Nurse Practice 1
University of Iloilo- College of Nursing
Refresher Drills
1. The most important nursing intervention to
correct skin dryness is:
a. Avoid bathing the patient until the condition is
remedied, and notify the physician
b. Ask the physician to refer the patient to a
dermatologist, and suggest that the patient wear
home-laundered sleepwear
c. Consult the dietitian about increasing the
patient’s fat intake, and take necessary
measures to prevent infection
d. Encourage the patient to increase his fluid
intake, use nonirritating soap when bathing the
patient, and apply lotion to the involved areas
2. When bathing a patient’s extremities, the
nurse should use long, firm strokes from the
distal to the proximal areas. This technique:
a. Provides an opportunity for skin assessment
b. Avoids undue strain on the nurse
c. Increases venous blood return
d. Causes vasoconstriction and increases
circulation
3. Vivid dreaming occurs in which stage of
sleep?
a. Stage I non-REM
b. Rapid eye movement (REM) stage
c. Stage II non-REM
d. Delta stage
4. The natural sedative in meat and milk
products (especially warm milk) that can help
induce sleep is:
a. Flurazepam
b. Temazepam
c. Tryptophan
d. Methotrimeprazine
5. Nursing interventions that can help the patient
to relax and sleep restfully include all of the
following except:
a. Have the patient take a 30- to 60-minute nap
in the afternoon
b. Turn on the television in the patient’s room
c. Provide quiet music and interesting reading
material
d. Massage the patient’s back with long strokes
6. Restraints can be used for all of the following
purposes except to:
a. Prevent a confused patient from removing
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tubes, such as feeding tubes, I.V. lines, and
urinary catheters
b. Prevent a patient from falling out of bed or a
chair
c. Discourage a patient from attempting to
ambulate alone when he requires assistance for
his safety
d. Prevent a patient from becoming confused or
disoriented
7. Which of the following is the nurse’s legal
responsibility when applying restraints?
a. Document the patient’s behavior
b. Document the type of restraint used
c. Obtain a written order from the physician
except in an emergency, when the patient must
be protected from injury to himself or others
d. All of the above
8. Kubler-Ross’s five successive stages of death
and dying are:
a. Anger, bargaining, denial, depression,
acceptance
b. Denial, anger, depression, bargaining,
acceptance
c. Denial, anger, bargaining, depression
acceptance
d. Bargaining, denial, anger, depression,
acceptance
9. A terminally ill patient usually experiences all
of the following feelings during the anger stage
except:
a. Rage
b. Envy
c. Numbness
d. Resentment
10. Which is the correct procedure for collecting
a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity
testing?
a. Have the patient place the specimen in a
container and enclose the container in a plastic
bag
b. Have the patient expectorate the sputum
while the nurse holds the container
c. Have the patient expectorate the sputum into
a sterile container
d. Offer the patient an antiseptic mouthwash just
before he expectorate the sputum

11. The best way to decrease the risk of
transferring pathogens to a patient when
removing contaminated gloves is to:
a. Wash the gloves before removing them
b. Gently pull on the fingers of the gloves when
removing them
c. Gently pull just below the cuff and invert the
gloves when removing them
d. Remove the gloves and then turn them inside
out
12. After having an I.V. line in place for 72
hours, a patient complains of tenderness,
burning, and swelling. Assessment of the I.V.
site reveals that it is warm and erythematons.
This usually indicates:
a. Infection
b. Infiltration
c. Phlebitis
d. Bleeding
13. How should the nurse prepare an injection
for a patient who takes both regular and NPH
insulin?
a. Draw up the NPH insulin, then the regular
insulin, in the same syringe
b. Draw up the regular insulin, then the NPH
insulin, in the same syringe
c. Use two separate syringe
d. Check with the physician
14. A patient has just received 30 mg of codeine
by mouth for pain. Five minutes later he vomits.
What should the nurse do first?
a. Call the physician
b. Remedicate the patient
c. Observe the emesis
d. Explain to the patient that she can do nothing
to help him
15. Nurse Brenda is teaching a patient about a
newly prescribed drug. What could cause a
geriatric patient to have difficulty retaining
knowledge about prescribed medications?
a. Decreased plasma drug levels
b. Sensory deficits
c. Lack of family support
d. History of Tourette syndrome
16. When examining a patient with abdominal
pain the nurse in charge should assess:
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a. Any quadrant first
b. The symptomatic quadrant first
c. The symptomatic quadrant last
d. The symptomatic quadrant either second or
third
17. The nurse is assessing a postoperative adult
patient. Which of the following should the nurse
document as subjective data?
a. Vital signs
b. Laboratory test result
c. Patient’s description of pain
d. Electrocardiographic (ECG) waveforms
18. Which of the following planes divides the
body longitudinally into anterior and posterior
regions?
a. Frontal plane
b. Sagittal plane
c. Midsagittal plane
d. Transverse plane
19. A female patient with a terminal illness is in
denial. Indicators of denial include:
a. Shock dismay
b. Numbness
c. Stoicism
d. Preparatory grief
20. The nurse in charge is transferring a patient
from the bed to a chair. Which action does the
nurse take during this patient transfer?
a. Position the head of the bed flat
b. Helps the patient dangle the legs
c. Stands behind the patient
d. Places the chair facing away from the bed
21. She is the first one to coin the term
“NURSING PROCESS” She introduced 3 steps
of nursing process which are Observation,
Ministration and Validation.
A. Nightingale
B. Johnson
C. Rogers
D. Hall
22. The American Nurses association
formulated an innovation of the Nursing process.
Today, how many distinct steps are there in the
nursing process?
A. APIE – 4
B. ADPIE – 5
C. ADOPIE – 6
D. ADOPIER – 7
23. They are the first one to suggest a 4 step
nursing process which are : APIE , or
assessment, planning, implementation and
evaluation.
1. Yura
2. Walsh
3. Roy
4. Knowles
A. 1,2
B. 1,3
C. 3,4
D. 2,3
24. Which characteristic of nursing process is
responsible for proper utilization of human
resources, time and cost resources?
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
25. Which characteristic of nursing process
addresses the INDIVIDUALIZED care a client
must receive?
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
26. A characteristic of the nursing process that is
essential to promote client satisfaction and
progress. The care should also be relevant with
the client’s needs.
A. Organized and Systematic
B. Humanistic
C. Efficient
D. Effective
27. Rhina, who has Menieres disease, said that
her environment is moving. Which of the
following is a valid assessment?
1. Rhina is giving an objective data
2. Rhina is giving a subjective data
3. The source of the data is primary
4. The source of the data is secondary
A. 1,3
B. 2,3
C. 2.4
D. 1,4
28. Nurse Angela, observe Joel who is very
apprehensive over the impending operation. The
client is experiencing dyspnea, diaphoresis and
asks lots of questions. Angela made a diagnosis
of ANXIETY R/T INTRUSIVE PROCEDURE.
This is what type of Nursing Diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
29. Nurse Angela diagnosed Mrs. Delgado, who
have undergone a BKA. Her diagnosis is SELF
ESTEEM DISTURBANCE R/T CHANGE IN
BODY IMAGE. Although the client has not yet
seen her lost leg, Angela already anticipated the
diagnosis. This is what type of Diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
30. Nurse Angela is about to make a diagnosis
but very unsure because the S/S the client is
experiencing is not specific with her diagnosis of
POWERLESSNESS R/T DIFFICULTY
ACCEPTING LOSS OF LOVED ONE. She then
focus on gathering data to refute or prove her
diagnosis but her plans and interventions are
already ongoing for the diagnosis. Which type of
Diagnosis is this?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
31. Nurse Angela knew that Stephen Lee Mu
Chin, has just undergone an operation with an
incision near the diaphragm. She knew that this
will contribute to some complications later on.
She then should develop what type of Nursing
diagnosis?
A. Actual
B. Probable
C. Possible
D. Risk
32. Which of the following Nursing diagnosis is
INCORRECT?
A. Fluid volume deficit R/T Diarrhea
B. High risk for injury R/T Absence of side
rails
C. Possible ineffective coping R/T Loss of loved
one
D. Self-esteem disturbance R/T Effects of
surgical removal of the leg
33. Among the following statements, which
should be given the HIGHEST priority?
A. Client is in extreme pain
B. Client’s blood pressure is 60/40

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C. Client’s temperature is 40 deg. Centigrade
D. Client is cyanotic
34. Which of the following need is given a higher
priority among others?
A. The client has attempted suicide and safety
precaution is needed
B. The client has disturbance in his body image
because of the recent operation
C. The client is depressed because her
boyfriend left her all alone
D. The client is thirsty and dehydrated
35. Which of the following is TRUE with regards
to Client Goals?
A. They are specific, measurable, attainable and
time bounded
B. They are general and broadly stated
C. They should answer for WHO, WHAT
ACTIONS, WHAT CIRCUMSTANCES, HOW
WELL and WHEN.
D. Example is : After discharge planning, Client
demonstrated the proper psychomotor skills for
insulin injection.
36. Which of the following is a NOT a correct
statement of an Outcome criteria?
A. Ambulates 30 feet with a cane before
discharge
B. Discusses fears and concerns regarding the
surgical procedure
C. Demonstrates proper coughing and breathing
technique after a teaching session
D. Reestablishes a normal pattern of
elimination
37. Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE
data?
A. Dizziness
B. Chest pain
C. Anxiety
D. Blue nails
38. A patient’s chart is what type of data source?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Can be A and B
39. All of the following are characteristic of the
Nursing process except
A. Dynamic
B. Cyclical
C. Universal
D. Intrapersonal
40. Which of the following is true about the
NURSING CARE PLAN?
A. It is nursing centered
B. Rationales are supported by interventions
C. Verbal
D. Atleast 2 goals are needed for every nursing
diagnosis
SITUATION : Aling Brea, a 32 year old fish
vendor from Barangay Wisteria Lane came
to see you at the prenatal clinic. She brought
with her all her three children. Maye, 1 year
and 6 months; Joy, 3 and Dan, 7 years old.
She mentioned that she stopped taking oral
contraceptives several months ago and now
suspects she is pregnant. She cannot
remember her LMP.
41. Which of the following would be useful in
calculating Aling Brea's EDC?
A. Appearance of linea negra
B. First FHT by fetoscope
C. Increase pulse rate
D. Presence of edema
42. Which hormone is necessary for a positive
pregnancy test?
A. Progesterone
B. HCG
C. Estrogen
D. Placental Lactogen
43. With this pregnancy, Aling Brea is a
A. P3 G3
B. Primigravida
C. P3 G4
D. P0 G3
44. In explaining the development of her baby,
you identified in chronological order of growth of
the fetus as it occurs in pregnancy as
A. Ovum, embryo, zygote, fetus, infant
B. Zygote, ovum, embryo, fetus, infant
C. Ovum, zygote, embryo, fetus, infant
D. Zygote, ovum, fetus, embryo, infant
45. Aling Brea states she is happy to be
pregnant. Which behavior is elicited by her
during your assessment that would lead you to
think she is stressed?
A. She told you about her drunk husband
B. She states she has very meager income from
selling
C. She laughs at every advise you give even
when it’s not funny
D. She has difficulty following instructions

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46. When teaching Aling Brea about her
pregnancy, you should include personal
common discomforts. Which of the following is
an indication for prompt professional
supervision?
A. Constipation and hemorrhoids
B. Backache
C. Facial edema
D. frequent urination
47. Which of the following statements would be
appropriate for you to include in Aling Brea's
prenatal teaching plan?
A. Exercise is very tiresome, it should be
avoided
B. Limit your food intake
C. Smoking has no harmful effect on the growth
and development of fetus
D. Avoid unnecessary fatigue, rest periods
should be included in your schedule
48. The best advise you can give to Aling Brea
regarding prevention of varicosities is
A. Raise the legs while in upright position and
put it against the wall several times a day
B. Lay flat for most hours of the day
C. Use garters with nylon stocking
D. Wear support hose
49. In a 32 day menstrual cycle, ovulation
usually occurs on the
A. 14th day after menstruation
B. 18th day after menstruation
C. 20th day after menstruation
D. 24th day after menstruation
50. Placenta is the organ that provides
exchange of nutrients and waste products
between mother and fetus. This develops by
A. First month
B. Third month
C. Fifth month
D. Seventh month
51. In evaluating the weight gain of Aling Brea,
you know the minimum weight gain during
pregnancy is
A. 2 lbs/wk
B. 5 lbs/wk
C. 7 lbs/wk
D. 10 lbs/wk
52. The more accurate method of measuring
fundal height is
A. Millimeter
B. Centimeter
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C. Inches
D. Fingerbreadths
53. To determine fetal position using Leopold's
maneuvers, the first maneuver is to
A. Determine degree of cephalic flexion and
engagement
B. Determine part of fetus presenting into pelvis
C. Locate the back,arms and legs
D. Determine what part of fetus is in the fundus
54. Aling Brea has encouraged her husband to
attend prenatal classes with her. During the
prenatal class, the couple expressed fear of pain
during labor and delivery. The use of touch and
soothing voice often promotes comfort to the
laboring patient. This physical intervention is
effective because
A. Pain perception is interrupted
B. Gate control fibers are open
C. It distracts the client away from the pain
D. Empathy is communicated by a caring person
55. Which of the following could be considered
as a positive sign of pregnancy ?
A. Amenorrhea, nausea, vomiting
B. Frequency of urination
C. Braxton hicks contraction
D. Fetal outline by sonography
56. Angela, at her first visit to the prenatal clinic,
states that she has missed three menstrual
periods, thinks she has twins because her
abdomen is so large, but has started to have a
brownish vaginal discharge. Her blood pressure
is elevated indicating that she may have
gestational hypertension. The nurse is aware
that a further assessment is required because
she may have:
A. Renal failure
B. Abruptio placenta
C. Placenta previa
D. H-mole
57. A client at 36 weeks’ gestation is schedule
for a routine ultrasound prior to an
amniocentesis. After teaching the client about
the purpose for the ultrasound, which of the
following client statements would indicate to the
nurse in charge that the client needs further
instruction?
a. The ultrasound will help to locate the
placenta
b. The ultrasound identifies blood flow through
the umbilical cord
c. The test will determine where to insert the
needle
d. The ultrasound locates a pool of amniotic
fluid
58. While the postpartum client is receiving
herapin for thrombophlebitis, which of the
following drugs would the nurse Mica expect to
administer if the client develops complications
related to heparin therapy?
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Methylegonovine (Methergine)
d. Nitrofurantoin (macrodantin)
59. When caring for a 3-day-old neonate who is
receiving phototherapy to treat jaundice, the
nurse in charge would expect to do which of the
following?
a. Turn the neonate every 6 hours
b. Encourage the mother to discontinue breast-
feeding
c. Notify the physician if the skin becomes
bronze in color
d. Check the vital signs every 2 to 4 hours
60. A primigravida in active labor is about 9 days
post-term. The client desires a bilateral
pudendal block anesthesia before delivery. After
the nurse explains this type of anesthesia to the
client, which of the following locations identified
by the client as the area of relief would indicate
to the nurse that the teaching was effective?
a. Back
b. Abdomen
c. Fundus
d. Perineum
61. You performed the leopold’s maneuver and
found the following: breech presentation, fetal
back at the right side of the mother. Based on
these findings, you can hear the fetal heart beat
(PMI) BEST in which location?
A.Left lower quadrant
B.Right lower quadrant
C.Left upper quadrant
D.Right upper quadrant
62. In Leopold’s maneuver step #1, you
palpated a soft broad mass that moves with the
rest of the mass. The correct interpretation of
this finding is:
A.The mass palpated at the fundal part is the
head part.
B.The presentation is breech.
C.The mass palpated is the back
D.The mass palpated is the buttocks.
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63. In Leopold’s maneuver step # 3 you
palpated a hard round movable mass at the
supra pubic area. The correct interpretation is
that the mass palpated is:
A.The buttocks because the presentation is
breech.
B.The mass palpated is the head.
C.The mass is the fetal back.
D.The mass palpated is the fetal small part
64. The hormone responsible for a positive
pregnancy test is:
A.Estrogen
B.Progesterone
C.Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D.Follicle Stimulating hormone
65. The hormone responsible for the maturation
of the graafian follicle is:
A.Follicle stimulating hormone
B.Progesterone
C.Estrogen
D.Luteinizing hormone
66. The most common normal position of the
fetus in utero is:
A.Transverse position
B.Vertical position
C.Oblique position
D.None of the above
67. In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the
mother may experience shortness of breath.
This complaint maybe explained as:
A.A normal occurrence in pregnancy because
the fetus is using more oxygen
B.The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the
diaphragm upwards
C.The woman is having allergic reaction to the
pregnancy and its hormones
D.The woman maybe experiencing complication
of pregnancy
68. Which of the following findings in a woman
would be consistent with a pregnancy of two
months duration?
A.Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. and presence of
striae gravidarum
B.Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency
C.Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening
D.Increased respiratory rate and ballottement
69. Which of the following is a positive sign of
pregnancy?
A.Fetal movement felt by mother
B.Enlargement of the uterus C.28-30 weeks
C.(+) pregnancy test D.38-40 weeks
D.(+) ultrasound
77. Which provision of our 1987 constitution
70. What event occurring in the second trimester guarantees the right of the unborn child to life
helps the expectant mother to accept the from conception is
pregnancy? A.Article II section 12
A.Lightening B.Article II section 15
B.Ballotment C.Article XIII section 11
C.Pseudocyesis D.Article XIII section 15
D.Quickening
78. In the Philippines, if a nurse performs
71. Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good abortion on the mother who wants it done and
posture will prevent which prenatal discomfort? she gets paid for doing it, she will be held liable
A.Backache because
B.Vertigo A.Abortion is immoral and is prohibited by the
C.Leg cramps church
D.Nausea B.Abortion is both immoral and illegal in our
country
72. When a pregnant woman experiences leg C.Abortion is considered illegal because you got
cramps, the correct nursing intervention to paid for doing it
relieve the muscle cramps is: D.Abortion is illegal because majority in our
A.Allow the woman to exercise country are catholics and it is prohibited by the
B.Let the woman walk for a while church
C.Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot
towards the knees 79. The preferred manner of delivering the baby
D.Ask the woman to raise her legs in a gravido-cardiac is vaginal delivery assisted
by forceps under epidural anesthesia. The main
73. From the 33rd week of gestation till full term, rationale for this is:
a healthy mother should have prenatal check up A.To allow atraumatic delivery of the baby
every: B.To allow a gradual shifting of the blood into
A.week the maternal circulation
B.2 weeks C.To make the delivery effort free and the
C.3 weeks mother does not need to push with contractions
D.4 weeks D.To prevent perineal laceration with the
expulsion of the fetal head
74. The expected weight gain in a normal
pregnancy during the 3rd trimester is 80. When giving narcotic analgesics to mother in
A.1 pound a week labor, the special consideration to follow is:
B.2 pounds a week A.The progress of labor is well established
C.10 lbs a month reaching the transitional stage
D.10 lbs total weight gain in the 3rd trimester B.Uterine contraction is progressing well and
delivery of the baby is imminent
75. Which of the following conditions will lead to C.Cervical dilatation has already reached at
a small-for-gestational age fetus due to less least 8 cm. and the station is at least (+)2
blood supply to the fetus? D.Uterine contractions are strong and the baby
will not be delivered yet within the next 3 hours.
A.Diabetes in the mother
B.Maternal cardiac condition SITUATION: Dervid, A registered nurse,
C.Premature labor witnessed an old woman hit by a motorcycle
D.Abruptio placenta while crossing a train railway. The old
woman fell at the railway. Dervid Rushed at
76. The lower limit of viability for infants in terms
the scene.
of age of gestation is:
81. As a registered nurse, Dervid knew that the
A.21-24 weeks
first thing that he will do at the scene is
B.25-27 weeks

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A. Stay with the person, encourage her to
remain still and Immobilize the leg while waiting
for the ambulance.
B. Leave the person for a few moments to call
for help.
C. Reduce the fracture manually.
D. Move the person to a safer place.
82. Dervid suspects a hip fracture when he
noticed that the old woman’s leg is
A. Lengthened, Abducted and Internally
Rotated.
B. Shortened, Abducted and Externally Rotated.
C. Shortened, Adducted and Internally Rotated.
D. Shortened, Adducted and Externally Rotated.
83. The old woman complains of pain. John
noticed that the knee is reddened, warm to
touch and swollen. These signs and symptoms
are likely related to
A. Infection
C. Thrombophlebitis
B. Inflammation
D. Degenerative disease
84. The old woman told Dervid that she has
osteoporosis; Dervid knew that all of the
following factors would contribute to
osteoporosis except
A. Hypothyroidism
B. End stage renal disease
C. Cushing’s Disease
D. Taking Furosemide and Phenytoin.
85. Martha, the old woman was now
Immobilized and brought to the emergency
room. The X-ray shows a fractured femur and
pelvis. The ER Nurse would carefully monitor
Martha for which of the following sign and
symptoms?
A. Tachycardia and Hypotension
B. Fever and Bradycardia
C. Bradycardia and Hypertension
D. Fever and Hypertension
SITUATION: Mr. E., An obese 50 year old C.I
of UI-PEN is admitted due to pain in his
weight bearing joint. The diagnosis was
Osteoarthritis.
86. As a nurse, you instructed Mr. E. how to use
a cane. Mr. E. has a weakness on his right leg
due to self-immobilization and guarding. You
plan to teach Mr. E.to hold the cane
A. On his left hand, because his right side is
weak.
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B. On his left hand, because of reciprocal
motion.
C. On his right hand, to support the right leg.
D. On his right hand, because only his right leg
is weak.
87. You also told Mr. E.to hold the cane
A. 1 Inches in front of the foot.
B. 3 Inches at the lateral side of the foot.
C. 6 Inches at the lateral side of the foot.
D. 12 Inches at the lateral side of the foot.
88. Mr. E. was discharged and 6 months later,
he came back to the emergency room of the
hospital because he suffered a mild stroke. The
right side of the brain was affected. At the
rehabilitative phase of your nursing care, you
observe Mr. E. use a cane and you intervene if
you see him
A. Moves the cane when the right leg is moved.
B. Leans on the cane when the right leg swings
through.
C. keeps the cane 6 Inches out to the side of the
right foot.
D. Holds the cane on the right side.
SITUATION: Alfred, a 40 year old
construction worker developed cough, night
sweats and fever. He was brought to the
nursing unit for diagnostic studies. He told
the nurse he did not receive a BCG vaccine
during childhood
89. The nurse performs a Mantoux Test. The
nurse knows that Mantoux Test is also known as
A. PPD
B. PDP
C. PDD
D. DPP
90. The nurse would inject the solution in what
route?
A. IM
B. IV
C. ID
D. SC
91. The nurse notes that a positive result for
Alfred is
A. 5 mm wheal
B. 5 mm Induration
C. 10 mm Wheal
D. 10 mm Induration
92. The nurse told Alfred to come back after
A. a week
B. 48 hours
C. 1 day D. 5 months
D. 4 days
97. Which of the following drugs is UNLIKELY
93. Mang Alfred returns after the Mantoux Test. given to Mang Alfred during the maintenance
The test result read POSITIVE. What should be phase?
the nurse’s next action? A. Rifampicin
A. Call the Physician B. Isoniazid
B. Notify the radiology dept. for CXR evaluation C. Ethambutol
C. Isolate the patient D. Pyridoxine
D. Order for a sputum exam
98. According to the DOH, the most hazardous
94. Why is Mantoux test not routinely done in period for development of clinical disease is
the Philippines? during the first
A. It requires a highly skilled nurse to perform a A. 6-12 months after
Mantoux test B. 3-6 months after
B. The sputum culture is the gold standard of C. 1-2 months after
PTB Diagnosis and it will definitively determine D. 2-4 weeks after
the extent of the cavitary lesions
C. Chest X Ray Can diagnose the specific 99. This is the name of the program of the DOH
microorganism responsible for the lesions to control TB in the country
D. Almost all Filipinos will test positive for A. DOTS
Mantoux Test B. National Tuberculosis Control Program
C. Short Coursed Chemotherapy
95. Mang Alfred is now a new TB patient with an D. Expanded Program for Immunization
active disease. What is his category according
to the DOH? 100. Susceptibility for the disease [ TB ] is
A. I increased markedly in those with the following
B. II condition except
C. III A. 23 Year old athlete with diabetes insipidus
D. IV B. 23 Year old athlete taking long term
Decadron therapy and anabolic steroids
96. How long is the duration of the maintenance C. 23 Year old athlete taking illegal drugs and
phase of his treatment? abusing substances
A. 2 months D. Undernourished and Underweight individual
B. 3 months who undergone gastrectomy
C. 4 months

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