Depth of Field

Lenses form images of objects a predictable distance away from the lens. The distance from the
image to the lens is the image distance. Image distance depends on the object distance (distance
from object to the lens) and the focal length of the lens. Figure 1 shows how the image distance
depends on object distance for lenses with focal lengths of 35 mm and 200 mm.
Figure 1: Dependence Of Image Distance Upon Object Distance

Cameras use lenses to focus the images of object upon the

film or exposure medium. Objects within a photographic Figure 2
scene are usually a varying distance from the lens. Because a
lens is capable of precisely focusing objects of a single
distance, some objects will be precisely focused while others
will be out of focus and even blurred. Skilled photographers
strive to maximize the depth of field within their
photographs. Depth of field refers to the distance between the
nearest and the farthest objects within a photographic scene
that are acceptably focused. Figure 2 is an example of a
photograph with a shallow depth of field.
One variable that affects depth of field is the f-number. The f-number is the ratio of the focal
length to the diameter of the aperture. The aperture is the circular opening through which light
travels before reaching the lens. Table 1 shows the dependence of the depth of field (DOF) upon
the f-number of a digital camera.
Table 1: Dependence of Depth of Field Upon f-Number and Camera Lens
35-mm Camera Lens 200-mm Camera Lens
f-Number DN (m) DF (m) DOF (m) DN (m) DF (m) DOF (m)
2.8 4.11 6.39 2.29 4.97 5.03 0.06
4.0 3.82 7.23 3.39 4.95 5.05 0.10
5.6 3.48 8.86 5.38 4.94 5.07 0.13
8.0 3.09 13.02 9.93 4.91 5.09 0.18
22.0 1.82 Infinity Infinite 4.775 5.27 0.52
The DN value represents the nearest object distance that is acceptably focused. The DF values
represent the farthest object distance that is acceptably focused.
Questions:
1. How does the location of an image change as an object moves further from the lens?
a. The image moves closer to the lens.
b. The image moves farther from the lens.
c. The answer varies, depending upon the object distance.
d. Nonsense! The image does not actually move.

2. Based on the information presented in Figure 1 for 35-mm lenses, which range of object
distances would present the greatest challenge for precisely focusing all images within the
range?
a. 2.5 m to 5.0 m b. 10.0 m to 12.5 m
c. 15.0 m to 20.0 m d. 17.5 m to 25.0 m

3. The diagram below includes a photographic

scene with objects that are varying distances
from the camera. The camera is positioned at
0 meters. What object will be acceptably
focused if a 200-mm camera lens is used and
the distance from lens to exposure medium is
208 mm?
a. Flowers (at 1 m)
b. Dog (at 5 m)
c. People (at 10 m)
d. House (at 25 m)

4. The lines of text in Figure 2 are all different distances from the camera lens used to take the
photograph. Which line seems to be the optimal distance from the lens such that it is
acceptably focused?
a. The line that reads "the depth of field wi…"
b. The line that reads "…amera has a hyperf…"
c. The line that reads "…focus at 18 feet …"
d. All the lines seem to be acceptably focused.

5. A photographer is taking a picture of the

scene at the right using a 35 mm camera lens.
The scene includes flowers (at 1 meter), a dog
(at 5 meters), people (at 10 meters) and a
house (at 25 meters). The photographer stands
at the 0-meter mark to take the photograph.
Which of the subjects in the scene will be
acceptably focused if the f-number is 22.0.
a. Only the flowers. b. Only the dog.
c. The flowers and the dog. d. The dog and the people.
e. The dog, the people and the house.
Answers and Explanations
1. Answer: A
Explanation: The graphs in Figure 1 show that the image distance decreases as the object
distance increases. The passage states that the object distance is the distance between the
object and the lens; the image distance is the distance between the image and the lens. When
this mathematical relationship is applied to the context of the passage, one can conclude that
the image will move closer to the lens as the object moves farther from the lens.

2. Answer: A
Explanation: The second paragraph states that a camera lens can only precisely focus
objects that are at a given object distance. The objects within the scene that are focused are
those that have a very similar image distance value. The images of these objects would be
acceptably focused at the location of the film or exposure medium. The collection of objects
that have vastly different image distance values cannot all be acceptably focused on the film
or exposure medium. Thus, the range of object distances that would present the greatest
challenge for focusing would be the range for which the two extremes have vastly different
image distances. To determine which range this would be, one must use the left graph (35
mm lens) of Figure 1. Between object distances of 2.5 mm and 5.0 mm, the line on the
graph is steeply sloped. This indicates that there is a relatively large range of image distance
values – from about 35.25 mm to 35.50 mm. Compared to the other choices in this question,
this makes choice A the best answer.

3. Answer: B
Explanation: Cameras focus images on the film of a camera. The distance between the
image (of film) and the camera lens is known as the image distance. In this question, the
image distance is stated to be 208 mm. The question involves finding the object distance
that corresponds to this image distance of 208 mm. The graph on the right (200 mm lens)
must be used to answer this question. The process involves finding the coordinate of
(approximately) 208 mm along the vertical axis (image distance) and tracing straight across
to the line on the graph. At the intersection point with the line, trace straight downward to
the horizontal axis and read the horizontal coordinate (object distance value). The result is
an object distance of approximately 5.0 meters. The best answer is choice B.

4. Answer: A
Explanation: The line of text within Figure 2 that seems to be most focused is the one that
has the greatest clarity. This is the line that reads “the depth of field wi…”. This is the line
that is the optimal distance from the lens.

5. Answer: E
Explanation: Table 1 lists the nearest and the farthest objects within a photographic scene
that will be acceptably focused for a stated focal length and f-Number. This question
pertains to a focal length of 35 mm and an f-Number of 22.0. This corresponds to the fifth
row of the table and the second and third columns. These columns indicate that objects as
near as 1.82 m (dN) and an infinite distance away will be in focus. The dog, the people and
the house are the objects in the scene that will be in focus. Choice E is the best answer.
Figure 2 is a Wikimedia Commons image. The image comes with permissions to
share/distribute. The WikiMedia Commons page for this image can be found at:
http://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:DOF-ShallowDepthofField.jpg.
Stopping Distance
One aspect of safe driving involves the ability to stop a car readily. This ability depends upon the
driver's alertness and readiness to stop, the conditions of the road, the speed of the car, and the
braking characteristics of the car. The actual distance that it takes to stop the car can be thought
of as consisting of two parts - the reaction distance and braking distance.

When a driver sees an event in his/her field of view that might warrant braking (for example, a
dog running into the street), a collection of actions must be taken before the braking actually
begins. First the driver must identify the event and decide if braking is necessary. Then the driver
must lift his/her foot off the gas pedal and move it to the brake pedal. And finally, the driver
must press the brake down its full distance in order to obtain maximum braking acceleration. The
time to do all this is known as the reaction time. The distance traveled during this time is known
as the reaction distance. Once the brakes are applied, the car begins to slow to a stop. The
distance traveled by the car during this time is known as the braking distance. The braking
distance is dependent upon the original speed of the car, the road conditions, and characteristics
of the car such as its profile area, mass and tire conditions. Figure 1 shows the stopping distance
for a Toyota Prius on dry pavement resulting from a 0.75-second reaction time.
Figure 1

Table 1
The reaction time of the driver is highly
dependent upon the alertness of the driver. trxn (s) dreaction (m) dbraking (m) dtotal (m)
Small changes in reaction time can have a 0.40 8.9 28.2 37.1
huge effect upon the total stopping 0.50 11.2 28.2 39.4
distance. Table 1 shows the reaction 0.60 13.4 28.2 41.6
distance, braking distance and total 0.70 15.6 28.2 43.8
stopping distance for a Toyota Prius with
0.80 17.9 28.2 46.1
an original speed of 50.0 mi/hr and
varying reaction times. 0.90 20.3 28.2 48.5
1.00 22.3 28.2 50.5
Questions:
1. Based on Figure 1, what effect does the doubling of the speed of a car have upon the
braking distance?
a. The braking distance is doubled.
b. The braking distance is one-half the value.
c. The braking distance is not affected by a doubling of speed.
d. The braking distance is increased by more than a factor of two.

2. What is the reaction distance of a Toyota Prius moving at 60.0 mi/hr on dry pavement and
driven by a driver with a 0.75-second reaction time?
a. 16.8 meters b. 20.0 meters
c. 40.0 meters d. 60.0 meters

3. Based on Figure 1, at what car speed does the reaction distance of a car equal the braking
distance of a car?
a. 20.0 mi/hr b. 30.0 mi/hr
c. 40.0 mi/hr d. 60.0 mi/hr

4. A student is texting while driving a Toyota Prius at 50.0 mi/hr on dry pavement. As a result,
the reaction time is 1.5 seconds. Use the data of Table 1 to predict the total stopping
distance of the student’s car.
a. Approximately 33.5 meters b. Approximately 45.0 meters
c. Approximately 50.5 meters d. Approximately 61.7 meters

5. Which of the following combinations of reaction time and car speed would lead to the
greatest stopping distance?
a. Reaction time = 0.90 seconds; car speed = 30 mi/hr.
b. Reaction time = 0.75 seconds; car speed = 40 mi/hr.
c. Reaction time = 0.90 seconds; car speed = 50 mi/hr.
d. Reaction time = 0.70 seconds; car speed = 80 mi/hr.
Answers and Explanations:
1. Answer: D
Explanation: Some numerical values must be estimated in order to answer this question.
Estimates should be made of the braking distance (the lighter of the two bars in Figure 1)
for any two speeds that have a 2:1 ratio. Estimating the braking distance requires that one
starts the measurement from where the reaction distance ends. For instance, the braking
distance at 20.0 mi/hr is approximately 5 meters (from 6 meters to 11 meters). The braking
distance at twice this speed - 40.0 mi/hr is 17 meters (from 13 meters to 30 meters). This
doubling of the speed from 20.0 mi/hr to 40.0 mi/hr results in more than a doubling of the
reaction distance.

2. Answer: B
Explanation: Figure 1 data is based on a Toyota Prius driven by a person with a 0.75
second reaction time. The reaction distance at 60.0 mi/hr can be read off the bar chart.
Reaction distance is the darker bar. Its length is approximately 20 meters at this speed.

3. Answer: B
Explanation: Figure 1 represents the reaction distance by the darker bar and the stopping
distance y the lighter bar. For most listed speeds, the two bar lengths are not equal. But at
30.0 mi/hr, the darker bar and the lighter bar have the same length - 10 meters each.

4. Answer: D
Explanation: The total stopping distance is the sum of the reaction distance and the braking
distance. These values are listed in Table 1 for various reaction times. The maximum
reaction time listed in the table is 1.00 seconds. Since this question pertains to a reaction
time of 1.5 seconds, one will have to extrapolate to determine the answer. Extrapolation
involves using an observed trend to estimate the value of a quantity that falls outside the
range of stated values. The trend in the dreaction values is that it increases by about 4.5 meters
(estimated average) for every 0.20 second increase in trxn value. So at 1.5 seconds, the
dreaction value would be approximately 13.5 m (three times 4.5 m) greater than the 20.3 m
value at 0.90 seconds. This would yield an estimate of 33.8 m for dreaction. The trend in
dbraking values is that it remains constant at 28.2 m for a 50.0 mi/hr Toyota Prius. Summing
the dreaction and the dbraking values leads to an estimate of 62 m for the total stopping distance.
The closest answer to the estimated 62 meters is the 61.7 m of choice D.

5. Answer: D
Explanation: What is observed in Figure 1 is that braking distance increases with
increasing speed. In fact, a doubling of the speed more than doubles the braking distance.
One also observes that an increase in speed causes an increase in reaction distance. This
effect is not as pronounced as the effect of car speed on braking distance for a doubling of
car speed doubles the reaction distance. In Table 1, one observes that an increase in car
speed and in reaction time each increase the reaction distance. A doubling of reaction time
will double the reaction distance. Finally one learns that braking distances tend to be greater
than reaction distances and thus the greater contributor to the total stopping distance. As
such, one would reason that higher speeds would be the more dominant factor in answering
this question. Choice D has the highest speed of all listed speeds and thus becomes an
immediate first choice. Of course the question is do any of the lower speed vehicles
compensate for its shortage in braking distance by a larger reaction distance. Choice C is the
only one that needs to be considered since it has both the largest reaction time and the
largest speed of the remaining choices. The 50 mi/hr speed of choice C makes its stopping
distance findable in Table 1. The extra 0.20 seconds in reaction time would give the choice
C car an approximately 5 meter advantage … and that is only if the choice C car had the
same speed (and it doesn’t). This miniscule 5 meters is not nearly enough to compensate for
the larger advantage that the choice D car has in terms of its braking distance. Choice D
clearly has a larger stopping distance.
Coffee Filter Lab
As objects fall, they increase their speed due to the downward pull of gravity. Air resistance
counteracts gravity's pull by resisting the downward motion of the object. The amount of air
resistance depends upon a variety of factors, most noticeably, the object's speed. As objects
move faster, they encounter more air resistance. When the
amount of upward air resistance force is equal to the downward Figure 1
gravity force, the object encounters a balance of forces and is said
to have reached a terminal velocity. The terminal velocity value
is the final, constant velocity value achieved by the falling object.
A group of physics students are investigating the terminal
velocity values obtained by falling coffee filters. They videotape
the falling filters and use video analysis software to analyze the
motion. The video is imported into the software program and the
filter's position in each consecutive frame is clicked on (see
Figure 1). The software uses the position coordinates to generate
a plot of the vertical velocity as a function of time. Figure 2
shows the velocity versus time
graph that resulted from the Figure 2: Velocity vs. Time - Single Filter
analysis of the motion of a
single filter.
The lab group then
investigated the effect of mass
on the motion of the falling
filters. They stacked varying
numbers of pleated coffee
filters tightly together and
analyzed the motion of the
stacks of filters. They
determined the terminal
velocity of the stacks of filters. The students also measured the mass of the filters to determine
their weight and used the value to determine the amount of air resistance encountered by the
filters. The results of several trials are shown in Table 1. The terminal speed (i.e., velocity) as a
function of mass is shown in Figure 3.

Table 1 Figure 3

Trial # of Mass vterminal Resistance

Filters (g) (m/s) (N)
1 1 0.99 0.87 0.0097
2 2 1.99 1.24 0.0195
3 3 3.01 1.52 0.0295
4 4 4.00 1.75 0.0392
5 5 5.00 1.90 0.0490
6 8 7.99 2.41 0.0783
7 10 10.01 2.55 0.0981
Questions:
1. How was the terminal velocity determined from the video analysis software?
a. The terminal velocity was the slope of the line on the graph.
b. The terminal velocity was the velocity value at the point the line leveled off.
c. The terminal velocity was the mean (average) velocity as found from the graph.
d. The terminal velocity was the median of the velocity values found on the graph.

2. What must happen in order for a falling object to reach a terminal velocity?
a. The force of gravity must increase until it is equal to the force of air resistance.
b. The force of gravity must decrease until it is equal to the force of air resistance.
c. The force of air resistance must increase until it is equal to the force of gravity.
d. The force of air resistance must decrease until it is equal to the force of gravity.

3. When the students dropped eight filters, the video analysis provided a velocity-time graph
that looked like the graph below. As seen, the stack of eight filters hit the ground after 2.0
seconds. This occurred before the filters reached a terminal velocity.

Which alteration in procedure would allow the students to determine the terminal velocity of
the stack of eight filters?
a. Drop the filters from the second floor and capture video of their fall.
b. Blow air upward from a fan below the filters to create more air resistance.
c. Extrapolate the line on the graph so that it curves and flattens out to a terminal velocity.
d. Throw the filters sideways so there is more time to fall and capture the motion on video.

4. Having performed this lab, a student suggests that the terminal velocity of a 2.5-gram penny
would be 1.38 m/s. Which one of the following statements is incorrectly assumed by the
student when making this comment?
a. The penny will fall with a flat orientation instead of a sideway orientation.
b. Despite their greater density, copper still reaches a terminal velocity value.
c. The mass of an object is the only variable that affects the terminal velocity.
d. The weight of 2.5 grams of copper (penny) equals that of 2.5 grams of paper (filter).
5. Which one of the following statements implies the correct cause-to-effect relationship?
a. Decreasing the amount of air resistance reduces the mass of an object.
b. Changing the amount of air resistance serves to decrease the object's weight.
c. As the value of the terminal velocity is decreased, the number of filters decreases.
d. Increasing the number of filters increases the upper limit on the amount of air resistance.

6. Which of the following conclusions is supported by the data presented in Table 1?

a. Heavier objects fall faster than lighter objects.
b. All objects fall at the same rate in a vacuum chamber.
c. A more massive object will take a longer time to reach a terminal velocity.
d. Terminal velocity is reached when the force of gravity is equal to air resistance.
Answers and Explanations:
1. Answer: B
Explanation: Terminal velocity occurs when the velocity of the falling filters has become
constant. When the filters achieve this terminal velocity, the line on the velocity graph will
have leveled off to a constant value.

2. Answer: C
Explanation: The first paragraph of the passage states that "when the upward air resistance
force is equal to the downward gravity force, the object encounters a balance of forces and
is said to have reached a terminal velocity." The first paragraph also states "as objects move
faster, they encounter more air resistance." So one can reason that the gravity force is a
constant value on the falling filters and it is the air resistance force that is increasing. It
increases because of the gain in speed; the increasing continues until the upward force of air
resistance equals the downward force of gravity.

3. Answer: A
Explanation: The filters hit the ground before they achieved a constant, terminal velocity
value. If they could have continued to fall, the air resistance would have increased as the
speed increased and terminal velocity would eventually be reached. One way to fix this
problem would be drop the filters from a higher initial height so that they have a longer time
to fall. They would then reach a terminal velocity.

4. Answer: C
Explanation: The statement made here assumes that one can interpolate the terminal
velocity of a 2.5 gram penny by finding a value in Table 1 between the trial 2 (two filters)
and trial 3 (three filters). This is based on the fact that the mass of a 2.5 gram penny is equal
to the mass of 2.5 coffee filters. A penny may have the same mass as 2.5 filters but there are
more variables that affect the terminal velocity than the mass. The person making the
statement is assuming that mass is the only factor that matters. Another factor that plays a
role is the profile area of the falling object.

5. Answer: D
Explanation: As an object falls, air resistance will increase until it is equal to the force of
gravity. The force of gravity is determined by the number of filters that are dropped. And so
it reasons that "increasing the number of filters increases the upper limit on the amount of
air resistance" that the filters can experience.

6. Answer: A
Explanation: A more massive object is a heavier object. By inspecting either Table 1 or
from Figure 3, one observes that objects of greater mass (heavier) have a greater terminal
velocity. As such, heavier objects fall faster than lighter ones.
Maximum Range Explained
A projectile is an airborne object that is under the sole influence of gravity. As it rises and falls,
air resistance has a negligible effect. The distance traveled horizontally from the launch position
to the landing position is known as the range. The range of an angled-launch projectile depends
upon the launch speed and the launch angle (angle between the launch direction and the
horizontal). Figure 1 illustrates the effect of launch angle on the range of a projectile with a
launch speed of 40.0 m/s and five different launch angles.
Figure 1: Trajectory Plot for Angled-Launched Projectiles

A projectile is often thought of as having two independent and simultaneous motions - a motion
in the horizontal direction and a motion in the vertical direction. Gravity, being a vertical force,
affects only the vertical motion. When launched, a projectile acquires a distinctly different
horizontal and vertical speed; the actual values depend on the launch angle. During its flight
through the air, the horizontal speed of the projectile remains constant; the vertical speed
changes due to gravity. The horizontal distance depends on two factors: the horizontal speed
(vox) and the time the projectile has been in the air. The horizontal distance is the product of
these two quantities. The height of the projectile depends on the original vertical speed (voy) and
the time that the projectile has been in the air. Table 1 summarizes several mathematical
quantities for a projectile launched with an original speed of 40.0 m/s.
Table 1: Mathematical Parameters for a 40.0 m/s Launch Speed at Various Angles
Angle (°) vox (m/s) voy (m/s) tpeak (s) Max. Height (m) ttotal (s) Range (m)
15 38.6 10.4 1.06 5.5 2.11 82
30 34.6 20.0 2.04 20.4 4.08 141
40 30.6 25.7 2.62 33.7 5.25 161
45 28.3 28.3 2.89 40.8 5.77 163
50 25.7 30.6 3.13 47.9 6.25 161
60 20.0 34.6 3.53 61.2 7.07 141
75 10.4 38.6 3.94 76.2 7.89 82
Note: tpeak refers to the time it takes the projectile to reach its peak (i.e., highest point).
ttotal refers to the total time it takes the projectile to travel through the air.
The Max. Height is the height that the projectile has when it is at its highest point.
Questions:
1. Using a launch speed of 40.0 m/s and any angle between 0 and 90 degrees, what would be
the largest possible range for a projectile?
a. 45 meters b. 90 meters
c. 163 meters d. 180 meters

2. Based on the given launch parameters, which projectile will reach the highest peak?
a. Launch speed = 40.0 m/s; launch angle = 30°
b. Launch speed = 40.0 m/s; launch angle = 45°
c. Launch speed = 40.0 m/s; launch angle = 60°
d. Launch speed = 40.0 m/s; launch angle = 85°

3. Which one of the following rules regarding the relationship between the launch angle and
the range seems to best fit the data in Figure 1 and Table 1?
a. Any two angles that have a 2:1 ratio will result in the same range when launched at the
same speed.
b. Two launch angles that add to 90° will result in the same range when launched at the
same speed.
c. Launch angles that are evenly divisible by 10 will result in a shorter range than those that
are not evenly divisible by 10.
d. If a large launch angle is evenly divisible (without a remainder) by a small launch angle,
then their range will be the same.

4. A golfer is planning to club a ball towards the green but finds a large oak tree to be an
imposing obstacle in his way. The trunk of the tree is 50 meters from the golfer. The canopy
of the tree can be approximated as a circle with a radius of 15 meters. It extends to a height
of 30 meters. Which listed launch angle will allow the golfer to direct the ball over the
topmost branches of the tree and still drive the ball as far as possible? Assume a 40.0 m/s
launch speed.
a. 30 degrees b. 40 degrees
c. 45 degrees d. 60 degrees

5. A student observes the following correlation: the time a projectile is in the air (ttotal)
increases as the original horizontal speed decreases (vox) and as the original vertical speed
(voy) increases. The student wishes to determine which factor (vox and voy), if any, is related
to ttotal in a cause-effect manner. Which experiment could be performed to resolve the issue?
a. Launch projectiles with random angles and speeds and measure ttotal.
b. Launch projectiles at various angles from the top of a cliff and measure ttotal.
c. Launch projectiles at one angle with various launch speeds and measure ttotal.
d. Launch projectiles straight up in the air at various vertical speeds and measure ttotal.
Answers and Explanations:
1. Answer: C
Explanation: The maximum range occurs for a launch angle of 45°. At this angle, the
range is 163 meters - read from the graph in Figure 1 and listed in the fourth row of Table
1.

2. Answer: D
Explanation: This answer can be determined by inspecting the trajectory plots in Figure 1
or the data in Table 1.There are five plots given in Figure 1 with the launch angle
increasing by 15° increments beginning with a 15° launch angle. The highest point in the
trajectory occurs at the midpoint of the path. This highest point increases as the angle
increases. At a 75° launch angle, the maximum height is approximately 76 meters.
However, a further increase in launch angle beyond this 75° angle will increase the peak
height even more. So the best answer is the launch angle of 85°.

3. Answer: B
Explanation: A careful inspection of either Figure 1 or Table 1 reveals that the range of a
projectile has an identical value for more than one launch angle. For instance, the range is
the same for a 15° and a 75° angle. The range is also the same for a 30° and a 60° launch
angle. As a final example, the range is the same for a 40° and a 50° launch angle. What do
all these angles have in common? The group of two angles with the same range always add
up to 90°. This makes choice b an accurate answer. None of the other choices fit all the data
provided in this passage.

4. Answer: D
Explanation: Given the description of the physical situation, one can conclude that the golf
ball lies 35 meters from the nearest edge of the tree and 65 meters from the furthest edge of
the tree. These values were determined by knowing the trunk is 50 meters from the golf ball
and the branches stretch from the trunk a distance (radius) of 15 meters towards and away
from the ball. Since the branches are as high as 30 meters, it is important that the trajectory
of the ball carry it above a height of 30 meters by the time it is 35 meters horizontally from
its launch position. When inspecting Figure 1, one can determine that neither the 30° nor
the 45° trajectories meet this criteria. Knowing that 40° lies between the 30° and the 45°
trajectory means that it can be ruled out as well. By the process of elimination, the only
angle that works is the 60° launch angle.

5. Answer: D
Explanation: This question pertains to the development of an experimental design to
isolate variables having a potential impact upon the flight time of a projectile. The two
variables being considered are the original horizontal speed (vox) and the original vertical
speed (voy). The best design to determine whether a variable affects the flight time would be
a design in which only one variable changes and the other variable is held constant.
Conducting an experiment with a changing angle will change both variables. This rules out
the first two options. Conducting an experiment involving a constant launch angle but
changing speed will also change both variables since vox and voy depend on angle and
original speed. This rules out the third option. The best design (of the four options) involves
a vertical launch; launching vertically will eliminate the horizontal speed. By changing the
launch speed, one can observe the effect of the original vertical speed (voy) upon the time
the projectile is in the air.
Collisions
A group of physics students are investigating the effect of the mass of two colliding carts upon
their post-collision velocities. Being vectors, the velocities can be positive (for moving
rightward) or negative (for moving leftward).

Experiment 1
In Experiment 1, the students place Cart B at rest on the track. They push Cart A towards it. The
two carts are equipped with Velcro strips so that they stick together when they collide. The two
carts collide and move together at the same speed after the collision. They use a motion detector
to determine the velocity of Cart A before and after the collision. They conduct several trials
while varying the mass of the two carts by adding bricks to them. Their data is shown in Table 1.
Table 1
Pre-Collision Post-Collision
Mass of A Mass of B Velocity of A Velocity of A
Trial (kg) (kg) (cm/s) (cm/s)
1 0.50 0.50 34 17
2 0.50 1.00 42 14
3 0.50 1.50 36 9
4 0.50 2.00 40 8
5 1.00 0.50 33 22
6 1.50 0.50 36 27
7 1.00 1.00 36 18

Experiment 2
In Experiment 2, the students arrange the carts so that magnets embedded in their ends repel each
other before contact is made. Once again, they place Cart B at rest on the track and push Cart A
towards it. After the collision, the carts move along the track at separate velocities. Their
velocities are measured using motion detectors. Several trials are conducted using different mass
combinations. Their data is shown in Table 2.
Table 2
Pre-Collision Post-Collision Post-Collision
Mass of Mass of Velocity of A Velocity of A Velocity of B
Trial A (kg) B (kg) (cm/s) (cm/s) (cm/s)
8 0.50 0.50 32 0 32
9 0.50 1.00 36 -12 24
10 0.50 1.50 42 -21 21
11 0.50 2.00 38 -23 15
12 1.00 0.50 33 11 44
13 1.50 0.50 32 16 48
14 1.00 1.00 40 0 40
Questions
1. What is the purpose of these two experiments?
a. To study general principles regarding collisions.
b. To measure the post-collision velocity of the two carts.
c. To determine the effect of cart mass upon the post-collision velocities.
d. To investigate collisions in order to determine if the velocity is conserved.

2. Which of the following statements describe the effect of increasing the mass of Cart B as
observed in Experiment 1?
a. The mass of Cart A increases.
b. The pre-collision velocity of cart A increases.
c. The post-collision velocity of cart A increases.
d. The post-collision velocity of cart A decreases.

3. A 2.0-kg cart moving at 60 cm/s approaches a 1.0-kg cart that is initially at rest. The two
carts magnetically repel each other before actual contact is made. Which trial would provide
sufficient evidence for predicting the post-collision speed of the two carts?
a. Trial 2 b. Trial 5
c. Trial 9 d. Trial 12

4. A 3.0-kg cart moving at 60 cm/s approaches a 1.0-kg cart that is initially at rest. The two
carts magnetically repel each other before actual contact is made. What is the post-collision
velocity of the two carts?
a. Cart A: 40 cm/s; Cart B: 20 cm/s b. Cart A: 20 cm/s; Cart B: 40 cm/s
c. Cart A: -20 cm/s; Cart B: 20 cm/s d. Cart A: 30 cm/s; Cart B: 90 cm/s

5. The collisions in Table 2 are often referred to as perfectly elastic collisions. What
mathematical equation accurately relates the pre- and post-collision velocities (v) of carts A
and B for all the perfectly elastic collisions? NOTE: the ´ symbol indicates after the
collision.
a. vA = vB´ b. vA * vA´ = vB´
c. vA + vB´ = vB + vA´ d. vA + vA´ = vB + vB´

6. Based on Table 2, which of the following conditions would result in the fastest post-
collision velocity for Cart B?
a. Cart A moves fast before the collision and is the less massive of the two objects.
b. Cart A moves slowly before the collision and is the less massive of the two objects.
c. Cart A moves fast before the collision and is many times more massive than Cart B.
d. Cart A moves slowly before the collision and is many times more massive than Cart B.
Answers and Explanations
1. Answer: C
Explanation: The purpose of an experiment is most often mentioned in the first paragraph
of the passage. Here it states that the students are "investigating the effect of the mass of two
colliding carts upon their post-collision velocities."

2. Answer: D
Explanation: The first four trials of Table 1 demonstrate the effect of increasing the mass
of Cart B upon the post-collision velocity. The post-collision velocity decreases with each
increase in Cart B mass. One must be a bit careful in jumping to this conclusion since the
pre-collision velocity of Cart A is also changing from trial to trial. The way to reason around
the effect of this velocity variable is to notice the ratio between the post- and the pre-
collision velocities. In trial 1, the post-collision velocity is one-half the pre-collision
velocity. In trial 2, the post-collision velocity is one-third the pre-collision velocity. In trial
3, the post-collision velocity is one-fourth the pre-collision velocity. And in trial 4, the post-
collision velocity is one-fifth the pre-collision velocity. So if the pre-collision velocity were
held constant, each increase in mass would result in a post-collision velocity that is a smaller
fraction of the pre-collision velocity.

3. Answer: D
Explanation: This question is referring to Table 2 collisions since the two carts are
magnetically repelling each other. This rules out choices A and B. In this question, Cart A
has twice the mass as Cart B. This is consistent with the ratio of masses in Trial 12. The
post-collision velocities for the collision described in this question could be determined by a
comparison with the data presented in Trial 12.

4. Answer: D
Explanation: This question is referring to Table 2 collisions since the two carts are
magnetically repelling each other. In this question, Cart A has three the mass as Cart B,
identical to the conditions of Trial 13. In trial 13, the post-collision velocity of Cart A was
one-half the pre-collision velocity. And the post-collision velocity of Cart B was one-half
greater than its pre-collision velocity. One-half of the pre-collision velocity of 60 cm/s is 30
cm/s. And one-half greater than the pre-collision velocity of 60 cm/s is 90 cm/s. Choice D is
the best answer.

5. Answer: D
Explanation: This question is best answered using the process of elimination method. Data
from each trial can be substituted into the equations provided for each choice until the
equation fails to fit the data. Choice A can be eliminated since it is not consistent with Trial
9 and many other trials. Choice B can be eliminated since it is not consistent with Trial 8
nor any of the other trials. Choice C can be eliminated since it is not consistent with Trial 9
and many other trials. Choice D is consistent with all the trials and serves as the answer to
this question.

6. Answer: C
Explanation: The largest values for the post-collision velocity of Cart B are observed in
Trials 12 and 13 of Table 2. These are the only trials in both experiments in which the post-
collision velocity of Cart B is greater than the pre-collision velocity of Cart A. The
conditions that led to this were that the mass of Cart A was greater than the mass of Cart B.
Since this condition leads to a post-collision velocity of Cart B that is greater than the pre-
collision velocity of Cart A, the post-collision velocity of Cart B can be made even greater if
Cart A is moving fast before the collision.
Energy on an Inclined Plane
One focus of study in physics is the concept of energy. There are two forms of mechanical
energy that are of interest to physicists – kinetic energy and potential energy. Kinetic energy is
the energy associated with an object’s motion (i.e., its velocity). Potential energy is the energy
stored in an object as a result of its vertical position (height). The total amount of mechanical
energy is the sum of these two forms of energy.
A group of physics
students are studying the Figure 1
relationship between the
potential energy (PE),
kinetic energy (KE) and
total mechancial energy
(TME) for a cart rolling
up and down an incline.
A computer-interfaced
motion detector is placed
at the top of the incline to
detect changes in the
height and the speed of
the cart. The students
start the detector, hold the
cart for about 1.0 seconds
and then give it a gentle
push up the hill. The
computer generates plots
showing the position and
height as a function of
time. See Figure 1.

Figure 2: The Four Locations of the Cart (in cm)

The students analyze the graphs to determine the Table 1: Energy Values of Cart
height above the table and the velocity at four
different locations along the incline plane. See Location KE (J) PE (J) TME (J)
location labels (A, B, C and D) on Figure 2. The A 0.505 0.603 1.108
position values are in units of centimeters (cm). B 0.000 1.107 1.107
Location B is the highest point reached by the cart C 0.366 0.743 1.109
along the track. Using height and velocity values,
the students calculate the KE, PE and TME for the D 0.845 0.263 1.108
four locations. See Table 1.
Questions:
1. Which graph must the students use to determine the kinetic energy of the cart?
a. The position versus time graph must be used.
b. The velocity versus time graph must be used.
c. Both the position and the velocity versus time graphs must be used.
d. Neither graph is used. The kinetic energy values are calculated without using the graphs.

2. At which of these listed times does the cart have the lowest kinetic energy?
a. At 1.10 seconds. b. At 2.25 seconds.
c. At 2.55 seconds. d. At 3.12 seconds.

3. The formula for calculating the kinetic energy is KE = 0.5•m•v2 where m represents the
mass in kilograms and v represents the velocity in meter/second. How does the kinetic
energy (KE) of the cart at 1.60 seconds compare to the kinetic energy (KE) of the cart at
1.92 seconds?
a. The KE at 1.60 seconds is about the same as the KE at 1.92 seconds.
b. The KE at 1.60 seconds is about one-half the value of the KE at 1.92 seconds.
c. The KE at 1.60 seconds is about two times greater than the KE at 1.92 seconds.
d. The KE at 1.60 seconds is about four times greater than the KE at 1.92 seconds.
e. The KE at 1.60 seconds is about one-fourth the value of the KE at 1.92 seconds.

4. For which of the following positions along the track does the cart have the greatest kinetic
energy?
a. 30 cm b. 50 cm
c. 90 cm d. 140 cm

5. Which one of the following statements best describes the relationship between the cart's
kinetic energy (KE), potential energy (PE) and total mechanical energy (TME).
a. As the PE increases, the KE and the TME are also observed to increase.
b. As the PE increases, the KE decreases, but the TME remains relatively constant.
c. The TME increases as the PE increases, but the KE remains relatively constant.
d. There seems to be no pattern in the manner in which the KE, PE and TME change.

6. Which combination of kinetic energy (KE), potential energy (PE) and total mechanical
energy (TME) values would be expected when the cart is located at a position of 90 cm
(0.90 m) from its starting location?
a. KE = 0.43 J, PE = 0.68 J, TME = 1.11 J
b. KE = 1.80 J, PE = 1.63 J, TME = 3.43 J
c. KE = 1.63 J, PE = 1.80 J, TME = 3.43 J
d. KE = 0.26 J, PE = 0.85 J, TME = 1.11 J
Answers and Explanations
1. Answer: B
Explanation: As mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage, kinetic energy is the
energy associated with an object's velocity. As such, the students must use the velocity
versus time graph to determine the kinetic energy.

2. Answer: B
Explanation: As mentioned in the first paragraph of the passage, kinetic energy is the
energy associated with an object's velocity. The kinetic energy will be least when the
velocity is least. And so the time at which the velocity is least is the time at which the
kinetic energy is least. So the strategy here is identify each listed time along the horizontal
axis of the velocity-time graph (bottom graph) in Figure 1. Then trace vertically up to the
point on the line at each time and horizontally across to the vertical axis in order to
determine the velocity value. This velocity value is least for the time of 2.25 seconds.

3. Answer: D
Explanation: As indicated by the equation, the kinetic energy is greatest where the velocity
value is the greatest. The velocity of the cart at the two indicated times can be read off the
velocity-time graph (bottom graph) of Figure 1. At 1.60 seconds, the velocity of the cart is
+2.0 m/s. At 1.92 seconds, the velocity is +1.0 m/s. Since the formula for kinetic energy
shows that kinetic energy depends upon the square of the velocity, an object with twice the
velocity will have four times the kinetic energy. Since the velocity at 1.60 seconds is two
times the velocity at 1.92 seconds, the kinetic energy will be four times greater at the earlier
time.

4. Answer: A
Explanation: The kinetic energy is dependent upon the velocity. Since velocity values are
squared in the formula, it doesn't matter whether the velocity is a positive or a negative
value. So the position for which the cart has the greatest absolute value of velocity is the
position at which the kinetic energy is the greatest. This position and its corresponding
velocity can be determined by using both the position-time graph (top graph) and the
velocity-time graph (bottom graph) of Figure 1. For each indicated position, convert the cm
value to a m value. For instance, the 30 cm is equivalent to 0.30 m. Then identify the
position along the vertical axis of the position-time graph in Figure 1. Trace horizontally
across from this position to the line on the graph. Once the point on the line at this position
is determined, trace vertically downwards to the horizontal axis to determine the time. Once
the time has been determined, use the time on the velocity-time graph of Figure 1 to
determine the corresponding velocity. The absolute value of the velocity is greatest at a
position of 30 cm (and 3.1 seconds). Of all listed positions, the kinetic energy is greatest at
this one.

5. Answer: B
Explanation: The changes in potential energy and kinetic energy can be determined by
analyzing the information in both graphs in Figure 1. Once the cart is given a push (ending
around 1.45 seconds), it begins to roll up the hill. The upward motion occurs from about
1.45 seconds to 2.25 seconds. During this time, the position values are increasing. This
 increase in position corresponds to a gain in height and thus in potential energy. During the
same upward motion from 1.45 seconds until 2.25 seconds, the cart's velocity is decreasing
from about 2.3 m/s to a value of 0 m/s. This decrease in velocity is consistent with a
decrease in kinetic energy. So as the potential energy increases, the kinetic energy is
decreases. This same observation is confirmed by the data in rows 1-2 of Table 1.
Furthermore, one observes from the lab column of Table 1, that as this increase in PE and
decrease in KE occurs, the amount of TME remains relatively constant. And so choice B is
the correct option to this question.

6. Answer: A
Explanation: The 90 cm position is cose to halfway in between the 80 cm position of
location A and the 100 cm position of location C. By interpolation, one would expect the
potential energy at this location to be approximately midway between the 0.603 J of position
A and the 0.743 J of position C. Similarly, the KE will be approximately midway between
the 0.505 J of location A and the 0.366 J of location C. The only option that meets this
criteria is option A.
Heating Curve
Most substances can exist in three different states – a solid, a liquid and a gas state. Changes
from one state to another commonly occur by heating or cooling a sample of the substance.
Melting refers to the change of a sample from the solid to the liquid state at its melting point
temperature. Boiling refers to the change of a sample from the liquid to the gaseous state at its
boiling point temperature.

Consider a substance that is present in a sealed container in its solid state at a temperature well
below its melting point. Over the course of about 15 minutes, the container is heated. At first, the
application of heat causes the temperature of the substance to increase until it reaches its melting
point temperature. At its melting point temperature. heat is continually added, causing the solid
to transition to a liquid at a constant temperature. Once all the solid has melted, the substance is
heated to its boiling point temperature. At its boiling point temperature, the addition of heat
causes the liquid to transition to a gas at a constant temperature. Once all the liquid has boiled,
the sample continues to be heated (cautiously), causing the temperature of the gas to increase.
This process is depicted in Figure 1.

Figure 1
300

E
E
Temperature (°C)

D
200

D
C
100

B
B
0

A
A
-100

0 100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900

Time (sec)

Questions:
1. According to Figure 1, at what temperature does the substance transition between the solid
state and the liquid state?
a. Approximately -65°C b. Approximately -7°C
c. Approximately 135°C d. Approximately 190°C

2. Which one of the following statements are true of the sample of matter described by Figure
1?
a. As heat is added to the sample, its temperature always increases.
b. The sample is melting between a temperature of about -100°C and -10°C.
c. The liquid state would be observed in the sample at both 200 seconds and 400 seconds.
d. The solid state would be observed in the sample at both 600 seconds and 800 seconds.
3. There are five labeled points on the line of the graph in Figure 1. What changes, in order,
are observed in the sample of matter between point A and point C?
a. First the sample melts; then its temperature stabilizes; then it boils.
b. First the sample increases its temperature; then it melts; then its temperature increases.
c. First the sample increases its temperature; then it melts; then its temperature stabilizes.
d. First the sample increases its temperature; then it melts; then it stabilizes its temperature.

4. There are five labeled points on the line of the graph in Figure 1. At which of the labeled
points is the sample a mixture of liquid and gas?
a. The sample is a mixture of liquid and gas at point C.
b. The sample is a mixture of liquid and gas at point D.
c. The sample is a mixture of liquid and gas at point E.
d. There could never be a mixture of both liquid and gas under these conditions.

5. Suppose that Figure 1 represents the so-called heating curve for Substance A. Figure 2
below represents the heating curve for Substance B.

Figure 2
300
Temperature (°C)
200
100
0
-100

0 100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900

Time (sec)

What conclusion can be drawn regarding the melting points and boiling points of Substance
A and Substance B?
a. Substance A has a higher melting point and a higher boiling point than Substance B.
b. Substance B has a higher melting point and a higher boiling point than Substance A.
c. Substance A has the higher melting point but Substance B has the higher boiling point.
d. Substance B has the higher melting point but Substance A has the higher boiling point.
Answers  and  Explanations  
1.   Answer:    D  
  Explanation:    The  second  paragraph  of  the  passage  states  that  the  sample  begins  in  
the  solid  state  at  a  temperature  well  below  its  melting  point.  It  also  states  that  the  
transition  from  solid  to  liquid  occurs  at  a  constant  temperature;  this  melting  transition  
represents  the  horizontal  line  on  the  graph  at  approximately  -­‐7°C.  The  second  
paragraph  also  states  that  the  transition  from  liquid  to  gas  occurs  at  a  constant  
temperature.  The  second  horizontal  line  at  approximately  190°C  must  represent  the  
liquid  to  gas  boiling  transition.    
 
2.   Answer:    C  
  Explanation:    Using  the  process  of  elimination  is  a  useful  approach  to  this  question.  
The  plateaus  or  horizontal  lines  on  the  graph  represent  the  transition  between  states  
of  the  sample.  The  first  plateau  represents  the  melting  (or  transition  from  solid  to  
liquid)  and  the  second  plateau  represents  boiling  (or  transition  from  liquid  to  gas).  
Choice  A  must  be  eliminated  because  there  is  no  temperature  change  during  these  
transitions.  Choice  B  must  be  eliminated  because  melting  occurs  once  the  temperature  
of  about  -­‐7°C  is  reached.  From  -­‐100°C  to  -­‐10°C  the  sample  is  entirely  solid  and  simply  
increasing  its  temperature  towards  the  melting  point.  And  choice  D  must  be  eliminated  
because  the  second  plateau  -­‐  corresponding  to  the  boiling  of  a  liquid  -­‐  extends  from  
about  490  seconds  to  about  790  seconds;  there  is  no  solid  state  present  during  this  
time.  And  so  choice  C  is  the  answer.  The  liquid  state  is  observed  during  the  melting  
transition  (at  200  seconds)  and  during  the  temperature  increase  between  transition  
temperatures  (such  as  at  400  seconds).  
 
3.   Answer:    B  
  Explanation:    The  plateaus  or  horizontal  lines  on  the  graph  represent  the  transition  
between  states  of  the  sample.  The  first  plateau  represents  the  melting  (or  transition  
from  solid  to  liquid)  and  the  second  plateau  represents  boiling  (or  transition  from  
liquid  to  gas).  The  diagonal  lines  represent  changes  in  temperature  that  required  of  the  
sample  in  order  to  reach  the  transition  temperature  or  after  reaching  a  transition  
temperature.  Point  A  is  on  a  diagonal  line,  Point  B  is  on  a  horizontal  line,  and  Point  C  
is  on  a  diagonal  line.  So  beginning  at  Point  A,  the  sample  must  first  increase  its  
temperature  to  approximately  -­‐7°C.  At  this  temperature,  the  solid  will  begin  to  melt.  
Once  melting  is  complete,  the  temperature  begins  to  increase.  Point  C  is  a  point  that  is  
reached  during  the  temperature  increase  but  before  the  boiling  transition.  And  so  
choice  B  is  the  best  answer.  
 
4.   Answer:    B  
  Explanation:    The  plateaus  or  horizontal  lines  on  the  graph  represent  the  transition  
between  states  of  the  sample.  The  first  plateau  represents  the  melting  (or  transition  
from  solid  to  liquid)  and  the  second  plateau  represents  boiling  (or  transition  from  
liquid  to  gas).  During  these  plateaus,  there  is  a  mixture  of  two  states  as  the  transition  of  
the  entire  sample  takes  time.  The  sample  exists  entirely  in  one  state  before  and  after  
the  transition.  Point  D  lies  on  the  second  plateau.  At  this  point,  the  sample  is  midway  
 through  the  boiling  process  and  exists  as  both  liquid  that  has  not  yet  boiled  and  gas  
that  has  already  boiled.  This  makes  choice  B  the  best  answer.  
 
5.   Answer:    D  
  Explanation:    The  plateaus  or  horizontal  lines  on  the  graph  represent  the  transition  
between  states  of  the  sample.  The  first  plateau  represents  the  melting  (or  transition  
from  solid  to  liquid)  and  the  second  plateau  represents  boiling  (or  transition  from  
liquid  to  gas).  The  temperature  associated  with  these  transitions  can  be  read  off  the  
vertical  axis.  For  Sample  A  (Figure  1),  the  melting  point  temperature  is  approximately  
-­‐7°C.  This  can  be  compared  to  Sample  B  (Figure  2)  where  the  melting  point  
temperature  is  approximately  40°C.  Sample  B  has  the  higher  melting  point  
temperature.  The  same  comparison  can  be  made  of  boiling  point  temperatures  for  the  
two  samples.  For  Sample  A  (Figure  1),  the  boiling  point  temperature  is  approximately  
190°C.  This  can  be  compared  to  Sample  B  (Figure  2)  where  the  boiling  point  
temperature  is  approximately  140°C.  Sample  A  has  the  higher  boiling  point  
temperature.  And  so  choice  D  is  the  best  answer.  
 
 
Mass on a Spring
When a mass is suspended on a spring, the mass hangs at its rest position. If the mass is pulled
below its rest position and released, it begins to vibrate up and down. It moves from position A
to B to C (the original rest position) to D to E, and then back down to A. See Figure 1. The
motion repeats itself in cyclic fashion over and over again.
Figure 1: Up and Down Motion of a Mass on a Spring

The vertical position is not the only property of the mass that changes over time. The velocity of
the mass also changes. Velocity describes how fast an object moves and in what direction it
moves. A + and - sign is used to indicate the directional aspect of velocity. A + sign indicates an
upward direction of motion and a - sign indicates a downward direction of motion. If a motion
dectector is placed below the vibrating mass, it will detect the vertical position (height above the
detector) and velocity as a function of time. The resulting graphical display is shown in Figure 2.
Figure 2: Plots of Position and Velocity as a Function of Time
Questions
1. At which one of the following times is the mass located at a highest vertical position?
a. 1.0 seconds b. 3.0 seconds
c. 3.9 seconds d. 5.9 seconds

2. At which of the following times is the mass moving with a velocity of 0.40 m/s?
a. 0.5 seconds b. 2.7 seconds
c. 8.1 seconds d. 9.0 seconds

3. At which one of the following times is the mass located at position E?

a. 1.0 seconds b. 3.0 seconds
c. 3.9 seconds d. 5.9 seconds

4. According to Figure 2, at which of the following times is the mass located below its rest
position and moving in the downward direction?
a. 2.0 seconds b. 4.0 seconds
c. 6.0 seconds d. 7.0 seconds

5. A vibrating mass is often described as having a period. The period is the time that it takes
the mass to complete one full up and down cycle of vibration. According to Figure 2, what
is the period of this mass?
a. Approximately 0.6 seconds b. Approximately 1.2 seconds
c. Approximately 1.8 seconds d. Approximately 10.0 seconds
Answers and Explanations
1. Answer: A
Explanation: The highest vertical position will be a time at which the plotted line on the
position-time graph of Figure 2 is at the highest point on the graph. Of the four listed times,
the highest point is observed only at a time of 1.0 seconds.

2. Answer: D
Explanation: On the velocity-time graph (bottom graph) of Figure 2, the vertical
coordinate is the velocity value. In this question, one must determine at which one of the
times does the plotted line have a vertical coordinate of 0.40 m/s. For each listed time, find
the time along the horizontal axis and then trace upward from that time to the plotted line.
Then, trace horizontally across to the vertical axis to read the velocity. Of the listed times,
the only time at which the velocity value is 0.40 m/s is at the time of 9.0 seconds.

3. Answer: A
Explanation: Based on Figure 1, position E is the highest position in the up and down
motion of the mass. The mass is at this highest position at any time at which the plotted line
on the position-time graph of Figure 2 is at the highest point on the graph. Of the four listed
times, the highest point is observed only at a time of 1.0 seconds.

4. Answer: C
Explanation: The rest position is position C; as discussed in question 3, it is 0.54 meters
above the ground. In this question, we want to determine at which of the listed times is the
mass below the rest position (less than 0.54 m above the ground) and moving in the
downward direction (having a negative velocity). So for each listed time, both the position-
time graph and the velocity-time graph must be used. The position-time graph can be used
to insure that the mass is less than 0.54 m above the ground; the velocity-time graph can be
used to insure that the velocity is a negative value. At 2.0 seconds and 7.0 seconds, the mass
is above the rest position. At 4.0 seconds, the mass is below the rest position; however, the
velocity value at this time is a positive value, indicating that the mass is moving upward.
The only time that the mass meets the two criteria of being below the rest position and
moving downward is at 6.0 seconds

5. Answer: B
Explanation: At 1.0 seconds, the mass is at its highest point above the ground. The next
time it is at its highest point is at about 2.2 seconds. It takes approximately 1.2 seconds for
the mass to complete one cycle. The period is approximately 1.2 seconds. Similarly, the
mass is also at its highest point at the 8.0 second mark. This corresponds to six cycles of
vibration later. It takes 7.0 seconds to complete these six cycles. Some simple division
shows that this is an average time of approximately 1.2 seconds per cycle. This 1.2 second
value is the period.
Decibels, Phons, and Sones
The rate at which sound energy reaches a Table 1: deciBel Ratings of Several Sounds
given cross-sectional area is known as the Sound Source Intensity deciBel
sound intensity. There is an abnormally Weakest Sound Heard 1 x 10-12 W/m2 0.0
large range of intensities over which Rustling Leaves -11
1 x 10 W/m 2
10.0
humans can hear. Given the large range, it Quiet Library 1 x 10-9 W/m2 30.0
is common to express the sound intensity Average Home -7
1 x 10 W/m 2
50.0
using a logarithmic scale known as the Normal Conversation -6 2
1 x 10 W/m 60.0
decibel scale. By measuring the intensity -4 2
level of a given sound with a meter, the Phone Dial Tone 1 x 10 W/m 80.0
-3 2
deciBel rating can be determined. Truck Traffic 1 x 10 W/m 90.0
-1 2
Intensity values and decibel ratings for Chainsaw, 1 m away 1 x 10 W/m 110.0
several sound sources listed in Table 1.
The decibel scale and the intensity values it is based on is an objective measure of a sound.
While intensities and deciBels (dB) are measurable, the loudness of a sound is subjective. Sound
loudness varies from person to person. Furthermore, sounds with equal intensities but different
frequencies are perceived by the same person to have unequal loudness. For instance, a 60 dB
sound with a frequency of 1000 Hz sounds louder than a 60 dB sound with a frequency of 500
Hz. The unit phon is used to indicate an individual’s perception of loudness. By definition, 1
phon is equivalent to 1 deciBel at 1000 Hz (1 kHz).
Figure 1 shows several equal loudness Figure 1: Equal Loudness Curves
curves. The curves were determined
experimentally. Volunteers were subjected
to a 1 kHz sound at 60 dB; this is a loudness
of 60 phon. Sounds with different
frequencies were then played; the volunteer
adjusted the decibel level until it was
perceived to have the same loudness as it
had at 1000 Hz. This was repeated for
varying frequencies to generate the entire
60-phon curve. To create an 80-phon curve,
subjects were exposed to 1 kHz sounds at 80
dB. For other frequencies, they adjusted the
decibel level until it was perceived to be of
equal loudness as the 1 kHz sound. Figure 1
represents an average of the results for
many individuals.
The sone scale is a third scale associated Figure 2: The Sone Scale
with the loudness of a sound. The sone 0.25 0.5 1 2 4 8 16 32 64
Sones
scale is based on the observation that a 10
phon increase in a sound level is most Phons 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
often perceived as a doubling of loudness.
According to the sone scale, a 1 sone sound is defined as a sound whose loudness is equal to 40
phons. Figure 2 is generated based on these assumptions.
Questions:
1. Which statement accurately describes the mathematical relationship between the intensity of
a sound and the decibel rating?
a. The decibel rating is the intensity value multiplied by 10.
b. The decibel rating doubles every time the intensity rating increases by 1000.
c. The decibel rating increases by 10 dB for every 10-fold increase in the intensity level.
d. The decibel rating is 10 times the absolute power of the exponent on 10 for the intensity
level.

2. How is the decibel scale different than the phon scale?

a. All sounds have different decibel rating but the same phon rating.
b. The decibel scale is an objective measure of a sound; the phon scale is more subjective.
c. There is no limit on the decibel scale; the phon scale is limited to a smaller range of
numbers.
d. The decibel scale measures the loudness of sound; the phon scale measures a person's
perceptions.

3. What would be the phon rating of a 100 Hz sound that has a decibel rating of 60 dB?
a. 30 phons b. 35 phons
c. 40 phons d. 60 phons

4. Based on the information ion Figure 2, how many times louder would a typical person
perceive a 70 phon sound to be compared to a 40 phon sound?
a. 0.5 times louder b. 3 times louder
c. 8 times louder d. 30 times louder

5. A sound has an intensity level of 1 x 10-2 W/m2 and a frequency of 200 Hz. Use Table 1,
Figure 1, and Figure 2 to determine its rating on the Sone Scale.
a. Approximately 10 sones b. Approximately 64 sones
c. Approximately 100 sones d. Approximately 110 sones
Answers and Explanations
1. Answer: C
Explanation: The intensity value of rustling leaves and a quiet library is listed in the
second column of Table 1. Scientific notation is used to express the intensity values.
Consider the intensity and the decibel rating of an average home and of normal
conversation. Normal conversation is 10 decibels greater than an average home; and the
intensity level of normal conversation is 10 times greater (one power of 10) than an average
home. The same rend is observed when comparing a phone dial tone and truck traffic. And
so this data fits the statement that “the decibel rating increases by 10 dB for every 10-fold
increase in the intensity level.” It also follows that a 100-fold increase in intensity level is
equivalent to increasing the intensity by a factor of 10 on two consecutive occasions (i.e., 10
x 10 = 100). This translates into adding 10 dB to the decibel rating on two consecutive
occasions. And so increasing the intensity level by a factor of 100 results in a new decibel
rating that is 20 dB greater.

2. Answer: B
Explanation: The second paragraph of the passage is devoted to describing the difference
between the decibel scale and the phon scale. The decibel scale is mathematically related to
a measurable quantity that we refer to as decibels. The phon scale is subjective and
associated with a person’s perception of how loud a sound is.

3. Answer: B
Explanation: The lines on the graph in Figure 1 are referred to as equal loudness curves;
each line is representative of a specific phon rating. The coordinate axes are the decibel
rating and the frequency. To determine the phon rating of a sound with a given frequency
and decibel rating, one must first locate the point on the graph with the given frequency-
decibel coordinates. Then determine what line the coordinate point is on. The point with
coordinates 60 dB and 100 Hz is in between the 30 phon line and the 40 phon line. And so
the phon rating is in between 30 and 40 phons, making choice B the best answer.

4. Answer: C
Explanation: The sone scale is based on the observation that “a 10 phon increase in the
sound level is most often perceived as a doubling of loudness.” A 40 phon sound is assigned
a sone rating of 1. A 50 phon sound is 10 phons greater; so its sone rating is two times
greater than 1 – thus a sone rating of 2. And a 60 phon sound is 10 phons greater than 50
phons; and so its sone rating must be double the sone rating of 50 phons. This makes a 60
phon sound have a sone rating of 4. The same reasoning would lead to the conclusion that a
70 phone sound would be twice as loud as a 60 phon sound and have a sone rating of 8.
Putting these facts together, one concludes that a 70 phon sound (with a sone rating of 8) is
eight times louder than a 40 phon sound (with a sone rating of 1).

5. Answer: B
Explanation: Figure 2 can be used to determine the sone rating from the phon rating. But
first the phon rating must be determined from the stated values of intensity and frequency.
Table 1 can be used to determine the decibel rating for the given intensity. Interpolating
between the last two rows of the table allows one to conclude that a sound with an intensity
of 1.0 x 10-2 W/m2 has a decibel rating of 100.0 dB. Using Figure 1, this decibel rating can
be combined with the frequency of 200 Hz to determine the phon rating. The coordinate
point with values of 200 Hz and 100 dB lies above the 90 phon line. A reasonable estimate
is that it is an approximately 100 phon sound. Now using Figure 2, a 100 phon sound has a
sone rating of 64. This makes choice A the best choice.
The Sound of Music
The sound of many musical instruments is the result of vibrations resonating within a column of
air. Air column resonance is a topic of study in the field of physics. There are two basic types of
air columns – referred to as closed-end air columns and open-end air columns. The difference
depends on whether one or both ends of the column are open to the surrounding atmosphere.
Any column of air has a set of
Table 1: Closed-End Air Columns
frequencies at which the air particles
will naturally vibrate. These Harmonic Frequency Wavelength Speed
frequencies are called harmonics; their 1st 142 Hz 2.40 m 340 m/s
rd
value is dependent upon the length of 3 425 Hz 0.80 m 340 m/s
th
the air column. The lowest frequency in 5 708 Hz 0.48 m 340 m/s
the set is known as the first harmonic. 7th 992 Hz 0.34 m 340 m/s
Other frequencies in the set are whole
number multiples of the lowest Table 2: Open-End Air Columns
frequency. The mathematical Harmonic Frequency Wavelength Speed
relationship between the wavelength, 1st 283 Hz 1.20 m 340 m/s
frequency, and speed for the various 2 nd
567 Hz 0.60 m 340 m/s
harmonics is very predictable. Table 1 3rd 850 Hz 0.40 m 340 m/s
illustrates these relationships for a 60- 4 th
1133 Hz 0.30 m 340 m/s
cm long closed-end air column. Table 5th 1417 Hz 0.24 m 340 m/s
2 illustrates these same relationships
for a 60-cm long open-end air column.
When a specific note is played on a musical instrument, the air particles immediately begin to
vibrate with a set of many frequencies. These frequencies combine to produce the sound that we
hear. Some of the frequencies within the set quickly dissipate and do not affect the overall sound.
Other frequencies are sustained over time and become the prominent frequencies that affect the
sound. These enduring frequencies are the harmonic frequencies. Two different instruments can
play the same note, yet the resulting sounds can be quite different. A computer analysis of these
sounds reveals that the difference has to do with the relative strength of the various harmonics
that the instrument produces. The analysis results in a frequency spectrum. The spectrum shows
the specific frequencies within the sound and their relative intensity or amplitude. Frequency
spectra for a clarinet and a flute playing the note C4 are shown in Figure 1.
Figure 1
Questions
1. Use the pattern in Table 2 to predict the frequency of the 10th harmonic of a 60-cm long
open-end air column.
a. Approximately 340 Hz b. Approximately 1000 Hz
c. Approximately 1410 Hz d. Approximately 2830 Hz

2. Which changes are observed of the frequency, wavelength and speed as the harmonic
number of any given air column is increased?
a. The frequency, wavelength, and speed increase.
b. The frequency and wavelength increase but the speed remains constant.
c. The frequency and speed increase but the wavelength remains constant.
d. The frequency increases, the wavelength decreases, and the speed is not changed.

3. Which statement accurately compares the frequencies of first harmonic for both types of air
columns? Assume each air column has the same length.
a. Their frequencies are identical.
b. The frequency of the open-end air column is two times higher.
c. The frequency of the closed-end air column is two times higher.
d. The frequencies vary and a pattern can not be predicted.

4. The spikes shown in the frequency spectrum in Figure 1 represent the harmonic frequencies
of the instrument. What are the frequencies of the three strongest harmonics for the clarinet?
a. Approximately 250 Hz, 750 Hz, and 1250 Hz.
b. Approximately 260 Hz, 520 Hz, and 790 Hz.
c. Approximately 260 Hz, 780 Hz, and 1320 Hz.
d. Approximately 1100 Hz, 300 Hz, and 100 Hz.

5. Inspect the ratio of frequencies for the spikes of the clarinet's frequency spectrum in Figure
1. Compare it to the ratio of frequencies of the various harmonics shown in Table 1 and
Table 2. What is the evidence that exists that the clarinet consists of either a closed-end or
an open-end air column?
a. The clarinet consists of an open-end air column because all the harmonics are multiples of
the first harmonic.
b. The clarinet consists of an open-end air column because the height of the spikes in Figure
1 is consistent with the pattern of the wavelengths in Table 2.
c. The clarinet consists of a closed-end air column because the height of the spikes in
Figure 1 is consistent with the pattern of the wavelengths in Table 1.
d. The clarinet consists of a closed-end air column because the frequencies of the second
and third spikes are three times and five times the frequency of the first spike.
Answers and Explanations
1. Answer: D
Explanation: The answer to this question requires that one extrapolate. Extrapolation
involves estimating the value of a variable that lies outside of a stated or known range.
Table 2 lists frequency values for the first five harmonics of an open-end air column. The
tenth harmonic lies outside this range and so its value must be estimated by observing the
pattern in the stated range. The pattern that exists is that the frequency of each harmonic is
some multiple of the first harmonic. For instance, the second harmonic frequency is two
times the first harmonic frequency. And the third harmonic frequency is three times the first
harmonic frequency. And finally, the fourth harmonic frequency is four times the first
harmonic frequency. Extending this pattern to the tenth harmonic frequency leads to the
conclusion that is must be 10 times greater than the first harmonic frequency of 283 Hz.
And so choice D (2830 Hz) is the correct answer.

2. Answer: D
Explanation: In both Table 1 and Table 2, the same pattern is observed. As the harmonic
number increases (going down the first column), the frequency increases (going down the
second column), the wavelength decreases (going down the third column) and the speed
(fourth column) is remains the same value. This makes choice D the only answer.

3. Answer: B
Explanation: Both Table 1 and Table 2 must be used to answer this question. The first
harmonic of the closed-end air column (first row of Table 1) must be compared to the first
harmonic of the open-end air column (first row of Table 2). One observes that the open-end
air column has a frequency (283 Hz) that is approximately two times the frequency of the
closed-end air column (142 Hz). Choice B is the best answer.

4. Answer: C
Explanation: Figure 1 shows the frequency spectrum with the prominent frequencies
shown as spikes on the graph. The clarinet is shown in the graph on the left. The most
prominent peaks are the ones that are highest (or strongest). Reading off the horizontal axis,
one observes that these three peaks occur at approximately 250 Hz (or a little greater),
approximately 800 Hz (or a little less) and at approximately 1300 Hz (or a little more).
These readings are consistent with choice C.

5. Answer: D
Explanation: The data in Table 1 show that the lowest three harmonics have frequency
ratios of 1:3:5. This feature distinguishes closed-end air columns from the open-end air
columns shown in Table 2 where the frequency ratios are 1:2:3. The frequency spectrum of
the clarinet shows in Figure 1 shows ratios that are consistent with the closed-end air
columns. The three peaks of the spectrum have frequencies of approximately 260 Hz, 780
Hz, and 1300 Hz. These peaks have a 1:3:5 ratio of frequencies. This makes choice D the
best answer.
Cellphones: Safe or Carcinogenic?
With an estimated five billion worldwide users, the public debate over cellphone and the possible
link to cancer is one of critical importance. The concern is that cellphones may cause the growth
of any one of three types of tumors: cancer of the parotid (a gland near the ear), glioma (a rapidly
spreading brain tumor), and acoustic neuroma (a tumor that typically develops on the nerve
connecting ear and brain).

Scientist 1
There is growing evidence to support the conclusion that there may be a cellphone-cancer
connection. The Interphone Study is the largest and longest study of cellphones and cancer.
Including nearly 20,000 participants from 13 countries, the study found that those who used
cellphones most frequently had a 40% higher incidence of glioma. Another peer-reviewed study
conducted in Israel found that there was 58% greater occurrence of parotid tumors among heavy
cellphone users. A Swedish survey of 16 scientific studies concluded that the incidence of
acoustic neuroma and glioma was two times greater among those who used cellphones for 10
years. After reviewing a large collection of published studies, a group of 31 scientists from 14
countries commissioned by the World Health Organization classified cellphones as a possible
carcinogen. This classification indicates that there is sufficient evidence of the connection to
warrant further investigation and watchfulness. Reporting in an esteemed peer-reviewed journal,
the National Institute of Health showed that a single hour of cellphone use significantly increases
glucose metabolism rates at locations closest to the antenna. Even areas far from the antenna
showed biological effects, a sign that the radiation may be capable of so-called non-thermal
effects upon the brain. Cellphone radiation may be stimulating free radicals to destructive action
or even initiate some form of inflammatory response within the brain. These could trigger a
chain of actions that lead to tumor development.

Scientist 2
There is no credible evidence establishing a connection between cellphone use and cancer.
Studies like the Interphone Study and others are observational studies that show only an
association between cellphone usage and the occurrence of cancer. Such studies are biased in
terms of how survey questions are asked of cellphone users who have acquired cancer. These
methodological flaws do not lend credibility to their results. Statistical studies like these are not
cause-effect studies. They do not isolate other variables and so they cannot determine that the
cancer was actually caused by cellphone use. Furthermore, the tumors that are associated with
cellphone use are so rare that even a doubling of probability of cancer would be equivalent to a
small increase in the total numbers. Cellphones give off a form of radiation known as non-
ionizing radiation. The frequencies associated with this form of electromagnetic radiation are
too low and the signal is too weak to be able to break biochemical bonds within body tissues and
to be able to damage DNA molecules. Such effects are known as thermal effects. Study after
study has shown that cellphone radiation does not have a thermal effect upon the brain; that is, it
doesn't fry our brain. No scientist has yet proposed an acceptable biological mechanism to
explain how cellphones can cause cancer via non-thermal effects. Simply speculating that there is
increased glucose metabolism rate associated with cellphone use does not establish that
cellphones cause cancer. Because there is no cause-effect model proposing how cellphones cause
cancer, and because the studies associating cellphone use with cancer have obvious flaws, there
is no reason for the general public to fear that cellphone use causes cancer.
Questions:
1. The Interphone Study found a 40% higher incidence of glioma in heavy users of cellphones.
The data from the study also found that the incidence of cancer among all cellphone users -
from heavy to light use - was slightly less than the incidence of cancer among non-users of
cellphones. How would Scientist 1 most likely interpret the results of this study?
a. Heavy use of cellphones can cause cancer; light use of cellphones actually protects the
user from cancer.
b. Statistical findings are highly unreliable and cannot be trusted as a source of evidence in
the cellphone-cancer debate.
c. Averaging a large amount of data for many subjects in a study sometime produces less
reliable findings than looking at the data for a smaller group of subjects.
d. It is important to sort the cellphone data into high use, moderate use and low use; the
frequency of exposure plays a critical role in the probability of getting cancer.

2. Which one of the following statements would both Scientist 1 and Scientist 2 agree with?
a. Radiation must be of the ionizing form in order to cause cancer.
b. Cellphone radiation is dangerous because of its ability to break biochemical bonds in
body tissue.
c. Surveys of cellphone users who develop cancer are an important source of evidence of the
connection between cellphones and cancer.
d. To establish a cellphone-cancer connection, there must be some form of biochemical
mechanism that explains the connection.

3. Cellphones are one of 900 environmental factors that the World Health Organization
(WHO) has studied over the last couple of decades. The WHO categorizes these factors in
one of five ways - definitely carcinogenic (107 cases), probably carcinogenic (59 cases),
possibly carcinogenic (266 cases), definitely not carcinogenic (1 case), and non-classifiable
(508 cases). An environmental factor receives the non-classifiable categorization if they are
unable to reach an evidence-based conclusion. Which one of the following statements would
best represents Scientist 1's response to the categorizing of cellphone radiation as possibly
carcinogenic?
a. Cellphones are definitely cancer causing and should be banned until further research
proves their safety.
b. The fact that the WHO has only placed one factor of 900 in the definitely not
carcinogenic category indicates a strong bias.
c. The fact that WHO categorized cellphones as only possibly carcinogenic indicates that
their study cannot be used to support the possibility of a cellphone-cancer connection.
d. The fact that WHO categorized cellphones as possibly carcinogenic indicates that they
saw possible evidence for a cancer connection. In the absence of such evidence, they
would categorize them as non-classifiable or not carcinogenic.
4. Which slogan below is inappropriately matched to the scientist's feelings regarding
cellphone use and cancer?
a. Scientist 1: Better safe than sorry.
b. Scientist 1: Cellphones are guilty until proven innocent.
c. Scientist 2: Cellphones are innocent until proven guilty.
d. Scientist 2: You can prove just about anything using statistics.

5. Which one of the following assumptions is NOT made by Scientist 2?

a. The skull of the brain provides a protective barrier against cellphone radiation.
b. The radiation emitted by cellphones is not capable of thermal effects upon the brain.
c. Statistical studies are inferior to cause-effect studies and are subject to bias and
methodological flaws.
d. To be considered cancer causing, it is important to identify the biological mechanism by
which a factor causes tumor development.

6. Suppose that a biological mechanism attributing tumor development to non-thermal effects

caused by cellphone radiation was proposed and then validated by a research study. Which
statement describes the most likely effect that this development have on the thinking of the
two scientists?
a. Scientist 1 would no longer believe in the validity of statistical studies.
b. Scientist 1 would advocate research into thermal effects of cellphone radiation.
c. Scientist 2 would call for more statistical surveys of cellphone users who developed
tumors.
d. Scientist 2 would accept the conclusion that there is evidence for a possible cellphone-
cancer connection.

7. The findings of the National Institute of Health that reported increased brain activity after an
hour of cellphone usage was based on having the phone in receive-only mode. It is an
established fact that the radiation signal is stronger when the phone is transmitting a signal.
Which statement best describes the response of Scientist 1 and Scientist 2 to this fact?
a. Scientist 1: Cellphones should be immediately banned.
b. Scientist 2: The study is biased because it failed to examine all the functions of
cellphones.
c. Scientist 1: If an effect is observed for the weaker signal, even greater caution should be
adopted for the stronger transmission signal.
d. Scientist 2: Statistical studies of cellphone users who acquired tumors should be
performed to see how they most often used their cellphone.
Answers and Explanations
1. Answer: D
Explanation: The process of elimination is a good strategy for this question and most
questions in this passage. Scientist 1 uses the Interphone Study as part of the argument for
the possible cellphone-cancer connection. Choice B can be eliminated since it suggests that
Scientist 1 would consider the study unreliable. The Interphone study is a type of statistical
study in which an effort is made to determine if those subjects in the research group that had
developed a tumor happened to use cellphones more than those who had not. As is common
in any study involving data, averaging is considered an appropriate statistical method that
improves data reliability. And so choice C can be eliminated. This leaves choices A and D.
Choice A suggests that there may be some protective benefit in the light use cellphones.
Neither side would likely agree with such a conclusion. The slight difference in the overall
results is more likely explained by the presence of other random variables that impact tumor
development. Scientist 2 would more likely conclude that the cancer-causing effects of
cellphones are only observed when cellphones are used with high frequency. Choice D is
the best answer.

2. Answer: D
Explanation: Like most questions in this passage, the process of elimination is a useful
approach to arriving at an answer. Scientist 1 would definitely disagree with choice A. Part
of the argument of Scientist 1 is that the discovery that cellphone radiation produced
increased glucose metabolism is evidence that cellphones may be triggering a chain of
actions that lead to cancer; these are non-thermal effects. Scientist 2 would disagree with
choice B because it suggests that cellphone radiation is dangerous. Scientist 2 disagrees
with this idea. Scientist 2 would disagree with choice C; it is a fundamental feature of
Scientist 2's argument that statistical survey data is flawed and lacks credibility. Both
scientists would agree with choice D. Like all scientists, they each believe that to accept the
cellphone-cancer connection, it is essential that a mechanism that explains how cellphone
radiation leads to tumor development be proposed and accepted. Choice D is the best
answer.

3. Answer: D
Explanation: The process of elimination is a useful method of approaching this question.
Scientist 1 uses the WHO results as part of their argument in favor of the cellphone-cancer
connection. Since choice C indicates a down-playing of the WHO’s categorization, it can be
eliminated from the set of reasonable answers. Choice A should also be eliminated since
Scientist 1 does not ever advocate such a ban. In fact, Scientist 1 would like to identify a
mechanism before being more confident of the conclusion of the cellphone-cancer
connection. The new information presented in this question is that there are two strong
categories that WHO could have placed cellphones into if they felt more strongly about their
potential dangers. The possibly of possibly carcinogenic may indicate some uncertainty to
some people. For Scientist 1, it is important to emphasize that the categorizing of
cellphones as possibly carcinogenic is a middle category with just as many less condemning
options as more condemning options. Choice B would downplay this fact by claiming that
WHO seldom uses the least condemning option – not carcinogenic. Choice D is the best
answer. Scientist 1 would likely defend their argument by claiming that the categorizing of
 cellphones as possibly carcinogenic would not have been made unless there was some
evidence that they are possibly linked to cancer. In fact, this is the very argument of
Scientist 1.

4. Answer: B
Explanation: In this question, one must find out which slogan does not accurate
characterize the arguments of the two scientists. Scientist 1 believes there is enough
evidence in the connection between cellphones and cancer to warrant playing it safe rather
than being sorry at a later date. This eliminates choice B. Scientist 2 does not believe that
cellphones are guilty; he/she believes there is no evidence for such a conclusion and would
like to argue that they must be proven guilty by evidence. Until done so, Scientist 2 believes
they are innocent. Choice C can be eliminated. Scientist 2 also believes that statistical
studies are subject to bias and flaws and should not be the basis for any arguments against
cellphones. Choice D can be eliminated. The best answer to this question is choice B.
Scientist 1 believes that it is necessary to prove that cellphones are guilty. Choice B
suggests that cellphones must prove that they are innocent and that they are guilty until this
is done.

5. Answer: A
Explanation: Scientists 2's confidence that cellphones do not cause cancer is centered
around the fact that it is a non-ionizing form of radiation that does not produce thermal
effects on the brain; this eliminates choice B. Scientist 2 is also quick to reject statistical
studies that correlate cellphone use with cancer and prefers scientific studies that focus on
isolated causes that are associated with corresponding effects; this eliminates choice C.
Scientist 2 also believes that any effort to establish the cellphone-cancer connection must
involve the proposal of an accepted biological mechanism that explains how the radiation
causes cancer; this eliminates choice D. Choice A is the best answer because nowhere in
Scientists 2's argument does he/she argue that the skull provides the brain with protection
from otherwise dangerous cellphone radiation.

6. Answer: D
Explanation: The thrust of Scientist 2's argument is that the statistical studies correlating
cellphone use and cancer are biased and flawed; this eliminates choice C. Scientist 2 argues
that no scientific cause-effect study has ever established the connection. In fact, the passage
states that no scientific study has yet shown that the radiation from cellphones causes either
thermal or non-thermal effects that lead to cancer. Scientist 1 claims that the National
Institute of Health study involving glucose metabolism provides some evidence that
cellphones may cause harm via non-thermal effects. Scientist 2 refutes this claim because it
is only speculation and not yet proven and accepted. If there were an established and
accepted mechanism that is supported by evidence that associates cellphone radiation with
cancer, Scientist 2 would be willing to alter his/her position. This makes choice D the best
answer. Choice A can be eliminated since Scientist 1 would welcome the results described
in this question and would not need to call for further statistical studies. Choice B can be
eliminated as well since Scientist 1 does not suggest cellphone radiation causes cancer via
thermal effects.
7. Answer: C
Explanation: The National Institute of Health study focused on the least intense of the two
modes of cellphone use. One could safely infer from this that using more intense radiation
would produce the same or even greater alterations in the glucose metabolism. This does not
indicate a flaw or a bias in the study; thus, choice B can be eliminated. Scientist 2 does not
believe in the value of statistical studies and so choice D can also be quickly eliminated.
This leaves choices A and C. In the passage, Scientist 1's language regarding this study is
expressed with some degree of uncertainty; the phrase was that "cellphone radiation may be
capable of so-called non-thermal effects …". It is unlikely that Scientist 1 would call for a
ban on cellphones with this degree of uncertainty; choice A can be eliminated. Scientist 1
would strengthen his/her argument for the cellphone-cancer connection by suggesting that a
stronger signal than that used in the study would likely cause more noticeable affects and
would be a reason for even greater caution. Choice C is the best answer.