BIOLOGY TEST 4

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BIOLOGY TEST 4
1. The word „species‟ was coined by (b) carboniferous ara
(a) john Ray (c) Mesozoic era
(b) Mayer (d) Archaezoic era
(c) J. Huxley 9. Syrinx is characteristic of birds but not found in
(d) C. Linnaeus one of the following birds:
2. Haemocyanin is found dissolve in the plasma of (a) columba
the following (b) Eduynamis
(a) cockroach (c) psittacula
(b) Earthworn (d) struthio
(c) leech 10. Which statement is true about the fertilized egg
(d) snail Aphioxus?
3. Which one of the following is devoid of (a) dorsal crescent forms notochord
cervical vertebra (b) clear cytoplasm forms endoderm
(a) Seal (c) ventral crescent forms epidermis
(b) Snake (d) granular-yolky cytoplasm forms neural
(c) Frog structure
(d) Fish 11. Scoliodon is:
4. Ammocoetes larva occur in the life history of: (a) ovoviviparous
(a) Lamprey (b) viviparous
(b) Sea urchin (c) oviparous
(c) Balanoglossus (d) sometimes viviparous, viviparous that give
(d) Ascidian oviparous
5. Urinary bladder is not found in which of the 12. Cowper‟s gland is present in
following ? (a) frogs
(a) Amphibians (b) earthworms
(b) Reptiles (c) cockroaches
(c) Birds (d) rabbits
(d) Mammals 13. Homologous structure are:
6. Australian lung fish in called: (a) Similar in origin, but dissimilar or similar in
(a) lepidosiren function
(b) lepidosteus (b) Similar in origin and function.
(c) protopterus (c) Dissimilar in origin but similar in function
(d) Neoceratodus (d) Dissimilar in origin and function
7. Foramen of Panizzae is found in the heart of : 14. Ontogeny, recapitulates phylogeny is the brief
(a) frog description of:
(b) pigeon (a) Mutation theory
(c) crocodile (b) Abiogenesis
(d) Rabbit (c) Darwinism
8. Age of reptiles is known as (d) Biogenetic law
(a) palaeozoic era 15. Point mutation is

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BIOLOGY TEST 4
(a) loss of gene (b) Calcium
(b) change in a bare of gene (c) potassium
(c) addition of a gene (d) Zinc
(d) deletion of a segment of gene 23. In which animal the red blood corpuscles are
16. Meissner‟s plexus in found in: nucleated:
(a) liver (a) horse
(b) lung (b) man
(c) kidney (c) camel
(d) intestinal wall (d) whale
17. Which of the following is a lactogenic 24. Peyer‟s patches in mammals are
hormone? (a) Excretory
(a) prolactin (b) Digestive
(b) Oxytocin (c) Secretory
(c) FSH (d) lymphoid
(d) progesterone 25. Podocytes are:
18. The end products of carbohydrate digestion are- (a) cells of bone marrow
(a) Glucose, Fructose & Galactose (b) blood corpuscles of insects
(b) Maltose, Glucose & Lactose (c) found in gall bladder of mammals
(c) Fructose, Glucose & Lactose (d) epithelial cells of Bowman‟s capsule
(d)Glucose, Sucrose & Fructose 26. Osmotic pressure of blood is mainly due to
19. “Golden Rice” is enriched with precursor of (a) O2
which vitamin? (b) CO2
(a) A (c) urea
(b) B (d) various proteins
(c) C 27. Blind-spot in human eye is located:
(d) K (a) in fovea centralis
20. The total lung capacity is represented by the: (b) in middle of the lens
(a) Tidal volume+ residual volume (c) where optic Nerve leave the retina
(b) Vital Capacity + residual volume (d) in center of the pupil
(c) Tidal volume + vital capacity 28. Foramen of Monro is an aperture between
(d) Inspiratory and expiratory reserve volumes (a) Diocoel and metacoel
(b) rhinocoel and diocoel
21. Link reaction in respiration involves (c) lateral and third ventricle
(a) Formation of pyruvic acid (d) third and fourth ventricle
(b) formation of Acetyl Co A 29. The hollow interior of the cerebrum is called:
(c) formation of Succinic acid (a) Third ventricle
(d) formation of isocitric acid (b) Fourth ventricle
22. The cation the following element is necessary (c) Lateral ventricle
for coagulation : (d) Second ventricle
(a) Sodium 30. Drinking of alcohol affects:

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BIOLOGY TEST 4
(a) Cerebrum 38. Mammary glands are:
(b) Cerebellum (a) Holocrine
(c) Medulla oblongata (b) Merocrine
(d) Diencephalon (c) Apocrine
31. Merckel‟s disk are (d) Endocrine
(a)Chromatophores 39. The term „ polyembryony‟ means:
(b) Melanophres (a) embryonic stages multiply asexually
(c) Nerve endings (b) larval stages reproduce Sexually
(d) Skin scales (c) larval stages start producing eggs
32. The innermost layer of skin epidermis is (d) adult gives rise to many larvae
(a) Stratum corneum 40. During the Embryonic development of chicke,
(b) stratum Malpighi the foetal membrane that appears first is.
(c) Stratum spinosum (a) Yolk sac
(d) Stratum lucidum (b) Allantois
33. Synovial fluid is found in (c) Amnion
(a) Cranial cavity (d) None of the above
(b) Immovable joints 41. Which one of the following foetal membranes
(c) Freely movable joints does not take part in the formation palcenta in
(d) Spinal cord mammals:
34. Cretinism is caused by: (a) Chorion
(a) hypersecretion of adrenal (b) Amnion
(b) hyposecretion of adrenal (c) Allantois
(c) hyposecretion of thyroid (d) Yolk sac
(d) hyperrscretion of parathyroid 42. Foetal membranes of mammalian embryo are
35. Leydig‟s cells produce: derived from:
(a) Thyeoxine (a) Granulosa cells
(b) Growth hormone (b) Corona radiate cells
(c) testosterone (c) Trophoectoderm
(d) progesterone (d) Inner cell mass
36. Placenta helps to maintain pregnancy by 43. Empoly occrs is Amphioxus development
secreting a hormone called: during
(a) estrogen (a) Cleavage
(b) testosterone (b) Blastulation
(c) thyroxine (c) Gastrulation
(d) Progesteron (d) Organogenesis
37. Trigger for ovulation in human female is 44. Human placenta involves
(a) Rise in the oxytocin level (a) chorion and yolk sac
(b) Rise in LH level (b) Yolk sac and allantois
(c) Fromation of corpus leuteum (c) Chorion and Amnion
(d) Rise in progestiron level (d) Chorion and allantaois

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BIOLOGY TEST 4
45. Keratin is a protein having larger amount of : (d) Sulphur cycle
(a) Phosphorus 53. PAN is
(b) Calcium (a) peroxyamyl nitrate
(c) Magnesium (b) polyoxyamy nitrate
(d) Sulphur (c)peroxoyacetyl nitrate
46. Which of the following enzymes does not obey (d) polyoxyacetyl nitrate
Km kinetics. 54. Humans cranium is formed by
(a) zymogens (a) 6 bones-all unpaired
(b) Co-enzymes (b) 8 bones-2 unpaired, 6paired
(c) Isoenzymes (c) 8 bones-2 paired, 6 unpaired
(d) Allosteric enzymes (d) 12 bones-all unpaired
47. Wax gland are present in worker bees in: 55. Monoclonal antibodies are specific antibodies
(a) hind leg for a
(b) abdominal sternite (a) single
(c) abdominal tergite (b) antigen
(d) mandible (c) single molecule
48. The fish used for control of malaria is (d) single cell
(a) Rohu 56. People recovering form long illness are often
(b) Gambusia advised to include the alga Spirulina in their diet
(c) both (a) and (b) because it
(d) none of these (a) Makes the food easy to digest
49. Energy flow through food- chain is always: (b) Is rich in proteins
(a) Cyclic (c) Has antibiotic properties
(b) Non-Cyclic (d) Restores the intestinal microflora
(c) Semi-cyclic 57. Algae are useful because they
(d) Nome of the above (a) Are large in number
50. Pyramid of number is inverted in case of : (b) Purify the atmosphere
(a) pond ecosystem (c) Are used in alcoholic fermentation
(b) Sugarcane ecosystem (d) Are used in study of photosynthesis
(c) Desert ecosystem 58. The organisms which live in the bottom of lake
(d) Grassland ecosystem are called
51. Red Data books are compiled by: (a) Phytoplankton
(a) WWF (b) Zooplankton
(b) IUCN (c) Nekton
(c) BNGS (d) Benthos
(d) WPSI 59. Laminaria (kelp) and fucus (rock weed) are the
52. A sedimentary type of biogeochemical cycle is examples of
(a) Carbon cycle (a) Green algae
(b) Hydrogen cycle (b) Brown algae
(c) Nitrogen cycle (c) Red algae

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BIOLOGY TEST 4
(d) Golden brown algae (b) RNA + Protein
60. Aspergillus niger produces (c) DNA + RNA
(a) Citric acid (d) DNA + Protein
(b) Oxalic acid 68. Bryophytes can be separated from algae because
(c) Gluconic acid they
(d) All of these (a) Are thalloid
61. Downy mildew of „jowar‟ is caused by (b) Have no conducting tissue
(a) Erysiphe graminis-tritici (c) Possess archegonia with outer layer of sterile
(b) Sclerospora sorghi cells
(c) Sphacelotheca sorghu (d) Contain chloroplast
(d) Sclerospora graminicola 69. Bryophytes are of
62. A completely closed fruiting body (ascocarp) is (a) Great ecological importance
called (b) No value
(a) Cleistothecium (c) Great economic value
(b) Aporthecium (d) A lot of aesthetic value
(c) Perithecium 70. Which of the following statements is true?
(d) Pseudothecium (a) Spores and gametes are invariably diploid
63. Of which the lichens are good indicators? (b) Spores and gametes are invariably haploid
(a) Sound pollution (c) Only gametes are invariably haploid
(b) Air pollution (d) Only spores are invariably haploid
(c) Soil pollution 71. The amphithecial origin of sporogenous tissue is
(d) Water pollution found in
64. In bacteria, plasmid is (a) Riccia
(a) Plastid (b) Funaria
(b) Extra chromosomal DNA fragment (c) Anthoceros
(c) Main DNA (d) Marchantia
(d) Repeatitive gene 72. The species of the following plant, are
65. Point out the food poisoning and gas forming sometimes described as „resurrection plants‟
rod shaped bacterium (a) Pleopeltis
(a) Clostridium (b) Lycopodium
(b) Salmonella (c) Equisetum
(c) Escherichia coli (d) Selaginella
(d) Shigellia 73. The following pteridophyte has established
66. Influenza is caused by a medicinal value
(a) Bacterium (a) Lycopodium
(b) Virus (b) Isoetes
(c) Fungus (c) Schizaea
(d) Lichen (d) Pleopeltis
67. TMV Contains 74. Maiden hair fern is
(a) DNA (a) Pteris

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BIOLOGY TEST 4
(b) Azolla 82. Which one of the following is a living fossil?
(c) Adiantum (a) Ginkgo
(d) Dryopteris (b) Cycas
75. The main plant body in pteridophytes is (c) both
(a) Sorus (d) Metasequoia
(b) Sporophyte 83. Agave multiplies vegetatively by
(c) Gametophyte (a) Rhizomes
(d) Prothallus (b) Stolons
76. Ephedrine is obtained from which part of the (c) Bulbils
plant Ephedra? (d) Suckers
(a) Flowers 84. In Opuntia the spines represent the modification
(b) Leaves of
(c) Stem (a) stem
(d) Roots (b) Leaves
77. Gymnosperms do not have (c) Roots
(a) Xylem vessels and sieve tubes (d) None of these
(b) Tracheids and sieve tubes 85. A highly reduced stem is found in
(c) Vessels, sieve tubes and companion cells (a) Corm
(d) Tracheids and companion cells (b) Rhizome
78. Gymnosperms exhibit (c) Stem tuber
(a) Circinate ptyxis (d) Bulb
(b) Shape of stem 86. What is the eye of Potato?
(c) Naked ovule (a) Apical bud
(d) All of the above (b) Accessroy bud
79. Gymposperms are dissimilar with pteridophytes (c) Axillary bud
in having (d) Advntitous bud
(a) Leaf arrangement 87. Cladode is the modification of
(b) Ovule (a) Leaf
(c) Gametophyte (b) Root
(d) None (c) Petiole
80. Living fossil is (d) Stem
(a) Cycas 88. Thorn is a modified branch because hard,
(b) Pinus straight and pointed.
(c) Ginkgo (a) It is a part of the plant
(d) Ephedra (b) It is a part of the plant
81. „Chilgoza‟ is the seed of (c) It arises in the axil of a leaf
(a) Pinus roxburghii (d) It is a defensive organ
(b) P.gegardiana 89. Which of the following is the modification of
(c) P.wallichiana leaf?
(d) P.merkusii (a) Cladode

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BIOLOGY TEST 4
(b) Phyllode (a) 1930
(c) Corm (b) 1830
(d) Phylloclade (c) 1913
90. Genetically, the pollen grains produced within (d) 1813
an anther are of 97. National Botanical Research Institute is situated
(a) One type at
(b) Two type (a) Dehradun
(c) Four type (b) Lucknow
(d) Several types (c) Simla
91. The outer wall of a pollen grain is formed of (d) Kolkata
(a) Callulose 98. The generic name of mango is
(b) Lignin (a) Mangifera indica
(c) Pecto-cellulose (b) Indica
(d) Sporopollenin (c) Mangifera
92. Germ pore is the area where the exine is (d) Indica mangifera
(a) Thick 99. The valid suffix for a family is
(b) Thick and uniform (a) -ceae
(c) Uniform (b) -aceae
(d) Absent (c) -acae
93. Pollen grains are able to withstand extremes of (d) -aeceae
temperature and desiccation because their exine 100. Central Potato Research Institute is
is composed of located at
(a) Cutin (a) Shimla
(b) Suberin (b) Calcutta
(c) Sporopollenin (c) Lucknow
(d) Callose (d) Cuttak
94. Pollen grain is the 101. Which state of India is called as „Land
(a) Male gamete of coconut‟?
(b) Male gametophyte (a) Kerala
(c) Endosperm (b) Tamil Nadu
(d) Embryo sac (c) Karnataka
95. Rarely among Angiosperms, embryo sac like (d) Andra Pradesh
organization is seen in the pollen grain. This 102. Coffee plant belongs to
abnormality is called (a) Sterculiaceae
(a) Metaxenia (b) Rubiaceae
(b) Nemec phenomenon (c) Annonaceae
(c) Xenia (d) Cruciferae
(d) Mesogamy 103. The cotyledons of the following nut are
96. An international code of botanical nomenclature green
came into being in the year (a) Juglans regia

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BIOLOGY TEST 4
(b) Pistacia ovata (c) Remains the same
(c) Anacardium occidentale (d) Becomes beaded
(d) Macademia ternifolia 111. In a sieve element, when the cell sap
104. The term heterochromatin was coined by mixes with protoplasm, it forms
(a) Warbing (a) Hyaloplasm
(b) Hammerling (b) Periplasm
(c) heitz (c) Endoplasm
(d) Morgan (d) Myctoplasm
105. DNA is present in 112. The colour of rose petals is due to water
(a) nucleus and chloroplast only soluble pigment present in the
(b) Nucleus only (a) Cytoplasm
(c) Mitochondria only (b) Nucleus
(d) In all the above (c) Intercellular space
106. Which of the following cell organelle is (d) Vacuoles
absent from prokaryotic cell? 113. Sun energy brings which of the
(a) Nuclear membrane following functions at P.S. II?
(b) Mitochondria (a) Photolysis of H2O
(c) Nucleolus (b) Reduction of CO2
(d) All of above (c) Reduction of O2
107. The main controlling centre of the cell is (d) Activation of chlorophyll molecule
the 114. Photosynthesis is correctly explained by
(a) Ribosome the equation
(b) Nucleus (a) 6CO2+12H2O C6H12O6+6O2+6H2O
(c) Nucleolus (b) 6CO2+6H2O C6H12O6+6O2+6H2O
(d) Mitochondrion (c) 6CO2+6H2O C6H12O6+6O2
108. Obliteration is crushing and absorption (d) 2CO2+12H2O C6H12O6+2CO2
of 115. Ferradoxin is the component of
(a) Sieve tubes and companion cells (a) Photosystem II
(b) Vessels and tracheids (b) P 680
(c) Both of these (c) Photosystem I
(d) Xylem and phloem parenchyma (d) Hill reaction
109. The external phloem is also called 116. After absorption of radiant energy by
(a) Abaxial phloem pigment system I, an electron is released by
(b) Included phloem (a) Chl. 683
(c) Interxylary phloem (b) Chl. 673
(d) Intraxylary phloem (c) Chl. 695
110. With aging, the thickness of the wall of (d) P 700
the sieve tube element 117. In photosynthesis, which one of the
(a) Decreases following serves as the electron acceptor?
(b) Increases (a) NADP+

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BIOLOGY TEST 4
(b) NADPH (a) Green seed colour
(c) Oxygen (b) Terminal flower position
(d) None of these (c) Wrinkled seed shape
118. Red drop in photosynthesis in green (d) Green pod colour
algae refers to decrease in the rate of 124. The 1 : 2 : 1 ratio with the pink flower in
photosynthesis in the F2 generation indicate the phenomenom of
(a) blue light (a) Dominance
(b) Green light (b) Co-dominance
(c) Red light longer than 680 nm (c) Incomplete dominance
(d) Red light shorter than 680 nm (d) Segregation
119. Which of the following photosynthetic 125. How many types of genotypes are
becteria have both PS I and PS II ? formed in F2 progeny obtained from self
(a) Green sulphur bacteria pollination of a dihybrid F1.
(b) Purple sulphur bacteria (a) 9
(c) Purple non-sulphur bacteria (b) 3
(d) Cyanobacteria (c) 6
120. Nitrogenous base present in DNA and (d) 1
not in RNA is
(a) Uracil
(b) Thymine
(c) Cytosine
(d) Guanine
121. Enzyme required for removing RNA
primer during DNA replication is
(a) DNA Polymerase III
(b) DNA Ligase
(c) DNA Polymerase I
(d) Primase
122. In snapdragon, when a red flower plant
is crossed with a white flower ones, the
resultant hybrid plant have pink coloured
flower. If plant of F1 generation is crossed with
a white flower ones, the progeny will be
(a) 10% red
(b) The red flower and white flower ratio is 3 : 1
(c) The pink flower and white flower ratio is 1 : 1
(d) The pink red and white flower ratio is 1 : 2 : 1
123. Which one of the following characters
studied by Mendel in garden pea (Pisum
sativum) was dominant?

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