Lagos State University

Direct Entry Exam Test

2019Time Allowed: 1
Hour
INSTRUCTIONS: APPLICANTS SHOULD CHOOSE THEIR SUBJECTS
FOR: EDUCATION & ENGLISH LANGUAGE

ENGLISH LANGUAGE.
INSTRUCTION: Candidates for ENGLISH EDUCATION must attempt questions
on English language, English literature and any other two subjects. On the whole, four
sections are to be attempted. All answers must be provided on the OMR sheets.
Choose the option opposite in meaning to the word(s) in italics
1. Chidi is naturally taciturn. A. friendly B. cheerful C. dumb D. garrulous
2. He is loved for his altruism. A. benevolence B. sincerely C. selfishness
D selflessness
3. Many untrustworthy students give evasive answers to questions which they
fully understand A. direct B. outspoken C. simple D. clever
4. The deafening noise of the jet planes made people feel that war might be
imminent. A. impending B. ahead C. remote D. threatening
5. The increase in transport fares deterred students from planning the trip to
Ogbunike cave. A. deterred B. restricted C. encouraged D. impelled
Choose the word or phrase which best fills the gap in each sentence
6. On the orders of the steward the cook rushed ............. the market.
A. to B. at C. for D.from
7. It all depended on what .......... A. does he want B. he wants C. he does want
D.hewants
8. The government ......... the initial value of the hotel complex at ten million naira.
A. Costed B. has costedC. had constructed D. had valued
9. I do not want ................. from such a friend as Madu. A. any more advices
B. any advicesC. any advice D. no advice
10. The thief ran........Luck when the policeman running after him caught up with
him and knocked him down.A. into B. withC. out ofD. off
Choose the option nearest in meaning to the italicized words or phrases.
11. Nneka hardly knows on which side her bread is buttered in the matter.
A. where her interest lies B. what she must do C. where she should go
D. whom to contact for help
12. The senior prefect had to carry the can because he refused to identify the
culprit.A. dispose the can of refuse B. accept responsibility C. be made one of
the scape goats D. bear the brunt
13. I shall be with you presently. A. now B. in a moment C. at present
D. forthe time being
14. The hefty warder came in and all the prisoners snuffed out their cigarettes.
A. Extinguished B. putout C. squeezed D. put down
15. The builder’s taste reflected superfluous grandeur A. excellent B. superlative
C. expensive D. too much
Choose the option opposite in meaning to the word(s) underlined.
16. Mary complained that she slept on the coarse floor. A. smooth B. rough C. bad
D. harsh
17. The Governor declined to give audience to the students. A. ignored
B. accepted C. forgot D. rejected
18. The policeman was asked to investigate the matter. A. ask about B. forget
about C. examine D. inquire about
19. It seems fashionable in some quarters today to decry examinations and the
ability to pass them.A. extol B. abuse C. entreat D. discourage
20. Adaeze sobbed by the door because she has lost her mother’s
preciousnecklace.A. cried B. smile C. wept D. laughed
Choose the word(s) or phrase(s) that best fill(s) the gap(s)
21. Why do you worry about such ......... matters? A. insignificant B. significant
C .non-significant D. unsignificant
22. It was difficult to........... a man walking on the moon two centuries ago.
A. contrive B. perceive C. conceive D. imagine
23. Knowledge of figures of speech as well as of idioms and lexical items ........ in
this section.A. is tested B. have been tested C. are tested D. were tested
24. The buildings damaged by the rainstorm.......schools, hospitals and private
houses. A. included B. include C.were included D.was including
25. I have the .............. of meeting him. A. previlege B. privilege C. previledge
D. priviledge

GOVERNMENT
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in this section
1. A political authority which exercises sovereign power over a specific
geographical area is termed a.... A. nation B. state C. dominion
 D. leviathan
2. The process by which political beliefs and values are transmitted from one
generation to another is best known as political. A. socialization B. culture C.
training D. decentralization
3. The fusion of the executive and legislative organs of government is associated
with. A. monarchy B. presidential system C. fascism D. parliamentary system
4. Asystem of government in which the central government is supreme over other
levels is ....... A. totalitarian B. confederal C. federal D. unitary
5. Which of the following defines a constitution A. any written legal document
B. basic laws for conduct of modern government C. rules adopted in legislative
proceedings D. the doctrine that limits the powers of government
6. Which of the following ideologies advocates governmental control over all
sources of power.A. totalitarianism B. feudalism C. liberalism
D. democracy
7. In a cabinet system of government individual responsibility of ministers means
that A. only ministers can be held responsible for errors B. a minister must
hold his subordinates responsible for his failures C. the prime minister can
remove an erring ministerD. no individual can be held responsible for
government decisions
8. The central decision making organ of a confederation is made up of
A. technocrats appointed by the units B. politicians elected from confederal
constituencies C. politicians nominated by governments of member states
D. representatives of pressure groups
9. Law making under Military regimes is done through A. delegated legislation
B. administrative enactments C.the promulgation of decrees D. the
ministryof justice
10. The fundamental rights of citizens include: A. social security and free speech
B. religious freedom and collective aggression C. immunity from libel and
right of employment D. right to life and liberty
11. A written constitution is A. partially written and based on convention
B. completely written and based on convention C. entirely based on case laws
D. completely sourced from parliamentary law
12. Electoral colleges have been criticized because they A. are very expensive
B. creates more seat in the legislature C. make the legislature too responsive
D. sometimes negates the wishes of the electorate
13. Universal adult suffrage is usually restricted in most political systems to
 A. those with landed property B. literates C. citizens D. those not more than
70years of age
14. An election in which citizens are called upon to vote for or against a specified
issues called A. mandate B. referendum C. bye-election D. run-off election
15. How many states were created in Nigeria in 1967A.21 B.19 C.12 D.4
16. The most important objective of political parties is to A. elect their spokesman
B. lobby the government C. form effective national organization D. control the
government
17. The primary function of a pressure group is to A. win the control of
government power B. elect their officials C. influence government policy
D. organize workers to confront government
18. The biased presentation of information in order to influence public opinion is
referred to asA. mobilization B. propaganda C. indoctrination
D. distortion
19. Which of the following was a great military and political power before the
colonization of Nigeria? A. The Idoma Kingdom B. The Nupe Kingdom
C. TheKwarafa empire D. The Igala empire
20. The Yoruba traditional governmental system was A. egalitarian B. republican
C. democratic D. monarchical
21. True federal system was introduced in Nigeria under A. Richards Constitution
B. Littleton constitution C. McPherson constitution D. Independence
constitution
22. One of the unique innovations of the 1951 constitution was the introduction of
A. regional premiers B. the office of the speakers C. the office of the prime
minister D. regional executives
23. How does a president relieve a minister of his appointment in a presidential
system? A. by unilateralaction B. in consultation with the legislature
C. after serving a full tenure D. in consultation with the judiciary
24. An elected legislator in a presidential system can lose his seat by
A. cross-carpeting B. recall C. impeachment D. a vote of no confidence
25. The most critical debate on a bill and amendment to it take place
A. first reading B. second reading C. third reading D. assent

ECONOMICS
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in this section
1. Ike’s scale of preference reveals that he prefers bananas to pawpaw, pawpaw to
oranges and oranges to bananas like. Ike’s preferences are therefore
A. inconsistent B. consistent C. transitive D. rational
2. One of the features of a free market economy is that A. resources are
directed by the price mechanism B. workers do not earn equal wages
C. the profit motive is severely constrained D.decisions on the economy are
taken by bureaucratic structures
3. Given that at the beginning of 1973, Nigeria with a birth rate of 3% per annum
population of 75 million, this implies that in that year A. the population
increased by 25 million7 B.therewere2.25millionlivebirths
C. the government had to make provisions for 2.25 million children
D. 2.25 million children were born
4. When a country’s population is experiencing increasing returns, that country is
A. over populated B. economically poor C. over producing goods and services
D. underpopulated
5. In a country, if the proportion of people who are below 15 years is 45% and
those above 60 years is 30%,this implies that the A. dependency ratio is
high B. population is optimum C. active population is large D. population is
growing according to Maithus theory
6. One of the objectives of Nigeria’s current population policy is to A. reduce the
birth rateB. reduce the emigration rate C. increase the birth rate
D. enhance longevity
7. Labour productivity is the ratio of A. labour to output B. man-hours to
output C. output to man hoursD. average product to man-hours
8. Given a market demand curve Q 120 2p and a supply curve Q 4p, the
equilibrium price and quantity respectivelyare.A.20and80 B.30and120
C.40and60D.60and240
9. If a demand curve that intersects a perfectly inelastic supply curve shifts
rightward, thenA. the equilibrium price and quantity will increase B. only the
price will increase C. only the quantity will increase D. the price will remain
constant
10. The elasticity of demand for a firm’s produce is 2. If the firm reduces its price
by 20%, its sales revenue will increase by A.10% B.20% C.30% D.40%
11. The best channel of distribution of baked bread is A. wholesalers to retailers
then to consumers B. direct sales to consumersC. wholesalers to consumers D.
retailers to consumers
12. A form of business organization which is characterized by limited authority
and liability of the individual owners is the A. sole proprietorship
B. partnership C. joint stock companyD. co-operative society
13. The shares that must be redeemed first in liquidation of accompany are
A. preference shares B non-voting ordinary shares C. ordinary shares
D. debentures
14. The suggestion that peasants in Africa have backward-bending supply curve of
output implies that their response to an increase in the price of their crops will
best A. increase their output B. decrease their output C. keep their output
constantD hard their output
15 Plywood are often located near source of A.finance B. labourC.power supply
D.raw materials
16. Afirm is said to have benefited from external economies in production if it has
realizedA. a more efficient management of resources B. a better combination of
factors of production C. reduce resource cost due to operations of other firms
D. a higher profit level due to increased sales
17. One of the dangers of the localization of industries is A. residual
unemployment B. mass unemployment C. cyclical unemployment
D. structural unemployment
18. A glut in the world market for crude oil means A. a fall in crude oil
production B. an excess supply of crude petroleum C. a higher crude oil price
offered by the buyer D. a higher crude oil price demanded by the seller
19. The main problem of Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries is how to
A. prevent members from violating their quota B. enhance the quality of
Petroleum products C complete with the North Sea producers D. ensure viable
crude reserves
20. The most important attribute of money is A. homogeneity B. relative scarcity
C. divisibility D. general acceptability
21. Which of the following is inflationary? A. an increase in taxation
B. an increase in savings C. a decrease in money supply D. an increase in
government expenditure
22. In a commercial banking, an account from which the customer cannot
withdraw money instantly is a....A. demand deposit account B. time deposit
account C. special deposit account D. savings deposit account
23. Banks can create more money by A. increasing its cash ratio with the central
bank B. issuing more bank chequesC. accepting more deposits from
customers D. lending out of money from customers’ deposits
24. Stocks and shares as well as bonds are examples of instruments used in the
A. commodity markets B. money markets C. capital markets D. security
markets
25. The use of legally permissible means to reduce tax liabilities is known as tax
A. evasion B. avoidance C. relief D. exemption

MATHEMATICS
INSTRUCTION: Answer all the question in this section
1. Simplify [3/4 of 4/9÷91/2] ÷ 5/19 A. 1/19 B.1/36 C.1/5 D.1/4
2. A student measures a piece of rope and found that it was 1.26m long. If the
actual length of the rope was 1.25m, what was the percentage error in the
measurement. A. 0.80% B. 0.40% C.0.25% D. 0.0%
3. At what rate will the interest on N400 increase to N24 in 3 years reckoning in
simple interest A. 5% B. 4% C.0.25% D. 2%
4. If y = 3 cos 4x; find dy/dxA. 6 sin 8x B. -24 sin 4x C. 12 sin 4x
D. -12 sin 4x
5. Find the number of ways of selecting 6 out of 10 subjects for an examinationA.
218 B.210 C.215 D.216
6. In a basket there are 6 grapes, 11 bananas and 13 oranges. If one fruit is picks
at random, what is the probability the fruit is either a grape or a banana.
A.6/30B. 5/30C.17/30D.11/30
7. A cylindrical pipe 50m long with radius 7m and one end open. What is the
total surface area of the pipe.A. 249ð B.700ðm2 C.350ðm2 D.98ðm2
8.
Mark 3 4 5 6 7 8
Frequency 5 y- y 9 4 1
1

The table above gives the frequency distribution of marks obtained by grou
A.15 B.13 C.11 D.9
9. Find the minimum value of the function y = x (1 +x) A.- ¼ B.-½ C. ¼
D. ½
10. Evaluate [2 , (6x2 -2x)dx A. 16 B. 13 C. 12 D.11
11. A container has 30 gold, 22 silver and 18 bronze medals. If one medal is
selected at random from the container, what is the probability that it is a gold
medal. (a) 3/7 (b) 4/7(c) 11/35 (d) 9/35
12. In how many ways can the letter of the word ACCEPTANCE be arranged.
10!
a. 10! b.
2!2!3!
c. 10! d. 10!
2!3! 2!3!
13. Find the values of x and y respectively. If
1 0 x 1 -2 1
-1 -1 x -1 0 = -2 -1
2 2 y -2 -3 0

A.-3,-2 B.-5,-3 C.-2,-5 D.-3,-5

14. Evaluate: 2 0 5
4 6 3
8 9 1 A.-102 B.-42 C.18 D102

15. In the figure, find the value of y. 152o 30

A.28o B.122o C.150o D.152o

16. In m* n = n (m + 2) for an real numbers m and n, find the value of 3* 5.

a. -6 b. -8 c. -10 d. -1 R
P
50o T
17. In the diagram PQ//RS the size of the angle marked x is
30o
a. -100ob. 80o c. 50od. 30o
xo
S
Q T
T T
18. From the figure, calculate TH in centimeters.
A. 5 B. 5 C. 5 D. 𝑣3
𝑣3 + 1 𝑣3 + 1 𝑣3 5

45o 30o
H P
Q
5cm

19. In the diagram, o is the centre of circle and POQ is a diameter. If <PQR = 96o.
Q
Find the value of <ORQ marked x

o
96o
R
P

20. Rationalize 2𝑣3 +𝑣5

𝑣5 − 𝑣3
a. 3v15 + 11 b.3𝑣15 + 11 c. 3v15 – 11 d.3𝑐𝑣15−11
2 2
21. The pie chart represents 400 fruits on display in a food tore. How many apples
are in the store? a.75 b.60 c.50 d.45 Orange
100o
Banana 100o xo Apple
150o
Pawpaw

22.
Marks 1 2 3 4 5
Frequencies 2 2 8 4 4

The table shows the marks obtained in a given test. Find the mean mark.
A. 1.3 B. 3.2 C. 3.1 D. 3.0
23. The histogram represents the number of students that sat for Mathematics
examination in a school. How many candidates scored more than 50 marks.
A.80 B.90 C.95 D.100
24. In a survey of 50 newspapers readers, 40 read champion, 30 and Guardian.
How many read both papers. A.20 B.15 C.10 D.5
25. A worker’s present salary is N24,000 per annum. His annual increment is 10%
of his basic salary. What would be his annual salary at the beginning of the
third year? A.N28,800 B.N29,040 C.N31,200 D.N31,944

SOLUTION TO 2019
ENGLISH
1. A 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.B 8.A 9.C 10.C 11.A 12.D 13.B 14.B
15. A 16.A 17.B 18.B 19.A 20.D 21.A 22.C 23.A 24.B 25.A
GOVERNMENT
1.B 2.C 3.D 4.C 5.B 6.A 7.C 8.C 9.C 10.D 11.A 12.D 13.C 14.B 15.C
16.D 17.C 18.B 19.B 20.D 21.B 22.D 23A 24.B 25.C
MATHEMATICS
1. 2.A 3.A 4.D 5. 6.C 7. 8.C 9. 10.C 11.A 12. 13. 14.A 15.B 16.D. 17.B
18. 19.
 LASU PAST QUESTIONS
Direct Entry Exam Screening Test
2018Time Allowed: 1 Hour

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
INSTRUCTION: Candidates for ENGLISH EDUCATION must attempt questions
on English language, literature and any other two subjects. On the whole, four sections
are to be attempted. All Answers must provided on the OMR sheet.
Choose the word or expression which best completes each sentence
1. Angela...........me before returning to school A. will have visited B.must have
visited C. ought to have visited D. has to visit
2. They............ receive visitors at short notice A.use to B. are used to C. used to
D. are always
3. If he were to apologizes I will properly forgive himA. I shall not forgive him
even he apologizes B.he is likely to be apologizes and be forgiven C.I shall
definitely forgive him if he apologizes D. If he apologize.,I shall decide
whether to forgive him
4. He dashed out and within. ............ He came back. A.a twinkle of an eye
B.twinkling of an eye C.a close of the eye D.a twinkling of aneye
5. Candidates who are not accustomed to......... Fast will fine it difficult to finish
this paperA. writeB. writing C. having written D. haven written
Choose the option that best completes each sentence
6. He took exception to Ezenwa’s remark A. was delighted at B. was excited by
C. got demoralized by D.objected to
7. Look at the tell-tale signs of battering on her. A. confirming looks
B. suspicious marks C. revealing marks D. signifying marks
8. The sudden death of the king ‘put paid’ to the ambition of the minister
A. terminated B. encouraged C. rewarded D. benefited
9. My friend’s decision to jump the train is not in his best interest A. jump into it
while movingB. travel by train C. travel illegally D. travel safely but slowly
10. Your action underscores the point I was making ...... A. reveals B. proves wrong
C. emphasizes D.justifies
11. Disgruntled people are indifferent to any plan to rid the society of evil
A. different from B. different about C. opposed to D. interested in
12. .............is always superior to any other in town A. there’s B. theirs C. their’s
D. theirs’
13. Let’s have a cup of coffee. A.shall we? B. will we? C. can we?
D.shouldwe?
14. The man rose to an important position as a result of.......................hard work.
A. sheer B. cheer C. share D. shear
Choose the nearest in meaning here
15. He is credulous A. credible B. creditable C. gullible D. fallible
Choose the option that best completes each sentence
16. Adaobi is contemptuous........ dishonest people. A.to B.at C.for D.of
17. States men are revered for their objectivity A. referred B. respected
C. remembered D. rejected
18. The patient explained to the doctor how she............. herself the previous day.
A. hurts B. hurt C. had hurt D. had hurted
19. Such measures end up exacerbating the pain A. aggravating B. increasing
C. criminating D. elleviating
20. Justina counted her chicken before they hatched. This means that A. she listed
her expectation before they materialized B. she proved to know tomorrow
C. she is very sure of herself D. she is very expectant
Choose the option that best completes the sentences
21. I hereby declare and.........that, to the best of my knowledge, this statement is
true in all respects. A. inform B. confirm C. affirm D. conform
22. Our new boss has stepped off on the wrong foot this means that he has
A. injured his foot while entering his office B. started off badly C. made a
costly mistake D. stepped on the wrong toes
23. Good students can easily identify ‘spurious arguments A. genuine
B. interesting C. false D. illogical
24. The doctor insisted in giving all of us prophylactic drugs A. curative
B. preventive C. routine D. special
25. The delegates to the constitutional conference have mooted that funding of
universities be transferred to state where they are located A. said, B. agreed C.
proposed D. legislated

GOVERNMENT
INSTRUCTION: Answer all Questions in this section
1. The ultimate authority in a state is A. legitimacy B. influence C. power
D. sovereignty
2. The national legislator in Nigeria under the 1999 constitution is composed of
 A. 100 Senators and 250 member of the House Representative
B. 108 Senators and 350 members of the House Representative
C. 109 Senators and 360 members of the House Representative
D. 109 Senators and 350 members of the House Representative
3. The study of government essentially facilitates the understanding of the
A. organization of the executive arm of government B. observance of
fundamental human rights C. functioning of the entire social formation
D. governance of human societies
4. The most important aspect of political participation in a democracy is
A. registration with a political party B. the observance of electoral processes
C. voting in elections D. attending political rallies
5. A characteristic of most pre-colonial governments in Nigeria is that they
A. had no defined function B. performed only executive functions C. had no
clear separation of powersD. observed independence of the judiciary
6. Serfs are the dominated class under A.fascism B.capitalism C.feudalism
D.socialism
7. Under the independence constitution of Nigeria, Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe was
A. Head of StateB. Governor General C. Prime Minister D. Lieutenant
General.
8. The principle of checks and balances empower the judiciary to A. administer
the criminal justice system B. apply the law C. invalidate the actions of other
arms D. abrogate the law
9. Where the constitution is supreme, unconstitutional acts of the executive and
legislature can be checked by the courts through A. recall B.judicial review C.
Vote of no confidence D. impeachment
10. Under a parliamentary system of government the cabinet holds office at the
pleasure of theA. electorate B. legislature C. opposition D. Head of state
11. Nigeria observed the principle of collective responsibility between
A. 1993 and 1999B. 1985and 1993 C. 1979 and 1983 D. l960 and 1966
12. The final stage in the process of enacting legislation is A. guillotine
B. notification C. assent D. final reading
13. The political party formed in 1923 by Herbert Macaulay was A. National
Council of Nigeria and the Cameroon B. Nigerian National Democratic Party
C. Nigerian Youth Movement D. United National Independent Party
14. Under a presidential system of government, the legislature and the executive
areA. elected separately to a fixed term B. elected separately to an unfixed
term C. appointed by the judiciary to a fixed term D. none of the above
15. A distinctive feature of the Richards constitution was its provision for
A. official members in the legislative council B. unofficial members in the
legislative council C. a legislative council for the whole country
D. the establishment of local councils
16. One of the major sources of constitution is A. judicial precedence B. political
debate C. opinion poll D. executive order
17. Under the 1999 constitution, the appointment of ministers and ambassadors
must be ratified by the A. House of representative B. Senate C. Presidency
D. National Council of States
18. The act of removing an elected official by the electorate is referred to as
A impeachment B consensus C plebiscite D recall
19. The first successful disengagement of the military from politics was carried out
by the Government of A.Murutala/ObasanjoB. Buhari /Idiagbon
C. Ibrahim BabangidaD. AbdulsalamiAbubakar
20. The rule of law is a cardinal principle associated with A. democratic systems
B. federal systems C. communist systems D. feudal systems
21. One of the advantages of bicameral over unicameral legislature is that it
A. is cheap to maintainB. promotes social equality C. takes less time for
bills to be passed D. prevents the passage of ill considered bills
22. In the present local government structure, traditional rulers play. A. a judicial
role B. an advisory role C. a legislative role D. an executive role
23. When a bill passed the legislature vetoed by the executive, the action
underscores the principle of A. probity and accountability B. separation of
powers C. collective responsibility D. checks and balances
24. Which of the following is true of a parliamentary system of government?
A. clear separation of government organs B. strict operation of bicameral
legislature C. removal of government by impeachment D.adherence to
majority rule
25. A constitution that requires a plebiscite or a referendum to be amended is
A. rigid B. unwritten C. flexible D. written
ECONOMICS
INSTRUCTION: Answer All Questions in this section
1. Two goods X and Y are said to be complementary when A. arise in the price of
X does not affect the demand for Y B. a fall in the price of X raises the demand
for Y C. a fall in the price of X causes a fall in the € demand forY D. a fall in
the price of X does not affect the demand forY
2. If the arithmetic mean of 1,2,5,6, x, 16 and 18 is 8.0, find the value of x
A.7.0 B.6.0 C.8.5 D.8.0
3. By open market operations, we mean the process by which. A. the central
bank intervenes in the open market to buy or sell securities B. the commercial
banks intervene in the open market to buy and sell treasury bills C. market
women buy and sell commodities in the open market D. the money takes
overthe functions of the central bank.
4. The fixing of the price of an item above or below the equilibrium price is most
likely to take place in aA. centrally planned economy B. free market economy
C. developed economy D. mixed economy
5. Elasticity of demand is given by A. the percentage change in price divided by
the correspondingpercentage change in quantity demanded B. the percentage
change in quantity demanded divided by the corresponding price
C. the percentage change in price divided by the corresponding quantity
demanded D. the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the
corresponding percentage change in price.
6. Afirm’s shut-down point is reached when the average revenue fails to cover
theA. average variable cost B. marginal cost C. average total cost D. average
fixed cost
7. Which of the following is not a visible item in international trade payments?
A. payments for imported cars B. receipts from cocoa exports C. payments to
foreign shipping companies D. payments for steel imports
8. An important feature of perfect competition is that A. the movement of goods
and services is restricted B.there is adequate knowledge of existing prices
C. prices are centrally administered D. individual economic units can influence
prices
9. An equilibrium price A. keeps excess demands within limits B. keeps excess
supply within limits C. equates the quantity supplies to be equal to the quantity
demanded D. generates the greatest possible demand and supply
10. A major advantage of specialization and division of labour is that A. time
wastage will be minimized B. trade unions will be encouraged C. there will be
ready market for labour D. workers will be adequately rewarded
11. Economics is a science which deals basically with A. the factors of production
B. allocation of scarce resources C. oil exportation D. the Gross Domestic
Product (GDP)
12. A disadvantage of concentrating industries in an area is that it could A. lead to
collusion among firms B. result in environmental pollution C. bring about
diseconomics of scaleD. increase the cost of production
13. The main economic goal of ECO WAS is the attainment of A. regional free
tradeB. multilateral trade C. bilateral trade D. economic self reliance
14. Atax that increases at a higher percentage as income increases is called
A. a proportional tax B.regressive tax C. a progressive tax D an income tax
15. The concept of economic efficiency primarily refers to A. obtaining the
maximum output from availat resources at the lowest possible cost B.
conversion of our petroleum resources C. equity in the distribution of the
nation’s wealth D. producing without waste
16. National income estimates can be used to A. compare a country’s growth rate
with that of another over period B. differentiate between the rich and poor in a
country C. prepare a Country’s annual budget I project the level of a country’s
economic development
17. Public expenditure creates expansionary effect in the economy when it is A. in
excess of government revenue B. channeled into capital projects C. diverted
into importsD. completely finance through part of the year’s total collection of
taxes
18. Which of the following yields more revenue to Nigeria A. value added tax B.
royalties C. direct taxes D. indirect tax
19. Division of labour has many advantages but it is greatly limited by
A. monotony of work B. decline of craftsmanship C. risk of unemployment D.
extent of market demand
20. The major purpose of the African development bank is to A. educate peasant
farmers in new technique B. provide loans in development banks in distress C.
provide loans for infrastructural development D. provide loans for trade
development
21. The production within the domestic territory of a country is called the
A. net national productB. gross domestic product C. net income
 D. disposable income
22. One way of correcting the balance of payments problem of a country is to
A. devalue the currency B introduce import-promotion measures
C. de-emphasis import-substitution industries D. buy investments abroad
23. The advantages that accrue to a firm as the size of the firm increases are known
asA. eternal diseconomies B. internal returns to scale C. internal economies
D. internal diseconomies
24. The privatization policy of Nigeria is aimed at A. increasing efficiency in
productionB. reducing the prices of goods and services C. poverty alleviation
D. reducing income inequality
25. The most important characteristic of money is. A. portability B. intrinsic value
C. usefulness D. acceptability

LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
INSTRUCTION: AnswerAll Questions in this section.
Questions 1 10 are based on general literary principles
1. Melodrama is a theatrical performance in which A. the serious is treated in a
satirical way B. subordination of characterization to plot occurs C. music and
dance predominate D. evil triumphs over good
2. Point of denouement in a literary work is the A. point at which the major
character is shown in his true coloursB. point of disagreement in a narrative
C. point of the resolution of the puzzling issue D. cathartic point in a tragedy.
3. In narration, the first person is A. the author B. a participant C. the publisher
D. an observer
4. The setting in pastoral poetry is usually A. oceanic B. urban C. ecumenical D.
idyllic
5. The poetic device that forcefully brings together two seemingly unrelated ideas
or concepts is A. conceit B. contrast C. couplet D. diatribe
6. Aliterary work which imitates another in a distorted form is called
A. exodiumB. isocohenC. metonymy D. burlesque
7. Ashort narrative or lyrical poem intended to be sung is aA. leichB. lay
C. laudaD. letrilla
8. A line or a group of lines repeated in the course of a poem is called A. chorus
B. refrain C. repetition D. prologue
9. Along story narrating a series of complicated events is called aA. saga
B. discourse C. monologue D. harangue
10. An epic is a heroic story which includes A.ballad B. lyric C. myth D.dialogue
Questions 11 15 are based on literary appreciation
11. ‘You do not have to be brutal to be a soldier or rather you are brutal not
because you are a soldier, but because there is a sadist, a rapist, a fascist and a
murderer in you who is waiting for war and army uniformto give them
expression’(Festus iyayi: Heroes) The speaker here contends thatA. soldiers
are generally wicked B. human nature has to do with a profession C. soldiers
are characteristically gentle D. the latent brutality in man finds expression in
war
12. Life though a vanity
Yet not purposeful
In drawing resignation
Life’s spice is in strife
From the extract above, the poet suggests that
A. life is full of care B. there can’t be life without strive C. life is worthwhile
without care D. strive makeslife worth living
13. sweet smile in time of snarl
Gives pride in spite of sneer
Sing, rid this world of despair,
And save a snared heart from
Cascading stream of strife’
The dominant rhetorical device in the excerpt above is A. rhyme B. alliteration
C. repetition D. onomatopoeia
14. “The guity are too well fed to pass through the needle’s eye of our scorn the
noose of public contempt hangs idle at the market place” (OdiaOfelmun: The
poet lied and otherpoems) The allusion in the excerpt aboveis A. mythical B.
biblical C. historical D. classical
15. I am alone
And the murmur of mylips
Carty song and tears homewards
From a plain away from home (OkogbuleWonodi: Lament for Shola)
The poet persona here expresses a feeling ofA. elation B. anger C. nostalgia
D. sorrow
Questions 16 25 re based on selected poems from Ken D. Et al (eds.): New Poetry
from Africa; Soyinka, W (ed.) Poems of BlackAfrica; Senanu, K.Eand Vincent, T
(eds.):A selection African Poetry, Umukoro, M. Et al (eds.) Exam focus: Literature
in English; Eruvbertine, A. Eetal (eds.) Longman Examination Guides, and Nwoga,
D. I (ed.). WestAfrican Verse

16. In Acholonu’s the Dissidents ‘the daughter of my father’ is a

A. heroine B. villain C. character D. narrator
17 ‘............a huge senseless cathedral of doom’ in KofiAwoonor’s The Cathedral
impliesA. meaningless foreign religious practices B. meaningless indigenous
religious practices C. the architectural beauty of the cathedral D. the Catholic
Church practices
18. The persona in Kassam’sMajiMaji represents the A. warriors B. Germans C.
MzeeD. Listeners
19. David Diop’s Loser of Everything can be seen as A. lamentation of the
destruction of African values B. the suppression of an African village
C. a celebration of African values D. an account of warefare between an
African community and an invading force
20. KaluUka’s Earth to Earth is concerned with the A. fertilization of earth by
moistureB. loss of man’s property C. seasonal flow of nature D. happy
beginning and sad end life
21. ‘Love and loveless hate’ and Love, lustresless word’ in Leme Peters’ she came
in Silken Drapes suggestthat A. love is a meaningless word B. joy and
sadness often mingleC. love is forever sweet D. love breeds hate
22. Arthur Nortles’s Nightfall is written against the backdrop of A. apartheld
B. revolution C. celebration D. violence
23. The allusion to Eurydice’s experience in Robert Frost’s Wild Grapes is an
imagery of death andA. reincarnation B. resurrection C. rebirth D. growth
24. Mohari Singh’s A Village Girl centres on A. the description of a village girl
B. beauty and its applicationC. man in nature D. the elegance of a girl
25. In John Donne’s Death, be not proud the poet believes that death is
A. immortal B. mighty C. pleasurable D. dreadful

MATHEMATICS
1. Simplify 𝑣98−𝑣50
𝑣32
A. ½ B. ¼ C. 1 D. 3
2. A cenima hall contains a certain number of people. If 22½% are children,
47½% are men and 84 are women, find the number of men in the hall. A.133
B.113 C.63 D.84
3. If -2 is the solution of equation 2x + 1 – 3c = 2c + 3x – 7. Find the value of c.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
4. Find the area of the figure.
A12.5cm2
5cm
B.75.0cm2
C.78.5cm2 15cm

D.84.8cm2

5.
No. of days 1 2 3 4 5 6
No. of students 20 x 50 40 2x 60

The distribution above shows the number of days a group of 260 students were
absent from school in a particular term. How many students were absent for at
least four days in the term? A.40 B.120 C.160 D.210
6. Evaluate (0.14)2x0.275 correct to 3 decimal places. A.0.033 B.0.039 C.0.308
7 (0.02)

D.0.358
7.
No. of students 2 2 11 10 16 51 40 10 25 15 20
Marks 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 11

The marks scored by students in a test are given above in the table. Find the
median. A.7 B.6 C.5 D.4

8. Evaluate: -1 -1 -1
3 1 -1
1 2 1 A.4 B. -2 C -4 D -12

9. Audu bought an article for N50,000 and sold it to Femi at a loss of x%. Femi
later sold article to Oche at a profit of 40%. If Femi made a profit of N10,000,
find the value of x. A.60 B.50 C.40 D.20
10. In the diagram below, EFGH is a circle with centre o. FH is a diameter and Ge
is a chord which meets FH at right angle at point N. If NH = 8cm and EG =
P
24cm, calculate FH.
A.16cm B. 20cm C. 26cm D. 32cm
N
E

H
11. In the figure beside, PQR is a straight line. Find the value of x and y
A. x = 22.5o and y = 33.75o
B. x = 15o and y = 52.5o (3x+ 3y)o
2
45o
C. x = 22.5o and y = 45.0o P R
yo
D. x = 56.25o and y = 11.5o
(5x + y)o
E. x = 18o and y = 56.5o

12. The grades of 36 students in a class test are as shown in the pie chart below.
How many students had excellent? Very
o Good
Very good is 90 . A.7 B.8 C.9 D.12
Excellent 80o
Credit
120o Pass

13. In the figure, PQST is a parallelogram and TSR is a straight-line. If the area of
ΔQRS is 20cm2, find the area of trapezium PQRT. P Q

A.35cm2B.70cm2C.65cm2D140cm2
T 10cm S 8cm R

14. The chord of a circle diameter 42cm subtends an angle of 60o at the center of
the circle. Find the length of the minor arc. A.22cm B.44cm C.110cm
D.220cm
15. The angle of elevation from a measuring instrument placed on the ground is
30o. If the building is 40m high, how far is the instrument from the foot of the
building? A. 20mB.40m C. 20v3m D. 40v3m
𝑣3 𝑣3
-1
16. Evaluate: [ -1 (2x + 1)2dx. A. 323 B. 4 C. 413 D. 4 23
17. If y = 3t3 + 2t2 – 7t + 3, find𝑑𝑦
𝑑𝑡
at t = -1 A. -1 B. 1 C. -2 D. 2
18. Calculate the mean deviation of the set of numbers 7, 3, 14, 7 and 8.
A. 2½ B. 21 C. 2 1 D. 11
3 6 6
19. The probability of a student passing any examination is 2, if the student takes
3
three examination, what is the probability that he will not pass any of them.
A. 2B.4 C. 8 D. 1
3 9 27 27
20. A student spent 1of his allowance on books, 1 of remainder on food and kept
5 3
the rest for contingencies. What fraction was left? A. 7 B. 8 C.2 D. 4
15 15 3 5
21. Find the principal which amounts to N5500 at simple interest in 5 years at 2%
per annum.A.N5000 B.N4900 C.N4800 D.N4700
22. Evaluate [1/0.03 ÷ 1/0.024]-1 correct to 2 decimal place.
23. In the figure beside, angle XYZ = angle YTZ = 90o, XT = 9cm and TZ = 16cm.
Find YZ. Y

A. 25cm B. 20cm C. 16cm D. 9cm

X Z
9cm T 16cm

24. A train moves from P to Q at an average speed of 90km/h and immediately

returns from Q to P through the same route at an average speed of 45km/h.Find
the average speed for the entire journey. A.55.00km/h B.60.00km/h C.
67.50km/h D. 75.00km/h
25. Solve the simultaneous equation for x: x2 + y – 8 = 0; y + 5x – 2 = 0.
A. -28, 7 B. 6, -28 C. 6, -1 D. -1, 7 E. 3, 2

SOLUTION TO 2018
ENGLISH
1.C 2.C 3.D 4.A 5.B 6.D 7.C 8. 9.C 10.C 11.D 12.D
13.A 14.A 15. C 16.A 17.B 18.B 19.A 20.A 21.B 22.B 23.C 24. B
25. C
GOVERNMENT
1.D 2.C 3.C 4.C 5.C 6.C 7.A 8.C 9.B 10.B 11.D 12.C
13.B 14.A 15.C 16.A 17.** 18.D 19.A 20.A 21.D 22.B 23.D 24.D
25.A
ECONOMICS
1.B 2.** 3.B 4.B 5.B 6.C 7.B 8.B 9.C 10.A 11.B 12.B
13.A 14.C 15.A 16.C 17.A 18.C 19.D 20.C 21.B 22.C 23.C 24.A
25.D
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1.C 2.C 3.B 4.D 5.B 6.D 7.** 8.B 9.A 10.A 11.D 12.B
13.B 14.D 15.C 16.
MATHEMATICS
1.A 2.A 3.B 4.D 5.C 6.B 7. 8.C 9. 10. 11.A 12.A
13.C 14.B 15.D 16. 17.C 18. 19D 20.A 21.A 22. 23. 24C
25.C
 LASU PAST QUESTIONS
Direct Entry Exam Screening Test
2017Time Allowed: 1 Hour
INSTRUCTION: There are five sections in all. All candidates for Law must answer
questions on English Language, English Literature and two other sections while
candidates for ENGLISH EDUCATION must answer English language, Government
and two other subjects. Shade properly in the OMR sheet as poor shading would
invalidate your attempt.
Time: 1 hr
SECTION A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE
In questions 1-5, choose the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word(s) or
phrase(s).
1. The judge came down heavily on the accused person in this judgement.
A. crashed heavily B. descended upon heavily C. fell down heading
D. imposed a stiff penalty
2. Bankole was a man given to much wine. A. push to B. taken over by
C. addicted to D. afflicted by
3. The officer refused to be taken in by the private. A. won over B. drawn in C.
overtaken D. deceive
4. The lecturer maintained his usual good humour in spite of the cat-calls and the
ruled behaviour of his students. A. provoked B. obtained C. kept D. improved
5. He took exception to Ezenwa’s remark. A. was delight B. was excited by
C. was perplexed by D. objected to
In questions 6-15, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word(s) underlined
6. Mr. Jack was most Flexible in his instructions. A. rigid B. correct C. stiff
D. upright
7. The university has offered temporary accommodation to its staff. A. popular
B. permanent C. recongnized D. regular
8. Mary complained that she slept on the coarse floor. A. smooth B. rough C.
bad D. harch
9. Jim was one of the spectators at the concert. A. ushers B. judges C. quest
D. performers
10. The Governor declined to give audience to the journalists. A ignored
B. accepted C. forget D. rejected
11. The debtor’s husband is liable for his wife’s debts. A. unanswerable
B. responsible C. unquestionable D. accountable
12. He was looked up for a fortnight. A. released B. punished C. remanded D.
locked out
13. The retired General became a hard nosed officer after fighting the war.
A. tough B. weak C. indifferent D. bed-ridden
14. My brother’s primary school foundation was solid and this influenced his
secondary education. A. sound B. sordid C. shaky D. weak
15. Unless we see the evils dearly, contending against them is light fighting the air.
A. avoiding B. struggling with C. combating D. repelling
In questions 16-25, choose the word(s) or phrase(s) which best fills the gap(s)
16. Peter was such a skillful boxer that he was not afraid to take. ........ anybody.
A. to B. upon C. on D. in
17. ..........quests enjoyed Joy’s birthday party. A. the whole B. all the C. every
D. those very
18. The ceremony was rounded........very late. A. up B. off C. of D. out
19. The....................affairs officer is expecting all of us in the dining. A. student
B. student’s C. students D. student’s
20. The way that big boy bullied his sister with resist makes me think he could be
a............. A. bully B. sadist C. pugilist D. tyrant
21. All..........well with Peter. A. are not B. have not been C. were not D. is not
22. My little daughter has.......sight, hence, she now wears glasses. A. diminutive
B. blurreds C. painful D. defective
23. My boss is usually a charming man but. ...... he can be very irritable. A. a times
B. at times C. those items D. with times
24. One of the ladies who.............in the promises.............been asked to withdraw.
A. sells / have B. sell / have C. sells / has D. sell / has
25. No one has said anything yet, but I think I.............be getting a salary increase
next month. A. must B. an C. would D. may

SECTION B: GOVERNMENT
1. The major innovation of the Republican constitution of 1963 was that
A. the Prime Minister ceased to be Head of State B. the Governor’s office as
the representative of the Queen was abolished C. the cabinet was no longer
responsible to the legislature D. the Prime Minister was nominated by the
Executive Council
2. Which of these was NOT a demand of the nationalists movements in Nigeria?
A. promotion of Africans to Senior Service Position B. Reduction of the
dictatorship of colonial officers C. withdrawal of Military base from Africa
D. Improved conditions of service and salaries for Africans
3. Under the 1979 Nigerian Constitution, each state was allowed to elect
A. two SenatorsB. five Senators C. as many Senators as the State can
finance D. ten Senators
4. The 1979 Nigerian Constitution provides for Presidential elections every
A. fouryearsB. eightyears C. time the incumbent is impeached or dies
D. time the VP is impeached
5. The Economic Commission for Africa is an agency of the
A. AU B. OPEC C. UNO D. ECOWAS
6. The citizenship of a country may be acquired by an individual through
A. nationalization B. nomination C. neutralization D. naturalization
7. Government means the machinery established by a State to manage the affairs
of theA. rulers B. civil servants C. workers and plesantsD. people
8. The first black African State to gain political independence from a
colonialpower wasA. Liberia B. Ghana C. Ethiopia D. Guinea
9. Citizens legally qualified to vote for parliamentary candidates form
A. a word B. the electorate C. political parties D. Trade Union Congress
10. Electrons among candidates from the same party before the final elections are
called ...........A. electoral collegesB. party conventions C. primaries
D. second ballot
11. With whom is fascism associated? A.Adolf Hitler B. Karl Marx C.
Joseph Stalin D. Mussolini Benito
12. Which of the following is NOT a civic obligation of every Nigeria citizen?
A. freedom of conscience and religion B. obedience to laws C. payment of
taxes D. voting by adults
13. Voting first started in Nigeria in 1923 because of the Clifford Constitution of
1922 granted. A. self government B. elective principle C. decolonization
D. dominion states
14. To which of these groups did Nigeria belong before the formation of the OAU?
A. the Brazzaville group B. the Monrovia group C. the Casablance group
D. the West African group
15. The 1953 motion that Nigeria should become independent in 1956 was moved
by A. Chief Anthony AnahoroB. SirAhmadu Bello C. Dr. NnamdiAzikiwe D.
Chief ObafemiAwolowo
16. The legislative body of the United States ofAmerica is the A. Parliament
B. CongressC. National Assembly D. Council
17. The upper house in most federal system is created to A. ensure equality of
federating units B. oversee and check the lower house C.prevent excesses of
the executiveD. enable experienced elders make inputs to governance
18. One of the general tenets of fascist doctrine is that the leader is A. supreme
relative to the constitution B. subordinate to the laws of the state C. weak
relative to the constitutionD. subordinate to the norms of the society
19. The principle of separation of powers is best practiced in the A. presidential
system B. monarchical system C. parliamentary system D. feudal system
20. The rights of a citizen can be withdrawn by the state if the person A. opposes
the government violently B. is convicted of a serious crime C. leaves the
country permanently D. is pronounced dead
21. An electoral process in which candidates are selected for elective offices by
party members is A. primary election B. bye election C. electoral college’ D.
general election
22. In theory, one major advantage of the one-party system is that is
A. eliminates intra-party conflict B. promotes greater mass participation in
government C. serves as an instrument of national integration
D.guarantees social justice
23. Public opinion can be measured through A. negotiation B. strike action
C. referendum D. rumor
24. Who was the political head of the old Oyo empire? A. BashorunB. Aremo C.
OyomesiD.Alaafin
25. TheAro age-grade system in Igboland was A. a religious organization
B. a commercial organization C. a political organization D. an imperial
organization

SECTION C: ECONOMICS
1. Division of labour is limited by A. the size of the market B. the productivity
of capitalC. cost of production D. government policy
2. The production within the domestic territory of a country is called the
 A. net national product B. gross national product C. gross domestic product
D. net income
3. An ageing population refers to the preponderance on A. middle-aged people
in the population B. young people in the population C. old man in the
population D. old people in the population
4. In taxation, the benefit principle requires that A. everybody must draw
benefit from taxation B. all those who earn more income must pay more
taxes
C. taxes paid by business should be shifted to those consumers benefiting from
such consumer commodities D. everybody pay on equal amount
5. Demand for a commodity by a consumer is the quantity of that commodity that
the consumer A. Demand ata given price at a point in time B. demand at a
given price C. actually digests D. can store away during bad weather.
6. One main quality of a good is that it A. is sold in the market B. satisfies
wants C. is always tangible D. is non-perishable
7. An economic problem exists whenever A. there is scarcity and choice
B. there are no buyers for our goods C. all raw materials are imported
D. many people are out of work
8. Optimum population is desirable because it enables an economy to attain
maximum A. per capital income B. per capital output C. per capital real
income D. per capital revenue
9. The age distribution of a population is NOT influenced by A. birth rate
B. death rateC. school leaving D. patterns of emigration
10. The amount of labour a producer hires relative to other factor inputs depends
on theA. price of labourorits wage B. price of machinery C. price of labour,
machinery and Other inputs D. type of machinery
11. A corporation can obtain funds by issuing bonds. A bond is a form of debt
which falls due to repayment after A.6months B.9months C.2years
D. 10 or more years
12. The purchasing power of the Naira will fall when A. the Naira is devalued
B. there is inflation C. workers are retrenched D. government cuts all
salaries and wages
13. The petro-chemical industries are located in Rivers State of Nigeria due to
A. favourable climate B favourable soil C. oil deposit D. coal deposit
14. Which of the following is a necessary prerequisite for trade by barter
A. need for double coincidence of wants B. impossibility of future trade
C. impossibility of large scale production D. indivisibility of commodities
15. An example of a regressive tax is A. the personal income tax B. a general
sales taxC. the inheritance tax D.the graduated corporation income tax
16. Price can be defined as A. a rate of exchange B. a medium of exchange
C. the cost of a product D. the standard of accounting
17. The shu-down point for a firm in the short run is the output at which
A. the price of the product is lowest B.marginal cost is not constant
C. average variable cost is not covered D. average cost is minimum
18. In the long run, a firm will leave an industry if the price A. does not cover at
least Average Total Cost B. isnot equal to marginal cost C. is higher than
Average Variable Cost D. is not at least equal to the minimum of Marginal
cost curve
19. A shift in the demand curve, for a commodity when the supply curve is vertical
will lead to a change in the A. price only B. quantity only C. quality only D.
price and quantity
20. Frictional unemployment A. is total unemployment minus structural
B. occurs when the unemployed are persons with specific training C. occurs
when the number of job seekers exceeds the number ofvacancies D. occurs
when people are changing jobs
21. The difference between personal income and personal disposable income is
A. personal income tax B.investment income C. personal savings
D. consumption expenditure
22. The process of reducing foreign control of an economy is known as
A. commercialization B.incorporation C. indigenization D. industrialization
23. Which of the following foreign control of an economy is known as A. custom
duties B. sales tax C. excise duties D. purchase tax
24. The following are areas of government investment except A. defense
B. education C. health D. marriage
25. A country’s balance of payment account consist of accountA. current
B. current & capital C. fixed deposit D. savings and capital

SECTION D: LITERATURE IN ENGLISH

Read the poem and answer questions 1 3
No longer mourn for me when lam dead
Then you shall hear the surly sullen bell
Give warning to the world that I am fled
From this vile world, with vilest worms to dwell
1. The mood of the poet is one of A. anger B. humour C. melancholy D. gaiety
2. The poet uses A. eye-rhyme B. run-on-lines C. end-stopped-lines
D. internal rhyme
3. The rhyming pattern of the lines is A. ababB. abbaC. aabbD. aaab
4. Butatmy back I always hear “time’s winged charlot hurrying near” illustrates
A. metaphor B. apostrophe C. oxymoron D. metonymy
5. The central idea of a story or a poem is the A. title B. climax C. theme
D. conflict
6. The emphasis placed on a syllable in pronunciation is A. meter B. rhythm
C. accent D. rhyme
7. The turning and location of a literary work is A. theme B. plot C. setting
D. atmosphere
8. The major genres of literature are A. fiction, non-fiction, drama B. prose,
force, comedy C. prose, drama, poetry D. poetry, prose, fiction
9. Pick the odd item out of the options listed A. euphemism B. oxymoron
C. hyperbole D. rhythm
10. ‘Poetry gets bored of being alone, it wants to go outdoors to chew on the
winds” The dominant figure of speech in the above lines is A. paradox B. run
C. parallelismD. personification
11. The Limerick A. is written to be sung B. has a serious subject matter
C. is always light and humorous D. uses lofty language
12. A short introductory speech delivered as part of a play is called A. a preamble
B. a prologue C. an introduction D. an epilogue
13. A poem written in praise of someone or something is A. a ballad B. an epic C.a
sonnet D. an ode
14. The recurrence of rhythmic pattern of stress in a poem is A. couplet B. meter
C. consonance D. strophe
15. The narrative style in which the hero tells his own story directly is the
A. first personB. third person C. objective D. subjective
16. The physical, historical and cultural background of a literary work is referred to
asA. time B. setting C. episode D. plot
17. The book Macbeth by Shakespeare is an example of A. satire B. tragedy
C. metaphor D. simile
18. He is as black as coalis an example of A. simile B. metaphor C. hyperbole D.
humour
19. The author of things fall apart is A.Achebe B. Nnoli C. ClaudeAke
 D. Soyinka
20. The Nobel Lauret Nigeria has produced is A. Soyinka B. Achebe
C. OkadigboD. Douglas
In questions 21 to 25, choose the option opposite in meaning to the word(s)
underlined
21. Our government is making determined efforts to eradicate illiteracy
A. compulsory B. ineffective C. innocent D.unreliable
22. Sola’s car is badly damaged; he has to look for an expert mechanic to fix it
A. uneducated B. amateurish C. awkward D. unscientific
23. Wiffred was a mindless criminal A. strong B. mindful C. feeling D. memorable
24. The thieves vandalized the vault’s lock. A. repaired B. arranged C. serviced
D. actuated
25. The angry waves swallowed the boat A. gentle B. unruffled C. cool D. serene

SECTION E: CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE

1. The place where Abraham was asked to sacrifice Isaac was
A.Moniah B.Sinai C.Bethel D.Tabor
2. As a condition of his covenant with God, Abraham had to A. circumcise
every male B. keep Sabbath holy C. pray to God daily D. recite shema
3. How is it you were not afraid to put forth your hand to destroy the lord’s
anointed? Was said by A. Elijah to Ahab B. David to the Amalekite
C. One of the judges of IsraelD. David to Saul
4. On the third day of creation, God made A.light B.the
firmamentC.theearth D.animals
5. Paul was converted so that he might A. stop persecuting the Apostles B. help
Peter in the work C. bear the name of the Lord before the Gentiles D. not be
killed for his sins
6. Pilate gave Jesus to Jews to be crucified because A. he found Jesus guity of the
charges B. Jesus refused to defend himself C. the Jews gave him money D. the
Jews brought pressure upon him
7. Paul and Silas were imprisoned at A. Ephesus B. Antioch C. Philippi
D. Corinth
8. Jesus was led into the wilderness by A. hunger B. the devil C. the Holy
Spirit D. Satan
9. Who insisted in his speech that God does not dwell in houses made with hands
and that it was wrong forSolomon to have built a house for him? A. Peter
 B. James C. PaulD. Stephen
10. Who was the prophet who proved on Mount Carmel that Yahweh is greater
than Baal?A.Elijah B.Elisha C.Nathan D.Amos
11. Those inspired by God to lead the tribes of Israel in battle were the A. Judges
B. Prophets C. Levites D.Priests
12. God revealed to Samuel that he was going to punish Eli because he A. did not
correct his sons’ sinful behaviour B. did not offer sacrifices as the law
required C. offered sacrifices to other gods D. warned hisSons but did not
punish them
13. The sun stood still when A. Moses led the Israelites out of Israel B. Noal
came out of the ark C. Moses came down from the mountain with table of the
law D. Joshua defeated the Amorites at Gideon
14. To whom was this addressed? “Your father made our yoke heavy. Now
therefore lighten the hard services of your father and his heavy yoke upon us
and we will serve you”A. Jeroboam B. Solomon C. RehoboamD. Elijah
15. I repent that I made Saul king: what incident does this refer to A. the anointing
of SaulB. when Saul failed to pray C. when Saul disobeyed God over
Amalek
16. The Synoptic gospels refer to the A. books of the New Testament B. first four
books of the New TestamentC. first three books of the New testament D. first
five books of the bible
17. You should not tempt the Lord your God was said by Jesus to A. Peter after
his confession B. Calaphas athis trial C. the sons of Zebedee who demanded
the best seats in the kingdom D. the devil in the wilderness
18. The people of Nazareth found it difficult to believe what Jesus preached to
them because they A. were idolaters B. were stubborn C. knew him from
childhood D. could not understand his doctrine
19. Hosanna means A. ride on in majesty B. ride on in glory C. ride on to
Calvary D. ride on to save now
20. To some who trusted in themselves that they were righteous and despised
others, Jesus told the parable of the A. rich man and Lazarus B. Pharisees and
the tax-collectors C. Prodigal son D. good Samaritan
21. The spies sent out into the land of Canaan were NOT required to find out
whether theA. people who dwelt in it were few or many B. land they dwelt
was good or bad C. land was flowing with milk and honey D. land was forested
22. When did the Israelites say “All that the Lord has spoken we will do”? A. after
Joshua’s farewell speech B. at Mount Sinai C. when Moses spoke to them
before his deathD. after the incident of the golden calf
23. God took the kingdom from Saul because he A. was not strong enough
B. did not offer sacrifice to the lord C. was arrogant D. disobeyed the lord by
offering burnt sacrifice himself
24. The commander of David’s army was A. AbnerB. Joab C. Adonijah
D. Zadok
25. The city of Samaria was built by A. OmriB. Jeroboam C. Joel D. Jehu

SOLUTION TO 2017

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1.D 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.A 9.D 10.B 11.A 12.C
13.B 14.D 15.A 16.C 17.B 18.B 19.A 20.B 21.D 22.D 23.B 24.C
25.C
GOVERNMENT
1.B 2.A 3.B 4.A 5.A 6.D 7.D 8.C 9.B 10.C 11.D 12.A
13.B 14.B 15.A 16.8 17.A 18.A 19.A 20.B 21.A 22.A 23.C 24.D
25.D
ECONOMICS
1.A 2.C 3.A 4.C 5.A 6.B 7.A 8.A 9.C 10.A 11.D 12.A
13.C 14.A 15.B 16.C 17.C 18.C 19.D 20.B 21.C 22.C 23.A 24.D
25.D
LITERATURE IN ENGLISH
1.C 2.B 3.A 4.D 5.C 6.A 7.C 8.C 9.D 10.D 11.C 12.B
13.D 14.A 15.A 16.D 17.B 18.A 19.A 20.A 21.B 22.B 23.B 24.A
25.B
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE
1.A 2.A 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.D 7.C 8.C 9.** 10.A 11.A 12.D
13.D 14. C 15.C 16.B 17.D 18.C 19.D 20.B 21.D 22.B 23. C 24.A
25.A
 LASU PAST QUESTIONS
Direct Entry Exam Screening Test
2016Time Allowed: 1 Hour

INSTRUCTION: There are five sections tattered A D. candidates are to attempt all
the questions in sections A, B and two other sections. On no account should a
candidate attempt all the questions in the five sections. Attempting the five sections
and poor shading in the boxes provided invalidate your answers. Time: 1 hr

SECTION A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE

In question 1-10, choose the option nearest in meaning to the underlined.
1. The story to be taken with a grain of salt. This means that A. you need some
salt to listen to the story B. there is no salt in the story C. the story is
questionable D. the story is true.
2. It is usually hard to change the course of action when one crosses the Rubicon.
This means A. pass through a place called Rubicon B. cross river called
Rubicon C. pass special test D. be irrevocably committed
3. The salesman tried to pull the wool over my eyes. This implies that the
salesman tried to: A. force me to buy his goods B. offer me cotton wool
C. make me buy his wool D. dupe me
4. Ijeoma counted her chickens before they were hatched. This means that Ijeoma
A. regarded each egg as a chicken B. hatched the eggs prematurely
C. assumed that her expectations had already been realized D. protected her
eggs from breaking
5. Solo has resigned his job with the textile mills. He doesn’t seem to worry about
getting another job. His plans are still quite in the air. This means that his plans
are A. airmailed B. air tight C. uncertainD. certain
6. Ike is head over heels in love with Ngozi. This means that: A. Ike is friendly
with NgoziB. Ike is madly in love with NgoziC. Ike is trying to fall in love
with NgoziD. none of the above
7. The legislator has decided to play second fiddle after he had been walked out of
the Assembly for violating basic procedure of the house. This means that the
legislator has decided to A. oppose every motion in the house B. support
every motion in the house C. condemn every motion D. support the lead given
by others
8. Old customs die hard. This implies that old customs A. tend to last for a long
time B. must be stopped C. never die out D. cause hardship of younger
people
9. The convict said he was tired of leading a dog’s life. To lead a dog’s life means
to live A. carelessly B. in disgrace C. in poverty D. in misery
10. Jide is being forced to go to Lagos tomorrow. This means that JideA. will
goto Lagos B. must go to Lagos C. is going to Lagos D. goes to Lagos
In questions 11 20, choose the expression or word which best completes each
sentence
11. The student who went home without an exit has apologized his misconduct
A. on B. about C. for D. at
12. The Headmaster was interviewed in connection............ the expansion project.
A. to B. with C. for D. about
13. I am looking....... seeing your family A. ahead at B. forward to C. forward for
D. ahead to
14. The young lovers first met......... the university of Ibadan Havana Night dance
A. off B. by C. over D. through
15. It took the father many days to get....................the untimely death of his son.
A. off B. by C. over D. through
16. There is no doubt that every lady takes great pride ............... her appearance
A. with B. in C. at D. about
17. If you keep playing with this door handle, it will get........... A. loose B. lose
C. loosedD. loosing
18. If the armed robbers caught, they would have been lynched A. would be
B. were C. havebeen D. had been
19. The politicians are responsible for the events have taken in this country.
A. course B. curse C. cause D. coarse
20. The present Wanton display of riches........morals in our society A. will be
affectingB. are affecting C. is affecting D. had been affecting
In questions 21 30, choose the option nearest in meaning to the underlined word or
phrase
21. Victor will not attend the dinner party tonight: he is afraid of his own shadow.
A. attending another party B. scared of imaginary things C. unhappy with his
assigned role D. unable to forget his fears.
22. I am yet to write the penultimate paragraph of my essay A. last but one B. third
to the last C. second D. concluding
23. The corrupt official had to leave the public service willy-nilly. A. unprepared
B. reluctantly C. willingly D. compulsorily
24. The gallant soldiers met their waterloo at Philippi A. victory B. enemy
C. defeat D. trouble
25. Stephen was blamed for leaving his door ajar during the heavy rainfall.
A. unlocked B. unbolted C. keyless D. open

SECTION B: MATHEMATICS
1. If M represents the median and D the mode of the measurement 5, 9, 3, 8 then
(M, D) is A. (6, 5)B. (5, 8)C. (5, 7) D. (5, 5)
2. Given a regular hexagon, calculate each interior angle of the hexagon
A. 60° B. 30° C. 120° D. 45°
3. The value of (0.30)3 - (0.02)3 is A. 0.019 B. 0.0019 C. 0.00019
D. 0.000019
4. The lengths of the insides of a right angled triangles are (3x + 1)cm, (3x - 1)cm
and xcm.A.2 B.6 C.18 D.12
5. Without using tables, find the numerical value of log 49 + log(1/7)
A.1 B.2 C.3 D.7
6. If f(x)=1/x - 1 +x 1/x2—1,findf(1 - x) A.1/X+1/(X+2)B.x+1/(2x 1)
C. – 1/x1/(x 2)
7. Find the mean of the following: 24.57, 25.63, 25.32, 26.01, 25.77
A.25.12 B.25.30 C.25.26 D.25.73
8. Factorize 6x2 -14x -12. A. 2(x + 3)(3x -2) B. (x - 2)(x + 1) C. 2(x - 3)(3x + 2)
D. 6(x + 2)(x - 1)
9. Find a factor which is common to all three binomial expressions: 4a2 - 9b2, a3 +
27b3, (4a + 6b)2A. 4a +-6b B.4a-6b C.2a+3b D.2a-3b
10. If (x - 2) and (x + 1) are factors of the expression x3 + px2 + q + 1, what is the
sum of p and q A.0 B.-3 C.3 D.17/3
11. P sold his bicycle to Q at a profit of 10%. Q sold it to R for N209 at a loss of
5%. How much did the bicycle cost A. N200 B. N96 C. N180 D. N205
12. Thirty boys and x girls sat for a test. The mean of the boys scores and that of
the girls were respectively 6 and 8, find x if the total score was 468.
A.38 B.24 C.36 D.22
13. The cost of production of an article is made up as follows: LabourN70, Power
N15, Material N30, and Miscellaneous N5. Find the angle of the sector
representing labour in a pie chart. A. 210oB.105° C. 175° D. 150°
14. Simplify 3n – 3n-1/33 x 3nA. 1 B. 0 C. 1/27 D. 2/27
15. A straight line y = mx meets the curve y = x2–12x + 40 in two distinct points.
If one of them is (5, 5), find the other. A. (5, 6) B. (8, 8) C. (8, 5) D. (7, 7)
16. Sola choose at random a number between 1 and 300. What is the probability
that the number is divisible by 4? A. 1/3B. ¼ C. 1/5D. 4/300
17. The sides of a triangle are (x + 4)cm, xcm and (x - 4)cm respectively. If the
cosine of the largest angle is 1/5, find the values of x.
A. 24cm B. 20cm C. 28cm D. 88/7cm
18. Two fair dice arerolled. What is the probability that both sum up the same
number of point? A. 8 B. 2 C. 4 D. 6
19. The larger value of y for which (y-1)2 = 4y - 7 A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
20. In DXYZ, XY = 13cm, YZ = 9cm, XZ = 11cm and ZYZ = qo. Find cosqo.
A. 3/39 B.43/39 C. 43/78 D. 1/6.
21. The bearing of a bird on a tree from a hunter on the ground is N75oE, what is
the bearing of the hunter from the bird? A. S18oW B. S72oW C. S72oE
D. S27oW
22. If the quadrilateral function 3x2– 7x + R is a perfect square, find R.
A. 49/24 B. 49/3 C.49/6 D. 49/36.
23. Solve the following equation: 2/(2r 1) – 5/3 = 1/(r + 2)
A. (-1, 5/2) B. . (-1, 5/2) C. (5/2, 1) D. (2, 1)
24. Solve the simultaneous equations: 2x – 3y + 10 = 10x – 6y
A. x = 2½, y = 31/3,B. x = 3½, y = 21/3, C. x = 21/3, y = 3 D. x = 2½, y = 21/3
25. A bag contains 4 white balls and 6 red balls. Two red balls are taken from the
bag without replacement, what is the probability that they are both red.
A. 1/3B. 2/9C. 2/5D. 3/5

SECTION C: ECONOMICS
1. A major liability of a commercial bank arises from A. customer’s deposits B.
loans and advances C. overdrafts D. staff allowances
2. Retailers in an economy perform the function of A. production
B. exchange C. distribution D. investment
3. In a Sole Proprietorship the decisions are made by the A. Government
B. Board of directorsC. Owner D. Shareholders conference
4. The meaning of wage price spiral is A. demand pull and cost push inflation
pulling each other in different B. demand pull and cost push intensifying
 each other C. that wages and prices are rising at a proportional rate D. that
demand pull and cost push inflation increase employment.
5. Which of the following enterprise does not pursue the sole objective of profit
maximization A. Roads Nig. Ltd B. Union Bank of Nigeria C. Power
Holding Company of NigeriaD. Kingsway Nigeria Ltd.
6. Palm oil industry is located in Edo State because the state A. imports raw
material for oil industry B. is a palm tree growing area C. government does not
engage land for other crops D. land is suitable for oil
7. Disequilibrium in the balance of payments means A. imports of the country
exceeding its export B. deficit in the trade balance C. capital flowing out of the
country exceeds the capital flowing into the country D. overall deficit or surplus in
the current account and capital account of the balance of payments.
8. Full employment is a situation in which A. every adult is employed B. all
adult who can work areemployed C. only the disable are not employed
D. all those who are able and eligible to work can find employment
9. PHCN as a public corporation is A. a duopoly B. a power generating
industry in Nigeria C. amonopoly. a monopolistically competitive industry
10. Demand for a factor of production is A. a composite demand B. a joint demand
C. a derived demand D. an elasticity demand
11. Differential product is the characteristic feature of A. perfect competition
B. pure competition C. monopoly D. monopolistic competition
12. The channel for food distribution in Nigeria consists of A. producers,
wholesalers and retailer producers and consumers C. producers and processor
D. farmers, processors and consumers.
13. One disadvantage of sole proprietorship is its A. limited liability B. high profits
C. high sense of ownership D. low credit rating
14. For two substitute goods, the cross elasticity of demand is A. greater than one
but less than two B. zero C. negative D. positive
15. An imperfectly competitive market is one where A. a large number of firms sell
homogeneous product B. input and output prices are unaffected
C. commodities are differentiated D. each firm maximizesprofit by selecting
an output level at which marginal cost equals market price.
16. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of the size of economically
active population A. agestructure B. occupation of workers C. proportion of
men to women D. efficiency of labourforce
17. The economic goal of public utilities is to A. maximize profit B expand
assetsC. minimize cost D. provide essential services
18. The most important characteristic of money is A. portability B. intrinsic value
C. acceptability D. usefulness
19. Which of the following is not a feature of economic under development of a
country?A. large number of high income earners relative to the population
B. high annual income for the few C. high incidence of poverty D. high infant
mortality rate
20. Given the present state of the Nigerian economy, which of the following
measures will promote a more rapid economic development A. complete
dependence on oil exports?B. concentration on agricultural exports
C. diversification of the economy D. introduction of nuclear energy in
Nigeria
21. The following except ONE are the differences between international trade and
internal trade. A. difference in currency B. government control C. mobility of
factors of productionD. exchange of goods and services
22. The Central Bank instrument of control does NOT include A. open market
operationsB. moral suction C. selective credit control D. printing banknotes
23. The basic principles of co-operative societies are those of A. workers
ownership and worker control B. sole proprietorship C. partnership D. denying
of credit facilities to members.
24. Generally property taxes A. are borne entirely by landlords B. cannot be shifted
in the long run C. are borne only by renters D. are borne by all (renter, owner,
occupiers and landlords).
25. The population level that yields the maximum output when combined with
available resources is known as A. dependent population B. maximum
population C. active population D. optimum population.

SECTION D: GOVERNMENT
1. The process of depriving person of the right of voting is called
A. disqualification B. dismissed C. prohibition D. disenfranchisement
2. The principle of separation of powers implies that the three man organs of
government work A.separately B. independently and co-operatively
C. together in the interest of the nation D. against one another
3. A totalitarian government is A. a government that aspires to control every
aspect of a citizen’s life B. a government for the masses C. a weak government
D. controlled by the rich
4. Bicameralism refers to A. the process of voting in the chamber B. the upper
chamber in a legislature C. a two chamber legislature D. legislature in all
sovereign states.
5. The main function of the judiciary is to A. serve as the watchdog of the
executive B. enact laws C. protect the interest of accused persons D. interpret
the laws
6. Representative Democracy is best characterized by A. free elections and proper
register of voters B. a politically educated electorate C. rule by the interest
group D. proper constituencies and a realchoice of candidates
7. While political partial parties aim at forming a government pressure groups aim
atA. causing social unrest B. influencing governmental decisions
C. controlling nation’seconomy D. getting workers to unite.
8. When the electorate vote for representatives who in turn vote on their behalf
we say it isA. an indirect election B. an unfair election C. a disputed election
D. a rigged election
9. An election which is conducted to fill a vacant seat in a legislature is called a
A. by election B.general election C. referendum D. plebiscite
10. Which of these countries does NOT operate a federal constitution A. USA
B. NigeriaC. Canada D. France
11. The major advantage of the secret ballot is that A. it is faster than other systems
B. nobody can be prevented from voting C. it ensures the anonymity of each
voterD. losers can ask for another secret voter.
12. In a one party state A. there are no free citizens B. the communist party is the
only legal party C.the ruling party is the only legal party D. elections to be
legislature are held at the party’s conferences.
13. A cabinet system of government is practiced in A. Britain and Canada B. The
Soviet Union C. AllEuropean Countries including Britain D. the United States
of America
14. A proclamation by the Head of state ending a session of parliament is called
A. a dissolution B. anadjournment C. a prorogation D. a devotion
15. The constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria A. promotes unity in
diversity B. allows for the dominance of the minority ethnic groups
 C. concentrates governmental power at one level of government D. ensures the
dominance of one political party.

16. The transfer of authority to local government council is known as A. delegation

B. fusion C. fragmentation D. devotion
17. The principle of anonymity of civil servants means that they A. are not the
servant of a particular government B. are trained for the duties they perform C.
are credited or blamed for any thing they doD. have a career
18. The six registered political parties in Nigeria in 1982 we(e A. UPN, NPN, PPA,
NPP, PPP and NAPB. UPN, GNPP, NAP, PRP, NPP, NPN C. NPN, UPN,
NPP, PRP, NNDPD. NPC, GNPP, PRP, UPN, NPP and PPA
19. Which of the following is NOT a pressure group in Nigeria? A. Farmers B. the
Nigerian Union ofTeachers C. Nigerian Medical Association D. Academic
Staff Union of University
20. The N.C.C.C sent a delegation to London in 1947 to protest against the A.
Burns Constitution B.Richards Constitution C. Littleton Constitution D.
McPherson Constitution
21. A popular principle of colonial administration in British West Africa was A.
association B. indirect rule C. paternalism D. assimilation
22. The first Governor-General of colonial Nigeria was A. Sir Hugh Clifford B. Sir
James Robertson C.Lord Lugard D. Sir Ralph Moore.
23. The first military government in Nigeria was headed by A. General Yakubu
Gowon B. General Aguyi Ironsi C. General M. Mohammed D. General O.
Obasanjo
24. The first general election in Nigeria was held in A. 1933 B. 1952 C. 1955
D. 1959
25. The supreme organ of the UNO is the A. General Assembly B. Secretary
GeneralC. World Court D. World Bank

SECTION E: CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE

1. Luke gave the most detailed account of Christ’s infancy because he A. was his
blood relation B. was writing to Jesus C. was writing an orderly account of
events D. was writing to Theophilus.
2. After his conversion Paul first went to A. Damascus B. Tarsus C. Caeserea
D. Jerusalem
3. At childhood, the word of the Lord came to Samuel because he A. was
righteous B. had the qualities of a prophet C. was to announce the punishment
for the House of Eli D. slept near the alter
4. The suggestion made by prophet Nathan to Bathsheba to fall Adonijah’s
attempt to usurp the throne of David was to A. have Adonijah banished
B. remind David of his promise that Solomon would succeed him C. have
Solomon secretly anointed by Zadok D. plead with Adonijah to abandon the
attempt.
5. How many months were the Israelites on forced labour in Lebanon allowed to
spend at home for every month at the labour camp? A. two B. three C. four D.
five
6. But if it is by the spirit of God that I cast out demons, then A. God has defeated
SatanB. the kingdom of Satan cannot stand C. the kingdom of God has come
upon you D. the kingdom of Satan is already divided
7. “I assure you, unless you change and become like little children, you will not
enter the kingdom of God”. This is a warning by Jesus against A. anger
B. ambition C. wealth D. disobedience
8. Jesus taught that fasting in addition to prayers is necessary in some situation,
during the h of theA. blind beggar B. dropsied man C. gerasenedemonia D.
epileptic boy
9. Jesus did not grant the request of the sons of Zebedee because A. they were not
qualified for the privilege they asked for B. he did not want to encourage
rivalry among the disciples C. it was not histo grant the request D. they could
not drink with Jesus cup
10. Which of these women was absent during the crucification of Jesus Christ? A.
Mary Magdalene B. Elizabeth C. Mary the mother of Christ D. Salome
11. To explain the outpouring of the Holy Spirit on he day of Pentecost, Peter
quoted Prophet A. Isaiah B. Jeremiah C. Joel D. Ezekiel
12. To give the widow’s mile is to give A. more than others B. less than other
C. everything possible D. two copper coins
13. “Truly I perceive that God shows no partiality” was said by A. Cornelius
B. Peter C. Paul D. Philip
14. On his final journey to Jerusalem, Paul lodged at the House of A. Jason
B. Agabus C. Mnason D. Trophymus
15. After killing James the son of Zebedee, Herod also arrested Peter because
 A. Peter had promised to die with Jesus B. the Jews were pleased with the
murder of James C. Herod wanted to show his zeal for the law for Moses
D. Peter was the head of the Church.
16. God commanded that Aaron should speak for Moses to the Israelites, but
Moses should be to Aaron as A. God B. Master C. Brother D. Priest
17. Elkana went to worship and to sacrifice to the lord at Shiloh A. annually
B. monthly C. fortnightly D. every Sabbath
18. Then the Spirit of the lord will come mightily upon you, and you shall
prophesy with them A.Samuel B. Saul C. David D. Jonathan
19. The greatest of David’s domestic problems that seemed to break his heart was
the A. rape of Tamar of Amnon B. killing of Amon by Absalom C. conspiracy
of Absalom against him D. murder of Absalom by Joab
20. Uriah did not wish to go down to his house because A. his wife was pregnant
B. Joab would set him in the forefront of the battle C. the Ark was in the battle
field D. David lay with the wife
21. At his triumphant entry into Jerusalem, Christ had to sit on an ass because he
A. had need for it B. was humble C. wanted to fulfill the scriptures D. was a
king
22. One of the main qualifications of the successor of Judas was that he should be a
witness A. from the time of John the Baptist B. of the Ascension C. during the
time of Jesus ministry and death D. of the resurrection
23. Saul traveled to Damascus in order to A. obtain letters of authority from the
High Priest B. be converted to Christianity C. be baptized by Ananias
D. arrest those belonging to the way
24. Peter was criticized by the circumcision party in Jerusalem because he
A. converted the gentiles B. raised Dorcas to life C. ate with the gentiles
D. baptized Cornelius
25. Who prophesied a great famine over the entire world at Antioch? A. Agabus
B. Aeneas C. Claudius D. Barnabas

SOLUTION TO 2016

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1.C 2.D 3.D 4.C 5.C 6.B 7.D 8.A 9.D 10.B 11.C 12.B13. B
14.B15.C 16.B 17.A 18.B 19.D 20.C 21. D 22.A 23.D 24.C 25.D
MATHEMATICS
1.D2.A 3.A 4.D 5.D 6.D 7.C 8.C 9.B 10.A 11.A 12.A13.A 14. C 15. ** 16. B 17.A
18.C 19.A 20.21. 22. D 23. 24.A25.A
ECONOMICS
l.A 2.C 3.C 4.C 5.C 6.B 7.D 8.D 9.C 10.C 11.C 12.B13.D 14.C 15.A 16.B 17.D18.C
19.A 20.C 21.C 22.B 23.A 24.A 2.5D
GOVERNMENT
1.D2.B 3.A 4.C 5.D 6.d7.B 8.A 9.A 10.C 11.C 12.C13.A 14.A 15.A 16.D17.A
18.B 19.A 20.B 21.B 22.C 23.B 24.D 25.A
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS KNOWLEDGE
1.C2.D 3.C 4.B 5•** 6.B 7.B 8.D 9.C 10.B 11.C 12.C13.B
14.D15.B 16.B 17.A 18.A 19.D 20.C 21.C 22.C 23.D 24.C 25.A