02 Full Length Paper-2 (Student Copy)

STARS ACADEMY LAHORE
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STARS ENTRY TEST SYSTEM-2022

(PMC-MDCAT)
FULL LENGTH PAPER-2
Total MCQs: 200 Time Allowed: 2:30 min
BIOLOGY
Q.1 An organic green pigment which help the cell to absorb light energy and utilize it to manufacture food:
A. Carotenes C. Chlorophyll
B. Fucoxanthin D. Phycoerythrin
Q.2 Which of the following organism is correctly paired to its number of chromosomes?
A. Potato-26 C. Garden pea -24
B. Drosophila-06 D. Onion- 16
Q.3 Electron transport Chain cannot be observed in:
A. Mesosomes C. Cristae
B. Cisternae D. Thylakoids
Q.4 Vacuoles are particularly large and abundant in:
A. Fungal cell C. Animal cells
B. Bacterial cell D. Plant cells
Q.5 Lipid accumulation in brain cells lead to mental retardation and even death in:
A. Tay-Sach’s disease C. Cushing’s disease
B. Albinism D. Hypercholesterolemia
Q.6 Any foreign object that gains entry into the cell is immediately engulfed and completely broken into
simple digestible pieces by:
A. Lysosomes C. Endosomes
B. Phagosome D. Digestive vacuole
Q.7 Lowest water percentage is present in?
A. Jellyfish C. Nephrons
B. Osteocytes D. Neurons
Q.8 Which of the following formula is most suitable for disaccharide?
A. Cx (H2O)Y C. Cx (H2O)X-2
B. Cx (H2O)x-1 D. Cx (H2O)x-3
Q.9 Chitin is a polymer of:
A. N-acetyl α-glucose C. N-acetyl α-glucosamine
B. N-acetyl β-glucose D. N-acetyl β-glucosamine
Q.10 Phosphatidic acid consists of:
Fatty Phosphate Nitrogenous
Glycerol
acids group base
A. One Two One One
B. One Three One One
C. One Two One Zero
D. Three One One Zero
Q.11 All of the following may help in cell division, except
A. Actin C. Myosin
B. Tubulin D. Albumin
Q.12 It is a milk-based protein:
A. Lactose C. Ovalbumin
B. Casein D. Albumin
Q.13 Cyanides are potent poisons for living organisms because they can kill an organism by inhibiting
_________, essential for cellular respiration.
A. Cytochrome reductase C. Cytochrome oxidase
B. Monoamine oxidase D. α-glucosidase
STARS |ENTRY TEST PREPARATION PAGE 1 OF 15

Q.14 It is a light gathering complex in photosystem

A. Reaction center C. Antenna complex
B. Associated electron carriers D. Primary electron acceptors
Q.15 The functional group found in chlorophyll ‘b’ molecule is:
A. -CHO C. -CH3
B. -COOH D. -NH2
Q.16 RuBisCo is involved in:
A. Carbon fixation C. Nitrogen fixation
B. ATP generation D. NADPH generation
Q.17 How many CO2 molecules are produced during complete oxidation from one glucose molecule in
mitochondria?
A. 2 C. 6
B. 5 D. 3
Q.18 With respect to preparatory phase of glycolysis, which option is correct?
A. 0 ATP used, 2 NADPH produced C. 2 ATP used, 2 NADH produced
B. 2 ATP used, 2 NADPH produced D. 2 ATP used, 0 NADH produced
Q.19 ATP molecule is generated in all of the following reactions except:
A. Succinyl coA→ Succinate
B. Phosphoenol pyruvate→ Pyruvate
C. Fructose 6 phosphate→ Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
D. 1, 3-Bisphosphoglycerate→3-Phosphoglycerate
Q.20 Viruses can be classified on the basis of:
A. Host C. Genome
B. Capsid D. All A, B, C
Q.21 These have ability to convert normal cells into cancer cells:
A. Pox viruses C. Parvoviruses
B. Paramyxoviruses D. Retroviruses
Q.22 The smallest known bacteria are devoid of cell wall and included in the genus:
A. Escherichia C. Epulopiscium
B. Mycoplasma D. Clostridium
Q.23 In physical control of bacteria, ________ is used for heat sensitive compounds, i.e. enzymes and
seras, etc.
A. Radiation C. Membrane filters
B. Autoclave D. Microwave oven
Q.24 Cephalization is observed in all of the following except:
A. Arthropods C. Platyhelminthes
B. Cnidarians D. Nematodes
Q.25 Digested food in porifera is transported to all body cells through:
A. Lymph C. Hemolymph
B. Mesoglea D. Pinacoderm
Q.26 Cyclostomata possess all of the following characters except one:
A. Gills for respiration C. Closed circulation
B. Cartilaginous skeleton D. Placoid scales
Q.27 The muscles of stomach wall thoroughly mix up food with gastric juice and resultant semi-solid
material is:
A. Chyle C. Bolus
B. Chyme D. Bile
Q.28 The process of digestion in humans always starts with the digestion of:
A. Proteins C. Fats
B. Nucleic acids D. Carbohydrates
Q.29 Which of the following gut secretion converts food into diffusible form?
A. Pancreatic juice C. Gastric Juice
B. Saliva D. Intestinal juice
Q.30 If liver stops to perform its role in association to digestion, which of the following component of
food will be found in feces?
A. Starch C. Proteins
B. Lipids D. Vitamins
Q.31 Blood after ventricular systole when reaches to lungs, it takes __________ O2/100 ml of blood.
A. 3 ml C. 4 ml
B. 2 ml D. 5 ml
Q.32 The common muscular passageway for both food and air is:
A. Larynx C. Trachea
B. Pharynx D. Nasal cavity
Q.33 The amount of air which remains in lungs even after forceful expiration is:
A. 0.5 liter C. 3.5 liter
B. 1.5 liter D. 6.0 liter
Q.34 Pick the one that does not describe the function of pleura:
A. Encase and protects the lungs C. Stop leaking of air into thoracic cavity
B. Protect the lungs from pathogens D. Reduce friction between lungs and thorax
Q.35 Transport of food materials in higher plants occurs through:
A. Flower C. Companion cells
B. Sieve elements D. Tracheids
Q.36 Which of the following is correct pair of examples with respect to source and sink?
Source Sink
A. Mature leaf Immature leaf
B. Plumule Tubers
C. Radicle Rhizome
D. Immature stem Roots
Q.37 Muscular wall of the heart is called:
A. Epicardium C. Myocardium
B. Pericardium D. Endocardium
Q.38 Chordae tendineae are found in:
A. In left atrium and left ventricle C. In both atrium
B. In left ventricle only D. In both ventricles
Q.39 During diastole, heart receives blood from:
A. Veins only C. From both arteries and veins
B. Arteries only D. Deoxygenated blood only
Q.40 The heart sound ‘Dubb’ is produced when:
A. Tricuspid valve is opened C. Mitral valve is closed
B. Mitral valve is opened D. Semi-lunar valves at the base of aorta get closed
Q.41 Functions of lymphatic system includes all except:
A. Return material back to blood
B. Play important role in immunity
C. Transport of respiratory gases
D. Transport of large molecules that cannot diffuse into capillaries
Q.42 Which lymphoid organ/tissue is the site of erythrocyte, leukocyte, and lymphocyte production after
birth?
A. Thymus C. Spleen
B. Lymph nodes D. Bone marrow
Q.43 Maximum cross-sectional area belongs to
A. Arteries C. Capillaries
B. Veins D. Vena cava
Q.44 What does the T wave represent in an ECG?
A. Atrial diastole C. Atrial systole
B. Ventricular diastole D. Joint diastole

Q.45 Brain is protected and enclosed in:

A. Lumbar vertebrae C. Vertebral column
B. Coccyx D. Cranium
Q.46 Long term memory is associated with:
A. Amygdala C. Hippocampus
B. Cerebrum D. Limbic system
Q.47 Irregular and imbalanced strides may be associated due to malfunctioning of
A. Brain stem C. Cerebellum
B. Cerebrum D. Cerebral medulla
Q.48 Major constituent of muscles is:
A. Fats C. Proteins
B. Minerals D. Carbohydrates
Q.49 The generation of excitation-contraction coupling involve all of the following events except:
A. Hydrolysis of ATP to ADP C. Generation of endplate potential
B. Release of Ca2+ from troponin D. Formation of cross linkages between actin and myosin
Q.50 Skeletal muscles are controlled by:
A. Autonomic nerves C. Somatic nerves
B. Sympathetic nerves D. Parasympathetic nerves
Q.51 It is an outcome of irregularities in metabolism of nitrogenous wastes:
A. Osteoporosis C. Osteoarthritis
B. Gout D. Rheumatoid arthritis
Q.52 Location of Leydig cells and their secretions are:
A. Ovary - Estrogen C. Liver - Cholesterol
B. Testis - Testosterone D. Pancreas - Glucagon
Q.53 Rete testis opens to:
A. Urethra C. Vasa efferentia
B. Ureter D. Epididymis
Q.54 If the vasa differentia of a man is surgically cut or blocked:
A. Semen will be without sperms C. Spermatogenesis will not take place
B. Testosterone will disappear from blood D. Sperms in the semen become non-motile
Q.55 A trait with following gene characteristics will show maximum number of phenotypes:
A. Single gene with two alleles C. Polygenes with two alleles
B. Single gene with multiple alleles D. Polygenes with multiple alleles
Q.56 The position of a gene on a chromosome is called:
A. Genome C. Gene locus
B. Gene map D. Genotype
Q.57 Which of the following statement is correct regarding gene linkage?
A. Linked genes can never be separated
B. Gene linkage enhances the chance of variation among offspring
C. Closer the two gene loci, less the chances of recombinants
D. Linked genes with closer loci, obey the Mendel’s law of independent assortment
Q.58 When the heterozygote has same phenotype as homozygous dominant, then this type of relation is
called:
A. Complete dominance C. Incomplete dominance
B. Codominance D. Over dominance
Q.59 After an injury, haemophiliac’s blood fails to clot properly because it may have:
A. Reduction in blood clotting factors
B. Malfunctioning of blood clotting factors
C. Absence of blood clotting factors
D. All A, B, C
Q.60 If a female is colour blind having genetic combination XcXc, then the possible combination of her
parents should be:
A. XCXC,XCY C. XcXc,XcY
C C C
B. X X ,X Y D. XCXc,XCY
Q.61 Most primitive organism that originated on earth was

A. Archeobacteria C. Eubacteria
B. Eukaryotic bacteria D. Amoeba
Q.62 According to theory of natural selection, organisms produce
A. More offspring than supported C. Offspring according to resources available
B. Less offspring than supported D. Offspring to create resources
Q.63 According to endosymbiont hypothesis, which of the following is formed from cynobacteria
A. Mitochondria C. Chloroplast
B. ER D. Golgi complex
Q.64 Watery urine, great thirst and dehydration are the symptoms of all except:
A. Diabetes insipidus C. IDDM
B. IDDM D. Graves’ disease
Q.65 All of the following are functions of insulin except:
A. Gluconeogenesis C. Synthesis of protein from glucose
B. Glycogenesis D. Glycogenolysis
Q.66 Which hormone is produced by β-cells of the pancreas?
A. Pancreatic polypeptide C. Insulin
B. Glucagon D. Somatostatin
Q.67 Levels of testosterone becomes constant in human male:
A. Before birth C. After birth
B. Before puberty D. At puberty
Q.68 Vasopressin acts on which part of the nephron?
A. Loop of Henle C. Collecting tubules
B. Renal corpuscle D. PCT
CHEMISTRY
Q.69 Mark the incorrect statement about NaBH4:
A. It is complex hydride
B. It is source of H– ion
C. H– ion acts as a nucleophile
D. It can reduce the carbon – oxygen double bond and carbon – carbon double bond
Q.70 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid (Lactic acid) can be prepared in the following two steps starting from
ethanal:
A. Step 2 is oxidation C. Reduction

B. Decomposition D. Hydrolysis
Q.71 What is the reagent and condition for the two steps?
A. HCN, acid hydrolysis C. HCN, basic hydrolysis
B. NaCN in alcohol, oxidation with H2O2 D. NaCN in alcohol, reduction Sn + HCl
Q.72 Which one of the following gives ketones as the product on oxidation?
A. CH3CHO C. (CH3)3C–OH
B. H3C–CH(OH)–CH3 D. H3C–CH = CH2
Q.73 The reaction of aldehydes and ketones with ammonia derivative G-NH2 to form compounds
\
containing the group C == N ⎯ G and water is known as _____ reaction:
/
A. Nucleophilic addition C. Electrophilic addition
B. Nucleophilic substitution D. Addition elimination
Q.74 Which of the reactions of ethanoic acid is not nucleophilic substitution reaction?
A. Ester formation C. Amide formation
B. Acid chloride formation D. Salt formation

Q.75 Oxidation of alkenes in presence of hot KMnO4 solution, the products obtained can be
A. Ketones C. Carboxylic acids
B. Carbon dioxide C. Glycol
Q.76 Which of the following can produce ketone
A. Secondary alcohol C. Calcium acetate
B. Propyne D. All of these
Q.77 Benzoic acid reacts with conc. HNO3 and conc.H2SO4 to give
A. o-nitrobenzoic acid C. p-nitrobenzoic acid
B. m-nitrobenzoic acid D. o,p-dinitrobenzoic acid
Q.78 A new C-C bond formation is possible in
A. Cannizzaro reaction C. Friedel crafts reaction
B. Clemmensen reduction D. Subsitution reaction
Q.79 A food chemist wants to create the odour of pineapple for a product. An ester with this odour has
the formula C3H7CO2C2H5. Which pair of reactants would produce this ester?
A. C2H5Cl and C3H7CO2H C. C2H5OH and C2H5COCl
B. C2H5OH and C3H7CO2H D. C3H7OH and C2H5COCl
Q.80 Esterification belongs to the reactions of carboxylic acids in which
A. Hydrogen atom of carboxyl group is involved.
B. -OH group is replaced by another group.
C. -COOH group is involved as whole.
D. H-atom and -OH group is involved.
Q.81 X and Y are the reagents required to convert 1-bromopropane into butanoic acid.
What are the correct identities of X and Y?
X Y
A. NH3 HCl(aq)
B. KCN in C2H5OH NaOH(aq)
C. KCN in C2H5OH HCl(aq)
D. HCN NaOH(aq)
Q.82 Which of the following will fail to react with potassium dichromate and dilute sulphuric acid
A. Ethyl alcohol (ethanol) C. Acetaldehyde (ethanal)
B. Secondary propyl alcohol (2-propanol) D. Acetone (propanone)
Q.83 When toluene is chlorinated in the presence of sunlight, the reaction will be:
A. Addition C. Aryl substitution
B. Alkyl substitution D. Both B & C
Q.84 When toluene is hydrogenated in presence of nickel, the product formed contains number of
hydrogen atoms?
A. 8 C. 12
B. 10 D. 14
Q.85 Among the following strongest acid is?
A. Ethane C. Ethyne
B. Ethene D. Methane
Q.86 The most reactive compound is towards electrophiles:
A. Benzene C. Chlorobenzene
B. Toluene D. Nitrobenzene
Q.87 The number of σ-bonds in benzene molecule are
A. 6 C. 12
B. 3 D. 9
Q.88 Reaction of benzene with ozone is characterized as reaction
A. Addition C. Substitution
B. Condensation D. Side chain oxidation
Q.89 2,4,6-trinitrotoluene has hydrogen atoms in benzene ring:
A. 6 C. 5
B. 2 D. 3

Q.90 Closed chain compounds can be classified into

A. Homocyclic C. Heterocyclic
B. Aliphatic D. Both “A” and “C”
Q.91 Which of the following is alicylic hydrocarbon?
A. Cyclohexane C. Isobutylene
B. Benzene D. Neopentane
Q.92 The self-linking property of carbon is called as
A. Linking polymerization C. Addition
B. Catenation D. Elimination
Q.93 The active part in molecule is called
A. Heteroatom C. Functional group
B. Chemical bond D. Ion
Q.94 For geometric isomerism the two groups attached to the same carbon atom must be
A. Similar C. Dissimilar
B. May be a or b D. None of them
Q.95 Compound Methyl thioalcohol contain the functional group:
A. C=O C. –SH
B. –OH D. C≡N
Q.96 Acetophenone is the member of:
A. Ketone C. Aldehyde
B. Ether D. Aliphatic hydrocarbon
Q.97 The metamers have
A. Same structural formula but different molecular weight
B. Same molecular formula and structural formula
C. Different molecular formula and different structural formula
D. Same molecular formula and same functional group
Q.98 2XeF6 + SiO2 ⎯⎯ → 3XeOF4 + SiF4 Consider the above chemical reaction. If 122.6g of XeF6 reacts with
60g of SiO2 to form the products. Select the limiting reagent and amount of SiF4 formed (XeF6
245.3 amu, SiO2 = 60 amu, SiF4 = 104 amu)
A. XeF6, 26g C. SiO2, 26g
B. XeF6, 52g D. SiO2, 52g
Q.99 How many oxygen atoms are present in 278g of Hydrated Ferrous Sulphate?
( FeSO4 .7H2O = 278amu)
A. 6.023 ×1023 C. 6.525×1024
23
B. 2.408×10 D. 6.023×1023
Q.100 In a vessel, 10 g N2, 10g H2 and 10g O2 are present. Which one will have least number of atoms?
A. H2 C. O2
B. N2 D. Both A & B
Q.101 What are the values of principal quantum number and azimuthal quantum number for the last
electron in Chlorine atom?
A. 1, 6 C. 1, 3
B. 3, 1 D. 6, 1
Q.102 Which of the following has the lowest e/m ratio?
A. Li2+ C. H+1
B. He+ D. Be+3
Q.103 At absolute zero the molecules of hydrogen gas will have
A. Only translational motion C. Only vibrational motion
B. Only rotational motion D. All the motions cased
Q.104 According to the general gas equation, density of an ideal gas depends upon:
A. Pressure C. Temperature
B. Molar mass of the gas D. All of the above

Q.105 At 0°C, what is the physical state of water?

A. ice C. Liquid
B. Vapour D. Both ice and liquid
Q.106 While calculating vapor pressure of a liquids in manometer, the column of mercury facing the
vapors of a liquids is ______ due to pressure on surface of liquids in flask
A. Compressed C. Depressed
B. Rises D. Lowers
Q.107 In diamond each of the four outer electrons on every carbon atom is involved in covalent bonding.
This means that there are no free electrons available. Which of the following property is explained
by this statement
A. Diamond does not conduct heat and electricity
B. Diamond has high refractive index
C. Diamond is very hard
D. Diamond cuts diamond
Q.108 Graphite is one of the allotropic form of Carbon it is
A. Isotropic C. Anisotropic
B. Good conductor of electricity D. Both B & C
Q.109 Which of the following factors affect a reversible chemical reaction in accordance with the Le-
Chatelier principle?
A. Pressure C. Temperature
B. Concentration D. Pressure, concentration and temperature
Q.110 Which one of the following factors does not affect the equilibrium position?
A. Catalyst C. Concentration of reactants and product
B. Temperature D. Pressure
Q.111 If energy of activated complex is close to energy of reactants, it means that the reaction is
A. Fast C. Moderate
B. Slow D. Very slow
Q.112 According to the collision theory of bimolecular reactions in gas phase, minimum amount of energy
required for an effective collision is known as
A. Heat of reaction C. Rate of reaction
B. Has no effect on the reaction D. Energy of activation
Q.113 Enthalpy is measured at _____________
A. 300 K and 2 atm C. 298 K and 1 atm
B. 300 K and 1 atm D. 295 K and 1 atm
Q.114 Which enthalpy change is relevant in the following process?
Na(s) → Na(g) ΔH = + 108kJmol-1
A. Enthalpy of fusion C. Enthalpy of vaporization
B. Enthalpy of atomization D. Enthalpy of formation
Q.115 Count the number of  bonds and  bonds in the molecule of sulphur trioxide
A. 1 and 5 bonds C. 3 and 3 bonds
B. 2 and 4 bonds D. 6 and 6 bonds
Q.116 Which if the following molecule has largest number of shared pair electrons?
A. NH3 C. CO2
B. C2H4 D. N2
Q.117 Among the following, which one is least reactive metal:
A. Mg C. Na
B. Ca D. Be
Q.118 The geometry of complexes depends upon type of ________taking place in the valence shell of
central metal atom:
A. Protonation C. Deprotonation
B. Hybridization D. Dissociation

Q.119 Protein is a polymer of _________?

A. Nitrogen atoms C. Amino acids
B. Glucose D. Nitrogenous base
Q.120 The trends in melting points of the elements of 3rd period are depicted in figure below
Si
mething point ( C)
o
Mg
Al S
P
Na
Cl Ar
Atomic Number
The sharp decrease observed from ‘Si’ to ‘P’ is due to
A. Decrease in atomic radius from ‘Si’ to ‘P’
B. Change in bonding and structure of two elements
C. Different densities of two elements
D. Increase in electron density from ‘Si’ to ‘P’
Q.121 Tick the correct statement
A. Chelates are more stable than ordinary complexes
B. Ordinary complexes are more stable than chelates
C. Monodentate ligand form chelate
D. Chelates have no ring structure
Q.122 The two electrons in the K-shell of an atom will differ in:
A. Principal quantum number C. Azimuthal quantum number
B. Magnetic quantum number D. Spin quantum number
PHYSICS
Q.123 Work done by non-conservative force is
A. Reversible C. Can be both
B. Non-Reversible D. None of them
Q.124 In a half wave rectification, the diode conducts during
A. Both half cycles C. Positive half
B. Negative half D. None of these
Q.125 Which of the following is not a radioactive source?
A. Ozone C. Hydrogen
B. Sodium D. All of these
Q.126 Acceleration of an object which starts from rest to reach 20 m/s in 10 sec is:
A. 2m/s2 C. 10m/s2
2
B. 1 m/s D. 2 m.s2
Q.127 An object is travelling in a circle at constant speed. Its angular velocity is:
A. Changing C. Along axis of rotation
B. Increasing D. Decreasing
Q.128 Which of the following frequency of sound wave is audible?
A. 5 Hz C. 5000 Hz
B. 2500 kHz D. 50 kHz
Q.129 The study of electric charges at rest in electric field is known as:
A. Electromagnetism C. Electrostatics
B. Quantum physics D. Magnetism
Q.130 Two waves interfere constructively, if the path difference between them is
A. (2n + l) λ C. (2n + l) λ/2
B. (2n + l) λ/3 D None of these

Q.131 Which group consists of only electromagnetic waves:

A. Microwaves, radio waves, infra-red C. Microwaves, radio waves, sound
B. Microwaves, water waves, infra-red D. None of these
Q.132 Ohm's law is applicable to
A. Semiconductors C. Vacuum tubes
B. Carbon resistors D. None of these
Q.133 Can we see magnetic flux lines?
A. Yes C. No
B. Depends on strength of field D. Only when the field is large
Q.134 Find the current if power given is 5 Watts and voltage is 0.5 volts.
A. 10 A C. 20 A
B. 30 A D. 50 A
Q.135 For an ideal step-up transformer power across secondary is _______ power across primary:
A. Equal to C. Greater than
B. Less than D. None of these
Q.136 The value of Rydberg constant varies with atomic number as
A. Z3 C. 1/Z2
B. Z2 D. Z
Q.137 F= e(v × B) is valid for
A. Electron C. Proton
B. Neutron D. All
Q.138 Ripple factor of half wave rectifier is
A. 1.21 C. 0.8
B. 0.6 D. 0.4
Q.139 LED TV produce radiation
A. Alpha C. Beta
B. Gamma D. None of these
Q.140 Wave nature and particle nature of photon is linked by:
A. Rest mass of photon C. Wavelength of photon
B. Light speed D. Momentum of photon
Q.141 An ideal gas is compressed to half of its initial volume. Which of these process would result in
maximum work done?
A. Adiabatic C. Isobaric
B. Isochoric D. Isothermal
Q.142 If a projectile is launched with 3m/s velocity at 60° angle, then at highest point its horizontal
velocity is
A. 3 m/s C. 2m/s
B. 1.5 m/s D. 1.8 m/s
Q.143 Protons and neutrons are composed of smaller particles called
A. Quarks C. Baryons
B. Bosons D. Photons
Q.144 What happens to the flux if applied magnetic field is doubled on the same surface?
A. Becomes half C. Becomes twice
B. Becomes infinite D. Becomes 4 times
Q.145 The photon is the particle, which has:
A. Infinite rest mass C. Finite Rest mass but no charge
B. No rest mass & no charge D. A & C are correct
Q.146 If system changes from a state P1V1 to P2V2 by two paths, then quantity which remains unchanged is:
A. Q C. W
B. Q-W D. Q+W
Q.147 Which one of the following is a disadvantage of a potentiometer over a voltmeter?

A. It can measure the internal resistance of a cell
C. It can measure the e.m.f. of a cell
B. It is heavy and not portable
D. It can measure accurately very small potential difference of the order of few microvolts
Q.148 The value of constant ‘G’ in the law of gravitation
A. Depends upon mass of Earth only C. Depends on both
B. Depends upon radius of Earth only D. It independent of mass and radius of Earth
Q.149 An ideal reversible heat engine is 100% efficient only if:
A. Hot reservoir is at 0K C. Hot reservoir is at 0C
B. Cold reservoir is at 0C D. Cold reservoir is at 0K
Q.150 Lamination of the transformer core is made of
A. Cast iron C. Silicon steel
B. Aluminium D. Cast steel
Q.151 Coulomb’s law is true for
A. Atomic distance C. Nuclear distances
B. Charged as well as uncharged particles D. All the distances
Q.152 Which of the following waves cannot be polarized?
A. Radio waves C. Ultrasound
B. Ultraviolet D. X-rays
Q.153 When a spring is stretched, work done by stretching force is
A. Positive C. Negative
B. Zero D. None of these
Q.154 If a particle has charge q is accelerated through a potential difference V., then energy acquired by
the particle is:
A. V2 C. V2q
B. qV2 D. qV
Q.155 A nucleus emits an α- particle, followed by two β- particles. The final nucleus will be:
A. An isotone of the original one C. An isotope of the original one.
B. An isobar of the original one. D. None of these
Q.156 The electric potential difference between two points A and B in an electric field can be defined as:
A. Work done in carrying a unit positive charge from infinity to B while keeping the
charge in equilibrium.
B. Work done in carrying a unit positive charge from A to B while keeping the charge in electrostatic equilibrium.
C. Work done in carrying a unit positive charge from A to infinity while keeping the charge in equilibrium.
D. Work done in carrying a unit positive charge from A to B
Q.157 Two α-particles have the ratio of their velocities as 3:2. On entering the uniform magnetic field. If
they move in different circular paths, then the ratio of the radii of their paths is:
A. 2:3 C. 3:2
B. 4:9 D. 9:4
Q.158 Which one of the following can be the voltage turn ratio of step-down transformer is?
A. 10:2 C. 1:4
B. 2:1 D. 20:5
Q.159 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 +.... +1/Rn is the combination in:
A. Series C. Parallel
B. Both of them D. None of them
Q.160 Coherent source of light means:
A. Multiple wavelength C. Double wavelength
B. Single wavelength D. Coherent photons
Q.161 What is the energy of a photon in a beam of infrared radiation of wavelength 1240nm? Give your
answer in eV.
A. 1 C. 6.25 × 1018
-19
B. 1.6 × 10 D. 3.6 × 106
Q.162 A stationary wave is formed in a pipe which is open at one end. If length of pipe is L, then what is
the maximum possible wavelength of the wave?
A. L C. 2 L
B. 3 L D. 4 L
Q.163 Solar radiations include:
A. Visible light C. U.V and IR
B. Radio, X and gamma rays D. All of these
Q.164 Magnetic field is very strong where field lines are:
A. Zero C. Far apart
B. Very close D. None of these
Q.165 Power transfer from primary to secondary is through flux linkage, so the primary and secondary
coils should be wound in such a way that flux coupling between them is:
A. Min C. Constant
B. Zero D. Max
Q.166 The energy stored in a parallel plate capacitor is 24 J. What is the potential difference between the
plates if the capacitance of the capacitor is 3 μF?
A. 4 kV C. 16 kV
B. 54 kV D. 8 kV
Q.167 The shortest distance between two points on a travelling wave that have a phase difference of (pi/3)
is 5 cm. If the wave has frequency 500 Hz, what is the speed of the wave?
A. 300 m/s C. 150 m/s
B. 300 cm/s D. 150 cm/s
Q.168 For a physical quantity to be a Vector quantity which one of the following condition is necessary:
A. Has direction C. Has magnitude
B. Follow rules of vector addition D. Both direction and magnitude
Q.169 Value of current in an open circuit is:
A. Infinite C. Zero
B. Minimum D. Maximum
Q.170 Which of the following is correct?
A. A moving body must have an impulse
B. A moving body can never have an impulse
C. A moving body may or may not have an impulse
D. The term impulse is not related to moving object
Q.171 Work is defined as:
A. The dot product of force and displacement
B. Product of effective component of force in the direction of displacement and displacement
C. Change in energy of a body when it is subjected to an external force
D. All of these
Q.172 If the potential difference across two plates of a capacitor is doubled, then energy stored in it
will be
A. Two times C. Eight times
B. Four times D. Remains same
Q.173 What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B= (3i + 4j) T?
A. 5 T C. 0.5 T
B. 2.5 T D. 2 T
Q.174 C14 has half-life 5700 years. At the end of 11400 years, the actual amount left is:
A. 0.0625 of original amount C. 0.5 of original amount
B. 0.25 of original amount D. 0.125 of original amount
10
Q.175 A radioactive decay rate of 3.7 × 10 disintegrations per second defines the unit of measurement
known as the:
A. Curie C. Rutherford
B. Rontgen D. Rad

Q.176 An object is travelling in a circle of radius r with angular velocity ω and speed v. What will be its
centripetal acceleration?
v
A. rω C.
r
v
B. vω D. 2
r
ENGLISH
FILL IN THE BLANKS
Choose the best option to complete the sentences given above and fill the circle corresponding to that letter
under the segment in the MCQ Response Form.
Q.177 My neighbor along with his children ______ going tonight to see the Badshahi Mosque at Lahore.
A. are C. have been
B. is D. would have
Q.178 Enough is enough. I cannot now tolerate this working _______.
A. any C. any much
B. any most D. any more
SPOT THE ERROR.
In the following sentences some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that
underlined segment of the sentence which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the circle
corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response Form.
Q.179 Ten rupees seem too much for such a leather bag.
A) B) C) D)
Q.180 You should cut off on the amount of cigarettes you smoke.
A) B) C) D)
Q.181 Mr. Imtiaz knows ten languages, isn’t it?
A) B) C) D)
Choose the best option and fill the circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ
Response Form.
Q.182 FATALITY
(Choose the correct ANTONYM of the given word.)
A. Victim C. Embroidering
B. Gainer D. Aggravation
Q.183 We reached the summit of the highest peak by late evening. The underlined is a/an _____ phrase.
A. infinitive C. noun
B. adverbial D. gerund
Q.184 The catastrophe might have been prevented if the true situation had been known. It is a/an ______
sentence.
A. simple C. compound
B. complex D. compound complex
Q.185 Identify the Part of Speech of underlined word.
His eyes were bright with tears.
A. Noun C. Adverb
B. Conjunction D. Adjective
Q.186 How on earth they got into the building is a major mystery. The underlined is a/an _______ clause.
A. Noun C. Adverb clause of concession
B. Adjective D. Adverb clause of reason
Replace the underlined part of the sentence with a correct one.

Q.187 You must accustom yourself with new ideas.
A. accustomed yourself with C. accustom yourself to
B. no improvement D. get accustom to
Q.188 Both the teams played the game fairly.
A. fairly played the game C. played fairly the game
B. played fair a game D. no improvement
Q.189 The notorious criminal went to the police to go to prison.
A. surrendered himself before the police C. gave himself up for the police
B. submitted to the police D. no improvement
Q.190 It’s high time that you go home.
A. went C. gone
B. are going D. no improvement
In each of the following questions, four alternative sentences are given. Choose the CORRECT one and fill
the Circle corresponding to that letter in the MCQ Response Form.
Q.191
A. Having completion of the course, the students left college.
B. On completion of the course, the students left college.
C. Down completion the course, the students left college.
D. In order to complete the course, the students left college.
Q.192 Choose the correct punctuated sentence.
A. Seeing him silent his wife went to him. “What is it?” she enquired politely.
B. Seeing him silent, his wife went to him. “What is it?” She enquired politely.
C. Seeing him silent his wife went to him. “What is it?” She enquired politely.
D. Seeing him silent, his wife went to him. “What is it?” she enquired politely.
Q.193 Aunty said, ‘Children, beware of the dogs.’
Choose the correct changed narration of the sentence.
A. Aunty said the children against the dogs.
B. Aunty asked the children against the dogs.
C. Aunty warned the children against the dogs.
D. Aunty forbade the children against the dogs.
Q.194 Jane Austen devoted her whole life to her numerous nieces and nephews.
Choose the correct changed voice of the sentence.
A. Jane Austen’s whole life had been devoted to her numerous nieces and nephews.
B. Jane Austen’s whole life was devoted to her numerous nieces and nephews.
C. Jane Austen’s whole life has devoted to her numerous nieces and nephews.
D. Jane Austen’s whole life is devoted to her numerous nieces and nephews.
LOGICAL REASONING
Q.195 Statements: No bat is ball. No ball is wicket.
Conclusions:
No bat is wicket.
All wickets are bats
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Only conclusion II follows
C. Either I or II follows
D. Neither I nor II follows
E. Both I and II follow

Q.196 Fact 1: All drink mixes are beverages.

Fact 2: All beverages are drinkable.
Fact 3: Some beverages are red.
If the first three statements are facts, which of the following statements must also be a fact?
I: Some drink mixes are red.
II: All beverages are drink mixes.
III: Some red drink mixes are drinkable.
A. I and II only
B. I and III only
C. II only
D. None of them
Q.197 Statements:
I. Majority of the citizens in the locality belongs to low-income group.
II. The sales in the local super market are comparatively much low than in other localities.
A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes
E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause
Q.198 Statement: A shopkeeper was reported to be selling adulterated mustard oil after several warnings.
Course of Action:
I. He should be warned.
II. He should be asked to leave the town and open a shop elsewhere.
A. Only I follows C. Only I and II follows
B. Only II follows D. Neither I nor II
Q.199 If X stands on his head with his left-hand point towards west, to which direction will his back?
A. East C. West
B. North D. South
Q.200 Which number replaces the question mark?
3,5,8,13,22,?
A. 25 C. 29
B. 23 D. 39

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STARS ACADEMY LAHORE

Head Office: Johar Town | 0321-9432187-177 | 0300-9432155 | www.stars.edu.pk

STARS ENTRY TEST SYSTEM-2022

STARS |ENTRY TEST PREPARATION PAGE 1 OF 15

Q.14 It is a light gathering complex in photosystem

STARS |ENTRY TEST PREPARATION PAGE 3 OF 15

Q.45 Brain is protected and enclosed in:

Q.61 Most primitive organism that originated on earth was

A. Step 2 is oxidation C. Reduction

STARS |ENTRY TEST PREPARATION PAGE 5 OF 15

STARS |ENTRY TEST PREPARATION PAGE 6 OF 15

Q.90 Closed chain compounds can be classified into

STARS |ENTRY TEST PREPARATION PAGE 7 OF 15

Q.105 At 0°C, what is the physical state of water?

STARS |ENTRY TEST PREPARATION PAGE 8 OF 15

Q.119 Protein is a polymer of _________?

STARS |ENTRY TEST PREPARATION PAGE 9 OF 15

Q.131 Which group consists of only electromagnetic waves:

Q.147 Which one of the following is a disadvantage of a potentiometer over a voltmeter?

STARS |ENTRY TEST PREPARATION PAGE 12 OF 15

Replace the underlined part of the sentence with a correct one.

STARS |ENTRY TEST PREPARATION PAGE 14 OF 15

Q.196 Fact 1: All drink mixes are beverages.

STARS |ENTRY TEST PREPARATION PAGE 15 OF 15

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