FTS-4A Paper-1 Q.P.

Test Date: 28/04/2023 Phase-III
A
CODE
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456
Time : 3 hrs Final Test Series MM : 186

for JEE (Advanced) - 2023
Test – 4A (Paper - 1)_Actual Pattern 2019
Topics covered :
Physics : Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Chemistry : Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Mathematics : Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Instructions:
1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use blue/black ballpoint pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet.
6. Student cannot use log table and calculator or any other material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that the test paper contains all pages
and no page is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that Roll No.,
Centre Code and Date of Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the answer sheet to be returned to the
invigilator.
10. Pattern of the questions are as under:
(i) The question paper consists of 3 parts (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics). Each part
has 3 sections.
(ii) Section-1 : This section contains 4 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(iii) Section-2 : This section contains 8 multiple choice questions which have one or more correct
answer(s). Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Partial +1 mark is given for darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided
NO incorrect option is darkened.
(iv) Section-3 : This section contains 6 questions. The answers to each of the question is a double-
digit integer, ranging from 00 to 99 (both inclusive) without being given any option. Each
question carries
+3 marks for correct answer and there is no negative mark for wrong answer.
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 [1]
Test-4A_Paper-1 (Code-A) Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023_Phase-III
PART – I : PHYSICS
SECTION - 1
Only One Option Correct Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
1. Consider a radioactive sample whose decay constant is . Initial (t = 0) number of nuclei is N0. Find the
total life of all the nuclei that decay in the interval of second and third half-lives (i.e. t = t1/2 to t = 3t1/2)
[3 + In 2] [4 + In 3]
(A) N0 (B) N0
8 8
[3 − In 2] [3 + In 2]
(C) N0 (D) N0
4 4
2. A cube hole is made in a solid hemisphere (radius R) such that maximum material is removed from the
hemisphere. The centre of mass of the remaining body is at distance h from the centre of the circular base
of the original hemisphere. Then h is
6 18 − 11 6 18 − 11

(A) R (B) R
48  6 + 1  48  6 − 1 
6  9 − 4  6  9 − 8 
(C) R (D) R
24   6 + 1 24  6 − 2 
3. Consider four insects on a horizontal table, at rest, forming a hypothetical square of side L. Each insect
starts approaching the adjacent insect (following a cyclic order) with constant speed u each:
The hypothetical square is rotating with angular velocity (t), where t is time. Take t = 0 to be the initial
situation. Choose the correct graph for  vs t, until the insects meet.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Final Test Series for JEE (Advanced)-2023_Phase-III Test-4A_Paper-1 (Code-A)
4. A uniform rope, of mass per unit length  and length l (= R/2) is lying symmetrically on a fixed smooth
track of radius of curvature R as shown. Gravitational potential energy of the rope, with respect to ground,
is
 1 
(A) 2  + + 1 . R 2 g
4 2 
 1 
(B)  + + 1 . R 2 g
4 2 
 1 
(C) 2  + − 1 . R 2 g
 4 2 
 1 
(D)  + − 1 . R 2 g
4 2 
SECTION - 2
One or More Options Correct Type

ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
5. Consider a long, straight conductor carrying a constant current I0. Coplanar with it, an isosceles triangular
conducting loop is kept as shown:
Then, consider the following statements and choose the correct option(s):
0 b  a+h 
(A) Mutual inductance of the system is
2h (a + h ) In  a  − h 
   
0 h  a+h 
(B) Mutual inductance of the system is
4a (a + h ) In  a  − h 
   
(C) If current is switched off, triangular loop moves leftwards
(D) If current is switched off, triangular loop moves rightwards

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 3]
6. Consider the circuit shown below:
Resistance of the ammeter is 100  while that of voltmeter is 2000 . consider the following statements
and choose the correct option(s):
(A) Battery of emf 10 V is getting charged
(B) Reading of ammeter is 30 mA
(C) Reading of voltmeter is 5 V
(D) Power supplied by battery of emf 30 V is 0.6 watts
7. A small ball (mass m) is connected to a block (mass 2m) with the help of ideal strings and pulleys as
shown:
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option(s):
g
(A) Acceleration of block is downwards
3
g
(B) Acceleration of block is downwards
6
(C) Acceleration of ball is equal (in magnitude) to acceleration of lowermost pulley
(D) Acceleration of ball is half (in magnitude) that of the lowermost pulley.
8. A monoatomic ideal gas is taken through cyclic process ABCA shown in density – temperature curve as:
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option(s). Take number of moles of the gas to
be 1.
(A) Heat absorbed in process A → B is RT0
(B) Heat absorbed in process A → B is 0.5 RT0
In 4 − 1
(C) Efficiency of the process is
In 4 + 0.5
In 8 − 1
(D) Efficiency of the process is
In 8 + 0.5
9. In space, there exists a uniform magnetic field in an infinitely long cylindrical region of radius R. The field
is given by B = B0 t directed downward, where B0 > 0. An insulating charged rigid loop in the shape of an
equilateral triangle carries a uniform linear charge density 0 and is initially at rest (t = 0). The triangle
inscribes the boundary of cylindrical region as shown:
This whole arrangement is in a gravity-free space and consider the mass of the triangular loop to be M0.
Then (initially), regarding the triangular loop:
(A) There is no acceleration of centre of mass
(B) There is no angular acceleration about centre of mass
3 3 B0 R
(C) There is angular acceleration = anticlockwise
2 M0
9 3 B0 R
(D) There is angular acceleration = anticlockwise
2 M0
10. A simple circuit breaker consists of a rigid conducting frame (geometrically forming two sides of a triangle)
whose one end is hinged and extends to the connected circuit, while the other end rests on a fixed
conducting support which also extends to the same circuit:

The breaker is placed in a uniform magnetic field B as shown. Consider the frame to be uniform of mass
m and in the vertical plane.
Choose the correct option(s) from the following statements:
4mg
(A) Maximum current (flowing from left end to right end) allowed by this breaker is
3 3Bl
4mg
(B) Maximum current (flowing from right end to left end) allowed by this breaker is
3 3Bl
(C) This breaker is unidirectional
(D) This breaker is bidirectional
11. Consider a solid sphere of mass M and radius R. A spherical layer of inner radius R/4 and outer radius R/2
has been removed such that the cavity passes through the centre of original sphere as shown:
Assume that both the bodies so formed are kept fixed.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option(s):
(A) Inside the cavity, ratio of strongest gravitational field to the weakest gravitational field is 3
(B) Inside the cavity, ratio of strongest gravitational field to the weakest gravitational field is 2
–51 GM
(C) Potential at the centre of original sphere is
16 R
− 41 GM
(D) Potential at the centre of original sphere is
32 R
12. Consider a man running on a horizontal surface with a speed of 8 m/s. He takes a turn, changing his
direction by 90º, in minimum possible time so that his final speed is also same as the initial speed. The
maximum acceleration he can produce with his shoes is 2 m/s2.
Now, consider the following statements and choose the correct option(s):
(A) The trajectory that the man takes is circular
(B) The trajectory that the man takes is parabolic
(C) The trajectory that the man takes is hyperbolic
(D) The time taken by the man is 2 seconds
SECTION - 3
Integer Value Correct Type
This section contains 6 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a double-digit integer, ranging from
00 to 99. The answer will have to be appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the instructions as follows.
Examples- If the correct answer to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9 respectively, then
mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR respectively.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y .
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
13. Three point particles A, B and C, of masses m, m and 2m respectively, are in equilibrium, with the help
of strings, as shown:
The horizontal level of A and C is same and the two inclined strings are equal in length. If the ratio of
tensions in the two vertical strings is 1.5, find .
14. A container consists of a sample of hydrogen like ions all of which are in the same state. In this state,
ionization energy of an ion is 36% of ionization energy of hydrogen atom. This sample is now allowed to
reach its most stable configuration, thereby resulting in 10 distinct types of photons. The most energetic
Paschen-line photons from this sample are made incident on a metal. The stopping potential of the ejected
photoelectrons is observed to be 3.704 V. Find the work function of the target (in eV) to the nearest integer.
15. A positively charged particle (charge q, mass m) is moving with constant velocity (of magnitude v0) in a
region of space. In that region, a uniform electric field (of strength E) is applied for some time such that
xmv 0
particle deviates by 60º and is moving twice as fast. The time for which the field acts is . Find the
qE
value of x2.
16. At a certain temperature T0, a cubical container of side l contains equal masses (m each) of two immiscible
elements A and B. At this temperature, element A exists in liquid state while element B exists in gaseous
state. Pressure at the bottom of the container is measured to be P0. Now, the temperature of the whole
system is raised to 4T0, where both elements occur in gaseous state. The measured pressure at the vertical
m
sides of the container comes out to be xP0. Find x. Take molar masses of A and B to be m and
2
l 2P0
respectively and g = . (Assume volume occupied by liquid to be negligible)
6m

17. A point source S of light is lying on a horizontal surface. A transparent hemisphere is kept on the source
as shown :
Refractive index of the material of the sphere is  = 3 while take refractive index of surrounding air to be
unity. An observer observes the source while moving on the curved surface in a vertical plane containing
1
the shown diameter. The fraction of the perimeter for which the source is visible is . Find x.
x
 –1  1   
 use sin   = 
 3 9
18. Two detectors of sound (D1 and D2) are located on y-axis with co-ordinates (0, 3.4 )
3 km and
(0, 5.1 3 km) respectively. A source of sound(S) of natural frequency 100 Hz is moving along x-axis with
a constant speed of 170 m/s. The frequencies observed by D1 and D2 when source is nearest to them is f1
Hz and f2 Hz respectively. Find f2 – f1. Take speed of sound = 340 m/s.
PART – II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - 1
19. An aqueous solution of a given salt was made alkaline with solid NH 4CI and NH4OH solution. H2S gas was
then passed through the test tube. A black ppt. appeared. Which of the following conclusions is most
appropriate about the ppt?
(A) CuS or PbS only
(B) CoS or NiS only
(C) FeS or NiS or CoS only
(D) FeS or NiS or CoS or CuS or PbS
20. Consider the following ores:
I : Kaolinite (a form of clay)
II : Siderite
III : Sphalerite
IV : Haematite
Identify the option having the correct formula of corresponding ores.
(A) I : AI2(OH)4Si2O5 ; II : FeCO3
III : ZnS ; IV : Fe2O3
(B) I : AI2(OH)4Si2O5 ; II : ZnS
III : FeCO3 ; IV : Fe2O3
(C) I : FeCO3 ; II : ZnS
III : AI2(OH)4Si2O5 ; IV : Fe3O4
(D) I : Fe2O3 ; II : ZnS
III : AI2(OH)4Si2O5 ; IV : Fe2O3
21. Consider some plots with Y-axis and X-axis given, which plot is the adsorption isobar for chemical
adsorption?
x : Amount of gas adsorbed on mass(m) at constant pressure

T : Temperature (K)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

22. We are given with phenol and its derivatives. What is the correct order of their pK a value?
(A) V > IV > I > II > III
(B) V > IV > I > III > II
(C) IV > V > I > II > III
(D) V > I > IV > III > II
SECTION - 2

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of
which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
23. Some statements are given about silicon and its compounds. In which of following statements Silicon is
not forming -bond by lateral overlap?
(A) N(SiH3)3 is planar, while N(CH3)3 is pyramidal
(B) Me2CCI2 upon hydrolysis yields Me2CO, while Me2SiCI2 yields silicones
(C) SiO2 is hard and have high melting point while CO2 is gas
(D) There is no allotrope of silicon equivalent to graphite while diamond like allotropes of Si exists
24. Consider the following reaction
If Y and Z are poisonous gases, Y is also formed by reaction of conc. H 2SO4 with formic acid. Identify
correct options about given compounds
(A) Oxidation number of metal in “A” is zero
(B) Y is absorbed in Ammoniacal cuprous chloride solution.
(C) Y acts as a ligand in co-ordination complexes
 −1 
(D) Y does not support combustion and oxidation number of metal in A is  
3 
25. The standard enthalpies of formation of CO 2(g) and HCOOH(l) are –393.7 kJ mol–1 and –409.2 kJ mol–1
respectively at standard conditions. Some statements are given related to the given information. Which of
the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(A) Enthalpy change for the reaction C(s) + O 2(g) → CO2(g) is (–393.7) kJ mole–1, where C(s) is graphite
solid.
(B) Enthalpy change for the reaction CO2(g) + H2(g) → HCOOH(l) is (–15.5) kJ mol–1
(C) Enthalpy change for the reaction H2O(g) + CO(g) → HCOOH(l) is (–409.2) kJ mol–1
(D) Enthalpy change for the reaction H2(g) + CO2(g) → H2O(l) + CO(g) is (–409.2) kJ mol–1
26. Consider two bulbs (A) and (B) of equal volume. Bulb (A) is filled with CH 4(g) at same temperature as that
of Bulb (B) which contains SO2. Identify correct statement(s).
(A) Average kinetic energy per molecule is same for both Bulb (A) and Bulb (B)
(B) Ratio of Urms in Bulb (A) and Bulb (B) is 2 : 1
(C) Ratio of average kinetic energy per molecule in Bulb (A) and Bulb (B) is 2 : 1
1
(D) If temperature of Bulb (A) becomes times, then its Urms will become equal to Urms of Bulb (B)
4
27. We are given with some order with respect to some properties indicated in bracket. Identify which order(s)
is/are correct.
(A) NH3 > NF3 (dipole moment) (B) H2O2 > O2F2 ((– O – O –) bond length)
(C) PF2CI3 > PF3CI2 (dipole moment) (D) F2 > CI2 > Br2 > I2 (bond energy)
28. For a first order reaction A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g) at constant volume and 400 K, the total pressure at the
beginning (t = 0) and at time t are P0 and Pt, respectively. Initially, only A is present with concentration [A] 0,
1
and t 1 is the time required for the partial pressure of A to reach th of its initial value. The correct option(s)
4
4
is/are (Assume that all these gases behave as ideal gases)
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
29. Consider the following polymers given in the options. Identify which of the polymers are homopolymers.
(A) PVC (B) Buna-S
(C) Nylon-66 (D) Nylon-6
30. Consider the following sequence of reactions
Find out the correct statement(s).

(A) “R” gives aldol condensation when heated with NaOH solution
(B) “R” gives Tollen’s reagent test positive
(C) Methanal and compound R can be distinguished using Fehling's solution
(D) Reaction of “R” with I2/NaOH gives yellow ppt
SECTION - 3
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y .
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
31. We are given with following molecules and information about the same
X : Oxidation number of central metal in Brown Ring Complex

Y : Number of (P – H) bonds in orthophosphoric acid
Z : Number of (N – N) links present in N2O5
Find out value of (X + Y + Z).
32. Consider the reactions
140ºC
(A) 3BCI3 + 3NH4CI ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→
(i) 140ºC
(B) 3BCI3 + 3NH4CI ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ →
(ii) NaBH4
excess NH
(C) B2H6 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
3→
High temp.
Ratio 2NH : 1B H
(D) B2H6 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
3 2 6
High temp.
excess NH
(E) B2H6 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
3→
low temp.
Find out number of reactions which will lead to formation of Inorganic Benzene (Borazine).
33. A current of dry air was bubbled successively through a bulb containing 25 gm of a weak monobasic acid
(non - volatile) in 180 gm of water, pure water and a U-tube containing anhydrous CaCI2. The loss in mass
80
of pure water was 0.1 gm and gain in mass of U-tube was 1.1 gm. If 1 gm of acid required mL of 1N
3
alkali for complete neutralization, then find out value of (6).
( = degree of dissociation of acid)

( < 1)
34. The solubility of AgBr in presence of AgSCN in water is given by a × 10 –b mole lit–1.
Find out value of (a + b). (1  a  10)
Ksp of AgSCN = 0.96 × 10–12 mol2 lit–2
Ksp of AgBr = 4.8 × 10–13 mol2 lit–2
35. An alloy of Pb – Ag weighing 1.08 gm was dissolved in dilute HNO3 and the volume made to 1 Lit.
A silver electrode was dipped in the solution and the EMF of the cell set-up
+ +
Pt(s) | H2 (g) | H(aq.) || Ag(aq.) | Ag(s)
(1atm) (1M)
was 0.62 V if ECell of the cell is 0.80 V.
 2.303 RT 
What is the percentage of Ag in the alloy?  At 25º C, = 0.06 
 F 
(closest integer) [Ag = 108 u]
36. We are given with following sequence of reactions,
Out of the given amines, how many of them can’t be prepared by above method or will have extremely low
yield?
(A) CH3 – CH2 – NH2 (H)
(B) CH3 – NH2 (I)
(C) CH2 = CH – NH2 (J)
(D) (K)
(E)
(F) CH3 – NH – CH3
(G) (CH3)3N
PART – III : MATHEMATICS

SECTION - 1
1
37. For each positive integer n, we define the recursive relation given by an +1 = . Suppose that
1 + an
a1 = a2022, then the sum of the cubes of all possible values of a1 is
(A) 4 (B) –4
(C) 0 (D) 2
38. Let P(x) = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + ....+ anxn be a polynomial in x where the coefficients a0, a1, a2,….an are non-
negative integers. If P(1) = 25 and P(27) = 1771769, then the value of a0 + 2a1 + 3a2 + …+ (n + 1)an is
(A) 75
(B) 25
(C) 65
(D) 125
39. Let A, B, C be n × n real matrices and are pairwise commutative and ABC = On and if  = det(A3 + B3 +
C3) det(A + B + C) then
(A)   0
(B)  < 0
(C)  < 1
(D)   (–3, –1)
40. Let f : R → [0, 3] be a differentiable function such that (f(x))2f (x) = 3(f(3x))2f (3x) and lim f ( x ) = 2 . Then,
x →
number of roots of the equation f(x) = cosx + 2x – (cos2x + x2) is
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 2
(D) 3
SECTION - 2

ONE OR MORE is/are correct.
41. If a function f(x) = (2 – 2 – 3)x4 + (2 + 1)x3 + 21x + (8 – ) is monotonically increasing for all x  R, then
(A) Permitted value of  is 2
(B) Permitted value of  is 3
(C) Range of f(x) in [–1, 0] is [–23, 5]
 1  17 
(D) Range of f(x) in 0,  is 5, 
 2   2
42. A communication system consist of n components, each of which will independently, function with
probability P. The total system will be able to operate effectively if atleast one-half of its components
function. Then possible values of P for which 5-component system is more likely to operate effectively than
a 3-component system
1 2
(A) P = (B) P =
2 3
1 3
(C) P = (D) P =
3 4
z12 z2 z2
43. Let z1, z2, z3 be the complex numbers such that |z1| = |z2| = |z3| = 1 and + 2 + 3 + 1 = 0, then
z2 z3 z1z3 z1z2
|z1 + z2 + z3| can be equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
44. Let n be a real root of the cubic equation nx3 + 2x – n = 0, where n is a positive integer. Also, let
1 2023
n = [(n + 1)n] for n = 2, 3, 4.... If the value of  k is  (where [] represents greatest integer
1011 k =2
function), then
(A) Sum of digits of  = 9 (B) Total Number divisors of  = 15
(C) Number of prime divisors of  = 3 (D) Sum of digits of  = 10
45. If on an ellipse a tangent 3x – 4y + 5 = 0 meets tangents at ends of major axis in points P and Q. Let S(5,
0) be one of the focus. If Auxiliary circle cuts the given tangent at R and T and if PR = b, RQ = a (R is point
nearest to given focus), then
(A) ab = 16 (B) Value of PS2 + QS2 = PQ2
 
(C) Angle between SR and the tangent is (D) Angle between SR and the tangent is
4 2
46. If S = 0 be equation of a Parabola on which tangents are drawn from a variable point ‘P’, such that tangents
cut an intercepts of ‘d’ units on tangent at vertex, then
(A) Locus of P is S = d2
(B) Locus of P is S + d2 = 0
(C) Locus of P is S + 2d2 = 0
(D) Locus of P is S – 2d2 = 0
x2  t2
–
47. Let f ( x ) = 
e 2 e 2 dt , x  0 then
x
1
(A) 0  f ( 5 ) 
5
1
(B) f ( 5 ) 
5
(C) f is decreasing on (0, )
1
(D) 0  f ( 3 ) 
3
x( x + 1)( x 4 + 1) + (2x 4 + x 2 + 2)
48. Let f : R→R, f(x) = , then f(x) is
x2 + x + 1
(A) Odd
(B) Neither odd nor even
(C) Many-one
(D) One-one
SECTION - 3
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y .
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
1
 x2 x3 x 2n 
49. If In = 
−1
| x | 1 + x +

 2
+
3
+ ...
2n
dx, then the value of 4 lim (In ) is equal to
 n →
 x  ( 2,  ) and g ( x ) = x + 1 + (
f ( x )) + 1
2
2x – 1 2
50. Let f(x) be a real valued function such that f ( x ) =  x  2,
x–2 x f (x)
then minimum value of g(x) is
n  
– 1, then 20  lim Sn  is equal to
k
51. Let Sn =   1+
n2   n → 
k =1 
2i + j –2i + j
52. A unit vector r has equal length of projections along , and k̂ . If r  ( iˆ + ĵ + k̂ ) is positive,
5 5
then number of such vectors r can be
53. The number of integral solution of 2x + 2y + z = 20 (x, y, z  0) is 11k, then k is
 n 4  n 5 


 x =1

x 



x =1
x 

 = 4 is
54. Sum of values of ‘t’ for which lim
n →  n  n  5

 
x t 

 x =1  x =1
 x 9 −t 


❑ ❑ ❑

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Test Date: 28/04/2023 Phase-III

Time : 3 hrs Final Test Series MM : 186

6 18 − 11 6 18 − 11

One or More Options Correct Type

(C) If current is switched off, triangular loop moves leftwards

(D) If current is switched off, triangular loop moves rightwards

6. Consider the circuit shown below:

(A) Battery of emf 10 V is getting charged

(B) Reading of ammeter is 30 mA

(C) Reading of voltmeter is 5 V

(D) Power supplied by battery of emf 30 V is 0.6 watts

Consider the following statements and choose the correct option(s):

(C) Acceleration of ball is equal (in magnitude) to acceleration of lowermost pulley

(A) Heat absorbed in process A → B is RT0

(B) Heat absorbed in process A → B is 0.5 RT0

(B) There is no angular acceleration about centre of mass

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 5]

Choose the correct option(s) from the following statements:

(C) This breaker is unidirectional

(D) This breaker is bidirectional

Assume that both the bodies so formed are kept fixed.

Consider the following statements and choose the correct option(s):

(A) The trajectory that the man takes is circular

(B) The trajectory that the man takes is parabolic

(C) The trajectory that the man takes is hyperbolic

(D) The time taken by the man is 2 seconds

Integer Value Correct Type

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 7]

(A) CuS or PbS only

(B) CoS or NiS only

(C) FeS or NiS or CoS only

(D) FeS or NiS or CoS or CuS or PbS

20. Consider the following ores:

I : Kaolinite (a form of clay)

Identify the option having the correct formula of corresponding ores.

(A) I : AI2(OH)4Si2O5 ; II : FeCO3

III : ZnS ; IV : Fe2O3

(B) I : AI2(OH)4Si2O5 ; II : ZnS

III : FeCO3 ; IV : Fe2O3

(C) I : FeCO3 ; II : ZnS

III : AI2(OH)4Si2O5 ; IV : Fe3O4

(D) I : Fe2O3 ; II : ZnS

III : AI2(OH)4Si2O5 ; IV : Fe2O3

x : Amount of gas adsorbed on mass(m) at constant pressure

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 [Page 9]

(A) V > IV > I > II > III

(B) V > IV > I > III > II

(C) IV > V > I > II > III

(D) V > I > IV > III > II

One or More Options Correct Type

(A) N(SiH3)3 is planar, while N(CH3)3 is pyramidal

24. Consider the following reaction

(A) Oxidation number of metal in “A” is zero

(B) Y is absorbed in Ammoniacal cuprous chloride solution.

(C) Y acts as a ligand in co-ordination complexes

(B) Ratio of Urms in Bulb (A) and Bulb (B) is 2 : 1

is/are (Assume that all these gases behave as ideal gases)

(A) PVC (B) Buna-S

(C) Nylon-66 (D) Nylon-6

30. Consider the following sequence of reactions

Find out the correct statement(s).

(B) “R” gives Tollen’s reagent test positive

(C) Methanal and compound R can be distinguished using Fehling's solution