Ankita Gupta 55-

psychiatry all answers for 2 semester

1) Acute alcoholic hallucinations are characterized:

True auditory hallucinations

2) What type of hallucinations is considered classic in chronic alcoholic hallucinations?

Polyvalent contrasting true hearing hallucinations

3) Which of the following symptoms is included in the structure of Korsakov’s disease?

Amnestic disorientation

4) The content of alcohol in the blood at a mild degree of intoxication:

05-15 ‰

5) The content of alcohol in the blood with an moderate degree of intoxication:

15-25 ‰

6) The content of alcohol in the blood when severe intoxication:

2,5-3,0 ‰

7) What are the characteristics of the encephalopathic stage of alcoholism?:

Reduced Tolerance
 8) Which of these signs indicates the first stage of alcoholism?

Loss of situational and quantitative control

9) What features are characteristic for physical addiction in alcoholism?

Formation of abstinent (withdrawal) syndrome

10) Narcomania differs from toxicomania because of…

Taking medications, included into the “list of drugs”

11) The symptoms, typical for schizophrenia, can be observed in case of abusing some substances,
except for…

Methaqualone

12) Physical dependence…

Is characterized by abstinence syndrome

13) Physical dependence…

Is characterized by abstinence syndrome

14) Narcomania differs from toxicomania because of…

Taking medications, included into the “list of drugs”

 15) Physical dependence…

Is characterized by abstinence syndrome

16) Identify the personality disorder that is manifested by emotional lability and impulsiveness,
instability of interpersonal relationships:

Emotionally-labile personality disorder

17) The classification according to which the following types of psychopathic persons are
distinguished: cycloids, asthenics, schizoids, hysterical, unstable, antisocial, constitutionally
stupid suggested:

Kretchmer

18) This personality disorder has a hereditary relationship with delusional psychosis and in terms of
psychogenesis associated with impaired early development; reflects a basic distrust of yourself.
Specify personality disorder:

Paranoid

19) The diagnostic criteria for psychopathy were proposed:

B Ganushkin

20) The diagnostic criteria for psychopathy (P.Ganushkina-O.Kerbikova) include all of the following
except:

Formal disorders of thinking

 21) The term “accentuation of character” was proposed:

AE Face

22) Asthenic psychopathy according to MKH-10 meets the diagnostic criteria:

Dependent personality disorder

23) Alienation from social connections and limited emotionality in interpersonal communication
characterize:

Schizoid personality disorder

24) According to MKH-10, the following are attributed to the disorders of habits and trains, except:

Cocaine

25) The psychasthenic type of psychopathy according to MKH-10 meets the diagnostic criteria:

Anacostatic personality disorder

26) What is not characteristic of neurasthenia?

Annoying weakness

27) What is not characteristic of hypochondrial neurosis?

Hypochondriacal delineation
 28) What is the most likely prognosis for psychogenic psychiatric disorders?

Full recovery

29) The following statement is true about neurotic disorders:

In MKH-10, the terms “neurosis” and “hysteria” are abolished

30) Which disease is characterized by a progressive course?

None of them

31) Anesthesia as a symptom of mental disorder is most likely to occur when:

Conversion Disorder

32) Jaspers criteria for psychogenic diseases include the following:

The disease develops as a result of mental trauma

33) Jaspers criteria for psychogenic diseases include the following:

The plot of psychopathological symptoms reflects the content of psychotrauma

34) According to MKH-10, psychogenic (stress-related) disorders include:

Adaptation disorder

35) Astasia-Abasia:
Is a symptom of neurasthenia

36) The clinical features of PTSD include:

The numbness of feelings

37) The clinical features of PTSD include:

The numbness of feelings

38) The forms of acute reactive psychosis are:

Jet Stopper

39) Post-reactive psychic changes manifest in the form of:

Decreasingenergy potential

40) Acute response to stress:

A few days

41) The clinical features of PTSD include:

Emotional estrangement

42) The forms of acute reactive psychosis are:

Reactive confusion
 43) The clinical features of PTSD include:

The numbness of feelings

44) The forms of prolonged reactive psychosis include:

Reactive depression

45) Post-reactive psychic changes manifest in the form of:

Postactive state with emotional lability

46) Which of the following group psychotherapist roles is the least constructive?

Authoritarian commander

47) A technique whereby a person is gradually immersed in a situation (imaginary or real) that
causes fear, with the formation of a new adequate response to the situation and the dying of
the old, painful one, is called:

By systematic desensitization

48) Confrontation, classification, interpretation are the basic procedures:

Rational psychotherapy

49) Stress-related psychotic psychopathological symptoms and syndromes need to be used first:

Medical correction
 50) Hypnotic psychotherapy is most useful when:

Conversion Disorders

51) Psychotherapy in the broad sense should mean:

Psychological treatment (in a word, the influence of the environment, etc)

52) The anchoring technique is used in:

Neurolinguistic programming

53) Confrontation, classification, interpretation are the basic procedures:

Psychoanalysis

54) The procedure of “analysis” in psychoanalysis, which is in the clear focus of significant details,
has the name:

Classification

55) Most often for the treatment of patients with schizophrenia use:

Antipsychotic drugs

56) The symptoms of first-degree schizophrenia by K. Schneider include:

Feeling alienated thoughts and actions

 57) According to MKH-10, the following clinical forms of schizophrenia are distinguished, except

Neurotic

58) According to G. Kaplan and B. Sedok significant social disadaptation, frequent hospitalizations to
the hospital due to severe mental disorders are characteristic of:

One third of patients with schizophrenia

59) What type of schizophrenia did E. Krepelin call dementiapraecox?

Continuous malignancy

60) Schizophrenic thinking features are:

Symbolic

61) Atypical neuroleptics applies

Clozapine

62) Concordance of single twins regarding schizophrenia reaches:

90%

63) Which of the following are negative symptoms of schizophrenia?

Autism
 64) Atypical neuroleptics include:

Olanzapine

65) In acute and transient psychotic disorders, the transition from a state without psychotic
symptoms to a clear psychotic state occurs within:

Two days to two weeks

66) The diagnostic group for schizotypal disorders for MKH-10 includes:

Psychopathic schizophrenia

67) The following are true of the induced beating disorder, except:

Occurs only in children and people with intellectual disabilities

68) Which criteria according to MKH-10 disorder are the diagnoses of sluggish neurosomal and
psychopathic schizophrenia?

Schizotypal disorder

69) Diagnostic category “involutive paranoid” is included in MKH-10 heading:

Chronic delusional disorders

70) The following are true of the induced beating disorder, except:
Applies only to children and people with intellectual disabilities

71) According to MKH-10, the sluggish neurosomal, psychopathic schizophrenia meets the criteria:

Schizotypal disorder

72) For a condition that meets the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia and lasts less than one
month, the following statement is true:

In the future it is possible to change the diagnosis

73) Which of the following does not meet the diagnostic criteria for induced delusional disorder?

Occurs only in children and people with intellectual disabilities

74) According to MKH-10, the following types of schizoaffective disorder are distinguished, except:

Mixed

75) In acute and transient psychotic disorders, the transition from a state without psychotic
symptoms to a clear psychotic state occurs within:

Two days to two weeks

76) The following statement is true about bipolar affective disorder:

There must be at least one manic, hypomanic or mixed episode in the history of a depressed patient

77) The classic depression triad includes:

Mood reduction, ideatorial and motor inhibition

78) With respect to recurrent affective disorder, the following is true:

The age of onset is usually the fifth decade of life

79) With respect to the manic and depressive phases of bipolar affective psychosis disorder, the
following is true:

Depressive phases are more often than manic

80) The monopolar type of TIR on the MKH-10 meets the criteria

Recurrent Depressive Disorder

81) The Protopopov Triad characterizes:

Somato-vegetative component of a depressive episode

82) Which of the following is the most characteristic sign of a depressive episode?

The mood is more reduced in the morning

83) Mixed manic episode variations include:

Furious mania

84) The monopolar TIR course in the MKH-10 meets the criteria:
Recurrent Depressive Disorder

85) The most typical symptoms of a depressive episode include:

Anhedonia

86) Which of the following is a medication for tricyclic antidepressants?

Amitriptyline

87) Which of the following antidepressants is undesirable to administer to a patient at high risk of
suicide?

Fluoxetine

88) The most commonly used treatments for manic conditions are:

Lithium salts

89) The following criteria are important for diagnosing latent depression, except:

Somatic complaints

90) The following statements are true about niolamide antidepressants, except:

It is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

91) The methods of overcoming antidepressant resistance include:

Immediate withdrawal of the drug

92) Hidden depression options include all of the following except:

Hypomaniacal

93) Options for hidden depression include all of the following except:

Hypomaniacal

94) When treated with lithium salts, its plasma concentration should not exceed:

03-06 mmol / L

95) The following statement is true about cyclothymia:

May have a bipolar or monopolar course

96) With respect to early childhood autism, the following is true:

Motor stereotypes are characteristic

97) For moderate dementia, the mental development factor is:

35-49

98) The following is true about Down’s disease:

In most patients, intelligence is reduced to imbecility

 99) The criteria for hyperkinetic disorder include the following:

Frequent change of one activity to another

100) For severe dementia, the mental development factor is

20-34

101) An intelligence score in the 50-69 range is one of the diagnostic criteria:

Mild mental retardation

102) An intelligence score in the 50-69 range is one of the diagnostic criteria:

Moderate mental retardation

103) Diagnostic criteria for a challenging opposition disorder include:

Typical for children under 9-10 years

104) The following statement is true about Cretinism:

It is a mental underdevelopment caused by hypothyroidism

105) The following statement is true about Klinefelter syndrome:

Occurs only in boys

 106) Which of these drug groups can cause addiction?

Tranquilizers

107) An involuntary paranoid according to MKH-10 is included in the heading:

Chronic delusional disorder

108) Appearance of apho-agnosis-apractic syndrome provides a basis for diagnosis:

Alzheimer’s Disease

109) The dysarthric and logolonic logos are more typical of:

Alzheimer’s Disease

110) The classic syndrome for involuntary melancholy is:

An agitated depression

111) Standing symptoms (a symptom of a “spoiled turntable”) occur when:

Pick’s disease

112) What is the most characteristic topic of senile foreshadowing?

Theft (robbery), impoverishment

 113) Palilalia, echochemistry, autism, endemic ammonia:

Peak Disease

114) What kind of plotting is most characteristic of involutionary paranoid?

Persecution

115) The most common psychiatric disorder due to the ingestion of some drugs
(scopolamine, eye drops containing atropine, ibuprofen, etc.) in the elderly are:

Depression

116) As for Huntington’s chorea, the following is true:

Tendency to depression, suicide