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KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC THPT

LẦN THỨ X, NĂM 2017

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH- KHỐI 10


Thời gian thi: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) SỐ PHÁCH
Ngày thi:
Đề thi có 10 trang

 Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu, kể cả từ điển.


 Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm.

 Bài nghe gồm 4 phần; mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 05 giây; mở đầu và kết thúc
mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu. Thí sinh có 20 giây để đọc mỗi phần câu hỏi.
 Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 03 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín hiệu
nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
 Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

I. LISTENING (50 points)


Part 1: Listen to a wildlife lover talking about the problems facing bees. For questions 1–10, use NO
MORE THAN THREE WORDS and/or A NUMBER to complete each gap. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered space.
THE DECLINE OF THE BEE POPULATION
Scientists in Europe first realised there was a problem with the bee population around
(1a) . They regard (1b) as the year when there began to
be widespread anxiety about the disappearance of bees. Since their decline became a global issue, the
role bees have in the (2a) of food we rely on for our survival has been highlighted,
e.g. bee-pollinated plants produce (2b) which benefit humans.
The seriousness of declining bee numbers can be underlined by a comparison between
(3a) and other factors, e.g. (3b) , the ramifications of
(4a) , and (4b) . Scientists think that innovations in
(5a) provide the main explanation for the decline of bees. Not only are bees
suffering from (5b) but there is also less (6a) of plant life
available for them.
Bees are far better at fighting off (6b) when they have a rich and varied diet as
this enables their (7a) to become stronger. Ironically, bees are more likely to
enjoy a healthy diet and stand a better chance of survival if they live in (7b)
instead of (8a) and (8b) . Also, research suggests that
pesticides are making them (9a) and impacting bees’ ability to remember how to
return to (9b) . A final point is that (10a) is also thought
to impede a bee’s capacity to locate (10b) and scents, which are essential to both
their and our survival.
Part 2: Listen to a TED Talks speech entitled ‘The Danger of Silence’. For questions 11–15, choose
the correct answer (A, B or C) for each of the following questions. write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes.
11. The speaker refers to Dr Martin Luther King in order to .
A. condemn ignorance and silence
B. elucidate his pedagogies and principles of teaching poetry
C. vindicate the Civil Rights Movement by his internalisation
12. The speaker feels that he has spent his life .
A. compromising the truth to please others
B. doing whatever is needed to expose the truth
C. making no sacrifices to reveal the truth
13. The speaker looks back, with hindsight, on various instances of injustice with .
A. dignity of the right thing he did
B. remorse for his indifference
C. revulsion against the world he lives in
14. The speaker feels we should be focusing more on .
A. being all ears

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B. silence and contemplation rather than nonsense talk
C. what is usually taken as read
15. At the end of his speech, the speaker undertakes to be more .
A. accommodating
B. outspoken
C. self-sacrificing in the interests of others
Your answers
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
Part 3: Listen to part of a National Geographic documentary. For questions 16–20, decide which
statements are TRUE or FALSE according to what you hear. Write NOT GIVEN if there is no
information about the statement. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
16. Steve McCurry studied journalism at college.
17. He once wanted to be a travel photographer.
18. He’s retiring after 30 years with National Geographic.
19. He’s looking for 36 shots to take on the roll of film.
20. He’s decided to shoot all the frames at Grand Central Station.
Your answers
16. 17. 19. 19. 20.

Part 4: Listen to a conversation. For questions 21–25, complete the chart below. Write NO MORE
THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered space.

EXAMPLE Plainfield community center

DAYS CLASS/ ACTIVITIES AGE GROUP


Wednesday, Saturday 21 Children, teens
22 Tennis 23
Tuesday, Thursday 24 Children, teens, adults
Friday Book club 25

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (50 points)


Part 1: For questions 1–20, choose the correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each of the following
questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
1. Marches and demonstrations in Vietnam have become increasingly militant, and, sadly, the government
reacted by down harshly on this civil unrest.
A. backing B. bearing C. clamping D. drawing
2. If institutions balk, waiting to cross that when you come to it could be disastrous.
A. bridge B. fingers C. legs D. path
3. The family were roundly subjected to insults, smutty comments and had a multitude of cast on
them about their manhood for the duration of their walk around the town.
A. aspersions B. criticisms C. doubts D. vilifications
4. Prescott will begin to reconstruct his relationship with both Gilchrist and the employers in the next few
days, unprepared to the amount of cash the government will contribute to the deal.
A. account for B. allow for C. bargain on D. contemplate on
5. Why should we have to pay a lifetime of premiums, making some insurance company masses of
money, just on the that one day we can make a claim?
A. fighting chance B. mischance C. off-chance D. perchance
6. Having to urban illness and death in winter, prevention is directed at around 50000 excess
deaths that still occur annually in Britain in cold weather.
A. perception B. perspective C. reference D. regard
7. Recession is in the minds of politicians and chief executives as they gossip at the conference.
A. paramount B. predominant C. uppermost D. uttermost
8. Being revealed as a drug addict, one who illegally purchased drugs on the black market – many of
which are obtained by stealing from people who really need the medication – is justice.
A. figurative B. flowery C. metrical D. poetic
9. He has often sought to justify repression on the of threatened coups against his government.
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A. guises B. ploys C. pretences D. pretexts
10. The standard Milky Way model comprised a thin disk of bright young stars surrounded by a sparsely
halo of old stars.
A. colonised B. inhabited C. occupied D. populated
11. In any case, unfortunately, there is a chance of finding alternative employment in this
despoiled area, which to an untutored eye looks rich in natural assets.
A. big B. fat C. good D. huge
12. From mass production clothing to managing factory lines to understanding the nature of different
fabrics, he kept and that has brought him where he is today.
A. a millstone around his neck C. his heart of stone
B. a sword in the stone D. his nose to the grindstone

13. It was a dark, starless night and, without a compass, we were left around for directions.
A. groping B. grabbing C. probing D. prodding
14. Filing may be a procedure, bit it is essential for the smooth runnign of the office.
A. strenuous B. tedious C. weary D. stuffy
15. The toll makes using the Panama Canal too costly for some vessels.
A commerce B. profiteering C. business D. merchant
16. The Egyptian coast guard received a(n) signal from the ship at 11.34 last night.
A. distress B. anxiety C. stress D. disquiet
17. Most armies around the world use satellite technology to orders.
A. emit B. impart C. release D. relay
18. It was imperative for the authorities to the epidemic.
A. succeed B. localise C.spread D.define
19. His efforts, though futile, are still .
A. refined B. intimidated C.pious D.commendable
20. He was reserved by nature, even .
A. cordial B. morose C.amiable D. Approachable
Your answers
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
Part 2: For questions 21–30, fill in the gaps in the following sentences with suitable prepositions
and/or particles. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered spaces.
21. The police have caught the suspected thief and he's arrest.
22. That restaurant on the corner of High Street is new management.
23. I've decided to go business with John Clarke. We're going to open a small tool hire shop.
24. Visiting Moscow was great but the temperature was 25 degrees zero.
25. Why are you always late, Mark? Can't you ever arrive time?
26. Unemployment has just risen again; this time 0.5%. It's now 5.5%.
27. The lawyers' fees amounted more than $20,000.
28. You must add an extra 1% to allow shrinkage of stock.
29. After months of trying, we finally succeeded persuading them.
30. The machine conforms BS 1649944 - it's perfectly safe.
Your answers
21. 22. 23. 24. 25.
26. 27. 28. 29. 30.
Part 3: For questions 31–40, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the corresponding
numbered space in the column in the right. There is an example at the beginning (0).
At one time, for the (31) (PONDER) of people needing to make 31.
the journey, the only way to travel from Europe to America was by ship, but
the days of a (32) (LEISURE) five-day (33) (ATLANTIC) 32.
crossing in a large liner have long gone. Today, everything is about speed, 33.
and long distance travel has become almost exclusively the business of the
airlines.
Although air travel is admittedly fast, passengers are still subject to the
unexpected (34) (HOLD) which seem to be inherent in any form of 34.
travel, but people’s reactions to such delays seem to be far more
(35) (SEE) than in the days of the great liners. Then, passengers 35.
might have shrugged their shoulders (36) (RESIGN) and relaxed 36.
with a book in their cabins, knowing that little could be done about the
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situation, but today’s traveller is more likely to make his (37) 37.
(CONTENT) known forcibly to any official who is unfortunate enough to
appear on the horizon.
It is easy to see why this might be the case since airport lounges are
(38) (STANDARD) clearly inadequately equipped to cope with 38.
large numbers of (39) (SHIP) passengers. Small wonder that 39.
people’s tempers begin to fray and their nerves are (40) (TAX) 40.
when faced with the prospect of a sleepless overnight stay in what is, after
all, no more than a vast public hall.
Part 4. For questions 41-50, underline 10 mistakes in the following sentences and correct them and
write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

The Sahara Marathon Corrections

Line 1 One of the most amazed marathon races in the world is the Marathon of
2 the Sands. It takes places every April in the Sahara Desert in the south of
3 Morocco, a part of the world when temperatures can reach fifty degrees
4 centigrade. The standard length of the marathon is 42.5 kilometers but this
5 one is 240 kilometers long and spends seven days to complete. It began in
6 1986 and now attracts about two hundred runners, the majority of their
7 ages range from seventeen to forty-seven. About half of them come from
8 France and the rest to all over the world. From Britain, it costs 2,500 pounds
9 to enter, this includes return air fares. The race is rapidly getting more and
10 more popular despite, and perhaps because of, the harsh conditions that
11 runners must endure. They have to carry food and something else they need
12 for seven days in a rucksack weighing no more than twelve kilograms. In
13 addition to this, they are given a liter and a half of water every ten
14 kilometers. Incredibly, near all the runners finish the course. One man,
15 Ibrahim EI Joual, took part in every race from 1986 to 2004. Runners do
16 suffer terrible physical hardships. Sometimes they lose toenails and skin
17 peels on their foot. However, doctors are always on hand to deal with minor
18 injuries and to make sure that runners do not push themselves too far.

III. READING (50 POINTS)


Part 1: For questions 51–60, read the following passages and decide which answer (A, B, C or D)
best fits each gap. Write your answers (A, B, C, or D) in corresponding numbered boxes.
THE TARAHUMARA DIET
Running comes naturally to a Tarahumara. These fascinating people live in a remote region of
northwest Mexico, an area totally inaccessible to normal means of transport. Even horses have difficulty
(51) parts of the unforgiving rocky terrain. As a result, the Tarahumara resort to running as a way
of getting around, sometimes covering distances of up to eighty miles a day. How do they do it?
Studies suggest that alongside the physical conditioning, (52) by their lifestyle, diet plays an
important role. The Tarahumara diet consists largely of complex carbohydrates, and is almost meat-free.
They generally rely on cooperative agriculture to feed the community as a whole. Pinole, a powder made of
toasted corn, is the staple food, along with squash, beans and chilli. Fish and all wild plants growing nearby
also feature (53) in their diet. Indeed, the fact that the Tarahumara experience a low incidence of
blood pressure and heart problems (54) weight to the argument that their diet is perfectly in
(55) with their particular lifestyle.
51. A. embarking B. overcoming C. negotiating D. undertaking
52. A. elicited B. evoked C. induced D. inspired

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53. A. eminently B. illustriously C. influentially D. prominently
54. A. delivers B. gains C. lends D. provides
55. A. befitting B. compatibility C. consensus D. keeping
OK?
The word ‘OK’ is ubiquitous in modern English but its origins remain (56) in mystery. Over the
years, many theories have been put forward regarding its derivation but none of them is (57)
convincing. The first recorded written use of OK was in 1839, when it appeared in a newspaper article in
Boston, Massachusetts. There was a craze for wacky acronyms at the time, just as today’s text messages
use things like ‘LOL’, and ‘OK’ allegedly originated as a misspelling of ‘All Correct’. But whereas many of
these acronyms flourished briefly and then gradually (58) out of use, ‘OK’ has proved to be
remarkably (59) . It first reached England in 1870, where it appeared in the words of a popular
song, and today is in constant use across the English-speaking world. As part of a phrase ‘... rules OK’, it
has been a (50) of urban graffiti since the 1930s and in 1969 it had the honour of being the first
word spoken on the moon. In short, it’s a phenomenally useful word.
56. A. concealed B. enveloped C. shrouded D. smothered
57. A. downright B. exclusively C. outright D. wholly
58. A. crept B. faded C. slipped D. strayed
59. A. resilient B. resolute C. stalwart D. steadfast
60. A. backbone B. centrepiece C. cornerstone D. mainstay
Your answers
51. 52. 53. 54. 55.
56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
Part 2: For questions 61–70, fill each of the following numbered spaces with ONE suitable word and
write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage.
Yoga

There can be hardly anyone who has not heard of yoga, and (61) you are 16 or 60, you can
reap the benefits of taking (62) in a yoga class. Yoga is a system of (63) the body
and the mind. Its goal is to (64) it easier for people to remove all distractions preventing them
living a life of the spirit in union with their Maker. Reaching this state is (65) greater a challenge
that might be imagined. The main emphasis of the physical training is (66) bringing the body
under complete control in such areas as the regulation of breathing and the flexibility of the muscles,
(67) if which are instrumental in controlling our overall movements. The mental training, as
(68) as the modifications to the behavior of the physical body, make undisturbed concentration
(69) . So perhaps it’s (70) we all headed for the nearest yoga class and started
training right now.
Your answers
61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
Part 3: Read the following passage and answer questions 71–80.

WHY GOING BACK HOME CAN BE DANGEROUS


An American psychologist discusses the downsides of a family visit
after a person has left home to live independently.
A. A friend of mine, Julia, recently took her boyfriend along on a visit to her parents’ house. It was the first
time he’d met her parents, whom he found to be kind, laid-back people and certainly not critical in any
way. Yet several times during the visit, he noticed Julia’s voice take on an uncharacteristically high-
pitched tone as she defensively reacted to seemingly innocent comments from her parents. When he
mentioned this observation on the drive home, Julia was taken aback by how his description of what
she had said sounded like her teenage self-arguing with her parents over their strict, controlling style.
B. It is not uncommon for people returning to visit their parents to react in this way. Although there are
obviously real joys in reconnecting with one’s loved ones, the downside is that it can stir up implicit
memories. These are memories that exist deep down and can surface without conscious awareness,
automatically triggering feelings we had in the past. Dr Daniel Siegel, author of The Mindful Brain, says
that ‘When we retrieve an element of implicit memory into awareness, we just have the emotional
response without knowing that these are activations related to something we’ve experienced before.
This is distinct from an explicit memory – a concrete experience that exists in our minds, such as
learning to ride a bike.’ It is implicit memories that make it possible to experience even a seemingly
pleasant visit home while at the same time unconsciously taking on the identities and attitudes we had
as children and reacting as we would have done then.
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C. If Julia’s boyfriend hadn’t made her aware of her childlike reaction, she would in all likelihood have
carried on being defensive or defiant in less appropriate situations. This regression to the past would
not seem so significant if it was restricted to interactions with parents but the closer someone gets to
another person or the more we let them mean to us, the more likely it is that the strong feelings we have
will spark off sub-conscious memories from early relationships. When this happens, negative feelings
are re-experienced that are irrelevant to the present. The impact is particularly obvious in romantic
relationships but can be observed in many areas of people’s personal and professional lives. When
someone has an emotional reaction to something, for example something a boss said, it’s helpful for
them to evaluate how they feel. When a feeling is particularly intense, it indicates a connection to
childhood occurrences. The more people fail to recognise the way they have grown up and
differentiated themselves from their parents, the more likely they are to act out old behavioural patterns
in their current life.
D. Of course, not all parental influences are negative. Yet it’s an unfortunate fact that children are more
likely to be affected by a single destructive outburst from a parent than by a series of positive
experiences with them. This is simply because humans are programmed to remember what scares
them. Even the most aware of parents have lapses in which they lose their temper or fail to respond
sensitively to their children. Sadly, it’s in these moments that children tend to identify with their parents
or internalise the message being communicated to them. For example, if a parent accused a child of
being lazy whenever the parent was feeling overwhelmed with work, the child would be more likely to
identify themselves as lazy and still hear this accusation in their heads as adults.
E. Why should this be? If a parent suddenly responds with harsh anger, the size difference alone between
an adult and a child causes a difference in the way we perceive things. While the child experiences the
adult’s angry outburst or severe annoyance as intensely threatening, to the adult the interaction is just
something that irritated them at the time. When children feel frightened by the very person they depend
on for survival, they don’t know which way to turn; they want to run both towards and away from the
parent. Their only solution is to unconsciously identify with the parent’s point of view, finding it too
emotionally threatening, not to mention physically impossible, to fight back.
F. By remaining aware of what triggers reactions from the past, people are less likely to re-create past
scenarios and relive the emotions they produced. The more people make sense out of implicit
memories and construct a cohesive narrative of their lives, the more they can live free from the
limitations created by the past.
For questions 71–76, choose the correct heading for paragraphs A–F. There are TWO extra
headings that you do not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding space provided.
List of Headings Your answers
i Blame incites defensiveness 71. Paragraph A
ii Moving on to freedom 72. Paragraph B
iii Witnessing the inner teenager emerge 73. Paragraph C
iv We are the same as our parents 74. Paragraph D
v Shaking up old memories 75. Paragraph E
vi The lasting impact of early criticisms 76. Paragraph F
vii Unconscious reactions to parental comments
viii Separating the emotions of then and now
For questions 77–80, choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the text. Write your
answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
77. In the second paragraph, the writer suggests that it’s difficult for people to visit their old family home
because .
A. it can remind them of negative events that happened in the past
B. it can make them feel as if they are being treated like children again
C. it is necessary for them to re-establish a good relationship with the family
D. it can cause them to have unexpectedly strong reactions to the experience
78. In the third paragraph, the writer says that unless people are aware of what can trigger negative
emotions, .
A. it can be harmful for important relationships with loved ones
B. it can complicate relationships between parents and children
C. it can impede their transition into becoming mature adults
D. it can give rise to a rebellious attitude towards authority figures
79. In the fourth paragraph, the writer suggests that when parents become angry, .
A. the stress they are under is passed on to their children
B. their children fail to understand what they have done to upset them
C. their children lose sight of the good points of their relationship
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D. the words they use may make a lasting impression on their children
80. In the fifth paragraph, the writer suggests that a common way for a child to react to parental anger is to
.
A. try and defend themselves physically C. experience a strong sense of insecurity
B. want to get revenge in some way D. attempt to escape from what is going on
Your answers
77. 78. 79. 80.

Part 4: For questions 81–90, identify which section A–F each of the following is mentioned. Write ONE
letter A–F in the corresponding numbered space provided. Each letter may be used more than once.
A HISTORY OF HUMAN RIGHTS
A. In 539 BC, the armies of Cyrus the Great, the first King of ancient Persia, conquered the city of
Babylon. But it was his next actions that marked a major advance for the human race. He freed the
slaves, declared that all people had a right to choose their own religion, and established racial equality.
These and other decrees were recorded on a baked-clay cylinder in the Akkadian language with
cuneiform script. Known today as the Cyrus Cylinder, this ancient record has now been recognised as
the world’s first charter of human rights. It is translated into all six official languages of the United
Nations and its provisions parallel the first four Articles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
B. The Magna Carta, or ‘Great Charter’, was arguably the most significant early influence on the extensive
historical process that led to the rule of constitutional law in the English-speaking world. In 1215, after
King John violated a number of ancient laws and customs by which England had been governed, his
subjects forced him to sign the Magna Carta, which enumerates what later came to be thought of as
human rights. Among them was the right of the church to be free from governmental interference, the
rights of all free citizens to own and inherit property and to be protected from excessive taxes. It
established the rights of widows who owned property to choose not to remarry, and established
principles of due process and equality before the law. It also contained provisions for forbidding bribery
and official misconduct.
C. On 4 July 1776, the United States Congress approved the Declaration of Independence. Its primary
author, Thomas Jefferson, wrote the Declaration as a formal explanation of why Congress had voted on
2 July to declare independence from Great Britain, more than a year after the outbreak of the American
Revolutionary War, as a statement announcing that the thirteen American Colonies were no longer a
part of the British Empire. Congress issued the Declaration in several forms. It was initially published as
a printed broadsheet that was widely distributed and read to the public. Philosophically, it stressed two
themes: individual rights and the rights of revolution. These ideas spread internationally as well,
influencing in particular the French Revolution.
D. In 1789, the people of France brought about the abolition of the absolute monarchy and set the stage
for the establishment of the first French Republic. Just six weeks after the storming of the Bastille, and
barely three weeks after the abolition of feudalism, the Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the
Citizen was adopted by the National Constituent Assembly as the first step towards writing a
constitution for the Republic of France. The Declaration proclaims that all citizens are to be guaranteed
the rights of liberty and equality. Liberty was defined as ‘being able to do anything that does not harm
others’. Equality, on the other hand, was defined as judicial equality, which ‘must be the same for all,
whether it protects or punishes. All citizens, being equal in its eyes, shall be equally eligible to all high
offices, public positions and employments, according to their ability, and without other distinction than
that of their virtues and talents.’
E. In 1864, sixteen European countries and several American states attended a conference in Geneva on
the initiative of the Geneva Committee. The diplomatic conference was held for the purpose of adopting
a convention for the treatment of wounded soldiers in combat. The main principles laid down and
adopted by the later Geneva Conventions provided for the obligation to extend care without
discrimination to wounded and sick military personnel and respect for the marking of medical personnel
transports and equipment with the distinctive sign of the red cross on a white background.
F. World War II had raged from 1939 to 1945, and as the end drew near, cities throughout Europe and
Asia lay in smouldering ruins. Millions of people were dead, millions more were homeless or starving. In
April 1945, delegates from fifty countries met in San Francisco full of optimism and hope. The goal of
the United Nations Conference was to fashion an international body to promote peace and prevent
future war. Its ideals were stated in the preamble to the proposed charter: ‘We the peoples of the United
Nations are determined to save succeeding generations from the scourge of war, which twice in our
lifetime has brought untold sorrow to mankind.’ The Charter of the New United Nations organisation
went into effect on 24 October 1945, a date that is celebrated each year as United Nations Day.

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Your answers
the view that a situation which had wreaked widespread havoc could not be repeated 81.
a recent consensus that an event had far-reaching global repercussions 82.
treating all sides equally during military conflicts 83.
the view that a protest against the flagrant injustice of a despotic monarch had far- 84.
reaching consequences
surprise that widespread change came about in a relatively short space of time 85.
the suggestion that the unusual actions of a monarch were far ahead of their time 86.
an acknowledgement that a leader was prepared to justify his actions 87.
an expression of regret for mistakes made in the past 88.
the importance of something which officially tried to prevent a certain type of gender 89.
discrimination
the idea that everyone should have the same opportunities for advancement 90.
IV. WRITING (60 points)
Part 1. For question 1-5, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and
eight words, including the word given. There is an example at the beginning (0).

0. ‘Why don’t we have a picnic this weekend?’ said Andy having


Andy suggested..............having a picnic that...............weekend.

1. Explaining what you mean to an audience can be difficult. across


It’s sometimes difficult.........................................................................................to an audience.
2. If something’s worrying you, you should tell me about it now. chest
If you have a problem, why don’t you.............................................................................now?
3. I think you should confront your boss right now with how you feel about this. out
Why don’t you..................................................................................your boss right now?
4. Anna had decided Tom was not telling the truth about what happened. teeth
Anna was sure Tom...........................................................................about what happened.
5. Perhaps my sister was bad-tempered because she was tired. fact
I put my sister’s..............................................................she was tired.
6. I think you need to work hard to make a relationship a success. more
I think......................................................................., the better it will be.
7. People do not recover from a crime like this quickly. over
This kind of crime is not...................................................................................quickly.
8. We aim to stamp out violent crime in this area. put
Our aim............................................................................................violent crime in this area.
9. The judge is not going to resign over the matter. intention
The judge...........................................................................................over the matter.
10. When confronted with his crime the accused was unrepentant. remorse
The accused..............................................................................crime he had committed.

Part 2: In many parts of the world girls and boys are educated together in co-educational or mixed
schools. Some people think that girls and boys benefit from being educated separately in single-
sex schools.
To what extent do you agree with this view? Write a paragrph of about 200 words to express your opinion.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge and experience.

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- THE END -
Page 11 of 10 pages
KEY LOP 10
I. LISTENING
(If you have purchased ‘Cornucopia Preliminary Training’, see the ‘Updates’ packages with authentic
tasks for Part 1 on schoology.com.)

1. (a) 1965 (b) 1998 13. B


2. (a) availability and quality (b) vitamins 14. C
3. (a) climate change (b) energy conservation 15. B
4. (a) genetic engineering (b) population 16. F
growth 17. T
5. (a) methods of agriculture (b) starvation 18. NG
6. (a) diversity/variety (b) diseases 19. T
7. (a) immune system (b) urban parks 20. F
8. (a) rural fields (b) hedgerows 21. Tutoring
9. (a) disoriented (b) (their) habitats 22. Sunday
10. (a) air pollution (b) flowers 23. Adults, teens
11. A 24. Yoga
12. A 25. adults

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

1. C 14.B
2. A
3. A 15.D
4. C
5. C 16.A
6. D
7. C 17.D
8. D
18.B
9. D
10. D 19.D
11. B
12. D 20.B
13.A
21. under 29. in

22. under 30. to

23. into 31. preponderance


32. leisurely
24. below
33. transatlantic
25. on 34. hold-ups
35. foreseeable
26. by 36. resignedly
37. discontent(ment)
27. to 38. substandard
39. shipwrecked
28. for 40. overtaxed

41. Line 2. Places  place


42. 42. Line 3. when where 43. Line 5. Spends  takes
44. Line 6. their  whose
45. Line 8. To  from 53. D
46. Line 9. This  which 54. C
47. Line 10. And  or 55. D
48. Line 11. Something  anything 56. C
49. Line 14. Near  nearly 57. D
50. Line 17. Foot  feet 58. C
51. C 59. A
52. D 60. D

61. whether
62. part
63. training
64. make/ render
65. far
66. on
67. both
68. well
69. possible
70. time
71. iii
72. v
73. viii
74. vi
75. vii
76. ii
77. D
78. A
79. D
80. C
81. F
82. A
83. E
84. B
85. D
86. A
87. C
88. F
89. B
90. D

WRITING

PART 1
1. to get your message across
2. get it off your chest
3. have it out with
4. was lying through his teeth
5. bad-temper down to the fact that
6. the more you work (hard) at a relationship
7. something (that) people get over
8. is to put an end to
9. has no intention of resigning
10. showed no remorse for the
RUBICS FOR PART 2

Task Achievement Coherence and Vocabulary Grammar


Cohesion
   
The essay fully The essay is well – There is a wide Errors are
satisfies all the organized and range of minor, due to
requirements of the coherent, through structures and ambition, and
task. the effective use of vocabulary non-impeding.
simple linking related to the
9-10 
devices. theme.
The essay is generally 
Students attempt to
well-developed. use some complex
linking devices,
although some
are over/under-
use.
  
The essay generally Adequate range There are

satisfies the There is evidence of of vocabulary some errors,
requirements of organization and and structures which are
the task. some linking related to the generally non-

7-8 The ideas are not devices, although theme. impeding
sufficiently they are quite
supported; there limited in range.
may be irrelevant
details.
  
The essay responds The language is A number of
to the task only in a  simplistic / errors are
Students have
minimal way. limited/ present, but they
 some attempts at
The ideas are repetitive/ are mostly non
organization, even
5-6 difficult to identify, inadequate –impeding.
though linking
and may be
devices are not
repetitive, irrelevant
always maintained.
or not well-
supported.
  
The essay barely There is no There are
responds to the evidence of range numerous

task. The student does of structures and errors, which

3-4 The ideas are largely not organize ideas vocabulary sometimes
undeveloped or logically. impede
irrelevant. communication
.

1-2 The answer is completely unrelated to the task.


0 NO ATTENDANCE

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