Strategic Management (STRA701)-Semester III

1. Of the following, which is usually not associated with SM key elements?

a. Assembly procedures
b. Horizon management
c. Effectiveness and efficiency
d. Stakeholder management
2. When evaluating an organization's goals and objectives, which is not a typical goal?
a. Quality
b. Cheaper
c. Service
d. Slower
3. Which of the following is NOT a definition of strategic management as presented?
a. Using assets and staff to increase productivity or goals.
b. Evaluation, planning and implementation of business improvements for
competitive advantage
c. The ability to maintain consistency with operations as they have been run
for several years.
d. The use of decision-making to align individuals with the latest plan of business to
grow sales.
4. "The practice of management to use known methods and find efficiencies by
directing staff to stay in their lane" is known as:
a. Assignment strategies
b. Adaptability strategies
c. Alignment strategies
d. Affluence strategies
5. "The practice of management to permit maximum flexibility among staff and
resources to engage new methods and relationships outside of the competitor
"normal" behaviours" is known as:
a. Assignment strategies
b. Adaptability strategies
c. Alignment strategies
d. Affluence strategies
6. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the necessity of strategic management?
a. Evaluation
b. Growth
c. Monopoly
d. Market changes
7. Resource usage evaluates all the following EXCEPT:
a. Facility
b. Latest software
c. Staff
d. Commodities

8. What is the purpose of the vision statement?

a. The path chosen by the organization
b. The tactical approach to executing the mission
c. The picture of where the organization wants to be or become in the
future.
d. The set of goals and objectives outlined by management

9. When should a business person consider using strategic management? All of the
following EXCEPT:
a. New title
b. New business
c. New staff
d. New competitor
10. Evaluating a new industry requires looking at everything BUT:
a. Location
b. Associations
c. Competitors
d. Currency
11. When would we use strategic management?
a. Client process
b. Operations
c. Shift in market
d. Similar project
12. When performing operations, we do not need to consider:
a. Unique steps
b. Past brand recognition
c. Old strategies
d. Lost profits
13. Which of the following is NOT an intended strategy?
a. Embrace modification as appropriate
b. Focus to industry
c. Expect constraints
d. Fit the market
14. Which of the following is NOT a realized strategy?
 a. Allows for "unrealized" strategies as well
b. Inclusive of intended strategies
c. Allow emergent adaptations
d. Estimate resources
15. Internal evaluation includes all the following EXCEPT:
a. Engineering
b. Financial health
c. Economic segmentation
d. Brand value
16. External evaluation includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Competitor financials
b. Supply chain contracts
c. Partnerships
d. Competitor financials

17. Which of the following is NOT a role of corporate governance?

a. Employee representative
b. Board of directors
c. Shareholders
d. Management
18. Which of the following is LEAST relevant to selecting a board of directors?
a. Significant experience and compensation
b. Represent interests of shareholders
c. Elected by shareholders
d. Industry diversity among members
19. Which of the following is not a stakeholder group outlined in the lecture?
a. Government
b. Suppliers
c. Company
d. Community
20. Which of the following is a stakeholder strategy from the lecture?
a. Competitor evaluation
b. Numerical ranking
c. Unilateral demonstration
d. Client overhaul
21. Which of the following is NOT one of the zero-sum stakeholder situations?
a. Company vs. competition
b. Paying employees or stockholders
c. Supplier needs or customer needs
d. Management vs. board of directors
22. Which of the following is NOT one of the symbioses of stakeholder’s perspectives?
 a. Employees and shareholders
b. Supplier and customer
c. Management and board of directors
d. Employee and management
23. Which level of strategic decision making is NOT noted in the lectures?
a. Branch
b. Regional
c. Territory
d. International
24. Influencers and networkers have the following traits EXCEPT:
a. Vocal about success
b. Authorized to make significant decisions
c. Communicate up and across organization
d. Have little formal power

25. Of the following, which is LEAST important to the international considerations?

a. Commodity product
b. Politics
c. Languages
d. Infrastructure
26. The legal issues in a nation can be quite constrictive. Which are not usually
considered important?
a. Economic requirements
b. Market regulations
c. Industry regulations
d. Corporate policy
27. If you are looking at local and division strategies, which is NOT included from the
lecture.
a. Local politics
b. Branch spacing
c. Package markings
d. Regional programs
28. Which of the following is NOT of concern for local regulations?
a. Pricing strategies
b. Average wages
c. Brand conflicts
d. Advertising laws
29. Branch and department considerations include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Corporate policy
b. Branch hours
c. Facility security
 d. Product losses
30. When thinking about competition for the branch, which is NOT of concern?
a. Length in business
b. Proximity
c. Severity of area competition
d. Brand's length of existence

31. Which is NOT an element of a vision statement?

a. Executable
b. Task-focused
c. Inspirational
d. Long-term
32. Which of the mission statement components noted below is NOT from the lecture?
a. Competitor list
b. Competitive advantage
c. Stakeholder management
d. Scope of operations
33. When evaluating the scope of operations which is LEAST valuable to us?
a. Not focused on profit or shareholder equity
b. Territorial aspirations
c. Product or service related
d. Similarities outlined
34. Corporate goals and strategy have specific elements, NOT including:
a. SMART
b. Restricted list
c. Defined projects
d. Goal-oriented
35. Financial goals include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Cost cutting initiatives
b. Daily revenue constant
c. Margin percentage
d. Internet or online growth targets
36. Which of the following is not a corporate "Value" as outlined in the lecture?
a. Revenue
b. Sensitivity
c. Integrity
d. Ownership
37. All of the following are critical considerations for a business to think about its values:
a. Reason behind each value
b. Further vision, mission, objectives
c. Values cost the organization
 d. Short-term plans
38. Which of the following is NOT an element of social responsibility?
a. Chat rooms
b. Environment
c. Just purpose
d. Fair labour

39. Which of the following does NOT fall under fair labour practices?
a. Working conditions
b. Child labour
c. Minimum wages
d. Non-GMO materials
40. The Triple Bottom Line does NOT include which of the following?
a. Environmental.
b. Social
c. Structural
d. Financial
41. Social responsibility elements include all the following EXCEPT:
a. Human rights
b. Profit margin
c. Fitness programs
d. Employee productivity
42. Select which element is not a part of business ethics.
a. Profitability
b. Respect
c. Excellence
d. Accountability
43. When considering loyalty elements of business ethics, which is least relevant?
a. Avoid conflicts of interest
b. Betterment of the organization
c. Partnering
d. Merit wage increases
44. Which of the following is NOT a step in the competitive intelligence process?
a. Presentation
b. Cleaning
c. Stealth
d. Interpretation
45. When analyzing competitive intelligence data which of the following is NOT relevant?
a. Confirm data
b. Collection of information
c. Chart and graph data
 d. Tinker with data
46. The PESTLE approach was developed in
a. 1960s
b. 1970s
c. 1980s
d. 1990s

47. Which of the following is outside of the PESTLE approach but included in analysis?
a. Variability
b. Sonographic
c. Phonographic
d. Demographic
48. What does the P stand for in PESTLE?
a. Productivity
b. Profitability
c. Political
d. Practical
49. What does the first E stand for in PESTLE?
a. Educational
b. Effective
c. Economic
d. Enterprise
50. Which of the following is NOT a consumer price index consideration?
a. Inflation
b. Population
c. Purchasing Power Parity
d. Availability of products
51. What does the S stand for in PESTLE?
a. Sociocultural
b. Summary
c. Successful
d. Short-term
52. Which of the following is NOT a fitness consideration in analysis
a. Disposable time
b. Health
c. Appearance
d. Diversity
53. What does the T stand for in PESTLE?
a. Timeliness
b. Taxes
c. Technology
 d. Theoretical
54. Which of the following is NOT a big data consideration in analysis
a. Privacy
b. Robotics
c. Servers
d. Qualitative and quantitative

55. What does the L stand for in PESTLE?

a. Leading
b. Luxury
c. Legal
d. Long-term
56. Which of the following is the LEAST relevant consideration in analysis of consumer
law?
a. Right to inform
b. Right to due process
c. Right to safety
d. Right to know
57. What does the second E stand for in PESTLE?
a. Export
b. Emotional
c. Environmental
d. Exclusive
58. Which of the following is NOT a policy consideration in ecological analysis
a. Waste vs. recycling
b. intellectual property guidelines
c. Use of fossil fuels
d. Emissions standards
59. When evaluating demographic analysis which was NOT included in the lecture?
a. Ethnicity
b. Education
c. Technology
d. Affluence
60. Geographic distribution considerations consider all the following EXCEPT:
a. Rural
b. Regional
c. Urban
d. Suburban
61. Industry analysis is concerned with the differences in what area?
a. Product or service type
b. Location or territory
 c. Ethnicity or race
d. Space or environment
62. The 5 Forces model by Porter include all the following EXCEPT:
a. Threat of substitute products and services
b. Bargaining power of buyers
c. Departure of primary competitors
d. Bargaining power of suppliers

63. Which is NOT a threat of intensifying rivalry from competitors?

a. High costs
b. Reduced supply
c. Similar sized competitors
d. High exit barriers
64. Which of the following is the sixth force proposed by Porter's Model of Industry
Competition
a. Complementary products
b. Threat of new entrants
c. Corporate mergers and acquisitions
d. VUCA
65. Which of the following is not a risk associated with the sixth force?
a. Great partners change and build your product
b. Alternate to complementary product located
c. Consumer no longer require complementary products
d. Demand for complementary products increases
66. Which of the following is a good example of industry reach?
a. Stable sales after years in the industry
b. Search for profits toward the end of a product life cycle
c. Launch of branches into many new territories initially
d. Sale of assets to enter a new market
67. Which of the following is an example of market stagnation?
a. Effort to expand into new markets results in significant growth
b. After five years, a product is replaced by a newer model
c. Legal success to reduce regulations in territory
d. New facility is opened in a growing city but does not make profit first year
68. Strategic groups are best explained as
a. Collection of businesses that have mutual interests and strategies
b. Competitive organizations that seek to reorganize to gain more market share
from another
c. An assortment of companies that look to split up approaches to increase
competition
d. All firms in a sector that see losses from competitive practices
69. Which is NOT a value of a strategic group?
a. Future strategy
b. Trends
c. Barriers to entry
d. Stronger competitor groups
70. What does the "A" in VUCA stand for?
a. Advancement
b. Assorted
c. Ambiguous
d. Acceptable

71. What does the "C" in VUCA stand for?

a. Corporate
b. Complex
c. Content
d. Complaints
72. Volatility in business is affected by all the following EXCEPT?
a. New customer
b. New regulations
c. New markets
d. Changing business plans
73. Uncertainty is increased by all the following EXCEPT:
a. Fewer commitments from customers
b. Planning horizons shortened
c. Short-term forecasts are normal
d. Maintaining customer base for lengthy period
74. Which of the following is least affected by VUCA world conditions?
a. Products/services
b. Technology
c. Facilities
d. Distribution
75. Which is NOT likely an effect on a larger business from VUCA conditions?
a. Small business threats
b. Employee stability
c. Growth opportunities
d. Demand fluctuations
76. Which of the following is NOT a VUCA strategy to consider
a. Stability
b. Forecasting
c. JIT
d. AI
77. VUCA can be addressed through targeted marketing including:
a. Sorting big data with artificial intelligence
 b. Frequent and precise communications
c. Alignment of target markets more intensely
d. Premium pricing strategy exclusively
78. Which of the following is NOT a value chain step in the traditional analysis?
a. Service
b. Operations
c. Accounting
d. Outbound logistics

79. What is the LEAST relevant consideration for value chain analysis?
a. Consider that one change affects the rest of the chain
b. Corporate policies for HR hiring and onboarding
c. Relationships between value activities and participants is important
d. Evaluate the picture from as broad a view as possible
80. Inbound logistics includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. M&A
b. Facility design
c. JIT
d. Facility location
81. Real time data for logistics should allow for all BUT:
a. WIP
b. Customer orders
c. Supplier orders
d. Facility expenses
82. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be a consideration for value chain
operations?
a. Training
b. Waiting lines
c. Sales brochures
d. Part retrieval
83. Some of the value chain components include these items, but NOT:
a. Reduced steps
b. Reduced market share
c. Reduced WIP
d. Reduced stoppages
84. When looking at outbound logistics in the value chain, what is NOT something to
consider?
a. Advertising
b. Warehouse location
c. Shipping
d. Order entry
85. When evaluating a delivery schedule, what is least likely a concern?
a. Alerting the customer
 b. Set monitoring codes
c. Data entry
d. Warranty data recorded
86. Value chain assumes that Marketing and Sales covers all these components BUT:
a. Logistics
b. Quotations
c. Channels
d. Pricing

87. The marketing and sales aspect of the value chain should consider all promotional
elements EXCEPT:
a. Product placement
b. Facility location
c. Special offers
d. Partner placement
88. Which of the following is NOT a value chain service component?
a. Shipping
b. Training
c. Parts replacement
d. Phone support
89. Types of installation service that might be offered include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Including add-ons
b. Physical installation
c. Manufacturing
d. Observation
90. All of the following tenets are included in the Resource Based View EXCEPT which
one?
a. Available sources
b. Valuable
c. Hard to imitate
d. Difficult to substitute
91. Which of the following resources is a tangible resource as noted in the lecture?
a. Brand
b. Trust
c. Experience
d. Cash
92. What does the "I" in the VRIO framework stand for?
a. Important
b. Integral
c. Inimitable
d. Incorporated
93. An example of a VRIO product would be:
a. Diesel fuel
 b. Wide-bodied aircraft
c. Bottled water
d. Plumbing repairs
94. Which of the following is NOT a Retail value chain component
a. Manufacturing line
b. Marketing and selling
c. Operating stores
d. Purchasing goods

95. When purchasing goods for a Retail value chain, which of these is NOT included:
a. Tracking
b. Forecasting
c. Ordering
d. Marketing
96. Which of the following is NOT an Engineering value chain component
a. Mergers and Acquisitions
b. Research and Development
c. Design and Solutions
d. Marketing and Sales
97. The service element of engineering value chain activities includes all of these EXCEPT:
a. Training
b. Phone support
c. E&O protections
d. R&D evaluations
98. Of the following, which is the one category in both scenario analysis and PESTLE?
a. Demographics
b. Legal
c. Psychology
d. Economy
99. Considering SWOT analysis, which is an internal evaluation
a. Options
b. Social
c. Strengths
d. Trust
100. When the TOWS matrix is used, which of the following is a proper
categorization?
a. STOW
b. SO
c. SOW
d. WOW
101. Using SWOT, which category would you put "The company has great
processes" under?
a. Strengths
 b. Weakeness
c. Opportuntity
d. Threat
102. Using SWOT, which category would you put "Competitor is evaluating same
product " under?
a. Strengths
b. Weakness
c. Opportunity
d. Threat
103. Which of the TOWS matrix categories would cover a company skill but a
competitor has the same skill
a. ST
b. SO.
c. WO
d. WT
104. Which of the TOWS matrix categories would cover a organization gap, but
would be profitable if the company decided to pursue it?
a. ST
b. SO
c. WT
d. WO
105. Which of the following was NOT a corporate strategy outlined in the lecture?
a. Cooperative
b. Global
c. Dynamic
d. Growth
106. What is the best alternative way to describe a cooperative strategy?
a. Acquisition
b. Partnering
c. Reduction
d. Aberration
107. Which of the following is NOT a penetration strategy?
a. Merger
b. Marketing
c. Differentiation
d. Brand prep
108. When penetrating a new market all of the following are critical brand items
except:
a. Values
b. Product
c. Logo
d. Legal
109. When looking at market development strategies, the LEAST important is:
a. Geography
b. Demographics
c. Financing
d. Psychographics
110. All of the following are demographic considerations EXCEPT:
a. Family
b. Pricing
c. Profession
d. Ethnicity
111. New product development allows for diversification by all of the following
characteristics EXCEPT
a. Bigger
b. Faster
c. Uniformity
d. Creative
112. The organization can consider the diversity of the latest service by all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. Expanding the product line
b. Reducing costs to manufacture
c. Increasing magnitude of the product or service
d. Broadening the scope of brand coverage
113. Which of the following is NOT an integration method covered in the lectures?
a. Technology
b. Horizontal
c. M&A
d. Vertical
114. For integrating two organizations together, from a financial perspective you
should include all BUT:
a. Cash flow before and after
b. Income before and after
c. Capital available
d. Product pricing
115. The Grand Strategy Matrix is attributed to whom?
a. Ansoff
b. Porter
c. Strickland
d. Garibaldi
116. The Grand Strategy Matrix compares which elements of interest?
a. Market growth and Opportunities
b. Market growth and competitive position
c. Strengths and competitive position
d. Strengths and Opportunities
117. Portfolio analysis is applied to all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Staff levels
b. Markets
c. Projects
d. Financial investments
118. The lectures outlined portfolio analysis mathematical tools including all of
these BUT:
a. ROA or ROE
b. Risk ratios
c. Profit margin YoY
d. Competitor pricing
119. Which of the following is NOT one of the categories in the Boston Consulting
Group Matrix?
a. Stars
b. Cows
c. Lions
d. Dogs
120. Which of the BCG categories is considered the least profitable and first to exit?
a. Stars
b. Dogs
c. Cows
d. Lions
121. The 9-cell Matrix was developed by which of the following organizations?
a. GE
b. GM
c. IBM
d. IKEA
122. The 9-cell Matrix evaluates on which two metrics?
a. Market attractiveness and pricing
b. Product breadth and competitive strength
c. Product breadth and pricing
d. Market attractiveness and competitive strength
123. Ansoff's matrix covers which topics?
a. Pricing vs. Products
b. Markets vs. Strategy
c. Markets vs. Products
d. Pricing vs. Strategy
124. Which of the following is not an Ansoff strategy on the quadrants?
a. Diversification
b. Pricing planning
c. Market penetration
d. Market development
125. When choosing the tools for your business, which is NOT a recommended
factor from the lecture?
a. Local regulation
b. Organizational maturity
c. Industry standard
d. Personal preference
126. Which of the following is NOT a strategic tool from the lecture?
a. Business motivation model
b. Internal external model
c. Four corners
d. Price product proportion model
127. Porter's Three generic strategies do NOT include which of the following?
a. Focus strategy
b. Overall cost leadership strategy
c. Market leader strategy
d. Differentiation
128. The quadrant proposed by Porter's Three "Generic" Strategies includes which
two categories?
a. Market breadth and costs
b. Market breadth and competitive advantage
c. Strengths and competitive advantage
d. Strengths and costs
129. How many key competitive advantage goals should an organization have?
a. 1 or 2
b. 3 to 5
c. 6 to 10
d. As many as possible
130. Of the following which is NOT one of the competitive advantages outlined in
the lectures?
a. Age of business
b. Customer service
c. Location of facilities
d. Selection of products
131. The experience curve strategy is based on which principle?
a. An older company has more experience and therefore worth more to
customers.
b. Experienced individuals tend to cost more and should be retired sooner.
c. Those with more experience cost less per unit to develop or produce.
d. The more experienced an employee the more their benefits will cost.
132. Competitive parity is mostly related to which of the following?
a. Equivalent value
b. Similar total number of customers
c. Same competitive strategy
d. Identical brand messaging
133. Which of the following is NOT a major dynamic affecting strategic growth?
a. Consumer opinion changes
b. Exchange rates
c. Deflation
d. Employee shifts
134. Competitive expansion is least witnessed in which situation?
a. International chain stores entering a market
b. Family run store in locale
c. Smaller product chains
d. Big box stores moving in.
135. Technology driven aggregation tends to cause:
a. Fewer competitors
b. More product choices
c. Prices driven down
d. New products in the same industry
136. Which example was NOT provided of technology driven aggregation in our
lecture?
a. Data centers
b. GPS systems
c. Photography
d. Music
137. Large scale consolidation usually happens because smaller companies decide
to:
a. Drive competition to increase profits
b. Flea to rural locations to increase market share
c. Harvest profits
d. Reduce pricing to avoid premium competitors
138. Which of the following is a negative of employees shifting to gig or short-term
employment?
a. Security of methods and process with fluid workforce
b. Expertise can be obtained without much training
c. May save on staff costs during a weak economy
d. During a weaker economy, no termination benefits paid
139. Which of the following is a positive of employees shifting to gig or short-term
employment?
a. May pay more for staff during good economic times
b. Demand for HR department rises when product demand rises
c. Short-term contractors may be in low supply when needed
d. Fewer benefits must be paid out
140. Which of the following is LEAST important to strategic decision making?
a. Corporate travel policy
b. Risk analysis
c. Leadership experience
d. Stakeholder interests
141. When choosing among projects, which of the following may be LESS
important?
a. Decision tree analysis
b. Projects in line with branding
c. Most profitable projects
d. Money already invested into the project
142. Which of the following is the greatest factor for strategy when related to age of
the business?
a. Pricing
b. Organic growth
c. Reputation
d. Transition of employees
143. Which of the following is the greatest factor for strategy when related to size of
the business?
a. Porters 5 Forces
b. Market may be too small to be worth time
c. Market may be too old for consideration
d. Industry may have required duration of existence
144. When focusing on an east-Asian market, one of the greatest factors from the
lecture story is:
a. Trust
b. Price
c. Size
d. Ethnicity
145. Certain industries have an expectation of caution. From the lectures, which
industry had more caution?
a. Cellular phones
b. Fashion
c. Sports
d. Hazardous waste
146.