) Al and N2O (D) Li and N2O
47. Which of the following is the most stable ?
(A) Na3N (B) Li3N (C) K3N (D) Rb3N
48. Which of the following metal carbonate produce CO2 gas with acid when heated ?
(A) Na2CO3 (B) K2CO3 (C) Rb2CO3 (D) Li2CO3
49. What is produced heated to NaNO3 ?
(A) O2 (B) O2 + NO2 (C) NO2 (D) NO
50. What is produced heated to LiNO3 ?
(A) O2 (B) NO2 (C) O2 + NO2 (D) NO
Answers : 22. (B), 23. (D), 24. (C), 25. (D), 26. (A), 27. (D), 28. (A), 29. (C), 30. (D),
31. (B), 32. (D), 33. (B), 34. (B), 35. (C), 36. (A), 37. (B), 38. (D), 39. (C),
40. (A), 41. (D), 42. (D), 43. (D), 44. (D), 45. (A), 46. (B), 47. (B), 48. (D),
49. (A), 50. (C)
Diagonal relationship and Irregularity :

Diagonal relationship of lithium with magnesium : (i) Lithium and magnesium elements are
harder but softer than the other elements of the corresponding groups.
(ii) Lithium and magnesium react slowly with water. Their oxides and hydroxides are very less
soluble in water. Their hydroxides decompose on heating.
(iii) Lithium and magnesium both combine with nitrogen directly and form nitrides (Li3N2 and Mg3N2).
(iv) The oxides Li2O and MgO do not give super oxides by combining with more oxygen.
(v) On heating carbonates of lithium and magnesium decompose easily and give oxides and
carbon dioxide. Solid hydrogen carbonates are not formed by lithium and magnesium.
(vi) Both LiCl and MgCl2 are soluble in ether.
(vii) Both LiCl and MgCl2 are hygroscopic and crystalise, as LiCl.2H2O and MgCl2.8H2O from
their aqueous solutions.
Anomalous behaviour of lithium from other elements of the group
(i) Lithium is very hard. Its melting point and boilling point are higher than those of other
alkali metals.
(ii) LiCl crystallises as hydrate while other alkali metals do not form.
(iii) Monoxide Li2O and nitride Li3N are formed, while other do not form.
(iv) LiHCO3 is not form in solid form while other elements form.
(v) Lithium unlike other alkali metals do not form ethylide by reaction with ethyne.
(vi) Lithium nitrate when heated gives lithium oxide (Li2O) while other metal nitrates
decompose into their corresponding nitrites.
330
(vii) LiF and Li2O are very less soluble in water compared to corresponding compounds of
their metals.
Diagonal relationship and Irregularity (Be and Mg) :
Diagonal relationship of Beryllium and Aluminium
® Beryllium possesses similarities with aluminium.
® Beryllium like aluminium does not react very fast with acid because of the oxide layer on
the surface of metal.
® Beryllium hydroxide becomes soluble in excess alkali forming beryllate ion [Be(OH)4]2 -
® The chloride of both Be and Al possess -Cl bridge in their vapour state. Both chlorides
are soluble in organic solvents and are strong lewis acid. AlCl3 is used as Friedel crafts
catalyst.
® Be like Al is passive towards nitric acid.
® Al4C3 and Be2C give methane gas.
® Anomalous behaviour of Be with other elements of the group.
® Its compounds are formed mostly co-valent because of their high ionization enthalpy,
small size and hydrolyse easily.
® It cannot have co-ordination number more than four.
® Oxide and hydroxide of Be are amphoteric compared to other member of the group.
51. Which alkali metal does not form ethynide when reacts with ethyne ?
(A) Li (B) Na (C) K (D) All above
52. Which metallic nitrate on heating gives metal oxide ?
(A) LiNO3 (B) NaNO3 (C) Ca(NO3)2 (D) Mg(NO3)2
53. Which statement is wrong for Li ?
(A) Melting point and boiling point of Li are higher than those of other alkali metals.
(B) Li react with nitrogen gives Li3N.
(C) Li is softer than other alkali metals.
(D) Except Li all alkali metals ions are hygroscopic in less proportion.
54. Sodium nitrate decompose at 800o C higher temperature to give ...... .
(A) N2 (B) O2 (C) NO2 (D) Na2O
55. Which alkali metal directly reacts with nitrogen to give nitride ?
(A) K (B) Li (C) Na (D) Rb
56. Beryllium hydroxide reacts with excess NaOH to give ....... compound.
(A) Na[Be(OH)4] (B) Na2[Be(OH)4] (C) Na3[Be(OH)4] (D) Na4[Be(OH)4]
57. Water reacts with ....... and ....... to produce methane gas.
(A) BeC, Al2C3 (B) Be2C, Al2C3 (C) Be2C3, Al2C3 (D) Be2C, Al4C3
58. Which hydroxide is insoluble in water ?
(A) Be(OH)2 (B) Mg(OH)2 (C) Ca(OH)2 (D) Ba(OH)2
331
59. Nature of beryllium oxide is ......
(A) basic. (B) amptoteric. (C) acidic. (D) both (A) and (B)
60. What is used as friedel-crafts catalyst ?
(A) AlCl3 (B) Al2O3 (C) AlPO4 (D) Na3AlF6
Answers : 51. (A), 52. (A), 53. (C), 54. (B), 55. (B), 56. (B), 57. (D), 58. (A), 59. (B),
60. (A)
Lithium occurrence, properties and uses

The chief minerals of lithium and their composition are as follows :
(i) Spodumin : LiAl(SiO3)2 (ii) Lepidolite : (Li, Na, K)2Al2(SiO3)3, (F, OH)2
(iii) Amblygonite : Li2Al(PO4)F(OH)
Extraction : In the first step, the mineral is heated at 1373 K and then it reacts with H2SO4 at 573 K
temperature and then mixed with water it converts into Li2SO4. 2H2O. Then reacts with sodium carbonate
and finally reacts with hydrochloric acid, LiCl is formed.
In the second step, the molten, mixture of 55 % LiCl and 45 % KCl is electrolysed giving
lithium containing 1 % impurity of K.
Properties :
Lithium is silvery white and softer metal than lead, but harder than sodium.
Being smallest in size of elements of group-I the values of its melting point and boiling point,
boiling point and ionization enthalpy are the highest.
Uses :
As reducing agent, in formation of alloys, in aeronautic industry, formation of armeour plate,
formation of very strong and corrosion resistant alloy (1 % Mg + 14 % Li).
Sodium : occurrence, properties and uses

® Occurrence : Sodium is available in large abundance in combined form in the crust of
earth, sea water etc.
Its chief minerals and their compositions are as follows :
(i) Rock salt : NaCl (ii) Chilie salt petre : NaNO3 (iii) Borax : Na2B4O7.10H2O
® Extraction : The industrial production of sodium is carried out via Downs cell by
electrolysis of sodium chloride melted at 1123 K.
In the Downs cell, anode is inert graphite and steel or iron is cathode. Sodium metal is
obtained at cathode and Chlorine gas is obtained at anode.
® Cell Reaction : Anode : 2Cl -
(l)
®
-
Cl2(g) + 2e : Oxidation
+ -
Cathode : Na (l)
+ e ® Na(s) : Reduction
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Properties :
Physical : Sodium is a silvery shining and soft metal.
It is kept in kerosene because it is very reactive.
Chemical :
(i) Reactivity towards dioxygen : Sodium metal reacts very fast with dioxygen and gives peroxide
in presence of excess of O2. 2Na(s) + O2(g) ® Na2O2(s)
Sodium peroxide
(ii) Reactivity towards water : Sodium metal reacts very fast and vigorously with water and
sometimes there is explosion. 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) ® 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)
(iii) Reactivity towards dihydrogen : Sodium reacts with dihydrogen and forms sodium hydride.
2Na(s) + H2(g) ® 2NaH(s)
Sodium hydride
(iv) Reactivity towards halogen : Sodium reacts very fast with halogens and forms halides.
2Na(s) + X2(g) ® 2NaX(s) (X = F, Cl, Br, I)
Uses
It is reducing agent, as liquid coolant in atomic reactor, dyes industry, vapour in sodium light. For
detection of elements in organic compound by Lassigne test.
61. Which of the following mineral is not of Li ?
(A) Spodumine (B) Lepidolyte (C) Amblygonite (D) Carnalite
62. In extraction of Li, in second step, the molten mixture of ...... % LiCl and ...... % KCl is
electrolysed.
(A) 45, 55 (B) 55, 45 (C) 40, 60 (D) 50, 50
63. What percentage proportion of formation of very strong and corrosion resistant alloy in Li ?
(A) 24 % (B) 14 % (C) 1 % (D) 0.1 %
64. In Downs cell, production of sodium cathode and anode are used ...... and ...... respectively.
(A) Copper, Nickel (B) Copper, Chromium
(C) Nickel, Chromium (D) Iron, Graphite
65. In extraction of Li, KCl is added in LiCl in electrolysed method because ......
(A) to increase the conductivity of LiCl (B) to decrease the melting poing of mixture
(C) to decrease the conductivity of LiCl (D) both (A) and (B)
66. Which of the following known as globar salt ?
(A) MgSO4.7H2O (B) FeSO4.7H2O (C) CuSO4.5H2O (D) Na2SO4.10H2O
67. Which element is used in Lassigne test ?
(A) Li (B) Na (C) K (D) Rb
333
68. What is used as liquid coolant in nuclear reactor ?
(A) Na (B) K (C) Rb (D) Cs
69. Which metal keep fixed around by paraffine wax ?
(A) Na (B) Li (C) K (D) Cs
70. Which of the following is the most soluble in water ?
(A) CsClO4 (B) LiClO4 (C) NaClO4 (D) KClO4
Answers : 61. (D), 62. (B), 63. (B), 64. (D), 65. (D), 66. (D), 67. (B), 68. (A), 69. (B),
70. (B)
Alkaline Earth Metals

Occurence : Calcium and magnesium are available in greater abundance and strontium and
barium in very small proportion.
Radium is radioactive and is obtained in very less proportion in the combined form.
Elements, Minerals and Composition
Element Chief minerals and composition
Beryllium Oxide Beryl : 3BeO, Al2O3, 6SiO2, (15 % BeO)
Oxide crenaside : BeO, Al2O3, 6SiO2, (7 % BeO)
Oxide bromalite : BeO (45 % BeO)
Magnesium Magnesite : MgCO3, Epsom salt : MgSO4.7H2O
Criserite : MgSO4.H2O Carnalite : MgCl2.KCl 6H2O
Crinite : K2SO4, MgSO4, MgCl2
dolomite : CaCO3, MgCO3
Calcium Lime stone, chalk, Marble : CaCO3
Gypsum : CaSO4, 2H2O, Flourspar : CaF2
Flourapatite : [Ca5(PO4)3F]
Chlorapatite : [Ca5(PO4)3Cl]
Strontium Strontianide : SrCO3, Silastine : SrSO4
Barium Witherite : BaCO3, Baryte : BaSO4
Radium In combined salt form in minerals like pitchblende, carnalite.

Electronic configuration : General electronic configuration can be shown as [noble gas] ns2.
Ionization Enthapy : As we move from top to bottom, ionization enthalpy decreases.
334
The first ionization enthalpy of alkaline earth metals is more than that of corresponding group-I
metals.
The second ionization enthalpy of alkaline earth metals is less than that of their corresponding
alkali metals.
Hydration Enthalpy : The compounds of alkaline earth metal hydrates extensively as
compared to alkali metal compounds.
eg., MgCl2 and CaCl2 exist as MgCl2.6H2O and CaCl2.2H2O respectively while NaCl and KCl
do not form hydrates.
Related trends between physical properties
® Alkaline earth metals are generally white, shiny and soft but hard in comparison to alkali
metals.
® Due to low ionization enthalpy they are strongly electropositive in nature.
® This characteristic increases as we move from Be to Ba.
® Ca, Ba and Sr give characteristics flame.
Ca : Brick red
Ba : Light green
Sr : Crimson red
The electrons of Be and Mg are strongly bonded that they do not get excited.
The quantitative analysis of Ca can be done with flame photometer, atomic absorption spectrometer.
71. Which metal of group-II forms complex salt ?

(A) Be (B) Ba (C) Ca (D) Sr
72. Which mineral is not of magnesium ?
(A) Epsom salt (B) Dolomite (C) Witherite (D) Crinite
73. Which is strontiums mineral in the form of sulphate salt ?
(A) witherite (B) carnelite (C) strontianide (D) silastine
74. Match proper pair.
Name of mineral Molecular formula
(P) Epsom salt (T) CuCO3.MgCO3 (A) (P) ® (W), (Q) ® (V), (R) ® (U), (S) ® (T)
(Q) Flourspar (U) BaCO3 (B) (P) ® (T), (Q) ® (W), (R) ® (V), (S) ® (U)
(R) Witherite (V) CaF2 (C) (P) ® (U), (Q) ® (T), (R) ® (W), (S) ® (V)
(S) Dolomite (W) MgSO4.7H3O (D) (P) ® (V), (Q) ® (U), (R) ® (T), (S) ® (W)
75. Which mineral do not possess two different metals ?

(A) Carnalite (B) Dolomite (C) Flourapatite (D) Flourspar
76. Which element is radio-active in group-II ?
(A) Cu (B) Sr (C) Ba (D) Ra
335
77. Which element does not give colour in flame test of group-II ?
(A) Only Be (B) Mg (C) Both Be and Mg (D) Ca
Alkaline Earth Element Colour in flame test (A) (P)-(U), (Q)-(T), (R)-(S)
(P) Ca (S) Crimson red (B) (P)-(T), (Q)-(S), (R)-(U)
(Q) Sr (T) light green (C) (P)-(S), (Q)-(T), (R)-(U)
(R) Ba (U) Brick red (D) (P)-(U), (Q)-(S), (R)-(T)
79. In India, crackers give green flame on marriage ocassion. Which element is present in it ?
(A) Na (B) K (C) Ca (D) Ba
80. Which substance give crimson red colour in flame test which decompose on heating to give
oxygen and produce brown coloured gas ?
(A) Magnesium nitrate (B) Barium nitrate (C) Calcium nitrate (D) Strontium nitrate
81. Which of the following salt is used as free-flo (moistured) from table salt during moonsoon ?
(A) KCl (B) KI (C) Ca3(PO4)2 (D) Na3PO4
+
82. Which of the following ion has more hydration enthalpy of Mg2 ion ?
+ + + +
(A) Al3 (B) Be2 (C) Na (D) Mg2
83. Which pair of chloride do not show colour in flame test ?
(A) BeCl2 and SrCl2 (B) BeCl2 and MgCl2 (C) BaCl2 and CaCl2 (D) MgCl2 and CaCl2
84. Which option is incorrect for alkaline earth metals ?
(A) Hydration Enthalpy : Be > Mg > Ca > Sr
(B) Second ionization enthalpy : Be > Mg > Ca > Sr
(C) Density : Sr > Be > Mg > Ca
(D) Atomic size : Sr > Ca > Mg > Be
85. Electronic configuration of metal M is 1s22s22p63s2 so what is formula of oxide ?
(A) MO (B) M2O (C) M2O3 (D) MO2
86. Molecular formula of carnalite is ...... .
(A) KCl.MgCl2.2H2O (B) K2O.Al2O3.6H2O (C) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O (D) Na2.B4O7.10H2O
87. Which compound is known as bluejohn ?
(A) CaH2 (B) CaF2 (C) Ca3(PO4)2 (D) CaO
88. Witherite is which type of salt of barium ?
(A) Carbonate (C) Chloride (D) Sulphate (D) phosphate
89. Which chief mineral is silestine ?
(A) Ca (B) Ra (C) Ba (D) Sr
336
90. Which of the following is not mineral of Ca ?
(A) limestone (B) Flourspar (C) Dolomite (D) Epsom salt
Answers : 71. (A), 72. (C), 73. (D), 74. (A), 75. (D), 76. (D), 77. (C), 78. (D), 79. (D)
80. (D), 81. (C), 82. (C), 83. (B), 84. (B), 85. (A), 86. (C), 87. (B), 88. (A)
89. (D), 90. (D)
Chemical Properties
® The alkaline earth metals are less reactive as compared to alkali metals. The reactivity
increases as we go down in the group.
® Be and Mg are inert from reactivity point of view because there is a layer of oxide on
their surfaces, but powdered Be burns brightly in air and gives BeO and Be3N2.
® Mg being more electropositive burns in air brightly giving shining light and gives MgO
and Mg3N2.
Oxides and hydroxides Compounds
® Alkaline earth metals form oxides of the MO type which are white coloured compounds.
® Beryllium oxide is amphoteric while other oxides are strongly basic.
® Be(OH)2 and Mg(OH)2 can be obtained by reaction of NaOH with their water soluble
salts.
® As we go down in the group there is gradual increase in the solubility of the hydroxides.
Halide Compounds
Reactivity towards halogens : The best reaction of formation of BeF2 is the decomposition of
(NH4)2 BeF4. BeCl2 which can be prepared easily from its oxide.
Cl 600−800 K
BeO + C + Cl2 YZZZZZZ
ZZZZZZZ
XZ BeCl2 + CO
Cl - Be Be - Cl BeCl2 in vapour state forms a dimer having

chloro-chloro (Cl - Cl) bridge.
Cl It dissociates into monomer at about 1200 K.

The tendency of formation of halide hydrates decreases gradually as we go down in the group.
eg. MgCl2.8H2O, CaCl2.6H2O, SrCl2.6H2O, BaCl2.2H2O
Fluorides are relatively less soluble than chlorides. The reason for this is their higher lattice
energy.
Solubility and Thermal stability of oxosalts : Alkaline earth metals form salts of oxo acids.
some of them are as follows :
Þ Sulphates ® It is a white solid substance and thermally stable.
® BeSO and MgSO dissolve readily in water.
® The solubility decreases as we move from CaSO to BaSO .
4 4
® The hydration enthalpy of Be and Mg ions is more than the lattice

4 4
2+ 2+
enthalpy and so they are soluble in water.

337
Nitrates
Magnesium nitrate crystallize as magnesium nitrate with water molecules, while barium nitrate
crystallizes anhydrous salt. This also shows that with increase in ionic size and with decreasing
hydration enthalpy, there is a decrease in tendency of formation of hydrates.
All of them, when heated decompose into oxides like lithium nitrate.
2M(NO3)2(s) ® 2MO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g) (M = Be, Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba)
Carbonates
The carbonates of alkaline earth metals are insoluble in water with increase in atomic number
the solubility of carbonate salts gradually decreases.
Reduction nature of metals : The alkaline earth metals like alkali metals are strong reducing
agents.
In comparison to other alkaline earth metals, the value of Be is less negative.
Its reducing nature is associated with its higher hydration enthalpy which is in accordance with
+
its (Be2 ) small size and higher value of metal atomic enthalpy.
Solutions in liquid ammonia : Alkaline earth metals like alkali metals dissolve in liquid
ammonia and give dark blue coloured solutions by forming ammoniated ion.
Uses
Cu-Be alloy is used in the formation of springs having more strength. Be-metal is used in
windows of X-ray tubes. Mg-Al alloy being light in weight is used in making aeroplanes. Mg power
and ribbons are used in flash powder, bulbs incidary bombs and signals. In preparation of Grignard
reagent. The suspension of Mg(OH)2 in water is known as milk of magnesia. It is used in as antacid
in medicines. MgCO3 is one of the components in tooth paste. Salts of Ra are used in radiotherapy.
eg. In treatment of Cancer.
91. Which statement is correct for BeCl2 in vapour state ?
(A) Each Be attach with three Cl. (B) Each Be attach with two Cl.
(C) Be-Cl-Be bonds are three times. (D) Each Be-Cl bond possess equal strength.
92. Be is used to fill HNO3 because ...
(A) It is alkaline earth metal. (B) It is intert towards HNO3
(C) It has diagonal relationship with Mg. (D) It has two electrons in valence shell.
(A) Strontium decompose water molecule faster than beryllium.
(B) BaCO3 melts higher temperature than CaCO3.
(C) Solubility of water in Ba(OH)2 is more than Mg(OH)2.
(D) Be(OH)2 is more basic than Ba(OH)2.
94. Which hydroxide is insoluble in water ?
(A) Ca(OH)2 (B) Ba(OH)2 (C) Be(OH)2 (D) Mg(OH)2
95. Decomposition of (NH4)2 BeF4 gives ............... .
(A) BeF2 (B) BeF4 (C) BeF3 (D) BeF6
338
96. Which hydroxide salt of metal is amphoteric ?
(A) Be (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Ba
97. Reaction between BaO2 and ozone give ................... .
(A) Ba (B) Ba2F3 (C) BaO (D) Ba(OH)3
98. Cool down the vapour of Ba2X2 gives ...... .
(A) BaX4 (B) Be2X2 (C) Be2X6 (D) Be3X6
99. Which compound has least melting point ?
(A) CaF2 (B) CaCl2 (C) CaBr2 (D) CaI2
100. Which metal is used to remove water completely from alcohol ?
(A) Na (B) K (C) Ca (D) Al
101. Which of the following has maximum water solubility ?
(A) BeSO4 (B) MgSO4 (C) CaSO4 (D) BaSO4
102. MgSO4 reacts with NH4OH + Na2HPO4 give white precipitates. What is the formula for precipitates ?
(A) Mg(NH4)PO4 (B) MgCl2.MgSO4 (C) Mg(PO4)2 (D) MgSO4
103. Decreasing order of thermal stability of alkaline earth carbonates MgCO3, CaCO3, BaCO3, SrCO3.....
(A) CaCO3 < SrCO3 < MgCO3 < BaCO3 (B) BaCO3 < SrCO3 < MgCO3 < CaCO3
(C) BaCO3 < SrCO3 < CaCO3 < MgCO3 (D) MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3
104. Which metal carbonate is the most stable thermally ?
(A) MgCO3 (B) CaCO3 (C) SrCO3 (D) BaCO3
105. Which metal hydroxide is least basic ?
(A) Mg(OH)2 (B) Ca(OH)2 (C) Sr(OH)2 (D) Ba(OH)2
106. Which halide soluble in ethanol ?
(A) BeCl2 (B) MgCl2 (C) CaCl2 (D) SrCl2
107. Which hydroxide of group-II is soluble in NaOH ?
(A) Be(OH)2 (B) Mg(OH)2 (C) Ca(OH)2 (D) Ba(OH)2
108. Which compound dissolve quickly in water ?
(A) BeSO4 (B) MgSO4 (C) BaSO4 (D) Both (A) and (B)
109. Which molecular formula is correct for given some compounds of alkaline earth metal halides ?
(A) CaCl2.4H2O (B) SrCl2.4H2O (C) BaCl2.2H2O (D) BaCl2.4H2O
110. Which of the following statement is correct for Ca(OH)2?
(A) It is used in preparation of bleaching powder
(B) It is light blue coloured solid substance
(C) It has no characteristic as antiseptic
(D) It is used to produce cement
339
111. In compound of calcium (A) water is added to give compound (B), in which CO2 gas is
passed to become milky and gives compound C. If CO2 gas is passed excessively to give
compound (D) and milky colour is removed, then identify compound (D).
(A) CaO (B) Ca(OH)2 (C) CaCO3 (D) Ca(HCO3)2
112. Which alkaline earth metal sulphate least soluble in water ?
(A) MgSO4 (B) CaSO4 (C) BaSO4 (D) SrSO4
113. Metal M form quickly water soluble sulphate MSO4, which on heated gives insoluble hydroxide
and oxide MO. If the hydroxide dissolve in NaOH, identify metal M.
(A) Be (B) Ca (C) Mg (D) Sr
114. Which oxide is amphoteric ?
(A) MgO (B) BeO (C) CaO (D) BaO
115. One reactive important component of bleaching powder is ............ .
(A) Ca(OCl)2 (B) Ca(OCl)Cl (C) Ca(ClO2)2 (D) Ca(ClO2)Cl
116. Fill in the blanks with appropriate option. Except ....... other alkaline earth metal halide are
ionic in nature.
(A) Barium halide (B) strontium halide (C) Beryllium halide (D) Calcium halide
117. X substauce reacts with Cl2 form bleaching powder. What is X ?
(A) CaO (B) Ca(OH)2 (C) Ca(OCl)2 (D) Ca(ClO3)2
118. Which alkaline earth metal sulphate has hydration enthalpy > lattice enthalpy ?
(A) SrSO4 (B) MgSO4 (C) CaSO4 (D) BaSO4
119. Which of the following is insoluble in CH3COOH ?
(A) CaO (B) CaCO3 (C) Calcium oxalate (D) Ca(OH)2
120. Which option is correct for decreasing order of ionic character ?
(A) BeCl2 > MgCl2 > BaCl2 > CaCl2 (B) BeCl2 > BaCl2 > CaCl2 > MgCl2
(C) BeCl2 > BaCl2 > MgCl2 > CaCl2 (D) BaCl2 > CaCl2 > MgCl2 > BeCl2
121. Which of the following possess maximum lattice energy ?
(A) MgO (B) SrO (C) CaO (D) BaO
122. Which of the following obtained when 2 mole magnesium nitride reacts with more proportion
of H2O?
(A) 1 mole NH3 (B) 2 mole HNO3 (C) 4 mole NH3 (D) 3 mole NH3
123. Which metal is used to prepare the windows of X-ray tube ?
(A) Be (B) Mg (C) Ba (D) Al
124. Which metal is used in flash bulb wire ?
(A) Mg (B) Cu (C) Ba (D) Ag
340
125. 30 gm Mg reacts with 30 gm O2 gives product and byproduct are ......... respectively.
(A) 60 gm MgO (B) 40 gm MgO and 20 gm O2
(C) 45 gm MgO and 10 gm O2 (D) 50 gm MgO and 10 gm O2
Answers : 91. (A), 92. (B), 93. (D), 94. (C), 95. (A), 96. (A), 97. (C), 98. (D), 99. (D),
100. (C), 101. (A), 102. (A), 103. (C), 104. (D), 105. (A),
106. (A), 107. (A), 108. (D), 109. (C), 110. (A), 111. (D), 112. (C), 113. (A),
114. (B), 115. (A), 116. (C), 117. (B), 118. (B), 119. (C), 120. (A), 121. (A),
122. (C), 123. (A), 124. (A), 125. (D)
Production, Properties and uses of some compounds of sodium

Sodium Carbonate (Na2CO3 . 10H2O) :
preparation :
Its industrial production is carried out by Solvays method or process
Ammonium hydrogen carbonate is prepared by passing CO2 from a solution of NaCl saturated
with ammonia (NH4)2CO3 is later on converted to NH4HCO3.
2NH3(g) + H2O(l) + CO2(g) ® (NH4)2CO3(s)
(NH4)2CO3(s) + H2O(l) + CO2(g) ® 2NH4HCO3(s)
NH4HCO3(s) + NaCl(s) ® NaHCO3(s) + NH4Cl(s)
Solvays process cannot be used for production of K2CO3. The reason is that KHCO3 is very
highly soluble that by addition of NH4HCO3 to KCl does not get precipitated.
Properties :
It is a white crystalline solid substance which possesses existence as decahydrate which is
known as washing soda.
On heating at higher temperature than 373 K it becomes completely anhydrous and changes to
white powder form known as soda ash (Na2CO3).
373 K
Na2CO3 . 10H2O(s)  → Na2CO3 . H2O(s) + 9H2O(g)
>373 K
Na2CO3 . H2O(s) → Na2CO3(s) + H2O(g)
Uses
Softening hard water, washing and cleansing, manufacturing of compounds like glass, soap
borax and caustic soda, paper, dye and textile industries and as laboratory reagent in chemical
analysis.
341
(2) Sodium hydroxide (Caustic soda) (NaOH)
Preparation : Industrial production of NaOH is carried out by electrolysis of a solution of NaCl in
Castner Kelner cell.
Electrolysis of brine solution is carried out using mercury cathode and carbon anode.
+ -
Cathode : Na e Hg
(l)
+
 → NaHg(l)
- 1 -
Anode : Cl ® Cl + e
(l) 2 2(g)
NaOH and H2 gas are produced by reacting amalgum with water.
2Na-Hg(l) + 2H2O(l) ® 2NaOH(aq) + 2H2(g)
Properties
NaOH is white translucent solid substance.
The solution of NaOH absorbs CO2 from the atmosphere above its surface and reacts, so that
Na2CO3 is formed.
Uses
In preparation of soap, paper, artificial silk and number of chemicals, refining of petroleum,
purification of bauxite the mineral of Al, textile industry for mercerization of cotton cloth, prepare
pure fat and oil, as reagent in laboratory.
(3) NaHCO3: Sodium bicarbonate or sodium hydrogen carbonate
Preparation : Sodium carbonate solution is saturated with CO2 to prepare sodium hydrogen
carbonate. It can also be obtained by solvay ammonia soda process.
Na2CO3(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g) ® 2NaHCO3(aq)
Properties
It is a white crystalline solid substance.
It is less soluble than Na2CO3.
Uses
It is a mild antiseptic for the infection of skin diseases. It is used as antiseptic, fire
extinguisher, as antacid for the acid in stomach and as reagent in laboratory.
Biological importance of Na+ and K+ ions :
Anybody having weight of 70 kg possesses 90 gm Na and 170 gm K. In its comparison only 5
gm Fe and 0.06 gm Cu are possessed.
These ions play an important role in nerve signal transmission control of flow of water
between cell membrane, for transport of sugar and amino acids.
It seems that Na and K possess many similarities from chemistry point of view but differentiate quanti-
tatively in penetration through cell wall, their flow mechanism and efficiency in activating the enzyme.
Thus potassium ions are cation in abundance where they active the enzyme and become
responsible for producing ATP by oxidation of glucose and transport of nerve signal with sodium.
The level of Na in red blood cells in blood plasma is about 143 m mol lit1
while that of K is only 5 m mol lit1. These concentration change to 10 m mol lit1 (Na ) and +
105 m mol lit1 (K ). +
342
This concentration degradation is the indication of a discriminative mechanism which is called sodium
potassium pump.
126. Which by product is obtained in preparation of Na2CO3, by reaction of Ca(OH)2 and NH4Cl
ammonia can be back obtained ?
(A) NaCl (B) NaOH (C) CaCl2 (D) NaHCO3
127. Molecular formula of soda-ash is ............. .
(A) Na2CO3.10H2O (B) Na2CO3 (C) Na2CO3.2H2O (D) Na2CO3.H2O
128. K2CO3 cant be prepared by solvay-ammonia soda process, because......
(A) K2CO3 is easily soluble in water. (B) Its crystallization in water does not occur.
(C) KHCO3 is more soluble in water. (D) KHCO3 decompose in water.
+
129. Which of the following statement is wrong for mechanism of Na ion in human body ?
(A) An important role in nerve signal transmission.
(B) Control of flow of water between cell membrane.
(C) For transport of sugar and amino acids.
(D) They activate enzymes.
130. Which gas liberates on cathode during preparation of NaOH ?
(A) Cl2 (B) H2 (C) O2 (D) H2O
Column-I Column-II
(P) NaOH (T) Photoelectric cell (A) (P)-(W), (Q)-(U), (R)-(T), (S)-(V)
(Q) Na2CO3 (U) Coolant in atomic reactor (B) (P)-(U), (Q)-(T), (R)-(V), (S)-(W)
(R) Liquid Na (V) Absorb SO2 (C) (P)-(V), (Q)-(W), (R)-(U), (S)-(T)
(S) Cesium (W) Detergent (D) (P)-(T), (Q)-(V), (R)-(W), (S)-(U)
132. Which pump is important in biochemical reaction of human body ?

(A) CaMg (B) NaK (C) KFe (D) FeCa
133. Which reaction does not occur in solvay-ammonia soda process ?
(A) (NH4)2CO3 + H 2O + CO2 ® 2NH4HCO3
∆ → K CO
(B) 2KHCO3  + H2O + CO2
2 3
∆ → Na CO
(C) 2NaHCO3  + H2O + CO2
2 3
(D) 2NH4Cl + Ca(OH)2 

→ 2NH
3
+ CaCl2 + H2O
134. What is the weight of 286 gm Na2CO3.10H2O heated at 373 K temperature at end of reaction ?
(A) 206 gm (B) 186 gm (C) 162 gm (D) 124 gm
135. Na2SO4 dissolves in water while BaSO4 is sparingly soluble because,
(A) Hydration enthalpy of sodium sulphate is more than lattice enthalpy
(B) Lattice enthalpy of Barium sulphate is more than hydration enthalpy
(C) No role of lattice energy for solubility
(D) Both (A) and (B)
343
136. Formula of microcosmic salt is .......
(A) Na2HPO4.2H2O (B) (NH4)2.HPO4.2H2O
(C) Na(NH4)HPO4.4H2O (D) None of above
137. Which product is obtained by lablank method ?
(A) Baking soda (B) Washing soda (C) Potash (D) Plaster of paris
138. Which compound is used in gun powder ?
(A) NaNO3 (B) KNO3 (C) LiNO3 (D) None
Answers : 126. (C), 127. (B), 128. (C), 129. (D), 130. (B), 131. (C), 132. (B), 133. (B),
134. (D), 135. (D), 136. (C), 137. (C), 138. (B)
Important Compounds of Calcium

Preparation :
(1) Quick lime (Calcium oxide CaO) : CaO is obtained on commercial scale by heating
lime stone (CaCO3) at 1070 - 1270 K temperature in rotary kiln.
Heat
CaCO3(s) YZZZZZZZ
ZZZZZZZX
1070-1270 K
CaO(s) + CO2(g)
Properties
Quick lime gives soda lime on mixing with caustic soda.
Being basic it combines with acidic oxides at high temperature.
CaO(s) + SiO2(s) ® CaSiO3(s)
6CaO(s) + P4O10(s) ® 2Ca3(PO4)2(s)
It forms calcium carbide with carbon at 2273 K.
2273 K
CaO(s) + 3C(s)  → CaC2(s) + CO(g)
Uses : In preparation of slaked lime, bleaching powder, dyes, distemper, CaC2, cement, mortar
etc. In purification of sugar, coal, gas and softening of hard water, as layers on the inner side of
electric furnace, preparation of NH3 gas in laboratory.
(2) Calcium hydroxide (slaked lime (Ca(OH)2) : Preparation : When H2O is added to
lumps of quick lime large amount of heat is produced and lumps break to give powder which makes
the solution containing calcium hydroxide.
CaO(s) + H2O(l) ® Ca(OH)2(aq) + heat
Properties
The suspension of slaked lime is known as milk of lime which is alkaline.
Milk of lime forms hypochloride by reaction with chloride which is component of bleaching powder.
Uses : Preparation of mortar which is one of the component of building materials, white
344
washing of walls, absorption of acidic gases and to get NH3 from NH4Cl, glass and leather industry,
purification of sugar, preparation of bleaching powder, as antiseptic and softening hard water,
laboratory for the test of CO2.
(3) Calcium Carbonate (lime stone, CaCO3)
Preparation
Chemical name : Calcium carbonate.
Obtained in two crystalline form : Calcite and aergonite.
It can be prepared by passing CO2 through slaked lime or adding Na2CO3 to CaCl2 .
Ca(OH)2(s) + CO2(g) ® CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
CaCl2(aq) + Na2CO3(s) ® CaCO3(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
Properties
White fluffy powder, almost insoluble in water, on reaction with dilute acids it forms the
corresponding calcium salts and CO2.
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) ® CaCl2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
CaCO3(s) + H2SO4(aq) ® CaSO4(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
Uses : The mixture of CaCO3 and MgCO3 is used as flux in the extraction of metal like iron.
specially precipiteted CaCO3 is used for manufacture of high quality paper. As antacid in medicines,
as abrasive in tooth pastel as a component in chewingum, as filler in cosmetic materials.
1
(4) Plaster of paris : (CaSO4. H2O) or (2CaSO4.H2O)
2
Preparation : When gypsum is heated at 393 K plaster of paris is obtained.
2CaSO4 . 2H2O(s) }}}m393K 2(CaSO4) . H2O(l) + 3H2O(l)
There is no water of crystallisation. When heated at more than 393 k it becomes anhydrous
CaSO4 which is known as dead burnt plaster.
Properties : It is white powder form solid substance.

Its setting velocity can be increased by addition of common salt.
The setting velocity can be decreased by adding borax or alum.
The mixture of alum and plaster of paris which becomes very hard on setting is called keen
cement.
Uses : Construction industry and in plastering.

Plastering of fractured bones after operation, in muscles pain, in dentistry for preparation of casts
for dentures, casts for ornaments, preparation of statues, as chalks for writing on board.
345
Cement
It is one of the important substances for construction. It was introduced by Joseph Aspidin in
England in 1824. It is also called portland.
Average composition of cement
CaO : 5060 % SiO 2 : 2025 %
Al2O 3 : 510 % MgO : 23 %
Fe 2O 3 : 12 % SO 3 : 1.3 %
For a good quality of cement the ratio of (SiO2) and (Al2O3) must be between 2.5 to 4 and
the ratio of CaO and total oxide ((SiO2 to Al2O3 + Fe2O3) should be as near as possible raw
materials for production of cement are lime stone and clay.
Important ingredients of cement are
dicalcium silicate : (Ca2SiO4) 26 %
tricalcium silicate : (Ca3SiO3) 51 %
tricalcium aluminate : (Ca3Al2O6) 11%
Properties
(1) Good quality of protland cement
% SiO 2
(A) Silica module : h =
% Al2 O3 + % Fe 2 O3
% Al2 O3
(B) Alumina module ; r =
% Fe 2 O3
Setting of cement : Addition of gypsum is to slow down the time of setting of cement. Its
primary strength is seven days. The setting of dicalcium and tricalcium silicates are 28 days and one
year respectively.
Uses : Construction of roads and buildings.
Around the iron bars the concrete containing portland cement is allowed to set so that very
hard reinforce concrete cement is formed and it is used in constructions of slabs, bridges, dams etc.
Biological importance of Mg+2 and Ca+2 ions

The body of an adult contains about 25 gm Mg and 1200 gm Ca as well as 5 gm Fe and 0.06
gm Cu. Its daily requirement in human body is estimated to be 200-300 mg. The chief pigment of
absorption of light in the plants is chlorophyll which contains Mg. It also play an important role in
neuromuscular function, international transmission cell membrane integrity and coagulation of blood.
About 100 mg lit1 concentration of calcium is regulated in plasma. It is carried out two hormones
calcitonin and parathyroid.
139. Addition of Gypsum in cement ............
(A) setting time of cement decreases. (B) setting time of cement increases.
(C) colour of cement becomes dull. (D) cement becomes shiny.
346
140. Dead plaster of paris is ....... .
1
(A) CaSO4 (B) CaSO4.H2O (C) CaSO4. H2O (D) CaSO4.2H2O
2
141. A chief reactive component of bleaching powder is ...... .

(A) Ca(OCl)2 (B) Ca(OCl)Cl (C) Ca(ClO2)2 (D) Ca(ClO2)Cl
142. Which of the following component has maximum proportion in cement ?
(A) Ca2SiO4 (B) Al2O3 (C) Ca3SiO5 (D) Ca3Al2O3
143. Compound X is heated to produce colourless gas and residue, which dissolves in water gives
compound Y in which excess proportion of CO2 give compound Z which obtained in solid
from. This solid substance heated to obtain back compound X so what is that compound ?
(A) CaCO3 (B) K2CO3 (C) Na2CO3 (D) CaSO4.2H2O

144. Which of the following is insoluble in CH3COOH ?
(A) CaO (B) CaCO3 (C) Calcium oxalate (D) Ca(OH)2
145. Fill in the blanks to select proper option. The important ingradients of portland cement are
dicalcium silicate ...... %, tricalcium silicate ...... % and tricalcium aluminate ...... % are
present respectively.
(A) 26 %, 51 %, 11 % (B) 51 %, 26 %, 11 % (C) 11 %, 51 %, 26 % (D) 26 %, 11 %, 51 %
146. A sample of portland cement contains 23 % SiO2, 3 % Al2O3, 2 % Fe2O3. What is silica
module of that cement ?
(A) 3.83 (B) 28 (C) 21.73 (D) 4.6
147. For a good quality of cement, the ratio of silica (SiO2) and alumina (Al2O3) must be between
...... .
(A) 3 to 5 (B) 2.5 to 4 (C) 6 to 7.5 (D) 4 to 5.5
148. Chlorophyll and haemoglobin are complex compound of ...... and ....... respectively.
(A) Mg2+, Ca2+ (B) Na , K+ +
(C) Mg2+, Fe2+ (D) Cl , Fe2+
-
149. Which of the substance is the main component in stone deposited in kidney ?
(A) (COO)2Ca (B) (COONa)2 (C) (COO)2Ba (D) (COO)2Mg
150. Which ion play important role in neuromuscular function ?
(A) K +
(B) Mg2+ (C) Na +
(D) Ca2+
151. White enamale of our teeth is ......
(A) Ca3(PO4)2 (B) CaCl2 (C) CaF2 (D) CaBr2
152. Which of the following is obtained when 2 mole magnesium nitride reacts more proportion of
H 2O ?
(A) One mole NH3 (B) 2 mole HNO3 (C) 4 mole NH3(D) 3 mole NH3
153. Difference of water molecule is ............... between gypsum and plaster of paris.
5 1 1
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) 1
2 2 2
347
154. How many and which type of bonds betwen two carbons atoms in calcium carbide ?
(A) 1 s , 1 p (B) 1 s, 2 p (C) 2 s , 1 p (D) 2 s, 2 p
155. Select correct option.

(A) Proportion of Ca is less in gypsum than plaster of paris.
(B) Gypsum is obtained to heat plaster of paris.
(C) Hydration of Gypsum gives plaster of paris.
(D) Partial oxidation of Gypsum gives plaster of paris
156. Setting time of dicalcium silicate is ...... .
(A) 28 days (B) one year (C) one week (D) 24 hours
Answers : 139. (B), 140. (A), 141. (A), 142. (C), 143. (A), 144. (C), 145. (A), 146. (D),
147. (B), 148. (C), 149. (A), 150. (D), 151. (C), 152. (C), 153. (D), 154. (B),
155. (A), 156. (A)
There are two statements given. Among one is statement and other is reason (R). Select
correct option to read instructions carefully.
Select correct option for statement (A) and reason (R) given in question.
(A) Statement (A) is correct, reason (R) is correct
(B) Statement (A) is correct, reason (R) is correct Reason (R) is correct explanation of statement (A)
(C) Statement (A) is correct, reason (R) is wrong.
(D) Statement (A) is wrong, reason (R) is correct.
157. Statement (A) : Alkali metals dissolve in ammonia gives blue coloured solution.
+
Reason (R) : Soluble [M(NH3)x] species obtained from alkali metals in liquid ammonia.
158. Statement (A) : Sodium metal is softer than potassium.
Reason (R) : Potassium possesses weaken metallic bond than sodium.
159. Statement (A) : Be(OH)2 is soluble in HCl and NaOH.
Reason (R) : Be(OH)2 is amphoteric.
160. Statement (A) : Be is prepared from [BeF4] and Al is prepared from [AlF6]3
- -
Reason (R) : d-orbitals are not present in Be while Al possess.

161. Statement (A) : Li2CO3 and Na2CO3 are thermally unstable.
Reason (R) : Both carbonates are salts of big cation and big anion.
162. Statement (A) : Alkali metals do not show colour in flame test.
Reason (R) : Their ionization enthalpy are very low.
163. Statement (A) : Beryllium hydroxide dissolve in excess alkali to give beryllate ion [Be(OH)4]2.
Reason (R) : Beryllium has strong tendency to form complex.
164. Statement (A) : Super oxides of alkali metals are diamagnetic.
2-
Reason (R) : Super oxide ion O possess one unpaired electron.
165. Statement (A) : Sodium cant obtained sodium metal by reduction from metallurgy ?
Reason (R) : Sodium is strong reducing agent.
Answers : 157. (B), 158. (D), 159. (A), 160. (A), 161. (C), 162. (D), 163. (B), 164. (D),
165. (A).

348
15 p-block elements
The electronic configuration of elements in outermost orbital is ns2np1 to ns2np6 (except He)
known as p-block elements. (where n = 2 to 6). These elements are placed in right of transition
metals in modern periodic table. Due to difference in inner core electronic configuration, the elements
show variation in physical and chemical properties. The first element of the group shows anomalous
behaviour in some properties from other elements of that group.
Atomic Radius, metalic character
Group 13 14 15 16 17 18
Electro negativity, Ionisation

Enthalpy, oxidizing agent
2P B C N O F Ne
3P Al Si P S Cl Ar
4P Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
5P In Sn Sb Te I Xe
6P Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
Atomatic radius metalic character

Generally in the period, electronegativity, ionization enthalpy and oxidising power increases as
the atomic number increases. While in group, it decreases as the atomic number increases. Generally,
in group atomic radius, van der waals radius and metallic character increases as the atomic number
increases. Due to these characteristics of the p-block elements, metal, non-metal and metalloids are
included in same group. These characteristics are decreasing in a period as the atomic number
increases.
General oxidation state of p-block elements
Group 13 14 15 16 17 18
Oxidation B C N O F Ne
State +3 + 4, -4 + 5 to -3 - 1, -2 -1 -
Al Si P, As S, Se, Te Cl, Br, I Xe

+3 + 4 +3, +5, -3 -2, +2 -1, +1, +3 +2, +4
+ 4, +6 + 5, +7 +6, +8
Ga, In, Tl Ge, Sn, Pb Sb, Bi
+ 3, +1 +4, + 2 + 4, +2
p-block elements have valence shell electronic configuration ns2np16 where n = 2 to 6 and
hence the value of maximum oxidation state of these elements is obtained by subtracting 10 from its
group number. On moving down the group from 13 to 16 the oxidation state which are two units less
than the highest oxidation state becomes more stable. This trend is called inert pair effect.
349
Group 13 elements (Boron group)
No. Elements Symbol Atomic no. Electronic Configuration
with inter gas core
(1) Boron (B) 5 [He] 2s22p1
(2) Aluminium (Al) 13 [Ne] 3s23p1
(3) Gallium (Ga) 31 [Ar] 3d104s24p1
(4) Indium (In) 49 [Kr] 4d105s25p1
(5) Thallium (Tl) 81 [Xe] 4f145d106s26p1
Electronic configuration : The group 13 includes Boron (B), Aluminium (Al), Gallium (Ga), Indium
(In) and Thallium (Tl). The valenec shell electronic configuration is ns2np1 where n = 2 to 6. Hence, there
are two electrons in S orbital and one electron in p-orbital, therefore in total three electrons are there.
Occurence
The abundance of boron in earths crust is less than 0.0001 % by weight.
The boron is found in california (USA) and in Turkey state.
While in Inida it is found as borax in puga valley of Ladakh region in Kashmir and also in Sambhar
lake of Rajasthan.
Some important ores of aluminium are : Bauxite, Orthoclase, Cryolite, Corundum, Beryl, Mica.
Minerals : Borax (Na2B4O7 . 10H2O) Earth crust : largetst by weight : O (45.5 %)
Kernite (Na B O . 4H O)
2 4 7 2
Second largest by weight : Si (27.7 %)
Colemanite (Ca2B6O11 . 2H2O) Third largest by weight : Al (8.3 %)
Orthoboric acid (H 3BO 3)
Minerals : Bauxite Al2O3 . XH2O
Orthoclase KAlSi3O8
Cryolite Na3AlF6
Corundum Al2O3
Beryl Be3Al2Si6O18
Mica KAl2(Si3AlO10)(OH)2
In India, mica is found in Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Orissa and Jammu. India is the worlds
largest supplier of mica. Gallium, Indium and Thallium are less abundant. Gallium (0.1 - 1 %) is found in
the mineral. Germanite which is a complex sulphide of Zn, Cu, Ge and As while the traces of Indium are
found in sulphide ore of zinc. Thallium is found in lead sulphide ore.
Variation in properties
(1) Atomic radii and ionic radii : In the elements of boron group as the atomic number
increases, the atomic radius increases. Similar trends can be observed in ionic radius. The atomic radius
of Al (143 pm) is more than atomic radius of Ga (135 pm).
(2) Ionization Enthalpy : The order of first ionization enthalpy (DiH1) for boron group elements is
B > Al < Ga > In < Tl. The value of DiH2 and DiH3 are very high.
(3) Metallic Character : The elements of group 13 show variation in metallic character. The
metallic charater is higher in Al than that of B. So, Al is a good conductor of heat and electricity. The
reduction potential values go on increasing from Al to Tl, so the values of electropositivity decreases as a
result, metallic character decreases. Thus, B is non-metal, while Al is metal and in Indium, Galium,
Thalium, the metallic character decreases successively.
350
(4) Electronegativity : On moving down the elements of group 13, electronegativity decreases
suddenly form B to Al and after that it increases gradually as moving from Al to Tl.
(5) Melting points and Boiling Points : The order of melting points of group 13 elements are in
order B > Al > Ga < In < Tl. As the actomic number goes on increasing, the boiling points decreases
gradually.
(6) Density : The density goes on increasing as the atomic number increases for the elements of
group 13.
(7) Characteristics as reducing agents : The values of reduction potential increase from Al to
Tl and so the reduction power decreases and the characteristics as reducing agent also decreases.
(8) Nature of compounds : The elements of group 13 have a decreasing tendency to form
covalent bond compounds. The elements of group 13 have increasing tendency to form ionic compounds.
Oxidation State : In the electronic configurations of elements of group 13 they have two electrons
in s-type oribital and one-electron in p-type orbitals, so total three electrons in outermost orbital, hence it
possesses +3 oxidation state. The oxidation state of boron and aluminium is +3 while Ga, In and Tl have
both +1 and +3 oxidation states. As the atomic number is increasing the stability of +3 oxidation state
decreases and stability of +1 oxidation state increases.
Trends in chemical Reactivity

(i) Hydride Compounds
450 K
2BF3 + 6LiH  → B2H6 + 6LiF
Boron forms number of hydrides, most of hydrides having molecular formula Bn Hn + 4 and Bn Hn +6
which is known as Borane. Other hydride elements are polymeric eg. (AlH3)n, (GaH3)n and (InH3)n their
structure contains M...H...M bridge (M = Al, Ga, In). These hydrides are Lewis acids.
4LiH Dry ether

AlCl3  +
+ → Li [AlH4] + 3LiCl
(Reducing agent)
(ii) Halide Compounds : The order of its strength is BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3. In vapour form
AlCl3 exists in dimer form due to bridging of chlorine atoms. Al2Cl6 is Lewis acid. Ga and Tl also form
MX type halides where X = Cl, Br, I. The stability of MX type halide increases as the atomic number
increases.
(iii) Oxide and Hydroxide Compounds : The group 13 elements form oxides having formula
M2O3 and hydroxide having formula M(OH)3. The atomic number of element goes on increasing the
acidic character decreases and the basic character goes on increasing.
(iv) Complex and Double Salt Compounds : In elements of group 13, in the electronic
configuration of boron the d-orbital is absent. It forms only tetrahedral complex like [BH4]-, [BI4]- etc.
The electronic configuration of Al, Ga, In and Tl have d-orbital (in Al it is in form of 3d°), so they form
octahedral complexes like [MF6]3 with octahedral aqua ions can be described as [M(H2O)6]3+, (where M
+
= Al, Ga, In and Tl). Aluminium sulphate reacts with sulphate of NH4 form double salts known as alums
with formula M2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O or MAl(SO4)2.12H2O (where, M =
+ + + +
Na , K , Rb , and NH4 ).
351
K2SO4, Al2(SO4)3.24H2O known as double salt (alum). It is used to change hard water to soft water
and as a mordant in chemicals of colour dye.
The anamalous behaviour of the first element (boron) of group 13
Boron is non-metal. Boron trihalide is monomeric. Boron does not react with water. Oxides and
hydroxides of boron are acidic. Except boron, trihalides of other elements on hydrolysis result in complex ions.
Physical Properties and Chemical properties of Boron
Physical properties : Boron is extremely hard substance. In order of hardness, it comes next to diamond.
The melting point and boiling point of boron are very high. Boron is poor conductor of heat and electricity.
Boron has two isotopes 10B and 11B and its relative abundances is 20% and 80% respectively. Boron has two
allotropes. The colour of amorphous form is dark brown where as the crystalline form is found in black metallic
luster.
Chemical properties : Boron reacts with strong oxidising agent.
Non metal dinitrogen, dioxygen and dihalogen react with boron at high temperature to give BN, B2O3
and BX3. Boron does not react with HCl but it reacts with con. HNO3 and H2SO4.
2B +
∆ → 2H BO
2H2SO4  + 3SO2
3 3
B +
∆ → H BO
3HNO3  + 3NO2
3 3
Boron reacts with fused alkalis like NaOH and KOH and converts into corresponding borates.
2B +
∆ → 2M BO
6MOH  + 3H2 (M = Na or K) Boron reacts with some metals on heating and
3 3
converts into borides which are very hard and solid substance having high melting point. e.g
B +
∆ → CrB (Chromium boride).
Cr 
1. Which statement is wrong for the heaviest metal in each group of p-block elements ?
(A) Highest metallic property.
(B) 2 unit less oxidation state compared to group.
(C) It is semi metal.
(D) Formation of positive ion species.
2. Elements of group 13 shows ............ oxidation state.
(A) + 3 (B) +1 (C) +1 and +3 both (D) +1, +2 and +3
3. Which of the following has the least melting point ?
(A) B (B) Al (C) Ga (D) Tl
4. Match proper pair :
Mineral Molecular formula
(P) Borax (T) Ca2B 6O11.2H2O (A) (P)-(W), (Q)-(V), (R)-(T), (S)-(U)
(Q) Kernite (U) H3BO3 (B) (P)-(U), (Q)-(W), (R)-(V), (S)-(T)
(R) Colemanite (V) Na 2B4O7.4H 2O (C) (P)-(T), (Q)-(U), (R)-(W), (S)-(V)
(S) Orthoboric acid (W) Na2B4O7.10H2O (D) (P)-(V), (Q)-(T), (R)-(U), (S)-(W)
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5. Correct order of ionization enthalpy of group 13 ?
(A) B > Al < Ga > In > Tl (B) B > Al > Ga > In < Tl
(C) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl (D) B < Al > Ga > In > Tl
6. Correct order of melting point of group 13 elements :
(A) B > Al > Ga > In > Tl (B) B > Al > Ga < In < Tl
(C) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl (D) B > Al < Ga > In > Tl
7. Al gives Al3 ions but B does not give B3 ions because ...
+ +
(A) size of B is less than Al (B) value of IE1 + IE2 + IE3 of B is more than Al
(C) value of IE1 + IE2 + IE3 of Al is more than B (D) both (A) and (B)
8. Correct order of acidic strength of boron trihalide :
(A) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3 (B) BI3 < BBr3 < BCl3 < BF3
(C) BI3 > BBr3 > BF3 > BCl3 (D) BCl3 > BBr3 > BF3 > BI3
9. Which oxide is the most basic ?
(A) B2O3 (B) Al2O3 (C) Ga2O3 (D) Tl2O
10. Which hydroxide is amphoteric ?
(A) Al(OH)3 (B) B(OH)3 (C) In(OH)3 (D) Tl(OH)
11. Which of the following form only tetrahedral complex ?
(A) Al (B) B (C) Ga (D) Tl
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (C), 3. (C), 4. (A), 5. (A), 6. (B), 7. (D), 8. (A), 9. (D), 10. (A),
11. (B)
Some Important Compounds of Boron

Borax powder (Na2B4O7) or sodium tetraborate (Na2B4O7). The impure form of borax is
Tincal which contains 55% borax. It is found in certain dried up lakes of India, Tibet, Sri Lanka and
California.
(1) Ca2B6O11 +
∆ → 2CaCO
2Na2CO3  + Na2B4O7 + 2NaBO2
3
Colemanite Borax Sodium metaborate

(2) 4NaBO2 + CO2 ® Na2B4O7 + Na2CO3
(3) 4H3BO3 +
∆ → Na B O
Na2CO3  + 6H2O + CO2
2 4 7
Boric acid Borax

Properties of Borax : (a) Prismatic Na2B4O7 . 10H2O
(b) Octahedral Na2B4O7 . 5H2O
(c) Borax glass Na2B4O7
Na2B4O7 +
∆→ H B O
2H2O  + 2NaOH (Basic)
2 4 7
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Borax Bead Test
Na2B4O7 +
∆ → Na B O
10H2O  + 10H2O
2 4 7
¯D
2NaBO2 + B2O3
Sodium meta borate Boron oxide or
(boric anhydride)
glassy transparent borax bead

+ + + + +
Coloured ions like Ni2 , CO 2, Cr2 , Cu2 , Mn2 and heated, they are converted into their metaborates
respectively and they are coloured and their colours are brown, blue, green and pink respectively.
NiO +
∆ → Ni(BO )
B2O3  2 2
Nickle metaborate (Brown colour)

Uses : To perform borax bead test in qualitative analysis. Manufacturing of enamels and glazing of
earthern pots. In preparation of candles. Due to its antiseptic properties, it is used in preparation of medical
soap. In making optical glass. In softening of hard water.
Boric acid (H3BO3)
Its trivial name is orthoboric acid.
Preparation : (1) Na2B4O7 + 2HCl +

∆ → 4H BO
5H2O  + 2NaCl
3 3
(2) Ca2B6O11 +
∆ → 2Ca(OH)
11H2O  + 6H3BO3
2
2Ca(OH)2 +
∆ → 2Ca(HSO )
4SO2  3 2
Net reaction
Ca2B6O11 + 11H2O +
∆ → 6H BO
4SO2  + 2Ca(HSO3)2
3 3
(3) On hydrolysis of BCl3 and BN they give boric acid.

Properties : Boric acid is a white crystaline solid substance with a soft soapy touch. Sparingly
soluble in cold water. Fairly soluble in hot water. Structrue of boric
acid (H3BO3)
373 K
Effects of heat : 4H3BO3  −H O
→ 4HBO 
433K
→ H B O
2 2 2 4 7 − H 2O H
Orthoboric acid Metaboric acid Tetraboric acid O
H
- H2O red hot B
O O
2B2O3
H H
Boron oxide
O O
Weak monobasic acid and acts as a lewis acid.
B H
[HCl ]
H3BO3 + 3C2H5OH  → B(OC2H5)3 + 3H2O
O
Ethanol Ethyl borate H
354
Uses : In food industry. In the preparation of pigments and borax. Used (in medicine) as an eye
wash. Used in the manufacturing of enamels and pottery glazes.
Boron Hydrides : B2H6 (diborane)
General formula : BnHz + 4 and BnHz + 6
Baron hydrides : B2H6
poly ether
I2 
Preparation : 2NaBH4 + → B2H6 + 2NaCl + H2
Sodium Borohydride Diborane

Industrial Reaction :
450 K
2BX3 + 6LiH  → B2H6 + 6LiX (where X = F or Cl)
H H Structure (B2H6)
H
B
B
1 - B
H
2 - H
H H
Properties : Colourless and highly toxic gas. H
B2H6 + 3O2 ® B2O3 + 3H2O (Catches fire spontaneously)
H N
(air) D H = - 2008 KJ mole1 H
B B
450 K
(1) 3B2H6 + 6NH3 
→ 2B3N3H6 + 12H2
(Borazine)
N N
(Inorganic Benzene)
H H
450 K B
B2H6 + 6H2O  → 2H3BO3 + 6H2
(Boric acid) H
Structure of diborone
Uses of Boron and its Compounds : Isotope of boron 10B has ability to absorb neutrons and
therefore used as metal borides, in nuclear reactor as a protective shield and the controlling rods and
also used in chemotherapy to cure cancer. Boron fibres are used in making light composite materials
for air craft industries. Boron and Boric acid are used in manufacturing of heat resistant borosilicate
pyrex glass. In metallurgy as a flux for soldering metals. Porcelain enamels. Borax bead test. A mild
antiseptic. Cleaning skin (leather), preservative. The heat of combustion for diborane is very high, so
it is used as a high energy fuel.
Properties of Aluminium
Aluminium is a light, silvery white metal. It has high tensile strength, high electrical and thermal
conductivity. (twice than that of Cu). It is highly electropositive. It readily reacts with O2 and forms
a protective layer of Al2O3 on its surface, which makes it passive.
355
Uses
In industries and in daily life. Forms useful alloys. In making utensils, aeroplane parts. It is used in
aluminothermite process for obtaining the chromium and manganese metals from their oxides. As a strong
reducing agent.
Reaction of Aluminium with acids and bases
2Al + 6HCl(dilute) + 12H2O ® 2[Al(H2O)6]Cl3 + 3H2
2Al +
∆ → Al (SO )
6H2SO4(dilute)  + 3SO2 + 6H2O
2 4 3
Aluminium reacts with concentrated HNO3 and forms inactive, passive protective layer of Al2O3
on surface which stops the further reaction on its surface.
2Al + 2NaOH + 6H2O ® 2Na[Al(OH)4] + 3H2
Sodium aluminate
12. Which is correct molecular structure of boron carbide ?
(A) B2C3 (B) B13C2 (C) B3C12 (D) B12C3
13. Ca2B6O11 ∆ → 2CaCO
2Na2CO3  2 Y what are X and Y respectively ?
+
3
+ X +
(s)
(A) Na2B4O7, NaBO2 (B) NaHCO3, NaBO2 (C) Na2B4O7, NaHCO3 (D) Na3BO3, NaHCO3
14. Match the correct pair :
Ion Colour in borax bead test
(P) Co2+ (T) Pink (A) (P)-(W), (Q)-(V), (R)-(U), (S)-(T)
(Q) Cr3+ (U) Brown (B) (P)-(T), (Q)-(W), (R)-(V), (S)-(U)
(R) Ni2+ (V) Green (C) (P)-(U), (Q)-(T), (R)-(W), (S)-(V)
(S) Mn2+ (W) Blue (D) (P)-(V), (Q)-(U), (R)-(T), (S)-(W)

15. Which of the following used in (medicine) as an eye wash ?
(A) H3BO3 (B) B2H6 (C) HBO2 (D) B3N3H6
16. What is obtained by hydrolysis of BF3 ?
(A) H3BO3 + HF (B) H3BO3 + HBF4 (C) B(OH)3 + B2O3 (D) H3BO3 + F2
17. Which compound is known as inorganic benzene ?

(A) B6H6 (B) C3N 3H 3 (C) B3N3H6 (D) C5H5B
18. Which of the following statements are true and false for BF3 ? T = true, F= False
(i) BF3 acts as Lewis acid
(ii) BF3 reacts with NH3 give mix compound.
(iii) BF3 is volatile at room temperature.
(iv) BF3 Combine with ether give boron tri fluoride etherate.
(A) TTTT (B) FTFT (C) TFFT (D) TTFT
356
19. Which compound gives pink coloured bead heated with manganese salt and boric anhydride ?
(A) Mn2B4O7 (B) Mn(BO2)2 (C) MnO (D) None
20. How many s and p bonds in borazine ?
(A) 9s, 6p (B) 12s, 3p (C) 6s, 9p (D) 15s, 0p
21. What is obtained when BCl3 react with H2O ?
(A) H3BO3 + HCl (B) B2H6 + HCl (C) B2O3 + HCl (D) None.
22. What is inorganic graphite ?
(A) B3N3H 6 (B) B3N3 (C) SiC (D) Fe(CO)5
23. Which metal condense to expand in liquid form ?
(A) Ga (B) Al (C) Zn (D) Cu
24. Potash alum dissolve in water to give ............ .
(A) Acidic solution of H2SO4 (B) Basic solution
(C) Acidic solution of HCl (D) Neutral solution
25. Which statement is not correct ?
(A) Al is lonic in its all compounds.
(B) Al is light in weight but high tensile strength
(C) Al is strong reducing agent.
(D) Al does not react with water vapour at high temperature.
26. What is the mix of amonal used in bomb ?
(A) Al + NH4NO3 (B) Al + Al2O3 + B2O3 (C) Al + KNO3 (D) Al2O3 + C
27. In which of the following transfer of thalium tribromide at room temperature ?
(A) TlBr (B) Tl2Br6 (C) TlBr2 (D) Tl[TlBr4]
28. Blue coloured precious stone named Lapis Lazuli included in which class of mineral ?
(A) Sodium aluminosilicate (B) Zinc cobaltate
(C) Basic copper carbonate (D) All above
Answers : 12. (B), 13. (A), 14. (A), 15. (A), 16. (B), 17. (C), 18. (D), 19. (C), 20. (B),
21. (A), 22. (B), 23. (A), 24. (A), 25. (A), 26. (A), 27. (D), 28. (A)
General Introduction of Group 14 Elements

No. Element Symbol Atomic No. Electron configuration
with inert gas core
1. Carbon (C) 6 [He] 2s2 2px1 2py1
2. Silicon (Si) 14 [Ne] 3s2 3px1 3py1
3. Germanium (Ge) 32 [Ar] 3d10 4s2 4px1 4py1
4. Tin (Sn) 50 [Kr] 4d10 5s2 5px1 5py1
5. Lead (Pb) 82 [Xe] 4f14 5d10 6s2 6px1 6py1
357
Carbon shows catenation characteristics due to its small size, high electronegativity and very high
carbon-carbon bond enthalpy. Compounds of carbon with metals, metalloids and with non-metals are
called binary inorganic compounds. The compounds like calcium carbide, silicon carbide, carbon monoxide,
carbon dioxide, hydrogen cyanide are inorganic compounds.
Occurence : Carbon is the seventeenth most abundant element by weight. Silicon is the second
most abundant (27.7%), by weight. Germanium occurs as a trace element. It is mainly recovered from
the flue dust arising from roasting of zinc ores. Tin and lead are found in nature in the amount 2 ppm and
13 ppm respectively.
Galena (PbS) is the principle ore of lead. Found along with zinc blende (ZnS). Other ores of lead
are anglesite (PbSO4) and cerussite (PbCO3).
Variation in properties
Atomic radii : On moving down the group the atomic radii of group 14 elements go on increasing.
Ionization enthalpy : C > Si > Ge > Sn < Pb
Electropositivity (Metallic character) : On moving down the group 14 the electropositivity
increases.
Electronegativity : The electronegativity decreases as the atomic number increases.
Melting points and Boiling points : The melting points and boiling points of group 14 elements
are much higher than those of group 13 elements.
Density : On moving down in the elements of group 14, carbon to lead, regular increase in density.
Catenation : C > > Si > Ge = Sn > > Pb
Allotropy : Carbon has number of allotropic forms out of which diamond, graphite and fullerence
are the crystalline forms of carbon. Tin has two allotropes, white tin or b- tin. It gets stable at room
temperature whereas grey tin or a- tin remains unstable. It can be obtained from b- tin at 286 K
temperature.
286K
white tin YZZZZZ grey tin
ZZZZZX
(b-Tin) (a-Tin)
Oxidation states and trends in chemical reactivity
Group 14 elements have outermost valence shell electronic configuration ns2np2 and hence, these
elements have common oxidation state +4. Stability of +2 oxidation state increases in order, which can be
given as Ge < Sn < Pb. Simple M4+ ions in this group are not known. Compounds with co-ordination
number higher than 4, like eg. [SiF5]-, [SiF6]2-, [PbCl6]2- . Stable compounds of MX2 type for carbon
and silicon are rare. The stability of divalent state increases in the order Ge < Sn < Pb. Ability to form
pp - pp bonds with element itself and ability to form such bonds with other elements like dinitrogen and
dioxygen decreases from carbon to lead. So, CO2 is a gas but silica is a solid.
Si, Ge, Sn and Pb form MX4 type tetrahedral and covalently bonded compounds. The ionic
character and thermal stability of halides decreases with increasing atomic number of halogen and they
are hydrolysed by water.
SiCl4 + 4H2O ® Si(OH)4 + 4HCl
SnCl4 + 2H2O ® SnO2 + 4HCl
Ge, Sn and Pb also form MX2 type halides.
The stability of dihalides increases in order.
358
CX2 << SiX2 << GeX2 << SnX2 < PbX2
Form MO2 type oxides.
Crystalline silicon dioxide occurs in quartz, cristobalite and tridymite minerals. Quartz is used as
a piezoelectric crystal, crystal oscillator and in transducers. Silica gel is obtained by acidification of
sodium silicate. When this gel is dehydrated, the obtained silica gel is extensively used in
chromatography and for the drying of other substances and therefore, it acts as a drying agent.
SiO2 is acidic but GeO2 and SnO2 are amphoteric while PbO2 is basic.
Sn (IV) oxide is prepared by heating Sn and O2 or reaction of Sn with con. HNO3 .
SnO2 is used in polishing powder and in manufacturing of glass and pottery.
Pb3O4 + 4HNO3 ® 2Pb(NO3)2 + PbO2 + 2H2O
PbO2 is a strong oxidizing agent and liberates O2 when treated with acids. Sn and Pb both
form MO type stable oxides.
SnC2O4  ∆ → SnO + CO + CO2

Tin oxalate
PbO exists in red, orange and yellow colour depending upon the method of preparation. It can
be prepared by heating lead carbonate. On heating PbO with air in a reverbratory furnace at 773 K
temperature gives red Pb3O4. It is a combination mixture of 2(PbO) (PbO2).
Anamalous behaviour of carbon
Carbon differs from the other members of its group, because the atomic size of carbon is
small and has higher electronegativity.
Carbon forms only four covalent bonds while other elements have d or d and f-orbitals. So,
they can form more covalent bonds.
Carbon atom forms single bond : Moreover, double or triple bond with the other carbon atoms
and some other atoms like O, N and S which are small in size.
If the atomic size of some other atoms are very big then overlapping of pp pp orbital does
not remain effective.
The trend of catenation in carbon is maximum due to its high value of carbon single bond
enthalpy (348 KJ mole1). While in other elements, this trends goes on decreasing.
Carbon forms only pp pp type bonding, while other elements form pp pp and also
dp pp type of bonding.
29. Correct order of ionization enthalpy for group 14 elements ?

(A) C > Si > Ge > Sn < Pb (B) C > Si > Ge > Sn > Pb
(C) C < Si < Ge < Sn > Pb (D) C < Si < Ge < Sn < Pb
30. Which of the following has highest thermal stability ?
(A) CCl4 (B) SiCl4 (C) SnCl4 (D) PbCl4
31. Which of the following is heated to make SnO ?
(A) Tin oxalate (B) Tin carbonate (C) Tin bicarbonate (D) Tin dioxide
32. What is obtained by hydrolysis of PbCl4 ?
(A) PbO (B) PbO2 (C) Pb3O4 (D) Pb(OH)2
33. Tin heated with hot concentrated HNO3 gives .............. .
(A) Sn(NO3)2 (B) H2SnO3 (C) Na2SnO3 (D) Na2SnO2
359
34. What is the formula of lead oxide which women is used as minium (red-lead) on her head ?
(A) PbO (B) PbO2 (C) Pb3O4 (D) Pb2O3
35. What is the formula of meta stanic acid ?
(A) H2SnO3 (B) HSnO2 (C) H4SnO3 (D) H2SnO2
Answers : 29. (A), 30. (A), 31. (A), 32. (B), 33. (B), 34. (C), 35. (A)
Carbon Catenation
The carbon atom has tendency to link with another carbon atom by covalent bond and forms chain
or cyclic structure of carbon which is called catenation.
This trend is observed due to small size and high electronegativity of carbon atom. Tendency of
catenation depends upon the bond enthalpy of covalent bond between two carbon atoms. Higher the bond
enthalpy more is the tendency of catenation. The bond enthalpy of CC is 348 KJmol-1 It is the highest
than the other elements in its group so it forms a number of chain and cyclic structure compounds due to
catenation and pp - pp bond formation the carbon exhibits different allotropes.
(1) Diamond : Due to sp3 hybridisation joins with other four carbon atoms by single covalent bond
and forms three dimensional network structure. The distance between two carbon atoms is 154 pm
bound to each other by covalent bonding and these bonds are very strong. So, diamond is extremely hard
solid substance.
(2) Graphite : sp2 hybridisation in carbon atom, it combines with other three carbon atoms and as
a result hexagonal layer structure is formed. The distance between two carbon atoms is 141.5 pm and
distance between two layers is 340 pm and have weak Van der waals attractive forces between the two
layers. Graphite is soft.
(3) Fullerene : The crystalline form of carbon is made up of porous cage like molecules. It
possesses C2n structure. Mainly C60 with small quantity of C70 and traces of other fullerene, consisting of
even number of carbon atom upto 350 or above. C60 molecule has shape like soccer ball and also called
Buckminister Fullerene. Fullerene is also called bucky ball. It contains twelve rings having five carbon
atoms and twenty rings having six carbon atoms. The ring structure having six carbon atoms is fused to
both types of ring, while the ring structure having five carbon atoms is fused only to six membered ring. In
sp2 hybridisation, each carbon atom combines with other three carbon atoms with s - bond. The remaining
electron forms p-bond.
In fullerene the carbon-carbon single and double bonds with distance 143.5 pm and 138.3 pm are
there respectively. C60 and C70 fullerene are soluble in toluene solvent and give purple and orange-red
coloured solution.
Chemical Properties (Chemical Reactions)

With oxygen : C + O2 ® CO2 + Energy
Reductoin : Fe2O3 + 3C ® 2Fe + 3CO
PbSO4 + 4C ® 4CO + PbS
C + H2O ® CO + H2
Reaction with other elements : C + 2S ® CS2 (Carbon disulphide)
360
Electric spark
H2 
2C + → C2H2 (Acetylene)
2Be + C ® Be2C (Beryllium carbide)

Reaction With acid :
C + 4HNO3 ® CO2 + 4NO2 + 2H2O
C + 2H2SO4 ® CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O
12C + 9H2SO4 ® C6(COOH)6 + 6H2O + 9SO2
(Mellitic acid)
Uses of some important compounds of carbon
Halides of carbon : Its order of stability is CF4 > CCl4 > CBr4 > CI4
Uses : Fire extinguister. Freon used in refrigerator as a coolant. CCl4 is used as medicine for
bookworm in intestine.
Carbon disulphide (CS2) : Uses : Manufacture of viscose yarn. An insecticide for curing
infected seeds. In vulcanisation of rubber. As solvent in the manufacture of varnishes and
matchsticks. In the manufacture of carbon tetrachloride.
Carbide Compounds : The compounds of carbon with high electropositive elements are
known as carbide compounds.
Uses : (i) SiC : SiC which is known as carborandum, is very hard, so used as refractory and
abrassive for sharpening and grinding metals and other substances.
(ii) WC : WC is used for making tools and mould, for making coins etc.
(iii) CaC2 : CaC2 is used for preparing acetylene and is used for welding and in manufacturing
of number of organic compounds such as ethyl alcohol, acetic acid etc....
(iv) Be4C : Be4C is very hard and is used as a shield against radioactive radiation.
Oxides of carbon
(i) Carbon Monoxide (CO)
1 ∆→
Preparation : (1) C + O  CO
2 2
(2) ZnO + C ® Zn + CO
Fe2O3 + 3C ® 2Fe + 3CO
373K - 413K
(3) HCOOH → CO + H2O
Con. H 2 SO4
(4) C(s) +
473K- 1273K → CO
H2O(g)  + H2
(g) (g)
water gas
(5) 2C(g)+ O2 + 4N2 → 2CO(g) + 4N2

(g) (g) 1273K (g)
(producer gas)
361
Properties : Reducing character : ZnO + CO ® Zn + CO2
Fe2O3 + 3CO ® 2Fe + 3CO2

Formation of metal carbonyl character
Ni(s) +
333 − 343K
4CO(g) → [Ni(CO)4]
Nickel tetracarbonyl
Fe(s) + 5CO(g) ® [Fe(CO)5]
Iron pentacarbonyl
Uses
Extraction of some metals from their oxides : Fe2O3 + 3CO ® 2Fe + 3CO2
In Monds carbonyl process.
As a fuel in the form of water gas and producer gas.
In manufacturing of methyl alcohol and formic acid.
In manufacturing of magnetic tapes (Iron carbonyl) for tape recorder.
(ii) Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
Preparation : C + O2 ® CO2 CH4 + 2O2 ® CO2 + 2H2O
2CO + O2 ® 2CO2
CaCO3 + 2HCl ® CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O (In laboratory)
∆
On industrial scale, CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
1600K
Lime
zymase
C6H12O6 
enzyme → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2
ethanol
Properties : 1.5 times heavier than air. It is not poisonous but it does not support life of
animal and human being but they die in its presence due to lack of O2 gas. It is converted into solid
which is known as dry ice.
2Mg + CO2 ® 2MgO + C (Burns in presence of active metals)
CO2 turns blue litmus paper red so it is acidic in nature. It is sparingly soluble in water but
when dissolved in water, carbonic acid (Soda water, H2CO3) can be obtained.
H2CO3 + ZZX HCO - + H O+

H2O YZZ 3 3
HCO3- + ZZX CO2 - + H O+

H2O YZZ 3 3
Lime water turns it milky.

Ca(OH)2 + CO2 ® CaCO3 + H2O
Lime water Calcium carbonate
CaCO3 + CO2 + H2O ® Ca(HCO3)2
Calcium hydrogen carbonate
362
hv
In photosynthesis, 6CO2 + 6H2O 
In presence of chlorophyll
→ CH O
6 12 6
+ 6O2
Uses : Act as a coolant in cold storage. In preparation of soft drinks and soda water. In preparation
of washing soda (solvays process). As a fire extinguisher. In curing of local burns and in hospital for
surgical operation of sores. During artificial respiration for the victims of CO poisoning it is used in form of
carbogen (95 %O2 + 5 % CO2 mixture known as carbogen.) For the purification of cane sugar juice in
manufacturing of sugar. In photosynthesis by green plants. To control the pH (7.26 to 7.42) of blood CO2
gas is used in carbonic acid buffer system (H2CO3 + HCO3-). In production of fertiliser like urea.
36. Difference in distance between two carbon-carbon atoms in diamond and graphite is .......... .
(A) 154 pm (B) 141.5 pm (C) 12.5 pm (D) 20 pm
37. Fullerene contains .......... rings having six carbon atoms and .......... rings having five carbon atoms.
(A) 20, 12 (B) 6, 8 (C) 7, 14 (D) 12, 20
38. Which coloured solutions obtained by C60 and C70 Fullerene dissolve in toluene solvent ?
(A) Purple, orange-red (B) blue, purple (C) red, blue (D) Yellow, orange
39. 12C + 9H2SO4 ® X + 6H2O + 9SO2 what is X in the reaction ?
(A) Malatic acid (B) Sulphurous acid (C) Formic acid (D) Acetic acid
40. What is used as medicine for hookworm in intenstine ?
(A) CO2 (B) CCl4 (C) CF2Cl2 (D) CHCl3

41. In which of the following presence fruits are quickly rippen ?
(A) Na2SO4 (B) NaCl (C) CaC2 (D) CaCl2

42. What is used as a shield aganist radioactive radiation ?
(A) WC (B) CaC2 (C) SiC (D) Be4C

43. What is proportion of mixture known as carbogen during artificial respiration for the victims of CO
passing it ?
(A) 95 %O2 + 5 %CO2 (B) 5 %O2 + 95 %CO2 (C) 95 %O2 + 5 %N2 (D) 5 %O2 + 95 %N2
Answers : 36. (C), 37. (A), 38. (A), 39. (A), 40. (B), 41. (C), 42. (D), 43. (A)
Important Compounds of Silicon
(1) Silicon hydrides : Sin H2n + 2 where n = 1 to 8
The value of bond enthalpy for silicon-silicon is 297 KJmole1, hence catenation character is
observed in it so it forms limited hydride compounds Sin H2n + 2 where n = 1 to 8. This compound is also
known as silane. The stability of silanes are less compared to hydrides of carbon, hence they have more
reduction power.
(2) Silicon dioxide : (Silica) (SiO2) :
SiO2 does not exist as a single molecule but the arrangement of number of atoms form a giant
crystal. More than 22 allotropic structures are known crystalline.
363
crystal like ® quartz, tridimite, crystobelite
Amorphous like ® silica gel and kieselgur
SiO2 are acidic, hence it dissolves in liquid alkali or alkali carbonate to form silicate compounds.
SiO2 + 2NaOH ® Na2SiO3 + H2O
SiO2 + 4HF ® SiF4 + 2H2O
SiO2 + 2F2 ® SiF4 + O2
Uses of Silica
As a piezoelectrical crystal, crystal oscillators, transducer.
Laboratory glassware and preparation of optical components such as lens and prisms.
In sample cell for U.V. spectrophotometers.
As a drying agent in form of silica gel and also in material for adsorption in chromatography.
As catalyst. In water filteration plants in form of kieselghur.
(3) Silicon tetrachloride (SiCl4) : In silicon tetrachloride silicon has sp3 hybridisation and so it is
tetrahedral in shape.
∆
Si + 2Cl2 → SiCl4
SiCl4 + 4H2O ® Si(OH)4 + 4HCl
Silicic acid
Silicones : Silicones are synthetic materials containing SiOSi bond linkage. These compounds are
polymeric substances containing R2SiO repeating unit. They have general formula (R2SiO)n where R is
alkyl or aryl group. Its empirical formula R2SiO is similar to that of ketone of organic compound so they
are called silicones.
Preparation
Hydrolysis
power of Cu →
2CH3Cl + Si 
→ (CH ) SiCl 2H2O (CH3)2Si(OH)2
570K3 2 2
−2HCl
Dimethyl Dimethyl
Chloro silane silanol
The length of this polymer chain can be controlled by (CH3)3 SiCl.
 CH  CH
 3  3
 |  |
condensation polymerisation
n(CH3)2Si(OH)2  → O − Si − O − Si -
− H2O
 |  |
 CH3  CH3
 n
Silicones
Properties : (i) Chain Type (Form)
(1) short ® Oily, liquid
(2) Medium ® viscous oil jellies, greases
(3) long ® rubbery elastomers and resins
(ii) Silicones resist the organic reagent, oxidation and thermal decomposition. Hence, they are chemically
inert.
(iii) Silicones are heat resistant and electric insulator substances; more over possess the character of
water repellent.
364
Uses : For making water-proof paper, wool, textiles, wood, etc. they are coated with a thin film of
silicones . Silicones are used as sealants and electrical insulators. As lubricant at high and low temperatures.
Surgical implants. Antifoaming agents in cosmetics.
Structure of Silicates : Approximately 95 % of the earth crust consists of silicates and silica.
Silicate compounds contain independent [SiO4]4 or such type of ions joined to form combined silicate ions
and their charges are being balanced by cations such as Na+, K+, Mg2+, Ca2+. The basic structural building
block in silicates is the [SiO4]4 having tetrahedral structure.
In the structure of silicates depending upon the number of corner (0, 1, 2, 3, 4) of the [SiO4]4
tetrahedron shared with other tetrahedrons and based on that they are classified. In a three dimensional
structure of SiO2, Si4+ is partially substituted by Al3+ which gives aluminosilicate called feldspar. In
aluminusilicate, the SiO44 and AlO45 tetrahedrons join with each other in a simple way to form three
dimensional networks known as zeolites.
Classification of Silicates :
No. of Type Anion Examples
Corner of unit
SiO44
0 Orthsilicate SiO44 Zircon (ZrSiO4), Forsterite (Mg2SiO4)
1 Pyrosilicate Si 2O 76 Thort veitite (Sc2Si2O7)) Hemimorphite

Zn2Si2O7, Zn(OH)2.H2O
2 Cyclic silicate Si 3O 96 Wollastonite Ca2Si3O9

12
Ring silicate Si 6O 18 Beryl Be3Al2Si6O18
Chain silicate (SiO32)n Spodumene LiAl(SiO3)2
OR
(A) Linear silicate (SiO3)n2n Diopside CaMg(SiO3)2
(B) Cross link (Si4O 116)n Tri-molyte Ca2Mg5(Si8O22)(OH)2
Aesbestos
3 Sheet silicate (Si2O 5) n2n Stearite Mg3(Si4O10)(OH)2
Or Muscovite KAl2(Si3AlO10)(OH)2
(Si 2O 52) n
4 Three dimensional SiO2 Feldspar, Zeolite, Calumino silicate

different types of silica
(quartz, trydimite, cristobalite)
Uses of zeolite
Zeolite has a network of cavities linked by channels. Zeolite is used as a catalyst. One important
catalyst of zeolite is ZSM 5. It is used in petrochemicals. It converts alcohol directly into gasoline (petrol)
by dehydration and the mixture of hydrocarbon is formed.
44. What is obtaiend by hydrolysis silicon tetrachloride ?
(A) Si(OH)4 (B) (CH3)2Si(OH)2 (C) Si(OH)2Cl2 (D) None.
365
45. Which is common formula of sillicones ?
(A) SiO44 (B) Si2O76 (C) (R2SiO)n (D) (SiO3)n2n
Glass Components
(P) Potash glass (T) CeO2 (A) (P)-(W), (Q)-(V), (R)-(U), (S)-(T)
(Q) Flint glass (U) Na2O.B2O3.Al2O3.SiO2 (B) (P)-(T), (Q)-(W), (R)-(V), (S)-(U)
(R) Pyrax glass (V) K2O.PbO.6SiO2 (C) (P)-(U), (Q)-(T), (R)-(W), (S)-(V)
(S) Fruck glass (W) K2SiO3.CaSiO3.4SiO2 (D) (P)-(V), (Q)-(U), (R)-(T), (S)-(W)
47. Which of the following is known as glass eater ?

(A) HBr (B) HI (C) HCl (D) HF
48. Which negative ion unit in beryll ?
(A) Si2O76 (B) Si3O96 (C) Si6O1812 (D) (Si4O116)n
49. What is negative ion unit in porcelain clay ?
(A) (Si2O52)n (B) Si2O76 (C) Si6O1812 (D) Si3O96
50. Which of the following is known as butter of tin ?
(A) SnCl2.5H2O (B) SnCl2.2H2O (C) SnCl4.4H2O (D) SnCl4.5H2O
Answers : 44. (A), 45. (C), 46. (A), 47. (D), 48. (C), 49. (A), 50. (D)
Nitrogen Group
Elements of group-15, their minerals, occurence
No. Name symbol Atomic electron configuration Minerals and occurence
of Element no.
1. Nitrogen N 7 1s22s22p3 78 % in air

(Non- or 17% in animals and plants
metal) [He]2s22p3 proteins
Form of nitrate salt in
earths layer
NaNO3 : Chilie salt petre
KNO3 : Indian salt petre
Potassium nitrate
2. Phosphorous P 15 1s22s22p23s23p3 Form apatite mineral

(Non-metal) or common Formula
[Ne]3s23p3 ¯
Ca9(PO4)6.CaX2
(X = F, Cl, OH)
Flourapatite Ca9(PO4)6.CaF2
366
[3Ca3(PO4)2 . CaF2]
Chlorapatite Ca9(PO4)6 . CaCl2
[3Ca3(PO4)2 . CaCl2]
Hydroxyapatie-
Ca9(PO4)6.Ca(OH)2 or
[3Ca3(PO4)2. Ca(OH)2]
60% Ca and P in bones and
teeth.
Ca 3(PO 4) 2
Phospoprotein in eggs and milk
3. Arsenic As 33 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p3 As4S4 Rielger
(Semimetal) or (volcano regions)
[Ar] 3d104s24p3 As2S3 orpiment
FeAsS - Arsenopyrites
4. Antimony Sb 51 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s2 Sb2S3 -stibine,
(Semimetal) 4p64d105s25p3 Sb2O4 - Antimony ore
or
[Kr] 4d105s25p3
5. Bismuth Bi 83 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p6 Bi2S3 Bismuthine
(Metal) 4d104d104f145s25s65d106s26p3 Bi2O3 Bismite
or (BiO)2CO3 Bismuthspar
[Xe] 4f14 5d106s26p3
Electronic configuration of valence shell of group-15 elements is ns2np3. In which s-orbital is com-
pletely filled and p-orbitals are incompletely filled, so elements are specially stable.
Oxidation State
The common oxidation states of elements of group 15 are -3, +3 and +5.
The tendency to show 3 oxidation state decreases as we go down the group because of
increase in the atomic size and metallic properties.
Similarly the stability of +5 oxidation state also decreases.
Imp Þ when N element reacts with O element, it shows
+1 to +5 oxidation states.
367
Examples :
NH 3 NH 2× NH 2 NH 2OH N2 N 2O NO N 2O 3 NO2 OR N 2O 5
N 2O 4
-3 -2 -1 0 +1 +2 +3 +4 +5
P elements and its oxo acid show +1, +3, +4, +5 oxidation state.
Example : H 3PO 2 ® +1
H 3PO 3 ® +3
H 3PO 4 ® +5
(Hypo phosphoric acid) H 4P 2 O 6 ® +4
Oxidation state of group-15 emelents :
N -3 to +5 (-3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3, +4, +5)

P, As -3, +3, +5
Sb +3, +5
Bi +3
Periodicity in physical properties
With the increase in atomic number,
increase in atomic size
decrease in ionisation enthalpy
Decrease in electronegativity
Increase in metallic property.
Metallic property increases with atomic number
Atomic and Ionic Radii Ionisation Enthalpy Electronegativity
increases decreases. decreases atomic size with
There is remarkable increase in D i H 1 D iH 2 D i H 3 atomic number while going down
the atomic radii while moving As the p-orbitals in the group.
from N to P, but there is elements of group 15 Hence electronegativity decreases
slight increase in atomic radii are half filled and so The difference in electronegativity
while going fromAs to Bi. they possess characteristic decreases is found to be less.
The reason for this is that the stability. Hence electron is Element of this group are
elements d-or/and f-orbitals not removed easily from polyatomic.
are present. these elements e.g. (N2, P4, As4, Sb4)
Allotrop
There are allotropes of all elements of this group except nitrogen and bismuth.
P (Phosphorous) contains three allotrops. (White, Red, Black)
Arseric (As) and antimony (sb) contain two allotropes. (Yellow and Grey)
368
Periodicity in chemical properties
(1) Reaction with hydrogen element : All the elements of group 15 form hydrides of the type
MH3 (where M = N, P, As, Sb or Bi) by combining with hydrogen.
NH 3 PH 3 AsH 3 SbH3 BiH3
Amonia Phosphine Arsina Stibaina Bismuthaina
o o o o
Bond angle (107.8 ) (93.6 ) (91.8 ) (91.3 ) (90o)
The stability of the hydride compounds decreases as we go from NH3 to BiH3 in the group.
NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
Reaction with oxygen element

NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
Specific hydride of N is N3H (Hydrazoic acid)

(2) Reaction with oxygen element
Two types of oxides
M2O3 M2O5
Acidic property decreases as we go down the group.
Oxide of element containing higher oxidation state is more acidic than lower oxidation state.
Example : N2O < NO < N 2 O3 < N2O4 < N2O5 (very most acidic)
(+1) (+2) (+3) (+4) (+5)
M2O3 oxides,
N and P oxides ® acidic
As and Sb oxides ® amphoteric
Bi oxides ® basic
Note : Oxide of non-metal - acidic, oxide of metal - basic, oxide of semimetal - amphoteric
Order of acidity for trioxide : N2O3 > P4O6 > As4O6 > Sb4O6. Same order for pentoxide.
(3) Reaction with halogen elements
MX3 and MX5

Halide compounds of the type.
* As there are no d-orbitals in valence shell of nitrogen atom, it is not able to form
pentahalide.
* Pentahalides are more covalent than trihalides.
* All the trihalides except the nitrogen element are stable.
¯
While only the one trihalde of nitrogen element. NF3 is stable. (Q N(75 pm) and F(72
pm) equal size, N - F bond becomes strong)

369
* Trihalide compounds except BiF3 are covalent compounds.
¯
(Ionic)
(4) Reaction with metal elements
Form binary compounds like
Ca3N2 ® Calcium nitride
Ca3P2 ® Calcium Phosphide
Na3As ® Sodium arsenide
Zn3Sb2 ® Zinc antimoinde
Mg3Bi2 ® Magnesium bismuthide
In these the oxidation state of N, P, As, Sb, and Bi is -3.

51. Which oxidation state show when Nelement reacts with O element ?
(A) +3 to +5 (B) -3 to +3 (C) +1 to +5 (D) -3, +3, +5

52. Which order is correct for basicity of group-15 elements hydride ?
(A) SbH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > NH3 (B) NH3 > SbH3 > PH3 > AsH3
(C) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 (D) SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > NH3
53. Which oxide of nitrogen is the most acidic ?
(A) N2O5 (B) N2O3 (C) N2O4 (D) NO
54. Which is correct order of acidity of oxide ?
(A) NO < N2O < N2O 3 < NO2 < N2O 5 (B) N2O < NO < N2O3 < NO2 < N2O 5
(C) N2O5 < NO2 < N2O 3 < NO < N 2O (D) N2O5 < N2O 3 < NO2 < NO < N 2O
Answers : 51. (C), 52. (C), 53. (A), 54. (B)
Nitrogen
Preparation, properties and uses of dinitrogen gas (N2) :
Preparation :
(1) Dinitrogen is prepared by liquefaction and fractional distillation of air.
As the boiling point of dinitrogen is 77.2 K
it is first obtained during distillation.
while the boiling point of dioxygen O2 is 90 K
(2) In the laboratory :
Nitrogen can be prepared by the reaction of aqueous ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) with aqueous
sodium nitrite (NaNO2) .....
NH4Cl(aq) + NaNO2(ag) ® N2(g) + 2H2O(1) + NaCl(ag)
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Drawback : During this reaction, NO and HNO3 are found. To remove them, the gas produced
during the reaction is passed through the mixture potasium dicromate of and aqueous sulphaic acid.
(3) Thermal decomposition of ammonium dichromate
∆→ N
(NH4)2Cr2O7(s)  + 4H2O(l) + Cr2O3(s)
2(g)
(4) Very pure dinitrogen gas :

Very pure dinitrogen gas can be obtained by thermal decomposition of sodium azide or barium
azide.
∆ → Ba
Ba(N3)2(s)  + 3N2(s)
(s)
barium azide
OR
∆ → 2Na
2NaN3(s)  + 3N2(s)
(s)
sodium azide
Physical Properties
N2 gas
Colourless Two stable isotopes Sparingly Inert at

14 15
Tasteless N, N soluble in water room temperature
Non poisonous
Chemical Properties
At high temperature, it combines with certain metals and forms ionic nitrides.
Example : 6Li(s) + N2(g) ∆ → 2Li N

 3 (s)
3Mg(s) + N2(g) ∆ → Mg N
 2 2(s)
With non-metals it forms covalent nitrides.
Example : 2B(s) + N2(g) ∆ → 2BN

 (s)
It reacts with dihydrogen (Haber process) :

773K X
N2(g) + 3H2(g) ZZZZZZ
bar Z 2NH3(g)
YZZZZZ
200
FeO catalyst, K2O + Al2O3 is added as promotors

It reacts with dihydrogen and dioxygen and forms ammoina gas nitric oxide gas respectively
∆
N2(g) + O2(g) ZZZ
YZZZ 2NO(g)
X
Uses
In the production of NH3 Reactivity of O2 in the air is decreased In elelctric bulbs,
Prepartion of HNO3 Metallurgical process to maintain inert preparation of HNO3
atmosphere As coolant in
preservation of
biological substance
and food materials.
371
Anomalous Behaviour
Nitrogen is in gaseous form as dintitrogen (N2), while other elements are in solid state in the form
of M4 molecule (except Bi)
Nitrogen element does not possess allotropes but other elements possess allotropes.
Nitrogen trioxide (N2O3) and Nitrogen pentoxide (N2O5) are monomolecular (monomers); while
the trioxides and pentoxides of other elements are bimolecular (dimers) (eg. P4O6, P4O10, As4O6, As4O10)
As N2 is non-metal, its oxide compounds possess acidic property.
The halides of nitrogen except NF3 are explosive, while the halides of other elements are stable.
NH3 non-poisonous while, PH3, AsH3 is poisonous.
Because of smaller size and higher electronegativity of nitrogen element, there is characteristic
property of forming pp - pp bond in it. While this property is not possessed by the other elements of this
group.
There are no d-orbitals available in the orbits of nitrogen elements its maximum bonding capacity is 4.
As a result it cannot form dp - dp bond. The other elements of this group are able to form this type of
bonds.
Compounds of Nitrogen Elements
(i) Ammonia (NH3) :
Preparation
(1) Decay of nitrogen containing organic compounds like urea.
NH2CONH2(s) + ZZX 2NH

H2O(l) YZZ 3(g)
+ CO2(g)
(2) By reaction of ammonium salt with NaOH or Ca(OH)2 ammonia gas can be obtained.
(NH4)2SO4(s) + 2NaOH(aq) ® 2NH3(g) + 2H2O(l) + Na2SO4(aq)
2NH4Cl(s) + Ca(OH)2(aq) ® 2NH3(g) + 2H2O(l) + CaCl2(aq)
(3) Habers process (Industrial production) :
200 bar pressure

ZZZZZZZZZZZZX
N2(g) + 3H2(g) YZZZZZZZZZZZ
773K[FeO]
Z 2NH ,
3(g)
D
f
H = - 46.1 KJ mol1
[FeO] as catalyst are used alongwith K2O + Al2O3 in less proportions as promoters.
(4) Hydrolysis of magnesium nitride, ammonia gas is obtained.
Mg3N2(s) + 6H2O(l) ® 3Mg(OH)2(s) + 2NH3(s)
Physical Properties Strcture :
Colourless gas with pungnet smell.
Trigonal pyramidal structure.
Three bonding and one non-bonding electron pairs are present. pm
1.7
10
Chemical Properties 107.8° H
H
(1) Ammonia gas dissolves in water and forms NH4OH.
H
NH3(g) + H2O(l) ZZX NH +
YZZ + OH-(aq)
4 (aq)
372
(2) As nitrogen atom in ammonia molecule has got non-bonding pair of electron, it acts as a Lewis
base. It forms co-ordinate covalent bond with metal ion and forms complex ions.
Cu2+(aq) + 4NH3(aq) ZZX [Cu(NH ) ]2+

YZZ 3 4 (aq)
(Blue) (Dark blue)

(3) Aqueous solution of ammonia with acid gives ammonium salt.
NH4OH(aq) + ZZX NH Cl + H O
HCl(aq) YZZ 4 (aq) 2 (l)
With aqueous solution of

metal salt give metal hydroxide
2NH4OH(aq) + ZnSO4(aq) ® Zn(OH)2(g) + (NH4)2SO4(aq)

Uses : ammonium nitrate
urea
ammonium phosphate
ammonium sulphate
Preparation of HNO3 }
Liquid NH3 is used as refrigerant.
Formation of fertilisers
(2) Nitric acid (HNO3)

Preparation
(1) In laboratory : Sodium nitrate or potassium nitrate is heated with concentrated H2SO4 in a
glass retort.
NaNO3(s) + H2SO4(aq) ∆ → NaHSO

 4(aq)
+ HNO3(aq)
Sodium nitrate Sodium hydrogen
Sulphate
Anhydrous nitric acid is obtained by distilling concentrated aqueous solution of HNO3 in
presence of P4O10.
(2) Ostwalds method : (Industrial production)
[ Pt ( 90%) + Rh (10%)]
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g)
500K, 9 bar
+ 6H2O(g)
2NO(g) + O2(g) ZZX 2NO

YZZ 2(g)
3NO2(g) + H2O(l) 
→ 2HNO3(aq) + NO(g) Structure :
H
pm
H
102°
1
12
130°
The aqueous nitric acid To obtain HNO3with 98% 140.6 pm
obtained in this way is distilled concentration it is
and acid with 68.5 % by dehydrated with
H
weight concentration can concentrated H2SO4
be obtained.
373
Physical Properties
Colourless liquid.
Planar structure in gaseous state.
Chemical Properties
Aqueous solution of HNO3 as a strong acid
HNO3(aq) + H2O(l) ® H3O+(aq) + NO3-(aq)
Concentrated nitric acid is a strong reducing agent. (Reaction with metal)
Certain metals like Cr, Al do not dissolve in concentrated nitric acid. (because inert oxide layer is
formed on these metals)
Metals like Au, Pt do not react.
Nitrate salt of metal + N2O + waterÝëØ ßëÂù
O3
il HN
+ d
Metal + 10-30% aq. HNO3 Nitrate salt of metal + NO + water
+c
on
.H
NO Nitrate salt of metal + NO2 + water
3
Examples :
(1) 4Cu(s) + 10HNO3 (dil, aq) ® 4Cu(NO3)2(aq) + N2O (g)

+ 5H2O(1)
(2) 3Cu(s) + 8HNO3 (10-30 %, aq) ® 3Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2NO (g)

+ 4H2O(1)
(3) Cu(s) + 4HNO3 (con., aq) ® Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2NO2 (g)

+ 2H2O(1)
(4) Zn(s) + 4HNO3 (con., aq) ® Zn(NO3)2(aq) + 2NO2 (g)

+ 2H2O(1)
(Reaction with non-metal)
The non-metals and their compounds are oxidised by concentrated HNO3
Remember :
Oxidation of I2 ® HIO 3
(Iodic acid)
Oxidation of C ® CO2 (Carbon dioxide)
Oxidation of S8 ® H2SO4 (Sulphuric acid)
Oxidation of P4 ® H3PO4 (Phosphoric acid)
Example : (1) I2(s) + 10HNO2(l) ® 2HIO3(s) + 10NO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
(2) C(s) + 4HNO3(l) ® CO2(g) + 2H2O(l) + 4NO2(g)
(3) S8(s) + 48HNO3(l) ® 8H2SO4(aq) + 48NO2(g) + 16H2O(l)
(4) P4(s) + 20HNO3(l) ® 4H3PO4(aq) + 20NO2(g) + 4H2O(l)
Aqueous solution of HNO3 gives ring test.
This ring test is given by NO3- ion in aqueous solution. (Qualitative analysis of inorganic substance)
So nitric acid also give this test.
374
Ring test
Brown coloured ring is observed near the surface where concentrated sulphuric acid and mixed
solution meet. This ring is due to formations of nitroso complex.
NO3-(aq) + 3Fe2+(aq) + 4H+(aq) ® NO(g) + 3Fe3+(aq) + 2H2O(l)

Con. H2SO4 [Fe(H2O)6]3+(aq) + NO(g) ®
3+
[Fe(H2O)5(NO)](aq) + H2O(l)
added slowly
(Brown colour)
in inner side
IUPAC Name : Penta aquanitrosonium iron (II) ion.
JEE ÜëË[Fe(H2O)6]2+(aq) + NO(g) ® [Fe(H2O)5(NO)]2+(aq) + H2O(l)

Aqueous Feshly prepared
solution + FeSO solution IUPAC Name : Penta aquanitrosonium iron (I) ion.
4
of NO3- ion
Uses of HNO3 : Fertilisers like ammonium nitrate and explosive substances like TNT and nitroglycerine.
Used as oxidising agents in rocket fuels.
Oxides of nitrogen :
Name of oxide Molecular Oxidation Common methods of Physical
of nitrogen Formula state of N preparation apperance and
element chemical nature
Dinitrogen oxide N 2O +1 ∆→ N O
NH4NO3  + 2H2O Colourless gas
2
(Nitrogen (I) oxide) neutral
Nitrogen monoxide NO +2 - Colourless gas,
(Nitrogen (II) oxide) neutral,
Paramagnetism
Dinitrogen trioxide N 2O 3 +3 2NO + N2O4 250K → 2N O
 2 3
blue solid
(Nitrogen (III) oxide) acidic
Nitrogen dioxide NO 2 +4 673K → 4NO + 2PbO + O
2Pb(NO3)2  2 2
brown gas
(Nitrogen (IV) oxide) acidic
Paramagnetism
cool
Dinitrogen tetroxide N 2O 4 +4 2NO2 YZZZZ
ZZZZX
heat
N 2O 4 Colourless solid/
(Nitrogen (IV) oxide) liquid, acidic
Dinitrogen pentoxide N 2O 5 +5 4HNO3 + P4O10 ® 4HPO3 + 2N2O5 colourless
(Nitrogen (V) oxide) solid, acidic
Nitric oxides (NO) partially polymerises in liquid state because of presence of one unpaired electron.
Oxides of nitrogen : Oxides of nitrogen react with water and forms oxoacid compounds of nitrogen.
2NO2(g) + H2O(1) ® HNO2(aq) + HNO3(aq)

N2O3 is anhydride of nitrous acid (HNO2)
N2O5 is anhydride of nitric acid (HNO3)
375
55. Which of the following is co-valent nitride ?
(A) Li3N (B) Mg3N2 (C) Ca3N2 (D) BN
56. What is added as promoters in haber process for production of NH3 ?
(A) K2O + Al2O3 (B) CaO + NaOH (C) (NH4)2CO3 (D) K2CO3
57. ∆→ x
(NH4)2Cr2O7  + y + 4H2O(1) Identify X and Y.
(A) N2, Cr2O3 (B) NO, Cr2O3 (C) N2O, CrO2 (D) NO, Cr2O3
58. Which oxide is anhydride of nitric acid ?
(A) N2O (B) N2O3 (C) N2O4 (D) N2O5
59. Which catalyst is used in preparation of HNO3 in Ostwald method ?
(A) Pt(90 %) + Rh(10 %) (B) Pt(10 %) + Ag(90 %)

(C) Pu(90 %) + Re(10 %) (D) Pr(90 %) + Rh(10 %)
60. Which of the following reacts with Cu-metal to produce N2O gas ?
(A) dil HNO3 (B) 10-30 % aqueous HNO3(C) concentration HNO3 (D) All above
61. What is obtained when I, S, P and C reacts with HNO3 ?
(A) HIO3, H2SO4, H3PO4, CO2 (C) I2O5, H2SO4, H3PO4, CO
(B) HIO3, H2SO4, H3PO3, CO2 (D) I2O5, SO2, P4O10, CO2
62. Which of the reaction reacts with FeSO4 gives brown coloured ring ?
(A) NO2 (B) N2O3 (C) N2O5 (D) NO
63. What is used as oxidizing agent in rocket fuel ?
(A) HNO3 (B) H2SO4 (C) NO2 (D) NaOH
Answers : 55. (D), 56. (A), 57. (A), 58. (D), 59. (A), 60. (A), 61. (A), 62. (D), 63. (A)
Phosphorous
Allotropes
White (yellow) Red Black
Poisonous and wax like white Preparation : White Two forms
substance. phosphorous is heated at
573 K in absence of air.
discrete tetrahedral P4 less soluble in CS2 and less (1) a- black :
molecules. reactive Heating red phosphorous in closed
Insoluble in water, soluble CS2 tube at 803 K temperature.
Glows in the dark does not burn in contact of air. (2) b-black :
317 K melting point melting point 873 K
376
Highly reactive P P white phosphorous is heated
Burns when kept open in air. under high pressure at 473K
Stored in water.
P P P P P P
If white phosphorous is
heated at 573K in absence of P P P
air, it is changed to stable red P P P P P
form.
P P
More reactivity is due to its Red phosphorous
abnormal structure.
Strain in P4 molecule
Bond angle is 60o
PP bond is bent.
This bond is weak and
reactive.
In inert atmosphere, P
undergoes redox reaction with
boiling NaOH form PH3
(phosphine).
P
P P
P
White phosphorous
Compounds of Phosphorus
(1) Phosphine (PH3) :
Preparation :
(1) Phosphine is obtained by reacting calcium phosphide with water or dilute hydrochloric acid.
Ca3P2(s) + 6H2O(l) ® 3Ca(OH)2(aq) + 2PH3(g)
Ca3P2(s) + 6HCl(l) ® 3CaCl2(aq) + 2PH3(g)
(2) In laboratory, phosphine is prepared by reacting white phosphorous with concentrated NaOH in
inert atmosphere.
P4(s) + 3NaOH(aq) + 3H2O(l) ® PH3(g) + 3NaH2PO2(g)
Sodium hypophosptite
Physical Properties
Phosphine is a colourless gas having smell like rotten fish and is very poisonous gas.
It is sparingly soluble in water.
377
Chemical Properties
Phosphine : If phosphine is absorbed in aqueous solution of CuSO4 (copper sulphate) or mercuric
chloride (HgCl2) corresponding phosphide is formed.
3CuSO4(aq) + 2PH3(g) ® Cu3P2(g) + 3H2SO4(aq)
3HgCl2(aq) + 2PH3(g) ® Hg3P2(g) + 6HCl(aq)
Phosphine expoldes when its comes in contact with oxidising agents like HNO3, Cl2, Br2. Phosphine
is a weak base. It gives phosptonium bromide by reaction with HBr.
PH3(g) + HBr(g) ® PH4Br(g)
Uses :
Because of spontaneous combustion property of phosphine, it is used in Holmes signals.
By making a hole in the vessel containing calcium carbide and calcium phosphide is thrown into the
sea and so the gas prduced burns which works as signal.
It is used in preparation of smoke screen.
Calcium phosphide reacts with water to produce PH3, which burns with air to produce cloud of
P4O10. It acts as smoke screen.
(2) Phosphorous trichloride (PCl3) :
(i) Preparation :
(1) Phosphorous trichloride is obtained by passing dry chlorine gas on white phosphorous at high
temperature.
∆ → 4PCl
P4(s) + 6Cl2(g)  3(l)
(2) Phosphorous trichloride is obtained by reaction of white phosphorous with thionyl chloride (SOCl2)
P4(s) + 8SOCl2(l) ® 4PCl3(l) + 4SO2(g) + 2S2Cl2(g) sulphur chloride
(ii) Properties :
Physical properties :
Colourless fuming liquid. Cl
Cl
Soluble in solvents like benzene, chloroform, ether, carbon disulphate
Cl
Its shape is pyramidal.
Chemical Properties : Phosphorous trichloride forms fumes when it comes in contant with air or
water becuase the PCl bond present in PCl3 is decomposed and is converted into the resulting product
phosphorous acid (H3PO3).
PCl3(l) + 3H2O(l) ® H3PO(aq) + 3HCl(aq)
It reacts with organic compounds having OH group, viz.
CH3COOH and C2H5OH :
3CH3COOH + PCl3(l) ® 3CH3COCl(l) + H3PO3(l)
3CH3CH2OH + PCl3(l) ® 3CH3CH2Cl(l) + H3PO3(l)
(3) Phosphorous pentachloride (PCl5)
Preparation :
By reaction of white phosphorous with excess amount of dry chlorine gas.....
P4(s) + 10Cl2(g) ® 4PCl5(s)
378
By reaction of white phosphorous with sulphuryl chloride (SO2Cl2)....
P4(s) + 10SO2Cl2(1) ® 4PCl5(s) + 10SO2(g) Cl
Physical Properties : 240 pm Cl
Yellowish white coloured solid substance.
Possesses trigonal bipyramidal shape in liquid and gaseous states. 202 pm
Chemical properties : Cl
(1) By hydrolysis by moisture of air and finally phosphoric acid is formed. Cl
PCl5(s) + H2O(g) ® POCl3(1) + 2HCl(s)

Cl
POCl3(1) + 3H2O(g) ® H3PO4(aq) + 3HCl(aq)
(2) Phosphorous pentachloride sublimes on heating but decomposes when heated more.
∆ → PCl
PCl5(s)  + Cl2(g)
3(1)
(3) By reaction with organic compounds having -OH group.

CH3COOH(1) + PCl5(s) ® CH3COCl(1) + POCl3(1) + HCl(1)
C2H5OH(1) + PCl5(1) ® C2H5Cl(l) + POCl3(1) + HCl(1)
(4) On heating PCl5 with metal piece, it forms corresponding metal chlorides.
2Ag(s) +
∆ → 2AgCl
PCl5(s)  + PCl3(1)
(s)
Sn(s) +
∆ → SnCl
2PCl5(s)  + 2PCl3(1)
4(s)
(4) Oxo acids of phosphorus :

Different oxoacids of phosphorous are obtained of phosphorous oxides with water.
P4O6(s) + 6H2O(1) ® 4H3PO3(aq) orthophosphorus acid.
P4O10(s) + 6H2O(1) ® 4H3PO4(aq) orthophosphoric acid.
H 3PO 3
Oxidation number of P = + 3
It is weak dipropic acid.
O
||
H - O - P - H
|
O
|
H
Hydrogen atom directly combined with phosphorous is not acidic because, the electronegativities of
both P and H are same and so P - H bond is non-planar.
Orthophorus acid (H3PO3)
Ka1 = 1.0 ´ 10-2, Ka2 = 2.6 ´ 10-7
379
H3PO4 (Orthophosphoric acid)
Oxidation number of P = + 5
O
||
H - O - P - O - H
|
O
|
H
[Weak triprotic acid]
Ka1 = 7.5 ´ 10-3, Ka2 = 6.2 ´ 10-8, Ka3 = 4.8 ´ 10-13
H 4P2O7
Pyro phosphoric acid Oxidation state P = + 5 Tetra basic
Preparation : Diphosphoric acid (H4P2O7) is also called pyrophosphoric acid which is obtained by
removal of one molecule of water when two molecules of H3PO4 combine.
O O O O
|| || || ||
H - O - P - O - H + H - O - P - O - H ® H - O - P - O - P - O - H
| | | |
O O -H2O O O
| | | |
H H H H
(H4P2O7)
H3PO2 (pyrophosphonic acid) (hypophophoroous acid)
O
||
P
H | OH oxidation number = + 1
H
H5P3O10
In it HPO3 unit is repeated three times.
Structural formula :
O O O
|| || ||
H - O - P - O - P - O - P - O - H
| | |
O O O
| | |
H H H
380
(HPOn)
Polymetaphosphoric acid Ñ (HPO3)n
HPO3 unit is repeated. Oxidation number 5

= +
O O O
|| || ||
- O - P - O - P - O - P - O -
| | |
O O O
| | |
H H H
°.´.´. ÜëËõ äÔëßëÞð_
Hypo phosphorous acid (H4P2O6) (2) Peroxo monophosphoric acid (H3PO5)
Tetra basic Tri basic
oxidation number of P = + 4 Oxidation number of P = + 5
Structural formula : Structural formula :

O O O
|| || ||
HO - P - P - OH HO - P - O - OH
| | |
OH OH OH
(3) Peroxo diphosphoric acid (H4P2O8) (4) Cyclo trimeta phosphoric acid (HPO3)3
Tetrabasic Tribasic (HPO3)3
Oxidation number of P = + 5 Oxidation number of P = + 5
O O
O O || ||
|| || HO - P - O - P - OH
HO - P - O - O - P - OH | |
| | O - P - O
OH OH
O - OH
381
Oxoacids of phosphorous
Molecular Oxidation
No. Name formula number Bond type and Basicity
of P No. of Bonds
(1) Hypo phosphorous H 3PO 2 +1 P - OH ® 1 Mono
acid P - H ® 2
(phosphonic acid) P = O ® 1
(2) Orthophosphorous H 3PO 3 +3 P - OH ® 2 Di
acid P - H ® 1
(phosphonic acid) P = O ® 1
(3) Pyrophosphorous acid H 4 P 2O 5 +3 P - OH ® 2 Di
P - H ® 2
P = O ® 2
P - O - P ® 1
(4) Hypo phosphoric acid H 4 P 2O 6 +4 P - OH ® 4 Tetra
P = O ® 2
P - P ® 1
(5) Ortho phosphoric acid H 3PO 4 +5 P - OH ® 3 Tri
P = O ® 1
(6) Meta phosphoric acid HPO 3 +5 Tri
cyclo tri metaphosphoric (HPO 3) 3 +5 P - OH ® 3
acid P = O ® 3
P - O - P ® 3 Mono
linear trimetel (HPO 3) n +5 P = O ® 1
phosphoric acid P - OH ® 1
P - O - P ® 1
(7) Pyrophosphoric acid H 4 P 2O 7 +5 P - OH ® 4 Tetra
P = O ® 2
P - O - P ® 1
(8) Peroxomono phosphoric H 3PO 5 +5 P - O - O - H ® 1 Tri
acid O - H ® 2
P = O ® 1
(9) Peroxo diphosphoric acid H 4 P 2O 8 +5 O - H ® 4 Tetra
P = O ® 2
P - O - O - P ® 1
382
Phosphorous and its compounds :
64. Which of the following mixture heated in kiln to produce phosphorous ?
(A) Ca3(PO4)2 + SiO2 (B) SiO2 + C (C) Ca3(PO4)2 + C (D) Ca3(PO4)2 + SiO2 + C
65. P4(s) + 3NaOH(aq) + 3H2O(1) ® PH3(g) + X . Identify X in given reaction.
(A) Na3PO 4 (B) Na2HPO4 (C) NaH 2PO4 (D) NaH2PO 2
66. Which of the following comes in contact with PH3 to explode ?
(A) HNO3 (B) Cl2 (C) Br2 (D) All above
67. Which compound of phosphorous is useful in Holmes signal ?
(A) PH3 (B) P2O5 (C) Ca3P2 (D) P 2O 3
68. In which of the following reaction does not produce phosphine ?
(A) white P heated with NaOH (B) red P heated with NaOH
(C) Ca3P2 reacting with water (D) P4O6 reacts with water
69. How many number of O atoms attach to every P in P4O6 and no. of bonds of P - O in P4O6?
(A) 1.5, 2 (B) 2, 1 (C) 3, 4 (D) 4, 3
70. P4(s) + 8SOCl2(1) ® 4 X + 4Y + 2 Z what are X, Y and Z respectively ?
(A) PCl5, SO2, S2Cl2 (B) POCl3, SO2, SOCl2 (C) PCl3, SO3, S2Cl2 (D) PCl3, SO2, S2Cl2
71. What is the shape and hybridisation of PCl5 molecule ?
(A) Trigonal bi-pyramidal, sp3d (B) Pyramidal, dsp3
(C) Trigonal bi-pyramidal, sp3 (D) Planar triangular, sp3d2
72. Which of the following coating fixed on both sides of match box ?
(A) potassium chlorate and red lead (B) potassium chlorate and antimony sulphide
(C) antimony sulphide and red phosphorous (D) antimony sulphide and red lead
73. What is equivalent weight of phosphoric acid in following reaction ?
NaOH + H3PO4 ® NaH2PO4 + H2O
(A) 25 (B) 49 (C) 59 (D) 98
74. How many number of bonds of P-O-P are present in cyclic meta phosphoric acid ?
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
75. In which of the following presence of spontaneous combustion property of phosphine ?
(A) Vapour of P4 (B) Vapour of P2H4 (C) Vapour of P2H6 (D) moisture
383
76. In which of the following P-O-P bond does not exist ?
(A) Iso hypo phosphoric acid (B) Diphosphorous acid
(C) Di phosphoric acid (D) Hypo phosphoric acid
77. Which of the following is tribasic acid ?
(A) H4PO2 (B) H3PO4 (C) H4P2O 7 (D) H3PO3

78. Which of the following part of repeating unit in poly meta phosphoric acid ?
(A) HPO3 (B) H3PO2 (C) H3PO3 (D) HPO2
79. Indetify incorrect pair
(A) Orthophosphorous acid dibasic oxidation number of P = + 3
(B) Diphosphoric acid tetrabasic Oxidation number of P = + 5
(C) Hypophosphoric acid tetrabasic Oxidation number of P = + 4
(D) Phosphonic acid dibasic Oxidation number of P = + 1

80. Which of the following oxoacid in phosphorous is strong reducing agent ?
(A) Hypo phosphorous acid (B) phosphorous acid
(C) Hypo phosphoric acid (D) pyro phosphorous acid
Answers : 64. (D), 65. (D), 66. (D), 67. (C), 68. (B), 69. (C), 70. (D), 71. (A), 72. (C),
73. (D), 74. (C), 75. (B), 76. (D), 77. (B), 78. (A), 79. (D), 80. (A)
Elements of Group 16 :
General information, e- configuration, occurance, oxidation state, physical and chemical
properties :
Oxygen, sulphur, selenium, tellurium and polonium elements are included in group 16.
These elements are known as oxygen group elements or as chalcogens.
Electronic Configuration : The electronic configuration of valence shell of elements of group 16
is ns np4.
2
Occurence :
Oxygen element is the most abundant element available in highest proportion on the earth.
Oxygen element possesses about 46.6% mass of earths crust. In dry air, oxygen is 20.9461 % by
volume.
Sulphur present on the earth is about 0.03-0.1 % by mass of earths crust.
It is available in combined forms
Sulphate compounds like ® gypsum (CaSO4.2H2O)
® Epsom salt (MgSO4.7H2O)
® Baryte (BaSO4) and
384
Sulphide compounds like ® Galena (PbS)
® Zinc blende (ZnS)
® Copper pyrites (CuFeS2)
Oxidation states :
Elements O S Se Te Po
Oxidation
- 2, -1, +1, +2 -2, +2, +4, +6 - 2, +2, +4, +6 -2, +2, +4, +6 +2, +4
state
The stability of (-2) oxidation states of these compounds decreases as we go down the group.
Polonium does not show (-2) oxidation state.
In OF2, oxidation state of oxygen is (+2).
As we go down in the group, the stability of +6 oxidation state decreases and stability of +4
oxidation state increases.
Periodicity in Physical and Chemical properties

Periodicity in Physical properties :
The atomic and ionic radii with increase in number of orbits in the elements, increases when we
go down the group.
The value of ionization enthalpy decreases with increase in atomic number as we go down the
group.
As we go down the group, elecronegativity decreases.
Chemical properties :
All the elements of group 16 form hydrides of the type H2M (where M = S, Se, Te, Po). The
acidic property of the hydride compounds increase on going form H2O to H2Te.
All the elements of group 16 form oxides of two types MO2 and MO3 when react with oxygen
element (where M = S, Se, Te, Po).
The property as reducing agents of these dioxide compounds, decreases as we go down from SO2
to TeO2. SO2 is a reducing agent, while TeO2 is an oxidising agent. All these oxides possess
acidic nature.
The order of stability of halide compounds is F- > Cl- > Br- > I-. Amongst the hexahalide
compounds, only hexafluoride are found to be stable.
81. Which of the following element does not possess 2 oxidation state ?
(A) Te (B) Se (C) Po (D) S

82. Which mineral is sulphate containing barium ?
(A) Barite (B) Galena (C) Zincite (D) Gypsum
385
83. As we move from top to bottom in group 16 bond angle in hydride compounds decrease, because...
(A) Repulsion between bonding e pair-bonding e pair increases.
(B) Repulsion between bonding e pair-bonding e pair decreases.
(C) Electronegativity of central atom decreases.

(D) Electronegativity of central atom increases.
84. Which of the following has maximum magnetic dipole moment ?
(A) H2O (B) H2S (C) H2Se (D) H2Te
Answers : 81. (C), 82. (A), 83. (C), 84. (D)
Oxygen
Preparation of Dioxygen gas :
(i) By thermal decomposition of oxygen containing elements like KClO3 and KMnO4 or by
electrolysis of acidic water.
Heat → 2KCl
2KClO3(s)  + 3O2(g)
[MnO ] (s)
2
2H2O(l) Electrolysis
→ 2H2(g) + O2(g)
(ii) Dioxygen gas is obtained by thermal decomposition of oxides of certain metals.

∆ → 4Ag
2Ag2O(s)  + O2(g)
(s)
∆ → 4Hg
2Hg2O(s)  + O2(g)
(l)
∆ → 6PbO
2Pb3O4(s)  + O2(g)
(s)
∆ → 2PbO
2PbO2(s)  + O2(g)
(s)
(iii) Dioxygen gas is obtained by decomposition of H2O2 in the presence of manganese dioxide.
[MnO ]
2H2O2(l) 2 → 2H O + O2(g)
2 (l)
Heat
Properties and uses of dioxygen gas

(i ) Physical Properties :
Dioxygen is a colourless and odourless gas.
It possesses three stable isotopes 16
O, 17
O, 18
O. It is paramagnetic.
About 3.08 cm3 of dioxygen gas dissolve in 100 cm3 of water at 293 K temperature
which is sufficient to sustain life of marine and aquatic living beings.
It is converted in liquid form at 90K temperature and in solid form by cooling at 55 K
temperature.
386
(ii) Chemical Properties :
Dioxygen gas reacts with most of metal elements except inert and noble gas elements.
[ V2 O5 ]
2SO2(g) + O2(g)  → 2SO3(g)
4HCl(g) [CuCl2 ]
O2(g) 
+ → 2Cl2(g) + 2H2O(g)
Uses :
Dioxygen gas is useful in respiration and combustion reaction. In preparation of steel. In oxyacetylene
flame. As very high temperature is obtained by this flame in welding work of metals.
Cylinders of dioxygen gas are useful for treatment of patients in the hospital, mountaineers and
divers going deep in the water as well as respiration process.
Anamalous behaviour
d-orbitals are not available in valence shells of oxygen atom. Hence, it possesses lower oxidation
state (-2, -1, 1, 2). While in other elements, as d-orbitals are available, the expansion of valence
orbit in elements is possible. Here, these elements possess higher oxidation states (-2, 2, 4, 6).
Possess Compounds of Oxygen :

(i ) Simple Oxides : Oxygen combines with other elements and forms binary compounds called
oxides.
The oxides which give acid by reaction with water are called acidic oxides, eg. SO2,
Cl2O7, CO2, N2O5, HClO4, P4O10
Generally oxides of non-metals are acidic.

Exception : Oxides of metals are acidic eg. V2O5, Mn2O7 , CrO3
The oxide compounds which give base by reaction with water are called basic oxides.
eg., Na2O, CaO, BaO, Fe2O3, MgO
Some oxides possess both the acidic and basic nature. These oxides are called amphoteric
oxides. eg. Al2O3.
Some oxides are such which possess neither of the acidic nor basic nature. These oxides
are called neutral oxides eg., CO, NO and N2O.
(ii) Ozone :
Ozone is the allotrope of oxygen. Ozone is formed from oxygen in atmosphere in presence
of sunlight at the height of 20 kilometer above sea level.
Preparation :
Ozone gas can be prepared in laboratory by the use of ozonizer of Siemens or Brodie.
Ozone is obtained by passing cold and dry oxygen in presence of silent electric charge in
Siemens ozoniser.
3O2(g) ® 2O3(g), D H = 142.7 KJmole-1
387
8000 to 10000 volt electromotive force is used between rods of aluminium. In electrolysis
method. 95 % ozone can be obtained at the anode by electrolysing acidic water using
platinum electrodes and remaining 5% is oxygen gas.
Ozone possesses light blue colour in gaseous form, dark blue colour in liquid form and dark
violet colour in solid form.
Ozone possesses characteristic odour.
Less proportion of ozone is not harmful but if its proportion exceeds 100 ppm, then difficulty
develops in respiration. As a result of this there is experience of headache and suffocation.
Strong oxidising agent. Hence ozone gas oxidises lead sulphide to lead sulphate and iodide ion
to iodine.
Nitric oxide coming out from the exhaust of supersonic jet planes, react with ozone and form
nitrogen dioxide gas.
In the same way, it forms oxo acids by reaction with moisture containing sulphur, phosphorus
and arsenic.
S(s) + H2O(l) + 3O3(g) ® H2SO4(aq) + 3O2(g)
2P(s) + 3H2O(l) + 5O3(g) ® 2H3PO4(aq) + 5O2(g)
2As(s) + 3H2O(l) + 5O3(g) ® 2H3AsO4(aq) + 5O2(g)
Uses :
To sterile drinking water.
As bleaching agent for bleaching of different oils, flour and starch.
As oxidising agent in production of potassium permanganate.
85. Which of the following compound does not give dioxygen when heated ?
(A) HgO (B) KMnO4 (C) (NH4)2Cr 2O7 (D) KClO3
86. Oxygen element possess low oxidation state because...
(A) d-orbitals are not present in valence shell.
(B) expansion of valence orbital.
(C) it is in gaseous form.
(D) All above.
87. Which oxide is not acidic oxide ?
(A) SO2 (B) CrO3 (C) Cl2O7 (D) Fe2O3
88. Which of the following is neutral oxide ?
(A) CO (B) NO (C) NO2 (D) All are given
388
89. Which of the following compound does not produce dioxygen when reacts with ozone ?
(A) PbS (B) H2S (C) SO2 (D) Hg
90. By which of the following method is used to prepare ozone in laboratory ?
(A) UV rays passed in air.
(B) F2 reacts with water at low temperature.
(C) SO2 reacts with H2O2.
(D) Dry oxygen passed in presence of piece electric charge.
91. Match the correct pair.
Column-I Column-II
(P) ZnO (T) Basic (A) (P)-(U), (Q)-(V), (R)-(T), (S)-(V), (W)
(Q) V2O5 (U) Amphoteric (B) (P)-(V), (W), (Q)-(Q), (R)-(V), (S)-(T)
(R) Fe2O3 (V) Acidic (C) (P)-(T), (Q)-(V), (W), (R)-(U), (S)-(V)
(S) H2S (W) Reductant (D) (P)-(V), (Q)-(T), (R)-(V), (W), (S)-(U)
Answers : 85. (C), 86. (A), 87. (D), 88. (D), 89. (C), 90. (D), 91. (A)
Allotropes of Sulphur
Yellow rhombic sulphur (a-sulphur) and monoclinic sulphur (b-sulphur) are very important.
(i ) Rhombic sulphur (a-sulphur) :
Yellow colour.
Its melting point is 385.8 K.
On evaporation of solution of sulphur prepared in CS2, rhombic sulphur is obtained.
It is insoluble in water but soluble in organic solvents like benzene, alcohol.
(ii) Monoclinic sulphur (b-sulphur) :
When sulphur is heated of 369 K it converts into monoclinic sulphur.
Monoclinic sulphur is soluble in CS2. Its melting point is 393 K.
When rhombic sulphur is melted in a dish and then cooled, monoclinic sulphur is obtained.
Monoclinic sulphur is stable at temperature higher than 369 K and it is chagned to rhombic
sulphur at lower temperatures.
At 369 K tempreature, both the allotropes are stable. This temperature is called the
transition temperature.
Both these possess S8 molecule. S8 molecule is in the form of a crown.
The cyclic structure of S6 molecule is of chair form.
S
S 20 S S
4p
m
S 205.7 pm S
S 107° S
S 102.2°
S S
S S
S8 molecule S6 molecule
S
389
Compounds of Sulphur
(1) Sulphur dioxide (SO2) :
(i ) Preparation : When sulphur is combusted in air or oxygen gas, sulphur dioxide (with
about 6 to 8% sulphur trioxide) is obtained.
S(s) + O2(g) ® SO2(g)
In laboratory, sulphure dioxide gas is obtained by reaction of hydrochloric acid with

sodium sulphite.
Na2SO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) ® SO2(g) + H2O(l) + 2NaCl(aq)
In industries, sulphur dioxide is obtained as a by product during roasting of sulphide

mineral.
4FeS2(s) + 11O2(g) ® 2Fe2O3(s) + 8SO2(g)
Sulphur dioxide gas obtained this way is dried and stored in liquid state under pressure in
steel cylinder.
(ii) Properties
Colourless gas having intense smell and possessing burning effect.
Soluble in water in very high proportion.
It is liquefied at room temperature at 2 bar pressure. Sulphur dioxide molecule is

angular.
Chemical Properties :
Solution of sulphorus acid is obtained when sulphur dioxide is passed through water.
SO2(g) + H2O(l) ® + H2SO3(aq)
It forms sodium sulphite in first step by reaction with NaOH which reacts with
more proportion of sulphur dioxide and form sodium hydrogen sulphate.
2NaOH(aq) + SO2(g) ® Na2SO3(aq) + H2O(l)
Na2SO3(aq) + H2O(l) + SO2(g) ® 2NaHSO3(aq)
Sulphur dioxide reacts with chlorine gas in presence of catalyst and forms sulphuryl
chloride (SO2Cl2). Sulphur trioxide is formed by oxidation in presence of vanadium
pentoxide catalyst.
SO2(g) + Cl2(g) ® SO2Cl2(l)
[ V2 O5 ]
2SO2(g) + O2(g)  → 2SO3(g)
It makes coloured acidic solution of KMnO4 colourless. Thus it acts as a reducing

agent.
390
(iii) Uses :
In purification of petroleum and sugar. To bleach wool and silk.
To dissolve certain organic and inorganic substances liquid sulphur dioxide is used
as solvent.
In industrial production of sulphuric acid, sodium hydrogen sulphite and calcium

hydrogen sulphite, sulphur dioxide is used.
(2) Sulphuric acid (H2SO4) :
(i ) Industrial manufacture : Mainly the following steps are included in the manufacture of
sulphuric acid by contact process.
(1) To obtain sulphur dioxide gas by combusting sulphur or sulphide minetal in air.
S8 + 8O2 ® 8SO2
4FeS2 + 11O2 ® 2Fe2O3 + 8SO2
(2) To convert sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide with the help of oxygen in presence
of vanadium pentoxide catalyst.
(3) Sulphur trioxide obtained this way is absorbed in concentrated sulphuric acid and so
fuming sulphuric acid or oleum (H2S2O7) is obtained.
196.6 KJmole-1
[V O ]
2SO2(g) + O2(g) 
720 K →
2 5 2SO3(g) Dr H = -
2 Bar
Sulphur trioxide gas obtained in this way is absorbed in concentrated sulphuric acid.
As a result, fuming sulphuric acid or oleum (H2S2O7) is obtained. Sulphuric acid of
required concentration can be obtained by its dilution with water.
SO3(g) + H2SO4(l) ® H2S2O7(l) (oleum)
96 to 98 % pure H2SO4 can be obtained by contact process.
Colourless, dense oily liquid.

Its specific gravity at 298 K temperature is 1.84.
Its freezing point is 283 K and boiling point is 611 K.
It is used in preparation of other acids due to low volality.

2MX(s) + H2SO4(l) ® 2HX(l) + M2SO4(aq)
(Where M = metal ion, X = F-, Cl-, NO3-)
391
Concentrated sulphuric acid is a strong dehydrating substance. Gases containing moisture
when passed through concentrated H2SO4 they become dry. These gases must not be
reacting with H2SO4. It removes water from organic compounds.
H2SO4
e.g., C12H22O11 → 12C + 11H2O
By this charring reaction sugar becomes black.
Hot concentrated sulphuric acid acts as oxidising agent. Metals and non-metals are oxidised
by concentrated H2SO4 and sulphuric acid is reduced and converted to SO2.
Cu(s) + 2H2SO4(con.)(l) ® CuSO4(aq) + SO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
S(s) + 2H2SO4(con.)(l) ® 3SO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
C(s) + 2H2SO4(con.)(l) ® CO2(g) + 2SO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
Uses :
An important industrial chemical. In preparation of most of the chemical substances like

fertilizers, dyes, synthetic fibres, soap and detergent, it is called King of Chemicals.
As a reagent in laboratory.
(3) Oxoacids of sulphur

(i ) sulphurous acid (ii) sulphuric acid
formula : H2SO3 formula : H2SO4
Oxidation no. of S = + 4 Oxidatin no. of S = + 6
structure : structure :

S S O
HO O HO O HO S O
OH OH OH
(iii) Thiosulphuric acid (iv) Peroxomono sulphuric acid (caros acid)
formula : H2S2O3 formula : H2SO5

Oxidation no. of +6, -2 Oxidation no. of S = + 6
S O
|| ||
HO - S = O O =S - O - O - H
| |
OH OH
392
(v) Peroxodisulphuric acid (Marshall acid) (vi) Dithionic acid
formula : H2S2O8 formula : H2S2O6
Oxidation no. of S = + 6 Oxidation no. of S = + 6
O O O O
|| || || ||
O = S - O - O - S = O O = S - S = O
| | | |
OH OH OH OH
(vii) Pyrosulphuric acid (oleum)
formula : H2S2O7
Oxidation no. of S = + 6
structure :
O O
|| ||
HO - S - O - S - OH
|| ||
O O
92. Which statement is significance according to characteristics of a -sulphur ?
(i) a-sulphur is yellow coloured (ii) Its melting point is 385.8 K
(iii) soluble in water (iv) soluble in organic solvents like benzene, alcohol
(A) TTTT (B) TTFT (C) TTTF (D) FFFT

93. At what temperature the allotropes of sulphur becomes stable ?
(A) 369 K (B) 393 K (C) 396 K (D) 339 K
94. By which of the following the impurities of arsenic in contact process ?

(A) Fe2O3 (B) Fe(OH)3 (C) Al(OH)3 (D) Cr(OH)3
95. Which of the following is not correct to produce H2SO4 in contact process ?
(A) SO2 gas prepared by combustion of S in air.

(B) Catalytic oxidation of SO2 to SO3.
(C) 100 % H2SO4 prepared by dissolving SO3 in water.
(D) Purity of H2SO4 obtained from contact process than lead chamber process.
96. Which compound is used of sulphur in iodometric titratinon ?
(A) Na2SO3 (B) Na2S2O 3.5H2O (C) Na2SO4.10H2O (D) NaHSO3
97. Which of the following obtains black precipatate at the end of reaction between hypo with AgNO3
solution ?
(A) Ag2S2O3 (B) Ag2SO3 (C) Ag2S (D) Na3[Ag(S2O3)2]
393
98. Which aqueous solution of ion reacts with HCl to give intense odour of gas and yellow precipitate
when heated ?
(A) Thiosulphate ion (B) Sulphate ion (C) Sulphide ion (D) Sulphite ion
99. Which of the following is monobasic acid ?
(A) H2SO3 (B) H2SO4 (C) H2SO5 (D) H2S2O8
100. SO2 gas passed through acidic solution of K2Cr2O7 ........
(A) gives blue coloured solution (B) gives colourless solution
(C) produce SO2 (D) gives green coloured substance Cr2(SO4)3
101. Which oxide of nitrogen is used as catalyst in lead chamber process ?
(A) NO (B) NO2 (C) N2O3 (D) N2O5
102. Which acid possess peroxi bond ?
(A) sulphurous acid (B) pyrosulphurous acid (C) dithionic acid (D) Caros acid
103. Match correct pair.
Column-I Column-II
(P) H2S2O2 (T) S-O-S linkage (A) (P)-(U), (W), (Q)-(T),(U), (R)-(U), (V), (S)-(U), (V)
(Q) H2S2O3 (U) Diprotic (B) (P)-(U), (V), (Q)-(U), (V), (R)-(U), (W), (S)-(T), (U)
(R) H2S2O4 (V) S = S linkage (C) (P)-(T), (U), (Q)-(U), (V), (R)-(U), (V), (S)-(U), (W)
(S) H2S2O7 (W) S - S linkage (D) (P)-(U), (W), (Q)-(U), (V), (R)-(T), (U), (S)-(U), (V)
104 . Whose structure is this ?
O O
|| ||
O = S - O - S = O
| |
OH OH
(A) Peroxo disulphuric acid (B) Pyro sulphuric acid

(C) Sulphurous acid (D) Caros acid
105 . Formic acid reacts with concentrated H2SO4 to produce ....... .
(A) CO (B) NO (C) CO2 (D) NO2
106 . Which is correct order of acidic strength for CO2, CuO, CaO, H2O ?
(A) CaO < CuO < H2O < CO2 (B) H2O < CuO < CaO < CO2
(C) CaO < H2O < CuO < CO2 (D) H2O < CO2 < CaO < CuO
107 . Hybridisation of S-atom in SF2, SF4, SF6 are respectively.
(A) sp2, sp3, sp3d2 (B) sp3, sp3, sp3d2 (C) sp3, sp3d, sp3d2 (D) sp3, spd2, d2sp3
Answers : 92. (B), 93. (A), 94. (B), 95. (C), 96. (B), 97. (C), 98. (A), 99. (C), 100. (A),
101. (A), 102. (C), 103. (B) 104. (B), 105. (A), 106. (A), 107. (C).
394
Elements of group 17 :
Fluorine, chlorine, bromine, iodine and astatine are the elements of group 17.
These elements are collectively known as halogen elements.
They are reactive non-metallic elements.
Astatine is a radioactive element.
Electronic configuration :
The electronic configuration of valence shell of elements of group 17 is ns2np5 (where, n = 2 to 6).
They have one electron less for obtaining electronic configuration like their neighbouring inert
elements.
Order of electronegativity of group-17 elements is F > Cl > Br > I.
Its oxidation state is (-1) in all its compounds. The value of ionisation enthalpy decreases with
increase in atomic size. Some oxide and oxoacid of halogen possess +4 and +6 oxidation state.
The value of electron gain enthalpy of halogen elements of the period is highest negative.
Electronegativy :
The electronegativity of halogen elements is more.
The electronegativity decreases as we move down in this group.
The electronegativity of flurine element is maximum.
108. Number of S and p electrons are respectively ...... .
(A) 15, 18 (B) 12, 17 (C) 8, 17 (D) 4, 19
109. Which of the is the most basic ?
110. Which of the following has less bond dissociation enthalpy ?
(A) C - Cl (B) C - F (C) C - Br (D) C - I
111. Which order is not proper ?
(A) Electronegativity : F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(B) Bond-dissociation enthalpy : F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(C) Ionization enthalpy : F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
(D) All above.
112. There are two statements are given among this one is statement (A) and other is reason
(R). Select correct option to study instructions carefully.
Statement (A) : Reactivity of fluorine is less.
Reason (R) : Bond dissociation enthalpy of F - F is less than other halogen elements.
(A) Statement (A) and Reason (R) are true. Reason (R) is correct explanation of statement (A).
(B) Statement (A) and Reason (R) are true. Reason (R) is not correct explanation of statement (A).
(C) Both statements (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect.
(D) Statement (A) is wrong while reason (R) is correct.
395
113. As we move from top to bottom ..........increases.
(A) electronegativity (B) volatile Nature (C) oxidizing agent property (D) ionic radius
114. Which compound is partially halide ?
- - -
(A) Cl (B) CN (C) ICl2 (D) ICI
115. Which order of acidic strength is not proper ?
(A) HI > HBr > HCl (B) HIO4 > HBrO4 > HClO4
(C) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 (D) HF > H2O > NH3
116. Give ionic trend in metallic halide.
(A) MF < MCl < MBr < MI (B) MF > MCl > MBr > MI
(C) MF < MCl < MBr < MI (D) MCl > MF > MBr > MI
117. Correct order of standard reduction potential of Halogen group elements.
(A) F2 > Cl2 > I2 > Br2(B) Cl2 > F2 > I2 > Br2 (C) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (D) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2
118. Select correct option for true-false statements :
(A) Order of elecronegativity : I F > Br > I.
(C) Cryolite is the main mineral to obtain chlorine.
(D) More electronegative halogen combine with less electronegative halogen form interhalogen
compounds.
- -
(E) Electron-electron repulsion is more in e enter in 3P orbital of chlorine than e enter in 2P-orbital
of flourine, so, electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is more than chlorine.
(F) Last element of halogen group, astatine is a radioactive element.
(A) TTFFTT (B) TFTFFT (C) TFFFTT (D) TTFFTT
119. High viscosity and high melting point of HF is due to .......... reason.
(A) low dissociation enthalpy of F2 molecule (B) narrate nature of H-bond.
(C) ionic nature of HF (D) high electronegativity of fluorine.
120. Halogen is volatile because .......
(A) they all are co-valent property. (B) they possess high boiling point
(C) they possess low boiling point (D) they are stable at room temperature.
Answers : 108. (C), 109. (D), 110. (D), 111. (B), 112. (D), 113. (D), 114. (B), 115. (B),
116. (B), 117. (D), 118. (D), 119. (B), 120. (C)
Chemical properties
(1) Reactivity :
All halogen elements are chemically active. Reactivity of halogen decreases with increase in atomic
number. So fluorine is highly active and iodine is weakly active order of reactivity is F > Cl > Br > I.
All halogen elements form halides. Halide ions are used as reducing agents.
Order of reducing agent : I > Br > Cl > F.
396
(2) Hydrogen Halide :
Halogen element attach with hydrogen gives hydrogen halide.
Preparation of HF and HCl :
CaF2 +
% → CaSO
H2SO4  + 2HF
4
2NaCl +
% → Na SO
H2SO4  + 2HCl
2 4
Preparation of HF and HCl :

3NaBr +
% → Na PO
H3PO4  + 3HBr
3 4
3NaI +
% → Na PO
H3PO4  + 3HI
3 4
(3) Oxide :
Halogen elements do not combine with oxygen. Compounds of halogen with oxygen obtained indirectly.
Only two compounds of oxygen with flourine OF2 and O2F2
While chlorine gives more no. of oxides e.g., Cl2O, ClO2, Cl2O6 and Cl2O7
Iodine gives only one oxide e.g., I2O5
Bromine has three oxides e.g., Br2O, BrO2, BrO2
All halogen oxides are acts as strong oxidising agent.
Order of oxidizing agent : Cl2O > ClO2 > Cl2O6 > Cl2O7.
Reaction of preparation of oxygen fluoride :
2F2 + 2NaOH ® 2NaF + H2O + OF2
Vapour pressure
F2 + O2 Low
→ O F
pressure 2 2
Temperature
Structure :
m pm
1p 95.7
14
F 103° F H 104.8° H
OF2 H2O
F H
O 122 pm O O O
15
8
pm
(O2F2) F H
Uses :
O2F2 and OF2 both are strong fluorinating agent.
O2F2 is used in PuF6 to remove Pu.
397
Structure of oxides of chlorine :
17
-dp
Pp
1p -dp
m Pp
149 pm
Cl 111° Cl O 118° O
Cl2O ClO2
O O
O O O
O Cl Cl O OR Cl Cl
O O O
O O Cl2O6
pm
171 pm 115°
1
14
191°
Cl2O7
Structure of bromine oxide is same as chlorine oxide.

Equation for the preparation of iodine pentoxide.
o
200→ H O
2HIO3  + I2O5
2
Dry air
2I2 + 5O2 → 2I2O5
Uses : I2O5 is a good oxidising agent which is used to maintain proportion of CO from air mixture.
Structure :
193
pm
139.2°
pm
179
(4) Oxoacid compounds of Halogen Elements :

Fluorine forms only one oxoacid because of smaller size and more electronegativity of fluorine element.
HOF is called fluoric (I) acid or hypofluorous acid. Other halogen elements form oxoacid compounds in
more number.
Most of the compounds cannot be separated in pure form. They are stable as aqueous solutions or
in the form of salts. The oxoacid compounds of halogen elements are shown :
398
Halic (I) acid HOF HOCl HOBr HOI
(Hypohalus (Hypo- (Hypochliourous (Hypobromous (Hypoiodous
acid) fluorous acid acid) acid) acid)
Halic (II) acid HOClO
(Halous acid) - - -
Halic (V) acid HOClO2 HOBrO2 HOIO2
(Halous acid) - (chloric acid) (Bromic acid) (Iodic acid)
Halic (VII) HOClO3 HOBrO3 HOIO3
acid - (perchloric acid) (perbromic acid) (periodic acid)
(Perhaliv acid)
The strength of oxoacids of halogens increases with the increase in oxidation state of halogen.
e.g., HClO is a very weak acid in which oxidation state of Cl element is (+1).
HClO4 is a very strong acid in which oxidation state of a element is (+7).
Only structure of some oxo acids are given below :
O O O
H Cl H Cl
(a) Hypochlorous acid (b) Chlorous acid
H H
O O
Cl Cl
O O O O
O
(c) Chloric acid (d) Perchlioric acid
(5) Interhalogen compounds :

When two different halogen elements react with each other and form the compounds, they are
called interhalogen compounds. e.g., XX ’, XX 3’, XX 5’ and XX 7’ compounds, where X = halogen elements
with bigger size, X ’ = halogen elements with smaller size.
(i) Preparation :
Interhalogen compounds are obtained by direct reaction of halogen elements with each other.
Cl2(g) +
473K → 2ClF
F2(g)  Cl2(g) +
573K → 2ClF
3F2(g) 
(g) (g)
(Equal volume) (Chlorine fluride) (excess) (Chlorine trifluoride)
399
I2(s) + Cl2(g) 
→ 2ICl(s) I2(s) + 3Cl2(g) → 2ICl3(s)
(Equal mole) (Iodine chloride) (excess) (Iodine trichloride)
Br2(s) + 3F2(g) 
→ 2BrF3(l) Br2(s) + 5F2(g) → 2BrF5(l)
(Bromine trifluoride) (excess) (Bromine pentafluoride)
(ii) Properties :
Some properties of Interhalogen compounds :
Type Formula Physical state and colour Structure (Shape)
XX ’ ClF Colourless gas -

BrF Pale brown gas -
IF Detected spectrospically
BrCl gas -
ICl Ruby red solid -
(a-form)
Red solid (b-form) -
IBr Black solid -
XX ’3 ClF3 Colourless gas Bent T-shaped

BrF 3 Yellow green liquid Bent T-shaped
IF3 Yellow powder Bent T-shaped
ICl3 Orange solid Bent T-shaped
XX ’5 IF5 Colourless gas but Square pyramidal

solid below 77 K
BrF 5 Colourless liquid Square pyramidal
ClF5 Colourless liquid Square pyramidal
XX ’7 IF7 Colourless gas Pentagonal bipyramidal
(a) Physical properties : Most of the interhalogen compounds are in volatile solid or liquid form.
Some compounds are in gaseous form.
(b) Chemical properties : Generally interhalogen compounds are more reactive than their
corresponding halogen elements (Except fluorine) because the X - X ’ bond in interhalogen compounds is
relatively weak in comparison to X - X bond.
By hydrolysis of interhalogen compounds halide ion is formed from smaller size from them and
hypohalite (for XX ’), halite (for XX ’3), halate (for XX ’5) and perhalate (for XX 7’) ions are formed from
bigger size halogen.
XX ’ + H2O ® HX ’ + HOX
400
(iii) Uses :
Interhalogen compounds are used as non-aqueous solvent.
Very good fluorinating reagents.
ClF3 and BrF3 are used to obtain U235 for concentration of UF6.
U(s) + 3ClF3(l) ® UF6(g) + 3ClF(g)
121. .......... is used as design of glass, so it cant fill up in glass vessel.

(A) HI (B) HBr (C) HCl (D) HF
122. Which order is correct according to stability ?
(A) HF > HBr > HCl > HI (B) HI < HCl < HBr < HF
(C) HF > HCl > HBr > HI (D) HF > HI > HCl > HBr
123. Shape of XX 3’ type interhalogen compound is .......... .

(A) pentagonal bi pyramidal (B) square pyramidal
(C) angular T-shape (D) octahedral
124. Select correct option for using symbol T and F for the following statements.
- -
(1) Hypo halite ion = (OX2) (2) Halite ion = (XO2)
- -
(3) Halate ion = (XO3) (4) perhalaite ion = (OX4)
(A) FTTT (B) TFFT (C) FTTF (D) TTTF

125. Give strong oxidizing agent.
(A) F2 (B) Cl2 (C) Br2 (D) I2
126. Which interhalogen possess T shape ?
(A) ClF3 (B) ClF (C) ClF5 (D) IF7
127. Which of the following element prepare only one stable oxoacid among halogen elements ?
(A) I (B) F (C) Cl (D) Br
128. Stability order of inter halogen compound is ..........
(A) IF3 > BrF3 > ClF3 (B) BrF3 > IF3 > ClF3 (C) ClF3 > BrF3 > ZF3 (D) ClF3 > IF3 > BrF3
129. Which ions are obtained by hydrolysis of XX 5’ and XX 7’ compound respectively ?

- - - - - - - -
(A) XO3 , XO4 (B) XO2 , XO3 (C) XO4 , XO5 (D) XO , XO2
130. Which of the following reaction can not be spontaneous ?

- - - -
(A) F2 + 2Cl ® 2F + Cl2 (B) I2 + 2Br ® 2I + Br2
- - - -
(C) Br2 + 2I ® 2Br + I2 (D) 2I + Cl2 ® 2Cl + I2
401
131. Chlorine atom in ClF5 possess .......... hybridisation.
(A) sp3 (B) sp3d (C) sp3d3 (D) sp3d2
-
132. Chlorine atom in ClO3 possess .......... hybridisation.
(A) sp2 (B) sp3 (C) sp3d (D) sp3d2
Answers : 121. (D), 122. (A), 123. (C), 124. (D), 125. (A), 126. (A), 127. (C), 128. (C),
129. (B), 130. (A), 131. (B), 132. (B)
Halogen and their compounds :

(1) Fluorine :
(i) Occurence : Fluorine does not exist free in nature but it is obtained as fluorite or flourspare
(CaF2), cryolite (Na3AlF3) and flourapatite.
Proportion of fluoride is in sea-water, bones, teeth, blood and in milk.
(ii) Preparation : By electrolysis of aqueous solution, carbon rod act as anode and carbon electrode
act as cathode in closed vessel of Ni - Cu or Cu - Fe to get fluorine.
+ -
KHF2 ® KF + HF; KF ® K + F
+ -
Cathod : K + e ® K;
2K + 2HF ® 2KF + H2

- -
Anode : 2F ® F2 + 2e
Other chemical reaction to get fluorine :

1
K2MnF6 + 2SbF5 ® 2KSbF6 + MnF3 + F
2 2
(iii) Properties : In all halogen elements it is highly reactive.
It gives fluoride with metal and non-metal.

It reacts with NH3 to produce nitrogen and with H2S to produce SF6.
2NH3 + 3F2 ® N2 + 6HF
H2S + 4F2 ® SF6 + 2HF
Flourine reacts with cold and dilute NaOH to prepare oxygen difluoride.
2F2 + 2NaOH ® 2NaF + H2O + OF2
When fluorine reacts with concentrated and hot NaOH gives oxygen.
2F2 + 4NaOH ® 4NaF + 2H2O + O2
(iv) Uses : In preparation of UF6 and SF6, in CFC, Teflon, Cryolite and HF.
(2) Chlorine :
(i) Occurence : Chlorine obtained mainly from (NaCl), carnelite (KCl, MgCl2.6H2O) and (CaCl2).
402
(ii) Preparation : Chlorine is obtained by electrolysis of brine solution.
Electrolysis
2NaCl + 2H2O → 2NaOH + Cl2 + H2
Chlorine is also obtained by electrolysis of molten NaCl.
Electrolysis
2NaCl → 2Na + Cl2
(iii) Properties : Chlorine reacts with metal and non-metal gives chloride.
Chlorine gives HCl and HClO by dissociation H2O of which are unstable.
Cl2 + H2O → HCl + HClO
hv
HClO → HCl + [O]
Uses of Cl2 is to remove ink.

Cl is strong oxidising agent & it converts ferrous into ferric.
(iv) Uses : In preparation of HCl, NaOCl, bleaching powder, chloride, vinyl chloride and CCl4.
(3) Bromine :
(i) Occurrence : Obtained mainly from sea-water, salted water, lake and as NaBr, KBr, and MgBr2.
(ii) Preparation : Obtained mainly from sea-water.
Cl2 gas pass through sea-water gives Br2.

2Br- + Cl2 ® 2Cl- + Br2
In laboratory NaBr is heated with MnO2 and concentrated H2SO4 gives Br2.
2NaBr + MnO2 + 3H2SO4 ® 2NaHSO4 + MnSO4 + 2H2O + Br2
(3) Properties : It is reddish brown coloured heavy liquid.
Its reactions with water, alkalies, NH3. metal and non-metal same as chlorine.
Bromine water combine with mercury oxide give mercury oxy bromide.
2HgO + 2Br + H2O ® HgBr2 . HgO + 2HgBrO
mercury oxide bromide
(4) Uses : In preparation of ethelene bromide.
In preparation of AgBr, Bromine water. Dyes, Medicines, Benzyl bromide.

(4) Iodine :
(i) Occurrence : Obtained from leminariya shrubs present in deep ocean, its proportion is 0.5%.
(ii) Preparation : Obtained from brine solution or sea-shrubs.
Its ingredient (which contain 1% I2) can be obtained by drying marine Weeds and then burning.
403
(iii) Properties : Partially soluble in water,, its solubility increases with addition of 10% KI solution.
Reaction of iodine with water is opposite of reaction of fluorine with water.
4I-(aq) + O2(g) + 4H+(aq) ® 2I2(s) + 2H2O(l)
In some organic solution it is soluble.

I2 reacts with cool and dil NaOH gives hypoiodous acid.
NaOH + I2 ® NaI + HIO
Reaction of iodine with con and hot NaOH is same as Cl2 and Br2.
Reaction of iodine with amonia are as follow :
2NH3 + 3I2 ® NI3.NH3 + 3HI
8NI3.NH3 ® 5N2 + 9I2 + 6NH4I
(iv) Uses : In preparation of iodex, iodoform, KI and potassium iodate.
Due to deficiency of I2, probability of goiter disease occurs.

(5) Hydrochloric acid (HCl) : HCl is obtained from passing Hydrogen chloride gas into water.
(i) Preparation : HCl is obtained by salt cake method.
420K →
NaCl + H2SO4  NaHSO4 + HCl
NaCl +
823K → Na SO
NaHSO3  + HCl
2 4
Excess impure HCl is obtained during conversion of vinyl chloride from 1, 2-dichloro ethane
ClCH2 -
∆ → CH
CH2Cl  = CHCl + HCl
2
Very pure HCl is obtained by direct mixture of H2 and Cl2.

H2 + Cl2 ® 2HCl
In laboratory NaCl and concentrated H2SO4 are heated gives HCl.
420K →
NaCl + H2SO4  NaHSO4 + HCl
(ii) Properties : It is colourless, spicy smell, easily soluble in colourless solution.
It is easily soluble in water and it is called hydrochloric acid.

It produces white fumes with NH3.
NH3 + HCl ® NH4Cl
Produce H2 gas with active metal like Zn, Mg, Fe etc.
404
(iii) Uses : In preparation of metal chlorides, chlorine NH4Cl and glucose.
To remove oxide layer from metal surface.
In preparation of medicines and in laboratory.
(6) Bleaching powder :
(i) Occurrence : It is calcium salt of hypochlorous acid.
It is mixture of hypochlorite and CaCl2.
(ii) Preparation : Flow of chlorine passed on slaked lime gives bleaching powder.
Ca(OH)2 +
813K → CaOCl
Cl2  + H2O
2
(iii) Properties : In limited amount of bleaching powder react with dilute H2SO4 gives oxygen.
2CaOCl2 + H2SO4 ® CaCl2 + CaSO4 + 2HClO
HClO ® HCl + [O]
It is oxidising agent and as bleaching agent.
Excess amount of bleaching powder react with dilute acid or CO2 to give Cl2.
CaOCl2 + H2SO4 ® CaSO4 + H2O + Cl2
CaOCl2 + CO2 ® CaSO3 + Cl2
Good bleaching powder contain 35-38 % part chlorine from total 55.9% chlorine.
(iv) Uses : To bleach cotton clothes.
In preparation of chloroform.
As antiseptic, germfree water.
To prevent shrinks in wood.
133. Chlorine reacts with .......... and .......... alkali to give chloride and chlorate respectively.
(A) cool, dilute (B) hot, dilute (C) hot, concentrate (D) cool, concentrate
134. In which of the following reaction Cl2 gas is not obtained as product ?
(A) Oxidation of HCl by MnO2 (B) Oxidation of HCl by KMnO4
(C) Oxidation of KClO3 by KMnO4 (D) By electrolysis of concentrate NaCl solution
135. Which gas gives reaction with CaO, but not with NaHSO3?
(A) CO2 (B) Cl2 (C) N2 (D) O2
136. Salt of chloride heated with K2Cr2O7 and concentrate H2SO4 give red-blue colour due to .......... .
(A) Cl2 (B) CrO2Cl2 (C) H2CrO2 (D) CrO3
137. .......... reacts with Cl2 to give bleaching powder ?
(A) CaCl2 (B) CaO (C) CaCO3 (D) Ca(OH)2
138. When aqueous solution of KBr reacts with ........... to produce bromine gas ?
(A) I2 (B) HI (C) Cl2 (D) SO2
405
139. Solution of chlorine in water possess .......... .
(A) only HOCl (B) only HCl (C) HCl and HOCl (D) HCl, HClO and O2
140. Fluorine does not show different oxidation state, because ........... .
(A) due to its small atomic size (B) due to minimum bond dissociation enthalpy
(C) d-orbitals are not present (D) due to its high electronegativity
141. What is the main reason for short bond length of BF bond in BF3 ?
(A) Ionic covalent resonance show in BF3 . (B) Electronegativity of fluorine is more.
(C) Due to dp - pp bond. (D) Due to pp - pp bond.
142. Which of the following reacts with KBr solution to produce bromine ?
(A) solution of I2 (B) water of chlorine (C) NOCl (D) KI
143. I2 reacts with hot and concentrated NaOH to give .......... .
(A) NaI + HIO + O2 (B) NaI + NaIO + O2 (C) NaI + HIO3 + H2O(D) NaI + NaIO3 + H2O
144. Which halogen oxidized by HNO3 ?
(A) F2 (B) Cl2 (C) I2 (D) Br2
145. I2 dissolve in water in presence of .......... .
(A) KI (B) Cl2 (C) Br2 (D) KBr
146. Para periodic acid possess .......... ion.
(A) IO3- (B) IO6-5 (C) IO5-3 (D) IO4-

147. ICl3 show electro conductivity due to electrolysis of its ionization occurs in .......... .
ZZX I+
(A) 2ICl3 YZZ + ICl5- ZZX I+
(B) ICl3 YZZ + 3Cl-
ZZX ICl +
(C) 2ICl3 YZZ + ICl4- ZZX ICl +
(D) 2ICl3 YZZ + ICl2-
2 4
148. By which reaction gives nitrogen (I) oxide ?

(A) By thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate.
(B) By didecomposition of N2O4.
(C) By thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrite.
(D) All above.
149. Which of the following gas produce, when CO2 gas is passed through aqueous solution of bleaching
powder ?
(A) O2 (B) Cl2 (C) O3 (D) Cl2O
150. 2NaOH + X ® Y + H2O
Y + H2O + SO2 ® Z. Give formula of X, Y and Z in reactions.
(A) X = SO2, Y = Na2SO3, Z = Na2SO4 (B) X = SO2, Y = NaHSO3, Z = Na2SO3
(C) X = SO3, Y = Na2SO3, Z = NaHSO4 (D) X = SO2, Y = Na2SO3, Z = NaHSO3
406
A purple solid substance X reacts with NH3 to prepare dilute explosive substance Y and remove
purple colour. X reacts with H2 to give acid Z. Salt reacts with H3PO4 to give Z.
151. Which is purple coloured solid substance ?
(A) Cl2 (B) SO2 (C) Br2 (D) I2
152. Which is dilute explosive substance Y ?
(A) NI3 (B) NH4I (C) HI (D) NI3, NH3
153. What is acid Z ?
(A) HCl (B) HI (C) HBr (D) H2SO4
Answers : 133. (C), 134. (B), 135. (D), 136. (B), 137. (B), 138. (D), 139. (C), 140. (B),
141. (C), 142. (A) 143. (B), 144. (C), 145. (A), 146. (A), 147. (B), 148. (B),
149. (A), 150. (D), 151. (B), 152. (D), 153. (D)
Group 18
Elements of Group 18
In this group six elements helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon and redon are present.
These elements are also known as, Inert gases or Noble gases
These elements are not considered as metals or non-metals.
All these elements are in gaseous form at the room temperature and are chemically inert.
Occurance :
Helium is obtained most in nature.

It is available from natural gas.
Argon possesses 1% by volume in dry air.
Uses :
They are inert, so they are useful to produce inert atomosphere.
e.g., Ar is used in electric bulb and to prevent from oxygen in welding of metal.
In liquid state He is used in research to maintain low temperature.
In liquid state Helium is used in research to maintain low temperature. Its boiling point is very low
compared to any substance.
Periodicity in Physical properties :

General tendency of increase in the atomic size decrease in ionisation enthalpy with increase in
atomic number.
Order of ionisation enthalpy is,

He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe > Rn
407
Order of melting point : He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe < Rn
Order of boiling point : He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe < Rn
These gases are very less soluble in water.
Argon is more soluble than nitrogen and oxygen.
With increase in size of gas, dipolar attraction force increases.
So, order of solubility : He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe
Column I Column II
(A) He (p) used in beacon light. (A) (A)-(p); B-(s); (C)-(r); (D)-(q)
(B) Ne (q) in treatment of cancer. (B) (A)-(r); B-(p); (C)-(s); (D)-(q)
(C) Ar (r) fill air in balloon. (C) (A)-(q); B-(p); (C)-(s); (D)-(r)
(D) Rn (s) fill in the bulb. (D) (A)-(r); B-(q); (C)-(p); (D)-(s)
155. First preparation of XePtF6 compound of inert gas, then after in chemistry new branch of inert gas
compound opened ........... prepared this compound.
(A) Re-leh (B) Birth-Lete (C) Dorn (D) Locvware
156. Inert gases can not react with other elements because .....
(A) it is completely filled and possess stable orbit.
(B) their sizes are very small.
(C) they do not obtain bulk.
(D) they are in one dimension.
157. Inert gas possess ........... .
(A) highly chemical reactivity (B) low chemical reactivity
(C) very low atomic radius (D) more paramagnetic properties
158. Which of the following has highest boilling point ?
(A) Xe (B) He (C) Ne (D) Ar
159. Inert gases are sparingly soluble in water because ......
(A) dipole-dipole interactions. (B) induced dipole-induced dipole interactions.
(C) dipole-induced dipole interactions. (D) hydrogen bond.
160. Which of the following has the maximum ionization enthalpy ?
(A) O2 (B) Ar (C) Be (D) Ce
161. Which colour is produced when electric current is passed in Neon gas at low pressure ?
(A) Orange-red (B) Blue (C) Green (D) White
162. Correct order of vapour enthalpy of noble gases.
(A) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe > Rn (B) He < Ne < Ar < Kr < Xe < Rn
(C) Xe < Kr < Ne < He < Rn < Ar (D) He < Ne = Ar < Kr < Xe < Rn
408
CP
163. What is the ratio of for inert gases ?
CV
(A) 1.67 (B) 1.33 (C) 1.42 (D) 1.84

164. Which of the following is not possible ?
(A) [KrF]+ [S6F6]- (B) [KrF3-] [SbF4]+ (C) [KrF+] [MoOF5]- (D) [KrF]+ [WOF5]-
Answers : 154. (B), 155. (B), 156. (A), 157. (B), 158. (A), 159. (A), 160. (B), 161. (A),
162. (D), 163. (A), 164. (B)
They do not accept electron due to stable electronic configuration of these elements. These
elements show more positive electron gain enthalpy.
He, Ne and Ar do not give chemical reactions, so their compounds are not known.
Kr and Xe react only with flourine.
Xe prepare three different fluoride like XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6.
These crystalline solid substances sublime at 25° C temperature. It is strong fluorinating agent.
Its hydrolysis occurs in very less proportion of water.
D
2F2(g) 
600 C →
Xe (Excess) + 400D C → XeF
F4(g)  4(s)
Xe (1Ñ5 proportion) + 7 bar XeF4(s)
pressure
D
Xe (1Ñ20 proportion) + 3F2(g) 
300 C →
7 bar XeF6(s) XeF4(s) + O2F2 
143 K → XeF
6(s)
+ O
2(g)
pressure
2XeF2(s) + 2H2O(l) ® 2Xe(g) + 4HF(aq) + O2(g)
Electronic configuration of its valence shell, very high ionization enthalpy and extraordinary electron
affinity are responsible for less reactivity of inert gases.
Order of oxidizing agent : XeF2 < XeF4 < XeF6
Xenon fluoride gives positive ion with fluoride ion accepter and gives negative ion with fluoride ion
donor.
Reaction with flourine ion accepter :
XeF2 + PF5 ¾® [XeF]+ [PF6]- XeF4 + SbF5 ¾® [XeF3]+3 [SbF6]-
Reaction with flourine ion donor :
XeF6 + MF ¾® M+ [XeF7]-
409
Structure of some compounds :
F F
F
. | Hybridisation : sp3d, ..
. Xe : Xe Hybridisation : sp3d2,
.. Shape : Linear ..
|
F Shape : Square planar
F F
(Structure of XeF2) (Structure of XeF4)
..
F Xe
F F
Hybridisation : sp3,
F
Hybridisation : sp3d3, O O O Shape : Triangular Pyramidal
Shape : Distroted octahedral
Xe
.. (Structure of XeO3)
F F
(Structure of XeF6)
F
O |
..
|| O ==Xe.. Hybridisation : sp3d,
Xe Hybridisation : sp3, | Shape : T-shape
|| Shape : Tetrahedral F
O O O (Structure of XeOF2)
(Structure of XeO4)
F
O
O
Hybridisation : sp3d,
F F Xe:
Hybridisation : sp3d, Shape : Distored trigonal bipyramid
Xe
.. Shape : Square pyramidal O F
F F (Structure of XeO2F2)
(Structure of XeOF4)
F O Hybridisation : sp3d2,
O F F
Xe O Hybridisation : sp3d, Xe Shape : Octahedral
O Shape : Trigonal
F F
F bipyramide O
(Structure of XeO3F2) (Structure of XeO2F4)
165. Select correct option for the statements are either true (T) or False (F).
(A) Xenon possess +2, +4, +6 or +8 oxidation state in their compounds.
(B) Oxyflouride compounds like XeOF4 and XeO2F2 are obtained by partial hydrolysis of XeF6.
(C) XeO3 is obtained by hydrolysis of XeF4.
(D) XeO3 is colourless explosive white substance. It possess trigonal pyramidal structure.
410
(E) XeOF4 is colourless explosive white substance. It possess trigonal pyramidal structure.
(F) To get XeF4 between reaction mixture of Xe and F2 temperature is 573 K and pressure 60 - 70
bar should be maintained.
(A) TFTTFF (B) FTTTFF (C) TFTFTF (D) TFFTTF
166. What is obtained when proportion of Xe and F2 is 1 : 5 at 873 K temperature and 7 bar pressure ?
(A) XeF4 (B) XeF6 (C) XeF2 (D) All above

167. Which compound of Xe reacts with O2F2 at 143 K temperature ?
(A) XeF6 (B) XeF4 (C) XeF2 (D) XeF
168. What is the shape of XeF4 molecule and hybridisation of Xe ?
(A) square, dsp2 (B) tetrahedral, sp2 (C) square, sp3d2 (D) octahedral, d2sp3
169. How is the structure of XeOF4 ?

(A) Triagonal pyramidal (B) Square pyramidal (C) Distrorted octahedral (D) Linear
170. Which is improper in oxyfluoride componds of Xe ?
(A) XeOF4 (B) XeO3F (C) XeOF2 (D) Both B and C
171. Number of non-bonding e-pair on Xe in XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 respectively ...........
(A) 2, 3, 1 (B) 1, 2, 3 (C) 4, 1, 2 (D) 3, 2, 1
172. Shape of XeF4 is .......... .
(A) planar square (B) tetrahedral (C) planar triangular (D) pyramidal
173. Partial hydrolysis of XeF4 at low temperature gives .......... product.
(A) XeF3 (B) XeOF2 (C) XeOF4 (D) XeF2

174. Which compound of xenon and its reaction is not possible ?
(A) XeO3 + 6HF ¾® XeF6 + 3H2O
(B) 3XeO3 + 6H2O ¾® 2Xe + XeO3 + 12HF + 1.5 O2
(C) 2XeF6 + RbF ¾® Rb [XeF7]

(D) None
175. In which of the following molecule of Xe, non-bonding e pairs are equal ?
(i) XeO3 (ii) XeOF4 (iii) XeF6
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii), (iii)
176. XeOF4 react with SF4 to give product is ..........
(A) XeOF4 and SO2 (B) Xe and SF6 (C) XeF2 and SF6 (D) SF6 and XeO3
177. Shape of XeO2F2 is .......... .

(A) Trigonal pyramidal (B) planar square (C) Tetrahedral (D) see-saw
411
178. Correct order of Xe-F bond length in XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 compounds.
(A) XeF2 > XeF4 > XeF6 (B) XeF4 > XeF6 > XeF2
(C) XeF6 > XeF4 > XeF2 (D) XeF2 > XeF6 > XeF4
179. Match the correct pair of column I and column II
column-I column-II
(A) XeF4 (p) distorted octahedral (A) (A)-(r), (B)-(p), (C)-(s), (D)-(q)
(B) XeF6 (q) tetrahedral (B) (A)-(s), (B)-(q), (C)-(p), (D)-(r)
(C) XeO3 (r) planar square (C) (A)-(p), (B)-(r), (C)-(q), (D)-(s)
(D) XeO4 (s) trigonal pyramid (D) (A)-(q), (B)-(s), (C)-(r), (D)-(p)
180. Match the correct pair of column I and column II
column-I column-II
(A) XeF2 (p) Gas at room temperature (A) (A)-(q), (s) (B)-(p), (C)-(q), (r) (D)-(q), (r)
(B) XeO4 (q) Solid at room temperature (B) (A)-(p), (s) (B)-(q), (C)-(p), (s) (D)-(q), (s)
(C) XeO3 (r) Lone pair = 1 (C) (A)-(s) (B)-(r), (C)-(p) (D)-(q)
(D) XeF6 (s) Lone pair = 3 (D) (A)-(s) (B)-(q), (C)-(p) (D)-(r)
Answers : 165. (A), 166. (A), 167. (B), 168. (C), 169. (B), 170. (D), 171. (D), 172. (A),
173. (B), 174. (A) 175. (D), 176. (B), 177. (D), 178. (A), 179. (A), 180. (A).
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16 d- and f-block elements
In periodic table, ten groups, group number 3 to 12 are called d-block elements.
The position of these elements are between s-block and p-block elements.
The properties of d-block elements show transition between the properties of representative
elements of periodic table i.e. most electropositive s-block elements and least electroposititve
p-block elements.
Hence they are known as Transition elements.
The two horizontal rows at the bottom of the periodic table are called f-block elements.
The (Z = 90) has electronic structure [Rn] 5f o 6d2 7s2
In Th the last electron is not filled in f-orbital although the experimental results support the
element as f-block element.
Thus it is included in f-block elements.
f block elements being part of the transition series of transition elements of periods 6 and 7
are called Innertransition elements.
1. What are called the elements of group 3 to 12 in modern periodic table ?
(A) s-block elements (B) p-block elements (C) d-block elements (D) f-block elements
2. Which properties of d-block elements show transition between the properties of representative
elements of periodic table ?
(A) more electropositive and less electropositive
(B) more electropositive and more electronegative
(C) less electropositive and more electronegative
(D) less electropositive and less electronegative
3. Which elements are included in less electropositive p-block elements in periodic table ?
(A) Metal elements (B) Non-metal elements (C) Semi metals (D) All mentioned
4. Which block elements are known as transition elements in modern periodic table ?
(A) s (B) p (C) d (D) f
5. What is the electronic configuration of Th ?
(A) [Rn] 5f 27s2 (B) [Rn] 5f 16d 17s2 (C) [Rn] 5f 26d 17s1 (D) [Rn] 5f o6d27s2
6. Due to which reason Th is included in f-block elements ?
(A) based on physical properties (B) based on chemical properties
(C) based on experimental results (D) based on electronic configuration
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (A), 3. (B), 4. (C), 5. (D), 6. (C)
Transition Elements d-block elements :

The elements which in their ground state or any one of its oxidation state, have incompletely filled
d-orbitals with electrons are called transition elements.
If 3d orbital is incompletely filled with electrons known as first transition series, same as 4d and
5d orbital is incompletely filled with electrons known as second and third transition series.
Actinium (Z = 89) and Rutherfordium (Z = 104) and onwards elements are included in fourth
transition series.
The general electronic configuration of transition elements is (n1)d110 ns12.
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Electronic configuration of Cr (Z = 24) is [Ar]3d54s1 instead of [Ar]3d44s2.
Electronic configuration of Cu (Z = 29) is [Ar]3d 104s1 instead of [Ar]3d94s2.
When ions are formed from first transition series elements, the electron entering last in 3d-orbital
is not removed first, but both the electrons of 4s orbital are removed first and then remaining
electrons removed from 3d-orbital because the electrons in outermost orbital have relatively less
attraction towards the nucleus in comparison to the inner 3d orbital.
Cu is considered as transition elements but Zn is not considered as transition element in first
transition series.
Cd is not considered as transition element in second series.
Hg is not considered as transition element in third series.
7. When d-block elements are considered as transition elements ?
(A) d-orbital is incompletely filled with electrons in ground state.
(B) d-orbital is completely filled with electrons in any oxidation state.
(C) d-orbital is incompeletly filled with electrons in any oxidation state.
(D) Both A and C
8. What is the general electronic configuration of transition elements ?
(A) (n1)d110ns2 (B) (n1)d110ns12 (C) (n1)d19ns12 (D) (n1)d110ns1
9. When ions are formed from first transition series, the electron first remove from 4s-orbital
because...
(A) the electrons in 4s-orbital have relatively less attraction towards the nucleus compared to the
electrons in 3d-orbital.
(B) the electrons in 4s orbital have relatively more attraction towards the nucleus compared to
the electrons in 3d-orbital.
(C) principal quantum number is less in 4s-orbital.
(D) principal quantum number is more in 3d-orbital.
10. Cu is considered as transition element because,
(A) 3d-orbital is completely filled in ground state of Cu.
(B) 3d-orbital is incompletely filled in ground state of Cu.
(C) 3d-orbital is completely filled in any oxidation state of Cu.
(D) 3d-orbital is incompletely filled in any oxidation state of Cu.
11. Two statements are given. Among them one is statement A and other is reason (R).
Select correct option by reading instructions carefully.
Statement (A) : When ions are formed from first transition series, both electrons from 4s-orbital
are removed first.
Reason (R) : The electrons in 4s-orbital have relatively more attraction towards the nucleus
compared to the electrons in 3d-orbital.
(A) statement (A) and Reason (R) are true, Reason (R) is correct explanation of statement (A).
(B) statement (A) and Reason (R) are true. Reason (R) is not correct explanation of statement (A).
(C) statement (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
(D) statement (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
12. Which of the following element is not considered as element of second transition series ?
(A) Cd (B) Pd (C) Ag (D) Y
13. Which of the following element is not considered as elements of third transition series ?
(A) Au (B) Hg (C) La (D) Hf
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14. Which of the following statement is not suitable for general characteristics of transition
elements ?
(A) They possess variable valencies.
(B) They form alloy by mixing with each other.
(C) They have low melting points.
(D) Most of the elements dissolve in acid.
15. Which of the following pair of transition ions show 3d2 electronic configuration ?
(Atomic number of : Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25)
(A) Ti3+, V2+, Cr3+, Mn4+ (B) Ti+, V4+, Cr6+, Mn7+
(C) Ti4+, V3+, Cr3+, Mn3+ (D) Ti2+, V3+, Cr4+, Mn5+
16. Which of the following statement is incorrect according to transition element ?
(A) After d5 electronic configuration is completed tendency of participating in bonding decreases
for 3d-orbitals electrons.
(B) In common oxidation state as well as in some complexes the elements in this series show
zero oxidation state.
(C) Transition element show basic character at maximum oxidation state and form positively
charged complex.
(D) All the electrons of 4s and 3d orbital participate in bonding in maximum oxidation state of
first five transition elements. (Sc to Mn)
17. Which of the following electronic configuration show maximum number of oxidation state ?
(A) 3d54s2 (B) 3d24s2 (C) 3d34s2 (D) 3d54s1
18. Which of the following statement is correct for transition elements ?
(A) They are very reactive.
(B) They show variable valencies.
(C) They have low melting points.
(D) They are strongly electropositive elements.
19. Which of the following series contain an element having 56 atomic number ?
(A) Lanthanides (B) Actinides
(C) Alkaline Earth Elements (D) None of these
20. Which of the following electronic configuration of atom get highest oxidation state ?
(A) (n-1)d5ns2 (B) (n-1)d 84s2 (C) (n-1)d5ns1 (D) (n-1)d3ns2
21. What is the atomic number of element having electronic configuration [Ar]3d 8 like M2+ ion ?
(A) 26 (B) 27 (C) 28 (D) 25
Answers : 7. (D), 8. (B), 9. (A), 10. (D), 11. (D), 12. (A), 13. (B), 14. (C), 15. (D), 16.
(C), 17. (A), 18. (B), 19. (C), 20. (A), 21. (C).
Periodic trends in properties of elements of first transition series :
All the elements of first transition series possess metallic property.
As we move from left to right in period atomic radii and ionic radii decreases.
Atomic radius decreases from Sc to V, while from Cr to Cu it is almost similar.
Atomic radius of Zn is found to be increasing.
As the nuclear charge increases, the value of ionization enthalpy increases, but is not equal to
increase in enthalpy in the elements of the main group.
There is difference in the first ionization enthalpies of two neighbouring transition elements.
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The values of second ionization enthalpy of Cr and Cu are more than those of their
neighbouring elements.
Thermodynamic stability of transition metal depends on the magnitude of their ionization enthalpy.
The value of electrode potential is determined on the basis of the sum of the enthalpy changes
(DHT) of different reactions.
The stabilities of different oxidation states of transition metal ions are determined on the basis of
the electrode potentials.
22. Select correct order of atomic radius.
(A) V > Mn > Cu > Zn (B) V > Mn = Cu > Zn
(C) V < Mn < Cu < Zn (D) V > Mn = Cu < Zn
23. Atomic radius of Cr to Cu is almost similar. Which of the following statement is not suitable
with this statement.
(A) positive electric charge of nucleus increases from Cr to Cu.
(B) Shielding effect increases for attraction of electron present in 4s-orbital.
(C) Electrons present in 4s-orbital are attracted more towards the nucleus.
(D) The value of e- e- repulsion in 3d-orbital.
24. Instead of decrease the atomic radius of Zn is found to be increased. Which of the following
statement is incorrect for this statement ?
(A) Shielding effect decreases the repulsion of positive charge of nucleus towards electrons of
4s-orbital.
(B) Repulsion between electron - electron in 3d-orbital increases more than the value of
attraction of electrons of 4s-orbital and nucleus.
(C) Expansion of orbit in Zn.
(D) 3d-orbital of Zn is completely filled.
25. Which two elements have the value of second ionization enthalpy more than those of their
neighbouring elements?
(A) Cu, Zn (B) Cu, Cr (C) Cr, Mn (D) Mn, Zn
26. Two statements are given. Among these one is statement (A) and other is Reason (R)
Select correct option by reading instructions carefully.
Statement (A) : The value of second ionization enthalpy of Cr is more than their neighbouring
elements.
Reason (R) : Cr attain stable electronic configuration [Ar]3d5 after loss of one e- . To
remove second electron from Cr, so much energy is required.
(A) Statement (A) and Reason (R) are true. Reason (R) is correct explanation of statement (A).
(B) Statement (A) and Reason (R) are true. Reason (R) is not correct explanation of statement (A).
(C) Statement (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
(D) Statement (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
27. On what does the themodynamic stability of transition metal elements depend ?
(A) Atomic radius
(B) Magnitude of ionization enthalpy.
(C) Repulsion force between electron-electron
(D) Metallic property
28. In which of the following medium stability of transition metal ions is more ?
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(A) Acidic medium (B) Basic medium (C) Aqueous medium (D) in free form
29. Which of the following will determine the stabilities of different oxidation state of transition metal
ion ?
(A) Ionization enthalpy (B) Ionic radius
(C) Metallic property (D) Electrode potential
30. Under what condition the stability of transition metal ions be more in aqueous medium ?
(A) more positive value of reduction potential.
(B) more negative value of reduction potential
(C) more negative value of oxidation potential.
(D) less positive value of oxidation potential.
31. Increasing order of ionic radii of Ce3+, La3+, Pm3+, Yb3+ ions is ......
(A) La3+ < Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+ (B) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < Ce3+ < La3+
(C) La3+ = Ce3+ < Pm3+ < Yb3+ (D) Yb3+ < Pm3+ < La3+ < Ce3+
32. Which of the following has the highest second ionization enthalpy ? (Atomic number of V, Cr, Mn
and Fe are 23, 24, 25 and 26 respectively)
(A) V (B) Cr (C) Mn (D) Fe
33. Radius of 57
La3+ is 1.06 Å. Which of the following value is nearer value of radius of 71
Lu3+ ?
(A) 1.40 Å (B) 1.06 Å (C) 0.85 Å (D) 1.60 Å
34. What is the correct order of ionic radii of Y3+, La3+, Eu3+ and Lu3+?
(A) Y3+ < La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+ (B) Y3+ < Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+
(C) Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+ < Y3+ (D) La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+ < Y3+
Answers : 22. (D), 23. (C), 24. (A), 25. (B), 26. (A), 27. (B), 28. (D), 29. (D), 30. (B),
31. (D), 32. (B), 33. (C), 34. (C)
Characteristic properties of Elements of first transition series :
Most of ionic and covalent compounds of transition elements are coloured due to presence of
incompletely filled 3d-orbitals.
When visible light falls on transition metal ions, they absorb light of definite wavelenth and emit
the remaining light.
During absorption of light the electrons in d-orbital of ions receive energy and go to the
dorbital having higher energy. This transition is called d-d transition.
The energy of all five d-orbitals is equal but according to crystal field theory, the d-orbitals split
into different energy levels in transition compounds having tetrahedral and octahedral geometry.
Transition metals and their certain compounds increase the rate of reaction.
Hence they are useful catalysts.
These substances used as catalyst are in solid state.
The random and pointed peak points on the surface at the ends of the edges of their particles
are responsible centres for catalytic work.
The molecule, atom or ion of a substance, in which there are unpaired electrons, possess para
magnetism. So they are called paramagnetic substances.
While molecule, atom or ion in which all the electrons are paired, possess diamagnetism. Hence
they are called diamagnetic substances.
Because of paramagnetism, paramagnetic substance produces magnetic moment.
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Magnetic moment is produced due to rotation of unpaired electron on its axis and orbital
rotation.
The value of magnetic moment based on only rotation on axis can be determined by the
formula, Q Q BM, where, n = no. of unpaired electrons.
Due to axial rotation the magnetic moment values obtained experimentally are slightly more or
less than the theoretical values.
The size of transition metal ions is small.
The nuclear electric charge and lonic electric charge of transition metal ions is comparatively
more.
The electronic configuration of transition metal ion is favourable for formation of complexes.
As very less difference between energy values of 3d, 4s, 4p or 4d orbitals, hybridisation of
different types can be possible.
Transition metal ions exhibit various oxidation states. Thus varieties of complex compounds can
be formed.
35. Most of the ionic and covalent compounds of transition elements are coloured because...
(A) d-orbitals are completely filled (B) d-orbitals are incompletely filled.
(C) d-d transition is observed (D) both (B) and (C)
36. What is the colour of aqueous solution of [Ni (H2O)6]2+ ?
(A) green (B) yellow (C) orange (D) colourless
37. What colour is emitted, when visible light passes through aqueous solution of
[Co (NH3)6]3+ ?
(A) Red (B) Green (C) yellow (D) Red and green
38. Which of the following ions have violet colour ?
(A) V4+, Cr3+ (B) V3+, Mn3+ (C) V2+, Cr3+ (D) Mn3+, Ti3+
39. What is the colour of V3+ ion ?
(A) Green (B) Purple (C) Violet (D) Colourless
40. What is the colour of MnCl2 . 4H2O solution ?
(A) violet (B) pink (C) purple (D) colourless
41. Transition metals and their certain compounds are used as catalyst. Which of the following
statement is not appropriate for this statement ?
(A) The substances used as catalyst are in solid and liquid state.
(B) The random and pointed peak points on the surface at the ends of the edges of their
particles are responsible centres for catalytic work.
(C) The required activation energy of the reaction decreases.
(D) Rate of chemical reaction increases.
42. Which catalyst is used in obtaining SO3 from SO2 in contact process for manufacturing of H2SO4 ?
(A) ZnO Cr2O3 (B) NO (C) V2O5 (D) Au
3+
43. What is the magnetic moment of Co (aq)
?
(A) 3.87 BM (B) 4.90 BM (C) 2.83 BM (D) 5.92 BM
44. Which of the following metal ion has zero magnetic moment ?
(A) Cu2+ (B) Sc2+ (C) Ti4+ (D) V4+
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45. Which of the following compound of transition metal ion has 3.87 BM magnetic moment ?
(A) FeSO4 (B) CrCl3 (C) NiCl2 (D) CuSO4
46. Transition metal ions form complex compounds. This statement is not appropriate for which of
the following statement ?
(A) Nuclear electrical charge and ionic electrical charge are comparatively more in transition
metal ions.
(B) Very less difference between the energy values of 3d, 4s, 4p or 4d orbitals.
(C) Transition metal ions exhibit only one oxidation state.
(D) Electronic configurations of transition metal ions is favourable for formation of complexes.
47. What is the correct order of energy during splitting of d-orbitals in octahedral complex
compounds ?
(A) dx2-y2 = dz2 < dxy = dyz = dxz (B) dx2-y2 = dz2 > dxy = dyz = dzx
(C) dx2-y2 = dxy > dz2 = dyz = dzx (D) dx2-y2 = dxy < dz2 = dyz = dzx
48. Why is their deviation in the values of practical and theoretical magnetic moment ?
(A) transition metal ions have variable valencies.
(B) method of calculating magnetic moment is different.
(C) rotation orbital combination
(D) decrease in size of metal ion
49. Give correct order of theoretical magnetic moment.
(A) [MnCl4]2 > [CoCl4]2 > [Fe(CN)6]4
(B) [MnCl4]2 > [Fe(CN)6]4 > [CoCl4]2
(C) [Fe(CN)6]4 > [MnCl4]2 > [CoCl4]2
(D) [Fe(CN)6]4 > [CoCl4]2 > [MnCl4]2
50. Which of the following pairs are coloured in its aqueous solution ?
(Atomic number : Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Co = 27, Ni = 28 Cu = 29)
(A) Ni2+, Cu+ (B) Ni2+, Ti3+ (C) Sc3+, Ti3+ (D) Sc3+, Co3+
51. Which of the following ion is most stable in its aqueous solution ?
(A) 23
V3+ (B) Ti3+
22
(C) 25
Mn3+ (D)24
Cr3+
52. Which of the following pair is colourless among TiF62, CoF63, Cu2Cl2 and NiCl42 ?
(A) TiF62 and Cu2Cl2 (B) CoF63 and NiCl42
(C) TiF62 and CoF63 (D) Cu2Cl2 and NiCl42
53. Which of the following compound is coloured ?
(A) TiCl3 (B) FeCl3 (C) CoCl2 (D) All of the given
54. In which of the following ion d-d transition cant be possible ?
(A) Ti4+ (B) Cr3+ (C) Mn2+ (D) Cu2+
55. What is the magnetic moment of central metal ion in K2MnO4 ?
(A) 0.0 BM (B) 1.73 BM (C) 2.83 BM (D) 3.87 BM
Answers : 35. (B), 36. (C), 37. (A), 38. (B), 39. (C), 40. (D), 41. (C), 42. (B), 43. (D),
44. (D), 45. (B), 46. (C), 47. (B), 48. (C), 49. (B), 50. (B), 51. (D), 52. (A),
53. (D), 54. (A), 55. (B)
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Interstitial compounds
The atoms in solid state of transition metals are arranged in definite crystal structure. There are
definite voids between atoms in such an arrangement. Hence non-metallic atoms of smaller size
viz. H, C, N and B can be easily arranged in the voids of crystal structure. The compounds
formed in such a way are called interstitial compounds.
The proportion of components in such compounds, is not definite, so they are called
non-stoichiometric or non-proportionate compounds.
The properties of metals like hardness, melting point, resistance to wear, resistance to corrosion
etc. are notably increased.
Interstitial compounds are used in preparation of tools, machinery parts, vehicles etc.
56. Under what circumstances interstitial componds are formed ?

(A) The atoms in solid state of transition metals are arranged in definite crystal structure.
(B) There are definite voids between atoms in crystal structure.
(C) H, C, N and B can be easily arranged in the voids of crystal structure.
(D) All of the above.
57. Interstitial compounds are non-stoichiometric because...
(A) small size of non-metal atoms present in the void.
(B) chemical bond is not formed between non-metal elements of smaller size arranged in the
voids and metal atom.
(C) the proportion of components is not definite.
(D) all of the above
58. Which of the following statement is not proper for interstitial compounds ?
(A) Interstitial compounds are non-stoichiometric.
(B) Proportion of components of interstitial compounds is not definite.
(C) No change in characteristics properties of metals is observed.
(D) No definite molecular formula.
Answers : 56. (D), 57. (D), 58. (C)
Alloys :
The characteristic properties like hardness, conductance, malleability, resistance to corrosion are essential
for machineries, tools, vehicles and vessels of house-hold usages. There is no pure metal having
combination of all properties. Hence instead of using pure metals in practice, alloys prepared from two
or more metal-elements are used frequently.
Scientists Hume and Rothery presented rules as follows to obtain alloys of combination of useful
properties.
The atomic size of two metals forming the alloy must be same. There must not be more than 15 %
diference in their atomic radii.
The chemical properties of the metals used for preparation of alloys must be same.
Their electronic configurations of valence shell must be the same.
The crystal structures of pure metallic elements used for alloys must be similar.
420
e.g. 22 carat gold ornaments is the best example of alloy, which contain Au and Cu. The difference
between atomic size of Au and Cu is about 14.5 %
The difference in atomic sizes between Cr, Mn, Fe, Co, Ni, Cu metals is less than 2%. There is much
less difference in the electronic configuration of valence shell of these elements These elements form
number of alloys having different proportions which are very useful in practice.
e.g., Stainless steel, Brass, Bronze, Nitinol, Cupronickel, German silver, Nichrome.
Amalgam with mercury-alloy is well known.
59. Which of the following rule of Hume and Rothery follow to obtain alloys of combination of useful
properties ?
(A) There must not be more than 15 % difference in their atomic radii.
(B) The electronic configurations of valence shell must be the same.
(C) Crystal structure of alloys must be similar.
60. Which scientists presented the rules to obtain alloy of combination of useful properties.
(A) Faraday and Werner (B) Hume and Rothery
(C) Waag and Gould-berg (D) Le-chatelier and Arrhenius
61. Which of the following properties are suitable for alloys used in practice ?
(A) Atomic size must be same.
(B) Chemical properties of the metal must be same.
(C) Crystal structure must be similar.
62. Which of the following rule is not Hume and Rothery rule for alloys ?
(A) Chemical properties must be same.
(B) There must be more than 15% difference in their atomic radii.
(C) Electronic configuration of valence shell must be same.
(D) Crystal structure must be similar.
63. What is the difference of atomic size between Au and Cu in 22 carat gold ornaments ?
(A) 14.5 % (B) 15 % (C) 15.5 % (D) 14 %
64. What is the atomic size of Au and Cu used in 22 carat gold ornaments ?
(A) Au = 134 pm Cu = 119 pm (B) Au = 135 pm Cu = 117 pm
(C) Au = 134 pm Cu = 117 pm (D) Au = 117 pm Cu = 134 pm
65. Which of the following is the best alloy according to Hume and Rothery rule ?
(A) Stainless steel (B) Nitinol
(C) German silver (D) 22 carat gold
66. Which of the following metals have 2 % difference in their atomic sizes ?
(A) Cr, Mn, Fe, Co, Ni, Cu (B) Ti, V, Fe, Cr, Mn, Cu
(C) V, Cr, Ni, Cu, Zn, Fe (D) Cr, Mn, Fe, Cu, Zn, Sc
67. What is the proportion of components in stainless steel alloy ?
(A) Fe (80 %) Cr (15 %) Ni (5 %) (B) Fe (80 %) Cr (10 %) Ni (10 %)
(C) Fe (70 %) Cr (20 %) Ni (10 %) (D) Fe (70 %) Cr (15 %) Ni (15 %)
68. Which of the following alloy does not contain copper ?
(A) Nichrome (B) Bronze (C) German silver (D) Brass
421
69. Which of the following is the application of bronze alloy ?
(A) Musical instruments (B) Preparation of currency coins
(C) Preparation of statues (D) Preparation of part of machine
70. Which alloy has marvellous property of memory ?
(A) Cupronickel (B) Nitinol (C) Nichrome (D) Brass
71. Which alloy has more electrical resistance ?
(A) Nichrome, Cupronickel (B) Brass, Nitinol
(C) Nichrome, Bronze (D) Cupronickel, German silver
72. Which components and proportion of alloy possess strong corrosion resistant property ?
(A) Cu (75-85 %) Ni (15-25 %) (B) Cu (50-55 %) Ni (45-50 %)
(C) Cu (90 %) Sn (10 %) (D) Cu (70 %) Sn (30 %)
73. Which components and proportions are present in amalgum with mercury alloy ?
(A) Hg (50 %) Ag (30 %) Sn (15 %) Cu (3 %) Zn (2 %)
(B) Hg (50 %) Ag (30 %) Sn (12 %) Cu (5 %) Zn (3 %)
(C) Hg (50 %) Ag (35 %) Sn (12 %) Cu (3 %) Zn (0.2 %)
(D) Hg (50 %) Ag (35 %) Sn (10 %) Cu (3 %) Zn (0.2 %)
74. Where is amalgum alloy used ?
(A) To prepare statue (B) Filling tooth cavity
(C) In space reserach (D) Surgical instruments
75. Which statement is not proper for amalgum alloy used in filling tooth cavity ?
(A) Alloy is hard.
(B) All the metals are mixed some time before filling.
(C) Do not expand in tooth cavity.
(D) Alloy is soft that can fill in the cavity of tooth.
76. Components in german silver alloy...
(A) Fe, Cr, Ni (B) Ag, Cu, Au (C) Cu, Zn, Ni (D) Cu, Zn, Sn
77. What is the percentage proportion of silver in german silver ?
(A) 0 % (B) 1 %
(C) 5 % (D) None
Answers : 59. (D), 60. (B), 61. (D), 62. (B), 63. (A), 64. (C), 65. (D), 66. (A), 67. (C),
68. (A), 69. (B), 70. (B), 71. (A), 72. (A), 73. (C), 74. (B), 75. (A), 76. (C),
77. (A),
Some important compounds of 3d-transition elements :

(1) Potassium dichromate (K2Cr2O7)
(2) Potassium permanganate (KMnO4)
K2Cr2O7 is orange coloured crystalline substance.
KMnO4 is dark purple crystalline substance.
Both are soluble in water.
K2Cr2O7 is strong oxidizing agent in acidic medium.
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KMnO4 is oxidizing agent in acidic, basic and neutral medium.
Both are used in laboratory and synthesis in organic compounds.
K2 Cr2O7 is mainly useful in leather industry and formation of azo compounds.
K2 Cr2O7 is used as antiseptic and titrant in redox titrations to determine the amount of metal
ions like iron II.
KMnO4 is used as bleaching agent for cotton cloth, silk, wood and in textile industries, as
antiseptic.
KMnO4 is useful as titrant in redox titrations to know the amount of metal ions like iron (II) and
organic compounds like oxalic acid.
dblock elements are useful as alloys, as catalyst, as electrode and as titrant.
78. FeCr2O4 + Na2CO3 + O2 → x + y + z

what are x, y and z product ?
(A) x = Na2 Cr2 O7 y = FeO z = CO2 (B) x = Na2 Cr O4 y = Fe2O3 z = CO
(C) x = Na2 Cr O4 y = Fe2O3 z = CO2 (D) x = Na2 Cr2 O7 y = Fe3O4 z = CO
79. FeCr2O4 + Na2CO3 + O2 → Na2CrO4 + Fe2O3 + CO2
what is the proportion of reactant and product in above reaction ?
(A) 4 : 8 : 7, 8 : 2 : 8 (B) 8 : 2 : 8, 4 : 8 : 7 (C) 4 : 6 : 4, 8 : 2 : 6 (D) 8 : 2 : 6, 8 : 6 : 4
80. x + H+ → y + Na+ + H2O
y + KCl → K2Cr2O7 + NaCl
What are x and y ?
(A) x = H2CrO4 y = Na2CrO4 (B) x = Na2Cr2O7 y = H2CrO4
(C) x = Na2Cr2O7 y = Na2CrO4 (D) x = Na2CrO4 y = Na2Cr2O7
81. Which colour is obtained when base is added to aqueous solution of K2Cr2O7 ?
(A) orange (B) yellow (C) pink (D) colourless
82. Which substance is added to aqueous solution of K2Cr2O7 to give orange colour ?
(A) H2SO4 (B) KOH (C) Na2CO3 (D) NaOH
83. Which of the followng is not use of K2Cr2O7 ?
(A) In leather industry (B) Reagent in COD measurement
(C) To know the proportion of oxalic acid (D) Cleaning of glasswares in laboratory
84. Which of the following is added in presence of air to form dark green coloured K2MnO4 by
fusion of MnO2 ?
(A) Sodium carbonate (B) Potassium nitrite
(C) Potassium hydroxide (D) Both (B) and (C)
85. Which coloured substance is formed by fusion of MnO2 with KOH in presence of air ?
(A) Dark green coloured K2MnO4 (B) Purple coloured K2MnO4
(C) Yellow coloured K2CrO4 (D) Orange coloured K2Cr2O7
86. In presence of which orxidizing agent fusion of manganese dioxide occurs ?
(A) Na2CO3 (B) KNO 3 (C) KOH (D) NaOH
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87. MnO2 + x + O2 → y + H2O
y + z → KMnO4 + K2SO4 + MnO2+ H2O
What are x, y and z respectively ?
(A) x = H2SO4 y = K2MnO2 z = KOH
(B) x = H2SO4 y = K2MnO4 z = KOH
(C) x = KOH y = K2MnO2 z = H2SO4
(D) x = KOH y = K2MnO4 z = H2SO4
88. K2MnO4 + H2SO4→ KMnO4 + K2SO4 + MnO2+ H2O
Give proportion of mole of reactants and products.
(A) 3 : 2, 2 : 2 : 1 : 2 (B) 2 : 3, 2 : 2 : 1 : 1
(C) 3 : 2, 3 : 2 : 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 3, 3 : 1 : 2 : 1
89. Which of the following is not use of KMnO4 ?
(A) As antiseptic (B) As bleaching
(C) Preparation of azo compounds (D) In redox titrations
90. Which substance is used to know the amount of oxalic acid ?
(A) Potassium chromate (B) Potassium permanganate
(C) Potassium dichromate (D) Potassium Manganate
91. What is the use of mercury ?
(A) In thermometer (B) Filling in tooth cavity
(C) Prepare electrode (D) In preparation of house hold vessels
92. What is the use of MnO2 ?
(A) As oxidant (B) In dry cell
(C) As bleaching (D) As antiseptic
93. Which method is used to prevent water pipes and the roof on the house from corrosion ?
(A) To paint
(B) Connect with metal having more reduction potential
(C) Changed into galvanized form with the help of zinc metal
(D) Attach waterproof layer.
94. Give oxidation state of Cr in K2Cr2O7.
(A) +2 (B) +4 (C) +6 (D) +7
95. Give use of potassium dichromate.
(A) As oxidant to change ferric ion from ferrous ion in acidic medium.
(B) As antiseptic
(C) As reductant
(D) In electroplating
Answers : 78. (C), 79. (A), 80. (D), 81. (B), 82. (A), 83. (C), 84. (C), 85. (A), 86. (B),
87. (D), 88. (A), 89. (C), 90. (B), 91. (A), 92. (B), 93. (C), 94. (C), 95. (A)
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Inner transition elements : f-block elements
The f-block elements are distributed into two series :
(1) lanthanide series (2) actinide series
The series of fourteen elements immediately after lanthanum, Ce (Z = 58) to Lu (Z = 71) is
called lanthanide series.
The elements of this series are known as lanthanoids. Its symbol is Ln. Lanthanum has more
similarity with lanthoids.
The series of fourteen elements immediately after actinum, Th (Z = 90) to Lr (Z = 103) is
called actinide series.
The elements of this series are known as actinoids.
As actinum possess more similarity with actinoids.
General electronic structure of outermost electrons of f-block is (n 2)f014 (n 1)d01 ns2
Lanthanide series
In the elecronic configuration of elements of lanthanide series, 6s2 is common in all the elements
but the electrons in 4f-orbital keep changing.
All the lanthanoids and lanthanum element possess stable oxidation state +3.
Electrons are filled in 5d orbital in electronic configuration of Ce, Gd and Lu
In Gd, because of half filled orbital like 4f7 stability may be obtained while in Lu, 4f14.
Orbital is completely filled. The filling of electron of Ce in 5d orbital is accepted at present as
an exception.
General electronic configuration of lanthanoids is [Xe]4f114 5d01 6s2.
Promethium (Pm) is a radioactive element.
As we move from Ce to Lu, the atomic radii and ionic radii go on decreasing, which is called
lanthanide contraction.
Lanthanoids possess Ln(OH)3 type hydroxides.
These hydroxides are less badic than Ca(OH)2 but more basic than Al(OH)3.
The size of ions decreases on going from Ce3+ to Lu3+, hence their basicity decreases, that is
Ce(OH)3 is the most basic and Lu(OH)3 is the least basic.
These elements possess similarity in physical and chemical properties, so their seperation is
carried out based on the difference in their basicity.
Some ions of these elements are paramagnetic and are coloured.
96. Which of the following series of elements are known as lanthanoids ?
(A) La to Lu (B) Ce to Lu (C) La to Yb (D) Ce to Yb
97. Which of the following series of elements are known as actinoids ?
(A) Th to Lr (B) Th to No (C) Ac to Lr (D) Ac to No
98. General electronic configuration of f-block elements is ...... .
(A) (n 2)f 114 (n 1)d 01 ns2 (B) (n 2)f 014 (n 1)d 12 ns2
(C) (n 2)f 114 (n 1)d 01 ns1-2 (D) (n 2)f 014 (n 1)d 01 ns2
99. Which orbital is common in the electronic configuration of lanthanide series ?
(A) 5d1 (B) 6s1 (C) 6s2 (D) 5d0
100. What is stable oxidation state of lanthanum and lanthanoids elements ?
(A) +2 (B) +3 (C) +3, +4 (D) +2, +3
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101. Which of the following lanthanoids possess 5d orbital filled with electrons in their electronic
configuration ?
(A) La, Ce, Pm (B) La, Ce, Gd (C) Ce, Gd, Lu (D) La, Gd, Lu
102. What is general electronic configuration of lanthanoids ?
(A) [Xe] 4f 0145d 016s2 (B) [Xe] 4f 1145d 16s2
(C) [Xe] 4f 0145d 016s12 (D) [Xe] 4f 1145d 016s2
103. What is the electronic configuration of Ce (Z = 58) ?
(A) [Xe] 4f 15d 16s2 (B) [Xe] 4f 26s 2 (C) [Xe] 5d26s2 (D) [Xe] 4f 25d16s1
104. Which of the following element of lanthanides is radioactive ?
(A) Neo-dimeum (B) Promithium (C) Leutetium (D) Gadolinium
105. Which of the following statement is not proper for lanthanide contraction ?
(A) As we move from Ce to Lu nuclear positive charge increases.
(B) With increase in atomic number the addition of new electron is in n = 6 orbital.
(C) As we move from Ce to Lu atomic radii decreases.
(D) With increase in positive electric charge the electrons in 4f-orbital possess more attraction.
106. What is the basicity of Ln(OH)3 type hydroxides ?
(A) More than Ca(OH)3 but less than Al(OH)3.
(B) Less than Ca(OH)2 but more than Al(OH)3.
(C) Same as Ca(OH)2.
(D) Same as Al(OH)3.
107. Which property is the basis of separation of lanthanide elements ?
(A) chemical properties (B) physical properties
(C) based on ionic size (D) difference in their basicity
108. Ln }}}
x, y
m LnC . Show x and y.
2
(A) x = C y = 2773 K (B) x = C y = 2770 K

(C) x = CO y = 2775 K (D) x = CO y = 2770 K
109. Which lanthanide element show +2 and +3 oxidation state ?
(A) La (B) Gd (C) Ce (D) Eu
110. Ce (Z = 58) is the important member of lanthanide. Which statement is incorrect for Ce ?
(A) Common oxidation state of Ce is +3 and +4.
(B) +3 oxidation state is more stable than +4.
(C) Ce does not show +4 oxidation state in its solution.
(D) Ce (IV) acts as oxidant.
111. For which of the following statement, lanthanide contraction is responsible ?
(A) Same oxidation state of Zn and Zr.
(B) Almost same co-valent and ionic radius of Zn and Hf.
(C) Same oxidation state of Zn and Nb.
(D) Almost same co-valent and ionic radius of Zn and Yb.
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112. Common oxidation state of lanthanide series is Ln (III). Which of the following statement is
wrong for lanthanide elements ?
(A) Ln(III) hydroxide possess basic character.
(B) Due to large size of Ln(III) ion, in their compounds they are bound by ionic bond.
(C) Generally Ln (III) compounds are colourless.
(D) With increase in atomic number, the size of Ln(III) ions decreases.
(A) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3.
(B) As we move from Ce3+ to Lu3+ in lanthanide series, their ionic radii decreases.
(C) Lanthanam is infact transition element.
(D) Atomic radius of Zn and Hf are similar due to lanthanide contraction.
114. Give reason of stability of Gd3+ ion.
(A) 4f orbital is completely filled.
(B) 4f orbital is incompletely filled.
(C) Electronic configuration is like inert gas.
(D) 4f orbital is completely empty.
115. The stability of oxidation state of Landthanide elements depends on ......
(A) combination of hydration enthalpy & ionization enthalpy.
(B) electronic configuration
(C) enthalpy
(D) internal enthalpy
Answers : 96. (B), 97. (A), 98. (D), 99. (C), 100. (B), 101. (C), 102. (D), 103. (A), 104.
(B), 105. (B), 106. (B), 107. (D), 108. (A), 109. (D), 110. (A), 111. (B), 112.
(B), 113. (A), 114. (B), 115. (A)
Actinide series :
In the electronic configuration of elements of actinide series 7s2 is common in all elements but
electrons keep changing in 5f orbital.
Irregularity is found more in electronic configuration of actinoids.
Actinoids possess more than one oxidation states.
In Cm, 5f orbital is half filled and in Lr, 5f orbital is completly filled to attain stability.
General electronic configuration of actinoids is [Rn] 5f 014 6d 02 7s2.
All elements of actinoids are radioactive.
Actinoids are like silver in appearance.
More irregularity is observed in the metallic radii in actinoids than lanthanoids.
Diversity is found in structure of actinoids.
The values of ionization enthalpy of actinoids are less than the values of ionization enthalpy of
lanthanoids.
Oxidation states of actinoids are +2 to +6.
Pyrophoric Misch metal (50% Ce + 40% La + 7% Fe + 3% other metals) is used as reducing
agent and as stones in gas lighters.
CeO2 is useful in pigments.
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Ceric compounds are used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis.
Oxides of lanthanoids are useful in preparation of optical glass of camera having high refractive
index.
Gadolinium sulphate is used to produce very low temperature by magnetic effect.
Metals like uranium, plutonium and thorium are useful in production of atomic energy.
116. Electronic configuration of which elements show irregularity ?

(A) Th to Np (B) Ac to Cf (C) Th to Cf (D) Ac to Np
117. Which statement is wrong for actiniods ?
(A) More irregularity observed in metallic radius
(B) The values of ionization enthalpy is less than lanthanoids.
(C) Diversity in structure.
(D) Stable oxidation state is +3 and +4.
118. What is common electronic configuration of actinides ?
(A) [Rn] 5f 014 6d 12 7s2 (B) [Rn] 5f 114 6d 12 7s12
(C) [Rn] 5f 114 6d 02 7s2 (D) [Rn] 5f 014 6d 02 7s2
119. What is the proportion of metals in pyrophoric misch metal ?
(A) 50 % Ce, 40 % La, 7 % Fe, 3 % other metals.
(B) 50 % Ce, 40 % La, 5 % Fe, 5 % other metals.
(C) 50 % Ce, 40 % Fe, 7 % La, 3 % other metals.
(D) 50 % Ce, 40 % Fe, 7 % Lu, 3 % other metals.
120. What is the use of pyrophoric misch metal ?
(A) As oxidant (B) As pigment
(C) As stone in gas lighters (D) preparation of optical glass
121. What are used as oxidizing agent in volumetric analysis ?
(A) Oxides of lanthanides (B) Ceric compounds
(C) CeO 2 (D) Gadolinium sulphate
122. What are used in pigments ?
(A) CeO 2 (B) Ceric compounds
(C) Gadolinium sulphate (D) Oxides of lanthanides
123. What are useful in preparation of optical glass of camera having high refractive index ?
(A) Pyrophoric misch (B) Gadolinium sulphate
(C) Ceric compounds (D) Oxides of lanthanides
124. What is use of Gadolinium sulphate ?
(A) As reductant (B) As oxidant
(C) To produce very low temperature by magnetic effect
(D) production of atomic energy
125. Which of the following is used in production of atomic energy ?
(A) Uranium (B) Plutonium (C) Thorium (D) All of the above
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126. What is the main reason for more number of oxidation states of actinides than lanthanides ?
(A) 4f orbital is more expanded than 5f orbital.
(B) less energy difference between 5f and 6d orbital than 4f and 5d orbital.
(C) more energy difference between 5f and 6d orbital than 4f and 5d orbital.
(D) Actinides are more reactive than lanthanides.
127. In which factor actinide and lanthanide possess similarity ?
(A) Electronic configuration (B) Oxidation state
(C) Ionization Enthalpy (D) In preparation of complex
128. Which compound of lanthanide is used in pigments ?
(A) Tb(OH)3 (B) Cu(OH)3 (C) Ce(OH)3 (D) CeO 2
Answers : 116. (A), 117. (D), 118. (D), 119. (A), 120. (C), 121. (B), 122. (A), 123. (D),
124. (C), 125. (D), 126. (B), 127. (B), 128. (D)
Column Type Questions :

129. Match column A with column B and select correct option.
Column-A Column-B
(1) V4+ (P) Green (A) (1)−(S), (2)−(T), (3)−(P), (4)−(R)
(2) Ni2+ (Q) Pink (B) (1)−(R), (2)−(P), (3)−(S), (4)−(T)
(3) Ti3+ (R) Yellow (C) (1)−(S), (2)−(P), (3)−(T), (4)−(Q)
(4) Co2+ (S) Blue (D) (1)−(T), (2)−(R), (3)−(P), (4)−(Q)
(T) Purple
Column-A Column-B
(1) Ti4+ (P) Yellow (A) (1)−(T), (2)−(S), (3)−(Q), (4)−(R)
(2) Cr3+ (Q) Pink (B) (1)−(R), (2)−(T), (3)−(P), (4)−(T)
(3) Fe3+ (R) Colourless (C) (1)−(R), (2)−(S), (3)−(P), (4)−(T)
(4) Mn3+ (S) Green (D) (1)−(S), (2)−(T), (3)−(R), (4)−(Q)
(T) Purple

Column-A Column-B
(1) FeCl3 (P) 4.90 BM (A) (1)−(R), (2)−(P), (3)−(T), (4)−(P)
(2) NiCl2 (Q) 1.73 BM (B) (1)−(R), (2)−(P), (3)−(Q), (4)−(S)
(3) CoCl3 (R) 2.83 BM (C) (1)−(S), (2)−(R), (3)−(Q), (4)−(T)
(4) CuCl2 (S) 5.92 BM (D) (1)−(S), (2)−(R), (3)−(P), (4)−(Q)
(T) 3.87 BM
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Column-A Column-B
(1) Brass (P) To prepare art model (A) (1)−(S), (2)−(T), (3)−(Q),(T), (4)−(P),(T)
(2) Nichrome (Q) To prepare currency coins (B) (1)−T, (2)−(S),(T) (3)−(Q), (4)−(P)
(3) Cupronickel (R) To prepare statue (C) (1)−(S), (2)−(T),(P) (3)−(S),(T), (4)−(R)
(4) German (S) To Musical Instruments (D) (1)−(R),(T) (2)−(Q), (3)−(P), (4)−(T),(S)
Silver (T) To Electrical resistance wire
Column-A Column-B
(1) Bronze (P) Cu (70%) Zn (30%) (A) (1)−(T), (2)−(S), (3)−(Q), (4)−(R)
(2) Cupronickel (Q) Ni (60%) Cr (40%) (B) (1)−(T), (2)−(R),(S) (3)−(P), (4)−(Q)
(3) Brass (R) Cu (50-55%) Ni (45-50%) (C) (1)−(Q), (2)−(R), (3)−(T), (4)−(P)
(4) Nichrome (S) Cu (75-85%) Ni (15-25%) (D) (1)−(S), (2)−(S), (3)−(R), (4)−(T)
(T) Cu (90%) Sn (10%)

Column-A Column-B
(1) Brass (P) shining as silver (A) (1)−(T), (2)−(R), (3)−(S),(Q) (4)−(P)
(2) Nitinol (Q) strong (B) (1)−(S), (2)−(T),(Q),(S) (3)−(P), (4)−(R)
(3) German (R) ductile (C) (1)−(R), (2)−(T), (3)−(S), (4)−(Q)
Silver (S) light in weight and strong (D) (1)−(R), (2)−(S),(T) (3)−(P), (4)−(Q)
(4) Bronze (T) marvellous property of memory
135. Select correct option for true and false statement (T = True, F = False)
(i) Stability of transition metal ion is less in aqueous medium.
(ii) Magnetic moment of CoCl3 is 4.90 B.M.
(iii) Ce(OH)3 is least basic and Lu(OH)3 is most basic.

(iv) Promethium is radioactive element.
(v) German silver is used as electrical resistance wire
(A) TFTTF (B) FTTFT (C) FTFTT (D) TFFTT
Answers : 129. (C), 130. (B), 131. (D), 131. (D), 132. (A), 133. (B), 134. (D), 135. (C).
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17 Co-ordination Compounds
Complex salt and double salt
The salt that is obtained according to the laws of chemical combination by combination of two or
more salts (compounds) having independent existence and maintains the properties of the original salts is
called double salt. When (n1)d, ns and np or ns, np and nd orbitals of the atoms or ions of transition
elements are vacant, these transition elements accept electron pairs from negative ions or neutral
molecules, which are called complex compounds. The differences between double salt and complex salt
are as under :
Double Salt Complex Salt
(i) The salt that is obtained by combination of two (i) The salt that is obtained by combination of
or more salts maitains the properties of original two or more compounds with new properties
salts is called double salt are called complex salt.
(ii) They exist as crystal and get dissociated when (ii) They exist as solid or solution even in solution
they are dissolved in water or other solvent. complex ion is not dissociate.
(iii) Metal ion possesses their common valency. (iii) Metal ion possesses two types of valency,
primary and secondary.
(iv) Double salt lose their properties in solution. (iv) Complex salt do not lose their properties in
solution.
(v) Double salt is ionic compound which do not (v) Complex salt is ionic or nonionic which
possesses co-ordinate bond. possesses co-ordinate bond.
Werner theory : Metal ion possesses two types of valency, primary and secondary valency.
Primary valency : It is equal to positive charge of metal ion which formed ionic bond and ionisable.
Primary valency is satisfied by only negative ions and it is also known as oxidation number of metal.
Secondary valency : It depends on vacant orbital of metal ion. It is satisfied by negative ion or
neutral molecule which is nonionisable. Secondary valency indicates co-ordination number of metal which
has directional property. Secondary valency of metal is definite, transition metal ion can possess more
than one co-ordination number.
Ligand and their classification : Negative ion or neutral molecule which bound to the metal ion by
secondary valency is called as ligand. In complex, metal ion acts as Lewis acid and ligand act as Lewis
base. Ligand are classified according to number of electron pair donating atom in them.
Unidentate Ligand : The ligand which can from one atom donates one electron pair and form
co-ordinate covalent bond is called unidentate ligand.
Didentate Ligand : The ligand which can donate two electron pairs to metal ion and form two
co-ordinate covalent bond is called didentate ligand.
Polydentate Ligand : The ligand in which two or more co-ordination sites are there or the ligand in
which two or more atoms donate electron pairs to metal ion and form co-ordinate covalent bond is called
polydentate ligand.
Polydentate ligand forms cyclic structure with metal ion and form chelate.
431
Unidentate negative ligand
Name formula electric Name in Complex Co-ordination site
charge
Halide ion X (Cl, Br, I) 1 Halido X
Hydroxide ion OH 1 Hydroxo O
Cyanide ion CN1 1 Cyano C
Isocyanide NC 1 Isocyano N
Nitro ion NO2 1 Nitro N
Nitrito ion ONO 1 Nitrito O
Thiocyanate ion SCN 1 Thiocyano S
Hydride ion H 1 Hydrido H
Amide ion NH2 1 Amido N
Acetate ion CH3COO 1 Acetato O

Nitrate ion NO3 1 Nitrato O
Cyanate ion ONC 2 Cyanato O
Oxide ion O2 2 Oxo O

Peroxide ion O22 2 Peroxo O
Sulphide ion S2 2 Sulphido S
Thiosulphate ion S2O32 2 Thio sulphato S

Imine ion NH2 2 Imido N
Nitride N3 3 Nitrido N
Unidentate neutral ligand
Name and symbol of ligand Formula Name of Lig. in complex Co-ordination site
Ammonia NH3 Ammine N
Water H 2O Aqua O
phosphine PH 3 Phosphine P
Nitrogen oxide NO Nitrosyl N
Carbon monoxide CO Carbonyl C
Pyridene (Py) C 5H 5N Pyridene N
Thiourea (tu) H2N C NH2 Thiourea S

||
S
Triphenyl phosphine (C6H5)3 P or (Ph)3P Triphenyl phosphane P

Thiocarbonyl CS Thiocarbonyl S
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Didentate Ligand
Name formula electric Name of ligand in Co-ordination site
charge complex
–
Oxalate ion OX2 OR COO 2 Oxalato O
–
COO
Sulphate ion SO42 2 Sulphato O
Carbonate ion CO32 2 Carbonato O
Ethane 1, 2-diamine CH 2 – CH 2 0 Ethane 1, 2diamine N
| |
NH 2 – NH 2
Glycenate ion H2N CH2 COO 1 Glycenato N and O
Tridentate ligand : Ptn, PO43, AsO43, BO33

Hexadentate ligand : EDTA4
Positive charge ligand : NO2+, NO.+, N2H5+
Stability of complex compound :
As the strength of different ligands to form co-ordinate covalent bond varies, stronger ligand possesses
more attraction with metal ion. As a result complexes having stronger ligand possess more stability. The basis
of strength of ligand can be determined by same metal ion combined with different ligands.
The order of strength of ligand :
Cl < F < OH < H2O < NH3 < CN
order of stability of complex ion
[NiCl]2 < [NiF4]2 < [Ni(OH)4]2 < [Ni(H2O)4]2+ < [Ni(NH3)4]2+ < [Ni(CN)4]2
1. CuSO4 + 4 NH3(ag) ® [Cu(NH ) ] 3 4

2+
(ag)
+ SO42(ag) in the reaction which of the following acts as
Lewis acid ?
(A) NH3 (B) Cu2+ (C) SO42 (D) [Cu (NH3)4]2+
2. In complex compound ligand is also known as
(A) Lewis acid (B) Lewis base (C) Bronsted acid (D) Bronsted base
3. How many total ions are formed by ionisation of [Co (NH3)6] Cl3 ?
(A) 9 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
4. Which of the following will give white precepitates with complex formed by mixing of aqueous
solution of CuSO4 and NH3 ?
(A) BaCl2 (B) AgNo3 (C) KI (D) HCl
5. What is the co-ordination number and oxidation number of Cr in [Cr (NH3)4 SO4] Br ?
6. Oxidation state of Ni in [Ni (CO)4] is ......... ?

(A) + 2 (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 4
433
7. In which of following complex, oxidation number of metal ion is zero ?
(A) Fe (CO)5 (B) [Ag (NH3)2]Cl
(C) [Co (NH3)6] Cl3 (D) K3 [Fe (CN)6]
8. What is the co-ordination number of metal ion in octahedral complex ?
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 5 (D) 6
9. Number of unidentate ligand in complex compound is known as ...... .
(A) oxidation number (B) primary valency
(C) secondary valency (D) tertairy valency
10. Which ligand cannot form chelate ?
(A) SO42 (B) Ox2 (C) O2 (D) CO32
11. Among the given ligand which one has highest number of co-ordation site ?
(A) en (B) Pn (C) Ptn (D) EDTA4
12. Which ligand cannot form complex having cyclic structure ?
(A) Acetate (B) Oxalate
(C) Ethylene diamine (D) Propylene triamine
13. In which of the following complex the primary valency of metal atom is highest ?
(A) K2 [Cr2O7] (B) K [MnO4]
(C) K3 [Fe (CN)6] (D) [Mn (en)3]Cl3
14. Which of the following is not a tridentate ligand ?
(A) PO43 (B) AsO43 (C) N3 (D) BO33
15. Which ligand is required in least number to satisfy secondary valency of metal atom in complex
compound ?
(A) NH3 (B) en (C) Ptn (D) Pn
16. Which of the following is most stable complex compound ?
(A) [NiCl4]2 (B) [NiF4]2 (C) [Ni (H2O)4]2+ (D) [Ni (CN)42]
17. Which is the correct order of strength of ligand for stability of complex componds ?
(A) Cl < H2O < OH < NH3 (B) Cl < OH < H2O < NH3
(C) OH < H2O < Cl < NH3 (D) OH < Cl < H2O < NH3
Answers : 1. (B), 2. (B), 3. (C), 4. (A), 5. (B), 6. (C), 7. (A), 8. (D), 9. (C), 10. (C),
11. (D), 12. (A), 13. (B), 14. (C), 15. (C), 16. (D), 17. (A)
Geometrical structure of complex ion :

Geometrical structure of complex depend on magnetic property and hybridisation. In complex if
strong ligand combines with metal ion having co-ordination number 4 then hybridisation is dsp2 and shape
is square planar. eg. [Ni(CN)4)2. If weak ligand combines with metal ion having co-ordination number 4
then hybridisation is sp3 and shape is tetrahydral e.g. [NiCl4]2. In complex if strong ligand combines with
metal ion having co-ordination number 6 then hybridisation is sp3d2 and shape is octrahedral. e.g.
[Fe(CN)6]3 . In complex ion MnO4 and CrO42 hybridisation is d3s, there is no unpaired electron in Mn+7
and Cr+6 but they are coloured due to dd transition by electrons of ligand.
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Hybridisation and magnetic properties in complex compound
Complex ion metal Electron Hybrid- Number of Magnetic
ion configuration isation unpair property
of metal ion electron
[V(H2O)6]+3 V3+ d2 d2sp3 2 diamagnetic
3+ 3+ 3 2 3
[Cr(NH3)6] Cr d d sp 3 diamagnetic
[MnF6]3 Mn3+ d4 Sp3d2 4 diamagnetic
3 3+ 4 2 3
[Mn (CN)6] Mn d d sp 2 diamagnetic
3 3+ 5 2 3
[Fe(CN)6] Fe d d sp 1 diamagnetic
[FeF6]3 Fe3+ d5 sp3d2 5 diamagnetic
[FeCl4]2 Fe+2 d6 sp3 4 diamagnetic
3 3+ 6 3 2
[CoF6] Co d sp d 4 diamagnetic
[Co(NH3)6]3+ Co3+ d6 d2sp3 0 paramagnetic
[Ni (NH3)6]2+ Ni2+ d8 sp3d2 2 diamagnetic
2 +2 8 3
[NiCl4] Ni d- sp 2 diamagnetic
[Ni(CN)4]2 Ni+2 d8 dsp2 0 paramagnetic
[Ni(CO)4] Ni 3d8 4s2 sp3 0 paramagnetic
2 2+ 9 3
[CuCl4] Cu d sp 1 diamagnetic
[Zn(NH3)4]2+ Zn2+ d10 sp3 0 paramagnetic
19. Which of the following complex is linear ?

(A) [Ag(NH3)2] Cl (B) [Ni(CO)4] (C) [Fe(CO)s] (D) [Cr(CO)6 ]
20. Which of the following complex possess square planar shape ?
(A) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2] (B) K4 (Ni(CN)4] (C) K2[NiCl4] (D) K [MnO4]
2+
21. Which of the following is the hybridisation of metal ion in [Cu(NH3]4) complex ion ?
(A) sp3 (B) d3s (C) dsp2 (D) sp2d
22. In which of the following complex hybridisation of metal is d3s ?
(A) K[MnO4] (B) K2[NiCl4] (C) K2(NiF4] (D) K2[Ni(CN)4]
23. How many unpaired electrons are in valence orbital of complex hexa aqua ferrate (III) ion ?
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4
24. Which one is not an inner orbital complex ?
(A) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (B) [Ni(NH3)2Cl2] (C) [Fe(CN)6]3- (D) [FeF4]2-
25. Which complex has highest magnetic moment (only spin) ?
(A) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (B) [Co(NH3)6]2+ (C) [Fe(CN)6]3- (D) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
26. Which of the following complex is paramagnetic ?
(A) [Ni(NH3)2 Cl2] (B) K2[NiCl4] (C) [Ni(NH3)4]Cl2 (D) K2[CoCl4]
27. Which complex has magnetic moment (only spin) 2.83 B.M. ?
(A) [Ni(CO)4] (B) [NiCl4]2 (C) [Ni(CN)4]2- (D) [Ni(NH3)4]2+
28. What is the theoritical magnetic moment of complex [Cr(CO)6] ?
(A) 0 (B) 1.73 (C) 5. 92 (D) 4.90
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29. Which is the correct statement for complex compound [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 ?
(A) Its shape is octrahedral and hybridisation is d2sp3.
(B) It is paramagnetic.
(C) It is valence orbital complex.
(D) It gives white precipitates with AgNO3.
30. Which of the following complex is diamagnetic ?
(A) [Fe(CN)6]3 (B) [FeF6]3 (C) [CoF6]3 (D) [Fe(CN)6]4
31. How many unpair electrons are in [Fe(CO)5] complex ?
(A) zero (B) five (C) four (D) three
32. In which of the following pairs the possible oxidation state of metals is highest ?
(A) K2[Cr2O7] and [Mn(en)3]Cl3 (B) K[MnO4] and [(Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
(C) K[MnO4] and K2[Cr2O7] (D) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 and [Mn(en)3]Cl3
33. Which of the following complex is coloured and does not possesses unpair electron in d-orbital ?
(A) [Mn(en)3]Cl3 (B) K[MnO4] (C) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 (D) K3[Fe(CN)6]
34. Which of the following is diamagnetic and tetrahedral complex ?
(A) [Ni(CO)4] (B) [Ni(NH3]2Cl2] (C) K2[Ni(CN)4] (D) K2[NiCl4]
Answers : 19. (A), 20. (A), 21. (A), 22. (A), 23. (C), 24. (D), 25. (A), 26. (D), 27. (B),
28. (A), 29. (B), 30. (D), 31. (A), 32. (C), 33. (B), 34. (A)
IUPAC Nomenclature of complex compounds

In nomenclature of co-ordination compounds the name of ligand according to english alphabates is
written first and then the name of the metal is written. For the Ligands having negative electric charge,
the suffix O is joined with the name of the Ligand. The neutral ligand is shown according to its original
name. If the number of ligand of only one type is more than 1, then according to number of ligand 2, 3, 4
the words di, tri, tetra are used as prefix. If organic ligand is present and the prefix is a number then
ligand is placed in bracket and for number 2, 3, 4 etc. corresponding bis, tris, tetrakis prefix are added. If
the complex is negative ion, then write names of ligand Alphabatically, the suffix ate is joined with metal
ion and then its oxidation state is shown in () bracket in Roman number. If the complex is positive ion or
neutral molecule then first write the name of ligand Alphabatically. The name of metal is added at the end
and its oxidation state is shown in () bracket in Roman number.
(i) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ : Penta ammine chlorido cobalt (III) ion
(ii) [Co(NH3)3Cl(CN)NO2] : Triammine chlorido cyano nitrito cobalt (III)
(iii) [Cr(H2O)Clen2]2+ : Aqua chlorido bis (ethan 1, 2-diamine) chromium (III) ion
(iv) [Ag(CN)2] : Diacyano argentate (I) ion
(v) K3[Fe(C2O4)3] : Potassium tris (oxalato) ferrate (III)
(vi) Na[Au(CN)2] : Sodium dicyano Aurate (III)
(vii) Ca2[Fe(CN)6] : Calcium hexacyano ferrate (II)
(viii) [Cr(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3 : Triammine triaqua chromium (III) chloride
(ix) [Pt(NH3)4][PtCl4] : Tetra ammine platinum (II) tetrachloride platinate (II)
436
NH
(x) [(NH3)4 CO CO (NH ) ] (NO )
3 4 3 4
OH
Tetra ammine cobalt (III) - m - amido-

m - nitrito tetra ammine cobalt (III) nitrate
NH
(xi) [(NH3)4 Cr CO (H O) ] (NO )
2 6 3 4
OH
Tetra ammine chromium (III) m amido -

m - hydroxo tetra aqua cobalt (III) nitrate
Isomerism in complex compounds
Geometrical isomerism : Geometrical isomerism is generally observed in square planar and octa
hedral complex. In MA2B2 and MA4B2 complex compound cis and trans isomerism are produced. In
MA3B3 complex compound facial and meridional isomerism are produced.
Optical isomerism : Optical isomerism is generally observed in octrahedral chelate ions. There
are certain complex compounds in which molecular formula and structural formulas are same, but the two
isomers produced because of different orientation of ligands in it. They are mirror images to each other
and the superimposition of two isomer on each other is not possible. This type of complex ion possess
chirality. If it rotates plane of polarised light on left side, then that isomer is called l (leavo) or () and
one which rotates plane of polarised light on right side than that isomer is called d (dextro) or (+). Trans
isomer is optically inactive.
Structural isomerism :
(i) Linkage isomerism : When unidentate ligand having two different co-ordination sites combine
with metal ion by different atom formed isomer which are called as linkage isomer e.g. [Co(NO2)
(NH3)5]2+ and [Co(ONO)(NH3)5]2+
(ii) Co-ordination isomerism : When in co-ordination compounds, both positive ion and negative
ion are complex ion then there is exchange between the two in the co-ordination sphere and isomers are
formed. Which are called co-ordination isomers.
e.g., [Co(NH3)6]3+ [Cr(CN)6]3 and [Cr(NH3)6]3+ [Co(CN)6]3
(iii) Ionisation isomerism : The compounds whose proportion by weight and the component are
same but they give different ions in solution, then that type of isomerism is called ionisation isomerism.
e.g., [Co(NH3)5NO3] Cl and [Co(NH3]5C1] NO3
(iv) Hydration isomerism : This type of isomerism is a special type of ionisation isomerism. In
which number of water molecules inside and outside of co-ordination sphere are different
e.g., [Cr(H2O)6] Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)]5Cl]Cl2H2O
437
(v) Ligand isomerism : Isomerism produced due to ligand which are isomer of each other in
complex is known as ligand isomerism.
CH 2 – CH – CH3 CH 2 – CH 2 – CH 2
| | | |
NH 2 NH 2 NH 2 NH 2
propane 1, 2-diamine propane 1, 3-diamine

e.g. [Co (propane 1, 2-diamine) Cl2] and [Co (propane 1, 3-diamine) Cl2]+
+
35. Which is correct IUPAC name of NH4 [Co(NH3)2(OX)2] ?

(A) Ammonium di ammine bis oxalato cobaltate (III)
(B) Ammonium di ammine di oxalato cobaltate (II)
(C) Ammonium di oxalato di ammine cobaltate (III)
(D) Ammonium di oxalato di ammine cobaltate (II)
36. Which of the following is correct molecular formula for tetra ammine chlorido nitrito chromium
(III) nitrate ?
(A) [Cr(NH3)4(ONO)Cl]NO3 (B) [Cr(NH3)4NO2Cl]NO3
(C) [Cr(NH3)4NO3C1]NO2 (D) [Cr(NH2)4ONOCl]NO3
NH
+3
37. Which of the following is IUPAC name of [(en)2 CO CO (en)2] ?
OH
(A) Bis (ethane 1, 2diamine) cobalt (III) m imido m hydroxo bis (ethane 1, 2 diamine)
cobalt (III) ion
(B) Bis (ethane 1, 2diamine) cobalt (III) m amido m hydroxo bis (ethane 1, 2 diamine)
cobalt (III) ion
(C) Bis (ethane 1, 2diamine) cobalt (III) m imido hydroxo bis (ethane 1, 2 diamine) cobalt
(III) ion
(D) Bis (ethane 1, 2diamine) cobalt (III) m hydroxo amido bis (ethane 1, 2 diamine) cobalt
(III) ion
38. Correct formula of tetra ammine cobalt (III) m amido nitrato tetra ammine cobalt (III) nitrate
is ....... .
NH2 NH
(A) [(NH3)4 Co CO (NH3)4] (NO3)4 (B) [(NH3)4 Co CO (NH3)4] (NO3)3
NO2 NO2
NH NH2
(C) [(NH3)4 Co CO (NH3)4] (NO3)2 (D) [(NH3)4 Co CO (NH3)4] (NO3)3
NO2 NO2
39. Which of the following is molecular formula of iron hexa cyano ferrate (II) ?
(A) Fe2[Fe(CN)6]3 (B) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2
(C) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (D) Fe3(Fe(CN)6]4
40. How many ions are obtained by ionisation of iron (III) hexa cyano ferrate (II) ?
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
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41. Which of the following complexes does not possesses geometrical isomerism ?
(A) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (B) [Co(NH3)5 Cl] Cl2 (C) [Co(en)2Cl2] Cl (D) [Pt (NH3)2Cl2]
42. Which of the following complex possesses meridional isomerism ?
(A) K[Fe(NH3)2(CN)4] (B) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(C) [Cr(NH3)5Cl] Cl2 (D) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
43. Which of the following complex cannot rotate the plane polarised light ?
(A) cis[PtCl2(en)2]2+ (B) trans [PtCl2(OX)2]
(C) [Cr(en)3]3+ (D) [CrCl2(NH3)2en]+
44. Among the given complexes which one of them possesses optical isomerism ?
(A) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2 ] (B) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (C) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2en] (D) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]
45. Which of the following pairs possesses linkage isomerism ?
(A) Penta ammine nitrito cobalt (III) ion and penta ammine nitrito cobalt (III) ion.
(B) Hexa ammine cobalt (III) hexa cyano chromate (III) ion and Hexa ammine chromium (III)
hexa cyano cobaltate (III) ion.
(C) Penta ammine nitrato (III) chloride and penta aqua chlorido chromium (III) chloride hydrate.
(D) Hexa aqua chromium (III) chloride and penta aqua chlorido (III) chloride hydrate.
46. Which of the following possesses co-ordination isomerism ?
(A) [Cr (NH3)6] [Co (CN)6] (B) [Co (NH3)6] Cl3
(C) [Co (OX)2 Cl2] (D) [Cr (en)2 Cl2]
47. [Cr (NH3)4Cl2] NO2 and [Cr (NH3)4 Cl NO2] Cl are which kind of isomer ?
(A) Linkage (B) Optical (C) Ionisation (D) Geometrical
48. Complex A and B having molecular formula Cr Cl3 (H2O)6 are precipitate with AgNO3 giving
three and two moles of AgCl respectively, then A and B are which kind of isomers to each other ?
(A) Co-ordination (B) Hydration (C) Linkage (D) Ionic
49. Which kind of isomerism is present in [Co (OX)3]3 complex ion ?
(A) Optical (B) Geometrical (C) Structural (D) Ligand
50. Which complex ion possesses geometrical and optical isomerism ?
(A) [Co (en)2 Cl2]+ (B) [Co Cl (NH3)5 ]2+ (C) [Co Cl2 (NH3)4]+ (D) [Cr (OX)3]3
Answers : 35. (A), 36. (A), 37. (A), 38. (A), 39. (C), 40. (B), 41. (B), 42. (D), 43. (B),
44. (C), 45. (A), 46. (A), 47. (C), 48. (D), 49. (A), 50. (A)
Crystal field theory
Crystal field theory is known as electrostatic model in which it is believed that there is an ionic bond
between metal and ligand. According to this theory negatively charged ligand or polar neutral molecule
forms ionic bond with metal ion. All the five types of d-orbitals are degenerated in free gasseous form of
metal atom or ion. But when ligands are arranged around the metal atom or ion the d-orbitals do not remain
degenerated but get split. The splitting of orbitals depends on the nature of crystal field.
splitting of d-orbital in octahedral complex.
439
2 2 2
dx -y ,dz
eg
3/5
Average energy 2/5

Metal-d-orbital of the d-orbital in
spherical crystal field t 2g
Energy dxy, dyz,
2 2 2
dx – y , dz dxy, dyz, dxz dxz
3 2
In eg orbital there will be increase by Do and there will be Do decrease in energy of three
5 5
t2g orbitals
d-orbital splitting in a tetrahedral crystal field.
dxy, dyz,dxz
t 2g
0.4
Energy
0.6
eg
2 2 2
d x -y ,dz
dorbital of Average energy of the d splitting of d-orbital in tetrahedral

Free ion orbital in spherical crystal field crystal field
4
Dt= D
9 o
The splitting of crystal field (Do) depends on electric charge of metal ion and ligand. Some ligands
produce strong field, so the splitting of orbitals is more in proportion. While certain ligands produce weak
field so the splitting of orbitals is less in proportion. The series of ligands on the basis of increase in
strength of field by ligands can be shown as below :
I < Br < SCN < Cl < S2 < F < OH < C2O42 < H2O < NCS < EDTA < NH3< en < NO2< CN < CO
This series is called spectrochemical series.
For the ligands producing weak field, Do P and form complexes having low spin.
Colour of complex :
Complexes exhibit wide variety of colours. When white light passes through the sample, it forms
definite visible spectrum and other forms of white light are removed. The complementary colour is
dependent on wavelength. If complex absorbs green colour, then it will be seen red.
The colour of co-ordination compounds can be explained on the basis of crystal field theory. e.g.
[Ti(H2O)6]3+ which has violet colour, [Ni(H2O)6]3+ green colour and [Ni(en)3]2+ violet colour.
440
Effective Automic Number (EAN)
(EAN) = Atomic No O.S. + 2 × C.N.
= Atomic number Oxidation state + 2 × co-ordination number
51. How much decrease in energy of t2g orbital by crystal field splitting in octahedral complexes ?
3 2 4 2
(A) D
o
(B) D
o
(C) D
o
(D) D
o
5 5 9 9
52. What is the value of D
t
for crystal field splitting in tetrahedral complexes ?
3 4 2 7
(A) D
o
(B) D
o
(C) D
o
(D) D
o
5 9 9 9
53. Energy of which orbitals raised by crystal field splitting in octahedral complexes ?
(A) dxy, dyz (B) dxy, dyz, dxz (C) dx2 y2, dZ2 (D) dxy, dx2 y2
54. Which is correct spectrochemical series ?
(A) OH < NCS < NH3< en < CO (B) OH < NH3 < NCS < en < CO
(C) OH < NH3 < en < NCS < CO (D) OH < NCS < en < NH3 < CO
55. Which is the true relation for [Fe[H2O)6]3+ complex ?
(A) D
o
P (C) D
o
>P (D) D
o
=P
56. What is the value of D
o
for [Fe(CN)6]4 complex compound ?
(A) D
o
>P (B) D
o
<P (C) D
o
<P (D) D
o
=P
57. Which of the following ligand produces strong field ?
(A) NH3 (B) en (C) CO (D) EDTA4
58. Which ligand form complex having high spins ?
(A) H2O (B) NH 3 (C) CO (D) CN
59. Among the given complex ions which one does not absorb visible light ?
(A) [Ni[CN)4]2 (B) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (C) [Fe(H2 O)6]2+ (D) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
60. Which of the following complex ion has highest value of D
o
?
(A) [Fe[H2O)6]3+ (B) [Fe(NH3)6]3+ (C) [Fe(CN)6]3 (D) [Fe(OX)3]3
en
61. What is the colour change in [Ni(H2O)6]2+ [Ni(H2O)4en]2+ ?
(A) Green to light blue (B) Light blue to violet
(C) Green to violet (D) Pink to violet
62. Which type of ligand are used for diagnostic test for poisoning of lead ?
(A) Unidentate (B) Didentate (C) Tridentate (D) Hexadentate
63. Which of the following is molecular formula of Wilkinsons catalyst ?
(A) [(Ph3P)3RhCl] (B) [(Rh3P)3PCl] (C) [Ph3P)RhCl] (D) [(Ph P3)3RhCl]
64. Which complex ion is useful in black and white photography ?
(A) [Ag(S2O3)]3 (B) [Ag(CN)2] (C) [Ag(SO3)2]3 (D) [Ag(NH3)2]+
441
65. Which complex is useful in inhibiting the growth of tumours ?
(A) Cis platin (B) Trans platin (C) EDTA (D) DMG
66. Among the given ion which one is most stable ?
(A) [FeF6]3 (B) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (C) [Fe(CN)6]3 (D) [Fe(NH3)6]3+
67. Which of the following is molecular formula of tetra ammine di aqua cobalt (III) chloride ?
(A) [Co(NH3)4[(H2O)2]Cl (B) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)2]Cl2
(C) [Co(NH3)4(H2O)2]Cl3 (D) [Co(NH3)2(H2O)4]Cl3
68. Aqueous solution of one mole complex compound Cr (NH3)5 Cl3 gives three mole ions. Same
complex compound giving two mole of AgCl with 2 mole of AgNO3 then which is formula of that
complex ?
(A) [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (B) [Cr(NH3)3Cl3]2NH3
(C) [Cr(NH3)4Cl]Cl2NH3 (D) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]ClNH3
69. Which complex ion possess optical isomerism ?
(A) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (B) [ZnCl4]2 (C) [Cr(C2O4)3]3 (D) [Co(CN)6]3
70. Which of the following cyano complex has least paramagnetic moment ?
(A) [Cr(CN)6]3 (B) [Mn(CN)6]3 (C) [Fe(CN)6]3 (D) [Co(CN)6]3
71. How many EDTA4 ligand required to form octrahedral complex with Zn2+ ?
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 1
72. Which complex is not possess tetrahedral structure ?
(A) [FeCl4]2 (B) [NiCl4]2 (C) [PtCl4]2 (D) [CoCl4]2
73. Geometrical structure and number of unpair electron of Nickel in [NiCl4]2 ?
(A) square planar and 2 (B) tetrahydral and 2
(C) square planar and 1 (D) tetrahydral and 1
74. What is co-ordination number and oxidation state of Co in [Co(en)2(C2O4)] NO2 ?
75. Which one is optical isomer ?
(A) [Co(H2O)4en]3+ (B) [Zn(en)2]2+
(C) [Zn(en)(NH3)2]2+ (D) [Co(en)3]3+
76. Which of the following complex possess geometrical isomerism ?
(A) [Ni(NH3)5Br]+ (B) [Co(en)](NH3)2]3+
(C) [Cr(NH3)4en]3+ (D) [Co(en)3]3+
77. Which is the incorrect statement for [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 complex ?
(A) complex is diamagnetic.
(B) complex is valence orbital complex.
(C) complex possess octahedral shape and d2sp3 hybridisation.
(D) complex gives white precipitates with silver nitrate.
78. Name of which complex is di bromido bis (ethylene diamine) chromium (III) bromide ?
(A) [Cr(en)3]Br (B) [Cr(en)2Br2]Br
(C) [Cr(en)Br4] (D) [Cr(en)Br2]Br
442
79. Which pair possesses linkage isomerism ?
(A) [Cu(NH3)4][PtCl4] and [Pt(NH3)4][CuCl4]
(B) [Pd(PPh3)2(NCS)2 and [Pd(PPh3)2(SCN)2]
(C) [Co(NH3)5NO3]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]NO3
(D) [PtCl2(NH3)4Br2 and [PtBr2(NH3)4]Cl2
80. Which of the following complex ion possesses optical isomerism ?
(A) [Co(NH3)3Cl]+ (B) [Co(NH3)2en]2+
(C) [Co(H2O)4en]3+ (D) [Co(en)2(NH3)2]3+
81. Which of the following complex possesses l and d isomer ?
(A) Penta ammine nitro cobalt (III) iodide.
(B) Diammine dichlorido platinum (II)
(C) Trans di cyano bis (ethelene diamine) chromium (III) chloride
(D) Bis (ethelene diamine) cobalt (III) bromide
82. In which complex, hybridisation of Ni is not sp3 ?
(A) [Ni(CO)4] (B) [Ni(CN)4]2 (C) [NiCl4]2 (D) [Ni(CN)4]4
83. A solution containing 2.675g CoCl3 6NH3 (molecular mass = 267.5 gmol1) is passed through
positive ion exchange cycle. Obtained chloride ion from solution gives 4.78 gAgCl with excess
AgNO3 then what is molecular formula of complex ?
(A) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (B) [CoCl2(NH3)4]Cl (C) [CoCl3(NH3)3] (D) [CoCl(NH3)5] Cl2
84. Which isomerism can be possessed by complex [Cr (NH3)4 (NO2)2] Cl ?
(A) Linkage, Ionic and geometrical (B) Ionic, geometrical and optical
(C) Linkage, geometrical and optical (D) Linkage, Ionic and optical
85. Which of the following complex shows least paramagnetic behaviour ?
(A) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (B) [Cr(H2O)6]2+
(C) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (D) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
86. Which complex ion absorbs visible light ?
(A) [Ti (en)2(NH3)2]4+ (B) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
(C) [Zn(NH3)6]2+ (D) [Sc(H2O)3(NH3)3]3+
87. In which of the following pairs both species possesses same magnetic moment ?
(A) [(Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [CoCl4]2 (B) [Cr(H2O)6]2+ and [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(C) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ and [Cr(H2O)6]2+ (D) [CoCl4]2 [Fe(H2O)6]2+
88. Mixture x = 0.02 mole [Co (NH3)5SO4] Br and 0.02 mole [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 is dissolved in 2 litre
solution.
1 litre mixture + ex AgNO3 ® y
1 litre mixture + ex BaCl2 ® z
How many moles of y and z respectively ?
(A) 0.01 and 0.01 (B) 0.02 and 0.01 (C) 0.01 and 0.02 (D) 0.02 and 0.02
89. Aqueous solution of which complex is bad conductor ?
(A) K2[PtCl6] (B) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] (C) K4[Fe (CN)6] (D) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
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90. Which statement is not true for complex [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl ?
(A) It possesses geometrical isomerism. (B) It possesses optical isomerism.
(C) It possesses ionisation isomerism. (D) Its shape is octahedral
91. Co-ordination number of Co3+ and Pt4+ is six then conductance of 0.001M aqueous solution of
which pair is nearly same ?
(A) CoCl3 4NH3 and PtCl4 4 NH3 (B) CoCl3 3NH3 and PtCl4 5NH3
(C) CoCl3 6NH3 and PtCl4 5NH3 (D) CoCl3 5NH3 and PtCl4 6NH3
92. What is EAN (Effective Atomic Number) of Ni in [Ni(CO)4] ?
(A) 38 (B) 30 (C) 36 (D) 32
93. Which of the following is hybridisation of metal ion and shape of Wilkinsons catalyst ?
(A) sp3d, Trigonal bi pyramidal (B) sp3, tetrahedral
(C) dsp2, square planar (D) d2sp3, octahedral
94. A solution prepared by dissolving 0.875 g complex compound Co(NH3)4Cl3 (molecular mass
233.5 g mol1) in 25 g water. Its freezing point is 0.56º C then what is the formula of complex
? (molal depresion constant = 4.8 K kg mole1)
(A) [Co(NH3)4]Cl3 (B) [Co(NH3)4Cl]Cl2
(C) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (D) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]NH3
95. Magnetic moment of an aqueous solution of titanium chloride is zero. Which of the following
formula of complex possessing octahedral structure in aqueous solution ?
(A) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl4 (B) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl3
(C) [Ti(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 (D) [Ti(H2O)6]Cl
96. In the following reactions two sentences are given. In which one sentence is assertion
(A) and other is reason (R). carefully study the sentences and choose the proper option
as per following give instructions. (A) = Assertion, (R) = reason
Assertion (A) : H2N NH2 is chelating ligand
Reason (R) : Chelating ligand has two or more electron pair which can form tension free
cyclic structure with metal ion.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct and R is correct explaination of A.
(B) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct but R is not correct explaination of A.
(C) Assertion (A) is correct but R is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect and reason (R) is correct.
97. Assertion : All the octahedral complex of Ni+2 are outer orbital complex.
Reason : Only weak ligand form outer orbital octrahydral complex.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct and R is correct explaination of A.
(B) Both Assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct but R is not correct explaination of A.
(C) Assertion (A) is incorrect and R is correct.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is incorrect explainalion of (A).
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98. Assertion (A) : Stability of [Ni (en)3] Cl2 is less than [Ni (NH3)6] Cl2.
Reason (R) : Geometry of Ni in [Ni (en)3] Cl2 is square planar.
(A) Assertion (A) is correct and reason (R) is incorrect.
(B) Assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct.
(C) Assertion (A) and reason (R) are incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are correct but R is not correct explaination of A.
99. Assertion (A) : EDTA-4 form large number of complex with all the metal.
Reason (R) : In EDTA-4, two nitrogen atoms and four oxygen atom are co-ordination site.
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct and R is correct explaination of A.
(B) Assertion (A) is correct and reason (R) is incorrect.
(C) Assertion (A) is incorrect and R is correct.
(D) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are incorrect.
100. Assertion (A) : K3[Fe(CN)6] is dimagnetic where as
K4[Fe(CN)6] is paramagnetic.
Reason (R) : Magnetic properties of complex is depends on unpair elecron in d-orbital
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are incorrect.
(B) Assertion (A) is incorrect and reason (R) is correct.
(C) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct and R is correct explanation of assertion (A).
(D) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct but R is incorrect explanation of A.
Answers : 51. (A), 52. (B), 53. (C), 54. (A), 55. (A), 56. (A), 57. (C), 58. (A), 59. (A),
60. (C), 61. (A), 62. (D), 63. (A), 64. (A), 65. (A), 66. (C), 67. (C), 68. (A),
69. (C), 70. (C), 71. (D), 72. (C), 73. (B), 74. (C), 75. (D), 76. (B), 77. (A), 78. (B),
79. (B), 80. (D), 81. (C), 82. (B), 83. (D), 84. (A), 85. (C), 86. (B), (87. (A),
88. (A), 89. (B), 90. (C), (91. (C), 92. (C), 93. (B), 94. (C), 95.(A), 96. (D), 97. (B),
98. (A), 99. (A), 100. (B)
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18 Environmental Chemistry
Environment : Surrounding + layer = Region arround us
Environmental Pollution : (The sources, reactions, transports, effects and facts of chemical
species of environment) + (Effect of human activity on it)
Pollution : Environmental pollution occurs due to harmful wastes produced by natural and
human activities.
Polluatant : The substance by which the pollution is spread.
Pollutants
↓
↓ ↓ ↓
Rapidly degradable Slowly degradable Non-degradable
Degrades in 7-10 days. Degrades in 3-5 months Not degrades naturally.
eg. vegetables eg. agricultural wastes eg. DDT, plastic,
heavy metals, radioactive wastes
1. Environment chemistry is a ...... science.

(A) space (B) physical (C) interbranch (D) non-degradable
2. Which of the following is not non-degradable pollutant ?
(A) Radioactive wastes (B) Plastic
(C) DDT (D) Wastes of agriculture
3. Which of the following is slowly degradable pollutant ?
(A) Agriculture wastes (B) Heavy metals (C) Discarded vegetables (D) DDT
4. Which pollutants are proved to be more harmful to human beings ?
(A) Non-degradable pollutants (B) Rapidly degradable pollutants
(C) Slowly degradable pollutatnts (D) All of these
5. Which of the following is rapidly degradable polluatant ?
(A) Plastic (B) Heavy metal (C) Agriculture waste (D) Vegetables waste
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (D), 3. (A), 4. (A), 5. (D)
Almospheric pollution
Cover of gases surround the earth-atmosphere.
Lowest region of atmosphere (approximately 10 km) where = Troposphere in which N2, O2, and
O3 are present.
Above troposhpere (10 to 50 km) = Stratosphere, in which N2, O2 CO2 , water vapour and Ar are
present.
Tropospheric Pollution
↓
↓ ↓
By undesirable gaseous By undesirable particulate
particles eg., SO×, NO×, eg., dust, mist, fumes,
CO, CO2, H2S, O3 smoke and smog
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SO 2 It causes irritation to eyes and makes them reddish and tearful.
Present in low concentration causes respiratory diseases.
Due to high concentration it leads to stiffiness of flower buds which eventually
fall off from plants.
Particulate matter of air acts as catalyst and converts SO2 into SO3.
NO 2 NO2 is oxidised to NO3– which when enters into soil, act as a fertilizer.
In congested areas, the irritant red hazy environment is produced by NO2
Higher concentration of it damages the leaves of platns and decrease the rate of
photosynthesis.
It causes an acute respiratory diseases in children.
Harmful to metals and textile fibres.
Due to imcomplete combustion of fuel of vehicles and smoking of cigarettes
smoke is produced in which carcinogen 3, 4 benzpyrene is present.
Hydrocarbon Due to incomplete combustion of fuel of vehicles and somking of cigarettes
smoke is produced in which carcinogen 3, 4 benzpyrene is present.
They break the tissues of plant, causes shedding of leaves, flowers and twigs.
CO It binds with haemoglobin of blood to form carboxyhaemoglobin complex which is
about 300 times more stable than the oxygenhaemoglobin complex. If the concen-
tration of this complex reaches to about 3 to 4% in blood, the oxygen carrying
capacity of blood reduces.
It causes headache, weak eyesight and cardiovascular disorder.
Smoking by pregnant woman results in increased level of CO in her blood which
may increase the possibility of premature birth, spontaneous abortion and a
defomed baby.
CO 2 Its level in normal atmosphere is 0.03%.
Plants decrease the level of CO2 in atmosphere by using CO2 in photosynthesis.
Due to increased use of fossil fuel and deforestation, by growing human popula-
tion to satisfy their greed, CO2 level is increasing in atomsphere, which is
responsible for global warming.
6. Which of the following component is present in troposhere ?

(A) Water vapour (B) All three (C) CO 2 (D) Argon
7. Molecular formual of 3-4 Benzpyrene is ...... .
(A) C10H12 (B) C20H12 (C) C12H20 (D) C12H10
8. Which gas is detected in smoke, produced due to incomplete combustion of petrol or disel ?
(A) CO (B) SO2 (C) NO 2 (D) CO2
9. Stratosphere is spread in the range of ...... km from the sea level.
(A) 0 to 10 (B) 10 to 25 (C) 10 to 50 (D) 40 to 50
10 . The component which is present in troposphere and also in stratosphere is ....... .
(A) O2 (B) N 2 (C) None of these (D) Both O2 and N2
11 . ....... in particulate pollutants ?
(A) Dust (B) Fumes (C) Smog (D) All of these
12 . By presence at low concentration of which gaseous pollutant causes swelling of respiratory tract ?
(A) SO× (B) CO2 (C) O 2 (D) N 2O
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13 . With the help of ...... conversion of SO2 into SO3 is possible.
(A) O3 (B) H2O2 (C) O2 (D) all three
14 . Which gases are present in excess amount as oxides of nitrogen in atmosphere ?
(A) N2O, NO, NO2 (B) N2O3, N2O4, N2O5 (C) N2O7, N2O5 (D) NO, N2O5, N2O7
15 . 3, 4-Benzpyrrene is ...... .
(A) oxide of nitrogen (B) oxide of sulphur (C) hydrocarbon (D) oxide of carbon
16 . ...... is carcinogen.
(A) Benzene (B) Benzpyrene
(C) Benzene and Benzpyrene (D) None of these
17 . Due to how much concentration of carboxyhaemoglobin, the oxygen carrying capacity of blood
reduces ?
(A) 0.1 and 1.0 % (B) 0.3 and 0.4 % (C) 3 and 4 % (D) 1.0 and 10 %
18 . Lower level of atmosphere is also known as
(A) Mesosphere. (B) Thermosphere. (C) Stratosphere. (D) Troposphere.
19 . Which gaseous inorganic pollutants are not present in troposphere ?
(A) Oxide of nitrogen (B) Oxide of phosphorus
(C) Oxide of sulphur (D) Oxide of carbon
20 . Due to presence of which gase in excess amount causes flower buds fall off from plants ?
(A) H2S (B) NO2 (C) SO2 (D) CO2
21 . Which pollutant is responsible for asthma, and irritation to eyes ?
(A) O2 (B) NO2 (C) CO2 (D) SO2
22 . Which pollutant reduces rate of photosynthesis ?
(A) NO2 (B) SO2 (C) CO2 (D) O3
23 . Which component is present in stratosphere ?
(A) CO2 (B) Ar (C) O3 (D) H 2O
24 . Which gas is poisonous for entire living organism ?
(A) O3 (B) CO2 (C) NO2 (D) SO2
25 . Mention the source of NO× .
(A) Hydrocarbon compounds (B) Combustion of dioxygen
(C) Photosynthesis reaction (D) Smoke of supersonic plane
26 . Which gas is highly toxic to living tissues ?
(A) H2 (B) N2 (C) O3 (D) O2
27 . Which gas is highly toxic to living tissues ?
(A) SO2 (B) NO2 (C) O3 (D) N2
28 . ...... gas is formed, used as fertilizer by oxidation of nitrogen dioxide.
(A) Nitrolium (B) Nitrate (C) Nitrite (D) Nitride
Answers : 6. (B), 7. (B), 8. (A), 9. (C), 10. (D), 11. (D), 12. (A), 13. (D), 14. (A),
15. (C), 16. (C), 17. (C), 18. (D), 19. (B), 20. (C), 21. (D), 22. (A), 23. (C),
24. (D), 25. (D), 26. (A), 27. (B), 28. (B)
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Global warming
Global (earth globe) and warming (increase in temperature) it means the phenomenon which
keeps earth warm = global warming or Green House Effect (Effect of plant growing house)
Gases contributing actively in global warming (e.g. methane, CO2, O3, Chloroflooro carbon,
nitrous oxide, water vapour etc.) are called green house gases, which acts as a covering
layer of earth.
Contribution of CO2, CH4, CFC, O3 N2O and H2O in global warming is respectively 50 %,
19%, 17 %, 8 %, 4 % and 2 %.
United Nations Intergovernmental panel on climate change has given the word Global
Warming Potential (GWP) for heat retaining capacity of green house gases.
The GWP based sequence of green house gases is as,
10,000 times 150 times 25 times
CFC > N2O > CH4 > CO2
This suggests that CH4 is 25 times stronger than CO2, N2O is 150 times stronger than CH4,
in terms of GWP. It means N2O has 3800 times and CFC has 380 lakh times stronger global
warming potential than CO2.
If there is disturbance in balance of natures green house then the temperature of earth
increases, as a result
increase in water level of sea due to melting of ice on the poles.
increase in average temperature of earth may increase the possibilities of contagious
diseases and also diseases like malaria, dengue, yellow fever
That is why it is essential to think about the remedies to control the increasing temperature
of earth.
29 . Which gas is green house gas ?

(A) CFC (B) N2O (C) CH4 (D) All three
30 . Which of the following is not green house gas ?
(A) Oxygen (B) Carbondioxide (C) Methane (D) Water vapour
31 . ...... causes green house effect.
(A) CO2 (B) NO (C) NO2 (D) CO
32 . In global warming, contribution of laughing gas is how many % ?
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 19 (D) 2
33 . In global warming, contribution of ozone is how many % more than CFC ?
(A) 15 % (B) 17 % (C) 9 % (D) 8 %
34 . Contribution ratio of O2, N2O and H2O in global warming is ...... .
(A) 2 : 2 : 1 (B) 4 : 2 : 1 (C) 4 : 2 : 2 (D) 1 : 2 : 4
35 . Contribution of ...... gas is lower and ....... gas is higher in global warming.
(A) H2O, CO2 (B) N2O, CFC (C) CO2, CFC (D) H2O, CH4
36 . Which is proper decreasing order of green house gases for contribution in global warming ?
(A) O3 > CO2 > CFC > CH4 (B) CO2 > O3 > CH4 > CFC
(C) CO2 > CH4 > CFC > O3 (D) O3 > CO2 > CH4 > CFC
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37 . Which order for green house gases is true based on GWP ?
(A) CFC > CO2 > N2O > CH4 (B) CFC > N2O > CO2 > CH4
(C) CFC > CH4 > N2O > CO2 (D) CFC > N2O > CH4 > CO2
38 . N2O has how many times more GWP than CFC ?
(A) 25th part (B) 10,000th part (C) 150th part (D) 38,000th part
39 . Chances of which disease increases due to green house effect ?
(A) Dengue (B) Malaria (C) Yellow fever (D) All of these
40 . In which of the following CFC is used ?
(A) In foam plastic cup (B) In airconditioner (C) In oil paints (D) All of these
41 . If green house effect is not present, then the temperature of earth would be ...... than the present
temperature.
(A) 30° C lesser (B) 30° C higher (C) double (D) half
42 . Which gas has half contribution than ozone in global warming ?
(A) H 2O (B) N2O (C) CFC (D) CH4
43 . In comparison to CO2 , CH4 possesses ...... time, N2O possesses ...... time and CFC possesses
...... time GWP.
(A) 25, 3800, 380 lakh (B) 3800, 38 lakh, 25 (C) 380 lakh, 3800, 25 (D) 38 lakh, 25,3800
Answers : 29. (C), 30. (A), 31. (A), 32. (B), 33. (C), 34. (B), 35. (A), 36. (C), 37. (D),
38. (B), 39. (D), 40. (D), 41. (A), 42. (B), 43. (A)
Acid-rain
The pH of rain water is about 5.6 because water reacts with CO2 of atmosphere and
produces carbonic acid (H2CO3).
When the pH of rain water becomes lower than 5.6 then it is called acid rain.
SO2 and NO2 released from burning of fossil fuel react with moisture of air and gets
converted into H2SO4 and HNO3 , which is responsible for acid rain.
It affects living organism, harmful to agriculture and also affects buildings made up of stones
and metals.
Implementation of Clean Air Law may protect from acid rain.
44 . When pH of rain water becomes less than ......, then it is called acid-rain.
(A) 5.6 (B) 13 (C) 1.6 (D) 7
45 . When pOH of rain water becomes greater than ......, then it is called acid rain.
(A) 7 (B) 1 (C) 7.4 (D) 12.4
46 . ...... acids are responsible for acid rain.
(A) HNO3, CH3COOH (B) H2SO4, HNO3 (C) HNO3, HCI (D) HCI, H2CO3
47 . Which main components are present for acid rain ?
(A) Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen (B) Oxide of carbon
(C) Oxides of carbon and nitrogen (D) Oxides of phosphurus and nitrogen
Answers : 44. (A), 45. (C), 46. (B), 47. (A)

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Particulate pollutants
They are minute solid particles or liquid droplets in air.
e.g., present in vehicle exhausts, smoke from fires, dust, ash etc.
Viable particulate pollutants : Bactaria, fungi, algae etc. microorganism spread in atmosphere.
Non-viable particulate pollutants : They are classified on the basis of their characteristics and size.
e.g., Smoke, dust, mist, fumes, smog.
Smog = smoke + fog
Classical Smog = smoke + fog + SO2

It is reducing mixture, that is why it is called reducing smog.
In 1952, such severe smog remained for several weeks in London. More than 4000
people died due to inhalation of the smog.
Photochemical smog
Warm and dry atmosphere + nitrogen oxide + hydrocarbons + Sun light
It contains higher concentration of oxidising agent. So, it is called oxidising smog.
It is found frequently in the automobile rich-city-Los Angeles (America). So it is called
as Los Angeles smog.
48 . Photochemical smog is produced by ...... .
(A) light falling on CO entering atmosphere.
(B) light falling on nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons entering in atmosphere.
(C) light falling on CO2 involved from vehicles.
(D) light falling on CO2 mixed in humid air.

49 . ...... is included in particulate type of pollutants.
(A) Smoke (B) Mist (C) Fumes (D) All three
50 . Classical smog is a mixture of ......
(A) smoke + fog + SO2 (B) smoke + fog + CO2
(C) smoke + CO2 + SO2 (D) smoke + fog

51 . What is the diameter of solid particles in smog ?
(A) 101 meter (B) 102 meter (C) 104 meter (D) 106 meter
52 . Oxidising smog is ...... .
(A) photochemical smog (B) biochemical smog
(C) classical smog (D) london smog
53 . In polluted air, NO2 and O3 reacts with unburnt hydrocarbons and ......
(A) peroxyacetyl nitrate (B) all three
(C) formaldehyde (D) acroline
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54 . Which of the following size of particulate causes diseases related to lungs ?
(A) 106 meter (B) 104 meter (C) 102 meter (D) 101 meter
55 . In which type of atmosphere classical smog is produced ?
(A) Dry humid and natural humid atmosphere (B) Dry humid atmosphere
(C) Natural humid atmosphere (D) Cooled humid atmosphere
56 . From which of the following London smog is formed ?
(A) Smoke produced due to combustion of fuel and carbon oxide.
(B) Smoke produced due to combustion of fuel and sulphur dioxide.
(C) Smoke produced due to combustion of fuel and nitrogen oxide.
(D) Smoke produced due to combustion of fuel and water vapour.
57 . Which is responsible for brown colour photochemical smog ?
(A) CH3COONO2 (B) CH2=CHCH=O (C) NO (D) NO2
58 . Which is viable particulate pollutant ?
(A) Smoke (B) Fumes (C) Algae (D) Dust
59 . Mention non-viable particulate pollutant.
(A) mist (B) fungi (C) algae (D) microganism
60 . Natural spray of liquid produced by condensation of vapour present in air is called ......
(A) Smoke (B) dust (C) mist (D) fumes
61 . What size of particulate causes diseases by reaching easily to lungs ?
(A) 5 m (B) 1.5 m (C) 1 m (D) 2 m
62 . Which is present in photochemical smog ?
(A) Organic compounds (B) Inorganic gases
(C) None of these (D) Both (A) and (B)
63 . Which of the following component creates accute irritation in eyes ?
(A) Ozone and peroxyacetylnitrate (B) Nitric oxide
(C) Formaldehyde (D) Ozone
64 . For controlling formation of photochemical smog, which components must be controled ?
(A) O3 (B) NO2
(C) Peroxyacetylnitrate (D) All of these
Answers : 48. (B), 49. (D), 50. (A), 51. (D), 52. (A), 53. (B), 54. (A), 55. (D), 56. (B),
57. (D), 58. (C), 59. (A), 60. (C), 61. (C), 62. (D), 63. (A), 64. (D)
Stratospheric pollution
Ozone layer = layer of ozone in upper region of stratosphere :
It protects all living beings against harmful effect of ultraviolet radiations coming from
sunlight.
Depletion of ozone layer :
In 1980, over Antarctica 30% loss was in ozone layer recorded
Substances harming or making ozone layer thin are called ODS (Ozon Depletion
Substances).
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One molecule of CFC = Depletion of one lakh O3 molecules.
95 derivatives of chloro or bromo fluoro carbon are known which are commonly known
as ODS.
93 countries have accepted not to use ODS by signing Montreal protocal on 16th
september, 1987.
At international level 16th September y Ozone protection Day
Depletion Effects :
Ultraviolet radiations of sunlight enter directly on the earth causes skin cancer, harmful
genetic changes in cell.
Reduces moisture level in solid and fish production.
Remedies to protect depletion of Ozone layer :
By spraying chemical compounds of alkane series in atmosphere.
Decreasing the production of CFC upto 50%.
Forming more of polar stratospheric clouds.
Preventing the use of ODS.
65 . Which of the following is responsible for depletion of ozone layer ?

(A) Feraline (B) Freon (C) Polyhalogen (D) Fullarine
66 . By ...... depletion of ozone layer occurs.
(A) CF2Cl2 (B) C7F16 (C) C6H6 (D) C6H5Cl

67 . How many derivatives of CFC or BFC are known as ODS ?
(A) 59 (B) 95 (C) 56 (D) 65
68 . ODS is used in ......
(A) fire extinguishers (B) refrigerator (C) watercooler (D) all three
69 . Ultraviolet radiations break CFC and produce ......
(A) O • (B) ClO•3 (C) Cl• (D) F •
70 . Chlorine free radical reacts with ozone and forms ...... free radical.
(A) Cl2O•7 (B) ClO• (C) ClO•3 (D) Cl2
71 . Which free radical is responsible for depletion of ozone layer ?
(A) ClO • (B) BrO • (C) Cl• (D) O •
72 . Reaction of ...... with O3 concentration of ozone decreases upto 40%..
(A) NO × (B) SO× (C) ClO • (D) Cl•

73 . ...... gas is produced by the reaction of nitric oxide with ozone.
(A) NO3, N2 (B) NO, N2 (C) NO, O2 (D) NO2, O2

74 . ...... gas is obtained by the reaction of nitrogen dioxide with ozone.
(A) NO3, O2 (B) NO2, O2 (C) NO2, N2 (D) N2O, N2

453
75 . Chlorofluro carbon is used in
(A) production of electric circuits (B) foam plastic cup
(C) oil paints (D) all of these
76 . Which of the following is the remedie to protect depletion of ozone layer ?
(A) Decreasing the production of CFC upto 50% (B) Both (A) and (C)
(C) Preventing the use of ODS (D) By producing more CO gas
77 . The possibility of which type of diseases is increased due to depletion of ozone ?
(A) Blood cancer (B) Chest cancer (C) Skin cancer (D) Lungs cancer
78 . Due to decrease in amount of polar stratospheric clouds, deleption of ozone layer ......
(A) decreases (B) increases
(C) does not occur (D) decreases or increases
Answers : 65. (B), 66. (A), 67. (B), 68. (D), 69. (C), 70. (B), 71. (C), 72. (A), 73. (D),
74. (A), 75. (D), 76. (B), 77. (C), 78. (B)
Water pollution
97% of all available water on earth is present in sea, 2% water is present in the form of ice
in polar regions and only 1% water is left for utilization by human beings.
Water stored in river, pond, spring and dam is called surface water while water stored in
well, stepwell is called ground water.
When pollutants enter into surface water and ground water, it is called water pollutants.
World Health Organization (WHO) at world level and BIS and ICMR at India level have
prescribed standards for quality of drinking water.
Standard prescribed by BIS in 1991 for deciding the quality of drinking water.
Characteristics Desirable limit Diseases caused due the excess or less amount
pH 6.5 to 8.5 More than 8.5, then effect of chlorination decreases less than
6.5, then harmful metals of pipes mixed in water.
Total Dissolved 500 ppm If it increases, then it causes irritation in stomach and
Solids (TDS) intestine.
Total Hardness 300 ppm If it increases, then regular intake of such water causes
CaCO3 possibilites of heart disease.
Nitrate 45 ppm If it is higher, then it causes blue baby diseases in children.
Chloride 250 ppm If it is higher, then harmful metals mixed in water due to
corrosion of pipes
Sulphate 200 ppm If it is higher, then it causes diarrhoea and irritation in stomach.
Fluoride 1 ppm If it is higher, then it causes diseases related to teeth and
bones. Higher than 2 ppm, then brown mottling of teeth occurs
and higher than 10 ppm, then it causes fluorosis diseases.
Escherichia Coli Should be absent
Coliforms Bacteria 10 per 100 ml If it is higher, then it results swelling in stomach and intenstine
and urinary tract diseases.
Purification of drinking water :
Based on analysis of drinking water, three methods are used in purificatoin.
(1) Chemical method : By chemical reactions.
(2) Physical method : By physical methods
(3) Biological method : Boiling, adding of O3 and Cl2.
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79 . Which disease is possible, when concentration of nitrate is higher than 45 ppm ?
(A) Newmoglobinemia (B) Metheongluconemia
(C) Newmoconiasis (D) Metheomoglobinemia
80 . ...... quantity is responsible for fluorosis diseases through drinking water.
(A) F 1 ppm (B) F more than 0 ppm
(C) F more than 1 ppm (D) F less than 1 ppm
81 . If pH of water increases to ......, chlorination effect is reduced in water.
(A) 8.5 (B) 5.8 (C) 6.5 (D) 5.6
82 . ...... among the following is responsible for water pollution ?
(A) Smog (B) Industrial wastes (C) Sodium chloride (D) Fungi
83 . Which metal pollutes water ?
(A) Na (B) K (C) Cd (D) None of these
84 . By which method pollution of water can be controlled ?
(A) Adsorption method (B) Ion exchange method
(C) Reverse osmosis (D) All of these
85 . ...... number of coliforms bacteria in 100 ml drinking water causes urinary tract diseases.
(A) More than 1 (B) Less than 1 (C) More than 10 (D) Less than 10
86 . Which are the main pollutants of water ?
(A) Sewage and domestic waste water (B) Industrial waste water
(C) Waste water of agriculture (D) All of these
87 . Which ion cannot be removed from hard water by ion exchange resin ?
(A) Mg2+ (B) Cl (C) SO2–

4
(D) Na +
88 . Which method is easy, safe and reliable to make germ free drinking water ?
(A) By Boiling of water (B) By passing ultraviolet rays
(C) By water purification machine (D) By passing chlorine gas
89 . Which is the proper method to make the water germfree effectively and rapidly ?
(A) By passing chlorine gas (B) By boiling water
(C) By use of ultraviolet rays (D) By passing ozone gas
90 . How much bleaching powder is necessary for chlorination of one litre water ?
(A) 5 gram (B) 0.5 gram (C) 50 gram (D) 500 gram
91 . If concentraction of fluoride in drinking water is ...... then brown patches are created on teeth.
(A) more than 1 ppm (B) more than 0.1 ppm (C) more than 2 ppm (D) more than 0.2 ppm
92 . The size of pore of semipermeable membrane used in reverse osmosis is ...... .
(A) 0.1 m (B) 0.005 m (C) 0.001 m (D) 0.0001 m
93 . ...... is essential for strength of bones and teeth.
(A) Chloride (B) Fluoride (C) Sulphate (D) Sodium chloride
Answers : 79. (D), 80. (B), 81. (A), 82. (B), 83. (C), 84. (D), 85. (C), 86. (D), 87. (D),
88. (A), 89. (D), 90. (A), 91. (C), 92. (D), 93. (B)
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Soil Pollution
The thin layer covering the matrix surface of earth is called soil.
In which there are organic components obtained due to decomposition of waste from
organisms, in organic components obtained by physical and chemical reaction occuring since
thousands of years.
Reasons for pollution in soil
Non judicial use of artificial fertilizers Non judicial use of insectides
Burning of solid waste Deforestation
Remedies to prevent soil pollution
Increase to prevent soil pollution Use of organic methods to control insects
Recycling of solid waste Detoxification of industrial waste
Growing more trees
94 . Regular use of which fertilizer increases acidity of soil ?
(A) Ammonium sulphate (B) Potassium Nitrate
(C) Super phosphate of lime (D) Urea
95 . Uses of DDT on crop causes which pollution ?
(A) Air (B) Soil and air (C) Soil and water (D) Air and water
96 . Main reason for the soil pollution is
(A) Deforestration (B) Indiscriminate use of pesticides
(C) Given all (D) Dumping of solid wastes in soil
97 . Which element is present as impurity in artificial fertilizers ?
(A) As (B) Pb (C) Cd (D) Given all
98 . Which side effect is seen on soil by using artificial fertilizer like NPK ?
(A) Decreas the capacity of water absorption (B) Soil becomes hard
(C) Production of crop and vagetables decreases (D) Given all three
99 . Which of the following is a natural fertilizer ?
(A) Rhizobium (B) Azotobacter (C) Compost (D) Algea
100 . Which is natural fertilizer ?
(A) Farmyard manrure (B) Rhizobium
(C) Azotobacters (D) Rhizobium and azotobacter both
101 . Which fungi is well known insecticide ?
(A) Tridairma (B) Trichoderma (C) Betracosperm (D) Oseletoriya
102 . Extract of which leaves is not act as insecticide ?
(A) Neem (B) AK (C) Dhatura (D) Lemon
103 . Which herbicides is poisionous for the animals ?
(A) Sodium chlorate (B) A and C both. (C) Sodium arsenite (D) Sodium chloride
Answers : 94. (A), 95. (C), 96. (C), 97. (D), 98. (C), 99. (C), 100. (D), 101. (B), 102. (D), 103. (B)
456
Pollution due to unavoidable unnecessary wastes of industries
Necessary wastes of industries polute the environment.
Different industries : petrolium, paper and pulp, leather, sugar, electroplating and metal
refining, detergent, pesticides, fertilizer, thermal power and dairy etc.
When the industrial waste is in liquid form then to measure the amount of organic waste in
it, two types of measures are used.
(1) BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) :
During their biochemical reactions amount of dissolved oxygen utilized by becteria is called
BOD.
To measure BOD the sample of liquid waste is kept at 293 K temperature for 5 days.
On the basis of difference between amounts of dissolved oxygen on the fifth day an on the
first day, the amount of dissolved oxygen used up by bacteria for degradation of organic
material of waste sample can be determined. This is known as BOD for liquid waste.
(2) COD (Chemical Oxygen Demand) :
The amount of dissolved oxygen required for oxidation of all the organic materials present in
liquid waste is known as COD.
To measure the COD, mixture of potassium dichromate and concentrated sulphuric acid are used.
This measurement requires only 2-3 hours.
The COD value is higher than BOD for the same liquid waste.
The unit of COD and BOD is ppm or mgL1.
104 . Methyl mercaptan is the waste product of which industry ?

(A) Plastic industry (B) Pesticide industry
(C) Paper and pulp industry (D) Dairy industry
105 . Ions of Hg, Ag and Pb are waste product of ...... .
(A) Dairy industry (B) Ferilizer industry
(C) Pesticide industry (D) Electroplating industry
106 . Salts of Cr and As are waste product of ....... industry.
(A) leather (B) metal refining
(C) thermal power (D) detergent
107 . In which industry waste product are phenolic compounds and suspended solid ?
(A) Sugar (B) Paper and pulp (C) Detergent (D) Petrolium
108 . Which industry is responsible for presence of fly ash in atmosphere ?
(A) Thermal power (B) Fertilizer (C) Detergent (D) Petrolium
109 . Unit of BOD is ...... .
(A) mgml1 (B) mmL1 (C) gL 1 (D) mgL1
110 . The measurement of COD requires ...... time.
(A) 2-3 hours (B) 5 hours (C) 2 - 5 hours (D) 2 - 3 days
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111. Amount of organic material which can be degraded by bacteria in liquid waste ...... is useful to know
the amount.
(A) COD (B) BOD (C) GWP (D) ODS

112 . H2S gas is waste product of which industry ?
(A) Sugar (B) Petrolium (C) Electroplating (D) Given all
113 . Waste water produced by sugar industry becomes black in colour smells bad due to ...... .
(A) production of phenolic compounds (B) production of H2S
(C) production of CO2 (D) production of aromatic compounds
114 . To measure BOD, the sample of liquids waste is kept at ...... temperature for ...... days.
(A) 5, 293 K (B) 3, 293 K (C) 5, 298 K (D) 3, 298 K
Answers : 104. (C), 105. (D), 106. (A), 107. (D), 108. (A), 109. (D), 110. (A), 111. (B),
112. (D), 113. (B), 114. (A)
Remedies to control environmental pollution
By controlling the main source of pollution controlling of environmental pollution becomes
easy.
(1) Household waste :
Biodegradable and non-biodegradable materials of household waste should be kept separate.
Compost can be prepared from biodegradable waste.
Nonbiodegradable substances should be recycled.
(2) Exhaust smoke of vehicles :
A person should check the amount of gases present in the smoke of his/her vehicle and
regular service of the vehicles is also necessary.
(3) Industrial waste :
Air pollution controlling devices should be arranged to control the air pollutants like
suspended particles, sulpher dioxide, ammonia, chlorine, hydrogen chloride hydrogen sulphide
etc. released in the air by industries.
Wearing gasmask is beneficial.
The industry should make effluent treatment plants either individually or collectively.
(4) Biomedical Waste :
To make germfree, biomedical waste should be burnt or dumped in soil based on its
characteristics for its removal.
115 . Which of the following is non-biodegradable component ?
(A) glass (B) rotten vagetables (C) edible substances (D) paper
116 . Which one is biodegradable compound ?
(A) Edible compounds (B) Given all (C) Paper (D) Cardboards
117 . Which solid waste can be recycled ?
(A) plastic (B) Glass (C) Paper (D) Given all
118 . In metro cities air is polluted due to ...... .
(A) combustion of coal (B) household waste
(C) combustion of cooking gas (D) exhaust smoke of vehicles.
Answers : 115. (A), 116. (B), 117. (D), 118. (D)
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Green Chemistry
Green chemistry y Environmentaly favourable chemical synthesis
Nobel prize for synthesis of new chemicals based on green chemistry was awared to Yves
Chauvin, Robert H Grubbs and Richard R Schrok.
Twelve principles formulated for green chemistry on the basis of works done by Paul T.
Anastar for development of green chemistry.
Green chemistry in day-to-day life :
(1) Tetrachloro ethene was used earlier as solvent for dry cleaning of clothes. It pollutes ground
water and is carcinogenic. For this liquidfied carbon dioxide with suitable detergent is used
for drycleaning instead of tetrachloroethene. The use of hydrogen peroxide as bleaching
agent for washing of clothes has increased which produces good results using lesser amount
of water.
(2) In bleaching of paper :For good quality of paper it is essential to remove its lignin
completely. Most of the lignin is removed during production of paper. Chlorine gas is being
used for removal of remaining lignin. But chlorine gas forms dioxins by reaction with
aromatic rings of lignin, which is a potential carcinogenic compound. Hence, for bleaching of
paper, hydrogen peroxide in presence of suitable catalyst is being used today.
119 . Which statement is not suitable for principles of green chemistry ?

(A) Production of hazardous chemicals should be removed.
(B) Use of protecting group should be increased.
(C) Most appropriate solvent should be selected.
(D) Production of softer chemicals should be aimed.
120 . Which compound was used earlier for dry cleaning of clothes ?
(A) Cl2C=CCl2 (B) C2H5Cl (C) CH2=CH-CH2-Cl (D) CCl4
121 . Which compound is used as bleaching agent for washing of clothes ?
(A) H2O (B) Ca(HCO3)2 (C) NaHCO 3 (D) H2O2
122 . Where CO2(l) is used ?
(A) In bleaching of paper (B) In dry cleaning of clothes
(C) In soda water (D) None of these
123 . Now a days which compound is used for bleaching of paper ?
(A) Cl2 (B) bleaching powder (C) H2O2 (D) HClO4
124 . ...... gas forms ...... by reaction with aromatic rings of lignin.
(A) Cl2, dioxins (B) H2O2, dioxins (C) Cl2, trioxins (D) H2O2, troixins
125 . Now a days which is safe compound to remove lignin from paper ?
(A) Liquified CO2 (B) Chlorine (C) Hydrogen peroxide (D) Dioxins
126 . Dioxins are ...... .
(A) carcinogen (B) bleaching agent (C) oxidising agent (D) none of these
127 . Which of the following is used as bleaching agent ?
(A) Cl2 (B) H2O2 (C) A and B (D) None of these
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128 . For the following statement T stands for true and F for false. Then select the correct choice
from given choices :
(1) PHBV is a biodegradable compound. (2) Dextran is a nonbiodegradable compound
(3) DDT is a biodegradable compounds. (4) Compost is a biodegradable compound
(A) TFFT (B) TTFF (C) TFTF (D) FTFT
(1) Plant obtains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen from air and water.
(2) Plant absorbs N, P, K and Ca from soil.
(3) Mixed fertilizer contains Ammonium nitrate, phosphorous (as PCl5) and potassium (as KO2).
(4) The excess use of NPK in soil reduces production of crops and vegetables.
(A) TFTF (B) TTFT (C) TTTT (D) TTFT
(1) Ozone layer prevents the entry of infrared radiation of sunlight on earth.
(2) Acid rains is mainly due to oxides of nitrogen and sulphur.
(3) CCl4 is the reason for depletion of ozone layer.
(4) Green chemistry is responsible for globle warning.
(A) FFTT (B) FTTF (C) TTFF (D) TTFT
(1) Five days are required for COD measurement.
(2) Amount of inorganic materials present in liquid waste can be determined by measurement
of COD.
(3) COD is measured by use of mixture of reducing agent.
(4) Unit of BOD is mg l1 .
(A) FTFT (B) TFTF (C) TTTF (D) TFFF
(1) Teeth and bones of a person becomes weak due to fluorosis diseases.
(2) If concentration of fluoride exceeds 10 ppm it causes fluorosis dissases.
(3) Muscles of stomach become weak due to fluorosis diseases.
(4) If fluoride is higher than 2 ppm then it causes fluorosis diseases.
(A) TFFF (B) TTTF (C) FFFT (D) TTFF
(1) Oxidising smog is produced in warm, dry and sunny climate.
(2) Oxidising smog is a mixture of smoke, fog and sulphur dioxide gas.
(3) Classical smog is known as Los Angeles smog.
(4) Los Angeles smog is reducing agent.
(A) TTFF (B) TFFF (C) TFTF (D) TTFT
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(1) If the concentration of fluoride is higher than 2 ppm, then brown mottling of teeth occurs.
(2) If the concentration of Nitrate is higher than 45 ppm causes blue baby diseases.
(3) If the concentration of chloride is higher than 250 ppm causes irritation in stomach.
(4) If the concentration of sulphate is higher than 20 ppm causes irritation in stomach.
(A) TFTF (B) FFTT (C) FFFF (D) TTFF
(1) SO2 is poisonous to animals only.
(2) SO2 causes irritation to eyes.
(3) The reduction of SO2 without catalyst is slow.
(4) Air acts as catalyst and converts SO2 into SO3.
(A) FTFF (B) FFFT (C) FFTT (D) FTFT
(1) Compost is a natural fertilizer.
(2) Algae is a biofertilizer.
(3) Solid waste dumped in soil reduces soil fertility.
(4) H2S gas mixes in atmosphere due to sugar industry.
(A) TTTT (B) FFTT (C) FTTF (D) FTTT
(1) Today Cl2C = CCl2 is used in dry cleaning of clothes.
(2) Most of lignin is removed in process of paper production.
(3) Use of protecting group should be avoided whenever possible-green chemistry.
(4) For some liquids waste COD > BOD.
(A) FFTF (B) FTTT (C) FTTF (D) FFTT
(1) Natural degradation of agriculture waste requires 150 to 180 days.
(2) The region which is above the troposphere and between 10000 to 50000 metres from the
sea level is known as stratosphere.
(3) In congested area the irritation red-hazy environment is produced due to NO×.
(4) (CO + heamoglobin) is 30 times more stable than (O2 + heamoglobin).
(5) GWP of Nitrous oxide 3800 times more than CO2.
(6) By photosynthesis during a year, 1600 crore tons CO2 is removed from atmosphere and
2200 crore tons O2 is added.
(A) FFTFTF (B) TFFFTF (C) TFTFTF (D) TFTFFF
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139 . Match part 1 and part 2 select correct choice :
Part-1 Part-2
(1) The lowest region of atomosphere is known as ...... (a) Argon
(2) Rapidly degradable polutant is ...... (b) Azone
(3) Gas present in Troposhphere is ...... (c) Stratosphere
(d) Troposphere
(e) DDT
(f) Discarded vegetables.
(A) (1)(c), (2)(e), (3)(a) (B) (1)(c), (2)(d), (3)(a)
(C) (1)(c), (2)(b), (3)(a) (D) (1)(d), (2)(f), (3)(b)
Part-1 Part-2
(1) Biodegradable waste (a) Should be burnt
(2) Non biodegradable waste (b) Compost can be prepared
(3) Air pollution created by smoke (c) Regular service of the vehicles
(4) Biomedical waste (d) Should be recycled
(A) (1)(b), (2)(d), (3)(c), (4)(a) (B) (1)(d), (2)(c), (3)(a), (4)(b)
(C) (1)(a), (2)(b), (3)(d), (4)(c) (D) (1)(c), (2)(a), (3)(b), (4)(c)
Part-1 (Industry) Part-2 (Unavoidable unnecessary waste)

(1) Sugar industry (a) Organic aromatic compounds
(2) Detergent industry (b) Phenolic compounds
(3) Fertilizer industry (c) Compounds like fly ash
(4) Pesticide industry (d) Organic compounds having log chain
(e) Containt such as arsenic
(f) Hydrogen sulphide gas
(A) (1)(b), (2)(d), (3)(f), (4)(a) (B) (1)(f), (2)(d), (3)(e), (4)(a)
(C) (1)(f), (2)(d), (3)(a), (4)(c) (D) (1)(a), (2)(c), (3)(d), (4)(f)
Part-1 limit Part-2 effect on body

(1) Sulphate more than 200 ppm (a) Teeth and bones of a person become weak
(2) Fluoride more than 2 ppm (b) Heart disease
(3) Fluoride more than 10 ppm (c) Irritation in stomach
(4) Nitrate more than 45 ppm (d) Brown patches on teeth occurs
(e) Blue baby disease
(f) Irritation in intenstine
(A) (1)(c), (2)(a), (3)(d), (4)(b) (B) (1)(d), (2)(a), (3)f, (4)(e)
(C) (1)(d), (2)(c), (3)(a), (4)(e) (D) (1)(c), (2)(d), (3)(a), (4)(e)
462
Part-1 pollutant Part-2 Harmful effect
(1) Carbon monoxide (a) Carcinogen
(2) NO 31 (b) Bluebaby disease
(3) Fluoride (c) Headache and cardio vascular disorder
(4) 3, 4 Benzpyrene (d) Decreases the rate of photosynthesis
(e) Fluorosis disease
(f) Irritation in stomach
(A) (1)(d), (2)(b), (3)(e), (4)(a) (B) (1)(d), (2)(f), (3)(e), (4)(a)
(C) (1)(c), (2)(b), (3)(e), (4)(a) (D) (1)(c), (2)(b), (3)(f), (4)(a)
Part-1 Sources Part-2 Pollutant

(1) Sewage water (a) Micro organism
(2) Chemical fertilizer (b) Plant nutrients
(3) Chemical used for killing insect, fungi and weeds (c) Heavy metal
(4) Mining of uranium containing minerals (d) Pesticides
(5) Heavy metal producing chemical factories (e) Pesticides
(6) Erosion of soil by agriculture and stripmining (f) Radio active substances
(A) (1)(a), (2)(b), (3)(c), (4)(d), (5)(e), (6)(f)
(B) (1)(a), (2)(b), (3)(e), (4)(f), (5)(c), (6)(d)
(C) (1)(a), (2)(b), (3)(c), (4)(e), (5)(f), (6)(d)
(D) (1)(a), (2)(d), (3)(e), (4)(f), (5)(d), (6)(c)
One or more than one correct choice MCQ :
145 . Which of the following is responsible for producing photochemical smog ?
(A) NO (B) CO (C) Hydrocarbon (D) SO2
146 . Which of the following is incorrect statement ?
(A) NO is more harmful than NO2.
(B) SO2 is more harmful than SO3.
(C) There is mainly HNO3 in acid rain.
(D) There is mainly H2SO4 and less amount of HCl and HNO3 in acid rain.
147 . Which of the following is responsible for depletion of ozon layer ?
(A) PAN (B) CO2 (C) Freon (D) NO
148 . H2S gas is produced as waste of which industry ?
(A) Dairy industry (B) Sugar industry
(C) Petrolium industry (D) Electroplating industry
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149 . If concentration of chloride in water is higher than ...... it causes corrosion of pipes used for its
distribution and results in higher amount of harmful metal in drinking water.
(A) 250 ppm (B) 7.042 ml mole litre1
(C) 7.042 × 103 mole litre1 (D) 0.025 % W

V
150 . Which statements is incorrect ?
(A) Herbicides like NaClO3 and Na3AsO4 are harmful for animals.
(B) Mixed fertilizer contains NH4NO2, P2O5 and K2O.
W
(C) Prepared 0.5% V bleaching powder solution to make water germ free.
(D) Semipermible membrane having 0.001 m pore size are available.
151 . Which statements are correct for green chemistry ?
(A) Production of hazardous chemicals should be prevented.
(B) Appropriate solvent should be selelcted.
(C) Use of protecting group should be avoided whenever possible.
(D) Obtained product should be nonbiodegradable.
152 . Which is not suitable ?
(A) Sodium arsentate-herbicide - poisonous for mamals.
(B) Sodium chlorate-herbicide - poisonous effect on rabbit.
(C) Reproduction of 1 ten paper 71 trees can be saved.
(D) Chlorine gas + lignin - diotoxin - carcinogen.
153 . Uint of COD and BOD is
(A) ppm (B) ml mole litre1 (C) mg litre1 (D) parts per mili
154 . Which statements are incorrect ?
(A) Utraviolet radiations of sunlight causes harmful genetic changes in cell.
(B) Ozone is responsible for harmful genetic changes in cell.
(C) To increase the protein content of wheat, maize and grams grown we have to use NPK
fertilizer.
(D) Use of natural fertilizer like farmyard manure and rhizobium should be increased.
155 . ....... reduces the effect of chlorination which is used to make the water germ free.
(A) pH value of water that exceds 8.5
(B) pOH value of water is more than 5.5
(C) concentration of H+ is more than 3.2 × 1010 M
(D) concentration of H+ is less than 3.2 × 1010 M
Answers : 119. (B), 120. (A), 121. (D), 122. (B), 123. (C), 124. (A), 125. (C), 126. (A),
127. (C), 128. (A), 129. (B), 130. (C), 131. (D), 132. (A), 133. (B), 134. (C),
135. (D), 136. (A), 137. (B), 138. (C), 139. (D), 140. (A), 141. (B), 142. (D),
143. (C), 144. (B), 145. (A), (C), 146. (A), (B), (C), 147. (C), (D), 148. (B),
(C), (D), 149. (A), (B), (C), (D), 150. (A), (B), 151. (A), (D), 152. (A), (C),
(D), 153. (A), (C), 154. (B), (C), (D), 155. (A), (B), (C).
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Purification and Characterisation of
19 Organic Compounds
After extracting organic compounds from natural sources or synthesizing in laboratory it is
essential to purify them.
General Methods of Purification of Organic Compounds
Various methods of purification of organic compounds are employed based on nature of compound
and impurities present in it. Generally, following purification methods are used :
Sublimation : Certain substances when heated directly converts into vapour state without changing
into liquid state and when these vapours are cooled they convert directly into solid state.
Substances like camphor, napthalene, anthracene, ammonium chloride and iodine can be purified by
this method.
Crystallisation : This method is useful for the purification of organic compounds in solid state.
This method is based on the difference in the solubilities of the compound and the impurities in a suitable
solvent.
Simple Distillation : This method is used to separate non-volatile impurities from volatile liquids.
This method is also used when there is sufficient difference (30 K-50 K) in the boiling points of two
liquids.
For example, separation of a mixture of aniline (boiling point 457 K) and chloroform (boiling point
334 K) can be carried out by distillation.
Fractional Distillation : This method is useful for separation when there is a very small
difference in boiling points (10 K - 15 K) of two volatile liquids.
For example, separation of a mixture of acetone (boiling point 329 K) and methanol (boiling point
338 K) is done by fractional distillation.
Distillation Under Reduced Pressure : This method is useful for purification of liquids having
very high boiling points and those, which decompose at or below their boiling points. For example, glycerol
is separated from spent lye in soap industry by this method.
Steam Distillation : This method is useful for substances which are immiscible with water and
steam volatile.
For example, Aniline is separated by this method from mixture of aniline and water.
Differential Extraction : A process of separating organic compound present in an aqueous
medium by shaking it with an organic solvent in which it is more soluble than in water is called
differential extraction.
For example, benzoic acid can be extracted from its aqueous solution using a solvent like benzene.
Chromatography : This method is useful to separate mixtures into their components, purify
compounds and to test the purity of compounds.
1. Spectroscopy method is used for which of the following ?

(A) For purification of substance (B) To detect purity of substance
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
2. Which method is used for the separation of a mixture of iodine and salt into its components ?
(A) Sublimation (B) Crystallisation
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the (A) and (B)
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3. Suitable solvent in crystallisation means.
(A) cheap and easily available solvent.
(B) a solvent in which a substance is fairly soluble at room temperature.
(C) a solvent in which a substance is insoluble at low temperature.
(D) a solvent in which a substance is sparingly soluble at room temperature but fairly soluble
at high temperature.
4. Which method is used for separation of volatile liquids and non volatile impurities ?
(A) Crystallisation (B) Distillation (C) Solvent extraction (D) All of the given
5. Which method is used for the separation of a mixture of sodium sulphate and sodium
dichromate ?
(A) Fractional crystallisation (B) Sublimation
(C) Simple distillation (D) Steam distillation
6. Which method will be used for the separation of a mixture of hexane (boiling point 342 K)
and toluene (boiling point 384 K) ?
(A) Simple distillation (B) Fractional distillation
(C) Steam distillation (D) Distillation under reduced pressure
7. Which method is useful for the purification of essential oils obtained from plants ?
8. In which method oil bath is used ?
9. Which one is the use of chromatography ?
(A) In separation (B) In purification (C) To test purity (D) All the given
10. Which method will be used for separation of a mixture of acetone and ethanol ?
(A) Simple distillation (B) Fractional distillation(C) Crystallisation (D) Sublimation
11. Which method is used to separate a mixture of ortho and para anilines ?
(A) Simple distillation (B) Chromatography
(C) Fractional Crystallisation (D) None of the given
12. Which of the following substance is used as adsorbent in adsorption chromatography ?
(A) Alumina (B) Silica-gel
13. To which the terms stationary phase and mobile phase are associated ?
(A) Distillation under reduced pressure (B) Chromatography
(C) Spectroscopy (D) Differential Extraction
14. Which substance is used to detect amino acid adsorbed on chromatographic plate ?
(A) Ethanol (B) Schiff-reagent (C) Ninhydrin solution (D) Osazone
15. In gas chromatography,
(A) Solid and liquid is stationary phase and gas is mobile phase.
(B) Only solid is stationary phase and gas is mobile phase.
(C) Only soild is stationary phase and liquid is mobile phase.
(D) Gas is stationary phase and gas is also a mobile phase.
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16. Which of the following method can be used to purify impure glycerine ?
(A) Steam distillation (B) Simple distillation
(C) Distillation under reduced pressure (D) Solvent extraction
17. Which method is used for the purification of aniline ?
(A) Steam distillation (B) Simple distillation
(C) Distillation under reduced pressure (D) Solvent extraction
18. Azeotropic mixture means
(A) mixture boiling at different temperatures (B) mixture of solid substances
(C) Constant boiling mixture (D) None of the given
19. In which of the following aqueous solution a mixture of benzoic acid and phenol will be completely
soluble ?
(A) HCl (B) NaOH (C) NaCl (D) NaHCO 3
20. Which solution is used for the separation of a mixture of phenol and aromatic carboxylic acid ?
(A) NaOH (B) Na2CO3 (C) CaO (D) NaHCO 3
21. Which method will be useful for the separation of a mixture of benzene and chloro benzene ?
(A) Sublimation (B) Seperatory funnel (C) Crystallisation (D) Distillation
22. Which method is the most suitable for the detection of cyclohexanone from a mixture containing
benzoic acid, iso amyl alcohol, cyclohexane and cyclohexanone ?
(A) Crystallisation (B) IR Spectroscopy (C) Sublimation (D) Evaporation
Answers : 1. (B), 2. (C), 3. (D), 4. (B), 5. (A), 6. (A), 7. (D), 8. (B), 9. (D), 10. (B),
11. (B), 12. (C), 13. (B), 14. (C), 15. (A), 16. (C), 17. (A), 18. (C), 19. (B),
20. (D), 21. (D), 22. (B)
Qualitative Analysis of Organic Compounds
Mainly elements like carbon and hydrogen are present in organic compounds. In addition to this, they
also contain elements like N, S, P and X. A Lassaigne test is used for the detection of these elements.
No. Test Observation Inference

(1) L.S. + FeSO4 + Conc. H2SO4 Prussian blue ppt N - Present
(2) L.S. + Sodium nitroprusside Violet colour S - Present
(3) L.S. + CH3COOH + (CH3COO)2 Pb Black ppt S - Present
(4) L.S. + HNO3 + AgNO3 White ppt Cl - Present
Soluble in NH4OH
Yellow ppt Br - Present
Sparingly soluble in NH4OH
Yellow ppt I - Present
Insoluble in NH4OH
(5) L.S. + Conc. HNO3 + Ammonium molybdate Yellow ppt P - Present
23. An organic substance was heated with Cu(II)O and the gaseous mixture obtained when passed
through anhydrous copper sulphate is turned blue in colour. Which of the following element is
definitely present in this organic substance ?
(A) Br (B) F (C) N (D) H
467
24. With which substance organic compound is heated to detect C and H present in it ?
(A) Ca(OH) 2 (B) KOH (C) Sodalime (D) CuO
25. Due to the formation of which substance lime water turns milky during the detection of car-
bon in organic compound ?
(A) CaO (B) CaCO 3
(C) Ca(OH) 2 (D) None of the given

26. Why is fusion of organic compound is carried out with Sodium in Lassaigne test ?
(A) To increase ionization of compound (B) To increase volume of compound
(C) To increase reactivity of compound
(D) To convert covalent compound into ionic compound
27. For which substance a Lassaigne test will fail to detect nitrogen ?
(A) H2NCONHNH2⋅HCl (B) H2N NH2⋅HCl
(C) H 2NCONH 2 (D) C6H5NHNH2⋅HCl

28. Into which substance nitrogen of organic compound is converted during preparation of
Lassaigne solution ?
(A) Sodamide (B) Sodium nitrite (C) Sodium cyanide (D) Sodium nitrate
29. Which substance does not give positive test of nitrogen ?
(A) urea (B) azobenzene (C) glycine (D) phenyl hydrazine
30. Due to which substance blue colour is formed in Lassaigne test of nitrogen ?
(A) Ferric ferrocyanide (B) Potassium ferrocyanide
(C) Sodium ferrocyanide (D) Sodium cyanide
Answers : 23. (D), 24. (D), 25. (B), 26. (D), 27. (B), 28. (C), 29. (B), 30. (A)
Quantitative Analysis and Molecular weight of organic compounds

The percentage amount of the elements present in organic compounds is determined as follows :
(1) Percentage amount or proportion of carbon and hydrogen is determined by Leibigs method.
12 × mass of CO2 ×100

% C =
44 × mass of O.C
2 mass of H2O 100

% H =
18 mass of O.C
(2) Dumas and KJeldahl methods are used to determine percentage proportion of nitrogen
28 Vol of N2 at STP (mL)

% N = (Dumas method)
224 mass of O. C
1.4 N V
%N= (Kjeldahls method)
mass of O. C
Where, N = Normality of acid
V = Volume of acid consumed
468
(3) Estimation of percentage of X (halogen), S and P in organic compound is done by Carius method.
At mass of X mass of AgX 100
% X =
Molar mass of AgX mass of O. C
32 mass of BaSO4 100

% S =
233 mass of O. C
62 mass of Mg2P2O7 100
% P =
222 mass of O. C
(4) Generally percentage proportion of oxygen present in organic compound is obtained by
subtracting total percentage of other elements from 100. However percentage of oxygen
can also be obtained directly as follows :
32 mass of CO 2 100
% O =
44 mass of O. C
Note : O.C = Organic compound
Methods of determining Molecular weights of organic compounds
108 mass of silver salt of acid

(1) Molecular weight of carboxylic acid = n – 107
mass of silver
where, n = Basicity of acid
n 195 mass of platinic chloride

(2) Molecular weight of organic base = – 410
2 mass of platinum
where, n = acidity of base
31. CX HY + X O2 → X CO2 + Y H2O what is the value of X and Y ?

X
(A) X = 2Y, Y = (B) X = 4X, Y = 2Y
4
Y Y Y X
(C) X = X + ,Y= (D) X = X + ,Y=
4 2 4 2
32. Which substance is used to determine the mass of water produced in Leibigs method ?
(A) CaCO 3 (B) Anyhyd CaCl2 (C) Ca(OH) 2 (D) All of the given
33. What is the use of KOH solution in Leibigs method ?
(A) to absorb nitrogen (B) to reduce carbon
(C) to oxidise hydrogen (D) to absorb CO2
34. In the presence of which substance combustion of organic compound is done in Leibigs
method ?
(A) copper (II) oxide (B) manganese dioxide (C) sodalime (D) Copper sulphate
35. In which method nitrometer is used ?
(A) Dumas method (B) Kjeldahl method
36. In which method nitrogen present in organic compound is converted into ammonium sulphate ?
(A) Dumas method (B) Kjeldahl method
469
37. For which of the following substance Kjeldahls method is not useful ?
(A) Pyridine (B) Aniline (C) Benzamide (D) None of the given
38. Under which circumstances Kjeldahls method is non useful ?
(A) when nitrogen is present in nitro group
(B) when nitrogen is present in azo group
(C) when nitrogen is present in cyclic structure
(D) All of the given
39. Estimation of which element is possible by carius method ?
(A) Halogen (B) Sulphur (C) Phosphorous (D) All of the given
40. With which substance organic compound is heated in carius method ?
(A) conc. HCl (B) fuming HNO3 (C) fuming H2SO4 (D) conc. NaOH
41. When is Prussian blue precipitates formed ?
(A) when ferrous sulphate reacts with FeCl3.
(B) when ferrous sulphate reacts with Na4[Fe(CN)6].
(C) when ferrous ammonium sulphate reacts with FeCl3.
(D) when ammonium sulphate reacts with FeCl3.

42. For detection of which element Lassaigne test is used ?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Sulphur (C) Chlorine (D) All of the given
43. For estimation of which element Kjeldahl method is used ?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Halogen (C) Sulphur (D) Oxygen
44. In organic compound C = 40 %, O = 53.34 % and H = 6.60 % . Find empirical formula of
this compound.
(A) CH2O (B) CHO (C) CH4O2 (D) C2H2O
45. The percentages of C, H and N in organic compound is 40, 13.33 and 46.67 respectively.
What will be its empirical formula ?
(A) C2H7N2 (B) CH5N (C) CH4N (D) C2H7N
46. The pressure of toluene in vapour in steam distillation of toluene is
(A) equal to the pressure of barometer.
(B) less than pressure of barometer.
(C) equal to vapour pressure of toluene in simple distillation.
(D) more than vapour pressure of toluene in simple distillation.
47. In order to determine molecular weights, camphor is used many times because,
(A) it is easily available. (B) its molal elevation constant is very high.
(C) it is volatile. (D) it is a solvent for organic substances.
48. Which is the best method for the separation of a mixture of napthalene and benzoic acid ?
(A) Chromatography (B) Crystallisation (C) Distillation (D) Sublimation
470
49. In organic substance carbon, hydrogen and oxygen is there. On estimation of elements it was
found that carbon was 38.71 % and hydrogen was 9.67 % Find empirical formula of this
compound.
(A) CH3O (B) CH2O (C) CHO (D) CH4O
50. Due to which substance Violet colour is obtained in Lassaigne test for detection of sulphur ?
(A) Fe2(SO4)3 (B) Na 2[Fe(CN)5NO] (C) Na4[Fe(CN) 5NOS] (D) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
51. Which of the following substance Possess prussian blue colour ?
(A) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] (B) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (C) Na4[Fe(CN)6] (D) (NH4)2[MoO4]
52. The red colour observed on addition of FeCl3 in Lassaigne solution indicates presence of which
element ?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Sulphur
53. The presence of which elements hinders detection of halogens in Lassaigne test ?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Sulphur
54. Which test is used for the detection of halogens ?
(A) Leibigs test (B) Kjeldahl method
(C) Sodalime test (D) Beilstein test
55. Which of the following compound will not give Lassaigne test for detection of nitrogen ?
(A) Hydrazine (B) urea (C) Ethyl amine (D) Nitroethane
56. 0.285 gram AgCl is obtained from 0.088 gram organic compound in Carius method. Calculate
the proportion of chlorine in organic compound.
(A) 82.6 % (B) 80.11 % (C) 70.7 % (D) 63.84 %
57. The black precipitates obtained during detection of sulphur in organic compound is due to which
substance ?
(A) CH3COOH (B) PbS (C) (CH3COO)2Pb (D) Na2S
58. The proportion of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in organic compound is 6:1:8 by mass. If
vapour density of this compound is 30, then determine its molecular formula.
(A) CH4O (B) C2H4O2 (C) CH3O (D) C2H3O4
59. For which of the following substance Kjeldahls method cannot be used ?
NO2
(A) (B)
N
(C) N N (D) None of the given
60. 0.36 gram BaSO4 is obtained from 0.26 gram organic compound. Find percentage of sulphur in
organic compound.
(A) 19.0 % (B) 26 % (C) 9.9 % (D) 31 %
61. 198 mg CO2 and 101.4 mg H2O is obtained by complete combustion of 246 mg organic
compound. Calculate percentage of C and H in this compound.
(A) 45.8, 21.9 (B) 21.9, 43.0 (C) 21.95, 4.58 (D) 4.58, 24.6
471
62. 40 mL nitrogen gas was collected at 300 K temperature and 715 mm pressure while
estimating nitrogen by Dumas method from 0.2 gram organic compound. Calculate
percentage proportion of nitrogen in organic compound. (Surface tension of water of
300 K = 15 mm)
(A) 17.5 % (B) 20.95 % (C) 33.5 % (D) 42 %
63. The ammonia gas obtained from 0.5 gram organic compound during estimation of nitrogen by
Kjeldahl method neutralise 10 ml of 1 M H2SO4. Calculate percentage of nitrogen in organic
compound.
(A) 14 % (B) 28 % (C) 56 % (D) 64 %
64. Estimation of halogen by Carius method gave 0.16 gram AgBr from 0.20 gram organic
compound. Calculate percentage of bromine in organic compound.
(A) 34.04 % (B) 32 % (C) 17.5 % (D) 38 %
65. Into which substance the halogen of organic compound is transformed during estimation of
halogen by carius method ?
(A) Silver nitrate (B) Silver halide (C) Silver oxide (D) Silver sulphate
66. 0.27 gram Silver was obtained on combustion of 0.38 gram Silver salt of dibasic acid.
Calculate molecular weight of acid.
(A) 45 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 120
67. In the estimation of which element I2O5 is used ?
(A) nitrogen (B) halogen (C) phosphorous (D) oxygen
68. With reference to which substance estimation of phosphorous in organic compound is done
using carius method ?
(A) ortho phosphoric acid (B) magnesium pyrophosphate
(C) ammonium molybdate (D) phosphorous pentoxide
69. If 0.20 gram Mg2P2O7 is obtained during estimation of 0.5 gram organic compound by carius
method, then calculate percentage of phosphorous.
(A) 13.96 % (B) 15.75 % (C) 11.17 % (D) 23 %
70. In which of the following pair percentage proportion of carbon is the same ?
(A) glucose and acetic acid (B) glucose and sucrose
(C) ethanol and acetic acid (D) methyl formate and sugar
71. 0.39 gram platinum was obtained on heating 0.984 gram choroplatinate salt of diacidic base.
Calculate molecular weight of base.
(A) 90 (B) 65 (C) 40 (D) 82
72. The ammonia produced from 0.3 gram organic substance taken for estimation of nitrogen was
passed through 100 ml solution of 0.2 N H2SO4. If 20 ml 0.5 N sodium hydroxide is required
for complete neutralisation of excess acid, calculate percentage of nitrogen in organic
substance.
(A) 50 % (B) 36.5 % (C) 46.6 % (D) 27.3 %
73. A non volatile hydrocarbon contains 5.6% hydrogen. When 3.0 grams of this hydro carbon
was dissolved in 100 gram benzene the relative lowering in vapour pressure of solution was
found to be 1.306 × 102 Nm2. Find moleculer formula of hydrocarbon.
(A) C4H10 (B) C14H10 (C) C10H8 (D) C7H16
74. In a mono basic aromatic acid there is 68.87% carbon and 4.9% hydrogen. To neutralise
0.305 gram acid, 25 ml of 0.05 M diacidic base is required. Find molecular formula of acid.
(A) C6H5O2 (B) C6H6O2 (C) C7H6O2 (D) C7H8O2
472
75. Nitrobenezene is formed as the major product along with a minor product in the reaction of
benzene with a hot mixture of nitric acid and sulphuric acid. The minor product consists of
carbon : 42.86%, hydrogen : 2.40%, nitrogen : 16.67%, and oxygen : 38.07%. When 5.5 gram
of minor product is dissolved in 45 gram benzene, the boiling point of the solution is 1.84 °C
higher than that of pure benzene. Find the molecular formula of the minor product.
(A) C6H4N2O4 (B) C3H2NO2 (C) C6H5N2O (D) C6H3NO3
76. Find the values of x and y in :
¥ Yµ Y
CXHYNZ + ¦§ 2 X ¶· CuO X CO2 + H O + XN2 + YCu.
2 2 2
Y z
(A) X = 2X + Y, Y = 2z (B) X = 2X + , Y =
2 2
z Y Y
(C) X = , Y = 2X + (D) X = 2z, Y = 2X +
2 2 2
77. The CO2 gas produced during the estimation of carbon present in organic compound is
absorbed in the solution of potassium hydroxide because,
(A) KOH is very good adsorbent (B) KOH is basic
(C) Rate of reaction increases (D) All of the given above
78. A hydrocarbon contains 10.5 gram carbon per 1 gram of hydrogen. The mass of 1 litre
vapours of this hydrocarbon at 127 C temperature and 1 atmospheric pressure is 2.8 gram.
Find molecular formula of hydrocarbon.
(A) CH (B) CH2 (C) C7H8 (D) C5H6
79. In a dibasic organic acid there is C = 34.62 %, H = 3.84 %. 0.1075 gram of this acid uses 20
ml of 0.1 N NaOH for complete neutralisation. Find molecular formula of the acid.
80. The proportion of elements in a compound containing carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen is 18 : 2 :
7. If molecular weight of compound is 108, find its molecular formula.
(A) C3H4N (B) C6H8N2 (C) C3H4N2 (D) C6H5N
Answers : 31. (C), 32. (B), 33. (D), 34. (A), 35. (A), 36. (B), 37. (A), 38. (D), 39. (D),
40. (B), 41. (B), 42. (D), 43. (A), 44. (A), 45. (C), 46. (B), 47. (C), 48. (D),
49. (A), 50. (C), 51. (B), 52. (C), 53. (C), 54. (D), 55. (A), 56. (B), 57. (B),
58. (B), 59. (D), 60. (A), 61. (C), 62. (B), 63. (C), 64. (A), 65. (B), 66. (C),
67. (D), 68. (B), 69. (C), 70. (A), 71. (D), 72. (C), 73. (B), 74. (C), 75. (A),
76. (C), 77. (B), 78. (C), 79. (D), 80. (B)
Two statements are given in each of the following questions. In that one is assertion (A)
and another is reason (R). Study every statement carefully and choose proper option as
per instructions give below :
(A) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of A.
(B) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is correct and reason (R) is incorrect
(D) Assertion (A) is correct and reason (R) is correct
(E) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are incorrect.
81. Assertion (A) : Purification of essential oils is done by distillation.
Reason (R) : essential oils are non-volatile.
473
82. Assertion (A) : Prussian blue colour is seen on performing Lassaigne test of hydroxyl
amine (NH2OH)
Reason (R) : Hydroxyl amine does not form sodium cyanide with sodium.
83. Assertion (A) : Separation of a mixture of acetone and methanol can be done by simple
distillation.
Reason (R) : Difference in boiling points of acetone and methanol is noticeable.
84. Assertion (A) : Kjeldahl method is more useful than Dumas method for estimation of
nitrogen.
Reason (R) : Kjeldahl method can also be used when nitrogen atom is directly bonded
with oxygen atom
85. Assertion (A) : Freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution is used in Lassaigne test.
Reason (R) : On standing of ferrous sulphate solution, Fe2+ ion oxidise into Fe3+ ions.
86. Assertion (A) : Estimation of nitrogen present in DNA and RNA cannot be done using
Kjeldahl method.
Reason (R) : Nitrogen atom is present in cyclic structure in DNA and RNA.
87. Assertion (A) : Though chlorine is present in methy chloride (CH3Cl) it does not give
white precipitates with AgNO3.
Reason (R) : Methyl chloride is a covalent compound and hence not ionised into Cl.
88. Assertion (A) : The pressure of nitrogen gas produced in Dumas method is measured by
nitrometer.
Reason (R) : Nitrometer is modern instrument for measuring pressure of gases.
89. Assertion (A) : Separation of a mixture of aniline and chloroform is done using simple
distillation.
Reason (R) : There is not much difference in boiling points of aniline and chloroform.
90. Assertion (A) : Lassaigne solution is heated with HNO3 prior to in detection of halogen by
AgNO3
Reason (R) : Presence of cyanide and sulphide ions interfere in test.
Answers : 81. (C), 82. (D), 83. (E), 84. (E), 85. (A), 86. (A), 87. (A), 88. (E), 89. (C),
90. (A).
474
20 Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry
Tetravalency of carbon hybridization and shape of molecules
In excited state electonic configuration of c-atom has four unpaired electrons, hence carbon can
form four covalent bonds.
Formation of same number of orbitals having same properties of various type of orbitals (s and
p) of C-atom is called hybridization and orbitals produces are called hybridized orbitals.
Hybrid orbitals of carbon form s- bond and those orbitals which do not take part in hybridisation
form pi (p) bond.
Single bond is always s bond. In double bond one s and one p bonds are present, while in triple
bond one s and two p bonds are present.
On the basis of number of s -bond in carbon atom its hybridization is determined.
Remember :
Type of Type of hybridi shape of bond CC
compound bond -zation of molecule angle bond length
carbon
Alkane –C – C – sp3 tetrahedral 109o 28 154 pm
Alkene >C = C< sp2 trigonal plannar 120o 134 pm
Alkyne C º C sp linear 180o 120 pm
1. In which of the following molecule carbon-carbon bond length is least ?

(A) ethane (B) ethene (C) ethyne (D) benzene
2. How many s and p bonds are present in dicyano ethene CN CH = CH CN
respectively ?
3. In but-l-ene-3-yne number of s and p bonds are ...... respectively.
2
4. In which of the following compound all C-atom have sp hybridization ?
(A) ethane (B) propene (C) ethyne (D) ethylene
5. What is the type of hybridization of each C in the following compound ?
CH3 CH = CH CN
(A) sp3, sp2, sp, sp (B) sp3, sp2, sp2, sp (C) sp, sp2, sp3, sp (D) sp2, sp2, sp3, sp
6. What is the expected bond angle in the molecule in which the central atom is sp3 hybridized ?
(A) 109o 28 (B) 120o (C) 90o (D) 180o
7. Which hybrid orbitals are involved in the bond formation between C2 C3 in given organic
compound ?
1
CH º 2C 3CH2 4CH3
(A) sp sp (B) sp2 sp (C) sp2 sp2 (D) sp sp3
475
P2O5
8. In the dehydration reaction CH3CONH2 CH3CN hybridization of carbonyl carbon changes
to what ?
(A) sp3 to sp2 (B) sp2 to sp3 (C) sp2 to sp (D) sp to sp3
9. What are the changes in hybridization of carbon in addition halogenation reaction of ethene ?
(A) sp3 to sp2 (B) sp2 to sp3 (C) sp2 to sp2 (D) sp to sp3
10. What is the correct order of CC bond length ?
(A) C2H6 > C2H4 > C2H2 (B) C2H4 > C2H6 > C2H2
(C) C2H2 < C2H6 < C2H4 (D) C2H6 < C2H4 < C2H2
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (B), 3. (B), 4. (D), 5. (B), 6. (A), 7. (D), 8. (C), 9. (B), 10. (A)
Classification of organic compounds on the basis of functional group

The atom or group of atom which is responsible for characteristic reactions of organic compunds
is called functional group.
While writing the structure of organic compounds it is necessary to remember the number of
bonds. For example carbon has four bonds, nitrogen has three bonds, oxygen has two bond and
for hydrogen and halogen single bond.
While writing the name of organic compounds on the basis of number of C atom present in it
corresponding word root (Greekword) is used which as follows :
Number of C ® 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
word root ® meth eth prop but pent hex hept oct non dec
Organic compounds classified into 14 parts based on functional group :
Type of Functional Prefix/suffix Example IUPAC

compound group in nomenclature Name
(1) Alkane –C – C – | ane CH 3 CH 2 CH 3 propane
R H
(2) Alkene >C=C< | ene CH 3CH=CH 2 propene
(3) Alkyne CºC | yne CH3CºCH propyne
(4) Alcohol OH | ol CH 3CH 2CH 2OH propan-1-ol
(5) Ether O alkoxy | CH 3OCH 2CH 3 Methoxy ethane
(6) Aldehyde CHO | al CH 3 CH 2 CHO propanal
(7) Ketone CO | one CH 3COCH 3 propanone
(8) Carboxylic COOH | oic CH3 CH2COOH propanoic

acid acid acid
(9) Ester COOR | oate CH3 COOCH3 Methyl

R=alkyl ethanoate
(10) Amine (a) NH 2 | amine CH 3 CH 2CH 2 NH 2 propan-1

primary amine -amine
476
Amine (b) NH | amine CH 3CH 2NHCH 3 N-Methyl
secondary amine ethanamine
Amine (c) –N– | amine CH 3CH 2NCH 3 N,N-dimethyl
tertiary amine CH3 ethanamine

(11) Amide CONH 2 | amide CH 3CH 2CONH 2 Propananide
(12) Nitro NO 2 Nitro | CH 3CH 2CH 2NO 2 1-nitro propane
(13) Cyanide CN | nitrile CH 3CH 2CN propane nitrile
(14) Halide X halo | CH 3CH 2CH 2Cl 1-chloro propane
X=F, Cl, Br, I
Note :
(1) In alkane, alkene and alkynes nomenclature proper suffix is added to wordroot on the basis of
number of carbon
eg., CH3 CH = CH2 word root + suffix
prop + ene = propene
(2) In other compounds nomenclature appropriate prefix or suffix is added to alkane name.
eg., CH3 CH CH3 prefix + alkane
2 - chloro + propane
Cl
= 2 - chloro propane
(3) In case of ether, group with less number of carbon atom attached to oxygen is given
prefix alkoxy and group with greater number of carbon is taken as alkane.
(4) In ester (COOR), after writing the name of alkyl group connected in place of R,
remaining carbon is taken as alkane and oate suffix is added.
(5) In 2 o and 3o amine, group with highest number of carbon is taken as alkane, suffix
amine is added and remaining groups taken as alkyl group.
11. From which of the following compounds suffix oate is added ?

(A) aldehyde (B) ketone (C) ester (D) ether
12. In IUPAC nomenclaure of cyanide compound which suffix is added ?
(A) cyano (B) cyanide (C) cyanate (D) nitrile
13. Compounds with which hybridization of carbon get suffix ene in IUPAC nomenclature ?
(A) dsp 2 (B) sp2 (C) sp3 (D) sp
14. Mention the IUPAC name of CH3CH2COOCH3.
(A) butanoate (B) ethyl ethanoate (C) Methyl propanoate (D) Methyl propanoate
15. Identify the formula of butane nitrile :
(A) CH 3CH 2CH 2CN (B) CH 3CH 2CH 2NH 2
(C) CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2CN (D) CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2NO 2
16. In which compound having only one functional group, prefix is added in nomenclature ?
(A) alcohol (B) ether (C) amide (D) ketone
Answers : 11. (C), 12. (D), 13. (B), 14. (D), 15. (A), 16. (B)
477
Homologous series and isomerism
Series of compounds having difference of CH2 between two successive member is
called homologous series. eg. alkane series.
CH4, C2H6, C3H8, C4H10, C5H12
Compounds having same molecular formula but different properties are called isomers of
each other and this phenomenon is called isomerism.
Classification of isomerism as follows :
Isomerism
¯
¯ ¯
Structural isomerism Stereo isomerism
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
(1) chain isomerism conformational geometrical optical

(2) position isomerism isomerism isomerism isomerism
(3) functional isomerism ¯ ¯ ¯
(4) metamerism staggered as enantiomers

(5) Tautomerism eclipsed trans diasteveomers
(6) ring-chain isomerism meso
Chain isomerism : arrangement of carbon atom is linear or branched.

eg., CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 and CH3 CH CH3
n butane I
CH 3
iso butane
Position isomerism : Position of functional group is different.

eg., CH3 CH2 CH2 OH and CH3 CH CH3
Propan-1-ol I
OH
propan 2 ol
Functional group isomerism : Functional groups are different.
eg., CH3 CH2 COOH and CH3 COOCH3
Propanoic acid Methyl ethanoate
This isomerism is observed in ester-acid alcohol-ether, aldehyde-ketone and 1o, 2o, 3o amine.
metamerism : functional group is same but alkyl groups connected on both side have
different numbers of carbon atoms.
eg., CH3 O CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2 O CH2CH3
1methoxy propane Ethoxy ethane
This isomerism is observed in ether, ester, 2o and 3o amine.
478
Tautomerism : Isomers form due to migration of a hydrogen atom.
eg., CH3 C CH3 CH2 = C CH3
II I
O OH
keto form enol form
Ring chain isomerism : one isomer has cyclic structure and other isomer has linear chain struc-
ture.
eg., CH2 and CH3 CH = CH2
Propene
CH2 CH2
Cyclo propane
17. How do successive members of homologous series differ from each other ?
(A) CH3 group (B) CH2 group (C) C2H5 group (D) CH group
18. Between successive members of alkane homologous series, difference between molecular
mass is ...... .
(A) 16 amu (B) 12 amu (C) 14 amu (D) 18 amu
19. Which of the following pair shows functional group isomerisms ?
(A) aldehyde and alcohol (B) alcohol and amine
(C) carboxylic acid and aldehyde (D) alcohol and ether
20. How many isomers does pentane chain contain ?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
21. How many isomers of C3H9N compound having amine group ?
(A) 5 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 6
22. How many chain isomers are possible for C4H8 ?
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6
23. Which of the following compound does not show position isomerism ?
(A) butene (B) butanal (C) but-1-amine (D) butyne
24. How many chain isomers are possible for pentanol ?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
25. Which of the following is not isomer of diethyl ether ?
(A) Methyl propyl ether (B) butan-1-ol
(C) 2-Methyl-propan-1-ol (D) diethyl ketone
26. Number of isomers of C4H10 O ...... .
(A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 5 (D) 6
27. Isomer of ethyl alcohol is ...... .
(A) diethyl ether (B) dimethyl ether (C) ethanal (D) acetone
28. ...... type of isomerism is observed in urea.
(A) chain (B) position (C) geometrical (D) tautomerism
479
29. CH3OC3H7 and C2H5OC2H5 shows which type of isomerism.
(A) position (B) chain (C) metamerism (D) tautomerism
30. Pair of Acetone and prop-1-en-2-ol are example of which type of isomerism ?
(A) Position (B) Tautomerism (C) Functonal group (D) Metamerism
31. Which type of isomerism is observed in but-2-ene ?
(A) functional group (B) metamerism (C) geometrical (D) optical
32. Diethyl ether and methyl propyl ether are ...... .
(A) position isomer (B) functional group isomer
(C) metamers (D) rotamers
33. Cyclo alkene and alkyne are which type of isomers ?
(A) Chain (B) Functional group (C) Metamers (D) Votamers
34. npropyl alcohol and iso propyl alcohol are examples of which type of isomerism.
(A) position (B) chain (C) geometrical (D) stereo
35. Functional isomers of propionic acids are ...... .
(A) HCOOC2H5 and CH3COOCH3 (B) HCOOC2H5 and C3H7COOH
(C) C3H7OH and CH3COCH3 (D) CH3CH2COOH and C3H7OH
36. How many isomers of C6H14 are possible ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
37. Which isomerism is ehibited by C5H10O ?
(A) Position (B) Functional group (C) Metamerism (D) All the given
38. Which isomerism is not shown by alkene ?
(A) chain (B) geometrical (C) position (D) metamerism
39. Which type of compounds do not have metamers ?
(A) ketone (B) amine (C) ether (D) alcohol
40. Which isomerism is shown by R C º N and R N+ º C ?
(A) Position (B) Functional group (C) metamerism (D) Tautomerism
Answers : 17. (B), 18. (C), 19. (D), 20. (B), 21. (C), 22. (A), 23. (B), 24. (A), 25. (D),
26. (A), 27. (B), 28. (D), 29. (C), 30. (B), 31. (C), 32. (C), 33. (D), 34. (A),
35. (A), 36. (C), 37. (D), 38. (D), 39. (D), 40. (B)
Nomenclature of organic compounds (Common and IUPAC)

Organic compounds are named on the basis of rules of IUPAC which is called its IUPAC
name. Apart from this some organic compounds are known by common name or popular name.
Study IUPAC rules appropriately from text book.
Simple method to write IUPAC name.
attach 1st determine longest attach
prefix of hydrocarbon root suffix of
substituted (alkane, alkene, alkyne) principal
group or branch functional
group
480
Priority order of principal functional group is as follows :
COOH > COOR > CONH2 > CN > CHO > CO > OH >
NH2 > C = C > C º C > Substituted groups (OR, X, NO2, R)
Substituded group or branch means which is not included in chain of hydro carbon root.
Examples of IUPAC nomenclature
CH3
I
(1) 1CH3 2C 3CH2 4CH 5CH3 2, 2, 4 trimethyl pentane
I I ¯ ¯
CH3 CH3 prefix hydrocarbon root

4
(2) CH2 = 3CH 2CH2 1CH2 OH But 3 en 1 ol
¯ ¯
hydro carbon root suffix

(3) CH3 CH CH2 CH CH2 CH 1CH3
7 6 5 4 3 2
I I I
Br CH2CH3 OH
6Bromo4ethyl heptan 2 ol
¯ ¯ ¯
prefix Hydro carbon root suffix

4
(4) CH3 3CH 2CH2 1COOH 3hydroxy butanoic acid
I ¯ ¯
OH prefix hydro carbon root + suffix
41. Correct IUPAC name of CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH (C2H5)2 is ...... .
(A) 4ethyl 3Methyl hexane (B) 3ethyl 4Methyl hexane
(C) 4Methyl 3ethyl hexane (D) 2, 4diethyl pentane
42. Give IUPAC name of following compound :
CH3 CH C CH2 CH3
I II
CH3 CH2
(A) 2ethyl 3Methyl but-l-ene (B) 2iso propyl but-1-ene
(C) 2Methyl 3ethyl but-3-ene (D) 2(1Methyl ethyl) but-l-ene
43. What is correct IUPAC name of CH2 = CH CH2 CH2 CH2 Cl ?
(A) 1chloro pent-4-ene (B) Pent-4-ene chloride
(C) 5chloro pent-1-ene (D) 1chloro pentene
44. IUPAC name of CH2 = CH CH2 CH2 OH is ...... .
(A) But-3-en-1-ol (B) but-1-en-3-ol
(C) 4-hydroxy but-1-ene (D) butenol
481
45. Give IUPAC name of the following compound : CH3 – CH – CH = C – CHO
OH CH3
(A) 4hydroxy-1-Methyl pentenal (B) 4-hydroxy-2-Mehtyl-pent-2-enal
(C) 2-hydroxy-4-Methyl pent-3-en-5-al (D) 2-hydroxy-3-methyl pent-2-enal
46. IUPAC name of urea is ...... .
(A) diamino ketone (B) amino methanamide (C) amino ethanamide (D) amino acetamide
47. IUPAC name of CH3 CH = CH C º CH is ...... .
(A) Pent-2-en-4-yne (B) Pent-2-yn-3-ene
(C) Pent-3-en-1-yne (D) Pent-2-en-5-yne
48. Mention IUPAC name of NC CH2 CH CH2 CN
I
CH 2CN
(A) iso butane tri nitrile (B) 3cyano methyl pentane dinitrile
(C) 2, 2Bis (Cyano methyl) enthane nitrile (D) tri ethane nitrile methane
49. IUPAC name of HOOC CH = CH COOH is ...... .
(A) but-2-en-oic acid (B) butene di oic acid
(C) butene1, 4dioic acid (D) but-2-ene dioic acid
50. Mention IUPAC Name of :
(A) Nonane (B) etetra ethylmethane

(C) 3ethyl pentane (D) 3, 3diehtyl pentane
Answers : 41. (B), 42. (A), 43. (C), 44. (A), 45. (B), 46. (B), 47. (C), 48. (B), 49. (D),
50. (D)
Electronic transfer in covalent bond

In organic compounds electron pair of covalent bond transfer by four different ways.
(1) Inductive Effect :
s electron pair present in carbon chain transfer to more electronegative atom or group.
On moving away from electronegative atom to carbon atom away from it this effect reduces.
This effect is permanent
eg., C > C >> C d+ > > > Cd
Inductive effect (Ieffect) are of two types : (1) If electron attracting group is connected at
the end of chain, then it is called I effect. Decreasing order of I effect is as follows :
R3N+ > +NH3 > NO2 > CN > SO3H > CHO > CO > COOH > COCl > COOR > CONH2 >
F > Cl > Br > I > OH > NH2 > C6H5 > H
If electron donor group is attached at the end of chain then it is called + I effect. Decreasing
order of + I effect :
R3+C > R2 +CH > R +
CH2 > +
CH3
3o 2o 1o methyl
482
(2) Electromeric Effect :
-electron pair connected by double or triple bond transfer to one of the atom (mainly
p
electronegative atom) due to contact of attacking reagent.

This effect is temporary.
Electromeric effect is of two types :
(i) If p electron pair displaces towards the attacking reagent then it is called +E effect
+ +
eg. >C = C < + H >C C<
H
(ii) If p electron pair displaces away from the attacking reagent then it is called E effect.
-
eg. >C = O + CN >C O
CN
(3) Mesomeric effect or Resonance effect :
In some organic compounds, two or more than two structures are in vibration state. Such
structures are called resonating structures. Their real structure is shown by intermediate state
between two or more than two structures. Such structures are called resonance hybrid structure.
This effect is known as mesomeric or resonance effect.
This effect is observed in the system having alternate s and p bond.
eg., benzene C6H6
Molecules having resonance structure have greater stability.

e donor groups have +R effect and
e attracting groups have R effect.
(4) Hyper conjugation :
When C C single bond is directly bonded with C = C or benzene ring, then s e pair of
C H bond is attracted towards double bond. This effect called hyper conjugation.
H H
H – C ––– CH = CH2 H – C = CH ––– CH2

H H
Order of + I effect of alkyl group is 3o > 2o > 1o > methyl but when alkyl group is
connected with double bond or benzene ring this order is reversed as methyl > 1o > 2o > 3o this is
hyper-conjugation.
Importance of hyper conjugation is as follows :
(i) Greater the number of CH3 group bonded with C = C greater is the stability of alkene.
(ii) Stability order of carbocation and free radical is 3o > 2o > 1o > methyl.
(iii) Bond length of C C bond adjacent to C = C decreases.
483
51. Which of the following group has least I effect ?
(A) NO 2 (B) COOH (C) F (D) N +R 3
52. Which of the following group has highest + I effect ability ?
(A) (CH 3 ) 3C (B) (CH 3) 2 CH (C) CH3 CH2 (D) CH3
53. Which group has maximum hyper conjugative effect ?
(A) R 3 C (B) R 2CH (C) RCH 2 (D) CH3
54. In which of the following compound electromeric effect is not observed ?
(A) alkene (B) ether (C) aldehyde (D) ketone
55. In which of the following molecule resonance (delocalized electrons) is observed ?
(A) methane (B) ethane (C) benzene (D) cyclohexane
56. Which group has +R effect ?
(A) CN (B) CHO (C) NH 2 (D) NO 2
57. Which of the following alkene is the most stable ?
(A) CH 3CH=CHCH 3 (B) (CH 3) 2C=CH 2
(C) (CH3)2 C=CHCH3 (D) (CH 3) 2C=C(CH 3) 2
58. Which carbo cation is the most stable ?
(A) CH 3CH 2+ (B) CH2 = CH+ (C) CH º C+ (D) C 6H 5+
59. Which type of conjugation is hyper conjugation ?
(A) s p (B) s s (C) p p (D) p s
60. Which of the following free radical is the most stable ?

· · · ·
(A) C 6H 5CH 2CH 2 (B) C 6H 5C HCH 3 (C) CH3 CH 2 (D) CH 3 CHCH 3
Answers : 51. (C), 52. (A), 53. (D), 54. (B), 55. (C), 56. (C), 57. (D), 58. (A), 59. (A),
60. (B)
Fission of covalent bond

Fission of covalent bond is done in two different ways.
(1) Homolytic fission : Two atoms bonded by covalent bond are separated by gaining one
electron each and as a result free radical is formed.
hυ → Cl ⋅ + Cl ⋅
eg., Cl − Cl  free radicals
(2) heterolytic fission : If during fission of covalent bond more electronegative atom
separated by gaining two electrons and as a result positive and negative ion are formed.
+
eg., CH3 Cl ® CH3 + Cl :
Positive ion negative ion
Positive ion or some neutral molecules which have capacity to accept electrons are called
electrophiles.
eg., +NO2, +Cl, +CH3, BF3, AlCl3, SnCl2
484
Negative ion or some neutral molecules which have capacity to donate electrons are called
nucleophile.
− −
eg., X , OH , NH 2 , NH3, H2O

Chemical species having positively charged carbon is called carbocation or carbonium ion.
+
eg., CH3
–
Chemical species having negatively charged carbon is called carbanion eg. CH3
Stability order of carbanion : methyl > 1o > 2o > 3o
61. What is called positive ion formed by heterolytic fission of covalent bond ?
(A) Electrophile (B) Nucleophile (C) Lewis acid (D) Both (A) and (C)
62. Which carbanion has the least stability ?
(A) CH3 (B) CH3 – CH2 (C) (CH3)2 CH (D) (CH3)3 C

63. Which of the following is nucleophile ?
(A) H 2 O (B) BF 3 (C) AlCl3 (D) SO 3
64. Which particles are obtained by homolytic fission of A B bond ?
(A) One positive and one anion (B) two carbocation
(C) one carbocation and one carb anion (D) two free radicals
65. Which sentence is incorrect with reference to free radical ?
(A) They are paramagnetic species having unpaired electrons.
(B) They are electrically neutral and highly reactive.
(C) Carbon atom of free radical has 7 electron in valence orbital.
(D) They are highly stable and long lasting.
Answers : 61. (D), 62. (D), 63. (A), 64. (D), 65. (D)
Types of organic reactions

Substitution reaction : Atom or group atom present in organic compound is substituted by another
atom or group of atom.
eg., CH4 + Cl2 
→ CH3Cl + HCl
Addition reaction : p bond of double or triple bond is broken and another molecule is added.
eg., CH2 = CH2 + Cl2 
→ Cl CH2 CH2 Cl
Eliminaton reaction : From adjacent carbon atoms, a group of atoms is removed as molecule and as a
 Al O 
 2 3
result between two carbon new pbond forms. eg., CH3 CH2 OH  
→ CH2 = CH2 + H2O
350 − 400o C
Rearrangement reaction : Displacement of atom or group of atoms to other place within the same
molecule.
 AlCl 
 3→
eg., CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3  CH3 CH CH3
nbutane I
CH 3
485
iso-butane
66. Mention the type of the following ®
alcohol reaction :
CH3 CH2 Cl + KOH CH2 = CH2 + KCl + H2O

(A) substitution (B) addition (C) elimination (D) rearrangement
67. Identify the type of reaction : CH3 CH2 I + acqueous KOH ® CH3CH2OH + KI.
(A) substitution (B) addition (C) elimination (D) halogenation
68. Which product is obtained by hydrogenation of ethene in presence of nickel catalyst ?
(A) ethanol (B) ethyne (C) ethane (D) methane
69. In which reaction new p bond is formed ?
(A) substitution (B) addition (C) elimination (D) rearrangement
70. Which of the following is elimination reaction ?
(A) Chlorination of ethene (B) Hydration of ethene
(C) Conversion of But-1-ene into But-2-ene (D) Dehydration of ethanol
71. Number of s and p bonds in pent-l-en-4-yne is ....... .
(A) 3, 10 (B) 9, 4 (C) 4, 9 (D) 10, 3
72. In buta-1,2 diene compound ....... .
(A) Only sp hybridized carbon atoms (B) Only sp2 hybridized carbon atoms
(C) sp and sp2 hybridized carbon atoms (D) sp, sp2 and sp3 hybridized carbon atoms
73. Which of the following IUPAC name is incorrect ?
(A) CH3 C – CH CH3 2Methyl butan-3-one
O CH3
(B) CH3 CH CH CH3 2, 3 di methyl pentane

I I
CH3 CH2 CH3
(C) CH3 C º C×CH (CH3)2 4 Methyl pent 2 yne
(D) CH3 CH CH CH3 2 bromo 3 chlorobutane
I I
Cl Br
74. Match the column X with column Y and choose correct option :
Column -X Column-Y
(i) free radical (A) Lewis base
(ii) electrophile (B) Electrically neutral
(iii) nucleophile (C) Complete octet in valence orbit
(D) Lewis acid
(E) Electron octet is incomplete and in valence orbit single e
(F) Electron octet incomplete
(A) (i)-(B),(E), (ii)-(D),(F), (iii)-(A),(C) (B) (i)-(A),(C), (ii)-(D),(F), (iii)-(B),(E)
(C) (i)-(D),(F), (ii)-(B),(E), (iii)-(A),(C) (D) (i)-(B),(E), (ii)-(A),(C), (iii)-(D),(F)
486
75. From the given sentences select the number of correct sentences and choose appropriate option.
(1) IUPAC name of propyl cyanide is propane nitrile.
(2) IUPAC name of diethyl ether is ethoxy ethane.
(3) Ethanol and vinyl alcohols are tautomers.
(4) Methoxy propane and ethoxy ethane are metamers.
(5) Stability of 2, 3dimethyl but-2-ene is more than 2methyl but-2-ene.
(6) Stability order of carbo cation is 1o < 2o < 3o.
(7) In Elimination reaction hybridization of carbon atom do not change.
(8) Nucleophites are Lewis acid.
(A) (1), (3), (5), (7) (B) (2), (4), (6), (8) (C) (2), (4), (5), (6) (D) (2), (4), (6), (7)
76. In column I bondline structures and in column II IUPAC names are given. Match them and
select correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(1) OH (p) but-1-ene (A) (1)(q), (2)(p), (3)(t)
(2) (q) 2hydroxy butane (B) (1)(s), (2)(r), (3)(u)
(3) (r) but-2-ene (C) (1)(q), (2)(r), (3)(u),
(s) pentan-2-ol (D) (1)(q), (2)(p), (3)(u),

(t) 3, 3dimethyl butane
(u) 3, 3dimethyl pentane
77. On matching common name in column-I with structural formula of column II which of the
following pair is correct :
Column-I Column-II
(P) formic anhydride (W) CH 3CHO (A) (P)-(X), (Q)-(W), (R)-(Y), (S)-(Z)
(Q) methyl acetate (X) CH3 COOCH3 (B) (P)-(Z), (Q)-(Y), (R)-(W), (S)-(X)
(R) acetamide (Y) (HCO)2O (C) (P)-(Y), (Q)-(X), (R)-(Z), (S)-(W)
(S) acetaldehyde (Z) CH3CONH2 (D) (P)-(W), (Q)-(Z), (R)-(X), (S)-(Y)
78. Match the column X with column Y and mention correct option :
Column X Column Y
(Hydrocarbon group) (Common name)
(a) (CH3)2 CH (p) tertiary butyl (A) (a)-(t), (b)-(q), (c)-(t), (d)-(u)
(b) CH3CH2 CH (q) iso butyl (B) (a)-(r), (b)-(q), (c)-(t), (d)-(u)
I
CH3
(c) (CH3)3 C (r) vinyl (C) (a)-(r), (b)-(s), (c)-(t), (d)-(u)
(d) CH2 = CH (s) secondary butyl (D) (a)-(t), (b)-(s), (c)-(p), (d)-(r)
(t) iso propyl
(u) ethyl
Answers : 66. (C), 67. (A), 68. (C), 69. (C), 70. (D), 71. (D), 72. (D), 73. (A), 74. (A),
75. (C), 76. (B), 77. (C) 78. (D)
487
Read the paragraph carefully and answer the questions given below paragraph :
Paragraph : While giving IUPAC names of the organic compounds having more than one
functional group the functional group with highest priority is considered as principal functional
group and other functional groups are considered as substituted group. Carbon chain is given
numbers in such away that principal functional group gets least number. (Que. No. 79 80)
79. Give IUPAC name of the following compound :
CH3 – CH = C – CH2 – COOH

CONH2
(A) 2ethyledene3carboxy propanamide (B) 3ethyl-3-carbyl, propanoic acid

(C) 2-carboxymethyl but-2-en-1-amide (D) 3-carbamoyl pent-3-en-1-oic acid
80. IUPAC name of following compound is ....... .
OMe
NC
OMe O
(A) Methyl 4-cyano-3-methoxy pentanoate

(B) 4-methoxy-carbonyl-1-methoxy butanenitrile
(C) Methyl-4-cyano-3-methoxy butanoate
(D) 4-carbmethoxy-2-methoxy butanenitrile
Instruction : Question no. 81 to 90 are assertion (A) and reason (R) types. Their four
options are as follows. Select correct option :
(A) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are correct and reason (R) is correct explanation of
assertion (A).
of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct while reason (R) is incorrect.
81. Assertion (A) : CN is called cyclohexane carbonitrile.
Reason (R) : Suffix nitrile is given to alicyclic ring.

82. Assertion (A) : IUPAC name of CH3 CH = CH C º CH is pent 2 en 4 yne.
Reason (R) : While determining the position of functional group rule of least set of
locant is applied.
83. Assertion (A) : IUPAC name of C2H5 C CH2 OH is 2 ethyl prop-2-en-1-ol
II
CH 2
Reason (R) : Instead of methylene ethyl is accepted as substituted group because
alphabatically e of ethyl comes before m of methylene.
488
84. Assertion (A) : Solubility of maleic acid in water is more than fumaric acid while melting
point of fumaric acid is more than maliec acid.
Reason (R) : Molecules of fumaric acid are more symmetric hence they can arrange
more closely packed in crystal structure.
85. Assertion (A) : In styrene geometrical isomerism is not observed.
Reason (R) : All the atoms in styrene molecule are in one plane
86. Assertion (A) : free radicals are paramagnetic.
Reason (R) : Free radicals have unpaired electrons.
87. Assertion (A) : Stability order of carbocation is 3o > 2o > 1o .
Reason (R) : As distance between alkyl group and reaction site increases +I effect
decreases.
88. Assertion (A) : Boiling point of cis isomer is more than trans isomer.
Reason (R) : Dipole moment of cis isomer is more than trans isomer.
89. Assertion (A) : Allyl free radicals are more stable than alkyl free radical.
Reason (R) : Due to resonance allyl free radicals are more stable.
90. Assertion (A) : CHBr = CHCl has geometrical isomers but CH2Br CH2Cl has no
geometrical isomers.
Reason (R) : For geometrical isomers presence of C = C is essential..
Answers : 78. (D), 79. (D), 80. (C), 81. (C), 82. (D), 83. (C), 84. (A), 85. (B), 86. (A),
87. (B), 88. (A), 89. (A), 90. (C).
489
21 Hydrocarbons
Classification of Hydrocarbons
Simple organic compounds having only carbon and hydrogen are called hydrocarbons. Their is clas-
sification as follows :
Hydro carbon Type Charac- General Bond Example

teristic formula
Alkane acyclic saturated CnH2n + 2

C C CH3 CH2 CH3 propane
cyclic saturated CnH2n C C CH2 cyclo propane
H2C CH2
alkene acyclic unsaturated CnH2n C = C CH3 CH = CH2 propene
cyclic unsaturated CnH2n 2

C = C CH2 cyclo propene
HC CH
alkyne acyclic unsaturated CnH2n 2

C º C CH3 C º CH propyne
arene cyclic specific CnH2n 6m

alternate
unsaturation C C and Benzene

C = C
Classification of carbon atoms in hydrocarbon
(i) Carbon connected with one other carbon is called primary (1o) carbon.
(ii) Carbon connected with two other carbon is called secondary (2o) carbon.
(iii) Carbon connected with three other carbon is called tertiary (3o) carbon.
(iv) Carbon connected with four other carbon is called quaternary (4o) carbon.
1. Which of the following is a saturated hydrocarbon ?
(A) Propene (B) Benzene (C) Cyclohexane (D) Acetylene
2. Which of the following is isomer of cyclo alkene ?

(A) cyclo alkane (B) alkyne (C) alkene (D) arene
3. What is the general formula of cyclic alkene ?
(A) CnH2n+2 (B) CnH2n-2 (C) CnH2n (D) CnH2n+1
4. Which of the following substance contains tertiary carbon ?

(A) Propane (B) n butane (C) 2 Methyl propane(D) Methane
490
5. Which of the following compound is only acyclic ?
(A) alkane (B) alkene (C) alkyne (D) arene
6. Which hydro carbon has 4o carbon ?
(A) isobutane (B) nhexane (C) neopentane (D) nbutane
7. In which of the following hydro carbon compound all four types of carbon (1o, 2o, 3o, 4o) are
present ?
(A) 2, 3dimethyl butane (B) 2, 2 dimethyl butane
(C) neo pentane (D) 2, 2, 3 trimethyl pentane
8. How many tertiary carbon atoms are present in 2, 3 dimethyl butane ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
9. Number of 1o, 2o, and 3o hydrogen atoms present in neopentane are ...... respectively.
(A) 0, 12, 6 (B) 12, 2, 0 (C) 6, 2, 0 (D) 12, 1, 1
10. ...... is example of alkyne.
(A) C5H8 (B) C8H16 (C) C9H18 (D) C7H16
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (B), 3. (B), 4. (C), 5. (C), 6. (C), 7. (D), 8. (B), 9. (B), 10. (A)
General information, Nomenclature and isomerism in alkane

General Information :
® sp3 hybridization and tetrahedral shape.
® C C and C H bond length 154 and 112 pm.respectively
® H C H bond angle 109o 28'
® Nomenclature : Refer Unit : 20
® Isomerism :
In alkane chain isomerism and conformational isomerism is observed. Out of which chain
isomerism is discussed in unit 20.
Conformational isomerism : In alkane C C single bond can rotate along with its bond
axis. As a result hydrogen or atoms connected with both carbon can arranged at different distance
and various spatial arrangement become possible. These are known as conformer isomers or
rotamers. Out of these two isomers staggerd and eclipsed are important other isomers are in
between two out of which skew or gauche is also important onc.
Two conformer of ethane are as follows :
Newmann projection Sawhorse projection
H H
H H
H H H H H
H
H
H H
H
H H H H H H H
H H H
Staggered Eclipsed Staggered Eclipsed

491
In staggered structure hydrogen of both carbon are arranged far from each other hence repulsion
is less so it is more stable. (dihedral angle 180°)
In eclipsed structure hydrogen of both carbon are arranged closer (in diff plane) from each other
hence, repulsion is more so stability is less (dihedral angle 0°)
Out of staggered and eclipsed, staggered is more stable.
Stability order for conformers of butane is as follows :
Staggered (anti) > Skew or Gauche > Partially eclipsed > Fully eclipsed
In cyclohexane chair and boat conformers are observed out of which chair conformer is more
stable.
11. In alkane compound C H bond length and, H C H bond angle is ...... respectively.
(A) 112 pm 120o (B) 112 pm, 109o 281 (C) 154 pm, 109o 281 (D) 135 pm, 180o
12. Which of the following is the structure of isobutyl group ?
(A) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 (B) CH3 CH CH2
CH3
(C) CH3 CH CH2 CH3 (D) (CH3)3 C
13. Which sentence is incorrect with reference to isopentane ?

(A) It has three methyl group. (B) It has only one CH2 group.
(C) It has one CH group . (D) It has one quaternary carbon
14. Which of the following compound has isopropyl group ?

(A) 3, 3dimethyl pentane (B) 2, 2, 3, 3tetramethyl pentane
(C) 2methyl pentane (D) 2, 2, 3tri methyl pentane
15. Acidic saturated hydrocarbon has molor mass 72 gm/mol then how many isomers are possible for
it ?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 3
16. C H bond length is least in ......
(A) C2H2 (B) C2H4 (C) C2H6 (D) C2H2Br2
17. Which of the following is staggered conformer of ethane ?
H
H
H H
H
(A) (B) H
H
H H
H
H H
H
H
(C) (D) None of the three.

H
H H
H
492
18. Out of four conformer of nbutane which one is most stable ?
(A) eclipsed (B) partially eclipsed (C) staggered (D) gauch
19. Which structure of cyclo hexa triene is most stable ?
(A) chair (B) boat (C) half chair (D) plannar
20. In which of the following cyclic structure maximum strain is observed ?
(A) Cyclohexane (B) Cyclo pentane (C) Cyclo butane (D) Cyclo propane
Answers : 11. (B), 12. (B), 13. (D), 14. (C), 15. (D), 16. (C), 17. (A), 18. (C), 19. (D), 20. (D)
Preparation and properties of alkane

Preparation :
By hydrogenation of alkene and alkyne
Pt / Pd
R CH = CH2 + H2 R CH2 CH3
Pt / Pd
R C ≡ CH + 2H2 R CH2 CH3 (R = alkyl group)
Reduction of alkyl halide
Zn / HCl
R X + H2 R H + HX
By decarboxylation of sodium salt of carboxylic acid
Soda lime
R COONa R H + Na2CO3
NaOH + CaO
Wurtz reaction
dry
2R X + 2Na ether R R + 2 NaX
Grignard reaction
dry
ether HX
R X + Mg R Mg X R H + Mg X2
Frankland reaction
dry
2R I + Zn ether R R + ZnI2
By reduction of carbocyclic acid, aldehyde ketone and alcohol alkane is formed.

Correy-house reaction
R - X + R ’2CuLi 
→ R - R’ + RCu + LiX (R and R' same or different)
493
Kolbes electrolytic method
electrolysis
2 R COONa + 2H2O R – R + 2CO2+ 2NaOH + H2
at anode at cathode
Physical properties
Alkane having C1 to C4 are gaseous, C5 to C17 are liquid C18 or more than C18 are solids.
In alkane series or number of carbon increases boiling point increases.
As alkane is nonpolar insoluble in water but in non polar solvent like benzene it is soluble.
In alkane boiling point decreases from 1o ®2 ®3. o o
Chemical properties
Halogenation : Reactivity order F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2.
hv
CH4 + Cl2 CH3 Cl + HCl
Ni
Reaction with steam : CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + H2(g)
water gas
Arromatization :
Mo2O3 or V2 O5 or Cr2 O3
CH3 (CH2)4 CH3 + 4H2
773K, 10–20 bar
n-hexane benzene
Isomerization :
Anhy
[AlCl 3]
CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 CH3 CH CH3 .....
isobutane
n-butane CH3
Racking :
770–970K
2CH3CH2CH3 CH3 CH = CH2 + CH2 = CH2 + CH4 + H2
propane propene ethene Methane
Nitration : CH4 + HNO3 
→ CH3NO2 + H2O
Methane Nitro methane
675 K
Sulphonation : C6H14 + H2SO4 C6H13 SO3H + H2O
hexane hexane sulphonic acid
Oxidation : CH4(g) + 2O2(g) CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) + heat
494
21. Conversion of but1ene into but-2-ene is done by reacting it with .......
(A) Pd / H2 (B) Zn / HCl (C) Sn / HCl (D) Zn Hg
22. By which method propane can be obtained form propene ?

(A) Wurtz reaction (B) Grignard reaction
(C) Catalytic hydrogenation (D) Frank land reaction
23. In preparation of propane from propyne hybridization of carbon changes from ......
(A) sp2 to sp (B) sp2 to sp3 (C) sp to sp3 (D) sp3 to sp
24. By which reaction butane can be prepared from ethyl chloride in one step ?
(A) Wurtz reaction (B) Frankland reaction (C) Hydrogenation (D) Grignard reaction
25. Preparation of methane can be done by ......
(A) hydrogenation (B) water reaction (C) decarboxcylation (D) all the given
26. By which method alkene having same no of carbon can be prepared from halo alkane ?
(A) Wurtz reaction (B) Grignard reaction (C) reduction (D) both (B) and (C)
27. Kolbes electrolysis of sodium acetate gives ...... .
(A) methane (B) ethane (C) ethene (D) acetic acid
28. ...... has highest boiling point.
(A) n-hexane (B) n-pentane
(C) 2-methyl butane (D) 2, 2-dimethyl propane
29. Boiling point of neopentane is more than ...... .
(A) iso pentane (B) n-pentane (C) butane (D) n-hexane
30. Benzene obtained from n-hexane by ...... reaction.
(A) isomerism (B) Craking (C) rearrangement (D) cydization
31. Kerosene is a mixture of ...... .
(A) alkanes (B) aromatic compounds (C) alcohols (D) CO + H2
32. Which compound gives methane by reaction with water ?
(A) Al4C3 (B) CaC2 (C) VC (D) SiC
33. For following conversion CH3CH2COOH 

→ CH3CH2CH3 which reagnet is appropriate ?
(A) LiAlH4 (B) Sodalime (C) Red P / HI (D) Zn / HCl
34. Halogenation of alkane is example of which of the following ?
(A) Electrophilic substituion (B) Nuclcophilic substitution
(C) Free radical substitution (D) addition reaction
35. Which parafin is solid at room temperature ?
(A) C3H8 (B) C8H18 (C) C4H10 (D) C20H42
Answers : 21. (A), 22. (C), 23. (C), 24. (A), 25. (C), 26. (D), 27. (B), 28. (A), 29. (C),
30. (D), 31. (A), 32. (A), 33. (C), 34. (C), 35. (D)
495
General information, Nomenclature and isomerism of alkene
sp2 hybridization and trigonal plannar shape
C C and C H bond length 134 and 110 pm respectively
H C H bond angle 116o6 and C C H bond angle 121o7
Nomenclature : Refer Unit : 20
Isomerism : Alkene has position isomerism, chain isomerism and geometrical isomerism
position isomerism is discussed in unit 20.
Geometrical isomerism : In some alkene compounds though their molecular and structural
formula are same but atoms or groups arranged differently in space in different direction.
Which is called geometrical isomerism. Geometrical isomers shown by cis and trans.
This isomerism is observed in planner molecule having C = C.
Due to restricted rotation around C = C geometrical isomerism arises.
Two isomers of but2ene are as follows :
CH3 CH3 CH3 H

C=C or C=C
H H H CH3
cis but-2-ene trans but-2-ene
Geometrical isomerism is observed in compounds like ab C = C ab, ab C = C ad ab C = C

de but it is not observed in the compounds like ab C = C bb or aa C = Cab type of
compounds.
cis isomer is polar while trans isomer is non-polar.
cis isomer has greater solubilly in water than trans isomer.
36. In ethene C = C and C H bond length is ...... respectively.

(A) 134, 112 (B) 154, 112 (C) 134, 110 (D) 139, 110
37. Shape of ethene molecule is ...... .

(A) linear (B) tetrahedral (C) octahedral (D) trigonal plannar
38. IUPAC name of (CH3)2 . CH CH = CH CH = CH is ...... .
CH CH3
C2H5
(A) 2, 7dimethyl nona 3, 5diene (B) 2, 7dimethyl octa3, 5diene
(C) 2ethyl 7methyl octa3, 5diene (D) 7methyl non3ene
496
39. IUPAC name of is ......
(A) 4ethyl 3methyl pent4en1yne (B) 2ethyl 4methyl pent1en 4yne

(C) 4ethyl 3Methyl pent1yne4ene (D) 2ethyl 3methyl pent4yne1ene
40. Which compound shows geometrical isomerism ?

(A) butane (B) but1ene (C) but2ene (D) but2yne
41. Number of possible alkene isomers of C4H8 is ...... .

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
42. In which of the following compound carbon has sp and sp2 hybridization.
(A) propene (B) propyne
(C) propadiene (D) none
43. Hybridization of carbon atoms buta 1, 3diene is ...... type.

(A) sp, sp2, sp3 (B) sp2, sp3 (C) sp, sp2 (D) Võík sp2
44. How many alkene isomers of C5H10 are possible ?

(A) 7 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6
45. Number of isomers of C2H2Br2 is ...... .

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 0
Answers : 36. (C), 37. (D), 38. (A), 39. (B), 40. (C), 41. (C), 42. (C), 43. (D), 44. (D),
45. (C)
Preparation and properties of alkene

(I) Preparation :
H2
Hydrogenation of alkyne : R C ≡ CH R CH = CH2
Pd / C
Lindlers catalyst
Dehydrohalogenation of alkylholide (b elimination reaction) :
Ethanol
b
CH3 CH2 Cl + KOH
a
CH2 = CH2 + KCl + H2O
From vicinal dihalide :
Br CH2 CH2 Br + Zn CH2 = CH2 + Zn Br2

Dehydration of alcohol :
concH2SO4
CH3 CH2 OH CH2 = CH2 + H2O
443 K
497
Kolbes electrolysis method :
CH2 COOK CH2
electolysis
+ 2H2O + 2CO2 + 2 KOH + H2
CH2 COOK CH2
at anode at cathode
(II) Physical properties :
Boiling point of alkyne is more than corresponding alkane due to polar nature.
Boilling point of cis isomer is more than trans isomer.
Melting point of trans alkene is more than cis isomer.
In soluble in water but soluble in organic solvent.
In isomers boiling point decreases from 1o ® 2o ® 3o.
(III) Chemical Properties :
Due to pbond alkene shows following additional reactions :
Pt / Pd
Hydrogenation : CH2 = CH2 + H2 CH3 CH3
Halogenation : CH2 = CH2 + X2 

→ X CH2 CH2 X where, X = Cl, Br, I
Hydrohalogenation :
(a) Symmetric alkene CH2 = CH2 + HX 

→ CH3 CH2 X (X = Cl, Br, I)
(b) Asymmetric alkene : CH3 CH = CH2 + HX 

→ CH3 CH CH3 2halo propane
X
Note : Hydrohalogenation of asymmetric alkene follows Markovnikoff rule : As per this rule
negative part of reagent. Combine with ethylenic carbon having less number of hydrogen.
(c) Reaction of asymmetric alkene with HBr in presence of peroxide catalyst follows anti
( )
Markovnikoff rule. In this reaction negative part of reagent X combines with ethylenic
carbon having more number of hydrogen.
benzoyl peroxide
eg., CH3 CH = CH2 + HBr CH3 CH2 CH2 Br
1 Bromo propane
This reaction do not take place with HCl or HI.
dilH2SO4
Hydration : CH2 = CH2 + H2O CH3 CH2 OH
dilH2SO4
CH3 CH = CH2 + H2O CH3 CH CH3 (Markovnikoff)
OH
Cold
Oxidation : (a) CH2 = CH2 CH2 – CH2
alk. KMnO4
OH OH
ethylene glycol
498
During this reaction pink colour of KMnO4 disappear it is known as Bayers test for unsaturation.
Hot
(b) CH2 = CH2 2 HCOOH
alk. KMnO4
Formic acid
Ozonolysis :
O
Zn
R CH = CH2 + O3 
→ R – CH CH2 R CHO + HCHO
H2O
O O
Ozonide
46. Which major product is obtained on reaction of chloro ethene with alcoholic KOH ?
(A) ehtane (B) ethene (C) ethanol (D) ethyne
alcoholic
47. CH3 CH CH2 CH3 major product.
KOH
Br
(A) butane (B) but1ene (C) but2ene (D) butyne
48. Lindlars catalyst is mixture of what ?
(A) Ni + H2 (B) Pt / H2 (C) Pd + Pt (D) Pd + charlcol
49. Which substance can form alkene by elimination reaction ?
(A) haloalkane (B) dihaloalkane (C) alcohol (D) all
50. Which compound on heating with Zn gives but-2-ene ?
(A) 2, 3dibromobutane (B) 1, 2dibromobutane
(C) but2yne (D) None
51. ...... is the gas which removes colour of basic KMnO4 produced by reaction between ethyl
iodidc and alcoholic KOH.
(A) C2H6 (B) C2H4 (C) C2H2 (D) CH4
52. Preparation of alkene from vicinal dihalide known as ...... .
(A) decarboxylation (B) dehydrohelogenation(C) dehalogenation (D) dehydrogenation
CH3
H2SO4
53. Product of CH3 C CH3 is.
OH
(A) propene (B) but 1 ene (C) propanol (D) 2methyl propene
54. CH3 CH2 CH = CH2 + HBr 
→ .........
(A) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 (B) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 Br
(C) CH3 CH2 CH CH3 (D) CH3 CH2 C ≡ CH
Br
499
55. CH2 = CH Cl + HCl 
→ .........
(A) CH3 CH2 Cl (B) CH3 CHCl2 (C) CH2 – CH2 (D) CH ≡ CH
Cl Cl
56. ...... product is obtained on reaction between 2-methyl prop-1-ene and HBr in presence of benzoyl
peroxide.
Br
(A) CH3 CH CH2Br (B) CH3 C CH3
CH3 3 CH3
(C) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br (D) CH3 CH2 CH CH3
Br
57. For the reaction of which of the following compounds Markonikoff rule is useful ?
(A) C2H4 + HCl (B) C3H6 + Br2
(C) C3H6 + HBr (D) C2H4 + I2
58. R CH2 CH = CH2 + ICl 
→
(A) R CH2 CH CH2 I (B) R CH2 CH CH2 CI
Cl I
(C) R CH2 CH = CH2 (D) R CH = CH CH2 I
I
59. In presence of peroxide alkene do not give anti Markovnikoff reaction with HCl or HI
because ......
(A) both are highly ionic.
(B) one is oxidising agent other is reducing agent.
(C) In both case one step is endothermic.
(D) In both case all the steps are endothermic.
60. Major product of reaction between 3phenyl propene with HBr is ...... .
(A) C6H5CH2CH(Br)CH3 (B) C6H5CH(Br)CH2CH3
(C) C6H5CH2CH2CH2Br (D) C6H5CH(Br)CH = CH2
61. Which of the following compound do not give reaction with HBr according to Markovnikoff
rule.
(A) Propene (B) but1ene (C) but2ene (D) pent2ene
(C6H 5CO)2O 2
62. isobutene + HBr ...... .
(A) 3o butyl bromide (B) isobutyl bromide
o
(C) 3 butyl alcohol (D) isobutyl alcohol
63. Butene from butane can be formed by reaction with ......
(A) Zn HCl (B) Sn HCl (C) Zn Hg (D) Pd / H2
500
64. Propene on reaction with HI gives isopropyl iodide not n-propyl iodide because ......
(A) Reaction takes place by more stable carbonium ion.
(B) Reaction takes place by more stable free radical.
(C) Reaction takes place by more stable carbonium ion.
(D) none of the above.
65. Identify B in the following reaction sequence :
O3 Zn
CH3 CH = CH CH3 A B
H2O
(A) 2CH3CHO (B) 2CH 3COCH 3 (C) 2CH 3COOH (D) CH3CH2CH2CH3
Answers : 46. (B), 47. (C), 48. (D), 49. (D), 50. (A), 51. (B), 52. (C), 53. (D), 54. (C),
55. (B), 56. (A), 57. (C), 58. (A), 59. (C), 60. (B), 61. (C), 62. (B), 63. (D),
64. (A), 65. (A)
General Information, Nomenclature and isomerism of alkyne

General information : sp hybridization and linear shape.
C ≡ C and C H bond length 120 and 106 pm respectively.
Bond angle 180o
Nomenclature : Refer Unit : 20
Isomerism : In alkyne position, chain and ring chain isomerism is observed.
66. Compound with which of the following bound is most reactive ?

(A) C C (B) C = C (C) C ≡ C (D) All
67. In which of the following compound all atoms are linearly bonded ?
(A) Propane (B) Propene (C) Propyne (D) All
68. Hybridization of second carbon in buta 1, 2diene is ...... .
(A) sp (B) sp2 (C) sp3 (D) dsp 2
69. Triple bond between two carbon in alkyne is formed by ...... .
(A) 1 sigma 2 pi (B) 1 pi 2 sigma (C) 3 sigma (D) 3 pi
70. IUPAC name of (CH3)3 C C ≡ C C (CH3)3 is ...... .
(A) 3, 3, 4, 4tetra methyl Hex3yne (B) 2, 2, 5, 5tetra methyl Hex3yne
(C) 2, 2, 5, 5tetra methyl Hex4yne (D) di(trimethyl)2yne
71. How many alkyne isomers are possible for compound having molecular formula C5H8 ?
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 5
72. Which of the following is isomer of propyne ?
(A) Cyclo propyne (B) Cyclo propene (C) Propene (D) Propane
Answers : 66. (C), 67. (C), 68. (A), 69. (A), 70. (B), 71. (C), 72. (B)
501
Preparation and properties of alkyne
Preparation :
Hydrolysis of Calcium Carbide :
CaC2 + 2H2O 
→ Ca(OH)2 + CH ≡ CH
Dehydrohalogenation of vicinal dihalide :
ethanol NaNH2
CH2 CH2 + KOH CH2 = CH CH ≡ CH
KBr NaBr
H 2O NH3
Br Br Br
Dehalogenation of tetrahalide :
R C Br2 CH Br2 + 2Zn R C ≡ CH + 2ZnBr2

Kolbes electrolysis method :
H C COOK CH
electrolysis
+ 2H2O + 2CO2 + 2KOH + H2
H C COOK CH
potassium malate at anode at cathode
Higher alkyne from acetylene :
Na/Liq . NH3 R–X
CH ≡ CH HC ≡ C Na+ R C ≡ CH + NaX
Physical properties
Alkyne is weakly polar.
Insoluble in water but soluble in non polar solvent.
Compared to corresponding alkane and alkene, alkynes have higher boiling point and melting point.
Ethyne and terminal alkyne shows acidic character. They are weak acids.
Chemical properties
Like alkene alkyne also gives addition reactions. :
Hydrogenation :
Pd / C H2
CH ≡ CH + H2 CH2 = CH2 CH3 CH3
Pd / C
R R
Lindlars catalyst
C=C
H2, Pd / C
H H
R C ≡ C R cis alkene
R H
Birch reduction
C=C
H2, Na/Liq⋅NH3
H R
trans-alkene
502
Halogenation :
Cl2
CH ≡ CH + Cl2 → CHCl = CHCl CHCl2 CHCl2
Hydrohalogenation :
HB r
CH ≡ CH + HBr → CH2 = CHBr CH3 CHBr2 (Markovnikoff)
Hydration :
dilH2SO4 re-arrangement
CH ≡ CH + H2O CH2 = CH CH3 C H
HgSO4
333K
OH O
Polymerization :
Red hot Fe tube

3CH ≡ CH
775 K
Oxidation :
Cold
(a) CH3 C ≡ CH CH3COOH + CO2
terminal alkyne
Cold
(a) CH3 C ≡ C CH3 CH3 C C CH3
O O
non terminal alkyne
Hot
(b) CH3 C ≡ CH CH3COOH + CO2
terminal alkyne
Hot
CH3 C ≡ C CH3 CH3COOH + CH3COOH
non-terminal alkyne
Ozonolysis :
O
CH CH Zn / H 2O
CH ≡ CH + O3 
→ H C C H
O O
O O
Glyoxal
Acidic nature :
(i) Acetylene and terminal alkynes reacts with strong base like sodamide due to acidic nature.
CH ≡ CH + NaNH2 
→ HC ≡ C · Na + + NH3
Sodium acetylide
(ii) By decomposing Grignard reagent gives alkane
CH ≡ CH + R Mg X 
→ R H + HC ≡ C MgX
503
73. Colourless gas obtained by reaction between metal carbide and water is ...... .
(A) Methane (B) ethane (C) acetylene (D) ethylene
74. Identify X and Y in the following reaction :
dilH2SO4
CaC2(S) + H2O(1) → X
HgSO4
Y
(A) Xethylene Y-acetaldehyde (B) Xacetylene Yethanol

(C) Xethane Yethanol (D) Xacetylene Yethenol
75. 1, 2di bromo ehtane on reaction with alcoholic KOH gives ...... .
(A) ethane (B) acetylene (C) ethylene (D) methane
76. Product obtain by reaction between haloalkene and sodamide is ...... .
(A) alkane (B) alkene (C) alkyne (D) holo alkane
77. Which of the following compound has acidic hydrogen ?
(A) ethene (B) ethyne (C) propyne (D) both (B) and (C)
78. By which of the following reaction propyne is formed ?
(A) CH3Br with acetylene (B) CH3Br with sodium acetylide
(C) CH3I with sodium acetate (D) Methane with ethene
79. Oxidation of but-1-yne by hot alkaline KMnO4 gives ...... .
(A) CH3CH2CH2COOH (B) CH3CH2COOH
(C) CH3CH2COOH + CO2 + H2O (D) CH3CH2COOH + HCOOH
80. ...... is obtained by reaction between acetylene and ethyl magnesium bromide.
(A) Butane (B) Ethane (C) but-1-ene (D) but2ene
81. Final product of reductive ozonolysis of but2yne is ...... .
(A) glyoxal (B) 2CH 3COOH (C) but 2, 3 dione (D) butanal
82. Final product of C2H2 with HCl is ......
(A) CH = CH Cl (B) CH3 CHCl2 (C) CH – Cl (D) None
CH – Cl
HgCl2
83. CH ≡ CH + HCl product.
(A) Methyl chloride (B) Dichloro ethane (C) Vinyl chloride (D) Ethyl chloride
84. Which final product is obtained by reaction of propyne with dilute H2SO4 in presence of
HgSO4.
(A) propanal (B) propyl hydrogen sulphate
(C) propanal (D) acetone
85. ...... type of reactions are given by alkyne compounds.
(A) substitution (B) addition (C) polymerization (D) all
Answers : 73. (C), 74. (D), 75. (B), 76. (C), 77. (D), 78. (B), 79. (C), 80. (B), 81. (C),
82. (B), 83. (C), 84. (D), 85. (D)
504
Arene (aromatic hydro carbon) General information, Nomencluture and structure of benzene
Compounds having benzene ring are called aromatic compounds.
Aromatic compounds having only carbon and hydrogen are called aromatic hydrocarbon or arene.
Their first member is benzene.
General formula of arene is CnH2n 6m
where m = number of rings
Aromatic compounds having benzene ring are called benzanoids. eg. biphenyl, napthalene,
anthracene, phenanthrene, napthacene
Aromatic compounds which do not have benezene ring are called non-benzaoids. eg. pyrol, furan,
thiofin, pyridine.
Nomencluture
By displacing hydrogen of benzene with other group substituted benzene can be obtained.
CH3 NO2 CH3 CH3 CH3

CH3
CH3
CH3
benzene methyl nitro benzene o– xylene m –xylene p– xylene
benzene (Toluene)
Structure of Benzene
Molecular formula of benzene is C6H6. It has hexagonal cyclic structure with alternate C C and
C = C.
Resonating structure of benzene as per kekule is as follows :
Mono substituted benzene has only one isomer while disubstituted has three isomers (or the
meta and para)
Benzene has less chemical reactivity and greater stability is called aromatic character.
Benzene follows (4n + 2) pe rule of Huckel hence it is aromatic.
86. Which of the following is aromatic hydrocarbon ?

(A) cyclohexane (B) toluene (C) phenol (D) aniline
87. Molecular formula of anthracene is ...... .
(A) C6H6 (B) C6H12 (C) C10H8 (D) C14H10

88. Which of the following is non benzanoid ?
(A) Napthalene (B) Aniline (C) Pyridine (D) Napthacene
89. Reaction of benzene with 3 moles Cl2 in presence of sunlight gives ...... product.
(A) C6H3Cl3 (B) C6Cl6 (C) C6H6Cl6 (D) C6H5Cl

90. Chemical name of pesticide gamaxene is ...... .
(A) DDT (B) BHC (C) chloral (D) hexa chlorethane
505
91. Carbon-carbon bond length in benzene is ...... pm.
(A) 154 and 134 (B) only 134 (C) only 154 (D) 139
92. Which product is obtained by ozonolysis of benzene followed by hydorlysis of product ?
(A) Benzenetriozonide (B) acetaldehyde (C) glyoxal (D) benzone
93. According to Huckels rule how many pes are present in phenanthrene ?
(A) 6 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14
94. Benzene shows ...... type of reaction.
(A) substitution (B) addition (C) oxidation (D) all the given
95. How many s and p bonds are present in biphenyl respectively ?
96. Which of the following sentence is correct for benzene ?
(A) Due to unsaturation benzen gives addition reaction easily.
(B) In benzen 3 types of CH bond.
(C) In benzene cyclic delocalized p bonds are present.
(D) In benzene 6p electrons are localized.
97. Number of s and p bonds in phenol are ...... respectively.
(A) 13, 2 (B) 12, 3 (C) 13, 3 (D) 13, 4
98. What is the hybridization of all six carbon in benzene ?
(A) sp (B) sp2 (C) sp3 (D) sp2 and sp3
99. Why benzene has higher stability and less reactivity ?
(A) sp3 hybridization of six carbon atom (B) cyclic structure of six carbon atom
(C) high resonance energy (D) unsaturated nature of benzene ring
100. Which compound do not follow Huckels rule ?
(A) Benzene (B) Cyclohexane (C) Napthalene (D) Pyrol
Answers : 86. (B), 87. (D), 88. (C), 89. (C), 90. (B), 91. (D), 92. (C), 93. (D), 94. (D),
95. (B), 96. (C), 97. (C), 98. (B), 99. (C), 100. (B)
Preparation of Benzene
By cyclic polymerization of ethyne
red hot Fe tube

3CH ≡ CH
873 K
By decarboxylation of sodium benzoate
COONa
sodalime
+ Na2CO3
NaOH + CaO
By reduction of phenol
506
OH
Zn
+ ZnO
Electrophillic substitution reaction of benzene

NO2
Nitration
+ H2 O
conc. HNO 3+ conc. HSO4
323–333 K nitrobenzene
SOH
3
Sulphonation
+ H2 O
conc. H2SO4 + SO 3
353 K benzene sulphonic acid
Cl
Chlorination
+ Hl
Cl2
[Fe Cl3] 303–313 K chlorobenzene
Br
Benzene Bromination
+ Hr
Br2
[Fe Br3] Bromobenzene
CH
Friedel Craft acylation
+ HlC
CHCl
[Any.AlCl 3] 353 K Toluene
COCH
Friedel Craft acylation
+ HlC or CHCOOH
CH3COCl (CH3CO)2O
[Anhy.AlCl3] 353 K Acetophenone
Directive effect of inductive group

Due to effect of first group connected with benzene, at which position second group is
connected is determined. Hence 1st group present in mono substituted benzene is called inductive
group and this effect is called directive effect.
Directive effect are at two types :
(a) o and p directive group (e donor group)
R, C6H5, X, OH, OR, NH2, NHR, NR2, NHCOR
(b) meta directive group (e attracting group)
NO2, SO3H, COOH, COOR, CN, CHO, COR, CCl3

507
101. By which reaction of phenol, benzene can be obtained ?
(A) oxidation (B) reduction (C) decarboxilation (D) cyclization
102. Which of the following is strongest o/p directive group ?
(A) OH (B) Cl (C) C6H 5 (D) Br
103. due to inductive effect of which group in benzene substitution takes place at meta position ?
(A) NH 2 (B) Cl (C) CH 3 (D) COCH 3
104. Which of the following compound produces meta product during chlorination?
(A) ethoxy benzene (B) chloro benzene (C) ethyl benzoate (D) toluene
105. Electrophilic ion substituted during acylation of benzene is ...... .
(A) +CH3 (B) CH 3 (C) +SO3H (D) CH3+CO
106. Product obtained by nitration of benzene is ...... (Temperature 323 K)
(A) nitro benzene (B) nitroso benzene
(C) O-dinitro benzene (D) mdinitrobenzene
107. Product obtained by reaction of benzene with concentrated HNO3 and H2SO4 of 353 to
363 K temperature is ...... .
(A) benzene sulphonic acid (B) nitro benzene
(C) mdinitro benzene (D) (o and p) dinitro benzene
108. Which of the following compound is most reactive towards electrophilic aromatic substitution
reaction ?
(A) benzene (B) toluene (C) benzoic acid (D) nitro benzene
109. In which of the following compound second substituion is difficult ?
(A) toluene (B) chloro benzene (C) phenol (D) aceto phenone
110. At which position new group will enter during nitration of toluene ?
(A) ortho (B) meta (C) para (D) ortho + para
Answers : 101. (B), 102. (A), 103. (D), 104. (C), 105. (D), 106. (A), 107. (C), 108. (B),
109. (D), 110. (D)
Reaction and conversion of toluene

Reaction of phenyl group in toluene :
Toluene also gives electrophillic substitution reaction like benzene for eg. nitration, sulphonation,
chlorination, bromination, alkylation, acylation etc.
CH3 group in toluene is ortho-para directive group hence second substitution takes place at ortho
and para position. (Study the reactions from Textbook.)
508
Reaction of methyl group in toluene :
CH2C l CHCl2 CCl3

chlorination Cl2/hv Cl2/hv
Cl2 / sunlight –HCl –HCl
384 K
Benzyl chloride Benzal dichloride Benzo trichloride
–HC l
aq. aq. +H2O aq. +2H2O

NaOH –NaC l Ca(OH)2 – 2HC l Ca(OH)2 – 3HC l
CH2OH CHO COOH
CH3
Benzyl alcohol Benzaldehyde Benzoic acid
CHO COOH
Toluene
oxidation KMnO4/ KOH
CrO2Cl2, [O]
Benzaldehyde Benzoic acid
COCH
oxidation
KMnO4 / KOH
Benzoic acid
Conversion : Process to convert one organic compound into another is called organic conversion.
eg, Benzene to benzoic acid.
CH3 COOH
CH3Cl KMnO4/ KOH
[Anhy.AlCl3] [O]
353 K – HCl Toluene Benzoic acid
Benzen
111. Product obtained by complete nitration of toluene is ...... .
(A) onitro toluene (B) pnitro toluene
(C) 2, 4dinitro toluene (D) 2, 4, 6trinitro toluene
112. ...... is obtained by reaction of toluene with Cl2 in presence of FeCl3.
(A) mchloro benzene (B) benzyl chloride
(C) o and p chloro toluene (D) chloro benzene
509
113. ...... is obtained by chlorination of toluene in presence of sunlight .
CH3 CH2Cl CH3 CH3

Cl Cl
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Cl
Cl
114. In Friedel Craft reaction ...... catalyst is used.
(A) anhy.ZnCl2 (B) anhy.AlCl3 (C) FeCl3 (D) CH3Cl
115. What is the function of anhy AlCl3 in Friedel Craft reaction ?

(A) To absorb water. (B) To produce free radical.
(C) To produce electrophilic ion. (D) To produce nucleophilic ion.
116. Methylation of toluene in presence of HF/BF3 gives ...... .

(A) oxylene (B) pxylene (C) o and p xylene (D) mxylene
CH3
KMnO4 / KOH sodalime
117. X Y, X and Y are ...... .
[O]
CHO COOH COOH SO3H
(A) X = Y = (B) X = Y =
COOH CHO
(C) X = Y= (D) X = Y =
Zn CH3COCl
118. X Benzene Y identify X and Y.
anhy AlCl3
(A) Xbenzoic acid, Ytoluene (B) Xphenol, Ytoluene

(C) Xphenol, Yaceto phenone (D) Xtoluene, Yaceto phenone
C2H5Cl ZnO
119. In the reaction P Q final product Q is ...... .
[anhy AlCl3] 903 K
353 K
(A) Benzene (B) mXylene (C) ethyl benzene (D) styrene

120. Identify A and B in the following reaction :
H2SO4
CaC2(s) + H2O(1) 
→ A B
HgSO4
(A) Aethylene Bacetaldehyde (B) Aacetylene Bpropanol

(C) Aethane Bethanol (D) Aacetylene Bacetaldehyde
510
Instruction : For question no. 121 to 125 for correct sentence T and for incorrect sence F then
select correct option :
121. (i) Each carbon in benzene is sp2 hybridized.
(ii) In benzene CC bondlength is 154 and 134 para alternatively.
(iii) In benzene 6p electrons are loalized.
(iv) In benzene 6 carbon and 6 hydrogen are identical.
(A) TFFT (B) FTFT (C) TTFF (D) TTTF
122. (i) At normal temperature benzene gives addition reaction with H2, Cl2 and O3 .
(ii) Benzene gives nucleophilic substitution reaction easily.
(iii) Reactivity of benzene is more than alkene.
(A) TFT (B) TTT (C) TTF (D) FFF
123. (i) Benzene is plannar.
(ii) In benzene cyclic shaped molecular orbital of 6p electron.
(iii) Due to resonance reactivity of benzene increases.
(iv) Benzene is insoluble in water.
(A) TTFT (B) TTFF (C) FTTF (D) TTFF
124. (i) NHCH3 is meta directing group.
(ii) Chlorination of benzoic acid gives Ochloro benzoic acid.
(iii) TNT is used as explosive.
(iv) Ozonolysis of benzene gives addition reaction.
(A) TFFT (B) TTFT (C) FFTT (D) FFTF
125. (i) Chlorobenzene gives Friedel Craft reaction.
(ii) OH group is electron donor group.
(iii) Nitration of benzene done by nucleophile +NO2.
(iv) Benzene burns with sooty flame.
(A) TTFT (B) TFFF (C) FTTF (D) TFFT
Instruction : Read the paragraph carefully and answer the questions below it.
Paragraph : The compound or ions which follows Huckels rule are called aromatic
compounds. Main important point of this law are as follows :
(i) Compound or ion must be plannar.
(ii) It has delocalized p electron coloured.
(iii) p electron cloud should cover all the carbon atom of cyclic system.
(iv) Total number of p e should be 4n + 2 where n = 0, 1, 2, .....
126. Which of the following compound is not aromatic ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
127. Which of the following system is aromatic ?
+ + H
(A) (B) (C) (D)
511
128. Which of the following compound is aromatic ?
(A) (B) (C) (D) all
N
S
H
Pyrol Furan Thiofene
In question 129 to 131 column-I and column-II aer given match them and select correct option :
(1) alkane (p) CnH2n2 (A) (1)−(r), (2)−(q), (3)−(p), (4)−(s)
(2) alkene (q) CnH2n (B) (1)−(p), (2)−(q), (3)−(r), (4)−(s)
(3) alkyne (r) CnH2n+2 (C) (1)−(s), (2)−(r), (3)−(q), (4)−(r)
(4) arene (s) CnH2n6m (D) (1)−(r), (2)−(s), (3)−(p), (4)−(q)
130. Column-I (Reaction) Column-II (Hydro carbon product)

(a) decarboxylation of sodium acetate (p) ethyne
(b) Wurtz reaction (q) 2methyl propane
(c) Correy-House reaction (r) nbutane
(d) dehydro halogenation (s) methane
(A) (a)−(r), (b)−(p), (c)−(q), (d)−(s) (B) (a)−(s), (b)−(r), (c)−(q), (d)−(p)
(C) (a)−(q), (b)−(s), (c)−(r), (d)−(p) (D) (a)−(p), (b)−(q), (c)−(s), (d)−(r)
131. Column-I (Reaction) Column-II (Reagent)
(a) CH3COCH3 → CH3CH2CH3 (p) Sodalime
(b) CH3CH2Br → CH2 = CH2 (q) Zn powder
(c) C6H5COOH → C6H6 (r) alcoholic KOH
(d) C6H5OH → C6H6 (s) HI / Red P
(A) (a)−(p), (b)−(s), (c)−(q), (d)−(r) (B) (a)−(q), (b)−(p), (c)−(s), (d)−(r)
(C) (a)−(s), (b)−(r), (c)−(p), (d)−(q) (D) (a)−(s), (b)−(q), (c)−(r), (d)−(p)
In the following questions two sentences are given out of which one is assertion (A) and
other is reason (R). Study the sentences given below properly and select the open given
below :
(A) Assertion (A) and reason (R) both are correct and reason (R) is correct explanation of
assertion (A).
of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct while reason (R) is incorrect.
512
132. Assertion (A) : Stability of benzene is less than alkene
Reason (R) : Resonance energy of benzene indicates its greater stability and less chemical
reactivity.
133. Assertion (A) : cis but2ene is polar while trans but-2-ene is non polar.
Reason (R) : In trans isomer both methyl groups are on opposite sides hence net dipole
moment is zero.
134. Assertion (A) : Though benzene has double bond it does not undergo polymerization.
Reason (R) : In normal condition benzene does not behave as alkane.
135. Assertion (A) : Compared to n-pentane boiling point of neo pentane is more.
Reason (R) : neo-pentane has quaternary carbon.
136. Assertion (A) : Dehydration of butan-2-ol mainly gives but-2-ene.
Reason (R) : Dehydration takes place mainly through carbocation intermediate.
137. Assertion (A) : Benzene easily gives electrophilic substitution reaction.
Reason (R) : Benzene is unsaturated hydro carbon.
138. Assertion (A) : By addition reaction of propene with HCl in presence of peroxide mainly gives
2-chloro propane.
Reason (R) : This reaction takes place by free radical intermediate.
139. Assertion (A) : Cyclopenta dienyl anion is more stable than allyl anion.
Reason (R) : Cyclopenta dienyl anion is aromatic.
140. Assertion (A) : Reaction of acetylene with sodamide gives sodium acetylide and ammonia.
Reason (R) : sp hybridized carbon of atoms acetylene are highly electro negative.
Answers : 111. (D), 112. (C), 113. (B), 114. (B), 115. (C), 116. (D), 117. (C), 118. (C),
119. (D), 120. (D), 121. (A), 122. (D), 123. (A), 124. (C), 125. (A), 126. (B),
127. (B), 128. (D), 129. (A), 130. (B), 131. (C), 132. (D), 133. (D), 134. (C),
135. (B), 136. (D), 137. (B), 138. (D), 139. (A), 140. (A).
513
22 Organic Compounds containing Halogen
In chemical science classification of organic compunds is done on the basis of functional group
present in organic compound. Normally in hydrocarbon tetra valency of C-atom is connected with
hydrogen atoms by substituting hydrogen atom/atoms, new functional group can be introduced. On the
basis of characteristic chemical reaction of functional groups in organic compound number of organic
compounds can be synthesized. The organic compound which has more than one functional group,
then class of organic compund is determined on the basis of most reactive functional group.
Organic compounds with halogen
(Compounds with C X bond)
On the basis of Catom attached with halogen atom organic halide compounds are classified.
Halo alkane/alkylhalide
If carbon atom of alkyl or-alkyl chain attached with halogen atom is sp3 hybridized saturated
carbon, then such compounds are called alkyl halide haloalkane or halogenated alkane.
hybridizationsp3
C X
saturated carbon
Halo alkene or alkenyl halide compounds
If in the given hydrocarbon compound the hydrogen atom attached with unsaturated carbon i.e.
sp2 hybridized ethylenic carbon bonded by double bond is substituted by halogen atom (X = F, Cl, Br,
I) then it is called halo alkene compound.
H
C=C X
2
sp hybridized
Halo alkyne or alkynyl halide compounds
If in the given hydrocarbon compound the hydrogen atom attached with unsaturated carbon i.e.
sp hybridized ethynyl carbon bonded by triple bond is substituted by halogen atom (X = F, Cl, Br, I)
then it is called halo alkyne compounds.
sp hybridized
R – C =y C – X
514
Halo cyclo alkane or cyclo alkyl halide organic compounds
If the saturated hydrocarbon compounds in which all sp 3 hybridized carbon are arranged
in cyclic chain and any of the hydrogen atom is substituted by halogen atom (X = F, Cl, Br, I),
then such compounds are called halo cyclo alkane compounds.
X X X
sp3
sp 3
sp3
hybridization
hybridization
X
Sp3hybridization
cyclohalo cyclohalo cyclohalo cyclohalo
propane butane pentane hexane
Haloarene/Aromatic halide compounds
If the hydrogen atom bonded with C atom of arene in a hydrocarbon is substituted by halogen
atom (X = F, Cl, Br, I), then it is called halo arene compounds.
Aryl alkylhalide
If the H-atom present in alkyl chain which is bonded with C-atom of arene hydrocarbon is
substituted by X atom then it is called aryl alkyl halide.
3
C X sp hybridization
aryl alkyl halide
515
Importance :
These compounds are useful to introduce alkyl or aryl group in other organic compounds. Hence
they are important raw material.
Good solvents.
For physical growth and immunity.
As enzyme in biochemical process.
As hormones (iodine in thyroxene).
As anesthetic during surgery of body (chloroform).
As a drug for the treatment of diseases like malaria and typhoid.
Classification of halogenated compounds

¯
¯ ¯ ¯
monohalogen dihalogen trihalogen

derivative derivative derivative
¯ ¯ ¯
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
mono halo mono halo dihalo di halo triholo tri halo
alkane arene alkane arene alkane arene
RX X RX2 RX3

X X
X X
OR
\±NÇN X
X
X
¯ From common name ¯
geminal dihalide vicinal
alkylidine/ethyledine dihalide
Two halogen atom bonded X atom bonded
with same carbon to succesive C atoms
C C X C C
X X X
516
Classification of halogen hybridization of carbon
halogen atom bonded with sp3
(1) ¯ (2) (3)
halo alkane/alkyl halide
¯ ¯
¯ ¯ ¯ benzylic halide
1o/primary/alkyl halide 2o/secondary/alkyl halide 3o/tertiary/alkyl halide carbon atom bonded
carbon atom bonded with carbon atom bonded carbon with halogen is
halogen is connected with other two carbon atom bonded bonded with SP2
with another one carbon atoms only with halogen is hybridized carbon of
only bonded with three benzene ring.
carbon only.
H R2 R2
RCX R1 C X R1 C X
H H R3
(R = alkyl group) R1 = R2/R1¹ R2 R1 = R2 ¹ R3
R1 = R2 ¹ R3
R1 ¹ R2 = R3
R1 = R3 ¹ R2
¯ ¯ ¯
1o/primary 2o/secondary 3o/tertiary

CH2X R1 R2
CH - X C–X
R1
R1 = R2
or R1 ¹ R2
¯
allylichalide
sp3- hybridized halogenated C-atom
having double bond (sp2 hybridized)
¯
¯ ¯
H H X sp3
H
C=C–C–X sp2
H sp 2 3
H sp
517
Halogenated compounds in which halogen atom is bonded with sp2 hybridized carbon.
¯
¯ ¯
Vinylic halide anyl/aromatic/arere halide

Halogen atom is bonded with unsaturated aromatic ethylenic carbon
unsaturated ethylenic carbon arranged in cyclic manner is bonded with
2
(SP hybridization) halogen atom.
X
C=C 2
X sp
6
5
1 X
sp
2 X
4 2
3
1-halo cyclohex-1-ene
1. What is the hybridization of carbon atom having halogen atom in halo arene compounds ?
(A) sp3 (B) sp (C) sp2 (D) both (B) and (C)
2. Which structure represents vicinal dihalide ?
Br
Br Br
(A) Br1 (B) (C) Br Br (D)
Br Br
3. Which structure represents vinyl halide ?
Br Br
Br Br
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4. Which compound represents allylic halide ?

(A) CH2 CH = CHCH2Cl (B) CH3CH2 CH2Cl
(C) CH3 CH2 CH = CH2Cl (D) Cl·CH2 CH2 CH = CH2
5. How many structural isomers are possible for C5H11Br ?

(A) 5 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 11
6. Which structure represents allyl halide ?
(A) Cl (B) Cl (C) Cl (D) Cl
7. Which structure represents geminal dihalides ?
X
X X X
(A) (B) (C) (D) X X
X
X
518
8. Which sentence indicates alkylidine compounds ?
(A) All carbon atoms in alkane are bonded with halogen atoms.
(B) Alternate carbon present in alkane are bonded with halogen atoms.
(C) Carbon atoms at the end of the alkane series are bonded with halogen atoms.
(D) Two halogen atoms are bonded with the same carbon atom of alkane.
9. Which of the following is used to prepare poly vinyl chloride ?
(A) CH2Cl2 (B) HC º C·Cl (C) CH2 = CHCl (D) Cl·CH2 CH2·Cl
10. Compound C3H7Cl has how many structural isomers ?
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 2
11. Formula of geminal dihalide is ...... :
(A) CH.(Br).OH CH2Br (B) CH2Br·CH2CH2Br
(C) CH3 C.(Br)2 CH3 (D) CH2 = CBr2
12. Identify ethylidene di chloride :
(A) CH3.CH2.Br (B) Br·CH2 CH2Br
(C) CH3 CHBr2 (D) CH2 = CCl2
13. From which substance trihalogen halo form compound is obtained ?
(A) propane (B) ethane (C) benzene (D) methane
14. which compound represents secondary halide ?
(A) iso propyl chloride (B) isobutyl chloride
(C) n-propyl chloride (D) n-butyl chloride
15. Which substance is primary halide ?
(A) iso propyl iodide (B) secondary butyl iodide
(C) tertiary butyl bromide (D) new hexyl chloride
16. Which compound has 1o, 2o, 3o and 4o carbon atoms ?
(A) 2, 3, 5-dimethyl pentane (B) 3-Chloro, 2, 3-dimethyl pentane
(C) 3, 3-di methyl pentane (D) 2, 3, 4-tri methyl pentane
17. How many p- bonds are present in benzene hexa chloride (B.H.C.) ?
(A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 12 (D) zero
18. Which molecular formula represents alkene halide ?
(A) C6H11CH2Cl (B) C6H5C2H2Cl (C) C6H5C2Cl (D) C6H5C2H5·Cl
19. Identify structure of benzylic halide :
X X R1
C–X
(A) (B) (C) (D) C6H5.X
R R2
R
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (B), 3. (B), 4. (A), 5. (B), 6. (D), 7. (C), 8. (D), 9. (C), 10. (D),
11. (C), 12. (C), 13. (D), 14. (A), 15. (D), 16. (B), 17. (D), 18. (B), 19. (C)
519
Nomenclature of halo alkane and halo arene compounds
Common nomenclature :
After writing the name of hydro carbon suffix halide is added :
F ® Fluoride
Cl ® Chloride
Br ® Bromide
I ® Iodide
If more than one halogen atoms of identical type are present then prefix di, tri, tetra etc. are
used.
If same type of two halogen atoms are bonded on the same carbon then such dihalo alkanes
are called geminal dihalide or alkilidine halide.
If same type of two halogen atoms are bonded on the succesive carbon atoms then such
compounds are called vicinal dihalide or alkylene dihalide.
In di halo arene compounds position of halogen is indicated by O-ortho, M-meta or P-para

before name of aromatic nucleous and then suffix dihalide is written.
IUPAC nomenclature
Select the longest chain of hydrocarbon which is bonded with halogen and then place prefix
halo-before root name.
F ® Fluoro
Cl ® Chloro
Br ® Bromo
I ® Iodo
If more than one halogen atoms of same type are present then it is indicated by numeric
prefix di, tri, tetra, penta etc.
In halo arene compounds prefix halo is placed before the name of aromatic nucleus.
In dihalo alkane having two identical halogen group prefix di is placed before the least possible
locant of halogen atoms.
In case of di halo arene position of halogen atom is indicated by (1, 2), (1, 3) or (1, 4) along
with dihalo prefix before the name of aromatic nucleus.
20. Which of the following is the structure of alkylene dihalide ?
(A) Cl.CH2 CH2.Cl (B) Cl.CH = CH.Cl (C) CH3 CHCl2 (D) CH2 = CCl2
520
21. Indicate the structural Formula of 1-chloro-4-secbutyl-2-methyl benzene.
Cl
CH3
Cl
(A) (B) C2H 5 – C
CH3
CH – C 2H5 CH3
CH3
Cl
Cl
(C) C2H 5 – C CH3 (D) C2H5 – C CH3
CH3
22. Give the complete name of D. D. T.
(A) 1, 1, 1-tri chloro, 2, 2-bis (para chloro phenyl)
(B) 1, 1-dichloro, 2, 2-diphenyl trimethyl ethane
(C) 1, 1-di chloro, 2, 2-diphenyl trichloro ethane
(D) None.
23. Give the IUPAC name of H

H Br
(A) 2-bromo, 3-methyl pent 2-ene (B) 1-bromo, 2-methyl Pent 2-ene
(C) 4-bromo, 3-methyl pent 2-ene (D) 3-bromo, 2-methyl 2-ene
24. Give IUPAC name of CH3C(C2H5)2CH2Cl.
(A) 2, 2-di ethyl, 1-chloro propane (B) 2, ethyl, 2-methyl, chloro propane
(C) 4-bromo, 3-methyl pent-2-ene (D) 3-bromo 2-methyl pent-2-ene
25. Which substance is inflammable ?
(A) Freon (B) CHI3 (C) CHCl3 (D) D. D. T
26. What is the IUPAC name of (CH3)3C CH2 CH ?
Br
(A) 2, 2-dimethyl 4-bromo, 4-phenyl butane (B) 3, 3 di methyl 2-phenyl 1-bromo butane
(C) 1-bromo 3, 3 dimethyl 1-phenyl butane (D) 3, 3-dimethyl 1-phenyl 1-bromo butane
27. Indicate structural formula of acetyl tetra chloride.
Cl
(A) Cl C CH2Cl (B) CHCl2 CHCl2 (C) C2Cl4 (D) Both A and C
Cl
28. Give IUPAC name of Br CH2 C º C CH2Br.
(A) 2-butyl 1, 4 dibromide (B) 1, 4-dibromo propyne
(C) 1, 3-di bromo, 2-butene (D) 1, 4-di bromo, but-2-ene
521
29. Indicate structural formula of D. D. T. :
H Cl Cl
(A) Cl – C – C (B) CH2 – C
Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl Cl
(C) Cl – C – C (D) CH2 – C
Cl Cl
Cl H Cl Cl
Answers : 20. (A), 21. (D), 22. (A), 23. (C), 24. (B), 25. (C), 26. (C), 27. (B), 28. (D),
29. (C)
Nature of CX bond
As electro negativity of halogen atom is more than carbon atom in C X bond compounds
. carbon atom is partially positively charged (+d) while halogen atom is partially negatively
x
charged (d) hence C – X bond is polar.
In halo alkane as atomic no. of hologen increases, atomic volume ... C – X also increase hence
bond length increases.
CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I (OR) CH3I > CH2Br > CH3Cl > CH3F
C – X bond enthalpies, reactivity of reaction and bond polarity gradually decreases :
CH3F > CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3I (OR) CH3I < CH2Br < CH3Cl > CH3F
In aryl halide carbon atom having C – X bond is bonded with ehtynilic carbon (SP2) of aromatic
: :
nucleus and halogen ( :X ) atom has non-bonding electron pair hence due to resonance CX bond becomes
shorter, more stronger and more polar and as a result its nucleophilic substitution reaction takes place in
severe conditions.
1o, 2o and 3o in halo alkane as no. of alkyl group bonded with halogenated carbon increases +I
effect increases hence polarity and reactivity of C – X bond increases.
R1 R1 H
R2 > C >>> X, > H C >> X, > R1 > C > X
R3 R2 H
0 0 0
3 2 1
Primary alkyl halide gives reaction by SN2 or E2 mechanism through transition state. As number of
carbon increases, chemical reactivity of alkyl halide decreases.
CH3 X > C2H5X > C3H7 X
522
Preparation of haloalkane :
(A) From alkane :
hv
(I) Halogenation · C2H6(excess) + Cl2 C2H5Cl + HCl
CH3 CH2 CH2Cl

uv 1chloro propane (45 %)
CH3CH2CH3 + Cl2 (1 o)
ultraviolet rays
CH3 CH CH3
Cl
2chloro propane (55 %) (2o)
Reaction takes place by free radical mechanism reactivity of halogen atoms with alkane is
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2

Reactivity order of alkane
3o alkane > 2o alkane > 1o alkane
(II) Reaction of alkane with Sulphuryl chloride (SO2Cl2).
hv; fast
R H + SO2Cl2 R Cl + SO2 + HCl
(RCO2)2O2 , organic perioxide
(B) From alkene :
Reactivity order of halogenation in hydrohalogenation HI > HBr > HCl
1, 2-hydride or 1,2-methyl shift have greater stability.
Stability order of carbocation is : 3o > 2o > 1o > (+CH3)
CH3 CH3 CH3

+
H Å
CH3 C CH = CH2 CH3 C CH CH3 CH3 C CH CH3
Å
CH3 CH3 CH3

As per Markonokoff rule :
H H H
o
1
H–C–C–C–H
H H H H X
H
1,halo propane (minor)
H–C–C=C–H+H–X o
(1 )
H H H H
Markovnikoff 2o
H– C – C – C – H
rule
H X H
2, halo propane (2°) (major)
523
Anti Morkovnikoff rule :
H H H
H–C–C–C–H
H H H (CH 3CO)2O 2 H Br H
o
Peroxide effect (2 ) (minor)
H – C – C = C – H + H – Br
(or) kharasch 2 bromo (propane)
H effect
H H H
(CH 3CO)2O2 H–C–C–C–H
H H Br
(1o) (major)
1bromo propane
By addition reaction with Br2 in presence of dihalogen Br2 dihalo alkane is obtained.
H H CCl4
C = C + Br2 CH
H2 – CH2
H H
Br Br
1, 2di bromo propane
(C) Alkyl halide from alcohol :
anhyZnCl2
(i) Grooves method : R OH + H X R X + H2O
573 K
Chemical reactivity : HI > HBr > HCl > HF

Reactivity on the basis of alcohol : 3o > 2o > 1o > CH3OH
(MeOH)
1 2
gives SN reaction gives SN reaction
Reaction with anhy. ZnCl2 and Conc. HCl is called Lucas test.
HBr; 48 %
C2H5Br + H2O
Conc. H2SO4 reflux
C2H5OH
KBr + conc. H2SO4

C2H5Br + KHSO4 + H2O
For 2o and 3o alcohol above reaction is not possible.
(ii) Reaction of alcohol with PCl3 and PCl5.
3CH3CH2OH + PCl3 x = Cl and Br only 3CH3CH2Cl + H3PO3 + H2O
chloro ethane Phosphorus acid

only for x = Cl
CH3CH2OH + PCl5 CH3CH2Cl + POCl3 + HCl
As PBr5 and PI5 are unstable, bromide and iodide can not be obtained.
3o and 2o alcohol on heating get converted into alkene so this method is only known for 1°
alcohol.
524
(iii) By reaction of alcohol with thionyl chloride (Darzens method)
Pyridine
CH3CH2OH + SOCl2 2 CH3CH2Cl + SO2(g) + HCl(g)
SN reaction
(D) From silver salt of carboxylic acid : Decarboxylation by free radical reaction.
CCl4
R C OAg + Br Br R Br + CO2(g) + AgBr(s)
decarboxylation
O
Reactivity order of alkyl group : 1o > 2o > 3o only bromide product is obtained in good
proportion.
(E) Preparation of halo alkane by halogen exchange method :
Finkel stein reaction : X = Cl, Br
By reacting halo alkane having X = Cl, Br with NaI in dry acetone.
Dry acetone
R X + NaI R I + NaX
(X = Cl, Bl) (X = Cl, Br)
(Swartz) reaction (Method to prepare alkyl halide) :
On reaction of CH3Cl or CH3Br with metallic halide such as AgF, Hg2F2, CoF2 or SbF3 gives
fluoro methane.
AgF
CH3 Cl CH3F + AgCl
2CH3 Br + Hg2F2 2 CH3F + Hg2Br2
(F) Other methods to prepare halo alkanes :
KI; H 3PO4
R OH RI
Raymond method
R OH + X2 + (PhO)3·P RX
R OH + X2 Red Phosphorous R X + H·X
(For X = Cl, Br,)

Zn - Cu
dihalide RX
HC l
Grignard reaction
R Mg·X RX
R O R + X2 PCl5 2RX
30. Following reaction is known by which name ?

Pyridine
C2H5OH + SOCl2 C2H5Cl + SO2(g) + HCl
(A) Kharasch effect (B) Darzens method
(C) Williamson method (D) Hunsdiecker reaction
31. Which product is obtained by reaction between 2-methyl propane and HBr ?
(A) 1-bromo propane (B) 1-bromo, 2-methyl propane
(C) 2-bromo butane (D) 2-bromo 2-methyl propane
525
32. Mention the main product obtained by reaction between silver acetate and bromine water in
presence of carbon disulphide.
(A) CH3OI (B) CH3Br
(C) CH3COOH (D) None
33. Which products are obtained by reaction between ethanol and thionyl chloride in presence of
catalyst pyridine?
(A) CH3COCl + HCl + SO2 (B) CH3CH2Cl + H2O + SO2
(C) C2H5Cl + HCl + SO2 (D) CH3CH2Cl + HCl
34. Which reaction gives the product 2,2 di bromo propane ?
(A) CH3 C º CBr + HBr ® (B) CH º CH + 2 H.Br ®
(C) CH3 CH = CH2 + HBr ® (D) CH3 C º CH + 2 HBr ®
35. Indicate decreasing order of reactivity of HX for reaction ROH + HX ® RX + H2O.
(A) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (B) HBr > HCl > HI > HF
(C) HCl > HBr > HI > HF (D) HF > HBr > HCl > HI
36. CH2 = CH C.Cl3 + HBr ® ...... product is obtained.
(A) CH2(Br) CH2CCl3 (B) CH3CH2 CCl3
(C) BrCH2 CH Cl CHCl2 (D) CH3 CH Br CCl3
37. Mention the type of reaction for reaction between propane and chlorine gas in presence of sunlight.
(A) substitution (B) addition (C) rearrangement (D) elimination
38. Mention the product of the reaction between acetylene and HCl.
(A) CH3CH2Cl (B) CH3CHCl2 (C) CH2 = CHCl (D) CHCl = CHCl
39. Which product is obtained by purification reaction between ethyl alcohol and excess chlorine and
Ca(OH)2 ?
(A) CH3CH2O (B) CCl3CHO (C) CHCl3 (D) (CH3)2O
40. Whose yellow precipitate are obtained by reaction between ethyl alcohol and Na2CO3 in presence
of KI ?
(A) CHI3 (B) CH3I (C) CH2I 2 (D) C2H5I
41. Which is required to prepare chloroform from ethanol and bleaching powder ?
(A) Ca(OH)2 (B) Cl2
(C) Both A and B . (D) None
42. Which reaction is not observed when chloroform is formed by reaction between ethanol and
bleaching powder ?
(A) oxidation (B) hydrolysis (C) reduction (D) chlorination
43. From which substance chloroform can be obtained ?
(A) Methanol (B) Methanal (C) Propane-1-ol (D) Propan-2-ol
44. Which product is obtained by reaction between chloroform and chlorine gas ?
(A) Chloroform (B) Chloral (C) Ethyl chloride (D) Acetaldehyde
45. Which product is obtained on heating di ethyl ehter with conc HI ?
(A) iodoform (B) ethyl iodide (C) ethanol (D) methyl iodide
46. Mention correct method to prepare methyl fluoride ?
(A) CH4 + HF ® ...... (B) CH3OH + HF ® ......
(C) CH3Br + AgF ® ...... (D) CH4 + F2 ® ......
526
47. Grignard reagent is obtained by reaction with which substance and magnesium method ?
(A) methyl amine (B) ethyl iodide (C) diethyl ether (D) ethyl alcohol
48. Which product is obtained by electrolysis of ethanolic solution of NaCl ?
(A) ethanol (B) chloral (C) chloroform (D) acetaldehyde
49. Which reagent is not appropriate to prepare alkyl halide from alcohol ?
(A) NaCl (B) SOCl3 (C) PCl5 (D) HCl + ZnCl2
50. Identify industrial method to prepare ethyl bromide.
(A) ethanol + Br2 (B) ethanol + HBr (C) alcohol + H.Br (D) None
PCl5 PCl3
51. X C2H5Cl; Y CH3COCl identify X and Y.
(A) C2H5I and C2H5CHO (B) C2H5OH and CH3CO2H
(C) (C2H5)2O and CH3CO2H (D) C2H5OH and C2H5CHO
52. By which of the following substance iodo form cannot be prepared ?
(A) ethyl methyl ketone (B) 3-methyl 2-batanone
(C) iso propyl alcohol (D) iso butyl alcohol
Answers : 30. (B), 31. (D), 32. (B),. 33. (C), 34. (D), 35. (A), 36. (D), 37. (A), 38. (B),
39. (C), 40. (A), 41. (C), 42. (C), 43. (D), 44. (B), 45. (B), 46. (C), 47. (B),
48. (C), 49. (C), 49. (A), 50. (B), 51. (B), 52. (D),
Pure halo alkane compounds are colourless, in presence of sunlight bromide and iodide compounds
turns coloured.
Cd+ Xd bond is polar hence boiling point of halo alkane are more than corresponding alkane.
eg., CH3Cl > CH4
As no. of carbon atom increases boiling point increases.
CH3CH2CH2Cl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl
From 1o ® 2o ® 3o boiling point decreases.
CH3
CH3CH2CH2CH2 Cl > CH3CH2CHCH3 > CH3CCH3
Cl Cl
o o
1 2 3o
In alkyl halide having same no of C-atom as atomic number of halogen increases boiling point
increases.
CH3I > CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F OR CH3F < CH3Cl < CH3Br < CH3I
Boiling point of halo arene are higher because in halo arene CX bond is shorter and polar due to
resonance.
In halo arene compounds difference between boiling point of 1, 2 ortho, (1, 3 (meta)) and (1, 4
(para)) is very less.
Density of poly chloro alkane, bromo alkane and iodo alkane is more than that of water. As
number of carbon atom increase or atomic no or atomic mass of halogen increases density increases.
n·C3H7 Cl < n.C3H7Br < n·C3H7I
Halo alkane is partially soluble in alkane while it is soluble in organic solvents like acetone and
ethanol.
527
Absolute D, L Configuration and R, S configuration nomenclature
Stereo chemistry : Branch of chemical science in which study of three dimensional structure of
organic compound is done is called stereo chemistry. Its basic property is isomerism.
Types of isomerism
¯
¯ ¯
Structural isomerism Stereo isomerism
¯ ¯
¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯
Chain position functional Conformational Stereo

isomerism isomerism group isomerism isomerism
isomerism ¯
¯ ¯
optical/ geometrical
enantiomeric isomerism
isomerism
Optical isomerism
Plane polarised light : In white light seven colour lights of different wave lengths are vibrating in
all possible planes. When such light is passed through nicol prism or polarizer the transmitted light have
vibrations only in one plane. Such light is called plane polarised light.
Vibrations of lights in palnes source nicol prism/ Plane polarised

white light rays polariser light
Optical activity
Substance having molecular asymmetry has capacity to rotate plane of plane polarised light, such
substances are called optically active compounds.
If it rotate plane of plane polarised light towards left side it is called leavo rotatory substance
which is denoted by l or () sign.
If it rotate plane of plane polarised light towards right side it is called dextro rotatory substance
which is denoted by d or (+) sign.
528
Chirality :
Due to molecular asymmetry in optically active compounds at least one asymmetric carbon is
present whose all four valencies are satisfied by different atoms or groups.
Classification on the basis of Molecular asymmetry
¯
¯ ¯
Chiral substances achiral substances

At least one carbon is necessary. Substances which have no chiral
Carbon atom whose all four valencies are carbon or the substances which
satisfied by different atoms/groups. can be super imposed on their mirror
Substance which can not be super imposed on their image are called achiral substances.
mirror image are called. Chiral substance and such e.g. English alphabets like
property is called chirality. A, M, W, O, H etc.
e.g pair of hands, English alphabet J, B, C, D, E etc.
2, -bromobutane
C H3 CH 3
C–H C
H
CH2 Br Br CH2
CH3 CH3
D and L configuration : It is also known as relative configuration.

Useful to explain configuration of carbohydrate and amino acids.
Difference between
D, L d (+)/ l ()
Determined theoretically. Determined by polarimeter.
Enantiomeric isomers
COOH
Compound with D configuration can be D-glyceraldehyde
CHO H – C – OH
d or l type.
H – C – OH CH3
Compound with L Configuration can be
CHOH
2
d or l type. (+) D D () lactic acid

Absolute R and S configuration
R, S nomenclature method for chiral substances or enantiomeric isomers is given by Cahan, Ingold
and Prelog.
Step-I To determine priority order of groups bonded with chiral carbon.
The atom which has greater atomic number/mass is more given the first priority.
If, H, NH2, OH, Br are bonded with chiral carbon then priority order is
Br OH, NH2, H
Z = 35, Z = 8, Z = 7, Z =1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
529
If two isotopes are bonded with asymetric carbon then the isotope having greater atomic mass
should get the priority.
eg., Priority order for H, Cl, C, D (Deuterium)
Cl C D (1H2) H (1H1)
Z = 17, Z = 6, Z = 1, Z=1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
If the groups bonded with chiral carbon are connected through same atom i.e. having same atomic
number. Hence second number atoms atomic mass is compared and even if second atom has same
atomic number then third number atoms atomic number are compared and the atom which has greater
atomic no get the priority.
eg., CH2OH, CH2 CH3, CH3, CH2 NH2 ...
Z=6 8 6 6 6 6 7
Correct Priority order :
CH2OH; CH2NH2; CH2CH3; CH 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
eg.,
CH2OH, NH2, CH2Cl, I Þ I, NH2, CH2Cl, CH2OH
Z=6 8 7 6 17 53 (1) (2) (3) (4)
In the groups having double or triple bond, their all p- bonds are broken and it is believed that
imaginary atoms are bonded their.
Example,
CH = CH Þ CC
ã ã
ã ã
C º C Þ CC
ã ã
H H
C=O Þ CO
ã ã
On the basis of above rules priority order for some of the groups are as follows :
I > Br > Cl > SO3H > SH > F > OCOR > O R >
R1 H
OH > NO2 > N > N > COOR > COOH
R2 R
> COR > CHO > CH2OH > CN > CH3 > D > H
To determine R-S configuration
After determining the priority order of groups in three dimensional structure atoms present with 4
priority i.e. Cost priority is kept at vertical line l.c. away from viewer. Then on observing from opposite
side of group with priority 4, if other three priority positions 1, 2 and 3 are determined absolute stereo
configuration R and S as follows.
530
If increasing order of 1 ® 2 ® 3 is clock wise it is called R configuration.
But if it is in anticlock wise/left side then such configuration is called S-configuration.
1 1
C C
Clockwise anti Clockwise
3 2 3 2
R-Configuration S-Configuration
It is difficult to represent chiral compounds in three dimension hence normally chiral compounds are
written in two dimensional Fischer projection. Therefore, in 1982 Epling suggested the rule vertical is very
good for least priority order.
If compounds in Fischer projection then lowest priority group kept at vertical line and for
1 ® ® 2 3 clock wise groups configuration is R while for 1 2 ® ®
3 anticlockwise groups
configuration is S.
If lowest priority group is on horizontal line of Fischer projection then in such compound configuration
is inverse than the obtained configuration.
For 1 ® ®2 3 clockwise direction configuration is S and for 1 ® 2 ® 3 anticlockwise direction
configuration is R.
Cl(1) H(4)
CH3 CH2 CH2CH2CH3 H3C CH2CH3

(3) (2) (3) (2)
(1)
H(4) Br
1 ® 2 ® 3 clock wise, 1 ® 2 ® 3 anticlock wise,

right side, left side
R configuration S configuration
CH3 SO3H
(2) (3)
(4) (4)
H D H Cl
(2)
Br (1) I (1)
1 ® 2 ® 3 clock wise 1 ® 2 ® 3 anti clockwise left
Right side - S configuration side R-configuration
Chemical properties of Halo alkane (Reactions)

Nucloephilic substitution reaction :
In halo alkane compound bond is polar : Hence : Nu which is a Lewis base and
has tendency to donate electron pair. (all anion and some neutral molecule)
531
Attract the partially positively charged carbon atom and combine with it by displacing halogen atom.
Therefore such reactions are called nucleophilic substitution reaction or SN reaction.
Cd+ Xd- + : Nu C Nu + : X
Lewis base
Nucleophilic reagent
– – – – – – –
: Nu – OH : OR , :X , :CN , RCOO :, :SH , – NH2
–O–N=O and
\±NÇN –O–N=O
Cyanide ( – CN ) and nitrite ( – O – N = O ) have two nucleophilic sites.

Reactions by Cyanide group
If carbon of C º N act as nucleophile If nitrogen of C º N act as nucleophile then

then, product alkyl cyanide is obtained product iso cyanide is obtained.
Cd+ º N:d ( Nd+ º Cd)
In nitrite (d()O Nd+ = O) if carbon atom In nitrite ( O d+ Nd- = O) if carbon atom of

of alkyl group combine with nucleophilic oxygen alkyl group is combined with N then it
then product alkyl nitrite is obtained gives nitro alkane product.
R O N = O
Mechanism of Nucleophilic substitution can be explained by two methods.
SN1 Reactions
Uni molecular nucleophilic substitution reaction.
First step is slow hence it is rate determining step.
In the first step, carbocation (carbonium ion) is formed by heterolytic fission of ( C . X). To break X
( C X) bond necessary energy is obtained by polar solvents such as water, alcohol and acetic acid etc.
In second step nucleophilic reagent combine with carbocation and it is a fast step.
1
Sn [step 2] + : Nu– [step 1]
–
C–X :X + – C Nu – C –
Slow step
1st order
reaction
Rate of reaction do not depend on concentration of nucleophilic reagent. But rate of reaction
depends on concentration of substrate i.e. original reactatnt, ease of formation of carbocation and stability
of carbocation.
Stability of carbocation depends on +I effect of electron donating group and on resonance.
Thus Rate of reaction = K . [S]1
Order of Rate of reaction for SN1 reaction : CH3X < 1o < 2o < 3o gradually increases.
532
SN2 Reactions
Bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reaction.

Follows principle of chemical kinetics.
Fast second order reaction.
Order of reaction depends on concentration of both reactants.

Without intermediate product, final product is obtained.
Heterolytic fission of substrate does not take place, but the sp3 hybridization at carbon atom
taking part in reaction changes to sp2 at transition state, due to bond breaking and formation. At
transition state substrate and nucleophilic reagent combine with each other.
Nucleophilic reagent and leaving group both are negatively charged hence nucleophilic reagent
always combine from opposite side of leaving group.
Rate of reaction = K [S]1 [:Nu]1 hence second order reaction.
The reaction in which in a rate determining step nucleophilic reagent reacts with carbon atom
with less electron density and at transition state rate of reaction depends on concentration of both
substrate as well as nuclecophile then such substitution reactons are called second order
nucleophilic substitution reaction SN2.
–
: Nu –
–C–X + Nu .. C ..... X Nu – C – + :X
Second order
2
SN reaction H
(fast) Intermediate state
Order of rate of reaction for SN2 : CH3X > 1o > 2o > 3o

Racemic mixture : Equal proportion mixture of dextro rotatory and leavo rotatory isomer is called
racemic mixture.
Stability of Carbocation
C C
3o hetrolytic fission 3o (+)
C–C– X C–C + :X–
C C
If electron donor group (o/p) are bonded with carbocation, then its stability increases.
If electron attracting group (m) are bonded with carbocation then its stability decreases.
As no of alkyl group with carbocation increases, its stability increases.
R2 R2 H H
R1 CÅ > R1 CÅ > R CÅ > H CÅ
3o R3 2o H 1o H H
Stability of carbocation increases with resonance.
CH2 = CH ÅCH2 H2CÅ CH = CH2
533
Preparation of haloarene compounds
From phenol :
OH Br
X =x Br
^NN only
= Br ^N[X
3 PBr3 3 + H 3PO3
\N^NÔ
minor proportion
OH Cl
SOCl2 + HCl + SO2
minor proportion
By Electrophilic substitution reaction of hydrocarbon
Cl
Cl2
+ H Cl
[FeCl3]
303–313 K
halogenation Br
Br2
+ H Br
[FeBr3]
CH3
Cl
298 K
+ HC l
CH3 Cl2/[FeCl3]
halogenation
reaction CH3 CH3
Br
303 K
+
Br2/[FeBr3]
Br
Note : Though electronegativity of F2 is high, proper products are not obtained at boiling point.
Difference in boiling point between ortho/para is very small.
534
By Sandmeyer reaction
From aniline/phenyl diazonium chloride haloarene compounds.
Cl
Cu2 Cl2 + H Cl
+ – + N2
NH2 + N N – Cl
[NO2 ]
NaNO2+ HCl Sandmeyer
273 K–278 K reactions Br
– NaCl phenyl Cu2 Br2 + HCl
– 2H2O diazonium + N 2 + HC l
chloride
I
KI
+ N 2+ K Cl
Chemical reactions of haloarene compounds

..
Nucleophilic substitution reactions : Due to non bonding electron pairs on halogen ( : X
.. ) in
haloarene compounds, resonance and formation of halo cation, C X bond is shorter and stronger.
Therefore severe reaction conditions are required so nucleophilic substitution reaction of haloarene compounds
are difficult.
Resonating structures
.. ..
:Cl
.. : : Cl: + : Cl +
: Cl + : Cl
.. :
(– )
.. (– )
..
..
(– )
C X Due to difference in hybridization of carbon atom in hybridization

3
X 2 H
R–C–X
H
In halo arene sp2 hybridized carbon is more electronegative hence it attracts electron pair of CX
bond towards itself so CX bond becomes shorter, stronger and more polar as a result it requires more
energy to break. Therefore nucleophilic substitution reactions of halo arene compounds are lesser as
compared to alkyl halide.
Unstable phenyl cation
In halo arene compounds as carbon atoms of phenyl nucleus forms cation hence its self ionization is
not possible. In phenyl cation resonating structures decreases stability of selfionization so SN1 reaction is
not possible in them.
Cl + : Nu ® reaction not possible.
535
.. –
Substitution by– OH
.. (Dows process for preparation of phenol.)
Cl OH
(i) 6 to 8% NaOH
+ NaCl
633K, 300 bar
industrial method
phenol
(ii) H+
.. –
Substitution of Cl atom by– OH
.. in presence of electron attracting (NO2) group.
As number of electron attracting groups are more in halo arene compounds proportion of product
is more.
–
Substitution by CN group : Chloro benzene on heating at 473 K and high pressure with
NaCN in presence of catalyst Cu2(CN)2 gives phenyl cyanide by Sandmeyer reaction.
Electrophilic substitution reactions

In haloarene compounds halogen decreases reactivity of benzene. Thus they are different than
other ortho para directing groups.
In chlorobenzene Cl is more electro negative hence it has (I) effect but due to nonbonding
electron pain, possibility of resonating forms increases. Therefore at ortho (o) and para (p)
position electron density increases than at meta (m) position. In haloarene compounds, due to
negative inductive effect (I) is more powerful than its resonating effect so reactivity of benzene
decreases for electrophilic substitution reactions of benzene are slow.
Reaction with metals
(i) WurtzFittig reaction : By reaction between chloro benzene and Methyl chloride or ethyl
chloride with sodium metal in presence of dry ether gives alkyl benzene.
2Na
Cl + CH3 Cl CH3 + 2NaCl
Dry ether
(ii) Fittig reaction : By reaction between two moles of alkyl or aryl halide with sodium metal in
presence of dry ether gives hydrocarbon with double no of carbon.
Dry ether
2 Cl + 2Na fitting reaction + 2NaCl
CCl3
Br2 / Fe
53. ...... ?
CCl3 CCl3 CCl3 CCl3

Br
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Br Br Br
Br
536
54. Mention the reaction conditions to convert ethyl bromide into ethyl alcohol.
(A) Zn and dil HCl on heating (B) On heating with alcoholic KOH
(C) On heating with aqueous NaOH (D) none
55. Mention common name of phosgene.
(A) Phosphonyl chloride (B) Carbon tetra chloride
(C) CO2 and PH3 (D) Carbonyl chloride
56. Which two alkyl chloride on heating with Na metal in presence of dry ether gives isobutane ?
(A) CH3Cl and CH3CH2CH2Cl (B) CH3 CH CH3 and CH3Cl
Cl
(C) CH3CH2Cl and CH3Cl (D) CH3 CH ClCH3 and CH3CH2Cl
57. Which substance gives SN2 reaction ?
(A) CH3Cl (B) (C2H5)2CHCl (C) (CH3)3C.Cl (D) (CH3)2CH.Cl
58. What is correct for reactivity of ethyl chloride ?
(A) more or equal to benzyl chloride
(B) more than benzyl chloride
(C) more or equal than chlorobenzene
(D) less than chloro benzene
59. What is correct for chloro benzen ?
(A) more than C2H5Cl (B) equal to CH3Cl
(C) less reactive than benzyl chloride (D) more than isopropyl chloride
60. Which substance immediately gives precipitate with AgNO3 ?
(A) CHCl3 (B) C6H5CH2Cl (C) CHI3 (D) CCl3CHO
61. Which substance in one step gives ethylene and acetylene ?
(A) CH3CH2OH (B) CH2Br CH2 Br (C) CH3COOH (D) CH 2BrCH2OH
62. What is obtained by reaction between tertiary butyl bromide and CH3ONa ?
(A) iso butane (B) iso butene
(C) sodium t-butoxide (D) tbutyl methyl ether
63. Mention the product obtained by reaction of mixture aniline chloroform and alcoholic KOH.
(A) Phenyl cyanide (B) phenyl isocyanate
(C) Phenyl isocyanide (D) nitro benzene
64. What is obtained on reaction between ethylidene dichloride with aqueous KOH ?
(A) ethylene glycol (B) acetaldehyde (C) formaldehyde (D) none
65. What is obtained by hydrolysis of ethylene difluoride ?
(A) dichloro ethanol (B) fluoro methane (C) glycol (D) Freon
66. What is obtained by oxidation of benzyl chloride by Pb(NO3)2 ?
(A) benzene (B) benzoic acid
(C) benzaldehyde (D) none
Answers : 53. (A), 54. (C), 55. (D), 56. (B), 57. (A), 58. (B), 59. (C), 60. (C), 61. (B),
62. (B), 63. (C), 64. (B), 65. (C), 66. (C)
537
67. CCl4 do not give precipitate with AgNO3 because ...
(A) it forms compound with AgNO3. (B) release Cl2 gas.
(C) chloride ion do not forms. (D) AgNO3 do not give Ag+ ion.
Pb - Na
68. CH3CH2.Br alloy ?
(A) tetra ethyl lead (B) tetra methyl bromide

(C) both A and B (D) none
69. What is obtained by reacting ethyl bromide with silver nitrite ?
(A) nitro ethane (B) ethyl nitrite
(C) notro ethane and ethyl nitrite (D) ethane
70. By which reaction CH2 = C = C = CH2 is obtained ?
Zn/CH3OH K 2CO 3(qq)

(A) CH2Br CBr = CH2 (B) CH º C CH2COOH o
40 C
Zn
(C) CH2Br C º C CH2Br (D) 2CH2 = CHCH2I ®
solidNaOH
71. Cl ?
(A) COOH (B) CH2Cl (C) OH (D)
72. CH3CH2Cl + AgCN ?

(A) C2H5CN (B) CH3NH .CH 3 (C) C2H5NH2 (D) C2H5NC
73. Which organic halide on stirring with dilute HNO3 and AgNO3 aqueous solution with dilute NaOH
gives white precipitate ?
(A) C6H4(CH3).Br (B) C6H5CH2Cl (C) C6H5Cl (D) none
74. What is the type of following reaction ?
o
200 – 250 C
C6H5Cl + 2NaOH C6H5ONa + NaCl + H2O
200 bar
(A) Dow process (B) Kolbe reaction
(C) Carbyl amine test (D) haloform test
hydrolysis hydrolysis
75. C6H5Cl + KCN X Y then X and Y are respectively ?
(A) C2H6 and C2H5CN; (B) CH3CN and C2H6
(C) C2H5CN and C2H5CH2NH2 (D) C2H5CN and C2H5COOH
76. Which substance on heating with NaOH and I2 gives iodoform ?
(A) methanol (B) benzene (C) ethanol (D) formic acid
77. The compound with which type of bond gives monohalo alkane product by hydro halogenation ?
(A) single bond (B) double bond
(C) tripple bond (D) none
538
78. What is obtained by mixing chloroform with concentrated HNO3 ?
(A) CHCl2NO2 (B) CHCl2HNO3
(C) CCl3 NO2 (D) none
79. Mention the type of dehydro halogenation reactions of alkyl halide.
(A) addition (B) Substitution reaction (C) elimination (D) oxidation
80. CH3CH2Br on reaction with LiAlH4 gives ethane gas while (CH3)3.C-Br on reaction with LiAlH4
gives H2 gas because
(A) 1st SN2 and then E2 reaction. (B) 1st E2 and then SN2 reaction.
(C) 1st SN1 and then E2 reaction. (D) 1st E2 and then SN1 reaction.
81. 2, bromo pentane on heating with KOH in presence of ethanol gives ......
(A) cis pentene-2 (B) trans pentene-2 (C) pentene-1 (D) 2-ethoxy pentene
82. Identify the reaction taking place when chloroform is mixed with excess oxygen.
(A) COCl2 + HCl (B) COCl2 + Cl2 + H2
(C) COCl2 + Cl2 + H2O (D) none
83. Which isomer of cyclohexane hexachloride is strong insecticide ?
(A) a (B) b (C) d (D) g
84. What is obtained when alkyl halide is heated with alcoholic NH3 in a closed tube ?
(A) 2o-amine (B) 1o amine (C) 3o amine (D) all
85. What is obtained when alkyl halide is heated with Mg metal in presence of dry ether ?
(A) Magnesium halide (B) Grignard reagent (C) alkene (D) alkyne
86. CH3CH2CH2Cl + NaNH2 ® ?
(A) CH3CH = CH2 (B) CH3 C º CH
(C) CH3CH2CH(NH2) (D) CH3CH2C (Cl2) NH2
87. What is obtained by debromination of meso dibromobutane ?
(A) trans-2-butene (B) cis-2-butene (C) 1-butene (D) 2-butene
88. How many products are obtained by monochlorination of 2, 6 dimethyl heptane ?
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3
89. Why reactivity of Cl is less than CH2 = CH.Cl ?
(A) resonance (B) electromeric effect
(C) electronegativity (D) none.
KCN H 2O
90. CH3CH2Br CH3CH2CN X; X = ?
(A) acetic acid (B) butyric acid (C) propanoic acid (D) Formic acid
91. Identify reaction condition for given reaction ?
Br ?
H–C C–H
Br
(A) alcoholic KOH (B) alcoholic KOH + NaNH2
(C) aqueous KOH + NaNH2 (D) Zn/CH3OH
539
(i) Mg, Et2O ?
92. In the reaction Br product.
(ii) CO2
+
(iii) H3O
(A) (COO)2 Mg (B) C (C) COOH (D)
93. C2H5Cl + AgCN Et – OH / H 2O X which is correct for X ?

(A) On hydrolysis it gives propionic acid. (B) It has ester group.
(C) N is bonded with ethyl carbon. (D) It has cyanide group.
94. What is obtained by reaction between vinyl chloride and HCl ?
(A) 1, 2 dichloro ethane (B) 1,1-dichloro ehtane
(C) tetra chloro ethylene (D) mixture of 1, 2 and 1, 1 dichloro ehtane
95. Which product is obtained on reduction of acetyl chloride by H2 in presence of Pd ?
(A) CH3COCH3 (B) CH3CHO (C) CH3COOH (D) C2H5OH
96. What is obtained on heating methyl bromide with zinc dust ?
(A) CH4 (B) CH3OH (C) C2H6 (D) C2H4
97. Iodoform + KOH ...... ?

(A) HCOOK (B) HCHO (C) CH3CHO (D) CH3COOK
98. Which of the following gas is poisionous ?
(A) CO2 (B) CHCl3
(C) CO (D) None
99. Which substance is used as methylating agent ?
(A) C2H5Br (B) C2H5Cl (C) C6H5Cl (D) CH3I
100. C2H5I + AgNO3 ...... ?

(A) C2H5O.NO2 (B) C2H5Ag (C) Ag.O.NO2 (D) C2H5I .NO2
101. C6H6Cl6 + alcoholic KOH ...... ?

(A) C6H6 (B) C6H6.OH (C) C6H3Cl3 (D) C6H6Cl4
102. CHCl3 + Zn ...... ?

(A) CH2Cl2 (B) CCl4 (C) CH4 (D) chloropicrin
103. Which catalyst is used to prepare Grignard reagent ?
(A) iodine powder (B) iron powder (C) active charcoal (D) MnO2
104. By which reaction butane nitrile can be obtained ?
(A) C3H7Br + KCN ® (B) C4H9Br + KCN ®
(C) C3H7OH + KCN ® (D) C4H9OH + KCN ®
540
105. Which substance has highest boiling point ?
(A) CH3CH2CH2Cl (B) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl
(C) CH3CH(CH3) CH2Cl (D) (CH3)3·C·Cl
106. The product of trans-2-phenyl, 1-bromo cyclo pentane with alcoholic KOH is ...... .
(A) 4-phenyl cyclo pentene (B) 2-phenyl cyclopentene
(C) 1-phenyl cyclo pentene (D) 3-phenyl cyclo pentene
107. Two bottles are filled with C6H5I and C6H5CH2I. If labels of both the bottles are lost then solution
of vessel A and B taken in different test tube and heated with NaOH and solution obtained are
acidified with dilute HNO3. Afterwards on adding AgNO3 solutions, only vessel-B gives yellow
precipitate. Then which sentence is correct for this experiment ?
(A) C6H5I in vessel A (B) C6H5CH2I in vessel A
(C) C6H5I in vessel B (D) addition of AgNO3 is unnecessary.
108. Identify structural formula of major product in the following reaction.
CH2Cl
NaCN ...... ?
DMF
I
CH2CN CH2Cl CH2Cl CH2CN

(A) (B) (C) (D)
CN
CN I CN I
–
109. CH3CH2CH(F)CH3 CH3O / CH3OH ...... ?
(A) CH3CH 2 CH – CH 3 (B) CH3CH = CHCH3

OCH3
(C) CH3CH2CH = CH2 (D) CH3CH2CH2CH2OCH3
C H3
110. MgBr + CH3 C CH3 (t-butanol) ...... .
OH
(A) benzene (B) phenol

(C) t-butyl benzene (D) t-butyl phenyl ether
111. Alkylhalide + di alkyl copper lithium ...... .
(A) alkenes (B) alkyl copper halide
(C) alkanes (D) alkyl halides
112. Which substance is liquid at normal temperature ?
(A) CH3I (B) CH3Br (C) C2H5Cl (D) CH3F
541
113. Identify most reactive halo alkane.
(A) 1, chloro propane (B) 1, bromo propane (C) 2, chloro propane (D) 2, bromo propane
114. In which compound grignard reagent can be added ?
(A) C=O (B) C º N (C) C=S (D) all.
115. Identify increasing order for SN1 reaction of alkyl halide.

(A) CH3CH2X < (CH3)3C X < CH2 = CH CH2 X < PhCH2 X
(B) (CH3)2CH·X < CH3CH2 X, < PhCH2 X < CH2 = CH CH2 X
(C) PhCH2·X < (CH3)2C X; < CH3CH2 X < CH2 = CH CH2 X
(D) CH2 = CH CH2·X < PhCH2X (CH3)2CH X < CH3CH2 X
116. In which substance hydrolysis does not take place by SN1 reaction ?
(A) CH2 = CHCH2Cl (B) C6H5Cl (C) C6H5CH2Cl (D) C6H5CH(CH3)·Cl
117. Which substance gives nucleophilic substitution easily ?
Cl Cl
Cl Cl
(A) (B) (C) (D)
NO2
OCH3 CH3
118. CHCl3 aqueousKOH ...... ?

(A) ethanol (B) methanol (C) acetic acid (D) formic acid
Zn + NaI
119. 1, 3-di bromopropane ...... ?
(A) propane (B) cyclopropane (C) hexane (D) propene
120. Correct order for rate of reaction of hydrolysis reaction of 1o, 2o, 3o and CH3X for SN2 mechanism ?
(A) 1o > 2o > 3o > CH3·X (B) CH3X > 3o > 2o > 1o
(C) CH3X > 1o > 2o > 3o (D) 3o > 2o > 1o > CH3X
121. Which substance is most reactive in SN1 mechanism ?
(A) C6H5CH2Br (B) C6H5·CH·(C6H5)Br
(C) C6H5CH·(CH3)Br ( D)C6H5CH·(CH3)·C6H5Br
Mg ether
122. C6H5CH2Br + ...... ?
H 3O
CH2OH
C H2 – O – C H2
(A) (B)
CH3
(C) (D) CH 2 – CH 2
542
+
KCN H3O LiAlH4
123. CH3·Br A B C then what is C ?
(A) acetone (B) ethyl alcohol (C) acetaldehyde (D) methane
124. Which substance damages the layer of ozone gas ?
(A) alkane (B) Freon (C) Grignard reagent (D) all.
125. How many chlorine atoms are present in D.D.T. ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5
126. Which substance has highest dipole moment ?
(A) CH3Cl (B) CH2Cl2 (C) CHCl3 (D) CCl4
127. 1, bromo, 3-chloro cyclobutane

2 Na ...... .
Dry ether
Cl
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Br
128. Which substance does not give nucleophilic substitution reaction.
(A) vinyl chloride (B) ethyl bromide
(C) benzyl chloride (D) isopropyl chloride
129. In which substance proportion of chlorine is highest ?
(A) chloral (B) PVC (C) pyrene (D) gamaxene
130. In which substance mainly SN2 reaction is observed ?
(A) CH3Cl (B) CH3CH2Cl (C) (CH3)2CH.Cl (D) (CH3)3C.Cl
131. Which reagents are appropriate to obtain, methoxy, 4-nitro benzene ?
Br O Na
(1) + CH3ONa (2) + CH3Br
NO2 NO2
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 1 and 2 both (D) These reagents are not useful
132. Which reaction shows SN2 reaction ?
(A) CH3·Br + OH ® CH3OH + Br
(B) CH3 CH CH3 + OH ® CH3 CH CH3
Br OH
H3O+,
(C) CH3CH2OH – H 2O CH2 = CH2
CH3 CH3
(D) CH3 C – CH3 + OH ® CH3 C – OCH 3 + Br
Br H
543
133. By Wurtz reaction of CH3I product X is obtained. Then which of the following reaction gives
product X ?
Dry ether
(A) C2H2Cl + Mg (B) C2H5Cl + LiAlH4 ®
(C) C2H5Cl + C2H5ONa ® (D) CH3Cl Zn + HCl
134. What is obtained by dehydro halogenation of 1, 2, dibromo benzene ?
(A) (B)
(C) (D) None
135. Which substance has highest melting point ?
Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Cl
Cl
136. In which of the following substance chlorine is most electro negative ?
C H3
(A) CH3Cl (B) H C – Cl
C H3
C H3
(C) CH3 CH2 C – Cl (D) CH3CH2Cl
C H3
Questions with one or more than one correct answer :

137. Reactivity for nucleophilic substitution reaction at aryl halide is less than alkyl halide because,
(A) less stable carboniumion.
(B) resonance stability.
(C) Shorter CX bond length.
(D) inductive effect sp2 hybridized cerson is attached with hologen.
138. Which substance is used as refrigerant ?
(A) NH3 (B) CCl4
(C) CF4 (D) CF2Cl2 (E) CH2F2
139. Identify the product of reaction between ethyl bromide and alcoholic silver nitrite.
(A) ethane (B) ethene
(C) nitro ethane (D) ethyl alcohol (e) ethylnitrite
544
140. In which reaction possibility of formation of new C-C bond ?
(A) Cannizaro (B) Fridel Craft (C) Clemmensson (D) Rimer-Tiemann
141. In which reaction PCl5 used as reagent ?
(A) CH2 = CH2 ® CH3CH2Cl; (B) CH3OCH3 ® CH3Cl
(C) CH3CH2OH ® CH3CH2Cl; (D) CH º CH ® CH2 = CH.Cl
142. Characteristic of reaction between methyl bromide and aqueous KOH is ...... .
(A) racemisation (B) SN1 mechanism
(C) Inversion of configuration (D) SN2 mechanism
143. Which of the following reaction is correct ?
alcohol
(A) C2H5Br C2H5OH
KOH
Na
(B) C2H5Br C2H6
(C) C2H5Br + C2H5ONa ® CH3CH2OCH2CH3
(D) C2H5Br + AgCN ® CH3CH2NC
144. Identify the testing method for chloroform which is used as anesthetic is ...... .
(A) fehling solution
(B) AgNO3 solution
(C) ammoniacal Cu2Cl2
(D) on heating with alcoholic KOH addition of AgNO3 solution
145. Identify incorrect sentences.
(A) chloroform is heavier than water (B) CCl4 is not inflammable
(C) vinyl chloride is more reactive than alkyl chloride.
(D) Br > I nucleophilic reagent
146. Identify increasing order in the given compounds for reactivity of nucleophilic part in CX bond.
X X
H
NO2
(CH3)3C – X (CH3)2 – C – X
I II III IV
(A) III < II < I < IV (B) I < II < IV < III
(C) II < III < I < IV (D) IV < III < I < II
147.
Column-A Column-B
(1) goiter (p) anesthetic
(2) malaria (q) for micro growth of blood
(3) typhoid fever (r) chloroamin
(4) halo ethane (s) chloramphenicol
(5) fluorinated compounds (t) thyroxene
(A) (1)-(t), (2)-(q), (3)-(p), (4)-(r), (5)-(s) (B) (1)-(t), (2)-(s), (3)-(p), (4)-(q), (5)-(r)
(C) (1)-(t), (2)-(q), (3)-(s), (4)-(r), (5)-(p) (D) (1)-(t), (2)-(r), (3)-(s), (4)-(p), (5)-(q)
545
148.
Column-A Column-B
(1) D.D.T. (p) bleaching
(2) iodo form (q) as coolant in refrigerator
(3) carbontetra chloride (r) in air condition
(4) freon R - 22 (s) as anesthetic
(5) chloroform (t) as insecticide
(A) (1)-(t), (2)-(s), (3)-(p), (4)-(r), (5)-(q) (B) (1)-(q), (2)-(p), (3)-(t), (4)-(r), (5)-(s)
(C) (1)-(s), (2)-(t), (3)-(p), (4)-(r), (5)-(z) (D) (1)-(q), (2)-(s), (3)-(t), (4)-(p), (5)-(r)
149.
Column-A Column-B
(1) CH3CH2MgCl + H2O ® ethane + Mg(OH)·Cl (p) Elimination reaction
(2) 2CH3CH2Br + 2Na ® CH3 (CH2)2CH3 + 2NaBr (q) Substitution reaction
KOH + Ethenol
(3) CH3CH2Cl + ethene (r) Wurtz reaction
(4) + OH ® tert butyl alcohol (s) Grignard reaction

Br
(A) (1)-(r), (2)-(q) (3)-(s), (4)-(p) (B) (1)-(s) (2)-(r) (3)-(p), (4)-(q)
(C) (1)-(s) (2)-(p) (3)-(r), (4)-(q) (D) (1)-(s) (2)-(r) (3)-(p), (4)-(q)
150.
Column-A Column-B
Cl
ether
(1) 2 + 2Na + 2NaCl (p) Fridel craft reaction
Br CH3
ether
(2) + 2Na + CH3Br + 2NaBr (q) Fittig reaction
anhy.
Cl
anhy.
(3) C6H5Cl + CH3 C Cl
U/NVR } (r) Wurtz-Fittig reaction
AlCl3
O O
(s) Alkylation reaction

(A) (1)-(r), (2)-(q) (3)-(s) (B) (1)-(s), (2)-(q) (3)-(r)
(C) (1)-(q), (2)-(s) (3)-(r) (D) (1)-(q), (2)-(r) (3)-(p)
546
151.
Column-A Column-B
(1) benzyl bromide (M) : Br
(2) ethelidine bromide (N) : CH3CH.Br2

(3) phenyl bromide (O) : CH2 = CHCH2.Br
(4) allyl bromide (P) : CH2.Br
(A) (1)-(M), (2)-(N), (3)-(O), (4)-(P) (B) (1)-(P), (2)-(N), (3)-(M), (4)-(O)
(C) (1)-(P), (2)-(N), (3)-(O), (4)-(M) (D) (1)-(N), (2)-(O), (3)-(M), (4)-(P)
152. Identify R and S structure for given structures :
COOH H Br CH3
(1) H OH (2) CH3 Cl (3) I Cl (4) H Br
CH3 OH H CH2·CH3
(A) 1-S, 2-R, 3-R, 4-S (B) 1-R, 2-S, 3-R, 4-R (C) 1-R, 2-R, 3-R, 4-S (D) 1-R, 2-S, 3-S, 4-S
153. What is the configuration of given structures respectively ?
COOH CH3
(1) H2N H (2) H D
CH2OH Br
(A) R and R (B) R and S (C) S and S (D) S and R
154. Identify D configuration of alanine.
NH 2 H COOH CH 3
(A) CH3 H (B) CH3 NH2 (C) H 2N CH3 (D) H COOH
COOH COOH H NH2
155. Which substance has chiral atom and possess optical isomerism ?
(A) 2, chloro propane (B) 2, Methyl butane (C) 2, bromo butane (D) 2, 2 dichloro butane
156. In the given reaction product has chiral centre what is the type of this product ?
CH3CHO + HCN ® CH3.CH(OH).CN
(A) leavo rotatory (B) meso isomer (C) dextro rotatory (D) racemic mixture
CH3
157. In H D which configuration is observed ?
Br
(A) S (B) R (C) L (D) D
158. Which compound possess optical activity ?
(A) 2, 2 di methyl pentene (B) 3methyl pentene
(C) 2,-methyl pentene (D) butene
547
159. Optically active isomer d and l differ in which manner ?
(A) On the basis reactivity with achiral substance.
(B) On the basis of melting point.
(C) On the basis of angle of rotation of plane of plane polarised light.
(D) On the basis of solubility in achiral reagent.
160. Which compound is optically active ?
H H
(A) HO CO2H (B) CO2H (C) CO2H (D) CO2H
H OH Cl Cl
In the following questions two sentences are given out of which one is assertion (A) and
other is reason (R) is correct explanition of assertion :
161. Assertion (A) : On adding bromine to trans 2-butene, meso 2,3 di bromo butane is obtained.
Reason (R) : Reaction of addition of bromine into alkene is electrophilic addition reaction.
(A) Assertion (A) and reason (R) is correct and reason (R) is correct explanation of assertion (A).
(B) Assertion (A) and reason (R) is correct but reason (R) is not correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, Reason (R) is incorrect.
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, Reason (R) is correct.
Answers : 67. (C), 68. (A), 69. (A), 70. (C), 71. (C), 72. (D), 73. (B), 74. (A), 75. (D),
76. (C), 77. (B), 78. (C), 79. (C), 80. (A), 81. (B), 82. (B), 83. (C), 84. (D),
85. (B), 86. (A), 87. (C), 88. (B), 89. (C), 90. (C), 91. (B), 92. (B), 93. (B),
94. (A), 95. (C), 96. (D), 97. (C), 98. (C), 99. (C), 100. (C), 101. (A),
102. (B), 103. (B), 104. (D), 105. (B), 106. (D), 107. (B), 108. (A), 109. (C),
110. (A), 111. (D), 112. (D), 113. (A), 114. (B), 115) (C), 116. (D), 117. (B),
118. (C), 119. (D), 120. (C), 121. (B), 122. (B), 123. (D), 124) (A), 125. (D),
126. (A), 127. (C), 128. (A), 129. (C), 130. (A), 131. (B), 132. (A), 133) (D),
134. (B), 135. (B), 136. (D), 137. (C), (D), 138. (B), (D), 139. (B), (C),
140. (B), (C), 141. (C), 142. (C), (D), 143. (C), (D), 144. (B), 145. (D),
146. (B), 147. (D), 148. (D), 149. (B), 150. (C), 151. (C), 152. (C), 153. (C),
154. (D), 155. (A), 156. (B), 157. (C), 158. (B), 159. (B).
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23 Organic Compounds containing Oxygen
Alcohol, phenol and ether
Alcohol : Compounds obtained by substitution of H-atom attached with sp3 hybridised carbon of
alkane, alkene, alkyne and alkyl benzene by OH group are called alcohols.
general formula of alcohol is ROH.
Classification of alcohols
According to number of OH group, alcohols are classified into monohydric, dihydric, trihydric
alcohols etc.
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Alcohols can also be classified into 1° (CH2OH), 2o ( CH2OH) and 3o ( – C – OH ), based on
|
3
number of other carbons attached to OH group containing sp hybridised carbon.
Isomerism in alcohols : Structural isomerism and steroisomerism is observed in alcohol
compounds.
1. Number of isomers of primary alcohols containing molecular formula with C5H12O are ......
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3
2. Cyclopentanol is ...... type of compound.
(A) secondary alcohol (B) phenolic (C) tertiary alcohol (D) primary alcohol
3. Which of the following compound is not possible ?
(A) Propan 1, 3-diol (B) butan 2, 3-diol (C) butan 2,2-diol (D) Pentan1,2-diol
4. Number of optically active isomeric alcohol having molecular formula C5H12O is ...... .
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 2
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (A), 3. (C), 4. (D).
Preparation of alcohol :
Hydrolysis of alkyl halide :
R X + aq. KOH → R OH + KX
alkyl halide
Hydration of alkene :
R CH = CH2 + H2O }}}}}m

dil H SO2 4 R – C H – C H 3 (Markoniko rule)
|
Alkene OH
Hydroboration oxidation of alkene :

(i) B H
2 6
R CH = CH2 R CH2 CH2OH (anti-markoniko rule)
(ii) H 2O2/OH
Alkene
Reduction of carbonyl compounds :

H2/[Ni/Pt/Pd]
R CHO
or LiAlH4 or NaBH4 R CH2OH
Aldehyde
549
H2/[Ni/Pt/Pd]
R – C – R' R – CH – R'
|| or LiAlH4 or NaBH4 |
O OH
Ketone
B2H 6 / ether
R – C – OH R – CH 2 – OH
|| or LiAlH4
O
carboxylic acid
}}}}}}}}} m R – CH OH + HCl
B H / ether
2 6
R – C – Cl 2
|| or LiAlH or NaBH
4 4
Acid chloride
H2/[Ni/Pt/Pd]
R – C – O – C – R' R – CH 2 OH + R'CH 2OH
|| || or LiAlH4
O O
Anhydride
H2/[Ni/P t/Pd]
R – C – O – R' R – CH 2 OH + R' OH
|| or LiAlH 4
O
Ester
Hydrolysis of ester :
+
H
R – C – O – R' H – OH RCOOH + R'OH
||
O
–
OH
R – C – O – R' H – OH RCOO – + R' OH + H 2O
||
O
Addition reaction of Grignard reagent with aldehyde and ketone :
R Mg X + C =O→ C OMgX }}}}}}

+H O 2
hydrolysis
m C OH + Mg(OH)X
R R
Grignard aldehyde 1o / 2o / 3o
reagent or ketone alcohol
Fermentation reaction :
zymase
C12H22O11 + H2O Invertase 2C6H12O6 2C2H5OH + 2CO2
Sucrose Glucose Ethanol
Reaction of alkyl amine (1°) with HNO2 :
NaNO2/HCl
R NH2 + HNO2 R OH + N2 + H2O
550
5. ...... is formed by reaction of phenylmethanamine with nitrous acid.
(A) Phenol (B) Nitrobenzene (C) Phenylmethanol (D) O-cresol
6. Between which of the following substances reaction can be carried out to obtain ethanol ?
(A) CH3MgI and CH3COCH3 (B) CH3MgI and C2H5OH
(C) CH3MgI and CH3COOC2H5 (D) CH3MgI and HCOOC2H5
+
(i) B2H6
7. Q – CH2 H3O P what are products P and Q respectively ?
(ii) H 2O 2/OH
CH3
(A) Both CH2OH (B) Both
OH
CH3 CH3
(C) P = CH2OH and Q = (D) P = and Q = CH2OH
OH OH
8. Which reagent should be used to obtain but-2-en-1-ol from but-2-enal ?

(A) H2/Ni (B) NaBH 4 (C) Zn/HCl (D) Zn-Hg/HCl
9. HC y CH }}}}
H
2 m P
Pd + C }}}m
HBr Q }}}}
aq. m R (organic product)
NaOH
Which is final organic product R in above reaction ?
(A) Ethanol (B) Ethenol (C) Propan-1-ol (D) Prop-2-enol
H
10. MgBr +
O
}}}}}
H O/H
2
m+
what is product X of reaction ?
(A) 3-methylhexan-1-ol (B) 3-methylhexan-2-ol

(C) 2-methylpentan-2-ol (D) 4-methylhexan-2-ol
Answers : 5. (C), 6. (D), 7. (D), 8. (B), 9. (A), 10. (D)
Physical properties of alcohols

Alcohols having lower molecular mass are volatile compounds containing characteristic smell.
Due to formation of intermolecular H-bond between alcohol molecules, their boiling points
are higher than corresponding alkane, alkyl halide and ether compounds.
Order of bioling point of isomeric alcohol : 1° > 2° > 3°
Alcohols form intermolecular H-bond with water molecules. So lower molecular mass
containing alcohols are soluble in water.
When number of OH groups in alcohol increases then bioling point and solubility in water
increases.
Chemical properties of alcohols
(I) Reaction involving clevage of OH bond of alcohol :
Acidic nature of alcohols :
It is proved from the reaction of alcohol with strong metal, metal hydride and metal amide
that alcohol contains acidic nature.
Acidic strength of alcohol is less than that of H2O [Exception-Methanol]
It means that alcohols are weak acid.
+ I effect decreases acidic strength of alcohol while I effect increases acidic strength of
alcohol.
551
R O H + HO C – R'
|| }}}
[H
m RO+] |
C – R + H 2O
||
O O
R O H + Cl C – R'
||
}}}}
Basem R O C – R' + HCl
||
O O
R O H + (R' CO)2 O }}}}

Basem R O C – R' + R'COOH
||
O
R O H+R Mg X → R' H + ROMgX
R O H + R'2 SO4 → R O R' + R'HSO4

(II) Reaction involving cleavage of (C O) bond :
R OH + HX }}}}
anhy m
ZnCl RX+HO
2
2
Reactivity order of HX : HI > HBr > HCl > HF

Reactivity order of ROH : 3° > 2° > 1°
R OH + PCl5 → R Cl + POCl3 + HCl
3R OH + PX3 → 3R X + H3PO3 (where, X = Cl, Br I)
R OH + X2 }}
P m R X + H PO
3 3
pyridine
R OH + SOCl2 R Cl + SO2 + HCl
R OH + NH3 }}}}
Al O
633K
m2 3
R NH2
H2O
1° Amine
R NH2 + ROH }}}}

Al O
2
633K
m 3
R2NH
H2O
2° Amine
R2 NH + ROH }}}}
Al O
2
633K
m 3
R3N
H2O 3° Amine
R CH2 OH + 2HI }}}}

redP m R CH
423K 3
+ H2O + I2 (Reduction)
(III) Reactions involving alcohol molecule as whole :

Dehydration :
(a) Dehydration of alcohol is possible in two ways, so that possible one product out of two is
obtained based on temperature.
[H2SO4] [H2SO4]
e.g. CH3CH2OH CH2 = CH2 OR 2CH3CH2OH (CH3CH2)2O
433 - 443 K 433 K - H2O
Ethanol Ethene Ethanol Diethylether
552
In case of dehydration reaction of alcohol to obtained alkene depends on stability of
carbocation from this reactivity order of alcohol is : 3° > 2° > 1°.
If there is possibility of getting more than one product on dehydration of alcohol then
according to Saytzeffs rule and rearrangement (carbocation) main product is decided.
(b) By passing a vapour of alcohol over, heated alumina at 513-523 K temperature gives
ether while at 633 K temperature gives alkene
eg, 2CH3CH2OH }}}}}}

Al O 2
513 - 523 K
m 3
(CH3CH2)2O + H2O
CH3CH2OH }}}}
Al O
2
633 K
m
3
CH3 = CH2 + H2O
Oxidation
(a) Product obtained on oxidation of alcohol depends upon type of alcohol and oxidizing agent.
(i) 1° Corresponding aldehyde is obtained on oxidation of 1° alcohol by weak oxidizing
agent (PCC) in presence of CH2Cl2. While corresponding acid is obtained by strong
oxidizing agent like conc. HNO3 /acidic K2Cr2O7/acidic KMnO4 /basic KMnO4 /
neutral KMnO4.
(ii) Corresponding ketone is obtained on oxidation of 2° alcohol by strong oxidizing agent.
(iii) Oxidation of 3° alcohol can not be done by neatural or alkaline KMnO4. But when 3°
alcohol is treated with H2SO4/K2Cr2O7 or KMnO4 it gives alkene and then give
mixture of lower number of carbon containing ketone and acid.
(b) Different types of alcohols gives different products when their vapours are passed over
heated copper at 573 K.
eg., 1° alcohol }}}

–H
m aldehyde
2
2° alcohol }}}
–H
m ketone
2
3° alcohol }}}}
–H O
m alkene
2
Note :
On the basis of product obtained by oxidation reaction, type of alcohol can be identified.
In laboratary, determination of type of alcohol can also be done by Lucas test.
Victor-Meyers Test : In laboratary, identification of type of alcohol can also be done by

this test which is as under.
R CH2OH }}}}
P+I
m
2 R CH2I }}}}
AgNO
2
m R CH2 NO2 }}}}
HNO
2
m R C – NO 2
||
NO H
1° alcohol
R C – NO 2 NaOH
||
NO – Na +
553
Blood red colour
R2CHOH }}}}
P+I2
m R2CHI }}}}
AgNO
m 2 R2CH NO2 }}}}
HNO
m2 R2. C–NO2
|
2° alcohol N=O
Blue colour NaOH

R3C OH }}}}
P+I
m 2 R3CI }}}}
AgNO
m 2 R3C NO2 }}}}
HNO
2
m No reaction.
3° alcohol
colourless solution NaOH
11. 3-Methylbutan-2-ol }}}

HBr m
(A) 2-Bromo-3-methylbutane (B) 3-Bromobutan-2-ol

(C) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane (D) 2-Bromobutan-2-ol
12. Which order of reactivity of following compounds with HBr is true ?
CH2OH Cl CH2OH O 2N CH2OH
(P) (q) (r)
(A) r > q > p (B) p > q > r (C) q > p > r (D) r > q > p
+
H 2O / H
13. Main product + Subsidiary product. What is main product in the reaction ?
CH3 CH 3
| |
(A) H 3C – C – CH – CH 3 (B) CH 2 – C – CH 2 – CH3
| | | |
OH CH3 OH CH3
CH3 CH3
| |
(C) H 3C – C – CH – CH 3 (D) H 3C – C – CH 2 – CH 2
| | | |
CH 3 OH CH 3 OH
14. CH 3 – CH – CH 3
|
}}}
PBr3m x }}}}m
Mg/ ether y H2C – CH2 Z H2O Q
OH
What is final product Q ?
(A) CH 3 – CH – CH 2 CH 2 OH (B) CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH2 – CH3
| |
CH 3 OH
(C) CH 3 – CH – O – CH 2 – CH 3 (D) CH 3 – O – CH – CH 2 – CH 3
| |
CH 3 CH 3
15. For which of the following compound ka is lowest ?

OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
OH
OH HO
554
16. The correct order of basic strength is ...... .
(A) H2O < OH < CH3OH < CH3O (B) CH3OH < H2O < CH3O < OH
(C) H2O < CH3OH < OH < CH3O (D) OH < H2O < CH3O < CH3OH
17. CH2OH }}}}

H PO
m what is the major product ?
3 4
(A) CH2 (B) CH3 (C) (D) CH3
Lucas
18. (CH3)3 C CH CH3 reagent
|
OH
(A) 2-chloro-3-methylbutan (B) 1-chloro-3-methyl butan
(C) 2-chloro-2, 3-dimethyl butan (D) 2,3-dimethyl but-2-en
19. An organic compound A reacts with C2H5 MgI to form an addition product which on hydrolysis
forms the compound B. Compound B gives blood red colour in Victor-Meyers test. What are
compounds A and B respectively ?
(A) Acetaldehyde, propanol (B) Formaldehyde, n-propyl alcohol
(C) Acetal dehyde, isopropyl alcohol (D) Acetone, n-propyl alcohol
20. P k}}}}}}
HCl / ZnCl 2
(CH 3 )3 C – CH 2 OH }}}}
SOCl
mQ
2
Which are products P and Q in above reaction ?

(A) P = (CH3)3 C CH2Cl, Q = (CH3)3 C CH2Cl
(B) P = (CH3)2 C (Cl) CH2 CH3, Q = (CH3)3 C CH2Cl
(C) P = (CH3)3 C CH2Cl, Q = (CH3)2 C (Cl) CH2 CH3
(D) P = (CH3)2 C (Cl) CH2 CH3, Q = (CH3)2 C (Cl) CH2CH3
21. Isobutylalcohol
H2SO4
X
HBr
Y }}}}} m
aq.KOH Z
X and Y are organic product in above reaction. What is product Z ?

(A) CH3 CH = CH CH3 (B) CH3 CH2 CH = CH2
OH
|
(C) CH3 CH CH2 CH3 (D) (CH3)3 C OH
22. ...... gas is formed when ethanol is heated with methylmagnesium iodide.
(A) Methane (B) Ethane (C) Carbondioxide (D) Propane
23. Which of the following alcohol has lowest reactivity for esterification reaction ?
(A) Butan-1-ol (B) Butan-2-ol
(C) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol (D) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
555
24. If 5.6 ml gas is obtained at STP during the reaction of 0.0185 g ethanal with methyl
magnesium bromide, then what will be molecular mass of alcohol ?
(A) 74 (B) 46 (C) 32 (D) 60
25. CH3OH with which substance methanol can not form ester by reaction ?
(A) Ethanoic acid (B) Ethanol (C) Ethanoicanhydride (D) Ethanoylchloride
Answers : 11. (C), 12. (B), 13. (A), 14. (A), 15. (D), 16. (C), 17. (C), 18. (C), 19. (B),
20. (B), 21. (D), 22. (A), 23. (D), 24. (A), 25. (B).
Phenol
Compound formed by substitution of H attached to C in aromatic ring by OH group is called
phenol, general formula of phenol is ArOH.
Phenol can be classified into monohydric, dihydric, trihydric and polyhydric on the basis of
number of OH groups.
Alkyl substituted phenol contains functional isomerism with aryl alcohol and alkylaryl ether.
Preparation of phenol :
SO3H }}}}}}}
(i) NaOH, 573 K
(ii) HCl (dil)
m OH
NH2 }}}}}}m
NaNO / HCl
2
273-278 K
N +2 Cl –
dilH2SO4,
+ H 2O OH
HCl, N2
OH ONa OH
COONa
}}}}}}
NaOH + CaO
% m }}}}m
dil HCl
– NaCl
OH
1
}}}m
+
MgBr + O dry ether OMg Br H / H2O + Mg (OH) Br
2 2
Industrially phenol is obtained by Dows and Cumenes processes
Dows Process : Cl + 2NaOH

600 K
300 bar
ONa }}}}m
dil HCl
– NaCl OH
NaCl
H2O
Cumenes Process :
CH 3
|
+ CH3 CH = CH2 }}}}}}m
H3 PO 4 ,523 K
C – CH 3
|
O2
CH 3
|
CH3 – C – CH3 +
||
OH k}}}}
dil H SO
}2 4 C – OOH
|
O CH 3
556
Physical properties of phenol
Intermolecular H-bond is formed between molecules of phenol, its boiling point is higher than
corresponding aromatic hydrocarbon and arylhalide.
Phenol can be soluble in lesser amount than alcohol by forming H-bond with water.
With increasing number of OH group in phenol, boiling point and solubility in water increases.
Difference is observed on the basis of boiling point in substituted isomeric phenols (o, m and p)
Acidic property of Phenol
Phenol is stronger acid than alcohol but acidic strength is less than strong acid so it can be
neutralized by strong alkali like NaOH but can not be neutralized by Na2CO3 or NaHCO3
(weak base)
Order of acidic strength of different substituted phenol is as under :
(1) 2,4,6 -Trinitrophenol > 2, 4 Dinitrophenol > 4 Nitrophenol > 2 Nitrophenol > 3
Nitrophenol > phenol
(2) phenol > m-cresol > p-cresol > o-cresol
(3) o-Halophenol > m-Halophenol > p-Halophenol > phenol
(4) o-chlorophenol > o-Bromophenol > o-Iodophenol > o-Florophenol
(5) m-Methoxyphenol > o-Methoxyphenol > p-Methoxyphenol
26. Which of the following is strongest acid ?
(A) o-Florophenol (B) o-Chlorophenol (C) o-Iodophenol (D) o-Bromophenol
27. O 2N NH2 }}}}}}m

NaNO / HCl
2
273-278 K
X }}}}}
dil H SO
H O, %2
m 2 4
Mention the product Y of reaction.
(A) p-Nitrophenol (B) Benzene- 1,4 diol (C) Nitrobenzene (D) phenol
28. Which order of reaction is correct to obtain resorcinol from m-Nitrophenol ?
(A) Hydrolysis, diazotisation, reduction (B) Diazotisation, reduction, hydrolysis
(C) Reduction, diazotisation, hydrolysis (D) Hydrolysis, reduction, diazotisation
29. CH3CH2CH2Br }}}}}

alcoholm P }}}}}
KOH
CH
H PO ,
m 3
6 6
4
Q }}}
O
m
2
R
dilH2SO4
T + S
What is the main aromatic product of above reaction ?
(A) Phenylmethanol (B) O-cresol (C) Phenol (D) p-cresol
30. x }}}}}}m
conc. H SO
%
2 4
Mix. of two isomers }}}}}}}}
(i) solid NaOH, %
(ii) (dil) HCl
m P-cresol + O-Cresol starting
substance x = ...... .
(A) Nitrobenzene (B) Benzenesulphonic acid (C) Benzene (D) Toluene
557
31. What is true for comparison of acidic strength of phenol and ethanol ?
(A) Both phenol and ethanol form stable negative ions, so that acidic strength of both is
same
(B) Phenol forms stable negative ion and ethanol forms unstable negative ion so that phenol
is stronger acid than ethanol
(C) Ethanol forms stable negative ion, and phenol forms unstable negative ion so that ethanol
is stronger acid than phenol
(D) Phenol forms readily negative ion while ethanol forms slowly negative ion, so that phenol
is stronger acid than ethanol.
32. Arrange phenolic isomers containing molecular formula C7H8O according to their acidic
strength.
(A) o-cresol > m-cresol > p-cresol (B) m-cresol > o-cresol > p-cresol
(C) m-cresol > p-cresol > o-cresol (D) p-cresol > o-cresol > m-cresol
Answers : 26. (B), 27. A 28. (C), 29. (C), 30. (D), 31. (B), 32. (C)
Properties of phenol
(A) Reactions of OH Group :
OH + Na → ONa + H2
OH + NaOH → ONa + H2O
OH + Cl – C – R
|| }}}}
Basem O – C – R + HCl
||
O O
O
OH + Cl – C – C6H 5
||
}}}}m
Base CH 2 + HCl
O
O
OH + (CH3CO)2 O }}}}
Basem O – C CH3 + CH3COOH
||
O
OH + NH3 }}}}}}}}}}}}
573 K
ZnCl (or) high pressure
m NH2 + H2O
2
OH + Zn %m
}} + ZnO
ONa + XR }}}}m

– NaX
OR
33. ONa + CO2 + H2O → OH + NaHCO3, reaction show that,

(A) Carbonic acid is stronger acid than phenol
(B) Water is stronger acid than phenol.
(C) Acidic strength of phenol is more than carbonic acid
(D) Carbonic acid is stronger base than phenol
34. Phenol }}}}}}}m

(i) NaOH
(ii) CO
2 / 413 K X }}}}}
+
H /H O
m 2
Y }}}}}}
(CH3 CO 2 )O
m Z What is final product Z ?
(A) Salicylaldehyde (B) Salicylic acid (C) Phenylacetate (D) Aspirin
558
35. Which intermediate is associated with Reimer-Tiemann reaction ?
(A) Carbocation (B) Carbene (C) Carbanion (D) Free radical
36. Cl }}}}}}}}
(i) 6 to 8% NaOH
600 K,300 bar
m X }}}}}}
m Y
NaOHanly AlCl
C2 H5 COCl
3
Z
(ii) H+
X, Y and Z are organic products in above reaction. What is the relation between Y and Z ?
(A) Z is eliminate product of Y. (B) Z is substituted product of Y.
(C) Z is rearrangement product of Y. (D) Z is addition product of Y.
37. Which of the following compound does not give effervences with sodiumbicarbonate ?
(A) Benzoic acid (B) Picric acid (C) Benzenesulphonic acid (D) phenol
38. With which reagent, reaction of phenol is different than that of ethanol ?
(A) Neutral FeCl3 (B) Sodium metal (C) Grignard reagent (D) Ethonoly chloride
39. With which, reaction of aqueous solution of phenol is known as Willimson synthesis ?
(A) Alkylhalide (B) Acidhalide (C) Acidanhydride (D) Halogen acid
40. Which reagent is required for identification of phenol in laboratory ?
(i) Neutral FeCl3 (ii) Diazonium salt (iii) Bromine water
(A) only (i), (ii) (B) only (i), (iii) (C) only (ii), (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
41. Which option is not correct for the given reaction and its corresponding product ?
(A) Fries rearrangement → phenolic ketone
(B) Kolbe-Schmitt reaction → hydroxy ketone
(C) Reimer-Tiemann reaction → hydroxyaldehyde
(D) Williamson synthesis → alkyl phenylether
Answers : 33. (A), 34. (D), 35. (B), 36. (C), 37. (D), 38. (A), 39. (A), 40. (D), 41. (B)
Ether
The compounds formed by substitution of H atom of hydroxyl group of alcohol or phenol by alkyl
and/or aryl group called ether.
general molecular formula of ehter compound is : R O R'.
general molecular formula of alcohols and ether compounds is CnH2n+2O (For saturated alcohol/
ether).
Symmetrical (eg., CH3 O CH3) and unsymmetrical (eg. CH3 O CH2 CH3) ethers are
two types of ether.
Boiling point of ether is lower than its isomeric alcohol.
Preparation of ether
(A) From alcohol :
(i) (a) Symmetrical ether is obtained from the reaction carried out between excess alcohol and
conc. H2SO4 at 413 K temperature by removal of water molecule.
eg. 2C2H5OH }}}}m

conc.
H SO
2 4
C2H5OC2H5 + H2O
413 K
559
(b) By passing vapour of alcohol over heated alumina at 513-523 K temp symmetrical ether is
obtained by removal of water molecule.
eg. 2CH3CH2OH }}}}}}

Al O 2 3
513 - 523 K
m CH3CH2OCH2CH3 + H2O
(ii) For preparation of methyl ether reaction is carried out between diazomethane and alcohol in
presence of HBF4
eg. C2H5OH + CH2N2 4 }}}}

HBF
m
C2H5 O CH3 + N2
(iii) When alcohol is treated with alkene in the presence of acid catalyst due to addition reaction
ether is formed.
CH3
|
eg. CH3 C = CH 2 + CH3OH H2SO4 CH 3 – C – OCH3
| |
CH 3
CH3
Note : In some cases, from alkene carbocation is formed which undegoes rearrangement. So,
other ether is obtained.
(B) From alkylhalide :
(i) Williamsons Synthesis : Ether can be obtained by nucleophilic substitution of primary
alkylhalide with sodium alkoxide/sodium phenoxide.
R ONa + X R → R O R + NaX
Ar ONa + X R → Ar O R + NaX
(ii) 2R X + Ag2O
% R O R + 2AgX
}}m
Chemical properties of ether
(A) Reaction involving cleavage of C O bond :
(i) R O R + HX }}}}
373K
m R OH + R X
R O R + 2HX }}}}
373K
m 2R X + H O 2
Reactivity order of HX in both reaction is : HI > HBr > HCl.
(ii) For unsymmetrical ether
eg., CH3 O CH2CH3 + HX }}}}
373K
m CH X + CH CH OH 3 3 2
CH O C H + HX }}}}
3 6
373K
5 m CH X + C H OH 3 6 5
CH O CH C H + HX }}}}
3
373K
2 6 m CH OH + C H CH X
5 3 6 5 2
R O R + H O }}}}}}m
dil H SO 2 4
(i) % , pressure 2R OH
2
(ii) R O R + conc. H2SO4

% R OH + R OSO OH
}}m 2
anhy |
(i) R O R + R' – C – Cl ZnCl R – C– OR + R Cl
|| 2 ||
O O
anhy
(ii) R O R + R'– C – O – C – R' ZnCl 2 R' – C– OR
|| || 2 ||
O O O
633 K
CH3 CH2 O CH2 CH3 2 CH2 = CH2 + H2O
anhyZnCl2
560
42. Which is the proper reaction to prepare tertiary butyl methyl ether ?
(A) CH3Br + (CH3)3 CONa → (B) (CH3)3 CCl + CH3ONa →
(C) (CH3) C OH + CH3Cl → (D) (CH3)3 C Cl + CH3OH →
43. Which products are obtained respectively, when CH3OC2H5 and (CH3)3 COCH3 are heated with
HI ?
(A) CH3I + C2H5OH; CH3I + (CH3)3 C OH (B) CH3I + C2H5OH; CH3)3 CI + CH3OH
(C) CH3OH + C2H5I; (CH3)3 C I + CH3OH (D) CH3OH + C2H5I; (CH3)3 C OH + CH3I
44. C6H5OCH3 + HBr →
(A) Br OCH3 and H2 (B) Br and CH3Br
(C) OH and CH3Br (D) Br and CH3OH
O
}}}}m
OH
CH2I2
45. CH2 example of, ...... .
OH
NaOH
O
(A) Wurtz reaction (B) Fittig reaction
(C) Williamson synthesis (D) Wurtz-Fitting reaction
46. C6H5ONa + CH3I → P }}}}}m

anhy . AlCl
CH COCl
3
3
Q Which are organic products P and Q respectively ?
(A) phenol, methoxybenzene and acetophenone

(B) Methoxybenzene, mixture of acetophenone and phenol
(C) Methoxybenzene, o and p methoxyacetophenone
(D) Iodobenzene, acetophenone
47. In which of the following compound C O C bond angle is maximum ?
(A) CH3 O CH3 (B) CH3 O C2H5
(C) C2H5 O C2H5 (D) (CH3)2 CH O CH (CH3)2
Answers : 42. (A), 43. (B), 44. (C), 45. (C), 46. (C), 47. (D)
Based on whole Unit :
(i) O / %
48. + Cl CH2 CH2 CH3 }}}}
AlCl
m3 P }}}}}
2
+m
Q + What are products P and Q
(ii) H3O
respectively ?
(A) and CH3CH2CHO (B) and CH3COCH3
(C) and CH3COCH3 (D) and CH3CH2CHO
49. From which of the following mixture of substances, two substances can be seperated by
NaOH(aq) and NaHCO3(aq) ?
(A) C6H5OH and C6H5COOH (B) C6H5COOH and CH3CH2OH
(C) CH3CH2OH and C6H5COOH (D) CH3CH2OH and CH3OH
50. Which of the following substance cannot form phenol and phenoxide ion ?
(A) C6H5Cl (B) C6H5N2Cl (C) C6H5COOH (D) C6H5SO3Na
51. Which organic product is obtained on heating a mixture of CH3OH and C2H5OH in presence of
conc. H2SO4 ?
(A) CH3OC2H5 (B) CH3OCH3 and CH3OC2H5
(C) CH3OC2H5 and C2H5OC2H5 (D) CH3OCH3, CH3OC2H5 and C2H5OC2H5
561
52. Which is the major product of the following reaction ?
C6H5CH2CH(OH)CH(CH3)2 }}}}}}m
conc. H SO 2 4
(A) C6H5 CH2CH2 (B) H 5C6 H

C = CH2 C=C
H 3C H CH(CH3)2
(C) C6H5CH2 CH3 (D) C6H5 CH(CH3)2

C=C C=C
H CH3
H H
53. o-Nitrophenol is less soluble in water compared to p-Nitrophenol because,
(A) o-Nitrophenol is more valatile gas than p-Nitrophenol
(B) Meltingpoint of o-Nitrophenol is more than p-Nitrophenol.
(C) Intromolecular H-bond is present in o-Nitrophenol
(D) Molecularmass of o-Nitrophenol is higher
54. Which of the following compounds will not give yellow ppts with the mixture of Iodine and
NaOH ?
(A) Ethanol (B) Methanol (C) Propan-2-ol (D) Butan-2-ol
55. How the following compounds can be arranged in proper order on the basis of their acid strenght ?
(I) Cyclohexanol, (II) Aciticacid, (III) 2,4,6-triNitrophenol (IV)phenol.
(A) II > III > IV > I (B) III > IV > II > I (C) III > II > IV > I (D) III > II > I > IV
56. Which of the following compound is the strongest acid ?
(A) CH (B) OH (C) CH2OH (D) OH
|
OH
57. Substance A having molecular formula C3H8O reacted with 2 mole of HI, X and Y are
obtained. Z is obtained on a boiling of Y with aqueous alkali. Substance Z gives iodoform test,
then what is substance A ?
(A) Propan-2-ol (B) Methoxy ethane (C) Propan-1-ol (D) Ethoxy ethane
58. Anisol }}}}}}

CH Cl
anly. AlCl
m P Cl / FeCl
3 2 3
Q }}}
HBr m S, What is final product S in the reaction ?
%
3
OCH3 Br Br OH
Br Cl Br Cl
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
NO2
59. To prepare O2N O compound which reaction is proper ?
NO2
(A) O }}}}}
HNO
+ H SO
m 2
3
4
(B) ONa + O2N F →
O 2N
(C) F+ NaO NO2 → (D) + HO NO2 →

O 2N
562
60. Which of the following reaction is possible ?
(A) (CH3)3C ONa + (CH3)3 C Br → (CH3)3 C O C (CH3)3
(B) (CH3)2 CH ONa + (CH3)2 CH Br → (CH3)2 CH O CH (CH3)2
(C) C6H5ONa + C6H5Br → C6H5OC6H5
(D) C6H5ONa + CH3Br → C6H5OCH3
61. Which reagent is useful to obtain cyclohexzene from cyclohexanal ?
(A) Conc. HCl + ZnCl2 (B) Conc. H3PO4 (C) HBr (D) Conc. HCl
62. Which order is true for reactivity towards Williamsons synthesis ?
(I) (CH3)3C CH2Br (II) CH3CH2CH2Br (III)CH2 = CHCH2Cl (IV)CH3CH2CH2Cl
(A) III > II > IV > I (B) I > II > IV > III (C) II > III > IV > I (D) I > III > II > IV
63. Which of the following substance cannot form iodoform ?
(A) Isopropyl alcohol (B) 3-Methylbutan-2-ol
(C) Isobutyl alcohol (D) Ethylmethyl ketone
64. CH3CH2OH P, I2 A }}}} m HCHO

ether B }}}}m C }}}m
Mg H O 2 D. Final product D in the reaction
is = ......
(A) n-Butylalcohol (B) n-propylalcohol (C) Propanal (D) Butanal
65. ...... is obtained, when phenol first reacts with conc. H2SO4 and then nitric acid.
(A) Nitrobenzene (B) 2,4,6 -triNitrobenzene(C) O-Nitrophenol (D) m-Nitrophenol
66. Which of the following compounds give tribromo derivative on treatment with brominewater ?
CH2OH CH3 CH3 CH3

OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)

OH
OH
67. p-cresol gives product A on treatment with chloroform in alkali medium. Product B is obtained on
a reaction of substance A with HCN. Chiral compound is obtained on hydrolysis of substance B.
which compound is chiral ?
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

CH2COOH CH(OH)COOH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH2COOH CH(OH)COOH
OH OH OH OH
ONa
68. + CO2 5125

o
atm.
C B }}}}
H m
AC O
+
C, product c of the reaction is ...... .
2
OCOCH3 OH OH OCOCH3
COOH COCH3 COOCH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
COOH
COCH3
563
69. Which of the following alcohol gives lucas test fast ? By which mechanism ?
(A) Seconary alcohol, SN1 (B) tertiary alcohol, SN1
(C) Secondary alcohol, SN2 (D) tertiary alcohol, SN2
O
70. CH3 CH CH3

|
}}}m }}}m
PBr3 X
Mg
Y
H2C HC2
Z }}}m
HO
2
P
OH
Which is the final product D of the reaction ?
(A) CH3 CH O CH2 CH3 (B) CH3 O CH CH2 CH3
| |
CH3 CH3
(C) CH3 CH2 CH CH2OH (D) CH3 CH CH2 CH3 OH

| |
CH3 CH3
Answers : 48. (C), 49. (A), 50. (C), 51. (D), 52. (B), 53. (C), 54. (B), 55. (C), 56. (B),
57. (B), 58. (D), 59. (B), 60. (D), 61. (B), 62. (C), 63. (C), 64. (B), 65. (C),
66. (D), 67. (C), 68. (A), 69. (B), 70. (D),
Questions having one or more than one option :
71. From which of the following substances, 2-Methyl-propan-2-ol can be prepared by reaction with
methylmagnesium iodide ?
(A) Propanone (B) Ethyl ethanoate (C) Ethanal (D) Ethylene oxide
72. 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols can be identified by ...... .
(A) Cu/573 K (B) Victor meyer test (C) conc. HCl/ZnCl2 (D) Brominewater
73. Phenol is less acidic than ......
(A) Acitic acid (B) p-methoxy phenol (C) p-Nitrophenol (D) Ethanol
74. Grignards reagent on treatment with ...... gives alkane.
(A) Alcohol (B) phenol (C) water (D) Ether
75. By which of the following reaction ether can be prepared ?
(A) C6H5Br + CH3ONa → (B) C6H5ONa + CH3Br →
(C) (CH3) CONa + C2H5Br → (D) (CH3) CBr + C2H5ONa →
76. From which of the following reaction phenol can be prepared ?
(A) By hydrolysis reaction of chlorobenzene with KOH(aq)
(B) On heating sodiumsalycilate with NaOH + CaO
(C) Treatement of cummine hydroperoxide with dilute H2SO4
(D) On heating benzene diazzonium salt with dilute H2SO4
77. By which of the following, substitution of OH group of alcohol cannot be done ?
(A) SOCl2 (B) Cl2 (C) PCl5 (D) P+Cl2
78. Which of the following statements are true ?
(A) Phenol can easily oxidized than benzene.
(B) Benzaldehyde and phenol can be seperated by NaHSO3.
(C) p-Cresol and benzoic acid can be seperated by NaOH.
(D) Difference between phenol and ethanol can be identified by neutral FeCl3.
564
79. Which of the following statements are correct ?
(A) 4-Chlorophenol is soluble in aqueous NaOH but 4-chlorobenzaldehyde is not soluble in
aqueous NaOH.
(B) 4-Methylbenzoic acid is soluble in NaHCO3(aq)but 4-methyl phenol is not soluble in NaHCO3(aq) .
(C) 2,4,6 trinitrophenol is stronger acid than 4-methyl phenol.
(D) Difference between o-Cresol and anisole can be identified by aqueous NaOH.
80. Which of the following is acid base reaction ?
(A) C6H5ONa + CH3 CH2OH → C6H5OH + CH3CH2ONa
(B) C6H5OH + NaOH → C6H5ONa + H2O
(C) C6H5ONa + aqueous HCl → C6H5OH + NaCl
COONa
(D) C6H5ONa + H2O + CO2 →
OH
81. Select proper choice by joining column-I having pair of substances and column-II having different
substance/test for differntiating substances :
Column-I Column-II
(p) Methanol and Propan-2-ol (i) Sodium metal (A) (p)-(iii), (q)-(iv), (r)-(ii), (s)-(i)
(q) Phenol and cyclohexanol (ii) Lucas test (B) (p)-(ii), (q)-(iii), (r)-(iv), (s)-(i)
(r) n-butylalcohal and tertiary (iii) NaOH + I2 (C) (p)-(iii), (q)-(i), (r)-(ii), (s)-(iv)
butylalcohol (D) (p)-(ii), (q)-(iv), (r)-(i), (s)-(iii)
(s) Functional group isomers (iv) FeCl3
having molecular formula
C2H 6O
82. Select proper choice by joining column-I having reactions with column-II having name of reaction
Column-I Column-II
(p) C6H5ONa + CH3 I → (i) Kolbe-schmitt reaction
(i) B 2H6
(q) CH3 CH = CH2 (ii) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(ii) H2O2 / OH
%
}}}}}
Pressurem
(r) C6H5ONa + CO2 (iii) Wiliamson synthesis
(s) C6H5OH + CHCl3 + }}}}

NaOH m (iv) Hydroboration-oxidation
(A) (p)-(iii), (q)-(iv), (r)-(ii), (s)-(i) (B) (p)-(iii), (q)-(iv), (r)-(i), (s)-(ii)
(C) (p)-(ii), (q)-(iii), (r)-(i), (s)-(iv) (D) (p)-(ii), (q)-(iv), (r)-(i), (s)-(iii)
Answers : 71. (A), 72. (A), (B), (C), 73. (A), (C), 74. (A), (B), (C), 75. (B), (C), 76. (B),
(C), (D), 77. (B), 78. (A), (B), (C), 79. (A), (B), (C), (D), 80. (B), (C), (D), 81.
(A), 82. (B)
In the following questions two sentences are given. One of them is Assertion (A) and
another one is Reason (R). Study sentences carefully and select proper choice according
to given below instructions :
Options :
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct and reason (R), gives correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct and reason (R), does not give correct
explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct but reason (R) is wrong.
(D) Assertion (A) is wrong but reason (R) is correct.
565
83. Assertion (A) : Boiling point of alcohol is higher than ether having same molecular mass.
Reason (R) : Alcohol and ether are isomers of eachother.
84. Assertion (A) : Order of ease of dehydration reaction of following compounds is :
OH OH OH OH
< < <
Reason (R) : If OH group is conjucated with double bond then dehydration is easy.
85. Assertion (A) : On heating C6H5CH2OCH3 with HI, C6H5CH2I and CH3OH are obtained.
Reason (R) : Stability of benzyl carbocation is more than methyl carbocation.
Integer type questions : The answer to each of the following questions is a single digit integer,
ranging from 0 to 9.
86. How many numbers isomers having molecular formula will give red colouration in Victor-Meyers test ?
87. How many grams of dihydrogen gas is involved by complete reaction of 64 gram methanol with
sodium metal ?
88. How many number of of isomers having molecular formula C4H10O do not react with Na metal ?
89. On which carbon of benzene ring substitution takes place when phenol is reacted with bromine in
presence of carbon disulphide at 0-5° C ?
90. How many numbers of isomers having molecular formula C7H8O do not give violet colour with
neutral FeCl3 ?
Answers : 83. (B) 84. (D), 85. (A), 86. 4 87. 2 88. 3 89. 4 90. 3
Carbonyl Compounds
Group containing carbon-oxygen double bond ( C = O ) is called carbonyl group. C = O group
containing organic compounds are called carbonyl compounds.

Structure of carbonyl group : Carbon and oxygen have sp2 hybridisation in carbonyl group.
sp2 hybridised carbon forms three s-bond with one O atom and two other atoms by using its sp2
hybridised orbitals. These three bonds are arranged in one plane at 120° angle. Carbonyl carbon,
overlap its 2p orbital with 2P orbital of O atom and forms π-bond. O atom contained two lone
pair of electron.
..
C .O.
Due to more electronegativity of O atom than C atom carbonyl group have high dipole
moments.
+
C O: C O:
Aldehyde and Ketone

When one alkyl (or aryl) group and one H is attached to carbonyl carbon then it is called
aldehyde.
eg., R – C – H or Ar – C – H
|| ||
O O
566
If one alkyl and one aryl groups or two same or different alkyl or aryl groups are attached
to carbonyl carbon then it is called ketone.
(eg., R–C–R or Ar – C – H or R – C – Ar )
|| || ||
O O O
|
R – C – R| If R and R groups in ketone are same then it is called simple ketone but if R
||
O
and R groups are not same then it is called mixed ketone.
If molecular formula of aldehyde and ketone are same then they exhibit functional group isomerism
with each other.
Preparation of aldehyde and ketone
(A) From alcohol :
(i) Oxidation
Oxidising agent
→
R CH2 OH (O)
R CHO + H2O
10 alcohal
oxidisting agent
R – CH – R 
(O)

→ R–C–R + H O
2
| ||
OH O
o
2 alcohol
Strong oxidising agent : Acidic K2Cr2O7, alkaline KMnO4, CrO3|H2SO4 are used for controlled
oxidation.
Weak oxidising agent : CrO3.2C5H5N (In pyridine), CrO3.2C5H5N (In CH2Cl2),
(Collins reagent) (Sarett reagent)
By PCC [pyridinium chlorochromate (Coreys reagent)] and PDC (pyridinium dichromate) 1o alcohol
can be oxidised into aldehyde.
(ii) Oppenauer oxidation
R CH3 (CH3 ) CO Al R CH3

 3 3
CH OH + C = O → C=O + CHOH
R R
CH3 CH3
Saturated or unsaturated Acetone (excess) ketone Isopropylalcohol

2o alcohol
(iii) Dehydrogenation
Cu,573k
R CH2OH 
–H
→ R CHO
2
1° alcohol
Cu,573k
R – CH – R 
– H2
→ R –C–R
| ||
OH O
20 alcohol
567
(B) From Carboxylic acid :
% m
(i) (a) (HCOO)2 Ca }}}}}
– CaCO3 HCHO
Calcium formate formaldehyde
% m
(b) (RCOO)2 Ca }}}}}
– CaCO3 R – C – R
||
Calcium salt O
of ketone (Simple)
monobasic acid
}}}}}% m
(c) (RCOO)2 Ca + (HCOO)2 Ca – 2CaCO3 R CHO + R – C – R + HCHO
||
O
Aldehyde Ketone formaldehyde

Note : In above (b) and (C) reactions (RCOO)2 Ca is a calcium salt of any monobasic acid
except formic acid.
¥ H 2C – CH 2 – COO – µ % m H 2C – CH 2
(d) ¦ | ¶ Ca2+ }}}}}
– CaCO3
| C=O
¦H C – CH 2 – COO – ¶· H 2C – CH 2
§ 2
Calcium adipate Cyclopentatone

(Ca salt of dibasic acid) (Cyclic ketone)
(ii) Aldehyde and Ketone are obtained by passing vapour of acid or vapour mix of different
acid over MnO catalyst at 573 K temperature.
2HCOOH }}}}
MnO m
573 K HCHO + CO2 + H2O
R COOH + HCOOH }}}}

MnO m
573 K
R CHO + CO2 + H2O
2RCOOH }}}}
MnO m R C R + CO
573 K || 2
+ H 2O
O
R COOH + R'COOH }}}}

MnO m
573 K R – C – R' + CO2 + H2O
||
O
(C) From hydrocarbon :
(i) Hydration of alkyene : Ethanol is obtained by hydration of only ethyene, while ketone
is obtained by hydration of any alkyene.
Hg 2+ H 2 SO 4
R C ≡ C H + H2O }} }} } }}m R – C = CH2 tautomerism R – C – CH3
333 K | ||
Alkyene OH O
Enol (unstable)
568
(ii) Hydroboration-oxidation of alkyne :
}}}}
NaOH m
H ¸
}}}}m
¨
B2 H6 | ¹ B
(a) 6R C ≡ CH 2 ©
HO
THF ©ªR – CH = C – º¹ 3 2 2
terminal alkyene
6R CH2 CHO Tautomerism 6R CH = C H
|
OH
Aldehyde Enol (unstable)
(b) 6R C ≡ C R }}}}}}}
(i) B H 2
(ii) H O , OH
2
m 6 R CH
6
2
–
2
C R
||
O
Nonterminal alkyene Ketone
(iii) Ozonolysis of alkene : Reaction of alkene with O3 produces ozonide, which on
treatement with Zn + H2O gives aldehyde and/or ketone based on structure of alkene.
R CH = CH R' }}}}}}
(i) O 3
(ii) Zu/H O
m R CHO + R' CHO
2
R2 C = CR'2 }}}}}}
(i) O3
(ii) Zu/H O2
mR 2
C = O + R'2 C= O
(iv) Oxidation of alkene (Wacker Process) :
CH2 = CH2 + PdCl2 + H2O }}}}

CuCl
O
m CH CHO + Pd + 2HCl
2
2
3
CH3 CH = CH2 + PdCl2 + H2O }}}}

CuCl
O
m CH C||
2
2
3
CH3 + Pd + 2HCl
O
(D) From Gem-Dihalides
R Cl R
C }}}}}
– 2KCl
m
aq. KOH C=O
H Cl H
H 2O
Aldehyde
R Cl R
C }}}}}
aq. KOH m
– 2KCl
C=O
R Cl R
H 2O
Ketone
Preparation of only aldehyde
Reduction of acylchloride (acid chloride) :
(a) R C Cl + H2
||
}}}}}}m
Pd - BaSo4 ,S
In Xylene R C H + HCl
||
O O
This reaction is called Rosenmund reduction.
(i) Li [AlH (O-t-But)3]
(b) R C Cl + R C H
|| (ii) H3O ||
O O
569
Reduction of nitrile and ester
SnCl HCL Hydrolysis

(a) R C ≡ N }}}}}} m R CH = NH =  → R CHO + NH
2
dryether + H 2O 3
This reaction is called Stephen reduction.
(b) R C ≡ N }}}}}m
AlH (iBu) 2 Hydrolysis
dry ether R CH = NH 
+H O
→ R CHO + NH
2 3
AlH (iBu)2 Disobutylaluminium hydried.
O
}}}}}}m
(i) AlH (iBu)2 ||
(c) R C OR' (ii) H2O R C H + R'OH
||
O
From aromatic hydrocarbon

CHCl 2
CHO
+ H 2O
(a) }}}}}m
2Cl2, hv  →
Hydarolysis
2HCl
CH 3
CHO
Pd (NO3 )2
[O] + HNO2
CHO
[O]
}}}}}}}m
CrO2Cl2 / CS2
CHO
[O]
}}}}}}}}}m
CrO3 / (CH3 CO)2 O
(b) Gatterman-Koch reaction :

CHO
+ CO + HCl }}}}}}}}}m
[anhy. AlCl + CuCl]
3 + HCl
(c) Gatterman aldehyde synthesis :

CH=NH.HCl CHO
hydrolysis
+ HCN + HCl }}}}}}}
[anhy. AlCl ]
m 3 →
+ H 2O + NH3
Reimer-Tiemann reaction of phenol : It is mentioned in a reaction of phenol.

570
Synthesis of only ketone
From acidchloride :
(a) 2 R' C Cl + R2Cd

||
Dry ether }}}}}}m 2 R' C|| R + CdCl 2
O O
Dialkyl cadmium
(b) 2 R' C Cl + R2CuLi

||
Dry ether }}}}}}m 2 R' C|| R + CuLiCl 2
O O
Lithium dialkyl cuprate
From Nitrile :
¨ NMgX¸ O
© || ¹ Hydrolsis ||
R MgX + R' C ≡ N → ©
ªR – C – R'º¹ 
+ H 2O
→ R – C R' + H NMgX
2
Acylation of benzene or substituted benzene

O=C–R
+ R C Cl
|| }}}}}}m
anhy. AlCl3 + HCl
O
Phenolic ketone is also obtained by rearrangement of phenyl ester (Fries rearrangement ). It
is given in the reaction of phenol.
91. One mole of symmetrical alkene on ozonolysis gives two moles of an aldehyde having a molecular
mass of 44u, the alkene is ...... .
(A) but-2-ene (B) ethene (C) propene (D) but-1-ene
92. Ozonolysis of an organic compound gives formaldehyde based the products. This confirms the
presence of ...... .
(A) a vinyl group (B) an isopropyl group
(C) an acetylene triple bond (D) two ethylenic double bonds
93. PhC ≡ C.Me }}}}}} +

H O , Hg
3 m 2+
......
(A) PhCH2CH2CHO (B) PhCOCH2CH3 (C) Ph CH2 COCH3 (D) PhCOCOMe
94. Which reagent is useful to introduce formyl group in benzene ring ?
(A) CrO2Cl2/(CH3CO)2O (B) CHCl3 + KOH
(C) CO + HCl (D) acidic KMnO4
95. ...... substance on heating with aqueous KOH gives acetaldehyde.
(A) CH3CH2Cl (B) CH2Cl.CH2Cl (C) CH3CHCl2 (D) CH3COCl
96. CH3CH2 C ≡ N }}}

"X"m CH CH
3 2
CHO what is reagent X in the reaction ?
(A) SnCl2/HCl, H2O/∆ (B) H2/Pd-BaSO4 (C) LiAlH4/Ether (D) NaBH4/Ether, H3O+
97. The dipole moment is the highest for ...... .
(A) trans but-2-ene (B) 1, 3-dimethylbenzene
(C) acetophenone (D) ethanol
571
COCl
H2, Pd-BaSO4
98. Which one is the organic product of reaction ?
(A) C6H5CHO (B) C6H5OH (C) C6H5COCH3 (D) C6H5Cl
99. }}}}}}}}}}}}}}}}
Aluminium tertiary butoxidem
acetone
HO
(A) (B) (C) (D)

O O O CH3
100. Which substance is required to convert Grignad is reagent into aldehyde ?

(A) Ethyl formate (B) Ethyl acetate
(C) Ethyl cyanide (D) Hydrogen cyanide
101. Calcium acetate on heating gives ...... distilled product.
(A) acetaldehyde and calcium oxide (B) Calcium carbonate and acetic acid
(C) acetone and calcium carbonate (D) calcium oxide and CO2
CH3
|
102. CH 3 – C – CH 2 – OH
|
}}}}
H SO
2
m 4
OH
(A) (CH3)2C=CH2 (B) CH3.CH2.CO.CH3
OH
|
(C) (CH3)2 C CHO (D) (CH3)2CHCHO
103. Which of the following factors increases polarity of C = O group ?

(i) Presence of positive inductive effect creating group
(ii) Presence of negative inductive effect creating group
(iii) Presence of large alkyl group
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (i) and (ii)
Answers : 92. (A), 93. (B), 94. (C), 95. (C), 96. (A), 97. (C), 98. (A), 99. (C), 100. (D),
101. (C), 102. (D), 103. (B)
Physical Properties
Order of boiling point for organic compounds having almost equal molecular mass is :
Carboxylic acid > alcohol > isomeric ketone > isomeric aldehydes > ether > hydrocarbon
Due to polar nature of C = O group, in aldehyde and ketone compounds dipole attraction
force is present.
Lower molecular mass conbtaining aldehyde and ketone compounds are water soluble due to
formation of intermolecular H-bond with water.
572
Chemical properties
Oxidation
(i) Oxidation of aldehyde :
By weak oxidising agent like, Tollens reagent (ammonical silver nitrate), Fehlings
reagent (alkaline solution of Cu2+ complexed with tartrate ion) and Benedicts reagent
(alkaline solution of Cu2+ complexed with citrate ion) aldehyde oxidised into
correspoinding acid.
Oxidation of aldehyde into corresponding acid is also possible by strong oxidising agent
like, conc. HNO3, KMnO4 / H+, K2Cr2O7 / H+.
R CHO }}}
(O)
m R COOH
(ii) Oxidation of Ketone :

(a) Only by strong oxidising agent ketone oxidised into acid having lower number of
carbons than orginal compound.
R CH2 C CH2 R'

||
}}}
(O)
m R CH2 C OH + R' C OH
|| ||
O O O
symmetrical ketone
R CH2 C CH3
||
}}}
(O)
m R COOH + CH3COOH (according to popoffs rule)
O
Unsymmetrical ketone
(iii) Oxidation of aldehyde and ketone
(a) CH3 C group containing (only ethanol or any ketone) compound gives yellow ppts.
||
O
of iodoform on oxidation by NaoI or (NaOH + I2).
R C CH3 + I2
||
}}}m
OH
–
||

R C O + CHI3↓
O O yellow ppts
(b) CH3 CHO + SeO2 → OHC CHO + Se + H2O

CH3 C CH3 + SeO2 → CH3COCHO + Se + H2O
||
O
O O
+ SeO2 → + Se + H2O
O
In above reaction [CH3 ] Or [ CH2 ] group, which are neighbour of C = O group
oxidised into C = O group.

573
Reduction
(a) R CHO }}}}}}}}}}}

2
or LiAH
}m
H / [Ni] or [Pt] or [Pd]
4
R CH2OH
or NaBH4
R R
C=O }}}}}}}}}}}}m
H2 / [Ni] or [Pt] or [Pd]
or LiAH4
CHOH
R R
or NaBH4
R R
(b) C=O }}}}}}}}}m
[(CH ) CHO] Al
3 2
+ (CH ) CHOH
3
CHOH
3 2
R R
This reaction is called Meerwein Ponndorf verley reduction.
(c) }}}}}}}
Zn - Hg, HCl
m CH2 (Clemmensen)
C=O }}}}}}m
4HI
red P, 423 K CH2 Hydrocarbon product
Carbonyl group
N 2H + KOH Ethelene
CH2 (Wolff-kishner)
453 - 473 K glycol
of Aldehyde or
ketone
(d) Bimolecular reduction of Ketone :
R R R R
| | | |
R–C+
||
C – R + 2H
||
}}}}}}}
Mg-Hg, H O
m
2
R–C–C–R
| |
O O OH OH
Pinacol
Nucleophilic addition reaction

C = O group in aldehyde and ketone is polar and O is negative charged and C is positive
charged. So nucleophile is attracted towards C and gives addition product.
Reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction of aldehyde and ketone depand on steric
hindrance and inductive effect.
Order of reactivity :
HCHO > CH3CHO > CH3COCH3 > [(CH3)2CH] 2CO > [(CH 3)3C] 2CO > C 6H5CHO >
C6H5COCH3 > C6H5COC6H5
Some nucleophilc addition reactions :
OH + OH
H 3O
(a) C = O + HCN → C C
Hydrolysis
CN COOH
Aldehyde or Cyanohydrine
Ketone
574
+
H +
OH SO2+ H2O + C = O + Na
(b) C = O + NaHSO3 → C –
SO 3Na OH 2– +
SO3 + H2O + C = O + Na
OM g OH
(c) C = O + RMgX → C
R
}}}}}
H /H O
+
m 2
C + Mg(OH)X
R
R OR
}}}}m
R HCl(g) R
HO – R HO +
(d) C=O + C 3
C = O + 2 R| OH
H HO – R – H 2O OR H
H
acetal
HO – CH2 O – CH2
C = O + PTS
(e) C
– H2O
HO – CH2 O – CH2
cyclic acetal
or cyclic ketal
(f) C = O + H 2N Z }}}}
H m
–H O
+
2
C = N Z
ammonia derivative
Aldol condensation
Due to presence of acidic hydrogen on α-carbon in aldehyde and ketone, it reacts with
alkali. So aldehyde and ketone gives condensation reaction.
(a) Self condensation : α-Hydrogen containing aldehyde or ketone on reaction gives β-hydroxy
aldehyde or ketone in presence of dil alkali.
R
|
R CH2 CHO + R CH2 CHO dil NaOH
}}}}}m
R CH2 CH CH CHO
|
OH
aldol product
– H 2O
R
|
R CH2 CH = C CHO
Unsaturated aldehyde
R R R R
| | | |
R CH2 C + CH 2 C R
|| ||
}}}}}m
dil NaOH R CH2 C
|
CH C R
||
O O OH O
R R
| | ketol product
%}
R CH2 C = C C R k}} H3O
||
O
Unsaturated aldehyde
Note : In above reactions R = H or alkyl or aryl group.
575
(b) Cross aldol condensation : Two different aldehydes or ketones or one aldehyde and one
Ketone in which atleast one α− H atom is present undergo condensation reaction in presence
of dilute alkali give mixture of four products. Out of the, two products are obtained by self
condensation and the other two products are obtained due to cross aldol condensation.
If in two different aldehydes or ketones or one aldehyde and one ketone compounds, one
compound does not contain α H atom then only one product is obtained due to cross aldol
condensation.
eg., H CHO + CH3CHO }}}}}}m

(i) dil NaOH
(ii) % CH 2
= CH CHO
Reaction between aromatic aldehyde and atlest one α-H atom containing aliphatic aldehyde
or ketone or ester is called Claisen-Schmidt condensation reaction.
eg., (i) C6H5 CHO + CH3 CO CH3 }}}}}}m

(i) dil NaOH
(ii) % , – H O2
CH 6 5
CH = CH CO CH3
4 - phenyl but-3-en-2-on
(ii) C6H5 CHO + CH3 COOC2H5 }}}}}}m

(i) dil NaOH
(ii) % , – H O
2
CH 6 5
CH = CH COOC2H5
ethyl ethanoate Ethyl-3-phenylprop-2-enoate

Cannizzaro reaction :
Aldehyde which do not have α-H atom when treated with strong alkali, due to disproportion
gives alcohol and acid product. This reaction is called Cannizzaro reaction.
eg., (i) 2R CHO + NaOH → R CH2OH + RCOONa
(50 %)
(ii) C6H5CHO + HCHO + NaOH → C6H5CH2OH + HCOONa
(50 %)
O O
(iii) H C C H + NaOH → CH2 COONa

(50 %) |
OH
Electrophilic substitution (Aromatic aldehyde/Ketone)

CHO
}}}}}}}m
(
conc. HNO3
conc. H 2SO 4 ) + H2 O
273-283K NO2
CHO
CHO Cl + HCl
CHO
Conc. H2SO4 m
}}}}}}}
% SO 3H + H2O
576
COCH 3
}}}}
Cl 2
[FeCl ]
m 3
+ HCl
Cl
COCH3
COCH 3
}}}}}}}m
conc. HNO
(conc. H SO ) 2
3
4 + H 2O
273-283K NO2
COCH 3
conc. H2SO4 m
}}}}}} + H 2O
% SO3H
Note : C = O group reacts with anhy. AlCl3. So, that aromatic aldehydes and ketones do not give
Fri edel-craft reaction.
Reactions showing difference between aldehyde and ketone.
Test Aldehyde Ketone
(i) Tollens reagent silver mirror no reaction
(ii) Fehilings reagent red ppts. of Cu2O no reaction
(only aliphatic
aldehyde)
(iii) Benedicts reagent red ppts of Cu2O no reaction

(only RCHO)
(iv) Reduction by LiAlH4 1o alcohol 2o alcohol
(v) Reaction with alcohol acetal no reaction

in presence of HCl gas
(vi) Schiffs reagent pink colour no reaction
104. Methyl ketone can be identified by ...... .

(A) Schiffs reagent (B) NaOH + I2 reagent
(C) alkaline Cu2+ reagent (D) ammonical AgNO3 reagent
105. Which compound does not give alcohol and salt of acid on treatment with concentrated alkali ?
(A) Formaldehyde (B) Acetaldehyde (C) Trichloroethanol (D) Benzaldehyde
106. ...... compound is obtained, when acetophenone and hydrazine is heated at 453 K temp with KOH
in ethylene glycol.
(A) C6H5COOH (B) C6H5CH2OH (C) C6H5CH2CH3 (D) C6H5COCH3
107. On arranging in increasing order of boiling point which of the following compounds comes second
position ?
(A) CH CH CH CHO (B) CH (CH ) CH OH (C) (C H ) O
3 2 2 3 2 2 2
(D) CH .(CH ) .CH
2 5 2 3 2 3 3
577
108. Which reactivity order is correct towards addition reaction with HCN of following compounds ?
I : CH3CHO, II : CH3COCH3, III : C6H5COCH3, IV : HCHO

(A) III < II < I < IV (B) IV < I < II < III (C) III < I < II < IV (D) IV < II < I < III
109. Which of the following reagent does not react with acetone and benzaldehyde ?
(A) Sodium hydrogensulphite (B) Phenyl hydarazine
(C) Fehilings solution (D) Grignard reagent
110. %m x
Calcium acetate }} }}}}}}}
Zn-Hg + HCl
m y what is final product Y in the reaction ?
(A) Penten dial (B) Cyclopentanal (C) Cyclopentanol (D) Cyclopentanone
111. Substance X + HCN → Y }}}m

HO 2 mixture of a-hydroxy acid. What is substance X in this
reaction ?
(A) HCHO (B) CH3CHO (C) CH3COCH3 (D) C6H5COC6H5
112. Which reagent is necessary to separate CH3CHO from mixture of CH3CHO and C6H5COCH3 ?
(A) NaHSO3 (B) C6H5NHNH2 (C) NH2OH (D) NaOH+I2
113. CH3CHO + H2N OH }}}

[H ]
m CH CH = N OH reaction is of which type ?
+
3
(A) Electophilic addition-elimination reaction (B) Free radical addition-elimination reaction

(C) Electophilic elimination reaction (D) Nucleophilic addition reaction
114. HO CH = CHCO CH3 → HO CH = CHCH2CH3 which reagent is

proper for the reaction ?
-
(A) Zn-Hg/HCl (B) NH2.NH2/OH (C) NaBH4 (D) Liquid NH3 and Na
115. By the help of which reagent difference between butanone and pentan-3-one can be identified ?
(A) K2Cr2O7/H+ (B) ZnHg/HCl (C) SeO2 (D) I2 + NaOH

116. Strong base can attract ∝-hydrogen from ...... .
(A) ketone (B) alkane (C) alkene (D) amine
117. }}}}}}
(i) O 3
m }}}}
(ii) Zn / H O x
2
dil m Y, which is the final organic product Y ?
NaOH
CHO
COOH
(A) CHO (B) COOH (C) CH2OH (D)
118. By which of the following reactions only one organic product, 3-hydroxy butanal is obtained ?
(A) CH3CHO + (CH3)2CO }}}}}

dil NaOH
m (B) CH3CHO + CH3CHO }}}}}
dil NaOH
m
(C) (CH ) CO + (CH ) CO }}}}}
3 2
dil NaOH
3 2 m (D) CH3CHO + CH3CHO }}}}}
dil NaOH
m
578
119. (CH3)3C-CHO + CH3CH2CHO }}}}}
(i) OH –
(ii) – H2 O
m x }}}}m
NaBH 4
which is product Y of the reaction ?
(A) (CH3)3C CH = CHCH2CH2OH (B) (CH3)3C CH = C CH2OH
CH3
(C) (CH3)3C CH2 CH CH2 OH (D) (CH3)3C CH2 CH2CH2OH
CH3
120. By which reagent conversion of butan-2-one into propanoic acid can be done ?
(A) NaOH, NaI/H+ (B) Fehilings reagent (C) NaOH, I2/H+ (D) Tollens reagent
121. On heating the mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde with aq. NaOH (50%) solution gives ...... .
(A) benzyl alcohol and sodiumformate (B) sodium benzoate and methylalcohol
(C) sodium benzoate and sodiumformate (D) benzylalcohol and methanol
}}}}}} m y, what is product y of reaction ?

-
122. CH3 CH2 CO CH3 CN x 95% H SO
2 4
(A) CH3 CH = C COOH (B) CH3 CH = C CN

| |
CH3 CH3
OH
|
(C) CH3 CH2 C COOH (D) CH3 CH = C CO NH2
| |
CH 3 CH3
}}}}}}}}}} m
O
Cl (i) CH MgBr, dry ether
3
123. (ii) H O +
3
CH3
O OH
H 3C CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
H 2C
CH3 CH3CH3 O CH2 O CH3
Answers : 104. (B), 105. (B), 106. (C), 107. (C), 108. (A), 109. (C), 110. (D), 111. (B),
112. (A), 113. (D), 114. (B), 115. (D), 116. (A), 117. (A), 118. (D), 119. (B),
120. (C), 121. (A), 122. (A), 123. (D)
Carboxylic acid
When one alkyl or aryl group and another hydroxyl group is attached to carbonyl carbon of carbonyl
group ( C=O ) , then compounds are called carboxylic acid compounds. In these compounds
COOH group (carboxyl group) is present.
R C OH yÚkðk Ar C OH
|| ||
O O
Structure of COOH group
Q O:
T C sp2 hybridisation
TC
T O T H both O sp2 hybridisation
planar structure
In aldehyde and ketone carbonyl carbon is less electrophile than carboxylic carbon of acid.
579
Preparation of carboxylic acid
Oxidation of aldehyde, ketone, methyl ketone and alcohol (1o, 2o) :
This is mentioned ahead in the chapter.
By hydroysis reaction :
+
(i) NH3 + RCOO k}}}}
OH – }
RCN + 2H2O H RCOOH + NH+4
+2H 2O/ % 2H2O/
Nitrile
Intermidiate amide is obtained in the above reaction.

+
H +
(ii) + H2O R COOH + NH4
R C NH2
||
O
-
OH
Amide + H2O R COO + NH
3
+
H
(iii) R C O R' + H O R C OH + R'OH
|| 2 ||
O % O
Ester
–
OH
R C O + R'OH
+ H2O, % ||
Saponification O
(iv)
}}}}
+H O
m2
R COOH + HCl
H+
R C Cl
||
O
Acid chloride – R COOH + HCl

(i) OH , H2O,
(ii) H 3O+
(v) R C O C R' + H2O %m

}} R COOH + R'COOH
|| ||
O O
Anhydride
Oxidation of alkene, alkyene and cyclo alkene :
(i) O3 Or KMnO4
(i) RC ≡ CR' RCOOH + R'COOH
(ii) H 2O
Alkyene
580
–
(i) KMnO4 / OH
(ii) RCH = CHR + 2RCOOH
(ii) H3O ,
Alkene
–
(i) KMnO4 / OH
(iii) +
CH 2 – COOH
(ii) H3O , |
CH 2 – COOH
Cyclic alkene
From olefins (Koch reaction) :
CH2 = CH2 + CO + H2O(g) }}}}}}}}

pressure m
H PO ,573-673 K
3 4
CH3CH2COOH
vapour
CH3 CH = CH2 + CO + H2O(g) }}m CH

"
3
CH COOH
|
CH 3
From Grignard reagent :
O
||
R MgX + O = C = O }}}}m dry
ether
[R C OMgX
addition product
n H , H 2O
+
R COOH + Mg(OH) X
From sodiumalcoxide :
%
RO Na+ + CO }}}}}m RCOONa+
Pressure }}}
H m RCOOH + Na
+ +
Oxidation of alkylbenzene :
(i) Monoalkyl benzene
CH 3 COOH CH(CH3)2
% %
(i) KMnO4 / OH – (i) KMnO4 / OH–
}}}}}}}
(ii) H3O+
}m k}}}}}}}
(ii) H3O+
m
CH2 - CH3
(i) KMnO / OH–

}}}}}}}
(ii) H3O+
4
% }
m
(ii) Dialkyl benzene
CH3
COOH
CH3
COOH
(i) KMnO4 / OH–
}}}}}}}
% }
m
Oxylene (ii) H3O+
Benzene-1,2-dicarboxylic acid
581
124. Substance X }}}}}}}}m
(i) CO , dry ether
(ii) H O
2
3
+ CH2COOH what is the substance X in the reaction ?
(A) C6H5MgBr (B) C6H5OH (C) C6H5CH2MgBr (D) C6H 5CHO

125. On hydrolysis of which substance benzoicacid cannot be prepared ?
(A) Ethylbenzone (B) Phenylcyanide (C) Methylbenzoate (D) Benzylchloride
126. R CH2 OH 

"x"→
R CH2Cl }}}}
KCN m y }}}
"z"m R CH COOH Mention substances
2
X, Y and Z in the reaction.
x y z
(A) PCl5 RCH2CN H+, 2H2O
(B) HCl RCN OH, +2H2O
(C) PCl3 RCH2NC KMnO4 / OH
(D) Cl2 RCH2CN OH, +2H2O
O +
H3 O
127. }}}
% m
O
H 3C
COOH
(A) (B) CH3 CH2COOH
(C) CH3 CH COOH (D) CH3 CH CH2 COOH

| |
CH 3 OH
O
HO
128. C and which of the following substances should be hydrolized ?
CH3 OH O
O O
O
O
(A) (B) O (C) (D)
O O
O
129. Which substance on oxidation by acidic or basic KMnO4 does not give isobutyric acid ?
OH O
(A) CHO (B) (C) (D)
O
}}}}
KCN m }}}}m
O
}}}}m HO +
NaBH 4
ZnCl2 + HCl 3
130. H
P Q R which is final
product s in the reaction ?
OH OH OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O Cl O O O OH
Answers : 124. (B), 125. (A), 126. (A), 127. (D), 128. (B), 129. (D), 130. (C)
582
Physical properties of carboxylic acids
RCOOH froms intermolecular H-bond with water, lower molecular mass containing acids
are soluble in water.
Due to formation of stronger H-bond between mole of RCOOH, they have higher boiling
point. It exist as dimer in vapourphase.
Acidic nature of carboxylic acid
RCOOH can be neutralize by strong and weak base. CO2 gas is produce during the reaction
of RCOOH with NaHCO3 or Na2CO3 in labouratary.
Stability of RCOO is more than C6H5O. So that, RCOOH is stronger acid than phenol.
The acidic strength of different aliphatic corboxylic acid depends on + I or I effect of
substituent group, which is mentioned in the following examples :
(i) HCOOH > CH3COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3C COOH
(ii) FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH > ICH2COOH
(iii) Cl3C COOH > Cl2CHCOOH > ClCH2COOH > CH3COOH
(iv) CH3CH2 CH COOH > CH3 CH CH2COOH > CH 2 CH2CH2COOH
| | |
Cl Cl Cl
Order in general form :

CF3COOH > CCl3COOH > Cl2CHCOOH > O2NCH2COOH > NCCH2COOH >
FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH > ICH2COOH > HCOOH >
ClCH2CH2COOH > C6H5COOH > C6H5CH2COOH > CH3COOH > CH3CH2COOH
Order of acidic strength for different substituted aromatic carboxylic acid is as under :
(Resonance effect should not be consider at mposition)
COOH COOH COOH COOH COOH COOH
> > > > >
NO2 Cl CH3 OCH3 OH

COOH COOH COOH COOH
CH3
(i) > > >

CH3
CH3
COOH COOH COOH COOH

OH
(ii) > > >
OH
OH
COOH COOH COOH COOH
OCH3
(iii) > > >
OCH3
OCH 3
583
COOH COOH COOH COOH
NH2
(iv) > > >
NH2
NH2
COOH COOH COOH COOH

Cl
(v) > > >
Cl
Cl
COOH COOH COOH COOH
(vi) > > >
Cl F Br I
COOH COOH COOH COOH

NO2
(vii) > > >
NO2
NO2
Reaction involving cleavage of C OH bond

(Preparation of derivatives of carboxylic acid)
(i) R COOH + SOCl2 → RCOCl + SO2 + HCl
R COOH + PCl5 → RCOCl + POCl3 + HCl
3R COOH + PCl3 → 3RCOCl + H3PO3
(ii) R COOH + NH3 → RCOONH4+ %m
}} RCONH2 + H2O
O O
P2O5, || ||
(iii) R COOH + R'COOH R C O C R'+ H2O
or
conc.H2SO4,
O O
|| ||
R COOH + R'COCl }}}}}m
Pyridine R C O C R' + HCl
O O
|| ||
R COONa + R'COCl → R C O C R' + NaCl
Conc.H SO
2 4X
(iv) R COOH + R'OH YZZZZZZZZZZ
Z RCOOR' + H2O
ZZZZZZZZZZZ
Reaction involving COOH group as a whole :
(i) Reduction :
(i) LiAl H4 / ether
(a) R COOH or RCH2OH
B2H 6 / ether
+
(ii) H 3O
(b) RCOOH + 6HI }}}}}m

red P, 473 K R CH 3
+ 2H2O + 3I2
584
(ii) Decarboxylation
(a) R COONa + NaOH }}}}}}m

CaO / 630 K RH + Na2CO3
COOH
(b) CH 2 }}}}}}
415 - 435 K m CH COOH + CO
3 2
COOH
(c) 2RCOONa → 2RCOO + 2Na+
Anode : 2RCOO → R R + 2CO2 + 2e
Cathode : 2H2O + 2e → H2 + 2OH
(d) R COOAg + Br2 CCl4

}}}m
R Br + CO2 + AgBr
(e) On distilation of calcium salt of acid, aldehyde and ketone are obtained. It is
discussed in previous section.
Halogenation of alkyl group of alphatic acid
R CH2 aCOOH }}}}}}

(i) X , redP
2
(ii) H O
m
2
R CH COOH (x = Cl, Br)
|
B
a Halo carboxylic acid
This reaction is called Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction.
Eletrophilic substitution in aryl group of aromatic acid
COOH
Br2 / FeBr3, %
}}}}}}} m + HBr
Br
COOH
COOH
conc.HNO
}}}}}}}}m
[ conc.H SO ], %
2 4
3
+ H2O
NO2
COOH
conc. H2SO4, %
}}}}}}}m + H2O
SO3H
COOH group combine with AlCl3, so acid do not undergo Friedel Crafts reaction.
131. How the following acid compounds can be arranged in correct order for their acidic strength :
p : CH3COOH q : CH3OCH2COOH r : CF3COOH s : (CH3)2CHCOOH
(A) s < p < q < r (B) p < s < r < q (C) s < p < r < q (D) q < s < p < r
132. Which of the following order for acidic strength is correct ?
(A) 4- methoxy benzoic acid < Benzoic acid < 4-Nitrobenzoic acid < 3,4 Dinitrobenzoic acid
(B) Benzoic acid < 4- Methoxybenzoic acid < 4-Nitrobenzoic acid < 3-4 Dinitrobenzoic acid
(C) 3-4- Dinitrobenzoic acid < 4-Nitrobenzoic acid < 4-Methoxybenzoic acid < Benzoic acid
(D) 4-Methoxybenzoic acid < 4-Nitrobenzoic acid < Benzoic acid < 3,4 Dinitrobenzoic acid
585
133. Which is correct order about acidic strength of the following compounds ?
OH OH COOH COOH
Cl CH3
(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(A) III > IV > II > I (B) IV > III > I > II (C) III > II > I > IV (D) II > III > IV > I
134. Which of the following pair of compounds give effervences of CO2 gas with aqueous solution of
NaHCOH3 ?
(i) CH3COCl (ii) CH3COCH3 (iii) CH3COOCH3 (iv) CH3CO O COCH3
(A) (i), (ii) (B) (i), (iv) (C) (ii), (iii) (D) (i), (iii)
135. Which compound has high volatility ?
(A) o-Hydroxy benzoic acid (B) p-Hydroxy benzoic acid
(C) m-Hydroxy benzoic acid (D) Benzoic acid
136. Reactivity order towards nucleophilic substitution reaction of acyl compounds is ...... :
(A) Acid anhydride > amide > ester > acylchloride
(B) Acylchloride > ester > acid anhydride > amide
(C) Acylchloride > acid anhydride > ester > amide
(D) Ester > acyl chloride > amide > acid anhydride
137. How the following compounds can be arrange in decreasing order of reactivity towards hydrolysis
reaction ?
(i) COCl (ii) O2N COCl (iii) H3C COCl (iv) OHC COCl
(A) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (iii) (B) (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv)
(C) (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) (D) (iv) > (ii) > (i) > (iii)
138. Which product is obtained on reduction of prop-2-enoic acid by LiAlH4 ?
(A) CH 3 CH 2 COOH (B) CH 3 CH 2 CHO
(C) CH2 = CH CH2OH (D) CH 2 = CH CHO
139. Which product is obtained on reaction of acetyl chloride with sodium propionate ?
(A) Aceticanhydride (B) n-propyl acetate
(C) Acetic propionicanhydride (D) Pentan-2, 4-dione
140. Which of the following compound has lowest pKa ?
(A) p-Nitrophenol (B) p-Hydroxy benzoic acid
(C) o-Hydroxy benzoic acid (D) p-Toluic acid
141. (CH3)2CH COOH → O Which set of reagents is correct for the above reaction ?
O
(A) P4 / Cl2, Na, dil. H2SO4 (B) P2O5, LiAlH4

(C) P2O5 / D, H2O, P4 / Cl2, Na (D) P4 / Cl2, Na, P2O5 / D
586
Phenol }}}}m
dust % P }}}}}}} m Q }}}}}}} m product R in the reaction is ......
–
Zn CH Cl KMnO / OH
3 4
142. [anhy AlCl ] HO +
3
3
.
(A) Bezaldehyde (B) Benzoic acid (C) Benzene (D) Toluene
O +
H3O
143. COOC2H5 % m Q, Which is organic product Q of the reaction ?
P }}
hydrolysis
O O
COOH COOH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(i) Red P / Br2 (i) KCN

144. CH3COOH x + y, What is final product Y in the reaction ?
(ii) H2O (ii) H3O
hydrolysis
(A) Glycolic acid (B) Succinic acid
(C) a- Hydroxy propionic acid (D) Melonic acid
145. Which product is obtained on reaction of oTolueic acid with Br2 in presence of FeBr3 ?
CH2Br CH3 CH2Br CH3
COOH COOH COOH COOH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Br
Br Br
Answers : 131. (A), 132. (A), 133. (B), 134. (B), 135. (A), 136. (C), 137. (A), 138. (C),
139. (B), 140. (C), 141. (D), 142. (B), 143. (A), 144. (D), 145. (B),
Dernivatives of Carboxylic acid

Derivatives of carboxylic acid are as under :
R C Cl R C NH2 R C OR' R C O C R'

|| || || || ||
O O O O O
Acid chloride Acid amide Ester Acid anhydride
These compounds are also called carbonyl compounds because in each C = O (Carbonyl group)
is present.
Preperation and chemical reactions of these compounds are mentioned in different parts of this unit.
146. When a liquid is mixed with ethanol and few drops of conc. H2SO4 are added then fruity smell is
obtained. Which liquid is that ?
(A) HCHO (B) CH3COCH3 (C) CH3COOH (D) CH3OH
aqueousm }}}}} m z ↓ what is substance Z in the reaction ?

147. CH2 = CH2 }}}
HBr m x }}}}}
NaOH y
Na CO
I excess 2
2 3
(A) C2H5I (B) C2H5OH (C) CHI3 (D) CH3CHO

148. If for complete oxidation of 1 mole organic compound to obtain acid, 0.5 mole of O2 gas is required
then which compound it may be ?
(A) Alcohol (B) Aldehyde (C) Ether (D) Ketone
587
149. Hydrocarbon having molecular formula C6H12 decolourizes of bromine water and gives n-hexane on
hydrogenation. This compound on oxidation by KMnO4 gives two different carboxylic acid (R COOH)
then which compound is that ?
(A) Cyclohexene (B) Hex-2-ene (C) Hex-1-ene (D) Hex-3-ene
150. PhMe }}}}}}}}

(i) KMnO / OH
(ii) H O 3
+m P }}}}
4SOCl
m Q }}}}}}
PhCOONa m R. What is the final product R in
–
2
above reaction ?
(A) C6H5COCl (B) C6H5CONH2 (C) C6H5COOH (D) (C6H5CO)2O
}}}m P }}}}}} m Q }}}} m R. Which is the final organic product

NH Br + KOH HNO 2 2
151. CH3CH2COOH 3
of the reaction ?
(A) CH3OH (B) C2H5OH (C) C2H5NH2 (D) CH3CH2CH2OH
152. CH3COOH + PCl5 → X }}}}}}

CH
anhyAlCl
m Y }}}}}}
6 6
H O m Z What is final organic product Z in this
C H MgBr 6 5
3 2
reaction ?
(A) CH3CH(OH)C6H5 (B) CH3C(C2H5)(OH)C6H5
(C) (C6H2)2 C (OH) (CH3) (D) CH3COC6H5
153. By which reagent, the product obtained by hydrolysis of following compounds P and Q can be
differentiated ?
O
H 3C
O C CH3
OC CH3
H2 = C
CH3 O
P Q
(A) Lucas reagent (B) 2,4 DNP (C) Fehilling reagent (D) NaHSO3
154. Consider the following reactions and decide that product of which reactions is carboxylic acid ?
[Ag(NH3)2 OH
(I) CH3CHO +
H
(II) CH3CCl3}}}m
OH –
(III) CH COOCH }}}m

–
OH
3 3
(A) I, II, III (B) I, III (C) I, II (D) I
155. An organic compound X having molecular formula C4H8O3 is optically active. It gives effervences
of CO2 with NaHCO3. This substance on treatment with LiAlH4 gives optically inactive compound.
What is substance X ?
(A) CH3CH 2 CH COOH (B) CH3 CH COOH

| |
OH OCH3
(C) CH3 CH COOH (D) CH3 CH CH2COOH

| |
CH 2OH OH
156. CH3COOH }}}}m

LiAlH
x }}}m
PC l
4 5 y }}}}m
alcohol
KOH
what is final product Z ?
(A) Acetaldehyde (B) Acetelene (C) Ethelene (D) Acetyl chloride
588
157. An organic compound A reacts with ammonia and gives product B. C is obtained on heating
B. Substance C on treatment with Br2 and KOH gives CH3CH2NH2. Substance A is ...... .
(A) CH3COOH (B) CH3CH2CH2COOH (C) (CH3)2CH CHOOH (D) CH3CH2COOH
158. ...... Substance does not give CO2 gas by reaction with sodium carbonate.
(A) Benzoic acid (B) Benzene sulphonic acid
(C) Salicylic acid (D) Carbolic acid
159. When an organic compound having molecular mass 188 u undergo acylation by CH3COCl gives
compound having molecular mass 390 u. How many number of NH2 groups present in orginal
organic compound ?
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6
}}}}}m }}}}m
+
160. C2H5Br alcoholic

KOH
x }}}m
Br
CCl
2
4
y KCN
excess Z
H 3O
M What is product M in above
reaction ?
(A) Succinic acid (B) Malonic acid (C) Maleic acid (D) Oxalic acid
Questions having one or more than one option :
161. Which compound contain tautomerism ?
(A) CH = CH OH (B) O O
(C) O (D) O
O O
162. Difference between phenol and benzoic acid can be identified by the reaction with ....... .
(A) aq. NaOH (B) aq. NaHCO3 (C) neutral FeCl3 (D) Br2 water
163. ....... is the reaction in which new CC bond is formed ?
(A) Cannizzaro reaction (B) Friedel-Crafts reaction
(C) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (D) Clemmensen reaction
164. Which of the following conversion is done by Wolff-Kishner reduction ?
(A) Benzyl alcohol from benzaldehyde (B) Cyclohexane from cyclohexanone
(C) Benzaldehyde from benzoyl chloride (D) di phenyl methane from benzophenone
165. What is cross-aldol product of the following reaction ?
MeCHO + MeCH2CHO }}}m
OH +
OH Me OH
CHO
CHO CHO
(A) (B) Me CHO (C) Me (C) Me
Me OH Me OH
166. Chose proper option by joining given substances of column-I with their characteristics of column-II :
Column-I Column-II
(p) Acetic acid (i) Sodium hypoidite
(q) Formic acid (ii) Disproportionation
(r) Acetone (iii) Fehilings solution
(s) Benzaldehyde (iv) Hell-volhard-zelinsky
(A) (p)-(iv), (q)-(i), (r)-(ii), (s)-(iii) (B) (p)-(iv), (q)-(iii), (r)-(i), (s)-(ii)
(C) (p)-(iii), (q)-(ii), (r)-(i), (s)-(iv) (D) (p)-(iii), (q)-(iv), (r)-(i), (s)-(ii)
589
In the following questions two sentences are given. One of them is Assertion (A) and
another one is Reason (R). Study sentences carefully and select proper choice according to
given below instructions Ñ
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct and reason (R), gives correct explanation of
assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct but reason (R), does not give correct explanation
of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct but reason (R) is wrong.
(D) Assertion (A) is wrong but reason (R) is correct.
167. Assertion (A) : Both Grignard reagent and dialkye cadmium reacts with acid chloride and give
tertiary alcohol.
Reason (R) : Grignard reagent is active like dialkyl cadmium.
168. Assertion (A) : C=O group present in acetamide is more polar than ethyl acetate.
Reason (R) : NH2 group is more electrodonating than OC2H5 group.

169. Assertion (A) : Boiling point of p-hydroxy benzoic acid is less than o-hydroxybenzoic acid.
Reason (R) : Intra molecular H-bond is present in O hydroxy benzoic acid.
170. Assertion (A) : CH2 = CH COOH is weak acid than C2H5COOH.
Reason (R) : Ethelene double bond is less electrondonating than benzene.
Integer type questions :
171. Total number of isomeric aldehydes and ketones having molecular formula C5H10O are ?
172. How many of the isomeric ketones having molecular formula C5H10O undergo iodoform test ?
173. How many disubstituted derivatives of benzene having molecular formula C8H10 on oxidation by
alkaline KMnO4 gives salts of acid ?
Answers : 146. (B), 146. (C), 147. (C), 148. (B), 149. (B), 150. (D), 151. (B), 152. (C),
153. (C), 154. (D), 155. (C), 156. (C), 157. (A), 158. (D), 159. (B), 160. (A),
161. (A), 162. (B), 163. (B), 164. (B), 165. (C), (D), 166. (B), 167. 1,
168. (A), 169. (D), 170. (C), 171. 7, 172. 2, 173. 3.
590
24 Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen
Structure of amine compound
On replacing the hydrogen of the ammonia by hydrocarbon group amine is formed.
non-bonding e pair
.. .. ..
N N N
H H R
R R R
H R R
1° Amine 2° Amine 3° Amine
hybridization of N : sp3
shape of amine compounds : trigonal bi pyramidal

R N H or R N R bond angle : 109.5°
Example : bond angle of tri methyl amine : 108°
Classification of amine compounds
Alkyl amine:- (aliphatic amine)
On replacing the hydrogen present in ammonia by alkyl group is connected with nitrogen
then is called alkyl amine.
(i) Primary aliphatic amine (1°)
General formula : (R NH2) R = alkyl group
Example : CH3CH2 NH2 alkyl group
(ii) Secondary aliphatic amine (2°)

General formula : R NH R
Example: CH3 CH2 NH CH2 CH3 di ethyl amine
(iii) tertiary aliphatic amine (3°)
General formula : R N R
Example : (CH3CH2)3N triethyl amine
Aryl amine (aromatic amine)

On replacing the hydrogen present in ammonia by aryl group is connected with nitrogen
then is called aryl amine.
591
(i) primary aromatic amine (1°)
General formula : ArNH2 Ar = aryl group
Example : NH2 phenyl amine
(ii) secondary aromatic amine (2°)

General formula : ArNHAr, OR ArNHR
Example : NH di phenyl amine
(ii) tertiary aromatic amine (3°)

General formula : (Ar)3N
Example : N triphenyl amine
Nomenclature of amine compounds :

Common nomenclature:
(i) Primary alkyl amine
At the end of the name of the alkyl group connected with nitrogen word 'amine' is placed.
Example : CH3NH2® methyl amine
(ii) Secondary alkyl amine
After writing the names of both alkyl groups connected to the nitrogen (in alphabetical order)
word 'amine' is placed.
If both the groups are same the prefix 'di' is placed.
Example : CH3 NH CH2 CH3 ® ethyl methyl amine
CH3 NH CH3 ® dimethyl amine

(iii) Tertiary alkyl amine
After writing the names of three alkyl groups connected to the nitrogen (in alphabetical
order) word 'amine' is placed at the end.
Example : CH3 – N – CH3 trimethyl amine
CH3
Example : CH3 N CH2CH3 ethyl methyl propyl amine

(E) (M) (P)
CH2CH2CH3
(iv) Primary aryl amine
Example : NH2 aniline
592
(v) Secondary aryl amine
Example : NHCH3 N methyl aniline
(vi) tertiary aryl amine
CH3
Example : N N,N dimethyl aniline

CH3
IUPAC, nomenclature
(i) Primary alkyl amine
alkane name on the basis of number of carbon + amine
Example : CH3 CH2 NH2 ® ethan-2-amine = ethanamine
If numer of carbon atoms are three or more than three, carbon having - NH2 group is given
least possible number.
Example : CH3 CH2 CH2 NH2 ® porpan 1 amine
(ii) secondary alkyl amine
To indicate the position of group symbol 'N' is used.
Example : CH3 NH CH2CH3 ® N methyl ethanamine
(iii) tertiary alky amine
To indicate the position of group symbol 'N' is used.
CH3 N CH2CH3 ® N ethyl N methyl propan 1 amine
CH2CH2CH3
(iv) Primary aryl amine :
NH2 benzenamine
(v) secondary aryl amine :
NH CH3 N- methyl benzenamine
(vi) tertiary aryl amine
CH3
N N-ethyl, N-methyl benzenamine

CH2CH3
IUPAC nomenclature of the compounds having more than one NH2 group.
(i) H2N CH2 CH2 NH2 ® ethane 1, 2 dimaine
(ii) H2N CH2 CH2 CH2_ NH2 ® propane 1, 3 dimaine
(iii) H2N CH2 CH CH2_ NH2 ® propane 1, 2, 3 triamine
NH2
593
Nitrogen containing amine compounds:
No. Structural formula Common name IUPAC, name Type Boiling
point
(1) CH3 NH2 Methyl amine Methanamine 1° 280 K
(2) CH3CH2NH2 Ethyl amine ethanamine 1° 290 K
(3) CH3CH2CH2NH2 Propyl amine propan-1-amine 1° 322 K
(4) CH3CHCH3 Iso propyl amine propan-2-amine 1° 306 K
NH2
(5) CH3 NH CH3 di methyl amine Nmethylmethanamine 2° 280 K
(6) CH3 CH2 NH CH2 CH3 di ethyl amine Nethyl thanamine 2° 329 K
(7) CH3CH2CH2NHCH2CH2CH3 di propyl amine Npropyl 2° 383 K
propan-1-amine
(8) CH3 NH CH2 CH3 Ethyl methyl Nmethyl 2° 309 K
amine ethanamine
(9) CH3NHCH2CH2CH3 Methyl propyl Nmethyl 2° 335 K
amine propan1amine
(10) CH3 N CH3 trimethyl amine NNdimethyl 3° 276 K
ethanamine
CH3
(11) CH3CH2NCH2CH3 triethyl amine N, Ndimethyl 3° 363 K
ethanamine
CH2CH3
(12) CH3CH2 N CH3 ethyl dimethyl NNdimethyl
amine ethanamine 3° 310 K
CH3
(13) CH3 N CH2CH3 diethyl methyl NethylNmethyl
amine ethanamine 3° 339 K
CH2CH3
(14) CH3 N CH2CH3 Ethyl methyl Nethyl Nmethyl
propyl amine propan1amine 3° 367 K
CH2CH2CH3
(15) NH2 Phenyl amine Benzanamine Or 1° 457 K

aniline
(16) NH CH3 Nmethyl Nmethyl 2° 469 K

phenyl amine benzanamine
CH3
(17) N NN dimethyl N, Ndimethyl 3° 467 K
CH3
phenyl amine benzanamine
594
O
1. What is the IUPAC name of the compound CH3 N C CH3 ?
C2H5
(A) Nacetyl N methyl ethanamine (B) N ethyl N methyl ethanamine
(C) Nacetyl N ethyl ethanamide (D) acetyl ethyl methyl amine
2. Which of the following is the structure of nitrolic acid ?
(A) R2C = N·OH (B) R2C NO2 (C) R C = N.OH (D) R2N N = O
NO2 NO2
3. Mention the hybridization of N-atom and spatial arrangement of methyl group around it in the
compound (CH3)3 N.
(A) sp3, pyramidal (B) sp3, tetrahedral
(C) sp2, trigonal plannar (D) sp3, trigonal plannar
4. In which of the following compound strength of intermolecular hydrogen bond is more ?
(A) methyl amine (B) phenol (C) methanal (D) methanol
5. What is the CNC bond angle in trimethyl aniline ?
(A) 109°28 (B) 107° (C) 108° (D) 108.5°
6. Which of the following is 2° amine ?
(A) 1-methyl cyclohexyl amine (B) triethyl amine
(C) tertiary butyl amine (D) N-methyl aniline
7. How many primary amines are possible for the molecular formula C3H9N ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
8. How many primary amines are possible for the molecular formula C4H11N ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
9. How many amine isomers are possible for the compound having molecular formula C3H9N ?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
10. Mention the correct IUPAC name for CH2 = CH · CH2 NH CH3 .
(A) allyl methyl amine (B) 2 - amino - 4 - pentene

(C) 4 - amino pent - 1 - ene (D) N - methyl prop - 2 en - 1 - amine
595
11. Which of the following compound loses optical activity due to nitrogen inversion (substitution) ?
(A) CH3 CH2 CH CH3 (B) CH3CH2 CH CH2CH3
NH2 OH
CH2C6H5
(C) CH3CH2CH2 N CH2 CH3 (D) CH3CH2 N CH2 CH = CH2 I
CH3 CH3
12. Mention the IUPAC name of the following :
CH3 CH = CH CH2 CH CH2 COOH
NH2
(A) 5 amino hept2 enoic acid
(B) 3 amino hept 5 enoic acid
(C) 5 amino hex 2 ene carboxylic acid
(D) b amino hept 6 - enoic acid
13. Which of the following is the most basic?
(A) aniline (B) o - nitro aniline
(C) p - nitro aniline (D) m - nitro aniline
14. Which of the following is the most basic ?
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2

CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH 3
CH3
15. How many isomers having one benzene ring are possible for compound having molecular formula
C7H9N ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
Answers : 1. (B), 2. (C), 3. (A), 4. (D), 5. (C), 6. (D), 7. (B), 8. (D), 9. (D), 10. (D),
11. (C), 12. (B), 13. (A), 14. (D), 15. (C)
Separation of primary secondary and tertiary amine

Hinsbergs reaction :
1°, 2°, 3° alkyl or aryl amine can be separated by Hinsberg's reagent.
S – Cl or C6 H5SO2Cl
Name : Benzene sulphonyl chloride (Hinsberg'reagent)
596
Now a day's para toluene sulphonyl chloride is used.
H 3C S – Cl p-toluene sluphonyl chloride
O
Equations :
aqueous KOH
(i) R NH2 + ClSO2 R NH SO2 – H2 O
Primary amine secondary sulphonamide
neutralization by
R NH2 R N SO2 K+
HCl
R R
(ii) NH + ClSO2 N SO2 aqueous KOH
R R
Secondary amine tertiary sulphonamide
neutralization by
R2NH insoluble substance
HCl
R
neutralization by
(iii) R N + ClSO2 ® no reaction takes place soluble in HCl R 3N
KOH
R
tertiary amine
Isomerism in amine compounds
Chain isomerism :
Observed in the aliphatic amines having four or more than four carbon atom.
CH3 CH3
Example : CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2 CH3 CH CH2 NH2 CH3 C NH2

butan1amine methyl propan1amine
CH3
2methyl propan 2amine
Example
Metamerism
Observed in secondary aliphatic amine compounds
Example : CH3CH 2NHCH2CH3 and CH 3NHCH 2CH2CH3
diethyl amine methyl N propyl amine
597
Position isomerism:
Observed in primary aliphatic amine compounds:
Example : CH3 CH2 CH2 NH2 and CH3 CH CH3
diethyl amine1amine
NH2
propan 2 amine
Functional group isomerism :
Observed in the 1°, 2°, 3° amines having same molecular formula
CH3
Example : CH3CH2CH2 NH2 and CH3 CH2 NH CH3 CH3 N CH3

n-propyl amine ethyl methyl amine trimethyl amine
(1°) (2°) (3°)
C3H9N same molecular formula

Physical properties of amine compounds:
colour and smell :
Pure amines are colourless but on exposure to air for prolong time it turns red due to
oxidation.
Aliphatic amines having lesser C atoms are in gaseous state and possess smell like ammonia
Amines having more than three C atoms are in liquid state and possess smell like fish.
Boiling point:
Alkane < amine < acohol
Example : Ethane < Ethanamine < ethanol
(184 K) (290 K) (351 K)
¯ ¯ ¯
d + d d+
Non polar N H bond O H bond
less polar more polar
In isomeric alkyl amines having same molecular formula from primary to tertiary boiling point
decreases.
Example : CH3CH2CH2NH2 CH3CH2NHCH 3 CH3 N CH 3
CH3
propan-1-amine ethyl methyl amine tri methyl amine
B.P (322 K) B.P (309 K) B.P (276 K)
1° 2° 3°
1°, 2° and 3° aliphatic amines forms H-bond with water. Hence compounds with lesser molecular
mass are soluble in water.
Methyl amine and ethyl amine are in gaseous state, they dissolve quickly in the water. In market
their 34 % concentration aqueous solutions are sold.
598
If number of C atoms are six or more than solubility is very less.
Aliphatic amines are less soluble in organic solvents such as benzene, alcohol and ether.
Aromatic amines are insoluble in water because bigger hydrocarbon part does not have
tendency to form H-bond in water.
16. Which of the following can be distinguished by dye test ?

(A) ethyl amine and acetamide (B) ethyl amine and aniline
(C) urea and acetamide (D) methyl amine and ethyl amine
17. Which of the following is Hinsbergs reagent?
(A) benzenesulphonyl chloride (B) benzene sulphonic acid
(C) phenyl isocyanide (D) benzene sulphonamide
18. Which of the following substance will give test with benzene sulphonyl chloride?
(A) N,N- di methyl ethanamine (B) tri methyl amine
(C) methyl ethyl amine (D) di methyl ethyl amine
19. Which of the following is the structural formula of the Hinsbergs reagent?
(A) SOCl2 (B) SO2Cl (C) N2Cl (D) COCl
20. Which reagent is used to separate1°, 2°,and 3°amine in recent time?

(A) p-chloro benzene sulphonyl chloride (B) p- toluene benzene sulphonic acid
(C) p- toluene sulphonyl chloride (D) p- chloro toluene sulphonic acid
21. In which of the following type of amine compounds metamerism is observed?
(A) 1° (B) 2° (C) 3° (D) all the given
22. Which type of isomerism is observed in propan-1-amine and propan-2-amine?
(A) metamerism (B) position (C) functional group (D) chain
23. What is the correct increasing order of boiling point for given three comopounds
(i) C2H6 (ii) CH3CH2NH2 (iii) C2H5OH ?

(A) i < ii < iii (B) iii < i < ii (C) ii < iii < i (D) i < iii < ii
24. Methyl amine and ethyl amine are sold as aqueous solution in the market by its ...... %
concentration.
(A) 5 % (B) 20 % (C) 40 % (D) 34 %
25. Which of the following decreasing order of boiling point is correct for the isomeric or having same
molecular formula amine compounds ?
(A) 3° > 2° > 1° (B) 2° > 3° > 1° (C) 1° > 2° > 3° (D) 3° > 1° > 2°
Answers : 16. (B), 17. (A), 18. (C), 19. (B), 20. (C), 21. (B), 22. (B), 23. (A), 24. (D),
25. (C)
599
Preparation of amine compounds
Reduction of nitro compounds
By catalytic reduction:
By passing dihydrogen gas in presence of catalyst nickel, palladium, or platinum amine compounds
are formed.
R NO2 Ni / Pd / Pt / 3H2 R NH2
or or
Ar NO2 ethanol Ar NH2
2H2O
By reaction between active metals such as Fe, Sn and Zn with concentrated HCl
Zn + HCl
R NO2 R NH2
Fe + HCl
or or + 2H2O
or
Ar NO2 Ar NH2
Sn + HCl
By reduction with LiAlH4 or NaBH4

R NO2 R NH2
Li Al H4
or + 3H2 or + 2H2O
or
Ar NO2 Ar NH2
NaBH4
dry ether
Ammonolysis of amine compounds (Hoffmans ammonolysis)
On reaction between alkyl halide and ammonia in airtight tube at 373 K amine form.
Limitations
Mixture of primary, secondary tertiary and quaternary amine salt are formed.
Aryl halides cannot be formed by this reaction because for nucleophilic substitution reaction aryl
halides are less reactive than alkyl halide.
General reaction :
.. + -
N H3 + R X ® R N H3 X + NaOH ® R NH2 + H2O + Na+ X
RX RX RX

R NH2 RNHR R 3N R4N+X
HX HX
quaternary amine
1° 2° 3° salt
Reactivity order of halide with amine is
RI > R Br > R Cl
Reduction of nitrile (cyanide) or isonitrile (iso cyanide)
Reduction of nitrile (1° amine formed)
Reducing agent : LiAlH4 (Lithium aluminium hydride)
H2 / raney nickel
Na(Hg)/C2H5OH
(known as Mendis reduction)
600
General reaction : Li Al H4
or
RCºN R CH2 NH2
H2 / [Ni]
or or
or
Ar C º N Ar CH2 NH2
Na (Hg) / C2H5OH 1° amine
mendis reduction
Synthetric importance (Step-up reaction)
Useful to prepare 1° amine having one more carbon than given alkyl halide.
Example
KCN LiAlH4
RX R CN R CH2 NH2
(alchohol) 1° amine
By reduction of isocynide 2° amine forms.
LiAlH4 or
RN C R NH CH3
H2 [Ni]
2° amine
Limitations :
Useful to prepare the 2° amine which has one methyl (CH2) group.
By hydrolysis of isocyanide compounds 1° amine forms (step down reaction)
O
H+ H + / H 2O
RN C + H 2O R NH C H R NH2 + HCOOH
hydrolysis
1°amine formic acid
1° amine formed in this reaction has one C less than the isocyanide compound.
Reduction of amide:
On reduction of amide by lithium aluminium hydride 1°, 2° and 3° amine forms.
(i) LiAlH4/ether
Example : CH 3CONH 2 CH3CH2NH2
(ii) H2O
acetamide ethanamine (1°)
(i) LiAlH4/ether
Example : CH3CONHCH 3 CH3CH2NH CH3
(ii) H2O
N methyl acetamide ethyl methyl amine
(2°) (2°)
CH3 CH3
(i) LiAlH4/ether
Example : CH3CO N CH3CH2N
(ii) H2O
CH3 CH3
NN di methyl acetamide (3°)
601
Example
Gabriel phthalimide synthesis :
[preparation of primary aliphatic and aryl alkyl amine]
O O
CO C C
KOH + RX
NH N K N–R
ethanol – KX
CO C C
– H 2O
O O
phthalimide potassium phthalimide Nalkyl phthalimide
O
+
C – O Na
2 NaOH(aq)
+ RNH2 primary aliphatic amine
+
C – O Na
O
By this reaction benzyl amine is formed.
Limitations : primary aromatic amine (e.g. aniline, toluidine) cannot be synthesized by this method
because in mild conditions nucleophilic substitution reaction of aryl halide with potassium
phthalimide is difficult.
Hoffmann bromamide reaction: (Hoffmann degradation) (1° amine formed)
Br2 / 4 NaOH
amide 1° amine
D
(having 1C less than amide)
O
D
R C NH2 + Br2+4NaOH RNH 2
Na2CO3
amide 1° amine
2NaBr
2H2O
Reduction of azide :
.. H2/PdC
+ +d d
Na N3 + R X R .N. N+ º N: R NH2 + N2
or
sodium alkyl NaX LiAlH4 1° amine
azide halide
Reduction of oxime : (1° amine formed)
On reduction of oxime of aldehyde and ketone by lithium aluminium hydride/ether or sodium/ethanol
1° amine formed.
LiAlH4/ether
Exapmle R CH = N · OH RCH 2NH 2
or
aldoxime Na/C2H 5OH 1° amine
602
R R
LiAlH/4 ether
C = N · OH CH – NH2
or
R Na/C2H5OH R
ketoxime 1° amine
Amination reduction of aldehyde and ketone : (1°, 2°, 3° amine formed.)
D
H2 [Ni]
R CHO + NH3 [R CH = NH] R CH2 NH2
H 2O or
aldehyde emine 1° amine
NaBH 3CN
R R R
D
H2 [Ni]
R C = O + NH3 R C = NH R CH NH2
H 2O
ketone amine or 1° amine
NaBH 3CN
sodium cyano borohydride
Schmit reaction (1° aliphatic and aromatic amine formed)

On reaction of carboxylic acid with hidrazoic (N3H) in presence of concentrated H2SO4
1° amine formed and CO2 and N2 gas removed.
O
N 3H
R C OH R NH2 + CO2 + N2
conc. H2SO4
carboxylic acid 1° amine
O
N 3H
Example : C6H5 C OH C6H5NH2+CO2+N2
conc. H2SO4
benzoic acid
NaN3 and concentrated H2SO4 can be used.
Preparation of amine compounds and industrial production and its uses:
NH2
[Ni]
+ 2H2 O
NO2 873 K
aniline
+ 3 H2
–
NH+3 Cl NH2
nitro benzene
Fe + HCl NaOH
– 2HO2 – NaCl
aniline – H 2O aniline
hydro cloride
603
Aminolysis reaction :
Cl NH2
[CuO]
2
+ 2NH3 473 K + NH4Cl

60 bar
cloro benzene aniline
Physical properties and uses :

Pure aniline is bad smelling colourless liquid.
On exposure to air it get oxidize and turns into red colour.
Uses :
In the production of dyes, drugs, rasins and varnishes
As solvent
Vulcanization of rubber.
26. Which of the following reaction not gives amine product ?

Na/C2H5OH
(A) R X + NH3 ® (B) R CH = N·OH + [H]
+
H LiAlH4
(C) R CN + H2O (D) R CONH2 LiAlH4
27. Which of the following amide do not gives Hoffman bromide reaction ?
(A) ethanamide (B) propanamide (C) benzenamide (D) acetanilide
28. Which of the following amine cannot be formed by Gabrial Phthalimide reaction ?
(A) benzyl amine (B) ethyl amine (C) aniline (D) methyl amine
29. By which of the following reaction benzyl amine can be prepared ?
(A) C6H5CONH2 LiAlH4 /ether (B) C6H5CN LiAlH4 /ether
(I) KOH (ii) C6H5CH2Br

(C) Phthalamide (D) above all type
(iii) aqueous NaOH,
30. Which of the following on reaction with aniline gives benzenilide as product ?
(A) acetic anhydride (B) benzenemide (C) acetyl chloride (D) benzoyl chloride
31. 1° amine on heating with CS2 in presence of excess reaction HgCl2 gives isocyanate compounds.
By which this reaction is known ?
(A) Hoffman bromide reaction (B) Perkin reaction
(C) Hoffman mustard reaction (D) Carbylamine test
32. Which of the following do not gives primary amines ?
Br2/KOH LiAlH4
(A) acetamide (B) ethanenitrile
LiAlH4 LiAlH4
(C) methly isocyanide (D) acetamide
604
33. Gabriel phthalamide synthesis method is useful for which of the following ?
(A) 1° aromatic amine (B) 1° aliphatic amine
(C) 2° aliphatic amine (D) 2° aromatic amine
34. compound can be produce by reduction of which amide compound ?
NH2
(A) hexanamide (B) pentanamide (C) heptanamide (D) butanamide
35. For which of the following compound Gabriel phthalimide reaction is important?
(A) NH2 (B) CH2·NH2
(C) CH3 NH CH3 (D) CH3 N CH3
CH3
36. Which of the following gives Hoffmann reaction very easily ?
CONH2 CONH2 CONH2 CONH2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
SO 3H OCH3 NO2
37. Which of the following reaction is known as Mendis reaction ?
LiAlH4
(A) R C º N R CH2 · NH2
H2 [Ni]
(B) Ar C º N Ar CH2NH2
NaHg/C2H 5OH
(C) R C º N R CH2NH2
(D) all the given
38. Which of the following reaction gives 2° amine products ?
(A) By reduction of nitrile (B) By reduction of isocyanide
(C) By hydrolysis of isocyanide (D) By Hoffmann bromide reaction
(i) R – X
39. NaN3 + ? In the given reaction which amine product will be obtained ?
– NaX
(ii) LiAlH4
– N2
(A) 3° amine (B) 2° amine

(C) 1° amine (D) Both (A) and (B)
LiAlH4 /ether
40. Find the X in the reaction CH3CHO + NH2OH CH3 CH = N·OH
-H2O
(A) methanamine (B) ehtanamine
(C) dimethyl amine (D) none of the given
605
41. Which are the reactant and catalyst for the Schmit reaction for preparation of 1° aliphatic and
aromatic amine compounds ?
(A) N3H and conc H2SO4 (B) Na metal and C2H5OH
(C) Ni metal and H2 (D) all the given
42. Which reducing agent is useful to convert imine into 1° amine ?
(A) H2[Ni] (B) NaBH3CN (C) N3H/conc. H2SO4 (D) (A) and (B)
43. Which catalyst is used to produce aniline industrially by ammonolysis of chlorobenzene ?
(A) KCN (B) Al2O3 (C) K2O + Al2O3 (D) Cu2O
44. Which of the following do not form isopropyl amine ?
LiAlH4
(A) (CH3)2 CO + NH2OH ®
H2 /Ni
(B) (CH3)2 CO + NH3
CH 3
Al2O3, 633K
(C) CH OH(g) + NH3(g)
CH 3
CH 3
(D) CH Br + NaNH2 ®
CH 3
45. What is the correct order of reactivity of the alkyl halide in the ammonolysis with amine ?
(A) R I > R Br > R Cl (B) R Cl > R Br > R I
(C) R Br > R I > R Cl (D) R I > R Cl > R Br
Answers : 26. (C), 27. (D), 28. (C), 29. (D), 30. (D), 31. (C), 32. (C), 33. (B), 34. (A),
35. (B), 36. (C), 37. (C), 38. (B), 39. (C), 40. (A), 41. (A), 42. (D), 43. (D),
44. (D), 45.) (A)
Chemical reactions of amine compounds :

Basic property of amine compounds :
Amine compounds act as Lewis base because in amine compound on nitrogen atom non-
bounding e pair is present.
Reaction with acid :
..
R N H2 + HX R +NH3 X (salt)
Reaction with water :
..
R N H 2 + H 2O R +NH3 + OH
+
[R - N H3 ][OH - ]
K= ][H O]
[R - NH 2 2
+
-
[R - N H3 ][OH ]
K [H2O] = ]
[R - NH 2
606
+
[R - N H3 ][OH - ]
Kb = ] pKb = log Kb
[R - NH 2
Strength of amine as base can be determined on the basis of value of Kb or pKb.

Greater the value of Kb (smaller value of pKb) greater is the strength of amines.
For ammonia pKb value is 4.75.
For aliphatic amines pKb values are between 3 to 4.22.
For aromatic amines pKb values are more than 4.22.
Sr. No. Name of amine Molecular formula Kb pKb
1. Methanamine CH3NH2 4.5 × 104 3.38
2. Ammonia NH 3 1.8 × 105 4.75
3. N methyl ethanamine (CH3) NH 5.4 × 104 3.27
4. N, N dimethyl methanamine (CH3)3N 0.6 × 104 4.22
5. Ethanamine CH3 CH2NH2 5.1 × 104 3.29
6. N ethyl ethanamine (CH3CH2)2NH 10.0 × 104 3.00
7. N,Ndiethyl ethanamine (CH3CH2)3N 5.6 × 104 3.25
8. Bezenamine C6H5NH 2 4.2 × 1010 9.38
9. Phenyl methanamine C6H5 CH2NH2 2.0 × 105 4.70
10. Nmethyl aniline C6H5 NHCH3 5.0 × 1010 9.70
CH 3
11. N,N di methyl aniline C 6H 5 N 11.5 × 1010 8.92

CH 3
Relation between basic strength and structure of amine:

Basicity of amine depends on tendency to gain proton easily from acid and by converting into
positive ion.
If corresponding cation of amine is more stable then amine is more basic.
Basic strength of aliphatic amines
(i) Due to (+I) effect of alkyl group alkanamine is stronger base than ammonia.
(ii) comparison of basicity of primary, secondary and tertiary alkanamine :
As going from tertiary amine to the primary amine (+I) effect of alkyl group decreases
hence in gaseous state basicity of amine is as follows :
(For non-aqueous solutions)
Tertiary amine > Secondary amine > primary amine > ammonia
607
In order to determine the basicity in aqueous solutions factors like (+I) effect, solvation
effect and steric hindrance of alkyl group plays an important role.
For aqueous solutions order of basicity is as follows :
Ammonia > 1° amine > 2° amine > 3° amine
Basicity order of amines having substituted methyl group is :
(CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3 N > NH3
2° > 1° > 3°
Basicity order of amines having substituted ethyl group is :
(C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3 N > C2H5NH2 > NH3
2° > 3° > 1°
Basicity of aromatic amine ( aryl amine)
Aryl amines are less basic than ammonia because due to resonance in aniline non-
bonding e pair presence on N atom get delocalized on benzene ring hence for
protonation non-bonding e pair is not easily available on N.
Basicity order of amine compound is as follows
3° amine > 2° amine > 1° amine > NH3 > aniline
For substituted aniline
(i) If e donor groups like CH3,OCH3,NH2 etc. are present then strength as the base
increases.
(ii) If e attracting groups like NO2,SO3H,COOH,X,CN etc. are present then strength
as the base decreases.
If e donor group is present on para position then its basicity is more than in the meta-
position.
NH2 NH2
Example : >
CH3
CH3
Ptulodine, pKb = 9.21 mtulodine, pKb =9.34

If e attracting groups are present at meta- position then it's basicity is more than at
para-positions.
NH2
NH2
<
NO2
NO 2
Pnitro aniline mnitro aniline
(pKb =13.0) (pKb = 12.64)
Due to ortho effect basicity of amine decreases.
For some important substituted aniline derivative basicity order is :
608
For toluidine :
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2

CH 3
> > >
CH3
CH3
ptoluidine mtoluidine aniline otoluidine

(pKb = 9.21) (pKb = 9.34) (pKb = 9.38) (pKb = 9.58)
For anisidine:
NH 2 NH2 NH 2 NH2
OCH3
OCH3
OCH 3
panisidine oanisidine aniline manisidine

(pKb = 8.71) (pKb = 9.38) (pKb = 9.51) (pKb = 9.81)
For Amino phenol :
NH2 NH 2 NH2 NH2

OH
OH
OH
pAmino phenol oAmino phenol aniline mAmino phenol
(pKb = 8.50) pKb = 9.28 pKb = 9.38 pKb = 9.80
For Phenyl Diamine :
NH2 NH 2 NH2 NH2

NH2
NH 2
NH2
p Phenyl m Phenyl aniline o Phenyl

diamine diamine Diamine
pKb = 7.86 9.00 9.38 9.52
For nitro aniline :
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2

NO2
NO2
NO2
Aniline mNitro aniline pNitro aniline oNitro aniline
609
pKb=9.38 12.64 13.0 13.22
For chloro aniline :
NH 2 NH2 NH2 NH 2
Cl
Cl
Cl
Anilin p-Chloro aniline m-Chloro aniline o-Chloro aniline

pKb, = 9.38 10.0 11.52 13.30
46. Values of pKb for some of the bases are given below. On the basis of it choose the least basic.
(A) 4.40 (B) 4.32 (C) 2.85 (D) 10.68
47. In aqueous solution which of the following is correct order for basicity ?
(A) NH3 < C6H5NH2 < (C2H5)2 NH < C2H5NH2 < (C2H5)3N
(B) C6H5NH2 < NH3 < (C2H5)3N < C2H5NH2 < (C2H5)2 NH
(C) C6H5NH2 < NH3 < C2H5NH2 < (C2H5)3N < (C2H5)2 NH
(D) None of the above
48. For the following compounds select the correct order of basicity in gaseous state (non aqueous
solution).
(A) CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N > (CH3)2 NH (B) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2
(C) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N (D) (CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH
49. Arrange the given amines in increasing order of basicity (I) n - pentyl amine, (II) sec - pentyl
amine, (III) isopentyl amine, (IV) tert pentyl amine.
(A) I < II < III < IV (B) II < III < I < IV (C) IV < III < II < I (D) III < IV < I < II
50. Match the details of section - I with section - II and select correct option.
Section - I Section - II
(P) Benzenamine (T) 11.0
(Q) N - Methyl Aniline (V) 5.08
(R) N, N Dimethyl Aniline (V) 4.30
(S) N - ethyl ethanamine (W) 4.62
(A) (P)-(V), (Q)-(T), (R)-(W), (S)(U) (B) (P)-(T), (Q)-(W), (R)-(V), (S)(U)
(C) (P)-(U), (Q)-(V), (R)-(T), (S)(W) (D) (P)-(W), (Q)-(V), (R)-(U), (S)(T)
51. Which of the following sentence is incorrect ?
(a) p - nitro aniline is more basic than aniline.
(b) Aniline is weaker base than o - Methoxy aniline.
(c) p - Methoxy aniline is weaker base than aniline.
(d) Aniline is weaker base than ethyl amine.
610
52. Mention the decreasing order for basicity of NH3, CH3NH2 and (CH3)2NH.
(A) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > NH3 (B) NH3 > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2 NH
(C) CH3NH2 > NH3 > (CH3)2NH (D) (CH3)NH > NH3 > CH3NH2
53. For which of the following value of dissociation constant is maximum ?
(C) CH3 C ≡ CH
+
(A) C6H5OH (B) CH3 NH3 Cl (D) C6H5CH2OH
54. Which of the following is strongest base in aqueous solution ?
(A) Methyl amine (B) Aniline (C) Trimethyl amine (D) Dimethyl amine
55. Which of the following is most basic ?
(A) Amine (B) o - nitro aniline (C) p - nitroaniline (D) m - nitro aniline
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2

C H3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH3
CH3
57. Which of the following compound is not basic ?

(A) CH3NH 2 (B) (CH3)2NH (C) (CH3)3N (D) C6H5NH2
58. Which of the following compound is not basic ?
(A) Aniline (B) p - nitro aniline (C) m - nitro aniline (D) benzylamine
59. Which of the following is strongest base ?
NH2 NH2 CH2NH2 NH CH3

C H3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
60. Which of the following is least basic ?
(A) H2N OCH3 (B) H2N CH3
(C) H2N COOH (D) NH2
61. Which of the following has highest value of Kb ? R = CH3

(A) R2NH (B) R3N (C) RNH 2 (D) NH 3
62. For NH3 value of pKb is ...... .
(A) 4.0 (B) 4.75 (C) 4.22 (D) 3.75
63. Which of the following order of basicity is correct for ethyl substituted amine ?
(A) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 (B) (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2
(C) (C2H5)3N > C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH (D) C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH
611
(A) p - Toludine (B) m - toludine (C) Aniline (D) o - toludine
65. For which of the following pKb value is highest ?
(A) p - aniline (B) Aniline (C) o - aniline (D) m - aniline
66. Which is decreasing order of basicity for o, m, p amino phenol ?
(A) p > o < m (B) o > p > m (C) m > o > P (D) m > p > o
67. Which is decreasing order of basicity for o, m, p phenylene diamine ?
(A) p < m < o (B) o < m p > o (B) p > m > o (C) o > p > m (D) m > p > o
69. Which is decreasing order of basicity for o, m, p chloro aniline ?
(A) p > m > o (B) m > p > o (C) m > o > p (D) o > m > p
70. In which of the following reactions amine act as acid ?
(A) (C2H5)3N + BF3 → (B) CH3NH2 + H2O →
(C) (C2H5)2NH + H2PtCl6 → (D) [(CH3)2CH]2NH + nC4H9Li →
Answers : 46. (C), 47. (C), 48. (B), 49. (C), 50. (D), 51. (D), 52. (B), 53. (B), 54. (D),
55. (A), 56. (A), 57. (B), 58. (D), 59. (C), 60. (C), 61. (A), 62. (B), 63. (A),
64. (D), 65. (D), 66. (A), 67. (B), 68. (A), 69. (A), 70. (D),
Chemical Reactions of Amines
Alkylation :
On reaction of aliphatic and aromatic primary amine with alkyl halide, it successively gives 2o
amine, 3o amine and quaternary ammonium salt.
+C2H5I +C2H5I
Example : C2H5NH2 + C2H5I (C2H5)2NH (C2H5)3N (C2H5)4 N+I
HI HI
ethanamine N-ehtyl N-N-di ethyl quaternary ethyl

ethanamine ethanamine ammonium iodide (salt)
Acylation :
On reaction of aliphatic and aromatic primary and secondary amine with acid chloride or acid
anhydride, it gives amide product.
This reaction is carried out in presence of base pyridine.
Reagents
Acetyl chloride / Pyridine or conc. H2SO4 or CH3COOH CH3COCl
Acetic anhydride / conc. H2SO4 or CH3COOH (CH3CO)2O

Benzoyl Chloride / aq. NaOH
C6H5COCl ® is known as 'Schotten Baumann' reaction.
612
H Cl O
Base
C2H5 N : + C CH3 C2H5 N C CH3 + HCl
Pyridine
C2H5 O C2H5
N-Ethyl Ethanamine NN-Dimethyl
Schotten-Baumann Reaction
O O
Aq. NaOH
NH2+ C6H 5– C – Cl NH – C – C6H5
– HCl
Aniline Benzoyl Chloride N-Phenyl Benzamide (Benzanilide)
NH2 O NH COCH3
+ CH3 – C – Cl + HC l
– H Cl
Aniline Acetly Chloride N-Phenyl Ethanamide

(Acetanilide)
Reactions with Aldehyde and Ketone
Primary aliphatic and aromatic amine on reaction with aldehyde and ketone in presence of acid
catalyst forms azomethene. It is known as Schiff base or anil.
+
H
R NH2 + O = CHR RN = CHR + H 2O
0
1 amine Aldehyde Schiffs base
or Anil
+
H
CH3CH2NH2 + O = CH CH3 CH3CH2N = CH.CH3 + H2O
Ethylamine Ethanal Ethyledene Ethylamine
+
NH2 + O = CH H N = CH + H2O
Aniline Benzaldehyde Benzyledene Aniline

Carbyl amine reaction (isocyanide detection)
Only primary aliphatic and aromatic amines gives this test.
Useful to detect primary amine in the laboratory.
1o amine on heating with chloroform (CHCl3) and alcoholic KOH gives foul smelling isocyanide
gas.
Secondary and tertiary amine do not give this test.
613
Common reaction
R NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH R N+ ≡ C + 3KCl + 3H2O
CH3CH2NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH CH3CH2NC + 3KCl + 3H2O

Ethanamine Ethyl Isocyanide
+
NH2 N C
+ CHCl3 + 3KOH + 3KCl + 3H2O
Aniline Phenyl Isocyanide

Reactions with nitrous acid (HNO2)
(A) Reaction of primary aliphatic amine with nitrous acid (HNO2)
10 amine on reaction with HNO2 forms alkyl diazonium salt. As it is unstable it releases N2
gas and converted into alcohol.
NaNO2 + HCl H2 O
R NH2 + HNO2 [R +N2 · Cl] R OH + N2 + HCl
alkanamine alcohol
(B) Reaction of primary aromatic amine with nitrous acid (HNO2) :
By reaction at low temperature (273-278 K) it forms benzene Diazonium Chloride (Salt).
[HNO2]
C6H5NH2 C6H5 +N2 · Cl + NaCl + 2H2O
(NaNO2 + HCl)
Aniline
273-278 K Bezene Diazonium Chloride (Salt)
Reaction with Carbon Disulphide (CS2)
(A) Reaction of aliphatic amine with Carbon Disulphide (CS2) (Hoffman-mustard reaction) :
S
. .. HgCl2
D
R NH2 + S = C = S R NH C SH RN=C=S
HgS
(Hoffmann mustard di thio alkyl alkyl iso thio cyanate
2 HCl
oil reaction) carbomic acid (smell like mustard oil)
(B) Reaction of aromatic amine :
S
C6H5 NH H
D
+ S=C=S + 2KOH C6H5 NH C NH C6H5 + K2S + 2H2O

C6H5 NH H N, N di phenyl thio urea
S
conc. HCl
C 6H5NHCNHC6H 5 C6H5N=C=S + C6H5+NH3Cl
N, Ndi phenyl thio urea phenyl iso thio urea
N, N diphenyl thio urea (thio carbanylide) is used as reaction stimulator during vulcanization
of rubber.
614
Reaction with phosgene (carbonyl chloride) (COCl2)
(A) Reaction with aliphatic amine :
O O
2R NH2 + Cl C Cl → R NH C NH R + 2HCl
di substituted urea
(B) Reaction with aromatic amine :
D
C6H5NH2 + COCl2 C6H5NH COCl C6H5 N = C = O
HCl HCl
aniline phenyl isocyanate
Oxidation
Product obtained by the oxidation of amine depends on type of amine and oxidising agent.
(A) Primary amine :
[O] [O] [O]

R NH2 R NHOH RN=O RNO2
H2O
Nitroso compound nitro compound
(B) Secondary amine :
KMnO4
2 R2NH R2N NR2 + H2O
Tetra aldehyde hydrazine
H2SO5
R2NH or R2N OH
H2O2
N- hydroxy dialkyl amine
(C) Tertiary amine cannot be oxidised by KMnO4 but on oxidation by ozone, H2O2, or Caros acid
(H2SO5) it forms amine N-oxide.
H2O2 or O3
R3N + [O] RN → O
or H2SO5
3o-amine Amine-N-oxide
(D) Aromatic amine can be oxidised by K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4.
K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4
Example : NH2 O O
aniline p-benzoquinone (aniline black)
Reaction with Hinsberg reagent

Primary and secondary amine on reaction with benzene sulphonyl chloride (Hinsberg reacgent)
gives sulphonamide product. While tertiary amine donot react because no hydrogen atom is
bonded with N in tertiary amine.
615
Electrophilic substitution reaction :
(A) Bromination :
NH2
Br Br
3Br2/H2O
(2, 4, 6 –tri bromo aniline)
- 3H Br
Br
NH2
O
aniline
H – N – C – CH3 NH COCH3 NH COCH3
(CH3CO) 2O Br hydrolysis
pyridine CH3COOH –CH3COOH
acetalinide Br Br
P-bromo acetanide 4-Bromo aniline
(main product)
(B) Nitration :
NH2 NH2 NH2
NO2
conc. HNO 3
+ +
conc. H 2SO 4 NO 2
288k NO2
NH2 p nitro aniline m nitro aniline o nitro aniline
(51%) (47%) (2%)
aniline
NH COCH 3 NH COCH3 NH2
(CH3CO)2O conc. HNO3 hydrolysis
+
pyridine conc. H 2SO4 H
–CH3COOH 288k – CH3COOH
NO2 NO2
acetanilide pnitro acetanilide 4nitro aniline
(C) Sulphonation :
+ +
NH2 NH3HSO4– NH2 NH3
H2 SO4 455 - 475 K
–H3O
aniline SO3H SO3–

anilinium hydro sulphate sulphanilic acid zwitter ion
71. By which reaction phenyl iso cyanide is formed ?

(A) Hoffman reaction (B) Carbyl amine test
(C) Riemer Tieman reaction (D) Wurtz reaction
616
72. What is the final product Y in the following reaction ?
P2O 5 Li Al H4
CH3CH2CH2CONH2 X Y
(A) n - Butylamine (B) Propyl isocyanide

(C) n - Buty cyanide (D) n - Propylamine
73. Identify Z in following reaction :
Cl2/ NaOH HNO3

CH3NO2 Z CHCl3
excess
(A) ClCH2NO2 (B) Cl2CHNO2 (C) CHCl3 (D) Cl3CNO2
AC2O Br2 H2 O
74. P-toludine X Y Z then which of the following is Z.
CH3COOH H+
NH 2 COCH3 NH2 NHCOCH3

COCH3 Br Br Br
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
75. When primary amine reacts with ethanoic KOH and Chloroform ........ is obtained.
(A) isocyanide (B) aldehyde (C) cyanide (D) alcohol
76. On reduction of organic compound X, compound Y is formed which on reaction with CHCl3 in
presence of alcoholic KOH gives compound Z whose calalytic reduction produces N - methyl
aniline. Then compound X is ......... .
(A) methyl amine (B) aniline (C) nitro benzene (D) nitro methane
77. Which product is obtained on heating (CH3)4N+OH-- ?
(A) CH3NH2 (B) C2H5NH2 (C) (CH3)3N (D) (CH3)2NH
NH2
CH3COCl conc. HNO3 hydrolysis
78. X Y Z Identify the Z in the given reaction.
conc. [H 2SO4 ]
aniline
(A) acetanilide (B) p - Nitro acetanilide (C) p - Nitro aniline (D) Sulphanilic acid
79. Identify correctness of given sentences ?
(i) by sulphonation reaction aniline with conc. H2SO4 at 455 K - 475 K temperature gives sulphanilic acid
(ii) Sulphanilic acid act as Zwitter acid and it is amphoteric
(iii) Sulphanilic acid has high melting point and it is insoluble in water
(A) T F T (B) T F F (C) F T F (D) T T T
617
80. Predict about x and y in the given reaction :
NH2
(i) NaNO2/HCl
Br 273 K
X Y
excess (ii) H3PO2
CH3
NH2
NH2
Br Br Br Br
and
(A) (B) and
Br Br
CH3 CH3
CH3 Br
NH2 NH2 OH
Br Br Br Br Br Br Br Br
and and
(C) (D)
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
81. Which gas is obtained during reaction between ethyl amine and Na - metal ?
(A) N 2 (B) H2 (C) C2H2 (D) CO2
82. 1o amine in presence of excess HgCl2 on heating with CS2 it gives isocyanate. By which name
these reaction is known
(A) Hoffman Bromamide reaction (B) Perkin reaction
(C) Hoffman - Mustard oil reaction (D) Carbyl amine test
83. Which of the following reaction is not useful either in preparation or separation of amine ?
(A) Hinsberg reaction (B) Carbyl amine test
(C) Hoffman reaction (D) Wurtz reaction
84. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(A) ethylamine and aniline both have - NH2 group
(B) ethylamine and aniline both are soluble in HCl
(C) ethylamine and aniline both on reaction with HNO2 forms hydroxy compounds
(D) ethylamine and aniline both on reaction with CHCl3 and KOH gives foul smelling compound
85. Identify the Z in the given reaction.
C6H5H2 AC2O Br2 H+ / H2O

X Y Z
NHCONH2 NHCOCH3 OH NH2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Br Br Br Br
618
86. Which product is obtained on oxidation of aniline with Na2Cr2O7 and Conc. H2SO4 ?
(A) benzoic acid (B) m - amino benzoic acid
(C) p - benzoaminone (D) Schiff base
87. For conversion of benzenamide → acetanilide which reagents are useful ?
(A) NaOH/Br2, LiAlH4 (B) NaOH/Br2, CH3COCl
(C) HONO, Cu2Cl2, (CH3CO)2O (D) NaOH/Br2, Ni[H2], CH3COCl
88. Which of the following amine do not react with acetyl chloride ?
(A) CH3NH 2 (B) (CH3)2NH
(C) (CH3)3N (D) None of these
Ni/H2
89. CH3CH2Cl NaCN X Y
(CH3CO)2O
Z Identify Z in the above reaction.
(A) CH3CH2CH2NHCOCH3 (B) CH3CH2CH2NH2
(C) CH3CH2CH2CONHCH3 (D) CH3CH2CH2CONHCOCH3
90. Identify the product of the reaction :
CH2CO NH2
(i) Br2, KOH
(ii) ?
COOCH 3
O O O
NH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
O N-H
O O O O
CHCl3
91. Mention the product in given reaction ? p-toludine
Alcoholic KOH
(A) H3C NCO (B) H3C CNO
(C) H3C NC (D) H3C CN
92. Predict product in the following reaction.

NH - CH3
+ NaNO2 + HCl → product
CH3
NHCH3 NHCH3
N – NO2 NO
(A) (B) +
NO
OH CH3
N – CH3 N–N=O
(C) (D)
619
CH = CH . NO2
Zn / Hg
93. ? product is ........ .
conc. HlC
COCH3
CH = CH . NO2 CH2CH2NH2 CH = CH . NH2 CH2CH 2NO 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
CH2CH3 CH2CH3 CH2C H3 CH2CH 3
O
+
94. R – C – CH – N +
N → intermediate +N2 in the given reaction what is the nature of intermediate ?
(A) carboniumion (B) carbanion (C) carbene (D) free radical
95. Identify Z in the following reaction ?
(i) LiAlH4 (i) KCN CHCl3/OH LiAlH4
CH3COOH W X Y Z
(ii) PBr3 (ii) LiAlH 4
(A) CH3CH2OH (B) CH3CH2CH2NHCH3

(C) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (D) CH3CH2CH2COOH
96. Which of the following gives Hoffman reaction with most ease ?
CONH2 CONH2 CONH2

CONH2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
SO3H OCH3 NO2
97. Acylation reaction taking place in which of the following reagent in called Schotten Baumen
reaction.
(A) CH3COCl/reaction (B) (CH3CO)2O/Mkktÿ H2SO4
(C) C6H5COCl aqueous NaOH (D) CH3COCl/CH3COOH

98. Reaction of 1° aliphatic amine with aldehyde or ketone in presence of acid catalyst gives .
(A) azo methane (B) Schiff base (C) aniline (D) all of the given
99. Which of the following is used as reaction stimulant during vulcanization of rubber ?
(A) N, N diphenyl thio urea (B) N - Methyl aniline
(C) N, N di methyl aniline (D) tetra alkyl Hydrazine
100. Product obtain by reaction of amine with which reagent on heating gives phenyl isocyanide ?
(A) Phosphine (B) Phosgene (C) Hydroxyl amine (D) Potassium cyanide
620
101. By which of the following 3o amine can't be oxidize ?
(A) O3 (B) H2O2 (C) H2SO5 (D) KMnO4

102. What is the proportion of p, m, o isomers respectively in the product of the reaction of aniline with
Conc. HNO3 / Conc. H2SO4 at 288K temperature ?
(A) 51 %, 47 %, 2 % (B) 47 %, 51 %, 2 % (C) 2 %, 51 %, 47 % (D) 2 %, 47 %, 51 %
103. m - DNB on reaction with which of the following gives m - nitro aniline.
(A) (NH4)2S (B) Na2S (C) Ni/H2 (D) Both (A) and (B)
Answers : 71. (C), 72. (A), 73. (D), 74. (C), 75. (A), 76. (C), 77. (C), 78. (C), 79. (D),
80. (B), 81. (B), 82. (C), 83. (D), 84. (C), 85. (D), 86. (C), 87. (B), 88. (C),
89. (A), 90. (C), 91. (C), 92. (D), 93. (C), 94. (C), 95. (B), 96. (C), 97. (C),
98. (D), 99. (A), 100. (B), 101. (D), 102. (A), (103. (D),
Diazonium Salt
+
General formula : Ar.N 2X (where X = Cl , Br , HSO4 , BF4 )
+ –
N2 Cl
+ – + –
N Cl
2 N HSO
2 4
Example :
CH3
Benzene Diazonium Benzene Diazonium p-Toluene Diazonium

Chloride Hydrogen Sulphate Chloride
+ –
N2 BF4
Soluble in water and unstable at room temperature
Benzene diazonium fluoroborate (insoluble in water) but

Stable at room temperature
Preparation of benzene diazonium chloride and its properties
+ –
NH 2 Diazotization N N Cl
NaNO2+ 2HCl
+ NaCl + 2H2O
[HNO2]
273 - 278 K
aniline Benzene diazonium chloride (salt)

Colourless crystalline solid substance
Soluble in water
Stable at low temperature.
Cannot be obtained in dry state as it is explosive in nature.
It reactions are done immediately.
Substitution reactions of benzene diazonium salt :
621
Cl
CuCl/HCl
+ N2+ HCl
Clorobenzene
Br
CuBr/HBr
+ N2+ HCl Sandmayer reaction
Bromobenzene
CN
CuCN/KCN
+ N2+ KlC
Benzonitrile
Cu Powder
Cl + N2+ CulC
HCl
Clorobenzene
Gatterman reaction
Cu Powder
Br + N2+ CulC
HBr
–
N2+Cl Bromobenzene
KI
I + N2+ Kl C
benzene Iodobenzene
Diazonium H3PO 2
Chloride + N2+ H3PO3+ HCl
(Salt) + H2O
benzene
CH3CH 2OH
+ N2 + CH3CHO + HCl
benzene
SnCl2+ HCl
NH NH2 + HCl
Reduction
Phenyl hydrazine
dil H2SO 4
- OH + HCl + N2
283 K , + H2O
Phenol
F Balz Schie mann reaction
+ –
N2 BF 4
+ BF3+ N2
+ HBF4
Fluorobenzene
Benzene diazomium NO 2
f luoroborate (Salt) NaNO2(ag)
+ NaBF4+ N2
Cu,
Nitrobenzene
C6H 6 /NaOH
+ N 2+ NaCl + H2O “Gomberg reaction
Diphenyl
622
Azo coupling reaction of benzene di azonium chloride salt:
OH / NaOH
N=N OH + NaCl + H 2O
273-278 K
phenol p-hydroxy azo benzene
(orange azodye)
+ – OH / NaOH OH
N N – Cl
N=N + NaCl + O2H
273-278 K
C-napthol p-neapthyl azo benzene
Benzene diazonium (red azodye)
Chloride (salt)
NH 2/ HCl
N=N NH2
273-278 K
aniline p-amino azo benzene
(light yellow azodye)
C H3
N / HCl CH3
CH 3
N=N N
273-278 K CH3
N,N-dimethyl p-N,N- dimethyl amino azobenzene
aniline (dark yellow azodye)
Tests of amine
(i) Carbyl amine test
Primary aliphatic and aromatic both type of amines gives this test.
(ii) Azodye test :
Primary aromatic amine gives this test.
(iii) Liberman test:
Secondary (aliphatic and aromatic both gives)
2o amine on reaction with HNO2 forms N-nitroso amine
(Yellow oily liquid)
Red coloured
solution
on dilution
Blue coloured
solution
NaOH
adding
solution turns
green
¬Phenol + conc.H SO on heating
2 4
104. In the given reaction identify Z. :

+
NaNO2 + HCl CuCN/KCN H / H2O
C6H5NH2 y z
273 K
(A) C6H5CN (B) C6H5CONH2 (C) C6H5COOH (D) C6H5CH2NH2
623
105. For which of the following arylamine diazotization reaction is difficult ?
(A) O2N NH2 (B) Cl NH2
(C) H3CO NH2 (D) CH3 NH2
106. Which of the following is useful for Deamination reaction of benzene diazonium chloride ?
(A) H 3PO 4 (B) H3PO3 (C) HPO 3 (D) H 3PO2
107. Which of the following diazonium salt on heating with dil. H2SO4 gives corresponding phenol with
difficulty ?

(A) HO3S +
N ≡ NCl (B) Br +
N ≡ NCl

(C) H3C +
N ≡ NCl (D) H3CO N ≡ NCl
+
108. For the given reaction if = 1 - Phenyl propan -1- amine then for t and y which of the following
option is appropriate.
hydrolysis
t + y →[ z ] + + Mg(NH2)Br
+ H2O/H
(A) W = C6H5CN, X = CH3CH2MgBr
(B) W = C6H5CONH2, X = CH3CH2MgBr
(C) W = CH3CH2 C ≡ N, X = C6H5MgBr
(D) Both (A) and (C)

109. For aryl diazonium salt which of the following reaction is not correct ?
+ HC l
(A) C6H5 N2Cl + CuCl C6H5Cl
+
(B) C6H5N2 Cl + HBF4 C6H5F
+
(C) C6H5N2 Cl + H3PO2 C6H5PO4
+
(D) C6H5N2 Cl + SnCl2/HCl C6H5NHNH2
110. Which Product is obtained by reaction of aliphatic primary amine with nitrous acid ?
(A) 20 amine (B) nitroalkane (C) alcohol (D) alkylnitrile
111. Which of the following compound is easily synthesized aromatic compounds ?
(A) Benzene diazonium chloride salt (B) nitro benzene
(C) C6H5CONH2 (D) C6H5Cl

624
112. Identify X, Y, Z in the given reaction.
Sn / HlC Br2 NaNO2+ HCl H3PO 4

Nitrobenzene W excess X Y Z
273 K H 2O
(A) W = aniline (B) W = benzene

X = 2, 4, 6-tribromo aniline X = 2, 4, 6-tribromo benzene
Y = 2, 4, 6-tribromo benzene diazonim chloride Y = 2, 4, 6-trichloro benzene
Z = 1, 3, 5-tribromo benzene Z = 2, 4, 6-trichloro phenol
(C) W = aniline (D) W = aniline
X = bromo aniline X = p-bromo aniline
Y = p-bromo benzene diazonium chloride Y = p-bromo benzene diazonium chloride
Z = p-bromo phenol Z = bromo benzene
113. Identify t , y and in following reaction :
HONO PCl5 KCN Na, C2H 5 OH

Propane-1-amine W X Y Z
(A) W = CH3CHO, X = CH3Cl, Z = CH3CH2NH2
(B) W = CH3CH2OH, X = CH3CH2Cl, Z = CH3CH2CH2NH2
(C) W = CH3CH2CH2OH, X = CH3CH2Cl, Z = CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2
(D) W = CH3CHO, X = CH3CH2Cl, Z = CH3CH2CH2NH2
114. C5H11N is optically active compound on its reaction with HNO2, C5H11OH is formed. Then which
is that compound ?
(A) N-Methyl butanamine (B) 1-amino pentane
(C) 2-amino pentane (D) N,N-dimethyl propanamine
115. What is Y in the following reaction ?
NaCN Ni/H 2 (CH3CO) 2O

Chloroethane W X Y
(A) CH3CH2CH2NHCOCH3 (B) CH3CH2CH2NH2
(C) CH3CH2CH2CONHCH3 (D) CH3CH2CH2CH2CONHCOCH3
116. What is the structure of the coloured compound obtain by reaction of aniline with the product
obtained by diazotization reaction of aniline at tow temperature
(A) H3C N = N NH2 (B) H2N N=N
(C) H2N N = N NH2 (D) N=N
625
(i) diazotizotion
117. 3, 4, 5, tribromo aniline (ii) H3PO2 ? (Products)
(A) 3, 4, 5-tribromobenzene (B) 3, 4, 5-tribromophenol

(C) 1, 2, 3-tribromobenzene (D) 1, 2, 6-tribromophenol
118. Aromatic nitrile (ArCN) cannot be formed by which of the following reaction ?
(A) ArX + KCN (B) ArCONH2 + P2O5
+
(C) Ar N Cl + CuCN (D) ArCONH2 + SOCl2
119. Identify structural formula of optically active compound X having molecular formula C8H11N which
is soluble in aqueous HCl and produces N2 on reaction with HNO2 ?
NH2 NH2
CH3
(A) (B)
CH3
CH2CH3
NH2
(C) (D) CH – CH3
H3C CH3 NH2
120. Which oxidized product is obtained by reaction between benzene diazonim chloride with hypo
phosphorous acid ?
(A) H 3PO 4 (B) H4P2O 7
(C) H 3PO 3 (D) None
121. Identify U in the given reaction :
CH3
reduction
Br2 Sn / HC l NaNO2 /HCl H3PO2/ H 2O
P Q R S
Bromination 273-278 K
NO2
sodalime [O]
U T
KMnO4
(A) benzene (B) 1, 2-di bromo benzene

(C) bromo benzene (D) 1, 2-di bromo benzene acid
626
122. In the given reaction give the IUPAC names of products W and Z respectively.
W
– BF3
– N2
+ –
C6H5N2 Cl + HBF4
NaNO2(a) H2 / Ni Ac2O
X Y Z
Cu 273-278 K – CH3 COOH
–NaBF4
–N2
(A) Benzene, acetanilide (B) Fluoro benzene, acetanilide

(C) Toluene, N-acetanilide benzanamide (D) Fluoro benzene, N- phenyl ethanamide
123. In the given reaction which two products will be same ?
conc. HNO3 reduction

Zn powder [conc. H2SO4] Ni / 3H2 NaNO2 /H Cl
C6H5 OH P Q R S
273 K
conc. HNO3
[conc. H2SO4] NaOH + CaO H+/ H 2O CuCN/KCN
W V U T
(A) P and V (B) Q and W (C) R and V (D) Both (A) and (B)
124. By reaction of benzene diazonium chloride with reactant in the column I to give coloured products.
Their names are given in column II. Then select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(P) OH/NOOH (T) p-amino azo benzene
OH
(Q) / NaOH (U) p-N, N-di methyl amino azo benzene
(R) NH2 / HCl (V) p-hydroxy azo benzene
CH3
(S)
N / HCl (W) bnapthyl azo benzane
CH3
(A) (P)(U), (Q)(V), (R)(W), (S)(T) (B) (P)(V), (Q)(W), (R)(T), (S)(U)
(C) (P)(T), (Q)(U), (R)(V), (S)(W) (D) (P)(W), (Q)(T), (R)(U), (S)(V)
627
125. Which of the following compound is not formed by Sandmayer reaction ?
(A) chloro benzene (B) bromo benzene (C) benzene nitrile (D) iodo benzene
126. Identify X, Y and Z in the given reaction. :
H3PO2
X + H 3PO3+ HCl
+ H2O
+ – SnCl2+ H Cl
C6H5 + N2 Cl Y + HCl
dil. H 2SO4
Z + N 2+ HCl
> 283 K
OH NO2 NH.NH2
(A) X = (B) X = (C) X = (D) X =
NH.NH2 Cl NH.NH2
y= Y= Y= Y=
OH OH OH
Z= Z= Z= Z=
127. Which of the following reaction is known as Balz Schiemann reaction ?
CHCl 3+ 3 KOH +
(A) C6H5NH2 C6H5 N ≡ C
+ Cu powder
(B) C6H5N2 Cl C6H5X + N2 + CuCl
HX
Br2+ 4NaOH
(C) C6H5CONH2 C6H5.NH2 + Na2CO3 + 2NaBr +2H2O
+
(D) C6H5N2 Cl . + HBrF4 → C6H5N2 BF4
+
C6H5F
128. Which of the following diazonium salt is stable at room temperature ?
+ + +
(A) C6H5N2 Cl (B) C6H5N2 HSO4 (C) C6H5N2 BF4 (D) B and C
129. Which product is obtained by reaction of benzene diazonium chloride's (salt) Gomberg reaction ?
(A) (B) NO2 (C) F (D) NH.NH2
628
130. Which of the following gives Liberman's test ?
(A) 1o amine (B) 2o amine (C) 3o amine (D) all the given
131. By reaction of 2o amine with HNO2 formed coloured oily liquid which on heating with phenol
and concentrated H2SO4 forms colour solution, on adding NaOH to it becomes coloured
solution. This solution on dilution turns coloured solution.
(A) yellow, green, blue, red (B) green, yellow, blue, red
(C) blue, red, yellow, green (D) red, yellow, blue green
132. Which product is obtained by reaction of benzene diazonium chloride with bromo benzene in
presence of NaOH?
(A) diphenyl (B) p-bromo diphenyl
(C) P, P'-dibromo, diphenyl (D) p-bromo azo benzene
Answers : 104. (C), 105. (A), 106. (D), 107. (A), 108. (D), 109. (C), 110. (C), 111. (A),
112. (A), 113. (C), 114. (B), 115. (A), 116. (B), 117. (C), 118. (A), 119. (D),
120. (B), 121. (C), 122. (D), 123. (D), 124. (B), 125. (D), 126. (A), 127. (D),
128. (C), 129. (A), 130. (B), 131. (A), 132. (B)
Cyanide or nitrile compounds

Electronic structure :
C ≡ N group 1 σ and two π bond.
Hybridization of C and N is sp
R C N bond angle 180o
Their boiling points are lower than the corresponding carboxylic acid. Fragrant smell and non
toxic.
Very weak basic compounds.
IUP(A)(C) nomenclature:
After deciding the longest chain of carbon of hydrocarbon root including the carbon of nitrile
group word nitrile is added.
If -CN group is attached to cyclic system then suffix 'carbonitrile' is added.
Common Nomenclature :
At the end of the hydrocarbon group word cyanide is placed
Example : (1) CH3 C ≡ N Example : (2) CN
IUPAC ethane nitrile I → benzene carbonitrile
common methylcyanide common → phenyl cyanide
acetonitrile
629
No. Structural formula Common name IUPAC name Boiling point
1. CH3 CN Methyl cyanide ethane nitrile 355 K
2. CH3 CH2 CN Ethyl cyanide Propane nitrile 370 K
3. CH2 = CH CN Vinyl cyanide Prop-2-ene nitrile 351 K

(acrilo nitrile)
4. CH3 CH2 CH2 CN Propyl cyanide Butane nitrile 391 K
5. CH3 CH CN Iso propyl cyanide 2-methyl propane 377 K

I nitrile
CH3
6. CN Phenyl cyanide Benzene carbonitrile 464 K
(benzo nitrile) or benzonitrile
(i) On hydrolysis reaction of cyanide compounds in presence of H2SO4 carboxylic acid forms and
ammonia gas liberated.
hydrolysis
R COOH + NH3
H2SO4
+ H 2O
RC≡Ν
reduction
R CH2.NH2
LiAlH4
primary amine
(ii) On heating ethane nitrile and ethanol in presence of conc. H2SO4 ethyl ethanoate forms.
conc. H2SO4
CH3 C ≡ N + CH3CH2OH + H2O CH3COOCH2CH3 + NH3
D
ethan nitrile ethanol ethyl ethanoate
(iii) On hydrolysis of intermediate product by aqueous acid formed by addition reaction between
cyanide compound and Grignard reagent gives ketone.
N MgBr
II
Normal Reaction : R C ≡ Ν + R Mg Br → [ R C R ]
O Hydrolysis
II + H2O
Mg(NH2) Br + R C R
Keton aqueous acid
[H+]
630
Isocyanide compounds:
General formula : R N+ ≡ C+ R = alkyl or aryl
Very high foul smelling, highly toxic and less soluble in water. Their boiling points are lower than
alkyl cyanide.
IUPAC nomenclature :
Prefix "iso" is placed before the name of cyanide compounds.
At the end word carbyl amine is placed.
Example : CH3NC
Methyl isocyanide or methyl carbyl amine or ethane iso nitrile.
Reduction of isocyanide compounds
Isocyanide compounds on reduction with LiAlH4 gives secondary amine as product.
+ 2H2 reduction
RN ≡C R NH CH3
LiAlH4
2o amine
+ 2H2 reduction
Example : CH3 N ≡ C CH3 NH CH3
LiAlH4
ethane iso N-methyl methanamine
nitile (di methyl amine)
Nitro compounds
General formula : RNO2 where R = alkyl or aryl
IUPAC nomenclature : after deciding the longest carbon chain of alkane root prefix Nitro is
placed before the alkane name.
Colourless, neutral, less soluble in water

Due to resonance in nitro group alkyl nitro compounds are most polar than compounds of other
functional group.
Preparation :
On heating alkane hydro carbon with fuming nitric acid in gaseous state at 673 K gives mixture
of alkyl nitro compounds.
fuming HNO3
2(CH3CH2CH3) CH3 NO2 + CH3CH2 NO2 + CH3CH2CH2 NO2
673 K
Propane nitro methane nitro ethane 1-nitro propane
631
Reduction of nitro compounds:
On reducing nitro alkane by LiAlH4 or dihydrogen in presence of nickel catalyst gives primary
alkyl amine.
LiAlH4
CH3CH2NO2 + 3H2 CH3CH2NH2 + 2H2O
or (Ni)
nitro ethane ethanamine
133. Which of the following gas is responsible for Bhopal accident ?
(A) CH3 N = C = O (B) CH3 CH = N = S
(C) CH3 N = C = S (D) CH3 O N = S

134. Select proper option for given sentences on the basis of physical properties :
(i) Alkyl iso cyanide possess foul smell, while alkyl cyanide possess fragrant smell.
(ii) Alkyl cyanide compounds are toxic compounds.
(iii) Boiling point of alkyl cyanides are less than the isomeric alkyl iso cyanide.
(iv) Aceto nitrile is soluble in water while methyl carbyl amine is not soluble in water.
(A) T T T F (B) T F T F (C) T F F F (D) T F F T
135. Which product is obtained by the hydrolysis of the product obtained by the reaction between butane
nitrile and ethyl magnesium bromide?
(A) ethyl-n-propyl ether (B) ethoxy propane
(C) ethyl propanoate (D) hexan-3-one
C N
H3 O +
136. + CH3MgBr → Q P For the above reaction product P is ...... .
OCH3
OH
CH CHO CO CH3 COOH
CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
OCH3 OCH3 OCH3
137. Identify X in the following reaction :
(i) Sn / HCl
Benzo nitrile X
(ii) NaNO2/ HCl
273 K
(iii) H2O
(A) toluene (B) benzoyl alcohol

(C) benzaldehyde (D) benzene diazonium chloride
632
138. In allyl iso cyanide number of σ and π bonds are and ..
(A) 9 σ and 3 π (B) 3 σ and 4 π (C) 9 σ and 9 π (D) 5 σ and 7 π
139. Which of the following is correct name for CH2 = CHCN ?
(A) acrylo nitrile (B) vinyl cyanide
(C) prop-2-ene-nitrile (D) all the above are correct
140. What is the correct IUPAC name of CH3 NC ?
(A) methyl iso nitrile (B) ethan iso nitrile
(C) methylcarbyl amine (D) Both (B) and (C)
141. For the given reaction identify X, Y and Z.
[O]
Na / C 2H5OH HNO 2
ethane nitrile X Y PCC Z
CH2Cl2
(A) X = ethanol, Y = ethanal, Z = ethanoic acid

(B) X = ethyl amine, Y = ethanol, Z = ethanal
(C) X = ethanamide, Y = ethanol, Z = ethanal
(D) X = ethanoic acid, Y = ethanol, Z = ethanal
Zn Powder cold
142. In the given reaction C6H5 NO2 X Y . X and Y are respectively ......
NH4Cl conc. HlC
and ...... .
(A) NHOH, HO NH2
(B) NH NH , H2 N NH2
(C) N =N , N=N
(D) None of the given

In the following reactions two sentences are given. In which one sentence is assertion
(A) and other is reason (R). carfully study the sentences and choose the proper option
as per following give instructions.
(A) Assertion (A) is correct, reason (R) is correct and
Reason (R) is correct explanation of assertion (A)
(B) Assertion (A) is correct, reason (R) is correct and
Reason (R) is not correct explanation of assertion (A)
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, reason (R) is incorrect
(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, reason (R) is correct
633
143. Sentence (A) : Aniline is less basic than p-toludine.
Reason (R) : p-toludine is more basic than aniline because CH3 group present in it is e
donour group.
144. Sentence (A) : Primary aliphatic form most stable alkyl diazonium chloride salt.
Reason (R) : Benzene diazonium chloride is easily soluble in water while benzene diazonium
fluoro borate is insoluble in water.
145. Sentence (A) : Aniline is weaker base than ammonia.
Reason (R) : Aniline is more stable than resonance.
146. Sentence (A) : p-nitro aniline is weaker base than p-toludine.

Reason (R) : As NO2 group in p-nitro aniline is e attracting group hence p-nitro aniline
become strong base.
147. Sentence (A) : Benzo nitrile cannot be prepared by nucleophilic substitution reaction of benzene.
Reason (R) : Benzo nitrile can be easily prepared from benzene diazonium chloride salt.
Questions containing one or more than one correct answers :
148. By which of the following m-nitro benzene can be converted into m-nitro aniline?
(A) (NH4)2S (B) Zn/NaOH (C) Sn + HCl (D) Zn + NH4Cl
149. Benzonitrile is formed when.
(A) on heating bromo benzene with alcoholic KCN.
(B) on heating benzene diazonium chloride with KCN in presence of Cu powder.
(C) on fusion of sodium bezene sulphonate with NaCN.
(D) on heating benzaldoxime with acetic anhydride.
150. A compound X with molecular formula C4H11N on reaction with HNO2 forms tertiary alcohol with
molecular formula C4H10O, then compound X gives which of the following reaction ?
(A) Carbyl amine test.
(B) Hoffman mustard reaction.
(C) On reaction with HNO2 diazonium salt.
(D) On oxidation with KMnO4 gives 2-methyl-2-nitro propane.

151. p-chloro aniline and anilinium hydrochloride can be separated by which reaction ?
(A) Sandmayer (B) NaHCO3
(C) AgNO3 (D) Carbyl amine test

Mixed type questions :
152. Compound X whose molecular formula is C2H3N. on its reduction compound Y is formed. Its
reaction with HNO2 gives ethanol. On heating with chloroform and alcoholic KOH gives compound
with specific smell, then compound Z is.
(A) CH3CH2NH2 (B) CH3 CH2 N º C (C) CH3 C º N (D) CH3CH2OH
634
153. Which indicator is formed by reaction of diazonium salt of sulphanilic acid with N, N dimethyl
aniline ?
(A) methyl red (B) methyl orage (C) indigo (D) phenolphthalein
(CH
H3)2 NH H2 / Ni
154. F NO2 X Y here Y is ...... .
DMF,
CH3
(A) H2N N (B) H2N NH2
CH3
CH3
(C) O 2N N (D) O2N NH2
NH2
155. What is obtained by reaction of p-toludine, chloroform and alcoholic KOH ?
(A) H3C NC (B) H3C CN
(C) H3C N2Cl (D) H3C NHCl2
NH2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
N N N
H H
(A) NH2 (B) NH CH3 (C) NH2 (D) CH2NH2

CH3
158. Reaction of benzamide with POCl3 gives ...... .

(A) aniline (B) benzonitrile (C) chloro benzene (D) benzyl amine
159. Which of the following reaction is not useful for the synthesis of separation of amines ?
(A) Hinsberg method (B) Hoffmann method (C) Wurtz reaction (D) Curtius reaction
160. Which of the following amine do not produces N2 gas on heating with HNO2 ?
(A) tri methyl amine (B) ethyl amine
(C) secondary butyl amine (D) iso propyl amine
NO2 NO2
X
161. here X is = ......
NO2 NH2
(A) Na2S (B) Sn/HCl (C) LiAlH4 (D) all the given
635
162. Which of the following gives yellow oily liquid with nitrous acid ?
(A) methyl amine (B) aniline (C) dimethyl aniline (D) trimethyl amine
163. Which of the following is soluble in NaOH ?
(A) H3C SO2NHCH3 (B) H3C SO2N(CH3)2
(C) H3C NH2 (D) H3C NHCH3
164. What is obtained on reaction of acetaldoxime with P2O5 ?

(A) methyl cyanide (B) methyl cyanate
(C) ethyl cyanide (D)none
Answers : 133. (A), 134. (D), 135. (D), 136. (C), 137. (B), 138. (A), 139. (D), 140. (D),
141. (B), 142. (A), 143. (A), 144. (D), 145. (B), 146. (C), 147. (B), 148. (A),
149. (B), (C), (D), 150. (A), (B), (C), (D), 151. (A), (B), (C), 152. (C), 153. (B),
154. (A), 155. (A), 156. (C), 157. (D), 158. (B), 159. (C), 160. (A), 161. (A),
162. (C), 163. (A), 164. (A)
636
25 Polymers
Ploymer is very large molecule in which very large number of simple repeating structural units
joined together by covalent bond. Here, simple repeating structural units are called monomer.
Example, innumerable molecules of ethene monomer (C2H4) combined with each other in polythene
CH
( 2
CH 2).
Difference between macromolecule and polymer

Macro molecule and polymer are very large molecule. Repeating units are present in polymer.
While in macromolecule, repeating units will be present or will not present. For example, their is one
repeating unit CH2CH2 in polythene. It is known as polymer and macromolecule. But there is no
repeating unit in chlorophyll which have C55H72O5N4Mg formula. So it is known as macromolecule.
Classification of polymers
Classification based on source :
(a) Natural polymers : Polymers present in nature are obtained from plants or animals e.g.
protein, cellulose, starch, nucleic acids, natural rubber. Polymers which is control the life
style of plants or animals known as biopolymers. e.g. starch, protein, cellulose, nucleic
acid.
(b) Synthetic polymers : Polymer which is made in laboratries known as synthetic
polymers. e.g., polythene, nylon, decron etc.
(c) Semisynthetic polymers : Polymers which are formed by chemical reaction with the
polymers present in nature are called semisyntehtic polymers. eg. cellouse diactete is
obtained by acetylalion reaction of cellulose with acetic anhydride in presence of H2SO4.
Explosive cellulose nitrate are formed by nitration of cellulose. Vulcanised rubber
obtained by vulcanisation of natural rubber which is used in manufacture of tyre.
Classification based on reaction mode of polymerisation :

Polymerisation : When same or two or more than two different types of small malecules are
joined together with each other in large amount by covalent bond and from a polymer. This process
is called polymerisation. Some times small molecules like H2O, HCl etc. are eliminate.
The unit which is repeated sevral times in a polymer is called repeating unit. Number of
repeating unit n in polymer molecule is called degree of polymerisation.
Chain growth and step growth polymer :
Chain growth polymer : This type of polymer is formed by repeated addition of monomer
molecules to the growing chain carrying a reactive intermediate such as a free radical, a carbocation
or a carbanion.
Step growth polymer : In each step a distinct functionalised species are produced by
condensation reaction and each step is independent of each other. Thus, the polymer is obtained is
known as step growth polymer.
637
Some distinguishing points between chain growth polymerisation and step growth polymerisation.
No. Chain growth polymerisation Step growth polymerisation
(i) It is addition polymerisation It is condensation polymerisation
(ii) Monomer is added in growing chain. Monomer form dimer, trimer etc.
by addition in step by step.
(iii) It takes place in presence of intiaters. No intiater is required.
(iv) It is very fast reaction. It is slow reaction.
Homopolymers and copolymers

Homopolymers : When same type of innumerable monomers combine with each other and
form polymer. It is known as homopolymers (...MMMM...). eg., polythene, polyvinyl chloride
and neoprene.
Copolymer : Different types of chemical structure containing innumerable monomers combine
with each other and form polymer is known as copolymer.
(...M1M2M1M3...)
eg. Buna-S, Nitrile rubber, Nylon 66 Decron etc.
In polymerisation, two or more than two different types of monomers combined with each
other and form polymer with high molecular mass is called copolymerisation.
Addition and Condensation Polymer :
Addition Polymerisation :
In this method innumerable simple monomers are combined with each other. No simple
molecules like (H2O, NH3 etc.) type is not realeased during this reaction. example : polythene
Condensation Polymerisation :
In this method innumerable simple monomers are combined with each other and realeased
small molecules such as H2O and NH3 etc. Example : Nylon
Difference between addition and condensation polymer

Addition Polymer Condensation Polymer
(1) Formed by addition reaction. (1) Formed by condensation reaction.
(2) Molecular mass is multiple of molar (2) Molecular mass is not multiple of all
mass of monomer. molar mass of monomer.
(3) Generally one type or two types of (3) More than one type of monomers
monomers participate in participate in polymerisation.
polymerisation.
(4) Monomer is unsaturated molecule. (4) Monomer has two functional group.
(5) It is chain growth polymer. (5) It is step growth polymer.
Classification based on structures
Linear polymer :
In this type of polymers monomer units are present in long straight chain. Example : nylon and
polyesters. Linear polymer have high boiling point and high density.
638
Branched Chain polymers :
This type of polymers contain branch in between the long straight chain in their constitution.
e.g., Amaylopectin, PVC polystyrene. Branched polymers have low boiling point and law density.
Cross linked polymers :

In this type of polymers long straight chain combined with each other at different places, so a
net like structure is formed. example, phenol formaldehyde polystyrene-butadien polymer and urea
formaldehyde polymer .
Classiffication based on molecular forces

Elastomers : Elastomers are polymer which contained 300 % more elastic property.
Monomers are not combined in linear chain in elastomer but combined like net. So, it can be
streched like spring. The polymer comes into to its original position when force is removed. So,
elastomers contained elastic property. eg., natural rubber, styrene butadiene rubber. They have limited
cross bond. More cross linked bonds decreases the elastic property.
Fibers : If polymer chains are attracted by hydrogen bond or by dipole dipole forces are
called Fibers. e.g., nylon, polyacryonytrile.
Thermo setting polymers : The polymer does not become soft even at higher temperature is
called thermosetting polymer. e.g. bakelite, phenal than normal temperature formaldehyde and melamine.
Thermoplastic polymer : The polymer becomes soft at higher temperature and again
becomes inpfsible on cooling is called thermoplastic. e.g. PVC, polythene, teflon and polystyrene. This
polymer containes plasticity but does not containe elastic property. Hence, rubber contained elastic
property but not contained plasticlty.
Thermosetting polymer Thermoplastic polymer
(1) It is formed by condensation (1) It is formed by addition or condensation
polymerisation. polymerisation.
(2) Once it get shape it will be not melt. (2) It will become soft on heating and become
It will be burn, on long heating. hard by cooling.
(3) It can not be recycled. (3) It can be recycled.
(4) It possesses cross-linked structure. (4) It possess negligible cross linked.
(5) It is hard and strong. (5) It is soft and less strong than theomosetting.
(5) These polymers can not obtained again. (6) These polymers can obtained again.
(6) They are insoluble in organic solvent. (7) Some of them are soluble in organic
solvent.
639
Properties of polymer substances : Properties of polymers depends upon (i) structure of
molecule in them. (ii) Average molecular mass of them. If number of molecules are more with higher
molecular mass in any polymer then the boiling points, hardness of them is more. If number of
molecules are more with less molecular mass in any polymer then the density, boiling point and
hardness of them are less. In this type of polymers degree of polymerisation is high than its called
HDP and If degree of polymerisation is less than it is called LDP. Hard and durable instruments are
made from HDP while soft and low weight instruments are made from LDP.
Linear polymers like polyamide and polyester are used as synthetic Fibers. Synthetic fibers can
not combined with molecule of water by hydrogen bond in comparition of cotton. So, the cloth is
eaisyly dry which is formed by polyaminde and polyester fiber.
Changing in properties of polymers : For changing properties of polymer for different uses,
some substances are added in them.
(i) Inorganic substances like TiO2, BaSO4, CaCO3, SiO2 are added during polymerisation
reaction to introduced heardness, density in some polymer. These substabce are called
filler.
(ii) In some polymers organic substance like Trycresyle phosphate, glycerine phthalate,
tertiary butyl phthalate, olic acid are added to introduce property of softness. These
substance are called plasticizer.
(iii) In some substances, made from polymer crack observed in the prsence of sunlight. So
that, the life of it decreases. If phenol, cresol, quinole, carbon-black are added in that
polymers, the effect of sunlight is not observed. So, the degradation of this polymers can
be stopped. This organic substance are called antioxidant.
Cheracteristics of Polymers :
(i) Different instruments are formed easily from polymer and their weight is less.
(ii) Their is no effect of atmosphere and moisture on polymers. Whereas, their is harmfull
effect on metal, wood, leather, cotton cloth etc.
(iii) Different instruments can be prepared from polymer because of some properties like heat
resistant and non-conductor of electricity.
(iv) There is no effect of chemicals and insects on polymers.
(v) By adding proper useful substances in some polymer, we can change the properties.
(vi) Raw material is easily available and cheap for manufacturing of polymer.
Common methods of polymerisation

Mainly there are two types of polymerisation reaction : Addition and Condensation
polymerisation.
(i) Addition Polymerisation :
When same type of monomer containing one or more than one double bond are combined with
each other by chemical bonding then addition polymerisation takes place. This reaction take place
by free radical or carbocation or carbanion reactive intermediate which is produced from monomer.
The addition polymerisation take place in ethene, propene, styrene, 1, 3 butadiene, isobutylene, vinyl
640
chloride, vinyl nitryle.
In polymerisation, if two different types of monomers cotaining double bond combine alterna-
tively with each other by chemical bond then copolymer is formed. This polymerisation is called
addition copolymerisation. eg. Buna-S is obtained from butadiene and styrene monomers.
Free radical addition polymerisation
Addition polymerisation reaction take place by free radical reactive intermediate in unsaturated
compounds like alkene or diene and its derivatives. Free radical reactive intermediate is produced by
the use of initiators like 3° butyl peroxide in the first step of this reaction with the help of proper
temperature and pressure. This new free radical combine alternatively with many ehtene molecules
and at every step longer chain of new free radical is formed. At the end on the basis of reaction
condition, long chain of free radicals combine with each other to form polymer.
In + CH2 = CH2 → In CH2 CH2

·
}}}}}}
CH = CH
2
m 2
Initiater Ethene
In
( CH2 CH2
) CH2 CH2
·
}}}}}}}
nCH = CH
m2 2
· ·
In
( CH2 CH2
)n CH2 CH2 + CH2 CH2
( CH2 CH2
)n In
In
( CH2 CH2
)n CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 ( CH2 CH2
)n In
Polythene Polymer
Cationic addition polymerisation
Cationic reactive intermediate is produced by the use of initiators like acid in the first step of
this reaction at proper temperature and pressure. This reactive intermediate combined with many
`other monomers containing electron releasing group and double bond step by step. At the end
polymer is obtained in the presence of base.
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
| |
m
|
+
H + CH2 = C CH 3
– C CH 2 Cm
| | |
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
Initiator isobutylene
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
| | |
CH 3 – C – CH 2 – C + + nCH 2 C m
| | |
CH 3 CH 3 CH 3
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3

–
+ A
CH3 C CH2 C CH2 C CH3 C CH2 C CH = C
–HA
CH3 CH3 n CH3 CH3 CH3 n CH3
butyle rubber (polymer)
Anionic addition polymerisation
Anionic reactive intermediate is produced by the uses of initiators like pottasium amide in the
first step of this reaction at proper temperature and pressure. This reactive intermediate combined
step by step with many other monomers containing electron-withdrawing group and double bond. At
the end polymer is obtained in the presence of acid.
641
NH2 + CH2 = CH → H2NCH2 CH + CH2 = CH

Initiater styrene
→ H2N CH2 CH CH2 CH + nCH2 = CH →
+
H2N – CH2 – CH – CH 2 – CH – CH 2 – CH H
H2N – CH 2 – CH – CH 2 – CH2
n
polystyrene polymer
Condensation polymerisation
In this type of polymerisation condensation reaction repeatedly takes place between two
different type of monomers possessing two similar functional groups. As a result of this condensation
polymerisation reaction, simple molecules such as water, ammonia or alcohol are removed. Nylon 66
is obtained from hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid and terylene is obtained from dimethyl
terpthalate and ethyleneglycol monomers.
Natural rubber
Natural rubber is polymer of isoprene. In natural rubber all the double bonds have cis
sterochemistry. So, natural rubber is cis poly-isoprene. By making incision in the trunk of rubber
trees, the colloidal suspension of milky rubber in water, called latex is obtained.
CH3 H H
CH 2= C – CH = CH2 OR C–C
H2C CH2
2-methylbuta -1, 3 diene (cis-Isoprene)
(Isoprene)
CH3 H CH3 H
C=C CH2 CH2 C=C
CH 2 CH2 C=C CH2 CH2
CH3 H
Natural rubber [cis 1, 4-polyisoprene]
642
Limitation of Natural rubber
(i) Their efficiancy is not like plastic or they does not possess elastic properties.
(ii) They become dry at law tempareture and become soft at high tempareture. They can be
used at 10° C to 60° C temperature.
(iii) Its tensile strength is less. (Only 200 kg cm2)
(iv) Its water adsorbtion capacity is very high.
(v) They are oxidised by air easily.
(vi) Its resistance against tear and wear is less and less durable.
(vii) When force is applied it changes shape.
Vulcanisation
In 1893, Charles Goodyear discovered that mixture of natural rubber and sulphur when heated at
temperature 373 to 415 K its physical properties can be necessarily imporved to a spectacular manner.
This process is called vulcanisation. Thus added sulphur combined nearly to double-bond of
chain in natural rubber.
CH3 CH3
| |
..... CH2 C = CH CH2 CH2 C = CH CH2 .....
..... CH2 C – CH CH2 CH2 C = CH CH2 ......

| |
CH 3 CH 3
two chain of cis-polyisoprene
CH 3 CH 3
}}}}}}}}
+ S /heat m
vulcanisation
| |
..... CH 2 – C – CH – CH 2 – CH 2 – C – CH – CH 2 –.....
| | | |
S S S S
| | | |
..... CH 2 – C – CH – CH 2 – CH 2 – C – CH – CH 2 – .....
| |
CH 3 CH 3
(Vulcanised rubber)
Thus, vulcanisation make a substance strong due to cross linkage. Strength of vulcanised
rubber depended upon proportion of sulphur which is added during the reaction. eg. 5 % sulphur is
present in rubber which is used in tyres but 30 % sulphur is present in rubber which is used to
making battery-cases. Stretching speed of vulcanised rubber and its property of regains to its original
shape depend on cross linkage of sulphur.
S S
S S
S S s s
S Strech S
S Relax S
S S
S s
643
Molecular mass of polymers
(i) Number average molecularmass (M n )
d
4 Ni Mi
i 1
Mn =
d
4 Ni
i 1
N1M1 + N 2M 2 + N3M3
= N1 + N 2 + N3
(ii) Weight average molecular mass (Mw)

d
4NM i i
2
i 1
Mw =
d
4NM i i
i 1
N1M12 + N 2M 22 + N3M 32
= N M +N M +N M
1 1 2 2 3 3
Here, N1, N2, N3 is number of molecules havig molecular mass of M1, M2, M3 respectively.
Example : In a sample of polymer substance 30% molecules have 20,000 molecular mass,
40% molecules have 30,000 molecular mass and remaining molecule have 60,000 molecular mass.
Find out M w and M n .
Solution :
(30 ×20000) + (40 × 30000) + (30 × 60000)
Mn =
(30 + 40 + 30)
600000 + 1200000 + 1800000
=
100
3600000
= 36000
100
30 (20000) 2 + 40 (30000)2 + 30 (60000)2
Mw =
(30 × 20000) + (40 × 30000) + (30 × 60000)
(12 + 36 + 108) (1.0 × 109 )

=
(6 + 12 + 18) (1.0 × 105 )
4
= (156) (1.0 × 10 ) 43333
36
Poli Dispersity Index (PDI)
The ratio of mass and number average molecular mass (M w / M n ) is called polydispersity index (PDI).
Natural polymers are generally monodispersed, therefore PDI = 1. It means that M w = M n . Synthetic polymers
are always polydispersed, so PDI > 1. It means that M w > M n . Calculation of number average molecular mass
( M n ) in any polymer is depends upon the number of molecules present in the polymer sample.
644
Molar mass of single molecule present is polymer substance can be calculated by light
scattering, chromatographic and ultracentrifuge methods.
Biopolymers
The polymer substances present in the nature such as polysaccharide, protien and nucleic acid
which are very useful for the human life are called biopolymers.
Synthetic polymer substances shows inertness towards the enviromental process. In every day
use synthetic polymer substances can not be easily degraded. So it is not converted in to life
essential products. These type non-biodegradable polymer waste is an acute problem. As a result
environmental problems have been created.
The degradation of biopolymers which takes place mainly by enzymes, hydrolysis. There is no
issue of its disposal. So synthetic biodegradable polymers can be synthesised, which are convenient to
living system. Using some aliphatic substances as monomer, many polymers are industrially prepared
and some polymers of them possesses biodegradable properties.
Poly-Hydroxy Butyrate-Cob- Hydroxyvalerate (PHBV)

PHBV is the co-polymer of polyester class polymer. It is prepared from b-hydroxy butyric acid
monomer and b hydroxy valeric acid monomer by copolymerisation condensation reaction. It
possesses biodegradable character. There is stiffness property of b- hydroxy butyric acid and has
flexibility property of bhydroxy valeric acid.
nHO CH CH2 COOH + nHO CH – CH2 – COOH

| |
CH3 CH2 – CH3
b-hydroxybutyric acid b-Hydroxyvaleric acid
}}}}}}}}m
– O – CH – CH2 – COO – CH – CH2 – CO –
Polymerization | |
– nH O2 CH3 CHH2– CH3
n
(PHBV)
PHBV is used in special types of packaging and in orthopaedic devices and in capsules for
filling controlled release of drugs. When a drug is enclosed in a capsule of PHBV, it is released only
when the the polymer is degraded in the body. PHBV also undergoes bacterial degradation in
enviornmental condition.
PGA (Polyglycolic acid) and PLA (Polylactic acid)
PGA and PLA are prepared industrially. Dextran is the first biodegradable polyestester polymer
used for post operative stitches.
Nylon-2 nylon-6 is of polyamide class co-polymer and obtained by condensation polymerisation

reaction of two different types monomers, glycine and aminocaproic acid. It is a biodegradable
polymer.
645
On the On the On the On the On the
basis of source basis of structure basis of basis of basis of growth
polymerisation molecular of polymerisation
reaction forces reaction
1. Natural polymers 1. Linear 1. Addition 1. Elastomer 1. Addition
e.g. protein, eg. cotton, wool, polymer. eg. natural polymerisation
starch nylon e.g. polystyrene rubber reaction
e.g. PVC, PTFE
2. Semi synthetic 2. Branched 2. Homopolymer 2. Fibers 2. Condensation
polymer e.g. PVC, Teflone e.g. neoprene e.g. terylene polymerisation
e.g. rayon reaction
e.g. nylon - 66
3. Synthetic polymers 3. Cross linked 3. Copolymer 3. Thermoplastic
e.g. synthetic eg. nylon-6 e.g. plythene,
rubbers, synthetic e.g. bakelite PHBV PVC
fibers
4. Condensation 4. Thermoseting
polymer polymers
e.g. teflon e.g. bakelite
1. Which polymer is obtain by condensation polymerisation ?

(A) Polythene (B) Teflon
(C) Phenol formaldehyde resin (D) Nitrile rubber
2. Natural rubber is polymer of which monomer ?
(A) ethelene (B) vinyl (C) phenol (D) isoprene
3. Which synthetic polymer is obtained from caprolectum ?
(A) Nylon-6 (B) Teflon (C) Terylene (D) Nylon-6
4. Synthetic polymer (Neoprene) is ....... .
(A) polyester (B) polyamide (C) polysacarine (D) polychloroprene
5. Which of the following type is polyamide ?
(A) Nylon (B) Orlon (C) Teflon (D) Terylene
6. How impurity of polymer solution is measure ?
(A) adsorption of light by solution (B) emmision of light by solution
(C) scattering of light by solution (D) none of these
7. In which of the following peptie bond is present ?
(A) Polysaccharide (B) Protein (C) Nucleotide (D) Vitamine
8. Synthetic hair wig of humane is copolymer, which is prepared from vinylchloride and acrilo
nytrile. What is it ?
(A) PVC (B) PAN (C) Cellulose (D) Dynel
646
9. Which synthetic polymer is like natural rubber ?
(A) Neoprene (B) Chloroprene (C) Gyptal (D) Nylon (E) None of these
(A) trans isoprene (B) cis isoprene
(C) none of these (D) S.N trans-isoprene
11. Orlon is polymer of which monomer ?
(A) Tetrafluoro ethylene (B) Acrylonitrile
(C) Ethanoic acid (D) Benzen
12. Which fibers are of polyamide type ?
(A) Decron (B) Orlon (C) Nylon (D) Rayon
13. Bakelite is obtained by reaction between which substances ?
(A) Formaldehyde and Quinol. (B) Aniline and Urea
(C) Phenol and Methanal (D) Phenol and Chloroform
14. Which one is the raw material of Nylon ?
(A) adipic acid (B) butadiene rubber (C) isoprene (D) ethylene
15. Polyethene polymer is made from ...... monomer.
(A) CH2 = CH2 (B) CH2 = CCl2 (C) CHCl = CHCl (D) CH2 = CHCl
16. Which of the following is an example of thermosetting polymer ?
(A) Polythene (B) Neoprene (C) PVC (D) Bakelite
17. With whom phenol is reactaed Backelite obtained ?
(A) Polythene (B) Acetyle (C) Formaldihyde (D) Chlaro Benzene
18. Which catalyst is used in preparation of polythene by ziegler-Natta method ?
(A) Lithium tetrachloride and tryphenyl Aluminium
(B) Titanium tetrachloride and triethyl aluminium
(C) Titanium
(D) Titanium isoperoxide
19. Which of the following pair is not true ?
(A) Terylene : Condensation polymer of terphtalic acid and ethylene glycol
(B) Teflon : Cross linking stable polymer prepared from phenol and formaldehyde.
(C) Glyptal : It is homopolymer of methyl metha crylate
(D) Synthetic rubber : It is condensation polymer of butadiene and styrene.
20. Which is the product of Addition polymerisation ?
(A) PVC (B) Nylon (C) Terylene (D) Polyamide
21. Which is the natural Bio-polymer ?
(A) Teflon (B) Nylon-66 (C) Rubber (D) DNA
647
22. Tetrafluoro ethene is monomer of which polymer ?
(A) Ethelene (B) PVC (C) Teflon (D) Nylon-66
23. Which of the following is chain polymer ?
(A) Bakelite (B) Ethelene (C) Teflon (D) PVC
24. What is an ebonixe ?
(A) Natural rubber (B) Synthetic rubber
(C) Hard valcanized rubber (D) Poly-propene
25. Bakelite is obtained by reaction between which substances ?
(A) Urea and formaldehyde
(B) Phenol and formaldehyde
(C) Tetra methylene glycol and hexamethylisocynate
(D) Ethylene glycol and dimethylterphatalate.
26. High molecular mass present in ...... polymer.
(A) elastomer (B) fiber
(C) thermoplastic (D) thermosetting plastic
27. PMMA is polymer of which monomer ?
(A) methyl methacrylate (B) methacrylate (C) methylacrylate (D) ethylacrylate
28. Bekelite is obtained by reaction between phenol and formaldehyde, then in first step the
reaction between two substances show example of ?
(A) aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction
(B) aromatic nucleophilic substitution reaction
(C) free dradical reaction
(D) aldol reaction
29. Glyptal polymer is obtained by reaction between glycerol and which substance ?
(A) melonic acid (B) phthalic acid (C) maleic acid (D) acetic acid
30. ...... is monomer of Teflon polymer.
(A) Difluoro ethene (B) Mono fluoro ethene (C) Tetra fluoro ethene (D) Tetra chloro ethene
31. Which polymer is not addition polymer ?
(A) Polythene (B) Polystyrene (C) Neoprene (D) Terylene
32. Which polymer is used in manufacturing of non-stick kitchen vessels ?
(A) PVC (B) Polystyren
(C) Polyethene (D) Polytetrafluoroethene
33. Which is the example of addition polymer ?
(A) Buna-S (B) Bakelite (C) Nylon-6 (D) Melamine
34. Which of the following is copolymer ?
(A) Nylon-6 (B) Nylon-6 6 (C) PMMA (D) Polyethene
35. Which polymer possesses isoprene monomer ?
(A) Natural rubber (B) Nylon-6, 6 (C) Polyethene (D) Deoron
648
36. Which polymer is not synthetic ?
(A) Polyethene (B) PVC (C) Nylon (D) Cellofen
37. Which of the following is not true for polymer ?
(A) Polymer does not possesses any type of electric charge.
(B) Polymer have high density.
(C) They can scatter of light
(D) They have low molecular mass
38. In which class, polymer can be classified on the basis of preparation method ?
(A) Only Addition polymer (B) Only condensation polymer
(C) Co-polymer (D) (A) and (B) Both
(A) butadiene (B) ethyne (C) styrene (D) isoprene
40. Terlyene is condensation polymer of ethelen glycol and ...... ?
(A) benzoic acid (B) acetic acid (C) terephthalic acid (D) salicylic acid
41. Zieglar-Natta catalyst is ...... .
(A) K[pyCl3 (C244] (B) (ph3p)3 RhCl (C) Al2 (C2H5)6 + TiCl4 (D) Fe(C2H5)2
42. Preparation of Nylon-66 is possible by condensation of HMDA with,
(A) phenol (B) benzaldehyde (C) adipic acid (D) sucsinic acid
43. The reaction of heating of natural rubber with sulphur is known as ......
(A) galvanization (B) vulcanisation (C) nitration (D) sulphonation
44. Terylene is obtained by polymerisation of terepthelic acid and ......
(A) ethelene glycol (B) phenol (C) ethanol (D) catacol
45. Teflon, styrene and neoprene all are ...... .
(A) co-polymer (B) condensation polymer (C) homopolymer (D) monomer
46. Which type of intermolecular attraction force are present in Nylon-66 ?
(A) Van der waals (B) hydrogen bond
(C) dipolar-dipolar attraction (D) none of these
47. CF2 = CF2 is monomer of which of the following polymer ?
(A) Teflon (B) Glyptal (C) Nylon-6 (D) Buna-S

48. Generally soft-drink bottle and baby feeding bottle is made from which of the following
polymer ?
(A) polyester (B) polyurethin (C) polyamide (D) polystyrene
49. Which polymer is used in preparation of bulletproof glass ?
(A) PMMA (B) Lexan (C) Nomex (D) Kevlar
649
50. Which of the following substance is used for making Nylon ?
(A) adipic acid (B) styrene (C) teflon (D) phenol
51. What is obtained by polymerisation of Caprolectum ?
(A) Terylene (B) Teflon (C) Gyptal (D) Nylon6
52. How polyvinyl alcohol is obtained ?
(A) By polymerisation of vinyl alcohol
(B) By hydrolysis of polyvinyl acetate in basic medium
(C) By polymerisation of acetelene
(D) Reaction of acetelene with H2SO4 in presence of HgSO4

53. Which pair is not true ?
(A) Nylon : –[ CH 2 – C = CH – CH 2 –]n

|
Cl
O
&
(B) Nylon-66 : [ NH ( CH2 ) 6 NHCO – ( CH2 ) 4 C – O ] n
(C) Terylene : –[ OCH 2 – CH 2O – C C –]n

|| ||
O O
CH3
(D) PMMA CH2 C n
COOCH3
54. Which of the following is polyamide type polymer ?

(A) Terylene (B) Rayon (C) Nylon-6 (D) Polystyrene
CH3
55. – C – CH2–n is obtained from which monomer ?
CH3
(A) 2-methylpropene (B) styrene (C) propylene (D) ethene

56. Which is the condensation polymer ?
(A) Decron (B) PVC (C) Polystyrene (D) Teflon
57. Which catalyst is used for polymerisation of polythene ?
(A) Ziglar Nata catalyst (B) Vilfinshan catalyst
(C) Palladium catalyst (D) Zeiesh solt complex
58. Which compound is used in pigment ?
(A) Terylene (B) Nylon (C) Glyptal (D) Chloroprene
650
59. Cellulose acetate is ......
(A) Natural polymer (B) Semisynthetic (C) Synthetic (D) Plasticizer
60. Cellulose diacetate is ......
(A) natural polymer (B) semisynthetic polymer (C) synthetic polymer (D) plasticizer
61. Teflon is polymer of ......
(A) tetrafluoro ethylene (B) tetraiodo ethylene
(C) tetrabromo ethylene (D) tetrachloro ethylene
62. Bakelite is prepared by
(A) reaction between phenol and formaldehyde.
(B) reaction between phenol and polyethene.
(C) reaction of polypropene with acid.
(D) reaction between phenol and ethylene glycol.
63. Which are monomer units of Nylon 66 ?
(A) Hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid.
(B) Hexamethylenediamine and phthalic acid.
(C) Only hexamethylene.
(D) Only phthalic acid.
64. Natural rubber is which type of polymer ?

(A) Condensation polymer (B) Addition polymer
(C) Complet polymer (D) None of these
65. Which of the following is protein ?
(A) Nylon (B) Rayon (C) Natural silk (D) Terydene
66. In which of the following substance ester group is present ?
(A) Nylon (B) Polyethene (C) Terylene (D) PVC
67. Natural rubber is polymer of ...... .
(A) isoprene (B) styrene (C) ethelene (D) butadiene
68. Which polymer is used as fiber in tyres of vehicle ?
(A) Terylene (B) polythene (C) Nylon6 (D) Bakelite
69. Acrilan has very high melting point then what is the structure of it ?
CH
¥ – CH 2 – CH –µ | 3 CH2 - CH -
¦ | ¶ CH2 – C– ¥– CH 2 – CH –µ
(A) ¦ CN ¶· (B) | (C) (D)
§ ¦ | ¶
n COOCH3 COOC 2H5 n ¦ Cl ¶·
n § n
651
70. From which, Nylon fibers are prepared ?
(A) Polyamide polymer (B) Poly ethelen polymer
(C) Polyvinyl polymer (D) Polyester polymer
71. Bakelite is polymer of ...... .
(A) HCHO and acetic acid (B) HCHO and phenol
(C) C2H5OH and phenol (D) CH3COOH and Benzene
72. Which polymer is biodegradable ?
(A) Cellulose (B) polythene (C) Polyvinyl chloride (D) Nylon-6
73. Naylon-66 is not ...... .
(A) condensation polymer (B) co-polymer (C) polyamide (D) homopolymer
74. Which polymer is chain growth polymer ?
(A) Starch (B) Nucleic acid (C) Polystyrene (D) protein
75. Which of the following is monomer of orlon ?
(A) Vinyl cynide (B) Acrolein (C) Glycole (D) Isoprene
76. Which polymer is obtained from CF2 = CF2?
(A) Neoprene (B) Teflon (C) Pinacole (D) PVC
77. Which substance is used for making a strong rubber for tyres ?
(A) Wax (B) 1, 3 butadiene (C) CaC 2 (D) Carbon black
78. Which are the monomers of Nylon-66 ?
(A) Butadiene and Acrylonitrile (B) Ethelen glycol and Terepthelic acid
(C) Hexa methylene diamine and Adipic acid (D) Melamine and Formaldehyde
79. The value of number average number molecular mass and weight average molecular mass is
30,000 and 40,000 respectively then, what is the value of PDI ?
(A) < 1 (B) > 1 (C) 1 (D) 0
80. Which initiator is used in cationic polymerisation reaction ?
(A) BuLi (B) LiAlH4 (C) HNO 3 (D) AlCl3
81. Thermosetting polymer bakelite is obtained by the reaction of phenol with ...... .
(A) CH3CHO (B) HCHO (C) HCOOH (D) CH3CH2CHO
82. Which polymer have very weak intermolecular attraction force ?
(A) Nylon (B) Polyvinylchloride (C) Cellulose (D) Natural rubber
652
83. Co-polymer Buna-N is prepared from which monomer ?
(A) CH2 = CH CN and CH2 = CH C = CH2
|
CH3
Cl
|
(B) CH2 = CH Cl = CH2 and H2C = CH CH = CH2
(C) H2C = CH CH = CH2 and H6C6 CH = CH2

(D) H2C = CH CN and H2C = CH CH = CH2
84. Bakelite is obtained by the reaction between phenol and ...... .
(A) HCHO (B) (CH 2OH) 2 (C) CH 3CHO (D) CH 3COCH 3
85. The value of PDI for natural polymer is ...... .
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) very high value (D) 100
86. What is the formula of number average molecular mass ?
¤N M 2
¤N M ¤N M 2
¤M N
(A) M n
¤N (B) Mn
¤N
i i
¤N M ¤N
i i
(C) M n i i (D) M n i i
i i i i i
87. In one sample 30% molecules have 20,000 molecular mass and 40% molecules have 30,000
molecular mass and other have 60,000 molecular mass then what is the value of Mn is?
(A) 3,60,000 (B) 36,000 (C) 46,000 (D) 50,000

88. In one polymer 30% molecules have 20,000 molecular mass, 40% molecules have 30,000
molecular mass and other have 60,000 molecular mass than what is the value of M w ?
(A) 43,000 (B) 43,333 (C) 50,000 (D) 46,000

89. Which polymer is not example of chain polymer ?
(A) Nylon (B) Buna-S (C) PMMA (D) Glyptal
90. Which polymer is example of Fibers ?
(A) Silk (B) Decron (C) Nylon-66 (D) all of these
91. Natural rubber is which type of polymer ?
(A) Condensation polymer (B) Addition polymer (C) Polyamide (D) None.
92. [NH (CH2) NH CO (CH2)4 CO]n is ...... .
(A) thermosetting (B) homopolymer (C) copolymer (D) addition polymer
93. Which is not example of condensation polymer ?
(A) Melamine (B) Gliptal (C) Decron (D) Neoprene
94. Which polymer possess strong inter-molecular force like Hydrogn bond ?
(A) Natural rubber (B) Teflon (C) Nylon-66 (D) Polystyrene
95. ...... is not a polymer from the following.
(A) Ice (B) Starch (C) Protein (D) Cellulose
96. Which polymer is flourine base ?
(A) Neoprene (B) Teflon (C) Pinakol (D) PVC
653
97. In elastomer intermolecular attraction force is ...... .
(A) zero (B) weak (C) strong (D) very strong
98. Cellulose is polymer of ...... .
(A) fructose (B) ribose (C) glucose (D) sucrose
99. PVC is used ...... .
(A) in making of cosmetic (B) in making of tyres
(C) in making of non-stick pan (D) in making of plastic pipe
100. ...... polymer is used in manufacturing of contact lens for eyes.
(A) Polymethyle methephilite (B) Polythene
(C) polyethyle acrilyte (D) Nylon-6
101. Which polymer is used in preparation of magnetic recording tap ?
(A) Decron (B) Acrelin (C) Terylene (D) Bakelite
102. Which of the following is not a polymer of following ?
(A) Silk (B) DNA (C) DDT (D) Starch
103. Perlone is ...... .
(A) rubber (B) nylon-6 (C) terylene (D) orlon
104. Ebonyte is ...... .
(A) polypropene (B) natural rubber (C) synthetic rubber (D) valcanised rubber
105. ...... polymer is used in bulletproof glass.
(A) Lenan (B) PMMA (C) Nomex (D) Kevaler
106. Which of the following statement is false ?
(A) Synthetic silk is made from cellulose.
(B) Nylon-66 is a example of an elastomer.
(C) Isoprene is a repeating unit in Natural rubber.
(D) Starch and cellulose both are polymer of glucose.
107. Arrange the given polymer in descending order according to their intermoleculer attraction
force. (i) Nylon-66 (ii) Buna-S (iii) Polyethen
(A) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (B) (ii) > (iii) > (iii) (C) (ii) < (iii) < (i) (D) (iii) < (i) < (ii)
108. Which is the used in valcanized rubber ?
(A) SF6 (B) CF4 (C) Cl2F2 (D) C2F2

109. Aarlon is polymer of ...... .
(A) styrene (B) tetrachloro ethelene
(C) vinyl chloride (D) acrylonitrile
110. Which polymer has very weak intermoleculer attration forces ?
(A) Nylon (B) Polyvinyl chloride (C) Cellulose (D) Natural rubber
654
111. Reyon fibers are made from ......
(A) polymethelene (B) polyester (C) cellulose (D) styrene
112. Natural rubber is ......
(A) polymer of buta-1,3-diene (B) polymer of ethylene
(C) polymer of 2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene (D) polymer of styrine
113. ...... is the product of addition polymerisation reaction.
(A) PVC (B) Nylon (C) Terylene (D) Polyamide
114. Which of the following is not a polymer ?
(A) sucrose (B) catalyst (C) starch (D) teflon
115. In present time, which one is used in coating of tyres ?
(A) Terylene (B) Polythene (C) Polypropen (D) Nylon-6
116. Protein is ...... .
(A) polyester (B) polyamide (C) polythene (D) polyanhydride
117. Which of the following polymer is used in valve packing ?
(A) Teflon (B) Terylene (C) Polystyrene (D) Polythene
118. What percentage of sulphur present valcanised rubber used in manufacturing of tyre ?
(A) 5 % (B) 3 % (C) 30 % (D) 55.0 %
119. ...... is used in preparation of plastic crokery of household.
(A) Melamine and tetrachloroethan (B) Melenoied acid and hexamethelenamine
(C) Melamine and vinyl acetate (D) Melamine and formaldehyde
120. The repeating unit in PTFE is
(A) CF2CF2 (B) CH2CH2 (C) CF3CF3 (D) CH2CH (CN)
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (D), 3. (D), 4. (D), 5. (A), 6. (C), 7. (B), 8. (D), 9. (A), 10. (B),
11. (B), 12. (C), 13. (C), 14. (A), (15. (A), 16. (D), 17. (C), 18. (B), 19. (B),
20. (A), 21. (D), 22. (C), 23. (D), 24. (C), 25. (C), 26. (D), 27. (A), 28. (A),
29. (B), 30. (C), 31. (D), 32. (D), 33. (A), 34. (B), 35. (A), 36. (D), 37. (D),
38. (D), 39. (D), 40. (C), 41. (C), 42. (C), 43. (B), 44. (A), 45. (C), 46. (B),
47. (A), 48. (D), 49. (B), 50. (A), 51. (D), 52. (B), 53. (B), 54. (C), 55. (A),
56. (A), 57. (A), 58. (C), 59. (A), 60. (B), 61. (A), 62. (A), 63. (A), 64. (B),
65. (C), 66. (C), 67. (A), 68. (C), 69. (A), 70. (A), 71. (B), 72. (A), 73. (D),
74. (C), 75. (A), 76. (B), 77. (D), 78. (C), 79. (B), 80. (B), 81. (B), 82. (D),
83. (D), 84. (A), 85. (B), 86. (B), 87. (B), 88. (B), 89. (D), 90. (D), 91. (B),
92. (C), 93. (D), 94. (C), 95. (A), 96. (B), 97. (B), 98. (C), 99. (D), 100. (A),
101. (D), 102. (C), 103. (B), 104. (D), 105. (A), 106. (B), 107. (A), 108. (A),
109. (D), 110. (D), 111. (C), 112. (C), 113. (A), 114. (A), 115. (D), 116. (B),
117. (A), 118. (A), 119. (D), 120. (A).

655
26 Biomolecules
Classification of Carbohydrates
↓ ↓
Sugar Nonsugar
Crystalline, water soluble, Amorphous, water insoluble,
sweet in taste. tastless.
Also known as polysaccharide
It hydrolyzed to many
monosaccharide molecules.
They have complex structure.
e.g. starch, cellulose, glycogens,
dextrin etc.
↓ ↓
Monosaccharide Oligosaccharide
Simple carbohydrates. It hydrolyzes to 2 to 4
Do not hydrolyze monosaccharide molecules in
Common formula (CH2O)n presence of H+/enzyme.
where n = 210
eg. glucose, fructose [In both n = 6.]
↓ ↓ ↓
Monosaccharide Disaccharide Trisaccharide Tetrasaccharide
molecules obtained on 2 3 4
hydrolysis
Common → CnH2n2On1 CnH2n4On2 CnH2n6On3
formula where n = 1012
eg. → Sucrose, maltose, Raffinose (melitriose) Stachyose
lectose, cellobiose C18H32O16
[All have C12H22O11 formula]
Nomenclature of Carbohydrates
Generally the compounds of carbohydrate class contain ose suffix in their names. e.g.,
glucose, fructose, lactose, sucrose, maltose, raffinose, stachyose.
Monosaccharides are classified according to number of carbon atoms and functional group.
Different types of monosaccharides
No. of carban Common Aldehyde Keton
atoms name group group
3 triose aldotriose ketotriose
4 tetrose aldotetrose ketotetrose
5 pentose aldopentose ketopentose
6 hexose aldohexose ketohexose
(eg. glucose) (eg. fructose)
7 heptose aldoheptose ketoheptose
656
Six membered [5 C atoms and 1 O atom] and five membered [4 C atoms and 1 O atom]
cyclic compounds are mentioned by word pyranose and furanose respectively.
Example : Glucose : glucopyranose
Fructose : Fructofuranose
HC CH CH2 O
Structure : HC CH HC CH
O CH CH
Furan Pyran
1. Which biomolecule fulfills basic requirements of human life like foods, clothes and abode ?
(A) Enzyme (B) Vitamin (C) Carbohydrate (D) Protein
2. Which compound is not known as hydrate of carbon ?
P : starch Q : cellobiose R : melitriose S : rhamnose
(A) Only R (B) P and S (C) Q and R (D) Only S
3. Carboydrate, which does not hydrolyze is
(A) CnH2n4On2 (B) (CH2O)n (C) CnH2n2On1 (D) CnH2n6On3
H or
+
4. Stachyose + water enzyme x monosaccharide molecules. x = ......
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) numberous

5. In a cyclic structure of fructose there are four carbon atoms and one oxygen atom present in
cyclic form, so what is called for it ?
(A) fructopyranose (B) fructotetrose (C) fructofuranose (D) fructooxose
6. What is the ratio of σ and π in pyranose structure ?
(A) 6 : 1 (B) 5 : 2 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 8 : 3
7. What element is x in a structure of furan ?
x
(A) N (B) S (C) P (D) O
8. Which carbohydrate is different from others ?
(A) cellobiose (B) cellulose (C) glycogen (D) dextrin
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (D), 3. (B), 4. (B), 5. (C), 6. (A), 7. (D), 8. (A)
Monosaccharide
Glucose (grapesugar) :
Source : Ripe fruits, honey, grapes (2025 % glucose)
Preparation :
(i) C12H22O11 + H2O }}}}m

dil.HCl
or C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
source (sugar) dil.H2SO4 glucose fructose

(cane sugar) hydrolysis
+ excess alcohol
↓
Glucose is separated by filtration ← Insoluble glucose
657
(ii) Industrial procedure :
(C6H10O5)n + nH2O }}}}}

393 K m nC H
dil.H SO2 4
6 12
O6
starch 2-3 bar pressure glucose

hydrolysis
Structure of glucose
Open chain structure of glucose :
Empirical formula : CH2O, molecular formula : C6H12O6

Structure of glucose based on chemical properties
HI
CH3(CH2)4CH3 six carbon atoms of
reduction n-hexane glucose are linked in
linear chain
}}}}
HCNm
hydrogen HOCH2 (CHOH)4 CH CN
cyanide |
OH
glucose cyanohydrin Carbonyl group is
present in glucose
→ ( C=O )
addition reactions }}}}}

NH OH
m
2 HOCH2(CHOH)4CH = NOH
hydroxyl glucosemonoxime
amine
C6H12O6 }}}}}}}
C H NHNH
6
m5 2 glucosephenyl hydrazone
glucose phenyl hydrazine
}}}}}m
Br water
2 HOCH2 (CHOH)4 COOH
gluconic acid (CHO) aldehyde
→ group is present in
}}}}m
Tollen’s
reagent Ag(s) glucose
}}}}}}
oxidation m
reactions sliver mirror
}}}}}
reagent m
Fehling’s
Cu2O
red ppts
Strong at one end CHO group
oxi. agent HOOC(CHOH)4COOH and at other end CH2OH
}}}}}}m
Conc. HNO saccharic acid
3
→ group is present in glucose
[O] (Number of carbon equal to glucose) OHCCCCCCH2OH
chain is present.
}}}}}}
anhy. ZnCl m
(CH CO) O
3 2
2
glucose pentaacetate 5OH groups are present
658
From above chemical properties linear structure of glucose
CHO
|
CHOH
|
CHOH or CHO
| |
CHOH (CHOH) 4
| |
CHOH CH 2OH
|
CH 2OH
9. What happens when sucrose is reacted with dilute H2SO4 ?

(A) dehydration (B) reduction (C) oxidation (D) hydrolysis
10. What empirical formula mass is obtained in gram unit on analysis of glucose ?
(A) 30 (B) 60 (C) 90 (D) 180
11. With which reagent, presence of six carbon containing long chain is determined in glucose by
reduction reaction ?
(A) HCN (B) HI (C) Br2 water (D) HNO 3
12. Glucose + HCN → cyanohydrin. This reaction shows presence of which group in glucose ?
(A) >C = O (B) CHO (C) OH (D) COOH
13. By which reagent/reagents glucose can be identified ?
P : CHCl3 + alco. KOH Q : [Ag(NH3)2]+ R : Cu2+ + OH
(A) Only Q (B) Only R (C) P and Q (D) Q and R
14. In which of the following, glucose is not classified ?
(A) carbohydrate (B) hexose
(C) aldose (D) oligosaccharide
15. Glucose }}}}}}

conc. HNO m
[O]
3
Z product. What is molecular formula of Z ?
Answers : 9. (D), 10. (A), 11. (B), 12. (A), 13. (D), 14. (D), 15. (B)
Configuration of glucose
An arrangement of atoms or groups of molecule in space is called the configuration of that compound
Scientist Emil Fischer determined the configuration of glucose after studying many reactions.
C HO C HO
H OH HO H
HO H H OH
H OH HO H
H OH HO H
CH2OH CH2OH
D-(+) Glucose L-() Glucose
659
The value of rotation of plane polarized light shown by optically active organic compound is measured
by polarimeter instrument.
Enantiomers : (i) D and L objects
(ii) d or (+) or dextrorotatory and l or () or levorotatory substances
There is no direct relation of D and L with d or l.
Formala of specific rotation,
T α
[α] = →
λ l×C
where, (α) = specific rotation l = length of tube (in decimeter)
λ = wavelength of the incident light (10 cm = 1 dm)
(D symbol is used for wavelength of C = concentration of compound
sodium light) (gram ml1)
α = observed angle of rotation (by polarimeter) T = Temperature (K)
16. What indicates, symbol D in carbohydrate ?
(A) dextrorotatory (B) process of synthesis (C) configuration (D) dimagnetic nature
17. If optically active organic substance shows anticlockwise rotation of plane polarized light then
what is that substance ?
(A) levorotatory (B) dextro rotatory (C) +ve (D) dextro
18. C H 2 O H Which is configuration of fructose ?

|
C = O
|
HO – C – H
|
H – C – OH
|
H – C – OH
|
C H 2O H
(A) d (B) L (C) D (D) l

19. Fructose has a specific rotation of (92.4o). An aqueous solution of a fructose has an
observed angle of rotation of (27.7o) when placed in a polarimeter tube 10 cm long. How
much amount of fructose is dissolved in 100 ml of aqueous solution ?
(A) 0.299 gm.ml1 (B) 3.33 gm.ml1 (C) 2.99 gm.ml1 (D) 33.3 gm.ml1
20. The observed angle of rotation of 15 g maltose containing 100 ml of aqueous solution in a
polarimeter tube of 20 cm length is 40.8°. What is the specific rotation of this solution of
maltose ?
(A) + 122.4o (B) + 13.6o (C) + 12.24o (D) + 136o
21. Specific rotation value of 0.33 gm.ml 1 aqueous solution is known
(92.4o) by polarimeter. If polarimeter tube used in the measurement has length of 10 cm
then what is the observed value for rotation ?
(A) 304.9o (B) 30.49o (C) 3.049o (D) 0.3049o
Answers : 16. (C), 17. (A), 18. (C), 19. (A), 20. (D), 21. (B)
660
Cyclic structure of glucose
Does not give violet colour k}}}}}}}

schiff’s reagent glucose }}}}}
NaHSO
m 3
no addition reaction.
Glucose shows mutarotation.
Open chain structure of glucose cannot be explained by all these reactions.
Fischer, Tollens, Tanret, Haworth and Hirst have suggested cyclic structure of glucose.
CH2OH
H OH
O
H OH H H
O H
HO H
OH H
H OH HO OH
H
CH2OH H OH
αD(+)glucose αD(+)glucose
(Fischer projection) (Haworth projection)
CH2OH
HO H
O
H OH H OH
O H
HO H
OH H
H OH HO H
H
CH2OH H OH
βD(+)glucose βD(+)glucose
(Fischer projection) (Haworth projection)
α and βD(+) glucose are anomers becaue they differ in configuration at (C1) anomeric
carbon.
Aqueous solution of glucose shows mutarotation. Freshly prepared aqueous solution of
αD(+) glucose (obtained by crystallization from ehyl alcohol or glacial acetic acid), shows
specific rotation + 112o which decreases after some time to + 52.5o, while freshly prepared
aqueous solution of βD (+) glucose (obtained by crystallization from pyridine) shows specific
rotation + 19o which decreases after some time to + 52.5o. This observation shows that, in a
molecule of glucose free CHO group is not present.
H–C=O
H OH HO H
H OH
H OH H OH
O HO H O
HO H HO H
H OH
H OH H OH
H H OH
H
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
αD(+)glucose βD(+)glucose
(36 %) (64 %)
661
It can be easily understood by haworth projection also
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

O C OH O
H H H H OH
H H H
* C CHO *
OH H OH H OH H
HO OH HO HO H
C C
H OH H OH H OH
αD(+)glucose βD(+) glucose
Fructose
White crystalline, water soluble, partially soluble in alcohol, insoluble in ether.
Levorotatary
Sweetness is higher compared to all other sugars
Molecular formula is C6H12O6, kethohexose
C2 is anomeric carbon
Shows mutarotation property.
CH 2OH HOH2C O CH2OH

CH 2OH HOH2C OH
| |
CO C=O HO H
O
| | H H HO OH
H OH
(CHOH)3 HO – C – H
| | H
CH 2OH H – C – OH OH H
| CH2OH
H – C – OH
|
CH 2OH
Fructose D() Fructose αD() αD()
(Open chain (Configuration of Fructose Fructose
structure) gructose) (Fischer projection) (Haworth projection)
22. Which of the following statement is wrong for glucose ?
(A) It shows mutarotation property.
(B) It does not give addition product with HSO3.
(C) αD(+) and βD(+) glucose are epimers.
(D) It does not give violet colour with Schiffs reagent.
23. Which is true for structure (i) and (ii) ?
CH2OH CH2OH
O O
H H H OH
H H
OH H OH H
HO OH HO H
H OH H OH
(i) (ii)
(A) (i) is βD(+) glucose and (ii) is αD(+) glucose.
(B) They are anomers of glucose
(C) They are enantiomers of glucose
(D) It is a mixture of D and L glucose
662
24. Freshly prepared aqueous solution of glucose obtained by crystallization from pyridine shows
spectific rotation ......
(A) + 112o (B) + 52.5o (C) + 19o (D) 52.5o
25. What is the proportion of αD(+) glucose and βD(+) glucose respectively in the solution
of glucose having specific rotation value with +52.5° ?
(A) 64 %, 36 % (B) 36 %, 64 % (C) 50 %, 50 % (D) 60 %, 40 %
26. How many numbers of chiral carbon is there in βD(+) glucose ?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 2
27. Which of the following characteristics is/are shown by fructose ?
P : amorphous substance Q : levorotatory
R : mutarotation S : soluble in alcohol
(A) only R (B) P and S (C) Q and R (D) P, Q, R and S
Answers : 22. (C), 23. (B), 24. (C), 25. (B), 26. (C), 27. (C)
Disaccharides
Hydrolysis of disaccharide by diluted acid or enzyme gives same type or two different
types of monosaccharides.
In disaccharides, the linkage of two monosaccharides joined with each other by linkage
of oxygen atom is called glycosidic linkage.
Disaccharides are sweet in taste, crystalline, water soluble, insoluble in alcohol. Except
sucrose, maltose and lactose are reducing sugar and shows mutarotation.
(i) Sucrose (Sugar cane) :
Hydrolysis :
C12H22O11 + H2O }}}}m

dil acid
or CH 6 12
O6 + C6H12O6
↓ invertase glucose fructose
specific rotation
↓
of aqueous solution resulting mixture is
is + 66.5 levorotatory (20o)
Thus, the process of change in sign of rotation of sucrose solution is called inversion. The
mixture of glucose and fructose obtained at the end of hydrolysis is called invert sugar.
Sugar Sweetness-index
Sucrose (standard) 100

Glucose 74
Fructose 173
Lectose 16
663
Structure :
CH2OH
O HOH 2C
H H
H
OH H O CH2OH
HO
H OH
αD(+)glucose Glycosidic βD()fructose

linkage
(+) Sucrose Haworth Projection
In sucrose, glycosidic linkage is formed between C1 of αD(+)glucose and C2 of
βD() fructose.
In sucrose, the reducing agent group (OH) of glucose and fructose are involved in
glycosidic bond. So it is non-reducing sugar. Does not show mutarotation.
Surcrose }}}}
483 K m
–H O 2
Caramel (brown amorphous food colour)
(ii) Maltose (malt sugar) :
C12H22O11 + H2O }}}}}}}m

dilute acidor
maltose C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
maltose glucose glucose

In maltose, the glycosidic linkage (C1OC4) is formed between C1 of αD(+)
glucose and C4 of another D−(+) glucose.
CH2OH CH2OH
O O
H H H
H H
H,OH
OH H O OH H
HO
H OH H OH
αD(+)glucose D(+)glucose
This anomeric carbon (C1) does
(+) Maltose not have a definite configuration.
The configuration on C1 carbon of glucose is changed. So, two anomers α (+) and β (+)
maltose is formed.
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH

O O O O
H H H H H H H OH
H H H H
OH H O OH H OH H O OH H
HO OH HO H
H OH H OH H OH H OH
αD(+)glucose αD(+)glucose αD(+)glucose βD(+)glucose

αD(+)Maltose βD(+)Maltose
664
(iii) Lactose (milk sugar) :
C12H22O11 + H2O }}}}m

dil.acid
or C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
lactose emulsin galactose glucose
CH2OH CH2OH
O O
HO H HO OH
H H
OH H OH H
H OH H H
H OH H OH
αD(+)Galactose βD(+)Galactose
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
O O O O
HO H H HO H OH
H H H H
O O
OH H OH H OH H OH H
H H OH H H H
H OH H OH H OH H OH
βD(+)galactose αD(+)glucose βD(+)galactose βD(+)glucose

α(+)Lactose β(+)Lactose
In lactose, the glycosidic linkage is formed between C1 of βD(+) galactose and C4 of
D(+)glucose.
The configuration on C1 carbon of glucose is changed. So, two anomers α (+) and β (+) lactose
is formed.
28. Maltose }}}}}}

hydrolysism
HO 2
X+Y
Which substances are X and Y respectively ?

(A) glucose, glucose (B) glucose, galactose (C) glucose, fructose (D) fructose, galactose
29. Which of the following groups of monosaccharide forms sucrose ?
(A) αD glucopyranose and βD fructopyranose
(B) βD glucopy ranose and αD fructofuranose
(C) αD glucopyranose and βD fructofuranose
(D) αD galactopyranose and αD glucopyranose
30. Mixture which is formed on hydrolysis of sucrose is ...... .
(A) not optically active (B) levo rotatory (C) dextro rotatory (D) racemic mixture
31. Sucrose is not reducing agent because ...... .
(A) reducing groups of both monosaccharides are not free
(B) it does not reduce Fehlings solution
(C) it does not react with phenylhydrazine
(D) two monosaccharides units are joined by C1OC4 linkage in it
665
32. Sucrose }}}}
483 K m
–H O2
Z product, what is Z ?
(A) food colour (B) food preservative (C) food additve substance (D) antioxidant
33. Which groups are involved in sucrose ?
1. C=O 2. CHO 3. OH
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 (C) Only 3 (D) 2 and 3

34. Which glycosidic linkage is formed between two sugar in β(+)maltose ?
(A) C1 of αD(+) glucose and C2 of αD(+) glucose
(B) C1 of αD() glucose and C4 of αD(+) glucose
(C) C1 of αD(+) glucose and C4 of βD(+) glucose
(D) C1 of αD() glucose and C2 of βD(+) glucose
35. Which statement is wrong for (+) lactose ?
(A) On hydrolysis of it equal proportion of D (+) glucose and D (+) galactose is formed
(B) In (+) lactose 8 OH groups are present
(C) Two monosaccharides are joined by C1OC4 linkage in it
(D) (+) lactose is reducing agent, but it does not show mutarotation.
36. Which of the following has Haworth projection mentioned below ?
CH2OH
O
HO H
H
OH H
H OH
H OH
(A) αD (+) glucose (B) βD (+) galactose (C) αD (+) galactose (D) βD (+) glucose
37. Which sugar is not present in plants ?
(A) lactose (B) glucose (C) Sucrose (D) maltose
38. Which sugar is optically active and also shows mutarotation ?
(1) glucose (2) sucrose (3) maltose (4) fructose
(A) only 2 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2 and 4
Answers : 28. (A), 29. (C), 30. (B), 31. (A), 32. (A), 33. (C), 34. (C), 35. (C),
36. (C), 37. (A), 38. (C),
Polysaccharides
They are formed by many monosaccharides molecules.
High molecular mass.
Common formula : (C6H10O5)n
Tasteless, amorphous, insoluble in hot water also. Cellulose is soluble in ammonical cupric
hydroxide solution.
polysaccharide }}}}}
dil.acid m disaccharide → hexose
or
enzyme or or
hydrolysis pentose
666
Starch is polymer of αD glucoe. It is a mixture of amylose (≅ 20%) and amylopectin (≅ 80%).
200 to 1000 αD(+) glucose units are joined by C1OC4 linkage in amylase.
6
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
O O O
H H H 5 H H H
H H H
4 1 4 1 4 1
O OH H O OH H O OH H O
3 2
H OH H OH H OH
C1– O – C4
linkage
Amylose
In amylopectin αD(+) glucose units are joined by C1OC4 linkage, but some
αD(+) glucose units are joined by C1OC6 linkage and they make branches.
CH2OH CH2OH
O O
H H H H
H H
4 1 4 1
O OH H O OH H
H OH H OH
O
6
CH2OH CH2 CH2OH
O O O
H H H 5 H H H
H H H
4 1 4 1 4 1
O OH H O OH H O OH H O
H OH H OH H OH
C1–O–C4
linkage
Amylopectin
Cellulose is polymer of βD(+) glucose. In cellulose βD(+) glucose units are joined
by C1OC4 linkage.
HOH2C
O
O
HOH2C
4 1
O OH
O
HOH2C
4 1 OH
O OH
O
4 1
OH OH
O
C1–O–C4
OH Cellulose linkage
667
Importance of carbohydrates :
Cellwall of bacteria and plants is made up of cellulose.
New growing plant uses the starch which is stored in seeds as food for their growth.
The stored glycogen in animals is converted into glucose and gives energy when required.
Major component of our food materials is carbohydrates. e.g., table sugar, jaggery, wheat, rice etc.
Linen, rayon and acetate fibre are form of cellulose. They are used for making clothes.
39. Which of the following is not sugar ?
(A) glycogen (B) dextrin (C) cellulose (D) all of these
40. Starch }}}}}m

dil.acid
hydrolysis Z → Y. Which compounds are Z and Y respectively ?
(Intermediate (final
compound) product)
(A) maltose, glucose (B) sucrose, glucose (C) lectose, fructose (D) maltose, fructose
41. Which one is wrong about starch ?
(A) It is amorphous, nonsugar.
(B) It is a mixture of amylose and amylopactin.
(C) In a structure of amylose glucose units are joined in branched chain.
(D) Soluble in hot water.
42. When α-D-(+) glucose units are joined by C1OC4 and C1OC6 linkage, then gives structure of
which compound ?
(A) cellulose (B) amylopectin (C) amylose (D) cellobiose
43. Which one is most important constituents of cellwall of plants ?
(A) protein (B) nucleic acid (C) cellulose (D) starch
44 Cellulose is soluble in ...... .
(A) water (B) organic solvent
(C) ammonical cuprichydroxide solution (D) all of these
45. Cellulose is a polymer of which unit ?
(A) βD (+) glucose (B) α−D () galactose (C) αD (+) glucose (D) Lfructose
46. Which polymer is useful in a preparation of rayon ?
(A) nylon (B) cellulose (C) decron (D) glycogen
47. Which substance is stored in animal is converted into glucose and gives energy when required ?
(A) glycogen (B) sucrose (C) cellulose (D) protein
Answers : 39. (D), 40. (A), 41. (C), 42. (B), 43. (C), 44. (C), 45. (A), 46. (B), 47. (A)
Proteins
They are biopolymer complexes of amino acids.
Enzymes, hormones, antibodies are all proteins.
All proteins contain C, H, O, N elements while some may also contain non-metal like S, P and
metal elements like Fe, Cu, Zn, Mn in trace amount.
Protein }}}}}m
hydrolysis peptides }}}}}m
hydrolysis amino acids
(obtained by scientist Emil Fischer)
668
Amino acids
Building blocks of protein, in which amino (NH2) and carboxyl (COOH), both groups are present.
Common structure of αamino acid.
H
| R : open chain, cyclic or aromatic hydrocarbon group, amino, carboxyl,
R – C – COOH hydroxyl or sulphur containing group.
l |
Variable NH
2
group
Secondary amino group is present. In proline in this compound nitrogen atom of amino group is
involved in five membered ring.
Classification [according to nature of R group]
↓ ↓ ↓
Neutral Acidic Basic
amino acid amino acid amino acid
(R is neutral) (R is acidic) (R is basic)
eg. glycine, alanine eg. aspartic acid, glutamic acid eg. lysine, arginine
Amino acids which can be synthesised in body are known as non-essential amino
acids and those which cannot be synthesised in the body and must be obtained through
diet are called essential amino acids.
Name and structure of 20 important amino acids :
Sr. Name of the Structure of R Three letters One letter

Neutral amino acids symbol symbol
1. Glycine H Gly G
2. Alanine CH 3 Ala A
*3. Valine CH(CH3)2 Val V
*4. Leucine CH2CH(CH3)2 Leu L
*5. Isoleucine CHCH 2CH 3 Ile I

|
CH 3
*6. Phenylalanine CH 2 Phe F

7. Asparagine CH2CONH2 Asn N
8. Glutamine CH2CH2CONH 2 Gln Q
9. Serine CH2OH Ser S
*10. Threonine CHOH Thr T

|
CH 3
669
11. Cysteine CH 2SH Cys C
*12. Methionine CH2CH2SCH3 Met M
13. Tyrosine CH2C6H 4OH(P) Tyr Y
H2 C
*14. Tryptophan Trp W
N
H
*a
COOH
HN
15. Proline Pro P
Acidic amino acids
16. Aspartic acid CH2COOH Asp D
17. Glutamic acid CH2CH2COOH Glu E

Basic amino acids
*18. Lysine (CH2)4NH2 Lys K
NH
||
*19. Arginine (CH2)3NH C NH2 Arg R
*20. Histidine H His H

..
H2C N
H
Note : * symbolic amino acids are essential amino acids.

a It is not only structure of R but it is entire structure of amino acid.
D and L forms of amino acids
Except glycine, all amino acids contain α-carbon as chiral carbon.
COOH COOH
H NH2 H 2N H
R R
D-amino acid L-amino acid
Most of the amino acids found in nature have L-configuration.
Amino acid as dipolar molecule
In amino acid molecule acidic (COOH) and basic (NH2) groups are present. So, they
show property like salt.
In aqueous solution proton donated by carboxyl group is excepted by amino group. So

amino acid gives dipolar ion which is called zwitter ion.
670
Migration under electricfield
O
+ R – CH – C
H + OH Amino acid is in
NH3 at cathode
OH acidic solution
O (positive ion)
R – CH – C
+ O
NH3 OH O Amino acid is in
R – CH – C alkaline solution at anode
H O (negative ion)
NH2
In electric field, the PH value at which the amino acid does not migrate towards any electrode
is called the isoelectric point (PI) of amino acid.
Amino acids react with acid or base and form salt, so they are known as amphoteric
compounds.
A mixture of amino acids can be separated by electrophoresis and chromatographic techniques.
48. Protein is a condensation polymer of which substances ?

(A) αhydroxy acid (B) αamino acid (C) βamino acid (D) βhydroxy acid
49. What are hormones and antibodies ?
(A) Carbohydrate (B) Protein (C) Nucleic acid (D) Lipid
50. In which amino acid secondary amino group is present ?
(A) prolin (B) alanine (C) glycine (D) phenylalanine
51. Which pair is improper ?
(A) Neutral amino acid-lysine (B) Acidic amino acid-glutamic acid
(C) Basic amino acid-arginine (D) Essential amino acid-valine
52. Which one is L-alanine ?
CO2H CO2H CH 3 CO2H
(A) H 2N H (B) H NH2 (C) H2N CH2OH (D) H 2N H
CH–(CH3)2 CO 2H CH3
CH3
53. When pH = 8, then glycine will be in which form ?

(A) H2N CH2 COO (B) H3N+ CH2 COO
(C) H2N CH2 COOH (D) H3N+ CH2 COOH

54. Which statement is not proper ?
(A) Form of amino acid in aqueous solution is H3N+ CH (R) COO
(B) For all amino acids at isoelectric point, pH value is same.
(C) Most of the amino acids are amphoteric.
(D) Amino acid can be seperated from its mixture by electrophorasis.
671
55. Which dipeptide are formed by given two amino acids ?
NH2 NH2
H 2N COOH HOOC CONH2

lysine glutamine
NH2 H NH2 H
CONH2 N CONH2
N
P. H 2N C Q. H2N C
O COOH O O
NH2 H NH2 H
N NH2 N NH2
R. H2NOC C S. H 2NOC C
O COOH O
(A) Only P (B) Q, R (C) Q, S (D) P, R

Answers : 48. (B), 49. (B), 50. (A), 51. (A), 52. (D), 53. (A), 54. (B), 55. (D)
Peptide
Reaction between NH2 group of one amino acid and COOH group of another amino acid
loses the water molecule and forms amide, which is called peptide bond or peptide linkage.
peptide bond
(1) H2N CH2COOH + H2NCH2COOH
–H2O
}}}}m
H2NCH2 CONH CH2COOH
Glycine Glycine Glycylglycine
(Gly-Gly) (dipeptide)
(2) H2NCH2COOH + H2N CH COOH + H2N CH COOH – 2H2O

| |
CH 3 CH 2
Glycine Alanine Phenylalanine

H2NCH2CONH CH CONH CH COOH
| |
CH 3 CH 2 C6H5
Glycylalnylphenylalanine
[Gly-Ala-Phe] (triptide)
When 4 to 10 amino acids are joined by peptide bond and form a long chain then it is called
the oligopeptide.
(3) H 2N–CH–CO NH–CH–CO NH–CH–COOH

R R n R
Polypeptide or proteins
Where, R may be similar or different groups.
672
End with free NH2 group End of with COOH group
Alanine Glycine Phenylalanine

Ala-Gly-Phe
The sequence of amino acids is most important in peptide chain. eg. Three amino acids
A, B, C are joined in different sequences to form six different types of tripeptides AB
C, ACB, BAC, BCA, CAB, CBA.
Classification of protein (according to molecular shape)
↓ ↓
fibrous globular
Polypeptide chains are arranged parallel When the chain of polypeptide coil around to
and held together by H-bond or give spherical shape this type of protein is
disulphide bond. formed.
Insoluble in water Water soluble.
eg. keratin (present in hair, wool, silk) eg. insulin, albumin
myosin (present in muscles)
Structure of protein
(i) Primary :
One or more chains of polypeptides are present.
In this, amino acids present are joined in a specific sequence.
Two polypeptide chains are joined with each other by disulphide linkage (SS) in
primary structure of insulin in human.
(ii) Secondary :
Long chain of polypeptide is present.
It has two types :
(a) a-helix shape :
Polypeptide chain is coiled in helix shape. In this structure, H-bond is formed
between O atom of C = O and H atom of NH of peptide bond.
At every turn 3.6 amino acids are included.

(b) bpleated sheet shape :
Adjacent two polypetide chains are joined by intermolecular H-bond, so these
protein chains are formed like zig zag shaped sheet.
673
(iii) Tertiary :
Three dimensional arrangement of all atoms.
Ploypeptide long chain is folded at many points and form coil shape.
Side chains of amino acids are joined to each other by van der waals attraction force,
H-bond, ionic bond and disulphide bond.
Myoglobin protein.
(iv) Quaternary :
Two or more polypeptide chains are present. They are joined with each other by
H-bond, ionic bond and disulphide bond. Non protein components may also be
present in them.
Haemoglobin, which has two α and two β chains.
Primary Secondary Tertiary Quaternary

structure structure structure structure
Structures of Proteins
Denaturation of Protein
Biological activity of protein depends upon pH, temperature and solvent composition. Little change
in all these create denaturation in protein.
If an egg is fried or boiled in water at 373 K or above then white protein becomes denatured,
forming an insoluble mass.
Adding conc. acid or base to a protein in aqueous solution, H-bond and different attraction
are broken down.
In certain clinical chemistry tests, to remove protein easily trichloroacetic acid is added.
Detergent such as sodium dodecyl sulphate is associated with the non polar group of
proteins. Same way alcohol, acetone and ether denature the proteins by interference of hydrophobic inter-
actions.
56. Which one is correct form of peptide bond ?
H OH O O
| | || ||
(A) – C – N – H (B) – C – N– (C) – C – N– (D) – C – O–
|| | | |
O H H
674
57. When eight amino acids joined by peptide bond and form long chain then it is called ...... .
(A) polypeptide (B) oligopeptide (C) protein (D) tripeptide
58. In tripeptide Gly-Ala-Phe, which one is N-terminal residue ?
(A) Phe (B) Ala (C) Ala and Phe (D) Gly
59. How many tripeptides and peptide bonds are formed, when three different amino acids X, Y
and Z are joined in different sequence ?
(A) 3, 6 (B) 9, 6 (C) 6, 6 (D) 6, 12
60. Which statement/statements are true ?
(P) Insulin is hormones.
(Q) Alenine has optically active property.
(R) Albumin is water insoluble protein.
(S) In wool, polypeptide chains are joined by H-bond.
(A) P, R (B) Q, S (C) R, S (D) P, Q and S
61. By which bond αhelix structure of protein is stable ?
(A) Hbond (B) Vanderwalls attraction (C) peptide bond (D) SS bond
62. What is called, when biological activity of protein is lost by heat and chemicals ?
(A) inversion (B) denaturation (C) racemization (D) dehydration
63. Which chemical is added in sample to remove protein in clinical chemistry tests ?
SO3H
(A) COOH (B) (C) CH3COOH (D) CCl3.COOH

|
COOH
Answers : 56. (C), 57. (B), 58. (D), 59. (D), 60. (D), 61. (A), 62. (B), 63. (D)
Enzymes
Acts as a catalyst in biochemical reactions.
Globular protein.
Increases the rate of reaction by 1012 times.
Fat }}}}}m
hydrolysis carboxylic acid and alcohol. This reaction occurs rapidly in the
presence of lipase.
In some enzymes, other component cofactor are present for their proper functioning.
Inorganic components as cofactor :
Zn2+, Mn2+, Mg2+, Fe2+, Cu2+ metal ions.
Coenzyme + Apoenzyme → Enzyme
(Organic component (Protein) Active
as cofactor) (Inactive)
(Non-protein )
(Inactive)
675
Mechanism :

E S E-S E P
Enzyme substrate Enzyme-substrate Enzyme Product
intermediate compound
Substrate, combine with such a part of enzyme (amino acid presence in protein part) is called
active site.
Each enzyme is specific for each specific reaction. eg.
maltase hydrolysis of maltose
imulsin hydrolysis of lectose
invertase hydrolysis of sucrose
Nomenclature of enzyme is of two types
(i) Enzyme can be named by adding the suffix ase to the root of its substrate name.
maltose → maltase
lipid → lypase
sucrose → invertase
(ii) The type of reaction on which enzyme is affected.
eg. hydrolysis hydrolase, oxidation oxidase
64. Which statement/statements are applicable to enzyme ?

(1) Increase rate of biochemical process
(2) Made of amino acids
(3) Shows good activity in the range of 5 to 7 PH.
(A) only 1 (B) 1, 2, 3 (C) 1, 3 (D) 2, 3
65. Lipid }}}}}m

hydrolysis carboxylic acid + alcohal. In presence of which enzyme this reaction
occurs rapidly ?
(A) Pepsin (B) Lypase (C) Invertase (D) Imulsin
66. What is called to nonprotein part of enzyme ?
P. Apoenzyme Q. Metal ion as cofactor R. Coenzyme
(A) Q, R (B) only P (C) only R (D) P, R
67. Which ion is presence as cofactor in enzyme ?
(A) NH4+ (B) P 3+ (C) SO42 (D) Mn2+
68. Which statements regarding to enzyme is not correct ?
(A) Specific amino acids in enzymes are active site for combination of substrate.
(B) Enzymes are specific for catalysis of reaction and for combination of substrate.
(C) Enzyme increases activation energy and catalysed chemical reaction.
(D) Enzymes contain two parts coenzymes and apoenzymes.
69. In which of the following structure of protein αamino acids are joined in specific sequence ?
(A) Primary (B) Secondary (C) Tetiary (D) Quarternary
Answers : 64. (B), 65. (B), 66. (C), 67. (D), 68. (C), 69. (A)
676
Vitamins
Certain organic compounds are required in small amounts in our diet. The deficiency of
these compounds causes specific diseases in our body. These organic compounds are
called vitamins.
Human body synthezies vitamin A from carotene and it also synthezises vitamin D in
skin with the help of sunlight.
Vitamin B complex and vitamin K are formed by microorganism in intestine.
Classification (According to solubility)
↓ ↓
Soluble Insoluble
in water and fat
↓ ↓
Water Fat eg. vitamin H
soluble soluble
eg. vitamin C eg. vitamin A, D, E, K
and vitamin B complex
No. Vitamin Source Diseases caused by

their deficiency
(1) Vitamin A Liver oil of fish, carrot, butter, Xerophthalima
(Retional) cheese and milk
(2) Vitamin B1 Yeast, milk, green vegetables Beri-Beri
(Thiamine) and cereals
(3) Vitamin B2 Milk, egg white, liver, kidney Dark-red tongue
(Riboflavin) and skin diseaes
(4) Vitamin B6 Cereals, gram, milk, yeast, Skin diseases and convulsions
(Pyridoxine) egg white
(5) Vitamin B12 Egg, fish, liver, meat Pernicious anemia
(Cyanocobalamine) (not found in plants)
(6) Vitamin C Tomato, green pepper, orange, Scurvy
(Ascorbic acid) citrus fruits and green vegetables
(7) Vitamin D Sunlight, fish, egg white Bone deformation in children
(Calciferol) and soft bones and joint pain
in adults
(8) Vitamin E Vegetable oil, green vegetables, Sterility
(α-Tocopherol) egg white, meat
(9) Vitamin K Green vegetables Haemorrhage
(Phylloquinone)
(10) Vitamin H Milk, yeast, liver Loses of hair, skin diseases,
(Biotin) paralysis
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70. Which vitamins are formed by microorganism in intestine ?
(A) D, K (B) A, H (C) B complex, C (D) B complex, K
71. Which vitamin is insoluble in water and fat ?
(A) ratinol (B) calciferol (C) biotin (D) thiamine
72. Deficiency of which enzyme causes skin diseases ?
(P) vitamin B2 (Q) vitamin B6 (R) vitamin H

(A) Only Q (B) P, Q and R (C) only R (D) P and Q
73. Which vitamin is not obtained from plant ?
(A) phylloquinone (B) ascorbic acid (C) α-tocopherol (D) cyanocobalamine
74. Which of the following is water soluble and antioxidant vitamin ?
(A) E (B) C (C) K (D) D
75. Which one is same source for vitamin B6, D and E ?

1. egg white 2. tomato 3. sunlight
(A) only 1 (B) 1, 3 (C) 1, 2, 3 (D) 1, 2
Answers : 70. (D), 71. (C), 72. (B), 73. (D), 74. (B), 75. (A)
Nucleic acid
Chromosomes which are present in nucleus of living cell are responsible for heredity.
They are made up of protein and nucleic acid.
Types of Nucleic acid
↓ ↓
Deoxyribonucleic acid Ribonucleic acid
(DNA) (RNA)
Nucleic acid is known as polynucleotide.
Nucleic acid }}}}}m

complete
hydrolysis pentose sugar + N containing + phosphoric acid
heterocyclic
(DNA and RNA)
compounds
Structure
(i) Pentose sugar
In RNA In DNA
O HOH 2C O OH
HOH 2C OH
H H H H H H H H
OH OH OH H
b(D)Ribose b(D)2deoxyribose
678
(ii) Heterocyclic base :
4 6
5 5 N
3N 1N
2 2
N 6 N 4 N
1 13 H
Pyrimidine Purine
↓ ↓
Derivatives :
cytosine (C) adenine (A)
thymine (T) guanine (G)
Uracil (U)
® In DNA A, G, C, T base are present.
® In RNA A, G, C, U base are present.
(iii) Phosphoric acid : In nucleic acid, sugars are joined together by phosphate ion (PO43)
of phosphoric acid.
O= P O → attached with C3 of one sugar
O → attached with C5 of another sugar.
Nucleoside
HOH2C O Base
H H H H
OH OH
Nucleoside
O
– O
O–P–O –H2C Base
O–
H H H H
Nucleotide
OH OH
Nucleotide
679
Linkage of two nucleotides
O O
– BASE – 5 BASE
O –P–O CH2 O –P–O CH2 O
O– SUGAR O– SUGAR
3
OH
O
+ –
O –P–O
O
O
– BASE BASE
O –P–O CH2 5 CH2 O
O– SUGAR SUGAR
3
OH OH
Base Base Base
Sugar Phosphate Sugar Phosphate Sugar

n
Nucleic acid (Simple structure)

Double helix structure for DNA from X-ray diffraction studies was proposed by J. D. Watson
and H.C. Crick.
D G C D
P P
D G C D
P
P
D G C D
P
D G C D
D
Based pair
D A T
sugar P
P
Phosphate D
G
C
D
P
Adenine - Thymine
P D (A) (T)
D T A
P
D
Guanine - Cytosine
(G) (C)
2 H-bond P
D A T D
3 H-bond D
P
G C D
P
P
D T A D
P P
D C G D
P
P
D A T D
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Biological importance of nuclic acid
DNA :
DNA is responsible chemical for heredity.
It reserves the genetic information.
It maintains the identity of different species of organisms over million of years.
During cell division it duplicates and identical DNA strands are transferred to new cell.
Proteins are synthesised by various RNA molecule in the cell but the message for
synthesis of a specific protein is present in DNA.
76. Which chemical is responsible for heredity ?

(A) hormones (B) DNA (C) protein (D) RNA
77. Nucleic acid is a polymer of which substance ?
(A) α-amino acid (B) nucloetide (C) nucleoside (D) glucose
78. What is obtained on hydrolysis of nucleoside ?
(P) pentose sugar
(Q) nitrogen containing heterocyclic base
(R) phosphoric acid
(A) only P (B) P, Q, and R (C) P and R (D) Q and R
79. Which pyrimidine bases are present in RNA ?
(A) cytosine, thymine (B) cytosine, guanine (C) cytosine, uracil (D) cytosine, adenine
80. H
N
N O CH3
N N H N
N N
O
X Y
What are X and Y components respectively present in DNA ?

(A) Thymine, Adenine (B) Cytosine, Guanine (C) Guanine, Cytosine (D) Adenine, Thymine
81. What is the function of DNA in living orgnism ?
(A) It reserves the genetic information.
(B) It maintains the identity of different species of organism over millions of years.
(C) It gives the message for the synthesis of specific protein.
(D) All of these.
82. In a one chain of DNA, sequence of base is TACGAACT, then what will be the sequence
of base present in its corresponding chain ?
(A) CTGCTTGA (B) ATGCTTGA (C) ATGCTCGT (D) ATGCGTGA
681
83. RNA is different than DNA because in RNA ...... is present.
(A) deoxyribose sugar and uracil (B) ribose sugar and thyamine
(C) deoxyribose sugar and adenine (D) ribose sugar and uracil
84. By what are nucleosides joined in every chain of nucleic acid ?
(A) peptide linkage (B) phosphate group
(C) glycosidic linkage (D) H-bond
85. Which statement regarding ribose sugar is not true ?
(A) It is polyhydroxy compound.
(B) There are six carbons in it.
(C) It is optically active.
(D) OH group is present on C2, which differentiate it from deoxyribose sugar.
86. Which of the following statement is not true ?
(A) Cyclic structure of glucose is made of five members so it is called glucose pyranose.
(B) Starch is amorphous and tasteless.
(C) Molecular formula of lactic acid follows comman formula of carbohydrates.
(D) Stachyose is oligosaccharide.
87. Which of the following is sweetest and levorotatory respectively ?
(A) Sucrose, D-fructose (B) Dfructose, Invert sugar
(C) Dfructose, Dfructose (D) Dglucose, Dfructose
88. Which functional groups are present in typical carbohydrate ?
(P) C = O and OH (Q) OH and CHO
(R) OH (S) OH and COOH

(A) Only (Q) (B) Only (P) (C) (P), (S) (D) Only (S)
89. Glucose and fructose are ...... .
(A) functional group isomers (B) anomers
(C) enantiomers (D) geometrical isomers
90. Specific rotation of α and β form of one monosaccharide is + 29o and 17o respectively.
Specific rotation of equilibrium mixture by dissolving one form of it in water is measured to
14°, then what proportion of α and β form is present in that mixture ?
(A) α = 50 %, β = 50 % (B) α = 60 %, β = 40 %
(C) α = 70 %, β = 30 % (D) α = 67.4 %, β = 32.6 %
91. What is obtained on complete hydrolysis of cellulose ?
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(A) Lfructose (B) Dribose (C) Dglucose (D) Dgalactose
92. Which are essential amino acids ?
1. Valine 2. Serine 3. Tryptophan 4. Proline 5. Leucine
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 1, 3, 5 (C) 2, 4, 5 (D) 1, 4, 5
93. What is correct structure of Gly-Ala-Phe ?
H H O CH3
N N
(A) H 2N N COOH (B) H 2N N COOH
O CH3 H O H
CH3 H O H O
N N
(C) H 2N N COOH (D) H 2N N COOH
O CH3 H O CH3 H
94. Which pair is not proper ?

(A) Pepsin-digestive enzyme (B) Linen-form of starch
(C) Nucleic acid-genetic substance (D) Calciferol-vitamin
95. One carbohydrate is X whose molecular mass is 180 gmole1. One primary alcohol and 4
secondary alcoholic groups is present in it. When it is treated with acetic anhydride in
presence of pyridine then it forms petaacetate derivative. So what is molecular mass of
petaacetate derivative ?
(A) 180 (B) 390 (C) 210 (D) 348
T(True), F(False) type question :
96. (i) Rhamnose is disaccharide sugar.
(ii) In sucrose, reducing group of βD() fructose is free, so it does not reduce Fehllings
solution.
(iii) By acidic hydrolysis of cellulose, αD(+) glucose is obtained.
(iv) In Fischers projection of αD() fructose, OH group at anomeric carbon (C1) is on
left side, so it is levo rotatory.
(A) T T F T (B) T F T F (C) F F F F (D) F F T T
97. (i) Alenine is neutral and non-essential amino acid.
(ii) Detergent such as sodium dodecyl sulphate associates with polar group of protein and
forms denature protein.
(iii) Polypeptide chains are held together by H-bond in silk.
(iv) In tertiary structure of myoglobin, amino acids are joined in a specific sequence.
(A) T F T F (B) T T T F (C) F T T F (D) T T F F
98. (i) Enzyme maltase affects on hydrolysis of maltose is also known as oxidase.
(ii) Particular amino acid of enzyme act as active site for substrate.
(iii) In presence of lypase enzyme, lectose hydralised into glucose and galactose.
(iv) Coenzyme is protein component, so enzyme becomes active.
(A) T F T T (B) F T F F (C) T T T F (D) F T T T
683
99. (i) α-Tocopherol, Retinol are fat soluble vitamins.
(ii) For prevention of haemorrhage Phylloquinon is necessary.
(iii) Riboflavin vitamin is obtained from egg white.
(iv) Due to deficiency of Pyridoxine skin diseases and convulsions causes.
(A) T F T T (B) T T F F (C) F T F T (D) T T T T
100. (i) Chromosomes present in nucleus of living cell are responsible for heredity.
(ii) In DNA nucletide chains are joined with each other by diester bond.
(iii) A unit formed by the attachment of base to fifth carbon of sugar is called nucleosid.
(iv) Uracil pyridine base is present in RNA.
(A) T T F F (B) T F F T (C) T F F F (D) F T T T
Column type questions :
101. Match column-I (carbohydrates) with column-II (examples) :
I II
(1) Monosaccharide (P) Cellobiose
(2) Trisaccharide (Q) Rhamnose
(3) Tetrasaccharide (R) Melitriose
(4) Polysaccharide (S) Glycogen
(T) Stachiose
(U) Fructose
(A) (1)-(U), (2)-(P),(T), (3)-(T), (4)-(S) (B) (1)-(Q),(U), (2)-(T), (3)-(R), (4)-(P)
(C) (1)-(U), (2)-(R), (3)-(T), (4)-(S) (D) (1)-(Q),(U), (2)-(R), (3)-(T), (4)-(S)
102. In column-I reaction of glucose is given. In column-II name of reaction are given. In column-III
information regarding to structure of glucose is given. Match column- I, II and III.
I II III
(i) Glucose + C6H5NHNH2 (P) reduction (S) Straight chain of 6 C atoms
(ii) Glucose + Fehlings solution (Q) addition (T) C = O group is present
(iii) Glucose + HI (R) oxidation (U) CH2OH group is present

(iv) Glucose + HNO3 (V) CHO group is present
(A) (i)-(Q),(T) (ii)-(R),(V) (iii)-(P),(U) (iv)-(R),(S)

(B) (i)-(Q),(T) (ii)-(R),(V) (iii)-(P),(S) (iv)-(R),(U)
(C) (i)-(P),(T) (ii)-(R),(U) (iii)-(P),(V) (iv)-(R),(U)
(D) (i)-(Q),(U) (ii)-(R),(V) (iii)-(P),(T) (iv)-(R),(T)
684
103. Carbohydrates (given in column-I) are hydrolyzed in presence of enzymes (given in
column-II) gives organic product (given in column-III). Match properly column-I, column-II
and column-III.
I II III
(i) Surcrose (P) Imulsin (S) Glucose
(ii) Maltose (Q) Zymaze (T) Fructose
(iii) Lactose (R) Invertase (U) Ethanol
(iv) Glucose (S) Maltase (V) Galactose
(A) (i)-(R),(S) (ii)-(S),(S),(V) (iii)-(P),(S),(T) (iv)-(R),(U)
(B) (i)-(R),(S),(T) (ii)-(S),(S) (iii)-(P),(V) (iv)-(Q),(U)
(C) (i)-(R),(S),(T) (ii)-(S),(S) (iii)-(P),(S),(V) (iv)-(Q),(U)
(D) (i)-(R),(S),(T) (ii)-(P),(V) (iii)-(P),(S),(U) (iv)-(Q),(U)
104. Match column-I and column-II properly :
I II
Source/Synthesis of vitamin Vitamin
(i) Fat soluble vitamin (P) Phylloquinone
(ii) Water soluble vitamin (Q) Calciferol
(iii) Formed by micro organism in intenstine (R) αTocopherol
(iv) Formed by the help of sunlight in skin (S) Biotin
(v) Synthezised from carotene in human body (T) Ascorbic acid
(U) Retinol
(A) (i)-(P),(Q),(U) (ii)-(S) (iii)-(T),(P) (iv)-(S) (v)-(U)
(B) (i)-(P),(Q),(R),(U) (ii)-(T) (iii)-(R) (iv)-(P) (v)-(U)
(C) (i)-(P),(R),(U) (ii)-(S) (iii)-(P),(Q) (iv)-(Q) (v)-(U)
(D) (i)-(P),(Q),(R),(U) (ii)-(T) (iii)-(P) (iv)-(Q) (v)-(U)
105. Match column-I, II and III properly.
I II III
Vitamin Chemical name Diseases caused by deficiency
(1) B2 (P) Biotin (V) Paralysis
(2) E (Q) Pyridoxine (W)Skin diseases
(3) K (R) α-Tocopherol (X) Haemorrhage
(4) H (S) Phylloquinone (Y) Beri-Beri
(5) B6 (T) Thiamine (Z) Sterility
(U) Riboflavin
(A) (1)-(U),(W) (2)-(R),(Z) (3)-(S),(X) (4)-(P),(W) (5)-(Q),(Y)
(B) (1)-(T),(Y) (2)-(R),(Z) (3)-(S),(X) (4)-(P),(W) (5)-(Q),(V)
(C) (1)-(U),(W) (2)-(R),(Z) (3)-(S),(X) (4)-(P),(V),(W) (5)-(Q),(W)
(D) (1)-(T),(W) (2)-(R),(Z) (3)-(U),(X) (4)-(P),(V) (5)-(Q),(W)
685
106. Join column-I and II properly :
I II
(protein) (Types of bond)
(1) Insulin (primary structure) (P) Van der waals attraction force
(2) Myoglobin (tertiary structure) (Q) ionic bond
(3) Haemoglobin (quaternary structure) (R) SSbond
(4) keratin (S) H-bond
(A) (1)-(R) (2)-(P),(Q),(R) (3)-(P),(R),(S) (4)-(R)
(B) (1)-(P),(R) (2)-(P),(R),(S) (3)-(Q),(S) (4)-(P)
(C) (1)-(R) (2)-(P),(Q),(R),(S) (3)-(P),(Q),(R) (4)-(S)
(D) (1)-(S) (2)-(P),(Q),(R),(S) (3)-(P),(Q),(R) (4)-(Q)
107. Match column-I and II properly :
I II
(i) glycosidic linkage (P) combination between two nucleotide
(ii) peptide bond (Q) insulin
(iii) disulphide linkage (R) combination between two amino acids
(iv) phosphodiester linkage (S) combination between two monosaccharids
(A) (i)-(R), (ii)-(S), (iii)-(Q), (iv)-(P) (B) (i)-(S), (ii)-(R), (iii)-(P), (iv)-(Q)
(C) (i)-(S), (ii)-(R), (iii)-(Q), (iv)-(P) (D) (i)-(R), (ii)-(S), (iii)-(P), (iv)-(Q)
In each of the following questions two statements are given. One of them is
assertion (A) and another is reason (R). Read the statements carefully and choose
the correct option according to proper instructions given below :
(A) Assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct reason (R) is proper answer of statement (A).
(B) Assertion (A) and reason (R) are correct reason (R) is not proper answer of statement (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is correct, reason (R) is wrong.
(D) Assertion (A) and reason (R) are incorrect.
108. Assertion (A) : Glucose gives red ppts by reduction of Fehlings solution.
Reason (R) : Glucose gives CuO and glyconic acid with the reaction of Fehlings
solution
109. Assertion (A) : On hydrolysis protein gives amino acids
Reason (R) : NH2 and COOH groups are present in amino acids.
110. Assertion (A) : Insulin is a globular protein.
Reason (R) : Globular proteins are water soluble.
111. Assertion (A) : Both chains in DNA are complementary.
Reason (R) : Cytosine always pairs with guanine and thymine pairs with adenine.
112. Assertion (A) : Activity of enzyme depends upon pH.
Reason (R) : Change in pH reflects solubility of enzyme in water.
686
113. Assertion (A) : All enzymes are proteins but all proteins are not enzymes.
Reason (R) : Enzymes are biocatalyst and possess a stable configuration having an
active site.
114. Assertion (A) : Hydrolysis of sucrose is known as inversion of cane sugar.
Reason (R) : Sucrose shows mutarotation.
115. Assertion (A) : Glycine is optically active
Reason (R) : α-carbon in glycine is unsymmetrical.
Paragraph type :
αAmino acids are the building blocks of protiens. About 20 α amino acids have been
isolated by the hydrolysis of proteins. All these amino acids except glycine are chiral and have
L-configuration. Ten amino acids (valine, leucine, isolecucine, phenylalanine methionine, tryptophan,
threonine, lysine, arginine and histidine) which the body cannot synthesize are called essential amino
acids. The remaining ten are called non-essential amino acids. All α amino acids exist as
zwitterions each of which has a specific isoelectric point. Above isoelectric point, α-amino acid exists
as an anion. Two, Three or many α-amino acids join together to form di-, tri-or polypeptides or
proteins respectively. Each polypeptide or protein has a free amino group at one end called the
N-terminal end and a free carboxyl group at the other end called the C-terminal end.
116. Which amino acid shows salt like character in aqueous solution ?
(A) Formic acid (B) Benzoic acid
(C) 2Aminopropanoic acid (D) Propanoic acid
117. When pH = 4 then glycine will be in which form ?
(A) positive ion (B) negative ion
(C) positive and negative both ions (D) dimer
118. Which amino acid is C-terminal end in TyrHislysMetGly ?
(A) Tyr (B) Gly (C) Met (D) His
+
119. H 3N
+
Z N H3
COOH Y
X
Correct order of acid strenght for, X, Y, Z is

(A) Z < X > Y (B) X > Y > Z (C) Z > X > Y (D) X > Z > Y
Answers : 76. (B), 77. (B), 78. (C), 79. (C), 80. (D), 81. (D), 82. (B), 83. (D), 84. (B),
85. (B), 86. (A), 87. (C), 88. (A), 89. (A), 90. (D), 91. (C), 92. (B), 93. (D),
94. (B), 95. (B), 96. (C), 97. (A), 98. (B), 99. (D), 100. (C), 101. (D),
102. (B), 103. (C), 104. (D), 105. (C), 106. (C), 107. (C), 108. (C), 109. (B),
110. (A), 111. (A), 112. (B), 113. (A), 114. (C), 115. (D), 116. (C), 117. (A),
118. (B), 119. (D).

687
27 Chemistry in Everyday Life
Drugs
Up to 19th century, plant based natural drugs were used in crude form e.g. powder or boiled
drink of bark, roots and leaves of tree etc.
The bark of Cinchona tree and quinine obtained from it, were used for Maleria.
Treatment of diseases in which parasites live (virus, fungi, yeast, bacteria, protozoa worm) are
killed and their growth is inhibited by chemical in body is called chemotherapy.
German chemist Paul Ehrlich is known as father of chemotherapy.
Ehrlich synthesized arsenic containing compounds (salvarsan and neo salvarsan) for skin
diseases like syphilis and for sleeping sickness.
Classification of Drugs
On the basis of pharmacological effect :
useful for doctors.
body pain relieving drugs can be classified as analgesic drugs.
Drugs, killing or inhibiting the growth of micro organisms that cause harmful effect on
wound or injury can be classified as antiseptic drugs.
On the basis of drug action :
Some problems occur in body due to release of histamine such as common cold, acidity,
swelling, redness of skin and itching. Therefore, the drugs used to stop the release of
histamine are classified as separated as of antihistamines.
On the basis of chemical structure of drugs :
Drugs containing similar chemical structure are included in same class.
eg. sulphonamides have common structure as follows :
H2 N SO2NHR where R = aromatic or heterocyclic group
On the basis of molecular targets of drugs :

Biomolecules such as carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and nucleic acids. These biomolecules
are called target molecules of drugs.
Working Mechanism of Drugs
Some proteins perform the role of biological catalysts in the body which is known as enzymes.
Some proteins are crucial to communication system in the body which is known as acceptors.
Nucleic acid have coded genetic information for the cell.
Lipid and carbohydrates are structural parts of the cell membrane.
Drug-Enzyme Interaction :
Generally substrate is bound with active site of enzyme. Drugs stop this reaction of enzymes
for this drugs stop the substrate from binding with active site of enzyme. This drugs are called
enzyme inhibitors.
Drugs, stop the substrate to bind with active site of enzymes in two ways.
688
Competitive inhibitors :
Drugs compete with natural substrate for their attachment on the active site of enzymes.
Such durgs are called competitive inhibitors.
Drug Drug
Active size
Enzyme
Substrate Enzyme Substrate
Allosteric site :
Some drugs do not bind to the active site of enzyme but bind to a different site. This site
is called allosteric site.
This type of binding of drug with enzyme results in the change in shape of active site
therefore substrate cannot bind with it.
Active site with changed

Active site place
Allosteric site
Enzyme Inhibiror
(Inhibitor occupying)
allisteric site
Drug-Receptor Interaction
In the body, message between two neurons to muscles is communicated through certain chemicals.
These chemicals are called chemical messengers.
Drugs bind to receptor site and stop communication process of cell. These drugs are called
antagonists.
If the messenger shaped drug is used, then receptor accept it and under the impression of
natural messenger the communication process occurs. These drugs are called agonists.
Antagonists is competitor and Agonists is contender.
689
Examples of chemical messengers
(1) Adrenaline (2) Nora adrenaline (3) acetylcholine (4) Dopamine (5) serotonin
Binding cell Chemical messenger

Binding site
site
Outer surface
of cell
membrane
Cell membrance
Interior of cell Message
(a) (b) (c)
(a) Receptor receiving chemical messenger.
(b) Shape of the receptor changed for attachment of messenger.
(b) Receptor regains structure after removal of chemical messenger.
1. Who is the father of chemotherapy ?
(A) Alexander fleming (B) Haward flour
(C) Paul Ehrlich (D) Ernest Borisch chain
2. Which of the following act us hormon and nerve transmitted both ?
(A) Nora adrenaline (B) Dopamine (C) Acetyl choline (D) Serotonin
3. For which treatment of disease drugs containing arsenic is more used ?
(A) Jaundice (B) Typhoid (C) Syphilis (D) TB
4. Which facts for following statements accroding to drugs receptor interaction ?
(1) Drugs bind to acceptor site and stop communication process of cell, known as antagonists.
(2) Some drugs bind to a different site instead of its active site known as allosteric site.
(3) Drugs bind the substrate from binding with active site of enzyme known as enzyme inhibitors.
(A) T T F (B) T T T (C) F T T (D) F T F
5. Which of the following release to create diease like common cold, acidity, swelling, redness of skin
and itching ?
(A) Virus (B) Bacteria (C) Histamine (D) Worm
6. Due to which bond between catalyst and drugs that it cannot be easily broken ?
(A) Ionic bond (B) Van-dar waals bond (C) Hydrogen bond (D) co-valent bond
7. Which of the following is the structure of sulphonamide drugs ?
O
||
(A) H2N S NHR2 (B) H2N S NH R
|| ||
O O
O
||
(C) H2N C NH R (D) All above
||
O
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8. Which drug is used in treatment of Malaria ?
(A) Aspirin (B) Peniciline
(C) Chloroquine (D) Paracetamol
9. For which two diseases Ehrlich synthesised arsenic containing compounds in chemotherapy ?
(A) Sleeping sickness, Syphilis (B) Acidity, Apathy
(C) Fever, Convulsion (D) Paralysis, Bleeding
10. Which of the following drugs is not a target molecule ?
(A) Nucleic acid (B) Protein (C) Catalyst (D) Lipid
11. What is indicated by this figure ?
Binding site
Message
(A) Receptor receiving chemical messenger.

(B) shape of the receptor changed for attachment of messenger.
(C) Receptor regains structure after removal of chemical messenger.
(D) Receptor attached to cell element.
12. What are M, N, O, P in given figure ?
N
P
O
(A) Minhibitor, Ncatalyst, Oactive site, Pallosteric site

(B) Mallosteric site, Ncatalyst, Oinhibitor, Pactive site
(C) Mcatalyst, Nactive site, Oinhibitor, Pallosteric site
(D) Mactive site, Nallosteric site, Ocatalyst, Pinhibitors
691
There are two statements in each questions. where one is statement (A) and other is
reason (R). Select correct option to study carefully :
(A) Statement (A) is correct. Reason (R) is correct and Reason (R) is not correct explanation of
reason (R).
(B) Statement (A) is correct. Reason (R) is correct and Reason (R) is correct explanation of reason
(R).
(C) Statement (A) is wrong and Reason (R) is wrong.
(D) Statement (A) is true but reason (R) is wrong.
13. Statement (A) : Sulpha drugs contain sulphonamide group.
Reason (R) : Salvarsan is sulpha drug.
14. Statement (A) : Chemical messanger communicate message between two neutrons or between
neuron to musctes.
Reason (R) : Chemical messanger enter into cell through receptors.
15. Statement (A) : Chemical messenger gives message to the cell without entering into the cell.
Reason (R) : Chemical messenger is obtained at binding site of receptor like protein.
16. Statement (A) : Nucleic acids have coded genetic information for the cell.
Reason (R) : Nucleic acid is target molecules of drugs.
Answers : 1. (C), 2. (A), 3. (C), 4. (A), 5. (C), 6. (D), 7. (B), 8. (C), 9. (A), 10. (C),
11. (B), 12. (D), 13. (D), 14. (D), 15. (B), 16. (A)
Therapeutic Action of Different classes of Drugs.

(1) Antacids :
Due to overeating or indigestion
↓
Much acid is released in stomach
↓
Effects
Acidity
↓ ↓
Substance use for - Acidity causes
the removal - Irritation and
↓ pain in stomach
- Severe cases of
Antacids ulcers are developed
e.g. in stomach
Sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3)
Magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)2)
Magnesium carbonate (MgCO3)
Magnesium trisilicate (Mg Si O8)

2 3
Aluminium hydroxide (Al(OH)3)
692
Aluminium phosphate (AlPO4)
(2) Antihistamines :
}}}}}m
structure
HN
Produced in the body Histamine
N
↓ ↓
Stimulates the secretion of Pepsin Common cold, redness of skin

and hydrocholoric acid in stomach. allergy like itching
↓ ↓
Antacids Antiallergenic Drugs
e.g. (1) Cimetidine (Tegamet) e.g. (1) Terfenadine (seldane)
(2) Ranitidine (zantac) (2) Brompheniramine (Dimetapp)
(3) Diphenylhydramine (benadryl)
(4) Cetirizine
(5) Chlorphenaramine zite
(6) Promethazine
Structur :
Antihistamines drugs :
(1) Cimetidine (Tegamet)
HN
(2) Ranitidine (Zantac)
Antiallergenic drugs :
(1) Brompheniramine (Dimetapp) :
693
(2) Terfenadine (seldan) :
N
OH
Ph
HO
Ph
17. Which of the following is not an antacid ?

(A) NaHCO3 (B) Mg(OH)2 (C) AlPO4 (D) Al2O3
HN
18. is the structure of
N
(A) Histamine (B) Promathazine (C) Seldan (D) Cimetidine

19. Which of the following substance is not used as an antacid ?
(A) NaHCO3 (B) Al(OH)3 (C) Mg(OH)2 (D) NaOH
20. Which catalyst stimulates in stomach when release of histamine in our body ?
(A) Urase (B) Zymase (C) Pepsin (D) Pitesin
21. Which drug prevents the interaction of histamine with the receptors present in stomach wall ?
(A) Tegamet (B) brompheniramine (C) Iproniazid (D) Meprobamate
22. Which drug is not antiallergenic ?
(A) terfenadine (B) cetryzine (C) promatniue (D) ranitidine
23. In which of the following drugs structure furan ring is present ?
(A) Seldan (B) Ranitidine (C) Dimetapp (D) Cimetidine
Answers : 17. (D), 18. (A), 19. (D), 20. (C), 21. (A), 22. (D), 23. (B)
Neurologically active drugs
Tranquilizers and analgesics are neurologically active drugs.
These drugs affect mainly the message transfer mechanism between nerve and receptor.
Tranquilizers
Relives anxiety, stress, irritability or excitement.
Noradrenaline is one of the neurotransmitter that means neuro messenger.
If the level of noradrenaline is low, due to this person feels depressed.
694
Antidepressant drugs
↓ ↓
(1) Iproniazid (2) phenelzine
mild tranquilizers
↓ ↓
(3) Chlordiazepoxide (4) Meprobamate
→ (5) Equanil drugs relieves from depression and hypertension.

(6) Barbiturates (Derivatives of barbituric acid) (sedative durgs)
→ barbituric acid, veronal, seconal, amytal, nembutal
(7) Valium
(8) Serotonin
Structure :
H
NHNHCH(CH3)2 N CH
O 3
C NHNH2 N=C
CH2
+
Cl C=N
N –
C6H5 O
Iproniazid Phenelzine Chlordiazepoxide
(1) (2) (3)
O CH 3 O O CH 3 O
|| | || || | ||
H 2 N – C – O – CH 2 – C – CH 2 – O – C – NH 2 H 2 N – C – O – CH 2 – C – CH 2 – O – C – NH 2
| |
(CH 2 ) 2CH 3 CH 3
Meprobamate Equanil
(4) (5)
H H
O N O O N O
C2H5
HN H–
N
O O C2H5
(6) Barbituric acid Veronal

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Analgesic drugs :
Physical pain reducing drugs can be classified into two classes.
Narcotic analgesic drugs :
Relieve pain, produce sleep and excitement occurs before sleep. It is called euphoria then
person has to take it regularly and becomes an addict.
Alkaloids like Morphine, Codeine, Heroine (Morphine diacetate) obtained from opeum
popy known as opeats.
eg. (1) morphine
NCH3
HO O
OH
Morphine
Non-narcotic analgesic drugs :
Due to these drugs, a person does not suffer from sleepiness or excitement.
Aspirin : (2acetyloxy benzoic acid)
These drugs relieve from skeletal pain such as that caused by arthritis.
Aspirin prevents coagulation of blood, due to this it is more useful to patient of heart
diseases.
In body released prostaglandis chemical causes inflammation and pain in the tissue. Aspirin
inhibits synthesis of prostaglandis.
Structure : OCOCH3
COOH
Aspirin (Acetylsalicylic acid)
Paracetamol :
These drugs reduce body temperature which means they are fever relievers.
696
Structure : OH Common name - P-hydroxy acetanilide
O
NH – C – CH3
IUPAC name : 4-acetamidophenol

Naproxen :
CH3
CH – COOH
H 3CO
Naproxen
Ibuprofen :
H 3C – CH – CH 2 CH – COOH
CH3 CH3
Diclofena sodium/potassium :
Cl CH2COONa/K
NH
Cl
24. Barbiturates are used as which of the following ?

(A) Analgesic (B) Antipyretics (C) preservatives (D) Tranquilizes
25. Which of the following level if low, then the person feels depression ?
(A) Noradrenaline (B) cerotinine (C) Nembutal (D) seconal
26. Which drug is used as antidepressent ?
(A) Noradrenaline (B) Iproniazide (C) phenelzine (D) All above
27. Rameshbhai is very sad and worried due to excessive loss in sharemarket. Which drug is adviced
by doctor at that time ?
(A) Chlordiazepoxide (B) Meprobamate (C) Equanil (D) Phenelzine
28. Which of the following is not barbiturates ?
(A) veronal (B) seconal (C) amytal (D) equanil
697
29. Which of the following derivetives are known as barbiturates ?
H HO H
N N NHNH2
(A) O O (B) (C) O O (D)
HO OH
N N –H
N
N–
H– H–
H
O O
30. Which of the following chemical release in body causes inflammation and pain in tissue ?
(A) Norandrenaline (B) Prostaglandis (C) Veronal (D) Gerotinine
31. Which of the following drugs do not produce excitement and sleep in person ?
(A) Paracetamol (B) Morphine (C) Cocaine (D) Heroin
32. Select correct option for the facts of aspirin ?
(i) Prevents coagulation of blood, it is more useful to patient of heart diseases.
(ii) Inhibits synthesis of prostaglandis in body.
(iii) It is made from acetylation reaction of m-hydroxy benzoic acid.
(iv) Its other name is acetyl salicylic acid.
(A) T T F F (B) T T T T (C) T T F T (D) F T T T
33. Which antipyretic drug is more used ?
(A) Neproxin (B) Paracetamol (C) Phenosetine (D) Salicylic acid
34. OCOCH3 Which of the following uses this compound ?

COOH
(A) antibiotics (B) antiseptics (C) analgesic (D) digiufectants

35. Which of the following is the structure of aspirin ?
(A) OCOCH3 (B) OH (C) OCOCH3 (D) OH

COOH CO OCH3 OH
C OOCH3
36. What is neproxin ?

(A) Non-narcotic analgesic drugs (B) Narcotic analgesic drugs
(C) Antiseptics (D) Diginfectants
Cl CH2COONa
37. NH This compound is used as which of the following ?
Cl
(A) to releive pain (B) releive in itching (C) to prevent cold (D) as antipyretics
698
Section-I Section-II
(Structure) (Name)
(P) H 3C – CH – CH 2 CH – COOH (S) Neproxin

| |
CH 3 CH3
CH3
(Q) CH – COOH (T) Ibruphopheine
H 3CO
O
(R) OH NH – C – CH3 (U) Suphanilamide
(V) Ceramycutine
(A) (P)-(U), (Q)-(S), (R)-(V) (B) (P)-(V), (Q)-(T), (R)-(U)
(C) (P)-(S), (Q)-(T), (R)-(U) (D) (P)-(T), (Q)-(S), (R)-(V)
39. According to chemically haroin is ......
(A) morphine monoacetate (B) morphine diacetate
(C) morphine dibenzoate (D) morphine mono benzoate
40. Whose derivaties are sulpha drugs ?
(A) Benzene sulphonic acid (B) Sulphanillic acid
(C) Suphanilamide (D) Pamino benzoic acid
41. Which drugs are used as analgesic and antipyretics ?
(A) Quinin (B) Penicilin (C) Insulin (D) Aspirin
42. Which sulpha drugs used in treatment in neumonia ?
(A) Sulphadiazine (B) Sulphapyridine (C) Sulphagwanidine (D) Suphanilamide
43. Correct structure of paracetamol drug ?
(A) HO CONH2 (B) HO NHCOCH3
(C) Cl CONH2 (D) Cl NHCOCH3
44. What is the name of situation when excitement occurs before sleep due to morphine ?
(A) Phobia (B) Euphoria
(C) Stupor (D) Pathoqentic situation
45. Which of the following is not alkaloid ?
(A) Reserpine (B) Morphine (C) Quinine (D) Phenyl butazone
46. Haroin is a derivative of which of the following ?
(A) Caffeine (B) Nicotine (C) Cocaine (D) Morphine
47. Which of the following is not analgesic drug ?
(A) Ibruphophane (B) Dichlofenac sodium (C) Neproxane (D) Ofloxacine
699
48. Barbituric acid and their derivatives are known as ...... .
(A) tranquilizers (B) antiseptics (C) analgesic (D) insecticide
H
O N O
C2H5
N
H– C2H5
O
(A) Amytal (B) Luminal (C) Veronal (D) Seconal

50. Whose acetylation process synthesizes Paracetamol drug ?
(A) 2amino hydroxy benzene (B) 3amino hydroxy benzene
(C) 4amino hydroxy benzene (D) hydroxy benzene
51. Wintergreen oil and salol are ester of which of the following ?
(A) salicylic acid (B) lactic acid (C) acetic acid (D) sulphanilic acid
52. Which drug among the structure of drugs is different on the basis of the cure ?
C 2H 5 O C 6H 5 O
H H
N– N–
(A) C2H 5 (B) C2H 5
O N O O N O
H H
O
NHNH2
(C) HO NH – C – CH3 (D)
53. Which statement is improper for Barbiturates ?

(A) They are sleep producing drugs (sedatives).
(B) They are tranquilizers.
(C) They affect nervous system to relieve tension.
(D) They are non-narcotic analgesic drugs.
54. Identify the drug different from the other drugs :
(A) Morphine (B) Heroin (C) Cocaine (D) Aspirine
55. Which of the following is nurcotic analgesic drugs ?
(A) Heroin (B) Ibruprophen (C) Nepoxane (D) Aspirine
56. Which of the following is the structure of salol ?
(A) OH (B) OH (C) COOH (D) COOH

CO OCH3 CO OC6H5 CO OC6H5 COOCH3
57. Which alkaloids obtained from named opium-poppy ?

(A) Morphin (B) Cocain (C) Heroin (D) All above.
700
Integer type Questions :
Iproniazid, phinelzin, chlordiazepoxid, aspirin, paracetamol, neproxin, ibruprofan, sodium dichilofenac,
equanil, morphine, meprobamate, veronal, seconal, valium, heroin, luminal, cerotenin.
58. How many number of tranguilizers given above drugs ?
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 9
59. How many number of non-narcotic analgesic drugs from given above drugs ?
(A) 5 (B) 7 (C) 9 (D) 8
60. How many number of narcotic analgesic drugs from given above drugs ?
(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
Answers : 24. (D), 25. (A), 26. (D), 27. (C), 28. (D), 29. (A), 30. (B), 31. (A), 32. (C),
33. (B), 34. (C), 35. (A), 36. (A), 37. (A), 38. (D), 39. (B), 40. (C), 41. (D),
42. (B), 43. (B), 44. (B), 45. (D), 46. (D), 47. (D), 48. (A), 49. (C), 50. (C),
51. (A), 52. (C), 53. (D), 54. (D), 55. (A), 56. (B), 57. (D), 58. (C), 59. (A),
60. (B),
Antimicrobial drugs
(A) Antibiotics :
The chemical substance produced by living organism to inhibit the growth or to kill microorganism
are called antibiotics.
Penicillin produced by microorganisms is first antibiotic that acts as drug. (Alexander Fleming)
Antibiotic
↓ ↓
Microbicidal Microbiostatic
kill microorganisms inhibit the growth of
microorganisms
eg. penicillin eg. erythromycin
ofloxacin tetracycline
aminoglycosiders, (streptomycin) chloramphenicol
(Bactericidal) ↓ ↓ (Bacteriostatic)
(Tuberculosis) (Typhoid and
TB disease can be treated pneumonia can be
treated)
Common structure :
O H H S CH3
R – C – NH
CH3
N COOH
O H
Penicillin
For Penicillin G, R = CH2
For Penicillin K, R = CH3(CH2)6
For Penicillin F, R = CH3CH2CH = CHCH2
For Ampicillin, R = CHNH2

701
Nomenclature methods of antibiotics
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
Based on Based on Based on Based on Based on Based on
name of Name of place name of names of name of name of
Bateria where soil relatives secretary patient factory
samples were Vernamycin Bacitracin
(1) Pencillin first collected Hemycin
from Angolamycin → Seramycetin from from a from
penicillium from Angola name of mother patient Hindustan
notatum in law named Antibiotics
(2) Streptomycin → Halinin from name of Tarcey Ltd.
from streptomy- a scientists wife
cesgriseus
Antiseptics
Antiseptic are useful in making tissues free from microorganisms.
(1) Potassium permanganate (KMnO4) → Making mouth free from microorganisms by gargling
(2) Furacin
(3) Soframycin
(4) Dettol (mixture of Chloroxylenol + aterpineol)
(5) Bithionol - added to soaps to develop the antiseptic properties.
(6) Tincture of iodine → 2-3% Iodine solution in alcohol-water mixture.
(7) Boric acid (H3BO3) → Washing solution of eyes to free them from microorganisms
(8) Hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) (perhydrol) → For washing teeth
(9) Salol (phenyl salicylate) → Treatement for throat

(10) 23 % concentration solution of mercurochrome solution is used as an antiseptic for skin
(11) 0.2 % aqueous solution of phenol for Antiseptic.
Structure :
CH3
OH Cl OH OH Cl
H3C CH3
Cl H 3C CH OH Cl Cl
3
Chloroxylenol α-Terpineol Bithionol

702
Disinfectants :
Disinfectants are applied to inanimate objects for making them free from microorganisms.
Activity is experessed by phenol coefficient
Activity is checked on salmonella typhosa bacteria
(1) 1 % of phenol solution

(2) 0.2 to 0.4 ppm concentration containing aqueous solution of chlorine
(3) SO2 gas (very low concentration)
(4) Lysol-Aqueous solution of o/m/p-cresol

Antifertility drugs
Drugs used for prevention of impregnation are called Antifertility drugs.
Mixture of mestranol (estrogenic) and norenthindrone (progestorone) is used as pill.
61. Who had found penicilin ?

(A) Alexander Fleming (B) Ziggler-Natta (C) Paul-Ehlrich (D) Emil-Fischer
62. Which of the following is not included in antimicrobial drugs ?
(A) Antibiotics (B) Antacids (C) Antiseptics (D) Distufectants
63. Which of the following drug is not antibiotics ?
(A) Penicillin (B) Tetracyclin (C) mypheprestone (D) Chloramphenicol
64. Which of the following is used in treatment of typhoid not microbiocidal ?
(A) Ofloxacin (B) Streptomycin (C) Penicilline (D) Chloramphenicol
65. Which of the following is not microbiocidal ?
(A) Penicillin (B) Ofloxacin (C) Aminoglycosides (D) Erythromycin
66. Which of the following is not antimicrobial drugs ?
(A) Eryhromycin (B) Tetracyclin (C) Chloramphenicol (D) Ofloxacin
67. Which antibiotics is used in treatement of Tuberculosis (TB) ?
(A) Aminoglycosides (B) Penicilline (C) Erythromycin (D) Tetracyclin
O H H S CH3
68. Whose structure is this ? CH2 – C – NH
CH3
N COOH
O H
(A) Penicillin-G (B) Penicillin-F (C) Penicillin-K (D) Ampicillin

703
69. Which of the following is not an antibiotic ?
(A) Penicillin (B) Oxytosin (C) Erythromysin (D) Tetracyclin
70. Which of the following pair is not antibacterial ?
(A) Erythromycin, tetracyclin (B) Erythromycin, chlormphenicol
(C) Ofloxacin, amino glycoside (D) Tetracyclin, chloremphenicol
71. Which of the following is antibacterial ?
(A) Tetracyclin (B) Chloramphenicol
(C) Erythromycin (D) Straptomycin
NHCOCHCl2
|
72. Whose structure is this ? O2N CH – CH – CH 2OH
|
OH
(A) Chlorozylanol (B) Chloramphenicol (C) Penicillin-F (D) Ampicillin

73. Which of the following is not an example of large spectrum antibiotic ?
(A) Penicillin (B) Tetracyclin (C) Chloremphenicol (D) Vencomycin
74. Match the correct pair according to names of antibiotics :
Nomenclature of antibiotics
(P) Name of Mother-in-law (T) Vernamycin
(Q) Name of Bacteria (U) Hemycin
(R) Name of Secretary (V) Streptomycin
(S) Name of factory (W) Seramycetin
(A) (P)-(W), (Q)-(V), (R)-(T), (S)-(U) (B) (P)-(V), (Q)-(W), (R)-(U), (S)-(T)
(C) (P)-(T), (Q)-(U), (R)-(V), (S)-(W) (D) (P)-(U), (Q)-(T), (R)-(V), (S)-(W)
75. What is the name of antibiotics based on name of patient ?
(A) Angolamycin (B) Vernamycin (C) Hemycin (D) Bacitracin
76. Give the name of antibiotic based on name of scientists wife :
(A) Bacitracin (B) Halinin (C) Vernamycin (D) Seramycetin
77. Where is the industrial production of penicillin in India ?
(A) Vadodara (Gujarat) (B) Kalpakkam (Tamilnadu)
(C) Pimpari (Maharashtra) (D) Kota (Rajasthan)
78. Which aqueous solution of substance is used for eyes to free it from microorganisms ?
(A) I2 (B) H3BO3 (C) KMnO4 (D) SO2
79. Which substance is used to make mouth free from microorganisms by gargling ?
(A) Boric acid (B) H2O2 (C) KMnO4 (D) Soframycin
80. Which drug is not included in antiseptic class ?
(A) KMnO4 (B) Furacin (C) Soframycin (D) Vernamycin
704
81. What is the mixture of Tincture of idonie ?
(A) 2.3% iondine of alcohol-water mixture (B) 2-3 % bromine of alcohol-water mixture
(C) 2-3% H2O2 of alcohol-water mixture (D) 2-3 % phenol of alcohol-water mixture
82. What is the mixture of Dettol ?
(A) Chloroxylenol + Terpinol (B) Terpinol + Bithionol
(C) Chloroxylenol + Bithionol (D) Chloroxylenol + Salol
83. Which antiseptic is added to soaps to develop the antiseptic property ?
(A) Terpineol (B) Phenol (C) Boric acid (D) Bithionol
84. For which of the following uses of 2-5 % concentrated mercuroform solution ?
(A) for treatment of neck (B) cleaning of teeth
(C) eyes free from microorganisms (D) skin free from insecticides
OH
H3C CH3
Cl
(A) Terpineol (B) Chloroxylenol (C) Bithionol (D) Salol

86. Which of the following compound is used in soap to develop the antiseptic properties ?
Cl OH OH Cl OH
CO OC6H5
(A) S (B)
Cl Cl
(C) KMnO4 (D) H2O2

Antiseptics Uses
(P) Salol (T) For eyes free from microorganism.
(Q) KMnO4 (U) In soap to develop antiseptic properties.
(R) Bithionol (V) Making mouth free from microorganism
(S) Boric acid (W) Treatment of neck
(A) (P)-(V), (Q)-(W), (R)-(U), (S)-(T) (B) (P)-(W), (Q)-(V), (R)-(U), (S)-(T)
(C) (P)-(U), (Q)-(W), (R)-(V), (S)-(T) (D) (P)-(R), (Q)-(W), (R)-(U), (S)-(V)
88. Which aqueous solution act as antiseptics disinfectants both ?
(A) phenol (B) potassium permenganate (C) hydrogen peroxide (D) salol
89. ...... of phenol solution acts as antiseptic.
(A) 0.2 % (B) 1 % (C) 2-3 % (D) 2-5 %
705
90. ....... are applied to inanimate objects for making them free from micro-organism.
(A) Antiseptics (B) disintectants
(C) Antibiotic (D) Antimicrobial
91. By which of the following the activity of disinfectants is expressed ?
(A) Iodine coefficient (B) Phenol coefficient
(C) Carbon coefficient (D) Bromine coefficient
92. On which type of bacteria is checked the activity of disinfectants
(A) Penicillin nonatum (B) Streptomycin gracius
(C) Salmonella typhosa (D) E-Coli
93. ........ of phenol solution act as disinfectant ?
(A) 1 % (B) 0.2 % (C) 0.5 % (D) 2 %
94. ....... of chlorine solution act as disinfectant :
(A) 30 - 40 ppm (B) 0.1 - 100 ppm
(C) 10 - 20 ppm (D) 0.2 - 0.4 ppm
95. What amount of water is added to 100 ml 1% aqueous solution of phenol used as antiseptic ?
(A) 400 ml (B) 108 ml (C) 500 ml (D) 100 ml
96. Which of the following is known as aqueous solution of o/m/p cresol ?
(A) dettol (B) lysol (C) sevlon (D) Salol
97. Which of the following gas in very less concentration act as disinfectants ?
(A) CO2 (B) SO2 (C) NO2 (D) O2
98. What is the name of chemical substances used for birth control ?
(A) Antacid (B) Antiseptic (C) Antifertility (D) Antibiotics
99. Which two mixture of compounds is used as antifertility pills ?
(A) Estrogenic, Progestrogenic (B) Testogenic, Estrogenic
(C) Progestogenic, Testogenic (D) Thiogenic, Estrogenic
100. Which of the following is used as morning after pill ?
(A) Norenthindrone (B) Bithionol (C) Mephriprestone (D) Promathazine
101. Which of the following mixture is antifertility pills ?
(A) Aspirin + Ibruprofen (B) Mestranol + Norenthindrone
(C) Luminal+Equanil (D) Cimetidine + Ranitidine
102. Chloraxylenol antiseptic is ...... .
(A) 4-chloro, 3,5-dimethyl phenol (B) 3-chloro,4-5-dimethyl phenol
(C) 4-chloro, 2,5-dimethyl phenol (D) 5-chloro, 3, 4-dimethyl phenol
Answers : 61. (A), 62. (B), 63. (C), 64. (D), 65. (D), 66. (D), 67. (A), 68. (A), 69. (B),
70. (D), 71. (C), 72. (B), 73. (A), 74. (A), 75. (D), 76) (B), 77. (C), 78. (B),
79. (C), 80. (D), 81. (A), 82. (A), 83. (D), 84. (D), 85. (B), 86. (A), 87. (B),
88. (A), 89. (A), 90. (B), 91. (B), 92. (C), 93. (A), 94. (D), 95. (A), 96. (B),
97. (B), 98. (C), 99. (A), 100. (C), 101. (B), 102. (A)
706
Chemical in Food
Artificial sweetening agents :
Sweetness value of artificial sweetening agent determins relative sweetness value of sucrose.
Sweetness value of sucrose is accepted as 100.
Examples Sweetness value
(1) Aspartame 160 It decomposes at cooking tempertures
(used in cold foods and soft drinks)
CO
(2) Saccharin 550 Structure NH
SO 2
(3) Sucrolose 600 stable at temperatures used for cooking

(looks and tastes like sucrose)
(4) Alitame 2000
(5) N-Cyclohexyl Sulphamate 07 (Cyclamate)
Food preservatives
The chemicals used to prevent food from spoiling by microorganisms like fungi are called food
preservatives.
example :
(1) table salt (NaCl)
(2) sodium benzoate (C6H5COONa)
(3) sodium metabisulphite (Na2S2O5)

(Jams, squashes, pickles)
Its preservative action is due to SO2 which dissolves in water to give sulphurous acid.
Which resist yeast, bacterias.
Na2S2O5 → Na2SO3 + SO2
SO2 + H2O → H2SO3 (Sulphurous acid)

(4) Sorbic acid and its salts :
(5) Epoxides
(6) P-Hydroxybenzoates esters
(7) Salt of propionic acid
Antioxidants
Addition of some chemical compounds to food causes slow activity of oxygen, so that the food
is preserved for a long time. These types of chemical compounds are called Antioxidants.
707
(1) Ascorbic acid
(2) Citric acid
(3) BHA (Butylated hydroxy anisole)
(4) BHT (Butylated hydroxy toluene)
OH OH
(CH3)3C C(CH 3)3 (CH3)3C C(CH 3)3
CH3 OCH3
BHT BHA
O
O
CH2 – COOH
HO CHCH2OH
HO C COOH
OH
CH2 – COOH OH
Ascorbic acid Citric acid

(5) β-tocopherol (Vitamin E)
Food colours
b-Carotene Caramel
Tetrazine Arneto
Iron oxide (Red colour) (Inorganic colour) Cetron (saffron)
Titanium dioxide (Inorganic colour) Amaranth (magenta red colour)
Indigo carmine (Sky blue colour) Erythrosine (Fast Red)
103. Which of the following is not an artificial sweeting agent ?
(A) Sucrolose (B) Alitame (C) Sedccharin (D) Sucrose
104. Which dipeptides methyl ester is artificial sweetning agent aspartame ?
(A) Glycine alanine (B) Aspartyle phenyl alanine
(C) Phenyl alanyle aspartic acid (D) Alanine alycine
105. Which of the following has maximum sweetness values ?
(A) Alitame (B) Aspartam (C) Sucrose (D) Sucrolose
106. Which of the following synthesized sweetining substance which is unstable at room temperature ?
(A) Alitame (B) Surcrolose (C) Aspartame (D) All mentioned
708
107. Why aspartame is not used in cooking ?
(A) It is unstable at cooking temperature.
(B) It is converted into phenyl pyruvic acid which responsible for mental diseases like brainhemorrage
(C) Its sweetness value is less like (160) .
(D) Both (A) and (B).
108. Which artificial sweeting substance is used in cold foods and cold drinks ?
(A) Alitame (B) Aspartame (C) Sucrolose (D) Saccharin
109. What is the sweetness value of ?
(A) 160 (B) 550 (C) 7 (D) 600

110. Which artificial sweetning agent is stable at room temperature which has appearance and taste like
sugar ?
(A) Sucrolose (B) Alitame (C) Saccharin (D) Aspartame
Artificial sweetning agent Sweetness value
(P) Aspartame (T) 7
(Q) Saccharin (U) 600
(R) Alitame (V) 100
(S) Cyclamate (W) 550
(X) 160
(Y) 2000
(A) (P)-(X), (Q)-(W), (R)-(Y), (S)-(T) (B) (P)-(W), (Q)-(X), (R)-(T), (S)-(Y)
(C) (P)-(W), (Q)-(T), (R)-(Y), (S)-(U) (D) (P)-(X), (Q)-(T), (R)-(W), (S)-(T)
112. What is the use of salts of sorbic acid and propionic acid ?
(A) Anti oxidant (B) Fragranting agent
(C) Food preservatives (D) Artificial sweetning agent
113. Which of the following is used as food preservatives ?
(A) Methyl benzoate (B) Methyl Salycylate (C) Sodium benzoate (D) Sodium phenoxide
114. Which of the following food preservatives used pickels, jam etc ?
(A) Sodium bisulptite (B) Epoxide
(C) P-hydroxy benzoate (D) Sorbic acid and its salts
115. Which of the following acid acts as antioxidant ?
(A) Sorbic acid (B) Citric acid (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Both (B) and (C)
116. How many-COOH group are present in Citric acid ?
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4
117. Which of the following is not an anti-oxidant ?
(A) BHA (B) BHT (C) Ascorbic acid (D) Sodium benzoate
709
118. Which of the following is artificial food colour ?
(A) Seffrone (B) bcarotene (C) Tetrazine (D) Melamine
119. Which of the following pair is not for food preservatives and food colour ?
(A) Salt of sorbic acid, caramel (B) Sodium benzoate, citric acid
(C) Propionic acid, b-carotene (D) Sodium metabisulphite, arneto
120. Which of the following is inorganic food colour ?
(A) b- carotene (B) Tetrazine (C) Caramel (D) Titanium dioxide
121. Which food colour prepare meganta red colour ?
(A) Iron oxide (B) Emernth (C) Indio carmine (D) Titanium dioxide
Some name of substances are given give answer the following questions on the basis of that
compound :
(Aspartame, Table salt, sodium benzoate, Saccharin, Epoxide, P-hydroxy benzoate ester, Propionic
acid, Sorbic acid, Cyclamate, Alitame, sodium metabisulphite, Ascorbic acid, BHA, BHT, b-Carotene,
Caramel, Erythromycin, Emernth, Tetrazine, Arneto)
122. How many number of anti-oxidants from the above given ?
(A) 06 (B) 10 (C) 05 (D) 03
123. How many number of food colours from the above given ?
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 4
124. How many number of artificial sweetning agents from the above given ?
(A) 03 (B) 04 (C) 05 (D) 06
125. How many number of food preservaties from the above given ?
(A) 04 (B) 03 (C) 05 (D) 07
Answers : 103. (D), 104. (C), 105. (A), 106. (C), 107. (D), 108. (B), 109. (C), 110. (A),
111. (A), 112. (B), 113. (C), 114. (A), 115. (D), 116. (B), 117. (D), 118. (B),
119. (B), 120. (D), 121. (B), 122. (D), 123. (B), 124. (B), 125. (D),
Cleansing Agents
SOAP :
Soap is Sodium or Potassium salt of fatty acid (Stearic acid, Oleic acid, Palmitic acid)
Lauric acid [C11H23COOH]
Palmitic acid [C15H31COOH]
Stearic acid [C17H35COOH]
Oleic acid [C17H31COOH]
Saponification process :
O
CH2 – O – C – C17H 35 CH2 – OH
CH – O – C – C17H35 + 3NaOH 3C17H35COONa + CH – OH
O Sodium Soap
CH2 – O – C – C17H 35 hydroxide CH2 – OH
O Glycerol
Glyceryl ester of
stearic acid
710
Types of soap
Bath soap :
Quality of bath soap can be decided on the basis of presence of TFM (Total Fatty Matters)
Laundry soap :
Shaving soap : (add glycerol to prevent rapid drying)
Rosin is added while preparing. It forms Sodium-Rosinate which produces lather.
Medicated soap :
Deodorants are added during preparation.
Limitations :
Soap does not produce foam with Acidic medium and hard water.
TFM (As per BIS) Grade
more than 76% 1
more than 65% but less than 76% 2
more than 60% but less than 65% 3
Synthetic Detergents
Sodium salts of organic sulphonic acid
The cleanliness ability in acidic medium or even with hard water.
In this detergents 10 to 14 carbon atoms attach in branch of aromatic ring.
Classification of Detergents
Anionic detergents :
In aqueous solutions, negative ions are formed.
Effective also in dilute acidic medium.
e.g. ABS (Branched sodium dodecyl benzene Sulphonate)
CH3 CH3 Biohard detergent

– +
CH3 CH – CH2 CH SO3 Na
3
ABS detergent
IUPAC Name : Sodium 4- (1, 3, 5, 7-tetramethyl octyl) benzenesulphonate
Example (2) LAS (Linear sodium dodecylbenzene sulphonate)
CH3 (CH2)11 SO3 Na+ (Biosoft detergent)
(LAS detergent)
IUPAC Name : Sodium 4-(1-dodesail) benzen salphonet
Cationic detergents : (known as invert shop)
In aqueous solution, positive ion is formed
Use :
These type of detergents being Germicidal are used in hospitals
Also used in preparation of cosmetics.
Hair conditioner.
711
(1) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide.
CH3 +
–
CH3 – (CH2)15 – N – CH3 Br
CH3
(2) Trimethyl cetyl ammonium chloride (3) Benzalconium chloride
CH3 + CH3 +
– –
CH3 – (CH2)17 – N – CH3 Cl CH3 – N – C12H25 Cl
CH3 CH3
Non-ionic detergents :
Neither in cationic nor in anionic form in their aqueous solution.
Use : Cleaning the glass and Ceramic wares.
(1) Polyethylene glycol and ester of stearic acid are these type of detergents.
CH3 (CH2)16 COOH + HO (CH2CH2O)n CH2CH2 OH }}}}

–H2O
m
stearic acid polyethylene glycol
CH3 (CH2)16 COO (CH2CH2O)nCH2CH2OH
Non-ionic detergents
Biosoft Detergent
The detergents easily degraded by microorganism are called bisoft detergents. eg. LAS
Biohard Detergents
The detergents not easily degraded or very slowly degraded by microorganisms are called
biohard detergents. e.g. ABS
(2) Pentaerythritol monostearate (Non-ionic detergents)
O CH 2OH
|| |
C17H35 C O CH2 C – CH 2OH
|
CH 2OH
126. Which biproduct is obtained except soap in saponification process ?

(A) Ethanol (B) Glycerol (C) Ethylene glycol (D) propanol
127. Which substance is added in shaving soap that its foam does not dry rapidly ?
(A) rosin (B) glycerol (C) caustic soda (D) oil
128. What is the proportion of total fatty matters (TFM) of soap grade-1 as per BIS ?
(A) > 76 % (B) < 76 % (C) 76 % (D) 70 %
712
129. Which substance is used to form more foam in shaving soap ?
(A) Rosin (B) Glycerol (C) Caustic soda (D) Oil
130. How many carbon atoms in chain attached to aromatic ring in detergent ?
(A) 2 to 4 (B) 6 to 10 (C) 10 to 14 (D) 14 to 20
131. Which organic detergent is used in hair conditioner ?
(A) Sodium dodecyl benzene sulphonate (B) Sodium Lauryl sulphate
(C) Sodium steryl sulphate (D) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
132. Which is the example of anionic detergent ?
(A) CH3(CH2)16CH2OSO3Na (B) CH3(CH2)16N+(CH3)3Cl
(C) CH3(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O)nCH2CH2OH (D) C6H5SO3Na
133. Which detergent is used as insecticides ?

(A) Sodium lauryl sulphate (B) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium bromide
(C) Lauryl alcohol ethoxylate (D) Sodium-2-dodecyl benzene sulphonate
134. Which of the following is cationic detergent ?
(A) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium chloride (B) trimethyl cetyl ammonium chloride
(C) Benzalconium chloride (D) All above
135. Select correct option for following statements of catonic detergent :
(i) It is also known as invert shop.
(ii) In aqueous medium it is negative ion.
(iii) Used in hair conditioner.
(iv) In preparation of cosmetics.
(A) T F T T (B) T T T T (C) F F T T (D) T T F F
136. Which of the following is the important role of phosphate in detergent powder ?
(A) To control the pH value in mixture of water in detergent.
(B) To remove Ca2+ and Mg2+ ion in hard water.
(C) Whitening of clothes.
(D) All above.
137. Which of the following is an example of bio hard (non biodegradable detergents) ?
(A) CH3(CH2)11 SO3Na (B) CH3(CH2)9 CH SO3Na

|
CH 3
CH3 CH3
(C) CH3 CH – CH2 CH SO3Na (D) CH3(CH2)10 CH2OSO3Na
3
713
138. Which type of detergent is penta erythritol monostearate ?
(A) Anionic detergent (B) Cationic detergent
(C) Non-ionic detergent (D) None.
139. What is the use of non-ionic detergent ?
(A) As cleaning in hospitals (B) In cosmetics
(C) In hair conditioners (D) As cleaning glass and ceramic wares.
140. Match the proper pair :
(P) Neuro transmitter (T) Ipronizid
(Q) Antidepression drugs (U) Sodium benzoate
(R) Artificial sweeting agent (V) Dopamine
(S) Preservatives (W) Aspartame

(A) (P)-(V), (Q)-(T), (R)-(W), (S)-(U) (B) (P)-(U), (Q)-(W), (R)-(T), (S)-(V)
(C) (P)-(W), (Q)-(V), (R)-(U), (S)-(T) (D) (P)-(T), (Q)-(U), (R)-(V), (S)-(W)
141. Match the correct pair :
(P) Cetyl trimethyl ammonium chloride (T) Hormone
(Q) Norpheneramine (U) Nerve transmitter
(R) Acetylcoline (V) Insecticides
(S) Adrenaline (W) Cationic detergent
(A) (P)-(V),(W), (Q)-(T),(U), (R)-(U), (S)-(T) (B) (P)-(T),(U), (Q)-(V),(W), (R)-(U), (S)-(T)
(C) (P)-(U), (Q)-(T), (R)-(T),(U), (S)-(V),(W) (D) (P)-(V),(W), (Q)-(U), (R)-(T),(U), (S)-(T)
There are two statements are given. Among these one is statement (A) and other is rea-
son (R). Read instructions carefully and select correct option :
(A) Statement (A) and reason (R) both correct, Reason (R) is correct explanation of statement (A).
(B) Statement (A) and reason (R) both correct but Reason is not correct explanation of statement (A).
(C) Statement (A) is correct but reason (R) is worng.
(D) Statement (A) is wrong but reason (R) is correct.
142. Statement (A) : Diphenyl hydrazine is antiallergic drug white cimetidine is used in treatment of
acidity.
Reason (R) : Both are antihistamine drugs.
143. Statement (A) : Depression due to less proportion of noradrenaline.
Reason (R) : Antidepression drugs synthesis noradrenaline.
714
144. Statement (A) : Aspirin is non-narcotic analgesic drug.
Reason (R) : It releives pain whithout effect on nervous system.
145. Statement (A) : BHA is a preservative.
Reason (R) : BHA is more reactive than O2 so it does not oxidised edible oil.
146. Statement (A) : Saccharine is artificial sweetening agent.
Reason (R) : Its calorie value is very high.
147. Correct order according to sweetness :
(A) Aspartame > Sucrolose > Alitame > Saccharin
(B) Aspartame > Saccharin > Sucrolose > Alitame
(C) Alitame > Sucrolose > Saccharine > Aspartame
(D) Saccharine > Aspartame > Alitame > Sucrolose
148. Which of the following two pairs are proper ?
(A) Food preservatives - Sodium benzoate
(B) Antioxidant-propionic acid
(C) Food colour −β−carotene
(D) artificial sweetening substance - arneto
(A) (A), (B) (B) (A), (C) (C) (A), (D) (D) (B), (D)
Answers : 126. (B), 127. (B), 128. (A), 129. (A), 130. (C), 131. (D), 132. (A), 133. (B),
134. (D), 135. (A), 136. (B), 137. (C), 138. (C), 139. (D), 140. (A), 141. (A),
142. (B), 143. (C), 144. (A), 145. (D), 146. (C), 147. (C), 148. (B),
715
28 Practical Chemistry
Detection of elements organic compounds
Organic compound always possess carbon and hydrogen elements. Except these elements
other elements are also present in organic compounds like oxygen, nitrogen, sulphur, halogen and
phosphorous. Detection of elements like C, N, P, S and X easily done by Lassaigne test. Which
indicated as below :
Aim of Lassaigne test

Test of elements undergo most probably in ion form, but organic compounds are co-valent in
nature, so its ionization is not possible. As a result elements present in organic compound fused with
sodium metal to convert in ion form.
Preparation of Lassaigne test :

Take distilled water in a porcelein dish. Then heat small piece of sodium metal in small fusion tube.
when sodium metal melts, add some organic compound and heat this mixture slowly, thereafter heated at
high temperature till it becomes red hot. Then throw fusion tube in porcelein dish containing distilled
water. Throw these types of two or three fusion tube in porcelien dish and boiled upto two minutes. Filter
this boiled solution and obtained filterate solution is called Lassaigne Solution.
During fusion process, N, S and X in organic compound convert into NaCN, Na2S and NaX.
Heat
Na + C + N + S + X NaCN + NaCNS + Na2S + NaX
(Organic compound)
Detection of nitrogen
In one test tube heat lassigne solution and then add freshly prepared FeSO4 solution to give sodium
ferro cynide. If excess heated to this solution ferrous ion convert into ferric ion. Then neutralise this
solution with dil. H2SO4. Here ferric ion reacts with ferrocyanide gives prucian blue coloured ferric -
ferro cyanide, which indicates presence of nitrogen in organic compound.
FeSO4 + 2NaCN Fe(CN)2 + Na2SO4

Fe(CN)2 + 4NaCN → Na4[Fe(CN)6]
sodium ferrocyanide
3Na4[Fe(CN)6] + Fe3+ → Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 + 12Na+
ferric ferrocyanide
(prucian blue coloured)
When nitrogen and sulphur both are present, then due to ferric thiocyante red colour like blood is
obtained which indicates presence of N and S.
3NaCNS + Fe3+ → Fe(CNS)3 + 3Na+
ferric thiocyanate
(Blood red colour)
716
Detection of sulpher :
Can be detected by following two tests :
(a) Sodium nitropruside test :
In lassaigne solution add few drops of freshly prepared sodium thionitro having purple
coloured which indicates presence of sulphur.
Na2S + Na2 [Fe(CN)5 NO] → Na2 [Fe(CN)5 NOS]
Sodium Nitroprusside Sodium Thionitroprusside
(violet colour)
(b) Lead acetate test :
In lassaigne solution add solution of acetic acid and lead acetate gives black precipitates
which indicates sulphur.
Na2S + (CH3COO)2Pb → PbS + 2CH3COOH
Lead Acetate Lead sulphide
(Black ppt.)
Detection of Halogen :
(a) If cyanide or sulphur are present in lassagine solution, so it is necessary to remove them
before lassagine test of halogen. In lassagine solution, add HNO3 and heated then cyanide
and sulphide ions are removed from solution in gaseous form of HCN and H2S.
After removal of CN and S, add AgNO3 solution. In this solution and if white precipitate
obtained and it is soluble in NH4OH, then Cl is present
NaCN + HNO3 → NaNO3 + HCN ↑
Na2S + 2HNO3 → 2NaNO3 + H2S ↑
NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl ↓ + NaNO3
white ppt
AgCl + 2NH3 → [Ag(NH3)2+] Cl
If light yellow coloured precipitates obtained and it is difficult to dissolve in NH4OH, so Br
is present.
If yellow coloured ppt obtained and it is insoluble in NH4OH, so I is present.
NaBr + AgNO3 → AgBr ↓ + NaNO3
NaI + AgNO3 → AgI ↓ NaNO3
(b) Detection of halogen is also done by second test. In lassaigne solution add HNO3, then few
drops of organic solvent like HNO3 or CCl4 add and shake well. So organic solvent
becomes coloured in absorbption of released halogen in organic solvent. If organic solvent
remain colourless then Cl is present and brown colour is obtained then Br is present and if
purple colour is obtained then I is present.
2NaBr + Cl2 → 2NaCl + Br2
2NaI + Cl2 → 2NaCl + I2
1. Which of the following halogen is inert towards bilstein test ?
717
2. Which compound is not present in lassaignes solution, when an organic compound containing
nitrogen, sulphur and chlorine is reacted with excess sodium ?
(A) Na2S (B) NaCN (C) NaCl (D) NaCNS
3. Which compound give blood red colour with ferric ion in detection of excess elements in organic
compound in lassaigne test ?
(A) NaCN (B) Na2S (C) NaCNS (D) NaCNO
4. Which of the following acidify lassigne solution by lead acetate for detection of sulphur ?
(A) dilute H2SO4 (B) dilute HCl (C) acetic acid (D) All above
5. Before carrying out halogen test, which is heated with lassaign solution ?
(A) dilute HCl (B) NaOH (C) con. HNO3 (D) All above
6. Cl2 gas is passed lassaigne solution containing CCl4. Which colour is obtained first on layer of CCl4
when lassaigne solution contain NaBr and NaI ?
(A) Purple (B) Brown (C) Green (D) Yellow
7. Which aq. solution of salt gives white ppt. with AgNO3 which is soluble inexcess NH4OH ?
(A) Cl (B) Br (C) I (D) NO3
8. Due to which reason ferric ion gives prussian blue colour ?
(A) K4[Fe(CN)6] (B) Fe4[Fe(CN)6] (C) KMnO4 (D) Fe(OH)3
9. Which of the following organic compound, which gives positive test of nitrogen with lassaigne
solution ?
(A) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (B) Na3[Fe(CN)6]
(C) Fe(CN)3 (D) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
10. Which of the following possess lassaigne solution when sulphanilic acid break with sodium metal ?
(A) only NaCN (B) Na2S
(C) NaCN and Na2S (D) NaCN, NaCNS and Na2S
Answers : 1. (A), 2. (D), 3. (C), 4. (C), 5. (C), 6. (A), 7. (A), 8. (B), 9. (A), 10. (D)
Identification of following functional group of organic compounds - Hydroxyl (alconolic and

phenolic), carbonyl (aldehyde, and ketone), carboxyl and amino functional group.
Test for identification of different functional group are as follow :
Reaction of alcoholic group
(a) Sodium metal test : Sodium metal reacts with alcohols and liberate hydrogen gas. A bisk
effervescene due to evolution of hydrogen indicates the presence of an alcoholic hydroxyl
group.
2 R OH + 2Na → 2 R ONa + H2↑
718
(b) Ester formation test :
(i) Alcohols on heating with carboxylic acids in the presence of conc. H2SO4 form esters, which
have sweet fruity odour.
conc. H2SO 4
R OH + R COOH RCOOR + H2O
(ii) Alcohol reacts with 3, 5 dinitrobenzoil to give crystalline ester.
O NO2 O NO2
R OH + Cl – C → RO C + HCl
NO2 NO2
crystalline ester
(c) Lucas test :
This test is useful to detect primary (1o), secondary (2o) and tertiary (3o) alcohol in laboratory.
In this test alcohol reacts with anhydrous zinc chloride and concentrated hydrochloric acid.
Shake well this mixture and kept sometime after heating this mixture.
If oily drops appears quickly on the surface of mixture, it must be 3o alcohol.
If solution becomes milky after 5 minute, it must be 2o - alcohol.
If solution remain as it is, it must be 1oo - alcohol.
Reaction of phenotic group
(a) Ferric choride test :
Neutral ferric choride reacts with phenolic group to form ferric phenoxides which have
characteristic colours depending upon the nature of phenolic compounds.
6C6H5OH + FeCl3 → 3H+ + [Fe(OC6H5)6]3 + 3HCl
voilet colour
(b) Libermen Nitroso reaction :
In a test tube containing crystal of NaNO2 add small proportion of organic compound and
cool down in which add 1 ml concentration H2SO4 produce greenish blue coloured. In which
excess water is added red aquens solution turns again dark green or blue. In this solution
NaOH is added gives basic solution which indicates presence of phenol.
HNO2 C 6H 5 O H
OH HO OH O N OH
H2SO4
phenol Iodo phenol Ion
O N O NaOH
Iodo phenol (blue)

(c) Phthalein test :
When phenol are heated with phthalic anhydride in the presence of conc H2SO4 they
undergo condensation to form phthalein dyes which give characteristic colour in NaOH
solution.
719
O O
C – OH C
H2SO4 2 C6H 5OH
O
C – OH C
O O
Phthalic acid phthalic anhydriede
O O
C–O C
OH O
C C
O O HO OH
Pink phenolphthalein (colourless)

Phenolphthalein used as indicator in acid-base titration, which gives colourless in acidic
medium and pink colour in basic medium.
Aldehyde functional group
(a) Tollens reagent test (silver mirror test)
Tollens reagent is ammonical solution of silver nitrate. The aldehyde react with freshly
prepared Tollens reagent to give silver mirror along the sides of the test tube.
2Ag(NH3)2OH + R CHO 2Ag ¯ + R COONH4 + 3NH3 + H2O

silver mirror
(b) Fehling solution test :
Mixture of Fehling solution A and B forms a solution of Cu(OH)2 stabilised in solution by
Roschelle salt (Sodium Potassium tetrate) Aldehyde react with Fehlings solution to given red
ppt. due to copper (I) oxide.
2CuO + R CHO Cu2O + R COOH

Red ppt.
(c) Schiffs reagent test :
When aldehydes are shaken with schiffs reagent, a deep red or purple colour indicates the
presence of aldehydes.
H SO 2NH
2 R - CHO
C NH2
- H2SO4
H SO 2NH SO3
Schiffs reagent
720
R – CHSO2 NH
OH C NH 2
R – CHSO2 NH
violet colour
OH
(d) Benedicts Test :
Boil organic compound with 2-3 ml benedicts solution. After sometime red-yellow ppt
obtained, which indicates presence of aldehyde group. This test is given by only
aliphatic aldehyde.
Ketone group ( C = O )
(a) 2, 4 Dinirro phenyl hydrazine test :
Take few drops of organic compound in a test tube and add 2 ml reagent and one drop
concentrated H2SO4 shake well and kept for 5 minutes. If organic compound contain
carbonyl group, gives yellow or orange precipitates due to formation of hydrazone.
C = O + H2NHN NO2 → C = NHN NO2↓ + H2O

O 2N O 2N
Organic compound 2, 4 Dinitrophenyl yellow or orange PPt
hydrazine
(b) Sodium bisulphite test :
Aldehyde and ketones give white crystalline ppt with sodium bisulphite.
shake well
OH
C = O + NaHSO3 C
SO 3Na
white crystalline ppt
(c) Sodium Nitroprusside test :
Add few organic compound in the solution of sodium nitropruside (Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]).

2-3 drop of NaOH is added to prepare basic solution. If red or purple colour is
appeared ketone group then keto group must be present.
721
Carboxylic acid (COOH) group
(a) Litmus solution test :
Carboxylic acids turn blue litmus solution red.
(b) Sodium bicarbonate test :
Carboxylic acids react with 5% aqueous soln of NaHCO3 and liberated CO2 which gives
effervescence.
COOH + NaHCO3 → COONa + H2O + CO2
Benzoic acid Sodium benzoate

(c) Ester formation test :
In few amount of organic compound add ethyl alcohol and less proportion of concentrated
H2SO4 , cool it and add vessel containing water to produce sweet smell like fruit due to
formution of ester, which indicate presence of carboxylic acid. Carboxylic acids are con-
verted to neutral solution of ammonium salts on treatment with ammonium hydroxide.
R COOH + C2H5OH conc.H2SO4 R COOC2H5 + H2O

Ester (fruity smell)
Primary amino (NH2) Group

(a) Carbylamine test :
Primary amines react with chloroform in the presence of alcoholic KOH to form isocyanide
or carbyl amine which have very unpleasant (offensive) smell
R NH2 + CHCl3 + 3 KOH R N+ ≡ C + 3KCl + 3H2O

(b) Dye-formation test :
Primary amines form benzene diazonium compounds with NaNO2 and HCl at 0-5o C, which
on treatment with ice cold alkaline soln of b naphthol form a brilliant orange or red dye.
0–5 C o
NH2 + NaNO2 + 3HCl N = N.Cl + 2H2O + HCl + NaCl
Aniline Benzene diazonium chloride
OH
OH
N = N.Cl + HCl N=N
Benzene diazonium chloride b- napthnol phenyl azo naphthol (red dye)

b-
Seperation of primary (1o), secondary (2o) and tertiary (3o) can be done by nitrous acid test
and Hinsbergs test.
722
11. Which group containing compound, release CO2 gas when reacts with NaHCO3 ?
(A) CHO group (B) Phenolic OH group (C) NH2 group (D) COOH group
12. Which test is useful to distinguish acetone and α-hydroxy acetone ?
(A) Tollens test (B) Iodoform test (C) Both A and B (D) None
13. Which of the following functional group is used to detect in reagent like 2, 4-dinitrophenyl hydrazine
in organic analysis ?
(A) alcohol (B) acid (C) aldehyde (D) amine
14. Which of the following compound, which gives positive iodo form test and tollens test ?
(A) CH3CH2OH (B) CH3CH2CH2CHO (C) CH 3CHO (D) CH3COCH3
15. Which of the following compound which release CO2 gas with NaHCO3 and give colour with
neutral FeCl3 ?
OH OH OH
CH COOH COOCH3
CH2COOH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
OH
16. Which of the following detect alcoholic group in organic compound ?

(A) cerric ammonium nitrate (B) Sodium metal
(C) Ester formation test (D) All above
17. Which of the following organic compound which does not reduced with tollens reagent or fehling
solution but gives red colour with cerric ammonium nitrate solution ?
(A) phenol (B) aldehyde (C) ketone (D) alcohol
18. Which statement is not correct for phenolphthalein ?
(A) It is phthalein dye.
(B) It is used in acid-base indicator.
(C) It is obtained by condensation reaction of phenol with phthalic anhydride in presence of
concentrated H2SO4.
(D) It is colourless in basic medium but pink in acidic medium

19. Obtained fruity smell when ...
(A) Primary amine reacts with acetic anhydride.
(B) alcohol reacts with glacial acetic acid in presence of concentrated H2SO4.
(C) aldehyde reacts with hydroxyl amine.
(D) Carboxylic acid reacts with NaHCO3.

20. Which catalyst is used to seperate acetophenone from benzaldehyde ?
(A) Sodium bicarbonate (B) Sodium bisulphite (C) Sodium bisulphate (D) sodium sulphite
723
(A) Fehling A solution contain CuSO4 solution.
(B) Fehling B solution is basic solution of roshell-salt.
(C) Act of roshell salt keep stable of Cu2+ in basic medium.
(D) Both type of aldehyde, aliphatic and aromatic gives red ppt of Cu2O by reduation of Fehling
solution.
22. By whom can seperate acetaldehyde from acetone ?
(A) NaHSO3 (B) 2, 4-dinitro phenyl hydrazine
(C) NaOI (D) [Ag(NH3)2]+OH
23. What is an organic compound, which gives effervences with NaHCO3 solution which dissolve in
NaOH and add dil HCl to get ppt ?
(A) Acetic acid (B) Benzoic acid (C) Oxalic acid (D) Formic acid
24. Which of the following compound when it is dissolved in dil HCl to give carbyl amine test ?
(A) 1o - amine (B) 2o - amine (C) 3o - amine (D) carboxylic acid
25. Which organic compound is required to give azo-dye test ?
(A) 1o - aliphatic amine and CHCl3 (B) 1o - aromatic amine and 1-naphthol
(C) 1o - aromatic amine and phenol (D) 3o - aliphatic amine and β-naphthol
26. Which test is used for present functional group in p-amino acetophenone ?
(A) Azodye test and NaHCO3 test (B) FeCl3 test and azodye test
(C) Carbyl amine test (D) Carbyl amine test and azo dye test
27. Which of the following gives red ppt. of Cu2O with fehling solution ?
(A) C6H5CH2CHO (B) C6H5CHO (C) C6H5COCH3 (D) CH3CH2COCH3
28. Which of the following compound is prepared for very foul and poisonals smell in carbyl amine test ?
(A) nitryl (B) chlorocompound (C) nitrosoamine (D) iso cyanide
Answers : 11. (D), 12. (A), 13. (B), 14. (C), 15. (B), 16. (D), 17. (D), 18. (D), 19. (B), 20. (B),
21. (D), 22. (B), 23 (B),) 24 (A), 25 (B), 26. (C), 27 (A), 28 (D)
Chemistry involved in preparation of Inorganic compounds

Inorganic compounds
(i) Mohrs salt or Ferrous amonium sulphate :
[FeSO4 . (NH4)2 SO4 . 6H2O]
When equimolar quantities of ferrous sulphate FeSO4 . 7H2O and ammonium sulphate are
dissolved in water and the solution is concentrated and allow to cool light green crystals of
Mohrs salt seprate out.
FeSO47H2O + (NH4)2 SO4 → FeSO4.(NH4)2.SO4.6H2O + H2O
Mohrs salt
724
It is necessary to add less proportion of dilute H2SO4 in hot water, to prevent its hydrolysis
during preparation of ferrous sulphate solution. i.e. ferrous sulphate prevent conversion in
ferrous hydroxide.
(ii) Potash alum [K·Al·(SO4)2.12H2O] :
When equimolar quantities of potassium sulphate and aluminium sulphate are dissolved in water
and the solution is concentrated to crystallization point by boiling and allowed to cool, colourless
crystals of potash alum are formed.
K2SO4 + Al2(SO4)3 18H2O + 6H2O → K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
potash alum
Organic compounds
(i) Acetanilide NHCOCH3 :
Acetanilide is prepared by acetylation of aniline. It is carried out by reflaxing aniline with acetic
anhydride or with glacial acetic acid and anhydrous zinc chloride. The reaction mixture is de-
composed with cold water and crystallised from hot water containing a few drop of alcohol.
Amine containing NH2 or NH group undergo direct acetylation. Substitution of active
hydrogen in it by acetyl group (COCH3) gives derivetives like R NHCOCH3 and
R2NCOCH3.
R NH2 + (CH3CO)2O R NH COCH3 + CH3COOH (where R = C6H5)
Mechanisims :
O O
C – CH3 + C – CH3
N: + O N
H2 C – CH3 H2 O
C – CH3
Aniline O
O
Acetic Anhydride
– H+
H O H O
O – C – CH 3 + N – C – CH3 N – C – CH 3
O O
Acetanilide
C – CH3
O
It is necessary to add less proportion of zinc to prevent oxidation of aniline and do the reduction of
colourless impurities present in it.
725
(ii) P-nitro acetanillide :
O 2N NHCOCH3
It can be prepared by the nitration of acetanilide with a mix of conc. H2SO4 and conc.
HNO3 . The reaction mixture is decomposed with crushed ice. The solid product is seprated by
filtration and crystallised from rectified spirit.
HNO3 + H2SO4 NO2+ + H2O + HSO4

Nitroniyan iron
H NO2 NO2
NHCOCH3
slow + fast
+ +NO2 + H+
NHCOCH3
NHCOCH3
Acetanilide P-nitro acetanilide
H+ + HSO4 H2SO4
(iii) Aniline yellow/p-Amino Azobenzene :
N=N NH2
Aniline is heated with dill. HCl to form aniline hydrochloride is soluble in water. The
water solution of aniline hydrochloride is cooled in crushed ice (0-5o C) and treated with ice cold
soln of NaNO2. Benzene diazonium compound is formed which on coupling with aniline gives aniline
yellow.
N = N NH HCl N+ ≡ NCl + NH2
Diazoamino benzene Aniline

¯ HCl
N=N NH2
P-Amino azobenzene
(iv) Iodoform (CHI3) :
Iodoform may be prepared by heating Ethanol or propanone (acetone) with Iodine in the
presence of NaOCl solution.
NaOCl + KI NaOI + KCl
726
H 3C I3C NaOH
C = O + NaOI → C=O CH3COONa + CHI3
H 3C I3C Iodoform
29. What is the ratio of aluro contain aqueous monovalent positive ion [M(H2O)]+, trivalent positive ion
[M(H2O)6]3+ and SO42 ?
(A) 1 : 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 3 (C) 1 : 3 : 2 (D) 1 : 1 : 2
30. Which of the following is obtained when aniline hydrochloride reacts with diazo amino benzene at
40o C ?
(A) aniline yellow (B) Hydruso compound (C) azo benzene (D) No reaction
31. During preparation of acetanilide from aniline some proportion of zinc is added to reaction mixture
because ...
(A) Zinc increases in precipitatizaton.
(B) Zn prevent reduction of aniline during reaction.
(C) Zn prevent oxidation of aniline during reaction as well as reduced colourless impurities in
aniline.
(D) Zinc gives white crystallised complex with aniline.
32. Which compound is not useful in preparation of iodoform test ?
(A) CH3CHO (B) CH3COCH3 (C) HCHO (D) Propan-l-ol
33. Which statement is wrong for aniline yellow ?
(A) It is carcinogenic. (B) It is also known as P-amino azobenzene.
(C) It is acid dye. (D) It is also known as 4-phenylazoaniline.
34. Which compound is not useful in preparation of Mohrs salt ?
(A) Ferrous sulphate (B) Ammonium sulphate (C) Dil H2SO4 (D) All are useful
35. Which method is useful for preparation of P-nitro acetanilide ?
(A) nitration of aniline by Con. HNO3 + H2SO4 then acetylation by acetic anhydride.
(B) Friedel craft reaction of nitrobenzene with acetic anhydride.
(C) Acetylation of aniline by acetic anhydride.
(D) None of this.
36. Which structural formula of diazo amino benzene obtained from preparation of aniline yellow ?
(A) H2N N=N (B) H2N N = N NH2
(C) N = N NH (D) H2N N = N NH
37. What is used in preparation of iodoform from acetone ?

(A) KI (B) KI3 (C) KOI (D) KIO3
727
38. Which statement is incorrect for aniline yellow ?
(A) It is azo dye.
(B) It is basic dye
(C) Its preparation is done by diazo amino benzene heated with aniline and aniline hydrochloride.
(D) Its preparation is done in basic medium by conjugation progress with phenol and
diazonium chloride.
39. Which reagent is used to seperate aniline from mixture of aniline and nitrobenzene ?
(A) Ether (B) aqueous HCl (C) aqueous NaOH (D) aqueous NaHCO3
40. Why dil H2SO4 is added in preparation of mohrs salt ?
(A) To stop hydrolysis of ferrous sulphate. (B) To increase in solubility of salt.
(C) To stop precipitation of metal carbonate. (D) To neutralization of ammonium salt.
41. In which form of potash alumn crystal crystallizes ?
(A) Monoclinic shape (B) Octahedral shape (C) Tetragonal shape (D) Tetrahedral shape
42. Which substance is not used in preparation of iodoform as starting reagent substance ?
(A) CH3CHOHCH 3 (B) CH3CH2CH2OH (C) CH3COCH2CH3 (D) C6H 5COCH3
Answers : 29. (D), 30. (A), 31. (C), 32. (C), 33. (C), 34. (D), 35. (C), 36. (C),
37. (C), 38. (D), 39. (C), 40. (A), 41. (B), 42. (B)
Titration
In volumetric analysis of definite volume of substance having unknown concentration required for
complete reaction what volume of substance having known concentration. It can be determined by process
known as titration.
Standard solution
In volumetric analysis, method, one or more standard solutions are used as reagent whose
concentration is known. In acid-base titration most of standard solution is used as strong acid and strong
base. eg. HCl, H2SO4, NaOH, KOH and Ba(OH)2 etc. Base is not always used for standard solution like
acid because when they comes in contact with air, absorb CO2 gas.
Acid base Titration using Acid-Base Indicator
Acid-base titration is one of the method from differernt practical methods to determine concentra-
tion of solutions.
In this method reagent present in definite volume of solution reacts with what volume of another
reagent in its equivalent proportion required, it shold be determined.
In titration method, two solutions are used and concentration of second solution can be determined
based on known concentration of first solution.
In acid-base titration definite volume of aqueous solution of acid and bases taken by pipette in
conical flask, add solution of second reagent from burette slowly added till the reaction is completed.
728
To determine the completion of reaction, two-three drops of substance is added to definite volume
of solution to colour-change at proper time. This substance is called indicator.
Success of acid-base titration depends on proper indicator.
Selection of indicator is depended on quickly change in pH in last step of titration.
Phenolphthalein and methyl orange are important indicators used in acid-base titrations.
pH range and colour of some indicators

No Indicator pH range colour in acidic sol. colour in base solution
1. Thymol blue 1.2-2.8 Red Yellow
2. Bromophenol blue 3.1-4.6 Yellow Purple
3. Methyl orange 3.1-4.5 Red Yellow
4. Methyl red 4.2-6.3 Red Yellow
5. Bromothymol blue 6.0-7.5 orange Blue
6. Phenol red 6.4-8.2 yellow Red
7. Thymol blue (Base) 8.1-9.6 Yellow Blue
8. Phenolphthalein 8.0-9.8 colourless pink
9. Thymophthalein 9.3-10.5 colourless Blue
10. Aizarine yellow R 10.1-12.1 Yellow Green
Indicators used in acid-base titrations
No Acid-base titration Indicators
1. Strong acid-strong Bromothymol blue, phenolphthalein,

Base Methyl orange, Thymophthalein
2. Strong acid- Methyl orange, methyl red,

weak base bromo cesol green
3. Weak base- phenolphthalein,

strong acid Thymolphthalein
4. Weak acid Phenol red

weak base
Information of terms used in volumetric analysis

Normality : When 1 gm equivalent weight of solute dissolve in 1 litre solution known as 1 normal
solution and its normality is 1.
729
gm/litre
Normality (N) = equivalent weight
gram
=
eq. wt x vol. of solution (litre)
Atomic weight of acid (gm/mol)

Equivalent weight of acid =
Basicity of acid
Atomic weight of base (gm/mol)

Equivalent weight of base =
Acidity of Base
Molarity (M)
When 1 gm molecular weight of solute dissolve in 1 litre solution known as 1 molar solution and its
molarity is 1.
gm/litre
Molarity (M) = molecular weight
(weight of solution in gram)

=
Molecular mass × volume of solution in litre
Normality× Equivalent weight

OR Molarity = Molecular weight
Redox Titrations
Oxidising agent like KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 titrate with reducing agent like Fe, Fe2+, H2O2, CaCl2 and
MnO2 in acidic, basic or neutral medium, known as redox titration. In this type of titration oxidation and
reduction both are included.
eg. MnO4 + 5Fe2+ 8H+ → Mn2+ + 5Fe3+ + 4H2O
MnO4 reduced to Mn2+ in this reaction. Oxidizing agent is reduced. So, MnO4 is known as
oxidizing agent.
Fe2+ oxidized to Fe3+ in the reaction. Reducing agent is oxidized. So, Fe2+ is called reducing agent.
In all cases N1V1 = N2V2 but M1V1 ≠ M2V2
Important Examples of some redox titrations
(i) KMnO4 ® oxalic acid titration :
It is the example of redox titration, in which reducing agent (oxalic acid) titrate with standard
solution of oxidizing agent (KMnO4). This reaction is depended on change in valency of ions. In this type
of titration oxidation and reduction both occurs i.e. one undergo oxidation and other undergo reduction.
2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 3H2O + 5 (O)
5H2C2O4 + 5(O) → 5H2O + 10 CO2
Total reaction : 2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 + 5H2C2O4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 8H2O + 10CO2
730
OR
Ionic Equation :
2MnO4 + 16H+ + 5C2O42 → 2Mn2+ + 8H2O + 10 CO2
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓
+7 +3 +2 +4
In this redox reaction KMnO4 undergo reduction and H2C2O4 undergo oxidation. In this titration
KMnO4 act as self indicator. This titration can be possible in presence of HCl or H2SO4 but impossible
with HNO3 because it is oxidising agent and resist in oxidation reaction of KMnO4.
In this titration, solution of oxalic acid heated with dil H2SO4 at 70-800 C temperature.
(ii) Titration : KMnO ® Mohr salt [FeSO .(NH ) SO .6H O] :
4 4 4 2 4 2
In this titration, ferrous ammonium sulphate present as ferrous sulphate form which oxidised to
ferric sulphate by acidic KMnO4.
2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO2 + 3H2O + 5(O)
10 FeSO .(NH ) SO .6H O + 5H SO + 5(O) →
4 4 2 4 2 2 4
5Fe2(SO4)3 + 10 (NH4)2SO4 + 5H2O
Total reaction : 2KMnO4 + 8H2SO4 + 10 Fe2SO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O →
K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 5 Fe2(SO4)3 + 10 (NH4)2SO4 + 8H2O
OR
Ionic Equation
MnO4 + 5Fe2+ + 8H+ → Mn2+ + 5Fe3+ + 4H2O
KMnO4 itself indicator.
Occurs at room temperature, because mohr salt oxidised only by air.
If H2SO4 is in excess, brown ppt of MnO2 obtained.
43. Oxalic acid is present in vegatables and many shrubs. What is percentage weight of (H2C2O4) in
sample when 24 ml 0.01 M KMnO4 required at the end point for titration of 100 gm H2C2O4 ?
(A) 0.54 % (B) 5.4 % (C) 1.54 % (D) 0.054 %
44. How KMnO4 act as in titration of KMnO4 versis oxalic acid ?
(A) Outer indicator (B) Self indicator (C) Reducing agent (D) Both B and C
45. What amount of mohr salt is required to prepare 250 ml N/20 mohrs salt ?
(A) 9.8 gm (B) 4.9 gm (C) 19.6 gm (D) 3.2 gm
46. 0.5 gm mixture of K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4 reacts with excess KI in acidic medium. What percentage
of K2Cr2O7 in mixture, when 100 cm3 0.15 N Na2SO4 solution is required for titration of release I2
from mixture ?
(A) 85.36 % (B) 14.64 % (C) 58.63 % (D) 26.14 %
47. Which of the following is equivalent to 50 ml 0.04 m KMnO4 solution, when KMnO4 reacts with
oxalate in acidic medium MnO41 reduced to Mn2+ and C2O42 oxidized to CO2 ?
(A) 100 ml 0.1 M H2C2O4 solution (B) 50 ml 0.2 M H2C2O4 solution
(C) 25 ml 0.1 M H2C2O4 solution (D) 50 ml 0.1 M H2C2O4 solution

731
48. Which of the following oxidized of 126 gm oxalic acid (H2C2O42H2O) in acidic medium ?
1 1 5
(A) mole K2Cr2O7 (B) 2 mole K2Cr2O7 (C) mole KMnO4 (D) mole KMnO4
3 3 2
49. What is percentage of purity of sample when complete reaction of 3.92 gm ferrous ammonium
N
sulphate (mohrs salt) with 50 m KMnO4 ?
10
(A) 50 (B) 78.4 (C) 80 (D) 39.2
(A) Acidic solution of K2Cr2O7 release iodine from iodide.
(B) In acidic solution dichromate ions convert into chromate ion.
(C) Heating of (NH4)2 Cr2O7 gives Cr2O3 by exothermic decomposition.
(D) Potassium dichromate is used as titrant for estimation of Fe2+ ion.
51. Aqueous solution of 6.3 gm oxalic acid of 250 ml is prepared. What volume of 0.1 N NaOH is
required for neutralisation of 10 ml oxalic acid solution ?
(A) 40 ml (B) 20 ml (C) 10 ml (D) 4 ml
52. What is the reason for brown ppt of aq. MnO2 in titration of KMnO4 ?
(A) In complete reduction of KMnO4 due to less proportion of dil. H2SO4.
(B) Due to excess heating of solution.
(C) Add KMnO4 dropwise with stirring.
(D) Addition of HCl.
(A) It is not heated before titration of mohrs salt solution with KMnO4.
(B) Reaction between KMnO4 and mohr salt can possible in cold solution.
(C) Heating of ferrous sulphate present in mohrs salt, it oxidised in ferric sulphate by air.
(D) In titration of mohrs salt by KMnO4 heated at 60o-70o temperature gives acute result.
54. In titration of KMnO4, dil HCl cant be used in place of dil. H2SO4 because...
(A) KMnO4 reacts with HCl to produce Cl2 gas.
(B) Reaction with HCl some KMnO4 is used.
(C) Require excess KMnO4 than require necessary.
(D) HCl does not react with KMnO4.
55. Which of the following statement is wrong for given aqueous solution ?
dil. H2SO4
KI + K3[Fe(CN)6] Brownish yellow solution
¯ ZnSO4
colourless solution Brownish yellow filterate + white ppt
(A) First reaction is a redox reaction.
(B) White ppt is of Zn3[Fe(CN)6]2.
(C) Add starch solution in filterate gives yellow colour.
(D) White ppt. dissolve in NaOH solution.
732
56. What mass of crystal of K2Cr2O7 required for oxidation of 750 cm3 0.6 M mohrs salt solution ?
(mol mass of K2Cr2O7 = 294; Mohars salt = 392)
(A) 0.49 gm (B) 0.45 gm (C) 22.05 gm (D) 2.2 gm
57. What volume of 0.02 M MnO4 solution is required for oxidation of 0.1 M 40 ml Fe2+ ion solution ?
(A) 200 ml (B) 100 ml (C) 40 ml (D) 20 ml
58. When KMnO4 solution is added to oxalic acid solution, initially its colour slowly disappear but after
sometime it disappear quickly because...
(A) CO2 produced as a product. (B) reaction is exothermic.
(C) MnO4 catalysation reaction. (D) Mn2+ acts as self catalyst.
Answers : 43. (B), 44. (B), 45. (B), 46. (B), 47. (C), 48. (A), 49. (A), 50. (B), 51. (A), 52. (A),
53 (D), 54. (D), 55. (B), 56. (C), 57. (C), 58, (D)
Qualitative Analysis
Identification or checking of different species (ions) present in compound known as quantitative
analysis.
e.g. zinc blende contain Zn2+ and S2 ion.
Systematic qualitative analysis depends on three steps :
(1) Primary tests (2) Wet test of positive ions (3) Wet test of negative ions.
(1) Primary test :
(a) colour :
No. observation Inference
(1) Blue, Its solution is also blue Cu2+ ion
(2) Green, Its solution also green Ni2+ ion
(3) Dark green colour Cr2+ ion
(4) Violet-pink, solution is pink Co2+ ion
(5) light pink, solution is colourless Mn2+, Mn3+ ion
(6) Brownish red Fe2O3
(7) Red HgO, HgI2, Pb3O4, Cu2O

(8) Black CuO, NiO, SnO, FeS, CuS, HgS,
PbS, CoS, FeO, CuS
(9) Orange red Sb2S3
(10) Yellow As2S3, CdS, Bi2O3, As2S5
(11) Yellow-Green Fe2+ salt
(12) Yellow-Brown Fe3+ salt
(13) Purple Cr3+ salt
733
(b) Effect of Heat :
Heat given substance in dry and clean test tube slowly and then more heated gives following
observations :
No. Observations Inference

(1) Substance melts Salt of metals (alkali) chlorides of Hg, Ag
and Pb
(2) Substance cracks Pb(NO3)2, Ba(NO3)2, NaCl and KI
(3) Swells Alumn, phosphate and Borates salts.
(4) Sublimation of substance and its colour is HgCl2, AS2O3, Hg2Cl2, AlCl3, Sb2O3
white. Halide of NH3
yellow AS2S3 and HgI2
Black (Hg, Sb and As)s sulphide
Blue, yellow or violet vapour Iodide
gray (garlic colour)
(5) After heating colour of residue
white oxide of Ca, Ba, Sr, Mg, Zn and Al
red-brown Fe2O3
yellowish brown SnO2
when hot but brown when cool
black NiO, MnO2 and CuO
Dark orange-red HgO
White after heated yellow ZnO
Blue or green after heating white CuSO4.5H2O
(6) Observation of Evolution gas
Supporter combustion O2 nitrate of Na and K.
CO2 gas which gives milky of lime Carbonate and oxalate
water
H2S-bad smelling gas like rotten egg sulphide
White fumes with HCl gas aqueous chlorine salt
NH3-gas red litums turns blue ammonium salt
SO2-smell like burnt sulphur sulphide and thiosulphate
Cl2-yellow-green gas chloride
I2-violet gas Iodide
Br2-red brown gas Bromide
NO2-brown gas nitrate and nitrite of heavy metal.
734
(c) Smell of compound :
It also give the idea of present radical.
smell Inference
Ammoniacal salt of NH4+
vinegar acetate
like Cl2 Hypochlorite
(d) Solubility of salt :
Types of salt observation
Nitrate or nitrite all metallic salt dissolve in water

Acetate all metallic acetate dissolve in water
Chloride All chloride except AgCl, Hg2Cl2 and PbCl2 dissolve in water
Bromide all bromide except AgBr, Hg2Br2 and PbBr2 dissolve in water
Iodide all iodides except Hg2I2, Hg2I2 and PbI2 dissolve in water
Sulphide all sulphide except metal of group-I and group-II and
ammonium ion, dissolve in water.
carbonate all carbonate except carbonate of group-I and (NH4)2CO3
dissolve in water.
Sulphate All sulphate are soluble in water but PbSO4, Hg2SO4, BaSO4,
CaSO4 and Ag2SO4 sparingly soluble in water
Phosphate All sulphate except group-I and (NH4)3PO4 dissolve in water.
Hydroxide All hydroxide except group-I, Ba(OH)2, Sr(OH)2 and Ca(OH)2
dissolve in water.
(e) Flame Test :

Prepare a paste of the substance in a minimum quantity of con. HCl and perform flame test in oxidising
flame (blue flame). General radical of Gr. (IV) (Ca2+, Ba2+, Sr2+) can be detected by this test.
Colour +ve ion (Radically)
Golden yellow Na +
Violet (pink) K+
Reddish brown Li+
Brick red Ca2+
Green like apple Ba2+ , MO2+
Greenish blue Cu2+, BO33, Ti3+
Crimson red Sr2+
Blue Cu2+, As3+, Sb3+, Bi3+
735
(f) Chareoal cavity test :
Make a cavity in the charcoal and moisten it with a drop of water. Put the mixture of substance +
Na2CO3 + cha dust (mix well seperately) in the cavity. Again put a drop of water on the mixture and
heat it with blow pipe in the reducing flame for 8-10 minutes.)
Pb(NO3)2 + Na2CO3 PbCO3 + 2 NaNO3
PbCO3 PbO + CO2
CuSO4 + Na2CO3 CuCO3 + Na2SO4
CuCO3 CuO + CO2

This metal oxide reduced in metal by carbon from reducing flame and form bead after cool.
PbO + C → Pb + CO () ; CuO + C → Cu + CO
Colour in charcoal cavity test :
No. Bead Cryst (layer) observation
(1) White soft bead which marking brown-yellow after cool. Pb2+
on paper.
(2) Flexible white bead Ag+
(3) White-brown bead Orange-After cool Bi3+

become yellow
(4) Fumes of garlic smell As3+

No bead form.
(5) Brown Cd2+
(6) Smell of ammonia Red NH4+
(7) White ppt Fe3+, Co2+, Mn2+
(g) Borax Bead Test :

If borax (Na2B4O7 .10H2O) is heated on pt-wire, it gives bead of sodium metaborate (NaBO2) and
boric anhydride like transparent and colourless glass.
NaB4O7 2NaBO2 + B2O3

Above colourless bead produces different colour with salt of Cu, Fe, Cr, Mn, Co and Ni. Colour of
bead depends on it is heated on which type of flame.
CuO + B2O3 → Cu(BO2)2 oxidizing flame
Hot - green, cool-Blue
2Cu (BO2)2 + C → 2CuBO2 + B2O3 + CO ↑ Reducing flame
Colourless
2CuBO2 + C 2Cu ↓ + B2O3 + CO ↑
Red
736
Colour in Borax Bead Test
Oxidizing flame Reducing flame Bead

No Hot cool Hot cool
(1) Green Blue Colourless Red-brown Cu
(2) Yellowish brown Yellow Green Green Fe
(3) Yellow Green Green Green Cr
(4) Violet Anethyst Colourless Colourless Mn
(5) Blue Blue Blue Blue Co
(6) Violet Brownish red Gray Gray Ni
(7) Yellow Colourless Brown Brown Mo
(8) Violet (pink) Violet (pink) Red Violet Au
(9) yellow Colourless Yellow Yellowish brown W
(10) Yellow Light yellow Green Green like bottle U
(11) Yellow Green-yellow Brown Green V
(12) Yellow Colourless Gray Light violet Ti
(13) Orange-red Colourless Colourless Colourless Ce

PbSO4 is insoluble in water but soluble in sulphate of Cu2+.
(2) Wet test for positive radicals :
Conformative tests, for positive ions or basic ions.
General positive ions are clasified into six groups in qualitative analysis. It is differernt from each
other. Every group of positive ion is precipitated by any definite reagent, which is called group reagent.
First Group (Silver Group)
Three basic ions : Pb2+, Ag+ and Hg22+.
Dilute HCl is group reagent.
These ions group precipitated as chloride form. PbCl2 is dissolved in hot water, while
insoluble in cold water. Same as AgCl and Hg2Cl2 both are insoluble in water.
PbCl2 reacts with K2CrO4 and KI gives yellow precipitates due to formation of
PbCrO4 and PbI2 respectively.
AgCl gives (Ag(NH3)2Cl) complex with NH4OH. If salt soluble in cold and dil. HCl, So Pb+2
is absent.
If salt dissolve in cold and dilute HCl, so Pb2+ is absent.
Second Group (Copper Group)
Five Basic ions : Hg2+, Pb2+, Bi3+, Cu2+.
737
II-A Copper group, II-B As3+, Sb3+ and Sn2+ or Sn4+
Group reagent : dil HCl + H2S. Ions precipitated with sulphide form.
Colour of Basic ions of Group II
PbS and CuS → Black
CdS, Ag2S and SnS2 → Yellow
Sb2S3 → Orange,
SnS → brown
Sulphide of Pb2+, Cu2+ and Cd2+ are soluble with 50 % HNO3 due to formation of nitrate.
Ammonium hydroxide increase in ionisation of H2S by removal of H+ from H2S and form
water which do not ionized.
NH4OH NH4+ + OH
H2S 2H+ + S2
H+ + OH → H2O
In this situation S2 are in more proportion, so it can be precipated in group-IV.
Third Group (Iron Group)
Three basic ions : Fe3+, Al3+, Cr3+.
Group reagent : NH4 Cl + NH4OH. These ions of group are precipitated as their hydroxides
due to their solubility product is very high.
Fe(OH)3 → Reddish brown precipitates
Al(OH)3 → Gelateneous white precipitates
Cr(OH)3 → Green precipitates like dirty.
During analysis of this group, first NH4Cl is added then after NH4OH is added due to
common ion effect.
Here, (NH4)2SO4 and NH4NO3 Cant be used in place of NH4Cl because SO42 ions
precipated as BaSO4 with Ba2+ ions.
Precipitate of Al(OH)3 dissolve in excess NaOH while precipitates of Fe(OH)3 and Cr(OH)3
are insoluble.
Fe3+ ions gives red colour like blood with potassium thiocyanate (KCNS) due to formation of
Fe(CNS)3 or [Fe(SCN)6]3 ions, white with potassium ferrocyanide [K4(Fe(CN)6] gives
percuin blue colour due to formation of ferro-ferricyanide (Fe4 [Fe(CN)6]) .
Fourth Group (Zinc Group)
Four Basic groups : Co+, Ni2+, Mn2+ and Zn2+.
Group reagent : H2S + NH4OH. These ions precipitated as sulphide form which is insoluble
in NH4OH.
CoS, NiS → Black ppt
MnS → light pink ppt
ZnS → light white ppt
738
In this group NH4Cl is presence before addition of H2S.
ZnS is soluble in cold and dil. HCl due to formation of chloride while NiS is insoluble.
Fifth Group (Calcium Group)
Three Basic ions : Ba2+, Sr2+ and Ca2+.
Group reagent NH4Cl + NH4OH + [(NH4)2CO3]. Basic ions insoluble in NH4OH dissolve in
(NH4)2CO3
Carbonate of Ba2+, Sr2+ and Ca2+ form equivalent acetate so soluble in CH3COOH. While
only Barium chromate (BaCrO4) insoluble in CH3COOH gives yellow ppt of potassium
chromate.
CaSO4 is soluble in (NH4)2SO4 due to formation of (NH4)2 (CaSO4)2 complex.
In calcium complex if ammonium oxalates solution is added then it gives white ppt of
calcium oxalate. This ppt dissolve in dil. HCl and this solution becomes colourless to KMnO4
solution due to reduction of H2SO4.
Sixth Group (Alkali Group)
Four basic ions : Mg2+, Na+, K+ and NH4+.
No group reagent, so detection is done by independent method. (seperately)
Ammonium solution of Mg2+ ammonium phosphate is added. Then white ppt of MgNH4PO4
is obtained.
Ammonium salt is heated with NaOH produce NH3 which gives white fumes with con. HCl
and NH4Cl.
NH3 gas is passed through nesselers reagent, brown ppt. will obtained.
NH4Cl + NaOH → NaCl + NH3 + H2O
2K2[HgI4] + NH3 + 3KOH → H2NHgO.HgI + 7KI + H2O
Nesselers reagent Brown ppt
(3) Wet tests of negative ions :
(a) Tests of carbonates and bicarbonates :
(i) Carbonate and bicarbonate evolved CO2 gas with dil. H2SO4 which turns line
water milky.
(ii) (NH2)2 CO3 which is soluble solute reacts with MgSO4 gives white ppt due to
formation of magnesium carbonate.
(b) Tests of sulphide :
(i) Sulphide reacts with dil. H2SO4 evolved H2S gas which turns lead acetate paper
black.
(ii) Soluble sulphide gives pink-violet colour with sodium nitropruside.

Na2S + Na2 [Fe(CN)5NO] Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]
Sodium nitropruside pink-violet colour
739
(c) Tests of sulphite :
(i) Sulphite evolved SO 2 gas with dil. H 2SO 4 which turns acidic solution of
K2Cr2O7 green because dicromate reduced to chromium sulphate which is green.
K2Cr2O7 + 3SO2 + H2SO4 → K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + H2O
(ii) Sulphite reacts with solution of BaCl2 gives white precipitate of Barium sulphide,
which evolved SO2 gas, soluble in dil. HCl.
(d) Tests of thiosulphate :
(i) Thiosulphate reacts with dil. H2SO4 to evolve SO2 gas and colloidal sulphur.
(ii) Thiosulphate reacts with solution of silver nitrate gives white precipitate of silver
thiosulphate which on decomposes gives slowly yellow, orange, brown and at last
turns to black due to formation of silver sulphide.
Ag2S2O3 + H2O → Ag2S + H2SO4
Black ppt
(e) Tests of nitrite :
(i) Nitrite reacts with dil. H2SO4 gives nitrous acid, which decomposes gives brown
colour of NO2 gas.
2HNO2 → H2O + NO2 + NO
This gas reacts with ferrous sulphate gives black solution due to formation of complex
having FeSO4.NO or [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 formula.
(ii) Nitrite reacts with dil. H2SO4 gives nitrous acid which reacts with KI produce I2
which turns starch solution into blue-purple coloured solution.
(f) Tests of chloride :
(i) Chloride reacts with Con. H2SO4 produce HCl gas which gives white ppt of AgCl
with AgNO3 solution.
(ii) Chloride reacts with K2Cr2O7 or con. H2SO4 and heated gives reddish gas of
(CrO2Cl2) (Chromile chloride). This gas reacts with NaOH gives yellow solution of
sodium chromate.
Note : In chromile chloride test only dry test is used otherwise if water is present then hydrolysis
of cromile chloride occurs.
CrO2Cl2 + 2H2O → H2CrO4 + 2HCl
(g) Tests of Bromide :
(i) When bromide reacts with con. H2SO4 gives reddish brown colour of bromine which
turns starch iodide paper into blue.
(ii) Bromide reacts with Cl2 water produce Bromine which remove brown colour on CS2
layer.
(h) Test of iodide
(i) When iodine reacts with Con. H2SO4 gives purple iodine gas which turns starch paper
into blue.
(ii) I2 solution stirr with C12 water liberate I2 which turns purple on CS2 layer.
Note : To prepare easily Cl2 water, in KMnO4 solution, con. HCl added dropwise till the purple
colour of KMnO4 remove.
740
(i) Test of nitrate :
(i) When nitrate reacts with con. H2SO4 gives HNO3 which gives vapour of brown
coloured NO2 gas with powdered Cu.
(ii) Ring Test : When nitrate reacts with freshly prepared FeSO4 solution in presence of
concentrate H2SO4 brown coloured ring form at which both liquid meet due to
formation of [Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4 complex.
(j) Tests of Sulphate :
(i) Soluble sulphate gives white ppt of BaSO4 with BaCl2 solution, which is insoluble in
acid.
59. Which of the following compound is obtained in borax bead test ?
(A) metaborate (B) tetraborate (C) orthoborate (D) All of three
60. Which of the following salt give white ppt. with AgNO3 and dil. H2SO4 as well as gives green
flame in flame test ?
(A) CuCl2 (B) BaCl2 (C) PbCl2 (D) Cu(NO3)2
61. Which of the following colour of ppt. obtained when phosphate ion reacts with ammonium
molybdenum ?
(A) violet (B) pink (C) yellow (D) Green
62. Which ion remove colour of acidic KMnO4 ?
(A) SO42 (B) S2 (C) NO3 (D) CH3COO
63. Which reagent give test of presence of Fe2+ ion ?
(A) H2S (B) NH4CNS (C) K4[Fe(CN)6] (D) K3[Fe(CN)]6
64. In test of NO3 brown coloured ring is obtained due to formation of nitroso sulphate. This test
depends on which of the following ?
(A) By reduction of nitrate into nitric oxide.
(B) By oxidation of nitric oxide into nitrogen dioxide.
(C) By reduction of ferrous sulphate into iron.
(D) Oxidising capacity of H2SO4.
65. Which principle is included in classification of basic free radical ?
(A) Common ion effect (B) solubility product (C) valency of ions (D) strength of salt
66. Which of the following product obtained which is colourless when KCN is added to CuSO4
solution ?
(A) [Cu(CN)4)]2 (B) [Cu(CN)4]3 (C) Cu(CN)2 (D) CuCN
67. Chloride salt is added to con. H2SO4 produce colourless smoke but incase of iodide salt produce
violet smoke because...
(A) H2SO4 is reduced HI to I2. (B) HI is violet coloured.
(C) Due to oxidation of HI into I2. (D) HI is transfer into KIO3.
741
68. Why HCl cant be used in preparation of acidic medium in oxidation reaction of KMnO4 ?
(A) HCl and KMnO4 act as oxidising agent.
(B) KMnO4 is oxidised HCl to Cl2 but it is oxidising agent.
(C) KMnO4 is weak oxidising agent than HCl.
(D) KMnO4 act as reducing agent inpresence of HCl.
69. Which element detect by sodium nitropruside [Na2(Fe(CN)5NO] ? Which compound is prepared ?
(A) Sulphur, Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (B) Nitrogen, Na4[Fe(CN)6]
(C) Sulphur, Na2[Fe(CN)4NOS] (D) Sulphur, Na2[Fe(CN)NOS]
70. What volume of 0.02 M 0.1 M MnO4 solution is required for oxidation of 40 ml 0.1 M Fe2+ ion
solution ?
(A) 200 ml (B) 100 ml (C) 40 ml (D) 20 ml
71. Which element detect by Nesselers reagent ?
(A) CrO42 (B) PO43 (C) MnO4 (D) NH4+
72. Which of the following metal oxide, which is yellow when it is hot and white when it is cold ?
(A) ZnO (B) CuO (C) PbO (D) All above
73. Which salt gives dark blue coloured when acidic solution of salt with solution of starch iodide ?
(A) Chloride (B) nitrite (C) acetate (D) bromide
74. Position of lead in group-1 and group-2 both because...
(A) It possess +1 and +2 valency (B) It produce insoluble PbCl2.
(C) It produce lead sulphide. (D) Its chloride are partially dissolve in water.
75. Which of the following is used in place of NH4Cl for analysis of group III ions ?
(A) NH 4NO3 (B) (NH4)2SO4 (C) (NH4)2CO3 (D) NaCl
76. Identify correct order of solubility in aqueous medium of Na2S, CuS and ZnS :
(A) CuS > ZnS > Na2S (B) ZnS > Na2S > CuS
(C) Na2S > CuS > ZnS (D) Na2S > ZnS > CuS
Answers : 59. (A), 60. (B), 61. (C), 62. (B), 63. (D), 64. (A), 65. (B), 66. (B), 67. (C), 68. (B),
69. (A), 70. (C), 71. (D), 72. (A), 73. (B), 74. (D), 75. (A), 76. (D).
742

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Chem Class 11th & 12th QB and FS PDF

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1 Basic Concepts of Chemistry

1. The full form of AZT is .......... .

(A) Azothymine (B) Azidotaxol (C) Azidothymine (D) Azidothymidine

2. Which of the following drug is useful for treatment of cancer ?

3. Which drug is effective for treatment of patients suffering from AIDS ?

4. Which substance is used in refrigerators nowadays instead of CFC ?

(A) 1, 1, 2, 2 - Tetrafluoroethane (B) 1, 1, 1, 2 - Tetrafluoroethane

(C) 1, 1, 2, 2 - Tetrachloroethane (D) 1, 1, 1, 2 - Tetrachloroethane

Answers : 1. (D), 2. (A), 3. (C), 4. (B)

(1) Element : According to Lavoisier, element is made up of same type of atoms.

Fundamental Symbol Symbol of Name of

Prefixes used in SI system

1. 10- 24 yocto y 8. 10- 3 milli m 15. 109 giga G

2. 10- 21 zepto z 9. 10- 2 centi c 16. 1012 tera T

3. 10- 18 atto a 10. 10- 1 deci d 17. 1015 peta P

4. 10- 15 femto f 11. 101 deca da 18. 1018 exa E

5. 10- 12 pico p 12. 102 hecto h 19. 1021 zeta Z

6. 10- 9 nano n 13. 103 kilo k 20. 1024 yotta Y

7. 10- 6 micro m 14. 106 mega M

No. Law Scientist

1 Law of conservation of mass Antonie Lavoisier

2 Law of definite composition Joseph Proust

3 Law of multiple proportion John Dalton

4 Law of combining weights Richter

5 Law of combining volumes of gases Gay-Lussac

6 Avogadros law Avogadro

22. Which of the following statement is correct for given reaction ?

 Atomic mass, molecular mass, molar mass and mole concept :

 1 amu = 1.66056 ´ 10- 24 gram

Volume of gas at STP (L)

Where, m1 and m2 = atomic masses

Where, n = Number of atoms of element

(A) 2.1 NA (B) 4.2 NA (C) 1.6 NA (D) 3.2 NA

1023, then calculate molecular weight of virus.

 EMPIRICAL FORMULA, MOLECULAR FORMULA AND STOICHIOMETRY OF

(A) Na2C2O4 (B) Na2CO3 (C) NaCO4 (D) Na2C2O2

W × 100 V2 = Final volume of solution

Molality × Molar mass of solute

molality of Na+ and S2O32- ions in this solution.

(A) 8.097 mL (B) 20.0 mL (C) 7.77 mL (D) 10.0 mL

Reason (R) : NH4Cl is a solid substance.

 Ideal gas equation

 Values of gas constant R

R = 82.1 ml atm K- 1 mol- 1

R = 8.314 ´ 107 erg K- 1 mol- 1

R = 1.987 cal K- 1 mol- 1

R = 8.314 joule K- 1 mol- 1

R = 0.08314 litre bar K- 1 mol- 1

(i) For ideal gas, Z = 1

 Various Critical conditions

(A) 5.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.25 (D) 0.5

(A) - 73° C (B) + 73° C (C) - 173° C (D) 173° C

(A) 500 (B) 227 (C) 300 (D) 27

Based on mole fraction and total pressure

Based on percentage volume

When gas is collected over water :

 Difference between crystalline and Amorphous solid

Property Crystalline solid Amorphous solid

(1) Shape Definite shape and possessing Irregular shape

(ii) Ploar Molecules Dipole - soft low Non HCl, SO2,

Laltice site and number of lattice site in a unit cell

Corners Face centre Body centre Edge centre

(A) a = b = c and a = b = g ¹ 90o (B) a = b = c and a = b = g = 90o

6 Avogadros law Avogadro

Atomic mass, molecular mass, molar mass and mole concept :

1 amu = 1.66056 ´ 10- 24 gram

EMPIRICAL FORMULA, MOLECULAR FORMULA AND STOICHIOMETRY OF

Ideal gas equation

Values of gas constant R

Various Critical conditions

Difference between crystalline and Amorphous solid

Total number of atoms per unit cell

Total number of atoms in end centred orthorhombic unit cell

Packing efficiency in a cubes crystal

Packing efficiency of a simple cubic crystal

Packing efficinecy in a face centred unit cell

Volume of Hexagonal close pack unit cell

Hexagonal close pack arrangement

Face centred cubic close pack arrangement

Antiflourite arrangement eg., (Na2O)

Cl Na+ Cl Na+

(D) Schottky defect Na+ Cl Na+ Cl

(Electrical conductivity of semiconductors ranges from 106 to 104 W 1m1 )

eg., Fe, Co, Ni, Gd, CrO2......