Bonatti-Mallardo-Falco Module

Mallardo multiple choice questions (task February 2018)

1) The sequencing and analysis of the genome of many living species reveals that:
a. similar protein sets are used during development but only for adhesion and control
gene expression
b. Development processes are very different
c. The complexity of the species correlates with the number of genes
d. Cells of organisms of different species are clearly recognizable
e. The complexity of species goes hand in hand with the number of regulatory sequences
on DNA

2) Indicate the wrong statement about egg polarity genes in Drosophila:

You do not read the answers, the one to choose is: They determine ectoderm, endoderm and
mesoderm

3) In order to generate "an oscillator" (gene expression oscillating over time) it is necessary that:
a) There is positive feedback
b) there are no delays in transcription
c) the gene encodes for a miRNA
d) mRNA and protein have short half-lives with respect to delays
e) the only biological role of the protein is to inhibit the transcription of its mRNA

4) In vitro embryo disaggregation and reaggregation experiments show that:

1. Once disaggregated, cells regroup only randomly
2. Re-aggregation is mainly driven by cadherins and their level of expression
3. Ephrin-Eph signaling results in repulsion to mark boundaries
a) All statements are correct
b) Only the first and second are correct
c) Only the first and third are correct
d) Only the second and third are correct
e) Only the first is correct

5) In the epithelium of the small intestine of the mouse:

1) Stem cells divide rapidly
2) the transit amplifying cells are in the brush-border
3) Paneth cells secrete mucopolysaccharides
a) all statements are incorrect
b) only the first and second are correct
(c) only the first and third are correct
d) only the third is correct
e) only the first is correct
6) The embryonic stem cell:
a) is uni-potent
b) it is multi-powerful
c) multi-potent
d) toti-potent
e) oligo-potent

7) The removal of a blastomere does not compromise the potential of embryonic development if
carried out up to the stage of:
a) 2 cells
b) 4 cells
c) 8 cells
d) 16 cells
e) 32 cells

8) The Notch receptor undergoes three successive proteolytic cutting stages:

a) The first two steps take place in the Golgi
b) all three are mediated by the link with Delta
c) only the last is mediated by the link with Delta
d) only the last two are mediated by the link with Delta
e) the third step takes place in the extracellular space

9) GSK3 and CK1:

a) They are involved exclusively in the Wnt/beta-catenin pathway
b) They are involved in both the Wnt/beta-catenin pathway and the Hedgehog pathway
c) They are involved in both the Wnt-b-catenin pathway and the Notch/Delta pathway
d) They are nuclear proteins
e) Phosphorylane and activate b-catenin triggering its nuclear translocation

10) In the absence of Hedgehog:

a) PKA and CK1 phosphorylane Smoothened
b) the intact protein Ci translocates into the nucleus
c) Smoothened is sequestered in intracellular vesicles
d) Costal2 traps Ci proteins by binding it to microfilaments
e) Ci tagliata acts as a transcription co-activator

11) The PPARγ nuclear receptor is important for the commitment and differentiation of:
a) myoblasts
b) adipocytes
c) osteoblasts
d) endothelial cells
e) chondrocytes
12) The expression of the Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF) is regulated by:
a) Transcriptional and post-transcriptional mechanisms
(b) Proteolytic cut
c) Only transcriptionally
d) Post-transcriptionally only
e) It is always expressed constitutively

13) The Kit receptor and its ligand are important:

a) For angiogenesis
b) Only for erythropoiesis
c) For the commitment of the common lymphoid precursor
(d) For granulocyte differentiation
e) For the maintenance of hematopoietic stem cells

14. The vascular Endothelial Growth Factor (VEGF) is released:

a) tissues requiring blood supply
b) exclusively from endothelial cells
c) from erythrocytes
d) exclusively from myocytes
(e) is constitutively released from all tissues

Mallardo Multiple Choice Questions (Mixed Answers)

1) Drosophila Polycomb mutants:

a) Do not activate the expression of Hox genes correctly
b) Do not properly prevent the activation of Hox genes
c) Do not show segments along the antero-rear axle
d) They do not permanently maintain the correct expression of hox genes
e) They will form sterile offspring as maternal genes

2) Which of the following processes, all important in the temporal control of the processes to the
basis of development, it has in turn the greatest temporal variability:
a) transcription and splicing of mRNA
b) mRNA translation
c) Protein half-life
d) generation of extracellular signaling gradients
e) Cell movement

3) Experiments conducted in Drosophila show that one of the following processes is not
relevant in the control of the size of bodies, offices and agencies:
a) Cell growth
b) Cell cycle
c) Cell death
d) Deposition of the extracellular matrix
e) None of the processes listed
4) Following two cell divisions of a stem cell you will have:
a) Stem cells only
b) Stem and differentiated cells
c) Only differentiated
(d) One of the situations referred to in (a) (b) and (c) as the case may be.
e) None of the above, stem cells divide only once

5) Osteoclasts can be adjusted both positively and negatively.

Osteoclastogenesis expresses:
a) RANKL (+) or OPG (-)
b) Estrogens (+) or OPG (-)
c) IL1 (+) or RANKL (-)
d) IL1 (+) or IL6 (-)
e) RANKL (-) or OPG (+)

6) If we want to study the function of a gene in zebrafish we can:

a) Completely eliminate the protein product by using morpholino gene-
specific
b) Reduce mRNA levels through TALEN use
c) Generate a site-specific mutant through the use of CRISPR/Cas9
d) Only use chemically induced mutants
e) Do function gain study through the use of morpholino

7) Indicate the factor necessary for the production of a chimera mouse:

a) DNA integration in target regions
b) The color of the "mosaic" hair
c) DNA integration in germ cells
d) DNA integration into somatic cells
e) DNA integration into gonads

8) Osteoclast precursors express

a) RANKL
b) Type I collagen
c) Type II collagen
d) The RANK receptor
(c) Il1

9) SOX transcription factors are important for the commitment and differentiation of:
a) Osteoblasts
b) Myoblasts
c) Adipocytes
d) Endothelial cells
(e) Chondrocytes
10) Yap and Taz are:
(a) Transcription factors
b) Ligand and receptor respectively
c) Chemokines
(d) ECM components
e) Lytic enzymes released by bone resorption

11) Fibroblasts:
a) They are differentiated by Runx/Osterix transcription factors
b) They are able to migrate and differentiate in wounds
c) They secrete hydroxyapatite crystals
d) Differentiate into epithelial cells
e) They are immersed in a poorly hydrated CME

12) Satellite cells are characteristic:

a) Bone marrow
b) Endothelium
c) Skeletal muscles
d) Cartilage
(e) Haematopoietic niche

13) Even-Skipped expression in 7 distinct bands at the syncytial blastoderm stage

of the development of Drosophila is due to:
a) The signal combination of Wnt and Hedgehog
b) The activation of distinct Hox genes to generate 7 distinct segments
c) The modular organization of its controlled regulatory region of polarity genes
segmental
(d) A combinatorial control permanently modifying the locus chromatin
skipped
e) The modular organization of its regulatory region decoding the gradients of
Egg polarity and gap gene protein concentration

14) Point to the incorrect statement about Hox genes:

a) All proteins with homeodomains belong to the Hox family
b) They all code for transcription regulatory proteins
c) Their expression pattern follows their order in Hox complexes
d) Determine the individuality of segments
e) Permanently establish the body pattern of the A-P axis

15) The primary axes of polarization in the frog:

a) They are established at the blastula stage
(b) They are established at the gastrula stage
c) They are both established according to the point of entry of the sperm into the egg
d) The D-V axis is established thanks to the Notch/Delta signaling
(e) The A-P axis reflects the asymmetric distribution of the calf in the egg cell
16) In the embryo of Drosophila, a gene with maternal effect such as Bicold:
a) It is dominant over genes with paternal effect
b) Coding for a transmembrane receptor
c) Allows the development of sterile female offspring when both of its alleles carry
loss-of-function mutation
d) It is transcribed in an mRNA that is located at the posterior pole
e) It is activated when the cellular blastoderm is formed

17) Pluripotent stem cells:

a) They have a chromatin structure closed in their undifferentiated layer
b) Have high levels of transcriptional activity
c) Have low levels of transcriptional activity
(d) After differentiation they show an open chromatin
(e) As a result of differentiation, their transcriptional activity increases

18) FrzB:
a) Patched League
b) Inhibits Frizzled signaling
c) It is a transmembrane seven-step receptor
d) Constitutively Dishevelled alloy
e) It is an essential co-receptor of the Wnt/β-catenin pathway

19)
1. About 80% of the genes of C. Elegans, Drosophila and Homo sapiens are homologous

2. In H. sapiens there are very few paralogous genes

3. With the complexity of organisms, the adhesion and regulation proteins of the
DNA:
a) Only the first statement is correct
b) Only the first and third are correct
c) Only the second and third are correct
d) All the above are correct
e) All the above are incorrect

20) Which of the following classes of genes encode transmembrane and/or signaling proteins:
a) Polarity of the egg
b) Hox
c) Torque rule
d) Segmental polarity
(e) Gap
21)
1) The body of the adult Drosophila is almost all formed by segments
2) Segments are formed in the very first hours of development
3) The segmental organization is already present in the oocyte before fertilization
a) All statements are correct
b) Only the second statement is incorrect
c) Only the third statement is correct
d) Only the first statement is correct
e) Only the first and second are correct

22) Regionally determined cells (as in the draft of the chicken leg):
a) If transplanted, they do not generate leg tissues
b) They are not already programmed to differentiate into a specific cell type
c) They are totipotent stem cells
d) Not found in mammals
e) If transplanted, they fully maintain their differentiation program

23) In Drosophila melanogaster, the genes of egg polarity:

a) Control the polarity of fly segments
b) They have maternal effect
c) They are responsible for the number of segments of the fly
d) All answers are correct
e) All the answers given are incorrect

24) iPS cells versus ES:

a) Can overcome the problem of rejection after transplantation
b) Are not able to form germ line
c) They are much less "powerful"
d) They present greater ethical problems
e) All the answers given are incorrect

25) In the mouse, immediately after fertilization, there is a wave of:

a) Demethylation, but only in primordial germ cells
b) Methylation, but only in primordial germ cells
c) Methylation, but only in the cells that will give the trophoblast
d) Methylation, but only in somatic cells
(e) General demethylation

26) In humans, ectoderm, endoderm and mesoderm, derive from:

a) Epiblast
b) Trophoblast
c) Hypoblast
(d) Amnion
e) Blastocele
27) Which of the following statements about Hox genes in Drosophila melanogaster is incorrect:
a) They determine the dorso-ventral axis of the development of the fly
b) Determine the anteroposterior character of the segments of the fly
c) Code for DNA-binding proteins
d) They are expressed sequentially in the order of their chromosomal localization
e) -It does not read-

28) A morphogen is:

a) A molecule expressed only by stem cells
b) A signaling molecule
c) A specific morpholino
d) A mouse gene
e) An extracellular inhibitor of receptors

29) Indicate the wrong expression on the following characteristics of Zebrafish:

a) The body plan is decidedly different from the human one
b) High homology of genes and genome with the human counterpart
c) It is evolutionarily distant from man
d) Ease of live imaging approaches
(e) Rapid development and short reproductive cycle

30) The expression of the mutant dynamine K44A, described by S.L. Schmid (Paper Mallardo)
and Collaborators causes:
a) Inhibition of EGF-induced endocytosis of the EGF receptor
b) Increased EGF-induced degradation of the EGF receptor
c) EGF-induced decrease in DNA synthesis
d) No effect on EGF-induced phosphorylation of different proteins
e) No answer is correct

31) Which of the following statements about C. Elegans is correct:

a) The adult is formed by less than 1,000 somatic cells and about 1,000/2,000 cells
Germ
b) Unlike other nematodes, there are no hermaphrodites
c) It is formed by haploid cells
d) It has a very short life cycle, only 3 days
e) Forms immobile colonies in the culture plate

32) The main sets of signaling proteins (Wnt, Notch, TGF-β):

a) They are all transcription factors
b) They have strong structural homology
c) Appear with mammals in the course of evolution
d) Each performs a single function in the development
e) They have different effects depending on the context in which they operate
33) By expressing the Drosophila Eyeless or Squid Pax6 gene in the imaginal disc of the wing of
Drosophila, you get:
a) A tumor
b) Null and void
c) A clear sketch of the eye
d) Blind flies born
e) A clear sketch of the eye but only with Eyeless

34) The first zygotic genes to express themselves in Drosophila are the genes:
(a) Hox
b) Gap
c) The couple rule
d) Segmental polarity
(e) The polarity of the egg

35) Zygotic activity is defined:

a) The first division of the embryo
b) Fertilization of the embryo
c) Embryo implantation
d) The fusion of male and female pronuclei
e) Gene transcription during the "2 cells" phase

36) Osteoclasts:
a) They originate from the bone marrow
b) They are precursors of osteocytes
c) They originate from cartilage cells
(d) They are controlled by the PPARy
e) Produce and secrete collagen fibrils

37) The receptors of the Ephrine family:

a) Activate a Rho GTPase
b) Contain a DNA binding domain
c) Activate gene transcription through the FAK pathway
d) Interact with Smad Anchor for Receptor Activation Protein (SARA)
e) They are activated by proteolytic cuts

38) The family of receptors for Hephrines:

a) Functionally connects membrane receptors to the cytoskeleton
b) Contains a DNA binding domain
c) Activate gene transcription through the FAK pathway
d) Interact with Smad Anchor for Receptor Activation Protein (SARA)
e) They are activated by proteolytic cuts
39) The maturation of reticulocytes in RBC (Red Blood Cells) is:
a) Receptor Dependent Kit
b) Erythropoeitine dependent
c) Dependent on Fe
d) CFS dependent
e) Dependent on EGF

40) Which of these characteristics have contributed to making zebrafish an organism

Model widely used in research:
a) The eggs, laid in the dark, are many and transparent
b) Embryonic development is slow and follows conserved mechanisms with respect to
vertebrates
Higher
c) They mate throughout the year, fertilization is external and the embryos are
Transparent
d) The use of the Zebrafish embryo is not subject to legislation until the 12th day after
fertilization
e) Most studies are conducted on adults

41) During pre-implantation DNA methylation:

a) Increase
b) Decreases
c) Does not change
d) Increases until compaction of the Morula phase and then decreases
e) Decreases until compaction of the Morula phase and then increases

42) The expression of the mutant dynamite K44A described by S.L. Schmid and collaborators
causes:
a) Increased EGF-induced DNA synthesis
b) EGF-induced increase in DNA endocytosis
c) Increased degradation by EGF of the EGF-receptor
d) No effect on EGF-induced phosphorylation of different proteins
e) No answer is correct

Parisi-Troisi Module/Nicosia
Multiple choice questions (Nicosia Feb. and Jul. 2014)

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect about cloning by homologous recombination:

YES
a. Requires the use of special bacterial strains
b. May require sub-cloning in smaller plasmids
c. It is completely independent of the presence of restriction sites
d. Allows the junction in frames of DNA sequences
e. Requires the presence of the RecBC mutation
2. Which of the following statements is incorrect about cloning for "Recombineering":
a. Requires inducible expression of the Exo, Bet, and Gam genes of the Lambda
bacteriophage
b. Allows you to replace or delete any DNA sequence through steps of
Inserting and deleting selection boxes
c. Can be used to clone or modify entire eukaryotic genes
d. It is often used to generate transgenic mice through the use of BAC constructs with
Extensive homology regions
e. With the "gap cloning" technique it allows to inactivate a gene in the bacterial
chromosome to study its function

3. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the BAC:

a. They can be used for the construction of genotheques
b. They are artificial DNA vectors based on the E.Coli F plasmid
c. They are present in multiple copies in bacterial cells
d. They are artificial vectors suitable for cloning large inserts
e. They contain the sequence SopA,B,C responsible for the breakdown of the plasmid
into cells daughters

4. Which of the following statements is false: YES

a. Plasmids can be used as vectors
b. DNA viruses can be used as vectors
c. RNA viruses can be used as vectors
d. RNA amplicons can be used as vectors
e. All the above are true (equivalent to saying that none is false, all reported cases
can act as carriers)

5. Which of the following statements about plasmid vectors is True: YES

a. Plasmid vectors cannot be readministered
b. Plasmid vectors do not induce an immune response against the vector itself.
c. Plasmid vectors are produced in mammalian cells
d. Plasmid vectors cannot be used in mammalian cells
e. Plasmid vectors have a high transduction capacity

6. Which region is maintained in the genome of a defective retroviral vector for

replication?
a. The region coding for the gag protein
b. The coding region for the envelope protein
c. The region coding for the pol protein
d. The two LTRs and the packaging sequence (cis-elements)
e. None of the above
7. The main region for the use of split genome and complementing cell line methods
For the production of a defective retroviral vector for replication is:
a. Modification of tropism
b. Increased expression of the gene transduced by the vector
c. Need to reduce the risk of replicative virus generation
d. Increased carrier productivity
e. None of the above

8. What is the difference between defective adenoviral vectors for first generation replication
and "helper dependent": YES
a. Different tropism
b. Ability to infect different cells
c. The helper dependent must be produced in a complementary cell, the vector of
First generation, however, does not
d. In the dependent helper most of the genome has been eliminated leaving only the
ITR and the packaging signal, while in the first generation vector it has been eliminated
E1 region only
e. There are no significant differences between the two.

9. What are the advantages of a first generation adenoviral vector? YES

a. They are safe (do not integrate into the genome)
b. Induce a potent immune response against the protein of encoded interest
c. They have a wide tropism
d. They are obtained with high titer
e. All the above

10. What is the best use of a Modified Vaccinia Ankara (MVA) vector:
a. Construction of stable cell lines for the expression of recombinant proteins.... Genetics
b. RIGHT ANSWER: Genetic vaccination
11. (It does not read well) A vector Helper Virus....
RIGHT ANSWER: d.

12. What characteristics must a preclinical model have to be more predictive

For a cancer vaccine:
a. Not having MHC-I
b. Be immunologically tolerant to the antigen
c. Spontaneously develop a tumor
d. Answer a and answer b are correct
e. Answer a and answer c are correct

13. Tumor antigens are:

a. Tumor cell DNA fragments
b. MicroRNAs expressed by the tumor and released into circulation
c. Proteins predominantly expressed by the tumour
d. Proteins expressed exclusively by the tumor and not by normal tissues
e. The answer is the answer? are correct
14. The phenotype of two different cell types of a mammal is due to: YES
a. Differential gene expression
b. Different number of genes
c. Different number of chromosomes
d. Different genotype
e. None of the above

15. The different relative concentration of two transcription factors with equal domains of
activation and dimerization, but with different DNA recognition domains can result in a : YES
a. Different concentration of the resulting dimers
b. Differential transcription of genes
c. Different cell phenotype
d. Regulation of gene expression during development
e. All the above

16. Which of the following is false about the transposition: YES

a. Transposition is a specific form of genetic recombination that displaces some
genetic elements from one site to another
b. A donor site and an acceptor site are involved in the transposition
c. Recombination is a specific site at a defined site: transposition site
d. The recombinase responsible for this process is transposase
e. As in the other recombination processes, in the transposition there is homology
between the Donor and acceptor site sequence

17. The different classes of transposons are: YES

a. DNA transposons
b. Transposons type retrovirus/virus (i.e. transposons that move via intermediate to
RNA)
c. Poly-A retrotransposons
d. None of the classes listed
e. All the above

18. To limit the risk of mutations due to integrations in the host genome such as
vectors/methodologies must be used: YES
a. Viral vectors
b. Transposition mediated by the SB (Sleeping-Beauty) system
c. Lentiviral vectors
d. Site-specific recombinant nucleases
e. None of the above

19. Genome Editing is: YES

a. A type of genetic engineering that allows you to edit a genome by INSERTING
DNA sequences by means of site-specific recombinant nucleases
b. A type of genetic engineering that allows you to modify a genome by REPLACING
DNA sequences by means of site-specific recombinant nucleases
 c. A type of genetic engineering that allows you to edit a genome BY REMOVING
DNA sequences by means of site-specific recombinant nucleases
d. A type of genetic engineering that allows a genome to be modified by INSERTING,
REPLACING AND REMOVING DNA sequences by means of recombinant site
nucleases specific
e. None of the above

20. Homologous recombination: YES

a. It is a technique used for cloning large DNA fragments.
b. Can be used by the cell to generate new genes
c. It can only occur in particular bacterial strains that have mutations in specific genes
d. It occurs only in prokaryotic cells expressing the χ gene
e. Does not require DNA synthesis

21. The "red" genes of the Lambda bacteriophage operon:

a. They are generally constitutively expressed in E. coli and used to induce
homologous recombination
b. They encode, among other things, the β-galactosidase, which is necessary for colony
selection.
recombinant because it generates blue colonies in the presence of XGal
c. They contain a selection box that can give the bacterium selective growth in
certain culture media
d. They can be expressed on E.Coli by a defective prophage integrated into the
chromosome bacterial
e. They are expressed in the presence of the SbcA mutation (mutation that de-represses
Rec E/T)

22. Non-replicative viral vectors are obtained:

a. Encoding the TetR repressor in the viral vector to interfere with replication
b. Increasing transduction efficiency to compensate for replication defect
c. Modifying the tropism of the viral vector
d. Increasing the expression of the gene encoded to compensate for the replicative defect
e. Mutating or deleting genes encoding functions essential for replication

23. Non-replicative viral vectors are produced in:

a. Bacterial cells
b. Bacterial cells that produce the TetR repressor
c. Cells complementing the replicative vector defect
d. Mammalian cells
e. Mammalian cells that produce the TetR repressor

24. What is the best use of a first generation adenoviral vector?: YES
a. Construction of stable cell lines for the expression of recombinant proteins
b. Genetic vaccination
c. Genome Editing
d. Gene therapy
 e. All the above

25. What is the problem with using human adenovirus serotype 5 (AD5) for vaccination
genetics in humans?:
a. Presence of neutralizing antibodies against Ad5 present in the human population
b. Low cellular response induction efficiency
c. Low efficiency of induction of humoral response
d. High toxicity
e. Risks of DNA integration into the infected cell
26. An oncolytic virus is: YES
a. A virus that only infects cancer cells
b. A virus capable of infecting all cells
c. A virus that is capable of causing lysis of cancer cells
d. A virus that has been modified to infect a particular type of cell
e. None of the above
27. A re-directed Herpes Virus (HSV) vector is:
a. A vector that no longer infects cells using its natural receptors
b. A vector that infects cells expressing a particular receptor
c. A vector that infects all cells
d. A vector that no longer infects cells using its natural receptors and infects
cells expressing a particular receptor of interest (practically response A + B
combined)
e. None of the above

28. Which of the following statements about transcriptional control of gene expression is true:
YES
a. Each differentially regulated gene is activated by a specific transcription factor
b. All differentially regulated genes are subject to alternative splicing
c. Differentially regulated genes are controlled by a set of transcription factors
present in specific concentrations
d. Each differentially regulated gene is repressed by a specific transcription factor
e. Differentially regulated genes at the transcriptional level are found in regions of
chromatin little condensed

29. Which of the following statements about transposable elements (transposons) is false: YES
a. Transposable elements are genetic elements that move from one site to another
b. Transposons can move within a cell from one location of the cell to another.
chromosome
c. Transposable elements can move within a single cell from a
chromosome to a plasmid and vice versa
d. Transposable elements are present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes
e. Transposable elements do not require specific sites for recombination

Multiple choice questions (Nicosia/mixed)

1. Cloning for Recombeering: does not require the use of restriction enzymes
2. Which of the following applications concerning nucleic acid transduction is false: All
previous (recombinant protein expression, gene therapy, expression studies
gene, genetic vaccination)

3. False on transposase: Recognizes the sequence of the target site and produces a cut to
single filament

4. False on the production of a non-replicative viral vector: No gene expression

encoded in the producing cell

5. Fake on ZNF (Zinc-Fingers): They consist of a single domain

6. Errata on TALEN: DNA binding domain recognizes and binds a sequence of 4 BP

7. Fake on Genome Editing systems (ZNF nuclease, TALEN, CRISPR/Cas9): All 3 systems
are able to bind several target sequences simultaneously

8. What are the advantages of an Adeno-associated vector? All of the above ( They are not
pathogens for humans, are stable, wide tropism, prolonged expression of the transgene in
alive)

9. Which vector is best suited for Gene Therapy? Adeno-associated vector

10. What is the best vector for the generation of stable cell lines for the expression of
recombinant proteins (monoclonal Ab): Retrovirus

11. The homologous RecBCD-dependent recombination pathway: Requires the action of the
RuvABC complex for migration and resolution of junctions

12. A "selection box" is: A sequence that contains genes that can confer
bacteria the ability to grow or not on specific selective culture media

13. An advantage of viral vectors over plasmid vectors is: The increased efficiency of
transduction

14. The modification of the tropism of a retro-viral vector is obtained: Removing from the vector
the region coding for envelope protein and co-transfecting a plasmid of
expression, encoding the envelope protein of a different virus

15. A pseudo-typical virus is: A virus that has been modified to infect a type
cell detail

16. Which administration regimen is most appropriate to increase the immune response
of a genetic vaccination: Prime/boost heterologous with MVA al prime
17. The homologous recombination pathway RecE needs: RecT

18. The encapsulation of an RNA amplicone in lipid nano-particles serves to: Protect
from degradation

19. Which of the following disadvantages can be attributed to viral vectors? All the above
(limits on the size of cloneable DNA in the viral genome; Need for cell lines for
production (complementary cells); Induction of immune reactions in vivo; Risk
insertional mutagenesis, for those that integrate randomly)

20. Which of the following statements concerning simple transposons (IS sequences) is
correct: The IS insertion sequence is a small bacterial transposon that encodes all
the proteins necessary for its transposition
21. On which of the following characteristics does the activity of the SB (Sleeping Beauty)
system depend?
for Gene Delivery: All (From transposon length and ITRs sequences; From
distance between the IR terminations of the transposon, the shorter the distance, the greater it
will be
transposition efficiency; From the relationship between transposases/transposons)

22. What are the processes of repair of DSBs by the cell: A and B are correct (Processes
homologous recombination; NHEJ processes, Non-Homologous End Joining)

23. Which transposition mechanism does the SB system belong to: The SB system is of the cut &
pastry

24. The main site-specific classes of recombinants are: All classes listed (ZFNs;
TALENs; CRISPR)

25. What is a neo-antigen: Correct answer D

Parisi multiple choice questions (task February 2018)

1) Histone chaperons do not:

a) Assembly of nucleosomes
b) Disassembly of nucleosomes
(c) Exchange of core histones
(d) Histone-linker exchange
e) Post-translational modifications of histones

2) Histone variants:
a) They are encoded by the same genes as the canonical histones
b) They are specific cells
c) They are inserted into chromatin during DNA repilication
d) Their presence in nucleosomes is always associated with transcription blockade
e) They cannot undergo post-translational changes
3) TADS (topological associated domains):
a) They are always characterized by highly transcribed regions
b) They are entirely characterized by highly repressed regions
c) They are characterized by a central region where tissue-specific genes reside
d) Do not affect transcription
e) They are located in the cytoplasm

4) Dnmt3L:
a) It is a catalytically inactive DNA methyltransferase
(b) Cooperates with histones methyltransferase to methylate histones
c) Adds methyl groups on CpG
d) Removes methyl groups from methylated CpG
e) It is classified as a maintenance DNA methyl transferase

5. Azacitidine:
a) It is incorporated into DNA during replication
b) It is incorporated into DNA by a mechanism of excision of the bases
c) Methylates cytosine
d) Blocks histone methylation when incorporated into DNA
e) It is incorporated into DNA as a result of DNA damage

6) The first event that occurs on DNA to recruit ncPRC1 is:

a) The KDM2b protein of the Polycomb family binds unmethylated CpG islets
b) PRC2 is recruited first and then expands K27me3 domains, which eventually help the
ncPRC1 recruitment
c) NcPRC directly recognizes K27me3 through CBX subunit
d) ncPRC1 directly recognizes ubiquitous K119
e) ncPRC1 is not directly recruited on DNA

7) In chromatin immunoprecipitation (ChIP):

a) DNA is bound directly by an antibody
b) The entire DNA molecule is immunoprecipitated after cross-linking
c) The protein binding DNA fragments is immunoprecipitated with a specific antibody
d) Histones are immunoprecipitated after DNA removal by fragmentation
e) The entire genomic DNA molecule is isolated

8) Cellular reprogramming to take place requires:

a) The generation of a permissive chromatin
b) A change of histone modifications
(c) Activities of pioneering transcription factors
d) Change in DNA methylation
e) All answers are correct

9) What is seed sequence?

 a) The Drosha activation sequence
b) The sequence of the loop
c) The sequence of the first 2-8 nucleotides starting from the 5' end of the mature miRNA
d) The sequence of the first 2-8 nucleotides starting from the 3' end of the mature miRNA
e) The sequence of 6-7 nucleotides starting from the 5' end of the pre-miRNA

10) Which of the following is wrong with regards to enhancers:

a) They are 200-550 bp long
b) They are always active to induce gene expression
c) They are linked by multiple transcription factors
d) They are marked by post-translational modifications of histones
e) They work through DNA folding

11) RNA enhancers:

a) They are particular types of mRNA
b) They are very abundant in the cells
c) Their existence has not yet been proven
d) They are the product of transcription to enhancers
e) They are indicators of closed chromatin in correspondence with the enhancers

12) The DNA cut by ZFN nuclease is 'repaired' by the cell repair system with different
mechanisms:
a) DNA Insertion (In the presence of donor DNA)
b) Homologue Double Strand Repair (HDR)
c) Non-Homologus End Joining (NHEJ)
d) Only mechanisms b and c are possible
e) All three mechanisms are possible

13) Which of the following statements correctly describes the "design" of ZFN proteins?
a) Each module (finger) recognizes and binds the 3-4 bp DNA sequence
b) By varying the AA it is possible to design modules that bind different DNA sequences
c) Several modules can be linked to recognize longer sequences
d) Statements a and b are correct
e) All statements are correct

14) Which of the following statements about the CRISPR/CAS9 system is CORRECT:
a) It is a system of nucleases (cas) guided by an RNA strand capable of recognizing e
cut specific sequences of DNA
b) RNA strands can be designed to recognize virtually any
sequence within the cell
c) The main limitation of the CRISPR/CAS9 SYSTEM are the "off target" cuts that can
take place in
aspecific way on the DNA
d) All statements are correct
e) All statements are wrong
15) What is a Zinc Finger Nuclease?
a) A transcription factor
b) A restriction enzyme
c) A chimeric protein with a DNA recognition domain of the ZeF type and a FoK1
nuclease domain
d) A viral integrase
e) None of the above

Multiple choice questions Parisi (Mixed answers)

1) What is the advantage of a plasmid DNA vector for its use in vivo:
a. Presence of immune response against the vector
b. Increased transcription of the gene encoded in the vector
c. Absence of immune response against the vector
d. Vector replication
e. Vector integration capability

2) What is the advantage of a vector based on associated Adeno virus:

a. The persistence of the expression of the therapeutic gene encoded in it
b. The ability to infect cells of the immune system
c. The high cloning capacity
d. Its productivity in complementing cells
e. Its inability to integrate into the host genome

3) What is the most suitable viral vector for the (cannot read)..lication "virus-oncolytic":
a. Adeno associated virus
b. Herpes viruses
c. Retroviruses
d. Adenovirus Helper dependent
e. All and q. (not readable)

4) What is an immune checkpoint inhibitor:

a. A molecule that inhibits the cell cycle
b. An antibody that recognizes a T cell surface inhibitory protein
c. A kinase inhibitor
d. An antibody that inhibits the immune response
e. Answers b and d are both correct

5) Which answer is wrong about histones:

a. They are mainly composed of lysine and arginine
b. They are very preserved
c. They have a functional role
d. They have a structural role
e. They have a negative charge

6) Some epigenetic regulators are called writers. What is their role?

 a. Catalyze post-transcriptional modifications on DNA and proteins
b. Recognize specific histone modifications
c. Help transcription
d. Imposing changes in the chromatin structure
e. Write the genetic code

7) Azacitidine is able to:

a. Block histone methylation
b. Reduce DNA methylation
c. Inhibit histone methyltransferases
d. Induce cancer
e. Repress transcription

8) Which answer is wrong regarding polycomb complexes?

a. They can vary in protein composition
b. Different complexes can have different functional roles
c. The different composition of the complexes is not related to their specific function
d. Their bond changes dynamically
e. Their composition can be cell-specific

9) Insulators are capable of limiting the long-range effects of regulatory elements. They
I am:
a. Protein complexes
b. DNA elements
c. Elements of RNA
d. Determined by DNA methylation
e. Composed of transcription factors

10) The electrophoretic mobility shift assay (EMSA) allows:

a. To identify a DNA sequence linked by a transcription factor
b. To identify sequences of proteins linked by transcription factors
c. To identify protein-protein interaction
d. To modify a DNA sequence linked by a transcription factor
e. All answers are wrong

11) The epigenetic modifications are:

a. Not inheritable
b. Linked to changes in the DNA sequence
c. Not involved in development
d. heritable
e. Gene location dependent

12) Epigenetic regulation does not occur through:

a. Exchange of histone variants and PTM of histones
b. Remodeling of the nucleosome
c. DNA methylation
 d. Chromatin Repression Complexes
e. DNA mutation

13) Histone modifications:

a. I am addicted to specific enzymes
b. They are irreversible
c. They induce mutation of DNA
d. They only have a structural role
e. All of the above are incorrect

14) Treatment with bisulfite:

a. It is used to insert mutations into DNA
b. It is used to sequence DNA
c. Converts Cytosine to Uracil
d. Converts Uracil to Thymine
e. Generate disulfide bridges

15) PRC1:
a. It can be canonical or non-canonical
b. Contains Ezh2 protein
c. Catalyzes the methylation of lysine 4 on histone H3
d. Catalyzes the methylation of (...) on histone H3
e. Contains EED proteins

16) DNA methylation causes several effects. Which of these is wrong?

a. X chromosome inactivation
b. Imprinting
c. Gene repression
d. Transcriptional activation
e. Silencing the promoter

17) Polycombs participate in multiprotein complexes: PRC1 and PRC2. Which of the following
protein is not part of the PRC2 complex?
a. EZH extension
b. SUZ12
c. EED extension
d. cbx
e. EZH1

18) What are bivalent domains?

a. Regions labeled with H3K4me3 and H3K27me3
b. Regions labeled with methylated and acetylated histones
c. Regions that can be transcribed in two directions
d. Regions where both activators and repressors are activated simultaneously
e. Regions labeled by H3K27ac and H3K27me3
19) What is the effect of Valproic Acid on the reprogramming of somatic cells?
to. No effect
b. Enhance iPS cell proliferation
c. Compromising reprogramming
d. Improve iPS generation efficiency
e. Answers B and D are both correct