LVO QUIZZ 1|P a g e

Training Department - FLIGHT CREW

[REV0]

LVO ENVIRONMENT

1. How do we call air that is saturated with moisture?

A. Fog, if the RVR is less than 550m

B. Fog, if the RVR is less than 1500m

C. Fog, if the visibility is less than 1 km

D. Fog, if the visibility is less than 1 nm

2. What is always needed to form fog?

A. Cold temperatures and strong winds

B. Light winds, cold temperatures and a big temperature dew point spread

C. Humidity and condensation nuclei’s

D. Steam from a river nearby

3. What does SVR stand for?

A. Sight Vertical Reduction

B. Sight Visibility Reduction

C. Slant Visual Range

D. Surface Visual RVR

4. With a constant SVR,

A. The visual segment increases and the obscured segment decreases if the RA
height decreases or the pitch decreases

B. The visual segment increases and the obscured segment decreases if the RA height
decreases or the pitch increases

C. The visual segment decreases and the obscured segment increases if the RA height
decreases or the pitch decreases

D. The visual and the obscured segment increases if the RA height decreases or the
pitch increases
 LVO QUIZZ 2|P a g e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

5. The RVR measurement,

A. Measures only horizontal but not vertical density changes

B. Measures the total density along the entire runway

C. Measures the total density on three places across the runway

D. Ignores vertical and horizontal density changes

6. In a typical fog layer,

A. Density decreases with height

B. Density increases with height

C. Density depends on the temperature

D. Density is always the same

7. Assuming correct pilot seating position, what is the available take-off visual segment on the A-
320 with a RVR equal to 125m?

A. 90m

B. 125m

C. 112,5m

D. 75m

8. Fog during a LVO approach can give the perception, that the

A. Runway appears farther away and the aircraft to be higher than in reality

B. Runway appears farther away and the aircraft to be lower than in reality

C. Runway appears closer and the aircraft to be lower than in reality

D. Runway appears closer and the aircraft to be higher than in reality

9. What are the low level ingredients required to generate radiation fog?

A. Strong wind, cool and dry air

B. Dry air and high temperature

C. Moisture, Rapid cooling (typical condition: clear sky*), Calm or light winds and
dry air aloft
 LVO QUIZZ 3|P a g e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

10. What is the main cause of advection fog?

A. The horizontal movement of warm moist air over an already colder surface

B. Vertical movement of warm air

C. The horizontal movement of warm air over a warm surface

11. What is the definition of RVR?

A. The RVR is equal to the horizontal visibility

B. Runway visual range (RVR) is not related to LVO ops

C. The Runway Visual Range (RVR) is the range over which a pilot of an aircraft on
the centreline of the runway can see the runway surface markings or the lights
delineating the runway or identifying its centreline

12. What is the definition of SVR?

A. The SVR is equal to the RVR

B. SVR is the other name for horizontal visibility

C. The SVR is the limit of the forward vision of the pilot through the fog (range over
which a pilot of an aircraft in the final stages of approach /landing or in take-off
position can see the markings or the lights)

13. What are the main factors affecting the cut-off angle?

A. The pitch of the aircraft and the seating position of the pilot define the cut-off
angle

B. The trust setting and the glide slope angle

C. The RVR and the pitch of the aircraft

14. What is the minimum visual segment from the cockpit required for LVO take off for A-320.

A. 60m

B. 90m

C. 200m
 LVO QUIZZ 4|P a g e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

15. Although turbulences and low level windshear are rarely associated with LVO conditions, what
must the crew take into account in such conditions?

A. An auto land system is not designed to cope with sudden variation of wind
direction and velocity (unstable flight parameters [speed, heading, rate of
descent]). Strict adherence to aircraft limitations must be observed

B. Take into account the strength of the windshear

C. These factors doesn’t affect the auto land capability

GENERAL SOPs AND REGULATION - MINIMA

16. Requirements for T/O alternate: must be located within ….. NM (great circle distance) and
have LDA≥ ……….m

D. 380 1800

E. 250 1800

F. 380 2200

G. 250 2200

17. Departure A/D is CAT I (no LVO). WX is RVR 1200/1000/1000 OVC 001 NOSIG

A. We can commence T/O and we need T/O alternate.

B. We can commence T/O and we need no T/O alternate

C. We cannot commence T/O

18. Minimum RVR for taxi is:

A. 125 m. for taxi before T/O

B. 75 m. for taxi after CAT III landing

C. Both A and B

D. No formal restriction for RVR for taxi

 LVO QUIZZ 5|P a g e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

19. The mandatory call “WZZ XXX RWY vacated” should be made when

A. Tail of the aircraft is beyond CAT II/III holding point / color coded light

B. Cockpit of the aircraft is beyond CAT II/III holding point / color coded light

C. Tail of the aircraft is beyond runway edge light

D. Cockpit of the aircraft is beyond runway edge light

20. ATC reported RVR is ---/125/200 (first part not available, mid. part 125 m. stop end 200 m)

A. You can replace first part by mid. part. T/O is possible

B. You can replace first part by pilot assessment. T/O is possible

C. T/O is not possible

21. Rolling T/O is ……………….in LVO condition – RVR<400 m.

A. Recommended

B. Permitted but not recommended

C. Not permitted

22. LVTO, in case of loss of visual segment at high speed

A. You have to abort T/O

B. You have to continue T/O

C. You should consider continued T/O (use localizer guidance yaw bar)

23. Destination is EGGW (CAT III B) and destination alternate EGSS (CAT III B). WX in EGSS is
1000/1200/800 OVC 001 NOSIG

A. EGSS is suitable as alternate

B. EGSS is not suitable as alternate

 LVO QUIZZ 6|P a g e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

24. Destination is CAT II. RVR are 450/250/300 LVP in force.

A. You can commence approach and continue to DH

B. You can commence approach and continue to FAF

C. You can commence approach and continue to approach ban (OM or equivalent
position or 1000 ft AAL)

25. Destination is EGGW (CAT III B) and destination alternate EGSS (CAT III B). WX in EGSS is
400/350/700 OVC 001

A. EGSS is suitable as alternate

B. EGSS is not suitable as alternate

26. Destination A/D, A/C and crew is CAT IIIB. WX is 450/450/500 VV001 NOSIG, LVO in force.

A. You have to prepare CAT IIIB approach.

B. You can prepare CAT IIIB or CAT IIIA approach

C. You can prepare CAT II or CAT IIIA or CAT IIIB approach

27. For LVO approach PF is:

A. Commander

B. CM 1

C. Any pilot designated by commander

28. Approval from National Authority for take-off with RVR < 150m or CAT II/III operations must be
inserted in:

A. AOC certificate

B. FCOM

C. OM A

D. OM B
 LVO QUIZZ 7|P a g e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

29. In order to receive first operational approval from the Authority for take-off with RVR between
125 and 150m or CAT IIIA operations operator must submit:

A. Aircraft characteristics and limitations / maintenance program

B. Selection of aerodromes / operating minima

C. Flight crew procedures / training

D. All the above

30. Operational demonstration for CAT II/III operations is required by the Authority. During the
evaluation program the number of unsuccessful approaches may not be higher then:

A. 1%

B. 3%

C. 5%

D. 10%

31. The continuous monitoring program must demonstrate that at least ...... of autolands comply
with requirements for successful automatic landing.

A. 100%

B. 98%

C. 95%

D. 90%

32. Each autoland should be recorded and reported.

A. True

B. False
 LVO QUIZZ 8|P a g e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

33. LVO training (initial and recurrent) is required for:

A. LVTO <150m

B. CAT II

C. CAT III

D. All the above

34. No special LVO training is required for take-off with RVR > 150m

A. True

B. False

35. Who has the responsibility to maintain proficiency for LVO?

A. Operator

B. Authority

C. Pilot

D. None of the above

36. LVO refresher ground training and test is valid for:

A. 3 months

B. 6 months

C. 1 year

D. 2 years

37. How many autolands every pilot is required to perform during line-operations in order to
remain LVO qualified?

A. 2 every month

B. 1 every 6 months

C. 3 every year

D. None
 LVO QUIZZ 9|P a g e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

38. What is the minimum RVR for Low Visibility Take-off for A320?

A. 90m

B. 125m

C. 150m

39. When must the crew select a take-off alternate aerodrome?

A. When it is not possible to return to the departure aerodrome for meteorological

or performance reasons

B. When there is heavy traffic on the departure aerodrome

C. Take-off alternate is never required

40. What is the maximum allowed distance from the departure aerodrome to the take-off alternate
for A320?

A. The take-off alternate must be located within 100nm

B. The take-off alternate must be located within 150nm

C. The take-off alternate must be located within 250nm (great circle distance)

41. What is the LDA requirement at the take-off alternate according WIZZ AIR OM-A?

A. LDA ≥ 1400m

B. LDA ≥ 1800m

C. There is no such requirement in OM

42. What is the mandatory call to ATC when cleared for line-up and moving beyond the CAT2/3
holding point?

A. “WZZ XXX, entering the runway”

B. “WZZ XXX cleared for take-off”

C. None of the above

 LVO QUIZZ 10|P a g
e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

43. What is the mandatory call to ATC when you are clear of the ILS sensitive area?

A. ”WZZ XXX clear of sensitive area”

B. “WZZ XXX, runway vacated”

C. None of the above

44. What is LVO take-off?

A. Take-off with RVR below 400 m

B. When visibility is below 1000m

C. When the reported RVR is below 150m

45. What is the minimum required landing capability displayed on the FMA for CAT3A approach?

A. CAT 1

B. CAT 3 SINGLE

C. CAT 3 DUAL

46. What is the minimum RVR in the touchdown zone for CAT 3A approach?

A. 75m

B. 125m

C. 200m

47. What is the minimum DH for CAT 2 approach?

A. 50ft

B. 100ft

C. 150ft
 LVO QUIZZ 11|P a g
e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

AERODROMES

48. Does an operator have to take into account the OCH, when establishing his operating LVO
aerodrome minima?

A. Yes, always.

B. Only for CAT II

C. Only for CAT III A

D. Only for CAT III B

49. During taxi, the obstacle clearance is guaranteed, if

A. The cockpit is on the taxi line

B. The nose wheel is on the taxi line

C. The taxi line is in the middle between the mail wheels

D. All of the above are correct

50. During taxi you see an Intermediate Taxi-Holding Position Marking (single broken line laid
across the entire taxiway).

A. You cannot cross it without a clearance from ATC

B. You only need a clearance to cross if LVP are in force

C. The line is established to protect a priority taxiway route

D. It is indicating to you that you are approaching the CAT II / III holding point

51. For operating CAT III minima with a DH < 50ft.

A. The whole approach light system must be working with a backup power system on
standby

B. The last 300m of the approach light system must be working

C. The last 900m of the approach light system must be working

D. The approach light system can be U/S

 LVO QUIZZ 12|P a g
e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

52. After landing you see the centreline alternating white and red. How far are you from the end of
the runway?

A. Between 600m and 300m

B. Between 900m and 600m

C. Between 900m and 300m

D. Less than 300m

53. At what distance from the end of the runway will the centreline lights turn to red only?

A. 100m

B. 300m

C. 500m

D. 750m

54. You are exiting the runway during LVO and are told to hold when clear of the runway. Where
do you stop?

A. As soon as the whole aircraft is clear of the runway

B. As soon as the nose wheel has past the last alternating green/yellow taxiway light

C. As soon as the aircraft has past the last green taxiway light

D. As soon as the whole aircraft has past the last alternating green/yellow taxiway
light

55. The eRM aerodrome code H-B for ALS lighting means:

A. High intensity approach light system with backup power

B. High intensity approach light system for category B aircrafts

C. High intensity approach light system for a standard CAT II/III ALS

D. High intensity approach light system for CAT III B approaches

 LVO QUIZZ 13|P a g
e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

56. What is the ICAO standard coverage area for an ILS?

A. 25° within 25 nm

B. 35° within 17 nm and 10° within 25 nm

C. 45° within 15 nm and 15° within 25 nm

D. 30° within 15 nm and 15° within 25 nm

57. What is the definition of fog?

A. Visibility less than 2km and cloud base below 500ft

B. Fog [FG] is the suspension of microscopic water droplets in the air that reduces
surface visibility to less than ONE kilometer

C. Visibility other than CAVOK

58. What are the two most prominent fog types in Europe?

A. Radiation fog, Advection fog

B. Sandstorms and dust storms induced fogs

C. None of the above

59. What is the minimum runway width for auto land for A-320?

A. 35m

B. 45m

C. 60m

60. Why is OFZ (obstacle free zone) established?

A. To protect you during the approach above decision height (DH)

B. To protect CAT II and III approaches below decision height (DH) and in the event
of a balked landing (or go-around) after DH

C. None of the above

 LVO QUIZZ 14|P a g
e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

61. What is the colour of the runway markings?

A. Runway Markings are white

B. Runway Markings are yellow

C. Runway Markings are blue

62. What is the length of the Touchdown Zone?

A. 300m starting from the threshold

B. 600m starting from the end of the runway

C. 900m starting from the threshold

63. What is the colour of the taxiway markings?

A. White

B. Yellow

C. Blue

64. Can a pilot taxi beyond a mandatory taxiway sign (runway - taxiway holding position or
intermediate taxi - holding position) without ATC clearance?

A. NO

B. Yes always

C. It’s upon the commanders discretion

65. Are the approach light mandatory for CAT 3 operations?

A. No, they are only optional

B. Yes they are mandatory

C. Depends on the RVR

66. What are the main elements of the approach lights?

A. Only crossbar lights

B. Only edge lights

C. Centreline lights, Side row lights, Crossbar lights

 LVO QUIZZ 15|P a g
e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

67. What is the maximum spacing for the Runway Edge lights?

A. Maximum longitudinal interval is 25m

B. Maximum longitudinal interval is 60m

C. Maximum longitudinal interval is 100m

68. What is the colour of the runway centreline lights from the threshold to 900 m from the runway
end?

A. White

B. Blue

C. Red

69. How does the colour of the runway centreline lights change in the last 900m of the runway?

A. The following 600 m is lit with alternate white and red lights and the final 300 m
lit by red centreline lighting

B. All the centreline lights are white

C. The centreline lights in this part of the runway are all red

70. What is the colour of the taxiway centreline lights in the ILS sensitive area?

A. The lights are all yellow

B. Alternate green and yellow centreline lights

C. The lights are alternate yellow and blue

71. What is the coverage area of an ILS at 17nm from threshold according ICAO regulations?

A. ± 35 deg of final approach course

B. ± 180 deg of final approach course

C. ± 90 deg of final approach course

 LVO QUIZZ 16|P a g
e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

72. How are defined the protection areas around the ILS beam?

A. No entry area and allowed area

B. Critical area, sensitive area

C. There are no protection areas around the ILS beam

73. For how many parts of the runway are usually given RVR measurements?

A. 3 - the touch-down zone, the mid runway portion, the roll-out portion or stop-
end

B. Only one - the touchdown zone

C. Only for the stop-end

74. How will be communicated the availability of Low Visibility Procedures to the crew?

A. By ATIS only

B. By ACARS message

C. By ATIS, or directly on ATC frequencies: “LOW VISIBILITY PROCEDURE [CAT II]

[CAT III] IN FORCE/PROGRESS”

AIRCRAFT UTILISATION AND FAILURE MANAGEMENT

75. Auto callout u/s (MEL item), A/C landing capability is:

A. CAT I

B. CAT II with autoland

C. CAT II without autoland

D. CAT III A
 LVO QUIZZ 17|P a g
e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

76. Autolands:

A. Must be performed in CONFIG FULL

B. May be performed in CONF FULL or CONF3 but CONF FULL is recommended to

improve forward vision

C. May be performed in CONF FULL or CONF3 but CONF3 is recommended to reduce

noise

77. Alert height for A-320 is:

A. 200 ft RA

B. 100 ft RA

C. DH for selected approach

D. 1000 ft RA

78. You initiated G/A at very low height and A/C contacted ground

A. G/A mode remain engaged

B. G/A mode disengage and you have to continue manually/row data

C. G/A mode disengage and you have to fly manually basic FD mode

D. G/A mode disengage and you have to engage it

79. You experience a failure/downgrade below 1000 ft AAL. You have sufficient visual reference
and suitable flying condition to continue visually.

A. You can continue for autoland.

B. You can continue for autoland or manual landing

C. You have to G/A

D. You can continue for manual landing

 LVO QUIZZ 18|P a g
e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

80. “NO LAND” callout has to be positively announced by…………. in case the mode fails to
engage by……. ft RA.

A. CM2 400

B. CM 1 or CM 2 300

C. CM 2 300

D. CM 1 300

81. During the approach and (auto) land G/A may be initiated:

A. Anytime above minimum

B. Anytime above Alert Height

C. Anytime until full stop

D. Anytime until reverse selection

82. In case of A/THR unavailability

A. Only CAT I with manual LDG is permitted

B. CAT II with manual LDG or autoland is permitted

C. CAT II with manual LDG only is permitted

D. CAT III A is permitted

83. The A-320 has:

A. Fail-passive automatic landing system

B. Fail-operational automatic landing system

C. No automatic landing system

 LVO QUIZZ 19|P a g
e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

84. Alert height is the point:

A. After which if a single failure affects the fail-operational landing system the
approach and autoland can be continued

B. After which if a single failure affects the fail-operational landing system the approach
and autoland cannot be continued

C. After which if a single failure affects the fail-operational landing system the
Commander decides if approach and autoland can be continued

85. Alert height for A320 equals:

A. 200 ft

B. 100 ft

C. 50 ft

D. 100 m

86. During the approach AUTOLAND red warning light flashes. It's because:

A. Difference between both RA indications is greater than 15'

B. Both localizer transmitters or receivers fail above 15' RA

C. Both glide-slope transmitters or receivers fail above 100' RA

D. All are correct

87. You are approaching your destination (CAT III airport). LVP is in force. Reported RVR is
200m, runway covered with 4mm slush:

A. Autoland and auto-rollout is permitted

B. Autoland and auto-rollout is not permitted

C. Autoland is permitted, auto-rollout is not permitted

 LVO QUIZZ 20|P a g
e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

88. You are approaching your destination (CAT II airport). LVP is in force. Reported RVR is 300m,
cross-wind 25kt:

A. You may land automatically

B. You have to divert to your alternate

C. You may land manually

D. A and C are correct

89. QRH autoland landing distance with autobrake includes margin of:

A. 50%

B. 67%

C. 15%

D. No margin

90. What is the definition of Fail-passive auto land system?

A. In case of a failure of any part of the system the autoland system will turn itself
off and the crew has to take over

B. In case of failure the crew don’t have to take over manually

C. None of the above

91. Is it permitted to perform auto land with CAT 3 SINGLE displayed on the FMA?

A. NO

B. Yes, it is mandatory, with minimum DH=50ft RA

C. Yes, but not mandatory, a manual landing is permitted

92. What is the allowed Glide Slope angle range for auto land on A320?

A. There is no limitation for Glide Slope angle for auto land on A320

B. -2.5°/-3.15°

C. -2deg/-5deg
 LVO QUIZZ 21|P a g
e
Training Department - FLIGHT CREW
[REV0]

93. What are the Wind component limitations for auto land on A320?

A. Tailwind: 5kt, Crosswind: 10kt, Headwind: 20kt

B. Tailwind: 10kt, Crosswind: 20kt, Headwind: 30kt

C. Tailwind: 25kt, Crosswind: 30kt, Headwind: 40kt

94. At what height engages the LAND mode of the AFCS?

A. Approximately 150ft

B. Approximately 200ft

C. Approximately 350ft

95. In case of failure of FLARE mode, what is the minimum height for the `NO FLARE` call-out
form CM2?

A. 10ft

B. 30ft

C. 50ft

96. What is the minimum height for use of the AP during ILS approach without auto land?

A. 80% of DH

B. 90% of DH

C. DH

97. What is the maximum airport elevation for auto land for A320?

A. 6500ft

B. 5000ft

C. 1800ft

98. What is the minimum DH when CAT 2 is displayed on the FMA?

A. 50ft

B. 100ft

C. 200ft