Evolution

Evolution – DPP - 01

1. The word evolution means to –

(1) Fold hidden potential
(2) Unrevealing hidden potential
(3) Unroll hidden potential
(4) Roll hidden potential

2. Which of the following covered the surface of primitive earth?

(1) Methane
(2) Ammonia
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) All of the above

3. Which of the following is explained by the Big-bang theory?

(1) Origin of life
(2) Origin of Universe
(3) Evolution of life
(4) Origin of humans

4. Life appeared after how many years of the formation of earth?

(1) 5000 million
(2) 5 billion
(3) 50 million
(4) 500 million

5. Which of the following was absent in the reducing atmosphere of primitive earth?
(1) Oxygen
(2) Ammonia
(3) Water vapour
(4) Methane

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 3 4 2 4 1

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Evolution

Evolution – DPP - 02

1. Which of the following is a connotation of theory of special creation?

(1) The diversity has changed many times since creation.
(2) All living organisms that we see today were created as such.
(3) Earth is 4 billion years old.
(4) New life comes from pre-existing life

2. Match the following:

Column-A Column-B
A. Panspermia (i) Life arise from dead & decaying matter
B. Autogenesis (ii) New life comes from pre-existing life
C. Special creation (iii) Life came on earth from outer space
D. Biogenesis (iv) All organisms were created as such
(1) A-iii , B-iv , C-i , D-ii
(2) A-iii , B-i , C-iv , D-ii
(3) A-ii , B-iv , C-ii , D-iii
(4) A-ii , B-iii , C-iv , D-i

3. In Louis Pasteur’s experiment, new organisms arose in sterilized syrup of which flask?
(1) Broken neck flask
(2) Swan neck flask
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Neither 1 nor 2

4. Which of the following theory was challenged by the observations of Darwin & Wallace?
(1) Panspermia
(2) Autogenesis
(3) Biogenesis
(4) Special creation

5. Swan neck flask experiment proved :-

(1) Biogenesis
(2) Abiogenesis
(3) Special creation
(4) Both (1) and (2)
Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 2 2 1 4 1

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Evolution

Evolution – DPP - 03

1. Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at present because of –

(1) High degree of environmental pollution
(2) A very high amount of oxygen in the atmosphere
(3) Very high atmospheric temperature
(4) Absence of raw materials

2. Water of oceans became a rich mixture of macromolecules/ complex organic compounds was
called as–
(1) Hot dilute soup by Oparin
(2) Pre-biotic soup by Haldane
(3) Living soup by Haldane
(4) Protobionts by Oparin

3. Which of the following is not true for protobionts?

(1) Exhibit simple metabolism
(2) Clusters of macromolecules
(3) Living
(4) Large colloidal drops

4. Coacervates were synthesised by–

(1) Sydney Fox
(2) Haldane
(3) Pasteur
(4) Oparin

5. Which of the following were present in pre-biotic soup?

(1) Macromolecules only
(2) Micromolecules only
(3) Both micro & macromolecules
(4) Inorganic compounds only

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 2 2 3 4 3

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Evolution

Evolution - DPP - 04
1. Match the following list of animals with their level of organization.

1. Match the following-

Column-A Column-B
A. Protobionts (i) 1st cellular form of life
B. Eobionts (ii) Appeared 1.5 BYA
C. Prokaryotes (iii) Non-living
D. Eukaryotes (iv) Appeared 3000 MYA
(1) A-(iii) ; B-(i) ; C-(iv) ; D-(ii)
(2) A-(ii) ; B-(iv) ; C-(i) ; D-(iii)
(3) A-(ii) ; B-(i) ; C-(iv) ; D-(iii)
(4) A-(iii) ; B-(iv) ; C-(i) ; D-(ii)

2. Which of the following was not present in Stanley Miller’s experiment?

(1) CH3
(2) H2O
(3) NH3
(4) H2

3. For photosynthesis, which of the following was used by the 1st photosynthetic prokaryotes on
earth?
(1) H2O
(2) H2S
(3) H2SO4
(4) HCl

4. Which of the following could have possibly caused oxygen revolution on earth?
(1) Purple sulphur bacteria
(2) Planktonic sulphur bacteria
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Iron bacteria

5. Which of the following is not true for the protocell?

(1) Living
(2) Had RNA
(3) Originated 3BYA
(4) 1st Cellular form of life

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Evolution

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 4 1 2 3 4

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Evolution

Evolution – DPP - 05

1. Match the following-

Column-A Column-B
(A) Invertebrates were formed and active (i) 320 MYA
(B) Fish with strong and stout fins (ii) 200 MYA
(C) Sea weeds and few plants existed (iii) 500 MYA
(D) Fish like reptiles evolved (iv) 350 MYA
(1) A-iii , B-i , C-iv , D-ii
(2) A-iv , B-iii , C-i , D-ii
(3) A-iii , B-iv , C-i , D-ii
(4) A-iv , B-iii , C-ii , D-i

2. First mammals were like ____A____. Their fossils are ____B____ sized.
(1) A–shrews, B–large
(2) A–monkey, B–small
(3) A–shrews, B–small
(4) A–monkey, B–large

3. Which of the following is the common ancestor of all the plants.

(1) Psilophytons
(2) Rhynia-type plants
(3) Tracheophyte ancestors
(4) Chlorophyte ancestors

4. The flying animal 'Pteranodon' was which type of animal?

(1) Bird (Modern)
(2) Archaeopteryx
(3) Reptile
(4) Mammal

5. _____________ evolved into the first amphibians that lived on both land and water. There are no
specimens of ____________ left with us.
(1) Coelacanth, lobefins
(2) Lobefins, first amphibians
(3) Molluscs, coelacanth
(4) Lobefins, coelacanth

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Evolution

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 3 3 4 3 2

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Evolution

Evolution - DPP - 06

1. Mostly fossils are found in which rocks?

(1) Metamorphic rocks
(2) Sedimentary rocks
(3) Igneous rocks
(4) Both 1 and 3

2. Fossils found in older rocks are of simpler types and found in newer rocks are of ____________
(1) simple types only
(2) complex type only
(3) both simple and complex type.
(4) intermediate types

3. Which is relatively most accurate method of dating of fossils?

(1) Radiocarbon method
(2) Potassium-Argon method
(3) Electron spin-resonance method
(4) Uranium-lead method

4. Archaeopteryx was found in the rocks of which period?

(1) Cretaceous
(2) Jurassic
(3) Triassic
(4) Palaeocene

5. How many of the following are connecting links between reptile and mammals?
Platypus; Archaeopteryx; Echidna; Seymauria
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 2 3 3 2 1

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Evolution

Evolution - DPP - 07

1. Flippers of seal are modified :-

(1) Hindlimbs
(2) Forelimbs
(3) Fins
(4) Gills

2. Adaptive radiation is :-
(1) Evolution of different species from a common ancestor due to different habitats
(2) Adaptation due to geographical isolation
(3) Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
(4) Power of adaptation of an individual to a variety of environments

3. Which one correctly describes homologous structures?

(1) Organs with anatomical similarities but performing different functions
(2) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities but performing same functions
(3) Organs that have no function now but had an important function in ancestors
(4) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult

4. Homologous organs are

(1) Wings of insects and bat
(2) Gills of fish and lungs of rabbit
(3) Flipper of whale and forelimbs of horse
(4) Wings of grasshopper and crow

5. Dissimilarities between forelimbs of cat, monkey, bat and dolphin is due to -

(1) Divergent evolution
(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Convergent evolution

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 2 1 1 3 3

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Evolution

Evolution DPP - 08

1. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform
similar function. This is an example of :-
(1) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
(2) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(3) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
(4) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution

2. Flippers of dolphin are analogous to :-

(1) Flippers of whale
(2) Flippers of seal
(3) Wings of bat
(4) Flippers of penguin

3. Adaptive convergence between two closely related species is known as :-

(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Adaptive radiation

4. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred in an isolated
geographical area (representing different habitats), one can call this as :-
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Adaptive radiation

5. Match the following :-

Column-A Column-B
A. Lemur (i) Numbat
B. Mole (ii) Tasmanian Tigercat
C. Anteater (iii) Marsupial Mole
D. Bobcat (iv) Spotted Cuscus
(1) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
(2) A-iii B-iv C-i D-ii
(3) A-iv B-iii C-i D-ii
(4) A-iii B-iv C-ii D-i

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Evolution

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 1 4 2 1 3

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Evolution

1. Evolution DPP - 09

1. Who disproved the Biogenetic law?

(1) Charles Lyell
(2) Haldane
(3) Ernst Haeckel
(4) Von Baer

2. Who is famous for the statement “Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny”?

(1) Charles Lyell
(2) Von Baer
(3) Ernst Haeckel
(4) Haldane

3. Which event made survival of the marsupials possible in Australia?

(1) Continental Drift
(2) Meteorite Collision
(3) Fossilization
(4) Domestication

4. What happened when South America Joined North America?

(1) South American animals were overridden by North American flora
(2) North American animals were overridden by South American fauna
(3) South American animals were overridden by North American fauna
(4) North American animals were overridden by South American flora

5. Correct sequence of development of human heart is-

A. 4-chambered
B. 2-chambered
C. 3-Chambered
(1) ACB
(2) BCA
(3) CBA
(4) BAC

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 4 3 1 3 2

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Evolution

Evolution DPP - 10

1. What was the basic principle of Lamarckism?

(1) Inheritance of acquired characters
(2) Survival of the fittest
(3) Natural selection
(4) Variations

2. Which one does not favour Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired characters?
(1) Lack of pigment in cave dwellers
(2) Absence of limbs in snakes
(3) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
(4) Non-inheritance of boring of ear pinna in females

3. According to Lamarck, evolution is driven by -

(1) Inheritance of acquired characters
(2) Internal vital forces
(3) Use and disuse of organs
(4) Change in environment

4. According to Weismann which of the following not inherited?

(1) Germplasm
(2) Somatoplasm
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

5. "Continuity of germplasm" theory was given by :-

(1) De Vries
(2) Weismann
(3) Darwin
(4) Lamarck

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 1 4 3 2 2

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Evolution

Evolution DPP - 11

1. Darwin judged the fitness of individual through :-

(1) Ability to defend
(2) Strategy for obtaining food
(3) Number of offspring
(4) Dominance over others

2. According to Darwin, evolution is :-

(1) Sudden but discontinuous process
(2) Slow, gradual, continuous process
(3) Slow, sudden and discontinuous process
(4) Slow and discontinuous process

3. Most potent force for organic evolution is :-

(1) Intra-specific struggle
(2) Inter-specific struggle
(3) Environmental struggle
(4) Variations

4. Which of the following was not a criticism of Darwinism?

(1) Could not explain arrival of the fittest
(2) Origin of variations
(3) Inheritance of variations
(4) Could not explain origin of species

5. Which one provides correct sequence of events in origin of new species according to
Darwinism?
1. Natural selection
2. Variations and their inheritance
3. Overproduction
4. Struggle for existence
(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 2, 3, 1, 4
(3) 3, 4, 2, 1
(4) 4, 2, 3, 1

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Evolution

Answer Key

Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 3 2 2 4 3

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Evolution

Evolution DPP - 12

1. Gene pool is :-
(1) Genotype of an individual of a population
(2) Different genes of all individuals of a species found in an area
(3) Pool of artificially synthesised genes
(4) Genes of a genus

2. Genetic drift rapidly operates in :-

(1) Small isolated population
(2) Large isolated population
(3) Fast reproductive population
(4) Slow reproductive population

3. The chance of elimination of genes from a small population is an example of :-

(1) selection pressure
(2) speciation
(3) adaptation
(4) genetic drift

4. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural
selection. This is referred to as :-
(1) Genetic load
(2) Genetic flow
(3) Genetic drift
(4) Random mating

5. There would be no evolution if :-

(1) The inheritance of acquired characters did not take place
(2) Somatic variations were not inheritable
(3) Gene variations were not found among members of population
(4) Somatic variations would not transform into germinal variations

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 2 1 4 3 3

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Evolution

Evolution DPP - 13

1. In population of 1000 individuals, 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and remaining 160
to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is :-
(1) 0.5
(2) 0.6
(3) 0.7
(4) 0.4

2. Choose the wrong statement regarding Hardy-Weinberg principle :-

(1) Sum total of all the allele frequencies in a population is 1.
(2) Variation due to genetic drift results in changed frequency of genes and alleles in future
generations.
(3) Natural selection can lead to stabilisation directional change or disruption.
(4) Genetic recombination helps in maintaining Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium

3. In a random mating population in equilibrium, which of the following brings about a change
in gene frequency ?
(1) Random mating
(2) Sexual selection
(3) Large size of population
(4) Lack of evolution

4. What is correct formulation of Hardy Weinberg law?

(1) p2+2pq+q2=1
(2) p2+pq+q2 = 1
(3) p2+2pq+q2 = 0
(4) p2+pq+q2 = 0

5. How many of the following factors disturb the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

gene flow, genetic drift, mutation, genetic recombination, natural selection
(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

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Evolution

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 2 4 2 1 3

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Evolution

Evolution DPP - 14

1. Which one is true regarding peppered moth as observed in the case of industrial melanism?
(1) The true black melanic forms arose by a recurring random mutation
(2) The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area
(3) The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-
polluted area.
(4) Melanism is pollution-generated feature

2. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents :-

(1) Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
(2) Disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower
output
(3) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows
(4) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population

3. Which of the following can be used as an atmospheric pollution indicator?

(1) Moths
(2) Lichens
(3) Lilly
(4) Lycopodium

4. Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of :-

(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Acquired characters
(3) Pre-existing variation in the population
(4) Divergent evolution

5. Which of the following is an example of balancing selection?

(1) Industrial melanism
(2) Drug resistance in bacteria
(3) Artificial selection
(4) Sickle cell anaemia & malaria

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Evolution

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 1 1 2 3 4

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Evolution

Evolution DPP - 15

1. Artificial selection is usually like which type of natural selection?

(1) Stabilizing
(2) Directional
(3) Disruptive
(4) Balancing

2. Which of the following type of natural selection is more common in nature?

(1) Balancing
(2) Directional
(3) Disruptive
(4) Stabilizing

3. Which of the following type of natural selection is also known as diversifying selection :-
(1) Disruptive
(2) Stabilizing
(3) Balancing
(4) Directional

4. In a species, the weight of new-born ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the new-born with an
average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights
from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place?
(1) Directional Selection
(2) Stabilizing Selection
(3) Disruptive Selection
(4) Cyclical Selection

5. Which of the following selection operates in changing environment?

(1) Disruptive
(2) Stabilizing
(3) Directional
(4) Balancing

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Evolution

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 2 4 1 2 3

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Evolution

Evolution DPP - 16

1. Some bacteria are able to grow in Streptomycin containing medium due to :-

(1) Natural selection
(2) Induced mutation
(3) Reproductive isolation
(4) Genetic drift

2. In Lederberg's replica plating, streptomycin resistant strain can develop by using :-

(1) Minimal medium and streptomycin
(2) Complete medium and streptomycin
(3) Only minimal medium
(4) Only complete medium

3. The master plate in Lederberg's experiment was actually :-

(1) Multi colony agar plate
(2) Single colony agar plate
(3) Fetal bovine serum
(4) Xylose lysine deoxycholate

4. The replica in Lederberg's experiment was prepared by :-

(1) Heating agar plate
(2) Drying agar plate
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Gently pressing agar plate on velvet-wooden block

5. Lederberg's experiment suggest which of the following :-

(1) Mutations are pre-adaptive
(2) Mutations are voluntary
(3) Natural selection does not fix mutation
(4) Both (2) and (3)

Answer Key

Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer 1 2 1 4 1

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Evolution

Evolution DPP - 17

1. Character which is closely related to human evolution :-

(1) Disappearance of tail
(2) Reduction in size of jaws
(3) Binocular vision
(4) Flat nails

2. The banding pattern of chromosomes of 3 and 6 of human beings and chimpanzee shows that they
had :-
(1) common origin
(2) different origin
(3) same number of chromosomes
(4) similar blood groups

3. Select the true statements :-

(1) Ramapithecus and Dryopithecus were existing about 50 million years ago
(2) Ramapithecus was man like while Dryopithecus was more ape like
(3) Ramapithecus was more ape like while Dryopithecus was more man-like
(4) (1) & (2) both

4. Cranial capacity of Cro-magnon man was :-

(1) 900 cc
(2) 1075 cc
(3) 1450 cc
(4) 1600 cc

5. Which pre-historic man had cranial capacity almost equal to modern man :-
(1) Australopithecus
(2) Java ape man
(3) Neanderthal man
(4) Peking man

6. Which of the following is correct order of the evolutionary history of man :-

(1) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal man, Cro-Magnon man
(2) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Cro-Magnon man, Homo sapiens
(3) Peking man, Modern man, Neanderthal man, Cro-Magnon man
(4) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens, Java man

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Evolution

7. Which of the following is closest to man :-

(1) Chimpanzee
(2) Gorilla
(3) Old world Monkey
(4) Australopithecus

Answer Key
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Answer 2 1 2 4 3 2 4

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