G550 MX Quizcards

Gulfstream
G500/G550
Revision 0.0
MAINTENANCE QUIZ CARDS

Copyright © 2013, FlightSafety International, Inc.
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CONSISTING OF THE FOLLOWING:
Card *Revision
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Title........................................................ 0.0
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2-1–80-18.............................................. 0.0
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FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY ii

ACTIVE INDEX
Section Page Section Page

ATA 2 Publications.................................. 2-1 ATA 29 Hydraulic System..................... 29-1
ATA 6 Aircraft General............................ 6-1 ATA 30 Ice & Rain Protection............... 30-1
ATA 7-10 Aircraft Handling..................... 7-1 ATA 31 CMC......................................... 31-1
ATA 21 ECS.......................................... 21-1 ATA 32 Landing Gear............................ 32-1
ATA 24 Electrical Power........................ 24-1 ATA 34 PlaneView Overview................. 34-1
ATA 26 Fire Protection.......................... 26-1 ATA 35 Oxygen System........................ 35-1
ATA 27 Flight Controls.......................... 27-1 ATA 36 Bleed Air System...................... 36-1
ATA 28 Fuel System.............................. 28-1 ATA 38 Water and Waste...................... 38-1
FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY iii

ACTIVE INDEX
Section Page Section Page

ATA 49 Auxiliary Power Unit................. 49-1 ATA 77 Indications................................ 77-1
ATA 51-57 Structures............................ 51-1 ATA 78 Engine Exhaust......................... 78-1
ATA 71 Powerplant............................... 71-1 ATA 79 Engine Oil................................. 79-1
ATA 72 Engine....................................... 72-1 ATA 80 Starting..................................... 80-1
ATA 73 Engine Fuel & Control.............. 73-1
ATA 74 Ignition...................................... 74-1
ATA 75 Engine Air................................. 75-1
ATA 76 Engine Control.......................... 76-1
FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY iv

ATA 2 Publications
What is the approved reference (showing aircraft effectivity)

for ordering G500/G550 Aircraft parts?
Gulfstream G500/G550
Rev 0.0 FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY 2-1
G500/G550 Illustrated Parts Catalog (IPC)
Rev 0.0 FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY 2-1A
ATA 6 Aircraft General
How many of the G500/G550 cabin windows may be

removed for emergency egress?
Four
Aft two windows on each side of the cabin
ATA 7-10 Aircraft Handling
Regarding aircraft weighing, precise aircraft weight is

essential in order to accurately calculate what?
Verifying empty weight, determining CG for takeoff and
Landing calculations.
In accordance with Gulfstream Maintenance Manual

recommendations, a minimum of ________ people are
required to safely move an aircraft under tow.
In accordance with Gulfstream Maintenance Manual,
a minimum of 4 people are required to safely move an
aircraft under tow.
Tow team crews will be at minimum 4 personnel, 2

wing walkers/chock walkers, 1 brake rider and 1 tow
supervisor/tug operator.
When towing the G550, if the nose landing gear torque

links are not disconnected and the steering angle exceeds
_________ degrees, serious damage may occur to the
nosewheel steering unit as the hard stops may be sheared.
84°
ATA 21 ECS
What valves are controlled by the Air Conditioning

Controller (ACC)?
Pack Inlet Valves
Low Limit Valves
Trim Air Valves
ATA 21 ECS
The Pack Inlet Valve (PIV) incorporates a solenoid that is

energized to shut off the pack. What is the function of the
PIV torque motor?
Regulates the flow of bleed air
ATA 21 ECS
Selecting what switch/es will close an Air Conditioning

Pack Inlet Valve?
L/R pack switches, Master Start or Crank switches, L/R
Engine Start Switches, RAM Switch.
ATA 21 ECS
What is the purpose of the Ozone Converter?
Change Bleed air ozone to oxygen before entering
packs.
ATA 21 ECS
What is the maximum operating speed of the air cycle

machine (ACM)?
100,000 rpm
ATA 21 ECS
The primary heat exchanger cools pneumatic air from

_________ and the secondary heat exchanger cools
pneumatic air from the _________.
The primary heat exchanger cools pneumatic air from
Engine Bleed Air and the secondary heat exchanger
cools pneumatic air from the Compressor.
ATA 21 ECS
What is the in-flight function of the Fan Plenum bypass

check valve?
Opens to allow most of the ram air to bypass the ACM
fan.
ATA 21 ECS
What is the purpose of the Compressor Bypass Check

Valve?
Allows air to bypass the ACM compressor during initial
start of the pack.
ATA 21 ECS
At what compressor outlet temperature will the Air

Conditioning Controller (ACC) drive the PIV into a minimum
flow condition?
425°F
ATA 21 ECS
What is the purpose of the Reheater and Condenser

Assembly?
Cool the air to condense moisture content for water
extraction, and then reheat the air prior to entering the
ACM turbine.
ATA 21 ECS
At what reheater outlet temperature will the turbine inlet

temperature control valve open?
75°F
ATA 21 ECS
If the input to the turbine inlet temperature sensor is

less than 50°F for two minutes, what EICAS and CMC
messages will be generated?
CAS: Blue “L/R ACS Maint Reqd
CMC: “L/R TURB UNDERTEMP”
ATA 21 ECS
What are the two modes of operation of the Low Limit

Valve?
Maintain minimum pack outlet temperature of 35°F and
condenser de-icing.
ATA 21 ECS
The Air Cycle Machine Turbine Bypass valve will

automatically open when the aircraft climbs above what
altitude?
35,000 Feet
ATA 21 ECS
An amber L or R COOL TURB HOT CAS message is

displayed if pack outlet temperature exceeds what?
160°F
ATA 21 ECS
The Cabin Zones AUTO temperature control is a function of

what controller?
Left Air Conditioning Controller
ATA 21 ECS
When the Air Conditioning Temperature control is selected

to AUTO, the temperature control range via the selector
knobs is between what temperatures?
60°F to 90°F
ATA 21 ECS
The Zone Supply Overheat Thermostat will vent opening

pressure air from what valve?
The Trim Air Valve
ATA 21 ECS
Which valve shuts off the flow of air to the baggage

compartment in the event of a pressure loss or smoke
evacuation valve use?
Baggage Compartment Ventilation Valve
ATA 21 ECS
Cooling air for the BACs and ACCs is provided by which

fan?
Baggage EER Fan
ATA 21 ECS
Which fan’s primary function is to supply cooling air for the

under floor electronic equipment area?
Left PSU Fan
ATA 21 ECS
The G550 Pressurization Control System is designed to

provide a 6000 foot cabin altitude when the aircraft is at
what altitude?
51,000 feet
ATA 21 ECS
The G550 Cabin Pressurization system is controlled by

what type of controller?
Dual Channel automatic micro-processor based
electronic controller.
ATA 21 ECS
When the FAULT light illuminates on the Cabin Pressure

Control Panel, what does this indicate?
Failure of both channels of the Controller
ATA 21 ECS
Pre-pressurization of the aircraft will occur when both the

cabin door and baggage door are closed and_____________
________________.
FLIGHT/LANDING switch to FLIGHT, 9 knots ground
speed or either throttle above 35° TLA.
ATA 21 ECS
Where is the Cabin Pressure Indicator located?
Cockpit Overhead Panel (COP)
ATA 21 ECS
The Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module is a self-contained

microprocessor that receives cabin pressure and static
pressure. Its functions include what?
Provides backup for display, essential warning and
caution messages and will provide comparative input
data between channel 1 and 2.
ATA 24 Electrical Power
What is the primary (in-flight) power system for the G500/

G550 aircraft?
Alternating Current from IDGs
The HMG provides up to ten KVA of 115 VAC to the left

and right Standby AC buses and to the _____________.
AUX TRU
Where can the operator view a graphic representation of

the AC Power System?
On the AC Power Synoptic Page
What is the color of the frequency read out on the AC

synoptic page when frequency is 378 Hz?
Amber
Explain the purpose of the MIL-STD-1553B data buses in

the Sundstrand power system.
Explain what the ARINC 429 communication buses are for.
MIL-STD-1553B - Communication between the GCUs &
BPCUs for NBPT (No Break Power Transfer)
ARINC 429- BPCUs to the MAUs for fault analysis,

synoptic page indications and CMC diagnostics
What does the hydro mechanical transmission inside the

integrated drive generator do?
Converts varying engine gearbox speeds of 4666 to
8438 to a constant speed of 12,000 RPM.
What does the IDG use oil pressure for?
Hydro mechanical work, Lubrication and cooling
The IDG oil scavenge filter differential pressure indicator

(DPI) will pop when ____________.
A differential pressure of 60 psi is reached
Where is the IDG external oil cooler unit located?
Engine bypass duct
What design feature of the IDG prevents over servicing?
Overflow Standpipe and Oil level sight glass
Where is the Left Bus Power Control Unit located?
In the LEER
During normal Engine/IDG operation, what is the Essential

AC bus powered by?
Left main AC Bus
LAC and RAC contactors are located in the left and right
power distribution boxes. They provide connection from
_________ to _____________.
LAC and RAC contactors are located in the left and
right power distribution boxes. They provide connection
from IDGs to Main AC Busses.
What is the purpose of the HP speed probe input to the

generator control unit?
To ensure engine is up to speed before delivering power
Underspeed Protection
Why is it important not to remove or reseat the generator

control unit during engine operation?
PMG voltage of 100 VAC is present at the GCU any time
the engine is running.
What is POR is an acronym for?
Point of Regulation
Where is the permanent magnet generator for the APU

generator system located?
Inside the APU generator
What provides the APU generator control unit with the input
that the APU is on speed?
Ready to Load Relay
Where is the emergency inverter located?
Under the floor between the EERs
With battery power only, what line replaceable units (LRUs)

route DC power to the emergency inverter?
LEIDC or REIDC
What LRU controls the application and protection of

external AC power?
Left BPCU
What is the purpose of the External AC, E-F interlock?
Ensures the power plug is completely plugged in
What does the acronym NBPT stand for?
No Break Power Transfer
What is the purpose of the bus tie switches on the cockpit

overhead panel?
The left and right switches will prevent automatic
source switching by preventing the LAXC and RAXC
from closing.
List the left main AC bus priority logic
Rev 0.0 FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY
24-25
1) L IDG
2) APU Gen.
3) Ext AC Pwr
4) R IDG.
List the frequency reference unit sources in priority order.
1) APU Gen
2) Ext AC Pwr
3) BPCU internal 400 Hz reference
4) GCU internal 400 Hz reference
What are acceptable frequency reference unit parameters?
115 +/- 5 VAC
400 +/- 10 Hz
Phase error less than 15 deg
Which power distribution box contains the essential AC

bus?
L PDB
Name the five transformer rectifier units and list their

location.
1. L ESS TRU – Under floor
2. L Main TRU – Under floor
3. Aux TRU – Under floor
4. R ESS TRU – Under floor
5. R Main TRU – Under floor
A TRU hot message comes on when internal temperature

exceeds how many degrees?
310 degrees F
What is the bus power control unit protection for the

transformer rectifier units?
OV = 32.2VDC, UV = 21VDC, OC = 270 amps
What controls operation of the cross tie contactors?
Opposite Side BPCU
What is the function of LMTAC and how is it controlled?
Control AC input power to L Main TRU – Energized by L
Main TRU switch.
What is the function of ATAC-1 and how is it controlled?
Controls the input power from L or R Main AC Bus to
Aux TRU Controlled by R BPCU.
What is the function of ATAC-2 and where is it located?
Controls whether Aux TRU is powered from ATAC-1 or
the HMG Located in SEP Junction and Relay panel.
List the DC bus priority logic for the essential DC buses?
1) Dedicated ESS TRU
2) Aux TRU
3) Ext DC Pwr
4) Main Batteries
The auxiliary TRU will only power one bus at a time except
when?
During HMG operation using the L/R ESS switches
The main ship batteries are rated at __________________.
24VDC (1.2VDC per cell) 53 Amp Hour, 21 cell
When does the thermostatic switch inside the battery

open?
145°F
Where are battery contactors BC1 and BC2 located?
Aux Power Relay Box
In the Tail Compartment
Activating the external door control switch connects which

battery?
Right Battery
With the battery switches on, what three conditions cause

the battery contractors to energize?
1. APU Start
2. Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump Operation
3. Power the ESS DC Buses
If no higher priority source exists
What is the function of REDBC?
Routes Battery Tie Bus power to the R ESS DC Bus
What controls the position of REDBC?
Power from R BAtt Bus B c/b routed through energized
BC2 and De-energized contacts of both (REDC and
REDXC)
Describe the constant current mode of battery charger

operation?
Constant current output of 38 amps and variable volts
to 32.2VDC.
When the Amperage can no longer be maintained due
to maximum voltage output of 12% overcharge, system
switches to constant voltage mode of 28.75VDC with
varying current of +/- 3 amps.
What causes the transformer rectifier mode of battery

charge operation?
A ground is provided to the Battery Charger through
auxiliary contacts of a closed Battery Contactor
and auxiliary contacts of a closed Battery Charger
Contactor.
The charger will provide 28.75 VDC and 50 Amps

current.
What is the purpose of the light emitting diodes on the front

of the battery charger?
Green LEDs indicate good status for Battery and
Charger.
Goes out when there is a problem with charger or

battery.
What component is responsible for monitoring and

protection of the DC external power circuit?
R BPCU
Which hydraulic system drives the hydraulic motor

generator?
Left system or PTU
What component provides voltage and frequency regulation

for the hydraulic motor generator system and where is it
located
24-50
HMG GCU located under floor
Where are the HMG overload sensors located?
Standby Electrical Power Junction Relay panel
What does the HMG test switch do?
Initiates a BITE test HMG GCU
How many emergency battery packs make up the

emergency power system?
4 Emergency Batteries
2 for Avionics Power and 2 for Emergency Lighting
What buses do the emergency batteries power?
L/R Emergency DC Busses and ESS Flight Instrument
Bus.
What condition would cause the L/R Emergency DC buses

and the Essential Flight Instrument bus to be powered by
the Emergency Batteries?
Emergency Power System armed and less than 20 Volts
sensed from the Essential DC Buses.
When would you pull c/b 1 on the E Batt?
When storing E-Batts
If emergency power is activated, what condition must exist

in order to turn it off?
Need more than 20 VDC sensed from the ESS DC Bus
Where is the 60 Hz frequency converter located?
Tail Compartment
Where are the galley and cabin master switches located?
On the Masters section of the EPCP of the COP
Where are the cabin and galley contactors located?
Cabin AC & DC in LEER – Galley AC in REER, DC in R
PDB
When is the load-shed function of the galley power system

activated?
When down to one AC power source in Flight
What is the purpose of the ground service bus?
Provides DC power to service or clean the aircraft
Where are the three ground service bus switches located?
1. Systems Monitor Test Panel – Front of LEER
2. Fwd External Switch Panel – Left fwd side of aircraft
3. Ground Service Panel in Aft Equipment Compartment
What are the possible power sources for the G550 Ground
Service Bus?
1. Right Main DC Bus
2. External DC Power Cart
3. Right Battery
Which contactor energies to route power to the ground

service bus from the external DC power source?
GSBC 1
With APU or external AC power on the aircraft, what will

power the ground service bus?
24-66
R Main DC Bus
ATA 26 Fire Protection
What areas of the G550 aircraft have fire / overheat

detection capabilities?
Engines, pylons, APU compartment, equipment areas,
Baggage area
When will a “Fire Detection Loop Fault” message be

displayed?
If the fire detection control unit detects a loop failure
(open or short)
What does the Fire Detection Control Unit monitor?
Resistance and Capacitance in the fire sensing
elements
The left fire bottle is capable of supplying fire-extinguishing

agent to ________.
Left/Right Engines and APU
When selecting and discharging shot #1 to the left engine,

which fire bottle agent is discharged?
26-5
Right Bottle shot #1
The red CAS message “AFT EQUIP HOT” indicates _______

________________________.
Overheat condition (250° F) in the tail compartment
When will the fire bottles discharge into the tail

compartment?
Bottle Pressure exceeds 1400 psi
The pressure switch located on the fire bottle will indicate

an amber “L or R FIRE BTL DSCHD” CAS message when
bottle pressure decreases below __________.
200 +/- 25 psi
ATA 27 Flight Controls
With a loss of both the left and right hydraulic systems,

the primary flight controls will revert to what mode of
operation?
Manual Reversion
With “Standby Rudder” selected, which hydraulic system is

totally committed to powering the rudder/yaw damper until
the nose WOW relay is in the GROUND mode?
AUX System
What Hydraulic System(s) provide control (pilot) pressure

for the ground spoilers?
Left, Power Transfer Unit (PTU), and/or Auxiliary
Hydraulic Systems
Which flight controls surfaces are protected by the Gust

Lock system?
Ailerons, Elevators, Rudder
What are the two warning indications of the Stall Warning

System?
Amber Airspeed/AOA Data and Red Airspeed/AOA Data
and Stick Shaker energized
The flight control Hardover Prevention System will depower

the hydraulic system(s) to the appropriate flight control
actuator(s) if a hardover is detected for longer than?
0.2 sec. Elevator
0.5 sec Aileron and Rudder
If the Spoiler Control switch is OFF, will flight spoilers be

available?
No
The flight control surface trim actuators heated to what

temperature?
175°F
There are two devices incorporated into both the flap

actuators and stab actuator. One prevents structural
damage while the other prevents air loads from moving the
flaps or stab. What are these devices called?
Force Limiter, No Back
What prevents damage to the Ground Spoilers and Speed

Brakes from excessive aerodynamic loads?
Spoiler pressure control module
What CAS message, illuminate if the ground spoilers are

not properly stowed, and the throttles are not in the idle
position when the aircraft is on the ground?
GND Spoilers (Red)
The horizontal stabilizer automatically moves in conjunction

with the flaps to compensate for what?
Aerodynamic changes
Why does the G550 flap system not require a mechanical

back-up system?
Dual channel operation
Where is the Flap Control Unit located?
Baggage electronic equipment rack (BEER)
What component(s) of the flap / stab control system

provide surface position information to the MAUs?
Resolvers through the Flap Control Unit (FCU)
How do you control the Stabilizer in the emergency mode

of operation?
Pitch trim (BEEP) switches on the Pilots/Co-Pilots
Control Wheels
ATA 28 Fuel System
What is the total fuel Capacity of the G550 aircraft?
41,300 pounds (6118 U.S. Gallons)
ATA 28 Fuel System
Fuel quantity is measured by _______________ type probes

per wing.
Fuel quantity is measured by 19 capacitance type
probes per wing.
ATA 28 Fuel System
The fuel signal conditioner provides what function in the

fuel system?
Independent left and right fuel quantity processing,
cross comparative low level processing and digital data
bus outputs to CAS and GSCP
ATA 28 Fuel System
What indications are provided at the GSCP in the event a

high level condition is encountered?
The affected side will indicate and flash HI and the
PRESEL line will flash WARNING
ATA 28 Fuel System
The fuel low level sensor located in the hopper will

cause amber “L or R FUEL LOW LEVEL” message to be
generated when the fuel level in the hopper decreases
below _________.
650 pounds (96 U.S. Gallons)
ATA 28 Fuel System
The hoppers are kept full of fuel by the ________.
Fuel ejector pumps
ATA 28 Fuel System
When the ground service control panel displays a flashing

“WARN/IMBAL” message, how many pounds fuel
difference exists between the left and right fuel quantities?
1,000 pounds
ATA 28 Fuel System
The ground service control panel stores _____ faults per

side, then it starts to write over the oldest faults.
The ground service control panel stores 10 faults per
side, then it starts to write over the oldest faults.
ATA 28 Fuel System
What is the total volumetric fuel capacity of the G550?
6118 US Gallons
ATA 29 Hydraulic System
What type of hydraulic lines are installed on the Gulfstream

G550 aircraft?
Stainless Steel, Aluminum, Titanium
When checking the hydraulic reservoir quantities, the

hydraulic systems must be ________________.
Pressurized to 3000 psi
The Left Hydraulic System reservoir has a capacity of 5.7

gallons, but is serviced to what quantity?
4.8
How can an engine driven hydraulic pump be shut down?
Pull the fire handle
With the PTU “ARM/OFF” switch in the “ARM” position, the

Right hydraulic System pressurized, the PTU will activate
automatically if the Left Hydraulic System drops below
what PSI?
1500 psi
Which hydraulic quantity indications are temperature

compensated?
Synoptic page indications
What is the flow rate of the G550 hydraulic pumps?
0-18 GPM at Idle and 0-28 GPM at take-off rate of thrust
The Right Hydraulic System normally powers ____________

_____________________________________________________.
Ailerons, Elevators, Rudder, Stall Barrier, Spoilers, PTU
motor, R T/R
The Left Hydraulic System, through tandem actuators,

assists the Right Hydraulic System in powering the primary
flight controls. What else does the Left Hydraulic System
power?
Flaps, Brakes, Landing gear, NWS, Ground Spoiler
Control Pressure, L T/R, HMG
What component is installed to provide a positive flow of

hydraulic fluid to the Aux Hyd Pump when the left reservoir
is not pressurized?
Aux Suction Boost Pump
Which hydraulic fluids are cooled by the heat exchangers

prior to returning to the reservoir?
Engine Driven Pump Case Drain Fluid
ATA 30 Ice & Rain Protection
What are the primary and secondary purposes of the ice

detection system?
Primary is to sense icing conditions and alert crew.
Secondary is if enabled control automatic cowl and
wing anti-ice systems.
In the AUTO select mode, when is wing and cowl anti-ice

protection inhibited?
Altitude below 1,500 ft AGL after takeoff
On ground and less than 1500 ft AGL after takeoff.
In-flight above 35,000 ft MSL
Where is the automatic anti-icing altitude inhibit relay

located?
347 Panel
When the cowl anti-ice rotary switch (COP) is selected

to the ON position is the cowl anti-ice valve solenoid
energized or de-energized?
De-energized
How long after icing conditions are no longer being

detected will the wing anti-ice system be deactivated in the
AUTO mode?
5 Minutes
The Wing anti-ice circuit of the Bleed Air Controller will

maintain anti-ice temperature at what degree F. during
anti-icing operations?
130°F
Amber wing anti-ice lines displayed on the ECS/PRESS

synoptic page would indicate what condition(s)?
After 2 minutes of operation and temperature less than
100° F or over temperature of 180°F
Where is the wing anti-icing crossover ducting located?
Under the baggage compartment floor
What is the regulating pressure for the cowl anti-ice valves?
25 PSI
What effect would a loss of muscle air pressure or 28 VDC

control power have on the cowl anti-ice valve?
Valve would spring load to the open position regardless
of switch position
When the cowl anti-ice system is in the ON or AUTO mode

and the valve fails to open within _____ seconds what is the
message displayed on the CAS?
15 seconds
AMBER Cowl Valve Fail Closed, L-R
What are the power sources for the Upper Left and Lower
Right Pitot-Static Probes?
Left and Right Standby AC buses
When are the total air temp (TAT) probes normally

powered?
Upper and lower probe heat switches selected on and
weight of wheels and CWOW in Air mode
What anti-ice system components are monitored by the

triple channel monitors?
Pitot Static Probe heaters and TAT probe heaters
What two conditions will cause an amber AOA PROBE 1-2

FL Message to appear on the EICAS?
Loss of heating power to the probe
Loss or ARINC 429 data bus
Which buses power the windshield blower fan and nozzle

actuator?
Blower Fan (L Main AC Bus)
Nozzle Actuator (L Main DC Bus)
What faults will illuminate the red LEDs on the windshield

heat control units?
Film Range Fault
Command Error
Sensor Error
Over Temperature
What non-critical conditions will cause the windshield

power - on light to flash at a 3-Hz rate for 90 seconds?
Window Film resistance above normal tolerance range
P-static protection circuit damage detected
Single Sensor failure of the non-selected sensor
How are the cabin window heat control relays normally

enabled?
Cabin window heat switch selected on and weight off
wheels
Cabin window heat should never be operated on the

ground for longer than?
10 Minutes
ATA 31 CMC
What is the purpose of the CMC?
Fault precessing
Aircraft Condition Monitoring Function
Trend Monitoring
ATA 31 CMC
Where is the CMC module located?
In the Left Electronic Equipment Rack (LEER), MAU #1
slot 11
ATA 31 CMC
Which emergency battery is used for CMC shut down

power?
The Left Emergency Battery
ATA 31 CMC
Where can CMC information be viewed by maintenance

and how is it manipulated?
Viewed on a 2/3 Synoptic page, manipulatied with the
CCD, or on the remote terminal fucntion of the Mx
Laptop
ATA 31 CMC
Where and what does the technician connect the laptop to

for CMC data transfer?
Systems monitor test panel on the REER, using one of
two ethernet ports
ATA 31 CMC
Where is the FDR/CMC event record switch located?
Cockpit overhead panel (COP)
ATA 31 CMC
What message is displayed when the Fault History Data

Base (FHDB) memory becomes 90 percent full?
Blue CAS message
Check CMC
ATA 31 CMC
What menu must be selected to view system parameter

pages?
System Diagnostics Menu.
ATA 31 CMC
What CMC functions are available in flight?
Active Maintenance Messages, Stored Maintenance
Messages, Reports
ATA 31 CMC
From which bus does the CMC collect data?
Virtual Backplane Peripheral Control Interface in the
MAU
ATA 31 CMC
What does the acronym “FDE” mean?
Flight Deck Effect
which refers to CAS messages
ATA 31 CMC
The Aircraft Condition Monitoring Function has the ability to

record as much as __________ before and __________ after
the trigger expression becomes true.
The Aircraft Condition Monitoring Function has the
ability to record as much as 100 Seconds before and
100 Seconds after the trigger expression becomes true.
ATA 32 Landing Gear
What type of hydraulic fluid is used in the G550 Landing

Gear Struts?
MIL-H-5606
ATA 32 Landing Gear
Where is the landing gear selector dump valve located?
Main landing gear wheel well. (On the torque box)
ATA 32 Landing Gear
With the landing gear handle down, will the red light in the
handle be illuminated if the gear are down with the gear
doors open?
NO
ATA 32 Landing Gear
What are the four modes of operation provided by the

Antiskid brake system?
Anti skid, Locked wheel, Touchdown/Hydroplane, Gear
retract (Despin)
ATA 32 Landing Gear
What is located between the pilots’ brake metering valves

and the antiskid control valves that amplifies the hydraulic
signal to the antiskid control valves?
Augmenter valve
ATA 32 Landing Gear
What mode of Antiskid operation prevents the brakes from

being applied during landing?
Touchdown / Hydroplane
ATA 32 Landing Gear
The steering limitation for the G550 is 80°. If this limit is

exceeded, how will the mechanic or pilot know?
Over travel indicator will extend
ATA 32 Landing Gear
When the ECM detects a failure other than the RVDTs, it

shuts down active steering by de-energizing SOV#1 and
SOV#2. If this happens how is steering accomplished?
Differential braking
ATA 32 Landing Gear
An amber “WOW FAULT” message requires the pilots to

pull the LEFT and RIGHT WOW circuit breakers due to the
fact that the WOW relays have failed in the ground mode. If
the circuit breakers are not pulled, what may inadvertently
deploy in flight?
Thrust reversers
Ground spoilers
ATA 32 Landing Gear
What three ways are the landing gear mechanical down-

lock mechanisms held in the locked position when the gear
is down?
Gear Pins
Hydraulic pressure
Spring pressure
ATA 32 Landing Gear
Emergency Extend blow-down bottles located in the Nose

Wheel Well are serviced to what pressure?
3100 +/- 50 psi at 70°F
ATA 34 PlaneView Overview
How many Modular Avionics Units (MAUs) are installed on

the G500/G550 aircraft and where are they located?
MAU #1 in the LEER
MAU #2 in the REER
MAU #3 in the LEER
What platform is the PlaneView avionics system based on?
Honeywell PRIMUS EPIC
Which version ASCB does the Primus EPIC system use?
ASCB Ver D
GPS module #1 is located where?
MAU #3
AGM #1 is located where?
MAU #3
Each power supply module receives how many inputs?
2
The ______ modules in MAUs ___ and ____ are the modules
that synchronize the ASCB.
TNIC
1 and 2
Graphics generation processing occurs in the___________.
Advanced Graphics Module (AGM)
Which switch(s) control the AGMs Advanced Graphics

Modules?
Display system switches on the Display Switching
Panel located on the COP.
What does CCD Stand for?
Cursor Control Device
The DUs are ______ inch diagonal LCDs.
14.1 Inch
The monitor and warning functions reside in ______ and

______.
The monitor and warning functions reside in TNIC 1 in
MAU 1 and TNIC 4 in MAU 2.
Where is the FMS software function located?
FMS 1 on processor #2 in MAU 1
Where are the air data modules located?
In the nose radome behind the bird strike panels
What components provide heading, pitch and roll

information to the Plane View system??
Inertial Reference Units
What is the range of the RAD ALT system?
-20 to 2500 ft
What does the acronym “MRC” stands for?
Modular Radio Cabinets
Where are the Modular Radio Cabinets located?
MRC 1 is located in LEER and MRC 2 is located in the
REER
ATA 35 Oxygen System
What is the G550 crew or passenger oxygen system

serviced to at 70ºF?
1850 PSI.
The pressure regulator and shutoff valve maintains cylinder

pressure at the low pressure module within what range?
55 to 90 PSI
Low-pressure relief is provided when supply line pressure

exceeds what psi?
90 PSI.
The cockpit oxygen control panel crew bottle pressure

indication is powered from what bus?
Left essential DC Bus
ATA 36 Bleed Air System
How can the G550 Bleed Air Manifold be pressurized?
Aircraft engines, APU or external air
The functions of the left and right engine bleed air selector
switches are?
Control of the selected bleed air pressure regulator
valve, On-Off command of the bleed air controller,
On-Off switch position to the on-side MAU
Selection of the APU bleed air selector switch to the ON

position applies power to what component to open the
APU air valve, if the weight on wheels interface is in the
GROUND mode?
#1 MAU
What valves are controlled by the on side Bleed Air/Wing

Anti-Ice Controller (BAC/WAI)?
High Stage Valve
Fan Air Valve
Wing Anti-Ice Control Valve
Bleed Air from the BRR 710 Engines for the ECS Bleed Air
Manifold is taken from what stage/s?
5th and 8th stages of the HP compressor
If bleed air manifold pressure decrease below what

minimum psi, the high stage valve will open to provide
required manifold pressure?
14+/-2 psi
Where is the Bleed Air Pressure Regulator/Shutoff Valve

Located?
On the engine Bleed Air Manifold duct downstream of
the 5th and 8th stage bleeds
At low power settings, on the ground and for descent,

VMIN, and hold operation at a predetermined trip point
the Bleed Air Controller (BAC) resets high stage (HP8)
regulation to maintain a minimum bleed air manifold
pressure of?
22 PSI
What is the minimum bleed air manifold pressure

maintained by the BAC during single air conditioning pack
operation?
35 PSI
Which Valve is a spring loaded closed valve that regulates

Bleed Air Manifold pressure to 40.5 +/- 3.5 PSI?
Bleed air pressure regulating and shutoff valve
What is the function of the Mid-Stage Check?
Prevents reverse flow into the 5th stage bleed port
when the 8th stage valve is open
Bleed Air Manifold Temperatures are measured where?
Precooler inlet and outlet
At what temperatures will the L-R Bleed Hot (Amber)

message come on?
765° +/- 10°F precooler inlet
550°F +/- precooler outlet
The left and right bleed air pressure sensors (transducers)

are located where?
In the tail compartment
When does the “L-R BLEED PRESS HI” (Amber) message

come on?
75 psi or higher
The bleed air manifold temperature is controlled to 400° F

when all systems are operating normally. If only one engine
bleed air system is supplying the bleed air manifold and
Wing Anti-Icing is turned on, the bleed air temperature in
the manifold is controlled to what temperature?
500° +/- 10°F
Where are the precooler inlet temperature sensors located?
The engine bleed air supply duct just prior to the pylon
The isolation valve is a spring loaded closed, pressurized

open, solenoid controlled valve that is electrically energized
by __________________________.
APU air switch with WOW, Engine Master Start or Crank
switch, Isolation Valve switch
Which manifold is the APU check valve located in and what

is its function?
Right manifold, opens to allow airflow from APU LCV
to the right manifold and closes to Prevent reverse
airflow when high stage valve is open and closes to
prevent reverse airflow when the engine or external air
is provided.
The Bleed-Air Augmentation Valve (BAAV) is energized

open by what component and at what altitude?
APU ECU at or above 35,000 Ft
If both the engine bleed air switches are selected on and

the isolation valve is in the open position what will be the
result?
AMBER Bleed Configuration
Bleed-air manifold pressure is displayed on what synoptic

page/s?
ECS/PRESS, APU Bleed, Engine Start, Summary
What cockpit indications are displayed when the Isolation

valve is in the open position?
Isolation Valve switch light, Valve open indication on
ECS/PRESS Synoptic, Blue Isolation Valve Open CAS
message
What are the components of the bleed-air temperature

regulation system?
Fan Air Ports, Precooler heat exchangers, Engine fan-air
modulation valves, servo pressure regulators, Precooler
outlet temp sensors
To modulate the fan-air valve, the Bleed Air Controller

(BAC) applies a Milliampere current between what range to
the valve’s torque motor?
0-100 mA
The fan air valve servo pressure regulator is calibrated to

what psi, with relief set at what psi?
16 +/- 1 psi, relief set at 25 +/- 1 psi
ATA 38 Water and Waste
When performing an external fill of the water tank how is

the Fill Overflow Valve (V1) positioned?
By pulling the fill handle in the Potable Water Service
Panel
Cleaning of the waste tank Delta P Level sensor, is not

authorized as damage could occur to the ____________.
Sensor
When using cubed or crushed ice to clean the waste toilet

lines, what is the maximum recommended size of ice to
use?
½ inch in diameter
A solenoid valve is installed to shut off water in the aft

lavatory and is energized open by a mat switch under the
carpet. The forward lavatory solenoid is energized open by
a switch located in the ________________.
Fold up Sink
The water system compressor will pressurize the potable

water tank to _____ psig to _____ psig. The potable water
tank relief valve will open at _________ psig.
The water system compressor will pressurize the
potable water tank to 35 psig to 43 psig. The potable
water tank relief valve will open at 55 psig.
ATA 49 Auxiliary Power Unit
What is the starting envelope of the G550 Auxiliary Power

Unit?
Below sea level to 43,000 feet
At what speed will the Auxiliary Power Unit shutdown due

to overspeed?
106% (48,321 RPM)
What services will the APU provide on the ground and

in-flight?
Electrical power on ground and in flight, Main engine
starting on ground and in flight, Environmental Control
System air on ground and in flight up to 1500 AGL
What are the two modes of operation for the auxiliary

power unit?
Essential and Non-Essential
Where is the auxiliary power unit air inlet door?
Upper fuselage above the APU and left of the V-fin
How far is the Auxiliary Power Unit air inlet door open on
the ground?
100%
What is the oil cooler inlet duct made of?
Composite
What will happen if the Auxiliary Power Unit is started

above 35,000 feet?
When start is selected BAAV opens 15 seconds prior to
starter engagement, closes at 99% RPM. Door position
is controlled by ECU.
Where does the fuel supply for the Auxiliary Power Unit
come from?
Left fuel hopper through the hopper ejector pump
motive flow line.
What is the purpose of the fuel flow divider?
To schedule fuel to the secondary fuel nozzles
Is there any cockpit indication of a low-pressure fuel filter

bypass?
NO
What is the purpose of the deprime solenoid and when

does it operate?
Allows gearbox air to enter the pressure pump to
reduce starter motor drag, @ oil temp <-6.6 degrees C,
also at shutdown from 60%-5%
Is there any cockpit indication of an Auxiliary Power Unit oil

filter bypass?
Blue “APU MAINT REQUIRED” and “CHECK CMC”
At what psi does the Auxiliary Power Unit oil filter bypass?
Impending at 35+/- 5, actual at 75+/-25
What does the Auxiliary Power Unit pneumatic system

provide?
MES on ground and in flight, ECS on ground and inflight
up to 1500 AGL
What switch controls the Auxiliary Power Unit bleed air

availability in flight?
ECU and the Master Start Switch
What is the function of the Auxiliary Power Unit Surge

Control Valve?
Opens above 16,375 feet to unload the compressor and
reduce APU surge potential
What is the Auxiliary Power Unit starter duty cycle when

starting APU with battery power?
3 consecutive attempts, then 1 hour cool down after
the third attempt
At what % rpm does the Auxiliary Power Unit Starter Drop

Out occur when the Auxiliary Power Unit is operated on the
ground?
46%
What are the two Auxiliary Power Unit ignition cycles?
Burst 6 Sparks per second
Maintenance 2 Sparks per second
What is the location and function of the P2 and T2 sensors?
P2 = Inlet plenum pressure to schedule BAAV, FUEL,
SURGE VALVE
T2 = Inlet plenum temp. schedule fuel to maintain 100%
If both channels of the APU monopole fail (loss of speed)

will the APU continue to run?
The APU will shutdown regardless of operational mode
When does the Auxiliary Power Unit hour meter start

tracking hours?
95% Speed
What is the only red CAS message associated with the

auxiliary power unit?
Red “APU FIRE”
When is the Auxiliary Power Unit operating in the Essential

mode?
The APU Master switch is selected on with acft in air
mode. Also the APU stays in essential mode for 15
minutes after landing.
If the APU was in operation during landing how long will it

stay in the essential mode?
15 Minutes
Will the auxiliary power unit shut down due to high oil temp
in the essential mode?
No
During cool down, when is the auxiliary power unit air inlet
door commanded closed?
40% RPM
What happens when the Auxiliary Power Unit issues a

protective shut down?
Normal cool down schedules are bypassed and APU
shuts down immediately
ATA 51-57 Structures
A pressure reducing valve in the main door hydraulic

system drops the pressure from 3000 psi to 2300 psi for
what purpose?
Control rate of closure
What is the purpose of the MED secondary locking handle?
Lock the primary handle in the open or closed position
What component regulates how quickly the main entry door

free falls to the open position?
Restrictor
ATA 71 Powerplant
What is the full designation for the engines that are on the
Gulfstream G550?
Rolls-Royce Deutschland BR700-710C4-11
ATA 71 Powerplant
What is the minimum guaranteed thrust rating for the

BR710?
15,385 pounds at ISA +20C (95°F)
ATA 71 Powerplant
What is the BR710’s bypass ratio?
4.0:1
ATA 71 Powerplant
What comprises the LP section of the BR710 engine?
LP fan driven by a two stage turbine
ATA 71 Powerplant
What comprises the HP section of the BR710 engine?
Ten stage HP compressor driven by a two stage turbine
ATA 71 Powerplant
How many pressure blowout doors are there on the engine

cowling?
Two per cowling
ATA 71 Powerplant
What is the purpose of the engine cowling pre-impregnated

copper mesh outer lamination?
HIRF Protection
High Intensity Radiated Field
i.e. lightning strikes
ATA 71 Powerplant
What does the fixed cowl support?
Cowl doors and continues the nacelle shape for upper
and lower cowl doors
ATA 71 Powerplant
How are the upper and lower cowling doors opened?
Latches sequenced outside to inside
ATA 71 Powerplant
How much weight can the lower cowling door support?
450 lbs
ATA 71 Powerplant
What is the purpose of the thrust strut?
Transfers engine loads from front mount to the airframe
ATA 71 Powerplant
Can any of the engine mounts be borescoped?
Thrust and Jury Struts and both rear mounts every 192
months
ATA 71 Powerplant
With the engine installed on the aircraft how many

accessible borescope ports are there?
10
ATA 72 Engine
Identify the bearing chambers on the BR710 engine?
Forward and Rear
ATA 72 Engine
What are the 5 bearing assemblies on the BR710 engine

what do they support?
Ball – front of the fan stub shaft
Roller – front of the LP shaft
Ball – front of the HP shaft
Roller – back of the HP shaft
Roller – back of the LP shaft
ATA 72 Engine
What prevents blade rattle when the fan rotates in the

wind?
A hard rubber chock mounted to the bottom of each fan
blade
ATA 72 Engine
What is the purpose of the Annulus Fillers?
Reduce Aerodynamic drag around the fan
ATA 72 Engine
What is the function of the Fan Safety Shaft?
Prevents fan separation by sensing an impending LP
shaft failure
ATA 72 Engine
The HP compressor module contains how many stages of

compressor?
10
ATA 72 Engine
What module are the TGT thermocouples and the overheat

detectors located?
Module #41 Inside the LP Turbine NGVs and bolted to
the outer case
ATA 72 Engine
The LP shaft breakage mechanism provides what

protection?
Works in concert with the fan safety shaft to prevent
engine destruction by securing the engine prior to a LP
shaft failure
ATA 72 Engine
How is the spinner de-iced?
Passively, by flexing of the rubber tip
ATA 72 Engine
The Engine Core Fairing panels provide?
Smooth fan discharge airflow around the engine core
ATA 73 Engine Fuel & Control
The heart of the FADEC engine control system is the _____

and it is located in a __________ on the _____________ of
the engine?
The heart of the FADEC engine control system is the
EEC and it is located in a Close Fitting Firebox on the
Bypass Duct on top of the engine?
The EEC operates on command and information signals

from the airframe via what digital bus?
ARINC 429
The EEC provides engine information to two DGIOs located

in MAU number_____, slot______, and MAU number _____,
slot ______
The EEC provides engine information to two DGIOs
located in MAU number 1, slot 9 & 10, and MAU number
2, slot 7 & 8.
What input do the Air Data Modules provide to the EECs?
ADM#1 provides air data to the L/H EEC Channel A and
B and R/H EEC Channel B via MAU #1
ADM#2 provides air data to the R/H EEC Channel A and
B and L/H EEC Channel B via MAU #2
ADM #3 provides air data to both L/H and R/H EECs
Channel A via MAU #3
What purpose do LVDTs and RVDTs serve in the FADEC?
To indicate precise intermediate positioning over the
system’s normal operating range
The Electronic Controller consists of two channels (A & B)

each containing which three components?
1. CPU
2. PSU
3. IOP
The T30 input to the EEC is for _________.
Detection of high moisture content during inclement
weather to turn on auto ignition
What is the function of the (PSU) Power Supply Unit

located in each channel of the EEC?
To power the EEC from either the DG or aircraft power
The Dedicated Generator is located _____________________

and provides power to the EEC anytime engine speed is
above ___________.
The Dedicated Generator is located on the right front of
the Accessory Gearbox and provides power to the EEC
anytime engine speed is above 35% HP.
Engine control is alternated between channels. If Channel A

is controlling the engine, what is Channel B doing?
Doing everything that channel A is but just not
connected to the output
What triggers channel change command?
Engine shutdown-fuel switch
What has to occur within the EEC in order for an IOP

shutdown to take place?
Both channels have to agree that an overspeed
condition exists
Where is the Data Entry Plug (DEP) located and what

does it provide?
The DEP is connected to the EEC and tethered to the
engine. It provides TGT & EPR trimming and engine
rating information to the EEC.
What is the primary control mode during normal engine

operation?
EPR
The EEC may initiate a “SOFT” reversion to alternate

control if _____________.
The EEC may initiate a “SOFT” reversion to alternate
control if the EEC cannot accurately calculate EPR.
When the EEC is controlling the engine in the alternate

control mode, what is it using for a reference to control the
engine?
N1
What are the two idle settings and speeds?
1. Low idle = 64 TO 85% HP RPM
2. High idle = 70 TO 85% HP RPM
What does the engine driven fuel pump contain?
LP Pump, HP Pump, and ports for supply and return
The LP pump is responsible for delivering fuel to the Fuel

Cooled Oil Cooler and it also provides a motive flow for the
_________.
Drains Tank
The LP Fuel Filter is physically mounted on the back of

_____________.
FCOC
The LP filter differential pressure switch monitors the

LP fuel filter and operates at a differential pressure of
____________.
5 PSID
The low-pressure fuel switch initiates a blue L/R ENGINE

FUEL PRESSURE message when the fuel pressure drops to
_____________.
55 PSIG
Fuel metering unit also supplies servo pressure for

_____________.
VSV Actuator
The heated fuel return system consists of how may valves

and where are they located?
HFRS control valve located at the 7:00 position on the
bypass duct & HFRS backup valve located in the fwd
section of the pylon
The Fuel Flow Transmitter is located in what section of the

engine fuel system.
HP Section
The overspeed and splitter unit performs what two

function?
A. Splits fuel into upper and lower flows
B. Shuts down F/F if LP shaft breakage mechanically
actuates
The drains tank will hold enough fuel for how many aborted
starts?
2 aborted starts
HFRS directs a portion of engine spill fuel into the wing

tanks at what fuel tank temperature?
On below 0 deg C, off at 10 deg C
The FMU meters fuel by controlling the opening of the fuel-

metering valve, which is controlled by a _____________.
WF command calculator inside the EEC
When should the crew select the fuel control switch to the
RUN position during an engine start?
Positive LP Rotation
How many fuel nozzles are there in the annular combustor

and how are they numbered?
20 with # 1 at 12:00 position numbered clockwise
ATA 74 Ignition
Each engine has how many ignition systems and how are
they controlled?
Two
Automatic by the EEC or manually by using the
Continuous Ignition switch on the center pedestal.
ATA 74 Ignition
Name the five engine ignition operational modes.
Autostart
Continuous Ignition
Alternate Start
Inclement weather
Auto-relight
ATA 74 Ignition
Where are the ignition igniter plugs located?
Adjacent to the #8 and #12 fuel nozzles
ATA 74 Ignition
What are two ways the ignition exciter boxes can be

energized?
EEC or by depressing continuous ignition switch
ATA 74 Ignition
Are the igniter leads inter-changeable?
No
ATA 74 Ignition
What does the master start switch initiate?
EEC controlled Autostart mode
ATA 74 Ignition
In the auto-start mode, how many igniters are firing?
One
ATA 74 Ignition
What provides the indication that the ignition system is

active?
Green IGN message on the engine synoptic page
ATA 74 Ignition
For consecutive ground starts, how does the EEC alternate

the channels and igniters?
EEC A – igniter 1
EEC B – igniter 1
EEC A – igniter 2
EEC B – igniter 2
ATA 74 Ignition
What initiates ignition during the inclement weather mode?
T30 Probe detects a temp drop in the HP compressor
ATA 74 Ignition
What causes auto relight to be initiated?
HP, LP, or TGT Abnormality
ATA 75 Engine Air
What does the engine ventilation system divide the engine

into?
Two sections-
Zone 1: Under the engine cowling
Zone 2: Under the engine core fairings
ATA 75 Engine Air
What is the function of the buffer air valve and how is it

actuated?
Provide HP4 air to the forward bearing chamber during
low speed engine operation and is controlled by the
variable stator vane actuator linkage.
ATA 75 Engine Air
For cooling and sealing of the rear bearing chamber the

BR710 uses ____________________________________.
HP4 for sealing and HP6 for intershaft sealing and
cooling of the RBC
ATA 75 Engine Air
What CAS message does the turbine overheat and oil fire
detector provide?
Red “Engine HOT” CAS message
ATA 75 Engine Air
What is the “ENGINE HOT” EICAS message an indication

of?
Excessive temperature in or around the rear bearing
chamber or an EEC overheat.
ATA 75 Engine Air
What stages of the compressor are controlled by the VSV

system?
Variable Inlet Guide Vanes and the first three stages of
variable stator vanes.
ATA 75 Engine Air
What engine parameters are used when the EEC controls

the Bleed Valve system?
N2 and T26 (T20 and N1), P30
ATA 75 Engine Air
What engine parameters are used when the EEC controls

the variable stator vane system?
N2 and T26 (T20 and N1), P30
ATA 75 Engine Air
Bleed valve solenoid block is controlled by __________.
EEC
ATA 75 Engine Air
HP10, also known as P30, functions to control

_______________.
Servo air pressure to control four bleed valves.
ATA 75 Engine Air
How many Bleed Valves are there and where are the
located?
Three 5th stage and one 8th stage mounted in the
compressor case.
ATA 75 Engine Air
The VSV actuator is actuated by _________ supplied by an

__________ valve controlled by electrical signals from the
_______.
The VSV actuator is actuated by Fuel pressure supplied
by an EHSV valve controlled by electrical signals from
the EEC.
ATA 75 Engine Air
The engine 5th and 8th stage Bleed Valves are spring
loaded _________.
Open
ATA 76 Engine Control
Maximum Reverse Thrust is controlled to approximately

_______ % LP.
70% (for 30 seconds max)
The gust lock provides what throttle restriction?
Restricts power lever movement to 6% above ground
idle.
The throttle RVDTs provide what reference to the EECs?
Produces a signal proportional to throttle displacement
To what does movement of the fuel control switch provide

input signals?
To both channels A & B of the EEC and to the COSS of
the FMU
With the engine synchronization activated a trim signal

is supplied to the EEC to provide a trimming function of
__________.
+/- 5%
Auto-throttle inputs to the EEC are provided through

__________.
RVDTs
ATA 77 Indications
What are the engine indicating display formats are available

in the G550?
Primary, Secondary, Alternate, Compacted, and Engine
Starting. All are in 1/6th format.
ATA 77 Indications
With AC power applied, what is the normal default location

of the Crew Alerting System display?
DU #3 upper 1/6th
ATA 77 Indications
The EEC uses ______________________ to calculate EPR.
P20 and P50 information
ATA 77 Indications
Where and how is P50 measured?
P50 is captured by 4 rakes at the 2, 4, 8 and 10 o’clock
positions, located on the outlet Guide Vanes just aft of
the #2 LP Turbine
ATA 77 Indications
How many TGT probes are there and where are they
located?
7
They are located inside the LP Turbine nozzle guide
vanes
ATA 77 Indications
What happens to the TGT indication in an amber or red

operational range?
Analog pointer expands & changes color to match the
exceedance color. Digital display also matches the
exceedance color.
ATA 77 Indications
Where are the N1 speed probes mounted?
Inside the forward bearing chamber and they are not
line replaceable
ATA 77 Indications
During thrust reverser operations, what is displayed inside

the LP indication?
REV indication for the TRs to indicate status and
position
ATA 77 Indications
Where are the N2 speed Probes located?
Mounted on the AGB by the air turbine stater
ATA 77 Indications
If a N1 or N2 speed probe (1) fails can the aircraft be

dispatched?
Address the MMEL, AMM then swap cannon plugs for
N1 or N2
ATA 77 Indications
Where is the fuel flow transmitter located?
3 o’clock position on the bypass duct
ATA 77 Indications
What happens to the Fuel Flow indication when the FIRE

handle is pulled?
The digital display is crosshatched out
ATA 77 Indications
How is engine oil pressure measured?
As a differential pressure across the rear bearing
chamber
ATA 77 Indications
Where are the engine oil temperature probes located?
One on the front and one on the aft side of the AGB
near the oil tank
ATA 77 Indications
The engine vibration monitoring system provides a means

to______________________________.
Monitor the vibration of the rotating assemblies, LP and
HP
ATA 77 Indications
The EVM digital indication will turn amber at _______.
0.80 IPS
ATA 78 Engine Exhaust
What function does the isolation control unit perform?
Provides HYD pressure to the door actuators for
stowing and overstowing of the doors.
What is the purpose of the Isolation Control Unit manual

inhibit lever?
Holds the isolation valve closed to prevent HYD fluid
from entering the reverser for deployment and stowing.
The Directional Control Unit directs Hydraulic Fluid to which

components?
Door and primary lock actuators.
Primary lock actuators are _____________ actuated.
Primary lock actuators are hydraulically actuated.
Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the thrust

reversers?
Left system = Left T/R, Right system = Right T/R.
What is the purpose of the tertiary locks and how are the
tertiary locks activated?
(Third lock) Prevents inadvertent deployment if the
primary should fail. The solenoid releases the fork as a
result of the thrust reverser lever movement to deploy.
How many stow switches are there per thrust reverser

assembly and where are they located?
4 Total, 2 Stow switches per door at 3 and 9 positions.
What function do the thrust reverser Linear Variable

Transformers (LVTs) provide?
They provide a feedback signal to the EEC for door
position.
What function does the maintenance test enable switch

provide?
Allows the T/Rs to be deployed without the engine
operating 30 second time limit.
What indication is provided for a thrust reverser that is in

transient and where is it displayed?
White “REV” light will appear in the middle of the LP
indicator.
“TR SW MISCOMP” CAS Message means?
(Blue message)
A miscompare between stow switches and the tertiary
locks when compared to the T/R levers.
What conditions have to be met prior to thrust reverser

deployment?
Throttles fully retarded, WOW or WSU signal.
Why do the thrust reverser doors have to be overstowed

prior to deployment?
To clear the Primary Locks.
What function does manual restow provide?
To stow the doors if uncommanded deployment occurs
Which thrust reverser components are energized when

manual restow is selected?
Energizes the ICU to stow doors and a relay to take
power away from the DCU.
ATA 79 Engine Oil
Which areas of the engine are lubricated by the oil system?
Core bearings and Accessory Gear Box (AGB)
ATA 79 Engine Oil
What does the oil pump unit include?
1 pressure, 4 scavenge vane type elements.
ATA 79 Engine Oil
What do the magnetic chip detectors sense?
MCDs monitor internal condition of the oil wetted
components.
ATA 79 Engine Oil
The oil filter DPI button is located _____________________

and pops at _________ psid.
The oil filter DPI button is located on bottom of the oil
filter housing and pops at 50 psid.
ATA 79 Engine Oil
The oil filter differential switch provides an indication of

________ blockage and provides a amber _____________
message at _________ psid.
The oil filter differential switch provides an indication of
impending blockage and provides a amber L or R ENG
MAINT message at 18+/-2 psid.
ATA 79 Engine Oil
What does the fuel cooled oil cooler provide?
Heat exchange between oil/fuel to provide cooled oil
and heated fuel.
ATA 79 Engine Oil
Oil pressure transducers sense _________ pressure across

the _____ bearing chamber.
Oil pressure transducers sense differential pressure
across the rear bearing chamber.
ATA 79 Engine Oil
Oil temperature is sensed in ____________________________

lines.
Oil temperature is sensed in Combined Scavenge
Return lines.
ATA 79 Engine Oil
The minimum oil pressure for engine operation is

____________.
Red Line = 25 PSID
ATA 79 Engine Oil
The minimum oil temperature for engine start

is____________.
-30 Deg C
ATA 79 Engine Oil
Oil quantity must be checked within ______ minutes of

engine shut down.
5-30 minutes
ATA 79 Engine Oil
Where is oil quantity information displayed?
Ground service 1/6th synoptic page and the remote oil
servicing panel in the tail compartment.
ATA 80 Starting
The starter air valve is normally controlled by _____________

______________________________.
EEC after selection or the Master Start of Master Crank
switch.
ATA 80 Starting
The starter air valve is ________ controlled and

______________.
The starter air valve is solenoid controlled and
pneumatically actuated.
ATA 80 Starting
The blue “SVO” icon is an indication that the

___________________.
The blue “SVO” icon is an indication that the Start Valve
is Open.
ATA 80 Starting
The air turbine starter has the capability of motoring the

engine through the ________ gearbox up to ______% N2
RPM.
The air turbine starter has the capability of motoring the
engine through the accessory gearbox up to 28% N2
RPM.
ATA 80 Starting
The Master Start or Master Crank switches provide input to

the _______.
EEC
ATA 80 Starting
What happens if the Master Start and Master Crank

Switches are depressed together?
Start Switch configuration on the CAS
ATA 80 Starting
What is the Starter Duty Cycle?
3 start or cranks for 3 minutes each, 15 seconds
between each start or crank and 15 minutes after the
3rd start or crank
ATA 80 Starting
At what RPM does starter cutout normally occur?
47% HP
ATA 80 Starting
What indication is provided for a start valve that is open

when it has been commanded closed?
Flashing amber ‘SVO” light on Engine Synoptic

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Gulfstream

MAINTENANCE QUIZ CAR­­DS

TOTAL NUMBER OF CARDS IN THIS SET IS 404

*Zero in this column indicates an original card.

FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY ii

Section Page Section Page

FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY iii

Section Page Section Page

FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY iv

What is the approved reference (showing aircraft effectivity)

How many of the G500/G550 cabin windows may be

Regarding aircraft weighing, precise aircraft weight is

In accordance with Gulfstream Maintenance Manual

Tow team crews will be at minimum 4 personnel, 2

When towing the G550, if the nose landing gear torque

What valves are controlled by the Air Conditioning

The Pack Inlet Valve (PIV) incorporates a solenoid that is

Selecting what switch/es will close an Air Conditioning

What is the purpose of the Ozone Converter?

What is the maximum operating speed of the air cycle

The primary heat exchanger cools pneumatic air from

What is the in-flight function of the Fan Plenum bypass

What is the purpose of the Compressor Bypass Check

At what compressor outlet temperature will the Air

What is the purpose of the Reheater and Condenser

At what reheater outlet temperature will the turbine inlet

If the input to the turbine inlet temperature sensor is

What are the two modes of operation of the Low Limit

The Air Cycle Machine Turbine Bypass valve will

An amber L or R COOL TURB HOT CAS message is

The Cabin Zones AUTO temperature control is a function of

When the Air Conditioning Temperature control is selected

The Zone Supply Overheat Thermostat will vent opening

Which valve shuts off the flow of air to the baggage

Cooling air for the BACs and ACCs is provided by which

Which fan’s primary function is to supply cooling air for the

The G550 Pressurization Control System is designed to

The G550 Cabin Pressurization system is controlled by

When the FAULT light illuminates on the Cabin Pressure

Pre-pressurization of the aircraft will occur when both the

Where is the Cabin Pressure Indicator located?

The Cabin Pressure Acquisition Module is a self-contained

What is the primary (in-flight) power system for the G500/

The HMG provides up to ten KVA of 115 VAC to the left

Where can the operator view a graphic representation of

What is the color of the frequency read out on the AC

Explain the purpose of the MIL-STD-1553B data buses in

Explain what the ARINC 429 communication buses are for.

ARINC 429- BPCUs to the MAUs for fault analysis,

What does the hydro mechanical transmission inside the

What does the IDG use oil pressure for?

The IDG oil scavenge filter differential pressure indicator

Where is the IDG external oil cooler unit located?

What design feature of the IDG prevents over servicing?

Where is the Left Bus Power Control Unit located?

During normal Engine/IDG operation, what is the Essential

What is the purpose of the HP speed probe input to the

Why is it important not to remove or reseat the generator

MAINTENANCE QUIZ CARDS