Professional Documents
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Ric Remedial Law
Ric Remedial Law
I. JURISDICTION
1. It is the power and authority of the court to hear, try, and decide the case
(Continental Micronesia, Inc., vs. Basco, GR Nos. 178382-83, September 23,
2015; Barangay Mayamot vs. Antipolo City, GR No. 187349, August 17,
2016). Jurisdiction of the court includes the authority to execute its decision. It
includes the power of the court to control the execution of its decision
(Echegaray vs. Secretary of Justice, 301 SCRA 96, 108).
5. What is jurisdiction over the parties? Jurisdiction over the parties refers to
the power of the court to make decisions that are binding on persons (De
Pedro vs. Romasan, supra). It is the legal power of the court to render a
personal judgment against the party to an action or proceeding (Black’s Law
Dictionary, 5th Ed., 767, citing Imperial vs. Hardy, La 302 So.2d 5, 7, cited in
Riano, Civil Procedure, 2016).
6. How is jurisdiction over the parties acquired? Plaintiff upon the filing of
the compliant. Defendant – upon valid service of summons and voluntary
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appearance. To constitute voluntary appearance, it must be the kind that
amount to voluntary submission to the jurisdiction of the court. Submission to
the jurisdiction of the court takes the form of appearance that seeks affirmative
relief except when the relief sought is for the purpose of objecting to the
jurisdiction of the court over the person of the defendant . Thus, if he
participates in the trial despite defective service of summons, it is tantamount
to voluntary appearance (De Pedro vs. Romasan Development, supra).
7. What is the concurrent jurisdiction? When two or more court can exercise
original jurisdiction over the case. For example, certiorari petition, the RTC,
CA and SC have original and concurrent jurisdiction. If this is the case, then,
the PRINCIPLE OF HIERARCHY OF COURTS WILL APPLY.
1. It has been long settled that while a court acquires jurisdiction over the case only
upon payment of the docket fees, its non-payment at the time of the filing of
the complaint does not automatically cause the dismissal of the case, provided
the fees are paid within a reasonable time. Even inadequate payment of filing
will not divest the court of its jurisdiction. This rule is applicable even if the
claim for damages of the plaintiffs is metered or progressing as case the case
is pending
(Unicapital vs. Consing, G.R. Nos. 175277 & 175285, September 11,
2013).
IV. ACTION
2. What is an action in rem? It is an action against the thing (res) itself, rather
than against a person. It is not just binding on a particular person, but it is
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binding against the whole world. NOTE: all cases under Section 1, Rule 72
are examples of action in rem.
8. What are the elements of a cause of action? The following are the elements
of the a cause of action: (a) a right in favor of the plaintiff by whatever means
and under whatever law it arises or is created; (b) an obligation on the part of
the named defendant to respect or not to violate such right; and (c) an act or
omission on the part of the named defendant violative of the right of the
plaintiff or constituting a breach of the obligation of defendant to the plaintiff
for which the latter may maintain an action for recovery (Mercene v.
Government Service Insurance System, G.R. No. 192971, January 10,
2018).
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9. What is the test to determine whether a complaint state a cause of action
of not? If the court can render a valid judgment based on the allegation in the
complaint, the complaint states a cause of action. As a general rule, evidence
aliunde should not be considered. But annexed documents to the complaint
may be considered because they are part of the complaint (Sea Land Service,
Inc., vs. CA, 327 SCRA 135). NOTE: However, with the amendment
introduced to the 1997 Rule on Civil Procedure, evidence should be
considered in determining whether the complaint states a cause of action.
12. What are the conditions for a proper joinder of cause of action? A proper
joinder of causes of action must comply with the following conditions: 1) The
joinder shall not include special civil actions or actions governed by special
rules; 2) Where the causes of actions are between the same parties but pertain
to different venues or jurisdictions, the joinder may be allowed in the RTC
provided one of the cause of actions falls within the jurisdiction of said court
and venue lies therein; 3) Where the claims in all causes of action are
principally for recovery of money, the aggregate amount claimed shall be the
test of jurisdiction (Section 5, Rule 2).
13. When is joinder of parties allowed? All persons in whom or against whom
any right to relief in respect to or arising out of the same transaction or series
of transactions is alleged to exist, whether jointly, severally or in the
alternative, may, except as otherwise provided in these Rules, join as plaintiffs
or be joined as defendants in one complaint, where any questions of law or
fact common to all such plaintiffs or to all such defendants may arise in the
action (Section 6, Rule 3). Thus, the causes of action must arise out of the
same transaction or series of transaction and there must be common
question of fact and law between or among the parties joined.
V. PARTIES
1. Who is real party in interest? A real party in interest is the party who stand
to be benefited and injured by the judgment of the suit, or the party entitled to
the avails of the suit. Unless otherwise authorized by law or the rules of court,
every action must be prosecuted or defended in the name of the real party in
interest. (Sec. 2, Rule 3). The determination of who the real party in interest is
requires the examination of elements of a cause of action. A cause of action
involves the existence of a right and violation of such right. Thus, the owner
of the right violated is the real party in interest as plaintiff and the one
violating the right is the real party in interest as defendant.
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2. What is the effect if the party is not a real a real party-in-interest? The
complaint may be dismissed for lack of cause of action if the defendant is not
the real-party-interest (Sec.1(g), Rule 16). If the plaintiff is not the real party-
in-interest, complaint may be dismissed under (Section 1(d), Rule 16).
NOTE: Under the amendment to the Rules on Civil Procedure, failure to
state a cause of action cannot anymore be used as ground for motion to
dismiss, rather they it should not be alleged as an affirmative defense
(Section 12, Rule 8).
5. Who is a necessary party? It is one who is not indispensable but who ought
to be joined as a party if complete relief is to be accorded as to those already
parties, or for a complete determination or settlement of the claim subject of
the action (Sec. 8, Rule 3).
7. May the Court order joinder of necessary party? If the reason given for the
non-joinder of necessary party is found by the court not meritorious, it may
order the pleader to join the omitted party if jurisdiction over his person may
be obtained (Sec. 9, Rule 3).
8. What is the effect of failure to comply with the order of the Court? It shall
be deemed a waiver of claim against such party. (Sec. 9, Rule 3)
12. What is a class suit? When the subject matter of controversy is one of
common or general interest to many persons so numerous that it is
impracticable to join them all as parties, a number of them which the court
finds to be sufficiently numerous and representative as to fully protect the
interest of all concerned may sue or defend for the benefit of all. (Sec. 12,
Rule 3).
13. Requisites of class suits. 1) The subject matter of the controversy is one of
common or general interest to many persons. 2) The parties are so numerous
that it is impracticable to bring them all before the court. 3) The object of the
suit is to obtain relief for or against numerous persons.
14. What is common or general interest? A class suit does not require a
commonality of interest in the questions involved in the suit. What is required
by the Rules is a common or general interest in the subject matter of the
litigation. The “subject matter” of the litigation meant the physical, the things
real or personal, the money, lands, chattels, and the like, in relation to the suit
which is prosecuted and not the delict or wrong committed by the defendant
(Mathay vs. Consolidated Bank & Trust Co., 58, SCRA 559, 571).
15. What is the duty of the lawyer if case of a party dies? If the party dies and
the claim is not extinguished, his duty is to inform the court of such fact
within 30 days after such death and to give the name and address of the legal
representatives of the deceased party. (Sec. 16, Rule 3).
16. May the heirs of the deceased party be allowed to substitute? Yes. The
heirs of the deceased may be allowed to be substituted for the deceased
without need for the appointment of executor or administrator (Sec. 16, Rule
3).
17. What is the rule in an action for sum of money if one of the defendant
dies? When the action is for recovery of money, arising from contract, express
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or implied and the defendant dies before entry of final judgment in the court in
which the action was pending at the time of such death, it shall not be
dismissed but it shall be allowed to continue until final judgment. Favorable
judgement shall be claimed in the estate proceedings of the deceased
defendant (Sec. 20, Rule 3). NOTE: The favorable judgement cannot be in
action for sum of money arising from contract express or implied when
the defendant dies cannot be subject of motion for execution. The
judgment shall be filed as a claim in the settlement of estate pursuant to
Section 5, Rule 86. HOWEVER: if the action for sum of money based on
injury to person or property, it need not be filed in the settlement of estate
because it may be executed against the executor or administrator (Section 1,
Rule 87).
18. What are actions that survive? The following actions survive: a) action to
recover real or personal property; b) action to enforce lien thereon; c) action to
recover damages for an injury to person; d) action for quasi-delict (Section 1,
Rule 87).
VI. VENUE
1. Venue is the place or the geographical area in which a court with jurisdiction
may hear and determine a case or the place where a case is to be tried (Black’s
Law Dictionary; City of Lapu-Lapu vs. PEZA, GR No. 184203, November
26, 2014). Venue in civil cases is procedural and not substantive. Thus, it may
be waived or subject to agreement of the parties.
8. The case of Paglaum involves multiple contracts (real estate mortgage 1, 2 and
3, then a restructuring agreement). There different venues stipulated. In the
first contract, it is Manila excluding all other venues. In the 2nd contract, Cebu
excluding all other venues. The party defaulted in its obligation so the loan
was restructured. A new one was executed and then there is now a venue
stipulation. Which venue stipulation will apply in the event of litigation? It
will be the most recent one. Because it supersedes the other contracts
(Paglaum
Management Development Corp., vs. Union Bank, G.R. No.
179018, April 17, 2018).
9. What if a promissory note has no venue stipulation, but there is a mother loan
agreement. The amount appearing on the promissory note was not paid when
due so an action for collection for sum of money was instituted. What venue
will have to be followed? The Supreme Court said that if the mother contract
was directly connected and intertwined with the promissory note, then the
promissory note will be bound by the venue stipulation.
VII. PLEADINGS
2. May grounds for Motion to Dismiss under Section 1, Rule 16 of the 1997
Rules on Civil Procedure be alleged as affirmatives defenses? Yes. The last
paragraph of Section 5, Rule 6 provides: Affirmative defenses may also
include grounds for the dismissal of a complaint, specifically, that the court
has no jurisdiction over the subject matter, that there is another action pending
between the same parties for the same cause, or that the action is barred by a
prior judgment.
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3. Is Motion to Dismiss under Rule 16 of the old Rule still allowed? The
general rule is that it is not allowed. There are only four grounds by which a
Motion to Dismiss may be filed, that is based on the following grounds: 1)
lack of jurisdiction over the subject matter; 2) litis pendencia; 3) res
judicata; and, 4) prescription (Section 12, Rule 15).
5. What should the court do if affirmative defenses are raised? The Court
should resolve them within a period of thirty (30) days from the filing of the
Answer. The Court may conduct summary hearing for fifteen (15) days if the
grounds relied upon are those provided in Section 5(b), Rule 6 and should
resolve the same within thirty (30) days from the termination of the summary
hearing (Section 12, Rule
8).
6. If the Court denies the affirmative defenses, may defendant file a Motion
for Reconsideration, Petition for Certiorari, Prohibition or Mandamus?
NO. The new Rules provide that
“affirmative defenses, if denied, shall not be the subject of a motion for
reconsideration or petition for certiorari, prohibition or mandamus, but may
be among the matters to be raised on appeal after a judgment on the merits”
(Section 12(e), Rule 8).
7. If the Court grants the affirmative defenses, may the plaintiff file a
motion for reconsideration or certiorari? YES. Motion for reconsideration
or certiorari is prohibited only when the Court denies the affirmative defenses.
But when the grants the affirmative defenses, it will lead to the dismissal of
the case which may either be dismissal with prejudice or dismissal without
prejudice. The remedy if dismissal with prejudice is appeal (Section 13, Rule
12). Hence, motion for reconsideration may be filed prior to appeal under Rule
37. On the other hand, if dismissal is without prejudice, the remedy is
certiorari under Section 1, Rule 41. And motion for reconsideration is a
condition for the filing of certiorari.
10. What is the effect of failure to plead counterclaim? A counterclaim not set
up shall be barred (Sec. 7, Rule 6). However, a counterclaim which either
matured or was acquired by a party after serving his pleading may, with the
permission of the court, be presented as counterclaim by supplemental
pleading before judgment (Sec. 9, Rule 11).
11. If the amount of the counterclaim exceeds the jurisdiction of the court,
what is the effect? The counterclaim cannot be treated as compulsory, but
permissive since the amount exceeds the jurisdiction of the Court.
12. What if the amount claimed as counterclaim is not within the jurisdiction
of the RTC, can the latter court dismiss said counterclaim? No. When the
original action is filed with the RTC, the counterclaim may be deemed
compulsory regardless of the amount (Sec. 7, Rule 6).
13. Can a party file a Motion to Dismiss with counterclaim? No. If the
dismissal of the main action results in the dismissal of the counterclaim
already filed, it stands to reason that the filing of a motion to dismiss the
complaint is an implied waiver of the compulsory counterclaim because the
grant of the motion ultimately results in the dismissal of the counterclaim
(Financial Building Corp. vs. Forbes Park Association, 338 SCRA 346,
354).
14. What is a crossclaim. A crossclaim is any claim by one party against a co-
party arising out of the transaction or occurrence that is the subject matter
either of the original action or of a counterclaim therein. Such crossclaim may
cover all or part of the original claim (Section 8, Rule 6).
15. What is the effect if a crossclaim is not set-up? It shall be barred (Sec. 2,
Rule 9). NOTE: the cross-claim that is considered barred is the cross-claim
already existing at the time the answer is filed, not the cross-claim that may
mature or may be acquired after service of the answer. As to the latter Section
9, Rule 11 declares that it may, by leave of court, be presented by
supplemental pleading before judgment.
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16. What are the grounds to deny third-party claim? The third
(fourth, etc.)-party complaint shall be denied admission, and the court shall
require the defendant to institute a separate action, where: (a) the third (fourth,
etc.)-party defendant cannot be located within thirty (30) calendar days from
the grant of such leave; (b) matters extraneous to the issue in the principal
case are raised; or (c) the effect would be to introduce a new and separate
controversy into the action (Section 11, Rule 6).
17. What are the content requirements of a pleading? The following must be
stated in a pleading: a) name of the witnesses; b) summary of their respective
testimonies; c) judicial affidavits of the witnesses must be attached to the
pleading; and, d) object and documentary evidence (Section 6, Rule 7).
18. What is the effect if the judicial affidavit of the witnesses are not attached
to the pleading? They may not be allowed to testify (Section 6, Rule 7).
19. Amendment of the Pleading. A party may amend his pleading once as a
matter of right at any time before a responsive pleading is served or, in the
case of a reply, at any time within ten (10) days after it is served (Section 2,
Rule 10). Except as provided in the next preceding Section, substantial
amendments may be made only upon leave of court. But such leave shall be
refused if it appears to the court that the motion was made with intent to
delay or confer jurisdiction on the court, or the pleading stated no cause
of action from the beginning which could be amended (Section 3, Rule
10). PLEASE TAKE NOTE: There are now grounds to deny the motion for
leave to admit amended pleading. The grounds are provided in Section 3, Rule
10.
22. Debtor executed 3 PN’s in favour of the Creditor. One of the PN’s became due
and demandable. Thus, debtor not paying the PN, creditor filed a collection
suit against the debtor. While the case is pending, the other PNs became due
and demandable also. The Creditor included the last two PN as evidences in
the case pending. It was introduced without the objection of the Debtor? Can
the Court render judgment on the last two PNs? NO. Section 5 thereof
applies to situations wherein evidence not within the issues raised in the
pleadings is presented by the parties during the trial, and to conform to such
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evidence the pleadings are subsequently amended on motion of a party. Thus,
a complaint which fails to state a cause of action may be cured by evidence
presented during the trial. However, the curing effect under Section 5 is
applicable only if a cause of action in fact exists at the time the complaint is
filed, but the complaint is defective for failure to allege the essential facts
(Swagman Hotels and Travel vs. CA, 455 SCRA 175).
28. What are the defenses which are incompatible with the admission of the
due execution and genuineness of the actionable document? The following
defenses are cut off: a) Forgery of document; b) Lack of authority to execute
the document; c) The party charged signed the document in some other
capacity than that alleged in the pleading; d) The document was never
delivered; e) Document was not in the words and figures as set out in the
pleading (See: Hibberd vs. Rohde and Mcmillian, 32 Phil. 476; Imperial
Textile Mills vs. CA, 183 SCRA 584).
1. What are the modes of filing? The following are the modes of filing:
a) Submitting personally the original thereof, plainly indicated as such, to the
court; b) Sending them by registered mail; c) Sending them by accredited
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courier; or d) Transmitting them by electronic mail or other electronic means
as may be authorized by the Court in places where the court is electronically
equipped (Section 2, Rule 13).
2. What are the modes of service? The following are the modes of service: a)
personal service; b) mail; c) accredited courier; d) electronic mail, facsimile
transmission, other electronic means as may
be authorized by the Court; or e) as provided for in international conventions
to which the Philippines is a party (Section 5, Rule 13).
10. What is the meaning of “reasonable time” under the rules? To the sheriff,
reasonable time means 15 to 30 days because at the end of the month, it is a
practice for the branch clerk of court to require the sheriff to submit a return of
the summons assigned to the sheriff for service. The Sheriffs Return provides
data to the Clerk of Court, which the clerk uses in the Monthly Report of
Cases to be submitted to the Office of the Court Administrator within the first
ten (10) days of the succeeding month. Thus, one month from the issuance
of summons can be considered reasonable time with regard to personal
service on the defendant (OCA vs. Cabrera-Faller, A.M. Nos. RTJ-11-
2301-2303, January 16, 2018).
11. How is service of summons effected upon a domestic private entity? When
the defendant is a corporation, partnership or association organized under the
laws of the Philippines with a juridical personality, service may be made on
the president, managing partner, general manager, corporate secretary,
treasurer, or in-house counsel of the corporation wherever they may be found,
or in their absence or unavailability, on their secretaries. If such service cannot
be made upon any of the foregoing persons, it shall be made upon the person
who customarily receives the correspondence for the defendant at its principal
office. In case the domestic juridical entity is under receivership or liquidation,
service of summons shall be made on the receiver or liquidator, as the case
may be. Should there be a refusal on the part of the persons above-mentioned
to receive summons despite at least three (3) attempts on two (2) separate
dates, service may be made electronically, if allowed by the court, as provided
under Section 6 of this rule (Section 12, Rule 14).
13. NOTE: The court reiterated the rule that the impossibility of prompt, personal
service should be shown by stating in the proof of service that efforts were
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made to find the defendant personally and that said efforts failed; hence resort
to substituted service. Since no such explanation was made, there was a failure
to faithfully, strictly, and fully comply with the requirements of substituted
service (Miranda vs. Court of Appeals, 326 SCRA 278).
1. What is the procedure for non-litigious motion? The Court shall resolve the
non-litigious motion within five (5) days from filing (Section 4, Rule 15).
2. What is the procedure for litigious motion? The movant shall serve copy of
the litigious motion to the opposite party. The opposite party shall file his or
her comment or opposition within five (5) days from receipt thereof. The
Court shall resolve the motion within fifteen (15) days from receipt of the
comment or opposition or the expiration of the period to file the same (Section
5, Rule 15).
5. What are the grounds that if granted would make the dismissal with
prejudice? The following grounds if granted would make the dismissal with
prejudice: 1) res judicata; 2) prescription; 3) extinguishment of obligation; and
4) statute of frauds (Section 1, Rule 15).
7. What are the grounds by which the court may dismiss the case due to the
fault of the plaintiff? The court may dismiss the action on the following
grounds: 1) Failure of the plaintiff to present evidence in chief; 2) Failure to
prosecute his action for an unreasonable period of time; 3) Failure of the
plaintiff to comply with the Rules of Court; 4) Failure of the plaintiff to
comply with the order of the court. NOTE: the dismissal on these grounds is
with prejudice unless otherwise ordered by the Court.
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3. Deposition. It is the taking of testimony of any person, whether he be a party
or not, but at the instance of a party to the action. This testimony is taken out
of court.
9. What may be asked during the taking of deposition? Rule 23, SECTION
2. Scope of examination. — Unless otherwise ordered by the court as
provided by Section 16 or 18 of this Rule, the deponent may be examined
regarding any matter, not privileged, which is relevant to the subject of the
pending action, whether relating to the claim or defense of any other party,
including the existence, description, nature, custody, condition, and location of
any books, documents, or other tangible things and the identity and location of
persons having knowledge of relevant facts.
12. Interrogatories under Rule 23 & Rule 25: Rule 23 – 1) There is deposition
officer; 2) Questions are prepared beforehand; 3) Party or not may be taken.
Rule 25 – 1) No deposition officer; 2) Directed to parties; 3) Not applicable to
stranger.
14. Admission by the adverse Party. RULE 26, SECTION 1. Request for
Admission. — At any time after issues have been joined, a party may file and
serve upon any other party a written request for the admission by the latter of
the genuineness of any material and relevant document described in and
exhibited with the request or of the truth of any material and relevant matter of
fact set forth in the request. Copies of the documents shall be delivered with
the request unless copies have already been furnished.
15. Failure to act on the request for admission, the effect is implied
admission. RULE 26, SECTION 2. Implied Admission. — Each of the
matters of which an admission is requested shall be deemed admitted unless,
within a period designated in the request, which shall not be less than fifteen
(15) days after service thereof, or within such further time as the court may
allow on motion, the party to whom the request is directed files and serves
upon the party requesting the admission a sworn statement either denying
specifically the matters of
which an admission is requested or setting forth in detail the reasons why he
cannot truthfully either admit or deny those matters.
17. Effect of failure to file and serve request. RULE 26, SECTION 5. Effect of
Failure to File and Serve Request for Admission. — Unless otherwise
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allowed by the court for good cause shown and to prevent a failure of justice,
a party who fails to file and serve a request for admission on the adverse party
of material and relevant facts at issue which are, or ought to be, within the
personal knowledge of the latter, shall not be permitted to present evidence on
such facts.
18. Po vs. CA, 164 SCRA 668. A party should not be compelled to admit matters
of fact already admitted by his pleading and concerning which there is no
issue, nor should he be required to make a second denial of those already
denied in his answer to the complaint. A request for admission is not intended
to merely reproduce or reiterate the allegations of the requesting party's
pleading but should set forth relevant evidentiary matters of fact, or
documents described in and exhibited with the request, whose purpose is to
establish said party's cause of action or defense. Unless it serves that purpose,
it is, as correctly observed by the Court of Appeals, 'pointless, useless' and 'a
mere redundancy.'
20. When may the physical and mental examination be ordered. In an action
in which the mental or physical condition of a party is in controversy, the
court in which the action is pending may in its discretion order him to submit
to a physical or mental examination by a physician (Section 1, Rule 28).
21. The order for examination may be made only on motion for good cause
shown and upon notice to the party to be examined and to all other
parties, and shall specify the time, place, manner, conditions and scope of
the examination and the person or persons by whom it is to be made
(Section 2, Rule 28).
22. If requested by the party examined, the party causing the examination to be
made shall deliver to him a copy of a detailed written report of the examining
physician setting out his findings and conclusions. After such request and
delivery, the party causing the examination to be made shall be entitled upon
request to receive from the party examined a like report of any examination,
previously or thereafter made, of the same mental or physical condition. If the
party examined refuses to deliver such report, the court on motion and notice
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may make an order requiring delivery on such terms as are just, and if a
physician fails or refuses to make such a report the court may exclude his
testimony if offered at the trial (Section 3, Rule 28).
1. When is the proper time to file Demurrer to Evidence? After the plaintiff
has completed the presentation of his evidence, the defendant may move for
dismissal on the ground that upon the facts and the law the plaintiff has shown
no right to relief.
2. What is the effect if the motion is denied? How about if the motion is
granted but reversed on appeal? If his motion is denied, he shall have the
right to present evidence. If the motion is granted but on appeal the order of
dismissal is reversed, he shall be deemed to have waived the right to present
evidence.
7. Who may file a motion for summary judgment? RULE 25, SECTION 1.
Summary Judgment for Claimant. — A party seeking to recover upon a
claim, counterclaim, or cross-claim or to obtain a declaratory relief may, at
any time after the pleading in answer thereto has been served, move with
supporting affidavits, depositions
or admissions for a summary judgment in his favor upon all or any part
thereof. SECTION 2. Summary Judgment for Defending Party. — A party
against whom a claim, counterclaim, or cross-claim is asserted or a
declaratory relief is sought may, at any time, move with supporting affidavits
depositions or admissions for a summary judgment in his favor as to all or any
part thereof. PLEASE TAKE NOTE: The Court may motu proprio
declare that it would render judgment on the pleadings or summary
judgment
(Section 10, Rule 18).
3. Are all final orders appealable? NO. For instance, dismissal of an action
without prejudice is a final order but is not appealable.
5. Petition for Relief from Judgment. A) What is the subject matter of the
Petition? – Judgment, Final order; Other proceedings; Order denying the
appeal (Sec.2, Rule 38). B) What are the grounds? - Fraud, Accident,
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Mistake, Excusable Negligence (FAME). C) Where to file? - Court which
rendered the judgment, final order, order denying appeal or court which
conducted the proceedings.
6. What is the period to file Petition for Relief from Judgment? A petition
provided for in either of the preceding sections of this Rule must be verified,
filed within sixty (60) days after the petitioner learns of the judgment, final
order, or other proceeding to be set aside, and not more than six (6) months
after such judgment or final order was entered, or such proceeding was taken
(Section 3, Rule 38).
7. Annulment of Judgment. What is the coverage? This Rule shall govern the
annulment by the Court of Appeals of judgments or final orders and
resolutions in civil actions of Regional Trial Courts for which the ordinary
remedies of new trial, appeal, petition for relief or other appropriate remedies
are no longer available through no fault of the petitioner (Sec. 1, Rule 47).
8. What are the grounds? Extrinsic Fraud and Lack of Jurisdiction. Fraud is
regarded as extrinsic where it prevents a party from having a trial or from
presenting his entire case to the court or where it operates upon matters
pertaining not to the judgment itself but the manner in which it is procured.
The overriding consideration when extrinsic fraud is alleged is that the
fraudulent scheme of the prevailing party litigant prevented a party from
having his day in court (Alaban vs. CA, 470 SCRA 697).
9. What is the period to file? If based on extrinsic fraud, the action must be
filed within four (4) years from its discovery; and if based on lack of
jurisdiction, before it is barred by laches or estoppel.
5. Is it necessary for the court to have acquired jurisdiction over the person
of the defendant when the writ is implemented? Yes, because under the
rules: “No levy on attachment pursuant to the writ issued under Section 2
hereof shall be enforced unless it is preceded, or contemporaneously
accompanied, by service of summons, together with a copy of the complaint,
the application for attachment, the applicant's affidavit and bond, and the
order and writ of attachment, on the defendant within the Philippines.” (Sec.
5, Rule 57) Thus, there must be prior or contemporaneous service of
summons.
7. May a property under custodia legis be attached? Yes. Under the Rules: If
the property sought to be attached in custodia legis, a copy of the writ of
attachment shall be filed with the proper court or quasijudicial agency, and
notice of the attachment served upon the custodian of such property (Sec. 7,
Rule 57).
8. Supposing sheriff attached the property of the third party, what are the
remedies of the latter if any? He may avail the remedy of terceria (Sec. 14,
Rule 57). The third party-claimant may also invoke the court’s authority in the
same case and move for a summary hearing on his claim. If his claim is
meritorious, the court shall lift the attachment (Ching vs. CA, 423 SCRA 356).
The third party may file a separate civil action to nullify the levy (Ching, id.).
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9. What are grounds which may be invoked in the motion to discharge
attachment? 1) Attachment was improperly or irregularly issued; 2) Bond is
insufficient; 3) Attachment is excessive with respect to the excess; 4) Property
is exempt from execution.
10. May a party whose property was attached recover damages from the
attaching party though the former lost the case? Yes. This is implied from
Section 20, Rule 57 which provides that: “An application for damages on
account of improper, irregular or excessive attachment must be filed before
the trial or before appeal is perfected or before the judgment becomes
executory, with due notice to the attaching party and his surety or sureties.”
(Carlos vs. Sandoval, 471 ACRA 266, 289-290).
12. What are the grounds for the issuance of a preliminary injunction?
Section 3, Rule 58 can be capsulized as follows: (1) there exists a clear and
unmistakable right to be protected; (2) this right is directly threatened by an
act sought to be enjoined; (3) the invasion of the right is material and
substantial; and (4) there is an urgent and paramount necessity for the writ to
prevent serious and irreparable damage (Spouses Dulnuan vs. MBTC, July
8, 2015).
14. Are there exceptions? YES. Where the summons could not be served
personally or by substituted service despite diligent efforts, or the adverse
party is a resident of the Philippines temporarily absent therefrom or is a
nonresident thereof, the requirement of prior or contemporaneous service of
summons shall not apply (Sec. 4 (c), Rule 58).
17. May TRO be issued by the EJ? If the matter is of extreme urgency and the
applicant will suffer grave injustice and irreparable injury, the executive judge
of a multiple-sala court or the presiding judge of a single-sala court may issue
ex-parte a temporary restraining order effective for only seventy-two (72)
hours from issuance but he shall immediately comply with the provisions of
the next preceding section as to service of summons and the documents to be
served therewith (Sec. 5, Rule 58).
18. What should the judge where the case is raffled do after the EJ issued the
72-hour TRO? Within the aforesaid seventy-two (72) hours, the judge before
whom the case is raffled shall conduct a summary hearing to determine
whether the temporary restraining order shall be extended until the application
for preliminary injunction can be heard. In no case shall the total period of
effectivity of the temporary restraining order exceed twenty (20) days,
including the original seventy-two hours provided herein (Sec. 5, Rule 57).
19. Is 20-day TRO extendible? NO. The Rules provide: “In no case shall the
total period of effectivity of the temporary restraining order exceed twenty
(20) days, including the original seventy-two hours provided herein.” (Sect. 5,
Rule 58).
5. PLEASE TAKE NOTE: Declaratory relief must be filed before any breach
or violation. If the law or contract has been violated prior to the filing of
declaratory relief, the latter recourse should be dismissed (Malana vs. Tappa,
600 SCRA 189). BUT: If the breached occurred during the pendency of
declaratory relief, the latter will be converted to ordinary civil action (Sec. 6,
Rule 63).
6. What are the subject matter in a petition for declaratory relief? Deed;
Will; Contract or other written instrument; Statute; Executive order or
regulation; Ordinance; Any other governmental regulation.
NOTE: These are exclusive.
7. Which court has jurisdiction? The RTC has jurisdiction as declaratory relief
raises issue which is incapable of pecuniary estimation (Sec. 19[1], BP 129;
Sec.1, Rule 63). SC has no original jurisdiction over declaratory relief (Clark
Investors and Locators Assn. vs. Secretary, July 6, 2015). If the action is for
quieting of title to real property, the jurisdiction depends upon the assessed
value of the real property (Heirs of Valeriano S. Concha vs. SPS Lumucso,
540 SCRA 1, 16). Action for reformation of contract should be treated as
action in capable of pecuniary estimation, hence RTC. An action for
consolidation of ownership is an action incapable of pecuniary estimation
(Cruz vs. Leis, 327 SCRA 570).
9. Rule 45 vs. Rule 65. 1) Certiorari under Rule 45 is a mode of appeal while
certiorari under Rule 65 is a special civil action. 2) Certiorari under Rule 45 is
just a continuation of the appellate process of the original case, but under Rule
65, it is an original action. 3) Certiorari under Rule 45 seeks to review the
judgment while certiorari under Rule 65 seeks to annul the proceedings or
judgment. 4) Certiorari under Rule 45 raises questions of law while under
Rule 65, it raises question of jurisdiction. 5) Certiorari under Rule 45 is to be
filed within 15 days from receipt of judgment or final order while the period to
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file certiorari under Rule 65 is either 30 or 60 day. 5) Certiorari under Rule 45
does not require filing of MR, while in certiorari under Rule 65, the filing of
MR is required. 6) The parties in certiorari under Rule 45 are the same parties
to the action while the parties in Rule 65 are the tribunal, board or officer
exercising quasijudicial function. 7) Certiorari under Rule 45 may only be
filed before SC, while certiorari under Rule 65 may be filed with the RTC.
10. Essential requisites for a petition for certiorari. 1. The petition is directed
against a tribunal, board, or officer exercising judicial or quasi-judicial
functions. 2. Such tribunal, board, or officer has acted without or in excess of
jurisdiction or with grave abuse of discretion amounting to lack or excess of
jurisdiction. 3. There is neither appeal nor plain, speedy or adequate remedy in
the ordinary course of law for the purpose annulling or modifying the
proceeding.
11. Expanded scope of Certiorari. “Petition for certiorari and prohibition are
appropriate remedies to raise constitutional issues and to review and/or
prohibit or nullify the acts of legislative and executive officials” (Araullo vs.
Aquino, III, July 1, 2014). The basis of this pronouncement is the second
paragraph of Section 1, Article
VIII of the Constitution. NOTE: Certiorari may be used to assail the validity
or constitutionality of the statute.
12. Does the filing of petition stay the proceedings? NO. The petition shall not
interrupt the course of the principal case unless a temporary restraining order
or a writ of preliminary injunction has been issued against the public
respondent from further proceeding in the case (Sec. 7, Rule 65).
13. What is the period to file the petition? The petition may be filed not later
than sixty (60) days from notice of the judgment, order or resolution sought to
be assailed in the Supreme Court or, if it relates to the acts or omissions of a
lower court or of a corporation, board, officer or person, in the Regional Trial
Court exercising jurisdiction over the territorial area as defined by the
Supreme Court. It may also be filed in the Court of Appeals whether or not
the same is in aid of its appellate jurisdiction, or in the Sandiganbayan if it is
in aid of its jurisdiction. If it involves the acts or omissions of a quasi-judicial
agency, and unless otherwise provided by law or these Rules, the petition shall
be filed in and cognizable only by the Court of Appeals. (Sec. 4, Rule 65).
14. May the period be extended? Yes, when: Most persuasive and weighty
reasons. To relieve a litigant from injustice. Good faith of the defaulting party.
Compelling circumstances. Merits of the case. Cause not entirely attributable
to the defaulting party. No showing that it is frivolous. In the name of
substantial justice and fair play. Importance of issues involved (Labao vs.
Flores, 634 SCRA 723).
19. Mandamus will lie to compel the doing of a ministerial act. The act is
ministerial if the act is should be performed under a given state of facts, in a
prescribed manner, in obedience to the mandate of a legal authority, without
regard to the exercise of judgment upon the propriety or impropriety of the act
done (Cudia vs. Superintendent of PMA, February 24, 2015).
21. Quo warranto that may be brought by the government: (a) Against a
person who usurps, intrudes into, or unlawfully holds or exercises a public
office, position or franchise; (b) Against a public officer who does or suffers
an act which, by the provision of law, constitutes a ground for the forfeiture of
his office; or (c) Against an association which acts as a corporation within the
Philippines without being legally incorporated or without lawful authority so
to act (Sec. 1, Rule 66).
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23. What is the jurisdiction and venue of petition? An action under the
preceding six sections can be brought only in the Supreme Court, the Court
of Appeals, or in the Regional Trial Court exercising jurisdiction over the
territorial area where the respondent or any of the respondents resides, but
when the Solicitor General commences the action, it may be brought in a
Regional Trial Court in the City of Manila, in the Court of Appeals, or in the
Supreme Court (Sec. 7, Rule 66).
24. What is the period for the filing of petition? Nothing contained in this Rule
shall be construed to authorize an action against a public officer or employee
for his ouster from office unless the same be commenced within one (1) year
after the cause of such ouster, or the right of the petitioner to hold such
office or position, arose; nor to authorize an action for damages in
accordance with the provisions of the next preceding section unless the same
be commenced within one (1) year after the entry of the judgment establishing
the petitioner's right to the office in question (Sec. 11, Rule 66).
25. Expropriation. Can the government divert the use of property taken
different from the purpose for which the
petition was filed? No. a condemnor should commit the use of the property
pursuant to the purpose stated in the petition for expropriation, failing which it
should file another petition for new purpose. If not, then it behooves the
condemnor to return the said property to its owner, if the latter so desires
(Vda. De Ounao vs. Republic, 642 SCRA 385, 409).
27. Which court has jurisdiction? It is the RTC has jurisdiction because
petition for expropriation is an action incapable of pecuniary estimation
regardless of the value of the subject property (Barangay San Roque vs.
Hiers of Pastor, 334 SCRA 127, 134).
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29. Please take note: If a indebtedness subject to mortgage, the creditor has the
following alternative remedies: 1) To file an action for collection of sum of
money. 2) To foreclose the mortgage. The remedies are mutually exclusive;
such that the availment of one, excludes the other. Therefore, if one files a
collection suit and then thereafter files a petition for foreclosure of mortgage,
the same constitute a splitting of cause of action (Bank of America, NT & SA
vs. Amreican Realty Corp, 321 SCRA 659, 667-669; Marilag vs. martinez,
July 22, 2015).
32. What is equity of redemption? It is the period within which the mortgagor
may start exercising his equity of redemption, which is the right to extinguish
the mortgage and retain ownership of the property by paying the debt. The
payment may be made even after the foreclosure sale provided it is made
before the sale is confirmed by court (GSIS vs. CFI, 175 SCRA 19, 25).
33. What is the effect if the mortgagor failed to pay the sum due within the
period given? The court, upon motion, shall order the property to be sold in
the manner and under the provisions of Rule 39 and other regulations
governing sales of real estate under execution (Sec. 3, Rule 57). There should
be motion, but the motion is ex-parte (Govt. of PI vs. De Las Lajigas, 55
Phil 668, 672).
34. What should the mortgagee do, after the sale of the mortgage property is
made? He should file a motion for confirmation of sale (Sec. 3. Rule 68).
Here the motion requires notice and hearing (Tiglao vs. Botones, 90 Phil.
275, 278). The confirmation of sale shall operate to divest the rights in the
property of all the parties to action and vest the rights in the purchaser, subject
to the rights of redemption under the law (Sec. 3, Rule 68). Order of
confirmation is appealable.
35. What is the effect of finality of the confirmation of the sale? Upon the
finality of the order of confirmation or upon the expiration of the period of
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redemption when allowed by law, the purchaser at the auction sale or last
redemptioner, if any, shall be entitled to the possession of the property unless
a third party is actually holding the same adversely to the judgment obligor.
The said purchaser or last redemptioner may secure a writ of possession, upon
motion, from the court which ordered the foreclosure (Sec. 3, Rule 68). The
motion is ex-parte (Carlos vs. CA, 537 SCRA 247, 253).
36. Is the mortgagee entitled to deficiency? YES. If upon the sale of any real
property, there be a balance due to the plaintiff after applying the proceeds of
the sale, the court, upon motion, shall render judgment against the defendant
for any such balance for which he may be personally liable to the plaintiff,
upon which execution may issue immediately if the balance is all due at the
time of the rendition of the judgment; otherwise, the plaintiff shall be entitled
to execution at such time as the balance remaining becomes due under the
terms of the original contract, which time shall be stated in the judgment (Sec.
6, Rule 68).
37. Is there still a need to file a separate case to recover the deficiency? No
need. A motion for the recovery of deficiency can be filed in the same court
where judicial foreclosure was filed (Sec. 6, Rule 68).
38. Forcible entry and unlawful Detainer. What are the two causes of actions
under Rule 70? 1) Forcible entry – an action to recover possession of a
property from the defendant whose occupation thereof is illegal from the
beginning since he acquired possession by force, intimidation, threat, strategy
or stealth. 2) Unlawful detainer – an action for recovery of possession from
the defendant whose possession of the property was lawful from the
beginning, but became illegal when he continued his possession despite the
termination of his right thereunder (Sarmieta vs. Manalite Homeowners
Association, 632 SCRA 538, 546).
39. What should be alleged in forcible entry? Plaintiff had prior physical
possession. And, that defendant deprived plaintiff of his possession by means
of force, intimidation, threat, strategy or stealth (FITSS).
41. What is the meaning of prior physical possession in forcible entry cases?
While prior physical possession is an indispensable requirement in forcible
entry cases, emphasis should be made however that possession can be
acquired not only by material occupation, but also by the fact that a thing is
subject to the action of one's will or by the proper acts and legal formalities
33
established for acquiring such right. Possession can be acquired by juridical
acts. These are acts to which the law gives the force of acts of possession.
Juridical acts were sufficient to establish the plaintiff's prior possession of the
subject property (Mangaser vs. Ugay, December 3, 2014).
43. What is the effect if there is failure to alleged facts necessary for forcible
entry and unlawful detainer? The jurisdictional facts must appear on the
face of the complaint. When the complaint fails to aver facts constitutive of
forcible entry or unlawful detainer, as where it does not state how entry was
effected or how and when dispossession started, the remedy should either be
an accion publiciana or accion reinvindicatoria (Jose vs. Alfuerto,
November 26, 2012; Suarez vs. Emboy, March 12, 2014).
44. Please take note: When the entry is by stealth, the one-year period to file
action should reckoned from the discovery of entry (Nunez vs. SLTEAS
Phoenix Solutions, Inc., 618 SCRA 134, 142). When possession is by
tolerance, it becomes illegal upon demand to vacate by the owner and the
possessor by tolerance refuses to comply with such demand (Piedad vs.
Gurieza, June 18, 2014). The rule on tolerance does not apply in a case where
there was forcible entry at the start (Munoz vs. CA, 214 SCRA 216, 224).
Hence, in this case, unlawful detainer is not the proper remedy (Jose vs.
Alfuerto, November 26, 2012).
45. Unlawful detainer in lease contract cases. Unless otherwise stipulated, such
action by the lessor shall be commenced only after demand to pay or comply
with the conditions of the lease and to vacate is made upon the lessee, or by
serving written notice of such demand upon the person found on the premises,
or by posting such notice on the premises if no person be found thereon, and
the lessee fails to comply therewith after fifteen (15) days in the case of land
or five (5) days in the case of buildings (Sec. 2, Rule 70).
46. Demand is to “pay unpaid rental or to vacate”. Will this make out a case
of unlawful detainer? No. It should be demand to pay and vacate. A demand
in the alternative to pay the increased rental or otherwise vacate the land is not
a demand that will give rise to an unlawful detainer case (Penas vs. CA, 233
SCRA 744, 747).
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47. Is there default in ejectment cases? NO. Should the defendant
fail to answer the complaint within the period above provided, the court, motu
proprio or on motion of the plaintiff, shall render judgment as may be
warranted by the facts alleged in the complaint and limited to what is prayed
for therein (Sec. 7, Rule 70).
48. What should the court do in case tenancy relationship is alleged in the
49. How to stay the execution of judgment? Appeal is perfected and the
defendant files a sufficient supersedeas bond, approved by the Municipal Trial
Court and executed in favor of the plaintiff to pay the rents, damages, and
costs accruing down to the time of the judgment appealed from. (Sec. 19, Rule
70). In the absence of a contract, he shall deposit with the Regional Trial
Court the reasonable value of the use and occupation of the premises for the
preceding month or period at the rate determined by the judgment of the lower
court on or before the tenth day of each succeeding month or period (Sec. 19,
Rule 70).
XVI. EXECUTION
1. What is the lifetime of the writ of execution? The writ shall continue in
effect during the period within which the judgment may be enforced. Hence
the writ may be enforced within the five-year period from entry of judgment
because within that period, the writ may be enforced by motion (Sec. 6, Rule
39).
3. What is revival of judgment? judgment which has become dormant after the
passage of five years without it being executed upon motion of the prevailing
party. It is not intended to re-open any issue affecting the merits of the case
judgment debtor’s case nor the propriety or correctness of the first judgment.
It is a new and an independent action separate and distinct from the previous
action sought to be revived. The cause of action is the judgment itself
(Saligumba vs. Palanog, 573 SCRA 8, 15-16).
35
5. PLEASE TAKE NOTE: The revived judgment may also be enforced by
motion within five (5) years from the date of its entry and thereafter by action
before it is barred by the statute of limitations (Section 6, Rule 39; PNB vs.
Bondoc, 14 SCRA 770, 770-772).
9. What is the procedure if the property of third party is levied? Under the
Rules, a person not a party to the action, claiming a property levied upon may
execute an affidavit of his title or right of possession over the property. The
affidavit shall be served upon the officer making a levy and a copy thereof
must also be served upon the judgment oblige (Section 16, Rule 39). This
remedy of the claiming party is called TERCERIA.
10. After receipt of the affidavit of claim, what should the sheriff do? The
officer shall not be bound to keep the property, unless such judgment obligee,
on demand of the officer, files a bond approved by the court to indemnify the
third-party claimant in a sum not less than the value of the property levied on.
The officer shall not be liable for damages for the taking or keeping of the
property, to any third-party claimant if such bond is filed (Section 16, Rule
39).
11. Suppose damage was incurred by the third party on account of officer’s
taking and keeping of his property, when should the action against the
bond be filed? The action should be filed within one hundred twenty (120)
days from the date of the filing of the bond. Under Section 16, Rule 39, it is
provided that No claim for damages for the taking or keeping of the property
36
may be enforced against the bond unless the action therefor is filed within one
hundred twenty (120) days from the date of the filing of the bond.
4. How may jurisdiction over the person of the accused acquired? It may be
acquired by the arrest of the accused by virtue of a warrant of arrest and
voluntary appearance.
6. A criminal complaint was filed against the accused before the prosecutor’s
office. The investigating prosecutor, after finding probable cause, filed the
information in court. The accused filed a Motion to Dismiss the complaint for
37
lack of probable cause. The Court denied the Motion on the ground that the
court has not yet acquired jurisdiction over the person of the accused because
he was not yet arrested. Is the court correct? The Court is not correct?
When the accused filed the Motion to Dismiss, he submitted himself to the
jurisdiction of the court. Thus, the court can validly rule on his motion. The
court should have determined the difference between the “custody of the law”
and “jurisdiction over the person” (David vs. Agbay, March 18, 2015).
10. PLEASE TAKE NOTE: In cases where none of the accused are occupying
positions corresponding to Salary Grade '27' or higher, as prescribed in the
38
said Republic Act No. 6758, or military and PNP officer mentioned above,
exclusive original jurisdiction thereof shall
be vested in the proper regional court, metropolitan trial court, municipal
trial court, and municipal circuit trial court, as the case may be, pursuant
to their respective jurisdictions as provided in Batas Pambansa Blg. 129, as
amended.
11. NOTE FURTHER: Provided, That the Regional Trial Court shall have
exclusive original jurisdiction where the information: (a) does not allege any
damage to the government or any bribery; or (b) alleges damage to the
government or bribery arising from the same or closely related transactions or
acts in an amount not exceeding One million pesos P1,000,000.00. (RA
10660, amending PD 1606 and RA 8249).
14. Where should the criminal action be instituted? Where the offense was
committed or, where any of its essential ingredients occurred.
15. What is the effect if the prosecution was not able to prove that the crime
was committed in place where the action was filed? In a case, the
prosecution failed to show that the offense of estafa under Section 1(b), Art.
315 was committed within the jurisdiction of the RTC of Makati. Other than
the lone allegation in the information, there is nothing in the prosecution
evidence which even mentions that any of the elements of the offense were
committed in Makati. There being no showing that the offense was committed
within Makati, RTC
39
of that City has no jurisdiction over the offense (Trenas vs. People, 664
SCRA 355).
16. What are the exemptions to the rule on venue in criminal cases? 1) Where
the offense was committed under the circumstances enumerated in Art. 2, of
the RPC. 2) Where the SC ordered the changed of venue. 3) Where an offense
is committed in train, aircraft, or other public or private vehicle in the course
of its trip, the criminal action need not be instituted in the actual place where
the offense was committed. It may be instituted and tried in the court of any
municipality or territory where such train, aircraft, or vehicle passed during its
trip. The action may also be instituted and tried in the place of departure and
arrival (Sec. 15(b), Rule 110). 4) If the crime is committed on board a vessel,
it may be instituted in the port of entry, or territory where the vessel passed
during the voyage (Sec. 15(c), Rule 110. 5) Where the offense is cognizable
by Sandiganbayan; 6) RA 8042, as amended.
18. What is the venue in BP 22? The venue in BP 22 is where the checks drawn,
issued, delivered, dishonored (Yaong vs. People, 704 SCRA 195), and,
deposited (Brodeth vs. People, November 29, 2017).
4. The husband executed a complaint for adultery against his wife and the
latter’s paramour. The husband went to the US and resided there. The
fiscal filed an information of adultery. Both accused filed a motion to
quash on the ground that private crimes can only be prosecuted at the
instance of the offended party. Since the offended spouse is already in the
US, the accused contends that he lost already interest in the case. Should
the case be dismissed? NO. In a long line of decisions, this Court has
maintained strict adherence to the requirement by Article 344 of the Revised
Penal Code. It must be borne in mind, however that this legal requirement was
imposed “out of consideration for the aggrieved party who might prefer to
suffer the outrage in silence rather than go through the scandal of a public
trial.” Thus, the law leaves it to the option of the aggrieved spouse to seek
judicial redress for the affront committed by the erring Spouse. If the offended
already manifested his desire to file charges against both accused. Then the
requirement was already complied with (People vs. Ilarde, 125 SCRA 11).
5. Is the trial court divested of its jurisdiction over the person of the accused
and over the offense charged if the Information filed by the investigating
prosecutor does not bear the imprimatur of the Chief because of the
absence on its face of both the word “approved” and the signature of the
authorized officer such as the provincial, city or chief state prosecutor?
NO. It is sufficient for the validity of the Information or Complaint, as the
case may be, that the Resolution of the investigating prosecutor
recommending for the filing of the same in court bears the imprimatur of the
provincial, city or chief state prosecutor whose approval is required by Sec. 1
of
R.A. No. 5180 and is adopted under Sec. 4, Rule 112 of the Rules of
Court. (Villa-Gomez vs. People, G.R. No. 216824, November 10, 2020).
NOTE: Quisay vs. People was already abandoned by VillaGomez vs. People.
6. The averments of the informations to the effect is that the two accused
"with intent to kill, qualified with treachery, evident premeditation and
abuse of superior strength did x x x assault, attack and employ personal
violence upon” the victims “by then and there shooting them with a gun,
41
hitting them” on various parts of their bodies “which were the direct and
immediate cause of their deaths. Is this allegation sufficient? NO. The
allegation does not sufficiently set forth the facts and circumstances describing
how treachery attended each of the killings. The State must specify in the
information the details of the crime and any circumstance that aggravates his
liability for the crime. The requirement of sufficient factual averments is
meant to inform the accused of the nature and cause of the charge against him
in order to enable him to prepare his defense (People vs. Valdez, 679 Phil.
279 (2012); People v. Dasmariñas, G.R. No. 203986, October 4, 2017;
People v. Delector, G.R. No. 200026, October 4, 2017). This was reaffirmed
in the case of People vs. Solar, GR No. 225595, August 6, 2019.
11. When is leave of court required even if amendment is made before plea?
First, amendment which downgrades the nature of the offense charged.
Second, amendment which excludes any accused from the complaint or
information.
14. An information for Murder was filed against Samonte for killing
Espinosa. Samonte has been interposing self-defense as a defense. After
the arraignment of Samonte, the Prosecution filed a Motion for Leave to
Admit Amended Information for Murder against Samonte and Corpus.
The Amended information alleged conspiracy between Samonte and
Corpus. The latter being the one who paid Samonte to kill Espinosa.
Samonte objected the admission of the Amended Information on the
ground that the Amended Information prejudice his right as the
Amended Information rendered his defense not anymore available. Is
Samonte correct? SAMONTE IS CORRECT. While conspiracy is merely a
formal amendment, Samonte will be prejudiced if the amendment will be
allowed after his plea. Applying the test, his defense and corresponding
evidence will not be compatible with the allegation of conspiracy in the new
information. Therefore, such formal amendment after plea is not allowed.
(Corpus, Jr. v. Pamular, G.R. No. 186403, September 5, 2018; People v.
Casey, 190 Phil. 748-767 (1981).
1. GENERAL RULE: When a criminal action is instituted, the civil action for
the recovery of the civil liability arising from the offense charged shall be
deemed impliedly instituted (Section 1, Rule 111).
2. Consequences when the civil liability is instituted with the criminal action.
After the criminal action is commenced, the separate civil action arising
therefrom cannot be instituted until final judgment has been entered in the
criminal action. If the criminal action is filed after the said civil action has
already been instituted, the latter shall be suspended in whatever stage it may
be found before judgment on the merits (Sec. 2, Rule 111).
3. During the pendency of the criminal action, the running of the period of
prescription of the civil action which cannot be instituted separately or whose
proceeding has been suspended shall be tolled. The extinction of the penal
action does not carry with it extinction of the civil action (Section 2, Rule
111).
4. However, the civil action based on delict shall be deemed extinguished if there
is a finding in a final judgment in the criminal action that the act or omission
from which the civil liability may arise did not exist (Sec. 2, Rule 111).
10. Elements. The elements of a prejudicial question are: (a) the previously
instituted civil action involves an issue similar or intimately related to the
issue raised in the subsequent criminal action, and (b) the resolution of such
issue determines whether or not the criminal action may proceed.
11. NOTE: There is prejudicial question when the civil case is previously filed.
If the criminal case is filed first, there is no pre-judicial question (Pimentel vs.
Pimentel, 630 SCRA 436).
12. Omictin vs. CA, 512 SCRA 70. The petitioner, as the supposed operations
manager of the corporation filed an estafa case against the private respondent,
in behalf of the corporation. Before the filing of the estafa case, private
respondent filed before the SEC a case questioning the legality of petitioner’s
appointment as corporate officer. Private respondent filed a motion to suspend
on the ground of pre-judicial question. THERE IS PRE-JUDICIAL
QUESTION. Under the circumstances, since the alleged offended party is a
corporation, the validity of the demand for the delivery of the subject vehicles
rests upon the authority of the person making such a demand on the
company’s behalf. Thus, if it is found out that the petitioner’s appointment is
invalid, he has no right to demand for and in behalf of the corporation and the
demand to return is likewise invalid. Hence, a prejudicial question.
17. Can a person validly arrested without a warrant ask for preliminary
investigation? YES. Before the complaint or information is filed, the person
arrested may ask for a preliminary investigation in accordance with this Rule,
but he must sign a waiver of the provisions of Article 125 of the Revised Penal
Code, as amended, in the presence of his counsel. Notwithstanding the waiver,
he may apply for bail and the investigation must be terminated within
fifteen (15) days from its inception. After the filing of the complaint or
information in court without a preliminary investigation, the accused may,
within five (5) days from the time he learns of its filing, ask for a preliminary
investigation with the same right to adduce evidence in his defense as
provided in this Rule (Section, 6, Rule 112).
18. Duty of the Judge upon filing of the complaint or information. 1) Issue
warrant of arrest upon finding of probable cause. 2) Dismiss the case if the
evidences on record do not establish probable cause. 3) Order the prosecutor
to submit evidence if he entertains doubt as the existence of probable cause
(People vs. Desmond, G.R. No. 178947, June 26, 2013).
19. What is the remedy if the case is dismissed by the Court based on lack of
probable cause? The proper remedy is appeal. The order dismissing the case
for lack of probable cause is a “final order since it disposes of the case,
terminates the proceedings, and leaves the court with further nothing to do
with respect to the case (Cajipe vs. People, April 23, 2014).
20. Arrest without warrant. 1) When, in his presence, the person to be arrested
has committed, is actually committing, or is attempting to commit an offense;
2) When an offense has just been committed and he has probable cause to
believe based on personal knowledge of facts or circumstances that the person
to be arrested has committed it; and 3) When the person to be arrested is a
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prisoner who has escaped from a penal establishment or place where he is
serving final judgment or is temporarily confined while his case is pending, or
has escaped while being transferred from one confinement to another (Section
5, Rule 113).
22. Can the accused appeal the resolution of the inquest prosecutor’s finding
of probable cause to the SOJ? NO. The Supreme Court in Leviste vs.
Alameda, G.R. No. 182677, August 3, 2010, held that the remedy of appeal
to the SOJ is not immediately available in cases subject of inquest. The private
party should first avail of a preliminary investigation or reinvestigation, if any,
before elevating the matter to the SOJ.
24. Objection by the accused to an arrest without a warrant must be made before
he enters his plea, otherwise, the objection is deemed waived (People vs.
Vallejo, Nov. 19, 2003).
25. The waiver to question the illegality of arrest does not carry with it the waiver
of the inadmissibility of the evidence obtained during illegal arrest (People vs.
Aruta, April 13, 1998).
26. Posting of bail does not constitute waiver of irregularity of arrest (Sec.
26., Rule 114).
27. Honasan II vs. DOJ Panel, April 13, 2004. The power of the Ombudsman to
investigate offenses involving public officers or employees is not exclusive
but is concurrent with other similarly authorized agencies of the government
such as the provincial, city and state prosecutors has long been settled in
several decisions of the Court. In other words, respondent DOJ Panel is not
precluded from conducting any investigation of cases against public officers
involving violations of penal laws but if the cases fall under the exclusive
jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan, then respondent Ombudsman may, in the
exercise of its primary jurisdiction take over at any stage.
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XX. BAIL
3. Where should application for bail be filed after conviction of the RTC?
RTC even if notice of appeal is filed so long as the records are still with the
RTC If the decision of the RTC convicting the accused changed the nature of
the offense from non-bailable to bailable, the application for bail can only be
filed and resolved by the APPELLATE COURT.
4. Is the condition that the accused be arraigned first before he can post bail
valid? In Lavides vs. CA, 324 SCRA 321, the Supreme Court held that the
grant of bail should not be conditioned upon prior arraignment of the accused.
In cases where bail is authorized, bail shouuld be granted before arraignment;
otherwise, the accused will be precluded from filing a motion to quash which
is to be done before arraignment. HOWEVER: Arraignment should first be
conducted before accused may be allowed to post bail (Guidelines for
Continuous Trial).
3. Rule on police line-up re right to counsel: A police line-up is not part of the
custodial investigation since the accused at that stage is not yet being
investigated. In line-up, the right to counsel does not yet attach (People vs.
Tolentino, 423 SCRA 448). However, when the accused has already been
pointed, the investigation ceases to be a general inquiry. Thus, the person
pointed to has now the right to counsel for he is already under custodial
investigation (Mesina vs. People, GR 162489, June 17, 2015).
XXIII. ARRIGNMENT
1. When the presence of the private offended party needed? The private
offended party shall be required to appear at the arraignment for purposes of
plea bargaining, determination of civil liability, and other matters requiring his
presence. In case of failure of the offended party to appear despite due notice,
the court may allow the accused to enter a plea of guilty to a lesser offense
which is necessarily included in the offense charged with the conformity of
the trial prosecutor alone (Sec. 1(f), Rule 116).
2. May it be made after the prosecution rested its case? Yes. It has been held
that it may also be considered during trial proper or even after the prosecution
has finished presenting it evidence and rested its case. It is immaterial that the
plea bargaining was not made during the pre-trial stage or that it was made
only after the prosecution already presented several witnesses (Daan vs.
Sandiganbayan, 550 SCRA
233).
3. What are the requisites of plea of guilty to a lesser offense? 1) the lesser
offense is necessarily included in the offense charged; 2) the plea must be with
the consent of both the offended party and the prosecutor (Section 2, Rule
116).
4. What are the obligations of the Court when the accused pleaded guilty to
a capital offense? A) The Judge shall conduct searching inquiry into the
voluntariness and comprehension of the plea. B) Require the prosecution to
prove his guilt and the precise degree of his culpability. C) Allow the accused
to present evidence in his behalf (Section 3, Rule 116).
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8. What are the grounds to suspend the arraignment? (a) The accused
appears to be suffering from an unsound mental condition which effectively
renders him unable to fully understand the charge against him and to plead
intelligently thereto. In such case, the court shall order his mental examination
and, if necessary, his confinement for such purpose; (b) There exists a
prejudicial question; and (c) A petition for review of the resolution of the
prosecutor is pending at either the Department of Justice, or the Office of the
President; provided, that the period of suspension shall not exceed sixty (60)
days counted from the filing of the petition with the reviewing office. (Section
11, Rule 116).
1. What are the grounds for motion to quash? a) That the facts charged do not
constitute an offense, (NOT WAIVABLE); b) That the court trying the case
has no jurisdiction over the offense charged, (NOT WAIVABLE); c) That the
court trying the case has no jurisdiction over the person of the accused,
(WAIVABLE); d) That the officer who filed the information had no authority
to do so, (WAIVABLE); e) That it does not conform substantially to the
prescribed form, (WAIVABLE); f) That more than one offense is charged
except when a single punishment for various offenses is prescribed by law
(WAIVABLE); g) That the criminal action or liability has been extinguished,
(NOT WAIVABLE); h) That it contains averments which, if true, would
constitute a legal excuse or justification, (NOT WAIVABLE); and, i) That the
accused has been previously convicted or acquitted of the offense charged, or
the case against him was dismissed or otherwise terminated without his
express consent, (NOT WAIVABLE). (Section 3, Rule 117).
2. Motion to quash is subject to the omnibus motion rule. The failure of the
accused to assert any ground of a motion to quash before he pleads to the
complaint or information, either because he did not file a motion to quash or
failed to allege the same in said motion, shall be deemed a waiver of any
objections.
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6. What are the exemptions? Extinction of criminal liability and double
jeopardy.
6. What should be the action of the Court? The court shall require the
prosecution to present evidence and the sworn statement of each proposed
witness. The Court shall conduct a hearing in support of the discharge
(Section 17, Rule 119).
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7. Requisites before the accused may be discharge as a state witness: 1) Two
or more accused are jointly charged with the commission of an offense. 2) The
motion to discharge is filed by the prosecution before it rests its case. 3) The
prosecution is required to present evidence and the sworn statement of each
proposed witness at the hearing of the discharge.
10. May the Court motu-propio dismiss the case for lack or insufficiency of
evidence? YES. After the prosecution rests its case, the court may dismiss the
action on the ground of insufficiency of evidence (1) on its own initiative after
giving the prosecution the opportunity to be heard (Section 23, Rule 119).
5. Can civil liability be awarded despite acquittal? Yes. In case the judgment
is of acquittal, it shall state whether the evidence of the prosecution absolutely
failed to prove the guilt of the accused or merely failed to prove his guilt
beyond reasonable doubt. In either case, the judgment shall determine if the
act or omission from which the civil liability might arise did not exist (Section
2, Rule 120).
6. Variance between the allegation and proof. When there is variance between
the offense charged in the complaint or information and that proved, and the
offense as charged is included in or necessarily includes the offense proved,
the accused shall be convicted of the offense proved which is included in the
offense charged, or of the offense charged which is included in the offense
proved (Section 4, Rule 120).
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8. How is a judgment promulgated? RULE 120, SECTION 6. Promulgation
of Judgment. — The judgment is promulgated by reading it in the presence of
the accused and any judge of the court in which it was rendered. However, if
the conviction is for a light offense, the judgment may be pronounced in the
presence of his counsel or representative. When the judge is absent or outside
the province or city, the judgment may be promulgated by the clerk of court.
10. If the judgment is for conviction and the failure of the accused to appear was
without justifiable cause, he shall lose the remedies available in these rules
against the judgment and the court shall order his arrest. Within fifteen (15)
days from promulgation of judgment, however, the accused may surrender and
file a motion for leave of court to avail of these remedies. He shall state the
reasons for his absence at the scheduled promulgation and if he proves that his
absence was for a justifiable cause, he shall be allowed to avail of said
remedies within fifteen (15) days from notice (Section 6. Rule 120).
2. Where should application for search warrant be filed? Any court within
whose territorial jurisdiction a crime was committed. For compelling reasons
stated in the application, any court within the judicial region where the crime
was committed if the place of the commission of the crime is known, or any
court within the judicial region where the warrant shall be enforced. However,
if the criminal action has already been filed, the application shall only be made
in the court where the criminal action is pending. (Section 2, Rule 126).
4. Requisites for the issuance of search warrant? A search warrant shall not
issue except upon probable cause in connection with one specific offense to be
determined personally by the judge after examination under oath or
affirmation of the complainant and the witnesses he may produce, and
particularly describing the place to be searched and the things to be seized
which may be anywhere in the Philippines (Section 4, Rule 126).
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8. Parameters of search incident to a lawful arrest. Valeroso vs. CA, 598
SCRA 41 – the cabinet is situated in the area different from where the accused
was arrested or temporarily detained. The cabinet is not an area within the
immediate reach and control of the accused. Espano vs. CA, 288 SCRA 558
– Accused was arrested outside his house. The subsequent search of his house
after his arrest is invalid.
XXIX. EVIDENCE
2. Scope and Applicability. The rules of evidence shall be the same in all courts
and in all trials and hearings, except as otherwise provided by law or these
rules. (Sec. 2, Rule 128). The rule does not apply to election cases, land
registration and cadastral cases, naturalization and insolvency
proceedings, except by analogy or in a suppletory character and whenever
practicable and convenient (Sec. 4, Rule 1).
4. Ong Chia vs. Republic, 328 SCRA 749 - The RTC granted the petitioner’s
petition for naturalization. The CA reversed the decision on the ground that
the RTC admitted evidence which were not formally offered in evidence in
violation of Sec. 34, Rule 132 of the Rules of Court. According to SC, the rule
on formal offer of evidence is not applicable to petition for naturalization
unless applied by analogy or in a suppletory character and whenever
practicable and convenient.
11. What is burden proof? Burden of proof is the duty of a party to present
evidence on the facts in issue necessary to establish his or her claim or defense
by the amount of evidence required by law. Burden of proof never shifts
(Section 1, Rule 131). For instance, it is always the burden of the prosecution
in criminal case to prove the accused beyond reasonable doubt. In civil case,
he or she who asserts an affirmative fact has the burden of proof to establish
his or her allegations (Lavadia vs. Heirs of Luna, G.R. No. 171914, July 23,
2014).
13. If the administrative case filed against the petitioner is dismissed, should
the criminal case arising from the same facts be dismissed likewise? YES.
If the criminal case will be prosecuted based on the same facts and evidence as
that in the administrative case, and the court trying the latter already squarely
ruled on the absence of facts and/or circumstances sufficient to negate the
basis of the criminal indictment, then to still burden the accused to present
controverting evidence despite the failure of the prosecution to present
sufficient and competent evidence, will be a futile and useless exercise
(Pahkiat, et.al. vs. Ombudsman, G.R. No. 223972, November 3, 2020).
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14. What is the effect of presumption? A party in whose favor the legal
presumption exists may rely on and invoke such legal presumption to establish
a fact in issue. One need not introduced evidence to prove the fact for a
presumption is prima facie proof of the fact presumed (Diesel Construction
vs. UPSI Property, 549 SCRA 12).
16. What is the hierarchy of proof? The following are the hierarchy of proofs:
1) substantial evidence, 2) preponderance of evidence, 3) clear and convincing
evidence, and 4) proof beyond reasonable doubt.
17. What are the situations where the quantum of proof of clear and
convincing evidence is required? 1. To prove justifying circumstance
(People vs. Abina, GR No. 220146, April 18, 2018).
2. To prove bad faith and fraud (Aliling v. Feliciano, G.R. No. 185829, April
25, 2012, 671 SCRA 186, 217). 3. To pierce the veil of corporate fiction
(Manila Hotel vs. NLRC, G.R. No. 120077, October 10, 2000). 4. For the
successful invocation of the defense of alibi (People vs. Bation, GR No.
123160, March 24, 1999). 5. To prove jurisdictional requirements in the
reconstitution of a destroyed or lost title (De La Paz vs. Republic, GR No.
195726, November 20, 2017). 6. In proving consented search (Villanueva vs.
People, November 17, 2014). 7. In granting bail in extradition proceedings
(Government of Hongkong vs. Munoz, GR No. 207342, August 17, 2016).
18. Mandatory judicial notice - A court shall take judicial notice, without the
introduction of evidence, of the existence and territorial extent of states, their
political history , forms of government and symbols of nationality, the law of
nations, the admiralty and maritime courts of the world and their seals, the
political constitution and history of the Philippines, official acts of the
legislative, executive and judicial departments of the National Government of
the Philippines, the laws of nature, the measure of time, and the geographical
divisions (Section 1, Rule 129).
19. Can the Court take mandatory judicial notice of ordinance passed by a
local government unit? NO. While courts are required to take judicial notice
of the laws enacted by Congress, the rule with respect to local ordinances is
different. Ordinances are not included in the enumeration of matters covered
by mandatory judicial notice under Section 1, Rule 129 of the Rules of Court
(Social Justice Society vs. Atienza, G.R. No. 156052, Feb. 13 2008).
20. Judicial Notice, Discretionary. A court may take judicial notice of matters
which are of 1) public knowledge, or 2) are capable of unquestionable
demonstration, or 3) ought to be known to judges because of their judicial
functions. (Sec. 2, Rule 129).
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21. There are two (2) civil cases pending between the same parties. One is being
heard by Branch 92. The other one is being heard by Branch 93. Can Branch
92 take judicial notice of the case pending in Branch 93? ANSWER: A
court will take judicial notice of its own acts and records in the same case
(Republic vs. CA, 277 SCRA 633).
22. Suppose the two cases are pending in the same branch, which is Branch
92, can the Judge take judicial notice of the other case between the same
parties? ANSWER: Courts are not authorized to take judicial notice of the
contents of the records of other cases, even such cases have been tried or
pending in the same court (LBP vs. Yatco Agricultural Enerprises, Jan. 15,
2014).
23. How can the judge take judicial notice of the case pending in the same
Court? When in the absence of any objection and with the knowledge of the
opposing party, the contents of said other case are clearly referred to by title
and number in a pending action and adopted and read into the records of the
other case; When they are requested to form part of the record of the other
case (Tabuena vs. CA, 196 SCRA 650).
24. Judicial admission. Sec. 4, Rules 129. An admission, oral or written, made by
the party in the course of the proceedings in the same case, does not require
proof. The admission may be contradicted only by showing that it was made
through palpable mistake or that the imputed admission was not, in fact,
made.
25. Admission during pre-trial in criminal case does not result to judicial
admission if it does not comply with Section 2, Rule 118. Section 2, Rule
118, Pre-trial agreement. - All agreements or admissions made or entered
during the pre-trial conference shall be reduced in writing and signed by the
accused and counsel, otherwise, they cannot be used against the accused. The
agreements covering the matters referred to in Section 1 of this Rule shall be
approved by the court.
26. How about the stipulations of facts during trial? It is not required that it be
signed the lawyer and the accused. The stipulation of acts is already contained
in the TSN. The lawyer is presumed to have prima facie authority to make
relevant admission by pleadings, by oral or written stipulation which unless
withdrawn are conclusive. (People vs. Hernandez, 206 SCRA 25; Silot vs.
Dela Rosa, 543 SCRA 533).
30. What is the effect of judicial admission? Judicial admissions are legally
binding on the party making the admission. It is an established principle that
judicial admission cannot be contradicted by the admitter who is the party
himself and binds the person who makes the same, absent any showing that
this was made through palpable mistake, no amount of rationalization can
offset it (PCIC vs. Central Colleges of the Phil. 666 SCRA 540).
31. What is object evidence? Objects as evidence are those addressed to the
senses of the court. When an object is relevant to the fact in issue, it may be
exhibited to, examined, or viewed by the court (Section 1, Rule 130).
33. Links in the Chain of Custody. First, the seizure and marking of the
confiscated drugs recovered from the accused; Second, the turnover of the
illegal drug seized by the apprehending officer to the investigating officer;
Third, the turnover by the investigating officer of the illegal drug to the
forensic chemist for laboratory examination; Fourth, the turnover and
submission of the marked illegal drug by the forensic chemist to the court
(People vs. Kamad, 610 SCRA 295).
35. Original Document Rule. When the subject of inquiry is the contents of a
document, writing, recording, photograph or other record, no evidence is
admissible other than the original document itself, (Section 3, Rule 130).
PLEASE REMEMBER: Original document rule is applicable only in
documentary evidence. It does not apply to object evidence.
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36. What is an original document? An “original” of a document is the document
itself or any counterpart intended to have the same effect by a person
executing or issuing it. An “original” of a photograph includes the negative or
any print therefrom. If data is stored in a computer or similar device, any
printout or other output readable by sight or other means, shown to reflect the
data accurately, is an “original” (Section 4(a), Rule 130).
39. Exceptions to original document rule. (a) When the original is lost or
destroyed, or cannot be produced in court, without bad faith on the part of the
offeror; (b)When the original is in the custody or under the control of the party
against whom the evidence is offered, and the latter fails to produce it after
reasonable notice, or the original cannot be obtained by local judicial
processes or procedures; (c) When the original consists of numerous accounts
or other documents which cannot be examined in court without great loss of
time and the fact sought to be established from them is only the general result
of the whole; (d) When the original is a public record in the custody of a
public officer or is recorded in a public office; and (e) When the original is not
closely related to a controlling issue.
40. Parol evidence. - When the terms of an agreement have been reduced to
writing, it is considered as containing all the terms agreed upon and there can
be, as between the parties and their successors in interest, no evidence of such
terms other than the contents of the written agreement (Sec. 10, Rule 130).
41. Instances where a party may modify, explain or add to the terms of
written agreement. (a) An intrinsic ambiguity, mistake or imperfection in the
written agreement; (b) The failure of the written agreement to express the true
intent and agreement of the parties thereto; (c) The validity of the written
agreement; or (d) The existence of other terms agreed to by the parties or
their successors in interest after the execution of the written agreement.
PLEASE TAKE NOTE: Before a party may be allowed to introduce parol
evidence, he or she must put the foregoing issues in a verified pleading
(Section 10, Rule 130).
42. Who is qualified to become a witness? All persons who can perceive, and
perceiving, can make known their perception to others, may be witnesses.
Religious or political belief, interest in the outcome of the case, or conviction
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of a crime, unless otherwise provided by law, shall not be a ground for
disqualification (Section 21, Rule 130).
43. What may be testified to? A witness can testify only to those facts which he
or she knows of his or her personal knowledge; that is, which are derived from
his or her own perception (Section 22, Rule 130).
44. Disqualification by Marriage. During their marriage, the husband or the wife
cannot testify against the other without the consent of the affected spouse,
except in a civil case by one against the other, or in a criminal case for a crime
committed by one against the other or the latter’s direct descendants or
ascendants (Section 23, Rule 130).
45. Before the marriage of H and W, W witnessed H killing Y. W did not report
the incident to the police. Later, H and W got married. They had falling out.
Consequently, W reported the incident she witnessed when they were still
sweethearts. May the prosecution present W as a witness in a murder case
filed against H? ANSWER: Over the objection of H, the prosecution may not
call W to testify against H. To call W to testify against H while their marriage
is still would violate the marital disqualification rule.
46. Supposed W was called to testify after their marriage had been annulled,
would your answer be the same? My answer would not be the same. Since
the marriage is not anymore existing, the marital disqualification rule would
not apply.
47. May a spouse testify in a trial where the other spouse is a coaccused? Yes,
except as against her husband (People vs. Quitado, 297 SCRA 1).
48. May a spouse testify in a trial against her estranged husband? Yes.
(Alvarez vs. Ramirez, 473 SCRA 72.).
49. Marital privilege communication rule - The husband or the wife, during or
after the marriage, cannot be examined without the consent of the other as to
any communication received in confidence by one from the other during the
marriage except in a civil case by one against the other, or in a criminal case
for a crime committed by one against the other or the latter’s direct
descendants or ascendants (Section 24(a), Rule 130).
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52. Who are covered by the lawyer-client privilege? 1) Attorney; 2) or person
reasonably believed by the client to be licensed to engage in the practice of
law; 3) secretary; 4) stenographer; 5) clerk; and 6) other persons assisting the
attorney (Sec. 24(b), Rule 130).
60. Example of first branch – If Roberto makes a statement before the media
admitting his participation in the murder of Carla, his statement is admissible
against him under Section 26, Rule 130. If he made a statement implicating
Lito and Carlos is not admissible against Lito and Carlos applying the
principle of res inter alios acta.
61. Is this applicable to judicial admission? No. because res inter alios acta is
applicable only to extra-judicial admission but it does not cover judicial
admission because of the other accused has the opportunity to cross-examine.
(Yapyuco vs. Sandiganbayan, 674 SCRA 420).
62. Exception to res inter alios acta: Section 30. Admission by copartner or
agent. — The act or declaration of a partner or agent authorized by the
party to make a statement concerning the subject, or within the scope of
his or her authority, and during the existence of the partnership or agency,
may be given in evidence against such party after the partnership or agency is
shown by evidence other than such act or declaration. The same rule applies to
the act or declaration of a joint owner, joint debtor, or other person jointly
interested with the party. (Rule 130).
63. Exception to res inter alios acta: Section 31. Admission by conspirator. –
The act or declaration of a conspirator in furtherance of the conspiracy and
during its existence may be given in evidence against the co-conspirator after
the conspiracy is shown by evidence other than such act of declaration. (Rule
130).
64. Exception to res inter alios acta: Section 32. Admission by privies. –
Where one derives title to property from another, the latter's act, declaration,
or omission, in relation to the property, is evidence against the former if done
while the latter was holding the title. (Rule 130).
65. Exception to res inter alios acta: Section 33. Admission by silence. –An
act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation
of a party who does or says nothing when the act or declaration is such as
naturally to call for action or comment if not true, and when proper and
possible for him or her to do so, may be given in evidence against him or her.
(Rule 130).
66. Similar conduct rule: Similar acts as evidence. – Evidence that one did or
did not do a certain thing at one time is not admissible to prove that he or she
did or did not do the same or a similar thing at another time; but it may be
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received to prove a specific intent or knowledge, identity, plan, system,
scheme, habit, custom or usage, and the like. (Section 34, Rule 130).
67. Hearsay rule: Section 37. Hearsay. – Hearsay is a statement other than one
made by the declarant while testifying at a trial or hearing, offered to prove the
truth of the facts asserted therein. A statement is (1) an oral or written
assertion or (2) a non-verbal conduct of a person if it is intended by him or her
as an assertion. Hearsay evidence is inadmissible except as otherwise provided
in these Rule (Rule 130). NOTE: There are two personalities in hearsay:
the declarant and the witness. The witness will testify on the declaration
of the declarant and the purpose of the testimony of the witness is to
prove the truth of the matters asserted in the declaration. That would
make the testimony of the witness hearsay.
68. Elements of hearsay. 1) There must be an out of court statement which was
not made by the declarant in the hearing or trial; 2) The statement is offered by
the witness in court to prove the truth of the matters asserted by the statement
69. Exception to hearsay. RULE 130, Section 38. Dying declaration. The
declaration of a dying person, made under the consciousness of an impending
death, may be received in any case wherein his or her death is the subject of
inquiry, as evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstances of such death.
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72. Exception to hearsay. RULE 130, Section 40. – Declaration against
interest. - The declaration made by a person deceased or unable to testify
against the interest of the declarant, if the fact asserted in the declaration was
at the time it was made so far contrary to the declarant's own interest that a
reasonable person in his or her position would not have made the declaration
unless he or she believed it to be true, may be received in evidence against
himself or herself or his or her successors in interest and against third
persons. A statement tending to expose the declarant to criminal liability
and offered to exculpate the accused is not admissible unless
corroborating circumstances clearly indicate the trustworthiness of the
statement.
73. Exception to hearsay. RULE 130, Section 41. – Act or declaration about
pedigree. – The act or declaration of a person deceased or unable to testify, in
respect to the pedigree of another person related to him or her by birth,
adoption, or marriage or, in the absence thereof, with whose family he or
she was so intimately associated as to be likely to have accurate
information concerning his or her pedigree, may be received in evidence
where it occurred before the controversy, and the relationship between the two
persons is shown by evidence other than such act or declaration. The word
"pedigree" includes relationship, family genealogy, birth, marriage, death, the
dates when and the places where these facts occurred, and the names of the
relatives. It embraces also facts of family history intimately connected with
pedigree.
77. PLEASE TAKE NOTE: The following requisites must, thus, be satisfied for
the exception on res gestae to apply: (i) that the principal act, the res gestae, be
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a startling occurrence; (ii) that the statements were made before the declarant
had the time to contrive or devise a falsehood; and (iii) that the statements
must concern the occurrence in question and its immediate attending
circumstances. In determining the admissibility of evidence as part of the res
gestae, the test is whether the act or declaration was made as a spontaneous
reaction and is so intimately interwoven or connected with the principal fact or
event that it characterizes as to be regarded as a part of the transaction itself
and whether it negates any premeditation or purpose to manufacture testimony
(People vs. XXX, G.R. No. 205888, August 22, 2018).
80. Exception to hearsay. RULE 130, Section 47. – Commercial lists and the
like. – Evidence of statements of matters of interest to persons engaged in an
occupation contained in a list, register, periodical, or other published
compilation is admissible as tending to prove the truth of any relevant matter
so stated if that compilation is published for use by persons engaged in that
occupation and is generally used and relied upon by them therein.
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83. Exception to hearsay. RULE 130, Section 49. – Residual exception. – A
statement not specifically covered by any of the foregoing exceptions, having
equivalent circumstantial guarantees of trustworthiness, is admissible if the
court determines that (a) the statement is offered as evidence of a material
fact; (b) the statement is more probative on the point for which it is offered
than any other evidence which the proponent can procure through reasonable
efforts; and (c) the general purposes of these rules and the interests of justice
will be best served by admission of the statement into evidence. However, a
statement may not be admitted under this exception unless the proponent
makes known to the adverse party, sufficiently in advance of the hearing, or
by the pre-trial stage in the case of a trial of the main case, to provide the
adverse party with a fair opportunity to prepare to meet it, the proponent’s
intention to offer the statement and the particulars of it, including the name
and address of the declarant.
5. What is the extent of the jurisdiction of the probate court? A probate court
acting as such exercises limited jurisdiction. The said court is primarily
concerned with the administration, liquidation, and distribution of the estate.
In fact, the main function of a probate court is to settle and liquidate the estate
of the deceased either summarily or through the process of administration (Uy
vs. CA, March 15, 2006). Thus, it has the authority to: 1) determine heirs; 2)
make a just and legal distribution of the estate (Solivio vs. CA, February 12,
1990).
7. May the probate court pass upon title to properties claimed to be part of
the estate of the deceased? NO. Because the jurisdiction of the probate court
is limited (Paciones, Jr., vs. Chuato-Ching, August 9, 2005). HOWEVER,
however if the purpose is only to determine whether such property should be
included in the inventory, then probate court can pass title on the property but
the determination of ownership is not conclusive but only provisional (Vda de
Rodriguez vs. CA, July 20, 1979).
8. May the probate court pass upon the title of the property with finality? IT
MAY. The probate court may pass upon the issue of ownership where the
interested parties are the heirs who have all appeared in the proceeding and the
rights of third parties are not impaired (Munsayac-De Villa vs. CA, October
24, 2003).
10. What are the claims that must be filed in the settlement of estate of the
deceased? Section 5. Claims which must be filed under the notice. If not filed,
barred; exceptions. — All claims for money against the decedent, arising from
contract, express or implied, whether the same be due, not due, or contingent,
all claims for funeral expenses and expense for the last sickness of the
decedent, and judgment for money against the decedent, must be filed within
the time limited in the notice; otherwise they are barred forever, except that
they may be set forth as counterclaims in any action that the executor or
administrator may bring against the claimants.
12. To whom shall the remedy of amparo available? Available to any person
whose right to life, liberty and security is violated or threatened with violation
by an unlawful act or omission of a public official or employee, or of a private
individual or entity. The writ shall cover extralegal killings and enforced
disappearances or threats thereof (Section 1, Rule on Amparo). NOTE: Writ
of amparo is not the proper remedy if there is no government
participation.
13. Ramon Tulfo and Raymark engaged in a brawl. As a result, the Tulfo
brothers aired on their TV Program comments and expletives threatening
retaliation against Spouses Santiago. Consequently, Spouses Santiago
filed a Petition for Writ of Amparo against the Tulfos. The latter filed a
Motion to Dismiss. Spouses Santiago opposed the motion on the ground
that it is a prohibited pleading. Should the motion to dismiss be granted?
YES. The Supreme Court ruled that there is no showing in the Petition that
there is extra-judicial killing or enforced disappearance the way they are
understood under the Rules on Writ of Amparo. Simply put, there is not
showing in the Petition that there is government involvement or participation.
The SC said: “Their petition is merely anchored on a broad invocation of
respondents' purported violation of their right to life and security, carried out
by private individuals without any showing of direct or indirect government
participation. Thus, it is apparent that their amparo petition falls outside the
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purview of A.M. No. 07-9-12-SC and, perforce, must fail (Spouses Santiago
vs. Tulfo, G.R. No. 205039, October 21, 2015).
14. What is writ of habeas data? The writ of habeas data is a remedy available
to any person whose right to privacy in life, liberty or security is violated or
threatened by an unlawful act or omission of a public official or employee, or
of a private individual or entity engaged in the gathering, collecting or storing
of data or information regarding the person, family, home and correspondence
of the aggrieved party (Section 1, Rule on Habeas Data).
15. Ilagan and Lee were live-in-partners. Lee was able to obtain the digital
camera of Ilagan. Lee found a sex video in it. Lee confronted Ilagan about
it but the latter demanded for the return of his digital camera. Lee
refused. Consequently, Ilagan banged Lee’s head against the wall. Lee
filed a criminal case for violation of RA 9262. Still, Ilagan is demanding
for the return of the digital camera. Lee refused. Ilagan filed a petition for
habeas data against Lee to compel Lee to produce the camera, as well as
the negative and reproductions thereof. Will the petition prosper? NO. As
defined in Section 1 of the Habeas Data Rule, the writ of habeas data now
stands as "a remedy available to any person whose right to privacy in life,
liberty or security is violated or threatened by an unlawful act or omission of a
public official or employee, or of a private individual or entity engaged in the
gathering, collecting or storing of data or information regarding the person,
family, home, and correspondence of the aggrieved party. Thus, in order to
support a petition for the issuance of such writ, Section 6 of the Habeas Data
Rule essentially requires that the petition sufficiently alleges, among others,
"[t]he manner the right to privacy is violated or threatened and how it affects
the right to life, liberty or security of the aggrieved party." In other words, the
petition must adequately show that there exists a nexus between the right to
privacy on the one hand, and the right to life, liberty or security on the other
(Lee vs. Ilagan, October 8, 2014).
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Rule 103, provided that the jurisprudential grounds discussed in Republic v.
Hernandez are present.
17. What is sought to be corrected are both clerical errors and substantial
errors; it is required to file to petitions, one in civil registrar and the other
one in court under Rule 108? NO NEED. It will be more prudent and
judicious for Annabelle, and other persons similarly situated, to allow the
filing of a single petition under Rule 108, rather than two separate petitions
before the RTC and the local civil registrar. This will avoid multiplicity of
suits and further litigation between the parties, which is offensive to the
orderly administration of justice. In any case, RA No. 9048, as amended, did
not divest the trial courts of jurisdiction over petitions for correction of clerical
or typographical errors in a birth certificate. To be sure, the local civil
registrars' administrative authority to change or correct similar errors
is only primary but not exclusive. The regular courts maintain the authority to
make judicial corrections of entries in the civil registry (Republic vs. Ontuca,
G.R. No. 232053, July 15, 2020).
19. Where to file? The petition shall be filed with the Supreme Court or with any
of the stations of the Court of Appeals (Section 3, Rule).
21. SLAPP SUIT. The allegation of SLAPP is set up as a defense in those cases
claimed to have been filed merely as a harassment suit against environmental
actions. The Court finds no occasion to apply the rules on SLAPP as the
Petition has no relation at all to “the enforcement of environmental laws,
protection of the environment or assertion of environmental rights.” R.A.
No. 9262, which involves cases of violence against women and their children,
is not among those laws included under the scope of SLAPP (Mercado vs.
Lopena, G.R. No. 230170, June 6, 2018).
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