ASCP recalls 2017-2018

Study online at quizlet.com/_6gfxfi

1. 3 pairs of hooklets in an ovum: 5. What grows on chocolate agar:

Haemophilus spp.
*requires X and V factor

It could grow around colonies of with Staph. Aureus forming

Hymenolepis Diminuta
Satellitism as Staph. Aureus (in addition Neisseria and
2. Which is the agent of hand, foot and mouth disease of
Pneumococcus) releases Hemin and NAD AKA factor 10 and
humans?:
Factor 5
6. Double zone of hemolysis and beta lactamase:

Coxsackie A.
3. Detection of antigen in urine specimen can be used for Clostridium Perfringens
which of the following type of pneumonia infection 7. Which increases first after an MI: Myoglobin
a. Fusobacterium 8. Which of the following parasite cause autoinfection in
B. Y. Pestis immunocompromised patients?:
C. Legionella
D. Mycobacterium TB.:

Strongyloides Stercoralis
Legionella 9. Which of the following causes antibody against TSH?: Graves
4. Antler hyphae found in ...: Disease = TSHR antibody

increase T3 and T4
decrease TSH
10. Which of the following causes antibody against
Thyroglubulin and Thyroid cells?: Hashimotos = Anti-
thyroglobulin

decrease T3 and T4
increase TSH
Microsporum Audouinii
11. What RBC inclusion can be seen on blood smear of a child 16. Which of the following condition is the most common cause
who accidentally ingested moth balls?: of increase anion gap?: Uremia (Renal failure), Lactic acidosis,
Ketoacidosis, Hypernatremia, ingestion of Methanol, Ethylene
Glycol or Salycilate (SLUMPED)
17. Double zone of hemolysis bacteria... how to confirmation?:

Heinz Bodies
12. Which of the following causes decrease HbA1c?:

positive reverse CAMP test.

18. Gram negative anaerobes after a Jaw surgery:

Sickel cell or any chronic Hemolytic Anemia

13. Which of the following cells releases histamine/heparin?:

Veillonella

reduce nitrate to nitrite, does not ferment carbohydrates.

19. Gram negative, beta hemolytic, oxidase positive organism
isolated from wound. A/A on TSI:

Eosinophil and Basophil

14. Which of the following Mycobacteria we can acquire from
tap water?:

Aeromonas
20. ONPG negative: N meningitis, not sure?

Mycobacterium Gordonae
15. Which of the following analytes is cofactor for most of 300
enzymes?: Magnesium (Zinc too)

reference range: 1.7-2.4 mg/dl

21. What requires oil or olive oil: 27. A cold agglutinin picture. The first question asked what
disease/infection it was associated with it and second asked
what would cause this blood picture:

Malassezia furfur (Tinea Versicolor)

Mycoplasma pneumoniae and
Spaghetti and meatballs appearance
22. Patient receiving blood from mother requires what type of Cold reacting antibodies
blood: Irradiated blood 28. Given mother blood type (AB-) and baby type (O+), what do
you do next?: Since O blood type is impossible from AB
relatives might probably have similar HLA which will mom, get a new heelstick from baby.
recognized by the baby's immune system as same, hence won't
29. Biggest problem with PCR?:
be attacked.

May cause Graft vs Host disease. Hence, Leukocyte need to

be irradiated
23. HTLV- confirmatory test:

Contamination with nucleotides.

30. Quantitative (real time) PCR is useful in detecting ...: EBV
31. What HBV disease marker is found in individuals with a past
Western blot infection? life time marker?: Anti-HBc

24. Positive RPR negative FTA for Syphilis: 32. Positive anti-HBe, anti-HBc IgG, and Anti-HBs indicates
what stage of hepatitis?: Immunity to Hep B due to previous
infection
33. Following a throat infection, patient is having kidney
problems. What bacteria causing it?:

False positive
25. Given a mini panel of antibody reactions. The serum is
tested against Group 0 RBCs and cord cells. Reacts with all
adult cells, no reaction with cord cells. What antibody?:
anti-I because it did not react with cord cells
26. Antigens Le a and Le b: Is absorbed from the serum onto red
cells

Streptococcus pyogenes
34. Patient has walking pneumoniae and is prescribed penicillin. 39. Different between Staphylococcus aureus and other Staph.
2 weeks later, still sick. What happened?: Spp?:

Bacteria has no cell wall

35. Potassium permanganate in auramine-rhodamine stain for
Mycobacterium:
Staphylococcus Aureus is Coagulase Positive
40. How to differentiate between Staphylococcus aureus and
Micrococcus:

Quenching agent
36. Specimen of choice for rotavirus?: stool
37. Took a swab sample from a wound and incubated on three
different medias (including anaerobic media). Nothing grew.
Micrococcus arranged in tetrads
What happened?: Swab material inhibited the sample.
Colonies are yellow and none hemolytic on SBA
38. Latex agglutination for Staphylococcus Aureus detects
what?: most importantly Micrococcus is Furazolidone resistant
41. Burr cells blood picture:

Protein A and clumping factor

uremia
42. Stomatocytes blood picture: 48. Anti-Thrombin III:

Liver disease
43. Badly discolored blood picture with very spiky cells. What It is a Heparin Co-factor
caused this?: deficiency is associated with thrombosis
49. In which case is Magesium monitored?: Pre-eclampsia
(eclampsia)
50. Patient taking primidone showing toxicity, but blood levels
normal. What do you do next? -: Test phenobarbital level.
51. Sperm count can be done on semen sample when:
Liquefaction is complete (30-60 minutes)
52. anti-sperm antibodies:

Slide not dry

causes agglutination in the form of attached sperms. Head to
Looks like dark Burr cells
head, tail to tail or head to tail.
44. Iatrogenic anemia is due to what?: to excessive blood draws.
53. Tumor marker seen in pancreatic cancer: CA 19-9
45. What cell type is increased in Infectious mononucleosis?:
54. Fasting glucose 120. What's the diagnosis?: Impaired fasting
glucose.

0-50 mg/dl = hypoglycemia

50-100 mg/dl = normal
100-125 mg/dl = impaired
>126 mg/dl = diabetes
55. What increase in Pheochromocytoma ?: Metanephrines in
urine (24 hours collection)
56. sensitivity is: TP/TP +FN X 100
57. specificity is: TN/TN+TP X 100
lymphs
58. Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction: anaphylactic shock .
B cells infected Examples: bee sting, hay fever, asthma, food allergies.
T cells reactive (pictured) 59. Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction: Agglutination, eg transfusion
46. Lupus anticoagulant causes what?: Increased risk of reaction, HDFN. Hashimotos
thrombosis 60. Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction: Immune complex like serum
47. Sample taken from indwelling catheter. Patient isn't on any sickness, Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, Rheumatoid Arthritis
anticoagulants yet PTT and TT are way elevated.: Heparin 61. Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction: T-cell dependent like
contamination from the catheter contact dermatitis, TB, Leprosy, GVHD
62. Increased Alkaline Phosphatase in: Obstruction Jaundice
(post hepatic)
63. Chronic hepatitis: anti-smooth muscle antibody (not sure)
64. Waxy cast found in urine indicates ?: 73. Child swallowed naphthalene ball, what is expected to be
seen on peripheral blood smear ?:

End stage of degeneration (renal failure)

Heinz Bodies
65. HgbA1c decrease in: Chronic Hemolysis (hemolytic anemia)
74. Stomatocytes:
66. Lipoprotein that transport the majority of cholesterol into
cells: LDL
67. Micrococcus:

liver disease

Resistance to Furazolidone 75. Urine Bilirubin crystals:

68. Procainamide metabolite that need to be measured along

with Procainamideis: NAPA
69. Main metabolite of cocaine: Benzoylecgonine
70. Type 1 hypersensitivity stimulated by: IgE
71. Blood product that has highest capability of transmitting
hepatitis: Needle stick during a procedure
72. Heinz bodies:

liver disease

brownish in color
76. Urine Tyrosine crystals:

Heinz bodies

liver disease
77. Urine Leucine crystals: 83. Howell jolly bodies stain with:

Liver disease
78. Eosinphils in urine: Interstitial nephritis Wrights and new methylene blue
79. Chopped meat agar (iron and glycerol): Anaerobes 84. Papperheimer bodies stain with:
80. Anaerobes causing jaw abscess:

Veillonella (gram - cocci) and Peptostreptococcus (gram + Wrights, new methylene blue, and
cocci) -
confirm with Prussain blue
they are normal flora of the oral cavity 85. Heinz bodies stain with:
81. t(15;17) for:

new methylene blue

Acute Promyelocytic leukemia -APL, or M3 supravital stain
86. How do yo differentiate
hypergranular Promyelocytes in bone marrow apirate
1. Yersinia enterocolitica vs
82. Retics stain with ....: 2. Yersinia pestis?: Y. Enterocolitica: ODC positive

MR + urease +; Lactose negative, H2S negative, VP negative,

citrate negative, PD negative

Y. Pestis: ODC negative

New methylene blue

wrights (polychomactophilic)
87. Differentiate between Echinocyte and Acanthocyte: 97. Hashimoto's lab and antibodies: T4 and T3 decreased , TSH
increased

Most common cause of Primary hypothyroidism

TPOAb, TMAb, TgAb present

TMAbs = Thyroid Anti-Microsomal Antibody

TPOAbs= Anti-Thyroid PeroOxidase Antibody
TgAbs= Anti-Thyroglobulin Antibody
echinocyte: equal 98. Most severe cause of HDN: ABO (I don't think so)
acanthocyte: crazy looking
99. How to calculate LAP score and its importance in
88. the action of Caffeine for Diazo reaction.: to measure hematology?: Reference Range is 13-130
unconjugated bilirubin
89. Enzyme that uses p-Nitrophenylphosphate (pnp) as Increase in Leukemoid reaction
substrate @ pH of 9.6: Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP) decreased in CML
90. Enzyme that uses p-Nitrophenylphosphate (pnp) as
substrate @ pH of 9.6 is highest at what disease: Paget The number of 1+ cells x 1
disease (bone destruction disease) The number of 2+ cells x 2
The number of 3+ cells x 3
91. Estrogen increase in pregnant women
The number of 4+ cells x 4
......: Estriol
ADD TOGETHER
92. Increased right before ovulation: Luetinizing hormone-LH
100. Trepanomal highest Sensitivity (may be specificity): FTA-ABS
estraDIol
Fluorecent Treponemal Antibody-Absorption Test
"di-ing from cramps"
101. preferred testing for legionella: urine antigen testing
93. Nucleolar pattern ANA is seen in ...:
102. What is the immunity test for CMV?: PCR DNA urine (not
sure)
IgG and IgM titer (not sure)
103. Sezary syndrome is:

scleroderma
94. Butterly rash is seen in ...:

T cell lymphoma

A variant of Mycosis Fungoides

104. Patient has walking pneumonia but treatment shows
penicillin resistance because .....: no cell wall

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus-SLE

95. Measurement of FLM- Fetal Lung Maturity: Phosphatidyl
glycerol
96. Oral Contraceptives cause an Increase in: Serum Fe (not
sure?)
105. Normocytic, normochromic, normal WBC, normal platelet, 119. Pancreatic cancer Marker: CA 19-9
but retics is 0.1%: 120. Ovarian cancer Marker: CA 125
121. Colorectal cancer: CEA
122. B-hCG marker for malignancy:

pure red cell aplasia

106. Blood smear picture that looks like Howell bodies, the retic
is 18%, the technologist should stain with?: Heinz body
staining
BETA SUBUNIT of Human chorionic gonadotropin (unique to
107. Adrenal cushing syndrome causes:: Decreased ACTH, ↑ hCG) increase in trophoblastic tumors
cortisol increased
123. If there is a Rouleaux formation on the blood what will you
108. Apolipoprotein A - found in .....: HDL do?: Saline replacement
109. The stain being too blue and what do you do?: Decrease pH 124. How to determine true from false agglutination: add normal
buffer saline
110. How is LDL extracted from HDL?: Heparin-manganese 125. RIST-Radioimmunosorbent test- test detects what?:
111. What's the purpose of the caffeine in bilirubin?: Take the
albumin off (probably wrong, correct response should be
solubilize and measure unconjugated bilirubin)
112. Difference between yersinias?: All Yersinia Species are
motile at 25C but not at 37C except,

Yersinia Pestis is not motile at both temperature

113. Increased in cathecolamines in what disease?: Measures total IgE
Pheochromocytoma 126. Why is albumin the first protein to be detected in tests for
114. Elevated level of aminolevulinic acid in urine is due to renal failure?: The molecular size is smallest
presence of .......: Lead poisoning 127. Cortisol excess will result in _____: Hyperglycemia - Elevated
115. Purpose of AHG :: Detect immunoglobulins present on surface glucose levels in blood
of RBC and serum 128. Organism that gives off a "bleach-like" odor in culture?:
116. Blastoconidia are the beginning of ...: Eikenella
129. Organism that gives off a "Horse-stable" odor in culture?:
Clostridium Dificile
130. This spiral-form organism is seen in urine and cultured on
Fletcher's media: Leptospira
131. How many bands for Lyme disease testing ?: CDC requires
at least 5 out of 10 bands to be positive
132. Presence of rheumatoid factor in blood may result in false
positives for what test?: VDRL
133. Disease associated with the following results? Elevated
TSH; Elevated T3; Elevated free T4: Pituitary tumor
134. If excess PTH is released, what would you find in elevated
amounts in serum?: Calcium
Pseudohyphae
135. Mucoid, pink colonies on plate; produces gas; indole (+). On
117. Liver cancer Marker: Alpha-Fetoprotein
TSI tube you see yellow on the slant and yellow in the
deep. What organism is this?: Klebsiella oxytoca
may be significant in ovarian or testicular cancer as well.
118. Breast cancer Marker: CA 15-3
136. PAD (+); indole (+); Organism stains gram negative. What is 146. A person was successfully treated for syphilis 12 years ago.
it?: Proteus vulgaris However, he has just come in again, worried about having
137. You see a curved gram negative bacilli. It was cultured from been re-infected. What would you look for in his blood?:
the GI tract of a person with ulcers. What test would you do VDRL, RPR
next to confirm its identity?: Test for urease 147. A patient demonstrates a positive antibody screen. You
138. Enzyme controls run on a machine give results around -3 suspect either Jka, K or c antibodies. You know from a
standard deviations. Samples run on the same machine give previous history that this patient has Jka antigen on their
results of less than 1 standard deviation. What could be the red cells. You then react the patients serum with cells
problem?: Controls were left at room temperature for several positive for certain antigens and see the following:
days
Patient serum vs: reagent K cells reagent c cells
139. HIV-1 & HIV-2 combination ELISA test is positive in a
Reaction strength: 0 4+
patient with symptoms of immune deficiency. Western blot
was inconclusive for HIV-1. What do you do next?: do EHIV-
What can you conclude about the antigenic makeup of this
2 western blot
patients red cells?: Rule out c antigen but cannot confirm the
140. What are the steps of PCR?:
presence or absence of K antigen on the patients red cells
148. Urine protein chemistry dipstick (Reagent strip) detected
no proteins but sulfosalicylic acid (SSA) test did detect
proteins. Why?: Bence jones proteins in urine (proteins other
than Albumin)
149. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion
(SIADH) would result in what in blood?: Dilutional
Hyponatremia- deficient sodium
150. Fiber strands in urine resemble what under the
microscope?: Hyaline cast
151. HBa1c levels cannot always be used to monitor glucose
levels in conditions such as:: sickle cell
Denaturation, Annealing, Transcription 152. Which of the following regulates myocyte contraction?:
141. RAST test detects what?: IgE to particular Antigens Cardiac troponins
142. After collecting a blood sample in an EDTA tube for CBC, 153. Increased total bilirubin is in what situations: liver diease,
you find that the Hematocrit is very high (67%). What should hemolysis, HDFN
you do next?: report these results
143. Blood was collected on Nov 1. Blood was then frozen in In infants with >20mg/dL is kernicterus
glycerol on Nov 5. What should the expiration date read?: 154. Increased conjugated (direct ) bilirubin is in what situations:
Nov 1; 10 years from now liver disease and obstructive jaundice
144. When you conduct a procedure using fluorescence, it's 155. Increased unconjugated bilirubin is in which situations:
important to protect yourself from the:: Excited light prehepatic, posthepatic, and some types of hepatic jaundice
145. fluorescence polarized immunoassay (competitive 156. ACTH produced by: Pituitary Gland
inhibition): 157. FSH is _____ production: sperm and ovum
158. ACTH is regulated by: corticotropin-releasing hormone from
hypothalamus
159. LH regulates: maturation of follicles, ovulation, production of
estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone
160. Prolactin regulates: lactation
161. Pituitary gland (activated by Hypothalamus) produces:
ACTH
The amount of analyte in the sample is inversely proportional FSH
to the amount of fluorescence polarization. That is, the greater growth hormone (GH)
the concentration of analyte, the less the amount of polarized LH
light detected prolactin
TSH
ADH
Oxytocin
162. Amylase breaks down: Starch 180. Which of the following parameters may be affected by the
163. Lipase breaks down: fats lipemia?: MCHC
164. LD is increased in which situation: AMI (LD2 > LD1-not
Lipemia and high WBCs count interfere with the light used for
specific), Hemolysis (LD 1 > LD 2)
measureing MCHC
165. Which of the following is used as a source for irradiation of
181. Which of the following hormones increases plasma glucose
blood products:: Cs137
concentration by converting glycogen to glucose?:
166. Which of the following conditions would NOT be associated
Glucagon and epinepherine
with an increased level of alpha-fetoprotein?: Prostate
182. Which of the following species of Mycobacterium might be
cancer
associated with contamination of the hot water system in
167. The prozone effect ( when performing a screening titer) is
large institutions such as hospitals?: Mycobacterium Xenopi
most likely to result in:: False negatives
183. Acute phase proteins generally fall into which category?:
168. The radioactive method used to measure red cell survival
Glycoproteins
uses which of the following isotopes:: Cr51
184. Rhinocladiella description:
169. Which of the following is not a likely cause of an abnormal
thrombin time (TT):: Aspirin
170. When evaluating a patient for a suspected Wilson's Disease
diagnosis, low values of plasma ceruloplasmin would be
expected along with:: increased urine copper, decreased
serum copper
171. A hemoglobin F concentration of 100% may be seen in
which beta thalassemia?: Delta-beta thalassemia major
172. Pappenheimer bodies are usually seen in patients who Growth on the side and around the tip
have:: splenectomies 185. Electrical fire is class: C
173. Order of draw: Blue 186. What is the correct procedure when using a winged
Red collection device (butterfly) to draw a light-blue top tube
Green intended for a coagulation test if this is the first tube that
Purple will be collected in the draw?: Draw and discard a waste
Gray (other) light-blue top tube before the tube that will be used for
coagulation studies.
*Big Red Grosses People Out 187. Which of the following patients is most at risk for
174. The half life of IgM and IgA: are approximately 5-6 days. hyperosmolar nonketotic coma?: A 70-year-old type 2
175. The half life of IgD: 2.8 days (1-3) diabetic patient
176. Half life of IgE: 2-3 days 188. Beta hemolytic spore forming agent is:
177. Half life of IgG: 23 days
178. At an alkaline pH, which hemoglobin cannot be separated
from hemoglobin S during hemoglobin electrophoresis?:

Bacillus spp.
Hb D "box car"
GPB
(Sad Dog Gets Love)
179. Which of the following group B antigens is generally
associated with a mixed field reaction:: B3
189. Non-beta hemolytic, Non Motile, Catalase positive, spore 198. How to differentiate shigella species: Mannitol.
forming agent is .....:
Shigella dysenteriae is the only one that is negative
199. How to differentiate the mannitol positive shigellas: S.
sonnei is the only one that is ONPG positive (+)
200. PAD positive: proteus
providencia
morganella
201. How to differentiate the PAD positive species: Proteus is the
only one that is H2S positive
202. How to differentiate proteus species: P. Vulgaris is indole
positive - citrate negative
P. Mirabilis is indole negative - citrate positive
Bacillus Anthracis
Medusa-Head Colonies 203. How to differentiate between providencia and morganella:
Black escher ulcers Providencia is citrate positive
GPB Morganella is citrate negative
190. Enterobacteriaceae that is MR negative: Enterobacter
+morgan can't CIT with us because she doesn't have H2S
Kleb
Serratia 204. Of the PAD negative organisms, which one does not
produce H2S: Yersinia
191. How to differentiate between citrobacter and E. coli: E. coli
is citrate negative (IMViC++--) 205. How to differentiate Salmonella from edwardsiella:
salmonella is indole negative
Citrobacter is citrate positive (?+?+) edwardsiella is indole positive
192. How to differentiate kleb and enterobacter: Kleb is non 206. How to differentiate yersinia species: Y. enterocolitica is
motile ODC +
Y. pestis and pseudoTB are ODC negative
enterobacter is motile 207. How to differentiate Y. pestis and Y. pseudoTB: Y. pestis is
nonmotile at 25C
*both are LF negative methyl red Y. pseudoTB is motile at 25C
193. How to differentiate different species of enterobacter: 208. Selective and differential medium for Y. entercolitica:
Lysine.

E. cloacae is negative
E. aerogines and E. seikazaki is positive
194. How to differentiate kleb species: Kleb oxytoca is indole
positive

Kleb pneumo is indole negative

195. Lactose fermenting enterobacteriaceae: E.coli
Klebsiella
Citrobacter
Enterobacter
196. Non lactose fermenting enterobacteriacea: shigella
salmonella CIN Medium = Cefsulodin-irgasan-novobiocin Medium
yersinia
morganella Colonies will ferment mannitol and absorb the dye => clear
serratia colonies with pink center
edwardsiella
proteus
providencia
197. Of the NLF enterobacteriaceae which one is non motile:
Shigella
*DO NOTHING BUG
209. Staphylococus on Mannitol Salt agar (MSA): 213. Optochin Sensitive bacteria:

Staphylococci can tolerate the high salt concentration (7.5%) of Streptococcus Pneumonia
Mannitol salt agar (MSA)
Polysaccharide capsule
Produces Yellow Colonies
210. Different between s.aureus and other staph spp?: Staph. Lancet-Shaped diplococci
Aureus is coagulase positive 214. Grame Positive Cocci
Other Staph. Species Coagulase Negative Catalase: (-)
211. Micrococcus as a normal flora must be differentiated from Bile Esculin: positive (+)
Staphylococcus by ........: 6.5% NaCl: positive (+)
PYR: Positive (+):

Micrococcus is
Furazolidone Resistant
Bacitracin Sensitive

non hemolytic on SBA

212. Gram Positive Cocci in chains Enterocuccus
Catalase Negative
Bile-Esculin Positive (BEM positive) Vanocmycin-resistant enterococci is E. Faecium
No Growth on 6.5% NaCl
Associated with Colorectal Cancer:

Streptococcus Bovis/Gallolyticus
Group D Streptococcus
215. Gram Positive cocci 219. Gram Postive Bacilli
BILE ESCULIN positive Catalase Positive (+)
6.5 NACL (+) Spore forming
PYR negative (-) Non-Motile
LAP negative (-): Non=Hemolytic:

Leuconostoc
216. Butchers cut (or fishermen, veterinarians)

Catalase Negative (-) Bacillus Anthracis

Esculin Negaive (-) 220. Gram Postive Bacilli
H2S Positive on TSI Motile
Test tube brush growth in Gelatin: Beta-Hemolytic:

Erysipelothrix Rhusiopathiae

It is important to differentiate it from Listeria Bacillus Cereus

217. Gram Positive (+) BRANCHING (Filamentous) Bacilli
PARTIALLY ACID FAST: Differentiate between B. Cereus and B. Anthracis
221. What Antibiotics (contents) in THYER-MARTIN Selective
Media: 1. Vancomycin
2. Nystatin
3. Colistin
4. Isovitalex
5. Hemoglobin
222. Lactose Fermenter Bacilli (Pink on MAC)
LOA: Negative, Positive, Positive (-++)

Lysine negative (-)

Nocardia asteroides
Ortherine positive (+)
218. Musty odor of a colony: Nocardia spp
Argenine positive (+): Enterobacter Cloacae

Pasteurella Multocida
223. Biochemical Reaction for Salmonella: 227. Which of the following doesn't belong to the HACEK group:

K/A H2S on TSI

MOTILE
CITRATE POSITIVE
E. Coli
Indole, Urease, Lactose Negative
HACEK group are fastidious and an important cause of
Green Colonies with Black centers on Hektoen agar endocarditis
224. Edwardsiella resemble Salmonella biochemically, how can 228. Haemophilus Satellitism:
you differentiate between them?:

Haemophilus growth requires Hemin AKA factor X and NAD

AKA Factor V.

it can grow around colonies of S. Aureus producing satellitism

Edwardsiella is as S. Aureus releases NAD.
Indole positive (+) 229. How to differentiate Pseudomonas aeruginosa from P.
Citrate Negative (-) putida?:

Salmonella
Indole Negative
Citrate positive
225. SALMONELLA ISOLATED BUT ANTISERA IS NEGATIVE?
what might be the reason: Heat

Vi-Antigen is the heat labile capsular antigen

226. How you differentiate between Providencia and
Growth @ 42°C
Morganella?: Providencia Citrate Positive (+)
Morganella Citrave Negative (-)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is able to grow at 42°C
230. Stenotrophomonas malthophilia: 234. BCYE = buffered charcoal yeast extract agar used for ...:

Ferment Glucose, Grows on Mac Legionella

Oxidase negative (-)
Catalase Posive (+) as it requires L-cystein for growth
231. Specimen recovery for whooping cough?: 235. Nugent scoring for Bacterial Vaginosis:

0-3 is considered negative for BV

4-6 is considered intermediate
7+ is considered indicative of BV
Nasopharyngeal swab 236. Cat-Scratch disease:

Swabs of the nasopharynx are inoculated on the selective agar

Regan-Lowe show as mercury drops. Cephalexin is added to
the culture medium to inhibit the growth of contaminating
indigenous flora
232. Bacteria acquired by cat/dog bite is .....:

Bartonella henselae

1. Pasteurella Multocida is the most common

2. Actinobacillus
233. Rapid detection test for legionella in urine specimen?:
Antigen detection test (Urine Antigen Assay)
237. Organism isolated from wound. 240. a positive culture of sputum was stained. carbol fusshin was
added, washed, de colorized and malachite blue was used
TSI: A/A as counter stain. two entire field was scanned and no acid
Catalase: positive (+) fast bacilli were found. the most probably reason is .....?:
Oxidate: positive (+):

Inadequate scanning of slide (not sure)

Aeromonas hydrophila 241. Bio-safety level for TB: Bio safety Level III
242. PICTURE OF AN AFB SMEAR
is typically found in fresh water and has been implicated in GROWS WELL ON AN EGGS BASED MEDIUM AFTER 3
human infections. Growth on MacConkey agar and a positive WEEKS:
oxidase reaction are characterisic of this organism. A positive
oxidase reaction differentiates this organism from all of the
Enterobacteriaceae, except the recently added Plesiomonas
shigelloides. On sheep blood agar, many strains of Aeromonas
produce beta-hemolysis. TSI => A/A
238. GRAM STAIN (PICTURE ) FOR STOOL ISOLATE GROW IN
42 MICROAEROPHILIC?:

M. TUBERCULOSIS
243. The function of malachite green in Lowenstein-Jensen
MEDIA ?:

Campylobacter jejuni
239. DECONTAMINATION OF SPUTUM FOR Acid-Fast Bacillus
(AFB) CULTURE?:

to inhibit growth of normal flora

NaOH with N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NALC)

NALC is a mucolytic
NaHO is antibacterial
244. Potassium permanganate in Auramine-Rhodamine 248. What favors growth of Gram Negative (-) Bacilli in
fluorescent staining (acid fast bacilli) function as ....: Anaerobic media?: Vitamin K and Hemin
249. Phenylethyl alcohol Agar (PEA) and Columbia -colistin-
naladixic agar (CNA) used to culture .....: Gram positive
Bacteria
250. Man tested positive for syphilis 2 years ago but may have
again, how would you test him?: Rapid plasma reagin(RPR)
251. Media for Leptospira:

Quenching agent
245. TEST FOR MYCOBACTERIUM Tuberculosis:

Fletcher Media
252. TCBS culture, yellow colonies:

Niacin accumulation/production
246. Tap water mycobacterium:

Vibrio Cholera
253. Cystic Fibrosis are associated with what infection?:
Pseudomonas
Bulkholderia
Staphylocuccus (not sure)
254. 1. Identify image ?

2. Disease associated?
Mycobacterium gordonae has been recovered from water
stills, faucets, and bodies of water in nature, which is why it 3. related to which antibody:
has been called the "tap water scotochromogen."
247. Tuberculin test is .......:

1. Cold Agglutinin Disease

2. Mycoplasma Pneumoniae
Initiated by T-cells
3. Anti-i & Anti-I
255. Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria associated with which 262. CBC results: Instrument A is repeated with the use of
antigen ?: P Antigen instrument B. discrepancy in the values. The discrepancy is
due to?
IgG biphasic Donath-Landsteiner antibody
256. In acute hemolytic anemia, when hemoglobinuria occurs?: 1) Lyse resistant target cells
Haptoglobin is depleted 2) Lyse sensitive target cells
3) Fragility of Hgb C
257. Result of haptoglobin in hemolytic anemia: decreased
3) Lyse resistant Hgb C:
258. What is the laboratory value in Anemia of Chronic
Diseases?: normal to increased ferritin
low serum iron
low TIBC

reference ranges
Serum Iron = 65-175 in males, 50-170 females
Ferritin = 20-250 in males, 10-120 in females
TIBC = 250-425 ug/dl
259. What is an early test for detecting Iron Deficiency anemia
Lyse resistant Hgb C
?: Ferritin decreases early in iron-deficiency
263. Characteristic feature of hemoglobin C disease?:
disorders, making it a sensitive, early indicator of disease.

reference range: 20-250 ng/ml

260. Effect of oral contraceptive on iron: increase iron (storage)
increase TIBC (not sure)
261. Bart Hgb found in ....:

Target cells
264. Acute Myelomonocytic leukemia (AMMoL):

Alpha Thalassemia

no Alpha Chain
YYYY= Bart (not compatible with life)
BBBB= Hemoglobin H. (3 alpha chain deleted) FAB M4
265. Acute monocytic Leukemia:

FAB M5

Nonspecific Esterase positive (+)

CD 14 , CD 64 positive (+)
266. Di Guglielmo's Syndrome: 269. What is the result of underfilled EDTA?:

Decreased Microhematocrite
Acute Erythroleukemia, FAB M6
due to the shrinkage of RBC-crenated cells
PAS positive (+) for malignant normoblast
270. Identify the image
Sudan Black B Positive (+) myeloblast
what CD markers?:
Markers
CD45 and CD71 for normoblast
CD13, CD 15 and CD 33 to myeloblast
267. Acute megakaryocytic Leukemia:

Hairy cell leukemia

CD 19, CD 20

FAB M7 271. Identify image, Auer Rod found in ?:

CD 41, CD 42 and CD 61
268. Picture of target cells with hemoglobin C crystals, The
white count was high on instrument 1, so a second
instrument was used with a stronger lysing agent, and the
white count was corrected, reason?:

Auer rod in AML

Erythrocytes containing Hemoglobin C do not lyse normally

(lyse resistant)
272. Auer Rod stain with ...: 278. Calculation of corrected WBC count:

Corrected WBC =

100 X uncorrected/100+ NRBCs

279. t-15:17 found in: Acute Promyelocytic
Leukemia. (APL), FAB-M3
280. t-9:22, philadilphia chromosome: Chronic myelogenous
leukemia
Romanowsky stain
281. CD3+ in what cell line?: Lymphocyte
273. What you see in aplastic anemia:
282. Other name for CD4 is ......: Inducer
283. CD 13 and CD 33: myeloid cells lineage
284. CD 34: Stem cell marker (lymphoid & Myeloid)
285. CD8: Suppressor/cytotoxic T cells
286. Blood collected in citrate tube , decreased ratio of plasma
to cells 68% was the hematocrit, what to do next: Report the
result
Pancytopenia
Hematocrite is age and sex dependent
274. Disease associated with t(8:21): Acute Myelogenous
287. RBC: 3.6
Leukemia-FAB M2
HGB: 45
275. Many reticulocytes present. what MLS do next?: HCT: 33%,
manual hct 33.5% in manual

what is the reason for the discrepancy?: Lipemic Specimen

Lipemia cause false elevation of Hemoglobin

288. 0.1% retics normal RBC and PLT: Pure red cell aplasia
289. A 3 year old child has sever anemia with a very low RBC of
1.7 10^6 count, but his WBC and Platelet counts are normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?: Pure red cell aplasia
Heinz stain 290. Stomatocyte Image, indicative of what disease?:
276. Rouleaux formation image, what disease?:

Liver disease

Multiple Myeloma
277. Identify image with Rouleaux formation and state the
reason reason: Rouleaux due to high amount of protein,
mainly fibrinogen.
291. Elliptocytes image, indicative of what disease?: 294. Spherocytes, indicative of what disease(s)?:

megaloblastic anemia MCHC > 37%

thalassemia major
hereditary elliptocytosis Hereditary spherocytosis
292. Helmet cells, indicative of what disease?: G6PD deficiency
immune hemolytic anemias
295. Echinocytes, burr cells: seen in what disease ?:

microangiopathic hemolytic anemias

293. Dacryocytes, indicative of what disease(s)?:

Uremia
296. Echinocytes, crenated: seen in what condition?:

megaloblastic anemias
thalassemia
myelofibrosis
myelophthisic anemia

Faulty drying
297. codocytes, target cells: seen in what condition: 305. Sezary syndrome:

Hemoglobin C/SC (normocytic/normochromic anemia),

Hemoglobin S (sickle cells seen)
Thalassemias (microcytic/hypochromic anemia) T/NK cell neoplasm/lymphoma (look like brain groves)
298. False DECREASE ESR: delay 8 hrs in set up (old blood)
CD2, CD3 & CD4
299. False increase ESR: 1) tube tilted,
2) vibration of tube during testing, 306. What disease is presented with Monocytosis?: Tuberculosis
3) testing > 1hour, 307. Pheochromocytoma Monitoring: Metanephrines
4) improper blood dilution, improper mixing of blood and 308. CA+ elevated, PO4 elevated, reason ...: Multiple Myeloma
room temp >25C due to bone destruction/involvement
300. Principle of Kleihauer-Betke method: Fetal cell resist Acid 309. Value of HCG to be positive?: 25 mIU/ml
elusion
310. Creatinine Kinase :Normal,
301. Calculation of Kleihauer-Betke method: (Fetal Maternal Troponin I: Increased
Hemorrage % x 5)/3
diagnosis?: Acute Myocardial Infarction
round up or down, then add one
311. What cardiac marker regulates myocyte contraction?:
302. Citrate agar 6.2 electrophoresis: Troponin
312. Which set of analytes is increased in Myocardial Infarction?:
1. myoglobin first
2. Troponin second and stay longer
2. Creatine Kinase third
313. Electrophoresis pattern: LOW ALBUMIN, Beta-Gamma
Bridging:

303. Low erythropoietin is found in ....:

Active Cirrhosis

Polycythemia vera
304. JAK2 oncogene is implicated in .....: Polycythemia vera
314. What increase anion gap?: 324. Liver Enzyme markers: a. ALT: Most specific for hepatocyte
injury
b. AST: Less specific than ALT; significant presence in other
tissues
c. LD: Least specific; significant presence in other tissues
325. 5-HIAA (5-hydroxyindole acetic acid) found in urine
indicates?: Carcinoid Tumors

5-HIAA is a metabolites of serotonin

326. Oligoclonal bands (picture) are found in .......:

uremia (important),
lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis,
hypernatremia,
and ingestion of methanol, ethylene glycol, or salicylate
315. Cofactor of many (300) enzymes?: Magnesium

Zinc also, but Magnesium in your first choice for the test. Multiple Sclerosis
316. Magnesium must be monitored in 327. In Protein electrophoresis, what proteins are closest to the
Cathode?:
A) Pre-vomiting
B) Pre-eclampsia
c) Diarrhea: Pre-eclampsia
317. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) ,
what condition is seen and why?: Hyponatremia due to
dilution

sodium reference range: 136-145 mmol/L

Gamma and Beta
318. Low Sodium is seen in ..... .: Hyperglycemia (dilutional
328. HbA1c measure glucose level in the past .......: previous 2- to
hypernatremia)
3-month period

sodium reference range: 136-145 mmol/L

RBC life span
319. Low sodium normal other electrolytes, what MLS do next ?:
329. HgbA1C - what can be the trouble with the test?: A
Measure/Perform indirect Ion Selective Electrode (ISE)
decreased life span on RBCs (in the case of sickle cell)

sodium reference range: 136-145 mmol/L 330. Transferrin Saturation computation

320. Patient is in a coma, what test to perform?: Amonia

UIBC = 185
(neurotoxic)
Serum Fe = 125: TIBC = UIBC + Serum Fe = 310
321. The presence of aminolevulinic acid is indicative of .....: lead Saturation = (Serum Fe/TIBC ) x 100
poisoning Saturation = (125/310) x 100 = 40%
322. Zinc protoporphyrin is never tested in children on lead 331. Postprandial turbidity of serum is due to the presence of
poisoning, why?: Not Specific .....: Lipoproteins
332. Hypercalcemia, Normal PTH: Metastatic Carcinoma
(also used for iron deficiency anemia in children)
(Malignancy involving bones)
323. Caffeine-sodium benzoate (or methanol) for diazo reaction
333. FBS: 120
measures what?: used to measure unconjugated bilirubin
OGTT: 140: Impaired glucose
it (they) binds to unconjugated bilirubin to solubilize it before
proceeding with the diazo reaction
334. Patient suspected for Diabetes Mellitus 347. Patient results are given, all are normal including amylase
except LIPASE. What is the possible disease?: Acute
Fasting Blood Glucose: 155 mg/dL pancreatitis
2nd Hour OGTT/PG:
Lipase stays elevated for 8-14 days while Amylase return to
normal within 3-4 days
Patient suspected for Diabetes Mellitus 348. Enzyme elevated in MUMPS: Amylase
Fasting Blood Glucose: 155 mg/dL
349. Enzyme that uses p-Nitrophenylphosphate (PNP) as
2nd Hour OGTT/PG: 225 mg/dL
substrate @ pH of 9.6: Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)
What should the MT do to confirm diagnosis: No Further
testing. 2 diagnostic criteria are indicative of DM. 350. What is measured in the urease method determination of
BUN?: NAD
335. prolonged apnea after succinylcholine administration
351. Cocain Metabolite is ......: benzoylecgonine
during surgery is observed in what enzyme deficiency?:
Decreased Pseudocholinesterase 352. Drug toxicity screening of a 7 yr old girl shows presence of
ACETAMINOPHEN level. What test should be requested
336. Thyroid antimicrosomal antibodies found in ...: Hashimoto
next?: AST and ALT (liver toxicity)
thyroiditis
353. Phenytoin (diphenylhydantoin) monitoring: trough and peak
337. Creatinine clearance formula:
levels

trough level prior to the next dose

Peak level 4-5 hours from the last dose
creatinine reference range is
Male: 0.9-1.2 mg/dl 354. Primidone monitoring, suspected to have primidone
female: 0.6-1.1 mg/dl overdose, but the serum concentration is within normal
range, what should MLS do next?: Measure Phenobarbital
338. The meaning of Creatinine Clearance ... ...: it is used to
concentration
access the Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) and one of the
renal function test. 355. A patient with procainamide should be tested in parallel
with what drug?: N-acetylprocainamide (NAPA)
normal Creatinine clearance is 120 ml/min for adult and it 356. In Biliary obstruction, how does the urin bilirubin and
decrease with age urobilinogen change?: Urine bilirubin is positive
339. In addition to prostate cancer, PSA increase in what disease urobilinogen is decreased or negative
?: benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) 357. Antibiotic valinomycin is used in ISE to measure what
340. What is used to evaluate fetal lung maturity?: analyte?: Potassium
phosphatidylglycerol 358. Carbon dioxide ion selective electrode measure?: CO2
pressure and it actually measuring the pH
and 359. What do you use for Calibration of blood gas analyzer?: 2
lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio which should be 2:1 buffers with known pH and constant temperature
341. Cushing Syndrome gives ..: hyperglycemia 360. In Chloride shift: exchange chloride with what electrolyte
342. Adrenal Cushing's syndrome has the following lab values ...: ....: Bicarbonate (HCO3)
Cortisol increased 361. In hemolytic anemia, what are the changes in bilirubin,
ACTH decreased urobilinogen?: 1) increased UNCONJUGATED bili,
343. Cushing's disease, how does ACTH and Cortisol levels 2. Normal Bilirubin
change?: Cortisol increased 3. Increased urobilinogen
ACTH increased 362. in Crigler-Najjar disease: which is manifised by
344. Carrier of endogenous triglycerides?: VLDL uncongugated bilirubinemia, other values are ...: Urine
345. Carrier of cholesterol into cells ?: LDL Bilirubin is negative (normal)
Urine Bilinogen is positive (normal)
346. Measurement of Serum Iron content method?: 1)
Acidification (Ethanolic extraction) 363. Excessive erythrocyte destruction effect on bilirubin .....: 1)
2) Reduction increased UNCONJUGATED bilirubin,
3) color reagent 2. Normal Bilirubin
3. Increased/Normal urobilinogen
364. Urobilinogen color: colorless
365. Instrument Linearity: Comparison of 2 means: T test/Paired T
test
366. Interference in light scanner would affect in 378. Precipitation reaction: Soluble antigen and soluble antibody
nephelometry?: Sensitivity react to
367. Fluorometry Principle: form an insoluble product (precipitate)
379. HIV marker of disease activity: HIV RNA
380. An antibody reacts with particle coated with a known
antigen. -: Passive Agglutination
381. An antibody reacts with particle coated with a known
antibody -: Reverse passive agglutination:
382. Analysis of CSF Oligoclonal bands is used to screen for
what disease?:

Frequently UV light is used for excitation and is passed

through a primary filter for proper wavelength selection for
the analyte being measured. The excitation light is absorbed
by the atoms of the analyte in solution, which causes the
electrons to move to higher energy
orbitals.
Upon return to ground state, light is emitted from the
fluorescing analyte and that light passes through a secondary Multiple Sclerosis
filter. The 383. In the CSF of a Multiple Sclerosis, what is increased: 1)
secondary filter and the detector are placed at a right angle to increased IgG
the light source to prevent incident light from being measured 2) Increased Oligoclonal band
by the detector 384. Increased Neutrophil in CSF indicates ........: Bacterial
368. Fluorometer ...: Emits longer wavelength infection (meningitis)
369. At what stage the second phase and irreversible platelet
aggregation occur?: Release of ADP from dense granules normal value = 0-5 wbcs/ul
370. PT normal (patient for gall bladder surgery), PTT prolonged, diff = 70% lymphocyte & 30 Monocyte
TT normal. what MLS should do next?: Factor XII assay 385. Increased lymphocytes in CSF indicates ........: viral infection
371. Protein C value after Coumadin therapy?: Decreased (meningitis)

Protein C is Vit. K dependent; Coumadin is a known Vit. K normal value = 0-5 wbcs/ul
antagonist diff = 70% lymphocyte & 30 Monocyte

372. A Patient diagnosed with acute myocardial infarction is
treated with streptokinase. What test is abnormal
immediately after treatment?: D-dimer
373. Control was ran, PT is normal but APTT is prolonged. What
should the technologist do?: Replace thromboplastin reagent
374. PT, PTT,TT prolonged Decreased Fibrinogen: DIC
375. A blood sample was taken from an indwelling catheter of
patient that hasn't been on any anticoagulant therapies.
APTT and TT are prolonged. The results are due to?:
Heparin contamination from catheter
376. On an automated coagulation analyzer, PT controls are in
range but PTT control are out of range. New controls
produce same results, what do you do?: CaCl2 might have
been added to aPTT reagent accidentally, change reagents
and repeat
377. Presense of lupus anticoagulant leads to ....: Thrombosis
386. What type of hypersensitivity reaction is PPD test: Type 4,
delayed Hypersensitivity
employsT lymphocyte and macrophages
387. Test to monitor AIDS progression?: CD4 count
AIDS causes depletion of CD4 inverting the ratio of CD4:CD8
to 1:2
normal ratio is 2:1
388. A patient is from West Africa. He is positive in the test of
HIV 1 and HIV 2 combination. HIV 1 Western blot is
performed - indeterminate, what to do next?: Repeat
western blot
389. An initial screening for Anti-HIV 1/2 using ELISA tested
reactive, what MLS should do next?: Perform Western Blot
positive if band P24, gp41, gp120 and gp160 present
390. Nucleolar ANA Pattern: 395. Teacher exposed to rubella, tested positive for IgG. Status?:
Immune

IgG is produced in secondary/anamnestic antibody response

new infection will probably have IgM

396. Monoclonal gammopathy (Monoclonal
Hypergammaglobulinemia) is observed in ?:

Scleroderma
391. Crithidia luciliae is a confirmation for:

1. Multiple Myeloma (Lymphoproliferative disease produce

Bence jones protein in urine and dry tap from bone marrow)

2. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia (uncontrolled proliferation

of a clone of B cells)

3. Primary amyloidosis
397. What Hepatitis B marker shows Previous infection, and
Anti-dsDNA considered a life time marker: Anti-HBc
SLE 398. Positive Anti-HAV (IgM) indicates what type of Hepatitis
392. ANA anti-centromere pattern: infection?: Recent acute Hep A
399. Positive HBsAg and positive HBeAg with or without anti-
HBe or anti-HBc IgM indicates what type of infection?:
Acute Hep B
400. Positive HBsAg and positive HBeAg with a positive anti-
HBc IgG indicates what type of infection?: Chronic hepatitis
B
401. Positive anti-HBs only indicates what stage of hepatitis?:
Immunity due to vaccination
402. Positive anti-HBc only, what might be the problem ?: repeat
HBs Ag (not sure)
403. Positive anti-HCV indicates what?: Chronic Hep C
CREST
404. Anti-myelin are antibodies associated with what condition?:
393. DiGeorge Syndrome: Multiple sclerosis
405. regarding blood banking, reagent deteriorate fast while in
USE?: MNS reagent
406. regarding blood banking, reagent deteriorate fast while in
STORAGE?: P reagent
Newborn without thymus gland, 407. FMH volume was given from a packet cell (not whole
normal B cells but no production of t cells blood). how many vials of RhIG will be given.: 300 ug for
394. Rheumatoid Factor is ?: An IgM against the Fc portion of each 15 ml (packed RBC)
abnormal IgG leading to Rheumatoid Arthritis.
remember, 300 ug for each 30 ml (whole blood)
type three Hypersensitivity 408. When the first dose of RhIG is given to the mother?: 28
weeks
409. Who is not a candidate for RhiG ?: Mother with an Anti-D
titer of 1:4096
410. What blood type should be transfused to a baby? 419. Significant antibody can transfer from mother to baby?:
Mother: Type O, Rh negative (-), Anti-D, Anti-I and Anti-Lea Kidd antibody
Child: Type A, Rh positive (+), DAT positive: Type O, Rh
negative, without C, I and Lea antigens Jka > Jkb
411. Mother: Type O, Rh negative (-), no antibody to D antigen IgG class
Child: Type O, Rh Positve (+) 420. AUTO Anti-P AKA Donath-Landsteiner antibody is
associated with ...: Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH)
what to do?: RhIG administration
For patient with Auto Anti-P may require warmer blood for
first dose at 28 weeks transfusion.
the use the formula to decide how many dose 421. Detection of ab where 11 tubes resulted negative in AHG,
but when added CC 4 of them didn't agglutinate?: Machine
(FMB% x 5)/3 probably didn't dispense correctly the saline in the wash
round and add one more vial
412. Anti C3D (+)ve, Anti IgG (-)ve Check cells must be agglutinated in order to consider the
results.
what do do?: prewarm the sample 422. CAUSE OF FALSE NEGATIVE ABO TYPING: Blood Typing
done at 37C
A prewarmed technique, in which the donor's cells and as ABO are IgM (cold antibodies) and they react best in room
patient's serum are warmed separately to 37°C before temperature
combining, is commonly used to eliminate interference from
cold agglutinins. keep in mind that POSITIVE DAT causes false positive
413. What to do after testing a patient that is positive in HTLV-1: 423. PATIENT DAT (4+), IAT (+), DID ELUATE AND THE RESULTS
Confirm with western blot ARE DAT (2+) THEY AUTO ABSORB SERUM AND KEEPS
414. What is the immunodominant sugar in group A?: N- REACTING TO SCI1 & SC2 IN AHG, WHAT SHOULD YOU
acetylgalactosamine DO?: Antibody Identification with enzyme
415. Rouleaux is NOT noticeable in what phase?: AHG phase
(Another answer, MAKE ANOTHER AUTOADSORPTION,
Rouleaux will not be present in the antiglobulin phase because doesn't seem right)
all of the serum proteins are washed away before the AHG is 424. IS 37 AHG CC
added. SC1 0 0 0 2+
416. Rh control should be SC2 +/- +/- 0 2+
A. Positve
B. Negative: what to do next?: ADD 4 DROPS OF SERUM
(not sure)
425. 37/LISS AHG
SC1 0 +/-
SC2 0 +/-

Must be always NEGATIVE

what to do next?: use polyspecific AHG

Positive Rh Control render invalid result

Polyspecific AHG contains both IgG and Anti-C3 which will
417. Deferred for Blood donation?: Hepatitis B immune globulin 6 cause red cell to agglutinate even if the cell coated with IgM
months ago (cold) as it will fix complement C3
blood transfusion
426. Anti-A: 4+ A1 cells: 2+
exposure to blood
Anti-B: 4+ B cells: 2+
Imprisonment
Tattoo/piercing
What should you do next?: Wash Red cells with Saline
sexual contact with high risk for HIV
Rape victim
(causes are rouleaux or autoantibody)
washing will solve the Rouleaux issue.
ALL should be o.k. after 12 months
418. Collected blood only 390 ml what to do?: Use for Packed
RBC (do not prepare other component due to abnormal
anticoagulant-to-plasma Ratio.
427. Three (3) test tubes are negative to Antihuman Glubulin 435. Microsporum audouinii:
(AHG), when check cell is added, the result is still negative.

What is the error?: Serum was omitted from the reaction

Check Cells (CC) are used as quality control measure for

negative indirect and direct AHG test performed in test tubes
and should always be positive when added?
428. If an individual is a nonsecretor sese with Lewis phenotype
Le a+b-, what antigen will be detected in his/her fluids?: Le
a
429. How RBC become positive for lewis antigen(s)?:

Septate hyphae (comb like)

436. Description of Zygomycetes:

They are glycoprotein found in plasma (secretions) and

adsorbed on the surface of RBCs.
430. What gene is deleted in Mcleod syndrome?: Kx
431. When separating whole blood into its components, what is
the timeframe to separate?: 8 hours
432. Cryoprecipitate after pooling: Expires in 4 hours (open
system), 6 hours (closed system) when kept in room
temperature after thawthing Aseptae Hyphae with Sporangiospores (spores that are
433. Fresh Frozen Plasma after thawing: Expires in 24 hours when produced in a sporangium/Fungi)
stored at 1-6 C 437. INCUBATION TIME FOR FUNGAL CULTURE?: 2-5 weeks
434. Mucor: 438. Alternaria picture:

Alternaria
439. Lesion on the arm

Mold form: flowerette/daisy like conidia

No rhizoids (filamentous outgrowth) Yeast form: cigar shaped /asteroid body: Sporothrix
Schenckii
440. BLASTOMYCES DERMATITIDIS IS SEEN 446. A wright stain of peripheral smear reveals Erythrocytes
MICROSCOPICALLY AS?: enlarged to 1.5-2X normal
Schuffners dots
Parasite with irregular spread out trophozoites
Golden brown pegment
12-24 merozoites
what Plasmodium species is this consistent with?:

BROAD BASE BUDDING WITH MOTHER AND DAUGHTER

CELLS
441. Describe Blastoconidia:

Plasmodium Vivax
447. Trichuris trichiura (whipworm) image:

Mother budding and daughter cell with constriction.

442. Favic chandelier is seen in ...:

Trichuris trichiura
448. Parasite associated with Homemade Contact lens Solution?:

Trichophyton schoenleinii
443. Hair Baiting Test Positive in .....: Trychophyton
mentagrophytes
444. Hair perforation test is for identification of which two
fungi?: Trichophyton mentagrophytes and
Acanthamoeba
Trichophyton rubrum
445. Plasmodium species that does not present trophozoite and
schizont in PBS(peripheral blood smear):

Plasmodium falciparum

banana shaped
449. Blastocystis hominis Image: 454. You recieved a sputum specimen for Rotavirus, what to do?:
Clarify request
455. Positive ELISA test for Rotavirus, what MLS do next?: Report
as (+)ve for Rotavirus
456. Sperm count is done ......: after liquefaction (30-60 minutes)
457. Abnormal sperm:

Blastocystis hominis

a large central body that fills about 90% of the cell volume.
There is an outer ring of cytoplasm with several nuclei around
the central body
450. PARASITE FOUND IN MUCOID STOOL:

458. Different Fecal Fat tests are affected similarly by .....:

Weighing and Extraction
459. Effusions (fluid in a body cavity) that is non-inflammatory
with fewer than 1000 cells/ul and protein less than 3gm/dl
is called ....: Transudate
Entamoeba histolytica 460. Effusions (fluid in a body cavity) that is inflammatory
451. Which parasite is known for its autoinfection capability?: (yellow-white) with higher than 1000 cells/ul and protein
more than 3gm/dl is called ....: Exudates
461. Leukocyte esterase is 1+ but in microscopic exam no WBC
seen. What is the cause?: Lysed WBC

Leukocytes reagent strip react with Leukocyte esterase from

Strongyloides stercoralis
lysed WBCs
462. Protein reagent strip negative, while Sulfosalicylic acid
(SSA) is positive, what might be the issue?: Proteins other
than albumin, like Bence Jones Protein
463. Clreatinine Clearance formula ..: C = U x V/P

452. Cryptosporidium Staining: 464. What is the urine formation pathway?: glomerulus, bowman's
capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of henle, distal
convoluted tubule, collective tubule and renal pelvis.
465. Picture of Triple Phosphate, seen in What urine?:

Modified Acid Fast Stain

453. Specimen of choice for Rotavirus?: Stool Alkaline Urine
466. Urine Crystals seen indication liver disease ....: 478. Effect on increased aldosterone to Na and K: Increase
Sodium (Na) , Decreased Potassium (K)
479. urine analysis
RBC (20-25/hpf)
Hyaline casts (6-8/hpf)
WBC (5-10/hpf)
RTE (25-35/hpf): Tubular necrosis
480. Birefringent crystal (refractive) in synovial fluid causes ....:

1) Tyrosine
2) Leucine &
3) Bilirubin
467. A gram stain is done on a CSF specimen in the evening shift
and shows gram negative rods. how should the MLS store it Pseudogout (Calcium pyrophosphate)
for a culture on the next day?: Keep at around 35 c or room
temperature remember gout is caused by Monosodium urate crystal
468. On a urinalysis test, blood is positive on strip test, but no 481. What is added to check for mucin clot in synovial fluid ?:
red cells are seen under the microscope. what can be an
explanation?: 1. Hypotonic and alkaline urine
2. Hemoglobinuria

In dilute or alkaline urine, RBCs swell and lyse with release of

hemoglobin, leaving an empty cell, which appears as a ghost
cell.
469. Glucose reagent strip positive (+), Clinitest negative (-):
Glucose is present

Strip test is more sensitive than Clinitest

Glacial Acetic Acid (2.5%)
470. Production of abnormal small amount of urine (>400 ml) is
called ...: Oliguria poor mucin clot formation are indications of decreased
471. complete cessation of urine flow: Anuria hyaluronate concentration (decreased viscosity)
472. Ph 4.5 in urine is found with/in ....: high protein diet 482. lactic acidosis findings:
473. Principle of reagent strip of pH?: Double indicator system
1) Methyl red
2) Bromthymol Blue
474. Specific gravity 1.010 using refractometer at 4C result
glucose 1000mg/dL - what MLS should do?: correct the
specific gravity due to high glucose
475. A urine specific gravity of 1.053 in the refractometer: Protein
and Glucose result Trace - Radiographic Dyes would increase
Specific Gravity (Abnormal Solute)
483. What is used to compare two sets of mean?: Paired T-test
476. Consistent SG in urine of 1.010 may be found in ....: Diabetes
484. What does a delta check mean when doing automated
Insipidus (consistently low Specific Gravity)
clinical measurements?: Significant change in patient's lab
477. Urinalysis Result: with
result compared to previous result
1) WBC Cast,
485. Concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the
2) RTE Cells,
amount of light absorbed or inversely proportional to the
3) Fatty Cast,
logarithm of transmitted light: Beers Law
4) Oval Fat Bodies -: Nephrotic Syndrome
486. Specimen for blood gas analysis?: Heparinized syringe with 499. Speckled ANA pattern:
needle pierced on rubber stopper
487. Effect of blood sample exposure to air (bubble) ..: increase
pH
decreased CO2
increased O2
488. Viral Specimen in the laboratory is to be shipped for
96hours. What temperature should the specimen be kept:
Lyophilized in a serum
anti SBB & anti-SSA (Sjorgen),
489. C1 esterase deficiency treatment: Factor 12 anti RNP (Mixed Connective Tissue Disease),
490. What is Weil-Felix test: anti Sm (SLE)
500. COAGULATION RESULT OF A PATIENT THAT HAS
UNDERGONE A GALLBLADDER SURGERY PT IS NORMAL,
APTT IS PROLONGED, THE FACTOR DEFICIENT IS ....: Factor
It is the use of Proteus OX-19, OX-2 and OX-K as antigens to
XII
detect hard to culture Rickettsial Antibody (heterophil
Factor X1
antibody)
FactorIX
491. How Weil-Felix test should be considered positive?: 4-folds
rise in titer or
Any factor in the intrinsic pathway only (not the common
1:160 titer
pathway)
492. what are the Rickettsial organisms negative for Proteus
501. ORGANISM ISOLATED IN HEKTOEN AGAR
antigens?: R. Akari that causes Ricketssial Pox) and
TSI K/A, H2S positive (+),
Coxiella Burnetti that causes Q-Fever
PAD negative (-),
493. How Rickettsia Prowazekii which causes typhus Fever, will LYSINE DECARBOXYLASE negative (-),
react in Weil-Felix test?: Proteus OX-19 Positive UREA positive (+),
Proteus OX-2 varialble CITRATE positive (+): TECH REPORT AS NORMAL FLORA
Proteus OX-K negative
502. SENSITIVITY FORMULA: TP/TP+FN X 100
494. How Rickettsia Rickettsiae which causes Rocky Mountain
503. Ouchterlony:
Spotted fever, will react in Weil-Felix test?: Proteus OX-19
Positive
Proteus OX-2 posive
Proteus OX-K negative
495. How Rickettsia Typhi which causes Murine Typhus, will react
in Weil-Felix test?: Proteus OX-19 Positive
Proteus OX-2 posive
Proteus OX-K negative
496. REJECTION CRITERIA FOR SPUTUM SPECEMIN?: HIGH
EPITHELIAL CELLS

squamous epithelial cells are an indication of contamination

with oral flora, whereas polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs)
indicate a quality specimen. A general rule for an acceptable
specimen might be <10 squamous epithelial inverted V or U shape = identity
cells and >25 PMNs/low power field. X shape = non-identity
497. reason for a false Positive ABO: Positve DAT inverted Y = Partial identity

498. In multichannel analyzer, controls of enzymatic assays are
lower than expected values while non-enzymatic assay
controls are within normal limits. What is the probable
cause?: Instrument temperature may be low
504. A PATIENT HAD A SURGERY TO REMOVE A PROSTATE
CANCER 12 MONTH AGO, THE REGULAR PSA TEST
SHOWED A LEVEL OF 14 NG/ML (N:<4 NG/ML) WHAT WILL
BE THE DIAGNOSIS?: RECURRENCE OF THE DISEASE
505. AUTOCLAVE STERILIZATION: 121C, 15 PSI, 15 MINS
506. A2B with A1 looks like in ABO discrepancy: 514. Uric acid Crystals:

see image
507. ABO discrepancy: Normal Acid urine Crystals

Purine metabolite
515. Why it is hard to identify a blood group for a patient who is
receiving dextran?: I don't know
516. Sequence of Hep A. marker (which one appear first, second
and third): Options were Antigen in fecal specimen, IgM in
blood, IgG in blood (that was the order I chose, it could be
wrong)
508. Coefficient of Variation (CV): Standard Deviation/mean X 100
517. 3 Platelet aggregation curves: analyse the 3 curves and
identify which one is normal and which one is abnormal.
reflects random variation of analytical
methods in units that are independent of methodology. 518. Recurrent Plateletphareses donners: identify the minimum
value of their platelet prior allowing him/her to donate again.
Ideal CVs are less than 3% 519. Patient suspected for Sickle cell disease,
Indicates acceptable precision no sickle cells in PBS
509. Decreased alpha-1 antitrypsin found in ...: Emphysema- hemoglobin shows only A and S bands at 8.6 pH. which
associated pulmonary disease might be the diagnoses: Hemoglobin D trade (travel with HgS
at alkaline pH)
It neutralizes trypsin type enzyme that can damages structural 520. patient admitted to the hospital with severe abdominal
proteins. pain. lab work show high amylase, lipase (result shown). the
510. Branched Chain DNA (bDNA) is what time of amplification?: patient blood expected be
Signal Amplification a. ictric
b. viscous
511. Purpose of D Positive (+) red cell indicator in the rosette
c. lipemic
test is ...:
d. hemolysed: lipemic

forms rosette with fetal D positive red cell

512. Test for glucose was collected in heparin and specimen
cannot be tested within 3 hours. What to do next?: Wrong
anticoagulant used
513. the following results correlate with ....

5.5 % hba1c, 160 mg/dl FBS:: Good control for the past
months,
poor recent control