Regd. Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.

011-47623456

CBSE Boards 2023

Answer & Solutions
Biology

SECTION A

1. Select the pathogen mismatched with symptoms of diseases caused by it from the
list given below: [1]
a. Entamoeba histolytica : Constipation, abdominal pain.
b. Epidemophyton : Dry scaly lesions on nail.
c. Wuchereria bancrofti : Chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels of lower limb.
d. Haemophilus influenzae : Blockage of intestinal passage.

Answer:- (d) Haemophilus influenzae : Blockage of intestinal passage.

2. Important attributes belonging to a population but not to an individual are: [1]

(i) Birth rate and death rate (ii) Male and female
(iii) Birth and death (iv) Sex-ratio
Select the correct option from the given options:
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv)

Answer:- (d) (i) and (iv)

3. Many copepods live on the body surface of marine fish. This relationship is
example of: [1]
(a) Commensalism (b) Parasitism
(c) Amensalism (d) Mutualism

Answer:- (b) Parasitism

4. Given below is the restriction site of restriction endonuclease Pst-I and the
cleavage sites on a DNA molecule.
 Choose the option that gives the correct resultant fragments by the action of the
enzyme Pst-I [1]

Answer:-

5. Given below is a sequence of bases in mRNA of a bacterial cell. Identify the amino
acid that would be incorporated at codon position 3 and codon position 5 during
the process of its translation.
5’ AUC AGG UUU GUG AUG GUA CGA 3’ [1]
(a) Phenylalanine, Methionine (b) Cysteine, Glycine
(c) Alanine, Proline (d) Serine and Valine

Answer:- (a) Phenylalanine, Methionine

6. Given below are structural details of a human mammary gland: [1]

(i) The glandular tissue in the breast has 15-20 clusters of cells called alveoli.
(ii) The milk is stored in the lumen of alveoli.
(iii) The alveoli join to form the mammary ducts.
(iv) Mammary ampulla is connected to lactiferous ducts.
Choose the option that gives the correct detail of the human mammary gland.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)

Answer:- (c) (ii) and (iv)

7. Given below are the list of commercially important products and their source
organisms. Select the option which gives correct matches. [1]
 List A List B

S. No. Bioactive product S. No. Microbes( Source organism)

(A) Cyclosporin A (i) Streptococcus

(B) Statins (ii) Trichoderma polysporum

(C) Streptokinase (iii) Penicillium notatum

(D) Penicillin (iv) Monascus purpureus

a. (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv)

b. (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
c. (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i)
d. (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

Answer:- (d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)

8. Tetanus antitoxin (Tetanus toxoid) when injected into the human body it
immediately provides : [1]
(a) Innate immunity (b) Passive immunity
(c) auto immunity (d) Active immunity

Answer:- (b) Passive immunity

9. The primary productivity in an ecosystem is expressed as: [1]

(a) gm-2 y-1 (b) gm-2 y
(c) Kcal m-2 y-1 (d) Kcal m-2

Answer:- Both (a) and (c) are correct answers.

10. Select the option that shows the correctly identified ‘U’, ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ in a
developing dicot embryo. [1]
a. X - Plumule (2n), Y - Suspensor (n), Z - Cotyledon (2n), U - Radicle (2n).
b. X - Plumule (2n), Y - Suspensor (2n), Z - Radicle (2n), U - Cotyledon (2n).
c. X - Suspensor (2n), Y - Cotyledon (2n), Z - Radicle (2n), U - Plumule (2n).
d. X - Cotyledon (2n), Y - Radicle (n), Z - Plumule (n), U - Suspensor (n).

Answer:- (c) X - Suspensor (2n), Y - Cotyledon (2n), Z - Radicle (2n), U - Plumule (2n).

11. The sixth extinction in progress currently is different from all previous extinctions
on earth as it is: [1]
(a) 10-100 times faster (b) 100-1000 times faster
(c) 100-10000 times faster (d) 1000-10000 times faster

Answer:- (b) 100-1000 times faster

12. At which stage during evolution did humans use hides to protect their bodies and
buried their dead? [1]
(a) Homo habilis (b) Neanderthal man
(c) Java man (d) Homo erectus

Answer:- (b) Neanderthal man

Question Nos. 13 to 16 consist of two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer
these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:

a. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
c. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
d. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

13. Assertion (A) : Decomposition process is slower if detritus is rich in lignin and cutin.
Reason (R) : Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process. [1]

Answer:- (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

14. Assertion (A) : Determining the sex of an unborn child followed by MTP is an illegal
practice.
Reason (R) : Amniocentesis is a practice to test the presence of genetic disorders
also. [1]

Answer:- (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

15. Assertion (A) : In Thalassemia an abnormal myoglobin chain is synthesized due to

a gene defect.
Reason (R) : α-Thalassemia is controlled by genes HBA1 and HBA2 on chromosome
16. [1]
Answer:- (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
16. Assertion (A) : Synthetic oligonucleotide polymers are used during Annealing in a
PCR.
Reason (R) : The primer bind to the double stranded DNA at their complementary
regions. [1]
Answer:- (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

SECTION B

17. (a) Name (i) a GM cereal crop having enhanced nutritional value, (ii) the nutrient it
is rich in.
(b) State any two benefits of Genetically modified crops. [2]

Answer:

(a) (i) Golden rice [1/2 Mark]

(ii) It is rich in vitamin A content which improves eye vision [1/2 Mark]

(b) Benefits of genetically modified crops: (any two) [1/2 + 1/2 Marks]

• Crops become more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt, heat).
• Reduces reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops).
• Helps to reduce post-harvest losses.
• Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants (this prevents early exhaustion of
fertility of soil).

18. By using Punnett square, depict the genotypes and phenotypes of test crosses
(where green pod colour (G) is dominant over yellow pod colour (g)) in Garden pea
with unknown genotype. [2]

Answer:
Test Cross: The cross where an individual showing dominant phenotype, but
unknown genotype, is crossed with a homozygous recessive parent in order to
identify the genotype of the individual is called a test cross.

Hence, we get two cases: [1 + 1 Marks]

Homozygous Homozygous
recessive dominant
gg GG

Gametes g g G G

Case I G G
Gg Gg Genotype: Gg (all)
g Green Green
Gg Gg
g Phenotype: Green pod (all)
Green Green
 Homozygous Heterozygous
recessive dominant
gg Gg

Gametes
Genotype:
Case II G g
Gg : gg
Gg gg
g Green Yellow 1 : 1
Gg gg Phenotype:
g
Green Yellow
Green: Yellow
1 : 1

19.
(a) Certain specific bacterial spores are mixed in water and sprayed over
Brassica crop to control butterfly caterpillars.
Name this bacterium and its mode of action on the butterfly caterpillars.
[2]
Answer:

(a) Bacillus thuringiensis is the bacteria that is being used to reduce the action of
butterfly caterpillars on Brassica crops. [0.5 Mark]

Mode of action: [1.5 Mark]

• B. thuringiensis forms protein crystals during a particular phase of their growth.

These crystals contain toxic insecticidal protein (inactive protoxin).
• When the butterfly caterpillar (larva) feeds on the plants, the spores, containing
inactive protoxins, reach the gut of the larva.
• Inactive protoxin is converted into an active form of toxin due to alkaline pH of the
larval gut.
• Activated toxin binds to the surface of the midgut epithelial cells and creates pores.
This causes cell swelling and lysis and eventually death of the larva.

OR

(b) Immunotherapy these days is one of the most efficient ways of treatment of
cancer. The therapy involved activates the immune system and destroys the tumour.
(i) Write an example of one such biological response modifier used in
immunotherapy.
(ii) Why do patients need such substances if the immune system is already working
in the body?
(iii) State what is ‘Contact inhibition’. [2]

Answer:
 (i) α-interferon is a biological response modifier which activates the immune system
of the patient and helps in destroying the tumour. [1/2 Mark]
(ii) Tumor cells have the ability to avoid detection and destruction by the immune
system. Hence, patients need a biological response modifier to activate the immune
system. [1/2 Mark]
(iii) Contact inhibition is the property shown by healthy cells of the body by virtue of
which their contact with other cells inhibits their uncontrolled cell division. But this
property is lost in cancerous cells. [1 Mark]

20. The graph given below shows the number of primordial follicles per ovary in women
at different ages. Study the graph and answer the questions that follow.
(a) What is the average age of women at the onset of menopause ?
(b) At what age are maximum primordial follicles present in the ovary, according to
the giving graph ?
[2]
Primordial follicle/ Ovary

Age

Answer:
(a)
• According to the given graph, the onset of menopause is called perimenopause as the
irregular menses begins in this phase. [1/2 Mark]
• This phase begins between 40 years and 50 years of age. So, the average age of women
at the onset of menopause is 45 years, approximately. [1/2 Mark]

(b) The maximum primordial follicles are present at 10 years of age, which indicates
puberty. [1 Mark]

21. “Some species of insects and frogs have evolved with various specific features that
help them from being detected.”
(a) Justify the statement giving reasons.
(b) Mention any two features.
[2]
Answer:
(i) [1 Mark]
• Frogs and insects can become prey for their respective predators.
• If a predator is too efficient and over exploits its prey, then the prey might become
extinct and following it, the predator will also become extinct for lack of food.
 • As a result, prey species have evolved various defenses to lessen the impact of
predation and go undetectable or uneaten by the predators.

(ii) Two such features are given below:

• Some species of insects and frogs have developed cryptically-coloured skin to imitate
the neighboring environment. In other words, these organisms camouflage and go
undetectable by the predators. [1/2 Mark]
• Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its predator (bird) because of a special
chemical present in its body. Hence, it is avoided by its predator. [1/2 Mark]

SECTION C

22. (a) “Plasmodium protozoan needs both a mosquito and a human host for its
continuity.” Explain. [3]
OR
(b) We all must work towards maintaining good health because ‘health is wealth’.
Enlist any six ways of achieving good health. [3]

Answer:
(a) Malarial parasite Plasmodium requires two hosts – human and mosquitoes – to
complete its life cycle.
Female Anopheles mosquito is the vector which transmits the parasite from one
individual to another.
Human:
When mosquitoes bite a human, the parasites are introduced into the body. These
parasites reach liver through blood.
They reproduces asexually in liver cells, bursting the cells and releasing into the blood.
They reproduces asexually in RBCs and are released by the rupturing the RBCs. A few
of these parasites undergoes sexual reproduction in RBCs and produces male and
female gametocytes, which circulate in the blood. [1.5]

Mosquito:
When a female mosquito bites an infected human, the male and female gametocytes
enter their salivary glands. The male and female gametes fuse in the mosquito’s gut
and undergo fertilisation. There they undergo further development to from mature
infective stages called sporozoites. Sporozoites escape from the gut and migrate to
mosquito’s salivary glands, which is then transmitted into an healthy individual.
[1.5]

OR

(b) We all must work towards maintaining good health because ‘health is wealth’.
The following are six ways for achieving good health:
1. Balanced diet [½]
2. Personal hygiene [½]
3. Regular exercise [½]
 4. Yoga [½]
5. Awareness about diseases and their effect on different bodily
functions [½]
6. Vaccination (immunisation) against infectious diseases [½]
7. Proper disposal of wastes
8. Control of vectors and maintenance of hygiene in food and water resources

23. “Biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem services that nature provides.”
a. Describe any two broadly utilitarian arguments to justify the given
statement.
b. State one ethical reason of conserving biodiversity. [3]

Answer:
(a) The broadly utilitarian argument for conserving biodiversity says that the Amazon
Forest producing 20 percent of the total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere through
photosynthesis, thus we cannot put an economic value on the services provided by
nature. [3/4]

Similarly, pollination without which plants cannot give fruits or seeds is another
service, ecosystems provide through pollinators layer – bees, bumblebees, birds and
bats. [3/4]
Third is the aesthetic pleasures of walking through thick woods, watching spring
flowers in full bloom or waking up to a bulbul’s song in the morning.

(b) The ethical argument for conserving biodiversity relates to what we owe to
millions of plant, animal and microbe species with whom we share this planet.
Philosophically or spiritually, every species has an intrinsic value, even if it may
not be of current or any economic value to us. We have a moral duty to care for their
well-being and pass on our biological legacy in good order to future
generations. [1½]

24. Name and explain a surgical contraceptive method that can be adopted by the
male partner of a couple.

Answer:
Vasectomy is the surgical contraceptive method in males. [1]
In vasectomy, a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small
incision on the scrotum. This technique is highly effective but their reversibility is
very poor. [1]
 [1]

25. Human Genome Project (HGP) was a mega project launched in the year 1990 with
some important goals.
a. Enlist any four prime goals of HGP.
b. Name any one common non human animal model organism which has also
been sequenced thereafter [3]
Answer:
a. The four prime goals of HGP are:
i.Identify all the approximately 25000 to 30000 genes present in the Human
DNA [½]
ii. Determine the sequence of 3 billion chemical base pairs that make up the
human DNA [½]
iii. Storing the information about these 25000-30000 genes and 3 billion
chemical base pairs in data bases. [½]
iv. Improve tools for data analysis. [½]

b. The common non-human animal model organism sequenced after the

completion of HGP is Caenorhabditis elegans. [1]

26. One of the major approaches of the crop improvement program is Artificial
Hybridization. Explain the steps involved in making sure that only the desired pollen
grain pollinate the stigma of a bisexual flower by a plant breeder. [3]

Answer:
Artificial hybridization is one of the major approaches of the crop improvement
programme. The steps involved in making sure that only the desired pollen grain
pollinate the stigma of a bisexual flower by a plant breeder are:
• Selection of parents: The pure line of male and female plants with desired
characters is selected for the process of hybridization and kept in
isolation. [½]
• Emasculation: The process of removal of male floral parts from flower of the
female plant during the bud stage in the flower. The bud is opened and the
 undeveloped male floral parts are removed using a forceps. This rules out the
chances of pollen from the same flower falling on the stigma.
[½]
• Bagging: This is the process of covering up the flower with paperbag or
polybag to ensure that no other pollen grain falls on the
stigma. [½]
• Collection of pollen from the male parent: The anthers from the flower of
the plant chosen as male parent is
collected. [½]
• Dusting the pollen grain on stigma: The collected anthers from flowers of the
male plant are tapped over the stigma. This results in the pollen grains from
these anthers to fall on the stigma.
[½]
• Rebagging: The flower bearing the dusted pollen is again covered with
paperbag or polybag. [½]

27. Mention Darwin observations made on Finches on his visit to Galapagos island.
Write the explanations given by Darwin on his observations? [3]

Answer:
On his visit to Galapagos Island, Darwin made his observations on Finches:
• There were many varieties of small black birds in the same island. [½]
• Each variety had different types of beaks suited for different dietary habits.
[½]
• He observed that all the varieties evolved on the island itself. [½]

Darwin gave the following explanations on his observations

• From the original seed-eating features, many other forms with altered beaks
arose. [½]
• The alterations in beak enabled them to become insectivorous and
vegetarian finches. [½]
• This process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area
starting from a point and literally radiating to other geographic areas is called
adaptive radiation. [½]

28. “RNA interference has been used to produce transgenic tobacco plants to protect
them from the infestation by specific nematodes.” Explain the novel strategy
exploited by the biotechnologists.

Answer:
RNA interference is a novel strategy which has been exploited by the biotechnologists
to protect the tobacco plant from the infestation by the nematode Meloidogyne
incognita. This results in killing the nematode as the infestation starts and protects the
plant, benefiting the farmer. [1]
RNA interference involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA
molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA. This is also called mRNA
silencing. The complementary comes from an infection by viruses having RNA genomes or
transposons that replicate via an RNA intermediate. [1]
To achieve RNA interference, nematode-specific genes are introduced into the host plant
using Agrobacterium vectors. The introduced genes are capable of producing both sense and
anti-sense RNA in the host cells. These two RNA’s being complementary to each other and
can form a double stranded (dsRNA) and silence an essential mRNA of the nematode. As a
consequence, parasite could not survive in a transgenic host expressing specific interfering
RNA. The transgenic plant therefore got itself protected from the parasite.
[1]

SECTION D

29. When a microorganism invades a host, a definite sequence of events usually occur
leading to infection and disease, causing suffering to the host. This process is called
pathogenesis. Once a microorganism overcomes the defense system of the host,
development of the disease follows a certain sequence of events as shown in the
graph. Study the graph given below for the sequence of events leading to
appearance of a disease and answer the questions that follow:

a. In which period, according to the graph there are maximum chances of a

person transmitting a disease/infection and why? [1]
b. Study the graph and write what is an incubation period. Name a sexually
transmitted disease that can be easily transmitted during this period. Name
the specific type of lymphocytes that are attacked by the pathogen of this
disease. [2]

OR

b. Draw a schematic labelled diagram of an antibody. [2]

c. In which period, the number of immune cells forming antibodies will be
highest in a person suffering from pneumonia? Name the immune cells that
produce antibodies. [1]

Answer:
 a. According to the graph, period of illness is the phase when there is a
maximum chance of a person transmitting a disease/infection because at this stage
the number of pathogens are high in the host. [1]
b. The time period between the entry of pathogens in the body and appearance of
symptoms is called incubation period. [1]
AIDS is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily transmitted during this period.
AIDS is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). HIV enters into helper T-
lymphocytes, replicates and produces progeny viruses. The progeny viruses released
in the blood attack other helper T-lymphocytes. [1]

OR
(b)

[2]

c. Period of decline is the phase when the number of immune cells forming antibodies
will be highest in person suffering from pneumonia. [½ ]
The B-lymphocytes produce antibodies in response to pathogens to fight with them.
[½ ]

30. The chromosome number is fixed for all normal organisms leading to species
specification whereas any abnormality in the chromosome number of an organism
results into abnormal individuals. For example, in humans 46 is the fixed number of
chromosomes both in males and females. In male it is ‘44+XY’ and in female it is
‘44+XX’. Thus, the human male is heterogametic, in other words produces two
different types of gametes one with ‘22+X’ chromosomes and other with ‘22+Y’
chromosomes respectively. Human female, on the other hand is homogametic i.e.
produces only one type of gamete with ‘22+X’ chromosomes only.
 Sometimes an error may occur during meiosis of cell cycle, where the sister
chromatids fail to segregate called nondisjunction, leading to the production of
abnormal gametes with altered chromosome number. On fertilisation such gametes
develop into abnormal individuals.
a. State what is aneuploidy. [1]
b. If during spermatogenesis, the chromatids of sex chromosomes fail to segregate
during meiosis, write only the different types of gametes with altered chromosome
number that could possibly be produced. [1]
c. A normal human sperm (22+Y) fertilises an ovum (22+XX). Name the disorder the
offspring thus produced would suffer from and write any two symptoms. [2]
OR
c. Name a best known and most common autosomal aneuploid abnormality in
humans and write any two symptoms. [2]

Answer:
a. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle which results in loss or
addition of chromosomes in a set of chromosomes is called aneuploidy.
[1]

b.

c. A normal human sperm (22+Y) fertilises an ovum (22+XX). The genetic constitution of
the offspring is 44 + XXY and this indicates Klinefelter’s Syndrome.
Two symptoms of Klinefelter’s Syndrome are: (i) The affected individual has overall
masculine development, however the feminine features are also expressed.
(ii) Such individuals are sterile [2]
 OR

c. The best known and most common autosomal aneuploid abnormality in

humans is Down’s syndrome.
Two symptoms of Down’s syndrome are:
(i) The affected individual is short statured with a small round head, furrowed tongue
and partially open mouth.
(ii) Physical and mental development is retarded. [2]

Section E

31. (a) (i) How and why is charging of tRNA essential in the process of translation?
(ii) State the function of the ribosome as a catalyst in bacteria during the process
of translation.
(iii) Explain the process of binding of ribosomal units to mRNA during protein
synthesis.
[5]
Answer:
(i) The process of activating the inactive amino acids and addition of the activated
amino acid to their cognate tRNA is called charging of tRNA.
During the charging process, the inactive amino acids in the cytoplasm of a cell are
activated in the presence of ATP and is added to the cognate
tRNA. [1]

This is a crucial step that occurs during the first phase of the translation process
because the high energy bond between tRNA and amino acid is used at a later stage
in protein synthesis to link the amino acid covalently to the growing polypeptide
chain. [1]

(ii) Ribosomes are made up of structural RNAs and several proteins. One such
structural RNA known as 23S rRNA acts as a catalyst in bacteria and is known as the
enzyme- ribozyme. It helps in the formation of peptide
bonds. [1]

(iii) Ribosome exists as two subunits (a large and a small subunit), in its inactive state.
When the small subunit encounters an mRNA, the process of translation of the mRNA
to protein begins. There are two sites in the large subunit, for subsequent amino acids
to bind to and thus, be close enough to each other for the formation of a peptide
bond. [2]

OR

31. (b) Describe the dihybrid cross upto F2 generation as conducted by Gregor Mendel
using pure lines of Garden Pea for characters seed shape and seed colour.
[5]
Answer:

The traits in consideration are seed shape and seed colour. Following table shows
the various dominant and recessive alleles for these traits.

Trait Dominant Recessive

Seed Shape Round (R) Wrinkled (r)

Seed Colour Yellow (Y) Green (y)

Pure lines of Garden pea for the characters will have homozygous genotypes.
Following is the depiction of the dihybrid cross performed by Gregor Mendel using
seed colour and seed shape of the Garden pea as the traits.
In the parent generation, Mendel had performed
the cross between homozygous parents (YYRR -
yellow and round seeds, yyrr- green and wrinkled
seeds)

In the first generation, he obtained offsprings which

were all heterozygous and exhibited the dominant
trait (yellow and round seeds)
He performed selfing of the
heterozygous offspring.

In the F2 generation he obtained the

following ratios:
Phenotypic ratio: 9:3:3:1
Genotypic ratio: 1:2:1:2:4:2:1:2:1

32. (a) Bioreactors are the containment vehicles of any biotechnology-based

production process. For large scale production and for economic reasons the final
success of the biotechnological process depends on the efficiency of the
bioreactor.

Answer the following questions w.r.t the given paragraph:

(i) List the operational guidelines that must be adhered to so as to achieve

optimisation of the bioreactor system. Enlist any four.

(ii) Mention the phase of the growth we refer to in the statement “Optimisation of
growth and metabolic activity of the cells”.
 (iii) Is the biological product formed in the bioreactor suitable for the intended
immediate use? Give reason in support of your answer.
[5]

Answer: (a)

(i) The list of the operational guidelines that must be adhered to so as to achieve
optimisation of growth of the bioreactor system are given below:
a) Monitoring and control of the optimal conditions for achieving the desired
product by providing optimum growth conditions (temperature, pH, substrate, salts,
vitamins, oxygen).
b) Maintain a sterile or aseptic environment.
c) Optimisation of mixing and aeration.
d) Regular cleaning and maintenance of the bioreactor. [4]

(ii) The phase of the growth referred to in the statement “Optimisation of growth and
metabolic activity of the cells” is the exponential phase of growth.
[1]
(iii) The biological product formed in the bioreactor is not suitable for the intended
use immediately. It has to further undergo the down streaming process.
This is because the biological product may contain impurities which may hinder the
functioning of the product or can cause harmful effects to the consumer. Also if the
product is a drug, further clinical trials need to be conducted to ensure the safety and
physiological effects of the drug before releasing it into the market. [2]

OR

32. (b)(i) ‘EcoRI’ has played very significant role in r-DNA technology.
(I) Explain the convention for naming EcoR1.
(II) Write the recognition site and the cleavage sites of this restriction
endonuclease.
[3]
(ii) What are the protruding and hanging stretches of DNA produced by these
restriction enzymes called? Describe their role in formation of r-DNA.
[2]

Answer:
(b) (i)
(I) EcoRI restriction enzyme is isolated from the bacteria Escherichia coli RY 13 strain.
Hence, the letter ‘E’ is derived from the first letter of the genus Escherichia and ‘co’ is
derived from the species coli. The letter ‘R’ comes from the strain ‘E. Coli RY 13’. It is
followed by a Roman letter ‘I’ as it was the first enzyme to be isolated from the given
strain. [1.5 ]

(II) The recognition site of EcoRI is a palindrome having 5′-GAATTC-3′ sequence.

It introduces a cut between G and A nucleotides which creates sticky
ends. [1.5]
Answer:
(b) (ii) The protruding and hanging stretches of DNA produced by EcoRI are called
sticky ends. Sticky ends have overhanging stretches of nitrogenous bases which can
pair with complementary bases.

Hence, the DNA sequence of our interest which is digested by EcoRI can be ligated
with specific vector DNA to create a recombinant DNA. [2]

33. (a) (i) Explain the monosporic development of embryo sac in the ovule of an
angiosperm. [3]

(ii) Draw a diagram of the mature embryo sac of an angiospermic ovule and label
any four parts in it. [2]

OR

(b) (i) Explain the formation of placenta after the implantation in a human
female. [3]

(ii) Draw a diagram showing human foetus within the uterus and label any four
parts in it. [2]

Answer:
(a) (i) The process of monosporic development of embryo sac in the ovule of an
angiosperm can be divided as:

1. Mitotic division of functional megaspore: The nucleus of the functional megaspore

undergoes mitotic division to form two nuclei, forming a 2-nucleate embryo sac. This
step is followed by two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions, which result in the
4-nucleate and then the 8-nucleate stages of embryo sac.
2. Cell wall formation: Out of eight nuclei, cell walls form around six nuclei and are
organised into cells.
3. Distribution of cells in embryo sac: The egg apparatus consisting of two synergids and
one egg cell are grouped together at the micropylar end. The antipodals consisting of
three cells are at the chalazal end. The two nuclei called the polar nuclei are located
in the large central cell. [3]

(a) (ii) The labelled diagram of the mature embryo sac of an angiospermic ovule is
given below:
[2]
 Chalazal end

Micropylar end

(b) (i) The placenta develops during the first three months of the pregnancy:
1. After implantation, finger-like projections called chorionic villi appear on the
trophoblast.
2. This chorionic villi is surrounded by the uterine tissue and maternal blood.
3. The uterine tissue and chorionic villi become interdigitated with each other and jointly
form a structural and functional unit between developing embryo (foetus) and
maternal body. This structure is called placenta. [3]

(b) (ii) The labelled diagram of human foetus within the uterus is given below: [2]