Full Biochemistory PDF

Topic: Water-salt metabolism (50 вопросов)
1. What is the function of albumin?
A. protective
B. nutritional
*C. transportation
D. hormonal
2. What hormone increases blood pressure in the kidneys due to

constriction of the renal
arteries?
A. histamine
B. serotonin
*C. adrenaline
D. angiotensin
3. The incentive for increasing the secretion of vasopressin is
A. increased osmotic blood pressure

*B. Formation of angiotensin II
C. Decrease in sodium concentration in blood
D. increase blood pressure
*A. formation of angiotensin II

B. Decrease in sodium concentration in blood.
C. high blood pressure
D. lowering blood pressure
5.What hormones promote calcium resorption from bones
A. calcitriol
*Bn. Calcitoni
C. insulin
D. aldosterone
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6. In the regulation of the volume of water, in addition to vasopressin,
are involved:
A. glucocorticosteroids;
*B. aldosterone;
C. prostaglandins;
D. erythropoietin;
.
7. How does mineralcorticoid effect on the exchange of salts in the

body?
*A. Detains Na + and enhances urinary excretion of K +

B. Enhances the secretion of Na with urine and delays K
C. strengthens Na and K in the body
D. enhances the secretion of Na and K with urine
8. What is the role of angiotensin?
A. stimulates the development of secondary sexual characteristics in men

*B. Increases blood pressure in the kidneys.
C. enhances the synthesis of estradiol
D. Increases blood glucose concentration
9. The incentive for increasing the secretion of aldosterone isA. lowering

the sodium concentration in the blood
B. Formation of angiotensin II
C. increase osmotic blood pressure
*D. increase blood pressure
10. What hormones contribute to the excretion of phosphate in the

urine
*A. calcitonin
B. Parathormone
C. insulin
D. aldosterone
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11. The stimulus for increasing renin secretion is
A. lower blood pressure

*C. formation of angiotensin II
D. increase osmotic blood pressure
12. Which serum enzyme belongs to the indicator
*A. AlAT
B. Acid Phosphatase
C. alkaline phosphatase
D. leucine aminopeptidase
13. The exchange of phosphorus is regulated in parallel with the

exchange:
A. fluorine;
B. sodium;
*C. calcium.
D. chlorine;
14. Choose a function that is not suitable for water in a living

organism:
a) participates in the formation of intracellular structures;

b) is the medium for most reactions;
*c) performs an energy function;
d) is a direct participant in some reactions.
15. What is the role of aldosterone?
*1. increases reabsorption of Na in the kidney tubules

2. slow down reabsorption of Na in the kidney tubules
3. slow down urinary Ca.
4.Increases blood glucose concentration.
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16. What substance is excreted in the urine in the form of ammonium
salts?
1. uric acid
2. urea
3.Hypuric acid
*4. ammonia
17. All substances of primary urine are divided into
*1. threshold and threshold less

2. penetrating
3. non-penetrating18. Under the metabolic water of water balance

understand:
a) water coming from food

*b) water formed during the work of the respiratory chain
c) water intracellular fluid
d) water, extracellular fluids
19. What cation is reabsorbed from the lumen of the tubules into the
cell by passive
transport?
1. kali
2. iron
3. calcium
*4. sodium
20. What are the processes of urine formation?
*1. filtration, reabsorption, secretion

2. initiation, conjugation, termination
3. transformation, transduction, hybridization
4. replication, transcription, translation
21. What is the role of vasopressin?
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1. enhances the excretion of water from the body
*2. increases kidney reabsorption
3. enhances the absorption of Ca in the intestine
4. Increases the concentration of ketone bodies.
22. One day in the urine is excreted:
a) 0.5 - 1.0 liters of water

b) 6.0 - 8.0 liters
*c) 1.5 - 2.5 liters
d) 3-6 liters
23. Where does the filtration process take place in the kidneys?
*1. in the renal corpuscle

2. in the proximal convoluted tubule
3. in proximal straight tubule
4. in the loop of Henle
24. Where is renin enzyme produced?
*1.in the kidneys

2. in the liver
3. in the heart
4. in the lungs
25. Properties of angiotensin
*1. vasoconstrictor effect

2. high blood pressure
3. vasopresin secretion stimulation
4. stimulation of aldosterone secretion
26. Which plasma protein contains copper ions in its composition?
*a) ceruloplasminb) transcortin

c) transferrin
d) interferon
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27. In the form of what compounds is NH3 excreted in the urine?
*1.ammonium salts
2. ketone bodies
3. alpha ketoacids
4. uric acid
28.The effect of calcitriol (a derivative of vitamin D3) on mineral

exchange
1) stimulation of calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine

*2) bone mobilization
3) increased calcium reabsorption in the kidney
4) reduced phosphate reabsorption in the kidney
29. What food causes alkalization of urine
*1) vegetables
2) meat
3) milk
4) flour products
30. The development of antidiuretic hormone stimulates:
*a) increase in osmotic pressure of blood;

b) decrease in osmotic pressure of blood;
c) drinking large amounts of drinking water;
d) eating fatty foods.
31. What is urine pH normal?
*1. 5.3 - 6.5

2. 1.2-2.0
3. 3.5-5.5
4. 9,5- 10
32. What is the substrate of the enzymatic action of renin enzyme in

the kidney?
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1. * angiotensinogen
2. trypsinogen
3. pepsinogen
4. urobilinogen
33. Effect of parathyroid hormone on mineral metabolism
1) bone mobilization
2) increased calcium releasing in the kidney
*4) stimulation of calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine
34. What food causes acidification of urine
*1) meat
2) milk
3) vegetables
4) flour products35. Among those listed, find a function that is not

suitable for sodium:
*a) regulation of osmotic pressure;

b) participation in the processes of excitation;
c) participation in maintaining acid-base balance;
d) are the main intracellular cations.
36. How does sodium reabsorb from the lumen of the tubules into the
cell?
*1. passive transport

2. active transport
3. through phosphate
4. due to water
37. How does Na get from kidney cells to extracellular fluid?
*1.active transport
2. passive transport
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4. due to water
38. Effect of calcitonin on mineral metabolism
1. inhibition of calcium mobilization from bones

2. bone mobilization
*3. increased calcium reabsorption in the kidney
4. reduced phosphate reabsorption in the kidney
39. Vasopressin is a hormone that has a powerful antidiuretic effect,

stimulating the
reverse flow of water through the membranes of the renal tubules.

What is its chemical
nature?
A. Steroid compounds
B. Carbohydrate
C. Derived amino acid
*D. Peptide
40. What is the percentage of plasma proteins in (percent)?
*1. 6.5-8.5
2. 5.0-5.5
3. 10-11
4. 1-3
41. Specify which enzymes are indicator?
*1. lactate dehydrogenase, aldolase

2. aldolase, amylase
3. pepsin, lactate dehydrogenase
4. lipase, aldolase
42. Choose normal urine components
1. sodium and potassium

*2. urea, creatinine
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3. amino acids, uric acid
4. protein, ketone bodies
43. The production of aldosterone stimulates:
a) increasing the concentration of calcium in the blood;*b) reducing the concentration

of Na + in the blood;
c) an increase in osmotic pressure;
d) a decrease in the concentration of angiotensin.
44. What trace element is part of ceruloplasmin?
1. iron
2. calcium
*3. copper
4. magnesium
45. Specify which substances belong to the group. Whole organic blood
thing?
*1. urea, creatine, uric acid

2. carbohydrates, fats, lipids
3. urea, fat, cretin
4. carbohydrates, fats, uric acid
46. What hormones help reduce blood calcium levels
1. calcitonin
*2. Parathyroid hormone
3. calcitriol (1,25-dioxyHKF)
4. insulin
47. What compounds are in the urine of an adult is normal
*a) creatinine, uric acid, K+

b) creatine, glucose, albumins
c) albumins, calcium ions, creatinine
d) creatinine, uric acid, Na+
48. Among those listed, find a function that is not suitable for Ca2+
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a) participate in blood coagulation;
b) participate in bone mineralization;
c) participate in muscle contraction;
*d) are involved in the relaxation of smooth muscles.
49. Specify the correct sequence for the location of serum proteins on
the electrophoregram?
1. albumin – L1-globulins – L2 globulins – beta globulins --- gamma globulins

2. albumin – L1-globulins – gamma globulins --- beta globulins --- L2 globulins
*3. Albumin – Beta-globulins – L2-globulins – L1-globulins --- gamma-globulins
4. albumin – L2-globulins – L1-globulins --- - gamma globulins --- beta globulins
50. What hormones are involved in the regulation of sodium-water

homeostasis
*1. aldosterone, vasopressin

2. triopeptides, insulin
3. thyroxin, glucagon
4. cortisol, thyroxinT: Сonnective tissue
1. Which types of reaction takes place in thje formation of collagen.
a) methylation
b) phosphorylation
c) dephosphorylation
*d) hydroxylation
2. Collagen is the only protein that contains amino acids:
A. aspartate and glycine;
*B. hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine;
C. aspartate and proline;
D. arginine and lysine;
3. When post-translational modification of collagen, ascorbic acid is involved in
hydroxylation:
A. threonine;
10
B. serine;
C. glutamate;
*D. lysine;
4. Connective tissue is characterized by the presence of
A. lipoproteins
V. metalloproteins
C. Chromoprotein
*D. Proteoglycans
5. The strength of collagen fibers is determined
A. the formation of a double helix of polypeptide chains
*B. formation of a triple helix of polypeptide chains
C. covalent bonds between myosin molecules
D. hydrophobic interactions between tropocollagen molecules
6. When hydrolyzing what protein is isodesmosine found?
*A. elastin
V. Collagen
S. ferritin
D. rhodopsin
hydroxylation:A. threonine;
B. serine;
C. glutamate;
*D. lysine;
9. What cation is necessary for the functioning of lysyl oxidase in the synthesis of
collagen
A. Co 2+
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B. Zn 2+
*C. Cu 2+
D. Na +
A. lipoproteins
B. metalloproteins
C. Chromoprotein
*D. Proteoglycans
12. What are the correct signs of fibronectin?
*A. is a glycoprotein
B. does not have multiple binding sites.
C. is a nucleoprotein
D. is a lipoprotein
*A. elastin
V. Collagen
S. ferritin
D. rhodopsin
14. In which protein is found isodesmosine?
*A. elastin
B. collagen
C. ferritin
D. rhodopsin
12
15. In the synthesis of amino acids are included in the collagen,
ascorbic acid is involved?
A. alanine, glycine
B. serine, aspartic acid
*C. hydroxyproline, hydroxylisin
D. lysine, valine16. The function of vitamin C is synthesis of:
*A. collagen
B. cholesterol
C. fatty acids
D. pyruvate
17. What substance containing elastin to provide cross-links?
*A. desmosine
B. myoglobin
C. actin
D. myosin
18. Which, amino acid provides a crosslinked elastin molecule?
A . alanine
B . leucine
*C. lysinnorrleusin
D . serine
19. Which amino acids are dominant in the collagen?
A. alanine, valine, leucine,

B. tryptophan, serine, histidine
*C. glycine, hydroxyproline, hydroxylisin
D. threonine, asparagine, glutamine
20. What are proteoglycans?
*A. high molecular weight carbohydrate-protein compounds
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B . high molecular weight lipid-protein compounds
C . high molecular weight nonprotein compounds
D. compounds consisting of proteins and phosphoric acid
21. Specify what substances are main substance of the extracellular

matrix of connective
tissue?
A . phosphoproteins
B . nucleoproteins
*C. proteoglycans
D. hemoproteins
22. Which types of reaction takes place in the formation of collagen?
A . methylation
B . phosphorylation
C . dephosphorylation
*D. hydroxylation23. Which amino acids are dominant in the collagen?
a) alanine, valine, leucine,

b) tryptophan, serine, histidine
*c) glycine, hydroxyproline, oxylysin
d) threonine, asparagine, glutamine
*a) high molecular weight carbohydrate-protein compounds

b) high molecular weight lipid-protein compounds
c) high molecular weight nonprotein compounds
d) compounds consisting of proteins and phosphoric acid
a) alanine
b) leucine
*c) lysinnorrleucine
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d) serineT: Biochemistry of muscle-7
1. It is stimulated in skeletal muscles during rest after very hard

physical activity?
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenolysis
*C..Gluconeogenesis
D. Glycogenesis
2. Which organs and tissues, a reserve of glucose (in the form of

glycogen) for all cells of the
body:
A. skeletal muscle
*B. the liver
C. brain
D. kidney
3. What is the function of actin and myosin?
A. transport
B. catalytic
C. regulatory
*D. contractile
4. An action potential arriving at the motor endplate causes release of
*a) acetylcholine which traverses the neuromuscular junction

b) sodium ions which binds to sodium receptors on the muscle membrane
c) calcium ions which initiate an action potential along the muscle fibre
d) noradrenaline which increases muscle metabolic activity
5. The two principal contractile proteins found in skeletal muscle are:
a) actin and troponin

*b) actin and myosin
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c) troponin and tropomyosin
d) myosin and tropomyosin
6. The trigger to initiate the contractile process in skeletal muscle is:
a) potassium binding to myosin

b) calcium binding to tropomyosin
*c) calcium binding to troponin
d) bind to actin
7. The sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells acts as a:
a) store of digestive enzymes

b) store of sodium ions
c) store of lipids
*d) store of calcium ionsT: Liver-10
1. Give the organ of synthesis of low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)
a) blood
b) muscles
*c) liver
d) heart
2. Give the microsomal enzyme catalyzing the oxidation reaction:
*A. monooxygenase
B. dioxygenase
C. catalase
D. peroxida
3. Patient 35 years was admitted to the hospital with yellowness of

the skin and eyes. At
laboratory examination found in the blood: total bilirubin - 99.5

umol/l, the free bilirubin -
16
60.4 μmol/l, ALT - 3.6 mmol/h·l, thymol test - 20 units. Bilirubin is
detected in urine.
A prognostic diagnosis of the patient:
*A) hemolytic jaundice
B) mechanical jaundice
C) infectious hepatitis, complicated by obstructive jaundice
D) sepsis.
4. The patient is diagnosed with «acute viral hepatitis». De Ritis’s

coefficient (AST/AlT) for
this disease:
A) does not change
*B) decreased
C) increased
D) changing not clearly
5. What biochemical studies you will spend for the differential

diagnosis of hemolytic and
obstructive jaundice?
*A) fraction of bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase activity.
B) reticulocyte count and erythrocyte

C) the contents of serum calcium and magnesium
D) number of fibrinogen and thrombin
6. In obstructive jaundice, there is a violation of the following?
A) feces dark brown
*B) feces discolored
C) is detected in blood serum high glucose
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D) in serum detected a decreased cholesterol content7. Bleeding in hepatic
failure develops due to:
A) vitamin a deficiency
*B) deficiency of vitamin K
C) lack of vitamin D
D) deficiency of vitamin B
8. Cytochrome P450 composition includes metal:
a) cobalt
*b) iron
c) magnesium
d) manganese
9. A deficiency of glucose -6-phosphate in the liver leads to
*1) accumulation of glycogen in the liver

2) Hyperglycees
3) increase the amount of lactate in the blood
4) glucosuria
10. An enzyme present in the liver and absent in muscle
*a) glucose-6phosphatase
b) hexokinase
c) pyruvate kinase
d) phosphrylaseT: Kidney+ Nerve tissue -29
1. Daily urinary creatinine release
*1. 0.1–0.2 g/day

2. 1.0–2.0 g/day
3. 10–20 g/day
4.1.0–2.0 mg/day
5. 10–20 mg/day
18
2. Congenital defect in the synthesis of the enzyme
homogentisinate-1,2-dioxygenase causes
1) phenylketonuria
2) Parkinson's disease
*3) alkaptonuria
4) albinism
5) homocystinuria
3. In the form of what appears NH3 compounds in the urine?
*a) ammonium salts

b) ketone bodies
c) alpha-keto
d) uric acid
4. Normal pH of the urine?
*a) 5,3- 6,5

b) 1,2- 2,0
c) 3,5-5,5
d) 9,5- 10
5. Process of filtration in the kidney takes place?
*A. in the glomeruli
B. in the proximal convoluted tubule

C. in the proximal tubule
D. in the loop of Henle
6. Where is the enzyme renin?
*A. kidney
B. liver
C. heart
D. lung
19
*A. ammonium saltsB. ketone bodies
C. alpha-keto
D. uric acid
8. Which metal ion is secreted in the urine from the kidneys?
*A. К
B. Nа
C. Мg
D. Мп
*A. 5,3- 6,5
B. 1,2- 2,0
C. 3,5-5,5
D. 9,5- 10
10. What is the substrate of the enzymatic action of the enzyme renin
in the kidneys?
*A. angiotensinogen
B. trypsinogen
C. pepsinogen
D. urobilinogen
11. What does the term polyuria?
*A. increase of volume of urine
B. reducing the daily amount of urine

C. absence of urine
D. the maintenance of glucose in the urine
12. What does the term oliguria?
A. the presence of hemoglobin in urine

B. the maintenance of glucose in the urine
20
*C. decreasing the daily amount of urine
D. increase of volume of daily urine
13. What is the symptom of absence of Urine?
*A . anuria
B . oliguria
C . polyuria
D. nicturia
14. Increase of volume of night urine than a day?
*A . nicturia
B . oliguria
C . Polyuria
D. anuria
15. What is the symptom of urine at a constant relative density equal

to the primary urine?
*A. isostenuria
B. polyuriaC. oliguria
D. anuria
16. What hormones involved in the regulation of sodium-water

homeostasis
*A. aldosterone, vasopressin
B. atriopeptidy, insulin
C. thyroxine, glucagon
D. cortisol, thyroxine
in the kidneys?
*A. angiotensinogen
B. trypsinogen
21
C. pepsinogen
D. Urobilinogen
18. Give the antidiuretic hormone:
A. thyroxine
B. testosterone
*C. vasopressin
D. oxytocin
19. Adrenaline is a hormone from:
A. pancreas
*B. adrenal cortex
C. of the adrenal medulla

D. the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
in the kidneys?
*a) angiotensinogen
b) trypsinogen
c) pepsinogen
d) urobilinogen.
*a) 5,3- 6,5

b) 1,2- 2,0
c) 3,5-5,5
d) 9,5- 10
*a) kidney
b) liver
c) heart
d) lung23. In the form of what appears NH3 compounds in the urine?
22
*a) ammonium salts b) ketone bodies c) alpha-keto d) uric acid.
*a) К b) Nа c) Мg d) Мп
26. Specify the content of neuroalbumin and neuroglobulin
*A. in the brain
B . kidney
C . spleen
D . heart
*a) in the brain

b) kidney
c) spleen
d) heart
28. What kind of stones are predominantly formed in acidic urine?
A. Calcium
B. Phosphate
C. carbonate
*D. cystine
29. What kind of stones are predominantly formed in alkaline urine?
*A. Phosphate
B. potassium
C. oxalate
D. UratnyeBiological oxidation
1. Which of the following are macroergic substrates?
a. glucose
b. amino acids
c. fatty acids
d. +creatine phosphate
23
2. Which of the following is universal high-energy compound
in humans?
a. glucose
b. glycogen
c. triacylglycerols
d. +ATP
3. Which of the following substances are formed as a result

of
functioning of the electron transport chain?
a. +Н2О, ATP
b. O2, H2O
c. ATP, Н2О2
d. Н2О2, O2
4. At what compartment of the cell is the electron transport

chain
located?
a. in microsomes
b. on the external mitochondrial membrane
c. +on the internal mitochondrial membrane
d. in the mitochondrial matrix
5. Which of the following enzyme participates in the

transport of
electrons from substrates to oxygen?a. hydrolase
b. lygase
c. isomerase
24
d. +cytochromoxidase
6. The sequence of components in the ETC is:
a. NAD – FAD – CoA – cytochromes

b. FAD – NAD – CoA – cytochromes
c. +NAD – FMN – CoQ – cytochromes
d. NAD – NADP – CoQ – cytochromes
7. How many molecules of ATP are formed in the ETC per

one pair
of electrons transferred from NADH2 to oxygen?
a. 12
b. 2
c. 38
d. +3
8. NAD is a derivative of vitamin:
a. В1
b. В2
c. В6
d. +РР
9. FAD is a derivative of vitamin:
a. В1
b. +В2
c. B6
d. PP10.Which of the following are components of the

electron transport
chain?
25
a. Cytochromes, CoA.
b. NAD, NADPH2.
c. +CoQ, cytochromes.
d. NAD, CoА.
11.According to the structure, cytochromes are:
a. lipoproteins
b. glycolipids
c. nucleoproteins
d. +hemoproteins
12.Which of cytochromes contains copper?
a. c1
b. c
c. +aa3
d. b
13.How many molecules of ATP are formed in the ETC per

one pair
of electrons transferred from FADH2 to oxygen?
a. 38
b. 12
c. +2
d. 3
14.At what compartment of the cell is the major amount of

ATP
synthesized?
a. endoplasmic reticulum
26
b. nucleusc. +mitochondria
d. cytoplasm
15.Which metabolic pathway is the major

extra-mitochondrial source
of NADH2 for the electron transport chain (ETC)?
a. Gluconeogenesis
b. Pentose phosphate pathway
c. +Tricarboxylic acid cycle
d. Glycolysis
16.Which of the following compounds are inhibitors of the

ETC?
a. ATP
b. ADP
c. CO2
d. +cyanide
17.Which enzyme is involved in the transfer of
electrons directly to oxygen?
a. superoxide dismutase
b. catalase
c. +cytochrome oxidase
d. peroxidase
18.Which of the following is the way of ATP formation?
a. microsomal oxidation
b. lipid peroxidation
c. amino acid decarboxylation
27
d. +oxidative phosphorylation
19.Which components of the ETC is inhibited by cyanides?a.

+cytochrome oxidase
b. CoQ
c. Complex I
d. NADH-dehydrogenases
20.Active part of NAD is:
a. adenine
b. pentose
c. +nicotinamide
d. isoalloxazine ring
21.Active part of FAD is:
a. adenine
b. nicotinamide
c. iron
d. +isoalloxazine ring
22.In which metabolic pathways does cytochrome oxidase

participate?
a. glycolysis
b. tricarboxylic acid cycle
c. +electron transport chain
d. pentose phosphate pathway
23.What is transferred by cytochrome oxidase?
a. protons Н+
b. hydrogen atoms
c. +electrons
28
d. oxygen
24.Which of the following structural feature is specific to

cytochromeoxidase?
a. simple enzyme
b. contains iodine
c. +contains copper
d. contains NAD
25.A copper containing oxidase is
a. +cytochrome oxidase
b. flavin mononucleotide
c. flavin adenine dinucleotide
d. xanthine oxidase
26. Cytochrome oxidase contains
a. Cu2+ and Zn2+

b. +Cu2+ and Fe2+
c. Cu2+ and Mn2+
d. Cu2+
27. A component of the respiratory chain in mitochondria

is
a. +coenzyme Q
b. coenzyme A
c. acetyl coenzyme A
d. coenzyme containing thiamin
28. The redox carriers are grouped into respiratory chain

complex
29
a. +in the inner mitochondrial membrane
b. in mitochondiral matrix
c. on the outer mitochondrial membrane
d. on the inner surface of outer mitochondrial membrane
29. The correct sequence of cytochrome carriers in

respiratory chain isa. cyt b—cyt c—cyt c1—cyt aa3
b. cyt aa3— cyt b—cyt c—cyt c1

c. +cyt b—cyt c1—cyt c—cyt aa3
d. cyt b—cyt aa3—cyt c1— cyt c
30. Reducing equivalents from pyruvate enter the

mitochondrial
respiratory chain at
a. FMN
b. +NAD
c. Coenzyme Q
d. Cyt b
31. Reducing equivalents from succinate enter the

mitochondrial
a. NAD
b. Coenzyme Q
c. +FAD
d. (D) Cyt c
32. The respiratory chain complexes acting as proton pump

are
30
a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. +I, III and IV
d. I and II
33. If the reducing equivalents enter from FAD in the

respiratory chain,
the phosphate oxygen ration (P:O) is
a. + 2
b. 1
c. 3d. 4
34. If the reducing equivalents enter from NAD in the

respiratory chain,
the phsphate/oxygen (P:O) is
a. 1
b. 2
c. +3
d. 4
35. One of the site of phsosphorylation in mitochondrial

respiratory chain
is
a. between FMN and coenzyme Q

b. between coenzyme Q and cyt b
c. +between cytochrome b and cytochrome c1
d. between cytochrome c1 and cytochrome c
36. Activity of cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by
31
a. sulphite
b. sulphate
c. arsenite
d. +cyanide
37.Chemiosmotic theory for oxidative phosphorylation has

been proposed
by
a. Chance and Williams

b. Pauling and Corey
c. S. Waugh
d. +P. Mitchell38. The number of ATP produced in the

oxidation of 1 molecule of
NADPH in oxidative phosphorylation is
a. +Zero
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
39.Which of the following is transferred by cytochromes in

the
electron transport chain (ETC)?
a. protons
b. +electrons
c. hydrogen atoms
d. oxygen
40.Which of the following is the active part of cytochromes?
32
a. adenine
b. nicotinamide
c. +iron
d. isoalloxazine ringComplex proteins
1. In sickle-cell anemia, the structure of which
protein
isimpaired?
a. albumins
b. globulins
c. +hemoglobin
d. immunoglobulins
2. The fraction of lipoproteins which responsible for

transport of
exogenous (dietary) lipids to various tissues is
a. +Chylomicrons
b. Very low density lipoproteins (VLDL)
c. Low density lipoproteins (LDL)
d. High density lipoproteins (HDL)
3. Chylomicrons responsible for
a. the transport of endogenously synthesized triglycerols

b. +for transport exogenous (dietary) lipids from intestine to the blood
c. transport cholesterol from liver to other tissues
d. transport cholesterol from peripheral tissues to liver
4. Low density lipoproteins (LDL) responsible for
33
b. the transport exogenous (dietary) lipids to various tissues
c. +the transport cholesterol from liver to other tissues
d. the transport cholesterol from peripheral tissues to liver
5. High density lipoproteins (HDL) responsible for
a. the transport of endogenously synthesized triglycerolsb. the transport

exogenous (dietary) lipids to various tissues
c. the transport cholesterol from liver to other tissues
d. +the transport cholesterol from peripheral tissues to liver
6. Very low density lipoproteins (VLDL) responsible for
a. +the transport of endogenously synthesized triglycerols

b. for transport exogenous (dietary) lipids to various tissues
7. Glycoproteins are conjugated proteins in which the

prosthetic group is
a. lipids
b. +carbohydrates
c. nucleic acids
d. Me ions
8. Nucleoproteins are conjugated proteins in which the

prosthetic group is
a. lipids
b. carbohydrates
c. +nucleic acids
d. Me ions
34
9. The nitrogenous base not present in DNA structure
a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. +Urasil
10. The nitrogenous base not present in RNA structure
a. Adenineb. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. +Thymine
11. Nucleic acids are the polymers of
a. +nucleotides
b. amino acids
c. nucleosides
d. nitrogenous bases
12. Nucleotides is composed of
a. +nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar and a phosphate

b. nitrogenous base, a pentose sugar
c. nitrogenous base and a phosphate
d. amino acid, a pentose sugar and a phosphate
13. Transfer RNA (tRNA)
a. +transfer amino acids form cytoplasm to ribosome

b. carries the genetic information for a protein from DNA to the
ribosome
c. is a structural and functional component of the ribosome
d. carries all the genetic information in the cell
35
14. Messendger RNA (mRNA)
a. transfer amino acids form cytoplasm to ribosome

b. +carries the genetic information for a protein from DNA to the
ribosome
d. carries all the genetic information in the cell15. Ribosomal RNA

(rRNA)
a. transfers amino acids form cytoplasm to ribosome

ribosome
c. +is a structural and functional component of the ribosome
16. The base pair G-C is more stable and stronger than A-T
due to
a. double hydrogen bond

b. +triple hydrogen bond
c. double phosphodiester bond
d. triple phosphodiester bond
17. The pyrimidine present in DNA but absent in RNA
a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. +Thymine
18. The pyrimidine present in RNA but absent in DNA
a. Adenine
36
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. +Urasil
19. Metalloproteins are
a. +Ferritin and transferring

b. Myoglobin, hemoglobin, cytochromes
c. Ovalbumine and casein
d. Keratine and elastine20. Hemoglobin HbA1 is made of
a. +two α- and two β-chains

b. two α- and two δ - (delta) chains
c. two α- and two γ- chains
d. two α- and two ω- chains
21. Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) is made of
a. two α- and two β-chains.

c. +two α- and two γ- chains
22. Myoglobine
a. +is the oxygen storage protein in skeletal muscle

b. is found in red blood cells and is the oxygen transport protein
c. functions as an electron carrier
d. catalase the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide
23. Hemoglobine
a. is the oxygen storage protein in skeletal muscle

b. +is found in red blood cells and is the oxygen transport protein
37
d. catalyzes the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide
24. Normal forms of hemoglobin are
a. +HbA1, HbA2, HbF

b. HbS, HbH (α-talassemia)
c. HbA1, HbA2, HbS
d. HbA2, HbF, HbS25. Abnormal forms of hemoglobin are
a. HbA1, HbA2, HbF

b. +HbS, HbH (α-talassemia)
c. HbA1, HbA2, HbS
d. HbA2, HbF, HbS
26. Normal derivatives of hemoglobin are
a. +HbO2, HbCO2,
b. HbS, HbA1, HbA2
c. HbCO, metHbOH
d. HbCO, HbCO2
27. Abnormal derivatives of hemoglobin are
a. HbO2, HbCO2,
b. HbS,HbA1, HbA2
c. +HbCO, metHbOH
d. HbCO, HbCO2
28. Sickle –cell anemia (HbS) is due to substitution of
a. +glutamate at six position of β-chain by valine (Glu→Val)

b. glutamate at six position of β-chain by glycine (Glu→Gly)
c. glutamate at six position of β-chain by serine (Glu→Ser)
d. glutamate at six position of β-chain by arginine (Glu→Arg)
38
29. Main physiological role of hemoglobin is
a. +transport of O2 and CO2

b. transport of O2 and CO
c. regulation of blood glucose level
d. transport of O2 and OH- groups30. Iron mainly exerts its

functions through the compounds
a. +hemoglobine and myoglobin

b. insuline and glucagon
c. transferrine and ferritine
d. ceruloplasmine and gusten
31. Hemoglobin is the most important chelate natural

compounds of
a. +iron
b. copper
c. manganese
d. zinc
32. Biologically important compounds of iron are
a. hemoglobin
b. myoglobin
c. cytochromes
d. +All of them
33. Main physiological role of hemoglobine is

39
d. transport of O2 and OH- groups
34. Ferritin is a
a. +storage form of iron

b. storage form of copper
c. transport form of iron
d. transport form of copper35. Transferrin is a
a. storage form of iron

c. +transport form of iron
d. transport form of copper
36. The protein that transfers the iron
a. hemosiderine
b. +transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
d. ferritin
37. Hemoglobin is the protein in the red blood cells and

transports oxygen
in the body. Determine the element, which is a complexing

in this
compound:
a. +Iron
b. Zinc
c. Magnesium
d. Calcium
38. The protein that is a storage form of the iron
40
a. hemosiderine
b. transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
d. +ferritin
39. Cytochromes are necessary for
a. +electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation

b. growth and bone formationc. formation of myelin sheaths in the
nervous systems
d. necessary to maintain the normal levels of vitamin A in serum
40. Which of following metalls is an integral component of

vitamin B12
a. Mn
b. Mg
c. Cu
d. +CoT: Blood biochemistry -13
1. In a patient suffering from chronic alcoholism, which enzyme

activity is increased:
A) acid phosphatase
B) aspartate aminotransferase
C) alpha-hydroxibutiratdehydogenase
*D) glutamate dehydrogenase
2. Damage to internal organs ("visceral alcoholism") develops as a

result of effects of
increased concentrations of:
A) urea
41
B) acetaldehydeC) hydrogen ions
D) active form of oxygen
3. How you think, what is observed at decrease number of gaptoglobin

in blood?
*A) gemoglobinuriya
B) kreatinuriya
C) glukosuriya
D) hypernitrogenemiya.
4. Under anaerobic conditions, accumulate in the blood:
*1. lactate;
2. glucose;
3. pyruvate;
4. amino acids;
5. Normal blood glucose level is:
*a) 3,3 - 5,5 mmol/l

b). 5.5 - 7.5 mmol/l
c) 1,5 - 3,5 mmol/l
d) 7,5 - 8,9 mmol/l
6. Natural anticoagulants:
*a) heparin
b) antithrombin
c) pelentan
d) sincumar
7. The percentage of formed elements in the blood
*a) 45%
b) 50%
c) 55%
d) 658. The life span of RBC
42
a) 100days
b) 110days
*c) 120days
d) 130days
9. Which of the following cations is required for the conversion of

prothrombin into active
thrombin by thromboplastin?
*a) Ca2+
b) Fe2+
c) Mg2+
d) Mn2+
10. A rise in the blood cholesterol may lead to a deposition of

cholesterol on the walls of blood
vessels. This causes the arteries to lose their elasticity and get stiffened.
This is called
a) Hypertension
b) Hypotension
c) Atherosclerosis
*d) Systolic pressure
11. During blood coagulation, thromboplastin is released by
a) RBC
b) blood plasma
c) leucocytes
*d) clumped platelets and damaged tissues
12. What is the name of iron-containing protein that gives red blood
vessels their colour?
a) hemocyanine
b) pyrite
43
*c) hemoglobin
d) myoglobin
13. The nitrogen-free organic substances of the blood include:
A. Urea, creatinine, uric acid
*B. carbohydrates, fats, lipids
C. Urea, Fat, Creatine
D. carbohydrates, fats, uric acidVitamins
1. Fat soluble vitamins are
a. +A, D, E, K
b. B1, B2, C, folic acid
c. B12, PP, C, pantotenic acid
d. A, D, B1, B2
2. The functionally active form of vitamin D is
a. cholecalciferol
b. ergocalciferol
c. dehydrocholesterol
d. +calcitriol
3. Vitamins are
a. +Accessory food factors

b. Generally synthesized in the body
c. Produced in endocrine glands
d. Proteins in nature
4. Preformed vitamin A is supplied by
a. +Milk, fat and liver

b. All yellow vegetables
c. All yellow fruits
44
d. Leafy green vegetables
a. soluble in alcohol
b. one or more propene units
c. +stored in liver
d. all these6. One manifestation of vitamin A deficiency is
a. painful joints
b. +night blindness
c. loss of hair
d. thickening of long bones
7. Deficiency of Vitamin A causes
a. +xeropthalmia
b. hypoprothrombinemia
c. megaloblastic anemia
d. pernicious anemia
8. An important function of vitamin A is
a. to act as coenzyme for a few enzymes

b. to play an integral role in protein synthesis
c. to prevent hemorrhages
d. +to maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue
9. Retinal is a component of
a. iodopsin
b. +rhodopsin
c. cardiolipin
d. glycoproteins
45
10.Retinoic acid participates in the synthesis of
a. iodopsin
b. +rhodopsin
c. glycoprotein
d. cardiolipin11.On exposure to light rhodopsin forms
a. +all trans-retinal
b. cis-retinal
c. retinol
d. retinoic acid
12. The structure shown below is of
a. +Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. +Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
14. The structure shown below is ofa. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. +Vitamin K
a. Vitamin A
46
b. +Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
16. The most potent vitamin D metabolite is
a. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
b. +1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
c. 24, 25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
d. 7-Dehydrocholesterol
17. Deficiency of vitamin D causes
a. +Ricket and osteomalacia

b. Tuberculosis of bone
c. Hypthyroidism
d. Skin cancer18. The β-ring of 7-dehydrocholesterol is

cleaved to form cholecalciferol by
a. Infrared light
b. Dim light
c. +Ultraviolet irridation with sunlight
d. Light of the tube lights
19. Calcitriol synthesis involves
a. Both liver and kidney+

b. Intestine
c. Adipose tissue
d. Muscle
20. The most important natural antioxidant is
a. Vitamin D
47
b. +Vitamin E
c. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin K
21. Vitamin K is found in
a. +green leafy plants

b. meat
c. fish
d. milk
22. Function of vitamin A:
a. Healing epithelial tissues

b. Protein synthesis regulation
c. Cell growth
d. +All of these23. Vitamin synthesized by bacterial in the

intestine is
a. A
b. C
c. D
d. +K
24. Vitamin K is involved in posttranslational modification

of the blood
clotting factors by acting as cofactor for the enzyme:
a. +Carboxylase
b. Decarboxylase
c. Hydroxylase
d. Oxidase
48
25. Vitamin K is a cofactor for
a. +Gamma carboxylation of glutamic acid residue

b. β-Oxidation of fatty acid
c. Formation of γ-amino butyrate
d. Synthesis of tryptophan
26. Dicoumarol is antagonist to
a. Riboflavin
b. Retinol
c. +Menadione
d. Tocopherol
27.The vitamin required for the formation of

hydroxyproline (in collagen)
is
a. +Vitamin C
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin Dd. Vitamin E
28. Both Wernicke’s disease and beri-beri can be reversed by
administrating
a. Retinol
b. +Thiamin
c. Pyridoxine
d. Vitamin B12
29. Vitamin B1 coenzyme (TPP) is involved in
a. +Oxidative decarboxylation
b. Hydroxylation
49
c. Transamination
d. Carboxylation
30. Riboflavin deficiency causes
a. +cheilosis
b. loss of weight
c. mental deterioration
d. dermatitis
31. Tongue smooth and purplishis in the deficiency of the

vitamin
a. +riboflavin
b. thiamin
c. nicotinic acid
d. pyridoxine
32. Demencia (anxiety, irritability, poor memory,

insomniais) found in
deficiency of the vitamin:
a. B1
b. B2c. +PP
d. B6
33. The pellagra preventive factor is
a. riboflavin
b. pantothenic acid
c. +niacin
d. pyridoxine
34. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of
50
a. ascorbic acid
b. pantothenic acid
c. pyridoxine
d. +niacin
35. The enzymes with which nicotinamide act as coenzyme

are
a. +dehydrogenases
b. transaminases
c. decarboxylases
d. carboxylases
36.The metabolite excreted in urine in thymine deficiency is
a. +pyruvate
b. xanthurenic acid
c. glucose
d. phenylpyruvate
37.The coenzyme directly concerned in synthesis of biogenic

amines is
a. tiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)

b. flavine adenine dinucleotide (FAD)
c. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+)d. +pyrodoxal phosphate
(PLP)
38.The active form of vitamin B1 is
a. +tiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)

c. nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+)
d. pyrodoxal phosphate (PLP)
51
39.The disease beri-beri is due to a dietary deficiency in
a. +vitamin B1 (thymine)
b. vitamin B2 (riboflavin)
c. vitamin B6 (pyrodoxine)
d. vitamin B12
40.The deficiency of vitamin B1 results in a condition called
a. +beri-beri
b. pellagra
c. demencia
d. scurvy
41.The vitamin riboflavin is part of the ________molecule.
a. ferrodoxin
b. +FAD
c. pyrodoxal phosphate
d. pyrophosphate
42.Flavin mononucleotide (FMN) and flavinadenine

dinucleotide (FAD)
are the coenzyme forms of
a. +vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2c. vitamin PP
d. vitamin B6
43.The flavin coenzymes FAD and FMN participate in
a. +oxidation-reduction reactions responsible for energy production

b. transamination and decarboxylation reactions
c. hydroxylation of proline and lysine
52
d. carboxylation reactions
44.Deficiency of which vitamin include chelosis (fissure at

the corners of
the mounts), glossits (tongue smooth and purplish) and

dermatitis?
a. Vitamin B1
b. +Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin PP
d. Vitamin B6
45.The active form of vitamine B6 is

d. +pyrodoxal phosphate (PLP)
46.The vitamin is closely associated with the metabolism of

amino acids is
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin PP
d. +vitamin B6
47.The coenzyme which participative in decarboxylation

and
transamination reactions isa. tiamine pyrophosphate (TPP)

53
48.The vitamin niacin is part of the _______ molecule.
a. ferredoxin
b. pyrodoxal phosphate
c. pyrophoaphate
d. +NAD+
49.The coenzymes NAD+ and NADP+ are synthesized from

the vitamin
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. +vitamin PP
d. vitamin B6
50.The active forms of vitamin PP are
a. FMN, FAD
b. +NAD+, NADP+
c. ADP, ATP
d. THF, FH4
51.The deficiency of niacin results in a condition called
a. beri-beri
b. +pellagra
c. demencia
d. scurvy
52.The disease which progressed in order dermatitis,

diarrhea, dementia isa. beri-beri
b. +pellagra
54
c. night blindness
d. scurvy
53.The vitamin B6 is part of the _______ molecule.
a. ferredoxin
b. +pyrodoxal phosphate
c. pyrophosphate
d. NAD+
54.The vitamin riboflavin is part of the _______ molecule.
a. ferredoxin
c. +FAD
d. NAD+
55.The daily requirement of niacin is
a. +15-20 mg
b. 1-1.5 mg
c. 75 mg
d. 3-5 mg
56.Vitamin C is considered as a
a. +water soluble
b. fat soluble
c. fat and water soluble
d. none of these
57.Vitamin C plays the role of a coenzyme ina.

oxidation-reduction reactions responsible for energy production
c. +hydroxylation of proline and lysine
55
58.The deficiency of ascorbic acid results in
a. beri-beri
b. pellagra
c. demencia
d. +scurvy
59.Citrus fruits, gooseberry, guava, green vegetables,

cabbage, spinach,
tomatoes, potatoes are rich in
a. +vitamin C
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin A
60.Biotin serves as
a. +a carrier of CO2 in carboxylation reactions

b. a carrier of activated acetyl or acyl groups
c. an acceptor or donor of one carbon units
d. a carrier of CH3 groups in methylation reactions
61.The active form of pantotenic acid is
a. +coenzymes A
b. tetrahydrofolat (THF or FH4)
c. pyrodoxal phosphate (PLP)
d. tiamine pyrophosphate62.Coenzyme A serves as

56
63.The active form of folic acid is THF serves as
a. a carrier of CO2 in carboxylation reactions

c. +an acceptor or donor of one carbon units
64.Folic acid deficiency may cause
a. +macrocytic anemia
b. pernicious anemia
c. night blindness
d. osteomalacia
65.Which of these is a symptom of vitamin A deficiency?
a. Osteoporosis
b. +Night blindness
c. Impaired blood clotting
d. Infertility
66.A deficiency of vitamin A leads
a. +xerophthalmia
b. rickets
c. pernicious anemia
d. demencia67.Deficiency of one of below given vitamins leads

to xerophthalmia, an eye
disease that results first in night blindness and eventually in

total
57
blindness.
a. +Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E
68.Biochemical functions of calcitriol (1,25 -DHCC) is
a. +regulation of calcium and phosphate levels in the plasma

b. preventing the non-enzymatic oxidation of various cell components
c. initiation the final stages of clot formation
d. transport one carbon units (formyl, methyl etc.)
69.The plasma calcium and phosphate levels are regulated

by
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin E
c. +vitamin D
d. vitamin K
70.An early sigh of retinol deficiency in human is
a. +night blindness
b. keratinization
c. rickets
d. scurvy
71.Vitamin B12 is useful for preventing and treatment of
a. scurvy
b. cataract
c. beri-berid. +pernicious anemia
58
72.The most prominent role of tocopherol is as a strong
a. +antioxidants
b. reducing agent
c. odixidizing agent
d. all of these
73.A deficiency of vitamin K results in a decreased level of
a. +protrombin
b. thrombin
c. fibrin
d. fibrinogen
74.What metal ion is specifically bound by vitamin B12?
a. +Cobalt
b. Copper
c. Zinc
d. Iron
75.A fat-soluble vitamin that regulates blood clotting is
a. vitamin A
b. +vitamin K
c. vitamin C
d. niacin
76.Which of these is a vitamin A precursor?
a. Cobalamin
b. Pyrodoxine
c. +β-carotined. Thiamine
59
77.Which of the following is coenzymatic form of vitamin
В1?
a. NAD
b. +TPP
c. pyridoxal phosphate
d. FAD
78.Thiamine pyrophosphate is coenzyme of
a. lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)

b. alanine aminotransferase (ALA)
c. +pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH)
d. aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
79.Pyrodoxal phosphate is coenzyme of

b. +alanine aminotransferase (ALA)
c. pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH)
80.In vitamin В1 deficiency, which of the following

symptoms are
observed?
a. megaloblastic anemia
b. vascularization of the cornea
c. gingival hemorrhages
d. +polyneuritis

В2?
60
a. TPP
b. +FADc. NAD
d. НSCоА
82.Vitamin В2 (riboflavin) is a component of
enzymes catalyzing reactions:
a. transfer of carboxyl groups

b. synthesis of new molecules
c. hydrolysis
d. +oxidative reduction reactions

symptoms are
observed?
a. vascularization of the cornea

b. softening and distortions of bones
c. +painful fissures at the corners of the mouth
d. xerophthalmia

РР?
a. TDP
b. FAD
c. +NAD
d. НSCоА
85.In vitamin PP deficiency, which of the following

symptoms are
observed?
61
a. diarhhea
b. dementia
c. dermatitis
d. +all of above86.In vitamin PP deficiency, which of the

following symptoms are
observed?
a. night blindness
b. +dementia
c. capillary hemorrages
d. hemeralopia

В6?
a. FAD, FMN
b. NAD, NADP
c. +pyridoxal phosphate
d. НSCоА
88.Vitamin В6 is a component of enzymes catalyzing

reactions:
a. phosphorylation of glucose
b. +transamination of amino acids
c. oxidation of lipids
d. decarboxylation of lipids
89.Deficiency of thiamine in the organism resultsin:
a. fatty liver
b. macrocytic anemia
62
c. +polyneuritis
d. night blindness
90.Vitamin В1 is called:
a. thymine
b. thymidine
c. thioredoxin
d. +thiamine91.Vitamin В2 is called:
a. biotin
b. pyridoxine
c. +riboflavin
d. thiamine
92.What is the daily requirement of the organism in ascorbic

acid
(vitamin C)?
a. 10 – 15 mg/day
b. +60 – 70 mg/day
c. 1 – 2 g/day
d. 30 – 40 mg/day
93.Vitamin РР is called:
a. +niacine
b. riboflavin
c. tiamine
d. pyridoxine
a. +pyridoxine
63
b. nicotinic acid
c. pyrimidine
d. riboflavin
95.In vitamin C deficiency, which of the following diseases is
observed?
a. pellagra
b. rickets
c. +scurvy
d. beri-beri96.Which are the major functions of vitamin C in

the body?
a. It is necessary for transamination reactions of amino acids

b. +It is necessary for hydroxylation of proline in collagen
synthesis
c. It is a factor of blood coagulation system
d. It produces reactive oxygen speciesT: Metabolism of protein
1. Name the protein located in the center of the palmitate synthase complex:
1) albumin;
2) globulin;
3) myosin;
4) * acyl transfer protein.
2. At which amino acids deficiency may occur fatty liver
a) serine
b) aspartic acid
c) valine
d) methionine
3. Dioxyphenylethylamine (dopamine) is
*1. biogenic amine
64
2. precursor to lipid synthesis
3. vasodilator agent
4 .tryptophan derivatives
4. A congenital deficiency of the enzyme

phenylalanine-4-monooxygenase (phenylalanine
hydroxylase) causes
*1) phenylketonuria
2) homocystinuria
3) alkaptonuria
4) albinism
5. Serotonin - product of decarboxylation
1. histidine
2. tyrosine
3. proline
*4. 5-hydroxytryptophan
6. Compounds formed from tyrosine
1. beta-aminobutyric acid
2. adrenaline
3. norepinephrine
*4. phenylalanine
1. gamma- aminobutyric acid

*2. adrenaline
3. insulin
4. dopamine
8. In the process of reductive amination of к-ketoglutaric acid is

involved1. NADP +
*2 .NADPH (H +)
65
3. FADH2
4. FMNH2
9. When putrefaction of phenylalanine in the intestine are formed
1. phenol, glycine
2. Skatole, indole
*3. cresol, phenol
10. Urea biosynthesis occurs in
1. kidney
2. bladder
3. pancreas
*4. livers
11. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach
1. denatures proteins
2. has a bactericidal effect
*3. activates pepsinogen
4 .creates optimum pH for pepsin
12. Alcaptonuria - congenital defect of metabolism
1. tryptophan
2. histidine
3. methionine
*4. tyrosine
13. Sickle cell anemia is associated with the replacement of:
*1. glu with val

2. glu with asp
3. val with leu
4. val with cys
14. The serum aspartate aminotransferase activity increases

dramatically with
66
1) kidney disease
2) pancreatitis
3) prostatitis
*4) myocardial infarction15. The main route of neutralization of ammonia

in the liver - urea formation. This
biochemical process begins with formation:
*a) carbamoylphosphate
b) citrulline
c) arginine
d) ornithine
16. Albinism is associated with metabolic disorders.
1 methionine
2 serine
3 cysteine
*4 tyrosine
17. Histamine in mast cells generated from the amino acid histidine by
the reaction:
*a) deamination
b) transamination
c) hydroxylation
d) decarboxylation
18. Transamination - the process of intermolecular transfer of amino

groups from:
*a) α-amino acid to α-keto acid

b) α-amino acid to α-hydroxy acid
c) an amine to α-keto acid
d) amine to α-hydroxy acid
19. Glycine may be formed from
67
1) lysine
2) valine
3) tyrosine
*4) serine
20. Which of these peptidase involved in the releasing of the peptide

from the N-terminal
amino acids:
a) carboxypeptidase
*b) aminopeptidase
c) pepsin
d) gastricsin
21. Skatol and indole are neutralized in the liver by
1. glycine
2. glutamate
3. alfa-ketoglutarate*4. uridinediphosphoglucuronic acid
22. Daily urea excretion with urine is normal.
1. 25–45 mg
2 .0.25–0.35 g
3. 2.5–3.5 g
*4. 20 – 25 g
23. Krebs cycle metabolite involved in transamination reactions
1) citrate
*2) alfa-ketoglutarate
3) succinate
4) fumarate
24. Aminopeptidases is produced in:
a) stomach
b) in the pancreas
68
*c) small intestine
d) large intestine
25. Stimulates the secretion of HCl in the stomach biogenic amine:
a) dopamine
*b) histamine
c) putrescine
d) cadaverine
26. Pyridoxal phosphate (PF) - coenzyme
1) amylases
*2) aspartate aminotransferase
3) monoamine oxidase
4) glutamate dehydrogenase
27. Urea synthesis occurs:
a) muscle
b)in the brain
*c) liver
d) in the kidneys
28. Ammonia in the brain cells is neutralized by
a) urea synthesis
b) formations of ammonium salts
*c) conversion of glutamate to glutamined) formations of alanine
29. In children, gastric pH varies in the range of 4.0-5.0. Name the

enzyme of gastric
juice, which is active under these conditions.
a) trypsin
b) pepsin
c) chymotrypsin
*d) rennin
69
30. Participate in the ornithine cycle
*1) citrulline, aspartate

2) lysine, pepsin,
3) alanine, methionine
4) alanine, creatine
31. Proenzyme pepsinogen converted into the active enzyme by the

action of:
a) chymotrypsin
b) trypsin
c) elastase
*d) hydrochloric acid
32. The process of transamination of amino acids
1. provides synthesis of biogenic amines

*2. occurs with the participation of pyridoxal phosphate
3. provides the formation of replaceable amino acids
4. leads to an increase in the total number of amino acids
33. Trypsinogen is transformed into trypsin by the action:
*a) enterokinase
b) pepsin
c) hydrochloric acid
d) gastricine
*1. 0.1–0.2 g/day

2. 1.0–2.0 g/day
3. 10–20 g/day
4.1.0–2.0 mg/day
35. Specify which enzyme is activated by hydrochloric acid?
*a) pepsin
70
b) trypsin
c) amylased) lipase
36. In the synthesis of creatine are involved
1) arginine, glycine, methionine

2) leucine, alanine, serine
3) asparagine, glutamic
4) serine, ornithine, histidine
37. Exopeptidase include:
a. pepsin
b. trypsin
c. rennin
*d. carboxypeptidase
38. Endopeptidase include:
a) dipeptidase
*b) pepsin
c) carboxypeptidase
d) aminopeptidase
39. Gastric juice newborns normally has pH:
1) 1,5 – 2,0
2) 3,8 – 5,8
*3) 7,5 – 8,0
4) 1,5 – 3,0
40. That causes an increase in pancreatic lipase activity:
a) pepsin
b) carbon dioxide
c) fiber
*d) a bile acid
71
41. Specify which substances are included in the group of nonnitrogen
organic
substances of blood?
*a) urea, creatinine, uric acid

b) carbohydrates, fats, lipids
c) urea, fat, peptide
d) carbohydrates, fats and uric acid
42. Name the enzymes involved in the hydrolysis of proteins in the

gastrointestinal tract
a) dipeptidase, lipase, amylase, pepsin, trypsin

b) trypsin, pepsin, dipeptidase, amylase, lipase
*c) pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin, aminopeptidase, carboxypeptidase
d) lipase transaminase, pepsin, trypsin, chimotripsin43. What substances are

involved in the first reaction of synthesis of creatine?
a) S- adenosylmethionin
*b) arginine, glycine
c) lysine, histidine
d) citrulline
44. Oxidative phosphorylation is carried out by transfer of electrons

and protons in the
mitochondrial respiratory chain, in collaboration with the

ATP-synthetase complex.
Where carriers are localized electrons, protons and ATP synthase?
*a) in the inner mitochondrial membrane

b) the outer membrane of mitochondria
c) In the cytoplasm
d) in the intermembrane space
72
organic

c) urea, fat, uric acid
a) transport
b) catalytic
c) regulatory
*d) contractile
a) 1,5 – 2,0
b) 3,8 – 5,8
*c) 7,5 – 8,0
d) 1,5 – 3,0
48. Oxygen is used in the cell for:
A. transamination of amino acids

B. lipolysis
*C. biological oxidation
D. protein synthesis
49. Which complexes is the final hydrogen acceptor?
A. NAD
B. FMN
C. cytochromes
*D. oxygen
73
50. Give the essential amino acid:
A. glutamic acid;
B. alanine;*C. valine;
D. histidine;
*A. enterokinase;
B. pepsin;
C. hydrochloric acid;
D. gastriksina;

action of:
A. chymotrypsin;
B. trypsin;
C. elastase;
*D. hydrochloric acid.

from the N-terminal
amino acids:
A. carboxypeptidase;
*B. aminopeptidase;
C. pepsin;
D. gastricsin;
54. Chymotrypsinogen proenzyme becomes active under the action of

the enzyme
A. enterokinase;
B. pepsin;
*C. trypsin;
74
D. elastase.
A. dopamine;
*B. histamine;
C. putrescine;
D. cadaverine;
A . stomach
B . in the pancreas
*C. small intestine
D . large intestine
57. Hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach of newborn catalyzes:
A. trypsin;
B. carboxypeptidase;
*C. rennin;
D. elastase;58. Indicate which of the amino acid under the influence of

the intestinal microflora is
formed phenol, cresol?
A. alanine
*B. tyrosine
C. serine
D. phenylalanine
59. Hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach catalyzes:
A. chymotrypsin;
C. dipeptidase;
*D. pepsin;
75
60. The end product of protein digestion in the gastrointestinal tract
is:
A. denatured proteins;
B. fatty acids;
C. carbohydrates;
*D. amino acids;
A. muscle
B. in the brain
*C. liver
D. in the kidneys
62. Which organs synthesized creatine?
A. liver, lung
B . liver, muscle
*C. kidney, liver
D. kidney, muscle
63. Formation of enzyme tyrosine from phenylalanine catalyzes:
A. monoamine oxidase;
B. phenylalanine-4-monooxygenase;
C. tyrosinase;
*D. tyrosine hydroxylase;
64. Enter an enzyme involved in the above reaction:
Аспартат Оксалоацетат
CH2
CН CH2 -NH2 CH2
CH2
76
?
ПФ-вит.В6
а-Кетоглутарат Глутамат
СООН
C=О
СООН
СООН
СООН
CН-NH2
СООН
CH2
СООН
C=О
СООН
CH2
СООН
A. glutaminase
B. aspartatecarboxylase
C. guanidineacetyltransferasa
*D. aspartate aminotransferase65. The main mechanism of neutralization of

ammonia in the body is the biosynthesis of
urea. Since the formation of any high-energy compounds begins the

urea cycle?
A. citrulline
B. arginine
C. fumaric acid
*D. carbamoylphosphate
77
66. What is the physiological effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid
(GABA)?
A. causes an increase in blood pressure

B. causes a decrease in blood pressure
C. has a hemostatic effect
*D. has an inhibitory effect on synaptic transmission in the central nervous system
67. Which amino acids involved in the synthesis of creatine?
A. lysine, tryptophan, threonine

B. arginine, methionine, tyrosine
*C. arginine, glycine, methionine
D. arginine, tryptophan, serine,

groups from:
*A. α-amino acid to α-keto acid;
B. α-amino acid to α-hydroxy acid;

C. an amine to α-keto acid;
D. amine to α-hydroxy acid;
the reaction:
A. deamination;
B. transamination;
C. hydroxylation;
*D. decarboxylation;
70. The main route of neutralization of ammonia in the liver - urea

formation. This
A. carbamoylphosphate
78
B. citrulline
C. arginine
*D. ornithine
71. To the true hormones, amino acid derivatives, include:
*A. thyroxine
B. growth hormone
C. lipotropic hormone
D. calcitonin
72. A derivative of the amino acid tyrosine is a hormone:
A. glucagon
*B. adrenaline
C. insulin
D. cortisol73. Specify the name of the enzyme involved in the conversion

of phenylalanine to
tyrosine
A. homogentensineoxidase
*B. phenylalanine hydroxylase
C. glutamateoxidase
D. ALT
74. The main way to neutralize toxic ammonia is localized:
A. in the kidney;
*B. in the liver;
C. in the nervous tissue;

D. in the muscle;
75. What products are formed by transamination between

alpha-ketoglutarate and
79
alanine:
A. aspartate and lactate

B. glutamate and lactate
*C. glutamate and pyruvate
D. glutamine and asparagine
76 . Which enzyme catalyses the following reaction:

CH2
CH2 CН-NH2
CH3
C=О CH2
CH2
ПФ-вит.В6
Аланин
а-Кетоглутарат Пируват Глутамат
СООН
C=О
СООН
СООН
СООН
CН-NH2
СООН
СООН
CH3
*A. alanine aminotransferase

B. aspartate aminotransferase
C. aminoacyltransferase
D. aminopeptidyltransferase
80
77. Hormone protein-peptide include:
*A. glucagon, vasopressin
B. thyroxine, epinephrine
C. cortisol, estrone
D. aldosterone, progesterone
78. What is free HCI of gastric juice?
A) 20-40 КЕ
*B) 10-20 КЕ
C) 40-50 КЕ
D) 50-60 КЕ79. In children, gastric pH varies in the range of 4.0-5.0.

Name the enzyme of gastric juice,
which is active under these conditions.
A. trypsin
B. pepsin
C. chymotrypsin
*D. rennin
80. Total acidity of gastric juice is?
A) 50-70 КЕ
B) 40-60 КЕ
C) 10-20 КЕ
*D) 20-40 КЕ
81. At which values of pH pepsin is active?
A) pH=12,0-14,0
B) pH=8,0-9,5
*C) pH=1,5-2,0
D) pH=5,0-7,0
82. At which amino acids deficiency may occur fatty liver?
81
A) серина
B) аспарагиновой кислоты
C) валина
*D) метионина
83. Parietal (membrane) of digestion occurs in:
A) oral cavity
B) colon
C) esophagus
*D) small intestine
84. Proteolytic enzyme is:
A) Lipase
*B) Pepsin
C) Maltase
D) Amylase
85. The final products of hydrolysis of proteins are:
A) fatty acids
B) monosaccharides
C) glycerine
*D) amino acids86. In the Krebs cycle Acetyl-CoA conjugate with:
*A. oxsaloacitate
B. citrate
C. isocitrate
D. fumarate
87. Function of the ubiquinone (KoQ) is:
A. increases the permeability of the mitochondrial membranes

B. inhibits the enzymes of the Krebs cycle
C. activates glucose
*D. part of the respiratory chain
82
and protons in the

*A. in the inner mitochondrial membrane

B. the outer membrane of mitochondria
C. on the outer mitochondrial membrane
D. in the intermembrane space
89. Maximum amount of ATP produced in the process:
A. oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate;

B. the oxidative decarboxylation of α-ketoglutarate;
C. glycolysis;
*D. citric acid cycle, coupled with the ETC
90. Prosthetic group of cytochrome P-450 is:
A. FAD
B. NAD
C. FMN
*D. Heme
91. In the process of oxidative phosphorylation, ATP is synthesized

from components:
*A. ADP + H3PO4

B. AMP 2 H3PO4
C. AMP + phosphocreatine
D. AMP + GMP
A . cobalt
*B . iron
83
C . magnesium
D . manganese
93. Importance of the mitochondrial respiratory chain is:
A. the accumulation of pyruvate

B. providing cells coenzyme NADH +
C. transfer of the hydrogen atoms on the ubiquinone
*D. synthesis of ATP
94. What are the percentage blood plasma proteins?
*A. 6,5-8,5
B. 5,0-5,5C. 10-11
D. 1-3
95. Specify which enzymes are an indicator?
*A. lactate dehydrogenase, aldolase

B. aldolase amylase
C. pepsin, lactate dehydrogenase
D. lipase, aldolase
96. What is the trace element is part of the cerulloplazmin?
A. iron
B. calciu
*C. copper
D. magnesium

organic substances of
blood?
*A . urea, creatinine, uric acid
B . carbohydrates, fats, lipids

C. urea, fat
84
D. carbohydrates, fats and uric acid
98. What substances are involved in the first reaction of synthesis of

creatine?
A. S- adenosylmethionin
*B. arginine, glycine
C. lysine, histidine
D. citrulline

A. dipeptidase, lipase, amylase, pepsin, trypsin

B. trypsin, pepsin, dipeptidase, amylase, lipase
*C. pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin, aminopeptidase, carboxypeptidase
D. lipase transaminase, pepsin, trypsin, chimotripsin
100. Under the influence of any factor trypsinogen is transformed

into active trypsin?
A. by the action of hydrochloric acid

B. under the action of chymotrypsin
*C. under the action of enterokinase (enteropeptidase) and autocatalytically
D. under the action of carboxypeptidases
101. At what pH is active pepsin?
A. рН = 12 -14
B. рН = 8 - 9,5
C. рН = 2 5 - 7
*D. рH = 1,5 – 2
102. Exopeptidase include:A. pepsin
B. trypsin
C. rennin
85
*D. carboxypeptidase
103. What toxic product produced from tryptophan by the microflora

of the large intestine:
A. serotonin
B. tryptamine
*C. indole
D. benzene
A. 1,5 – 2,0;
*B. 3,8 – 5,8;
C. 7,5 – 8,0;
D. 1,5 – 3,0;
A. dipeptidase;
*B. pepsin;
C. carboxypeptidase;
D. aminopeptidase;
106. Indicate which of the amino acids produced in the intestine

skatole and indole?
A. leucine,
B. alanine
C. tyrosine
*D. tryptophan
*A. pepsin
B. trypsin
C. amylase
86
D. lipase
108. The composition of gastric juice includes:
*A) chymosin
B) trypsinogen
C) sucrase
D) dehydrogenase
109. Hyperchlorhydria is-
*A) an increased content of hydrochloric acid in gastric juice
B) a state in which the gastric juice no calcium ionsC) a condition in which gastric
juice no sodium ions
D) a condition where in gastric juices decrease content of hydrochloric acid
110. The food is in a mouth:
A) 1-2 min.
B) 5-10 min.
C) 10-60 sec.
*D) 15-20 sec.
111 . Main enzymes of a stomach?
*A) the proteolytic
B) lypolitich
C) amylitich
D) nuclease
112 . Achlorhydria is -
*A) state at which in gastric juice there is no hydrochloric acid
B state at which in gastric juice is absent calcium ions

C) state at which in gastric juice is absent sodium ions
D) state at which in gastric juice the content of hydrochloric acid is lowered
87
113. The composition of pancreatic enzyme secretion includes
everything except:
A) lipase
B) protease
C) nuclease
*D) enterokinase.
114. Hyperacidity is:
A) a decreased content of hydrochloric acid in gastric juice

B) a state in which the gastric juice no calcium ions
C) a condition in which gastric juice no sodium ions
*D) a condition where in gastric juice increased content of hydrochloric acid
*a) 6,5-8,5
b) 5,0-5,5
c) 10-11
d) 1-3.
*a) lactate dehydrogenase, aldolase

b) aldolase, amylase
c) pepsin, lactate dehydrogenase
d) lipase, aldolase
117. What is the trace element is part of the cerulloplasmin?
a) ironb) calcium
*c) copper
d) magnesium

creatine?
88
d) citrulline.1. Which substance is a second messenger in the action of

glucagon?
A. d-AMP
B. d-CMP
*C. c-AMP
D. d-GMP
2. The products of the xanthine oxidase reaction can be
1. adenine
*2. uric acid
3. urea
4. hydrogen peroxide
3. Synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides occurs in
1. nucleus
2mitochondria
3. ribosomes
*4. cytoplasm
4. The final decay product of adenosine in humans.
1. beta alanine
2. xanthine
3. inosinic acid
*4. uric acid
5. Hyperuricemia occurs
*1. gout
2. glycogenosis
3. phenylpyruvic oligophrenia
4. beriberi
5. Lesch-Nyana syndrome
89
6. The nucleoside is
1. cytosine
2. uracil
*3. guanosine
4. adenosine triphosphate
7. The end product of the breakdown of purine nucleosides in humans

is
1) xanthine
2) hypoxanthine
*4) uric acid

is
1. xanthine2. hypoxanthine
3. urea
*4. uric acid
9. The structural components of DNA are:
a) dihydroxyuracil
*b) deoxyribose
c) phosphoric acid
d) thymine
10. Protein Kinase is activated
1. TAG
2. MAGE
3. DAG
*4. cAMP
11. Translation - is process:
A. transport of mRNA to ribosomes;

B. transport of amino acids to the ribosomes;
90
C. biosynthesis of daughter chain of DNA;
*D. biosynthesis of protein on mRNA.
12. Final step in the translation – is binding Okazaki fragments;
A. termination of protein synthesis;

B. modification of the polypeptide chain;
*C. elongation of the polypeptide chain of the protein.
D. initiation of protein synthesis
13. The process of protein synthesis termed:
A. replication;
B. transcription;
*C. translation;
D. reparation
14. The part of the large subunit of the ribosome, which localizes the
growing peptide chain is
called:
A. aminoacyl;
*B. peptidyl;
C. initiation;
D. the TATA portion.
15. Specify the function of reverse transcriptase / reverse

transcriptase /
*A. catalyzes the biosynthesis of DNA on a template of RNA
B. catalyzes the biosynthesis of RNA on template DNA

C. catalyzes the biosynthesis of DNA on template DNA
D. catalyzes the biosynthesis of an RNA template RNA16. What is the sequence

of steps of protein synthesis?
91
*A. activation of amino acids → initiation→ elongation → termination →
postsynthetic
modification of proteins
B. initiation of an active amino acids → elongation→ termination → postsynthetic

modification of
proteins
C. initiation → elongation → activation of amino acids →termination →

postsynthetic
D. postsynthetic modification of proteins →termination → elongation →initiation
17. Which enzyme is catalyzed reaction of the activation of amino

acids in the protein
biosynthesis?
A. carbamoyl
B. DNA synthetase
* C. an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
D. replicase
18. The genetic code - a sequence of:
A. nucleotides in rRNA;
B. nucleotides in tRNA;
C. amino acids in the protein H1;
*D. nucleotides in the DNA;
19. For what properties of the genetic code is characteristic expression:

"the meaning of
codons is the same for all living things":
*A. universality;
B. specificity;
92
C. unambiguity;
D. linearity
20. Which property of the genetic code corresponds to the expression:

a single amino acid can
encode several triplets:
*A. the degeneracy;
B. the triplet;
C. flexibility;
D. specificity;
21. Properties of the genetic code?
*A. linearity, continuity, unambiguity, degeneracy, the presence of a nonsense codon
B. non-linearity, continuity, unambiguity, degeneracy, versatility, availability of

nonsense
codons
C . linearity, continuity, unambiguity, degeneracy, versatility, availability nonce
codons
D. linearity, continuity, degeneracy, versatility
22.What is the continuity of the genetic code?
*A. the absence of signals indicative of the end and the start codon of one another in
m-RNA
B. the absence of signals indicating the end of a single polypeptide chain and the start
of another
C. absence of signals indicative of the end and the start codon of one another in the
tRNA
D. the presence of signals indicating the end and the start codon of one another in
m-RNA23. What is the mutation?
*A. a change in the genome
B. changes in the mRNA

C. changes in the p-RNA
93
D. changes in the t-RNA
24. Restoration of the structure of DNA when it is damaged is called:
A. translation;
B. replication;
C. transcription;
*D. reparation;
25. The third stage of the translation process is called:
A. termination;
B. recognizing;
*C. elongation;
D. processing;Topic: Water-salt metabolism (50 вопросов)
A. protective
B. nutritional
*C. transportation
D. hormonal

arteries?
A. histamine
B. serotonin
*C. adrenaline
D. angiotensin

94

A. calcitriol
*Bn. Calcitoni
C. insulin
D. aldosterone

are involved:
*B. aldosterone;
C. prostaglandins;
D. erythropoietin;
.

body?


95

urine
*A. calcitonin
B. Parathormone
C. insulin
D. aldosterone

*A. AlAT
B. Acid Phosphatase

exchange:
A. fluorine;
B. sodium;
*C. calcium.
D. chlorine;

organism:
96


salts?
1. uric acid
2. urea
3.Hypuric acid
*4. ammonia

2. penetrating

understand:

cell by passive
transport?
1. kali
97
2. iron
3. calcium
*4. sodium



b) 6.0 - 8.0 liters
*c) 1.5 - 2.5 liters
d) 3-6 liters

*1.in the kidneys

2. in the liver
3. in the heart
4. in the lungs
98


c) transferrin
d) interferon
*1.ammonium salts
2. ketone bodies
3. alpha ketoacids
4. uric acid

exchange

*1) vegetables
2) meat
3) milk
4) flour products

99
*1. 5.3 - 6.5

2. 1.2-2.0
3. 3.5-5.5
4. 9,5- 10

the kidney?
2. trypsinogen
3. pepsinogen
4. urobilinogen
*1) meat
2) milk
3) vegetables


100
cell?

2. active transport
4. due to water
*1.active transport
4. due to water


stimulating the

nature?
B. Carbohydrate
*D. Peptide
*1. 6.5-8.5
2. 5.0-5.5
101
3. 10-11
4. 1-3

4. lipase, aldolase


1. iron
2. calcium
*3. copper
4. magnesium
thing?

102
1. calcitonin
4. insulin




homeostasis

4. cortisol, thyroxinMetabolism of lipids -143
1. Specify the enzyme catalyzing the formation of acetoacetyl-CoA in the

synthesis
of cholesterol:
103
a) Acetyltransferase +
b) Acylsynthase
c) Acylase
d) Ketoacyl-APB reductase
2. Acetyl CoA from mitochondria to cytosol is transferred in the
composition:
a) citrate +
b) oxaloacetate;
c) succinate;
d) fumarate.
3. In the synthesis of which substances is NADPH2 formed in the pentose
cycle
used?
a) ATP synthesis
b) in the synthesis of lipids / high fatty acids, cholesterol / +
c) in the synthesis of NK
d) in the synthesis of glucose
4. The regulatory enzyme for the synthesis of higher fatty acids is:
a) acetyl transcylase;
b) malonyl transcylase;
c) ketoacyl reductase;
d) acetyl CoA carboxylase +5. The donor of methyl groups for the
synthesis of phosphatidylcholine from
phosphatidylethanolamine is:
a) S-adenosylmethionine +
b) methylmalonyl-CoA;
c) propionyl-CoA;
d) acetyl CoA
104
6. In the liver of cholesterol is formed:
a) Vitamin D3 +
b) hippuric acid;
c) animal indican;
d) Acetyl CoA;
7. Specify the enzyme catalyzing the conversion of beta-hydroxy-beta-
methylglutaryl-CoA in the synthesis of cholesterol:
a. Acetyltransferase
b. Acylsynthase
c. Acylase
d. HMG-CoA synthase +
8. What is the name of the complex of enzymes involved in the synthesis
of FA
a) succinate dehydrogenase
b) acetaldehyde transferase
c) acyl transfer protein / ACP / +
d) glutamate dehydrogenase9. Synthesis of fatty acids proceeds to:
a) cytoplasm+
b) mitochondria;
c) lysosomes;
d) the core;
10. An activator of acetyl CoA carboxylase is:
a) 2) malate;
b) 3) citrate; +
c) 4) glycerate;
d) 5) ATP.
11. Choose statements that correctly characterize HDL:
a) synthesis and decay occurs in the kidneys;
105
b) synthesis and decay is carried out in the cells of the intestinal mucosa;
c) are a class of lipoproteins, the most protein-rich; synthesis and decay
occurs
in the liver +
d) What is the key cholesterol synthesis reaction
12. Specify the amino acid involved in the formation of
phosphatidylserine from
phosphatidylethanolamine:
a. alanine
b. methionine
c. glycined. L-serine +
13. In which cell organelles does the synthesis of saturated fatty acids
occur?
a) 1.in the endoplasmic reticulum
b) 2. in lysosomes
c) 3. in the cytoplasm +
d) 4.in the mitochondria
14. Indicate the process that is the source of NADPH + H + for the
synthesis of
higher fatty acids:
a) glycolysis;
b) oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate;
c) β-oxidation of fatty acids;
d) the pentose phosphate cycle of glucose oxidation. +
15. Synthesis of fatty acids differs from the oxidation of fatty acids by the
following metabolite:
a) 2) malonyl-CoA;
b) 3) acetyl CoA;
c) 4) β-ketoacyl-CoA; +
106
d) 5) δ-ketoacyl-CoA.
16. Indicate the function of phospholipids in the body:
a) the main components of the cell membrane; +
b) steroid hormone precursors:
c) end products of lipolysis;
d) sources of energy for cellular metabolism.17. What type of
lipoproteins removes excess cholesterol from tissues:
a. chylomicrons;
b. VLDL;
c. LDL;
d. HDL +
18. Which of the following particles transport mainly triglycerides from
the
intestine to peripheral tissues?
a. Micelles
b. Chylomicrons +
c. Very low density lipoproteins
d. High-density lipoproteins.
19. Specify the donor of methyl groups in the synthesis of
glycerophospholipids ?:
a. serine
b) 2.methionine
a. S-adenosylmethionine +
b. ethanolamine
20. Specify a substance that can inhibit cholesterol biosynthesis:
a. insulin;
b. androgens;
c. glucagon; +
107
d. histamine;21. Cholesterol in the adrenal cortex is used to:
a. Synthesis of vitamin D.
b. Synthesis of cortisol. +
c. Construction of the membrane.
d. Fatty acid synthesis.
phosphotylcholine?
a. serine
b) 2.methionine
b. ethanolamine
22. Which of the following classes of serum lipoproteins are the main
transport
form of triacylglycerides:
a) LDL;
b) VLDL; +
c) bile acids;
d) proteolipids.
23. For the synthesis of fatty acids is required:
a. glucose-6-phosphate;
b. acetyl CoA; +
c. ADP;
d. methionine.
23.Reducing equivalents in the reactions of higher fatty acid biosynthesis
are:a. FADH2;
b. FMNH2;
c. NADPH2 +
d. KoQ.
108
24. Phosphatidic acid is synthesized in the process:
a. glycerol phosphorylation;
b. recovery of dioxyacetone;
c. hydrolysis of triacylglycerides;
d. esterification of glycerol-3-phosphate +
25. Reducing equivalents in cholesterol biosynthesis are:
a. FADH2;
b. FMNH2;
c. NADH2;
d. NADPH2; +
26. Select the component that participates in the reaction of
transformation of
GMG-CoA into mevalonat:
a. HMG-CoA.
b. HMG-CoA reductase. +
c. NADH2
d. HMG-CoA synthetase26. Indicate an enzyme catalyzing the following
reaction for the synthesis of
triglycerides that occurs in the liver.
a. glycerol phosphate-3-dehydrogenase
b. Diglyceride acyltransferase +
c. glycerol synthase
d. Phosphatidate hydrolase
27. Indicate which of the above substances is a source of acetyl-CoA,
followed by
the synthesis of fatty acids?
a. citrate +
b. carnitine
109
c. malate
d. succinate
28. Biotin as a coenzyme is part of the enzyme:
a. β-ketoacyl-APB synthase;
b. triacylglyceride;
c. * acetyl CoA carboxylase; +
d. thiolase.
29. Indicate the stage of the process of biosynthesis of higher fatty acids,
which
uses CO2:
a. synthesis of acetyl-CoA from one-carbon fragments;
b. ATP-dependent synthesis of malonyl-CoA from acetyl-CoA; +
c. the conversion of malonyl-APB to β-ketobutyryl-APB;
d. transition β-ketoacyl-APB to β-hydroxyacyl-APB.30. An increase in
the number of triacylglycerides in adipose tissue is promoted by
the hormone:
a. glucagon;
b. thyroxin;
c. cortisol;
d. insulin +
31. What high energy substance is involved in the synthesis of
phospholipids?
a. GMP
b. CTP +
c. UDP
d. UTP
32. Specify an enzyme that catalyzes the following reaction for the
synthesis of
triglycerides, which occurs in the liver.
110
b. glycerol synthase
c. Phosphatidate hydrolase +
d. glycerol phosphate acyltransferase
33. How many moles of NADPH2 must be expended to synthesize one
mole of
palmitic acid?
a. 12 moles
b. 14 moles +
c. 36 moles
d. 20 moles.34. In which tissues lipogenesis is particularly active:
a. in the muscles and liver;
b. in the liver and spleen;
c. in the liver and adipose tissue; +
d. in adipose tissue and lungs;
35. Specify the correct scheme for the synthesis of phosphatidylcholine
a) phosphatidic to-ta dioxyacetone phosphate phosphatidylethanolamine
phosphatidylcholine
b) phosphatidic to-that phosphatidylserine phosphatidylcholine
phosphatidylethanolamine
c) Phosphatide to-that phosphatidylserine phosphatidylethanolamine
phosphatidylcholine +
d) phosphatidic to-ta phosphatidylethanolamine phosphatidylserine
phosphatidylcholine
36. Name the regulatory enzyme for cholesterol synthesis:
a. hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA-lyase;
b. hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA reductase; +
c. hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA synthetase;
111
d. β-ketothiolase.
37. The coenzyme HMG-CoA - reductase is:
a) FAD.
b) NADPH. +
c) FADN2.
d) NADP38. Specify the enzyme catalyzing the interconversion of
phosphatidic acid and
glycerol-3-phosphate in the synthesis of triglycerides, which occurs in the
liver.
c. Glycerolkinase
d. glycerol phosphate acyltransferase +
39. Specify the function that HCOco performs in the process of synthesis
of
triacylglycerides:
a. transports fatty acids;
b. activates fatty acids; +
c. decarboxylates fatty acids;
d. activates glycerin and fatty acids
40. Indicate intermediate matter in the process of biosynthesis of
triglycerides in
tissues.
a) glyceric acid
b) lycerol-3-phosphate +
c) dioxiacetone phosphate
d) malonyle CoA
41. The precursor of phosphatidylcholine is:
a. phosphatidylethanolamine; +
112
b. glycerol-3-phosphate;
c. UDP-glucose;
d. UDF-choline42. What metabolite of lipid metabolism is common in the
synthesis of ketone
bodies and cholesterol?
a) Squalene
b) lanosterol
c) mevalonic acid
d) beta-hydroxy-beta-methylglutaryl-CoA +
43. Acetyl-CoA transporter from mitochondria to the cytoplasm through
the
mitochondrial membrane serves as:
a. malate; +
b. citrate;
c. creatine;
d. aspartate
44. What compound is formed in the first cycle of the synthesis of FA:
a) CH -CH = CH-CO-S-APB
b) СНз-СН-СН-СО-СН-СО-S-АББ
c) CH3-CH2-CH2-CO-S-APB +
d) NOOS-CH-CO-S-APB
45. Specify the substrate from which glycerol-3-phosphate is formed
during the
biosynthesis of triacylglycerides in the kidneys and liver:
a. glyceraldehyde phosphate;
b. glycerin; +
c. dioxiacetone phosphate;d. pyruvic acid.
46. Cholesterol synthesis is most actively carried out in:
113
a. the kidneys;
b. liver; +
c. the intestines;
d. adrenal cortex;
47. What is the enzyme catalyzing the conversion of glycerol to
glycerol-3-
phosphate in the synthesis of triglycerides, which occurs in the kidneys,
in the
intestinal wall?
a. glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase
b. glycerol phosphatase
d. glycerolkinase +
during the
biosynthesis of triacylglycerides in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue:
b. glycerin;
c. glyceric acid;
d. dioxyacetone phosphate; +
49. The donor of methyl groups for the synthesis of phosphatidylcholine
from
a. tetrahydrofolic acid;
b. S-adenosylmethionine; +c. methylmalonyl-CoA;
d. acetyl CoA
50. Indicate the compound from which cholesterol is synthesized:
a. Crotonyl-CoA;
b. Palmitoyl-CoA;
114
c. acetyl CoA; +
d. butyryl CoA.
51. The process of synthesis of higher fatty acids is localized in:
a. cytoplasm; +
b. mitochondria;
c. the core;
d. lysosomes.
52. The number of ATP produced when a molecule of acetyl CoA is
oxidized
through citric acid cycle
a) 12
b) 24
c) 38 +
d) 28
53. The relation of HMP shunt and lipid synthesis is
a. Ribose
b. NADPH +
c. NADd. ATP
54. Synthesis of 2,3-biphosphoglyceride occurs in the tissue namely
a) liver +
b) Kidney
c) Erythrocytes
d) Brain
55. The content of triacylglycerols in the Chylomicrons is approximately
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 85%
d) 60%
115
56. Allosteric enzyme regulating the synthesis of fatty acids
a) acetyl CoA carboxylase +
b) hexokinase
c) phosphofructokinase
d) lipase
57. Lipids, containing phosphoric acid residue
a. MG
b. DG
c. TG
d. phosphatidic acids +58. Lipolysis in adipose tissue is inhibited
a. adrenaline
b. glucagon
c. thyroxine
d. insulin +
59. The precursor of eicosanoids
a. palmitate
b. arahinate
c. arachidonate +
d. stearate
60. Co-enzyme in cholesterol and fatty acid biosynthesis reactions is
a. NADH
b. FADH2
c. NADPH +
d. TPP
61. Acetyl-CoA is involved in the synthesis
a. glycerin
b. acetoacetate. +
116
c. pyruvate
d. malonate62. The level of cholesterol in the blood increases with the
introduction
a) insulin +
b) adrenaline
c) somatotropin
d) glucocorticoids
63. Acetyl CoA carboxylase inhibit
a. biotin.
b. ATP
c. palmitate +
d. avidin
64. Emulsification of fat in the digestive tract is most effectively carried
out.
a) bile salts, unsaturated fatty acids and monoacylglycerols +
b) bile pigments and acids
c) organic and mineral acids
d) cholesterol and steroid hormones
65. In the synthesis of Fatty acids take part:
a. NAD and FAD
b. CTP and UTP
c. АCP and NADPH(Н+) +
d. carnitine and phosphate
66. From cholesterol can be synthesizeda. diacylglycerols
a. bile acids +
b. sex hormones
c. glucocorticoids
67. Hormones that activate hormone-sensitive lipase in adipocytes
117
a. adrenaline and norepinephrine +
b. prostaglandins and insulin
c. oxytocin and vasopressin
d. thyroxin and glucocorticoids
68. Inhibit the lipolysis of triacylglycerols in adipocytes.
a) catecholamines
b) prostaglandins
c) 3. glucocorticoids +
d) glucagon
69. THF involved in the synthesis
a. serine
b. methionine +
c. tyrosine from phenylalanine
d. glutamic acid from histidine
70. In the biosynthesis of ketone bodies and cholesterol are involveda.
PDH
b. succinyl-CoA
c. hydroxy-methylglutaryl-CoA +
d. TG
71. Eicosanoids are formed from arachidonic acid by
a) lipoxygenation +
b) methylations
c) decarboxylase
d) cyclo-oxygenation
72. The final product of the action of fatty acid synthase
a) butiryl CoA +
b) palmitic acid
c) stearic acid
118
d) oleic acid
73. Antiatherogenic properties possess:
a) HDL +
b) LDL
c) LDL
d) Cholesterols74. Ketone bodies
a. acetyl CoA and succinyl CoA
b. acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate +
c. acetoacetyl CoA and propionyl CoA
d. pyruvate and malate
75. The following processes occur in mitochondria
a. beta-oxidation of fatty acid +
b. lipolysis triacylglycerols
c. synthesis of phospholipids
d. citrate synthesis
76. The synthesis of higher fatty acids proceeds in
a) core
b) ribosomes
c) cytoplasm +
d) Golgi complex
77. Lipids in the human body does not perform the next function:
a) structure
b) immune +
c) energy
d) electrically insulating78. The chain elongation of higher fatty acids
(C18, C20 ...) occurs in
a) core
b) lysosomes
119
c) cytoplasm +
d) Golgi complex
79. What is the biological role of lipoproteins in the body?
a) reserve of proteins
b) perform the contractile function
c) transport of lipids in the body +
d) a source of energy
80. In the synthesis of phosphoglycerolipids participate
a. triacylglycerol’s
b. phosphatidic acid +
c. sphingolipids
d. cytidine triphosphate
81. Prostaglandins are synthesized in humans from acid
a. oleic
b. palmitic
c. stearic
d. Arachidonic +82. Which carriers carry transport of exogenous dietary
fat from the intestine into
the tissue:
a) VLDL
b) LDL
c) HDL
d) chylomicrons +
83. Give an enzyme involved in the digestion of triacylglycerols of
mother's milk
in infants:
a) an amylase
b) lingual lipase +
120
c) phospholipase
d) a bile acid
84. Transport of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver is
performed
a) HDL +
b) LDL
c) VLDL
d) bile acids
85. What toxic product produced from tryptophan by the microflora of
the large
intestine:
a. serotonin
b. tryptamine
c. indole +
d. leucine86. Give the blood proteins that transport free fatty acids:
a) globulins
b) hemoglobin
c) β-lipoproteins
d) albumins. +
87. Please indicate a precursor for bile acid synthesis?
a) glycerol
b) Choline
c) triglycerides
d) cholesterol +
88. Restored NADP for the biosynthesis of fatty acids and cholesterol is
supplied
mainly due to
a. glycolysis
121
b. cycles of Krebs
c. beta-oxidation of high fatty acids +
d. amino acid deamination
89. Cholesterol is substrate for synthesis:
a) vitamin K
b) vitamin D +
c) vitamin E
d) bile acids90. Where does synthesized chylomicrons?
a) in the stomach
b) in lymph
c) in blood
d) in the intestinal wall +
91. Lipid compounds are:
a) soluble in water
b) insoluble in water but soluble in nonpolar organic solvents +
c) have a similar structure
d) having similar physiological functions
92. Synthesis of ketones takes place:
a) liver +
b) kidney
c) muscle
d) the spleen
93. Which of these lipids are a group of phosphoglycerides:
a) phosphatidylcholine +
b) cerebrosides
c) triglycerides
d) phosphatidic acid
122
94. Give the organ of synthesis of low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)a)
blood
b) muscles
c) liver +
d) heart
95. Steroids include
1. adrenalin
2. somatotropin
3. testosterone +
4. triiodtrionin
96. Can free glycerin be used in adipose tissue for the synthesis of TG?
a. Can
b. Can not +
c. science not established
d. I don’t know
97. Formula any biologically active compound given?
a) cholic acid
b) cholesterol +
c) chenodeoxycholic
d) lanosterol
98. Which of these lipids are involved in the construction of cell
membranesa) phospholipids +
b) cholesterol esters
c) fatty acid
d) triacylglycerols
99. What are reserve lipids in the human body?
a) phospholipids
b) cholesterol
123
c) waxes
d) triacylglycerides +
100. Diffuse into intestinal lymphatic system.
a) LDL
b) HDL
c) VLDL
d) Chylomicrons +
101. Which carriers carry transport of exogenous dietary fat from the
intestine into
the tissue:
a) VLDL
b) LDL
c) HDL
d) chylomicrons +
102. Participants in the biosynthesis of fatty acids
a) NADHb) biotin
c) sphingosine
d) NADPH (H) +
103. What class of complex proteins is high-density lipoprotein (HDL)?
a) lipoprotein +
b) flavoproteins
c) phosphoproteins
d) hemoprotein
104. The formation of phosphatidylserine may be involved.
a) lecithin
b) CDP-diacylglycerol
c) S-adenosylmethionine
d) Serine +
124
105. At which parts of the GIT digested lipids in infants:
a) the oral cavity
b) the stomach +
c) the esophagus
d) small intestine
106. Components of lipoproteins are:
a) cholesterol, glycerol, glucose, fatty acids
b) diglycerides, cholesterol, glycerol, glycine, proteinc) Fatty acids,
protein, glycerol, lactose
d) phospholipids, triglycerides, proteins, cholesterol, cholesterol esters +
a) transamination of amino acids
b) lipolysis
c) biological oxidation +
d) protein synthesi
A. phospholipids
B. cholesterol
C. waxes
D. triacylglycerides +
A. cholesterol, glycerol, glucose, fatty acids
B. diglycerides, cholesterol, glycerol, protein
C. Fatty acids, protein, glycerol, lactose
D. phospholipids, triglycerides, proteins, cholesterol, cholesterol esters +
110. At which value of pH is most active pancreatic lipase?
e) pH =3,0-4,0
a. pH =12,0-14,0
125
b. pH =1,0-2,0c. pH =8,0-8,5 +
111. In the cells of which organ is synthesized ketone bodies?
A) in lungs
B) in the brain
C) in the liver +
D) in the blood
112. How the amount of cholesterol changes at parenchymatous damages
of a
liver?
A) increases
B) decreases +
C) doesn't change
D) increases only cholesterol esters
113. Where is take place, accompanied by release of energy in form of
ATP:
a) the cytosol
b) lysosomes
c) the Golgi apparatus
d) mitochondria +
114.Which complexes is the final hydrogen acceptor?
a) NAD
b) FMN
c) cytochromes
d) oxygen +115. In the Krebs cycle Acetyl-CoA conjugate with:
a) oxaloacitate +
b) citrate
c) isocitrate
d) fumarate
126
116. The composition of biological membranes include:
a. diacylglycerols
b. fatty acids
c. cholesterol
d. Phospholipids +
117. In the wall of the intestine after the absorption of the products of
digestion of
dietary fat are:
a) β-oxidation of higher fatty acids
b) re-synthesis of fats +
c) the degradation of glycerol
d) synthesis of fatty acids
digestion of
dietary fat are occurs:
a) β-oxidation of higher fatty acids;
b) re-synthesis of fats; +
c) the degradation of glycerol;
d) synthesis of fatty acids;119. The biological function of triacylglycerols
in the human body is reduced to:
a) participation in the construction of cell membranes;
b) insulation; +
c) thermal insulation, reserve of energy;
d) creating osmotic pressure;
a) lipoprotein +
b) flavoproteins
c) phosphoproteins
127
d) hemoprotein
a) the oral cavity;
b) the stomach; +
c) the esophagus;
d) small intestine;
intestine into
the tissue:
a) VLDL;
b) LDL;
c) HDL;
d) chylomicrons; +123. Which of these lipids are involved in the
construction of cell membranes
a) phospholipids; +
b) cholesterol esters;
c) fatty acid.
d) triacylglycerols;
a) glycerol
b) choline
c) triglycerides
d) cholesterol +
125.Give the organ of synthesis of low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
a) blood
b) muscles
c) liver +
d) heart
128
a) structure;
b) immune; +
c) energy;
d) electrically insulating;
mother's
milk in infants:a) an amylase;
b) lingual lipase; +
c) phospholipase;
d) a bile acid;
128. Give the blood proteins that transport free fatty acids:
a) globulins;
b) hemoglobin;
c) β-lipoproteins;
d) albumins. +
a) cholic acid
b) cholesterol +
c) chenodeoxycholic
d) lanosterol
131. Which of the following lipids are an essential component of cell
membranes
129
and the surface layer of lipoprotein micelles:
a) phosphatidylcholine; +b) chylomicrons;
c) esters, cholesterol, linoleic acid;
d) triacylglycerol
a) pepsin;
b) carbon dioxide;
c) fiber;
d) a bile acid +
133. Where does synthesized chylomicrons?
a) in the stomach
b) in lymph
c) in blood
a) phosphatidylcholine; +
b) cerebrosides;
c) triglycerides;
d) phosphatidic acid;
135. Essential fatty acids
a. linoleic
b. linolenicc. arachidonic
d. oleic +
a) very soluble in water;
b) insoluble in water but soluble in nonpolar organic solvents; +
c) have a similar structure;
130
ATP:
a) the cytosol;
b) lysosomes;
c) the Golgi apparatus;
d) mitochondria. +
138. Specify how many carbon atoms shorter hydrocarbon chain higher
fatty acids
per cycle β oxidation:
a) 3;
b) 4;
c) 2; +
d) 1;
139. Ketone bodies include:
a) acetoacetyl-CoA
b) acetoacetate +
c) butyrate
d) succinate140. Synthesis of ketones takes place:
a) liver; +
b) kidney;
c) muscle;
d) the spleen;
141. For digestion of proteins in a stomach is necessary:
a) hydrochloric acid +
b) pepsinogen
c) amylase
d) lactate
131
142. The mechanism protecting the secretion calls from action of
proteases is -
a) formation of the slime containing heteropolysaccharides +
b) enzyme activation only in a stomach or intestines cavity
c) secretion by epithelial cells of a stomach of ions of HCO3-
d) fast regeneration of the damaged epithelium
143. The final products of hydrolysis of fats are:
a. the fatty acid and glycerol +
b. monosaccharides
c. glycerol
d. amino acidsHormones
1. Hormones
a. Act as coenzyme
b. Act as enzyme
c. + Influence synthesis of enzymes
d. Belongs to B-complex group
2. Hormone that binds to intracellular receptor is
a. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
b. +Thyroxine
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Glucagon
3. Hormone that bind to cell surface receptor and require

the second
messenger cAMP is
a. +antidiuretic hormone
b. cortisol
132
c. calcitriol
d. progesteron
4. A hormone secreted from anterior pituitary is
a. +growth hormone
b. vasopressin
c. oxytocin
d. epinephrine
5. A hormone secreted from posterior pituitary is
a. +vasopressin
b. thyrotropic hormone
c. prolactind. adrenocorticotropic hormone
6. Growth hormone causes hyperglycemia. It is a result of
a. +decreased peripheral utilization of glucose

b. decreased hepatic production via gluconeogenesis
c. increased glycolysis in muscle
d. decrersed lipolysis
7. Acromegaly results due to excessive release of
a. thyroxine
b. +growth hormone
c. insulin
d. glucagon
8. Growth hormone is released by
a. somatostatin
b. +growth hormone releasing hormone
c. prolactin release inhibiting hormone
d. luteinizing releasing hormone
133
9. Increased reabsorption of water from the kidney is the
major
consequence of which of the following hormones?
a. Cortisol
b. Insulin
c. Vasopressin
d. +Aldosterone
10. Which one of the following hormones is derived most

completely from
tyrosine?
a. Glucagon
b. +Thyroxinec. Insulin
d. Prostaglandins
11. All the following hormones use cAMP as a second

messenger except
a. +estrogen
b. FSH
c. luteinizing hormone
d. glucagon
12. All the following hormones promote hyperglycemia

except
a. epinephrine
b. norepinephrine
c. +insulin
d. glucagon
134
13. Glucagon activates the enzyme adenylcyclase which
causes the increase
of blood sugar level. Hence this hormone is called
a. hypoglycemic factor
b. +hyperglycemic factor
c. antidiauritic factor
d. thyrotropin-releasing factor
14. TSH hormone biochemically is a
a. +protein
b. fat
c. glycoprotein
d. carbohydrate
15. The secondary sexual characters in females is effected by
a. +estrogensb. glucocorticoids
c. mineralocorticoids
d. None of these
16.The secondary sexual characters in males is effected by
a. +androgens
b. glucocorticoids
d. None of these
17. An essential agent for converting glucose to glycogen in

liver is
a. +lactic acid
b. GTP
135
c. UTP
d. oxaloacetate
18. Which of the following hormones is not involved in

carbohydrate
metabolism?
a. Cortisol
b. Glucagon
c. +Vasopressin
d. Growth hormone
19.Which of the following hormones regulate metabolism of

Ca and
phosphate?
a. Mineralocorticoids
b. Aldosterone
c. +Parathyroid hormone
d. Vasopressin20.Which of the following hormone regulate

water balance?
a. Oxitocin
b. +Vasopressin
c. Calcitonin
d. Aldosterone
21.Which of the following hormone regulate salt balance?
a. Oxitocin
b. Vasopressin
c. Calcitonin
136
d. +Aldosterone
22.Which of the following is a peptide hormone?
a. +Insulin
b. Thyroxine
c. Adrenaline
d. Cortisol
23.Which of the following hormones is derivatives of amino

acids?
a. testosterone
b. vasopressin
c. +adrenaline
d. glucagon
24.Which of the following is steroid hormone?
a. glucagon
b. +cortisol
c. corticotropin
d. insulin25.Receptors for peptide hormones are located:
a. in the cytoplasm of the cell

b. +on the outer surface of the cell membrane
c. in ribosomes
d. in microsomes
26.Receptors for the steroid hormones are located:
a. +in the cytoplasm

b. in ribosomes
c. on the outer surface of the cell membrane
137
27.In the action of peptide hormones on the cell, the second
messenger is:
a. adenylate cyclase
b. protein kinase
c. +cyclic AMP
d. GTP
28.Role of adenylate cyclase:
a. +synthesis of cyclic AMP

b. destruction of cyclic AMP
c. activation of protein kinase
d. phosphorylation of enzymes
29.Which of the following hormones are formed in the

thyroid gland?
a. thyroid stimulating hormone

b. adrenaline
c. +thyroxine
d. Insulin30.Hormone thyroxine is synthesized in
a. pancreas
b. +thyroid gland
c. parathyroid glands
d. adrenal medulla
31.Which of the following is structural characteristic

features of
thyroxine?
a. is derivative of amino acid tryptophan
138
b. contains fluorine
c. +is derivative of amino acid tyrosine
d. has polypeptide structure
32.Thyroxine deficiency in adults causes the disease
a. Graves’ disease
b. cretinism
c. +myxedema
d. Pheochromocytoma
33.Action of physiological concentrations of thyroxine:
a. +increase synthesis of nucleic acids and proteins

b. increase deposition of calcium and phosphate in bones
c. regulate water metabolism
d. stimulate secretion of thyroid hormones
34.Action of high concentrations of thyroxine:
a. activate anabolism
b. +activate catabolism
c. decrease body temperature
d. decrease appetite35.Symptoms of hyperthyroidism:
a. +increase of the body temperature

b. decrease of the body temperature
c. obesity
d. decrease of appetite
36.Symptoms of myxedema:
a. tachycardia
b. +decrease of the body temperature
c. loss of wheight
139
d. increase of the body temperature
37.Which symptoms are observed in cretinism?
a. protruded eyes
b. goitre
c. +mental and physical retardation
d. disorder of twilight vision
38.Which of the following are target tissues for parathyroid
hormone?
a. muscle
b. kidney
c. thyroid gland
d. +bone
39.Hormone calcitonin is formed in:
a. pancreas
b. adrenal cortex
c. adrenal medullad. +thyroid gland
40.Biological action of insulin:
a. +increases concentration of glucose in the blood

b. exerts anabolic effect
c. exerts catabolic effect
d. stimulates synthesis of protein, fat, and glycogen
41.Effect of insulin on carbohydrate metabolism:
a. activates lipolysis
b. activates gluconeogenesis
c. +activates synthesis of glycogen
140
d. activates degradation of glycogen
42.Which of the following hormones increase
membrane permeability for glucose to enter the cell?
a. +insulin
b. glucagon
c. glucocorticoids
d. thyroxine
43.Biological action of glucagon:
a. increases synthesis of glycogen

b. +increases degradation of glycogen
c. activates glycolysis
d. inhibits gluconeogenesis
44.Glucagon is synthesized in:
a. adrenal cortex
b. adrenal medullac. +α-cells of Langerhansislets
d. β-cells of Langerhansislets
45.Which of the following are
representatives of glucocorticoids?
a. glucagon
b. +hydrocortisone
c. aldosterone
d. progesteron
representatives of mineralocorticoids?
141
a. adrenaline
b. vasopressin
c. +aldosterone
d. deoxycorticosterone
47.Which of the following effects do glucocorticoids exert in

the liver?
a. +activate gluconeogenesis
b. activate glycolysis
c. inhibit gluconeogenesis
d. activate glycogenesis
48.In excess of glucocorticoids, which of the
following symptoms are observed?
a. +muscle weakness and atrophy

b. increased biosynthesis of protein in the sceletal muscle
c. increased resistance to infections
d. diabetes insipidus49.Mineralocorticoids regulate metabolism

of:
a. proteins, fat, and carbohydrates

b. calcium and phosphate
c. +sodium, potassium, and water
d. sodium, calcium, and water
50.Biological action of aldosterone in kidney:
a. increases reabsorption of potassium

b. +increases reabsorption of sodium
c. decreases reabsorption of sodium
142
d. decreases reabsorption of water
51.Excess of glucocorticoids in the organism occurs in:
a. +Cushing’s disease
b. Kohn’s disease
c. Addison’s disease
d. Graves’ disease
52.Excess of mineralocorticoids in the organism occurs in:
a. Cushing’s syndrome
b. +Kohn’s disease
c. adrenogenital syndrome
d. Addison’s disease
53.Which of the following is representatives of female sex

hormone?
a. +estradiol
b. prostaglandins
c. corticosterone
d. testosrterone54.Which of the following symptoms are

observed in Addison’s
disease?
a. +hypoglycemia
b. hyperglycemia
c. spider-like obesity
d. increased blood pressure
55.Which of the following symptoms are observed in

Addison’s
143
disease?
a. +pigmentation of the skin

b. mental deficiency
c. increased blood pressure
d. hyperglycemia
56.Addison’s disease is caused by the damage of:
a. thyroid gland
b. hypophysis
c. adrenal medulla
d. +adrenal cortex
57.Role of cyclic AMP in the cell:
a. is converted to ATP
b. activates adenylate cyclase
c. is source of energy
d. +activates protein kinase A
58.At what part of the body is adrenaline synthesized?
a. parathyroid glands
b. +adrenal medulla
c. α-cells of Langerhans isletsd. adrenal cortex
59.What is the chemical structure of adrenaline?
a. +derivative of amino acid tyrosine

b. protein
c. derivative of amino acid tryptophan
d. steroid hormone
60.Influence of adrenalin on metabolism:
144
a. increases synthesis of triacylglycerols
b. +increases degradation of glycogen in the liver to form glucose
c. increases glycogen formation from glucose
d. decreases blood glucose level
61.Hyperproduction of adrenalin in the body is observed in:
a. adrenogenital syndrome
b. +pheochromocytoma
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Addison’s diseaseEnzymes
1. What are apoenzymes?
a. +the protein part of enzymes

b. tightly bound nonprotein part of enzyme and they are generally metal
ions
c. the part of the enzyme that binds with the substrate
d. weakly bound nonprotein part of enzyme and they are water soluble
vitamins
2. What are cofactors?
a. the protein part of enzymes

b. +tightly bound nonprotein part of enzyme and they are generally
metal ions
vitamins
3. Isoenzymes are
a. +the multiple forms of an enzymes catalyzing the same reaction

b. inactive forms of enzymes
145
c. complex of enzymes which catalyzes conversation of one substrate
d. the group of enzymes that catalyze electron and proton transfers
4. The class of enzymes involved in synthetic reaction
a. Transferases
b. +Ligase
c. Hydrolyses
d. Oxidoreductases5. The class of enzymes involved in catalyzing

of below given reaction
a. Transferases
b. Ligase
c. Hydrolyses
d. +Isomerases
6. The class of enzymes involved in catalyzing of below given

reaction
a. Transferases
b. Ligase
c. Hydrolyses
d. +Isomerases

reactiona. Transferases
b. Ligase
c. +Hydrolase
d. Isomerases

reaction
146
a. Transferases
b. Ligases
c. +Lyases
d. Isomerases

reaction
a. Transferases
b. +Ligases
c. Lyases
d. Isomerases
10. The class of enzymes involved in catalyzing of below

given reactiona. Transferases
b. Ligases
c. +Oxidoreductases
d. Isomerases
11. The class of enzymes involved in the transfer of

functional groups from
one molecule to another is
a. +transferases
b. ligase
c. hydrolyses
d. isomerases
12. The enzymes catalyze the rearrangment of functional

group within a
147
molecule to convert the substrate into a different isomeric
form are
a. oxidoreductases
b. ligases
c. hydrolyses
d. +isomerases
13. The enzymes catalyze electron and proton transfers

from one molecule
to another are
a. +oxidoreductases
b. ligases
c. hydrolyses
d. isomerases14. The class of enzymes involved in the transfer

of functional groups from
a. +transferases
b. ligase
c. hydrolyses
d. isomerases
15. Enzymes lose the catalytic activity at temperature above

70OC due to
a. +denaturation
b. renaturation
c. activation
d. inhibition
148
16. The place at which activator binds with the enzymes
a. active site
b. binding site
c. catalytic site
d. +allosteric site
17. The place at which inhibitors binds with the enzymes is
a. active site
b. binding site
c. catalytic site
d. +allosteric site
18. Pepsin is an example for the class of enzymes namely
a. Transferases
b. Ligase
c. +Hydrolyses
d. Oxidoreductases19. The enzyme elevated in serum in

myocardial infarction is
a. amylase
b. alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
c. alanine transaminase (ALT)
d. +aspartate transaminase (AST)
20. The enzyme elevated in the serum in bone disease is
a. amylase
b. +alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
d. aspartate transaminase (AST
149
21. The enzyme elevated in serum in acute hepatitis of viral
or toxic origin,
jaundice and cirrhosis of liver is
a. amylase
c. +alanine transaminase (ALT)
d. aspartate transaminase (AST)
22. Trypsin has a pH optimum around
a. +8,5
b. 2
c. 10
d. 5
23. Pepsin has a pH optimum around
a. 8,5
b. +2
c. 10
d. 524. In bond (linkage) specificity
a. +an enzyme catalyses the formation or breakage of only certain bonds

in a molecule.
b. an enzyme that catalyzes process involving similar molecules
containing the same functional group.
c. an enzyme catalyze the reaction of only one substrate.
d. an enzyme that catalyze conversation only one stereoisomer of the
substrate.
25. In stereochemical specificity
150
a. an enzyme catalyses the formation or breakage of only certain bonds
in a molecule.
d. +an enzyme that catalyze conversation only one stereoisomer of the
substrate.
26. In absolute substrate specificity
a. an enzyme catalyzes the formation or breakage of only certain bonds

in a molecule
containing the same functional group
c. +an enzyme catalyzes the reaction of only one substrate
d. an enzyme catalyzes conversation only one stereoisomer of the
substrate
27. In group depended specificity

in a moleculeb. +an enzyme that catalyzes process involving similar
molecules
c. an enzyme catalyzes the reaction of only one substrate
substrate
28.Zymogen is a
a. Vitamin
b. +Enzyme precursor
c. Modulator
151
d. Hormone
29.Cofactor (Prosthetic group) is a part of holoenzyme, it is
a. inorganic part loosely attached

b. +non-protein substance attached tightly
c. organic part attached loosely
d. none of these
30. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are common in
a. Being proteinaceous
b. Being synthesized in the body of organisms
c. Enhancing oxidative metabolism
d. +Regulating metabolism
31.Coenzymes FMN and FAD are derived from vitamin
a. C
b. B6
c. B1
d. +B232.Template/lock and key theory of enzyme action is

supported by
a. Enzymes speed up reaction

b. +Enzymes occur in living beings and speed up certain reactions
c. Enzymes determine the direction of reaction
d. Compounds similar to substrate inhibit enzyme activity
33.Combination of apoenzyme and coenzyme produces
a. Prosthetic group
b. +Holoenzyme
c. Enzyme substrate complex
152
d. Enzyme product complex
34.Enzyme inhibition caused by a substance resembling

substrate molecule
is
a. +competitive inhibition
b. non-competitive inhibition
c. feedback inhibition
d. allosteric inhibition
35.An enzyme brings about
a. decrease in formation of product

b. increase in reaction time
c. increase in activation energy
d. +decrease in activation energy
36.Coenzyme is
a. +Often a vitamin
b. Always an inorganic compound
c. Always a protein
d. Often a metal37. Cofactor is
a. often a vitamin
b. always an inorganic compound
c. always a protein
d. +often a metal
38. Key and lock hypothesis of enzyme action was given by
a. +Fischer
b. Koshland
153
c. Buchner
d. Kuhne
39. Induced fit hypothesis of enzyme action was given by
a. Fischer
b. +Koshland
c. Buchner
d. Kuhne
40. Allosteric inhibition
a. +Makes active site unfit for substrate

b. Controls excess formation and end product
c. Both (A) and (B)
d. None of these
41. Vitamin B2 is component of coenzyme:
a. Pyridoxal phosphate
b. TPP
c. NAD
d. +FMN/FAD42. Part of enzyme which combines with

nonprotein part to form
functional enzyme is
a. +Apoenzyme
b. Coenzyme
c. Prosthetic group
d. None of these
43. Hexokinase (Glucose + ATP → Glucose-6–P + ADP)

belongs to the
154
category:
a. +Transferases
b. Lysases
c. Oxidoreductases
d. Isomerases
44. Which enzyme is concerned with transfer of electrons?
a. Desmolase
b. Hydrolase
c. +Dehydrogenase
d. Transaminase
45. The energy required to start an enzymatic reaction is

called
a. Chemical energy
b. Metabolic energy
c. +Activation energy
d. Potential energy
46. Creatine phosphokinase isoenzyme is a marker for
a. Kidney disease
b. Liver diseasec. +Myocardial infarction
d. None of these
47. Which inactivates an enzyme by occupying its active

site?
a. +Competitive inhibitor
b. Allosteric inhibitor
c. Non-competitive inhibitor
155
d. All of these
48. Which one is coenzyme?
a. ATP
b. +Vitamin B and C
c. CoQ and cytochroms
d. All of these
49. The active site of an enzyme is formed by
a. +R group of amino acids

b. NH2 group of amino acids
c. CO group of amino acids
d. Sulphur bonds which are exposed
50. Which enzyme hydrolyses starch?
a. Invertase
b. Maltase
c. Sucrase
d. +Amylase
51. Transaminase activity needs the coenzyme:
a. ATP
b. +PLPc. FAD
d. NAD+
52.Indicate a class of enzymes, which performs the process

of
phosphorylation of substrates:
a. +Transferases
b. Oxidoreductases
156
c. Isomerases
d. Lyases
53.How are enzymes called, which catalyze the same

reaction, but differ
one from another by their primary structure and

physico-chemical
properties?
a. +Isoenzymes
b. Holoenzymes
c. Zymogens
d. Cofactors
54.Indicate the substrate of salivary amylase:
a. Protein
b. +Starch
c. Sucrose
d. Glucose
55.Enzymes of the class of lyases are able to catalyze the

type of reactions:
a. Hydrolysis
b. Oxidation
c. Reduction
d. + Decarboxylation56.Give the full name of conjugated

enzyme, polypeptide chains of which
are combined with nonprotein part:
a. Prosthetic group
157
b. Cofactor
c. Coenzyme
d. +Holoenzyme
57.D-oxidase of alanine is able to deaminize of D-аlanine

only, but it
doesn’t break down the structure of L-alanine. Give the type

of
specificity of this enzyme:
a. +Stereochemical
b. Absolute
c. Absolute group
d. Relative group
58.Name the enzyme, which activity should be determined

in patient’s
urine in acute pancreatitis:
a. +Amylase
b. Protein kinase
c. Cholinesterase
d. Leucine aminopeptidase
59.Name the enzyme, the activity of which is determined in

blood plasma
of patients with pathology of bone tissue:
a. Pepsin
b. Trypsin
c. Amylase
158
d. +Alkaline phosphatase60.Choose isoforms of LDH,
concentration of which increase in blood
plasma of patients with myocardial infarction:
a. +LDH1 and LDH2

b. LDH3 and LDH4
c. LDH3
d. LDH4 and LDH5
61.The enzyme inactivation under its heating till 100оС is

caused by:
a. decarboxylation
b. renaturation
c. Competitive inhibition
d. +Denaturation
62.The competitive inhibition proceeds by:
a. Enzyme dephosphorylation
b. Inhibitor binding at the allosteric site of enzyme
c. +Inhibitor binding at the active site of enzyme
d. Enzyme denaturation
63.Call the type of inhibition, under which enzyme is not

reactivated after
inhibitor removal:
a. Substrate
b. Noncompetitive
c. Reversible
d. +Irreversible
159
64.Which of the below-mentioned changes of biochemical
parameters are
characteristic for myocardial infarction?
a. Increased α-amylase in blood

b. Increased MM fraction of serum creatine phosphokinasec. Decreased
creatinine level in the urine
d. +Increased MB fraction of serum creatine phosphokinase
65.The hereditary disease phenylketonuria is caused by

disturbance of
metabolism of
a. histamin
b. glycine
c. tryptophan
d. +phenylalanine
66.Deficiency of which enzyme leads to disturbance of

lactose degradation
in the intestine?
a. Peptidase
b. Saccharase
c. Maltose
d. +Lactase
67.Due to the defect in the hepatic enzyme, phenylalanine

hydroxylase,
phenylalanine is diverted to alternate pathways, resulting in

excessive
160
production of
a. tyrosine
b. phenol
c. cresol
d. +phenylpyruvate
68.Phenylketonuria (PKU) is due to the deficiency of the

hepatic enzyme
a. +phenylalanine hydroxylase
b. tyrosinase
c. homogentisate oxidased. OMP decarboxylase
69.The hereditary disease connected with metabolism of

tyrosine
a. +phenylketonuria
b. citrullinemia
c. methyl malonic aciduria
d. alkaptonuria
70.Galactosemia is due to the deficiency of the enzyme
a. +galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase

b. glucosoisomerase
c. hexokinase
d. glucoso-6-phophatase
71.Disturbance in the synthesis of which enzyme leads to

developing of
cataract at the newborn child?
161
a. Glucosoisomerase
b. Hexokinase
c. Glucoso-6-phophatase
d. +Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase
72.A specific inhibitor for succinate dehydrogenase is
a. Arsenite
b. +Malonate
c. Citrate
d. Fluoride
73. Malonate is a specific inhibitor for
a. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
b. + Succinate dehydrogenasec. Lactate dehydrogenase
d. Fumarase
74. The enzyme that converts glucose to

glucose-6-phosphate is
a. Glucose 6-phosphatase
b. +Hexokinase
c. Phosphorylase
d. Glucose synthetase
75. The enzyme that converts glucose-6-phosphate to

glucose is
a. +Glucose 6-phosphatase
b. Hexokinase
c. Phosphorylase
162
76. Galactosemia is due to the deficiency of the enzyme

b. Glucosoisomerase
c. Hexokinase
d. Glucoso-6-phophatase
77. Fructosuria is due to defect of enzyme
a. hepatic phosphorylase
b. +fructokinase
c. muscular phosphorylase
d. hepatic glucose 6- phosphataseCARBOHYDRATE METABOLISM
1. Which of the following homopolysaccharides is present in

human tissues?
a. maltose
b. starch
c. +glycogen
d. cellulose
2. Which of the following are polysaccharides?
a. sucrose, maltose, lactose

b. glucose, fructose, galactose
c. +glycogen, starch, cellulose
d. ribose, deoxyribose
3. On hydrolysis, lactose gives one glucose and one
a. fructose
b. +galactose
c. glucose
163
d. maltose
4. Which of the following carbohydrate is absorbed in the

intestine?
a. +glucose
b. sucrose
c. lactose
d. glycogen

intestine?
a. starch
b. maltose
1c. galactose
d. +fructose
6. Which of the following are the major dietary disaccharides

for humans?
a. starch, maltose
b. +sucrose, maltose
c. cellulose, lactose
d. lactose, galactose
7. In what tissue is hexokinase present?
a. In all tissues of the body

b. +In muscles
c. In liver
d. In brain
8. In what tissue is glucokinase present?
164
b. In muscles and adipose tissue
c. +Liver
d. Brain
9. At what part of the GIT does the digestion of

carbohydrates start?
a. +In the oral cavity

b. In the stomach
c. In the duodenum
d. In the intestine
10.Which of the following enzymes participate in the

digestion of
carbohydrates?
a. +α-amylase
2b. pepsin
c. glucose 6-phosphatase
d. hexokinase
11.Which of the following are the major sources of glucose in

the body?
a. Glycolysis, glycogenesis
b. +Degradation of glycogen, gluconeogenesis
c. Gluconeogenesis, glycolysis
d. Pentose phosphate pathway, gluconeogenesis
12.Phosphorylation of glucose is catalyzed by
a. glucose 6-phoshpatase
165
b. +hexokinase
c. phosphorylase
d. isomerase
13.Which of the following substrates may be directly formed

from pyruvate?
a. phosphoenolpyruvate
b. +oxaloacetate
c. lactose
d. malate
14.Galactosemia is caused by the deficient activity of
a. lactase
b. +galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase
c. phosphorylase
d. glucose 6-phosphatase
15.Fructosuria is caused by the deficient activity of
a. hexose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase

3b. +fructokinase
c. phosphofructokinase
d. fructose 1-phosphate aldolase
16.Which of the following carbohydrates are components of

lactose?
a. Fructose, glucose
b. +Galactose, glucose
c. Glucose, succrose
d. Maltose, fructose
166
17.At what compartment of the cell does glycolysis occur?
a. Lysosomes
b. Mitochondria
c. +Cytoplasm
d. Ribosomes
18.Substrate-level phosphorylation reactions in glycolysis

are catalyzed by
a. hexokinase
b. phosphoglycerate kinase
d. +pyruvate kinase
19.Which of the following is the end product of anaerobic

glycolysis?
a. Pyruvate
b. Phosphoenolpyruvate
c. +Lactate
d. Acetyl CoA
20.How many molecules of ATP are generated in the course

of anaerobic
glycolysis per one molecule of glucose?
4a. +2
b. 3
c. 12
d. 38
167
of aerobic
a. 2
b. 3
c. 12
d. +38
22.The major pathway for utilization of pyruvate in tissues

is its conversion
to:
a. lactate
b. +acetyl CoA
c. glyceraldehyde
d. oxaloacetate
23.At what tissue does gluconeogenesis occur?
a. brain
b. muscles
c. +liver
d. adrenal cortex
24.Which of the following bonds are hydrolyzed by amylase?
a. Peptide bond
b. Phosphodiester bond
c. +α-1,4-glycoside bond
d. α-1,6-glycoside bond
56
168
25. Which of the following are functions of the
pentose phosphate pathway?
a. Energy production and ribose 5-phosphate

b. Production of NADН2 and ribose 5-phosphate
c. Production of ribose 5-phosphate and NAD+
d. +Production of NADPН2 and ribose 5-phosphate
26.Which of the following is precursor for the
glycogen synthesis?
a. +Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Galactose
d. Sucrose
27. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes degradation of

glycogen?
a. glucokinase
b. +phosphorylase
c. protease
d. glucuronyltransferase
28. Which of the following factors activates breakdown
of glycogen?
a. insulin, glucagon
b. +adrenalin, glucagon
c. cortisol, insulin
d. intake of food
169
29. Which of the following diseases are classified
as glycogenoses?
a. +Von Gierke’s disease,7

b. Niemann-Pick’s disease
d. Cushing syndrome
30. Which of the following effect is specific of insulin?
a. +increases transport of glucose into the cell

c. inhibits glycolysis
31. Which of the following effects are specific of glucagon?
a. activates glycolysis
b. +activates glycogenolysis
c. inhibits gluconeogenesis
d. increases transport of glucose into the cell
32. Which of the following is specific (key) enzyme
of gluconeogenesis?
a. +glucose 6-phosphatase
b. phosphofructokinase
c. aldolase
d. lactate dehydrogenase
33. Which of the following are regulatory enzymes
of glycolysis?
170
a. +hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, pyruvatkinase
b. glucose 6-phosphatase, pyruvate carboxylase, fructokinase
c. glucose 6-phosphatase, fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase, aldolase
d. fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase, enolase, transketolase8
34. Which of the following enzymes participate in the

formation of glucose 6-
phosphate?
a. fructokiase
b. +glucokinase
d. phosphorylase
35. Which of the following enzymes catalyze conversion of
phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate?
a. pyruvate carboxylase
b. +pyruvate kinase
c. pyruvate dehydrogenase
d. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
36. Which of the following products is formed in oxidative

decarboxylation
of pyruvate?
a. oxaloacetate
b. lactate
c. phosphoenolpyruvate
d. +acetyl CoA
171
37. Which of the following compounds is coenzyme of glucose
6- phosphate
dehydrogenase?
a. thiamine diphosphate
b. pyridoxal phosphate
c. FAD
d. +NADP
38. Which of the following are substrates of hexokinase?
a. glucose 6-phosphate, fructose -6-phosphate, ribose-5-phosphate

b. +glucose, fructose, galactose9
c. hexosaminoglycans, proteiglicans
d. fructose, succrose, maltose
39. Gluconeogenesis is defined as:
a. synthesis of glycogen from glucose

b. degradation of glycogen
c. conversion of glucose to lactate
d. +synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors
40. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes conversion of

pyruvate to
oxaloacetate?
a. pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

b. pyruvate kinase
c. +pyruvate carboxylase
d. pyruvate decarboxylase
41. Which of the following are symptoms of galactosemia?
172
a. obesity
b. bone fragility
c. +cataract
d. diabetes mellitus
42. Which of the following substances are components
of maltose?
a. +glucose and glucose

b. fructose and glucose
c. galactose and glucose
d. lactose and maltose
43. Which of the following substances are components10
ofsucrose?
a. galactose and glucose

b. +glucose and fructose
c. lactose and galactose
d. fructose and galactose
44. Which of the following is the rate-limiting enzyme
of glycolysis?
a. enolase
b. +phosphofructokinase
c. aldolase
45. Which types of bonds are present in the molecule
of glycogen?
173
a. N-glycoside bond
b. +α-1,4-glycoside bond
c. β-1,4-glycoside bond
d. γ-1,4-glycoside bond
46.The product of phosphorylase reaction is:
a. glucose
b. glucose 6-phosphate
c. +glucose 1-phosphate
d. UDP-glucose
47.Normal concentration of glucose in the blood serum of

adults is:
a. 1.5 – 2.5 mmol/L

b. +3.35 – 5.55 mmol/L
c. 7.5 – 12.5 g/L11
d. 8.55 – 20.52 μmol/L
48.Hyperglycemia is observed in:
a. Von Gierke’s disease

b. Addison’s disease
c. +Diabetes mellitus
d. Pheochromocytoma
49.Glucose tolerance test allows diagnosing of
a. hepatitis
b. nephritis
c. +diabetes mellitus
d. lactose intolerance
174
50.Which of the following is specific (key) enzymes
of gluconeogenesis?
a. hexokinase
b. +fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase
c. pyruvate kinase
d. pyruvate dehydrogenase
51.Which of the following hormones decrease concentration

of glucose in the
blood?
a. adrenaline
b. glucagon
c. thyroxine
d. +insulin
52.Which of the following compounds function as storage

form of glucose in
animals?12
a. lactose
b. starch
c. proteoglycans
d. +glycogen
53.Functioning of which metabolic pathways leads
to hyperglycemia?
a. glycolysis
b. synthesis of glycogen
175
c. +degradation of glycogen
d. alcohol fermentation
54.Which of the following hormone activate glycolysis?
a. aldosteron
b. glucagon
c. +insulin
d. cortisol
55.Which of the following conversions are the

substrate-level
phosphorylation reactions?
a. fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

b. glyceraldehydes phosphate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
c. glucose to glucose 6-phosphate
d. +phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
56.Glycogenesis is under the control of the
a. +insulin
b. glucagon
c. cortisol
d. aldosteron13
57.Who discovered the tricarboxylic acid cycle?
a. Sanger
b. Watson and Crick
c. Mitchell
d. +Crebs
176
58.At what compartment of the cell is the tricarboxylic acid
cycle located?
a. In the cytoplasm
b. +In mitochondria
c. In the nucleus
d. In ribosomes
59.Which of the following metabolite is utilized in the TCA

cycle?
a. Ammonia
b. Glucose
c. +Acetyl CoA
d. ATP
60.Which of the following is coenzyme of isocitrate
dehydrogenase?
a. FAD
b. +NAD+
c. TDP
d. HSCоА
61.Which enzyme of the TCAcycle catalyzes reaction
ofsubstrate-level phosphorylation?
a. citrate synthase
b. isocitrate dehydrogenase
c. +succinate thiokinase14
d. succinyl CoA synthase
177
62.How many molecules of ATP are generated in utilization
of 1 molecule
acetyl CoA in the TCA cycle?
a. 2
b. 3
c. +12
d. 38
63.Activity of which enzyme of the TCA cycle will
be impaired in the vitamin PP deficiency?
a. citrate synthase
b. +isocitrate dehydrogenase
c. succinate dehydrogenase
d. fumarase
64.Which enzymes of the TCA cycle will be impaired in the

vitamin В2
deficiency?
a. malate dehydrogenase
c. +succinate dehydrogenase
d. aconitase
65.In which reactions of the TCA cycle is NADH2 generated?
a. +isocitrate dehydrogenase
b. aconitase
d. succinate thiokinase
178
66.In which enzyme catalyzed reactions of the TCA cycle is
FADH2 generated?a. isocitrate dehydrogenase
b. succinyl CoA synthase

d. malate dehydrogenase
67.Which of the following compounds is coenzyme of

succinate
dehydrogenase?
a. TDP
b. NAD
c. HSCoA
d. +FAD
68.Which of the following processes are classified as catabolic

pathways?
a. gluconeogenesis
b. glycolysis
c. +β-oxidation of fatty acids
d. transamination
69.Which of the following processes are classified as anabolic

pathways?
a. glycogenolysis
b. decarboxylation of amino acids
c. +biosynthesis of fatty acids
d. Gluconeogenesis
179
70.Deficiency of which enzyme leads to development of
McArdle’s disease.
a. Glucoso-6-phosphatase
b. +Glycogenphosphorylase
c. Glycogensynthetase
d. Hexokinase
1571.What biochemical glucose transformation pathway is

blocked in von Gierke’s
disease?
a. Pentosophosphate shunt
b. Gluconeogenes
c. Glucogenesis
d. +Glycogenolysis
72.Blood glucose level is increased in
a. hypothyrodism
b. hypothyrosis
d. diabetes insipidus
73.The most important source of blood glucose in 48 hours

starvation is
a. degradation of glycogen in muscles

b. degradation of glycogen in liver
c. oxidation od acetoacetate
d. +gluconeogenesis from lactate
74.Von Gierke’s disease is due the defect in the enzyme
180
b. lysosomal α-1,4 glucosidase
c. amilo α-1,6-glucosidase
d. muscle glycogen phosphorylase
75.Pompe’s disease is due to the defect in the enzyme
a. glucose 6-phosphatase
b. +lysosomal α-1,4 glucosidase
1676.Cori’s disease is due to the defect in the enzyme
c. +amilo α-1,6-glucosidase
77.McArdle’s disease is due to the defect in the enzyme
d. +muscle glycogen phosphorylase
78.Anderson’s disease is due to the defect in the enzyme

glycosyl 4-6 transferase
a. +glycosyl 4-6 transferase

181
79.The lack of enzyme of glucoso-6-phosphatase,
hypoglycemia and
hepatomegalia is characteristic for
a. Parkinson's disease
b. Cory's disease
c. McArdle’s disease
d. +von Girke's disease
80.At deficiency of galactose-1-phosphate

uridyltransferase what pathological
process takes place?
a. fructosuria
b. +galactosemia
17c. hyperglycemia
d. hypoglycemia
81. At what disease in blood the high galactose level leads to

cataract, mental
retardation and fatty degeneration of liver is found?
a. +Galactosemia
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Lactose intolerance
d. Fructosuria
82.At what hereditary enzyme deficiency intolerance to

mother milk is observed?
a. Pepsine
b. Maltase
182
c. Isomerase
d. +Lactase
83. Galactose is phosphorylated by galactokinase to form
a. Galactose-6-phosphate
b. Galactose-1, 6 diphosphate
c. +Galactose-1-phosphate
d. All of these
84.The conversion of alanine to glucose is termed
a. Glycolysis
b. Oxidative decarboxylation
c. Specific dynamic action
d. +Gluconeogenesis
85.Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in human

liver is by
a. Hexokinase only
b. +Glucokinase only
18c. Hexokinase and glucokinase
d. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
86.The following is an enzyme required for glycolysis:
a. +Pyruvate kinase
b. Pyruvate carboxylase
c. Glucose-6-phosphatase
d. Glycerokinase
87.Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate requires
a. NADP+
183
b. Cytochromes
d. +CoASH
88.During glycolysis, fructose 1, 6 – diphosphate is

decomposed by the enzyme:
a. Enolase a
b. Fructokinase
c. +Aldolase
d. Diphosphofructophosphatose
89.The following enzyme is required for the hexose

monophosphate shunt
pathway:
a. Glucose-6-phosphatase
b. Phosphorylase
c. Aldolase
d. +Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
90.Our body can get pentoses from
a. Glycolytic pathway
b. Uromic acid pathway
19c. TCA cycle
d. +HMP shunt
91.Dehydrogenase enzymes of the hexose monophosphate

shunt are
a. NAD+ specific
b. +NADP+ specific
184
c. FAD specific
d. FMN specific
92.Dehydrogenation of succinic acid to fumaric acid requires

the following
hydrogen carrier:
a. NAD+
b. NADP+
c. +FAD
d. FMN
93. Tissues form lactic acid from glucose. This phenomenon

is termed as
a. Aerobic glycolysis
b. Oxidation
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. +Anaerobic glycolysis
94. For glycogenesis, glucose should be converted to
a. Glucuronic acid
b. Pyruvic acid
c. +UDP glucose
d. Sorbitol
95. When O2 supply is inadequate, pyruvate is converted to
a. Phosphopyruvate
b. Acetyl CoA
20c. +Lactate
d. Alanine
185
96. Before pyruvic acid enters the TCA cycle it must be
converted to
a. +Acetyl CoA
b. Lactate
c. α-ketoglutarate
d. Citrate
97. The formation of citrate from oxaloacetate and acetyl

CoA is
a. Oxidation
1. Fibropeptidase A&B are highly negative due to presence of which amino acids?
Glutamate and Aspartate
Serine and threonine
Lysine and Arginine
Valine and Lysine
2. Which of the following special amino acid is not formed by post translational
modification?
Triiodothyronine
Hydroxyproline
Hydroxy lysine
Selenocysteine
3. Which of the following have a positive charge in physiological pH?
Arginine
Aspartic acid
Isoleucine
Valine
4. What is the pH of the solution if the Hydrogen ion concentration is mill moles/L
2.3
3.7
186
6.6
3.5
5. Selenocysteine is code by:
UAG
UGA
UAA
GUA
6. All of the following are essential amino acids except:
MethionineLysine
Alanine
Leucine
7. Guanidinium group is associated with:
Tyrosine
Arginine
Histidine
Lysine
8. Sulphur containing amino acids is:
Cysteine
Leucine
Arginine
Threonine
9. Which of the following is non-aromatic amino acid with a hydroxyl R-group?
Phenylalanine
Lysine
Threonine
Methionine
10. Which is not an essential amino acid?
Tryptophan
Threonine
187
Histidine
Cysteine
11. Which of the following is not an aromatic amino acid?
Phenylalanine
Tyrosine
TryptophanValine
12. Which of the following group contains only nonessential amino acids?
Acidic amino acid
Basic amino acid
Aromatic amino acid
Branched chain amino acid
13. Amide group containing amino acid is:
Glutamate
Glutamic acid
Glutamine
Aspartate
14 .Which of the following is semi essential amino acid?
Arginine
Histidine
Glycine
Phenylalanine
15. Aminoacyl t-RNA is required for all except?
Hydroxyproline
Methionine
Cysteine
Lysine
16.PKA=Ph when:
Solute is completely ionized
When the concerntration of ionized and unionized form is same
188
Solute is completely unionized
All of the above
17. HCO3-/H2Co3 is considered most effective buffer at physiological pH because:Options
It has pKa close to physiological pH
It is formed a weak acid and base
Its components can be increased or decreased by the body
It can donate and accept H+
18. Replacing alanine by which amino acid will increase UV absorbance of protein are 280
nm
wavelength?
Options
Leucine
Proline
Arginine
Tryptophan
19. Which of the following protein cannot be phosphorylated using protein kinase in
prokaryotic
organisms?
Options
Threonine
Tyrosine
Serine
Asparagine
20. Carboxylation of clotting factors by vitamin K is required to be biologically active. Which

of the
following amino acid is carboxylated?
Options
Histidine
Histamine
Glutamate
Aspartate
189
21.Property of photochromisity is seen amongst the following amino aids:
Options
Unsaturated amino acidAromatic amino acid
Monocarboxylic acid
Dicarboxylic acid
22. The property of proteins to absorb ultraviolet rays of light is due to:
Options
Peptide bond
Lmino group
Disulphide bond
Aromatic amino acid
23.All biologically active amino acids are:
Options
L-forms
D-forms
Mostly D-forms
D and L forms
24.Flexibility of protein depends on:
Options
Glycine
Tryptophan
Phenyalalnine
Histidine
25.Which amino acid can protonate deprotonate at neutral pH?
Options
Histidine
Leucine
Glycine
Arginine26.Which of the following amino acid is purely glucogenic?
190
Options
Valine
Lysine
Alanine
Glycine
27. Which of the following does not include post translational modifications?
Options
Triiodothyronine
Selenocysteine
Hydroxyproline
Hydroxylysine
28. Dried blood drop of an infant can be used to know
Options
Blood sugar
Inborn errors of metabolism
Hepatitis
Cataract
29.Nitric oxide is synthesized from which amino acid
Options
Arginine
Serine
Threonine
Lysine
30.Fibrinopeptide A and 8 are highly negative charged proteins made up of:
Options
Serine and ThreonineLysine and Histidine
Aspartate and Glutamate
Leucine and Lysine
31 .In Cystinuria, all of the following amino acids are excreted, except:
191
Options
Cystine
Ornithine
Leucine
Arginine
32.Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of
Options
Phenylalanine
Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH
Phenylene
Allofthese
33.Nitric oxide acts by increasing
Options
BRCA 1
BRCA 2
Interleukin
CGMP
34.Serotonin is also known as
5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)
N-methyl phenylamine
3-Methoxytyramine
Phenethylamine35.Tyrosinosis is caused due to deficiency of which enzyme?
Options
Fumaryl acetoacetate hydrolase
P-hydroxy phenyl pyruvate dehydrogenase
Tyrosine transaminase
Tyrosine ligase
36.Non-essential amino acid group is
Options
Acidic Amino Acid
192
Branched chain amino Acid
Basic Amino Acid
Aromatic Amino Acid
37.Which is 21st amino acid
Options
Alanine
Arginine
Cystine
Seleno cysteine
38.Amino acid present in thioredoxin reductase:
Options
Alanine
Selenocysteine
Cysteine
Serine
39.Glucogenic amino acid is
Options
LeucineLysine
Phenylalanine
Valine
40. Both glucogenic and ketogenic amino-acids are all except
Options
Leucine
Tryptophan
Phenylanine
Tyrosine
41.Indole ring is present in
Options
Tyrosinase
193
Phenylalanine
Tyroxine
Threonine
42. 'D'- form of amino acid is derived from 1
Options
Produced in liver
Break down from muscle
From external source
Synthesis in muscle
43. Guanidinium group is associated with
Options
Histidine
Arginnine
Tyrosine
Lysine44. Amino acid which is not stable in (incompatible with) alpha-helix is
Options
Proline
Glutamine
Alanine
Tryptophan
45.Amino acid with double chiral carbon
Options
Tyrosine
Threonine
Tryptophane
Phenyalanine
46.Substitution of which one ofthe following amino acids in place of alanine would increase
the
absorbance of protein at 280 nm
Leucine
Arginine
194
Tryptophan
Proline
47. Creatine is made up of all, except
Options
Arginine
Alanine
Methionine
Glycine
48. Amino acid required for formation of thyroxine
Options
Cysteine
TyrosineGlutamine
Tryptophan
49. Disulphide bond is seen between
Options
Lysine and cysteine
Arginine and cysteine
Cysteine and cysteine
Arginine and histidine
50.Sulphur containing amino acids metabolism needs
Options
Pyridoxine
Folic acid
Vitamin Bl2
All of the above
51.In phenylketouria, diet restriction is advised for
Options
Maize
Phenylalanine
195
Tyrosine
All
52. Glycine is used in the synthesis of all except
Options
Purines
Creatine
Heme
Pyrimidines
53. Sulfhydryl group containing amino acid{s)Options
Methionine
Cysteine
Cystine
ALL
54. Melatonin is synthesized from
Options
Tryptophan
Serotonin
Phenyllanine
Histidine
55.Which of the following amino acid has positive charge at physiological pH?
Options
Aspartate
Arginine
Valine
Isoleucine
56.Which vitamin can be synthesized in body
Options
Pantothenic acid
Niacin
196
Folic acid
Bl2
57.After a point mutation, glutamic acid replaced byvaline, which leads to formation of sickle
cell Hb.
mobility of HbS as compared to normal Hb on gel
electrophoresis will be
Options
DecreasedIncreased
Dependent on HbS concentration
Unchanged
58.All of the following amino acids forms acetyl CoA via pyruvate dehydrogenase except :
Options
Glycine
Hydroxyproline
Tyrosine
Alanine
59. A child with pellagra like symptoms, amino acids in urine, family history of two siblings
affected
and two normal. Parents are normal. What is the diagnosis
Options
Phenylketonuria
Alkaptonuria
Maple syrup urine disease
Hartnup's disease
60.What is Isoelectric point?
Options
WhenpH=pl
When zwitterion exists
Protein precipitation occurs
All
197
61.Which is elevated in PLP deficiency
Options
FIGLU
Homocystine
Methylmalonic acid
Xanthurenic acid62.Hormone synthesized from Tyrosine is
Options
Cortisol
Calcitonin
Thyroxine
Calcitriol
63.Type I Tyrosinemia is caused by:
Options
Maleylacetoacetate Isomerase
Fumaryl Acetoacetate Hydrolase
Tyrosine Transaminase
4-Hydroxy Phenylpyruvate Hydroxylase
64.Which amino acid's deamination takes place in liver
Options
Aspartic acid
Alanine
Glycine
Glutamine
65. N Methyl Glycine is known as
Options
Betaine
Sarcosine
Carnosine
Ergothionine
198
66.Amino acid used in Carnitine synthesis is
Options
AlanineTyrosine
Arginine
Lysine
67. NO {Nitric oxide} is synthesized from
Options
Aspartate
Uracil
Guanosine
Arginine
68. Which of the following is required in the synthesis of acetylcholine
Options
Carnitin
Inositol
Glycine
Serine
69.In Maple syrup urine disease, the amino acids excreted in urine are all except
Options
Leucine
Phenylalanine
Isoleucine
Valine
70. Coenzyme for phenylalanine hydroxylase i
Options
S-adenosyl methionine
Tetrahydrobiopterin
Tetrahydrofolate
Pyridoxal phosphate71. Which of following is polar
199
Options
Tryptophan
Methionin
Glutamic acid
Isoleucine
72. Fumarate is formed from which amino acidurine
Options
Valine
Histidine
Methionine
Tyrosine
73. Which amino acid not involved in transamination
Options
Histidine
Aspartate
Lysine
Alanine
74.Xanthurenic acid is the metabolite in the metabolism
Options
Uric acid
Xanthine
Tryptophan
Uronic acid I
75. Taurine is synthesized from which amino acid?
Options
TryptophanPhenylalanine
Cysteine
Alanine
76. The biosynthesis of Epinephrine from Norepineph rine requires
200
Options
Pyridoxal phosphate
Biotin
Cytochrome P450
77.Ochronosis is caused by
Options
Tyrosinemia Type 1
Alkaptonuria
Phenylketonuria
78.In Alkaptonuria, which of the following accumulates abnormally in urine
Options
Phenylalanine
Homogentisate
Fumarate
Acetoacetate
79.Strength and rigidity in keratin is due to
Options
Leucine
Cysteine
Lithium
None of the above80.Which of the following is not a selenoprotein
Options
Glutathione peroxidase
Thioredoxin reducta
Iodothyronine deiodinase
Glutathione reductase
81.Which amino acid does not include post translational modification 1
Options
201
Selenocysteine
Triiodothyronine
Hydroxy-proline
Hydroxy-lysine
82.Which amino acid has maximum tendency to bind phosphate
Options
Serine
Alanine
Phenylalanine
Tryptophan
83. Kinks in alpha structure are formed by which amino acid
Options
Glycine
Lysine
Methionine
Glutamate
84.Hyperphenylalaninemia occurs due to
Options
Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiencyPhenylalanine hydroxylase overactivity
Dihydrobiopterin reductase deficiency
Tyrosine hydroxylase deficiency
85. Amino acids containing hydroxyl group:
Options
Threonine
Tyrosine
Serine
Tryptophan
86. At isoelectric point (pi) net charge of amino acis is
Options
202
-1
-2
+1
87.Codon for transcription of Selenocysteine is?
Options
UAA
UGA
UAG
GUA
88.Sulphur of cysteine not used in body for the following
Options
Help in conversion of cyanide to thiocyanate
Thiosulphate formation
Introduction of sulphur atom in methionine
Disulfide bond formation b/w two adjacent peptide89.Which of the following is true
regarding phenylketonuria
Options
Dietary phenylalanine restriction is used in treatment
Occur due to deficiency ofPhenyalanine hydroxylase enzyme
Occur due to increase activity of phenyalanine hydroxylase enzyme
Tyrosine must be supplied in diet
90.Terminal product( s) of phenylalanine is:
Options
Fumarate
Acetyl CoA
Oxaloacetate
Acetoacetate
91.Optically inactive amino acid is/ are:
Options
203
Threonine
Thyronine
Valine
Glycine
92.Disease of branched chain amino acid includes
Options
Phenylketonuria
Maple syrup disease
Taysach's disease
Isovaleric acidemia
93.Correct combination of Urine odour in various metabolic disorders
Options
Phenylketonuria -Mousy odourTyrosinemia-Rotten cabbage
Hawkinsuria- Potato smell
Maple syrup disease-Rotten tomato
94. Polar amino acid(s) is/are:
Options
Serine
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Valine
95.Hydrophobic amino acids are:
Options
Methionine
Isoleucine
Lysine
Alanine
96.Non-polar amino acids are:
Options
Alanine
204
Tryptophan
Isoleucine
Lysine
97.Basic amino acid (s) is/are:
Options
Arginine
Proline
Lysine
Histidine98.PKU is a congenital amino acid metabolic disorder. In one of the following rare
variants of PKU
Dihydro Biopterin synthesis is affected. The enzyme deficient
is:
Options
Histidine decarboxylase
Phenylalanine hydroxylase
Dihydropterin reductase
Tyrosine deficiency
99. Nitric oxide (NO) is synthesized by all except:
Options
Endothelium
Platelets
Neuron
Macrophages
100.Non polar amino acids are:
Options
Proline
Lysine
Isoleucine
Arginine
101.Kinks in alpha structure are formed by which amino acid:
205
Options
Glycine
Lysine
Methionine
Glutamate
102.Which of the following amino acid can have o-glycoxylation linkage in oligosaccharide
molecule:Options
Asparagine
Glutamine
Serine
Cysteine
103.Enzyme deficient in I cell disease:
Options
GlcNAc phosphotransferase
Mannose Phosphotranferase
Phosphodiesterase
Mannose 6 phosphate transferase
104. immunoglobulins are:-
glycoproteins
105. Which is not a protein misfolding disease
Options
Prion disease
Alzheimer’s disease
Beta thalassemia
Ehler’s danlos syndrome
106.Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins?
Options
Proteases
Proteosomes
Templates
206
Chaperones
107.All are TRUE about chaperones except?
OptionsMany of them are known as heat shock proteins
They use energy during the protein-chaperone interaction
Ubiquitin is one of the most important chaperone
They are present in wide range of species from bacteria to human
108. Amyloid protein in human being is:
Options
A naturally present protein in normal individuals
Involves selectively blood vessels
Is visible by naked eyes as whitish cheesy material
A material which gets deposited inn extra-cellular spaces
109.The sequence that target proteins to lysosome is:
Options
Mannose 6phosphate
PTS
KDEL
110.Collagen of which type is found in hyaline cartilage?
Options
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
111. Keratin is present in both skin and nail. But nail is harder than skin. The reason is:
Options
Increased no of disulphide bonds
Decreased no of water molecules
Increased Na content
Increased hydrogen bond112.The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape
of a cell or in the formation of
207
matrices in the body. The shape of these protein is:
Options
Globular
Fibrous
Stretch of beadas
Planar
113. Quarter staggered arrangement is seen in:
Options
Immunoglobulin
Hemoglobin
Collagen
Keratin
114. All of the following are required for hydroxylation of proline in collagen synthesis
except?
Options
O2
Vitamin C
Monooxygenases
Monooxygenases
115. Major type of collagen in basement membrance:
Options
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
116.Precipitation of proteins occurs in all except?
Options
Adding, alcohol and acetonePH changes is moved awy from isoelectirc pH
With Trichloro acetic acid
With Heavy metals
208
117. In HbS, Glutamic acid replaced by valine. What will be its electrophoretic mobility?
Options
Increased
Decreased
No change
Dependson level of concerntration of HbS
118. All of the following are true about Sickle cell disease, except?
Options
Single nucleotide change results in change of Glutamine to Valine
RFLP result from a single base change
‘sticky patch’ is generated as a result of replacement of a nonpolar residue

with a polar residue
HbS confers resistance against malaria in heterozygotes
Following SDS PAGE electrophoresis, proteins is found to be 100kDa. After treatment with
mercaptoethanol, it shows 2 bands of 20 kDa and 30 KDa widely
119.separated. True statement is:
Options
Protein has undergone hydrolysis of S-S linkage
It is a dimer of 3 subunits of 20 and 30 KDa
Protein break down due to non convalent linkage
120.Protein is purified using ammonium sulphate by:
Options
Salting out
Ion exchange chromatography
Mass chromatographyMolecular size exclusion
121.All of the following can determine the protein structure except?
Options
High performance liquid chromatography
Mass spectrometry
209
X-ray crystallography
NMR spectrometry
122. Protein separation bcased on mass/molwt (size) is/are done in all except
Options
Ultra filtration
Native gel electrophoresis
2D gel electrophoresis
Gel filtration chromatography
123. Methods of chromatography in which molecules that are negatively charged are
selectively
released from stationary phase into the positively charged molecules
in mobile phase is termed as?
Options
Affinity chromatography
Ion- exchange chromatography
Adsorption chromatography
Size- exclusion chromatography
124. Movement of protein from nucleus to cytoplasm can be seen by?
Options
FISH
FRAP
Confocal microscopy
DNA microscopy
125.Molecules up to size 4 KD is identified by:Options
Gene array chip
Electron spray ionization
Quadruple mass spectromtery
Matrix assisted laser desorption ionisation
126. Amino acid sequence is not found by:
Options
210
Sanger’s reagent
Benedicts reagent
Trypsin
Cyanogen bromide
127.Method used to study the structure of proteins include all except?
Options
UV Spectroscopy
NMR Spectroscopy
Edman’s technique
128.Sanger’s reagent is chemically:
Options
2,4 Dinitro benzene
2,4 Dinitro Cresol
1,Flouro 2,4 Dinitro Benzene
1,Flouro 2,4 Dinitro Benzenel
129. Which of the following about protein structure is correct?
Options
Protein consisting of one polypeptide can have quaternary structure
The formation of disulphide bond in a protein require that the two participating cysteine
residues be
adjacent to each other in the primary sequence of theprotein
The formation of disulphide bond in a protein require that the two participating glycine
residues be
adjacent to each other in the primary sequence of the
protein
The inforamtion required for the correct folding of a protein is contained in

the specific sequence
of amino acid along the polypeptide chain
130.An alpha helix of a protein is most likely to be disrupted if a missense mutation

introduces the
211
following amino acid within the alpha helical structure:
Options
Alanine
Aspartic acid
Tyrosine
Glycine
131. Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They fold into compact structures.
Sometimes,these folded structures associated to form homo-or-heterodimers.
Which one of the following refer to this associated form?
Options
Denatured state
Molecular aggregation
Precipitation
Quaternary structure
132. Which of the following is the structure of myoglobin?
Options
Monomer
Homodimer
Heterodimer
Tetramer
133. Denatruration is resisted bt which of the following bond?
OptionsPeptide bond
Hydrogen bond y
Disulphide bond
Electrostatic bond
134.Polypeptide formation in amino acid is by
Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
212
Tertiary structure
135.Rossman fold associated NADH domain is found in which enzyme
Options
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
Lactate dehydrogenase
Alpha ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase
Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
Question (1/33)
136. Which one of the following can be homologous substitution for isolecuine in a protein
in
sequence?
Options
Methionine
Aspartic acid
Valine
Arginine
137.Isoelectric point is when:
Options
Net charge of protein in zero
Mass of protein in zeroProtein
Denaturation of protein occurs
138.Biuret test is used for detection of:
Options
Protein
Cholesterol
Steroid
Sugar
139.What type of protein in Casein?
Options
213
Lipoprotein
Phosphoprotein
Glycoprotein
Flavoprotein
140.Which is/are not transport protein?
Options
Transferrin
Collagen
Ceruloplasmin
Hemoglobin
141.The process in which amino group of amino acid is transferred to keto acid and keto
group of
keto acid is transferred to the amino acid is called
Options
Phosphorylation
Transamination
Deamination
Decarboxylation
142. Which intermediate of citric acid cycle is used in detoxification of ammonia in

brain?Options
Citrate
Succinate
Alpha-ketoglutarate
Oxalo-acetate
143.True about urea cycle:
Options
Nitrogen of urea comes from alanine and ammonia
Carbon of urea comes from bicarbonate
Occur mainly in cytoplasm
Malate is a byproduct of urea cycle
214
144. A patient presented to casualty with nausea, vomiting. Intravenous glucose was given
and the
patient recovered. After few months, patient presented with same
complaints. Blood glutamine was found to be increased. Also uracil levels were raised. What
is the
diagnosis?
Options
CPS-I deficiency
Argino succinate synthetase deficiency
CPS-II deficiency
Ornithine trans carbamoylase deficiency
145.In urea synthesis, Carbon comes from:
Options
Bicarbonate
Methyl THF
Formate
NS, NlO methylene THF
146. Which process involves formation of non essential amino acid from keto acid?
OptionsOxidation
Transamination
Dehydrogenation
Demination
147.Glutamate is formed from which amino acid
Options
Threonine
Alanine
Proline
Lysine
148.Ammonia from brain is trapped by
Urea
215
Glutamate
Glutamine
Glycine
149.Phenylbutyrate because it is used in urea cycle disorders
Scavenges nitrogen
Activates enzymes
Maintains renal output
Maintains energy production
150. Nontoxic form of storage and ammonia: transportation
Options
Aspartic acid
Glutamate
Glutamine
Glutamic acid
151. In urea cycle, hydrolysis occurs duringOptions
Cleavage of Arginine
Formation of ornithine
Formation of Argininosuccinate
Formation of citrulline
152. Which of the following enzyme is a regulator of UREA cycle?
Options
Dehydrogenase
CPS-I
CPS-II
Ornithine transcarbamoylase
153. Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I (CPS-I) is which one of the following?
Options
Cytosolic enzyme
Hepatic mitochondrial enzyme
216
Lysosomalenzyme
All of the above
154.Source of nitrogen in urea cycle is
Options
Glutamate and NH3
Glutamate and aspartate
Arginine and aspartate
NH3 and aspartate
155. In the biosynthesis of urea, one nitrogen atom is derived from ammonia while the other
nitrogen atom is from
Options
Glcyine
AlanineAspartate
Glutamate
156. Which ofthe following does not contain P-alanine1
Options
Carnosine
Anserine
Homocarnosine
Pantothenic acid
157. Urea is formed from:
Options
Citrulline
Aspatrate
Ornithine
Arginine
158.Not a metabolic product of urea cycle
Options
Ornithine
Alanine
217
Citrulline
Arginine
159. NO is secreted by
Options
Endothelium
Ectoderm
Endoderm
Bones
160.Nitric oxide in synthesized from?Options
L-arginine
Aspartate
L-citrulline
Lysine
161. True about Nitric Oxide are all except
Options
Otherwise called Endothelium derived Relaxing Factor
Nitric Oxide Synthase has three isoforms
Produced from arginine
Acts through cAMP
162. EDRF is
Options
S02
NO
Np
N02
163. AU are true regarding Urea cycle except
Options
Urea formed from ammonia
Rate limiting enzyme is ornithine transcarbamoylase
218
Require Energy expenditure
Malate is byproduct of urea cycle
Options
Nitrogen of the urea comes from alanine and ammonia
Uses ATP during conversion of arginosuccinate toOn consumption of high amount of

protein, excess of urea formed
165. Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are not involved in urea cycle:
Options
Glutamate dehydrogenase
Argininosucinate synthetase
A- KG dehydorogenase
Isocitrate dehydrogenase
166. Urea cycle enzymes are:
Options
Glutaminase
Asparginase
Ornithine transcarboxylase
167.Hyperammonemia inhibit TCA cycle by depleting
Options
Oxaloacetate
Alpha-ketoglutarate
Citrate
Succinyl Co-A
168.AU are urea cycle enzymes except
Options
CPS -1 (carbamoyl phosphate synthetase-!)
219
Arginosuccinatelyase
Citrulline synthase
169.Vasodilator produced by decarboxylation of:Options
Histidine
Glutamic acid
Aspertic acid
Lysine
170.Nitric oxide synthesised from:
Options
Arginine
Citrulline
Alanine
Cysteine
171.Histidine load test is used for:
Options
Folate deficiency
Histidine deficiency
Histamine deficiency
Pre vCysteine
172.True about Nitric Oxide are all except:
Options
Otherwise called endothelium derived relaxing factor
Acts through c AMP
173. Creatinine is formed from:
Options
Arginine
LysineLeucine
220
Histamine
174.Histidine is converted to Histamine by which reaction?
Options
Carboxylation
Oxidation
Decarboxylation
Amination
175.Branched chain ketoacid decarboxylation is defective in:
Options
Hartnup disease
Alkaptonuria
GMI Gangliosidosis
176. MSUD type I A is due to mutation of:
Options
E I alpha
EI
E2
E3
177.Which is not formed from branched chain amino acid?
Options
Xanthurenate
Tiglyl CoA
Acetoacetyl CoA and acetyl CoA
Acetyl CoA and CoA
178. Treatment used in isovaleric aciduria:Options
Arginine
Lysine
Glycine
221
Methionine
179. Which of the following amino acid is excreted in urine in maple syrup urine disease?
Options
Tryptophan
Phenylalanine
Leucine
Arginine
180. Fish odour syndrome can be prevented by intake of:
Options
Choline
Niacin
Pantothenic acid
Riboflavin
181.Proline is formed from
Options
Alpha ketoglutarate
Glutamate
Pyruvate
Alanine
182. The nitrogen atom of aspartate formed from asparagines using enzyme asparaginase is
from:
Options
Ammonium
GlutamateGlutamine
Alpha ketoglutarate
183.Oxaloacetate is formed from:
Options
Proline
Histidine and arginine
Glutamate and glutamine
222
Aspartate and asparagine
184.Amino acid responsible for Thioredoxin reductase activation:
Options
Serine
Selenocysteine
Cysteine
Alanine
185. Oxaloacetate is derived from which amino acid?
Options
Glutamine and glutamate
Asparagine and aspartate
Glutamine and proline
186. Smell of sweaty feet is seen in:
Options
Phenyl Ketonuria
Homocystinuria
Glutaric acidemia
MSUD
187. During the formation of hydroxyl proline and hydroxyl lysine, the essential factor
required
is/are:Options
Pyridoxal phosphate
Ascorbic acid
Thiamine pyrophosphate
Methylcobalamine
188. Succinyl CoA is formed by:
Options
Histidine
Leucine
223
Valine
Lysine
189. In one carbon metabolism serine loses which carbon atom?
Options
Alpha
Beta Carbon atom
Gamma
Delta
190. Which amino acid is not excreated in Cystinuria?
Options
Lysine
Ornithine
Cysteine
Cystine
191.Tripeptide is:
Options
Glutathione
AnserineCarnosline
Homocarnosine
192. In a case of classic homocystinuria what should be supplemented in the diet to prevent
heart
attacks?
Options
Pyridoxine
Methionine
Methyl cobalamine
Niacin
193. Sulphur of cysteine are not used/utilised in the body for the following process/ product:
Options
Help in the conversion of cyanide to thiocyanate
224
Thisoulphate formation
Introdction of sulphur in methionine
Disulphide bond formation b/w two adjacent peptide
194. N Acetyl Cysteine replenishes
Options
Glutathione
Glycine
Glutamate
GABA
196. In glutathione which amino acid is reducing agent?
Glutamic acid
Glycine
Cysteine
Alanine
197. Serotonin is:
Options5hydroxy Tryptophan
5 Hydroxy Tryptamine
5 carboxy Tryptamine
5 carboxy Tryophan
198. Tyrosinosis most common cause is:
Options
Fumaryl aceto acetate hydrolase
Para hydroxy phenyl pyuvate hydroxylase
Homogentisate oxidase
199. 5 HIAAI in urine is due to:
Pheochromocytoma
Carcinoid Syndrome
Phenyl Ketouria
225
Alkaptonuria
200. VMA is excreted in urine in which condition?
Options
Pheochromocytoma
Carcinoid syndrome
Phenyl ketonuria
Alkptonuria
201. Melanin derived from:
Options
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Methionine
Alanine202.Melatonin derived from:
Options
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Methionine
Alanine
203. Treatment of tyrosinemia type 1 is:
Options
NTBC
Vitamin B6
Large neutral amino acids
Tyrosin restricted diet
204. Which is elevated in PLP deficiency?
Options
FIGLU
Xanthurenic acid
Methyl malonic acid
226
VMA
205. Dopamine is synthesized from:
Options
Tryptophan
Threonine
Tyrosine
Lysine
206. In phenylketonuria the main aim of first line therapy is:
Replacement of the defective enzyme
Replacement of the deficient productLimiting the substrate for deficient enzyme
Giving the missing amino acid by diet
207. A 40-years- old women presents with progressive palmoplantar pigmentation. X-ray
spine
shows calcification of IV disc. On adding benedicts reagent to urine,
it gives greenish brown precipitate and blue-black supernatant fluid. What is the diagnosis?
Options
Alkaptonuria
Tyrosinemia type 2
Argininosuccinic aciduria
Phenylketonuria
208. Dopamine hydroxylase catalyse:
Options
Dopamine --> Norepinephrine
Dopa to dopamine
Nor epinephrine to epinephrine
Tyrosine to dopa
209. Type 1 tyrosinemia is caused by:
Options
227
4 hydroxy phenyl pyruvate hydroxylase
Maleyl acetoacetate isomerase
210.Enzyme deficiency in albinism is:
Options
Tyrosinase
Tyrosine hydroxylase
Homogentisate oxidase211.Mousy body odour is due to:
Options
Phenylalanine
Phenyl Acetate
Phenyl Butazone
Phenyl Acetyl Glutamine
212. The amino acid that can be converted into a vitamin:
Options
Glycine
Tryptophan
Phenylalanine
Lysine
213. Which of the following amino acid is involved in the synthesis of thyroxine?
Options
Glycine
Methionine
Threonine
Tyrosine
214.Tyrosinemics are more susceptible to develop
Adenocarcinoma colon
Melanoma
Retinoblastoma
Hepatic carcinoma
228
215. Hyperoxaluria asscoiated with whihc amino acid?
Options
Glycine
SerineThreonine
Lysine
216.Which of the following is true about glycine?
Options
Glycine is an essential amino acid
Sulphur containing at 4th position
Has a guanidine group
Optically inactive
217.Which of the following would not act as source of glycine by transamination?
Options
Alanine
Aspartate
Glutamate
Glyoxylate
218.Glycine cleavage system in liver mitochondria is associated with which enzyme?
Options
Glycine Dehydrogenase
Glycine transaminase
Glycine Decarboxlase
Glycine dehydratase
219.Guanido acetic acid is formed in
Options
Kidney; Arginine+ Glycine
Liver; Methionine+ Glycine
Liver; Cysteline+ Arginine
Muscle; citrulline+ Aspartate
229
220.N Methyl Glycine is known as:Options
Ergothionine
Sarcosine
Carnosine
Betaine
221. What is the metabolic defect in Primary Oxaluria type II?
Options
Glycine cleavage system
Alanine glyoxalate amino transferase
D glycerate dehydrogenase
Excess vitamin C
222.All are true about glutathione except?
Options
It is a tripeptide
It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
It conjugates xenobiotics
It is co-factor of various enzyme
223.Ammonia from brain is detoxified as:
Options
Glutamate
Glutamine
Alanine
Urea
224.True about Glutamate Dehydrogenase:
Options
Can use NADH or NADPH
PLP is the coenzymeEnzyme of transamination
Ammonium ion is not released in the free form
225. Ammonium ion is not released in the free form
230
Options
Increased breakdown of muscle proteins
Impaired renal function
Decreased utilization of amino acid from gluconeogenesis
Leakage of amino acids from cells due to plasma membrane damage
226.Transfer of an amino group from an amino acid to an alpha keto acid is done by:
Options
Transaminases
Aminases
Transketolases
Deaminases
227. The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver is
Options
Alanie
Methionine
Arginine
Glutamine
228. Glutamine in blood acts are:
Options
Ammonia transporter
Toxic element
Toxic element
Abnormal metabolite
229.Amino acid absorption is by:Options
Facilitated transport
Passive transport
Active transport
Pinocytosis
230.The transporter gene defective in Hartup
231
Options
SLA 6A 19
SLA 6A 18
SLA 36 A2
SLA 7A7
231.Nontoxic form of storage and transportation of ammonia:
Options
Aspartic acid
Glutamic acid
Glutamine
Glutamate
232..CPS-I used in which pathway?
Options
Pyrimidine synthesis
Purine synthesis
Urea cycle
TCA cycle
233.Urea cycle occurs in
Options
Liver
GITSpleen
Kidney
234.In which of the following condition there is increased level of ammonia in blood?
Options
Ornithine thranscarbamylase deficiency
Galactosemia
Histidinemia
Phenylketonuria
235.Urea cycle occurs in:
232
Options
Cytoplasm
Mitochondria
Both
Endoplasmic reticulum
236. Glutamate dehydrogenase in mitochondria is activated by:
Options
ATP
GTP
NADH
ADP
237. Nitrogen atoms of Urea contributed by:
Options
Ammonium and aspartate
Ammonium and glutamate
Ammonium and glycine
Ammonium and asparagine
238.Phenyl butyrate is used in cycle disorder because:Options
Scavenges nitrogen
Increased enzyme activity
Maintain energy level
Increases renal output of ammonia
239.A 6-month-old boy admitted with failure to thrive with high glutamine and uracil in
urine.
Hypoglycemia, high blood ammonia. Treatment given for 2 months.
At 8 months again admitted for failure to gain weight. Gastric tube feeding was not tolerated.
Child
became comatose. Parenteral Dextrose given. Child
recovered from coma with 24hrs. What is the enzyme defect?
Options
233
CPS1
Ornitinetranscarbamoylase
Arginase
Argininosuccinate Synthetase
240.A baby presents with refusal to feed, skin lesions, seizures, ketosis, organic acids in urine
with
normal ammonia, likely diagnosis:
Options
Proprionic aciduria
Multiple carboxylase deficiency
Urea cycle enzyme deficiency
241. Enzyme involved in nonoxidative deamination is:
Options
L-amino acid Oxidase
Glutamate Dehydrogenase
Glutaminase
Amino acid Dehydratase
242.Which of these is a conservative mutation?Options
Glutamic acid-glutamine
Histidine-glycine
Alanine-leucine
Arginine-aspartic acid
243.Proteins are sorted by:
Options
Golgi bodies
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Nuclear Membrane
244.Not true among the following is:
234
Options
Sec61 translocon complex form passage way
SRP-R is a docking protein
SRP blocks elongation
SRP-R is ATP bound
245.Endoplasmic reticulum signal transduction isthrough
Options
Translocon
Chaperones
Ubiquitin
Mannose 6 phosphate
246.Not a function of endoplasmic reticulum:
Options
Protein synthesis
Muscle contractionProtein sorting
Glycoproteins
247.Targeting sequence that direct endoplasmic reticulum resident protein inn retrograde
flow to ER
in COP-I vesicles
Options
KDEL
KDAL
DALK
KDUL
247. Secretory proteins are synthesized in:
Options
Cytoplasm
First in cytoplasmand then in endoplasmic reticulum
First in endoplasmic reticulum and then in cytoplasm
235
248. Cre - cis regulatory elements bind to what site
Options
RE site
FTR site
Lox P site
INT site
Restriction Endonuclease is used in:
Options
RFLP
PCR
PCR
SOS-PAGE
Function of endonucleases:Options
Cut DNA at specific DNA sequences
To point out the coding regions
Enhancers
To find out antibiotic resistance
Enzymes used in DNA research programme are, except:
Options
Polymerase
Exonuclease
Nuclease
None
In DNA transfer the vectors used from smallest to largest is:
Options
Cosmids, Plasmids, Bacteriophage
Plasmids, Bacteriophage, Cosmids
Bacteriophage, Cosmids, Plasmids
Cosmids, Bacteriophage, Plasmids
236
In gene cloning, largest fragment can be incorporated in:
Options
Plasmid
Bacteriophage
Cosmid
Retrovirus
Function of restriction 11 enzyme:
Options
Prevents protein folding
Removing formed DNACleaves DNA at palindromic recognition site
Negative supercoiling
After digestion by restriction endonuclease DNA strands can be joined again in:
Options
DNA polymerase
DNA ligase
DNA topoisomerase
DNA gyrase
Starting material for production of insulin from bacteria is:
Options
Genomic DNA of lymphocytes
M RNA of lymphocytes
Genomic DNA of beta cell of pancreas
MRNA of beta cells of pancreas
Correct statements regarding restriction e ase is/are:
Restriction endonuclease recognizes specific sites of DNA sequence
Restriction endonuclease recognizes short of DNA
It acts at 5' - 3' direction
Real time PCR is used for:
Options
237
Multiplication of RNA
Multiplication of specific segment of DNA
Multiplication of Protein
To know how much amplification has occurred
Quantitative DNA analysis/estimation is done by:
OptionsPH meter
Sphymometer
Sphymometer
Spectrometer
All are added to PCR, except:
Options
Deoxynucleotide
Dideoxynucleotide
Thermostat DNAP
Template DNA
For PCR which of the following is not required?
Options
Taq polymerase
D-NTP
Primer
Radiolabelled DNA probe
SYBR Green Dye Is used for:
Options
HPLC
Lmmunofluorescence
PCR
ELISA
Enzyme(s) used in polymerase chain reaction ls/are:
Options
Restriction endonuclease
238
DNA polymerase
Alkaline phosphateRNA polymerase
True about PCR all except:
Options
Carried out by thermostable DNA-polymerase
Exponential amplification
Additive amplification
Specific amplification
PCR is used in:
Options
Medicolegal cases
Amplification of gene
Identification of organism
All of the above
Which of the following is used in PCR?
Options
Ca ++
Mg ++
Li +
Na +
In PCR Acquaticus thermophilus is preferred over E.coli, because:
Options
Thermostable at temperature at which DNA liquefies
Proof reading done
Done in more precisely
Does not require primer
Western blot detects:
OptionsDNA
DNA
239
Protein
MRNA
Which is the test used to Identify mRNA?
Options
Southern Blot
Northern Blot
Western Blot
South Western Blot
Which method is used to locate a known gene locus?
Options
FISH
CGH
Chromosome painting
RT-PCR
Light microscopy resolution to visualize chromosomes;
Options
500 kb
5mb
50 mb
5kb
Test to differentiate in the chromosome of normal and cancer cell:
Options
PCR
Comparative genomic hybridization
Western BlottingSouthern Blotting
Karyotyping under light microscopy is done by
Options
R banding
Q banding
240
G banding
C banding
Rapid method of chromosome identification in intersex is:
Options
FISH
PCR
SSCP
Karyotyping
Which of following techniques is used for detection of variation in DNA sequence and Gene
expression?
Options
Northern Blot
Southern Blot
Western Blot
Microarray
Which of the following tests in not used for detection of specific aneuploidy?
Options
FISH
RT-PCR
QF- PCR
Microarray
For isolating a gene of long DNA molecules (50·100 KB) following Is used:
OptionsChromosome walking
Sanger's sequencing
RFLP
SSLP
DNA finger printing was founded by:
Options
Watson
241
Gaitan
Jeffrey
Sanger
The following methods can be used to detect the point mutation in the beta globulin
globulin gene
that causes sickle cell anemia, except:
Options
Polymerase chain reaction with allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridization
Southern blot analysis
DNA sequencing
Northern blot analysis
DNA fingerprinting is based on possessing in DNA of
Options
Constant tandem repeat
Variable Number Tandem Repeat
Non-repetitive sequence
Exon
RNAi in gene expression denotes:
Options
Knock down
Knock up
Knock inKnock out
The function of a gene is determined by:
Options
Inserting in transgenic mice
Gene editing can be done by various methods like hypermethyation and amplification.
Which of the
following will not change the genetic code?
Options
242
Epigenetics
CRISPR
GenXpert
TALEN
RFLP used in surgical ICU to identify staph aureus. The restriction site of the restriction
endonuclease
HIND 111 be:
Options
AAGAAG TTAGGT
AAGAGA GAAGCA
AAGCTT TTCGAA
AAGGAA CCTTGA
Methods of introducing gene in target cells are all except:
Options
Electroporation
Transfection
Site directed recombination
FISH
The first gene therapy (somatic enzyme) was successfully done in:
OptionsSCIO
Phenylketonuria
Thalassemia
Cystic fibrosis
Purpose of gene therapy
Options
Replacement of abnormal gene by normal gene
Replacement of normal gene by abnormal gene
Knock out of abnormal gene
Introduction of viral gene
The following are used to study pathological genome except:
243
Options
Genbank
Entrez gene
Hapmap
BLAST
Study of structure and products of gene is:
Options
Genomics
Proteomics
Bioinformatics
Cytogenetics
What biologist uses to diagnose and treat diseases with disorders with multlgenic
Inheritance?
Options
Gene card
Tag SNPs
Flipped cardVirtual Cell
Which of the following statement is true about Linkage analysis?
Options
Detection of characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family associated with

disorders
useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non- affected family members
Used to make a pedigree chart to show non- paternity
Non gene mapping method of
Which of the following are situated away from the coding region:
Options
Promoter
Enhancer
Operator
Structural gene
244
Housekeeping genes are:
Options
Inducible
Required only when inducer is present
Mutant
Not regulated
False statement is:
Options
Repressor binds operator gene
Regulator genes produce repressor subunits
IPTG is inducer but not substrate
Regulator gene is inducible
Lac operon transcription is induced by:
OptionsGlucose
Glucose with inducer
Inducer without glucose
Both lactose and Glucose
All of the following statements about Lambda phage are true, except
Options
I n Lysogenic phase it fuses with host chromosome and remains dormant
In Lytic phase it fuses with host chromosome and replicates
Both Lytic and Lysogenic phase occur together.
In Lytic phase it causes cell lysis and releases virus particles
Normal role of Micro RNA is:
Options
Gene Regulation
RNA splicing
Initiation of Translation
DNA conformation change
245
CpG island in human genome is related to:
Options
TRNA synthesis
DNA methylation
DNA Acetylation
Replication initiation
Genes in CpG Island is inactivated by:
Options
Methylation
Metrylation
UbiquitisationAcetylation
All are true DNA methylation except:
Options
It usually occurs in the cytosine
Can alter the gene expression pattern in cells
Role in genomic imprinting
No role in carcinogenesis
All are true regarding epigenetics mechanisms except:
Options
Non inheritable
Acetylation
Hereditary
Methylation of DNA
Random inactivation of X-chromosome is:
Options
Lyonisation
Allelic Exclusion
Randomisation
Genomic imprinting
246
Histone acetylation cause:
Options
Increased Heterochromatin formation
Increased Euchromatin formation
Methylation of cystine
DNA replication
Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as:
OptionsGenomic imprinting
Mosaicism
Anticipation
Nonpenetrance
Epigenetics is a:
Options
Chemical modification of DNA
Irreversible modification of DNA
Change in nucleotide sequence
Normal variation of nucleotides
Methylation of Cytidine residues of DNA will cause:
Options
No Change
Decrease gene expression
Mutation
Increase in gene expression
Question (1/5)
CRISPR is:
Options
It is a type of bacterial defense mechanism in bacteria against phages/viruses
It is a type of bacterial defense mechanism in virus against bacteria
It is an anticaspase used against bacteriophages in humans
Methods of Introducing gene in target cells are all
247
Study of multiplication of proteins in disease process is called:
Options
Proteomics
GenomicsGlycomics
Nucleomics
Choose the true statement about mit DNA:
Options
Few mutation compared to nuclear DNA
It has 3X10 9 base pairs
It receives 23 chromosomes from each parent
It codes for less than 20% of the proteins involved in respiratory chain
All are true about mitochondrial DNA except:
Options
Contains 37 gene
Transmit from mother to offsprings
Transmit in classical Mendelina fashion
Cause leber hereditary optic neuropathy
Mitochondrial DNA is:
Options
Closed circular
Nicked circular
Linear
Open circular
Microsatellite sequence is:
Options
Small satellite
Extra chromosomal DNA
Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA
Looped-DNA
248
No loss of genetic material occur in:Options
Deletion
Insertion
Substitution
Inversion
Base substitution mutations can have the following molecular consequence except:
Options
Changes one codon for an amino acid into another codon for that same amino acid
Codon for one amino acid is changed into a codon of another amino acid
Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant site
Codon for one amino acid is changed into a translation termination codon
Frame shift mutation is caused by:
Options
Deletion
Point mutation
Substitution
Transversion
Cystic fibrosis mutation chloride conductance is:
Options
Class-1
Class-2
Class-3
Class-4
One of the following mutation is mutation is potentially lethal:
Options
Substitution of adenine for cytosine
Substitution of methyl cytosine for cytosineSubstitution of guanine for cytosine
Insertion of one base
Sickle cell anemia is the clinical manifestation of homozygous genes for an abnormal
hemoglobin
249
molecule. The event responsible for the mutation m the B
chain is:
Options
Insertion
Deletion
Nondisjunction
Point mutation
Null mutation is:
Options
Mutation occurring in non-coding region
Mutation that does not change the amino acid or end product
Mutation that codes for a change in progeny without a chromosomal change
Mutation that leads to no functional gene product
A mutation in the codon which causes a change in the coded amino acid, is known as:
Options
Mitogenesis
Somatic mutation
Missense mutation
Recombination
In a mutation if valine is replaced by which of the following would not result in any change in
the
function of protein?
Options
Praline
Leucine
GlycineAspartic acid
Which of the following can - be a homologous substitution for valine in the hemoglobin?
Options
Lsoleucine
Glutamic acid
250
Phenyl alanine
Lysr.ne
Pyrimidine dimers are seen in:
Options
UV rays
Xeroderma Pigmentosa
Alkylating agents
X-rays
Question (1/27)
Which RNA contain abnormal purine and Pyrimidine?
Options
tRNA
23 SrRNA
16 S rRNA
mRNA
A codon consist of:
Options
One molecule of amino acyl-t RNA
Two complementary base pairs
Three consecutive nucleotide units
Four individual nucleotides
All are true of genetic code except:Options
Degenerate
Universal
Punctuation
Non overlapping
Wobble hypothesis-regarding the variation true is
Options
Degenerate
5 -end of anticodon
251
Mrna
TRNA
There are 20 amino acids with three codons In Spite of the no of amino acids could be
formed is 64
leading to that an amino acid Is represented by more than
one codon is called:
Options
Transcription
Degeneracy
Mutation
Frame shift
Genetic code has triplet of nucleotides each for one amino acid. When an amino acid is
specified by
than one codon, it is called:
Options
Transcription
Degeneracy
Mutation
Frameshift
The polyeptide from poly (A) is:
OptionsPolylysine
Polyglycine
Polyproline
Polyalanine
If constitutive sequence of 4 nucleotide codes for 1 ammo acid, how many amino acid can
be
theoretically
Options
64
16
252
256
Termination process of protein synthesis is performed by all except:
Options
Releasing factor
Stop codon
Peptidyl transferase
AUG codon
True about Ribozyme:
Options
Peptidyl Transferase activity
Cuts DNA at specific site
Participate in DNA Synthesis
GTPase activity
Part of eukaryotlc DNA contributing to polypeptide synthesis:
Options
Exon
Enhancer
Leader sequencetRNA
Met-tRNA would recognize: GCA AUG
Options
AUG
UAG
GUA
UAC
Which of the following statement Is true?
N formyl methionine is the precursor of eukaryot1c polypeptide synthesis
Eukryotic ribosomes are smaller than prokaryot1c
Identification of 5' cap of mRNA by IF4E is the rate limiting step
Elongation factor 2 shuttles between ADP and ATP
253
RNA polymerase differs from DNA polymerase:
Options
It edits and synthesis
Synthesise RNA primers
Synthesis only in 5 to 3 direction
Uses RNA templates
The cellular component for protein synthesis is:
Options
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Ribosomes
Mitochondria
Amber codon refers to:
Options
Mutant codonStop codon
Initiating codon
Codon for more than one amino acids
Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:
Options
AUG codon
UAA codon
UAG codon
UGA codon
True regarding amino acyl tRNA synthetase is A/E:
Options
Is accepting tRNA
Implement genetic code
Attachment of amino group to 5' end of tRNA
Editing function
254
In translation process, done by:
Options
RNA polymerase synthetase
Amino synthetase
Leucine zipper
DNA
Which enzyme Involved In translation is often referred to as 'Fidelity enzyme'?
Options
DNA polymerase
RNA polymerase
Amino acyl tRNA synthetase
Amino acylAbout peptidyl transferase true is:
Options
Used in elongation and cause attachment of peptide chain to A- site of tRNA
Used in elongation and cause attachment peptide chain to P site
Used in initiation and cause 435 complex formation
Termination is caused by all except:
Options
RF-1
UAA
48S complex
435 preinitiation complex include all except:
Options
IF3
IF1A
IF2
IF-4F
255
IF 4F include all except:
Options
4A
4G
4E
4S
For 1 peptide bond formation how many high energy phosphate bonds are required?
Options
01
Vitamin required for post translational modification of coagulants is:
Options
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin 8s
Vitamin K
Initiator tRNA is in which site of ribosome?
Options
A site
P site
E site
B site
5'TTACGTAC 3' after transcription what will be the RNA?
Options
5'-TIACGTAC 3'
3'-TIACGTAC 5'
3'-CATGCATI 5'
5,-GUACGUAA 3'
256
Immunoglobulin molecule is synthesized by in mixed or separate due to:
Options
Codominance
Gene switching
Allele exclusion
Differential RNA processingA four-year-old child is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular

dystrophy, an X-linked recessive
disorder, Genetic analysis shows that the patient's gene for the
muscle protein dystrophin contains a mutation in its promoter region. What would be the
most
likely effect of this mutation?
Options
Tailing of dystrophin mRNA will be defective
Capping of dystrophin mRNA will be defective
Termination of dystrophin transcription will be deficient
Initiation of dystrophin transcription will be deficient
Splicing activity is a function of
Options
MRNA
SnRNA
TRNA
RRNA
Reverse transcriptase is:
Options
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
RNA dependent DNA polymerase
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
RNA dependent RNA polymerase
Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base?
Options
257
MRNA
TRNA
RRNA
SnRNA
The sigma (s) submit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase:Options
Binds the antibiotic rifampicin
Is inhibited by a-amanitin
Specifically recognizes the promoter site
Is part of the core enzyme
The base sequence of the strand of DNA used as a template has the sequence 5'GATCTAC 3'.
What
would be the base sequence of RNA product?
Options
5' CTAGATG 3'
5' GAUCUAC 3'
5' GTAGATC 3'
5' GUAGAUC 3'
DNA dependent RNA polymerase is seen in:
Options
Primase
DNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase Ill
DNA gyrase
Strand of DNA from which mRNA is formed by transcription is called:
Options
Template
Anti-template
Coding
Transcript
On which of the following t RNA acts specifically?
258
Options
ATP
Golgi bodySpecific amino acid
Ribosome
In conversion of DNA to RNA, enzyme required:
Options
DNA- polymerase
DNA polymerase 111
DNA Ligase
RNA polymerase
RNA polymerase does not require:
Template (ds DNA)
Activated precursors (ATP, GTP, UTP, CTP)
Divalent metal ions (Mn2 . Mg )
Primer
In a DNA the coding region reads 5'-CGT-3 '. This ' would code in the RNA as:
Options
5'-CGU-3 '
5'-GCA-3'
5'-ACG-3 '
5'-UGC-3'
Cytoplasmic process during processing is
Options
5' capping
Poly A tailing
Mefhylation of t RNA
Attachment of CCA in t RNA
All are the processing reaction in t RNA, except:
OptionsCCA tailing
259
Methylation of bases
Poly A tailing
Trimming of 5' end
Lntrons are exised by:
Options
RNA splicing
RNA editing
DNAase
A segment of eukaryotlc gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA is known as:
Options
Lntron
Exon
Plasmid
TATA box
An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template
molecule
is known as:
Options
DNA polymerase
RNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
Phosphokinase
Function of Pseudouridine arm of tRNA:
Options
Helps in initiation of translation
Serves as the recognition site of amino acyltRNA sythetase
Recognises the triple nucleotide codon present in the mRANHelps in initiation of

transcription
Which of the following is true regarding transcription except:
260
Options
MRNA formed
DNA polymerase enzyme is used
RNA polymerase enzyme is used
Eukaryotes possess 3 different types of RNA polymerase
###Apo 848 & Apo 8100 is synthesized from the mRNA- the difference between them is due
to
Options
RNA splicing
Allelic exclusion
Deamination of cytidine to uridine
Upstream repression
Most common RNA is:
Options
RRNA
MRNA
TRNA
HnRNA
Thymidylated RNA present in:
Options
MRNA
R RNA
T RNA
16-s-RNA
Met-tRNA would recognize
OptionsAUG
GCA
GUA
Pre Vuac
Question (1/21)
261
Which of the following is true about DNA Polymerase Ill?
Options
It forms Okazaki fragm nts an it needs RAN primer
It is needed for translation
Bacteria can function without it
Has DNA repair function
True about DNA Gyrase
Options
Prokaryotic Topoisomerase I
Prokaryotic DNA Topoisomerase 11
Incorrect statement are:
Options
T4 DNA polymerase has 3'->5' exonuclease activity
Kienow fragment of DNA polymerase I function is almost s1m1lar to T4 DNA polymerase
Restriction endonuclease cut DNA chains at specific location
Pre vEndonuclease cut DNA at 5' terminus
Which DNA polymerase is involved in repair of mammalian DNA?
Options
Alpha
BetaGamma
Epsilon
The gaps between segments of DNA on the lagging stand produced by restriction enzymes
are joined
sealed by:
Options
DNA Ligases
DNA Helicase
DNA topoisomerase
262
DNA Phosphorylase
During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymes polymerizes the Okazaki
fragments?
Options
DNA Polymerase I
DNA Polymerase II
DNA Polymerase 111
RNA Polymerase 1
All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telomerase which protects the length of
telomerase at the end of chromosomes, except:
Options
Germinal
Somatic
Hemopoietic
Tumor
DNA Polymerase with both replication and repair function is
Options
II
III
IVRadiolabelled DNA was allowed to replicate twice in a non-radioactive environment.

Which of the
following is true?
Options
All the strands will have radioactivity
Half of the DNA will have no radioactivity
No strands will have radioactivity
Three-fourth of the DNA replicated will have radioactivity
In which of the following phase, DNA doubling occurs
Options
263
GI phase
S phase
G2 phase
M phase
Unwinding Enzyme in DNA synthesis:
Options
Helicase
Primase
DNA Polymerase
Transcriptase
Action of Telomerase is:
Options
DNA repair
longetivity of cell
Breakdown of telomere
none
Ends of chromosomes replicated by
Options
TelomeraseCentromere
Exonuclease
Which enzymatic mutation is responsible for immortality of cancer cells?
Options
DNA reverse transcriptase
RNA polymerase
Telomerase
DNA polymerase
Okazaki fragments are formed during the synthesis of:
Options
264
DsDNA
SsDNA
mRNA
TRNA
Correct sequence of enzymes required for DNA formation is:
Options
DNA polymerase --> protein unwinding enzyme --> DNA ligase --> DNA lsomerase -->
Polymerase
Protein unwinding enzyme --> polymerase I --> DNA ligase --> DNA isomerase --> DNA
polymerase
RNA polymerase --> DNA polymerase Ill --> DNA polymerase I--> DNA
ligase
RNA polymerase --> DNA polymerase Ill --> DNA ligase --> exonuclease --> DNA polymerase I
SCIO is due to defect in:
Options
NHEJ
Homologous Recombination
Mismatch repair
Nucleotide excision repairXeroderma pigmentosa is due to:
Options
Base excision defect
Nucleotide excision repair
SOS repair defect
Cross linking defect
UV light damage to the DNA leads to:
Options
Formation of pyrimidine dimers
No damage to DNA
DNA hydrolysis
Double stranded breaks
265
Excessive ultraviolet (UV) radiation is harmful to life. The damage caused to the biological
system by
ultra-violet radiation I by:
Options
Inhibition of DNA synthesis
Formation of thymidine dimers
Ionization
DNA fragmentation
The primary defect in Xeroderma pigmentosa is:
Options
Poly ADP ribose polymerase is defective
Exonuclease is defective
Formation of adenine dimers
Question (1/21)
Two strands of the DNA are joined by:
OptionsGlycosidic bond
Hydrogen bond
Convalent bond
Ionic bond
True about DNA structure:
Options
Purines are adenine, guanine and pyrimidines are uracil and cytosine
Watson and crick discovered structure in 1973
Deoxyribose- phosphate backbone with bases stacked inside
Mainly consists of left handed helix
If a sample of DNA if adenine is 23% what will be the amount of gunine present?
Options
23%
25%
266
46%
27%
The two stands of DNA are held together by:
Options
Van der Waal bond
Hydrogen bond
Covalent bond
Ionic interaction
Which form of DNB is predominantly seen?
Options
BZ
Chargaff rule state that:
Options
A +G =T +C
A/T =G/C
A=U = T=G=C
A+T =G+C
A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 32% adenine, 18% guanine, 17% cytosine
and 33%
thymine. The nucleic acid must be
Options
Singlestranded RNA
Singlestranded DNA
Doublestranded RNA
Doublestranded DNA
Triple bonds are found between which base pairs?
Options
A-T
267
C-G
A-G
C-T
At the physiological pH The DNA molecular are:
Positively charged
Negatively charged
Neutral
Amphipathic
Total number of genes in a human being is:
Options
800,00050,000
100,000
30,000
Triplex DNA is due to:
Options
Hoogsteen pairing
Palindromic sequences
Large no. of guanosine repeats
Polyprimidine tracts
About DNA which of the following is true:
Options
The nucleotide of one strand form bonds with nucleotide of opposite strand
Cytosine and uracil differ by one ribose sugar
The information from DNA is copied in the form of tRNA
Each nucleotide pair incudes two purines
Which model of DNA was discovered by Watson and crick?
Options
A DNA
B DNA
268
C DNA
Z DNA
Total number of base pair in human haploid set of chromosome:
Options
3 million
3 billion
33 billion
5 millionProteins seen in chromosomes are called:
Options
Nucleotides
Histones
Apoproteins
Glycoproteins
Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively:
Options
Uncondensed
Condensed
Over condensed
Partially condensed
The long and short arms of chromosomes ar designated respectively as;
Options
P and q arms
M and q arms
Q and p arms
I and s arms
Y-chromosome is:
Options
Metacentric
Sub- metacentric
Acrocentic
269
Longer than the X-chromosome
The protein rich in basic amino acids, which functions in the packaging of DNA in
chromosome, is:
Options
HistonesCollagen
Hyaluronic acid binding proteins
Fibrinogen
Random inactivation of X chromosome is:
Options
Lyonisation
Allelic exclusion
Randomization
Genomic imprinting
In the entire genome, the coding DNA constitutes how much?
Options
0.01
0.02
0.25
0.4
Regarding synthesis of triacylglycerol in adipose tissue, all of the following are true except:
Options
Synthesis from dihydroxy acetone phosphate
Enzyme glycerol kinase plays an important role
Enzyme glycerol 3-phosphate dehydrogenase plays an important role
Phosphatldate is hydrolysed
The storage triacylglycerol are hydrolysed by:
Options
Pancreatic lipase
Lipoprotein lipase
Lysosomal lipaseHormone sensitive lipase
270
Hormone sensitive lipase 1cts on
Options
Triglycerides
Cholesterol ester
Phospholipids
Gangliosides
Most abundantly synthesised Fatty acid in the body is?
Options
Palmitic acid
Oleic acid
Arachidonic acid
Stearic acid
Which of the following is not a part of fatty acid synthase Complex?
Options
Ketoacyl reductase
Enoylreductase
Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
Ketoacyl synthase
Mitochondria is Involved in A/E:
Options
Fatty acid synthesis
DNA synthesis
Fatty acid oxidation
Protein synthesis
Fatty acid synthase complex contain the following enzymes except:
OptionsEnoylreductase
Ketoacylreductase
Acetyl: CoA carboxylase
Dehydratase
271
NADH is required for:
Gluconeogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogenolysis
The first step in fatty acid synthesis involves
Options
β-Hydroxyl-CoA dehydrogenase
Acetyl dehydrogenase
Pyruvate kinase
In fatty acid synthesis C02 loss occurs in which step?
Options
Hydration
Dehydration
Condensation reaction
Reduction
Carbon atoms added in fatty acid synthesis:
Options
2 in 1st cycle and 4 in llnd cycle
4 in 1st cycle and 4 in llnd cyclePAN-SH site of fatty acid synthase complex accepts:
Options
Acetyl-CoA
Malonyl-CoA
Propionyl-CoA
All
Acetyl CoA acts as a substrate for all the enzymes except:
272
Options
HMG-CoA synthese
Malic enzyme
Malonyl CoA synthetase
Fatty acid synthetase
In well fed state, the activity of Carnitine Palmitoyl Transferase-1 in outer mitochondrial
membrane
is inhibited by:
Options
Glucose
Acetyl-CoA
Malonyl-CoA
Pyruvate
Number of ATP formed by oxidation of one molecule of palmitic acid (16 c):
Options
146
106
135
34
Beta oxidation in peroxisome generate:
Options
NADPHH20 2
Long chain fatty acid
FADH2
All are features of Refsum's disease except:
Options
Deficiency of alpha hydroxylase
Defect of beta oxidation
Accumulation of phytanic acid
Peripheral neuropathy
273
Enzyme defect in Refsum's disease:
Options
Phytanoyl alpha oxidase
Acyl-Co A dehydrogenase
Thiolase
Thiokinase
Adrenoleukodystrophy is associated with:
Options
Accumulation of very long chain fatty acids
Accumulation of medium chain fatty acid
Lncre13sed plasmalogen
Decreased pipecolic acid
Beta-oxidation of palmitic acid yields:
Options
3-acetylCoA
129 ATP net
131 ATP net
16-acetylCoABeta-oxidation in peroxisome is differentiated from that occurring in

mitochondria by:
Options
AcetylCoA
H20 2 formed
Different enzymes are found in different site
NADH is required
One of the following is obtained oxidation of odd chain fatty acids:
Options
Acetyl-CoA + Acetyl-CoA
Acetyl-CoA + Propionyl-CoA
Propionyl CoA + Propionyl-CoA
Acetyl-CoA alone
274
Which of the following takes place in low insulin/ glucagon ratio?
Options
Cholesterol synthesis
Glycogen synthesis
Ketogenesis
Which of the following organs do not utilise ketone bodies?
Options
Brain
RBC
Muscle
Heart
Ketone bodies can be utilised by all, except:
Options
RBCBrain
Skeletal muscle
Renal cortex
Rothera's test used for detection of:
Options
Proteins
Glucose
Fatty acid
Ketones
Which organ does not utilize ketone bodies?
Options
Liver
Brain
Skeletal muscle
Cardiac muscle
275
The immediate precursor in the formation of acetoacetate from acetyl-CoA in the liver is:
Options
Mevalonate
HMG-CoA
Acetoacetyl-CoA
3-hydroxyl-butyryl-CoA
In a well fed state, acetyl-CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis of:
Options
Palmitoyl-CoA
Citrate
Acetoacetate
OxalosuccinateThe major fuel in the brain after several weeks of starvation is:
Options
Glucose
Fatty acid
13-Hydroxy butyrate
Glycerol
Common enzyme in cholesterol and ketone body metabolism:
Options
HMG-CoA reductase
HMG-CoA synthase
Cholesterol and ketone body
Thiolase
All are derived from cholesterol except:
Options
Vitamin D
Bile salt
Bile pigment
Steroid
276
Which of the following does not have cholesterol?
Options
Vitamin D
Estrogen
Adrenaline
Progesterone
Which coenzyme act as reducing agent in anabolic reaction?
Options
FADH2FMNH2
NADPH
NADH
Enzyme common for synthesis of both ketone bodies and cholesterol:
Options
HMG-CoA reductase
HMG-CoA synthase
HMG-CoA lyase
Bile acids are derived from:
Options
Fatty acids
Cholesterol
Bilirubin
Proteins
Bile acids synthesised in liver (primary bile acids):
Options
Lithocolic acid
Cholicacid
Chenodeoxycholic acid
Deoxycholic acid
277
Triglycerides are maximum in
Options
Chylomicrons
VLDL
LDL
HDLWhich of the following types of hypertriglyceridemia is associated with an increase in

chylomicron
and VLDL remnants?
Options
Type I
Type Il
Type Ill
Type IV
Which of the following is an activator of LCAT?
Options
Apo 8100
Apo 848
Apo E
Apo A-I
Defect In familial hypercholesterolemia
Options
LDL receptor defect
lipoprotein lipase defect
Increased HDL
Defect in apo E
Absence of this apo lipoprotein is responsible for the genetic disorder, familial type Ill
hyperlipoproteinemia
Options
Apo B100
Apo B48
278
Apo E
Apo Cll
Full form of LCAT:
OptionsLecithin cholesterol acyl-transferase
Lecithin choline acyl-transferase
Lecithin cholesterol alkyl-transferase
Lecithin choline alcohol-transferase
Scavenger receptor is used in the metabolism of:
Options
HDL
LDL
IDL
VLDL
HDL has highest content of:
Options
Saturated fatty acid
Triglycerides
Cholesterol
Apolipoproteins
Lipase that is regulated by glucagon:
Lipoprotein lipase
Hormone sensitive lipase
Gastric lipase
Pancreatic lipase
A patient has total cholesterol 300, TG 150, and HDL25. What would be the LDL value? (All
values in
mg/ dL)
245
125
55
279
35
Regarding LDL receptors, all are true exceptOptions
Found in Ciathrin coated pits of cell membrane
Found only in extrahepatic tissue
Internalized by endocytosis
High levels of cellular cholesterol down regulate LDL receptors
Which is the ligand for receptors present in liver for uptake of LDL?
Options
Apo E
Apo A and apo E
Apo E and apo 8100
Apo 8100
Increased level of lipoprotein (a) predisposes to
Options
Liver cirrhosis
Atherosclerosis
Nephritic syndrome
Pancreatitis
Main transporter of cholesterol to peripheral tissue:
Options
HDL
LDL
VLDL
Chylomicron
Which of the following lipoproteins does not move towards charged end in electrophoresis:
Options
HDL
LDLVLDL
Chylomicron
280
All of the following statement about lipoprotein Lipase are true, except:
Options
Found in adipose tissue
Found in myocytes
Deficiency leads to hypertriacylglycero
Does not require Cll as cofactor
All of the following statements about apoproteins true except:
Options
Apoprotein A-I activates LCAT
Apoprotein C-1 activates lipoprotein lip
Apoprotein C-11 inhibits lipoprotein lipase
Apoprotein C-11 activates lipoprotein lipase
The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of triacylglycerol by weight
is:
Options
VLDL
Chylomicron
HDL
LDL
Cholesterol from dietary sources is transported to the peripheral tissue by:
Options
Chylomicron
VLDL
HDL
LDL
Action of lipoprotein lipase is:Options
To form remnant lipoprotein
Promote lipolysis in adipose tissue
To form mature chylomicron
To form HDL
281
In coronary artery disease the cholesterol level (mg/dl) recommended is
Options
Below 200
<250
<220
<280
Lipoprotein X Is an indicator of:
Options
Atherosclerosis
Cholestatsis
Hepatitis
Myocardial infarction
Which is the lipoprotein with lowest density?
Options
HDL
LDL
VLDL
Lp a
Which of the following has highest electrophoretic mobility and least lipid content?
Options
Chylomicrons
HDLVLDL
IDL
Which helps in the transport of chylomicrons from intestine to liver?
Options
Apoprotein B
Apoprotein A
Apoprotein C
Apoprotein E
282
Cholesterol presents ln LDL
Options
Represents primarily cholesterol that 1s being removed from peripheral cells
Binds to a receptor and cholesterol diffuses across the cell membrane
On accumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDL receptors
When enters a cell, suppresses activity of acyl-CoA: cholesterol acyltransferase ACAT
A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which of the
following
lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood?
Options
Chylomicrons
VLDL
LDL
HDL
Which of the following is false about heparin?
Options
Releases lipoprotein lipase
Releases hormone sensitive lipase
It is an anticoagulant
It is a glycosaminoglycan
Lipoprotein a resembles:Options
Plasminogen
Plasmin
Thrombin
Prothrombin
In uncontrolled diabetes mellitus what is the cause of high level of VLDL and TAG
Options
Increased hepatic lipase
Increased LDL receptors
Increased activity of lipoprotein lipase and decreased activity of hormone sensitive lipase
283
Increased activity of hormone sensitive lipase and decreased lipoprotein
lipase activity
A patient with eruptive xanthomas drawn blood milky in appearance. Which lipoprotein is
elevated
in the plasma?
Options
Chylomicron
Chylomicron remnants
LDL
HDL
Very high total cholesterol, elevated LDL, normal level of LDL receptors. What is the
probable cause?
Options
Apo 8100 mutation
Complete deficiency of lipoprotein lipase
Cholesterol acyltransferase deficiency
Apo E defect
Fish oil ls not used in the treatment of:
Options
Type 2A Hyperlipoproteinemia
Type 28 HyperlipoproteinemiaType 3 Hyperlipoproteinemia
Type 5 Hyperlipoproteinemia
Which of the following is increased in lipoprotein lipase deficiency?
Options
VLDL
LDL
HDL
Chylomicrons
Familial hypercholesterolemia is:
Options
284
Deficient LDL receptors
Deficient HDL receptors
HMG-CoA reductase deficiency
Deficient VLDL receptors
Hypertriglyceridemia not seen in:
Options
Hypothyroidism
Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Cushing's syndrome
Hepatitis
A patient was diagnosed with Isolated Increase in LDL. His father and brother had the same
disease
with increased cholesterol. The likely diagnosis is:
Options
Familial type Ill hyperlipoproteinemia
Abetalipoproteinemia
Familial LPL deficiency (type1)
LDL receptor mutation
Both Triglycerides and HDL Increased:Options
Smoking
Athletes
Statin/Anabolic steroid abusers
Alcoholism
Apolipoprotein of chylomicron is:
Options
Apo B100
Apo B48
Apo E
Apo Cll
Which of the following produces 3 ATP by anaerobic glycolysis?
285
Options
Glucose
Fructose
Galactose
Glycogen
In anaerobic glycolysis, pyruvate is converted to lactate for:
Options
Removal of Pyruvate
Generation of NAO+
Generation of H+
Conversion of Pyruvate
The supplement used in FSGS is :
Options
Fructose
GalactoseMannose
Glucose
Which of the following is suitable test performed for diagnosis of Intestinal malabsorption?
Options
D-Xylose test
Stool fat estimation
BT-PABA test
Hydrogen breath
A 27-year lady developed severe hyperglycemia in pregnancy and it returned to normal after
delivery. Her blood sugar is well under control without any
medications. Her sisters and mother also have history of increased blood glucose during
pregnancy,
all were euglycemic after delivery. What is the enzyme
defect?
Options
Glucokinase
286
PFK
Aldolase
Enolase
Irreversible steps of Glycolysis are catalysed by:
Options
Hexokinase, Phosphofructokinase, Pyruvate Kinase
Glucokinase, Pyruvate Kinase, Glyceraldehyde 3 Phosphate Dehydrogenase
Hexokinase, Phospho Glycerate Kinase, Pyruvate Kinase
Pyruvate Kinase, Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase, Phospho FructoKinase
Glycolysis occurs in:
Options
Cytosol
MitochondriaNucleus
Lysosome
Irreversible step(s) in Glycolysis is/are:
Options
Enolase
Phosphofructokinase
Pyruvate Kinase
Glyceraldehyde 3 Phosphate Dehydrogenase
Enzyme catalyzing reversible step in glycolysis is are:
Options
Phosphofructokinase
Enolase
Pyruvate kinase
Phospho-glycerate mutase
In which of the following steps ATP is released?
Options
Phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvate
287
Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate to 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate
Fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1,6 bisphosphate.
Glucose to Glucose 6 phosphate.
What activate Kinases of glycolysis?
Options
ATP
CAMP
Insulin
Glucagon
About glycolysis true is:Options
Occurs in mitochondria
Complete breakdown of glucose
Conversion of glucose to 3C units
3 ATPs are used in anaerobic pathway.
Compound that joins glycolysis with glycogenesis and glycogenolysis:
Options
Glucose 1,6 bisphosphate
Glucose 1 P04
Glucose 6 P04
Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate
Key glycolytic enzymes:
Options
Phosphofructokinase
Hexokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Glucose 1,6 bisphosphatase
In glycolysis the first committed step is catalysed by:
Options
2,3-DPG
Glucokinase
288
Hexokinase
Phosphofructokinase
The rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis is:
Options
Phosphofructokinase
Glucose- 6-dehydrogenaseGlucokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Cancer cells derive nutrition from:
Options
Anaerobic glycolysis
Oxidative phosphorylation
Increase in mitochondria
Aerobic Glycolysis
True statements about glucokinase is/are:
Options
Km value is higher than normal blood sugar
Found in liver
Glucose 6 phosphate inhibit it
Has both glucose 6 phosphatase and kinase activity
Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by which of the following regulating pathways:
Options
Hypoxia stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by increased 2, 3-DPG
Hypoxia inhibits hexokinase
Hypoxia stimulates release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC

membrane
Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high pH
All except occurs on decrease in blood glucose level:
Options
Inhibition of PFK-11
Activation of Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphatase.
289
Increase in glucagon.
Increase in Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphate.
The number of ATPs produced by Rapaport-leubering Cycle in RBC from Glucose:Options
Enzyme responsible for complete oxidation of glucose to co2 and water is present in:
Options
Cytosol
Mitochondria
Lysosomes
The enzyme not involved in substrate level phosphorylation:
Options
Pyruvate kinase
Phosphofructokinase
Succinate thiokinase
Phosphoglycerate kinase
The major metabolic product produced under normal circumstances by erythrocytes and by
muscle
cells during intense exercise is recycled through liver in the
Cori cycle. The metabolite is:
Options
Oxaloacetate
Alanine
Glycerol
Lactate
Lactate produced anaerobically is used by
Options
290
TCA cycle and GlycogenolysisCori cycle and gluconegenesis
Gluconeogenesis and Glycolysis
Cori cycle only
Cori's cycle is concerned with transport of
Options
Alanine
Glutamate
Lactate
None
Lactate is formed in all except
Options
Testis
Lens
Brain
RBCs
PFK-1 inhibitor
Options
Insulin
Citrate
Glucose 6 phosphate
AMP
RatelimitingstepinglycolysisisPFK-1. Which among the following is the most potent allosteric
activator of PFK-H
Options
LowpH
Citrate
ATP
Fructose 2, 6 bisphosphateThe major role of 2,3 bisphospholycerate in RBCs is
Options
291
Acid-base balance
Binding of oxygen
Release of oxygen
Reversal of glycolysis
How many ATPs are used in energy investment phase of glycolysis !
Options
ZERO
In Anaerobic glycolysis, end product is
Options
2ATP+2NAD
2ATP
2ATP+2NADH
4ATP+2FADH2
In Anaerobic glycolysis, there is gain of
Options
2 ATP + 2 NAD
2 ATP
2 ATP + 2 NADH
4 ATP + 2 FADH2
No. of ATP produced in RBC in fed state !
Options
2ATP4ATP
7 ATP
6ATP
No. of ATP produced in RBC in aerobic state!
Options
292
2ATP
4ATP
7 ATP
6ATP
All tissues convert glucose to predominantly lactate EXCEPT:
Options
Brain
Lens
Cornea
RBCs
Which of the following is incorrect about RBCs
Options
RBCs cannot use Fatty acids, amino acids and ketone bodies for energy
RBCs does not contain enzyme Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Lactate dehydrogenase is absent in RBCs
Production of 2,3 BPG does not yield any ATP
Which is a negative heterotropic allosteric modulator of glycolysis !
Options
Citrate
ATP
ADP
AMPWhat activate Kinase of glycolysis!
Options
ATP
CAMP
Insulin
Glucagon
What is the end product of anaerobic glycolysis
Options
293
Pyruvate
Lactate
Cholesterol
Fats
Sodium fluoride inhibits which enzyme in Glycolysis
Options
Hexokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Aconitase
Enolase
In Glycolysis which of the ion is most important!
Zn
Mg
Cu
Ca
The number of ATPs produced by Rapaport leu bering Cycle in RBC from Glucose!
Options
23
Example of allosteric inhibiton
Options
Decreased synthesis of glucokinase by glucagon
Inactivation of glycogen synthase byphosphorylation
Inhibition of PFK-1 by citrate
All of the above
Substrate level phosphorylation is by:
Options
ATP Synthase
294
Phosphofructokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Hexokinase
All of the following enzymes catalyze irreversible steps in glycolysis EXCEPT:
Options
Hexokinase
Phosphofructokinase-! (PFK-I)
Enolase
Pyruvate kinase
The regulatory steps in glycolysis are all EXCEPT
Options
Pyruvate kinase
Enolase
Gucokinase
Phophofructokinase
Net ATP yield of substrate level phosphorylation isOptions
ATP's formed in anaerobic glycolysis of glucose are:
Options
10
15
Post prandial utilization of glucose is by which enzyme
Options
Fructokinase
Glucokinase
295
Hexokinase
All of above
Which of the following is NOT true
Options
Glucokinase has high km
Hexokinase is found in all cells
Glucokinase is induced by insulin
Hexokinase is specific for glucose
Inhibition of glycolysis by increase supply of 0 2 is called
Options
Carbtree effect
Pasteur effectLewis effect
None
Immediate metabolic products during conversion of Fructose 1-6 bisphosphate to 2

molecules of
pyruvate
Options
3-phosphoglycerate and 1,3 bisphosglycerate
Glyceraldehyde -3-phosphate and l, 3-bisphosphoglycerate
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate
The purpose of extra step of anaerobic glycolysis is :
Options
Production of 2 Lactate
Production of one lactate
Replenishment of NAD
Replenishment ofNADH
Zero ATP in RBC in glycolysis occurs in
Options
Arsenic poisoning
296
RL shunt
Both a and b
NONE
Question (1/51)
The number of high energy bond require to get 1 mol of Glucose from 2 mols of lactate:
Options
1Which of the following is an activator of Pyruvate carboxylase?
Options
Oxaloacetate
Citrate
Acetyl CoA
Glucose
All of the following amino acids forms acetyl CoA via pyruvate dehydrogenase except:
Options
Glycine
Tyrosine
Hydroxyproline
Cysteine
For gluconeogenesis which of the following reaction is more effective?
Options
Citrate stimulation of Acetyl CoA Carboxylase
Acetyl CoA stimulation of Pyruvate Carboxylase
Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphate stimulates PFK-1
Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphate stimulation of Pyruvate Kinase
A baby is hypotonic and shows increased ratio of Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA. Pyruvate cannot
form
Acetyl CoA in fibroblast. He also shows features of lactic
297
acidosis. Which of the following can revert the situation?
Options
Biotin
Pyridoxine
Free fatty acid
Thiamin
Which of the following does not contribute to glucose by gluconeogenesis?
OptionsLactate
Acetyl CoA
Pyruvate
Oxaloacetate
In fasted state gluconeogenesis is promoted by which enzyme?
Options
Acetyl CoA induced stimulation of Pyruvate Carboxylase
Citrate induced stimulation of Acetyl CoA Decarboxylase
Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate induced stimulation of Phosphofructokinase-1
Stimulation of Pyruvate kinase by Fructose 1,6 Bis phosphate
During prolonged fasting, rate of gluconeogenesis is determined by:
Options
Essential fatty acid in liver
Alanine in liver
Decreased cGMP
ADP in liver
True about gluconeogenesis is/are:
Prevent hypoglycemia during prolonged fasting
Occur in both muscle and liver
Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate stimulate it
Excess of acetyl CoA stimulate it
Common enzyme for gluconeogenesis and glycolysis is:
298
Options
Glyceraldehyde 3 P04 dehydrogenase
Hexokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Pyruvate carboxylasePhosphofructokinase-1 is activated by all except:
Options
S'AMP
Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphate
Fructose 6 Phosphate
Citrate
Not a substrate for gluconeogenesis:
Options
Acetyl CoA
Lactate
Glycerol
Propionyl CoA
Glyconeogenic capability of cell is determined by the presence of:
Options
Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Glucose-6-phosphatase
Pyruvate carboxylase
Fructose 1,6- bisphosphatase
Step of Gluconeogenesis is:
Options
Pyruvate to Lactate
Glucose 6 Phospahate to Fructose 6 Phosphate
Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA
Oxaloacetate to Phosphoenol Pyruvate
Major contribution towards gluconeogenesis is by:
299
Options
LactateGlycerol
Ketones
Alanine
Glucose can be synthesised from all except:
Options
Amino acids
Glycerol
Acetoacetate
Lactic acid
Gluconeogenesis does not occur significantly from in humans:
Options
Lactate
Fatty acids
Pyruvate
Amino acid
Acetyl CoA can be converted into all of the following except:
Options
Glucose
Fatty acids
Cholesterol
Ketone bodies
A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6- bisphosphatase in liver less sensitive to regulation
by
fructose 2,6-biphosphate. All of the following metabolic changes
are observed in this disorder except:
Options
Level of fructose 1,6-biphosphate is higher than normal
Level of fructose 1,6-biphosphate is lower than normal
Less pyruvate is formedLess ATP is generated
300
All are substrates of gluconeogenesis except:
Options
Lactate
Alanine
Leucine
Lysine
Which is not Glucogenic?
Options
Acetyl CoA
OAA
Pyruvate
Lactate
Which of the following substrates cannot contribute to net Gluconeogenesis in mammalian

liver
Options
Alanine
Palmitate
Pyruvate
Odd chain fatty acids
A 15-year-old male presents with increased thirst, hunger, urination, and weight loss. His
fasting
blood glucose level is 400 mg/ dl and is diagnosed with type 1
diabetes mellitus. What is the reason for this patient's inability to maintain a normal blood
glucose
level?
Options
Increased ketone body production
Abnormal response to glucagon
Decreased glucagon to insulin ratio
. Decreased uptake of glucose by peripheral cellsWhich of the following is the

sequence of compartments of gluconeogenesis?
301
Options
Mitochondria ~ Cyto ~ ER
Cyto ~ ER ~ Mitochondria
ER ~ Mitochondria ~ Cyto
Only in mitochondria and Cytoplasm
Which of the following is most effective for gluconeogenesis:
Options
Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate inhibits fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase
Acetyl CoA activates Pyruvate carboxylase
Citrate stimulates Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Citrate activates Acetyl CoA carboxylase
A child having hypoglycemia is unable to use both glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

pathways.
Which of the following enzyme is affected?
Options
Glucokinase
Phospho-fructokinase -1
Transketolase
Pyruvate can be converted directly into all of the following EXCEPT:
Options
Phosphoenol Pyruvate
Alanine
Acetyl CoA
Lactate
Which pathway can use propionic acid
Glycolysis
GluconeogenesisGlycogenolysis
Glycogenesis
Glucose may be synthesized from:
302
Options
Glycerol
Adenine
Palmitic acid
Guanosine
Amino acid which cannot be used for glycogen synthesis
Options
Alanine
Threonine
Phenylalanine
Leucine
Gluconeogenesis occurs in:
Options
Muscles
Kidney
Liver
Intestine
The biosynthesis of enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is repressed by:
Options
Insulin
Glucagon
Cortisol
Epinephrine
Conversion oflactate to glucose requires all EXCEPTOptions
PFK-1
PEP carboxykinase
Glucose-6-Phosphatase
Regulatory enzymes in gluconeogenesis are all EXCEPT:
303
Options
Aldolase B
PEP carboxykinase
Enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis are all EXCEPT
Options
Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase
Phosphogluco mutase
Glyconeogenesis is:
Options
Synthesis of glucose from non -carbohydrate sources
Synthesis of glycogen from glucose
Synthesis of glucose from glycerol
Synthesis of glycogen from non-carbohydrate sources
Glyconeogenic capability is determined by the presence of
Options
Pyruvate carboxylasePyruvate carboxykinase
A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase in liver less sensitive to regulation by
fructose 2,6- bisphosphate. All of the following metabolic changes
occur EXCEPT:
Options
Level of fructose 1,6 bisphosphate is higher than normal
Level of fructose 1,6 bisphosphate is lower than normal
Less pyruvate formed
304
Less ATP formed
During gluconeogenesis, oxaloacetate is transported from mitochondria to cytoplasm by
Options
Malate
Pyruvate
Glutamate
Malate shuttle is important in:
Options
Glycogenesis
Glycolysis
Gluconeogenesis
Glycogenolysis
During prolonged starvation, rate of gluconeogenesis depends on:
Options
Increased alanine levels in liver
Decreased cGMP levels in liver
ADP in liver
Decreased essential fatty acids in liverIncreased levels of alanine in serum after fasting
suggests:
Options
Increased release of alanine from muscle
Reduced amino acid utilization for gluconeogenesis
Break in continuity of plasma membrane resulting in leakage of amino acids
Decreased uptake of alanine by liver
Which of the following reactions takes place in two compartments?
Options
Glycogenesis
Gluconeogenesis
Glycolysis
305
Glycogenolysis
Most important amino acid transported from muscle to liver for gluconeogenesis
Options
Methionine
Tryptophan
Alanine
Arginine
Which of the following metabolites is involoved in glycogenolysis, glycolysis and

gluconeogensis
Options
Fructose - 6- phosphate
Glucose - 6 - phosphate
Uridine diphosphoglucose
Galactose- 1- phosphate
Substrate for gluconegenesis
Options
Fatty acidAcetyl-CoA
Pyruvic acid (pyruvate
All of the above
Which is not a substrate for gluconeogenesis
Options
Lactate
Fatty acid
Pyruvate
Alanine
Which of the following hormones can cause hyperglycemia without known effects on
glycogen or
gluconeogenesis::
Options
Epinephrine
306
Epinephrine
Thyroxine
Glucocorticoids
Gluconeogenesis is favoured in fasting state by:
Options
Activation of pyruvate carboxylase by acetyl CoA
Increased conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvate by activation of pyruvate kinase
Increased fatty acid oxidation in liver
Inhibition of PFK-II
True about gluconeogenesis:
Options
Fructose 2,6-biphosphate stimulate it
Excess of acetyl CoA cause stimulationWhich of the following enzyme(s) is/are involved in
gluconeogenesis
Options
Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
Phosphofructokinase-I
Glucose 6-phosphatase
Question (1/70)
A four-year-old child with exercise intolerance. On investigation Blood pH 7.3, FBS 60 mg%,
hypertriglyceridemia, ketosis and lactic acidosis. The child had
hepatomegaly and renomegaly. Biopsy of liver and kidney showed increased glycogen
content. What
is the diagnosis?
Options
McCardle's disease
Cori's Disease
307
Von Gierke's Disease
Pompe's Disease
Glycogen Phosphorylase, coenzyme is:
Options
Pyridoxal Phosphate
Thiamin
Biotin
Pantothenic acid
Glycogenin primer is glucosylated by:
Options
UDP Glucose
Glucose 1 P04
UDP Glucose 1 P04
UDP Glucose 6 P04A female infant appeared normal at birth but developed signs of liver
disease one month of age and
muscle weakness at 3 months and severe hypoglycemia on
early morning awakening. Examination revealed hepatomegaly, laboratory analysis showed
ketoacidosis, pH 7 .2, increased AST and ALT over 1000 IU.
Intravenous administration glucagon followed by meals normalised blood levels, but glucose
levels
did not rise when glucagon was administered overnight fast.
Liver biopsy was done and glycogen constituted (8%) of wet weight. With the above clinical
picture
which of the following enzyme is deficient?
Options
Debranching enzyme
Glucose 6 phosphatase
Muscle phosphorylase
Branching enzyme
Why Glucose 6 Phosphate in the cytoplasm of hepatocyte is not acted upon by Glucose 6
Phosphatase as soon as it is formed?
308
Options
Thermodynamically possible only when gluconeogenesis occur
Need Protein Kinase for its activation
Enzyme is present in SER, Glucose 6 Phosphate need to be transported into

SER
Steric inhibition of Phosphatase by albumin
The reason for ketosis in von Gierke's Disease are all except:
Options
Hypoglycemia
Oxaloacetate is necessary for gluconeogenesis
Low blood glucose less than 40 mg%
Fatty acid mobilisation is low
A child with low blood glucose is unable to do glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis. Which of

the
following enzyme is missing in the child?
Options
FructokinaseGlucokinase
Glucose 6 Phosphatase
Transketolase
In which of the following tissues, is glycogen incapable of contributing directly to blood

glucose:
Options
Liver
Muscle
Both
None
In humans carbohydrates are stored as:
Options
Glucose
Glycogen
309
Starch
Cellulose
Glycogen is released from the muscle due to increased cAMP due to:
Options
Epinephrine
Thyroxine
Glucogon
Growth hormone
Pancreatic alpha amylase:
Options
Convert starch to glycogen
Hydrolyses starch to limit dextrin
Hydrolyses Starch to Monosaccharides
Convert maltose to glucoseA 5 years old boy presents with hepatomegaly, hypoglycaemia,
ketosis. The diagnosis is:
Options
Mucopolysaccharidosis
Glycogen storage disorder
Lipopolysaccharidosis
Diabetes mellitus
Glycogen Phosphorylase can be regulated by all following EXCEPT:
Options
CAMP
Calmodulin
Protein Kinase A
Glycogenin
Cofactor for Glycogen Phosphorylase:
Options
Thiamine Pyrophosphate
Pyridoxal Phosphate
310
Citrate
FAD
Pompe's disease is due to deficiency of:
Options
Debranching enzyme
Muscle Phosphorylase
Acid Maltase
Branching enzyme
Glycogen storage disorder is/are:
Options
Niemann pick diseaseGaucher disease
Taysach's disease
McCardles disease
How many hours for depletion of glycogen?
Options
18
24
48
In the fed state, major fate of glucose-6-phosphate in tissues is:
Storage as fructose
Storage as glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Enters HMP shunt via ribulose-5-phosphate
Storage as glycogen
Which of the following is a debranching enzyme?
Options
Glycogen synthetase
Amylo(1,6) glucosidase
311
Amylo1,4-1,6 transglycosylase
Sequence of events in glycogenolysis:
Options
Phosphorylase, glucan transferase, debranching, phosphorylase
Debranching, phosphorylase, transferase, phosphorylase
Transferase, phosphorylase, debranching, phosphorylase
Any of the above
Muscles are not involved in which glycogen storage disease?Options
II
III
IV
An infant has hepatosplenomegaly, hypoglycaemia, hyperlipidemia, acidosis & normal

structured
glycogen deposition in liver. What is the diagnosis:
Options
Her's disease
Von Gierke's disease
Cori's disease
Anderson's disease
Glycogen storage diseases include all the following except:
Options
Fabry's disease
McArdle's disease
Fragile X syndrome
The cause of hyperuricemia and gout in glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency is:
Options
More formation of pentose
Decreased availability of glucose to tissues
312
Increased accumulation of sorbitol
Impaired degradation of free radicals
A 10year old boy rapidly develops hypoglycemia after moderate activity. Blood examination
reveals
raised levels of ketone bodies, lactic acid and triglycerides.
On examination, liver and kidneys were enlarged. Histopathology of liver shows deposits of
glycogen
in excess amount. What is the diagnosis?
OptionsVon Gierke's disease
Cori's disease
Me Ardle's disease
Pompe's disease
Which vitamin is required for glycogen phosphorylase?
Options
TPP (Thiamine pyrophosphate
PLP (Pyridoxal phosphate)
Riboflavin
Lipoic acid
Glycogen phosphorylase is regulated by all except:
Options
Protein kinase
Calmodulin
CAMP
Glycogenin
A 28-year-old professional cyclist has been training for an opportunity to go for a long race.
His
coach strongly suggests the intake of carbohydrates after the
work out to ensure a muscle glycogen storage. The activity of muscle glycogen synthase in
resting
muscles is increased by the action of which of the following?
Options
313
Epinephrine
Glucagon
Insulin
Phosphorylation
Muscle cannot make use of glycogen because of deficiency of:
Options
Glucose-6-phosphataseGlycogen phosphorylase
Hexokinase
Phospho-gluco-mutase
Muscle cannot maintain blood glucose because of deficiency of
Options
Glycogen phosphorylase
Hexokinase
Hexokinase
Major carbohydrate store in the body is
Options
Hepatic glycogen
Blood glucose
Glycogen in adipose tissue
None of the above
A 15-year-old type 1 diabetic faints after injecting himself with insulin. He is administered
Glucagon
and rapidly recovers consciousness. Glucagon induces
activity of
Options
Glycogen synthase
Glucokinase
Hexokinase
314
Glycogen synthase is the regulatory enzyme for c.-.,..&L, glycogen synthesis. It adds glucose
residues
to the nonreducing ends of a glycogen primer from
Options
Glucose-1-P
Glucose-6-PUDP- Glucose
UTP e) ATP
Glycogenin is a:
Options
Lipid
Polypeptide
Polysaccharide
Glycosa amino glycans (GAGs)
The enzymes of glycogenesis are present in
Options
Lysosomes
Cytosol
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Pyridoxine is required in
Options
Glycogenesis
TCA cycle
Glycolysis
Glycogenolysis
Coenzyme associated with enzyme glycogen phosphorylase
Options
Flavin mononuleotide
Tetrahydrofolate
315
Pyridoxal phosphate
If muscle glycogen is used for anaerobic glycolysis, how many ATPs are formedOptions
Which of the yields 3 molecules of ATP under anaerboic metabolism
Options
Glucose
Galactose
Glycogen
Amino Acid
All are sources of glucose EXCEPT
Options
Liver glycogen
Gluconeogenesis
Muscle glycogen
Alanine
In glycogen, the linkage at branch points is
Options
Alpha -1,4
Alpha-2,3
Alpha-1,6
B-1,4
A 30-year-old presents with intractable vomiting and inability to eat or drink for the past 3
days. His
blood glucose level is normal. Which of the following is
most important for maintenance of Blood glucose
Options
Liver. Heart
316
Skeletal muscle
Lysosome
Glycogen phosphorylase degrades glycogen to produce:
Options
Glucose
Glucose-1-P
Glucose-6-P
UDP Glucose
Which enzyme is not present in muscles?
Options
Phosphorylase
Hexokinase
Glycogen synthase
Glycogenolysis is best described by which of the following statements ?
Options
It involves enzymes cleaving beta(l-4) glycosidic cleaving linkage
Requires activation of glycogen synthase
Requires a bifunctional enzyme (debranching and transferase)
Requires inactivation of phosphorylase kinase
Which of the following statements explains the synthesis of glycogen directly from D-
Glucose
Options
It does not use glucose-!-P
It requires a debranching enzyme
It occurs in erythrocytes
It requires UDP-GlucoseDuring the breakdown of glycogen, free glucose is formed from

which of the following
Options
Glucose residues in a-1,4 glycosidic linkages
317
The reducing end
The non reducing end
Glucose residues in a -1,6 glycosidic linkages
Glycogenesis from Glucose-I-P requires which of the following
Options
Phosphoglucomutase
Uridine triphosphate (UTP)
Alpha-1,6 glucosidase
Glycogen primer
Glycogen catabolism is best described by which of the following statements
Options
In the brain, it yields glucose for skeletal muscle consumption
It requires a de branching enzyme in the erythrocytes
It is not a major pathway in the brain
It uses phosphorylase for glucose residue cleavage from the reducing end of glycogen in liver
The degradation of glycogen normally produces which of the following
Options
More glucose than Glucose-1-P
More Glucose-1-P than Glucose
Equal amount of Glucose and Glucose-!-P
Neither Glucose nor Glucose-1-P
The energy for glycogenesis is derived from :
GTP
ATPUDP
UTP
UDP-glucose is not used in:
Options
HMP
Galactose metabolism
318
Glycogen synthesis
Uronic acid pathway
In starvation how many hours needed for depletion ofglycogen
Options
18
24
48
Glycogen is released from muscle due to increased cAMP due to:
Options
Glucagon
Insulin
Epinephrine
Growth hormone
Alpha amylase secreted by pancreas digest starch into which ofthe following major
products?
Options
Amylose, amylopectin, and maltose
Glucose, galactose, and fructose
Glucose, sucrose, and maltotriose
Limit dextrins, maltose, and maltotriose
A 3-month-old infant presents with hepatosplenomegaly and failure to thrive. A liver biopsy
reveals
glycogen with an abnormal, amylopectin like structure withlong outer chains and missing
branches. Which of the following enzymes would most likely be
deficient?
Options
Alpha Amylase
Branching enzyme
De branching enzyme
319
A 30-year-old male presents with severe muscle cramps. His blood lactate levels did not
increase
after exercise. His blood glucose by GOD-POD levels was
found to be normal. He has
Options
Me Ardle's disease
Glycogen storage disease type 3
All of the following are associated with non-ketotic hypoglycemia, EXCEPT
Options
Von gierke's disease
Insulinoma
Carnitine deficiency
MCAD deficiency
Increased uric acid levels are seen in which glycogen storage disease
Options
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Most common glycogen storage disease presenting with hypoglycemia and normal glycogen
structureOptions
Von Gierke disease
Pompe's disease
Me Ardle's disease
Forbe's disease
Enzyme deficient in Hers disease
Options
320
Acid maltase
Liver phosphorylase
De branching enzyme
Me Ardle's disease is due to deficiency of
Options
Myophosphorylase
Liver phosphorylase
Acid maltase
Glucuse-6-phosphatase
Glycogen storage disease which presents as lysosomal storage disease
Options
Andersen's disease
Pompe's disease
Mcardle's disease
Hypoglycemia is more severe in type 1 Glycogen storage disease as compared to type 6

Glycogen
storage disease because:
Options
No gluconeogenesis in type 1 disease
No gluconeogenesis in type 6 diseaseBoth
Type 1 disease affects muscles and liver both
Baby has hypoglycaemia, specially early morning hypoglycaemia. Glucagon given. It raises
blood
glucose if given after meals But does not raises blood glucose
if given during fasting. Liver biopsy shows increased glycogen deposits. Enzyme defect is ?
Options
Branching enzyme
321
Debranching enzyme
In VonGierke's disease, the levels of ketone bodies are increased due to all except:
Options
The patients have hypo glycaemia
The patients have low blood glucose
Less mobilization of fats
OAA is required for gluconeogenesis
Glycogen synthesis and breakdown takes place in the same cell, having enzymes necessary
for both
pathways. Why is Glucose-6-phosphate produced during
glycogenesis in the cytoplasm of liver cells, not acted upon by Glucose-6-phosphatase

enzyme?
Options
Steric inhibition of phosphatase by albumin
Glucose-6-phosphatase is present in endoplasmic reticulum while glycogen is

in the cytoplasm
It is thermodynamically viable only when gluconeogenesis has stated
Require protein kinase for activation
Enzyme involved in both glycogenesis and glycogenolysis is?
Options
Glycogen synthase
PhosphoglucomutasePhosphorylase
Glycogen transferase
In glycogen metabolism, some metabolically active important enzymes found in the liver are
converted from their inactive dephosphorylated state to active
phosphorylated state. Which of the following is true?
Options
Always activates the enzyme
Catecholamines directly stimu
More commonly seen in fasting state than in fed state
322
Always activated by cAMP dependent Protein kinase
Glycogen storage disorder (s) is/are:
Options
Gaucher disease
Tay-Sachs Disease
Pompe's disease
Metabolites in HMP shunt are all except:
Options
Glycerol-3- phosphate
Sedopeptulose-7 phosphate
Glyceraldehyde -3-phosphate
Xylulose- 5-phosphate
NADPH is produced by:
Options
Glycolysis
Citric acid cycle
HMP Shunt
GlycogenesisReduced NADPH produced from which pathway:
Options
Kreb
Uronic acid pathway
Hexose monophosphate pathway
Which of the following metabolic pathways does not generate ATP?
Options
Glycolysis
TCA cycle
HMP pathway
323
Severe thiamine deficiency is associated with:
Options
Decreased RBC transketolase activity
Increased clotting time
Decreased RBC transminnase activity
Increased xanthic acid excretion
Product of uronic acid pathway inn human-beings are all except?
Options
Vitamin C
Glucuronic acid
Pentoses
NADH
Uronic acid pathway is not involved in:
Options
Conjugation of bilirubinGAG synthesis
Vitamin C synthesis
Biotransformation
A baby boy 10 month old comes with vomiting severe jaundice, hepatomegaly and feature
of
irritability on starting weaning with fruit juice. Which of the
following enzyme is defective?
Options
Adolase B
Fructokinase
Glucose 6 phosphates
Galactose 1 phosphate uridyl transferase
Fate of fructose 6 phosphate:
Options
Glucuronic acid
N Acetyl glucosamine
324
Hyaluronic acid
Heparin sulphate
Hereditary fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of
Options
Aldolase B
Aldolase A
Fructokinase
Sucrase
False about fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of:
Options
Deficiency of fructose1- phosphate in aldolase
Accumulation of fructose 1-phosphate in tissues
HyperglycaemiaLiver and kidney are involved
Enzyme deficiency in glactosemia:
Options
Aldolase B
UDP galactose 4 Epimerase
Fructokinase
E coil sepsis commonly seen in:
Options
Urea cycle disorder
Galactosemia
Lysosomal storage disorders
A patient has normal blood glucose level as estimated by glucose-oxidase peroxidase

method, shows
positive Benedicts test in urine. Which of the following is
likely cause?
Options
325
Fructosemia
Galactosemia
Latent diabetes mellitus
Glucose intolerance
Galactosemia enzyme defect;
Options
Fructokinase
Glucokinase
Galactose 1 phosphate uridly transferase
Glucose 6 phosphataseA newborn baby refuses breast milk since the second day of birth,
vomits on force-feeding but
accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on third day, by fifth
day she is jaundiced with liver enlargement and eyes show cataract. Urinary reducing sugar
was
positive but blood glucose estimated by glucose oxidation
method was found low. The most likely cause is deficiency of:
Options
Galactose 1
Beta galactosidase
Glucose 6-phosphate
Galactokinase
A child presents with hepatomegaly ad bilateral lenticular opacities. Deficiency of which of

the
following enzyme will not cause such features
Options
Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
UDP galactose 4-epimerase
Galactokinase
Lactase
Fatty acid is not utilized by:
Options
326
RBC
Skeletal muscle
Liver
heart
All of the following are increased inn fasting except:
Options
Lipolysis
Ketogenesis
Gluconeogenesis
GlycogenesisSubstrate used by RBC in fasting state is:
Options
Glucose
Amino acids
Ketone body
Fatty acid
Lactic acidosis in thiamine deficiency is due to which enzyme dysfunction?
Options
Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase
Aldolase
During exercise, most rapid way to synthesize ATP is:
Options
Glycogenolysis
Glycolysis
Phosphocreatine
TCA cycle
The enzyme deficient in Galactosemia is:
Sphingomyelinase
327
Hexosaminidase
Galactose 1- phosphate uridyl transferase
Glucocerebrosidase
Products ofHMP shunt are all except:
Options
Glyceraldehyde-3-P
Glycerol-3- P2 NADPH
3 NADPH
HMP is the only source for:
Options
NADPH
NADH
Ribose-5-P
C02
NADPH is produced from:
Options
HMP
Malic enzyme
Cytoplasmic Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
All
Which pathway does not generate ATP ?
Options
Glycolysis
HMP
TCA
Severe thiamine deficiency is associated with
Options
328
Decreased RBC Glutathione activity
Increased Xanthic acid excretion
Which of the following metabolic pathway in carbohydrate metabolism is required for

nucleic acid
synthesis ?Options
Glycolysis
Glycogenesis
HMP
Gluconeogenesis
Rate limiting step in HMP ?
Options
Transketolase
Glucose-6-P Dehydrogenase
Transaldolase
HMP shunt occurs in all organs EXCEPT :
Options
Liver
Non Lactating mammary glands
Adipose tissues
RBCs
Glutathione is a
Options
Dipeptide
Polypeptide
Tripeptide
Oligopeptide
Reduced NADPH is produced by:
Options
329
Krebs cycle
Hexose monophosphate pathwayUronic acid pathway
Anerobic glycolysis
Source of ribose is
Options
HMP shunt
Uronic acid pathway
Glycolytic pathway
Beta Oxidation
Pentose pathway produces
Options
Acetyl CoA
ADP
ATP
NADPH
Glutamate dehydrogenase requires cofactor
Options
NADP+
NAD+
Both a and b
None
Dehydrogenases ofHMP shunt are specific for
Options
TPP
NADP
FMN
FAD
Most important factor which causes lactic acidosis in alcoholicsOptions
Production of NADH
330
Formation of acetaldehyde
Production of acetate
. None of the above
NADPH is generated in the reaction catalysed by
Options
LDH
G6PD
G3PD
. Alcohol dehydrogenase
NADPH in extramitochondrial site helps in the production of
Options
Ketone bodies
Steroids
Glycogen
. None
Reducing substance used in Anabolic reactions
Options
NADPH + H+
NADH
FAD
FADH2
A breast-fed infant began to vomit frequently and lose weight. Several days later she
developed
jaundice, hepatomegaly and bilateral cataract. What is the
possible cause for these symptoms?
Options
GalactosemiaVon-Gierke's disease
Juvenile diabetes Mellitus
Hereditary fructose intolerance
Galactosemia commonly is due to deficiency of:
331
Options
Epimerase
Galactokinase
Glucokinase
Galactose-!-P Uridyl transferase
Reducing sugar in urine is seen in:
Options
Galactosemia
Lactose intolerance
Phenylketonuria
Alkaptonuria
Oil drop cataract is produced because of the activity of which enzyme?
Options
Aldose reductase
Galactose reductase
Fructose dehydrogenase
Sorbitol dehydrogenase
Oil drop cataract is due to accumulation of
Options
Sorbitol
Dulcitol
Aldonic acid
GalactoseA child presents with hepatomegaly and bilateral lenticular opacities. Deficiency of
which of the
following enzyme will not cause such features
Options
UDP-galactose-4-epimerase
Galactokinase
Glucokinase
Gal-1-P uridyl transferase
332
E.coli sepsis is commonly seen in:
Options
Urea cycle disorder
. Glycogen storage diseases
Galactosemia
Fructose intolerance
Enzyme deficiency in galactosemia
Options
Alobase- B
Galactokinase
Glucokinase
All of the above
Familial fructokinase deficiency causes no symptoms because
Options
Hexokinase can phosphorylate fructose
Liver Aldolase can metabolize it
Excess fructose does not escape in to urine
Excess fructose is excreted through feces
Which will cause post-prandial hypoglycemia'?
Options
FructoseGalactose
Glucose
Sorbitol
Fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of'?
Options
Aldolase B
Triokinase
Fructokinase
. Aldolase A
333
Which of the following is not metabolised in our body'
Options
Glucose
Fructose
Sucrose
Sorbitol
An enzyme involved in fructose metabolism is :
Options
Glucokinase
Glyceraldehyde-3-P Dehydrogenase
Aldolase
PFK-1
Essential fructosuria occurs due to deficiency of
Options
Aldolase A
Aldolase B
Fructokinase
EnolaseA patient has blood glucose levels by GOD-POD method to be normal. But urine
shows positive
Benedict's test. The Reason is:
Options
False positive
Fructosemia
Galactosemia
Glucose intolerance
Snow flake cataract is produced because of which enzyme'
Options
Aldose reductase
Galactose reductase
334
. Sorbitol dehydrogenase
What can be prevented in a Diabetic patient by giving c--~ar_, drugs which are Aldose
Reductase
inhibitors 1
Options
Diabetic retinopathy
Cataract
Neuropathy
Deafness
Products ofuronic acid pathway in human beings are all except:
Options
Vitamin C
Pentoses
NADH
Glucuronic acid
Glucose is converted to glucuronic acid by
OptionsOxidation of aldehyde group
Oxidation of terminal alcohol
Oxidation of both
None
Essential pentosuria is due to deficiency of(
Options
Fructokinase
Phosphogulocmutase
Xylulose reductase0
Gulonolactone oxidase
All are true about Hexose monophosphate pathway (HMP) except:
Options
Produce NADPH in oxidative phase of pathway
Doesn't produce ATP
335
Occurs in testes, ovaries, placenta and adrenal cortex
Produces ribose 5-phosphate in oxidative phase of pathway
All are true about galactosemia except:
Options
Deficiency of galactokinase
Disease manifest only at adolescence
Accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate
Accumulation of galactitol
UDP glucose is used for:-
Options
Glycogen synthesis
Heparin synthesisBilirubin metabolism
Question (1/3)
A baby boy 10-month-old comes with vomiting severe jaundice, hepatomegaly and features
of
irritability on starting weaning with fruit juice. Which of the
following enzymes is defective?
Aldolase 8
Fructokinase
Galactose 1 Phosphate Uridyl Transferase
Hereditary fructose Intolerance is due to deficiency of:
Options
Aldolase B
Aldolase A
Fructokinase
Sucrase
False about hereditary fructose intolerance:
Options
336
Deficiency of fructose 1-phosphate aldolase
Hyperglycaemia
Liver and kidneys are involved
Question (1/6)
Enzyme deficiency in Galactosemia:
Options
Aldolase B
FructokinaseE Coli sepsis commonly seen in:
Options
Urea Cycle disorder
Galactosemia
Lysosomal storage disorder
Galactosemia enzyme defect:
Options
Fructokinase
Glucokinase
A newborn baby refuses breast milk since the second day of birth, vomits on force-feeding
but
accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on third day , by fifth
was
positive but blood glucose estimated by glucose oxidation
Options
337
Galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase
Beta galactosidase
Glucose 6-phosphate
Galactokinase
A child presents with hepatomegaly and bilateral lenticular opacities. Deficiency of which of
the
following enzymes will not cause such features?
Options
Galactokinase
LactaseTrue regarding galactosemia:
Options
Mental retardation occurs
Absent disaccharidase in intestine
Defect in epimerase
Defect in galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase
Question (1/4)
Which is used for energy?
Ketone bodies
Glucose
Free fatty acids
All of the above
All the following are increased in fasting except:
Options
Lipolysis
Ketogenesis
Gluconeogenesis
Glycogenesis
Which enzyme is active when insulin: glucagon ratio is low?
338
Options
Glucokinase
Hexokinase
Pyruvate Carboxylase
Options
GlycogenolysisGlycolysis
Phosphocreatine
TCAcycle
Which enzyme is deficient in c/c alcoholics?
Options
Aconitase
Citrate Synthase
Alpha Ketogultarate Dehydrogenase
Alcohol Dehydrogenase comes under which class of enzyme?
Options
Oxidoreductase
Dehydrogenase
Hydrolase
Oxidase
Suicidal enzyme is:
Options
Lipoxygenase
Cyclooxygenase
Thromboxane
Nucleotidase
Which of the following is Lyase?
339
Options
Aldolase B
Acetyl- CoA Synthetase
Fatty Acetyl- CoA Dehydrogenase
Acetyl- CoA carboxylaseAll are true about oxygenases, except:
Options
Can incorporate 2 atoms of O2 in a substance
Can incorporate 1 atom of O2 in a substance
Important in hydroxylation of steroids
Catalyse carboxylation of drugs
All of the following enzymes are involved in oxidation reduction, except:
Options
Dehydrogenase
Hydrolases
Oxygenases
Peroxidases
Enzyme which cleave C-C bond:
Options
Lyase
Oxidoreductase
Ligase
Isomerase
Velocity at Km is:
Options
Half the substrate concentration
Same as Vmax
Quarter the Vmax
Half the Vmax
Coenzyme in decarboxylaton reaction:
340
Niacin
BiotinPyridoxine
Riboflavin
The type of enzyme inhibition in which succinate dehydrogenase reaction is inhibited by

malonate is
an example of:
Options
Non- competitive
Un competitive
Competitive
Allosteric
Which is true about enzyme kinetics for competitive inhibition?
Options
Low km high affinity
High km high affinity
High km low affinity
Low k low affinity
Non- competitive enzyme inhibition leads to:
Options
Vmax?
Vmax?
Vmax unchanged
Km?
Non- competitive reversible inhibitors:
Options
Raise Km
Lower Km
Lower Vmax
Raise both Vmax and Km
Km changes and Vmax remains the same. What is the type of enzyme inhibition?Options
341
Competitive inhibition
Non- Competitive inhibition
Uncompetitive inhibition
Suicide inhibition
Allosteric regulation true is?
Options
Binds to site other than active site
Regulated by acting on catalytic site
Follow Michelis maintain Kinetics
Substrate and modifier are structural analogues
All of the covalent modification regulate enzyme kinetic except:
Options
Phosphorylation
Acetylation
ADP Ribosylation
Glycosylation
The following affect enzyme activity except:
Options
Methylation
Acetylation
Induction
Phosphorylation
Chymotrypsinogen is a:
Options
Zymogen
CarboxpeptidaseTransaminase
Exopeptidase
A common feature of all serine proteases is:
Options
342
Autocatalytic activation of zymogen precursor
Tight binding of pancreatic trypsin inhibitor
Cleavage protein on the arboxyl site of serine site
Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the active site
Trypsin is a:
Options
Serine protease
Lecithinase
Phospholipase
Elastase
Marker enzyme for Golgi apparatus
Options
Galactosyl transferase
Glucoses 6 Phosphates
5 Nucleotidase
Catalase
Enzyme activity is expressed as
Options
Millimoles/lit
Micromoles/min
Mg/dl
Millimoles/lit
EnzymedoesnotactbyOptions
Forming non-covalent interactions
Catalyzing the reaction
Increasing activation energy
Increasing the rate of reaction
Mechanism of action of enzymes is all EXCEPT
Options
343
Acid - Base catalysis
Catalysis by proximity
Catalysis by denaturation
Catalysis by strain
Specific activity of enzyme is
Options
Ll mol of enzyme per gram of substrate
Enzyme units per mg of protein
Cone. of substrate transformed per minute
None
Serine of chymotrypsin is changed with proline. Which of the following will happen ?
Options
Chymotrypsin can catalyze the protein but cannot bind
Chymotrypsin can bind the protein but cannot catalyze
Chymotrypsin can bind the protein as well as can catalyze
Cannot decide from given information
Trypsin cleaves carboxy terminal of:
Options
Glutamate
ArginineGlycine
Proline
Non vitamin coenzyme is
Niacin
Coenzyme A
Lipoic acid
SAM
Coenzymes are ..... organic compounds
Options
Lipoprotein
344
Proteinaceous
Non-protein
Any of the above
Apoenzyme is
Options
Cofactor
Conezyme
Proein moiety
None
Aldehyde dehydrogenase requires NAD+ to act. Here NAD+ is termed as
Options
Cofactor
Coenzyme
Hypoenzyme
Abenzyme
FAD linked dehydrogenase is
OptionsSnyol reducatase
Succinate dehydrogenase
Kinases require:
Options
Mn2+
Inorganic phosphate
Cu2+
Mg2+
Zinc is cofactor for
Options
Carbonic anhydrase
345
Phospho fructo kinase
Hexokinase
Aldolase B
Alkaline phosphatase contains
Options
Copper
Zinc
Iron
Cobalt
Copper contining enzymes are all except
Options
Ascorbic acid oxidase
Xanthine oxidase
Amine oxidaseSuperoxide dismutase (SOD)
Activator of enzyme sulfite oxidase is:
Options
Iron
Copper
Zinc
Molybdenum
Carboxylases require
Options
Vitamin B7
Vitamin B2
Vitamin Bl2
Vitamin Bl
Cofactor for glutathione peroxidase
Options
Ca+2
Se
346
Mn+2
Mg+2
Other name of AST
Options
SGOT
Alkaline phosphatase
Acid phosphatase
SGPT
LDH has how many isoenzymes
Options3, based on B and M polypeptide subunits
5, based on B and M polypeptide subunits
5, based on H and M polypeptide subunits
The predominant isoenzyme of LDH occurring in liver injury is
Options
LDH- 1
LDH- 2
LDH- 4
LDH-5
Which isoform of LDH is raised in hemolytic anemia
Options
LDH5
. LDH3
LDH4
LDH2
Abzyme is a/an
Options
. Isoenzyme
Abnormal enzyme
Antibody with a catalytic activity
347
Allosteric enzyme
Definition ofRibozyme
Options
T-RNA
RNA molecule that acts catalytically to change it self or another RNA

molecule
RibonucleoproteinRibsome
Enzymes found in CSF
Options
GGT+ALP
ALP+CK
MB
CK+LDH
Chymotrypsin cleaves carbonyl terminal of:
Options
Phenylalanine
Arginine
Lysine
Tryptopha
Trypsin cleaves:
Options
Arginine
Glutamate
Lysine
Proline
Hydrolase belongs to enzyme category number
Options
348
4
Hydroxylase belongs to enzyme category number
Options1
Which of the following is a lyase
Options
Aldolase
Fumarase
Decarboxylase
All of the above
Fumarase is an example of
Options
Lyase
Hydrolase
Ligase
None
Digestive enzymes are
Options
Hydro lases
Oxidoreductases
Dehydrogenases
Ligases
Carbon mono-oxide (CO) is released in reaction catalyzed by
Options
Decarboxylases
Carboxylases
Heme oxygenasePyruvate dehydrogenase
349
The difference in MW between Phenylalanine and Tyrosine is by :
Options
17
16
64
32
Hydratase belongs to enzyme category number
Options
In Hydroxylation reactions, the change in MW is by:
Options
17
16
64
32
Enzyme which cleaves C-C bond :
Options
Lyase
Ligase
Transferase
Isomerase
All are true about oxygenase except
OptionsIncorporate one atom of 0
Incorporate both atoms of 0 2
Hydroxylation of steroids
Help in carboxylation of drugs
350
Which ofthe following enzymes does not participate in oxidation-reduction reactions
Options
Oxygenases
Peroxidases
Hydro lases
Dehydrogenases
Competitive inhibition - characteristic feature is
Options
Km decreased
Vmax decreased
Km increased
Vmax increased
Which among the following is a feature of non competetive inhibition
Options
Increased Km
Decreased V max
Decreased Km
Increased V max
Km of an enzyme is
Options
Numerically identical for all isoenzymes that catalyze a given reaction
Dissociation constant
The substrate concentration at half maximum velocityThe normal physiological

substrate concentration
Which of the following is a functional plasma enzyme!
Options
LDH
Acid phosphatase
Prothrombin
Amylase
351
All are non-functional Plasma enzymes, except
Options
Lipoprotein lipase
Lipoprotein lipase
Prostate specific phosphatase
Which statementisfalse about covalent modification
. It is reversible
It is slower than allosteric regulation
It uses the same enzyme for activation and inactivation
Phosphorylation is a common covalent modification
Allosteric modulators seldom resemble the substrate or product of the enzyme. What does
this
observation show:
Options
Modulators likely bind at a site other than the active site
Modulators always act as activators
Modulators bind and inhibit the enzyme
The enzyme catalyzes more than one reaction
Which statement is false about allosteric regulation
Options
It is usually the mode of regulation for the last step in reaction

pathwaysCellular response is faster with allosteric control than by controlling enzyme
concentration in the cell
The regulation usually is important to the conservation of energy and materials in cells
Allosteric modulators bind non-covalently at sites other than the active site and induce
conformational
Defective proteins are degraded after attaching covalently to
Options
Pepsin
Laminin
352
Clathrin
Ubiquitin
True regarding ubiquitin is
Options
Protein synthesis
Involved in protein destruction
Product of purine metabolism
Present in prokaryotes
Proteins which are bound to ubiquitin are degraded in
Options
Proteosomes
Lysosomes
Smooth ER
Golgi apparatus
Ubiquitin is involved in
Options
Electron transport chain
Transport of ATP
Intracellular proteolysis
Protein foldingUbiquitin protein is degraded by
Options
Proteosomes
Cathepsins
Vesicles
Golgi apparatus
Which of the following is a suicide enzyme?
Options
Thromboxane synthase
5' Nucleotidase
353
Lipoxygenase
Cyclooxygenase
Suicidal enzyme is
Options
Lipoxygenase
Cycloxygenase
Nitric oxide synthase
Nuclease
Enzyme inhibited by allopurinolis
Options
5-phosphoribosyl amido transferase
PRPP synthetase
Xanthine oxidase
Mechanism of conversion of trypsinogen to trypsin
Hydrolysis
Removal of Carboxyl groupPhosphorylation
Removal of part of protein
All of the following are covalent modifications of enzyme regulation EXCEPT:
Options
Phosphorylation
ADP Ribosylation
Acetylation
Glycosylation
Which of the following method is for regulating the enzyme's quantity
Options
Phosphorylation
Induction
Acetylation
354
Glycosylation
Mechanisms for regulating enzyme activity is/are
Options
Covalent modification
Allosteric activation
Induction of genes for enzyme synthesis
True about competitive inhibition of enzyme
Options
Km
Vmax remain same
Tvmax
No change in Km & Vmax
Non-competitive enzyme inhibition leads to:Options
Vmaxt
Vmax,J,
Vmax unchanged
Kmt
True about reversible non-competetive inhibitors
Options
Lower Vmax
LowerKm
Not affect Km
Not affect Vmax
True about Km:
Options
Half the substrate concentration at which velocity is maximum
Substrate concentration at which reaction rate is half the maximum
Michaelis constant
355
Dissociation constant of enzyme-substrate complex
What happens to LDH 1 & 2 ration in MI?
Options
LDH1 > LDH 2
LDH2 > LDH 1
LDH2 > LDH 1
Remains the same
True about isoenzymes is:
Options
Catalyse the same reaction
Same quaternary structureSame distribution in different organs
Same enzyme classification with same number and name
Non- functional enzyme are all except?
Options
Lipoprotein lipase
Gamma-glutamy transpeptidase
Peroxidase enzyme is used in estimating:
Options
Hemoglobin
Ammonia
Creatinine
Glucose
Which of the following estimate blood creatinine level most accuracy?
Options
Jaffe method
Kinetic jaffe method
Technicon method
Enzyme assay
356
LDH-5 level elevated in which cell injury?
Options
Liver
Heart
Muscle
RBC
Which of the following LDH is having fastest electrophoretic mobility?Options
LDH-1
LDH-2
LDH-3
LDH-3
Assay for lipid peroxidation is:
Options
MTT assay
Ame's test
Guthrie test
FOX assay
Pro-oxidant action of vitamin A is potentiated by:
Options
Copper
Selenium
Iron
Cobalt
Free radical with highest activity:
Options
O2
OH+
Hypochlorite
Peroxynitrite
Enzyme which catalyse the reaction Hp2 give Hp+02:
357
Options
Catalase
Glutathione reductaseGlutathione peroxidase
Glutathione s-transferase
Which of the following is not a free radical?
Options
Hydroxyl radica
Hydrogen peroxide
Superoxide
O2
Toxicity of ethanol is due to:
Options
Increased NADH/NAD+ ratio
Decreased lactate/pyruvate ratio
Inhibition of gluconeogenesis
Stimulation of fatty acid oxidation
Best explained pathogenesis of fatty liver in alcoholic liver disease:
Options
Increased hydrolysis of fat from adipocytes
Decreased synthesis of fatty acids
Decreased (NADH]/(NAD+] ratio
Impaired beta oxidation of fatty acids
Which of the following is having maximum thermic effect food?
Options
Fat
Protein
Carbohydrate
Does not
Best explained pathogenesis of fatty liver in alcholic liver disease:Options
358
Decreased [NADH]/[NAD+] ratio
Question (1/2)
Correct statment about membrane:
Options
Phospholipids undergo rapid lateral diffusion
Tranverse movement of lipids across the membrane is faster than protein
Phospholipid span the whole bilayer
Options
Fat
Protein
Carbohydrate
Does not depend on type of food/macronutrient content
Question (1/74)
An example of Anaplerotic rection is:
Options
Pyruvate to acetaldehyde
Pyruvate to oxaloacetate
Pyruvate to lactate
Pyruvate to acetyl CoA
A chronic alcoholic have low energy product" because of Thiamine deficiency as it is:
OptionsActing as a cofactor for alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and

pyruvate dehydrogenase
Acting as cofactor for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
Interferes with energy production from amino acids
Act as cofactor for oxidation reduction
359
In which step of TCA cycle ATP is generated
Options
Succinate dehdrogenase
Fumarase
Malate dehydrogenase
All of the following amino acids forms Acetyl CoA via Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
Options
Glycine
Tyrosine
Hydroxyproline
Alanine
A child ingested cyanide and rushedto the emergency room. Which of the following of citric
acid
cycle is inhibited at the earliest?
Options
Citrate synthase
Aconistase
Acetyl CoA production
NAD+ donor
Which of the following is not an intermediate of TCA cycle?
Options
Acetyl CoA
Citrate
CitrateAlpha ketoglutarate
Which of the following is true about Krebs cycle?
Options
Pyruvate condenses with oxaloacetate to form citrate
Alpha ketoglutarate is a five carbon compound
Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the cytoplasm only
360
Krebs cycle can operate in anaerobic condition
Which of the following substance binds to CoA and condenses oxaloacetate to inhibit the
TCA cycle?
Options
Malonate
Arsenite
Fluoroacetate
Fumarate
First substrate of Krebs cycle is:
Oxaloacetate
Acetyl CoA
Pyruvate
Lipoprotein
Hyperammonemia inhibits TCA cycle by depleting:
Options
Oxaloacetate
Alpha ketoglutarate
Citrate
Succinyl CoA
What is liberated when citrate converted to Cis Aconitate?
Options
H2OH2.
H2O2
CO2
False about reducing equivalents is:
Options
They are NADH and NADPH
Only produced during primary metabolic pathway
Formed in TCA cycle
Formed in mitochondria
361
High energy phosphate is not produced in:
Options
TCA cycle
Hexose Monophosphate pathway
Glycolysis
Beta oxidation of fatty acid
Which of the following statement about Link reaction is CORRECT?
Options
This is a Link between TCA and ETC
This is Oxidative Deamination of Pyruvate
This is Oxidative decarboxylation of Acetyl CoA
This reaction requires Lipoic acid and four B-complex Vitamins
Major source of Acetyl CoA
Options
Triglycerides
Fatty acids
Pyruvate
AlanineThiamine deficiency results in decrease energy production, because TPP:
Options
Interferes with Alcohol metabolism
Interferes with Transketolase activity
Is cofactor for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha ketoglutarate

dehydrogenase
Interferes with Energy production from amino acids
Which ofthe following is/ are incorrect
Options
Fats can be converted to carbohydrates
Carbohydrates can be converted to fats
Glycerol can be converted to glucose
Beri-Beri leads to Lactic acidosis
362
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase complex has all enzyme components EXCEPT
Options
Decarboxylase
Dehydrogenase
Carboxylase
Transacetylase
Which ofthe following is reversible enzyme ?
Options
Pyruvate kinase
Hexokinase
Which of the following vitamins does not participate in oxidative decarboxylation of

Pyruvate to
Acetyl CoA 1
Options
ThiamineBiotin
Riboflavin
Niacin
Congenital Lactic Acidosis may occur due to defect in
Options
Pyruvate decarboxylase
Transketolase
A baby is hypotonic and shows that pyruvate cannot form Acetyl CoA in fibroblasts. Also
lactic
acidosis is found. Administration of which of the following can
revert this situation 1
Options
363
Biotin
Pyridoxal phosphate
Thiamine
Pyruvate
Pyruvate dehydrogenase contains all except:
Options
CoA
Biotin
NAD
FAD
Acetyl CoA can be directly converted to all except
Options
Glucose
Ketone bodies
Fatty acidsCholesterol
Cyanide taken up by child. First one to be affected in Kreb's cycle is
Options
Aconitase
NAD
Citrate
Acetyl CoA
Thiokinase ofTCAproduces
Options
ATP
GTP
Both a and b
NADH
Which among the following controls is an allosteric inhibitor ofTCA cycle?
Options
364
!so-citrate dehydrogenase
Keto-glutarate dehydrogenase
Which ofthe following is anaplerotic reaction:
Options
Conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
Conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate
Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl co A
Conversion of pyruvate to acetaldehyde
WhyTCA cycle is called amphibolic cycle'
OptionsIt can proceed both in forward and backward direction
It is both endothermic and exothermic
Metabolites are used in both amino acid and ketone body synthesis
Same enzyme can be used in reverse direction
Succinate dehydrogenase is inhibited by'?
Options
Fluoroacetate
Arsenite
~yanide
Malonate
What is liberated when Citrate converted to Cis Aconitate'
Options
H20
C02
H202
H2
Which of the following enters the TCA cycle at succinyl-CoA step 1
Options
365
Histidine
Methionine
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Which ofthe following is NOT required in TCA cycle
Options
Riboflavin
Niacin
PyridoxineThiamine
In TCA cycle of tricarboxylic acid, which is first formed'?
Succinate
Citrate
Lsocitrate
None
How many ATPs are formed in the TCA cycle from acetyl coenzyme A (one molecule)
Options
10
11
12
15
A ketoglutarate dehydrogenase is inhibited by(
Options
Arsenite
Lodoacetate
. Fluoroacetate
Fluride
Citrate synthase is inhibited by
Options
ATP
366
Glucagon
Insulin
ADP
The net ATP yield when one molecule of pyruvate is completely oxidized to C02 and H20 is:
Options
12.512
15
30
Which one of the following can be converted to an intermediate of citric acid cycle or can
enter urea
cycle:-
Options
Leucine
Lysine
Aspartate
Tyrosine
All ofthe following are correct EXCEPT:
Options
Fluorocitrate is competitive inhibitor of Aconitase
Fluoroacetate is non-competitive inhibitor of Aconitase
Malonate is competitive inhibitor of Succinate Dehydrogenase
Iodoacetate inhibits Glycerol-3-Phosphate De- ~ hydrogenase
Enzyme responsible for complete oxidation of glucose to C02 and H20 is present in :
Options
Cytosol
Lysosomes
Mitochondria
Two carbon atoms which leave in the form of C02 in TCA, are derived from
Options
367
Acetyl CoA
Oxaloacetate
C02
CitrateUnaltered final product of TCA:
Options
Acetyl CoA
Oxaloacetate
C02
Pyruvate
First substrate ofKreb's cycle is:
Options
Pyruvate
Glycine
Citrate
Acetyl CoA
Which of the following substance binds to CoA and condenses Oxaloacetate to inhibit TCA
cycle
Options
Malonate
Acetyl CoA
Fluoroacetate
Arsenite
Which inhibitor of TCA acts by blocking Citrate'
Options
Malonate
Iodoacetate
Fluoroacetate
Arsenite
In TCA, C02 is released by:
Options
368
Citrate synthaseAlpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenas
Citrate dehydrogenase
Source of energy in TCA is :
Options
NAD
NADH
FAD
NADPH
NAD acts as a cofactor for:
Options
Citrate synthase
Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Anaplerotic reaction is catalyzed by:
Options
Enolase
Pyruvate kinase
G6PD
Number of Dehydrogenases in TCA cycle is/ are
Options
4Which of the following is not the dehydrogenase of TCA:
Options
369
Rate limiting step ofTCA
Options
Citrate synthase
All
ATPs obtained from one Acetyl CoA via TCA
Options
20
10
12
Which enzyme of TCA is present in inner mitochondrial membrane :
Options
Fumarate dehydrogenase
Which molecule is regarded as carrier ofTCA cycle
Options
Acetyl CoAOxaloacetate
Citrate
ATP
TCA cycle depends on:
Options
Availability of Acetyl CoA
370
Availability of Oxaloacetate0
Availability of Insulin
Availability of Glucagon
Products formed from alcohol but not the intermediate ofTCA cycle?
Options
Acetaldehyde
Succinate
Fumarate
Oxaloacetate
Oxalo-acetate + Acetyl-Co-A -> Citrate + Co-ASH This reaction is
Options
Reversible
Irreversible
Endergonic
None
Thiamine requirement increases in excessive intake of:
Options
Carbohydrates
Fats
Proteins
NoneWhat is the basis ofthis statement - 'FATS Burn in the flame of carbohydrates
Options
Fats and carbohydrates are oxidized together
Both breakdown products of fats have a role
Acetyl CoA is oxidized completely in the presence of oxaloacetate
Beta oxidation occurs in the presence of
In traumatic brain injury, changes in brain metabolism are seen. All are true EXCEPT
Options
There is shut down of pyruvate dehydrogenase activity
371
There is accumulation oflactate in brain
There is increased lactate uptake from circulation
Increased CSF lactate is associated with good prognosis
Glycolytic enzymes( s) inhibited by Fluoride:
Options
Hexokinase
Aldolase
Enolase
Pyruvate kinase
2,3-BPG binds to_ sites of hemoglobin and __ the affinity for oxygen?
Options
4, decreases
1, decreases
4, increases
1, increases
Which of the following enzymes catalyze the irreversible step of glycolysis?
Options
Glucokinase, phosphofructokinase, pyruvate carboxylaseHexokinase, fructose 1, 6

biphosphatase, pyruvate kinase
Glucokinase, phosphofructokinase, pyruvate kinase
Enolase, fructose 1, 6 biphospahatase, phosphofructokinase
True statement regarding Lactate dehydrogenase deficiency:
Options
Fumarate level increases
Exercise intolerance
Muscle cramps may occur
It operate in anaerobic condition
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex uses following coenzymes/cofactors:
Options
Biotin
372
Lipoic acid
NAD
FMN
In conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and C02, which ofthe following coenzyme is used:
Options
Biotin
Lipoic acid
TPP
Pyridoxal phsphate
Irreversible step{s) in glycolysis is/are:
Options
Enolase
Phosphofructokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Glyceraldehyde -3-phosphate dehydrogenaseHigh energy phosphate compound is/ are:
Options
ATP
Creatine phosphate
Glucose- 1- phosphate
Glycerol-3-phosphate
True about Acetyl CoA:
Options
Precursor for synthesis of cholesterol and other steroids.
Form ketone bodies
Starting material for synthesis of fatty acid
All are correct
Enzyme catalyzing reversible step in glycolysis is I are
Options
Phosphofructokinase
373
Enolase
Pyruvate kinase
Phosphoglyceromutase
Options
Citrate synthase
A-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Which of the following is not a glucogenic substrate in humans
Options
LactateOxaloacetate
Pyruvate
Acetyl CoA
Question (1/64)
Respiratory quotient after exclusive carbohydrate meal is:
Options
1.2
0.8
0.7
Which of the following is a physiological uncoupler?
Options
Thyroxine
Insulin
Glucagon
Norepinephrine
True about effect of 2,4 Dinitrophenol is:
Options
374
Oxygen consumption is increased
ATP is produced
Respiration decreased
Electron transfer is decreased
Transport of ADP in and ATP out of mitochondria Is inhibited by:
Options
Atractyloside
Oligomycin
RotenoneCyanide
The electron flow in cytochrome C oxidase can be blocked by:
Options
Rotenone
Antimycin-A
Cyanide
Cyanide
Cytosolic cytochrome C mediates:
Options
Apoptosis
Electron transport
Krebs cycle
Glycolysis
The specialized mammalian tissue/organ in which fuel oxidation serves not to produce ATP
but to
generate heat is:
Options
Adrenal gland
Skeletal muscle
Brown adipose tissue
Heart
Electron transport chainInvolves all except
375
Options
NADP
NAO
Coenzyme Q
FAD
FO-F1complex, ATP synthase inhibitor is:
AtractylosideOligomycin
Antimycin
Rotenone
Respiratory Quotient 0.7is seen in:
Options
Carbohydrates
Fat
Protein
Alcohol
Phenobarbftone inhibits which complex of ETC?
Options
Complex I
Complex II
Complex Ill
Complex IV
Dinitrophenol inhibits the electron transport chain by:
Options
Cytochrome b
Inhibits ATP synthesis and electron transport chain
Inhibits ATP synthesis but not electron transport chain
Inhibits electron transport chain but not ATP synthesis
Mechanism of Cyanide poisoning:
Options
376
Inhibition of cytochrome oxidase
Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase
Inhibition of cytochrome c
Inhibition of cytochrome cFinal acceptor of electrons In ETC is:
Options
Cyt c
Oxygen
FADH2
CoQ
Malate shuttle is required for:
Options
Glycolysis
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase complex
TCA
All
If Aerobic glycolysis uses glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle, How many ATPs are produced?
Options
2ATP
5ATP
7ATP
3ATP
NADPH via glycerol phosphate shuttle gives how manyATPs?
Options
2.5
1.5
Zero
Reason of presence of less ATP forming- glycerol-P- shuttle in brain are all EXCEPT :
Options
This is a shorter shuttleIt is a quick source of ATP
377
After going in brain in ETC, it gives high energy
Brain needs a quick source of ATP
Glycerol-P-shuttle is more important in:
Options
Brain and heart
Skeletal muscles
Liver and heart
Brain and skeletal muscles
Which is the only non-protein member of ETC 1
Options
Cytochrome c
CoQ
ComplexV
Complex II
Cytochrome c oxidase requires:
Options
Cu
Mg
Ca++
Zn
ATPs given by complex IV of ETC are:
Options
0.5Which component transfers 4 protons?
Options
Complex I
ComplexF1
378
ComplexFO
Complex IV
ETC is located in :
Options
Inner mitochondrial membrane
Outer mitochondrial membrane
Mitochondrial matrix
Inter membrane space
Which of the following is not true regarding ETC 1
Options
Coupling of oxidation and phosphorylation occurs
Occurs in mitochondrial matrix
Known as chemiosmotic theory
ADP+Pi ~ ATP
Mitochondrial membrane contains a protein which is transporter of
Options
Oxaloacetate
Acetyl CoA
NADH
ATP
Which couple has minimum Redox potential
Options
NADP+/NADPHCoQ-CoQH2
FAD/FADH2
NAD+/NADH
Most important source of ATP 1
Substrate level phosphorylation
Aerobic glycolysis
379
TCA
Which of the following is a physiological uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation:
Options
2,4 dinitrophenol
Cyanide
Thermogenin
Cyanide
Reducing power is usually in the form of
Options
Reduced NADP+
Oxidised NADH
Reduced NAD
Reduced NADPH
******True about NADPOptions
Not involved in glycolysis
Acts as coenzyme form of Niacin
Involved in HMP shunt
All are true
In malate shuttle, NADH produces how many ATPs?
Options1
1.5
2.5
Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation
Options
CN
H2S
2DNP
Co
380
Mechanism of action of uncouplers
Options
Inhibition of ATP synthesis only not ETC
Inhibition of both ATP synthesis and ETC
Inhibition of only ETC not ATP synthesis
None of the above
Barbiturates act on which step of mitochondrial respiratory chain?
Options
Complex I to Co-enzyme Q
Co-enzyme Q to complex 3
Complex II to co-enzyme Q
Cytochrome C to complex IV
CO binds with which complex of the electron transport chain?
Options
Complexl
Complex III
Complex IIComplex IV
ATP is generated in ETC by
Options
ADP kinase
Na+ Cl ATPase
FoFl ATPase
NA+ K+ ATPase
Enzyme involved in oxidative phosphorylation
Options
Succinyl CoA thiokinase
Pyruvate kinase
NADH dehydrogenase
None
381
Which of the component of respiratory chain reacts directly with molecular oxygen
Options
Cyt b
CoQ
Cyt C
Cyt aa3
Last electron acceptor in Electron Transport Chain is
Options
Oxygen
Tetrachloroethylene
Nitrate
Iron
Atractyloside act as
OptionsInhibitor of complex III of ETC
Inhibitor of oxidative phosphorylation
Uncoupler
Nitrate
Chemi-osmotic coupling of oxidative phosphorylation is related to
Options
Formation of ATP at substrate level
ATP formation by transport of 02
ATP generation by pumping of neutron
ATP generation by pumping of proton
Hydrogen sulphide acts on which complex of cytochrome oxidase?
Options
Complex!
Complex III
Complex II
Complex IV
382
Main source of ATP production is
Options
Non-oxidative metabolism
None ofthe above
NADH via glycerolphosphate shuttle makes how many ATPs
Options
1..5
22.5
In ETC NADH generates
Options
3ATP
2.5ATPs
2ATPs
None of the above
Creatinine is the breakdown product of
Options
Adenosine triphosphate
Purine nucleotides
Pyrimide nucleotides
Creatine phosphate
Complex I of ETC is inhibited by
Options
Amobarbital
CD
Cyanide
H2S
Barbiturate act on ETC complex
383
Options
II
III
IV
Which is the inhibitor of Cytochrome oxidase?
OptionsBAL
Malonate
Oligomycin
Cyanide
Cyanide is toxic because it
Options
Inhibits cytochrome oxidase
Forms cyan meth Hb
Inhibits Na-K ATPase
Inhibits ATP carrier in mitochondria
Cyanide affects respiratory chain by
Options
Non-competitive reversible inhibition
Competitive reversible inhibition
Suicide irreversible inhibition
Non-competitive irreversible inhibition
The following poisions act by causing inhibition of d. Carboxin complex IV of respiratory

chain except
Options
Co
Malonate
Cyanide
H2S
True about 2, 4- Dinitrophenols is?
384
Options
Prevents ATP synthesis and electron transport chain
Prevents ATP synthesis and electron transport chain s increased
Blocks electron transport chain but ATP synthesis isBlocks ATP synthesis but electron
transport chain is
Electrons in electron transport chain travel from
Options
One way irrespective of the potential
Low to high potential
Two way
High to low potential
Which vitamin is used in ETC!
Options
Thiamine
Biotin
Nicotinic acid
Pyridoxal phosphate
Which of the following vitamin is a component of ETC!
Options
Vitamin Bl2
Riboflavin
Nicotinic acid
Thiamine
MELAS inhibit all ETC Complexes except
Options
II
III
IV
Oxidative phosphorylation not inhibited by
385
OptionsFluoride
2, 4-dinitrophenol (DNP)
Oligomycin
Carboxin
In ETC, Oxidative phosphylartion (ATP formation) is regulated by:
Options
NADH Co-Q reductase
Cytochrome C oxidase
Which of the following is high energy phosphate bond (produce ATP on hydrolysis
Options
Fructose-6-phosphate
Creatine phosphate
Carbamoyl phosphate
Glucose-1-phosphate
Number of ATPs produced from adipose tissue from I NADH (NAD+ /NADH) through
respiratory
chain:
Options
OATP
LATP
2ATP
2.6ATP
Which component transfers four protons
Options
NADH-Q Oxidoreductase
Cytochrome -C Oxidase
CoQ Cytochrome c ReductaseIsocitrate Dehydrogenase
Which of the following releases/provide energy
386
Options
Conversion of ADP to ATP
Breaking of high energy bond to low energy bond a
Conversion of Pyruvate to lactate
. Electrical gradient across inner and outer side of mitochondrial membrane
A girl licks paint that is peeled of from the toys develop acute abdominal pain, tingling
sensation of
hands and legs and weakness. Which enzyme is inhibited in
this child?
Options
ALA synthase
Heme oxygenase
Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
ALA dehydratase
Heme biosynthesis does not occur in:
Options
Osteocyte
Liver
RBC
Erythroid cells of bone marrow
In lead poisoning which of the following is seen in urine?
Options
Delta ALA
Uroporphyrin
Coproporphyrin
Protoporphyrin
Which of the following porphyrias does not present with photosensitivity?Options
Urophorphyrin decarboxylase
HMB synthase
Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
387
A boy with staining of teeth and raised Coproporphy rin-1 levels and increased risk of
photosensitivity, the enzyme deficient is:
Options
Uroporphyrinogen synthase
Uroporphyrinogen Ill synthase
Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
No. of pyrrole rings in Porphyrins:
Options
No of iron in ferritin:
Options
40
400
4000
Noof iron in transferrin:
Options
23
Variegate porphyria enzyme defect is:
Options
388
Acute lntennittent Porphyria is caused by:
Options
ALA synthase
ALA dehydratase
ALA dehydratase
Uroporphyrinogen I synthase
Question (1/1)
A 10-year-old bo presents with increase bilirubin, increased bilirubin in urine and no

urobilinogen.
Diagnosis is:
Options
Gilbert syndrome
Hemolytic jaundice
Viral hepatitis
Obstructive jaundice
HbA1c is:
Options
Glucose to N terminal 13 globin
Glucose to lysine residue of 13 globin
Glucose to valine residue of 13 globin
Glucose to glutamine residue of 13 globinStructure of Hemoglobin and Myoglobinare similar

in:
Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Both secondary and tertiary structure
2,3 DPG binds to _ sites in hemoglobin and causes In its oxygen affinity:
Options
ONE decreases
389
Question (1/16)
Most abundant form of Pro Vit A is:
Options
Alpha carotene
Beta carotene
Cryptoxanthine
Lycopene
Which of the following is true about Vitamin K?
Options
It is a water soluble vitamin
It helps in the carboxylation of factor VIII
Chronic use of antibiotics lead to deficiency of Vitamin K
Vitamin K deficiency manifest as multiple thrombotic episodes
Which vitamin is synthesized in the body?
Options
Thiamine
Vitamin B12Vitamin B3
Riboflavin
Tocopheryl radical is converted to Tocopherol by which vitamin?
Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Niacin
Vitamin C
In the crystalline lens, level of tocopherol and Ascorbate is maintained by
Options
Glutathione
Glycoprotein
Fatty acid
Glucose
390
All are true about vitamin D metabolism, except:
Options
1-alpha hydroxylation occurs in kidney
25-alpha hydroxylation occurs in liver
In absence of sun light, the daily requirement is 400- 600 IU per day
Williams syndrome is associated with mental retardation, precocious

puberty and obesity
Vitamin K is required for:
Options
Hydroxylation
Chelation
Transamination
Carboxylation
Vitamin A intoxication cause injury to:Options
Lysosomes
Mitochondria
Microtubules
Active form of Vitamin D is:
Cholecalciferol
24, 25(0H) 2vit-D
1, 25(0H) 2vit-D
25-0H vit-D
Vitamin K is involved in the post-translational modification of:
Options
Glutamate
Aspartate
Lysine
Proline
Which Vitamin is required for carboxylation of clot ting factors?
391
Options
Vitamin A
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Vitamin K
All the following have antioxidant action except:
Options
Vitamin A
Vitamin E
SeleniumVitamin D
Which of the following is true about vitamin K?
Options
Vit K dependent factors undergo post-transcriptional modification
Prothrombin is a vitamin K dependent factor
Stuart-Prower factor is not vitamin K dependent
Menadione is a natural water insoluble vitamin K used in clinical practice
Vitamin E deficiency causes all except:
Options
Ataxia
Areflexia
Ophthalmoplegia
None
Which coenzyme acts as reducing agent in anabolic reaction?
Options
FADH2
FMNH2
NADPH
NADH
Most powerful chain breaking antioxidant:
Options
392
Alpha tocopherol
Superoxide dismutase
Vitamin C
Fulminant Hepatitis is associated with which vitamin toxicity?
OptionsVitamin B1
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B6
Vitamin deficiency causing mental disorder?
Options
Thiamine
Riboflavin
Niacin
Biotin
Site of absorption of Vitamin B12:
Options
Ileum
Jejunum
Duodenum
Stomach
Vitamin B12 deficiency causes all except:
Options
Neural tube defect
Peripheral neuropathY
Megaloblastic anaemia
Demyelination
Lsoniazid toxicity can be prevented b .
Options
Vitamin B6
393
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B12Vitamin B1
Which among the following cause generalized oedema?
Options
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B12
Vitamin A
A 50-yrs-old male with symptoms of fatigue and he has swelling of feet and loss of
sensations in legs
and anaemia. He also has dilation of ventricle and high
cardiac output state. What is the vitamin deficiency associated with this presentation
Options
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B3
Cobalt is present in which vitamin?
Options
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B1
Antioxidant in Vitamin is:
Options
Beta carotene
Thiamine
Niacin
Riboflavin
The proxidant action of Vitamin C is potentiated by:Options
394
Selenium
Copper
Calcium
Iron
A mineral which can generate free radical are all except:
Options
Copper
Cobalt
Selenium
Nickel
Biotin act as a coenzyme for all except:
Options
Pyruvate to oxaloacetae
Acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA
Propionyl CoA to methyl malonyl CoA
Glutamate to gamma carboxy glutamate
Vitamin B is not required for:
Options
Methionine synthase
Methyl malonyl CoA mutase
Leucine ammo mutase
A vitamin derived from amino acid is:
Options
Biotin
Pantothenic acidNiacin
Folic acid
Vitamin for which RDA is based on protein intake is:
Options
395
Niacin
Riboflavin
Pyridoxine
Thiamine
Megaloblastic anaemia seen in:
Options
Ornithine transcarbamoylase defect
MSUD
Citrullinemia
Orotic aciduria
In ono carbon metabolism when serine converted to Glycino, Which carbon atom is added
to THFE?
Options
Alpha carbon
Beta carbon
Delta carbon
Gamma carbon
Vitamin deficiency that cause oro oculo genital syndrome:
Options
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B12
Zinc
Vitamin B3
Vitamin deficiency causing circum corneal vascularization is:Options
Biotin
Riboflavin
Thaimine
Vitamin D
False about folic acid:
Options
396
It is present in all the green leafy vegetables
It is proven to decrease the occurrence of neural tube defects when taken preconceptionally
Wheat flour in India is fortified with folate as in USA
Methyl folate trap is because of methionine synthase defect
Which of the vitamin deficiency lead to lactic acidosis?
Options
Riboflavin
Thiamine
Niacin
Panthothenic acid
Thiamin requirement increases in excessive intake of:
Options
Carbohydrate
Amino acid
Fat
Lecithin
Which of the following statement about Thiamine true?
Options
It is a coenzyme of lactate dehydrogenase
Its deficiency is associated with scurvyIts coenzyme function is done by thiamine

monophoshate
It is coenzyrne for pyruvate dehydrogenase and a-keto glutarate

dehydrogenase
Vitamin which ls excreted in urine is?
Options
Vitamin
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Vitamin K
Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because:
397
Options
It is required for the process of transamination
It is a cofactor in oxidative reduction
It is a coenzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
It is a coenzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha ketoglutarate

dehydrogenase
Vitamin 812 acts as coenzyme to which one of the following enzymes?
Options
Lsocitrate dehydrogenase
Homocysteine methyl transferase
Glycogen synthase
Glucose-6- Phosphate dehydrogenase
Biotin is a cofactor of:
Options
Carboxylase
Oxidase
Hydrolase
Oecarboxylase
Post-translation modification of hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline is by:Vit C
Vit K
Vit E
Vit D
Pantothenic acid containing coenzyme is involved in:
Options
Decarboxylation
Dehydrogenation
Acetylation
Carboxylation
Vitamin given in pregnant women to prevent neural tube defect:
Options
398
Folic acid
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B2
Not needed in TCA cycle:
Options
Pyridoxine
Thiamine
Riboflavin
Niacin
Neurological worsening with anemia what is the treatment to be given?
Options
Folic acid alone
Folic acid along with hydroxycobalamin
IronPyridoxine
Vitamin deficiency causing dementia:
Options
Biotin
Thiamine
Pyridoxine
Vitamin B12
Pantothenate Kinase associated neurodegeneration is:
Options
Wilson's disease
Hallervorden-Spatz syndrome
Mcleod syndrome
Mcleod syndrome
The form of THFA used in treatment is:
Options
399
N5 Formyl THFA
N10 Formyl THFA
N5 Formimino THFA
N5 methyl THFA
Excess of avidln causes deficiency of:
Options
Biotin
Choline
Vitamin B12
Folate
Thiamine act as a cofactor in
OptionsPyruvate to oxaloacetate
Malonate to oxaloacetate
Succinate to fumarate
Sebhorreic Dermatitis Is produced by deficiency of:
Options
Vitamin A
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B2
Vitamin C
Severe thiamine deficiency ls associated with:
Options
Decreased RSC transaminase activity
Increased xanthurenic acid excretion
Question (1/5)
The followings correctly arranged
400
Options
GMP-Guanine monophosphate
UMP-Uracil monophosphate
TMP-Thymine monophosphate
CMP-Cytidine monophosphate
Apart from occurring in nucleic acid, pyrimidines are also found 1:
Options
Theophylline
TheobromineFlavin mononucleotide
Allantoin
Which of the following is not a nitrogenous base?
Options
Adenine
Guanosine
Cytosine
Thymine
Which is not found in DNA?
Options
Adenine
Adenine
Guanine
Uracil
At the physiological pH the DNA molecules are:
Options
Positively charged
Negatively charged
Neutral
Enzyme deficiency in Lesch Nyhan Syndrome?
Options
401
HGPRtase
APRTase
Adeosine ceaminase
Purine Phosphorylase
A child presents with hyperuricemia and delayed developmental milestones. He also has the
habit of
biting fingers and nails. What is the most probable enzyme
deficiency?Options
HGPRtase deficiency
Phenyl Alanine Hydroxylase
Adenine Deaminase
Hexosaminidase A
End product of purine metabolism in non-primate mammals is:
Options
Uric acid
Ammonia
Urea
Allantoin
Deoxy ribonucleic acid is formed from:
Options
Ribonuclease
Ribonucleotide monophosphate
Ribonucleotide diphosphate
Ribonucleotide triphosphate
lnosinic acid is biological precursor:
Options
Uracil and thymine
Purines and thymine
Adenylic acid and guanylic acid
Orotic acid and uridylic acid
402
False regarding gout is:
Options
Due to increased metabolism of pyrimidines
Due to increased metabolism of purinesUric acid levels may not be elevated
Has a predilection for the great toe
The enzyme deficient in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is:
Options
GTRT
Glutaminase
Transcarboxylase
HGPRT
A 1O-year-old child presents with history of rashes self-mutilation family history positive.
Which of
the following investigations do you think may be
suggestive of valuable for diagnosis?
Options
Lead
Alkaline Phosphatase
LDH
Uric acid
A ten-year-old child with aggressive behavior and poor concentration is brought with
presenting
complaints of joint pain and reduced urinary output. Mother
gives history of self-mutilate his finger. Which of the following enzymes is likely to be
deficient in this
child?
Options
HGPRT ase
Adenosine Deaminase
APRTase
Acid Maltase
403
A patient with increased Hypoxanthine and Xanthine in blood with hypouricemia which
enzyme is
deficient?
Options
HGPRtaseXanthine Oxidase
Adenosine Deaminase
APRtase
Choose the incorrect statement Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome:
Options
Affects young boys
Presents with gouty arthritis
The enzyme defect enhances the reutilization of purine bases
Bizzare behavior of self-mutilation
Hyperuricemia is not found in:
Options
Cancer
Psoariasis
Von gierke's disese
Xanthinuria
Which among the following is a cardioprotective fatty acid
Options
Palmitic acid
Stearic acid
Oleic acid
Omega-3 fatty acid
Which among the following is not a saturated fatty acid?
Options
Myristic acid
Stearic acid
Palmitic acid
404
Linoleic acidMost essential fatty acid is:
Options
Linolenic acid
Linoleic acid
Arachidonic acid
Eicosapentaenoic acid
All are true except
Options
Linoleic acid is found in soyabean oil
Linolenic and linoleic acids are cis derivatives containing double bonds
Arachidonic acid contains five double bonds
Monoenoic acids contain one double bond at 9th position
Maximum source of linolelc acid Is:
Coconut oil
Sunflower oil
Palm oil
Vanaspati
Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breast milk?
Options
Linoleate
Linoleate
Linoleate
Docosahexaenoic acid
The following fatty acid does not belong to W6 series:
Options
Linoleic acid
Arachidonic acidGamma linoleic acid
Alpha linolenic acid
An example of Omega 6 fatty acid is:
405
Options
Cervonic acid
α Linolenic acid
Arachidonic acid
Tirnnodonic acid
Which is not present in plants?
Options
Cholesterol
Linolenic acid
Linoleic acid
Laurie acid
Question (1/8)
Which of the following is a glycolipid?
Options
Cerebroside
Plasmalogen
Sphingomyelin
Lecithin
Second messenger is produced from:
Options
Phosphatidylinositol
Phosphatidylserine
Phosphatidylcholine
NoneA child presents with hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia. Bone marrow shows
"crumbled tissue
paper appearance". It is due to accumulation of:
Options
Glucocerebroside
Sphingomyelin
Ganglioside
406
Galactocerebroside
Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in:
Options
Niemann-Pick disease
Farber's disease
Tay-Sa.ch's disease
Krabbe's disease
Deficiency of phosphorylating enzymes for the formation of which of the following

recognition
marker leads to 1- cell disease?
Options
Mannose 6 phosphate
Galactose
Globoside
Which of the following disease occurs due to the deficiency of glucocerebrosidase?
Options
Gaucher 's disease
Pompe's disease
Fabry's disease
Krabbe's disease
Accumul ation of sphingomyelin in phagocytic cells is feature of:
Options
Tay-Sach's diseaseGaucher's disease
Down's syndrome
Tay-Sachs disease is due to accumulation of:
Options
GM2 ganglioside
GM1 ganglioside
Glucocerebroside
407
Galactocerebrosi de
The form of glucose predominantly seen is as:
Options
A D Glucopyanose
A D Glucofuranose
~ D Glucopyranose
Glucofuranose
The glycemic index is highest for:
Options
Glucose
Fructose
Sucrose
Sugar alcohols
Glucose detection can be done by the all except?
Options
Glucose oxidase
Ferric chloride test
Dextrostix
Folin and Wu methodWhich of the following carbohydrate metabolism is used for liver
function assessment?
Options
Galactose tolerance test
Sucrose tolerance test
Glucose tolerance test
Lactose tolerance test
Which deposition result in cataract?
Options
Glucose
Galactose
Sugar amines
408
Sugar alcohols
Cellulose is:
Options
Complex lipoprotein
Starch polysaccharide
Non starch polysaccharide
Complex glycoprotein
A 4-yrs-boy with mental retardation, dysostosis multiplex, coarse facial feature, clear cornea.
What
is the diagnosis?
Options
MPS type IV
Hunter's Disease
Hurler
Zellweger syndrome
Mucopolysaccharide that does not contain uronic acid residue is:
Options
Heparan sulphateHeparin
Chondroitin sulphate
Keretan sulphate
Mucopolysacchridoses which is a lysosomal storage disease, occur due to abnormally in:
Hydrolase enzyme
Dehydrogenase enzyme
Lipase enzyme
Phosphatase
Complex polysaccharides which are converted to glucose are absorbed by the helo of
Options
Na + K+ ATPase
Sucrase
Enterokinase
409
Carboxypeptidase
After overnight fasting, level of glucose transporters reduced in:
Options
Brain cells
RBCs
Adipocyte
Hepatocyte
Glucose transporter in myocyte stimulated by insulin is:
Options
GLUT-1
GULT-2
GULT-3
GULT-4
Defect in renal glucosuria:Options
GLUT-1
GULT-2
SGLT 1
SGLT 2
Facilitated transport of glucose that is insulin insensitive (non- dependent) takes place in:
Options
Skeletal muscle
Liver
Adipose tissue
Heart
Glucose transporter presents in the RBC:
Options
GLUT-1
GULT-2
GULT-3
410
GULT-4
The monosaccharide with maximum rate of absorption in intestine is:
Options
Glucose
Galactoss
Fructose
Mannose
Mitochondria are involved in all of the following except:
Options
ATP production
ApoptosisTri-carboxylic acid cycle
Which offollowing does not occur in mitochondria?
Options
Beta -oxidation
DNA synthesis
Protein synthesis
Which of the following is active in dephosphorylated state?
Options
Glycogen synthase
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Insulin promotes lipogenesis by all except
Options
Decreasing cAMP
Increase glucose uptak
Inhibiting pyruvate dehydrogenase
411
Increasing acetyl CoA
Hormone sensitive lipase is not activated by
Options
Insulin
Glucagon
Catecholamines
T4
Which of the following is not seen in low insulin glucagon ratio?Options
Gluconeogenesis
Glycogen breakdown
Ketogenesis
Glycogen storage
Which of the following biochemical reaction isinvolved in conversion of Histidine is to

histamine
Options
Decarboxylation
Carboxylation
Amination
Oxidation
Entropy is a measure of the:
Options
Reversibility of reaction
Randomness in a system
Exothermicity
Free energy for an enzymatic reaction
Glowing of firefly is due to
Options
ATP
NADH
Gtp
412
Phosphocreatinine
Storage form offree eneragy in the cell
Options
NADH
ATPG-6-P
. Creatine phosphate
Thermogenic food is which ofthe following
Options
High protein diet
High carbohydrate diet
High fat diet
It does not depend on the macro nutrients
Which is required in Anabolic reactions:
Options
NAD
NADP
Fad
Fadp
Rossman fold associated NADH domain is found in which of the following enzyme
Options
Malate Dehydrogenase
Succinate Dehydrogenase
All occur in mitochondria except
Options
Glycolysis
TCAcycle
ETC
413
Ketogenesis
The biosynthesis ofthe enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is repressed byOptions
Insulin
Cortisol
Glucagon
Epinephrine
Preferred fuel for body in fasting state ?
Options
Carbohydrate
Fats
Proteins
Amino acids
The enzyme activated with low Insulin: Glucagon ratio is?
Options
Hexokinase
Glucokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Options
Pyruvate dehydrogense
Isocitrate dehydrogense
A-ketoglutaryl Dehydrogense u
Which of the following enzymes are activated in dephosphorylated state:
Options
HMG Co A reductase
Glycogen phosphorylaseGlycogen phosphorylase kinase
Citrate lyase
414
Enzyme regulated by phosphorylation:
Options
Fat
Glycogen
Lactate
Ketone
What is effect of cortisol on metabolism:
Options
T Gluconeogenesis
T Lipogenesis
T Proteolysis
T Export of amino acid to liver
Source of energy for a running race athlete for the initial3 minutes of running
Options
Free fatty acid
Creative phosphate
Muscle glycogen
Blood glucose
Cellulose is not broken due to beta anomerism at :
Options
Cl
C2
C5
C6
Inulin is not broken due to beta anomerism at:Options
Cl
C2
C5
C6
415
Which of the following is not correct 1
Options
Parent carbohydrate which gives rise to other carbohydrates is Glycerol
Minimum number of carbons possible in a carbohydrate is 3
Minimum number of 'OH' group possible in a carbohydrate is 2
Minimum number of functional group possible in a carbohydrate is l 4
Dextrose is:
Options
D + glucose
. D - glucose
L + glucose
L - glucose
Which is correct!
Options
Racemic mixture contains both D and L
Racemic mixture contains both D and D
Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L
Number of isomers possible for glucose are:
Options
32
6416
Which of the following statement about Isomerism is NOT CORRECT
Options
Racemic mixture is equal D and L isomers present
Racemic mixture is optically inactive
Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L isomers into each other
Enantiomerism is also known as D and L-Isomerism
416
Parent alcohol in carbohydrates is:
Options
Glycerol
Ethanol
Methanol
Cholesterol
Which enzyme is deficient in Hunter's syndrome
Options
Liduronase
Glucokinase
Galactokinase
Iduronate sulfatase
The monosaccharide with maximum rate of absorption in intestine is
Options
Glucose
Galactose
Mannose
Fructose
Glucosamines used in following condition:Options
Arthritis
Niemann pick disease
Alzheimer's disease
Cancer
Heparin is a:
Options
Glycosa amino glycan (GAG)
Protein
Glycolipid
Polysaccharide
417
Which form of carbohydrate is present in Glycoprotein 1
Options
Monosaccharide
Disaccharide
Homo Polysaccharide
Hetero Polysaccharide
A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels very uncomfortable. His
stomach
becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhoea
frequently. These symptoms do not appear when he eats food other than dairy products.
Which of
the following is most likely enzyme in which this young man
is deficient:
Options
Alpha amylase
Beta galactosidase
Alpha glucosidase
Sucrase
Which test is given positive by Glyceraldehyde?Options
Benedicts test
Molisch test
Seliwanoff's test
Gerhard's test
Which of the following is branched:
Options
Starch
Cellulose
Heteropolysaccharide
All
Non-reducing disaccharide is
418
Options
Fructose
Sucrose
Maltose
Lactose
Sucrose is hydrolyzed by
Options
Saccharase
Surcose phosphorylase
Invertase
Amylase
Which is NOT a hexose sugar!
Options
Glucose
. GalactoseFructose
Ribose
Which of the following is a component of polysaccharide Chitin
Options
Ascorbic acid
Glucosarnine
Synovium
Glucoronic acid
Hyaluronic acid is a mucopolysaccharide present in
Options
Vitreous humor
Synovial fluid
Both
Dermis
Which disaccharide is NOT broken down in GIT'!
419
Options
Lactulose0
Maltose
Sucrose
Lactose
The rate of absorption of sugars by the small intestine is highest for
Options
Polysaccharides
Disaccharides
Hexoses
Pentoses
D-Xylose test is used in diagnosis ofOptions
Zinc deficiency
Malabsorption syndrome
Coeliac sprue
Bacterial overgrowth syndrome
Number of -OH groups in ribose '?
Options
62
Which of the following enzyme helps in catalyzing conversion of aldose sugars to ketose
sugars'?
Options
Oxidoreductase
Aldolase
Decarboxylase
Isomerase
Most common dietary fibre is
420
Options
Cellulose
Pectin
Starch
Proteoglyan
Cellulose is a:
Options
Fructose polymer
Non starch polysaccharideStarch polysaccharide
Glycosaminoglycan
Glycosaminoglycans present in cornea:
Options
Dermatan sulfate
Chondroitin Sulfate
. Hyaluronic acid
Keratan Sulfate
Excess of which of the following can result in cataract'
Options
Sugar alcohol
Glucose
Sugar amines
Galactose
All are functions of glycosaminoglycans except
Options
Anticoagulant
. Wound healing
Lubrication
Transport of lipids
Side chain linkage in proteoglycons
421
Options
Covalent
Hydrogen bond
Van-darWaal's force
Electrostatic bond
Identify the correct statement:Options
Glut-2 responsible for glucose and fructose absorption
Glucose is absorbed independent ofNa
Fructose requires sodium for absorption
SGLT-2 is specific for glucose
Defect in renal glucosuria
Options
GLUT
GLUT 2 c
SGLT I
SGLT 2
Secondary active Glucose transport occurs along with
Options
HC03
Na+
CI
K+
Glucose is transported in pancreas through which receptor
Options
GLUT
GLUT 2
GLUT 3
GLUT 4
GLUT-5 is transporter for
Options
422
Galactose
FructoseMannose
Glucose
Which of the following does not depend on insulin for glucose uptake
Options
Brain
Cardiac muscles
Sketetal muscles
Adipose tissue
Glucose transporter present in erythrocytes {RBCs}:-
Options
GLUT- I
GLUT- 2
GLUT-3
GLUT-4
GLUT responsible for secretion of insulin from beta cells of pancreas
Options
Mutation in GLUT-2 causes
Options
Menke's disease
Fanconi-Bickel syndrome
Beckwith syndrome
Dandy walker syndrome
Which out of the following is Insulin dependent'?Options
GLUT-I
423
GLUT-2
GLUT-3
GLUT-4
Which of the following is not correct'?
Options
Sodium dependent glucose transporter (SGLT) is unidirectional
SGLT-2 is in kidneys only for glucose transport , SGLT-I is in kidneys and intestine for glucose
and
galactose transport
This sodium-glucose symport carries 2 Na+ for each glucose
After an overnight fast, GLUTs are reduced in
Options
Brain
RBC
Kidney
Adipose Tissues
GLUT (glucose transporter) present in neurons is:
Options
. GLUT-I
GLUT-2
GLUT-3
GLUT-4
Which ofthe following are epimers:
Options
D-Galactose and D-Glucose
D-Galactose and L-GlucoseD-Mannose and L-Mannose
D-Mannose and L-Glucose
Which form of glucose and fructose is predominant '?
Options
424
A
Both
Variable
Which ofthe following is a keto sugar?
Options
Glucose
Sorbitol
Fructose
Sedoheptulose
Active uptake of glucose is inhibited by
Options
Insulin
Phlorizin
Indoacetate
Fluoride
All are true about glycosaminoglycans except:
Options
Protein associated with glycosaminoglycans is called core proteins
May be associated with connective tissues
Highly positively charged
Negatively charged
Hyaluronic acid is composed of:Options
Longest glycosaminoglycan
N-acetyl galactosamine
Has Glucuronic acid
N-acetylneuramic acid
In Benedict test, red colour is/are produced by:
Options
425
Sucrose
. Inositol
Fructose
Lactose
Mucopolysacchidosis, which is a lysosomal storage disease, occurs due to abnormality in:

Hydrolase
enzyme
Options
Hydrolase enzyme
Dehydorgenase enzyme
Lipase enzyme
Phosphatase
Danaparoid contains:
Options
Keratin sulphate
Chitin
Derma tan sulphate
Heparan sulphate
Reilly bodies are seen in?
Options
Bechet's disease
GangliosidosisGaucher's disease
Hurler disease
Which of the following has highest glycemic index
Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Fructose
Sorbitol
Which ofthe following test cannot be done for glucose estimation 1
Options
426
Glucose oxidase
Dextrostix
Nelson somogyi method
Which of the following carbohydrate test is used for assessment of liver function 1
Options
Galactose
Glucose
Sucrose
Fructose
A five year old boy with coarse facial features, mental retardation , dysostosis multiplex.
Corneal
clouding was not present. What is the diagnosis 1
Options
MPS Type IV
Hurler disease
Hunter disease
Gaucher's disease
Question (1/319)All of the following are major objectives of biochemistry, EXCEPT
Options
Structure and functions of biomolecules
Diagnostic testing of markers in practical medicine
Metabolic pathways of biomolecules
Development of specialized cells
What is the collective term for all of the chemical processes occurring within a cell?
Options
Metabolism
Catabolism
Anabolism
Oxidation
427
The main function of minerals in the human body is to
Options
Coenzymes of enzymes.
Excretion of non-soluble substances.
Transport substances into cells.
Store energy.
The METABOLICALLY most active organ in the body is the
Options
Pancreas
Spleen
Liver
Lungs
Which of the following represents the relationship between the terms anabolism (A),
catabolism (C)
and metabolism (M)?
Options
M= A-CC = A + M
A=C+M
M=A+C
Which of the following would be considered a part of metabolism?
Options
Biosynthetic pathways that build DNA
Catabolic pathways that break down complex carbohydrates
The capture of light energy for use in making glucose
All of the above
The sum of all chemical reactions that take place within an organism is known as
Options
Feedback
Dynamic equilibrium
Biological adaptation
428
Metabolism
Which of the following is an example of catabolic process?
Options
Proteogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogenesis
Lipogenesis
Catabolic process is
Options
Glycogenolysis
Lipogenesis
Gluconeogenesis
KetogenesisWhich one of the following is an example of anabolic process?
Options
Ketolysis
Glycogenesis
Glycolysis
Proteolysis
Regarding anabolic pathways
Options
Do not require the presence of enzymes
Do not have branches or interactions
Are often synthesis of complex compounds from smaller substances
Are often regulated by concentration of protons
Which one of the following statements regarding metabolic association is FALSE?
Options
Brain: fixation of toxic ammonia by glutamate
Muscles: creatine-P uses as primary sources of energy
Adrenal cortex: HMP shunt
429
Erythrocytes: ATP production by oxidative phosphorylation
The connecting link between HMP shunt and cholesterol synthesis is
Options
NADPH
Ribose-5-phosphate
Sedoheptulose-7-phosphate
Which one of the following compounds is transported in the blood in the free (unbound with
protein) form?
OptionsTriacylglycerides
Cholesterol
Glutamine
Fat-soluble vitamin
What element forms the skeleton of organic molecules?
Options
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
Carbon
Phosphorus
Which one of the following is amino acid?
Options
Acetic acid
Oleic acid
Aspartic acid
Ascorbic acid
Organ where pepsin hydrolyses proteins
Options
Pancreas
Liver
430
Gall bladder
Stomach
Which one of the following statements regarding metabolic association is true?
Options
Brain: ketogenesis
Muscles: gluconeogenesis
Erythrocytes: HMP shuntKidney: urea cycle
Each organism has unique combination of characteristics encoded in molecules of
Options
Vitamins.
Carbohydrates.
Lipids.
Proteins.
All of the following metabolic pathways take place in the liver EXCEPT
Options
Utilization of ketone bodies
Plasma proteins synthesis
Formation of urea
Synthesis de novo of nucleotides
Liver stores all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Iron
Folic acid
Vitamin D
Ascorbic acid
Liver degradates all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Proteins
Remnant LDL
431
Insulin
Creatinine
Liver synthesized all of the following substances EXCEPT
OptionsNucleotides
Urea
Ceruloplasmin
Immunoglobulins
Liver synthesizes all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Blood clotting factors.
Immunoglobulins.
Albumin.
Lipoproteins.
Liver synthesized all of the following lipids EXCEPT
Options
Fat
Cholesterol
Ketone bodies
Tocopherol
Liver synthesized all of the following substances EXCEPT?
Options
Cholesterol
Glucose
Starch
Complement
All of the following compounds can cross all membranes freely, EXCEPT
Options
Glucose.
Ketone bodies.
432
Oxygen.Carbon dioxide.
Specific transport proteins are required for translocation of all of the following substances
into the
cells or matrix of mitochondria EXCEPT
Options
Glucose
Fatty acids
Amino acids
Oxygen
Specific transport protein is required for translocation into the cells of
Options
Neutral amino acids
Beta-hydroxybutyric acid
Acetoacetic acid
Oxygen
What metal ion is specifically bound by vitamin B12?
Options
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
Iron
What metal ion is specifically bound by kinases?
Options
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
Magnesium
What metal ion is specifically bound by ceruloplasmin?
OptionsCobalt
Copper
433
Zinc
Iron
What metal ion is specifically bound by ferritin?
Options
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
Iron
What metal ion is specifically bound by superoxide dismutase (SOD)?
Options
Cobalt
Selenium
Zinc
Iron
Mature erythrocytes do not contain
Options
Glycolytic enzymes.
HMP shunt enzymes.
Carbonic anhydrase.
Nucleotide synthetic enzymes.
Entero-hepatic circulation all of the following compounds takes place, EXEPT:
Options
Urea
Bile acids
Bile saltsKetone bodies
Patients with anorexia nervosa, uncontrolled insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus,

hyperthyroidism
all will
Options
Have a high basic metabolic rate (BMR)
434
Experience weight loss
Suffer from malabsorption
Have a high insulin levels in the blood
The muscle fatigue occurs due to increase all of the following processes EXCEPT
Options
Hypoxia
Carbon monoxide intoxication
Ketolysis
Acetyl CoA is NOT needed for synthesis of
Options
Cholesterol.
Ketone bodies.
Pyruvate.
Citric acid.
Acetyl CoA is NOT used for the synthesis of
Options
Cholesterol
Citric acid
Acetoacetate
Urea
Mc Ardle’s disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
OptionsGlycogen
Collagen
Elastin
Galactose
Parkinson’s disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
435
Collagen
Dopamin
Galactose
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
Dopamin
Galactose
Hereditary orotic aciduria can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
Pyrimidines
Galactose
Refsume disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
Fatty acidFructose
Alkaptonuria can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Tyrosine
Collagen
Thiamine
Fructose
Alzheimer disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
436
Collagen
Dopamin
Protein
Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
Dopamin
Prion
Tangier disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Lipoprotein
Dopamin
Prion
Turai disease can be caused by a problem with the oxidation of
OptionsFatty acids
Glucose
Alcohol
Amino acids
Deficiency disease of Ca2+ and Pi is
Options
Anemia.
Cretinism
Rickets.
Edema
Amyloidosis is characteristic of
Options
Von Girke disease
437
Alzheimer disease
Refsume disease
Wilson disease
The minimum amount of energy necessary for a molecule(s) to react is the
Options
Activation energy
Free energy
Thermal energy
Potential energy
The main function of enzymes in the human body?
Options
Identify and destroy microbes
Regulate body function
Transport nutrients to cellsCatalyze all chemical reactions
Which of the following is NOT true about enzymes?
Options
Enzymes decrease the rate of a chemical reactions
Enzymes are proteins
Enzymes demonstrate specificity
Enzymes decrease the activation energy of a chemical reaction
Enzymes are sensitive to ?
Options
Pressure
Heat
Cell wall
Hexose sugar
Which of the following statement is true of enzyme catalysts?
Options
To be effective they must be present at the same concentration as their substrate
438
They lower the activation energy for conversion of substrate to product
Their catalytic activity is independent of pH
They can increase the equilibrium constant
Regarding of the mechanism of enzyme action is true ?
Options
To change the direction of reaction
To allow substrates to move more freely in solution
To change energy-requiring reactions into energy-releasing reactions
To lower the energy of the activation of a reaction
The molecule that is acted upon by an enzyme is a
OptionsReactant
Product
Substrate
Catalyst
The maximum activity of the most enzymes in organism is at the optimum temperature ?
Options
Between 60-100oC
Higher 50oC
Between 36-45oC
Higher 100oC
Which of these is an enzyme name?
Options
Urease
Lactose
Sucrose
Glycogenin
Hydrolyses catalyze?
Options
Splitting a molecules using water
439
Interconversion of isomers
Double bond formation
Hydration of substrates
Part of enzyme that interacts with a substrate is known as?
Options
Cofactor
Active site
Orientation siteCoenzyme
The area of an enzyme into which a substrate fits is called the
Options
Catalyst
Product
Active site
Activated complex
“Lock and key” model of enzyme action proposed by Fisher implies that
Options
The active site is flexible and adjusts to substrate
The active site requires removal of PO4 group
The active site is complementary in shape to that of the substrate
Substrates change conformation prior to active site interaction
What of the following is a coenzyme?
Options
Thiamine
Amylase
Lipase
Salt
The first step in the cycle of an enzyme is
Options
Substrate binds to enzyme
440
Products released
Substrate converted to product
Enzyme become free
What is the most common coenzyme molecules used to activate an enzyme?
OptionsHormones
Vitamins
Proteins
Minerals
Most of enzymes secreted in human gastro-intestinal tract are
Options
Transferases
Lyases
Hydrolases
Oxidoreductases
Enzyme catalyzing rearrangement of atomic grouping without altering molecular weight or

number
of atoms is
Options
Ligase
Isomerase
Oxidoreductase
Hydrolase
Zymogen or proenzyme is a
Options
Activator of enzyme
Vitamin derivative
Enzyme precursor
Hormone like factors
Zymogen is
Options
441
An intracellular enzyme
Cofactor of enzyme
An inactive enzymeInhibitor of enzyme
How is trypsinogen converted to trypsin?
Options
Two inactive trypsinogen dimmers pair to form an active trypsin tetramer
A protein kinase-catalyzed phosphorylation converts trypsinogen to trypsin
Enterokinase-catalyzed proteolysis converts trypsinogen to trypsin
Trypsinogen dimmers bind an allosteric modulator CAMP, causing dissociation into active
trypsin
monomers
Trypsinogen primary is activated by
Options
HCl
Enterokinase
HCO3-
Trypsin
In enzyme vitamin complex acts as
Options
Inhibitor
Zymogen
Cofactor
Isoenzyme
Trypsinogen is
Options
Pancreatic proenzyme
Growth factor
Pancreatic protease inhibitor
Intrinsic factor
Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?
442
OptionsEnd product
External factors
Enzyme
Substrate
Which one of the following statements, regarding enzyme classification is INNCORECT?
Options
Oxidoreductases are catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions
Ligases are catalyze the addition of NH3, CO2, H2O to substrate and requires energy
Hydrolases are catalyze cleavage C-C bonds
Kinases are catalyze the transfer of phosphate group from ATP to substrate
NAD+/NADH binds with the enzyme called
Options
Hydrolase
Kinase
Isomerase
Dehydrogenase
Most of the members of vitamin B complex act as
Options
Cofactor
Prosthetic group
External factor
Isoenzymes
Enzymes are classified by the
Options
Size of enzyme
Size of substrate
Rate of reactionType of reaction
The molecules that fits into the enzyme’s active site is the
Options
443
Codon
Vitamin
Substrate
Coenzyme
The model that explain that the active site is flexible and the catalytic group(s) of the
enzyme is(are)
brought into proper alignment by substrate is called
Options
Concepted mode
Induced fit model
Lock and key model
Sequential model
Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are:
Options
Transferases
Oxidases
Lysases
Peptidases
What do kinases do?
Options
Transfer of phosphoric group from ATP to substrates are
Transfer electrons from substrate to electron acceptor
Transfer H+ from one compartment to other
Transfer substrates across membrane
What do anaerobic dehydrogenases do?
OptionsTransfer of phosphoric group from ATP to substrates are
Transfer electrons and H+ from substrate to oxidant
Enzyme of which class catalyze the following process: Dolichylphosphate –D- mannose +
444
protein → → Dolichylphosphate + D-mannosylprotein
Options
Hydrolase
Transferase
Isomerase
Oxidase
The following is a substrate-specific enzyme:
Options
Hexokinase
Thiokinase
Lactase
Aminopeptidase
The following is not a substrate-specific enzyme:
Options
Glucokinase
Fructokinase
Hexokinase
Phospofructokinase
NADH would function as a cofactor for a Transferase Ligase Oxidoreductase Isomerase
Options
Transferase
Ligase
OxidoreductaseIsomerase
Which of the following is function of protein kinase (PKA)?
Options
Transport
Regulatory
Defense
Structural
445
All of the following factors will decrease the function of most enzymes EXCEPT
Options
Radiation
Temprature
PH
Osmotic pressure
Substrate concentration increases the rate of enzymatic reaction up to a certain point, but
has no
further effect and reaction rate level off. This is because
Options
Excess product is not released from the active site
Accumulation of end product shuts down the reaction
Excess substrate makes the enzymes change conformation
All the active sites are saturated with substrate
L-amino acids dehydrogenase is an enzyme that can catalyze the oxidation of different
L-amino
acids. It cannot catalyze the oxidation of D-amino acids or other
L-compounds. Based on these characteristics we can say that this enzyme shows
Options
Allosteric regulation
Relative specificity over substrate
Specificity of action
Specific inhibitionA small molecule that DECRESES the activity of an enzyme by binding to a
site other than the
catalytic site is termed a(n)
Options
Alternative inhibitor
Allosteric inhibitor
Stereospecific agent
Competitive inhibitor
A zymogen is
446
Options
Amylase
Trypsin
Pepsinogen
Lipase
A reaction catalyzed by a human enzyme was carried out at 200C. If there is an excess of
substrate,
which of the following would cause the greatest increase in
the rate of the reaction?
Options
Adding more enzyme and raising the temperature to 30C
Lowering the temperature to 100C
Adding more substrate and raising the temperature to 300C
Adding more enzyme and lowering the temperature to 100C
Optimum of pH for most of the human enzyme ranges from:
Options
0-2
02-Apr
04-Sep
> 10
Km value refers toOptions
Enzyme concentration
Substrate concentration
Product concentration
Effector concentration
Which one of the following is kinetic characteristic of enzyme?
Options
Optimum of pH
Optimum of temperature
Michaelis-Menthen constant (Km)
447
Concentration of enzyme
Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at
Options
½ Vmax
2 Vmax
¼ Vmax
4 Vmax
Elevated blood total transaminases (ALT/AST) 100 x ULN (upper limit normal) occur in
Options
Acute liver failure
Chronic renal disease
Crush muscles injury
A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme has which of the following properties?
Options
It is frequently a feedback inhibitor
It becomes covalently attached to an enzymeInterferes with substrate binding to the

enzyme
It causes irreversible inactivation of the enzyme
Cellular enzyme is
Options
Citrate synthase
Lipoprotein lipase
C3-convertase
Amylase
Blood enzyme is
Options
Protein kinase
C3-convertase
Hexokinase
448
Citrate synthase
NADPH-dependent enzyme is
Options
Methemoglobin reductase
Cytochrome oxidase
Pyruvate kinase
Pancreatic lipase
Isoenzymes are enzymes that characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Coded by the different gene
Localize in different tissue
Catalyze same reaction
Have same kinetic properties
These enzymes have different structure but same catalytic function. Frequently they are
oligomers
made from different polypeptides chains. These enzymes arecalled
Options
Allosteric enzymes
Isoenzymes
Lyases
Proenzymes
Structure that produces most of hydrolytic enzymes that are active in the small intestine
Options
Pancreas
Liver
Gall bladder
Stomach
Creatine phosphokinase localizes predominantly in
Options
Pancreas
449
Spleen
Kidney
Muscles
Coenzyme for transaminase is:
Options
FAD
NAD+
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B1
Alanine transaminase activity in plasma increases in acute
Options
Liver diseaseRenal failure
Hemorrhage
Pancreatitis
A 56-year-old man dies in an ambulance while on way to the hospital. His postmortem
chemistry
studies are remarkable for an elevation of the creatine
phosphokinnase isoenzyme CPK-BB. This laboratory finding would suggest acute damage of
which
organ?
Options
Brain
Lungs
Heart
Kidney
The patient was diagnosed with Wilson’s disease. To confirm the diagnosis it is necessary to
study
the activity of the following enzyme in blood
Options
α1- antitrypsin
Carbonic anhydrase
450
Alcohol dehydrogenase
Ferroxidase
chemistry
studies are remarkable for an elevation of the CPK-MB. This
laboratory finding would suggest acute damage of which organ?
Options
Brain
Lungs
Heart
Kidney
Mutations that affect the stability of enzymes are often found to affect RBCs more than
other cell
types. The best explanation for this fact is thatOptions
Hemoglobin causes instability of these enzymes
RBCs have leaky membrane
Most RBC’s enzymes are unique to RBCs
RBCs are unable to replace defective enzyme
A patient presents high activity LDH5, AST and ALT. In what organ is the development of a
pathological process the most probable?
Options
Heart
Kidney
Liver
Adrenal
Digestive enzyme is
Options
Lipoprotein lipase
Cytochrome oxidase
Protein kinase
451
Pancreatic amylase
Globular in shape protein is
Options
Elastin
Collagen
Myoglobin
Keratin
All of the following enzymes require for collagen synthesis EXCEPT
Options
Lysyl hydroxylase
Prolyl hydroxylaseLysyl oxidase
Protein kinase
Which one of the following statements regarding protein classification is correct?
Options
Myoglobin: fibrous protein
Myoglobin: globular proti
Elastin is conjugated protein
Elastin: chromoprotein
All of the following organs and tissues are rich by Elastin, EXCEPT
Options
Lung
Uterus
Aorta
Bone
Which of the following substances below is found in richest content in aorta, pereosteum,
ligaments,
and lungs?
Options
Elastin
Collagen
Keratin
452
Fibrin
The number of heme groups present in myoglobin:
Options
Which of the following vitamins required for formation of hydroxyproline?Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
Synthesis of collagen is impaired due to deficiency of
Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
The collagen defect present in scurvy is
Options
Decreased protein stability due to increased glycosylation
Decreased protein stability due to decreased hydroxylation of proline and lysine
Increased formation of imino-cross links
Increased number of glycine in the collagen sequence
In fibrous proteins polypeptide chains are held together by
Options
Hydrogen bonds
Disulfide bonds
Hydrophobic interaction
All of the above
The major protein presents in vessel’s wall
453
Options
Keratin
HemoglobinElastin
Albumin
One of the following is NOT about collagen
Options
Every third amino acid is glycine
Contain hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline
Structure is triple-helical
Soluble in water
Morfan syndrome is due to mutation affecting synthesis of
Options
Hemoglobin
Elastin
Microtubules
Peroxisomes
Morfan syndrome results in the molecular defect of
Options
Kinin
Fibrilin
Fibrinogen
Plasminogen
An important feature of Morfan’s syndrome is
Options
Skin hyperelasticity
Skin eruption
Hypoglycemia
Ectopic deposition of fat in the pancreas
Osteogenesis imperfecta is due to mutation affecting synthesis ofOptions
Hemoglobin
Microtubules
454
Collagen
Peroxisomes
Osteogenesis imperfecta is a group of hereditary disease due to abnormal
Options
Osteoblastic activity
Development of collagen type I
Osteoclastic activity
Development of glycosaminoglycans
Hemoglobin is example of
Options
Conjugated protein
Simple protein
Complex lipids
Oligossacharides
On which chromosome is located gene which coded hemoglobin β-chain synthesis?
Options
11
16
20
Carboxyhemoglobin is formed as result of its combination with
Options
CO
CO2HCO3-
HCN
Hemoglobin consists of:
Options
1 mole of heme + 2 moles of globin
455
In mature RBCs all of the following substances are dialyzable EXCEPT
Options
Hemoglobin
Chloride
Bisphosphoglycerate
Hydrocorbanate
Trivalent iron present in compound
Options
Carboxyhemoglobin
Fetal hemoglobin
Methemoglobin
Embrionic hemoglobin
Methemoglobin has
Options
Protonated globin
Ferric state iron
Protonated heme
Ferrous state iron
Methemoglobin isOptions
Oxydized (T-) form of hemoglobin
Reduced (R-) form of hemoglobin
Hemoglobin with oxidized iron (Fe3+)
Hemoglobin that is separated from heme
A toxic effect of methemoglobinemia is
Options
Fever
Vomiting
Cyanosis
Dehydration
High level of glycosylated HbA1 is seen in the blood of patient with
Options
456
Nephrotic syndrome
Diabettes mellitus
Cirrhosis of the liver
Pancreatic carcinoma
A 1-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because he is having difficulty

breathing
after drinking water that contains nitrate. He is cyanotic.
Blood drawn for laboratory studies is chocolate-colored. His hemoglobin most likely has
which of the
following properties?
Options
Increased binding of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
Increased proportion of Fe3+
Presence of Bart hemoglobin (β4)
Sickle cell mutation
Which one from the following factors inhibits binding of hemoglobin with oxygen?
OptionsIncreased body temperature
Chronic hypoxia
Anemia
Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following is correct about hemoglobin?
Options
Each molecule can carry one molecule of oxygen
Fetal type has more affinity for oxygen
Methemoglobin hs more affinity for oxygen
Heme is protein in nature
Which of the following statements about adult hemoglobin is TRUE?
Options
HbA is composed of two β- and two γ-subunits
Four subunits combine to form the primary structure of HbA
Each subunit of HbA contains one heme
HbA binds 1 mole of O2
457
Which of the following is NOT a part of normal hemoglobin?
Options
Vinyl group
Propionic acid
Ferric ion
Pyrrole ring
Heme-containing proteins are all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Hemoglobin
Ceruloplasmin
Cytochrome bMyoglobin
Which of the hemoglobin designations below best describes the relationship of subunits in
the
quaternary structure of adult hemoglobin?
Options
(α1-α2) – ( β2-β1)
(α1-α2-α3-α4)
(β1-β2-β3-α1)
(α1-β1) – (α2-β2)
Iron-containing protein is
Options
Ubiquinone (CoQ)
Cytochrome a3
Ceruloplasmin
Cytochrome b
Component of hemoglobin is ion of
Options
Iron
Copper
Magnesium
Potassium
458
Major component of deoxy-Hemoglobin is
Options
Pyruvate
2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate
Fructose-1,6 bisphosphate
Acetyl CoA
High concentration of 2,3BPG in RBCs leads
OptionsRupture of RBC membrane
Saturation of hemoglobin by oxygen
Denaturation of hemoglobin
Releasing of oxygen from hemoglobin
High concentration of CO2 in RBCs leads
Options
Rupture of RBC membrane
Precipitation of hemoglobin
Change of RBCs shape
High concentration of HCO3- in RBCs leads
Options
The high level of all of the following molecules decrease the affinity of hemoglobin to
oxygen,
EXCEPT
Options
2.3-Bisphosphoglycerate(2,3- BPG)
Hydrogen ions(H+)
Hydroxyl ions (OH-)
Carbon dioxide CO2
459
Oxygen binding to hemoglobin increases as the
Options
CO2 level is increased
2,3 BPG level is reduced
PH is reducedTemperature is increased
The characteristic red color of hemoglobin is due to
Options
β-globin
α-globin
Heme
2,3 BPG
Sickle cell anemia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Presence of Hb-S.
Increased osmotic fragility of RBCs.
Sickling of erythrocytes.
Increased half life of RBCs.
In HbS the position 6 glutamyl residue of the β-globin chain is replaced by
Options
Valine
Phenylalanine
Glutamate
Lysine
The FUNDAMENTAL CAUSE of sickle cell disease is a change in structure of:
Options
Hemoglobin
Leukocytes
Capillaries
Blood
Which of the following best explains why neonates with sickle cell disease do not have
symptoms at
460
birth?
OptionsMaternal erythrocytes protect neonatal erythrocytes against sickling
The spleen of the neonates effectively filter out the sickled cells
Maternal antibodies coat the neonatal cells and inhibit the sickling phenomen
The concentration of HbS is low but fetal hemohlobin HbF is high
Which one of the following inherited disorders is a quantitative abnormality of hemoglobin?
Options
Sickle cell anemia
Porphyries
Methemoglobinemia
Thalassemias0
Thalassemia is characterized by decreased production of
Options
Globin chains of hemoglobin
Intestinal chylomicrons
Liver glycogen
Arterial elastic membrabnes
Iron therapy (I.V.infusion) is ineffective in which of the following conditions:
Options
Chronic blood loss.
Thalassemia minor.
Hypochromic anemia.
Impaired absorption of iron.
One of the official medical measurement of anemia is
Options
Blood color
Body mass index
Count of RBC and hemoglobinBlood volume
Heterozygous sickle cell anemia gives protection against
Options
Thalassemia
461
Malaria
Hemolysis
Oxidative stress
Which one of the following statements about water soluble vitamins is FALSE?
Options
They are hydrophilic molecules
They are easily absorbed
They are toxic in overdose
They are excreted in urine
Vitamins are
Options
Produced in endocrine glands
Accessory food factors
Proteins in nature
Generally synthesized in the body
Excess intake of fat soluble vitamins is stored in which part of the body?
Options
Stomach
Adipose tissue
Duodenum
Gall bladder
Which one of the following incorporates into chylomicrons and transferred to the lymph
OptionsRetinol
Folic acid
Biotin
Thiamine
Prolonged deficiency of vitamin A can lead to
Options
Beri beri
Pellagra
Keratomalacia
462
Rickets
Continued intake of excessive amounts of vitamin A especially in children produces:
Options
Hemolytic anemia
Bleeding from GIT
Skin desquamation
Muscular dystrophy
Vitamin A helps
Options
Activity of enzymes.
Energy production.
Maintaining blood minerals level.
Visual cycle.
Which of these is a vitamin A precursor?
Options
Cobalamin.
Pyridoxine
Beta-Carotene.Thiamine.
Vitamin helps night vision and health skin is
Options
B12
Vitamin D helps
Options
The bones absorb the calcium they need
Blood clotting
The health of the skin
Protect the body from damage
Vitamin E have protective role against the following EXCEPT
463
Options
Oxidative stress
Atherosclerosis
Cardiac attack
Hypovolemia
Vitamin E protects against
Options
Hypersensitivity to sunlight
Blood clotting
Atherosclerosis
Decrease basal metabolic rate
Which vitamin is derived from cholesterol?
OptionsA
The following form of vitamin A is used in the visual cycle
Options
Retinol
Retinaldehyde
Retinoic acid
Retinyl palmitate
A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause night blindness?
Options
Vitamin A
Niacin
Vitamin D
Biotin
Which form of vitamin A has hormone-like properties?
Options
Retinol
464
Retinal
Retinoic acid
β-carotene
Retinol
Options
Can be formed from retinoic acid .
Is phosphorylated and dephosphorylated during the visual cycle .
Is the non-protein part of rhodopsin .Exists as an ester with higher fatty acids in the liver.
Which compound binds to protein in cell nucleus and regulates gene transcription?
Options
Retinoic acid.
α-tocopherol.
Linoleate.
Biotin.
Antirachitic vitamin is
Options
Vitamin K
Options
Plays an essential role in preventing thrombosis.
Therapy increases the coagulation time in newborn infants with hemorrhagic disease.
Is synthesized by intestinal bacterial flora.
Is a water-soluble vitamin
Vitamin C
Options
Is synthesized by intestinal bacterial flora .
Plays an essential role in synthesis of collagen and bone mineralization.
Is a fat-soluble vitamin .
465
The non-protein part of all reductases.
Vitamin E
OptionsPrevents the oxidation of various cell components by free radicals.
Plays important role in the post-translation modification of GLA-proteins.
Helps in the synthesis of glycogen from lactate.
Is required for visual cycle
Choline
Options
Is maintain plasma Ca2+.
Prevents accumulation of fat in the liver.
Is required for cholesterol synthesis.
Regulates the synthesis of blood clotting factor.
In calcitriol synthesis involves following organs/tissues
Options
Intestine – pancreas.
Skin – liver – kidney.
Adipose tissue – liver – kidney.
Muscles- adipose tissue.
Calcitriol acts on the bone (hypercalciemia) and activate
Options
Mineralization of osteoid.
Osteoclastic activity.
Resorption of bone .
Demineralization of bone.
Conversion of Vit D2 to Vit D3 (active form) take place in
Options
Intestine.
Adipose tissue.
Liver.Kidney.
To prevent rickets in a case of chronic renal disorders, which of the following substances
should be
466
administered?
Options
High dietary calcium.
Ergocholecalciferol .
25 (ОН) cholecalciferol .
1, 25(OH)2 - cholecalciferol .
Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of
Options
Infants due to protein energy malnutrition.
Infants due to vitamin K deficiency.
Adult due to vitamin D deficiency.
Adult due to protein malnutrition.
Synthesis of Ca2+-binding protein is activated by vitamin
Options
Which of the following are rich by PTH and vitamin D receptors?
Options
Osteocytes
Hepatocytes
Adipocytes
Myocytes
Renal rickets develops in child with deficiency of
Options1-α-hydroxylase.
7-α-hydroxylase.
17-α-hyroxylase.
21-α-hydroxylase.
1-α-hydroxylase is directly activated by
Options
467
Hypocalciemia.
Insulin.
Hyperphosphatemia .
Parathyroid hormone.
Deficiency of 1-α-hydrolase causes
Options
Osteomalacia.
Resistance rickets.
Beriberi.
Pellagra.
Which one of the following clinical abnormalities is recorded in dietary deficiency of vitamin
D?
Options
Scurvy.
Osteomalacia.
Xerophtalmia.
Weakness.
Some authors recommends that all newborns receive a single intramuscular dose of vitamin
K, since
vitamin K is a vitamin necessary for
Options
The prevention of oxidative damage.
Calcium and phosphate metabolism.
The vision process.The synthesis of clotting factors.
Vitamin K metabolic role is
Options
Component of membrane.
Cofactor of enzyme.
Detoxificator of xenobiotics.
Transporter of divalent ions.
A fat-soluble vitamin that regulates blood clotting is
Options
468
Vitamin A.
Vitamin K.
Vitamin C.
Niacin.
Which vitamin is required for carboxylation of clotting factors?
Options
Deficiency of vitamin K leads all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Decreases synthesis of liver’s prothrombin.
Decreases synthesis of bone’s osteopontin.
Increases time of blood coagulation.
Increases permeability of RBC’s membrane.
Vitamin E function in the body is
OptionsTo maintain vision and skin integrity, as well as growth of nails and bones.
As an antioxidant to prevent cell damage.
To calcify bones and teeth.
To supply energy and spare protein.
Antioxidant is
Options
Vitamin K.
Vitamin E.
Vitamin A.
Vitamin D.
Similarity of vitamin C and vitamin K is
Options
Fat soluble.
Water soluble.
469
Both are antioxidants.
Essential for visual cycle.
Calcitriol acts on the intestinal cells increases absorption of
Options
Fe2+.
Vit B12.
Ca2+.
Vit D.
Pantothenic acid is a constituent of the coenzyme involved in
Options
Dehydrogenation.
Decarboxylation.
Oxidation.Acetylation.
Which one of the following compounds can be synthesized in humans?
Options
Ascorbic acid.
Linoleic acid.
Riboflavin.
Niacin.
The symptoms of dietary deficiency of niacin (pellagra) will be less severe if the diet has a
high
content of
Options
Tryptophan.
Tyrosine.
Phenylalanine.
Pantotenic acid.
A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause pellagra?
Options
Vitamin C.
Niacin.
470
Vitamin D.
Biotin.
A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause scurvy?
Options
Vitamin C.
Niacin.
Vitamin D.
Biotin.
Vitamin B6 deficiency has been observed in humans during the treatment of tuberculosis
with high
doses of drugs:Options
Sulfonamide.
Isoinosid.
Phenobarbital.
Fluorineuracil.
Egg is rich in all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Cholesterol.
Calcium.
Fatty acids.
Ascorbic acid.
Which of these molecules is vitamin H?
Options
Biotin.
Carnitine.
Folic acid.
None of these.
Milk is a good source of all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Calcium and phosphorus.
Galactose.
471
Fat with medium chain fatty acids.
Vitamin B12.
Consumption of raw eggs cause deficiency of
Options
Biotin
RiboflavinThiamin
Ascorbic acid
Cobamide coenzyme is
Options
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B9
Vitamin B3
Vitamin folic acid (B9) is essential for synthesis of
Options
Amino acids.
Nucleotides.
Ribose-5-phosphate.
Ketone bodies.
Which vitamin is essential for formation of dTMP?
Options
Tocopherol.
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Thiamin.
Cholecalciferol.
Folic acid.
Folate as coenzyme is involved in the transfer and utilization of
Options
472
Amino group.
Hydroxyl group.
One carbon moiety.Sulfur group.
Megaloblastic anemia due to deficiency vitamin
Options
Tocopherol.
Biotin.
Thiamine.
Folic acid.
A population group that would be at increased risk of vitamin B12 deficiency
Options
Infants.
Pregnant women.
Strict vegetarians.
Athletic men.
Which vitamin is required for utilization of homocysteine & production of SAM (S-adenosyl
methyanine)?
Options
Thiamine.
Niacin.
Tetrahydrofolate.
Cyanocobalamin.
A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause Beriberi?
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Options
Vitamin C.
Thiamine.
Vitamin D.Biotin.
473
The disease pellagra is due to a deficiency of
Options
Vitamin B12.
Niacin.
Pantothenic acid.
Folic acid.
Pellagra occurs in population dependent on
Options
Maize
Rice
Milk
Meat
Magenta tongue is found in the deficiency of the vitamin
Options
Riboflavin
Nicotinic acid
Thiamin
Pyridoxine
Antioxidants are all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Vitamin E.
Vitamin C.
NADPH.
Thiamine-PP.
The vitamin required as coenzyme for the action of transaminases is
OptionsNiacin
Pyridoxal phosphate
Thimine pyrophosphate
Tetrahydrofolate
Transketolase activity testing is used for detection deficiency of
Options
474
Thiamine
Biotin
Niacin
Lipoic acid
Thiamine level is best monitored by:
Options
Transketolase level in RBC .
Thiamine level in blood .
Glucose-6-Phosphatase activity .
Reticulocytosis .
The vitamin used in the treatment of convulsion in alcoholism is
Options
Riboflavin.
Thiamine.
Folic acid.
Niacin.
The requirement of vitamin B1 is increased when energy metabolism is elevated. During

which one
of the following conditions requirements of vitamin B1 is
NOT increased?
Options
Fever.
Hyperthyroidism.Increased muscular activity.
Hypothyroidism.
Liver stores all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin B12
Vitamin C
Biochemical indication of vitamin В12 deficiency can be obtained by measuring the urinary
excretion
475
of
Options
Pyruvic acid
Lactic acid
Malic acid
Methyl malonic acid
The grows factor of intestinal bacteria is:
Options
Tetrahydrofolate
Coenzyme A
Lipoate
Vitamin D
Ascorbic acid is involved in which of the following types of reactions?
Options
Deamination.
Hydroxylation .
Oxidation-Reduction .
Carbo xylation.
Vitamin B6 involved in:Options
Lipid metabolism
Amino acids metabolism
Mineral metabolism
Carbohydrate metabolism
What is common reaction for folate and vitamin B12?
Options
Isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA.
Synthesis of the NAD+ and NADP+.
Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate.
Methionine synthesis.
Sulfa drugs are antimetabolites of
Options
476
Pyridoxine.
P-amino benzoic acid.
Pantothenic acid.
Riboflavin.
Methylmolonic aciduria is seen in a deficiency of vitamin
Options
B1
B4
B9
B12
Formaminoglutamate test (FIGLU) is used for detection
Options
Vitamin B12deficiency
Vitamin B9 deficiencyVitamin B3 deficiency
Vitamin B1 deficiency
Which one of the following diseases is due to vitamin deficiency?
Options
Pernicious anemia
Diabetes mellitus
Cystinuria
Which one of the following is NOT a function of any hormone?
Options
Affects membrane transport of substances
Regulates water balance in the body
Acts as a source of energy
Promotes transcription of messenger RNA
Which of the following statements relating to the properties of hormones is correct?
Options
A paracrine hormone exerts its action on the cell that secretes it.
Steroid hormones bind to intracellular/nuclear receptors.
477
All hormones enter the general circulation.
Peptide hormones are lipid-soluble.
Which of the following statements relating to the properties of hormones and hormone
actions is
NOT correct?
Options
Epinephrine travels in the blood in free form.
Peptide hormones travel in the blood in combination with carrier proteins.
Many anterior pituitary hormones are under feedback regulation.
A circadian rhythm is an hourly rhythm.
G-protein acts asOptions
Signal transducer.
Hormone carrier.
Second messenger.
Hormone inhibitor.
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The nucleotide (GDP)- binding site of G-protein is present on the
Options
α-subunit.
β–and γ- subunits.
γ-subunit.
α– and β- subunits.
Hormone that binds to intracellular receptor
Options
Thyroxine
Insulin
Follicule stimulating hormone (FSH)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Prolonged low level of plasma thyroid-binding globulin (TBG) leads
478
Options
Decrease plasma total thyroid hormones level.
Increased plasma total thyroid hormones level.
No effect on plasma total thyroid hormone level.
Increase the plasma thyroxin (T4) level only.
Which of the following recognizes the signal?
OptionsHormone
Receptor
Effector
Messenger
Receptors for insulin is localized in(on)
Options
Plasma membrane.
Intracellular matrix.
Interstitial space.
Nucleus.
Receptors for testosterone is localized in(on)
Options
Plasma membrane.
Interstitial space.
Golgi apparatus.
Adenylate cyclase cascade transduces
Options
CAMP
DAG & Ca2+
IP3
CGMP
Protein kinase is
Options
Activated by covalent binding of cAMP
479
Allosterically activated by cAMP
Competitively inhibited by cAMPNon-competitively inhibited by cAMP
Secretion of insulin is regulated by
Options
Hypothalamic releasing peptides.
Anterior pituitary hormones.
Positive feedback effect of plasma glucose.
Negative feedback effect of plasma insulin.
Insulin secretion inhibited by
Options
High level of blood glucose.
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Short-term rising of blood fatty acids.
Prolonged elevation of blood fatty acids.
High level of blood amino acids.
Target organ/tissue for insulin effect is
Options
Brain
Kidney
Adipose
Uterus
Correct statement about steroid hormones
Options
Activate adenylate cyclase.
Transducer of signals through second messengers.
Act as transcriptional factors.
Activate phosphorylation of enzymes.Which from the following statements regarding

G-proteins is CORRECT?
Options
480
Activated by the binding of an extracellular ligand to a membrane receptor.
Mediate the action of glucocorticoid hormone.
Bind to DNA to regulate gene expression.
Phosphorylate proteins.
PTH is involved in the regulation of
Options
Sodium and magnesium metabolism.
Carbohydrate metabolism.
Calcium and phosphorus metabolism.
Amino acids and lipids metabolism.
After 10-days starvation which compound in the tissues completely absent?
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Options
Protein
Lipids
Glycogen
Nucleic acid
Starvation leads activation of all of the following metabolic processes EXCEPT
Options
Proteolysis in muscles
Ketogenesis in the liver
Glycogenesis in the liver & muscles
Lipolysis in adipose tissue
Starvation leads all of the following EXCEPTOptions
Ketogenesis
Lipolysis
Proteolysis
Glycogenesis
481
During prolonged starvation the major source of blood glucose
Options
Hepatic glycogenolysis
Hepatic gluconeogenesis
Muscle glycogenolysis renal
Reabsorption of glucose
Regarding starvation
Options
Amino acids utilized for glucose production
Glucose transport into adipose tissue increased
Glycogen synthesis is activated
Lipogenesis is activated
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What is the major form of caloric storage in human body?
Options
Triacylglycerides
Glycogen
Protein
Cholesterol
In well-fed state
Options
Lipolysis is activated.Glucose synthesis is activated.
Glucose transport into adipose tissue is inhibited.
Glycogen synthesis is activated.
In fasting state
Options
Proteogenesis is activated.
Glucose synthesis is activated.
Lipogenesis is activated.
After fasting for 12 hours, a student consumes a large bag of pretzels. This meal will
482
Options
Replenish liver glycogen stores.
Increase the rate of gluconeogenesis.
Reduce the rate of lipogenesis.
Increase blood glucagon level.
When compared to his state after an overnight fast, a person who fasts for 2 week will have
Options
Higher levels of blood glucose
Less muscle protein
More adipose tissue
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Lower level of blood acetoacetate
Which one of the following is essential in the human diet
Options
Glutamate.
Tyrosine.Palmitic acid.
Lysine.
Milk is a good source of all of the following,
Options
Galactose.
Vitamin B12 .
The First Law of Thermodynamics implies that living organisms cannot create their own
energy but
can only convert one form of energy into another. What,
then, is the ULTIMATE source of energy for most living organisms?
Options
Chemical energy from the glucose molecule made by plants during photosynthesis
483
The chemical energy released by the numerous hydrolytic reactions in a cell
Light energy from the sun
ATP made in the mitochondria of both plants and animals
All the energy that passes along a food chain comes originally from:
Options
Oxygen
Air gases
Carbon dioxide
Solar light
Oxidation of organic compounds’ carbon skeleton is source of
Options
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Minerals & waterElectrolytes and bases
Organic polymers
Energy & ATPs
Excellent short term storage material for immediately providing of energy in the body is
Options
Fat
Nucleic acid
Glycogen
Protein
Which of the following is the major energy fuel for the brain?
Options
Acetaldehyde
Glycine
Glucose
Cholesterol
Excellent long term storage material for immediately providing of energy in the body is
484
Options
Fat
Nucleic acid
Glycogen
Protein
High concentration of oxygen radicals in RBCs leads the oxidation all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Lipids of membrane
Iron (Fe2+)
Hemoglobin
Ketone bodiesAll of the following nutrients provide energy EXCEPT
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Options
Minerals
Proteins
Fats
Carbohydrates
In the normal adult, the fuel store that contains the fewest calories is
Options
Adipose tracylglycerides
Liver glycogen
Muscle glycogen
Muscle protein
The major carrier of chemical energy in all cells is
Options
Adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP)
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
485
Inorganic phosphate (Pi)
For this cells fatty acids are NOT a fuel source at any time
Options
Myocytes
Enterocytes
Hepatocytes
Astrocytes
The active organ that utilizes predominantly fatty acids for energy production isOptions
Pancreas
Liver
Heart
Brain
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Final common oxidative pathway which integrates oxidation of fat, proteins and
carbohydrate is also
known as
Options
Citric acid cycle.
Urea cycle.
Cori cycle.
Myester cycle.
Acetyl CoA is a product of all of the following molecules oxidation EXCEPT
Options
Pyruvate.
Aldosterone.
Acetoacetate.
Alanine.
The common intermediate of carbohydrate, amino acids & fatty acids carbon skeleton
oxidation is
486
Options
Acetyl CoA.
Ammonia.
Glycerol.
Ethanol.
Synthesis of which compound is stimulated in the liver of a patient exhausted by

starvation?Options
Protein
Glucose
Lipids
Glycogen
The most rapid method of ATP formation during intensive exercise is through
Options
Breakdown of creatine-phosphate (PC-ATP system).
Oxidation of glucose to lactate (anaerobic system).
Breakdown of glycogen (aerobic system).
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Cyclization of creatine-phosphate to creatinine.
Mitochondria has all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Membrane-bound electron transport chain.
ATP-synthase.
Enzymes of glycolysis.
Mitochondrial DNA.
Energy-releasing pathway is
Options
Lipogenesis.
Glycogenesis.
Glyconeogenesis.
Ketolysis
Major sources for ATP synthesis in the cells are reactions of
487
Options
Reduction of carbonic acids.Oxidation of carbon skeleton .
Transamination.
Deamination.
Which of the following is NOT a part of ATP?
Options
Ribose
Adenosine
Phosphate
Methylene
Which one of the following organs can metabolize glucose, fatty acids, and ketone bodies for
ATP
production?
Options
Liver
RBCs
Muscle
Brain
Organ where glucose only uses for energy production is
Options
Pancreas.
Brain.
Muscles.
Liver.
All of the following vitamins is required for full intracellular glucose oxidation, EXCEPT
Options
Ascorbic acid .
Pantothenic acid.
Thiamine.
Niacin.The catabolism of glucose and fatty acids is similar because
Options
488
Both of these compounds are funneled through the TCA cycle.
Both of these compounds generate redox energy during catabolism.
Both of these compounds generate chemical energy during catabolism.
All of the above.
The maximum energy per gram on oxidization is yielded from
Options
Fat
Alcohol
Protein
Starch
FAD is reduced to FADH2 during
Options
Electron transport phosphorylation.
Lactate fermentation.
Krebs cycle.
Glycolysis.
What is the next step after glycolysis in aerobic condition?
Options
Pyruvate is oxidized to AcetylcoA.
FADH2 is produced.
Fermentation.
Oxidative phosphorylation.
In what form does the product of glycolysis enter the TCA cycle?
Options
AcetylCoAPyruvate
NADH
Glucose
The enzymes of the TCA cycle in a eukaryotic cell are located in the
Options
Mitochondria
Plasma membrane
489
Lysosomal bodies
Nucleous
Citric acid cycle occurs in
Options
Cytoplasm
Mitochondria
Golgi bodies
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Why is the TCA cycle the central pathway of metabolism of the cell?
Options
It occurs in the center of the cell.
Its intermediates are commonly used by other metabolic reactions.
All other metabolic pathways depend upon it.
None of the above.
The oxidation of Acetyl CoA by the citric acid cycle plays a major role in providing energy in
each of
the following tissues EXCEPT
Options
Muscle
Brain
LiverRed blood cells
Which one of the following is NOT the intermediate of Kreb's cycle?
Options
Isocitrate.
Succinate.
Fumarate.
Stearate.
Substrate - level phosphorylation in citric acid cycle is seen in the conversion of
Options
Oxaloacetate to citrate.
490
Succinyl CoA to succinate .
Fumarate to malate .
Succinate to fumarate .
Which of the following releases most energy when completely oxidized in the body?
Options
10grams of glucose
10 grams of palmitic acid
10 grams of alcohol
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10 grams of leucine
How many ATPs are produced by the complete oxidation of 1 mole of Acetyl CoA in TCA
cycle?
Options
12
24
36All of the following statements are true, EXCEPT
Options
The citric acid cycle is amphibolic in nature.
The citric acid cycle is major transporter of glucose into mitochondria.
The citric acid cycle is stopped when level of Acetyl CoA increases.
NADH is formed during oxidation of Acetyl CoA in citric acid cycle.
Which of the following statement is true about TCA cycle?
Options
It requires coenzyme biotin, FAD, NAD and coenzyme A.
Three NADH are produced per turn.
It participates in the synthesis of ketone bodies.
Enzymes are located in cytosol.
Question (1/309)
491
Options
Pyruvate
Aldosterone
Acetoacetate
Alanine
In eukaryotes fatty acid oxidation occurs in
Options
Mitochondrial matrix.
Cytosol.
Cell membrane.
Endoplasmic reticulum.
The flow of which of the following into mitochondrial matrix provides the chemiosmotic
energy for
the synthesis of ATP?
OptionsInorganic phosphate.
Electrons.
Protons.
ADP.
Energy-requirement pathway
Options
Krebs cycle
Glycogenesis
HMP shunt
How many moles of ATPs are produced by oxidative phosphorylation from one mole of
NADH?
Options
Zero
During cellular respiration, most of the ATP made, is generated by
492
Options
Photophosphorylation
Glycolysis
Substrate-level phosphorylation
In cardiomyocytes deprived of oxygen during myocardial infarction
Options
The citric acid cycle will accelerate
The mitochondrial proton pumps slows down
ETC will accelerate
Anaerobic glycolyss will decreaseWhich one is NOT the main protein in electron transport
chain?
Options
NADH dehydrogenase
Cytochrome bc1 complex
Cytochrome oxidase
Citrate synthase
Select the molecule that contains the LEAST stored chemical energy in cells
Options
Oxygen
Lactate
Glucose
Glucose-6-phosphate
Higher rate of ATPs production is seen in
Options
Heart
Erythrocytes
Cornea
Spleen
Most of metabolic pathways are either anabolic (synthetic) or catabolic (degradation).

Which one of
the following pathways is considered as “amphibolic” in
493
nature?
Options
Glycogenesis
Lipolysis
Rapoport-Leubering shunt
Citric acid cycle
The energy of electron transfer from NADH and FADH2 is efficiently converted in what form?
OptionsProton gradient
Glycogen
Osmotic gradient
Glucose
Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages of the aerobic respiration of glucose?
Options
Hydrolysis
Electron Transport Chain
Krebs cycle
Glycolysis
Energy status is control the cellular rate of
Options
Glycolysis
Citric acid cycle
All of the above
Which one of the following vitamins is NOT a component of electron transport chain?
Options
Nicotinamide
Ubiquinone
Biotin
Riboflavin
The final electron acceptor in the electron transport system is
Options
494
Coenzyme Q.
Coenzyme A.Oxygen.
ATP- synthase.
Electron transport chain oxidize
Options
NADH
NADPH
THF (tetrahydrofolate)
H4B (tetrahydrobyopterin)
Electron transport chain is involved in transport of electrons from to
Options
Acetyl CoA / NADH
NADH/oxygen
FADH2/proton
NADH/FAD
Which one of the following products of citric acid cycle removes through respiratory system?
Options
Carbon dioxide0
Acetone
Acetyl CoA
Water
Products of ETC working are
Options
Acetyl CoA, CO2, ATP
ATP, NADH
H2O, NAD+, FAD
ATP, H2O2, FADH2
Patient with inherited defect of mitochondria involving components of electron transport

chain and
oxidative phosphorylation present with all EXCEPTOptions
Myopathy
495
Encephalopathy
Fatty liver
Lactic acidosis
Wasting syndrome may seen in patients suffering from all EXCEPT
Options
Hyperthyroidism
Multiple myeloma
Malnutrition
High caloric intake
All of the following statements about NAD+ & FAD are correct, EXCEPT
Options
They are vitamin derivatives.
They are transport system for oxygen radicals.
They contain nucleotides.
They are transport system for protons and electrons.
All of the following are electron carriers in Electron Transport Chain, EXCEPT
Options
Cytochromes.
Coenzyme Q.
NADPH.
NADH.
A postoperative patient on intravenous fluids develops angular stomatitis. Urinalysis

indicates an
excretion of 15 μg riboflavin/mg creatinine (Normal > 30 μg
riboflavin/mg creatinine). Which of the following TCA enzymes is most likely to be affected?
Options
α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenaseCitrate synthase
Fumarase
After excessive drinking over a prolonged time with eating poorly, a 45-year-old man is
admitted to
the hospital with heart failure. Which of the following
496
enzymes of TCA cycle is most likely affected?
Options
Aconitase
Citrate synthase
α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
What are final products of Acetyl CoA oxidation in mitochondrion?
Options
Hydrogen & oxygen
Carbon & water
Carbon dioxide & protons
Carbon monoxide & hydrogen
For formation of ATP in mitochondrion requires all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Catalatyc β-subunit of ATP-ase.
Low proton motive force.
Rotation of γ-subunit of AT-ase.
ADP & Pi.
Reduced particle is
Options
NADH.
FAD.
Oxygen.Proton (H+).
Antimycin A blocks ETC between cytochrome b and cytochrome c1. Which one of the
following
would be NOT found in oxidized form?
Options
FAD
NAD
Cyt a3
CoQ
497
Energy released from the oxidation of glucose is stored in
Options
ATP only
ATP and NADH
NADH only
NADPH only
Mitochondrial ATPs are formed by a process known as
Options
Glycolysis.
Chemiosmosis.
Krebs cycle.
Dephosphorylation.
Oxidative phosphorylation is
Options
Generation of ATPs.
Utilization of heat.
Generation of NADH.
Utilization of ATPs.
During oxidative phosphorylation the proton motive force that is generated by electron
transport is
used toOptions
Create a pore in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
Activate ATP synthase.
Reduce oxygen to water.
Induce a conformational change of ETC.
Oxidation of which substances in the erythrocytes leads synthesis of ATP?
Options
Glucose-6-P
Acetyl CoA
Iron
NADH
498
Riboflavin is a part of the structure of which of the following?
Options
FAD
NAD+
CoA
ATP
In heart cells deprived of oxygen during a myocardial infarction
Options
The TCA will accelerate to provide more electrons for ATP synthesis.
The ETC will accelerate to provide more protons for ATP synthesis.
The mitochondrial proton pumps slows down, preventing ATP synthesis.
Anaerobic glycolysis will decrease and conversion of glucose to CO2 will increase.
Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is formed by the addition of water to
fumarate?
Options
Succinate
Malateα-Ketoglutarate
Citrate
Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is converted to its isomer by the enzyme
aconitase
Options
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
Citrate
Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is an intermediate in the conversion of

citrate to
Succinyl CoA?
Options
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
499
Citrate
Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is generated in the reaction that produces
GTP?
Options
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
Citrate
NADH is required for the one-step reaction by which pyruvate is converted to
Options
Lactate.
Acetyl CoA.
Phosphoenolpyruvate.
Succinyl CoA.
A disaccharide linked by α(1→4) glycosidic bond isOptions
Lactose.
Sucrose.
Cellulose.
Maltose.
Storage polysaccharide made by animals is
Options
Amylopectin
Glycogen
Cellulose
Collagen
Which of the following is NOT a disaccharide?
Options
Pectin
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose
500
A high ratio of insulin to glucagon can
Options
Promote ketogenesis
Occurring in starvation
Promote glycogenolysis
Promote glycogenesis
Hexokinase activity is inhibited by
Options
Glucose 6- phosphate
Fatty acidsCitric acid
Water overload
Monosaccharide is
Options
Ribose
Acetyl CoA
Acetoacetate
Glycerol
Which of the statement best characterize glucose?
Options
It usually exists in furanose form
It is a ketose
It is an unit of glycogen and starch
It is oxidized to sorbitol
Starch and glycogen are polymers of
Options
α-D-Galactose
β-D-Fructose
α-D-Glucose
β-D-Ribose
Which one of the following contains glycosidic bond?
Options
501
Lactose
Glucose
Fat
Alanine
Which one of the following enzymes is digestive enzyme of carbohydrates?Options
Aconitase
Arginase
Amylase
Aldolase
Which of the following carbohydrates would be most abundant in the diet of strict
vegetarians?
Options
Cellulose
Glycogen
Lactase
Sucrose
Iodine test is positive for
Options
Glucose.
Glycogen.
Protein.
Cholesterol.
Humans are unable to digest
Options
Starch
Complex carbohydrates
Denatured proteins
Cellulose
Hydrolysis of lactose yields
Options
Galactose and fructose
502
Galactose and glucoseGlucose and fructose
Fructose and galactose
Two major products of HMP pathway are
Options
NADPH and ribose 5-phosphate
FADH2 and glucose 6-phosphate
FAD and CoA
Erythrose and sederoheptulose
A catabolic intermediate which stimulates phosphofructokinase would stimulate
Options
Gluconeogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogen synthesis
Glycogen breakdown
Which one from the following transporters for glucose is involved in it reabsorption from
lumen into
tubular cells?
Options
SGLT-1
GLUT-1
SGLT-2
GLUT-4
Which one of the following glucose transporter is insulin-dependent?
Options
SGLT-1
GLUT-1
SGLT-2
GLUT-4
Pancreatic amylase breaks downOptions
β (1→4) glycosidic bond
α (1→6) glycosidic bond
503
Intestinal isomaltase breaks down
Options
Intestinal sucrase breaks down
Options
Intestinal lactase breaks down
Options
All of the following factors stimulate insulin secretion, EXCEPT
Options
Increase blood glucose level.
Increase intracellular Ca2+ -ions.Paracrine effect of glucagon.
Decrease intracellular pH.
Vitamin thiamine (B1) is essential for metabolism of
Options
Lipids
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Amino acids
504
Which one from the following statements is describing glycolysis correctly?
Options
Occurs in the mitochondria
Requires presence of oxygen
Cytoplasmic energy-releasing pathway
Produces NADH and Acetyl CoA
In mammalian cells during anaerobic condition increase level of
Options
Lactate
Pyruvate
Acetyl CoA
Glucose
Transport of glucose into cells may requires all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Transport carrier protein
Insulin
Osmotic gradient
ATP
Active transport of glucose into cells requires all of the following, EXCEPTOptions
ATP
Na+ ions
Osmotic gradient
Cramps are caused by heavy exercise resulting in the accumulation of
Options
Lactate
Ethanol
Heat
Carbon dioxide
Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction of ATP formation by substrate
level
505
phosphorylation?
Options
Aldolase A
Pyruvate kinase
Hexokinase
This organ converts lactate from muscle to a fuel for other tissue
Options
Liver
Brain
Skeletal muscle
Red blood cells
Lactic acid is produced by human RBCs because of lack of
Options
Oxygen
MitochondrionsGlucose
ADP and Pi
Each of the following metabolites provides carbon for glucose synthesis by the process of
gluconeogenesis EXCEPT
Options
Amino acids from muscle protein
Glycerol from adipose fat
Even-chain fatty acids from adipose fat
In RBCs a pyruvate kinase deficiency would be expected to increase
Options
The life span of the cells
ATP production
The NADH/NAD+ ratio
Lysis of the cells
In RBCs how many net molecules of ATP are generated when one molecule of glucose is
oxidized?
506
Options
12
24
Which one of the following pathways takes place in the RBCs for energy production?
Options
Aerobic glycolysis
β-oxidation of fatty acids
Gluconeogenesis
Muscle glycogen is not available for maintenance of blood glucose level because:Options
Muscle lacks glucose-6-phosphatase activity.
There is insufficient glycogen in muscle
Muscle lacks glucose transporter GLUT-4.
Muscle lacks glucagon receptors.
Muscle glycogen will NOT serve as a precursor of blood glucose due to absence of
20/68
Options
Glycogen phosphorylase.
Receptor for glucagon.
Glucose-6-phosphatase.
Receptor for insulin.
During a myocardial infarction the oxygen to an area of the heart is dramatically reduced,
forcing the
cardiac myocytes to switch to anaerobic metabolism.
Under this condition, which of the following enzyme would be activated by increasing
intracellular
cAMP?
Options
Phosphofructokinase-1
507
ATP- synthase
The primary metabolic fate of lactate released from muscle into blood during intense
exercise is:
Options
Excretion of lactate in urine.
Transported to liver for gluconeogenesis.
Degradation by lactase.
Reuptake by muscle for conversion to pyruvate.
All of the following can lead intracellular lactic acidosis, EXCEPTOptions
Intracellular hypoxia.
Pyruvate kinase deficiency.
Thiamine deficiency.
Poisoning by heavy metal ions.
Synthesis of 2,3-biphosphoglycerate occurs in
Options
Liver.
Kidney.
Erythrocytes.
Brain.
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2,3-bisphosphoglycerate is:
Options
A high energy substrate
Involved in substrate level phosphorylation
An intermediate in pentose phosphate pathway
An allosteric effector that decreases affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen
Glucose can synthesize from which amino acid?
Options
508
Histidine
Proline
Tyrosine
Alanine
Glucose cannot be synthesized from
OptionsGlycerol
Lactate
Amino acids
Fatty acids
The negative allosteric effector for pyruvate dehydrogenase is
Options
Acetyl CoA
Isocitrate
Oxaloacetate
Fumarate
Acetyl CoA synthesis from pyruvate requires all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
NAD+
PDH complex
Coenzyme A
Oxygen
Insulin-stimulatory process is
Options
Glycogenolysis.
Ketogenesis.
Gluconeogenesis.
Glycogenesis.
Glycolysis is the name given to the pathway involving the conversion of
Options
Glycogen to glucose-6-phosphate.
Glycogen or glucose to fructose.
509
Glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or lactate.Glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or Acetyl CoA.
20 mol glucose → X mol pyruvate X in above equation equal
Options
10
20
40
60
Glycolysis is activated by increasing level of cytoplasmic
Options
Citrate
Protons (H+)
NADH
Fructose-2,6-BP
Glycolysis is anaerobic in
Options
Renal medullar part
Renal cortical part
Neurons
Liver
Carbon dioxide (CO2) is added to pyruvate to make
Options
Butyric acid
Lactic acid
Acetyl CoA
Oxaloacetic acid
What is enzyme of citric acid cycle?
OptionsPyruvate kinase
Fumarase
Arginase
Carbomoyl phosphate
Pyruvate → Oxaloacetate is reaction of
510
Options
Ketogenesis.
Glycolysis.
Gluconeogenesis.
Kreb’s cycle.
Which of the following vitamins does not participate in the oxidative decarboxylation of
pyruvate to
Acetyl-CoA?
Options
Thiamine
Niacin
Biotin
Riboflavin
Following are substances for gluconeogenesis, EXCEPT
Options
Glycerol.
Adenine.
Alanine.
Lactate.
Endogenous glucose synthesis increases in the persons with all of the following
endocrinopathy,
EXCEPT
Options
Thyroxin excess (hyperthyroidism).
Cortisol excess (Cushing syndrome/disease).Glucagon excess (glucagonoma).
Insulin excess (insulinoma).
Which compound in the tissues completely absent after 10 days of starvation?
Options
Protein
Lipids
Glycogen
Nucleic acid
511
Synthesis of endogenous glucose stimulated by
Options
Well-fed.
Starvation.
Alcohol.
Carbohydrate-rich diet.
Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydrogenase deficient patient can develop
Options
Liver cirrhosis.
Hemolytic crisis.
Renal failure.
Decrease bone density.
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HMP shunt in RBCs is major sources of components of
Options
Membrane
Antioxidant system
Transport systemHemoglobin
Which of the following is NOT a function of NADPH?
Options
Energetic
Biosynthetic
Antioxidantic
Phagocytic
Enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogense is required for the synthesis of
Options
Glycogen
Nucleotides
512
Ribose-5-phosphate
Triacylglycerides
The glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency causes hemolytic anemia due to lack of
Options
ATP
Pentose
Iron
NADPH
A 4-year-old-girl has been unable to eat for 2 days, because of GIT disorder. Which of the
following is
the NOT major source of energy for her skeletal muscles
after 2 days?
Options
Muscle glycogen
Serum fatty acids
Serum glucose
Muscle triacylglycerideA person who accidentally ingested a compound that completely

inhibited fructose-1,6-
bisphosphatase could still form substantial amounts of blood glucose
from
Options
Muscle glycogen stores
Lactate produced by red blood cells
Ingested galactose
Ingested fructose
A person who accidentally ingested a compound that completely inhibited

phosphoenolpyruvate
carboxykinase could still form substantial amounts of blood
glucose from
Options
513
Ingested galactose
Ingested fructose and galactose
Insulin resistance can lead all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Hyperglycemia.
Decrease uptake of glucose by muscles.
Hypoketonic hypoglycemia.
Glucosuria.
Which one of the following tissues can clear lactic acid by own mechanism?
Options
Brain
RBCs
Cornea
KidneyAccumulation of lactic acid inside the cells can lead all of the following, EXCEPT
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Options
Denaturation of intrcellular proteins.
Decrease pH.
Decrease activity of some enzymes.
Dissolve intracellular cholesterol.
After overnight fasting level of glucose transporters are reduced in
Options
Brain.
Liver.
Adipose tissue.
Erythrocytes.
During overload of some tissues by glucose, glucose is converted to
Options
514
Glucuronic acid.
Sorbitol.
Gluconic acid.
Ethanol.
Lack of liver glycogen phosphorylase would lead all following symptoms EXCEPT
Options
Stable hypoglycemia
Wasting syndrome
Chronic hyperglycemia
Hepatomegaly
All of the following are examples of glycogenosis, EXCEPTOptions
Cori’s disease
Pomp’s disease
Her’s disease
Wilson disease
Which one of the following requires for glycogenesis?
Options
Mitochondrion
Debranching enzymes
UDP-glucose
Gucagon
Glycogen is short-term storage form of
Options
Glycerol.
Glucose.
Glyceraldehyde.
Glucuronate.
Which one of the following hormones stimulates liver gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis and
lipolysis?
Options
Insulin
515
Calcitonin
Glucagon
Cortisol
The presence of ketonemia is associated with which endocrine disorder?
Options
Thyrotoxicosis (excess TH)
Diabetes mellitus I (abs.insulin)Acromegaly (incr.GH)
Addison disease (decr.cortisol)
The accumulation of this specific compound in the lens produces cataract in diabetic patient.
This
compound is
Options
Glucose.
Fructose.
Galactose.
Sorbitol.
When excess amount of carbohydrates or proteins consumed they are stored in the body as
Options
Triacylglycerides.
Glucose.
Glycogen.
Protein.
Both Fructose and Galactose are phosphorylated by specific kinases in liver at position
Options
C1
C2
C4
C6
Food L-glucose does NOT give energy because
Options
It cannot be digested.
516
It cannot be absorbed.
Glucokinase is specific for D-glucose only.
It is fermentated by colon bacteria.
Which is NOT a function of the main products of the pentose phosphate pathway?Options
To provide reducing power for the synthesis of fatty acids
To maintain the reduced form of iron in hemoglobin
To serve as precursors in the biosynthesis of RNA and DNA
To raises the concentration of cAMP
Arsenic ions inhibit all, EXCEPT
Options
Lipoic acid
Aldolase
Each of the following metabolites provides carbon skeleton for glucose synthesis, EXCEPT
Options
Even-chain fatty acid from remnant chylomicrons.
Glycerol from adipose triacylglycerides.
Lactate from muscles and RBCs.
Alanine from muscle protein.
All of the following carbohydrate metabolic pathways occur in the liver EXCEPT
Options
Maintenance of blood glucose
Glycogen synthesis & its storage
Gluconeogenesis
Insulin-dependent uptake of glucose
Gluconeogenesis is conversion of
Options
N Glucose 1-P → Glycogen
Glycerol → GlucoseGalactose-1-P →Glucose-1-P
Glucose → Glucose-6-P
517
Which of the following is NOT needed for glycogen synthesis?
Options
Glucose-1-phosphate
Branching enzymes
Which one of the following metabolites is connected between gluconeogenesis and

glycolysis?
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Options
Alanine
Pyruvate
Fumarate
Malate
Which one of the following products accumulates in the cells if major Leloir pathway of
galactose
catabolism is blocked?
Options
Fructose
Galactitol
Lactose
Glucose
Galactosemia is due to deficiency of all enzymes, EXCEPT
Options
Galaktokinase.
Phosphoglucomutase.Galactose-1-P-Uridyltransferase.
UDP-galactose epimerase.
Galactosemic baby can develop hypoglycemia due to all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
518
Stimulation of insulin secretion by galactose.
Blockage of gluconeogenesis by galactose.
Accumulation of galactitol.
Osmotic injury of hepatocytes.
Precursor for glycogen synthesis is
Options
Galactose-1-P.
Glucose-1-P.
Glycerol.
Glucagon.
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Gluconeogenesis is increased in
Options
In well fed state
Hyperinsulinism
Diabetes mellitus
Hyperparathyroidism
Key regulatory enzyme of glycogenesis is
Options
UDP-Glucose phosphorylase.
Glycogen synthase.Amylo α(1-4): α(1-6) glucotransferase.
Hormone that activates synthesis of glycogen in the liver is
Options
Cortisol
Glucagon
Insulin
Epinephrine
519
Amylo α(1-6) glucosidase is located in
Options
Lysosomes.
Proteosomes.
Mitochondria.
Cytoplasm.
Glycogen is polymer of
Options
Glucose only.
Galactose only.
Glucose and fructose.
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Pectin.
Core of glycogen granules is composed from
Options
Protein rich by tyrosine.
Protein rich by glutamic acid.
Lipid-like material.
Steroid-ring components.
Primary role of muscle glycogen is to supply glucose to:Options
Synthesize lactose
Plasma for regulation of insulin level
Formation of energy needs for muscle contraction
Plasma for maintain brain energy during starvation
Increased level of Glucose-6-phosphate in the hepatocytes inhibits and activates
Options
Glycolysis/ Gluconeogenesis
Glycolysis/ Glycogenesis
Glycogenesis/ Gluconeogenesis
Glycogenolysis/Glycolysis
During night sleeping in the liver of human more higher activity of
520
Options
Glycogen synthase
Pyruvate carboxylase.
Pyruvate dehydrogenase.
Person can develop hypoglycemic crisis after prolonged consumption of alcoholic drinking.
This can
be explained by
Options
Increased glycogenesis.
Increased gluconeogenesis
Decreased gluconeogenesis.
Decreased glycogenlysis.
Which enzyme is deficient in the liver in cases of hereditary fructose intolerance?
Options
Hexokinase
Aldolase BGlucokinase
Phosphofructokinase
Cori's, McArdle's, von Gierke's and Andersen's diseases are all examples of:
Options
Glycogenolysis.
Gluconeogenesis.
Glycogenosis.
Glycogenesis.
Glucose in the glycogen is held by
Options
Hydrogen bonds
Coordinate bonds
Ionic bonds
Glycosidic bonds
Ketogenesis and gluconeogenesis are activated when level of mitochondrial increases in the
liver
521
Options
NADH
FADH2
Acetyl CoA
Citric acid
The significance of Cori cycle is to produce
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Options
Liver glucose from muscle lactate
Liver NADPH for lipid synthesis
Blood glutamine from tissue ammoniaTesticular testosterone from LDL-cholesterol
Which factor requires for following process: Pyruvate → Lactate?
Options
ATP
NADH
NAD+ + H+
FADH2
All of the following are pathogenic factors for development of hepatosteatosis, EXCEPT
Options
Vitamin deficiency.
Decrease phospholipids synthesis.
Decrease VLDL formation.
Increase oxidation of fatty acids.
Enzyme of glycolysis is
Options
NADH dehydrogenase
522
The building blocks (monomers) that make up starch, glycogen, cellulose are:
Options
Nucleotides
Amino acids
Monosaccharides
Isoprenoids
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Options
Anaerobic glycolysis is increased in neoplastic cells
HMP shunt is increased in erythrocytes during hypoxia
Decrease pH of the blood leads liberation of oxygen from RBCs into tissues
Glycolysis is decreased when fatty acid oxidation is increased
A patient has increased blood pyruvate level. A large amount of it is excreted with the urine.
What is
vitamin lacking in this patient?
Options
Tocopherol
Thiamine
Naiacin
Folic acid
Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus type I patient has high risk factor for development of acute
complication:
Options
Ketoacidotic coma
Acute renal failure
Ischemic heart attack
Autoimmune hemolysis
Irreversible reaction of glycolysis:
523
Options
Phosphoenolpyruvate → Pyruvate
Glucose -6-P → Fructose-6-P
Pyruvate → Lactate
Glyceraldehyde-3-P → DHAP
All of the following would lead lactic acidosis EXCEPT
OptionsHigh altitude
Heart failure
LDH deficiency
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Thiamine deficiency
A patient has a genetic defect that causes intestinal epithelial cells to produce
disaccharidases of
much lower activity than normal. Compared to a normal person,
after eating a bowl of milk and cake this patient will have higher level of
Options
Galactose and fructose in the blood.
Disaccharides in the stool.
Glycogen in the muscles.
Starch in the stool.
A newborn develops diarrhea after milk feeding. When the milk is replaced by the glucose
solution
the diarrhea disappears. Which of the following enzymes is
inactive in this newborn?
Options
Invertase
Amylase
Lactase
Maltase
524
A 43-year old man was presented with symptoms of weakness, fatigue, shortness of breath
and
dizzies. His hemoglobin levels were between 5 to 7 g/dl (normal
13.5 g/dl). RBCs isolated from the patient showed abnormally low level of lactate production.
A
deficiency of which one of the following enzymes would be the
most likely cause of this patient’s pathology?
OptionsFructose-1,6-BP-phosphatase
Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase
Glucose-6-P-phosphatase
Pyruvate kinase
and
dizzies. His hemoglobin levels were between 5 to 7 g/dl (normal
Which
one of the following features also predominant in this
patient?
Options
Lactic acidosis
Hemolytic anemia
Hyperglycemia
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Hyperthermia
A 30-year-old man has been fasting for religious reason for several days. His brain has
reduced its
need for glucose by using which of the following substances
as an alternative source of energy?
Options
Glycerol
525
Acetone
Fatty acids
β-hydroxybutyrate
Pyruvate kinase deficient patient can develop
Options
Hemolytic crisis
Renal failureBleeding
Xanthomas
A newborn baby experienced abdominal distension, severe bowel cramps and diarrhea after
being
fed milk. A hydrogen analysis of his exhaled breath
discovered an eight time increase in the production of hydrogen (H2) 90 minutes after milk
feeding.
The infant most probably suffers from deficiency of
Options
Galactokinase
Lactase
Isomaltase
Galactose-1 –P-uridyltransferase
Which of the following laboratory test would help you determine whether patient has type I
or type
II diabetes mellitus?
Options
C-peptide levels
Insulin levels
Fasting blood glucose
Hemoglobin A1c
Diabetes mellitus type II predominantly binds with
Options
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Glucagon resistance
Cortisol excess
Insulin resistance
Insulin excess
Von Girke disease is due to mutation affecting degradation of
OptionsHemoglobin
Glycogen
Cholesterol
Collagen
A two year old boy was brought into the emergency room, suffering from severe fasting
hypoglycemia. In physical examination he was found to have
hepatomegaly. A liver biopsy indicated that hepatocytes contained greater than normal
amount of
glycogen that was abnormal structure with limit dextrin type.
Muscles and other organs were not affected. A deficiency of which one of the following
enzymes
would be the most likely cause of this patient’s pathology?
Options
Lysosomal maltase
Liver phosphorylase
Muscles phosphorylase
Liver debranching enzyme
amount of
glycogen that was abnormal structure with limit dextrin type.
Muscles and other organs were not affected. Your diagnosis is:
Options
Von Girke disease
Cori’s disease
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Mc Ardle disease
Anderson disease
All of the following are laboratory data of uncontrolled Diabetes Mellitus, EXCEPT
Options
Ketonemia
Glucosuria1/24/2019 Ism Exams
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Hyperglycemia
Proteinuria
3-month old boy presents with poor growth, low muscle tone (hypotonia), elevation of
blood lactate
(lactic academia), and mild acidosis (blood pH = 7.30-
7.35). The ratio of pyruvate to lactate in serum is elevated. Which of the following
compounds might
be recommended for therapy?
Options
Ascorbic acid
Vitamin D
Free fatty acids
Thiamine
A patient has a tumor of α-cells of the islet of Langerhans which of the following findings
would
result from the excessive hormone secretion from this tumor?
Options
Increased glycolysis
Decreased blood glucose level
Increased HMP shunt
Increased blood glucose concentration
A child’s blood presents high content galactose, glucose concentration is low. There are such
presentations as cataract, mental deficiency, fatty liver. What
528
disease is it?
Options
Galacosemia
Diabetes mellitus
Lactosemia
Steroid diabetes (Cushing’s syndrome)Galactosemia is due to deficiency of
Options
Galactokinase.
Galactose-1-P-uridyltransferase.
UDP-Galactose-epimerase.
All of the above.
Deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1) leads decrease activities of all of the following enzymes,
EXCEPT
Options
Isocitrate dehydrogenase.
Transketolase.
A person with Galactosemia is advised not to consume which of the following products?
Options
Caffeine-containing food
Sucrose-containing food
Corn syrup
Milk –containing food
Normal fasting blood glucose level
Options
140 mg/dl
60-100 mg/dl
< 60 mg/dl
> 160 mg/dl
Glucosuria in uncontrolled DM occurs when the venous glucose concentration exceeds
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Options
100 mg/dl140 mg/dl
180 mg/dl
60 mg/dl
Insulin resistance can lead all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Hyperglycemia
Hypoketonic hypoglycemia
Decrease uptake of glucose by muscles
Glucosuria
Patient with large mesenchymal tumor develop fasting hypoglycemia due to
Options
Loss of glucose through the urine.
Decrease uptake of blood glucose by all cells.
Increase uptake of blood glucose by neoplastic cells.
Loss insulin through its inactivation by inhibitors
Patients who suffer from severe diabetes type I and don’t receive insulin have metabolic
acidosis.
This is caused by increased concentration of the following
metabolites
Options
Ketone bodies
Triacylglycerides
Unsaturated fatty acids
Cholesterol
A male infant failed to gain weight and showed metabolic acidosis in the neonatal period. A
physical
examination at 6 month showed hypotonia, small muscle
mass, lethargy, motor dysfunction, optic atrophy. Investigation of blood Lactate: 40 mg/dl
(normal:
4-14 mg/dl) Pyruvate: 3.6 mg/dl (normal 0.3-0.9 mg/dl) pH:
7.20 ( normal: 7.35 – 7.45) What is the most likely diagnosis?
530
OptionsPyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
Glucokinase deficiency
Phosphofructokinase I deficiency
Pyruvate kinase deficiency
Best explanation of Gestational Diabetes is increasing level of that block insulin receptors
Options
Placental lactogen.
Maternal serum estrone.
Milk progesterone-like compounds.
Maternal serum α-fetoprotein.
Screening test for Geststional DM is
Options
O’Sullivan test
Benedict’s test
Seliwanoff’s test
Shilling test
In Turai syndrome enzyme deficient is
Options
PK
PFK-1
G6PDH
HGPRT
After a sprint an untrained person develops muscle hypoxia. This leads accumulation of
metabolite
in muscle known as
Options
Oxaloacetate.
Uric acid.
Lactate.Citric acid.
A 3-month-old boy presents with poor feeding and growth, low muscle tone, elevation of
blood
lactate. There is decreased conversion of pyruvate to Acetyl
531
CoA in fibroblasts. Which of the following compounds should be considered for therapy?
Options
Ascorbic acid
IV glucose solution
Vitamin B1 injection
Biotin injection
Which of the following is the most sensitive test of pancreatic β-cell insulin secretory
reserve?
Options
Oral Glucose Tolerance Test
Urine Glucose excretion
Random blood glucose
Fasting level blood glucose
Following are causes of hyperglycemic glucosuria EXCEPT
Options
Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic β-cells
Damage of pancreatic islet by alloxan
Prolonged glucocorticoid therapy
Renal reabsorption defect
A 18-month-old child is left unattended in the kitchen and ingests a small portion of rat
poison that
contains fluoroacetate. Fluoroacetate reacts with
oxaloacetate to form fluorocitrate. Which pathway of the body is inhibited by this poison?
Options
HMP shunt
TCA cycleGlycolysis
The level of what plasma protein would be increased in Diabetes mellitus patient?
Options
C-reactive protein
Fibrinogen
Glycosylated hemoglobin
532
Ceruloplasmin
How are lipids absorbed during digestion?
Options
They are hydrolyzed by amylase in the mouth.
They are emulsified in the small intestine by bile salts.
They are digested in the stomach by stomach acids.
They are transported directly through blood
Which one of the following is NOT a component of pancreatic juice?
Options
Phospholipase A
Lipase
Lipoprotein lipase
Cholesterol esterase
In the intestine, the dietary fats are hydrolysed by
Options
Triacylglycerol lipase
Adenylate cyclase
Pancreatic lipase
Protein kinase
Phospholipid contains
OptionsHydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails
Long water-soluble carbon chains
Positively charged functional groups
Hydrophobic heads and hydrophilic tails
The dietary lipids are transported in blood as
Options
Micells.
Chylomicrons.
Complex with albumin.
Liposomes.
The component of the waxes is:
533
Options
Adenine
Glutamine
Glucose
Fatty acid
The component of the fat is:
Options
Adenine
Glutamine
Glucose
Glycerol
Which bond is formed when a hydroxyl group of alcohol joints the carboxylic group of fatty
acid?
Options
Peptide
Glycosidic
EsterHydrogen
Lipids are compounds that are soluble in
Options
Distilled water.
Organic solvent.
Glucose solution.
Saline solution.
Fatty acids are component of all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Phospholipids.
Triacylglycerides.
Cholesterol esters.
Cholecalciferol.
The main function of fat in the human body is to
Options
534
Increase rate of chemical reactions
Transport substances into cells
Long-term store of energy
Which of the following is NOT a function of lipids in human body?
Options
Energy storage
PH regulation
Insulation
Homeostasis regulation
The compound that derived from sterols is
OptionsCholesterol ester.
Arachidonic acid.
Triacylglyceride.
Phophatidyl glyceride.
Which of the following is a lipid?
Options
Collagen
Lactose
Nicotine
Lecithine
Steroid is
Options
Pyruvate
Glycerol
Acetyl CoA
Cholesterol
Rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis
Options
Squalene → Lanosterol
Isoprenoid unit →Squalene
535
Acetoacetyl CoA→ HMG CoA
HMG CoA →Mevalonate
The surface tension in intestinal lumen between fat droplets and aqueous medium is
decreased by
Options
Gastric HCl.
Ammonium-ions.
Bile salts.Pancreatic juice.
Which one of the following compounds is added to diacylglyceride for re-synthesis of

specific human
triacylglycerides in small intestinal mucosal cells?
Options
Glycerol
Fatty acyl CoA
Acetyl CoA
Pancreatic insufficiency may result in
Options
Increased pH in the intestinal lumen.
Decreased formation of bile salt micelles.
Increased of fat in the stool.
Increased of blood chylomicrons.
Chylomicrons function is
Options
Store form of lipids.
Emulsified agent.
Intestinal enzyme.
Blood lipid transporter.
Hydrolysis of 1 mole of lipid yields 2 moles of fatty acids, one mole of glycerol & 1 mole of
phosphoric acid This lipid is
Options
Triacylglyceride.
536
Phosphotidic acid.
Arachidonic acid.
Cholesterol.
In mammals, the major lipid of membraneOptions
Phospholipids.
Fatty acids.
Vitamin E.
Triacylglyceride.
Which of the following statements about how dietary fat can be utilized by the body is
FALSE?
Options
It can be stored in the form of glycogen for later use
It can be stored as a triglyceride for later use
It can be used to make lipid-containing compounds
It can be used as an immediate source of energy for cells
Hormone-sensetive lipase is activated through
Options
Adenylate cyclase.
Phosphatidyl/inositol.
NO.
Ca2+/calmodulin.
The complete oxidation of long odd chain fatty acids produces which of the following?
Options
Acetyl CoA only
Acetyl CoA and Propionyl CoA
Butyryl CoA
Propionyl CoA and Formyl CoA
Each cycle of β-oxidation produces
Options
1 FADH2, 1 NAD+, and 1 AcetylCoA
1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 1 AcetylCoA1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 2 CO2 molecules
537
1 FAD, 1 NAD+ and 2 CO2 molecules
Propionyl CoA is produced during oxidation of
Options
C19-chain fatty acid.
Propionyl CoA is metabolized to
Options
Glycerol-3-phosphate.
Succinyl CoA.
Malonyl CoA.
Triacylglyceride.
Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with
Options
2 double bonds
3 double bonds
1 double bond
Single bonds only
The role of hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL) is to
Options
Hydrolyze triacylglycerides stored in adipose tissue
Hydrolyze lipids stores in the liver
Hydrolyze membrane phospholipids
Synthesize lipids in adipose tissue
When does NOT β-oxidation occur?Options
In a fast
Intense physical activity
In a starvation
In well-fed state
What mitochondria do NOT perform α-oxidation?
538
Options
Mitochondria in cardiomyocytes
Mitochondria in hepatocytes
Mitochondria in intestinal mucosal cells
Mitochondria in brain cells
A very long chain fatty acids are oxidized in
Options
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Peroxisomes
Golgi apparatus
What is the role of thiolase in the β-oxidation of fatty acids?
Options
Cleaves the bond between α- and β-carbons
Generates NADH
Activates fatty acids
Adds water to β- double bond of Acyl CoA
Carnitine involves in
Options
Activation of fatty acids.
Translocation of fatty acids across cell membrane.Oxidation of fatty acids.
Translocation of fatty acids across mitochondrial membrane.
Patients with abnormal oxidation of fatty acids develop symptom
Options
Hyperketonic hypoglycemia.
Ketoacidosis only.
Hyperosmolar hyperglycemia.
A 16-year-old marathon runner trains by running 15 miles every morning, requiring a

constant
supply of ATP that predominantly is formed by
539
Options
Anaerobic oxidatiob of glucose.
Aerobic oxidation of glucose.
Lipolysis and oxidation of fatty acids.
Creatine-phosphate dephosphorylation
How many carbons are removed from Acyl CoA in one turn of β-oxidation?
Options
How many molecules of Acetyl CoA are produced in oxidation of C18 fatty acid?
Options
18
A fatty acid with 14 carbon atoms will undergo how many cycles of beta oxidation?Options
Plasma free fatty acids are increased due to deficiency of which hormone?
Options
Insulin
Glucagon
Cortisol
Epinephrine
Thiolase is enzyme of
Options
Ketone bodies oxidation.
540
Thyrosine synthesis.
Fatty acid oxidation.
Cholesterol degradation.
The activation of long chain fatty acids requires which of the following components?
Options
2 ATPs only
Coenzyme A only
2 ATP s & coenzyme A
Fatty acyl-carnitine
Which one from the following enzymes catalyze energy - requirement reaction?
Options
Thiolase
ThiokinaseAcyl CoA dehydrogenase
β-hydroxyacyl CoA dehydrogenase
Carnitine is required for the transport of
Options
Triacylglycerides out of liver.
Triacylglycerides into mitochondria.
Short chain fatty acids into cells.
Long chain fatty acids into mitochondria.
Carnitine-containing drug was recommended to sportsman for improving results. What

processes is
activated by this supplement?
Options
Synthesis of steroid hormones
Transport of fatty acids to the mitochondria
Synthesis of proteins
Increased number of mitochondria
β- oxidation of fatty acids occurs in
Options
Erythrocytes.
541
Heart.
Brain.
Lens.
Which one of the following tissues can metabolize glucose, fatty acids, and ketone bodies for
ATP
production?
Options
Liver
Muscles
BrainRed blood cells
Acetyl CoA is formed during β-oxidation of fatty acids
Options
Goes on to further oxidation in TCA cycle
Recycles back into β-oxidation
Is further metabolized into acetate
Used as a cholesterol precursor
The β-oxidation of palmitic acid (C15H31COOH):
Options
Yields 16 molecules of Acetyl CoA
Yields carbon dioxide and water only
Repeats 8 cycles
Yields 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA0
After an overnight fast the blood levels of which of the following will be higher in a person
with a
carnitine deficiency than in normal person?
Options
Fatty acids
Glucose
Bile acids
Glycerol
A low ratio of insulin to glucagon can
Options
542
Promote ketogenesis
Occurring in well fed state
Promote lipogenesis
All of the following statements regarding ketone bodies are true, EXCEPT
OptionsThey are produced during starvation.
They are formed in kidneys.
They include acetoacetate, acetone, hydroxybutirate.
They may be excreted in urine.
Which of the following condition is characterized by ketonuria but without glucosuria?
Options
Diabetes mellitus
Prolonged starvation
Wilson’s diseases
All of the following conditions promote increasing blood glycerol level , EXCEPT
Options
Fasting.
Lipid-rich diet.
Carbohydrate –rich diet.
Increase blood insulin.
HMG CoA is formed in the metabolism of
Options
Cholesterol, ketone bodies.
Triaylglycerides, cholesterol.
Fatty acids only.
Phospholipids only.
Glycerol can catabolized by
Options
Liver.
Brain.
543
Erythrocytes.Muscles.
All of the following are intermediates of glycerol catabolism, EXCEPT
Options
Glycerol-3-phsphate.
Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate.
Dehydroxyacetone phosphate.
β- hydroxybutyrate.
Glycerol released by hydrolysis of lipoproteins triacylglycerides is mainly
Options
Taken up by extrahepatic tissues.
Taken up by the liver.
Reutilized in adipose tissue.
Excreted from the body.
Cholesterol contains carbons
Options
21
23
27
29
Best source of cholesterol is
Options
Butter.
Egg yolk.
Milk.
Black gram (urd).
Dietary cholesterol is carried from intestine to the liver by
OptionsChylomicrons.
Through portal vein.
VLDL
LDL
Which of the following compound is precursor of acetone?
544
Options
Propionyl CoA
Urea
Acetyl CoA
Cholesterol
Which of the following is the primary ketone body?
Options
Acetone
Acetoacetate
β-hydroxybutyrate
Hydroxymethyl glutarate
Increased level of blood ketone bodies is risk factor for development of
Options
Edema
Acidosis
Anemia
Atherosclerosis
Thiophorase is enzyme of which pathway?
Options
Gluconeogensis
TCA cycle
KetolysisGlycolysis
The key enzyme for the utilization of ketone bodies is
Options
Thiolase.
Thiophrase.
Thiokinase.
Thioesterase.
All of the following conditions promote increase synthesis of ketone bodies, EXCEPT
Options
Starvation.
545
Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
Von Girke’s disease.
High carbohydrate diet.
A high omega-3 fatty acid diet is associated with reduced incidence of
Options
Skin disease
Cardiovascular disease
Kidney disease
Endocrine disease
In cystic fibrosis the pancreatic ducts become obstructed by viscous mucus. Consequently,
digestion
of which of the following substances would be most
impaired?
Options
Lipids
Nucleotides
Lactose
SucroseLaboratory investigation of patient revealed a high level of plasma low density

lipoprotein. What
disease can be diagnosed?
Options
Acute pancreatitis
Acute renal failure
Atherosclerosis
Which one of the following situations would result in an increase ketone bodies synthesis by
the
liver?
Options
After meal
Decrease oxygen concentration
Prolonged fasting
546
Increase blood glucose
Severe ketoacidosis is seen primarily in individuals with
Options
Atherosclerosis
Chronic pancreatitis
Type I diabetes mellitus
Myopathic carnitine deficiency.
Physiological conditions promote the synthesis of ketone bodies would also promote the
Options
Oxidation of fatty acids in the RBCs
Synthesis of glucose in the liver
Synthesis of TG in the liver
Oxidation of glucose in adipose tissue
Which one of the following effects of insulin is NOT found in adipose tissue?
OptionsDecreased hormone sensitive lipase activity
Increased ketone bodies synthesis
Increased lipoprotein lipase synthesis
Stimulate uptake of glucose
Which of the following is NOT a function of cholesterol?
Options
Steroid hormone synthesis
Structural component of membrane
Synthesis of bile acid
Oxidation for ATP synthesis
Cholestrol
Options
Contains a methyl group
Is a primary alcohol
Is a precursor of adrenal medullar hormones
Is a major constituent of plants and fungi
Cholesterol is absent in:
547
Options
Fish
Cow’s milk
Liver
Vegetable oils
Cholestrol is a precursor of
Options
Adrenal medullar hormones
Adrenal cortical hormones
Hypothalamic releasing hormonesPancreatic hormones
Cholestrol is the precursor of
Options
Steroid hormones
Vitamin A
Bile pigments
Uric acid
All following statements about cholesterol are correct EXCEPT
Options
Can be synthesized extrahepatically
Is a precursor of bile acids
Key regulatory enzyme HMG CoA reductase
Transport in the blood in the free form
Hydroxymethylglutaryl CoA
Options
Is formed by catabolism of glutamic acid
Serves as a precursor of cholesterol
Intermediate of ketone bodies synthesis
Correct b) and c)
Glycerol in the liver is metabolized to intermediate
Options
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)
548
Glycine
S-adenosylmethionine
Coproporphyrin
Which of the following is NOT involved in the biosynthesis of cholesterol?
OptionsEnergy
Acetyl CoA
Aldolase
NADPH
Important function of cholesterol is to
Options
Modulate fluidity of membrane
Enhance blood circulation
Prevent bile salts formation
None of these
Sex hormones are derived from
Options
Bilirubin
Cholesterol
Palmitic acid
Leucine
Major organ for synthesis of cholesterol is
Options
Pancreas.
Spleen.
Liver.
Uterus.
Cholesterolemia means
Options
Lack of functional LDL receptors
Lack of functional HDL receptor
High sensitivity to fatty food intakeNone of the above
549
Regarding bile salts all statements are correct EXCEPT
Options
Play an important role in the absorption of lipids
Are conjugates of bile acids with taurine or glycine
Reabsorbed from intestine through portal vein
Catabolized in intestine by bacterial flora to CO2 & H2O
Cholesterol is the precursor of the all of the following compounds, EXCEPT
Options
Bile acids.
β-hydroxybutyrate.
Testosterone
Cortisol
Cholesterol is precursor of all of the following hormones, EXCEPT
Options
Calcitriol.
Calcitonin.
Estradiol.
Cortisol.
All of the following are intermediates of cholesterol biosynthesis, EXCEPT
Options
Squalene.
β-hydroxybutyrate.
Farnesylpyrophosphate.
β-hydroxy-β-methylglutaryl CoA
Animal fed high cholesterol diet shows decreased cholesterol by the liver due to inhibition of
which
of the following enzyme?
OptionsHMG CoA lyase
Mevalonate kinase
HMG CoA reductase
HMG CoA synthase
550
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about cholesterol?
Options
Cholesterol circulates in the body as a lipoprotein complex
Cholesterol is an important constituent of plasma membrane
Steroid hormones are synthesized from cholesterol
Most of cholesterol used by the body is derived from the diet
Options
Mevalonate.
Taurocholate.
Farnesyl PPi.
Squalene.
Which one of the following compounds is competitive inhibitor of key regulatory enzyme of
cholesterol biosynthesis?
Options
Squalene
Cholesterol
Acetoacetyl CoA
HMG CoA
The major source of cholesterol in smooth muscle cells is
Options
VLDL
LDL
HDLIDL
Lavostatin and mevastatin lowers serum levels of
Options
Triglycerides
Cholesterol
Free fatty acids
Glucose
Which of the following hydroxylases is involved in bile acid formation?
551
Options
1-α-hydroxylase
7-α-hydroxylase
17-α-hydroxylase
21-α-hydroxylase
Regarding bile salts all statements are correct, EXCEPT
Options
Play an important role in the absorption of lipids.
Are conjugates of bile acids with taurine or glycine.
Reabsorbed from intestine through portal vein.
Catabolized in intestine by bacterial flora to CO2 & H2O.
All of the following are required for bile salts synthesis, EXCEPT
Options
7-α-hydroxylase.
Cholesterol.
Glycine.
1-α-hydroxylase.
Which of the following is a major function of lipoproteins?
OptionsDonors of amino acids to the tissues
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Carriers of lipids in the blood
Determine viscosity of the blood
Determine oncotic pressure of the blood
How many types of lipoproteins in the blood?
Options
552
8
What is the major protein constituent of high-density lipoprotein (HDL)?
Options
Apo A-l
Apo C-l
Apo E
Apo B48
Initiator for fatty steak formation in intima of arteries is
Options
Oxidized high density lipoprotein
Reduced low density lipoprotein
Oxidized low density lipoprotein
Reduced high density lipoprotein
Which lipoprotein transports cholesterol to intima of artery?
Options
HDLLDL
Chylomicrons
VLDL
Deficiency of apoprotein CII leads increase in blood
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Options
Glucose
Lipids
Protein
Sodium
Carbon atoms of cholesterol are derived from
Options
Propionyl CoA.
553
Acetyl CoA.
Succinyl CoA.
Malonyl CoA.
All of the following statements about farnesyl pyrophosphate are correct, EXCEPT
Options
It is intermediate of cholesterol biosynthesis.
It is precursor for Coenzyme Q synthesis.
It is intermediate of prostaglandins synthesis.
It is precursor for dolichol pyrophosphate.
Rate controlling step of cholesterol biosynthesis is
Options
Lanosterol → Cholesterol
HMG-CoA → Mevalonic acid + CoAAcetoacetyl-CoA + Acetyl-CoA → HMG-CoA +CoA
The precursor for vitamin D is
Options
Cholesterol.
Arachidonic acid.
Triacylglycerol.
Phospholipids.
A gall stone that blocked the upper part of the bile duct would cause increase in which of the
followings?
Options
Excretion of fats in the feces
Formation of chylomicrons
Excretion of bile salts
Recycling of bile salts
LCAT is
Options
Lactose choline alanine transferase
Lecithin -cholesterolacyl transferase
554
Lecithine carnitine translocase
Lanoleate carbomoyl acyl transferase
Chylomicrons are synthesized in
Options
Blood
Liver
Intestine
Pancreas
Where does chylomicrons synthesis take place?Options
Liver
Intestinal lumen
Intestinal mucosal cell
Adipose tissue
Question (1/317)
All of the following are components of lipoproteins, EXCEPT
Options
Phospholipids.
Cholesterol.
Fat-soluble vitamins.
Carbohydrates.
All of the following are functions of apoproteins, EXCEPT
Options
Activators or inhibitors of enzymes.
Help in aggregation of lipoprotein particles.
Determine stability of lipoprotein particles.
Recognize of specific receptors for utilization of lipoproteins.
Which one of the following statements about lipoproteins is correct?
Options
Chylomicrons are synthesized primarily in adipose tissue and transport triacylglycerides to

the liver
HDL particles are produced from LDL in the circulation by the action of lipoprotein lipase
555
VLDLs are precursors of LDL in the circulation
HDL competes with LDL for binding to receptors on the surface of cells in extrahepatic
tissues.
Which one of the following changes would you expect in a patient with decreased activity of
lipoprotein lipase?
Options
Elevation of plasma chylomicrons onlyElevation of both plasma chylomicrons and VLDLs
Elevation of plasma LDL only
Elevation of both plasma HDL and LDL
What is the correct ordering of lipoprotein particles from lowest to the highest density?
Options
LDL- IDL – VLDL- chylomicrons
VLDL-IDL-LDL- chylomicrons
Chylomicrons-VLDL-IDL-LDL
Chylomicrons – LDL-IDL-VLDL
Which one of the following apoprotein is synthesized in the liver as integral part of VLDL?
Options
AI
B-100
C II
B – 48
All of the following statements about lipoprotein lipase are correct, EXCEPT
Options
Synthesized by adipocytes
Synthesized by myocytes
Deficiency leads hypertriglyceridemia
Deficiency leads hypercholesterolemia
Dietary fats after absorption appear in the blood circulation as
Options
HDL
VLDL
556
LDL
ChylomicronsWhere does VLDL synthesis take place?
Options
Liver
Intestinal lumen
Adipose tissue
Plasma become milky due to increase level of
Options
Lipoproteins
Glucose
Ketone bodies
Urea
LDL transport
Options
Triacylglycerides from liver.
Tricylglycerides from intestine.
Cholesterol to liver.
Cholesterol to tissues.
The building blocks (monomers) that make up HDL :
Options
Lipids
Minerals
Monosaccharides
Nucleotides
Which of the following statement regarding chylomicrons is correct?
Options
Contain polysaccharidesAre made in the liver
Have a shell of water
Contain a lipid materials
Synthesis of lipoprotein lipase is activated by
557
Options
Cortisol
Glucagon
Insulin
Epinephrine
A laboratory data of patient with Tangier disease is
Options
Absence of Apo AI and low blood HDL level.
Absence of LDL receptor and high blood LDL level.
Low activity of LPL and high level of blood VLDL.
Absence of Apo B and low level of blood chylomicrons
The patient has unusual red cells morphology (acanthocytosis- thorny-appearing cells) due
to
membrane abnormalities in their erythrocytes. This
membranopathy would most likely from malabsorption of which from the following
essential fatty
acid?
Options
Linolenic (C18:3)
Palmitic (C16:0)
Ascorbic
Folic
The following is an activator of lipoprotein lipase
Options
Apo E
Apo C IIApo A I
Apo B-48
The following is an activator of lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)
Options
Apo B-100
Apo AI
Apo B-48
558
Apo E
All of the following are functions of HDL, EXCEPT
Options
Donates Apo CII & Apo E.
Removes excess of cholesterol from the tissues.
Converts cholesterol to cholesterol ester.
Is transporter of dietary lipids.
VLDL transport
Options
Triacylglycerides from intestine.
HDL transport
Options
Specific scavenger receptor SR-B1 present on the surface of extrahepatic tissue including
vessels forOptions
LDL
HDL
VLDL
IDL
Normal blood LDL level is
Options
< 150 mg/dl
> 200 mg/dl
> 500 mg/dl
<300 mg/dl
559
Normal blood HDL level is
Options
40-60 mg/dl
> 200 mg/dl
10-15 mg/dl
> 350 mg/dl
A 35-year-old man has a history of recurring attacks of pancreatitis, eruptive xathomas and
increased plasma triacylglyceride levels: 2000 mg/dl associated with
chylomicronemias. Deficiency of which of the following is the likely cause of these

symptoms?
Options
HMG CoA reductase
Lipoprotein lipase (LPL)
Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)
Scavenger receptors (SR-1) for HDL
Hypoglycemic hypoketonic blood is seen in patients suffering from impaired which

metabolic
pathway?
OptionsDiabetes mellitus type I
Alcohol abuse
Increased level of blood cholesterol are risk factors for development of
Options
Gall stones.
Fatty liver.
Anemia.
Atherosclerosis.
Insulin resistance in DM type II leads hyperlipidemias due to excessive
Options
Mobilization of fatty acids
Utilization of chylomicrons
560
Lipogenesis in adipose tissue
Utilization of VLDL
Deficiency of LDL-receptors is risk factor for development of
Options
Liver cirrhosis
Coronary heart disease (CHD)
Mental retardation
Muscles atrophy
Lecithin-cholesterolacyltransferase (LCAT) is enzyme that binds with
Options
HDL
Proteoglycans of capillary walls
LDLScavenger receptor B1
Hyperlipidemia can occur in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT
Options
Enteritis.
Diabetes mellitus.
Nephrotic syndrome.
Hypothyroidism.
A young girl with a history of severe abdominal pain was taken to her local hospital at 5 a.m.
in
severe distress. Blood was drawn, and the plasma appeared
milky with the TG level 2000 mg/dl (normal 4-50 mg/dl). Which one of the following
enzymes
deficiency is most likely responsible for the appearance of this
patient’s plasma?
Options
Pancreatic lipase
Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase
Lipoprotein lipase
Hormone-sensitive lipase
561
Patient has genetic disorder characterized by malabsorption of dietary lipid, steatorrhea,
and
accumulation of intestinal triglycerides. A deficiency of which
protein would most likely account for this clinical presentation?
Options
Apo B100
Acyl CoA synthetase
Pancreatic lipase
Colipase
An 11 year old boy presents with balance and difficulty with night vision. His mother says he
had foul
smelling stools and failure to thrive as an infant. Physical
examination reveals poor muscle coordination, ataxia. Lab tests show low total cholesterol
and
Vitamin A levels. The patient most likely has an inheritedmutation in which of the following?
Options
7-α-hydrohylase
Microsomal Transfer Protein (MTP)
Hormone Sensitive Lipase (HSL)
The official medical measurement of obesity is
Options
Basal metabolic rate.
Body mass index.
Proportion of bone density to weight.
Height of a person.
All are plasma adipokines profile of obese person, EXCEPT
Options
Hypoadiponectinemia.
Leptin resistance.
Hypoestrogenism.
Hyperresistinemia.
562
White adipose tissue has all of the following functions, EXCEPT
Options
Endocrine.
Helps in immunity.
Metabolic.
Homeostasis regulation.
Adipokine that activates effect of insulin is
Options
Adiponectin.Resistin.
Leptin.
Grenilin.
An important feature of Zellweger’s syndrome is
Options
Hypoglycemia.
Skin eruption.
Accumulation of polyenoic acids in brain.
Which statement from of the following about Zellweger’s syndrome is FALSE?
Options
Results from the absence of functional peroxisomes
Characterized by hypoglycemia and ketosis
Caused by a defect in the import of enzymes into the peroxisomes
Death occurs within 6 years of life.
Physiological conditions which promote the synthesis of ketone bodies would also promote
the
Options
Oxidation of fatty acids in erythrocytes.
Synthesis of fatty acids in the liver.
Synthesis of amino acids in the brain.
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563
12/70
Synthesis of glucose in the liver.
Refsume’s disease is due to accumulation of
Options
Phytanic acid in brain.
Glycogen in muscles.Carnitine in liver.
Choestrol in gall bladder.
A drug which prevents cholesterol by inhibiting the enzyme HMG CoA reductase is
Options
Aspirin.
Allopurinol.
Digitonin.
Lavostatin.
A 56-year-old smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day. He is found to have a blood pressure of
155/95
mm Hg. His body mass index is 30. Laboratory findings
include total serum cholesterol of 245 mg/dl and HDL cholesterol is 22 mg/dl.Which of the
following
vascular abnormalities is most likely to be his most
serious health risk?
Options
Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis
Deep venous thrombosis
Medial calcific sclerosis
Atherosclerosis
Obese person has
Options
Hypoadiponectinemia
Hyporesistinemia
Hypolipoproteinemia
Hypoglycemia
Wasting syndrome is characterized by
564
Options
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Increase anabolism
Increase energy production
Increase appetite
A 44-year-old woman has a family history of heart disease. Her father and mother both
developed
congestive heart failure and myocardial infarction as a result
of extensive coronary atherosclerosis. A dietary modification to include consumption of

which of the
following is most likely to reduce her risk for ischemic
heart disease?
Options
40% of total caloric intake as fat
A diet high in saturated fat
Fat found in beef products
Fish oil
An autopsy study reveals that evidence for atheroma formation can begin even in children.
The gross
appearances of the aortas are recorded and compared with
microscopic findings of atheroma formation. Which of the following is most likely to be the
first
visible gross evidence for the formation of an atheroma?
Options
Thrombus
Fatty streak
Calcification
Ulceration
A 25-year-old man is 178 cm tall and weighs 101 kg. Laboratory studies show total serum
cholesterol
565
of 550 mg/dl with an HDL cholesterol component of 25
mg/dl. He is worried about these findings because his brother died of a myocardial infarction
at age
34. Which of the following conditions is this man most
likely to have?
Options
Diabetes mellitus, type IIMalignant hypertension
Familial hypercholesterolemia
Cushing syndrome
Vitamin E deficiency can cause
Options
Increasing blood level of oxidatively modified lipids.
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Decreasing oxidants activity.
Decreasing amount of radicals in the tissues.
Activation of receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Hyperlipoproteinemia with maximum of cholesterol level in the blood is
Options
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
All of the following are major risk factors for Coronary Heart Disease (CHD), EXCEPT
Options
Smoking.
Increased HDL level.
Increased LDL level.
Hypertension.
Lipidemic lowering therapy includes all of the following, EXCEPT
566
Options
Diet rich by the polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA).
Statins.Fibrates.
Diet rich by the saturated fat.
What is the major organ for alcohol detoxification?
Options
Brain
Liver
Kidney
Spleen
Alcohol abuse leads in the liver all of the following, EXCEPT
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Options
Activation of microsomal pathway of alcohol oxidation and formation of toxic adducts.
Activation of inflammatory response.
Activation of VLDL synthesis.
Depression of TCA cycle and activation of fat synthesis.
Which nutritional factor stimulates alcohol oxidation?
Options
Well-fad state
Fasting
Low protein diet
Low lipid diet
Aldehyde dehydrogenase oxidizes ethanol to
Options
Acetic acid.
Oxalic acid.
Carbon dioxide.Acetyldehyde.
567
Cytochrome P450 system involves in oxidation of ethanol in organism of
Options
Healthy person.
Heavy drinkers.
Obese person.
Mild drinker.
Microsomal oxidation of alcohol is accompanying with formation of all of the following,

EXCEPT
Options
Hydrogen peroxide.
Superoxide radicals.
Acetaldehyde.
Acetate.
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Alcohol-induced cirhotic patient can has following blood analysis
Options
↓ ALT & ↑GGT
↑ elastase & ↓ AST
↑plasma proteins & ↓ Igs
↑ glucose & ↓ lactic acid
Which one of the following methods uses in practical medicine for purification of blood by
artificial
kidney?
Options
Electrophoresis
Salting out
HemodilutionDialysis
Chromatography is method of separation mixture of
Options
568
Ions
Amino acids
Salts
Ketone bodies
What one of the following patients may be put on the hemodialysis?
Options
Patient with mental retardation
Patient with end stage of renal disease (ESRD)
Patient with acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
Patient with vomiting and diarrhea
The following technique is used for separation of proteins according their difference in net
charges
at a given pH:
Options
Thin layer chromatography.
Paper chromatography.
Electrophoresis.
Dialysis.
The solubility of most proteins is lowered at high salt concentration is known as
Options
Isoelectric focusing
Salting out process
Solubility curve
Chromatography
The movement of charged particles towards one of the electrodes under the influence of
electrical
current isOptions
Gel filtration
Chromatography
Dialysis
Electrophoresis
569
For separation of mixture charged high molecular weight and low molecular weight
compounds can
use all following techniques EXCEPT
Options
Electrophoresis
Dialysis
“salting out” precipitation
Cedimentation rate
The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of
Options
Elimination of non-electrolyte waste product.
Dehydration of protein molecule by salt.
Diminished protein-protein interaction.
Neutralization of protein molecule by salt.
A protein with molecular weight of 100 kD is subjected to SDS PAGE electrophoresis. SDS
PAGE
electrophoretic pattern show two widely separated bands of
20 kD and 30 kD after addition of merkaptoethanol. The true statement regarding this will
be
Options
The protein has complete lysis.
The protein is a monomer of 20 kD and 30kD.
The protein is a dimmer of two 20 kD and 30 kD proteins.
The protein is a tetramer of 20 kD and 30kD proteins.
Chromatography is used for separation of
OptionsMixture of lipids and minerals
Mixture of proteins
Colloids only
Mixture of minerals only
Ultrafiltration of plasma in kidney is example of
Options
Chromatography.
570
Dialysis.
Electrophoresis.
Precipitation.
Ultrafiltration of plasma by choroid plexus of ventricular system of the brain is example of
Options
Chromatography.
Electrophoresis.
Dialysis.
Precipitation.
All of the following are functions of proteins, EXCEPT
Options
Catalytic.
Defense.
Osmotic.
Structural.
Which of the following IS NOT protein in nature?
Options
Albumin
Cortisol
Complement C3Lipase
Protein is
Options
Ceruloplasmin
Pyruvate
Acetoacetate
Glycerol
Which class of biomolecules is used for activation of catalytic function of proteins?
Options
Carbohydrates
Water shell
Minerals
571
Fatty acids
Molecules of protein are composed of long chain of
Options
Fatty acids
Nucleotides
Sugar
Amino acids
Alpha-helix and beta-sheet folding in protein is stabilized by
Options
Ester bond.
Hydrogen bond.
Peptide bond.
Ionic bond.
Which one of the following IS NOT a secondary structural feature of proteins?
OptionsAlpha-helix
Beta-sheet
Triple-helix
Beta-turn
Each polypeptide has specific amino acids sequence, linked with each other by peptide bond.
This
sequence of amino acids is said to be
Options
Priamary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary
Tertiary structure of a protein is formed by all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Hydrogen bonds
Ionic bonds
Peptide bonds
572
Disulfide bonds
All of the following have quaternary structure EXCEPT
Options
Immunoglobulin
Albumin
Hemoglobin
A protein reacts with biuret reagent which indicates two or more
Options
Alpha-helix
Peptide bonds
β- sheet1/24/2019 Ism Exams
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Disulfide bonds
Which of the following is the best example of conformational changes?
Options
Denaturation of protein by heat
Conversion of cysteine to cystine in oxidative conditions
Conversion of rich α-helix isoform of protein into rich β-sheet isoform
Hydrogenation of aromatic side chain of the protein
Daily production of proteins in adult healthy person approximately is
Options
50 g
200 g
400 g
1000 g
Daily excretion of proteins into the urine in adult healthy person approximately is
Options
Less than 150 mg
573
250 mg per day
More than 250 mg
10 g per day
Transcription is synthesis of
Options
ATP
RNA
DNA
NADHWhich molecule contains the genetic code?
Options
Protein
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DNA
ATP
Adenine base
In the process of transcription, the flow of genetic information is from
Options
DNA to DNA
DNA to protein
T-RNA to protein
DNA to m-RNA
Translation is synthesis of
Options
RNA
DNA
Polypeptides
Polysaccharides
The most active site of protein synthesis is the
574
Options
Nucleous
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Cell membrane
Which one of the following enzymes would digest proteins?Options
Amylase
Lactase
Lipase
Trypsin
Dietary protein could provide precursors for the de novo synthesis in humans of all of the
following,
EXCEPT
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Options
Albumin.
Oxaloacetic acid.
Linoleic acid.
Glutamic acid.
Which from the following regarding protein composition is correct?
Options
Hemoglobin is chromoprotein
Albumin is conjugated protein
Collagen is globular protein
Histone: acidic amino acids prevalent
In denaturized proteins the bond which IS NOT broken
Options
Peptide
Disulfide
575
Hydrogen
Ionic
Proteases produce amino acids from protein byOptions
Reducing
Hydrolyzing
Oxidizing
Saturation
Which of the following IS NOT a conjugated protein?
Options
Hemoglobin
Low density lipoprotein
Immunoglobulin G
Collagen
Metalloprotein is
Options
Collagen
Albumin
Immunoglobulin
Ferritin
Negative nitrogen balance has following person
Options
Children.
Elderly.
Pregnant women.
Athletic men.
In protein structure the α-helix and β-sheet are examples of
Options
Primary structure
Secondary structureTertiary structure
Biologically active proteins in human beings are
576
Options
D-and L-form
L-form only
D-form only
Racemic form
All hormones increase the amount of proteins in tissues EXCEPT
Options
Growth hormone
Testosterone
Insulin
Cortisol
What is the major function of chaperones in the cells?
Options
Regulate of intracellular medium
Transport of proteins to site of their action
Sorting of misfolding proteins
Promote folding of proteins
Inracellular folding of protein is mediated by
Options
The protein itself
Chaperons
Ribosome
Proteases
Which one from the following protects proteins that have been denaturized by decreased
pH in
cells?Options
Heat shock proteins (Hsp70 & 40)
Protease inhibitor
Specific lipid envelope
Endogenous ions
All of the following are functions of chaperones, EXCEPT
577
Options
Promote folding of unfolded proteins.
Promote correct folding of misfolded proteins.
Prevent overtranslation of specific proteins.
Prevent aggregation of unfolded or misfolded proteins.
The building blocks (monomers) that make up hypothalamic releasing hormones are :
Options
Nucleotides
26/70
Amino acids
Monosaccharides
Isoprenoids
Which bond is formed when an amino group of one amino acid joints the carboxylic group of
another amino acid?
Options
Peptide
Glycosidic
Ester
Hydrogen
Bonds that are formed between two cysteine residues is
Options
PeptideHydrophilic
Disulphide
Ionic
Biologically active proteinogenic amino acids present in human organism in
Options
D- and L-form
L-form only
D-form only
Racemic form
Which one of the following sets consists of essential amino acids only?
578
Options
Alanine, Tyrosine
Phenylalanine, Tryptophan
Glutamate, Lysine
Aspartate, Glycine
Some amino acids are termed NON-ESSENTIAL as
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Options
Have no role in metabolism.
Are not components of tissue proteins.
May be synthesized in the body.
All of the above.
All α-amino acids give positive
Options
Ninhydrin test
Biuret testFusher test
Xanthoproteic test
A compound gives positive test with ninhydrin is a(an)
Options
Lipid
Glucose
Amino acids
Ketone bodies
Biuret test is mainly done for
Options
Lipids
Carbohydrates
Amino acids
579
Proteins
An amino acid that may form a disulphide bond
Options
Tryptophan
Cystein
Phenylalanine
Proline
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Which one of the following amino acids is ionizable in protein?
Options
Glycine
Alanine
ValineAspartate
Which of the following amino acids is highly likely to be localized within the interior of the
plasma
globular protein?
Options
Aspartic acid
Glutamic acid
Valine
Arginine
Which of the following amino acids is highly likely to be localized exterior of the plasma
globular
protein?
Options
Aspartic acid
Glycine
Valine
Isoleucine
580
Disulfide bonds most often stabilize the native structure of
Options
Extracellular proteins.
Intracellular proteins
Membrane proteins
Connective tissue proteins
Which one of the following tripeptides contains the largest number of non-polar R-group?
Options
Tyr-Lys-Met
Gly-Pro-Arg
Asp-Phe-Ty
Leu-Val-Gly
At certain pH amino acid behaves neither as an acid nor as a base and does not migrate to
anode or
cathode and this pH known as:Options
Nitrogenous equilibrium medium
Isoelectric point
Cationic pH
Anionic pH
Isoelectric point is
Options
Specific temperature
Suitable concentration of amino aids
Melting point of amino acids
PH at which amino acid is dipolar
Isoelectric point (pI) for an amino acid is
Options
PH at which an amino acid is electrically neutral
PKa value of the functional groups attached to the alpha-carbon
Net pKa value for the ionizable side chains
Ratio of the number of oxygen atoms to carbon atoms in the amino acid
581
Non-proteinogenic amino acid is
Options
α-alanine
Aspartate
β-alanine
Histidine
Which one of the following tripeptides most positively charged at pH=7.0?
Options
Tyr-Lys-Met
Lys-Pro-ArgAsp-Glu-Asp
Leu-Val-Gly
Which one of the following tripeptides contains sulfur?
Options
Gly-Pro-Arg
Cys-Lys-Met
Asp-Phe-Tyr
Leu-Val-Gly
Which one of the following proteins exists as CATION in physiological conditions?
Options
β-globulin (pI=5.5.)
Albumin (pI = 4.9.)
Hemoglobin (pI= 7.0)
Histone (pI = 9.8)
Which one of the following proteins exists as neutral particle in physiological condition?
Options
β-globulin (pI= 5.5)
Albumin (pI = 4.9)
Hemoglobin (pI=7.0)
Fibrinogen (pI=5.4)
Toxic effects of heavy metals result in inactivation of specific proteins by denaturation.

Which of the
582
following proteins can supply orally for the prevention of
the toxic effects of heavy metals poisoning?
Options
Clupellin (pI= 12.4)
Protein of soya (pI= 7.9 )
Papain (pI=9.0)
Ovalbumin of egg (pI=4.8)A 24-year old woman prepares for her wedding day. Her hair
dresser uses rollers to create a new
style for her hair. To create a “permanent wave”, the stylist then
applies thoglucollate to break apart the S-S bonds in cysteine units, reducing them to –SH
groups.
Which level of protein structure is most greatly affected by
this treatment?
Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Glutathione is important
Options
Absorbent
Antioxidant
Enzyme
Protein
Glutathione prevents cells against accumulation of
Options
Ammonia
Nitrogen monoxide
Hydrogen peroxide
Carbon monoxide
If glutathione level in the erythrocytes decrease
Options
583
Production of NADPH decreases
Oxy-hemoglobin content increases
Radical level increases
PH decreasesIn RBCs hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is converted to water (H2O) by
Options
Hemoglobin
Glutathione
Glutamate
Cytochrome
All are true about glutathione EXCEPT
Options
Contain sulfhydryl group
Anti-oxidant
Transport amino acids across cell membrane
Made all essential amino acids
Kwashiorkor babies would have all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Fatty liver.
Hypoalbuminemia.
Edema.
Severe myopathy.
Kwashiorkor result from
Options
Vitamin D deficiency
Deficiency of minerals in diet
Vitamin A deficiency
Deficiency of protein in diet
Marasmic babies have
Options
Depletion of muscle proteinDepletion of liver protein
Hypoalbuminemia
584
Fatty liver
Amyloid is form of
Options
Bacterium
Viruses
Primitive life form
Protein
Amyloidosis is accumulation of
Options
Glycogen
Misfolding protein
Gangliosides
Colloids
Mad cow disease may be due to invasion of
Options
Specific virus
Specific bacteria
Abnormal prion protein
Abnormal gluten
Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the deposition of one of the following substances in

the
tissues
Options
Glycogen
Neurolipids
Amyloid
CopperWhich from the following processes is NOT involved in pathogenesis of amyloidosis?
Options
Conformational changes of protein
Partial hydrolysis of polysacharides
Polymerization of partial proteolyzed residues
585
Formation of polyglutmic part in protein
Alzheimer’s disease is due to
Options
Misfold amyloid precursor protein
Transmitters deficiency
Defect in glucose transporters
Decreased integrity of blood brain barrier
A 80-year-old man presented with impairment of higher intellectual function and alterations
in
mood and behavior. His family reported progressive
disorientation and memory loss over the last six month. The patient was diagnosed with
Alzheimer’s
disease. Which one of the following best describes the
disease?
Options
It results from accumulation of denatured proteins in the neurons
It is associated with abnormal Aβ-amyloid with altered amino acid sequence
It is associated with abnormal Aβ-amyloid with altered secondary structure
It is result from accumulation of lipids with long chain fatty acids
In etiopathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease the following may be implicated
Options
Tau protein
Amyloid precursor protein (APP)
Alpha-secretase
All of the aboveAlzheimer’s Aβ-amyloid is major component of
Options
Extracellular plaques.
Intracellular neurofibrillary tangles.
Cerebrospinal fluid.
Intravascular steaks.
Prions are type of
Options
586
Proteins
Bacterium
Primitive life form
Viruses
Origin of prion is
Options
RNA
DNA
Virus
Protein
All of the following statements about Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) are correct EXCEPT
Options
It is caused by prion
It is a neurodegenerative disease
It caused by Aβ-amyloid
Progressive dementia is a clinical sign
In Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) patients pathological study of brain tissue shows

spongiosis
(vacuolation of cortical grey matter) with neuronal loss, amyloid
plaques. These amyloid plaques contain:
OptionsAmylin
Prion
Immunoglobulins
Tau-protein
Progressive dementia is seen in
Options
Creutzfaldt-Jacob disease
Mad cow disease
All of the above
Localization of normal PrPC in nervous system
587
Options
Nerve cell membrane
Protein of blood-brain barrier (BBB)
Protein of cerebrospinal fluid
In synaptic cleft
All of the following are the properties of abnormal prion PrPSC EXCEPT
Options
It is stable
It is insoluble
Protease insensitive
It is rich by of α-helix
Which of the following is NOT a prion associated disease?
Options
Mad cow disease
Kuru
Creutzfaldt-Jakob diseaseAlzheimer disease
Neurofibrillary tangles that accumulate in the brain of Alzheimer’s patient is result of defect
in_______ structure of _______
Options
Secondary/ tau protein
Secondary/ amyloid precursor protein
Tertiary/ tau protein
Qaternary/Bence-Jones protein
In pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease all of the following may be implicated, EXCEPT
Options
Decrease alpha-secretase activity.
Microtubular tau protein polyphosphorylation.
Partial proteolysis of membrane APP protein.
Osmotic injury of neurons.
Protein that precipitates on heating to 450C and redisolves on boling is
Options
588
Bence-Jones protein
Albumin
Myosin
Microtubular tau- protein
Plasma differs from serum by
Options
Lipid content
Protein content
RBCs count
Glucose level
Plasma albumin performs all of the following functions, EXCEPT:
OptionsMaintenance of oncotic pressure.
Transport.
Nutritive.
Maintenance of water-electrolyte balance.0
Which one of the following substances does not require plasma protein for transport?
Options
Vitamin D
Fat
Glycerol
Copper ion
Level of which blood proteins fraction is higher?
Options
Albumin
α-globulins
γ-globuins
Fibrinogen
How many distinct bands of serum proteins are separated by paper electrophoresis?
Options
10
589
15
20
When a serum is electrophoresed, which of the following bands is normally absent?
Options
α1- globulin
α2-globulin
AlbuminFibrinogen
Plasma proteins are separated to individual proteins by all of the following methods, EXCEPT
Options
Electrophoresis
Salting out precipitation
Chromatography
Dialysis
Defense protein in plasma is
Options
Albumin
Angiotensinogen
Erythropoietin
Complement factor
Hypoalbuminemia is clinical feature of all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Chronic liver disease.
Protein malnutrition.
Acute liver disease.
Nephrotic syndrome.
Hypoproteinemia leads
Options
Decrease blood oncotic pressure.
Increase viscosity of blood.
590
Decrease blood ultrafiltration.
Increase time of coagulation.
Simple plasma protein is
OptionsCerruloplasmin
Transferrin
Albumin
Immunoglobulin
Which substance is in higher concentration in blood than in glomerular filtrate?
Options
Glucose
Urea
Proteins
Water
Ceruloplasmin is
Options
Ferroxidase
Protein of ETC
Final product of purine catabolism
Protein of the nucleus
Major transporter of drugs and lipophilic substances in plasma is
Options
Albumin
Fibrinogen
Complement
Immunoglobulin
Plasma protein is
Options
Protein kinase
Creatinine
Lipoprotein lipaseCarnitine
591
Which one of the following plasma proteins is NOT synthesized by the liver?
Options
Albumin
Immunoglobulin
Complement
Fibrinogen
Which one of the following plasma proteins has catalytic function?
Options
Transferrin
Ceruloplasmin
Albumin
Haptoglobin
Hemoglobin excretion into urine during hemolysis is prevented by
Options
T-cells
Albumin
Haptoglobin
Ceruloplasmin
Haptoglobin is
Options
The free hemoglobin-protein carrier in the blood.
The iron-protein carrier in the blood.
The enzyme ferroxidase.
Serine protease inhibitor (SERPINS).
Transferrin is
OptionsStorage form of iron.
Other form of hemoglobin.
Types of red blood cells.
592
Major transporter of iron in the plasma to bone marrow
Options
Ferritin
Fibrinogen
Transferrin
Hemoglobin
What is a diagnostic test for hepatocellular carcinoma?
Options
α1-Antitrypsin
α1-Fetoprotein
Haptoglobin
Transferrin
All of the following are about α1- fetoprotein correct EXCEPT
Options
It is blue colored, copper containing plasma protein
Present in high concentration in fetal blood
It is not present in healthy individual
Disappears from blood soon after birth
α1-antitripsin is
Options
Inhibitor of neutrophilic elastase.
Anticoagulant.
Antioxidant of RBCs.Activator of blood trypsinogen.
Which of the following plasma proteins is protease inhibitor?
Options
Transferrin
α1-fetoprotein
α1- antitrypsin
Ceruloplasmin
593
What is major function of Alpha1-antitrypsin ?
Options
Protease activator
Protease inhibitor
Stimulator of DNA repair
Inhibitor of thrombin
Smokers tend to develop emphysema more readily than non-smokers. This is due to
oxidation of
methionine residue in
Options
Pulmonary collagen.
Neutrophil elastase.
α1-antytrypsin.
Alveolar elastin.
α1-antitrypsin deficiency has been implicated in
Options
Kwashiorkor.
Acute and chronic inflammatory diseases.
Cirrhosis and emphysema.
Multiple myeloma.
Patient was diagnosed with Wilson’s disease. To confirm the diagnosis it is necessary to
study the
activity of the following enzyme in bloodOptions
α1-antitrypsin
Ceruloplasmin
Catalase
Willson’s disease is due to
Options
Deficiency of copper in diet
594
Abnormal accumulation of copper in liver
Defective copper absorption
Deficiency of copper in blood
Kayser-Fleicher rings (KF-rings) are seen in
Options
Hematochromatosis
Wilson disease
Wernike syndrome
Spina bifida
Pandey’s & Nonne-Appelt’s tests detect in cerebrospinal fluid
Options
Glucose
Chloride ion
Neutrophils
Globulins
Pandey’s and Nonne-Appelt’s tests are used techniques
Options
Colorimetric
Salting out precipitationSDS electrophoresis
Paper chromatography
The albumin quotient AQ = 40. This index indicates the following degree of blood-brain
barrier (BBB)
damage
Options
Slightly
Moderate
Severe
Complete
Antibodies are
Options
595
Carbohydrates.
Glycoproteins.
Nucleic acids.
Lipids.
All of the following about antibodies are true, EXCEPT
Options
They are glycoproteins.
They have same amino acids sequences.
They are synthesized by plasma cells.
They can bind antigen.
Each of the following is characteristic of antibodies, EXCEPT
Options
They are proteins with variable and constant regions.
They contain carbohydrates.
They can combine with antigen specifically.
They are secreted by the liver only.
All of the following about the Fc region of immunoglobulins are true, EXCEPTOptions
It can be disattached by papain from the Fab region
It is responsible for antigen binding.
It contains heavy chain.
Which plasma protein has two heavy chains and two light chains?
Options
Albumin
Fibrinogen
Globulin
Antibody
Following substance may act as an antigen
Options
596
Polysaccharides rich by glucose.
Polyunsaturated fatty acids.
Polyols such as glycerol.
Polysaccharides rich by mannose.
Which of the following is responsible for opsonization of bacteria in the blood?
Options
Complement C3b
Albumin
Cytokines
Monocyte
Immunoglobulin is example of
Options
Complex lipids.
Simple proteinOligossacharides
Conjugated protein
The largest immunoglobulin in size is
Options
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgG
In an immunoglobulin molecule the antigen binding capacity resides at the
Options
Constant region
Variable region
Joining (J) zone
Fraction crystallizable region (Fc)
Major function of variable N-terminal region of immunoglobulin is
Options
597
Activating of complement.
Recognizing of antigen.
Binding with other antibodies.
Activating of bacterial proteases.
Which one of the following immunoglobulins can cross the placenta and transfers mother’s
immunity to the fetus?
Options
IgA
IgG
IgE
IgDWhich one of the following isotypes of immunoglobulins is synthesized in response to

allergen
action?
Options
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgA
All of the following about IgE are true, EXCEPT
Options
It is the principal immunoglobulin involved in allergic reactions.
Low plasma level in healthy.
It can affect the release chemical mediators.
It activates complement.
Antibody present in colostrums is
Options
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgD
598
Which isotype of immunoglobulin is above?
Options
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgD
Agglutination reaction is strongest with the immunoglobulin
Options
IgGIgM
IgE
IgA
All of the following about IgM are true, EXCEPT
Options
It is pentamer.
It is glycoprotein.
It mediates allergic reaction.
It is major antibody n the primary response to antigen.
Antibody having high valency is
Options
IgG
IgM
IgE
IgD
Ochronosis is a feature of
Options
Albinism
Alkaptonuria
Phenylketonuria
Tyrosinosis
599
What are repeating units of DNA?
Options
Bases
Nucleotides
Sugars
PhosphatesHuman DNA rich by nucleotides
Options
A-T
G-C
A-U
None of the above
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons
49/70
Bacterial DNA rich by nucleotides
Options
A-T
G-C
A-U
None of the above
Purine base is
Options
Uracil
Thymine
Guanine
Cytosine
A purine nucleotide is
Options
AMP
600
UMP
CMP
TMP
Which metabolic pathway is passes in the nucleus?Options
DNA replication
Protein synthesis
Nucleotide synthesis
Genetic information of nuclear DNA is transmitted to the site of protein synthesis by
Options
Polysomes.
TRNA.
MRNA.
Proteosomes.
DNA makes DNA by
Options
Repair.
Replication.
Transcription.
Translation.
DNA makes RNA by
Options
Repair.
Replication.
Transcription.
Translation.
MRNA makes polypeptide by
Options
Repair.
Replication.Transcription.
601
Translation.
In sickle cell anemia the defect can be explained by the mutation
Options
Single point.
Frameshift.
Stop codon.
Trinucleotides repeat.
In human the main product of purine catabolism is
Options
Urea
Uric acid
β-alanine
Guanine
Uric acid is final product degradation of
Options
Purines.
Amino acids.
Proteins.
Creatine.
Nucleosides are composed from nitrogen base and
Options
Protein.
Pentose.
Alcohol.
Fatty acid.
Pyrimidine base isOptions
Thymine
Thiamine
Cysteine
602
Tocopherol
All of the following about IgG are true, EXCEPT
Options
Freely crosses the placenta.
Contains two antigen-binding sites.
The most abundant plasma immunoglobulin.
Is the main immunoglobulin in normal conjunctiva.
The major role of complement proteins in plasma
Options
Nutritional
Transport
Defense
Oncotic
Which of the following is correct about complement?
Options
The classical pathway is activated by antigen-antibody complexes
C5-C9 attacks the cell membrane of pathogens
The alternative pathway is activated by the membrane components of pathogens
All of the above are correct
Pyrimidine base is
Options
Thiamine
CysteineCytosine
Tocopherol
All of the following are principal functions of complement, EXCEPT
Options
Mediate the release of histamine.
Activate lysis of pathogens by MAC formation.
Opsonize pathogens.
Activate plasma cells to produce Ig.
603
C4b-C2b-C3b is composition of
Options
C1 convertase
C3 convertase
C5 convertase
C9 convertase
The principal nitrogenos urinary excretion product in human resulting from the catabolism
of AMP is
Options
Urea
Uric acid
Creatinine
Carnitine
C4b-C2b is composition of
Options
C1 convertase
C3 convertase
C5 convertase
C9 convertase
Inosine monophosphate is an intermediate during de novo synthesis ofOptions
AMP & GMP
CMP & TMP
CMP & UMP
All of these
5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate is required for the synthesis of
Options
Glycogen.
Nucleotides.
Histones.
Triacylglycerides.
604
Carbomoyl phosphate II is required for synthesis of
Options
Orotic acid
Uric acid
Cholesterol
Citric acid
Hereditary orotic aciduria may accompanying with
Options
Osteomalacia.
Hyperelasticity of skin.
Megaloblastic anemia.
Photophobia.
Increased level of blood uric acid are risk factors for development of
Options
Tumor
TophiAnemia
Fatty liver
All of the following statements about uric acid are true EXCEPT
Options
It is a catabolite of purines
It is excreted by the kidneys
It is catabolite of pyrimidines
It is present in plasma mainly as monosodium urate
Allopurinol prevents the conversion of
Options
IMP to GMP
Cytosine to uracil
Xanthine to uric acid
Ammonia to urea
605
Allopurinol lowers serum levels of
Options
Uric acid.
Glutamine.
Cholesterol
Urea
A 42-year-old male cancer patient undergoing radiation therapy develops severe pain in his
right big
toe. Laboratory analysis indicates an elevated serum urate
level and urate crystals in his urine. Which one of the following metabolic pathway is
activated in
this patient?
Options
Cholesterol degradation
Purine nucleotides degradation
Proteins degradationPyrimidine nucleotides degradation
Hyperuricemia leads
Options
Obesity.
Hypoglycemia.
Goiter.
Gout.
The salvage pathway for purines involves enzyme
Options
Hypoxanthine-guanosine phosphribosyl transferase (HGPRT).
Xanthine oxidase.
Phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP) synthase.
Adenosine deaminase (ADA).
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with deficiency of enzyme
Options
606
CPK
ADA
HGPRT
AST
A 10-year-old child with aggressive behavior is brought with presenting complaints of joint
pain and
reduced urinary output. Mother gives history of selfmutilitative
behavior (he tends to mutilate his fingers and lips). Which of the following enzymes is likely
to be
deficient in this child?
Options
HGPRT
ADA
PRPP
ASTA 10-year-old child with aggressive behavior is brought with presenting complaints of
joint pain and
reduced urinary output. Mother gives history of selfmutilitative
to be
Options
HGPRT
ADA
PRPP
AST
An important feature of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is
Options
Photophobia
Skin eruption
Hyperuricemia
Hyperammoniemia
607
Complement C3b is major
Options
Opsonin
Allergen
Allergen
Chemoattractant
Killer disease (SCID) disease is due to mutation affecting degradation of
Options
Hemoglobin.
Cholesterol.
Collagen.
Purines.
The major opsonin isOptions
C3b
C5b
C5b
C5b
Killer disease (SIDS) is due to deficiency of enzyme
Options
Adenosine deaminase.
Xanthine oxidase.
HGPRT.
PDH.
Complement C5b is major for
Options
Opsonization
Activation of leukocytes
Membrane attack complex
Chemotaxis
608
All of the following components are involved in classical pathway activation of complement
factors,
EXCEPT
Options
Adipsin
Complement C4
Complement C1
Immunoglobulins
All of the following components are involved in alternative pathway activation of

complement
factors, EXCEPT
Options
Factors B &D (adipsin).Factor P (properdin)
Liopolysaccharides.
Immunoglobulins.
All of the following statements about phenylketonuria are correct EXCEPT
Options
It can be controlled by giving a low-phenylalanine diet
Urinary excretion of phenylpyruvate and phenyllactate are increased
It leads to increased synthesis of thyroid hormones, catecholamines and

melanin
Phenylalanine cannot be converted to tyrosine
Formation of MAC on the surface of pathogen’s membrane is result of
Options
Cascade clotting reactions
Cloning of plasma cells
Differentiation T-cells
Cascade complements reactions
Complement C3a is major
Options
Opsonin
609
Allergen
Antigen
Chemoattractant
Tyrosine would be essential amino acids in the diet of a child with
Options
Lesch Nyhan syndrome
Huler’s syndrome
Killer disease (SIDS)
Classical phenylketonuriaOne of the clinical features of multiple myeloma patients is

renal failure that may be due to
Options
Formation of antibodies against tubular cells.
AL-amyloidosis of tubular cells.
Acidification of urine
Increasing of glomeruli integrity
Myeloma M-protein is
Options
Paraprotein
Misfolding protein
Complement 9
Fibrous unstable protein
For a substance to be classified as mutagen it must cause
Options
A change in DNA
Enzyme to denature
Enzyme inhibition
MRNA be produced
What is specific biochemical profile of multiple myeloma patients?
Options
Presence of Bence-Jones protein in the urine
610
Presence of Heinz bodies in RBCs
Hypocalciemia and vitamin D deficiency
Increase alkaline phosphatase activity
Regarding structure of protein
Options
Polypeptide is branched chain proteinProteins are polymers of α- and β-amino acids
“ Salt bond” is the synonym for peptide bond
Peptide bond is stabilized by resonance
Bence-Jones proteinuria can appear in patient with
Options
Ochronosis
Wilson disease
Multiple myeloma
Morfan syndrome
The confirm the multiple myeloma diagnosis it is necessary to determine the following
substance in
the patient’s urine
Options
Ceruloplasmin
Bence-Jones protein
Tamm-Horsfall protein
Bilirubin
The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of.
Options
The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of (A)Dehydration of

protein molecule by
salt (B)Diminished protein-protein interaction
(C)Neutralization of protein molecule by salt Elimination of non-electrolyte waste product
Diminished protein-protein interaction
Neutralization of protein molecule by salt
611
Elimination of non-electrolyte waste product
Bence-Jones protein is detected in the urine by
Options
Nitroprusside test
Heat testBiuret test
Salting out test
True about ATP synthase are all, EXCEPT
Options
On rotation produce 5 ATP
F0 unit functions as proton channel
γ subunit rotate
It is blocked by oligomycin
A 70-year old man presented with back pain, osteoporosis, hypercalciemia and loss of
weight. On
examination he has anemic. Serum analysis: Albumin 30 g/L
(normal: 35-50 g/L) Hemoglobin 8.5 g/dl (normal 13-18 g/dl) Serum protein electrophoretic
pattern
revealed a paraprotein in the γ-globulin region of IgG series.
Urine analysis: Bence-Jones protein was present. What your mostly likely diagnosis?
Options
Multiple myeloma
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Carcinoma of the pancreas
Cystic fibrosis
Coenzyme Q in the Electron transport chain
Options
Oxidizes glucose
Transfers electrons
Transfers phosphate to ADP
Reduced NADH
612
In chemiosmosis, ATP is produced as H+ pass through:
Options
ATP synthase
ATP decarboxylaseA series of electron carriers
The outer mitochondrial membrane
During aerobic respiration oxygen is
Options
Oxidized
Catabolized
Reduced
Formed
Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by
Options
Cyanide
Aluminium phosphatide
Phenobarbital
Carbonated beverage
35 – year-old woman has normal blood glucose level, but increase concentration of glucose
in the
urine. This condition may be bind with
Options
Decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Decrease integrity of tubular cells
Defect in SGLT-2
Defect in SGLT-1
Diffusion of glucose inside the RBCs requires
Options
Specific transporter GLUT
ATP
Concentration gradient
613
Proton gradient
Patient with defect of GLUT -1 has all of the following EXCEPTOptions
Decrease level of CSF glucose
Hemolytic anemia
Decrease insulin secretion
Episodes of seizures
Defect in SGLT - 1 may accompanying with decrease absorption of
Options
Glucose
Fatty acids
Amino acids
Cholesterol
Which of the following bacteria act by increasing cAMP?
Options
Salmonella
Vibrio cholera
Staphyloccus aureus
L-coli stable
High concentration of glucose content in oral rehydration drugs is necessary for
Options
Activation of GLUT-4
Inhibition of G-protein
Activation of SGLT-1
After overnight fasting levels of glucose transporters is decreased in
Options
Neurons
AdipocytesHepatocytes
Erythrocytes
614
Peptide bonds present in
Options
Lactase
Lactose
Glucose
Cholesterol
Each organism has unique combination of characteristics encoded in molecules of.
Options
Vitamins
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Protein
Phenylalanine is precursor of
Options
Histamine
Tyrosine
Aspartate
Methionine
MRNA is copied from DNA during a process called
Options
Replication
Transcription
Translation
Processing
The sugar found in DNA isOptions
Xylose
Ribose
Ribulose
Erythrose
615
following,
EXCEPT.
Options
Albumin
Oxaloacetic acid
Linoleic acid
Glutamic acid
Free ammonia is released during
Options
Oxidative deamination
Transamination
Amination
All of these
Extremely sensitive to ammonia toxicity
Options
Nervous system
Erythrocytes
Gastrointestinal system
Reproductive system
Ammonia transported from the muscle to liver mainly in the form of
Options
Aspartate
Albumin-ammonia complexAlanine
Ammonia-binding globulin
Excess ammonia in the cells inhibits TCA cycle due to depletion of
Options
Fumarate
Malonate
Citrate
616
α-ketoglutarate
The liver only is able to form urea because in other tissues absent enzyme
Options
Carbomoyl phosphate synthase I
Arginosuccinate synthase
Arginase
Ornithine transcarbomoylase
In response to metabolic acidosis biosynthesis of enzyme glutaminase increases in
Options
Liver
Brain
Kidney
Skin
NH3 is detoxified in muscles to
Options
Urea
Creatinine
Alanine
Uric acid
NH3 is detoxified in brain toOptions
Urea
Creatinine
Uric acid
Glutamine
Liver’s specific enzyme is
Options
Protein kinase
Hexokinase
Arginase
617
Citrate synthase
Organ that produces ammonia that is involved in the maintenance of acid-base balance
Options
Pancreas
Liver
Kidney
Stomach
The significance of urea cycle is to
Options
Detoxify ammonia
Solubilize of steroids before their excretion
Transport of alanine into cells
Pack lipid- like material into protein’s shell
Increased level of blood ammonia is risk factor for development of
Options
Encephalopathy
EdemaAnemia
Fatty liver
All of the following statements about glutamine is correct EXCEPT
Options
Sources of ammonia
Toxic compounds
Major aminoacid in blood
Present in brain
Blood urea increase in all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Renal failure
Liver cirrhosis
Decrease volume of the blood (hypovolemia)
618
Which of the following compound is precursor of urea?
Options
Pyrimidines
Cholesterol
Purines
Ammonia
Oxidative deamination is the conversion of an amino
Options
Group from an amino acid to a keto acid
Acid to a carboxylic acid plus ammonia
Acid to a ketoacid plus ammonia
Group from an amino acid to a carboxylic acid
Depletion of α-ketoglutarate during increased ammonia influx leads formation ofOptions
Arginine
Glutamine
Histamine
Ornithine
Dietary deficiency of vitamin B6 significantly affects the metabolism
Options
Amino acids by decreasing transamination reactions
Nucleic acids by increasing synthesis
Fatty acids by decreasing their activation
Carbohydrates by increasing glucosamine synthesis
An example of a transamination process is
Options
Gutamate = oxaloacetate + NH3
Aspartate + alanine = pyruvate + oxaloacetate
Aspartate + α ketoglutarate = glutamate + oxaloacetate
619
Glutamate = α-ketoglutarate + NH3
Transamination is the process where
Options
Carboxyl group is transferred from amino acid
α-amino group is removed from the amino acid
Polymerisation of amino acid takes place
None of the above
The most toxic compounds is
Options
Tyrosine
PhenylpyruvateLysine
Phenylalanine
In the normal metabolism of phenylalanine, it is initially converted to
Options
Fumarate
Tyrosine
Lysine
Phenylpuruvate
Melanine is derived from
Options
Cholesterol
Tyrosine
Bilirubin
Leucine
All of the following are synthesized from tyrosine, EXCEPT
Options
Melanin
Aldosterone
Thyroxin
620
Epinephrine
Homogentisic oxidase deficiency leads all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Black urine
Albinism
Arthritis
Ochronosis
Phenylketonuria (PKU) patient can not convertOptions
Phenol to ketones
Phenylalanine to tyrosine
Phenylalanine to isoleucine
α-ketoglutarate to glutamate
A person with phenylketonuria cannot convert phenylalanine to
Options
Isoleucine
Lysine
Tyrosine
Serine
Question (1/320)
A person with phenylketonuria is advised not to consume which of the following products?
Options
Aspartam
Glucose
Fat
Cholesterol
Catecolamines are derived from
Options
Bilirubin
Tyrosine
621
Palmitic acid
Cholesterol
Phenylalanine rich diet are
Options
FruitsVegetables
Juice
Meat
Which one of the following statements about albinic person is false?
Options
Skin is hypopigmented
Mental retarded
Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes
Decrease activity of tyrosine hydroxylase
Maple syrup urine disease is an inborn error of metabolism of
Options
Aromatic amino acids
Saturated fatty acids
Branched chain amino acids
Polyenic fatty acids
Cystinuria is due to
Options
Increased level of blood cysteine
Defective renal reabsorption
Alkalization of urinary pH
Excess endogenous production
Ochronosis is a feature of ?
Options
Albinism
Alkaptonuria
622
Phenylketonuria
TyrosinosisWhat are repeating units of DNA
Options
Bases
Nucleotides
Sugars
Phosphates
Human DNA rich by nucleotides ?
Options
A-T
G-C
A-U
None of the above
Bacterial DNA rich by nucleotides?
Options
A-T
G-C
A-U
None of the above
Purine base is ?
Options
Uracil
Thymine
Guanine
Cytosine
A purine nucleotide is ?
Options
AMPUMP
CMP
623
TMP
The symptoms of retinol excess are
Options
Bone fragility
Nausea
Weakness
All of these
Main function of insulin hormone is to
Options
Increase glycogen in liver
Decrease glycogen in liver
Increase blood sugar
Decrease blood sugar
Ascorbic acid acts as an
Options
Reducing agent
Oxidizing agent
Oxidizing and reducing agent both
None of the above
A deficiency of thiamin produces the disease known as
Options
Beri-beri
Scurvy
Cataract
AnemiaAcyl carrier protein (ACP) plays an important role in the biosynthesis of
Options
Fatty acids
Amino acids
Sugars
624
Carbohydrates
Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) is only synthesized by
Options
Fishes
Micro-organisms
Plants
Animals
Which of the following are reduced coenzymes?
Options
NADH and FADH2
NAD+and FAD
ATP and GTP
Coenzyme A and ubiquinone
The absence of ascorbic acid in the human diet gives rise to
Options
Rickets
Pernicious anemia
Cataract
Beri-beri
Vitamins are essential because the organism
Options
Can't synthesize these compounds at allCan synthesize these compounds partially
Can't synthesize these compounds in the adequate amounts
None of the above
The prosthetic group biotin is a carrier of which type of molecule?
Options
Activated carbon dioxide (CO2)
Ammonia
Methyl group
625
Sulfhydryl group
Lipoic acid exists in
Options
Oxidized form
Reduced form
Oxidized and reduced from both
None of these
Vitamins B12 is useful in the prevention and treatment of
Options
Pernicious anemia
Scurvy
Cataract
Beri-beri
An example of a digestive hormone is
Options
Lipase
Pepsin
Amylase
GastrinIn the co-enzyme B12 the position occupied by a cyanide ion in vitamin B12 is
bonded directly to
_______ of the ribose of adenosine.
Options
Adenine
5-6 dimethylbenzimidazole
Hydroxycobalamin
Cyanocobalamin
The complex of RNA polymerase, DNA template and new RNA transcript is called
Options
Transcription bubble
Replication bubble
626
A translation bubble
None of these
RNA polymerase in prokaryotes has a removable
Options
Alpha subunit
Beta subunit
Gamma subunit
Sigma subunit
Promoters for tRNAs are located
Options
Upstream from the start codon
Downstream from the start codon
Both(a) and (b)
None of these
The binding of lac repressor to DNA could be considered to be analogous to
Options
Competitive inhibition of an enzymeMixed-type inhibition of an enzyme
Uncompetitive inhibition of an enzyme
Allosteric efforts in enzyme regulation
Rho-dependent termination of transcription in E. coli
Options
Requires ATP
Requires about 50 nucleotides of uncomplexed mRNA
Both(a) and (b)
Removes mRNA and holoenzyme from the DNA
Enhancers are regions that
Options
Bind RNA polymerase
Are adjacent to the TATA box
Are CAT box binding proteins
627
Modulate transcription
The conformational changes from the T to the R state is initiated by
Options
Binding of oxygen to the heme
Movement of the proximal histidine towards the heme
Movement of the F-helix, which contains the proximal His
Reorganization of protein-protein contacts between the individual subunits
An allosteric activator
Options
Increases the binding affinity
Decreases the binding affinity
Decreases the R state of the protein
Stabilizes the M state of the proteinBisphosphoglycerate (BPG) cannot bind to the

oxygenated R state of hemoglobin because
Options
It is displaced from the heme by oxygen
It is displaced from the heme by movement of the proximal histidine
Its binding pocket becomes too small to accommodate BPG
BPG binds to the R state with the same affinity as the T state
The Hill coefficient (nH) for myoglobin and hemoglobin are respectively
Options
2.8 and 1.0
1.0 and 2.8
1.2 and 4.5
4.5 and 1.2
When protein binds two ligands in a non-cooperative manner, then the x-intercept of the
Scatchard
Plot is
Options
628
2
Not defined
None of the above
O2 binding to hemoglobin results in
Options
100-fold higher affinity for the last O2 bound than for the first
Extensive lipid confirmational change
50-fold lower affinity for the last O2 bound than for the first
In hemoglobin, allosteric effects occur
Options
Only in humansFor maintaining Fe in the Fe2+ state
To minimize oxygen delivery to the tissues
To maximize oxygen delivery to the tissues
A protein that binds two ligands in a non-cooperative manner will show
Options
A sigmodial binding curve
A hyperbolic binding curve
A circular Scatchard Plot
A 'L ' shaped binding curve
Small molecules affect hemoglobin (Hb) by
Options
Decreasing Hb affinity for 02
Increasing [H +]
Increasing Hb affinity for 02
Increasing [H +] and decreasing Hb affinity for 02
The specificity of a ligand binding site on a protein is based on
Options
The absence of competing ligands
629
The amino acid residues lining the binding site
The presence of hydrating water molecules
The opposite chirality of the binding ligand
Histidine is degraded to a-ketoglutarate and is described as a
Options
Gluco amino acid
Glucogenic amino acid
Ketogenic amino acid
Keto-gluco amino acidWhich of the following amino acids is considered as both ketogenic
and glucogenic?
Options
Valine
Tryptophan
Lysine
None of these
A glucogenic amino acid is one which is degraded to
Options
Keto-sugars
Either acetyl CoA or acetoacetyl CoA
Pyruvate or citric acid cycle intermediates
None of the above
Which of the following is the best described glucogenic amino acid?
Options
Lysine
Tryptophan
Valine
None of these
A person with phenylketonuria cannot convert
Options
630
Phenol into ketones
Phenylalanine to lysine
Oxidative deamination is the conversion of an amino,
Options
Group from an amino acid to a keto acidAcid to a carboxylic acid plus ammonia
Acid to a keto acid plus ammonia
An example of a transamination process
Options
Glutamate = hexanoic acid + NH3
Aspartate + hexanoic acid = glutamate + oxaloacetate
Aspartate + a ketoglutarate = glutamate + oxaloacetate
Glutamate = a-ketoglutarate + NH3
Transamination is the process where.
Options
A-amino group is removed from the amino acid
None of the above
The most toxic compounds is.
Options
Tyrosine
Phenylpyruvate
Lysine
Phenylalanine
Options
Glycine containing foods
Fat containing food
631
Glucose
AspartameTyrosine is degraded to acetoacetyl CoA and fumarate and is described as a
Options
Ketogenic and glucogenic amino acid
Keto-gluco amino acid
Transaminase enzymes are present in
Options
Liver
Pancreas
Intestine
None of these
An example of the oxidative deamination is
Options
Aspartate + a-ketoglutarate = glutamate + oxaloacetate
Aspartate + hexanoic acid = glutamate + Oxaloacetate
In the normal breakdown of phenylalanine, it is initially degraded to
Options
Fumarate
Tyrosine
Lysine
Phenylpuruvate
Transamination is the transfer of an amino
Options
Acid to a carboxylic acid plus ammoniaGroup from an amino acid to a keto acid
632
Lysine is degraded to acetoacetyl CoA and is described as a
Options
None of these
A ketogenic amino acid is one which degrades to
Options
Keto-sugars
Multiple intermediates including pyruvate or citric acid cycle intermediates and acetyl CoA
or
acetoacetyl CoA
A best described ketogenic amino acid is
Options
Lysine
Tryptophan
Valine
None of these
A person suffering from phenylketonuria on consumption food containing high

phenylalanine may
lead to the accumulation of
Options
Phenylalanine
Phenylpyruvate
TyrosineIsoleucine
Which of those immunoglobulin classes is mainly found in external secretions?
Options
633
IgA
IgD
IgM
IgE
Cleavage of an lgG molecule by a specific protease can produce
Options
An antigen-binding site and two constant regions
Two heavy chain-light chain dimers
An inactive mixture of oligopeptides
Two Fab fragments and one Fe fragment
Papain digest lgG into
Options
Three Fab fragments and two Fe fragments
Two Fab fragments and two Fe fragments
Three Fab fragments and three Fe fragments
Antibodies can be used
Options
For the localization of proteins in the cell
For protein purification
To catalyze chemical reactions
All of the above
Type A blood
OptionsCan be used to donate to type AB individuals
Can be used to donate to type B individuals
Contains type B antigens on the surface of red blood cells
Can always be used to donate to an Rh+ individual
Which of the following are responsible for immune specificity?
Options
634
Antigens
Antibodies
T lymphocytes
Macrophage
Which species lack immunoglobulin light chains?
Options
Camels
Humans
Cows
Buffalo
Monoclonal refers to
Options
A single clone of antibody-producing cells
All the antibody molecules which are identical
The binding with same antigenic site with identical binding affinities
All of the above
β-Lymphocytes are often called simply
Options
B cells
Tcells
T LymphocytesNone of these
IgE provides
Options
Immunity against some parasites
Complement killings of the cells and phagocytosis
Secretions in the body
All of the above
Fab fragment has
Options
635
One antigen binding site
Two antigen binding site
One antibody binding site
Two antibody binding site
The main function of antibodies is to
Options
Kill all the foreign bodies
Generate antigens, thus conferring immunization
Protect the circulatory system
Chemically combine with the antigen which induces it, inactivate the antigen
and protect the body
from disease
Alum is an effective adjuvant because it
Options
Disaggregates the antigen.
Is immunogenic for stem cells
Is immunogenic for T cells
Slows the release of antigen
A secondary antibody is an antibody that
OptionsHas been used in prior experiments
Is synthetically produced
Binds to another antibody
Is produced in boostered animals
The immunoglobulin fold is
Options
Found only in IgG molecules
A fl-barrel composed of a three- and a four-stranded antiparallel fl-sheet
Found only in IgM molecules
Found six times in the IgG molecule
For specific antigen recognition by T cells,
636
Options
Antigen is bound by a T cell membrane antibody
Denaturation of antigen does not reduce epitope recognition
MHC molecules are not required
Antigen exposure during T cell maturation is required
Antigen, when injected in the body activates its specific lymphocytes in the
Options
Blood circulation
Draining lymph nodes
MALT (mucosa associated
Spleen lymphoid tissue
A molecule that can be covalently linked to a non-immunogenic antigen to make it an

immunogen is
called a (n)
Options
Adjuvant
Carrier
HaptenMitogen
Which of the following is incorrect with regard to antigen epitopes?
Options
An epitope may be shared by two different antigens
A protein molecule usually contains multiple epitopes
B cells bind only processed antigen epitopes
Epitopes may be linear or assembled
Very low doses of antigen may induce
Options
Hypersensitivity
Immunological ignorance
Low zone tolerance
Low zone immunity
637
During the lag period between antigen contact and detection of adaptive immunity,
Options
Antigen is hidden from the immune system in macrophages
Innate immune effectors are eliminating antigen
Innate immunity blocks the activation of adaptive immune effector cells
New B and T cells with the appropriate antigen specificity must be produced in the bone
marrow
Lymphocytes are activated by antigen in the
Options
Blood stre
Bone marrow
Liver
Lymph nodes
A pathogen can be a (n)
OptionsAgent that causes a disease
Virus
Bacteria
All of All of these
CD antigens
Options
Allow leukocytes to recognize antigen
Are each expressed on only one cell type
Are expressed on immune cells to mark them for separation
Function as receptors for cytokine and CAMs
A virus vaccine that can activate cytotoxic T cells must contain
Options
A high dose of virus particles
An adjuvant to stimulate T cell division
Live virus
Virus peptides
638
The ability of an antigen to induce an immune response does not depend on the antigen's
Options
Ability to enter the thyroid
Degree of aggregation
Dose
Size
The antibiotic penicillin is a small molecule that does not induce antibody formation.
However,
penicillin binds to serum proteins and forms a complex that in
some people induces antibody formation resulting in an allergic reaction. Penicillin is

therefore
Options
An antigen
AhaptenAn immunogen
Both an antigen and a hapten
Membrane potential and the proton gradient
Options
Are both required to make ATP
Are sufficient, separately, to make ATP from ADP + Pi;
Reinforce one another when respiratory inhibitors are present
Cancel one another when uncouplers are present
The irreversibility of the thiokinase reactions (formation of initial acyl-CoA?
Options
Make this activation reaction the committed step on the pathway
Is NOT due to the subsequent hydrolysis of the product
Applies only to even-chain fatty acids
Applies only to even-chain amino acids
Long-chain fatty acids are oxidized step-wise in one carbon units starting from the
Options
Carboxyl end
639
Aliphatic end
Aromatic end
Amino end
How many molecules of acetyl-CoA are produced in oxidation of palmitic acid (C16), which
involves
seven rounds of oxidation?
Options
The oxidation of methanol ( wood alcohol) in human retina tissue leads directly to the
formation ofOptions
Formaldehyde
Sugars
C02
None of these
The maximum energy per gram on oxidization is yielded from.
Options
Fat
Protein
Glycogen
Starch
The oxidation of methanol (wood alcohol) in human retina tissue indirectly leads to
Options
Pressure builds up
Colour blindness
Blindness
All of these
Each cycle of fl-oxidation produces
640
Options
1 FADH2, 1 NAD+, and 1 acetyl-CoA
1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 1 acetyl-CoA
1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 2 CO2 molecules
The three identical b subunits of the F1, complex during ATP synthesis have
Options
Different affinities for ATP but not for ADP
Different affinities for ADP but not for ATPDifferent affinities for ATP and for ADP
Similar affinities for ADP and ATP
Where the acyl-CoA formed in the cytosol is transported for oxidation?
Options
Microsomes
Remains in cytosol
The transport of acyl-CoA for oxidation using a shuttle involves formation of the
intermediate
Options
3 acetyl-CoA
Aldehyde-coenzyme A
Acyl-coenzyme A
None of these
Fructose is metabolized by
Options
Fructose I-phosphate pathway
Fructose 8-phosphate pathway
Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate pathway
Galactose pathway
641
A common way that cells capture the energy released during the breakdown of large
molecules is to
add electrons to smaller, specialized molecules that can
accept them. This process of electron acceptance is otherwise known as
Options
Biosynthesis
Metabolism
Reduction
CatalysisHumans are unable to digest.
Options
Starch
Denatured proteins
Cellulose
How many ATP equivalents per mole of glucose input are required for gluconeogenesis?
Options
Which of the following compounds is responsible for coordinated regulation of glucose and
glycogen
metabolism?
Options
NAD+
Acetyl-CoA
Gluconeogenesis requires a higher amount of ATP equivalents as compared to that

produced by
glycolysis because
642
Options
Gluconeogenesis releases energy as heat
Glycolysis releases energy as heat
Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria while gluconeogenesis occurs in the cytosol
All of the above
Which of the following is carried out when cAMP functions as a second messenger?
OptionsActs second in importance to AMP
Activates all cytosolic protein kinases
Activates the cAMP-dependent protein kinase
Acts outside the cell to influence cellular processes
The production or break down of ______ is often coupled with the metabolic reactions of
biosynthesis and catabolism.
Options
Aspirin
DNA
ATP
C02
The cells dependent solely on glucose as an energy source are
Options
Muscle cells
Brain cells
Kidney cells
Liver cells
The main site for gluconeogenesis is
Options
Kidney
Liver
Brain
Muscle
643
Which of the following statements about the energy needs of cells is false?
Options
Without a continuous input of energy, cell disorder will increase
The laws of thermodynamics force cells to acquire energy
Many cellular reactions have an associated activation energyThe most usable energy for
cells comes from the rapid combustion of glucose
In lysozyme catalysis, which of the following does not contribute?
Options
The abnormally high pKa of Glu35
The strained conformation of the D sugar
Formation of a covalent intermediate at Asp52
Formation of a covalent intermediate at Ser195
Cellulose fibers resemble with the protein structure in the form of
Options
B-sheets
A-helices
B-turns
None of these
During vigorous exercise, pyruvate produced by glycolysis is converted to
Options
Acetate
Lactate
Monosodium phosphate
Pyruvic acid
Glucagon and epinephrine
Options
Inhibits gluconeogenesis and stimulates glycolysis
Stimulates gluconeogenesis and glycolysis
Stimulates gluconeogenesis and inhibits glycolysis
Inhibits gluconeogenesis and glycolysis
644
The NAG6 substrate is hydrolyzed by human lysozyme to form
Options6 glucosamines + 6 acetic acids
NAG4 + NAG2
NAG3 + NAG3
NAG3
Gluconeogenesis uses
Options
ATPs and 2 GTPs per glucose
2 ATPs and 1 GTPs per glucose
Saliva contains all of the following EXCEPT :
Options
Hormones
Amylase
Bacteria-killing enzymes
Antibodies
The conversion ofpyruvate to oxaloacetate
Options
Requires biotin
Involves the fixation of carbon dioxide
All of the above
Gluconeogenesis is the
Options
Formation of glycogen
Breakdown of glucose to pyruvate
Breakdown of glycogen to glucoseSynthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate

precursors
Hydrolysis oflactose yields
645
Options
Galactose and glucose
Glucose and fructose
Two major products of pentose phosphate pathway are
Options
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide and ribose 5-phosphate
Flavine adenine dinuclueotide and glucose 5-phosphate
FAD and CoA
NADPH and NAD
A catabolic intermediate which stimulates phosphofructokinase would stimulate.
Options
Gluconeogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogen synthesis
None of these
Pyruvate is initially converted to which of the following in the gluconeogenesis?
Options
Glycerol
Phosphoenol pyruvate
Oxaloacetate
Acetyl CoA
Boat and chair conformations are found
OptionsIn pyranose sugars
In any sugar without axial -OH groups
In any sugar without equatorial-OH groups
Only in D-glucopyranose
The conversion of pyruvate to lactate is catalysed by
646
Options
Pyruvate dismutase
Which of the following can act as precursors for gluconeogenesis?
Options
Lactate
Glycerol
Alanine
All of these
A-amylose is similar to
Options
B-sheets
B-turned coils
A-helices
The hydrophobic core
Storage polysaccharide made by animals is.
Options
Amylopectin
Glycogen
CelluloseCollagen
The glycosidic bond
Options
In maltose is not hydrolyzed in lactose intolerant humans
In sucrose is not hydrolyzed by bees
Joins glucose and fructose to form sucrose
In maltose is not hydrolyzed in fructose intolerant humans
The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is
647
Options
Ribose
Galactose
Mannose
Maltose
Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to
Options
Acetyl CoA
Lactate
Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
Which of the following is not a disaccharide?.
Options
Amylose
Cellobiose
Lactose
None of these
Hexokinase activity in glycolysis is inhibited by
OptionsGlucose 6- phosphate
Fructose 6-phosphate
Fructose 1,6 biphosphate
Phosphofructokinase
The ultimate source of energy that sustains living systems is
Options
Glucose
Oxygen
Sunlight
Carbon dioxide
Citric acid accumulation would
648
Options
Stimulate phosphofructokinase activity
Stimulate fructose 1,6 diphosphatase activity
Do not Inhibit phosphofructokinase activity
Stimulate phosphoglycerate activity
Which of the following is not involved in the biosynthesis of DNA?
Options
Energy from ATP
Mononucleotides
Carbonic anhydrase
Enzymes
Which of the following would be considered a part of metabolism?.
Options
The capture of light energy for use in making glucoseAll of the above
INSULIN
Options
What is present in the stomach to prevent self-digestion?
Options
Mucus
Acid
Enzymes
Hormones
Small charged molecules, often biogenic amines function as
649
Options
Hormones
Neuroinhibitors
Enzyme associations
Enzyme denaturation
SH2 domains specifically bind to
Options
Phosphorylated serine residues
Phosphorylated tyrosine residues
GDP
Ca2+
Simple nerve reflexes use signaling molecules called
OptionsNeurotransmitters
Nitric oxides
G proteins
Proteases
Which of the following is not a type of signaling molecule
Options
Testosterone
Insulin
Thyroxin
Adenylate cyclas
Self-phosphorylation is an excellent mechanism for triggering specific catalytic function of

the
proteins involved in signal cascades because it
Options
Changes the shape and thus the enzymatic activity of the proteins involved
Makes the receptor more likely to capture the signaling, molecule
Allows hydrophilic signaling molecules to cross the plasma membrane
None of the above
650
Which of the following statements about G proteins is false?
Options
They are involved in signal cascades
They bind to and are regulated by guanine nucleotides
They become activated when bound to GDP
They must be active before the cell can make needed cAMP
When a................. reaches its......................here is a specific means of receiving it and acting

on the
message. This task is the responsibility of specialized
proteins called _____
Options
Signaling molecule; receptor; G proteinsSignaling molecule; target cell; G proteins
Signaling molecule; target cell; receptors
Kinase; receptor; proteases
Why is it that inhaling nitric oxide reduces blood pressure only in the lung tissue and not
elsewhere
in the body*?
Options
Because other body tissues use a different signaling molecule
Because nitric oxide cannot cross cell membranes and enter the blood
Because nitric oxide breaks down quickly and thus cannot travel far
None of the above
Which of the following comes under the category of cell surface receptor?
Options
Enzyme linked receptors
Ion-channel linked receptors
G protein linked receptors
All of these
Which of the following is true about a hydrophilic signaling molecule?
Options
651
Its receptor is located in the cytosol of the target cell
It might trigger a signal cascade that causes some effect in a cell
Since it can enter the cell, it directly affects some specific cell process
It is a steroid
CAMP and cGMP are derived from
Options
ATP and GTP by the actions of adenylate cyclase and guanylate cyclase
respectively
GTP and ATP none of the above by the actions of adenylate cyclase and guanylate cyclase
respectively
ATP and GTP by the actions of guanylate cyclase and adenylate cyclase respectivelyNone of
the above
Nitroglycerin has long been administered to human patients suffering from chronic chest
pain
(angina). This medication works because it
Options
Mimics the action of signal receptors
Is broken down into hormones that affect the heart
Interferes with chemical cascades that trigger contraction of heart muscle
Breaks down into nitric oxide, which increases blood flow to the heart
If a disease of the blood vessels caused the endothelial cells of the vessel to die, what effect
would
that have on the cellular activities associated with
vasodilation?
Options
Nitric oxide would no longer be produced
Smooth muscle cells could not be made to relax
It would be more difficult to increase blood flow and reduce blood pressure
All of the above
In terms of cell communication, what do bacterial pathogens such as cholera and anthrax
have in
common?
652
Options
They destroy the receptors for key signaling molecules
They prevent the production of key signaling molecules
They alter the chemical structure of key signaling molecules
They block the normal functioning of signal transduction mechanisms
What is the name of the protein signaling molecule that alters glucose uptake, and where
would its
receptors be located?
Options
Insulin; many different cell types that use glucose for fuel
Insulin; beta cells of the pancreas
PDGF; the bloodNGF; the nerves involved in simple reflexes
In the signal transduction mechanism known as protein phosphorylation
Options
The signaling molecule binds to a surface receptor
Receptor kinases play a key role in triggering the signal cascade
Phosphorylated proteins act with enzymes to trigger the signal cascade
All of the above
Cell signaling can be classified into
Options
Three distinct types based on the distance over which the signaling molecules
act
Two distinct types based on the distance over which the signaling molecules act
Three distinct types based on the signaling molecules
None of the above
Which of the following statement is correct?
Options
Cell communicate with one another in multicellular organisms using

extracellular signaling
molecules or hormones
653
Cell communicate with one another in unicellular organisms using extracellular signaling
antigen and
antibody
Cell communicate with one another in multicellular organisms using intracellular signaling
molecules
only
Cell communicate with one another in unicellular organisms using intracellular signaling
antigen and
antibody
In vasodilation, proper nerve signals sent to blood vessels cause
Options
The release of nitric oxide from endothelial cells
Relaxation of smooth muscle cells
Reduced blood pressure
All of the aboveA cell is known to respond to a particular signaling molecule. Which of the
following must be true of
this cell?
Options
It is in the heart muscle
It is also the site of production for the signaling molecule
It contains the receptor for the signaling molecule
It is incapable of signal transduction
The enzyme that catalyzes the splitting of PIP2 into two molecules of inositol triphosphate
(IP3) and
diacylglycerol in cell signaling, is
Options
Phosphokinase C
Phospholipase C
Phosphodiesterase C
Lipokinase
The binding ofligands to many G-proteins linked receptors leads to shortlived
Options
654
Increase in the concentration of certain intracellular signaling molecules
called second messenger
Decrease in the concentration of certain intracellular signaling molecules called second

messenger
Increase in the concentration of certain extracellular signaling molecules called first

messenger
Decrease in the concentration of certain extracellular signaling molecules called first

messenger
Which of the following processes involve the combining of a message from one signaling
molecule
with that of another o either enhance or inhibit a cellular
effect?
Options
Signal transduction
Signal reception
Signal integration
Signal amplification
A signal cascade induced by adrenaline or thyroxineOptions
Must begin with receipt of the signal molecule by a surface receptor
Involves the activation of a G protein
Results in the activation of a sequence of enzymes needed for the cell effect
All of the above
Which of the following is a second messenger?
Options
Lnositol 1,4,5-triphosphate
Diacyl inositol
Phospholipase C
Deoxy acetophosphate C
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Options
The principal lipophilic hormones that binds to receptors located in the plasma membranes
are
655
prostaglandins
Prostaglandins are synthesized from arachidonic acid
Prostaglandins act as paracrine signaling molecules
None of the above
Two key organizing principles for large multicellular organisms are
Options
Prokaryotic cell structure and cell specialization
Cell specialization and communication between cells
Communication between cells and simple nerve reflexes
Simple nerve reflexes and cell specialization
Which of the following is a hormone whose action requires a cell surface receptor?
Options
Nitric oxide
ProgesteroneAdrenaline
Growth factors
The hormone or ligand can be considered as
Options
First messenger
Second messenger
Third messenger
Fourth messenger
The major second messengers are
Options
CAMP
CGMP
DAG
All of these
The signaling molecules called steroid hormones
Options
656
Are made in one location of the body but have their effects some distance
away
Are hydrophilic and so cannot penetrate the plasma membrane
Bind to cell surface receptors to trigger chemical cascades
Never enter the blood of humans
Which of the following two organelles look most alike structurally?
Options
Nucleus and vesicle
Golgi apparatus and smooth endoplasmic reticulum ER
Vacuole and cytoskeleton
Lysosome and chloroplast
In terms of basic cell structure, what do an elephant and an oak tree have in
common?Options
They both are eukaryotes
They both have a cell nucleus
They both have mitochondria
All of the above
Where in a eukaryotic cell, DNA can be found?
Options
Nucleus
Cytoplasm
Vacuole
Cell junction
Which of the following structures is expected in a bacterium?
Options
Nucleus
Plasma membrane
Golgi apparatus
657
Which of the following organelles is directly connected to the outer membrane of the
nucleus in a
eukaryotic cell?
Options
Mitochondrion
Lysosome
Golgi apparatus
Microtubules, motor proteins, and actin filaments are all part of
Options
The mechanism of photosynthesis that occurs in chloroplasts
The rough ER (endoplasmic reticulum) in prokaryotic cellsThe cytoskeleton of

eukaryotic cells
The process that moves small molecules across cell membranes
A certain cell organelle which is made of a double phospholipid bilayer that has many large
pores in
it, is most likely
Options
The nuclear envelope
The plasma membrane
The mitochondrion
The cytoskeleton
Which of the following cell organelles are expected to be associated with motor proteins?
Options
Smooth ER
Vesicles
Plasma membrane
Chloroplasts
Eukaryotic cells are more efficient than prokaryotes because their internal
compartmentalization
Options
658
Makes each compartment nutritionally independent of all others
Allows for specialization through the subdivision of particular tasks
Allows for specialization through merging of different tasks
Reduces overall cell size
An organism’s first line of defense against attack by an invader such as a virus or bacterium
is usually
Options
To flee or hide
Its body wall
A specific immune response
A nonspecific immune response
The simplest way to differentiate a prokaryotic cell from a eukaryotic one is toOptions
Look for a plasma membrane
See if a nucleus is present
Check for the presence of DNA
Determine if the cell is an entire organism or not
Which of the following is the best criterion for deciding whether a cell is prokaryotic or
eukaryotic?
Options
The cell came from a single-celled or multicelled organism
The cell has a nucleus or not
The cell has cytosol or not
DNA is present in the cell or not
Lysosomes are specialized vesicles in __________ that contain digestive enzymes for the
breakdown
of food. A related organalle known as a vacuole, which is
found in __________ , also contains enzymes but in addition may act as a storage organelle
for
nutrients or water.
Options
Animals; plants and fungi
659
Plants; animals and fungi
Plants and fungi; animals
Animals and plants; fungi
The highly folded membranes found in such eukaryotic organelles as mitochondria and
chloroplasts
Options
Increase the surface area where key chemical processes can occur
Help the cell against physical damage
Make it possible to package large amounts of DNA within the cell
Assist with cell movement
Thin layer chromatography is
OptionsPartition chromatography
Electrical mobility of ionic species
None of the above
In gas chromatography, the basis for separation of the components of the volatile material is
the
difference in
Options
Partition coefficients
Conductivity
Molecular weight
Molarity
In reverse phase chromatography, the stationary phase is made
Options
Non-polar
Polar
Either non-polar or polar
None of these
Ion exchange chromatography is based on the
660
Options
Electrostatic attraction
Partition chromatography
The general expression for the appearance of a solute in an effluent is (where V is the
elution
volume of a substance , V0 void volume, kD distribution constant
and Vi internal water volume)
Options
V = V0 + kDViV = V0/Vi
V = V0 – kDVi
V/V0 = kDVi
The HIV virus infects primarily
Options
Brain cells
Cells in the immune system
Red blood cells
Liver cells
Chronic granulomatous disease results from a failure to perform oxidative burst. This
deficiency
would be most likely to interfere with
Options
CTL killing of viruses
Dendritic cell activation to become a mature APC
Infected cell processing of virus peptides
Macrophage intracellular killing of bacteria
Difficulties with somatic gene therapy arise from all of the following except
Options
GVHD caused by mature T cells in the transplanted cells
661
Inserting a gene so that it will function properly
Limited life span of more mature hematopoietic cells
Transducing genetic material into stem cells
A monoclonal antibody (mAb) specific for the 2,4-dinitrophenyl (DNP) hapten might also
bind
Options
Leu or Ileu
His or Pro
Tyr or Phe
Ser or ThrRetinoblastoma is due to a mutation in a
Options
Kinase
Tumor supressor
Cyclin
Viral gene
An autoimmune disease is
Options
AIDS
Measles.
Lupus
Mumps
If Class IIMHC is not expressed in the thymus, the resulting immune deficiencies would
include all of
the following except reduced
Options
Alternative complement activation.
CD8 T cell-mediated cytotoxicity
Macrophage activation to vesicular pathogens
IgG synthesis
Specific translocations are associated with
662
Options
Colon cancer
Breast cancer
Pancreatic cancer
Some leukemias
To treat HIV infections using drugs, the major problem is that
Options
The drugs that are good inhibitors cannot by synthesizedThe drugs interfere with normal
digestion
The virus particles with altered (mutant) proteases arise
The drugs are rapidly degraded
The primary reason for AIDS, a deadly disease is that it
Options
Is caused by a virus
Is caused by a bacterium
Destroys key components of the body’s internal defense system
Causes a breakdown of the body’s inflammatory response
A selective IgA deficiency would be expected to result in problems with
Options
Bacterial infections
Infections following dental work due to bacteria entering the bloodstream
Mucosal pathogens
Pathogens which can survive inside macrophages
Combined cellular and humoral immune deficiencies result from lack of all of the following
except
Options
A thymus
Class II MHC
HIV infection of CD4+ T cells
Transporter of antigen peptides (TAP)
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An example of an immunodeficiency disorder is
Options
Thyroiditisthyroiditis
Rheumatic fever
Systemic lupus erythematosus
AIDSBone marrow given to an infant with SCID must
Options
Be irradiated to eliminate GVHD
Contain mature T cells that can begin making immune responses immediately
Come from a donor that shares some MHC alleles with the recipient
Come from one of the child’s parents
X-linked hyper IgM syndrome, resulting in high levels of serum IgM and low levels of serum
IgG, is
caused by a defect in CD40L expression. The specific
immune event that would be prevented by a defective CD40L would be
Options
Activation of B cells by T-independent antigens
Failure of B cells to provide co-stimulation for Th2 activation
Failure of Th2 cells to provide co-stimulation for B cell isotype switching
Failure of Th2 cells to provide co-stimulation for B cell proliferation
DiGeorge’s syndrome is characterized by the lack of a thymus The mouse model closest to
this
human disease would be a
Options
Knock-out mouse for RAG-1 and RAG-2
Knock-out mouse for a thymus
Nude mouse
Recombinant mouse for CD3
Which of the Rous sarcoma virus has a homologous cellular protein?
Options
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C-src
V-src
V-ha-src
V-ha-ras
Infants are most susceptible to bacterial infection due to low circulating levels of IgGOptions
In utero (before birth)
At 0-3 months of age
The chemical, typically released by the body in an allergic response is
Options
Histamine
Allergens
Antihistamines
Perforins
The accepted hypothesis for DNA replication is
Options
Conservative theory
Dispersive theory
Semi-conservative theory
Evolutionary theory
When DNA polymerase is in contact with guanine in the parental strand, what does it add to
the
growing daughter strand?
Options
Phosphate
Cytosine
Uracil
Guanine
Telomeres are usually rich in which nucleotide?
665
Options
Adenine
GuanineThymine
Cytosine
Which is the largest among the followings?
Options
Nucleotide
Nitrogenous base
Phosphate
Carbon
The chromosomal DNA complexes with
Options
Three types of histone as H1, H2A and H4
Five types of histone as H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
Four types of histone as H1, H2A, H3 and H4
Two types of histone as H1 and H4
Taylor, Woods and Hughes labeled Vicia DNA by allowing new DNA synthesis in the presence
of
radioactive thymine. After DNA replication (S phase of the
cell cycle), it was observed that
Options
Only one chromatid of a chromosome was labeled
Both chromatids of a chromosome were labeled
Only one chromatid of two chromosome was labeled
Neither chromatid was labeled
In DNA double helix, the two DNA chains are held together by
Options
Covalent bonds between the pair of bases
Hydrogen bonds between the pair of bases
Ionic bonds between the pair of bases
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None of the aboveThe 5ʹ and 3ʹ numbers are related to the
Options
Length of the DNA strand
Carbon number in sugar
The number of phosphates
The base pair rule
Messelsen and Stahl model of replication was called
Options
Conservative replication
Semi-conservative replication
Dispersive replication
Cri du Chat
The most common liquid volumes in molecular biology are measured in
Options
Ml
μl
Nl
DNA replication takes place in which direction?
Options
3ʹ to 5ʹ
5 ‘to 3’
. Randomly
Vary from organism to organism
DNA gyrase in E. coli
Options
Adds positive supercoils to chromosomal DNACan be inhibited with antibiotics
Is required only at the oriC site
Performs the same function as helicase in eukaryotes
In DNA, there are
667
Options
Five bases known as adenine, guanine, thymine, tryptophan and cytosine
Four bases known as adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine
Three bases known as adenine, guanine and cytosine
Only two bases known as adenine and cytosine
In DNA, guanine pairs with
Options
Adenine
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
Which of the following is incorrect?
Options
In DNA double helix, two strands of the DNA are bound with each other with the bases
Adenine always pairs with thymine
Guanine always pairs with the cytosine
None of the above
What is the only common methylation in the DNA of eukaryotes?
Options
Adenosine in GpA dinucleotides
Guanosine in ApGpA trinucleotides
Cytosine in CpG dinucleotides
None of the aboveDNAs when charged, migrate in a gel towards the
Options
Positive pole
Negative pole
Will not migrate
None of these
What is the approximate size (in kb) of the E. coli genome?
668
Options
3000 kilobase
4500 kilobase
5500 kilobase
6500 kilobase
In the study of one experiment it was found that the value of Tm for DNA is = 40° C. If the
cell has
20% GC at the above Tm, then what will be value of ‘Tm’ if
the GC% increases to 60%?
Options
Remains same
Increases
Decreases
Can not be compared
What is the range of melting point temperatures (Tm) for most DNA molecules?
Options
50 to 60°C
60 to 80°C
70 to 90°C
80 to l00°C
Enzyme-driven metabolic pathways can be made more efficient by
OptionsConcentrating enzymes within specific cellular compartments
Grouping enzymes into free-floating, multienzyme complexes
Fixing enzymes into membranes so that they are adjacent to each other
All of the above
Which of the following (s) is/are serine proteases?
Options
Chymotrypsin
Trypsin
Elastase
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All of these
Which of the following statements about enzymes or their function is true?
Options
Enzymes do not alter the overall change in free energy for a reaction
Enzymes are proteins whose three-dimensional form is key to their function
Enzymes speed up reactions by lowering activation energy
All of the above
Tryprotophan synthetase of E.coli, a typical bifunctional oligomeric enzyme consist of
Options
A protein designated A
Two proteins designated A and B
A protein A and one-subunit a
A protein designated B
What is the specificity of the Clostripain protease?
Options
It cleave after Arg residues
It cleave after His residues
It cleave after Lys residuesNone of the above
The proteolysis rate enhancement by chymotrypsin (~1010 folds) corresponds to a reduction

in
activation energy of about
Options
40 kJ/mol
49 kJ/mol
58 kJ/mol
88 kJ/mol
Which of the following is false statement with regard to comparison between Serine and HIV
proteases?
Options
Both use nucleophilic attack to hydrolyze the peptide bond
670
Both require water to complete the catalytic cycle
Both forms an acyl-enzyme intermediate
Both show specificity for certain amino acid sequences
In the enzyme-catalyzed reaction shown below, what will be the effect on substances A, B, C,
and D
of inactivating the enzyme labeled E2? A —(E1)—> B —
(E2)—> C —(E3)—>
Options
A, B, C, and D will all still be produced
A, B, and C will still be produced, but not D
A and B will still be produced, but not C or D
A will still be produced, but not B, C, or D
The nucleophile in serine proteases is
Options
Serine
Threonine
Aspartate
AsparagineThe role of Asp 102 and His 57 during trypsin catalysis is to
Options
Neutralize the charge on the other’s side chain
Keep the specificity pocket open
Function as a proton shuttle
Clamp the substrate into the active site
The cleavage specificity of trypsin and chymotrypsin depend in part on the
Options
Proximity of Ser 195 to the active site or specificity pocket
Size, shape, and charge of the active site or specificity pocket
Presence of a low-barrier hydrogen bond in the active site or specificity pocket
Absence of water in the active site
The E.coli pyruvic acid dehydrogenase complex is reported to
671
Options
Decatalyze the oxidation of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co A and CO2
Catalyze the oxidation of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co A and CO2
Retard the reduction of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co A and CO2
Catalyze the reduction of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co A and CO2
Which of the common features are shared between serine and aspartate proteases?
Options
Both use a base to activate the nucleophile
All of the above
Before they can react, many molecules need to be destabilized. This state is typically
achieved
through y
Options
Changing the three-dimensional shape of the moleculeOxidizing the molecules by removing

electrons
Changing the reaction from a biosynthetic to a catabolic pathway
The input of a small amount of activation energy
Common feature in all serine proteases is a
Options
Hydrophobic specificity pocket
Hydrophilic specificity pocket
Cluster of reactive serine residues
Single reactive serine residue
Which of the following is the basis of first dimension of separation for two-dimensional
electrophoresis?
Options
Molecular mass
Solubility
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Isoelectric point
Folding
What is meant by rotating frame of reference?
Options
That the sample is spun rapidly in the applied field
If the laboratory itself is imagined to be rotated at the Larmor frequency, viewing that
individual
magnetic moment vectors are fixed in space
That the detector rotates around the sample
None of the above
The sequence of amino acids in proteins can be determined by means of
Options
Identification of the -NH2 terminal amino acids
Identification of the -COOH terminal amino acids
Partial cleavage of the original polypeptide into smaller polypeptidesAll of the above
Why is it advantageous to record many FID signals from the same sample and then add them
together?
Options
To ensure that all target nuclei in the sample have been excited
To remove inaccuracies caused by fluctuations in the applied magnetic field
To increase sensitivity
None of the above
In FT-NMR, how are nuclei excited?
Options
By radio-frequency radiation whose frequency is swept across a

predetermined range
By an intense pulse of radiation which contains a wide range of frequencies
By an intense pressure
None of the above
What is the name given to the relaxation process due to an interaction between an excited
nucleus
673
and the magnetic fields caused by nuclei in molecules moving
around in the sample?
Options
Spin – lattice relaxation
Spin – spin relaxation
Spin – spin – spin relaxation
None of these
Cytochrome C has an isoelectric pH of
Options
8.5
10.05
7.5
11.05What does the Michelson interferometer do?
Options
Split a polychromatic beam of radiation into its component wavelengths
Selectively filter certain wavelengths from a beam of I.R. radiation
Modulate the I.R. signal at a lower frequency, so that it can be observed by

a detector
None of the above
In scanning electron microscopy
Options
A specimen is fixed and then coated with thin layer of a heavy metal
A specimen is fixed and then coated with transition metal
A specimen is not fixed and then coated with thin layer of a heavy metal
None of the above
The frequency of precession, the transition frequency and the Larmor frequency are
Options
Different terms for the same frequency
Same terms for the same frequency
Different terms for the different frequency
674
Same terms for the different frequency
How do you turn a signal recorded in the time domain into a frequency domain signal?
Options
Fourier transformation
Measurement of peak areas
By use of a Michelson interferometer
None of the above
How many possible orientations do spin 1/2 nuclei have when they are located in an applied
magnetic field?
Options
24
In immunofluroscence microscopy, fluroscent compounds are attached to
Options
An antibody specific for the subcellular structure
An antigen specific for the subcellular structure
Bound antibody specific for the subcellular structure
None of these
An FT-IR instrument record a signal in the
Options
Time domain
Frequency domain
Wavelength domain
Obstructive domain
When radiation energy is absorbed by a spin 1/2 nucleus in a magnetic field, what happens?
Options
The processional frequency of the nucleus increases
The nucleus spins faster
675
The angle of precession flips so that the magnetic moment of the nucleus
opposes the applied field
None of the above
Negative staining is a technique used in
Options
Electron microscopy
Gel electrophoresis
Immunocytochemistry
Light microscopyWhich of the following is not used for detection in GC?
Options
Infrared spectroscopy
NMR
Flame ionisation
Electrical conductivity
Which of these effects result from slow injection of a large sample volume?
Options
Increased resolution
Decreased resolution
Non-linear detector response
Constant resolution
The GC trace obtained after an experiment is called a
Options
Chromatograph
Chromatogram
Chromatophore
Graph
Which of the following detectors give concentration-dependent signals?
Options
Electron-capture detector
Thermal conductivity
676
Infra-red detector
All of these
What useful information can be found from a Van Deemter plot?
Options
The selectivity factorOptimum mobile phase flow rate
Optimum column temperature
Optimum column length
What is the typical internal diameter of fused silica capillary columns?
Options
0.2-0.3 mm
0.3-0.5mm
0.5-1.0 mm
1.0-2.0 mm
Resolution is proportional to the
Options
Number of theoretical plates in a column
Square root of the number of theoretical plates in a column
Square of the number of theoretical plates in a column
Cube root of the number of theoretical plates in a column
Derivatisation of a sample is carried out to
Options
Reduce polarity of the analytes
Increase the detector response
Increase volatility of the analytes
All of the above
Which of the statements is correct?
Options
Gas chromatography is used to analyse gases
Gas chromatography is used to analyse solids
677
Gas chromatography is used to analyse gases, solutions and solids
All of the aboveIn column switching chromatography
Options
Compounds trapped on one column are eluted to another column
One column is removed and replaced by another
The flow to the column is switched on and off repeatedly
Any of the above
A retention gap is placed between the injector and the front of the column to
Options
Retain contaminants and prevent them from reaching the column
Retain the sample and release it gradually to the column
Prevent backflush of the injected solution
All of the above
Which of the following detectors give mass flow-dependent signals?
Options
Electron capture detector
Field ionisation detector
Thermal conductivity detector
All of the above
Headspace analysis is carried out in order to
Options
Analyse volatile compounds from solid or liquid samples
Determine the psychological state of the tutor
Analyse the column contents ahead of the sample
Determine non-volatiles
Split injection is carried out by
Options
Splitting the sample into smaller portions to inject sequentiallySplitting the sample into
smaller portions to inject at the same time through parallel ports
Splitting off some of the sample so that it does not enter the column
678
None of the above
Theoretical plates are used to
Options
Estimate the efficiency of a column
Determine the thickness of the stationary phase
Measure the distribution of the analyte between mobile and stationary phases
None of the above
What does the selectivity factor describe?
Options
The proportional difference in widths of two chromatographic peaks
The maximum number of different species which a column can separate simultaneously
The relative separation achieved between two species
None of the above
Helium is generally preferred as carrier gas over nitrogen and hydrogen because
Options
It is inert
It has a lower viscosity
It doubles up as a party gas for balloons and funny voices
All of above
What are the benefits of decreasing the column internal diameter?
Options
Increased sample capacity
Reduced risk of column overloading
All of the aboveSample retention in the column is measured by
Options
Retention time
Retention factor
Retention index
All of these
679
Column bleeding occurs when
Options
Elution of the analyte is extended over time
The column is cracked and stationary phase leaks out
Traces of the stationary phase are eluted
The column breaks during installation and causes personal injury
Which of the following are not used as stationary phases in a GC column?
Options
Polysiloxanes
Silica
Cyclodextrins
None are used as stationary phases
Doubling the column’s length increases resolution by a factor of
Options
(2)0.5
Sample injection is considered successful if
Options
All of the sample in the injector has been added to the columnThe sample is
concentrated at the start of the column
The sample is spread evenly along the column
He sample is homogenously spread along the column
Which of the following gases is unsuitable for use as a GC carrier gas?
Options
Nitrogen
Helium
Oxygen
All of the above
680
In an SDS-PAGE
Options
Proteins are denatured by the SDS
Proteins have the same charge-to-mass ratio
Smaller proteins migrate more rapidly through the gel
All of the above
Proteins can be visualized directly in gels by
Options
Staining them with the dye
Measuring their molecular weight
None of these
In SDS-PAGE, the protein sample is first
Options
Treated with a reducing agent and then with anionic detergent followed by
fractionation by
electrophoresis
Fractionated by electrophoresis then treated with an oxidizing agent followed by anionic

detergent.
Treated with a oxidizing agent and then with anionic detergent followed by fractionation by
electrophoresisNone of the above
Electrophoresis of histones and myoglobin under non-denaturing conditions (pH = 7.0)

results in
Options
Both proteins migrate to the anode
Histones migrate to the anode and myoglobin migrates to the cathode
Histones migrate to the cathode and myoglobin migrates to the anode
Both proteins migrate to the cathode
In isoelectric focusing, proteins are separated on the basis of their
Options
Relative content of positively charged residue only
681
Relative content of negatively charged residue only
Size
Relative content of positively and negatively charged residue
In a native PAGE, proteins are separated on the basis of
Options
Net negative charge
Net charge and size
Net positive charges size
Net positive charge
The subunit molecular weight as well as the number of subunits in the quaternary structure
can be
determined by
Options
SDS-PAGE electrophoresis
Combining information from (a)and (b)
Proteins are separated in an SDS-PAGE experiment on the basis of their
OptionsPositively charged side chains
Molecular weight
Negatively charged side chains
Different isoelectric points
Which of the following techniques was carried out by Nirenberg and Matthaei in 1961 to
determine
the first codon?
Options
In vitro synthesis of a polypeptide using UUUUU
Labeled peptide binding to a ribosome
Mixed co-polymer mRNA synthesis
None of the above
682
Bacterial protein called catabolic activator protein (CAP) is an example of
Options
Negative control of gene expression
Positive control of gene expression
Second type of positive control of gene expression
None of the above
How many different codons are possible?
Options
20
64
An infinite number
The genetic code is
Options
Universal
Universal except for rare exceptions in mitochondria and some protozoa
Species-specificKingdom-specific
Which of the following has been used as an evidence that primitive life forms lacked both
DNA and
enzymes?
Options
RNA can both code genetic information and act as a catalyst
DNA and enzymes are only present in the most advanced cells
Advanced cells lack RNA
All of the above
Crick demonstrated that the genetic code involved three bases and suggested that the code
was
degenerated. What experimental technique Crick conducted to
suggest genetic code degeneration?
Options
683
Gel electrophoresis
Density gradient centrifugation
Frameshift mutagenesis
Restriction digests of the rII gene
Codon that specify the amino acids often differs in the
Options
First base
Second base
Third base
None of these
In some organelles in eukaryotes, the genetic code for some codons
Options
Differs from that used in prokaryotes
Are same
Are partially same
None of the aboveThe codons which do not specify an amino acid are called
Options
Initiation code
Termination code
Propagation code
None of these
The genetic code is degenerated. Which of the following codons represents the principle of
degeneracy?
Options
UAA and UAC
AUG and AUA
CAU and CAC
UUA and UUC
The sequence of one strand of DNA is: 5ʹ ATTGCCA 3ʹ, what is the sequence of the other
strand?
684
Options
5ʹ TAACGGT 3ʹ
5ʹ TGGCAAT 3ʹ
5ʹ ATTGCCA 3ʹ
5ʹ UAAGCCU3ʹ
In prokaryotes, AUG encodes
Options
Methionine
N-formyl methionine
A stop codon
Alanine
How many amino acids will be encoded by 5ʹ GAU GGU UGA UGU 3ʹ sequence?
Options
OneTwo
Three
Four
In protein synthesis in prokaryotes
Options
The initiating amino acid is N- formyl methionine
The initiating amino acid is methionine
The initiating amino acid is phenyl alanine
None of the above
AUG codes for methionine act as a
Options
Initiation code
Elongation code
Termination code
Propagation code
Glycolytic pathway regulation involves
685
Options
Allosteric stimulation by ADP
Allosteric inhibition by ATP
Feedback, or product, inhibition by ATP
All of the above
During catabolism, only about 40% of the energy available from oxidizing glucose is used to
synthesize ATP. Remaining 60%
Options
Is lost as heat
Is used to reduce NADP
Remains in the products of metabolism
Is stored as fat.Why does the glycolytic pathway continue in the direction of glucose
catabolism?
Options
There are essentially three irreversible reactions that act as the driving force
for the pathway
High levels of ATP keep the pathway going in a forward direction
The enzymes of glycolysis only function in one direction
Glycolysis occurs in either direction
The released energy obtained by oxidation of glucose is stored as
Options
A concentration gradient across a membrane
ADP
ATP
NAD+
A kinase is an enzyme that
Options
Removes phosphate groups of substrates
Uses ATP to add a phosphate group to the substrate
Uses NADH to change the oxidation state of the substrate
686
Removes water from a double bond
For every one molecule of sugar glucose which is oxidized __________ molecule of pyruvic
acid are
produced.
Options
In the glycogen synthase reaction, the precursor to glycogen is
Options
Glucose-6-PUTP-glucose
UDP-glucose
Glucose-1-P
The active form of glycogen phosphorylase is phosphorylated, while the dephosphorylation

of which
active form occurs?
Options
Glycogen synthase-P
Glycogen semisynthase
Glycogen hydrolase
Glycogen dehydrogenase
The enzymes of glycolysis in a eukaryotic cell are located in the
Options
Intermembrane space
Plasma membrane
Cytosol
When concentration of the reactants is higher than the equilibrium concentration then
Options
687
The gibbs free energy will be positive
The gibbs free energy will be negative
Less products will be formed
The gibbs free energy will be both positive and Negative
Which of the following is not true of glycolysis?
Options
ADP is phosphorylated to ATP via substrate level phosphorylation
The pathway does not require oxygen
The pathway oxidizes two moles of NADH to NAD+ for each mole of glucose
that enters
The pathway requires two moles of ATP to get started catabo-lizing each mole of glucoseIn
glycolysis, ATP is formed by the transfer of a high-energy phosphate from
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
to ADR No such highenergy phosphate donor has ever
been isolated in mitochondria because
Options
The techniques for isolating the phosphate donor are not refined enough
No such phosphate donor exists
The high-energy phosphate donor is very short-lived and difficult to isolate
None of the above
ATP is from which general category of molecules?
Options
Polysaccharides
Proteins
Nucleotides
Amino acids
The glycolytic pathway (glucose ? 2 pyruvate) is found
Options
In all living organisms
Primarily in animals excluding particles
688
Only in eukaryotes
Only in yeast Lipids Metabolism

• 1. The nitrogenous base in lecithin is
• Betaine
• Serine
• Choline+
• Ethanolamine
• 2. Cholesterol is transported from liver to extrahepatic
tissues by
• HDL
• LDL+
• VLDL
• Chylomicrons
• 3. Oxidation of fatty acids occurs
• In the cytosol
• In the matrix of mitochondria+
• On the microsomes
• On inner mitochondrial membrane
• 4. Very low density lipoproteins are relatively rich in
• Free fatty acids
• Triacyl glycerol+
• Phospholipids
689
• Cholesterol
• 5. Fatty acids can not be converted into carbohydrates in the
body, as the following reaction is not possible:
• Transformation of acetyl CoA to pyruvate+
• Formation of acetyl CoA from fatty acids
• Fructose 1, 6 diphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate
• Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into glucose
• 6. All the following statements about ketone bodies are true
except
• They are synthesized in mitchondria
• They can deplete the alkali reserve• Their synthesis increases in

diabetes mellitus
• They can be oxidized in the liver+
• 7. Dietary fats after absorption appear in the circulation as
• VLDL
• LDL
• Chylomicron+
• HDL
• 8. The ‘Committed step’ in the biosynthesis of cholesterol
from acetyl CoA is
• Formation of acetoacetyl CoA from acetyl CoA
• Formation of HMG CoA from acetyl CoA and acetoacetyl
CoA
690
• Formation of mevalonate from HMG CoA+
• Formation of squalene by squalene synthetase
• 9. Acetyl CoA formed from pyruvate can be used for the
synthesis of all the following except
• Fatty acids
• Steroid hormones
• Glucose+
• Cholesterol
• 10. Pancreatic lipase is activated by
• carbon dioxide
• HCI
• pepsin
• bile acids+
• 11. Hepatic lipogenesis is stimulated by
• cAMP
• epinephrine
• insulin+
• glucagon
• 12. β-Oxidation of fatty acids requires all the following
coenzymes except
• FAD• NADP+
• NAD
691
• HS-CoA
• 13. HDL is synthesized in
• Liver and intestine
• Intestine
• Liver+
• Adipose tissue
• 14. During each cycle of β-oxidation
• One carbon atom is removed from the methyl end of the fatty
acid
• Two carbon atoms are removed from the carboxyl end of the
fatty acid+
• One carbon atom is removed from the carboxyl end of the
fatty acid
• Two carbon atoms are removed from the methyl end of the
fatty acid
• 15. An enzyme required for the synthesis of ketone bodies
as well as cholesterol is
• HMG CoA lyase
• HMG CoA synthetase
• HMG CoA reductase+
• Acetyl CoA carboxylase
• 16. Which of the following condition is characterized by
692
ketonuria but without glycosuria?
• Addison’s disease
• Diabetes insipidus
• Prolonged starvation+
• Diabetes mellitus
• 17. In adipose tissue, glycerol-3-phosphate required for the
synthesis of triglycerides comes mainly from
• Dihydroxyacetone phosphate formed in glycolysis+
• Hydrolysis of pre-existing triglycerides
• Hydrolysis of phospholipids• Free glycerol
• 18. Free fatty acids released from adipose tissue are
transported in blood by
• Albumin+
• HDL
• LDL
• VLDL
• 19. Lipids have the following properties:
• High energy content
• Insoluble in water and soluble in fat solvent
• All of these+
• Structural component of cell membrane
• 20. Adipose tissue lacks
693
• Glycerol kinase+
• Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
• cAMP-dependent protein kinase
• Hormone-sensitive lipase
• 21. De hovo synthesis of fatty acids occurs in
• All of these
• Cytosol+
• Mitochondria
• Microsomes
• 22. Acyl Carrier Protein contains the vitamin
• Pantothenic acid+
• Biotin
• Lipoic acid
• Folic acid
• 23. A pathway that requires NADPH as a cofactor is
• Ketone bodies formation
• Glycogenesis
• Fatty acid oxidation
• Extra mitochondrial denovo fatty acid synthesis+• 24. Free glycerol

cannot be used for triglyceride synthesis in
• Liver
• Kidney
• Intestine
694
• Adipose tissue+
• 25. Triglycerides are
• Major constituents of membranes
• Non-polar+
• Heavier than water
• Hydrophilic
• 26. Normal fat content of liver is about _______ %.
• 5+
• 10
• 8
• 15
• 27. In the wall of the intestine after the absorption of the
products of digestion of dietary fat are occurs:
• re-synthesis of fats+
• β-oxidation of higher fatty acids
• the degradation of glycerol
• synthesis of fatty acids
• 28. Long chain fatty acids are first activated to acyl-CoA in
• Nucleus
• Cytosol+
• Mitochondria
• Microsomes
695
• 29. At which value of pH is most active pancreatic lipase?
• pH =3,0-4,0
• pH =8,0-8,5+
• pH =12,0-14,0
• pH =1,0-2,0
• 30. The acetyl CoA formed on β-oxidation of all long chain
fatty acids is metabolized under normal circumstances to• Ketone

bodies
• Fatty acids
• Cholesterol
• CO2 and water+
• 31. De novo synthesis and oxidation of fatty acids differ in
the following respect:
• NADH is required in synthesis and FAD in oxidation
• Synthesis is decreased and oxidation increased by insulin
• Synthesis occurs in cytosol and oxidation in mitochondria+
• Malonyl CoA is formed during oxidation but not during
synthesis
• 32. Lecithins are composed of
• Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid +Ethanolamine
• Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid +Beaine
• Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid +Serine
• Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid +Choline+
696
• 33. Free fatty acids are transported in the blood
• In unbound free salts
• Combined with β-lipoprotein
• Combined with fatty acid binding protein
• Combined with albumin+
• 34. The majority of absorbed fat appears in the forms of
• Chylomicrone+
• VLDL
• LDL
• HDL
• 35. Triglycerides are transported from liver to extrahepatic
tissues by
• HDL
• Chylomicrons
• VLDL+
• LDL• 36. The importance of phospholipids as constituent of cell
membrane is because they possess
• Fatty acids
• Glycerol
• Phosphoric acid
• Both polar and nonpolar groups+
• 37. The triacyl glycerol present in plasma lipoproteins are
697
hydrolyzed by
• Colipase
• Pancreatic lipase
• Linqual lipase
• Lipoprotein lipase+
• 38. The enzymes of β-oxidation are found in
• Golgi apparatus
• Cytosol
• Mitochondria+
• Nucleus
• 39. How the amount of cholesterol changes at
parenchymatous damages of a liver?
• doesn't change
• increases only cholesterol esters
• decreases+
• increases
• 40. Lovastatin is a
• Competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA reductase
• Non-competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA reductase+
• Competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA synthetase
• Competitive inhibitor of acetyl CoA carboxylase
• 41. The lipoprotein richest in cholesterol is
698
• HDL
• Chylomicrons
• LDL+
• VLDL• 42. Carnitine is required for the transport of
• Triglycerides into mitochondria
• Short chain fatty acids into mitochondria
• Triglycerides out of liver
• Long chain fatty acids into mitochondria+
• 43. Brown adipose tissue is characterized by which of the
following?
• Oxidation and phosphorylation are tightly coupled
• Mitochondrial content higher than white adipose tissue+
• Absent in hibernating animals
• Present in large quantities in adult humans
• 44. In β-Oxidation of fatty acids, which of the following are
utilized as coenzymes?
• FAD and FMN
• FADH2 and NADH+H+
• NAD+ and NADP+
• +FAD and NAD+
• 45. Fatty liver may be caused by deficiency of
• vitamin E
699
• All of these+
• choline
• essential fatty acids
• 46. The most important source of reducing equivalents for
FA synthesis on the liver is
• TCA cycle
• HMP-Shunt+
• Uronic acid pathway
• Glycolysis
• 47. During each cycle of β-oxidation of fatty acid, all the
following compounds are generated except
• FAD
• H2O+
• Acyl CoA
• NADH• 48. At which parts of the GIT digested lipids of milk in
infants:
• the stomach+
• the esophagus
• small intestine
• the oral cavity
• 49. In mammals, the major fat in adipose tissues is
• Phospholipid
700
• Sphingolipids
• Cholesterol
• Triacylglycerol+
• 50. Which of the following is required as a reductant in fatty
acid synthesis?
• FADH2
• FMNH2
• NADPH+H+
• NADH+H
Lipids Metabolism
• 1. In which tissues lipogenesis is particularly active:
• in adipose tissue and lungs
• in the liver and spleen
• in the muscles and liver
• in the liver and adipose tissue+
• 2. Give an enzyme involved in the digestion of triacylglycerols of

mother's
milk in infants:
• an amylase
• a bile acid
• phospholipase
• lingual lipase+
701
• 3. Cholesterol synthesis is most actively carried out in:
• the kidneys
• adrenal cortex• the intestines
• liver+
• 4. Ketone bodies
• pyruvate and malate
• acetoacetyl CoA and propionyl CoA
• acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate+
• acetyl CoA and succinyl CoA
• 5. Specify the donor of methyl groups in the synthesis of
phosphotylcholine?
• 2.methionine
• ethanolamine
• S-adenosylmethionine+
• serine
• 6. Transport of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver is

performed
• HDL+
• VLDL
• LDL
• bile acids
• 7. Select the component that participates in the reaction of

transformation
702
of GMG-CoA into mevalonat:
• HMG-CoA
• HMG-CoA synthetase
• HMG-CoA reductase+
• NADH2
• 8. Acetyl-CoA transporter from mitochondria to the cytoplasm

through the
mitochondrial membrane serves:
• creatine
• aspartate
• citrate
• malate+
• 9. Phosphatidic acid is synthesized in the process:
• glycerol phosphorylation
• recovery of dioxyacetone• hydrolysis of triacylglycerides
• esterification of glycerol-3-phosphate+
• 10. Which of the following particles transport mainly triglycerides

from the
• Very low density lipoproteins
• Micelles
• Chylomicrons+
• High-density lipoproteins
703
• 11. An increase in the number of triacylglycerides in adipose tissue
is
promoted by the hormone
• cortisol
• glucagon
• insulin+
• thyroxin
• 12. Reducing equivalents in cholesterol biosynthesis are:
• NADH2
• NADPH2+
• FMNH2
• FADH2
• 13. For the synthesis of fatty acids is required:
• methionine
• ADP
• glucose-6-phosphate
• acetyl CoA+
• 14. Hormones that activate hormone-sensitive lipase in adipocytes
• thyroxin and glucocorticoids
• prostaglandins and insulin
• adrenaline and norepinephrine+
• oxytocin and vasopressin
• 15. What type of lipoproteins removes excess cholesterol from tissues
704
• chylomicrons
• VLDL• HDL+
• LDL
• 16. Synthesis of fatty acids proceeds in
• mitochondria
• cytoplasm+
• the core
• lysosomes
• 17. In the liver cholesterol is used for biosynthesis of
• hippuric acid
• Acetyl CoA
• animal indican
• Vitamin D3+
• 18. Acetyl CoA from mitochondria to cytosol is transferred in the
composition:
• succinate
• oxaloacetate
• citrate+
• fumarate
• 19. Which of the following classes of serum lipoproteins are the main
transport form of triacylglycerides:
• bile acids
705
• proteolipids
• VLDL
• LDL
• 20. Lipids in the human body does not perform the next function:
• electrically insulating
• structure
• immune+
• energy
• 21. Name the regulatory enzyme for cholesterol synthesis
• hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA reductase+
• hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA synthetase• β-ketothiolase
• hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA-lyase
• 22. Biotin as a coenzyme is part of the enzyme:
• β-ketoacyl-APB synthase
• thiolase
• triacylglyceride
• acetyl CoA carboxylase+
• 23. Indicate intermediate matter in the process of biosynthesis of
triglycerides in tissues
• glyceric acid
• malonyle CoA
• dioxiacetone phosphate
706
• glycerol-3-phosphate+
• 24. Cholesterol in the adrenal cortex is used to:
• Fatty acid synthesis
• Synthesis of cortisol+
• Synthesis of vitamin D
• Construction of the membrane
• 25. Indicate the function of phospholipids in the body
• steroid hormone precursors
• end products of lipolysis
• sources of energy for cellular metabolism
• the main components of the cell membrane+
• 26. What high energy substance is involved in the synthesis of
phospholipids?
• GMP
• UDP
• CTP+
• UTP
• 27. Which carriers carry transport of exogenous dietary fat from the
intestine into the tissue:
• HDL
• VLDL• chylomicrons+
• LDL
707
• 28. Reducing equivalents in the reactions of higher fatty acid
biosynthesis
are:
• FMNH2
• NADPH2+
• NADH2+
• FADH2
• 29. Indicate the process that is the source of NADPH + H+ for the
synthesis
of higher fatty acids
• glycolysis
• the pentose phosphate cycle of glucose oxidation+
• β-oxidation of fatty acids
• oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate
• 30. The coenzyme HMG-CoA - reductase is:
• NADPH+
• NADP
• FAD
• FADH2
• 31. In which cell organelles does the synthesis of saturated fatty acids
occur?
• in the cytoplasm+
• in lysosomes
708
• in the endoplasmic reticulum
• in the mitochondria
• 32. Specify the donor of methyl groups in the synthesis of
glycerophospholipids?
• 2.methionine
• ethanolamine
• serine
• 33. Choose statements that correctly characterize HDL
• synthesis and decay is carried out in the cells of the intestinal mucosa•
synthesis and decay occurs in the kidneys
• What is the key cholesterol synthesis reaction
• are a class of lipoproteins, the most protein-rich; synthesis and decay

occurs
in the liver+
• 34. The regulatory enzyme for the synthesis of higher fatty acids is:
• malonyl transcylase
• acetyl CoA carboxylase+
• acetyl transcylase
• ketoacyl reductase
• 35. Indicate the compound from which cholesterol is synthesized:
• Palmitoyl-CoA
• butyryl CoA
709
• Crotonyl-CoA
• acetyl CoA+
• 36. What metabolite of lipid metabolism is common in the synthesis

of
ketone bodies and cholesterol?
• mevalonic acid
• squalene
• beta-hydroxy-beta-methylglutaryl-CoA+
• lanosterol
• 37. Specify the enzyme catalyzing the formation of acetoacetyl-CoA

in the
synthesis of cholesterol:
• Acetyltransferase+
• Acylase
• Ketoacyl-APB reductas
• Acylsynthase
• 38. Indicate the stage of the process of biosynthesis of higher fatty

acids,
which uses CO2
• ATP-dependent synthesis of malonyl-CoA from acetyl-CoA+
• synthesis of acetyl-CoA from one-carbon fragments
• the conversion of malonyl-APB to β-ketobutyryl-APB
710
• transition β-ketoacyl-APB to β-hydroxyacyl-APB• 39. Specify the
enzyme catalyzing the interconversion of phosphatidic acid
and glycerol-3-phosphate in the synthesis of triglycerides, which

occurs in
the liver
• glycerol synthase
• Glycerolkinase
• glycerol phosphate acyltransferase+
• glycerol phosphate-3-dehydrogenase
• 40. What is the biological role of lipoproteins in the body?
• reserve of proteins
• perform the contractile function
• a source of energy
• ctransport of lipids in the body+
• 41. Specify an enzyme that catalyzes the following reaction for the
synthesis of triglycerides, which occurs in the liver
• glycerol phosphate acyltransferase
• glycerol phosphate-3-dehydrogenase
• Phosphatidate hydrolase+
• 42. In the synthesis of phosphoglycerolipids participate
• sphingolipids
• phosphatidic acid+
711
• cytidine triphosphate
• triacylglycerol’s
• 43. Specify the amino acid involved in the formation of

phosphatidylserine
from phosphatidylethanolamine
• methionine
• alanine
• L-serine+
• glycine
• 44. What is the name of the complex of enzymes involved in the

synthesis
of fatty acids?
• acyl carrier protein (ACP)+
• succinate dehydrogenase
• glutamate dehydrogenase• acetaldehyde transferase
• 45. Give the blood proteins that transport free fatty acids:
• β-lipoproteins
• hemoglobin
• albumins+
• globulins
• 46. What is the enzyme catalyzing the conversion of glycerol to

glycerol-3-
712
in
the intestinal wall?
• glycerol phosphatase
• glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase
• glycerolkinase+
• 47. The donor of methyl groups for the synthesis of

phosphatidylcholine
from phosphatidylethanolamine is
• propionyl-CoA
• methylmalonyl-CoA
• acetyl CoA
• 48. In the synthesis of which substances is NADPH2 formed in the

pentose
cycle used?
• in the synthesis of NK
• in the synthesis of glucose
• in the synthesis of lipids / high fatty acids, cholesterol+
• ATP synthesis
• 49. Specify a substance that can inhibit cholesterol biosynthesis
• insulin
713
• glucagon+
• histamine
• androgens
• 50. Lipolysis in adipose tissue is inhibited
• glucagon
• adrenaline• thyroxine
• insulin+
Metabolism of Simple Proteins

• 1. Which of the following amino acids participate in the synthesis of
creatine?
• arginine+
• methionine+
• lysine
• glutamate
• 2. The end product of protein digestion in the gastrointestinal tract

is
• denatured proteins
• amino acids+
• fatty acids
• carbohydrates
• 3. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach
• all above+
714
• denatures proteins
• has a bactericidal effect
• activates pepsinogen
• 4. In putrefaction of tryptophan in the intestine are formed
• cresol, phenol
• skatole, indole+
• phenol, glycine
• 5. The first reaction of the ornithine cycle is synthesis of:
• citrate
• citrulline
• ornithine
• carbamoylphosphate+
• 6. Participate in the ornithine cycle
• alanine, methionine
• lysine, pepsin• alanine, creatine
• citrulline, aspartate+
• 7. Urea synthesis occurs
• in the kidneys
• liver+
• in the brain
• muscle
• 8. Urea biosynthesis occurs in
715
• gallbladder
• livers+
• kidney
• pancreas
• 9. Hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach catalyzes
• chymotrypsin
• dipeptidase
• carboxypeptidase
• pepsin+
• 10. Which of the following is the predominant type of deamination

of amino
acids in human tissues?
• intramolecular deamination
• reductive deamination
• hydrolytic deamination
• oxidative deamination+
• 11. Endopeptidase include
• dipeptidase
• aminopeptidase
• pepsin+
• 12. Aminopeptidases is produced in
• stomach
716
• large intestine
• small intestine+• in the pancreas
• 13. Biogenic amines are synthesized in:
• α-decarboxylation of amino acids+
• reductive amination
• deamination of amides
• transamination
• 14. Skatol and indole are neutralized in the liver by
• uridinediphosphoglucuronic acid+
• alfa-ketoglutarate
• glycine
• glutamate
• 15. In putrefaction of phenylalanine in the intestine are formed
• Skatole, indole
• cresol, phenol+
• phenol, glycine
• 16. Which of the following enzymes is produced in the pancreas to

digest
proteins?
• collagenase
• pepsin
• trypsin+
• amylase
717
• 17. Which of the following are non-essential amino acids?
• d. asparagine
• b. Cysteine+
• a. arginine
• c. lysine
• 18. Krebs cycle metabolite involved in transamination reactions
• fumarate
• succinate
• alfa-ketoglutarate+
• citrate
• 19. Which of the following is coenzyme of glutamate dehydrogenase?•

pyridoxamine phosphate
• FAD+
• NAD
• pyridoxal phosphate
• 20. Compounds formed from tyrosine
• beta-aminobutyric acid
• norepinephrine
• adrenaline
• phenylalanine+
• 21. Which of the following is the pathway for detoxification of

ammonia in
the brain?
718
• synthesis of glutamine+
• synthesis of urea
• formation of ammonium salts
• synthesis of alanineA
• 22. Negative nitrogen balance is observed in:
• the absence of essential fatty acids in food
• children
• aged persons
• the absence of non-essential amino acids in food
• 23. Reductive amination is a process in which:
• detoxification of ammonia takes place+
• ammonia is formed
• biogenic amines are formed
• participates glutamate dehydrogenase
• 24. Derivative of which vitamin is coenzyme of decarboxylases of

amino
acids?
• B6+
• B1
• PP
• B2
• 25. Which of the following are essential amino acids?• glycine
• tyrosine
719
• serine
• tryptophan+
• 26. Which of the following substrates are formed as a result of
transmethylation?
• methionine
• creatine+
• S-adenosylmethionine
• noradrenaline
• 27. Which of the following enzymes require vitamin B6 as cofactor?
• b. glutamate dehydrogenase
• c. Transaminase+
• a. glutamate decarboxylase
• d. monoamine oxidase
• 28. Which of the following is the major form of nitrogen excretion in
humans?
• uric acid
• urea+
• ammonia
• ammonium salts
• 29. The ornithine cycle is:
• mechanism for transport amino acids through membrane
• the pathway for urea formation
720
• the major pathway for detoxification of ammonia in the body+
• the pathway for ATP formation
• 30. Serotonin - product of decarboxylation
• histidine
• 5-hydroxytryptophan+
• tyrosine
• proline
• 31. In which organs synthesis of creatine take place?• kidney, liver+
• kidney, muscle
• liver, lung
• liver, muscle
• 32. Which of the following biogenic amines causes vasoconstriction?
• histamine
• tryptamine
• GABA
• serotonin+
• 33. Non-essential amino acids are compounds which:
• are synthesized in humans from other amino acids+
• are not synthesized in the organism and have to be ingested with

food
• in the course of metabolism, may be replaced by the other

compounds
• 34. Which of the following are non-essential amino acids?
721
• methionine
• tyrosine
• cysteine+
• isoleucine
• 35. Compounds formed from tyrosine
• dopamine
• adrenaline+
• gamma- aminobutyric acid
• insulin
• 36. Which of the following is the pathway for synthesis of urea?
• degradation of purines
• degradation of pyrimidines
• reductive amination
• ornithine cycle+
• 37. The serum aspartate aminotransferase activity increases

dramatically
with
• kidney disease
• prostatitis• myocardial infarction+
• pancreatitis
• 38. Stimulates the secretion of HCl in the stomach biogenic amine
• histamine+
• putrescine
722
• cadaverine
• dopamine
• 39. What is the biological role of decarboxylation of amino acids in
humans?
• energy production
• biosynthesis of biogenic amines+
• synthesis of essential amino acids
• synthesis of NADPН2
• 40. Proteins are degraded in the stomach by:
• pepsin+
• trypsin
• gastrin
• amylase
• 41. Which of the following biogenic amines causes vasodilatation?
• GABA
• histamine+
• tryptamine
• serotonin
• 42. Exopeptidase include:
• rennin
• carboxypeptidase+
• trypsin
723
• pepsin
• 43. Hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach of newborn catalyzes
• rennin+
• trypsin• elastase
• 44. Which of the following is characteristic of γ-aminobutyric acid?
• is the major stimulatory neurotransmitter in the CNS
• is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS+
• is formed from butyric acid
• is formed in decarboxylation of glutamate
• 45. In the synthesis of creatine are involved
• leucine, alanine, serine
• serine, ornithine, histidine
• arginine, glycine, methionine+
• asparagine, glutamic
• 46. Specify which enzyme is activated by hydrochloric acid?
• trypsin
• pepsin+
• amylase
• lipase
• 47. Indicate which of the amino acid under the influence of the
intestinal
microflora is formed phenol, cresol?
724
• serine
• alanine
• phenylalanine
• tyrosine+
• 48. Which of the following are essential amino acids?
• methionine+
• cysteine
• Isoleucine+
• glutamine
• 49. Which of the following coenzymes is required for decarboxylation

of
amino acids?
• a. FAD
• d. pyridoxal phosphate+
• c. NAD• b. NADP
• 50. The major amino acid which undergoes oxidative deamination in
humans is:
• asparagine
• aspartic acid
• glutamic acid+
• glutamineTopic: Water-salt metabolism (50 вопросов)
A. protective
725
B. nutritional
*C. transportation
D. hormonal

arteries?
A. histamine
B. serotonin
*C. adrenaline
D. angiotensin


A. calcitriol
*Bn. Calcitoni
C. insulin
D. aldosterone

are involved:
726
*B. aldosterone;
C. prostaglandins;
D. erythropoietin;
.

body?




urine
*A. calcitonin
B. Parathormone
C. insulin
D. aldosterone

727
*A. AlAT
B. Acid Phosphatase

exchange:
A. fluorine;
B. sodium;
*C. calcium.
D. chlorine;

organism:



salts?
1. uric acid
2. urea
3.Hypuric acid
728
*4. ammonia

2. penetrating

understand:

cell by passive
transport?
1. kali
2. iron
3. calcium
*4. sodium


729
b) 6.0 - 8.0 liters
*c) 1.5 - 2.5 liters
d) 3-6 liters

*1.in the kidneys

2. in the liver
3. in the heart
4. in the lungs


c) transferrin
d) interferon
*1.ammonium salts
2. ketone bodies
3. alpha ketoacids
4. uric acid
730
exchange

*1) vegetables
2) meat
3) milk
4) flour products

*1. 5.3 - 6.5

2. 1.2-2.0
3. 3.5-5.5
4. 9,5- 10

the kidney?
2. trypsinogen
3. pepsinogen
4. urobilinogen
731
*1) meat
2) milk
3) vegetables


cell?

2. active transport
4. due to water
*1.active transport
4. due to water

732

stimulating the

nature?
B. Carbohydrate
*D. Peptide
*1. 6.5-8.5
2. 5.0-5.5
3. 10-11
4. 1-3

4. lipase, aldolase


733
1. iron
2. calcium
*3. copper
4. magnesium
thing?

1. calcitonin
4. insulin


734


homeostasis

a) methylation
b) phosphorylation
*d) hydroxylation
hydroxylation:
A. threonine;
B. serine;
C. glutamate;
*D. lysine;
735
A. lipoproteins
V. metalloproteins
C. Chromoprotein
*D. Proteoglycans
*A. elastin
V. Collagen
S. ferritin
D. rhodopsin
B. serine;
C. glutamate;
*D. lysine;
collagen
A. Co 2+
B. Zn 2+
*C. Cu 2+
D. Na +
736
A. lipoproteins
B. metalloproteins
C. Chromoprotein
*D. Proteoglycans
D. is a lipoprotein
*A. elastin
V. Collagen
S. ferritin
D. rhodopsin
*A. elastin
B. collagen
C. ferritin
D. rhodopsin

A. alanine, glycine
737
*A. collagen
B. cholesterol
C. fatty acids
D. pyruvate
*A. desmosine
B. myoglobin
C. actin
D. myosin
A . alanine
B . leucine
*C. lysinnorrleusin
D . serine



738
tissue?
A . phosphoproteins
B . nucleoproteins
*C. proteoglycans
D. hemoproteins
A . methylation
B . phosphorylation


a) alanine
b) leucine

physical activity?
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenolysis
739
*C..Gluconeogenesis
D. Glycogenesis

body:
A. skeletal muscle
*B. the liver
C. brain
D. kidney
A. transport
B. catalytic
C. regulatory
*D. contractile



740
d) bind to actin

c) store of lipids
a) blood
b) muscles
*c) liver
d) heart
*A. monooxygenase
B. dioxygenase
C. catalase
D. peroxida



detected in urine.
D) sepsis.
741
this disease:
A) does not change
*B) decreased
C) increased


A) feces dark brown

a) cobalt
*b) iron
742
c) magnesium
d) manganese

2) Hyperglycees
4) glucosuria
b) hexokinase
c) pyruvate kinase
*1. 0.1–0.2 g/day

2. 1.0–2.0 g/day
3. 10–20 g/day
4.1.0–2.0 mg/day
5. 10–20 mg/day

1) phenylketonuria
*3) alkaptonuria
4) albinism
5) homocystinuria
*a) ammonium salts

b) ketone bodies
743
c) alpha-keto
d) uric acid
*a) 5,3- 6,5

b) 1,2- 2,0
c) 3,5-5,5
d) 9,5- 10

*A. kidney
B. liver
C. heart
D. lung
C. alpha-keto
D. uric acid
*A. К
B. Nа
C. Мg
D. Мп
744
*A. 5,3- 6,5
B. 1,2- 2,0
C. 3,5-5,5
D. 9,5- 10
in the kidneys?
*A. angiotensinogen
B. trypsinogen
C. pepsinogen
D. urobilinogen

C. absence of urine

*A . anuria
B . oliguria
C . polyuria
D. nicturia
*A . nicturia
745
B . oliguria
C . Polyuria
D. anuria

*A. isostenuria
D. anuria

homeostasis
in the kidneys?
*A. angiotensinogen
B. trypsinogen
C. pepsinogen
D. Urobilinogen
A. thyroxine
B. testosterone
*C. vasopressin
D. oxytocin
A. pancreas
746
*B. adrenal cortex

in the kidneys?
*a) angiotensinogen
b) trypsinogen
c) pepsinogen
d) urobilinogen.
*a) 5,3- 6,5

b) 1,2- 2,0
c) 3,5-5,5
d) 9,5- 10
*a) kidney
b) liver
c) heart
*A. in the brain
B . kidney
C . spleen
D . heart
747
*a) in the brain

b) kidney
c) spleen
d) heart
A. Calcium
B. Phosphate
C. carbonate
*D. cystine
*A. Phosphate
B. potassium
C. oxalate
a. glucose
b. amino acids
c. fatty acids

in humans?
a. glucose
b. glycogen
c. triacylglycerols
d. +ATP
748
of
a. +Н2О, ATP
b. O2, H2O
c. ATP, Н2О2
d. Н2О2, O2

chain
located?
a. in microsomes

transport of
b. lygase
c. isomerase

749
one pair
a. 12
b. 2
c. 38
d. +3
a. В1
b. В2
c. В6
d. +РР
a. В1
b. +В2
c. B6

electron transport
chain?
b. NAD, NADPH2.
d. NAD, CoА.
a. lipoproteins
750
b. glycolipids
c. nucleoproteins
d. +hemoproteins
a. c1
b. c
c. +aa3
d. b

one pair
a. 38
b. 12
c. +2
d. 3

ATP
synthesized?
d. cytoplasm

a. Gluconeogenesis
751
d. Glycolysis

ETC?
a. ATP
b. ADP
c. CO2
d. +cyanide
b. catalase
d. peroxidase

+cytochrome oxidase
b. CoQ
c. Complex I
752
a. adenine
b. pentose
c. +nicotinamide
a. adenine
b. nicotinamide
c. iron

participate?
a. glycolysis
a. protons Н+
b. hydrogen atoms
c. +electrons
d. oxygen

cytochromeoxidase?
a. simple enzyme
b. contains iodine
753
c. +contains copper
d. contains NAD
d. xanthine oxidase
a. Cu2+ and Zn2+

b. +Cu2+ and Fe2+
c. Cu2+ and Mn2+
d. Cu2+

is
a. +coenzyme Q
b. coenzyme A

complex

754


mitochondrial
a. FMN
b. +NAD
c. Coenzyme Q
d. Cyt b

mitochondrial
a. NAD
b. Coenzyme Q
c. +FAD
d. (D) Cyt c

are
a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. +I, III and IV
d. I and II
755
respiratory chain,
a. + 2
b. 1
c. 3d. 4

respiratory chain,
a. 1
b. 2
c. +3
d. 4

respiratory chain
is

a. sulphite
b. sulphate
c. arsenite
d. +cyanide
756
been proposed
by

c. S. Waugh

a. +Zero
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

the
a. protons
b. +electrons
c. hydrogen atoms
d. oxygen
a. adenine
b. nicotinamide
c. +iron
757
protein
isimpaired?
a. albumins
b. globulins
c. +hemoglobin
d. immunoglobulins

transport of
a. +Chylomicrons


758



prosthetic group is
a. lipids
b. +carbohydrates
c. nucleic acids
d. Me ions

prosthetic group is
a. lipids
b. carbohydrates
c. +nucleic acids
d. Me ions
a. Adenine
b. Guanine
759
c. Cytosine
d. +Urasil
c. Cytosine
d. +Thymine
a. +nucleotides
b. amino acids
c. nucleosides


ribosome

ribosome
760

(rRNA)

ribosome
due to

a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. +Thymine
a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. +Urasil
761


22. Myoglobine

23. Hemoglobine

a. +HbA1, HbA2, HbF

762
c. HbA1, HbA2, HbS
a. HbA1, HbA2, HbF

c. HbA1, HbA2, HbS
d. HbA2, HbF, HbS
a. +HbO2, HbCO2,
b. HbS, HbA1, HbA2
c. HbCO, metHbOH
d. HbCO, HbCO2
a. HbO2, HbCO2,
b. HbS,HbA1, HbA2
c. +HbCO, metHbOH
d. HbCO, HbCO2


763


compounds of
a. +iron
b. copper
c. manganese
d. zinc
a. hemoglobin
b. myoglobin
c. cytochromes
d. +All of them

34. Ferritin is a

764

a. hemosiderine
b. +transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
d. ferritin

transports oxygen

in this
compound:
a. +Iron
b. Zinc
c. Magnesium
d. Calcium
a. hemosiderine
b. transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
d. +ferritin
765

nervous systems

vitamin B12
a. Mn
b. Mg
c. Cu

A) acid phosphatase

A) urea

in blood?
766
*A) gemoglobinuriya
B) kreatinuriya
C) glukosuriya
*1. lactate;
2. glucose;
3. pyruvate;
4. amino acids;
*a) 3,3 - 5,5 mmol/l

b). 5.5 - 7.5 mmol/l
c) 1,5 - 3,5 mmol/l
d) 7,5 - 8,9 mmol/l
*a) heparin
b) antithrombin
c) pelentan
d) sincumar
*a) 45%
b) 50%
c) 55%
a) 100days
b) 110days
*c) 120days
d) 130days
767
*a) Ca2+
b) Fe2+
c) Mg2+
d) Mn2+

This is called
a) Hypertension
b) Hypotension
c) Atherosclerosis
a) RBC
b) blood plasma
c) leucocytes
a) hemocyanine
b) pyrite
*c) hemoglobin
d) myoglobin
768
a. +A, D, E, K
d. A, D, B1, B2
a. cholecalciferol
b. ergocalciferol
d. +calcitriol
3. Vitamins are


769
c. +stored in liver
a. painful joints
b. +night blindness
c. loss of hair
a. +xeropthalmia

a. iodopsin
b. +rhodopsin
c. cardiolipin
d. glycoproteins
a. iodopsin
b. +rhodopsin
c. glycoprotein
770
b. cis-retinal
c. retinol
d. retinoic acid
a. +Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. +Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. +Vitamin K
a. Vitamin A
b. +Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
771

c. Hypthyroidism

a. Infrared light
b. Dim light

b. Intestine
c. Adipose tissue
d. Muscle
a. Vitamin D
b. +Vitamin E
c. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin K
772
b. meat
c. fish
d. milk

c. Cell growth

intestine is
a. A
b. C
c. D
d. +K

of the blood
a. +Carboxylase
b. Decarboxylase
c. Hydroxylase
d. Oxidase

773
a. Riboflavin
b. Retinol
c. +Menadione
d. Tocopherol

is
a. +Vitamin C
b. Vitamin A
administrating
a. Retinol
b. +Thiamin
c. Pyridoxine
d. Vitamin B12
b. Hydroxylation
c. Transamination
d. Carboxylation
a. +cheilosis
774
b. loss of weight
d. dermatitis

vitamin
a. +riboflavin
b. thiamin
c. nicotinic acid
d. pyridoxine

a. B1
b. B2c. +PP
d. B6
a. riboflavin
b. pantothenic acid
c. +niacin
d. pyridoxine
a. ascorbic acid
b. pantothenic acid
c. pyridoxine
d. +niacin
775
are
a. +dehydrogenases
b. transaminases
c. decarboxylases
d. carboxylases
a. +pyruvate
b. xanthurenic acid
c. glucose
d. phenylpyruvate

amines is

(PLP)

776
d. vitamin B12
a. +beri-beri
b. pellagra
c. demencia
d. scurvy
a. ferrodoxin
b. +FAD
d. pyrophosphate

dinucleotide (FAD)
a. +vitamin B1
d. vitamin B6


the corners of
777
dermatitis?
a. Vitamin B1
b. +Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin PP
d. Vitamin B6


amino acids is
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin PP
d. +vitamin B6

and

a. ferredoxin
778
c. pyrophoaphate
d. +NAD+

the vitamin
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. +vitamin PP
d. vitamin B6
a. FMN, FAD
b. +NAD+, NADP+
c. ADP, ATP
d. THF, FH4
a. beri-beri
b. +pellagra
c. demencia
d. scurvy

b. +pellagra
c. night blindness
d. scurvy
779
a. ferredoxin
c. pyrophosphate
d. NAD+
a. ferredoxin
c. +FAD
d. NAD+
a. +15-20 mg
b. 1-1.5 mg
c. 75 mg
d. 3-5 mg
a. +water soluble
b. fat soluble
d. none of these

a. beri-beri
780
b. pellagra
c. demencia
d. +scurvy

cabbage, spinach,
a. +vitamin C
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin A
60.Biotin serves as

a. +coenzymes A

781
c. night blindness
d. osteomalacia
a. Osteoporosis
b. +Night blindness
d. Infertility
a. +xerophthalmia
b. rickets


total
blindness.
a. +Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
782
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E


by
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin E
c. +vitamin D
d. vitamin K
a. +night blindness
b. keratinization
c. rickets
d. scurvy
a. scurvy
b. cataract
a. +antioxidants
b. reducing agent
783
d. all of these
a. +protrombin
b. thrombin
c. fibrin
d. fibrinogen
a. +Cobalt
b. Copper
c. Zinc
d. Iron
a. vitamin A
b. +vitamin K
c. vitamin C
d. niacin
a. Cobalamin
b. Pyrodoxine

В1?
a. NAD
b. +TPP
784
d. FAD



symptoms are
observed?
d. +polyneuritis

В2?
a. TPP
b. +FADc. NAD
d. НSCоА
785

c. hydrolysis

symptoms are
observed?

d. xerophthalmia

РР?
a. TDP
b. FAD
c. +NAD
d. НSCоА

symptoms are
observed?
a. diarhhea
b. dementia
c. dermatitis
786
observed?
a. night blindness
b. +dementia
d. hemeralopia

В6?
a. FAD, FMN
b. NAD, NADP
d. НSCоА

reactions:
a. fatty liver
c. +polyneuritis
d. night blindness
787
a. thymine
b. thymidine
c. thioredoxin
a. biotin
b. pyridoxine
c. +riboflavin
d. thiamine

acid
(vitamin C)?
a. 10 – 15 mg/day
b. +60 – 70 mg/day
c. 1 – 2 g/day
d. 30 – 40 mg/day
a. +niacine
b. riboflavin
c. tiamine
d. pyridoxine
a. +pyridoxine
b. nicotinic acid
c. pyrimidine
d. riboflavin
788
observed?
a. pellagra
b. rickets
c. +scurvy

the body?

synthesis
1) albumin;
2) globulin;
3) myosin;
a) serine
b) aspartic acid
c) valine
d) methionine
*1. biogenic amine

789
hydroxylase) causes
*1) phenylketonuria
2) homocystinuria
3) alkaptonuria
4) albinism
1. histidine
2. tyrosine
3. proline
2. adrenaline
3. norepinephrine
*4. phenylalanine

*2. adrenaline
3. insulin
4. dopamine

involved1. NADP +
*2 .NADPH (H +)
3. FADH2
4. FMNH2
790
1. phenol, glycine
2. Skatole, indole
*3. cresol, phenol
1. kidney
2. bladder
3. pancreas
*4. livers
1. tryptophan
2. histidine
3. methionine
*4. tyrosine
*1. glu with val

2. glu with asp
3. val with leu
4. val with cys

dramatically with
1) kidney disease
2) pancreatitis
3) prostatitis
791
b) citrulline
c) arginine
d) ornithine
1 methionine
2 serine
3 cysteine
*4 tyrosine
the reaction:
*a) deamination
b) transamination
c) hydroxylation
d) decarboxylation

groups from:

1) lysine
2) valine
3) tyrosine
792
*4) serine

from the N-terminal
amino acids:
a) carboxypeptidase
*b) aminopeptidase
c) pepsin
d) gastricsin
1. glycine
2. glutamate
1. 25–45 mg
2 .0.25–0.35 g
3. 2.5–3.5 g
*4. 20 – 25 g
1) citrate
3) succinate
4) fumarate
a) stomach
b) in the pancreas
*c) small intestine
d) large intestine
793
a) dopamine
*b) histamine
c) putrescine
d) cadaverine
1) amylases
a) muscle
b)in the brain
*c) liver
d) in the kidneys
a) urea synthesis

enzyme of gastric
a) trypsin
b) pepsin
c) chymotrypsin
*d) rennin

2) lysine, pepsin,
794

action of:
a) chymotrypsin
b) trypsin
c) elastase

*a) enterokinase
b) pepsin
d) gastricine
*1. 0.1–0.2 g/day

2. 1.0–2.0 g/day
3. 10–20 g/day
4.1.0–2.0 mg/day
*a) pepsin
b) trypsin
c) amylased) lipase
795
a. pepsin
b. trypsin
c. rennin
a) dipeptidase
*b) pepsin
c) carboxypeptidase
d) aminopeptidase
1) 1,5 – 2,0
2) 3,8 – 5,8
*3) 7,5 – 8,0
4) 1,5 – 3,0
a) pepsin
b) carbon dioxide
c) fiber
*d) a bile acid

organic
796



d) citrulline

and protons in the


c) In the cytoplasm

organic

797
a) transport
b) catalytic
c) regulatory
*d) contractile
a) 1,5 – 2,0
b) 3,8 – 5,8
*c) 7,5 – 8,0
d) 1,5 – 3,0

B. lipolysis
A. NAD
B. FMN
C. cytochromes
*D. oxygen
A. glutamic acid;
D. histidine;
798
*A. enterokinase;
B. pepsin;
D. gastriksina;

action of:
A. chymotrypsin;
B. trypsin;
C. elastase;

from the N-terminal
amino acids:
*B. aminopeptidase;
C. pepsin;
D. gastricsin;

the enzyme
A. enterokinase;
B. pepsin;
*C. trypsin;
D. elastase.
A. dopamine;
*B. histamine;
C. putrescine;
799
D. cadaverine;
A . stomach
B . in the pancreas
*C. small intestine
D . large intestine
A. trypsin;
*C. rennin;

A. alanine
*B. tyrosine
C. serine
D. phenylalanine
A. chymotrypsin;
C. dipeptidase;
*D. pepsin;

is:
B. fatty acids;
C. carbohydrates;
800
*D. amino acids;
A. muscle
B. in the brain
*C. liver
D. in the kidneys
A. liver, lung
B . liver, muscle
*C. kidney, liver
D. kidney, muscle
C. tyrosinase;
CH2
CН CH2 -NH2 CH2
CH2
ПФ-вит.В6
СООН
C=О
СООН
801
СООН
СООН
CН-NH2
СООН
CH2
СООН
C=О
СООН
CH2
СООН
A. glutaminase


urea cycle?
A. citrulline
B. arginine
C. fumaric acid

(GABA)?

802

groups from:

the reaction:
A. deamination;
B. transamination;
C. hydroxylation;

formation. This
B. citrulline
C. arginine
*D. ornithine
*A. thyroxine
B. growth hormone
803
D. calcitonin
A. glucagon
*B. adrenaline
C. insulin

of phenylalanine to
tyrosine
C. glutamateoxidase
D. ALT
A. in the kidney;
*B. in the liver;

D. in the muscle;

alanine:


CH2
CH2 CН-NH2
804
CH3
C=О CH2
CH2
ПФ-вит.В6
Аланин
СООН
C=О
СООН
СООН
СООН
CН-NH2
СООН
СООН
CH3

A) 20-40 КЕ
*B) 10-20 КЕ
805
C) 40-50 КЕ

A. trypsin
B. pepsin
C. chymotrypsin
*D. rennin
A) 50-70 КЕ
B) 40-60 КЕ
C) 10-20 КЕ
*D) 20-40 КЕ
A) pH=12,0-14,0
B) pH=8,0-9,5
*C) pH=1,5-2,0
D) pH=5,0-7,0
A) серина
C) валина
A) oral cavity
B) colon
C) esophagus
806
*D) small intestine
A) Lipase
*B) Pepsin
C) Maltase
D) Amylase
A) fatty acids
B) monosaccharides
C) glycerine
*A. oxsaloacitate
B. citrate
C. isocitrate
D. fumarate


and protons in the


807

C. glycolysis;
A. FAD
B. NAD
C. FMN
*D. Heme

from components:
*A. ADP + H3PO4

B. AMP 2 H3PO4
D. AMP + GMP
A . cobalt
*B . iron
C . magnesium
D . manganese

808
*A. 6,5-8,5
B. 5,0-5,5C. 10-11
D. 1-3

B. aldolase amylase
D. lipase, aldolase
A. iron
B. calciu
*C. copper
D. magnesium

blood?

C. urea, fat

creatine?
D. citrulline
809



A. рН = 12 -14
B. рН = 8 - 9,5
C. рН = 2 5 - 7
*D. рH = 1,5 – 2
B. trypsin
C. rennin

A. serotonin
B. tryptamine
*C. indole
D. benzene
810
A. 1,5 – 2,0;
*B. 3,8 – 5,8;
C. 7,5 – 8,0;
D. 1,5 – 3,0;
A. dipeptidase;
*B. pepsin;
D. aminopeptidase;

skatole and indole?
A. leucine,
B. alanine
C. tyrosine
*D. tryptophan
*A. pepsin
B. trypsin
C. amylase
D. lipase
*A) chymosin
B) trypsinogen
C) sucrase
D) dehydrogenase
811
A) 1-2 min.
B) 5-10 min.
C) 10-60 sec.
*D) 15-20 sec.
*A) the proteolytic
B) lypolitich
C) amylitich
D) nuclease


everything except:
A) lipase
B) protease
C) nuclease
*D) enterokinase.
812
*a) 6,5-8,5
b) 5,0-5,5
c) 10-11
d) 1-3.

d) lipase, aldolase
a) ironb) calcium
*c) copper
d) magnesium

creatine?

glucagon?
A. d-AMP
B. d-CMP
*C. c-AMP
D. d-GMP
813
1. adenine
*2. uric acid
3. urea
1. nucleus
2mitochondria
3. ribosomes
*4. cytoplasm
1. beta alanine
2. xanthine
3. inosinic acid
*4. uric acid
*1. gout
2. glycogenosis
4. beriberi
1. cytosine
2. uracil
*3. guanosine

is
814
1) xanthine
2) hypoxanthine
*4) uric acid

is
3. urea
*4. uric acid
a) dihydroxyuracil
*b) deoxyribose
c) phosphoric acid
d) thymine
1. TAG
2. MAGE
3. DAG
*4. cAMP


815
A. replication;
B. transcription;
*C. translation;
D. reparation
called:
A. aminoacyl;
*B. peptidyl;
C. initiation;

transcriptase /



postsynthetic

modification of
proteins

postsynthetic
816

biosynthesis?
A. carbamoyl
B. DNA synthetase
D. replicase

"the meaning of
*A. universality;
B. specificity;
C. unambiguity;
D. linearity

*A. the degeneracy;
B. the triplet;
C. flexibility;
817
D. specificity;

nonsense
codons
codons
m-RNA
of another
tRNA

A. translation;
B. replication;
C. transcription;
*D. reparation;
A. termination;
818
B. recognizing;
*C. elongation;
A. protective
B. nutritional
*C. transportation
D. hormonal

arteries?
A. histamine
B. serotonin
*C. adrenaline
D. angiotensin


A. calcitriol
*Bn. Calcitoni
819
C. insulin
D. aldosterone

are involved:
*B. aldosterone;
C. prostaglandins;
D. erythropoietin;
.

body?




urine
*A. calcitonin
B. Parathormone
820
C. insulin
D. aldosterone

*A. AlAT
B. Acid Phosphatase

exchange:
A. fluorine;
B. sodium;
*C. calcium.
D. chlorine;

organism:


821
salts?
1. uric acid
2. urea
3.Hypuric acid
*4. ammonia

2. penetrating

understand:

cell by passive
transport?
1. kali
2. iron
3. calcium
*4. sodium

822

b) 6.0 - 8.0 liters
*c) 1.5 - 2.5 liters
d) 3-6 liters

*1.in the kidneys

2. in the liver
3. in the heart
4. in the lungs


c) transferrin
d) interferon
823
*1.ammonium salts
2. ketone bodies
3. alpha ketoacids
4. uric acid

exchange

*1) vegetables
2) meat
3) milk
4) flour products

*1. 5.3 - 6.5

2. 1.2-2.0
3. 3.5-5.5
4. 9,5- 10

the kidney?
824
2. trypsinogen
3. pepsinogen
4. urobilinogen
*1) meat
2) milk
3) vegetables


cell?

2. active transport
4. due to water
*1.active transport
825
4. due to water


stimulating the

nature?
B. Carbohydrate
*D. Peptide
*1. 6.5-8.5
2. 5.0-5.5
3. 10-11
4. 1-3

4. lipase, aldolase

826

1. iron
2. calcium
*3. copper
4. magnesium
thing?

1. calcitonin
4. insulin

827


homeostasis


synthesis
of cholesterol:
b) Acylsynthase
c) Acylase
composition:
a) citrate +
b) oxaloacetate;
c) succinate;
828
d) fumarate.
cycle
used?
a) ATP synthesis
c) propionyl-CoA;
d) acetyl CoA
a) Vitamin D3 +
b) hippuric acid;
c) animal indican;
d) Acetyl CoA;
b. Acylsynthase
829
c. Acylase
of FA
a) cytoplasm+
b) mitochondria;
c) lysosomes;
d) the core;
a) 2) malate;
b) 3) citrate; +
c) 4) glycerate;
d) 5) ATP.
occurs
in the liver +
a. alanine
830
b. methionine
occur?
b) 2. in lysosomes
synthesis of
higher fatty acids:
a) glycolysis;
a) 2) malonyl-CoA;
b) 3) acetyl CoA;
a. chylomicrons;
831
b. VLDL;
c. LDL;
d. HDL +
the
a. Micelles
b. Chylomicrons +
a. serine
b) 2.methionine
b. ethanolamine
a. insulin;
b. androgens;
c. glucagon; +
phosphotylcholine?
a. serine
832
b) 2.methionine
b. ethanolamine
transport
a) LDL;
b) VLDL; +
c) bile acids;
d) proteolipids.
b. acetyl CoA; +
c. ADP;
d. methionine.
are:a. FADH2;
b. FMNH2;
c. NADPH2 +
d. KoQ.
a. FADH2;
b. FMNH2;
833
c. NADH2;
d. NADPH2; +
transformation of
a. HMG-CoA.
c. NADH2
followed by
a. citrate +
b. carnitine
c. malate
d. succinate
d. thiolase.
which
834
uses CO2:
the hormone:
a. glucagon;
b. thyroxin;
c. cortisol;
d. insulin +
phospholipids?
a. GMP
b. CTP +
c. UDP
d. UTP
synthesis of
mole of
palmitic acid?
a. 12 moles
b. 14 moles +
835
c. 36 moles
phosphatidylcholine
phosphatidylcholine
d. β-ketothiolase.
a) FAD.
b) NADPH. +
c) FADN2.
liver.
836
c. Glycerolkinase
of
triacylglycerides:
triglycerides in
tissues.
a) glyceric acid
d) malonyle CoA
c. UDP-glucose;
synthesis of ketone
a) Squalene
b) lanosterol
c) mevalonic acid
837
the
a. malate; +
b. citrate;
c. creatine;
d. aspartate
d) NOOS-CH-CO-S-APB
during the
b. glycerin; +
a. the kidneys;
b. liver; +
c. the intestines;
d. adrenal cortex;
glycerol-3-
in the
intestinal wall?
838
d. glycerolkinase +
during the
b. glycerin;
c. glyceric acid;
from
d. acetyl CoA
a. Crotonyl-CoA;
b. Palmitoyl-CoA;
c. acetyl CoA; +
d. butyryl CoA.
a. cytoplasm; +
b. mitochondria;
c. the core;
d. lysosomes.
839
oxidized
a) 12
b) 24
c) 38 +
d) 28
a. Ribose
b. NADPH +
c. NADd. ATP
a) liver +
b) Kidney
c) Erythrocytes
d) Brain
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 85%
d) 60%
b) hexokinase
d) lipase
a. MG
840
b. DG
c. TG
a. adrenaline
b. glucagon
c. thyroxine
d. insulin +
a. palmitate
b. arahinate
c. arachidonate +
d. stearate
a. NADH
b. FADH2
c. NADPH +
d. TPP
a. glycerin
b. acetoacetate. +
c. pyruvate
introduction
a) insulin +
b) adrenaline
c) somatotropin
d) glucocorticoids
841
a. biotin.
b. ATP
c. palmitate +
d. avidin
out.
a. NAD and FAD
b. CTP and UTP
a. bile acids +
b. sex hormones
c. glucocorticoids
a) catecholamines
b) prostaglandins
842
d) glucagon
a. serine
b. methionine +
PDH
b. succinyl-CoA
d. TG
a) lipoxygenation +
b) methylations
c) decarboxylase
a) butiryl CoA +
b) palmitic acid
c) stearic acid
d) oleic acid
a) HDL +
b) LDL
c) LDL
843
a) core
b) ribosomes
c) cytoplasm +
d) Golgi complex
a) structure
b) immune +
c) energy
a) core
b) lysosomes
c) cytoplasm +
d) Golgi complex
844
c. sphingolipids
a. oleic
b. palmitic
c. stearic
the tissue:
a) VLDL
b) LDL
c) HDL
d) chylomicrons +
mother's milk
in infants:
a) an amylase
b) lingual lipase +
c) phospholipase
d) a bile acid
performed
a) HDL +
b) LDL
c) VLDL
d) bile acids
845
the large
intestine:
a. serotonin
b. tryptamine
c. indole +
a) globulins
b) hemoglobin
c) β-lipoproteins
d) albumins. +
a) glycerol
b) Choline
c) triglycerides
d) cholesterol +
supplied
mainly due to
a. glycolysis
b. cycles of Krebs
a) vitamin K
b) vitamin D +
c) vitamin E
846
a) in the stomach
b) in lymph
c) in blood
a) soluble in water
a) liver +
b) kidney
c) muscle
d) the spleen
b) cerebrosides
c) triglycerides
blood
b) muscles
c) liver +
d) heart
1. adrenalin
2. somatotropin
3. testosterone +
847
4. triiodtrionin
a. Can
b. Can not +
d. I don’t know
a) cholic acid
b) cholesterol +
c) chenodeoxycholic
d) lanosterol
c) fatty acid
d) triacylglycerols
a) phospholipids
b) cholesterol
c) waxes
a) LDL
b) HDL
c) VLDL
d) Chylomicrons +
intestine into
848
the tissue:
a) VLDL
b) LDL
c) HDL
d) chylomicrons +
a) NADHb) biotin
c) sphingosine
d) NADPH (H) +
a) lipoprotein +
b) flavoproteins
c) phosphoproteins
d) hemoprotein
a) lecithin
d) Serine +
a) the oral cavity
b) the stomach +
c) the esophagus
d) small intestine
849
b) lipolysis
d) protein synthesi
A. phospholipids
B. cholesterol
C. waxes
e) pH =3,0-4,0
a. pH =12,0-14,0
b. pH =1,0-2,0c. pH =8,0-8,5 +
A) in lungs
B) in the brain
C) in the liver +
D) in the blood
of a
liver?
850
A) increases
B) decreases +
C) doesn't change
ATP:
a) the cytosol
b) lysosomes
d) mitochondria +
a) NAD
b) FMN
c) cytochromes
a) oxaloacitate +
b) citrate
c) isocitrate
d) fumarate
a. diacylglycerols
b. fatty acids
c. cholesterol
d. Phospholipids +
digestion of
dietary fat are:
851
digestion of
b) insulation; +
a) lipoprotein +
b) flavoproteins
c) phosphoproteins
d) hemoprotein
a) the oral cavity;
b) the stomach; +
c) the esophagus;
d) small intestine;
intestine into
the tissue:
852
a) VLDL;
b) LDL;
c) HDL;
a) phospholipids; +
c) fatty acid.
a) glycerol
b) choline
c) triglycerides
d) cholesterol +
a) blood
b) muscles
c) liver +
d) heart
a) structure;
b) immune; +
c) energy;
mother's
853
c) phospholipase;
d) a bile acid;
a) globulins;
b) hemoglobin;
c) β-lipoproteins;
d) albumins. +
a) cholic acid
b) cholesterol +
c) chenodeoxycholic
d) lanosterol
membranes
d) triacylglycerol
a) pepsin;
b) carbon dioxide;
c) fiber;
d) a bile acid +
854
a) in the stomach
b) in lymph
c) in blood
b) cerebrosides;
c) triglycerides;
a. linoleic
d. oleic +
ATP:
a) the cytosol;
b) lysosomes;
d) mitochondria. +
fatty acids
855
a) 3;
b) 4;
c) 2; +
d) 1;
a) acetoacetyl-CoA
b) acetoacetate +
c) butyrate
a) liver; +
b) kidney;
c) muscle;
d) the spleen;
b) pepsinogen
c) amylase
d) lactate
proteases is -
b. monosaccharides
c. glycerol
856
1. Hormones
a. Act as coenzyme
b. Act as enzyme
b. +Thyroxine
d. Glucagon

the second
messenger cAMP is
b. cortisol
c. calcitriol
d. progesteron
a. +growth hormone
b. vasopressin
c. oxytocin
d. epinephrine
a. +vasopressin
857

a. thyroxine
b. +growth hormone
c. insulin
d. glucagon
a. somatostatin

major
a. Cortisol
b. Insulin
c. Vasopressin
d. +Aldosterone
858
completely from
tyrosine?
a. Glucagon
d. Prostaglandins

messenger except
a. +estrogen
b. FSH
d. glucagon

except
a. epinephrine
b. norepinephrine
c. +insulin
d. glucagon

causes the increase
859
a. +protein
b. fat
c. glycoprotein
d. carbohydrate
d. None of these
a. +androgens
b. glucocorticoids
d. None of these

liver is
a. +lactic acid
b. GTP
c. UTP
d. oxaloacetate

carbohydrate
metabolism?
a. Cortisol
b. Glucagon
860
c. +Vasopressin
d. Growth hormone

Ca and
phosphate?
b. Aldosterone

water balance?
a. Oxitocin
b. +Vasopressin
c. Calcitonin
d. Aldosterone
a. Oxitocin
b. Vasopressin
c. Calcitonin
d. +Aldosterone
a. +Insulin
b. Thyroxine
c. Adrenaline
d. Cortisol
861
acids?
a. testosterone
b. vasopressin
c. +adrenaline
d. glucagon
a. glucagon
b. +cortisol
c. corticotropin

c. in ribosomes
d. in microsomes

b. in ribosomes
messenger is:
b. protein kinase
c. +cyclic AMP
d. GTP
862


thyroid gland?

b. adrenaline
c. +thyroxine
a. pancreas
b. +thyroid gland
d. adrenal medulla

features of
thyroxine?

b. cretinism
863
c. +myxedema
d. Pheochromocytoma


c. obesity
a. tachycardia
c. loss of wheight
a. protruded eyes
b. goitre
864
hormone?
a. muscle
b. kidney
c. thyroid gland
d. +bone
a. pancreas
b. adrenal cortex

a. +insulin
b. glucagon
c. glucocorticoids
865
d. thyroxine

a. adrenal cortex
a. glucagon
b. +hydrocortisone
c. aldosterone
d. progesteron
a. adrenaline
b. vasopressin
c. +aldosterone

the liver?
866


of:


b. Kohn’s disease
867

hormone?
a. +estradiol
b. prostaglandins
c. corticosterone

disease?
a. +hypoglycemia
b. hyperglycemia

Addison’s
disease?

d. hyperglycemia
a. thyroid gland
868
b. hypophysis
c. adrenal medulla
d. +adrenal cortex
b. +adrenal medulla

b. protein
d. steroid hormone

869

ions
vitamins

metal ions
vitamins
3. Isoenzymes are

a. Transferases
b. +Ligase
c. Hydrolyses
870
a. Transferases
b. Ligase
c. Hydrolyses
d. +Isomerases

reaction
a. Transferases
b. Ligase
c. Hydrolyses
d. +Isomerases

b. Ligase
c. +Hydrolase
d. Isomerases

reaction
a. Transferases
b. Ligases
c. +Lyases
d. Isomerases

reaction
871
a. Transferases
b. +Ligases
c. Lyases
d. Isomerases

b. Ligases
c. +Oxidoreductases
d. Isomerases

a. +transferases
b. ligase
c. hydrolyses
d. isomerases

group within a

form are
a. oxidoreductases
b. ligases
c. hydrolyses
d. +isomerases
872
from one molecule
to another are
a. +oxidoreductases
b. ligases
c. hydrolyses

a. +transferases
b. ligase
c. hydrolyses
d. isomerases

70OC due to
a. +denaturation
b. renaturation
c. activation
d. inhibition
a. active site
b. binding site
c. catalytic site
d. +allosteric site
873
a. active site
b. binding site
c. catalytic site
d. +allosteric site
a. Transferases
b. Ligase
c. +Hydrolyses

a. amylase
a. amylase

or toxic origin,
a. amylase
874
a. +8,5
b. 2
c. 10
d. 5
a. 8,5
b. +2
c. 10

in a molecule.
substrate.

in a molecule.
substrate.
875

in a molecule
substrate

molecules
substrate
28.Zymogen is a
a. Vitamin
c. Modulator
d. Hormone

d. none of these
876
a. C
b. B6
c. B1

supported by

a. Prosthetic group
b. +Holoenzyme

substrate molecule
is
877

36.Coenzyme is
a. +Often a vitamin
c. Always a protein
a. often a vitamin
c. always a protein
d. +often a metal
a. +Fischer
b. Koshland
c. Buchner
d. Kuhne
a. Fischer
b. +Koshland
c. Buchner
d. Kuhne
878

c. Both (A) and (B)
d. None of these
b. TPP
c. NAD

a. +Apoenzyme
b. Coenzyme
c. Prosthetic group
d. None of these

belongs to the
category:
a. +Transferases
b. Lysases
c. Oxidoreductases
d. Isomerases
a. Desmolase
879
b. Hydrolase
c. +Dehydrogenase
d. Transaminase

called
a. Chemical energy
b. Metabolic energy
d. Potential energy
a. Kidney disease
d. None of these

site?
d. All of these
a. ATP
b. +Vitamin B and C
d. All of these
880
a. Invertase
b. Maltase
c. Sucrase
d. +Amylase
a. ATP
b. +PLPc. FAD
d. NAD+

of
a. +Transferases
b. Oxidoreductases
c. Isomerases
d. Lyases


physico-chemical
properties?
881
a. +Isoenzymes
b. Holoenzymes
c. Zymogens
d. Cofactors
a. Protein
b. +Starch
c. Sucrose
d. Glucose

type of reactions:
a. Hydrolysis
b. Oxidation
c. Reduction

a. Prosthetic group
b. Cofactor
c. Coenzyme
d. +Holoenzyme

only, but it

of
882
a. +Stereochemical
b. Absolute
c. Absolute group
d. Relative group

in patient’s
a. +Amylase
b. Protein kinase
c. Cholinesterase

blood plasma
a. Pepsin
b. Trypsin
c. Amylase

a. +LDH1 and LDH2

b. LDH3 and LDH4
c. LDH3
d. LDH4 and LDH5
883
caused by:
a. decarboxylation
b. renaturation
d. +Denaturation

reactivated after
inhibitor removal:
a. Substrate
b. Noncompetitive
c. Reversible
d. +Irreversible

parameters are

884
disturbance of
metabolism of
a. histamin
b. glycine
c. tryptophan
d. +phenylalanine

lactose degradation
in the intestine?
a. Peptidase
b. Saccharase
c. Maltose
d. +Lactase

hydroxylase,

excessive
production of
a. tyrosine
b. phenol
c. cresol
d. +phenylpyruvate
885
hepatic enzyme
b. tyrosinase

tyrosine
a. +phenylketonuria
b. citrullinemia
d. alkaptonuria

b. glucosoisomerase
c. hexokinase

developing of
a. Glucosoisomerase
b. Hexokinase
a. Arsenite
886
b. +Malonate
c. Citrate
d. Fluoride
d. Fumarase

b. +Hexokinase
c. Phosphorylase

glucose is
b. Hexokinase
c. Phosphorylase

b. Glucosoisomerase
c. Hexokinase
887
b. +fructokinase

human tissues?
a. maltose
b. starch
c. +glycogen
d. cellulose

a. fructose
b. +galactose
c. glucose
d. maltose

intestine?
a. +glucose
b. sucrose
c. lactose
888
d. glycogen

intestine?
a. starch
b. maltose
1c. galactose
d. +fructose

for humans?
a. starch, maltose

b. +In muscles
c. In liver
d. In brain

c. +Liver
d. Brain

889
b. In the stomach
c. In the duodenum
d. In the intestine

digestion of
carbohydrates?
a. +α-amylase
2b. pepsin
d. hexokinase

the body?
b. +hexokinase
c. phosphorylase
d. isomerase

from pyruvate?
890
b. +oxaloacetate
c. lactose
d. malate
a. lactase
c. phosphorylase

3b. +fructokinase

lactose?
a. Lysosomes
b. Mitochondria
c. +Cytoplasm
d. Ribosomes
891
are catalyzed by
a. hexokinase
d. +pyruvate kinase

glycolysis?
a. Pyruvate
c. +Lactate
d. Acetyl CoA

of anaerobic
4a. +2
b. 3
c. 12
d. 38

of aerobic
a. 2
b. 3
c. 12
892
d. +38

is its conversion
to:
a. lactate
b. +acetyl CoA
c. glyceraldehyde
d. oxaloacetate
a. brain
b. muscles
c. +liver
d. adrenal cortex
a. Peptide bond
56

893
glycogen synthesis?
a. +Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Galactose
d. Sucrose

glycogen?
a. glucokinase
b. +phosphorylase
c. protease
of glycogen?
d. intake of food
as glycogenoses?

d. Cushing syndrome
894

of gluconeogenesis?
c. aldolase
of glycolysis?


895
phosphate?
a. fructokiase
b. +glucokinase
d. phosphorylase
b. +pyruvate kinase

decarboxylation
of pyruvate?
a. oxaloacetate
b. lactate
d. +acetyl CoA

6- phosphate
dehydrogenase?
c. FAD
d. +NADP
896



pyruvate to
oxaloacetate?

b. pyruvate kinase
a. obesity
b. bone fragility
c. +cataract
of maltose?
897
ofsucrose?

of glycolysis?
a. enolase
c. aldolase
of glycogen?
a. N-glycoside bond
a. glucose
898
d. UDP-glucose

adults is:
a. 1.5 – 2.5 mmol/L

b. +3.35 – 5.55 mmol/L
c. 7.5 – 12.5 g/L11
d. 8.55 – 20.52 μmol/L

d. Pheochromocytoma
a. hepatitis
b. nephritis
of gluconeogenesis?
a. hexokinase
c. pyruvate kinase

of glucose in the
899
blood?
a. adrenaline
b. glucagon
c. thyroxine
d. +insulin

form of glucose in
animals?12
a. lactose
b. starch
c. proteoglycans
d. +glycogen
to hyperglycemia?
a. glycolysis
a. aldosteron
b. glucagon
c. +insulin
d. cortisol

substrate-level
900

a. +insulin
b. glucagon
c. cortisol
d. aldosteron13
a. Sanger
b. Watson and Crick
c. Mitchell
d. +Crebs

cycle located?
a. In the cytoplasm
b. +In mitochondria
c. In the nucleus
d. In ribosomes

cycle?
a. Ammonia
b. Glucose
901
c. +Acetyl CoA
d. ATP
dehydrogenase?
a. FAD
b. +NAD+
c. TDP
d. HSCоА
a. citrate synthase

of 1 molecule
a. 2
b. 3
c. +12
d. 38
a. citrate synthase
902
d. fumarase

vitamin В2
deficiency?
d. aconitase
b. aconitase



succinate
dehydrogenase?
a. TDP
b. NAD
903
c. HSCoA
d. +FAD

pathways?
a. gluconeogenesis
b. glycolysis
d. transamination

pathways?
a. glycogenolysis
d. Gluconeogenesis

d. Hexokinase

disease?
b. Gluconeogenes
904
c. Glucogenesis
d. +Glycogenolysis
a. hypothyrodism
b. hypothyrosis

starvation is

905



hypoglycemia and
b. Cory's disease

a. fructosuria
906
b. +galactosemia
17c. hyperglycemia
d. hypoglycemia

cataract, mental
a. +Galactosemia
d. Fructosuria

a. Pepsine
b. Maltase
c. Isomerase
d. +Lactase
d. All of these
a. Glycolysis
907
d. +Gluconeogenesis

liver is by
a. Hexokinase only
b. +Glucokinase only
18c. Hexokinase and glucokinase
d. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
86.The following is an enzyme required for glycolysis:
a. +Pyruvate kinase
b. Pyruvate carboxylase
c. Glucose-6-phosphatase
d. Glycerokinase
87.Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate requires
a. NADP+
b. Cytochromes
d. +CoASH
88.During glycolysis, fructose 1, 6 – diphosphate is

decomposed by the enzyme:
a. Enolase a
b. Fructokinase
c. +Aldolase
d. Diphosphofructophosphatose
89.The following enzyme is required for the hexose

monophosphate shunt
908
pathway:
a. Glucose-6-phosphatase
b. Phosphorylase
c. Aldolase
d. +Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
90.Our body can get pentoses from
a. Glycolytic pathway
b. Uromic acid pathway
19c. TCA cycle
d. +HMP shunt
91.Dehydrogenase enzymes of the hexose monophosphate

shunt are
a. NAD+ specific
b. +NADP+ specific
c. FAD specific
d. FMN specific
92.Dehydrogenation of succinic acid to fumaric acid requires

the following
hydrogen carrier:
a. NAD+
b. NADP+
c. +FAD
d. FMN
93. Tissues form lactic acid from glucose. This phenomenon

is termed as
909
a. Aerobic glycolysis
b. Oxidation
c. Oxidative phosphorylation
d. +Anaerobic glycolysis
94. For glycogenesis, glucose should be converted to
a. Glucuronic acid
b. Pyruvic acid
c. +UDP glucose
d. Sorbitol
95. When O2 supply is inadequate, pyruvate is converted to
a. Phosphopyruvate
b. Acetyl CoA
20c. +Lactate
d. Alanine
96. Before pyruvic acid enters the TCA cycle it must be

converted to
a. +Acetyl CoA
b. Lactate
c. α-ketoglutarate
d. Citrate
97. The formation of citrate from oxaloacetate and acetyl

CoA is
a. Oxidation
b. Reduction
c. +Condensation
d. Hydrolysis
910
21 A person with phenylketonuria is advised not to consume which of the following
products?
Aspartam
Glucose
Fat
Cholesterol
 Catecolamines are derived from
Bilirubin
Tyrosine
Palmitic acid
Cholesterol
 Phenylalanine rich diet are
Fruits
Vegetables
Juice
Meat
 Which one of the following statements about albinic person is false?
Mental retarded
 Maple syrup urine disease is an inborn error of metabolism of
Saturated fatty acidsBranched chain amino acids
 Cystinuria is due to
 Ochronosis is a feature of ?
911
Albinism
Alkaptonuria
Phenylketonuria
Tyrosinosis
 What are repeating units of DNA
Bases
Nucleotides
Sugars
Phosphates
 Human DNA rich by nucleotides ?
A-T
G-C
A-U
None of the above
 Bacterial DNA rich by nucleotides?
A-T
G-CA-U
None of the above
 Purine base is ?
Uracil
Thymine
Guanine
Cytosine
 A purine nucleotide is ?
AMP
UMP
CMP
TMP
 The symptoms of retinol excess are
Bone fragility
Nausea Weakness
912
All of these
 Main function of insulin hormone is to
Options
 Ascorbic acid acts as an
Reducing agent
Oxidizing agentOxidizing and reducing agent both
None of the above
 A deficiency of thiamin produces the disease known as
Beri-beri
Scurvy
Cataract
Anemia
 Acyl carrier protein (ACP) plays an important role in the biosynthesis ooooof
Fatty acids
Amino acids
Sugars
Carbohydrates
 Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) is only synthesized by
Fishes
Micro-organisms
Plants
Animals
 Which of the following are reduced coenzymes?
NADH and FADH2
NAD+and FAD ATP and GTP
 The absence of ascorbic acid in the human diet gives rise to
913
Rickets
Pernicious anemia
CataractBeri-beri
 Vitamins are essential because the organism
Can't synthesize these compounds at all
Can synthesize these compounds partially
None of the above
 The prosthetic group biotin is a carrier of which type of molecule?
Ammonia
Methyl group
Sulfhydryl group
 Lipoic acid exists in
Oxidized form
Reduced form
None of these
 Vitamins B12 is useful in the prevention and treatment of
Pernicious anemia
Scurvy
Cataract
Beri-beri
 An example of a digestive hormone is
Lipase
Pepsin
AmylaseGastrin
 In the co-enzyme B12 the position occupied by a cyanide ion in vitamin B12 is bonded
directly to _______ of the ribose of adenosine.
Adenine
914
Hydroxycobalamin
Cyanocobalamin
 The complex of RNA polymerase, DNA template and new RNA transcript is called
Replication bubble
None of these
 RNA polymerase in prokaryotes has a removable
Alpha subunit
Beta subunit
Both (a) and (b)
Sigma subunit
 Promoters for tRNAs are located
Both(a) and (b)
None of these
 The binding of lac repressor to DNA could be considered to be analogous to
Competitive inhibition of an enzyme
Mixed-type inhibition of an enzyme
Uncompetitive inhibition of an enzymeAllosteric efforts in enzyme regulation
 Rho-dependent termination of transcription in E. coli
Requires ATP
Both(a) and (b)
 Enhancers are regions that
Bind RNA polymerase
915
 The conformational changes from the T to the R state is initiated by
 An allosteric activator
Stabilizes the R state of the protein
Both (a) and (c)
 Bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) cannot bind to the oxygenated R state of hemoglobin

because
Its binding pocket becomes too small to accommodate BPGBPG binds to the R state with the
same affinity as the T state
 The Hill coefficient (nH) for myoglobin and hemoglobin are respectively
2.8 and 1.0
1.0 and 2.8
1.2 and 4.5
4.5 and 1.2
 When protein binds two ligands in a non-cooperative manner, then the x-intercept of
the
Scatchard Plot is
Not defined
None of the above
 O2 binding to hemoglobin results in
Extensive protein conformational change
Both (a) and (b)
916
 In hemoglobin, allosteric effects occur
Only in humans
For maintaining Fe in the Fe2+ state
 A protein that binds two ligands in a non-cooperative manner will show
A linear Scatchard PlotBoth (b) and (c)
 Small molecules affect hemoglobin (Hb) by
Increasing [H +]
 A protein that shows infinite cooperative for binding of n ligands will
Show a Hill coefficient (nH) of o.o
Only be found in either the unliganded form or the fully liganded form
Show a Hill coefficient (nH) of n
Both (b) and (c)
 The specificity of a ligand binding site on a protein is based on
 Histidine is degraded to a-ketoglutarate and is described as a
Gluco amino acid
 Which of the following amino acids is considered as both ketogenic and glucogenic?
917
Valine
Tryptophan
LysineNone of these
 A glucogenic amino acid is one which is degraded to
Keto-sugars
None of the above
 Which of the following is the best described glucogenic amino acid?
Lysine
Tryptophan
Valine
None of these
 A person with phenylketonuria cannot convert
Phenol into ketones
 Oxidative deamination is the conversion of an amino,
 An example of a transamination process
Aspartate + a ketoglutarate = glutamate + oxaloacetateGlutamate = a-ketoglutarate + NH3
 Transamination is the process where.
918
None of the above
 The most toxic compounds is.
Tyrosine
Phenylpyruvate
Lysine
Phenylalanine
 A person with phenylketonuria is advised not to consume which of the following

products?
Fat containing food
Glucose
Aspartame
 Tyrosine is degraded to acetoacetyl CoA and fumarate and is described as a
Options
 Transaminase enzymes are present in
Options
LiverPancreas
Intestine
None of these
 An example of the oxidative deamination is
 In the normal breakdown of phenylalanine, it is initially degraded to
Fumarate
Tyrosine
919
Lysine
Phenylpuruvate
 Transamination is the transfer of an amino
Options
 Lysine is degraded to acetoacetyl CoA and is described as a
None of these
A ketogenic amino acid is one which degrades toOptions
Keto-sugars
or
acetoacetyl CoA
 A best described ketogenic amino acid is
Options
Lysine
Tryptophan
Valine
None of these
 A person suffering from phenylketonuria on consumption food containing high
phenylalanine may lead to the accumulation of
Options
Phenylalanine
Phenylpyruvate
920
Tyrosine
Isoleucine
 Which of those immunoglobulin classes is mainly found in external secretions?
Options
IgA
IgD
IgM
IgE
 Cleavage of an lgG molecule by a specific protease can produceOptions
 Papain digest lgG into
 Antibodies can be used
Options
For protein purification To catalyze chemical reactions
All of the above
 Type A blood
Options
Can be used to donate to type AB individuals
 Which of the following are responsible for immune specificity?
Options
921
Antigens
AntibodiesT lymphocytes
Macrophage
 Which species lack immunoglobulin light chains?
Options
Camels
Humans
Cows
Buffalo
 Monoclonal refers to
All of the above
 β-Lymphocytes are often called simply
Options
B cells
Tcells
T Lymphocytes
None of these
 IgE provides
Options
All of the above Fab fragment has
Options
922
 The main function of antibodies is to
Options
Chemically combine with the antigen which induces it, inactivate the antigen and protect the
body from
disease
 Alum is an effective adjuvant because it
 A secondary antibody is an antibody that
Has been used in prior experiments
 The immunoglobulin fold is
Options
Found only in IgG moleculesA fl-barrel composed of a three- and a four-stranded antiparallel
fl-sheet
Both (a) and (b)
 For specific antigen recognition by T cells,
 Antigen, when injected in the body activates its specific lymphocytes in the
Blood circulation
923
 A molecule that can be covalently linked to a non-immunogenic antigen to make it an
immunogen is called a (n)
Adjuvant
Carrier
Hapten
Mitogen
 Which of the following is incorrect with regard to antigen epitopes?
 Very low doses of antigen may induce
HypersensitivityImmunological ignorance
Low zone tolerance
Low zone immunity
 During the lag period between antigen contact and detection of adaptive immunity,
marrow
Blood stre
Bone marrow
Liver
Lymph nodes
 A pathogen can be a (n)
Agent that causes a disease
Virus
924
Bacteria
All of All of these
 CD antigens
 A virus vaccine that can activate cytotoxic T cells must contain
A high dose of virus particlesAn adjuvant to stimulate T cell division
Live virus
Virus peptides
 The ability of an antigen to induce an immune response does not depend on the
antigen's
Dose
Size
 The antibiotic penicillin is a small molecule that does not induce antibody formation.
However, penicillin binds to serum proteins and forms a
complex that in some people induces antibody formation resulting in an allergic reaction.
Penicillin is
therefore
An antigen
Ahapten
An immunogen
 Membrane potential and the proton gradient
 The irreversibility of the thiokinase reactions (formation of initial acyl-CoA)
925
Is due to the subsequent hydrolysis of the product
Both (a) and (b) Long-chain fatty acids are oxidized step-wise in one carbon units starting
from the
Carboxyl end
Aliphatic end
Both (a) and (b)
None of these
 How many molecules of acetyl-CoA are produced in oxidation of palmitic acid (C16),
which
involves seven rounds of oxidation?
 The oxidation of methanol ( wood alcohol) in human retina tissue leads directly to the
formation of
Formaldehyde
Sugars
C02
None of these
Fat
Protein
Glycogen
Starch
 The oxidation of methanol (wood alcohol) in human retina tissue indirectly leads to
Pressure builds up
Colour blindness
BlindnessAll of these
 Each cycle of fl-oxidation produces
926
Options
 The three identical b subunits of the F1, complex during ATP synthesis have
Different affinities for ADP but not for ATP
Different affinities for ATP and for ADP
 Where the acyl-CoA formed in the cytosol is transported for oxidation?
Microsomes
Remains in cytosol
 The transport of acyl-CoA for oxidation using a shuttle involves formation of the
intermediate
Options
3 acetyl-CoA
Acyl-coenzyme A
Acyl-coenzyme A
None of these
 Fructose is metabolized by
Fructose I-phosphate pathwayFructose 6-phosphate pathway
Both (a) and (b)
 A common way that cells capture the energy released during the breakdown of large
molecules is to add electrons to smaller, specialized molecules
that can accept them. This process of electron acceptance is otherwise known as
Biosynthesis
Metabolism
927
Reduction
Catalysis
 Humans are unable to digest.
Starch
Denatured proteins
Cellulose
 How many ATP equivalents per mole of glucose input are required for gluconeogenesis?
glycogen
metabolism?
NAD+
Acetyl-CoA
Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate Gluconeogenesis requires a higher amount of ATP equivalents

as compared to that
produced by glycolysis because
All of the above
 Which of the following is carried out when cAMP functions as a second messenger?
Acts second in importance to AMP
 The production or break down of ______ is often coupled with the metabolic reactions
of
928
Aspirin
DNA
ATP
C02
 The cells dependent solely on glucose as an energy source are
Options
Muscle cells
Brain cells
Kidney cells
Liver cells
 The main site for gluconeogenesis is
Options
KidneyLiver
Brain
Muscle
 Which of the following statements about the energy needs of cells is false?
Options
Many cellular reactions have an associated activation energy
The most usable energy for cells comes from the rapid combustion of glucose
 In lysozyme catalysis, which of the following does not contribute?
Options
 Cellulose fibers resemble with the protein structure in the form of
Options
B-sheets
929
A-helices
B-turns
None of these
 During vigorous exercise, pyruvate produced by glycolysis is converted to
Options
Acetate
LactateMonosodium phosphate
Pyruvic acid
 Glucagon and epinephrine
Options
 The NAG6 substrate is hydrolyzed by human lysozyme to form
Options
6 glucosamines + 6 acetic acids
NAG4 + NAG2
NAG3 + NAG3
NAG3
 Gluconeogenesis uses
Options
 Saliva contains all of the following
Hormones
Amylase
Antibodies The conversion ofpyruvate to oxaloacetate
930
Requires biotin
All of the above
 Gluconeogenesis is the
Options
Breakdown of glycogen to glucose
Synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors
 Hydrolysis oflactose yields
 Two major products of pentose phosphate pathway are
Options
FAD and CoA
NADPH and NAD
 A catabolic intermediate which stimulates phosphofructokinase would stimulate.
Gluconeogenesis
GlycolysisGlycogen synthesis
None of these
 Pyruvate is initially converted to which of the following in the gluconeogenesis?
Options
Glycerol
Oxaloacetate
Acetyl CoA
931
 Boat and chair conformations are found
Options
In pyranose sugars
 The conversion of pyruvate to lactate is catalysed by
Pyruvate dismutase
 Which of the following can act as precursors for gluconeogenesis?
Options
Lactate
Glycerol
Alanine
All of these A-amylose is similar to
B-sheets
B-turned coils
A-helices
 Storage polysaccharide made by animals is.
Options
Amylopectin
Glycogen
Cellulose
Collagen
 The glycosidic bond
Options
In sucrose is hydrolyzed by bees
932
Both (b) and (c)
 The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is
Options
Ribose
Galactose
Mannose
Maltose
 Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to
OptionsPhosphoenol pyruvate
Acetyl CoA
Lactate
 Which of the following is not a disaccharide?.
Options
Amylose
Cellobiose
Lactose
None of these
 Hexokinase activity in glycolysis is inhibited by
Options
Phosphofructokinase
 The ultimate source of energy that sustains living systems is
Options
Glucose
Oxygen
Sunlight
Carbon dioxide
933
 Citric acid accumulation would
Options
Stimulate phosphofructokinase activityStimulate fructose 1,6 diphosphatase activity
Inhibit phosphofructokinase activity
Both (b) and (c)
 Which of the following is not involved in the biosynthesis of DNA?
Options
Energy from ATP
Mononucleotides
Carbonic anhydrase
Enzymes
 Which of the following would be considered a part of metabolism?.
Options
All of the above
 INSULIN
Options
 What is present in the stomach to prevent self-digestion?
Options
Mucus
AcidEnzymes
Hormones
 Small charged molecules, often biogenic amines function as
Options
Hormones
934
Neurotransmitters
Both (a) and (b)
None of these
 SH2 domains specifically bind to
Options
GDP
Ca2+
 In paracrine signaling, the signaling molecules affects only
Options
Target cells close to the cell from which it was secreted
Target cells distant from its site of synthesis in cells of an endocrine organ
Both (a) and (b)
None of the above
 Simple nerve reflexes use signaling molecules called
Neurotransmitters
Nitric oxides
G proteins
Proteases Which of the following is not a type of signaling molecule
Testosterone
Insulin
Thyroxin
Adenylate cyclas
 Self-phosphorylation is an excellent mechanism for triggering specific catalytic function

of
the proteins involved in signal cascades because it
None of the above
935
 Which of the following statements about G proteins is false?
Options
 When a................. reaches its......................here is a specific means of receiving it and

acting
on the message. This task is the responsibility of
specialized proteins called _____
Options
Signaling molecule; receptor; G proteins
Signaling molecule; target cell; G proteins
 Why is it that inhaling nitric oxide reduces blood pressure only in the lung tissue and not
elsewhere in the body*?Options
None of the above
 Which of the following comes under the category of cell surface receptor?
Options
All of these
 Which of the following is true about a hydrophilic signaling molecule?
Options
936
It is a steroid
 CAMP and cGMP are derived from
Options
ATP and GTP by the actions of adenylate cyclase and guanylate cyclase respectively
respectively
ATP and GTP by the actions of guanylate cyclase and adenylate cyclase respectively
None of the above
 Nitroglycerin has long been administered to human patients suffering from chronic
chest
pain (angina). This medication works because it
Mimics the action of signal receptorsIs broken down into hormones that affect the heart
 If a disease of the blood vessels caused the endothelial cells of the vessel to die, what
effect
would that have on the cellular activities associated with
vasodilation?
Options
All of the above
 In terms of cell communication, what do bacterial pathogens such as cholera and

anthrax
have in common?
Options
937
 What is the name of the protein signaling molecule that alters glucose uptake, and
where
would its receptors be located?
Options
PDGF; the blood
NGF; the nerves involved in simple reflexes
 In the signal transduction mechanism known as protein phosphorylation
OptionsThe signaling molecule binds to a surface receptor
All of the above
 Cell signaling can be classified into
Three distinct types based on the distance over which the signaling molecules act
None of the above
 Which of the following statement is correct?
Options
Cell communicate with one another in multicellular organisms using extracellular signaling
molecules or
hormones
antigen and
antibody
molecules
only
antigen and
antibody
 In vasodilation, proper nerve signals sent to blood vessels cause
938
All of the above
 A cell is known to respond to a particular signaling molecule. Which of the following

must be
true of this cell?
It is in the heart muscleIt is also the site of production for the signaling molecule
 The enzyme that catalyzes the splitting of PIP2 into two molecules of inositol
triphosphate
(IP3) and diacylglycerol in cell signaling, is
Phosphokinase C
Phospholipase C
Phosphodiesterase C
Lipokinase
 The binding ofligands to many G-proteins linked receptors leads to shortlived
Options
Increase in the concentration of certain intracellular signaling molecules called second

messenger

messenger

messenger

messenger
 Which of the following processes involve the combining of a message from one signaling
molecule with that of another o either enhance or inhibit a
cellular effect?
Signal transduction
Signal reception
Signal integration
939
 A signal cascade induced by adrenaline or thyroxine
Results in the activation of a sequence of enzymes needed for the cell effectAll of the above
 Which of the following is a second messenger?
Options
Diacyl glycerol
Phospholipase C
Both (a) and (b)
 Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Options
are
prostaglandins
None of the above
 Two key organizing principles for large multicellular organisms are
 Which of the following is a hormone whose action requires a cell surface receptor?
Options
Nitric oxide
Progesterone
Adrenaline
Growth factors
 The hormone or ligand can be considered asOptions
940
First messenger
Second messenger
Both (a) and (b)
None of these
 The major second messengers are
Options
CAMP
CGMP
DAG
All of these
 The signaling molecules called steroid hormones
Options
Are made in one location of the body but have their effects some distance away
 Which of the following two organelles look most alike structurally?
Nucleus and vesicle
 In terms of basic cell structure, what do an elephant and an oak tree have in common?
Options
They both are eukaryotesThey both have a cell nucleus
All of the above
 Where in a eukaryotic cell, DNA can be found?
Options
Nucleus
Mitochondrion
Vacuole
941
Both (a) and (b)
 Which of the following structures is expected in a bacterium?
Nucleus
Plasma membrane
Golgi apparatus
 Which of the following organelles is directly connected to the outer membrane of the
nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?
Mitochondrion
Lysosome
Golgi apparatus
 Microtubules, motor proteins, and actin filaments are all part of
Options
The rough ER (endoplasmic reticulum) in prokaryotic cells
The cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells
The process that moves small molecules across cell membranes A certain cell organelle
which is made of a double phospholipid bilayer that has many large
pores in it, is most likely
The plasma membrane
The mitochondrion
The cytoskeleton
 Which of the following cell organelles are expected to be associated with motor
proteins?
Smooth ER
Vesicles
Plasma membrane
Chloroplasts
 Eukaryotic cells are more efficient than prokaryotes because their internal
942
Options
 An organism’s first line of defense against attack by an invader such as a virus or

bacterium
is usually
Options
To flee or hide
Its body wall
 The simplest way to differentiate a prokaryotic cell from a eukaryotic one is to
Look for a plasma membraneSee if a nucleus is present
 Which of the following is the best criterion for deciding whether a cell is prokaryotic or
eukaryotic?
 Lysosomes are specialized vesicles in __________ that contain digestive enzymes for the
breakdown of food. A related organalle known as a vacuole,
which is found in __________ , also contains enzymes but in addition may act as a storage
organelle for
nutrients or water.
Options
943
 The highly folded membranes found in such eukaryotic organelles as mitochondria and
chloroplasts
 Thin layer chromatography is
OptionsPartition chromatography
None of the above
 In gas chromatography, the basis for separation of the components of the volatile
material
is the difference in
Conductivity
Molecular weight
Molarity
 In reverse phase chromatography, the stationary phase is made
Non-polar
Polar
None of these
 Ion exchange chromatography is based on the
 The general expression for the appearance of a solute in an effluent is (where V is the
944
elution volume of a substance , V0 void volume, kD distribution
constant and Vi internal water volume)
V = V0 + kDVi
V = V0/Vi
V = V0 – kDViV/V0 = kDVi
 A combination of paper chromatography and electrophoresis involves
Options
Electrical mobility of the ionic species
Both (a) and (b)
None of these
 The HIV virus infects primarily
Brain cells
Red blood cells
Liver cells
 Chronic granulomatous disease results from a failure to perform oxidative burst. This
deficiency would be most likely to interfere with
 Difficulties with somatic gene therapy arise from all of the following except
Options
 A monoclonal antibody (mAb) specific for the 2,4-dinitrophenyl (DNP) hapten might also
bindOptions
Leu or Ileu
945
His or Pro
Tyr or Phe
Ser or Thr
 Retinoblastoma is due to a mutation in a
Kinase
Tumor supressor
Cyclin
Viral gene
 An autoimmune disease is
AIDS
Measles.
Lupus
Mumps
 If Class IIMHC is not expressed in the thymus, the resulting immune deficiencies would
include all of the following except reduced
IgG synthesis
 Specific translocations are associated with
Options
Colon cancer
Breast cancer
Pancreatic cancerSome leukemias
 To treat HIV infections using drugs, the major problem is that
Options
The drugs that are good inhibitors cannot by synthesized
The drugs interfere with normal digestion
 The primary reason for AIDS, a deadly disease is that it
946
 A selective IgA deficiency would be expected to result in problems with
Options
Mucosal pathogens
 Combined cellular and humoral immune deficiencies result from lack of all of the
following
except
A thymus
Class II MHC
 An example of an immunodeficiency disorder is
OptionsThyroiditisthyroiditis
Rheumatic fever
AIDS
 Bone marrow given to an infant with SCID must
Options
 X-linked hyper IgM syndrome, resulting in high levels of serum IgM and low levels of
serum
IgG, is caused by a defect in CD40L expression. The
specific immune event that would be prevented by a defective CD40L would be
947
 DiGeorge’s syndrome is characterized by the lack of a thymus The mouse model closest
to
this human disease would be a
Options
Nude mouse
 Which of the Rous sarcoma virus has a homologous cellular protein?
OptionsC-src
V-src
V-ha-src
V-ha-ras
 Infants are most susceptible to bacterial infection due to low circulating levels of IgG
Options
 The chemical, typically released by the body in an allergic response is
Options
Histamine
Allergens
Antihistamines
Perforins
 The accepted hypothesis for DNA replication is
Options
948
Conservative theory
Dispersive theory
Evolutionary theory
 When DNA polymerase is in contact with guanine in the parental strand, what does it
add to
the growing daughter strand?
Options
PhosphateCytosine
Uracil
Guanine
 Telomeres are usually rich in which nucleotide?
Options
Adenine
Guanine
Thymine
Cytosine
 Which is the largest among the followings?
Options
Nucleotide
Nitrogenous base
Phosphate
Carbon
 The chromosomal DNA complexes with
Options
 Taylor, Woods and Hughes labeled Vicia DNA by allowing new DNA synthesis in the
presence
of radioactive thymine. After DNA replication (S
949
phase of the cell cycle), it was observed that
Options
Only one chromatid of a chromosome was labeledBoth chromatids of a chromosome were

labeled
Both (a) and (b)
 In DNA double helix, the two DNA chains are held together by
Options
None of the above
 The 5ʹ and 3ʹ numbers are related to the
The base pair rule
 Messelsen and Stahl model of replication was called
Options
Cri du Chat
 The most common liquid volumes in molecular biology are measured in
Options
Ml
µl
Nl1
 DNA replication takes place in which direction?
Options
3ʹ to 5ʹ
950
5 ‘to 3’
. Randomly
 DNA gyrase in E. coli
Adds positive supercoils to chromosomal DNA
Can be inhibited with antibiotics
In DNA, there are
 In DNA, guanine pairs with
Options
Adenine
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
 Which of the following is incorrect?
In DNA double helix, two strands of the DNA are bound with each other with the
basesAdenine always pairs with thymine
.Guanine always pairs with the cytosine
None of the above
 What is the only common methylation in the DNA of eukaryotes?
None of the above
 DNAs when charged, migrate in a gel towards the
Positive pole
951
Negative pole
Will not migrate
None of these
 What is the approximate size (in kb) of the E. coli genome?
3000 kilobase
4500 kilobase
5500 kilobase
6500 kilobase
 In the study of one experiment it was found that the value of Tm for DNA is = 40° C. If
the
cell has 20% GC at the above Tm, then what will be value
of ‘Tm’ if the GC% increases to 60%?
Options
Remains same
Ncreases
Decreases
Can not be compared What is the range of melting point temperatures (Tm) for most
DNA molecules?
Options
50 to 60°C
60 to 80°C
70 to 90°C
80 to l00°C
 Enzyme-driven metabolic pathways can be made more efficient by
Options
Concentrating enzymes within specific cellular compartments
All of the above
 Which of the following (s) is/are serine proteases?
Options
Chymotrypsin
952
Trypsin
Elastase
All of these
 Which of the following statements about enzymes or their function is true?
Options
All of the above
 Tryprotophan synthetase of E.coli, a typical bifunctional oligomeric enzyme consist

ofOptions
 What is the specificity of the Clostripain protease?
Options
It cleave after Lys residues
None of the above
 The proteolysis rate enhancement by chymotrypsin (~1010 folds) corresponds to a
reduction in activation energy of about
Options
40 kJ/mol
49 kJ/mol
58 kJ/mol
88 kJ/mol
 Which of the following is false statement with regard to comparison between Serine
and
HIV proteases?
Options
953
 In the enzyme-catalyzed reaction shown below, what will be the effect on substances A,
B,
C, and D of inactivating the enzyme labeled E2? A —(E1)—> B —(E2)—> C —(E3)—>
Options
 The nucleophile in serine proteases is
Options
Serine
Water
Both (a) and (b)
Asparagine
 The role of Asp 102 and His 57 during trypsin catalysis is to
 The cleavage specificity of trypsin and chymotrypsin depend in part on the
 The E.coli pyruvic acid dehydrogenase complex is reported to
Catalyze the oxidation of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co A and CO2Retard the reduction of pyruvic
acid to acetyl Co A and CO2
954
 Which of the common features are shared between serine and aspartate proteases?
Options
All of the above
 Before they can react, many molecules need to be destabilized. This state is typically
achieved through y
Options
Changing the three-dimensional shape of the molecule
Oxidizing the molecules by removing electrons
 Common feature in all serine proteases is a
Options
 Which of the following is the basis of first dimension of separation for two-dimensional
electrophoresis?
Molecular mass
Solubility
Isoelectric pointFolding
 What is meant by rotating frame of reference?
Options
individual
magnetic moment vectors are fixed in space
955
None of the above
 The sequence of amino acids in proteins can be determined by means of
Options
Partial cleavage of the original polypeptide into smaller polypeptides
All of the above
 Why is it advantageous to record many FID signals from the same sample and then add
them together?
Options
None of the above
 In FT-NMR, how are nuclei excited?
Options
By radio-frequency radiation whose frequency is swept across a predetermined range
By an intense pressureNone of the above
 What is the name given to the relaxation process due to an interaction between an
excited
nucleus and the magnetic fields caused by nuclei in
molecules moving around in the sample?
Options
None of these
 Cytochrome C has an isoelectric pH of
Options
956
8.5
7.510.05
11.05
 What does the Michelson interferometer do?
Options
Modulate the I.R. signal at a lower frequency, so that it can be observed by a detector
None of the above
 In scanning electron microscopy
Options
A specimen is not fixed and then coated with thin layer of a heavy metalNone of the above
 The frequency of precession, the transition frequency and the Larmor frequency are
Options
 How do you turn a signal recorded in the time domain into a frequency domain signal?
Options
None of the above
 How many possible orientations do spin 1/2 nuclei have when they are located in an
applied
magnetic field?
Options
957
4
 In immunofluroscence microscopy, fluroscent compounds are attached to
Options
None of these An FT-IR instrument record a signal in the
Options
Time domain
Frequency domain
Both (a) and (b)
None of these
 When radiation energy is absorbed by a spin 1/2 nucleus in a magnetic field, what
happens?
The angle of precession flips so that the magnetic moment of the nucleus opposes the
applied field
None of the above
 Negative staining is a technique used in
Electron microscopy
Gel electrophoresis
Immunocytochemistry
Light microscopy
 Which of the following is not used for detection in GC?
Options
NMR
Flame ionisation
958
 Which of these effects result from slow injection of a large sample volume?
Options
Increased resolutionDecreased resolution
Constant resolution
 The GC trace obtained after an experiment is called a
Options
Chromatograph
Chromatogram
Chromatophore
Graph
 Which of the following detectors give concentration-dependent signals?
Options
Infra-red detector
All of these
 What useful information can be found from a Van Deemter plot?
Options
The selectivity factor
Optimum mobile phase flow rate
 What is the typical internal diameter of fused silica capillary columns?
Options
0.2-0.3 mm
0.3-0.5mm0.5-1.0 mm
1.0-2.0 mm
 Resolution is proportional to the
Options
959
 Derivatisation of a sample is carried out to
Options
All of the above
 Which of the statements is correct?
Options
All of the above
 In column switching chromatography
Options
The flow to the column is switched on and off repeatedlyAny of the above
 A retention gap is placed between the injector and the front of the column to
Options
All of the above
 Which of the following detectors give mass flow-dependent signals?
Options
960
All of the above
 Headspace analysis is carried out in order to
Options
 Split injection is carried out by
Options
Splitting the sample into smaller portions to inject sequentially
Splitting the sample into smaller portions to inject at the same time through parallel ports
None of the above Theoretical plates are used to
Options
None of the above
 What does the selectivity factor describe?
Options
None of the above
 Helium is generally preferred as carrier gas over nitrogen and hydrogen because
Options
It is inert
All of above
 What are the benefits of decreasing the column internal diameter?
961
Options
All of the above
 Sample retention in the column is measured byOptions
Retention time
Retention factor
Retention index
All of these
 Column bleeding occurs when
Options
 Which of the following are not used as stationary phases in a GC column?
Options
Polysiloxanes
Silica
Cyclodextrins
 Doubling the column’s length increases resolution by a factor of
Options
(2)0.5
 Sample injection is considered successful if
OptionsAll of the sample in the injector has been added to the column
The sample is concentrated at the start of the column
962
 Which of the following gases is unsuitable for use as a GC carrier gas?
Options
Nitrogen
Helium
Oxygen
All of the above
 In an SDS-PAGE
Options
All of the above
 Proteins can be visualized directly in gels by
Options
None of these
 In SDS-PAGE, the protein sample is first
Options
Treated with a reducing agent and then with anionic detergent followed by fractionation by
electrophoresisFractionated by electrophoresis then treated with an oxidizing agent

followed by anionic detergent.
electrophoresis
None of the above
 Electrophoresis of histones and myoglobin under non-denaturing conditions (pH = 7.0)
results in
Options
963
 In isoelectric focusing, proteins are separated on the basis of their
Options
Size
 In a gel filtration column
Options
Smaller proteins enter the beads more readily
Large proteins elute first
Both (a) and (b)
Large proteins enter the beads more readily
 In a native PAGE, proteins are separated on the basis of
Options
Net negative chargeNet charge and size
Net positive charge
 The subunit molecular weight as well as the number of subunits in the quaternary
structure
can be determined by
Options
 Proteins are separated in an SDS-PAGE experiment on the basis of their
Options
964
Positively charged side chains
Molecular weight
 Which of the following techniques was carried out by Nirenberg and Matthaei in 1961
to
determine the first codon?
Options
None of the above
 Bacterial protein called catabolic activator protein (CAP) is an example of
Options
Negative control of gene expressionPositive control of gene expression
None of the above
 How many different codons are possible?
Options
20
64
An infinite number
 The genetic code is
Options
Universal
Species-specific
Kingdom-specific
 Which of the following has been used as an evidence that primitive life forms lacked
both
DNA and enzymes?
965
Options
All of the above
 Crick demonstrated that the genetic code involved three bases and suggested that the
code
was degenerated. What experimental technique Crick
conducted to suggest genetic code degeneration?
OptionsGel electrophoresis
 Codon that specify the amino acids often differs in the
Options
First base
Second base
Third base
None of these
 In some organelles in eukaryotes, the genetic code for some codons
Options
Are same
Are partially same
None of the above
 The codons which do not specify an amino acid are called
Options
Initiation code
Termination code
Propagation code
None of these
966
 The genetic code is degenerated. Which of the following codons represents the principle
of
degeneracy?
Options
UAA and UACAUG and AUA
CAU and CAC
UUA and UUC
 The sequence of one strand of DNA is: 5ʹ ATTGCCA 3ʹ, what is the sequence of the other
strand?
Options
5ʹ TAACGGT 3ʹ
5ʹ TGGCAAT 3ʹ
5ʹ ATTGCCA 3ʹ
5ʹ UAAGCCU3ʹ
 In prokaryotes, AUG encodes
Options
Methionine
N-formyl methionine
A stop codon
Alanine
 How many amino acids will be encoded by 5ʹ GAU GGU UGA UGU 3ʹ sequence?
Options
One
Two
Three
Four
 In protein synthesis in prokaryotes
Options
The initiating amino acid is methionineThe initiating amino acid is phenyl alanine
None of the above
967
 AUG codes for methionine act as a
Options
Initiation code
Elongation code
Termination code
Propagation code
 Glycolytic pathway regulation involves
Options
All of the above
 During catabolism, only about 40% of the energy available from oxidizing glucose is used
to
Options
Is lost as heat
Is stored as fat.
 Why does the glycolytic pathway continue in the direction of glucose catabolism?
Options
There are essentially three irreversible reactions that act as the driving force for the pathway
The enzymes of glycolysis only function in one directionGlycolysis occurs in either direction
 The released energy obtained by oxidation of glucose is stored as
Options
ADP
ATP
NAD+
968
 A kinase is an enzyme that
 For every one molecule of sugar glucose which is oxidized __________ molecule of
pyruvic
acid are produced.
Options
 In the glycogen synthase reaction, the precursor to glycogen is
Options
Glucose-6-P
UTP-glucose
UDP-glucose
Glucose-1-P The active form of glycogen phosphorylase is phosphorylated, while the

dephosphorylation
of which active form occurs?
Options
Glycogen synthase-P
Glycogen hydrolase
 The enzymes of glycolysis in a eukaryotic cell are located in the
Options
Intermembrane space
Plasma membrane
Cytosol
969
 When concentration of the reactants is higher than the equilibrium concentration then
Options
More products will be formed
Both (b) and (c)
 Which of the following is not true of glycolysis?
Options
The pathway oxidizes two moles of NADH to NAD+ for each mole of glucose that enters
The pathway requires two moles of ATP to get started catabo-lizing each mole of glucose
In glycolysis, ATP is formed by the transfer of a high-energy phosphate from 1,3-
bisphosphoglycerate to ADR No such highenergy phosphate donor
has ever been isolated in mitochondria because
Options
None of the above
 ATP is from which general category of molecules?
Options
Polysaccharides
Proteins
Nucleotides
Amino acids
 The glycolytic pathway (glucose ? 2 pyruvate) is found
Only in eukaryotes
Only in yeast
970
Question (253/318)
 All of the following are components of lipoproteins, EXCEPT
Phospholipids.
Cholesterol.
Carbohydrates.
 All of the following are functions of apoproteins, EXCEPTActivators or inhibitors of

enzymes.
 Which one of the following statements about lipoproteins is correct?

the liver
tissues.
 Which one of the following changes would you expect in a patient with decreased
activity of lipoprotein lipase?
Elevation of plasma chylomicrons only
Elevation of both plasma chylomicrons and VLDLs
 What is the correct ordering of lipoprotein particles from lowest to the highest density?
 Which one of the following apoprotein is synthesized in the liver as integral part of
VLDL?
AI
971
B-100
C II
B – 48 All of the following statements about lipoprotein lipase are correct, EXCEPT
 Dietary fats after absorption appear in the blood circulation as
HDL
VLDL
LDL
Chylomicrons
 Where does VLDL synthesis take place?
Liver
Intestinal lumen
Adipose tissue
 Plasma become milky due to increase level of
Lipoproteins
Glucose
Ketone bodies
Urea
 LDL transport
Triacylglycerides from liver
. Tricylglycerides from intestine.
Cholesterol to tissues. The building blocks (monomers) that make up HDL :
Lipids
Minerals
Monosaccharides
Nucleotides
972
 Which of the following statement regarding chylomicrons is correct?
Contain polysaccharides
Are made in the liver
 Synthesis of lipoprotein lipase is activated by
Cortisol
Glucagon
Insulin
Epinephrine
 A laboratory data of patient with Tangier disease is
 The patient has unusual red cells morphology (acanthocytosis- thorny-appearing cells)
due to membrane abnormalities in their erythrocytes. This
essential fatty acid?
Linolenic (C18:3)
Palmitic (C16:0)
AscorbicFolic
 The following is an activator of lipoprotein lipase
Apo E
Apo C II
Apo A I
Apo B-48
 The following is an activator of lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)
Apo B-100
Apo AI
Apo B-48
973
Apo E
 All of the following are functions of HDL, EXCEPT
 VLDL transport
 HDL transport
Cholesterol to liver.Cholesterol to tissues.
 Specific scavenger receptor SR-B1 present on the surface of extrahepatic tissue
including vessels for
LDL
HDL
VLDL
IDL
 Normal blood LDL level is
Options
< 150 mg/dl
> 200 mg/dl
> 500 mg/dl
<300 mg/dl
 Normal blood HDL level is
Options
40-60 mg/dl
> 200 mg/dl
974
10-15 mg/dl
> 350 mg/dl
 A 35-year-old man has a history of recurring attacks of pancreatitis, eruptive xathomas
and increased plasma triacylglyceride levels: 2000 mg/dl
associated with chylomicronemias. Deficiency of which of the following is the likely cause of
these
symptoms?
Options
HMG CoA reductase
Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)Scavenger receptors (SR-1) for HDL
 Hypoglycemic hypoketonic blood is seen in patients suffering from impaired which
metabolic pathway?
Diabetes mellitus type I
Alcohol abuse
 Increased level of blood cholesterol are risk factors for development of
Options
Gall stones.
Fatty liver.
Anemia.
Atherosclerosis.
 Insulin resistance in DM type II leads hyperlipidemias due to excessive
Options
Utilization of VLDL
 Deficiency of LDL-receptors is risk factor for development of
Options
975
Liver cirrhosis
Mental retardation
Muscles atrophy
 Lecithin-cholesterolacyltransferase (LCAT) is enzyme that binds withOptions
HDL
LDL
Scavenger receptor B1
 Hyperlipidemia can occur in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT
Options
Enteritis.
Diabetes mellitus.
Nephrotic syndrome.
Hypothyroidism.
 A young girl with a history of severe abdominal pain was taken to her local hospital at 5
a.m. in severe distress. Blood was drawn, and the plasma
appeared milky with the TG level 2000 mg/dl (normal 4-50 mg/dl). Which one of the
following enzymes
deficiency is most likely responsible for the
appearance of this patient’s plasma?
Options
Pancreatic lipase
Lipoprotein lipase
 Patient has genetic disorder characterized by malabsorption of dietary lipid,
steatorrhea, and accumulation of intestinal triglycerides. A deficiency of
which protein would most likely account for this clinical presentation?
Options
Apo B100
976
Acyl CoA synthetasePancreatic lipase
Colipase
 An 11 year old boy presents with balance and difficulty with night vision. His mother
says he had foul smelling stools and failure to thrive as an
infant. Physical examination reveals poor muscle coordination, ataxia. Lab tests show low
total
cholesterol and Vitamin A levels. The patient most
likely has an inherited mutation in which of the following?
Options
7-α-hydrohylase
 The official medical measurement of obesity is
Options
Body mass index.
Height of a person.
 All are plasma adipokines profile of obese person, EXCEPT
Options
Leptin resistance.
Hypoestrogenism.
Hyperresistinemia.
 White adipose tissue has all of the following functions, EXCEPT
OptionsEndocrine.
Helps in immunity.
Metabolic.
 Adipokine that activates effect of insulin is
977
Options
Adiponectin.
Resistin.
Leptin.
Grenilin.
 An important feature of Zellweger’s syndrome is
Options
Hypoglycemia.
Skin eruption.
 Which statement from of the following about Zellweger’s syndrome is FALSE?
Options
 Physiological conditions which promote the synthesis of ketone bodies would also
promote the
Synthesis of fatty acids in the liver.Synthesis of amino acids in the brain.
 Refsume’s disease is due to accumulation of
Options
Glycogen in muscles.
Carnitine in liver.
 A drug which prevents cholesterol by inhibiting the enzyme HMG CoA reductase is
Options
Aspirin.
978
Allopurinol.
Digitonin.
Lavostatin.
 A 56-year-old smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day. He is found to have a blood pressure
of 155/95 mm Hg. His body mass index is 30. Laboratory
findings include total serum cholesterol of 245 mg/dl and HDL cholesterol is 22 mg/dl.Which
of the
following vascular abnormalities is most likely to
be his most serious health risk?
Options
Atherosclerosis
 Obese person has
OptionsHypoadiponectinemia
Hyporesistinemia
Hypolipoproteinemia
Hypoglycemia
 Wasting syndrome is characterized by
Increase catabolism
Increase anabolism
Increase appetite
 A 44-year-old woman has a family history of heart disease. Her father and mother both
developed congestive heart failure and myocardial infarction
as a result of extensive coronary atherosclerosis. A dietary modification to include

consumption of which
of the following is most likely to reduce her
risk for ischemic heart disease?
979
Fish oil
 An autopsy study reveals that evidence for atheroma formation can begin even in
children. The gross appearances of the aortas are recorded and
compared with microscopic findings of atheroma formation. Which of the following is most
likely to be
the first visible gross evidence for the
formation of an atheroma?
Thrombus
Fatty streak
Calcification
Ulceration A 25-year-old man is 178 cm tall and weighs 101 kg. Laboratory studies show
total
serum cholesterol of 550 mg/dl with an HDL cholesterol
component of 25 mg/dl. He is worried about these findings because his brother died of a
myocardial
infarction at age 34. Which of the following
conditions is this man most likely to have?
Options
Diabetes mellitus, type II
Malignant hypertension
Cushing syndrome
 Vitamin E deficiency can cause
 Hyperlipoproteinemia with maximum of cholesterol level in the blood is
Type I
Type II
Type III
980
Type IV
 All of the following are major risk factors for Coronary Heart Disease (CHD), EXCEPT
Smoking.
Hypertension.
 Lipidemic lowering therapy includes all of the following, EXCEPTDiet rich by the
polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA).
Statins.
Fibrates.
 What is the major organ for alcohol detoxification?
 Options
Brain
Liver
Kidney
Spleen
 Alcohol abuse leads in the liver all of the following, EXCEPT
 Which nutritional factor stimulates alcohol oxidation?
Well-fad state
Fasting
Low protein diet
Low lipid diet
 Aldehyde dehydrogenase oxidizes ethanol to
Acetic acid.
Oxalic acid.
Carbon dioxide.
981
Acetyldehyde.
 Cytochrome P450 system involves in oxidation of ethanol in organism ofHealthy person.
Heavy drinkers.
Obese person.
Mild drinker.
 Microsomal oxidation of alcohol is accompanying with formation of all of the following,

EXCEPT
Hydrogen peroxide.
Acetaldehyde.
Acetate.
 Alcohol-induced cirhotic patient can has following blood analysis
↓ ALT & ↑GGT
 Which one of the following methods uses in practical medicine for purification of blood
by
artificial kidney?
Options
Electrophoresis
Salting out
Hemodilution
Dialysis
 Chromatography is method of separation mixture of
Ions
Amino acids
Salts
Ketone bodies What one of the following patients may be put on the hemodialysis?
982
 The following technique is used for separation of proteins according their difference in
net
charges at a given pH:
Electrophoresis.
Dialysis.
 The solubility of most proteins is lowered at high salt concentration is known as
Salting out process
Solubility curve
Chromatography
 The movement of charged particles towards one of the electrodes under the influence
of
electrical current is
Options
Gel filtration
Chromatography
Dialysis
Electrophoresis
 For separation of mixture charged high molecular weight and low molecular weight
compounds
can use all following techniques EXCEPT
Options
ElectrophoresisDialysis
Cedimentation rate
 The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of
983
 A protein with molecular weight of 100 kD is subjected to SDS PAGE electrophoresis.

SDS PAGE
electrophoretic pattern show two widely separated
bands of 20 kD and 30 kD after addition of merkaptoethanol. The true statement regarding

this will be
Options
 Chromatography is used for separation of
Options
Mixture of lipids and minerals
Mixture of proteins
Colloids only
 Ultrafiltration of plasma in kidney is example of
Chromatography.
Dialysis.
Electrophoresis.Precipitation.
 Ultrafiltration of plasma by choroid plexus of ventricular system of the brain is example

of
Options
Chromatography.
Electrophoresis.
Dialysis.
Precipitation.
 All of the following are functions of proteins, EXCEPT
Options
Catalytic.
Defense.
984
Osmotic.
Structural.
 Which of the following IS NOT protein in nature?
Albumin
Cortisol
Complement C3
Lipase
 Protein is
Ceruloplasmin
Pyruvate
Acetoacetate
Glycerol
 Which class of biomolecules is used for activation of catalytic function of proteins?
CarbohydratesWater shell
Minerals
Fatty acids
 Molecules of protein are composed of long chain of
Options
Fatty acids
Nucleotides
Sugar
Amino acids
 Alpha-helix and beta-sheet folding in protein is stabilized by
Ester bond.
Hydrogen bond.
Peptide bond.
Ionic bond.
 Which one of the following IS NOT a secondary structural feature of proteins?
Alpha-helix
Beta-sheet
Triple-helix
985
Beta-turn
 Each polypeptide has specific amino acids sequence, linked with each other by peptide
bond. This
Priamary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary
 Tertiary structure of a protein is formed by all of the following EXCEPTHydrogen bonds
Ionic bonds
Peptide bonds
Disulfide bonds
 All of the following have quaternary structure EXCEPT
Immunoglobulin
Albumin
Hemoglobin
 A protein reacts with biuret reagent which indicates two or more
Alpha-helix
Peptide bonds
β- sheet
Disulfide bonds
 Which of the following is the best example of conformational changes?
 Daily production of proteins in adult healthy person approximately is
50 g
200 g
400 g
986
1000 g
 Daily excretion of proteins into the urine in adult healthy person approximately isLess
than 150 mg
250 mg per day
More than 250 mg
10 g per day
 Transcription is synthesis of
ATP
RNA
DNA
NADH
 Which molecule contains the genetic code?
Protein
DNA
ATP
Adenine base
 In the process of transcription, the flow of genetic information is from
DNA to DNA
DNA to protein
T-RNA to protein
DNA to m-RNA
 Translation is synthesis of
RNA
DNA
Polypeptides
Polysaccharides
 The most active site of protein synthesis is theNucleous
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Cell membrane
 Which one of the following enzymes would digest proteins?
987
Amylase
Lactase
Lipase
Trypsin
 Dietary protein could provide precursors for the de novo synthesis in humans of all of
the
following, EXCEPT
Albumin.
Oxaloacetic acid.
Linoleic acid.
Glutamic acid.
 Which from the following regarding protein composition is correct?
 In denaturized proteins the bond which IS NOT broken
Peptide
Disulfide
Hydrogen
Ionic
 Proteases produce amino acids from protein byReducing
Hydrolyzing
Oxidizing
Saturation
 Which of the following IS NOT a conjugated protein?
Hemoglobin
Immunoglobulin G
Collagen
 Metalloprotein is
988
Collagen
Albumin
Immunoglobulin
Ferritin
 Negative nitrogen balance has following person
Children.
Elderly.
Pregnant women.
Athletic men.
 In protein structure the α-helix and β-sheet are examples of
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
 Biologically active proteins in human beings areD-and L-form
L-form only
D-form only
Racemic form
 All hormones increase the amount of proteins in tissues EXCEPT
Growth hormone
Testosterone
Insulin
Cortisol
 What is the major function of chaperones in the cells?
 Inracellular folding of protein is mediated by
The protein itself
Chaperons
989
Ribosome
Proteases
 Which one from the following protects proteins that have been denaturized by
decreased pH in
cells?
Protease inhibitor
Endogenous ions
 All of the following are functions of chaperones, EXCEPTPromote folding of unfolded

proteins.
 Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins?
Proteases
Proteososmes
Chaperones
Lysosomes hydrolase
 The building blocks (monomers) that make up hypothalamic releasing hormones are :
Nucleotides
Amino acids
Monosaccharides
Isoprenoids
 Which bond is formed when an amino group of one amino acid joints the carboxylic
group of
another amino acid?
Peptide
Glycosidic
Ester
Hydrogen
 Bonds that are formed between two cysteine residues is
990
Peptide
Hydrophilic
Disulphide
Ionic
 Biologically active proteinogenic amino acids present in human organism inD- and
L-form
L-form only
D-form only
Racemic form
 Which one of the following sets consists of essential amino acids only?
Options
Alanine, Tyrosine
Glutamate, Lysine
Aspartate, Glycine
 Some amino acids are termed NON-ESSENTIAL as
All of the above.
 All α-amino acids give positive
Ninhydrin test
Biuret test
Fusher test
Xanthoproteic test
 A compound gives positive test with ninhydrin is a(an)
Options
Lipid
Glucose
Amino acidsKetone bodies
 Biuret test is mainly done for
991
Options
Lipids
Carbohydrates
Amino acids
Proteins
 An amino acid that may form a disulphide bond
Tryptophan
Cystein
Phenylalanine
Proline
 Which one of the following amino acids is ionizable in protein?
Glycine
Alanine
Valine
Aspartate
 Which of the following amino acids is highly likely to be localized within the interior of
the plasma
globular protein?
Aspartic acid
Glutamic acid
Valine
Arginine
 Which of the following amino acids is highly likely to be localized exterior of the plasma
globular
protein?
Aspartic acidGlycine
Valine
Isoleucine
 Disulfide bonds most often stabilize the native structure of
Membrane proteins
992
 Which one of the following tripeptides contains the largest number of non-polar
R-group?
Tyr-Lys-Met
Gly-Pro-Arg
Asp-Phe-Tyr
Leu-Val-Gly
 At certain pH amino acid behaves neither as an acid nor as a base and does not migrate
to anode
or cathode and this pH known as:
Isoelectric point
Cationic pH
Anionic pH
 Isoelectric point is
 Isoelectric point (pI) for an amino acid is
PH at which an amino acid is electrically neutralPKa value of the functional groups attached
to the alpha-carbon
 Non-proteinogenic amino acid is
α-alanine
Aspartate
β-alanine
Histidine
 Which one of the following tripeptides most positively charged at pH=7.0?
Options
Tyr-Lys-Met
993
Lys-Pro-Arg
Asp-Glu-Asp
Leu-Val-Gly
 Which one of the following tripeptides contains sulfur?
Gly-Pro-Arg
Cys-Lys-Met
Asp-Phe-Tyr
Leu-Val-Gly
 Which one of the following proteins exists as CATION in physiological conditions?
Albumin (pI = 4.9.)
Histone (pI = 9.8)
 Which one of the following proteins exists as neutral particle in physiological

condition?β-globulin (pI= 5.5)
Albumin (pI = 4.9)
Hemoglobin (pI=7.0)
Fibrinogen (pI=5.4)
 Toxic effects of heavy metals result in inactivation of specific proteins by denaturation.

Which of
the following proteins can supply orally for the
prevention of the toxic effects of heavy metals poisoning?
Papain (pI=9.0)
Ovalbumin of egg (pI=4.8)
 A 24-year old woman prepares for her wedding day. Her hair dresser uses rollers to
create a new
style for her hair. To create a “permanent wave”, the
stylist then applies thoglucollate to break apart the S-S bonds in cysteine units, reducing
them to –SH
groups. Which level of protein structure is most
994
greatly affected by this treatment?
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
 Glutathione is important
Absorbent
Antioxidant
Enzyme
Protein
 Glutathione prevents cells against accumulation of
AmmoniaNitrogen monoxide
Hydrogen peroxide
Carbon monoxide
 If glutathione level in the erythrocytes decrease
Options
PH decreases
 (E)In RBCs hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is converted to water (H2O) by
Hemoglobin
Glutathione
Glutamate
Cytochrome
 All are true about glutathione EXCEPT
Anti-oxidant Transport amino acids across cell membrane
 Kwashiorkor babies would have all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
995
Fatty liver.
Hypoalbuminemia.
Edema.
Severe myopathy.
 Kwashiorkor result fromVitamin D deficiency
 Marasmic babies have
Depletion of muscle protein
Depletion of liver protein
Hypoalbuminemia
Fatty liver
 Amyloid is form of
Options
Bacterium
Viruses
Primitive life form
Protein
 Amyloidosis is accumulation of
Glycogen
Misfolding protein
Gangliosides
Colloids
 Mad cow disease may be due to invasion of
Specific virus
Specific bacteria
Abnormal gluten Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the deposition of one of the

following substances in the
tissues
996
Options
Glycogen
Neurolipids
Amyloid
Copper
 Which from the following processes is NOT involved in pathogenesis of amyloidosis?
 Alzheimer’s disease is due to
 A 80-year-old man presented with impairment of higher intellectual function and

alterations in
Alzheimer’s
disease. Which one of the following best
describes the disease?
Options
 It is associated with abnormal Aβ-amyloid with altered secondary structure
It is result from accumulation of lipids with long chain fatty acids In etiopathogenesis of
Alzheimer’s disease the following may be implicated
Options
Tau protein
Alpha-secretase
997
All of the above
 Alzheimer’s Aβ-amyloid is major component of
 Prions are type of
Proteins
Bacterium
Primitive life form
Viruses
 Origin of prion is
RNA
DNA
Virus
Protein
 All of the following statements about Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) are correct EXCEPT
Options
It is a neurodegenerative diseaseIt caused by Aβ-amyloid
 In Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) patients pathological study of brain tissue shows

spongiosis
(vacuolation of cortical grey matter) with neuronal
loss, amyloid plaques. These amyloid plaques contain:
Options
Amylin
Prion
Immunoglobulins
Tau-protein
 Progressive dementia is seen in
998
Mad cow disease
All of the above
Options
Nerve cell membrane
In synaptic cleft
 All of the following are the properties of abnormal prion PrPSC EXCEPT
Options
It is stable
It is insoluble
Protease insensitiveIt is rich by of α-helix
 Which of the following is NOT a prion associated disease?
Mad cow disease
Kuru
Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease
Alzheimer disease
 Neurofibrillary tangles that accumulate in the brain of Alzheimer’s patient is result of

defect
 In pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease all of the following may be implicated, EXCEPT
999
 Protein that precipitates on heating to 450C and redisolves on boling is
Bence-Jones protein
Albumin
Myosin
 Plasma differs from serum by
Lipid content
Protein content
RBCs countGlucose level
 Plasma albumin performs all of the following functions, EXCEPT:
Maintenance of oncotic pressure.
Transport.
Nutritive.
Maintenance of water-electrolyte balance.
 Which one of the following substances does not require plasma protein for transport?
Vitamin D
Fat
Glycerol
Copper ion
 Level of which blood proteins fraction is higher?
Options
Albumin
α-globulins
γ-globuins
Fibrinogen
 How many distinct bands of serum proteins are separated by paper electrophoresis?
10
15
20
1000
 When a serum is electrophoresed, which of the following bands is normally absent?
α1- globulin
α2-globulinAlbumin
Fibrinogen
 Plasma proteins are separated to individual proteins by all of the following methods,
EXCEPT
Options
Electrophoresis
Chromatography
Dialysis
 Defense protein in plasma is
Albumin
Angiotensinogen
Erythropoietin
Complement factor
 Hypoalbuminemia is clinical feature of all of the following, EXCEPT
Nephrotic syndrome.
 Hypoproteinemia leads
 Simple plasma protein is
CerruloplasminTransferrin
Albumin
Immunoglobulin
 Which substance is in higher concentration in blood than in glomerular filtrate?
1001
Options
Glucose
Urea
Proteins
Water
 Ceruloplasmin is
Ferroxidase
Protein of ETC
 Major transporter of drugs and lipophilic substances in plasma is
Albumin
Fibrinogen
Complement
Immunoglobulin
 Plasma protein is
Protein kinase
Creatinine
Lipoprotein lipase
Carnitine
 Which one of the following plasma proteins is NOT synthesized by the liver?Albumin
Immunoglobulin
Complement
Fibrinogen
 Which one of the following plasma proteins has catalytic function?
Options
Transferrin
Ceruloplasmin
Albumin
Haptoglobin
 Hemoglobin excretion into urine during hemolysis is prevented by
1002
T-cells
Albumin
Haptoglobin
Ceruloplasmin
 Haptoglobin is
 Transferrin is
Storage form of iron.
Types of red blood cells. Major transporter of iron in the plasma to bone marrow
Ferritin
Fibrinogen
Transferrin
Hemoglobin
 What is a diagnostic test for hepatocellular carcinoma?
α1-Antitrypsin
α1-Fetoprotein
Haptoglobin Transferrin
 All of the following are about α1- fetoprotein correct EXCEPT
 α1-antitripsin is
Anticoagulant.
Antioxidant of RBCs.
1003
Activator of blood trypsinogen.
 Which of the following plasma proteins is protease inhibitor?
Transferrin
α1-fetoprotein
α1- antitrypsin
Ceruloplasmin
 What is major function of Alpha1-antitrypsin ?Protease activator
Protease inhibitor
 Smokers tend to develop emphysema more readily than non-smokers. This is due to
oxidation of
Pulmonary collagen.
α1-antytrypsin.
Alveolar elastin.
 α1-antitrypsin deficiency has been implicated in
Kwashiorkor.
Multiple myeloma.
 Patient was diagnosed with Wilson’s disease. To confirm the diagnosis it is necessary to
study the
activity of the following enzyme in blood
α1-antitrypsin
Ceruloplasmin
Catalase
 Willson’s disease is due to
1004
Deficiency of copper in blood Kayser-Fleicher rings (KF-rings) are seen in
Hematochromatosis
Wilson disease
Wernike syndrome
Spina bifida
 Pandey’s & Nonne-Appelt’s tests detect in cerebrospinal fluid
Glucose
Chloride ion
Neutrophils
Globulins
 Pandey’s and Nonne-Appelt’s tests are used techniques
Colorimetric
SDS electrophoresis
 The albumin quotient AQ = 40. This index indicates the following degree of blood-brain
barrier
(BBB) damage
Slightly
Moderate
Severe
Complete
 Antibodies are
Carbohydrates.
Glycoproteins.
Nucleic acids.
Lipids. All of the following about antibodies are true, EXCEPT
1005
 Each of the following is characteristic of antibodies, EXCEPT
 All of the following about the Fc region of immunoglobulins are true, EXCEPT
 Which plasma protein has two heavy chains and two light chains?
Albumin
Fibrinogen
Globulin
Antibody
 Following substance may act as an antigen
Options
Polyols such as glycerol.Polysaccharides rich by mannose.
 Which of the following is responsible for opsonization of bacteria in the blood?
Complement C3b
Albumin
Cytokines
Monocyte
 Immunoglobulin is example of
Complex lipids.
Simple protein
Oligossacharides
Conjugated protein
1006
 The largest immunoglobulin in size is
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgG
 In an immunoglobulin molecule the antigen binding capacity resides at the
Constant region
Variable region
Joining (J) zone
 Major function of variable N-terminal region of immunoglobulin is
Binding with other antibodies.Activating of bacterial proteases.
 Which one of the following immunoglobulins can cross the placenta and transfers
mother’s
IgA
IgG
IgE
IgD
 Which one of the following isotypes of immunoglobulins is synthesized in response to

allergen
action?
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgA
 All of the following about IgE are true, EXCEPT
1007
 Antibody present in colostrums is
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgD
 Which isotype of immunoglobulin is above?
IgG
IgEIgA
IgD
 Agglutination reaction is strongest with the immunoglobulin
Options
IgG
IgM
IgE
IgA
 All of the following about IgM are true, EXCEPT
It is pentamer.
It is glycoprotein.
 Antibody having high valency is
IgG
IgM
IgE
IgD
 Ochronosis is a feature of
Albinism
Alkaptonuria
Phenylketonuria
Tyrosinosis
1008
 What are repeating units of DNA?
BasesNucleotides
Sugars
Phosphates
 Human DNA rich by nucleotides
A-T
G-C
A-U
None of the above
 Bacterial DNA rich by nucleotides
A-T
G-C
A-U
None of the above
 Purine base is
Uracil
Thymine
Guanine
Cytosine
 A purine nucleotide is
AMP
UMP
CMP
TMP
 Which metabolic pathway is passes in the nucleus?
DNA replicationProtein synthesis
 Genetic information of nuclear DNA is transmitted to the site of protein synthesis by
Options
Polysomes.
1009
TRNA.
MRNA.
Proteosomes.
 DNA makes DNA by
Repair.
Replication.
Transcription.
Translation.
DNA makes RNA by
Options
Repair.
Replication.
Transcription.
Translation.
 MRNA makes polypeptide by
Repair.
Replication.
Transcription.
Translation. In sickle cell anemia the defect can be explained by the mutation
Single point.
Frameshift.
Stop codon.
 In human the main product of purine catabolism is
Urea
Uric acid
β-alanine
Guanine
 Uric acid is final product degradation of
Purines.
Amino acids.
1010
Proteins.
Creatine.
 Nucleosides are composed from nitrogen base and
Protein.
Pentose.
Alcohol.
Fatty acid.
 Pyrimidine base is
Thymine
Thiamine
Cysteine
Tocopherol All of the following about IgG are true, EXCEPT
Nutritional
Transport
Defense
Oncotic
 Which of the following is correct about complement?
Thiamine
Cysteine
Cytosine
Tocopherol
1011
 All of the following are principal functions of complement, EXCEPT
Opsonize pathogens.
Activate plasma cells to produce Ig. C4b-C2b-C3b is composition of
C1 convertase
C3 convertase
C5 convertase
C9 convertase
 The principal nitrogenos urinary excretion product in human resulting from the
catabolism of
AMP is
Urea
Uric acid
Creatinine
Carnitine
 C4b-C2b is composition of
Options
C1 convertase
C3 convertase
C5 convertase
C9 convertase
 Inosine monophosphate is an intermediate during de novo synthesis of
AMP & GMP
CMP & TMP
CMP & UMP
All of these
 5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate is required for the synthesis of
Glycogen.
Nucleotides.
Histones.Triacylglycerides.
1012
 Carbomoyl phosphate II is required for synthesis of
Orotic acid
Uric acid
Cholesterol
Citric acid
 Hereditary orotic aciduria may accompanying with
Osteomalacia.
Photophobia.
 Increased level of blood uric acid are risk factors for development of
Tumor
Tophi
Anemia
Fatty liver
 All of the following statements about uric acid are true EXCEPT
 Allopurinol prevents the conversion of
IMP to GMP
Cytosine to uracil
Xanthine to uric acidAmmonia to urea
 Allopurinol lowers serum levels of
Uric acid.
Glutamine.
Cholesterol
Urea
 A 42-year-old male cancer patient undergoing radiation therapy develops severe pain in
his right
1013
big toe. Laboratory analysis indicates an elevated
serum urate level and urate crystals in his urine. Which one of the following metabolic
pathway is
activated in this patient?
Proteins degradation
Pyrimidine nucleotides degradation
 Hyperuricemia leads
Obesity.
Hypoglycemia.
Goiter.
Gout.
 The salvage pathway for purines involves enzyme
Xanthine oxidase.
 Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with deficiency of enzyme
CPKADA
HGPRT
AST
 A 10-year-old child with aggressive behavior is brought with presenting complaints of

joint pain
and reduced urinary output. Mother gives history of
self-mutilitative behavior (he tends to mutilate his fingers and lips). Which of the following
enzymes is
likely to be deficient in this child?
HGPRT
ADA
PRPP
AST
1014
joint pain
enzymes is
HGPRT
ADA
PRPP
AST
 An important feature of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is
Photophobia
Skin eruption
Hyperuricemia
Hyperammoniemia
 Complement C3b is major
Opsonin
AllergenAllergen
Chemoattractant
 Killer disease (SCID) disease is due to mutation affecting degradation of
Hemoglobin.
Cholesterol.
Collagen.
Purines.
 The major opsonin is
C3b
C5b
C5b
C5b
 Killer disease (SIDS) is due to deficiency of enzyme
Xanthine oxidase.
1015
HGPRT.
PDH.
 Complement C5b is major for
Opsonization
Chemotaxis
 All of the following components are involved in classical pathway activation of

complement
factors, EXCEPT
Adipsin
Complement C4Complement C1
Immunoglobulins
 All of the following components are involved in alternative pathway activation of

complement
factors, EXCEPT
Factors B &D (adipsin).
Factor P (properdin)
Liopolysaccharides.
Immunoglobulins.
 All of the following statements about phenylketonuria are correct EXCEPT
It leads to increased synthesis of thyroid hormones, catecholamines and melanin
 Formation of MAC on the surface of pathogen’s membrane is result of
 Complement C3a is major
Opsonin
1016
Allergen
Antigen
Chemoattractant
 Tyrosine would be essential amino acids in the diet of a child with
Huler’s syndromeKiller disease (SIDS)
Classical phenylketonuria
 One of the clinical features of multiple myeloma patients is renal failure that may be
due to
 Myeloma M-protein is
Paraprotein
Misfolding protein
Complement 9
 For a substance to be classified as mutagen it must cause
A change in DNA
Enzyme to denature
Enzyme inhibition
MRNA be produced
 What is specific biochemical profile of multiple myeloma patients?
 Regarding structure of protein
Polypeptide is branched chain protein
Proteins are polymers of α- and β-amino acids“ Salt bond” is the synonym for peptide bond
1017
 Bence-Jones proteinuria can appear in patient with
Ochronosis
Wilson disease
Multiple myeloma
Morfan syndrome
 The confirm the multiple myeloma diagnosis it is necessary to determine the following
substance
in the patient’s urine
Ceruloplasmin
Bence-Jones protein
Bilirubin
 The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of.
The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of (A)Dehydration of protein

molecule by salt
(B)Diminished protein-protein interaction
 Bence-Jones protein is detected in the urine by
Nitroprusside test
Heat test
Biuret test
Salting out test
 True about ATP synthase are all, EXCEPTOn rotation produce 5 ATP
 A 70-year old man presented with back pain, osteoporosis, hypercalciemia and loss of
weight. On
1018
examination he has anemic. Serum analysis:
Albumin 30 g/L (normal: 35-50 g/L) Hemoglobin 8.5 g/dl (normal 13-18 g/dl) Serum protein
electrophoretic pattern revealed a paraprotein in the γ-
globulin region of IgG series. Urine analysis: Bence-Jones protein was present. What your
mostly likely
diagnosis?
Options
Multiple myeloma
Cystic fibrosis
 Coenzyme Q in the Electron transport chain
Oxidizes glucose
Transfers electrons
Reduced NADH
 In chemiosmosis, ATP is produced as H+ pass through:
ATP synthase
ATP decarboxylase
A series of electron carriers
 During aerobic respiration oxygen is
OxidizedCatabolized
Reduced
Formed
 Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by
Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by (A)Cyanide (B)Aluminium phosphatide (C)Phenobarbital

Carbonated
beverage
Phenobarbital
Carbonated beverage
1019
 35 – year-old woman has normal blood glucose level, but increase concentration of
glucose in the
Defect in SGLT-2
Defect in SGLT-1
 Diffusion of glucose inside the RBCs requires
ATP
Proton gradient
 Patient with defect of GLUT -1 has all of the following EXCEPT
Hemolytic anemia
 Defect in SGLT - 1 may accompanying with decrease absorption ofGlucose
Fatty acids
Amino acids
Cholesterol
 Which of the following bacteria act by increasing cAMP?
Salmonella
Vibrio cholera
Staphyloccus aureus
L-coli stable
 High concentration of glucose content in oral rehydration drugs is necessary for
1020
 After overnight fasting levels of glucose transporters is decreased in
Neurons
Adipocytes
Hepatocytes
Erythrocytes
 Peptide bonds present in
Lactase
Lactose
Glucose
Cholesterol
 Each organism has unique combination of characteristics encoded in molecules

of.Vitamins
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Protein
 Phenylalanine is precursor of
Histamine
Tyrosine
Aspartate
Methionine
 MRNA is copied from DNA during a process called
Replication
Transcription
Translation
Processing
 The sugar found in DNA is
Xylose
Ribose
Ribulose
Erythrose
the
1021
following, EXCEPT.
Albumin
Oxaloacetic acid
Linoleic acid
Glutamic acid
 Free ammonia is released duringOxidative deamination
Transamination
Amination
All of these
 Extremely sensitive to ammonia toxicity
Nervous system
Erythrocytes
Reproductive system
 Ammonia transported from the muscle to liver mainly in the form of
Aspartate
Albumin-ammonia complex
Alanine
 Excess ammonia in the cells inhibits TCA cycle due to depletion of
Fumarate
Malonate
Citrate
α-ketoglutarate
 The liver only is able to form urea because in other tissues absent enzyme
Arginase
 In response to metabolic acidosis biosynthesis of enzyme glutaminase increases inLiver
Brain
1022
Kidney
Skin
 NH3 is detoxified in muscles to
Urea
Creatinine
Alanine
Uric acid
 NH3 is detoxified in brain to
Urea
Creatinine
Uric acid
Glutamine
 Liver’s specific enzyme is
Protein kinase
Hexokinase
Carginase
Citrate synthase
 Organ that produces ammonia that is involved in the maintenance of acid-base balance
Pancreas
Liver
Kidney
Stomach
 The significance of urea cycle is toDetoxify ammonia
 Increased level of blood ammonia is risk factor for development of
Encephalopathy
Edema
Anemia
Fatty liver
1023
 All of the following statements about glutamine is correct EXCEPT
Sources of ammonia
Toxic compounds
Present in brain
 Blood urea increase in all of the following EXCEPT
Renal failure
Liver cirrhosis
 Which of the following compound is precursor of urea?
Pyrimidines
Cholesterol
Purines
Ammonia
 Oxidative deamination is the conversion of an aminoGroup from an amino acid to a keto

acid
 Depletion of α-ketoglutarate during increased ammonia influx leads formation of
Arginine
Glutamine
Histamine
Ornithine
 Dietary deficiency of vitamin B6 significantly affects the metabolism
 An example of a transamination process is
1024
 Transamination is the process where
None of the above
 The most toxic compounds isTyrosine
Phenylpyruvate
Lysine
Phenylalanine
 In the normal metabolism of phenylalanine, it is initially converted to
Fumarate
Tyrosine
Lysine
Phenylpuruvate
 Melanine is derived from
Cholesterol
Tyrosine
Bilirubin
Leucine
 All of the following are synthesized from tyrosine, EXCEPT
Melanin
Aldosterone
Thyroxin
Epinephrine
 Homogentisic oxidase deficiency leads all of the following, EXCEPT
Black urine
Albinism
1025
Arthritis
Ochronosis
 Phenylketonuria (PKU) patient can not convertPhenol to ketones
 A person with phenylketonuria cannot convert phenylalanine to
Isoleucine
Lysine
Tyrosine
Serine
Question (253/318)
 All of the following are components of lipoproteins, EXCEPT
Phospholipids.
Cholesterol.
Carbohydrates.
 All of the following are functions of apoproteins, EXCEPT
 Which one of the following statements about lipoproteins is correct?

the liver
tissues. Which one of the following changes would you expect in a patient with
decreased
1026
 What is the correct ordering of lipoprotein particles from lowest to the highest density?
 Which one of the following apoprotein is synthesized in the liver as integral part of
VLDL?
AI
B-100
C II
B – 48
 All of the following statements about lipoprotein lipase are correct, EXCEPT
 Dietary fats after absorption appear in the blood circulation as
HDL
VLDL
LDLChylomicrons
 Where does VLDL synthesis take place?
Liver
Intestinal lumen
Adipose tissue
 Plasma become milky due to increase level of
Lipoproteins
Glucose
1027
Ketone bodies
Urea
 LDL transport
Triacylglycerides from liver
. Tricylglycerides from intestine.
 The building blocks (monomers) that make up HDL :
Lipids
Minerals
Monosaccharides
Nucleotides
 Which of the following statement regarding chylomicrons is correct?
Have a shell of waterContain a lipid materials
 Synthesis of lipoprotein lipase is activated by
Cortisol
Glucagon
Insulin
Epinephrine
 A laboratory data of patient with Tangier disease is
 The patient has unusual red cells morphology (acanthocytosis- thorny-appearing cells)
due to membrane abnormalities in their erythrocytes. This
Linolenic (C18:3)
1028
Palmitic (C16:0)
Ascorbic
Folic
 The following is an activator of lipoprotein lipase
Apo E
Apo C II
Apo A I
Apo B-48
 The following is an activator of lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)
Apo B-100
Apo AIApo B-48
Apo E
 All of the following are functions of HDL, EXCEPT
 VLDL transport
 HDL transport
 Specific scavenger receptor SR-B1 present on the surface of extrahepatic tissue
including vessels for
LDL
HDL
1029
VLDL
IDL
 Normal blood LDL level is
Options
< 150 mg/dl> 200 mg/dl
> 500 mg/dl
<300 mg/dl
 Normal blood HDL level is
Options
40-60 mg/dl
> 200 mg/dl
10-15 mg/dl
> 350 mg/dl
 A 35-year-old man has a history of recurring attacks of pancreatitis, eruptive xathomas
and increased plasma triacylglyceride levels: 2000 mg/dl
associated with chylomicronemias. Deficiency of which of the following is the likely cause of
these
symptoms?
Options
HMG CoA reductase
 Hypoglycemic hypoketonic blood is seen in patients suffering from impaired which
metabolic pathway?
Alcohol abuse
 Increased level of blood cholesterol are risk factors for development of
Options
1030
Gall stones.Fatty liver.
Anemia.
Atherosclerosis.
 Insulin resistance in DM type II leads hyperlipidemias due to excessive
Options
Utilization of VLDL
 Deficiency of LDL-receptors is risk factor for development of
Options
Liver cirrhosis
Mental retardation
Muscles atrophy
 Lecithin-cholesterolacyltransferase (LCAT) is enzyme that binds with
Options
HDL
LDL
 Hyperlipidemia can occur in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT
Options
Enteritis.
Diabetes mellitus.Nephrotic syndrome.
Hypothyroidism.
 A young girl with a history of severe abdominal pain was taken to her local hospital at 5
a.m. in severe distress. Blood was drawn, and the plasma
appeared milky with the TG level 2000 mg/dl (normal 4-50 mg/dl). Which one of the
following enzymes
deficiency is most likely responsible for the
1031
appearance of this patient’s plasma?
Options
Pancreatic lipase
Lipoprotein lipase
 Patient has genetic disorder characterized by malabsorption of dietary lipid,
Options
Apo B100
Acyl CoA synthetase
Pancreatic lipase
Colipase
 An 11 year old boy presents with balance and difficulty with night vision. His mother
says he had foul smelling stools and failure to thrive as an
infant. Physical examination reveals poor muscle coordination, ataxia. Lab tests show low
total
cholesterol and Vitamin A levels. The patient most
likely has an inherited mutation in which of the following?
Options
7-α-hydrohylaseMicrosomal Transfer Protein (MTP)
 The official medical measurement of obesity is
Options
Body mass index.
Height of a person.
 All are plasma adipokines profile of obese person, EXCEPT
1032
Options
Leptin resistance.
Hypoestrogenism.
Hyperresistinemia.
 White adipose tissue has all of the following functions, EXCEPT
Options
Endocrine.
Helps in immunity.
Metabolic.
 Adipokine that activates effect of insulin is
Options
Adiponectin.
Resistin.Leptin.
Grenilin.
 An important feature of Zellweger’s syndrome is
Options
Hypoglycemia.
Skin eruption.
 Which statement from of the following about Zellweger’s syndrome is FALSE?
Options
 Physiological conditions which promote the synthesis of ketone bodies would also
promote the
1033
 Refsume’s disease is due to accumulation of
Options
Carnitine in liver.
Choestrol in gall bladder. A drug which prevents cholesterol by inhibiting the enzyme
HMG CoA reductase is
Options
Aspirin.
Allopurinol.
Digitonin.
Lavostatin.
 A 56-year-old smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day. He is found to have a blood pressure
of 155/95 mm Hg. His body mass index is 30. Laboratory
findings include total serum cholesterol of 245 mg/dl and HDL cholesterol is 22 mg/dl.Which
of the
following vascular abnormalities is most likely to
be his most serious health risk?
Options
Atherosclerosis
 Obese person has
Options
Hypoadiponectinemia
Hyporesistinemia
Hypolipoproteinemia
Hypoglycemia
1034
 Wasting syndrome is characterized by
Increase catabolism
Increase anabolism
Increase energy productionIncrease appetite
 A 44-year-old woman has a family history of heart disease. Her father and mother both
developed congestive heart failure and myocardial infarction
as a result of extensive coronary atherosclerosis. A dietary modification to include

consumption of which
of the following is most likely to reduce her
risk for ischemic heart disease?
Fish oil
 An autopsy study reveals that evidence for atheroma formation can begin even in
children. The gross appearances of the aortas are recorded and
compared with microscopic findings of atheroma formation. Which of the following is most
likely to be
the first visible gross evidence for the
Thrombus
Fatty streak
Calcification
Ulceration
 A 25-year-old man is 178 cm tall and weighs 101 kg. Laboratory studies show total
serum cholesterol of 550 mg/dl with an HDL cholesterol
component of 25 mg/dl. He is worried about these findings because his brother died of a
myocardial
infarction at age 34. Which of the following
Options
1035
Familial hypercholesterolemiaCushing syndrome
 Vitamin E deficiency can cause
 Hyperlipoproteinemia with maximum of cholesterol level in the blood is
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
 All of the following are major risk factors for Coronary Heart Disease (CHD), EXCEPT
Smoking.
Hypertension.
 Lipidemic lowering therapy includes all of the following, EXCEPT
Statins.
Fibrates.
 What is the major organ for alcohol detoxification?
 Options
Brain
Liver
KidneySpleen
 Alcohol abuse leads in the liver all of the following, EXCEPT
1036
 Which nutritional factor stimulates alcohol oxidation?
Well-fad state
Fasting
Low protein diet
Low lipid diet
 Aldehyde dehydrogenase oxidizes ethanol to
Acetic acid.
Oxalic acid.
Carbon dioxide.
Acetyldehyde.
 Cytochrome P450 system involves in oxidation of ethanol in organism of
Healthy person.
Heavy drinkers.
Obese person.
Mild drinker.
 Microsomal oxidation of alcohol is accompanying with formation of all of the following,

EXCEPT
Hydrogen peroxide.
Acetaldehyde.Acetate.
 Alcohol-induced cirhotic patient can has following blood analysis
↓ ALT & ↑GGT
 Which one of the following methods uses in practical medicine for purification of blood
by
artificial kidney?
Options
Electrophoresis
Salting out
1037
Hemodilution
Dialysis
 Chromatography is method of separation mixture of
Ions
Amino acids
Salts
Ketone bodies
 What one of the following patients may be put on the hemodialysis?
 The following technique is used for separation of proteins according their difference in
net
Thin layer chromatography.Paper chromatography.
Electrophoresis.
Dialysis.
 The solubility of most proteins is lowered at high salt concentration is known as
Salting out process
Solubility curve
Chromatography
 The movement of charged particles towards one of the electrodes under the influence
of
Options
Gel filtration
Chromatography
Dialysis
Electrophoresis
1038
 For separation of mixture charged high molecular weight and low molecular weight
compounds
can use all following techniques EXCEPT
Options
Electrophoresis
Dialysis
Cedimentation rate
 The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of
Diminished protein-protein interaction.Neutralization of protein molecule by salt.
 A protein with molecular weight of 100 kD is subjected to SDS PAGE electrophoresis.

SDS PAGE
electrophoretic pattern show two widely separated
bands of 20 kD and 30 kD after addition of merkaptoethanol. The true statement regarding

this will be
Options
 Chromatography is used for separation of
Options
Mixture of proteins
Colloids only
 Ultrafiltration of plasma in kidney is example of
Chromatography.
Dialysis.
Electrophoresis.
1039
Precipitation.
 Ultrafiltration of plasma by choroid plexus of ventricular system of the brain is example

of
Options
Chromatography.
Electrophoresis.
Dialysis.
Precipitation. All of the following are functions of proteins, EXCEPT
Options
Catalytic.
Defense.
Osmotic.
Structural.
 Which of the following IS NOT protein in nature?
Albumin
Cortisol
Complement C3
Lipase
 Protein is
Ceruloplasmin
Pyruvate
Acetoacetate
Glycerol
 Which class of biomolecules is used for activation of catalytic function of proteins?
Carbohydrates
Water shell
Minerals
Fatty acids
 Molecules of protein are composed of long chain of
Options
Fatty acids
1040
NucleotidesSugar
Amino acids
 Alpha-helix and beta-sheet folding in protein is stabilized by
Ester bond.
Hydrogen bond.
Peptide bond.
Ionic bond.
 Which one of the following IS NOT a secondary structural feature of proteins?
Alpha-helix
Beta-sheet
Triple-helix
Beta-turn
 Each polypeptide has specific amino acids sequence, linked with each other by peptide
bond. This
Priamary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary
 Tertiary structure of a protein is formed by all of the following EXCEPT
Hydrogen bonds
Ionic bonds
Peptide bonds
Disulfide bonds
 All of the following have quaternary structure EXCEPT
Immunoglobulin
AlbuminLactate dehydrogenase
Hemoglobin
 A protein reacts with biuret reagent which indicates two or more
Alpha-helix
Peptide bonds
1041
β- sheet
Disulfide bonds
 Which of the following is the best example of conformational changes?
 Daily production of proteins in adult healthy person approximately is
50 g
200 g
400 g
1000 g
 Daily excretion of proteins into the urine in adult healthy person approximately is
Less than 150 mg
250 mg per day
More than 250 mg
10 g per day
 Transcription is synthesis of
ATP
RNADNA
NADH
 Which molecule contains the genetic code?
Protein
DNA
ATP
Adenine base
 In the process of transcription, the flow of genetic information is from
DNA to DNA
DNA to protein
T-RNA to protein
DNA to m-RNA
1042
 Translation is synthesis of
RNA
DNA
Polypeptides
Polysaccharides
 The most active site of protein synthesis is the
Nucleous
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Cell membrane
 Which one of the following enzymes would digest proteins?
Amylase
LactaseLipase
Trypsin
the
following, EXCEPT
Albumin.
Oxaloacetic acid.
Linoleic acid.
Glutamic acid.
 Which from the following regarding protein composition is correct?
 In denaturized proteins the bond which IS NOT broken
Peptide
Disulfide
Hydrogen
Ionic
1043
 Proteases produce amino acids from protein by
Reducing
Hydrolyzing
Oxidizing
Saturation
 Which of the following IS NOT a conjugated protein?
Hemoglobin
Low density lipoproteinImmunoglobulin G
Collagen
 Metalloprotein is
Collagen
Albumin
Immunoglobulin
Ferritin
 Negative nitrogen balance has following person
Children.
Elderly.
Pregnant women.
Athletic men.
 In protein structure the α-helix and β-sheet are examples of
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
 Biologically active proteins in human beings are
D-and L-form
L-form only
D-form only
Racemic form
 All hormones increase the amount of proteins in tissues EXCEPT
Growth hormone
1044
TestosteroneInsulin
Cortisol
 What is the major function of chaperones in the cells?
 Inracellular folding of protein is mediated by
The protein itself
Chaperons
Ribosome
Proteases
 Which one from the following protects proteins that have been denaturized by
decreased pH in
cells?
Protease inhibitor
Endogenous ions
 All of the following are functions of chaperones, EXCEPT
 Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins?
Proteases
ProteososmesChaperones
Lysosomes hydrolase
 The building blocks (monomers) that make up hypothalamic releasing hormones are :
Nucleotides
Amino acids
1045
Monosaccharides
Isoprenoids
 Which bond is formed when an amino group of one amino acid joints the carboxylic
group of
another amino acid?
Peptide
Glycosidic
Ester
Hydrogen
 Bonds that are formed between two cysteine residues is
Peptide
Hydrophilic
Disulphide
Ionic
 Biologically active proteinogenic amino acids present in human organism in
D- and L-form
L-form only
D-form only
Racemic form
 Which one of the following sets consists of essential amino acids only?
Options
Alanine, TyrosinePhenylalanine, Tryptophan
Glutamate, Lysine
Aspartate, Glycine
 Some amino acids are termed NON-ESSENTIAL as
All of the above.
 All α-amino acids give positive
Ninhydrin test
1046
Biuret test
Fusher test
Xanthoproteic test
 A compound gives positive test with ninhydrin is a(an)
Options
Lipid
Glucose
Amino acids
Ketone bodies
 Biuret test is mainly done for
Options
Lipids
Carbohydrates
Amino acids
Proteins An amino acid that may form a disulphide bond
Tryptophan
Cystein
Phenylalanine
Proline
 Which one of the following amino acids is ionizable in protein?
Glycine
Alanine
Valine
Aspartate
 Which of the following amino acids is highly likely to be localized within the interior of
the plasma
globular protein?
Aspartic acid
Glutamic acid
Valine
Arginine
1047
 Which of the following amino acids is highly likely to be localized exterior of the plasma
globular
protein?
Aspartic acid
Glycine
Valine
Isoleucine
 Disulfide bonds most often stabilize the native structure of
Membrane proteinsConnective tissue proteins
 Which one of the following tripeptides contains the largest number of non-polar
R-group?
Tyr-Lys-Met
Gly-Pro-Arg
Asp-Phe-Tyr
Leu-Val-Gly
 At certain pH amino acid behaves neither as an acid nor as a base and does not migrate
to anode
or cathode and this pH known as:
Isoelectric point
Cationic pH
Anionic pH
 Isoelectric point is
 Isoelectric point (pI) for an amino acid is
1048
 Non-proteinogenic amino acid is
α-alanine
Aspartate
β-alanineHistidine
 Which one of the following tripeptides most positively charged at pH=7.0?
Options
Tyr-Lys-Met
Lys-Pro-Arg
Asp-Glu-Asp
Leu-Val-Gly
 Which one of the following tripeptides contains sulfur?
Gly-Pro-Arg
Cys-Lys-Met
Asp-Phe-Tyr
Leu-Val-Gly
 Which one of the following proteins exists as CATION in physiological conditions?
Albumin (pI = 4.9.)
Histone (pI = 9.8)
 Which one of the following proteins exists as neutral particle in physiological condition?
Albumin (pI = 4.9)
Hemoglobin (pI=7.0)
Fibrinogen (pI=5.4)
 Toxic effects of heavy metals result in inactivation of specific proteins by denaturation.

Which of
the following proteins can supply orally for the
1049
Clupellin (pI= 12.4)Protein of soya (pI= 7.9 )
Papain (pI=9.0)
 A 24-year old woman prepares for her wedding day. Her hair dresser uses rollers to
create a new
style for her hair. To create a “permanent wave”, the
stylist then applies thoglucollate to break apart the S-S bonds in cysteine units, reducing
them to –SH
groups. Which level of protein structure is most
greatly affected by this treatment?
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
 Glutathione is important
Absorbent
Antioxidant
Enzyme
Protein
 Glutathione prevents cells against accumulation of
Ammonia
Nitrogen monoxide
Hydrogen peroxide
Carbon monoxide
 If glutathione level in the erythrocytes decrease
Options
Oxy-hemoglobin content increasesRadical level increases
PH decreases
 (E)In RBCs hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is converted to water (H2O) by
Hemoglobin
Glutathione
1050
Glutamate
Cytochrome
 All are true about glutathione EXCEPT
Anti-oxidant Transport amino acids across cell membrane
 Kwashiorkor babies would have all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Fatty liver.
Hypoalbuminemia.
Edema.
Severe myopathy.
 Kwashiorkor result from
 Marasmic babies have
Depletion of liver proteinHypoalbuminemia
Fatty liver
 Amyloid is form of
Options
Bacterium
Viruses
Primitive life form
Protein
 Amyloidosis is accumulation of
Glycogen
Misfolding protein
Gangliosides
1051
Colloids
 Mad cow disease may be due to invasion of
Specific virus
Specific bacteria
Abnormal gluten
 Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the deposition of one of the following

substances in the
tissues
Options
Glycogen
Neurolipids
Amyloid
Copper
 Which from the following processes is NOT involved in pathogenesis of

amyloidosis?Conformational changes of protein
 Alzheimer’s disease is due to
 A 80-year-old man presented with impairment of higher intellectual function and

alterations in
Alzheimer’s
disease. Which one of the following best
describes the disease?
Options
1052
 It is associated with abnormal Aβ-amyloid with altered secondary structure
 In etiopathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease the following may be implicated
Options
Tau protein
Alpha-secretase
All of the above
 Alzheimer’s Aβ-amyloid is major component ofExtracellular plaques.
 Prions are type of
Proteins
Bacterium
Primitive life form
Viruses
 Origin of prion is
RNA
DNA
Virus
Protein
 All of the following statements about Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) are correct EXCEPT
Options
1053
 In Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) patients pathological study of brain tissue shows
spongiosis
(vacuolation of cortical grey matter) with neuronal
loss, amyloid plaques. These amyloid plaques contain:
Options
Amylin
PrionImmunoglobulins
Tau-protein
 Progressive dementia is seen in
Mad cow disease
All of the above
Options
Nerve cell membrane
In synaptic cleft
 All of the following are the properties of abnormal prion PrPSC EXCEPT
Options
It is stable
It is insoluble
 Which of the following is NOT a prion associated disease?
Mad cow disease
Kuru
Alzheimer disease
 Neurofibrillary tangles that accumulate in the brain of Alzheimer’s patient is result of

defect
1054
in_______ structure of _______Secondary/ tau protein
 In pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease all of the following may be implicated, EXCEPT
 Protein that precipitates on heating to 450C and redisolves on boling is
Bence-Jones protein
Albumin
Myosin
 Plasma differs from serum by
Lipid content
Protein content
RBCs count
Glucose level
 Plasma albumin performs all of the following functions, EXCEPT:
Transport.
Nutritive.
Maintenance of water-electrolyte balance.
 Which one of the following substances does not require plasma protein for
transport?Vitamin D
Fat
Glycerol
Copper ion
 Level of which blood proteins fraction is higher?
Options
1055
Albumin
α-globulins
γ-globuins
Fibrinogen
 How many distinct bands of serum proteins are separated by paper electrophoresis?
10
15
20
 When a serum is electrophoresed, which of the following bands is normally absent?
α1- globulin
α2-globulin
Albumin
Fibrinogen
 Plasma proteins are separated to individual proteins by all of the following methods,
EXCEPT
Options
Electrophoresis
ChromatographyDialysis
 Defense protein in plasma is
Albumin
Angiotensinogen
Erythropoietin
Complement factor
 Hypoalbuminemia is clinical feature of all of the following, EXCEPT
Nephrotic syndrome.
 Hypoproteinemia leads
1056
 Simple plasma protein is
Cerruloplasmin
Transferrin
Albumin
Immunoglobulin
 Which substance is in higher concentration in blood than in glomerular filtrate?
Options
Glucose
UreaProteins
Water
 Ceruloplasmin is
Ferroxidase
Protein of ETC
 Major transporter of drugs and lipophilic substances in plasma is
Albumin
Fibrinogen
Complement
Immunoglobulin
 Plasma protein is
Protein kinase
Creatinine
Lipoprotein lipase
Carnitine
 Which one of the following plasma proteins is NOT synthesized by the liver?
Albumin
1057
Immunoglobulin
Complement
Fibrinogen
 Which one of the following plasma proteins has catalytic function?
Options
TransferrinCeruloplasmin
Albumin
Haptoglobin
 Hemoglobin excretion into urine during hemolysis is prevented by
T-cells
Albumin
Haptoglobin
Ceruloplasmin
 Haptoglobin is
 Transferrin is
 Major transporter of iron in the plasma to bone marrow
Ferritin
Fibrinogen
Transferrin
Hemoglobin
 What is a diagnostic test for hepatocellular carcinoma?
α1-Antitrypsinα1-Fetoprotein
Haptoglobin Transferrin
1058
 All of the following are about α1- fetoprotein correct EXCEPT
 α1-antitripsin is
Anticoagulant.
 Which of the following plasma proteins is protease inhibitor?
Transferrin
α1-fetoprotein
α1- antitrypsin
Ceruloplasmin
 What is major function of Alpha1-antitrypsin ?
Protease activator
Protease inhibitor
 Smokers tend to develop emphysema more readily than non-smokers. This is due to
oxidation of
Pulmonary collagen.
Neutrophil elastase.α1-antytrypsin.
Alveolar elastin.
 α1-antitrypsin deficiency has been implicated in
Kwashiorkor.
Multiple myeloma.
1059
 Patient was diagnosed with Wilson’s disease. To confirm the diagnosis it is necessary to
study the
activity of the following enzyme in blood
α1-antitrypsin
Ceruloplasmin
Catalase
 Willson’s disease is due to
 Kayser-Fleicher rings (KF-rings) are seen in
Hematochromatosis
Wilson disease
Wernike syndrome
Spina bifida
 Pandey’s & Nonne-Appelt’s tests detect in cerebrospinal fluid
Glucose
Chloride ionNeutrophils
Globulins
 Pandey’s and Nonne-Appelt’s tests are used techniques
Colorimetric
SDS electrophoresis
 The albumin quotient AQ = 40. This index indicates the following degree of blood-brain
barrier
(BBB) damage
Slightly
Moderate
Severe
1060
Complete
 Antibodies are
Carbohydrates.
Glycoproteins.
Nucleic acids.
Lipids.
 All of the following about antibodies are true, EXCEPT
 Each of the following is characteristic of antibodies, EXCEPT
They contain carbohydrates.They can combine with antigen specifically.
 All of the following about the Fc region of immunoglobulins are true, EXCEPT
 Which plasma protein has two heavy chains and two light chains?
Albumin
Fibrinogen
Globulin
Antibody
 Following substance may act as an antigen
Options
1061
 Which of the following is responsible for opsonization of bacteria in the blood?
Complement C3b
Albumin
Cytokines
Monocyte
 Immunoglobulin is example of
Complex lipids.Simple protein
Oligossacharides
Conjugated protein
 The largest immunoglobulin in size is
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgG
 In an immunoglobulin molecule the antigen binding capacity resides at the
Constant region
Variable region
Joining (J) zone
 Major function of variable N-terminal region of immunoglobulin is
 Which one of the following immunoglobulins can cross the placenta and transfers
mother’s
IgA
IgG
IgE
IgD
1062
 Which one of the following isotypes of immunoglobulins is synthesized in response to
allergen
action?IgG
IgD
IgE
IgA
 All of the following about IgE are true, EXCEPT
 Antibody present in colostrums is
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgD
 Which isotype of immunoglobulin is above?
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgD
 Agglutination reaction is strongest with the immunoglobulin
Options
IgG
IgM
IgE
IgA All of the following about IgM are true, EXCEPT
It is pentamer.
It is glycoprotein.
1063
 Antibody having high valency is
IgG
IgM
IgE
IgD
 Ochronosis is a feature of
Albinism
Alkaptonuria
Phenylketonuria
Tyrosinosis
 What are repeating units of DNA?
Bases
Nucleotides
Sugars
Phosphates
 Human DNA rich by nucleotides
A-T
G-C
A-U
None of the above Bacterial DNA rich by nucleotides
A-T
G-C
A-U
None of the above
 Purine base is
Uracil
Thymine
Guanine
Cytosine
 A purine nucleotide is
AMP
1064
UMP
CMP
TMP
 Which metabolic pathway is passes in the nucleus?
DNA replication
Protein synthesis
 Genetic information of nuclear DNA is transmitted to the site of protein synthesis by
Options
Polysomes.
TRNA.
MRNA.Proteosomes.
 DNA makes DNA by
Repair.
Replication.
Transcription.
Translation.
DNA makes RNA by
Options
Repair.
Replication.
Transcription.
Translation.
 MRNA makes polypeptide by
Repair.
Replication.
Transcription.
Translation.
 In sickle cell anemia the defect can be explained by the mutation
Single point.
1065
Frameshift.
Stop codon.
 In human the main product of purine catabolism is
Urea
Uric acidβ-alanine
Guanine
 Uric acid is final product degradation of
Purines.
Amino acids.
Proteins.
Creatine.
 Nucleosides are composed from nitrogen base and
Protein.
Pentose.
Alcohol.
Fatty acid.
Thymine
Thiamine
Cysteine
Tocopherol
 All of the following about IgG are true, EXCEPT
Nutritional
TransportDefense
Oncotic
1066
 Which of the following is correct about complement?
Thiamine
Cysteine
Cytosine
Tocopherol
 All of the following are principal functions of complement, EXCEPT
Opsonize pathogens.
 C4b-C2b-C3b is composition of
C1 convertase
C3 convertase
C5 convertase
C9 convertase
 The principal nitrogenos urinary excretion product in human resulting from the
catabolism of
AMP is
Urea
Uric acidCreatinine
Carnitine
 C4b-C2b is composition of
Options
C1 convertase
C3 convertase
C5 convertase
1067
C9 convertase
 Inosine monophosphate is an intermediate during de novo synthesis of
AMP & GMP
CMP & TMP
CMP & UMP
All of these
 5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate is required for the synthesis of
Glycogen.
Nucleotides.
Histones.
Triacylglycerides.
 Carbomoyl phosphate II is required for synthesis of
Orotic acid
Uric acid
Cholesterol
Citric acid
 Hereditary orotic aciduria may accompanying with
Osteomalacia.Hyperelasticity of skin.
Photophobia.
 Increased level of blood uric acid are risk factors for development of
Tumor
Tophi
Anemia
Fatty liver
 All of the following statements about uric acid are true EXCEPT
 Allopurinol prevents the conversion of
1068
IMP to GMP
Cytosine to uracil
Ammonia to urea
 Allopurinol lowers serum levels of
Uric acid.
Glutamine.
Cholesterol
Urea
 A 42-year-old male cancer patient undergoing radiation therapy develops severe pain in
his right
big toe. Laboratory analysis indicates an elevatedserum urate level and urate crystals in his
urine. Which one of the following metabolic pathway is
 Hyperuricemia leads
Obesity.
Hypoglycemia.
Goiter.
Gout.
 The salvage pathway for purines involves enzyme
Xanthine oxidase.
 Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with deficiency of enzyme
CPK
ADA
HGPRT
1069
AST

joint pain
enzymes is
HGPRT
ADAPRPP
AST

joint pain
enzymes is
HGPRT
ADA
PRPP
AST
 An important feature of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is
Photophobia
Skin eruption
Hyperuricemia
Hyperammoniemia
 Complement C3b is major
Opsonin
Allergen
Allergen
Chemoattractant
 Killer disease (SCID) disease is due to mutation affecting degradation of
Hemoglobin.
1070
Cholesterol.
Collagen.
Purines.
 The major opsonin isC3b
C5b
C5b
C5b
 Killer disease (SIDS) is due to deficiency of enzyme
Xanthine oxidase.
HGPRT.
PDH.
 Complement C5b is major for
Opsonization
Chemotaxis
 All of the following components are involved in classical pathway activation of

complement
factors, EXCEPT
Adipsin
Complement C4
Complement C1
Immunoglobulins
 All of the following components are involved in alternative pathway activation of

complement
factors, EXCEPT
Liopolysaccharides.
Immunoglobulins. All of the following statements about phenylketonuria are correct

EXCEPT
1071
 Formation of MAC on the surface of pathogen’s membrane is result of
 Complement C3a is major
Opsonin
Allergen
Antigen
Chemoattractant
 Tyrosine would be essential amino acids in the diet of a child with
Huler’s syndrome
 One of the clinical features of multiple myeloma patients is renal failure that may be
due to
Increasing of glomeruli integrity Myeloma M-protein is
Paraprotein
Misfolding protein
Complement 9
 For a substance to be classified as mutagen it must cause
A change in DNA
1072
Enzyme to denature
Enzyme inhibition
MRNA be produced
 What is specific biochemical profile of multiple myeloma patients?
 Regarding structure of protein
Proteins are polymers of α- and β-amino acids
 Bence-Jones proteinuria can appear in patient with
Ochronosis
Wilson disease
Multiple myeloma
Morfan syndrome The confirm the multiple myeloma diagnosis it is necessary to

determine the following substance
in the patient’s urine
Ceruloplasmin
Bence-Jones protein
Bilirubin
 The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of.

molecule by salt
(B)Diminished protein-protein interaction
1073
 Bence-Jones protein is detected in the urine by
Nitroprusside test
Heat test
Biuret test
Salting out test
 True about ATP synthase are all, EXCEPT
 A 70-year old man presented with back pain, osteoporosis, hypercalciemia and loss of
weight. On
examination he has anemic. Serum analysis:
Albumin 30 g/L (normal: 35-50 g/L) Hemoglobin 8.5 g/dl (normal 13-18 g/dl) Serum protein
electrophoretic pattern revealed a paraprotein in the γ-globulin region of IgG series. Urine
analysis: Bence-Jones protein was present. What your mostly likely
diagnosis?
Options
Multiple myeloma
Cystic fibrosis
 Coenzyme Q in the Electron transport chain
Oxidizes glucose
Transfers electrons
Reduced NADH
 In chemiosmosis, ATP is produced as H+ pass through:
ATP synthase
ATP decarboxylase
1074
 During aerobic respiration oxygen is
Oxidized
Catabolized
Reduced
Formed
 Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by
Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by (A)Cyanide (B)Aluminium phosphatide (C)Phenobarbital

Carbonated
beverage
Aluminium phosphatidePhenobarbital
Carbonated beverage
 35 – year-old woman has normal blood glucose level, but increase concentration of
glucose in the
Defect in SGLT-2
Defect in SGLT-1
 Diffusion of glucose inside the RBCs requires
ATP
Proton gradient
 Patient with defect of GLUT -1 has all of the following EXCEPT
Hemolytic anemia
 Defect in SGLT - 1 may accompanying with decrease absorption of
Glucose
Fatty acids
Amino acids
1075
Cholesterol
 Which of the following bacteria act by increasing cAMP?
Salmonella
Vibrio choleraStaphyloccus aureus
L-coli stable
 High concentration of glucose content in oral rehydration drugs is necessary for
 After overnight fasting levels of glucose transporters is decreased in
Neurons
Adipocytes
Hepatocytes
Erythrocytes
 Peptide bonds present in
Lactase
Lactose
Glucose
Cholesterol
 Each organism has unique combination of characteristics encoded in molecules of.
Vitamins
Carbohydrates
Lipids
Protein
 Phenylalanine is precursor of
Histamine
TyrosineAspartate
Methionine
 MRNA is copied from DNA during a process called
Replication
1076
Transcription
Translation
Processing
 The sugar found in DNA is
Xylose
Ribose
Ribulose
Erythrose
the
following, EXCEPT.
Albumin
Oxaloacetic acid
Linoleic acid
Glutamic acid
 Free ammonia is released during
Transamination
Amination
All of these
 Extremely sensitive to ammonia toxicity
Nervous system
ErythrocytesGastrointestinal system
Reproductive system
 Ammonia transported from the muscle to liver mainly in the form of
Aspartate
Alanine
 Excess ammonia in the cells inhibits TCA cycle due to depletion of
Fumarate
1077
Malonate
Citrate
α-ketoglutarate
 The liver only is able to form urea because in other tissues absent enzyme
Arginase
 In response to metabolic acidosis biosynthesis of enzyme glutaminase increases in
Liver
Brain
Kidney
Skin
 NH3 is detoxified in muscles to
Urea
CreatinineAlanine
Uric acid
 NH3 is detoxified in brain to
Urea
Creatinine
Uric acid
Glutamine
 Liver’s specific enzyme is
Protein kinase
Hexokinase
Carginase
Citrate synthase
 Organ that produces ammonia that is involved in the maintenance of acid-base balance
Pancreas
Liver
Kidney
1078
Stomach
 The significance of urea cycle is to
Detoxify ammonia
 Increased level of blood ammonia is risk factor for development of
Encephalopathy
EdemaAnemia
Fatty liver
 All of the following statements about glutamine is correct EXCEPT
Sources of ammonia
Toxic compounds
Present in brain
 Blood urea increase in all of the following EXCEPT
Renal failure
Liver cirrhosis
 Which of the following compound is precursor of urea?
Pyrimidines
Cholesterol
Purines
Ammonia
 Oxidative deamination is the conversion of an amino
 Depletion of α-ketoglutarate during increased ammonia influx leads formation of
1079
Arginine
GlutamineHistamine
Ornithine
 Dietary deficiency of vitamin B6 significantly affects the metabolism
 An example of a transamination process is
 Transamination is the process where
None of the above
 The most toxic compounds is
Tyrosine
Phenylpyruvate
Lysine
Phenylalanine
 In the normal metabolism of phenylalanine, it is initially converted to
Fumarate
TyrosineLysine
Phenylpuruvate
 Melanine is derived from
Cholesterol
Tyrosine
Bilirubin
1080
Leucine
 All of the following are synthesized from tyrosine, EXCEPT
Melanin
Aldosterone
Thyroxin
Epinephrine
 Homogentisic oxidase deficiency leads all of the following, EXCEPT
Black urine
Albinism
Arthritis
Ochronosis
 Phenylketonuria (PKU) patient can not convert
Phenol to ketones
 A person with phenylketonuria cannot convert phenylalanine to
Isoleucine
LysineTyrosine
Serine
Question (1/310)
 Acetyl CoA is a product of all of the following molecules oxidation EXCEPT
Pyruvate
Aldosterone
Acetoacetate
Alanine
 In eukaryotes fatty acid oxidation occurs in
Cytosol.
Cell membrane.
1081
 The flow of which of the following into mitochondrial matrix provides the chemiosmotic
energy for the synthesis of ATP?
Inorganic phosphate.
Electrons.
Protons.
ADP.
 Energy-requirement pathway
Ketolysis
Krebs cycle
Glycogenesis
HMP shunt
 How many moles of ATPs are produced by oxidative phosphorylation from one mole of
NADH?Zero
 During cellular respiration, most of the ATP made, is generated by
Glycolysis
 In cardiomyocytes deprived of oxygen during myocardial infarction
ETC will accelerate
Anaerobic glycolyss will decrease
 Which one is NOT the main protein in electron transport chain?
NADH dehydrogenase
Cytochrome oxidase
Citrate synthase
1082
 Select the molecule that contains the LEAST stored chemical energy in cells
Oxygen
Lactate
Glucose
Glucose-6-phosphate
 Higher rate of ATPs production is seen inHeart
Erythrocytes
Cornea
Spleen
 Most of metabolic pathways are either anabolic (synthetic) or catabolic (degradation).
Which one of the following pathways is considered as
“amphibolic” in nature?
Glycogenesis
Lipolysis
Citric acid cycle
 The energy of electron transfer from NADH and FADH2 is efficiently converted in what
form?
Proton gradient
Glycogen
Osmotic gradient
Glucose
 Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages of the aerobic respiration of
glucose?
Hydrolysis
Krebs cycle
Glycolysis
 Energy status is control the cellular rate of
Glycolysis
1083
Citric acid cycleAll of the above
 Which one of the following vitamins is NOT a component of electron transport chain?
Nicotinamide
Ubiquinone
Biotin
Riboflavin
 The final electron acceptor in the electron transport system is
Coenzyme Q.
Coenzyme A.
Oxygen.
ATP- synthase.
 Electron transport chain oxidize
NADH
NADPH
 Electron transport chain is involved in transport of electrons from ____to______
Acetyl CoA / NADH
NADH/oxygen
FADH2/proton
NADH/FAD
 Which one of the following products of citric acid cycle removes through respiratory
system?
Carbon dioxide
Acetone
Acetyl CoAWater
 Products of ETC working are
ATP, NADH
H2O, NAD+, FAD
ATP, H2O2, FADH2
1084
 Patient with inherited defect of mitochondria involving components of electron
transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation present with all
EXCEPT
Myopathy
Encephalopathy
Fatty liver
Lactic acidosis
 Wasting syndrome may seen in patients suffering from all EXCEPT
Hyperthyroidism
Multiple myeloma
Malnutrition
High caloric intake
 All of the following statements about NAD+ & FAD are correct, EXCEPT
 All of the following are electron carriers in Electron Transport Chain, EXCEPT
Cytochromes.
Coenzyme Q.NADPH.
NADH.
 A postoperative patient on intravenous fluids develops angular stomatitis. Urinalysis
indicates an excretion of 15 μg riboflavin/mg creatinine (Normal
> 30 μg riboflavin/mg creatinine). Which of the following TCA enzymes is most likely to be
affected?
Citrate synthase
Fumarase
 After excessive drinking over a prolonged time with eating poorly, a 45-year-old man is
admitted to the hospital with heart failure. Which of the
1085
following enzymes of TCA cycle is most likely affected?
Aconitase
Citrate synthase
 What are final products of Acetyl CoA oxidation in mitochondrion?
Hydrogen & oxygen
Carbon & water
 For formation of ATP in mitochondrion requires all of the following, EXCEPT
ADP & Pi. Reduced particle is
NADH.
FAD.
Oxygen.
Proton (H+).
 Antimycin A blocks ETC between cytochrome b and cytochrome c1. Which one of the
following would be NOT found in oxidized form?
FAD
NAD
Cyt a3
CoQ
 Energy released from the oxidation of glucose is stored in
ATP only
ATP and NADH
NADH only
NADPH only
 Mitochondrial ATPs are formed by a process known as
1086
Glycolysis.
Chemiosmosis.
Krebs cycle.
Dephosphorylation.
 Oxidative phosphorylation is
Generation of ATPs.
Generation of NADH.
Utilization of ATPs. During oxidative phosphorylation the proton motive force that is
generated by electron
transport is used to
 Oxidation of which substances in the erythrocytes leads synthesis of ATP?
Glucose-6-P
Acetyl CoA
Iron
NADH
 Riboflavin is a part of the structure of which of the following?
FAD
NAD+
CoA
ATP
 In heart cells deprived of oxygen during a myocardial infarction
 Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is formed by the addition of water to
1087
fumarate?
Succinate
Malate
α-KetoglutarateCitrate
 Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is converted to its isomer by the
enzyme aconitase
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
Citrate
 Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is an intermediate in the conversion of
citrate to Succinyl CoA?
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
Citrate
 Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is generated in the reaction that
produces GTP?
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
Citrate
 NADH is required for the one-step reaction by which pyruvate is converted to
Lactate.
Acetyl CoA.
Succinyl CoA.
 A disaccharide linked by α(1→4) glycosidic bond is
Lactose.
Sucrose.Cellulose.
Maltose.
1088
 Storage polysaccharide made by animals is
Amylopectin
Glycogen
Cellulose
Collagen
 Which of the following is NOT a disaccharide?
Pectin
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose
 A high ratio of insulin to glucagon can
Promote ketogenesis
 Hexokinase activity is inhibited by
Fatty acids
Citric acid Water overload
 Monosaccharide is
Ribose
Acetyl CoA
AcetoacetateGlycerol
 Which of the statement best characterize glucose?
It is a ketose
 Starch and glycogen are polymers of
α-D-Galactose
β-D-Fructose
1089
α-D-Glucose
β-D-Ribose
 Which one of the following contains glycosidic bond?
Lactose
Glucose
Fat
Alanine
 Which one of the following enzymes is digestive enzyme of carbohydrates?
Aconitase
Arginase
Amylase
Aldolase
 Which of the following carbohydrates would be most abundant in the diet of strict
vegetarians?
Cellulose
Glycogen
LactaseSucrose
 Iodine test is positive for
Glucose.
Glycogen.
Protein.
Cholesterol.
 Humans are unable to digest
Starch
Denatured proteins
Cellulose
 Hydrolysis of lactose yields
1090
 Two major products of HMP pathway are
FAD and CoA
 A catabolic intermediate which stimulates phosphofructokinase would stimulate
Gluconeogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogen synthesisGlycogen breakdown
 Which one from the following transporters for glucose is involved in it reabsorption
from lumen into tubular cells?
SGLT-1
GLUT-1
SGLT-2
GLUT-4
 Which one of the following glucose transporter is insulin-dependent?
SGLT-1
GLUT-1
SGLT-2
GLUT-4
 Pancreatic amylase breaks down
 Intestinal isomaltase breaks down
1091
 Intestinal sucrase breaks down
α (1→2) glycosidic bondβ (1→6) glycosidic bond
 Intestinal lactase breaks down
 All of the following factors stimulate insulin secretion, EXCEPT
Increase intracellular Ca2+ -ions.
Paracrine effect of glucagon.
 Vitamin thiamine (B1) is essential for metabolism of
Lipids
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Amino acids
 Which one from the following statements is describing glycolysis correctly?
 In mammalian cells during anaerobic condition increase level of
Lactate
Pyruvate
Acetyl CoAGlucose
 Transport of glucose into cells may requires all of the following EXCEPT
Insulin
1092
Osmotic gradient
ATP
 Active transport of glucose into cells requires all of the following, EXCEPT
ATP
Na+ ions
Osmotic gradient
 Cramps are caused by heavy exercise resulting in the accumulation of
Lactate
Ethanol
Heat
Carbon dioxide
 Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction of ATP formation by
substrate level phosphorylation?
Aldolase A
Pyruvate kinase
Hexokinase
 This organ converts lactate from muscle to a fuel for other tissue
Liver
Brain
Skeletal muscleRed blood cells
 Lactic acid is produced by human RBCs because of lack of
Oxygen
Mitochondrions
Glucose
ADP and Pi
 Each of the following metabolites provides carbon for glucose synthesis by the process
of gluconeogenesis EXCEPT
Lactate from red blood cells
1093
 In RBCs a pyruvate kinase deficiency would be expected to increase
ATP production
The NADH/NAD+ ratio
Lysis of the cells
 In RBCs how many net molecules of ATP are generated when one molecule of glucose is
oxidized?
12
24
 Which one of the following pathways takes place in the RBCs for energy production?
Aerobic glycolysisβ-oxidation of fatty acids
Gluconeogenesis
 Muscle glycogen is not available for maintenance of blood glucose level because:
 Muscle glycogen will NOT serve as a precursor of blood glucose due to absence of
 During a myocardial infarction the oxygen to an area of the heart is dramatically
reduced, forcing the cardiac myocytes to switch to anaerobic
metabolism. Under this condition, which of the following enzyme would be activated by
increasing
1094
intracellular cAMP?
ATP- synthase
 The primary metabolic fate of lactate released from muscle into blood during intense
exercise is:
 All of the following can lead intracellular lactic acidosis, EXCEPTIntracellular hypoxia.
 Synthesis of 2,3-biphosphoglycerate occurs in
Liver.
Kidney.
Erythrocytes.
Brain.
 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate is:
 Glucose can synthesize from which amino acid?
Histidine
Proline
Tyrosine
Alanine
 Glucose cannot be synthesized from
1095
Glycerol
Lactate
Amino acids
Fatty aids
 The negative allosteric effector for pyruvate dehydrogenase isAcetyl CoA
Isocitrate
Oxaloacetate
Fumarate
 Acetyl CoA synthesis from pyruvate requires all of the following, EXCEPT
NAD+
PDH complex
Coenzyme A
Oxygen
 Insulin-stimulatory process is
Glycogenolysis.
Ketogenesis.
Gluconeogenesis.
Glycogenesis.
 Glycolysis is the name given to the pathway involving the conversion of
Glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or lactate.
Glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or Acetyl CoA.
 20 mol glucose → X mol pyruvate X in above equation equal
10
20
40
60
 Glycolysis is activated by increasing level of cytoplasmicCitrate
Protons (H+)
NADH
1096
Fructose-2,6-BP
 Glycolysis is anaerobic in
Renal medullar part
Renal cortical part
Neurons
Liver
 Carbon dioxide (CO2) is added to pyruvate to make
Butyric acid
Lactic acid
Acetyl CoA
Oxaloacetic acid
 What is enzyme of citric acid cycle?
Pyruvate kinase
Fumarase
Arginase
Carbomoyl phosphate
 Pyruvate → Oxaloacetate is reaction of
Ketogenesis.
Glycolysis.
Gluconeogenesis.
Kreb’s cycle.
 Which of the following vitamins does not participate in the oxidative decarboxylation of
pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA?Thiamine
Niacin
Biotin
Riboflavin
 Following are substances for gluconeogenesis, EXCEPT
Glycerol.
Adenine.
Alanine.
Lactate.
1097
 Endogenous glucose synthesis increases in the persons with all of the following
endocrinopathy, EXCEPT
Cortisol excess (Cushing syndrome/disease).
Glucagon excess (glucagonoma).
 Which compound in the tissues completely absent after 10 days of starvation?
Protein
Lipids
Glycogen
Nucleic acid
 Synthesis of endogenous glucose stimulated by
Well-fed.
Starvation.
Alcohol.
Carbohydrate-rich diet. Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydrogenase deficient patient can

develop
Liver cirrhosis.
Hemolytic crisis.
Renal failure.
 HMP shunt in RBCs is major sources of components of
Membrane
Antioxidant system
Transport system
Hemoglobin
 Which of the following is NOT a function of NADPH?
Energetic
Biosynthetic
Antioxidantic
Phagocytic
1098
 Enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogense is required for the synthesis of
Glycogen
Nucleotides
Ribose-5-phosphate
Triacylglycerides
 The glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency causes hemolytic anemia due to
lack of
ATP
Pentose
IronNADPH
 A 4-year-old-girl has been unable to eat for 2 days, because of GIT disorder. Which of
the following is the NOT major source of energy for her
skeletal muscles after 2 days?
Muscle glycogen
Serum fatty acids
Serum glucose
Muscle triacylglyceride
 A person who accidentally ingested a compound that completely inhibited fructose-1,6-
bisphosphatase could still form substantial amounts of blood
glucose from
Ingested galactose
Ingested fructose
 A person who accidentally ingested a compound that completely inhibited
phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase could still form substantial amounts of
blood glucose from
Ingested galactose
1099
 Insulin resistance can lead all of the following, EXCEPT
Hyperglycemia.
Glucosuria. Which one of the following tissues can clear lactic acid by own mechanism?
Brain
RBCs
Cornea
Kidney
 Accumulation of lactic acid inside the cells can lead all of the following, EXCEPT
Decrease pH.
 After overnight fasting level of glucose transporters are reduced in
Brain.
Liver.
Adipose tissue.
Erythrocytes.
 During overload of some tissues by glucose, glucose is converted to
Glucuronic acid.
Sorbitol.
Gluconic acid.
Ethanol.
 Lack of liver glycogen phosphorylase would lead all following symptoms EXCEPT
Stable hypoglycemia
Wasting syndrome
Hepatomegaly All of the following are examples of glycogenosis, EXCEPT
Cori’s disease
Pomp’s disease
1100
Her’s disease
Wilson disease
 Which one of the following requires for glycogenesis?
Mitochondrion
Debranching enzymes
UDP-glucose
Gucagon
 Glycogen is short-term storage form of
Glycerol.
Glucose.
Glyceraldehyde.
Glucuronate.
 Which one of the following hormones stimulates liver gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis
and lipolysis?
Insulin
Calcitonin
Glucagon
Cortisol
 The presence of ketonemia is associated with which endocrine disorder?
Diabetes mellitus I (abs.insulin)
Acromegaly (incr.GH)
Addison disease (decr.cortisol) The accumulation of this specific compound in the lens
produces cataract in diabetic
patient. This compound is
Glucose.
Fructose.
Galactose.
Sorbitol.
 When excess amount of carbohydrates or proteins consumed they are stored in the
body as
1101
Triacylglycerides.
Glucose.
Glycogen.
Protein.
 Both Fructose and Galactose are phosphorylated by specific kinases in liver at position
C1
C2
C4
C6
 Food L-glucose does NOT give energy because
 Which is NOT a function of the main products of the pentose phosphate pathway?
To serve as precursors in the biosynthesis of RNA and DNATo raises the concentration of
cAMP
 Arsenic ions inhibit all, EXCEPT
Lipoic acid
Aldolase
 Each of the following metabolites provides carbon skeleton for glucose synthesis,
EXCEPT
 All of the following carbohydrate metabolic pathways occur in the liver EXCEPT
1102
Gluconeogenesis
 Gluconeogenesis is conversion of
Glycerol → Glucose
Galactose-1-P →Glucose-1-P
 Which of the following is NOT needed for glycogen synthesis?
Glucose-1-phosphate
Branching enzymesUridine triphosphate (UTP)
 Which one of the following metabolites is connected between gluconeogenesis and
glycolysis?
Alanine
Pyruvate
Fumarate
Malate
 Which one of the following products accumulates in the cells if major Leloir pathway of
galactose catabolism is blocked?
Fructose
Galactitol
Lactose
Glucose
 Galactosemia is due to deficiency of all enzymes, EXCEPT
Galaktokinase.
Phosphoglucomutase.
Galactose-1-P-Uridyltransferase.
 Galactosemic baby can develop hypoglycemia due to all of the following, EXCEPT
1103
 Precursor for glycogen synthesis is
Galactose-1-P.
Glucose-1-P.Glycerol.
Glucagon.
 Gluconeogenesis is increased in
In well fed state
Hyperinsulinism
Diabetes mellitus
Hyperparathyroidism
 Key regulatory enzyme of glycogenesis is
Glycogen synthase.
Amylo α(1-4): α(1-6) glucotransferase.
 Hormone that activates synthesis of glycogen in the liver is
Cortisol
Glucagon
Insulin
Epinephrine
 330. Amylo α(1-6) glucosidase is located in
Lysosomes.
Proteosomes.
Mitochondria.
Cytoplasm.
 Glycogen is polymer of
Glucose only.
Galactose only.Glucose and fructose.
1104
Pectin.
 Core of glycogen granules is composed from
 Primary role of muscle glycogen is to supply glucose to:
Synthesize lactose
 Increased level of Glucose-6-phosphate in the hepatocytes inhibits and activates
 During night sleeping in the liver of human more higher activity of
Glycogen synthase
 Person can develop hypoglycemic crisis after prolonged consumption of alcoholic
drinking. This can be explained by
Options
Increased glycogenesis.Increased gluconeogenesis
 Which enzyme is deficient in the liver in cases of hereditary fructose intolerance?
Hexokinase
Aldolase B
Glucokinase
1105
Phosphofructokinase
 Cori's, McArdle's, von Gierke's and Andersen's diseases are all examples of:
Glycogenolysis.
Gluconeogenesis.
Glycogenosis.
Glycogenesis.
 Glucose in the glycogen is held by
Hydrogen bonds
Coordinate bonds
Ionic bonds
Glycosidic bonds
 Ketogenesis and gluconeogenesis are activated when level of mitochondrial
___________ increases in the liver
NADH
FADH2
Acetyl CoA
Citric acid
 The significance of Cori cycle is to produce
Liver glucose from muscle lactateLiver NADPH for lipid synthesis
Blood glutamine from tissue ammonia
Testicular testosterone from LDL-cholesterol
 Which factor requires for following process: Pyruvate → Lactate?
ATP
NADH
NAD+ + H+
FADH2
 All of the following are pathogenic factors for development of hepatosteatosis, EXCEPT
Vitamin deficiency.
1106
 Enzyme of glycolysis is
NADH dehydrogenase
 The building blocks (monomers) that make up starch, glycogen, cellulose are:
Nucleotides
Amino acids
Monosaccharides
Isoprenoids
 Warburg effect is
Anaerobic glycolysis is increased in neoplastic cellsHMP shunt is increased in erythrocytes

during hypoxia
 A patient has increased blood pyruvate level. A large amount of it is excreted with the
urine. What is vitamin lacking in this patient?
Tocopherol
Thiamine
Naiacin
Folic acid
 Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus type I patient has high risk factor for development of
acute complication:
Ketoacidotic coma
Acute renal failure
 Irreversible reaction of glycolysis:
1107
 All of the following would lead lactic acidosis EXCEPT
High altitude
Heart failure
LDH deficiency
Thiamine deficiency
 A patient has a genetic defect that causes intestinal epithelial cells to produce
disaccharidases of much lower activity than normal. Compared to anormal person, after
eating a bowl of milk and cake this patient will have higher level of
 A newborn develops diarrhea after milk feeding. When the milk is replaced by the
glucose solution the diarrhea disappears. Which of the following
enzymes is inactive in this newborn?
Invertase
Amylase
Lactase
Maltase
 A 43-year old man was presented with symptoms of weakness, fatigue, shortness of
breath and dizzies. His hemoglobin levels were between 5 to 7
g/dl (normal 13.5 g/dl). RBCs isolated from the patient showed abnormally low level of
lactate
production. A deficiency of which one of the
following enzymes would be the most likely cause of this patient’s pathology?
Fructose-1,6-BP-phosphatase
Pyruvate kinase
 A 43-year old man was presented with symptoms of weakness, fatigue, shortness of
breath and dizzies. His hemoglobin levels were between 5 to 7
1108
g/dl (normal 13.5 g/dl). RBCs isolated from the patient showed abnormally low level of
lactate
production. Which one of the following features also
predominant in this patient?
Lactic acidosisHemolytic anemia
Hyperglycemia
Hyperthermia
 A 30-year-old man has been fasting for religious reason for several days. His brain has
reduced its need for glucose by using which of the following
substances as an alternative source of energy?
Glycerol
Acetone
Fatty acids
β-hydroxybutyrate
 Pyruvate kinase deficient patient can develop
Hemolytic crisis
Renal failure
Bleeding
Xanthomas
 A newborn baby experienced abdominal distension, severe bowel cramps and diarrhea
after being fed milk. A hydrogen analysis of his exhaled breath
feeding. The
infant most probably suffers from deficiency
of (A) (B) (C) (D)
Galactokinase
Lactase
Isomaltase
 Which of the following laboratory test would help you determine whether patient has
type I or type II diabetes mellitus?
C-peptide levelsInsulin levels
1109
Hemoglobin A1c
 Diabetes mellitus type II predominantly binds with
Glucagon resistance
Cortisol excess
Insulin resistance
Insulin excess
 Von Girke disease is due to mutation affecting degradation of
Hemoglobin
Glycogen
Cholesterol
Collagen
 A two year old boy was brought into the emergency room, suffering from severe fasting
amount of
glycogen that was abnormal structure with limit
dextrin type. Muscles and other organs were not affected. A deficiency of which one of the
following
enzymes would be the most likely cause of this
patient’s pathology?
Lysosomal maltase
Liver phosphorylase
 A two year old boy was brought into the emergency room, suffering from severe fasting
hypoglycemia. In physical examination he was found to havehepatomegaly. A liver biopsy

indicated that hepatocytes contained greater than normal amount of
glycogen that was abnormal structure with limit
dextrin type. Muscles and other organs were not affected. Your diagnosis is:
Von Girke disease
Cori’s disease
1110
Mc Ardle disease
Anderson disease
 All of the following are laboratory data of uncontrolled Diabetes Mellitus, EXCEPT
Ketonemia
Glucosuria
Hyperglycemia
Proteinuria
 3-month old boy presents with poor growth, low muscle tone (hypotonia), elevation of
blood lactate (lactic academia), and mild acidosis (blood pH =
7.30-7.35). The ratio of pyruvate to lactate in serum is elevated. Which of the following
compounds
might be recommended for therapy?
Ascorbic acid
Vitamin D
Free fatty acids
Thiamine
 A patient has a tumor of α-cells of the islet of Langerhans which of the following findings
would result from the excessive hormone secretion from
this tumor?
Increased HMP shunt
Increased blood glucose concentration A child’s blood presents high content galactose,
glucose concentration is low. There are
such presentations as cataract, mental deficiency, fatty liver.
What disease is it?
Galacosemia
Diabetes mellitus
Lactosemia
Steroid diabetes (Cushing’s syndrome)
 Galactosemia is due to deficiency of
Galactokinase.
1111
All of the above.
 Deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1) leads decrease activities of all of the following
enzymes, EXCEPT
Transketolase.
 A person with Galactosemia is advised not to consume which of the following products?
Corn syrup
 Normal fasting blood glucose level
140 mg/dl
60-100 mg/dl< 60 mg/dl
> 160 mg/dl
 Glucosuria in uncontrolled DM occurs when the venous glucose concentration exceeds
100 mg/dl
140 mg/dl
180 mg/dl
60 mg/dl
 Insulin resistance can lead all of the following EXCEPT
Hyperglycemia
Glucosuria
 Patient with large mesenchymal tumor develop fasting hypoglycemia due to
1112
 Patients who suffer from severe diabetes type I and don’t receive insulin have metabolic
acidosis. This is caused by increased concentration of the
following metabolites
Ketone bodies
Triacylglycerides
Cholesterol
 A male infant failed to gain weight and showed metabolic acidosis in the neonatal
period. A physical examination at 6 month showed hypotonia,small muscle mass, lethargy,

motor dysfunction, optic atrophy. Investigation of blood Lactate: 40 mg/dl
(normal: 4-14 mg/dl) Pyruvate: 3.6 mg/dl
(normal 0.3-0.9 mg/dl) pH: 7.20 ( normal: 7.35 – 7.45) What is the most likely diagnosis?
Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
 Best explanation of Gestational Diabetes is increasing level of_____that block insulin
receptors
Placental lactogen.
 Screening test for Geststional DM is
O’Sullivan test
Benedict’s test
Seliwanoff’s test
Shilling test
 In Turai syndrome enzyme deficient is
PK
1113
PFK-1
G6PDH
HGPRT
 After a sprint an untrained person develops muscle hypoxia. This leads accumulation of
metabolite in muscle known as
Oxaloacetate.
Uric acid.Lactate.
Citric acid.
 A 3-month-old boy presents with poor feeding and growth, low muscle tone, elevation
of blood lactate. There is decreased conversion of pyruvate to
Acetyl CoA in fibroblasts. Which of the following compounds should be considered for
therapy?
Ascorbic acid
IV glucose solution
Biotin injection
 Which of the following is the most sensitive test of pancreatic β-cell insulin secretory
reserve?
 Following are causes of hyperglycemic glucosuria EXCEPT
 A 18-month-old child is left unattended in the kitchen and ingests a small portion of rat
poison that contains fluoroacetate. Fluoroacetate reacts with
1114
HMP shunt
TCA cycle
Glycolysis The level of what plasma protein would be increased in Diabetes mellitus
patient?
C-reactive protein
Fibrinogen
Ceruloplasmin
 How are lipids absorbed during digestion?
 Which one of the following is NOT a component of pancreatic juice?
Phospholipase A
Lipase
Lipoprotein lipase
 In the intestine, the dietary fats are hydrolysed by
Adenylate cyclase
Pancreatic lipase
Protein kinase
 Phospholipid contains
Hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails
Both (b) and (c) Micelles of fatty acids in water are organized such that the __________
faces the
solvent and the __________ are directed toward the interior
Carboxylic acid groups, hydrocarbon chains heads
Hydrophilic heads, hydrophobic tails
1115
Hydrocarbon chains, carboxylic acid groups
Both (a) and (b)
 The dietary lipids are transported in blood as
Micells.
Chylomicrons.
Liposomes.
 The component of the waxes is:
Adenine
Glutamine
Glucose
Fatty acid
 The component of the fat is:
Adenine
Glutamine
Glucose
Glycerol
 Which bond is formed when a hydroxyl group of alcohol joints the carboxylic group of
fatty acid?
Peptide
Glycosidic
EsterHydrogen
 Lipids are compounds that are soluble in
Distilled water.
Organic solvent.
Glucose solution.
Saline solution.
 Fatty acids are component of all of the following, EXCEPT
Phospholipids. Triacylglycerides.
Cholesterol esters.
Cholecalciferol.
1116
 The main function of fat in the human body is to
Increase rate of chemical reactions Transport substances into cells
 Which of the following is NOT a function of lipids in human body?
Energy storage
PH regulation
Insulation
 The compound that derived from sterols is
Cholesterol ester.
Arachidonic acid. Triacylglyceride.
 Which of the following is a lipid?
CollagenLactose
Nicotine
Lecithine
 Steroid is
Pyruvate
Glycerol
Acetyl CoA
Cholesterol
 Rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis
 The surface tension in intestinal lumen between fat droplets and aqueous medium is
decreased by
Gastric HCl.
Ammonium-ions.
1117
Bile salts.
Pancreatic juice.
 Which one of the following compounds is added to diacylglyceride for re-synthesis of
specific human triacylglycerides in small intestinal mucosal
cells?
Glycerol
Fatty acyl CoA
Acetyl CoA
Glycerol-3-phosphate Pancreatic insufficiency may result in
 Chylomicrons function is
Emulsified agent.
Intestinal enzyme.
 Hydrolysis of 1 mole of lipid yields 2 moles of fatty acids, one mole of glycerol & 1 mole
of phosphoric acid This lipid is
Triacylglyceride.
Phosphotidic acid.
Arachidonic acid.
Cholesterol.
 In mammals, the major lipid of membrane
Phospholipids.
Fatty acids.
Vitamin E.
Triacylglyceride.
 Which of the following statements about how dietary fat can be utilized by the body is
FALSE?
1118
It can be used to make lipid-containing compoundsIt can be used as an immediate source of

energy for cells
 Hormone-sensetive lipase is activated through
Adenylate cyclase.
NO.
Ca2+/calmodulin.
 The complete oxidation of long odd chain fatty acids produces which of the following?
Acetyl CoA only
Butyryl CoA
 Each cycle of β-oxidation produces
1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 1 AcetylCoA
 Propionyl CoA is produced during oxidation of
 C19-chain fatty acid.
 Propionyl CoA is metabolized to
Succinyl CoA.
Malonyl CoA.
Triacylglyceride. Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with
2 double bonds
3 double bonds
1119
1 double bond
Single bonds only
 The role of hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL) is to
 When does NOT β-oxidation occur?
In a fast
In a starvation
In well-fed state
 What mitochondria do NOT perform α-oxidation?
 A very long chain fatty acids are oxidized in
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Peroxisomes
Golgi apparatus What is the role of thiolase in the β-oxidation of fatty acids?
Generates NADH
 Carnitine involves in
Translocation of fatty acids across cell membrane.
Oxidation of fatty acids.
1120
 Patients with abnormal oxidation of fatty acids develop symptom
Ketoacidosis only.
 A 16-year-old marathon runner trains by running 15 miles every morning, requiring a

constant
supply of ATP that predominantly is formed by
 How many carbons are removed from Acyl CoA in one turn of β-oxidation?
4 How many molecules of Acetyl CoA are produced in oxidation of C18 fatty acid?
18
 A fatty acid with 14 carbon atoms will undergo how many cycles of beta oxidation?
 Plasma free fatty acids are increased due to deficiency of which hormone?
Insulin
Glucagon
Cortisol
Epinephrine
1121
 Thiolase is enzyme of
 The activation of long chain fatty acids requires which of the following components?
2 ATPs only
Coenzyme A only
Fatty acyl-carnitine Which one from the following enzymes catalyze energy -
requirement reaction?
Thiolase
Thiokinase
Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
 Carnitine is required for the transport of
 Carnitine-containing drug was recommended to sportsman for improving results. What
processes is activated by this supplement?
 β- oxidation of fatty acids occurs in
Erythrocytes.
Heart.
Brain.
Lens.
1122
 Which one of the following tissues can metabolize glucose, fatty acids, and ketone
bodies for
ATP production?
Liver
Muscles
BrainRed blood cells
 Acetyl CoA is formed during β-oxidation of fatty acids
 The β-oxidation of palmitic acid (C15H31COOH):
Repeats 8 cycles
 After an overnight fast the blood levels of which of the following will be higher in a
person with
a carnitine deficiency than in normal person?
Fatty acids
Glucose
Bile acids
Glycerol
 A low ratio of insulin to glucagon can
Promote ketogenesis
Promote lipogenesis
 All of the following statements regarding ketone bodies are true, EXCEPT
They are produced during starvation.
They include acetoacetate, acetone, hydroxybutirate.They may be excreted in urine.
1123
 Which of the following condition is characterized by ketonuria but without glucosuria?
Diabetes mellitus
Wilson’s diseases
 All of the following conditions promote increasing blood glycerol level , EXCEPT
Fasting.
Lipid-rich diet.
 HMG CoA is formed in the metabolism of
Fatty acids only.
Phospholipids only.
 Glycerol can catabolized by
Liver.
Brain.
Erythrocytes.
Muscles.
 All of the following are intermediates of glycerol catabolism, EXCEPT
Dehydroxyacetone phosphate.β- hydroxybutyrate.
 Glycerol released by hydrolysis of lipoproteins triacylglycerides is mainly
Cholesterol contains ___ carbons
Options
1124
21
23
27
29
 Best source of cholesterol is
Butter.
Egg yolk.
Milk.
Black gram (urd).
 Dietary cholesterol is carried from intestine to the liver by
Chylomicrons.
VLDL
LDL
 Which of the following compound is precursor of acetone?
Propionyl CoA
UreaAcetyl CoA
Cholesterol
 Which of the following is the primary ketone body?
Acetone
Acetoacetate
β-hydroxybutyrate
 Increased level of blood ketone bodies is risk factor for development of
Edema
Acidosis
Anemia
Atherosclerosis
 Thiophorase is enzyme of which pathway?
Gluconeogensis
TCA cycle
1125
Ketolysis
Glycolysis
 The key enzyme for the utilization of ketone bodies is
Thiolase.
Thiophrase.
Thiokinase.
Thioesterase.
 All of the following conditions promote increase synthesis of ketone bodies, EXCEPT
Starvation.
Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.Von Girke’s disease.
 A high omega-3 fatty acid diet is associated with reduced incidence of
Skin disease
Kidney disease
Endocrine disease
 In cystic fibrosis the pancreatic ducts become obstructed by viscous mucus.

Consequently,
digestion of which of the following substances would be
most impaired?
Lipids
Nucleotides
Lactose
Sucrose
 Laboratory investigation of patient revealed a high level of plasma low density

lipoprotein. What
disease can be diagnosed?
Acute pancreatitis
Acute renal failure
Atherosclerosis
1126
 Which one of the following situations would result in an increase ketone bodies
synthesis by the
liver?
After meal
Prolonged fasting
 Severe ketoacidosis is seen primarily in individuals withAtherosclerosis
 Physiological conditions promote the synthesis of ketone bodies would also promote
the
 Which one of the following effects of insulin is NOT found in adipose tissue?
Decreased hormone sensitive lipase activity
 Which of the following is NOT a function of cholesterol?
 Cholestrol
1127
 Cholesterol is absent in:Fish
Cow’s milk
Liver
Vegetable oils
 Cholestrol is a precursor of
Hypothalamic releasing hormones
Pancreatic hormones
 Cholestrol is the precursor of
Steroid hormones
Vitamin A
Bile salts
Both (a) and (c)
 All following statements about cholesterol are correct EXCEPT
 Hydroxymethylglutaryl CoA
Correct b) and c)
 Glycerol in the liver is metabolized to intermediate
 OptionsDihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)
Glycine
Coproporphyrin
 Which of the following is NOT involved in the biosynthesis of cholesterol?
Energy
1128
Acetyl CoA
Aldolase
NADPH
 Important function of cholesterol is to
None of these
 Sex hormones are derived from
Bilirubin
Cholesterol
Palmitic acid
Leucine
 Major organ for synthesis of cholesterol is
Pancreas.
Spleen.
Liver.
Uterus.
 Cholesterolemia meansLack of functional LDL receptors
High sensitivity to fatty food intake
None of the above
 Regarding bile salts all statements are correct EXCEPT
 Cholesterol is the precursor of the all of the following compounds, EXCEPT
Bile acids.
β-hydroxybutyrate.
Testosterone
1129
Cortisol
 Cholesterol is precursor of all of the following hormones, EXCEPT
Calcitriol.
Calcitonin.
Estradiol.
Cortisol.
 All of the following are intermediates of cholesterol biosynthesis, EXCEPT
Squalene.
β-hydroxybutyrate.
 Animal fed high cholesterol diet shows decreased cholesterol by the liver due to
inhibition of
which of the following enzyme?HMG CoA lyase
Mevalonate kinase
HMG CoA reductase
HMG CoA synthase
 Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about cholesterol?
 All of the following are intermediates of cholesterol biosynthesis, EXCEPT
Mevalonate.
Taurocholate.
Farnesyl PPi.
Squalene.
 Which one of the following compounds is competitive inhibitor of key regulatory

enzyme of
Squalene
Cholesterol
1130
Acetoacetyl CoA
HMG CoA
 The major source of cholesterol in smooth muscle cells is
VLDL
LDL
HDL
IDL Lavostatin and mevastatin lowers serum levels of
Triglycerides
Cholesterol
Free fatty acids
Glucose
 Which of the following hydroxylases is involved in bile acid formation?
1-α-hydroxylase
7-α-hydroxylase
17-α-hydroxylase
21-α-hydroxylase
 Regarding bile salts all statements are correct, EXCEPT
 All of the following are required for bile salts synthesis, EXCEPT
7-α-hydroxylase.
Cholesterol.
Glycine.
1-α-hydroxylase.
 Which of the following is a major function of lipoproteins?
Donors of amino acids to the tissues
Determine oncotic pressure of the blood How many types of lipoproteins in the blood?
1131
2
 What is the major protein constituent of high-density lipoprotein (HDL)?
Apo A-l
Apo C-l
Apo E
Apo B48
 Initiator for fatty steak formation in intima of arteries is
 Which lipoprotein transports cholesterol to intima of artery?
HDL
LDL
Chylomicrons
VLDL
 Deficiency of apoprotein CII leads increase in blood
Glucose
Lipids
Protein
Sodium Carbon atoms of cholesterol are derived from
Propionyl CoA.
Acetyl CoA.
Succinyl CoA.
Malonyl CoA.
 All of the following statements about farnesyl pyrophosphate are correct, EXCEPT
1132
 Rate controlling step of cholesterol biosynthesis is
HMG-CoA → Mevalonic acid + CoA
Acetoacetyl-CoA + Acetyl-CoA → HMG-CoA +CoA
 The precursor for vitamin D is
Cholesterol.
Arachidonic acid.
Triacylglycerol.
Phospholipids.
 A gall stone that blocked the upper part of the bile duct would cause increase in which
of the
followings?
Recycling of bile salts LCAT is
 Chylomicrons are synthesized in
Blood
Liver
Intestine
Pancreas
 Where does chylomicrons synthesis take place?
Liver
Intestinal lumen
1133
Adipose tissue
Question (1/320)
 All of the following are major objectives of biochemistry, EXCEPT
 Structure and functions of biomolecules
 Diagnostic testing of markers in practical medicine
 Metabolic pathways of biomolecules
 Development of specialized cells
 What is the collective term for all of the chemical processes occurring within a cell?
 Metabolism
 Catabolism
 Anabolism
 Oxidation
 The main function of minerals in the human body is to
 Excretion of non-soluble substances. Transport substances into cells.
 Store energy. Coenzymes of enzymes.
 The METABOLICALLY most active organ in the body is thePancreas
Spleen
Liver
Lungs
 Which of the following represents the relationship between the terms anabolism (A),
catabolism
(C) and metabolism (M)?
 M= A-C
C=A+M
A=C+M
M=A+C
 Which of the following would be considered a part of metabolism?
1134
All of the above
 The sum of all chemical reactions that take place within an organism is known as
Dynamic equilibrium
Metabolism
 Which of the following is an example of catabolic process?
Proteogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogenesis
Lipogenesis
 Catabolic process is
Glycogenolysis
Lipogenesis
GluconeogenesisKetogenesis
 Which one of the following is an example of anabolic process?
Ketolysis
Glycogenesis
Glycolysis
Proteolysis
 Regarding anabolic pathways
 Which one of the following statements regarding metabolic association is FALSE?
NADPH
1135
Ribose-5-phosphate
 Which one of the following compounds is transported in the blood in the free (unbound
with
protein) form?
Triacylglycerides
Cholesterol
GlutamineFat-soluble vitamin
 What element forms the skeleton of organic molecules?
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
Carbon
Phosphorus
 Which one of the following is amino acid?
Options
Acetic acid
Oleic acid
Aspartic acid
Ascorbic acid
 Organ where pepsin hydrolyses proteins
Pancreas
Liver
Gall bladder
Stomach
 Which one of the following statements regarding metabolic association is true?
Brain: ketogenesis
Erythrocytes: HMP shunt
Kidney: urea cycle
 Each organism has unique combination of characteristics encoded in molecules of
1136
Vitamins.
Carbohydrates.Lipids.
Proteins.
 All of the following metabolic pathways take place in the liver EXCEPT
Formation of urea
 Liver stores all of the following EXCEPT
Iron
Folic acid Vitamin D
Ascorbic acid
 Liver degradates all of the following EXCEPT
Proteins
Remnant LDL
Insulin
Creatinine
 Liver synthesized all of the following substances EXCEPT
Nucleotides
Urea
Ceruloplasmin
Immunoglobulins
 Liver synthesizes all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Immunoglobulins.Albumin.
Lipoproteins.
 Liver synthesized all of the following lipids EXCEPT
Fat
Cholesterol
Ketone bodies
1137
Tocopherol
 Liver synthesized all of the following substances EXCEPT?
Cholesterol
Glucose
Starch
Complement
 All of the following compounds can cross all membranes freely, EXCEPT
Glucose.
Ketone bodies.
Oxygen.
Carbon dioxide.
 Specific transport proteins are required for translocation of all of the following
substances into
the cells or matrix of mitochondria EXCEPT
Glucose
Fatty acids
Amino acids
Oxygen
 Specific transport protein is required for translocation into the cells of
Neutral amino acids
Beta-hydroxybutyric acidAcetoacetic acid
Oxygen
 What metal ion is specifically bound by vitamin B12?
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
Iron
 What metal ion is specifically bound by kinases?
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
1138
Magnesium
 What metal ion is specifically bound by ceruloplasmin?
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
Iron
 What metal ion is specifically bound by ferritin?
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
Iron
 What metal ion is specifically bound by superoxide dismutase (SOD)?
Cobalt
SeleniumZinc
Iron
 Mature erythrocytes do not contain
Glycolytic enzymes.
HMP shunt enzymes.
Carbonic anhydrase.
 Entero-hepatic circulation all of the following compounds takes place, EXEPT:
Urea
Bile acids
Bile salts
Ketone bodies
 Patients with anorexia nervosa, uncontrolled insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus,
hyperthyroidism all will
1139
 The muscle fatigue occurs due to increase all of the following processes EXCEPT
Hypoxia
Ketolysis
 Acetyl CoA is NOT needed for synthesis of
Options
Cholesterol.Ketone bodies.
Pyruvate.
Citric acid.
 Acetyl CoA is NOT used for the synthesis of
Cholesterol
Citric acid
Acetoacetate
Urea
 Mc Ardle’s disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
Elastin
Galactose
 Parkinson’s disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Glycogen
Collagen
Dopamin
Galactose
 Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
Dopamin
1140
Galactose Hereditary orotic aciduria can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Glycogen
Collagen
Pyrimidines
Galactose
 Refsume disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Glycogen
Collagen
Fatty acid
Fructose
 Alkaptonuria can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Tyrosine
Collagen
Thiamine
Fructose
 Alzheimer disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Glycogen
Collagen
Dopamin
Protein
 Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
DopaminPrion
 Tangier disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Glycogen
Lipoprotein
Dopamin
Prion
 Turai disease can be caused by a problem with the oxidation of
1141
Fatty acids
Glucose
Alcohol
Amino acids
 Deficiency disease of Ca2+ and Pi is
Anemia.
Cretinism
Rickets.
Edema
 Amyloidosis is characteristic of
Von Girke disease
Alzheimer disease
Refsume disease
Wilson disease
 The minimum amount of energy necessary for a molecule(s) to react is the
Activation energy
Free energy
Thermal energyPotential energy
 The main function of enzymes in the human body?
Transport nutrients to cells
Catalyze all chemical reactions
 Which of the following is NOT true about enzymes?
 Enzymes are sensitive to ?
Pressure
Heat
1142
Cell wall
Hexose sugar
 Which of the following statement is true of enzyme catalysts?
Options
 Regarding of the mechanism of enzyme action is true ?
To allow substrates to move more freely in solutionTo change energy-requiring reactions

into energy-releasing reactions
 The molecule that is acted upon by an enzyme is a
Reactant
Product
Substrate
Catalyst
 The maximum activity of the most enzymes in organism is at the optimum

temperature ?
Between 60-100oC
Higher 50oC
Between 36-45oC
Higher 100oC
 Which of these is an enzyme name?
Urease
Lactose
Sucrose
Glycogenin
 Hydrolyses catalyze?
1143
 Part of enzyme that interacts with a substrate is known as?
Cofactor
Active siteOrientation site
Coenzyme
 The area of an enzyme into which a substrate fits is called the
Catalyst
Product
Active site
Activated complex
 “Lock and key” model of enzyme action proposed by Fisher implies that
 What of the following is a coenzyme?
Thiamine
Amylase
Lipase
Salt
 The first step in the cycle of an enzyme is
Products released
Enzyme become free
 What is the most common coenzyme molecules used to activate an enzyme?
Hormones
VitaminsProteins
Minerals
 Most of enzymes secreted in human gastro-intestinal tract are
1144
Transferases
Lyases
Hydrolases
Oxidoreductases
 Enzyme catalyzing rearrangement of atomic grouping without altering molecular weight

or
number of atoms is
Ligase
Isomerase
Oxidoreductase
Hydrolase
 Zymogen or proenzyme is a
Activator of enzyme
Vitamin derivative
Enzyme precursor
 Zymogen is
Cofactor of enzyme
An inactive enzyme
Inhibitor of enzyme
 How is trypsinogen converted to trypsin?
A protein kinase-catalyzed phosphorylation converts trypsinogen to

trypsinEnterokinase-catalyzed proteolysis converts trypsinogen to trypsin
trypsin
monomers
 Trypsinogen primary is activated by
HCl
Enterokinase
HCO3-
1145
Trypsin
 In enzyme vitamin complex acts as
Inhibitor
Zymogen
Cofactor
Isoenzyme
 Trypsinogen is
Growth factor
Intrinsic factor
 Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?
End product
External factors
Enzyme
Substrate
 Which one of the following statements, regarding enzyme classification is INNCORECT?
Ligases are catalyze the addition of NH3, CO2, H2O to substrate and requires
energyHydrolases are catalyze cleavage C-C bonds
 NAD+/NADH binds with the enzyme called
Hydrolase
Kinase
Isomerase
Dehydrogenase
 Most of the members of vitamin B complex act as
Cofactor
Prosthetic group
External factor
Isoenzymes
1146
 Enzymes are classified by the
Size of enzyme
Size of substrate
Rate of reaction
Type of reaction
 The molecules that fits into the enzyme’s active site is the
Codon
Vitamin
Substrate
Coenzyme
 The model that explain that the active site is flexible and the catalytic group(s) of the
enzyme
is(are) brought into proper alignment by substrate is
called
Concepted modeL Induced fit model
Lock and key model
Sequential model
 Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are:
Transferases
Oxidases
Lysases
Peptidases
 What do kinases do?
 What do anaerobic dehydrogenases do?
1147
 Enzyme of which class catalyze the following process: Dolichylphosphate –D-mannose +

protein
→ → Dolichylphosphate + D-mannosylprotein
Hydrolase
Transferase
Isomerase
Oxidase
 The following is a substrate-specific enzyme:
HexokinaseThiokinase
Lactase
Aminopeptidase
 The following is not a substrate-specific enzyme:
Glucokinase
Fructokinase
Hexokinase
Phospofructokinase
 NADH would function as a cofactor for a Transferase Ligase Oxidoreductase Isomerase
Transferase
Ligase
Oxidoreductase
Isomerase
 Which of the following is function of protein kinase (PKA)?
Transport
Regulatory
Defense
Structural
 All of the following factors will decrease the function of most enzymes EXCEPT
Radiation
Temprature
PH
1148
Osmotic pressure
 Substrate concentration increases the rate of enzymatic reaction up to a certain point,

but has
no further effect and reaction rate level off. This is
becauseExcess product is not released from the active site
 L-amino acids dehydrogenase is an enzyme that can catalyze the oxidation of different
L-amino
acids. It cannot catalyze the oxidation of D-amino
acids or other L-compounds. Based on these characteristics we can say that this enzyme
shows
Specific inhibition
 A small molecule that DECRESES the activity of an enzyme by binding to a site other
than the
Options
 A zymogen is
Amylase
Trypsin
Pepsinogen
Lipase
 A reaction catalyzed by a human enzyme was carried out at 200C. If there is an excess of
substrate, which of the following would cause the greatest
1149
increase in the rate of the reaction?
Adding more enzyme and raising the temperature to 300CLowering the temperature to
100C
 Optimum of pH for most of the human enzyme ranges from:
0-2
02-Apr
04-Sep
> 10
 Km value refers to
 Which one of the following is kinetic characteristic of enzyme?
Optimum of pH
 Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at
Options
½ Vmax
2 Vmax
¼ Vmax
4 Vmax
 Elevated blood total transaminases (ALT/AST) 100 x ULN (upper limit normal) occur
inAcute liver failure
 A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme has which of the following properties?
1150
It becomes covalently attached to an enzyme
Interferes with substrate binding to the enzyme
 Cellular enzyme is
Citrate synthase
Lipoprotein lipase
C3-convertase
Amylase
 Blood enzyme is
Protein kinase
C3-convertase
Hexokinase
Citrate synthase
 NADPH-dependent enzyme is
 Options
Cytochrome oxidase
Pyruvate kinase
Pancreatic lipase
 Isoenzymes are enzymes that characterized by all of the following, EXCEPTCoded by the
different gene
 These enzymes have different structure but same catalytic function. Frequently they are
oligomers made from different polypeptides chains. These
enzymes are called
Allosteric enzymes
Isoenzymes
Lyases
1151
Proenzymes
 Structure that produces most of hydrolytic enzymes that are active in the small intestine
Pancreas
Liver
Gall bladder
Stomach
 Creatine phosphokinase localizes predominantly in
Pancreas
Spleen
Kidney
Muscles
 Coenzyme for transaminase is:
FAD
NAD+
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B1 Alanine transaminase activity in plasma increases in acute
Liver disease
Renal failure
Hemorrhage
Pancreatitis
 A 56-year-old man dies in an ambulance while on way to the hospital. His postmortem
chemistry studies are remarkable for an elevation of the
creatine phosphokinnase isoenzyme CPK-BB. This laboratory finding would suggest acute
damage of
which organ?
Brain
Lungs
Heart
Kidney
 The patient was diagnosed with Wilson’s disease. To confirm the diagnosis it is
necessary to
study the activity of the following enzyme in blood
1152
α1- antitrypsin
Carbonic anhydrase
Ferroxidase
 A 56-year-old man dies in an ambulance while on way to the hospital. His postmortem
chemistry studies are remarkable for an elevation of the CPKMB.
This laboratory finding would suggest acute damage of which organ?
Brain
Lungs
Heart
Kidney Mutations that affect the stability of enzymes are often found to affect RBCs
more than other
cell types. The best explanation for this fact is that
 A patient presents high activity LDH5, AST and ALT. In what organ is the development of
a
Heart
Kidney
Liver
Adrenal
 Digestive enzyme is
Lipoprotein lipase
Cytochrome oxidase
Protein kinase
Pancreatic amylase
 Globular in shape protein is
Elastin
Collagen
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Myoglobin
Keratin
 All of the following enzymes require for collagen synthesis EXCEPT
Lysyl hydroxylase
Prolyl hydroxylase
Lysyl oxidaseProtein kinase
 Which one of the following statements regarding protein classification is correct?
 All of the following organs and tissues are rich by Elastin, EXCEPT
Lung
Uterus
Aorta
Bone
 Which of the following substances below is found in richest content in aorta,

pereosteum,
ligaments, and lungs?
Elastin
Collagen
Keratin
Fibrin
 The number of heme groups present in myoglobin:
 Which of the following vitamins required for formation of hydroxyproline?
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
1154
Vitamin CVitamin E
 Synthesis of collagen is impaired due to deficiency of Vitamin D Vitamin A Vitamin C

Vitamin E
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
 The collagen defect present in scurvy is
 In fibrous proteins polypeptide chains are held together by
Hydrogen bonds
Disulfide bonds
All of the above
 The major protein presents in vessel’s wall
Keratin
Hemoglobin
Elastin
Albumin
 One of the following is NOT about collagen
Structure is triple-helicalSoluble in water
 Morfan syndrome is due to mutation affecting synthesis of
Hemoglobin
Elastin
Microtubules
Peroxisomes
1155
 Morfan syndrome results in the molecular defect of
Kinin
Fibrilin
Fibrinogen
Plasminogen
 An important feature of Morfan’s syndrome is
Skin eruption
Hypoglycemia
 Osteogenesis imperfecta is due to mutation affecting synthesis of
Hemoglobin
Microtubules
Collagen
Peroxisomes
 Osteogenesis imperfecta is a group of hereditary disease due to abnormal
Osteoclastic activityDevelopment of glycosaminoglycans
 Hemoglobin is example of
Conjugated protein
Simple protein
Complex lipids
Oligossacharides
 On which chromosome is located gene which coded hemoglobin β-chain synthesis?
11
16
20
 Carboxyhemoglobin is formed as result of its combination with
CO
1156
CO2
HCO3-
HCN
 Hemoglobin consists of:
 In mature RBCs all of the following substances are dialyzable EXCEPT
Hemoglobin
Chloride
BisphosphoglycerateHydrocorbanate
 Trivalent iron present in compound
Carboxyhemoglobin
Fetal hemoglobin
Methemoglobin
 Methemoglobin has
Protonated globin
Ferric state iron
Protonated heme
Ferrous state iron
 Methemoglobin is
 A toxic effect of methemoglobinemia is
Fever
Vomiting
Cyanosis
1157
Dehydration
 High level of glycosylated HbA1 is seen in the blood of patient with
Nephrotic syndrome
Diabettes mellitus
Cirrhosis of the liverPancreatic carcinoma
 A 1-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because he is having difficulty
breathing after drinking water that contains nitrate. He is
cyanotic. Blood drawn for laboratory studies is chocolate-colored. His hemoglobin most
likely has which
of the following properties?
 Which one from the following factors inhibits binding of hemoglobin with oxygen?
Increased body temperature
Chronic hypoxia
Anemia
Metabolic acidosis
 Which of the following is correct about hemoglobin?
 Which of the following statements about adult hemoglobin is TRUE?
 Which of the following is NOT a part of normal hemoglobin?
Vinyl groupPropionic acid
1158
Ferric ion
Pyrrole ring
 Heme-containing proteins are all of the following EXCEPT
Hemoglobin
Ceruloplasmin
Cytochrome b
Myoglobin
 Which of the hemoglobin designations below best describes the relationship of subunits
in the
quaternary structure of adult hemoglobin?
(α1-α2) – ( β2-β1)
(α1-α2-α3-α4)
(β1-β2-β3-α1)
(α1-β1) – (α2-β2)
 Iron-containing protein is
Ubiquinone (CoQ)
Cytochrome a3
Ceruloplasmin
Cytochrome b
 Component of hemoglobin is ion of
Iron
Copper
Magnesium
Potassium
 Major component of deoxy-Hemoglobin is
Pyruvate2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate
Acetyl CoA
 High concentration of 2,3BPG in RBCs leads
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 High concentration of CO2 in RBCs leads
 High concentration of HCO3- in RBCs leads
 The high level of all of the following molecules decrease the affinity of hemoglobin to
oxygen,
EXCEPT
Hydrogen ions(H+)
Hydroxyl ions (OH-)
Carbon dioxide CO2
 Oxygen binding to hemoglobin increases as the
2,3 BPG level is reducedPH is reduced
Temperature is increased
 The characteristic red color of hemoglobin is due to
β-globin
α-globin
Heme
2,3 BPG
 Sickle cell anemia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT
Presence of Hb-S.
1160
 In HbS the position 6 glutamyl residue of the β-globin chain is replaced by
Valine
Phenylalanine
Glutamate
Lysine
 The FUNDAMENTAL CAUSE of sickle cell disease is a change in structure of:
Hemoglobin
Leukocytes
Capillaries
Blood
 Which of the following best explains why neonates with sickle cell disease do not have
symptoms at birth?
Maternal erythrocytes protect neonatal erythrocytes against sickling
The spleen of the neonates effectively filter out the sickled cellsMaternal antibodies coat the
neonatal cells and inhibit the sickling phenomen
 Which one of the following inherited disorders is a quantitative abnormality of

hemoglobin?
Sickle cell anemia
Porphyries
Methemoglobinemia
Thalassemias
 Thalassemia is characterized by decreased production of
Liver glycogen
 Iron therapy (I.V.infusion) is ineffective in which of the following conditions:
Chronic blood loss.
Thalassemia minor.
Hypochromic anemia.
1161
 One of the official medical measurement of anemia is
Blood color
Body mass index
Count of RBC and hemoglobin
Blood volume
 Heterozygous sickle cell anemia gives protection against
Thalassemia
MalariaHemolysis
Oxidative stress
 Which one of the following statements about water soluble vitamins is FALSE?
 Vitamins are
Proteins in nature
 Excess intake of fat soluble vitamins is stored in which part of the body?
Stomach
Adipose tissue
Duodenum
Gall bladder
 Which one of the following incorporates into chylomicrons and transferred to the lymph
Retinol
Folic acid
Biotin
Thiamine
 Prolonged deficiency of vitamin A can lead to
1162
Beri beri
PellagraKeratomalacia
Rickets
 Continued intake of excessive amounts of vitamin A especially in children produces:
Hemolytic anemia
Bleeding from GIT
Skin desquamation
Muscular dystrophy
 Vitamin A helps
Energy production.
Visual cycle.
 Which of these is a vitamin A precursor?
Cobalamin.
Pyridoxine
Beta-Carotene.
Thiamine.
 Vitamin helps night vision and health skin is
B12
 Vitamin D helps
Blood clottingThe health of the skin
 Vitamin E have protective role against the following EXCEPT
Oxidative stress
Atherosclerosis
Cardiac attack
1163
Hypovolemia
 Vitamin E protects against
Blood clotting
Atherosclerosis
 Which vitamin is derived from cholesterol?
 The following form of vitamin A is used in the visual cycle
Retinol
Retinaldehyde
Retinoic acid
Retinyl palmitate
 A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause night blindness?
Vitamin A
NiacinVitamin D
Biotin
 Which form of vitamin A has hormone-like properties?
Retinol
Retinal
Retinoic acid
β-carotene
 Retinol
Is the non-protein part of rhodopsin .
Exists as an ester with higher fatty acids in the liver.
 Which compound binds to protein in cell nucleus and regulates gene transcription?
1164
Retinoic acid.
α-tocopherol.
Linoleate.
Biotin.
 Antirachitic vitamin is
 Vitamin K
Therapy increases the coagulation time in newborn infants with hemorrhagic disease.Is
synthesized by intestinal bacterial flora.
 Vitamin C
 Vitamin E
Prevents the oxidation of various cell components by free radicals.
 Choline
 In calcitriol synthesis involves following organs/tissues
1165
 Calcitriol acts on the bone (hypercalciemia) and activate
Osteoclastic activity.Resorption of bone .
 Conversion of Vit D2 to Vit D3 (active form) take place in
Intestine.
Adipose tissue.
Liver.
Kidney.
 To prevent rickets in a case of chronic renal disorders, which of the following substances
should
be administered?
 Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of
 Synthesis of Ca2+-binding protein is activated by vitamin
 Which of the following are rich by PTH and vitamin D receptors?
Osteocytes
1166
HepatocytesAdipocytes
Myocytes
 Renal rickets develops in child with deficiency of
1-α-hydroxylase.
7-α-hydroxylase.
17-α-hyroxylase.
21-α-hydroxylase.
 1-α-hydroxylase is directly activated by
Hypocalciemia.
Insulin.
Hyperphosphatemia .
 Deficiency of 1-α-hydrolase causes
Osteomalacia.
Resistance rickets.
Beriberi.
Pellagra.
 Which one of the following clinical abnormalities is recorded in dietary deficiency of

vitamin D?
Scurvy.
Osteomalacia.
Xerophtalmia.
Weakness.
 Some authors recommends that all newborns receive a single intramuscular dose of
vitamin K,
since vitamin K is a vitamin necessary for
Calcium and phosphate metabolism.The vision process.
The synthesis of clotting factors.
 Vitamin K metabolic role is
Cofactor of enzyme.
1167
 A fat-soluble vitamin that regulates blood clotting is
Vitamin A.
Vitamin K.
Vitamin C.
Niacin.
 Which vitamin is required for carboxylation of clotting factors?
 Deficiency of vitamin K leads all of the following, EXCEPT
 Vitamin E function in the body is
To maintain vision and skin integrity, as well as growth of nails and bones.
As an antioxidant to prevent cell damage.To calcify bones and teeth.
 Antioxidant is
Vitamin K.
Vitamin E.
Vitamin A.
Vitamin D.
 Similarity of vitamin C and vitamin K is
Fat soluble.
Water soluble.
1168
 Calcitriol acts on the intestinal cells increases absorption of
Fe2+.
Vit B12.
Ca2+.
Vit D.
 Pantothenic acid is a constituent of the coenzyme involved in
Dehydrogenation.
Decarboxylation.
Oxidation.
Acetylation.
 Which one of the following compounds can be synthesized in humans?
Ascorbic acid.
Linoleic acid.Riboflavin.
Niacin.
 The symptoms of dietary deficiency of niacin (pellagra) will be less severe if the diet has
a high
content of
Tryptophan.
Tyrosine.
Phenylalanine.
Pantotenic acid.
 A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause pellagra?
Vitamin C.
Niacin.
Vitamin D.
Biotin.
 A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause scurvy?
Vitamin C.
Niacin.
Vitamin D.
Biotin.
1169
 Vitamin B6 deficiency has been observed in humans during the treatment of
tuberculosis with
high doses of drugs:
Sulfonamide.
Isoinosid.
Phenobarbital.
Fluorineuracil.
 Egg is rich in all of the following EXCEPT
Cholesterol.Calcium.
Fatty acids.
Ascorbic acid.
 Which of these molecules is vitamin H?
Biotin.
Carnitine.
Folic acid.
None of these.
 Milk is a good source of all of the following, EXCEPT
Galactose.
Fat with medium chain fatty acids
. Vitamin B12.
 Consumption of raw eggs cause deficiency of
Biotin
Riboflavin
Thiamin
Ascorbic acid
 Cobamide coenzyme is
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B9
Vitamin B
1170
Amino acids.Nucleotides.
Ribose-5-phosphate.
Ketone bodies.
 Which vitamin is essential for formation of dTMP?
Tocopherol.
Thiamin.
Cholecalciferol.
Folic acid.
 Folate as coenzyme is involved in the transfer and utilization of
Amino group.
Hydroxyl group.
One carbon moiety.
Sulfur group.
 Megaloblastic anemia due to deficiency vitamin
Tocopherol.
Biotin.
Thiamine.
Folic acid.
 Megaloblastic anemia is caused by the deficiency of
Vitamin K.
Iron.
Folic acid .
Vitamin B6.
 A population group that would be at increased risk of vitamin B12 deficiency
Infants.Pregnant women.
Strict vegetarians.
Athletic men.
 Which vitamin is required for utilization of homocysteine & production of SAM

(S-adenosyl
methyanine)?
1171
Thiamine.
Niacin.
Tetrahydrofolate.
Cyanocobalamin.
 A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause Beriberi?
Vitamin C.
Thiamine.
Vitamin D.
Biotin.
 The disease pellagra is due to a deficiency of
Vitamin B12.
Niacin.
Pantothenic acid.
Folic acid.
 Pellagra occurs in population dependent on
Maize
Rice
Milk
Meat
 Magenta tongue is found in the deficiency of the vitamin
RiboflavinNicotinic acid
Thiamin
Pyridoxine
 Antioxidants are all of the following, EXCEPT
Vitamin E.
Vitamin C.
NADPH.
Thiamine-PP.
 The vitamin required as coenzyme for the action of transaminases is
Niacin
Pyridoxal phosphate
1172
Tetrahydrofolate
 Transketolase activity testing is used for detection deficiency of
Thiamine
Biotin
Niacin
Lipoic acid
 Thiamine level is best monitored by:
Reticulocytosis .
 The vitamin used in the treatment of convulsion in alcoholism is
Riboflavin.Thiamine.
Folic acid.
Niacin.
 The requirement of vitamin B1 is increased when energy metabolism is elevated. During

which
one of the following conditions requirements of
vitamin B1 is NOT increased?
Fever.
Hyperthyroidism.
Increased muscular activity.
Hypothyroidism.
 Liver stores all of the following, EXCEPT
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin B12
Vitamin C
 Biochemical indication of vitamin В12 deficiency can be obtained by measuring the

urinary
excretion of
1173
Pyruvic acid
Lactic acid
Malic acid
Methyl malonic acid
 The grows factor of intestinal bacteria is:
Tetrahydrofolate
Coenzyme A
Lipoate
Vitamin D Ascorbic acid is involved in which of the following types of reactions?
Deamination.
Hydroxylation .
Carbo xylation.
 Vitamin B6 involved in:
Lipid metabolism
Mineral metabolism
 What is common reaction for folate and vitamin B12?
 Sulfa drugs are antimetabolites of
Pyridoxine.
Pantothenic acid.
Riboflavin.
 Methylmolonic aciduria is seen in a deficiency of vitamin
B1
B4
1174
B9
B12 Formaminoglutamate test (FIGLU) is used for detection
 Which one of the following diseases is due to vitamin deficiency?
Pernicious anemia
Diabetes mellitus
Cystinuria
 Which one of the following is NOT a function of any hormone?
 Which of the following statements relating to the properties of hormones is correct? A

paracrine
hormone exerts its action on the cell that secretes it.
Steroid hormones bind to intracellular/nuclear receptors. All hormones enter the general
circulation.
 Which of the following statements relating to the properties of hormones and hormone
actions
is NOT correct?
Peptide hormones travel in the blood in combination with carrier proteins.Many anterior
pituitary hormones are under feedback regulation.
1175
 G-protein acts as
Signal transducer.
Hormone carrier.
Second messenger.
Hormone inhibitor.
 The nucleotide (GDP)- binding site of G-protein is present on the
α-subunit.
γ-subunit.
 Hormone that binds to intracellular receptor
Thyroxine
Insulin
 Prolonged low level of plasma thyroid-binding globulin (TBG) leads
 Which of the following recognizes the signal?
Hormone
ReceptorEffector
Messenger
 Receptors for insulin is localized in(on)
Plasma membrane.
Interstitial space.
Nucleus.
 Receptors for testosterone is localized in(on)
1176
Plasma membrane.
Interstitial space.
Golgi apparatus.
 Adenylate cyclase cascade transduces
CAMP
DAG & Ca2+
IP3
CGMP
 Protein kinase is
Competitively inhibited by cAMP
Non-competitively inhibited by cAMP
 Secretion of insulin is regulated by
Anterior pituitary hormones.Positive feedback effect of plasma glucose.
 Insulin secretion inhibited by
 Target organ/tissue for insulin effect is
Brain
Kidney
Adipose
Uterus
 Correct statement about steroid hormones
1177
Activate phosphorylation of enzymes.
 Which from the following statements regarding G-proteins is CORRECT?
 PTH is involved in the regulation of
Carbohydrate metabolism.Calcium and phosphorus metabolism.
 After 10-days starvation which compound in the tissues completely absent?
Protein
Lipids
Glycogen
Nucleic acid
 Starvation leads activation of all of the following metabolic processes EXCEPT
 Starvation leads all of the following EXCEPT
Ketogenesis
Lipolysis
Proteolysis
Glycogenesis
 During prolonged starvation the major source of blood glucose
1178
 Regarding starvation
Glucose transport into adipose tissue increasedGlycogen synthesis is activated
 What is the major form of caloric storage in human body?
Triacylglycerides
Glycogen
Protein
Cholesterol
 In well-fed state
Lipolysis is activated.
 In fasting state
 After fasting for 12 hours, a student consumes a large bag of pretzels. This meal will
 When compared to his state after an overnight fast, a person who fasts for 2 week will
have
Less muscle proteinMore adipose tissue
 Which one of the following is essential in the human diet
Glutamate.
1179
Tyrosine.
Palmitic acid.
Lysine.
 Milk is a good source of all of the following,
Galactose.
Vitamin B12 .
 The First Law of Thermodynamics implies that living organisms cannot create their own
energy
but can only convert one form of energy into another.
What, then, is the ULTIMATE source of energy for most living organisms?
 All the energy that passes along a food chain comes originally from:
Oxygen
Air gases
Carbon dioxide
Solar light
Minerals & waterElectrolytes and bases
Organic polymers
Energy & ATPs
 Excellent short term storage material for immediately providing of energy in the body is
Fat
Nucleic acid
Glycogen
Protein
 Which of the following is the major energy fuel for the brain?
1180
Acetaldehyde
Glycine
Glucose
Cholesterol
 Excellent long term storage material for immediately providing of energy in the body is
Fat
Nucleic acid
Glycogen
Protein
 High concentration of oxygen radicals in RBCs leads the oxidation all of the following
EXCEPT
Lipids of membrane
Iron (Fe2+)
Hemoglobin
Ketone bodies
 All of the following nutrients provide energy EXCEPT
MineralsProteins
Fats
Carbohydrates
 In the normal adult, the fuel store that contains the fewest calories is
Liver glycogen
Muscle glycogen
Muscle protein
 The major carrier of chemical energy in all cells is
 For this cells fatty acids are NOT a fuel source at any time
Myocytes
1181
Enterocytes
Hepatocytes
Astrocytes
 The active organ that utilizes predominantly fatty acids for energy production is
Pancreas
Liver
Heart
Brain
 Final common oxidative pathway which integrates oxidation of fat, proteins and
carbohydrate is
also known as
Citric acid cycle.Urea cycle.
Cori cycle.
Myester cycle.
 Acetyl CoA is a product of all of the following molecules oxidation EXCEPT
Pyruvate.
Aldosterone.
Acetoacetate.
Alanine.
 The common intermediate of carbohydrate, amino acids & fatty acids carbon skeleton
oxidation
is
Acetyl CoA.
Ammonia.
Glycerol.
Ethanol.
 Synthesis of which compound is stimulated in the liver of a patient exhausted by

starvation?
Protein
Glucose
Lipids
Glycogen
1182
 The most rapid method of ATP formation during intensive exercise is through
 Mitochondria has all of the following EXCEPT
Membrane-bound electron transport chain.ATP-synthase.
Mitochondrial DNA.
 Energy-releasing pathway is
Lipogenesis.
Glycogenesis.
Glyconeogenesis.
Ketolysis
 Major sources for ATP synthesis in the cells are reactions of
Reduction of carbonic acids.
Oxidation of carbon skeleton .
Transamination.
Deamination.
 Which of the following is NOT a part of ATP?
Ribose
Adenosine
Phosphate
Methylene
 Which one of the following organs can metabolize glucose, fatty acids, and ketone
bodies for
ATP production?
Liver
RBCs
Muscle
Brain
1183
 Organ where glucose only uses for energy production is
Pancreas.Brain.
Muscles.
Liver.
 All of the following vitamins is required for full intracellular glucose oxidation, EXCEPT
Ascorbic acid .
Pantothenic acid.
Thiamine.
Niacin.
 The catabolism of glucose and fatty acids is similar because
All of the above.
 The maximum energy per gram on oxidization is yielded from
Fat
Alcohol
Protein
Starch
 FAD is reduced to FADH2 during
Krebs cycle.
Glycolysis.
 What is the next step after glycolysis in aerobic condition?
Pyruvate is oxidized to AcetylcoA.FADH2 is produced.
Fermentation.
 In what form does the product of glycolysis enter the TCA cycle?
AcetylCoA
Pyruvate
1184
NADH
Glucose
 The enzymes of the TCA cycle in a eukaryotic cell are located in the
Mitochondria
Plasma membrane
Lysosomal bodies
Nucleous
 Citric acid cycle occurs in
Cytoplasm
Mitochondria
Golgi bodies
 Why is the TCA cycle the central pathway of metabolism of the cell?
None of the above.
 The oxidation of Acetyl CoA by the citric acid cycle plays a major role in providing energy
in each
of the following tissues EXCEPT
MuscleBrain
Liver
Red blood cells
 Which one of the following is NOT the intermediate of Kreb's cycle?
Isocitrate.
Succinate.
Fumarate.
Stearate.
 Substrate - level phosphorylation in citric acid cycle is seen in the conversion of
1185
 Which of the following releases most energy when completely oxidized in the body?
10grams of glucose
10 grams of alcohol
10 grams of leucine
 How many ATPs are produced by the complete oxidation of 1 mole of Acetyl CoA in TCA
cycle?
12
24
36
 are true, EXCEPT All of the following statements
The citric acid cycle is amphibolic in nature.The citric acid cycle is major transporter of
glucose into mitochondria.
 Which of the following statement is true about TCA cycle?
Biochemistry Exam
 Immunoglobulins are: Glycoproteins
 Enzyme deficient in I cell disease: GlcNAc phosphotransferase
 Which of the following amino acid can have o-glycoxylation linkage in oligosaccharide
molecule:
Serine
 Which is not a protein misfolding disease= Ehler ’s danlos syndrome
 Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins=
Chaperones
1186
 All are TRUE about chaperones except?= Ubiquitin is one of the most important
chaperone
 Amyloid protein in human being is:= A material which gets deposited inn extra-cellular
spaces
 The sequence that target proteins to lysosome is:= Mannose 6phosphate
 Collagen of which type is found in hyaline cartilage? Type II
 The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell or in the
formation of
matrices in the body. The shape of these protein is:= Fibrous
 Quarter staggered arrangement is seen in: Collagen
 All of the following are required for hydroxylation of proline in collagen synthesis
except?
Monooxygenases
 Major type of collagen in basement membrance:= Type IV
 Precipitation of proteins occurs in all except?= PH changes is moved awy from

isoelectirc ph
 In HbS, Glutamic acid replaced by valine. What will be its electrophoretic mobility?=
Decreased
 All of the following are true about Sickle cell disease, except? = Sticky patch’ is
generated as a
result of replacement of a nonpolar residue with a polar residue
 Following SDS PAGE electrophoresis, proteins is found to be 100kDa. After treatment

with
mercaptoethanol, it shows 2 bands of 20 kDa and 30 KDa widely separated. True statement
is:=
 Protein is purified using ammonium sulphate by: =Salting out All of the following can
determine the protein structure except? =High performance liquid
chromatography
 Protein separation bcased on mass/molwt (size) is/are done in all except = Native gel
electrophoresis
 Methods of chromatography in which molecules that are negatively charged are

selectively
released from stationary phase into the positively charged molecules in mobile phase is
termed
1187
as? =Ion- exchange chromatography
 Movement of protein from nucleus to cytoplasm can be seen by? = FRAP
 Molecules up to size 4 KD is identified by: =Quadruple mass spectrometry
 Amino acid sequence is not found by:= Benedicts reagent
 Method used to study the structure of proteins include all except? = Edman’s technique
 Sanger’s reagent is chemically: =1,Flouro 2,4 Dinitro Benzene
 Which of the following about protein structure is correct? =The inforamtion required for
the
correct folding of a protein is contained in the specific sequence of amino acid along the
polypeptide chain
 An alpha helix of a protein is most likely to be disrupted if a missense mutation

introduces the
following amino acid within the alpha helical structure: = Glycine
 Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They fold into compact structures.
Sometimes,these
folded structures associated to form homo-orheterodimers. Which one of the following

refer to
this associated form? =Quaternary structure
 Which of the following is the structure of myoglobin? =monomer
 Denatruration is resisted bt which of the following bond? =peptide bond
 Polypeptide formation in amino acid is by =Secondary structure
 Rossman fold associated NADH domain is found in which enzyme = Lactate

dehydrogenase
 Which one of the following can be homologous substitution for isolecuine in a protein in
sequence? =Valine
 In a mutation if valine is replaced by which of the following would not result in any
change in the
function of protein? = leucine
 Isoelectric point is when =Net charge of protein in zero
 Biuret test is used for detection of: =Protein
 What type of protein in Casein? =Phosphoprotein
 Which is/are not transport protein? = Collagen
1188
 The process in which amino group of amino acid is transferred to keto acid and keto
group of
keto acid is transferred to the amino acid is called = Transamination
 Which intermediate of citric acid cycle is used in detoxification of ammonia in brain? =

Alpha
ketoglutarate
 True about urea cycle: = Occur mainly in cytoplasm
 A patient presented to casualty with nausea, vomiting. Intravenous glucose was given
and the
patient recovered. After few months, patient presented with same complaints. Blood
glutamine
was found to be increased. Also uracil levels were raised. What is the diagnosis? = Ornithine
trans carbamoylase deficiency
 In urea synthesis, Carbon comes from = Bicarbonate Which process involves

formation of non essential amino acid from keto acid? = Transamination
 Glutamate is formed from which amino acid =Alanine
 Ammonia from brain is trapped by = glutamine
 Phenylbutyrate because it is used in urea cycle disorders = Scavenges nitrogen
 Nontoxic form of storage and ammonia: transportation = glutamine
 In urea cycle, hydrolysis occurs during =Cleavage of Arginine
 Which of the following enzyme is a regulator of UREA cycle? =CPS-I
 Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase I (CPS-I) is which one of the following? = Hepatic
mitochondrial enzyme
 Source of nitrogen in urea cycle is = NH3 and aspartate
 In the biosynthesis of urea, one nitrogen atom is derived from ammonia while the other
nitrogen atom is from = Aspartate
 Which ofthe following does not contain P-alanine1 = Homocarnosine
 Ureaisformedfrom: = Aspatrate
 Not a metabolic product of urea cycle = Alanine
 NO is secreted by = Endothelium
 Nitric oxide in synthesized from? =L-arginine
 All are true about nitric oxide except =Acts through cAMP
 True about Nitric Oxide are all except = Acts through cAMP
1189
 EDRF is = NO
 AU are true regarding Urea cycle except = Rate limiting enzyme is ornithine
transcarbamoylase
 True about urea cycle: = On consumption of high amount of protein, excess of urea
formed
 Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are not involved in urea cycle = Glutamate
dehydrogenase
 Urea cycle enzymes are: = Ornithine transcarboxylase
 Hyperammonemia inhibit TCA cycle by depleting = Alpha-ketoglutarate
 AU are urea cycle enzymes except = Citrulline synthase
 Vasodilator produced by decarboxylation of:= histidine
 Nitric oxide synthesised from:= Arginine
 Histidine load test is used for: =Folate deficiency
 True about Nitric Oxide are all except : = Acts through c AMP
 Creatinine is formed from: = Arginine
 Histidine is converted to Histamine by which reaction? =Decarboxylation
 Branched chain ketoacid decarboxylation is defective in: =Maple syrup urine disease
 MSUD type I A is due to mutation of = E I alpha
 Which is not formed from branched chain amino acid? = Xanthurenate
 Treatment used in isovaleric aciduria: = Glycine
 Which of the following amino acid is excreted in urine in maple syrup urine disease? =
Leucine
 Fish odour syndrome can be prevented by intake of: =Choline
 Proline is formed from = Glutamate
 The nitrogen atom of aspartate formed from asparagines using enzyme asparaginase is
from: =
Glutamine
 Oxaloacetate is formed from: = Aspartate and asparagin Amino acid responsible for
Thioredoxin reductase activation: = Selenocysteine
 Oxaloacetate is derived from which amino acid? = Asparagine and aspartate
 Smell of sweaty feet is seen in: = Glutaric acidemia
 During the formation of hydroxyl proline and hydroxyl lysine, the essential factor
required
1190
is/are: = Ascorbic acid
 Succinyl CoA is formed by: = Valine
 In one carbon metabolism serine loses which carbon atom? = Beta Carbon atom
 Which amino acid is not excreated in Cystinuria? = Cysteine
 Tripeptide is: = Glutathione
 In a case of classic homocystinuria what should be supplemented in the diet to prevent

heart
attacks? = Pyridoxine
 Sulphur of cysteine are not used/utilised in the body for the following process/ product
=
 N Acetyl Cysteine replenishes = Glutamate
 In glutathione which amino acid is reducing agent? = Cysteine
 Serotonin is: = 5 Hydroxy Tryptamine
 Tyrosinosis most common cause is:= Fumaryl aceto acetate hydrolase
 5 HIAAI in urine is due to: = Carcinoid Syndrome
 VMA is excreted in urine in which condition = Pheochromocytoma
 Melanin derived from: = Tyrosine
 Melatonin derived from: = Tryptophan
 Treatment of tyrosinemia type 1 is: = NTBC
 Which is elevated in PLP deficiency? = Xanthurenic acid
 Dopamine is synthesized from: = Tyrosine
 In phenylketonuria the main aim of first line therapy is: = Limiting the substrate for
deficient
enzyme
 A 40-years- old women presents with progressive palmoplantar pigmentation. X-ray

spine shows
calcification of IV disc. On adding benedicts reagent to urine, it gives greenish brown

precipitate
and blue-black supernatant fluid. What is the diagnosis? = Alkaptonuria
 Dopamine hydroxylase catalyse = Dopamine --> Norepinephrine
 Type 1 tyrosinemia is caused by: = Fumaryl aceto acetate hydrolase
 Enzyme deficiency in albinism is: = Tyrosinase
1191
 Mousy body odour is due to = Phenyl Acetate
 The amino acid that can be converted into a vitamin: = Tryptophan
 Which of the following amino acid is involved in the synthesis of thyroxine?= Tyrosine
 Tyrosinemics are more susceptible to develop = Hepatic carcinoma
 Hyperoxaluria asscoiated with whihc amino acid? = Glycine
 Which of the following is true about glycine? = Optically inactive
 Which of the following would not act as source of glycine by transamination? =

Aspartate
 Glycine cleavage system in liver mitochondria is associated with which enzyme?=

Glycine
Dehydrogenase
 Guanido acetic acid is formed in = Kidney; Arginine+ Glycine N Methyl Glycine is

known as: = Sarcosine
 What is the metabolic defect in Primary Oxaluria type II? = D glycerate dehydrogenase
 All are true about glutathione except? = It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
 Ammonia from brain is detoxified as: = Glutamine
 True about Glutamate Dehydrogenase: = Can use NADH or NADPH
 Ammonium ion is not released in the free form = Increased breakdown of muscle
proteins
 Transfer of an amino group from an amino acid to an alpha keto acid is done by: =
Transaminases
 The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver is =
Alanie
 Glutamine in blood acts are: = Ammonia transporter
 Amino acid absorption is by: = Active transport
 The transporter gene defective in Hartup = SLA 6A 19
 Nontoxic form of storage and transportation of ammonia: = Glutamine
 CPS-I used in which pathway? = Urea cycle
 Urea cycle occurs in = Liver
 In which of the following condition there is increased level of ammonia in blood? =

Ornithine
thranscarbamylase deficiency
 Urea cycle occurs in: = Both
1192
 Glutamate dehydrogenase in mitochondria is activated by: ]= ADP
 Nitrogen atoms of Urea contributed by: = Ammonium and aspartate
 Phenyl butyrate is used in cycle disorder because: = Scavenges nitrogen
 A 6-month-old boy admitted with failure to thrive with high glutamine and uracil in
urine.
Hypoglycemia, high blood ammonia. Treatment given for 2 months. At 8 months again
admitted
for failure to gain weight. Gastric tube feeding was not tolerated. Child became comatose.
Parenteral Dextrose given. Child recovered from coma with 24hrs. What is the enzyme
defect?
===Ornitinetranscarbamoylase
 A baby presents with refusal to feed, skin lesions, seizures, ketosis, organic acids in urine
with
normal ammonia, likely diagnosis: = Multiple carboxylase deficiency
 Enzyme involved in nonoxidative deamination is: = Amino acid Dehydratase
 Which of these is a conservative mutation? = Alanine-leucine
 Proteins are sorted by: =Golgi bodies
 Not true among the following is:= SRP-R is ATP bound
 Endoplasmic reticulum signal transduction isthrough = Translocon
 Not a function of endoplasmic reticulum: = Muscle contraction
 Targeting sequence that direct endoplasmic reticulum resident protein in retrograde

flow to ER
in COP-I vesicles = KDEL
 Secretory proteins are synthesized in: = Endoplasmic reticulum
 Fibropeptidase A&B are highly negative due to presence of which amino acids?
=Glutamate and
Aspartate
 Which of the following special amino acid is not formed by post translational
modification?
=Selenocysteine
 Which of the following have a positive charge in physiological pH? = ARGININE What
is the pH of the solution if the Hydrogen ion concentration is mill moles/L = 2.3
 Selenocysteine is code by = UGA
 All of the following are essential amino acids except: = ALANINE
1193
 Guanidinium group is associated with = ARGININE
 Sulphur containing amino acids is:= CYSTEINE
 Which of the following is non-aromatic amino acid with a hydroxyl R-group?

=THREONINE
 Which is not an essential amino acid? = Cysteine
 Which of the following is not an aromatic amino acid?= Valine
 Which of the following group contains only nonessential amino acids? = Acidic amino
acid
 Amide group containing amino acid is: = Glutamine
 Which of the following is semi essential amino acid? = Arginine
 Aminoacyl t-RNA is required for all except? = Hydroxyproline
 PKA=Ph when: = When the concerntration of ionized and unionized form is same
 HCO3-/H2Co3 is considered most effective buffer at physiological pH because: = Its

components
can be increased or decreased by the body
 Replacing alanine by which amino acid will increase UV absorbance of protein are 280
nm
wavelength? = Tryptophan
 Which of the following protein cannot be phosphorylated using protein kinase in

prokaryotic
organisms? = Asparagine
 Carboxylation of clotting factors by vitamin K is required to be biologically active. Which

of the
following amino acid is carboxylated? = Glutamate
 Property of photochromisity is seen amongst the following amino aids: = Aromatic

amino acid
 The property of proteins to absorb ultraviolet rays of light is due to = Aromatic amino
acid
 All biologically active amino acids are: = L-forms
 Flexibility of protein depends on: = Glycine
 Which amino acid can protonate deprotonate at neutral pH? = Histidine
 Which of the following amino acid is purely glucogenic? = Alanine
 Which of the following does not include post translational modifications? =

Selenocysteine
1194
 Dried blood drop of an infant can be used to know = Inborn errors of metabolism
 Nitric oxide is synthesized from which amino acid = Arginine
 Fibrinopeptide A and 8 are highly negative charged proteins made up of = = Aspartate

and
Glutamate
 In Cystinuria, all of the following amino acids are excreted, except: = Leucine
 Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of = Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH
 Nitric oxide acts by increasing = CGMP
 Serotonin is also known as = 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)
 Tyrosinosis is caused due to deficiency of which enzyme? = Fumaryl acetoacetate

hydrolase
 Non-essential amino acid group is = Acidic Amino Acid
 Which is 21st amino acid = Seleno cysteine
 Amino acid present in thioredoxin reductase: = Selenocysteine
 Glucogenic amino acid is = Valine
 Both glucogenic and ketogenic amino-acids are all except = Leucine Indole ring is
present in = Tyrosinase
 'D'- form of amino acid is derived from 1 = From external source
 Amide group containing amino acid is: = Glutamine
 Guanidinium group is associated with = Arginnine
 Amino acid which is not stable in (incompatible with) alpha-helix is = Proline
 Amino acid with double chiral carbon = Threonine
 Substitution of which one ofthe following amino acids in place of alanine would increase
the
absorbance of protein at 280 nm = Tryptophan
 Creatine is made up of all, except = Alanine
 Amino acid required for formation of thyroxine = Tyrosine
 Disulphide bond is seen between = Cysteine and cysteine
 Sulphur containing amino acids metabolism needs = All of the above
 In phenylketouria, diet restriction is advised for = Phenylalanine
 Glycine is used in the synthesis of all except = Pyrimidines
 Sulfhydryl group containing amino acid{s) = Cysteine
1195
 Melatonin is synthesized from = Tryptophan
 Which of the following amino acid has positive charge at physiological pH? = Arginine
 Which vitamin can be synthesized in body -= Niacin
 After a point mutation, glutamic acid replaced byvaline, which leads to formation of
sickle cell
Hb. mobility of HbS as compared to normal Hb on gel electrophoresis will be = Decreased
 All of the following amino acids forms acetyl CoA via pyruvate dehydrogenase except : =
Tyrosine
 A child with pellagra like symptoms, amino acids in urine, family history of two siblings
affected
and two normal. Parents are normal. What is the diagnosis = Hartnup's disease
 What is Isoelectric point? = All
 Which is elevated in PLP deficiency = Xanthurenic acid
 Dopamine is synthesized from: = Tyrosine
 Hormone synthesized from Tyrosine is = Thyroxine
 Type I Tyrosinemia is caused by: = Fumaryl Acetoacetate Hydrolase
 Which amino acid's deamination takes place in liver = Alanine
 N Methyl Glycine is known as -= Sarcosine
 Amino acid used in Carnitine synthesis is = Lysine
 NO {Nitric oxide} is synthesized from = Arginine
 Which of the following is required in the synthesis of acetylcholine = Serine
 In Maple syrup urine disease, the amino acids excreted in urine are all except =
Phenylalanine
 Coenzyme for phenylalanine hydroxylase I = Tetrahydrobiopterin
 Which of following is polar = Glutamic acid
 Fumarate is formed from which amino acidurine = Tyrosine
 Which amino acid not involved in transamination = Lysine
 Xanthurenic acid is the metabolite in the metabolism = Tryptophan
 Taurine is synthesized from which amino acid? = Cysteine
 The biosynthesis of Epinephrine from Norepineph rine requires = S-adenosyl

methionine Ochronosis is caused by = Alkaptonuria
 In Alkaptonuria, which of the following accumulates abnormally in urine =

Homogentisate
1196
 Strength and rigidity in keratin is due to = Cysteine
 Which of the following is not a selenoprotein = Glutathione reductase
 Which amino acid does not include post translational modification 1 = Selenocysteine
 Which amino acid has maximum tendency to bind phosphate = Serine
 Kinks in alpha structure are formed by which amino acid = Glycine
 Hyperphenylalaninemia occurs due to = Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency
 Amino acids containing hydroxyl group: = Threonine
 At isoelectric point (pi) net charge of amino acis is = +1
 Codon for transcription of Selenocysteine is = UGA
 Sulphur of cysteine not used in body for the following = Introduction of sulphur atom in
methionin
 Which of the following is true regarding phenylketonuria = Dietary phenylalanine

restriction is
used in treatment
 Terminal product( s) of phenylalanine is: = Fumarate
 Optically inactive amino acid is/ are: = Glycine
 Disease of branched chain amino acid includes = Maple syrup disease
 Correct combination of Urine odour in various metabolic disorders = Phenylketonuria

-Mousy
odour
 Polar amino acid(s) is/are: = Serine
 Hydrophobic amino acids are: = Methionine
 Non-polar amino acids are: = Alanine
 Basic amino acid (s) is/are = Arginine
 PKU is a congenital amino acid metabolic disorder. In one of the following rare variants
of PKU
Dihydro Biopterin synthesis is affected. The enzyme deficient is = Dihydropterin reductase
 Nitric oxide (NO) is synthesized by all except: = Platelets
 Non polar amino acids are: = Isoleucine
 Kinks in alpha structure are formed by which amino acid: = Glycine
 Cre - cis regulatory elements bind to what site = Lox P site
 Restriction Endonuclease is used in: = RFLP
1197
 Function of endonucleases: = Cut DNA at specific DNA sequences
 Enzymes used in DNA research programme are, except: = None
 In DNA transfer the vectors used from smallest to largest is = Plasmids, Bacteriophage,
Cosmids
 In gene cloning, largest fragment can be incorporated in: = Cosmid
 Function of restriction 11 enzyme: = Cleaves DNA at palindromic recognition site
 After digestion by restriction endonuclease DNA strands can be joined again in: = DNA
ligase
 Starting material for production of insulin from bacteria is: = MRNA of beta cells of
pancreas
 Correct statements regarding restriction e ase is/are: = Restriction endonuclease

recognizes
specific sites of DNA sequence
 Real time PCR is used for: = To know how much amplification has occurred
 Quantitative DNA analysis/estimation is done by: = Spectrometer All are added to

PCR, except: = Dideoxynucleotide
 PCR which of the following is not required?= Radiolabelled DNA probe
 SYBR Green Dye Is used for: = PCR
 Enzyme(s) used in polymerase chain reaction ls/are: = DNA polymerase
 True about PCR all except: = Additive amplification
 PCR is used in: = All of the above
 Which of the following is used in PCR? = Mg ++
 In PCR Acquaticus thermophilus is preferred over E.coli, because: = Thermostable at
temperature at which DNA liquefies
 Western blot detects = Protein
 Which is the test used to Identify mRNA? = Northern Blot
 Which method is used to locate a known gene locus? = FISH
 Light microscopy resolution to visualize chromosomes = 5kb
 Test to differentiate in the chromosome of normal and cancer cell: = Comparative

genomic
hybridization
 Karyotyping under light microscopy is done by = G banding
 Rapid method of chromosome identification in intersex is: = FISH
1198
 Which of following techniques is used for detection of variation in DNA sequence and
Gene
expression? = Microarray
 Which of the following tests in not used for detection of specific aneuploidy? = RT-PCR
 For isolating a gene of long DNA molecules (50·100 KB) following Is used: =
Chromosome
walking
 DNA finger printing was founded by: = Jeffrey
 The following methods can be used to detect the point mutation in the beta globulin
globulin
gene that causes sickle cell anemia, except: = Northern blot analysis
 DNA fingerprinting is based on possessing in DNA of = Variable Number Tandem Repeat
 RNAi in gene expression denotes: = Knock down
 The function of a gene is determined by: = Inserting in transgenic mice
 Gene editing can be done by various methods like hypermethyation and amplification.
Which of
the following will not change the genetic code? = Epigenetics
 RFLP used in surgical ICU to identify staph aureus. The restriction site of the restriction
endonuclease HIND 111 be: = AAGCTT TTCGAA
 CRISPR is: = It is a type of bacterial defense mechanism in bacteria against

phages/viruses
 Methods of introducing gene in target cells are all except: = FISH
 The first gene therapy (somatic enzyme) was successfully done in: = SCIO
 Purpose of gene therapy = Replacement of abnormal gene by normal gene
 The following are used to study pathological genome except: = BLAST
 Study of structure and products of gene is: = Genomics
 Study of multiplication of proteins in disease process is called: = Proteomics
 What biologist uses to diagnose and treat diseases with disorders with multlgenic
Inheritance? =
Tag SNPs Which of the following statement is true about Linkage analysis? = Detection of
characteristic
DNA polymorphism in a family associated with disorders
 Which of the following are situated away from the coding region: = Enhancer
1199
 Housekeeping genes are: = Not regulated
 False statement is: = Regulator gene is inducible
 Lac operon transcription is induced by: = inducer without glucose
 All of the following statements about Lambda phage are true, exceptBoth Lytic and
Lysogenic
phase occur together
 Normal role of Micro RNA is: == Gene Regulation
 CpG island in human genome is related to: = DNA methylation
 Genes in CpG Island is inactivated by: = Methylation
 All are true DNA methylation except = No role in carcinogenesis
 All are true regarding epigenetics mechanisms except: = Non inheritable
 Random inactivation of X-chromosome is: = Lyonisation
 Histone acetylation cause: = Increased Heterochromatin formation
 Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as =

Genomic
imprinting
 Epigenetics is a: = Chemical modification of DNA
 Methylation of Cytidine residues of DNA will cause: = Decrease gene expression
 Mitochondrial DNA is: = Closed circular
 All are true about mitochondrial DNA except: = Transmit in classical Mendelina fashion
 Choose the true statement about mit DNA = It codes for less than 20% of the proteins
involved
in respiratory chain
 Which of the following statement is true about Linkage analysis? = Detection of

characteristic
DNA polymorphism in a family associated with disorders
 What biologist uses to diagnose and treat diseases with disorders with multlgenic
Inheritance? =
Tag SNPs
 Microsatellite sequence is: = Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA
 Which RNA contain abnormal purine and Pyrimidine? = tRNA
 A codon consist of = Three consecutive nucleotide units
 All are true of genetic code except: =Punctuation
1200
 Wobble hypothesis-regarding the variation true is = 5 -end of anticodon
 There are 20 amino acids with three codons In Spite of the no of amino acids could be
formed is
64 leading to that an amino acid Is represented by more than one codon is called: =
Degeneracy
 Genetic code has triplet of nucleotides each for one amino acid. When an amino acid is
specified
by than one codon, it is called: = Degeneracy
 The polyeptide from poly (A) is: = polylysine
 If constitutive sequence of 4 nucleotide codes for 1 ammo acid, how many amino acid
can be
theoretically = 256
 Termination process of protein synthesis is performed by all except: = AUG codon
 True about Ribozyme: = Peptidyl Transferase activity
 Part of eukaryotlc DNA contributing to polypeptide synthesis: = Exon Met-tRNA

would recognize: GCA AUG = AUG
 Which of the following statement Is true? = Identification of 5' cap of mRNA by IF4E is
the rate
limiting step
 RNA polymerase differs from DNA polymerase: = Synthesise RNA primers
 The cellular component for protein synthesis is: = Ribosomes
 Amber codon refers to = Stop codon
 Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near: = AUG codon
 True regarding amino acyl tRNA synthetase is A/E: = Attachment of amino group to 5'
end of
tRNA
 In translation process, done by: = Amino synthetase
 Which enzyme Involved In translation is often referred to as 'Fidelity enzyme'? = Amino

acyl
tRNA synthetase
 About peptidyl transferase true is: = Used in elongation and cause attachment of
peptide chain
to A- site of tRNA
 Termination is caused by all except: = 48S complex
1201
 435 preinitiation complex include all except: = IF-4F
 IF 4F include all except: = 4S
 For 1 peptide bond formation how many high energy phosphate bonds are required? =
=0
 Vitamin required for post translational modification of coagulants is: = = vitamin k
 Initiator tRNA is in which site of ribosome? = P site
 5'TTACGTAC 3' after transcription what will be the RNA? = 5,-GUACGUAA 3'
 Immunoglobulin molecule is synthesized by in mixed or separate due to: = Differential

RNA
processing
 A four-year-old child is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an X-linked

recessive
disorder, Genetic analysis shows that the patient's gene for the muscle protein dystrophin
contains a mutation in its promoter region. What would be the most likely effect of this
mutation = initiation of dystrophin transcription will be deficient
 Splicing activity is a function of = SnRNA
 Reverse transcriptase is: = RNA dependent DNA polymerase
 Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base? = TRNA
 The sigma (s) submit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase: = Specifically recognizes the
promoter site
 The base sequence of the strand of DNA used as a template has the sequence
5'GATCTAC 3'.
What would be the base sequence of RNA product? = 5' GUAGAUC 3'
 DNA dependent RNA polymerase is seen in: = Primase
 Strand of DNA from which mRNA is formed by transcription is called: = Template
 On which of the following t RNA acts specifically? = Specific amino acid
 In conversion of DNA to RNA, enzyme required: = RNA polymerase
 RNA polymerase does not require = Primer
 In a DNA the coding region reads 5'-CGT-3 '. This ' would code in the RNA as: = 5'-CGU-3
 Cytoplasmic process during processing is = Attachment of CCA in t RNA
 All are the processing reaction in t RNA, except: = Poly A tailing
 Lntrons are exised by: = RNA splicing A segment of eukaryotlc gene that is not
represented in the mature mRNA is known as: = Lntron
1202
 An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA
template
molecule is known as: = Reverse transcriptase
 Function of Pseudouridine arm of tRNA = Helps in initiation of translation
 Which of the following is true regarding transcription except: = DNA polymerase enzyme
is used
 Apo 848 & Apo 8100 is synthesized from the mRNA- the difference between them is due
to =
 Most common RNA is: = RRNA
 Thymidylated RNA present in: = T RNA
 Met-tRNA would recognize -== AUG
 Which of the following is true about DNA Polymerase Ill? =It forms Okazaki fragm nts an
it needs
RAN primer

 True about DNA Gyrase = Prokaryotic DNA Topoisomerase 11
 Incorrect statement are = Endonuclease cut DNA at 5' terminus
 Which DNA polymerase is involved in repair of mammalian DNA? = Beta
 The gaps between segments of DNA on the lagging stand produced by restriction
enzymes are
joined sealed by = DNA Ligases
 During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymes polymerizes the Okazaki
fragments? = DNA Polymerase 111
 All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telomerase which protects the length
of
telomerase at the end of chromosomes, except: = Somatic
 DNA Polymerase with both replication and repair function is = I (one)
 Radiolabelled DNA was allowed to replicate twice in a non-radioactive environment.

Which of
the following is true? = Half of the DNA will have no radioactivity
 In which of the following phase, DNA doubling occurs = S phase
 Unwinding Enzyme in DNA synthesis: = Helicase
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 Action of Telomerase is: = longetivity of cell
 Ends of chromosomes replicated by = Telomerase
 Which enzymatic mutation is responsible for immortality of cancer cells? = Telomerase
 Okazaki fragments are formed during the synthesis of: = DsDNA
 Correct sequence of enzymes required for DNA formation is: = RNA polymerase --> DNA
polymerase Ill --> DNA polymerase I--> DNA ligase
 SCIO is due to defect in = NHEJ
 Xeroderma pigmentosa is due to: = Nucleotide excision repair
 UV light damage to the DNA leads to: = Formation of pyrimidine dimmers
 Excessive ultraviolet (UV) radiation is harmful to life. The damage caused to the
biological
system by ultra-violet radiation I by: = Formation of thymidine dimmers
 The primary defect in Xeroderma pigmentosa is: = Formation of thymidine dimmers
 Assay for lipid peroxidation is: = FOX assay
 Pro-oxidant action of vitamin A is potentiated by: = Copper
 Free radical with highest activity: = OH+ Most powerful chain breaking antioxidant: =
Alpha tocopherol
 Enzyme which catalyse the reaction Hp2 give Hp+02: = Catalase
 Which of the following is not a free radical?= = Hydrogen peroxide
 Toxicity of ethanol is due to: =Increased NADH/NAD+ ratio
 Best explained pathogenesis of fatty liver in alcoholic liver disease: =Impaired beta
oxidation of
fatty acids
 Which of the following is having maximum thermic effect food? = Protein
 Correct statement about membrane = PHOSPHOLIPIDS UNDERGO RAPID LATERAL

DIFFUSION
 Which of the following is having maximum thermic effect food? = PROTEIN
 A girl licks paint that is peeled of from the toys develop acute abdominal pain, tingling
sensation
of hands and legs and weakness. Which enzyme is inhibited in this child? = ALA dehydratase
 Heme biosynthesis does not occur in = RBC
 In lead poisoning which of the following is seen in urine? = Delta ALA
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 In HbS, Glutamic acid replaced by valine. What will be its electrophoretic mobility? =
Decreased
 Which of the following porphyrias does not present with photosensitivity? = HMB
synthase
 A boy with staining of teeth and raised Coproporphyrin-1 levels and increased risk of
photosensitivity, the enzyme deficient is: = Uroporphyrinogen Ill synthase
 No. of pyrrole rings in Porphyrins = 2(two)
 No of iron in ferritin: = 4000
 Noof iron in transferrin: = 2(two)
 Variegate porphyria enzyme defect is: Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
 Acute lntennittent Porphyria is caused by: = Uroporphyrinogen I synthase
 A 10-year-old bo presents with increase bilirubin, increased bilirubin in urine and no
urobilinogen. Diagnosis is: = Obstructive jaundice
 HbA1c is: = Glucose to valine residue of 13 globin
 Structure of Hemoglobin and Myoglobinare similar in: = Both secondary and tertiary
structure
 2,3 DPG binds to _ sites in hemoglobin and causes In its oxygen affinity: = One,
decreases
 The followings correctly arranged = CMP-Cytidine monophosphate
 Apart from occurring in nucleic acid, pyrimidines are also found 1: = Allantoin
 Which of the following is not a nitrogenous base? =Guanosine
 Which is not found in DNA?= Uracil
 At the physiological pH the DNA molecules are: = Negatively charged
 Enzyme deficiency in Lesch Nyhan Syndrome? = HGPRtase
 A child presents with hyperuricemia and delayed developmental milestones. He also has
the
habit of biting fingers and nails. What is the most probable enzyme deficiency? = HGPRtase
deficiency
 End product of purine metabolism in non-primate mammals is: = Allantoin
 Deoxy ribonucleic acid is formed from: = Ribonucleotide diphosphate
 lnosinic acid is biological precursor: = Adenylic acid and guanylic acid
 False regarding gout is: = Due to increased metabolism of pyrimidines
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 The enzyme deficient in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is: = HGPRT A 1O-year-old child
presents with history of rashes self-mutilation family history positive. Which
of the following investigations do you think may be suggestive of valuable for diagnosis? =
Uric
acid
 A ten-year-old child with aggressive behavior and poor concentration is brought with
presenting
complaints of joint pain and reduced urinary output. Mother gives history of self-mutilate his
finger. Which of the following enzymes is likely to be deficient in this child? = HGPRT ase
 A patient with increased Hypoxanthine and Xanthine in blood with hypouricemia which
enzyme
is deficient? = Xanthine Oxidase
 Choose the incorrect statement Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome: = The enzyme defect enhances
the
reutilization of purine bases
 Hyperuricemia is not found in: = Xanthinuria
 Which among the following is a cardioprotective fatty acid = Omega-3 fatty acid
 Which among the following is not a saturated fatty acid? = Linoleic acid
 Most essential fatty acid is: = Linoleic acid
 All are true except = Arachidonic acid contains five double bonds
 Maximum source of linolelc acid Is = Sunflower oil
 Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breast milk? = Docosahexaenoic acid
 The following fatty acid does not belong to W6 series: = Alpha linolenic acid
 An example of Omega 6 fatty acid is: = Arachidonic acid
 Which is not present in plant = Cholesterol
 Which of the following is a glycolipid? = Cerebroside
 Second messenger is produced from: = Phosphatidylinosito
 A child presents with hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia. Bone marrow shows

"crumbled
tissue paper appearance". It is due to accumulation of: = Glucocerebroside
 Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in: = NIEMANN-PICK DISEASE
 Deficiency of phosphorylating enzymes for the formation of which of the following

recognition
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marker leads to 1- cell disease? = Mannose 6 phosphate
 Which of the following disease occurs due to the deficiency of glucocerebrosidase? =

Gaucher 's
disease
 Accumul ation of sphingomyelin in phagocytic cells is feature of: = Niemann-Pick disease
 Tay-Sachs disease is due to accumulation of: = GM2 ganglioside
 Most abundant form of Pro Vit A is: = Beta carotene
 Which of the following is true about Vitamin K? = Chronic use of antibiotics lead to
deficiency of
Vitamin K
 Which vitamin is synthesized in the body? = Vitamin B3
 Tocopheryl radical is converted to Tocopherol by which vitamin = vitamin c
 In the crystalline lens, level of tocopherol and Ascorbate is maintained by = Glutathione
 All are true about vitamin D metabolism, except: = Williams syndrome is associated with
mental
retardation, precocious puberty and obesity
 Vitamin K is required for: = Carboxylation
 Vitamin A intoxication cause injury to: = Lysosomes
 Active form of Vitamin D is: = 1, 25(0H) 2vit-D Vitamin K is involved in the

post-translational modification of: = Proline
 Which Vitamin is required for carboxylation of clotting factors? = Vitamin K
 All the following have antioxidant action except: = Vitamin D
 Which of the following is true about vitamin K? = Prothrombin is a vitamin K dependent

factor
 Vitamin E deficiency causes all except: = None
 Which coenzyme acts as reducing agent in anabolic reaction? = NADPH
 Most powerful chain breaking antioxidant: = Alpha tocopherol
 Fulminant Hepatitis is associated with which vitamin toxicity? = VITAMIN 3
 Vitamin deficiency causing mental disorder? = THIAMINE
 Site of absorption of Vitamin B12: = Ileum
 Vitamin B12 deficiency causes all except: = Neural tube defect
 Lsoniazid toxicity can be prevented b . = = Vitamin B6
 Which among the following cause generalized oedema? = Vitamin B1
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 A 50-yrs-old male with symptoms of fatigue and he has swelling of feet and loss of
sensations in
legs and anaemia. He also has dilation of ventricle and high cardiac output state. What is the
vitamin deficiency associated with this presentation = VITAMIN B1
 A mineral which can generate free radical are all except: = Selenium
 Cobalt is present in which vitamin? = Vitamin B12
 Antioxidant in Vitamin is: = Beta carotene
 The proxidant action of Vitamin C is potentiated by: = Copper
 A mineral which can generate free radical are all except: = Selenium
 Biotin act as a coenzyme for all except: = Glutamate to gamma carboxy glutamate
 Vitamin B is not required for: = =Glycogen phosphorylase
 A vitamin derived from amino acid is: = Niacin
 Vitamin for which RDA is based on protein intake is: = Pyridoxine
 Megaloblastic anaemia seen in: = Orotic aciduria
 In ono carbon metabolism when serine converted to Glycino, Which carbon atom is
added to
THFE? = BETA CARBON
 Vitamin deficiency that cause oro oculo genital syndrome: = Vitamin B2
 Vitamin deficiency causing circum corneal vascularization is: = Riboflavin
 False about folic acid = Wheat flour in India is fortified with folate as in USA
 Which of the vitamin deficiency lead to lactic acidosis? = Thiamine
 Thiamin requirement increases in excessive intake of == Carbohydrate
 Which of the following statement about Thiamine true? = It is coenzyrne for pyruvate
dehydrogenase and a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
 Vitamin which ls excreted in urine is? = Vitamin C
 Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because: = It is a coenzyme for
pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
 Vitamin 812 acts as coenzyme to which one of the following enzymes? = Homocysteine
methyl
transferase
 Biotin is a cofactor of: = Carboxylase
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 Post-translation modification of hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline is by: = Vit C
Pantothenic acid containing coenzyme is involved in: = Acetylation
 Vitamin given in pregnant women to prevent neural tube defect: = Folic acid
 Not needed in TCA cycle: = Pyridoxine
 Neurological worsening with anemia what is the treatment to be given = Iron
 Vitamin deficiency causing dementia: = Vitamin B12
 Pantothenate Kinase associated neurodegeneration is: = Hallervorden-Spatz syndrome
 The form of THFA used in treatment is: = N5 Formyl THFA
 Excess of avidln causes deficiency of: =Biotin
 Thiamine act as a cofactor in = Pyruvate to acetyl CoA
 Sebhorreic Dermatitis Is produced by deficiency of = Vitamin B2
 Severe thiamine deficiency ls associated with: - == Decreased RBC transketolase activity
 Two strands of the DNA are joined by: = Hydrogen bond
 True about DNA structure: = Deoxyribose- phosphate backbone with bases stacked
inside
 If a sample of DNA if adenine is 23% what will be the amount of gunine present? = =
27%
 The two stands of DNA are held together by: = Hydrogen bond
Which form of DNB is predominantly seen? = C
 Chargaff rule state that: = A +G =T +C
 A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 32% adenine, 18% guanine, 17%
cytosine and
33% thymine. The nucleic acid must be = Doublestranded DNA
 Triple bonds are found between which base pairs? = C-G
 At the physiological pH The DNA molecular are: = Negatively charged
 Total number of genes in a human being is: = 30,000
 Triplex DNA is due to: = Hoogsteen pairing
 About DNA which of the following is true: = The nucleotide of one strand form bonds
with
nucleotide of opposite strand
 Which model of DNA was discovered by Watson and crick? = B DNA
 Total number of base pair in human haploid set of chromosome: = 3 billion
 Proteins seen in chromosomes are called: = Histones
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 Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively: = Uncondensed
 The long and short arms of chromosomes ar designated respectively as; = Q and p arms
 Y-chromosome is: = Acrocentic
 The protein rich in basic amino acids, which functions in the packaging of DNA in
chromosome,
is: = Histones
 Random inactivation of X chromosome is: = Lyonisation
 In the entire genome, the coding DNA constitutes how much? = 0.01
 Regarding synthesis of triacylglycerol in adipose tissue, all of the following are true
except: =
 The storage triacylglycerol are hydrolysed by: = Hormone sensitive lipase
 Hormone sensitive lipase 1cts on = Triglycerides
 Most abundantly synthesised Fatty acid in the body is? = Palmitic acid
 Which of the following is not a part of fatty acid synthase Complex? = Acetyl-CoA
carboxylase
 Mitochondria is Involved in A/E: = Fatty acid synthesis Fatty acid synthase complex
contain the following enzymes except: = Acetyl: CoA carboxylase
 NADH is required for = Fatty acid synthesis
 The first step in fatty acid synthesis involves = Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
 In fatty acid synthesis C02 loss occurs in which step? = Condensation reaction
 Carbon atoms added in fatty acid synthesis: = 4 in 1st cycle and 2 in llnd cycle
 PAN-SH site of fatty acid synthase complex accepts: = Malonyl-CoA
 Acetyl CoA acts as a substrate for all the enzymes except: = Malic enzyme
 In well fed state, the activity of Carnitine Palmitoyl Transferase-1 in outer mitochondrial
membrane is inhibited by: = Malonyl-CoA
 Number of ATP formed by oxidation of one molecule of palmitic acid (16 c): = 106
 Beta oxidation in peroxisome generate: = H20 2
 All are features of Refsum's disease except: = Deficiency of alpha hydroxylase
 Enzyme defect in Refsum's disease: = Phytanoyl alpha oxidase
 Adrenoleukodystrophy is associated with = Accumulation of very long chain fatty acids
 Beta-oxidation of palmitic acid yields: = 129 ATP net
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 Beta-oxidation in peroxisome is differentiated from that occurring in mitochondria by: =
H20 2
formed
 One of the following is obtained oxidation of odd chain fatty acids: = Acetyl-CoA +
Propionyl-CoA
 Which of the following takes place in low insulin/ glucagon ratio? == Ketogenesis
 Which of the following organs do not utilise ketone bodies? = RBC
 Ketone bodies can be utilised by all, except: = RBC
 Rothera's test used for detection of: ketones
 Which organ does not utilize ketone bodies? = Liver
 The immediate precursor in the formation of acetoacetate from acetyl-CoA in the liver is:
=
HMG-CoA
 In a well fed state, acetyl-CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis of: =
Acetoacetate
 The major fuel in the brain after several weeks of starvation is: = 13-Hydroxy butyrate
 Common enzyme in cholesterol and ketone body metabolism: = HMG-CoA synthase
 All are derived from cholesterol except: = Bile pigment
 Which of the following does not have cholesterol? = Adrenaline
 Which coenzyme act as reducing agent in anabolic reaction? = NADPH
 Enzyme common for synthesis of both ketone bodies and cholesterol: = HMG-CoA
synthase
 Bile acids are derived from: = Cholestero
 Bile acids synthesised in liver (primary bile acids): = Cholicacid
 Scavenger receptor is used in the metabolism of = HDL
 HDL has highest content of: Apolipoproteins
 Lipase that is regulated by glucagon: = Hormone sensitive lipase
 A patient has total cholesterol 300, TG 150, and HDL25. What would be the LDL value?
(All
values in mg/ dL) = 245
 Regarding LDL receptors, all are true except = Found only in extrahepatic tissue
 Which is the ligand for receptors present in liver for uptake of LDL? =apo 8100
Triglycerides are maximum in = chylomicrons
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 Increased level of lipoprotein (a) predisposes to = Atherosclerosis
 Main transporter of cholesterol to peripheral tissue: = LDL
 Which of the following lipoproteins does not move towards charged end in
electrophoresis: =
Chylomicron
 All of the following statement about lipoprotein Lipase are true, except: = Does not
require Cll as
cofactor
 All of the following statements about apoproteins true except: = Apoprotein C-11
inhibits
lipoprotein lipase
 Which of the following types of hypertriglyceridemia is associated with an increase in
chylomicron and VLDL remnants? = Type I
 The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of triacylglycerol by

weight is:
= Chylomicron
 Cholesterol from dietary sources is transported to the peripheral tissue by: = LDL
 Action of lipoprotein lipase is: = To form remnant lipoprotein
 In coronary artery disease the cholesterol level (mg/dl) recommended is = Below 200
 Lipoprotein X Is an indicator of: = Cholestatsis
 Which is the lipoprotein with lowest density? = VLDL
 Which of the following has highest electrophoretic mobility and least lipid content? =
HDL
 Which helps in the transport of chylomicrons from intestine to liver? = Apoprotein E
 Which of the following is an activator of LCAT? = Apo A-I
 Cholesterol presents ln LDL = on accumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDL

receptors
 A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which of the
following
lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood? = VLDL
 Which of the following is false about heparin? = Releases hormone sensitive lipase
 Lipoprotein a resembles: = Plasminogen
 In uncontrolled diabetes mellitus what is the cause of high level of VLDL and TAG =
Increased
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activity of hormone sensitive lipase and decreased lipoprotein lipase activity
 Defect In familial hypercholesterolemia = LDL receptor defect
 A patient with eruptive xanthomas drawn blood milky in appearance. Which lipoprotein
is
elevated in the plasma? = Chylomicron
 Very high total cholesterol, elevated LDL, normal level of LDL receptors. What is the
probable
cause?= Apo 8100 mutation
 Fish oil ls not used in the treatment of: = Type 2A Hyperlipoproteinemia
 Which of the following is increased in lipoprotein lipase deficiency? = Chylomicrons
 Familial hypercholesterolemia is: = Deficient LDL receptors
 Hypertriglyceridemia not seen in: = Hypothyroidism
 A patient was diagnosed with Isolated Increase in LDL. His father and brother had the
same
disease with increased cholesterol. The likely diagnosis is: = LDL receptor mutation
 Both Triglycerides and HDL Increased: = Alcoholism
 Absence of this apo lipoprotein is responsible for the genetic disorder, familial type Ill
hyperlipoproteinemia = Apo E Apolipoprotein of chylomicron is: = Apo B48
 Both triglycerides and HDL increased = Alcoholism
 Full form of LCAT = Lecithin cholesterol acyl-transferase
 Scavenger receptor is used in the metabolism of: = HDL
 HDL has highest content of: = Apolipoproteins
 Lipase that is regulated by glucagon: = Hormone sensitive lipase
 A patient has total cholesterol 300, TG 150, and HDL25. What would be the LDL value?
(All
values in mg/ dL) = 245
 Regarding LDL receptors, all are true except = Found only in extrahepatic tissue
 Which is the ligand for receptors present in liver for uptake of LDL? = Apo 8100
 Triglycerides are maximum in = Chylomicrons
 Increased level of lipoprotein (a) predisposes to = Atherosclerosis
 Main transporter of cholesterol to peripheral tissue: = LDL
 Which of the following lipoproteins does not move towards charged end in
electrophoresis: =
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Chylomicron
 All of the following statement about lipoprotein Lipase are true, except = Does not
require Cll as
cofactor
 All of the following statements about apoproteins true except: = Apoprotein C-11
inhibits
lipoprotein lipase
 Which of the following types of hypertriglyceridemia is associated with an increase in
chylomicron and VLDL remnants? =Type Ill
 The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of triacylglycerol by

weight is:
= Chylomicron
 Cholesterol from dietary sources is transported to the peripheral tissue by: = LDL
 Action of lipoprotein lipase is: = To form remnant lipoprotein
 In coronary artery disease the cholesterol level (mg/dl) recommended is = Below 200
 Lipoprotein X Is an indicator of: = Cholestatsis
 Which is the lipoprotein with lowest density? = VLDL
 Which of the following has highest electrophoretic mobility and least lipid content? =
HDL
 Which helps in the transport of chylomicrons from intestine to liver? = Apoprotein E
 Which of the following produces 3 ATP by anaerobic glycolysis? = Glycogen
 In anaerobic glycolysis, pyruvate is converted to lactate for: = Generation of NAO+
 The supplement used in FSGS is : = Galactose
 Which of the following is suitable test performed for diagnosis of Intestinal

malabsorption? =
 Respiratory quotient after exclusive carbohydrate meal is: = 1
 A 27-year lady developed severe hyperglycemia in pregnancy and it returned to normal

after
delivery. Her blood sugar is well under control without any medications. Her sisters and
mother
also have history of increased blood glucose during pregnancy, all were euglycemic after
delivery. What is the enzyme defect? = = PFK
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 Irreversible steps of Glycolysis are catalysed by = Hexokinase, Phosphofructokinase,
Pyruvate
Kinase Glycolysis occurs in: = Cytosol
 Irreversible step(s) in Glycolysis is/are = Phosphofructokinase
 Enzyme catalyzing reversible step in glycolysis is are: = Enolase
 In which of the following steps ATP is released? = =Phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvate
 What activate Kinases of glycolysis? = Insulin
 About glycolysis true is: = Conversion of glucose to 3C units
 Compound that joins glycolysis with glycogenesis and glycogenolysis: = Glucose 6 P04
 Key glycolytic enzymes: = Phosphofructokinase
 In glycolysis the first committed step is catalysed by: = Phosphofructokinase
 The rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis is: = Phosphofructokinase
 Cancer cells derive nutrition from: = Aerobic Glycolysi
 True statements about glucokinase is/are: = Km value is higher than normal blood sugar
 Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by which of the following regulating
pathways: =
Hypoxia stimulates release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane
 All except occurs on decrease in blood glucose level: = Increase in Fructose 2,6
Bisphosphate.
 The number of ATPs produced by Rapaport-leubering Cycle in RBC from Glucose: = 2
 Enzyme responsible for complete oxidation of glucose to co2 and water is present in: =
Mitochondria
 Substrate level phosphorylation is by = Pyruvate kinase
 The enzyme not involved in substrate level phosphorylation: = Phosphofructokinas
 The major metabolic product produced under normal circumstances by erythrocytes

and by
muscle cells during intense exercise is recycled through liver in the Cori cycle. The
metabolite is:
= Lactate
 Lactate produced anaerobically is used by = Cori cycle and gluconegenesis
 Cori's cycle is concerned with transport of = Lactate
 Lactate is formed in all except = Brain
 PFK-1 inhibitor = Citrate
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 RatelimitingstepinglycolysisisPFK-1. Which among the following is the most potent
allosteric
activator of PFK-H = Fructose 2, 6 bisphosphate
 The major role of 2,3 bisphospholycerate in RBCs is = Release of oxygen
 How many ATPs are used in energy investment phase of glycolysis ! = 2
 In Anaerobic glycolysis, end product is = 2ATP+2NADH
 In Anaerobic glycolysis, there is gain of = 2 ATP + 2 NAD
 No. of ATP produced in RBC in fed state ! = 2ATP
 No. of ATP produced in RBC in aerobic state! = 2ATP
 All tissues convert glucose to predominantly lactate EXCEPT: = Brain
 Which of the following is incorrect about RBCs = Lactate dehydrogenase is absent in

RBCs
 Which is a negative heterotropic allosteric modulator of glycolysis ! = Citrate
 About glycolysis true is = Conversion of glucose to 3 C Pyruvate
 What activate Kinase of glycolysis! = Insulin
 What is the end product of anaerobic glycolysis = Lactate
 Sodium fluoride inhibits which enzyme in Glycolysis = Enolase In Glycolysis which of

the ion is most important! = Mg
 The number of ATPs produced by Rapaport leu bering Cycle in RBC from Glucose! =2
 Example of allosteric inhibiton = Inhibition of PFK-1 by citrate
 Substrate level phosphorylation is by: = Pyruvate kinase
 All of the following enzymes catalyze irreversible steps in glycolysis EXCEPT = Enolase
 The regulatory steps in glycolysis are all EXCEPT = Enolase
 Net ATP yield of substrate level phosphorylation is = 4
 ATP's formed in anaerobic glycolysis of glucose are: = 2
 Post prandial utilization of glucose is by which enzyme = Glucokinase
 Which of the following is NOT true = Hexokinase is found in all cells
 Inhibition of glycolysis by increase supply of 0 2 is called = Pasteur effect
 Immediate metabolic products during conversion of Fructose 1-6 bisphosphate to 2

molecules
of pyruvate = Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate
 The purpose of extra step of anaerobic glycolysis is : = Replenishment of NAD
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 Zero ATP in RBC in glycolysis occurs in = Both a and b
 Fatty acid is not utilized by: =RBC
 Which is used for energy? = All of the above
 All the following are increased in fasting except: = Glycogenesis
 Which enzyme is active when insulin: glucagon ratio is low? = Glucose 6 Phosphatase
 Substrate used by RBC in fasting state is: = Glucose
 Lactic acidosis in thiamine deficiency is due to which enzyme dysfunction? = Pyruvate
dehydrogenas
 During exercise, most rapid way to synthesize ATP is: = Phosphocreatine
 Enzyme deficiency in Galactosemia: = Galactose 1 Phosphate Uridyl Transferase
 E Coli sepsis commonly seen in: = Galactosemia
 A patient has normal blood glucose level as estimated by Glucose-oxidase Peroxidase

method,
shows positive Benedicts test in urine. Which of the following is likely cause? = Galactosemia
 Galactosemia enzyme defect: = Galactose 1 Phosphate Uridyl Transferase
 A newborn baby refuses breast milk since the second day of birth, vomits on
force-feeding but
accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on third day , by fifth day she is jaundiced with
liver
enlargement and eyes show cataract. Urinary reducing sugar was positive but blood glucose
estimated by glucose oxidation method was found low. The most likely cause is deficiency of:
=
 A child presents with hepatomegaly and bilateral lenticular opacities. Deficiency of

which of the
following enzymes will not cause such features? = Lactase
 True regarding galactosemia: = Mental retardation occurs
 A baby boy 10-month-old comes with vomiting severe jaundice, hepatomegaly and
features of
irritability on starting weaning with fruit juice. Which of the following enzymes is defective?
=
 Fate of Fructose 6 Phosphate: = Glucuronic acid
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 Hereditary fructose Intolerance is due to deficiency of: = Aldolase B
 False about hereditary fructose intolerance: = Accumulation of fructose 1-phosphate in

tissues Metabolites in HMP shunt are all except = Glycerol-3- phosphate
 NADPH is produced by: = Glycolysis
 Reduced NADPH produced from which pathway: = Hexose monophosphate pathway
 Which of the following metabolic pathways does not generate ATP? = HMP pathway
 Severe thiamine deficiency is associated with: = Decreased RBC transketolase activity
 Product of uronic acid pathway inn human-beings are all except? = Vitamin C
 Uronic acid pathway is not involved in: = Vitamin C synthesis
 A baby boy 10 month old comes with vomiting severe jaundice, hepatomegaly and
feature of
irritability on starting weaning with fruit juice. Which of the following enzyme is defective? =
Adolase B
 Fate of fructose 6 phosphate: = N Acetyl glucosamine
 Hereditary fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of = Aldolase B
 False about fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of: = Accumulation of fructose

1-phosphate
in tissues
 Enzyme deficiency in glactosemia: = Galactose 1 phosphate uridyl transferase
 E coil sepsis commonly seen in: = Galactosemia
 A patient has normal blood glucose level as estimated by glucose-oxidase peroxidase

method,
shows positive Benedicts test in urine. Which of the following is likely cause? = Galactosemia
 Galactosemia enzyme defect; = Galactose 1 phosphate uridly transferase
 A newborn baby refuses breast milk since the second day of birth, vomits on
force-feeding but
accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on third day, by fifth day she is jaundiced with liver
enlargement and eyes show cataract. Urinary reducing sugar was positive but blood glucose
estimated by glucose oxidation method was found low. The most likely cause is deficiency of:
=
Galactose 1
 A child presents with hepatomegaly ad bilateral lenticular opacities. Deficiency of which

of the
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following enzyme will not cause such features = UDP galactose 4-epimerase
 Fatty acid is not utilized by: = RBC
 All of the following are increased inn fasting except: = Ketogenesis
 Substrate used by RBC in fasting state is: = Glucose
 Lactic acidosis in thiamine deficiency is due to which enzyme dysfunction? = Pyruvate
dehydrogenase
 During exercise, most rapid way to synthesize ATP is: = Glycogenolysis
 The enzyme deficient in Galactosemia is: = Galactose 1- phosphate uridyl transferase
 Products ofHMP shunt are all except: = Glycerol-3- P
 HMP is the only source for: = Ribose-5-P
 NADPH is produced from: = Malic enzyme
 Which pathway does not generate ATP ? == HMP
 Severe thiamine deficiency is associated with = Decreased RBC transketolase activity
 Which of the following metabolic pathway in carbohydrate metabolism is required for

nucleic
acid synthesis ? = Glycogenesis
 Rate limiting step in HMP ? = Glucose-6-P Dehydrogenase
 HMP shunt occurs in all organs EXCEPT : = Non Lactating mammary glands
Glutathione is a = Tripeptide
 Reduced NADPH is produced by: = Hexose monophosphate pathway
 Source of ribose is = HMP shunt
 Pentose pathway produces = NADPH
 Glutamate dehydrogenase requires cofactor = Both a and b
 Dehydrogenases ofHMP shunt are specific for= NADP
 Most important factor which causes lactic acidosis in alcoholics = None of the above
 NADPH is generated in the reaction catalysed by = G6PD
 NADPH in extramitochondrial site helps in the production of = Steroids
 Reducing substance used in Anabolic reactions= NADPH + H+
 A breast-fed infant began to vomit frequently and lose weight. Several days later she
developed
jaundice, hepatomegaly and bilateral cataract. What is the possible cause for these
symptoms?
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= Galactosemia
 Galactosemia commonly is due to deficiency of: = Galactose-!-P Uridyl transferase
 Reducing sugar in urine is seen in: = Galactosemia
 Oil drop cataract is produced because of the activity of which enzyme? = Fructose
dehydrogenase
 Oil drop cataract is due to accumulation of = Dulcitol
 A child presents with hepatomegaly and bilateral lenticular opacities. Deficiency of

which of the
following enzyme will not cause such features = Gal-1-P uridyl transferase
 E.coli sepsis is commonly seen in: = galactosemia
 Enzyme deficiency in galactosemia = Galactokinase
 Familial fructokinase deficiency causes no symptoms because = Hexokinase can

phosphorylate
fructose
 Which will cause post-prandial hypoglycemia'? = Fructose
 Fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of'? = Aldolase B
 Which of the following is not metabolised in our body' = Sucrose
 An enzyme involved in fructose metabolism is : = Glyceraldehyde-3-P Dehydrogenase
 Essential fructosuria occurs due to deficiency of = Fructokinase
 A patient has blood glucose levels by GOD-POD method to be normal. But urine shows
positive
Benedict's test. The Reason is: = Fructosemia
 Snow flake cataract is produced because of which enzyme' = Aldose reductase
 What can be prevented in a Diabetic patient by giving c--~ar_, drugs which are Aldose
Reductase
inhibitors 1 = Cataract
 Products ofuronic acid pathway in human beings are all except: = Vitamin C
 Glucose is converted to glucuronic acid by = Oxidation of terminal alcohol
 Essential pentosuria is due to deficiency of = Xylulose reductase
 All are true about Hexose monophosphate pathway (HMP) except: = Occurs in testes,
ovaries,
placenta and adrenal cortex
 All are true about galactosemia except: Disease manifest only at adolescence
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 UDP glucose is used for:- = Galactose metabolism A four-year-old child with exercise
intolerance. On investigation Blood pH 7.3, FBS 60 mg%,
hypertriglyceridemia, ketosis and lactic acidosis. The child had hepatomegaly and
renomegaly.
Biopsy of liver and kidney showed increased glycogen content. What is the diagnosis? = Von
Gierke's Disease
 Glycogen Phosphorylase, coenzyme is: = Pyridoxal Phosphate
 Glycogenin primer is glucosylated by = UDP Glucose
 A female infant appeared normal at birth but developed signs of liver disease one
month of age
and muscle weakness at 3 months and severe hypoglycemia on early morning awakening.
Examination revealed hepatomegaly, laboratory analysis showed ketoacidosis, pH 7 .2,
increased AST and ALT over 1000 IU. Intravenous administration glucagon followed by meals
normalised blood levels, but glucose levels did not rise when glucagon was administered
overnight fast. Liver biopsy was done and glycogen constituted (8%) of wet weight. With the
above clinical picture which of the following enzyme is deficient? = Debranching enzyme
 Why Glucose 6 Phosphate in the cytoplasm of hepatocyte is not acted upon by Glucose
6
Phosphatase as soon as it is formed? = Need Protein Kinase for its activation
 The reason for ketosis in von Gierke's Disease are all except: = Fatty acid mobilisation is
low
 A child with low blood glucose is unable to do glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis. Which

of the
following enzyme is missing in the child? = Glucose 6 Phosphatase
 In which of the following tissues, is glycogen incapable of contributing directly to blood

glucose:
= Muscle
 In humans carbohydrates are stored as: = Glucose
 Glycogen is released from the muscle due to increased cAMP due to: = Thyroxine
 Pancreatic alpha amylase: = Hydrolyses starch to limit dextrin
 A 5 years old boy presents with hepatomegaly, hypoglycaemia, ketosis. The diagnosis is:
=
 Glycogen Phosphorylase can be regulated by all following EXCEPT: = Glycogenin
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 Cofactor for Glycogen Phosphorylase: = Thiamine Pyrophosphate
 Pompe's disease is due to deficiency of: = Acid Maltase
 Glycogen storage disorder is/are: = McCardles disease
 How many hours for depletion of glycogen? = 18
 In the fed state, major fate of glucose-6-phosphate in tissues is: = Storage as

glyceraldehyde-3-
phosphate
 Which of the following is a debranching enzyme? = Amylo(1,6) glucosidase
 Sequence of events in glycogenolysis: = Phosphorylase, glucan transferase, debranching,
phosphorylase
 Muscles are not involved in which glycogen storage disease? = I
 An infant has hepatosplenomegaly, hypoglycaemia, hyperlipidemia, acidosis & normal
structured glycogen deposition in liver. What is the diagnosis: = Von Gierke's disease
 Glycogen storage diseases include all the following except = Fabry's disease
 The cause of hyperuricemia and gout in glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency is: = More

formation
of pentose A 10year old boy rapidly develops hypoglycemia after moderate activity.
Blood examination
reveals raised levels of ketone bodies, lactic acid and triglycerides. On examination, liver and
kidneys were enlarged. Histopathology of liver shows deposits of glycogen in excess amount.
What is the diagnosis? = Von Gierke's disease
 Which vitamin is required for glycogen phosphorylase? = PLP (Pyridoxal phosphate)
 Glycogen phosphorylase is regulated by all except: = Glycogenin
 A 28-year-old professional cyclist has been training for an opportunity to go for a long
race. His
coach strongly suggests the intake of carbohydrates after the work out to ensure a muscle
glycogen storage. The activity of muscle glycogen synthase in resting muscles is increased by
the
action of which of the following? = Insulin
 Muscle cannot make use of glycogen because of deficiency of: = Glucose-6-phosphatase
 Muscle cannot maintain blood glucose because of deficiency of =

 Major carbohydrate store in the body is = Hepatic glycogen
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 A 15-year-old type 1 diabetic faints after injecting himself with insulin. He is
administered
Glucagon and rapidly recovers consciousness. Glucagon induces activity of = Glycogen
phosphorylase
 Glycogen synthase is the regulatory enzyme for c.-.,..&L, glycogen synthesis. It adds
glucose
residues to the nonreducing ends of a glycogen primer from = UDP- Glucose
 Glycogenin is a: = Polypeptide
 The enzymes of glycogenesis are present in = Cytosol
 Pyridoxine is required in = Glycogenesis
 Coenzyme associated with enzyme glycogen phosphorylase = Pyridoxal phosphate
 If muscle glycogen is used for anaerobic glycolysis, how many ATPs are formed = 3
 Which of the yields 3 molecules of ATP under anaerboic metabolism = Galactose
 All are sources of glucose EXCEPT = Muscle glycogen
 In glycogen, the linkage at branch points is = Alpha-1,6
 A 30-year-old presents with intractable vomiting and inability to eat or drink for the past
3 days.
His blood glucose level is normal. Which of the following is most important for maintenance
of
Blood glucose = Liver
 Glycogen phosphorylase degrades glycogen to produce: = Glucose-1-P
 Which enzyme is not present in muscles? = Glucose-6-phosphatase
 Glycogenolysis is best described by which of the following statements ? = Requires a

bifunctional
enzyme (debranching and transferase)
 Which of the following statements explains the synthesis of glycogen directly from D-
Glucose =
 During the breakdown of glycogen, free glucose is formed from which of the following =
The
reducing end
 Glycogen phosphorylase degrades glycogen to produce: Glucose-1-P
 Glycogenesis from Glucose-I-P requires which of the following = Uridine triphosphate

(UTP)
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 Glycogen catabolism is best described by which of the following statements = It is not a
major
pathway in the brain The degradation of glycogen normally produces which of the
following = Equal amount of
Glucose and Glucose-!-P
 The energy for glycogenesis is derived from : = UTP
 UDP-glucose is not used in: = Galactose metabolism
 In starvation how many hours needed for depletion ofglycogen = 18
 Which of the following is a Debranching enzyme? = Amylo a 1,6-glucosidase
 Glycogen is released from muscle due to increased cAMP due to: = Insulin
 Alpha amylase secreted by pancreas digest starch into which ofthe following major
products? =
 A 3-month-old infant presents with hepatosplenomegaly and failure to thrive. A liver

biopsy
reveals glycogen with an abnormal, amylopectin like structure with long outer chains and
missing branches. Which of the following enzymes would most likely be deficient? =
Branching
enzyme
 A 30-year-old male presents with severe muscle cramps. His blood lactate levels did not
increase
after exercise. His blood glucose by GOD-POD levels was found to be normal. He has = Me
Ardle's disease
 All of the following are associated with non-ketotic hypoglycemia, EXCEPT = Von gierke's
disease
 Increased uric acid levels are seen in which glycogen storage disease = Type I
 Most common glycogen storage disease presenting with hypoglycemia and normal
glycogen
structure = Pompe's disease
 Pompe's disease is due to deficiency of: = Acid maltase
 Enzyme deficient in Hers disease = Acid maltase
 Me Ardle's disease is due to deficiency of = Liver phosphorylase
 Glycogen storage disease which presents as lysosomal storage disease = Pompe's

disease
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 Hypoglycemia is more severe in type 1 Glycogen storage disease as compared to type 6
Glycogen storage disease because: = No gluconeogenesis in type 1 disease
 Baby has hypoglycaemia, specially early morning hypoglycaemia. Glucagon given. It

raises blood
glucose if given after meals But does not raises blood glucose if given during fasting. Liver
biopsy
shows increased glycogen deposits. Enzyme defect is ? = Branching enzyme
 In VonGierke's disease, the levels of ketone bodies are increased due to all except: =
OAA is
required for gluconeogenesis
 Glycogen synthesis and breakdown takes place in the same cell, having enzymes
necessary for
both pathways. Why is Glucose-6-phosphate produced during glycogenesis in the cytoplasm

of
liver cells, not acted upon by Glucose-6-phosphatase enzyme? = Glucose-6-phosphatase is
present in endoplasmic reticulum while glycogen is in the cytoplasm
 Enzyme involved in both glycogenesis and glycogenolysis is? = Phosphoglucomutase
 In glycogen metabolism, some metabolically active important enzymes found in the liver
are
converted from their inactive dephosphorylated state to active phosphorylated state. Which
of
the following is true? = Catecholamines directly stimu
 Glycogen storage disorder (s) is/are: = Pompe's disease
 What happens to LDH 1 & 2 ration in MI? = LDH1 > LDH 2
 True about isoenzymes is: = Catalyse the same reaction Non- functional enzyme are
all except? = Lipoprotein lipase
 Peroxidase enzyme is used in estimating: = glucose
 Which of the following estimate blood creatinine level most accuracy? = Enzyme assay
 LDH-5 level elevated in which cell injury? = Liver
 Which of the following LDH is having fastest electrophoretic mobility? = LDH-1
 Which enzyme is deficient in c/c alcoholics? = Alpha Ketogultarate Dehydrogenase
 Alcohol Dehydrogenase comes under which class of enzyme? = Oxidoreductase
 Suicidal enzyme is = Cyclooxygenase
 Which of the following is Lyase? =Adolase B
1225
 All are true about oxygenases, except: = Catalyse carboxylation of drugs
 All of the following enzymes are involved in oxidation reduction, except: = Hydrolases
 Enzyme which cleave C-C bond = Lyase
 Velocity at Km is: = Half the Vmax
 Coenzyme in decarboxylaton reaction: = Pyridoxine
 The type of enzyme inhibition in which succinate dehydrogenase reaction is inhibited by
malonate is an example of: = Competitive
 Which is true about enzyme kinetics for competitive inhibition? = High km low affinity
 Non- competitive enzyme inhibition leads to = Vmax?
 Non- competitive reversible inhibitors = Lower Vmax
 Km changes and Vmax remains the same. What is the type of enzyme inhibition? =
Competitive
inhibition
 Allosteric regulation true is? = Binds to site other than active site
 All of the covalent modification regulate enzyme kinetic except: = Glycosylation
 The following affect enzyme activity except: = Induction
 Chymotrypsinogen is a = Zymogen
 A common feature of all serine proteases is: = Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at
the
active site
 Trypsin is a: = Serine protease
 Marker enzyme for Golgi apparatus = Galactosyl transferase
 Enzyme activity is expressed as = Micromoles/min
 Enzymedoesnotactby = Increasing activation energy
 Mechanism of action of enzymes is all EXCEPT = Catalysis by denaturation
 Specific activity of enzyme is = Enzyme units per mg of protein
 Serine of chymotrypsin is changed with proline. Which of the following will happen ? =
 Trypsin cleaves carboxy terminal of: = Arginine
 Non vitamin coenzyme is = Lipoic acid
 Coenzymes are ..... organic compounds = Non-protein
 Apoenzyme is = Proein moiety
1226
 Aldehyde dehydrogenase requires NAD+ to act. Here NAD+ is termed as = Coenzyme
 FAD linked dehydrogenase is = Succinate dehydrogenase
 Kinases require: = Mg2+ Zinc is cofactor for = Carbonic anhydrase
 Alkaline phosphatase contains = Zinc
 Copper contining enzymes are all except = Xanthine oxidase
 Activator of enzyme sulfite oxidase is: = Molybdenum
 Carboxylases require = Vitamin B7
 Cofactor for glutathione peroxidase = Se
 Other name of AST = SGOT
 LDH has how many isoenzymes = 5, based on H and M polypeptide subunits
 The predominant isoenzyme of LDH occurring in liver injury is = LDH-5
 Which isoform of LDH is raised in hemolytic anemia = LDH2
 Abzyme is a/an = Antibody with a catalytic activity
 Definition ofRibozyme = RNA molecule that acts catalytically to change it self or another
RNA
molecule
 Enzymes found in CSF = CK+LDH
 Chymotrypsin cleaves carbonyl terminal of: = Phenylalanine
 Trypsin cleaves = Arginine
 Hydrolase belongs to enzyme category number = 1 (0ne)
 Which of the following is a lyase -= All of the above
 Fumarase is an example of = Lyase
 Digestive enzymes are = Hydro lases
 Carbon mono-oxide (CO) is released in reaction catalyzed by = Heme oxygenase
 The difference in MW between Phenylalanine and Tyrosine is by : = 16
 Hydratase belongs to enzyme category number = 4
 In Hydroxylation reactions, the change in MW is by: = 16
 Enzyme which cleaves C-C bond : = Lyase
 All are true about oxygenase except = Help in carboxylation of drugs
 Which ofthe following enzymes does not participate in oxidation-reduction reactions =

Hydro
lases
1227
 Competitive inhibition - characteristic feature is = Km increased
 Which among the following is a feature of non competetive inhibition = Decreased V

max
 Km of an enzyme is = The substrate concentration at half maximum velocity
 Which of the following is a functional plasma enzyme! = Prothrombin
 All are non-functional Plasma enzymes, except = Lipoprotein lipase
 Which statementisfalse about covalent modification = It uses the same enzyme for
activation
and inactivation
 Allosteric modulators seldom resemble the substrate or product of the enzyme. What
does this
observation show: = Modulators likely bind at a site other than the active site
 Which statement is false about allosteric regulation = It is usually the mode of

regulation for the
last step in reaction pathway
 Defective proteins are degraded after attaching covalently to = Ubiquitin
 True regarding ubiquitin is = Involved in protein destruction
 Proteins which are bound to ubiquitin are degraded in = Proteosomes Ubiquitin is

involved in = Intracellular proteolysis
 Ubiquitin protein is degraded by = Proteosome
 Which of the following is a suicide enzyme = Cyclooxygenase
 Suicidal enzyme is = Cycloxygenase
 Enzyme inhibited by allopurinolis = Xanthine oxidase
 Mechanism of conversion of trypsinogen to trypsin = Removal of part of protein
 All of the following are covalent modifications of enzyme regulation EXCEPT: =

Glycosylation
 Which of the following method is for regulating the enzyme's quantity = Induction
 Mechanisms for regulating enzyme activity is/are = Covalent modification
 True about competitive inhibition of enzyme = Km
 Non-competitive enzyme inhibition leads to: = Vmax,J
 True about reversible non-competetive inhibitor = Not affect Km
 True about Km = Substrate concentration at which reaction rate is half the maximum
 The form of glucose predominantly seen is as: = D Glucopyranose
1228
 The glycemic index is highest for: = Glucose
 Glucose detection can be done by the all except? = Ferric chloride test
 Which of the following carbohydrate metabolism is used for liver function assessment?
=Galactose tolerance test
 Which deposition result in cataract? = Sugar alcohols
 Cellulose is: = Non starch polysaccharide
 A 4-yrs-boy with mental retardation, dysostosis multiplex, coarse facial feature, clear
cornea.
What is the diagnosis? = Hunter's Disease
 Mucopolysaccharide that does not contain uronic acid residue is: = Keretan sulphate
 Mucopolysacchridoses which is a lysosomal storage disease, occur due to abnormally in:

=
Hydrolase enzyme
 Heparin is a: = Glycosa amino glycan
 Glycogenin is a: = Polypeptide
 Complex polysaccharides which are converted to glucose are absorbed by the helo of =
Na + K+
ATPase
 After overnight fasting, level of glucose transporters reduced in = Adipocyte
 Glucose transporter in myocyte stimulated by insulin is: = GULT-4
 Defect in renal glucosuria: = SGLT 2
 Facilitated transport of glucose that is insulin insensitive (non- dependent) takes place in:
=
Adipose tissue
 Glucose transporter presents in the RBC: = GLUT-1
 The monosaccharide with maximum rate of absorption in intestine is: = Galactoss
 Mitochondria are involved in all of the following except: = Cholesterol synthesis
 Which offollowing does not occur in mitochondria? = Fatty acid synthesis
 Which of the following is active in dephosphorylated state? = Glycogen synthase
 Insulin promotes lipogenesis by all except = Inhibiting pyruvate dehydrogenase
 Hormone sensitive lipase is not activated by = Insulin
1229
 Which of the following is not seen in low insulin glucagon ratio? = Glycogen storage
histamine
= Decarboxylation
 Entropy is a measure of the: = Randomness in a system
 Glowing of firefly is due to = ATP
 Storage form offree eneragy in the cell = ATP
 Thermogenic food is which ofthe following = High protein diet
 Which is required in Anabolic reactions: = NADP
 Which of the following is active in dephosphorylated state? = Glycogen synthase
 Rossman fold associated NADH domain is found in which of the following enzyme =
Isocitrate
Dehydrogenase
 All occur in mitochondria except = Glycolysis
 The biosynthesis ofthe enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is repressed by = = Insulin
 Preferred fuel for body in fasting state ? = Carbohydrate
 The enzyme activated with low Insulin: Glucagon ratio is? = Glucose 6 phosphatase
 NADPH is produced by: = Isocitrate dehydrogense
 Which of the following enzymes are activated in dephosphorylated state: = HMG Co A

reductase
 Enzyme regulated by phosphorylation: = Glycogen
 What is effect of cortisol on metabolism = T Gluconeogenesis
 Source of energy for a running race athlete for the initial3 minutes of running = Creative
phosphate
 Cellulose is not broken due to beta anomerism at : = Cl
 Inulin is not broken due to beta anomerism at: = C2
 Which of the following is not correct 1 = Parent carbohydrate which gives rise to other
carbohydrates is Glycerol
 Dextrose is: = D + glucose
 Which is correct! = Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L
 Number of isomers possible for glucose are: = 16
 Which of the following statement about Isomerism is NOT CORRECT = Racemase

enzyme
1230
interconverts D and L isomers into each other
 Parent alcohol in carbohydrates is: = Glycerol
 Heparin is a: = Glycosaminoglycan
 Which enzyme is deficient in Hunter's syndrome = Iduronate sulfatase
 The monosaccharide with maximum rate of absorption in intestine is = Galactose
 Glucosamines used in following condition: = Arthritis
 Heparin is a: = Glycosa amino glycan (GAG)
 Which form of carbohydrate is present in Glycoprotein 1 = Monosaccharide
 A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels very uncomfortable.
His
stomach becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhoea frequently. These symptoms do
not appear when he eats food other than dairy products. Which of the following is most
likely
enzyme in which this young man is deficient: = Beta galactosidase
 Which test is given positive by Glyceraldehyde? = Benedicts test
 Which of the following is branched: = Starch Non-reducing disaccharide is = Sucrose
 Sucrose is hydrolyzed by = Invertase
 Which is NOT a hexose sugar! = Ribose
 Which of the following is a component of polysaccharide Chitin = Glucosarnine
 Hyaluronic acid is a mucopolysaccharide present in = Both
 Which disaccharide is NOT broken down in GIT'! = Lactulose
 The rate of absorption of sugars by the small intestine is highest for = Hexoses
 D-Xylose test is used in diagnosis of - = Malabsorption syndrome
 Number of -OH groups in ribose '? = 4
 Which of the following enzyme helps in catalyzing conversion of aldose sugars to ketose
sugars'?
= Isomerase
 Most common dietary fibre is = Cellulose
 Cellulose is a: = Non starch polysaccharide
 Glycosaminoglycans present in cornea: = Keratan Sulfate
 Excess of which of the following can result in cataract' = Sugar alcohol
 All are functions of glycosaminoglycans except = Transport of lipids
1231
 Side chain linkage in proteoglycons = Covalent
 Identify the correct statement: = SGLT-2 is specific for glucose
 Defect in renal glucosuria = SGLT 2
 Secondary active Glucose transport occurs along with = Na+
 Glucose is transported in pancreas through which receptor = GLUT 2
 GLUT-5 is transporter for = Fructose
 Which of the following does not depend on insulin for glucose uptake = Brain
 Glucose transporter present in erythrocytes {RBCs}:- = GLUT- I
 GLUT responsible for secretion of insulin from beta cells of pancreas = 2
 Mutation in GLUT-2 causes = Fanconi-Bickel syndrome
 Which out of the following is Insulin dependent'? = GLUT-4
 Which of the following is not correct'? = This sodium-glucose symport carries 3 Na+ for
each
glucose
 After an overnight fast, GLUTs are reduced in = Adipose Tissues
 GLUT (glucose transporter) present in neurons is: = GLUT-3
 Which ofthe following are epimers: = D-Galactose and D-Glucose
 Which form of glucose and fructose is predominant '? = P
 Which ofthe following is a keto sugar? = Fructose
 Active uptake of glucose is inhibited by = Phlorizin
 All are true about glycosaminoglycans except: = Highly positively charged
 Hyaluronic acid is composed of: = Longest glycosaminoglycan
 In Benedict test, red colour is/are produced by: = Fructose
 Mucopolysacchidosis, which is a lysosomal storage disease, occurs due to abnormality

in:
Hydrolase enzyme = Hydrolase enzyme
 Danaparoid contains: = Keratin sulphate
 Reilly bodies are seen in? = Hurler disease Which of the following has highest
glycemic index = Glucose
 Which ofthe following test cannot be done for glucose estimation 1 = Ferric chloride test
 Which of the following carbohydrate test is used for assessment of liver function 1 =
Galactose
1232
 A five year old boy with coarse facial features, mental retardation , dysostosis multiplex.
Corneal
clouding was not present. What is the diagnosis 1 = Hunter disease
 An example of Anaplerotic rection is: = Pyruvate to oxaloacetate
 A chronic alcoholic have low energy product" because of Thiamine deficiency as it is: =
Acting as
a cofactor for alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and pyruvate dehydrogenase
 In which step of TCA cycle ATP is generated = Succinate thiokinase
 All of the following amino acids forms Acetyl CoA via Pyruvate Dehydrogenase =
Tyrosine
 A child ingested cyanide and rushedto the emergency room. Which of the following of
citric acid
cycle is inhibited at the earliest? = Aconistase
 Which of the following is not an intermediate of TCA cycle? = Acetyl CoA
 Which of the following is true about Krebs cycle? = Alpha ketoglutarate is a five carbon
compound
 Which of the following substance binds to CoA and condenses oxaloacetate to inhibit
the TCA
cycle? - = Fluoroacetate
 First substrate of Krebs cycle is: = Oxaloacetate
 Hyperammonemia inhibits TCA cycle by depleting:= Alpha ketoglutarate
 What is liberated when citrate converted to Cis Aconitate? = H2O
 False about reducing equivalents is: = Only produced during primary metabolic pathway
 High energy phosphate is not produced in: = Hexose Monophosphate pathway
 Which of the following statement about Link reaction is CORRECT? = This reaction
requires
Lipoic acid and four B-complex Vitamins
 Major source of Acetyl CoA = Pyruvate
 Thiamine deficiency results in decrease energy production, because TPP: = Is cofactor

for
pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
 Which ofthe following is/ are incorrect = Fats can be converted to carbohydrates
 Pyruvate Dehydrogenase complex has all enzyme components EXCEPT = Dehydrogenase
1233
 Which ofthe following is reversible enzyme ? = Lactate dehydrogenase
 Which of the following vitamins does not participate in oxidative decarboxylation of

Pyruvate to
Acetyl CoA 1 = Biotin
 Congenital Lactic Acidosis may occur due to defect in = Pyruvate dehydrogenase
 A baby is hypotonic and shows that pyruvate cannot form Acetyl CoA in fibroblasts. Also
lactic
acidosis is found. Administration of which of the following can revert this situation 1 =
Thiamine
 Pyruvate dehydrogenase contains all except: = Biotin
 Acetyl CoA can be directly converted to all except = Glucose
 Which is not the intermediate of TCA cycle ? = Acetyl CoA
 Cyanide taken up by child. First one to be affected in Kreb's cycle is = NAD
 Thiokinase ofTCAproduces = Both a and b
 Which among the following controls is an allosteric inhibitor ofTCA cycle? = !so-citrate
dehydrogenase Which ofthe following is anaplerotic reaction: = Conversion of pyruvate

to oxaloacetate
 WhyTCA cycle is called amphibolic cycle' = It is both endothermic and exothermic
 Succinate dehydrogenase is inhibited by'? - == Malonate
 What is liberated when Citrate converted to Cis Aconitate' = H20
 Which of the following enters the TCA cycle at succinyl-CoA step 1 = Methionine
 Which ofthe following is NOT required in TCA cycle = Pyridoxine
 In TCA cycle of tricarboxylic acid, which is first formed'? = Citrate
 How many ATPs are formed in the TCA cycle from acetyl coenzyme A (one molecule) =
10
 A ketoglutarate dehydrogenase is inhibited by( = === Arsenite
 Citrate synthase is inhibited by = ATP
 The net ATP yield when one molecule of pyruvate is completely oxidized to C02 and H20
is: =
12.5
 Which one of the following can be converted to an intermediate of citric acid cycle or
can enter
urea cycle:- = Aspartate
1234
 All ofthe following are correct EXCEPT: = Iodoacetate inhibits Glycerol-3-Phosphate De-
~
hydrogenase
 Enzyme responsible for complete oxidation of glucose to C02 and H20 is present in : =
Mitochondria
 Two carbon atoms which leave in the form of C02 in TCA, are derived from =
Oxaloacetate
 Unaltered final product of TCA: = Oxaloacetate
 First substrate ofKreb's cycle is: = Acetyl CoA
 Which of the following substance binds to CoA and condenses Oxaloacetate to inhibit
TCA cycle
= Fluoroacetate
 Which inhibitor of TCA acts by blocking Citrate' = Fluoroacetate
 In TCA, C02 is released by: = Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenas
 Source of energy in TCA is : = NADH
 NAD acts as a cofactor for: = Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
 Anaplerotic reaction is catalyzed by: = =Pyruvate carboxylase
 Number of Dehydrogenases in TCA cycle is/ are = 4
 Which of the following is not the dehydrogenase of TCA: = Pyruvate dehydrogenase
 Rate limiting step ofTCA = All
 ATPs obtained from one Acetyl CoA via TCA = 10
 Which enzyme of TCA is present in inner mitochondrial membrane : = Succinate

dehydrogenase
 Which molecule is regarded as carrier ofTCA cycle = Oxaloacetate
 TCA cycle depends on: = Availability of Oxaloacetate
 Products formed from alcohol but not the intermediate ofTCA cycle? = Acetaldehyde
 Oxalo-acetate + Acetyl-Co-A -> Citrate + Co-ASH This reaction is = Irreversible
 Thiamine requirement increases in excessive intake of: = Carbohydrates
 The type of enzyme inhibition in which succinate dehydrogenase reaction is inhibited by
malonate is an example of: = Competitive
 What is the basis ofthis statement - 'FATS Burn in the flame of carbohydrates = Acetyl
CoA is
1235
oxidized completely in the presence of oxaloacetate In traumatic brain injury, changes in
brain metabolism are seen. All are true EXCEPT = Increased
CSF lactate is associated with good prognosis
 Glycolytic enzymes( s) inhibited by Fluoride: = Enolase
 2,3-BPG binds to_ sites of hemoglobin and __ the affinity for oxygen? = 1, decreases
 Which of the following enzymes catalyze the irreversible step of glycolysis? =

Glucokinase,
phosphofructokinase, pyruvate kinase
 True statement regarding Lactate dehydrogenase deficiency: = Exercise intolerance
 Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex uses following coenzymes/cofactors: = Lipoic acid
 In conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and C02, which ofthe following coenzyme is
used: =
Lipoic acid
 Irreversible step{s) in glycolysis is/are: = Phosphofructokinase
 High energy phosphate compound is/ are: = ATP
 True about Acetyl CoA = All are correct
 Enzyme catalyzing reversible step in glycolysis is I are = Enolase
 NAD acts as a cofactor for: = Isocitrate dehydrogenase
 Which of the following is not a glucogenic substrate in humans = Acetyl CoA
 Respiratory quotient after exclusive carbohydrate meal is: = 1
 Which of the following is a physiological uncoupler? = Thyroxine
 True about effect of 2,4 Dinitrophenol is: = Oxygen consumption is increased
 Transport of ADP in and ATP out of mitochondria Is inhibited by: =Atractyloside
 The electron flow in cytochrome C oxidase can be blocked by: = Cyanide
 Cytosolic cytochrome C mediates: = Apoptosis
 The specialized mammalian tissue/organ in which fuel oxidation serves not to produce
ATP but
to generate heat is: = Brown adipose tissue
 Electron transport chainInvolves all except = NADP
 FO-F1complex, ATP synthase inhibitor is: = Oligomycin
 Respiratory Quotient 0.7is seen in: = Fat
 Phenobarbftone inhibits which complex of ETC? = Complex I
1236
 Dinitrophenol inhibits the electron transport chain by: = Inhibits ATP synthesis but not
electron
transport chain
 Mechanism of Cyanide poisoning: = Inhibition of cytochrome oxidase
 Final acceptor of electrons In ETC is: = oxygen
 Malate shuttle is required for: = Glycolysis
 If Aerobic glycolysis uses glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle, How many ATPs are produced? =
5ATP
 NADPH via glycerol phosphate shuttle gives how manyATPs? = 3
 Reason of presence of less ATP forming- glycerol-P- shuttle in brain are all EXCEPT : =
After going
in brain in ETC, it gives high energy
 Glycerol-P-shuttle is more important in: -== Brain and skeletal muscles
 Which is the only non-protein member of ETC 1 = CoQ
 Cytochrome c oxidase requires: = CU
 ATPs given by complex IV of ETC are: = 0.5
 Which component transfers 4 protons? = Complex I ETC is located in : = Inner

mitochondrial membrane
 Which of the following is not true regarding ETC 1 = Occurs in mitochondrial matrix
 Mitochondrial membrane contains a protein which is transporter of = ATP
 Which couple has minimum Redox potential = NAD+/NADH
 Most important source of ATP 1 = Oxidative phosphorylation
 Which of the following is a physiological uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation: =

Thermogenin
 Reducing power is usually in the form of = Oxidised NADH
 True about NADP = All are true
 In malate shuttle, NADH produces how many ATPs? = 2.5
 Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation = 2DNP
 Mechanism of action of uncouplers = Inhibition of ATP synthesis only not ETC
 Barbiturates act on which step of mitochondrial respiratory chain? = Complex I to

Co-enzyme Q
 CO binds with which complex of the electron transport chain? = Complex IV
 ATP is generated in ETC by -= = FoFl ATPase
1237
 Enzyme involved in oxidative phosphorylation = NADH dehydrogenase
 Which of the component of respiratory chain reacts directly with molecular oxygen =
Cyt aa3
 Last electron acceptor in Electron Transport Chain is = Oxygen
 Atractyloside act as = Inhibitor of oxidative phosphorylation
 Chemi-osmotic coupling of oxidative phosphorylation is related to = ATP generation by

pumping
of proton
 Hydrogen sulphide acts on which complex of cytochrome oxidase? Complex IV
 Main source of ATP production is = Oxidative phosphorylation
 NADH via glycerolphosphate shuttle makes how many ATPs = 1..5
 In ETC NADH generates = 2.5ATPs
 Creatinine is the breakdown product of = Creatine phosphate
 Complex I of ETC is inhibited by = Amobarbital
 Barbiturate act on ETC complex = 1
 Which is the inhibitor of Cytochrome oxidase? = Cyanide
 Cyanide is toxic because it = inhibits cytochrome oxidase
 Cyanide affects respiratory chain by = Non-competitive irreversible inhibition
 The following poisions act by causing inhibition of d. Carboxin complex IV of respiratory

chain
except = Malonate
 True about 2, 4- Dinitrophenols is? = Prevents ATP synthesis and electron transport
chain s
increased
 Electrons in electron transport chain travel from = Low to high potential
 Which vitamin is used in ETC! = Nicotinic acid
 Which of the following vitamin is a component of ETC! = Riboflavin
 MELAS inhibit all ETC Complexes except
 Options I
 II
 III
 IV Oxidative phosphorylation not inhibited by
1238
 Options
 Fluoride
 2, 4-dinitrophenol (DNP)
 Oligomycin
 Carboxin
 In ETC, Oxidative phosphylartion (ATP formation) is regulated by:
 NADH Co-Q reductase
 Cytochrome C oxidase
 Glutathione reductase
 Isocitrate dehydrogenase
 Which of the following is high energy phosphate bond (produce ATP on hydrolysis
 Options
 Fructose-6-phosphate
 Creatine phosphate
 Carbamoyl phosphate
 Glucose-1-phosphate
 Number of ATPs produced from adipose tissue from I NADH (NAD+ /NADH) through
respiratory
chain:
 Options
 2.6ATP

 LATP
 2ATP
 Which component transfers four protons
 Options
 NADH-Q Oxidoreductase
 Cytochrome -C Oxidase
 CoQ Cytochrome c Reductase
 Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
 Which of the following releases/provide energy
1239
 Options
 Conversion of ADP to ATP
 Breaking of high energy bond to low energy bond a
 Conversion of Pyruvate to lactate
 . Electrical gradient across inner and outer side of mitochondrial membN 1 Common
biochemical ideas
1 All of the following are major objectives of biochemistry, EXCEPT
(A) structure and functions of biomolecules.
(B) diagnostic testing of markers in practical medicine.
(C) metabolic pathways of biomolecules.
(D) development of specialized cells.
0.9
2 What is the collective term for all of the chemical processes
occurring within a cell?
(A) Metabolism
(B) Catabolism
(C) Anabolism
(D) Oxidation
0.9
3 The main function of minerals in the human body is to
(A) coenzymes of enzymes.
(B) excretion of non-soluble substances.
(C) transport substances into cells.
(D) store energy.
0.8
4 The METABOLICALLY most active organ in the body is the
(A) pancreas
(B) spleen
1240
(C) liver
(D) lungs
0.9
5 Which of the following represents the relationship between the
terms anabolism (A), catabolism (C) and metabolism (M)?
) (A) M= A-C
(B) (B) C = A + M
(C) (C) A = C + M
(D) (D) M = A + C
0.9
6 Which of the following would be considered a part of metabolism?
(A) Biosynthetic pathways that build DNA
(B) Catabolic pathways that break down complex
carbohydrates
(C) The capture of light energy for use in making glucose
(D) All of the above
Ans.: D
0.6
7 The sum of all chemical reactions that take place within an
organism is known as
(A) feedback
(B) dynamic equilibrium
(C) biological adaptation
(D) metabolism
0.8 8 Which of the following is an example of catabolic process?
(A) Proteogenesis
(B) Glycolysis
1241
(C) Glycogenesis
(D) Lipogenesis
0.8
9 Catabolic process is
(A) Glycogenolysis
(B) Lipogenesis
(C) Gluconeogenesis
(D) Ketogenesis
0.8
10 Which one of the following is an example of anabolic process?
(A) Ketolysis
(B) Glycogenesis
(C) Glycolysis
(D) Proteolysis
0.7
11 Regarding anabolic pathways
(A) do not require the presence of enzymes
(B) do not have branches or interactions
(C) are often synthesis of complex compounds from
smaller substances
(D) are often regulated by concentration of protons
0.6
12 Which one of the following statements regarding metabolic
association is FALSE?
(A) Brain: fixation of toxic ammonia by glutamate
(B) Muscles: creatine-P uses as primary sources of energy
(C) Adrenal cortex: HMP shunt
1242
(D) Erythrocytes: ATP production by oxidative
phosphorylation
0.3
13 The connecting link between HMP shunt and cholesterol synthesis
is
(A) NADPH
(B) Ribose-5-phosphate
(C) Fructose-6-phosphate
(D) Sedoheptulose-7-phosphate
0.2
14 Which one of the following compounds is transported in the blood
in the free (unbound with protein) form?
(A) Triacylglycerides
(B) Cholesterol
(C) Glutamine
(D) Fat-soluble vitamin
0.4
15 What element forms the skeleton of organic molecules?
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Hydrogen
(C) Carbon
(D) Phosphorus
0.7
15 Which one of the following is amino acid? 0.8 (A) acetic acid
(B) oleic acid
(C) aspartic acid
(D) ascorbic acid
1243
16 Organ where pepsin hydrolyses proteins
(A) pancreas
(B) liver
(C) gall bladder
(D) stomach
0.6
association is true?
(A) Brain: ketogenesis
(B) Muscles: gluconeogenesis
(C) Erythrocytes: HMP shunt
(D) Kidney: urea cycle
0.2
18 Which of the following is an example of catabolic process?
(A) Synthesis of hemoglobin
(B) Lysosomal degradation of proteins
(C) Synthesis of glycogen
(D) Excretion of urea
0.5
19 Each organism has unique combination of characteristics encoded
in molecules of
(A) vitamins.
(B) carbohydrates.
(C) lipids.
(D) proteins.
0.7
20 All of the following metabolic pathways take place in the liver
1244
EXCEPT
(A) utilization of ketone bodies
(B) plasma proteins synthesis
(C) formation of urea
(D) synthesis de novo of nucleotides
0.3
21 Liver stores all of the following EXCEPT
(A) iron
(B) folic acid
(C) vitamin D
(D) ascorbic acid
0.7
22 Liver degradates all of the following EXCEPT
(A) proteins
(B) remnant LDL
(C) insulin
(D) creatinine
0.6
23 Liver synthesized all of the following substances EXCEPT
(A) nucleotides
(B) urea
0.5 (C) ceruloplasmin
(D) immunoglobulins
24 Liver synthesizes all of the following, EXCEPT
(A) blood clotting factors.
(B) immunoglobulins.
(C) albumin.
1245
(D) lipoproteins.
0.5
25 Liver synthesized all of the following lipids EXCEPT
(A) fat
(B) cholesterol
(C) ketone bodies
(D) tocopherol
0.5
26 Liver synthesized all of the following substances EXCEPT
(A) cholesterol
(B) glucose
(C) starch
(D) complement
0.4
27 All of the following compounds can cross all membranes freely,
EXCEPT
) (A) glucose.
(B) (B) ketone bodies.
(C) (C) oxygen.
(D) (D) carbon dioxide.
0.9
28 Specific transport proteins are required for translocation of all of
the following substances into the cells or matrix of mitochondria
EXCEPT
(A) Glucose
(B) Fatty acids
(C) Amino acids
1246
(D) Oxygen
0.6
29 Specific transport protein is required for translocation into the cells
of
(A) Neutral amino acids
(B) Beta-hydroxybutyric acid
(C) Acetoacetic acid
(D) Oxygen
0.4
30 What metal ion is specifically bound by vitamin B12?
(A) Cobalt
(B) Copper
(C) Zinc
(D) Iron
0.8
31 What metal ion is specifically bound by kinases?
(A) Cobalt
(B) Copper
0.9 (C) Zinc
(D) Magnesium
32 What metal ion is specifically bound by ceruloplasmin?
(A) Cobalt
(B) Copper
(C) Zinc
(D) Iron
0.7
33 What metal ion is specifically bound by ferritin?
1247
(A) Cobalt
(B) Copper
(C) Zinc
(D) Iron
0.6
34 What metal ion is specifically bound by superoxide dismutase
(SOD)?
(A) Cobalt
(B) Selenium
(C) Zinc
(D) Iron
0.6
35 Mature erythrocytes do not contain
(A) glycolytic enzymes.
(B) HMP shunt enzymes.
(C) carbonic anhydrase.
(D) nucleotide synthetic enzymes.
0.7
36 Entero-hepatic circulation all of the following compounds takes
place, EXEPT:
(A) urea
(B) bile acids
(C) bile salts
(D) ketone bodies
0.6
37 Patients with anorexia nervosa, uncontrolled insulin-dependent
diabetes mellitus, hyperthyroidism all will
(A) have a high basic metabolic rate (BMR)
1248
(B) experience weight loss
(C) suffer from malabsorption
(D) have a high insulin levels in the blood
0.5
38 The muscle fatigue occurs due to increase all of the following
processes EXCEPT
(A) Anaerobic glycolysis
(B) Hypoxia
(C) Carbon monoxide intoxication
(D) Ketolysis
0.7 39 Acetyl CoA is NOT needed for synthesis of
) (A) cholesterol.
(B) (B) ketone bodies.
(C) (C) pyruvate.
(D) (D) citric acid.
0.6
40 Acetyl CoA is NOT used for the synthesis of
(A) cholesterol
(B) citric acid
(C) acetoacetate
(D) urea
0.7
41 Mc Ardle’s disease can be caused by a problem with the
metabolism of
(A) glycogen
(B) collagen
(C) elastin
(D) galactose
1249
0.4
42 Parkinson’s disease can be caused by a problem with the
metabolism of
(A) glycogen
(B) collagen
(C) dopamin
(D) galactose
0.4
43 Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can be caused by a problem with the
metabolism of
(A) glycogen
(B) collagen
(C) dopamin
(D) galactose
0.4
44 Hereditary orotic aciduria can be caused by a problem with the
metabolism of
(A) glycogen
(B) collagen
(C) pyrimidines
(D) galactose
0.3
45 Refsume disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism
of
(A) glycogen
(B) collagen
(C) fatty acid
1250
(D) fructose
0.3
46 Alkaptonuria can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
(A) tyrosine
0.5 N 2 BIOCHEMICAL TECHNIQUES. AMINO ACIDS. PROTEINS.
53 All of the following are major objectives of biochemistry, EXCEPT 0.9
(B) collagen
(C) thiamine
(D) fructose
47 Alzheimer disease can be caused by a problem with the
metabolism of
(A) glycogen
(B) collagen
(C) dopamin
(D) protein
0.7
48 Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) can be caused by a problem with
the metabolism of
(A) glycogen
(B) collagen
(C) dopamin
(D) prion
0.8
49 Tangier disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism
of
(A) glycogen
(B) lipoprotein
1251
(C) dopamin
(D) prion
0.4
50 Turai disease can be caused by a problem with the oxidation of
(A) fatty acids
(B) glucose
(C) alcohol
(D) amino acids
0.3
51 Deficiency disease of Ca2+ and Pi is
(A) anemia.
(B) cretinism
(C) rickets.
(D) edema
0.9
52 Amyloidosis is characteristic of
(A) Von Girke disease
(B) Alzheimer disease
(C) Refsume disease
(D) Wilson disease
0.4 (E) structure and functions of biomolecules.
(F) diagnostic testing of markers in practical medicine.
(G) metabolic pathways of biomolecules.
(H) development of specialized cells.
54 Which one of the following methods uses in practical medicine for
purification of blood by artificial kidney?
(A) Electrophoresis
1252
(B) Salting out
(C) Hemodilution
(D) Dialysis
0.6
55 Chromatography is method of separation mixture of
(A) ions
(B) amino acids
(C) salts
(D) ketone bodies
0.8
56 What one of the following patients may be put on the
hemodialysis?
(A) Patient with mental retardation
(B) Patient with end stage of renal disease (ESRD)
(C) Patient with acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
(D) Patient with vomiting and diarrhea
0.6
57 The following technique is used for separation of proteins
according their difference in net charges at a given pH:
(A) thin layer chromatography.
(B) paper chromatography.
(C) electrophoresis.
(D) dialysis.
0.6
58 The solubility of most proteins is lowered at high salt concentration
is known as
(A) isoelectric focusing
1253
(B) salting out process
(C) solubility curve
(D) chromatography
0.6
59 The movement of charged particles towards one of the electrodes
under the influence of electrical current is
(A) gel filtration
(B) chromatography
(C) dialysis
(D) electrophoresis
0.8
60 For separation of mixture charged high molecular weight and low
molecular weight compounds can use all following techniques
EXCEPT
(A) electrophoresis
(B) dialysis
(C) “salting out” precipitation
(D) cedimentation rate
0.6
61 The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of 0.5 (A) elimination of
non-electrolyte waste product.
(B) dehydration of protein molecule by salt.
(C) diminished protein-protein interaction.
(D) neutralization of protein molecule by salt.
62 A protein with molecular weight of 100 kD is subjected to SDS
PAGE electrophoresis. SDS PAGE electrophoretic pattern show
two widely separated bands of 20 kD and 30 kD after addition of
merkaptoethanol. The true statement regarding this will be
1254
(A) the protein has complete lysis.
(B) the protein is a monomer of 20 kD and 30kD.
(C) the protein is a dimmer of two 20 kD and 30 kD proteins.
(D) the protein is a tetramer of 20 kD and 30kD proteins.
0.3
63 Chromatography is used for separation of
(A) mixture of lipids and minerals
(B) mixture of proteins
(C) colloids only
(D) mixture of minerals only
0.7
64 The solubility of most proteins is lowered at high salt concentration
is known as
(A) Salting out process
(B) Isoelectric focusing
(C) Chromatography
(D) Solubility curve
0.5
65 Ultrafiltration of plasma in kidney is example of
(A) chromatography.
(B) dialysis.
(C) electrophoresis.
(D) precipitation.
0.6
66 Ultrafiltration of plasma by choroid plexus of ventricular system of
the brain is example of
(A) chromatography.
1255
(B) electrophoresis.
(C) dialysis.
(D) precipitation.
0.6
67 All of the following are functions of proteins, EXCEPT
(A) catalytic.
(B) defense.
(C) osmotic.
(D) structural.
0.5
68 Which of the following IS NOT protein in nature?
(A) Albumin
(B) Cortisol
(C) Complement C3
(D) Lipase
0.6 69 Protein is
(A) ceruloplasmin
(B) pyruvate
(C) acetoacetate
(D) glycerol
0.5
70 Which class of biomolecules is used for activation of catalytic
function of proteins?
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Water shell
(C) Minerals
(D) Fatty acids
1256
0.7
71 Molecules of protein are composed of long chain of
(A) fatty acids
(B) nucleotides
(C) sugar
(D) amino acids
0.9
72 Alpha-helix and beta-sheet folding in protein is stabilized by
(A) ester bond.
(B) hydrogen bond.
(C) peptide bond.
(D) ionic bond.
0.7
73 Which one of the following IS NOT a secondary structural feature
of proteins?
(A) Alpha-helix
(B) Beta-sheet
(C) Triple-helix
(D) Beta-turn
0.6
74 Each polypeptide has specific amino acids sequence, linked with
each other by peptide bond. This sequence of amino acids is said to
be
(A) Priamary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Quaternary
0.8
1257
75 Tertiary structure of a protein is formed by all of the following
EXCEPT
(A) hydrogen bonds
(B) ionic bonds
(C) peptide bonds
(D) disulfide bonds
0.5
76 1. All of the following have quaternary structure EXCEPT
(A) Immunoglobulin
(B) Albumin
(C) Lactate dehydrogenase
(D) Hemoglobin
0.4 77 A protein reacts with biuret reagent which indicates two or more
(A) alpha-helix
(B) peptide bonds
(C) ǃ- sheet
(D) disulfide bonds
2.
0.7
78 Which of the following is the best example of conformational
changes?
(A) Denaturation of protein by heat
(B) Conversion of cysteine to cystine in oxidative
conditions
(C) Conversion of rich ǂ-helix isoform of protein into rich
ǃ-sheet isoform
(D) Hydrogenation of aromatic side chain of the protein
0.2
1258
79 Daily production of proteins in adult healthy person approximately
is
(A)50 g
(B) 200 g
(C) 400 g
(D)1000 g
0.5
80 Daily excretion of proteins into the urine in adult healthy person
approximately is
(A) less than 150 mg
(B) 250 mg per day
(C) more than 250 mg
(D) 10 g per day
0.3
81 Transcription is synthesis of
(A) ATP
(B) RNA
(C) DNA
(D) NADH
0.8
82 Which molecule contains the genetic code?
(A) Protein
(B) DNA
(C) ATP
(D) Adenine base
0.9
83 In the process of transcription, the flow of genetic information is
from
1259
(A) DNA to DNA
(B) DNA to protein
(C) t-RNA to protein
(D) DNA to m-RNA
0.5
84 3. Translation is synthesis of
(A) RNA
(B) DNA
(C) polypeptides
0.8 (D) polysaccharides
4.
85 The most active site of protein synthesis is the
(A) Nucleous
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Cell membrane
0.8
86 Which one of the following enzymes would digest proteins?
(A) Amylase
(B) Lactase
(C) Lipase
(D) Trypsin
0.5
87 Dietary protein could provide precursors for the de novo synthesis
in humans of all of the following, EXCEPT
(A) albumin.
(B) oxaloacetic acid.
(C) linoleic acid.
1260
(D) glutamic acid.
0.4
88 Which from the following regarding protein composition is
correct?
(A) Hemoglobin is chromoprotein
(B) Albumin is conjugated protein
(C) Collagen is globular protein
(D) Histone: acidic amino acids prevalent
0.5
89 In denaturized proteins the bond which IS NOT broken
(A) peptide
(B) disulfide
(C) hydrogen
(D) ionic
0.8
90 Proteases produce amino acids from protein by
(A) reducing
(B) hydrolyzing
(C) oxidizing
(D) saturation
0.5
91 Which of the following IS NOT a conjugated protein?
(A) Hemoglobin
(B) Low density lipoprotein
(C) Immunoglobulin G
(D) Collagen
0.5
92 Metalloprotein is
1261
(A) Collagen
(B) Albumin
(C) Immunoglobulin
(D) Ferritin
0.5 93 Negative nitrogen balance has following person
(A) children.
(B) elderly.
(C) pregnant women.
(D) athletic men.
0.6
94 In protein structure the ǂ-helix and ǃ-sheet are examples of
(A) primary structure
(B) secondary structure
(C) tertiary structure
(D) quaternary structure
0.7
95 Biologically active proteins in human beings are
(A) D-and L-form
(B) L-form only
(C) D-form only
(D) Racemic form
0.9
96 38. All hormones increase the amount of proteins in tissues EXCEPT
) (A) growth hormone
(B) (B) testosterone
(C) (C) insulin
(D) (D) cortisol
0.3
1262
97 What is the major function of chaperones in the cells?
(A) Regulate of intracellular medium
(B) Transport of proteins to site of their action
(C) Sorting of misfolding proteins
(D) Promote folding of proteins
0.6
98 Inracellular folding of protein is mediated by
(A) the protein itself
(B) chaperons
(C) ribosome
(D) proteases
0.5
99 Which one from the following protects proteins that have been
denaturized by decreased pH in cells?
(A) Heat shock proteins (Hsp70 & 40)
(B) Protease inhibitor
(C) Specific lipid envelope
(D) Endogenous ions
0.4
100 All of the following are functions of chaperones, EXCEPT
(A) promote folding of unfolded proteins.
(B) promote correct folding of misfolded proteins.
(C) prevent overtranslation of specific proteins.
(D) prevent aggregation of unfolded or misfolded proteins.
0.2
101 Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of
other proteins?
1263
(A) Proteases
(B) Proteososmes
(C) Chaperones
(D) Lysosomes hydrolase
0.6 102 The building blocks (monomers) that make up hypothalamic
releasing hormones are :
(A) Nucleotides
(B) Amino acids
(C) Monosaccharides
(D) Isoprenoids
0.4
103 Which bond is formed when an amino group of one amino acid
joints the carboxylic group of another amino acid?
(A) peptide
(B) glycosidic
(C) ester
(D) hydrogen
0.8
104 Bonds that are formed between two cysteine residues is
(A) Peptide
(B) Hydrophilic
(C) Disulphide
(D) Ionic
0.9
105 Biologically active proteinogenic amino acids present in human
organism in
(A) D- and L-form
(B) L-form only
1264
(C) D-form only
(D) Racemic form
0.8
106 Which one of the following sets consists of essential amino acids
only?
(A) Alanine, Tyrosine
(B) Phenylalanine, Tryptophan
(C) Glutamate, Lysine
(D) Aspartate, Glycine
0.5
107 Some amino acids are termed NON-ESSENTIAL as
) (A) have no role in metabolism.
(B) (B) are not components of tissue proteins.
(C) (C) may be synthesized in the body.
(D) (D) all of the above.
0.4
108
Above structure is structure of
(A) D- amino acid
(B) L-amino acid
(C) Basic amino acid
(D) Acidic amino acid
0.4
109 All ǂ-amino acids give positive
(A) ninhydrin test
(B) biuret test
0.5
H2N CH2 CH
NH2
1265
COOH(C) Fusher test
(D) xanthoproteic test
110 A compound gives positive test with ninhydrin is a(an)
(A) lipid
(B) glucose
(C) amino acids
(D) ketone bodies
0.5
111 Biuret test is mainly done for
(A) lipids
(B) carbohydrates
(C) amino acids
(D) proteins
0.7
112 An amino acid that may form a disulphide bond
(A) Tryptophan
(B) Cystein
(C) Phenylalanine
(D) Proline
0.8
113 Which one of the following amino acids is ionizable in protein?
(A) Glycine
(B) Alanine
(C) Valine
(D) Aspartate
0.9
114 Which of the following amino acids is highly likely to be localized
within the interior of the plasma globular protein?
1266
(A) Aspartic acid
(B) Glutamic acid
(C) Valine
(D) Arginine
0.3
115 Which of the following amino acids is highly likely to be localized
exterior of the plasma globular protein?
(A) Aspartic acid
(B) Glycine
(C) Valine
(D) Isoleucine
0.3
116 Disulfide bonds most often stabilize the native structure of
(A) extracellular proteins.
(B) intracellular proteins
(C) membrane proteins
(D) connective tissue proteins
0.5
117 Which one of the following tripeptides contains the largest number
of non-polar R-group?
(A) Tyr-Lys-Met
(B) Gly-Pro-Arg
(C) Asp-Phe-Tyr
(D) Leu-Val-Gly
0.3
118 At certain pH amino acid behaves neither as an acid nor as a base 0.9 and does not
migrate to anode or cathode and this pH known as:
(A) Nitrogenous equilibrium medium
1267
(B) Isoelectric point
(C) Cationic pH
(D) Anionic pH
119 Isoelectric point is
(A) Specific temperature
(B) Suitable concentration of amino aids
(C) Melting point of amino acids
(D) pH at which amino acid is dipolar
0.7
120 Isoelectric point (pI) for an amino acid is
(A) pH at which an amino acid is electrically neutral
(B) pKa value of the functional groups attached to the alpha
carbon
(C) net pKa value for the ionizable side chains
(D) ratio of the number of oxygen atoms to carbon atoms in
the amino acid
0.6
121 Non-proteinogenic amino acid is
(A) ǂ-alanine
(B) aspartate
(C) ǃ-alanine
(D) histidine
0.3
122 Which one of the following tripeptides most positively charged at
pH=7.0?
(A) Tyr-Lys-Met
(B) Lys-Pro-Arg
(C) Asp-Glu-Asp
1268
(D) Leu-Val-Gly
0.1
123 Which one of the following tripeptides contains sulfur?
(A) Gly-Pro-Arg
(B) Cys-Lys-Met
(C) Asp-Phe-Tyr
(D) Leu-Val-Gly
0.7
124 Which one of the following proteins exists as CATION in
physiological conditions?
(A) ǃ-globulin (pI=5.5.)
(B) Albumin (pI = 4.9.)
(C) Hemoglobin (pI= 7.0)
(D) Histone (pI = 9.8)
0.3
125 Which one of the following proteins exists as neutral particle in
physiological condition?
(A) ǃ-globulin (pI= 5.5)
(B) Albumin (pI = 4.9)
(C) Hemoglobin (pI=7.0)
(D) Fibrinogen (pI=5.4)
0.5
126 Toxic effects of heavy metals result in inactivation of specific
proteins by denaturation. Which of the following proteins can
0.2 supply orally for the prevention of the toxic effects of heavy metals
poisoning?
(A) Clupellin (pI= 12.4)
(B) Protein of soya (pI= 7.9 )
1269
(C) Papain (pI=9.0)
(D) Ovalbumin of egg (pI=4.8)
127 Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of
other proteins?
(A) Proteases
(B) Proteososmes
(C) Chaperones
(D) Lysosomes hydrolase
0.8
128 A 24-year old woman prepares for her wedding day. Her hair
dresser uses rollers to create a new style for her hair. To create a
“permanent wave”, the stylist then applies thoglucollate to break
apart the S-S bonds in cysteine units, reducing them to –SH groups.
Which level of protein structure is most greatly affected by this
treatment?
(A) Primary structure
(B) Secondary structure
(C) Tertiary structure
(D) Quaternary structure
0.3
129 Glutathione is important
) (A) absorbent
(B) (B) antioxidant
(C) (C) enzyme
(D) (D) protein
0.5
130 Glutathione prevents cells against accumulation of
(A) Ammonia
1270
(B) Nitrogen monoxide
(C) Hydrogen peroxide
(D) Carbon monoxide
0.5
131 If glutathione level in the erythrocytes decrease
(A) production of NADPH decreases
(B) oxy-hemoglobin content increases
(C) radical level increases
(D) pH decreases
0.3
132 (E) In RBCs hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is converted to water (H2O) by
) (A) hemoglobin
(G) (B) glutathione
) (C) glutamate
) (D) cytochrome
0.3
133 All are true about glutathione EXCEPT
(A) Contain sulfhydryl group
(B) Anti-oxidant
(C) Transport amino acids across cell membrane
(D) Made all essential amino acids
0.3
134 Kwashiorkor babies would have all of the following, EXCEPT
(A) fatty liver.
0.4 (B) hypoalbuminemia.
(C) edema.
(D) severe myopathy.
135 Kwashiorkor result from
1271
(A) vitamin D deficiency
(B) deficiency of minerals in diet
(C) vitamin A deficiency
(D) deficiency of protein in diet
0.8
136 Marasmic babies have
(A) depletion of muscle protein
(B) depletion of liver protein
(C) hypoalbuminemia
(D) fatty liver
0.4
137 Amyloid is form of
(A) bacterium
(B) viruses
(C) primitive life form
(D) protein
0.7
138 Amyloidosis is accumulation of
(A) glycogen
(B) misfolding protein
(C) gangliosides
(D) colloids
0.6
139 Iodine test is positive for
(A) glucose.
(B) amyoid.
(C) nucleoside.
(D) cholesterol.
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0.4
140 Mad cow disease may be due to invasion of
(A) specific virus
(B) specific bacteria
(C) abnormal prion protein
(D) abnormal gluten
0.4
141 Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the deposition of one of the
following substances in the tissues
(A) glycogen
(B) neurolipids
(C) amyloid
(D) copper
0.5
142 Which from the following processes is NOT involved in
pathogenesis of amyloidosis?
(A) Conformational changes of protein
(B) Partial hydrolysis of polysacharides
(C) Polymerization of partial proteolyzed residues
(D) Formation of polyglutmic part in protein
0.3 143 Alzheimer’s disease is due to
(A) misfold amyloid precursor protein
(B) transmitters deficiency
(C) defect in glucose transporters
(D) decreased integrity of blood brain barrier
0.3
144 A 80-year-old man presented with impairment of higher
1273
intellectual function and alterations in mood and behavior. His
family reported progressive disorientation and memory loss over
the last six month. The patient was diagnosed with Alzheimer’s
disease. Which one of the following best describes the disease?
(A) It results from accumulation of denatured proteins in
the neurons
(B) It is associated with abnormal Aǃ-amyloid with
altered amino acid sequence
(C) It is associated with abnormal Aǃ-amyloid with
altered secondary structure
(D) It is result from accumulation of lipids with long
chain fatty acids
0.6
145 In etiopathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease the following may be
implicated
(A) tau protein
(B) amyloid precursor protein (APP)
(C) alpha-secretase
(D) all of the above
0.1
146 Alzheimer’s Aǃ-amyloid is major component of
(A) extracellular plaques.
(B) intracellular neurofibrillary tangles.
(C) cerebrospinal fluid.
(D) intravascular steaks.
0.2
147 Fatal familial insomnia is associated with
1274
(A) prion disease
(B) vascular disease
(C) autoimmune disease
(D) neoplastic disease
0.2
148 Prions are type of
(A) proteins
(B) bacterium
(C) primitive life form
(D) viruses
0.5
149 Origin of prion is
(A) RNA
(B) DNA
(C) virus
(D) protein
0.7
150 All of the following statements about Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease
(CJD) are correct EXCEPT
(A) it is caused by prion
(B) it is a neurodegenerative disease
(C) it caused by Aǃ-amyloid
(D) progressive dementia is a clinical sign
0.2 150 In Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) patients pathological study of
brain tissue shows spongiosis (vacuolation of cortical grey matter)
with neuronal loss, amyloid plaques. These amyloid plaques
contain:
1275
(A) amylin
(B) prion
(C) immunoglobulins
(D) tau-protein
0.4
151 Progressive dementia is seen in
(A) Alzheimer’s disease
(B) Creutzfaldt-Jacob disease
(C) Mad cow disease
0.7
152 Localization of normal PrPC in nervous system
(A) Nerve cell membrane
(B) Protein of blood-brain barrier (BBB)
(C) Protein of cerebrospinal fluid
(D) In synaptic cleft
0.6
153 All of the following are the properties of abnormal prion PrPSC
EXCEPT
(A) It is stable
(B) It is insoluble
(C) Protease insensitive
(D) It is rich by of ǂ-helix
0.4
154 Which of the following is NOT a prion associated disease?
(A) Mad cow disease
(B) Kuru
1276
(C) Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease
(D) Alzheimer disease
0.4
155 Neurofibrillary tangles that accumulate in the brain of
Alzheimer’s patient is result of defect in_______ structure of
_______
(A) Secondary/ tau protein
(B) Secondary/ amyloid precursor protein
(C) Tertiary/ tau protein
(D) Qaternary/Bence-Jones protein
0.2
156 In pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease all of the following may be
implicated, EXCEPT
(A) decrease alpha-secretase activity.
(B) microtubular tau protein polyphosphorylation.
(C) partial proteolysis of membrane APP protein.
(D) osmotic injury of neurons.
0.1
157 Protein that precipitates on heating to 450C and redisolves on
boling is
(A) Bence-Jones protein
(B) Albumin
(C) Myosin
(D) Microtubular tau- protein
0.3
N 3 Plasma proteins. Immunochemistry.
158 Plasma differs from serum by 0.8 (A) lipid content
(B) protein content
1277
(C) RBCs count
(D) glucose level
159 Plasma albumin performs all of the following functions, EXCEPT:
(A) maintenance of oncotic pressure.
(B) transport.
(C) nutritive.
(D) maintenance of water-electrolyte balance.
0.6
160 Which one of the following substances does not require
plasma protein for transport?
(A) vitamin D
(B) fat
(C) glycerol
(D) copper ion
0.4
161 Level of which blood proteins fraction is higher?
(A) Albumin
(B) ǂ-globulins
(C) Ǆ-globuins
(D) Fibrinogen
0.6
162 How many distinct bands of serum proteins are separated by paper
electrophoresis?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 20
1278
0.7
163 When a serum is electrophoresed, which of the following bands is
normally absent?
(A) ǂ1- globulin
(B) ǂ2-globulin
(C) albumin
(D) fibrinogen
0.5
164 Plasma proteins are separated to individual proteins by all of the
following methods, EXCEPT
(A) electrophoresis
(B) salting out precipitation
(C) chromatography
(D) dialysis
0.6
165 Defense protein in plasma is
(A) albumin
(B) angiotensinogen
(C) erythropoietin
(D) complement factor
0.8
166 Hypoalbuminemia is clinical feature of all of the following,
EXCEPT
0.3 (A) chronic liver disease.
(B) protein malnutrition.
(C) acute liver disease.
(D) nephrotic syndrome.
1279
167 Hypoproteinemia leads
(A) decrease blood oncotic pressure.
(B) increase viscosity of blood.
(C) decrease blood ultrafiltration.
(D) increase time of coagulation.
0.3
168 Simple plasma protein is
(A) cerruloplasmin
(B) transferrin
(C) albumin
(D) immunoglobulin
0.7
169 Which substance is in higher concentration in blood than in
glomerular filtrate?
(A) glucose
(B) urea
(C) proteins
(D) water
0.6
170 Ceruloplasmin is
(A) ferroxidase
(B) protein of ETC
(C) final product of purine catabolism
(D) protein of the nucleus
0.5
171 Major transporter of drugs and lipophilic substances in plasma is
(A) albumin
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(B) fibrinogen
(C) complement
(D) immunoglobulin
0.6
172 Plasma protein is
(A) protein kinase
(B) creatinine
(C) lipoprotein lipase
(D) carnitine
0.6
173 Which one of the following plasma proteins is NOT synthesized by
the liver?
(A) Albumin
(B) Immunoglobulin
(C) Complement
(D) Fibrinogen
0.6
174 Which one of the following plasma proteins has catalytic function?
(A) Transferrin
(B) Ceruloplasmin
(C) Albumin
(D) Haptoglobin
0.3 175 Hemoglobin excretion into urine during hemolysis is prevented by
(A) T-cells
(B) albumin
(C) haptoglobin
(D) ceruloplasmin
1281
0.5
176 Haptoglobin is
(A) the free hemoglobin-protein carrier in the blood.
(B) the iron-protein carrier in the blood.
(C) the enzyme ferroxidase.
(D) serine protease inhibitor (SERPINS).
0.5
177 Transferrin is
(A) storage form of iron.
(B) other form of hemoglobin.
(C) the iron-protein carrier in the blood.
(D) types of red blood cells.
0.8
178 Major transporter of iron in the plasma to bone marrow
(A) ferritin
(B) fibrinogen
(C) transferrin
(D) hemoglobin
0.7
179 What is a diagnostic test for hepatocellular carcinoma?
(A) ǂ1-Antitrypsin
(B) ǂ1-Fetoprotein
(C) Haptoglobin
(D) Transferrin
0.2
180 All of the following are about ǂ1- fetoprotein correct EXCEPT
(A) It is blue colored, copper containing plasma protein
1282
(B) Present in high concentration in fetal blood
(C) It is not present in healthy individual
(D) Disappears from blood soon after birth
0.5
181 ǂ1-antitripsin is
(A) inhibitor of neutrophilic elastase.
(B) anticoagulant.
(C) antioxidant of RBCs.
(D) activator of blood trypsinogen.
0.5
182 74. Which of the following plasma proteins is protease inhibitor?
(A) Transferrin
(B) ǂ1-fetoprotein
(C) ǂ1- antitrypsin
(D) ceruloplasmin
0.5
183 What is major function of Alpha1-antitrypsin ?
(A) Protease activator
(B) Protease inhibitor
0.6 (C) Stimulator of DNA repair
(D) Inhibitor of thrombin
75.
184 Smokers tend to develop emphysema more readily than non
smokers. This is due to oxidation of methionine residue in
(A) pulmonary collagen.
(B) neutrophil elastase.
(C) ǂ1-antytrypsin.
1283
(D) alveolar elastin.
0.5
185 ǂ1-antitrypsin deficiency has been implicated in
(A) Kwashiorkor.
(B) acute and chronic inflammatory diseases.
(C) cirrhosis and emphysema.
(D) multiple myeloma.
0.3
186 Patient was diagnosed with Wilson’s disease. To confirm the
diagnosis it is necessary to study the activity of the following
enzyme in blood
(A) alcohol dehydrogenase
(B) ǂ1-antitrypsin
(C) ceruloplasmin
(D) catalase
0.3
187 Willson’s disease is due to
(A) Deficiency of copper in diet
(B) Abnormal accumulation of copper in liver
(C) Defective copper absorption
(D) Deficiency of copper in blood
0.4
188 Kayser-Fleicher rings (KF-rings) are seen in
(A) Hematochromatosis
(B) Wilson disease
(C) Wernike syndrome
(D) Spina bifida
0.2
1284
189 Pandey’s & Nonne-Appelt’s tests detect in cerebrospinal fluid
(A) glucose
(B) chloride ion
(C) neutrophils
(D) globulins
0.3
190 Pandey’s and Nonne-Appelt’s tests are used techniques
(A) colorimetric
(B) salting out precipitation
(C) SDS electrophoresis
(D) paper chromatography
0.4
191 The albumin quotient AQ = 40. This index indicates the following
degree of blood-brain barrier (BBB) damage
(A) slightly
(B) moderate
(C) severe
(D) complete
0.2 192 Antibodies are
) (A) carbohydrates.
(B) (B) glycoproteins.
(C) (C) nucleic acids.
(D) (D) lipids.
0.7
193 All of the following about antibodies are true, EXCEPT
(A) they are glycoproteins.
(B) they have same amino acids sequences.
1285
(C) they are synthesized by plasma cells.
(D) they can bind antigen.
0.8
194 Each of the following is characteristic of antibodies, EXCEPT
(A) they are proteins with variable and constant regions.
(B) they contain carbohydrates.
(C) they can combine with antigen specifically.
(D) they are secreted by the liver only.
0.8
195 All of the following about the Fc region of immunoglobulins are
true, EXCEPT
(A) it can be disattached by papain from the Fab region.
(B) it is responsible for antigen binding.
(C) it contains heavy chain.
(D) it is involved in the activation of complement.
0.4
196 Which plasma protein has two heavy chains and two light chains?
(A) Albumin
(B) Fibrinogen
(C) Globulin
(D) Antibody
0.8
197 Following substance may act as an antigen
) (A) polysaccharides rich by glucose.
(B) (B) polyunsaturated fatty acids.
(C) (C) polyols such as glycerol.
(D) (D) polysaccharides rich by mannose.
0.5
1286
198 Which of the following is responsible for opsonization of
bacteria in the blood?
(A) complement C3b
(B) albumin
(C) cytokines
(D) monocyte
0.7
199 Immunoglobulin is example of
(A) complex lipids.
(B) simple protein.
(C) oligossacharides.
(D) conjugated protein.
0.8
200 The largest immunoglobulin in size is
(A) IgA
0.6 (B) IgM
(C) IgE
(D) IgG
201 In an immunoglobulin molecule the antigen binding capacity
resides at the
(A) constant region
(B) variable region
(C) joining (J) zone
(D) Fraction crystallizable region (Fc)
0.6
202 Major function of variable N-terminal region of immunoglobulin is
(A) activating of complement.
1287
(B) recognizing of antigen.
(C) binding with other antibodies.
(D) activating of bacterial proteases.
0.5
203 Which one of the following immunoglobulins can cross the
placenta and transfers mother’s immunity to the fetus?
) (A) IgA
(B) (B) IgG
(C) (C) IgE
(D) (D) IgD
0.8
204 Which one of the following isotypes of immunoglobulins is
synthesized in response to allergen action?
) (A) IgG
(B) (B) IgD
(C) (C) IgE
(D) (D) IgA
0.9
205 All of the following about IgE are true, EXCEPT
(A) it is the principal immunoglobulin involved in
allergic reactions.
(B) low plasma level in healthy.
(C) it can affect the release chemical mediators.
(D) it activates complement.
0.3
206 Antibody present in colostrums is
(A) IgG
1288
(B) IgE
(C) IgA
(D) IgD
0.9
207
) (A) IgG
(B) (B) IgE
(C) (C) IgA
(D) (D) IgD
0.5
208 Agglutination reaction is strongest with the immunoglobulin 0.6 (A) IgG
(B) IgM
(C) IgE
(D) Ig A
209 All of the following about IgM are true, EXCEPT
(A) it is pentamer.
(B) it is glycoprotein.
(C) it mediates allergic reaction.
(D) it is major antibody n the primary response to
antigen.
0.6
210 Antibody having high valency is
(A) IgG
(B) IgM
(C) IgE
(D) IgD
1289
0.4
211
Above structure is structure of
(A) IgD
(B) IgA
(C) complement C1
(D) C3 -convertase
0.4
212 All of the following about IgG are true, EXCEPT
(A) freely crosses the placenta.
(B) contains two antigen-binding sites.
(C) the most abundant plasma immunoglobulin.
(D) is the main immunoglobulin in normal conjunctiva.
0.4
213 The major role of complement proteins in plasma
(A) nutritional
(B) transport
(C) defense
(D) oncotic
0.9
214 Which of the following is correct about complement?
(A) The classical pathway is activated by antigen
antibody complexes
(B) C5-C9 attacks the cell membrane of pathogens
(C) The alternative pathway is activated by the
membrane components of pathogens
(D) All of the above are correct
0.7
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215 All of the following are principal functions of complement,
EXCEPT
(A) mediate the release of histamine.
(B) activate lysis of pathogens by MAC formation.
0.3 (C) opsonize pathogens.
(D) activate plasma cells to produce Ig.
216 C4b-C2b-C3b is composition of
(A) C1 convertase
(B) C3 convertase
(C) C5 convertase
(D) C9 convertase
0.4
217 C4b-C2b is composition of
(A) C1 convertase
(B) C3 convertase
(C) C5 convertase
(D) C9 convertase
0.6
218 Complement C3b is major
(A) opsonin
(B) allergen
(C) antigen
(D) chemoattractant
0.8
219 The major opsonin is
(A) C3b
(B) C5b
1291
(C) C5a
(D) C3a
0.8
220 Complement C5b is major for
(A) opsonization
(B) activation of leukocytes
(C) membrane attack complex
(D) chemotaxis
0.6
221 All of the following components are involved in classical pathway
activation of complement factors, EXCEPT
(A) adipsin
(B) complement C4
(C) complement C1
(D) immunoglobulins
0.4
222 All of the following components are involved in alternative
pathway activation of complement factors, EXCEPT
(A) factors B &D (adipsin).
(B) factor P (properdin)
(C) liopolysaccharides.
(D) immunoglobulins.
0.4
223 Formation of MAC on the surface of pathogen’s membrane is result
of
(A) cascade clotting reactions
(B) cloning of plasma cells
1292
0.6 (C) differentiation T-cells
(D) cascade complements reactions
224 Complement C3a is major
(A) opsonin
(B) allergen
(C) antigen
(D) chemoattractant
0.5
225 One of the clinical features of multiple myeloma patients is renal
failure that may be due to
) (A) formation of antibodies against tubular cells.
(B) (B) AL-amyloidosis of tubular cells.
(C) (C) acidification of urine.
(D) (D) increasing of glomeruli integrity.
0.3
226 Myeloma M-protein is
(A) paraprotein
(B) misfolding protein
(C) complement 9
(D) fibrous unstable protein
0.5
227 What is specific biochemical profile of multiple myeloma patients?
(A) Presence of Bence-Jones protein in the urine
(B) Presence of Heinz bodies in RBCs
(C) Hypocalciemia and vitamin D deficiency
(D) Increase alkaline phosphatase activity
0.3
1293
228 Bence-Jones proteinuria can appear in patient with
(A) Ochronosis
(B) Wilson disease
(C) Multiple myeloma
(D) Morfan syndrome
0.4
229 The confirm the multiple myeloma diagnosis it is necessary to
determine the following substance in the patient’s urine
(A) ceruloplasmin
(B) Bence-Jones protein
(C) Tamm-Horsfall protein
(D) Bilirubin
0.4
230 Bence-Jones protein is detected in the urine by
(A) nitroprusside test
(B) heat test
(C) biuret test
(D) salting out test
0.6
231 A 70-year old man presented with back pain, osteoporosis,
hypercalciemia and loss of weight. On examination he has anemic.
Serum analysis:
Albumin 30 g/L (normal: 35-50 g/L)
Hemoglobin 8.5 g/dl (normal 13-18 g/dl)
Serum protein electrophoretic pattern revealed a paraprotein in the
Ǆ-globulin region of IgG series.
0.5 Urine analysis:
1294
Bence-Jones protein was present.
What your mostly likely diagnosis?
) (A) Multiple myeloma
(B) (B) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
(C) (C) Carcinoma of the pancreas
(D) (D) Cystic fibrosis
N 4 Fibrous & Globular proteins
232 Globular in shape protein is
(A) Elastin
(B) Collagen
(C) Myoglobin
(D) Keratin
0.7
233 All of the following enzymes require for collagen synthesis
EXCEPT
(A) Lysyl hydroxylase
(B) Prolyl hydroxylase
(C) Lysyl oxidase
(D) Protein kinase
0.6
234 Which one of the following statements regarding protein
classification is correct?
(A) Myoglobin: fibrous protein
(B) Myoglobin: globular proti
(C) Elastin is conjugated protein
(D) Elastin: chromoprotein
0.9
1295
235 All of the following organs and tissues are rich by Elastin, EXCEPT
(A) lung
(B) uterus
(C) aorta
(D) bone
0.8
236 Which of the following substances below is found in richest content
in aorta, pereosteum, ligaments, and lungs?
(A) Elastin
(B) Collagen
(C) Keratin
(D) Fibrin
0.9
237 The number of heme groups present in myoglobin:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
0.9
238 Which of the following vitamins required for formation of
hydroxyproline?
(A) Vitamin D
(B) Vitamin A
0.8 (C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin E
239 Synthesis of collagen is impaired due to deficiency of
(A) Vitamin D
1296
(B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin C
(D) Vitamin E
0.7
240 The collagen defect present in scurvy is
(A) decreased protein stability due to increased glycosylation
(B) decreased protein stability due to decreased hydroxylation of
proline and lysine
(C) increased formation of imino-cross links
(D) increased number of glycine in the collagen sequence
0.4
241 In fibrous proteins polypeptide chains are held together by
(A) Hydrogen bonds
(B) Disulfide bonds
(C) Hydrophobic interaction
0.8
242 The major protein presents in vessel’s wall
(A) Keratin
(B) Hemoglobin
(C) Elastin
(D) Albumin
0.9
243 One of the following is NOT about collagen
(A) Every third amino acid is glycine
(B) Contain hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline
(C) Structure is triple-helical
1297
(D) Soluble in water
0.5
244 Morfan syndrome is due to mutation affecting synthesis of
(A) hemoglobin
(B) elastin
(C) microtubules
(D) peroxisomes
0.6
245 Morfan syndrome results in the molecular defect of
(A) kinin
(B) fibrilin
(C) fibrinogen
(D) plasminogen
0.4
246 An important feature of Morfan’s syndrome is
(A) skin hyperelasticity
(B) skin eruption
(C) hypoglycemia
(D) ectopic deposition of fat in the pancreas
0.5 247 Osteogenesis imperfecta is due to mutation affecting synthesis of
(A) Hemoglobin
(B) Microtubules
(C) Collagen
(D) Peroxisomes
0.7
248 OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA is a group of hereditary disease
due to abnormal:
1298
(A) osteoblastic activity
(B) development of collagen type I
(C) osteoclastic activity
(D) development of glycosaminoglycans
0.5
249 Hemoglobin is example of
(A) Conjugated protein
(B) Simple protein
(C) Complex lipids
(D) Oligossacharides
0.9
250 On which chromosome is located gene which coded hemoglobin ǃ-
chain synthesis?
(A) 4
(B) 11
(C) 16
(D) 20
0.6
251 Carboxyhemoglobin is formed as result of its combination with
(A) CO
(B) CO2
(C) HCO3-
(D) HCN
0.6
252 Hemoglobin consists of:
(A) 1 mole of heme + 2 moles of globin
(B) 1 mole of heme + 4 moles of globin
1299
(C) 4 mole of heme + 4 moles of globin
(D) 4 mole of heme + 2 moles of globin
0.8
253 In mature RBCs all of the following substances are dialyzable
EXCEPT
(A) hemoglobin
(B) chloride
(C) bisphosphoglycerate
(D) hydrocorbanate
0.4
254 Trivalent iron present in compound
(A) carboxyhemoglobin
(B) fetal hemoglobin
(C) methemoglobin
(D) embrionic hemoglobin
0.7
255 Methemoglobin has
(A) Protonated globin
(B) Ferric state iron
0.6 (C) Protonated heme
(D) Ferrous state iron
256 Methemoglobin is
(A) Oxydized (T-) form of hemoglobin
(B) Reduced (R-) form of hemoglobin
(C) Hemoglobin with oxidized iron (Fe3+)
(D) Hemoglobin that is separated from heme
0.5
1300
257 A toxic effect of methemoglobinemia is
(A) fever
(B) vomiting
(C) cyanosis
(D) dehydration
0.8
258 High level of glycosylated HbA1 is seen in the blood of patient with
(A) nephrotic syndrome
(B) diabettes mellitus
(C) cirrhosis of the liver
(D) pancreatic carcinoma
0.6
259 A 1-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because
he is having difficulty breathing after drinking water that contains
nitrate. He is cyanotic. Blood drawn for laboratory studies is
chocolate-colored. His hemoglobin most likely has which of the
following properties?
(A) Increased binding of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
(B) Increased proportion of Fe3+
(C) Presence of Bart hemoglobin (ǃ4)
(D) Sickle cell mutation
0.3
260 Which one from the following factors inhibits binding of
hemoglobin with oxygen?
(A) Increased body temperature
(B) Chronic hypoxia
(C) Anemia
1301
(D) Metabolic acidosis
0.4
261 More higher affinity for oxygen has
(A) Fetal hemoglobin
(B) Adult hemoglobin
(C) Methemoglobin
(D) Carboxyhemoglobin
0.6
262 Which of the following is correct about hemoglobin?
(A) Each molecule can carry one molecule of oxygen
(B) Fetal type has more affinity for oxygen
(C) Methemoglobin hs more affinity for oxygen
(D) Heme is protein in nature
0.4
263 Which of the following statements about adult hemoglobin is
TRUE?
(A) HbA is composed of two ǃ- and two Ǆ-subunits
(B) Four subunits combine to form the primary structure of HbA
0.6 (C) Each subunit of HbA contains one heme
(D) HbA binds 1 mole of O2
264 Which of the following is NOT a part of normal hemoglobin?
(A) Vinyl group
(B) Propionic acid
(C) Ferric ion
(D) Pyrrole ring
0.8
265 Heme-containing proteins are all of the following EXCEPT
1302
(A) hemoglobin
(B) ceruloplasmin
(C) cytochrome b
(D) myoglobin
0.6
266 Which of the hemoglobin designations below best describes the
relationship of subunits in the quaternary structure of adult
hemoglobin?
(A) (ǂ1-ǂ2) – ( ǃ2-ǃ1)
(B) (ǂ1-ǂ2-ǂ3-ǂ4)
(C) (ǃ1-ǃ2-ǃ3-ǂ1)
(D) (ǂ1-ǃ1) – (ǂ2-ǃ2)
0.5
267 Iron-containing protein is
(A) Ubiquinone (CoQ)
(B) Cytochrome a3
(C) Ceruloplasmin
(D) Cytochrome b
0.6
(A) iron
(B) copper
(C) magnesium
(D) potassium
0.9
268 Major component of deoxy-Hemoglobin is
(A) Pyruvate
(B) 2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate
1303
(C) Fructose-1,6 bisphosphate
(D) Acetyl CoA
0.8
269 High concentration of 2,3BPG in RBCs leads
(A) rupture of RBC membrane
(B) saturation of hemoglobin by oxygen
(C) denaturation of hemoglobin
(D) releasing of oxygen from hemoglobin
0.5
270 High concentration of CO2 in RBCs leads
(A) rupture of RBC membrane
(B) releasing of oxygen from hemoglobin
(C) precipitation of hemoglobin
(D) change of RBCs shape
0.4 271 High concentration of HCO3 - in RBCs leads
) (A) rupture of RBC membrane
(B) (B) saturation of hemoglobin by oxygen
(C) (C) denaturation of hemoglobin
(D) (D) change of RBCs shape
0.2
272 The high level of all of the following molecules DECREASE the
affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen, EXCEPT
(A) 2.3-Bisphosphoglycerate (2,3- BPG)
(B) hydrogen ions (H+)
(C) hydroxyl ions (OH-)
(D) carbon dioxide CO2
0.1
1304
273 Oxygen binding to hemoglobin increases as the
(A) CO2 level is increased
(B) 2,3 BPG level is reduced
(C) pH is reduced
(D) temperature is increased
0.2
274 The characteristic red color of hemoglobin is due to
(A) ǃ-globin
(B) ǂ-globin
(C) heme
(D) 2,3 BPG
0.8
275 Sickle cell anemia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT
(A) presence of Hb-S.
(B) increased osmotic fragility of RBCs.
(C) sickling of erythrocytes.
(D) increased half life of RBCs.
0.4
276 In HbS the position 6 glutamyl residue of the ǃ-globin chain is
replaced by
(A) Valine
(B) Phenylalanine
(C) Glutamate
(D) Lysine
0.8
277 The FUNDAMENTAL CAUSE of sickle cell disease is a change in
structure of:
1305
(A) Hemoglobin
(B) Leukocytes
(C) Capillaries
(D) Blood
0.9
278 Which of the following best explains why neonates with sickle cell
disease do not have symptoms at birth?
(A) Maternal erythrocytes protect neonatal erythrocytes
against sickling
(B) The spleen of the neonates effectively filter out the sickled
cells
(C) Maternal antibodies coat the neonatal cells and inhibit the
sickling phenomen
(D) The concentration of HbS is low but fetal hemohlobin
HbF is high
0.4 279 Which one of the following inherited disorders is a quantitative
abnormality of hemoglobin?
(A) Sickle cell anemia
(B) Porphyries
(C) Methemoglobinemia
(D) Thalassemias
0.4
280 Thalassemia is characterized by decreased production of
(A) Globin chains of hemoglobin
(B) Intestinal chylomicrons
(C) Liver glycogen
(D) Arterial elastic membrabnes
1306
0.4
281 Iron therapy (I.V.infusion) is ineffective in which of the following
conditions:
(A) chronic blood loss.
(B) thalassemia minor.
(C) hypochromic anemia.
(D) impaired absorption of iron.
0.2
282 One of the official medical measurement of anemia is
(E) Blood color
(F) Body mass index
(G) Count of RBC and hemoglobin
(H) Blood volume
0.9
283 Heterozygous sickle cell anemia gives protection against
(A) thalassemia
(B) malaria
(C) hemolysis
(D) oxidative stress
0.6
N 5 Enzymes. Clinical Enzymology.
284 The minimum amount of energy necessary for a molecule(s) to react
is the
(A) activation energy.
(B) free energy.
(C) thermal energy.
(D) potential energy.
0.6
1307
285 The main function of enzymes in the human body?
(A) identify and destroy microbes
(B) regulate body function
(C) transport nutrients to cells
(D) catalyze all chemical reactions
0.8
286 Which of the following is NOT true about enzymes
(A) Enzymes decrease the rate of a chemical reactions
(B) Enzymes are proteins
(C) Enzymes demonstrate specificity
0.7 (D) Enzymes decrease the activation energy of a chemical
reaction
287 Enzymes are sensitive to
(A) Pressure
(B) Heat
(C) Cell wall
(D) Hexose sugar
0.9
288 Which of the following statement is true of enzyme catalysts?
(A) to be effective they must be present at the same
concentration as their substrate
(B) they lower the activation energy for conversion of
substrate to product
(C) their catalytic activity is independent of pH
(D) they can increase the equilibrium constant
0.5
289 Regarding of the mechanism of enzyme action is true
1308
(A) to change the direction of reaction.
(B) to allow substrates to move more freely in solution.
(C) to change energy-requiring reactions into energy-releasing
reactions.
(D) to lower the energy of the activation of a reaction.
0.5
290 The molecule that is acted upon by an enzyme is a
(A) reactant
(B) product
(C) substrate
(D) catalyst
0.9
291 The maximum activity of the most enzymes in organism is at the
optimum temperature:
(A) between 60-100oC
(B) higher 50oC
(C) between 36-45oC
(D) higher 100oC
0.8
292 Which of these is an enzyme name?
(A) urease
(B) lactose
(C) sucrose
(D) glycogenin
0.6
293 Hydrolyses catalyze
(A) Splitting a molecules using water
1309
(B) Interconversion of isomers
(C) Double bond formation
(D) Hydration of substrates
0.8
294 Part of enzyme that interacts with a substrate is known as
(A) cofactor
(B) active site
(C) orientation site
(D) coenzyme
0.9 295 The area of an enzyme into which a substrate fits is called the
(A) catalyst
(B) product
(C) active site
(D) activated complex
0.8
296 “Lock and key” model of enzyme action proposed by Fisher implies
that:
(A) the active site is flexible and adjusts to substrate
(B) the active site requires removal of PO4 group
(C) the active site is complementary in shape to that of the
substrate
(D) substrates change conformation prior to active site
interaction,
0.7
297 What of the following is a coenzyme?
(A) Thiamine
(B) Amylase
1310
(C) Lipase
(D) Salt
0.5
298 The first step in the cycle of an enzyme is
(A) substrate binds to enzyme.
(B) products released.
(C) substrate converted to product.
(D) enzyme become free.
0.9
299 What is the most common coenzyme molecules used to activate an
enzyme?
(A) hormones
(B) vitamins
(C) proteins
(D) minerals
0.8
300 Most of enzymes secreted in human gastro-intestinal tract are:
(A) Transferases
(B) lyases
(C) hydrolases
(D) oxidoreductases
0.7
301 Enzyme catalyzing rearrangement of atomic grouping without
altering molecular weight or number of atoms is
(A) ligase
(B) isomerase
(C) oxidoreductase
1311
(D) hydrolase
0.7
302 Zymogen or proenzyme is a
(A) activator of enzyme.
(B) vitamin derivative.
(C) enzyme precursor.
0.8 (D) hormone like factors.
303 Zymogen is
(A) An intracellular enzyme
(B) Cofactor of enzyme
(C) An inactive enzyme
(D) Inhibitor of enzyme
0.8
304 How is trypsinogen converted to trypsin?
(A) Two inactive trypsinogen dimmers pair to form an active
trypsin tetramer
(B) A protein kinase-catalyzed phosphorylation converts
trypsinogen to trypsin
(C) Enterokinase-catalyzed proteolysis converts trypsinogen
to trypsin
(D) Trypsinogen dimmers bind an allosteric modulator cAMP,
causing dissociation into active trypsin monomers.
0.3
305 Trypsinogen primary is activated by
(A) HCl
(B) Enterokinase
(C) HCO3-
1312
(D) Trypsin
0.7
306
The above reaction is the example of
(A) feedback regulation.
(B) non-covalent modification.
(C) reversible inhibition.
(D) autocatalysis.
0.6
307 In enzyme vitamin complex acts as
(A) inhibitor
(B) zymogen
(C) cofactor
(D) isoenzyme
0.8
308 Trypsinogen is
(A) pancreatic proenzyme.
(B) growth factor.
(C) pancreatic protease inhibitor.
(D) intrinsic factor.
0.6
309 Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?
(A) End product
(B) External factors
(C) Enzyme
(D) Substrate
0.6
Pepsinogen
1313
HCl/ pepsin
Pepsin + peptides
(362 a.a.) (320 a.a.)310 Which one of the following statements, regarding enzyme
classification is INNCORECT?
(A) Oxidoreductases are catalyze oxidation-reduction
reactions
(B) Ligases are catalyze the addition of NH3, CO2, H2O to
substrate and requires energy
(C) Hydrolases are catalyze cleavage C-C bonds
(D) Kinases are catalyze the transfer of phosphate group from
ATP to substrate
0.5
311 NAD+/NADH binds with the enzyme called
(A) hydrolase
(B) kinase
(C) isomerase
(D) dehydrogenase
0.6
312 Most of the members of vitamin B complex act as
(A) Cofactor
(B) Prosthetic group
(C) External factor
(D) Isoenzymes
0.7
313 Enzymes are classified by the
(A) size of enzyme.
(B) size of substrate.
(C) rate of reaction.
1314
(D) type of reaction.
0.9
314 The molecules that fits into the enzyme’s active site is the
(A) codon.
(B) vitamin.
(C) substrate.
(D) coenzyme.
0.9
315 The model that explain that the active site is flexible and the
catalytic group(s) of the enzyme is(are) brought into proper
alignment by substrate is called
(A) Concepted model
(B) Induced fit model
(C) Lock and key model
(D) Sequential model
0.8
316 Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are:
(A) Transferases
(B) Oxidases
(C) Lysases
(D) Peptidases
0.9
317 What do kinases do?
(A) transfer of phosphoric group from ATP to substrates are:
(B) transfer electrons from substrate to electron acceptor
(C) transfer H+ from one compartment to other
(D) transfer substrates across membrane
1315
0.5 318 What do anaerobic dehydrogenases do?
(A) transfer of phosphoric group from ATP to substrates are:
(B) transfer electrons and H+ from substrate to oxidant
(C) transfer H+ from one compartment to other
(D) transfer substrates across membrane
0.4
319
The enzyme X that catalyzes the above process is
(A) lyase
(B) lygase
(C) reductase
(D) isomerase
0.5
320
The enzyme X that catalyzes the above process is
(A) isomerase
(B) lygase
(C) hydrolase
(D) lyase
0.5
321
The enzyme catalyzing the above process is
(A) lyase
(B) kinase
(C) hydrolase
(D) isomerase
0.5
1316
322
The enzyme X catalyzing the above process is
(A) lyase
(B) kinase
(C) hydrolase
(D) isomerase
0.6
NADPH NADP
Hb(Fe
3+
)4 Hb (Fe
2+
)4
COO
OCH3
COO
OH
+ CH3OH
H2O
OH
OH
OH
CH2 -O-PO3H2
OH
CH2OH
CH2 -O-PO3H2
OH
OH
1317
OH
FRUCTOSE-6-P
GLUCOSE-6-P
CH2
CH2NH2
HO
H3C
OH
ATP ADP
CH2
CH2NH2
HO
H3C
OP
X323
(A) Lygase
(B) Lyase
(C) Isomerase
(D) Hydrolase
0.5
324
(A) hydrolase
(B) isomerase
(C) oxidoreductase
(D) lyase
0.6
325 Enzyme of which class catalyze the following process:
Dolichylphosphate –D-mannose + protein →
1318
→ Dolichylphosphate + D-mannosylprotein
(A) hydrolase
(B) transferase
(C) isomerase
(D) oxidase
0.2
326
(A) Hexokinase
(B) Thiokinase
(C) Lactase
(D) Aminopeptidase
0.6
327
(A) Glucokinase
(B) Fructokinase
(C) Hexokinase
(D) Phospofructokinase
0.6
328 NADH would function as a cofactor for a
(A) Transferase
(B) Ligase
(C) Oxidoreductase
(D) Isomerase
0.7
N
COO
1319
OH
COO
H2O
HOOC CH2
CH2 COOH
FAD FADH2
HOOC C H
H C COOH 329 Which of the following is function of protein kinase (PKA)?
(A) Transport
(B) Regulatory
(C) Defense
(D) Structural
0.5
330 All of the following factors will decrease the function of most
enzymes EXCEPT
(A) radiation
(B) temprature
(C) pH
(D) osmotic pressure
0.9
331 Substrate concentration increases the rate of enzymatic reaction up
to a certain point, but has no further effect and reaction rate level
off. This is because
(A) excess product is not released from the active site
(B) accumulation of end product shuts down the reaction
(C) excess substrate makes the enzymes change conformation
(D) all the active sites are saturated with substrate
1320
0.5
332 L-amino acids dehydrogenase is an enzyme that can catalyze the
oxidation of different L-amino acids. It cannot catalyze the
oxidation of D-amino acids or other L-compounds. Based on these
characteristics we can say that this enzyme shows
(A) allosteric regulation.
(B) relative specificity over substrate.
(C) specificity of action.
(D) specific inhibition.
0.4
333 A small molecule that DECRESES the activity of an enzyme by
binding to a site other than the catalytic site is termed a(n)
(A) alternative inhibitor
(B) allosteric inhibitor
(C) stereospecific agent
(D) competitive inhibitor
0.5
334 A zymogen is
(A) Amylase
(B) Trypsin
(C) Pepsinogen
(D) Lipase
0.7
335 A reaction catalyzed by a human enzyme was carried out at 200C. If
there is an excess of substrate, which of the following would cause
the greatest increase in the rate of the reaction?
(A) Adding more enzyme and raising the temperature to 300C
1321
(B) Lowering the temperature to 100C
(C) Adding more substrate and raising the temperature to
300C
(D) Adding more enzyme and lowering the temperature to
100C
0.4
336 Optimum of pH for most of the human enzyme ranges from:
(A) 0-2
0.8 (B) 2-4
(C) 4-9
(D) > 10
337 Km value refers to:
(A) Enzyme concentration
(B) Substrate concentration
(C) Product concentration
(D) Effector concentration
0.6
338 Which one of the following is kinetic characteristic of enzyme?
(A) Optimum of pH
(B) Optimum of temperature
(C) Michaelis-Menthen constant (Km)
(D) Concentration of enzyme
0.7
339 Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at
(A) ½ Vmax
(B) 2 Vmax
(C) ¼ Vmax
1322
(D) 4 Vmax
0.6
340 Elevated blood total transaminases (ALT/AST) 100 x ULN (upper
limit normal) occur in
(A) Acute liver failure
(B) Chronic renal disease
(C) Crush muscles injury
(D) Alzheimer’s disease
0.3
341 A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme has which of the following
properties?
(A) It is frequently a feedback inhibitor.
(B) It becomes covalently attached to an enzyme.
(C) Interferes with substrate binding to the enzyme.
(D) It causes irreversible inactivation of the enzyme
0.6
342 Cellular enzyme is
(A) citrate synthase.
(B) lipoprotein lipase.
(C) C3-convertase.
(D) amylase.
0.5
343 Blood enzyme is
(A) protein kinase.
(B) C3-convertase.
(C) hexokinase.
(D) citrate synthase.
0.5
1323
344 NADPH-dependent enzyme is
(A) methemoglobin reductase.
(B) cytochrome oxidase.
(C) pyruvate kinase.
(D) pancreatic lipase.
0.3 345 Isoenzymes are enzymes that characterized by all of the following,
EXCEPT
(A) coded by the different gene.
(B) localize in different tissue.
(C) catalyze same reaction.
(D) have same kinetic properties
0.8
346 These enzymes have different structure but same catalytic function.
Frequently they are oligomers made from different polypeptides
chains. These enzymes are called
(A) allosteric enzymes.
(B) isoenzymes.
(C) lyases.
(D) proenzymes.
0.5
347 Structure that produces most of hydrolytic enzymes that are active
in the small intestine
(E) pancreas
(F) liver
(G) gall bladder
(H) stomach
0.9
1324
348 Creatine phosphokinase localizes predominantly in
(A) pancreas.
(B) spleen.
(C) kidney.
(D) muscles
0.7
349 Coenzyme for transaminase is:
(A) FAD
(B) NAD+
(C) Vitamin B6
(D) Vitamin B1
0.5
350 Alanine transaminase activity in plasma increases in acute
(A) liver disease.
(B) renal failure.
(C) hemorrhage.
(D) pancreatitis.
0.6
351 A sudden rise in serum Creatine kinase (CPK) is observed in
patient with
(A) renal disease.
(B) acute injury of muscles.
(C) chronic pancreatitis.
(D) liver cirrhosis.
0.6
352 A 56-year-old man dies in an ambulance while on way to the
hospital. His postmortem chemistry studies are remarkable for an
1325
elevation of the creatine phosphokinnase isoenzyme CPK-BB. This
(A) Brain
(B) Lungs
(C) Heart
(D) Kidney
0.3 353 The patient was diagnosed with Wilson’s disease. To confirm the
diagnosis it is necessary to study the activity of the following
enzyme in blood
(A) ǂ1- antitrypsin
(B) carbonic anhydrase
(C) alcohol dehydrogenase
(D) ferroxidase
0.1
354 A 56-year-old man dies in an ambulance while on way to the
hospital. His postmortem chemistry studies are remarkable for an
elevation of the CPK-MB. This laboratory finding would suggest
acute damage of which organ?
(A) Brain
(B) Lungs
(C) Heart
(D) Kidney
0.3
355 Mutations that affect the stability of enzymes are often found to
affect RBCs more than other cell types. The best explanation for this
fact is that
(A) hemoglobin causes instability of these enzymes.
1326
(B) RBCs have leaky membrane.
(C) most RBC’s enzymes are unique to RBCs .
(D) RBCs are unable to replace defective enzyme
0.4
356 A patient presents high activity LDH5, AST and ALT. In what
organ is the development of a pathological process the most
probable?
(A) Heart
(B) Kidney
(C) Liver
(D) Adrenal
0.3
357 Digestive enzyme is
(A) Lipoprotein lipase
(B) Cytochrome oxidase
(C) Protein kinase
(D) Pancreatic amylase
0.6
N 6 Vitamins. Hormones
358 Which one of the following statements about water soluble
vitamins is FALSE?
(A) They are hydrophilic molecules
(B) They are easily absorbed
(C) They are toxic in overdose
(D) They are excreted in urine
0.8
359 Vitamins are
(A) produced in endocrine glands
1327
(B) accessory food factors
(C) proteins in nature
(D) generally synthesized in the body
0.6 360 Excess intake of fat soluble vitamins is stored in which part of the
body?
(A) Stomach
(B) Adipose tissue
(C) Duodenum
(D) Gall bladder
0.9
361 Which one of the following incorporates into chylomicrons and
transferred to the lymph
(A) Retinol
(B) Folic acid
(C) Biotin
(D) Thiamine
0.6
362 Prolonged deficiency of vitamin A can lead to
(A) Beri beri
(B) Pellagra
(C) Keratomalacia
(D) Rickets
0.8
363 Continued intake of excessive amounts of vitamin A especially in
children produces:
(A) hemolytic anemia
(B) bleeding from GIT
1328
(C) skin desquamation
(D) muscular dystrophy
0.4
364 Vitamin A helps
) (A) activity of enzymes.
(B) (B) energy production.
(C) (C) maintaining blood minerals level.
(D) (D) visual cycle.
0.8
365 Which of these is a vitamin A precursor?
(A) Cobalamin
(B) Pyridoxine
(C) Beta-Carotene
(D) Thiamine
0.7
366 Vitamin helps night vision and health skin is
(A) B12
(B) A
(C) K
(D) D
0.6
367 Vitamin D helps
(A) the bones absorb the calcium they need
(B) blood clotting
(C) the health of the skin
(D) protect the body from damage
0.8
1329
368 Vitamin E have protective role against the following EXCEPT
(A) oxidative stress
(B) atherosclerosis
0.8 (C) cardiac attack
(D) hypovolemia
369 Vitamin E protects against
(A) hypersensitivity to sunlight
(B) blood clotting
(C) atherosclerosis
(D) decrease basal metabolic rate
0.4
370 Which vitamin is derived from cholesterol?
(A) A
(B) E
(C) D
(D) K
0.6
371 The following form of vitamin A is used in the visual cycle
(A) retinol
(B) retinaldehyde
(C) retinoic acid
(D) retinyl palmitate
0.3
372 A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause night blindness?
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Niacin
(C) Vitamin D
1330
(D) Biotin
0.9
373 Which form of vitamin A has hormone-like properties?
(A) Retinol
(B) Retinal
(C) Retinoic acid
(D) β-carotene
0.3
374 Retinol
(A) can be formed from retinoic acid
(B) is phosphorylated and dephosphorylated during the
visual cycle
(C) is the non-protein part of rhodopsin
(D) exists as an ester with higher fatty acids in the liver.
0.3
375 Which compound binds to protein in cell nucleus and regulates
gene transcription?
(A) retinoic acid
(B) ǂ-tocopherol
(C) linoleate
(D) biotin
0.3
376 Antirachitic vitamin is
(A) D
(B) K
(C) A
(D) E
0.9
1331
377 Vitamin K
(A) plays an essential role in preventing thrombosis.
0.5 (B) therapy increases the coagulation time in
newborn infants with hemorrhagic disease.
(C) is synthesized by intestinal bacterial flora.
(D) is a water-soluble vitamin
378 Vitamin C
(A) is synthesized by intestinal bacterial flora
(B) plays an essential role in synthesis of collagen
and bone mineralization.
(C) is a fat-soluble vitamin
(D) the non-protein part of all reductases.
0.7
379 Vitamin E
(A) prevents the oxidation of various cell
components by free radicals.
(B) plays important role in the post-translation
modification of GLA-proteins.
(C) helps in the synthesis of glycogen from lactate.
(D) is required for visual cycle
0.5
380 Choline
(A) is maintain plasma Ca2+
(B) prevents accumulation of fat in the liver
(C) is required for cholesterol synthesis
(D) regulates the synthesis of blood clotting factor.
0.4
1332
381 What substance is formed in the epidermal cells of our skin under
the sunlight exposure?
(A) Cholecalciferol
(B) Melanin
(C) 7-dehydrocholesterol
(D) 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
0.5
382 In calcitriol synthesis involves following organs/tissues
(A) intestine – pancreas.
(B) skin – liver – kidney.
(C) adipose tissue – liver – kidney.
(D) muscles- adipose tissue.
0.6
383 Calcitriol acts on the bone (hypercalciemia) and activate
(A) Mineralization of osteoid
(B) Osteoclastic activity
(C) Resorption of bone
(D) Demineralization of bone
0.4
384 Conversion of Vit D2 to Vit D3 (active form) take place in
) (A) intestine
(B) (B) adipose tissue
(C) (C) liver
(D) (D) kidney
0.7
385 To prevent rickets in a case of chronic renal disorders, which of the
following substances should be administered?
1333
(A) High dietary calcium
(B) Ergocholecalciferol
(C) 25 (Ǽǻ) cholecalciferol
0.5 (D) 1, 25(OH)2 - cholecalciferol
386 Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of
(A) Infants due to protein energy malnutrition
(B) Infants due to vitamin K deficiency
(C) Adult due to vitamin D deficiency
(D) Adult due to protein malnutrition
0.5
387 Synthesis of Ca2+-binding protein is activated by vitamin
(A) A
(B) D
(C) E
(D) K
0.5
388 Which of the following are rich by PTH and vitamin D receptors?
(A) Osteocytes
(B) Hepatocytes
(C) Adipocytes
(D) Myocytes
0.3
389 Renal rickets develops in child with deficiency of
(A) 1-ǂ-hydroxylase
(B) 7-ǂ-hydroxylase
(C) 17-ǂ-hyroxylase
(D) 21-ǂ-hydroxylase
1334
0.4
390 1-ǂ-hydroxylase is directly activated by
(A) hypocalciemia
(B) insulin
(C) hyperphosphatemia
(D) parathyroid hormone
0.4
391 Deficiency of 1-ǂ-hydrolase causes
(A) osteomalacia.
(B) resistance rickets.
(C) beriberi.
(D) pellagra.
0.6
392 Which one of the following clinical abnormalities is recorded in
dietary deficiency of vitamin D?
(A) Scurvy
(B) Osteomalacia
(C) Xerophtalmia
(D) Weakness
0.9
393 Some authors recommends that all newborns receive a single
intramuscular dose of vitamin K, since vitamin K is a vitamin
necessary for
(A) the prevention of oxidative damage
(B) calcium and phosphate metabolism
(C) the vision process
(D) the synthesis of clotting factors
1335
0.7 394 Vitamin K metabolic role is
(A) component of membrane.
(B) cofactor of enzyme.
(C) detoxificator of xenobiotics.
(D) transporter of divalent ions.
0.9
395 A fat-soluble vitamin that regulates blood clotting is
(A) vitamin A
(B) vitamin K
(C) vitamin C
(D) niacin
0.9
396 Which vitamin is required for carboxylation of clotting factors?
(A) A
(B) E
(C) D
(D) K
0.5
397 Deficiency of vitamin K leads all of the following, EXCEPT
(A) decreases synthesis of liver’s prothrombin.
(B) decreases synthesis of bone’s osteopontin.
(C) increases time of blood coagulation.
(D) increases permeability of RBC’s membrane.
0.5
398 Vitamin E function in the body is
(A) to maintain vision and skin integrity, as well as growth of
nails and bones.
1336
(B) as an antioxidant to prevent cell damage.
(C) to calcify bones and teeth.
(D) to supply energy and spare protein.
0.7
399
400 Antioxidant is
(A) Vitamin K
(B) Vitamin E
(C) Vitamin A
(D) Vitamin D
0.8
401 Similarity of vitamin C and vitamin K is
) (A) fat soluble.
(B) (B) water soluble.
(C) (C) both are antioxidants.
(D) (D) essential for visual cycle.
0.6
402 Calcitriol acts on the intestinal cells increases absorption of
(A) Fe2+
(B) Vit B12
(C) Ca2+
(D) Vit D
0.9 403 Pantothenic acid is a constituent of the coenzyme involved in
(A) dehydrogenation
(B) decarboxylation
(C) oxidation
(D) acetylation
1337
0.3
404 Which one of the following compounds can be synthesized in
humans?
(A) Ascorbic acid
(B) Linoleic acid
(C) Riboflavin
(D) Niacin
0.4
405 The symptoms of dietary deficiency of niacin (pellagra) will be less
severe if the diet has a high content of
(A) tryptophan
(B) tyrosine
(C) phenylalanine
(D) pantotenic acid
0.2
406 A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause pellagra?
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Niacin
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Biotin
0.7
407 A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause scurvy?
(A) Vitamin C
(B) Niacin
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Biotin
0.9
1338
408 Vitamin B6 deficiency has been observed in humans during the
treatment of tuberculosis with high doses of drugs:
(A) Sulfonamide
(B) Isoinosid
(C) Phenobarbital
(D) Fluorineuracil
0.8
409 Egg is rich in all of the following EXCEPT
(A) cholesterol
(B) calcium
(C) fatty acids
(D) ascorbic acid
0.4
410 Which of these molecules is vitamin H?
(A) Biotin
(B) Carnitine
(C) Folic acid
(D) None of these
0.6
411 Milk is a good source of all of the following, EXCEPT 0.3 (A) calcium and phosphorus
(B) galactose
(C) fat with medium chain fatty acids
(D) vitamin B12
412 Consumption of raw eggs cause deficiency of
(A) biotin
(B) riboflavin
(C) thiamin
1339
(D) ascorbic acid
0.3
413 Cobamide coenzyme is
(A) Vitamin B6
(B) Vitamin B12
(C) Vitamin B9
(D) Vitamin B3
0.5
414 Vitamin folic acid (B9) is essential for synthesis of
(A) amino acids
(B) nucleotides
(C) ribose-5-phosphate
(D) ketone bodies
0.5
415 Which vitamin is essential for formation of dTMP?
(A) Tocopherol
(B) Thiamin
(C) Cholecalciferol
(D) Folic acid
0.5
416 Folate as coenzyme is involved in the transfer and utilization of
(A) amino group.
(B) hydroxyl group.
(C) one carbon moiety.
(D) sulfur group.
0.3
417 (J) Megaloblastic anemia due to deficiency vitamin
1340
) (A) tocopherol
(L) (B) biotin
(M) (C) thiamine
) (D) folic acid
0.6
418 Megaloblastic anemia is caused by the deficiency of
(A) Vitamin K
(B) Iron
(C) Folic acid
(D) Vitamin B6
(O)
0.8
419 A population group that would be at increased risk of vitamin B12
deficiency
(A) infants
(B) pregnant women
(C) strict vegetarians
(D) athletic men
0.7 420 Which vitamin is required for utilization of homocysteine &
production of SAM (S-adenosyl methyanine)?
(A) Thiamine
(B) Niacin
(C) Tetrahydrofolate
(D) Cyanocobalamin
0.4
421 A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause Beriberi?
(A) Vitamin C
1341
(B) Thiamine
(C) Vitamin D
(D) Biotin
0.6
422 The disease pellagra is due to a deficiency of
) (A) vitamin B12.
(B) (B) niacin.
(C) (C) pantothenic acid.
(D) (D) folic acid.
0.6
423 Pellagra occurs in population dependent on
(A) maize
(B) rice
(C) milk
(D) meat
0.9
424 Magenta tongue is found in the deficiency of the vitamin
(A) riboflavin
(B) nicotinic acid
(C) thiamin
(D) pyridoxine
0.4
425 Antioxidants are all of the following, EXCEPT
(A) vitamin E.
(B) vitamin C.
(C) NADPH.
(D) Thiamine-PP.
0.5
1342
426 The vitamin required as coenzyme for the action of transaminases
is
(A) niacin
(B) pyridoxal phosphate
(C) thimine pyrophosphate
(D) tetrahydrofolate
0.4
427 Transketolase activity testing is used for detection deficiency of
(A) Thiamine
(B) Biotin
(C) Niacin
(D) Lipoic acid
0.4
428 Thiamine level is best monitored by:
(A) Transketolase level in RBC
(B) Thiamine level in blood
0.3 (C) Glucose-6-Phosphatase activity
(D) Reticulocytosis
429 The vitamin used in the treatment of convulsion in alcoholism is
(E) (A) riboflavin.
) (B) thiamine.
(G) (C) folic acid.
) (D) niacin.
0.4
430 The requirement of vitamin B1 is increased when energy
metabolism is elevated. During which one of the following
conditions requirements of vitamin B1 is NOT increased?
1343
(A) Fever
(B) Hyperthyroidism
(C) Increased muscular activity
(D) Hypothyroidism
0.2
431 Liver stores all of the following, EXCEPT
(A) Vitamin D
(B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin B12
(D) Vitamin C
0.6
432 Biochemical indication of vitamin В12 deficiency can be obtained
by measuring the urinary excretion of
(B) Pyruvic acid
(C) Lactic acid
(D) Malic acid
(E) Methyl malonic acid
0.3
433 The grows factor of intestinal bacteria is:
(E) Tetrahydrofolate
(F) Coenzyme A
(G) Lipoate
(H) Vitamin D
0.3
434 Ascorbic acid is involved in which of the following types of
reactions?
(A) Deamination
1344
(B) Hydroxylation
(C) Oxidation-Reduction
(D) Carboxylation
0.4
435 Vitamin B6 involved in:
(E) Lipid metabolism
(F) Amino acids metabolism
(G) Mineral metabolism
(H) Carbohydrate metabolism
0.7
436 What is common reaction for folate and vitamin B12?
(A) Isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA
(B) Synthesis of the NAD+ and NADP+
(C) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate
(D) Methionine synthesis
0.3 437 Sulfa drugs are antimetabolites of
(A) pyridoxine.
(B) p-amino benzoic acid.
(C) pantothenic acid.
(D) riboflavin.
0.5
438 Methylmolonic aciduria is seen in a deficiency of vitamin
(A) B1
(B) B4
(C) B9
(D) B12
0.5
1345
439 Formaminoglutamate test (FIGLU) is used for detection
(A) Vitamin B12deficiency
(B) Vitamin B9 deficiency
(C) Vitamin B3 deficiency
(D) Vitamin B1 deficiency
0.3
450 Which one of the following diseases is due to vitamin deficiency?
(A) Pernicious anemia
(B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Fructose intolerance
(D) Cystinuria
0.9
451 Which one of the following is NOT a function of any hormone?
(A) Affects membrane transport of substances
(B) Regulates water balance in the body
(C) Acts as a source of energy
(D) Promotes transcription of messenger RNA
0.5
452 Which of the following statements relating to the properties of
hormones is correct?
(A) A paracrine hormone exerts its action on the cell that
secretes it
(B) Steroid hormones bind to intracellular/nuclear receptors.
(C) All hormones enter the general circulation
(D) Peptide hormones are lipid-soluble
0.4
453 Which of the following statements relating to the properties of
1346
hormones and hormone actions is NOT correct?
(A) Epinephrine travels in the blood in free form
(B) Peptide hormones travel in the blood in combination with
carrier proteins
(C) Many anterior pituitary hormones are under feedback
regulation
(D) A circadian rhythm is an hourly rhythm
0.4
454 G-protein acts as
(A) signal transducer
(B) hormone carrier
(C) second messenger
(D) hormone inhibitor
0.5 455 The nucleotide (GDP)- binding site of G-protein is present on the
(A) ǂ-subunit
(B) ǃ–and Ǆ- subunits
(C) Ǆ-subunit
(D) ǂ– and ǃ- subunits
0.5
456 Hormone that binds to intracellular receptor
(A) Thyroxine
(B) Insulin
(C) Follicule stimulating hormone (FSH)
(D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
0.4
457 Prolonged low level of plasma thyroid-binding globulin (TBG)
leads
1347
(A) decrease plasma total thyroid hormones level
(B) increased plasma total thyroid hormones level
(C) no effect on plasma total thyroid hormone level
(D) increase the plasma thyroxin (T4) level only
0.2
458 Which of the following recognizes the signal?
(A) Hormone
(B) Receptor
(C) Effector
(D) Messenger
0.6
459 Receptors for insulin is localized in(on)
(A) plasma membrane.
(B) intracellular matrix.
(C) interstitial space.
(D) nucleus.
0.7
460 Receptors for testosterone is localized in(on)
(A) plasma membrane.
(B) intracellular matrix.
(C) interstitial space.
(D) Golgi apparatus.
0.7
461 Adenylate cyclase cascade transduces
(A) cAMP
(B) DAG & Ca2+
(C) IP3
1348
(D) cGMP
0.6
462 Protein kinase is
(A) activated by covalent binding of cAMP
(B) allosterically activated by cAMP
(C) competitively inhibited by cAMP
(D) non-competitively inhibited by cAMP
0.3
463 Secretion of insulin is regulated by
(A) hypothalamic releasing peptides
0.6 (B) anterior pituitary hormones
(C) positive feedback effect of plasma glucose
(D) negative feedback effect of plasma insulin
464 Insulin secretion inhibited by
(A) High level of blood glucose
(B) Short-term rising of blood fatty acids
(C) Prolonged elevation of blood fatty acids
(D) High level of blood amino acids
0.3
465 Target organ/tissue for insulin effect is
(A) Brain
(B) Kidney
(C) Adipose
(D) Uterus
0.8
466 Correct statement about steroid hormones
(A) activate adenylate cyclase.
1349
(B) transducer of signals through second messengers.
(C) act as transcriptional factors.
(D) activate phosphorylation of enzymes.
0.5
467 Which from the following statements regarding G-proteins is
CORRECT?
(A) Activated by the binding of an extracellular ligand to a
membrane receptor
(B) Mediate the action of glucocorticoid hormone
(C) Bind to DNA to regulate gene expression
(D) Phosphorylate proteins
0.3
468 PTH is involved in the regulation of
(A) sodium and magnesium metabolism
(B) carbohydrate metabolism
(C) calcium and phosphorus metabolism
(D) amino acids and lipids metabolism
0.7
N 8 Carbohydrates metabolism
566 NADH is required for the one-step reaction by which pyruvate is
converted to
(A) lactate.
(B) acetyl CoA.
(C) phosphoenolpyruvate.
(D) succinyl CoA.
0.8
567 A disaccharide linked by ǂ(1ń4) glycosidic bond is
(A) lactose.
1350
(B) sucrose.
0.6 (C) cellulose.
(D) maltose.
568 Storage polysaccharide made by animals is
(A) amylopectin
(B) glycogen
(C) cellulose
(D) collagen
0.8
569 Which of the following is NOT a disaccharide?
(A) pectin
(B) sucrose
(C) lactose
(D) maltose
0.8
570 A high ratio of insulin to glucagon can
(A) promote ketogenesis
(B) occurring in starvation
(C) promote glycogenolysis
(D) promote glycogenesis
0.2
571 Hexokinase activity is inhibited by
(A) glucose 6- phosphate
(B) fatty acids
(C) citric acid
(D) water overload
0.6
1351
572 Monosaccharide is
(E) Ribose
(F) Acetyl CoA
(G) Acetoacetate
(H) Glycerol
0.9
573 Which of the statement best characterize glucose?
(A) It usually exists in furanose form
(B) It is a ketose
(C) It is an unit of glycogen and starch
(D) It is oxidized to sorbitol
0.6
574 Starch and glycogen are polymers of
(A) ǂ-D-Galactose
(B) ǃ-D-Fructose
(C) ǂ-D-Glucose
(D) ǃ-D-Ribose
0.8
575 Which one of the following contains glycosidic bond?
(A) Lactose
(B) Glucose
(C) Fat
(D) Alanine
0.6 576 Which one of the following enzymes is digestive enzyme of
carbohydrates?
) (A) Aconitase
(B) (B) Arginase
1352
(C) (C) Amylase
(D) (D) Aldolase
0.7
577 Which of the following carbohydrates would be most abundant in
the diet of strict vegetarians?
(A) Cellulose
(B) Glycogen
(C) Lactase
(D) Sucrose
0.7
578 Iodine test is positive for
(A) glucose.
(B) glycogen.
(C) protein.
(D) cholesterol.
0.5
579 Humans are unable to digest
(A) starch
(B) complex carbohydrates
(C) denatured proteins
(D) cellulose
0.9
580 Hydrolysis of lactose yields
(A) galactose and fructose
(B) galactose and glucose
(C) glucose and fructose
(D) fructose and galactose
0.7
1353
581 Two major products of HMP pathway are
(A) NADPH and ribose 5-phosphate
(B) FADH2 and glucose 6-phosphate
(C) FAD and CoA
(D) Erythrose and sederoheptulose
0.6
582 A catabolic intermediate which stimulates phosphofructokinase
would stimulate
(A) gluconeogenesis
(B) glycolysis
(C) glycogen synthesis
(D) glycogen breakdown
0.5
583 Which one from the following transporters for glucose is involved
in it reabsorption from lumen into tubular cells?
(A) SGLT-1
(B) GLUT-1
(C) SGLT-2
(D) GLUT-4
0.5 584 Which one of the following glucose transporter is insulin
dependent?
(A) SGLT-1
(B) GLUT-1
(C) SGLT-2
(D) GLUT-4
0.6
585 Pancreatic amylase breaks down
1354
(A) ǃ (1ń4) glycosidic bond
(B) ǂ (1ń6) glycosidic bond
(C) ǂ (1ń4) glycosidic bond
(D) ǃ (1ń6) glycosidic bond
0.5
586 Intestinal isomaltase breaks down
0.7
587 Intestinal sucrase breaks down
0.5
588 Intestinal lactase breaks down
0.4
589 All of the following factors stimulate insulin secretion, EXCEPT
(A) increase blood glucose level.
(B) increase intracellular Ca2+ -ions.
(C) paracrine effect of glucagon.
1355
(D) decrease intracellular pH.
0.3
590 Vitamin thiamine (B1) is essential for metabolism of
(B) lipids
(C) proteins
(D) carbohydrates
(E) amino acids
0.8
591 Which one from the following statements is describing glycolysis
correctly?
(A) Occurs in the mitochondria
(B) Requires presence of oxygen
(C) Cytoplasmic energy-releasing pathway
(D) Produces NADH and Acetyl CoA
0.5
592 In mammalian cells during anaerobic condition increase level of
(A) lactate
0.9 (B) pyruvate
(C) acetyl CoA
(D) glucose
593 Transport of glucose into cells may requires all of the following
EXCEPT
(A) transport carrier protein
(B) insulin
(C) osmotic gradient
(D) ATP
0.5
1356
594 Active transport of glucose into cells requires all of the following,
EXCEPT
(A) transport carrier protein
(B) ATP
(C) Na+ ions
(D) osmotic gradient
0.5
595 Cramps are caused by heavy exercise resulting in the accumulation
of
(A) lactate
(B) ethanol
(C) heat
(D) carbon dioxide
0.7
596 Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction of ATP
formation by substrate level phosphorylation?
(A) Aldolase A
(B) Pyruvate kinase
(C) Hexokinase
(D) Lactate dehydrogenase
0.5
597 This organ converts lactate from muscle to a fuel for other tissue
(A) liver
(B) brain
(C) skeletal muscle
(D) red blood cells
0.6
1357
598 Lactic acid is produced by human RBCs because of lack of
(A) oxygen
(B) mitochondrions
(C) glucose
(D) ADP and Pi
0.8
599 Each of the following metabolites provides carbon for glucose
synthesis by the process of gluconeogenesis EXCEPT
(A) amino acids from muscle protein
(B) lactate from red blood cells
(C) glycerol from adipose fat
(D) even-chain fatty acids from adipose fat
0.5
600 In RBCs a pyruvate kinase deficiency would be expected to increase 0.6 (A) the life span
of the cells
(B) ATP production
(C) the NADH/NAD+ ratio
(D) lysis of the cells
601 In RBCs how many net molecules of ATP are generated when one
molecule of glucose is oxidized?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 12
(D) 24
0.5
602 Problems in the glycolytic pathway can affect oxygen transport by
RBCs to the tissues. How would a hexokinase deficiency alter
hemoglobin oxygen affinity?
1358
Answer 2,3 BPG O2 affinity
(A) Increased Increased
(B) Increased Decreased
(C) Decreased Increased
(D) Decreased Decreased
0.3
603 Which one of the following pathways takes place in the RBCs for
energy production?
(A) Anaerobic glycolysis
(B) Aerobic glycolysis
(C) ǃ-oxidation of fatty acids
(D) Gluconeogenesis
0.7
604 Muscle glycogen is not available for maintenance of blood glucose
level because:
(A) muscle lacks glucose-6-phosphatase activity.
(B) there is insufficient glycogen in muscle
(C) muscle lacks glucose transporter GLUT-4.
(D) muscle lacks glucagon receptors.
0.3
605 Muscle glycogen will NOT serve as a precursor of blood glucose
due to absence of
(A) glycogen phosphorylase.
(B) receptor for glucagon.
(C) glucose-6-phosphatase.
(D) receptor for insulin.
0.5
1359
606 During a myocardial infarction the oxygen to an area of the heart is
dramatically reduced, forcing the cardiac myocytes to switch to
anaerobic metabolism. Under this condition, which of the following
enzyme would be activated by increasing intracellular cAMP?
(A) Malate dehydrogenase
(B) Phosphofructokinase-1
(C) ATP- synthase
(D) Succinate dehydrogenase
0.2
607 The primary metabolic fate of lactate released from muscle into
blood during intense exercise is:
0.5 (A) excretion of lactate in urine.
(B) transported to liver for gluconeogenesis.
(C) degradation by lactase.
(D) reuptake by muscle for conversion to pyruvate.
608 All of the following can lead intracellular lactic acidosis, EXCEPT
(A) intracellular hypoxia.
(B) pyruvate kinase deficiency.
(C) thiamine deficiency.
(D) poisoning by heavy metal ions.
0.6
609 Synthesis of 2,3-biphosphoglycerate occurs in
(A) liver.
(B) kidney.
(C) erythrocytes.
(D) brain.
0.8
1360
610 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate is:
(A) a high energy substrate
(B) involved in substrate level phosphorylation
(C) an intermediate in pentose phosphate pathway
(D) an allosteric effector that decreases affinity of hemoglobin
for oxygen
0.6
611 Glucose can synthesize from which amino acid?
(A) Histidine
(B) Proline
(C) Tyrosine
(D) Alanine
0.5
612 Glucose cannot be synthesized from
(A) Glycerol
(B) Lactate
(C) Amino acids
(D) Fatty aids
0.6
613 The negative allosteric effector for pyruvate dehydrogenase is
(A) acetyl CoA
(B) isocitrate
(C) oxaloacetate
(D) fumarate
0.5
614 Acetyl CoA synthesis from pyruvate requires all of the following,
EXCEPT
1361
(A) NAD+
(B) PDH complex
(C) coenzyme A
(D) oxygen
0.4
615 Insulin-stimulatory process is
(A) glycogenolysis.
(B) ketogenesis.
(C) gluconeogenesis.
0.4 (D) glycogenesis.
616 Glycolysis is the name given to the pathway involving the
conversion of
) (A) glycogen to glucose-6-phosphate.
(B) (B) glycogen or glucose to fructose.
(C) (C) glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or lactate.
(D) (D) glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or Acetyl CoA.
0.5
617 20 mol glucose ń X mol pyruvate
X in above equation equal
(A) 10
(B) 20
(C) 40
(D) 60
0.6
618 Glycolysis is activated by increasing level of cytoplasmic
(A) citrate
(B) protons (H+)
1362
(C) NADH
(D) Fructose-2,6-BP
0.5
619 Glycolysis is anaerobic in
(A) renal medullar part
(B) renal cortical part
(C) neurons
(D) liver
0.5
620 Carbon dioxide (CO2) is added to pyruvate to make
(A) Butyric acid
(B) Lactic acid
(C) Acetyl CoA
(D) Oxaloacetic acid
0.6
621 What is enzyme of citric acid cycle?
(A) Pyruvate kinase
(B) Fumarase
(C) Arginase
(D) Carbomoyl phosphate
0.8
622 Pyruvate ń Oxaloacetate is reaction of
(A) ketogenesis.
(B) glycolysis.
(C) gluconeogenesis.
(D) Kreb’s cycle.
0.6
1363
623 Which of the following vitamins does not participate in the
oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA?
(A) Thiamine
(B) Niacin
(C) Biotin
(D) Riboflavin
0.5 624 Following are substances for gluconeogenesis, EXCEPT
(A) glycerol.
(B) adenine.
(C) alanine.
(D) lactate.
0.5
625 Endogenous glucose synthesis increases in the persons with all of
the following endocrinopathy, EXCEPT
(A) thyroxin excess (hyperthyroidism).
(B) cortisol excess (Cushing syndrome/disease).
(C) glucagon excess (glucagonoma).
(D) insulin excess (insulinoma).
0.4
626 Which compound in the tissues completely absent after 10 days of
starvation?
(A) Protein
(B) Lipids
(C) Glycogen
(D) Nucleic acid
0.5
627 Synthesis of endogenous glucose stimulated by
1364
(A) well-fed.
(B) starvation.
(C) alcohol.
(D) carbohydrate-rich diet.
0.4
628 Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydrogenase deficient patient can develop
(A) liver cirrhosis.
(B) hemolytic crisis.
(C) renal failure.
(D) decrease bone density.
0.6
629 HMP shunt in RBCs is major sources of components of
(A) membrane
(B) antioxidant system
(C) transport system
(D) hemoglobin
0.8
630 Which of the following is NOT a function of NADPH?
(A) Energetic
(B) Biosynthetic
(C) Antioxidantic
(D) Phagocytic
0.9
631 Enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogense is required for the
synthesis of
(A) glycogen
(B) nucleotides
1365
(C) ribose-5-phosphate
(D) triacylglycerides
0.7
632 The glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency causes
hemolytic anemia due to lack of
0.5 (A) ATP
(B) Pentose
(C) Iron
(D) NADPH
633 Mature erythrocytes do not contain
(A) glucose catabolic enzymes.
(B) HMP shunt enzymes.
(C) carbonic anhydrase.
(D) nucleotide synthetic enzymes.
0.6
634 A 4-year-old-girl has been unable to eat for 2 days, because of GIT
disorder. Which of the following is the NOT major source of energy
for her skeletal muscles after 2 days?
(A) Muscle glycogen
(B) Serum fatty acids
(C) Serum glucose
(D) Muscle triacylglyceride
0.7
association is true?
(A) Erythrocytes: TCA cycle
(B) Erythrocytes: glycolysis
1366
(C) Cytosol: E.T.C.
(D) Mitochondria: glycolysis
0.9
636 A person who accidentally ingested a compound that completely
inhibited fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase could still form substantial
amounts of blood glucose from
(A) muscle glycogen stores
(B) lactate produced by red blood cells
(C) ingested galactose
(D) ingested fructose
0.2
637 A person who accidentally ingested a compound that completely
inhibited phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase could still form
substantial amounts of blood glucose from
(A) muscle glycogen stores
(B) lactate produced by red blood cells
(C) ingested galactose
(D) ingested fructose and galactose
0.1
638 Insulin resistance can lead all of the following, EXCEPT
(A) hyperglycemia.
(B) decrease uptake of glucose by muscles.
(C) hypoketonic hypoglycemia.
(D) glucosuria.
0.2
639 Which one of the following tissues can clear lactic acid by own
mechanism?
1367
(A) Brain
(B) RBCs
(C) Cornea
0.3 (D) Kidney
640 Accumulation of lactic acid inside the cells can lead all of the
following, EXCEPT
(A) denaturation of intrcellular proteins.
(B) decrease pH.
(C) decrease activity of some enzymes.
(D) dissolve intracellular cholesterol.
0.3
641 After overnight fasting level of glucose transporters are reduced in
(A) brain.
(B) liver.
(C) adipose tissue.
(D) erythrocytes.
0.3
642 During overload of some tissues by glucose, glucose is converted to
(A) glucuronic acid.
(B) sorbitol.
(C) gluconic acid.
(D) ethanol.
0.4
643 Lack of liver glycogen phosphorylase would lead all following
symptoms EXCEPT
(A) stable hypoglycemia
(B) wasting syndrome
1368
(C) chronic hyperglycemia
(D) hepatomegaly
0.5
644 All of the following are examples of glycogenosis, EXCEPT
(A) Cori’s disease
(B) Pomp’s disease
(C) Her’s disease
(D) Wilson disease
0.4
645 Which one of the following requires for glycogenesis?
(A) Mitochondrion
(B) Debranching enzymes
(C) UDP-glucose
(D) Gucagon
0.7
646 Glycogen is short-term storage form of
(A) glycerol.
(B) glucose.
(C) glyceraldehyde.
(D) glucuronate.
0.7
647 Which one of the following hormones stimulates liver
gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis and lipolysis?
(A) Insulin
(B) Calcitonin
(C) Glucagon
0.3 (D) Cortisol
1369
648 The presence of ketonemia is associated with which endocrine
disorder?
(A) Thyrotoxicosis (excess TH)
(B) Diabetes mellitus I (abs.insulin)
(C) Acromegaly (incr.GH)
(D) Addison disease (decr.cortisol)
0.4
649 The accumulation of this specific compound in the lens produces
cataract in diabetic patient. This compound is
(A) glucose.
(B) fructose.
(C) galactose.
(D) sorbitol.
0.5
650 When excess amount of carbohydrates or proteins consumed they
are stored in the body as
(A) triacylglycerides.
(B) glucose.
(C) glycogen.
(D) protein.
0.4
651 Both Fructose and Galactose are phosphorylated by specific kinases
in liver at position
(A) C1
(B) C2
(C) C4
(D) C6
1370
0.5
652 All of the following vitamins is required for full intracellular
glucose oxidation, EXCEPT
(A) Niacin
(B) Pantothenic acid
(C) Thiamine
(D) Ascorbic acid
0.7
653 Food L-glucose does NOT give energy because
(A) it cannot be digested.
(B) it cannot be absorbed.
(C) glucokinase is specific for D-glucose only.
(D) it is fermentated by colon bacteria.
0.6
654 Which is NOT a function of the main products of the pentose
phosphate pathway?
(A) To provide reducing power for the synthesis of fatty
acids
(B) To maintain the reduced form of iron in hemoglobin
(C) To serve as precursors in the biosynthesis of RNA
and DNA
(D) To raises the concentration of cAMP
0.4 655 Arsenic ions inhibit all, EXCEPT
(A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(B) Lipoic acid
(C) ǂ-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
(D) Aldolase
1371
0.3
656 Each of the following metabolites provides carbon skeleton for
glucose synthesis, EXCEPT
(A) even-chain fatty acid from remnant chylomicrons.
(B) glycerol from adipose triacylglycerides.
(C) lactate from muscles and RBCs.
(D) alanine from muscle protein.
0.4
657 All of the following carbohydrate metabolic pathways occur in the
liver EXCEPT
(A) Maintenance of blood glucose
(B) Glycogen synthesis & its storage
(C) Gluconeogenesis
(D) Insulin-dependent uptake of glucose
0.5
658 Gluconeogenesis is conversion of
(A) n Glucose 1-P ń Glycogen
(B) Glycerol ń Glucose
(C) Galactose-1-P ńGlucose-1-P
(D) Glucose ń Glucose-6-P
0.7
659 Which of the following is NOT needed for glycogen synthesis?
(A) Glycogen phosphorylase
(B) Glucose-1-phosphate
(C) Branching enzymes
(D) Uridine triphosphate (UTP)
0.7
1372
660 Which one of the following metabolites is connected between
gluconeogenesis and glycolysis?
(A) Alanine
(B) Pyruvate
(C) Fumarate
(D) Malate
0.5
661 Which one of the following products accumulates in the cells if
major Leloir pathway of galactose catabolism is blocked?
(A) Fructose
(B) Galactitol
(C) Lactose
(D) Glucose
0.5
662 Galactosemia is due to deficiency of all enzymes, EXCEPT
(A) galaktokinase.
(B) phosphoglucomutase.
(C) galactose-1-P-Uridyltransferase.
(D) UDP-galactose epimerase.
0.4 663 Galactosemic baby can develop hypoglycemia due to all of the
following, EXCEPT
(A) stimulation of insulin secretion by galactose.
(B) blockage of gluconeogenesis by galactose.
(C) accumulation of galactitol.
(D) osmotic injury of hepatocytes.
0.5
664 Precursor for glycogen synthesis is
1373
) (A) galactose-1-P.
(B) (B) glucose-1-P.
(C) (C) glycerol.
(D) (D) glucagon.
0.6
665 Gluconeogenesis is increased in
(A) In well fed state
(B) Hyperinsulinism
(C) Diabetes mellitus
(D) Hyperparathyroidism
0.7
666 Key regulatory enzyme of glycogenesis is
) (A) UDP-Glucose phosphorylase.
(B) (B) glycogen phosphorylase.
(C) (C) glycogen synthase.
(D) (D) amylo ǂ(1-4): ǂ(1-6) glucotransferase.
0.5
667 Hormone that activates synthesis of glycogen in the liver is
) (A) cortisol
(B) (B) glucagon
(C) (C) insulin
(D) (D) epinephrine
0.5
668 330. Amylo ǂ(1-6) glucosidase is located in
) (A) lysosomes.
(B) (B) proteosomes.
(C) (C) mitochondria.
1374
(D) (D) cytoplasm.
0.4
669 Glycogen is polymer of
) (A) glucose only.
(B) (B) galactose only.
(C) (C) glucose and fructose.
(D) (D) pectin.
0.9
670 Core of glycogen granules is composed from
) (A) protein rich by tyrosine.
(B) (B) protein rich by glutamic acid.
(C) (C) lipid-like material.
(D) (D) steroid-ring components.
0.5
671 Primary role of muscle glycogen is to supply glucose to:
(A) Synthesize lactose
(B) Plasma for regulation of insulin level
(C) Formation of energy needs for muscle contraction
0.7 (D) Plasma for maintain brain energy during starvation
672 Increased level of Glucose-6-phosphate in the hepatocytes inhibits
and activates
) Glycolysis/ Gluconeogenesis
(B) Glycolysis/ Glycogenesis
(C) Glycogenesis/ Gluconeogenesis
(D) Glycogenolysis/Glycolysis
0.4
673 During night sleeping in the liver of human more higher activity of
1375
) (A) glycogen phosphorylase.
(B) (B) glycogen synthase
(C) (C) pyruvate carboxylase.
(D) (D) pyruvate dehydrogenase.
0.7
674 Person can develop hypoglycemic crisis after prolonged
consumption of alcoholic drinking. This can be explained by
) (A) increased glycogenesis.
(B) (B) increased gluconeogenesis
(C) (C) decreased gluconeogenesis.
(D) (D) decreased glycogenlysis.
0.6
675 Which enzyme is deficient in the liver in cases of hereditary
fructose intolerance?
(A) Hexokinase
(B) Aldolase B
(C) Glucokinase
(D) Phosphofructokinase
0.5
676 Cori's, McArdle's, von Gierke's and Andersen's diseases are all
examples of:
(A) glycogenolysis.
(B) gluconeogenesis.
(C) glycogenosis.
(D) glycogenesis.
0.7
677 Glucose in the glycogen is held by
1376
(A) hydrogen bonds
(B) coordinate bonds
(C) ionic bonds
(D) glycosidic bonds
0.8
678 Ketogenesis and gluconeogenesis are activated when level of
mitochondrial ___________ increases in the liver
(A) NADH
(B) FADH2
(C) Acetyl CoA
(D) Citric acid
0.5
679 Insulin effects on the liver
Answer Glycolysis Gluconeogenesis
(A) Ń Ņ
(B) Ń Ń
(C) Ņ Ņ
0.4 (D) Ņ Ń
680 The significance of Cori cycle is to produce
(A) liver glucose from muscle lactate
(B) liver NADPH for lipid synthesis
(C) blood glutamine from tissue ammonia
(D) testicular testosterone from LDL-cholesterol
0.4
681 Which factor requires for following process: Pyruvate → Lactate?
(A) ATP
(B) NADH
1377
(C) NAD+ + H+
(D) FADH2
0.4
682 All of the following are pathogenic factors for development of
hepatosteatosis, EXCEPT
(A) vitamin deficiency.
(B) decrease phospholipids synthesis.
(C) decrease VLDL formation.
(D) increase oxidation of fatty acids.
0.5
683 Enzyme of glycolysis is
(A) Lactate dehydrogenase
(B) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(C) NADH dehydrogenase
(D) Malate dehydrogenase
0.8
684 All of the following are examples of glycogenosis, EXCEPT
(A) Cori’s disease
(B) Pomp’s disease
(C) Refsum’s disease
(D) Her’s disease
0.3
685 The building blocks (monomers) that make up starch, glycogen,
cellulose are:
(A) Nucleotides
(B) Amino acids
(C) Monosaccharides
1378
(D) Isoprenoids
0.7
686 Warburg effect is
(A) anaerobic glycolysis is increased in neoplastic cells
(B) HMP shunt is increased in erythrocytes during hypoxia
(C) decrease pH of the blood leads liberation of oxygen from RBCs
into tissues
(D) glycolysis is decreased when fatty acid oxidation is increased
0.6
687 A patient has increased blood pyruvate level. A large amount of it
is excreted with the urine. What is vitamin lacking in this patient?
(A) Tocopherol
(B) Thiamine
(C) Naiacin
(D) Folic acid
0.7 688 Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus type I patient has high risk factor for
development of acute complication:
(A) ketoacidotic coma
(B) acute renal failure
(C) ischemic heart attack
(D) autoimmune hemolysis
0.5
689 Irreversible reaction of glycolysis:
) (A) Phosphoenolpyruvate ń Pyruvate
(Q) (B) Glucose -6-P ń Fructose-6-P
(R) (C) Pyruvate ń Lactate
) (D) Glyceraldehyde-3-P ń DHAP
1379
0.8
690 (T) All of the following would lead lactic acidosis EXCEPT
) (A) high altitude
(V) (B) heart failure
(W) (C) LDH deficiency
(X) (D) thiamine deficiency
0.6
(Y)
Clinical aspects: Pathology of carbohydrates metabolism& energy production
691 A patient has a genetic defect that causes intestinal epithelial cells
to produce disaccharidases of much lower activity than normal.
Compared to a normal person, after eating a bowl of milk and cake
this patient will have higher level of
(A) galactose and fructose in the blood.
(B) disaccharides in the stool.
(C) glycogen in the muscles.
(D) starch in the stool.
0.3
692 A newborn develops diarrhea after milk feeding. When the milk is
replaced by the glucose solution the diarrhea disappears. Which of
the following enzymes is inactive in this newborn?
(A) Invertase
(B) Amylase
(C) Lactase
(D) Maltase
0.4
693 A 43-year old man was presented with symptoms of weakness,
1380
fatigue, shortness of breath and dizzies. His hemoglobin levels
were between 5 to 7 g/dl (normal 13.5 g/dl). RBCs isolated from
the patient showed abnormally low level of lactate production. A
deficiency of which one of the following enzymes would be the
) (A) Fructose-1,6-BP-phosphatase
(B) (B) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase
(C) (C) Glucose-6-P-phosphatase
(D) (D) Pyruvate kinase
0.5
694 A 43-year old man was presented with symptoms of weakness,
fatigue, shortness of breath and dizzies. His hemoglobin levels
were between 5 to 7 g/dl (normal 13.5 g/dl). RBCs isolated from
the patient showed abnormally low level of lactate production.
0.6 Which one of the following features also predominant in this
patient?
) (A) Lactic acidosis
(B) (B) Hemolytic anemia
(C) (C) Hyperglycemia
(D) (D) Hyperthermia
695 A 30-year-old man has been fasting for religious reason for several
days. His brain has reduced its need for glucose by using which of
the following substances as an alternative source of energy?
(A) Glycerol
(B) Acetone
(C) Fatty acids
(D) ǃ-hydroxybutyrate
0.5
1381
696 Pyruvate kinase deficient patient can develop
(A) Hemolytic crisis
(B) Renal failure
(C) Bleeding
(D) Xanthomas
0.7
697 A newborn baby experienced abdominal distension, severe bowel
cramps and diarrhea after being fed milk. A hydrogen analysis of
his exhaled breath discovered an eight time increase in the
production of hydrogen (H2) 90 minutes after milk feeding. The
infant most probably suffers from deficiency of
(A) Galactokinase
(B) Lactase
(C) Isomaltase
(D) Galactose-1 –P-uridyltransferase
0.6
698 Which of the following laboratory test would help you determine
whether patient has type I or type II diabetes mellitus?
(A) C-peptide levels
(B) Insulin levels
(C) Fasting blood glucose
(D) Hemoglobin A1c
0.7
699 Diabetes mellitus type II predominantly binds with
(A) Glucagon resistance
(B) Cortisol excess
(C) Insulin resistance
1382
(D) Insulin excess
0.6
700 Von Girke disease is due to mutation affecting degradation of
(A) hemoglobin
(B) glycogen
(C) cholesterol
(D) collagen
0.7
701 All of the following can lead intracellular lactic acidosis, EXCEPT
) (A) intracellular hypoxia.
(B) (B) pyruvate kinase deficiency.
(C) (C) thiamine deficiency.
0.5 (D) (D) poisoning by heavy metal ions
702 A two year old boy was brought into the emergency room,
suffering from severe fasting hypoglycemia. In physical
examination he was found to have hepatomegaly. A liver biopsy
indicated that hepatocytes contained greater than normal amount
of glycogen that was abnormal structure with limit dextrin type.
Muscles and other organs were not affected. A deficiency of which
one of the following enzymes would be the most likely cause of this
patient’s pathology?
) (A) Lysosomal maltase
(B) (B) Liver phosphorylase
(C) (C) Muscles phosphorylase
(D) (D) Liver debranching enzyme
0.4
703 A two year old boy was brought into the emergency room,
1383
suffering from severe fasting hypoglycemia. In physical
examination he was found to have hepatomegaly. A liver biopsy
indicated that hepatocytes contained greater than normal amount
of glycogen that was abnormal structure with limit dextrin type.
) (A) Von Girke disease
(B) (B) Cori’s disease
(C) (C) Mc Ardle disease
(D) (D) Anderson disease
0.5
704 All of the following are laboratory data of uncontrolled Diabetes
Mellitus, EXCEPT
) (A) ketonemia
(B) (B) glucosuria
(C) (C) hyperglycemia
(D) (D) proteinuria
0.4
705 3-month old boy presents with poor growth, low muscle tone
(hypotonia), elevation of blood lactate (lactic academia), and mild
acidosis (blood pH = 7.30-7.35). The ratio of pyruvate to lactate in
serum is elevated. Which of the following compounds might be
recommended for therapy?
(A) Ascorbic acid
(B) Vitamin D
(C) Free fatty acids
(D) Thiamine
0.6
1384
706 A patient has a tumor of ǂ-cells of the islet of Langerhans which of
the following findings would result from the excessive hormone
secretion from this tumor?
(A) Increased glycolysis
(B) Decreased blood glucose level
(C) Increased HMP shunt
(D) Increased blood glucose concentration
0.4
707 A child’s blood presents high content galactose, glucose
concentration is low. There are such presentations as cataract,
mental deficiency, fatty liver. What disease is it?
(A) Galacosemia
0.3 (B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Lactosemia
(D) Steroid diabetes (Cushing’s syndrome)
708 Galactosemia is due to deficiency of
(A) galactokinase.
(B) galactose-1-P-uridyltransferase.
(C) UDP-Galactose-epimerase.
(D) all of the above.
0.4
709 Deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1) leads decrease activities of all
of the following enzymes, EXCEPT
(A) pyruvate carboxylase.
(B) pyruvate dehydrogenase.
(C) isocitrate dehydrogenase.
(D) transketolase.
1385
0.3
710 A person with Galactosemia is advised not to consume which of the
following products?
(A) Caffeine-containing food
(B) Sucrose-containing food
(C) Corn syrup
(D) Milk –containing food
0.3
711 Normal fasting blood glucose level
) (A) 140 mg/dl
(B) (B) 60-100 mg/dl
(C) (C) < 60 mg/dl
(D) (D) > 160 mg/dl
0.7
712 Glucosuria in uncontrolled DM occurs when the venous glucose
concentration exceeds
(A) 100 mg/dl
(B) 140 mg/dl
(C) 180 mg/dl
(D) 60 mg/dl
0.5
713 Insulin resistance can lead all of the following EXCEPT
(A) Hyperglycemia
(B) Hypoketonic hypoglycemia
(C) Decrease uptake of glucose by muscles
(D) Glucosuria
0.3
1386
714 Patient with large mesenchymal tumor develop fasting
hypoglycemia due to
(A) loss of glucose through the urine.
(B) decrease uptake of blood glucose by all cells.
(C) increase uptake of blood glucose by neoplastic cells.
(D) loss insulin through its inactivation by inhibitors
0.3
715 Patients who suffer from severe diabetes type I and don’t receive
insulin have metabolic acidosis. This is caused by increased
concentration of the following metabolites
0.6 (A) ketone bodies
(B) triacylglycerides
(C) unsaturated fatty acids
(D) cholesterol
716 A male infant failed to gain weight and showed metabolic acidosis
in the neonatal period. A physical examination at 6 month showed
hypotonia, small muscle mass, lethargy, motor dysfunction, optic
atrophy.
Investigation of blood
Lactate: 40 mg/dl (normal: 4-14 mg/dl)
Pyruvate: 3.6 mg/dl (normal 0.3-0.9 mg/dl)
pH: 7.20 ( normal: 7.35 – 7.45)
What is the most likely diagnosis?
) (A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
(B) (B) Glucokinase deficiency
(C) (C) Phosphofructokinase I deficiency
(D) (D) Pyruvate kinase deficiency
1387
0.6
717 Best explanation of Gestational Diabetes is increasing level
of_____that block insulin receptors
(A) (A) placental lactogen.
(B) (B) maternal serum estrone.
C) (C) milk progesterone-like compounds.
D) (D) maternal serum ǂ-fetoprotein.
0.6
718 Screening test for Geststional DM is
) (A) O’Sullivan test
(B) (B) Benedict’s test
(C) (C) Seliwanoff’s test
(D) (D) Shilling test
0.4
719 In Turai syndrome enzyme deficient is
(A) PK
(B) PFK-1
(C) G6PDH
(D) HGPRT
0.8
720 After a sprint an untrained person develops muscle hypoxia. This
leads accumulation of metabolite in muscle known as
(A) oxaloacetate.
(B) uric acid.
(C) lactate.
(D) citric acid.
0.9
1388
721 A 3-month-old boy presents with poor feeding and growth, low
muscle tone, elevation of blood lactate. There is decreased
conversion of pyruvate to Acetyl CoA in fibroblasts. Which of the
following compounds should be considered for therapy?
(A) Ascorbic acid
(B) IV glucose solution
(C) Vitamin B1 injection
(D) Biotin injection
0.7 722 Which of the following is the most sensitive test of pancreatic ǃ-cell
insulin secretory reserve?
(A) Oral Glucose Tolerance Test
(B) Urine Glucose excretion
(C) Random blood glucose
(D) Fasting level blood glucose
0.6
723 A patient has a tumor of ǂ-cells of the islet of Langerhans which of
the following findings would result from the excessive hormone
secretion from this tumor?
(A) Increased glycolysis
(B) Increased insulin response
(C) Increased HMP shunt
(D) Increased blood glucose concentration
0.4
724 Following are causes of hyperglycemic glucosuria EXCEPT
(A) Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic ǃ-cells
(B) Damage of pancreatic islet by alloxan
(C) Prolonged glucocorticoid therapy
1389
(D) Renal reabsorption defect
0.5
725 A 18-month-old child is left unattended in the kitchen and ingests a
small portion of rat poison that contains fluoroacetate.
Fluoroacetate reacts with oxaloacetate to form fluorocitrate. Which
pathway of the body is inhibited by this poison?
(A) Fatty acid oxidation
(B) HMP shunt
(C) TCA cycle
(D) Glycolysis
0.6
726 The level of what plasma protein would be increased in Diabetes
mellitus patient?
(A) C-reactive protein
(B) Fibrinogen
(C) Glycosylated hemoglobin
(D) Ceruloplasmin
0.5
N 9 Lipids metabolism
727 How are lipids absorbed during digestion?
(A) They are hydrolyzed by amylase in the mouth.
(B) They are emulsified in the small intestine by bile salts.
(C) They are digested in the stomach by stomach acids.
(D) They are transported directly through blood
0.7
728 Which one of the following is NOT a component of pancreatic
juice?
(A) Phospholipase A
1390
(B) Lipase
(C) Lipoprotein lipase
(D) Cholesterol esterase
0.7 729 In the intestine, the dietary fats are hydrolysed by
(A) triacylglycerol lipase
(B) adenylate cyclase
(C) pancreatic lipase
(D) protein kinase
0.8
730 Phospholipid contains
(A) hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails
(B) long water-soluble carbon chains
(C) positively charged functional groups
(D) both (b) and (c)
0.6
731 Micelles of fatty acids in water are organized such that the
__________ faces the solvent and the __________ are directed
toward the interior
(A) carboxylic acid groups, hydrocarbon chains heads
(B) hydrophilic heads, hydrophobic tails
(C) hydrocarbon chains, carboxylic acid groups
(D) both (a) and (b)
0.7
732 The dietary lipids are transported in blood as
(A) micells.
(B) chylomicrons.
(C) complex with albumin.
1391
(D) liposomes.
0.6
733 The component of the waxes is:
(A) Adenine
(B) Glutamine
(C) Glucose
(D) Fatty acid
0.7
734 The component of the fat is:
(A) Adenine
(B) Glutamine
(C) Glucose
(D) Glycerol
0.8
735 Which bond is formed when a hydroxyl group of alcohol joints the
carboxylic group of fatty acid?
(A) peptide
(B) glycosidic
(C) ester
(D) hydrogen
0.8
736 Lipids are compounds that are soluble in
(A) distilled water.
(B) organic solvent.
(C) glucose solution.
(D) saline solution.
0.9 737 Fatty acids are component of all of the following, EXCEPT
1392
(A) phospholipids.
(B) triacylglycerides.
(C) cholesterol esters.
(D) cholecalciferol.
0.9
738 The main function of fat in the human body is to
(A) increase rate of chemical reactions
(B) transport substances into cells
(C) regulate body function
(D) long-term store of energy
0.9
739 Which of the following is NOT a function of lipids in human body?
) (A) Energy storage
(B) (B) pH regulation
(C) (C) Insulation
(D) (D) Homeostasis regulation
0.8
740 The compound that derived from sterols is
) (A) cholesterol ester.
(B) (B) arachidonic acid.
(C) (C) triacylglyceride.
(D) (D) phophatidyl glyceride.
0.7
741 Which of the following is a lipid?
) (A) Collagen
(B) (B) Lactose
(C) (C) Nicotine
1393
(D) (D) Lecithine
0.7
742 Steroid is
(I) pyruvate
(J) glycerol
(K) acetyl CoA
(L) cholesterol
0.9
743 Rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis
(A) Squalene ń Lanosterol
(B) Isoprenoid unit ńSqualene
(C) Acetoacetyl CoAń HMG CoA
(D) HMG CoA ńMevalonate
0.5
744 The surface tension in intestinal lumen between fat droplets and
aqueous medium is decreased by
) (A) gastric HCl.
(B) (B) ammonium-ions.
(C) (C) bile salts.
(D) (D) pancreatic juice.
0.9
745 Which one of the following compounds is added to diacylglyceride
for re-synthesis of specific human triacylglycerides in small
intestinal mucosal cells?
0.6 ) (A) Glycerol
(B) (B) Fatty acyl CoA
(C) (C) Acetyl CoA
1394
(D) (D) Glycerol-3-phosphate
746 Pancreatic insufficiency may result in
) (A) increased pH in the intestinal lumen.
(B) (B) decreased formation of bile salt micelles.
(C) (C) increased of fat in the stool.
(D) (D) increased of blood chylomicrons.
0.5
747 Chylomicrons function is
(A) store form of lipids.
(B) emulsified agent.
(C) intestinal enzyme.
(D) blood lipid transporter.
0.7
748 Hydrolysis of 1 mole of lipid yields 2 moles of fatty acids, one mole
of glycerol & 1 mole of phosphoric acid This lipid is
) (A) triacylglyceride.
(B) (B) phosphotidic acid.
(C) (C) arachidonic acid.
(D) (D) cholesterol.
0.5
749 In mammals, the major lipid of membrane
) (A) phospholipids.
(B) (B) fatty acids.
(C) (C) vitamin E.
(D) (D) triacylglyceride.
0.8
750 Which of the following statements about how dietary fat can be
1395
utilized by the body is FALSE?
) (A) It can be stored in the form of glycogen for later use
(B) (B) It can be stored as a triglyceride for later use
(C) (C) It can be used to make lipid-containing compounds
(D) (D) It can be used as an immediate source of energy for cells
0.7
751 Hormone-sensetive lipase is activated through
(E) (A) adenylate cyclase.
) (B) phosphatidyl/inositol.
(G) (C) NO.
) (D) Ca2+/calmodulin.
0.5
752 The complete oxidation of long odd chain fatty acids produces
which of the following?
) (A) Acetyl CoA only
(B) (B) Acetyl CoA and Propionyl CoA
(C) (C) Butyryl CoA
(D) (D) Propionyl CoA and Formyl CoA
0.4
753 Each cycle of ǃ-oxidation produces
(A) 1 FADH2, 1 NAD+, and 1 AcetylCoA
(B) 1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 1 AcetylCoA
(C) 1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 2 CO2 molecules
0.4 (D) 1 FAD, 1 NAD+ and 2 CO2 molecules
754 Propionyl CoA is produced during oxidation of
) (A) C19-chain fatty acid.
(B) (B) C16-chain fatty acid.
1396
(C) (C) C14-chain fatty acid.
(D) (D) C22-chain fatty acid.
0.6
755 Propionyl CoA is metabolized to
) (A) glycerol-3-phosphate.
(J) (B) succinyl CoA.
) (C) malonyl CoA.
(L) (D) triacylglyceride.
0.4
756 Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with
(A) 2 double bonds
(B) 3 double bonds
(C) 1 double bond
(D) single bonds only
0.6
757 The role of hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL) is to
(A) hydrolyze triacylglycerides stored in adipose tissue
(B) hydrolyze lipids stores in the liver
(C) hydrolyze membrane phospholipids
(D) synthesize lipids in adipose tissue
0.4
758 When does NOT ǃ-oxidation occur?
(M) (A) In a fast
) (B) Intense physical activity
(O) (C) In a starvation
) (D) In well-fed state
0.8
1397
759 What mitochondria do NOT perform ǂ-oxidation?
(Q) (A) Mitochondria in cardiomyocytes
(R) (B) Mitochondria in hepatocytes
) (C) Mitochondria in intestinal mucosal cells
(T) (D) Mitochondria in brain cells
0.6
760 A very long chain fatty acids are oxidized in
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Ribosomes
(C) Peroxisomes
(D) Golgi apparatus
0.4
761 What is the role of thiolase in the ǃ-oxidation of fatty acids?
) (A) Cleaves the bond between ǂ- and ǃ-carbons
(B) (B) Generates NADH
(C) (C) Activates fatty acids
(D) (D) Adds water to ǃ- double bond of Acyl CoA
0.5 762 Carnitine involves in
) (A) activation of fatty acids.
(B) (B) translocation of fatty acids across cell membrane.
(C) (C) oxidation of fatty acids.
(D) (D) translocation of fatty acids across mitochondrial membrane.
0.7
763 Patients with abnormal oxidation of fatty acids develop symptom
) (A) hypoketonic hypoglycemia.
(B) (B) hyperketonic hypoglycemia.
(C) (C) ketoacidosis only.
1398
(D) (D) hyperosmolar hyperglycemia.
0.2
764 A 16-year-old marathon runner trains by running 15 miles every
morning, requiring a constant supply of ATP that predominantly is
formed by
) (A) anaerobic oxidatiob of glucose.
(V) (B) aerobic oxidation of glucose.
(C) lipolysis and oxidation of fatty acids.
(D)creatine-phosphate dephosphorylation
0.7
765 How many carbons are removed from Acyl CoA in one turn of ǃ-
oxidation?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
0.8
766 How many molecules of Acetyl CoA are produced in oxidation of
C18 fatty acid?
(A) 2
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) 18
0.5
767 A fatty acid with 14 carbon atoms will undergo how many cycles of
beta oxidation?
(A) 4
1399
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
0.5
768 Plasma free fatty acids are increased due to deficiency of which
hormone?
(E) (A) Insulin
) (B) Glucagon
(G) (C) Cortisol
) (D) Epinephrine
0.5
769 Thiolase is enzyme of
(A) ketone bodies oxidation.
(B) thyrosine synthesis.
(C) fatty acid oxidation.
(D) cholesterol degradation.
0.8
770 The activation of long chain fatty acids requires which of the 0.6 following components?
(A) 2 ATPs only
(B) Coenzyme A only
(C) 2 ATP s & coenzyme A
(D) Fatty acyl-carnitine
771 Which one from the following enzymes catalyze energy -
requirement reaction?
(A) Thiolase
(B) Thiokinase
(C) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
1400
(D) ǃ-hydroxyacyl CoA dehydrogenase
0.4
772 Carnitine is required for the transport of
(A) triacylglycerides out of liver.
(B) triacylglycerides into mitochondria.
(C) short chain fatty acids into cells.
(D) long chain fatty acids into mitochondria.
0.4
773 Carnitine-containing drug was recommended to sportsman for
improving results. What processes is activated by this supplement?
(A) Synthesis of steroid hormones
(B) Transport of fatty acids to the mitochondria
(C) Synthesis of proteins
(D) Increased number of mitochondria
0.5
774 ǃ- oxidation of fatty acids occurs in
(A) erythrocytes.
(B) heart.
(C) brain.
(D) lens.
0.9
775 Which one of the following tissues can metabolize glucose, fatty
acids, and ketone bodies for ATP production?
(A) Liver
(B) Muscles
(C) Brain
(D) Red blood cells
0.5
1401
776 Acetyl CoA is formed during ǃ-oxidation of fatty acids
(A) goes on to further oxidation in TCA cycle
(B) recycles back into ǃ-oxidation
(C) is further metabolized into acetate
(D) used as a cholesterol precursor
0.6
777 The ǃ-oxidation of palmitic acid (C15H31COOH):
(A) Yields 16 molecules of Acetyl CoA
(B) Yields carbon dioxide and water only
(C) Repeats 8 cycles
(D) Yields 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA
0.5
778 After an overnight fast the blood levels of which of the following
will be higher in a person with a carnitine deficiency than in normal
person?
0.4 (A) Fatty acids
(B) Glucose
(C) Bile acids
(D) Glycerol
779 A low ratio of insulin to glucagon can
(A) promote ketogenesis
(B) occurring in well fed state
(C) promote glycogenesis
(D) promote lipogenesis
0.5
780 All of the following statements regarding ketone bodies are true,
EXCEPT
1402
(A) they are produced during starvation.
(B) they are formed in kidneys.
(C) they include acetoacetate, acetone, hydroxybutirate.
(D) they may be excreted in urine.
0.5
781 Which of the following condition is characterized by ketonuria but
without glucosuria?
(A) Diabetes mellitus
(B) Carnitine deficiency
(C) Prolonged starvation
(D) Wilson’s diseases
0.3
782 The presence of ketonemia is associated with which endocrine
disorder?
(A) Thyrotoxicosis (excess TH)
(B) Diabetes mellitus I (abs.insulin)
(C) Acromegaly (incr.GH)
(D) Addison disease (decr.cortisol)
0.5
783 All of the following conditions promote increasing blood glycerol
level , EXCEPT
(A) fasting.
(B) lipid-rich diet.
(C) carbohydrate –rich diet.
(D) increase blood insulin.
0.2
784 HMG CoA is formed in the metabolism of
1403
(A) cholesterol, ketone bodies.
(B) triaylglycerides, cholesterol.
(C) fatty acids only.
(D) phospholipids only.
0.4
785 Glycerol can catabolized by
(A) liver.
(B) brain.
(C) erythrocytes.
(D) muscles.
0.7
786 All of the following are intermediates of glycerol catabolism, 0.3 EXCEPT
(A) glycerol-3-phsphate.
(B) glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate.
(C) dehydroxyacetone phosphate.
(D) ǃ- hydroxybutyrate.
787 Glycerol released by hydrolysis of lipoproteins triacylglycerides is
mainly
(A) taken up by extrahepatic tissues.
(B) taken up by the liver.
(C) reutilized in adipose tissue.
(D) excreted from the body.
0.8
788 483. Cholesterol contains ___ carbons
(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 27
1404
(D) 29
0.6
789 Best source of cholesterol is
(A) butter.
(B) egg yolk.
(C) milk.
(D) black gram (urd).
0.7
790 Dietary cholesterol is carried from intestine to the liver by
(A) chylomicrons.
(B) through portal vein.
(C) VLDL
(D) LDL
0.6
791 Which of the following compound is precursor of acetone?
(E) Propionyl CoA
(F) Urea
(G) Acetyl CoA
(H) Cholesterol
0.5
792 Which of the following is the primary ketone body?
(A) Acetone
(B) Acetoacetate
(C) ǃ-hydroxybutyrate
(D) Hydroxymethyl glutarate
0.3
793 Increased level of blood ketone bodies is risk factor for
1405
development of
(A) edema
(B) acidosis
(C) anemia
(D) atherosclerosis
0.5
794 Thiophorase is enzyme of which pathway?
(A) Gluconeogensis
(B) TCA cycle
0.4 (C) Ketolysis
(D) Glycolysis
795 The key enzyme for the utilization of ketone bodies is
(A) thiolase.
(B) thiophrase.
(C) thiokinase.
(D) thioesterase.
0.5
796 All of the following conditions promote increase synthesis of
ketone bodies, EXCEPT
(A) starvation.
(B) uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
(C) Von Girke’s disease.
(D) high carbohydrate diet.
0.2
797 A high omega-3 fatty acid diet is associated with reduced incidence
of
(A) Skin disease
1406
(B) Cardiovascular disease
(C) Kidney disease
(D) Endocrine disease
0.7
798 In cystic fibrosis the pancreatic ducts become obstructed by viscous
mucus. Consequently, digestion of which of the following
substances would be most impaired?
(A) Lipids
(B) Nucleotides
(C) Lactose
(D) Sucrose
0.4
799 Laboratory investigation of patient revealed a high level of plasma
low density lipoprotein. What disease can be diagnosed?
(A) Acute pancreatitis
(B) Acute renal failure
(C) Obstructive jaundice
(D) Atherosclerosis
0.4
800 Which one of the following situations would result in an increase
ketone bodies synthesis by the liver?
(A) After meal
(B) Decrease oxygen concentration
(C) Prolonged fasting
(D) Increase blood glucose
0.5
801 Severe ketoacidosis is seen primarily in individuals with
1407
(A) Atherosclerosis
(B) Chronic pancreatitis
(C) Type I diabetes mellitus
(D) Myopathic carnitine deficiency.
0.7
802 Physiological conditions promote the synthesis of ketone bodies
would also promote the
0.3 (A) oxidation of fatty acids in the RBCs
(B) synthesis of glucose in the liver
(C) synthesis of TG in the liver
(D) oxidation of glucose in adipose tissue
803 Which one of the following effects of insulin is NOT found in
adipose tissue?
) (A) Decreased hormone sensitive lipase activity
(B) (B) Increased ketone bodies synthesis
(C) (C) Increased lipoprotein lipase synthesis
(D) (D) Stimulate uptake of glucose
0.4
804 Which of the following is NOT a function of cholesterol?
(A) Steroid hormone synthesis
(B) Structural component of membrane
(C) Synthesis of bile acid
(D) Oxidation for ATP synthesis
0.5
805 Cholestrol
(A) contains a methyl group
(B) is a primary alcohol
1408
(C) is a precursor of adrenal medullar hormones
(D) is a major constituent of plants and fungi
0.7
806 Cholesterol is absent in:
(A) Fish
(B) Cow’s milk
(C) Liver
(D) Vegetable oils
0.8
807 Cholestrol is a precursor of
(A) Adrenal medullar hormones
(B) Adrenal cortical hormones
(C) Hypothalamic releasing hormones
(D) Pancreatic hormones
0.9
808 Cholestrol is the precursor of
(A) steroid hormones
(B) vitamin A
(C) bile salts
(D) both (a) and (c)
0.9
809 All following statements about cholesterol are correct EXCEPT
(A) can be synthesized extrahepatically
(B) is a precursor of bile acids
(C) key regulatory enzyme HMG CoA reductase
(D) transport in the blood in the free form
0.7
1409
810 Hydroxymethylglutaryl CoA
(A) is formed by catabolism of glutamic acid
(B) serves as a precursor of cholesterol
(C) intermediate of ketone bodies synthesis
0.7 (D) correct b) and c)
811 Glycerol in the liver is metabolized to intermediate
(A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)
(B) Glycine
(C) S-adenosylmethionine
(D) Coproporphyrin
0.6
812 Which of the following is NOT involved in the biosynthesis of
cholesterol?
(A) Energy
(B) Acetyl CoA
(C) Aldolase
(D) NADPH
0.4
813 Important function of cholesterol is to
(A) modulate fluidity of membrane
(B) enhance blood circulation
(C) prevent bile salts formation
(D) none of these
0.9
814 Sex hormones are derived from
(A) bilirubin
(B) cholesterol
1410
(C) palmitic acid
(D) leucine
0.9
815 Major organ for synthesis of cholesterol is
(A) pancreas.
(B) spleen.
(C) liver.
(D) uterus.
0.9
816 Cholesterolemia means
(A) lack of functional LDL receptors
(B) lack of functional HDL receptor
(C) high sensitivity to fatty food intake
(D) none of the above
0.5
817 Cholesterolemia means
(A) High sensitivity to fatty food intake
(B) Increased level of LDL-C in the blood
(C) Increased free cholesterol in the blood
(D) Lack of lipoprotein lipase
0.9
818 Regarding bile salts all statements are correct EXCEPT
(A) Play an important role in the absorption of lipids
(B) Are conjugates of bile acids with taurine or glycine
(C) Reabsorbed from intestine through portal vein
(D) Catabolized in intestine by bacterial flora to CO2 &
H2O
0.5
1411
819 Cholesterol is the precursor of the all of the following compounds, 0.8 EXCEPT
(A) bile acids.
(B) ǃ-hydroxybutyrate.
(C) testosterone
(D) cortisol
820 Cholesterol is precursor of all of the following hormones, EXCEPT
(A) calcitriol.
(B) calcitonin.
(C) estradiol.
(D) cortisol.
0.9
821 All of the following are intermediates of cholesterol biosynthesis,
EXCEPT
(A) squalene.
(B) ǃ-hydroxybutyrate.
(C) farnesylpyrophosphate.
(D) ǃ-hydroxy-ǃ-methylglutaryl CoA.
0.5
822 Animal fed high cholesterol diet shows decreased cholesterol by
the liver due to inhibition of which of the following enzyme?
(A) HMG CoA lyase
(B) Mevalonate kinase
(C) HMG CoA reductase
(D) HMG CoA synthase
0.3
823 Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about
cholesterol?
1412
(A) Cholesterol circulates in the body as a lipoprotein complex
(B) Cholesterol is an important constituent of plasma
membrane
(C) Steroid hormones are synthesized from cholesterol
(D) Most of cholesterol used by the body is derived from the
diet
0.4
824 All of the following are intermediates of cholesterol biosynthesis,
EXCEPT
(A) mevalonate.
(B) taurocholate.
(C) farnesyl PPi.
(D) squalene.
0.5
825 Which one of the following compounds is competitive inhibitor of
key regulatory enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis?
(A) Squalene
(B) Cholesterol
(C) Acetoacetyl CoA
(D) HMG CoA
0.6
826 The major source of cholesterol in smooth muscle cells is
(A) VLDL
(B) LDL
(C) HDL
(D) IDL
0.7 827 Lavostatin and mevastatin lowers serum levels of
1413
(A) Triglycerides
(B) Cholesterol
(C) Free fatty acids
(D) Glucose
0.7
828 Which of the following hydroxylases is involved in bile acid
formation?
(A) 1-ǂ-hydroxylase
(B) 7-ǂ-hydroxylase
(C) 17-ǂ-hydroxylase
(D) 21-ǂ-hydroxylase
0.4
829 Regarding bile salts all statements are correct, EXCEPT
(A) play an important role in the absorption of lipids.
(B) are conjugates of bile acids with taurine or
glycine.
(C) reabsorbed from intestine through portal vein.
(D) catabolized in intestine by bacterial flora to CO2
& H2O.
0.5
830 All of the following are required for bile salts synthesis, EXCEPT
) (A) 7-ǂ-hydroxylase.
(B) (B) cholesterol.
(C) (C) glycine.
(D) (D) 1-ǂ-hydroxylase.
0.6
831 Which of the following is a major function of lipoproteins?
1414
) (A) Donors of amino acids to the tissues
(B) (B) Carriers of lipids in the blood
(C) (C) Determine viscosity of the blood
(D) (D) Determine oncotic pressure of the blood
0.6
832 How many types of lipoproteins in the blood?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 8
0.7
833 What is the major protein constituent of high-density lipoprotein
(HDL)?
(A) apo A-l
(B) apo C-l
(C) apo E
(D) apo B48
0.5
834 Initiator for fatty steak formation in intima of arteries is
(A) oxidized high density lipoprotein
(B) reduced low density lipoprotein
(C) oxidized low density lipoprotein
(D) reduced high density lipoprotein
0.5 835 Which lipoprotein transports cholesterol to intima of artery?
(A) HDL
(B) LDL
(C) Chylomicrons
1415
(D) VLDL
0.5
836 Deficiency of apoprotein CII leads increase in blood
(A) glucose
(B) lipids
(C) protein
(D) sodium
0.7
837 Carbon atoms of cholesterol are derived from
(A) propionyl CoA.
(B) acetyl CoA.
(C) succinyl CoA.
(D) malonyl CoA.
0.5
838 All of the following statements about farnesyl pyrophosphate are
correct, EXCEPT
(A) it is intermediate of cholesterol biosynthesis.
(B) it is precursor for Coenzyme Q synthesis.
(C) it is intermediate of prostaglandins synthesis.
(D) it is precursor for dolichol pyrophosphate.
0.3
839 Rate controlling step of cholesterol biosynthesis is
(A) Lanosterol ń Cholesterol
(B) HMG-CoA ń Mevalonic acid + CoA
(C) Acetoacetyl-CoA + Acetyl-CoA ń HMG-CoA +CoA
(D) Squalene ń Lanosterol
0.4
1416
840 The precursor for vitamin D is
(A) cholesterol.
(B) arachidonic acid.
(C) triacylglycerol.
(D) phospholipids.
0.9
841 A gall stone that blocked the upper part of the bile duct would
cause increase in which of the followings?
(A) Excretion of fats in the feces
(B) Formation of chylomicrons
(C) Excretion of bile salts
(D) Recycling of bile salts
0.8
842 LCAT is
(A) Lactose choline alanine transferase
(B) Lecithin -cholesterolacyl transferase
(C) Lecithine carnitine translocase
(D) Lanoleate carbomoyl acyl transferase
0.5
843 Chylomicrons are synthesized in
(A) blood
(B) liver
(C) intestine
0.7 (D) pancreas
844 Where does chylomicrons synthesis take place?
(A) Liver
(B) Intestinal lumen
1417
(C) Intestinal mucosal cell
(D) Adipose tissue
0.5
845 All of the following are components of lipoproteins, EXCEPT
) (A) phospholipids.
(C) (C) fat-soluble vitamins.
(D) (D) carbohydrates.
0.8
846 All of the following are functions of apoproteins, EXCEPT
) (A) activators or inhibitors of enzymes.
(B) (B) help in aggregation of lipoprotein particles.
(C) (C) determine stability of lipoprotein particles.
(D) (D) recognize of specific receptors for utilization of lipoproteins.
0.8
847 Which one of the following statements about lipoproteins is
correct?
) (A) Chylomicrons are synthesized primarily in adipose tissue and
transport triacylglycerides to the liver
(B) (B) HDL particles are produced from LDL in the circulation by the
action of lipoprotein lipase
(C) (C) VLDLs are precursors of LDL in the circulation
(D) (D) HDL competes with LDL for binding to receptors on the
surface of cells in extrahepatic tissues.
0.3
848 Which one of the following changes would you expect in a patient
with decreased activity of lipoprotein lipase?
1418
(A) Elevation of plasma chylomicrons only
(B) Elevation of both plasma chylomicrons and VLDLs
(C) Elevation of plasma LDL only
(D) Elevation of both plasma HDL and LDL
0.4
849 What is the correct ordering of lipoprotein particles from lowest to
the highest density?
(E) (A) LDL- IDL – VLDL- chylomicrons
) (B) VLDL-IDL-LDL- chylomicrons
(G) (C) Chylomicrons-VLDL-IDL-LDL
) (D) Chylomicrons – LDL-IDL-VLDL
0.4
850 Which one of the following apoprotein is synthesized in the liver as
integral part of VLDL?
) (A) A I
(B) (B) B-100
(C) (C) C II
(D) (D) B – 48
0.6
851 All of the following statements about lipoprotein lipase are correct,
EXCEPT
(A) synthesized by adipocytes
0.3 (B) synthesized by myocytes
(C) deficiency leads hypertriglyceridemia
(D) deficiency leads hypercholesterolemia
852 Dietary fats after absorption appear in the blood circulation as
) (A) HDL
1419
(B) (B) VLDL
(C) (C) LDL
(D) (D) Chylomicrons
0.8
853 Where does VLDL synthesis take place?
(A) Liver
(B) Intestinal lumen
(C) Intestinal mucosal cell
(D) Adipose tissue
0.6
854 Plasma become milky due to increase level of
(A) lipoproteins
(B) glucose
(C) ketone bodies
(D) urea
0.7
855 LDL transport
(A) triacylglycerides from liver.
(B) tricylglycerides from intestine.
(C) cholesterol to liver.
(D) cholesterol to tissues.
0.7
856 The building blocks (monomers) that make up HDL :
(A) Lipids
(B) Minerals
(C) Monosaccharides
(D) Nucleotides
0.9
1420
857 Which of the following statement regarding chylomicrons is
correct?
(A) Contain polysaccharides
(B) Are made in the liver
(C) Have a shell of water
(D) Contain a lipid materials
0.9
858 Synthesis of lipoprotein lipase is activated by
(A) Cortisol
(B) Glucagon
(C) Insulin
(D) Epinephrine
0.7
859 A laboratory data of patient with Tangier disease is
(A) absence of Apo AI and low blood HDL level.
(B) absence of LDL receptor and high blood LDL level.
(C) low activity of LPL and high level of blood VLDL.
(D) absence of Apo B and low level of blood chylomicrons
0.5 860 The patient has unusual red cells morphology (acanthocytosis
thorny-appearing cells) due to membrane abnormalities in their
erythrocytes. This membranopathy would most likely from
malabsorption of which from the following essential fatty acid?
(A) Linolenic (C18:3)
(B) Palmitic (C16:0)
(C) Ascorbic
(D) Folic
0.3
1421
861 The following is an activator of lipoprotein lipase
) (A) Apo E
(B) (B) Apo C II
(C) (C) Apo A I
(D) (D) Apo B-48
0.4
862 The following is an activator of lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase
(LCAT)
) (A) Apo B-100
(B) (B) Apo AI
(C) (C) Apo B-48
(D) (D) Apo E
0.5
863 All of the following are functions of HDL, EXCEPT
) (A) donates Apo CII & Apo E.
(B) (B) removes excess of cholesterol from the tissues.
(C) (C) converts cholesterol to cholesterol ester.
(D) (D) is transporter of dietary lipids.
0.5
864 VLDL transport
(B) triacylglycerides from intestine.
(C) cholesterol to tissues.
(D) cholesterol to liver.
0.6
865 HDL transport
1422
(B) triacylglycerides from intestine.
(C) cholesterol to liver.
(D) cholesterol to tissues.
0.7
866 Specific scavenger receptor SR-B1 present on the surface of
extrahepatic tissue including vessels for
(A) LDL
(B) HDL
(C) VLDL
(D) IDL
0.6
867 Which of the following lipid profiles is atherogenic?
Answer Total cholesterol
mg/dl
HDL
mg/dl
(A) 120 50
(B) 300 20
(C) 320 90
0.5 (D) 200 60
868 558. Normal blood LDL level is
(A) < 150 mg/dl
(B) > 200 mg/dl
(C) > 500 mg/dl
(D) <300 mg/dl
0.6
869 Normal blood HDL level is
1423
(A) 40-60 mg/dl
(B) > 200 mg/dl
(C) 10-15 mg/dl
(D) > 350 mg/dl
0.5
870 A 35-year-old man has a history of recurring attacks of pancreatitis,
eruptive xathomas and increased plasma triacylglyceride levels:
2000 mg/dl associated with chylomicronemias. Deficiency of which
of the following is the likely cause of these symptoms?
(A) HMG CoA reductase
(B) Lipoprotein lipase (LPL)
(C) Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)
(D) Scavenger receptors (SR-1) for HDL
0.1
871 Hypoglycemic hypoketonic blood is seen in patients suffering from
impaired which metabolic pathway?
(A) Diabetes mellitus type I
(B) Prolonged starvation
(C) Alcohol abuse
(D) Carnitine deficiency
0.3
872 Increased level of blood cholesterol are risk factors for development
of
(A) gall stones.
(B) fatty liver.
(C) anemia.
(D) atherosclerosis.
0.5
1424
873 Insulin resistance in DM type II leads hyperlipidemias due to
excessive
(A) mobilization of fatty acids
(B) utilization of chylomicrons
(C) lipogenesis in adipose tissue
(D) utilization of VLDL
0.5
874 Deficiency of LDL-receptors is risk factor for development of
(A) Liver cirrhosis
(B) Coronary heart disease (CHD)
(C) Mental retardation
(D) Muscles atrophy
0.7
875 Lecithin-cholesterolacyltransferase (LCAT) is enzyme that binds
with
(A) HDL
(B) Proteoglycans of capillary walls
(C) LDL
0.6 (D) Scavenger receptor B1
876 Hyperlipidemia can occur in all of the following conditions,
EXCEPT
(A) enteritis.
(B) diabetes mellitus.
(C) nephrotic syndrome.
(D) hypothyroidism.
0.6
877 A young girl with a history of severe abdominal pain was taken to
1425
her local hospital at 5 a.m. in severe distress. Blood was drawn, and
the plasma appeared milky with the TG level 2000 mg/dl (normal
4-50 mg/dl). Which one of the following enzymes deficiency is
most likely responsible for the appearance of this patient’s plasma?
(A) Pancreatic lipase
(B) Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase
(C) Lipoprotein lipase
(D) Hormone-sensitive lipase
0.4
878 Patient has genetic disorder characterized by malabsorption of
dietary lipid, steatorrhea, and accumulation of intestinal
triglycerides. A deficiency of which protein would most likely
account for this clinical presentation?
) (A) Apo B100
(B) (B) Acyl CoA synthetase
(C) (C) Pancreatic lipase
(D) (D) Colipase
0.5
879 An 11 year old boy presents with balance and difficulty with night
vision. His mother says he had foul smelling stools and failure to
thrive as an infant. Physical examination reveals poor muscle
coordination, ataxia. Lab tests show low total cholesterol and Vitamin
A levels. The patient most likely has an inherited mutation in which
of the following?
) (A) 7-ǂ-hydrohylase
(B) (B) Microsomal Transfer Protein (MTP)
(C) (C) Hormone Sensitive Lipase (HSL)
(D) (D) Lipoprotein lipase (LPL)
1426
0.2
880 The official medical measurement of obesity is
(A) basal metabolic rate.
(B) body mass index.
(C) proportion of bone density to weight.
(D) height of a person.
0.4
881 All are plasma adipokines profile of obese person, EXCEPT
(A) hypoadiponectinemia.
(B) leptin resistance.
(C) hypoestrogenism.
(D) hyperresistinemia.
0.3
882 White adipose tissue has all of the following functions, EXCEPT
(A) endocrine.
(B) helps in immunity.
0.5 (C) metabolic.
(D) homeostasis regulation.
883 Adipokine that activates effect of insulin is
(A) adiponectin.
(B) resistin.
(C) leptin.
(D) grenilin.
0.4
884 An important feature of Zellweger’s syndrome is
(A) hypoglycemia.
(B) skin eruption.
1427
(C) accumulation of polyenoic acids in brain.
(D) ectopic deposition of fat in the pancreas
0.3
885 Which statement from of the following about Zellweger’s
syndrome is FALSE?
(A) Results from the absence of functional peroxisomes
(B) Characterized by hypoglycemia and ketosis
(C) Caused by a defect in the import of enzymes into the
peroxisomes
(D) Death occurs within 6 years of life.
0.1
886 Physiological conditions which promote the synthesis of ketone
bodies would also promote the
(A) oxidation of fatty acids in erythrocytes.
(B) synthesis of fatty acids in the liver.
(C) synthesis of amino acids in the brain.
(D) synthesis of glucose in the liver.
0.5
887 Refsume’s disease is due to accumulation of
(A) phytanic acid in brain.
(B) glycogen in muscles.
(C) carnitine in liver.
(D) choestrol in gall bladder.
0.3
888 A drug which prevents cholesterol by inhibiting the enzyme HMG
CoA reductase is
(A) aspirin.
1428
(B) allopurinol.
(C) digitonin.
(D) lavostatin.
0.7
889 A 56-year-old smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day. He is found to
have a blood pressure of 155/95 mm Hg. His body mass index is
30. Laboratory findings include total serum cholesterol of 245
mg/dl and HDL cholesterol is 22 mg/dl.Which of the following
vascular abnormalities is most likely to be his most serious health
risk?
(A) Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis
(B) Deep venous thrombosis
(C) Medial calcific sclerosis
(D) Atherosclerosis
0.5
890 Obese person has 0.3 (A) Hypoadiponectinemia
(B) Hyporesistinemia
(C) Hypolipoproteinemia
(D) Hypoglycemia
891 Wasting syndrome is characterized by
(A) Increase catabolism
(B) Increase anabolism
(C) Increase energy production
(D) Increase appetite
0.8
892
893 A 44-year-old woman has a family history of heart disease. Her
1429
father and mother both developed congestive heart failure and
myocardial infarction as a result of extensive coronary
atherosclerosis. A dietary modification to include consumption of
which of the following is most likely to reduce her risk for ischemic
heart disease?
(A) 40% of total caloric intake as fat
(B) A diet high in saturated fat
(C) Fat found in beef products
(D) Fish oil
0.7
894 An autopsy study reveals that evidence for atheroma
formation can begin even in children. The gross appearances
of the aortas are recorded and compared with microscopic
findings of atheroma formation. Which of the following is
most likely to be the first visible gross evidence for the
(A) Thrombus
(B) Fatty streak
(C) Calcification
(D) Ulceration
0.5
895 A 25-year-old man is 178 cm tall and weighs 101 kg.
Laboratory studies show total serum cholesterol of 550 mg/dl
with an HDL cholesterol component of 25 mg/dl. He is
worried about these findings because his brother died of a
myocardial infarction at age 34. Which of the following
(A) Diabetes mellitus, type II
1430
(B) Malignant hypertension
(C) Familial hypercholesterolemia
(D) Cushing syndrome
0.4
896 Vitamin E deficiency can cause
(A) increasing blood level of oxidatively modified lipids.
(B) decreasing oxidants activity.
(C) decreasing amount of radicals in the tissues.
(D) activation of receptor-mediated endocytosis.
0.4
897 Hyperlipoproteinemia with maximum of cholesterol level in the
blood is
(A) type I
(B) type II
0.7 (C) type III
(D) type IV
898 All of the following are major risk factors for Coronary Heart
Disease (CHD), EXCEPT
(A) smoking.
(B) increased HDL level.
(C) increased LDL level.
(D) hypertension.
0.6
899
(A) diet rich by the polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA).
(B) statins.
1431
(C) fibrates.
(D) diet rich by the saturated fat.
0.6
Alcohol metabolism
900 What is the major organ for alcohol detoxification?
(A) Brain
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Spleen
0.8
901 Alcohol abuse leads in the liver all of the following, EXCEPT
(A) activation of microsomal pathway of alcohol oxidation
and formation of toxic adducts.
(B) activation of inflammatory response.
(C) activation of VLDL synthesis.
(D) depression of TCA cycle and activation of fat synthesis.
0.3
902 Which nutritional factor stimulates alcohol oxidation?
(A) Well-fad state
(B) Fasting
(C) Low protein diet
(D) Low lipid diet
0.6
903 Aldehyde dehydrogenase oxidizes ethanol to
(A) acetic acid.
(B) oxalic acid.
(C) carbon dioxide.
(D) acetyldehyde.
1432
0.7
904 Cytochrome P450 system involves in oxidation of ethanol in
organism of
(A) healthy person.
(B) heavy drinkers.
(C) obese person.
(D) mild drinker.
0.5
905 Microsomal oxidation of alcohol is accompanying with formation
of all of the following, EXCEPT
(A) hydrogen peroxide.
(B) superoxide radicals.
0.4 (C) acetaldehyde.
(D) acetate.
906 All of the following are pathogenic factors for development of
(A) vitamin deficiency.
(B) increase oxidation of fatty acids.
(C) decrease VLDL formation.
(D) decrease phospholipids synthesis.
0.3
907
How many alcohol-induced compounds are represented at above
structures?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
1433
(D) 4
0.1
908 Alcohol-induced cirhotic patient can has following blood analysis
(A) Ņ ALT & ŃGGT
(B) Ń elastase & Ņ AST
(C) Ńplasma proteins & Ņ Igs
(D) Ń glucose & Ņ lactic acid
0.3
N 10 N-containing compounds metabolism
909 Peptide bonds present in
(A) Lactase
(B) Lactose
(C) Glucose
(D) Cholesterol
0.5
910 Each organism has unique combination of characteristics encoded in
molecules of
(A) vitamins.
(B) carbohydrates.
(C) lipids.
(D) protein.
0.7
911 Phenylalanine is precursor of
(A) histamine.
(B) tyrosine.
(C) aspartate.
(D) methionine.
0.7
1434
1.
2.
H3C CH S R
H3C CH N R 3. H3C C
H3C C
4. O
H3C C
CH3 912 mRNA is copied from DNA during a process called
(A) replication.
(B) transcription .
(C) translation.
(D) processing.
0.8
913 The sugar found in DNA is
(A) Xylose
(B) Ribose
(C) Ribulose
(D) Erythrose
0.8
914 Dietary protein could provide precursors for the de novo synthesis in
humans of all of the following, EXCEPT
(A) albumin.
(B) oxaloacetic acid.
(C) linoleic acid.
(D) glutamic acid.
0.8
915 Free ammonia is released during
(A) Oxidative deamination
1435
(B) Transamination
(C) Amination
(D) All of these
0.6
916 Extremely sensitive to ammonia toxicity
(A) nervous system
(B) erythrocytes
(C) gastrointestinal system
(D) reproductive system
0.5
917 Ammonia transported from the muscle to liver mainly in the form of
(A) aspartate
(B) albumin-ammonia complex
(C) alanine
(D) ammonia-binding globulin
0.6
918 Excess ammonia in the cells inhibits TCA cycle due to depletion of
(A) fumarate.
(B) malonate.
(C) citrate.
(D) ǂ-ketoglutarate.
0.5
919 The liver only is able to form urea because in other tissues absent
enzyme
(A) carbomoyl phosphate synthase I.
(B) arginosuccinate synthase.
(C) arginase.
1436
(D) ornithine transcarbomoylase.
0.4
920 In response to metabolic acidosis biosynthesis of enzyme glutaminase
increases in
0.3 (A) liver.
(B) brain.
(C) kidney.
(D) skin.
921 NH3 is detoxified in muscles to
(A) urea.
(B) creatinine.
(C) alanine .
(D) uric acid.
0.3
922 NH3 is detoxified in brain to
(A) urea.
(B) creatinine.
(C) uric acid.
(D) glutamine.
0.5
923 Liver’s specific enzyme is
) (A) protein kinase.
(B) (B) hexokinase.
(C) (C) arginase.
(D) (D) citrate synthase.
0.5
924 Organ that produces ammonia that is involved in the maintenance of
1437
acid-base balance
(A) pancreas
(B) liver
(C) kidney
(D) stomach
0.5
925 The significance of urea cycle is to
(A) detoxify ammonia.
(B) solubilize of steroids before their excretion.
(C) transport of alanine into cells.
(D) pack lipid- like material into protein’s shell.
0.8
926 The function of urea cycle is
(A) to convert amino acids into ketoacids.
(B) to convert ammonia into a less toxic form.
(C) to convert ketoacids into amino acids.
(D) to protect urine against precipitation.
0.8
927 Increased level of blood ammonia is risk factor for development of
(A) encephalopathy.
(B) edema.
(C) anemia .
(D) fatty liver
0.6
928 All of the following statements about glutamine is correct EXCEPT
(A) Sources of ammonia
(B) Toxic compounds
1438
0.7 (C) Major aminoacid in blood
(D) Present in brain
929 Blood urea increase in all of the following EXCEPT
(A) renal failure
(B) liver cirrhosis
(C) decrease volume of the blood (hypovolemia)
(D) decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
0.4
930 Which of the following compound is precursor of urea?
(A) Pyrimidines
(B) Cholesterol
(C) Purines
(D) Ammonia
0.7
931 Oxidative deamination is the conversion of an amino
(A) group from an amino acid to a keto acid
(B) acid to a carboxylic acid plus ammonia
(C) acid to a ketoacid plus ammonia
(D) group from an amino acid to a carboxylic acid
0.6
932 Depletion of ǂ-ketoglutarate during increased ammonia influx lead
formation of
(A) arginine
(B) glutamine
(C) histamine
(D) ornithine
0.4
1439
933 Dietary deficiency of vitamin B6 significantly affects the metabolism
(A) amino acids by decreasing transamination reactions.
(B) nucleic acids by increasing synthesis.
(C) fatty acids by decreasing their activation.
(D) carbohydrates by increasing glucosamine synthesis.
0.5
934 An example of a transamination process is
(A) gutamate = oxaloacetate + NH3
(B) aspartate + alanine = pyruvate + oxaloacetate
(C) aspartate + ǂ ketoglutarate = glutamate + oxaloacetate
(D) glutamate = ǂ-ketoglutarate + NH3
0.3
935 Transamination is the process where
(A) carboxyl group is transferred from amino acid
(B) ǂ-amino group is removed from the amino acid
(C) polymerisation of amino acid takes place
(D) none of the above
0.4
936 The most toxic compounds is
(A) tyrosine
(B) phenylpyruvate
(C) lysine
(D) phenylalanine
0.4 937 In the normal metabolism of phenylalanine, it is initially converted to
(A) fumarate
(B) tyrosine
(C) lysine
1440
(D) phenylpuruvate
0.6
938 Melanine is derived from
(A) cholesterol
(B) tyrosine
(C) bilirubin
(D) leucine
0.8
939 All of the following are synthesized from tyrosine, EXCEPT
(A) melanin.
(B) aldosterone.
(C) thyroxin.
(D) epinephrine.
0.6
940 Homogentisic oxidase deficiency leads all of the following, EXCEPT
(A) black urine.
(B) albinism.
(C) arthritis.
(D) ochronosis.
0.4
941 Phenylketonuria (PKU) patient can not convert
(A) phenol to ketones.
(B) phenylalanine to tyrosine.
(C) phenylalanine to isoleucine.
(D) ǂ-ketoglutarate to glutamate.
0.5
942 A person with phenylketonuria cannot convert phenylalanine to
1441
(A) isoleucine.
(B) lysine.
(C) tyrosine.
(D) serine.
0.7
943 A person with phenylketonuria is advised not to consume which of the
following products?
(A) Aspartam
(B) Glucose
(C) Fat
(D) Cholesterol
0.4
944 Catecolamines are derived from
(A) bilirubin.
(B) tyrosine.
(C) palmitic acid.
(D) cholesterol.
0.8
945 Phenylalanine rich diet are
(A) fruits.
(B) vegetables.
0.8 (C) juice
(D) meat.
946 Which one of the following statements about albinic person is false?
(A) Skin is hypopigmented
(B) Mental retarded
(C) Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes
1442
(D) Decrease activity of tyrosine hydroxylase
0.7
947 Maple syrup urine disease is an inborn error of metabolism of
(A) Aromatic amino acids
(B) Saturated fatty acids
(C) Branched chain amino acids
(D) Polyenic fatty acids
0.5
948 Cystinuria is due to
(A) increased level of blood cysteine
(B) defective renal reabsorption
(C) alkalization of urinary pH
(D) excess endogenous production
0.5
949 Homocystinuria is an inherited disorder characterized by
(A) mental retardation
(B) renal stones
(C) ectopia lentis
(D) ammoniemia
0.4
950 Ochronosis is a feature of
(A) albinism
(B) alkaptonuria
(C) phenylketonuria
(D) tyrosinosis
0.3
951 What are repeating units of DNA?
1443
(A) Bases
(B) Nucleotides
(C) Sugars
(D) Phosphates
0.7
952 Human DNA rich by nucleotides
(A) A-T
(B) G-C
(C) A-U
(D) None of the above
0.6
953 Bacterial DNA rich by nucleotides
(A) A-T
(B) G-C
(C) A-U
(D) None of the above
0.8 954 Purine base is
(A) Uracil
(B) Thymine
(C) Guanine
(D) Cytosine
0.9
955 A purine nucleotide is
(A) AMP
(B) UMP
(C) CMP
(D) TMP
1444
0.9
956 Which metabolic pathway is passes in the nucleus?
) (A) DNA replication
(B) (B) Protein synthesis
(C) (C) Cholesterol synthesis
(D) (D) Nucleotide synthesis
0.8
957 Genetic information of nuclear DNA is transmitted to the site of protein
synthesis by
) (A) polysomes.
(B) (B) tRNA.
(C) (C) mRNA.
(D) (D) proteosomes.
0.7
958 DNA makes DNA by
) (A) repair.
(B) (B) replication.
(C) (C) transcription.
(D) (D) translation.
0.8
959 DNA makes RNA by
) (A) repair.
(B) (B) replication.
(C) (C) transcription.
(D) (D) translation.
0.8
960 mRNA makes polypeptide by
1445
(E) (A) repair.
) (B) replication.
(G) (C) transcription.
) (D) translation.
0.8
961 In sickle cell anemia the defect can be explained by the mutation
(A) single point.
(B) frameshift.
(C) stop codon.
(D) trinucleotides repeat.
0.7
962 In human the main product of purine catabolism is
(A) urea
(B) uric acid
(C) ǃ-alanine
0.6 (D) guanine
963 Uric acid is final product degradation of
(A) purines.
(B) amino acids.
(C) proteins.
(D) creatine.
0.8
964 Nucleosides are composed from nitrogen base and
) (A) protein.
(B) (B) pentose.
(C) (C) alcohol.
(D) (D) fatty acid.
1446
0.7
965 Pyrimidine base is
(A) Thymine
(B) Thiamine
(C) Cysteine
(D) Tocopherol
0.7
966 Pyrimidine base is
(A) Thiamine
(B) Cysteine
(C) Cytosine
(D) Tocopherol
0.8
967 The principal nitrogenos urinary excretion product in human resulting
from the catabolism of AMP is
(A) urea
(B) uric acid
(C) creatinine
(D) carnitine
0.5
968 Inosine monophosphate is an intermediate during de novo synthesis of
) (A) AMP & GMP
(B) (B) CMP & TMP
(C) (C) CMP & UMP
(D) (D) All of these
0.5
969 5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate is required for the synthesis of
1447
(A) glycogen.
(B) nucleotides.
(C) histones.
(D) triacylglycerides.
0.6
970 Carbomoyl phosphate II is required for synthesis of
(A) orotic acid
(B) uric acid
(C) cholesterol
(D) citric acid
0.3
971 Hereditary orotic aciduria may accompanying with 0.2 (A) osteomalacia.
(B) hyperelasticity of skin.
(C) megaloblastic anemia.
(D) photophobia.
972 Increased level of blood uric acid are risk factors for development of
(A) tumor
(B) tophi
(C) anemia
(D) fatty liver
0.8
973 All of the following statements about uric acid are true EXCEPT
(A) It is a catabolite of purines
(B) It is excreted by the kidneys
(C) It is catabolite of pyrimidines
(D) It is present in plasma mainly as monosodium urate
0.5
1448
974 Allopurinol prevents the conversion of
(A) IMP to GMP
(B) cytosine to uracil
(C) xanthine to uric acid
(D) ammonia to urea
0.5
975 Allopurinol lowers serum levels of
(A) uric acid.
(B) glutamine.
(C) cholesterol
(D) urea
0.6
976 A 42-year-old male cancer patient undergoing radiation therapy
develops severe pain in his right big toe. Laboratory analysis indicates
an elevated serum urate level and urate crystals in his urine. Which one
of the following metabolic pathway is activated in this patient?
(A) Cholesterol degradation
(B) Purine nucleotides degradation
(C) Proteins degradation
(D) Pyrimidine nucleotides degradation
0.5
977 Hyperuricemia leads
(A) obesity.
(B) hypoglycemia.
(C) goiter.
(D) gout.
0.8
1449
978 The salvage pathway for purines involves enzyme
) (A) hypoxanthine-guanosine phosphribosyl transferase (HGPRT).
(B) (B) xanthine oxidase.
(C) (C) phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP) synthase.
(D) (D) adenosine deaminase (ADA).
0.5
979 Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with deficiency of enzyme
(A) CPK
(B) ADA
0.5 (C) HGPRT
(D) AST
980 A 10-year-old child with aggressive behavior is brought with
presenting complaints of joint pain and reduced urinary output. Mother
gives history of self-mutilitative behavior (he tends to mutilate his
fingers and lips).
Which of the following enzymes is likely to be deficient in this child?
(A) HGPRT
(B) ADA
(C) PRPP
(D) AST
0.5
981 An important feature of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is
(A) photophobia
(B) skin eruption
(C) hyperuricemia
(D) hyperammoniemia
0.4
1450
982 Killer disease (SCID) disease is due to mutation affecting degradation of
) (A) hemoglobin.
(C) (C) collagen.
(D) (D) purines.
0.4
983 Killer disease (SIDS) is due to deficiency of enzyme
) (A) adenosine deaminase.
(B) (B) xanthine oxidase.
(C) (C) HGPRT.
(D) (D) PDH.
0.5
11 Miscellaneous questions:
984 All of the following statements about phenylketonuria are correct
EXCEPT
(A) it can be controlled by giving a low-phenylalanine diet
(B) urinary excretion of phenylpyruvate and phenyllactate are
increased
(C) it leads to increased synthesis of thyroid hormones, catecholamines
and melanin
(D) phenylalanine cannot be converted to tyrosine
0.2
985 Tyrosine would be essential amino acids in the diet of a child with
(A) Lesch Nyhan syndrome
(B) Huler’s syndrome
(C) Killer disease (SIDS)
(D) Classical phenylketonuria
1451
0.4
986 For a substance to be classified as mutagen it must cause
(A) a change in DNA
(B) enzyme to denature
(C) enzyme inhibition
(D) mRNA be produced
0.7 987 Regarding structure of protein
(A) Polypeptide is branched chain protein
(B) Proteins are polymers of ǂ- and ǃ-amino acids
(C) “ Salt bond” is the synonym for peptide bond
(D) Peptide bond is stabilized by resonance
0.4
988 The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of
(E) Dehydration of protein molecule by salt
(F) Diminished protein-protein interaction
(G) Neutralization of protein molecule by salt
(H) Elimination of non-electrolyte waste product
0.4
989 True about ATP synthase are all, EXCEPT
(A) On rotation produce 5 ATP
(B) F0 unit functions as proton channel
(C) Ǆ subunit rotate
(D) It is blocked by oligomycin
0.4
990 Coenzyme Q in the Electron transport chain
(A) oxidizes glucose
(B) transfers electrons
1452
(C) transfers phosphate to ADP
(D) reduced NADH
0.7
991 In chemiosmosis, ATP is produced as H+ pass through:
(A) ATP synthase
(B) ATP decarboxylase
(C) A series of electron carriers
(D) the outer mitochondrial membrane
0.5
992 During aerobic respiration oxygen is
(A) oxidized
(B) catabolized
(C) reduced
(D) formed
0.6
993 Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by
(A) Cyanide
(B) Aluminium phosphatide
(C) Phenobarbital
(D) Carbonated beverage
0.8
994
Lipids Metabolism
 1. The nitrogenous base in lecithin is
 Betaine
 Serine
 Choline+
1453
 Ethanolamine
 2. Cholesterol is transported from liver to

extrahepatic tissues by
 HDL
 LDL+
 VLDL
 Chylomicrons
 3. Oxidation of fatty acids occurs

 In the cytosol
 In the matrix of mitochondria+
 On the microsomes
 On inner mitochondrial membrane
 4. Very low density lipoproteins are relatively rich in

 Free fatty acids
 Triacyl glycerol+
 Phospholipids
 Cholesterol
 5. Fatty acids can not be converted into

carbohydrates in the body, as the following
reaction is not possible:
 Transformation of acetyl CoA to pyruvate+
 Formation of acetyl CoA from fatty acids
 Fructose 1, 6 diphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate
 Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate into glucose
 6. All the following statements about ketone bodies

are true except
 They are synthesized in mitchondria
 They can deplete the alkali reserve
 Their synthesis increases in diabetes mellitus
 They can be oxidized in the liver+
 7. Dietary fats after absorption appear in the

circulation as
 VLDL
1454
 LDL
 Chylomicron+
 HDL
 8. The ‘Committed step’ in the biosynthesis of

cholesterol from acetyl CoA is
 Formation of acetoacetyl CoA from acetyl CoA
 Formation of HMG CoA from acetyl CoA and
acetoacetyl CoA
 Formation of mevalonate from HMG CoA+
 Formation of squalene by squalene synthetase
 9. Acetyl CoA formed from pyruvate can be used for

the synthesis of all the following except
 Fatty acids
 Steroid hormones
 Glucose+
 Cholesterol
 10. Pancreatic lipase is activated by

 carbon dioxide
 HCI
 pepsin
 bile acids+
 11. Hepatic lipogenesis is stimulated by

 cAMP
 epinephrine
 insulin+
 glucagon
 12. β-Oxidation of fatty acids requires all the

following coenzymes except
 FAD
 NADP+
 NAD
 HS-CoA
 13. HDL is synthesized in
1455
 Liver and intestine
 Intestine
 Liver+
 Adipose tissue
 14. During each cycle of β-oxidation

 One carbon atom is removed from the methyl end of
the fatty acid
 Two carbon atoms are removed from the carboxyl
end of the fatty acid+
 One carbon atom is removed from the carboxyl end
of the fatty acid
 Two carbon atoms are removed from the methyl
end of the fatty acid
 15. An enzyme required for the synthesis of ketone

bodies as well as cholesterol is
 HMG CoA lyase
 HMG CoA synthetase
 HMG CoA reductase+
 Acetyl CoA carboxylase
 16. Which of the following condition is

characterized by ketonuria but without glycosuria?
 Addison’s disease
 Diabetes insipidus
 Prolonged starvation+
 Diabetes mellitus
 17. In adipose tissue, glycerol-3-phosphate

required for the synthesis of triglycerides comes
mainly from
 Dihydroxyacetone phosphate formed in glycolysis+
 Hydrolysis of pre-existing triglycerides
 Hydrolysis of phospholipids
 Free glycerol
 18. Free fatty acids released from adipose tissue

are transported in blood by
 Albumin+
1456
 HDL
 LDL
 VLDL
 19. Lipids have the following properties:

 High energy content
 Insoluble in water and soluble in fat solvent
 All of these+
 Structural component of cell membrane
 20. Adipose tissue lacks

 Glycerol kinase+
 Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
 cAMP-dependent protein kinase
 Hormone-sensitive lipase
 21. De hovo synthesis of fatty acids occurs in

 All of these
 Cytosol+
 Mitochondria
 Microsomes
 22. Acyl Carrier Protein contains the vitamin

 Pantothenic acid+
 Biotin
 Lipoic acid
 Folic acid
 23. A pathway that requires NADPH as a cofactor is

 Ketone bodies formation
 Glycogenesis
 Fatty acid oxidation
 Extra mitochondrial denovo fatty acid synthesis+
 24. Free glycerol cannot be used for triglyceride

synthesis in
 Liver
 Kidney
1457
 Intestine
 Adipose tissue+
 25. Triglycerides are

 Major constituents of membranes
 Non-polar+
 Heavier than water
 Hydrophilic
 26. Normal fat content of liver is about _______ %.

 5+
 10
 8
 15
 27. In the wall of the intestine after the absorption of

the products of digestion of dietary fat are occurs:
 re-synthesis of fats+
 β-oxidation of higher fatty acids
 the degradation of glycerol
 synthesis of fatty acids
 28. Long chain fatty acids are first activated to

acyl-CoA in
 Nucleus
 Cytosol+
 Mitochondria
 Microsomes
 29. At which value of pH is most active pancreatic

lipase?
 pH =3,0-4,0
 pH =8,0-8,5+
 pH =12,0-14,0
 pH =1,0-2,0
 30. The acetyl CoA formed on β-oxidation of all long

chain fatty acids is metabolized under normal
circumstances to
1458
 Ketone bodies
 Fatty acids
 Cholesterol
 CO2 and water+
 31. De novo synthesis and oxidation of fatty acids

differ in the following respect:
 NADH is required in synthesis and FAD in oxidation
 Synthesis is decreased and oxidation increased by
insulin
 Synthesis occurs in cytosol and oxidation in
mitochondria+
 Malonyl CoA is formed during oxidation but not
during synthesis
 32. Lecithins are composed of

 Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid
+Ethanolamine
 Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid +Beaine
 Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid +Serine
 Glycerol + Fatty acids + Phosphoric acid +Choline+
 33. Free fatty acids are transported in the blood

 In unbound free salts
 Combined with β-lipoprotein
 Combined with fatty acid binding protein
 Combined with albumin+
 34. The majority of absorbed fat appears in the

forms of
 Chylomicrone+
 VLDL
 LDL
 HDL
 35. Triglycerides are transported from liver to

extrahepatic tissues by
 HDL
 Chylomicrons
1459
 VLDL+
 LDL
 36. The importance of phospholipids as constituent

of cell membrane is because they possess
 Fatty acids
 Glycerol
 Phosphoric acid
 Both polar and nonpolar groups+
 37. The triacyl glycerol present in plasma

lipoproteins are hydrolyzed by
 Colipase
 Pancreatic lipase
 Linqual lipase
 Lipoprotein lipase+
 38. The enzymes of β-oxidation are found in

 Golgi apparatus
 Cytosol
 Mitochondria+
 Nucleus
 39. How the amount of cholesterol changes at

parenchymatous damages of a liver?
 doesn't change
 increases only cholesterol esters
 decreases+
 increases
 40. Lovastatin is a
 Competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA reductase
 Non-competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA reductase+
 Competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA synthetase
 Competitive inhibitor of acetyl CoA carboxylase
 41. The lipoprotein richest in cholesterol is

 HDL
1460
 Chylomicrons
 LDL+
 VLDL
 42. Carnitine is required for the transport of

 Triglycerides into mitochondria
 Short chain fatty acids into mitochondria
 Triglycerides out of liver
 Long chain fatty acids into mitochondria+
 43. Brown adipose tissue is characterized by which

of the following?
 Oxidation and phosphorylation are tightly coupled
 Mitochondrial content higher than white adipose
tissue+
 Absent in hibernating animals
 Present in large quantities in adult humans
 44. In β-Oxidation of fatty acids, which of the

following are utilized as coenzymes?
 FAD and FMN
 FADH2 and NADH+H+
 NAD+ and NADP+
 +FAD and NAD+
 45. Fatty liver may be caused by deficiency of

 vitamin E
 All of these+
 choline
 essential fatty acids
 46. The most important source of reducing

equivalents for FA synthesis on the liver is
 TCA cycle
 HMP-Shunt+
 Uronic acid pathway
 Glycolysis
1461
 47. During each cycle of β-oxidation of fatty acid, all
the following compounds are generated except
 FAD
 H2O+
 Acyl CoA
 NADH
 48. At which parts of the GIT digested lipids of milk

in infants:
 the stomach+
 the esophagus
 small intestine
 the oral cavity
 49. In mammals, the major fat in adipose tissues is

 Phospholipid
 Sphingolipids
 Cholesterol
 Triacylglycerol+
 50. Which of the following is required as a reductant

in fatty acid synthesis?
 FADH2
 FMNH2
 NADPH+H+
 NADH+H
Lipids Metabolism
 1. In which tissues lipogenesis is particularly active:
 in adipose tissue and lungs
 in the liver and spleen
 in the muscles and liver
 in the liver and adipose tissue+
 2. Give an enzyme involved in the digestion of triacylglycerols of

mother's milk in infants:
 an amylase
1462
 a bile acid
 phospholipase
 lingual lipase+
 3. Cholesterol synthesis is most actively carried out in:

 the kidneys
 adrenal cortex
 the intestines
 liver+
 4. Ketone bodies
 pyruvate and malate
 acetoacetyl CoA and propionyl CoA
 acetoacetate and beta-hydroxybutyrate+
 acetyl CoA and succinyl CoA
 5. Specify the donor of methyl groups in the synthesis of

phosphotylcholine?
 2.methionine
 ethanolamine
 S-adenosylmethionine+
 serine
 6. Transport of cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver is

performed
 HDL+
 VLDL
 LDL
 bile acids
 7. Select the component that participates in the reaction of

transformation of GMG-CoA into mevalonat:
 HMG-CoA
 HMG-CoA synthetase
 HMG-CoA reductase+
 NADH2
 8. Acetyl-CoA transporter from mitochondria to the cytoplasm

through the mitochondrial membrane serves:
1463
 creatine
 aspartate
 citrate
 malate+
 9. Phosphatidic acid is synthesized in the process:

 glycerol phosphorylation
 recovery of dioxyacetone
 hydrolysis of triacylglycerides
 esterification of glycerol-3-phosphate+
 10. Which of the following particles transport mainly triglycerides

from the intestine to peripheral tissues?
 Very low density lipoproteins
 Micelles
 Chylomicrons+
 High-density lipoproteins
 11. An increase in the number of triacylglycerides in adipose

tissue is promoted by the hormone
 cortisol
 glucagon
 insulin+
 thyroxin
 12. Reducing equivalents in cholesterol biosynthesis are:

 NADH2
 NADPH2+
 FMNH2
 FADH2
 13. For the synthesis of fatty acids is required:

 methionine
 ADP
 glucose-6-phosphate
 acetyl CoA+
 14. Hormones that activate hormone-sensitive lipase in adipocytes
1464
 thyroxin and glucocorticoids
 prostaglandins and insulin
 adrenaline and norepinephrine+
 oxytocin and vasopressin
 15. What type of lipoproteins removes excess cholesterol from

tissues
 chylomicrons
 VLDL
 HDL+
 LDL
 16. Synthesis of fatty acids proceeds in

 mitochondria
 cytoplasm+
 the core
 lysosomes
 17. In the liver cholesterol is used for biosynthesis of

 hippuric acid
 Acetyl CoA
 animal indican
 Vitamin D3+
 18. Acetyl CoA from mitochondria to cytosol is transferred in the

composition:
 succinate
 oxaloacetate
 citrate+
 fumarate
 19. Which of the following classes of serum lipoproteins are the

main transport form of triacylglycerides:
 bile acids
 proteolipids
 VLDL
 LDL
1465
 20. Lipids in the human body does not perform the next function:
 electrically insulating
 structure
 immune+
 energy
 21. Name the regulatory enzyme for cholesterol synthesis

 hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA reductase+
 hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA synthetase
 β-ketothiolase
 hydroxymethylglutaryl-CoA-lyase
 22. Biotin as a coenzyme is part of the enzyme:

 β-ketoacyl-APB synthase
 thiolase
 triacylglyceride
 acetyl CoA carboxylase+
 23. Indicate intermediate matter in the process of biosynthesis of

triglycerides in tissues
 glyceric acid
 malonyle CoA
 dioxiacetone phosphate
 glycerol-3-phosphate+
 24. Cholesterol in the adrenal cortex is used to:

 Fatty acid synthesis
 Synthesis of cortisol+
 Synthesis of vitamin D
 Construction of the membrane
 25. Indicate the function of phospholipids in the body

 steroid hormone precursors
 end products of lipolysis
 sources of energy for cellular metabolism
 the main components of the cell membrane+
1466
 26. What high energy substance is involved in the synthesis of
phospholipids?
 GMP
 UDP
 CTP+
 UTP
 27. Which carriers carry transport of exogenous dietary fat from

the intestine into the tissue:
 HDL
 VLDL
 chylomicrons+
 LDL
 28. Reducing equivalents in the reactions of higher fatty acid

biosynthesis are:
 FMNH2
 NADPH2+
 NADH2+
 FADH2
 29. Indicate the process that is the source of NADPH + H+ for the
synthesis of higher fatty acids
 glycolysis
 the pentose phosphate cycle of glucose oxidation+
 β-oxidation of fatty acids
 oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate
 30. The coenzyme HMG-CoA - reductase is:

 NADPH+
 NADP
 FAD
 FADH2
 31. In which cell organelles does the synthesis of saturated fatty

acids occur?
 in the cytoplasm+
 in lysosomes
 in the endoplasmic reticulum
1467
 in the mitochondria
 32. Specify the donor of methyl groups in the synthesis of

glycerophospholipids?
 2.methionine
 ethanolamine
 serine
 33. Choose statements that correctly characterize HDL

 synthesis and decay is carried out in the cells of the intestinal
mucosa
 synthesis and decay occurs in the kidneys
 What is the key cholesterol synthesis reaction
 are a class of lipoproteins, the most protein-rich; synthesis and
decay occurs in the liver+
 34. The regulatory enzyme for the synthesis of higher fatty acids
is:
 malonyl transcylase
 acetyl CoA carboxylase+
 acetyl transcylase
 ketoacyl reductase
 35. Indicate the compound from which cholesterol is synthesized:

 Palmitoyl-CoA
 butyryl CoA
 Crotonyl-CoA
 acetyl CoA+
 36. What metabolite of lipid metabolism is common in the

synthesis of ketone bodies and cholesterol?
 mevalonic acid
 squalene
 beta-hydroxy-beta-methylglutaryl-CoA+
 lanosterol
 37. Specify the enzyme catalyzing the formation of

acetoacetyl-CoA in the synthesis of cholesterol:
1468
 Acetyltransferase+
 Acylase
 Ketoacyl-APB reductas
 Acylsynthase
 38. Indicate the stage of the process of biosynthesis of higher fatty

acids, which uses CO2
 ATP-dependent synthesis of malonyl-CoA from acetyl-CoA+
 synthesis of acetyl-CoA from one-carbon fragments
 the conversion of malonyl-APB to β-ketobutyryl-APB
 transition β-ketoacyl-APB to β-hydroxyacyl-APB
 39. Specify the enzyme catalyzing the interconversion of

phosphatidic acid and glycerol-3-phosphate in the synthesis of
triglycerides, which occurs in the liver
 glycerol synthase
 Glycerolkinase
 glycerol phosphate acyltransferase+
 glycerol phosphate-3-dehydrogenase
 40. What is the biological role of lipoproteins in the body?

 reserve of proteins
 perform the contractile function
 a source of energy
 ctransport of lipids in the body+
 41. Specify an enzyme that catalyzes the following reaction for the
synthesis of triglycerides, which occurs in the liver
 glycerol phosphate acyltransferase
 glycerol phosphate-3-dehydrogenase
 Phosphatidate hydrolase+
 42. In the synthesis of phosphoglycerolipids participate

 sphingolipids
 phosphatidic acid+
 cytidine triphosphate
 triacylglycerol’s
1469
 43. Specify the amino acid involved in the formation of
phosphatidylserine from phosphatidylethanolamine
 methionine
 alanine
 L-serine+
 glycine
 44. What is the name of the complex of enzymes involved in the

synthesis of fatty acids?
 acyl carrier protein (ACP)+
 succinate dehydrogenase
 glutamate dehydrogenase
 acetaldehyde transferase
 45. Give the blood proteins that transport free fatty acids:
 β-lipoproteins
 hemoglobin
 albumins+
 globulins
 46. What is the enzyme catalyzing the conversion of glycerol to

glycerol-3-phosphate in the synthesis of triglycerides, which
occurs in the kidneys, in the intestinal wall?
 glycerol phosphatase
 glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase
 glycerolkinase+
 47. The donor of methyl groups for the synthesis of

phosphatidylcholine from phosphatidylethanolamine is
 propionyl-CoA
 methylmalonyl-CoA
 acetyl CoA
 48. In the synthesis of which substances is NADPH2 formed in the

pentose cycle used?
 in the synthesis of NK
 in the synthesis of glucose
1470
 in the synthesis of lipids / high fatty acids, cholesterol+
 ATP synthesis
 49. Specify a substance that can inhibit cholesterol biosynthesis

 insulin
 glucagon+
 histamine
 androgens
 50. Lipolysis in adipose tissue is inhibited

 glucagon
 adrenaline
 thyroxine
 insulin+
Metabolism of Simple Proteins

 1. Which of the following amino acids participate in the synthesis
of creatine?
 arginine+
 methionine+
 lysine
 glutamate
 2. The end product of protein digestion in the gastrointestinal tract

is
 denatured proteins
 amino acids+
 fatty acids
 carbohydrates
 3. Hydrochloric acid in the stomach

 all above+
 denatures proteins
 has a bactericidal effect
 activates pepsinogen
 4. In putrefaction of tryptophan in the intestine are formed
1471
 cresol, phenol
 skatole, indole+
 phenol, glycine
 5. The first reaction of the ornithine cycle is synthesis of:

 citrate
 citrulline
 ornithine
 carbamoylphosphate+
 6. Participate in the ornithine cycle

 alanine, methionine
 lysine, pepsin
 alanine, creatine
 citrulline, aspartate+
 7. Urea synthesis occurs

 in the kidneys
 liver+
 in the brain
 muscle
 8. Urea biosynthesis occurs in

 gallbladder
 livers+
 kidney
 pancreas
 9. Hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach catalyzes

 chymotrypsin
 dipeptidase
 carboxypeptidase
 pepsin+
 10. Which of the following is the predominant type of deamination

of amino acids in human tissues?
 intramolecular deamination
 reductive deamination
1472
 hydrolytic deamination
 oxidative deamination+
 11. Endopeptidase include

 dipeptidase
 aminopeptidase
 pepsin+
 12. Aminopeptidases is produced in

 stomach
 large intestine
 small intestine+
 in the pancreas
 13. Biogenic amines are synthesized in:

 α-decarboxylation of amino acids+
 reductive amination
 deamination of amides
 transamination
 14. Skatol and indole are neutralized in the liver by

 uridinediphosphoglucuronic acid+
 alfa-ketoglutarate
 glycine
 glutamate
 15. In putrefaction of phenylalanine in the intestine are formed

 Skatole, indole
 cresol, phenol+
 phenol, glycine
 16. Which of the following enzymes is produced in the pancreas to

digest proteins?
 collagenase
 pepsin
 trypsin+
 amylase
1473
 17. Which of the following are non-essential amino acids?
 d. asparagine
 b. Cysteine+
 a. arginine
 c. lysine
 18. Krebs cycle metabolite involved in transamination reactions

 fumarate
 succinate
 alfa-ketoglutarate+
 citrate
 19. Which of the following is coenzyme of glutamate

dehydrogenase?
 pyridoxamine phosphate
 FAD+
 NAD
 pyridoxal phosphate
 20. Compounds formed from tyrosine

 beta-aminobutyric acid
 norepinephrine
 adrenaline
 phenylalanine+
 21. Which of the following is the pathway for detoxification of

ammonia in the brain?
 synthesis of glutamine+
 synthesis of urea
 formation of ammonium salts
 synthesis of alanineA
 22. Negative nitrogen balance is observed in:

 the absence of essential fatty acids in food
 children
 aged persons
 the absence of non-essential amino acids in food
1474
 23. Reductive amination is a process in which:
 detoxification of ammonia takes place+
 ammonia is formed
 biogenic amines are formed
 participates glutamate dehydrogenase
 24. Derivative of which vitamin is coenzyme of decarboxylases of

amino acids?
 B6+
 B1
 PP
 B2
 25. Which of the following are essential amino acids?

 glycine
 tyrosine
 serine
 tryptophan+
 26. Which of the following substrates are formed as a result of

transmethylation?
 methionine
 creatine+
 S-adenosylmethionine
 noradrenaline
 27. Which of the following enzymes require vitamin B6 as

cofactor?
 b. glutamate dehydrogenase
 c. Transaminase+
 a. glutamate decarboxylase
 d. monoamine oxidase
 28. Which of the following is the major form of nitrogen excretion

in humans?
 uric acid
 urea+
 ammonia
1475
 ammonium salts
 29. The ornithine cycle is:

 mechanism for transport amino acids through membrane
 the pathway for urea formation
 the major pathway for detoxification of ammonia in the body+
 the pathway for ATP formation
 30. Serotonin - product of decarboxylation

 histidine
 5-hydroxytryptophan+
 tyrosine
 proline
 31. In which organs synthesis of creatine take place?

 kidney, liver+
 kidney, muscle
 liver, lung
 liver, muscle
 32. Which of the following biogenic amines causes

vasoconstriction?
 histamine
 tryptamine
 GABA
 serotonin+
 33. Non-essential amino acids are compounds which:

 are synthesized in humans from other amino acids+
 are not synthesized in the organism and have to be ingested with
food
 in the course of metabolism, may be replaced by the other
compounds
 34. Which of the following are non-essential amino acids?

 methionine
 tyrosine
 cysteine+
1476
 isoleucine
 35. Compounds formed from tyrosine

 dopamine
 adrenaline+
 gamma- aminobutyric acid
 insulin
 36. Which of the following is the pathway for synthesis of urea?

 degradation of purines
 degradation of pyrimidines
 reductive amination
 ornithine cycle+
 37. The serum aspartate aminotransferase activity increases

dramatically with
 kidney disease
 prostatitis
 myocardial infarction+
 pancreatitis
 38. Stimulates the secretion of HCl in the stomach biogenic amine

 histamine+
 putrescine
 cadaverine
 dopamine
 39. What is the biological role of decarboxylation of amino acids in

humans?
 energy production
 biosynthesis of biogenic amines+
 synthesis of essential amino acids
 synthesis of NADPН2
 40. Proteins are degraded in the stomach by:

 pepsin+
 trypsin
 gastrin
1477
 amylase
 41. Which of the following biogenic amines causes vasodilatation?

 GABA
 histamine+
 tryptamine
 serotonin
 42. Exopeptidase include:

 rennin
 carboxypeptidase+
 trypsin
 pepsin
 43. Hydrolysis of proteins in the stomach of newborn catalyzes

 rennin+
 trypsin
 elastase
 44. Which of the following is characteristic of γ-aminobutyric acid?

 is the major stimulatory neurotransmitter in the CNS
 is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS+
 is formed from butyric acid
 is formed in decarboxylation of glutamate
 45. In the synthesis of creatine are involved

 leucine, alanine, serine
 serine, ornithine, histidine
 arginine, glycine, methionine+
 asparagine, glutamic
 46. Specify which enzyme is activated by hydrochloric acid?

 trypsin
 pepsin+
 amylase
 lipase
1478
 47. Indicate which of the amino acid under the influence of the
intestinal microflora is formed phenol, cresol?
 serine
 alanine
 phenylalanine
 tyrosine+
 48. Which of the following are essential amino acids?

 methionine+
 cysteine
 Isoleucine+
 glutamine
 49. Which of the following coenzymes is required for

decarboxylation of amino acids?
 a. FAD
 d. pyridoxal phosphate+
 c. NAD
 b. NADP
 50. The major amino acid which undergoes oxidative deamination

in humans is:
 asparagine
 aspartic acid
 glutamic acid+
 glutamine
1. Which of the following amino acids is essential?
Lysine +
Glutamine
Serine
Alanine
2. Which of the following amino acids is polar, neutral?
Alanine
1479
Argine
Histidine
Glutamate
3.
4. Which of the following amino acids are negatively charged?
Glutamate +
Arginine
Glycine
Phenylalanine
5. Which of the following are non-essential amino acids?
Leucine
Isoleucine
Serine +
Phenylalanine
6. The simplest amino acid is
proline
alanine
glycine +lysine
7. Non polar amino acids are usually found
on the surface of proteins +
inside the core of proteins
at the sides of proteins
can be present anywhere in proteins
8. The optically inactive amino acid is
Glycine +
Serine
Threonine
Valine
9. Amino acids are
building blocks of protein +
building blocks of carbohydrates
1480
building blocks of lipids
building blocks of nucleic acids
10. Aromatic amino acids include
Phenylalanine, tyrosine and tryptophan +
Phenylalanine, alanine and glycine
Arginine, tyrosine and tryptophan
Phenylalanine, tyrosine and histidine
11. Basic amino acids include
Lysine, arginine and histidine +
Lysine, glutamine and arginine
Argine, lysine and glutamateArginine, histidine and aspartate
12. Amino acid has
both amino group and carboxyl group +
both amino group and keto group
amino group only
carboxyl group only
13. Polar amino acids are usually found
on the surface of proteins +
inside the core of proteins
at the sides of proteins
can be present anywhere in proteins
14. Acidic amino acids include
arginine and glutamate
asparagine and glutamine
aspartate and glutamate +
glutamine and alanine
15. At neutral pH, a mixture of amino acids in solution would be predominantly:
Dipolar ions +
Nonpolar molecules
Positive and monovalent
Hydrophobic
1481
16. Which of the following is an α- imino acid?
Arginine
Glutamine
Proline +Tyrosine
17. Which of the following amino acids are sulfur-containing?
serine
methionine+
glycine
proline
18. The true statement about solutions of amino acids at physiological pH is
аll amino acids contain both positive and negative charges+
аll amino acids contain positively charged side chains
some amino acids contain only positive
all amino acids are neutral
19. Which of the following amino acids contains hydroxyl group?
Threonine, serine and tyrosine.+
Cysteine and methionine.
Glutamate and asparate.
Arginine, lysine and histidine.
20. Which of the following are essential amino acids?
Isoleucine
Serine
Glutamine
Aspartate
21. Which of the following amino acids is positively charged?
Glutamat
Alanine
Arginine +Valine
22. Which of the following amino acids contains hydroxyl group?
Tyrosine
Glycine
1482
Phenylalanine
lysine
23. The amino acids are organic compounds contain
–NH2 and – COOH groups +
–NH2 group
–COOH group
–NH2 and – COH groups
1. Zymogen is a/an
vitamin precursor
enzyme precursor +
activator
inhibitor
2. The class of enzymes involved in the transfer of functional groups from one molecule to
another is
transferases +
ligase
hydrolyses
isomerases
3. Urease is an example for the class of enzymes namely
transferases
lyaseshydroxylases +
ligases
pyridoxal phosphate
TPP
NAD+
FAD +(ans)
5. Indicate the substrate of salivary amylase:
Protein
Starch +
Sucrose
1483
Glucose
6. The class of enzymes involved in synthetic reaction are
transferases
ligases +
hydrolyses
oxidoreductases
ATP
PLP +
FAD
NAD+
an enzyme catalyzes the formation or breakage of only certain bonds in a molecule
an enzyme that catalyzes process involving similar molecules containing the same functional
group +an enzyme catalyzes the reaction of only one substrate
an enzyme catalyzes conversation only one stereoisomer of the substrate
9. Enzymes of the class of lyases are able to catalyze the type of reactions:
Hydrolysis
Oxidation
Reduction
Decarboxylation +
10. The enzyme elevated in serum in acute hepatitis of viral or toxic origin, jaundice and
cirrhosis
of liver is
amylase
alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
alanine transaminase (ALT) +
aspartate transaminase (AST)
11. The enzymes catalyze the rearrangment of functional group within a molecule to convert
the
substrate into a different isomeric form are
oxidoreductases
1484
ligases
hydrolyses
isomerases +
12. The enzyme elevated in serum in myocardial infarction is
amylase
alkaline phosphatase (ALP)Ligase
alanine transaminase (ALT) Lyase
aspartate transaminase (AST) +
13. Which of the below-mentioned changes of biochemical parameters are characteristic for
myocardial infarction?
Increased α-amylase in bloodIncreased MM fraction of serum creatine phosphokinase
Decreased creatinine level in the urine
Increased MB fraction of serum creatine phosphokinase +
galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase +
galactokinase
galactose 6-phosphotase
glucoso-6-phophatase
15. Isoenzymes are
inactive forms of enzymes
complex of enzymes which catalyzes conversation of one substrate
the multiple forms of an enzymes catalyzing the same reaction +
the group of enzymes that catalyze electron and proton transfers
16. Enzymes lose the catalytic activity at temperature above 70OC due to
denaturation +
renaturation
activation
inhibition
17. D-oxidase of alanine is able to deaminize of D-аlanine only, but it doesn’t break down the
structure of L-alanine. Give the type of specificity of this enzyme:
Absolute
1485
Absolute group
Stereochemical +
Relative group
kidney diseaseliver disease
Myocardial infarction +
None of these
19. An enzyme brings about
decrease in formation of product
increase in reaction time
increase in activation energy
decrease in activation energy +
20. Name the enzyme, the activity of which is determined in blood plasma of patients with
pathology of bone tissue:
Pepsin
Trypsin
Amylase
Alkaline phosphatase +
Desmolase
Hydrolase
Dehydrogenase +
Transaminase
binding site
active site
catalytic site
allosteric site
23. In bond (linkage) specificity
an enzyme catalyses the formation or breakage of only certain bonds in a molecule. +an
enzyme that catalyzes process involving similar molecules containing the same functional
1486
group.
an enzyme catalyze the reaction of only one substrate.
an enzyme that catalyze conversation only one stereoisomer of the substrate.
24. The competitive inhibition proceeds by:
Enzyme dephosphorylation
Inhibitor binding at the allosteric site of enzyme
Inhibitor binding at the active site of enzyme +
Enzyme denaturation
25. Alkaline phosphotase has a pH optimum around
10 +
amylase
alkaline phosphatase (ALP) +
alanine transaminase (ALT)
aspartate transaminase (AST)
27. The enzyme that converts glucose-6-phosphate to glucose is
Hexokinase
Glucose 6-phosphatase +
Phosphorylase
Glucose synthetase
TransferasesLigase
Hydrolyses +
Oxidoreductases
29. Call the type of inhibition, under which enzyme is not reactivated after inhibitor removal:
Substrate
Noncompetitive
Reversible
1487
Irreversible +
30. Indicate a class of enzymes, which performs the process of phosphorylation of

substrates:
Transferases +
Oxidoreductases
Isomerases
Lyases
an enzyme catalyses the formation or breakage of only certain bonds in a molecule.
group.
an enzyme catalyze the reaction of only one substrate.
an enzyme that catalyze conversation only one stereoisomer of the substrate. +
32. Which inactivates an enzyme by occupying its active site?
Competitive inhibitor +
Non-competitive inhibitor
All of these
Pyruvate dehydrogenaseSuccinate dehydrogenase +
Fumarase
34. Pyruvate carboxylase is an example for the class of enzymes namely
Transferase
Lyase
Ligase +
Isomerase
35. A specific inhibitor for succinate dehydrogenase is
Arsenite
Malonate +
Citrate
1488
Fluoride
36. Hexokinase is an example for the class of enzymes namely
transferases +
oxidoreductases
isomerases
lyases
37. The hereditary disease connected with metabolism of tyrosine
phenylketonuria +
citrullinemia
methyl malonic aciduria
alkaptonuria
the protein part of enzymestightly bound nonprotein part of enzyme and they are generally
metal ions +
the part of the enzyme that binds with the substrate
weakly bound nonprotein part of enzyme and they are water soluble vitamins
an enzyme catalyzes the formation or breakage of only certain bonds in a molecule
group
an enzyme catalyzes the reaction of only one substrate +
an enzyme catalyzes conversation only one stereoisomer of the substrate
40. The enzyme that converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is
Hexokinase +
Phosphorylase
Glucose synthetase
The protein part of enzymes +
Tightly bound nonprotein part of enzyme and they are generally metal ions
The part of the enzyme that binds with the substrate
1489
Weakly bound nonprotein part of enzyme and they are water soluble vitamins
42. Choose isoforms of LDH, concentration of which increase in blood plasma of patients
with
myocardial infarction:
LDH1 and LDH2 +
LDH3 and LDH4
LDH3
LDH4 and LDH5
43. Which enzyme hydrolyses starch?Invertase
Maltase
Sucrase
Amylase +
44. Cofactor (Prosthetic group) is a part of holoenzyme, it is
inorganic part loosely attached
non-protein substance attached tightly +
organic part attached loosely
none of these
2+
10
46. The enzymes catalyze electron and proton transfers from one molecule to another are
oxidoreductases +
ligases
hydrolyses
transferases
47. Name the enzyme, which activity should be determined in patient’s urine in acute
pancreatitis:
Amylase +
Protein kinase
1490
Cholinesterase
Leucine aminopeptidase
48. Hexokinase belongs to the category of enzymes:Transferases +
Lysases
Oxidoreductases
Isomerases
active site
binding site
catalytic site
allosteric site +
50. Amylase is an example for the class of enzymes namely
Transferases
Hydrolyses +
Ligase
Oxidoreductases
1. Proteins contain
Only L- α - amino acids +
Only D-amino acids
DL-Amino acids
Both (A) and (B)
2. The molecule of a peptide is composed of
amino acids +
fatty acids
keto acids
nucleotides
3. Histones areIdentical to protamine
Proteins rich in lysine and arginine +
Proteins with high molecular weight
Insoluble in water and very dilute acids
4. All proteins contain the
1491
Same 20 amino acids +
Different amino acids
300 Amino acids occurring in nature
Only a few amino acids
5. An example of metalloprotein is
Casein
Ceruloplasmin +
Gelatin
Salmine
6. The structural feature of regulatory enzymes is the presence of an allosteric center.

Specify its
role.
Binding the substrate
Changing the structure of the substrate
Binding the regulatory effector +
Promotes dissociation of coenzyme
7. In the molecule of a protein, amino acids are joined by:
hydrogen bond
ionic bond
peptide bond +
hydrofobic interactions8. Enzyme D-amino acid oxidase catalyzes deamination of D-amino

acids only. Which property of
the enzyme provides this?
Stereochemical specificity +
Thermolability
Dependence on рН
Absolute specificity
9. Contractile proteins are
keratin, collagen, elastine
hemoglobin, albumin, globulins
actin, myosin +
ovalbumin, casein
1492
10. The protein present in hair is
Keratin +
Elastin
Myosin
Tropocollagen
11. The bonds in protein structure that are not broken on denaturation
disulfide bonds
hydrogen bonds
peptide bonds +
ionic bonds
12. Regulatory proteins are
glucagon, globulins
actin, myosin
insulin, glucagoninsuline, albumine
13. An example of chromoprotein is
catalase +
sturine
nuclein
gliadin
14. Hydrolysis of proteins may be caused by
heavy metal salts
lipids
ammonium sulfate
trypsin +
15. Which properties are characteristic of histones?
are components of lipoproteins
isoelectric point is within acidic pH
contain many residues of arginine and lysine +
are present in the cytoplasm
1493
16. Indicate an enzyme class of glucokinase catalyzing the reaction of phosphate group
transfer
from ATP to glucose.
Transferases +
Oxidoreductases
Isomerases
Hydrolases
17. Proteins contain
Only L- α - amino acids +
Only D-amino acids
D- and L-Amino acidsBoth (A) and (B)
18. Cholesterol is transported from liver to extrahepatic tissues by
Chylomicrons
VLDL +
HDL
LDL
19. In proteins the α-helix and β-pleated sheet are examples of
Primary structure
Secondary structure +
Tertiary structure
20. Casein, the milk protein is
Nucleoprotein
Chromoprotein
Phosphoprotein +
Glycoprotein
21. The a-helix of proteins is a. b. c. A d.
A pleated structure
Made periodic by disulphide bridges
A non-periodic structure
Stabilised by hydrogen bonds between NH and CO groups of the main chain +
1494
22. Which of the following proteins have quaternary structure?
myoglobin +
collagen
hemoglobinlactate dehydrogenase
23. The functions of plasma γ-globulins are
Osmosis
Transport
Immunity +
both (A )and (B)
24. Choose peptide bond
- CO-NH- +
-S-S-
-C-C-
-O....H-
25. Five isoenzyme forms of LDH were identified from human serum and their properties
were
studied. What property indicates that the isoenzyme forms of the same enzyme were
isolated?
The same molecular weight
Tissue localization
The same physical and chemical properties
They catalyze the same reaction +
26. Triglycerides are transported from liver to extrahepatic tissues by
Chylomicrons
VLDL +
HDL
LDL
27. Which of the following proteins have quaternary structure?
myoglobin
albumin
hemoglobin +lactate dehydrogenase
28. In denaturation of proteins, which phenomenon is observed?
1495
Loss of biological activity +
Cleavage of peptide bonds
Destruction of primary structure
Decrease of molecular mass of protein
29. Normal content of the total serum protein is:
20 – 30 g/L
40 – 50 g/L
65 – 85 g/L +
90 – 100 g/L
30. All proteins contain the
Same 20 amino acids +
Different amino acids
300 Amino acids occurring in nature
Only a few amino acids
31. Catalytic proteins are
pepsin, chymotrypsin +
actin, myosin
insulin, glucagon
32. Which of the following is the driving force in the formation of tertiary structure of
proteins?
optical activity
interaction of side-chain radicals with water +
ability for the formation of metallic bondthermolability of the protein molecule
33. After releasing O2 at the tissues, hemoglobin transports
CO2 and protons to the lungs +
O2 to the lungs
CO2 and protons to the tissue
Nutrients
34. Which of the following is conjugated protein?
albumin
1496
protamine
histones
myoglobin +
35. An example of scleroprotein is
Zein
Keratin +
Glutenin
Ovoglobulin
36. Which of the following is the driving force in the formation of secondary structure of
proteins?
electrostatic repulsion
interaction of side-chain radicals with water
ability for the formation of hydrogen bonds +
thermolability of the protein molecule
37. The functions of plasma albumin are
Osmosis
Transport
Immunityboth (A )and (B) +
38. Which type of bond is characteristic of secondary structure of proteins?
Peptide bond
Hydrogen bond +
Ionic bond
Hydrofobic interactions
39. This lipoprotein removes cholesterol from the body
HDL +
VLDL
IDL
Chylomicrons
40. Types of secondary structure of proteins are
α-helix +
globular
1497
fibrous
double helix
41. Bonds stabilizing secondary structure of proteins are
hydrogen bonds +
ionic bonds
peptide bonds
hydrofobic interactions
42. Biological functions of α1 and α2-globulins include
Source of energy
Insulating material
Transport lipis and carbohydrates +All of these
43. Immunoglobulins are classified as:
lipoproteins
glycoproteins +
nucleoproteins
phosphoproteins
44. Which of the following are fibrous proteins?
Insulin
Hemoglobine
Albumine
Gollagen +
45. Storage proteins are
actin, myosin
ovalbumin, casein +
46. Which of the following protein is metalloprotein?
albumin
collagen
elastine
ceruloplasmin +
1498
47. Transport proteins are
hemoglobin, albumin, globulins +
actin, myosinovalbumin, casein
48. Structural proteins are
keratin, collagen, elastine +
actin, myosin
ovalbumin, casein
49. Which type of bond is characteristic of primary structure of proteins?
Peptide bond +
Hydrogen bond
Ionic bond
Phosphodiester bond
50. Insuline possess
primary structure
secondary structure
tertiary structure
1. Fibropeptidase A&B are highly negative due to presence of which amino acids?
Glutamate and Aspartate
Serine and threonine
Lysine and Arginine
Valine and Lysine
modification?
Triiodothyronine
Hydroxyproline
Hydroxy lysine
Selenocysteine
1499
Arginine
Aspartic acid
Isoleucine
Valine
4. What is the pH of the solution if the Hydrogen ion concentration is mill moles/L
2.3
3.7
6.6
3.5
UAG
UGA
UAA
GUA
Methionine
Lysine
Alanine
Leucine
Tyrosine
Arginine
Histidine
Lysine
Cysteine
Leucine
Arginine
Threonine
1500
Phenylalanine
Lysine
Threonine
Methionine
Tryptophan
Threonine
Histidine
Cysteine
Phenylalanine
Tyrosine
Tryptophan
Valine
Acidic amino acid
Basic amino acid
Aromatic amino acid
Branched chain amino acid
Glutamate
Glutamic acid
Glutamine
Aspartate
14 .Which of the following is semi essential amino acid?
Arginine
Histidine
Glycine
Phenylalanine
Hydroxyproline
1501
Methionine
Cysteine
Lysine
16.PKA=Ph when:
Solute is completely ionized
When the concerntration of ionized and unionized form is same
Solute is completely unionized
All of the above
17. HCO3-/H2Co3 is considered most effective buffer at physiological pH because:
Options
It has pKa close to physiological pH
It is formed a weak acid and base
Its components can be increased or decreased by the body
It can donate and accept H+
18. Replacing alanine by which amino acid will increase UV absorbance of protein are 280
nm wavelength?
Options
Leucine
Proline
Arginine
Tryptophan
19. Which of the following protein cannot be phosphorylated using protein kinase in
prokaryotic organisms?
Options
Threonine
Tyrosine
Serine
Asparagine
20. Carboxylation of clotting factors by vitamin K is required to be biologically active. Which

of the following amino acid is carboxylated?
Options
Histidine
1502
Histamine
Glutamate
Aspartate
21.Property of photochromisity is seen amongst the following amino aids:
Options
Unsaturated amino acid
Aromatic amino acid
Monocarboxylic acid
Dicarboxylic acid
Options
Peptide bond
Lmino group
Disulphide bond
Aromatic amino acid
23.All biologically active amino acids are:
Options
L-forms
D-forms
Mostly D-forms
D and L forms
24.Flexibility of protein depends on:
Options
Glycine
Tryptophan
Phenyalalnine
Histidine
25.Which amino acid can protonate deprotonate at neutral pH?
Options
Histidine
Leucine
1503
Glycine
Arginine
26.Which of the following amino acid is purely glucogenic?
Options
Valine
Lysine
Alanine
Glycine
Options
Triiodothyronine
Selenocysteine
Hydroxyproline
Hydroxylysine
Options
Blood sugar
Inborn errors of metabolism
Hepatitis
Cataract
29.Nitric oxide is synthesized from which amino acid
Options
Arginine
Serine
Threonine
Lysine
30.Fibrinopeptide A and 8 are highly negative charged proteins made up of:
Options
Serine and Threonine
Lysine and Histidine
Aspartate and Glutamate
1504
Leucine and Lysine
31 .In Cystinuria, all of the following amino acids are excreted, except:
Options
Cystine
Ornithine
Leucine
Arginine
32.Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of
Options
Phenylalanine
Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH
Phenylene
Allofthese
33.Nitric oxide acts by increasing
Options
BRCA 1
BRCA 2
Interleukin
CGMP
34.Serotonin is also known as
5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)
N-methyl phenylamine
3-Methoxytyramine
Phenethylamine
35.Tyrosinosis is caused due to deficiency of which enzyme?
Options
Fumaryl acetoacetate hydrolase
P-hydroxy phenyl pyruvate dehydrogenase
Tyrosine ligase
1505
36.Non-essential amino acid group is
Options
Acidic Amino Acid
Branched chain amino Acid
Basic Amino Acid
Aromatic Amino Acid
37.Which is 21st amino acid
Options
Alanine
Arginine
Cystine
Seleno cysteine
38.Amino acid present in thioredoxin reductase:
Options
Alanine
Selenocysteine
Cysteine
Serine
39.Glucogenic amino acid is
Options
Leucine
Lysine
Phenylalanine
Valine
40. Both glucogenic and ketogenic amino-acids are all except-
Options
Leucine
Tryptophan
Phenylanine
Tyrosine
41.Indole ring is present in-
1506
Options
Tyrosinase
Phenylalanine
Tyroxine
Threonine
Options
Produced in liver
Break down from muscle
From external source
Synthesis in muscle
Options
Histidine
Arginnine
Tyrosine
Lysine
44. Amino acid which is not stable in (incompatible with) alpha-helix is
Options
Proline
Glutamine
Alanine
Tryptophan
45.Amino acid with double chiral carbon
Options
Tyrosine
Threonine
Tryptophane
Phenyalanine
46.Substitution of which one ofthe following amino acids in place of alanine would increase
the absorbance of protein at 280 nm
1507
Leucine
Arginine
Tryptophan
Proline
Options
Arginine
Alanine
Methionine
Glycine
Options
Cysteine
Tyrosine
Glutamine
Tryptophan
49. Disulphide bond is seen between-
Options
Lysine and cysteine
Arginine and cysteine
Cysteine and cysteine
Arginine and histidine
50.Sulphur containing amino acids metabolism needs
Options
Pyridoxine
Folic acid
Vitamin Bl2
All of the above
51.In phenylketouria, diet restriction is advised for
Options
Maize
1508
Phenylalanine
Tyrosine
All
Options
Purines
Creatine
Heme
Pyrimidines
53. Sulfhydryl group containing amino acid{s)
Options
Methionine
Cysteine
Cystine
ALL
Options
Tryptophan
Serotonin
Phenyllanine
Histidine
55.Which of the following amino acid has positive charge at physiological pH?
Options
Aspartate
Arginine
Valine
Isoleucine
56.Which vitamin can be synthesized in body
Options
Pantothenic acid
Niacin
1509
Folic acid
Bl2
57.After a point mutation, glutamic acid replaced byvaline, which leads to formation of sickle
cell Hb. mobility of HbS as compared to normal Hb on gel
Options
Decreased
Increased
Dependent on HbS concentration
Unchanged
58.All of the following amino acids forms acetyl CoA via pyruvate dehydrogenase except :
Options
Glycine
Hydroxyproline
Tyrosine
Alanine
59. A child with pellagra like symptoms, amino acids in urine, family history of two siblings
affected and two normal. Parents are normal. What is the diagnosis
Options
Phenylketonuria
Alkaptonuria
Hartnup's disease
60.What is Isoelectric point?
Options
WhenpH=pl
When zwitterion exists
Protein precipitation occurs
All
61.Which is elevated in PLP deficiency
Options
FIGLU
1510
Homocystine
Methylmalonic acid
Xanthurenic acid
62.Hormone synthesized from Tyrosine is
Options
Cortisol
Calcitonin
Thyroxine
Calcitriol
63.Type I Tyrosinemia is caused by:
Options
Maleylacetoacetate Isomerase
Fumaryl Acetoacetate Hydrolase
Tyrosine Transaminase
4-Hydroxy Phenylpyruvate Hydroxylase
64.Which amino acid's deamination takes place in liver
Options
Aspartic acid
Alanine
Glycine
Glutamine
Options
Betaine
Sarcosine
Carnosine
Ergothionine
66.Amino acid used in Carnitine synthesis is
Options
Alanine
Tyrosine
1511
Arginine
Lysine
Options
Aspartate
Uracil
Guanosine
Arginine
Options
Carnitin
Inositol
Glycine
Serine
69.In Maple syrup urine disease, the amino acids excreted in urine are all except
Options
Leucine
Phenylalanine
Isoleucine
Valine
Options
Tetrahydrobiopterin
Tetrahydrofolate
Pyridoxal phosphate
71. Which of following is polar
Options
Tryptophan
Methionin
Glutamic acid
1512
Isoleucine
Options
Valine
Histidine
Methionine
Tyrosine
Options
Histidine
Aspartate
Lysine
Alanine
74.Xanthurenic acid is the metabolite in the metabolism
Options
Uric acid
Xanthine
Tryptophan
Uronic acid I
Options
Tryptophan
Phenylalanine
Cysteine
Alanine
Options
Pyridoxal phosphate
Biotin
Cytochrome P450
1513
77.Ochronosis is caused by
Options
Tyrosinemia Type 1
Alkaptonuria
Phenylketonuria
78.In Alkaptonuria, which of the following accumulates abnormally in urine
Options
Phenylalanine
Homogentisate
Fumarate
Acetoacetate
79.Strength and rigidity in keratin is due to
Options
Leucine
Cysteine
Lithium
None of the above
80.Which of the following is not a selenoprotein
Options
Thioredoxin reducta
Iodothyronine deiodinase
81.Which amino acid does not include post translational modification 1
Options
Selenocysteine
Triiodothyronine
Hydroxy-proline
Hydroxy-lysine
82.Which amino acid has maximum tendency to bind phosphate
1514
Options
Serine
Alanine
Phenylalanine
Tryptophan
Options
Glycine
Lysine
Methionine
Glutamate
84.Hyperphenylalaninemia occurs due to
Options
Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency
Phenylalanine hydroxylase overactivity
Dihydrobiopterin reductase deficiency
Tyrosine hydroxylase deficiency
Options
Threonine
Tyrosine
Serine
Tryptophan
Options
-1
-2
+1
87.Codon for transcription of Selenocysteine is?
Options
1515
UAA
UGA
UAG
GUA
88.Sulphur of cysteine not used in body for the following
Options
Help in conversion of cyanide to thiocyanate
Thiosulphate formation
Introduction of sulphur atom in methionine
Disulfide bond formation b/w two adjacent peptide
89.Which of the following is true regarding phenylketonuria
Options
Dietary phenylalanine restriction is used in treatment
Occur due to deficiency ofPhenyalanine hydroxylase enzyme
Occur due to increase activity of phenyalanine hydroxylase enzyme
Tyrosine must be supplied in diet
90.Terminal product( s) of phenylalanine is:
Options
Fumarate
Acetyl CoA
Oxaloacetate
Acetoacetate
91.Optically inactive amino acid is/ are:
Options
Threonine
Thyronine
Valine
Glycine
92.Disease of branched chain amino acid includes
Options
Phenylketonuria
1516
Maple syrup disease
Taysach's disease
Isovaleric acidemia
93.Correct combination of Urine odour in various metabolic disorders
Options
Phenylketonuria -Mousy odour
Tyrosinemia-Rotten cabbage
Hawkinsuria- Potato smell
Maple syrup disease-Rotten tomato
Options
Serine
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Valine
95.Hydrophobic amino acids are:
Options
Methionine
Isoleucine
Lysine
Alanine
96.Non-polar amino acids are:
Options
Alanine
Tryptophan
Isoleucine
Lysine
97.Basic amino acid (s) is/are:
Options
Arginine
Proline
1517
Lysine
Histidine
98.PKU is a congenital amino acid metabolic disorder. In one of the following rare variants of
PKU Dihydro Biopterin synthesis is affected. The enzyme deficient
is:
Options
Histidine decarboxylase
Dihydropterin reductase
Tyrosine deficiency
Options
Endothelium
Platelets
Neuron
Macrophages
100.Non polar amino acids are:
Options
Proline
Lysine
Isoleucine
Arginine
101.Kinks in alpha structure are formed by which amino acid:
Options
Glycine
Lysine
Methionine
Glutamate
102.Which of the following amino acid can have o-glycoxylation linkage in oligosaccharide
molecule:
Options
1518
Asparagine
Glutamine
Serine
Cysteine
103.Enzyme deficient in I cell disease:
Options
GlcNAc phosphotransferase
Mannose Phosphotranferase
Phosphodiesterase
Mannose 6 phosphate transferase
104. immunoglobulins are:-
glycoproteins
Options
Prion disease
Beta thalassemia
Ehler’s danlos syndrome
106.Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins?
Options
Proteases
Proteosomes
Templates
Chaperones
107.All are TRUE about chaperones except?
Options
Many of them are known as heat shock proteins
They use energy during the protein-chaperone interaction
Ubiquitin is one of the most important chaperone
They are present in wide range of species from bacteria to human
1519
Options
A naturally present protein in normal individuals
Involves selectively blood vessels
Is visible by naked eyes as whitish cheesy material
A material which gets deposited inn extra-cellular spaces
109.The sequence that target proteins to lysosome is:
Options
Mannose 6phosphate
PTS
KDEL
110.Collagen of which type is found in hyaline cartilage?
Options
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
111. Keratin is present in both skin and nail. But nail is harder than skin. The reason is:
Options
Increased no of disulphide bonds
Decreased no of water molecules
Increased Na content
Increased hydrogen bond
112.The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell or in the
formation of matrices in the body. The shape of these protein is:
Options
Globular
Fibrous
Stretch of beadas
Planar
Options
1520
Immunoglobulin
Hemoglobin
Collagen
Keratin
114. All of the following are required for hydroxylation of proline in collagen synthesis
except?
Options
O2
Vitamin C
Monooxygenases
Monooxygenases
Options
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
116.Precipitation of proteins occurs in all except?
Options
Adding, alcohol and acetone
PH changes is moved awy from isoelectirc pH
With Trichloro acetic acid
With Heavy metals
117. In HbS, Glutamic acid replaced by valine. What will be its electrophoretic mobility?
Options
Increased
Decreased
No change
Dependson level of concerntration of HbS
Options
1521
Single nucleotide change results in change of Glutamine to Valine
RFLP result from a single base change
‘sticky patch’ is generated as a result of replacement of a nonpolar residue with a polar

residue
HbS confers resistance against malaria in heterozygotes
Following SDS PAGE electrophoresis, proteins is found to be 100kDa. After treatment with
mercaptoethanol, it shows 2 bands of 20 kDa and 30 KDa widely
119.separated. True statement is:
Options
Protein has undergone hydrolysis of S-S linkage
Protein break down due to non convalent linkage
120.Protein is purified using ammonium sulphate by:
Options
Salting out
Ion exchange chromatography
Mass chromatography
Molecular size exclusion
121.All of the following can determine the protein structure except?
Options
High performance liquid chromatography
Mass spectrometry
NMR spectrometry
Options
Ultra filtration
Native gel electrophoresis
2D gel electrophoresis
1522
selectively released from stationary phase into the positively charged molecules
Options
Affinity chromatography
Ion- exchange chromatography
Size- exclusion chromatography
Options
FISH
FRAP
Confocal microscopy
DNA microscopy
125.Molecules up to size 4 KD is identified by:
Options
Gene array chip
Electron spray ionization
Quadruple mass spectromtery
Matrix assisted laser desorption ionisation
Options
Sanger’s reagent
Benedicts reagent
Trypsin
Cyanogen bromide
127.Method used to study the structure of proteins include all except?
Options
UV Spectroscopy
NMR Spectroscopy
1523
Edman’s technique
128.Sanger’s reagent is chemically:
Options
2,4 Dinitro benzene
2,4 Dinitro Cresol
1,Flouro 2,4 Dinitro Benzene
1,Flouro 2,4 Dinitro Benzenel
Options
Protein consisting of one polypeptide can have quaternary structure
The formation of disulphide bond in a protein require that the two participating cysteine
residues be adjacent to each other in the primary sequence of the
protein
The formation of disulphide bond in a protein require that the two participating glycine
residues be adjacent to each other in the primary sequence of the
protein
The inforamtion required for the correct folding of a protein is contained in the specific
sequence of amino acid along the polypeptide chain
130.An alpha helix of a protein is most likely to be disrupted if a missense mutation

introduces the following amino acid within the alpha helical structure:
Options
Alanine
Aspartic acid
Tyrosine
Glycine
Options
Denatured state
Molecular aggregation
Precipitation
1524
Options
Monomer
Homodimer
Heterodimer
Tetramer
Options
Peptide bond
Hydrogen bond y
Disulphide bond
Electrostatic bond
134.Polypeptide formation in amino acid is by
Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
135.Rossman fold associated NADH domain is found in which enzyme
Options
Alpha ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase
Question (1/33)
136. Which one of the following can be homologous substitution for isolecuine in a protein
in sequence?
Options
Methionine
Aspartic acid
Valine
1525
Arginine
137.Isoelectric point is when:
Options
Net charge of protein in zero
Mass of protein in zero
Protein
Denaturation of protein occurs
138.Biuret test is used for detection of:
Options
Protein
Cholesterol
Steroid
Sugar
139.What type of protein in Casein?
Options
Lipoprotein
Phosphoprotein
Glycoprotein
Flavoprotein
140.Which is/are not transport protein?
Options
Transferrin
Collagen
Ceruloplasmin
Hemoglobin
141.The process in which amino group of amino acid is transferred to keto acid and keto
group of keto acid is transferred to the amino acid is called
Options
Phosphorylation
Transamination
Deamination
1526
Decarboxylation
142. Which intermediate of citric acid cycle is used in detoxification of ammonia in brain?
Options
Citrate
Succinate
Alpha-ketoglutarate
Oxalo-acetate
Options
Nitrogen of urea comes from alanine and ammonia
Carbon of urea comes from bicarbonate
Malate is a byproduct of urea cycle
144. A patient presented to casualty with nausea, vomiting. Intravenous glucose was given
and the patient recovered. After few months, patient presented with same
complaints. Blood glutamine was found to be increased. Also uracil levels were raised. What
is the diagnosis?
Options
CPS-I deficiency
Argino succinate synthetase deficiency
CPS-II deficiency
Ornithine trans carbamoylase deficiency
145.In urea synthesis, Carbon comes from:
Options
Bicarbonate
Methyl THF
Formate
NS, NlO methylene THF
Options
Oxidation
Transamination
1527
Dehydrogenation
Demination
147.Glutamate is formed from which amino acid
Options
Threonine
Alanine
Proline
Lysine
148.Ammonia from brain is trapped by
Urea
Glutamate
Glutamine
Glycine
149.Phenylbutyrate because it is used in urea cycle disorders
Scavenges nitrogen
Activates enzymes
Maintains renal output
Maintains energy production
150. Nontoxic form of storage and ammonia: transportation
Options
Aspartic acid
Glutamate
Glutamine
Glutamic acid
151. In urea cycle, hydrolysis occurs during
Options
Cleavage of Arginine
Formation of ornithine
Formation of Argininosuccinate
Formation of citrulline
1528
Options
Dehydrogenase
CPS-I
CPS-II
Options
Cytosolic enzyme
Hepatic mitochondrial enzyme
Lysosomalenzyme
All of the above
154.Source of nitrogen in urea cycle is
Options
Glutamate and NH3
Glutamate and aspartate
Arginine and aspartate
NH3 and aspartate
155. In the biosynthesis of urea, one nitrogen atom is derived from ammonia while the other
nitrogen atom is from
Options
Glcyine
Alanine
Aspartate
Glutamate
Options
Carnosine
Anserine
Homocarnosine
Pantothenic acid
1529
Options
Citrulline
Aspatrate
Ornithine
Arginine
158.Not a metabolic product of urea cycle
Options
Ornithine
Alanine
Citrulline
Arginine
Options
Endothelium
Ectoderm
Endoderm
Bones
160.Nitric oxide in synthesized from?
Options
L-arginine
Aspartate
L-citrulline
Lysine
Options
Otherwise called Endothelium derived Relaxing Factor
Acts through cAMP
162. EDRF is
Options
1530
S02
NO
Np
N02
Options
Urea formed from ammonia
Rate limiting enzyme is ornithine transcarbamoylase
Require Energy expenditure
Malate is byproduct of urea cycle
Options
Nitrogen of the urea comes from alanine and ammonia
Uses ATP during conversion of arginosuccinate to
On consumption of high amount of protein, excess of urea formed
Options
Argininosucinate synthetase
A- KG dehydorogenase
Options
Glutaminase
Asparginase
Ornithine transcarboxylase
167.Hyperammonemia inhibit TCA cycle by depleting
Options
Oxaloacetate
1531
Alpha-ketoglutarate
Citrate
Succinyl Co-A
168.AU are urea cycle enzymes except
Options
CPS -1 (carbamoyl phosphate synthetase-!)
Citrulline synthase
169.Vasodilator produced by decarboxylation of:
Options
Histidine
Glutamic acid
Aspertic acid
Lysine
170.Nitric oxide synthesised from:
Options
Arginine
Citrulline
Alanine
Cysteine
171.Histidine load test is used for:
Options
Folate deficiency
Histidine deficiency
Histamine deficiency
Pre vCysteine
172.True about Nitric Oxide are all except:
Options
1532
Otherwise called endothelium derived relaxing factor
Acts through c AMP
Options
Arginine
Lysine
Leucine
Histamine
174.Histidine is converted to Histamine by which reaction?
Options
Carboxylation
Oxidation
Decarboxylation
Amination
175.Branched chain ketoacid decarboxylation is defective in:
Options
Hartnup disease
Alkaptonuria
GMI Gangliosidosis
Options
E I alpha
EI
E2
E3
177.Which is not formed from branched chain amino acid?
Options
Xanthurenate
Tiglyl CoA
Acetoacetyl CoA and acetyl CoA
1533
Acetyl CoA and CoA
178. Treatment used in isovaleric aciduria:
Options
Arginine
Lysine
Glycine
Methionine
179. Which of the following amino acid is excreted in urine in maple syrup urine disease?
Options
Tryptophan
Phenylalanine
Leucine
Arginine
Options
Choline
Niacin
Pantothenic acid
Riboflavin
181.Proline is formed from
Options
Alpha ketoglutarate
Glutamate
Pyruvate
Alanine
182. The nitrogen atom of aspartate formed from asparagines using enzyme asparaginase is
from:
Options
Ammonium
Glutamate
Glutamine
1534
Alpha ketoglutarate
183.Oxaloacetate is formed from:
Options
Proline
Glutamate and glutamine
Aspartate and asparagine
184.Amino acid responsible for Thioredoxin reductase activation:
Options
Serine
Selenocysteine
Cysteine
Alanine
Options
Glutamine and glutamate
Asparagine and aspartate
Glutamine and proline
Options
Phenyl Ketonuria
Homocystinuria
Glutaric acidemia
MSUD
187. During the formation of hydroxyl proline and hydroxyl lysine, the essential factor
required is/are:
Options
Pyridoxal phosphate
Ascorbic acid
1535
Methylcobalamine
Options
Histidine
Leucine
Valine
Lysine
Options
Alpha
Beta Carbon atom
Gamma
Delta
Options
Lysine
Ornithine
Cysteine
Cystine
191.Tripeptide is:
Options
Glutathione
Anserine
Carnosline
Homocarnosine
192. In a case of classic homocystinuria what should be supplemented in the diet to prevent
heart attacks?
Options
Pyridoxine
Methionine
Methyl cobalamine
1536
Niacin
193. Sulphur of cysteine are not used/utilised in the body for the following process/ product:
Options
Help in the conversion of cyanide to thiocyanate
Thisoulphate formation
Disulphide bond formation b/w two adjacent peptide
Options
Glutathione
Glycine
Glutamate
GABA
Glutamic acid
Glycine
Cysteine
Alanine
197. Serotonin is:
Options
5hydroxy Tryptophan
5 Hydroxy Tryptamine
5 carboxy Tryptamine
5 carboxy Tryophan
Options
Para hydroxy phenyl pyuvate hydroxylase
1537
Pheochromocytoma
Carcinoid Syndrome
Phenyl Ketouria
Alkaptonuria
Options
Pheochromocytoma
Carcinoid syndrome
Phenyl ketonuria
Alkptonuria
Options
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Methionine
Alanine
202.Melatonin derived from:
Options
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Methionine
Alanine
Options
NTBC
Vitamin B6
Large neutral amino acids
Tyrosin restricted diet
Options
FIGLU
1538
Xanthurenic acid
Methyl malonic acid
VMA
Options
Tryptophan
Threonine
Tyrosine
Lysine
Replacement of the defective enzyme
Replacement of the deficient product
Limiting the substrate for deficient enzyme
Giving the missing amino acid by diet
207. A 40-years- old women presents with progressive palmoplantar pigmentation. X-ray
spine shows calcification of IV disc. On adding benedicts reagent to urine,
it gives greenish brown precipitate and blue-black supernatant fluid. What is the diagnosis?
Options
Alkaptonuria
Tyrosinemia type 2
Argininosuccinic aciduria
Phenylketonuria
Options
Dopamine --> Norepinephrine
Dopa to dopamine
Nor epinephrine to epinephrine
Tyrosine to dopa
Options
1539
4 hydroxy phenyl pyruvate hydroxylase
Maleyl acetoacetate isomerase
210.Enzyme deficiency in albinism is:
Options
Tyrosinase
Tyrosine hydroxylase
211.Mousy body odour is due to:
Options
Phenylalanine
Phenyl Acetate
Phenyl Butazone
Phenyl Acetyl Glutamine
Options
Glycine
Tryptophan
Phenylalanine
Lysine
Options
Glycine
Methionine
Threonine
Tyrosine
214.Tyrosinemics are more susceptible to develop
Adenocarcinoma colon
Melanoma
Retinoblastoma
1540
Hepatic carcinoma
Options
Glycine
Serine
Threonine
Lysine
216.Which of the following is true about glycine?
Options
Glycine is an essential amino acid
Sulphur containing at 4th position
Has a guanidine group
Optically inactive
217.Which of the following would not act as source of glycine by transamination?
Options
Alanine
Aspartate
Glutamate
Glyoxylate
218.Glycine cleavage system in liver mitochondria is associated with which enzyme?
Options
Glycine Dehydrogenase
Glycine transaminase
Glycine Decarboxlase
Glycine dehydratase
219.Guanido acetic acid is formed in
Options
Kidney; Arginine+ Glycine
Liver; Methionine+ Glycine
Liver; Cysteline+ Arginine
Muscle; citrulline+ Aspartate
1541
220.N Methyl Glycine is known as:
Options
Ergothionine
Sarcosine
Carnosine
Betaine
Options
Glycine cleavage system
Alanine glyoxalate amino transferase
D glycerate dehydrogenase
Excess vitamin C
222.All are true about glutathione except?
Options
It is a tripeptide
It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
It conjugates xenobiotics
It is co-factor of various enzyme
223.Ammonia from brain is detoxified as:
Options
Glutamate
Glutamine
Alanine
Urea
224.True about Glutamate Dehydrogenase:
Options
Can use NADH or NADPH
PLP is the coenzyme
Enzyme of transamination
Ammonium ion is not released in the free form
1542
Options
Increased breakdown of muscle proteins
Impaired renal function
Decreased utilization of amino acid from gluconeogenesis
Leakage of amino acids from cells due to plasma membrane damage
226.Transfer of an amino group from an amino acid to an alpha keto acid is done by:
Options
Transaminases
Aminases
Transketolases
Deaminases
227. The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver is
Options
Alanie
Methionine
Arginine
Glutamine
Options
Ammonia transporter
Toxic element
Toxic element
Abnormal metabolite
229.Amino acid absorption is by:
Options
Facilitated transport
Passive transport
Active transport
Pinocytosis
230.The transporter gene defective in Hartup
Options
1543
SLA 6A 19
SLA 6A 18
SLA 36 A2
SLA 7A7
231.Nontoxic form of storage and transportation of ammonia:
Options
Aspartic acid
Glutamic acid
Glutamine
Glutamate
232..CPS-I used in which pathway?
Options
Pyrimidine synthesis
Purine synthesis
Urea cycle
TCA cycle
233.Urea cycle occurs in
Options
Liver
GIT
Spleen
Kidney
234.In which of the following condition there is increased level of ammonia in blood?
Options
Ornithine thranscarbamylase deficiency
Galactosemia
Histidinemia
Phenylketonuria
235.Urea cycle occurs in:
Options
Cytoplasm
1544
Mitochondria
Both
Options
ATP
GTP
NADH
ADP
Options
Ammonium and aspartate
Ammonium and glutamate
Ammonium and glycine
Ammonium and asparagine
238.Phenyl butyrate is used in cycle disorder because:
Options
Scavenges nitrogen
Increased enzyme activity
Maintain energy level
Increases renal output of ammonia
239.A 6-month-old boy admitted with failure to thrive with high glutamine and uracil in
urine. Hypoglycemia, high blood ammonia. Treatment given for 2 months.
At 8 months again admitted for failure to gain weight. Gastric tube feeding was not tolerated.
Child became comatose. Parenteral Dextrose given. Child
recovered from coma with 24hrs. What is the enzyme defect?
Options
CPS1
Ornitinetranscarbamoylase
Arginase
Argininosuccinate Synthetase
1545
240.A baby presents with refusal to feed, skin lesions, seizures, ketosis, organic acids in urine
with normal ammonia, likely diagnosis:
Options
Proprionic aciduria
Multiple carboxylase deficiency
Urea cycle enzyme deficiency
Options
L-amino acid Oxidase
Glutamate Dehydrogenase
Glutaminase
Amino acid Dehydratase
242.Which of these is a conservative mutation?
Options
Glutamic acid-glutamine
Histidine-glycine
Alanine-leucine
Arginine-aspartic acid
243.Proteins are sorted by:
Options
Golgi bodies
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Nuclear Membrane
244.Not true among the following is:
Options
Sec61 translocon complex form passage way
SRP-R is a docking protein
SRP blocks elongation
SRP-R is ATP bound
1546
245.Endoplasmic reticulum signal transduction isthrough
Options
Translocon
Chaperones
Ubiquitin
Mannose 6 phosphate
246.Not a function of endoplasmic reticulum:
Options
Protein synthesis
Muscle contraction
Protein sorting
Glycoproteins
247.Targeting sequence that direct endoplasmic reticulum resident protein inn retrograde
flow to ER in COP-I vesicles
Options
KDEL
KDAL
DALK
KDUL
Options
Cytoplasm
First in cytoplasmand then in endoplasmic reticulum
First in endoplasmic reticulum and then in cytoplasm
Options
RE site
FTR site
Lox P site
INT site
1547
Restriction Endonuclease is used in:
Options
RFLP
PCR
PCR
SOS-PAGE
Function of endonucleases:
Options
Cut DNA at specific DNA sequences
To point out the coding regions
Enhancers
To find out antibiotic resistance
Enzymes used in DNA research programme are, except:
Options
Polymerase
Exonuclease
Nuclease
None
In DNA transfer the vectors used from smallest to largest is:
Options
Cosmids, Plasmids, Bacteriophage
Plasmids, Bacteriophage, Cosmids
Bacteriophage, Cosmids, Plasmids
Cosmids, Bacteriophage, Plasmids
In gene cloning, largest fragment can be incorporated in:
Options
Plasmid
Bacteriophage
Cosmid
Retrovirus
Function of restriction 11 enzyme:
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Options
Prevents protein folding
Removing formed DNA
Cleaves DNA at palindromic recognition site
Negative supercoiling
After digestion by restriction endonuclease DNA strands can be joined again in:
Options
DNA polymerase
DNA ligase
DNA topoisomerase
DNA gyrase
Starting material for production of insulin from bacteria is:
Options
Genomic DNA of lymphocytes
M RNA of lymphocytes
Genomic DNA of beta cell of pancreas
MRNA of beta cells of pancreas
Correct statements regarding restriction e ase is/are:
Restriction endonuclease recognizes specific sites of DNA sequence
Restriction endonuclease recognizes short of DNA
Real time PCR is used for:
Options
Multiplication of RNA
Multiplication of specific segment of DNA
Multiplication of Protein
To know how much amplification has occurred
Quantitative DNA analysis/estimation is done by:
Options
PH meter
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Sphymometer
Sphymometer
Spectrometer
All are added to PCR, except:
Options
Deoxynucleotide
Dideoxynucleotide
Thermostat DNAP
Template DNA
For PCR which of the following is not required?
Options
Taq polymerase
D-NTP
Primer
Radiolabelled DNA probe
SYBR Green Dye Is used for:
Options
HPLC
Lmmunofluorescence
PCR
ELISA
Enzyme(s) used in polymerase chain reaction ls/are:
Options
DNA polymerase
Alkaline phosphate
RNA polymerase
True about PCR all except:
Options
Carried out by thermostable DNA-polymerase
Exponential amplification
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Additive amplification
Specific amplification
PCR is used in:
Options
Medicolegal cases
Amplification of gene
Identification of organism
All of the above
Which of the following is used in PCR?
Options
Ca ++
Mg ++
Li +
Na +
In PCR Acquaticus thermophilus is preferred over E.coli, because:
Options
Thermostable at temperature at which DNA liquefies
Proof reading done
Done in more precisely
Does not require primer
Western blot detects:
Options
DNA
DNA
Protein
MRNA
Which is the test used to Identify mRNA?
Options
Southern Blot
Northern Blot
Western Blot
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South Western Blot
Which method is used to locate a known gene locus?
Options
FISH
CGH
Chromosome painting
RT-PCR
Light microscopy resolution to visualize chromosomes;
Options
500 kb
5mb
50 mb
5kb
Test to differentiate in the chromosome of normal and cancer cell:
Options
PCR
Comparative genomic hybridization
Western Blotting
Southern Blotting
Karyotyping under light microscopy is done by
Options
R banding
Q banding
G banding
C banding
Rapid method of chromosome identification in intersex is:
Options
FISH
PCR
SSCP
Karyotyping
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Which of following techniques is used for detection of variation in DNA sequence and Gene
expression?
Options
Northern Blot
Southern Blot
Western Blot
Microarray
Which of the following tests in not used for detection of specific aneuploidy?
Options
FISH
RT-PCR
QF- PCR
Microarray
For isolating a gene of long DNA molecules (50·100 KB) following Is used:
Options
Chromosome walking
Sanger's sequencing
RFLP
SSLP
DNA finger printing was founded by:
Options
Watson
Gaitan
Jeffrey
Sanger
The following methods can be used to detect the point mutation in the beta globulin
globulin gene that causes sickle cell anemia, except:
Options
Polymerase chain reaction with allele-specific oligonucleotide hybridization
Southern blot analysis
DNA sequencing
Northern blot analysis
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DNA fingerprinting is based on possessing in DNA of
Options
Constant tandem repeat
Variable Number Tandem Repeat
Non-repetitive sequence
Exon
RNAi in gene expression denotes:
Options
Knock down
Knock up
Knock in
Knock out
The function of a gene is determined by:
Options
Gene editing can be done by various methods like hypermethyation and amplification.
Which of the following will not change the genetic code?
Options
Epigenetics
CRISPR
GenXpert
TALEN
RFLP used in surgical ICU to identify staph aureus. The restriction site of the restriction
endonuclease HIND 111 be:
Options
AAGAAG TTAGGT
AAGAGA GAAGCA
AAGCTT TTCGAA
AAGGAA CCTTGA
Methods of introducing gene in target cells are all except:
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Options
Electroporation
Transfection
Site directed recombination
FISH
The first gene therapy (somatic enzyme) was successfully done in:
Options
SCIO
Phenylketonuria
Thalassemia
Cystic fibrosis
Purpose of gene therapy
Options
Replacement of abnormal gene by normal gene
Replacement of normal gene by abnormal gene
Knock out of abnormal gene
Introduction of viral gene
The following are used to study pathological genome except:
Options
Genbank
Entrez gene
Hapmap
BLAST
Study of structure and products of gene is:
Options
Genomics
Proteomics
Bioinformatics
Cytogenetics
What biologist uses to diagnose and treat diseases with disorders with multlgenic
Inheritance?
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Options
Gene card
Tag SNPs
Flipped card
Virtual Cell
Which of the following statement is true about Linkage analysis?
Options
Detection of characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family associated with disorders
useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non- affected family members
Used to make a pedigree chart to show non- paternity
Non gene mapping method of
Which of the following are situated away from the coding region:
Options
Promoter
Enhancer
Operator
Structural gene
Housekeeping genes are:
Options
Inducible
Required only when inducer is present
Mutant
Not regulated
False statement is:
Options
Repressor binds operator gene
Regulator genes produce repressor subunits
IPTG is inducer but not substrate
Regulator gene is inducible
Lac operon transcription is induced by:
Options
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Glucose
Glucose with inducer
Inducer without glucose
Both lactose and Glucose
All of the following statements about Lambda phage are true, except
Options
I n Lysogenic phase it fuses with host chromosome and remains dormant
In Lytic phase it fuses with host chromosome and replicates
Both Lytic and Lysogenic phase occur together.
In Lytic phase it causes cell lysis and releases virus particles
Normal role of Micro RNA is:
Options
Gene Regulation
RNA splicing
Initiation of Translation
DNA conformation change
CpG island in human genome is related to:
Options
TRNA synthesis
DNA methylation
DNA Acetylation
Replication initiation
Genes in CpG Island is inactivated by:
Options
Methylation
Metrylation
Ubiquitisation
Acetylation
All are true DNA methylation except:
Options
It usually occurs in the cytosine
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Can alter the gene expression pattern in cells
Role in genomic imprinting
No role in carcinogenesis
All are true regarding epigenetics mechanisms except:
Options
Non inheritable
Acetylation
Hereditary
Methylation of DNA
Random inactivation of X-chromosome is:
Options
Lyonisation
Allelic Exclusion
Randomisation
Genomic imprinting
Histone acetylation cause:
Options
Increased Heterochromatin formation
Increased Euchromatin formation
Methylation of cystine
DNA replication
Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred to as:
Options
Genomic imprinting
Mosaicism
Anticipation
Nonpenetrance
Epigenetics is a:
Options
Chemical modification of DNA
Irreversible modification of DNA
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Change in nucleotide sequence
Normal variation of nucleotides
Methylation of Cytidine residues of DNA will cause:
Options
No Change
Decrease gene expression
Mutation
Increase in gene expression
Question (1/5)
CRISPR is:
Options
It is a type of bacterial defense mechanism in bacteria against phages/viruses
It is a type of bacterial defense mechanism in virus against bacteria
It is an anticaspase used against bacteriophages in humans
Methods of Introducing gene in target cells are all
Study of multiplication of proteins in disease process is called:
Options
Proteomics
Genomics
Glycomics
Nucleomics
Choose the true statement about mit DNA:
Options
Few mutation compared to nuclear DNA
It has 3X10 9 base pairs
It receives 23 chromosomes from each parent
It codes for less than 20% of the proteins involved in respiratory chain
All are true about mitochondrial DNA except:
Options
Contains 37 gene
Transmit from mother to offsprings
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Transmit in classical Mendelina fashion
Cause leber hereditary optic neuropathy
Mitochondrial DNA is:
Options
Closed circular
Nicked circular
Linear
Open circular
Microsatellite sequence is:
Options
Small satellite
Extra chromosomal DNA
Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA
Looped-DNA
No loss of genetic material occur in:
Options
Deletion
Insertion
Substitution
Inversion
Base substitution mutations can have the following molecular consequence except:
Options
Changes one codon for an amino acid into another codon for that same amino acid
Codon for one amino acid is changed into a codon of another amino acid
Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant site
Codon for one amino acid is changed into a translation termination codon
Frame shift mutation is caused by:
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Deletion
Point mutation
Substitution
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Transversion
Cystic fibrosis mutation chloride conductance is:
Options
Class-1
Class-2
Class-3
Class-4
One of the following mutation is mutation is potentially lethal:
Options
Substitution of adenine for cytosine
Substitution of methyl cytosine for cytosine
Substitution of guanine for cytosine
Insertion of one base
Sickle cell anemia is the clinical manifestation of homozygous genes for an abnormal
hemoglobin molecule. The event responsible for the mutation m the B
chain is:
Options
Insertion
Deletion
Nondisjunction
Point mutation
Null mutation is:
Options
Mutation occurring in non-coding region
Mutation that does not change the amino acid or end product
Mutation that codes for a change in progeny without a chromosomal change
Mutation that leads to no functional gene product
A mutation in the codon which causes a change in the coded amino acid, is known as:
Options
Mitogenesis
Somatic mutation
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Missense mutation
Recombination
In a mutation if valine is replaced by which of the following would not result in any change in
the function of protein?
Options
Praline
Leucine
Glycine
Aspartic acid
Which of the following can - be a homologous substitution for valine in the hemoglobin?
Options
Lsoleucine
Glutamic acid
Phenyl alanine
Lysr.ne
Pyrimidine dimers are seen in:
Options
UV rays
Xeroderma Pigmentosa
Alkylating agents
X-rays
Question (1/27)
Which RNA contain abnormal purine and Pyrimidine?
Options
tRNA
23 SrRNA
16 S rRNA
mRNA
A codon consist of:
Options
One molecule of amino acyl-t RNA
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Two complementary base pairs
Three consecutive nucleotide units
Four individual nucleotides
All are true of genetic code except:
Options
Degenerate
Universal
Punctuation
Non overlapping
Wobble hypothesis-regarding the variation true is
Options
Degenerate
5 -end of anticodon
Mrna
TRNA
There are 20 amino acids with three codons In Spite of the no of amino acids could be
formed is 64 leading to that an amino acid Is represented by more than
Options
Transcription
Degeneracy
Mutation
Frame shift
Genetic code has triplet of nucleotides each for one amino acid. When an amino acid is
specified by than one codon, it is called:
Options
Transcription
Degeneracy
Mutation
Frameshift
The polyeptide from poly (A) is:
Options
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Polylysine
Polyglycine
Polyproline
Polyalanine
If constitutive sequence of 4 nucleotide codes for 1 ammo acid, how many amino acid can
be theoretically
Options
64
16
256
Termination process of protein synthesis is performed by all except:
Options
Releasing factor
Stop codon
AUG codon
True about Ribozyme:
Options
Peptidyl Transferase activity
Cuts DNA at specific site
Participate in DNA Synthesis
GTPase activity
Part of eukaryotlc DNA contributing to polypeptide synthesis:
Options
Exon
Enhancer
Leader sequence
tRNA
Met-tRNA would recognize: GCA AUG
Options
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AUG
UAG
GUA
UAC
Which of the following statement Is true?
N formyl methionine is the precursor of eukaryot1c polypeptide synthesis
Eukryotic ribosomes are smaller than prokaryot1c
Identification of 5' cap of mRNA by IF4E is the rate limiting step
Elongation factor 2 shuttles between ADP and ATP
RNA polymerase differs from DNA polymerase:
Options
It edits and synthesis
Synthesise RNA primers
Synthesis only in 5 to 3 direction
Uses RNA templates
The cellular component for protein synthesis is:
Options
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Ribosomes
Mitochondria
Amber codon refers to:
Options
Mutant codon
Stop codon
Initiating codon
Codon for more than one amino acids
Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:
Options
AUG codon
UAA codon
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UAG codon
UGA codon
True regarding amino acyl tRNA synthetase is A/E:
Options
Is accepting tRNA
Implement genetic code
Attachment of amino group to 5' end of tRNA
Editing function
In translation process, done by:
Options
RNA polymerase synthetase
Amino synthetase
Leucine zipper
DNA
Which enzyme Involved In translation is often referred to as 'Fidelity enzyme'?
Options
DNA polymerase
RNA polymerase
Amino acyl tRNA synthetase
Amino acyl
About peptidyl transferase true is:
Options
Used in elongation and cause attachment of peptide chain to A- site of tRNA
Used in elongation and cause attachment peptide chain to P site
Termination is caused by all except:
Options
RF-1
UAA
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48S complex
435 preinitiation complex include all except:
Options
IF3
IF1A
IF2
IF-4F
IF 4F include all except:
Options
4A
4G
4E
4S
For 1 peptide bond formation how many high energy phosphate bonds are required?
Options
Vitamin required for post translational modification of coagulants is:
Options
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin 8s
Vitamin K
Initiator tRNA is in which site of ribosome?
Options
A site
P site
E site
B site
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5'TTACGTAC 3' after transcription what will be the RNA?
Options
5'-TIACGTAC 3'
3'-TIACGTAC 5'
3'-CATGCATI 5'
5,-GUACGUAA 3'
Immunoglobulin molecule is synthesized by in mixed or separate due to:
Options
Codominance
Gene switching
Allele exclusion
Differential RNA processing
A four-year-old child is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an X-linked recessive

disorder, Genetic analysis shows that the patient's gene for the
muscle protein dystrophin contains a mutation in its promoter region. What would be the
most likely effect of this mutation?
Options
Tailing of dystrophin mRNA will be defective
Capping of dystrophin mRNA will be defective
Termination of dystrophin transcription will be deficient
Initiation of dystrophin transcription will be deficient
Splicing activity is a function of
Options
MRNA
SnRNA
TRNA
RRNA
Reverse transcriptase is:
Options
DNA dependent RNA polymerase
RNA dependent DNA polymerase
DNA dependent DNA polymerase
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RNA dependent RNA polymerase
Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base?
Options
MRNA
TRNA
RRNA
SnRNA
The sigma (s) submit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase:
Options
Binds the antibiotic rifampicin
Is inhibited by a-amanitin
Specifically recognizes the promoter site
Is part of the core enzyme
The base sequence of the strand of DNA used as a template has the sequence 5'GATCTAC 3'.
What would be the base sequence of RNA product?
Options
5' CTAGATG 3'
5' GAUCUAC 3'
5' GTAGATC 3'
5' GUAGAUC 3'
DNA dependent RNA polymerase is seen in:
Options
Primase
DNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase Ill
DNA gyrase
Strand of DNA from which mRNA is formed by transcription is called:
Options
Template
Anti-template
Coding
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Transcript
On which of the following t RNA acts specifically?
Options
ATP
Golgi body
Specific amino acid
Ribosome
In conversion of DNA to RNA, enzyme required:
Options
DNA- polymerase
DNA polymerase 111
DNA Ligase
RNA polymerase
RNA polymerase does not require:
Template (ds DNA)
Activated precursors (ATP, GTP, UTP, CTP)
Divalent metal ions (Mn2 . Mg )
Primer
In a DNA the coding region reads 5'-CGT-3 '. This ' would code in the RNA as:
Options
5'-CGU-3 '
5'-GCA-3'
5'-ACG-3 '
5'-UGC-3'
Cytoplasmic process during processing is
Options
5' capping
Poly A tailing
Mefhylation of t RNA
Attachment of CCA in t RNA
All are the processing reaction in t RNA, except:
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Options
CCA tailing
Methylation of bases
Poly A tailing
Trimming of 5' end
Lntrons are exised by:
Options
RNA splicing
RNA editing
DNAase
A segment of eukaryotlc gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA is known as:
Options
Lntron
Exon
Plasmid
TATA box
An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template
molecule is known as:
Options
DNA polymerase
RNA polymerase
Phosphokinase
Function of Pseudouridine arm of tRNA:
Options
Helps in initiation of translation
Serves as the recognition site of amino acyltRNA sythetase
Recognises the triple nucleotide codon present in the mRAN
Helps in initiation of transcription
Which of the following is true regarding transcription except:
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Options
MRNA formed
DNA polymerase enzyme is used
RNA polymerase enzyme is used
Eukaryotes possess 3 different types of RNA polymerase
###Apo 848 & Apo 8100 is synthesized from the mRNA- the difference between them is due
to
Options
RNA splicing
Allelic exclusion
Upstream repression
Most common RNA is:
Options
RRNA
MRNA
TRNA
HnRNA
Thymidylated RNA present in:
Options
MRNA
R RNA
T RNA
16-s-RNA
Met-tRNA would recognize
Options
AUG
GCA
GUA
Pre Vuac
Question (1/21)
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Which of the following is true about DNA Polymerase Ill?
Options
It forms Okazaki fragm nts an it needs RAN primer
It is needed for translation
Bacteria can function without it
Has DNA repair function
True about DNA Gyrase
Options
Prokaryotic Topoisomerase I
Prokaryotic DNA Topoisomerase 11
Incorrect statement are:
Options
T4 DNA polymerase has 3'->5' exonuclease activity
Kienow fragment of DNA polymerase I function is almost s1m1lar to T4 DNA polymerase
Restriction endonuclease cut DNA chains at specific location
Pre vEndonuclease cut DNA at 5' terminus
Which DNA polymerase is involved in repair of mammalian DNA?
Options
Alpha
Beta
Gamma
Epsilon
The gaps between segments of DNA on the lagging stand produced by restriction enzymes
are joined sealed by:
Options
DNA Ligases
DNA Helicase
DNA topoisomerase
DNA Phosphorylase
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During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymes polymerizes the Okazaki
fragments?
Options
DNA Polymerase I
DNA Polymerase II
DNA Polymerase 111
RNA Polymerase 1
All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telomerase which protects the length of
telomerase at the end of chromosomes, except:
Options
Germinal
Somatic
Hemopoietic
Tumor
DNA Polymerase with both replication and repair function is
Options
II
III
IV
Radiolabelled DNA was allowed to replicate twice in a non-radioactive environment. Which

of the following is true?
Options
All the strands will have radioactivity
Half of the DNA will have no radioactivity
No strands will have radioactivity
Three-fourth of the DNA replicated will have radioactivity
In which of the following phase, DNA doubling occurs
Options
GI phase
S phase
G2 phase
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M phase
Unwinding Enzyme in DNA synthesis:
Options
Helicase
Primase
DNA Polymerase
Transcriptase
Action of Telomerase is:
Options
DNA repair
longetivity of cell
Breakdown of telomere
none
Ends of chromosomes replicated by
Options
Telomerase
Centromere
Exonuclease
Which enzymatic mutation is responsible for immortality of cancer cells?
Options
DNA reverse transcriptase
RNA polymerase
Telomerase
DNA polymerase
Okazaki fragments are formed during the synthesis of:
Options
DsDNA
SsDNA
mRNA
TRNA
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Correct sequence of enzymes required for DNA formation is:
Options
DNA polymerase --> protein unwinding enzyme --> DNA ligase --> DNA lsomerase -->
Polymerase
Protein unwinding enzyme --> polymerase I --> DNA ligase --> DNA isomerase --> DNA
polymerase
RNA polymerase --> DNA polymerase Ill --> DNA polymerase I--> DNA ligase
RNA polymerase --> DNA polymerase Ill --> DNA ligase --> exonuclease --> DNA polymerase I
SCIO is due to defect in:
Options
NHEJ
Homologous Recombination
Mismatch repair
Xeroderma pigmentosa is due to:
Options
Base excision defect
SOS repair defect
Cross linking defect
UV light damage to the DNA leads to:
Options
Formation of pyrimidine dimers
No damage to DNA
DNA hydrolysis
Double stranded breaks
Excessive ultraviolet (UV) radiation is harmful to life. The damage caused to the biological
system by ultra-violet radiation I by:
Options
Inhibition of DNA synthesis
Ionization
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DNA fragmentation
The primary defect in Xeroderma pigmentosa is:
Options
Poly ADP ribose polymerase is defective
Exonuclease is defective
Formation of adenine dimers
Question (1/21)
Two strands of the DNA are joined by:
Options
Glycosidic bond
Hydrogen bond
Convalent bond
Ionic bond
True about DNA structure:
Options
Purines are adenine, guanine and pyrimidines are uracil and cytosine
Watson and crick discovered structure in 1973
Deoxyribose- phosphate backbone with bases stacked inside
Mainly consists of left handed helix
If a sample of DNA if adenine is 23% what will be the amount of gunine present?
Options
23%
25%
46%
27%
The two stands of DNA are held together by:
Options
Van der Waal bond
Hydrogen bond
Covalent bond
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Ionic interaction
Which form of DNB is predominantly seen?
Options
Chargaff rule state that:
Options
A +G =T +C
A/T =G/C
A=U = T=G=C
A+T =G+C
A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 32% adenine, 18% guanine, 17% cytosine
and 33% thymine. The nucleic acid must be
Options
Singlestranded RNA
Singlestranded DNA
Doublestranded RNA
Doublestranded DNA
Triple bonds are found between which base pairs?
Options
A-T
C-G
A-G
C-T
At the physiological pH The DNA molecular are:
Positively charged
Negatively charged
Neutral
Amphipathic
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Total number of genes in a human being is:
Options
800,000
50,000
100,000
30,000
Triplex DNA is due to:
Options
Hoogsteen pairing
Palindromic sequences
Large no. of guanosine repeats
Polyprimidine tracts
About DNA which of the following is true:
Options
The nucleotide of one strand form bonds with nucleotide of opposite strand
Cytosine and uracil differ by one ribose sugar
The information from DNA is copied in the form of tRNA
Each nucleotide pair incudes two purines
Which model of DNA was discovered by Watson and crick?
Options
A DNA
B DNA
C DNA
Z DNA
Total number of base pair in human haploid set of chromosome:
Options
3 million
3 billion
33 billion
5 million
Proteins seen in chromosomes are called:
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Options
Nucleotides
Histones
Apoproteins
Glycoproteins
Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively:
Options
Uncondensed
Condensed
Over condensed
Partially condensed
The long and short arms of chromosomes ar designated respectively as;
Options
P and q arms
M and q arms
Q and p arms
I and s arms
Y-chromosome is:
Options
Metacentric
Sub- metacentric
Acrocentic
Longer than the X-chromosome
The protein rich in basic amino acids, which functions in the packaging of DNA in
chromosome, is:
Options
Histones
Collagen
Hyaluronic acid binding proteins
Fibrinogen
Random inactivation of X chromosome is:
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Options
Lyonisation
Allelic exclusion
Randomization
Genomic imprinting
In the entire genome, the coding DNA constitutes how much?
Options
0.01
0.02
0.25
0.4
Regarding synthesis of triacylglycerol in adipose tissue, all of the following are true except:
Options
Synthesis from dihydroxy acetone phosphate
Enzyme glycerol 3-phosphate dehydrogenase plays an important role
Phosphatldate is hydrolysed
The storage triacylglycerol are hydrolysed by:
Options
Pancreatic lipase
Lipoprotein lipase
Lysosomal lipase
Hormone sensitive lipase 1cts on
Options
Triglycerides
Cholesterol ester
Phospholipids
Gangliosides
Most abundantly synthesised Fatty acid in the body is?
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Options
Palmitic acid
Oleic acid
Arachidonic acid
Stearic acid
Which of the following is not a part of fatty acid synthase Complex?
Options
Ketoacyl reductase
Enoylreductase
Ketoacyl synthase
Mitochondria is Involved in A/E:
Options
DNA synthesis
Protein synthesis
Fatty acid synthase complex contain the following enzymes except:
Options
Enoylreductase
Ketoacylreductase
Acetyl: CoA carboxylase
Dehydratase
NADH is required for:
Gluconeogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogenolysis
The first step in fatty acid synthesis involves
Options
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β-Hydroxyl-CoA dehydrogenase
Acetyl dehydrogenase
Pyruvate kinase
In fatty acid synthesis C02 loss occurs in which step?
Options
Hydration
Dehydration
Condensation reaction
Reduction
Carbon atoms added in fatty acid synthesis:
Options
PAN-SH site of fatty acid synthase complex accepts:
Options
Acetyl-CoA
Malonyl-CoA
Propionyl-CoA
All
Acetyl CoA acts as a substrate for all the enzymes except:
Options
HMG-CoA synthese
Malic enzyme
Malonyl CoA synthetase
Fatty acid synthetase
In well fed state, the activity of Carnitine Palmitoyl Transferase-1 in outer mitochondrial
membrane is inhibited by:
Options
Glucose
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Acetyl-CoA
Malonyl-CoA
Pyruvate
Number of ATP formed by oxidation of one molecule of palmitic acid (16 c):
Options
146
106
135
34
Beta oxidation in peroxisome generate:
Options
NADPH
H20 2
Long chain fatty acid
FADH2
All are features of Refsum's disease except:
Options
Deficiency of alpha hydroxylase
Defect of beta oxidation
Accumulation of phytanic acid
Enzyme defect in Refsum's disease:
Options
Phytanoyl alpha oxidase
Acyl-Co A dehydrogenase
Thiolase
Thiokinase
Adrenoleukodystrophy is associated with:
Options
Accumulation of very long chain fatty acids
Accumulation of medium chain fatty acid
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Lncre13sed plasmalogen
Decreased pipecolic acid
Beta-oxidation of palmitic acid yields:
Options
3-acetylCoA
129 ATP net
131 ATP net
16-acetylCoA
Beta-oxidation in peroxisome is differentiated from that occurring in mitochondria by:
Options
AcetylCoA
H20 2 formed
Different enzymes are found in different site
NADH is required
One of the following is obtained oxidation of odd chain fatty acids:
Options
Acetyl-CoA + Acetyl-CoA
Acetyl-CoA + Propionyl-CoA
Propionyl CoA + Propionyl-CoA
Acetyl-CoA alone
Which of the following takes place in low insulin/ glucagon ratio?
Options
Glycogen synthesis
Ketogenesis
Which of the following organs do not utilise ketone bodies?
Options
Brain
RBC
Muscle
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Heart
Ketone bodies can be utilised by all, except:
Options
RBC
Brain
Skeletal muscle
Renal cortex
Rothera's test used for detection of:
Options
Proteins
Glucose
Fatty acid
Ketones
Which organ does not utilize ketone bodies?
Options
Liver
Brain
Skeletal muscle
Cardiac muscle
The immediate precursor in the formation of acetoacetate from acetyl-CoA in the liver is:
Options
Mevalonate
HMG-CoA
Acetoacetyl-CoA
3-hydroxyl-butyryl-CoA
In a well fed state, acetyl-CoA obtained from diet is least used in the synthesis of:
Options
Palmitoyl-CoA
Citrate
Acetoacetate
Oxalosuccinate
1586
The major fuel in the brain after several weeks of starvation is:
Options
Glucose
Fatty acid
13-Hydroxy butyrate
Glycerol
Common enzyme in cholesterol and ketone body metabolism:
Options
HMG-CoA reductase
HMG-CoA synthase
Cholesterol and ketone body
Thiolase
All are derived from cholesterol except:
Options
Vitamin D
Bile salt
Bile pigment
Steroid
Which of the following does not have cholesterol?
Options
Vitamin D
Estrogen
Adrenaline
Progesterone
Which coenzyme act as reducing agent in anabolic reaction?
Options
FADH2
FMNH2
NADPH
NADH
Enzyme common for synthesis of both ketone bodies and cholesterol:
1587
Options
HMG-CoA reductase
HMG-CoA synthase
HMG-CoA lyase
Bile acids are derived from:
Options
Fatty acids
Cholesterol
Bilirubin
Proteins
Bile acids synthesised in liver (primary bile acids):
Options
Lithocolic acid
Cholicacid
Chenodeoxycholic acid
Deoxycholic acid
Triglycerides are maximum in
Options
Chylomicrons
VLDL
LDL
HDL
Which of the following types of hypertriglyceridemia is associated with an increase in

chylomicron and VLDL remnants?
Options
Type I
Type Il
Type Ill
Type IV
Which of the following is an activator of LCAT?
1588
Options
Apo 8100
Apo 848
Apo E
Apo A-I
Defect In familial hypercholesterolemia
Options
LDL receptor defect
lipoprotein lipase defect
Increased HDL
Defect in apo E
Absence of this apo lipoprotein is responsible for the genetic disorder, familial type Ill
hyperlipoproteinemia
Options
Apo B100
Apo B48
Apo E
Apo Cll
Full form of LCAT:
Options
Lecithin cholesterol acyl-transferase
Lecithin choline acyl-transferase
Lecithin cholesterol alkyl-transferase
Lecithin choline alcohol-transferase
Scavenger receptor is used in the metabolism of:
Options
HDL
LDL
IDL
VLDL
HDL has highest content of:
1589
Options
Saturated fatty acid
Triglycerides
Cholesterol
Apolipoproteins
Lipase that is regulated by glucagon:
Lipoprotein lipase
Gastric lipase
Pancreatic lipase
A patient has total cholesterol 300, TG 150, and HDL25. What would be the LDL value? (All
values in mg/ dL)
245
125
55
35
Regarding LDL receptors, all are true except
Options
Found in Ciathrin coated pits of cell membrane
Found only in extrahepatic tissue
Internalized by endocytosis
High levels of cellular cholesterol down regulate LDL receptors
Which is the ligand for receptors present in liver for uptake of LDL?
Options
Apo E
Apo A and apo E
Apo E and apo 8100
Apo 8100
Increased level of lipoprotein (a) predisposes to
Options
Liver cirrhosis
1590
Atherosclerosis
Nephritic syndrome
Pancreatitis
Main transporter of cholesterol to peripheral tissue:
Options
HDL
LDL
VLDL
Chylomicron
Which of the following lipoproteins does not move towards charged end in electrophoresis:
Options
HDL
LDL
VLDL
Chylomicron
All of the following statement about lipoprotein Lipase are true, except:
Options
Found in adipose tissue
Found in myocytes
Deficiency leads to hypertriacylglycero
Does not require Cll as cofactor
All of the following statements about apoproteins true except:
Options
Apoprotein A-I activates LCAT
Apoprotein C-1 activates lipoprotein lip
Apoprotein C-11 inhibits lipoprotein lipase
Apoprotein C-11 activates lipoprotein lipase
The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of triacylglycerol by weight
is:
Options
VLDL
1591
Chylomicron
HDL
LDL
Cholesterol from dietary sources is transported to the peripheral tissue by:
Options
Chylomicron
VLDL
HDL
LDL
Action of lipoprotein lipase is:
Options
To form remnant lipoprotein
Promote lipolysis in adipose tissue
To form mature chylomicron
To form HDL
In coronary artery disease the cholesterol level (mg/dl) recommended is
Options
Below 200
<250
<220
<280
Lipoprotein X Is an indicator of:
Options
Atherosclerosis
Cholestatsis
Hepatitis
Myocardial infarction
Which is the lipoprotein with lowest density?
Options
HDL
LDL
1592
VLDL
Lp a
Which of the following has highest electrophoretic mobility and least lipid content?
Options
Chylomicrons
HDL
VLDL
IDL
Which helps in the transport of chylomicrons from intestine to liver?
Options
Apoprotein B
Apoprotein A
Apoprotein C
Apoprotein E
Cholesterol presents ln LDL
Options
Represents primarily cholesterol that 1s being removed from peripheral cells
Binds to a receptor and cholesterol diffuses across the cell membrane
On accumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDL receptors
When enters a cell, suppresses activity of acyl-CoA: cholesterol acyltransferase ACAT
A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which of the
following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood?
Options
Chylomicrons
VLDL
LDL
HDL
Which of the following is false about heparin?
Options
Releases lipoprotein lipase
Releases hormone sensitive lipase
1593
It is an anticoagulant
It is a glycosaminoglycan
Lipoprotein a resembles:
Options
Plasminogen
Plasmin
Thrombin
Prothrombin
In uncontrolled diabetes mellitus what is the cause of high level of VLDL and TAG
Options
Increased hepatic lipase
Increased LDL receptors
Increased activity of lipoprotein lipase and decreased activity of hormone sensitive lipase
Increased activity of hormone sensitive lipase and decreased lipoprotein lipase activity
A patient with eruptive xanthomas drawn blood milky in appearance. Which lipoprotein is
elevated in the plasma?
Options
Chylomicron
Chylomicron remnants
LDL
HDL
Very high total cholesterol, elevated LDL, normal level of LDL receptors. What is the
probable cause?
Options
Apo 8100 mutation
Complete deficiency of lipoprotein lipase
Cholesterol acyltransferase deficiency
Apo E defect
Fish oil ls not used in the treatment of:
Options
Type 2A Hyperlipoproteinemia
1594
Which of the following is increased in lipoprotein lipase deficiency?
Options
VLDL
LDL
HDL
Chylomicrons
Familial hypercholesterolemia is:
Options
Deficient LDL receptors
Deficient HDL receptors
HMG-CoA reductase deficiency
Deficient VLDL receptors
Hypertriglyceridemia not seen in:
Options
Hypothyroidism
Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Cushing's syndrome
Hepatitis
A patient was diagnosed with Isolated Increase in LDL. His father and brother had the same
disease with increased cholesterol. The likely diagnosis is:
Options
Familial type Ill hyperlipoproteinemia
Abetalipoproteinemia
Familial LPL deficiency (type1)
LDL receptor mutation
Both Triglycerides and HDL Increased:
Options
Smoking
Athletes
1595
Statin/Anabolic steroid abusers
Alcoholism
Apolipoprotein of chylomicron is:
Options
Apo B100
Apo B48
Apo E
Apo Cll
Which of the following produces 3 ATP by anaerobic glycolysis?
Options
Glucose
Fructose
Galactose
Glycogen
In anaerobic glycolysis, pyruvate is converted to lactate for:
Options
Removal of Pyruvate
Generation of NAO+
Generation of H+
Conversion of Pyruvate
The supplement used in FSGS is :
Options
Fructose
Galactose
Mannose
Glucose
Which of the following is suitable test performed for diagnosis of Intestinal malabsorption?
Options
D-Xylose test
BT-PABA test
1596
Hydrogen breath
A 27-year lady developed severe hyperglycemia in pregnancy and it returned to normal after
delivery. Her blood sugar is well under control without any
medications. Her sisters and mother also have history of increased blood glucose during
pregnancy, all were euglycemic after delivery. What is the enzyme
defect?
Options
Glucokinase
PFK
Aldolase
Enolase
Irreversible steps of Glycolysis are catalysed by:
Options
Hexokinase, Phosphofructokinase, Pyruvate Kinase
Glucokinase, Pyruvate Kinase, Glyceraldehyde 3 Phosphate Dehydrogenase
Hexokinase, Phospho Glycerate Kinase, Pyruvate Kinase
Pyruvate Kinase, Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase, Phospho FructoKinase
Glycolysis occurs in:
Options
Cytosol
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Lysosome
Irreversible step(s) in Glycolysis is/are:
Options
Enolase
Phosphofructokinase
Pyruvate Kinase
Glyceraldehyde 3 Phosphate Dehydrogenase
Enzyme catalyzing reversible step in glycolysis is are:
Options
Phosphofructokinase
1597
Enolase
Pyruvate kinase
Phospho-glycerate mutase
In which of the following steps ATP is released?
Options
Phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvate
Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate to 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate
Fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1,6 bisphosphate.
Glucose to Glucose 6 phosphate.
What activate Kinases of glycolysis?
Options
ATP
CAMP
Insulin
Glucagon
About glycolysis true is:
Options
Occurs in mitochondria
Complete breakdown of glucose
Conversion of glucose to 3C units
3 ATPs are used in anaerobic pathway.
Compound that joins glycolysis with glycogenesis and glycogenolysis:
Options
Glucose 1,6 bisphosphate
Glucose 1 P04
Glucose 6 P04
Key glycolytic enzymes:
Options
Phosphofructokinase
Hexokinase
1598
Pyruvate kinase
Glucose 1,6 bisphosphatase
In glycolysis the first committed step is catalysed by:
Options
2,3-DPG
Glucokinase
Hexokinase
Phosphofructokinase
The rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis is:
Options
Phosphofructokinase
Glucose- 6-dehydrogenase
Glucokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Cancer cells derive nutrition from:
Options
Increase in mitochondria
Aerobic Glycolysis
True statements about glucokinase is/are:
Options
Km value is higher than normal blood sugar
Found in liver
Glucose 6 phosphate inhibit it
Has both glucose 6 phosphatase and kinase activity
Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by which of the following regulating pathways:
Options
Hypoxia stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by increased 2, 3-DPG
Hypoxia inhibits hexokinase
Hypoxia stimulates release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on RBC membrane
1599
Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high pH
All except occurs on decrease in blood glucose level:
Options
Inhibition of PFK-11
Activation of Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphatase.
Increase in glucagon.
Increase in Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphate.
The number of ATPs produced by Rapaport-leubering Cycle in RBC from Glucose:
Options
Enzyme responsible for complete oxidation of glucose to co2 and water is present in:
Options
Cytosol
Mitochondria
Lysosomes
The enzyme not involved in substrate level phosphorylation:
Options
Pyruvate kinase
Phosphofructokinase
The major metabolic product produced under normal circumstances by erythrocytes and by
muscle cells during intense exercise is recycled through liver in the
Cori cycle. The metabolite is:
Options
Oxaloacetate
Alanine
1600
Glycerol
Lactate
Lactate produced anaerobically is used by
Options
TCA cycle and Glycogenolysis
Cori cycle and gluconegenesis
Gluconeogenesis and Glycolysis
Cori cycle only
Cori's cycle is concerned with transport of
Options
Alanine
Glutamate
Lactate
None
Lactate is formed in all except
Options
Testis
Lens
Brain
RBCs
PFK-1 inhibitor
Options
Insulin
Citrate
Glucose 6 phosphate
AMP
RatelimitingstepinglycolysisisPFK-1. Which among the following is the most potent allosteric

activator of PFK-H
Options
LowpH
Citrate
1601
ATP
Fructose 2, 6 bisphosphate
The major role of 2,3 bisphospholycerate in RBCs is
Options
Acid-base balance
Binding of oxygen
Release of oxygen
Reversal of glycolysis
How many ATPs are used in energy investment phase of glycolysis !
Options
ZERO
In Anaerobic glycolysis, end product is
Options
2ATP+2NAD
2ATP
2ATP+2NADH
4ATP+2FADH2
In Anaerobic glycolysis, there is gain of
Options
2 ATP + 2 NAD
2 ATP
2 ATP + 2 NADH
4 ATP + 2 FADH2
No. of ATP produced in RBC in fed state !
Options
2ATP
4ATP
7 ATP
1602
6ATP
No. of ATP produced in RBC in aerobic state!
Options
2ATP
4ATP
7 ATP
6ATP
All tissues convert glucose to predominantly lactate EXCEPT:
Options
Brain
Lens
Cornea
RBCs
Which of the following is incorrect about RBCs
Options
RBCs cannot use Fatty acids, amino acids and ketone bodies for energy
RBCs does not contain enzyme Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Lactate dehydrogenase is absent in RBCs
Production of 2,3 BPG does not yield any ATP
Which is a negative heterotropic allosteric modulator of glycolysis !
Options
Citrate
ATP
ADP
AMP
What activate Kinase of glycolysis!
Options
ATP
CAMP
Insulin
Glucagon
1603
What is the end product of anaerobic glycolysis
Options
Pyruvate
Lactate
Cholesterol
Fats
Sodium fluoride inhibits which enzyme in Glycolysis
Options
Hexokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Aconitase
Enolase
In Glycolysis which of the ion is most important!
Zn
Mg
Cu
Ca
The number of ATPs produced by Rapaport leu bering Cycle in RBC from Glucose!
Options
Example of allosteric inhibiton-
Options
Decreased synthesis of glucokinase by glucagon
Inactivation of glycogen synthase byphosphorylation
Inhibition of PFK-1 by citrate
All of the above
Substrate level phosphorylation is by:
Options
1604
ATP Synthase
Phosphofructokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Hexokinase
All of the following enzymes catalyze irreversible steps in glycolysis EXCEPT:
Options
Hexokinase
Phosphofructokinase-! (PFK-I)
Enolase
Pyruvate kinase
The regulatory steps in glycolysis are all EXCEPT
Options
Pyruvate kinase
Enolase
Gucokinase
Phophofructokinase
Net ATP yield of substrate level phosphorylation is
Options
ATP's formed in anaerobic glycolysis of glucose are:
Options
10
15
Post prandial utilization of glucose is by which enzyme
Options
Fructokinase
1605
Glucokinase
Hexokinase
All of above
Which of the following is NOT true
Options
Glucokinase has high km
Hexokinase is found in all cells
Glucokinase is induced by insulin
Hexokinase is specific for glucose
Inhibition of glycolysis by increase supply of 0 2 is called
Options
Carbtree effect
Pasteur effect
Lewis effect
None
Immediate metabolic products during conversion of Fructose 1-6 bisphosphate to 2

molecules of pyruvate
Options
3-phosphoglycerate and 1,3 bisphosglycerate
Glyceraldehyde -3-phosphate and l, 3-bisphosphoglycerate
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate
The purpose of extra step of anaerobic glycolysis is :
Options
Production of 2 Lactate
Production of one lactate
Replenishment of NAD
Replenishment ofNADH
Zero ATP in RBC in glycolysis occurs in
Options
Arsenic poisoning
1606
RL shunt
Both a and b
NONE
Question (1/51)
The number of high energy bond require to get 1 mol of Glucose from 2 mols of lactate:
Options
Which of the following is an activator of Pyruvate carboxylase?
Options
Oxaloacetate
Citrate
Acetyl CoA
Glucose
All of the following amino acids forms acetyl CoA via pyruvate dehydrogenase except:
Options
Glycine
Tyrosine
Hydroxyproline
Cysteine
For gluconeogenesis which of the following reaction is more effective?
Options
Citrate stimulation of Acetyl CoA Carboxylase
Acetyl CoA stimulation of Pyruvate Carboxylase
Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphate stimulates PFK-1
Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphate stimulation of Pyruvate Kinase
A baby is hypotonic and shows increased ratio of Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA. Pyruvate cannot
form Acetyl CoA in fibroblast. He also shows features of lactic
1607
Options
Biotin
Pyridoxine
Free fatty acid
Thiamin
Which of the following does not contribute to glucose by gluconeogenesis?
Options
Lactate
Acetyl CoA
Pyruvate
Oxaloacetate
In fasted state gluconeogenesis is promoted by which enzyme?
Options
Acetyl CoA induced stimulation of Pyruvate Carboxylase
Citrate induced stimulation of Acetyl CoA Decarboxylase
Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate induced stimulation of Phosphofructokinase-1
Stimulation of Pyruvate kinase by Fructose 1,6 Bis phosphate
During prolonged fasting, rate of gluconeogenesis is determined by:
Options
Essential fatty acid in liver
Alanine in liver
Decreased cGMP
ADP in liver
True about gluconeogenesis is/are:
Occur in both muscle and liver
Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate stimulate it
Excess of acetyl CoA stimulate it
Common enzyme for gluconeogenesis and glycolysis is:
Options
Glyceraldehyde 3 P04 dehydrogenase
1608
Hexokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Phosphofructokinase-1 is activated by all except:
Options
S'AMP
Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphate
Fructose 6 Phosphate
Citrate
Not a substrate for gluconeogenesis:
Options
Acetyl CoA
Lactate
Glycerol
Propionyl CoA
Glyconeogenic capability of cell is determined by the presence of:
Options
Fructose 1,6- bisphosphatase
Step of Gluconeogenesis is:
Options
Pyruvate to Lactate
Glucose 6 Phospahate to Fructose 6 Phosphate
Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA
Oxaloacetate to Phosphoenol Pyruvate
Major contribution towards gluconeogenesis is by:
Options
Lactate
Glycerol
1609
Ketones
Alanine
Glucose can be synthesised from all except:
Options
Amino acids
Glycerol
Acetoacetate
Lactic acid
Gluconeogenesis does not occur significantly from in humans:
Options
Lactate
Fatty acids
Pyruvate
Amino acid
Acetyl CoA can be converted into all of the following except:
Options
Glucose
Fatty acids
Cholesterol
Ketone bodies
A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6- bisphosphatase in liver less sensitive to regulation
by fructose 2,6-biphosphate. All of the following metabolic changes
are observed in this disorder except:
Options
Level of fructose 1,6-biphosphate is higher than normal
Level of fructose 1,6-biphosphate is lower than normal
Less pyruvate is formed
Less ATP is generated
All are substrates of gluconeogenesis except:
Options
Lactate
1610
Alanine
Leucine
Lysine
Which is not Glucogenic?
Options
Acetyl CoA
OAA
Pyruvate
Lactate
Which of the following substrates cannot contribute to net Gluconeogenesis in mammalian

liver
Options
Alanine
Palmitate
Pyruvate
Odd chain fatty acids
A 15-year-old male presents with increased thirst, hunger, urination, and weight loss. His
fasting blood glucose level is 400 mg/ dl and is diagnosed with type 1
diabetes mellitus. What is the reason for this patient's inability to maintain a normal blood
glucose level?
Options
Increased ketone body production
Abnormal response to glucagon
Decreased glucagon to insulin ratio
. Decreased uptake of glucose by peripheral cells
Which of the following is the sequence of compartments of gluconeogenesis?
Options
Mitochondria ~ Cyto ~ ER
Cyto ~ ER ~ Mitochondria
ER ~ Mitochondria ~ Cyto
Only in mitochondria and Cytoplasm
Which of the following is most effective for gluconeogenesis:
1611
Options
Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate inhibits fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase
Acetyl CoA activates Pyruvate carboxylase
Citrate stimulates Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Citrate activates Acetyl CoA carboxylase
A child having hypoglycemia is unable to use both glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

pathways. Which of the following enzyme is affected?
Options
Glucokinase
Phospho-fructokinase -1
Transketolase
Pyruvate can be converted directly into all of the following EXCEPT:
Options
Alanine
Acetyl CoA
Lactate
Which pathway can use propionic acid
Glycolysis
Gluconeogenesis
Glycogenolysis
Glycogenesis
Glucose may be synthesized from:
Options
Glycerol
Adenine
Palmitic acid
Guanosine
Amino acid which cannot be used for glycogen synthesis
Options
1612
Alanine
Threonine
Phenylalanine
Leucine
Gluconeogenesis occurs in:
Options
Muscles
Kidney
Liver
Intestine
The biosynthesis of enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is repressed by:
Options
Insulin
Glucagon
Cortisol
Epinephrine
Conversion oflactate to glucose requires all EXCEPT
Options
PFK-1
PEP carboxykinase
Regulatory enzymes in gluconeogenesis are all EXCEPT:
Options
Aldolase B
PEP carboxykinase
Enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis are all EXCEPT
Options
1613
Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase
Phosphogluco mutase
Glyconeogenesis is:
Options
Synthesis of glucose from non -carbohydrate sources
Synthesis of glycogen from glucose
Synthesis of glucose from glycerol
Synthesis of glycogen from non-carbohydrate sources
Glyconeogenic capability is determined by the presence of
Options
Pyruvate carboxykinase
A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase in liver less sensitive to regulation by
fructose 2,6- bisphosphate. All of the following metabolic changes
occur EXCEPT:
Options
Level of fructose 1,6 bisphosphate is higher than normal
Level of fructose 1,6 bisphosphate is lower than normal
Less pyruvate formed
Less ATP formed
During gluconeogenesis, oxaloacetate is transported from mitochondria to cytoplasm by
Options
Malate
Pyruvate
Glutamate
Malate shuttle is important in:
Options
1614
Glycogenesis
Glycolysis
Gluconeogenesis
Glycogenolysis
During prolonged starvation, rate of gluconeogenesis depends on:
Options
Increased alanine levels in liver
Decreased cGMP levels in liver
ADP in liver
Decreased essential fatty acids in liver
Increased levels of alanine in serum after fasting suggests:
Options
Increased release of alanine from muscle
Reduced amino acid utilization for gluconeogenesis
Break in continuity of plasma membrane resulting in leakage of amino acids
Decreased uptake of alanine by liver
Which of the following reactions takes place in two compartments?
Options
Glycogenesis
Gluconeogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogenolysis
Most important amino acid transported from muscle to liver for gluconeogenesis
Options
Methionine
Tryptophan
Alanine
Arginine
Which of the following metabolites is involoved in glycogenolysis, glycolysis and

gluconeogensis
Options
1615
Fructose - 6- phosphate
Glucose - 6 - phosphate
Uridine diphosphoglucose
Galactose- 1- phosphate
Substrate for gluconegenesis
Options
Fatty acid
Acetyl-CoA
Pyruvic acid (pyruvate
All of the above
Which is not a substrate for gluconeogenesis
Options
Lactate
Fatty acid
Pyruvate
Alanine
Which of the following hormones can cause hyperglycemia without known effects on
glycogen or gluconeogenesis::
Options
Epinephrine
Epinephrine
Thyroxine
Glucocorticoids
Gluconeogenesis is favoured in fasting state by:
Options
Activation of pyruvate carboxylase by acetyl CoA
Increased conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvate by activation of pyruvate kinase
Increased fatty acid oxidation in liver
Inhibition of PFK-II
True about gluconeogenesis:
Options
1616
Excess of acetyl CoA cause stimulation
Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are involved in gluconeogenesis
Options
Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
Phosphofructokinase-I
Question (1/70)
A four-year-old child with exercise intolerance. On investigation Blood pH 7.3, FBS 60 mg%,
hypertriglyceridemia, ketosis and lactic acidosis. The child had
hepatomegaly and renomegaly. Biopsy of liver and kidney showed increased glycogen
content. What is the diagnosis?
Options
McCardle's disease
Cori's Disease
Von Gierke's Disease
Pompe's Disease
Glycogen Phosphorylase, coenzyme is:
Options
Pyridoxal Phosphate
Thiamin
Biotin
Pantothenic acid
Glycogenin primer is glucosylated by:
Options
UDP Glucose
Glucose 1 P04
UDP Glucose 1 P04
UDP Glucose 6 P04
1617
A female infant appeared normal at birth but developed signs of liver disease one month of
age and muscle weakness at 3 months and severe hypoglycemia on
early morning awakening. Examination revealed hepatomegaly, laboratory analysis showed

ketoacidosis, pH 7 .2, increased AST and ALT over 1000 IU.
Intravenous administration glucagon followed by meals normalised blood levels, but glucose
levels did not rise when glucagon was administered overnight fast.
Liver biopsy was done and glycogen constituted (8%) of wet weight. With the above clinical
picture which of the following enzyme is deficient?
Options
Debranching enzyme
Branching enzyme
Why Glucose 6 Phosphate in the cytoplasm of hepatocyte is not acted upon by Glucose 6
Phosphatase as soon as it is formed?
Options
Thermodynamically possible only when gluconeogenesis occur
Need Protein Kinase for its activation
Enzyme is present in SER, Glucose 6 Phosphate need to be transported into SER
Steric inhibition of Phosphatase by albumin
The reason for ketosis in von Gierke's Disease are all except:
Options
Hypoglycemia
Oxaloacetate is necessary for gluconeogenesis
Low blood glucose less than 40 mg%
Fatty acid mobilisation is low
A child with low blood glucose is unable to do glycogenolysis or gluconeogenesis. Which of

the following enzyme is missing in the child?
Options
Fructokinase
Glucokinase
Transketolase
1618
In which of the following tissues, is glycogen incapable of contributing directly to blood
glucose:
Options
Liver
Muscle
Both
None
In humans carbohydrates are stored as:
Options
Glucose
Glycogen
Starch
Cellulose
Glycogen is released from the muscle due to increased cAMP due to:
Options
Epinephrine
Thyroxine
Glucogon
Growth hormone
Pancreatic alpha amylase:
Options
Convert starch to glycogen
Hydrolyses starch to limit dextrin
Hydrolyses Starch to Monosaccharides
Convert maltose to glucose
A 5 years old boy presents with hepatomegaly, hypoglycaemia, ketosis. The diagnosis is:
Options
Mucopolysaccharidosis
Lipopolysaccharidosis
Diabetes mellitus
1619
Glycogen Phosphorylase can be regulated by all following EXCEPT:
Options
CAMP
Calmodulin
Protein Kinase A
Glycogenin
Cofactor for Glycogen Phosphorylase:
Options
Thiamine Pyrophosphate
Pyridoxal Phosphate
Citrate
FAD
Pompe's disease is due to deficiency of:
Options
Debranching enzyme
Muscle Phosphorylase
Acid Maltase
Branching enzyme
Glycogen storage disorder is/are:
Options
Gaucher disease
Taysach's disease
McCardles disease
How many hours for depletion of glycogen?
Options
18
24
48
In the fed state, major fate of glucose-6-phosphate in tissues is:
1620
Storage as fructose
Storage as glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
Enters HMP shunt via ribulose-5-phosphate
Storage as glycogen
Which of the following is a debranching enzyme?
Options
Glycogen synthetase
Amylo(1,6) glucosidase
Amylo1,4-1,6 transglycosylase
Sequence of events in glycogenolysis:
Options
Phosphorylase, glucan transferase, debranching, phosphorylase
Debranching, phosphorylase, transferase, phosphorylase
Transferase, phosphorylase, debranching, phosphorylase
Any of the above
Muscles are not involved in which glycogen storage disease?
Options
II
III
IV
An infant has hepatosplenomegaly, hypoglycaemia, hyperlipidemia, acidosis & normal

structured glycogen deposition in liver. What is the diagnosis:
Options
Her's disease
Cori's disease
Anderson's disease
Glycogen storage diseases include all the following except:
Options
1621
Fabry's disease
McArdle's disease
Fragile X syndrome
The cause of hyperuricemia and gout in glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency is:
Options
More formation of pentose
Decreased availability of glucose to tissues
Increased accumulation of sorbitol
Impaired degradation of free radicals
A 10year old boy rapidly develops hypoglycemia after moderate activity. Blood examination
reveals raised levels of ketone bodies, lactic acid and triglycerides.
On examination, liver and kidneys were enlarged. Histopathology of liver shows deposits of
glycogen in excess amount. What is the diagnosis?
Options
Cori's disease
Me Ardle's disease
Pompe's disease
Which vitamin is required for glycogen phosphorylase?
Options
TPP (Thiamine pyrophosphate
PLP (Pyridoxal phosphate)
Riboflavin
Lipoic acid
Glycogen phosphorylase is regulated by all except:
Options
Protein kinase
Calmodulin
CAMP
Glycogenin
1622
A 28-year-old professional cyclist has been training for an opportunity to go for a long race.
His coach strongly suggests the intake of carbohydrates after the
work out to ensure a muscle glycogen storage. The activity of muscle glycogen synthase in
resting muscles is increased by the action of which of the following?
Options
Epinephrine
Glucagon
Insulin
Phosphorylation
Muscle cannot make use of glycogen because of deficiency of:
Options
Hexokinase
Phospho-gluco-mutase
Muscle cannot maintain blood glucose because of deficiency of
Options
Hexokinase
Hexokinase
Major carbohydrate store in the body is
Options
Hepatic glycogen
Blood glucose
Glycogen in adipose tissue
None of the above
A 15-year-old type 1 diabetic faints after injecting himself with insulin. He is administered
Glucagon and rapidly recovers consciousness. Glucagon induces
activity of
Options
Glycogen synthase
1623
Glucokinase
Hexokinase
Glycogen synthase is the regulatory enzyme for c.-.,..&L, glycogen synthesis. It adds glucose
residues to the nonreducing ends of a glycogen primer from
Options
Glucose-1-P
Glucose-6-P
UDP- Glucose
UTP e) ATP
Glycogenin is a:
Options
Lipid
Polypeptide
Polysaccharide
Glycosa amino glycans (GAGs)
The enzymes of glycogenesis are present in
Options
Lysosomes
Cytosol
Mitochondria
Nucleus
Pyridoxine is required in
Options
Glycogenesis
TCA cycle
Glycolysis
Glycogenolysis
Coenzyme associated with enzyme glycogen phosphorylase
Options
Flavin mononuleotide
1624
Tetrahydrofolate
Pyridoxal phosphate
If muscle glycogen is used for anaerobic glycolysis, how many ATPs are formed
Options
Which of the yields 3 molecules of ATP under anaerboic metabolism
Options
Glucose
Galactose
Glycogen
Amino Acid
All are sources of glucose EXCEPT
Options
Liver glycogen
Gluconeogenesis
Muscle glycogen
Alanine
In glycogen, the linkage at branch points is
Options
Alpha -1,4
Alpha-2,3
Alpha-1,6
B-1,4
A 30-year-old presents with intractable vomiting and inability to eat or drink for the past 3
days. His blood glucose level is normal. Which of the following is
most important for maintenance of Blood glucose
Options
1625
Liver
. Heart
Skeletal muscle
Lysosome
Glycogen phosphorylase degrades glycogen to produce:
Options
Glucose
Glucose-1-P
Glucose-6-P
UDP Glucose
Which enzyme is not present in muscles?
Options
Phosphorylase
Hexokinase
Glycogen synthase
Glycogenolysis is best described by which of the following statements ?
Options
It involves enzymes cleaving beta(l-4) glycosidic cleaving linkage
Requires activation of glycogen synthase
Requires a bifunctional enzyme (debranching and transferase)
Requires inactivation of phosphorylase kinase
Which of the following statements explains the synthesis of glycogen directly from D-
Glucose
Options
It does not use glucose-!-P
It occurs in erythrocytes
It requires UDP-Glucose
During the breakdown of glycogen, free glucose is formed from which of the following
Options
1626
Glucose residues in a-1,4 glycosidic linkages
The reducing end
The non reducing end
Glucose residues in a -1,6 glycosidic linkages
Glycogenesis from Glucose-I-P requires which of the following
Options
Phosphoglucomutase
Alpha-1,6 glucosidase
Glycogen primer
Glycogen catabolism is best described by which of the following statements-
Options
In the brain, it yields glucose for skeletal muscle consumption
It requires a de branching enzyme in the erythrocytes
It is not a major pathway in the brain
It uses phosphorylase for glucose residue cleavage from the reducing end of glycogen in liver
The degradation of glycogen normally produces which of the following
Options
More glucose than Glucose-1-P
More Glucose-1-P than Glucose
Equal amount of Glucose and Glucose-!-P
Neither Glucose nor Glucose-1-P
The energy for glycogenesis is derived from :
GTP
ATP
UDP
UTP
UDP-glucose is not used in:
Options
HMP
1627
Glycogen synthesis
Uronic acid pathway
In starvation how many hours needed for depletion ofglycogen
Options
18
24
48
Glycogen is released from muscle due to increased cAMP due to:
Options
Glucagon
Insulin
Epinephrine
Growth hormone
Alpha amylase secreted by pancreas digest starch into which ofthe following major
products?
Options
Amylose, amylopectin, and maltose
Glucose, sucrose, and maltotriose
Limit dextrins, maltose, and maltotriose
A 3-month-old infant presents with hepatosplenomegaly and failure to thrive. A liver biopsy
reveals glycogen with an abnormal, amylopectin like structure with
long outer chains and missing branches. Which of the following enzymes would most likely
be deficient?
Options
Alpha Amylase
Branching enzyme
De branching enzyme
A 30-year-old male presents with severe muscle cramps. His blood lactate levels did not
increase after exercise. His blood glucose by GOD-POD levels was
1628
Options
Me Ardle's disease
All of the following are associated with non-ketotic hypoglycemia, EXCEPT
Options
Insulinoma
MCAD deficiency
Increased uric acid levels are seen in which glycogen storage disease
Options
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
Most common glycogen storage disease presenting with hypoglycemia and normal glycogen
structure
Options
Von Gierke disease
Pompe's disease
Me Ardle's disease
Forbe's disease
Enzyme deficient in Hers disease
Options
Acid maltase
Liver phosphorylase
De branching enzyme
1629
Me Ardle's disease is due to deficiency of
Options
Myophosphorylase
Liver phosphorylase
Acid maltase
Glucuse-6-phosphatase
Glycogen storage disease which presents as lysosomal storage disease
Options
Andersen's disease
Pompe's disease
Mcardle's disease
Hypoglycemia is more severe in type 1 Glycogen storage disease as compared to type 6

Glycogen storage disease because:
Options
Both
Type 1 disease affects muscles and liver both
Baby has hypoglycaemia, specially early morning hypoglycaemia. Glucagon given. It raises
blood glucose if given after meals But does not raises blood glucose
if given during fasting. Liver biopsy shows increased glycogen deposits. Enzyme defect is ?
Options
Branching enzyme
Debranching enzyme
In VonGierke's disease, the levels of ketone bodies are increased due to all except:
Options
The patients have hypo glycaemia
The patients have low blood glucose
Less mobilization of fats
1630
OAA is required for gluconeogenesis
Glycogen synthesis and breakdown takes place in the same cell, having enzymes necessary
for both pathways. Why is Glucose-6-phosphate produced during
glycogenesis in the cytoplasm of liver cells, not acted upon by Glucose-6-phosphatase

enzyme?
Options
Steric inhibition of phosphatase by albumin
Glucose-6-phosphatase is present in endoplasmic reticulum while glycogen is in the

cytoplasm
It is thermodynamically viable only when gluconeogenesis has stated
Require protein kinase for activation
Enzyme involved in both glycogenesis and glycogenolysis is?
Options
Glycogen synthase
Phosphoglucomutase
Phosphorylase
Glycogen transferase
In glycogen metabolism, some metabolically active important enzymes found in the liver are
converted from their inactive dephosphorylated state to active
Options
Always activates the enzyme
Catecholamines directly stimu
More commonly seen in fasting state than in fed state
Always activated by cAMP dependent Protein kinase
Options
Gaucher disease
Tay-Sachs Disease
Pompe's disease
Metabolites in HMP shunt are all except:
1631
Options
Glycerol-3- phosphate
Sedopeptulose-7 phosphate
Glyceraldehyde -3-phosphate
Xylulose- 5-phosphate
Options
Glycolysis
Citric acid cycle
HMP Shunt
Glycogenesis
Reduced NADPH produced from which pathway:
Options
Kreb
Uronic acid pathway
Which of the following metabolic pathways does not generate ATP?
Options
Glycolysis
TCA cycle
HMP pathway
Severe thiamine deficiency is associated with:
Options
Decreased RBC transminnase activity
Increased xanthic acid excretion
Product of uronic acid pathway inn human-beings are all except?
Options
1632
Vitamin C
Glucuronic acid
Pentoses
NADH
Uronic acid pathway is not involved in:
Options
Conjugation of bilirubin
GAG synthesis
Vitamin C synthesis
Biotransformation
A baby boy 10 month old comes with vomiting severe jaundice, hepatomegaly and feature
of irritability on starting weaning with fruit juice. Which of the
Options
Adolase B
Fructokinase
Glucose 6 phosphates
Fate of fructose 6 phosphate:
Options
Glucuronic acid
N Acetyl glucosamine
Hyaluronic acid
Heparin sulphate
Hereditary fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of
Options
Aldolase B
Aldolase A
Fructokinase
Sucrase
False about fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of:
1633
Options
Deficiency of fructose1- phosphate in aldolase
Hyperglycaemia
Liver and kidney are involved
Enzyme deficiency in glactosemia:
Options
Aldolase B
Fructokinase
E coil sepsis commonly seen in:
Options
Urea cycle disorder
Galactosemia
Lysosomal storage disorders
A patient has normal blood glucose level as estimated by glucose-oxidase peroxidase

method, shows positive Benedicts test in urine. Which of the following is
likely cause?
Options
Fructosemia
Galactosemia
Latent diabetes mellitus
Glucose intolerance
Galactosemia enzyme defect;
Options
Fructokinase
Glucokinase
Galactose 1 phosphate uridly transferase
1634
but accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on third day, by fifth
was positive but blood glucose estimated by glucose oxidation
Options
Galactose 1
Beta galactosidase
Glucose 6-phosphate
Galactokinase
A child presents with hepatomegaly ad bilateral lenticular opacities. Deficiency of which of

the following enzyme will not cause such features
Options
Galactokinase
Lactase
Fatty acid is not utilized by:
Options
RBC
Skeletal muscle
Liver
heart
All of the following are increased inn fasting except:
Options
Lipolysis
Ketogenesis
Gluconeogenesis
Glycogenesis
Substrate used by RBC in fasting state is:
Options
Glucose
1635
Amino acids
Ketone body
Fatty acid
Lactic acidosis in thiamine deficiency is due to which enzyme dysfunction?
Options
Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase
Aldolase
Options
Glycogenolysis
Glycolysis
Phosphocreatine
TCA cycle
The enzyme deficient in Galactosemia is:
Sphingomyelinase
Hexosaminidase
Galactose 1- phosphate uridyl transferase
Glucocerebrosidase
Products ofHMP shunt are all except:
Options
Glyceraldehyde-3-P
Glycerol-3- P
2 NADPH
3 NADPH
HMP is the only source for:
Options
NADPH
NADH
Ribose-5-P
1636
C02
NADPH is produced from:
Options
HMP
Malic enzyme
Cytoplasmic Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
All
Which pathway does not generate ATP ?
Options
Glycolysis
HMP
TCA
Severe thiamine deficiency is associated with
Options
Decreased RBC Glutathione activity
Increased Xanthic acid excretion
Which of the following metabolic pathway in carbohydrate metabolism is required for

nucleic acid synthesis ?
Options
Glycolysis
Glycogenesis
HMP
Gluconeogenesis
Rate limiting step in HMP ?
Options
Transketolase
Glucose-6-P Dehydrogenase
1637
Transaldolase
HMP shunt occurs in all organs EXCEPT :
Options
Liver
Non Lactating mammary glands
Adipose tissues
RBCs
Glutathione is a
Options
Dipeptide
Polypeptide
Tripeptide
Oligopeptide
Reduced NADPH is produced by:
Options
Krebs cycle
Uronic acid pathway
Anerobic glycolysis
Source of ribose is-
Options
HMP shunt
Uronic acid pathway
Glycolytic pathway
Beta Oxidation
Pentose pathway produces-
Options
Acetyl CoA
ADP
ATP
NADPH
1638
Glutamate dehydrogenase requires cofactor
Options
NADP+
NAD+
Both a and b
None
Dehydrogenases ofHMP shunt are specific for
Options
TPP
NADP
FMN
FAD
Most important factor which causes lactic acidosis in alcoholics
Options
Production of NADH
Formation of acetaldehyde
Production of acetate
. None of the above
NADPH is generated in the reaction catalysed by
Options
LDH
G6PD
G3PD
. Alcohol dehydrogenase
NADPH in extramitochondrial site helps in the production of
Options
Ketone bodies
Steroids
Glycogen
. None
Reducing substance used in Anabolic reactions
1639
Options
NADPH + H+
NADH
FAD
FADH2
A breast-fed infant began to vomit frequently and lose weight. Several days later she
developed jaundice, hepatomegaly and bilateral cataract. What is the
Options
Galactosemia
Von-Gierke's disease
Juvenile diabetes Mellitus
Hereditary fructose intolerance
Galactosemia commonly is due to deficiency of:
Options
Epimerase
Galactokinase
Glucokinase
Galactose-!-P Uridyl transferase
Reducing sugar in urine is seen in:
Options
Galactosemia
Lactose intolerance
Phenylketonuria
Alkaptonuria
Oil drop cataract is produced because of the activity of which enzyme?
Options
Aldose reductase
Galactose reductase
Sorbitol dehydrogenase
1640
Oil drop cataract is due to accumulation of
Options
Sorbitol
Dulcitol
Aldonic acid
Galactose
the following enzyme will not cause such features
Options
UDP-galactose-4-epimerase
Galactokinase
Glucokinase
Gal-1-P uridyl transferase
E.coli sepsis is commonly seen in:
Options
Urea cycle disorder
. Glycogen storage diseases
Galactosemia
Enzyme deficiency in galactosemia-
Options
Alobase- B
Galactokinase
Glucokinase
All of the above
Familial fructokinase deficiency causes no symptoms because
Options
Hexokinase can phosphorylate fructose
Liver Aldolase can metabolize it
Excess fructose does not escape in to urine
Excess fructose is excreted through feces
1641
Which will cause post-prandial hypoglycemia'?
Options
Fructose
Galactose
Glucose
Sorbitol
Fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of'?
Options
Aldolase B
Triokinase
Fructokinase
. Aldolase A
Which of the following is not metabolised in our body'
Options
Glucose
Fructose
Sucrose
Sorbitol
An enzyme involved in fructose metabolism is :
Options
Glucokinase
Glyceraldehyde-3-P Dehydrogenase
Aldolase
PFK-1
Essential fructosuria occurs due to deficiency of
Options
Aldolase A
Aldolase B
Fructokinase
Enolase
1642
A patient has blood glucose levels by GOD-POD method to be normal. But urine shows
positive Benedict's test. The Reason is:
Options
False positive
Fructosemia
Galactosemia
Glucose intolerance
Snow flake cataract is produced because of which enzyme'
Options
Aldose reductase
Galactose reductase
. Sorbitol dehydrogenase
What can be prevented in a Diabetic patient by giving c--~ar_, drugs which are Aldose
Reductase inhibitors 1
Options
Diabetic retinopathy
Cataract
Neuropathy
Deafness
Products ofuronic acid pathway in human beings are all except:
Options
Vitamin C
Pentoses
NADH
Glucuronic acid
Glucose is converted to glucuronic acid by
Options
Oxidation of aldehyde group
Oxidation of terminal alcohol
Oxidation of both
None
1643
Essential pentosuria is due to deficiency of(
Options
Fructokinase
Phosphogulocmutase
Xylulose reductase0
Gulonolactone oxidase
All are true about Hexose monophosphate pathway (HMP) except:
Options
Produce NADPH in oxidative phase of pathway
Doesn't produce ATP
Occurs in testes, ovaries, placenta and adrenal cortex
Produces ribose 5-phosphate in oxidative phase of pathway
All are true about galactosemia except:
Options
Deficiency of galactokinase
Disease manifest only at adolescence
Accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate
Accumulation of galactitol
UDP glucose is used for:-
Options
Glycogen synthesis
Heparin synthesis
Bilirubin metabolism
Question (1/3)
A baby boy 10-month-old comes with vomiting severe jaundice, hepatomegaly and features
of irritability on starting weaning with fruit juice. Which of the
Aldolase 8
Fructokinase
1644
Hereditary fructose Intolerance is due to deficiency of:
Options
Aldolase B
Aldolase A
Fructokinase
Sucrase
False about hereditary fructose intolerance:
Options
Deficiency of fructose 1-phosphate aldolase
Hyperglycaemia
Liver and kidneys are involved
Question (1/6)
Enzyme deficiency in Galactosemia:
Options
Aldolase B
Fructokinase
E Coli sepsis commonly seen in:
Options
Urea Cycle disorder
Galactosemia
Lysosomal storage disorder
Galactosemia enzyme defect:
Options
Fructokinase
Glucokinase
1645
but accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on third day , by fifth
was positive but blood glucose estimated by glucose oxidation
Options
Beta galactosidase
Glucose 6-phosphate
Galactokinase
the following enzymes will not cause such features?
Options
Galactokinase
Lactase
True regarding galactosemia:
Options
Mental retardation occurs
Absent disaccharidase in intestine
Defect in epimerase
Defect in galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase
Question (1/4)
Which is used for energy?
Ketone bodies
Glucose
Free fatty acids
All of the above
All the following are increased in fasting except:
Options
1646
Lipolysis
Ketogenesis
Gluconeogenesis
Glycogenesis
Which enzyme is active when insulin: glucagon ratio is low?
Options
Glucokinase
Hexokinase
Pyruvate Carboxylase
Options
Glycogenolysis
Glycolysis
Phosphocreatine
TCAcycle
Which enzyme is deficient in c/c alcoholics?
Options
Aconitase
Citrate Synthase
Alpha Ketogultarate Dehydrogenase
Alcohol Dehydrogenase comes under which class of enzyme?
Options
Oxidoreductase
Dehydrogenase
Hydrolase
Oxidase
Suicidal enzyme is:
Options
Lipoxygenase
1647
Cyclooxygenase
Thromboxane
Nucleotidase
Which of the following is Lyase?
Options
Aldolase B
Acetyl- CoA Synthetase
Fatty Acetyl- CoA Dehydrogenase
Acetyl- CoA carboxylase
All are true about oxygenases, except:
Options
Can incorporate 2 atoms of O2 in a substance
Can incorporate 1 atom of O2 in a substance
Important in hydroxylation of steroids
Catalyse carboxylation of drugs
All of the following enzymes are involved in oxidation reduction, except:
Options
Dehydrogenase
Hydrolases
Oxygenases
Peroxidases
Enzyme which cleave C-C bond:
Options
Lyase
Oxidoreductase
Ligase
Isomerase
Velocity at Km is:
Options
Half the substrate concentration
Same as Vmax
1648
Quarter the Vmax
Half the Vmax
Coenzyme in decarboxylaton reaction:
Niacin
Biotin
Pyridoxine
Riboflavin
The type of enzyme inhibition in which succinate dehydrogenase reaction is inhibited by

malonate is an example of:
Options
Non- competitive
Un competitive
Competitive
Allosteric
Which is true about enzyme kinetics for competitive inhibition?
Options
Low km high affinity
High km high affinity
High km low affinity
Low k low affinity
Non- competitive enzyme inhibition leads to:
Options
Vmax?
Vmax?
Vmax unchanged
Km?
Non- competitive reversible inhibitors:
Options
Raise Km
Lower Km
Lower Vmax
1649
Raise both Vmax and Km
Km changes and Vmax remains the same. What is the type of enzyme inhibition?
Options
Non- Competitive inhibition
Uncompetitive inhibition
Suicide inhibition
Allosteric regulation true is?
Options
Binds to site other than active site
Regulated by acting on catalytic site
Follow Michelis maintain Kinetics
Substrate and modifier are structural analogues
All of the covalent modification regulate enzyme kinetic except:
Options
Phosphorylation
Acetylation
ADP Ribosylation
Glycosylation
The following affect enzyme activity except:
Options
Methylation
Acetylation
Induction
Phosphorylation
Chymotrypsinogen is a:
Options
Zymogen
Carboxpeptidase
Transaminase
Exopeptidase
1650
A common feature of all serine proteases is:
Options
Autocatalytic activation of zymogen precursor
Tight binding of pancreatic trypsin inhibitor
Cleavage protein on the arboxyl site of serine site
Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the active site
Trypsin is a:
Options
Serine protease
Lecithinase
Phospholipase
Elastase
Marker enzyme for Golgi apparatus
Options
Galactosyl transferase
Glucoses 6 Phosphates
5 Nucleotidase
Catalase
Enzyme activity is expressed as
Options
Millimoles/lit
Micromoles/min
Mg/dl
Millimoles/lit
Enzymedoesnotactby
Options
Forming non-covalent interactions
Catalyzing the reaction
Increasing activation energy
Increasing the rate of reaction
Mechanism of action of enzymes is all EXCEPT
1651
Options
Acid - Base catalysis
Catalysis by proximity
Catalysis by denaturation
Catalysis by strain
Specific activity of enzyme is-
Options
Ll mol of enzyme per gram of substrate
Enzyme units per mg of protein
Cone. of substrate transformed per minute
None
Serine of chymotrypsin is changed with proline. Which of the following will happen ?
Options
Chymotrypsin can catalyze the protein but cannot bind
Chymotrypsin can bind the protein as well as can catalyze
Cannot decide from given information
Trypsin cleaves carboxy terminal of:
Options
Glutamate
Arginine
Glycine
Proline
Non vitamin coenzyme is
Niacin
Coenzyme A
Lipoic acid
SAM
Coenzymes are ..... organic compounds-
Options
Lipoprotein
1652
Proteinaceous
Non-protein
Any of the above
Apoenzyme is
Options
Cofactor
Conezyme
Proein moiety
None
Aldehyde dehydrogenase requires NAD+ to act. Here NAD+ is termed as
Options
Cofactor
Coenzyme
Hypoenzyme
Abenzyme
FAD linked dehydrogenase is
Options
Snyol reducatase
Kinases require:
Options
Mn2+
Inorganic phosphate
Cu2+
Mg2+
Zinc is cofactor for
Options
Carbonic anhydrase
Phospho fructo kinase
1653
Hexokinase
Aldolase B
Alkaline phosphatase contains
Options
Copper
Zinc
Iron
Cobalt
Copper contining enzymes are all except
Options
Ascorbic acid oxidase
Xanthine oxidase
Amine oxidase
Superoxide dismutase (SOD)
Activator of enzyme sulfite oxidase is:
Options
Iron
Copper
Zinc
Molybdenum
Carboxylases require-
Options
Vitamin B7
Vitamin B2
Vitamin Bl2
Vitamin Bl
Cofactor for glutathione peroxidase
Options
Ca+2
Se
Mn+2
1654
Mg+2
Other name of AST
Options
SGOT
Acid phosphatase
SGPT
LDH has how many isoenzymes
Options
5, based on H and M polypeptide subunits
The predominant isoenzyme of LDH occurring in liver injury is-
Options
LDH- 1
LDH- 2
LDH- 4
LDH-5
Which isoform of LDH is raised in hemolytic anemia
Options
LDH5
. LDH3
LDH4
LDH2
Abzyme is a/an
Options
. Isoenzyme
Abnormal enzyme
Antibody with a catalytic activity
Allosteric enzyme
1655
Definition ofRibozyme
Options
T-RNA
RNA molecule that acts catalytically to change it self or another RNA molecule
Ribonucleoprotein
Ribsome
Enzymes found in CSF
Options
GGT+ALP
ALP+CK
MB
CK+LDH
Chymotrypsin cleaves carbonyl terminal of:
Options
Phenylalanine
Arginine
Lysine
Tryptopha
Trypsin cleaves:
Options
Arginine
Glutamate
Lysine
Proline
Hydrolase belongs to enzyme category number
Options
Hydroxylase belongs to enzyme category number
1656
Options
Which of the following is a lyase
Options
Aldolase
Fumarase
Decarboxylase
All of the above
Fumarase is an example of
Options
Lyase
Hydrolase
Ligase
None
Digestive enzymes are
Options
Hydro lases
Oxidoreductases
Dehydrogenases
Ligases
Carbon mono-oxide (CO) is released in reaction catalyzed by-
Options
Decarboxylases
Carboxylases
Heme oxygenase
The difference in MW between Phenylalanine and Tyrosine is by :
Options
1657
17
16
64
32
Hydratase belongs to enzyme category number
Options
In Hydroxylation reactions, the change in MW is by:
Options
17
16
64
32
Enzyme which cleaves C-C bond :
Options
Lyase
Ligase
Transferase
Isomerase
All are true about oxygenase except
Options
Incorporate one atom of 0
Incorporate both atoms of 0 2
Hydroxylation of steroids
Help in carboxylation of drugs
Which ofthe following enzymes does not participate in oxidation-reduction reactions
Options
Oxygenases
1658
Peroxidases
Hydro lases
Dehydrogenases
Competitive inhibition - characteristic feature is
Options
Km decreased
Vmax decreased
Km increased
Vmax increased
Which among the following is a feature of non competetive inhibition
Options
Increased Km
Decreased V max
Decreased Km
Increased V max
Km of an enzyme is
Options
Numerically identical for all isoenzymes that catalyze a given reaction
Dissociation constant
The substrate concentration at half maximum velocity
The normal physiological substrate concentration
Which of the following is a functional plasma enzyme!
Options
LDH
Acid phosphatase
Prothrombin
Amylase
All are non-functional Plasma enzymes, except
Options
Lipoprotein lipase
Lipoprotein lipase
1659
Prostate specific phosphatase
Which statementisfalse about covalent modification
. It is reversible
It is slower than allosteric regulation
It uses the same enzyme for activation and inactivation
Phosphorylation is a common covalent modification
Allosteric modulators seldom resemble the substrate or product of the enzyme. What does
this observation show:
Options
Modulators likely bind at a site other than the active site
Modulators always act as activators
Modulators bind and inhibit the enzyme
The enzyme catalyzes more than one reaction
Which statement is false about allosteric regulation
Options
It is usually the mode of regulation for the last step in reaction pathways
Cellular response is faster with allosteric control than by controlling enzyme concentration in
the cell
The regulation usually is important to the conservation of energy and materials in cells
Allosteric modulators bind non-covalently at sites other than the active site and induce
conformational
Defective proteins are degraded after attaching covalently to-
Options
Pepsin
Laminin
Clathrin
Ubiquitin
True regarding ubiquitin is
Options
Protein synthesis
Involved in protein destruction
1660
Product of purine metabolism
Present in prokaryotes
Proteins which are bound to ubiquitin are degraded in-
Options
Proteosomes
Lysosomes
Smooth ER
Golgi apparatus
Ubiquitin is involved in
Options
Electron transport chain
Transport of ATP
Intracellular proteolysis
Protein folding
Ubiquitin protein is degraded by
Options
Proteosomes
Cathepsins
Vesicles
Golgi apparatus
Which of the following is a suicide enzyme?
Options
Thromboxane synthase
5' Nucleotidase
Lipoxygenase
Cyclooxygenase
Suicidal enzyme is
Options
Lipoxygenase
Cycloxygenase
Nitric oxide synthase
1661
Nuclease
Enzyme inhibited by allopurinolis
Options
5-phosphoribosyl amido transferase
PRPP synthetase
Xanthine oxidase
Mechanism of conversion of trypsinogen to trypsin
Hydrolysis
Removal of Carboxyl group
Phosphorylation
Removal of part of protein
All of the following are covalent modifications of enzyme regulation EXCEPT:
Options
Phosphorylation
ADP Ribosylation
Acetylation
Glycosylation
Which of the following method is for regulating the enzyme's quantity
Options
Phosphorylation
Induction
Acetylation
Glycosylation
Mechanisms for regulating enzyme activity is/are
Options
Covalent modification
Allosteric activation
Induction of genes for enzyme synthesis
True about competitive inhibition of enzyme
1662
Options
Km
Vmax remain same
Tvmax
No change in Km & Vmax
Non-competitive enzyme inhibition leads to:
Options
Vmaxt
Vmax,J,
Vmax unchanged
Kmt
True about reversible non-competetive inhibitors
Options
Lower Vmax
LowerKm
Not affect Km
Not affect Vmax
True about Km:
Options
Half the substrate concentration at which velocity is maximum
Substrate concentration at which reaction rate is half the maximum
Michaelis constant
Dissociation constant of enzyme-substrate complex
What happens to LDH 1 & 2 ration in MI?
Options
LDH1 > LDH 2
LDH2 > LDH 1
LDH2 > LDH 1
Remains the same
True about isoenzymes is:
Options
1663
Catalyse the same reaction
Same quaternary structure
Same distribution in different organs
Same enzyme classification with same number and name
Non- functional enzyme are all except?
Options
Lipoprotein lipase
Gamma-glutamy transpeptidase
Peroxidase enzyme is used in estimating:
Options
Hemoglobin
Ammonia
Creatinine
Glucose
Which of the following estimate blood creatinine level most accuracy?
Options
Jaffe method
Kinetic jaffe method
Technicon method
Enzyme assay
LDH-5 level elevated in which cell injury?
Options
Liver
Heart
Muscle
RBC
Which of the following LDH is having fastest electrophoretic mobility?
Options
LDH-1
1664
LDH-2
LDH-3
LDH-3
Assay for lipid peroxidation is:
Options
MTT assay
Ame's test
Guthrie test
FOX assay
Pro-oxidant action of vitamin A is potentiated by:
Options
Copper
Selenium
Iron
Cobalt
Free radical with highest activity:
Options
O2
OH+
Hypochlorite
Peroxynitrite
Enzyme which catalyse the reaction Hp2 give Hp+02:
Options
Catalase
Glutathione s-transferase
Which of the following is not a free radical?
Options
Hydroxyl radica
Hydrogen peroxide
1665
Superoxide
O2
Toxicity of ethanol is due to:
Options
Increased NADH/NAD+ ratio
Decreased lactate/pyruvate ratio
Inhibition of gluconeogenesis
Stimulation of fatty acid oxidation
Best explained pathogenesis of fatty liver in alcoholic liver disease:
Options
Decreased (NADH]/(NAD+] ratio
Options
Fat
Protein
Carbohydrate
Does not
Best explained pathogenesis of fatty liver in alcholic liver disease:
Options
Decreased [NADH]/[NAD+] ratio
Question (1/2)
Correct statment about membrane:
Options
Phospholipids undergo rapid lateral diffusion
Tranverse movement of lipids across the membrane is faster than protein
1666
Phospholipid span the whole bilayer
Options
Fat
Protein
Carbohydrate
Does not depend on type of food/macronutrient content
Question (1/74)
An example of Anaplerotic rection is:
Options
Pyruvate to acetaldehyde
Pyruvate to lactate
A chronic alcoholic have low energy product" because of Thiamine deficiency as it is:
Options
Acting as a cofactor for alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and pyruvate dehydrogenase
Acting as cofactor for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
Interferes with energy production from amino acids
Act as cofactor for oxidation reduction
In which step of TCA cycle ATP is generated
Options
Succinate dehdrogenase
Fumarase
All of the following amino acids forms Acetyl CoA via Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
Options
Glycine
Tyrosine
1667
Hydroxyproline
Alanine
A child ingested cyanide and rushedto the emergency room. Which of the following of citric
acid cycle is inhibited at the earliest?
Options
Citrate synthase
Aconistase
Acetyl CoA production
NAD+ donor
Which of the following is not an intermediate of TCA cycle?
Options
Acetyl CoA
Citrate
Citrate
Alpha ketoglutarate
Which of the following is true about Krebs cycle?
Options
Pyruvate condenses with oxaloacetate to form citrate
Alpha ketoglutarate is a five carbon compound
Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the cytoplasm only
Krebs cycle can operate in anaerobic condition
Which of the following substance binds to CoA and condenses oxaloacetate to inhibit the
TCA cycle?
Options
Malonate
Arsenite
Fluoroacetate
Fumarate
First substrate of Krebs cycle is:
Oxaloacetate
Acetyl CoA
Pyruvate
1668
Lipoprotein
Hyperammonemia inhibits TCA cycle by depleting:
Options
Oxaloacetate
Alpha ketoglutarate
Citrate
Succinyl CoA
What is liberated when citrate converted to Cis Aconitate?
Options
H2O
H2.
H2O2
CO2
False about reducing equivalents is:
Options
They are NADH and NADPH
Only produced during primary metabolic pathway
Formed in TCA cycle
Formed in mitochondria
High energy phosphate is not produced in:
Options
TCA cycle
Hexose Monophosphate pathway
Glycolysis
Beta oxidation of fatty acid
Which of the following statement about Link reaction is CORRECT?
Options
This is a Link between TCA and ETC
This is Oxidative Deamination of Pyruvate
This is Oxidative decarboxylation of Acetyl CoA
This reaction requires Lipoic acid and four B-complex Vitamins
1669
Major source of Acetyl CoA
Options
Triglycerides
Fatty acids
Pyruvate
Alanine
Thiamine deficiency results in decrease energy production, because TPP:
Options
Interferes with Alcohol metabolism
Interferes with Transketolase activity
Is cofactor for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Interferes with Energy production from amino acids
Which ofthe following is/ are incorrect
Options
Fats can be converted to carbohydrates
Carbohydrates can be converted to fats
Glycerol can be converted to glucose
Beri-Beri leads to Lactic acidosis
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase complex has all enzyme components EXCEPT
Options
Decarboxylase
Dehydrogenase
Carboxylase
Transacetylase
Which ofthe following is reversible enzyme ?
Options
Pyruvate kinase
Hexokinase
1670
Which of the following vitamins does not participate in oxidative decarboxylation of
Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA 1
Options
Thiamine
Biotin
Riboflavin
Niacin
Congenital Lactic Acidosis may occur due to defect in
Options
Transketolase
A baby is hypotonic and shows that pyruvate cannot form Acetyl CoA in fibroblasts. Also
lactic acidosis is found. Administration of which of the following can
revert this situation 1
Options
Biotin
Pyridoxal phosphate
Thiamine
Pyruvate
Pyruvate dehydrogenase contains all except:
Options
CoA
Biotin
NAD
FAD
Acetyl CoA can be directly converted to all except
Options
Glucose
Ketone bodies
Fatty acids
1671
Cholesterol
Cyanide taken up by child. First one to be affected in Kreb's cycle is
Options
Aconitase
NAD
Citrate
Acetyl CoA
Thiokinase ofTCAproduces
Options
ATP
GTP
Both a and b
NADH
Which among the following controls is an allosteric inhibitor ofTCA cycle?
Options
!so-citrate dehydrogenase
Keto-glutarate dehydrogenase
Which ofthe following is anaplerotic reaction:
Options
Conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
Conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate
Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl co A
Conversion of pyruvate to acetaldehyde
WhyTCA cycle is called amphibolic cycle'
Options
It can proceed both in forward and backward direction
It is both endothermic and exothermic
Metabolites are used in both amino acid and ketone body synthesis
Same enzyme can be used in reverse direction
1672
Succinate dehydrogenase is inhibited by'?
Options
Fluoroacetate
Arsenite
~yanide
Malonate
What is liberated when Citrate converted to Cis Aconitate'
Options
H20
C02
H202
H2
Which of the following enters the TCA cycle at succinyl-CoA step 1
Options
Histidine
Methionine
Tryptophan
Tyrosine
Which ofthe following is NOT required in TCA cycle
Options
Riboflavin
Niacin
Pyridoxine
Thiamine
In TCA cycle of tricarboxylic acid, which is first formed'?
Succinate
Citrate
Lsocitrate
None
How many ATPs are formed in the TCA cycle from acetyl coenzyme A (one molecule)
Options
1673
10
11
12
15
A ketoglutarate dehydrogenase is inhibited by(
Options
Arsenite
Lodoacetate
. Fluoroacetate
Fluride
Citrate synthase is inhibited by
Options
ATP
Glucagon
Insulin
ADP
The net ATP yield when one molecule of pyruvate is completely oxidized to C02 and H20 is:
Options
12.5
12
15
30
Which one of the following can be converted to an intermediate of citric acid cycle or can
enter urea cycle:-
Options
Leucine
Lysine
Aspartate
Tyrosine
All ofthe following are correct EXCEPT:
Options
1674
Fluorocitrate is competitive inhibitor of Aconitase
Fluoroacetate is non-competitive inhibitor of Aconitase
Malonate is competitive inhibitor of Succinate Dehydrogenase
Iodoacetate inhibits Glycerol-3-Phosphate De- ~ hydrogenase
Enzyme responsible for complete oxidation of glucose to C02 and H20 is present in :
Options
Cytosol
Lysosomes
Mitochondria
Two carbon atoms which leave in the form of C02 in TCA, are derived from
Options
Acetyl CoA
Oxaloacetate
C02
Citrate
Unaltered final product of TCA:
Options
Acetyl CoA
Oxaloacetate
C02
Pyruvate
First substrate ofKreb's cycle is:
Options
Pyruvate
Glycine
Citrate
Acetyl CoA
Which of the following substance binds to CoA and condenses Oxaloacetate to inhibit TCA
cycle
Options
1675
Malonate
Acetyl CoA
Fluoroacetate
Arsenite
Which inhibitor of TCA acts by blocking Citrate'
Options
Malonate
Iodoacetate
Fluoroacetate
Arsenite
In TCA, C02 is released by:
Options
Citrate synthase
Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenas
Source of energy in TCA is :
Options
NAD
NADH
FAD
NADPH
Options
Citrate synthase
Anaplerotic reaction is catalyzed by:
Options
1676
Enolase
Pyruvate kinase
G6PD
Number of Dehydrogenases in TCA cycle is/ are
Options
Which of the following is not the dehydrogenase of TCA:
Options
Rate limiting step ofTCA
Options
Citrate synthase
All
ATPs obtained from one Acetyl CoA via TCA
Options
20
10
12
Which enzyme of TCA is present in inner mitochondrial membrane :
Options
1677
Fumarate dehydrogenase
Which molecule is regarded as carrier ofTCA cycle
Options
Acetyl CoA
Oxaloacetate
Citrate
ATP
TCA cycle depends on:
Options
Availability of Acetyl CoA
Availability of Oxaloacetate0
Availability of Insulin
Availability of Glucagon
Products formed from alcohol but not the intermediate ofTCA cycle?
Options
Acetaldehyde
Succinate
Fumarate
Oxaloacetate
Oxalo-acetate + Acetyl-Co-A -> Citrate + Co-ASH This reaction is
Options
Reversible
Irreversible
Endergonic
None
Thiamine requirement increases in excessive intake of:
Options
Carbohydrates
Fats
Proteins
1678
None
What is the basis ofthis statement - 'FATS Burn in the flame of carbohydrates
Options
Fats and carbohydrates are oxidized together
Both breakdown products of fats have a role
Acetyl CoA is oxidized completely in the presence of oxaloacetate
Beta oxidation occurs in the presence of
In traumatic brain injury, changes in brain metabolism are seen. All are true EXCEPT
Options
There is shut down of pyruvate dehydrogenase activity
There is accumulation oflactate in brain
There is increased lactate uptake from circulation
Increased CSF lactate is associated with good prognosis
Glycolytic enzymes( s) inhibited by Fluoride:
Options
Hexokinase
Aldolase
Enolase
Pyruvate kinase
2,3-BPG binds to_ sites of hemoglobin and __ the affinity for oxygen?
Options
4, decreases
1, decreases
4, increases
1, increases
Which of the following enzymes catalyze the irreversible step of glycolysis?
Options
Glucokinase, phosphofructokinase, pyruvate carboxylase
Hexokinase, fructose 1, 6 biphosphatase, pyruvate kinase
Glucokinase, phosphofructokinase, pyruvate kinase
Enolase, fructose 1, 6 biphospahatase, phosphofructokinase
1679
True statement regarding Lactate dehydrogenase deficiency:
Options
Fumarate level increases
Exercise intolerance
Muscle cramps may occur
It operate in anaerobic condition
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex uses following coenzymes/cofactors:
Options
Biotin
Lipoic acid
NAD
FMN
In conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and C02, which ofthe following coenzyme is used:
Options
Biotin
Lipoic acid
TPP
Pyridoxal phsphate
Irreversible step{s) in glycolysis is/are:
Options
Enolase
Phosphofructokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Glyceraldehyde -3-phosphate dehydrogenase
High energy phosphate compound is/ are:
Options
ATP
Creatine phosphate
Glucose- 1- phosphate
True about Acetyl CoA:
1680
Options
Precursor for synthesis of cholesterol and other steroids.
Form ketone bodies
Starting material for synthesis of fatty acid
All are correct
Enzyme catalyzing reversible step in glycolysis is I are
Options
Phosphofructokinase
Enolase
Pyruvate kinase
Phosphoglyceromutase
Options
Citrate synthase
A-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Which of the following is not a glucogenic substrate in humans
Options
Lactate
Oxaloacetate
Pyruvate
Acetyl CoA
Question (1/64)
Respiratory quotient after exclusive carbohydrate meal is:
Options
1.2
0.8
0.7
Which of the following is a physiological uncoupler?
1681
Options
Thyroxine
Insulin
Glucagon
Norepinephrine
True about effect of 2,4 Dinitrophenol is:
Options
Oxygen consumption is increased
ATP is produced
Respiration decreased
Electron transfer is decreased
Transport of ADP in and ATP out of mitochondria Is inhibited by:
Options
Atractyloside
Oligomycin
Rotenone
Cyanide
The electron flow in cytochrome C oxidase can be blocked by:
Options
Rotenone
Antimycin-A
Cyanide
Cyanide
Cytosolic cytochrome C mediates:
Options
Apoptosis
Electron transport
Krebs cycle
Glycolysis
The specialized mammalian tissue/organ in which fuel oxidation serves not to produce ATP
but to generate heat is:
1682
Options
Adrenal gland
Skeletal muscle
Brown adipose tissue
Heart
Electron transport chainInvolves all except
Options
NADP
NAO
Coenzyme Q
FAD
FO-F1complex, ATP synthase inhibitor is:
Atractyloside
Oligomycin
Antimycin
Rotenone
Respiratory Quotient 0.7is seen in:
Options
Carbohydrates
Fat
Protein
Alcohol
Phenobarbftone inhibits which complex of ETC?
Options
Complex I
Complex II
Complex Ill
Complex IV
Dinitrophenol inhibits the electron transport chain by:
Options
Cytochrome b
1683
Inhibits ATP synthesis and electron transport chain
Inhibits ATP synthesis but not electron transport chain
Inhibits electron transport chain but not ATP synthesis
Mechanism of Cyanide poisoning:
Options
Inhibition of cytochrome oxidase
Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase
Final acceptor of electrons In ETC is:
Options
Cyt c
Oxygen
FADH2
CoQ
Malate shuttle is required for:
Options
Glycolysis
Pyruvate Dehydrogenase complex
TCA
All
If Aerobic glycolysis uses glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle, How many ATPs are produced?
Options
2ATP
5ATP
7ATP
3ATP
NADPH via glycerol phosphate shuttle gives how manyATPs?
Options
2.5
1.5
1684
3
Zero
Reason of presence of less ATP forming- glycerol-P- shuttle in brain are all EXCEPT :
Options
This is a shorter shuttle
It is a quick source of ATP
After going in brain in ETC, it gives high energy
Brain needs a quick source of ATP
Glycerol-P-shuttle is more important in:
Options
Brain and heart
Skeletal muscles
Liver and heart
Brain and skeletal muscles
Which is the only non-protein member of ETC 1
Options
Cytochrome c
CoQ
ComplexV
Complex II
Cytochrome c oxidase requires:
Options
Cu
Mg
Ca++
Zn
ATPs given by complex IV of ETC are:
Options
1685
0.5
Which component transfers 4 protons?
Options
Complex I
ComplexF1
ComplexFO
Complex IV
ETC is located in :
Options
Inner mitochondrial membrane
Outer mitochondrial membrane
Inter membrane space
Which of the following is not true regarding ETC 1
Options
Coupling of oxidation and phosphorylation occurs
Occurs in mitochondrial matrix
Known as chemiosmotic theory
ADP+Pi ~ ATP
Mitochondrial membrane contains a protein which is transporter of
Options
Oxaloacetate
Acetyl CoA
NADH
ATP
Which couple has minimum Redox potential
Options
NADP+/NADPH
CoQ-CoQH2
FAD/FADH2
NAD+/NADH
1686
Most important source of ATP 1
Aerobic glycolysis
TCA
Which of the following is a physiological uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation:
Options
2,4 dinitrophenol
Cyanide
Thermogenin
Cyanide
Reducing power is usually in the form of
Options
Reduced NADP+
Oxidised NADH
Reduced NAD
Reduced NADPH
******True about NADPOptions
Not involved in glycolysis
Acts as coenzyme form of Niacin
Involved in HMP shunt
All are true
In malate shuttle, NADH produces how many ATPs?
Options
1.5
2.5
Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation
Options
CN
1687
H2S
2DNP
Co
Mechanism of action of uncouplers
Options
Inhibition of ATP synthesis only not ETC
Inhibition of both ATP synthesis and ETC
Inhibition of only ETC not ATP synthesis
None of the above
Barbiturates act on which step of mitochondrial respiratory chain?
Options
Complex I to Co-enzyme Q
Co-enzyme Q to complex 3
Complex II to co-enzyme Q
Cytochrome C to complex IV
CO binds with which complex of the electron transport chain?
Options
Complexl
Complex III
Complex II
Complex IV
ATP is generated in ETC by
Options
ADP kinase
Na+ Cl ATPase
FoFl ATPase
NA+ K+ ATPase
Enzyme involved in oxidative phosphorylation
Options
Succinyl CoA thiokinase
Pyruvate kinase
1688
NADH dehydrogenase
None
Which of the component of respiratory chain reacts directly with molecular oxygen
Options
Cyt b
CoQ
Cyt C
Cyt aa3
Last electron acceptor in Electron Transport Chain is
Options
Oxygen
Tetrachloroethylene
Nitrate
Iron
Atractyloside act as-
Options
Inhibitor of complex III of ETC
Inhibitor of oxidative phosphorylation
Uncoupler
Nitrate
Chemi-osmotic coupling of oxidative phosphorylation is related to
Options
Formation of ATP at substrate level
ATP formation by transport of 02
ATP generation by pumping of neutron
ATP generation by pumping of proton
Hydrogen sulphide acts on which complex of cytochrome oxidase?
Options
Complex!
Complex III
Complex II
1689
Complex IV
Main source of ATP production is
Options
Non-oxidative metabolism
None ofthe above
NADH via glycerolphosphate shuttle makes how many ATPs
Options
1..5
2.5
In ETC NADH generates
Options
3ATP
2.5ATPs
2ATPs
None of the above
Creatinine is the breakdown product of
Options
Purine nucleotides
Pyrimide nucleotides
Creatine phosphate
Complex I of ETC is inhibited by
Options
Amobarbital
CD
Cyanide
H2S
1690
Barbiturate act on ETC complex
Options
II
III
IV
Which is the inhibitor of Cytochrome oxidase?
Options
BAL
Malonate
Oligomycin
Cyanide
Cyanide is toxic because it
Options
Inhibits cytochrome oxidase
Forms cyan meth Hb
Inhibits Na-K ATPase
Inhibits ATP carrier in mitochondria
Cyanide affects respiratory chain by
Options
Non-competitive reversible inhibition
Competitive reversible inhibition
Suicide irreversible inhibition
Non-competitive irreversible inhibition
The following poisions act by causing inhibition of d. Carboxin complex IV of respiratory

chain except
Options
Co
Malonate
Cyanide
H2S
1691
True about 2, 4- Dinitrophenols is?
Options
Prevents ATP synthesis and electron transport chain
Prevents ATP synthesis and electron transport chain s increased
Blocks electron transport chain but ATP synthesis is
Blocks ATP synthesis but electron transport chain is
Electrons in electron transport chain travel from
Options
One way irrespective of the potential
Low to high potential
Two way
High to low potential
Which vitamin is used in ETC!
Options
Thiamine
Biotin
Nicotinic acid
Pyridoxal phosphate
Which of the following vitamin is a component of ETC!
Options
Vitamin Bl2
Riboflavin
Nicotinic acid
Thiamine
MELAS inhibit all ETC Complexes except
Options
II
III
IV
Oxidative phosphorylation not inhibited by
1692
Options
Fluoride
2, 4-dinitrophenol (DNP)
Oligomycin
Carboxin
In ETC, Oxidative phosphylartion (ATP formation) is regulated by:
Options
NADH Co-Q reductase
Cytochrome C oxidase
Which of the following is high energy phosphate bond (produce ATP on hydrolysis
Options
Creatine phosphate
Carbamoyl phosphate
Glucose-1-phosphate
Number of ATPs produced from adipose tissue from I NADH (NAD+ /NADH) through
respiratory chain:
Options
OATP
LATP
2ATP
2.6ATP
Which component transfers four protons
Options
NADH-Q Oxidoreductase
Cytochrome -C Oxidase
CoQ Cytochrome c Reductase
Which of the following releases/provide energy
1693
Options
Conversion of ADP to ATP
Breaking of high energy bond to low energy bond a
Conversion of Pyruvate to lactate
. Electrical gradient across inner and outer side of mitochondrial membrane
A girl licks paint that is peeled of from the toys develop acute abdominal pain, tingling
sensation of hands and legs and weakness. Which enzyme is inhibited in
this child?
Options
ALA synthase
Heme oxygenase
ALA dehydratase
Heme biosynthesis does not occur in:
Options
Osteocyte
Liver
RBC
Erythroid cells of bone marrow
In lead poisoning which of the following is seen in urine?
Options
Delta ALA
Uroporphyrin
Coproporphyrin
Protoporphyrin
Which of the following porphyrias does not present with photosensitivity?
Options
Urophorphyrin decarboxylase
HMB synthase
1694
A boy with staining of teeth and raised Coproporphy rin-1 levels and increased risk of
photosensitivity, the enzyme deficient is:
Options
Uroporphyrinogen Ill synthase
No. of pyrrole rings in Porphyrins:
Options
No of iron in ferritin:
Options
40
400
4000
Noof iron in transferrin:
Options
Variegate porphyria enzyme defect is:
Options
1695
Acute lntennittent Porphyria is caused by:
Options
ALA synthase
ALA dehydratase
ALA dehydratase
Uroporphyrinogen I synthase
Question (1/1)
A 10-year-old bo presents with increase bilirubin, increased bilirubin in urine and no

urobilinogen. Diagnosis is:
Options
Gilbert syndrome
Hemolytic jaundice
Viral hepatitis
HbA1c is:
Options
Glucose to N terminal 13 globin
Glucose to lysine residue of 13 globin
Glucose to valine residue of 13 globin
Glucose to glutamine residue of 13 globin
Structure of Hemoglobin and Myoglobinare similar in:
Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Both secondary and tertiary structure
2,3 DPG binds to _ sites in hemoglobin and causes In its oxygen affinity:
Options
ONE decreases
Question (1/16)
1696
Most abundant form of Pro Vit A is:
Options
Alpha carotene
Beta carotene
Cryptoxanthine
Lycopene
Which of the following is true about Vitamin K?
Options
Chronic use of antibiotics lead to deficiency of Vitamin K
Vitamin K deficiency manifest as multiple thrombotic episodes
Which vitamin is synthesized in the body?
Options
Thiamine
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B3
Riboflavin
Tocopheryl radical is converted to Tocopherol by which vitamin?
Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Niacin
Vitamin C
In the crystalline lens, level of tocopherol and Ascorbate is maintained by
Options
Glutathione
Glycoprotein
Fatty acid
Glucose
All are true about vitamin D metabolism, except:
1697
Options
In absence of sun light, the daily requirement is 400- 600 IU per day
Williams syndrome is associated with mental retardation, precocious puberty and obesity
Vitamin K is required for:
Options
Hydroxylation
Chelation
Transamination
Carboxylation
Vitamin A intoxication cause injury to:
Options
Lysosomes
Mitochondria
Microtubules
Active form of Vitamin D is:
Cholecalciferol
24, 25(0H) 2vit-D
1, 25(0H) 2vit-D
25-0H vit-D
Vitamin K is involved in the post-translational modification of:
Options
Glutamate
Aspartate
Lysine
Proline
Which Vitamin is required for carboxylation of clot ting factors?
Options
Vitamin A
1698
Vitamin D
Vitamin E
Vitamin K
All the following have antioxidant action except:
Options
Vitamin A
Vitamin E
Selenium
Vitamin D
Which of the following is true about vitamin K?
Options
Vit K dependent factors undergo post-transcriptional modification
Prothrombin is a vitamin K dependent factor
Menadione is a natural water insoluble vitamin K used in clinical practice
Vitamin E deficiency causes all except:
Options
Ataxia
Areflexia
Ophthalmoplegia
None
Which coenzyme acts as reducing agent in anabolic reaction?
Options
FADH2
FMNH2
NADPH
NADH
Most powerful chain breaking antioxidant:
Options
Alpha tocopherol
1699
Vitamin C
Fulminant Hepatitis is associated with which vitamin toxicity?
Options
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B6
Vitamin deficiency causing mental disorder?
Options
Thiamine
Riboflavin
Niacin
Biotin
Site of absorption of Vitamin B12:
Options
Ileum
Jejunum
Duodenum
Stomach
Vitamin B12 deficiency causes all except:
Options
Neural tube defect
Peripheral neuropathY
Demyelination
Lsoniazid toxicity can be prevented b .
Options
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B12
1700
Vitamin B1
Which among the following cause generalized oedema?
Options
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B12
Vitamin A
A 50-yrs-old male with symptoms of fatigue and he has swelling of feet and loss of
sensations in legs and anaemia. He also has dilation of ventricle and high
cardiac output state. What is the vitamin deficiency associated with this presentation
Options
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B3
Cobalt is present in which vitamin?
Options
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B1
Antioxidant in Vitamin is:
Options
Beta carotene
Thiamine
Niacin
Riboflavin
The proxidant action of Vitamin C is potentiated by:
Options
Selenium
Copper
1701
Calcium
Iron
A mineral which can generate free radical are all except:
Options
Copper
Cobalt
Selenium
Nickel
Biotin act as a coenzyme for all except:
Options
Pyruvate to oxaloacetae
Glutamate to gamma carboxy glutamate
Vitamin B is not required for:
Options
Methionine synthase
Leucine ammo mutase
A vitamin derived from amino acid is:
Options
Biotin
Pantothenic acid
Niacin
Folic acid
Vitamin for which RDA is based on protein intake is:
Options
Niacin
Riboflavin
Pyridoxine
1702
Thiamine
Megaloblastic anaemia seen in:
Options
MSUD
Citrullinemia
Orotic aciduria
In ono carbon metabolism when serine converted to Glycino, Which carbon atom is added
to THFE?
Options
Alpha carbon
Beta carbon
Delta carbon
Gamma carbon
Vitamin deficiency that cause oro oculo genital syndrome:
Options
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B12
Zinc
Vitamin B3
Vitamin deficiency causing circum corneal vascularization is:
Options
Biotin
Riboflavin
Thaimine
Vitamin D
False about folic acid:
Options
It is proven to decrease the occurrence of neural tube defects when taken preconceptionally
Wheat flour in India is fortified with folate as in USA
1703
Which of the vitamin deficiency lead to lactic acidosis?
Options
Riboflavin
Thiamine
Niacin
Panthothenic acid
Thiamin requirement increases in excessive intake of:
Options
Carbohydrate
Amino acid
Fat
Lecithin
Which of the following statement about Thiamine true?
Options
It is a coenzyme of lactate dehydrogenase
Its deficiency is associated with scurvy
Its coenzyme function is done by thiamine monophoshate
It is coenzyrne for pyruvate dehydrogenase and a-keto glutarate dehydrogenase
Vitamin which ls excreted in urine is?
Options
Vitamin
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Vitamin K
Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because:
Options
It is a coenzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
It is a coenzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
1704
Vitamin 812 acts as coenzyme to which one of the following enzymes?
Options
Homocysteine methyl transferase
Glycogen synthase
Biotin is a cofactor of:
Options
Carboxylase
Oxidase
Hydrolase
Oecarboxylase
Post-translation modification of hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline is by:
Vit C
Vit K
Vit E
Vit D
Pantothenic acid containing coenzyme is involved in:
Options
Decarboxylation
Dehydrogenation
Acetylation
Carboxylation
Vitamin given in pregnant women to prevent neural tube defect:
Options
Folic acid
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B2
Not needed in TCA cycle:
Options
1705
Pyridoxine
Thiamine
Riboflavin
Niacin
Neurological worsening with anemia what is the treatment to be given?
Options
Folic acid alone
Folic acid along with hydroxycobalamin
Iron
Pyridoxine
Vitamin deficiency causing dementia:
Options
Biotin
Thiamine
Pyridoxine
Vitamin B12
Pantothenate Kinase associated neurodegeneration is:
Options
Wilson's disease
Hallervorden-Spatz syndrome
Mcleod syndrome
Mcleod syndrome
The form of THFA used in treatment is:
Options
N5 Formyl THFA
N10 Formyl THFA
N5 Formimino THFA
N5 methyl THFA
Excess of avidln causes deficiency of:
Options
Biotin
1706
Choline
Vitamin B12
Folate
Thiamine act as a cofactor in
Options
Sebhorreic Dermatitis Is produced by deficiency of:
Options
Vitamin A
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B2
Vitamin C
Severe thiamine deficiency ls associated with:
Options
Question (1/5)
The followings correctly arranged
Options
GMP-Guanine monophosphate
UMP-Uracil monophosphate
TMP-Thymine monophosphate
CMP-Cytidine monophosphate
Apart from occurring in nucleic acid, pyrimidines are also found 1:
Options
Theophylline
1707
Theobromine
Flavin mononucleotide
Allantoin
Which of the following is not a nitrogenous base?
Options
Adenine
Guanosine
Cytosine
Thymine
Which is not found in DNA?
Options
Adenine
Adenine
Guanine
Uracil
At the physiological pH the DNA molecules are:
Options
Positively charged
Negatively charged
Neutral
Enzyme deficiency in Lesch Nyhan Syndrome?
Options
HGPRtase
APRTase
Adeosine ceaminase
Purine Phosphorylase
A child presents with hyperuricemia and delayed developmental milestones. He also has the
habit of biting fingers and nails. What is the most probable enzyme
deficiency?
Options
HGPRtase deficiency
1708
Phenyl Alanine Hydroxylase
Adenine Deaminase
Hexosaminidase A
End product of purine metabolism in non-primate mammals is:
Options
Uric acid
Ammonia
Urea
Allantoin
Deoxy ribonucleic acid is formed from:
Options
Ribonuclease
Ribonucleotide monophosphate
Ribonucleotide diphosphate
Ribonucleotide triphosphate
lnosinic acid is biological precursor:
Options
Uracil and thymine
Purines and thymine
Adenylic acid and guanylic acid
Orotic acid and uridylic acid
False regarding gout is:
Options
Due to increased metabolism of pyrimidines
Due to increased metabolism of purines
Uric acid levels may not be elevated
Has a predilection for the great toe
The enzyme deficient in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is:
Options
GTRT
Glutaminase
1709
Transcarboxylase
HGPRT
A 1O-year-old child presents with history of rashes self-mutilation family history positive.
Which of the following investigations do you think may be
Options
Lead
Alkaline Phosphatase
LDH
Uric acid
A ten-year-old child with aggressive behavior and poor concentration is brought with
presenting complaints of joint pain and reduced urinary output. Mother
gives history of self-mutilate his finger. Which of the following enzymes is likely to be
Options
HGPRT ase
Adenosine Deaminase
APRTase
Acid Maltase
A patient with increased Hypoxanthine and Xanthine in blood with hypouricemia which
enzyme is deficient?
Options
HGPRtase
Xanthine Oxidase
Adenosine Deaminase
APRtase
Choose the incorrect statement Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome:
Options
Affects young boys
Presents with gouty arthritis
The enzyme defect enhances the reutilization of purine bases
Bizzare behavior of self-mutilation
1710
Hyperuricemia is not found in:
Options
Cancer
Psoariasis
Von gierke's disese
Xanthinuria
Which among the following is a cardioprotective fatty acid
Options
Palmitic acid
Stearic acid
Oleic acid
Omega-3 fatty acid
Which among the following is not a saturated fatty acid?
Options
Myristic acid
Stearic acid
Palmitic acid
Linoleic acid
Most essential fatty acid is:
Options
Linolenic acid
Linoleic acid
Arachidonic acid
Eicosapentaenoic acid
All are true except
Options
Linoleic acid is found in soyabean oil
Linolenic and linoleic acids are cis derivatives containing double bonds
Arachidonic acid contains five double bonds
Monoenoic acids contain one double bond at 9th position
Maximum source of linolelc acid Is:
1711
Coconut oil
Sunflower oil
Palm oil
Vanaspati
Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breast milk?
Options
Linoleate
Linoleate
Linoleate
Docosahexaenoic acid
The following fatty acid does not belong to W6 series:
Options
Linoleic acid
Arachidonic acid
Gamma linoleic acid
Alpha linolenic acid
An example of Omega 6 fatty acid is:
Options
Cervonic acid
α Linolenic acid
Arachidonic acid
Tirnnodonic acid
Which is not present in plants?
Options
Cholesterol
Linolenic acid
Linoleic acid
Laurie acid
Question (1/8)
Which of the following is a glycolipid?
Options
1712
Cerebroside
Plasmalogen
Sphingomyelin
Lecithin
Second messenger is produced from:
Options
Phosphatidylinositol
Phosphatidylserine
Phosphatidylcholine
None
A child presents with hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia. Bone marrow shows

"crumbled tissue paper appearance". It is due to accumulation of:
Options
Glucocerebroside
Sphingomyelin
Ganglioside
Galactocerebroside
Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in:
Options
Farber's disease
Tay-Sa.ch's disease
Krabbe's disease
Deficiency of phosphorylating enzymes for the formation of which of the following

recognition marker leads to 1- cell disease?
Options
Mannose 6 phosphate
Galactose
Globoside
Which of the following disease occurs due to the deficiency of glucocerebrosidase?
Options
Gaucher 's disease
1713
Pompe's disease
Fabry's disease
Krabbe's disease
Accumul ation of sphingomyelin in phagocytic cells is feature of:
Options
Tay-Sach's disease
Gaucher's disease
Down's syndrome
Tay-Sachs disease is due to accumulation of:
Options
GM2 ganglioside
GM1 ganglioside
Glucocerebroside
Galactocerebrosi de
The form of glucose predominantly seen is as:
Options
A D Glucopyanose
A D Glucofuranose
~ D Glucopyranose
Glucofuranose
The glycemic index is highest for:
Options
Glucose
Fructose
Sucrose
Sugar alcohols
Glucose detection can be done by the all except?
Options
Glucose oxidase
1714
Dextrostix
Folin and Wu method
Which of the following carbohydrate metabolism is used for liver function assessment?
Options
Galactose tolerance test
Sucrose tolerance test
Glucose tolerance test
Lactose tolerance test
Which deposition result in cataract?
Options
Glucose
Galactose
Sugar amines
Sugar alcohols
Cellulose is:
Options
Complex lipoprotein
Complex glycoprotein
A 4-yrs-boy with mental retardation, dysostosis multiplex, coarse facial feature, clear cornea.
What is the diagnosis?
Options
MPS type IV
Hunter's Disease
Hurler
Zellweger syndrome
Mucopolysaccharide that does not contain uronic acid residue is:
Options
Heparan sulphate
Heparin
1715
Chondroitin sulphate
Keretan sulphate
Mucopolysacchridoses which is a lysosomal storage disease, occur due to abnormally in:
Hydrolase enzyme
Dehydrogenase enzyme
Lipase enzyme
Phosphatase
Complex polysaccharides which are converted to glucose are absorbed by the helo of
Options
Na + K+ ATPase
Sucrase
Enterokinase
Carboxypeptidase
After overnight fasting, level of glucose transporters reduced in:
Options
Brain cells
RBCs
Adipocyte
Hepatocyte
Glucose transporter in myocyte stimulated by insulin is:
Options
GLUT-1
GULT-2
GULT-3
GULT-4
Defect in renal glucosuria:
Options
GLUT-1
GULT-2
SGLT 1
SGLT 2
1716
Facilitated transport of glucose that is insulin insensitive (non- dependent) takes place in:
Options
Skeletal muscle
Liver
Adipose tissue
Heart
Glucose transporter presents in the RBC:
Options
GLUT-1
GULT-2
GULT-3
GULT-4
The monosaccharide with maximum rate of absorption in intestine is:
Options
Glucose
Galactoss
Fructose
Mannose
Mitochondria are involved in all of the following except:
Options
ATP production
Apoptosis
Tri-carboxylic acid cycle
Which offollowing does not occur in mitochondria?
Options
Beta -oxidation
DNA synthesis
Protein synthesis
Which of the following is active in dephosphorylated state?
1717
Options
Glycogen synthase
Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Insulin promotes lipogenesis by all except
Options
Decreasing cAMP
Increase glucose uptak
Inhibiting pyruvate dehydrogenase
Increasing acetyl CoA
Hormone sensitive lipase is not activated by-
Options
Insulin
Glucagon
Catecholamines
T4
Which of the following is not seen in low insulin glucagon ratio?
Options
Gluconeogenesis
Glycogen breakdown
Ketogenesis
Glycogen storage

histamine
Options
Decarboxylation
Carboxylation
Amination
Oxidation
Entropy is a measure of the:
1718
Options
Reversibility of reaction
Randomness in a system
Exothermicity
Free energy for an enzymatic reaction
Glowing of firefly is due to
Options
ATP
NADH
Gtp
Phosphocreatinine
Storage form offree eneragy in the cell
Options
NADH
ATP
G-6-P
. Creatine phosphate
Thermogenic food is which ofthe following
Options
High protein diet
High carbohydrate diet
High fat diet
It does not depend on the macro nutrients
Which is required in Anabolic reactions:
Options
NAD
NADP
Fad
Fadp
Rossman fold associated NADH domain is found in which of the following enzyme
Options
1719
Malate Dehydrogenase
Succinate Dehydrogenase
All occur in mitochondria except-
Options
Glycolysis
TCAcycle
ETC
Ketogenesis
The biosynthesis ofthe enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is repressed by
Options
Insulin
Cortisol
Glucagon
Epinephrine
Preferred fuel for body in fasting state ?
Options
Carbohydrate
Fats
Proteins
Amino acids
The enzyme activated with low Insulin: Glucagon ratio is?
Options
Hexokinase
Glucokinase
Pyruvate kinase
Options
Pyruvate dehydrogense
1720
Isocitrate dehydrogense
A-ketoglutaryl Dehydrogense u
Which of the following enzymes are activated in dephosphorylated state:
Options
HMG Co A reductase
Glycogen phosphorylase kinase
Citrate lyase
Enzyme regulated by phosphorylation:
Options
Fat
Glycogen
Lactate
Ketone
What is effect of cortisol on metabolism:
Options
T Gluconeogenesis
T Lipogenesis
T Proteolysis
T Export of amino acid to liver
Source of energy for a running race athlete for the initial3 minutes of running
Options
Free fatty acid
Creative phosphate
Muscle glycogen
Blood glucose
Cellulose is not broken due to beta anomerism at :
Options
Cl
C2
1721
C5
C6
Inulin is not broken due to beta anomerism at:
Options
Cl
C2
C5
C6
Which of the following is not correct 1
Options
Parent carbohydrate which gives rise to other carbohydrates is Glycerol
Minimum number of carbons possible in a carbohydrate is 3
Minimum number of 'OH' group possible in a carbohydrate is 2
Minimum number of functional group possible in a carbohydrate is l 4
Dextrose is:
Options
D + glucose
. D - glucose
L + glucose
L - glucose
Which is correct!
Options
Racemic mixture contains both D and L
Racemic mixture contains both D and D
Number of isomers possible for glucose are:
Options
32
64
16
1722
8
Which of the following statement about Isomerism is NOT CORRECT
Options
Racemic mixture is equal D and L isomers present
Racemic mixture is optically inactive
Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L isomers into each other
Enantiomerism is also known as D and L-Isomerism
Parent alcohol in carbohydrates is:
Options
Glycerol
Ethanol
Methanol
Cholesterol
Which enzyme is deficient in Hunter's syndrome
Options
Liduronase
Glucokinase
Galactokinase
Iduronate sulfatase
The monosaccharide with maximum rate of absorption in intestine is
Options
Glucose
Galactose
Mannose
Fructose
Glucosamines used in following condition:
Options
Arthritis
Alzheimer's disease
Cancer
1723
Heparin is a:
Options
Glycosa amino glycan (GAG)
Protein
Glycolipid
Polysaccharide
Which form of carbohydrate is present in Glycoprotein 1
Options
Monosaccharide
Disaccharide
Homo Polysaccharide
Hetero Polysaccharide
A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels very uncomfortable. His
stomach becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhoea
frequently. These symptoms do not appear when he eats food other than dairy products.
Which of the following is most likely enzyme in which this young man
is deficient:
Options
Alpha amylase
Beta galactosidase
Alpha glucosidase
Sucrase
Which test is given positive by Glyceraldehyde?
Options
Benedicts test
Molisch test
Seliwanoff's test
Gerhard's test
Which of the following is branched:
Options
Starch
Cellulose
1724
Heteropolysaccharide
All
Non-reducing disaccharide is
Options
Fructose
Sucrose
Maltose
Lactose
Sucrose is hydrolyzed by
Options
Saccharase
Surcose phosphorylase
Invertase
Amylase
Which is NOT a hexose sugar!
Options
Glucose
. Galactose
Fructose
Ribose
Which of the following is a component of polysaccharide Chitin
Options
Ascorbic acid
Glucosarnine
Synovium
Glucoronic acid
Hyaluronic acid is a mucopolysaccharide present in
Options
Vitreous humor
Synovial fluid
Both
1725
Dermis
Which disaccharide is NOT broken down in GIT'!
Options
Lactulose0
Maltose
Sucrose
Lactose
The rate of absorption of sugars by the small intestine is highest for
Options
Polysaccharides
Disaccharides
Hexoses
Pentoses
D-Xylose test is used in diagnosis of
Options
Zinc deficiency
Malabsorption syndrome
Coeliac sprue
Bacterial overgrowth syndrome
Number of -OH groups in ribose '?
Options
62
Which of the following enzyme helps in catalyzing conversion of aldose sugars to ketose
sugars'?
Options
Oxidoreductase
Aldolase
Decarboxylase
1726
Isomerase
Most common dietary fibre is
Options
Cellulose
Pectin
Starch
Proteoglyan
Cellulose is a:
Options
Fructose polymer
Glycosaminoglycan
Glycosaminoglycans present in cornea:
Options
Dermatan sulfate
Chondroitin Sulfate
. Hyaluronic acid
Keratan Sulfate
Excess of which of the following can result in cataract'
Options
Sugar alcohol
Glucose
Sugar amines
Galactose
All are functions of glycosaminoglycans except
Options
Anticoagulant
. Wound healing
Lubrication
Transport of lipids
1727
Side chain linkage in proteoglycons-
Options
Covalent
Hydrogen bond
Van-darWaal's force
Electrostatic bond
Identify the correct statement:
Options
Glut-2 responsible for glucose and fructose absorption
Glucose is absorbed independent ofNa
Fructose requires sodium for absorption
SGLT-2 is specific for glucose
Defect in renal glucosuria
Options
GLUT
GLUT 2 c
SGLT I
SGLT 2
Secondary active Glucose transport occurs along with
Options
HC03
Na+
CI
K+
Glucose is transported in pancreas through which receptor-
Options
GLUT
GLUT 2
GLUT 3
GLUT 4
GLUT-5 is transporter for-
1728
Options
Galactose
Fructose
Mannose
Glucose
Which of the following does not depend on insulin for glucose uptake
Options
Brain
Cardiac muscles
Sketetal muscles
Adipose tissue
Glucose transporter present in erythrocytes {RBCs}:-
Options
GLUT- I
GLUT- 2
GLUT-3
GLUT-4
GLUT responsible for secretion of insulin from beta cells of pancreas
Options
Mutation in GLUT-2 causes-
Options
Menke's disease
Fanconi-Bickel syndrome
Beckwith syndrome
Dandy walker syndrome
Which out of the following is Insulin dependent'?
Options
1729
GLUT-I
GLUT-2
GLUT-3
GLUT-4
Which of the following is not correct'?
Options
Sodium dependent glucose transporter (SGLT) is unidirectional
SGLT-2 is in kidneys only for glucose transport , SGLT-I is in kidneys and intestine for glucose
and galactose transport
After an overnight fast, GLUTs are reduced in
Options
Brain
RBC
Kidney
Adipose Tissues
GLUT (glucose transporter) present in neurons is:
Options
. GLUT-I
GLUT-2
GLUT-3
GLUT-4
Which ofthe following are epimers:
Options
D-Galactose and D-Glucose
D-Galactose and L-Glucose
D-Mannose and L-Mannose
D-Mannose and L-Glucose
Which form of glucose and fructose is predominant '?
Options
1730
A
Both
Variable
Which ofthe following is a keto sugar?
Options
Glucose
Sorbitol
Fructose
Sedoheptulose
Active uptake of glucose is inhibited by
Options
Insulin
Phlorizin
Indoacetate
Fluoride
All are true about glycosaminoglycans except:
Options
Protein associated with glycosaminoglycans is called core proteins
May be associated with connective tissues
Highly positively charged
Negatively charged
Hyaluronic acid is composed of:
Options
Longest glycosaminoglycan
N-acetyl galactosamine
Has Glucuronic acid
N-acetylneuramic acid
In Benedict test, red colour is/are produced by:
Options
Sucrose
1731
. Inositol
Fructose
Lactose
Mucopolysacchidosis, which is a lysosomal storage disease, occurs due to abnormality in:

Hydrolase enzyme
Options
Hydrolase enzyme
Dehydorgenase enzyme
Lipase enzyme
Phosphatase
Danaparoid contains:
Options
Keratin sulphate
Chitin
Derma tan sulphate
Heparan sulphate
Reilly bodies are seen in?
Options
Bechet's disease
Gangliosidosis
Gaucher's disease
Hurler disease
Which of the following has highest glycemic index
Options
Glucose
Sucrose
Fructose
Sorbitol
Which ofthe following test cannot be done for glucose estimation 1
Options
Glucose oxidase
1732
Dextrostix
Nelson somogyi method
Which of the following carbohydrate test is used for assessment of liver function 1
Options
Galactose
Glucose
Sucrose
Fructose
A five year old boy with coarse facial features, mental retardation , dysostosis multiplex.
Corneal clouding was not present. What is the diagnosis 1
Options
MPS Type IV
Hurler disease
Hunter disease
Gaucher's disease
Question (1/319)
All of the following are major objectives of biochemistry, EXCEPT
Options
Structure and functions of biomolecules
Diagnostic testing of markers in practical medicine
Metabolic pathways of biomolecules
Development of specialized cells
What is the collective term for all of the chemical processes occurring within a cell?
Options
Metabolism
Catabolism
Anabolism
Oxidation
The main function of minerals in the human body is to
Options
1733
Coenzymes of enzymes.
Excretion of non-soluble substances.
Transport substances into cells.
Store energy.
The METABOLICALLY most active organ in the body is the
Options
Pancreas
Spleen
Liver
Lungs
Which of the following represents the relationship between the terms anabolism (A),
catabolism (C) and metabolism (M)?
Options
M= A-C
C=A+M
A=C+M
M=A+C
Which of the following would be considered a part of metabolism?
Options
All of the above
The sum of all chemical reactions that take place within an organism is known as
Options
Feedback
Dynamic equilibrium
Metabolism
Which of the following is an example of catabolic process?
Options
1734
Proteogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogenesis
Lipogenesis
Catabolic process is
Options
Glycogenolysis
Lipogenesis
Gluconeogenesis
Ketogenesis
Which one of the following is an example of anabolic process?
Options
Ketolysis
Glycogenesis
Glycolysis
Proteolysis
Regarding anabolic pathways
Options
Which one of the following statements regarding metabolic association is FALSE?
Options
Options
1735
NADPH
Ribose-5-phosphate
Which one of the following compounds is transported in the blood in the free (unbound with
protein) form?
Options
Triacylglycerides
Cholesterol
Glutamine
Fat-soluble vitamin
What element forms the skeleton of organic molecules?
Options
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
Carbon
Phosphorus
Which one of the following is amino acid?
Options
Acetic acid
Oleic acid
Aspartic acid
Ascorbic acid
Organ where pepsin hydrolyses proteins
Options
Pancreas
Liver
Gall bladder
Stomach
Which one of the following statements regarding metabolic association is true?
Options
1736
Brain: ketogenesis
Erythrocytes: HMP shunt
Kidney: urea cycle
Each organism has unique combination of characteristics encoded in molecules of
Options
Vitamins.
Carbohydrates.
Lipids.
Proteins.
All of the following metabolic pathways take place in the liver EXCEPT
Options
Formation of urea
Liver stores all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Iron
Folic acid
Vitamin D
Ascorbic acid
Liver degradates all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Proteins
Remnant LDL
Insulin
Creatinine
Liver synthesized all of the following substances EXCEPT
Options
Nucleotides
1737
Urea
Ceruloplasmin
Immunoglobulins
Liver synthesizes all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Immunoglobulins.
Albumin.
Lipoproteins.
Liver synthesized all of the following lipids EXCEPT
Options
Fat
Cholesterol
Ketone bodies
Tocopherol
Liver synthesized all of the following substances EXCEPT?
Options
Cholesterol
Glucose
Starch
Complement
All of the following compounds can cross all membranes freely, EXCEPT
Options
Glucose.
Ketone bodies.
Oxygen.
Carbon dioxide.
Specific transport proteins are required for translocation of all of the following substances
into the cells or matrix of mitochondria EXCEPT
Options
Glucose
1738
Fatty acids
Amino acids
Oxygen
Specific transport protein is required for translocation into the cells of
Options
Neutral amino acids
Beta-hydroxybutyric acid
Acetoacetic acid
Oxygen
What metal ion is specifically bound by vitamin B12?
Options
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
Iron
What metal ion is specifically bound by kinases?
Options
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
Magnesium
What metal ion is specifically bound by ceruloplasmin?
Options
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
Iron
What metal ion is specifically bound by ferritin?
Options
Cobalt
Copper
1739
Zinc
Iron
What metal ion is specifically bound by superoxide dismutase (SOD)?
Options
Cobalt
Selenium
Zinc
Iron
Mature erythrocytes do not contain
Options
Glycolytic enzymes.
HMP shunt enzymes.
Carbonic anhydrase.
Entero-hepatic circulation all of the following compounds takes place, EXEPT:
Options
Urea
Bile acids
Bile salts
Ketone bodies
Patients with anorexia nervosa, uncontrolled insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus,

hyperthyroidism all will
Options
The muscle fatigue occurs due to increase all of the following processes EXCEPT
Options
Hypoxia
1740
Ketolysis
Acetyl CoA is NOT needed for synthesis of
Options
Cholesterol.
Ketone bodies.
Pyruvate.
Citric acid.
Acetyl CoA is NOT used for the synthesis of
Options
Cholesterol
Citric acid
Acetoacetate
Urea
Mc Ardle’s disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
Elastin
Galactose
Parkinson’s disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
Dopamin
Galactose
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
Dopamin
1741
Galactose
Hereditary orotic aciduria can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
Pyrimidines
Galactose
Refsume disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
Fatty acid
Fructose
Alkaptonuria can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Tyrosine
Collagen
Thiamine
Fructose
Alzheimer disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
Dopamin
Protein
Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Collagen
Dopamin
Prion
1742
Tangier disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
Options
Glycogen
Lipoprotein
Dopamin
Prion
Turai disease can be caused by a problem with the oxidation of
Options
Fatty acids
Glucose
Alcohol
Amino acids
Deficiency disease of Ca2+ and Pi is
Options
Anemia.
Cretinism
Rickets.
Edema
Amyloidosis is characteristic of
Options
Von Girke disease
Alzheimer disease
Refsume disease
Wilson disease
The minimum amount of energy necessary for a molecule(s) to react is the
Options
Activation energy
Free energy
Thermal energy
Potential energy
The main function of enzymes in the human body?
1743
Options
Transport nutrients to cells
Catalyze all chemical reactions
Which of the following is NOT true about enzymes?
Options
Enzymes are sensitive to ?
Options
Pressure
Heat
Cell wall
Hexose sugar
Which of the following statement is true of enzyme catalysts?
Options
Regarding of the mechanism of enzyme action is true ?
Options
To allow substrates to move more freely in solution
To change energy-requiring reactions into energy-releasing reactions
The molecule that is acted upon by an enzyme is a
Options
1744
Reactant
Product
Substrate
Catalyst
The maximum activity of the most enzymes in organism is at the optimum temperature ?
Options
Between 60-100oC
Higher 50oC
Between 36-45oC
Higher 100oC
Which of these is an enzyme name?
Options
Urease
Lactose
Sucrose
Glycogenin
Hydrolyses catalyze?
Options
Part of enzyme that interacts with a substrate is known as?
Options
Cofactor
Active site
Orientation site
Coenzyme
The area of an enzyme into which a substrate fits is called the
Options
Catalyst
1745
Product
Active site
Activated complex
“Lock and key” model of enzyme action proposed by Fisher implies that
Options
What of the following is a coenzyme?
Options
Thiamine
Amylase
Lipase
Salt
The first step in the cycle of an enzyme is
Options
Products released
Enzyme become free
What is the most common coenzyme molecules used to activate an enzyme?
Options
Hormones
Vitamins
Proteins
Minerals
Most of enzymes secreted in human gastro-intestinal tract are
Options
Transferases
Lyases
1746
Hydrolases
Oxidoreductases
Enzyme catalyzing rearrangement of atomic grouping without altering molecular weight or

number of atoms is
Options
Ligase
Isomerase
Oxidoreductase
Hydrolase
Zymogen or proenzyme is a
Options
Activator of enzyme
Vitamin derivative
Enzyme precursor
Zymogen is
Options
Cofactor of enzyme
An inactive enzyme
Inhibitor of enzyme
How is trypsinogen converted to trypsin?
Options
A protein kinase-catalyzed phosphorylation converts trypsinogen to trypsin
Enterokinase-catalyzed proteolysis converts trypsinogen to trypsin
trypsin monomers
Trypsinogen primary is activated by
Options
HCl
Enterokinase
1747
HCO3-
Trypsin
In enzyme vitamin complex acts as
Options
Inhibitor
Zymogen
Cofactor
Isoenzyme
Trypsinogen is
Options
Growth factor
Intrinsic factor
Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?
Options
End product
External factors
Enzyme
Substrate
Which one of the following statements, regarding enzyme classification is INNCORECT?
Options
Ligases are catalyze the addition of NH3, CO2, H2O to substrate and requires energy
Hydrolases are catalyze cleavage C-C bonds
NAD+/NADH binds with the enzyme called
Options
Hydrolase
Kinase
Isomerase
1748
Dehydrogenase
Most of the members of vitamin B complex act as
Options
Cofactor
Prosthetic group
External factor
Isoenzymes
Enzymes are classified by the
Options
Size of enzyme
Size of substrate
Rate of reaction
Type of reaction
The molecules that fits into the enzyme’s active site is the
Options
Codon
Vitamin
Substrate
Coenzyme
The model that explain that the active site is flexible and the catalytic group(s) of the
enzyme is(are) brought into proper alignment by substrate is called
Options
Concepted mode
Induced fit model
Lock and key model
Sequential model
Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are:
Options
Transferases
Oxidases
Lysases
1749
Peptidases
What do kinases do?
Options
What do anaerobic dehydrogenases do?
Options
Enzyme of which class catalyze the following process: Dolichylphosphate –D-

mannose + protein → → Dolichylphosphate + D-mannosylprotein
Options
Hydrolase
Transferase
Isomerase
Oxidase
Options
Hexokinase
Thiokinase
Lactase
Aminopeptidase
Options
Glucokinase
Fructokinase
Hexokinase
1750
Phospofructokinase
NADH would function as a cofactor for a Transferase Ligase Oxidoreductase Isomerase
Options
Transferase
Ligase
Oxidoreductase
Isomerase
Which of the following is function of protein kinase (PKA)?
Options
Transport
Regulatory
Defense
Structural
All of the following factors will decrease the function of most enzymes EXCEPT
Options
Radiation
Temprature
PH
Osmotic pressure
Substrate concentration increases the rate of enzymatic reaction up to a certain point, but
has no further effect and reaction rate level off. This is because
Options
Excess product is not released from the active site
L-amino acids dehydrogenase is an enzyme that can catalyze the oxidation of different
L-amino acids. It cannot catalyze the oxidation of D-amino acids or other
L-compounds. Based on these characteristics we can say that this enzyme shows
Options
1751
Specific inhibition
A small molecule that DECRESES the activity of an enzyme by binding to a site other than the
Options
A zymogen is
Options
Amylase
Trypsin
Pepsinogen
Lipase
A reaction catalyzed by a human enzyme was carried out at 200C. If there is an excess of
substrate, which of the following would cause the greatest increase in
the rate of the reaction?
Options
Adding more enzyme and raising the temperature to 30C
Lowering the temperature to 100C
Optimum of pH for most of the human enzyme ranges from:
Options
0-2
02-Apr
04-Sep
> 10
Km value refers to
Options
1752
Which one of the following is kinetic characteristic of enzyme?
Options
Optimum of pH
Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at
Options
½ Vmax
2 Vmax
¼ Vmax
4 Vmax
Elevated blood total transaminases (ALT/AST) 100 x ULN (upper limit normal) occur in
Options
Acute liver failure
A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme has which of the following properties?
Options
It becomes covalently attached to an enzyme
Interferes with substrate binding to the enzyme
Cellular enzyme is
Options
Citrate synthase
Lipoprotein lipase
1753
C3-convertase
Amylase
Blood enzyme is
Options
Protein kinase
C3-convertase
Hexokinase
Citrate synthase
NADPH-dependent enzyme is
Options
Cytochrome oxidase
Pyruvate kinase
Pancreatic lipase
Isoenzymes are enzymes that characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Coded by the different gene
These enzymes have different structure but same catalytic function. Frequently they are
oligomers made from different polypeptides chains. These enzymes are
called
Options
Allosteric enzymes
Isoenzymes
Lyases
Proenzymes
Structure that produces most of hydrolytic enzymes that are active in the small intestine
Options
Pancreas
1754
Liver
Gall bladder
Stomach
Creatine phosphokinase localizes predominantly in
Options
Pancreas
Spleen
Kidney
Muscles
Coenzyme for transaminase is:
Options
FAD
NAD+
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B1
Alanine transaminase activity in plasma increases in acute
Options
Liver disease
Renal failure
Hemorrhage
Pancreatitis
chemistry studies are remarkable for an elevation of the creatine
phosphokinnase isoenzyme CPK-BB. This laboratory finding would suggest acute damage of
which organ?
Options
Brain
Lungs
Heart
Kidney
The patient was diagnosed with Wilson’s disease. To confirm the diagnosis it is necessary to
1755
Options
α1- antitrypsin
Carbonic anhydrase
Ferroxidase
chemistry studies are remarkable for an elevation of the CPK-MB. This
Options
Brain
Lungs
Heart
Kidney
Mutations that affect the stability of enzymes are often found to affect RBCs more than
other cell types. The best explanation for this fact is that
Options
A patient presents high activity LDH5, AST and ALT. In what organ is the development of a
Options
Heart
Kidney
Liver
Adrenal
Digestive enzyme is
Options
Lipoprotein lipase
Cytochrome oxidase
Protein kinase
1756
Pancreatic amylase
Globular in shape protein is
Options
Elastin
Collagen
Myoglobin
Keratin
All of the following enzymes require for collagen synthesis EXCEPT
Options
Lysyl hydroxylase
Prolyl hydroxylase
Lysyl oxidase
Protein kinase
Which one of the following statements regarding protein classification is correct?
Options
All of the following organs and tissues are rich by Elastin, EXCEPT
Options
Lung
Uterus
Aorta
Bone
Which of the following substances below is found in richest content in aorta, pereosteum,
ligaments, and lungs?
Options
Elastin
Collagen
Keratin
1757
Fibrin
The number of heme groups present in myoglobin:
Options
Which of the following vitamins required for formation of hydroxyproline?
Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
Synthesis of collagen is impaired due to deficiency of
Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin C
Vitamin E
The collagen defect present in scurvy is
Options
In fibrous proteins polypeptide chains are held together by
Options
Hydrogen bonds
Disulfide bonds
All of the above
1758
The major protein presents in vessel’s wall
Options
Keratin
Hemoglobin
Elastin
Albumin
One of the following is NOT about collagen
Options
Structure is triple-helical
Soluble in water
Morfan syndrome is due to mutation affecting synthesis of
Options
Hemoglobin
Elastin
Microtubules
Peroxisomes
Morfan syndrome results in the molecular defect of
Options
Kinin
Fibrilin
Fibrinogen
Plasminogen
An important feature of Morfan’s syndrome is
Options
Skin eruption
Hypoglycemia
Osteogenesis imperfecta is due to mutation affecting synthesis of
1759
Options
Hemoglobin
Microtubules
Collagen
Peroxisomes
Osteogenesis imperfecta is a group of hereditary disease due to abnormal
Options
Osteoclastic activity
Development of glycosaminoglycans
Hemoglobin is example of
Options
Conjugated protein
Simple protein
Complex lipids
Oligossacharides
On which chromosome is located gene which coded hemoglobin β-chain synthesis?
Options
11
16
20
Carboxyhemoglobin is formed as result of its combination with
Options
CO
CO2
HCO3-
HCN
Hemoglobin consists of:
Options
1760
In mature RBCs all of the following substances are dialyzable EXCEPT
Options
Hemoglobin
Chloride
Bisphosphoglycerate
Hydrocorbanate
Trivalent iron present in compound
Options
Carboxyhemoglobin
Fetal hemoglobin
Methemoglobin
Methemoglobin has
Options
Protonated globin
Ferric state iron
Protonated heme
Ferrous state iron
Methemoglobin is
Options
A toxic effect of methemoglobinemia is
Options
Fever
1761
Vomiting
Cyanosis
Dehydration
High level of glycosylated HbA1 is seen in the blood of patient with
Options
Nephrotic syndrome
Diabettes mellitus
Cirrhosis of the liver
Pancreatic carcinoma
A 1-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because he is having difficulty

breathing after drinking water that contains nitrate. He is cyanotic.
Blood drawn for laboratory studies is chocolate-colored. His hemoglobin most likely has
which of the following properties?
Options
Which one from the following factors inhibits binding of hemoglobin with oxygen?
Options
Increased body temperature
Chronic hypoxia
Anemia
Metabolic acidosis
Which of the following is correct about hemoglobin?
Options
Which of the following statements about adult hemoglobin is TRUE?
Options
1762
Which of the following is NOT a part of normal hemoglobin?
Options
Vinyl group
Propionic acid
Ferric ion
Pyrrole ring
Heme-containing proteins are all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Hemoglobin
Ceruloplasmin
Cytochrome b
Myoglobin
Which of the hemoglobin designations below best describes the relationship of subunits in
the quaternary structure of adult hemoglobin?
Options
(α1-α2) – ( β2-β1)
(α1-α2-α3-α4)
(β1-β2-β3-α1)
(α1-β1) – (α2-β2)
Iron-containing protein is
Options
Ubiquinone (CoQ)
Cytochrome a3
Ceruloplasmin
Cytochrome b
Options
1763
Iron
Copper
Magnesium
Potassium
Major component of deoxy-Hemoglobin is
Options
Pyruvate
2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate
Acetyl CoA
High concentration of 2,3BPG in RBCs leads
Options
High concentration of CO2 in RBCs leads
Options
High concentration of HCO3- in RBCs leads
Options
The high level of all of the following molecules decrease the affinity of hemoglobin to oxygen,
EXCEPT
Options
1764
Hydrogen ions(H+)
Hydroxyl ions (OH-)
Carbon dioxide CO2
Oxygen binding to hemoglobin increases as the
Options
2,3 BPG level is reduced
PH is reduced
Temperature is increased
The characteristic red color of hemoglobin is due to
Options
β-globin
α-globin
Heme
2,3 BPG
Sickle cell anemia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Presence of Hb-S.
In HbS the position 6 glutamyl residue of the β-globin chain is replaced by
Options
Valine
Phenylalanine
Glutamate
Lysine
The FUNDAMENTAL CAUSE of sickle cell disease is a change in structure of:
Options
Hemoglobin
1765
Leukocytes
Capillaries
Blood
Which of the following best explains why neonates with sickle cell disease do not have
symptoms at birth?
Options
Maternal erythrocytes protect neonatal erythrocytes against sickling
The spleen of the neonates effectively filter out the sickled cells
Maternal antibodies coat the neonatal cells and inhibit the sickling phenomen
Which one of the following inherited disorders is a quantitative abnormality of hemoglobin?
Options
Sickle cell anemia
Porphyries
Methemoglobinemia
Thalassemias0
Thalassemia is characterized by decreased production of
Options
Liver glycogen
Iron therapy (I.V.infusion) is ineffective in which of the following conditions:
Options
Chronic blood loss.
Thalassemia minor.
Hypochromic anemia.
One of the official medical measurement of anemia is
Options
Blood color
1766
Body mass index
Count of RBC and hemoglobin
Blood volume
Heterozygous sickle cell anemia gives protection against
Options
Thalassemia
Malaria
Hemolysis
Oxidative stress
Which one of the following statements about water soluble vitamins is FALSE?
Options
Vitamins are
Options
Proteins in nature
Excess intake of fat soluble vitamins is stored in which part of the body?
Options
Stomach
Adipose tissue
Duodenum
Gall bladder
Which one of the following incorporates into chylomicrons and transferred to the lymph
Options
Retinol
Folic acid
1767
Biotin
Thiamine
Prolonged deficiency of vitamin A can lead to
Options
Beri beri
Pellagra
Keratomalacia
Rickets
Continued intake of excessive amounts of vitamin A especially in children produces:
Options
Hemolytic anemia
Bleeding from GIT
Skin desquamation
Muscular dystrophy
Vitamin A helps
Options
Energy production.
Visual cycle.
Which of these is a vitamin A precursor?
Options
Cobalamin.
Pyridoxine
Beta-Carotene.
Thiamine.
Vitamin helps night vision and health skin is
Options
B12
1768
D
Vitamin D helps
Options
Blood clotting
The health of the skin
Vitamin E have protective role against the following EXCEPT
Options
Oxidative stress
Atherosclerosis
Cardiac attack
Hypovolemia
Vitamin E protects against
Options
Blood clotting
Atherosclerosis
Which vitamin is derived from cholesterol?
Options
The following form of vitamin A is used in the visual cycle
Options
Retinol
Retinaldehyde
Retinoic acid
Retinyl palmitate
1769
A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause night blindness?
Options
Vitamin A
Niacin
Vitamin D
Biotin
Which form of vitamin A has hormone-like properties?
Options
Retinol
Retinal
Retinoic acid
β-carotene
Retinol
Options
Is the non-protein part of rhodopsin .
Exists as an ester with higher fatty acids in the liver.
Which compound binds to protein in cell nucleus and regulates gene transcription?
Options
Retinoic acid.
α-tocopherol.
Linoleate.
Biotin.
Antirachitic vitamin is
Options
Vitamin K
1770
Options
Therapy increases the coagulation time in newborn infants with hemorrhagic disease.
Is synthesized by intestinal bacterial flora.
Vitamin C
Options
Vitamin E
Options
Prevents the oxidation of various cell components by free radicals.
Choline
Options
In calcitriol synthesis involves following organs/tissues
Options
Calcitriol acts on the bone (hypercalciemia) and activate
Options
1771
Osteoclastic activity.
Resorption of bone .
Conversion of Vit D2 to Vit D3 (active form) take place in
Options
Intestine.
Adipose tissue.
Liver.
Kidney.
To prevent rickets in a case of chronic renal disorders, which of the following substances
should be administered?
Options
Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of
Options
Synthesis of Ca2+-binding protein is activated by vitamin
Options
Which of the following are rich by PTH and vitamin D receptors?
Options
1772
Osteocytes
Hepatocytes
Adipocytes
Myocytes
Renal rickets develops in child with deficiency of
Options
1-α-hydroxylase.
7-α-hydroxylase.
17-α-hyroxylase.
21-α-hydroxylase.
1-α-hydroxylase is directly activated by
Options
Hypocalciemia.
Insulin.
Hyperphosphatemia .
Deficiency of 1-α-hydrolase causes
Options
Osteomalacia.
Resistance rickets.
Beriberi.
Pellagra.
Which one of the following clinical abnormalities is recorded in dietary deficiency of vitamin
D?
Options
Scurvy.
Osteomalacia.
Xerophtalmia.
Weakness.
Some authors recommends that all newborns receive a single intramuscular dose of vitamin
K, since vitamin K is a vitamin necessary for
Options
1773
Calcium and phosphate metabolism.
The vision process.
The synthesis of clotting factors.
Vitamin K metabolic role is
Options
Cofactor of enzyme.
A fat-soluble vitamin that regulates blood clotting is
Options
Vitamin A.
Vitamin K.
Vitamin C.
Niacin.
Which vitamin is required for carboxylation of clotting factors?
Options
Deficiency of vitamin K leads all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Vitamin E function in the body is
Options
To maintain vision and skin integrity, as well as growth of nails and bones.
1774
As an antioxidant to prevent cell damage.
To calcify bones and teeth.
Antioxidant is
Options
Vitamin K.
Vitamin E.
Vitamin A.
Vitamin D.
Similarity of vitamin C and vitamin K is
Options
Fat soluble.
Water soluble.
Calcitriol acts on the intestinal cells increases absorption of
Options
Fe2+.
Vit B12.
Ca2+.
Vit D.
Pantothenic acid is a constituent of the coenzyme involved in
Options
Dehydrogenation.
Decarboxylation.
Oxidation.
Acetylation.
Which one of the following compounds can be synthesized in humans?
Options
Ascorbic acid.
Linoleic acid.
1775
Riboflavin.
Niacin.
The symptoms of dietary deficiency of niacin (pellagra) will be less severe if the diet has a
high content of
Options
Tryptophan.
Tyrosine.
Phenylalanine.
Pantotenic acid.
A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause pellagra?
Options
Vitamin C.
Niacin.
Vitamin D.
Biotin.
A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause scurvy?
Options
Vitamin C.
Niacin.
Vitamin D.
Biotin.
Vitamin B6 deficiency has been observed in humans during the treatment of tuberculosis
with high doses of drugs:
Options
Sulfonamide.
Isoinosid.
Phenobarbital.
Fluorineuracil.
Egg is rich in all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Cholesterol.
Calcium.
1776
Fatty acids.
Ascorbic acid.
Which of these molecules is vitamin H?
Options
Biotin.
Carnitine.
Folic acid.
None of these.
Milk is a good source of all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Galactose.
Vitamin B12.
Consumption of raw eggs cause deficiency of
Options
Biotin
Riboflavin
Thiamin
Ascorbic acid
Cobamide coenzyme is
Options
Vitamin B6
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B9
Vitamin B3
Options
Amino acids.
Nucleotides.
Ribose-5-phosphate.
1777
Ketone bodies.
Which vitamin is essential for formation of dTMP?
Options
Tocopherol.
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
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Thiamin.
Cholecalciferol.
Folic acid.
Folate as coenzyme is involved in the transfer and utilization of
Options
Amino group.
Hydroxyl group.
One carbon moiety.
Sulfur group.
Megaloblastic anemia due to deficiency vitamin
Options
Tocopherol.
Biotin.
Thiamine.
Folic acid.
A population group that would be at increased risk of vitamin B12 deficiency
Options
Infants.
Pregnant women.
Strict vegetarians.
Athletic men.
Which vitamin is required for utilization of homocysteine & production of SAM (S-adenosyl
methyanine)?
Options
Thiamine.
1778
Niacin.
Tetrahydrofolate.
Cyanocobalamin.
A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause Beriberi?
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 52/70
Options
Vitamin C.
Thiamine.
Vitamin D.
Biotin.
The disease pellagra is due to a deficiency of
Options
Vitamin B12.
Niacin.
Pantothenic acid.
Folic acid.
Pellagra occurs in population dependent on
Options
Maize
Rice
Milk
Meat
Magenta tongue is found in the deficiency of the vitamin
Options
Riboflavin
Nicotinic acid
Thiamin
Pyridoxine
Antioxidants are all of the following, EXCEPT
1779
Options
Vitamin E.
Vitamin C.
NADPH.
Thiamine-PP.
The vitamin required as coenzyme for the action of transaminases is
Options
Niacin
Pyridoxal phosphate
Tetrahydrofolate
Transketolase activity testing is used for detection deficiency of
Options
Thiamine
Biotin
Niacin
Lipoic acid
Thiamine level is best monitored by:
Options
Reticulocytosis .
The vitamin used in the treatment of convulsion in alcoholism is
Options
Riboflavin.
Thiamine.
Folic acid.
Niacin.
The requirement of vitamin B1 is increased when energy metabolism is elevated. During

which one of the following conditions requirements of vitamin B1 is
1780
NOT increased?
Options
Fever.
Hyperthyroidism.
Increased muscular activity.
Hypothyroidism.
Liver stores all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin B12
Vitamin C
Biochemical indication of vitamin В12 deficiency can be obtained by measuring the urinary
excretion of
Options
Pyruvic acid
Lactic acid
Malic acid
Methyl malonic acid
The grows factor of intestinal bacteria is:
Options
Tetrahydrofolate
Coenzyme A
Lipoate
Vitamin D
Ascorbic acid is involved in which of the following types of reactions?
Options
Deamination.
Hydroxylation .
Carbo xylation.
1781
Vitamin B6 involved in:
Options
Lipid metabolism
Mineral metabolism
What is common reaction for folate and vitamin B12?
Options
Sulfa drugs are antimetabolites of
Options
Pyridoxine.
Pantothenic acid.
Riboflavin.
Methylmolonic aciduria is seen in a deficiency of vitamin
Options
B1
B4
B9
B12
Formaminoglutamate test (FIGLU) is used for detection
Options
Which one of the following diseases is due to vitamin deficiency?
1782
Options
Pernicious anemia
Diabetes mellitus
Cystinuria
Which one of the following is NOT a function of any hormone?
Options
Which of the following statements relating to the properties of hormones is correct?
Options
Which of the following statements relating to the properties of hormones and hormone
actions is NOT correct?
Options
Peptide hormones travel in the blood in combination with carrier proteins.
Many anterior pituitary hormones are under feedback regulation.
G-protein acts as
Options
Signal transducer.
Hormone carrier.
Second messenger.
Hormone inhibitor.
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1783
ons 57/70
The nucleotide (GDP)- binding site of G-protein is present on the
Options
α-subunit.
γ-subunit.
Hormone that binds to intracellular receptor
Options
Thyroxine
Insulin
Prolonged low level of plasma thyroid-binding globulin (TBG) leads
Options
Which of the following recognizes the signal?
Options
Hormone
Receptor
Effector
Messenger
Receptors for insulin is localized in(on)
Options
Plasma membrane.
Interstitial space.
1784
Nucleus.
Receptors for testosterone is localized in(on)
Options
Plasma membrane.
Interstitial space.
Golgi apparatus.
Adenylate cyclase cascade transduces
Options
CAMP
DAG & Ca2+
IP3
CGMP
Protein kinase is
Options
Competitively inhibited by cAMP
Non-competitively inhibited by cAMP
Secretion of insulin is regulated by
Options
Anterior pituitary hormones.
Positive feedback effect of plasma glucose.
Insulin secretion inhibited by
Options
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 59/70
1785
Target organ/tissue for insulin effect is
Options
Brain
Kidney
Adipose
Uterus
Correct statement about steroid hormones
Options
Activate phosphorylation of enzymes.
Which from the following statements regarding G-proteins is CORRECT?
Options
PTH is involved in the regulation of
Options
Carbohydrate metabolism.
Calcium and phosphorus metabolism.
After 10-days starvation which compound in the tissues completely absent?
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 60/70
1786
Options
Protein
Lipids
Glycogen
Nucleic acid
Starvation leads activation of all of the following metabolic processes EXCEPT
Options
Starvation leads all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Ketogenesis
Lipolysis
Proteolysis
Glycogenesis
During prolonged starvation the major source of blood glucose
Options
Regarding starvation
Options
Glucose transport into adipose tissue increased
Glycogen synthesis is activated
61/70
What is the major form of caloric storage in human body?
1787
Options
Triacylglycerides
Glycogen
Protein
Cholesterol
In well-fed state
Options
Lipolysis is activated.
In fasting state
Options
After fasting for 12 hours, a student consumes a large bag of pretzels. This meal will
Options
When compared to his state after an overnight fast, a person who fasts for 2 week will have
Options
Less muscle protein
More adipose tissue
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 62/70
1788
Which one of the following is essential in the human diet
Options
Glutamate.
Tyrosine.
Palmitic acid.
Lysine.
Milk is a good source of all of the following,
Options
Galactose.
Vitamin B12 .
The First Law of Thermodynamics implies that living organisms cannot create their own
energy but can only convert one form of energy into another. What,
Options
All the energy that passes along a food chain comes originally from:
Options
Oxygen
Air gases
Carbon dioxide
Solar light
Options
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 63/70
1789
Minerals & water
Electrolytes and bases
Organic polymers
Energy & ATPs
Excellent short term storage material for immediately providing of energy in the body is
Options
Fat
Nucleic acid
Glycogen
Protein
Which of the following is the major energy fuel for the brain?
Options
Acetaldehyde
Glycine
Glucose
Cholesterol
Excellent long term storage material for immediately providing of energy in the body is
Options
Fat
Nucleic acid
Glycogen
Protein
High concentration of oxygen radicals in RBCs leads the oxidation all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Lipids of membrane
Iron (Fe2+)
Hemoglobin
Ketone bodies
All of the following nutrients provide energy EXCEPT
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
1790
ons 64/70
Options
Minerals
Proteins
Fats
Carbohydrates
In the normal adult, the fuel store that contains the fewest calories is
Options
Liver glycogen
Muscle glycogen
Muscle protein
The major carrier of chemical energy in all cells is
Options
For this cells fatty acids are NOT a fuel source at any time
Options
Myocytes
Enterocytes
Hepatocytes
Astrocytes
The active organ that utilizes predominantly fatty acids for energy production is
Options
Pancreas
Liver
Heart
Brain
1791
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 65/70
Final common oxidative pathway which integrates oxidation of fat, proteins and
carbohydrate is also known as
Options
Citric acid cycle.
Urea cycle.
Cori cycle.
Myester cycle.
Options
Pyruvate.
Aldosterone.
Acetoacetate.
Alanine.
The common intermediate of carbohydrate, amino acids & fatty acids carbon skeleton
oxidation is
Options
Acetyl CoA.
Ammonia.
Glycerol.
Ethanol.
Synthesis of which compound is stimulated in the liver of a patient exhausted by starvation?
Options
Protein
Glucose
Lipids
Glycogen
The most rapid method of ATP formation during intensive exercise is through
Options
1792
66/70
Mitochondria has all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Membrane-bound electron transport chain.
ATP-synthase.
Mitochondrial DNA.
Energy-releasing pathway is
Options
Lipogenesis.
Glycogenesis.
Glyconeogenesis.
Ketolysis
Major sources for ATP synthesis in the cells are reactions of
Options
Reduction of carbonic acids.
Oxidation of carbon skeleton .
Transamination.
Deamination.
Which of the following is NOT a part of ATP?
Options
Ribose
Adenosine
Phosphate
Methylene
Which one of the following organs can metabolize glucose, fatty acids, and ketone bodies for
ATP production?
Options
1793
Liver
RBCs
Muscle
Brain
Organ where glucose only uses for energy production is
Options
Pancreas.
Brain.
Muscles.
Liver.
All of the following vitamins is required for full intracellular glucose oxidation, EXCEPT
Options
Ascorbic acid .
Pantothenic acid.
Thiamine.
Niacin.
The catabolism of glucose and fatty acids is similar because
Options
All of the above.
The maximum energy per gram on oxidization is yielded from
Options
Fat
Alcohol
Protein
Starch
FAD is reduced to FADH2 during
Options
1794
Krebs cycle.
Glycolysis.
What is the next step after glycolysis in aerobic condition?
Options
Pyruvate is oxidized to AcetylcoA.
FADH2 is produced.
Fermentation.
In what form does the product of glycolysis enter the TCA cycle?
Options
AcetylCoA
Pyruvate
NADH
Glucose
The enzymes of the TCA cycle in a eukaryotic cell are located in the
Options
Mitochondria
Plasma membrane
Lysosomal bodies
Nucleous
Citric acid cycle occurs in
Options
Cytoplasm
Mitochondria
Golgi bodies
69/70
Why is the TCA cycle the central pathway of metabolism of the cell?
Options
1795
None of the above.
The oxidation of Acetyl CoA by the citric acid cycle plays a major role in providing energy in
each of the following tissues EXCEPT
Options
Muscle
Brain
Liver
Red blood cells
Which one of the following is NOT the intermediate of Kreb's cycle?
Options
Isocitrate.
Succinate.
Fumarate.
Stearate.
Substrate - level phosphorylation in citric acid cycle is seen in the conversion of
Options
Which of the following releases most energy when completely oxidized in the body?
Options
10grams of glucose
10 grams of alcohol
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 70/70
10 grams of leucine
1796
How many ATPs are produced by the complete oxidation of 1 mole of Acetyl CoA in TCA
cycle?
Options
12
24
36
All of the following statements are true, EXCEPT
Options
The citric acid cycle is amphibolic in nature.
The citric acid cycle is major transporter of glucose into mitochondria.
Which of the following statement is true about TCA cycle?
Options
Question (1/309)
Options
Pyruvate
Aldosterone
Acetoacetate
Alanine
In eukaryotes fatty acid oxidation occurs in
Options
Cytosol.
Cell membrane.
1797
The flow of which of the following into mitochondrial matrix provides the chemiosmotic
energy for the synthesis of ATP?
Options
Inorganic phosphate.
Electrons.
Protons.
ADP.
Energy-requirement pathway
Options
Krebs cycle
Glycogenesis
HMP shunt
How many moles of ATPs are produced by oxidative phosphorylation from one mole of
NADH?
Options
Zero
During cellular respiration, most of the ATP made, is generated by
Options
Glycolysis
In cardiomyocytes deprived of oxygen during myocardial infarction
Options
ETC will accelerate
Anaerobic glycolyss will decrease
1798
Which one is NOT the main protein in electron transport chain?
Options
NADH dehydrogenase
Cytochrome oxidase
Citrate synthase
Select the molecule that contains the LEAST stored chemical energy in cells
Options
Oxygen
Lactate
Glucose
Glucose-6-phosphate
Higher rate of ATPs production is seen in
Options
Heart
Erythrocytes
Cornea
Spleen
Most of metabolic pathways are either anabolic (synthetic) or catabolic (degradation).

Which one of the following pathways is considered as “amphibolic” in
nature?
Options
Glycogenesis
Lipolysis
Citric acid cycle
The energy of electron transfer from NADH and FADH2 is efficiently converted in what form?
Options
Proton gradient
Glycogen
Osmotic gradient
1799
Glucose
Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages of the aerobic respiration of glucose?
Options
Hydrolysis
Krebs cycle
Glycolysis
Energy status is control the cellular rate of
Options
Glycolysis
Citric acid cycle
All of the above
Which one of the following vitamins is NOT a component of electron transport chain?
Options
Nicotinamide
Ubiquinone
Biotin
Riboflavin
The final electron acceptor in the electron transport system is
Options
Coenzyme Q.
Coenzyme A.
Oxygen.
ATP- synthase.
Electron transport chain oxidize
Options
NADH
NADPH
1800
Electron transport chain is involved in transport of electrons from to
Options
Acetyl CoA / NADH
NADH/oxygen
FADH2/proton
NADH/FAD
Which one of the following products of citric acid cycle removes through respiratory system?
Options
Carbon dioxide0
Acetone
Acetyl CoA
Water
Products of ETC working are
Options
ATP, NADH
H2O, NAD+, FAD
ATP, H2O2, FADH2
Patient with inherited defect of mitochondria involving components of electron transport

chain and oxidative phosphorylation present with all EXCEPT
Options
Myopathy
Encephalopathy
Fatty liver
Lactic acidosis
Wasting syndrome may seen in patients suffering from all EXCEPT
Options
Hyperthyroidism
Multiple myeloma
Malnutrition
1801
High caloric intake
All of the following statements about NAD+ & FAD are correct, EXCEPT
Options
All of the following are electron carriers in Electron Transport Chain, EXCEPT
Options
Cytochromes.
Coenzyme Q.
NADPH.
NADH.
A postoperative patient on intravenous fluids develops angular stomatitis. Urinalysis

indicates an excretion of 15 μg riboflavin/mg creatinine (Normal > 30 μg
riboflavin/mg creatinine). Which of the following TCA enzymes is most likely to be affected?
Options
Citrate synthase
Fumarase
After excessive drinking over a prolonged time with eating poorly, a 45-year-old man is
admitted to the hospital with heart failure. Which of the following
enzymes of TCA cycle is most likely affected?
Options
Aconitase
Citrate synthase
What are final products of Acetyl CoA oxidation in mitochondrion?
Options
Hydrogen & oxygen
1802
Carbon & water
For formation of ATP in mitochondrion requires all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
ADP & Pi.
Reduced particle is
Options
NADH.
FAD.
Oxygen.
Proton (H+).
Antimycin A blocks ETC between cytochrome b and cytochrome c1. Which one of the
following would be NOT found in oxidized form?
Options
FAD
NAD
Cyt a3
CoQ
Energy released from the oxidation of glucose is stored in
Options
ATP only
ATP and NADH
NADH only
NADPH only
Mitochondrial ATPs are formed by a process known as
Options
Glycolysis.
1803
Chemiosmosis.
Krebs cycle.
Dephosphorylation.
Oxidative phosphorylation is
Options
Generation of ATPs.
Generation of NADH.
Utilization of ATPs.
During oxidative phosphorylation the proton motive force that is generated by electron
transport is used to
Options
Oxidation of which substances in the erythrocytes leads synthesis of ATP?
Options
Glucose-6-P
Acetyl CoA
Iron
NADH
Riboflavin is a part of the structure of which of the following?
Options
FAD
NAD+
CoA
ATP
In heart cells deprived of oxygen during a myocardial infarction
Options
1804
Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is formed by the addition of water to
fumarate?
Options
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
Citrate
Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is converted to its isomer by the enzyme
aconitase
Options
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
Citrate
Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is an intermediate in the conversion of

citrate to Succinyl CoA?
Options
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
Citrate
Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is generated in the reaction that produces
GTP?
Options
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
Citrate
NADH is required for the one-step reaction by which pyruvate is converted to
1805
Options
Lactate.
Acetyl CoA.
Succinyl CoA.
A disaccharide linked by α(1→4) glycosidic bond is
Options
Lactose.
Sucrose.
Cellulose.
Maltose.
Storage polysaccharide made by animals is
Options
Amylopectin
Glycogen
Cellulose
Collagen
Which of the following is NOT a disaccharide?
Options
Pectin
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose
A high ratio of insulin to glucagon can
Options
Promote ketogenesis
Hexokinase activity is inhibited by
Options
1806
Fatty acids
Citric acid
Water overload
Monosaccharide is
Options
Ribose
Acetyl CoA
Acetoacetate
Glycerol
Which of the statement best characterize glucose?
Options
It is a ketose
Starch and glycogen are polymers of
Options
α-D-Galactose
β-D-Fructose
α-D-Glucose
β-D-Ribose
Which one of the following contains glycosidic bond?
Options
Lactose
Glucose
Fat
Alanine
Which one of the following enzymes is digestive enzyme of carbohydrates?
Options
Aconitase
1807
Arginase
Amylase
Aldolase
Which of the following carbohydrates would be most abundant in the diet of strict
vegetarians?
Options
Cellulose
Glycogen
Lactase
Sucrose
Iodine test is positive for
Options
Glucose.
Glycogen.
Protein.
Cholesterol.
Humans are unable to digest
Options
Starch
Denatured proteins
Cellulose
Hydrolysis of lactose yields
Options
Two major products of HMP pathway are
Options
1808
FAD and CoA
A catabolic intermediate which stimulates phosphofructokinase would stimulate
Options
Gluconeogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogen synthesis
Glycogen breakdown
Which one from the following transporters for glucose is involved in it reabsorption from
lumen into tubular cells?
Options
SGLT-1
GLUT-1
SGLT-2
GLUT-4
Which one of the following glucose transporter is insulin-dependent?
Options
SGLT-1
GLUT-1
SGLT-2
GLUT-4
Pancreatic amylase breaks down
Options
Intestinal isomaltase breaks down
Options
1809
Intestinal sucrase breaks down
Options
Intestinal lactase breaks down
Options
All of the following factors stimulate insulin secretion, EXCEPT
Options
Increase intracellular Ca2+ -ions.
Paracrine effect of glucagon.
Vitamin thiamine (B1) is essential for metabolism of
Options
Lipids
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Amino acids
Which one from the following statements is describing glycolysis correctly?
Options
1810
In mammalian cells during anaerobic condition increase level of
Options
Lactate
Pyruvate
Acetyl CoA
Glucose
Transport of glucose into cells may requires all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Insulin
Osmotic gradient
ATP
Active transport of glucose into cells requires all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
ATP
Na+ ions
Osmotic gradient
Cramps are caused by heavy exercise resulting in the accumulation of
Options
Lactate
Ethanol
Heat
Carbon dioxide
Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction of ATP formation by substrate
level phosphorylation?
Options
Aldolase A
Pyruvate kinase
1811
Hexokinase
This organ converts lactate from muscle to a fuel for other tissue
Options
Liver
Brain
Skeletal muscle
Red blood cells
Lactic acid is produced by human RBCs because of lack of
Options
Oxygen
Mitochondrions
Glucose
ADP and Pi
Each of the following metabolites provides carbon for glucose synthesis by the process of
gluconeogenesis EXCEPT
Options
In RBCs a pyruvate kinase deficiency would be expected to increase
Options
ATP production
The NADH/NAD+ ratio
Lysis of the cells
In RBCs how many net molecules of ATP are generated when one molecule of glucose is
oxidized?
Options
1812
12
24
Which one of the following pathways takes place in the RBCs for energy production?
Options
Aerobic glycolysis
β-oxidation of fatty acids
Gluconeogenesis
Muscle glycogen is not available for maintenance of blood glucose level because:
Options
Muscle glycogen will NOT serve as a precursor of blood glucose due to absence of
20/68
Options
During a myocardial infarction the oxygen to an area of the heart is dramatically reduced,
forcing the cardiac myocytes to switch to anaerobic metabolism.
Under this condition, which of the following enzyme would be activated by increasing
intracellular cAMP?
Options
ATP- synthase
The primary metabolic fate of lactate released from muscle into blood during intense
exercise is:
1813
Options
All of the following can lead intracellular lactic acidosis, EXCEPT
Options
Intracellular hypoxia.
Synthesis of 2,3-biphosphoglycerate occurs in
Options
Liver.
Kidney.
Erythrocytes.
Brain.
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 21/68
2,3-bisphosphoglycerate is:
Options
Glucose can synthesize from which amino acid?
Options
Histidine
Proline
Tyrosine
1814
Alanine
Glucose cannot be synthesized from
Options
Glycerol
Lactate
Amino acids
Fatty acids
The negative allosteric effector for pyruvate dehydrogenase is
Options
Acetyl CoA
Isocitrate
Oxaloacetate
Fumarate
Acetyl CoA synthesis from pyruvate requires all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
NAD+
PDH complex
Coenzyme A
Oxygen
Insulin-stimulatory process is
Options
Glycogenolysis.
Ketogenesis.
Gluconeogenesis.
Glycogenesis.
Glycolysis is the name given to the pathway involving the conversion of
Options
Glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or lactate.
Glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or Acetyl CoA.
1815
20 mol glucose → X mol pyruvate X in above equation equal
Options
10
20
40
60
Glycolysis is activated by increasing level of cytoplasmic
Options
Citrate
Protons (H+)
NADH
Fructose-2,6-BP
Glycolysis is anaerobic in
Options
Renal medullar part
Renal cortical part
Neurons
Liver
Carbon dioxide (CO2) is added to pyruvate to make
Options
Butyric acid
Lactic acid
Acetyl CoA
Oxaloacetic acid
What is enzyme of citric acid cycle?
Options
Pyruvate kinase
Fumarase
Arginase
Carbomoyl phosphate
Pyruvate → Oxaloacetate is reaction of
1816
Options
Ketogenesis.
Glycolysis.
Gluconeogenesis.
Kreb’s cycle.
Which of the following vitamins does not participate in the oxidative decarboxylation of
pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA?
Options
Thiamine
Niacin
Biotin
Riboflavin
Following are substances for gluconeogenesis, EXCEPT
Options
Glycerol.
Adenine.
Alanine.
Lactate.
Endogenous glucose synthesis increases in the persons with all of the following
endocrinopathy, EXCEPT
Options
Cortisol excess (Cushing syndrome/disease).
Glucagon excess (glucagonoma).
Which compound in the tissues completely absent after 10 days of starvation?
Options
Protein
Lipids
Glycogen
Nucleic acid
Synthesis of endogenous glucose stimulated by
1817
Options
Well-fed.
Starvation.
Alcohol.
Carbohydrate-rich diet.
Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydrogenase deficient patient can develop
Options
Liver cirrhosis.
Hemolytic crisis.
Renal failure.
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 25/68
HMP shunt in RBCs is major sources of components of
Options
Membrane
Antioxidant system
Transport system
Hemoglobin
Which of the following is NOT a function of NADPH?
Options
Energetic
Biosynthetic
Antioxidantic
Phagocytic
Enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogense is required for the synthesis of
Options
Glycogen
Nucleotides
Ribose-5-phosphate
1818
Triacylglycerides
The glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency causes hemolytic anemia due to lack of
Options
ATP
Pentose
Iron
NADPH
A 4-year-old-girl has been unable to eat for 2 days, because of GIT disorder. Which of the
following is the NOT major source of energy for her skeletal muscles
after 2 days?
Options
Muscle glycogen
Serum fatty acids
Serum glucose
Muscle triacylglyceride

fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase could still form substantial amounts of blood glucose
from
Options
Ingested galactose
Ingested fructose

phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase could still form substantial amounts of blood
glucose from
Options
Ingested galactose
Insulin resistance can lead all of the following, EXCEPT
1819
Options
Hyperglycemia.
Glucosuria.
Which one of the following tissues can clear lactic acid by own mechanism?
Options
Brain
RBCs
Cornea
Kidney
Accumulation of lactic acid inside the cells can lead all of the following, EXCEPT
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 27/68
Options
Decrease pH.
After overnight fasting level of glucose transporters are reduced in
Options
Brain.
Liver.
Adipose tissue.
Erythrocytes.
During overload of some tissues by glucose, glucose is converted to
Options
Glucuronic acid.
Sorbitol.
Gluconic acid.
1820
Ethanol.
Lack of liver glycogen phosphorylase would lead all following symptoms EXCEPT
Options
Stable hypoglycemia
Wasting syndrome
Hepatomegaly
All of the following are examples of glycogenosis, EXCEPT
Options
Cori’s disease
Pomp’s disease
Her’s disease
Wilson disease
Which one of the following requires for glycogenesis?
Options
Mitochondrion
Debranching enzymes
UDP-glucose
Gucagon
Glycogen is short-term storage form of
Options
Glycerol.
Glucose.
Glyceraldehyde.
Glucuronate.
Which one of the following hormones stimulates liver gluconeogenesis, glycogenolysis and
lipolysis?
Options
Insulin
Calcitonin
Glucagon
1821
Cortisol
The presence of ketonemia is associated with which endocrine disorder?
Options
Diabetes mellitus I (abs.insulin)
Acromegaly (incr.GH)
Addison disease (decr.cortisol)
The accumulation of this specific compound in the lens produces cataract in diabetic patient.
This compound is
Options
Glucose.
Fructose.
Galactose.
Sorbitol.
When excess amount of carbohydrates or proteins consumed they are stored in the body as
Options
Triacylglycerides.
Glucose.
Glycogen.
Protein.
Both Fructose and Galactose are phosphorylated by specific kinases in liver at position
Options
C1
C2
C4
C6
Food L-glucose does NOT give energy because
Options
1822
Which is NOT a function of the main products of the pentose phosphate pathway?
Options
To serve as precursors in the biosynthesis of RNA and DNA
To raises the concentration of cAMP
Arsenic ions inhibit all, EXCEPT
Options
Lipoic acid
Aldolase
Each of the following metabolites provides carbon skeleton for glucose synthesis, EXCEPT
Options
All of the following carbohydrate metabolic pathways occur in the liver EXCEPT
Options
Gluconeogenesis
Gluconeogenesis is conversion of
Options
Glycerol → Glucose
Galactose-1-P →Glucose-1-P
1823
Which of the following is NOT needed for glycogen synthesis?
Options
Glucose-1-phosphate
Branching enzymes
Which one of the following metabolites is connected between gluconeogenesis and

glycolysis?
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 31/68
Options
Alanine
Pyruvate
Fumarate
Malate
Which one of the following products accumulates in the cells if major Leloir pathway of
galactose catabolism is blocked?
Options
Fructose
Galactitol
Lactose
Glucose
Galactosemia is due to deficiency of all enzymes, EXCEPT
Options
Galaktokinase.
Phosphoglucomutase.
Galactose-1-P-Uridyltransferase.
Galactosemic baby can develop hypoglycemia due to all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
1824
Precursor for glycogen synthesis is
Options
Galactose-1-P.
Glucose-1-P.
Glycerol.
Glucagon.
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 32/68
Gluconeogenesis is increased in
Options
In well fed state
Hyperinsulinism
Diabetes mellitus
Hyperparathyroidism
Key regulatory enzyme of glycogenesis is
Options
Glycogen synthase.
Amylo α(1-4): α(1-6) glucotransferase.
Hormone that activates synthesis of glycogen in the liver is
Options
Cortisol
Glucagon
Insulin
Epinephrine
Amylo α(1-6) glucosidase is located in
1825
Options
Lysosomes.
Proteosomes.
Mitochondria.
Cytoplasm.
Glycogen is polymer of
Options
Glucose only.
Galactose only.
Glucose and fructose.
33/68
Pectin.
Core of glycogen granules is composed from
Options
Primary role of muscle glycogen is to supply glucose to:
Options
Synthesize lactose
Increased level of Glucose-6-phosphate in the hepatocytes inhibits and activates
Options
During night sleeping in the liver of human more higher activity of
1826
Options
Glycogen synthase
Person can develop hypoglycemic crisis after prolonged consumption of alcoholic drinking.
This can be explained by
Options
Increased glycogenesis.
Increased gluconeogenesis
Which enzyme is deficient in the liver in cases of hereditary fructose intolerance?
Options
Hexokinase
Aldolase B
Glucokinase
Phosphofructokinase
Cori's, McArdle's, von Gierke's and Andersen's diseases are all examples of:
Options
Glycogenolysis.
Gluconeogenesis.
Glycogenosis.
Glycogenesis.
Glucose in the glycogen is held by
Options
Hydrogen bonds
Coordinate bonds
Ionic bonds
Glycosidic bonds
Ketogenesis and gluconeogenesis are activated when level of mitochondrial increases in the
liver
1827
Options
NADH
FADH2
Acetyl CoA
Citric acid
The significance of Cori cycle is to produce
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 35/68
Options
Liver glucose from muscle lactate
Liver NADPH for lipid synthesis
Blood glutamine from tissue ammonia
Testicular testosterone from LDL-cholesterol
Which factor requires for following process: Pyruvate → Lactate?
Options
ATP
NADH
NAD+ + H+
FADH2
All of the following are pathogenic factors for development of hepatosteatosis, EXCEPT
Options
Vitamin deficiency.
Enzyme of glycolysis is
Options
NADH dehydrogenase
1828
The building blocks (monomers) that make up starch, glycogen, cellulose are:
Options
Nucleotides
Amino acids
Monosaccharides
Isoprenoids
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 36/68
Warburg effect is
Options
Anaerobic glycolysis is increased in neoplastic cells
HMP shunt is increased in erythrocytes during hypoxia
A patient has increased blood pyruvate level. A large amount of it is excreted with the urine.
What is vitamin lacking in this patient?
Options
Tocopherol
Thiamine
Naiacin
Folic acid
Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus type I patient has high risk factor for development of acute
complication:
Options
Ketoacidotic coma
Acute renal failure
Irreversible reaction of glycolysis:
Options
1829
All of the following would lead lactic acidosis EXCEPT
Options
High altitude
Heart failure
LDH deficiency
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 37/68
Thiamine deficiency
A patient has a genetic defect that causes intestinal epithelial cells to produce
disaccharidases of much lower activity than normal. Compared to a normal person,
after eating a bowl of milk and cake this patient will have higher level of
Options
A newborn develops diarrhea after milk feeding. When the milk is replaced by the glucose
solution the diarrhea disappears. Which of the following enzymes is
inactive in this newborn?
Options
Invertase
Amylase
Lactase
Maltase
and dizzies. His hemoglobin levels were between 5 to 7 g/dl (normal
A deficiency of which one of the following enzymes would be the
1830
Options
Fructose-1,6-BP-phosphatase
Pyruvate kinase
and dizzies. His hemoglobin levels were between 5 to 7 g/dl (normal
Which one of the following features also predominant in this
patient?
Options
Lactic acidosis
Hemolytic anemia
Hyperglycemia
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 38/68
Hyperthermia
A 30-year-old man has been fasting for religious reason for several days. His brain has
reduced its need for glucose by using which of the following substances
as an alternative source of energy?
Options
Glycerol
Acetone
Fatty acids
β-hydroxybutyrate
Pyruvate kinase deficient patient can develop
Options
Hemolytic crisis
Renal failure
Bleeding
1831
Xanthomas
A newborn baby experienced abdominal distension, severe bowel cramps and diarrhea after
being fed milk. A hydrogen analysis of his exhaled breath
feeding. The infant most probably suffers from deficiency of
Options
Galactokinase
Lactase
Isomaltase
Which of the following laboratory test would help you determine whether patient has type I
or type II diabetes mellitus?
Options
C-peptide levels
Insulin levels
Hemoglobin A1c
Diabetes mellitus type II predominantly binds with
Options
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 39/68
Glucagon resistance
Cortisol excess
Insulin resistance
Insulin excess
Von Girke disease is due to mutation affecting degradation of
Options
Hemoglobin
Glycogen
Cholesterol
Collagen
1832
amount of glycogen that was abnormal structure with limit dextrin type.
Muscles and other organs were not affected. A deficiency of which one of the following
enzymes would be the most likely cause of this patient’s pathology?
Options
Lysosomal maltase
Liver phosphorylase
amount of glycogen that was abnormal structure with limit dextrin type.
Options
Von Girke disease
Cori’s disease
Mc Ardle disease
Anderson disease
All of the following are laboratory data of uncontrolled Diabetes Mellitus, EXCEPT
Options
Ketonemia
Glucosuria
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 40/68
Hyperglycemia
Proteinuria
3-month old boy presents with poor growth, low muscle tone (hypotonia), elevation of
blood lactate (lactic academia), and mild acidosis (blood pH = 7.30-
7.35). The ratio of pyruvate to lactate in serum is elevated. Which of the following
compounds might be recommended for therapy?
1833
Options
Ascorbic acid
Vitamin D
Free fatty acids
Thiamine
A patient has a tumor of α-cells of the islet of Langerhans which of the following findings
would result from the excessive hormone secretion from this tumor?
Options
Increased HMP shunt
Increased blood glucose concentration
A child’s blood presents high content galactose, glucose concentration is low. There are such
presentations as cataract, mental deficiency, fatty liver. What
disease is it?
Options
Galacosemia
Diabetes mellitus
Lactosemia
Steroid diabetes (Cushing’s syndrome)
Galactosemia is due to deficiency of
Options
Galactokinase.
All of the above.
Deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1) leads decrease activities of all of the following enzymes,
EXCEPT
Options
1834
Transketolase.
A person with Galactosemia is advised not to consume which of the following products?
Options
Corn syrup
Normal fasting blood glucose level
Options
140 mg/dl
60-100 mg/dl
< 60 mg/dl
> 160 mg/dl
Glucosuria in uncontrolled DM occurs when the venous glucose concentration exceeds
Options
100 mg/dl
140 mg/dl
180 mg/dl
60 mg/dl
Insulin resistance can lead all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Hyperglycemia
Glucosuria
Patient with large mesenchymal tumor develop fasting hypoglycemia due to
Options
1835
Patients who suffer from severe diabetes type I and don’t receive insulin have metabolic
acidosis. This is caused by increased concentration of the following
metabolites
Options
Ketone bodies
Triacylglycerides
Cholesterol
A male infant failed to gain weight and showed metabolic acidosis in the neonatal period. A
physical examination at 6 month showed hypotonia, small muscle
mass, lethargy, motor dysfunction, optic atrophy. Investigation of blood Lactate: 40 mg/dl
(normal: 4-14 mg/dl) Pyruvate: 3.6 mg/dl (normal 0.3-0.9 mg/dl) pH:
7.20 ( normal: 7.35 – 7.45) What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options
Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
Best explanation of Gestational Diabetes is increasing level of that block insulin receptors
Options
Placental lactogen.
Screening test for Geststional DM is
Options
O’Sullivan test
Benedict’s test
Seliwanoff’s test
Shilling test
In Turai syndrome enzyme deficient is
Options
1836
PK
PFK-1
G6PDH
HGPRT
After a sprint an untrained person develops muscle hypoxia. This leads accumulation of
metabolite in muscle known as
Options
Oxaloacetate.
Uric acid.
Lactate.
Citric acid.
A 3-month-old boy presents with poor feeding and growth, low muscle tone, elevation of
blood lactate. There is decreased conversion of pyruvate to Acetyl
CoA in fibroblasts. Which of the following compounds should be considered for therapy?
Options
Ascorbic acid
IV glucose solution
Biotin injection
Which of the following is the most sensitive test of pancreatic β-cell insulin secretory
reserve?
Options
Following are causes of hyperglycemic glucosuria EXCEPT
Options
1837
A 18-month-old child is left unattended in the kitchen and ingests a small portion of rat
poison that contains fluoroacetate. Fluoroacetate reacts with
Options
HMP shunt
TCA cycle
Glycolysis
The level of what plasma protein would be increased in Diabetes mellitus patient?
Options
C-reactive protein
Fibrinogen
Ceruloplasmin
How are lipids absorbed during digestion?
Options
Which one of the following is NOT a component of pancreatic juice?
Options
Phospholipase A
Lipase
Lipoprotein lipase
In the intestine, the dietary fats are hydrolysed by
Options
Adenylate cyclase
Pancreatic lipase
1838
Protein kinase
Phospholipid contains
Options
Hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails
Hydrophobic heads and hydrophilic tails
The dietary lipids are transported in blood as
Options
Micells.
Chylomicrons.
Liposomes.
The component of the waxes is:
Options
Adenine
Glutamine
Glucose
Fatty acid
The component of the fat is:
Options
Adenine
Glutamine
Glucose
Glycerol
Which bond is formed when a hydroxyl group of alcohol joints the carboxylic group of fatty
acid?
Options
Peptide
Glycosidic
Ester
1839
Hydrogen
Lipids are compounds that are soluble in
Options
Distilled water.
Organic solvent.
Glucose solution.
Saline solution.
Fatty acids are component of all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Phospholipids.
Triacylglycerides.
Cholesterol esters.
Cholecalciferol.
The main function of fat in the human body is to
Options
Increase rate of chemical reactions
Transport substances into cells
Which of the following is NOT a function of lipids in human body?
Options
Energy storage
PH regulation
Insulation
The compound that derived from sterols is
Options
Cholesterol ester.
Arachidonic acid.
Triacylglyceride.
1840
Which of the following is a lipid?
Options
Collagen
Lactose
Nicotine
Lecithine
Steroid is
Options
Pyruvate
Glycerol
Acetyl CoA
Cholesterol
Rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis
Options
The surface tension in intestinal lumen between fat droplets and aqueous medium is
decreased by
Options
Gastric HCl.
Ammonium-ions.
Bile salts.
Pancreatic juice.
Which one of the following compounds is added to diacylglyceride for re-synthesis of

specific human triacylglycerides in small intestinal mucosal cells?
Options
Glycerol
Fatty acyl CoA
Acetyl CoA
1841
Pancreatic insufficiency may result in
Options
Chylomicrons function is
Options
Emulsified agent.
Intestinal enzyme.
Hydrolysis of 1 mole of lipid yields 2 moles of fatty acids, one mole of glycerol & 1 mole of
phosphoric acid This lipid is
Options
Triacylglyceride.
Phosphotidic acid.
Arachidonic acid.
Cholesterol.
In mammals, the major lipid of membrane
Options
Phospholipids.
Fatty acids.
Vitamin E.
Triacylglyceride.
Which of the following statements about how dietary fat can be utilized by the body is
FALSE?
Options
It can be used to make lipid-containing compounds
It can be used as an immediate source of energy for cells
1842
Hormone-sensetive lipase is activated through
Options
Adenylate cyclase.
NO.
Ca2+/calmodulin.
The complete oxidation of long odd chain fatty acids produces which of the following?
Options
Acetyl CoA only
Butyryl CoA
Each cycle of β-oxidation produces
Options
1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 1 AcetylCoA
Propionyl CoA is produced during oxidation of
Options
Propionyl CoA is metabolized to
Options
Succinyl CoA.
Malonyl CoA.
Triacylglyceride.
Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with
1843
Options
2 double bonds
3 double bonds
1 double bond
Single bonds only
The role of hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL) is to
Options
When does NOT β-oxidation occur?
Options
In a fast
In a starvation
In well-fed state
What mitochondria do NOT perform α-oxidation?
Options
A very long chain fatty acids are oxidized in
Options
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Peroxisomes
Golgi apparatus
What is the role of thiolase in the β-oxidation of fatty acids?
Options
1844
Generates NADH
Carnitine involves in
Options
Translocation of fatty acids across cell membrane.
Oxidation of fatty acids.
Patients with abnormal oxidation of fatty acids develop symptom
Options
Ketoacidosis only.
A 16-year-old marathon runner trains by running 15 miles every morning, requiring a

constant supply of ATP that predominantly is formed by
Options
How many carbons are removed from Acyl CoA in one turn of β-oxidation?
Options
How many molecules of Acetyl CoA are produced in oxidation of C18 fatty acid?
Options
1845
2
18
A fatty acid with 14 carbon atoms will undergo how many cycles of beta oxidation?
Options
Plasma free fatty acids are increased due to deficiency of which hormone?
Options
Insulin
Glucagon
Cortisol
Epinephrine
Thiolase is enzyme of
Options
The activation of long chain fatty acids requires which of the following components?
Options
2 ATPs only
Coenzyme A only
Fatty acyl-carnitine
Which one from the following enzymes catalyze energy - requirement reaction?
Options
Thiolase
1846
Thiokinase
Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
Carnitine is required for the transport of
Options
Carnitine-containing drug was recommended to sportsman for improving results. What

processes is activated by this supplement?
Options
β- oxidation of fatty acids occurs in
Options
Erythrocytes.
Heart.
Brain.
Lens.
Which one of the following tissues can metabolize glucose, fatty acids, and ketone bodies for
ATP production?
Options
Liver
Muscles
Brain
Red blood cells
Acetyl CoA is formed during β-oxidation of fatty acids
Options
1847
The β-oxidation of palmitic acid (C15H31COOH):
Options
Repeats 8 cycles
Yields 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA0
After an overnight fast the blood levels of which of the following will be higher in a person
with a carnitine deficiency than in normal person?
Options
Fatty acids
Glucose
Bile acids
Glycerol
A low ratio of insulin to glucagon can
Options
Promote ketogenesis
Promote lipogenesis
All of the following statements regarding ketone bodies are true, EXCEPT
Options
They are produced during starvation.
They include acetoacetate, acetone, hydroxybutirate.
They may be excreted in urine.
Which of the following condition is characterized by ketonuria but without glucosuria?
Options
1848
Diabetes mellitus
Wilson’s diseases
All of the following conditions promote increasing blood glycerol level , EXCEPT
Options
Fasting.
Lipid-rich diet.
HMG CoA is formed in the metabolism of
Options
Fatty acids only.
Phospholipids only.
Glycerol can catabolized by
Options
Liver.
Brain.
Erythrocytes.
Muscles.
All of the following are intermediates of glycerol catabolism, EXCEPT
Options
Dehydroxyacetone phosphate.
β- hydroxybutyrate.
Glycerol released by hydrolysis of lipoproteins triacylglycerides is mainly
Options
1849
Cholesterol contains carbons
Options
21
23
27
29
Best source of cholesterol is
Options
Butter.
Egg yolk.
Milk.
Black gram (urd).
Dietary cholesterol is carried from intestine to the liver by
Options
Chylomicrons.
VLDL
LDL
Which of the following compound is precursor of acetone?
Options
Propionyl CoA
Urea
Acetyl CoA
Cholesterol
Which of the following is the primary ketone body?
Options
Acetone
Acetoacetate
1850
β-hydroxybutyrate
Increased level of blood ketone bodies is risk factor for development of
Options
Edema
Acidosis
Anemia
Atherosclerosis
Thiophorase is enzyme of which pathway?
Options
Gluconeogensis
TCA cycle
Ketolysis
Glycolysis
The key enzyme for the utilization of ketone bodies is
Options
Thiolase.
Thiophrase.
Thiokinase.
Thioesterase.
All of the following conditions promote increase synthesis of ketone bodies, EXCEPT
Options
Starvation.
Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
Von Girke’s disease.
A high omega-3 fatty acid diet is associated with reduced incidence of
Options
Skin disease
Kidney disease
1851
Endocrine disease
In cystic fibrosis the pancreatic ducts become obstructed by viscous mucus. Consequently,
digestion of which of the following substances would be most
impaired?
Options
Lipids
Nucleotides
Lactose
Sucrose
Laboratory investigation of patient revealed a high level of plasma low density lipoprotein.
What disease can be diagnosed?
Options
Acute pancreatitis
Acute renal failure
Atherosclerosis
Which one of the following situations would result in an increase ketone bodies synthesis by
the liver?
Options
After meal
Prolonged fasting
Severe ketoacidosis is seen primarily in individuals with
Options
Atherosclerosis
Physiological conditions promote the synthesis of ketone bodies would also promote the
Options
1852
Which one of the following effects of insulin is NOT found in adipose tissue?
Options
Decreased hormone sensitive lipase activity
Which of the following is NOT a function of cholesterol?
Options
Cholestrol
Options
Cholesterol is absent in:
Options
Fish
Cow’s milk
Liver
Vegetable oils
Cholestrol is a precursor of
Options
1853
Hypothalamic releasing hormones
Pancreatic hormones
Cholestrol is the precursor of
Options
Steroid hormones
Vitamin A
Bile pigments
Uric acid
All following statements about cholesterol are correct EXCEPT
Options
Hydroxymethylglutaryl CoA
Options
Correct b) and c)
Glycerol in the liver is metabolized to intermediate
Options
Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)
Glycine
Coproporphyrin
Which of the following is NOT involved in the biosynthesis of cholesterol?
Options
Energy
Acetyl CoA
Aldolase
1854
NADPH
Important function of cholesterol is to
Options
None of these
Sex hormones are derived from
Options
Bilirubin
Cholesterol
Palmitic acid
Leucine
Major organ for synthesis of cholesterol is
Options
Pancreas.
Spleen.
Liver.
Uterus.
Cholesterolemia means
Options
Lack of functional LDL receptors
High sensitivity to fatty food intake
None of the above
Regarding bile salts all statements are correct EXCEPT
Options
1855
Cholesterol is the precursor of the all of the following compounds, EXCEPT
Options
Bile acids.
β-hydroxybutyrate.
Testosterone
Cortisol
Cholesterol is precursor of all of the following hormones, EXCEPT
Options
Calcitriol.
Calcitonin.
Estradiol.
Cortisol.
Options
Squalene.
β-hydroxybutyrate.
Animal fed high cholesterol diet shows decreased cholesterol by the liver due to inhibition of
which of the following enzyme?
Options
HMG CoA lyase
Mevalonate kinase
HMG CoA reductase
HMG CoA synthase
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about cholesterol?
Options
1856
Options
Mevalonate.
Taurocholate.
Farnesyl PPi.
Squalene.
Which one of the following compounds is competitive inhibitor of key regulatory enzyme of
Options
Squalene
Cholesterol
Acetoacetyl CoA
HMG CoA
The major source of cholesterol in smooth muscle cells is
Options
VLDL
LDL
HDL
IDL
Lavostatin and mevastatin lowers serum levels of
Options
Triglycerides
Cholesterol
Free fatty acids
Glucose
Which of the following hydroxylases is involved in bile acid formation?
Options
1-α-hydroxylase
7-α-hydroxylase
17-α-hydroxylase
21-α-hydroxylase
1857
Regarding bile salts all statements are correct, EXCEPT
Options
All of the following are required for bile salts synthesis, EXCEPT
Options
7-α-hydroxylase.
Cholesterol.
Glycine.
1-α-hydroxylase.
Which of the following is a major function of lipoproteins?
Options
Donors of amino acids to the tissues
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 66/68
Determine oncotic pressure of the blood
How many types of lipoproteins in the blood?
Options
What is the major protein constituent of high-density lipoprotein (HDL)?
Options
Apo A-l
Apo C-l
1858
Apo E
Apo B48
Initiator for fatty steak formation in intima of arteries is
Options
Which lipoprotein transports cholesterol to intima of artery?
Options
HDL
LDL
Chylomicrons
VLDL
Deficiency of apoprotein CII leads increase in blood
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 67/68
Options
Glucose
Lipids
Protein
Sodium
Carbon atoms of cholesterol are derived from
Options
Propionyl CoA.
Acetyl CoA.
Succinyl CoA.
Malonyl CoA.
All of the following statements about farnesyl pyrophosphate are correct, EXCEPT
Options
1859
Rate controlling step of cholesterol biosynthesis is
Options
HMG-CoA → Mevalonic acid + CoA
Acetoacetyl-CoA + Acetyl-CoA → HMG-CoA +CoA
The precursor for vitamin D is
Options
Cholesterol.
Arachidonic acid.
Triacylglycerol.
Phospholipids.
A gall stone that blocked the upper part of the bile duct would cause increase in which of the
followings?
Options
Recycling of bile salts
LCAT is
Options
Chylomicrons are synthesized in
Options
1860
Blood
Liver
Intestine
Pancreas
Where does chylomicrons synthesis take place?
Options
Liver
Intestinal lumen
Adipose tissue
Question (1/317)
All of the following are components of lipoproteins, EXCEPT
Options
Phospholipids.
Cholesterol.
Carbohydrates.
All of the following are functions of apoproteins, EXCEPT
Options
Which one of the following statements about lipoproteins is correct?
Options

the liver
tissues.
1861
Which one of the following changes would you expect in a patient with decreased activity of
lipoprotein lipase?
Options
What is the correct ordering of lipoprotein particles from lowest to the highest density?
Options
Which one of the following apoprotein is synthesized in the liver as integral part of VLDL?
Options
AI
B-100
C II
B – 48
All of the following statements about lipoprotein lipase are correct, EXCEPT
Options
Dietary fats after absorption appear in the blood circulation as
Options
HDL
VLDL
LDL
Chylomicrons
1862
Where does VLDL synthesis take place?
Options
Liver
Intestinal lumen
Adipose tissue
Plasma become milky due to increase level of
Options
Lipoproteins
Glucose
Ketone bodies
Urea
LDL transport
Options
Tricylglycerides from intestine.
The building blocks (monomers) that make up HDL :
Options
Lipids
Minerals
Monosaccharides
Nucleotides
Which of the following statement regarding chylomicrons is correct?
Options
Synthesis of lipoprotein lipase is activated by
1863
Options
Cortisol
Glucagon
Insulin
Epinephrine
A laboratory data of patient with Tangier disease is
Options
The patient has unusual red cells morphology (acanthocytosis- thorny-appearing cells) due
to membrane abnormalities in their erythrocytes. This
Options
Linolenic (C18:3)
Palmitic (C16:0)
Ascorbic
Folic
The following is an activator of lipoprotein lipase
Options
Apo E
Apo C II
Apo A I
Apo B-48
The following is an activator of lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)
Options
Apo B-100
Apo AI
Apo B-48
Apo E
1864
All of the following are functions of HDL, EXCEPT
Options
VLDL transport
Options
HDL transport
Options
Specific scavenger receptor SR-B1 present on the surface of extrahepatic tissue including
vessels for
Options
LDL
HDL
VLDL
IDL
Normal blood LDL level is
Options
< 150 mg/dl
> 200 mg/dl
> 500 mg/dl
<300 mg/dl
1865
Normal blood HDL level is
Options
40-60 mg/dl
> 200 mg/dl
10-15 mg/dl
> 350 mg/dl
A 35-year-old man has a history of recurring attacks of pancreatitis, eruptive xathomas and
increased plasma triacylglyceride levels: 2000 mg/dl associated with
chylomicronemias. Deficiency of which of the following is the likely cause of these

symptoms?
Options
HMG CoA reductase
Hypoglycemic hypoketonic blood is seen in patients suffering from impaired which

metabolic pathway?
Options
Alcohol abuse
Increased level of blood cholesterol are risk factors for development of
Options
Gall stones.
Fatty liver.
Anemia.
Atherosclerosis.
Insulin resistance in DM type II leads hyperlipidemias due to excessive
Options
1866
Utilization of VLDL
Deficiency of LDL-receptors is risk factor for development of
Options
Liver cirrhosis
Mental retardation
Muscles atrophy
Lecithin-cholesterolacyltransferase (LCAT) is enzyme that binds with
Options
HDL
LDL
Hyperlipidemia can occur in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT
Options
Enteritis.
Diabetes mellitus.
Nephrotic syndrome.
Hypothyroidism.
A young girl with a history of severe abdominal pain was taken to her local hospital at 5 a.m.
in severe distress. Blood was drawn, and the plasma appeared
milky with the TG level 2000 mg/dl (normal 4-50 mg/dl). Which one of the following
enzymes deficiency is most likely responsible for the appearance of this
patient’s plasma?
Options
Pancreatic lipase
Lipoprotein lipase
Patient has genetic disorder characterized by malabsorption of dietary lipid, steatorrhea,

and accumulation of intestinal triglycerides. A deficiency of which
1867
protein would most likely account for this clinical presentation?
Options
Apo B100
Acyl CoA synthetase
Pancreatic lipase
Colipase
An 11 year old boy presents with balance and difficulty with night vision. His mother says he
had foul smelling stools and failure to thrive as an infant. Physical
examination reveals poor muscle coordination, ataxia. Lab tests show low total cholesterol
and Vitamin A levels. The patient most likely has an inherited
mutation in which of the following?
Options
7-α-hydrohylase
The official medical measurement of obesity is
Options
Body mass index.
Height of a person.
All are plasma adipokines profile of obese person, EXCEPT
Options
Leptin resistance.
Hypoestrogenism.
Hyperresistinemia.
White adipose tissue has all of the following functions, EXCEPT
Options
Endocrine.
Helps in immunity.
1868
Metabolic.
Adipokine that activates effect of insulin is
Options
Adiponectin.
Resistin.
Leptin.
Grenilin.
An important feature of Zellweger’s syndrome is
Options
Hypoglycemia.
Skin eruption.
Which statement from of the following about Zellweger’s syndrome is FALSE?
Options
Physiological conditions which promote the synthesis of ketone bodies would also promote
the
Options
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 12/70
Refsume’s disease is due to accumulation of
Options
1869
Carnitine in liver.
A drug which prevents cholesterol by inhibiting the enzyme HMG CoA reductase is
Options
Aspirin.
Allopurinol.
Digitonin.
Lavostatin.
A 56-year-old smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day. He is found to have a blood pressure of
155/95 mm Hg. His body mass index is 30. Laboratory findings
include total serum cholesterol of 245 mg/dl and HDL cholesterol is 22 mg/dl.Which of the
following vascular abnormalities is most likely to be his most
serious health risk?
Options
Atherosclerosis
Obese person has
Options
Hypoadiponectinemia
Hyporesistinemia
Hypolipoproteinemia
Hypoglycemia
Wasting syndrome is characterized by
Options
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 13/70
Increase catabolism
1870
Increase anabolism
Increase appetite
A 44-year-old woman has a family history of heart disease. Her father and mother both
developed congestive heart failure and myocardial infarction as a result
of extensive coronary atherosclerosis. A dietary modification to include consumption of

which of the following is most likely to reduce her risk for ischemic
heart disease?
Options
Fish oil
An autopsy study reveals that evidence for atheroma formation can begin even in children.
The gross appearances of the aortas are recorded and compared with
microscopic findings of atheroma formation. Which of the following is most likely to be the
first visible gross evidence for the formation of an atheroma?
Options
Thrombus
Fatty streak
Calcification
Ulceration
A 25-year-old man is 178 cm tall and weighs 101 kg. Laboratory studies show total serum
cholesterol of 550 mg/dl with an HDL cholesterol component of 25
mg/dl. He is worried about these findings because his brother died of a myocardial infarction
at age 34. Which of the following conditions is this man most
likely to have?
Options
Cushing syndrome
Vitamin E deficiency can cause
1871
Options
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 14/70
Hyperlipoproteinemia with maximum of cholesterol level in the blood is
Options
Type I
Type II
Type III
Type IV
All of the following are major risk factors for Coronary Heart Disease (CHD), EXCEPT
Options
Smoking.
Hypertension.
Options
Statins.
Fibrates.
What is the major organ for alcohol detoxification?
Options
Brain
Liver
Kidney
1872
Spleen
Alcohol abuse leads in the liver all of the following, EXCEPT
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 15/70
Options
Which nutritional factor stimulates alcohol oxidation?
Options
Well-fad state
Fasting
Low protein diet
Low lipid diet
Aldehyde dehydrogenase oxidizes ethanol to
Options
Acetic acid.
Oxalic acid.
Carbon dioxide.
Acetyldehyde.
Cytochrome P450 system involves in oxidation of ethanol in organism of
Options
Healthy person.
Heavy drinkers.
Obese person.
Mild drinker.
Microsomal oxidation of alcohol is accompanying with formation of all of the following,

EXCEPT
Options
Hydrogen peroxide.
1873
Acetaldehyde.
Acetate.
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 16/70
Alcohol-induced cirhotic patient can has following blood analysis
Options
↓ ALT & ↑GGT
Which one of the following methods uses in practical medicine for purification of blood by
artificial kidney?
Options
Electrophoresis
Salting out
Hemodilution
Dialysis
Chromatography is method of separation mixture of
Options
Ions
Amino acids
Salts
Ketone bodies
What one of the following patients may be put on the hemodialysis?
Options
1874
The following technique is used for separation of proteins according their difference in net
Options
Electrophoresis.
Dialysis.
The solubility of most proteins is lowered at high salt concentration is known as
Options
Salting out process
Solubility curve
Chromatography
The movement of charged particles towards one of the electrodes under the influence of
Options
Gel filtration
Chromatography
Dialysis
Electrophoresis
For separation of mixture charged high molecular weight and low molecular weight
compounds can use all following techniques EXCEPT
Options
Electrophoresis
Dialysis
Cedimentation rate
The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of
Options
1875
A protein with molecular weight of 100 kD is subjected to SDS PAGE electrophoresis. SDS
PAGE electrophoretic pattern show two widely separated bands of
20 kD and 30 kD after addition of merkaptoethanol. The true statement regarding this will
be
Options
Chromatography is used for separation of
Options
Mixture of proteins
Colloids only
Ultrafiltration of plasma in kidney is example of
Options
Chromatography.
Dialysis.
Electrophoresis.
Precipitation.
Ultrafiltration of plasma by choroid plexus of ventricular system of the brain is example of
Options
Chromatography.
Electrophoresis.
Dialysis.
Precipitation.
All of the following are functions of proteins, EXCEPT
Options
Catalytic.
Defense.
1876
Osmotic.
Structural.
Which of the following IS NOT protein in nature?
Options
Albumin
Cortisol
Complement C3
Lipase
Protein is
Options
Ceruloplasmin
Pyruvate
Acetoacetate
Glycerol
Which class of biomolecules is used for activation of catalytic function of proteins?
Options
Carbohydrates
Water shell
Minerals
Fatty acids
Molecules of protein are composed of long chain of
Options
Fatty acids
Nucleotides
Sugar
Amino acids
Alpha-helix and beta-sheet folding in protein is stabilized by
Options
Ester bond.
Hydrogen bond.
Peptide bond.
1877
Ionic bond.
Which one of the following IS NOT a secondary structural feature of proteins?
Options
Alpha-helix
Beta-sheet
Triple-helix
Beta-turn
Each polypeptide has specific amino acids sequence, linked with each other by peptide bond.
This sequence of amino acids is said to be
Options
Priamary
Secondary
Tertiary
Quaternary
Tertiary structure of a protein is formed by all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Hydrogen bonds
Ionic bonds
Peptide bonds
Disulfide bonds
All of the following have quaternary structure EXCEPT
Options
Immunoglobulin
Albumin
Hemoglobin
A protein reacts with biuret reagent which indicates two or more
Options
Alpha-helix
Peptide bonds
β- sheet
1878
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 21/70
Disulfide bonds
Which of the following is the best example of conformational changes?
Options
Daily production of proteins in adult healthy person approximately is
Options
50 g
200 g
400 g
1000 g
Daily excretion of proteins into the urine in adult healthy person approximately is
Options
Less than 150 mg
250 mg per day
More than 250 mg
10 g per day
Transcription is synthesis of
Options
ATP
RNA
DNA
NADH
Which molecule contains the genetic code?
Options
Protein
1879
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 22/70
DNA
ATP
Adenine base
In the process of transcription, the flow of genetic information is from
Options
DNA to DNA
DNA to protein
T-RNA to protein
DNA to m-RNA
Translation is synthesis of
Options
RNA
DNA
Polypeptides
Polysaccharides
The most active site of protein synthesis is the
Options
Nucleous
Mitochondria
Ribosomes
Cell membrane
Which one of the following enzymes would digest proteins?
Options
Amylase
Lactase
Lipase
Trypsin
following, EXCEPT
1880
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 23/70
Options
Albumin.
Oxaloacetic acid.
Linoleic acid.
Glutamic acid.
Which from the following regarding protein composition is correct?
Options
In denaturized proteins the bond which IS NOT broken
Options
Peptide
Disulfide
Hydrogen
Ionic
Proteases produce amino acids from protein by
Options
Reducing
Hydrolyzing
Oxidizing
Saturation
Which of the following IS NOT a conjugated protein?
Options
Hemoglobin
Immunoglobulin G
1881
Collagen
Metalloprotein is
Options
Collagen
Albumin
Immunoglobulin
Ferritin
Negative nitrogen balance has following person
Options
Children.
Elderly.
Pregnant women.
Athletic men.
In protein structure the α-helix and β-sheet are examples of
Options
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Biologically active proteins in human beings are
Options
D-and L-form
L-form only
D-form only
Racemic form
All hormones increase the amount of proteins in tissues EXCEPT
Options
Growth hormone
Testosterone
Insulin
Cortisol
1882
What is the major function of chaperones in the cells?
Options
Inracellular folding of protein is mediated by
Options
The protein itself
Chaperons
Ribosome
Proteases
Which one from the following protects proteins that have been denaturized by decreased
pH in cells?
Options
Protease inhibitor
Endogenous ions
All of the following are functions of chaperones, EXCEPT
Options
The building blocks (monomers) that make up hypothalamic releasing hormones are :
Options
Nucleotides
26/70
Amino acids
Monosaccharides
1883
Isoprenoids
Which bond is formed when an amino group of one amino acid joints the carboxylic group of
another amino acid?
Options
Peptide
Glycosidic
Ester
Hydrogen
Bonds that are formed between two cysteine residues is
Options
Peptide
Hydrophilic
Disulphide
Ionic
Biologically active proteinogenic amino acids present in human organism in
Options
D- and L-form
L-form only
D-form only
Racemic form
Which one of the following sets consists of essential amino acids only?
Options
Alanine, Tyrosine
Glutamate, Lysine
Aspartate, Glycine
Some amino acids are termed NON-ESSENTIAL as
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 27/70
Options
1884
All of the above.
All α-amino acids give positive
Options
Ninhydrin test
Biuret test
Fusher test
Xanthoproteic test
A compound gives positive test with ninhydrin is a(an)
Options
Lipid
Glucose
Amino acids
Ketone bodies
Biuret test is mainly done for
Options
Lipids
Carbohydrates
Amino acids
Proteins
An amino acid that may form a disulphide bond
Options
Tryptophan
Cystein
Phenylalanine
Proline
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 28/70
Which one of the following amino acids is ionizable in protein?
1885
Options
Glycine
Alanine
Valine
Aspartate
Which of the following amino acids is highly likely to be localized within the interior of the
plasma globular protein?
Options
Aspartic acid
Glutamic acid
Valine
Arginine
Which of the following amino acids is highly likely to be localized exterior of the plasma
globular protein?
Options
Aspartic acid
Glycine
Valine
Isoleucine
Disulfide bonds most often stabilize the native structure of
Options
Membrane proteins
Which one of the following tripeptides contains the largest number of non-polar R-group?
Options
Tyr-Lys-Met
Gly-Pro-Arg
Asp-Phe-Ty
Leu-Val-Gly
1886
At certain pH amino acid behaves neither as an acid nor as a base and does not migrate to
anode or cathode and this pH known as:
Options
Isoelectric point
Cationic pH
Anionic pH
Isoelectric point is
Options
Isoelectric point (pI) for an amino acid is
Options
Non-proteinogenic amino acid is
Options
α-alanine
Aspartate
β-alanine
Histidine
Which one of the following tripeptides most positively charged at pH=7.0?
Options
Tyr-Lys-Met
Lys-Pro-Arg
Asp-Glu-Asp
Leu-Val-Gly
1887
Which one of the following tripeptides contains sulfur?
Options
Gly-Pro-Arg
Cys-Lys-Met
Asp-Phe-Tyr
Leu-Val-Gly
Which one of the following proteins exists as CATION in physiological conditions?
Options
Albumin (pI = 4.9.)
Histone (pI = 9.8)
Which one of the following proteins exists as neutral particle in physiological condition?
Options
Albumin (pI = 4.9)
Hemoglobin (pI=7.0)
Fibrinogen (pI=5.4)
Toxic effects of heavy metals result in inactivation of specific proteins by denaturation.

Which of the following proteins can supply orally for the prevention of
the toxic effects of heavy metals poisoning?
Options
Papain (pI=9.0)
A 24-year old woman prepares for her wedding day. Her hair dresser uses rollers to create a
new style for her hair. To create a “permanent wave”, the stylist then
applies thoglucollate to break apart the S-S bonds in cysteine units, reducing them to –SH
groups. Which level of protein structure is most greatly affected by
this treatment?
Options
1888
Primary structure
Secondary structure
Tertiary structure
Glutathione is important
Options
Absorbent
Antioxidant
Enzyme
Protein
Glutathione prevents cells against accumulation of
Options
Ammonia
Nitrogen monoxide
Hydrogen peroxide
Carbon monoxide
If glutathione level in the erythrocytes decrease
Options
PH decreases
In RBCs hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is converted to water (H2O) by
Options
Hemoglobin
Glutathione
Glutamate
Cytochrome
All are true about glutathione EXCEPT
Options
1889
Anti-oxidant
Transport amino acids across cell membrane
Kwashiorkor babies would have all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Fatty liver.
Hypoalbuminemia.
Edema.
Severe myopathy.
Kwashiorkor result from
Options
Marasmic babies have
Options
Depletion of liver protein
Hypoalbuminemia
Fatty liver
Amyloid is form of
Options
Bacterium
Viruses
Primitive life form
Protein
Amyloidosis is accumulation of
Options
Glycogen
Misfolding protein
1890
Gangliosides
Colloids
Mad cow disease may be due to invasion of
Options
Specific virus
Specific bacteria
Abnormal gluten
Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the deposition of one of the following substances in

the tissues
Options
Glycogen
Neurolipids
Amyloid
Copper
Which from the following processes is NOT involved in pathogenesis of amyloidosis?
Options
Alzheimer’s disease is due to
Options
A 80-year-old man presented with impairment of higher intellectual function and alterations
in mood and behavior. His family reported progressive
Alzheimer’s disease. Which one of the following best describes the
disease?
1891
Options
It is associated with abnormal Aβ-amyloid with altered secondary structure
In etiopathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease the following may be implicated
Options
Tau protein
Alpha-secretase
All of the above
Alzheimer’s Aβ-amyloid is major component of
Options
Prions are type of
Options
Proteins
Bacterium
Primitive life form
Viruses
Origin of prion is
Options
RNA
DNA
Virus
Protein
All of the following statements about Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) are correct EXCEPT
Options
1892
In Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) patients pathological study of brain tissue shows

spongiosis (vacuolation of cortical grey matter) with neuronal loss, amyloid
plaques. These amyloid plaques contain:
Options
Amylin
Prion
Immunoglobulins
Tau-protein
Progressive dementia is seen in
Options
Mad cow disease
All of the above
Options
Nerve cell membrane
In synaptic cleft
All of the following are the properties of abnormal prion PrPSC EXCEPT
Options
It is stable
It is insoluble
Which of the following is NOT a prion associated disease?
1893
Options
Mad cow disease
Kuru
Alzheimer disease
Neurofibrillary tangles that accumulate in the brain of Alzheimer’s patient is result of defect
Options
In pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease all of the following may be implicated, EXCEPT
Options
Protein that precipitates on heating to 450C and redisolves on boling is
Options
Bence-Jones protein
Albumin
Myosin
Plasma differs from serum by
Options
Lipid content
Protein content
RBCs count
Glucose level
Plasma albumin performs all of the following functions, EXCEPT:
1894
Options
Transport.
Nutritive.
Maintenance of water-electrolyte balance.0
Which one of the following substances does not require plasma protein for transport?
Options
Vitamin D
Fat
Glycerol
Copper ion
Level of which blood proteins fraction is higher?
Options
Albumin
α-globulins
γ-globuins
Fibrinogen
How many distinct bands of serum proteins are separated by paper electrophoresis?
Options
10
15
20
When a serum is electrophoresed, which of the following bands is normally absent?
Options
α1- globulin
α2-globulin
Albumin
Fibrinogen
Plasma proteins are separated to individual proteins by all of the following methods, EXCEPT
Options
1895
Electrophoresis
Chromatography
Dialysis
Defense protein in plasma is
Options
Albumin
Angiotensinogen
Erythropoietin
Complement factor
Hypoalbuminemia is clinical feature of all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Nephrotic syndrome.
Hypoproteinemia leads
Options
Simple plasma protein is
Options
Cerruloplasmin
Transferrin
Albumin
Immunoglobulin
Which substance is in higher concentration in blood than in glomerular filtrate?
Options
Glucose
1896
Urea
Proteins
Water
Ceruloplasmin is
Options
Ferroxidase
Protein of ETC
Major transporter of drugs and lipophilic substances in plasma is
Options
Albumin
Fibrinogen
Complement
Immunoglobulin
Plasma protein is
Options
Protein kinase
Creatinine
Lipoprotein lipase
Carnitine
Which one of the following plasma proteins is NOT synthesized by the liver?
Options
Albumin
Immunoglobulin
Complement
Fibrinogen
Which one of the following plasma proteins has catalytic function?
Options
Transferrin
Ceruloplasmin
1897
Albumin
Haptoglobin
Hemoglobin excretion into urine during hemolysis is prevented by
Options
T-cells
Albumin
Haptoglobin
Ceruloplasmin
Haptoglobin is
Options
Transferrin is
Options
Major transporter of iron in the plasma to bone marrow
Options
Ferritin
Fibrinogen
Transferrin
Hemoglobin
What is a diagnostic test for hepatocellular carcinoma?
Options
α1-Antitrypsin
α1-Fetoprotein
Haptoglobin
1898
Transferrin
All of the following are about α1- fetoprotein correct EXCEPT
Options
α1-antitripsin is
Options
Anticoagulant.
Which of the following plasma proteins is protease inhibitor?
Options
Transferrin
α1-fetoprotein
α1- antitrypsin
Ceruloplasmin
What is major function of Alpha1-antitrypsin ?
Options
Protease activator
Protease inhibitor
Smokers tend to develop emphysema more readily than non-smokers. This is due to
oxidation of methionine residue in
Options
Pulmonary collagen.
α1-antytrypsin.
1899
Alveolar elastin.
α1-antitrypsin deficiency has been implicated in
Options
Kwashiorkor.
Multiple myeloma.
Patient was diagnosed with Wilson’s disease. To confirm the diagnosis it is necessary to
Options
α1-antitrypsin
Ceruloplasmin
Catalase
Willson’s disease is due to
Options
Kayser-Fleicher rings (KF-rings) are seen in
Options
Hematochromatosis
Wilson disease
Wernike syndrome
Spina bifida
Pandey’s & Nonne-Appelt’s tests detect in cerebrospinal fluid
Options
Glucose
Chloride ion
Neutrophils
1900
Globulins
Pandey’s and Nonne-Appelt’s tests are used techniques
Options
Colorimetric
SDS electrophoresis
The albumin quotient AQ = 40. This index indicates the following degree of blood-brain
barrier (BBB) damage
Options
Slightly
Moderate
Severe
Complete
Antibodies are
Options
Carbohydrates.
Glycoproteins.
Nucleic acids.
Lipids.
All of the following about antibodies are true, EXCEPT
Options
Each of the following is characteristic of antibodies, EXCEPT
Options
1901
All of the following about the Fc region of immunoglobulins are true, EXCEPT
Options
Which plasma protein has two heavy chains and two light chains?
Options
Albumin
Fibrinogen
Globulin
Antibody
Following substance may act as an antigen
Options
Which of the following is responsible for opsonization of bacteria in the blood?
Options
Complement C3b
Albumin
Cytokines
Monocyte
Immunoglobulin is example of
Options
Complex lipids.
Simple protein
Oligossacharides
Conjugated protein
1902
The largest immunoglobulin in size is
Options
IgA
IgM
IgE
IgG
In an immunoglobulin molecule the antigen binding capacity resides at the
Options
Constant region
Variable region
Joining (J) zone
Major function of variable N-terminal region of immunoglobulin is
Options
Which one of the following immunoglobulins can cross the placenta and transfers mother’s
Options
IgA
IgG
IgE
IgD
Which one of the following isotypes of immunoglobulins is synthesized in response to

allergen action?
Options
IgG
IgD
IgE
IgA
1903
All of the following about IgE are true, EXCEPT
Options
Antibody present in colostrums is
Options
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgD
Options
IgG
IgE
IgA
IgD
Agglutination reaction is strongest with the immunoglobulin
Options
IgG
IgM
IgE
IgA
All of the following about IgM are true, EXCEPT
Options
It is pentamer.
It is glycoprotein.
Antibody having high valency is
1904
Options
IgG
IgM
IgE
IgD
Ochronosis is a feature of
Options
Albinism
Alkaptonuria
Phenylketonuria
Tyrosinosis
What are repeating units of DNA?
Options
Bases
Nucleotides
Sugars
Phosphates
Human DNA rich by nucleotides
Options
A-T
G-C
A-U
None of the above
1/24/2019 Ism Exams
ons 49/70
Bacterial DNA rich by nucleotides
Options
A-T
G-C
A-U
1905
None of the above
Purine base is
Options
Uracil
Thymine
Guanine
Cytosine
A purine nucleotide is
Options
AMP
UMP
CMP
TMP
Which metabolic pathway is passes in the nucleus?
Options
DNA replication
Protein synthesis
Genetic information of nuclear DNA is transmitted to the site of protein synthesis by
Options
Polysomes.
TRNA.
MRNA.
Proteosomes.
DNA makes DNA by
Options
Repair.
Replication.
Transcription.
Translation.
1906
DNA makes RNA by
Options
Repair.
Replication.
Transcription.
Translation.
MRNA makes polypeptide by
Options
Repair.
Replication.
Transcription.
Translation.
In sickle cell anemia the defect can be explained by the mutation
Options
Single point.
Frameshift.
Stop codon.
In human the main product of purine catabolism is
Options
Urea
Uric acid
β-alanine
Guanine
Uric acid is final product degradation of
Options
Purines.
Amino acids.
Proteins.
Creatine.
Nucleosides are composed from nitrogen base and
1907
Options
Protein.
Pentose.
Alcohol.
Fatty acid.
Pyrimidine base is
Options
Thymine
Thiamine
Cysteine
Tocopherol
All of the following about IgG are true, EXCEPT
Options
Options
Nutritional
Transport
Defense
Oncotic
Which of the following is correct about complement?
Options
Pyrimidine base is
Options
1908
Thiamine
Cysteine
Cytosine
Tocopherol
All of the following are principal functions of complement, EXCEPT
Options
Opsonize pathogens.
C4b-C2b-C3b is composition of
Options
C1 convertase
C3 convertase
C5 convertase
C9 convertase
The principal nitrogenos urinary excretion product in human resulting from the catabolism
of AMP is
Options
Urea
Uric acid
Creatinine
Carnitine
C4b-C2b is composition of
Options
C1 convertase
C3 convertase
C5 convertase
C9 convertase
Inosine monophosphate is an intermediate during de novo synthesis of
Options
1909
AMP & GMP
CMP & TMP
CMP & UMP
All of these
5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate is required for the synthesis of
Options
Glycogen.
Nucleotides.
Histones.
Triacylglycerides.
Carbomoyl phosphate II is required for synthesis of
Options
Orotic acid
Uric acid
Cholesterol
Citric acid
Hereditary orotic aciduria may accompanying with
Options
Osteomalacia.
Photophobia.
Increased level of blood uric acid are risk factors for development of
Options
Tumor
Tophi
Anemia
Fatty liver
All of the following statements about uric acid are true EXCEPT
Options
1910
Allopurinol prevents the conversion of
Options
IMP to GMP
Cytosine to uracil
Ammonia to urea
Allopurinol lowers serum levels of
Options
Uric acid.
Glutamine.
Cholesterol
Urea
A 42-year-old male cancer patient undergoing radiation therapy develops severe pain in his
right big toe. Laboratory analysis indicates an elevated serum urate
level and urate crystals in his urine. Which one of the following metabolic pathway is
Options
Hyperuricemia leads
Options
Obesity.
Hypoglycemia.
Goiter.
Gout.
The salvage pathway for purines involves enzyme
Options
1911
Xanthine oxidase.
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with deficiency of enzyme
Options
CPK
ADA
HGPRT
AST
pain and reduced urinary output. Mother gives history of selfmutilitative
to be deficient in this child?
Options
HGPRT
ADA
PRPP
AST
pain and reduced urinary output. Mother gives history of selfmutilitative
to be deficient in this child?
Options
HGPRT
ADA
PRPP
AST
An important feature of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is
Options
Photophobia
Skin eruption
1912
Hyperuricemia
Hyperammoniemia
Complement C3b is major
Options
Opsonin
Allergen
Allergen
Chemoattractant
Killer disease (SCID) disease is due to mutation affecting degradation of
Options
Hemoglobin.
Cholesterol.
Collagen.
Purines.
The major opsonin is
Options
C3b
C5b
C5b
C5b
Killer disease (SIDS) is due to deficiency of enzyme
Options
Xanthine oxidase.
HGPRT.
PDH.
Complement C5b is major for
Options
Opsonization
1913
Chemotaxis
All of the following components are involved in classical pathway activation of complement
factors, EXCEPT
Options
Adipsin
Complement C4
Complement C1
Immunoglobulins
All of the following components are involved in alternative pathway activation of

complement factors, EXCEPT
Options
Liopolysaccharides.
Immunoglobulins.
All of the following statements about phenylketonuria are correct EXCEPT
Options
Formation of MAC on the surface of pathogen’s membrane is result of
Options
Complement C3a is major
Options
Opsonin
Allergen
Antigen
1914
Chemoattractant
Tyrosine would be essential amino acids in the diet of a child with
Options
Huler’s syndrome
One of the clinical features of multiple myeloma patients is renal failure that may be due to
Options
Myeloma M-protein is
Options
Paraprotein
Misfolding protein
Complement 9
For a substance to be classified as mutagen it must cause
Options
A change in DNA
Enzyme to denature
Enzyme inhibition
MRNA be produced
What is specific biochemical profile of multiple myeloma patients?
Options
1915
Regarding structure of protein
Options
Proteins are polymers of α- and β-amino acids
Bence-Jones proteinuria can appear in patient with
Options
Ochronosis
Wilson disease
Multiple myeloma
Morfan syndrome
The confirm the multiple myeloma diagnosis it is necessary to determine the following
substance in the patient’s urine
Options
Ceruloplasmin
Bence-Jones protein
Bilirubin
The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of.
Options

molecule by salt (B)Diminished protein-protein interaction
Bence-Jones protein is detected in the urine by
Options
Nitroprusside test
Heat test
Biuret test
1916
Salting out test
True about ATP synthase are all, EXCEPT
Options
γ subunit rotate
A 70-year old man presented with back pain, osteoporosis, hypercalciemia and loss of
weight. On examination he has anemic. Serum analysis: Albumin 30 g/L
(normal: 35-50 g/L) Hemoglobin 8.5 g/dl (normal 13-18 g/dl) Serum protein electrophoretic
pattern revealed a paraprotein in the γ-globulin region of IgG series.
Urine analysis: Bence-Jones protein was present. What your mostly likely diagnosis?
Options
Multiple myeloma
Cystic fibrosis
Coenzyme Q in the Electron transport chain
Options
Oxidizes glucose
Transfers electrons
Reduced NADH
In chemiosmosis, ATP is produced as H+ pass through:
Options
ATP synthase
ATP decarboxylase
During aerobic respiration oxygen is
Options
Oxidized
1917
Catabolized
Reduced
Formed
Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by
Options
Cyanide
Phenobarbital
Carbonated beverage
35 – year-old woman has normal blood glucose level, but increase concentration of glucose
in the urine. This condition may be bind with
Options
Defect in SGLT-2
Defect in SGLT-1
Diffusion of glucose inside the RBCs requires
Options
ATP
Proton gradient
Patient with defect of GLUT -1 has all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Hemolytic anemia
Defect in SGLT - 1 may accompanying with decrease absorption of
Options
Glucose
1918
Fatty acids
Amino acids
Cholesterol
Which of the following bacteria act by increasing cAMP?
Options
Salmonella
Vibrio cholera
Staphyloccus aureus
L-coli stable
High concentration of glucose content in oral rehydration drugs is necessary for
Options
After overnight fasting levels of glucose transporters is decreased in
Options
Neurons
Adipocytes
Hepatocytes
Erythrocytes
Peptide bonds present in
Options
Lactase
Lactose
Glucose
Cholesterol
Each organism has unique combination of characteristics encoded in molecules of.
Options
Vitamins
Carbohydrates
1919
Lipids
Protein
Phenylalanine is precursor of
Options
Histamine
Tyrosine
Aspartate
Methionine
MRNA is copied from DNA during a process called
Options
Replication
Transcription
Translation
Processing
The sugar found in DNA is
Options
Xylose
Ribose
Ribulose
Erythrose
following, EXCEPT.
Options
Albumin
Oxaloacetic acid
Linoleic acid
Glutamic acid
Free ammonia is released during
Options
Transamination
1920
Amination
All of these
Extremely sensitive to ammonia toxicity
Options
Nervous system
Erythrocytes
Reproductive system
Ammonia transported from the muscle to liver mainly in the form of
Options
Aspartate
Alanine
Excess ammonia in the cells inhibits TCA cycle due to depletion of
Options
Fumarate
Malonate
Citrate
α-ketoglutarate
The liver only is able to form urea because in other tissues absent enzyme
Options
Arginase
In response to metabolic acidosis biosynthesis of enzyme glutaminase increases in
Options
Liver
Brain
Kidney
1921
Skin
NH3 is detoxified in muscles to
Options
Urea
Creatinine
Alanine
Uric acid
NH3 is detoxified in brain to
Options
Urea
Creatinine
Uric acid
Glutamine
Liver’s specific enzyme is
Options
Protein kinase
Hexokinase
Arginase
Citrate synthase
Organ that produces ammonia that is involved in the maintenance of acid-base balance
Options
Pancreas
Liver
Kidney
Stomach
The significance of urea cycle is to
Options
Detoxify ammonia
1922
Increased level of blood ammonia is risk factor for development of
Options
Encephalopathy
Edema
Anemia
Fatty liver
All of the following statements about glutamine is correct EXCEPT
Options
Sources of ammonia
Toxic compounds
Present in brain
Blood urea increase in all of the following EXCEPT
Options
Renal failure
Liver cirrhosis
Which of the following compound is precursor of urea?
Options
Pyrimidines
Cholesterol
Purines
Ammonia
Oxidative deamination is the conversion of an amino
Options
Depletion of α-ketoglutarate during increased ammonia influx leads formation of
1923
Options
Arginine
Glutamine
Histamine
Ornithine
Dietary deficiency of vitamin B6 significantly affects the metabolism
Options
An example of a transamination process is
Options
Transamination is the process where
Options
None of the above
The most toxic compounds is
Options
Tyrosine
Phenylpyruvate
Lysine
Phenylalanine
In the normal metabolism of phenylalanine, it is initially converted to
Options
1924
Fumarate
Tyrosine
Lysine
Phenylpuruvate
Melanine is derived from
Options
Cholesterol
Tyrosine
Bilirubin
Leucine
All of the following are synthesized from tyrosine, EXCEPT
Options
Melanin
Aldosterone
Thyroxin
Epinephrine
Homogentisic oxidase deficiency leads all of the following, EXCEPT
Options
Black urine
Albinism
Arthritis
Ochronosis
Phenylketonuria (PKU) patient can not convert
Options
Phenol to ketones
A person with phenylketonuria cannot convert phenylalanine to
Options
Isoleucine
1925
Lysine
Tyrosine
Serine
Question (1/320)
Options
Aspartam
Glucose
Fat
Cholesterol
Catecolamines are derived from
Options
Bilirubin
Tyrosine
Palmitic acid
Cholesterol
Phenylalanine rich diet are
Options
Fruits
Vegetables
Juice
Meat
Which one of the following statements about albinic person is false?
Options
Mental retarded
Maple syrup urine disease is an inborn error of metabolism of
Options
1926
Saturated fatty acids
Branched chain amino acids
Cystinuria is due to
Options
Ochronosis is a feature of ?
Options
Albinism
Alkaptonuria
Phenylketonuria
Tyrosinosis
What are repeating units of DNA
Options
Bases
Nucleotides
Sugars
Phosphates
Human DNA rich by nucleotides ?
Options
A-T
G-C
A-U
None of the above
Bacterial DNA rich by nucleotides?
Options
A-T
G-C
1927
A-U
None of the above
Purine base is ?
Options
Uracil
Thymine
Guanine
Cytosine
A purine nucleotide is ?
Options
AMP
UMP
CMP
TMP
The symptoms of retinol excess are
Options
Bone fragility
Nausea
Weakness
All of these
Main function of insulin hormone is to
Options
Ascorbic acid acts as an
Options
Reducing agent
Oxidizing agent
Oxidizing and reducing agent both
1928
None of the above
A deficiency of thiamin produces the disease known as
Options
Beri-beri
Scurvy
Cataract
Anemia
Acyl carrier protein (ACP) plays an important role in the biosynthesis of
Options
Fatty acids
Amino acids
Sugars
Carbohydrates
Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) is only synthesized by
Options
Fishes
Micro-organisms
Plants
Animals
Which of the following are reduced coenzymes?
Options
NADH and FADH2
NAD+and FAD
ATP and GTP
The absence of ascorbic acid in the human diet gives rise to
Options
Rickets
Pernicious anemia
Cataract
Beri-beri
1929
Vitamins are essential because the organism
Options
Can't synthesize these compounds at all
Can synthesize these compounds partially
None of the above
The prosthetic group biotin is a carrier of which type of molecule?
Options
Ammonia
Methyl group
Sulfhydryl group
Lipoic acid exists in
Options
Oxidized form
Reduced form
None of these
Vitamins B12 is useful in the prevention and treatment of
Options
Pernicious anemia
Scurvy
Cataract
Beri-beri
An example of a digestive hormone is
Options
Lipase
Pepsin
Amylase
Gastrin
1930
In the co-enzyme B12 the position occupied by a cyanide ion in vitamin B12 is bonded
directly to _______ of the ribose of adenosine.
Options
Adenine
Hydroxycobalamin
Cyanocobalamin
The complex of RNA polymerase, DNA template and new RNA transcript is called
Options
Replication bubble
None of these
RNA polymerase in prokaryotes has a removable
Options
Alpha subunit
Beta subunit
Gamma subunit
Sigma subunit
Promoters for tRNAs are located
Options
Both(a) and (b)
None of these
The binding of lac repressor to DNA could be considered to be analogous to
Options
Competitive inhibition of an enzyme
Mixed-type inhibition of an enzyme
Uncompetitive inhibition of an enzyme
Allosteric efforts in enzyme regulation
1931
Rho-dependent termination of transcription in E. coli
Options
Requires ATP
Both(a) and (b)
Enhancers are regions that
Options
Bind RNA polymerase
The conformational changes from the T to the R state is initiated by
Options
An allosteric activator
Options
Decreases the R state of the protein
Stabilizes the M state of the protein
Bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) cannot bind to the oxygenated R state of hemoglobin because
Options
Its binding pocket becomes too small to accommodate BPG
BPG binds to the R state with the same affinity as the T state
The Hill coefficient (nH) for myoglobin and hemoglobin are respectively
1932
Options
2.8 and 1.0
1.0 and 2.8
1.2 and 4.5
4.5 and 1.2
When protein binds two ligands in a non-cooperative manner, then the x-intercept of the
Scatchard Plot is
Options
Not defined
None of the above
O2 binding to hemoglobin results in
Options
Extensive lipid confirmational change
In hemoglobin, allosteric effects occur
Options
Only in humans
For maintaining Fe in the Fe2+ state
A protein that binds two ligands in a non-cooperative manner will show
Options
A circular Scatchard Plot
A 'L ' shaped binding curve
Small molecules affect hemoglobin (Hb) by
1933
Options
Increasing [H +]
The specificity of a ligand binding site on a protein is based on
Options
Histidine is degraded to a-ketoglutarate and is described as a
Options
Gluco amino acid
Which of the following amino acids is considered as both ketogenic and glucogenic?
Options
Valine
Tryptophan
Lysine
None of these
A glucogenic amino acid is one which is degraded to
Options
Keto-sugars
None of the above
Which of the following is the best described glucogenic amino acid?
Options
1934
Lysine
Tryptophan
Valine
None of these
A person with phenylketonuria cannot convert
Options
Phenol into ketones
Oxidative deamination is the conversion of an amino,
Options
An example of a transamination process
Options
Aspartate + a ketoglutarate = glutamate + oxaloacetate
Transamination is the process where.
Options
None of the above
The most toxic compounds is.
Options
Tyrosine
1935
Phenylpyruvate
Lysine
Phenylalanine
Options
Fat containing food
Glucose
Aspartame
Tyrosine is degraded to acetoacetyl CoA and fumarate and is described as a
Options
Transaminase enzymes are present in
Options
Liver
Pancreas
Intestine
None of these
An example of the oxidative deamination is
Options
In the normal breakdown of phenylalanine, it is initially degraded to
Options
Fumarate
Tyrosine
1936
Lysine
Phenylpuruvate
Transamination is the transfer of an amino
Options
Lysine is degraded to acetoacetyl CoA and is described as a
Options
None of these
A ketogenic amino acid is one which degrades to
Options
Keto-sugars
or acetoacetyl CoA
A best described ketogenic amino acid is
Options
Lysine
Tryptophan
Valine
None of these
A person suffering from phenylketonuria on consumption food containing high

Options
Phenylalanine
Phenylpyruvate
1937
Tyrosine
Isoleucine
Which of those immunoglobulin classes is mainly found in external secretions?
Options
IgA
IgD
IgM
IgE
Cleavage of an lgG molecule by a specific protease can produce
Options
Papain digest lgG into
Options
Antibodies can be used
Options
For protein purification
To catalyze chemical reactions
All of the above
Type A blood
Options
Can be used to donate to type AB individuals
1938
Which of the following are responsible for immune specificity?
Options
Antigens
Antibodies
T lymphocytes
Macrophage
Which species lack immunoglobulin light chains?
Options
Camels
Humans
Cows
Buffalo
Monoclonal refers to
Options
All of the above
β-Lymphocytes are often called simply
Options
B cells
Tcells
T Lymphocytes
None of these
IgE provides
Options
All of the above
1939
Fab fragment has
Options
The main function of antibodies is to
Options
Chemically combine with the antigen which induces it, inactivate the antigen and protect
the body from disease
Alum is an effective adjuvant because it
Options
A secondary antibody is an antibody that
Options
Has been used in prior experiments
The immunoglobulin fold is
Options
Found only in IgG molecules
A fl-barrel composed of a three- and a four-stranded antiparallel fl-sheet
Found only in IgM molecules
1940
For specific antigen recognition by T cells,
Options
Antigen, when injected in the body activates its specific lymphocytes in the
Options
Blood circulation
A molecule that can be covalently linked to a non-immunogenic antigen to make it an

immunogen is called a (n)
Options
Adjuvant
Carrier
Hapten
Mitogen
Which of the following is incorrect with regard to antigen epitopes?
Options
Very low doses of antigen may induce
Options
Hypersensitivity
Immunological ignorance
Low zone tolerance
Low zone immunity
1941
During the lag period between antigen contact and detection of adaptive immunity,
Options
marrow
Options
Blood stre
Bone marrow
Liver
Lymph nodes
A pathogen can be a (n)
Options
Agent that causes a disease
Virus
Bacteria
All of All of these
CD antigens
Options
A virus vaccine that can activate cytotoxic T cells must contain
Options
A high dose of virus particles
An adjuvant to stimulate T cell division
Live virus
Virus peptides
1942
The ability of an antigen to induce an immune response does not depend on the antigen's
Options
Dose
Size
The antibiotic penicillin is a small molecule that does not induce antibody formation.
However, penicillin binds to serum proteins and forms a complex that in
some people induces antibody formation resulting in an allergic reaction. Penicillin is

therefore
Options
An antigen
Ahapten
An immunogen
Membrane potential and the proton gradient
Options
The irreversibility of the thiokinase reactions (formation of initial acyl-CoA?
Options
Is NOT due to the subsequent hydrolysis of the product
Applies only to even-chain amino acids
Long-chain fatty acids are oxidized step-wise in one carbon units starting from the
Options
Carboxyl end
Aliphatic end
Aromatic end
1943
Amino end
How many molecules of acetyl-CoA are produced in oxidation of palmitic acid (C16), which
involves seven rounds of oxidation?
Options
The oxidation of methanol ( wood alcohol) in human retina tissue leads directly to the
formation of
Options
Formaldehyde
Sugars
C02
None of these
Options
Fat
Protein
Glycogen
Starch
The oxidation of methanol (wood alcohol) in human retina tissue indirectly leads to
Options
Pressure builds up
Colour blindness
Blindness
All of these
Each cycle of fl-oxidation produces
Options
1944
The three identical b subunits of the F1, complex during ATP synthesis have
Options
Different affinities for ADP but not for ATP
Different affinities for ATP and for ADP
Where the acyl-CoA formed in the cytosol is transported for oxidation?
Options
Microsomes
Remains in cytosol
The transport of acyl-CoA for oxidation using a shuttle involves formation of the
intermediate
Options
3 acetyl-CoA
Aldehyde-coenzyme A
Acyl-coenzyme A
None of these
Fructose is metabolized by
Options
Fructose I-phosphate pathway
Fructose 8-phosphate pathway
Galactose pathway
A common way that cells capture the energy released during the breakdown of large
molecules is to add electrons to smaller, specialized molecules that can
accept them. This process of electron acceptance is otherwise known as
Options
Biosynthesis
Metabolism
1945
Reduction
Catalysis
Humans are unable to digest.
Options
Starch
Denatured proteins
Cellulose
How many ATP equivalents per mole of glucose input are required for gluconeogenesis?
Options
glycogen metabolism?
Options
NAD+
Acetyl-CoA
Gluconeogenesis requires a higher amount of ATP equivalents as compared to that

produced by glycolysis because
Options
All of the above
Which of the following is carried out when cAMP functions as a second messenger?
Options
Acts second in importance to AMP
1946
The production or break down of ______ is often coupled with the metabolic reactions of
Options
Aspirin
DNA
ATP
C02
The cells dependent solely on glucose as an energy source are
Options
Muscle cells
Brain cells
Kidney cells
Liver cells
The main site for gluconeogenesis is
Options
Kidney
Liver
Brain
Muscle
Which of the following statements about the energy needs of cells is false?
Options
Many cellular reactions have an associated activation energy
The most usable energy for cells comes from the rapid combustion of glucose
In lysozyme catalysis, which of the following does not contribute?
Options
1947
Cellulose fibers resemble with the protein structure in the form of
Options
B-sheets
A-helices
B-turns
None of these
During vigorous exercise, pyruvate produced by glycolysis is converted to
Options
Acetate
Lactate
Monosodium phosphate
Pyruvic acid
Glucagon and epinephrine
Options
The NAG6 substrate is hydrolyzed by human lysozyme to form
Options
6 glucosamines + 6 acetic acids
NAG4 + NAG2
NAG3 + NAG3
NAG3
Gluconeogenesis uses
Options
1948
Saliva contains all of the following EXCEPT :
Options
Hormones
Amylase
Antibodies
The conversion ofpyruvate to oxaloacetate
Options
Requires biotin
All of the above
Gluconeogenesis is the
Options
Breakdown of glycogen to glucose
Synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors
Hydrolysis oflactose yields
Options
Two major products of pentose phosphate pathway are
Options
FAD and CoA
NADPH and NAD
1949
A catabolic intermediate which stimulates phosphofructokinase would stimulate.
Options
Gluconeogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogen synthesis
None of these
Pyruvate is initially converted to which of the following in the gluconeogenesis?
Options
Glycerol
Oxaloacetate
Acetyl CoA
Boat and chair conformations are found
Options
In pyranose sugars
The conversion of pyruvate to lactate is catalysed by
Options
Pyruvate dismutase
Which of the following can act as precursors for gluconeogenesis?
Options
Lactate
Glycerol
Alanine
All of these
A-amylose is similar to
1950
Options
B-sheets
B-turned coils
A-helices
Storage polysaccharide made by animals is.
Options
Amylopectin
Glycogen
Cellulose
Collagen
The glycosidic bond
Options
In sucrose is not hydrolyzed by bees
In maltose is not hydrolyzed in fructose intolerant humans
The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is
Options
Ribose
Galactose
Mannose
Maltose
Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase to
Options
Acetyl CoA
Lactate
Which of the following is not a disaccharide?.
Options
1951
Amylose
Cellobiose
Lactose
None of these
Hexokinase activity in glycolysis is inhibited by
Options
Phosphofructokinase
The ultimate source of energy that sustains living systems is
Options
Glucose
Oxygen
Sunlight
Carbon dioxide
Citric acid accumulation would
Options
Stimulate phosphofructokinase activity
Stimulate fructose 1,6 diphosphatase activity
Do not Inhibit phosphofructokinase activity
Stimulate phosphoglycerate activity
Which of the following is not involved in the biosynthesis of DNA?
Options
Energy from ATP
Mononucleotides
Carbonic anhydrase
Enzymes
Which of the following would be considered a part of metabolism?.
Options
1952
All of the above
INSULIN
Options
What is present in the stomach to prevent self-digestion?
Options
Mucus
Acid
Enzymes
Hormones
Small charged molecules, often biogenic amines function as
Options
Hormones
Neuroinhibitors
Enzyme associations
Enzyme denaturation
SH2 domains specifically bind to
Options
GDP
Ca2+
Simple nerve reflexes use signaling molecules called
Options
Neurotransmitters
Nitric oxides
1953
G proteins
Proteases
Which of the following is not a type of signaling molecule
Options
Testosterone
Insulin
Thyroxin
Adenylate cyclas
Self-phosphorylation is an excellent mechanism for triggering specific catalytic function of

the proteins involved in signal cascades because it
Options
None of the above
Which of the following statements about G proteins is false?
Options
When a................. reaches its......................here is a specific means of receiving it and acting

on the message. This task is the responsibility of specialized
proteins called _____
Options
Signaling molecule; receptor; G proteins
Signaling molecule; target cell; G proteins
Why is it that inhaling nitric oxide reduces blood pressure only in the lung tissue and not
elsewhere in the body*?
Options
1954
None of the above
Which of the following comes under the category of cell surface receptor?
Options
All of these
Which of the following is true about a hydrophilic signaling molecule?
Options
It is a steroid
CAMP and cGMP are derived from
Options
ATP and GTP by the actions of adenylate cyclase and guanylate cyclase respectively
respectively
ATP and GTP by the actions of guanylate cyclase and adenylate cyclase respectively
None of the above
Nitroglycerin has long been administered to human patients suffering from chronic chest
pain (angina). This medication works because it
Options
Mimics the action of signal receptors
Is broken down into hormones that affect the heart
If a disease of the blood vessels caused the endothelial cells of the vessel to die, what effect
would that have on the cellular activities associated with
1955
vasodilation?
Options
All of the above
In terms of cell communication, what do bacterial pathogens such as cholera and anthrax
have in common?
Options
What is the name of the protein signaling molecule that alters glucose uptake, and where
would its receptors be located?
Options
PDGF; the blood
NGF; the nerves involved in simple reflexes
In the signal transduction mechanism known as protein phosphorylation
Options
The signaling molecule binds to a surface receptor
All of the above
Cell signaling can be classified into
Options
Three distinct types based on the distance over which the signaling molecules act
None of the above
1956
Which of the following statement is correct?
Options
Cell communicate with one another in multicellular organisms using extracellular signaling
molecules or hormones
antigen and antibody
molecules only
antigen and antibody
In vasodilation, proper nerve signals sent to blood vessels cause
Options
All of the above
A cell is known to respond to a particular signaling molecule. Which of the following must be
true of this cell?
Options
It is in the heart muscle
It is also the site of production for the signaling molecule
The enzyme that catalyzes the splitting of PIP2 into two molecules of inositol triphosphate
(IP3) and diacylglycerol in cell signaling, is
Options
Phosphokinase C
Phospholipase C
Phosphodiesterase C
Lipokinase
The binding ofligands to many G-proteins linked receptors leads to shortlived
Options
1957
Increase in the concentration of certain intracellular signaling molecules called second
messenger

messenger

messenger

messenger
Which of the following processes involve the combining of a message from one signaling
molecule with that of another o either enhance or inhibit a cellular
effect?
Options
Signal transduction
Signal reception
Signal integration
A signal cascade induced by adrenaline or thyroxine
Options
Results in the activation of a sequence of enzymes needed for the cell effect
All of the above
Which of the following is a second messenger?
Options
Diacyl inositol
Phospholipase C
Deoxy acetophosphate C
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Options
are prostaglandins
1958
None of the above
Two key organizing principles for large multicellular organisms are
Options
Which of the following is a hormone whose action requires a cell surface receptor?
Options
Nitric oxide
Progesterone
Adrenaline
Growth factors
The hormone or ligand can be considered as
Options
First messenger
Second messenger
Third messenger
Fourth messenger
The major second messengers are
Options
CAMP
CGMP
DAG
All of these
The signaling molecules called steroid hormones
Options
Are made in one location of the body but have their effects some distance away
1959
Which of the following two organelles look most alike structurally?
Options
Nucleus and vesicle
In terms of basic cell structure, what do an elephant and an oak tree have in common?
Options
They both are eukaryotes
They both have a cell nucleus
All of the above
Where in a eukaryotic cell, DNA can be found?
Options
Nucleus
Cytoplasm
Vacuole
Cell junction
Which of the following structures is expected in a bacterium?
Options
Nucleus
Plasma membrane
Golgi apparatus
Which of the following organelles is directly connected to the outer membrane of the
nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?
Options
Mitochondrion
Lysosome
Golgi apparatus
1960
Microtubules, motor proteins, and actin filaments are all part of
Options
The rough ER (endoplasmic reticulum) in prokaryotic cells
The cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells
The process that moves small molecules across cell membranes
A certain cell organelle which is made of a double phospholipid bilayer that has many large
pores in it, is most likely
Options
The plasma membrane
The mitochondrion
The cytoskeleton
Which of the following cell organelles are expected to be associated with motor proteins?
Options
Smooth ER
Vesicles
Plasma membrane
Chloroplasts
Eukaryotic cells are more efficient than prokaryotes because their internal
Options
An organism’s first line of defense against attack by an invader such as a virus or bacterium
is usually
Options
To flee or hide
Its body wall
1961
The simplest way to differentiate a prokaryotic cell from a eukaryotic one is to
Options
Look for a plasma membrane
See if a nucleus is present
Which of the following is the best criterion for deciding whether a cell is prokaryotic or
eukaryotic?
Options
Lysosomes are specialized vesicles in __________ that contain digestive enzymes for the
breakdown of food. A related organalle known as a vacuole, which is
found in __________ , also contains enzymes but in addition may act as a storage organelle
for nutrients or water.
Options
The highly folded membranes found in such eukaryotic organelles as mitochondria and
chloroplasts
Options
Thin layer chromatography is
1962
Options
None of the above
In gas chromatography, the basis for separation of the components of the volatile material is
the difference in
Options
Conductivity
Molecular weight
Molarity
In reverse phase chromatography, the stationary phase is made
Options
Non-polar
Polar
None of these
Ion exchange chromatography is based on the
Options
The general expression for the appearance of a solute in an effluent is (where V is the
elution volume of a substance , V0 void volume, kD distribution constant
and Vi internal water volume)
Options
V = V0 + kDVi
V = V0/Vi
V = V0 – kDVi
V/V0 = kDVi
1963
The HIV virus infects primarily
Options
Brain cells
Red blood cells
Liver cells
Chronic granulomatous disease results from a failure to perform oxidative burst. This
deficiency would be most likely to interfere with
Options
Difficulties with somatic gene therapy arise from all of the following except
Options
A monoclonal antibody (mAb) specific for the 2,4-dinitrophenyl (DNP) hapten might also
bind
Options
Leu or Ileu
His or Pro
Tyr or Phe
Ser or Thr
Retinoblastoma is due to a mutation in a
Options
Kinase
Tumor supressor
Cyclin
Viral gene
1964
An autoimmune disease is
Options
AIDS
Measles.
Lupus
Mumps
If Class IIMHC is not expressed in the thymus, the resulting immune deficiencies would
include all of the following except reduced
Options
IgG synthesis
Specific translocations are associated with
Options
Colon cancer
Breast cancer
Pancreatic cancer
Some leukemias
To treat HIV infections using drugs, the major problem is that
Options
The drugs that are good inhibitors cannot by synthesized
The drugs interfere with normal digestion
The primary reason for AIDS, a deadly disease is that it
Options
1965
A selective IgA deficiency would be expected to result in problems with
Options
Mucosal pathogens
Combined cellular and humoral immune deficiencies result from lack of all of the following
except
Options
A thymus
Class II MHC
An example of an immunodeficiency disorder is
Options
Thyroiditisthyroiditis
Rheumatic fever
AIDS
Bone marrow given to an infant with SCID must
Options
X-linked hyper IgM syndrome, resulting in high levels of serum IgM and low levels of serum
IgG, is caused by a defect in CD40L expression. The specific
Options
1966
DiGeorge’s syndrome is characterized by the lack of a thymus The mouse model closest to
this human disease would be a
Options
Nude mouse
Which of the Rous sarcoma virus has a homologous cellular protein?
Options
C-src
V-src
V-ha-src
V-ha-ras
Infants are most susceptible to bacterial infection due to low circulating levels of IgG
Options
The chemical, typically released by the body in an allergic response is
Options
Histamine
Allergens
Antihistamines
Perforins
The accepted hypothesis for DNA replication is
Options
Conservative theory
Dispersive theory
1967
Evolutionary theory
When DNA polymerase is in contact with guanine in the parental strand, what does it add to
the growing daughter strand?
Options
Phosphate
Cytosine
Uracil
Guanine
Telomeres are usually rich in which nucleotide?
Options
Adenine
Guanine
Thymine
Cytosine
Which is the largest among the followings?
Options
Nucleotide
Nitrogenous base
Phosphate
Carbon
The chromosomal DNA complexes with
Options
Taylor, Woods and Hughes labeled Vicia DNA by allowing new DNA synthesis in the presence
of radioactive thymine. After DNA replication (S phase of the
Options
Only one chromatid of a chromosome was labeled
Both chromatids of a chromosome were labeled
1968
Only one chromatid of two chromosome was labeled
In DNA double helix, the two DNA chains are held together by
Options
None of the above
The 5ʹ and 3ʹ numbers are related to the
Options
The base pair rule
Messelsen and Stahl model of replication was called
Options
Cri du Chat
The most common liquid volumes in molecular biology are measured in
Options
Ml
μl
Nl
DNA replication takes place in which direction?
Options
3ʹ to 5ʹ
5 ‘to 3’
. Randomly
1969
DNA gyrase in E. coli
Options
Adds positive supercoils to chromosomal DNA
Can be inhibited with antibiotics
In DNA, there are
Options
In DNA, guanine pairs with
Options
Adenine
Cytosine
Thymine
Uracil
Which of the following is incorrect?
Options
In DNA double helix, two strands of the DNA are bound with each other with the bases
Adenine always pairs with thymine
Guanine always pairs with the cytosine
None of the above
What is the only common methylation in the DNA of eukaryotes?
Options
None of the above
1970
DNAs when charged, migrate in a gel towards the
Options
Positive pole
Negative pole
Will not migrate
None of these
What is the approximate size (in kb) of the E. coli genome?
Options
3000 kilobase
4500 kilobase
5500 kilobase
6500 kilobase
In the study of one experiment it was found that the value of Tm for DNA is = 40° C. If the
cell has 20% GC at the above Tm, then what will be value of ‘Tm’ if
the GC% increases to 60%?
Options
Remains same
Increases
Decreases
Can not be compared
What is the range of melting point temperatures (Tm) for most DNA molecules?
Options
50 to 60°C
60 to 80°C
70 to 90°C
80 to l00°C
Enzyme-driven metabolic pathways can be made more efficient by
Options
Concentrating enzymes within specific cellular compartments
1971
All of the above
Which of the following (s) is/are serine proteases?
Options
Chymotrypsin
Trypsin
Elastase
All of these
Which of the following statements about enzymes or their function is true?
Options
All of the above
Tryprotophan synthetase of E.coli, a typical bifunctional oligomeric enzyme consist of
Options
What is the specificity of the Clostripain protease?
Options
It cleave after Lys residues
None of the above
The proteolysis rate enhancement by chymotrypsin (~1010 folds) corresponds to a reduction

in activation energy of about
Options
40 kJ/mol
49 kJ/mol
58 kJ/mol
1972
88 kJ/mol
Which of the following is false statement with regard to comparison between Serine and HIV
proteases?
Options
In the enzyme-catalyzed reaction shown below, what will be the effect on substances A, B, C,
and D of inactivating the enzyme labeled E2? A —(E1)—> B —
(E2)—> C —(E3)—>
Options
The nucleophile in serine proteases is
Options
Serine
Threonine
Aspartate
Asparagine
The role of Asp 102 and His 57 during trypsin catalysis is to
Options
The cleavage specificity of trypsin and chymotrypsin depend in part on the
Options
1973
The E.coli pyruvic acid dehydrogenase complex is reported to
Options
Catalyze the oxidation of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co A and CO2
Retard the reduction of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co A and CO2
Which of the common features are shared between serine and aspartate proteases?
Options
All of the above
Before they can react, many molecules need to be destabilized. This state is typically
achieved through y
Options
Changing the three-dimensional shape of the molecule
Oxidizing the molecules by removing electrons
Common feature in all serine proteases is a
Options
Which of the following is the basis of first dimension of separation for two-dimensional
electrophoresis?
Options
Molecular mass
Solubility
1974
Isoelectric point
Folding
What is meant by rotating frame of reference?
Options
individual magnetic moment vectors are fixed in space
None of the above
The sequence of amino acids in proteins can be determined by means of
Options
Partial cleavage of the original polypeptide into smaller polypeptides
All of the above
Why is it advantageous to record many FID signals from the same sample and then add them
together?
Options
None of the above
In FT-NMR, how are nuclei excited?
Options
By radio-frequency radiation whose frequency is swept across a predetermined range
By an intense pressure
None of the above
What is the name given to the relaxation process due to an interaction between an excited
nucleus and the magnetic fields caused by nuclei in molecules moving
around in the sample?
Options
1975
None of these
Cytochrome C has an isoelectric pH of
Options
8.5
10.05
7.5
11.05
What does the Michelson interferometer do?
Options
Modulate the I.R. signal at a lower frequency, so that it can be observed by a detector
None of the above
In scanning electron microscopy
Options
A specimen is not fixed and then coated with thin layer of a heavy metal
None of the above
The frequency of precession, the transition frequency and the Larmor frequency are
Options
How do you turn a signal recorded in the time domain into a frequency domain signal?
Options
1976
None of the above
How many possible orientations do spin 1/2 nuclei have when they are located in an applied
magnetic field?
Options
In immunofluroscence microscopy, fluroscent compounds are attached to
Options
None of these
An FT-IR instrument record a signal in the
Options
Time domain
Frequency domain
Wavelength domain
Obstructive domain
When radiation energy is absorbed by a spin 1/2 nucleus in a magnetic field, what happens?
Options
The angle of precession flips so that the magnetic moment of the nucleus opposes the
applied field
None of the above
Negative staining is a technique used in
Options
Electron microscopy
1977
Gel electrophoresis
Immunocytochemistry
Light microscopy
Which of the following is not used for detection in GC?
Options
NMR
Flame ionisation
Which of these effects result from slow injection of a large sample volume?
Options
Decreased resolution
Constant resolution
The GC trace obtained after an experiment is called a
Options
Chromatograph
Chromatogram
Chromatophore
Graph
Which of the following detectors give concentration-dependent signals?
Options
Infra-red detector
All of these
What useful information can be found from a Van Deemter plot?
Options
The selectivity factor
Optimum mobile phase flow rate
1978
What is the typical internal diameter of fused silica capillary columns?
Options
0.2-0.3 mm
0.3-0.5mm
0.5-1.0 mm
1.0-2.0 mm
Resolution is proportional to the
Options
Derivatisation of a sample is carried out to
Options
All of the above
Which of the statements is correct?
Options
All of the above
In column switching chromatography
Options
The flow to the column is switched on and off repeatedly
1979
Any of the above
A retention gap is placed between the injector and the front of the column to
Options
All of the above
Which of the following detectors give mass flow-dependent signals?
Options
All of the above
Headspace analysis is carried out in order to
Options
Split injection is carried out by
Options
Splitting the sample into smaller portions to inject sequentially
Splitting the sample into smaller portions to inject at the same time through parallel ports
None of the above
Theoretical plates are used to
Options
None of the above
1980
What does the selectivity factor describe?
Options
None of the above
Helium is generally preferred as carrier gas over nitrogen and hydrogen because
Options
It is inert
All of above
What are the benefits of decreasing the column internal diameter?
Options
All of the above
Sample retention in the column is measured by
Options
Retention time
Retention factor
Retention index
All of these
Column bleeding occurs when
Options
Which of the following are not used as stationary phases in a GC column?
1981
Options
Polysiloxanes
Silica
Cyclodextrins
Doubling the column’s length increases resolution by a factor of
Options
(2)0.5
Sample injection is considered successful if
Options
All of the sample in the injector has been added to the column
The sample is concentrated at the start of the column
Which of the following gases is unsuitable for use as a GC carrier gas?
Options
Nitrogen
Helium
Oxygen
All of the above
In an SDS-PAGE
Options
All of the above
Proteins can be visualized directly in gels by
Options
1982
None of these
In SDS-PAGE, the protein sample is first
Options
Treated with a reducing agent and then with anionic detergent followed by fractionation
by electrophoresis
Fractionated by electrophoresis then treated with an oxidizing agent followed by anionic

detergent.
electrophoresis
None of the above
Electrophoresis of histones and myoglobin under non-denaturing conditions (pH = 7.0)

results in
Options
In isoelectric focusing, proteins are separated on the basis of their
Options
Size
In a native PAGE, proteins are separated on the basis of
Options
Net negative charge
Net charge and size
Net positive charge
1983
The subunit molecular weight as well as the number of subunits in the quaternary structure
can be determined by
Options
Proteins are separated in an SDS-PAGE experiment on the basis of their
Options
Positively charged side chains
Molecular weight
Which of the following techniques was carried out by Nirenberg and Matthaei in 1961 to
determine the first codon?
Options
None of the above
Bacterial protein called catabolic activator protein (CAP) is an example of
Options
Negative control of gene expression
Positive control of gene expression
None of the above
How many different codons are possible?
Options
20
64
An infinite number
1984
The genetic code is
Options
Universal
Species-specific
Kingdom-specific
Which of the following has been used as an evidence that primitive life forms lacked both
DNA and enzymes?
Options
All of the above
Crick demonstrated that the genetic code involved three bases and suggested that the code
was degenerated. What experimental technique Crick conducted to
suggest genetic code degeneration?
Options
Gel electrophoresis
Codon that specify the amino acids often differs in the
Options
First base
Second base
Third base
None of these
In some organelles in eukaryotes, the genetic code for some codons
Options
Are same
Are partially same
1985
None of the above
The codons which do not specify an amino acid are called
Options
Initiation code
Termination code
Propagation code
None of these
The genetic code is degenerated. Which of the following codons represents the principle of
degeneracy?
Options
UAA and UAC
AUG and AUA
CAU and CAC
UUA and UUC
The sequence of one strand of DNA is: 5ʹ ATTGCCA 3ʹ, what is the sequence of the other
strand?
Options
5ʹ TAACGGT 3ʹ
5′ TGGCAAT 3′
5ʹ ATTGCCA 3ʹ
5ʹ UAAGCCU3ʹ
In prokaryotes, AUG encodes
Options
Methionine
N-formyl methionine
A stop codon
Alanine
How many amino acids will be encoded by 5ʹ GAU GGU UGA UGU 3ʹ sequence?
Options
One
Two
Three
1986
Four
In protein synthesis in prokaryotes
Options
The initiating amino acid is methionine
The initiating amino acid is phenyl alanine
None of the above
AUG codes for methionine act as a
Options
Initiation code
Elongation code
Termination code
Propagation code
Glycolytic pathway regulation involves
Options
All of the above
During catabolism, only about 40% of the energy available from oxidizing glucose is used to
Options
Is lost as heat
Is stored as fat.
Why does the glycolytic pathway continue in the direction of glucose catabolism?
Options
There are essentially three irreversible reactions that act as the driving force for the
pathway
The enzymes of glycolysis only function in one direction
1987
Glycolysis occurs in either direction
The released energy obtained by oxidation of glucose is stored as
Options
ADP
ATP
NAD+
A kinase is an enzyme that
Options
For every one molecule of sugar glucose which is oxidized __________ molecule of pyruvic
acid are produced.
Options
In the glycogen synthase reaction, the precursor to glycogen is
Options
Glucose-6-P
UTP-glucose
UDP-glucose
Glucose-1-P
The active form of glycogen phosphorylase is phosphorylated, while the dephosphorylation

of which active form occurs?
Options
Glycogen synthase-P
Glycogen hydrolase
1988
The enzymes of glycolysis in a eukaryotic cell are located in the
Options
Intermembrane space
Plasma membrane
Cytosol
When concentration of the reactants is higher than the equilibrium concentration then
Options
Less products will be formed
The gibbs free energy will be both positive and Negative
Which of the following is not true of glycolysis?
Options
The pathway oxidizes two moles of NADH to NAD+ for each mole of glucose that enters
The pathway requires two moles of ATP to get started catabo-lizing each mole of glucose
In glycolysis, ATP is formed by the transfer of a high-energy phosphate from

1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to ADR No such highenergy phosphate donor has ever
been isolated in mitochondria because
Options
None of the above
ATP is from which general category of molecules?
Options
Polysaccharides
Proteins
1989
Nucleotides
Amino acids
The glycolytic pathway (glucose ? 2 pyruvate) is found
Options
Only in eukaryotes
Only in yeast
Biochemistry - Fat soluble vitamins
• 1. Carboxylation of clotting factors by vitamin K is
required to be biologically active. Which of the
following amino acid is carboxylated?
Histamine
Histidine
Aspartate
Glutamate+
1990
• 2. Most powerful chain breaking antioxidant:
Alpha tocopherol+
Vitamin C
• 3. An ophthalmologist has detected increased time of
dark adaptation in a patient. What vitamin deficiency
can result in such symptom?
K•
A+
1991
D1
• 4. The patient has mucosal dryness and mesopic vision
disorder. What vitamin deficiency causes
thesesymptons?
A+
• 5. A patient consulted an ophthalmologist about
deterioration of twilight vision and xerophthalmus.
What drug should the doctor prescribe?
Tocopherol
1992
Pyridoxine
Ascorbic acid
Retinol+
• 6. Vitamin E deficiency causes all except:
•Degenaration of muscle
Sterility
Megablastic anemia
Chelosis+
• 7. The most potent vitamin D metabolite is
25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
1993
1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol+
24, 25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
7-Dehydrocholesterol
• 8. Tocopheryl radical is converted to Tocopherol by
which vitamin?
Vitamin E
Niacin
Vitamin D
Vitamin C+
•• 9. An elderly woman complains of twilight vision
impairment. Which of the following vitamins should be
administered in this case?
1994
•
A+
• 10. Vitamin K is involved in posttranslational
modification of the blood clotting factors by acting as
cofactor for the enzyme:
Decarboxylase
Carboxylase+
Oxidase
1995
Hydroxylase
• 11. In the crystalline lens, level of tocopherol and
Ascorbate is maintained by
Glucose
Fatty acid
Glycoprotein•
Glutathione+
• 12. Vitamin K is involved in the post-translational
modification of:
Glutamate
Proline+
1996
Aspartate
Alanine
• 13. Which of the following is true about Vitamin K?
Chronic use of antibiotics lead to deficiency of Vitamin K+
Vitamin K deficiency manifest as multiple thrombotic
episodes
• 14. Most abundant form of Pro Vit A is:
Cryptoxanthine
Beta carotene+•
1997
•
Lycopene
Alpha carotene
• 15. All the following have antioxidant action except:
Vitamin E
Selenium
Vitamin A
Vitamin D+
• 16. Which of the following is true about vitamin K?
Prothrombin is a vitamin K dependent factor+
Vit K dependent factors undergo post-transcriptional
1998
modification
Menadione is a natural water insoluble vitamin K used in
clinical practice
• 17. Vitamin synthesized by bacterial in the intestine is
D•
K+
• 18. An important function of vitamin A is
to prevent hemorrhages
1999
•
to play an integral role in lipid synthesis
to act as coenzyme for a few enzymes
to maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue+
• 19. On exposure to light rhodopsin forms
retinol
all trans-retinal+
cis-retinal
retinoic acid
• 20. Vitamin K is a cofactor for
•Synthesis of tryptophan
2000
•
Gamma carboxylation of glutamic acid residue+
Formation of γ-amino butyrate
β-Oxidation of fatty acid
• 21. The β-ring of 7-dehydrocholesterol is cleaved to form
cholecalciferol by
Light of the tube lights
Ultraviolet irridation with sunlight+
Dim light
Infrared light
• 22. Retinal is a component of
2001
Rhodopsin+
iodopsin
glycoproteins
cardiolipin
•• 23. Which vitamin is synthesized in the body?
Vitamin B3+
Thiamine
Vitamin B12
Riboflavin
• 24. Vitamin A intoxication cause injury to:
2002
Microtubules
Lysosomes+
Mitochondria
• 25. Vitamin K is required for:
Carboxylation+
Transamination
Hydroxylation
Chelation•
• 26. Which Vitamin is required for carboxylation of clot
ting factors?
2003
•
Vitamin A
Vitamin E
Vitamin D
Vitamin K+
• 27. All are true about vitamin D metabolism, except:
In absence of sun light, the daily requirement is 400- 600 IU
per day
Williams syndrome is associated with mental retardation,
precocious puberty and obesity+
2004
• 28. Function of vitamin A:
Cell growth
Healing epithelial tissues
Protein synthesis regulation•
All of these+
• 29. The functionally active form of vitamin D is
dehydrocholesterol
cholecalciferol
ergocalciferol
2005
Calcitriol+
• 30. Active form of Vitamin D is:
25-0H vit-D
Cholecalciferol
1, 25(0H) 2vit-D+
24, 25(0H) 2vit-D
• 31. Which coenzyme acts as reducing agent in anabolic
reaction?
FMNH2
NADPH+
••
FADH2
2006
•
NADH
Biochemistry - Vitamins 1/2
• 1. During examination of an 11-month-old infant a
pediatrician revealed osteoectasia of the lower
extremities and delayed mineralization of cranial bones.
Such pathology is usually provoked by the deficit of the
following vitamin:
Thiamine
Bioflavonoids
Cholecalciferol+
Riboflavin
• 2. Name the active form of vitamin whose level in the
blood is depended on the secretion rate of parathyroid
hormone:
2007
Ascorbic acid
Thiamine
Calcitriol+
Tocopherol
•• 3. There is an inhibited coagulation in the patients with
bile ducts obstruction, bleeding due to the low level of
absorption of vitamin. What vitamin is in deficiency?
K+
2008
• 4. Symptoms of pellagra (vitamin PP deficiency) is
particularly pronounced in patients with low protein diet,
because nicotine amide precursor in humans is one of
the essential amino acids, namely:
Threonine
Tryptophan+
Lysine
Arginine
• 5. A patient who was previously ill with mastectomy as a
result of breast cancer was prescribed radiation therapy.
What vitamin preparation has marked radioprotective
action caused by antioxidant activity?
Tocopherol acetate+
2009
Thiamine chloride•
Riboflavin
Ergocalciferol
• 6. Choose the vitamin which is important in
non-oxidative decarboxylation, transamination and
transsulfuration reactions from the following list:
Pantothenic acid
Pyridoxine+
Riboflavin
Thiamine
• 7. Choose the vitamin that contains the isoalloxazine
fragment in its structure:
2010
•
Thiamine
Riboflavin+
Ubiquinone
Pyridoxine
•• 8. A patient is diagnosed with chronic atrophic gastritis
attended by deficiency of Castle`s (intrinsic) factor.
What type of anemia does the patient have?
Protein-deficiency anemia
Iron-deficiency anemia
Megoblastic anemia
Pernicious anemia+
2011
•
• 9. Find out the fat-soluble vitamin whose function is
hormone-similar one:
Vitamin K
Vitamin D+
Vitamin E
Vitamin C
• 10. A woman who has been keeping to a clean-rice diet
for a long time was diagnosed with polyneuritis. What
vitamin deficit results in development of this disease?
Riboflavin
Thiamine+
2012
Ascorbic acid•
Folic acid
• 11. A 10-year-old girl often experiences acute respiratory
infections with multiple hemorrages in the places of
clothes friction. Hypovitaminosis of what vitamin is in
this girl organism?
B1
B2
C+
• 12. Most participants of Magellan expedition to America
died from avitaminosis. This disease declared itself by
general weakness, subcutaneous hemmorhages, falling
of teeth, gingival hemmorhages. What is the name of
2013
this avitaminosis?
Polyneuritis (beri-beri)
Rachitis
Scurvy+
Biermer's anemia
• 13. Find out the enzyme name whose activity is
depended on the presence of vitamin B2:•
Succinate dehydrogenase+
2014
•
• 14. A 9-month-old infant is fed with artifical formulas
with unbalanced vitamin B6 concentration. The infant
presents with pellagra dermatitis, convulsions, anaemia.
Convulsions development might be caused by the
disturbed formation of:
DOPA
Dopamine
Histamine
GABA+
• 15. Examination of a patient with frequent hemorrhages
from internals and mucous membranes revealed proline
and lysine being a part of collagen fibers. What vitamin
absence caused disturbance of their hydroxylation?
Thiamine
2015
•
Vitamin A
•Vitamin C+
Vitamin K
• 16. Find out the vitamin whose deficiency is associated
with disturbed transamination of amino acids:
Thiamine
Pyridoxine+
Folic acid
Rutin
• 17. A 2-year-old child has got intestinal dysbacteriosis,
which results in hemorrhagic syndrome. What is the
2016
most likely cause of hemorrhage of the child?
PP hypovitaminosis
Vitamin K insufficiency+
Fibrinogen deficiency
Activation of tissue thromboplastin
• 18. Point out the enzyme which doesn’t contain biotin as
coenzyme:
Pyruvate dehydrogenase+•
Propionyl-CoA carboxylase
2017
•
• 19. Point out the place of intrinsic factor of Castle
production:
Duodenum
Stomach+
Lower jejunum
Terminal ileum
• 20. A number of disorders can be diagnosed by
evaluation activity of blood transaminases. What
vitamin is one of cofactors for these enzymes?
B5
B1
2018
B6+
B2Biochemistry - Water soluble vitamins
• 1. The collagen defect present in scurvy is
Increased number of glycine in the collagen structure
Decreased protein stability due to decreased hydroxylation
of proline and lysine+
• 2. Biotin is a cofactor of:
Oxidase
Oecarboxylase
2019
•
Carboxylase+
Hydrolase
• 3. Megaloblastic anaemia seen in:
Citrullinemia
MSUD•
Orotic aciduria+
• 4. Vitamin B1 deficiency has a negative effect on a
number of processes. This is caused by the dysfunction
of the following enzyme:
2020
•
Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex+
Aminotransferase
Glutamate
• 5. Pantothenate Kinase associated neurodegeneration
is:
Mcleod syndrome
Mcleod syndrome
Wilson's disease
Hallervorden-Spatz syndrome+
• 6. Which of the following statement about Thiamine
true?
2021
•
Its coenzyme function is done by thiamine monophoshate
•It is a coenzyme of lactate dehydrogenase
It is coenzyrne for pyruvate dehydrogenase and a-keto
glutarate dehydrogenase+
Its deficiency is associated with scurvy
• 7. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes all except:
Neural tube defect+
Demyelination
2022
• 8. Which of the vitamin deficiency lead to lactic
acidosis?
Riboflavin
Thiamine+
Panthothenic acid
Niacin
•• 9. Post-translation modification of hydroxylysine and
hydroxyproline is performed by:
Vit K
Vit C+
Vit D
2023
Vit E
• 10. Not needed in TCA cycle:
Niacin
Riboflavin
Thiamine
Pyridoxine+
• 11. Antioxidant Vitamin is:
Thiamine
Riboflavin
Niacin
2024
•
Beta carotene+•
• 12. Vitamin B12 acts as coenzyme to which one of the
following enzymes?
Glycogen synthase
Homocysteine methyl transferase+
• 13. Vitamin for which RDA is based on protein intake is:
Pyridoxine+
Thiamine
Niacin
2025
•
Riboflavin+
• 14. Sebhorreic Dermatitis Is produced by deficiency of:
Vitamin A
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B2+
••
Vitamin C
• 15. The proxidant action of Vitamin C is potentiated by:
Selenium
Copper+
Iron
2026
•
Calcium
• 16. Which of following vitamins required for formation of
hydroxyproline?
vitamin K
vitamin H
vitamin C+
vitamin A
• 17. The patient has hypovitaminosis PP. What amino
acid taken with meals partially compensates patient’s
need for vitamin PP?
Arginine
2027
Tryptophan+•
Methionine
Valine
Phenylalanine
• 18. Vitamin which ls excreted in urine is?
Vitamin D
Vitamin K
Vitamin E
Vitamin C+
• 19. Severe thiamine deficiency is associated with:
2028
Decreased RBC transketolase activity+
• 20. Vitamin deficiency causing mental disorder?
•Biotin
Thiamine+
Niacin
Riboflavin
• 21. Vitamin deficiency causing dementia:
2029
Biotin
Thiamine
Pyridoxine
Vitamin B12+
• 22. Neurological worsening with anemia what is the
treatment to be given?
Folic acid along with hydroxycobalamin+
Folic acid alone
Pyridoxine
Iron
•• 23. Cobalt is present in which vitamin?
2030
•
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B12+
• 24. A 50-yrs-old male with symptoms of fatigue and he
has swelling of feet and loss of sensations in legs and
anaemia. He also has dilation of ventricle and high
cardiac output state. What is the vitamin deficiency
associated with this presentation
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B2
2031
Vitamin B3
Vitamin B1+
• 25. Biotin act as a coenzyme for all except:
Glutamate to gamma carboxy glutamate+
Pyruvate to oxaloacetae•
• 26. A vitamin derived from amino acid is:
Folic acid
Pantothenic acid
2032
Biotin
Niacin+
• 27. Which among the following cause generalized
oedema?
Vitamin B2
Vitamin B12
Vitamin A
Vitamin B1+
• 28. False about folic acid:
It is proven to decrease the occurrence of neural tube
defects when taken preconceptionally
2033
Wheat flour in India is fortified with folate as in USA+•
• 29. Isoniazid toxicity can be prevented by the vitamin
Vitamin B1
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B6+
Vitamin B3
• 30. Vitamin given in pregnant women to prevent neural
tube defect:
Vitamin B2
2034
•
Vitamin B12
Vitamin B2
Folic acid+
• 31. A patient demonstrates symmetrical dermatitis on
the palms. A doctor made a diagnosis of pellagra.What
vitamin deficiency can result in such symptoms?
Nicotinic acid+•
Folic acid
Ascorbic acid
Cobalamin
• 32. A patient presents with weakening of the inhibitory
2035
processes of CNS which is associated with disturbed
production of gamma-aminobutyric acid. What
substance is the GABA precursor?
Glutamate+
Tryptophane
Methionine
Glycin
Valine
• 33. A mineral which can generate free radical are all
except:
Selenium+
2036
Copper
Nickel•
Cobalt
• 34. Vitamin B is not required for:
Glycogen phosphorylase+
Leucine ammo mutase
Methionine synthase
• 35. Thiamine act as a cofactor in
2037
Pyruvate to acetyl CoA+
• 36. Site of absorption of Vitamin B12:
Stomach
Duodenum
•Ileum+
Jejunum
• 37. Excess of avidln causes deficiency of:
Biotin+
2038
Choline
Vitamin B12
Folate
• 38. Thiamin requirement increases in excessive intake
of:
Lecithin
Carbohydrate+
Fat
Amino acid
• 39. Pantothenic acid containing coenzyme is involved
in:
2039
Decarboxylation
•Acetylation+
Dehydrogenation
Carboxylation
• 40. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy
production because:
It is a coenzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate
pathway
It is a coenzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha
2040
ketoglutarate dehydrogenase+
• 41. Vitamin deficiency causing circum corneal
vascularization is:
Vitamin D
Biotin
Thaimine
Riboflavin+
1. The correct statement concerning RNA and DNA polymerases is
RNA polymerase use nucleoside diphosphates
RNA polymerase require primers and add bases at 5’ end of the growing polynucleotide
chain
DNA polymerases can add nucleotides at both ends of the chain
All RNA and DNA polymerases can add nucleotides only at the 3’ end of the growing
polynucleotide chain
2. The carbon of the pentose in ester linkage with the phosphate in a nucleotide structure is
C1
C2
C4
2041
C5
3. The first codon to be translated on mRNA is
GGU
AUG
GGA
AAA
4. Peptidyl transferase activity is located in
Ribosomal protein
A soluble cytosolic protein
Elongation factor
A charged tRNA molecule
5. mRNA is complementary to the nucleotide sequence of
tRNA
Coding strand
Template strand
Ribosomal RNA
6. The enzyme DNA ligase
Connects the end of two DNA chains
Unwinds the double helix
Synthesises RNA primers
Introduces superhelical twists
7. Direction of RNA synthesis is
3ʹ → 5’
5ʹ → 3’
Both (A) and (B)
None of these
8. Reverse transcriptase is capable of synthesising
DNA → RNA
RNA → DNA
RNA → RNA
DNA → DNA
2042
9. Amino acid is attached to tRNA at
5’-End
3’-End
Anticodon
DHU loop
10. Translation results in a product known as
tRNA
mRNA
rRNA
Protein
11. Ribonucleotides of RNA primer are replaced by deoxyribonucleotides by the enzyme:
DNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase II
DNA polymerase III
All of these
12. The nucleic acid base found in mRNA but not in DNA is
Adenine
Guanine
Cytosine
Urasil
Deoxyribonucleotides are added to RNA primer by
DNA polymerase I
DNA polymerase II
DNA polymerase III
All of these
14. The most abundant free nucleotide in mammalian cells is
NAD
GTP
ATP
FAD
15. A nucleoside consists of
2043
Nitrogenous base
Purine or pyrimidine base + sugar
Purine or pyrimidine base + phosphorous
Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar +phosphorous
16. The unwound strands of DNA are held apart by
Single strand binding protein
Double strand binding protein
Rep protein
DNAA protein
17. The α-amino group of the new amino acyl tRNA in the A site carries out a nucleophilic
attack on the esterified carboxyl group of the peptidyl tRNA occupying the P site. This
reaction is catalysed by
DNA polymerase
RNA polymerase
DNA ligase
18. Genetic code is
Overlapping
Non-overlapping
Not universal
Ambiguous
19. Genetic code is
Collection of codon
Collection of amino acids
Collection of purine nucleotide
Collection of pyrimidine nucleotide
20. Okazaki fragment is related to
DNA synthesis
Protein synthesis
mRNA formation
tRNA formation
21. Negative supercoils are introduced in DNA by
2044
Helicase
DNA ligase
DNA gyrase
DNA polymerase III holoenzyme
22. Nonsense codons are present on
mRNA
tRNA
rRNA
None of these
23. Genetic information flows from
DNA to DNA
DNA to RNA
RNA to DNA
DNA to cellular proteins
24. Introns in genes
Encode the amino acids which are removed during post-translational modification
Encode signal sequences which are removed before secretion of the proteins
Are the non-coding sequences which are not translated
Are the sequences that intervene between two genes
25. Peptidyl transferase activity is located in
Elongation factor
A charged tRNA molecule
Ribosomal protein
A soluble cytosolic protein
26. In DNA replication the enzyme required in the first step is
DNA directed polymerase
Unwinding proteins
DNA polymerase
DNA ligase
27. AUG, the only identified codon for methionine is important as
A releasing factor for peptide chains
2045
A chain terminating codon
Recognition site on tRNA
A chain initiating codon
28. The nucleophilic attack on the esterified carboxyl group of the peptidyl-tRNA occupying
the P site and the α-amino group of the new amino acyl tRNA, the number of ATP required
by the amino acid on the charged tRNA is
Zero
One
Two
Four
Initiation of protein synthesis requires
ATP
AMP
GDP
GTP
28. Although each specific tRNA differs from the others in its sequence of nucleotides, all
tRNA molecules contain a base paired stem that terminates in the sequence CCA at
3ʹ Termini
5ʹ Termini
Anticodon arm
3ʹ5ʹ -Termini
29. After formation of replication fork
Both the new strands are synthesized discontinuously
One strand is synthesized continuously and the other discontinuously
Both the new strands are synthesized continuously
RNA primer is required only for the synthesis of one new strand
30. Amino acid is attached to tRNA at
5’-End
3’-End
Anticodon
DHU loop
31. Streptomycin prevents synthesis of polypeptide by
2046
Inhibiting initiation process
Releasing premature polypeptide
Inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity
Inhibiting translocation
32. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase requires the following for its catalytic activity:
Mg++
Mn++
Both (A) and (B)
None of these
33. Erythromycin acts on ribosomes and inhibit
Formation of initiation complex
Binding of aminoacyl tRNA
Peptidyl transferase activity
Translocation
34. Okazaki pieces are made up of
RNA
DNA
RNA and DNA
RNA and proteins
35. Replication of DNA is
Conservative
Semi-conservative
Non-conservative
None of these
36. The carbon of the pentose in ester linkage with the phosphate in a nucleotide structure
is
C1
C2
C4
C5
37. A nucleotide consists of
2047
A nitrogenous base like choline
Purine or pyrimidine base + sugar
Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar +phosphorous
Purine or pyrimidine base + phosphorous
38. DNA fragments are sealed by
DNA polymerase II
DNA ligase
DNA gyrase
DNA topoisomerase II
39. Anticodons are present on
Coding strand of DNA
mRNA
tRNA
rRNA
40. In RNA molecule guanine content does not necessarily equal its cytosine content nor
does its adenine content necessarily equal its uracil content since it is a
Single strand molecule
Double stranded molecule
Double stranded helical molecule
Polymer of purine and pyrimidine ribonucleotides
41. In nucleotides, phosphate is attached to sugar by
Salt bond
Hydrogen bond
Ester bond
Glycosidic bond
42. In DNA molecule
Guanine content does not equal cytosine content
Adenine content does not equal thymine content
Adenine content equals uracil content
Guanine content equals cytosine content
43. DNA does not contain
2048
Thymine
Adenine
Uracil
Deoxyribose
44. Uracil and ribose form
Uridine
Cytidine
Guanosine
Adenosine
45. Cyclic AMP can be formed from
AMP
ADP
ATP
all of these
46. Degeneracy of genetic code implies that
Codons do not code for specific amino acid
Multiple codons must decode the same amino acids
No anticodon on tRNA molecule
Specific codon decodes many amino acids
47. 5’-Terminus of mRNA molecule is capped with
Guanosine triphosphate
7-Methylguanosine triphophate
Adenosine diphosphate
48. The amino terminal of all polypeptide chain at the time of synthesis in E. coli is tagged to
the amino acid residue:
Serine
Methionine
N-formal serine
N-formyl methionine
2049
Biochemistry - 7.Metabolism of nucleoproteins
and protein biosynthesis.
Lesch-Nyana syndrome
glycogenosis
phenylpyruvic oligophrenia
gout
beriberi
dihydroxyuracil
phosphoric acid
thymine
deoxyribose
uric acid
adenine
urea
hydrogen peroxide
reparation
translation
transcription
replication
MAGE
TAG
cAMP
DAG
2050
cytoplasm
ribosomes
mitochondria
nucleus
7. What is the sequence of steps of protein synthesis?
initiation of an active amino acids → elongation→ termination → postsynthetic modification

of proteins
activation of amino acids → initiation→ elongation → termination → postsynthetic

postsynthetic modification of proteins →termination → elongation →initiation
initiation → elongation → activation of amino acids →termination → postsynthetic

cytosine
guanosine
adenosine triphosphate
uracil
9. The end product of the breakdown of purine nucleosides in humans is
hypoxanthine
xanthine
uric acid
10. Which enzyme is catalyzed reaction of the activation of amino acids in the protein
biosynthesis?
carbamoyl
replicase
DNA synthetase
an aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
11. The end product of the breakdown of purine nucleosides in humans is
xanthine
hypoxanthine
uric acid
urea
2051
12. What is the mutation?
changes in the mRNA
a change in the genome
changes in the t-RNA
changes in the p-RNA
13. What is the continuity of the genetic code?
the absence of signals indicating the end of a single polypeptide chain and the start of
another
absence of signals indicative of the end and the start codon of one another in the tRNA
the absence of signals indicative of the end and the start codon of one another in m-RNA
the presence of signals indicating the end and the start codon of one another in m-RNA
14. Final step in the translation – is binding Okazaki fragments
modification of the polypeptide chain
initiation of protein synthesis
elongation of the polypeptide chain of the protein
termination of protein synthesis;
xanthine
beta alanine
inosinic acid
uric acid
termination
recognizing
processing
elongation
17. Specify the function of reverse transcriptase / reverse transcriptase
catalyzes the biosynthesis of DNA on a template of RNA
catalyzes the biosynthesis of an RNA template RNA
catalyzes the biosynthesis of DNA on template DNA
catalyzes the biosynthesis of RNA on template DNA
2052
18. The part of the large subunit of the ribosome, which localizes the growing peptide chain
is called:
aminoacyl
peptidyl
the TATA portion
initiation
19. Which substance is a second messenger in the action of glucagon?
d-GMP
d-AMP
c-AMP
d-CMP
biosynthesis of protein on mRNA.
transport of mRNA to ribosomes;
transport of amino acids to the ribosomes;
biosynthesis of daughter chain of DNA;
nucleotides in the DNA
nucleotides in rRNA
amino acids in the protein H1
nucleotides in tRNA
linearity, continuity, unambiguity, degeneracy, the presence of a nonsense codon
linearity, continuity, degeneracy, versatility
non-linearity, continuity, unambiguity, degeneracy, versatility, availability of nonsense

codons
linearity, continuity, unambiguity, degeneracy, versatility, availability nonce codons
23. For what properties of the genetic code is characteristic expression: "the meaning of
universality
unambiguity
specificity
2053
linearity
24. Which property of the genetic code corresponds to the expression: a single amino acid
can encode several triplets:
specificity
flexibility
the triplet
the degeneracy
transcription
translation
replication
reparation
Biochemistry - Water and salt metabolism

1. Which of the following are target tissues for aldosterone?
liver
hypothalamus
kidney
adrenal glands
2. The metabolism of sodium is regulated by the hormone:
Somatostatin
PTH
Insulin
Aldosterone
3. Vasopressin (ADH)
Decreases excretion of calcium
Enhance facultative reabsorption of water
Decreases reabsorption of water
Increases excretion of calcium
4. Enhanced facultative reabsorption of water by Vasopressin is mediated by
Cyclic AMP
Mg++
2054
Cyclic GMP
Ca++
5. The physiologically active form of calcium is
Protein bound
Complexed with carbonate
Complexed with citrate
Ionised
6. The water produced during metabolic reactions in an adult is about
400 ml/day
100 ml/day
600 ml/day
700 ml/day
7. The predominant cation of plasma is
Na+
Mg++
K+
Ca++
8. Which of the following hormone participate in regulation of water balance?
aldosterone
oxitocin
cortisol
vasopressin
9. The principal cation in extracellular fluid is
Calcium
Magnesium
Potassium
Sodium
10. The principal cation in intracellular fluid is
Sodium
Potassium
Magnesium
2055
Calcium
11. The daily water allowance for normal adult (60 kg) is about
1500-2000 ml
800-1500 ml
200–600 ml
500-800 ml
12. The predominant anion of plasma is
SO4 - -
Cl-
HPO4-
HCO3–
Biochemistry - Biochemistry of bood
1. Which of the following cations is required for the conversion of prothrombine into active
thrombine?
Mg2+
Mn2+
Fe2+
Ca2+
2. There are several dozens of proteins in blood plasma of healthy individuals. New proteins
may appear in blood during various diseases, in particular "acute phase proteins." One of the
following proteins belongs to this group:
Immunoglobulin А
С-Reactive protein
Prothrombin
Immunoglobulin G
3. Symptoms of liver cirrhosis with ascites and edema of lower extremities appeared in a
patient who had hepatitis C and constantly consumed alcohol. Which changes in blood
composition underlied edema development?
Hypokaliemia
Hypoalbulinemia
Hypoglycemia
Hypoglobulinemia
2056
4. Point out the main blood plasma protein, participating in the blood oncotic pressure
maintaining:
Ceruloplasmin
Albumin
Globulin
Hemoglobin
5. All of blood plasma proteins are transporters EXCEPT one in this list. Choose it:
Fibrinogen
Albumin
Transferrin
Ceruloplasmin
6. Metabolic acidosis is observed in patient` organism due to the accumulation of:
Pyruvate
Sodium ions
Glucose
Fructose
7. In diabetes mellitus the activation of fatty acid oxidation leads to ketosis. Which disorders
of acid-base balance can lead to excessive accumulation of ketone bodies in the blood?
Respiratory acidosis
There will be no changes
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis
8. A patient with acute pancreatitis had a threat of pancreatic necrosis, which was
accompanied by the release of active pancreatic proteinases into the bloodstream and
tissues and breakdown of tissue proteins. Which protective factor can inhibit such
processes?
Immunoglobulin
α1-antitrypsin
Cryoglobulin
Ceruloplasmin
9. Which physical and chemical property of protein is the base of the method of
electrochemical determination of blood protein spectrum?
Presence of charge
2057
Viscosity
Аbility to be denaturated
Hydrophility and ability to swell
10. Which blood plasma protein binds and transports copper?
Ferritine
Ceruloplasmin
C-reactive protein
Transferrin
11. The content of total protein in blood plasma is normal. Which of the below -mentioned
parameters corresponds to physiological norms?
50-60 g/L
55-70 g/L
65-85 g/L
33-45 g/L
12. Which fraction of blood globulins provides humoral immunity performing a function of
antibodies?
α1-Globulins
β-Globulins
Cryoglobulins
γ-Globulins
13. Human red blood cells do not contain mitochondria. What is the main pathway for ATP
production in these cells?
Creatine kinase reaction
Kreb's cycle
Aerobic glycolysis
14. Choose the anticoagulant normally present in the blood plasma:
Heparin
Vitamin K
Hyaluronidase
Dicumarol
Biochemistry of kidney
2058
1. Which is a physiological constituent of urine
Glucose
Creatinine
Albumin
Globulins
2. The effect of antidiuretic hormone ( ADH ) on the kidney is to :
increase the diameter of the renal artery
increase the excretion of water
increase the excretion of Na+
increase the permeability of the distal nephron to water.
3. Urine may change its colour due to presence of:
keton bodies
glucose
urea
bilirubin
4. An increase in the concentration of plasma potassium causes increase in:
secretion of ADH
secretion of aldosterone
production of angiotensin II .
release of natriuretic hormone
release of renin
5. Select the correct answer about proximal tubules :
only 10% of the filtered water is reabsorbed
glucose , amino acids & proteins are completely reabsorbed
parathormone increase phosphate reabsorption .
K+ is secreted in exchange with the Na+ which is reabsorbed under the effect of aldosterone
6. A biochemical urine analysis has been performed for a patient with progressive muscular
dystrophy. In the given case muscle disease can be confirmed by the high content of the
following substance in urine:
Urea
Hippuric acid
2059
Creatinine
Creatine
7. One way of acid-base balance maintenance in organism by means of kidney is ammonia

salts formation. Point out the enzyme in kidney that takes part in this process:
Arginase
Alanine amino transferase
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
Glutaminase
8. Decrease of pH of the urine is observed in:
diabetes insipidus
cystitis
starvation
liver disorders
9. Amino acids are almost completely reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate via active
transport in the :
loop of Henle
distal tubule
proximal tubule
collecting duct
10. Increased content of ketone bodies in the urine is observed in:
low-carbohydrate diet
protein free diet
high-carbohydrate diet
protein rich diet
11. Which of the following is not the functions of Са2+ ions in the organism?
participation in the process of blood coagulation
participation in the transmission of nerve impulses
participation in the activation of hormones
regulation of the acid-base balance
12. Which of the following are functions of angiotensin II?
decreases reabsorption of Na+ in kidney
causes vasodilatation
2060
increases reabsorption of Na+ in kidney
decreases reabsorption of Ca++ in kidney
13. The amount of potassium excreted by the kidney will decreases if :
distal tubular flow increases
Na+ reabsorption by the distal nephron decreases
dietary intake of potassium increase
the excretion of organic ions increase .
14. In the distal tubules, sodium reabsorption is increased directly by increased:
aldosterone secretion
antidiuretic hormone secretion
sympathetic nerve stimulation of the kidney .
atrial natriuretic hormone secretion
15. Point out the pathological urine component that appears in the urine during nephritis
Amino acids
Protein
Uric acid
Urea
16. Name organic compound which is terminal for humans and not reabsorbed in renal
tubules:
Glucose
Creatinine
Globulins
Albumin
17. Proteinuria is observed in:
nephrosis
increased blood pressure
diabetes mellitus
diabetes insipidus
18. Which of the following are effects of atrial natriuretic peptide?
causes vasodilatation
decreases diuresis
2061
causes vasoconstriction
decreases reabsorption of Na+ in the kidney
19. K+ excretion is markedly influenced by :
amount of Na+ delivered to tubules
all of the above .
rate of tubular secretion of H+
aldosterone
20. Most of the glucose that is filtered through the glomerulus undergoes reabsorption in
the :
ascending limb of the loop of Henle
distal tubule
proximal tubule
descending limp of the loop of Henle
21. Most of the glucose that is filtered through the glomerulus undergoes reabsorption in
the:
ascending limb of the loop of Henle
descending limp of the loop of Henle
distal tubule
proximal tubule
22. Which of the following component is normally present in the urine?
Creatinine
Amino acid
Creatine
Glucose
23. Which of the following substances will be more concentrated at the end of the proximal
tubule than at the beginning of the proximal tubule ?
bicarbonate
sodium
creatinine
glucose
24. An increase in the concentration of plasma potassium causes increase in:
secretion of aldosteronef natriuretic hormone
2062
release of renin
production of angiotensin II .
release of natriuretic hormone
25. The hypothalamus will effect the release of ADH in response to all the following stimuli
except :
decreased blood osmolarity
severe hemorrhage
nicotine
dehydration
26. Which one of the following statements about aldosterone is correct?
it is secreted in response to an increase in blood pressure .
it produces its effect by activating C-AMP .
it has its main effect on the proximal tubule .
it produces its effect by increasing membrane permeability to potassium
Select the one that is the best answer:

1) An increase in the concentration of plasma potassium
causes
increase in :
a) release of renin
b) secretion of aldosterone
c) secretion of ADH
d) release of natriuretic hormone
e) production of angiotensin II .
2) Amino acids are almost completely reabsorbed from the
glomerular
filtrate via active transport in the :
a) proximal tubule
b) loop of Henle
c) distal tubule
2063
d) collecting duct
e) renal pelvis
3) Glomerular filtration rate would be increased by :
a) constriction of the afferent arteriole
b) a decrease in afferent arteriolar pressure
c) compression of the renal capsule
d) a decrease in the concentration of plasma protein
e) a decrease in renal blood flow
4) The greatest amount of hydrogen ion secreted by the
proximal
tubule is associated with :
a) excretion of potassium ion
b) excretion of hydrogen ion
c) reabsorption of calcium ion
d) reabsorption of bicarbonate ion
e) reabsorption of phosphate ion
5) In controlling the synthesis and secretion of aldosterone ,
which of
the following factors is least important ?
a) renin
b) angiotensin II
c) concentration of plasma Na
+
d) concentration of plasma K
+
e) adrenocorticotropic hormone ( ACTH ) 6) Renal correction of

acute hyperkalemia will result in :
a) alkalosis
2064
b) acidosis
c) increased secretion of HCO3
-
d) increased secretion of H
+
e) increased secretion of Na
+
7) Most of the glucose that is filtered through the glomerulus

undergoes reabsorption in the :
a) proximal tubule
b) descending limp of the loop of Henle
c) ascending limb of the loop of Henle
d) distal tubule
e) collecting duct
8) Ammonia is an affective important urinary buffer for which
of the
following reasons :
a) its production in the kidney decrease during chronic acidosis
b) the walls of the renal tubules are impermeable to NH3
c) the walls of the renal tubules are impermeable to NH3
d) its acid base reaction has a low pKa
e) none of the above .
9) The amount of potassium excreted by the kidney will
decreases if :
a)distal tubular flow increases
b)circulating aldosterone level increase
c) dietary intake of potassium increase
d)Na
2065
+
reabsorption by the distal nephron decreases

e) the excretion of organic ions increase .
10) In the presence of ADH, The distal nephron is least
permeable to :
a) water .
b) ammonia .
c) urea .
d) sodium .
e) carbon dioxide.
11) Which of the following substances will be more
concentrated at the
end of the proximal tubule than at the beginning of the proximal
tubule ?
a) glucose .
b) creatinine .
c) sodium .
d) bicarbonate .12) When a person is dehydrated, hypotonic fluid
will be found in the:
a) glomerular filtrate .
b) proximal tubule .
c) loop of Henle .
d) distal convoluted tubule .
e) collecting duct .
13)Which one of the following statements about aldosterone is
correct?
a) it produces its effect by activating C-AMP .
b) it produces its effect by increasing membrane permeability to
potassium
2066
c) it causes an increased reabsorption of hydrogen ion.
d) it has its main effect on the proximal tubule .
e) it is secreted in response to an increase in blood pressure .
14) The effect of antidiuretic hormone ( ADH ) on the kidney
is to :
a) increase the permeability of the distal nephron to water.
b) increase the excretion of Na
+
c) increase the excretion of water

d) increase the diameter of the renal artery .
15) In the distal tubules, sodium reabsorption is increased
directly by
increased :
a) sympathetic nerve stimulation of the kidney .
b) atrial natriuretic hormone secretion .
c) antidiuretic hormone secretion .
d) aldosterone secretion
e) angiotensin secretion .
16) The ability of the kidney to excrete a concentrated urine
will
increase if :
a) the permeability of the proximal tubule to water decreases .
b) the rate of blood flow through the medulla decreases .
c) the rate of flow through the loop of Henle increases .
d) the activity of the Na-K pump in the loop of Henle decreases
e) the permeability of the collecting duct to water decreases .
17) The glomerular filtration rate will increase if :
a) circulating blood volume increase .
2067
b) the afferent arteriolar resistance increases .
c) the efferent arteriolar resistance decreases .
d) the plasma protein concentration decreases .18) The volume of
plasma needed each minute to supply a substance at
the rate at which it is excreted in the urine is known as the :
a) diffusion constant of the substance
b) clearance of the substance
c) extraction ratio of the substance
d) tubular mass of the substance
e) filtration rate of the substance .
19) An increase in the osmolarity of the extracellular
compartment
will:
a) stimulate the volume and osmoreceptors , and inhibit ADH secretion
b) inhibit the volume and osmoreceptors , and stimulate ADH secretion .
c) inhibit the volume and osmoreceptors , and inhibit ADH secretion
d) stimulate the volume and osmoreceptors , and stimulate ADH secretion
e) cause no change in ADH secretion
20) Select the correct answer about proximal tubules :
a) K+ is secreted in exchange with the Na+ which is reabsorbed under the
effect of
aldosterone
b) glucose , amino acids & proteins are completely reabsorbed
c) only 10% of the filtered water is reabsorbed
d) parathormone increase phosphate reabsorption .
21) The primary renal site for the secretion of organic ions e.g
urate,
creatinine is :
2068
a) proximal tubule
b) loop of Henle
c) distal tubule
d) collecting duct .
22) Major determinants of plasma osmolarity include all the
following
except:
a) sodium
b) hemoglobin
c) chloride
d) albumin
e) glucose
23) H
+
secretion in the distal nephron is enhanced by all the following

except :
a) an increase in the level of plasma aldosterone
b) an increase in the tubular luminal concentration of poorly reabsorbable
anions
c)hyperkalemia d) metabolic acidosis
e) respiratory acidosis
24) Extracellular bicarbonate ions serve as effective buffer for
all the
following except :
a) sulfuric acid
b) phosphate acid
c) lactic acid
d) carbonic acid
2069
e) ß- hydroxybutyric acid
25) All the following statements are true for the H
+
secreted into
the lumen of the distal nephron except :
a)can combine with NH4
+
b) can combine with HCO3

c) can combine with HPO
d) can remains as free H
e) is secreted by an H
+
- ATP ase pump

26) The glomerular filtration barrier is composed of all the
following
except :
a) fenestrated capillary endothelium .
b) macula densa .
c) basement membrane .
d) podocytes .
e) mesangial cells .
27) The amount of H
+
excreted as titratable acid bound to phosphate

would be increased by all the following except :
a) an increase in the amount of phosphate filtered at the glomerulus .
b) an increase in the pH of the urine .
c)an increase in the dietary intake of phosphate
2070
d) an increase in the level of plasma parathyroid hormone ( PTH )
e) a decrease in the renal tubular maximum ( Tm ) for phosphate
reabsorption .
28) About the proximal convoluted tubules , all are true
except :
a) reabsorb most of Na+ ions in glomerular filtrate
b) reabsorb most of Cl
ions in glomerular filtrate

c) reabsorb most of K
+
ions in glomerular filtrate

d) contains JGCs which secrete renin 29) About urea, all are true
except :
a) concentration rises in tubular fluid as the glomerular filtrate passes
down the
nephron.
b) is actively secreted by the renal tubular cells
c) concentration in the blood rises slightly after a high protein diet
d) causes osmotic diuresis when its blood concentration is increased .
Questions 30 –35:
a. site A b. site B c. site C d. site D E. site E
In this figure, the site at which there is the greatest or highest:
30) Net fluid transport is….
31) Dilution of solutes is….
32) Amino acid reabsorption is….
33) Na+ reabsorption is….
34) Concentration of solutes is….
2071
35) Active Na+ / Cl- is…..
Questions 36 – 38:
Match each of the descriptions below with the appropriate
region of
the kidney :
36) isotonic reabsorption of sodium.
37) site of the active transport system that makes it possible for the
kidneys to
excrete a concentrated urine.
38) A capillary network that is found only in the cortex of the kidney.
A- glomerulus.
B- proximal tubule.
C- ascending limp of the loop of Henle.
D- collecting duct .Key for answers:
Number Answer Number Answer
B
C
C
D
B
B
D
B
A
C
A
A
2072
B
D
A
C
A
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
B
A
D
D
E
2073
B
A
E
D
C
B
D
B
A
D
B
A&D
B
D
B
A
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
2074
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21KidneyTHE MINISTRY OF HEALTH OF UKRAINE
ZAPORIZHZHYA STATE MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

BIOCHEMISTRY & LABORATORY DIAGNOSTICS DEPARTMENT
MCQs in BIOCHEMISTRY
for preparation to test lesson for
MODULE 2. SUBMODULE 4: Biochemistry of
vitamins. Functional biochemistry of organs
and tissues. Biochemical indexes of blood and
urine in diagnostics of metabolic disorders
FOR STUDENTS OF INTERNATIONAL FACULTY
SPECIALTY: 7.12010001 “GENERAL MEDICINE“
ZAPORIZHZHYA 2015The collected tests is recommended to use for students of

international faculty (the second year of study) for independent work at
home and in class.
It is COMFIRMED
on Central Methodological Council of ZSMU
protocol N _2__ “_26_”____11_______ 2015
2075
Editors: Dr.Hab. professor Aleksandrova K.V.
PhD assistant professor Rudko N.P.
PhD associate professor Krisanova N.V.
PhD associate professor Ivanchenko D.G.
Reviewers:
Head of the Organic and Bioorganic Chemistry Department
Professor Dr.Hab. Kovalenko S.I.
Associate professor of Normal Physiology Department
PhD Tihonovskaya M.A.
23
CONTENT
Preface……………………………………………………......... 4
Lesson 10. The role of water-soluble vitamins in the
metabolism of humans. Vitamin similar
substances……………………………………......... 6
Lesson 11. The role of fat-soluble vitamins in the metabolism
of humans. Antivitamins…………………………... 15
Lesson 12. Biochemistry of muscular and connective
tissues……………………………………………… 23
Lesson 13. Biochemistry of nervous tissue………………... 31
Lesson 14. Biochemical functions of the liver at healthy and
diseased people……………………………………. 37
Lesson 15. Xenobiotic transformation in humans. Microsomal
oxidation ………………………………………..… 44
Lesson 16. Biochemistry of blood tissue. Proteins of blood
plasma. Non-Protein components of blood plasma
at healthy and diseased people…………………… 49
Lesson 17. Biochemistry of kidney. The role of kidneys in the
regulation of mineral metabolism. The components
of urine at healthy and diseased
2076
people…………………………………………….... 65
Recommended literature…………………………………......... 72
Answers on MCQs…………………………………………….. 73Вступ

Збірник тестів “MCQs in biochemistry” був складений
викладачами кафедри для використання іноземними студентами 2
курсу міжнародного факультету, які вивчають біохімію
англійською мовою. Цей збірник містить різноманітні тестові
завдання з усіх тем, що включені у змістові модулі 8, 9 та 10
модулю 2 робочої програми навчальної дисципліни «Біологічна
хімія» спеціальність 7.12010001 “Лікувальна справа”. Він може
бути використаний студентами у самостійній роботі під час
підготовки до кожного із занять (тести розділені за заняттями), до
контролю засвоєння субмодулю 4 та до підсумкового контролю
засвоєння модулю 2.
За допомогою тестового матеріалу студенти мають змогу
більш поглиблено освоювати тему, що вивчають, здійснювати
самоконтроль, у разі виявлення незрозумілих для студента питань,
звернутися за допомогою до викладача на практичному занятті. Як
результат такої форми роботи, студент є добре підготовленим до
підсумкового контролю з модулю, до комплексного іспиту та до
ліцензійного іспиту «Крок 1»
Preface
This book has been compiled with main aim to help the II year
students of International Faculty to prepare in systematic way to control
testing on submodule 4 of module 2. It contains more than 304 original
MCQs.
The book is well balanced and consists of multiple choice
questions from all the important topics like: the role of vitamins in the
metabolic processes of humans; biochemistry of muscular, connective
and nervous tissues, xenobiotics metabolism and other important
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biochemical aspects.
This book is recommended to all the students preparing for each
class and control testing on submodule 4 of module 2.
4Module 2 Molecular Biology.

Biochemistry of cell
to-cell interactions, of tissues and
physiological functions
Submodule 4 Biochemistry of
vitamins. Functional biochemistry of
organs and tissues. Biochemical indexes of blood and
urine in diagnostics of metabolic disorders
5Lesson 10. The role of water-soluble vitamins in the
metabolism of humans. Vitamin similar

substances
1. Choose the correct definition of vitamin:
A. Essential food proteins
B. Food factors that cannot be synthesized in human organism
C. Essential biologic amines
D. Organic compounds, containing amino group
E. Essential energy sources
2. Choose the vitamin, whose oxidation results in blue fluorescing
product under UV-light:
A. Pyridoxine
B. Rutin
C. Thiamine
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D. Folic acid
E. Ascorbic acid
3. Choose the vitamin that contains the isoalloxazine fragment in its
structure:
A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Pyridoxine
D. Ubiquinone
E. Naphtoquinone
4. Point out the vitamin, whose deficiency leads to pellagra:
A. Vitamin P
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin B3
E. Vitamin B2
5. Name the metabolic pathway which is in need for vitamins B1, B2,
B3, B5 supplement at the same time:
A. Pentose Phosphate Cycle
B. Glycolysis
C. Urea Cycle
6D. Krebs Cycle
E. Glycogenesis
6. Find out the enzyme name whose activity is depended on the
presence of vitamin B2:
A. Pyruvate carboxylase
B. Succinate dehydrogenase
C. Malate dehydrogenase
D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
E. Citrate synthase
7. The avitaminosis of ascorbic acid is named as:
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A. Cushing`s syndrome
B. Addison`s disease
C. Kwashiorkor
D. Hemolytic anemia
E. Scurvy
8. Propose the main food product to promote the intake of vitamin C:
A. Parsley
B. Black currant
C. Beef
D. Milk
E. Butter
9. Find out the vitamin whose deficiency is associated with disturbed
transamination of amino acids:
A. Pyridoxine
B. Rutin
C. Thiamine
D. Folic acid
E. Ascorbic acid
10. The glycolysis duration is in need for one vitamin, only. Name it:
A. Pyridoxal phosphate
B. Riboflavin
C. Thiamine
D. Nicotinic acid
E. Ascorbic acid
711. Examination of a patient with frequent hemorrhages from internals
and mucous membranes revealed proline and lysine being a part of
collagen fibers. What vitamin absence caused disturbance of their
hydroxylation?
A. Vitamin A
B. Thiamine
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C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin C
12. A woman who has been keeping to a clean-rice diet for a long time
was diagnosed with polyneuritis (beri-beri). What vitamin deficit
results in development of this disease?
A. Folic acid
B. Thiamine
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Riboflavin
E. Pyridoxine
13. Most participants of Magellan expedition to America died from
avitaminosis. This disease declared itself by general weakness,
subcutaneous hemmorhages, falling of teeth, gingival
hemmorhages. What is the name of this avitaminosis?
A. Biermer's anemia
B. Polyneuritis (beri-beri)
C. Pellagra
D. Rachitis
E. Scurvy
14. Pyruvate concentration in the patient's urine has increased 10 times
from normal amount. What vitamin deficiency can be the reason of
this change:
A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin E
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin B1
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15. Hydroxylation of endogenous substrates and xenobiotics requires a
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donor of protons. Which of the following vitamins can play this
role?
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin P
D. Vitamin A
E. Vitamin B6
16. A 10-year-old girl often experiences acute respiratory infections
with multiple hemorrages in the places of clothes friction.
Hypovitaminosis of what vitamin is in this girl organism?
A. A
B. B2
C. B1
D. B6
E. С
17. A 9-month-old infant is fed with artifical formulas with unbalanced
vitamin B6 concentration. The infant presents with pellagra
dermatitis, convulsions, anaemia. Convulsions development might
be caused by the disturbed formation of:
A. Dopamine
B. Histamine
C. Serotonin
D. DOPA
E. GABA
18. A 20-year old male patient complains of general weakness, rapid
fatigability, irritability, decreased performance, bleeding gums,
petechiae on the skin. What vitamin deficiency may be caused of
these changes?
A. Riboflavin
B. Ascorbic acid
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C. Retinol
D. Thiamine
E. Folic acid19. A number of disorders can be diagnosed by evaluation activity of
blood transaminases. What vitamin is one of cofactors for these
enzymes?
A. B6
B. B1
C. B5
D. B2
E. B8
20. Symptoms of pellagra (vitamin PP deficiency) is particularly
pronounced in patients with low protein diet, because nicotine
amide precursor in humans is one of the essential amino acids,
namely:
A. Lysine
B. Threonine
C. Tryptophan
D. Arginine
E. Histidine
21. A 36-year-old female patient has a history of B2-hypovitaminosis.
The most likely cause of specific symptoms (epithelial, mucosa,
cutaneous, corneal lesions) is the deficiency of:
A. Cytochrome oxidase
B. Cytochrome B
C. Cytochrome A1
D. Cytochrome C
E. FAD or FMN
22. A patient is diagnosed with chronic atrophic gastritis attended by
deficiency of Castle`s (intrinsic) factor. What type of anemia does
the patient have?
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A. B12-deficiency anemia
B. Iron-deficiency anemia
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Protein-deficiency anemia
E. Iron refractory anemia
23. The water-soluble vitamins are, in most cases:
A Coenzymes in enzyme systems or precursors of coenzymes
10B Steroids
C Components of blood coagulation system
D A storage form of metabolic fuel
E A transport form of metabolic fuel
24. Vitamin C is in need for certain type of reaction. Choose it.
A. Carboxylation
B. Dehydrogenation
C. Hydroxylation
D. One-carbon transfer
E. Transamination
25. Which of the following vitamins requires the intrinsic factor for
absorption?
A. Folic acid
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin K
26. Choose the vitamin which is important in non-oxidative
decarboxylation, transamination and transsulfuration reactions from
the following list:
A. Riboflavin
B. Thiamine
C. Pyridoxine
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D. Pantothenic acid
E. Folic acid
27. Point out vitamin which is the most indispensable during mitosis:
A. Folic acid
B. Pantotenic acid
C. Ascorbinic acid
D. Aspartic acid
E. Thiamine
28. Which vitamin is related to cofactor in glycine metabolism?
A. Tocopherol
B. Folic acid
C. Thiamine
11D. Cobalamin
E. Pantothenic acid
29. What vitamin takes part in flavoprotein formation?
A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B1
D. Vitamin A
E. Vitamin PP
30. Point out the vitamin that is essential for transamination:
A. B1
B. B2
C. B6
D. B12
E. B9
31. Choose the most stored form of vitamin B12 in human body:
A. Methyl cobalamin
B. Hydroxy cobalamin
C. Cobalamin polymer
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D. Cyanocobalamin
E. Carboxy cobalamin
32. Wernicke’s encephalopathy (Korsakoff’s syndrome) develops due
to the deficiency of one vitamin. Name it:
A. Niacin
B. Cyanocobalamin
C. Pantothenic acid
D. Riboflavin
E. Thiamine
33. Point out vitamin that is necessary for Coenzyme A synthesis:
A. Pantothenic acid
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Pyridoxine
D. Biotin
E. Riboflavin
34. Point out the enzyme which doesn’t contain biotin as coenzyme:
A. Propionyl-CoA carboxylase
12B. Pyruvate carboxylase
C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
D. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
E. Answers B and C are correct
35 Thiamine is essential for one enzyme from list placed below. Point
out it:
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
C. Succinate dehydrogenase
D. Acetyl CoA synthetase
E. Lactate dehydrogenase
36. Pantothenic acid is necessary for formation of one coenzyme. Point
out it.
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A. NAD
+
B. NADP
+
C. FAD
D. Pyridoxal phosphate
E. CoASH
37. Severe deficiency of thiamine in human causes one disease. Point
out it:
A. Beri Beri
B. Scurvy
C. Night blindness
D. Rickets
E. Thrombosis
38. Choose the vitamin required for carboxylation reactions in human
tissues:
A. Vitamin B2
B. Vitamin B6
C. Vitamin H
D. Vitamin B12
E. Vitamin K
39. Which enzyme activity is measured in diagnostic of Beri-beri?
A. Transketolase
B. Glucose-6-phosphste dehydrogenase
13C. Alanine transaminase
D. Deaminase
E. Glutamate decarboxylase
40. People eating only maize as staple diet develop vitamin PP
deficiency due to low content in maize of:
A. Niacin
B. Leucine
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C. Tryptophan
D. Isoleucine
E. Positions A & C are right
41. Point out the place for vitamin B12 and folic acid absorption:
A. Duodenum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Colon
E. Esophagus
42. Point out the place of intrinsic factor production (used for vitamin
B12 absorption):
A. Terminal ileum
B. Lower jejunum
C. Stomach
D. Duodenum
E. Proximal ileum
43. Point out the function for vitamin C:
A. Coenzyme in the synthesis of clotting factors
B. Coenzyme for enzymes of post translational modification of
procollagen
C. Anticoagulant
D. The component of electron transport chain in mitochondria
E. Coenzyme for beta-oxidation of HFA
14Lesson 11. The role of fat-soluble vitamins in the
metabolism of humans. Antivitamins

1. Point out the vitamin, which is soluble in lipids:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin PP
D. Vitamin K
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E. Vitamin H
2. Choose the vitamin, whose precursor is named as b-carotene:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin D
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin B12
E. Vitamin P
3. Choose the vitamin, whose molecule structure is unsaturated cyclic
alcohol (one hydroxide-group only):
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin F
C. Vitamin B5
D. Vitamin D2
E. Vitamin H
4. Choose the vitamin, whose antivitamin is named as Dicoumarol:
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B6
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin K
5. Choose the vitamin, whose deficiency leads to osteomalacia at
adults:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
15E. Vitamin PP
6. Choose the vitamin, which is a powerful natural antioxidant:
A. Retinal
B. Tocopherol
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C. Ergocalciferol
D. Riboflavin
E. Pyridoxine
7. Name the blood plasma index whose low value will prove the
deficiency of vitamin K in patient:
A. Urea
B. Albumins
C. Immunoglobulin G
D. Prothrombin
E. C-reactive protein
8. Name the active form of vitamin whose level in the blood is
depended on the secretion rate of parathyroid hormone:
A. Ascorbic acid
B. Calcitriol
C. Thiamine
D. Tocopherol
E. Naphtoquinone
9. Find out the fat-soluble vitamin whose function is hormone-similar
one:
A. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
E. Vitamin PP
10. Vitamin A group contains substance whose function is associated
mainly with stimulation of proliferation and differentiation processes
in tissues. Name it:
A. Retinal
B. Pantothenic acid
C. Retinoic acid
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D. Nicotinic acid
16E. Nicotine amide
11. A patient suffers from vision impairment – hemeralopia (night
blindness). What vitamin preparation should be administered the
patient in order to restore his vision?
A. Pyridoxine
B. Retinol acetate
C. Vicasol
D. Thiamine chloride
E. Tocopherol acetate
12. There is disturbed process of Ca
2+
absorption through intestinal

wall after the removal of gall bladder in patient. What vitamin will
stimulate this process?
A. K
B. C
C. D3
D. PP
E. B12
13. A 6 y.o child was administered vicasol to prevent postoperative
bleeding. Vicasol is a synthetic analogue of vitamin K. Name post
translation changes of blood coagulation factors that will be
activated by vicasol:
A. Carboxylation of glutamic acid residues
B. Polymerization
C. Partial proteolysis
D. Glycosylation
E. Phosphorylation of serine radicals
14. A patient who was previously ill with mastectomy as a result of
breast cancer was prescribed radiation therapy. What vitamin
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preparation has marked radioprotective action caused by
antioxidant activity?
A. Tocopherol acetate
B. Riboflavin
C. Folic acid
D. Ergocalciferol
E. Thiamine chloride
1715. There is an inhibited coagulation in the patients with bile ducts
obstruction, bleeding due to the low level of absorption of vitamin.
What vitamin is in deficiency?
A. K
B. E
C. D
D. A
E. Carotene
16. A 2-year-old child has got intestinal dysbacteriosis, which results in
hemorrhagic syndrome. What is the most likely cause of
hemorrhage of the child?
A. Activation of tissue thromboplastin
B. PP hypovitaminosis
C. Fibrinogen deficiency
D. Vitamin K insufficiency
E. Hypocalcemia
17. During examination of an 11-month-old infant a pediatrician
revealed osteoectasia of the lower extremities and delayed
mineralization of cranial bones. Such pathology is usually provoked
by the deficit of the following vitamin:
A. Thiamine
B. Riboflavin
C. Bioflavonoids
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D. Pantothenic acid
E. Cholecalciferol
18. A patient presents with twilight vision impairment. Which of the
following vitamins should be administered?
A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Nicotinic acid
D. Retinol acetate
E. Pyridoxine hydrochloride
19. After the disease a 16-year-old boy is presenting with decreased
function of protein synthesis in the liver as a result has a symptom
like vitamin K deficiency. This may cause disorder of:
18A. Erythropoietin production
B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C. Blood coagulation
D. Osmotic blood pressure
E. Anticoagulant production
20. The structural analogue of vitamin B2 (acriсhine) is administered in
a case of enterobiasis. The disorder of which enzyme synthesis is
caused by this medicine in microorganisms?
B. NAD-dependent dehydrogenases
C. Cytochrome oxidases
D. FAD-dependent dehydrogenases
E. Peptidases
F. Aminotransferases
21. In clinical practice tuberculosis is treated with izoniazid preparation
– that is an antivitamin able to penetrate into the tuberculosis
bacillus. Tuberculostatic effect is induced by the interference with
replication processes and oxidation-reduction reactions due to the
buildup of pseudo-coenzyme:
2093
A. FMN
B. NAD
C. CoQ
D. FAD
E. TPP
22. Some infections diseases caused by bacteria are treated with
sulfanilamides, which block the synthesis of bacteria growth factor.
What is the mechanism of their action?
A. They inhibit the absorption of folic acid
B. They are allosteric enzyme inhibitors
C. They are allosteric enzymes
D. They are anti-vitamins of para-amino benzoic acid
E. They are involved in red-ox processes
23. A patient complains of photoreception disorder and frequent acute
viral diseases. He has been prescribed a vitamin that affects
photoreception processes by producing rhodopsin, the
photosensitive pigment. What vitamin is it?
19A. Cyanocobalamin
B. Tocopherol acetate
C. Pyridoxine hydrochloride
D. Thiamine
E. Retinol acetate
24. A 6-year-old child suffers from delayed growth, disrupted
ossification processes, decalcification of teeth. What can be the
cause?
A. Vitamin D deficiency
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Vitamin C deficiency
D. Decreased glucagon production
E. Insulin deficiency
2094
25. A patient, who has been suffering for a long time from intestine
disbacteriosis, has increased hemorrhaging caused by disruption of
posttranslational modification of blood coagulation factors II, VII,
IX and X in the liver. What vitamin deficiency is the cause of this
condition?
A. K
B. B12
C. B9
D. C
E. P
26. During regular check-up a child is detected with interrupted
mineralization of bones. What vitamin deficiency can be the cause?
A. Calciferol
B. Riboflavin
C. Tocopherol
D. Folic acid
E. Cobalamin
27. Choose uncharacteristic symptom of vitamin A deficiency in
humans among the listed ones below:
A. Growth retardation
B. Malformation of the long bones
C. Loss of body mass
20D. Affected mucous epithelium and eyes
E. Night blindness
28. Point out lipid component in the human skin which is included in
process of vitamin D3 synthesis on exposure to sunlight or radiation
from a UV lamp:
A. Cholesterol
B. Phosphatidylcholine
C. Phosphatidylethanolamine
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D. Phosphatidylinositol
E. Phosphatidylserine
29. Point out a powerful naturally occurring antivitamin K:
A. Phylloquinone
B. Menaquinone
C. Vicasol
D. β-ionone
E. Dicoumarol
30. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins can lead to anemia?
A. Folic acid
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E
E. All of the above
31. Choose the most active form of vitamin D3:
A. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
B. 25-Hydroxyergocalciferol
C. 24, 25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
D. 1, 25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
E. Calcidiol
32. What reaction is in need of vitamin K?
A. Gamma-carboxylation
B. Oxidation
C. Methylation
D. Hydroxylation
E. Alpha-decarboxylation
2133. Point out the vitamin used for post-translational modification of
glutamic acid to gamma-carboxyglutamate in polypeptide chain of
precursor for prothrombin:
A. A
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B. D
C. B2
D. K
E. C
34. Choose the name of phase for vitamin K use in the formation of
clotting factors:
A. Post-transcription
B. Post-translation
C. Transcription
D. Reparation
E. Replication
35. Choose the correct statement about vitamin K:
A. It increases a coagulation time in infants with hemorrhagic diseases
B. It is helpful in preventing thrombosis
C. It is synthesized by intestinal bacteria
D. It is present in increased amount in cows and breast milk
E. It is derived to coenzyme of α-decarboxylases
36. Toad skin is seen in deficiency of one vitamin mainly. Point out it:
A. Retinol
B. Riboflavin
C. Cholecalciferol
D. Biotin
E. L-Ascorbic acid
37. Point out a similarity between vitamin C and vitamin K:
A. Both help in conversion of proline to hydroxyproline
B. Both help in post-translational modification of polypeptide chains
C. Both are fat soluble vitamins
D. Both are involved in coagulation cascade
E. Both are water soluble vitamins
38. What vitamin derivative acts as hormone?
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A. Vitamin D3
22B. Vitamin B2
C. Vitamin B1
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin PP
39. Choose vitamin K dependent clotting factors:
A. Factors V and VIII
B. Factors XI and XIII
C. Factors IX and X
D. Factors III and XI
E. Factors V and XII
40. All of the following are antioxidants except one. Choose it.
A. Tocopherol
B. Beta-Carotene
C. L-Ascorbic acid
D. Cholecalciferol
E. Retinol
Lesson 12. Biochemistry of muscular and connective tissues

1. The high levels of creatine phosphokinase (CPK) (MB-isozyme) and
lactate dehydrogenase LDH1 activity were revealed. Point out the
most probable pathology in the patient:
A. Hepatitis
В. Myocardium infarction
С. Osteoartritis
D. Pancreatitis
Е. Cholecystitis
2. Name the polysaccharide represented in connective tissue:
A. Collagen
B. Elastin
C. Laminin
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D. Hyaluronic acid
Е. Fibrillin
233. Name the metabolic pathway used as the main energy source for
myocardium contraction at healthy humans:
A. Anaerobic glycolysis
B. Aerobic glycolysis
C. Glycogen breakdown
D. Oxidation of High Fatty Acids
Е. Pentose Phosphate cycle
4. It is established that there is specific system of energy supply in
muscular cell. Point out this system:
A. Renin-angiotensinogen system
B. Creatine phosphate kinase system
C. Adenylate cyclase system
D. Translation system of a cell
Е. Palmitate synthetase complex
5. There are some proteins in muscles: actin, myosin, actomyosin,
tropomyosin, troponin. Point out what a specific group of proteins
they are related to:
A. Enzymes
B. Sarcoplasmatic proteins
C. Stroma proteins
D. Calcium conjugated proteins
Е. Coagulants
6. It is established that creatine synthesis in the liver is in need for three
amino acids as substrates in this process. Point out them:
A. Ala, Ser, Glu
B. Arg, Gly, Met
C. Tre, Ile, Val
D. Phe, Trp, Val
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Е. Ala, Val, Leu
7. Point out the substance whose level in the blood plasma correlates
with the volume of physical loading of skeletal muscular tissue:
A. Ammonia
B. Urea
C. Creatine
D. Creatinine
24Е. Uric acid
8. Vitamin C deficiency causes the disorder in collagen synthesis
because two enzymes in this synthesis are in need for the use of
ascorbic acid. Name one of them:
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
B. Acetyl – CоА carboxylase
C. Prolyl hydroxylase
D. Lactate dehydrogenase
Е. Phenylalanine hydroxylase
9. The metabolism disturbance in myocardium in a case of ischemic
heart disease is followed by the decrease of АТP and creatine
phosphate concentrations. Point out the reason of this event:
A. Glycolysis is activated in myocardium
B. Hypoxia causes the inhibition of all the processes in mitochondria
C. Glucose is not destroyed in myocardium
D. The oxidative phosphorylation is activated in myocardium
Е. The accumulation of glucose is in myocardium
10. Point out the factors whose levels in the intracellular space of
muscular cell influence the rate of muscular contraction:
A. ATP levels
B. Calcium ions content
C. Magnesium ions content
D. Stroma proteins content
2100
Е. All the factors above are in need
11. A 30 y.o. woman had been ill for a year when she felt pain in the
area of joints for the first time, they got swollen, and skin above
them became reddened. Provisional diagnosis is rheumatoid
arthritis. One of the most probable causes of this disease is a
structure alteration of a connective tissue protein:
A. Ovoalbumin
B. Collagen
C. Myosin
D. Troponin
E. Mucin
2512. Increased fragility of vessels, enamel and dentine destruction
resulting from scurvy are caused by disorder of collagen
maturation. What stage of procollagen modification is disturbed
under this avitaminosis?
A. Hydroxylation of proline
B. Detaching of N-ended peptide
C. Formation of polypeptide chains
D. Glycosylation of hydroxylysine residues
E. Removal of C-ended peptide from procollagen
13. A patient with serious damage of muscular tissue was admitted to
the trauma department. What biochemical urine index will be
increased in this case?
A. Creatinine
B. Common lipids
C. Uric acid
D. Glucose
E. Mineral salts
14. A 46-year-old female patient has a continuous history of
progressive muscular (Duchenne`s) dystrophy. Which blood
2101
enzyme activity changes will be of diagnostic value in this case?
A. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Glutamate dehydrogenase
C. Adenylate cyclase
D. Pyruvate dehydrogenase
E. Creatine phosphokinase
15. A 53-year-old male patient is diagnosed with Paget’s disease. The
concentration of oxyproline in daily urine is sharply increased,
which primarily means intensified disintegration of:
A. Albumin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Collagen
D. Fibrinogen
E. Keratin
16. Collagen occurs in different types, which are usually classified on
the basis of the:
26A Type of carbohydrate present
B Cysteine content
C Hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine content
D Types of peptide chains present
E Glycine content
17. Adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase) activity needed for muscle
contraction is a component of:
A The amino-terminal globular head of myosin
B The carboxy-terminal tail region of myosin
C Troponin T
D Actin
E Troponin C
18. Correct statements regarding creatinine include all of the following
except:
2102
A. Creatinine is formed by the spontaneous cyclization of a constant
fraction of muscular creatine phosphate
B. The excretion of creatinine in the urine of adults is very constant
from day to day
C. Creatinine is a precurcor of creatine
D. Urinary creatinine levels help to estimate the muscular mass in
person
E. Blood level of creatinine is a good indicator of kidney function
19. It’s suspected that a child has a progressing muscular dystrophy.
What urine component is increased and will confirm the diagnosis:
A. Hippuric acid
B. Creatine
C. Ketone bodies
D. Glucose
E. Urea
20. Choose the enzyme of the blood plasma, whose activity increases in
ten or more times for 3-4 hours after myocardium infarction:
A. Aspartate transaminase
B. Leucine aminopeptidase
C. Alkaline phoshatase
D. Acidic phoshatase
27E. Arginase
21. Three amino acids take part in creatine synthesis in humans. Point
out them:
A. Serine, Aspartate, Glutamate
B. Tyrosine, Phenylalanine, Tryptophan
C. Threonine, Isoleucine, Valine
D. Arginine, Glycine, Methionine
Е. Alanine, Valine, Leucine
22. Point out the amino acids that are determinated in the structure of
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collagen, only:
A. Glycine and glutamic acid
B. Proline and lysine
C. Hydroxyproline and hydroxylysine
D. Desmosin and proline
E. Glutamate and aspartate
23. Choose an enzyme which takes part in ATP resynthesis in the
muscle tissue:
A. Glucokinase
B. Creatine kinase
C. Hexokinase
D. Pyruvate kinase
E. Pyruvate carboxylase
24. Choose a substance that can be the product of enzymatic hydrolysis
of elastin , only:
A. Glycine
B. Pepsin
C. Nucleic acid
D. Desmosin
E. Ribose
25. Choose the product of guanidoacetate transmethylation from
following list:
A. Chlorine
B. Hydroxyproline
C. Creatinine
D. Creatine
28E. Glutathione
26. Triple helix is seen in one compound listed bellow. Choose it:
A. Collagen
B. Fibrinogen
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C. Histones
D. Serum amylase
E. F-actin
27. The cardiac muscle utilizes all of the following compounds from
the blood except one. Point out it:
A. Glucose
B. Acetone
C. Fatty acids
D. Acetoacetic acid
E. Alanine
28. A deficiency of copper affects the formation of normal collagen by
reducing the activity of one enzyme from following list. Choose it:
A. Glucosyl transferase
B. Galactosyl transferase
C. Prolyl hydroxylase
D. Lysyl oxidase
E. Collagenase
29. What does cardiac muscle prefer as source of energy?
A. Fatty acids
B. Glucose
C. Ketone bodies
D. Glycogen
E. Fructose
30. Hydroxylation of proline to hydroxyproline in collagen synthesis
requires all except one. Point out it.
A. Pyridoxal phosphate
B. Ascorbic acid
C. O2
D. Specific hydroxylase
E. Iron ion
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2931. Creatine is formed metabolically using one compound listed below.
Choose it:
A. Tryptophan
B. Phenylalanine
C. Lysine
D. Valine
E. Leucine
32. Three residues (Gly-X-Y-) are repeated many times, and it is the
absolute requirement for formation of the triple helix of collagen
molecule type 1. What amino acid and its derivative mainly is
represented as letters X and Y?
A. Proline
B. Tryptophan
C. Lysine
D. Valine
E. Leucine
33 Which of the following is increased in the blood plasma at
myocardial infarction?
A. Creatine phosphokinase BB isozyme
B. Lactate dehydrogenase isozyme 5
C. Succinate dehydrogenase
D. Alkaline phosphatase
E. Creatine phosphokinase and aspartate aminotransferase
34. Choose the mechanism for proline conversion to hydroxyproline:
A. Vitamin C mediated hydroxylation
B. Reverse hydroxylation
C. Vitamin H mediated carboxylation
D. Post translation induction
E. Vitamin K mediated hydroxylation
35. Name biochemical tests used for diagnostics of muscular dystrophy
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development:
A. Creatine content in the blood plasma and urine
B. Creatinine content in the blood plasma
C. Ctreatine phosphate kinase activity in the blood plasma
30D. Myofibril proteins content in tissue homogenate obtained due to
biopsy method
E. All that is placed above
36. Point out location of guanidoacetate synthesis and substrates for it.
A. Kidney; Arginine+Glycine
B. Liver; Methionine+Glycine
C. Liver; Cysteine+Arginine
D. Muscle; Citrulline+Aspartate
E. Brain; Methionine+Arginine
Lesson 13. Biochemistry of nervous tissue

1. Simple and conjugated proteins are in the composition of nervous
tissue. Point out the simple proteins of this tissue type:
A. Albumins, globulins
B. Prolamins, glutelins
C. Phosphoproteins
D. Nucleoproteins
E. Lipoproteins
2. Point out the amino acids which function as neurotransmitters in
CNS:
A. Glutamic acid
B. Aspartic acid
C. Glycine
D. Dihydroxyphenylalanine
E. All the amino acids named above
3. There are special supportive proteins in the white matter of nervous
tissue. Point out them:
2107
A. Actins
B. Myosins
C. Troponins
D. Albumins
E. Neuroscleroproteins
4. Point out the main catabolic pathway for glucose in the brain tissue:
31A. Aerobic oxidation up to carbon dioxide and water
B. Anaerobic glycolysis
C. Pentose Phosphate Cycle
D. Glycogenesis
E. Gluconeogenesis
5. The myelin substance is a complex of some compounds. What
prevailing components are in it?
A. Protein, lipids
B. Carbohydrates, lipids
C. Nucleic acids
D. Adenine-linked nucleotides, creatine phosphate
E. Amino acids, mineral substances
6. Point out the lipid which hardly synthesized in brain of adults:
A. Sphingomyelin
B. Cerebroside
C. Ganglyoside
D. Sulfatide
E. Cholesterol
7. Point out the neurotransmitter that is isolated from preganglionar
neuron synapses of the sympathetic nervous system, mainly:
A. Epinephrine
B. Dopamine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Glycine
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E. Serotonin
8. Point out the main energy source substrate for the brain:
A. Glucose
B. Fatty acids
C. Phospholipids
D. Ketone bodies
E. Amino acids
9. Point out the enzyme that catalyzes the degradation of some
neurotransmitters in the brain:
A. Aldolase
32C. Monoamino oxidase
D. Hexokinase
E. Malate dehydrogenase
10. There is the feature of the chemical composition of neuroglia: one
acidic protein has very high concentration. Name it:
A. Protein S-100
B. Myosin
C. Albumin
D. Choline esterase
E. Neuroscleroprotein
11. Depressions and emotional insanities result from the deficit of
noradrenalin, serotonin and other biogenic amines in the brain.
Their concentration in the synapses can be increased by means of
the antidepressants that inhibit the following enzyme:
A. Phenylalanine-4-monooxygenase
B. Monoamine oxidase
C. D-amino-acid oxidase
D. L-amino-acid oxidase
E. Diamine oxidase
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12. An unconscious patient was taken by ambulance to the hospital. On
objective examination the patient was found to have on reflexes,
periodical convulsions, irregular breathing. After laboratory
examination the patient was diagnosed with hepatic coma.
Disorders of the central nervous system develop due to the
accumulation of the following metabolite:
A. Urea
B. Histamine
C. Glutamine
D. Ammonia
E. Bilirubin
13. Disruption of nerve fiber myelinogenesis causes neurological
disorders and mental retardation. These symptoms are typical for
hereditary and acquired alterations in the metabolism of:
A. Phosphatidic acid
B. Cholesterol
33C. Sphingolipids
D. Neutral fats
E. Higher fatty acids
14. Decarboxylation of glutamate induces production of gamme
aminobutyric acid (GABA) neurotransmitter. After inactivation
GABA is converted into a metabolite of the citric acid cycle, that is:
A. Fumarate
B. Succinate
C. Oxaloacetate
D. Malate
E. Citric acid
15. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are widely used as
psychopharmacological drugs. They change the level of nearly all
neurotransmitters in synapses, with the following neurotransmitter
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being the exception:
A. Acetylcholine
B. Serotonin
C. Dopamine
D. Noradrenalin
E. Adrenalin
16. Name the enzyme which produces acetylcholine (neurotransmitter):
B. Acetylcholinesterase
C. Cholinesterase
D. Acetylcholine dehydrogenase
E. Acetylcholine carboxykinase
F. Choline acetyltransferase
17. The peptides with opiate-like activity (endorphins and enkephalins)
have been shown to be derivatives of:
A. β-Lipotropic hypophyseal hormone
B. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
C. Growth hormone
D. Luteotropic hormone
E. Proinsulin
18. A special role in the metabolism of catecholamine mediators is
assigned to the enzyme:
34A. Glutamate decarboxylase
B. S-adenosylmethionine decarboxylase
C. Acetylcholinesterase
D. Monoamine oxidase
E. Glutamate dehydrogenase
19. The main energy source for the brain is:
A. Fatty acids
B. Glucose
C. Ketone bodies
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D. Cholesterol
E. Nucleotides
20. Ammonia is a strong poison, and the nervous system is highly
susceptible to it. Choose the amino acid that plays a special role in the
neutralization of ammonia:
A. Alanine
B. Arginine
C. Valine
D. Methionine
E. Glutamic acid
21. Point out the major fuel for the brain after several weeks of
starvation:
A. Glucose
B. Fatty acid
C. Beta hydroxyl butyrate
D. Tyrosine
E. Phenylalanine
22. Neurotransmitter serotonin is derived from one amino acid. Choose
it:
A. Phenylalanine
B. Serine
C. Tryptophan
D. Cysteine
E. Proline
23. In the brain ammonia is converted to product from following list.
Point out it:
35A. Aspartate
B. Glutamine
C. Alanine
D. Histidine
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E. Urea
24. Which substance does not cross the blood brain barrier?
A. Insulin
B. Ascorbic acid
C. Bilirubin
D. Glucose
E. Oxygen
25. The brain contains relatively high amounts of all compounds from
the following list except one. Point out it:
A. Glutamine
B. N-Acetylaspartate
C. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
D. Glycogen
E. Proteolipid
26. Point out the main pathways of catabolism in brain:
A. Glycolysis and Citric Acid Cycle
B. Glycogenolysis and Glycogenesis
C. Glycogenolysis and Citric Acid Cycle
D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway and HMP shunt
E. Oxidation of fatty acids and ketogenesis
27. Choose the neurotransmitter from following list:
A. Serine
B. Glutathione
C. Glutamate
D. Phenylalanine
E. Alanine
28. The application of drug atropine is based on its ability to block the
muscarinic receptors. Name a neurotransmitter that takes place in the
transmission of impulses binding with this type receptor in the
autonomic nervous system:
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A. Acetylcholine
36B. Nor-epinephrine
C. Dopamine
D. Serotonin
E. Glycine
29. The content of certain acidic proteins is characteristic for the
nervous tissue. Point out such protein:
A. Histon
B. Protein S-100
C. Globin
D. Actin
E. Tubuline
30. The content of certain substance is sharply decreased in a striate of
a brain at Parcinson disease. Point out it:
A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. GABA
D. Histamine
E. Nor-epinephrine
Lesson 14. Biochemical functions of the liver at healthy and
diseased people
1. Point out the conjugation agent used for conjugated bilirubin
formation in the liver cell:
A. Glycine
B. Cysteine
C. UDP-glucuronic acid
D. PAPS
E. Acetyl-CoA
2. Find the protein name that is synthesized in the liver, only:
A. Albumin of blood plasma
2114
B. Alpha2-macroglobulin
C. Alpha1-antitrypsin
D. Ceruloplasmin
37E. All the names above are right answers
3. Find out the enzyme of liver tissue participating in the detoxification of
cyanides:
A. NАDН - dehydrogenase
B. Cytochrome b
C. Thiosulfate transferase
D. Cytochrome c
E. Cytochrome P450
4. Point out the enzyme whose activity is determined in the blood
plasma of patients to estimate the liver parenchyma damage:
A. Lactate dehydrogenase
B. Palmitate synthase complex
C. Alanine amino transferase
D. Cytochrome c1
E. Adenylate cyclase
5. Find out the enzyme name which is specific for liver tissue, only:
A. Succinate dehydrogenase
B. Arginase
D. Aspartate amino transferase
E. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
6. Point out the amino acid that is conjugative agent at Quick`s test:
A. Lactic acid
B. Glycine
C. Valine
D. Leucine
E. Histidine
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7. Point out the liver enzyme participating in the neutralization of
ammonia:
A. Glutamine synthetase
C. Carbomoyl phosphate synthetase
D. Alanine amino transferase
E. All the enzymes in A, B, C positions
388. Point out the lipid mainly synthesized in the liver:
A. Ganglyoside
B. Phospatidyl ethanol amine
C. Cholesterol
D. Phosphatidyl choline
E. Phosphatidyl inositol
9. This lipoprotein class is synthesized in the liver, and is in need for
the transport of triacylglycerols and cholesterol from the liver to
tissues. Name it:
A. IDL
B. HDL
C. LDL
D. VLDL
E. Chylomicrons
10. Point out the enzyme whose activity is decreased in the blood
plasma at liver cirrhosis in patient:
D. Choline esterase
E. UDP - glucoronyl transferase
11. A patient suffers from hepatic cirrhosis. Examination of which of
the following substances excreted by urine can characterize the
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state of antitoxic function of liver?
A. Uric acid
B. Сreatinine
C. Ammonium salts
D. Hippuric acid
E. Amino acids
12. A patient with symptoms of acute alcohol poisoning was brought to
the hospital. What carbohydrates metabolism changes are typical
for this condition?
A. The anaerobic glucose metabolism predominates in muscles
B. The gluconeogenesis is increased in the liver
C. The breakage of glycogen is increased in the liver
39D. The gluconeogenesis velocity in the liver is decreased
E. The anaerobic breakage of glucose is increased in muscles
13. Desulfiram is widely used in medical practice to prevent
alcoholism, it inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase. Increased level of
what metabolite causes aversion to alcohol?
A. Acetaldehyde
B. Ethanol
C. Malonyl aldehyde
D. Propionic aldehyde
E. Methanol
14. A patient has been admitted to the contagious isolation ward with
signs of jaundice caused by hepatitis virus. Which of the symptoms
given below is strictly specific for hepatocellular jaundice?
A. Bilirubinuria
B. Cholemia
C. Hyperbilirubinemia
D. Increase of ALT, AST level
E. Urobilinuria
2117
15. Confirmation of elevation of alkaline phosphatase of hepatic origin
is by
A. SGOT (Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase)
B. SGPT (Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase)
C. GGT (Gamma-glutamyl transferase)
D. LDH (Lactate dehydrogenase)
E. Acid phosphatase
16. Choose the urine index that is used to estimate detoxification
function of the liver:
A. Citric acid
B. Acetyl-CoA
C. Pyruvate
D. Hippuric acid
E. Uric acid
17. One of liver functions is maintenance of glucose concentration in
the blood. Point out the carbohydrate metabolic pathway in the liver
40that provides realization of this function at exception of diet
carbohydrates:
A. Aerobic oxidation of glucose
B. Anaerobic oxidation of glucose
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Pentose phosphate cycle
E. Glycogenesis
18. There is yellowness of the skin at newborn. The content of bilirubin
in the blood is moderately increased due to indirect bilirubin. The
fecal level of stercobilinogen is raised, bilirubin is not present in the
urine. What type of a jaundice take place:
A. Prehepatic jaundice
B. Hepatic jaundice
C. Posthepatic jaundice
2118
D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
E. Gilbert syndrome
19. The activity of UDP-glucuronyl transferase is reduced at Gilbert
Syndrome. What metabolite concentration will raise in the blood at
these patients?
A. Direct bilirubin
B. Indirect bilirubin
C. Mesobilirubinogen
D. Stercobilinogen
E. Mesobilinogen
20. Liver does not produce one compound from the following list. Point
out it:
A. Albumin
B. Gamma-globulin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Prothrombin
E. Haptoglobin
21. Choose the right continuation of the statement: “In mammalian bile,
the bile acids are normally present____”.
A. In their free form
B. As cholesterol esters
41C. As conjugated with glycine or taurine
D. As conjugated with beta-glucuronic acid
E. As conjugated with bilirubin
22. Liver synthesizes all the compounds from the following list
EXCEPT:
A. Clotting factor II
B. Clotting factor XII
C. Urea
D. Stercobilin
2119
E. Cholesterol
23. Choose the process that is not placed in the liver:
A. Urea synthesis
B. Bile acid synthesis
C. Detoxification of xenobiotics
D. Cortisol synthesis
E. Deposition of fat soluble vitamins
24. Glucose-6-Phosphate is the key metabolite of carbohydrate
metabolism. Point out the pathway of its utilization which is present
in liver:
A. Glycogenesis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycolysis
D. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt
E. All of the above
25. What process is stimulated in the liver at starvation:
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Non-oxidative phase of HMP
D. Ketogenesis
E. All of the above
26. The rate of high fatty acids synthesis in the liver is high. Point out
the precursor for this process and its intracellular location:
A. Acetyl CoA, Matrix
B. Acetyl CoA, Cytoplasm
C. Glucose, Matrix
42D. Amino acids, Cytoplasm
E. Amino acids, Matrix
27. Point out the pathways placed mainly in the liver:
A. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol synthesis
2120
B. Taurine synthesis
C. Cholic acid synthesis
D. Sex hormone binding protein synthesis
E. All of the above
28. Liver cirrhosis in patient is accompanied with:
A. Disturbed production of urea
B. Accumulation of bililrubin total in the blood
C. Hypoproteinemia
D. Disturbed function of coagulation system of the blood
29. Point out the process of carbohydrate metabolism which is occurred
only in liver:
A. Glycogenolysis
B. Glycogenesis
C. Heparin synthesis
D. Pentose phosphate pathway
E. Aerobic glycolysis
30. Point out the blood serum enzyme elevated in alcoholic cirrhosis of
liver:
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
B. Creatine kinase
C. Acidic phosphatase
D. Gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase
E. Aspartate transaminase
4344
Lesson 15. Xenobiotic transformation in humans.
Microsomal oxidation
1. Point out the main place for the location of microsomal oxidation in
a cell:
A. Nucleus
2121
B. Cytoplasm
C. EPR, smooth part
D. EPR, rough part
E. Lysosomes
2. Find the correct definition of the term "xenobiotic":
A. A substance that is an obligatory component of food products
B. A substance that is unnatural for humans
C. A substance that is synthesized in small quantities in humans
D. A substance that regulates metabolism in organism
E. A substance that is a terminal product of metabolism
3. Find the enzyme participating in the function of the microsomal
monooxygenase chain:
A. НАДН - dehydrogenase
B. Cytochrome b
C. Cytochrome c1
D. Cytochrome c
E. Cytochrome P450
4. Point out the enzyme of monooxygenase chain as a final electron
acceptor from NADPН:
A. Cytochrome b5
B. Cytochrome b
C. Cytochrome P450
D. Cytochrome c1
E. Cytochrome aa3
5. Monooxygenase and reductase chains of EPR (smooth part) are
necessary for:
A. Saturated HFA synthesis
B. Structure modification of endogenous substrates onlyC. Structure modification of
xenobiotics and endogenous substrates
D. Structure modification of xenobiotics only
E. Energy reception at the oxidation of xenobiotics
2122
6. Point out the conjugation agent that is conjugative agent at the
detoxification of heterocyclic alcohols in the liver:
A. Glutathione
B. Glycine
C. Valine
D. PAPS
E. Histidine
xenobiotics, their metabolites and harmful endogenous products:
D. Carbomoyl phosphate synthetase
E. UDP - glucoronyl transferase
8. Point out the peptide participating in the conjugation of some
harmful products in the liver:
A. Glutathione
B. Methionine
C. Trialanine
D. Oxytocin
E. Prolylproline
9. Benzoic acid has the formula C6H5-COOH and causes the toxic
effect at its accumulation in the liver. Choose the main conjugative
agent for this substance:
A. Glycine
B. PАPS
C. S-adenosyl methionine
D. Glutathione
E. Urea
10. Point out the enzyme located in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes and
2123
participating in the modification of a xenobiotic:
45A. Glutamine synthetase
B. Alcohol dehydrogenase
D. Carbomoyl phosphate transferase
E. Glutamate dehydrogenase
11. In course of metabolic process active forms of oxygen including
superoxide anion radical are formed in the human body. By means
of what enzyme is this anion inactivated?
A. Catalase
B. Glutathione reductase
C. Peroxidase
D. Superoxide dismutase
E. Glutathione peroxidase
12. A patient with encephalopathy was admitted to the neurological in
patient department. There was revealed a correlation between
increasing of encephalopathy and substances absorbed by the
bloodstream from the intestines. What substances that are formed in
the intestines can cause endotoxemia?
A. Indole
B. Ornithine
C. Acetacetate
D. Butyrate
E. Biotin
13. Study of conversion of a food colouring agent revealed that
utilization of this xenobiotic takes place only in one phase –
microsomal oxidation (modification phase). Name an enzyme of
this phase:
A. Cytochrome aa3
B. Cytochrome C oxidase
2124
C. Cytochrome P-450
D. Cytochrome C1
E. Cytochrome b
14. Point out the donor of sulfate group in the conjugation phase of
xenobiotics transformation:
A. Glutathione
46B. UDP-glucuronic acid
C. Adenosine -phosphate- -phosphosulfate
D. Acetyl-CoA
E. S-adenosylmethionine
15. Point out the chemical nature of prosthetic group of cytochrome
P450:
A. Nucleotide
B. Fe
3+
C. Fe
2+
D. Phosphate
E. Heme
16. Choose the exogenous factor (the drug) that can induce the UDP
glucuronosyltransferase gene expression in the liver:
A. Calcitriol
B. Thyroxine
C. Riboxin
D. Phenobarbital
E. Thiamine diphosphate
17. All of the following may have a physiological antioxidant role
except
A. Beta-carotene
B. Vitamin C
C. Selenium
2125
D. Iron
E. Vitamin E
18. Choose one wrong continuation of a phrase: Oxidation of
ethanol…:
A. Occurs, basically, in a liver
B. Is catalyzed by alcohol dehydrogenase
C. Is slowed down at increase NADH/NAD
+
in a cell
D. Can proceed under microsomal system action
E. Results in the formation of an intermediate product of Pentose
phosphate cycle
19. Choose one wrong continuation of a phrase: Phase I of xenobiotics
transformation:
47A. Is carried out by enzymes of endoplasmic reticulum
B. Demands presence of NADPH
C. Results in increase of polarity of a substance
D. Occurs in anaerobic conditions
E. Proceeds at participation of cytochrome Р4 0
20. Name the compound metabolized in the liver across conjugation
reaction like xenobiotics:
A. Bilirubin
B. Cholesterol
C. Urea
D. Acetylcholine
E. Uric acid
21. Choose metabolites of methanol which may be produced in the
liver:
A. Acetaldehyde + Acetic acid
B. Formaldehyde + Formic acid
C. Pyruvate + Pyruvic acid
2126
D. Fumarate + Fumeric acid
E. Glyceroaldehyde + Glycerol
22. Point out the main enzyme in monooxygenase system of EPR
responsible for modification of xenobiotics:
A. Glucuronyl transferase
B. Glutathione S-transferase
C. NADPH reductase
D. Cytochrome P450
E. Cytochrome C oxidase
23. Choose the correct statement about hepatic monooxygenases linked
with cytochrome P450 enzyme.
A. Located mainly in smooth EPR
B. Catalyzes oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis reactions at the same
time
C. Certain drug inactivate and certain drug enhance their reactions
D. Positions A, C are correct
E. Their action always causes the detoxification of xenobiotics
24. Which following cytochrome participates in drug metabolism?
48A. Cytochrome aa3
B. Cytochrome C1
C. Cytochrome C
D. Cytochrome P450
E. Cytochrome b
25. Point out the conjugation agent that is in need to detoxify
heterocyclic alcohols in the liver:
A. Glutathione
B. Glycine
C. Valine
D. PAPS
E. Histidine
2127
xenobiotics, their metabolites and harmful endogenous products:
D. Carbomoyl phosphate synthetase
E. UDP-glucuronyl transferase
27. Point out the peptide participating in the conjugation of some
harmful sulfur containing products in the liver:
A. Glutathione
B. Methionine
C. Trialanine
D. Oxytocin
E. Prolylproline
28. Benzoic acid causes the toxic effect at its accumulation in the liver.
Choose the main conjugative agent to detoxify it:
A. Glycine
B. PAPS
C. S-adenosyl methionine
D. Glutathione
E. Acetyl-CoA
49Lesson 16. Biochemistry of blood tissue. Proteins of blood
plasma. Non-Protein components of blood

plasma at healthy and diseased people
1. Name the enzyme which is the indicator of myocardium damage if
its activity will be increased in the blood plasma in 10 times or
more:
A. Alkaline phosphatase
B. Malate dehydrogenase
C. Glutamate dehydrogenase
2128
D. Guanine transaminase
2. Point out the most probable location of the plasma proteins
synthesis:
A. Kidneys
B. Muscle tissue
C. Nervous tissue
D. Liver
E. Lungs
3. Point out the main blood plasma protein, participating in the blood
oncotic pressure maintaining:
A. Globulin
B. Lipoprotein
C. Ceruloplasmin
D. Hemoglobin
E. Albumin
4. Point out the protein, which is not observed in the blood serum of
healthy people:
A.Cryoglobulin
B. Albumin
C. Transferin
D. Haptoglobin
E. Alpha2-macroglobulin
5. Name the excretory enzyme of the blood plasma:
A. Alkaline phosphatase
50B. Malate dehydrogenase
C. Glutamate dehydrogenase
D. Alanine transaminase
6. Blood is the tissue needed for the transport of all absorbed products
2129
in the gut after digestion processes. Name the function of the blood
described above:
A. Body temperature regulatory function
B. Transport of hormones
C. Nutrition function
D. The maintenance of acid-base balance in the organism
E. Protection against microbial agents
7. Name the blood plasma protein used as inhibitor of some proteolytic
enzymes:
A. Albumin
B. Immunoglobulin G
C. C-reactive protein
D. Alpha1-antitrypsin
E. Ceruloplasmin
8. Name the method used now as modern technique for the separation
and determination of the content of some proteins in the blood
plasma at the same time:
A. Dialysis
B. Immunoelectrophoresis
C. Spectrophotometry method
D. X-ray radiation method
E. Densitometry method
9. Name the factor of blood coagulation system needed for fibrin
formation from fibrinogen:
A. Plasmin
B. Heparin
C. Thrombin
D. Prothrombin
E. Lysine
10. Point out the protease of blood that helps to solvate the fibrin clot:
2130
51A. Plasminogen
B. Lysolipase
C. Plasmin
D. Antifibrinogen
E. Tromboplastin
11. Point out the permissible range of the pH fluctuation in the blood:
A. 8.0-8.61
B. 7.36-7.44
C. 7.81-7.94
D. 6.2-6.84
E. 6.85-7.0
12. Point out the non-protein nitrogenous component of the blood
plasma that is in a level about 50% of total non-protein nitrogen:
A. Uric acid
B. Creatine
C. Creatinine
D. Amino acids
E. Urea
13. Point out the blood microelement:
A. Sodium
B. Copper
C. Calcium
D. Potassium
E. Magnesium
14. Point out the most powerful buffer system of the blood:
A. The bicarbonate buffer system
B. The phosphate buffer system
C. The protein buffer system
D. Haemoglobin buffer system
E. The acetate buffer system
2131
15. Name the index of blood plasma which helps to recognize the
change in biliary system function at cholestasis state:
A. Fibrinogen
B. Conjugated bilirubin
C. Uric acid
52D. Urea
E. Creatine
16. Point out the major transport form of triacylglycerols from the
intestine to the liver and other tissues:
A. Chylomicrons
B. LDL
C. VLDL
D. IDL
E. HDL
17. Creatine level is much higher then normal, creatinine level is lower
then normal in the blood plasma of patient. Choose the probable
diagnosis for this patient:
A. Myocardium infarction
B. Cholestasis
C. Viral hepatitis
D. Phenylketonuria
E. Muscular dystrophy
18. Metabolic acidosis is observed in patient` organism due to the
accumulation of:
A. Sodium ions
B. Glucose
C. Pyruvate
D. Fructose
E. Glycerol
19. Renal insufficiency was proposed to look at patient due to the
2132
change of the ratio [Urea]/Residual nitrogen (80%). Name the index
of the blood plasma whose content will prove this diagnosis:
A. High levels of sodium ion
B. Low levels of copper ion
C. High levels of glucose
D. High levels of creatinine
E. High levels of creatine
20. Name the indexes of blood plasma whose content may be higher at
insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus:
A. Glucose
53B. Cholesterol
C. Pyruvate
D. Ketone bodies
E. All the indexes named above
21. 12 hours after an acute attack of retrosternal pain a patient
presented a jump of aspartate aminotransferase activity in blood
serum. What pathology is this deviation typical for?
A. Viral hepatitis
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Collagenosis
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Myocardial infarction
22. A patient who had been working hard under condition of elevated
temperature of the environment has now a changed quantity of
blood plasma proteins. What phenomenon is the case?
A. Absolute hyperproteinemia
B. Relative hyperproteinemia
C. Absolute hypoproteinemia
D. Disproteinemia
E. Paraproteinemia
2133
23. 62 y.o. woman complains of frequent pains in the area of her chest
and backbone, rib fractures. A doctor assumed myelomatosis
(plasmocytoma).What of the following laboratory characteristics
will be of the greatest diagnostic importance?
A. Proteinuria
B. Hypoproteinemia
C. Hypoglobulinemia
D. Hyperalbuminemia
E. Paraproteinemia
24. A 4 y.o. child with signs of durative proteinic starvation was
admitted to the hospital. The signs were as follows: Growth
inhibition, anemia, oedema, mental deficiency. Choose the cause of
oedema development:
A. Reduced synthesis of lipoproteins
B. Reduced synthesis of glycoproteins
54C. Reduced synthesis of hemoglobin
D. Reduced synthesis of globulins
E. Reduced synthesis of albumins
25. Marked increase of activity of MB-forms of CPK (creatine
phosphokinase) and LDH-1 was revealed by examination of the
patient's blood. What is the most probable pathology?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Hepatitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Rheumatism
E. Cholecystitis
26. There is high activity of LDH1,2 , aspartate aminotransferase,
creatine phosphokinase in the blood of patient. In what organs
(tissues) the development of pathological process is the most
probable?
2134
A. In the heart muscle {initial stage of myocardium infraction}
B. In skeletal muscle {dystrophy, atrophy}
C. In kidneys and adrenals
D. In liver and kidneys
E. In connective tissue
27. The high level of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) isozymes
concentration showed the increase of LDH-1 and LDH-2 in a
patient’s blood plasma. Point out the most probable diagnosis.
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Skeletal muscle dystrophy
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Acute pancreatitis
E. Viral hepatitis
28. Analysis of blood serum of a patient revealed the increase of
alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels.
What cytological changes can cause such a situation?
A. Disturbance of genetic apparatus of cells
B. Cellular breakdown
C. Disorder of enzyme systems of cells
D. Disturbance of cellular interrelations
55E. Disturbed energy supply of cells
29. Blood sampling for bulk analysis is recommended to be performed
on an empty stomach and in the morning. What changes in blood
composition can occur if to perform blood sampling after food
intake?
A. Reduced contents of erythrocytes
B. Increased contents of erythrocytes
C. Increased contents of leukocytes
D. Increased plasma proteins
E. Reduced contents of thrombocytes
2135
30. A 34-year-old patient was diagnosed with chronic
glomerulonephritis 3 years ago. Edema has developed within the
last 6 months. What caused the edema?
A. Liver dysfunction of protein formation
B. Hyperosmolarity of plasma
C. Proteinuria
D. Hyperproduction of vasopressin
E. Hyperaldosteronism
31. A 55 y.o. women consulted a doctor about having continuous cyclic
uterine hemorrhages for a year, weakness, dizziness. Examination
revealed skin pallor. Hemogram: Hb – 70 g/L, erythrocytes-3.2 x
10
12
/L, color index – 0.6; leukocytes – 6.0 x 10

9
/L, reticulocytes –
1%, erythrocyte hypochromia. What anemia is it?
A. Iron-deficiency anemia
B. B12-folate-deficiency anemia
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Aplastic anemia
E. Chronic posthemorrhagic anemia
32. A patient with hypochromic anemia has splitting hair and loss of
hair, increased nail bottling and taste alteration. What is the
mechanism of the development of these symptoms?
A. Deficiency of vitamin B12
B. Decreased production of thyroid hormones
C. Deficiency of vitamin A
D. Decreased production of parathyrin
56E. Deficiency of iron-containing enzymes
33. Diabetes mellitus causes ketosis as a result of activated oxidation of
2136
fatty acids. What disorders of acid-base equilibrium may be caused
by excessive accumulation of ketone bodies in blood?
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
E. Any changes won't happen
34. A 63-year-old woman developed symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis.
Their increase of which blood values indicators could be most
significant in proving the diagnosis?
A. R-glycosidase
B. Acid phosphatase
C. Lipoproteins
D. General cholesterol
E. Additive glycosaminoglycans
35. A worker has decreased buffer capacity of blood due to exhausting
muscular work. What acidic substance that came to blood caused
this phenomenon?
A. 3-phosphoglycerate
B. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
C. Lactate
D. α-ketoglutarate
E. Pyruvate
36. Examination of 27-year-old patient revealed pathological changes
in liver and brain. Blood plasma analysis revealed an abrupt
decrease in the copper concentration, urine analysis revealed an
increased copper, concentration. The patient was diagnosed with
Wilson’s degeneration. To confirm the diagnosis it is necessary to
study the activity of the following enzyme in blood serum:
A. Leucine aminopeptidase
2137
B. Xanthine oxidase
C. Alcohol dehydrogenase
D. Ceruloplasmin
57E. Carbonic anhydrase
37. After a surgery a 36-year-old woman was given an intravenous
injection of concentrated albumin solution. This has induced
intensified water movement in the following direction:
A. From the intercellular fluid to the capillaries
B. No changes of water movement will be observed
C. From the intercellular to the cells
D. From the cells to the intercellular fluid
E. From the capillaries to the intercellular fluid
38. Electrophoretic study of a blood serum sample, taken from the
patient with pneumonia, revealed an increase in one of the protein
fractions. Specify this fraction:
A. γ-globulins
B. Albumins
C. α1-globulins
D. β-globulins
E. α2-globulins
39. Examination of a 56-year-old female patient with a history of type 1
diabetes revealed a disorder of protein metabolism that is
manifested by aminoacidemia in the laboratory blood test values,
and clinically by the delayed wound healing and decreased
synthesis of antibodies. Which of the following mechanisms causes
the development of aminoacidemia?
A. Increased proteolysis
B. Decrease in the concentration of amino acids in blood
C. Albuminosis
D. Increase in the oncotic pressure in the blood plasma
2138
E. Increase in low-density lipoprotein level
40.A 49-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis was likely to
develop pancreatic necrosis, while active pancreatic proteases were
absorbed into the blood stream and tissue proteins broke up. What
protective factors of the body can inhibit these processes?
A. Immunoglobulin
B. Ceruloplasmin, transferrin
C. a2-macroglobulin, a1-antitrypsin
58D. Cryoglobulin, interferon
E. Hemopexin, haptoglobin
41. A patient is diagnosed with hereditary coagulopathy that is
characterized by factor VIII deficiency. Specify the phase of blood
clotting during which coagulation will be disrupted in the given
case:
A. Clot retraction
B. Thromboplastin formation
C. Fibrin formation
D. Plasmin formation
E. Thrombin formation
42. A 67-year-old male patient consumes eggs, pork fat, butter, milk
and meat. Blood test results: cholesterol – 12.3 mmol/l, total lipids
– 8.2 g/l, increased low-density lipoprotein fraction (LDL). What
type of hyperlipoproteinemia is observed in the patient?
A. Hyporlipoproteinemia type I.
B. Hyperlipoproteinemia type IV
C. Cholesterol, hyperlipoproteinemia
D. Hyperlipoproteinemia type IIa
E. Hyperlipoproteinemia type IIb
43. Human red blood cells do not contain mitochondria. What is the
main pathway for ATP production in these cells?
2139
A. Creatine kinase reaction
B. Anaerobic glycolysis
C. Cyclase reaction
D. Aerobic glycolysis
E. Oxidative phosphorylation
44. Biochemical analysis of an infant`s erythrocytes revealed evident
glutathione peroxidase deficiency and low concentration of reduced
glutathione. What pathological condition can develop in this infant?
A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Siclemia
D. Iron-deficiency anemia
E. Pernicous anemia
5945. A 28-year-old patient undergoing treatment in a pulmonological
department has been diagnosed with pulmonary emphysema caused
by splitting of alveolar septum by elastase and trypsin. The disease
is caused by the congenital deficiency of the following protein:
A. Alpha-1-proteinase inhibitor
B. Haptoglobin
C. Cryoglobulin
D. Alpha-2-macroglobulin
E. Transferrin
46. A patient has experienced thirst, frequent urination, weight loss,
and fatigue. Analysis of his blood reveals below normal pH, above
normal glucose level. What is the primary cause for the decrease of
normal pH in this patient?
A Hyperventilation
B Water loss due to frequent urination
C Diabetes insipidus
D Renal failure
2140
E Ketoacidosis
47. What of the following enzymatic actions is in need for vitamin K
use?
A. Activation of factor X of blood coagulation system
B. Regulation of blood calcium levels
C. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin
D. Synthesis of prothrombin
E. Transcriptional control of fibrinogen synthesis
48. All of the following are required for normal clot formation except:
A. Vitamin K
B. Calcium
C. Plasmin
D. Thrombin
E. Proteolysis
49. The hypoproteinemia (30-40 g/l) is indicated at nephritis syndrome,
and it causes an edema. Point out the protein of the blood plasma,
whose content is decreased in this case:
A. Fibrinogen
60B. Albumin
C. LDL
D. Interferon
E. Transferrin
50. Point out the protease of blood that helps to solvate the fibrin clot:
A. Plasminogen
B. Plasmin
C. Thromboplastin
D. Antifibrinolysinogen
E. Lysokinase
51. Choose the blood plasma index that is used in screening of newborn
for phenylketonuria estimation:
2141
A. Phenylalanine
B. Dihydroxyphenylalanine
C. Acetone
D. Acetoacetate
E. Pyruvate
52. Name the process that can be considered in the blood, only:
A. Synthesis of proteins
B. Destruction of hormones
C. Thrombosis
D. β-Oxidation of fatty acids
E. High fatty acid synthesis
53. Mature RBC contains all except one from the following list. Point
out it:
A. Enzymes of HMP shunt pathway
B. Enzymes of TCA cycle
C. Glycolytic enzymes
D. Pyridine nucleotides
E. Hemoglobin
54. Choose the anticoagulant normally present in the blood plasma:
A. Vitamin K
B. Heparin
C. Hyaluronidase
D. Dicumarol
61E. None of the above
55. Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin requires one or more
factors from the following list: Choose them:
A. Factor X and Ca
2+
only
B. Factor V and Ca
2+
2142
only
C. Factors X, V, Ca
2+
, acidic phospholipids
D. Factors XI, VI, Ca
2+
, acidic phospholipids
E. Factors X, V and Mn
2+
56. Continue the statement: “Estimation of glycosylated hemoglobin in

the blood helps to know the ____”.
A. Time duration of untreated diabetes mellitus
B. Rate of ketoacidosis
C. Rate of glucose utilization in tissues
D. The rate of oxygen saturation by hemoglobin
E. Reason of diabetes mellitus development
57. The activities of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH4, LDH5), alanine
aminotransferase, carbamoyl phosphate ornithine transferase are
increased in the blood plasma of patient. What organ (tissue) is the
pathological process developing in?
A. Skeletal muscles
B. Myocardium
C. Liver
D. Kidneys
E. Bones
58. The activities of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH1, LDH2), aspartate
aminotransferase, creatine kinase in the blood plasma of patient are
increased. In which of the following organs (tissues) is the
pathological process probably developing?
A. In the myocardium
B. In the skeletal muscles
2143
C. In adrenal glands
D. In the connective tissue of cartilages
E. In the liver
59. A 47-year-old patient was brought to an emergency department
with the diagnosis of myocardial infarction. What enzyme activity
62would prevail in the patient’s blood serum during the first -4 hours
after the beginning of this pathological state?
A. LDH1
B. Aspartate amino transferase
C. LDH3
D. Creatine phosphate kinase MM isozyme
E. LDH5
60. Point out the protein of blood plasma which provides the processes
of coagulation hemostasis?
A. Albumin
B. Haptoglobin
C. LDL
D. Ceruloplasmin
E. Fibrinogen
61. Choose the location of most plasma protein synthesis:
A. Liver
B. Lungs
C. Small intestine
D. Kidney
E. Skin
62. All of blood plasma proteins are transporters EXCEPT one in this
list. Choose it:
A. Transferrin
B. Albumin
C. Ceruloplasmin
2144
D. Fibrinogen
E. VLDL
63. Point out the most mobile and important buffer in extracellular
fluid:
A. Hemoglobin
B. Phosphate
C. Protein
D. H2CO3/HCO3
-
E. Na
+
/K
+
64. Osmolality of blood plasma is:

63A. Osmolarity per kg of solvent
B. Osmolarity per liter of solvent
C. Osmoles of solute per kg of solvent
D. Number of osmoles of solute per liter of solution
E. A liter of solvent per 1 mole
65. Point out normal region of blood pH:
A. 6.85-7.0
B. 7.05-7.2
C. 7.77-8.0
D. 7.38-7.4
E. 7.45-7.6
66. Most affinity of blood plasma iron ion is seen with one compound
listed below. Choose it:
A. Transferrin
B. Ferritin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Ceruloplasmin
2145
E. Albumin
67. Point out the most important compensatory mechanism in
metabolic acidosis:
A. Hyperventilation
B. Increased NH3 excretion by kidneys
C. Increased filtration of phosphates
D. Increased HCO3
-
production
E. Urea production in the liver
64Lesson 17. Biochemistry of kidney. The role of kidneys in
the regulation of mineral metabolism. The components

of urine at healthy and diseased people
1. Point out the substance that appears in the urine in a case of
alkaptonuria:
A. Fructose
B. Protein
C. Homogentisic acid
D. Glucose
E. Tryptophan
2. The diuresis in healthy adults is about:
A. 400-700 ml
B. 1000-2000 ml
C. 2000-3000 ml
D. 700-900 ml
E. 3000-4000 ml
3. Point out the pathological component of urine:
A. Haemoglobin
B. Urea
C. Uric acid
2146
D. Creatinine
E. Amino acids
4. Point out the normal component of urine:
A. Coniugated bilirubin
B. Glucose
C. Ketone bodies
D. Uric acid
E. Albumins
5. What is the urine color when intestinal rotting processes are
intensified:
A. Brown
B. Straw-yellow
C. Red
D. Green or blue
65E. Beer like color
6. Choose the urine component, whose concentration increases at
consuming a lot of meat food:
A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. Uric acid
D. Ketone bodies
E. Fructose
7. The concentration of what urine component will decrease in a case of
viral hepatitis:
A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. Urea
D. Lipids
E. Carbohydrates
8. Point out the qualitative reaction to prove the presence of blood
2147
pigments in urine:
A. Heller's test
B. Benzidine test
C. Lugol's test
D. Trommer's reaction
E. Rozine's reaction
9. The violation of the hormone secretion is followed by polyuria.
Choose this hormone:
A. Adrenalin
B. Insulin
C. Testosterone
D. Vasopressin
E. Oxytocin
10. Point out the qualitative reaction to prove the presence of proteins
in urine:
A. Heller's test
B. Benzidine test
C. Lugol's test
D. Trommer's reaction
66E. Rozine's reaction
11. Examination of a 43 y.o. anephric patient revealed anemia
symptoms. What is the cause of these symptoms?
A. Folic acid deficit
B. Vitamin B12 deficit
C. Reduced synthesis of erythropoietins
D. Enhanced destruction of erythrocytes
E. Iron deficit
12. A patient complains about dyspnea provoked by the physical
activity. Clinical examination revealed anaemia and presence of the
para-protein in the zone of gamma-globulins. To confirm the
2148
myeloma diagnosis it is necessary to determine the following index
in the patient’s urine:
A. Ceruplasmin
B. Bilirubin
C. Antitrypsin
D. Bence Jones protein
E. Haemoglobin
13.A biochemical urine analysis has been performed for a patient with
progressive muscular dystrophy. In the given case muscle disease
can be confirmed by the high content of the following substance in
urine:
A. Urea
B. Porphyrin
C. Hippuric acid
D. Creatine
E. Creatinine
14. Which is a physiological constituent of urine
A. Globulins
B. Glucose
C. Albumin
D. Creatinine
E. Bilirubin
15. Arthritis occur in
A. Alkaptonuria
67B. Cystinosis
C. Maple syrup diseases
D. Homocystinuria
E. Addison’s disease
16. Pyruvate concentration in the patient’s urine is increased 10 times
than the normal level. Choose the vitamin, the deficiency of which
2149
in the organism can be the reason of this change:
А. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin B2
17. One way of acid-base balance maintenance in organism by means
of kidney is ammonia salts formation. Point out the enzyme in
kidney that takes part in this process:
A. Monooxygenase
B. Arginase
C. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
D. Glutaminase
E. Alanine amino transferase
18. A boy (of 10 years) complains of general weakness, dizziness, and
tiredness. A mental retardation is observed. A concentration of
valine, leucine, isoleucine is high in blood and urine. Urine has a
specific odour. Name the probable diagnosis:
A. Maple syrup urine disease
B. Phenylketonuria
C. Histidinemia
D. Tyrosinemia
E. Hartnup disease
19. Choose the form of the bile pigment, which is the normal urine
component:
A. Uroporphyrin
B. Unconjugated bilirubin
C. Conjugated bilirubin
D. Mesobilinogen
68E. Stercobilinogen
2150
20. Point out the pathological urine component that appears in the urine
during nephritis, some cardiac diseases, some forms of idiopathic
hypertension and pregnancy pathology. Test with sulphosalicylic
acid for that component is the most sensitive reaction:
A. Amino acids
B. Urea
C. Uric acid
D. Hippuric acid
E. Protein
21. Kidney insufficiency in patient is accompanied with:
A. Excess levels of urea in the blood plasma
B. Excess levels of potassium ions in the blood plasma
C. Disturbed clearance
D. Disturbed filtration and reabsorption processes
22. Point out a major source of ammonia in kidney tissue:
A. Urea
B. Aspartate
C. Glutamine
D. Glutamate
E. Uric acid
23. Choose normal amount of proteins excreted in urine/24 hours.
A. Less than 150 mg
B. 200 mg - 225 mg
C. 450 mg – 500 mg
D. More than 800 mg
E. 150 mg – 250 mg
24. Name organic compound which is terminal for humans and not
reabsorbed in renal tubules:
A. Globulins
2151
B. Glucose
C. Albumin
D. Creatinine
E. Bilirubin
6925. Choose the specific gravity region (g/ml) for urine of healthy
person:
A. 1.005-1.015
B. 1.030-1.040
C. 1.015-1.020
D. 1.030-1.040
E. Less then 1.010
26. Creatinine levels in the urine and blood are used to test kidney
function. Creatinine is useful for this test because it is not significantly
reabsorbed nor secreted by kidney, and metabolically it is:
A. Produced at a constant rate
B. Produced only in kidney
C. A storage form of energy
D. An acceptor of protons in renal tubules
E. A precursor for phosphocreatine
27. Appearance of albumins in the urine of diseased person may be at:
A. Acute nephritis
B. Chronical nephritis
C. Severe form of diabetes mellitus
D. Pyelonephritis
28. Choose the main biochemical tests for diagnostics of kidney
diseases:
A. Urea content in the blood plasma and in the urine
B. Creatinine content in the blood and urine
C. Sodium ions content in the blood and urine
2152
D. N-acetyl-beta-D-glucosaminidase activity (blood serum, urine)
29. What organic compounds accumulate in final urine at severe form
of diabetes mellitus?
A. Albumins
B. Glucose
C. Ketone bodies
D. Bilirubin conjugated
E. All that is placed in positions A, B, C
7030. Kidney insufficiency development will cause the infringements in
those processes:
A. Erythropoietin synthesis and secretion
B. Calcitriol synthesis
C. Mineralization of bone tissue
D. Creatine synthesis
7172
Recommended literature:
1. Satyanarayana U., Chakrapani U. Biochemistry. – 3
rd
ed. -
Kolkata:Books and Allied, India. – 2006. – 792 p.
2. R. K. Murray, D.K. Granner, P.A. Mayes, V.W. Rodwell . Harper`s
Illustrated Biochemistry., LANGE medical books, 26-edition, India,
2006.-868 p.
3. T.T.Berezov, B.F.Korovkin. Biochemistry.- M.: Medicine, 1992.-
542 p.
4. Davidson V.L., Sittman D.B. Biochemistry. USA:Harwal Publishing.
-1994. – 584 p.
5. William J Marshall, Stephen K Bangert. Clinical Chemistry. Fifth
2153
edition. – China:”Mosby”. -2004. – 422 p.
6. Lieberman Michael; Marks Allan; Smith Colleen. Marks' Essential
Medical Biochemistry, 2nd Edition. - Lippincott Williams &
Wilkins. – 2007. – 540 p.
7. A. Lehninger. Principles of Biochemistry, fourth edition, 2000. –
1118 p.
8. Smith Colleen, Marks Allan, Lieberman Michael. Marks’ Basic
Medical Biochemistry: A Clinical Approach, 2nd Ed. - Lippincott
Williams & Wilkins.- 2005.-977 p.73
Answers on MCQs
Module2 submodule 4 Lesson 10
1 B 11 E 21 E 31 A 41 C
2 C 12 B 22 A 32 E 42 C
3 B 13 E 23 A 33 A 43 B
4 D 14 E 24 C 34 C
5 D 15 A 25 B 35 A
6 B 16 E 26 C 36 E
7 E 17 E 27 A 37 A
8 B 18 B 28 B 38 C
9 A 19 A 29 B 39 A
10 D 20 C 30 C 40 E
Lesson 11
1 D 11 B 21 B 31 D
2 C 12 C 22 D 32 A
3 D 13 A 23 E 33 D
4 E 14 A 24 A 34 B
5 C 15 A 25 A 35 C
6 B 16 D 26 A 36 A
7 D 17 E 27 B 37 B
8 B 18 D 28 A 38 A
9 C 19 C 29 E 39 C
10 C 20 D 30 E 40 D
2154
Lesson 13
1 A 11 B 21 C
2 E 12 D 22 C
3 E 13 C 23 B
4 A 14 B 24 A
5 A 15 A 25 D
6 E 16 E 26 A
7 C 17 A 27 C
8 A 18 D 28 A
9 C 19 B 29 B
10 A 20 E 30 A
Lesson 12
1 B 11 B 21 D 31 C
2 D 12 A 22 C 32 A
3 D 13 E 23 B 33 E
4 B 14 E 24 D 34 A
5 B 15 C 25 D 35 E
6 B 16 D 26 A 36 A
7 D 17 A 27 B
8 C 18 C 28 C
9 B 19 B 29 A
10 E 20 A 30 A74
Lesson 15
1 C 11 D 21 B
2 B 12 A 22 D
3 E 13 C 23 D
4 C 14 C 24 D
5 C 15 E 25 D
6 D 16 D 26 E
7 E 17 D 27 A
8 A 18 E 28 A
9 A 19 D
10 B 20 A
Lesson 16
2155
1 E 11 B 21 E 31 A 41 B 51 A 61 A
2 D 12 E 22 B 32 E 42 D 52 C 62 D
3 E 13 B 23 E 33 B 43 B 53 B 63 D
4 A 14 D 24 E 34 E 44 A 54 B 64 C
5 A 15 B 25 A 35 C 45 A 55 C 65 D
6 C 16 A 26 A 36 D 46 E 56 A 66 A
7 D 17 E 27 C 37 A 47 D 57 C 67 B
8 B 18 C 28 B 38 A 48 C 58 A
9 C 19 D 29 D 39 A 49 B 59 B
10 C 20 E 30 A 40 C 50 B 60 E
Lesson 17
1 C 11 C 21 E
2 B 12 D 22 C
3 A 13 D 23 A
4 D 14 D 24 D
5 D 15 A 25 C
6 C 16 A 26 A
7 C 17 D 27 E
8 B 18 A 28 E
9 D 19 E 29 E
10 A 20 E 30 E
Lesson 14
1 C 11 D 21 C
2 A 12 D 22 D
3 C 13 A 23 D
4 C 14 D 24 E
5 B 15 C 25 E
6 B 16 D 26 B
7 E 17 C 27 E
8 C 18 A 28 E
9 D 19 B 29 C
10 D 20 B 30 DПідписано до друку _________ 20__р.
Папір офсетний. Друк – ризограф.
Наклад _____ примірників
2156
Замовлення №____
Оригінал-макет виконаний на кафедрі біохімії та
лабораторної діагностики
690 , м. Запоріжжя, пр. Маяковського, 26
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intentionallyleft
blankFOREWORD
CompetitiveExaminationsaretheorderoftheday.AllCollegesconductingprofessionalco
ursesatPGlevel
areadmittingstudentsbasedoncommonentranceexamination,whichisofobjectivetype
.
InPharmacy,M.Pharm
admissionsarebasedonqualifyingtheGATEenteranceexaminationconductedbyG
ovt.ofIndia.
Inthisbook,Theauthorhasdonegoodworkinpreparingseveralobjectivequestionswhichh
elpthestudents
tofacethesubjectintheexaminationwithpoiseandconfidence.
Thebookiswellbalancedandconsistsofmultiplechoicequestionsfrom
alltheimportanttopicslike
carbohydratemetabolismandotherimportantBiochemicalaspects.
Thetypesettingandqualityofprintingisgood.Theauthorisalsowellexperiencedintakingu
pthistypeofwork.
2158
IrecommendthisbooktoallthestudentspreparingforG
ATEexaminationandalsoforMedicaland
PharmacyCollegelibraries.
PROF.B.G.SHIVANANDA
Principal
AL-AMEENCOLLEGEOF
PHARMACYBAN
GALORE.
PREFACE Ihavebroughtoutthisbookbasicallyforstudentswhoplantoapp
earforBiochemistryintheentrance
examinationslikeJIPMERandotherMedical,Pharmacy,Physiotherapy,N
ursingandotherParamedicalPG
EntranceExaminations.Thereisadearth ofgood
entrancemanualofBiochemistryfortheabovesaid
examinations.Hence,IhavepreparedanexhaustiveQ uestionbankofaround5000MCQ
swithanswers
coveringawidespectrumofbasicBiochemicaltopicsofthesubject.
SomeoftheimportanttopicswhicharegivenagoodcoverageincludeCarbohydratemetab
olism,Protein
metabolism,Lipidmetabolism,Nucleicacids,Enzymes,VitaminsandMineralmetabolis
m.
Theobjectivequestionsarepreparedbasedonthebackgroundtakenfrom
previousquestionpapersof
ProfessionalmedicalandParamedicalcompetitiveentranceexaminations.
ThebookservesasareadyreckonerforBiochemistryasfarasobjectivepatternisconcerned.
Ifeelsatisfied
ifthebookservesthepurposeforwhichitisintended.
2159
Ihavetriedtominimizetypographicalerrorsbutstillsomemusthavecreptin.Iftheyarebro
ughttomynotice,
Iwillberectifyingtheminthenextedition.
ConstructiveCriticismisalwayswelcome
G.VidyaSagar
ACKNOWLEDGEMENTS
Iwishtoexpressmyprofoundgratitudeandbenevolencetothefollowingwhoweretheinspi
ringforcein
makingthisbookareality
• Prof.Dr.KishorPramodBhusari
• SadhviShilapiji
Principal,NagpurCollegeofPharmacy
Chairperson,VeerayatanVidyapeeth,
Nagpur.
Jakhaniya,Kutch,Gujarat
• Prof.Dr.R.Rangari
WATERANDELECTROLYTEBALANCE 289• Prof.Dr.R.K.Goyal
Principal,J.N.ChaturvediCollegeofPharmacy
L.M.CollegeofPharmacy
Nagpur
Ahmedabad,Gujarat
• Prof.Dr.AnantNaikNagappa
• Prof.Dr.A.K.Saluja
Pharmacygroup,BirlaInstituteofTechnology
&
2160
A.R.CollegeofPharmacy
Sciences
VallabhVidyanagar
Pilani,Rajasthan
Gujarat
• Prof.Dr.SrinivasRao
• Prof.J.V.L.N.SheshagiriRao
Principal,VEL’sCollegeofPharmacy
Dept.ofPharmaceuticalSciences
C hennai
AndhraUniversity,Vishakhapatnam,A.P.
Finally,IexpressmygratitudetoMr.SaumyaGupta.MD,NewAgeInternational(P)Limite
d,NewDelhi,for
hisencouragementandsupport.
Dr.G.VidyaSagar
SOMEVALUABLECOMMENTS Thisboo
kisveryusefulforstudentsappearingforGATEExams.Recommendedreading.
Prof.Dr.SubhasC.Marihal
Principal,GoaCollegeofPharmacy,Goa.
Biochemistrymadesimpleintheformofmultiplechoicequestions.Stronglyrecommende
d.
Prof.Dr.VijaykumarIshwarHukkeri
Principal,KLECollegeofPharmacy,Hubli
Dr.VidyaSagarcanbeapplaudedforhisuntiringeffortsinbringingoutsuchagoodbook.
RecommendedforstudentsandLibrary
2161
Dr.G.DevalaRao
Principal,SidharthaCollegeofPharmaceutical
Sciences
Vijaywada,A.P.
ThisbookwillbeveryusefulcompanionforstudentsappearingforPGMedical,Pharmacy,
Nursingand
Physiotherapycompetitiveexams.
Prof.Dr.T.K.Ravi
Principal,SriRamakrishnaInstituteofPharmaceutical
ScienceC
oimbatore.
MCQsarewellframed,mostlyfrompreviousentranceexaminations.Commendablework
.
Prof.MadhukarR.Tajne
Deptt.ofPharmaceuticalSciences,
NagpurUniversity,Nagpur
CONTENTS Preface (x)
Chapter1
INTRODUCTIONTOBIOCHEMISTRY 1
CHAPTER2
CARBOHYDRATESANDCARBOHYDRATEMETABOLISM 5
CHAPTER3
PROTEINS&PROTEINMETABOLISM 27
CHAPTER4
FATS&FATTYACIDMETABOLISM 75
2162
CHAPTER5
VITAMINS 113
CHAPTER6
ENZYMES 141
CHAPTER7
MINERALMETABOLISM 183
CHAPTER8
HORMONEMETABOLISM 209
CHAPTER9
NUCLEICACIDS 237
CHAPTER10WATER&ELECTROLYTEBALANCE 281
This page
intentionallyleft
blank 1. Adrugwhichpreventsuricacidsynthesisby
inhibitingtheenzymexanthineoxidaseis
(A) Aspirin(B)Allopurinol
(C)Colchicine (D)Probenecid
2. Which of the following is required
forcrystallizationandstorageofthehormone
insulin?
2163
(A) Mn
++
(B)Mg
++
(C)Ca
++
(D)Zn
++
3. Oxidation of which substance in the
bodyyieldsthemostcalories
(A) Glucose (B)Glycogen
(C)Protein (D)Lipids
4. Milkisdeficientinwhichvitamins?
(A) VitaminC (B)VitaminA
(C)VitaminB2 (D)VitaminK
5. Milkisdeficientofwhichmineral?
(A) Phosphorus (B)Sodium
(C)Iron (D)Potassium
6. Synthesisofprostaglandinsisisinhibitedby
(A) Aspirin(B)Arsenic
(C)Fluoride (D)Cyanide
7. HDLissynthesizedandsecretedfrom
(A) Pancreas (B)Liver
(C)Kidney (D)Muscle
CHAPTER1
2164
INTRODUCTIONTO
BIOCHEMISTRY
8. Which are the cholesterol esters that
entercells through the receptor-mediated
endocytosisoflipoproteinshydrolyzed?
(A) Endoplasminreticulum
(B) Lysosomes
(C) Plasmamembranereceptor
(D) Mitochondria
9. Which of the following phospholipids
islocalizedtoagreaterextentintheouter
leafletofthemembranelipidbilayer?
(A) Cholinephosphoglycerides
(B) Ethanolaminephosphoglycerides
(C) Inositolphosphoglycerides
(D) Serinephosphoglycerides
10. Allthefollowingprocessesoccurrapidlyinthe
membranelipidbilayerexcept
(A) Flexingoffattyacylchains
(B) Lateraldiffusionofphospholipids
(C) Transbilayerdiffusionofphopholipids
(D) Rotation ofphospholipidsaround their
longaxes
11. Whichofthefollowingstatementiscorrect
2165
aboutmembranecholesterol?
(A) Thehydroxylgroupislocatednearthe
centreofthelipidlayer
(B) Mostofthecholesterolisintheform of
acholesterolester
(C) Thesteroidnucleusform formsarigid,
planarstructure
(D) The hydrocarbon chain ofcholesterol
projectsintotheextracellularfluid
12. Which one is the heaviest
particulatecomponentofthecell?
(A) Nucleus (B)Mitochondria
(C)Cytoplasm (D)Golgiapparatus
13. Which one is the largest particulate of
thecytoplasm?
(A) Lysosomes
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgiapparatus
(D) Entoplasmicreticulum
14. The degradative Processess are
categorizedundertheheadingof
(A) Anabolism (B)Catabolism(C)Metabolism (D)Noneoftheabove
15. Theexchangeofmaterialtakesplace
(A) Onlybydiffusion
(B) Onlybyactivetransport
(C) Onlybypinocytosis
2166
(D) Allofthese
16. TheaveragepHofUrineis
(A) 7.0 (B)6.0
(C)8.0 (D)0.0
17. ThepHofbloodis7.4whentheratiobetween
H2CO3andNaHCO3is
(A) 1:10 (B)1:20
(C)1:25 (C)1:30
18. Thephenomenonofosmosisisoppositeto
thatof
(A) Diffusion (B)Effusion
(C)Affusion (D)Coagulation
19. The surface tension in intestinal
lumenbetween fat droplets and aqueous
mediumisdecreasedby
(A) BileSalts (B)Bileacids
(C)Conc.H2SO4 (D)Aceticacid
20. Which of the following is located in
themitochondria?
(A) Cytochromeoxidase
(B) Succinatedehydrogenase
(C) Dihydrolipoyldehydrogenase
(C)Allofthese
21. Themostactivesiteofproteinsynthesisis
the
(A) Nucleus (B)Ribosome
2167
(C)Mitochondrion (D)Cellsap
22. Thefattyacidscanbetransportedintoand
outofmitochondriathrough
(A) Activetransport
(B) Facilitatedtransfer
(C) Non-facilitatedtransfer
(D) Noneofthese
23. MitochondrialDNAis
(A) Circulardoublestranded
(B) Circularsinglestranded
(C) Lineardoublehelix
(D) Noneofthese
24. Theabsorptionofintactproteinfrom thegut
inthefoetalandnewbornanimalstakesplace
by
(A) Pinocytosis (B)Passivediffusion
(C)Simplediffusion (D)Activetransport
25. Thecellularorganellescalled“suicidebags”
are
(A) Lysosomes (B)Ribosomes
(C)Nucleolus (D)Golgi’sbodies
26. From thebiologicalviewpoint,solutionscan
begroupedinto
(A) Isotonicsolution
(B) Hypotonicsolutions
(C) Hypertonicsolution
2168
(D) Allofthese
27. Bulk transport across cell membrane
isaccomplishedby
(A) Phagocytosis (B)Pinocytosis
(C)Extrusion (D)Allofthese
28. Theabilityofthecellmembranetoactasa
selectivebarrierdependsupon
(A) Thelipidcompositionofthemembrane
(B) Theporeswhichallowssmallmolecules
(C) Thespecialmediatedtransportsystems
(D) Allofthese
29. Carrierproteincan
(A) Transportonlyonesubstance
(B) Transportmorethanonesubstance
(C) Exchangeonesubstancetoanother
(D) Performallofthesefunctions
30. Alipidbilayerispermeableto
(A) Urea (B)Fructose
(C)Glucose (D)Potassium
31. TheGolgicomplex
(A) Synthesizesproteins
(B) ProducesATP
(C) Provides a pathway for transporting
chemicals(D)Formsglycoproteins
32. Thefollowingpointsaboutmicrofilamentsare
trueexcept
2169
2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY(A) They form cytoskeleton with
microtubules
(B) Theyprovidesupportandshape
(C) They form intracellular conducting
channels
(D) They are involved in muscle cell
contraction
33. Thefollowingsubstancesarecellinclusions
except
(A) Melanin (B)Glycogen
(C)Lipids (D)Centrosome
34. Fattyacidscanbetransportedintoandoutof
cellmembraneby
(A) Activetransport(B)Facilitatedtransport
(C)Diffusion (D)Osmosis
35. Enzymes catalyzing electron transportare
presentmainlyinthe
(A) Ribosomes
(B) Endoplasmicreticulum
(C) Lysosomes
(D) Innermitochondrialmembrane
36. Matureerythrocytesdonotcontain
(A) Glycolytic enzymes(B) HMP shunt
enzymes
(C)Pyridinenucleotide(D)ATP
37. InmammaliancellsrRNAisproducedmainly
2170
inthe
(A) Endoplasmicreticulum
(B) Ribosome
(C) Nucleolus
(D) Nucleus
38. Genetic information of nuclear DNA
istransmittedtothesiteofproteinsynthesis
by
(A) rRNA (B)mRNA
(C)tRNA (D)Polysomes
39. Thepowerhouseofthecellis
(A) Nucleus (B)Cellmembrane
(C)Mitochondria (D)Lysosomes
40. Thedigestiveenzymesofcellularcompounds
areconfinedto
(A) Lysosomes (B)Ribosomes
(C)Peroxisomes (D)Polysomes
ANSWERS
1.B 2.D 3.D 4.A 5.C 6.A
7.B 8.B9.A10.C 11.C 12.A13.B 14.B 15.D 16.B 17.B 18.A
19.A 20.D 21.B 22.B 23.A 24.A
25.A 26.D 27.D 28.D 29.D 30.A
31.D 32.C 33.D 34.B 35.D 36.C
37.C 38.D 39.C 40.A
2171
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intentionallyleft
blank
INTRODUCTIONTOBIOCHEMISTRY 3 CHAPTER2
CARBOHYDRATESAND
CARBOHYDRATEMETABOLISM
1. Thegeneralformulaofmonosaccharidesis
(A) CnH2nOn (B)C2nH2On(C)CnH2O2n (D)
CnH2nO2n
2. Thegeneralformulaofpolysaccharidesis
(A) (C6H10O5)n (B)(C6H12O5)n
(C)(C6H10O6)n (D)(C6H10O6)n
3. Thealdosesugaris(A)Glycerose(B)
Ribulose
(C)Erythrulose (D)Dihydoxyacetone
4. Atriosesugaris
(A) Glycerose (B)Ribose
2172
(C)Erythrose (D)Fructose
5. Apentosesugaris
(A) Dihydroxyacetone(B)Ribulose
(C)Erythrose (D)Glucose
6. The pentose sugar present mainly in
theheartmuscleis
(A) Lyxose (B)Ribose
(C)Arabinose (D)Xylose
7. Polysaccharidesare
(A) Polymers (B)Acids
(C)Proteins (D)Oils
8. Thenumberofisomersofglucoseis
(A) 2 (B)4
(C)8 (D)16
9. Two sugars which differ from one
anotheronlyinconfigurationaroundasingle
carbonatomaretermed
(A) Epimers(B)Anomers
(C)Opticalisomers (D)Stereoisomers
10. Isomersdifferingasaresultofvariationsin
configurationofthe—OHand—Honcarbon
atoms2,3and4ofglucoseareknownas
(A) Epimers(B)Anomers
(C)Opticalisomers (D)Steroisomers
11. Themostimportantepimerofglucoseis
(A) Galactose (B)Fructose
2173
(C)Arabinose (D)Xylose
12. α-D-glucoseandβ-D-glucoseare
(A) Stereoisomers (B)Epimers
(C)Anomers (D)Keto-aldopairs
13. α-D-glucose+112
→ +52.5
←+19
βD-
glucoseforglucoseaboverepresents(A) Opticalisomerism(B)Mutarotation
(C)Epimerisation (D)DandLisomerism
14. Compounds having the same
structuralformula butdiffering in spatial
configurationareknownas
(A) Stereoisomers (B)Anomers
(C)Opticalisomers (D)Epimers6 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
15. Inglucosetheorientationofthe—Hand—OH
groupsaroundthecarbonatom 5adjacentto
the terminal primary alcohol carbon
determines
(A) DorLseries
(B) Dextroorlevorotatory
(C) αandβanomers
(D) Epimers
2174
16. The carbohydrate of the blood
groupsubstancesis
(A) Sucrose(B)Fucose
(C)Arabinose (D)Maltose
17. Erythromycincontains
(A) Dimethylaminosugar
(B) Trimethylaminosugar
(C) Sterolandsugar
(D) Glycerolandsugar
18. Asugaralcoholis
(A) Mannitol(B)Trehalose
(C)Xylulose (D)Arabinose
19. Themajorsugarofinsecthemolymphis
(A) Glycogen (B)Pectin
(C)Trehalose (D)Sucrose
20. ThesugarfoundinDNAis
(A) Xylose (B)Ribose
(C)Deoxyribose (D)Ribulose
21. ThesugarfoundinRNAis
(A) Ribose (B)Deoxyribose
(C)Ribulose (D)Erythrose
22. Thesugarfoundinmilkis
(A) Galactose (B)Glucose
(C)Fructose (D)Lactose
23. Invertsugaris
(A) Lactose(B)Sucrose
2175
(C) Hydrolyticproductsofsucrose
(D) Fructose
24. Sucroseconsistsof
(A) Glucose + glucose(B) Glucose +
fructose(C)Glucose+galactose
(D)Glucose+mannose
25. Themonosaccharideunitsarelinkedby
1→ 4glycosidiclinkagein
(A) Maltose(B)Sucrose
(C)Cellulose (D)Cellobiose
26. Whichofthefollowingisanon-reducingsugar?
(A) Isomaltose (B)Maltose
(C)Lactose (D)Trehalose
27. Whichofthefollowingisareducingsugar?
(A)Sucrose (B)
Trehalose
(C)Isomaltose (D)Agar
28. A dissaccharide formed by 1,1-
glycosidiclinkage between their
monosaccharideunitsis
(A) Lactose(B)Maltose
29. A dissaccharide formed by 1,1-
glycosidiclinkage between their
monosaccharideunitsis
(A) Lactose(B)Maltose
2176
30. Mutarotationreferstochangein
(A) pH (B)Opticalrotation
(C)Conductance (D)Chemicalproperties
31. A polysacchharide which is often
calledanimalstarchis
(A) Glycogen (B)Starch
(C)Inulin (D)Dextrin
32. Thehomopolysaccharideusedforintravenous
infusionasplasmasubstituteis
(A) Agar (B)Inulin
(C)Pectin (D)Starch
33. The polysaccharide used in assessing
theglomerularfittrationrate(GFR)is
(A) Glycogen (B)Agar
(C)Inulin (D)Hyaluronicacid
34. Theconstituentunitofinulinis
(A) Glucose(B)Fructose
(C)Mannose (D)Galactose
35. Thepolysaccharidefoundintheexoskeleton
ofinvertebratesisCARBOHYDRATESANDCARBOHYDRATEMETABOLISM 7
(A) Pectin (B)Chitin
(C)Cellulose (D)Chondroitinsulphate
36. Whichofthefollowingisaheteroglycan?
(A) Dextrins(B)Agar
(C)Inulin (D)Chitin
2177
37. The glycosaminoglycan which does
notcontainuronicacidis
(A) Dermatansulphate
(B) Chondroitinsulphate
(C) Keratansulphate
(D) Heparansulphate
38. The glycosaminoglycan which does
notcontainuronicacidis
(A) Hyaluronicacid
(B) Heparin
(C) Chondroitinsulphate
(D) Dermatansulphate
39. Keratansulphateisfoundinabundancein
(A) Heartmuscle(B)Liver
(C)Adrenalcortex (D)Cornea
40. Repeatingunitsofhyaluronicacidare
(A) N-acetylglucosamineandD-glucuronic
acid
(B) N-acetyl galactosamine and D-
glucuronicacid
(C) N-acetylglucosamineandgalactose
(D) N-acetylgalactosamineandL-iduronic
acid
41. The approximate number of branches
inamylopectinis
(A) 10 (B)20
2178
(C)40 (D)80
42. Inamylopectintheintervalsofglucoseunitsof
eachbranchis
(A) 10–20 (B)24–30(C)30–40 (D)
40–50
43. A polymer of glucose synthesized by
theactionofleuconostocmesenteroidsina
sucrosemediumis
(A) Dextrans(B)Dextrin(C)Limitdextrin
(D)Inulin
44. Glucoseonreductionwithsodiumamalgam
forms
(A) Dulcitol(B)Sorbitol
(C)Mannitol (D)Mannitolandsorbitol
45. Glucoseonoxidationdoesnotgive
(A) Glycoside (B)Glucosaccharicacid
(C)Gluconicacid (D)Glucuronicacid
46. OxidationofgalactosewithconcHNO3yields
(A) Mucicacid (B)Glucuronicacid
(C)Saccharicacid (D)Gluconicacid
47. ApositiveBenedict’stestisnotgivenby
(A)Sucrose (B)Lactose
(C)Maltose
48.Starchisa
(D)Glucose
(A)Polysaccharide (B)
2179
Monosaccharide
(C)Disaccharide (D)Noneofthese
49. ApositiveSeliwanoff’stestisobtainedwith
(A) Glucose (B)Fructose
(C)Lactose (D)Maltose
50. Osazonesarenotformedwiththe
(C)Sucrose (D)Lactose
51. Themostabundantcarbohydratefoundin
natureis
(A) Starch(B)Glycogen (C)Cellulose(D)
Chitin
52. Impairedrenalfunctionisindicatedwhenthe
amountofPSP excreted in the first15
minutesis
(A) 20% (B)35%
(C)40% (D)45%
53. Anearlyfeatureofrenaldiseaseis
(A) Impairmentofthecapacityofthetubule
toperformosmoticwork
(B) Decrease in maximal tubular
excretorycapacity
(C) Decreaseinfiltrationfactor
(D) Decreaseinrenalplasmaflow
54. ADHtestisbasedonthemeasurementof
(A) Specificgravityofurine
2180
(B) Concentrationofureainurine8 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(C) Concentrationofureainblood
(D) Volumeofurineinml/minute
55. Thespecificgravityofurinenormallyranges
from
(A) 0.900–0.999 (B)1.003–1.030
(C)1.000–1.001 (D)1.101–1.120
56. Specificgravityofurineincreasesin
(A) Diabetesmellitus
(B) Chronicglomerulonephritis
(C) Compulsivepolydypsia
(D) Hypercalcemia
57. Fixationofspecificgravityofurineto
1.010isfoundin
(A) Diabetesinsipidus
(B) Compulsivepolydypsia
(C) Cystinosis
(D) Chronicglomerulonephritis
58. Addistestisthemeasureof
(A) Impairmentofthecapacityofthetubule
(B) Secretoryfunctionofliver
(C) Excretoryfunctionofliver
(D) Activityofparenchymalcellsofliver
59. Numberofstereoisomersofglucoseis
(A) 4 (B)8
2181
(C)16 (D)Noneofthese
60. Maltosecanbeformedbyhydrolysisof
(A) Starch (B)Dextrin
(C)Glycogen (D)Allofthese
61. α–D–Glucuronicacidispresentin
(A) Hyaluronicacid (B) Chondroitin
sulphate
(C)Heparin (D)Allofthese
62. Fructoseispresentinhydrolysateof
(A) Sucrose (B)Inulin(C)Bothoftheabove
(D)Noneofthese
63. AcarbohydratefoundinDNAis
(A) Ribose (B)Deoxyribose
(C)Ribulose (D)Allofthese
64. Ribuloseisathese
(A) Ketotetrose (B)Aldotetrose
(C)Ketopentose (D)Aldopentose
65. A carbohydrate, commonly known
asdextroseis
(A) Dextrin (B)D-Fructose
(C)D-Glucose (D)Glycogen
66. Acarbohydratefoundonlyinmilkis
(A) Glucose (B)Galactose
(C)Lactose (D)Maltose
67. Acarbohydrate,knowncommonlyasinvert
sugar,is
2182
(A) Fructose(B)Sucrose
(C)Glucose (D)Lactose
68. Aheteropolysacchraideamongthefollowing
is
(A) Inulin(B)Cellulose
(C)Heparin (D)Dextrin
69. Thepredominantform ofglucoseinsolution
is
(A) Acyclicform
(B) Hydratedacyclicform
(C) Glucofuranose
(D) Glucopyranose
70. An L-isomerofmonosaccharide formed
inhumanbodyis
(A) L-fructose (B)L-Erythrose
(C)L-Xylose (D)L-Xylulose
71. Hyaluronicacidisfoundin
(A) Joints (B)Brain
(C)Abdomen (D)Mouth
72. The carbon atom which
becomesasymmetric when the straight
chainform ofmonosaccharidechangesinto
ringformisknownas
(A) Anomeric carbon atom(B) Epimeric
carbonatom
(C) Isomericcarbonatom
2183
(D) Noneofthese
73. The smallest monosaccharide
havingfuranoseringstructureis
(A) Erythrose(B)RiboseCARBOHYDRATESANDCARBOHYDRATEMETABOLISM 9
(C)Glucose (D)Fructose
74. Whichofthefollowingisanepimericpair?
(A) Glucoseandfructose
(B) Glucoseandgalactose
(C) Galactoseandmannose
(D) Lactoseandmaltose
75. α-Glycosidicbondispresentin
(A) Lactose (B)Maltose
(C)Sucrose (D)Allofthese
76. Branchingoccursinglycogenapproximately
afterevery
(A) Fiveglucoseunits
(B) Tenglucoseunits
(C) Fifteenglucoseunits
(D) Twentyglucoseunits
77. N–Acetylglucosamnineispresentin
(A) Hyaluronicacid (B) Chondroitin
sulphate
(C)Heparin (D)Allofthese
78. Iodinegivesaredcolourwith
(A) Starch (B)Dextrin
(C)Glycogen (D)Inulin
2184
79. Amyloseisaconstituentof
(A) Starch (B)Cellulose
(C)Glycogen (D)Noneofthese
80. Synovialfluidcontains
(A) Heparin
(B) Hyaluronicacid
(C) Chondroitinsulphate
(D) Keratinsulphate
81. Gluconeogenesisisdecreasedby
(A) Glucagon(B)Epinephrine
(C)Glucocorticoids (D)Insulin
82. Lactate formed in muscles can be
utilisedthrough
(A) Rapoport-Luebelingcycle
(B) Glucose-alaninecycle
(C) Cori’scycle
(D) Citricacidcycle
83. Glucose-6-phosphataseisnotpresentin
(A) Liverandkidneys
(B) Kidneysandmuscles
(C) Kidneysandadiposetissue
(D) Musclesandadiposetissue
84. Pyruvatecarboxylaseisregulatedby
(A) Induction(B)Repression
(C)Allostericregulation(D)Allofthese
85. Fructose-2,6-biphosphateisformedbythe
2185
actionof
(A) Phosphofructokinase-1
(B) Phosphofructokinase-2
(C) Fructosebiphosphateisomerase
(D) Fructose-1,6-biphosphatase
86. The highest concentrations of fructose
arefoundin
(A) Aqueoushumor (B)Vitreoushumor
(C)Synovialfluid (D)Seminalfluid
87. Glucoseuptakebylivercellsis
(A) Energy-consuming (B) A saturable
process
(C)Insulin-dependent(D)Insulin-independent
88. Renalthresholdforglucoseisdecreasedin
(A) Diabetesmellitus (B)Insulinoma
(C)Renalglycosuria (D)Alimentaryglycosuria
89. Activeuptakeofglucoseisinhibitedby
(A) Ouabain (B)Phlorrizin
(C)Digoxin (D)Alloxan
90. Glucose-6-phosphataseisabsentordeficient
in
(A) VonGierke’sdisease
(B) Pompe’sdisease
(C) Cori’sdisease
(D) McArdle’sdisease
91. Debranchingenzymeisabsentin
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(A) Cori’sdisease
(B) Andersen’sdisease
(C) VonGierke’sdisease
(D) Her’sdisease
92. McArdle’sdiseaseisduetothedeficiencyof
(A) Glucose-6-phosphatase1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(B) Phosphofructokinase
(C) Liverphosphorylase
(D) musclephosphorylase
93. Tautomerisationis
(A) Shiftofhydrogen(B)Shiftofcarbon
(C)Shiftofboth (D)Noneofthese
94. Inessentialpentosuria,urinecontains
(A) D-Ribose(B)D-Xylulose
(C)L-Xylulose (D)D-Xylose
95. Actionofsalivaryamylaseonstarchleadsto
theformationof
(A) Maltose (B)Maltotriose
(C)Bothoftheabove(D)Neitherofthese
96. Congenitalgalactosaemiacanleadto
(A) Mentalretardation
(B) Prematurecataract
(C) Death
(D) Alloftheabove
97. Uridinediphosphateglucose(UDPG)is
(A) Requiredformetabolismofgalactose
2187
(B) Requiredforsynthesisofglucuronicacid
(C) Asubstrateforglycogensynthetase
(D) Alloftheabove
98. Catalyticactivityofsalivaryamylaserequires
thepresenceof
(A) Chlorideions(B)Bromideions
(C)Iodideions (D)Allofthese
99. The following is actively absorbed in
theintestine:
(A)Fructose (B)Mannose
(C)Galactose (D)Noneofthese
100. Anamphibolicpathwayamongthefollowing
is
(A) HMPshunt (B)Glycolysis
(C)Citircacidcycle (D)Gluconeogenesis
101. Cori’scycletransfers
(A) Glucosefrommusclestoliver(B)Lactate
from musclestoliver(C)Lactatefrom
livertomuscles
(D)Pyruvatefromlivertomuscles
102. Excessive intake of ethanol increases
theratio:
(A) NADH:NAD
(B)NAD
2188
:NADH
(C)FADH2:FAD (D)FAD:FADH2
103. Ethanoldecreasesgluconeogenesisby
(A) Inhibitingglucose-6-phosphatase
(B) InhibitingPEPcarboxykinase
(C) Converting NAD
into NADH and
decreasingtheavailabilityofpyruvate
(D) Converting NAD
into NADH and
decreasingtheavailabilityoflactate
104. Glycogeninis
(A) Uncouplerofoxidativephosphorylation
(B) Polymerofglycogenmolecules
(C) Proteinprimerforglycogensynthesis
(D) Intermediateinglycogenbreakdown
105. Duringstarvation,ketonebodiesareusedas
afuelby
(A) Erythrocytes (B)Brain
(C)Liver (D)Allofthese
106. Animalfatisingeneral
(A) Poor in saturated and rich in
polyunsaturatedfattyacids
(B) Rich in saturated and poor in
2189
polyunsaturatedfattyacids
(C) Rich insaturated and polyunsaturated
fattyacids
(D) Poorinsaturatedandpolyunsaturated
fattyacids
107. In the diet of a diabetic patient,the
recommendedcarbohydrateintake
shouldpreferablybeintheformof
(A) Monosaccharides(B)Dissaccharides
(C)Polysaccharides (D)Allofthese
108. Obesityincreasestheriskof
(A) Hypertension
(B) Diabetesmellitus
(C) Cardiovasculardisease
(D) Allofthese
109. Worldwide, the most common
vitamindeficiencyisthatofCARBOHYDRATESANDCARBOHYDRATEMETABOLISM
11
(A) Ascorbicacid(B)Folicacid
(C)VitaminA (D)VitaminD
110. Consumption of iodised salt is
recommendedforpreventionof
(A) Hypertension(B)Hyperthyroidism
(C)Endemicgoitre (D)Noneofthese
111. Restriction of salt intake is
generallyrecommendedin
2190
(A) Diabetesmellitus (B)Hypertension
(C)Cirrhosisofliver (D)Pepticulcer
112. Polyuriacanoccurin
(B) Diarrhoea
(C) Acuteglomerulonephritis
(D) Highfever
113. Normalspecificgravityofurineis
(A) 1.000–1.010 (B)1.012–1.024
(C)1.025–1.034 (D)1.035–1.045
114. Specificgravityofurineisraisedinallofthe
followingexcept
(B) Diabetesinsipidus
(C) Dehydration
(D) Acuteglomerulonephritis
115. Specificgravityofurineisdecreasedin
(B) Acuteglomerulonephritis
(C) Diarrhoea
116. Heavyproteinuriaoccursin
(A) Acuteglomerulonephritis
(B) Acutepyelonephritis(C)Nephrosclerosis
(D)Nephroticsyndrome
117. Mucopolysaccharidesare
2191
(A) Hamopolysaccharides
(B) Hetropolysaccharides
(C) Proteins
(D) Aminoacids
118. Bence-Jonesproteinprecipitatesat
(A) 20°–40°C (B)40–-60°C
(C)60°–80°C (D)80°–100°C
119. Serumcholesterolisdecreasedin
(A) Endemicgoitre (B)Thyrotoxicosis
(C)Myxoedema (D)Cretinism
120. The heptose ketose sugarformed as a
resultofchemicalreactioninHMPshunt:
(A) Sedoheptulose (B)Galactoheptose
(C)Glucoheptose (D)Mannoheptose
121. Thegeneralformulaforpolysaccharideis
(A) (C6H12O6)n (B)(C6H10O5)n
(C)(C6H12O5)n (D)(C6H19O6)n
122. Thenumberofisomersofglucoseis
(A) 4 (B)8
(C)12 (D)16
123. Theepimersofglucoseis
(A) Fructose(B)Galactose
(C)Ribose (D)Deoxyribose
124. Theintermediateinhexosemonophosphate
shuntis
(A) D-Ribolose (B)D-Arobinose
2192
(C)D-xylose (D)D-lyxose
125. Honeycontainsthehydrolyticproductof
(C)Inulin (D)Starch
126. OnboilingBenedict’ssolutionisnotreduced
by
(A)Sucrose (B)Lactose
(C)Maltose (D)
Fructose
127. Glycosidesarefoundinmany
(A) Vitamins(B)Drugs
(C)Minerals (D)Nucleoproteins
128. Galactose on oxidation with conc.HNO3
produces
(A) Gluconicacid(B)Saccharicacid
(C)SaccharoLactone(D)Mucicacid
129. The distinguishing test between
monosaccharidesanddissaccharidesis
(A) Bial’stest(B)Selwanoff’stest
(C)Barfoed’stest (D)Hydrolysistest1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
130. Celluloseismadeupofthemoleculesof
(A) α-glucose(B)β-glucose
(C)Bothoftheabove(D)Noneofthese
131. Iodinesolutionproducesnocolorwith
(A) Cellulose(B)Starch
(C)Dextrin (D)Glycogen
2193
132. Glycogen structure includes a branch in
between–glucoseunits:
(A) 6–12(B)8–14
(C)6–10 (D)12–18
133. Amylosecontainsglucoseunits
(A) 100–200(B)200–300
(C)300–400 (D)500–600
134. Eachbranchofamylopectinisataninterval
ofglucoseunits:
(A) 14–20 (B)24–30
(C)34–40 (D)44–50
135. N-acetylneuraminicacidisanexampleof
(A) Sialicacid (B)Mucicacid
(C)Glucuronicacid (D)Hippuricacid
136. In place of glucuronic acid
chondroitinsulphateBcontains
(A) Gluconicacid(B)Gulonicacid
(C)Induronicacid (D)Sulphonicacid
137. Bloodgroupsubstancesconsistof
(C)Fructose (D)Mucose
138. Thecomponentofcartilageandcorneais
(A) Keratosulphate
(C) Cadmiumsulphate
(D) Antimonysulphate
2194
139. Benedict’stestislesslikelytogiveweakly
positiveresultswithconcentratedurinedue
totheactionof
(A) Urea(B)Uricacid(C)Ammoniumsalts
(D)Phosphates
140. Activetransportofsugarisdepressedby
theagent:
(A) Oxaloacetate(B)Fumarate
(C)Malonate (D)Succinate
141. The general test for detection of
carbohydratesis
(A) Iodinetest (B)Molischtest
(C)Barfoedtest (D)Osazonetest
142. Glucoseabsorptionmaybedecreasedin
(A) Oedema (B)Nephritis
(C)Rickets (D)Osteomalitis
143. Glycogensynthetaseactivityisdepressedby
(A) Glucose (B)Insulin
(C)CyclicAMP (D)Fructokinase
144. Thebranchingenzymeactsontheglycogen
when the glycogen chain has been
lengthenedtobetweenglucoseunits:
(A) 1and6 (B)2and7
(C)3and9 (D)6and11
145. Cyclic AMP is formed from ATP bythe
enzymeadenylatecyclasewhichisactivated
2195
bythehormone:
(A) Insulin (B)Epinephrine
(C)Testosterone (D)Progesterone
146. Hexokinase has a high affinity for
glucosethan
(A) Fructokinase (B)Galactokinase
(C)Glucokinase (D)Alloftheabove
147. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate and
glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate are
intercovertedby
(A) Trioseisomerase
(B) Phosphotrioseisomerase
(C) Diphosphotrioseisomerase
(D) Dihydroxyacetonephosphorylase
148. Citrate is converted to isocitrate
byaconitasewhichcontains
(A) Ca
++
(B)Fe
++
(C)Zn
++
(D)Mg
++
149. The reaction succinylCOA to succinate
requires
(A) CDP(B)ADP
2196
(C)GDP (D)NADP
150.
ThecarrierofthecitricacidcycleisCARBOHYDRATESANDCARBOHYDRATEMETABOL
ISM 13
(A) Succinate(B)Fumarate
(C)Malate (D)Oxaloacetate
151. UDPGisoxidizedtoUDPglucuronicacidby
UDPdehydrogenaseinpresenceof
(A) FAD
(B)NAD
(C)NADP
(D)ADP
152. Galactose is phosphorylated by
galactokinasetoform
(A) Galactose-6-phosphate
(B) Galactose-1,6diphosphate
(C) Galactose-1-phosphate
(D) Allofthese
153. The conversion of alanine to glucose
istermed
(A) Glycolysis
(B) Oxidativedecarboxylation
(C) Specificdynamicaction
2197
(D) Gluconeogenesis
154. The blood sugar raising action of the
hormonesofsuprarenalcortexisdueto
(A) Gluconeogenesis
(B) Glycogenolysis
(C) Glucagon-likeactivity
(D) Duetoinhibitionofglomerularfiltration
155. Underanaerobicconditionstheglycolysis
onemoleofglucoseyields__molesofATP.
(A)One (B)Two
(C)Eight (D)Thirty
156. Whichofthefollowingmetaboliteintegrates
glucoseandfattyacidmetabolism?
(A) AcetylCoA (B)Pyruvate
(C)Citrate (D)Lactate
157. Cerebrosidesconsistofmostlyofthissugar:
(C)Galactose (D)Arabinose
158. Glucosewillbeconvertedintofattyacidsif
thediethasexcessof
(A) Carbohydrates (B)Proteins(C)Fat
(D)Vitamins
159. ThepurpleringofMolischreactionisdueto
(A) Furfural
(B) Furfural+αNapthol
(C) °CNapthol
2198
(D) Furfurol+H2SO4+α-Naphthol
160. One ofthe following enzymes does not
changeglycogensynthaseatob.
(A) Glycogensynthasekinases3,4,5
(B) Ca
2+
calmodulinphosphorylasekinase
(C) Ca
2+
calmodulin dependent protein
kinase
(D) Glycogenphosphorylasea
161. In EM pathway -2-phosphoglycerate
isconvertedto
(A) Phosphoenolpyruvate(B)Enolpyruvate
(C) Dihydroxyacetonephosphate(DHAP)
(D) 1,3bisphosphoglycerate
162. An aneplerotic reaction which sustains
theavailability of oxaloacetate is the
carboxylationof
(A) Glutamate (B)Pyruvate(C)Citrate
(D)Succinate
163. Specifictestforketohexoses:
(A) Seliwanoff’stest (B)Osazonetest
(C)Molischtest (D)Noneofthese
164. TwoimportantbyproductsofHMPshuntare
2199
(A) NADHandpentosesugars
(B) NADPHandpentosesugars
(C) Pentosesugarsand4memberedsugars
(D) Pentosesugarsandsedoheptulose
165. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex and α-
ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex
require the following fortheiroxidative
decarboxylation:
(A) COASHandLipoicacid
(B) NAD
andFAD
(C) COASHandTPP
(D) COASH,TPP,NAD
,FAD,Lipoate
166. Thefourmemberedaldosesugarphosphate
formedinHMPshuntpathway
is
(A) XyluloseP (B)ErythruloseP
(C)ErythroseP (D)RibuloseP
167. Canesugar(Sucrose)injectedintobloodis1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(A) changedtofructose
(B) changedtoglucose
(C) undergoesnosignificantchange
(D) changedtoglucoseandfructose
2200
168. Pentoseproductionisincreasedin
(A) HMPshunt
(B) Uromicacidpathway
(C) EMpathway
(D) TCAcycle
169. Conversion ofAlanineto carbohydrateis
termed:
(A) Glycogenesis(B)Gluconeogenesis
(C)Glycogenolysis (D)Photosynthesis
170. The following is an enzyme required for
glycolysis:
(A) Pyruvatekinase
(B) Pyruvatecarboxylase
(C) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(D) Glycerokinase
171. Ourbodycangetpentosesfrom
(A) Glycolyticpathway
(B) Uromicacidpathway
(C) TCAcycle
(D) HMPshunt
172. Conversion of glucose to glucose-
6phosphateinhumanliverisby
(A) Hexokinaseonly
(B) Glucokinaseonly
(C) Hexokinaseandglucokinase
(D) Glucose-6-phosphatedehydrogenase
2201
173. The following is an enzyme required for
glycolysis:
(A) Pyruvatekinase
(C) Glucose-6-phosphatose
(D) Glycerokinase
174. Thenormalglucosetolerancecurvereaches
peakis
(A) 15min (B)1hr
(C)2hrs (D)2½ hrs
175. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate
requires
(A) NADP
(B) Cytichromes
(C) pyridoxalphosphate
(D) COASH
176. Glucosetoleranceisincreasedin
(A) Diabetesmellitus (B)Adrenalectomy
(C)Acromegaly (D)Thyrotoxicosis
177. Glucosetoleranceisdecreasedin
(A) Diabetesmellitus (B)Hypopituitarisme
(C)Addison’sdisease(D)Hypothyroidism
178. Duringglycolysis,Fructose1,6diphosphate
isdecomposedbytheenzyme:
(A) Enolasea
2202
(B) Fructokinase
(C) Aldolase
(D) Diphosphofructophosphatose
179. Thefollowingenzymeisrequiredforthe
hexosemonophosphateshuntpathway:
(A) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(B) Phosphorylase
(C) Aldolase
180 Dehydrogenase enzymes of the hexose
monophosphateshuntare
(A)NAD
specific (B)NADP
specific
(C)FADspecific (D)FMNspecific
181. Underanaerobicconditionstheglycolysisof
onemoleofglucoseyields______molesof
ATP.
(A) One (B)Two
(C)Eight (D)Thirty
182. Glycogen is converted to glucose-
1phosphateby
(A) UDPGtransferase(B)Branchingenzyme
(C)Phosphorylase (D)Phosphatase
2203
183. Which ofthefollowing isnotan enzyme
involvedinglycolysis?
(A) Euolase (B)Aldolose
(C)Hexokinase
(D)GlucoseoxidaseCARBOHYDRATESANDCARBOHYDRATEMETABOLISM 15
184. Tricarboxylic acid cycle to be
continuousrequirestheregenerationof
(A) Pyruvicacid (B)oxaloaceticacid
(C)α-oxoglutaricacid(D)Malicacid
185. Dehydrogenationofsuccinicacidtofumaric
acidrequiresthefollowinghydrogencarrier:
(A) NAD
(B)NADP
(C)flavoprotein (D)Glutathione
186. The tissues with the highest total
glycogencontentare
(A) Muscleandkidneys
(B) Kidneysandliver
(C) Liverandmuscle
(D) BrainandLiver
187. Rotheratestisnotgivenby
(A) β-hydroxybutyrate(B)bilesalts
(C)Glucose (D)Noneofthese
188. Gluconeogenesis is increased in the
followingcondition:
2204
(A) Diabetesinsipidus(B)DiabetesMellitus
(C)Hypothyroidism (D)Liverdiseases
189. Theoxidationoflacticacidtopyruvicacid
requiresthefollowingvitaminderivativeas
thehydrogencarrier.
(A) Lithiumpyrophosphate
(B) CoenyzmeA
(C) NAD
(D) FMN
190. Physiologicalglycosuriaismetwithin
(A) Renalglycosuria
(B) Alimentaryglycosuria
(C) DiabetesMellitus
(D) Alloxandiabetes
191. Two examples of substrate level
phosphorylationinEM pathwayofglucose
metabolismareinthereactionsof
(A) 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate and
phosphoenolpyruvate
(B) Glucose-6 phosphate and Fructo-6-
phosphate
(C) 3 phosphoglyceraldehyde and
phosphoenolpyruvate
(D) 1,3 diphosphoglycerate and 2-
phosphoglycerate
2205
192. ThenumberofmoleculesofATPproduced
bythetotaloxidationofacetylCoAinTCA
cycleis
(A) 6 (B)8
(C)10 (D)12
193. SubstratelevelphosphorylationinTCAcycle
isinstep:
(A) Isocitrate dehydrogenase(B) Malate
dehydrogenase
(C) Aconitase
(D) Succinatethiokinase
194. Fatty acids cannot be converted into
carbohydratesinthebodyasthefollowing
reactionisnotpossible.
(A) Conversionofglucose-6-phosphateinto
glucose
(B) Fructose1,6-bisphosphateto fructose-
6phosphate
(C) Transformation of acetyl CoA to
pyruvate
(D) FormationofacetylCoAfromfattyacids
195. Tissuesform lacticacidfrom glucose.This
phenomenonistermedas
(A) Aerobicglycolysis
(B) Oxidation
(C) Oxidativephosphorylation
2206
(D) Anaerobicglycolysis
196. One molecule of glucose gives ______
moleculesofCO2inEM-TCAcycle.
(A) 6 (B)3
(C)1 (D)2
197. One molecule of glucose gives ______
moleculesofCO2inoneroundofHMPshunt.
(A) 6 (B)1
(C)2 (D)3
198. The 4 rate limiting enzymes of
gluconeogenesisare
(A) Glucokinase, Pyruvate
carboxylaephosphoenol pyruvate
carboxykinase and glucose-6-1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
phosphatase
(B) Pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenol
pyruvatecarboxykinase, fructose1,6
diphosphatase and glucose-6-
phosphatase
(C) Pyruvate kinase, pyruvate
carboxylase,phosphoenol pyruvate
carboxykinase and glucose-6-
phosphatase
(D) Phospho fructokinase, pyruvate
carboxylase,phosphoenol pyruvate
carboxykinase and fructose 1, 6
2207
diphosphatase
199. For glycogenesis, Glucose should be
convertedto
(A) Glucuronicacid (B)Pyruvicacid
(C)UDPglucose (D)Sorbitol
200. Fluorideinhibits______andarrestsglycolysis.
(A) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
dehydrogenase
(B) Aconitase
(C) Enolose
(D) Succinatedehydrogenase
201. Oneofthefollowingstatementiscorrect:
(A) Glycogen synthase ‘a’ is the
phosphorylated
(B) cAMPconvertsglycogensynthasebto‘a’
(C) Insulinconvertsglycogensynthasebto
(D) UDP glucose molecules interactand
growintoaGlycogentree
202. Amylo1,6glucosidaseiscalled
(A) Branchingenzyme
(B) debranchingenzyme
(C) Glucantransferase
(D) Phosphorylase
203. Glucoseentersthecellsby
(A) insulinindependenttransport
2208
(B) insulindependenttransport
(C) enzymemediatedtransport
(D) Both(A)and(B)
204. Glycogenwhilebeingacteduponbyactive
phosphorylaseisconvertedfirstto
(A) Glucose
(B) Glucose1-phosphateandGlycogenwith
1carbonless
(C) Glucose-6-phosphateandGlycogenwith
1carbonless
(D) 6-Phosphogluconicacid
205. WhenO2 supplyisinadequate,pyruvateis
convertedto
(A) Phosphopyruvate(B)AcetylCoA
(C)Lactate (D)Alanine
206. Reactivationofinactiveliverphosphorylase
isnormallyfavouredby
(A) Insulin (B)Epinephrine
(C)ACTH (D)Glucagon
207. BeforepyruvicacidenterstheTCAcycleit
mustbeconvertedto
(A) AcetylCoA (B)Lactate
(C)α-ketoglutarate (D)Citrate
208. The hydrolysis ofGlucose-6-phosphate is
catalysedbyaspecificphosphatasewhichis
foundonlyin
2209
(A) Liver,intestinesandkidneys
(B) Brain,spleenandadrenals
(C) Striatedmuscle
(D) Plasma
209. Theformationofcitratefrom oxaloacetate
andacetylCoAis
(A) Oxidation(B)Reduction
(C)Condensation (D)Hydrolysis
210. Whichoneofthefollowingisaratelimiting
enzymeofgluconeogenesis?
(A) Hexokinase
(B) Phsophofructokinase
(C) Pyruvatecarboxylase
(D) Pyruvatekinase
211. The number of ATP produced in the
succinatedehydrogenasestepis
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
212. Whichofthefollowingreactiongiveslactose?
(A) UDPgalactoseandglucose
(B)
UDPglucoseandgalactoseCARBOHYDRATESANDCARBOHYDRATEMETABOLISM
17
(C) GlucoseandGalactose
(D) Glucose,GalactoseandUTP
213. UDP Glucuronic acid is required forthe
2210
biosynthesisof
(A) Chondroitinsulphates
(B) Glycogen
(C) Lactose
(D) Starch
214. Which one of the following can covert
glucosetovitaminC?
(A) Albinorats (B)Humans
(C)Monkeys (D)Guineapigs
215. Which one of the following cannot
convertglucosetoVitaminC?
(A) Albinorats (B)Dogs
(C)Monkeys (D)Cows
216. Transketolasehasthecoenzyme:
(A) NAD
(B)FP
(C)TPP (D)Pyridoxolphosphate
217. Twoconditionsinwhichgluconeogenesisis
increasedare
(A) Diabetesmellitusandatherosclerosis
(B) Fedconditionandthyrotoxicosis
(C) DiabetesmellitusandStarvation
(D) Alcoholintakeandcigarettesmoking
218. AcetylCoAisnotusedforthesynthesisof
(A) Fattyacid(B)Cholesterol
2211
(C)Pyruvicacid (D)Citricacid
219. Thetotalglycogencontentofthebodyis
about______gms.
(A) 100 (B)200
(C)300 (D)500
220. ThetotalGlucoseinthebodyis________gms.
(A) 10–15 (B)20–30
(C)40–50 (D)60–80
221. Pyruvate kinase requires ______ ions for
maximumactivity.
(A) Na
(B)K
(C)Ca2
(D)Mg2
222. ATPis‘wasted’inRapoport-Lueberringcycle
inRBCsasotherwiseitwillinhibit
(A) Phosphoglucomutase
(B) Phosphohexoisomerase
(C) Phosphofructokinase
(D) Phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase
223. The following co-enzyme is needed for
theoxidativedecarboxylationofketoacids:
(A) NADP
2212
+
(B)TPP(C)Folatecoenzyme(D)
Biotincoenzyme
224. SynthesisofGlucosefrom aminoacidsis
termedas
(A) Glycolysis (B)Gluconeogenesis
(C)Glycogenesis (D)Lipogenesis
225. The following examples are important
heteropolysaccharidesexcept
(A) Amylopectin (B)Heparin
(C)Peptidoglycan (D)Hyaluronicacid
226. Whcihofthefollowingfeaturesarecommon
tomonosaccharides?
(A) Containasymmetriccentres
(B) Areof2types–aldosesandketoses
(C) Tend to existas ring structures in
solution
(D) Includeglucose,galactoseandraffinose
227. Polysaccharides
(A) Contain many monosaccharide units
whichmayormaynotbeofthesame
kind
(B) Function mainly a storage or
structuralcompounds
(C) Are present in large amounts in
connectivetissue
2213
(D) Allofthese
228. Theabsorptionofglucoseinthedigestive
tract
(A) Occursinthesmallintestine
(B) IsstimulatedbythehormoneGlucagon
(C) Occursmorerapidlythantheabsorption
ofanyothersugar
(D) Isimpairedincasesofdiabetesmellitus
229. UDP-GlucoseisconvertedtoUDP-
Glucuronicacidby1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(A) ATP (B)GTP
(C)NADP
(D)NAD
230. TheenzymesinvolvedinPhosphorylationof
glucosetoglucose6-phosphateare
(A) Hexokinase
(B) Glucokinase
(D) Both(A)and(B)
231. InconversionofLacticacidtoGlucose,three
reactions of Glycolytic pathway are
circumvented, which of the following
enzymesdonotparticipate?
(A) PyruvateCarboxylase
2214
(B) Phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase
(C) Pyruvatekinase
(D) Glucose-6-phosphatase
232. Thenormalrestingstateofhumans,mostof
the blood glucose burnt as “fuel” is
consumedby
(A) Liver(B)Brain(C)Kidneys (D) Adipose
tissue
233. AregulatoroftheenzymeGlycogensynthase
is
(A) Citricacid
(B) 2,3bisphosphoglycerate
(C) Pyruvate
(D) GTP
234. Which of the following compound is a
positiveallostericmodifieroftheenzyme
pyruvatecarboxylase?
(A) Biotin (B)AcetylCoA
(C)Oxaloacetate (D)ATP
235. A specific inhibitor for succinate
dehydrogenaseis
(A) Arsinite (B)Melouate
(C)Citrate (D)Cyanide
236. Mostofthemetabolicpathwaysareeither
anabolicorcatabolic.Whichofthefollowing
pathwaysisconsideredas“amphibolic”in
2215
nature?
(A) Glycogenesis(B)Glycolyticpathway
(C)Lipolysis (D)TCAcycle
237. Transketolaseactivityisaffectedin
(A) Biotindeficiency
(B) Pyridoxinedeficiency
(C) PABAdeficiency
(D) Thiaminedeficiency
238. Thefollowingmetabolicabnormalitiesoccur
inDiabetesmellitusexcept
(A) IncreasedplasmaFFA
(B) Increasedpyruvatecarboxylaseactivate
(C) Decreasedlipogenesis
(D) Decreasedgluconeogenesis
239. Asubstancethatisnotanintermediateinthe
formationofD-glucuronicacidfrom glucose
is
(A) Glucoss-1-p
(B) 6-Phosphogluconate
(C) Glucose-6-p
(D) UDP-Glucose
240. ThehydrolysisofGlucose-6-Piscatalysedby
aphosphatasethatisnotformedinwhichof
thefollowing?
(A) Liver(B)Kidney
(C)Muscle (D)Smallintestine
2216
241. An essential for converting Glucose
toGlycogeninLiveris
(A) Lacticacid (B)GTP
(C)CTP (D)UTP
242. Which of the following is a substrate
foraldolaseactivityinGlycolyticpathway?
(A) Glyceraldehyde-3-p
(B) Glucose-6-p
(C) Fructose-6-p
(D) Fructose1,6-bisphosphate
243. Theratiothatapproximatesthenumberof
netmoleculeofATP formedpermoleof
GlucoseoxidizedinpresenceofO2tothenet
numberformedinabscenceof
O2is
(A) 4:1(B)10:2
(C)12:1 (D)18:1
244. The “Primaquin sensitivity types of
haemolyticanaemiahasbeenfoundtorelate
toreducedR.B.Cactivityofwhichenzyme?CARBOHYDRATESANDCARBOHYDRATEM
ETABOLISM 19
(A) Pyruvatekinasedeficiency
(B) Glucose-6-phosphatasedeficiency
(C) Glucose-6-pdehydrogenasedeficiency
(D) Hexokinasedeficiency
245. Which ofthe following hormones is not
2217
involvedincarbohydratemetabolism?
(A) Cortisol (B)ACTH
(C)Glucogen (D)Vasopressin
246. DehydrogenasesinvolvedinHMPshuntare
specificfor
(A) NADP
(B)NAD
(C)FAD (D)FMN
247. WhichofthefollowingenzymesinGlycolytic
pathwayisinhibitedbyfluoride?
(A) Glyceraldehyde-3-pdehydrogenase
(B) Phosphoglyceratekinase
(C) Pyruvatekinase
(D) Enolase
248. Outof24molsofATPformedinTCAcycle,2
molecules of ATP can be formed at
“substratelevel”bywhichofthefollowing
reaction?
(A) Citric acid→ Isocitric acid (B)
Isocitrate→ Oxaloacetate
(C) Succinicacid→ Fumarate
(D) Succinylcat→ Succinicacid
249. Whichofthefollowingstatementsregarding
T.C.Acycleistrue?
2218
(A) Itisananaerobicprocess
(B) Itoccursincytosol
(C) It contains no intermediates for
Gluconeogenesis
(D) Itisamphibolicinnature
250. An allosteric enzyme responsible for
controllingtherateofT.C.Acycleis
(A) Malatedehydrogenase
(B) Isocitratedehydrogenase
(C) Fumarase
(D) Aconitase
251. Theglycolysisisregulatedby
(A) Hexokinase (B)Phosphofructokinase
(C)Pyruvatekinase (D)Allofthese
252. HowmanyATPmoleculeswillberequiredfor
conversionof2-moleculesofLacticacidto
Glucose?
(A) 2 (B)4
(C)8 (D)6
253. Which of the following enzyme is not
involvedinHMPshunt?
(A) Glyceraldehyde-3-pdehydrogenase
(B) Glucose-6-p-dehydrogenase
(C) Transketolase
(D) Phosphogluconatedehydrogenase
254. In presence of the following
2219
cofactor,pyruvate carboxylase converts
pyruvatetooxaloacetate:
(A) ATP,ProteinandCO2
(B) CO2andATP
(C) CO2
(D) Protein
255. For conversion of oxaloacetate to
phosphoenolpyruvate,highenergymolecule
isrequiredintheformof
(A) GTPonly(B)ITPonly
(C)GTP(or)ITP (D)Noneofthese
256. If the more negative standard
reductionpotentialofaredoxpair,thegreater
thetendencyto
(A) Toloseelectrons
(B) Togainelectrons
(C) Tolose/gainelectrons
(D) Toloseandgainelectrons
257. Electron transportand phosphorylationcan
beuncoupledbycompoundsthatincrease
thepermeabilityoftheinnermitochondrial
membraneto
(A) Electrons(B)Protons
(C)Uncouplers (D)Allofthese
258. ThemorepositivetheE0,thegreaterthe
tendencyoftheoxidantmemberofthatpair
2220
to
(A) Loseelectrons
(B) Gainelectrons
(C) Lose(or)gainelectrons2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(D) Loseandgainelectrons
259. Thestandardfreeenergyofhydrolysisof
terminalphosphategroupofATPis
(A) –7,300cal/mol (B)–8,300cal/mol
(C)10,000cal/mol (D)+7,300cal/mol
260. Thetransportofapairofelectronsfrom
NADHtoO2 viatheelectrontransportchain
produces
(A) –52,580cal (B)–50,580cal
(C)21,900cal (D)+52,580cal
261. Sufficientenergyrequiredtoproduce3ATP
from3ADPand3piis
(A) –21,900cal (B)29,900cal
(C)31,900cal (D)39,900cal
262. Thefreeenergychange,AG
(A) Isdirectlyproportionaltothestandard
freeenergychange,AG
(B) Isequaltozeroatequilibrium
(C) Can only be calculated when the
reactantsand products are presentat
1mol/1concentrations
(D) Isequalto–RTinkeq
2221
263. Understandardconditions
(A) Thefreeenergychange∆G°,isequalto
(B) Thestandardfreeenergychange∆G,is
equalto0
(C) Thefreeenergychange,∆G°,isequalto
thestandardfreeenergychange,∆G°
(D) Keqisequalto1
264. An uncouplerofoxidativephosphorylation
suchasdinitrophenol
(A) Inhibits electron transport and ATP
synthesis
(B) Allow electron transport to proceed
withoutATPsynthesis
(C) Inhibits electron transport without
impairmentofATPsynthesis
(D) Speciallyinhibitscytochromeb
265. Allofthefollowing statementsaboutthe
enzymic complex that carries out the
synthesis of ATP during oxidative
phosphorylationarecorrectexcept
(A) Itislocatedonthematrixsideofthe
innermitochondrialmembrane
(B) Itisinhibitedbyoligomycin
(C) ItcanexhibitATPaseactivity
(D) ItcanbindmolecularO2
2222
266. Glucokinase
(A) Is widely distributed and occurs in
mostmammaliantissues
(B) Hasahighkm forglucoseandhenceis
important in the phosphorylation of
glucose primarilyafteringestion ofa
carbohydraterichmeal
(C) IswidelydistributedinProkaryotes
(D) Noneofthese
267. The reaction catalysed by
phosphofructokinase
(A) Isactivatedbyhighconcentrationsof
ATPandcitrate
(B) Usesfruitose-1-phosphateassubstrate
(C) Is the rate-limiting reaction of the
glycolyticpathway
(D) Isinhibitedbyfructose2,6-bisphosphate
268. Compared to the resting state,vigorously
contractingmuscleshows
(A) Anincreasedconversionofpyruvateto
lactate
(B) DecreasedoxidationofpyruvateofCO2
andwater
(C) AdecreasedNADH/NAD
ratio
2223
(D) DecreasedconcentrationofAMP
269. Which one of the following would be
expectedinpyruvatekinasedeficiency?
(A) IncreasedlevelsoflactateintheR.B.C(B)
Hemolyticanemia
(C) DecreasedratioofADPtoATPinR.B.C
(D) Increased phosphorylation ofGlucose
toGlucose-6-phosphate
270. Which one of the following statements
concerningglucosemetabolismiscorrect?
(A) The conversion ofGlucose to lactate
occursonlyintheR.B.C
(B) Glucose enters most cells by a
mechanism inwhichNa
andglucoseare
co-transportedCARBOHYDRATESANDCARBOHYDRATEMETABOLISM 21
(C) Pyruvate kinase catalyses an
irreversiblereaction
(D) An elevated levelofinsulin leads to
adecreased level of fructose 2,6-
bisphosphateinhepatocyte
271. Which one of the following compounds
cannotgive rise to the netsynthesis of
Glucose?
(A) Lactate (B)Glycerol
2224
(C)α-ketoglutarate (D)AcetylCoA
272. Whichofthefollowingreactionsisuniqueto
gluconeogenesis?
(A) LactatePyruvate
(B) Phosphoenolpyruvatepyruvate
(C) Oxaloacetatephosphoenolpyruvate
(D) Glucose-6-phosphate Fructose-6-
phosphate
273. Thesynthesisofglucosefrom pyruvateby
gluconeogenesis
(A) Requirestheparticipationofbiotin
(B) Occursexclusivelyinthecytosol
(C) Isinhibitedbyelevatedlevelofinsulin
(D) Requiresoxidation/reductionofFAD
274. TheconversionofpyruvatetoacetylCoAand
CO2
(A) Isreversible
(B) Involvestheparticipationoflipoicacid
(C) Dependsonthecoenzymebiotin
(D) Occursinthecytosol
275. Pasteureffectis
(A) Inhibitionofglycolysis
(B) Oxygenisinvolved
(C) Inhibition of enzyme
phosphofructokinase
(D) Allofthese
2225
276. How many ATPs are produced in the
conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate to
citrate?
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)4 (D)6
277. ReducedglutathionefunctionsinR.B.Csto
(A) ProduceNADPH
(B) Reducemethemoglobintohemoglobin
(C) ProduceNADH
(D) ReduceoxidizingagentssuchasH2O2
278. Phenylalanineistheprecursorof
(A) L-DOPA (B)Histamine
(C)Tyrosine (D)Throxine
279. D-Mannoseispresentinsomeplantproducts
like
(A) Resins (B)Pectins
(C)Mucilage (D)Gums
280. Galactoseisamainconstituentof
(A) Milksugar (B)Honey
(C)Canesugar (D)Chitin
281. Glucosamineisanimportantconstituentof
(A) Homopolysaccharide
(B) Heteropolysaccharide
(C) Mucopolysaccharide
(D) Dextran
282. Glycogenispresentinallbodytissuesexcept
2226
(A) Liver(B)Brain
(C)Kidney (D)Stomach
283. Iodinetestispositiveforstarch,dextrinand
(A) Mucoproteins(B)Agar
(C)Glycogen (D)Cellulose
284. Thegeneralformulaforpolysaccharideis
(A) (C6H10O5)n (B)(C6H12C6)n
(C)(C6H12O5)n (D)(C5H10O5)n
285. Epimersofglucoseis
(A) Fructose(B)Galactose
286. Humanheartmusclecontains
(A) D-Arabinose (B)D-Ribose
(C)D-Xylose (D)L-Xylose
287. Theintermediatenhexosemonophosphate
shuntis
(A) D-Ribulose (B)D-Arabinose
(C)D-xylose (D)D-Lyxose
288. OnboilingBenedict’ssolutionisnotreduced
by2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(A) Sucrose (B)Lactose
(C)Maltose (D)Fructose
289. The distinguishing test between
monosaccharidesanddissaccharideis
(A) Bial’stest(B)Seliwanoff’stest
(C)Barfoed’stest (D)Hydrolysistest
2227
290. Barfoed’ssolutionisnotreducedby
(A) Glucose (B)Mannose
(C)Sucrose (D)Ribose
291. Coricycleis
(A) Synthesisofglucose
(B) reuseofglucose
(C) uptakeofglycose
(D) Both(A)&(B)
292. Canesugarisknownas
(A) Galactose (B)Sucrose
(C)Fructose (D)Maltose
293. Whichofthefollowingisnotreducingsugar?
(A)Lactose (B)Maltose
(C)Sucrose (D)
Fructose
294. α−D-Glucoseandβ−D-glucosearerelatedby
(A) Epimers (B)Anomers
(C)Multirotation (D)Ketoenolpair
295. The stable ring formation in D-Glucose
involves
(A) C-1andC-4 (B)C-1andC-2
(C)C-1andC-5 (D)C-2andC-5
296. Reduction ofGlucose with Ca
++
in water
produces
2228
(A) Sorbitol (B)Dulcitol
(C)Mannitol (D)Glucuronicacid
297. Starchandglycogenarepolymersof
(A) Fructose(B)Mannose
(C)α−D-Glucose (D)Galactose
298. Reducingabilityofcarbohydratesisdueto
(A) Carboxylgroup (B)Hydroxylgroup
(C)Enediolformation(D)Ringstructure
299. Whichofthefollowingisnotapolymerof
glucose?
(A) Amylose(B)Inulin
(C)Cellulose (D)Dextrin
300. Invertsugaris
(A) Lactose
(B) Mannose
(C) Fructose
(D) Hydrolyticproductofsucrose
301 Thecarbohydratereservedinhumanbodyis
(A) Starch (B)Glucose
(C)Glycogen (D)Inulin
302 Adissaccharidelinkedbyα-1-4Glycosideic
linkagesis
(A) Lactose (B)Sucrose
(C)Cellulose (D)Maltose
ANSWERS
2229
1.A2.A3.A4.A5.B6.A7.A8.D9.A10.A11.A12.C13.B14.A15.A16.B17.A18.A
19.C 20.C 21.A 22.D 23.C 24.B
25.A 26.D 27.C 28.C 29.B 30.B
31.D 32.A 33.C 34.B 35.B 36.B
37.C 38.B 39.D 40.A 41.D 42.B
43.A 44.B 45.A 46.A 47.A 48.A
49.B 50.C 51.C 52.A 53.A 54.A
55.B 56.A 57.D 58.A 59.C 60.D
61.C 62.C 63.B 64.C 65.C 66.C
67.B 68.C 69.D 70.D 71.A 72.A
73.B 74.B 75.B 76.B 77.A 78.C
79.A 80.B 81.D 82.C 83.D

84.DCARBOHYDRATESANDCARBOHYDRATEMETABOLISM 23
85.B 86.D 87.D 88.C 89.B 90.A
91.A 92.D 93.A 94.C 95.C 96.D97.D 98.A 99.C 100.C 101.B
102.A103.C104.C 105.B 106.B 107.C 108.D109.B110.C 111.B 112.B 113.B
114.D115.B116.B 117.A 118.B 119.B 120.A121.B122.D 123.B 124.A 125.C
126.A
127.B 128.D 129.C 130.A 131.A 132.D
133.C134.B135.C136.C137.C138.A139.B140.C141.B142.A143.C144.D
145.B 146.C 147.B 148.B 149.B 150.D
151.B152.C 153.D 154.A 155.B 156.A157.C158.A 159.B 160.D 161.A 162.B
163.A 164.B 165.D 166.C 167.C 168.A
169.B 170.A 171.D 172.C 173.A 174.B
175.D 176.B 177.A 178.C 179.D 180.B
181.B182.C 183.D 184.B 185.C 186.C187.A188.B 189.C 190.B 191.A 192.D
2230
193.D194.C 195.D 196.A 197.B 198.B199.C200.C 201.C 202.B 203.D 204.C
205.C206.D207.A208.A209.C210.C211.B212.A213.A214.A215.C216.C217.C
218.C
219.C220.B221.B222.C223.B224.B225.A226.C227.D228.A229.B230.D231.C
232.B
233.C234.A235.B236.D237.B238.B239.B240.C241.D242.D243.B244.C245.D
246.A
247.D248.D249.D250.B251.D252.D253.A254.A255.C256.A257.B258.B259.
A260.D
261.A262.B263.C264.B
265.D 266.B 267.C 268.A 269.B 270.C
271.B272.C273.A274.B275.D276.C277.D278.C279.D280.A281.C282.B283.C
284.A
285.B286.C287.A288.A289.C290.C291.D292.B293.C294.B295.C296.A297.C
298.A
299.B300.D
301.C 302.D
EXPLANATIONSFORTHEANSWERS
7. A Polysaccharides are polymers of
monosaccharides.Theyareoftwotypes–
hompolysaccharidesthatcontain a single
typeofmonosaccharide(e.g.,starch,insulin,
cellulose)and heteropolysaccharides with
two or more different types of
monosaccharides(e.g.,heparin,chondroitin
sulfate).
30.B Mutorotation refers to the change in the
2231
specific opticalrotation representing the
interconversionofα-andβ-anomersofD-
glucosetoanequilibrium.
48.A Starch is a polysaccharide composed of
Dglucoseunitsheldtogetherbyα-glycosidic
bonds,(α1→ 4linkages;atbranchingpoints
α1→ 6linkages).
71.A Hyaluronicacidisthegroundsubstanceof
synovialfluidofjoints.Itservesaslubricants
andshockabsorbantinjoints.
93.ATheprocessofshiftingahydrogenatom from
onecarbontoanothertoproduceenediolsis
referredtoastautomerization.
117.A Mucopolysaccharides(commonlyknown as
glycosaminoglycans) are
heteropolysaccharidescomposedofsugar
derivatives(mainlyaminosugarsanduronic
acids).Theimportantmucopolysaccharides
includehyaluronicacid,heparin,chondroitin
sulfate,dermatansulfateandkeratansulfate.
141.B Molisch test:Itis a generaltestforthe
detection of carbohydrates. The strong
H2SO4 hydrolysescarbohydrates(poly-and
disaccharides)toliberatemonosaccharides.
Themonosaccharides
get dehydrated to form furfural (from
2232
pentoses)orhydroxymethylfurfural(from
hexoses)whichcondensewithα-naphtholto
formavioletcolouredcomplex.2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
163.A Seliwanoff’stest:thisisaspecifictestfor
ketohexoses. Concentrated hydrochloric
acid dehydrates ketohexoses to form
furfuralderivatives which condense with
resorcinoltogiveacherryredcomplex.
187.ARothera’stest:Nitroprossideinalkalinemedium
reacts with keto group ofketone bodies
(acetoneandacetoacetate)toform apurple
ring. This test is not given by β-
hydroxybutyrate.
203.DTwospecifictransportsystemsarerecognized
fortheentryofglucoseintothecells.
(a) Insulin-independent transport: This is a
carriermediateduptakeofglucosewhichis
notdependentonthehormoneinslulin.This
operatesin hepatocytes,erythrocytesand
brain.
(b) Insulin-dependenttransport:Thisoccursin
muscleandadiposetissue.
230.DHexokinaseandglucokinaseareinvolvedin
thephosphorylationofglucosetoglucose
6phosphate. The enzyme hexokinase,
2233
present in almost all the tissues,
catalyses the phosphorylation ofother
hexosealso(fructose,mannose).Ithas
lowKm forsubstrates(about0.1mM)and
isinhibited byglucose 6phosphate.In
contrast,glucokinaseispresentinliver,
catalyses the phosphorylation ofonly
glucose,hashighKm forglucose(10mM)
and is not inhibited by glucose 6-
phosphate.251.D The three enzymes namely
hexokinase(orglucokinase),phosphofructokinase
and pyruvate kinase,catalyzing the irreversible
reactions regulate glycolysis. Among these,
phosphofructokinaseisthemostregulatory.Itis
anallostericenzymeinhibitedbyATP,citrateand
activatedbyAMPandPi.
275.DTheinhibitionofglycolysisbyoxygenis
referred to as Pasteureffect.This is due to
inhibitionoftheenzymephosphofructokinaseby
ATPandcitrate(formedinthepresenceofO2)
291.DThecycleinvolvingthesynthesisofglucosein
liverfrom theskeletalmusclelactateandthe
reuse ofglucose thus synthesized bythe
muscleforenergypurposesisknownasCori
2234
Cycle. This page
intentionallyleft
blank 2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
CHAPTER3
PROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM
1. Allproteinscontainthe
(A) Same20aminoacids
(B) Differentaminoacids
(C) 300Aminoacidsoccurringinnature
(D) Onlyafewaminoacids
2. Proteinscontain
(A) OnlyL-α-aminoacids
(B) OnlyD-aminoacids
(C) DL-Aminoacids
(D) Both(A)and(B)
3. Theopticallyinactiveaminoacidis
(A) Glycine (B)Serine
2235
(C)Threonine (D)Valine
4. AtneutralpH,amixtureofamino acidsin
solutionwouldbepredominantly:
(A) Dipolarions
(B) Nonpolarmolecules
(C) Positiveandmonovalent
(D) Hydrophobic
5. Thetruestatementaboutsolutionsofamino
acidsatphysiologicalpHis
(A) Allamino acids contain both positive
andnegativecharges
(B) All amino acids contain positively
chargedsidechains
(C) Some amino acids contain only
positivecharge
(D) All amino acids contain negatively
chargedsidechains
6. pH(isoelectricpH)ofalanineis
(A) 6.02 (B)6.6(C)6.8 (D)7.2
7. SincethepKvaluesforasparticacidare2.0,
3.9and10.0,itfollowsthatthe
isoelectric(pH)is
(A) 3.0 (B)3.9
(C)5.9 (D)6.0
8. Sulphurcontainingaminoacidis
(A) Methionine(B)Leucine
2236
(C)Valine (D)Asparagine
9. Anexampleofsulphurcontainingaminoacid
is
(A) 2-Amino-3-mercaptopropanoicacid
(B) 2-Amino-3-methylbutanoicacid
(C) 2-Amino-3-hydroxypropanoicacid
(D) Aminoaceticacid
10. Allthefollowingaresulphurcontainingamino
acidsfoundinproteinsexcept
(A) Cysteine (B)Cystine
(C)Methionine (D)Threonine
11. Anaromaticaminoacidis
(A) Lysine(B)Tyrosine
(C)Taurine (D)Arginine
12. Thefunctionsofplasmaalbuminare
(A) Osmosis (B)Transport
(C)Immunity (D)both(A)and(B)
13. Aminoacidwithsidechaincontainingbasic
groupsis
(A) 2-Amino5-guanidovalericacid
(B) 2-Pyrrolidinecarboxylicacid
(C) 2-Amino3-mercaptopropanoicacid
(D) 2-Aminopropanoicacid14. Anexampleofα-aminoacidnotpresentin
proteins but essential in mammalian
metabolismis
(A) 3-Amino 3-hydroxypropanoic acid(B)2-
2237
Amino3-hydroxybutanoicacid
(C) 2-Amino4-mercaptobutanoicacid
(D) 2-Amino3-mercaptopropanoicacid
15. Anessentialaminoacidinmanis
(A) Aspartate (B)Tyrosine
(C)Methionine (D)Serine
16. Nonessentialaminoacids
(A) Arenotcomponentsoftissueproteins
(B) Maybe synthesized in the bodyfrom
essentialaminoacids
(C) Havenoroleinthemetabolism
(D) May be synthesized in the body in
diseasedstates
17. Whichoneofthefollowingissemiessential
aminoacidforhumans?
(A) Valine(B)Arginine
(C)Lysine (D)Tyrosine
18. Anexampleofpolaraminoacidis
(A) Alanine (B)Leucine
(C)Arginine (D)Valine
19. Theaminoacidwithanonpolarsidechainis
(A) Serine(B)Valine
(C)Asparagine (D)Threonine
20. Aketogenicaminoacidis
(A) Valine(B)Cysteine
(C)Leucine (D)Threonine
2238
21. Anaminoacidthatdoesnotformanαhelixis
(A) Valine(B)Proline
(C)Tyrosine (D)Tryptophan
22. Anaminoacidnotfoundinproteinsis
(A) β-Alanine (B)Proline
(C)Lysine (D)Histidine
23. In mammalian tissues serine can be
abiosyntheticprecursorof
(A) Methionine(B)Glycine
(C)Tryptophan (D)Phenylalanine
24. Avasodilatingcompoundisproducedbythe
decarboxylationoftheaminoacid:
(A) Arginine (B)Asparticacid
(C)Glutamine (D)Histidine
25. Biuretreactionisspecificfor
(A) –CONH-linkages(B)–CSNH2group
(C)–(NH)NH2group(D)Allofthese
26. Sakaguchi’sreactionisspecificfor
(A) Tyrosine (B)Proline
(C)Arginine (D)Cysteine
27. Million-Nasse’s reaction is specific for
theaminoacid:
(A) Tryptophan(B)Tyrosine
(C)Phenylalanine (D)Arginine
28. NinhydrinwithevolutionofCO2 formsablue
complexwith
2239
(A) Peptidebond (B)α-Aminoacids
(C)Serotonin (D)Histamine
29. The most of the ultraviolet absorption
ofproteins above 240 nm is due to their
contentof
(A) Tryptophan(B)Aspartate
(C)Glutamate (D)Alanine
30. Whichofthefollowingisadipeptide?
(A) Anserine (B)Glutathione
(C)Glucagon (D)β-Lipoprotein
31. Whichofthefollowingisatripeptide?
(A) Anserine (B)Oxytocin
(C)Glutathione (D)Kallidin2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
32. Apeptidewhichactsaspotentsmoothmuscle
hypotensiveagentis
(A) Glutathione(B)Bradykinin
(C)Tryocidine (D)Gramicidin-s
33. A tripeptide functioning as an
importantreducingagentinthetissuesis
(A) Bradykinin(B)Kallidin
(C)Tyrocidin (D)Glutathione
34. Anexampleofmetalloproteinis
(A) Casein(B)Ceruloplasmin
(C)Gelatin (D)Salmine
2240
35. Carbonicanhydraseisanexampleof
(A) Lipoprotein(B)Phosphoprotein
(C)Metalloprotein (D)Chromoprotein
36. Anexampleofchromoproteinis
(A) Hemoglobin (B)Sturine
(C)Nuclein (D)Gliadin
37. Anexampleofscleroproteinis
(A) Zein (B)Keratin
(C)Glutenin (D)Ovoglobulin
38. Casein,themilkproteinis
(A) Nucleoprotein (B)Chromoprotein
(C)Phosphoprotein (D)Glycoprotein
39. Anexampleofphosphoproteinpresentinegg
yolkis
(A) Ovoalbumin (B)Ovoglobulin
(C)Ovovitellin (D)Avidin
40. Asimpleproteinfoundinthenucleoproteinsof
thespermis
(A) Prolamine (B)Protamine
(C)Glutelin (D)Globulin
41. Histonesare
(A) Identicaltoprotamine
(B) Proteinsrichinlysineandarginine
(C) Proteinswithhighmolecularweight
(D) Insolubleinwaterandverydiluteacids
42. Theproteinpresentinhairis
2241
(A) Keratin(B)Elastin
(C)Myosin (D)Tropocollagen
43. Theaminoacidfrom whichsynthesisofthe
proteinofhairkeratintakesplaceis
(A) Alanine (B)Methionine
(C)Proline (D)Hydroxyproline
44. In one molecule ofalbumin the numberof
aminoacidsis
(A) 510 (B)590
(C)610 (D)650
45. Plasmaproteinswhichcontainmorethan
4%hexosamineare
(A) Microglobulins(B)Glycoproteins
(C)Mucoproteins (D)Orosomucoids
46. AfterreleasingO2 atthetissues,hemoglobin
transports
(A) CO2andprotonstothelungs(B)O2tothe
lungs
(C) CO2andprotonstothetissue
(D) Nutrients
47. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome characterized
byhypermobilejointsandskinabnormalitiesis
dueto
(A) Abnormalityingeneforprocollagen
(B) Deficiencyoflysyloxidase
(C) Deficiencyofprolylhydroxylase
2242
(D) Deficiencyoflysylhydroxylase
48. Proteinsaresolublein
(A) Anhydrousacetone(B)Aqueousalcohol
(C)Anhydrousalcohol(D)Benzene
49. A cerealprotein soluble in 70% alcoholbut
insolubleinwaterorsaltsolutionis
(A) Glutelin (B)Protamine
(C)Albumin (D)Gliadin
50. Manyglobularproteinsarestableinsolution
inspitetheylackin
(A) Disulphidebonds(B)Hydrogenbonds
(C)Saltbonds (D)Nonpolarbonds
51. Thehydrogenbondsbetweenpeptidelinkages
ofaproteinmoleculesareinterferedby
(A) Guanidine (B)Uricacid
(C)Oxalicacid (D)Salicylicacid
52. Globular proteins have completely
folded,coiledpolypeptidechainandtheaxialPROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM
29
ratio(ratiooflengthtobreadth)is
(A) Lessthan10 and generallynotgreater
than
3–4
(B) Generally10
(C) Greaterthan10andgenerally20
(D) Greaterthan10
2243
53. Fibrousproteinshaveaxialratio
(A) Lessthan10
(B) Lessthan10 and generallynotgreater
than
3–4
(C) Generally10
(D) Greaterthan10
54. Eachturnofα-helixcontainstheaminoacid
residues(number):
(A) 3.6 (B)3.0
(C)4.2 (D)4.5
55. Distancetraveledperturnofα−helixinnmis
(A) 0.53 (B)0.54
(C)0.44 (D)0.48
56. Along the α-helix each amino acid residue
advancesinnmby
(A) 0.15 (B)0.10
(C)0.12 (D)0.20
57. Thenumberofhelicespresentinacollagen
moleculeis
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
58. Inproteinstheα-helixandβ-pleatedsheetare
examplesof
(A) Primarystructure (B) Secondary
structure
2244
(C)Tertiarystructure (D)Quaternarystructure
59. Thea-helixofproteinsis
(A) Apleatedstructure
(B) Madeperiodicbydisulphidebridges
(C) Anon-periodicstructure
(D) Stabilised by hydrogen bonds between
NHandCOgroupsofthemainchain
60. At the lowest energy level α-helix of
polypeptidechainisstabilised
(A) ByhydrogenbondsformedbetweentheH
ofpeptideN and thecarbonylO ofthe
residue
(B) Disulphidebonds(C)Nonpolarbonds
(D)Esterbonds
61. Bothα-helixandβ-pleatedsheetconformation
ofproteinswereproposedby
(A) WatsonandCrick
(B) PaulingandCorey
(C) WaughandKing
(D) Y.S.Rao
62. Theprimarystructureoffibroin,theprincipal
proteinofsilkworm fibresconsistsalmost
entirelyof
(A) Glycine (B)Aspartate
(C)Keratin (D)Tryptophan
63. Tertiarystructureofaproteindescribes
2245
(A) Theorderofaminoacids
(B) Locationofdisulphidebonds
(C) Loopregionsofproteins
(D) Thewaysofproteinfolding
64. Inaproteinmoleculethedisulphidebondisnot
brokenby
(A) Reduction
(B) Oxidation
(C) Denaturation
(D) X-raydiffraction
65. Thetechniqueforpurificationofproteinsthat
canbemadespecificforagivenproteinis
(A) Gelfiltrationchromotography
(B) Ionexchangechromatography
(C) Electrophoresis
(D) Affinitychromatography
66. Denaturationofproteinsresultsin
(A) Disruption of primary structure(B)
Breakdownofpeptidebonds
(C) Destructionofhydrogenbonds
(D) Irreversiblechangesinthemolecule
67. Ceruloplasminis
(A) α1-globulin(B)α2-globulin
(C)β-globulin (D)Noneofthese2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
68. Thelipoproteinwiththefastestelectrophoretic
2246
mobilityandthelowesttriglyceridecontentis
(A) Chylomicron (B)VLDL(C)IDL (D)HDL
69. The lipoprotein associated with activationof
LCATis
(A) HDL (B)LDL
(C)VLDL (D)IDL
70. Theapolipoproteinwhichactsasactivatorof
LCATis
(A) A-I (B)A-IV
(C)C-II (D)D
71. Theapolipoproteinwhichactsasactiatorof
extrahepaticlipoproteinis
(A) Apo-A(B)Apo-B
(C)Apo-C (D)Apo-D
72. The apolipoprotein which forms theintegral
componentofchylomicronis
(A) B-100 (B)B-48(C)C (D)D
73. The apolipoprotein which from theintegral
componentofVLDLis
(A) B-100 (B)B-48(C)A (D)D
74. TheapolipoproteinwhichactsasligandforLDL
receptoris
(A) B-48 (B)B-100
(C)A (D)C
75. SerumLDLhasbeenfoundtobeincreasedin
(A) Obstructivejaundice(B)Hepaticjaundice
2247
(C) Hemolyticjaundice
(D) Malabsorptionsyndrome
76. Alipoproteinassociatedwithhighincidenceof
coronaryatherosclerosisis
(A) LDL (B)VLDL
(C)IDL (D)HDL
77. Alipoproteininverselyrelatedtotheincidence
ofcoronaryartherosclerosisis
(A) VLDL (B)IDL
(C)LDL (D)HDL
78. Theprimarybiochemicallesioninhomozygote
withfamilialhypercholesterolemia(typeIIa)is
(A) Loss of feed back inhibition of
HMGreductase
(B) LossofapolipoproteinB
(C) IncreasedproductionofLDLfromVLDL
(D) Functional deficiency of plasma
membranereceptorsforLDL
79. Inabetalipoproteinemia,thebiochemicaldefect
isin
(A) Apo-Bsynthesis
(B) Lipproteinlipaseactivity
(C) Cholesterolesterhydrolase
(D) LCATactivity
80. Familial hypertriaacylglycerolemia
isassociatedwith
2248
(A) OverproductionofVLDL
(B) IncreasedLDLconcentration
(C) IncreasedHDLconcentration
(D) Slowclearanceofchylomicrons
81. Forsynthesisofprostaglandins,theessential
fattyacidsgiverisetoafattyacidcontaining
(A) 12carbonatoms(B)16carbonatoms
(C)20carbonatoms(D)24carbonatoms
82. All active prostaglandins have at least
onedoublebondbetweenpositions
(A) 7and8 (B)10and11
(C)13and14 (D)16and17
83. Normalrangeofplasmatotalphospholipidsis
(A) 0.2–0.6mmol/L(B)0.9–2.0mmol/L
(C)1.8–5.8mmol/L (D)2.8–5.3mmol/L
84. HDL2havethedensityintherangeof
(A) 1.006–1.019 (B) 1.019–1.032 (C)
1.032–1.063 (D)1.063–1.125
85. β-lipoproteinshavethedensityintherangeof
(A) 0.95–1.006(B)1.006–1.019
(C)1.019–1.063 (D)1.063–1.125
86. IDLhavethedensityintherangeof
(A) 0.95–1.006(B)1.006–1.019
(C)1.019–1.032 (D)1.032–1.163
87. Aspirininhibitstheactivityoftheenzyme:
(A) Lipoxygenase (B)Cyclooxygenase
2249
(C)PhospholipaeA1(D)PhospholipaseA2
88. A’suicideenzyme’isPROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 31
(A) Cycloxygenase(B)Lipooxygenase
(C)PhospholipaseA1(D)PhospholipaseA2
89. Inadiposetissueprostaglandinsdecrease
(A) Lipogenesis (B)Lipolysis
(C)Gluconeogenesis(D)Glycogenolysis
90TheoptimalpHfortheenzymepepsinis
(A)1.0–2.0 (B)4.0–5.0
(C)5.2–6.0 (D)5.8–6.2
91. Pepsinogenisconvertedtoactivepepsinby
(A) HCl(B)Bilesalts
(C)Ca
++
(D)Enterokinase
92. TheoptimalpHfortheenzymerenninis
(A) 2.0 (B)4.0
(C)8.0 (D)6.0
93. TheoptimalpHfortheenzymetrypsinis
(A) 1.0–2.0 (B)2.0–4.0
(C)5.2–6.2 (D)5.8–6.2
94. TheoptimalpHfortheenzymechymotrypsin
is
(A) 2.0 (B)4.0
(C)6.0 (D)8.0
95 Trypsinogenisconvertedtoactivetrypsinby
2250
(A) Enterokinase (B)Bilesalts
(C)HCl (D)Mg
++
96 Pepsin acts on denatured proteins to
produce
(A) Proteosesandpeptones
(B) Polypeptides
(C) Peptides
(D) Dipeptides
97. Renin converts casein to paracasein
inpresenceof
(A) Ca
++
(B)Mg
++
(C)Na
(D)K
98. Anexpopeptidaseis
(A) Trypsin (B)Chymotrypsin
(C)Elastase (D)Elastase
99. The enzyme trypsin is specific for
peptidebondsof
(A) Basicaminoacids
(B) Acidicaminoacids
(C) Aromaticaminoacids
2251
(D) Nexttosmallaminoacidresidues
100. Chymotrypsin is specific for peptide
bondscontaining
(A) Unchargedaminoacidresidues
(B) Acidicaminoacids
(C) Basicaminoacid
(D) Smallaminoacidresidues
101. Theendproductofproteindigestionin
G.I.T.is
(A) Dipeptide (B)Tripeptide
(C)Polypeptide (D)Aminoacid
102. Natural L-isomers of amino acids are
absorbedfromintestineby
(A) Passivediffusion(B)Simplediffusion
(C)Faciliateddiffusion(D)Activeprocess
103. Abnormalitiesofbloodclottingare
(A) Haemophilia(B)Christmasdisease
(C)Gout (D)Both(A)and(B)
104. Animportantreactionforthesynthesisof
aminoacidfrom carbohydrateintermediates
is transamination which requires the
cofactor:
(A) Thiamin(B)Riboflavin
(C)Niacin (D)Pyridoxalphosphate
105. Themainsitesforoxidativedeaminationare
(A) Liverandkidney
2252
(B) Skinandpancreas
(C) Intestineandmammarygland
(D) Lungandspleen
106. Apositivenitrogenbalanceoccurs
(A) Ingrowinginfant
(B) Followingsurgery
(C) Inadvancedcancer
(D) Inkwashiorkar
107. Themainsiteofureasynthesisinmammals
is
(A) Liver (B)Skin
(C)Intestine (D)Kidney2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
108. Theenzymesofureasynthesisarefoundin
(A) Mitochondriaonly
(B) Cytosolonly
(C) Bothmitochondriaandcytosol
(D) Nucleus
109. The number of ATP required for urea
synthesisis
(A) 0 (B)1
(C)2 (D)3
110. Mostofthe ammonia released from L-
αaminoacidsreflectsthecoupledactionof
transaminaseand
(A) L-glutamatedehydrogenase
2253
(B) L-aminoacidoxidase
(C) Histidase
(D) Serinedehydratase
111. Inureasynthesis,theaminoacidfunctioning
solelyasanenzymeactivator:
(A) N-acetylglutamate(B)Ornithine
(C)Citrulline (D)Arginine
112. The enzyme carbamoyl phosphate
synthetaserequires
(A) Mg
++
(B)Ca
++
(C)Na
(D)K
113. Controlofureacycleinvolvestheenzyme:
(A) Carbamoylphosphatesynthetase
(B) Ornithinetranscarbamoylase
(C) Argininosuccinase
(D) Arginase
114. Transfer of the carbamoyl moiety
ofcarbamoyl phosphate to ornithine is
catalysedbyalivermitochondrialenzyme:
(B) Ornithinetranscarbamoylase
2254
(C) N-acetylglutamatesynthetase
(D) N-acetylglutamatehydrolase
115. A compound serving a link between
citricacidcycleandureacycleis
(A) Malate (B)Citrate
(C)Succinate (D)Fumarate
116. The2nitrogenatomsinureaarecontributed
by
(A) Ammoniaandglutamate
(B) Glutamineandglutamate
(C) Ammoniaandaspartate
(D) Ammoniaandalanine
117. Incarcinoidsyndrometheargentaffintissue
oftheabdominalcavityoverproduce
(A) Serotonin (B)Histamine
(C)Tryptamine (D)Tyrosine
118. Tryptophancouldbeconsideredasprecursor
of
(A) Melanotonin(B)Thyroidhormones
(C)Melanin (D)Epinephrine
119. Conversion of tyrosine to
dihydroxyphenylalanine is catalysed by
tyrosinehydroxylasewhichrequires
(A) NAD (B)FAD
(C)ATP (D)Tetrahydrobiopterin
120. Theratelimitingstepinthebiosynthesisof
2255
catecholaminesis
(A) Decarboxylation of
dihydroxyphenylalanine
(B) Hydroxylationofphenylalanine
(C) Hydroxylationoftyrosine
(D) Oxidationofdopamine
121. The enzyme dopamine β-oxidase which
catalyses conversion of dopamine to
norepinephrinerequires
(A) VitaminA (B)VitaminC
(C)VitaminE (D)VitaminB12
122. In humans the sulphur of methionine
andcysteineisexcretedmainlyas
(A) Etherealsulphate
(B) Inorganicsulphate
(C) Sulphites
(D) Thioorganiccompound
123. Small amount of urinary oxalates is
contributedbytheaminoacid:
(A) Glycine (B)Tyrosine
(C)Alanine (D)Serine
124. The amino acid which detoxicated
benzoicacidtoformhippuricacidisPROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 33
(A) Glycine (B)Alanine
(C)Serine (D)Glutamicacid
125. Theaminoacidsinvolvedinthesynthesisof
2256
creatinare
(A) Arginine,glycine,activemethionine(B)
Arginine,alanine,glycine
(C) Glycine,lysine,methionine
(D) Arginine,lysine,methionine
126. Chemical score of egg proteins is
consideredtobe
(A) 100(B)60
(C)50 (D)40
127. Chemicalscoreofmilkproteinsis
(A) 70 (B)65
(C)60 (D)40
128. Chemicalscoreofproteinsofbengalgramis
(A) 70 (B)60
(C)44 (D)42
129. Chemicalscoreofproteingelatinis
(A)0 (B)44
(C)57 (D)60
130Chemicalscoreofproteinzeinis
(A)0 (B)57
(C)60 (D)70
131. Biologicalvalueofeggwhiteproteinis
(A) 94 (B)83
(C)85 (D)77
132. Netproteinutilisationofeggproteinis
(A) 75%(B)80%
2257
(C)91% (D)72%
133. Netproteinutilizationofmilkproteinis
(A) 75%(B)80%
(C)86% (D)91%
134. Alimitingaminoacidisanessentialamino
acid
(A) Thatis mostdeficientin proteins(B)
Thatismostexcessinproteins
(C) Thatwhichincreasesthegrowth
(D) Thatwhichincreasestheweightgain
135. Thelimitingaminoacidofriceis
(A) Lysine (B)Tryptophan
(C)Phenylalanine (D)Tyrosine
136. Thelimitingaminoacidoffishproteinsis
(A) Tryptophan (B)Cysteine
(C)Lysine (D)Threonine
137. Pulsesaredeficientin
(A) Lysine (B)Threonine
(C)Methionine (D)Tryptophan
138. Atraceelementdeficientinthemilkis
(A) Magnesium (B)Copper
(C)Zinc (D)Chloride
139. Aconjugatedproteinpresentintheeggyolkis
(A) Vitellin (B)Livetin
(C)Albuminoids (D) Ovo-mucoid 140.
Thechiefproteinofcow’smilkis
2258
(A)Albumin (B)Vitellin
(C)Livetin (D)Casein
141. Awatersolublevitamindeficientineggis
(A) Thiamin(B)Ribofalvin
(C)Ascrobicacid (D)Cobalamin
142. Pulsesarerichin
(A) Lysine (B)Methionine
(C)Tryptophan (D)Phenylalanine
143. Milkisdeficientin
(A) VitaminB1 (B)VitaminB2
(C)Sodium (D)Potassium
144. Milkisdeficientin
(A) Calcium (B)Iron
145. Whennetproteinutilization(NPU)islow,the
requirementsforproteinsare
(A) High (B)Moderate
(C)Low (D)Supplementary
146. Proteincontentofhumanmilkisabout
(A) 1.4% (B)2.4%
(C)3.4% (D)4.4%
147. Proteincontentofcow’smilkisabout
(A) 2.5% (B)3.5%2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(C)4.5% (D)5.5%
148. Proteincontentofsoyabeanisabout
2259
(A) 30%(B)40%
(C)50% (D)60%
149. Lipidcontentofeggwhiteis
(A) 12%(B)33%(C)10–11% (D)Traces
150. Therecommendeddailyallowance(RDA)of
proteinsforanadultmanis
(A) 70gms (B)50gms
(C)40gms (D)30gms
151. Thebasicaminoacidsare
(A) Lysine (B)Bileacids
(C)Glycine (D)Alanine
152. Thedailycaloricrequirementforthenormal
adultfemaleisabout
(A) 1500 (B)2100
(C)2500 (D)2900
153. In the total proteins, the percentage
ofalbuminisabout
(A) 20–40 (B)30–45
(C)50–70 (D)80–90
154. In the totalproteins percentage of α1
globulinisabout
(A) 0.2–1.2% (B)1.2–2.0%
(C)2.4–4.4% (D)5.0–10.0%
155. In the total proteins the percentage
ofγglobulinisabout
2260
(A) 2.4–4.4% (B)10.0–21.0%
(C)6.1–10.1% (D)1.2–2.0%
156. Mostfrequentlythenormalalbuminglobulin
ratioratio(A:G)is
(A) 1.0:0.8(B)1.5:1.0
(C)2.0:1.0 (D)2.4:1.0
157. InThymolturbiditytesttheproteininvolved
ismainly
(A) Albumin(B)α1-Globulin
(C)α2-Globulin (D
βGlobulin
158. Inquaternarystructure,subunitsarelinked
by
(A) Peptidebonds (B)Disulphidebonds
(C)Covalentbonds (D)Non-covalentbonds
159. Molecularweightofhumanalbuminisabout
(A) 156,000(B)90,000
(C)69,000 (D)54,000
160. AtisoelectricpH,anaminoacidexistsas
(A) Anion (B)Cation
(C)Zwitterion (D)Noneofthese
161. Adisulphidebondcanbeformedbetween
(A) Twomethionineresidues
(B) Twocysteineresidues
(C) Amethionineandacysteineresidue
2261
(D) Allofthese
162Acoagulatedproteinis
(A) Insoluble
(B) Biologicallynon-functional
(C) Unfolded
(D) Alloftheabove
163. AtapHbelowtheisoelectricpoint,anamino
acidexistsas
(A) Cation
(B) Anion
(C) Zwitterion
(D) Undissociatedmolecule
164. Anaminoacidhavingahydrophilicsidechain
is
(A) Alanine (B)Proline
(C)Methionine (D)Serine165.Anamino
acidthatdoesnottakepartinαhelixformationis
(A)Histidine (B)Tyrosine
(C)Proline (D)Tryptophan
166. Aproteinrichincysteineis
(A) Collagen(B)Keratin
(C)Haemoglobin (D)Gelatin
167. Primary structure of proteins can be
determinedbytheuseof
(A) Electrophoresis (B)Chromatography
(C)Ninhydrin (D)Sanger’sreagent
2262
168. Electrostatic bonds can be formed
betweenthesidechainsofPROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 35
(A) Alanineandleucine
(B) Leucineandvaline
(C) Asparateandglutamate
(D) Lysineandaspartate
169. Sanger’sreagentcontains
(A) Phenylisothiocyanate
(B) Dansylchloride
(C) 1-Fluoro-2,4-dinitrobenzene
(D) Ninhydrin
170. Themostabundantproteininmammalsis
(A) Albumin (B)Haemoglobin
(C)Collagen (D)Elastin
171. Folding ofnewly synthesized proteins is
acceleratedby
(A) Proteindisulphideisomerase
(B) Prolylcis-transisomerase
(C) Chaperonins
(D) Allofthese
172. Primarystructureofaproteinisformedby
(A) Hydrogenbonds (B)Peptidebonds
(C)Disulphidebonds(D)Allofthese
173. α-Helixisformedby
(A) Hydrogenbonds
(B) Hydrophobicbonds
2263
(C) Electrostaticbonds
(D) Disulphidebonds
174. Glutelinsarepresentin
(A) Milk(B)Eggs
(C)Meat (D)Cereals
175. Aromaticaminoacidscanbedetectedby
(A) Sakaguchireaction
(B) Millon-Nasse reaction(C) Hopkins-Cole
reaction
(D)Xanthoproteicreaction
176. Twoaminogroupsarepresentin
(A) Leucine (B)Glutamate
(C)Lysine (D)Threonine
177. Duringdenaturationofproteins,allofthe
followingaredisruptedexcept
(A) Primarystructure (B) Secondary
structure
178. Allthefollowingarebranchedchainamino
acidsexcept
(A) Isoleucine (B)Alanine
(C)Leucine (D)Valine
179. An–OHgroupispresentinthesidechainof
(A) Serine (B)Arginine
(C)Lysine (D)Proline
180. Edman’sreagentcontains
2264
(A) Phenylisothiocyanate
(B) 1-Fluoro-2,4-dinitrobenzene
(C) DansylChloride
(D) tBOCazide
181. Edman’sreactioncanbeusedto
(A) Determine the number of tyrosine
residuesinaprotein
(B) Determinethenumberofaromaticamino
acidresiduesinaprotein
(C) Determinetheaminoacidsequenceof
aprotein
(D) Hydrolysethepeptidebondsinaprotein
182. Inherited deficiency of β−glucosidase
causes
(A) Tay-Sachsdisease
(B) Metachromaticleukodystrophy
(C) Gaucher’sdisease
(D) Multiplesclerosis
183. Tay-Sachs disease results from
inheriteddeficiencyof
(A) ArylsulphataseA
(B) HexosaminidaseA
(C) Sphingomyelinase
(D) Ceramidase
184. Thelargestalpolipoproteinis
(A) ApoE (B)ApoB-48
2265
(C)ApoB-100 (D)ApoA-I
185. ApolipoproteinB-100issynthesisedin
(A) Adiposetissue (B)Liver
(C)Intestine (D)Liverandintestine2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
186. ApolipoproteinB-48issynthesizedin
(C)Intestine (D)Liverandintestine
187. ApolipoproteinsA-IandA-IIarepresentin
(A) LDLonly
(B) LDLandVLDL
(C) HDLonly
(D) HDLandchylomicrons
188. ApolipoproteinB-48ispresentin
(A) Chylomicrons(B)VLDL
(C)LDL (D)HDL
189. ApolipoproteinB-100ispresentin
(A) Chylomicrons(B)VLDLonly
(C)LDLonly (D)VLDLandLDL
190. ApolipoproteinsC-I,C-IIandC-IIIarepresent
in
(C)HDL (D)Allofthese
191. ApolipoprotiensC-I,C-IIandC-IIIarepresent
inallofthefollowingexcept
2266
(C)LDL (D)HDL
192. ApolipoproteinA-Iactsas
(A) Enzymeactivator(B)Ligandforreceptor
(C)Both(A)and(B) (D)Noneofthese
193. ApolipoprotienB-100actsas
(A) Enzymeactivator(B)Ligandforreceptor
194. ApolipoproteinC-IIisanactivatorof
(A) Lecithincholesterolaacyltransferase
(B) PhospholipaseC
(C) Extrahepaticlipoproteinlipase
(D) Hepaticlipoproteinlipase
195. Nascent chylomicron receives
apolipoproteinsCandEfrom
(A) VLDLremnant(B)VLDL
(C)LDL (D)HDL
196. Terminaltransferase
(A) Removes nucleotides from 3’end(B)
Addsnucleotidesat3’end
(C) Removesnucleotidesfrom3’end
(D) Addsnucleotidesat3’end
197. S1nucleasehydrolyses
(A) DNAofsomaticcells
(B) DNAofsperms
(C) AnydoublestrandedDNA
(D) AnysinglestrandedDNA
2267
198. Positivenitrogenbalanceisseenin
(A) Starvation
(B) Wastingdiseases
(C) Growingage
(D) Intestinalmalabsorption
199. Alaninecanbesynthesizedfrom
(A) Glutamateandα-ketoglutarate
(B) Pyruvateandglutamate
(C) Pyruvateandα-ketoglutarate
(D) Asparateandα-ketoglutarate
200. Allofthefollowingarerequiredforsynthesis
ofalanineexcept
(A) Pyruvate(B)α-ketoglutarate
(C)Glutamate (D)Pyridoxalphosphate
201. All of the following statements about
aspartatearetrueexcept
(A) Itisnon-essentialaminoacid
(B) Itisadicarboxylicaminoacid
(C) Itcan be synthesized from pyruvate
andglutamate
(D) Itcanbeconvertedintoasparagine
202. Glycinecanbesynthesizedfrom
(A) Serine (B)Choline
(C)Betaine (D)Allofthese
203. Allofthefollowingarerequiredforsynthesis
ofglutamineexcept
2268
(A) Glutamate
(B) Ammonia
(C) Pyridoxalphosphate
(D) ATP
204. A coenzyme required for the synthesis
ofglycinefromserineis
(A) ATPPROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 37
(B) Pyridoxalphosphate
(C) Tetrahydrofolate
(D) NAD
205. Allofthefollowingstatementsaboutproline
aretrueexcept
(A) Itisaniminoacid
(B) Itcanbesynthesizedfromglutamate
(C) Itcanbecatabolisedtoglutamate
(D) Free proline can be hydroxylated
tohydroxyproline
206. Aproteinrichinhydroxyprolineis
(A) Prolamin(B)Procollagen
(C)Collagen (D)Proinsulin
207. All the following statement about
hydroxyprolinearetrueexcept
(A) Thereisnocodonforhydroxyproline
(B) Itispresentinlargeamountsincollagen
(C) Freeprolinecannotbehydroxylatedto
hydroxyproline
2269
(D) Hydroxylation of proline residues is
catalysedbyadioxygenase
208. All of the following are required for
hydroxylationofprolineresiduesexcept
(A) Ascorbicacid(B)Glutamate
(C)Ferrousions (D)Molecularoxygen
209. Cysteine can be synthesized from
methionineand
(A) Serine (B)Homoserine
(C)Homocysteine (D)Threonine
210. Methionineissynthesizedinhumanbody
from
(A) Cysteineandhomoserine
(B) Homocysteineandserine
(C) Cysteineandserine
(D) Noneofthese
211. Hydroxylationofphenylalaninerequiresallof
thefollowingexcept
(A) Phenylalaninehydroxylase
(B) Tetrahydrobiopterin
(C) NADH
(D) Molecularoxygen
212. Non-Proteinaminoacidsare
(A) Ornithine
(B) β-alanine
(C) γ-aminobutyricacid
2270
(D) Allofthese
213. The amino acid thatundergoes oxidative
deaminationatsignificantrateis
(A) Alanine (B)Aspartate
(C)Glutamate (D)Glutamine
214. Allosteric inhibitor of glutamate
dehydrogenaseis
(A) ATP (B)ADP
(C)AMP (D)GMP
215. Allsoteric activator of glutamate
dehydrogenaseis
(A) ATP (B)GTP
(C)ADPandGDP (D)AMPandGMP
216. Freeammoniaisreleasedduring
(A) Oxidative deamination ofglutamate(B)
Catabolismofpurines
(C) Catabolismofpyrimidines
(D) Allofthese
217. An organ which is extremely sensitive
toammoniatoxicityis
(A) Liver(B)Brain
(C)Kidney (D)Heart
218. Ammoniaistransportedfrom musclesto
livermainlyintheformof
(A) Freeammonia(B)Glutamine
(C)Asparagine (C)Alanine
2271
219. Themajorsiteofureasynthesisis
(A) Brain(B)Kidneys
(C)Liver (D)Muscles
220. Carbamoylphosphate required for urea
synthesisisformedin
(A) Cytosol (B)Mitochondria
221. Cytosolic and mitochondrial carbamoyl
phosphate synthetase have the following
similarity:
(A) Bothuseammoniaasasubstance
(B) Bothprovidecarbamoylphosphatefor2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
ureasynthesis
(C) Both require N-acetylglutamate as
anactivator
(D) Bothareallostericenzymes
222. The following enzyme of urea cycle is
presentincytosol:
(A) Argininosuccinicacidsynthetase
(B) Argininosuccinase
(C) Arginase
(D) Allofthese
223. ATPisrequiredinfollowingreactionsofurea
cycle:
(A) Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate
2272
andcitrulline
(B) Synthesis of citrulline and
argininosuccinate
(C) Synthesis of argininosuccinate and
arginine
(D) Synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate
andargininosuccinate
224. Dailyexcretionofnitrogenbyanadultmanis
about
(A) 15–20mg (B)1.5–2gm
(C)5–10gm (D)15–20gm
225. Maplesyrupurinediseasesisaninbornerror
ofmetabolismof
(A) Sulphur-containingaminoacids
(B) Aromaticaminoacids
(C) Branchedchainaminoacids
(D) Dicarboxylicaminoacids
226. Cystinuriaresultsfrominabilityto
(A) Metabolisecysteine
(B) Convertcystineintocysteine
(C) Incorporatecysteineintoproteins
(D) Reabsorbcystineinrenaltubules
227. Thedefectiveenzymeinhistidinemiais
(A) Histidinecarboxylase
(B) Histidinedecarboxylase
(C) Histidase
2273
(D) Histidineoxidase
228. All the following statements about
phenylketonuriaarecorrectexcept
(A) Phenylalanine cannot be converted
intotyrosine
(B) Urinary excretion of phenylpyruvate
andphenyllactateisincreased
(C) It can be controlled by giving a
lowphenylalaninediet
(D) It leads to decreased synthesis of
thyroidhormones,catecholamines and
melanin
229. Allthefollowingstatementsaboutalbinism
arecorrectexcept
(A) Tyrosine hydroxylase (tyrosinase) is
absentordeficientinmelanocytes
(B) Skinishypopigmented
(C) Itresultsinmentalretardation
(D) Eyesarehypopigmented
230. Glycineisnotrequiredfortheformationof
(A) Taurocholicacid (B)Creatine
(C)Purines (D)Pyrimidines
231. Histamineisformedfromhistidineby
(A) Deamination (B)Dehydrogenation
(C)Decarboxylation (D)Carboxylation
232. DOPAisanintermediateinthesynthesisof
2274
(A) Thyroidhormones
(B) Catecholamines
(C) Melanin
(D) Catecholaminesandmelanin
233. Allthefollowingstatementsaboutpepsinare
correctexcept
(A) Itissmallerthanpepsinogen
(B) ItisformedbytheactionofHClonits
precursor(C)ItsoptimumpHis1.0–2.0
(D) Ithydrolyses the C-terminaland N-
terminalpeptidebondsofproteins
234. Pancreaticjuicecontainstheprecursorsof
allofthefollowingexcept
(C)Carboxypeptidase(D)Aminopeptidase
235. The only correct statement about
chymotrypsinis
(A) Itisformedfromtrypsin
(B) Carboxypeptidase converts trypsin
intochymotrypsinPROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 39
(C) ItsoptimumpHisaround7
(D) Ithydrolyses peptide bonds involving
basicaminoacids
236. Theportionoftheantigenmoleculewhichis
recognizedbyantibodyisknownas
(A) Hapten (B)Epitope
2275
(C)Complement (D)Variableregion
237. Allthefollowingstatementsabouthaptens
aretrueexcept
(A) Theyhavehighmolecularweights
(B) Theycannotelicitanimmuneresponse
bythemselves
(C) When combined with some other
largemolecule,theycanelicitanimmune
response
(D) Onceanimmuneresponsedevelops,the
freehapten can be recognized by the
antibody
238. Antigens and haptens have the following
similarity:
(A) Theyhavehighmolecularweights
(B) They can elicitimmune response by
themselves
(C) Theycanelicitanimmuneresponseonly
inassociation with some other large
molecule
(D) Once an immune response develops,
freeantigen and free hapten can be
recognizedbytheantibody
239. Theminimum numberofpolypeptidechains
inanimmunoglobulinis
(A) Two(B)Four
2276
(C)Five (D)Six
240. Lightchains ofimmunoglobulins are of
followingtypes:
(A) Alphaandkappa(B)Alphaandgamma
(C)Lambdaanddelta(D)Kappaandlambda
241Immunoglobulinsareclassifiedonthebasisof
(A) Typeoflightchains
(B) Typeofheavychains
(C) Typesoflightandheavychains
(D) Molecularweight
242. Themolecularweightoflightchainsis
(A) 10,000–15,000 (B)20,000–25,000
(C)25,000–50,000(D)50,000–75,000
243. Themolecularweightofheavychainsis
(A) 20,000–25,000 (B)25,000–50,000
(C)50,000–70,000(D)70,000–1,00,000
244. Secretorycomponentispresentin
(A) IgA (B)IgG
(C)IgM (D)Allofthese
245. Thevariableregionoflightchainsisthe
(A) N-terminalquarter(B)N-terminalhalf
(C)C-terminalquarter(D)C-terminalhalf
246. Thevariableregionoflightchainisthe
(A) N-terminalquarter(B)N-terminalhalf
(C) C-terminalquarter
(D) C-terminalhalf
2277
247. Thevariableregionoflightchainshas
(A) Onehypervariableregion
(B) Twohypervariableregions
(C) Threehypervariableregions
(D) Fourhypervariableregions
248. Thevariableregionofheavychainshas
(A) Onehypervariableregion
(B) Twohypervariableregions
(C) Threehypervariableregions
(D) Fourhypervariableregions
249. The most abundant immunoglobulin in
plasmais
(A) IgA (B)IgG
(C)IgM (D)IgD
250. Thelargestimmunoglobulinis
(A) IgA (B)IgG
(C)IgM (D)IgD
251. TheplasmaconcentrationofIgAis
(A) 1–5mg/dl (B)40–200mg/dl
(C)60–500mg/dl (D)700–1,500mg/dl
252. An immunoglobulin found in
exocrinesecretionsis
(A) IgA (B)IgG
(C)IgM (D)IgE
253. Allergicreactionsaremediatedby2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2278
(A) IgA (B)IgG
(C)IgD (D)IgE
254. An immunoglobulin which can cross
theplacentalbarrieris
(A) IgA (B)IgM
(C)IgD (D)Noneofthese
255. IgMpossesses
(A) Twolightchainsandtwoheavychains
(B) Fourlightchainsandfourheavychains
(C) Sixlightchainsandsixheavychains
(D) Tenlightchainsandtenheavychains
256. Theimmunoglobulinhavingthelongesthalf-
lifeis
(A) IgA (B)IgG
(C)IgM (D)IgE
257. Thehalf-lifeofIgGis
(A) 2–3days(B)5–6days
(C)8–10days (D)20–25days
258. Recognitionofantigenisthefunctionof
(A) Variableregionoflightchains
(B) Variable regions of lightand heavy
chains
(C) Constantregionofheavychains
(D) Constantregions oflightand heavy
chains
259. The effector function of antibody is
2279
performedby
(A) Variableregionoflightchains
(B) Constantregionofheavychains
(C) Variable regions of lightand heavy
chains
(D) Constantregions oflightand heavy
chains
260. Complementsystem can be activated by
bindingofantigento
(A) IgA (B)IgD
(C)IgE (D)IgM
261. C1 component of classicalcomplement
pathwayismadeupof
(A) Complements1qand1r
(B) Complements1qand1s
(C) Complements1rand1s
(D) Complements1q,1rand1s
262. Thecomponentsofcomplementsystem are
activatedby
(A) Microsomal hydroxylation(B)
Phosphorylation
(C) Glycosylation
(D) Proteloysis
263. The component system forms a
membraneattackcomplexmadeupof
(A) Complements 1q, 1r and 1s(B)
2280
Complements1,2,3and4
(C) Complements5b,6,7and8
(D) FactorsBandD
264. FactorsBandDarerequiredin
(A) Theclassicalpathwayofcomplement
fixation
(B) Thealternatecomplementpathway
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
265. Thealternatecomplementpathwaydoesn’t
involve
(A) Antigen-antibodycomplex
(B) Complement3
(C) FactorsBandD
(D) Membraneattackunit
266. Antibodydiversityarisesfrom
(A) Geneamplification
(B) Genere-arrangement
(C) Alternativesplicing
(D) Allofthese
267. A lightchain gene is constructed from
thefollowingsegments:
(A) Variableandconstantsegments
(B) Variable,joiningandconstantsegments
(C) Variable, diversity and constant
segments
2281
(D) Variable, joining, diversity and
constantsegments
268. Inmetabolicpointofview,aminoacidsare
classifiedas
(A) Glycogenic
(B) KetogenicPROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 41
(C) GlycogenicorKetogenic
(D) Allofthese
269. Diversitysegmentsarepresentin
(A) Lightchaingenes
(B) Heavychaingenes
(C) Lightandheavychaingenes
(D) Noneofthese
270. Constantsegmentsofheavychainsareof
(A) Fivetypes (B)Sixtypes
(C)Seventypes (D)Eighttypes
271. Gammaheavychainsareof
(A) Twotypes (B)Threetypes
(C)Fourtypes (D)Fivetypes
272. Gammaheavychainsarepresentin
(A) IgA (B)IgG
(C)IgM (D)IgD
273. HeavychainsinIgDareoffollowingtype:
(A) Alpha (B)Gamma
(C)Delta (D)Epsilon
274. Onexposuretoanyantigen,thefirstantibody
2282
tobeformedisofthefollowingclass:
(A) IgA (B)IgG
(C)IgM (D)IgE
275. Constantsegmentgenesofheavychainsare
presentinaclusterinwhichthefirstgeneon
sideis
(A) Alpha (B)Gamma
(C)Delta (D)Noneofthese
276. Cell-mediatedimmunityisthefunctionof
(A) Blymphocytes (B)Tlymphocytes
(C)Plasmacells (D)Basophils
277. ThemostabundantTcellsare
(A) CytotoxicTcells (B)HelperTcells
(C)SuppressorTcells(D)MemoryTcells
278. Tcellscanrecognise
(A) Freeantigens
(B) Antigensboundtocells
(C) Antigensboundtoantibodies
(D) AntigensboundtoMHCproteins
279. MHCproteinsareuniqueto
(A) Eachcell(B)Eachorgan
(C)Eachindividual (D)Eachspecies
280. MHC classIproteinsarepresentonthe
surfaceof
(A) Bcellsonly (B)Tcellsonly
(C)Macrophagesonly(D)Allcells
2283
281. MHC classIproteins,inconjunctionwith
antigensarerecognisedby
282. MHC classIIproteinsarepresentonthe
surfaceof
(A) Allcells
(B) B lymphocytes only(C) Macrophages
only
(D)MacrophagesandBlymphocytes
283. MHC ClassIIproteins,inconjunctionwith
antigens,arerecognisedby
(A) CytotoxicTcells
(B) HelperTcells
(C) SuppressorTcells
(D) MemoryTcells
284. CD 8 is a transmembrane
glycoproteinpresentin
(A) CytotoxicTcells
(B) HelperTcells
(C) SuppressorTcells
(D) MemoryTcells
285. CD 4 is a transmembrane
glycoproteinpresentin
2284
286. CD 3 complex and p 56
lck
proteins are
presentin
287. CytotoxicTcellsrelease
(A) Perforins
(B) Interleukins
(C) Colonystimulatingfactors2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(D) Tumournecrosisfactor
288. HelperTcellsrelease
(A) Interleukins
(B) Colonystimulatingfactors
(C) Tumournecrosisfactor
(D) Allofthese
289. MHCClassIIIproteinsinclude
(A) Immunoglobulins
(B) Componentsofcomplementsystem
(C) Tcellsreceptors
(D) CD4andCD8proteins
290. Humanimmunodeficiencyvirusdestroys
(C)Bcells (D)Plasmacells
291. Inallergicdiseases,theconcentrationofthe
2285
followingisincreasedinplasma:
(A) IgA (B)IgG
(C)IgD (D)IgE
292. IgEhasatendencytoattachto
(A) Basophils (B)Mastcells
293. Reaginicantibodyis
(A) IgA (B)IgG
(C)IgD (D)IgE
294. Active immunity can be produced by
administrationof
(A) Killedbacteriaorviruses
(B) Liveattenuatedbacteriaorviruses
(C) Toxoids
(D) Allofthese
295. Passive immunity can be produced by
administrationof
(A) Pureantigens
(B) Immunoglobulins
(C) Toxoids
(D) Killedbacteriaorviruses
296. HelperT cells release allthe following
except
(A) Interleukins
(B) Colonystimulatingfactors
(C) Perforins
2286
(D) Tumournecrosisfactor
297. IgGcleavedbypapaininto
(A) Twolightandtwoheavychains
(B) TwoFabandoneFcfragments
(C) Twopairsofonelightandoneheavy
chaineach
(D) OneFabandtwoFcfragments
298. Bence-Jonesproteinis
(A) Animmunoglobulin
(B) Adimerofheavychains
(C) Adimeroflightchains
(D) A dimerofone heavyand one light
chains
299. Bence-Jones proteins possess all the
followingpropertiesexcept
(A) Theyaredimersoflightchains
(B) Their amino acids sequences are
identical
(C) TheirN-terminalhalves have variable
aminoacidsequences
(D) TheirC-terminalhalveshaveconstant
aminoacidsequences
300. AZwitterionis
(A) Positiveion (B)Negativeion
(C)Both(A)and(C) (D)Noneofthese
301. AfteraccountingforSDA,thenetgainof
2287
energyfrom25gmofproteinsisabout
(A) 70kcal (B)100kcal
(C)130kcal (D)200kcal
energy from 25 gm ofcarbohydrates is
about
(A) 70kcal (B)95kcal
energyfrom100gmoffatisabout
(A) 600kcal(B)780kcal
304. If proteins, carbohydrates and fats
areconsumedtogether:
(A) ThetotalSDAisthesum ofindividual
SDAsofproteins,carbohydratesandfatsPROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 43
(B) ThetotalSDA ismorethanthesum
ofindividual SDAs of proteins,
carbohydratesandfats
(C) CarbohydratesandfatslowertheSDA
ofproteins
(D) ProteinsraisetheSDAofcarbohydrates
andfats
305. Aftercalculatingtheenergyrequirementofa
person:
(A) 10%kcalaresubtractedonaccountof
2288
SDA(B)10%kcalareaddedonaccount
ofSDA
(C)20%kcalaresubtractedonaccountofSDA
(D)20%kcalaresubtractedonaccountofSDA
306.Therecommendedenergyintakeforan
adultsedentaryIndianmanis
(A)1,900kcal/day (B)2,400kcal/day
(C)2,700kcal/day (D)3,000kcal/day
307. Therecommendedenergyintakeforanadult
sedentaryIndianwomanis
(A) 1,900kcal/day (B)2,200kcal/day
(C)2,400kcal/day (D)2,700kcal/day
308. During pregnancy,the following shouldbe
addedtothecalculatedenergyrequirement:
(A) 300kcal/day (B)500kcal/day
(C)700kcal/day (D)900kcal/day
309. During firstsix months oflactation,the
following increment in energy intake is
recommended:
(A) 200kcal/day (B)300kcal/day
(C)550kcal/day (D)1,000kcal/day
310. Theproximateprinciplesofdietare
(A) Vitaminsandminerals
(B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydratesandfats
(D) Carbohydrates,fatsandproteins
2289
311. Thelimitingaminoacidinwheatis
(A) Leucine (B)Lysine
(C)Cysteine (D)Methionine
312. Thelimitingaminoacidinpulsesis
(A) Leucine (B)Lysine
(C)Tryptophan (D)Methionine
313. Maizeispoorin
(A) Lysine
(B) Methionine
(C) Tryptophan
(D) Lysineandtryptophan
314. Thepercentageofingestedprotein/nitrogen
absorbedintobloodstreamisknownas
(A) Netproteinutilisation
(B) Proteinefficiencyratio
(C) Digestibilitycoefficient
(D) Biologicalvalueofprotein
315. Biologicalvalueofaproteinis
(A) The percentage of ingested
protein/nitrogenabsorbedintocirculation
(B) The percentage of ingested
protein/nitrogeninthebody
(C) The percentage of ingested protein
utilisedforproteinsynthesisinthebody
(D) Thegaininbodyweight(gm)pergm
ofproteiningested
2290
316. Netproteinutilisationdependsupon
(A) Proteinefficiencyratio
(B) Digestibilitycoefficient
(C) Digestibility coefficient and protein
efficiencyratio
(D) Digestibility coefficient and biological
value
317. Thegaininbodyweight(gm)pergm of
proteiningestedisknownas
(A) Netproteinutilisation
(B) Proteinefficiencyratio
(C) Digestibilitycoefficient
(D) Biologicalvalueofprotein
318. The following is considered as reference
standardforcomparingthenutritionalquality
ofproteins:
(A) Milkproteins (B)Eggproteins
(C)Meatproteins (D)Fishproteins
319. Biologicalvalueofeggproteinsisabout
(A) 70%(B)80%
(C)86% (D)94%
320. The following has the highest protein2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
efficiencyratio:
(A) Milkproteins (B)Eggproteins
(C)Meatproteins (D)Fishproteins
2291
321. The following has the lowest protein
efficiencyratio:
(A) Maizeproteins (B)Wheatproteins
(C)Milkproteins (D)Riceproteins
322. Proteincontentofeggisabout
(A) 10% (B)13%
(C)16% (D)20%
323. Proteincontentofmeatisabout
(A) 10% (B)13%
(C)16% (D)20%
324. Proteincontentofriceisabout
(A) 7% (B)12%
(C)15% (D)20%
325. Thecalorificvalueofwheatisabout
(A) 2.5kcal/gm (B)3.5kcal/gm
(C)4.5kcal/gm (D)5.5kcal/gm
326. Forvegetarians,pulses are an important
sourceof
(A) Carbohydrates (B)Proteins
(C)Fat (D)Iron
327. The amino acids presentin pulses can
supplementthelimitingaminoacidsof
(A) Cereals (B)Milk
(C)Fish (D)Nutsandbeans
328. Milkisagoodsourceof
(A) Proteins,calciumandiron
2292
(B) Proteins,calciumandascorbicacid
(C) Proteins,lactoseandretinol
(D) Proteins,lactose and essentialfatty
acids
329. Milk is a good source of all of the
followingexcept
(A) Essentialaminoacids
(B) VitaminC
(C) Galactose
(D) Calciumandphosphorous
330. Milkispoorin
(A) Cholesterol (B)Retinol
(C)Calcium (D)Iron
331. Eggisrichinallofthefollowingexcept
(A) Cholesterol (B)Saturatedfattyacids
(C)Ascorbicacid (D)Calcium
332. Aphosphoproteinpresentineggis
(A) Casein (B)Albumin
(C)Ovoglobulin (D)Ovovitellin
333. Consumption of raw eggs can cause
deficiencyof
(A)Calcium (B)Lipoicacid
(C)Biotin (D)VitaminA
334. Eggispoorin
(B) Carbohydrates
2293
(C) Avidin
(D) Biotin
335. Cholesterolispresentinallthefollowing
except
(A) Milk(B)Fish
(C)Eggwhite (D)Eggyolk
336. Meatisrichinallofthefollowingexcept
(A) Iron (B)Fluorine
(C)Copper (D)Zinc
337. Kwashiorkoroccurswhenthedietisseverely
deficientin
(A) Iron (B)Calories
(C)Proteins (D)Essentialfattyacids
338. ClinicalfeaturesofKwashiorkorincludeallof
thefollowingexcept
(A) Mentalretardation(B)Musclewasting
(C)Oedema (D)Anaemia
339. Kwashiorkorusuallyoccursin
(A) Thepost-weaningperiod
(B) Pregnancy
(C) Lactation
(D) Oldage
340. Marasmusoccursfromdeficientintakeof
(B) Essentialfattyacids
(C) CaloriesPROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 45
2294
(D) Zinc
341. Marasmusdiffersfrom Kwashiorkorinthe
whichofthesefollowingrespect
(A) Mentalretardationoccursinkwashiorkor
butnotinmarasmus
(B) Growthisretardedinkwashiorkorbutnot
inmarasmus
(C) Musclewastingoccursinmarasmusbut
notkwashiorkor
(D) Subcutaneous fat disappears in
marasmusbutnotinkwashiorkor
342. Energyreservesofanaveragewell-fedadult
manareabout
(A) 50,000kcal (B)100,000kcal
(C)200,000kcal (D)300,000kcal
343. Duringstarvation,thefirstreservenutrientto
bedepletedis
(A) Glycogen(B)Proteins
(C)Triglycerides (D)Cholesterol
344. Synthesis of the following enzymes is
increasedduringstarvation.
(A) Digestiveenzymes
(B) Gluconeogenicenzymes
(C) Ureacycleenzymes
(D) Glucokinase
345. Inhypoparathyroidism
2295
(A) Plasma calcium and inorganic
phosphorousarelow
(B) Plasma calcium and inorganic
phosphorousarehigh
(C) Plasma calcium is low and
inorganicphosphoroushigh
(D) Plasma calcium is high and
inorganicphosphorouslow
346. The number of amino acid residues in
calcitoninin
(A) 9 (B)32
(C)51 (D)84
347. Calcitoninissynthesisedin
(A) Parathyroidglands
(B) Thyroidgland
(C) Parsintermediaofpituitary
(D) Adrenalcortex
348. Plasmacalciumisloweredby
(A) Parathormone(B)Calcitonin
(C)Aldosterone (D)Deoxycorticosterone
349. αCellsofIsletsofLangerhanssecrete
(A) Insulin (B)Glucagon
(C)Somatostatin (D)Cholecystokinin
350. A/Gratiois
(A) Strengthofproteins
(B) ratioofserumproteins
2296
(C) ratioofceruloplasmin
(D) Noneofthese
351. Insulinismadeupof
(A) A single polypeptide chain having 51
aminoacidresidues
(B) A single polypeptide chain having 84
aminoacidresidues
(C) A-chainhaving21andB-chainhaving30
aminoacidresidues
(D) A-chainhaving30andB-chainhaving21
aminoacidresidues
352. The number of amino acid residues in
preproinsulinis
(A) 51 (B)84
(C)109 (D)119
353. Pre-proinsulin contains a signalsequence
having
(A) 9aminoacidresidues
(B) 19aminoacidresidues(C)27aminoacid
residues
(D)33aminoacidresidues
354. Thenumberofintra-chaindisulphidebonds
inpro-insulin:
(A) One (B)Two
(C)Three (D)Four
355. Pentagastrinisa
2297
(A) Naturallyoccurringformofgastrin
(B) Inactivemetaboliteofgastrin
(C) Activemetaboliteofgastrin
(D) Syntheticformofgastrin
356. Secretionofgastrinisevokedby2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(A) Entryoffoodintostomach
(B) Vagalstimulation
(C) Loweraliphaticalcohols
(D) Allofthese
357. Gastrinstimulates
(A) Gastricmotility (B)Gastricsecretion
358. Secretinismadeupof
(A) 17aminoacids (B)27aminoacids
(C)37aminoacids (D)47aminoacids
359. Secretincausesallofthefollowingexcept
(A) Secretionofpancreaticjuice(B)Secretion
ofbile
(C) Inhibitionofgastricsecretion
(D) Stimulationofintestinalmotility
cholecystokinin pancreozymin are true
except
(A) It is secreted by mucosa of small
intestine
2298
(B) Itstimulatessecretionofpancreaticjuice
richinenzymes
(C) Itstimulatescontractionofgallbladder
(D) Itinhibitsgastricmotility
pancreaticsomatostainaretrueexcept
(A) Itis secreted byδ cells ofislets of
Langerhans
(B) Itstimulatesthesecretionofgastrin
(C) Itinhibitsthesecretionofsecretin
(D) It inhibits the secretion of
cholecystokininpancreozymin
362. Histidineisconvertedintohistamineby
(A) Carboxylation(B)Decarboxylation
(C)Methylation (D)Hydroxylation
363. Histamineissynthesisedin
(A) Brain(B)Mastcells
(C)Basophils (D)Allofthese
364. Histaminecausesallthefollowingexcept
(A) Stimulationofgastricsecretion
(B) Vasoconstriction
(C) Pruritus
(D) Increaseincapillarypermeability
365. H2-receptorsareblockedby
(A) Diphenhydramine(B)Mepayramine
(C)Pyrilamine (D)Cimetidine
2299
366. Serotoninissynthesisedfrom
(A) Serine (B)Phenylalanine
367. Allthefollowingstatementsaboutserotonin
aretrueexcept
(A) Itcausesvasolidatation
(B) Itcausesbronchoconstriction
(C) Itismetabolizedbymonoamineoxidase
(D) Itsmetaboliteis5-hydroxyindoleacetic
acid
angiotensinaretrueexcept
(A) Itsprecursorisanα2-globulin
(B) Itsactiveformisanoctapeptide
(C) Itisavasodilator
(D) Itincreasesthesecretionofaldosterone
369. Methyldopadecreasesbloodpressureby
(A) Inhibiting the synthesis of
catecholamines
(B) Antagonisingtheactionofaldosterone
(C) Stimulatingthereleaseofrenin
(D) Inhibitingthebreakdownofangiotensin
370. Bindingofgamma-aminobutyricacidtoits
receptorsinbrainincreasesthepermeability
ofcellmembraneto
(A) Cl
2300
–
(B)Na
(C)K
(D)Ca
++
371. Binding ofacetylcholine to its receptors
increasesthepermeabilityofcellmembrane
to
(A) Ca
++
(B)Na
(C)K
(D)Na
andK
372. Allofthefollowingareglycoproteinsexcept
(A) Collagen(B)Albumin
(C)Transferrin (D)IgM
373. SialicacidsarepresentinPROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 47
(A) Proteoglycans(B)Glycoproteins
374. Hyaluronidasehydrolyses
(A) Hyaluronicacid
2301
(C) Heparin
(D) Hyaluronicacidandchondroitinsulphate
375. Themostabundantproteininbonesis
(A) CollagentypeI
(B) CollagentypeII
(C) CollagentypeIII
(D) Non-collagenproteins
376. Themostabundantcollagenincartilagesis
(A) TypeI (B)TypeII
(C)TypeIII (D)TypeIV
377. Collagen and elastin have the following
similarity:
(A) Botharetriplehelices
(B) Bothhavehydroxyprolineresidues
(C) Bothhavehydrolysineresidues
(D) Bothareglycoproteins
378. Abnormalcollagenstructureisseeninallof
thefollowingexcept
(A) I-celldisease
(B) Osteogenesisimperfecta
(C) Menke’sdisease
(D) Ehlers-Danlossydrome
379. I-celldiseaseresultsfrom absenceofthe
followingfromlysosomalenzymes:
(A) Signalsequence
2302
(B) Mannose-6-phosphate
(C) Sialicacid
(D) Aserineresidue
380. InI-celldisease,lysosomalenzymes
(A) Arenotsynthesised
(B) Areinactive
(C) Lacksignalsequence
(D) Cannotreachlysosomes
381. Renalglycosuriaoccursdueto
(A) Increased filtration of glucose in
glomeruli
(B) Increased secretion of glucose by
renaltubularcells
(C) Decreased reabsorption ofglucose by
renaltubularcells
(D) Increased conversion ofglycogen into
glucoseintubularcells
382. Haematuriacanoccurin
(A) Haemolyticanaemia
(B) Mismatchedbloodtransfusion
(C) Yellowfever
(D) Stoneinurinarytract
383. Haematuria can occur in all of the
followingexcept
(B) Cancerofurinarytract
2303
(C) Stoneinurinarytract
(D) Mismatchedbloodtransfusion
384. Chyluriacanbedetectedbyadditionofthe
followingtotheurine:
(A) Sulphosalicylicacid(B)Nitricacid
(C)Aceticanhydride(D)Chloroform
385. Normalrangeofserumureais
(A) 0.6–1.5mg/dl(B)9–11mg/dl
(C)20–45mg/dl (D)60–100mg/dl
386. Normalrangeofserumcreatinineis
(A) 0.6–1.5mg/dl(B)9–11mg/dl
(C)20–45mg/dl (D)60–100mg/dl
387. Standardureaclearanceis
(A) 54ml/min (B)75ml/min
(C)110ml/min (D)130ml/min
388. Maximumureaclearanceis
389. Averagecreatinineclearanceinanadultman
isabout
390. Inulinclearanceinanaverageadultmanis
about
(C)110ml/min (D)130ml/min2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2304
4
Q391.Among the following,a testof tubular
functionis
(A) Creatinineclearance
(B) Inulinclearance
(C) PAHclearance
(D) PSPexcretiontest
392. Asimplewaytoassesstubularfunctionisto
withholdfoodandwaterfor12
hoursand,then,measure
(A) Serumurea
(B) Serumcreatinine
(C) Urineoutputinonehour
(D) Specificgravityofurine
393. Among the following,the mostsensitive
indicatorofglomerularfunctionis
(A) Serumurea
(B) Serumcreatinine
(C) Ureaclearance
(D) Creatinineclearance
394. Allthefollowingstatementsaboutinulinare
correctexcept
(A) Itiscompletelynon-toxic
(B) Itiscompletelyfilteredbyglomeruli(C)It
isnotreabsorbedbytubularcells
(D)Itissecretedbytubularcells
2305
395. Non-proteinnitrogenoussubstancesinblood
includeallofthefollowingexcept
(A) Urea(B)Uricacid
(C)Creatinine (D)Inositol
396. Non-proteinnitrogenoussubstancesinblood
areraisedin
(A) Starvation
(B) Liverdamage
(C) Renalfailure
(D) Allofthese
397. Creatinineclearanceisdeceasedin
(A) Acutetubularnecrosis
(B) Acuteglomerulonephritis
(C) Hypertension
(D) Myopathies
398. Serumamylaseisincreasedin
(A) Acuteparotitis (B)Acutepancreatitis
(C)Pancreaticcancer(D)Allofthese
399. Maximumriseinserumamylaseoccursin
(A) Acuteparotitis
(B) Acutepancreatitis
(C) Chronicpancreatitis
(D) Pancreaticcancer
400. Serumlipaseisincreasedin
(A) Acuteparotitis (B)Acutepancreatitis
(C)Infectivehepatitis(D)Biliaryobstruction
2306
401. Whichoneofthefollowingmetabolitesisnot
directly produced in the hexose
monophosphatepathway?
(A) Fructose-6-phosphate
(B) Dihydroxyacetonephosphate
(C) CO2
(D) Erythrose-4-phosphate
402. Which one of the following
statementsconcerning glucose-6-phosphate
dehydrogenasedeficiencyiscorrect?
(A) Young R.B.Cs, particularly
reticulocytes,containthehighestenzyme
activitycellsshowlessenzymeactivity
(B) Glucose-6-P Dehydroglucose
deficiencyleads to disfuction ofmany
tissues
(C) G-6-pDehydroglucosedeficiencyisdue
toasingledeletionofalargesequenceof
DNAintheG-6-PDgene
(D) G-6-PD deficiency is precipitated by
ingestionofdrugssuchasaspirin
403. Thephenomenonofinhibitionofglycolysis
byO2istermedas
(A) Reddrop(B)Pasteureffect
(C)Michaeliseffect (D)Fischer’seffect
404. Seratoninisderivedinthebodyfrom the
2307
followingaminoacid:
(A) Phenylalanine(B)Histidine
(C)Tryptophan (D)Serine
405. Whichaminoacidisalipotropicfactor?
(A) Lysine (B)Leucine
(C)Tryptophan (D)MethioninePROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 49
406. Whichamongthefollowingisanutritionally
essentialaminoacidforman?
(A) Alanine (B)Glycine
407. Theessentialaminoacids
(A) Mustbesuppliedinthedietbecause
theorganism has lostthe capacityto
aminatethecorrespondingketoacids
(B) Mustbesuppliedinthedietbecause
thehuman has an impaired ability to
synthesize the carbon chain of the
correspondingketoacids
(C) Areidenticalinallspeciesstudied
(D) Are defined as those amino acids
whichcannot be synthesized by the
organism atarateadequateto meet
metabolicrequirements
408. Which among the following is an
essentialaminoacid?
(A) Cysteine(B)Leucine
2308
(C)Tyrosine (D)Asparticacid
409. Whichamongthefollowingisabasicamino
acid?
(A) Aspargine (B)Arginine
(C)Proline (D)Alanine
410. Thisaminoacidcannothaveopticalisomers:
(A) Alanine (B)Histidine
(C)Threonine (D)Glycine
411. Theaminoacidwhichcontainsaguanidine
groupis
(A) Histidine(B)Arginine
(C)Citrulline (D)Ornithine
412. GABA(gamaaminobutyricacid)is
(A) Post-synapticexcitatorytransmitter
(B) Post-synapticinhibitortransmitter
(C) activatorofglia-cellfunction
(D) inhibitorofglia-cellfunction
413. Sulphur-containingaminoacidis
(A) Glutathione (B) Chondroitin sulphate
(C)Homocysteine(D)Tryptophan
414. Theusefulreagentfordetectionofamino
acidsis
(A) Molischreagent
(B) DichlorophenolIndophenol
(C) Ninhydrin
(D) Biuret
2309
415. The amino acid which containsan indole
groupis
(C)Glycine (D)Tryptophan
416. Sakaguchireactionisansweredby
(A) Lysine
(B) Ornithine
(C) Arginine
(D) Argininosuccinicacid
417. ThepHofanaminoaciddepends
(A) Opticalrotation (B) Dissociation
constant
(C)Diffusioncoefficient(D)Chainlength
418. When amino acids are treated with
neutralformaldehyde,thepHofthemixture
(A) Isnotaltered
(B) Increases
(C) Decreases
(D) Firstincreasesthendecreases
419. Whichamongthefollowinghasanimidazole
group?
(A) Histidine(B)Tryptophan
(C)Proline (D)Hydroxyproline
420. The amino acid exist as Zwitter ions
whentheyarein
(A) solidstate (B)acidicsolution
2310
(C)alkalinesolution (D)neutralsolution
421. Plasmaproteinsareisolatedby
(A) Saltingout (B)Electrophoresis
(C)Flourimetry (D)Both(A)and(B)
422. Afterdigestionaminoacids
(A) Areabsorbedintoportalcirculation
(B) Areabsorbedintolymph
(C) Areexcreted to theextentof50%(D)
Convertedintoglucoseintheintestine
423. Cysteinehastheformula:
(A) CH3SH2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(B) H2N—CH2—COOH
(C) HS—CH2—CH(NH2)—COOH
(D) S—CH2—CH(NH2)—COOH|
S—CH2—CH(NH2)—COOH
424. Thecompoundhavingtheformula
H2N—CO—NH—CH2—CH2—CH2—CH—COOHis
NH2
(A)Lysine (B)Glutamine
(C)Serine (D)Citrulline
425. An amino acid which contains a
disulphidebondis
(A) Lysine (B)Methionine
(C)Homocysteine (D)Cystine
2311
426. Oneofthefollowinghasaphenolicgroup:
(A) Histidine(B)Hydroxylysine
(C)Seratonine (D)Hydroxyproline
427. An amino acid not containing the
usual—COOHgroupis
(A) Alanine (B)Tryptophan
(C)Methionine (D)Taurine
428. Branchedchainaminoacidsare
(A) Cysteineandcystine
(B) TyrosineandTryptophan
(C) GlycineandSerine
(D) Valine,LeucineandIsoleucine
429. A Zwitter ion is one which has in
aqueoussolution:
(A) Onepositivechargeandonenegative
charge
(B) Twopositivechargesandonenegative
charge
(C) Two negative charges and one
positivecharge
(D) Noelectricalchargesatall
430. Theaminoacidwhichgivesyellow colour
withNinhydrininpaperchromatographyis
(A) Tyrosine(B)Proline
(C)Tryptophan (D)Alanine
431. Hydroxylation ofProline and Lysine in a
2312
proteiniseffectedby
(C)VitaminB6 (D)VitaminC
432. Millon’stestisforidentificationof
(A) Tyrosine(B)Tryptophan
(C)Proline (D)Arginine
433. Hopkins-Coletestisforidentificationof
434. Collagenisveryrichin
(C)Asparticacid (D)Glutamicacid
435. Allaminoacidsareopticallyactiveexcept
(C)Threonine (D)Tryptophan
436. Outof200 differentamino acidsform in
naturethenumberofaminoacidspresentin
protein:
(A) 20 (B)25
(C)40 (D)35
437. Enzyme catalyzed hydrolysis of proteins
producesaminoacidsoftheform:
(A) D (B)L
(C)DL (D)Allofthese
438. Theionizablegroupsofaminoacidsareat
least.
2313
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
439. Theneutralaminoacidis
(A) Lysine (B)Proline
(C)Leucine (D)Histidine
440. Theaminoacidcontaininghydroxylgroup:
(A) Alanine (B)Isoleucine
(C)Arginine (D)Threonine
441. Thesulphurcontainingaminoacid:
(A) Homoserine (B)Serine
(C)Methionine (D)Valine
442. Thebasicaminoacid:
(A) Glycine (B)Leucine
(C)Histidine (D)ProlinePROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 51
443. The amino acid which synthesizes many
hormones:
(A) Valine (B)Phenylalanine
(C)Alanine (D)Histidine
444. Aminoacidsareinsolublein
(A) Aceticacid (B)Chloroform
(C)Ethanol (D)Benzene
445. Themajorendproductofproteinnitrogen
metabolisminmanis
(A) Glycine (B)Uricacid
(C)Urea (D)NH3
446. Anaminoacidnotinvolvedinureacycleis
2314
(A) Arginine (B)Histidine
(C)Ornithine (D)Citrulline
447. NH3isdetoxifiedinbrainchieflyas
(A) Urea(B)Uricacid
(C)Creatinine (D)Glutamine
448. Inhumans,NH3isdetoxifiedinliveras
(A) Creatinine (B)Uricacid
(C)Urea (D)Uronicacid
449. Thebodyproteinaftereighteenyears
(A) Remainsunchanged
(B) Isdecomposedonlyslightlyatintervals
ofonemonth
(C) Isinaconstantstateofflux
(D) Isusedonlyforenergyrequirement
450. The only known physiological
methylatingagents in the animalorganism
are
(A) Cholineandbetaine
(B) Cholineandδ-adenosylmethionine
(C) Betaineandδ-adenyosylmethionine
(D) Dimehtylglycineandbetaine
451. Inthesynthesisof1moleculeofureainthe
Kreb’sHanseleitcycle,thenumberofATPs
requiredis
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
2315
452. Forbiosynthesisofproteins
(A) Aminoacidsonlyarerequired
(B) Amino acids and nucleic acids only
arerequired
(C) Aminoacid,nucleicacidsandATPonly
arerequired
(D) Amino acids, nucleic acids, ATP,
GTP,enzymesandactivatorsarerequired
453. Transmethylationofguanidoaceticacidgives
(A) Creatinephosphate
(B) Creatinine
(C) Choline
(D) n-methylnicotinamide
454. The2 energyrich compoundsneeded for
proteinbiosynthesisare
(A) ATPandGTP(B)ATPandUTP
(C)ATPandCTP (D)ATPandTTP
455. Thefollowingketoacidisinvolvedinfixing
dietaryNH3intoaminoacid:
(A) Pyruvate(B)Oxaloacetate
(C)Oxalosuccinate (D)α-ketoglutarate
456. Themetabolitewhichsustainsureacycleis
(A) Ornithine
(B) Citrulline
(C) Carbamoylphosphate
(D) n-acetylglutamate
2316
457. Tetra hydroglolate can be freed from N
methyltetrahydrofolateonlyby
(A) Norepinephrine (B)Ethanolamine
(C)Nicotinamide (D)VitaminB12
458. Neogenesisofmethylgroupis
(A) Theavailabilityofmethylgroupform δ
adenosylmethionine
(B) The availabilityofmethylgroup from
betaine
(C) Interaction between N
10
methylene
tetrahydrofolatewithaNAD
dependent
reductase
(D) Availabilityofmethylgroupfrom methyl
B12
459. Morecreatinineisexcretedby
(A) Adultmales (B)Adultfemales
(C)Children (D)Pregnantwomen
460. Agrowingpeptideinaribosomecannotbe2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
shiftedtotheadjacentribosomebecause
2317
(A) Itisfirmlyattached
(B) Itwillgettheaminoacidcleaved
(C) Thegapbetweentheribosomesistoo
bigforashift
(D) The adjacent ribosomes have
differentcomposition
461. The first amino acid incorporated in a
polypeptideinaribosomeofahumanis
(A) Nformylmethionine (B)Methionine
(C)Phenylalanine (D) Hydroxylysine
462. The first amino acid incorporated in a
polypeptideinaribosomeofabacterium
is
(A) Nformylmethionine (B)Methionine
(C)Alamine (D) Glycine
463. The integrator between the TCA cycle
andureacycleis
(A) Fumarate(B)Malate
(C)Pyruvate (D) Citrate
464. Bencejonesproteinurialcharacterizedby
(A) Non-heatcoagulability
(B) Heatcoagulabilityat100°C
(C) Heatcoagulabilityat45to60°C
(D) Precipitationat25°C
465. BenceJonesproteinsmaybeexcreted in
urineofpatientssufferingfrom
2318
(A) Tuberculosis(B)Diabetesmellitus
(C)Multiplemyeloma(D)Hyperthyroidism
466. Xanthuricacidisanabnormalmetaboliteof
(A) Xanthine(B)Uricacid
467. TwonitrogenatomsofUreaintheureacycle
comefrom
(A) NH3
(B) OnefromNH3andonefromaspartate
(C) OnefromNH3andonefromglutamate
(D) OnefromNH3andonefromalanine
468. Pyruvic acid can be obtained by
transaminationofalaninewith
(A) α-ketoglutaricacid
(B) Acetoaceticacid
(C) β−OHbutyricacid
(D) PhosphoenolPyruvicacid
469. Inthesynthesisof1moleculeofureainthe
Kreb’sHenseleitcyclethenumberofAMPs
formedis
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
470. Formationofmelaninfrom tyrosinerequires
theactionof
(A) Dopadecarboxylation
(B) Diamineoxidase
2319
(C) Peroxidase
(D) Tyrosinase
471. In one of the following the quality of
theproteinsynthesizedisaffected:
(A) Diabetesmellitus(B)Gont
(C) Multiple myeloma (D) Primaquine
sensitivity
472. Citrullineisanintermediateof
(A) TCAcycle (B)Ureacycle
(C)Pentosecycle (D)Calvincycle
473. The semialdehydes are formed under
theactionofenzymescharacterisedas
(A) Aldolases
(B) Peptidyllysyloxidases
(C) Collagenases
(D) Elastases
474. Whichofthefollowingstatementaboutthe
peptidebondistrue?
(A) Itisacarbon-carbonbond
(B) Ithascishydrogenandoxygengroups
(C) Itisplanar
(D) Ithasrotationalfreedom
475. Isoenzymesforagivenreaction
(A) Havedifferentspedificities
(B) Have identicalaffinitiesforthe same
substrate(C) Exhibit different
2320
electrophoreticmotilities
(D) Contain similar ratios of different
polypeptidechains
476.
ThehighestconcentrationofcystinecanbePROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 53
foundin
(A) Melanin (B)Chondroitin sulphate (C)
Myosin (D)Keratin
477. One round ofEdman degradation ofthe
peptide:H2N—Gly—Arg—Lys—Phe—
Asp— COOH wouldresultinwhichofthe
following structures or their phenyl
isothiocyanatederivatives?
(A) H2N—Gly—Arg—COOH + H2N—Lys—
Phe—Asp—COOH
(B) H2N—Gly—Arg—Lys—Phe—COOH + Asp
(C)H2N—Arg—Lys—Phe—Asp—COOH +
Gly
(D)H2N—Gly—Arg—Lys—COOH + H2N—Phe
—Asp—COOH
478. Whichofthefollowingtechniquesisusedto
separateproteinsbasedupondifferencesin
theirmass?
(A) Isoelectricfocusing
(B) Dialysis
(C) SDS-gelElectrophoresis
2321
(D) Westernblotting
479. The greatest buffering capacity at
physiologic pH would be provided by a
proteinrichinwhichofthefollowingamino
acids?
(A) Lysine (B)Histidine(C)Asparticacid
(D)Valine
480. Whichoneoftheaminoacidscouldserveas
thebestbufferatpH7?
(A) Glutamicacid(B)Arginine
(C)Valine (D)Histidine
concerningglutamineiscorrect?
(A) Containsthreetetratablegroups
(B) Isclassifiedasanacidicaminoacid
(C) Containsanamidegroup
(D) Migrates to the cathode during
electrophoresisatpH7.0
482. Oneofthegivenexampleisanaminoacid:
(A) Oh-Lysine (B)Protein
(C)Leucine (D)Serine
483. Thelonepairofelectronsatoneofthering
nitrogensinthegivenaminoacidmakesa
potentialligand,whichisimportantinbinding
theironatomsinhemoglobin:
(A) Tryptophan (B)Threonine
2322
(C)Histidine (D)Serine
484. Theaminoacidwhichisnotopticallyactiveis
(C)Glutamine (D)Lysine
485. Opticallyactivecompoundsarecapableof
(A) Differentreactions
(B) Rotatingplaneofpolarizedlight
(C) Showingsamechemicalproperties
(D) Noneofthese
486. The reference compound for absolute
configurationofopticallyactivecompoundis
(A) Alanine (B)Lacticacid
(C)Glyceraldehyde (D)Dihydroxyacetone
487. Allthe standard amino acids exceptthe
followinghaveonechiral‘c’atom:
(A) Threonine,Isoleucine
(B) Isoleucine,Alanine(C)Threonine,Alanine
(D)Alanine,Glutamine
488. Theroleofcomplementproteins:
(A) Defense
(B) Helpsimmunityofthebody
(C) Notpredicatable
(D) Noneofthese
489. Opticalisomersthataremirrorimagesand
nonsuperimposablearecalled
(A) Diastereomers (B)Euantiomers
2323
(C)dlisomers (D)Stereomers
490. Living cells have the unique ability to
synthesizeonly_________theform ofoptical
isomerdueto_________.
(A) ‘d’form,stereospecificenzymes
(B) ‘l’formstereospecificenzymes
(C) ‘d’form,DNA
(D) ‘L’form,DNA
491. IsoelectricpHofanaminoacidisthatpHat
whichithasa
(A) Positivecharge (B)Negativecharge
(C)Nonetcharge (D)Allofthese2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
492. Albuminoidsaresimilarto
(A) Albumin(B)Globulin(C)BothAandB(D)
Noneofthese
493. Abnormalchainofaminoacidsinsicklecells
anaemiais
(A) Alphachain (B)Betachain
(C)Gamachain (D)Deltachain
494. In prehepaticjaundice,protein flocculation
testis
(A) Normal/weeklypositive
(B) Usuallypositive
(C) Negative
(D) Noneofthese
2324
495. Side chains of allamino acids contain
aromaticringsexcept
(A) Pheynlalanine (B)Alanine
496. In Nitroprusside test, amino acid
cysteinproduces
(A) Bluecolourcomplex
(B) Redcolour
(C) Yellowcolour
(D) Purplecolour
497. Bondsthatareformedbetweentwocysteine
residuesis
(A) Disulphide (B)Peptide
(C)Electrostatic (D)Hydrophobic
498. TheacidamideofAsparticacidis
(A) Glutamine (B)Arginine
(C)Aspargine (D)Ornithine
499. Itistheonlyaminoacidhavinganionizing‘R’
groupwithapK’near7andisimportantin
theactivesiteofsomeenzymes:
(A) Arginine (B)Cystein
(C)Cystine (D)Histidine
500. Hemoglobinhasahighcontentofthisamino
acid:
(A) Proline (B)Leucine
(C)Arginine (D)Histicline
2325
501. A hexa peptide with 5 aspartic acid
wouldhaveanetchargeatpH7:
(A) Neutral (B)Positive
(C)Negative (D)Notpredictable
502. In the genetic disorder of cystinuria,
thepatientexcreteslargequantitiesofcystine
intheirurineanditslow solubilitycauses
crystallinecystinetoprecipitateasstonesin
kidneys.TheremedyinvolvesingestingNa
HCO3.Reactionofthistreatmentis
(A) NaHCO2combineswithcystine
(B) NaHCO3 raises the pH above the
isoelectricpointofcystine
(C) NaHCO3 prevents stone formation by
hydrolysisofcystinetocysteine
(D) Noneofthese
503. Inthefollowingreaction,Alanineactsasa
+ HN
–3
H H
| |
C –COO——
→H3
N–C–COOH
| |
2326
CH3 CH3
(A) Acid(B)Base
(C)Zwitterion (D)Noneofthese
504. Aminoacidsexceptinghistidinearenotgood
bufferingagentsincellbecause
(A) Theyexistaszwitterions
(B) TheirpkandnotinthephysiologicalpH
ofacell
(C) OnlyHistidinehaspkofitsRgroupat6.0
unlike the others which have at a
differentpH(D)Noneofthese
505. At neutral pH Alanine has the
followingstructure:
H H
(A) HNCCOOH2− − (B)HNCCOO3
CH3 CH3
H +H
(C)HNCCOO2 − − (D)
HNCCOO2 − −
CH3 CH3
506. TheaminoacidsinwhichtheRgroupshavea
netpositivechargeatpH7.0arePROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 55
(A) Lysine,Arginine,Histidine
2327
(B) Lysine,Aspargine
(C) Histidine,Aspargine
(D) Glutamine,Arginine
507. Apolipoproteinsare
(A) AI (B)AI1
(C)C1 (D)Allofthese
508. The amino acid which has a pK near4
andthusisnegativelychargedatpH7is
(A) Alanine (B)Glutamicacid
(C)Glutamine (D)Aspargine
509. The side chain ofwhich ofthe following
aminoacidcontainsulphuratom?
(A) Methionine (B)Threonine
(C)Leucine (D)Tryptophan
510. Whichofthefollowingsgivesapositivetest
forNinhydrin?
(A) Reducingsugars (B)Triglycerides
(C)Alphaaminoacids(D)EsterifiedFats
511. Inglutathione(atripeptide)ispresentapart
fromGlutamicacidandcysteine:
(A) Serine (B)Glycine
(C)Leucine (D)Phenylalanine
512. 2-Amino3-OHpropanoicacidis
(A) Glycine (B)Alanine
(C)Valine (D)Serine
513. Allaminoacidshaveoneasymmetriccarbon
2328
atom,except
(A) Arginine (B)Aspargine
(C)Histidine (D)Glycine
514. Numberofaminoacidspresentintheplant,
animalandmicrobialproteins:
(A) 20 (B)80
(C)150 (D)200
515. Immunoglobulinsarecharacterizedbytheir
(A) Heavychains
(B) Molecularweight
(C) Lightchains
(D) Electrophoreticbehaviour
516. Thebondinproteinsthatisnothydrolysed
underusualconditionsofdenaturation:
(A) Hydrophobicbond(B)Hydrogenbond
(C)Disulphidebond(D)Peptidebonds
517. Iftheaminogroupandacarboxylicgroupof
theaminoacidareattachedtosamecarbon
atom,theaminoacidiscalled
(A) Alpha (B)Beta
(C)Gamma (D)Delta
518. Zymogenis
(A) Anintracellularenzyme
(B) Serumenzyme
(C) Acompleteextracellularenzyme
(D) Aninactivatedenzyme
2329
519. SGOTlevelinaadultis
(A) 5–40units/dl(B)1–4units/dl
(C)5–15units/dl (D)50–100units/dl
520. Activityofceruloplasminshowninvitro:
(A) Reductase (B)Hydrolase
(C)Ligase (D)Oxidase
521. Increasedserumalanineduringfastingisdue
to
(A) Breakdownofmuscleproteins
(B) Decreased utilization ofnon essential
aminoacids
(C) Leakageofaminoacidstoplasma
(D) Impairedrenalfunction
522. Thefollowing4aminoacidsarerequiredfor
completionofureacycleexcept
(A) Asparticacid(B)Arginine
(C)Ornithine (D)Glycine
523. Numberofaminoacidspresentinthedietary
proteins:
(A) 22 (B)23
(C)20 (D)19
524. Ureasynthesistakesplacein
(A) Blood (B)Liver
(C)Kidney (D)Heart
525. All followings are ketogenic aminoacids
except
2330
(A) Leucine (B)Isoleucine
(C)Phenylalanine (D)Glycine
526. Theaminoacidcontaininganindolering:2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(A) Tryptophan (B)Arginine
(C)Threonine (D)Phenylalanine
527. Histidineisconvertedtohistaminethrough
theprocessof
(A) Transamination
(B) Decarboxylation
(C) Oxidativedeamination
(D) Ureacycle
528. Physiologicallyactiveconfigurationofamino
acids:
(A) L
(B) D
(C) Forsomeaminoacidsitiseitheroftwo
(D) NeitherLnorD
529. Cystineissynthesizedfrom
(A) Cysteine(B)Methionine
(C)Arginine (D)Leucine
530. Themajorconstituentoftheproteinsofhair
andkeratinofskin:
(A) Arginine (B)Cysteine
(C)Glycine (D)Arginine
531. NH3isremovedfrombrainmainlyby
2331
(A) Creatinineformation
(B) Uricacidproduction
(C) Ureaformation
(D) Glutamineformation
532. Mechanism bywhichNH3 isremovedfrom
thekidneysis
(A) Ureaformation
(B) Uricacidformation
(C) Creatinineformation
(D) Noneofthese
533. Lowdensityplasmaproteinsarerichin
(A) Chylomicrons(B)Cholesterol
(C)Triglycerides (D)Phospholipids
534. Transcortinsare
(A) Mucoproteins(B)Glycoproteins
(C)Metalloproteins (D)Lipoproteins
535. Proteins that carries Iron into different
tissuesis
(A) Ceruloplasmin (B)Transcortin
(C)Mucoproteins (D)Glycoproteins
536. Naturallyoccurringaminoacidshave
(A) L-Configuration (B)D-Configuration
(C)DL-Configuration(D)Noneofthese
537. Abnormalchainofaminoacidsinsicklecell
anemiais
(A) β-chain (B)β-chain
2332
(C)γ-chain (D)r-chain
538. A dietary deficiency of tryptophan
andnicotinateleadsto
(A) BeriBeri(B)Xerophthalmia
(C)Anemia (D)Pellegra
539. Whichoneofthefollowingisanessential
aminoacid?
(A) Arginine (B)Tyrosine
(C)Phenylalanine (D)Proline
540. Oneofthefollowingamino acid issolely
ketogenic:
(A) Lysine (B)Alanine
(C)Valine (D)Glutamate
541. AlongwithCO2,NH3andATP,theaminoacid
thatisneededinureacycleis
(A) Alanine (B)Isoleucine
(C)Aspartate (D)Glycine
whichithasa
(C)Nocharge (D)Noneofthese
543. Whichofthefollowingcontributesnitrogen
atomstobothpurineandpyrimidinerings?
(A) Aspartate
(B) Carbamoylphosphate
(C) CO2
2333
(D) Glutamine
(A) Lysine (B)Lecuine
545. Which ofthe following protein is rich in
cysteine?
(A) Elastine (B)CollagenPROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 57
(C)Fibrin (D)Keratin
546. Whichaminoacidispresentat6
th
positionof
β-chainofHbsinsteadofglutamatein
HbA?
(A) Cysteine(B)Valine
(C)Aspartate (D)Glutamate
547. The amino acid which containsan indole
groupis
(C)Cystine (D)Tryptophan
548. From two amino acids peptide bond
formationinvolvesremovalofonemolecule
of
(A) Water (B)Ammonia
(C)Carbondioxide (D)Carboxylicacid
549. Polymersofmorethan100aminoacidsare
termed
2334
(A) Proteins(B)Polypeptides
550. Theexampleofglobulins:
(A) Leucosin(B)Tuberin(C)Oryzenin (D)
Legunelin
551. Theexampleofscleroproteins:
(A) Glutamin(B)Giladin
(C)Salmine (D)Elastin
552. Theexampleofphosphoprotein:
(A) Mucin (B)Ovovitellin(C)Ovomucoid
(D)Tendomucoid
553. Theexampleofmetalloproteins:
(A) Siderophilin (B)OREESmucoid
(C)Elastin (D)Allofthese
554. Theexampleofchromoprotein:
(A) Salmine (B)Catalase
(C)Zein (D)Gliadin
555. Deaminationis______ofaminogroup.
(A) Removal(B)Addition
(C)Supplementation(D)Noneofthese
556. Proteinsproducepolypeptidesfrom proteins
by
(A) Oxidizing(B)Reducing
(C)Hydrolyzing (D)Noneofthese
557. Proteinsreactwithbiuretreagentwhichis
suggestiveof2ormore
2335
(C)Disulphidebonds(D)Hydrophobicbonds
558. Thedisulphidebondisnotbrokenunderthe
usualconditionsof
(A) Filtration(B)Reduction
(C)Oxidation (D)Denaturation
559. Insulinisoxidized to separatetheprotein
molecule into its constituentpolypeptide
chainswithoutaffectingtheotherpartofthe
moleculebytheuseof
(A) Performicacid (B)Oxalicacid
(C)Citricacid (D)Malicacid
560. Eachhydrogenbondisquite
(A) Weak (B)Strong
561. Acoiledstructureinwhichpeptidebondsare
foldedinregularmannerby
(A) Globularproteins(B)Fibrousproteins
562. In many proteins the hydrogen
bondingproduces a regular coiled
arrangementcalled
(A) α-helix (B)β-helix
563. Manyglobularproteinsarestableinsolution
althoughtheylackin
2336
(A) Hydrogenbonds (B)Saltbonds
(C)Non-polarbonds(D)Disulphidebonds
564. Eachturnofα-helixcontainsthenumberof
aminoacids
(A) 2.8 (B)3.2
(C)3.4 (D)3.6
565. Thedistancetravelledperturnofα-helixin
nmis
(A) 0.34(B)0.44
(C)0.54 (D)0.64
566. α-helixisdisruptedbycertainaminoacids
like2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(A) Proline (B)Arginine
(C)Histidine (D)Lysine
567. α-helixisstabilizedby
(A) Hydrogenbonds (B)Disulphidebonds
(C)Saltbonds (D)Non-polarbonds
568. Foetalhaemoglobincontains
(A) Twoαandtwoγchains
(B) Twoβandtwoγchains
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
569. Whenhaemoglobintakesupoxygenthereis
achangeinthestructureduetothemoving
closertogetherof
2337
(A) β-chains(B)β-chains
(C)γ-chains (D)αandγchains
570. The hydrogen bonds in the secondary
andtertiarystructureofproteinsaredirectly
attackedby
(A) Salts(B)Alkalies
(C)Detergents (D)Allofthese
571. The hydrogen bonds between peptide
linkagesareinterferedby
(A) Guanidine (B)Uricacid
(C)Salicylicacid (D)Oxalicacid
572. The digestability of certain denatured
proteinsbyproteolyticenzymes
(A) Decreases (B)Increases
(C)Normal (D)Noneofthese
573. Theantigenicantibodyfunctionsofproteins
bydenaturationarefrequently
(A) Notchanged (B)Changed
574. In case of severe denaturation of
protein,thereis
(A) Reversibledenaturation
(B) Moderatereversibledenaturation
(C) Irreversibledenaturation
(D) Noneofthese
575. When egg albumin is heated till it
2338
iscoagulated,the secondary and tertiary
structuresoftheproteinsarecompletelylost
resultinginamixtureofrandomlyarranged
(A) Dipeptidechains(B)Tripeptidechains
(C)Polypeptidechains(D)Allofthese
576. In glycoproteins the carbohydrate is in
theform ofdisaccharideunits,thenumberof
unitsare
(A) 50–100 (B)200–300
(C)400–500 (D)600–700
577. Themilkproteininthestomachoftheinfants
isdigestedby
(A) Pepsin (B)Trypsin(C)Chymotrypsin
(D)Rennin
578. Achyliagastricaissaidtobewhenabsence
of
(A) Pepsinonly (B)BothpepsinandHCl
(C)HClonly (D)Allofthese
579. ThepHofgastricjuicebecomelowin
(A) Hemolyticanemia(B)Perniciousanemia
580. Insmallintestinetrypsinhydrolyzespeptide
linkagescontaining
(A) Arginine (B)Histidine
(C)Serine (D)Aspartate
581. Chymotrypsin in the small intestine
2339
hydrolyzespeptidelinkagescontaining
(A) Alanine (B)Pheynlalanine
(C)Valine (D)Methionine
582. CarboxypeptidaseBinthesmallintestine
hydrolyzespeptidescontaining
(A) Leucine (B)Isoleucine
583. Thetransportofaminoacidsregulatedby
activeprocessesofdifferentnumbers:
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
584. The third active process foramino acids
transportinvolves
(A) Acidicaminoacids(B)Basicaminoacids
(C) Neutralaminoacids
(D) Sulphurcontainingaminoacids
585.
TheneutralaminoacidsforabsorptionneedPROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 59
(A)TPP (B)B6–PO4
(C)NAD
(D)NADP
586. If one amino acid is fed excess,the
absorptionofanotheris
(A) Slightlyaccelerated
(B) Moderatelyaccelerated
2340
(C) Highlyaccelerated
(D) Retarded
587. Undernormalconditions,foodproteinsare
generallyreadilydigesteduptothepresent
(A) 67to73 (B)74to81
(C)82to89 (D)90to97
588. Byoverheatingthenutritionalvalueofcereal
proteinsis
(A) Increased (B)Decreased
(C)Unchanged (D)Noneofthese
589. Morethanhalfoftheproteinoftheliverand
intestinalmucosa are broken down and
resynthesisedin
(A) 10days (B)12days
(C)15days (D)18days
590. Thehalf-lifeofantibodyproteinisabout
(A) 4weeks (B)3weeks
(C)2weeks (D)1week
591. Proteinanabolismisstimulatedby
(A) ACTH (B)Testosterone
(C)Glucagon (D)Epinephrine
592. Themetabolism ofproteinisintegratedwith
thatofcarbohydrateandfatthrough
(A) Oxaloacetate(B)Citrate
(C)Isocitrate (D)Malate
593. The building up and breaking down of
2341
protoplasm are concerned with the
metabolismof
(A) Carbohydrate(B)Lipid
(C)Protein (D)Minerals
594. Theaminoacidsabstractedfromtheliverare
notutilizedforrepairorspecialsynthesisbut
arebrokendownto
(A) Ketoacids (B)Sulphurdioxide
(C)Water (D)Ammonia
595. Theunwantedaminoacidsabstractedfrom
thetissuesareeitherusedupbythetissueor
intheliverconvertedinto
(A) Ammonia(B)Urea
(C)Ammoniumsalts (D)Uricacid
596. Amino acids provide the nitrogen forthe
synthesisof
(A) Thebasesofthephospholipids
(B) Uricacid
(C) Glycolipids
(D) Chondroitinsulphates
597. Themetabolism ofallproteinsingestedover
and above the essentialrequirements is
called
(A) Exogenousmetabolism
(B) Endogenousmetabolism
(C) Both(A)and(B)
2342
(D) Noneofthese
598. Sulphur containing amino acids after
catabolism producesasubstancewhichis
excreted:
(A) SO2 (B)HNO3
(C)H2SO4 (D)H3PO4
599. Etherealsulphate is synthesized from the
_________aminoacid.
(A) Neutral (B)Acidic
(C)Basic (D)Sulphurcontaining
600. The amino acids required for
creatineformation:
(A) Glycine (B)Arginine
(C)Methionine (D)Allofthese
601. Inhumanandotherureotelicorganisms,the
end product of amino acid nitrogen
metabolism:
(A) Bileacids(B)Ketonebodies
(C)Urea (D)Bariumsulphate
602. The end productofamino acid nitrogen
metabolisminuricotelicorganisms
(reptilesandbirds)is
(A) Bilirubin (B)Urea
(C)Uricacid (D)Biliverdin
603. The transaminase activity needs the2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2343
coenzyme:
(A) ATP(B)B6–PO4
(C)FAD
(D)NAD
604. Transaminationisa
(A) Irreversible process(B) Reversible
process
605. Most amino acids are substrates for
transaminationexcept
(A) Alanine (B)Threonine
(C)Serine (D)Valine
606Oxidativeconversionofmanyaminoacidsto
their corresponding -ketoacids occurs in
mammalian:
(A)Liverandkidney (B)Adiposetissue
(C)Pancreas (D)Intestine
607. The α-ketoacid is decarboxylated byH2O2
formingacarboxylicacidwithonecarbon
atomlessintheabsenceoftheenzyme:
(A) Catalase(B)Decarboxylase
(C)Deaminase (D)Phosphatase
608. The activity ofmammalian L-amino acid
oxidase,anFMN–flavoprotein,isquite
2344
(A) Slow (B)Rapid
609. From dietaryproteinaswellasfrom theurea
present in fluids secreted into the
gastrointestinal tract intestinal bacteria
produce
(A) Carbondioxide
(B) Ammonia
(C) Ammoniumsulphate
(D) Creatine
610. The symptom of ammonia intoxication
includes
(A) Blurringofvision(B)Constipation
(C)Mentalconfusion(D)Diarrhoea
611. Ammoniaintoxicationsymptomsoccurwhen
brainammonialevelsare
(A) Slightly diminished (B) Highly
diminished
(C)Increased (D)Allofthese
612. Ammonia production by the kidney is
depressedin
(A) Acidosis(B)Alkalosis(C)Both(A)and
(B)(D)Noneofthese
613. Ammonia is excreted as ammonium
saltsduring metabolic acidosis but the
majorityisexcretedas
2345
(A) Phosphates (B)Creatine
(C)Uricacid (D)Urea
614. Synthesisofglutamineisaccompaniedby
thehydrolysisof
(A) ATP(B)ADP(C)TPP (D) Creatin
phosphate
615. Inbrain,themajormetabolism forremovalof
ammoniaistheformationof
(A) Glutamate (B)Aspartate
(C)Asparagine (D)Glutamine
616. Carbamoylphosphatesynthetasestructureis
markedbychangeinthepresenceof
(A) N-Acetylglutamate
(B) N-AcetylAspartate
(C) Neuraminicacid
(D) Oxalate
617. ThebiosynthesisofUreaoccursmainlyinthe
Liver:
(A) Cytosol
(B) Microsomes
(C) Nucleus
(D) Mitochondria
618. One mol.ofUrea is synthesized atthe
expenseofthe_______mols.ofATP.
(A) 2 (B)3
(C)4 (D)5
2346
619. Ureabiosynthesisoccursmainlyintheliver
involvingthenumberofaminoacids:
(A) 3 (B)4
(C)5 (D)6
620. ThenormaldailyoutputofUreathroughurine
ingrams:
(A)10to20 (B)15to25
(C)20to30 (D)25to35PROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 61
621. Insevereacidosis,theoutputofureais
(A) Decreased (B)Slightlyincreased
(C)Highlyincreased(D)Moderatelyincreased
622. Uremiaoccursin
(A) Cirrhosisoftheliver(B)Nephritis
(C)Diabetesmellitus(D)Coronarythrombosis
623. Clinicalsymptominureacycledisorderis
(A) Mentalretardation (B)Drowsiness(C)
Diarrhoea(D)Oedema
624. Thesparingactionofmethionineis
(A) Tyrosine(B)Cystine
(C)Arginine (D)Tryptophan
625. NH
4 aminatesglutamatetoform glutamine
requiringATPand
(A) K
2347
(B)Na
(C)Ca
++
(D)Mg
++
626. Glutathioneisa
(A) Dipeptide (B)Tripeptide
(C)Polypeptide (D)Noneofthese
627. Allfollowingareconjugatedproteinsexcept
(A) Nucleoproteins (B)Proteoses
(C)Metalloproteins (D)Flavoproteins
628. Allα-amino acids have one asymmetric
carbonatomexcept
(A) Arginine(B)Glycine(C)Asparticacid
(D)Histidine
629. Numberofamino acidspresentinplants,
animalsandmicrobialproteins:
(A) 20 (B)80
(C)150 (D)200
630. Hydrateddensityof(HD)lipoproteinsis
(A) 0.94gm/ml
(B) 0.94-1.006gm/ml
(C) 1.006-1.063gm/ml
(D) 1.063-1.21gm/l
631. Thebondinproteinsthatisnotbrokenunder
2348
usualconditionsofdenaturation:
(A) Hydrophobicbond(B)Hydrogenbond
(C)Disulphidebond(D)Peptidebonds
632. Plasmaproteinsactas
(A) Buffers (B)Immunoglobulins
(C)Reserveproteins (D)Allofthese
633. GroupthatreactsintheBiurettest:
(A) Peptide(B)Aminogroup
(C)Carboxylicgroup(D)Aldehydegroup
634. In nitroprusside test, amino acid
cysteineproducesa:
(A) Redcolour (B)Bluecolour
(C)Yellowcolour (D)Purplecolour
635. Protein present in hemoglobin has the
structureknownas
(A) Primary(B)Secondary
(C)Tertiary (D)Quarternary
whichithasa
(C)Nilnetcharge (D)Noneofthese
637. Albuminoidsaresimilarto
(A) Albumin(B)Globulin
638. Opticalisomers of allaminoacids exist
except
2349
(A) Glycine (B)Arginine
(C)Alanine (D)Hydroxyproline
639. Proteinsthatconstitutekeratin,collagenand
elastininbodyare
(A) Protamines (B)Phospholproteins
(C)Scleroproteins (D)Metaproteins
640. Systematicnameoflysineis
(A) Aminoaceticacid
(B) 2,6diaminohexanoicacid
(C) Aminosuccinicacid
(D) 2-Aminopropanoicacid
641. Side chains ofallfollowing amino acids
containaromaticringsexcept
(A) Phenylalanine (B)Alanine
642. Abnormalchainofaminoacidsinsicklecell
anaemiais
(A) Alphachain (B)Betachain2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(C)Deltachain (D)Gamachain
643. NumberofchainsinglobinpartofnormalHb:
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
644. ThePHofalbuminis
(A) 3.6 (B)4.7
(C)5.0 (D)6.1
2350
645. Ninhydrinreactiongivesapurplecolourand
evolvesCO2with
(A) Peptidebonds (B)Histamine
(C)Ergothioneine (D)Aspargine
646. Denaturationofproteinsinvolvesbreakdown
of
(A) Secondary structure(B) Tertiary
structure
(C)Quarternarystructure(D) Allofthese
647. Indenaturationofproteins,thebondwhichis
notbroken:
(A) Disulphidebond (B)Peptidebond
(C)Hydrogenbond (D)Ionicbond
648. The purityofan isolated protein can be
testedbyemployingvariousmethods.
(A) Solubilitycurve
(B) Molecularweight
(C) UltraCentrifugation
(D) ImmunoRactivity
(E) Allofthese
649. More than one break in the line orin
saturation curve indicates the following
qualityofprotein.
(A) Nonhomogenity(B)Purity
(C)Homogeneity (D)Noneofthese
650. Asharpmovingboundaryisobtainedbetween
2351
thepuresolventandsolutecontaininglayer
in
(A) Chromatography
(B) ImmunoReactivity
(C) UltraCentrifugation
(D) Solubilitycurve
651. Theantibodiesraisedagainstapureprotein
willshow only one sharp spike on this
technique:
(A) Solubilitycurve
(B) Solventprecipitation
(C) Molecularweightdetermination
(D) Immunoelectrophoresis
652. Thistechniquetakestheadvantageofthe
factthateachproteinhasdifferentpH at
which it is electrically neutral i.e., its
isoelectricpH:
(A) Isoelectricfocussing
(B) ImmunoelEctroPhoresis
(C) Chromatography
(D) HPLC
653. Thefollowingtechniquemakesuseofthe
differenceinnetchargesofproteinsata
givenpH:
(A) Thinlayerchromatography
(B) Ionexchangechromatography
2352
(C) High performance liquid
chromatography
(D) Paperchromatography
654. The ratio of the distance moved by a
compound to the distance moved bythe
solventfrentisknownasits
(A) PIvalue(B)Linkingnumber
(C)Rfvalue (D)Goldnumber
655. Themovementofchargedparticlestowards
oneoftheelectrodesundertheinfluenceof
electricalcurrentis
(A) Gelfiltration
(B) Molecularsieving
(C) Gasliquidchromatography
(D) Electrophoresis
656. Ananionexchangeresinlinkedtocellulose
backboneis
(A) DEAEcellulose (B)CMcellulose
(C)Sephadex (D)Noneofthese
657. A cation exchange resin linked to
cellulosebackboneis
(A) CM-cellulose(B)DEAEcellulose
(C)Starch (D)Biogel
658. Thesortingoutofmoleculesaccordingto
sizeandshapemaybeadaptedtoprotein
purificationinthistechnique:PROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 63
2353
(A) Adsorptionchromatography
(B) Gelfiltrationchromatography
(C) Paperchromatography
(D) Noneofthese
659. Frequently employed materials for the
adsorption chromatography of proteins
include
(A) Highcapacitysupportinggel
(B) Starchblocks
(C) Calcium phosphate gelalumina gel
andhydroxyapatite
(D) Allofthese
660. Thesolubilityofmostproteinsisloweredat
highsaltconcentrationsiscalledas
(A) Salting in process (B) Salting out
process
(C)Isoelectricfocussing(D)Noneofthese
661. Phenylalanine,ornithineandmethionineare
involvedinthebiogenesisof
(A) Lysergicacid(B)Reserpine
(C)L-Hyoscyamine (D)Papaverine
662. Allthefollowingdiureticsinhibitthecarbonic
anhydraseexcept
(A) Acetazolamide (B)Bumetanide
(C)Furosemide (D)Ethacrynicacid
663. Proteinisapolymerof
2354
(A) Sugars(B)Phenols(C)Aminoacids(D)
Carboxylicacids
664. All the following amino acids are
opticallyactiveexcept
(A) Tryptophane(B) Phenylalanine (C)
Valine (D)Glycine
665. Proteinous substances which catalyze
biochemicalreactionsareknownas
(A) Activators (B)Catalysts
(C)Enzymes (D)Hormones
666. Insulinisaproteinwhichcontrols
(A) Bloodclotting (B)Metabolicpathway
(C)Digestion (D)Kreb’scycle
667. Proteins which are responsible for
defencemechanismarecalled
(A) Antimetabolites (B)Antibodies
(C)Antimycins (D)Apoproteins
668. Whenthenetchargeonanaminoacidiszero,
thepHismaintainedas?
(A) 4.5 (B)11.2
(C)7.0 (D)9.1
669. Isoelectricpointofaminoacidsisusedfor
(A) Crystallisation (B)Precipitation
(C)Solubility (D)Reactivity
670. Xanthoproteic testis positive in proteins
containing (A)Sulphuramino acids(B)α-
2355
Aminoacids
(C) Aromaticaminoacids
(D) Aliphaticaminoacids
671. Allα-aminoacidsgivepositive
(A) Million’stest(B)Biuretetest
(C)Xanthproteictest (D)Ninhydrinetest
672. N-terminalaminoacidsofapolypeptideare
estimatedby
(A) Edmannreaction(B)Sanger’sreagent
(C) Formaldehyde test (D) Ninhydrine
reaction
673. Million’stestispositivefor
(A) Phenylalanine (B)Glycine
(C)Tyrosine (D)Proline
674. Indole group of tryptophan responses
positivelyto
(A) Glyoxylicacid (B)Schiff’sreagent
(C)Biurettest (D)Resorcinoltest
675. Guanidinegroupofargentinegivespositive
testwith
(A) Leadacetate
(B) Sakaguchireagent
(C) Tricholoroaceticacid
(D) Molisch’sreagent
676. Thiolgroupofcysteinegivesredcolourwith
(A) Sodiumacetate
2356
(B) Leadacetate
(C) Sodiumnitroprusside
(D) Barfoed’sreagent
677. Proteindeficiencydiseaseisknownas
(A) Cushing’sdisease(B)Fabry’sdisease2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(C) Parkinson’sdisease
(D) Kwashiorkorandmarasmus
678. Avegetablesourceofproteinis
(A) Eggplant
(B) Soyabean
(C) TreeoftheHeaven
(D) Devil’sdung
679. Oxaloacetateisconvertedtoasparticacidby
(A) Reductase (B)Oxidase
(C)Transminase (D)Catalase
680. Deficiencyofbiotinresultsindecreasein
(A) Aminoacidsynthesis
(B) Lipidsynthesis
(C) Kidney
(D) Fattyacidsynthesis
681. Theprecursorofbilesalts,sexhormonesand
vitaminDis
(A) Diosgenin (B)Cholesterol
(C)Campesterol (D)Ergosterol
682 Unsaturatedfattyacidsisknownas
2357
(A) Non-essentialfattyacids
(B) Essentialfattyacids
(C) Cerebrosides
(D) Phospholipids
683 Biurettestisspecificfor
(A) Twopeptidelinkage
(B) Phenolicgroup
(C) Imidazolering
(D) Noneofthese
684. Mostofcalcium ispresentinbone,but2%
presentinsofttissueandthebloodiscalled
(A) Calcinatedblood(B)Solidifiedblood
(C)Physiologicalblood(D)Colloidalblood
685. Calcium presentwithproteinisknownas
freewhileinsaltformiscalledas
(A) Bound (B)Precipitated
(C)Solid (D)Polymorphs
686. Thefollowingionshelpinenzymatictransfer
ofphosphatefromATPtopyruvicacid:
(A) Sodium (B)Calcium
(C)Magnesium (D)Potassium
687. Internationalenzymecommissionclassifies
enzymesinto
(A) Threeclasses (B)Sixclasses
(C)Fourclassess (D)Tenclasses
688. Michaelis – Menten equation is used
2358
toexplain the effect of substrate
concentrationon
(A) Carbohydrate(B)Enzyme
(C)Lipid (D)Protein
689. The pH at which an enzyme has
maximumactivityisknownas
(A) IsoelectricpH (B)OptimumpH
(C)LowpH (D)HighpH
690. Degradation ofproteins to amino acids,
glucosefrom carbohydratesandfattyacids
fromlipidsisknownas
(A) Anabolism (B)Metabolism
(C)Catabolism (D)Cretinism
691. During glycolysis ofglucose the energy
liberatedintheabsenceofoxygenisknown
as
(A) Oxygenesis
(B) Glyconeogenesis
(C) Glycogenolysis
(D) Anaerobicfermentation
692. Deficiencyofureacycleenzymesresultsinto
accumulationofcitrullineargininosuccinate
arginineintheliverresultinginincreasing
concentrationof……..intheblood.
(A) Calcium (B)Sodium
(C)Ammonia (D)Lipid
2359
693. Accumulationoftrytophaninbloodisknown
as
(A) Pompe’sdisease(B)Wilson’sdisease
(C)Wolman’sdisease(D)Hartnup’sdisease
694. Lymphocytes are responsible for the
formationof
(A) Serum (B)Plasma
(C)Antibody (D)Calcium
695. Platelets contain an enzyme which has
importantrole in clotting in blood.This
enzymeisknownas
(A) Cholinesterase (B)TransaminasePROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 65
(C)Decarboxylase (D)Thrombokinase
696. Treatment of pentoses with a
concentratedmineralacid yields a cyclic
aldehydeknownas
(A) Pentaldehyde (B)Cyclopental
(C)Hexaldehyde (D)Furfural
697. IsoelectricpHisthatpHatwhichproteinis
electrically:
(A) Neutral(B)Anionic
(C)Cationic (D)Noneofthese
698. About6.25gofhaemoglobinisproduced
anddestroyedinthebodyeachdayandthe
totalamountofhaemoglobininanormal
healthy70kgweighingmaleadultis
2360
(A) 250g (B)150g
(C)100g (D)70g
699. Pancreaticjuicecontainsallofthefollowing
except
(A) Trypsinogen(B)Lipase
(C)Cholecystokinin (D)Chymnotrypsinogen
700. Themilkproteininthestomachinanadultis
digestedby
(A) Pepsin (B)Rennin
(C)HCl (D)Chymotrypsinogen
701. Carboxypeptidase,anenzymeofpancreatic
juice,contains
(A) Mn(B)Zinc
(C)Magnesium (D)Manganese
702. Thezymogenfromtrypsinogenofpancreatic
juiceisconvertedtoactivetrypsinby
(A) Peisin (B)Enterocrinin
(C)Enterokinase (D)Rennin
703. Inactivezymogensareprecursorsofallthe
followinggastrointestinalenzymesexcept
(A) Carboxypeptidase(B)Pepsin
(C)Aminopeptidase(D)Chymotrypsin
704. Renninactsoncaseinofmilkininfantsin
presenceof
(A) Mg
++
2361
(B)Zn
++
(C)Co
++
(D)Ca
++
705. All the following are true about
phenylketonuriaexcept
(A) Deficiency of phenylalanine
hydroxylase(B)Mentalretardation
(C) Increased urinary excretion of p-
hydroxyphenylpyruvicacid
(D) Decreaseserotoninformation
706. Which of the amino acid produces a
vasodilatorondecarboxylation?
(A) Glutaminacid (B)Histidine
(C)Ornithine (D)Cysteine
707. Neutralaminoacidis
(A) Leucine(B)Lysine
(C)Asparticacid (D)Histidine
708. Theaminoacidcontaininghydroxygroup:
(A) Glycine (B)Isoleucine
(C)Arginine (D)Thereonine
709. The amino acid which synthesizes many
hormornes:
(A) Valine (B)Phenylalanine
2362
(C)Alanine (D)Histidine
710. Insulin degradation of disulfide bond
formationiseffectedby
(A) Pyruvatedehydrogenase
(B) Xylitolreductase
(C) Gutathionereductase
(D) Xanthineoxidase
711. A protein reacts with biuret reagent
whichindicates2ormore
(A) Bloodclotting (B)Peptidebond
(C)Disulphidebonds(D)Hydrophobicbonds
712. In many proteins the hydrogen
bondingproduces a regular coiled
arrangementwhichiscalledas
(A) β-Helix (B)α-Helix
(C)Both(A)and(B) (D)Spiral
713. Themilkproteininthestomachoftheinfants
isdigestedby
(A) Pepsin (B)Trypsin
(C)Chymotrypsin (D)Rennin
714. Proteinanabolismisstimulatedby
(A) ACTH (B)Testosterone2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(C)Glucagon (D)Epinephrine
715. The number of helices present in a
collagenmoleculeis
2363
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
716. Which bond is present in the primary
structureofprotein?
(A) Ester (B)Hydrogen
(C)Ionicbond (D)Peptide
717. Sakaguchireactionisspecificfor
(A) Guanidinegroup(B)Phenolicgroup
(C)Carboxylicgroup(D)Noneofthese
718. Withtheexceptionofglycineallaminoacids
foundinproteinare
(A) Isocitratedehydrogenase
(B) Fumarase
(C) Succinatethiokinase
(D) ATPase
719Inproteinstructuretheα-helixandβpleated
sheetsareexampleof
(A)Primarystructure (B)Secondarystructure
720. Anessentialaminoacidinmanis
(A) Proline (B)Threonine
(C)Asparagine (D)Tyrosine
721. Anaminoacidthatdoesnotformanαhelixis
(A) Asparagine (B)Tyrosine
(C)Tryptophan (D) Proline 722.
Theproteinpresentinhairis
2364
(A)Elastin (B)
Prolamine
(C)Keratin (D)Gliadin
723. Plasmaproteincanbeseparatedby
(A) Saltingoutwith(NH4)2SO4
(B) Ultracentrifugation
(C) Immunoelectrophoresis
(D) Allofthese
724. RNAdoesnotcontain
(A) Uracil
(B) Adenine
(C) Hydroxymethylcytosine
(D) Phosphate
725. In mammalian cells, ribosomal RNA
isproducedmainlyinthe
(A) Nucleus
(B) Nucleolus
(C) Ribosome
(D) Golgiapparatus
726. Whichco-enzymeisnotinvolvedinoxidative
decarboxylationofpyruvicacid?
(A)TPP (B)Mg
++
(C)Biotin (D)CoA-SH
727. A polymeric unit of starch which has
abranchedstructureis
2365
(A) Glucose(B)Amylopectin
(C)Isomaltose (D)Amylose
728 Therepeatingunitinhyaluronicacidis
(A) GlucuronicacidandGalactosamine(B)
Glucuronicacidareglucosamine
(C) Glucuronic acid and N-acetyl
glucosamine
(D) Glucuronic acid and N-acetyl
galactosamine
729 Therepeatingdisaccharideunitincelluslose
is
(A) Sucrose(B)Maltose
(C)Dextrose (D)CellobiosePROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 67
ANSWERS
1.A2.A3.A4.A5.A6.A7.A8.A9.A10.D11.B12.A13.A14.C15.C16.B17.B18.C
19.B 20.C 21.B 22.A 23.B 24.D
25.A 26.C 27.B 28.B 29.A 30.A
31.C 32.B 33.D 34.B 35.C 36.A
37.B 38.C 39.C 40.B 41.B 42.A
43.B 44.C 45.C 46.A 47.A 48.B
49.D 50.A 51.A 52.A 53.D 54.A
55.B 56.A 57.C 58.B 59.C 60.A
61.B 62.A 63.D 64.C 65.D 66.C
67.A 68.D 69.A 70.A 71.C 72.B
73.A 74.B 75.A 76.A 77.D 78.D
79.A 80.A 81.C 82.A 83.C 84.D
2366
85.C 86.B 87.B 88.A 89.A 90.A
91.A92.B93.C94.D95.A96.A97.A98.D99.A100.A101.D102.D103.D104.D105.
A106.
A107.A108.C109.D110.A111.A112.A113.A114.B
115.D116.C117.A118.A119.D120.C121.B122.B123.A124.A125.A126.A
127.B128.C129.A130.A131.B132.C133.A134.A135.A136.A137.C138.A139.
A140.D
141.C142.A143.C144.B145.A146.B147.B148.B149.D150.A151.A152.B153.C
154.C
155.B156.C157.D158.D159.C160.C161.B162.D163.A164.D165.C166.B167.D
168.D
169.C170.C171.D172.B173.A174.D
175.D176.C177.B178.B179.A180.A181.C182.C183.B184.C185.B186.C187.D
188.A
189.B190.D191.C192.C193.B194.C195.D196.B197.D198.C
199.B200.B 201.C 202.D 203.C 204.C205.D206.C 207.D 208.B 209.A 210.D
211.C212.A 213.C 214.A 215.C 216.D
217.B218.D 219.B 220.B 221.C 222.D223.C224.C 225.C 226.D 227.C 228.D
229.C230.A 231.C 232.D 233.D 234.D
235.C 236.B 237.A 238.D 239.B 240.D
241.B242.B243.C244.A245.B246.A247.C248.D249.B250.C251.C252.A253.D
254.D
255.D256.B257.D258.B259.D260.D261.D262.D263.D264.B265.A266.B267.
B268.D
269.B270.D
271.C272.B273.C274.C275.D276.B277.B278.D279.C280.D281.A282.D
283.B 284.C 285.A 286.D 287.B 288.B
289.D 290.B 291.D 292.C 293.D 294.D
2367
295.B296.C297.B298.C299.B300.C301.A302.B303.B304.C305.B306.B307.A
308.A
309.C310.D311.B312.D313.D314.C315.B316.D317.B318.B
319.D 320.B 321.A 322.B 323.D 324.A
325.B326.B327.A328.C329.B330.D331.C332.D333.C334.B335.C336.B337.C
338.A
339.A340.C341.D342.B343.A344.B345.C346.B347.B348.B349.B350.B351.C
352.C
353.B354.C
355.D 356.D 357.C 358.B 359.D 360.D
361.B 362.B 363.D 364.B 365.D 366.D
367.A 368.C 369.A 370.A 371.D 372.B
373.B374.D375.A376.B377.A378.B379.D380.B381.D382.D383.D384.D385.
C386.A
387.A388.B389.C390.D391.D392.D393.D394.D395.C396.B6
MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
397.D398.B399.B400.A401.B402.A403.B404.C405.D406.D407.B408.B
409.B410.D411.B412.B413.C414.C415.D416.C417.B418.C419.A420.D421.D
422.A
423.C424.D425.D426.C
427.D 428.D 429.A 430.B 431.D 432.A
433.B434.A435.A436.A437.B438.B439.C440.D441.C442.C443.B444.D
445.C446.B447.D448.C449.C450.C451.C452.D453.A454.A455.B456.C
457.D458.C459.A460.C461.B462.A463.A464.C465.C466.D467.B468.A469.A
470.D
471.C472.B473.A474.B475.B476.D477.C478.C479.B480.D481.C482.B483.C
484.B
2368
485.B486.C
487.C488.D489.B490.B491.C492.C493.B494.A495.B496.B497.A498.C499.D
500.D
501.C502.C503.C504.C505.B506.A507.D508.B509.A510.C511.B 512.D
513.D
514.A 515.A 516.C517.A518.D 519.A 520.D 521.A 522.D523.C524.B 525.D
526.A 527.B 528.A
529.A 530.B 531.D 532.D 533.B 534.A
535.B536.A 537.B 538.D 539.C 540.A541.C542.C 543.A 544.D 545.D 546.B
547.D548.A 549.A 550.B 551.D 552.B553.A554.B 555.A 556.C 557.B 558.
D559.A 560.A 561.A 562.A 563.D 564.D565.C566.A 567.A 568.A 569.A
570.B571.A 572.A 573.B 574.C 575.C 576.D
577.D578.B579.B580.A581.B582.C583.C584.C585.B586.D587.D588.B
589.A 590.C 591.B 592.A 593.C 594.D
595.B596.A 597.A 598.C 599.D 600.D601.C602.C 603.B 604.B 605.B 606.
A607.A 608.A 609.B 610.A 611.C 612.B613.D614.A 615.D 616.A 617.D
618.B
619.D620.C621.A622.B623.A624.B625.D626.B627.B628.B629.D630.B631.
D632.D
633.A634.A635.D636.C637.A638.A639.C640.B641.B642.B643.D644.B645.
D646.D
647.B648.C649.A650.C651.D652.A653.B654.C655.D656.A657.A658.B659.C
660.B
661.A662.D663.C664.D665.C666.B
667.B668.C 669.B 670.C 671.D 672.A673.C674.A 675.B 676.C 677.D 678.B
679.C680.D 681.B 682.B 683.A 684.C685.A686.D 687.B 688.B 689.B 690.
2369
691.D 692.C 693.D 694.C 695.D 696.D
697.A698.D 699.C 700.A 701.B 702.C703.C704.D 705.C 706.B 707.A 708.
D709.B 710.C 711.B 712.B 713.D 714.B715.C716.D 717.A 718.B 719.B
720.B721.D 722.C 723.D 724.C 725.B 726.C
727.B 728.C 729.D
12.A Albumin (mol.Wt.69,000)is the major
constituent of plasma proteins with a
concentration3.5–5.0g/dl.Itisexclusively
synthesized bythe liver.Plasma albumin
performs osmotic,transportand nutritive
function,besidesthebufferingaction.
67.A Ceruloplasmin is a blue coloured,copper
containing α
–globulin.Itsnormalplasma
concentrationisaround30mg/dlanditis
decreasedinWilson’sdisease.
103.DDefectsinclottingfactorscauseabnormalities
in blood clotting. Hemophilia A
(defectantihemophilic factor i.e., VII),
hemophiliaBorChristmasdisease(defect-
Christmas factor,i.e.,IX)are the major
abnormalitiesknown.
151.A Lysine,arginine,histidine.Thesearedibasic
monocarboxylicacids.PROTEINSANDPROTEINMETABOLISM 69
2370
212.A Theaminoacidswhichareneverfoundin
proteinstructurearecollectivelyreferredto
asnon-proteinaminoacids.However,the
nonprotein amino acids perform several
biologicalfunctions.e.g.,ornithine,citrulline,
thyroxine.
268.DAminoacidsaredividedinto3groupsbasedon
theirmetabolicfats.
(a) Glycogenic:Theseaminoacidscanserveas
precursorsforthesynthesisofglucose(or
glycogen)e.g.,alanine,aspartate,glycine.
(b) Ketogenic:Fatcan be synthesized from
theseaminoacidse.g.,leucine,lysine.
(c) Glycogenicorketogenic:Theaminoacids
thatcanform glucoseaswellasfate.g.,
isoleucine,phenylalanine,lysine.
300.C Zwitterion(dipolarion)isahybridmolecule
containing positive and negative ionic
groups.Eachaminoacidhasacharacteristic
pH(e.g.,leucinepH6.0),atwhichitexistsas
zwitterions.
350.BAlbumin/Globulin(A/G)ratioexpressestheir
relation in the serum concentration.The
normalA/Gratiois1.2to1.5:1,takingthe
concentration of albumin and globulins
respectivelyintherangeof3.5-5.0g/dland
2371
2.5–3.5g/dl.TheA/Gratioisloweredeither
duetoadecreaseinalbumin9liverdisease)
oranincreaseinglobulins(chronicinfections).
421.D Bysaltingouttechnique(usingammonium
sulfate or sodium sulfate),the plasma
proteinscanbeseparatedinto3groups–
albumin, globulins and fibrinogen.
Electrophoresis is the most commonly
employed analytical technique for the
separation of plasma (serum) proteins.
Paper or agar gelelectrophoresis with
veronalbuffer(pH 8.6)separatesplasma
proteins into 5 distinct bands namely
albumin,α1-α2,β-andγ-globulins.
488.DComplementsystem iscomposedofabout20
plasma proteins that complement the
functions ofantibodies in defending the
body from invading antigens. The
complement system helps the body
immunity by promoting phagocytosis,
formation ofantigen-antibody complexes
andinflammatoryreaction.
507.D Apolipoproteinsorapoproteinsarethe
(structural) protein components of
lipoproteinsandarecloselyinvolvedinthe
metabolism ofthelater,e.g.,AI,AIII,B100,C1,
2372
CII
555.ATheremovalofaminogroupfrom theamino
acidsasammoniaisdeamination.Itmaybe
oxidativeornon-oxidativeinnature.TheNH3
soliberatedisusedforsynthesisorurea.
600.D Thethreeaminoacidsglycine,arginineand
methionine are required for creatine
formation.Glycinecombines
683.A Biuret test is answered by compounds
containingtwoormoreCO–NHgroupsi.e.,
peptide bonds.Allprotein and peptides
possessingatleasttwopeptidelinkagesi.e.,
tripeptide(with3aminoacids)givepositive
biurettest.Theprincipleofbiurettestis
convenientlyusedtodetectthepresenceof
proteinsinbiologicalfluids.Themechanism
ofbiurettestis notclearlyknown.Itis
believed thatthe colouris due to the
formation of a copper co-ordianated
complex.
717.A Arginine,containingguanidinegroup,reacts
withα-naphtholandalkalinehypobromiteto
formaredcolourcomplex. CHAPTER4
FATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM
2373
1. Anexampleofahydroxyfattyacidis
(A) Ricinoleicacid (B)Crotonicacid
(C)Butyricacid (D)Oleicacid
2. Anexampleofasaturatedfattyacidis
(A) Palmiticacid (B)Oleicacid
(C)Linoleicacid (D)Erucicacid
3. Ifthefattyacidisesterifiedwithanalcoholof
highmolecularweightinsteadofglycerol,the
resultingcompoundis
(A) Lipositol (B)Plasmalogen
(C)Wax (D)Cephalin
4. Afattyacidwhichisnotsynthesizedinthe
bodyandhastobesuppliedinthedietis
(A) Palmiticacid (B) Lauric acid (C)
Linolenicacid (D)Palmitoleicacid
5. Essentialfattyacid:
(A) Linoleicacid (B)Linolenicacid
(C)Arachidonicacid(D)Allthese
6. Thefattyacidpresentincerebrosidesis
(A) Lignocericacid(B)Valericacid
(C)Caprylicacid (D)Behenicacid
7. Thenumberofdoublebondsinarachidonic
acidis
(A) 1(B)2
(C)4 (D)6
8. Inhumans,adietaryessentialfattyacidis
2374
(A) Palmiticacid (B)Stearicacid
(C)Oleicacid (D)Linoleicacid
9. Alipidcontainingalcoholicamineresidueis
(A) Phosphatidicacid(B)Ganglioside
(C)Glucocerebroside(D)Sphingomyelin
10. Cephalinconsistsof
(A) Glycerol,fatty acids,phosphoric acid
andcholine
(B) Glycerol,fatty acids,phosphoric acid
andethanolamine
(C) Glycerol,fatty acids,phosphoric acid
andinositol
(D) Glycerol,fatty acids,phosphoric acid
andserine
11. Inmammals,themajorfatinadiposetissues
is
(A) Phospholipid (B)Cholesterol
(C)Sphingolipids (D)Triacylglycerol
12. Glycosphingolipidsareacombinationof
(A) Ceramidewithoneormoresugarresidues
(B) Glycerolwithgalactose
(C) Sphingosinewithgalactose
(D) Sphingosinewithphosphoricacid
13. The importance of phospholipids
asconstituentofcellmembraneisbecause
theypossess
2375
(A) Fattyacids
(B) Bothpolarandnonpolargroups
(C) Glycerol
(D) Phosphoricacid
14. In neutral fats, the unsaponificable
matterincludes
(A) Hydrocarbons (B)Triacylglycerol
(C)Phospholipids (D)Cholsesterol
15. Higheralcoholpresentinwaxesis
FATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 73FATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 71
(A) Benzyl(B)Methyl
(C)Ethyl (D)Cetyl
16. Kerasinconsistsof
(A) Nervonicacid (B)Lignocericacid
(C)Cervonicacid (D)Clupanodonicacid
17. Gangliosidesarecomplexglycosphingolipids
foundin
(A) Liver (B)Brain
(C)Kidney (D)Muscle
18. Unsaturatedfattyacidfoundinthecodliver
oilandcontaining5doublebondsis
(A) Clupanodonicacid
(B) Cervonicacid
(C) Elaidicacid
(D) Timnodonicacid
19. Phospholipidactingassurfactantis
2376
(A) Cephalin (B)Phosphatidylinositol
(C)Lecithin (D)Phosphatidylserine
20. An oilwhich contains cyclic fatty acids
andonceusedinthetreatmentofleprosyis
(A) Elaidicoil(B)Rapeseedoil
(C)Lanoline (D)Chaulmoogricoil
21. Unpleasant odours and taste in a
fat(rancidity)canbedelayedorpreventedby
theadditionof
(A) Lead (B)Copper
(C)Tocopherol (D)Ergosterol
22. Gangliosidesderivedfrom glucosylceramide
containinadditiononeormoremoleculesof
(A) Sialicacid(B)Glycerol
(C)Diacylglycerol (D)Hyaluronicacid
23. ’Drying oil’, oxidized spontaneously
byatmospheric oxygen at ordinary
temperatureandformsahardwaterproof
materialis
(A) Coconutoil(B)Peanutoil
(C)Rapeseedoil (D)Linseedoil
24. Deterioration of food (rancidity) is due
topresenceof
(A) Cholesterol
(B) VitaminE
(C) Peroxidationoflipids
2377
(D) Phenoliccompounds
25. ThenumberofmlofN/10KOH requiredto
neutralizethefattyacidsinthedistillatefrom
5gmoffatiscalled
(A) Reichert-Meisselnumber
(B) Polenskenumber
(C) Acetylnumber
(D) Nonvolatilefattyacidnumber
26. Molecularformulaofcholesterolis
(A) C27H45OH
(B) C29H47OH
(C) C29H47OH
(D) C23H41OH
27. Thecholesterolmoleculeis
(A) Benzenederivative
(B) Quinolinederivative
(C) Steroid
(D) Straightchainacid
28. Salkowskitestisperformedtodetect
(A) Glycerol (B)Cholesterol
(C)Fattyacids (D)VitaminD
29. Palmitic, oleic or stearic acid ester
ofcholesterol used in manufacture of
cosmeticcreamsis
(A) Elaidicoil(B)Lanoline
(C)Spermaceti (D)Chaulmoogricoil
2378
30. Dietaryfatsafterabsorption appearinthe
circulationas
(A) HDL (B)VLDL
(C)LDL (D)Chylomicron
31. Freefattyacidsaretransportedintheblood
(A) Combinedwithalbumin
(B) Combinedwithfattyacidbindingprotein
(C) Combinedwithβ-lipoprotein
(D) Inunboundfreesalts
32. Longchainfattyacidsarefirstactivatedto
acetyl-CoAin
(A) Cytosol (B)Microsomes
(C)Nucleus (D)Mitochondria7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
33. Theenzymeacyl-CoAsynthasecatalysesthe
conversionofafattyacidofanactivefatty
acidinthepresenceof
(A) AMP (B)ADP
(C)ATP (D)GTP
34. Carnitineissynthesizedfrom
(A) Lysineandmethionine
(B) Glycineandarginine
(C) Aspartateandglutamate
(D) Prolineandhydroxyproline
35. Theenzymesofβ-oxidationarefoundin
(A) Mitochondria (B)Cytosol
2379
(C)Golgiapparatus(D)Nucleus
36. Long chain fatty acids penetrate the
innermitochondrialmembrane
(A) Freely
(B) Asacyl-CoAderivative
(C) Ascarnitinederivative
(D) RequiringNadependentcarrier
37. An important feature of
Zellweger’ssyndromeis
(A) Hypoglycemia
(B) Accumulationofphytanicacidintissues
(C) Skineruptions
(D) AccumulationofC26-C38polyenoicacidin
braintissues
38. AnimportantfindingofFabry’sdiseaseis
(A) Skinrash (B)Exophthalmos
(C)Hemolyticanemia(D)Mentalretardation
39. Gaucher’sdiseaseisduetodeficiencyofthe
enzyme:
(A) Sphingomyelinase
(B) Glucocerebrosidase
(C) Galactocerbrosidase
(D) β-Galactosidase
40. CharacteristicfindinginGaucher’sdiseaseis
(A) Nightblindness
(B) Renalfailure
2380
(C) Hepatosplenomegaly
(D) Deafness
41. AnimportantfindinginNeimann-Pickdisease
is
(A) Leukopenia
(B) Cardiacenlargement(C)Cornealopacity
(D)Hepatosplenomegaly
42. Fucosidosisischaracterizedby
(A) Musclespasticity (B)Liverenlargement
(C)Skinrash (D)Kidneyfailure
43. Metachromatic leukodystrophy is due
todeficiencyofenzyme:
(A) α-Fucosidase (B)ArylsulphataseA
(C)Ceramidase (D)HexosaminidaseA
44. AsignificantfeatureofTangierdiseaseis
(A) Impairmentofchylomicronformation
(B) Hypotriacylglycerolmia
(C) AbsenceofApo-C-II
(D) AbsenceofApo-C-I
45. AsignificantfeatureofBroadBetadiseaseis
(A) Hypocholesterolemia
(B) Hypotriacylglycerolemia
(C) AbsenceofApo-D
(D) AbnormalityofApo-E
46. Neonatal tyrosinemia improves on
administrationof
2381
(A) Thiamin (B)Riboflavin
(C)Pyridoxine (D)Ascorbicacid
47. Absence of phenylalanine
hydroxylasecauses
(A) Neonataltyrosinemia(B)Phenylketonuria
(C) Primaryhyperoxaluria
(D) Albinism
48. Richner-Hanhartsyndromeisduetodefectin
(A) Tyrosinase
(B) Phenylalaninehydroxylase
(C) Hepatictyrosinetransaminase
(D) Fumarylacetoacetatehydrolase
49. Plasma tyrosine level in Richner-
Hanhartsyndromeis
(A) 1–2mg/dL(B)2–3mg/dL
(C)4–5mg/dL (D)8–10mg/dL
50. AmountofphenylaceticacidexcretedintheFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM
73
urineinphenylketonuriais
(A) 100–200mg/dL(B)200–280mg/dL
(C)290–550mg/dL(D)600–750mg/dL
51. Tyrosinosisisduetodefectintheenzyme:
(A) Fumarylacetoacetatehydrolase
(B) p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvatehydroxylase
(C) Tyrosinetransaminase
(D) Tyrosinehydroxylase
2382
52. AnimportantfindinginHistidinemiais
(A) Impairmentofconversionofα-Glutamate
toα-ketoglutarate
(B) Speechdefect
(C) Decreasedurinaryhistidinelevel
(D) Patientscannotbetreatedbydiet
53. Animportantfindinginglycinuriais
(A) Excessexcretionofoxalateintheurine
(B) Deficiencyofenzymeglycinase
(C) Significantlyincreasedserumglycinelevel
(D) Defectin renaltubularreabsorption of
glycine
54. Increased urinary indole acetic acid
isdiagnosticof
(A) Maplesyrupurinedisease
(B) Hartnupdisease
(C) Homocystinuia
(D) Phenylketonuria
55. Inglycinuriadailyurinaryexcretionofglycine
rangesfrom
(A) 100–200mg (B)300–500mg
(C)600–1000mg (D)1100–1400mg
56. Aninbornerror,maplesyrupurinediseaseis
duetodeficiencyoftheenzyme:
(A) Isovaleryl-CoAhydrogenase
(B) Phenylalninehydroxylase
2383
(C) Adenosyltransferase
(D) α-Ketoaciddecarboxylase
57. Maplesyrupurinediseasebecomesevident
inextrauterinelifebytheendof
(A) Firstweek(B)Secondweek
(C)Thirdweek (D)Fourthweek
58. Alkaptonuriaoccursduetodeficiencyofthe
enzyme:
(A) Maleylacetoacetateisomerase
(B) Homogentisateoxidase
(C) p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvatehydroxylase
(D) Fumarylacetoacetatehydrolase
59. An importantfeatureofmaplesyrupurine
diseaseis
(A) Patient can not be treated by
dietaryregulation
(B) Withouttreatmentdeath,ofpatientmay
occurbytheendofsecondyearoflife
(C) Blood levels ofleucine,isoleucine and
serineareincreased
(D) Excessivebraindamage
60. Ochronosisisanimportantfindingof
(A) Tyrosinemia(B)Tyrosinosis
(C) Alkaptonuria
(D) RichnerHanhartsyndrome
61. Phrynodermaisadeficiencyof
2384
(A) Essentialfattyacids(B)Proteins(C)Amino
acids (D)Noneofthese
62. Thepercentageoflinoleicacidinsafflower
oilis
(A) 73 (B)57
(C)40 (D)15
63. The percentage of polyunsaturated
fattyacidsinsoyabeanoilis
(A) 62 (B)10
(C)3 (D)2
64. The percentage of polyunsaturated
fattyacidsinbutteris
(A) 60 (B)37
(C)25 (D)3
65. Dietaryfibredenotes
(A) Undigestedproteins
(B) Plantcellcomponents thatcannotbe
digestedbyownenzymes
(C) Allplantcellwallcomponents
(D) All non digestible water insoluble
polysaccharide
66. Ahighfibredietisassociatedwithreduced
incidenceof7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(A) Cardiovasculardisease
(B) C.N.S.disease
2385
(C) Liverdisease
(D) Skindisease
67. Dietaryfibresarerichin
(A) Cellulose (B)Glycogen
(C)Starch (D)Proteoglycans
68. Minimumdietaryfibreisfoundin
(A) Driedapricot (B)Peas(C)Bran(D)
Cornflakes
69. Ablanddietisrecommendedin
(A) Pepticulcer (B)Atherosclerosis
(C)Diabetes (D)Liverdisease
70. Adietarydeficiencyinboththequantityand
thequalityofproteinresultsin
(A) Kwashiorkar (B)Marasmus
(C)Xerophtalmia (D)Liverdiseases
71. The deficiency of both energy and
proteincauses
(A) Marasmus(B)Kwashiorkar
(C)Diabetes (D)Beri-beri
72. Kwashiorkarischaracterizedby
(A) Nightblindness(B)Edema
(C)Easyfracturability(D)Xerophthalmia
73. AcharacteristicfeatureofKwashiorkaris
(A) Fattyliver
(B) Emaciation
(C) Lowinsulinlever
2386
(D) Occurrenceinlessthan1yearinfant
74. Acharacteristicfeatureofmarasmusis
(A) Severehypoalbuminemia
(B) Normalepinephrinelevel
(C) Mildmusclewasting
(D) Lowinsulinandhighcortisollevel
75. Obesitygenerallyreflects excess intakeof
energy and is often associated with the
developmentof
(A) Nervousness
(B) Non-insulindependentdiabetesmellitus
(C) Hepatitis
(D) Coloncancer
76. Atherosclerosisandcoronaryheartdiseases
areassociatedwiththediet:
(A) Highintotalfatandsaturatedfat
(B) Lowinprotein
(C) Highinprotein
(D) Highincarbohydrate
77. Cerebrovasulardiseaseandhypertensionis
associatedwith
(A) Highcalciumintake(B)Highsaltintake
(C) Lowcalciumintake
(D) Lowsaltintake
78. Thenormalrangeoftotalserumbilirubinis
(A) 0.2–1.2mg/100ml
2387
(B) 1.5–1.8mg/100ml(C)2.0–4.0mg/100ml
(D)Above7.0mg/100ml
79. Thenormalrangeofdirectreacting
(conjugated)serumbilirubinis
(A) 0–0.1mg/100ml
(B) 0.1–0.4mg/100ml
(C) 0.4–06mg/100ml
(D) 0.5–1mg/100ml
80. Thenormalrangeofindirect(unconjugated)
bilirubininserumis
(A) 0–0.1mg/100ml
(B) 0.1–0.2mg/100ml(C)0.2–0.7mg/100ml
(D)0.8–1.0mg/100ml
81. Jaundice is visible when serum
bilirubinexceeds
(A) 0.5mg/100ml(B)0.8mg/100ml
(C)1mg/100ml (D)2.4mg/100ml
82. Anincreaseinserum unconjugatedbilirubin
occursin
(A) Hemolyticjaundice
(B) Obstructivejaundice
(C) Nephritis
(D) Glomerulonephritis
83. Oneofthecausesofhemolyticjaundiceis
(A) G-6phosphatasedeficiency
(B) Increasedconjugatedbilirubin
2388
(C) Glucokinasedeficiency
(D) PhosphoglucomutasedeficiencyFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 75
84. Increasedurobilinogeninurineandabsence
ofbilirubinintheurinesuggests
(A) Obstructivejaundice
(B) Hemolyticjaundice
(C) Viralhepatitis
(D) Toxicjaundice
85. A jaundice in which serum
alaninetransaminase and alkaline
phosphatasearenormalis
(A) Hepaticjaundice
(C) Parenchymatousjaundice
(D) ObstructiveJaundice
86. Fecalstercobilinogenisincreasedin
(B) Hepaticjaundice
(C) Viralhepatitis
(D) Obstructivejaundice
87. Fecalurobilinogenisincreasedin
(B) Obstructionofbiliaryduct
(C) Extrahepaticgallstones
(D) Enlargedlymphnodes
88. Amixtureofconjugatedandunconjugated
2389
bilirubinisfoundinthecirculationin
(A) Hemolyticjaundice(B)Hepaticjaundice
(C) Obstructivejaundice
(D) Posthepaticjaundice
89. Hepatocellularjaundiceascomparedtopure
obstructivetypeofjaundiceischaracterized
by
(A) Increasedserum alkalinephosphate,LDH
andALT
(B) Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase,
LDHandALT
(C) Increased serum alkaline phosphatase
anddecreasedlevelsofLDHandALT
(D) Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase
andincreasedserumLDHandALT
90. Icteric index of an normal adult
variesbetween
(A) 1–2 (B)2–4
(C)4–6 (D)10–15
91. Clinical jaundice is present with an
ictericindexabove
(A) 4(B)8
(C)10 (D)15
92. Normalquantityofurobilinogenexcretedin
thefecesperdayisabout
(A) 10–25mg(B)50–250mg
2390
(C)300–500mg (D)700–800mg
93. Fecalurobilinogenisdecreasedin
(A) Obstructionofbiliaryduct
(C) Excessfatintake
(D) Lowfatintake
94. Acompleteabsenceoffecalurobilinogenis
stronglysuggestiveof
(A) Obstruction of bile duct(B) Hemolytic
jaundice
(C) Intrahepaticcholestasis
(D) Malignantobstructivedisease
95. Immediate direct Vanden Bergh
reactionindicates
(A) Hemolyticjaundice(B)Hepaticjaundice
(D) Megalobasticanemia
96. Thepresenceofbilirubinintheurinewithout
urobilinogensuggests
(A) Obstructivejaundice
(C) Perniciousanemia
(D) Damagetothehepaticparenchyma
97. Impairedgalactosetolerancetestsuggests
(A) Defectinglucoseutilisation
(B) Livercellinjury
2391
(C) Renaldefect
(D) Muscleinjury
98. Increased serum ornithine
carabamoyltransferaseactivityisdiagnostic
of
(A) Myocardialinfarction
(B) Hemolyticjaundice7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(C) Bonedisease
(D) Acuteviralhepatitis
99. The best known and most frequently
usedtestofthe detoxicating functions of
liveris
(A) Hippuricacidtest
(B) Galactosetolerancetest
(C) Epinephrinetolerancetest
(D) RoseBengaldyetest
100. Theabilityoflivertoremoveadyelike
BSPfromthebloodsuggestsanormal
(A) Excretoryfunction
(B) Detoxificationfunction
(C) Metabolicfunction
(D) Circulatoryfunction
101. RemovalofBSP dyebytheliverinvolves
conjugationwith
(A) Thiosulphate
2392
(B) Glutamine
(C) Cysteincomponentofglutathione
(D) UDPglucuronate
102. Normalvalueofplasmatotalproteinsvaries
between
(A)3–4gm/100ml (B)6–8gm/100ml
(C)10–12gm/100ml(D)14–16gm/100ml
103. A decrease in albumin with
increasedproduction of other unidentified
proteins which migrate in β,γ region
suggests
(A) Cirrhosisofliver
(B) Nephroticsyndrome
(C) Infection
(D) Chroniclymphaticleukemia
104. In increase in α2-Globulin with loss of
albumininurinesuggests
(A) Primaryimmunedeficiency
(C) Cirrhosisofliver
(D) Multiplemyeloma
105. Thenormallevelsofprothrombin timeis
about
(A)2sec (B)4sec
(C)14sec (D)10–16sec
2393
106. Inobstructivejaundiceprothrombintime
(A) Remainsnormal
(B) Decreases
(C) RespondstovitKandbecomesnormal
(D) RespondstovitKandincreases
107. In parenhymatous liver disease the
prothrombintime
(A)Remainsnormal (B)Increases
(C)Decreases (D)RespondstoVitK
108. Ureaclearancetestisusedtodeterminethe
(A) Glomerularfiltrationrate
(B) Renalplasmaflow
(C) Abilityofkidneytoconcentratetheurine
(D) Measurementoftubularmass
109. Theformulatocalculatemaximumurea
UV×
clearanceis ,whereUdenotesB
(A) Concentration of urea in urine in
gm/24hr
(B) Concentrationofureainurineinmg/100
ml
(C) Concentrationofureainbloodinmg/100
ml
(D) Volumeofurineinml/mt
110. Averagemaximumureaclearanceis
(A)30ml (B)50ml
2394
(C)75ml (D)90ml
111. Theaveragenormalvalueforstandardurea
clearanceis
(A)20ml (B)30ml
(C)40ml (D)54ml
112. Ureaclearanceisloweredin
(A) Acutenephritis
(B) Pneumonia
(C) Earlystageofnephriticsyndrome
(D) Benignhypertension
113. Glomerularfiltrationratecanbemeasuredby
(A) Endogenouscreatinineclearance
(B) Para-aminohippuratetest
(C) Addistest
(D) MosenthaltestFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 77
114. At normal levels of creatinine in the
blood,thismetaboliteis
(A) Filtered at the glomerulus but not
secretednorreabsorbedbythetubule
(B) Secretedbythetubule
(C) Reabsorbedbythetubule
(D) Secretedandreabsorbedbytubule
115. The normal values for creatinine
clearancevariesfrom
(A)20–40ml/min (B)40–60ml/min
(C)70–85ml/min (D)95–105ml/min
2395
116. Measurementofinsulinclearancetestisa
measureof
(A) Glomerularfiltrationrate
(B) Filtrationfactor
(C) Renalplasmaflow
(D) Tubularsecretorymass
117. Thepolysaccharideinsulinis
(A) Filtered attheglomerulusbutneither
secretednorreabsorbedbythetubule
(B) Filteredattheglomerulusandsecreted
bythetubule
(C) Filtered at the glomerulus and
reabsorbedbythetubule
(D) Filtered at the glomerulus,secreted
andreabsorbedbythetubule
118. Normalinsulinclearanceis
(A)40ml/1.73sqm (B)60ml/1.73sqm
(C)80ml/1.73sqm(D)120ml/1.73sqm
119. Creatinine EDTA clearance is a test
tomeasure
(A) Renalplasmaflow
(B) Filtrationfraction
(C) Glomerularfiltrationrate
(D) Tubularfunction
120. Theendproductsofsaponification:
(A)glycerol (B)acid
2396
(C)soap (D)Both(A)and(C)
121. ThenormalPAHclearanceforasurfacearea
of1.73sqm.is
(A)200ml/min (B)300ml/min
122. Paraaminohippurateis
(A) Filtered atglomeruliand secreted by
thetubules
(B) Filteredatglomeruliandnotsecretedby
thetubules
(C) Filtered at glomeruli and
reabsorbedcompletely
(D) Not removed completely during a
singlecirculationofthebloodthroughthe
kidney.
123. TheTm forPAH i.ethemaximalsecretory
capacityofthetubuleforPAHcanbeusedto
gavgethe
(A) Extentoftubulardamage
(B) Impairmentofthecapacityofthetubule
(C) Impairmentofrenalplasmaflow
(D) Glomerularfiltrationrate
124. ThenormalTm inmg/min/1.73sqm forPAH
is
(A)20 (B)40
2397
(C)60 (D)80
125. Thenormalrangeoffiltrationfactorinan
adultis
(A)0.10–0.15 (B)0.16–0.21
(C)0.25–0.30 (D)0.35–0.40
126. Thefiltrationfactortendstobenormalin
(A) Earlyessentialhypertension
(B) Malignantphaseofhypertension
(C) Glomerulonephritis
(D) Acutenephritis
127. Thefiltrationfactorisincreasedin
(A) Glomerulonephritis
(B) Malignantphaseofhypertension
(C) Earlyessentialhypertension
(D) Acutenephritis
128. Thefiltrationfactorisdecreasedin
(B) Earlyessentialhypertension
(C) Malignantphaseofhypertension
(D) Starvation
129. Excretion of phenolsulphanpthalein (PSP)7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
reflects
(B) Maximaltabularexcretorycapacity
(C) Filtrationfactor
2398
(D) Renalplasmaflow
130. Whichofthefollowingisapolyunsaturated
fattyacid?
(A)Palmiticacid (B)Palmitoleicacid
(C)Linoleicacid (D)Oleicacid
131. Which of the following is omega-3
polyunsaturatedfattyacid?
(A)Linoleicacid (B)α-Linolenicacid
(C)γ-Linolenicacid (D)Arachidonicacid
132. Triglyceridesare
(A) Heavierthanwater
(B) Majorconstituentsofmembranes
(C) Non-polar
(D) Hydrophilic
133. Cerebronicacidispresentin
(A) Glycerophospholipids
(B) Sphingophospholipids
(C) Galactosylceramide
(D) Gangliosides
134. Acylsphingosineisalsoknownas
(A)Sphingomyelin (B)Ceramide
(C)Cerebroside (D)Sulphatide
135. Thehighestphospholipidscontentisfound
in
(A)Chylomicrons (B)VLDL
(C)LDL (D)HDL
2399
136. Themajorlipidinchylomicronsis
(A)Triglycerides (B)Phospholipids
(C)Cholesterol (D)Freefattyacids
137. Numberofcarbonatomsincholesterolis
(A)17 (B)19
(C)27 (D)30
138. Thelipoproteinrichestincholesterolis
(A)Chylomicrons (B)VLDL(C)
LDL (D)HDL
139. Themajorstorageformoflipidsis
(A) Esterifiedcholesterol
(B) Glycerophospholipids
(C) Triglycerides
(D) Sphingolipids
140. Cerebonicacidispresentin
(A) Triglycerides
(B) Cerebrosides
(C) Esterifiedcholestrol
(D) Sphingomyelin
141. Thenitrogenousbaseinlecithinis
(A)Ethanolamine (B)Choline
(C)Serine (D)Betaine
142. Allthe following are omega-6-fatty acids
except
(C)γ-Linolenicacid (D)Arachidonicacid
2400
143. Allthe following have 18 carbon atoms
except
(A)Linoleicacid (B)Linolenicacid
(C)Arachidonicacid(D)Stearicacid
144. A20-carbonfattyacidamongthefollowing
is
(C)β-Linolenicacid (D)Arachidonicacid
145. Triglycerides are transported from liver
toextrahepatictissuesby
(A)Chylomicrons (B)VLDL (C)
HDL (D)LDL
146. Cholesterolis transported from liver to
extrahepatictissuesby
HDL (D)LDL
147. Elevated plasma level of the following
projectsagainstatherosclerosis:
HDL (D)LDL
148. All the following amino acids are
nonessentialexcept
(A)Alanine (B)Histidine
(C)Cysteine (D)Proline
149. SulphydrylgroupispresentinFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 79
(A)Cysteine(B)Methionine(C)Both(A)
2401
and(B)(D)Noneofthese
150. Oligosaccharide-pyrophosphoryldolicholis
requiredforthesynthesisof
(A) N-linkedglycoproteins
(B) O-linkedglycoproteins
(C) GPI-linkedglycoproteins
(D) Allofthese
151. InN-linkedglycoproteins,oligosaccharideis
attachedtoproteinthroughits
(A)Asparagineresidue(B)Glutamineresidue
(C)Arginineresidue (D)Lysineresidue
152. Dehovosynthesisoffattyacidsoccursin
(A)Cytosol (B)Mitochondria
(C)Microsomes (D)Allofthese
153. AcylCarrierProteincontainsthevitamin:
(A)Biotin (B)Lipoicacid
(C)Pantothenicacid(D)Folicacid
154. Which ofthe following is required as a
reductantinfattyacidsynthesis?
(A)NADH (B)NADPH
(C)FADH2 (D)FMNH2
155. Hepaticliponenesisisstimulatedby:
(A)cAMP (B)Glucagon
(C)Epinephrine (D)Insulin
156. Denovosynthesisoffattyacidsrequiresall
ofthefollowingexcept
2402
(A)Biotin (B)NADH
(C)Panthothenicacid(D)ATP
157. AcetylCoAcarboxylaseregulatesfattyacid
synthesis by which of the following
mechanism?
(A) Allostericregulation
(B) Covalentmodification
(C) Inductionandrepression
(D) Allofthese
158. β-Oxidation offattyacidsrequiresallthe
followingcoenzymesexcept
(A)CoA (B)FAD
(C)NAD (D)NADP
159. Whichofthefollowingcanbeoxidizedbyβ-
oxidationpathway?
(A) Saturatedfattyacids
(B) Monosaturatedfattyacids
(C) Polyunsaturatedfattyacids
(D) Allofthese
160. PropionylCoAisformedonoxidationof
(A) Monounsaturatedfattyacids
(B) Polyunsaturatedfattyacids
(C) Fattyacidswithoddnumberofcarbon
atoms
(D) Noneofthese
161. An enzyme required for the synthesis
2403
ofketonebodiesaswellascholesterolis
(A) AcetylCoAcarboxylase
(B) HMGCoAsynthetase
(C) HMGCoAreductase
(D) HMGCoAlyase
162. Ketonebodiesaresynthesizedin
(A)Adiposetissue (B)Liver
(C)Muscles (D)Brain
ketonebodiesaretrueexcept
(A) Theirsynthesis increases in diabetes
mellitus
(B) Theyaresynthesizedinmitchondria
(C) Theycandepletethealkalireserve
(D) Theycanbeoxidizedintheliver
164. Allthefollowingstatementsaboutcarnitine
aretrueexcept
(A) Itcanbesynthesisedinthehumanbody
(B) Itcanbesynthesizedfrom methionine
andlysine
(C) Itisrequiredfortransportofshortchain
fattyacidsintomitochondria
(D) Its deficiency can occur due to
haemodialysis
165. Whichofthefollowingcanbesynthesizedin
thehumanbodyifprecurorsareavailable?
2404
(A)Oleicacid (B)Palmitoleicacid
(C)Arachidonicacid(D)Allofthese
166. All the following can be oxidized by7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
βoxidationexcept
(A) Palmiticacid
(B) Phytanicacid
(C) Linoleicacid
(D) Fattyacidshaving anoddnumberof
carbonatoms
167. Anti-inflammatorycorticosteroidsinhibitthe
synthesisof
(A)Leukotrienes (B)Prostaglandins
(C)Thromboxanes (D)Allofthese
168. Dietshavingahighratioofpolyunsaturated:
saturatedfattyacidscancause
(A) Increaseinserumtriglycerides
(B) Decreaseinserumcholesterol
(C) DecreaseinserumHDL
(D) Skinlesions
169. Thromboxanescause
(A) Vasodilation
(B) Bronchoconstriction
(C) Plateletaggregation
(D) Allofthese
170. Prostaglandinslowercampin
2405
(A)Adiposetissue (B)Lungs
(C)Platelets (D)Adenohypophysis
171. SlowreactingSubstanceofAnaphylaxisisa
mixtureof
(A)Prostaglandins (B)Prostacyclins
(C)Thromboxanes (D)Leukotrienes
172. Dipalmitoyllecithinactsas
(A) Plateletactivatingfactor
(B) Secondmessengerforhormones
(C) Lung surfactant(D) Anti-ketogenic
compound
173. Reichert-Meisslnumber:
(A)0.1NKOH (B)0.5KOH
(C)0.1NNaOH (D)0.5NaOH
174. In glycerophospholipids,a polyunsaturated
fattyacidiscommonlyattachedtowhichof
thefollowingcarbonatomofglycerol?
(A)Carbon1 (B)Carbon2
175. Lysolecithin is formed from lecithin by
removalof
(A)Fattyacidfrom position1
(B)Fattyacidfromposition2
(C) Phosphorylcholine
(D) Choline
176. Sphingosineissynthesizedfrom
2406
(A) PalmitoylCoAandCholine
(B) PalmitoylCoAandethanolamine
(C) PalmitoylCoAandserine
(D) AcetylCoAandcholine
177. For synthesis of sphingosine, all the
followingcoenzymesarerequiredexcept
(A) Pyridoxalphosphate
(B) NADPH
(C) FAD
(D) NAD
178. Cerebrosidescontainallthefollowingexcept
(A)Galactose (B)Sulphate
(C)Sphingosine (D)Fattyacid
179. Niemann-Pick disease results from
deficiencyof
(A)Ceramidase (B)Sphingomyelinase
(C)ArylsulphataseA(D)HexosaminidaseA
180. Chylomicronremnantsarecatabolisedin
(A)Intestine (B)Adiposetissue
(C)Liver (D)Liverandintestine
181. VLDLremnantmaybeconvertedinto
(A)VLDL (B)LDL
(C)HDL (D)Chylomicrons
182. Receptorsforchylomicronremnantsare
(A)ApoAspecific (B)ApoB-48specific
(C)ApoCspecific (D)ApoEspecific
2407
183. LDLreceptorisspecificfor
(A) ApoB-48andApoB100
(B) ApoB-48andApoE
(C) ApoB-100andApoD
(D) ApoB-100andapoD
184. NascentHDLofintestinaloriginlacks
(A)ApoA (B)ApoCFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 81
(C)ApoE (D)ApoCandApoE
185. HDLissynthesizedin
(A)Adiposetissue (B)Liver
(C)Intestine (D)Liverandintestine
186. NascentHDLofintestinaloriginacquiresApo
CandApoEfrom
(A) Chylomicrons
(B) VLDL
(C) LDL
(D) HDLofthehepaticorigin
187. Heparinreleasablehepaticlipaseconverts
(A) VLDLremnantsintoLDL
(B) NascentHDLintoHDL
(C) HDL2intoHDL3
(D) HDL3intoHDL2
188. Activated lecithin cholesterol acyl
transferaseisessentialfortheconversionof
(A) VLDLremnantsintoLDL
(B) NascentHDLintoHDL
2408
(C) HDL2intoHDL3
(D) HDL3intoHDL2
189. Fattylivermaybecausedby
(A) Deficiencyofmethionine
(B) Puromycin
(C) Chronicalcoholism
(D) Allofthese
190. Alcoholdehydrogenaseconvertsethanolinto
(A)AcetylCoA (B)Acetaldehyde
(C)Acetate (D)CO2andH2O
191. Lipidsarestoredinthebodymainlyinthe
formof
(A)Phospholipids (B)Glycolipids
(C)Triglycerides (D)Fattyacids
192. Lipidstoresaremainlypresentin
(A)Liver (B)Brain
(C)Muscles (D)Adiposetissue
193. Glycerol is converted into glycerol-
3phosphateby
(A)Thiokinase (B)Triokinase
(C)Glycerolkinase (D)Allofthese
194. In adipose tissue, glycerol-3-
phosphaterequired for the synthesis of
triglyceridescomesmainlyfrom
(A) Hydrolysisofpre-existingtriglycerides
(B) Hydrolysisofphospholipids
2409
(C) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate formed
inglycolysis
(D) Freeglycerol
195. Glycerolreleased from adipose tissue by
hydrolysisoftriglyceridesismainly
(A) Takenupbyliver
(B) Takenupbyextrahepatictissues
(C) Reutilisedinadiposetissue
(D) Excretedfromthebody
196. Freeglycerolcannotbeusedfortriglyceride
synthesisin
(A)Liver (B)Kidney
(C)Intestine (D)Adiposetissue
197. Adiposetissuelacks
(A) Hormone-sensitivelipase
(B) Glycerolkinase
(C) cAMP-dependentproteinkinase
(D) Glycerol-3-phosphatedehydrogenase
198. A digestive secretion that does not
containanydigestiveenzymeis
(A)Saliva (B)Gastricjuice
(C)Pancreaticjuice (D)Bile
199. Saliva contains a lipase which acts on
triglycerideshaving
(A) Shortchainfattyacids
(B) Mediumchainfattyacids
2410
(C) Longchainfattyacids
(D) Allofthese
200. Salivarylipasehydrolysestheesterbondat
(A) Position1oftriglycerides
(B) Position 2 of triglycerides(C)
Position3oftriglycerides
(D)Allofthese
201. Salivarylipaseconvertsdietarytriglycerides
into
(A) Diglyceridesandfattyacids
(B) Monoglyceridesandfattyacids7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(C) Glycerolandfattyacids
(D) Allofthese
202. Pancreaticlipaserequiresforitsactivity:
(A)Co-lipase (B)Bilesalts
(C)Phospholipids (D)Allofthese
203. Pancreatic lipase converts triacylglycerols
into
(A) 2,3-Diacylglycerol
(B) 1-Monoacylglycerol(C)2-
Monoacylglycerol(D)3-
Monoacylglycerol204.
Oxidationoffattyacids
occurs
(A) Inthecytosol
2411
(B) Inthematrixofmitochondria
(C) Oninnermitochondrialmembrane
(D) Onthemicrosomes
205. Activation offatty acids requires allthe
followingexcept
(A) ATP(B)CoenzymeA
(C)Thiokinase (D)Carnitine
206. Mitochondrialthiokinaseactson
(A) Shortchainoffattyacids
(D) Allofthese
207. Carnitineisrequiredforthetransportof
(A) Triglyceridesoutofliver
(B) Triglyceridesintomitochondria
(C) Shortchainfattyacidsintomitochondria
(D) Longchainfattyacidsintomitochondria
208. Carnitineacylcarnitinetranslocaseispresent
(A) Intheinnermitochondrialmembrane
(B) Inthemitochondrialmatrix
(C) On the outer surface of inner
mitochondrialmembrane
(D) On the inner surface of inner
209. NetATPgenerationoncompleteoxidationof
stearicacidis
2412
(A) 129 (B)131
(C)146 (D)148
210. PropionylCoA formed oxidation offatty
acids having an odd numberofcarbon
atomsisconvertedinto
(A) AcetylCoA
(B) AcetoacetylCoA
(C) D-MethylmalonylCoA
(D) ButyrylCoA
211. α-Oxidationoffattyacidsoccursmainlyin
(A) Liver(B)Brain
(C)Muscles (D)Adiposetissue
212. Refsum’sdiseaseresultsfrom adefectin
thefollowingpathwayexcept
(A) Alpha-oxidationoffattyacids
(B) Beta-oxidationoffattyacids
(C) Gamma-oxidationoffattyacids
(D) Omega-oxidationoffattyacids
213. Theendproductofomega-oxidationoffatty
acids having an even numberofcarbon
atomsis
(A) Adipicacid (B)Subericacid
214. Denovosynthesisoffattyacidsiscatalysed
byamulti-enzymecomplexwhichcontains
(A) One-SHgroup(B)Two-SHgroups
2413
(C)Three-SHgroups (D)Four-SHgroups
215. Fatdepotsarelocatedin
(A) Intermuscularconnectivetissue
(B) Mesentary
(C) Omentum
(D) Allofthese
216. Salivarylipaseissecretedby
(A) Parotidglands
(B) Sub-maxillaryglands
(C) Dorsalsurfaceoftongue
(D) Noneofthese
217. Co-lipaseisa
(A) Bilesalt(B)Vitamin
(C)Protein (D)Phospholipid
218. PlasmabecomesmilkyFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 83
(A) DuetohighlevelofHDL
(B) DuetohighlevelofLDL
(C) Duringfasting
(D) Afterameal
219. Mitochondrialmembraneispermeableto
(A) Shortchainfattyacids
(D) Allofthese
220. Duringeachcycleofβ-oxidation
(A) One carbon atom is removed from
2414
thecarboxylendofthefattyacid
(B) Onecarbonatom isremovedfrom the
methylendofthefattyacid
(C) Twocarbonatomsareremovedfrom
thecarboxylendofthefattyacid
(D) Twocarbonatomsareremovedfrom
themethylendofthefattyacid
221. Net generation of energy on complete
oxidationofpalmiticacidis
(A) 129ATPequivalents
(B) 131 ATP equivalents(C) 146 ATP
equivalents
(D)148ATPequivalents
222. Net generation of energy on complete
oxidationofa17-carbonfattyacidis
(A) Equaltotheenergygenerationfroma16-
carbonfattyacid
(B) Equalto the energygeneration from
an18-carbonfattyacid
(C) Lessthantheenergygenerationfrom
a16-carbonfattyacid
(D) Inbetweentheenergygenerationfrom
a16-carbonfattyacidandan18-carbon
fattyacid
223. Netenergygenerationoncompleteoxidation
oflinoleicacidis
2415
(A) 148ATPequivalents
equivalents
(D)142ATPequivalents
224. Extramitochondrialsynthesisoffattyacids
occursin
(A) Mammaryglands(B)Lungs
(C)Brain (D)Allofthese
225. One functionalsub-unit of multi-enzyme
complexfordenovosynthesisoffattyacids
contains
(A) One—SHgroup
(B) Two—SHgroups
(C) Three—SHgroups
(D) Four—SHgroups
226. NADPHrequiredforfattyacidsynthesiscan
comefrom
(A) Hexosemonophosphateshunt
(B) Oxidativedecarboxylationofmalate
(C) Extramitochondrial oxidation of
isocitrate
(D) Allofthese
227. Fattylivermaybepreventedbyallofthe
followingexcept
(A) Choline (B)Betaine
(C)Methionine (D)Ethionine
2416
228. Humandesaturaseenzymesystem cannot
introduce a double bond in a fatty acid
beyond
(A) Carbon9(B)Carbon6
(C)Carbon5 (D)Carbon3
229. Which ofthe following lipid is absorbed
activelyfromintestines?
(A) Glycerol
(B) Cholesterol
(C) Monoacylglycerol
(D) Noneofthese
230. C22 and C24,fatty acids required forthe
synthesis of sphingolipids in brain are
formedby
(A) Denovosynthesis
(B) Microsomalchainelongation
(C) Mitochondrialchainelongation
(D) Allofthese
231. Sphingomyelins:
(A) Phospholipids (B)Nitrolipids
(C)Alcohols (D)Noneofthese
232. All of the following statements about7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
hypoglycinaretrueexcept
(A) Itisaplanttoxin
(B) Itcauseshypoglycaemia
2417
(C) Itinhibitsoxidationofshortchainfatty
acids
(D) Itinhibitsoxidationoflongchainfatty
acids
233. Synthesisofprostaglandinsisinhibitedby
(A) Glucocorticoids (B)Aspirin
(C)Indomethacin (D)Allofthese
234. Lipo-oxygenaseisrequiredforthesynthesis
of
(A) Prostaglandins (B)Leukotrienes
(C)Thromboxanes (D)Allofthese
multiplesclerosisaretrueexcept
(A) There is loss ofphospholipids from
whitematter
(B) Thereislossofsphingolipidsfromwhite
matter
(C) Thereislossofesterifiedcholesterol
fromwhitematter
(D) White matterresembles gray matter
incomposition
236. Afterenteringcytosol,freefattyacidsare
boundto
(A) Albumin (B)Globulin
(C)Z-protein (D)Noneofthese
237. Release offree fattyacidsfrom adipose
2418
tissueisincreasedbyallofthefollowing
except
(A) Glucagon (B)Epinephrine (C)Growth
hormone(D)Insulin
238. Allthefollowing statementsaboutbrown
adiposetissuearetrueexcept
(A) Itisrichincytochromes
(B) Itoxidizesglucoseandfattyacids
(C) Oxidation and phosphorylation are
tightlycoupledinit
(D) Dinitrophenolhasnoeffectonit
239. Lovastatinandmevastatinlower
(A) Serumtriglycerides
(B) Serumcholesterol
(C) Serumphospholipids
(D) Allofthese
240. Lovastatinisa
(A) Competitive inhibitor of acetyl CoA
carboxylase(B)Competitiveinhibitorof
HMGCoAsynthetase
(C) Non-competitive inhibitor of HMG
CoAreductase
(D) Competitive inhibitor of HMG CoA
reductase
241. Abetalipoproteinaemiaoccursduetoablock
inthesynthesisof
2419
(A) ApoproteinA(B)ApoproteinB
(C)ApoproteinC (D)Cholesterol
242. Allofthefollowingstatementsabout
Tangierdiseasearetrueexcept
(A) ItisadisorderofHDLmetabolism
(B) Itsinheritanceisautosomalrecessive
(C) Apoproteins A-I and A-II are not
synthesised
(D) PlasmaHDLisincreased
243. Genetic deficiency of lipoprotein lipase
causes hyperlipoproteinaemia offollowing
type:
(A) TypeI (B)TypeIIa
(C)TypeIIb (D)TypeV
244. Chylomicronsarepresentinfastingblood
samples in hyperlipoproteinaemia of
followingtypes:
(A) TypesIandIIa (B)TypesIIaandIIb
(C)TypesIandV (D)TypesIVandV
245. Glutathioneisaconstituentof
(A) LeukotrieneA4 (B)ThromboxaneA1
(C)LeukotrieneC4 (D)Noneofthese
246. Prostaglandinsareinactivatedby
(A) 15-Hydroxyprostaglandin
dehydrogenase
(B) Cyclo-oxygenase
2420
(C) Lipo-oxygenase
(D) Noneofthese
247. Phenylbutazoneandindomethacininhibit
(A) PhospholipaseA1(B)PhospholipaseA2FATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 85
(C)Cyclo-oxygenase(D)Lipo-oxygenase
248. Prostaglandinsstimulate
(A) Aggregationofplatelets
(B) Lipolysisinadiposetissue
(C) Bronchodilatation
(D) Gastricacidsecretion
249. For extramitochondrial fatty acid
synthesis,acetylCoAmaybeobtainedfrom
(A) Citrate (B)Isocitrate
(C)Oxaloacetate (D)Succinate
250. Fluidityofmembranesisincreasedbythe
following constituent except (A)
Polyunsaturatedfattyacids
(B) Saturatedfattyacids
(C) Integralproteins
(D) Cholesterol
251. Transition temperature ofmembranesmay
beaffectedbythefollowingconstituentof
membranes:
(A) Peripheralproteins(B)Integralproteins
(C)Cholesterol (D)Oligosachharides
252. AcetylCoA formed from pyruvatecanbe
2421
usedforthesynthesisofallthefollowing
except
(A) Glucose (B)Fattyacids
(C)Cholesterol (D)Steroidhormones
253. Whichofthefollowingcanbeusedasa
sourceofenergyinextrahepatictissues?
(A) Acetoacetate(B)Acetone
254. Anti-inflammatorycorticosteroidsinhibit
(A) PhospholipaseA1(B)PhospholipaseA2
(C)Cyclo-oxygenase(D)Lipo-oxygenase
255. Cyclo-oxygenaseisinvolvedinthesynthesis
of
(A) Prostaglandins (B)Thromboxanes
256. Leukotrienescause
(A) Increaseincapillarypermeability
(B) Aggregationofplatelets
(C) Bronchodilatation
(D) Noneofthese
257. Prostaglandinsdecreaseallofthefollowing
except
(A) Gastricacidsecretion
(B) Bloodpressure
(C) Uterinecontraction
(D) Plateletaggregation
2422
258. Hypocholesterolaemiacanoccurin
(A) Hyperthyroidism
(D) Diabetesmellitus
259. De novo synthesis and oxidation of
fattyacidsdifferinthefollowingrespect:
(A) Synthesis occurs in cytosol and
oxidationinmitochondria
(B) Synthesis is decreased and
oxidationincreasedbyinsulin
(C) NADHisrequiredinsynthesisandFAD
inoxidation
(D) MalonylCoAisformedduringoxidation
butnotduringsynthesis
260. Freefattyacidsreleasedfromadiposetissue
aretransportedinbloodby
(A) Albumin (B)VLDL
(C)LDL (D)HDL
261. β-Galactosidaseisdeficientin
(A) Fabry’sdisease
(B) Krabbe’sdisease
(D) Metachromaticleukodystrophy
262. The enzyme deficient in metachromatic
leukodystrophyis
2423
(A) ArylsulphataseA(B)HexosaminidaseA
(C)Ceramidase (D)Sphingomyelinase
generalizedgangliosidosisaretrueexcept
(A) It results from deficiency of GM1-
βGangliosidase
(B) Breakdown of GM1 ganglioside is
impaired7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(C) GM2gangliosideaccumulatesinliverand
elsewhere
(D) Itleadstomentalretardation
264. HexosaminidaseAisdeficientin
(B) Gaucher’sdisease
(C) Niemann-Pickdisease
(D) Fabry’sdisease
265. Mentalretardationoccursin
(B) Gaucher’sdisease
(C) Niemann-Pickdisease
(D) Allofthese
266. TheenzymedeficientinFabry’sdiseaseis
(A) α-Galactosidase (B)β-Galactosidase
(C)α-Glucosidase (D)β-Glucosidase
267. Highest protein content amongst the
2424
followingispresentin
(A) Wheat (B)Rice
(C)Pulses (D)Soyabean
268. Dailyproteinrequirementofanadultmanis
(A) 0.5gm/kgofbodyweight
(B) 0.8gm/kgofbodyweight(C)1.0gm/kg
ofbodyweight
(D)1.5gm/kgofbodyweight
269. Dailyproteinrequirementofanadultwoman
is
(A) 0.5gm/kgofbodyweight
(B) 0.8gm/kgofbodyweight(C)1.0gm/kg
ofbodyweight
(D)1.5gm/kgofbodyweight
270. Cysteinecanpartiallymeettherequirement
of
(A) Phenylalanine(B)Threonine
(C)Methionine (D)Noneofthese
271. Invisiblefatispresentin
(A) Milk(B)Coconutoil
(C)Groundnutoil (D)Hydrogenatedoils
272. Visiblefatispresentin
(A) Milk(B)Pulses
(C)Coconutoil (D)Eggyolk
273. Fatcontentofeggsisabout
(A) 7% (B)10%
2425
(C)13% (D)16%
274. Fatcontentofpulsesisabout
(A) 5% (B)10%
(C)15% (D)20%
275. Predominantfattyacidsinmeatare
(A) Saturated
(B) Monounsaturated
(C) Polyunsaturated
(D) Monoandpoly-unsaturated
276. Oilshavingmorethan50%polyunsaturated
fattyacidsincludeallofthefollowingexcept
(A) Groundnutoil(B)Soyabeanoil
(C)Sunfloweroil (D)Saffloweroil
277. Cholesterolispresentinallofthefollowing
except
(A) Egg(B)Fish
(C)Milk (D)Pulses
278. Which of the following has the
highestcholesterolcontent?
(A) Meat(B)Fish
(C)Butter (D)Milk
279. Which of the following has the
highestcholesterolcontent?
(A) Eggyolk(B)Eggwhite
(C)Meat (D)Fish
280. Thefollowingcontainstheleastcholesterol:
2426
(A) Milk(B)Meat
(C)Butter (D)Cheese
281. Whichofthefollowingconstitutesfibreor
roughageinfood?
(A) Cellulose(B)Pectin
(C)Inulin (D)Allofthese
282. Thestarchcontentofwheatisabout
(A) 50% (B)60%
(C)70% (D)80%
283. Thestarchcontentofpulsesisabout
(A) 50% (B)60%
(C)70% (D)80%FATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 87
284. A significant source of starch among
vegetablesis
(A) Radish (B)Spinach
(C)Potato (D)Cauliflower
285. Thecyclicringpresentinallthesteroids:
(A) Cyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene
(B) Nitropentano
(C) both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
286. InAmes’assay,additionofacarcinogento
theculturemedium allowsS.typhimurium to
grow
(A) Inthepresenceofhistidine
(B) Inthepresenceofarginine
2427
(C) Intheabsenceofhistidine
(D) Intheabsenceofarginine
287. InAmes’assay,liverhomogenateisincluded
intheculturemediumbecause
(A) It converts pro-carcinogens into
carcinogens
(B) Livercanmetabolisehistidine
(C) Salmonellamainlyinfectsliver
(D) Liverisverysusceptibletocancer
288. Bilepigmentsarepresentandurobilinogen
absentinurinein
(A) Haemolyticjaundice
(B) Hepatocellularjaundice(C)Obstructive
jaundice
(D)Crigler-Najjarsyndrome
289. Bilepigmentsareabsentandurobilinogen
increasedinurinein
(B) Hepatocellularjaundice
(D) Rotor’ssyndrome
290. Inobstructivejaundice,urineshows
(A) Absence of bile pigments and
urobilinogen
(B) Presence of bile pigments and
urobilinogen
2428
(C) Absenceofbilepigmentsandpresence
ofurobilinogen
(D) Presenceofbilepigmentsandabsence
ofurobilinogen
291. Inhaemolyticjaundice,urineshows
(A) Absence of bile pigments and
urobilinogen
(B) Presence of bile pigments and
urobilinogen
(C) Absenceofbilepigmentsandpresence
ofurobilinogen
(D) Presenceofbilepigmentsandabsence
ofurobilinogen
292. Serumalbuminmaybedecreasedin
(D) Allofthese
293. Normalrangeofserumalbuminis
(A) 2.0–3.6gm/dl (B)2.0–3.6mg/dl
(C)3.5–5.5gm/dl (D)3.5–5.5mg/dl
294. Normalrangeofserumglobulinis
(A) 2.0–3.6mg/dl (B)2.0–3.6gm/dl
(C)3.5–5.5mg/dl (D)3.5–5.5gm/dl
295. Serumalbumin:globulinratioisalteredin
(A) Gilbert’sdisease (B) Haemolytic
2429
jaundice
(C)Viralhepatitis (D)Stonesinbileduct
296. Esterificationofcholesteroloccursmainlyin
(C)Muscles (D)Kidneys
297. Galactoseintolerancecanoccurin
(D) Noneofthese
298. Prothrombinissynthesisedin
(A) Erythrocytes
(B) Reticulo-endothelialcells
(C) Liver
(D) Kidneys7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
299. Prothrombintimeremainsprolongedeven
afterparenteralsadministrationofvitaminK
in
(B) Liverdamage
(C) Biliaryobstruction
(D) Steatorrhoea
obstructivejaundicearetrueexcept
(A) Conjugatedbilirubininserumisnormal
2430
(B) Totalbilirubininserumisraised
(C) Bilesaltsarepresentinurine
(D) Serumalkalinephosphataseisraised
obstructivejaundicearetrueexcept
(A) Prothrombintimemaybeprolongeddue
toimpairedabsorptionofvitaminK
(B) Serum alkaline phosphatase may be
raisedduetoincreasedreleaseofthe
enzymefromlivercells
(C) Bilesaltsmayentersystemiccirculation
duetobiliaryobstruction
(D) There is no defectin conjugation of
bilirubin
302. Atesttoevaluatedetoxifyingfunctionofliver
is
(A) Serumalbumin:globulinratio
(B) Galactosetolerancetest
(C) Hippuricacidtest
(D) Prothrombintime
303. Hippuricacidisformedfrom
(A) Benzoicacidandalanine
(B) Benzoicacidglycine
(C) Glucuronicacidandalanine
(D) Glucuronicacidandglycine
304. Anenzymewhichisexcretedinurineis
2431
(A) Lactasedehydrogenase
(B) Amylase
(C) Ornithinetranscarbamoylase
(D) Noneofthese
305. Serum gamma glutamyltranspeptidaseis
raisedin
(B) Myocardialinfarction
(C) Alcoholichepatitis
(D) Acutecholecystitis
306. Oliguriacanoccurin
(C) Acuteglomerulonephritis
307. Ureaclearanceisthe
(A) Amountofureaexcretedperminute
(B) Amountofureapresentin100mlof
urine
(C) Volumeofbloodclearedofureainone
minute
(D) Amountofureafilteredbyglomeruliin
oneminute
308. Inulinclearanceisameasureof
(A) Glomerular filtration rate(B) Tubular
secretionflow
2432
(C) Tubularreabsorptionrate
(D) Renalplasmaflow
309. Phenolsulphonephthaleinexcretiontestisan
indicatorof
(A) Glomerular filtration(B) Tubular
secretion
(C) Tubularreabsorption
(D) Renalbloodlow
310. Para-amino hippurateexcretion testisan
indicatorof
(A) Glomerular filtration(B) Tubular
secretion
(C) Tubularreabsorption
(D) Renalplasmaflow
311. Renalplasmaflowofanaverageadultmanis
(A) 120–130ml/minute
(B) 325–350ml/minute
(C) 480–52ml/minute
(D) 560–830ml/minute
312. Filtrationfractioncanbecalculatedfrom
(A) Standard urea clearance and PSP
excretion
(B) Maximum urea clearance and PSPFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 89
excretion
(C) Maximum urea clearance and
PAHclearance
2433
(D) InulinclearanceandPAHclearance
313. Normalfiltrationfractionisabout
(A) 0.2 (B)0.4
(C)0.6 (D)0.8
314. Filtrationfractionisincreasedin
(B) Chronicglomerulonephritis
(C) Hypertension
(D) Hypotension
315. Amongthefollowing,atestofGlomerular
functionis
(A) Ureaclearance
(B) PSPexcretiontest
(C) PAHclearance
(D) Hippuricacidexcretiontest
316. Estersoffattyacidswithhigheralcohols
otherthanglycerolaresaidtobe
(A) Waxes (B)Fats(C)Both(A)and(B)
(D)Noneofthese
317. Thecombinationofanaminoalcohol,fatty
acidandsialicacidform
(A) Phospholipids (B)Sulpholipids
(C)Glycolipids (D)Aminolipids
318. Hydrolysisoffatsbyalkaliiscalled
(A) Saponificationnumber
(B) Saponification
2434
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
319. The numberofmilliliters of0.1 N KOH
required to neutralize the insoluble fatty
acidsfrom5gmsoffatiscalled
(A) Acidnumber(B)Acetylnumber
(C)Halogenation (D)Polenskenumber
320. Therateoffattyacidoxidationisincreased
by
(A) Phospholipids (B)Glycolipids
(C)Aminolipids (D)Allofthese
321. Lecithincontainsanitrogenousbasenamed
as
(A) Ethanolamine(B)Choline
(C)Inositol (D)Allofthese
322. Lecithinscontainanunsaturatedfattyacid
atposition:
(A) α (B)αandβ
(C)β (D)Noneofthese
323. Lecithins are soluble in ordinarysolvents
except
(A) Benzene(B)Ethylalcohol
(C)Methylalcohol (D)Acetone
324. Lecithinscombinewithproteintoform
(A) Phosphoprotein (B)Mucoprotein
(C)Lipoprotein (D)Glycoprotein
2435
325. Insteadofesterlinkplasmalogenspossess
anotherlinkinposition:
(A) α (B)β
(C)γ (D)Noneofthese
326. The alkylradicalin plasmalogen is an
alcohol:
(A) Saturated (B)Unsaturated
327. The concentration ofsphingomyelins are
increasedin
(A) Gaucher’sdisease(B)Fabry’sdisease
(C) Fabriledisease
(D) Niemann-Pickdisease
328. Sphingomyelins contain a complexamino
alcoholnamedas
(A) Serine (B)Lysolecithin
(C)Sphingosine (D)Glycol
329. Thetypesofsphingomyelinsare
(A) 1 (B)3
(C)4 (D)5
330. Glycolipidscontainanaminoalcohol:
(A) Sphingosine (B)Iso-sphingosine
331. Cerebrosidesmayalsobeclassifiedas
(A) Sphingolipids(B)Sulpholipids
(C)Aminolipids (D)Glycolipids7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2436
9
332. Gaucher’sdiseaseischaracterizedspecially
bytheincreasein
(A) Lignocericacid(B)Nervonicacid
(C) Cerebomicacid
(D) Hydroxynervonicacid
333. Gangliosidesaretheglycolipidsoccurringin
(A) Brain (B)Liver
(C)Kidney (D)Muscle
334. Lipoproteinpresentincellmembraneisby
nature:
(A) Hydrophilic (B)Hydrophobic
335. Thedensityoflipoproteinsincreasesasthe
proteincontent
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Highlydecreases
(D) Slightlyandpromptlydecreases
336. Lipoprotiens may be identified more
accuratelybymeansof
(A) Electrophoresis
(B) Ultracentrifugation
(C) Centrifugation
(D) Immunoelectrophoresis
337. Verylowdensitylipoproteinsarealsoknown
2437
as
(A) β-lipoproteins(B)Preβ--lipoproteins
(C)α-lipoproteins (D)Noneofthese
338. Theproteinmoietyoflipoproteinisknownas
(A) Apoprotein (B)Pre-protein
(C)Post-protein (D)Pseudoprotein
339. Theβ-lipoproteinfractionincreasesinsevere
(A) DiabetesMellitus(B)Uremia
(C)Nephritis (D)Musculardystrophy
340. ∆
indicatesadoublebondbetweencarbon
atomsofthefattyacids:
(A) 8and9 (B)9and10
(C)9and11 (D)9and12
341. Thenumberofcarbonatomsindecanoic
acidpresentinbutter:
(A) 6 (B)8
(C)10 (D)12
342. Arachidonic acid contains the numberof
doublebonds:
(A) 2 (B)3
(C)4 (D)5
343. Theprostaglandinsaresynthesizedfrom
(A) Arachidonicacid(B)Oleicacid
(C)Linoleicacid (D)Linolenicacid
2438
344. TheIodinenumberofessentialfattyacidsof
vegetableoils:
(A) High(B)Veryhigh
(C)Verylow (D)Low
345. Cholesterolisa
(A) Animalsterol(B)M.F.C27H46O
(C)5methylgroups (D)Allofthese
346. Waxescontainhigheralcoholsnamedas
(A) Methyl (B)Ethyl
(C)Phytyl (D)Cetyl
347. Lieberman-Burchardreactionisperformedto
detect
(A) Cholesterol (B)Glycerol
(C)Fattyacid (D)VitaminD
348. Lipose present in the stomach cannot
hydrolyzefatsowingto
(A) Alkalinity(B)Acidity
(C)Highacidity (D)Neutrality
349. Fattyacidsareoxidizedby
(A) α-oxidation (B)β-oxidation
(C)ω-oxidation (D)Allofthese
350. Thefattyacidscontainingevennumberand
oddnumberofcarbonatomsaswellasthe
unsaturatedfattyacidsareoxidizedby
(A) α-oxidation (B)β-oxidation
(C)ω-oxidation (D)Allofthese
2439
351. Longchainfattyacidsarefirstactivatedto
acylCoAinthe
(A) Cytosol (B)Mitochodria
(C)Ribosomes (D)Microsome
352. Long chain acyl CoA penetrates
mitochondriainthepresenceofFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 91
(A) Palmitate(B)Carnitine
(C)Sorbitol (D)DNP
353. Acyl-CoAdehydrogenaseconvertsAcylCoA
toα-βunsaturatedacyl-CoAinpresenceof
thecoenzyme:
(A) NAD
(B)NADP
(C)ATP (D)FAD
354. Fortheactivationoflongchainfattyacids
theenzymethiokinaserequiresthecofactor:
(A) Mg
++
(B)Ca
++
(C)Mn
++
(D)K
355. ω-oxidationtakesplacebythehydroxylase
2440
inmicrosomesinvolving
(A) Cytochromeb (B)Cytochromec
(C)Cytochromep-4500(D)Cytochromea3
356. Carboxylationofacetyl—CoAtomalonyl
—CoAtakesplaceinpresenceof
(A) FAD
(B)Biotin
(C)NAD
(D)NADP
357. Malonyl-CoAreactswiththecentral
(A) —SHgroup (B)—NH2group
(C)—COOHgroup (D)—CH2OHgroup
358. Fatty acid synthesis takes place in the
presenceofthecoenzyme:
(A) NAD
(B)ReducedNAD
(C)NADP
(D)ReducedNADP
359. FattyacidsareactivatedtoacylCoAbythe
enzymethiokinase:
(A) NAD
2441
(B)NADP
(C)CoA (D)FAD
360. Phospholipidshelptheoxidationof
(A) Glycerol (B) Fatty acids (C)
Glycerophosphates(D)Noneofthese
361. The desaturation and chain elongation
system ofpolyunsaturatedfattyacidsare
greatlydiminishedintheabsenceof
(A) Insulin (B)Glycagon(C)Epinephrine
(D)Thyroxine
362. Prostaglandins are liberated in the
circulationbythestimulationof
(A) Anteriorpituitaryglands
(B) Posteriorpituitaryglands
(C) Adrenalgland
(D) Thyroidgland
363. Prostaglandins have a common structure
based on prostanoicacid which contains
carbonatoms:
(A) 12 (B)16
(C)18 (D)20
364. Thecarbonchainsofprostanoicacidare
bondedatthemiddleofthechainbya
(A) 5-memberedring(B)6-memberedring
2442
(C)8-memberedring(D)Noneofthese
365. All active prostaglandins have atleast
onedoublebondbetweenpositions:
(A) 7and8 (B)9and10
(C)11and12 (D)13and14
366. Theenzymesystemsforlengthening and
shorteningforsaturatinganddesaturatingof
fattyacidsoccurin
(A) Intestine(B)Muscle
(C)Kidney (D)Liver
367. Which ofthe following are classified as
essentialfattyacids?
(A) Arachidonicacid(B)Oleicacid
(C)Aceticacid (D)Butyricacid
368. Prostaglandinsaresynthesizedinthebody
from
(A) Myristicacid (B)Arachidonicacid
(C)Stearicacid (D)Lignocericacid
369. Allthefollowingsaturatedfattyacidsare
presentinbufferexcept
(A) Butyricacid (B)Capryllicacid
(C)Caproicacid (D)Capricacid
370. Biologicalfunctionsoflipidsinclude
(A) Sourceofenergy
(B) Insulatingmaterial
(C) Maintenanceofcellularintegrity
2443
(D) Allofthese
371. Saponificationnumberis
(A) mgofKOHrequiredtosaponifyonegm
offatoroil7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(B) mgofKOH requiredtoneutralizefree
fattyacidsofonegmsoffat
(C) mgofKOH requiredtoneutralizethe
aceticacidobtainedbysaponificationof
one gm of fat after it has been
acetylated
(D) Noneofthese
372. Lipidshavethefollowingproperties:
(A) Insoluble in waterand soluble in fat
solvent
(B) Highenergycontent
(C) Structuralcomponentofcellmembrane
(D) Allofthese
373. Carbohydratemoietyincerebrosidesis
(A) Glucose (B)Sucrose
(C)Galactose (D)Maltose
374. Whichofthefollowingisnotanunsaturated
fattyacid?
(A) Oleicacid (B)Stearicacid
(C)Linaoleicacid (D)Palmiticacid
375. All the following are functions of
2444
prostaglandinsexcept
(A) LoweringofB.P
(B) Introductionoflabour
(C) Antiinflammatory
(D) Preventionofmyocardialinfraction
376. Calorificvalueoflipidspergmis
(A) 4Kcal (B)8Kcal
(C)9Kcal (D)Noneofthese
377. Fattyacidpresentinkerotinis
(A) Lignocericacid (B)Cerebromicacid
(C)Nervonicacid (D)Hydroxynervonicacid
378. Allthefollowingareketonesexcept
(A) Xylulose(B)Ribolose
(C)Erythrose (D)Fructose
379. Saponification:
(A) Hydrolysisoffatsbyalkali
(B) Hydrolysisofglycerolbyliposes
(C) Esterification
(D) Reduction
380. Numberofmlof0.1 N KOH required to
neutralizefattyacidsfrom5gmsoffat:
(A) Iodinenumber
(B) Polenskenumber
(C) Reichert-Miesslnumber
(D) Noneofthese
381. HydrateddensityofHDlipoproteinsis
2445
(A) 0.94gm/ml
(B) 0.94–1.006gm/ml
(C) 1.006–1.063gm/ml
(D) 1.063–1.21gm/ml
382. Saponificationnumberindicates
(A) Unsaturationinfat
(B) AverageM.Woffattyacid
(C) Acetylnumber
(D) Acidnumber
383. AcroleinTestispositivefor
(A) Glycerol(B)Prostaglandins
(C)Carbohydrates (D)Proteins
384. Iodinenumberdenotes
(A) Degreeofunsaturation
(B) Saponificationnumber
(C) Acidnumber
(D) Acetylnumber
385. Maximumenergyproducedby
(A) Fats(B)Carbohydrates
(C)Proteins (D)Nucleicacids
386. Lecithinsarecomposedof
(A) Glycerol+Fattyacids+Phosphoricacid
+Choline
(B) Glycerol+Fattyacids+Phosphoricacid
+Ethanolamine
(C) Glycerol+Fattyacids+Phosphoricacid
2446
+Serine
(D) Glycerol+Fattyacids+Phosphoricacid
+Beaine
387. Sphingomyelinsarecomposedoffattyacids,
phosphoricacidand
(A) Sphingosineandcholine
(B) Glycerolandsphingosine
(C) GlycerolandSerine
(D) GlycerolandCholineFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 93
388. Depotfats ofmammalian cells comprise
mostlyof
(A) Cholesterol (B)Cholesterolesters
(C)Triacylglycerol (D)Phospholipids
389. When choline oflecithine is replaced by
ethanolaminetheproductis
(A) Sphingomyelin (B)Cephalin
(C)Plasmalogens (D)Lysolecithine
390. Whichofthefollowingisahydroxyfattyacid?
(A) Oleicacid (B)Ricinoleicacid
(C)Caproicacid (D)Stearicacid
391. Acroleintestisansweredby
(C)Glycosides (D)Sphingol
392. Thesmelloffatturnedrancidisdueto
(A) Presence of vit E (B) Presence of
quinones(C)Phenols(D)Volatilefatty
2447
acids
393. Phospholipidsareimportantcellmembrane
componentsbecause
(A) Theyhaveglycerol
(B) Theycanformbilayersinwater
(C) Theyhave both polarand non polar
potions(D)Theycombinecovalentlywith
proteins
394. Which one of the following is not a
phospholipid?
(A) Lecithin (B)Plasmalogen
(C)Lysolecithin (D)Gangliosides
395. A fatty acid which is not synthesized
inhumanbodyandhastobesuppliedinthe
diet:
(A) Palmiticacid(B)Oleicacid
(C)Linoleicacid (D)Stearicacid
396. Incephalin,cholineisreplacedby
(A) Serine (B)Ethanolamine
(C)Betaine (D)Sphingosine
397. The triacyl glycerol present in plasma
lipoproteinsarehydrolyzedby
(A) Linquallipase(B)Pancreaticlipase
(C)Colipase (D)Lipoproteinlipase
398. Amphiphaticlipidsare
(A) Hydrophilic (B)Hydrophobic
2448
(C)Both(A)and(B) (D)Lipophilic
399. Whichofthefollowingisnotessentialfatty
acid?
(A) Oleicacid (B)Linoleicacid
(C)Arachidonicacid(D)Linolenicacid
400. Thecalorificvalueoflipidis
(A) 4.0Kcal/gm (B)6.0Kcal/gm
(C)9.0Kcal/gm (D)15Kcal/gm
401. Rancidity ofbutteris prevented by the
additionof
(A) VitaminD (B)Tocopherols
(C)Presenceofpriotin(D)Presenceof‘Cu’
402. Sphingomyelinsonhydrolysisyields
(A) Glycerol,fatty acids,phosphoric acid
andcholine
(B) Glycerol,sphingosine,cholineandfatty
acids
(C) Sphingosine,phosphoricacid,Glycerol
andinositol
(D) Sphingosine,fattyacids,phosphoricacid
andcholine
403. Inherited deficiency of enzyme
cerebrosidaseproduces
(A) Fabry’sdisease
(B) Niemannpickdisease
2449
(D) Tay-sach’sdisease
404. Phosphatidicacidonhydrolysisyields
(A) Glycerol,fattyacids,phosphoric acid,
choline(B) Glycerol, fatty acids,
phosphoricacid
(C) Glycerol,fattyacids,phosphoricacid,
Glucose
(D) Sphingol,fattyacids,phosphoricacid
405. The maximum numberofdouble bonds
presentinessentialfattyacidis
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
406. Cerebrosidesarecomposedof
(A) Sphingosine, fatty acids, glycerol7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
andphosphoricacid
(B) Sphingosine,fattyacids,galactose
(C) Glycerol,fattyacids,galactose
(D) Glycerol,fattyacids,galactose,sphingol
407. Acetoaceticacidandβ-OH butyricacidare
formedas
(A) Kidneys (B)Heart
(C)Liver (D)Intestine
(A) Lysine (B)Leucine
2450
409. Theclassoflipoproteinshavingabeneficial
effectinatherosclerosisis
(A) Lowdensityoflipoproteins
(B) verylowdensitylipoproteins
(C) Highdensitylipoproteins
(D) Chylomicrons
410. Cholesterol is the precursor for the
biosynthesisof
(A) fattyacid(B)prostaglandins
(C)bileacids (D)sphingmyelin
411. Which of the following condition is
characterized by ketonuria but without
glycosuria?
(C) Prolongedstarvation
(D) Addison’sdisease
412. Ketonebodiesareformedin
(A) Kidney (B)Liver
(C)Heart (D)Intestines
413. Changesinserumhighdensitylipoproteins
(HDL)aremoretrulyreflectedbythoseof
(A) HDL-1 (B)HDL-2
(C)HDL-3 (D)HDLC
414. Mitochondriallipogenesisrequires
(A) bicarbonate
2451
(B) biotin
(C) acetylCoAcarboxylase(D)NADPH
415. Fattyacidshavingchainlengthof10carbon
atomsenterthe
(A) Portalciruclation (B)Lacteals
(C)Systemiccirculation(D)Colon
416. Asolublesystem forsynthesisoffattyacids
havebeenisolatedfrom avianliver,required
fortheformationoflongchainfattyacidsby
thissystemis
(A) ATP(B)AcetylCoA
(C)NADPH (D)Allofthese
417. Mostanimaltissues contain appreciable
amountsoflipid,whenintheform ofdepot
fatitconsistslargelyof
(A) Cholesterolester(B)Phosphatides
(C)Chylomicrons (D)Triacylglycerol
418. Afattyacidnotsynthesizedinmanis
(A) Oleic(B)Palmitic
(C)Linoleic (D)Stearic
419. The‘freefattyacids’(FFA)ofplasma:
(A) metabolicallyinert
(B) mainlyboundtoβ-lipoproteins
(C) storedinthefat
(D) mainlyboundtoserumalbumin
420. Adiposetissuewhichisastorehousefor
2452
triacylglycerolsynthesisthesameusing
(A) Theglycerolreleasedbyhydrolysisof
triacylglycerol
(B) The glycerol-3-phosphate obtained in
themetabolismofglucose
(C) 2-phosphoglycerate
(D) 3-phosphoglycerate
421. Increaseinbloodofthisclassoflipoproteins
is beneficialto ward offcoronary heart
disease:
(A) HDL(B)LDL
(C)VLDL (D)IDL
422. Intheextramitochondrialsynthesisoffatty
acids,CO2isutilized
(A) To keep the system anaerobic and
preventregenerationofacetylCoA
(B) In the conversion of malonyl to
CoAhydroxybutyrylCoA
(C) In the conversion ofacetylCoA to
malonyl
CoAFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 95
(D) IntheformationofacetylCoAfrom 1
carbonintermediates
423. Currentconceptsconcerningtheintestinal
absorptionoftriacylglycerolsarethat
(A) They mustbe completely hydrolysed
2453
beforetheconstituentfattyacidscanbe
absorbed
(B) Theyarehydrolysed partiallyand the
materialabsorbedconsistsoffreefatty
acids,mono and diacylglycerolsand
unchangedtriacyl
glycerols
(C) Fattyacidswithlessthan10 carbon
atomsare absorbed aboutequallyvia
lymphand
viaportalblood
(D) Intheabsenceofbilethehydrolysisof
triacylglycerolsisabsorbed
424. Mainmetabolicendproductofcholesterol:
(A) Coprosterol (B)5-pregnenolone
(C)Bileacid (D)Glycine
425. InthetypeII(a)hyperlipoproteinemiathere
isincreasein
(A) Chylomicronbond(B)β
(C)Prebeta (D)α
426. Normal fat content of liver is about
_______gms%.
(A) 5 (B)8
(C)10 (D)15
427. Obesityisaccumulation of_______inthe
body.
2454
(A) Water (B)NaCl
(C)Fat (D)Proteins
428. Thefirstlipoproteintobesecretedbythe
liveris
(A) VLDL (B)nascentVLDL
(C)LDL (D)IDL
429. Thislipoprotein removescholesterolfrom
thebody
(A) HDL(B)VLDL
(C)IDL (D)Chylomicrons
430. Whenthestiredtriacylglycerolislipolysedin
the adipose tissue blood levels of_____
increased.
(A) FFAonly
(B) Glycerolonly
(C) Freefattyacids(FFA)andGlycerol
(D) Triacylglycero
431. Alllongchainfattyacidswithevennumber
ofcarbonatomsareoxidizedtoapoolof
_________byβ-oxidation.
(A) CO2 (B)Propionicacid
(C)Aceticacid (D)AcetylCoA
432. Theleveloffreefattyacidsinplasmais
increasedby
(A) Insulin (B)Caffeine
(C)Glucose (D)Niacin
2455
433. Cholesterolisexcretedassuchinto________.
(A) Urine (B)Faeces
(C)Bile (D)Tears
434. LCATis
(A) Lactosecholinealaminetransferse
(B) Lecithincholesterolacyltransferase
(C) Lecithincarnitineacyltransferase
(D) Lanoleatecarbamoylacyltransferase
435. Cholesterolmolecule has _______ carbon
atoms.
(A) 27 (B)21
(C)15 (D)12
436. A hydrocarbon formed in cholesterol
synthesisis
(A) Mevalonate (B)HMGCoA
(C)Squalene (D)Zymosterol
437. Whilecitrateisconvertedtoisocitrateinthe
mitochondria,itisconvertedto_______inthe
cytosol.
(A) AcetylCoA+oxaloacetate
(B) AcetylCoA+malonylCoA
(C) AcetylCoA+Pyruvate
(D) AcetylCoA+acetoacetylCoA
438. Avidinisantigonisticto
(A) Niacin (B)PABA
(C)Biotin (D)Pantothenicacid
2456
439. CTPisrequiredforthesynthesisof7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(A) Fattyacids (B)Proteins
(C)Phospholipids (D)Cholesterol
440. Lysolecithinisformedfrom lecithinbythe
actionof
(A) PhospholipaseA1(B)PhospholipaseA2
(C)PhospholipaseC(D)PhospholipaseD
441. Fatty acids can not be converted into
carbohydratesinthebody,asthefollowing
reactionisnotpossible:
(A) Conversion of glucose-6-phosphate
intoglucose
(B) Fructose1,6diphosphatetofructose-
6phosphate
(C) Transformation of acetyl CoA to
pyruvate
(D) FormationofacetylCoAfromfattyacids
442. Cholesterolcirculatesinbloodstreamchiefly
as
(A) Freecholesterol
(B) Estercholesterol
(C) Lowdensitylipoproteins
(D) Low density lipoproteins and high
densitylipoproteins
443. What is the sub cellular site for the
2457
βoxidationoffattyacids?
(A) Nucleus (B)Mitochondria
(C)Lysosome (D)Cytosol
444. Adietcontainingthisfatishelpfulinlowering
thebloodcholesterollevel.
(A) Unsaturated (B)Saturated
(C)Vitaminenriched(D)Refined
445. Phospholipase A2 is an enzyme which
removesafattyacidresiduefrom lecithinto
form
(A) Lecithinfragments
(B) Phosphotidicacid
(C) Glycerylphosphate
(D) Lysolecithin
446. Pancreatic lipose is an enzyme which
hydrolyzesfacts.Itactsasa/an
(A) peptidase (B)hydrolase
(C)carbohydrates (D)dehydrogenase
447. Thisinterfereswithcholesterolabsorption
(A) Lipoproteinlipase
(B) Creatinase
(D) β-sitosterol
448. Thecarbonchainoffattyacidsisshortened
by2carbonatomsatatime.Thisinvolves
successive reactions catalysed by 4-
2458
enzymes.Theseactthefollowingorder:
(A) AcetylCoA dehydrogenase,β-OH acyl
CoA dehydrogenase, enoyl hydrase,
thiolose
(B) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase, thiolase,
enoylhydrase, β-OH acyl CoA
dehydrogenase
(C) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase, thiolose,
enoylhydrase, β-OH acyl CoA
dehydrogenase
(D) Enoyl hydrase, β-OH acyl CoA
dehydrogenase, acyl CoA
dehydrogenase,thiolose,
449. Acyl carrier protein is involved in the
synthesisof
(A) protein
(B) glycogen
(C) fattyacidoutsidethemitochondria
(D) fattyacidinthemitochondria
450. 1moleculeofpalmiticacidontotaloxidation
toCO2 willyieldmoleculesofATP(ashigh
energybonds):
(A) 129 (B)154
(C)83 (D)25
451. HMGCoAisformedinthemetabolismof
(A) Cholesterol,ketonesandleucine
2459
(B) Cholesterol,fattyacidandLeucine
(C) Lysine,LecuineandIsoleucine
(D) Ketones,LeucineandLysine
452. NADPHisproducedwhenthisenzymeacts
(A) Pyruvate dehydrogenase(B) Malic
enzyme
(C) Succinatedehydrogenase
(D) Malatedehydrogenase
453. As a result of each oxidation a longFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 97
chainfattyacidiscleavedtogive
(A) Anacidwith3-carbonlessandpropionyl
CoA(B)Anacidwith2-carbonlessand
acetylCoA (C)Anacidwith2-carbon
lessandacetylCoA
(D)Anacidwith4-carbonandbutyrylCoA
454. Liposomesare
(A) Lipidbilayered (B) Water in the
middle
(C)Carriersofdrugs(D)Allofthese
455. Long chain fatty acyl CoA esters are
transported across the mitochondrial
membraneby
(A) cAMP (B)Prostaglandin
(C)Carnitine (D)Choline
456. TheacetylCoAformedonβ-oxidationofall
longchainfattyacidsismetabolizedunder
2460
normalcircumstancesto
(A) CO2andwater (B)Cholesterol
(C)Fattyacids (D)Ketonebodies
457. Very low density lipoproteins are
relativelyrichin
(A) Cholesterol (B)Triacylglycerol
(C)Freefattyacids (D)Phospholipids
458. Neutralfatisstoredin
(A) Liver(B)Pancreas(C)Adiposetissue
(D)Brain
459. ApathwaythatrequiresNADPHasacofactor
is
(A) Fattyacidoxidation
(B) Extra mitochondrial denovo fatty
acidsynthesis
(C) Ketonebodiesformation
(D) Glycogenesis
460. The‘Committedstep’inthebiosynthesisof
cholesterolfromacetylCoAis
(A) Formation of acetoacetylCoA from
acetylCoA
(B) Formation ofmevalonate from HMG
CoA
(C) FormationofHMGCoAfrom acetylCoA
andacetoacetylCoA
(D) Formation of squalene by squalene
2461
synthetase
461. Inβ-Oxidationoffattyacids,whichofthe
followingareutilizedascoenzymes?
(A) NAD
andNADP
(B) FADH2andNADH+H
(C) FADandFMN
(D) FADandNAD
462. The mostimportantsource ofreducing
equivalentsforFAsynthesisontheliveris
(A) Glycolysis
(B) HMP-Shunt
(C) TCAcycle
(D) Uronicacidpathway
463. Allofthefollowingtissuearecapableof
usingketonebodiesexcept
(A) Brain (B)Renalcortex
(C)R.B.C. (D)Cardiacmuscle
464. The major source of cholesterol in
arterialsmoothmusclecellsisfrom
(A) IDL (B)LDL
(C)HDL (D)Chylomicrons
465. Ketonebodiesaresynthesized from fatty
2462
acid oxidation products by which ofthe
followingorgans?
(A) Liver(B)Skeletalmuscles
(C)Kidney (D)Brain
466. Chainelongationoffattyacidsoccurringin
mammalianlivertakesplaceinwhichofthe
followingsubcellularfractionsofthecell?
(A) Nucleus (B)Ribosomes
(C)Lysosomes (D)Microsomes
467. Which ofthefollowing cofactorsortheir
derivatives must be present for the
conversionofacetylCoA tomalonylCoA
extramitochondrialfattyacidsynthesis?
(A) Biotin (B)FAD
(C)FMN (D)ACP
468. Whichofthefollowingstatementregardingβ
-oxidationistrue?
(A) Requiresβ-ketoacylCoAasasubstrate
(B) FormsCoAthioesters7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(C) RequiresGTPforitsactivity
(D) YieldsacetylCoAasaproduct
469. Allstatements regarding 3-OH-3 methyl
glutarylCoAaretrueexcept
(A) Itisformedinthecytoplasm
(B) Requiredinketogenesis
2463
(C) InvolvedinsynthesisofFattyacid
(D) An intermediate in cholesterol
biosynthesis
470. Whichofthefollowinglipoproteinswould
contribute to a measurementofplasma
cholesterolinanormalindividualfollowinga
12hrfast?
(A) Chylomicrons
(B) VLDL
(C) BothVLDLandLDL
(D) LDL
471. All the following statements regarding
ketonebodiesaretrueexcept
(A) Theymayresultfrom starvation(B)They
areformedinkidneys
(C) They include acetoacetic acid and
acetone
(D) Theymaybeexcretedinurine
472. InsynthesisofTriglyceridefrom α-Glycero
phosphate and acetyl CoA, the first
intermediateformedis
(A) β-diacylglycerol (B)Acylcarnitine
(C)Monoacylglycerol(D)Phosphatidicacid
473. Duringeachcycleofβ-oxidationoffattyacid,
allthefollowingcompoundsaregenerated
except
2464
(A) NADH (B)H2O
(C)FAD (D)AcylCoA
474. Theenergyyieldfrom completeoxidationof
productsgeneratedbysecondreactioncycle
ofβ-oxidationofpalmitoylCoAwillbe
(A) 5ATP (B)12ATP
(C)17ATP (D)34ATP
475. β-Oxidationofodd-carbonfattyacidchain
produces
(A) SuccinylCoA(B)PropionylCoA
(C)AcetylCoA (D)MalonylCoA
476. Brown adipose tissue ischaracterized by
whichofthefollowing?
(A) Present in large quantities in adult
humans
(B) Mitochondrial content higher than
whiteadiposetissue
(C) Oxidation and phosphorylation are
tightlycoupled
(D) Absentinhibernatinganimals
477. Ketosisinpartlyascribedto
(A) OverproductionandGlucose
(B) UnderproductionofGlucose
(C) Increasedcarbohydrateutilization
(D) Increasedfatutilization
478. Thefreefattyacidsinbloodare
2465
(A) Storedinfatdepots
(B) Mainlyboundtoβ-lipoproteins
(C) Mainlyboundtoserumalbumin
(D) Metabolicallymostinactive
479. Carnitineissynthesizedfrom
(A) Lysine (B)Serine
(C)Choline (D)Arginine
480. Ametabolitewhichiscommontopathways
ofcholesterolbiosynthesisfrom acetyl-CoA
and cholecalciferol formation from
cholesterolis
(A) Zymosterol(B)Lumisterol
(C) Ergosterol
(D) 7Dehydrocholesterol
481. Acetyl CoA required for extra
mitochondrialfatty acid synthesis is
producedby
(A) Pyruvatedehydrogenasecomplex
(B) Citratelyase
(C) Thiolase
(D) Carnitine-acyltransferase
482. Biosynthesis ofTriglyceride and Lecithine
bothrequireanintermediate:
(A) Monoacyl glycerol phosphate(B)
Phosphatidicacid
(C) PhosphatidylethanolamineFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 99
2466
(D) Phosphatidylcytidylate
483. The rage limiting step cholesterol
biosynthesisis
(A) Squalene synthetase(B) Mevalonate
kinase
(C) HMGCoAsynthetase
(D) HMGCoAreductase
484. All the following are constituents of
gangliosidemoleculeexcept
(A) Glycerol(B)Sialicacid
(C)Hexosesugar (D)Sphingosine
485. An alcoholic amine residue is present
inwhichofthefollowinglipids?
(A) Phosphatidicacid(B)Cholesterol
(C)Sphingomyelin (D)Ganglioside
486. Sphingosine is the backbone ofallthe
followingexcept
(A) Cerebroside (B)Ceramide
(C)Sphingomyelin (D)Lecithine
487. Chylomicron, intermediate density
lipoproteins(IDL),low densitylipoproteins
(LDL) and very low density lipoproteins
(VLDL)allareserumlipoproteins.Whatis
thecorrectorderingoftheseparticlesfrom
thelowesttothegreatestdensity?
(A) LDL,IDL,VLDL,Chylomicron
2467
(B) Chylomicron,VLDL,IDL,LDL(C)VLDL,
IDL,LDL,Chylomicron
(D)Chylomicron,IDL,VLDL,LDL
488. Acompoundnormallyusedtoconjugatebile
acidsis
(A) Serine(B)Glycine(C)Glucoronicacid(D)
Fattyacid
489. Whichofthefollowinglipoproteinswould
contribute to a measurementofplasma
cholesterolinanormalpersonfollowinga12
hrfast?
(A) Highdensitylipoprotiens
(B) Lowdensitylipoproteins
(C) Chylomicron
(D) Chylomicronremnants
490. Which of the following products of
triacylglycerolbreakdownandsubsequentβ-
Oxidationmayundergogluconeogenesis?
(A) AcetylCoA (B)PorpionylCoA
(C)Allketonebodies(D)Someaminoacids
491. Whichofthefollowingregulateslipolysisin
adipocytes?
(A) Activation of fatty acid synthesis
mediatedby
CAMP
(B) Glycerol phosphorylation to prevent
2468
futileesterificationoffattyacids
(C) Activation oftriglyceride lipase as a
resultofhormonestimulatedincreases
inCAMPlevels
(D) Activation of CAMP production by
Insulin
492. Whichoneofthefollowingcompoundsisa
keyintermediateinthesynthesisofboth
triacylglycerolsandphospholipids?
(A) CDPCholine (B)Phosphatidase
(C)Triacylglyceride (D)Phosphatidylserine
493. During each cycleofon going fattyacid
oxidation,allthefollowingcompoundsare
generatedexcept
(A) H2O (B)AcetylCoA
(C)FattyacylCoA (D)NADH
494. Allthefollowingstatementsdescribinglipids
aretrueexcept
(A) They usually associate by covalent
interactions
(B) They are structurally components
ofmembranes
(C) Theyareanintracellularenergysource
(D) TheyarepoorlysolubleinH2O
495. All the following statements correctly
describeketonebodiesexcept
2469
(A) Theymayresultfromstarvation
(B) They are present at high levels in
uncontrolleddiabetes
(C) They include—OH β-butyrate and
acetone
(D) Theyareutilizedbytheliverduringlong7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
termstarvation
496. Whichofthefollowingfeaturesispredicted
bytheNicolson–Singerfluidmosaicmodel
ofbiologicalmembranes?
(A) Membranelipidsdonotdiffuselaterally
(B) Membrane lipid is primarily in a
monolayerform
(C) Membranelipidsfreelyflip-flop
(D) Membraneproteinsmaydiffuselaterally
497. OxidativedegradationofacetylCoAinthe
citricacidcyclegivesanetyieldofallthe
followingexcept
(A) FADH2 (B)3NADH
(C)2ATP (D)2CO2
498. All the following correctly describe
theintermediate3-OH-3-methylglutarylCoA
except
(A) It is generated enzymatically in
themitochondrialmatrix
2470
(B) Itisformedinthecytoplasm
(C) Itinhibitsthefirststepincholesterol
synthesis
(D) Itisinvolvedinthesynthesisofketone
bodies
499. Intermediate in the denovo synthesis of
triacylglycerols include allthe following
except
(A) FattyacylCoA
(B) CDPdiacylglycerol
(C) Glycerol-3-phosphate
(D) Lysophosphatidicacid
500. Mitochondrial α-ketoglutarate
dehydrogenase complex requires allthe
followingtofunctionexcept
(A) CoA(B)FAD
(C)NAD
(D)NADP
501. Eachofthefollowingcanbeanintermediate
in the synthesis ofphosphatidylcholine
except
(A) Phosphatidylinositol
(B) CDP-choline
(C) Phosphatidylethanolamine
2471
(D) Diacylglycerol
502. Highiodinevalueofalipidindicates
(A) Polymerization (B)Carboxylgroups
(C)Hydroxylgroups (D)Unsaturation
503. Cholesterol,bilesalts,vitamin D and sex
hormonesare
(A) Mucolipids (B)Glycolipids
(C)Phospholipids (D)Isoprenoidlipids
504. Watersolublemolecularaggregatesoflipids
areknownas
(A) Micelle (B)Colloids
(C)Sphingol (D)Mucin
505. Hypoglycemia depresses insulin secretion
andthusincreasestherateof
(A) Hydrolysis (B)Reduction
(C)Gluconeogenesis(D)Respiratoryacidosis
506. Theprocessofbreakdownofglycogento
glucoseintheliverandpyruvateandlacate
inthemuscleisknownas
(A) Glyogenesis (B)Glycogenolysis
(C)Gluconeogenesis(D)Cellulardegradation
507. Acrossamembranephospholipidsactas
carrierof
(A) Organiccompounds
(B) Inorganicions
(C) Nucleicacids
2472
(D) Foodmaterials
508. Osteomalacia can be prevented by the
administrationofcalciumandavitamin:
(A) A (B)B
(C)C (D)D
509. Milksugarisknownas
(A) Fructose(B)Glucose
(C)Sucrose (D)Lactose
510. TheInstrinisicFactor(HClandmucoproteins)
presentin the gastric juice help in the
absorptionof
(A) VitaminB2 (B)Tocopherols
(C)Folicacid (D)VitmainB12
511. LipasecanactonlyatpH:
(A) 2.5–4 (B)3.5–5
(C)4to5 (D)5–7FATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 10
512. Bileisproducedby
(A) Liver(B)Gall-bladder
(C)Pancreas (D)Intestine
513. Non-proteinpartofrhodopsinis
(A) Retinal (B)Retinol
(C)Carotene (D)Repsin
514. A pathway that requires NADPH as a
cofactoris
(A) Extramitochondrialfolicacidsynthesis
(B) Ketonebodyformation
2473
(C) Glycogenesis
(D) Gluconeogenesis
515. LCATactivityisassociatedwithwhichofthe
lipo-proteincomplex?
(A) VLDL (B)Chylomicrones(C)IDL(D)
HDL
516. Inβ−oxidationoffattyacidswhichofthe
followingareutilizedasco-enzymes?
(A) NAD
andNADP
(B) FADH2andNADH+H
(C) FADandFMN
(D) FADandNAD
517. The lipoprotein with the fastest
electrophoretic mobility and lowest TG
contentare
(A) VLDL (B)LDL(C)HDL (D)
Chylomicrones
518. Theessentialfattyacidsretard
(A) Atherosclerosis (B)Diabetesmellitus
(C)Nepritis (D)Oedema
519. Themajorityofabsorbedfatappearsinthe
formsof
2474
(A) HDL(B)Chylomicrone
(C)VLDL (D)LDL
520. Dailyoutputofureaingramsis
(A) 10to20 (B)15to25
(C)20to30 (D)35to45
521. Uremiaoccursin
(A) Cirrohsisofliver (B)Nephritis
(C) Diabetes mellitus (D) Coronary
thrombosis
522. Carboxyhemoglobinisformedby
(A) CO (B)CO2
(C)HCO3 (D)HCN
523. Methemoglobinisformedasaresultofthe
oxidationofhaemoglobinbyoxidationagent:
(A) OxygenofAir(B)H2O2
(C)K4Fe(CN)6 (D)KMnO4
524. Methemoglobin can be reduced to
haemoglobinby
(A) Removalofhydrogen
(B) VitaminC
(C) Glutathione
(D) Creatinine
525. Fatsaresolidsat
(A) 10°C(B)20°C
(C)30°C (D)40°C
526. Esters offattyacids with higheralcohol
2475
otherthanglycerolarecalledas
(A) Oils(B)Polyesters
(C)Waxes (D)Terpenoids
527. Themainphysiologicalbufferinthebloodis
(A) Haemoglobinbuffer
(B) Acetate
(C) Phosphate
(D) Bicarbonate
528. Allofthefollowingsubstanceshavebeen
usedtoestimateGFRexcept
(A) Inulin (B)Creatinine
(C)Phenolred (D)Mannitol
529. Relationship between GFR and seum
creatinineconcentrationis
(A) Non-existent(B)Inverse
(C)Direct (D)Indirect
530. Urineturbiditymaybecausedbyanyofthe
followingexcept
(A) Phosphates (B)Protein
(C)RBC (D)WBC
531. Urinespecificgravityof1.054indicates
(A) Excellentrenalfunction
(B) InappropriatesecretionofADH7 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
(C) Extremedehydration
(D) Presenceofglucoseorprotein
2476
532. Inhemolyticjaundice,theurinarybilirubinis
(A) Normal
(B) Absent
(C) Morethannormal
(D) Smallamountispresent
533. Inobstructivejaundice,urinarybilirubinis
(A) Absent
(B) Increased
(C) Present
(D) Presentinsmallamount
534. Inhemolyticjaundice,bilirubininurineis
(A) Usuallyabsent
(B) Usuallypresent
(C) Increasedverymuch
(D) Verylow
535. ThepHofgastricjuiceofinfantsis
(A) 2.0 (B)4.0
(C)4.5 (D)5.0
536. ThepHofbloodisabout7.4whentheratio
between(NaHCO3)and(H2CO3)is
(A) 10:1 (B)20:1
(C)25:1 (D)30:1
537. The absorption ofglucose is decreased
bythedeficiencyof
(A) VitaminA (B)VitaminD
(C)Thiamine (D)VitaminB12
2477
538. Forthe activityofamylase which ofthe
followingisrequiredasco-factor?
(A) HCO3 (B)Na
(C)K
(D)Cl
539. Whichofthefollowinghormoneincreases
theabsorptionofglucosefromG.I.T?
(A) Insulin (B)Throidhormones
(C)Glucagon (D)FSH
540. Predominantformofstorage:
(A) Carbohydrates (B)Fats
(C)Lipids (D)Both(B)and(C)
541. DegradationsofHbtakesplacein
(A) Mitochondrion (B)Erythrocytes
(C)Cytosolofcell (D)R.E.cells
542. Biluveridinisconvertedtobilirubinbythe
processof
(C)Conjugation (D)Decarboxylation
543. Amylasepresentinsalivais
(A) α-Amylase (B)β-Amylae
(C) γ-Amylase (D)Allofthese
544. Phospholipidsareimportantcellmembrane
componentssince
2478
(A) Theyhaveglycerol
(B) Formbilayersinwater
(C) Havepolarandnon-polarportions
(D) Combinecovalentlywithproteins
545. Whichofthefollowingisnotaphospholipids?
(A) Lecithin (B)Plasmalogen
(C)Lysolecithin (D)Gangliosides
546. A fatty acid which is not synthesized
inhumanbodyandhastobesuppliedinthe
dietis
(A) Palmiticacid(B)Oleicacid
(C)Linoleicacid (D)Stearicacid
547. Phospholipidsoccurin
(A) Myelinsheath
(B) Stabilizeschylomicrans
(C) Erythrocytemembrane
(D) Allofthese
548. Whichofthefollowingisnotessentialfatty
acids?
(A) Oleicacid (B)Linoleicacid
(C)Arachidonicacid(D)Linolenicacid
549. Thecaloricvalueoflipidsis
(A) 6.0Kcal/g (B)9.0Kcal/g
(C)15.0Kcal/g (D)12.0Kcal/g
550. The maximum numberofdouble bonds
presentinessentialfattyacidis
2479
(A) 2 (B)3
(C)4 (D)5
551. Prostaglandin synfhesis is increased by
activatingphospholipasesbyFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 10
(A) Mepacrine (B)AngiotensinII
(C)Glucocorticoids (D)Indomenthacin
552. Selwanof’stestispositivein
(C)Galactose (D)Mannose
553. Spermatozoa in seminalfluid utilises the
followingsugarformetabolism:
(A) Galactose (B)Glucose
(C)Sucrose (D)Fructose
554. Depotfats ofmammalian cells comprise
mostlyof
(A) Cholesterol (B)Phospholipid
(C)Cerebrosides (D)Triglycerol
555. When choline oflecithin is replaced by
ethanolamine,theproductis
(A) Spingomyelin(B)Cephalin
(C)Plasmalogens (D)Lysolecithin
556. Whichofthefollowingisahydroxylfatty
acid?
(A) OleicAcid (B)Ricinoleicacid
(C)Caproicacid (D)Arachidonicacid
557. Acroleictestisgivenby
2480
(C)Glycosides (D)SphingolANSWERS
1.A 2.A 3.C 4.C 5.D 6.A
7.C 8.D 9.D 10.B 11.D 12.A
13.B 14.A 15.D 16.B 17.B 18.D
19.C 20.D 21.C 22.A 23.D 24.C
25.A 26.A 27.C 28.B 29.B 30.D
31.A 32.A 33.C 34.A 35.A 36.C
37.D 38.A 39.B 40.C 41.D 42.A
43.B 44.C 45.D 46.A 47.D 48.B
49.C 50.C 51.A 52.B 53.D 54.B
55.C 56.D 57.A 58.B 59.D 60.C
61.A 62.A 63.A 64.D 65.B 66.A
67.A 68.B 69.A 70.A 71.A 72.B
73.A 74.D 75.B 76.A 77.B 78.A
79.B80.C81.C82.A83.A84.A85.B86.B87.A88.B89.D90.C
91.D92.B93.A94.D95.B96.A97.B98.D99.A100.A101.C102.B103.A104.B105.C
106.
C107.B108.A
109.B110.C 111.D 112.A 113.A 114.A115.D116.A 117.A 118.D 119.C 120.D
121.D 122.A 123.A 124.D 125.B 126.A
127.B128.A129.B130.C131.B132.C133.C134.B135.D136.A137.C138.C
139.C 140.B 141.B 142.B 143.C 144.D
145.B 146.D 147.C 148.B 149.A 150.A
151.A152.A 153.C 154.B 155.D 156.D157.D158.D 159.D 160.C 161.B 162.B
163.D164.C 165.D 166.B 167.D 168.B
2481
169.C 170.A 171.D 172.C 173.A 174.B
175.B176.C 177.D 178.B 179.B 180.C181.C182.B 183.C 184.D 185.D 186.D
187.C188.B 189.D 190.B 191.C 192.D193.C194.C 195.A 196.D 197.B 198.D
199.A200.C 201.A 202.D 203.C 204.B
205.D 206.A 207.D 208.A 209.C 210.C
211.B212.A 213.C 214.D 215.D 216.C217.C218.D 219.A 220.C 221.D 222.C
223.D224.D 225.B 226.D 227.D 228.A229.D230.B 231.A 232.A 233.D 234.B
235.C236.C 237.D 238.C 239.B 240.D241.B242.D 243.A 244.C 245.C 246.A
247.C248.C249.A250.A251.C252.A253.A254.B255.C256.A257.C258.A259.A
260.A
261.B262.A263.C264.A265.D266.A267.D268.C269.C270.C271.A272.C273.C
274.A
275.A276.A
277.D 278.C 279.A 280.A 281.D 282.C
283.B284.C285.A286.C287.A288.C289.A290.D291.C292.B293.C294.B
295.C 296.B 297.B 298.C 299.B 300.A
301.B302.C303.B304.C305.C306.A307.A308.B309.D310.D311.D312.A313.C
314.A
315.D316.A317.C318.B
319.D 320.A 321.B 322.C 323.D 324.C
325.B 326.A 327.B 328.C 329.B 330.C
331.A 332.C 333.A 334.A 335.A 336.DFATSANDFATTYACIDMETABOLISM 10
10
337.B338.A339.A340.B341.C342.C343.A344.D345.D346.D347.A348.C349.
D350.B
351.A352.B353.D354.B
355.C356.C357.A358.D359.C360.B361.A362.C363.D364.B365.A366.D
2482
367.A 368.D 369.C 370.D 371.C 372.D
373.B374.B375.D376.C377.A378.C379.A380.B381.D382.B383.A384.A
385.A 386.A 387.A 388.C 389.B 390.B
391.B392.D393.C394.D395.C396.B397.D398.C399.A400.C401.B402.D403.C
404.B
405.D406.B407.C408.D409.C410.C411.C412.B413.B414.D
415.A416.D417.D418.C419.D420.B421.A422.C423.B424.C425.B426.A427.C
428.B
429.A430.C431.D432.B433.C434.B435.A436.C437.A438.C439.C440.B441.C
442.D
443.B444.A445.D446.B447.D448.B449.C450.A
451.A 452.B 453.B 454.D 455.C 456.A
457.B 458.C 459.B 460.B 461.D 462.B
463.C 464.B 465.A 466.D 467.A 468.A
469.B 470.D 471.B 472.D 473.B 474.D
475.D476.B477.D478.C479.A480.D481.B482.B483.D484.A485.C486.D
487.B488.B489.A490.B491.C492.B493.A494.A495.D496.D497.C498.C499.B
500.D
501.A 502.D 503.D 504.A505.C506.B 507.B 508.D 509.D 510.D511.D512.A
513.A 514.A 515.D 516.D517.C518.A 519.B 520.C 521.B 522.A
523.C 524.B 525.B 526.C 527.D 528.C
529.B530.B 531.D 532.C 533.B 534.A535.D536.B 537.C 538.D 539.B 540.D
541.D542.B 543.A 544.C 545.D 546.C547.D548.A 549.B 550.C 551.B 552.B
553.D 554.D 555.B 556.B 557.BEXPLANATIONSFORTHEANSWERS
5.DThefattyacidsthatcannotbesynthesizedby
thebodyandthereforeshouldbesupplied
throughthedietarereferredtoasessential
2483
fattyacids(EFA).Linoleicacidandlinolenic
acid are essential.Some workers regard
arachidonicacidasanEFAalthoughitcan
besynthesizedfromlinoleicacid.
61.APhrynoderma(toadskin)isanessentialfatty
aciddeficiencydisorder.Itischaracterized
bythepresenceofhornyeruptionsonthe
posteriorandthelateralpartsofthelimbs,
onthebackandbuttocks.
120.DThehydrolysisoftriacylglycerolsbyalkalito
produceglyceroland soapsisknown as
saponification.
173.A Reichert-Meisslnumberis defined as the
numberofmolesof0.1NKOHrequiredto
completely neutralize the soluble volatile
fattyacidsdistilledfrom5gfat.
231.ASphingomyelins(sphingophospholipids)area
group of phospholipids containing
sphingosine as the alcohol(in place of
glycerolinotherphospholipids).
285.ACyclopentanoperhydrophenanthrene(CPPP),it
consistsofaphenanthrenenucleustowhich
acyclopenteneringisattached.
345.DCholesterolisananimalsterolwithamolecular
formulaC27H46O.ithasonehydroxylgroupat
C3andadoublebondbetweenC5andC6.An
2484
8carbonaliphaticsidechainisattachedto
C17,Cholesterolcontainsoftotal5methyl
groups.
398.CThelipidswhichpossessbothhydrophobicand
hydrophilic groups are known as
amphipathic lipids (Greek:amphi- both;
pathos-passion).
454.DLiposomeshaveanintermittentaqueousphase
in lipid bilayer.Theyare produced when
amphipathiclipidsinaqueousmedium are
subjected to sonification.Liposomes are
usedascarriersofdrugstotargettissues.
540.DFats(triacyglycerols)arethemostpredominant
storageform ofenergy,sincetheyarehighly
concentratedform ofenergy(9Cal/g)and
canbestored inananhydrousform (no
associationwithwater).1. Vitaminsare
(A) Accessoryfoodfactors
(B) Generallysynthesizedinthebody
(C) Producedinendocrineglands
(D) Proteinsinnature
2. VitaminAorretinalisa
(A) Steroid
(B) Polyisoprenoid compound containing
acyclohexenylring
(C) Benzoquinonederivative
2485
(D) 6-Hydroxychromane
3. β-Carotene, precursor of vitamin A, is
oxidativelycleavedby
(A) β-Carotenedioxygenase
(B) Oxygenase
(C) Hydroxylase
(D) Transferase
4. Retinal is reduced to retinol in
intestinalmucosabyaspecificretinaldehyde
reductaseutilising
(A) NADPH+H
(B)FAD
(C)NAD (D)NADH+H
5. PreformedVitaminAissuppliedby
(A) Milk,fatandliver
(B) Allyellowvegetables
(C) Allyellowfruits
(D) Leafygreenvegetables
CHAPTER5
VITAMINS
6. Retinol and retinal are
interconvertedrequiringdehydrogenaseor
2486
reductaseinthepresenceof
(A) NADorNADP(B)NADH+H
(C)NADPH (D)FAD
7. Fatsolublevitaminsare
(A) Solubleinalcohol
(B) oneormorePropeneunits
(C) Storedinliver
(D) Allthese
8. The international unit of vitamin A
isequivalenttotheactivitycausedby
(A) 0.3µgofVitaminAalcohol
(B) 0.344µgofVitaminAalcohol
(C) 0.6µgofVitaminAalcohol
(D) 1.0µgofVitaminAalcohol
9. Lumirhodopsin is stable only at
temperaturebelow
(A) –10°C (B)–20°C
(C)–40°C (D)–50°C
10. Retinolistransportedinbloodboundto
(A) Aporetinolbindingprotein
(B) α2-Globulin
(C) β-Globulin
(D) Albumin
11. Thenormalserum concentrationofvitamin
Ainmg/100mlis
2487
(A) 5–10(B)15–60
(C)100–150 (D)0–5
12. One manifestation of vitamin A
deficiencyis
(A) Painfuljoints
(B) Nightblindness
(C) Lossofhair
(D) Thickeningoflongbones
13. DeficiencyofVitaminAcauses
VITAMINS 1111 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 (A) Xeropthalmia
(B) Hypoprothrombinemia
(C) Megaloblasticanemia
(D) Perniciousanemia
14. AnimportantfunctionofvitaminAis
(A) Toactascoenzymeforafewenzymes
(B) To play an integralrole in protein
synthesis
(C) Topreventhemorrhages
(D) To maintain the integrityofepithelial
tissue
15. Retinalisacomponentof
(A) Iodopsin(B)Rhodopsin
(C)Cardiolipin (D)Glycoproteins
16. Retinoic acid participates in the
2488
synthesisof
(A) Iodopsin(B)Rhodopsin
(C)Glycoprotein (D)Cardiolipin
17. Onexposuretolightrhodopsinforms
(A) Alltrans-retinal (B)Cis-retinal
(C)Retinol (D)Retinoicacid
18. Carr-Pricereactionisusedtodetect
(A) VitaminA(B)VitaminD
(C)Ascorbicacid (D)VitaminE
19. Thestructureshownbelowisof
(A) Cholecalciferol
(B) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
(C) Ergocalciferol
(D) 7-Dehydrocholesterol
20. VitaminDabsorptionisincreasedin
(A) AcidpHofintestine
(B) AlkalinepHofintestine
(C) Impairedfatabsorption
(D) Contentsofdiet
21. ThemostpotentVitaminDmetaboliteis
(A) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
(B) 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
(C) 24,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol
(D) 7-Dehydrocholesterol
22. Thenormalserumconcentrationof
25-hydroxycholecalciferolinng/mlis
2489
(A) 0–8 (B)60–100
(C)100–150 (D)8–55
23. The normal serum concentration of
1,25dihydroxycholecalciferolinpg/mlis
(A) 26–65 (B)1–5
(C)5–20 (D)80–100
24,25dihydroxycholecalciferolinng/mlis
(A) 8–20(B)25–50
(C)1–5 (D)60–100
25. ApoorsourceofVitaminDis
(A) Egg (B)Butter
(C)Milk (D)Liver
26. RichestsourceofVitaminDis
(A) Fishliveroils (B)Margarine
(C)Eggyolk (D)Butter
27. DeficiencyofvitaminDcauses
(A) Ricketandosteomalacia
(B) Tuberculosisofbone
(C) Hypthyroidism
(D) Skincancer
28. Oneinternationalunit(I.U)ofvitaminDis
definedasthebiologicalactivityof
(A) 0.025µgofcholecalciferol
(B) 0.025µgof7-dehydrocholecalciferol
(C) 0.025µgofergosterol
2490
(D) 0.025µgofergocalciferol
29. The β-ring of 7-dehydrocholesterol is
cleavedtoformcholecalciferolby
(A) Infraredlight
(B) Dimlight
(C) Ultravioletirridationwithsunlight
(D) Lightofthetubelights
30. Calcitriolsynthesisinvolves
(A) Bothliverandkidney
(B) Intestine
(C) Adiposetissue
(D) Muscle
31. Insignificant amount of Vitamin E
ispresentinVITAMINS 109
(A) Wheatgermoil (B)Sunflowerseedoil
(C)Safflowerseedoil(D)Fishliveroil
32. Theactivityoftocopherolsisdestroyedby
(A) Commercialcooking
(B) Reduction
(C) Conjugation
(D) Allofthese
33. The requirement of vitamin E is
increasedwithgreaterintakeof
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Proteins
(C) Polyunsaturatedfat
2491
(D) Saturatedfat
34. VitaminEreducestherequirementof
(A) Iron (B)Zinc
(C)Selenium (D)Magnesium
35. Themostimportantnaturalantioxidantis
(A) VitaminD(B)VitaminE
(C)VitaminB12 (D)VitaminK
36. Tocopherolspreventtheoxidationof
(C)VitaminK (D)VitaminC
37. Creatinuria is caused due to the
deficiencyofvitamin
(A)A (B)K
(C)E (D)D
38. Allthe following conditions produce a
realorfunctionaldeficiencyofvitaminK
except
(A) Prolonged oral, broad spectrum
antibiotictherapy
(B) Totallackofredmeatinthediet
(C) Thetotallackofgreenleafyvegetables
inthediet
(D) Beinganewborninfant
39. VitaminKisfoundin
(A) Greenleafyplants(B)Meat(C)Fish(D)
Milk
2492
40. FunctionofVitaminA:
(A) Healingepithelialtissues
(B) Proteinsynthesisregulation
(C) Cellgrowth
(D) Allofthese
41. VitaminK2wasoriginallyisolatedfrom
(A) Soyabean(B)Wheatgram
(C)AlfaAlfa (D)Putridfishmeal
42. Vitamin synthesized by bacterial in
theintestineis
(A) A (B)C(C)D (D)K
43. Vitamin K is involved in
posttranslationalmodificationoftheblood
clottingfactorsbyactingascofactorfor
theenzyme:
(A) Carboxylase (B)Decarboxylase
(C)Hydroxylase (D)Oxidase
44. VitaminKisacofactorfor
(A) Gamma carboxylation of glutamic
acidresidue
(B) β-Oxidationoffattyacid
(C) Formationofγ-aminobutyrate
(D) Synthesisoftryptophan
45. HypervitaminosisKinneonatesmaycause
(A) Porphyria(B)Jaundice
(C)Pellagra (D)Prolongedbleeding
2493
46. Dicoumarolisantagonistto
(A) Riboflavin(B)Retinol
(C)Menadione (D)Tocopherol
47. In the individuals who are given
liberalquantitiesofvitaminC,theserum
ascorbicacidlevelis
(A) 1–1.4µg/100ml(B)2–4µg/100ml
(C) 1–10µg/100ml
(D) 10–20µg/100ml
48. The vitamin which would most
likelybecomedeficientinanindividualwho
developacompletelycarnivorouslifestyle
is
(A) Thiamin (B)Niacin
(C)VitaminC (D)Cobalamin
49. In human body highest concentration
ofascorbicacidisfoundin
(A) Liver(B)Adrenalcortex
(C)Adrenalmedulla(D)Spleen1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
580. The vitamin required forthe formation
ofhydroxyproline(incollagen)is
(A) VitaminC(B)VitaminA
(C)VitaminD (D)VitaminE
51. Vitamin required forthe conversion of
phydroxyphenylpyruvatetohomogentisate
2494
is
(A) Folacin (B)Cobalamin
(C)Ascorbicacid (D)Niacin
52. Vitaminrequiredinconversionoffolicacid
tofolinicacidis
(A) Biotin (B)Cobalamin
(C)Ascorbicacid (D)Niacin
53. Ascorbicacidcanreduce
(A) 2,6-Dibromobenzene
(B) 2,6-Diiodoxypyridine
(C) 2,6-Dichlorophenolindophenol
(D) 2,4-Dinitrobenzene
54. Sterilisedmilklacksin
(C)VitaminC (D)Thiamin
55. Scurvyiscausedduetothedeficiencyof
(A) VitaminA(B)VitaminD(C)VitaminK
(D)VitaminC
56. Both Wernicke’s disease and beriberi
canbereversedbyadministrating
(A) Retinol (B)Thiamin
(C)Pyridoxine (D)VitaminB12
57. TheVitaminB1deficiencycauses
(A) Ricket (B)Nyctalopia
(C)Beriberi (D)Pellagra
58. Concentration of pyruvic acid and
2495
lacticacid in blood is increased due to
deficiencyofthevitamin
(C)Niacin (D)Pantothenicacid
59. VitaminB1coenzyme(TPP)isinvolvedin
(A) Oxidativedecarboxylation
(B) Hydroxylation
(C) Transamination
(D) Carboxylation
60. Increased glucose consumption
increasesthedietaryrequirementfor
(A) Pyridoxine (B)Niacin
(C)Biotin (D)Thiamin
61. Thiamin is oxidized to thiochrome
inalkalinesolutionby
(A) Potassiumpermanganate
(B) Potassiumferricyanide
(C) Potassiumchlorate
(D) Potassiumdichromate
62. Riboflavin is a coenzyme in the
reactioncatalysedbytheenzyme
(A) AcylCoAsynthetase
(B) AcylCoAdehydrogenase
(C) β-HydroxyacylCoA
(D) EnoylCoAdehydrogenase
63. Thedailyrequirementofriboflavinforadult
2496
inmgis
(A) 0–1.0 (B)1.2–1.7
(C)2.0–3.5 (D)4.0–8.0
64. In new born infants phototherapy
maycause hyperbilirubinemia with
deficiencyof
(C)Ascorbicacid (D)Pantothenicacid
65. Riboflavindeficiencycauses
(A) Cheilosis
(B) Lossofweight
(C) Mentaldeterioration
(D) Dermatitis
66. Magenta tongue is found in the
(A) Riboflavin(B)Thiamin
(C)Nicotinicacid (D)Pyridoxine
67. Corneal vascularisation is found in
deficiencyofthevitamin:
(A) B1 (B)B2
(C)B3 (D)B6
68. Thepellagrapreventivefactoris
(A) Riboflavin(B)Pantothenicacid
(C)Niacin (D)PyridoxineVITAMINS 111
69. Pellagraiscausedduetothedeficiencyof
(A) Ascorbicacid(B)Pantothenicacid
2497
(C)Pyridoxine (D)Niacin
70. Niacin or nicotinic acid is a
monocarboxylicacidderivativeof
(A) Pyridine (B)Pyrimidine
(C)Flavin (D)Adenine
71. Niacinissynthesizedinthebodyfrom
(A) Tryptophan (B)Tyrosine
(C)Glutamate (D)Aspartate
72. The proteins present in maize are
deficientin
(A) Lysine (B)Threonine
(C)Tryptophan (D)Tyrosine
73. Niacinispresentinmaizeintheformof
(A) Niatin (B)Nicotin
(C)Niacytin (D)Nicyn
74. Inthebody1mgofniacincanbeproduced
from
(A) 60mgofpyridoxine
(B) 60 mg of tryptophan(C) 30 mg of
tryptophan
(D)30mgofpantothenicacid
75. Pellagraoccursinpopulationdependenton
(A) Wheat (B)Rice
(C)Maize (D)Milk
76. The enzymes with which nicotinamide
actascoenzymeare
2498
(A) Dehydrogenases (B)Transaminases
(C)Decarboxylases (D)Carboxylases
77. DietaryrequirementofVitaminD:
(A) 400I.U. (B)1000I.U.(C)6000I.U.(D)
700I.U.
78. The Vitamin which does notcontain a
ringinthestructureis
(A) Pantothenicacid (B)VitaminD
(C)Riboflavin (D)Thiamin
79. Pantothenic acid is a constituent of
thecoenzymeinvolvedin
(A) Decarboxylation (B)Dehydrogenation
(C)Acetylation (D)Oxidation
80. TheprecursorofCoAis
(A) Riboflavin(B)Pyridoxamine
(C)Thiamin (D)Pantothenate
81. ‘Burningfootsyndrome’hasbeenascribed
tothedeficiencyof
(A) Pantothenicacid (B)Thiamin
(C)Cobalamin (D)Pyridoxine
82. Pyridoxalphosphateiscentralto
(A) Deamination (B)Amidation
(C)Carboxylation (D)Transamination
83. The vitamin required as coenzyme for
theactionoftransaminasesis
(A) Niacin
2499
(B) Pantothenicacid
(D) Riboflavin
84. Vitamin B6 deficiencymayoccurduring
therapywith
(A) Isoniazid(B)Terramycin
(C)Sulphadrugs (D)Aspirin
85. DeficiencyofvitaminB6mayoccurin
(A) Obeseperson(B)Thinperson
(C)Alcoholics (D)Diabetics
86. ‘Xanthurenic acid index’ is a
reliablecriterionforthedeficiencyofthe
vitamin
(A) Pyridoxal(B)Thiamin
(C)Pantothenicacid(D)Cobalamin
87. Epileptiform convulsion in human
infantshave been attributed to the
(A) B1 (B)B2
(C)B6 (D)B12
88. Biotinisacoenzymeoftheenzyme
(A) Carboxylase (B)Hydroxylase
(C)Decarboxylase (D)Deaminase
89. The coenzyme required forconversion
ofpyruvatetooxaloacetateis
(A) FAD (B)NAD
2500
(C)TPP (D)Biotin1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
980. Inbiotin-containingenzymes,thebiotinis
boundtotheenzymeby
(A) An amide linkage to carboxylgroup
ofglutamine
(B) AcovalentbondwithCO2
(C) Anamidelinkagetoanaminogroupof
lysine
(D) Anamidelinkagetoα-carboxylgroupof
protein
91. A moleculeofCO2 iscapturedbybiotin
when it acts as coenzyme for
carboxylationreaction.Thecarboxylgroup
iscovalentlyattachedto
(A) Anitrogen(N1)ofthebiotinmolecule
(B) Sulphurofthiophenering
(C) α-Aminogroupoflysine
(D) α-Aminogroupofprotein
92. Consumption of raw eggs can
causedeficiencyof
(A) Biotin (B)Pantothenicacid
(C)Riboflavin (D)Thiamin
93. The cofactororits derivative required
forthe conversion of acetyl CoA to
malonylCoAis
2501
(A) FAD (B)ACP
(C)NAD
(D)Biotin
94. A cofactor required in oxidative
decarboxylationofpyruvateis
(A) Lipoate
(B) Pantothenicacid
(C) Biotin
(D) Paraaminobenzoicacid
95. ThecentralstructureofB12 referredtoas
corrinringsystemconsistsof
(A) Cobalt (B)Manganese
(C)Magnesium (D)Iron
96. The central heavy metal cobalt of
vitaminB12iscoordinatelyboundto
(A) Cyanidegroup(B)Aminogroup
(C)Carboxylgroup (D)Sulphidegroup
97. VitaminB12hasacomplexringstructure
(corrinring)consistingoffour
(A) Purinerings (B)Pyrimidinerings
(C)Pyrrolerings (D)Pteridinerings
98. Empericalformulaofcobalaminis
(A) C63H88N12O14P.CO
(B) C61H82N12O12P.CO
(C) C61H88N12O14P.CO
2502
(D) C63H88N14O14P.CO
99. AdeficiencyofvitaminB12causes
(A) Beri-Beri
(B) Scurvy
(C) Perniciuosanemia
(D) Ricket
100. VitaminB12deficiencycanbediagnosedby
urinaryexcretionof
(A) Pyruvate(B)Methylmalonate
(C)Malate (D)Lactate
101. Subacutecombineddegenerationofcord
iscausedduetodeficiencyof
(A) Niacin (B)Cobalamin
(C)Biotin (D)Thiamin
102. Vitamin required for metabolism of
diolse.g.conversionofethyleneglycolto
acetaldehydeis
(A) Thiamin (B)Cobalamin
(C)Pyridoxine (D)Folicacid
103. Bothfolicacidandmethylcobalamin
(vitaminB12)arerequiredin
(A) Deaminationofserine
(B) Deaminationofthreonine
(C) Conversion of pyridoxal phosphate
topyridoxaminephosphate
(D) Methylation of homocystein to
2503
methionine
104. Folicacidorfolateconsistsofthe
(A) Base pteridine,p-amino benzoic acid
andasparate
(B) Base purine, p-amino benzoic acid
andglutamate
(C) Base pteridine,p-amino benzoic acid
andglutamate
(D) Base purine,p-hydroxy benzoic acid
andglutamateVITAMINS 113
105. Folateasacoenzymeisinvolvedinthe
transferandutilizationof
(A) Aminogroup
(B) Hydroxylgroup
(C) Singlecarbonmoiety
(D) Amidogroup
106. Folicaciddeficiencycanbediagnosedby
increasedurinaryexcretionof
(A) Methylmalonate (B)Figlu
(C)Cystathionine (D)Creatinine
107. Sulpha drugs interfere with bacterial
synthesisof
(A) Lipoate (B) Vitamin E (C)
Tetrahydrofolate (D)Ascorbicacid
108. Folatedeficiencycauses
(A) Microcyticanemia
2504
(B) Hemolyticanemia
(C) Irondeficiencyanemia
(D) Megaloblasticanemia
109. Thiaminisheatstablein
(A) Acidicmedium (B)Alkalinemedium
110. Thiamindeficiencyincludes
(A)Mentaldepression(B)Fatigue
(C)Beriberi (D)Allofthese
111. Thiamin diphosphate is required for
oxidativedecarboxylationof
(A)α-Ketoacids (B)α-Aminoacids
(C)Fattyacids (D)Allofthese
112. Lossofthiamincanbedecreasedbyusing
(A) Unpolishedrice
(B) Parboiledrice
(C) Wholewheatflour
(D) Allofthese
113.Dailyrequirementofthiaminis
(A) 0.1mg/1,000Calories
(B) 0.5 mg/1,000 Calories(C)0.8
mg/1,000Calories
(D)1.0mg/1,000Calories
114. Thiaminrequirementisgreaterin
(A) Non-vegetarians(B)Alcoholics
(C) Pregnantwomen
2505
(D) BothBandC
115. People consuming polished rice as their
staplefoodareproneto
(A) Beriberi(B)Pellagra
116. Riboflavinisheatstablein
(A) Acidicmedium (B)Alkalinemedium
(C)Neutralmedium (D)Both(A)and(C)
117. FADisacoenzymefor
(A) Succinatedehydrogenase
(B) Glycerol-3-phosphatedehydrogenase
(C) Sphingosinereductase
(D) Allofthese
118. Riboflavindeficiencycancause
(A) Peripheralneuritis(B)Diarrhoea
(C)Angularstomatitis(D)Noneofthese
119. Pellagrapreventingfactoris
(A) Thiamin(B)Riboflavin
(C)Niacin (D)Pyridoxine
120. Niacincontainsa
(A) Sulphydrylgroup(B)Carboxylgroup
(C)Amidegroup (D)Allofthese
121. NADPisrequiredasacoenzymein
(A) Glycolysis (B)Citricacidcycle
(C)HMPshunt (D)Gluconeogenesis
122. NADisrequiredasacoenzymefor
2506
(C) Glucose-6-phosphatedehydrogenase
(D) HMGCoAreductae
123. NADisrequiredasaconenzymein
(A) Citricacidcycle
(B) HMPshunt
(C) β-Oxidationoffattyacids
(D) Both(A)and(C)
124. Niacincanbesynthesisedinhumanbeings
from
(A) Histidine(B)Phenylalanine
(C)Tyrosine (D)Tryptophan1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
1285. Dailyrequirementofniacinis
(A) 5mg (B)10mg
(C)20mg (D)30mg
126. Niacin deficiency is common in people
whosestaplefoodis
(A) Wheat
(B) Polishedrice
(C) Maizeand/orsorghum
(D) Noneofthese
127. Inpellagra,dermatitisusuallyaffects
(A) Exposedpartsofbody(B)Coveredparts
ofbody
2507
(C) Trunkonly
(D) Allpartsofthebody
128. Niacindeficiencycanoccurin
(A) Hartnupdisease (B)Phenylketonuria
(C)Alkaptonuria (D)Noneofthese
129. Pantothenic acid contains an amino acid
whichis
(A) Asparticacid(B)Glutamicacid
(C)β-Alanine (D)β-Aminoisobutyricacid
130. Sulphydryl group of coenzyme a is
contributedby
(A) β-Alanine
(B) β-Aminoisobutyricacid
(C) Methionine
(D) Thioethanolamine
131. CoenzymeA containsanitrogenousbase
whichis
(A) Adenine(B)Guanine
(C)Choline (D)Ethanolamine
132. Thefollowingisrequiredfortheformationof
coenyzmeA:
(A) ATP(B)GTP
(C)CTP (D)Noneofthese
133. CoenzymeAisrequiredforcatabolismof
(A) Leucine(B)Isoleucine
(C)Valine (D)Allofthese
2508
134. Deficiency ofpantothenic acid in human
beingscanaffect
(A) Nervoussystem (B)Digestivesystem
135. Pyridoxalphosphateisacoenzymefor
(A) Glutamateoxaloacetatetransaminase
(B) Glutamatepyruvatetransaminase
(C) Tyrosinetransaminase
(D) Allofthese
136. Pyridoxal phosphate is required as a
coenzymein
(A) Transamination (B)Transulphuration
(C)Desulphydration (D)Allofthese
137. Pyridoxalphosphateisacoenzymefor
(A) Glycogensynthetase
(B) Phosphorylase
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
138. Pyridoxinedeficiencycanbediagnosedby
measuringurinaryexcretionof
(A) Pyruvicacid (B)Oxaloaceticacid
(C)Xanthurenicacid(D)Noneofthese
139. Pyridoxine deficiencycan be diagnosedby
measuring the urinary excretion of
xanthurenicacidfollowingatestdoseof
(A) Glycine (B)Histidine
2509
(C)Tryptophan (D)Pyridoxine
140. Pyridoxine requirementdepends upon the
intakeof
(A) Carbohydrates (B)Proteins
(C)Fats (D)Noneofthese
141. Anti-eggwhiteinjuryfactoris
(A) Pyridoxine (B)Biton
(C)Thiamin (D)Liponicacid
142. Wheneggsarecooked
(A) Biotin is destroyed but avidin
remainsunaffected
(B) Avidin is inactivated but biotin
remainsunaffected
(C) Bothavidinandbiotinareinactivated
(D) Both avidin and biotin remain
unaffected
143. Biotinisrequiredasacoenzymeby
(A) Anaerobic dehydrogenases(B)VITAMINS 115
Decarboxylases
(C) Aerobicdehydrogenases
(D) Carboxylases
144. Biotinisacoenzymefor
(A) Pyruvatecarboxylase
(B) AcetylCoAcarboxylase
(C) PropionylCoAcarboxylase
(D) Allofthese
2510
145. Lipoicacidisaconenzymefor
(B) α-Ketoglutaratedehydrogenae
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
146. Chemically,lipoicacidis
(A) Saturatedfattyacid
(B) Unsaturatedfattyacid
(C) Aminoacid
(D) Sulphurcontainingfattyacid
147. Folicacidcontains
(A) Pteridine
(B) p-Aminobenzoicacid
(C) Glutamicacid
(D) Allofthese
148. Conversion offolate into tetrahydrofolate
requires
(A) NADH (B)NADPH
(C)FMNH2 (D)FADH2
149. Riboflavindeficiencysymptomsare
(A) Glossitis(B)stomatis
(C)Vomitting (D)Both(A)and(B)
150. VitaminB12formscoenzymesknownas
(A) Cobamide (B)TranscobalaminI
(C)TranscobalaminII(D)Both(B)and(C)
151. Methylcobalaminisrequiredforformationof
2511
(A) Serinfromglycine
(B) Glycinefromserine
(C) Methioninefromhomocysteine
(D) Allofthese
152. Absorption of Vitamin B12 requires the
presenceof
(A) Pepsin (B)Hydrochloricacid
(C)Intrinsicfactor (D)Boh(B)and(C)
153. Intrinsicfactorischemicallya
(A) Protein
(B) Glycoprotein
(C) Mucopolysaccaride
(D) Peptide
154. Chemically,ExtrinsicFactorofCastleisa
(A) Mucoprotein
(B) Glycoprotein
(C) Mucopolysaccharide
(D) Cyanocobalaminm
155. VitaminB12is
(A) Notstoredinthebody
(B) Storedinbonemarrow
(C) Storedinliver
(D) StoredinREcells
156. VitaminB12istransportedinbloodby
(A) Albumin(B)Transcortin
(C)TranscobalaminI(D)TranscobalaminII
2512
157. VitaminB12issynthesizedby
(A) Bacteriaonly(B)Plantsonly
(C)Animalsonly (D)Both(A)and(C)
158. DeficiencyofvitaminB12 canoccurbecause
of
(A) DecreasedintakeofvitaminB12
(B) Atrophyofgastricmucosa
(C) Intestinalmalabsorption
(D) Allofthese
159. DeficiencyofvitaminB12 canbediagonised
by
(A) Carr-Pricereaction
(B) Amesassay
(C) Watson-Schwartztest
(D) Schillingtest
160. Gastyrectomy leads to megaloblastic
anaemiawithinafew
(A) Days (B)Weeks
(C)Months (D)Years
161. Ascorbicacidisrequiredtosynthesiseallof
thefollowingexcept1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 (A) Collagen(B)Bileacids
(C)Bilepigments (D)Epinephrine
162. VitaminCenhancestheintestinalabsorption
of
2513
(A) Potassium (B)Iodine
(C)Iron (D)Noneofthese
163. VitaminCactivityispresentin
(A) D-Ascorbicacid
(B) D-Dehydroascorbicacid
(C) L-Ascorbicacid
(D) BothAandB
164. VitaminCisrequiredforthesynthesisof
(A) Bileacidsfrom cholesterol(B)Bilesalts
frombileacids
(C) VitaminDfromcholesterol
(D) Allofthese
165. DeficiencyofvitaminCcauses
(A) Beriberi
(B) Pellagra
(C) Perniciousanaemia
(D) Scurvy
166. AnearlydiagnosisofvitaminCdeficiencycan
bemadeby
(A) Measuringplasmaascorbicacid
(B) Measuringurinaryascorbicacid
(C) Ascorbicacidsaturationtest
(D) Allofthese
167. DailyrequirementofvitaminC inadultsis
about
(A) 100mg (B)25mg
2514
(C)70mg (D)100mg
168. The vitamin having the highest daily
requirementamongthefollowingis
(A) Thiamin(B)Ribovflavin
(C)Pyridoxine (D)Ascorbicacid
169. Anaemiacanoccurduetothedeficiencyof
allthefollowingexcept
(A) Thiamin(B)Pyridoxine
(C)Folicacid (D)Cyanocobalamin
170. A vitamin which can be synthesized
byhumanbeingsis
(A) Thiamin(B)Niacin
(C)Folicacid (D)Cyanocobalamin
171. Laboratory diagnosis of vitamin B12
deficiencycanbemadebymeasuringthe
urinaryexcretionof
(A) Xanthurenicacid
(B) Formiminoglutamicacid
(C) Methylmalonicacid
(D) Homogentisicacid
172. ThemoleculeofvitaminA1contains
(A) Benzenering(B)β-Iononering
(C)β-Carotenering (D)Noneofthese
173. PrecursorofVitaminAis
(A) α-Carotene (B)β-Carotene
(C)γ-Carotene (D)Allofthese
2515
174. Two molecules of vitamin A can be
formedfrom1moleculeof
(A) α-Carotene (B)β-Carotene
(C)γ-Carotene (D)Allofthese
175. Conversionofβ-caroteneintoretinalrequires
thepresenceof
(A) β-Carotenedioxygenase
(B) Bilesalts
(C) Molecularoxygen
(D) Allofthese
176. Conversionofretinalintoritonalrequiresthe
presenceof
(A) NADH (B)NADPH
(C)FADH2 (D)Lipoicacid
177. Retinalisconvertedintoretinoicacidinthe
presenceof
(A) Retinaloxidase (B) Retinal
carboxylase
(C)Retinenereductase(D)Spontaneously
178. VitaminAabsorbedinintestineisreleased
into
(A) Portalcirculation(B)Lacteals
179. VitaminAisstoredinthebodyin
(A) LiverVITAMINS 117
(B) Adiposetissue
2516
(C) Reticuloendothelialcells
(D) Allofthese
180. Rhodopsincontainsopsinand
(A) 11-cis-retinal(B)11-trans-retinal
(C)All-cis-retinal (D)Alltrans-retinal
181. Whenlightfallsonrodcells
(A) All-cis-retinalisconvertedintoall-trans-
retinal(B)11-cis-retinalisconvertedinto11-
trans-retinal
(C) 11-trans-retinalis converted into all-
transretinal
(D) 11-cis-retinalisconvertedintoall-trans-
retinal
182. Conversionofall-trans-retinalintoalltrans-
retinolrequires
(A) NAD (B)NADH
(C)NADP (D)NADPH
183. Retinolisomeraseispresentin
(A) Retina (B)Liver(C)Both(A)and(B)
(D)Noneofthese
184. Anti-oxidantactivityispresentin
(A) β-Carotene (B)Retinol
(C)Retinoicacid (D)Allofthese
185. OneinternationalUnitofvitaminA isthe
activitypresentin
(A) 0.3 µg ofβ-Carotene (B)0.3 µg of
2517
retinol
(C) 0.6µgofretinoicacid
(D) Allofthese
186. Daily requirement of vitamin A in an
adultmancanbeexpressedas
(A) 400IU (B)1,000IU
(C)5,000IU (D)10,000IU
187. VitaminB6includes
(A) Pyridoxal (B)Pyridoxamine
(C)Pyridoxine (D)Allofthese
188. Anearlyeffectofvitaminadeficiencyis
(A) Xerophthalmia
(B) Keratomalacia
(C) Prolongeddarkadaptationtime
(D) Follicularhyperkeratosis
189. Nyctalopiais
(A) Dryingofeyes
(B) Destructionofcornea
(C) Blindness
(D) Inabilitytoseeindimlight
190. Rodcellspossessatrans-membraneprotein
whichis
(A) Adenylatecyclase(B)Transducin
(C)Rhodopsin (D)BaswellasC
191. ProvitaminsAinclude
(A) Retinal (B)Retionicacid
2518
(C)Carotenes (D)Allofthese
192. Retinoicacidcan
(A) Actasaphotoreceptor
(B) Supportgrowthanddifferentiation
(C) Actasananti-oxidant
(D) Noneofthese
193. Prostheticgroupinconecellphototreceptors
is
(A) Iodine (B)Opsin
(C)11-cis-retinal (D)all-trans-retinal
194. Retinoicacidisinvolvedinthesynthesisof
(A) Rhodopsin (B)Iodopsin
(C)Porphyrinopsin (D)Glycoproteins
195Transducinisa
(A) Signaltransducer (B) Stimulatory G-
protein
(C)Trimer (D)Allofthese
196. ProvitaminD3is
(A) Cholecalciferol
(B) Ergosterol
(C) 7-Dehydrocholesterol
(D) Ergocaliferol
197. Ergosterolisfoundin
(A) Animals (B)Plants
(C)Bacteria (D)Allofthese
198. AprovitaminDsynthesizedinhumanbeings
2519
is
(A) Ergosterol1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 (B) 7-Dehydrocholesterol
(C) Cholecalciferol
(D) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
199. 25-HydroxylationofvitaminDoccursin
(A) Skin(B)Liver
(C)Kidneys (D)Intestinalmucosa
200. Tubularreabsorptionofcalcium isincreased
by
(A) Cholecalciferol
(B) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
(C) Calcitriol
(D) Allofthese
201. Parathormoneisrequiredfortheconversion
of
(A) Cholecalciferol into 1-
hydroxycholecalciferol
(B) Cholecalciferol into 25-
(C) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferolintocalcitriol
(D) Cholesterolinto7-dehydrocholesterol
202. Calcitriolinhibitstheconversionof
(A) Cholesterolinto7-dehydrocholesterol
(B) Cholecalciferol into 1-
2520
(C) Cholecalciferol into 25-
(D) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol into 1,25-
dihydroxycholecalciferol
203. Bowlegsandknock-kneescanoccurin
(A) Rickets (B)Osteomalacia
(C)BothAandB (D)HypervitaminosisD
204. Calcificationofsofttissuescanoccurin
(A) Osteomalacia
(B) Rickets
(C) HypervitaminosisD
(D) Noneofthese
205. Levels of serum calcium and inorganic
phosphorusareincreasedin
(A) HypervitaminosisD
(B) Hypoparathyroidism
(C) HypovitaminosisD
(D) Noneofthese
206. RequirementofvitaminEincreaseswiththe
increasingintakeof
(A) Calories (B)Proteins
(C)PUFA (D)Cholesterol
207. Inhumanbeings,vitaminEprevents
(A) Sterility
(B) Hepaticnecrosis
2521
(C) Musculardystrophy
(D) Noneofthese
208. VitaminEprotects
(A) Polyunsaturated fatty acids
againstaperoxidation
(B) Vitamin A and carotenes against
oxidation
(C) Lung tissue against atmospheric
pollutants
(D) Allofthese
209. Intestinalbacteriacansynthesise
(A) Phyllogquinone (B)Farnoquinone
(C)Both(A)and(B) (D)Menadione
210. AwatersolubleformofvitaminKis
(A) Phylloquinone(B)Farnoquinone
(C)Menadione (D)Noneofthese
211. Prothrombintimeisprolongedin
(A) VitaminKdeficiency
(B) Liverdamage
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
212. AsyntheticformofvitaminKis
(A) Menadione (B)Farnoquinone
(C)Phylloquinone (D)Noneofthese
213. Retinal is reduced to retinol by
retinenereductase in presence of the
2522
coenzyme
(A) NAD
(B)NADP
(C)NADH+H
(D)NADPH+H
214. Retinalexistsasanesterwithhigherfatty
acidsinthe
(A) Liver(B)Kidney
(C)Lung (D)Allofthese
215. RetinolistransportedtothebloodasretinolVITAMINS 119
attachedto
(A) α1-globulin (B)α2-globulin
(C)β-globulin (D)γ-globulin
216. Carotenesaretransportedwiththe
(A) Minerals(B)Proteins
(C)Lipids (D)Lipoproteins
217. The drugs that form complexes with
pyridoxalare
(A) Isoniazid(B)Penicillamine
(C)Rifampicin (D)Both(A)and(B)
218. Inthebloodthevitaminestersareattached
to
(A) α1-lipoproteins (B)α2-lipoproteins
2523
(C)β-lipoproteins (D)γ-lipoproteins
219. ThepercentageofVitaminAintheform of
estersisstoredintheliver:
(A) 80 (B)85
(C)90 (D)95
220. The performed Vitamin A is supplied by
foodssuchas
(A) Butter (B)Eggs
(C)Fishliveroil (D)Allofthese
221. Thenon-proteinpartofrhodopsinis
(A) Retinal (B)Retinol
(C)Carotene (D)Repsin
222. Lumirhodopsin is stable only at a
temperaturebelow
(A) –35°C (B)–40°C
(C)–45°C (D)–50°C
223ThenormalconcentrationofvitaminAinblood
inI.V/dl:
(A)20–55 (B)24–60
(C)30–65 (D)35–70
224. Continuedintakeofexcessiveamountsof
vitaminAespeciallyinchildrenproduces
(A) Irritability(B)Anorexia
(C)Headache (D)Allofthese
225. VitaminD2isalsosaidtobe
(A) Activatedergosterol
2524
(B) Fergocalciferol
(C) Viosterol
(D) Allofthese
226. ThepoorsourcesofvitaminD:
(A) Eggs(B)Butter
(C)Milk (D)Liver
227. Theactivityoftocopherolsisdestroyedby
(C)Conjugation (D)Allofthese
228Sometocopherolsare
(A)Terpenoidinstructure
(B)Dionalinstructure
(C) Isoprenoidinstructure
(D) Farnesylinstructure
229. Themethylgroupsinthearomaticnucleusof
atocopherolsare
(A) 2 (B)3
(C)4 (D)5
230. VitaminEstoredin
(A) Mitochondria(B)Microsomes
231. VitaminEprotectsthepolyunsaturatedfatty
acidsfrom oxidationbymolecularoxygenin
theformationof
(A) Superoxide (B)Peroxide
(C)Trioxide (D)Allofthese
2525
232. Thetocopherolspreventtheoxidationof
233. Vitamin E protects enzymes from
destructionin
(A) Muscles (B)Nerves
(C)Gonads (D)Allofthese
234. Vitamin K regulates the synthesis of
bloodclottingfactors:
(A) VII (B)IX(C)X(D)Allofthese
235. Ascorbicacidcanreduce
(A) 2,4-dinitrobenzene
(B) 2,6-DichlorophenolIndophenol
(C) 2,4-dibromobenzene
(D) 2,6-dibromobenzene1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2386. Sterilizedmilkisdevoidof
(A) VitaminA(B)VitaminB1
(C)VitaminC (D)VitaminD
237. Thesymptomsofscurvyare
(A) Poorhealingofwounds
(B) Looseningofteeth
(C) Anaemia(D)Allofthese
238. Kwashiorkorresultsfrom
(A) VitaminAdeficiency
(B) VitaminDdeficiency
2526
(C) Deficiencyofmineralsindiet
(D) Proteinandcaloricdeficiencyindiet
239. Whichamongthefollowingfattyacidsisan
essentialfattyacidforman?
(A) Palmiticacid (B)Oleicacid
(C)Linoleicacid (D)Noneofthese
240. Thenumberofnutritionallyessentialamino
acidsformanis
(A) 6 (B)8
(C)10 (D)12
241. Avidinispresentin
(A) Cow’smilk
(B) Rawegg
(C) Greenleafyvegetables
(D) Carrots
242. Marasmusisduetomalnutritionof
(A) Proteins
(B) Proteinsandcalories
(C) Proteinsandvitamins
(D) Proteinsandminerals
243. Energyvalueinkilocaloriepergram offatin
thebodyis
(A) 1 (B)4
(C)9 (D)18
244. Which among the following is an
2527
(A) Alanine (B)Serine
(C)Valine (D)Glutamicacid
245. Underwhatconditiontobasalmetabolicrate
goesup?
(A) Coldenvironment
(B) Hotenvironment
(C) Intakeofbaseformingfoods
(D) Hypothyroidism
246. Whatisthemajorform ofcaloricstoragein
humanbody?
(A) ATP
(B) Glycogen
(C) Creatinephosphate
(D) triacylglycerol
247. Thephosphoproteinofmilkis
(A) Lactalbumin (B)Lactoglobulin
(C)Vitellin (D)Caein
248. Dictarydeficiencyofthisvitaminleadsto
nightblindness:
(A) Retinol (B)Niacin
(C)Ascorbicacid (D)Cholecalciferol
249. Anonessentialaminoacidisnot
(A) Absorbedintheintestines
(B) Requiredinthediet
(C) Incorporatedintotheprotein
(D) Metabolizedbythebody
2528
250. ThedeficiencyofVitaminB12leadsto
(A) Perniciousanaemia
(B) Megablasticanaemia
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
251. Whichamongthefollowingisanutritionally
(C)Tyrosine (D)Isoleucine
252. Themaximum specificdynamicaction of
foodstuffisexertedby
(A) carbohydrates(B)fats
(C)proteins (D)vitamins
253. Theessentialaminoacids
(A) mustbesuppliedinthedietbecause
theorganism has lostthe capacityto
aminatethecorrespondingketoacids
(B) mustbesuppliedinthedietbecause
thehuman has an impaired ability to
synthesize the carbon chain of the
correspondingVITAMINS 121
ketoacids
(C) areidenticalinallspeciesstudied
(D) are defined as these amino acids
whichcannot be synthesized by the
organism atarateadequatetomeet
2529
metabolicrequirements
254. Fibreinthedietisbeneficialin
(A) Hyperglycemia
(B) Hypercholseteremia
(C) Coloncancer
(D) Allofthese
255Sucroseintoleranceleadsto
(A)Hyperglycemia (B)Glycosuria
(C)Diarrhoea (D)Hypoglycemia
256. Therecanbeintolerancewithrespecttothe
followingsugar:
(A) Glucose(B)Lactose
(C)Maltose (D)Xylose
257. Milkcontainsverypooramountsof
(A) Calcium (B)Phosphate
(C)Iron (D)Riboflavin
258. Eggcontainsverylittle
(A) Fat
(B) Proteins
(C) Carbohydrates
(D) Calciumandphosphorus
259. BMR(BasalMetabolicrate)iselevatedin
(A) Hyperthyroidism (B)Undernutrition
(C)Starvation (D)Hypothyroidism
260. Soyabeanproteinsarerichin
2530
(C)Glcyine (D)Asparticacid
261. Cornandgliadinarelowin
(C)Glycine (D)Asparticacid
262. Whatis the disease caused bythiamine
deficiency?
(A) Nycalopia (B)Scurvy
(C)Rickets (D)Beriberi
263. Retinolandretinol–bindingprotein(RBP)
boundwiththisprotein:
(A) Albumin(B)Prealbumin
(C)α2-globulin (D)β-globulin
264. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by the
deficiencyof
(A) Folicacid (B)VitaminB6
(C)Iron (D)Protein
265. Thisvitaminactsasanti-oxidant:
(C)VitaminE (D)VitaminK
266. Calcitriolis
(A) 1-OH-cholecalciferol
(B) 25-OH-cholecalciferol
(C) 24,25-diOHcholecalciferol
(D) 1,25-diOHcholecalciferol
267. 1-hydroxylation of25-OH vitamin D3 takes
placein
2531
(A) Liver (B)Kidneys
(C)Intestine (D)Pancreas
268. 25-hydroxylationofvitaminD3takesplacein
269. Hydroxylationof25-hydroxycholecalciferol
ispromotedby
(A) Cytochrome - a (B) Parathyroid
hormone(C)Cytochrome-b(D)CAMP
270. Theegginjuryfactorinraweggwhiteis
(A) Biotin (B)Avidin(C)Albumin(D)
Calciumsalts
271. Thefollowinghascyanide:
(A) VitaminB12
(B) Adenylcobamide
(C) Benzimidazolecobamide
(D) Methylcobamide
272. Thehumanspeciescanbiosynthesize
(A) VitaminC (B)VitaminB12
(C)Thiamine (D)Niacin
273. Retinacontainsthisphotosensitivepigment:
(A) Rhodopsin (B)Opsin
(C)Retinol (D)Melanin
274. Antixerophthalmicvitaminis1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 (A) VitaminB1 (B)VitaminB2
2532
(C)VitaminB6 (D)VitaminA
275. Oneofthefollowingisnotasymptom of
addison’sdisease.
(A) Hypoglycemia (B)Hyponatremia
(C)Hypokalemia (D)Hypochoremia
276. Gammaxaneisanantimetaboliteof
(A) Thiamine (B)Riboflavin
(C)Pyridoxin (D)Inositol
277. Pyridoxindeficiencymayleadtoconvulsions
asitisneededforthesynthesisof
(A) GABA (B)PABA
(C)EFA (D)SAM
278. Sulphadrugsareantimetabolitiesof
(A) VitaminK (B)Pyridoxin
(C)Folicacid (D)VitaminB2
279. This abnormal metabolite may be
responsible for the neurological
manifestationofperniciousanemia:
(A) Taurine (B)Methylmalonicacid
(C)Xantherunicacid(D)Phenylpyruvicacid
280. Thevitamininleafyvegetables:
(A) D (B)K
(C)A (D)Both(B)and(C)
281. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide given in the
treatmentoftuberculosis may lead to a
deficiencyof
2533
(A) VitaminA (B)Pyridoxin
(C)Folate (D)Inositol
282. BiotinisrequiredforthereactionofCO2with
(A) Water
(B) AcetylCoA
(C) NH3
(D) Incorporationofcarbon6inpurine
283. Adeficiencyoffolateleadsto
(A) Megaloblastic anemia(B) Aplastic
anemia
(D) Hypochromicmicrocyticanemia
284. AdeficiencyofIronleadsto
anemia
285. Corninoidcoenzymesarecoenzymesof
(C)VitaminB2 (D)VitaminB1
286. Vitamin B12 initiallybinds to the proteins
knownas
(A) TranscobalaminI(B)R-Proteins
(C) TranscobalaminII
(D) Intrinsicfactorofcastle
287. Extrinsicfactorofcastleis
2534
(A) VitaminB12 (B)Glycoprotein
(C)R-Proteins (D)Sigmaprotein
288. Intrinsicfactorofcastleis
(A)VitaminB12 (B)Glycoprotein
(C)R-Proteins289.
Perniciousmeans
(D)Sigmaprotein
(A)Prolonged (B)Dangerous
(C)Intermittent (D)Idiopathic
290. Reduction ofD-ribonucleotides to Ddeoxy
ribonucleotidesinprokaryotesrequires
(A) 5,6dimethylbenzimidazolecobamide
(B) Thioredoxin
(C) Tetrahydrobiopterin
(D) Tetrahydrofolate
291. Biotinisalsoknownas
(A) Antieggwhiteinjuryfactor
(B) Rutin
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
292. Angularstomatosisisdueto
(A) Ariboflavinoses
(B) DeficiencyofVitaminC
(C) DeficiencyofVitaminB1
(D) Deficiencyoffolate
293. One ofthe main functions ofVitamin K
2535
iscofactorfor
(A) Carboxylate forthe formation ofγ
carboxyglutamateVITAMINS 123
(B) Methylationofδ-adenosylmethionine
(C) Carboxylationofbiotin
(D) Onecarbontransferbytetrahydrofolate
294. Prothrombin time is prolonged by
administering
(A) VitaminK (B) Dicoumarol (C)
Calcium (D)Prothrombin
295. Thisvitaminactsasantioxidant.
296. Thisisaphoto-labilevitamin.
(C)Niacin (D)Cholecalciferol
297. Convulsiveepisodesoccurwhenthereisa
severedeficiencyof
(A) Pyridoxine (B)Folicacid
(C)Thiamine (D)Riboflavin
298. Metastatic classification is seen in
hypervitaminosis:
(A) A (B)K
(C)D (D)E
299. Theantivitaminforparaaminobenzoicacid
is
2536
(A) Aminopterin(B)Dicoumarol
(C)Sulphonamides (D)Thiopanicacid
300. Severalpantothenicaciddeficiencyinman
hasbeenreportedtocause
(A) Burningfeetsyndrome(B)Scurvy
(C) Cataract
(D) Xerophthalmia
301. Cholesterolisaprecursorinthebiogenesis
of
(C)VitaminE (D)Noneofthese
302. This vitamin is a potentantioxidantof
vitaminA:
(A) VitaminC (B)VitaminE
(C)VitaminK (D)VitaminD
303. Inretinalrickets,thefollowinghydroxylation
ofVitaminD3doesnottakeplace:
(A) 25 (B)1
(C)24 (D)7
304. Thefollowingdoesnothavephosphorous:
(A) Riboflavin (B)TPP
(C)NAD
(D)COASH
305. Convulsionsanddeliriumcouldbecausedby
aseveredeficiencyof
2537
(A) Thiamine (B)Glutamate
(C)Niacin (D)Magnesium
306. Ricepolishingscontainthisvitamin:
(A) Riboflavin (B)Niacin
307. In beriberithere willbe accumulation
of_______inblood.
(A) Acetoaceticacid(B)β-OHbutyricacid
(C)Pyruvicacid (D)Methylmalonicacid
308. Symptomsofpellagraare
(A) Dermatitisanddiarrheaonly
(B) Dermatitisanddementiaonly
(C) Diarrhea,dermatitisanddementia
(D) Diarrheaandelementsonly
309. Pyridoxinedeficiencyleadsto
(A) Megaloblasticanemia
(B) Aplasticanemia
(C) Hypochromicmicrocyticanemia
(D) Permiciousanemia
310. The significant ocular lesion in arbo
flovinosis:
(A) Keratomalacia
(B) Bitot’sspots
(C) Vascularisationofthecornea
(D) lachrymalmetaplasia
311. Irradiationoffoodsraisesthecontentof
2538
312. Ananti-vitaminforfolicacidis
(A) Amethoptesin (B)Dicoumarol
(C)Pyrithoamine (D)Isoniazid
313. Thymineis
(A) Watersolublevitamin
(B) Fatsolublevitamin1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 (C) Purinebase
(D) Pyrimidinebase
314. Theanti-vitaminforparaaminobenzoicacid
is
(A) Aminopterrin(B)Dicoumarol
(C)INH (D)Sulphonamides
315. Thesulphur-containingvitaminsamongthe
followingB-Vitaminis
316. Taurinuriamaybeencounteredin
(A) Permiciousanemia(B)Beriberi
(C)Pellegra (D)Folatedeficiency
317. The three vitamins which are specially
requiredforpropernervefunctionsareacid:
(A) Thiamine,niacinandriboflavin
(B) Thiamine,folicacid,choline
2539
(C) Thiamine,riboflavin,patothenicacid
(D) Thiamine,pyridoxin,vitaminB12
318. ThisisarichsourceforvitaminC.
(A) Rice(B)Milk
(C)Egg (D)Lemon
319. The following vitamin is involved in
coenzymefunctionintransaminations:
(A) Nicotinamide(B)Pyridoxine
320. Methylmalonic aciduria is seen in the
deficiencyof
(A) VitaminB6 (B)Folicacid
321. DeficiencyofVitaminCleadsto
(A) Rickets(B)Scurvy(C)Nightblindness
(D)Allofthese
322. If no primer DNA was given, the
followingscientist could not have
synthesizedDNA.
(A) Ochoa (B)Okazaki
(C)Kornberg (D)Monod
323. Antisterilityvitaminis
324. Allthe following vitamins give rise to
cofactors thatare phosphorylated in the
2540
activeformexcept
(A) VitaminA (B)VitaminB1
325. MolecularIron,Fe,is
(A) Storedinthebodyincombinationwith
Ferritin
(B) Storedprimarilyinthespleen
(C) ExcretedintheurineasFe
2+
(D) absorbedintheintestinebyalbumin
326. Humansmosteasilytoleratealackofwhich
ofthefollowingnutrients?
(A) Protein (B)Iodine
(C)Carbohydrate (D)Lipid
327. AdeficiencyofvitaminB12causes
(A) Cheliosis (B)Beriberi
(C)Perniciousanemia(D)Scurvy
328. In adults a severe deficiency ofvitamin
Dcauses
(A) Nightblindness (B)Osteomalacia
(C)Rickets (D)Skincancer
329. Whichofthefollowingvitaminswouldmost
likely become deficientin a person who
developsacompletelycarnivorouslifestyle?
(A) Thiamine (B)Niacin
(C)Cobalamine (D)VitaminC
2541
330. Whichofthefollowingstatementsregarding
VitaminAistrue?
(A) ItisnotanessentialVitamin
(B) Itisrelatedtotocopherol
(C) Itisacomponentofrhodopsin
(D) ItisalsoknownasOpsin
331. Fullyactivatedpyruvatecarboxylasedepends
uponthepresenceof
(A) MalateandNiacin
(B) AcetylCoAandbiotin
(C) Acetyl CoA and thiamine
pyrophosphate
(D) OxaloacetateandbiotinVITAMINS 125
332. Pantothenic acid is a constituent of
coenzymeinvolvedin
(A) Acetylation (B)Decarboxylation
(C)Dehydrogenation(D)Oxidation
333. Biotin is involved in which of the
followingtypesofreactions?
(A) Hydroxylation (B)Carboxylation
(C)Decarboxylation (D)Deamination
334. Which of the following vitamins is
theprecurssorofCoA?
(A) Riboflavin (B)Pantothenate
(C)Thiamine (D)Cobamide
335. Vitamins that function as dinucleotide
2542
derivativesincludeallthefollowingexcept
(A) Thiamine (B)Niacin
(C)Nicotinate (D)VitaminB2
336. Methyl malonic aciduria is seen in a
deficiencyof
337. Whatis the disease caused bythiamine
deficiency?
(A) Nyctalopia (B)Scurvy
(C)Rickets (D)Beriberi
338. RetinolandRetinolbindingproteinarebound
withthisprotein:
(A) Albumin(B)Prealbumin
(C)α-globulin (D)β-globulin
339. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by the
deficiencyof
(A) Folicacid (B)VitaminB6
(C)Iron (D)Protein
340. Thisvitaminactsasantioxidant.
341. Calcitriolis
(A) 1-hydroxycholecalciferol
(B) 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
(C) 24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
2543
(D) 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
342. 1-hydroxylation of25-hydroxy Vitamin D3
takesplacein
343. 25-hydroxylationofVitaminD3takesplacein
(C)Intestines (D)Pancreas
344. Hydroxylationof25-hydroxycholecalciferol
ispromotedby
(A) CytochromeA (B) Panthyroid
hormone
(C)Cytochromeb (D)cAMP
345. Theegginjuryfactorinraweggwhiteis
(A) Biotin (B)Avidin(C)Albumin(D)
Calciumsalts
346. Thefollowinghascyanide:
(A) VitaminB12
(B) Adenylcobamide
(C) Benzimidazolecobamide
(D) Methylcobamide
347. Thehumanspeciescanbiosynthesize
(A) VitaminC (B)VitaminB12
(C)Thiamine (D)Niacin
348. Retinacontainsthisphotosensitivepigment.
(A) Rhodopsin (B)Opsin
2544
(C)Retinol (D)Malanin
349. Antixerophthalmicvitaminis
350. One ofthe following is notsymptom of
Addison’sdisease:
(A) Hypoglycemia (B)Hyponatremia
(C)Hypokalemia (D)Hypochloremia
351. Gammaxineisanantimetaboliteof
(C)Pyridoxin (D)Inositol
352. Pyridoxine deficiency may lead to
convulsionsasitisneededforthesynthesis
of
(A) GABA (B)PABA1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 (C)EFA (D)SAM
353. Sulphadrugsareantimetabolitesof
(A) PABA (B)Pyridoxin
(C)VitaminB2 (D)Pantothenicacid
354. This abnormal metabolite may be
responsible for the neurological
manifestationofperniciousanemia.
(A) Taurine (B)Methylmalonicacid
(C)Xanthurenicacid(D)Phenylpyruvicacid
355. Cholineisnotrequiredfortheformationof
2545
(A) Lecithins (B)Acetylcholine
(C)Sphingomyelin (D)Cholicacid
356. Isonicotinic acid hydrazide given in the
treatmentoftuberculosis may lead to a
deficiencyof
(A) VitaminA (B)Pyridoxin
(C)Folate (D)Inositol
357. Steroidalprohormoneis
(A) VitaminA (B)VitaminC
(C)VitaminD (D)Noneofthese
358. Adeficiencyoffolateleadsto
anemia
359. DeficiencyofIronleadsto
anemia
360. Corrinoidcoenzymesarecoenzymesof
(C)VitaminB2 (D)VitaminB1
361. Vitamin B12 initiallybinds to the proteins
knownas
(A) TranscobalaminI(B)R-proteins
2546
(C) TranscobalaminII
(D) Intrinsicfactorofcastle
362. Extrinsicfactorofcastleis
(C)R-proteins (D)Sigmaprotein
363. Intrinsicfactorofcastleis
(C)R-proteins (D)Sigmaprotein
364. Perniciousmeans
(A) Prolonged (B)Dangerous
(C)Intermittent (D)Idiopathic
365. Reduction of D-ribonucleotides to D-
deoxyribonucleotidesinprokaryotesrequires
(A) 5,6dimethylbenzimindazolecobamide
(B) Thiredoxin
(C) Tetrahydrobiopterin
366. Antirachiticvitaminis
367. Angularstomatitisisdueto
(A) Ariboflavinosis
(B) DeficiencyofVitaminC
(C) DeficiencyofVitaminB1
(D) Deficiencyoffolate
368. OneofthemainfunctionsofVitaminKisthe
2547
cofactorfor
(A) Carboxylase forthe formation ofγ--
carboxyglutamate
(B) MethylationbyS-adenosylmethionine
(C) Carboxylationbybiotin
(D) Onecarbontransferbytetrahydrofolate
369. Prothrombin time is prolonged by
administering
(A) VitaminK (B) Dicoumarol (C)
Calcium (D)Prothrombin
370. ThisVitaminactsasantioxidant:
371. Thisisphotolabilevitamin:
(C)Niacin (D)Cholecalciferol
372. Convulsiveepisodesoccurwhenthereisa
severedeficiencyof:
(A) Pyridoxine (B)Folicacid
(C)Thiamine (D)RiboflavinVITAMINS 127
373. Metastatic calcification is seen in
hypervitaminosis:
(A) A (B)K
(C)D (D)E
is
2548
(A) Aminopterin(B)Dicoumasol
(C)Sulphanomides (D)Thiopamicacid
375. Severepatothemicaciddeficiencyinman
hasbeenreportedtocause
(A) Burningfeetsyndrome(B)Scurvy
(C) Cataract
(D) Xeropththalmia
376. Cholesterol is a precursor in the
biogenesisof
(C)VitaminE (D)Noneofthese
377. Whichofthevitaminsisapotentantioxidant
ofVitaminA?
(A) VitaminC (B)VitaminE
(C)VitaminK (D)VitaminD
378. Inrenalrickets,thefollowinghydroxylationof
VitaminD3doesnottakeplace:
(A) 25 (B)1
(C)24 (D)7
379. Which of the following does not have
phosphorous?
(A) Riboflavin (B)TPP
(C)NAD
(D)CaASH
380. Rice-polishings contain whcih of the
2549
followingVitamin?
(A) Riboflavin (B)Niacin
381. In beriberithere willbe accumulation
of_________inblood.
(A) Acetoaceticacid
(B) β−hydroxybutyricacid
(C) Pyruvicacid
(D) Methylmalonicacid
382. Symptomsofpellagraare
(A) Dermatitisanddiarrheaonly
(B) DermatitisandDermentiaonly
(C) Diarrheaanddermentiaonly
(D) Diarrhea,Dermatitisanddementia
383. Pyridoxinedeficiencyleadsto
(A) Megaloblasticanemia
(B) Aplasticanemia
(C) Hypochromicmicrocyticanemia
(D) Perniciousanemia
384. The significant ocular lesion in a
riboflavinosisis
(A) Keratomalacia
(B) Bitot’sspots
(C) Vascularisationofthecornea
(D) Lachrynalmetaplasia
385. Ananti-vitaminforfolicacidis
2550
(C)Pyrithiamine (D)Isoniazid
386. Thiamineis
(A) Water-solublevitamin
(B) Fatsolublevitamin
(C) Purinebase
(D) Pyrimidinebase
is
(C)INH (D)Sulphanomides
388. Thesulphurcontainingvitaminsamongthe
followingBVitaminis
389. Taurinuriamaybeencounteredin
(A) Perniciousanemia(B)Beriberi
(C)Pellegra (D)Folatedeficiency
390. The three vitamins which are specially
requiredforpropernervefunctionsare
(A) Thiamine,NiacinandRiboflavin
(B) Thiamin,Folicacid,Choline
(C) Thiamine,Riboflavin,Pantothenicacid
(D) Thiamine,Pyridoxin,VitaminB12
391. ThisisarichsourceforVitaminC:
(A) Rice(B)Milk1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2551
1
8 (C)Egg (D)Lemon
392. Whichotthefollowingvitaminisinvolvedin
coenzymefunctionintransaminations?
(A) Nicotinamide(B)Pyridoxine
393. Methyl malonic aciduria is seen in a
deficiencyof
394. In pernicious anemia, Urine contains
highamountsof
(A) Methylmalonicacid(B)FIGLU
(C)VMA (D)5HIAA
395. AntisterilityVitaminis
396. Biotin deficiency is characterized by the
followingexcept
(A) Muscularpain (B)Anaemia
(C)Nausea (D)Dermatitis
397. Deficiencyofthiaminecauses
(A) Beriberi(B)Scurvy(C)Nightblindness
(D)Rickets
398. DeficiencyofVitaminDleadsto
(A) Rickets (B) Osteomalacia (C)
2552
Xeropthalmia(D)Both(A)and(B)
399. Thevitaminthatisusefulincanceris
(A) A (B)Bcomplex(C)C (D)E
400. VitaminAoverdosagecausesinjuryto
(A) Mitochondria(B)Microtubules
(C)Lysosomes (D)E.R
401. Whichisaprovitaminorvitaminthathas
antioxidantproperties?
(A) Betacarotene (B)VitaminE
(C)VitaminC (D)VitaminD
402. The vitamin required for carboxylation
reactionis
(C)Biotin (D)VitaminB12
403. Biologicalactivityoftocopherolshasbeen
attributedinparttotheiractionas
(A) Antioxidant
(B) Anticoagulents
(C) Provitamin
(D) Carriersinelectrontransportsystem
404. Biotinisessentialfor
(A) Translation (B)Carboxylation
(C)Hydroxylation (D)Transamination
405. Which ofthe following vitamin actas a
respiratorycatalyst?
(A) B2 (B)Pyridoxine
2553
(C)B12 (D)C
406. MetalinVitaminB12is
(A) Copper(B)Cobalt
(C)Iron (D)Zinc
407. Wholewheatisanexcellentsourceof
(A) VitaminD (B)VitaminC
(C)VitaminA (D)Thiamine
408. Vitamin used in the treatment of
homocystinuriais
(A) B1 (B)B5
(C)B12 (D)B6
409. Whichofthefollowingisnotacomponentof
coenzymeA?
(A) Pantothenicacid(B)Adenylicacid
(C)Aceticacid (D)Sulfhydrylgroup
410. ThemostactiveformofVitaminDis
(A) 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol
(B) 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
(C) 25-dihydroxyergocalciferol
(D) Noneofthese
411. The important part in the structure of
flavoproteinis
412. Vitaminessentialfortransaminationis
(A) B1 (B)B2
2554
(C)B6 (D)B12VITAMINS 129
413. The action ofVitamin K in formation of
clottingfactoristhrough
(A) Posttranscription
(B) Posttranslation
(C) Golgicomplex
(D) Endoplasmicreticulum
414. VitaminnecessaryforCoAsynthesis:
(A) Pantothenicacid(B)VitaminC
(C)B6 (D)B12
415. Cofactorfortransaminationis
(A) Thymine(B)Riboflavin
(C)Pyridoxine (D)Niacin
416. During deficiency of thiamine the
concentration ofthe following compound
risesinbloodandintracellularfluid:
(A) Glycogen (B)Sugar
(C)Aminoacids (D)Pyruvicacid
417. TheconversionofcarotenoidstoVitaminA
takesplacein
(A) Intestine(B)Liver
(C)Kidney (D)Skin
418. Mancannotsynthesizevitamin:
(A) A (B)B
(C)C (D)D
419. VitaminAisrequiredfortheformationofa
2555
lightreceptorproteinknownas
(A) Globulin(B)Lypoprotein
(C)Chomoprotein (D)Rhodospin
420. ExcessivevitaminAinchildrenproduces
(A) Irritability (B)Anorexia
(C)Headache (D)Allofthese
421. Tocopherolspreventtheoxidationof
422. Vitamin K regulates the synthesis of
bloodclottingfactors.
(A) VII(B)IX
(C)X (D)Allofthese
423. Thecolourofcyanomethmoglobinis
(A) Paleyellow (B)Pink
(C)Brown (D)Brightred
424. Transketolaseactivityisaffectedin
(A) Bitoindeficiency
(B) Pyridoxinedeficiency
(C) PABAdeficiency
(D) Thiaminedeficiency
425. Thehydrolysisofglucose-6-PO4 iscatalyzed
byaphosphatasethatisnotfoundinwhich
ofthefollowing?
(A) Liver (B)Kidney
(C)Muscle (D)Smallintestine
2556
426. VitaminK2wasoriginallyisolatedfrom
(A) Soyabean (B)Putridfishmeal
(C)Alfaalfa (D)Oysters
427. ThefollowingformofvitaminAisusedinthe
visualcycle:
(A) Retinol(B)Retinoicacid
(C)Retinaldehyde (D)Retinylacetate
428. Increased carbohydrate consumption
increasesthedietaryrequirementfor
(A) Thiamine (B)Riboflavine
(C)Pyridoxine (D)Folicacid
429. Increasedproteinintakeisaccompaniedby
anincreaseddietaryrequirementfor
(A) Thiamine (B)Riboflavine
(C)Folicacid (D)Nicotininicacid
430. Thedeficiencyofwhichoneofthefollowing
vitamincausescreatinuria?
(A) VitaminE (B)VitaminK
(C)VitaminA (D)VitaminB6
431. A biochemicalindication of vitamin B12
deficiencycanbeobtainedbymeasuringthe
urinaryexcretionof
(A) Pyruvicacid
(B) Malicacid
(C) Methylmalonicacid
(D) UrocanicacidANSWERS
2557
1.A2.B3.A4.A5.A6.A7.D8.A9.D10.A11.B12.B
13.A 14.D 15.B 16.C 17.A 18.A
19.A 20.A 21.B 22.D 23.A 24.C
25.C 26.A 27.A 28.A 29.C 30.A
31.D 32.A 33.C 34.C 35.B 36.A
37.C 38.B 39.A 40.D 41.D 42.D
43.A 44.A 45.B 46.C 47.A 48.C
49.B 50.A 51.D 52.C 53.C 54.C
55.D 56.B 57.C 58.A 59.A 60.D
61.B62.B63.B64.B65.A66.A67.B68.C69.D70.A71.A72.C
73.C 74.B 75.C 76.A 77.A 78.A
79.C 80.D 81.A 82.D 83.C 84.A
85.C 86.A 87.C 88.A 89.D 90.C
91.A92.A93.D94.A95.A96.A97.C98.D99.C100.B101.B102.B103.D104.C105.C
106.
B107.C108.D109.A110.D111.A112.D113.B114.D115.A116.D117.D118.C119.
C120.
B121.C122.A123.D124.D125.C126.C
127.A128.A 129.C 130.D 131.A 132.A133.D134.C 135.D 136.D 137.B 138.C
139.C140.B 141.B 142.B 143.D 144.D145.C146.D 147.D 148.B 149.D 150.A
151.C152.D 153.B 154.D 155.C 156.D157.A158.D 159.D 160.D 161.C 162.C
163.C164.A 165.D 166.C 167.C 168.D169.A170.B 171.C 172.B 173.D 174.B
175.D176.B 177.D 178.B 179.A 180.A181.D182.D 183.B 184.A 185.B 186.C
187.D188.C 189.D 190.C 191.C 192.B
193.C 194.D 195.D 196.C 197.B 198.B
199.B200.C 201.C 202.D 203.A 204.C205.A206.C 207.D 208.D 209.B 210.C
2558
211.C212.A 213.C 214.D 215.A 216.D
217.D218.C219.D220.D221.A222.D223.B224.D225.D226.C227.A228.A229.
B230.C
231.B232.A233.D234.D235.B236.C237.B238.D239.C240.B241.B242.B243.C
244.C
245.A246.C247.D 248.A 249.B 250.C 251.D 252.C
253.B254.D255.C256.B257.C258.C259.A260.B261.D262.D263.B264.A265.C
266.D
267.B268.A269.B270.B271.A272.D273.A274.D275.C276.D
277.A278.C279.A280.D281.D282.B283.B284.A285.D286.B287.B288.A
289.B 290.B 291.A 292.B 293.A 294.A
295.B296.C297.B298.A299.C300.C301.A302.B303.B304.A305.D306.D307.C
308.C
309.C310.B311.C312.A
313.D 314.D 315.A 316.A 317.D 318.D
319.B 320.D 321.C 322.C 323.C 324.B
325.A 326.C 327.C 328.B 329.D 330.C
331.B332.A333.B334.B335.A336.D337.D338.B339.A340.D341.D342.B343.
A344.B
345.B346.A347.D348.A349.D350.C351.D352.A353.A354.B
355.D 356.B 357.C 358.A 359.D 360.B
361.B 362.A 363.B 364.B 365.A 366.B
367.A 368.A 369.B 370.C 371.B 372.AVITAMINS 131
373.C374.C375.A376.B377.B378.B379.A380.C381.C382.D383.C384.C
385.A386.D387.D388.A389.A390.D391.D392.B393.D394.A395.C396.B397.
A398.D
399.A400.C401.B402.C
2559
403.B404.B405.A406.B407.D408.D409.C410.A411.B412.C413.B414.A415.C
416.D
417.A418.C419.D420.D421.A422.D423.D424.D425.C426.B
427.C 428.A 429.A 430.C 431.C
7.DThefourfatsolublevitamins(A,D,E,K)are
solubleinfats,oilsandfatsolvents(alcohol,
acetoneetc.).Theiroccurrenceinthediet,
absorptionandtransportareassociatedwith
fat.Allthefatsolublevitaminscontainone
ormoreofisopreneunits(5carbonunits).
Theycan be stored in liverand adipose
tissue.
40.D Vitamin A isessentialto maintain healthy
epithelial tissues and proper immunity.
Retinoland retinoic acid functions like
steroid hormones.They regulate protein
synthesis and thus are involved in cell
growth and differentiation. βCarotene
functionsasanantioxidantandreducesthe
riskforheartattack,cancersetc.
77.A The recommended dietary allowances for
vitaminDisaround400I.U.Incountrieswith
goodsunlight(likeIndia),itismuchlower.
i.e.,200I.U.Thegoodsourcesincludefatty
fish,fishliveroils,eggyolk.
2560
110.DTheearliestsymptomsofthiamindeficiency
includeconstipation,appetitesuppression,
nausea as well as mental depression,
peripheralneuropathyandfatigue.Chronic
thiamin deficiency leads to more severe
neurological symptoms including ataxia,
mental confusion and loss of eye
coordination.Otherclinicalsymptoms of
prolongedthiamindeficiencyarerelatedto
cardiovascularand musculardefects.The
severethiamindeficiencydiseaseisknown
asBeriberi.
149.DRiboflavindeficiencyisoftenseeninchronic
alcoholicsduetotheirpoordiabetichabits.
Symptoms associated with riboflavin
deficiency include, glossitis, seborrhea,
angular stomatitis, cheilosis and
photophobia.Riboflavindecomposeswhen
exposedtovisiblelight.
187.D Pyridoxal,pyridoxamine and pyridoxine are
collectivelyknownasvitaminB6.Allthree
compoundsareefficientlyconvertedtothe
biologically active form of vitamin B6,
pyridoxalphosphate.This conversion is
catalyzed by the ATP requiring enzyme,
pyridoxalkinase.
2561
217.D Isoniazid(anti-tuberculosisdrug)and
penicillamine(usedtotreatrheumatoid
arthritisandcystinurias)aretwodrugsthat
complexwithpyridoxalandpyridoxal
phosphateresultinginadeficiencyinthis
vitamin.
250.CThelivercanstoreuptosixyearsworthof
vitaminB12,hencedeficienciesinthisvitamin
are rare. Penicious anemia is a
megaloblasticanemiaresultingfrom vitamin
B12deficiencythatdevelopsasaresultalack
ofintrinsicfactorinthestomachleadingto
malabsorptionofthevitamin.
291.ABiotinisalsocalledanti-eggwhiteinjuryfactor
because,eggwhitecontainsaproteincalled
avidin,whichcombineswithbiotininthe
intestinaltractandpreventsabsorptionof
biotinfromintestines.
321.BDeficiencyinVitaminCleadstothedisease
scurvyduetotheroleofthevitamininthe
posttranslationalmodificationofcollagens.
Scurvyischaracterizedbyeasilybruisedskin,
muscle fatigue, soft swollen gums,
decreasedwoundhealingandhemorraging,
osteoporosisandanemia.
357.C Vitamin D is a steroid prohormone.Itis
2562
represented by steroids that occur in
animals,plantsandyeast.Activeform ofthe
hormoneis1,25-dihydroxyvitaminD3(1,25-
(OH)2D3,also termed calcitriol).Calcitriol
functionsprimarilytoregulatecalcium and
phosphoroushomeostasis.
398.DThemainsymptom ofvitaminDdeficiencyin
children is rickets and in adults is1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2 osteomalacia.
Rickets is characterized by improper
mineralizationduringthedevelopmentofthe
bonesresultinginsoftbones.Osteomalacia
is characterized by demineralization of
previouslyformedboneleadingtoincreased
softnessandsusceptibilitytofracture. This page
intentionallyleft
2563
CHAPTER6
ENZYMES
1. Thecompoundwhichhasthelowestdensity
is
(A) Chylomicron (B)β-Lipoprotein
(C)α-Lipoprotein (D)preβ-Lipoprotein
2. Nonsteroidalantiinflammatorydrugs,such
asaspirinactbyinhibitingtheactivityofthe
enzyme:
(A) Lipoxygenase (B)Cyclooxygenase
(C)PhospholipaseA2(D)Lipoproteinlipase
3. From arachidonate, synthesis of
prostaglandinsiscatalysedby
(A) Cyclooxygenase
(B) Lipoxygenase
(C) Thromboxanesynthase
(D) Isomerase
4. AHoloenzymeis
(A) Functionalunit(B)Apoenzyme
(C)Coenzyme (D)Allofthese
5. Gaucher’sdiseaseisduetothedeficiencyof
theenzyme:
(A) α-Fucosidase (B)β-Galactosidase
(C)β-Glucosidase (D)Sphingomyelinase
2564
6. Neimann-Pick disease is due to the
deficiencyoftheenzyme:
(A) HexosaminidaseAandB
(B) Ceramidase
(C) Ceramidelactosidase
(D) Sphingomyelinase
7. Krabbe’sdiseaseisduetothedeficiencyof
theenzyme:
(A) Ceramidelactosidase(C)Apoenzymes (D)Proenzymes
13. Anexampleofligasesis
(A) Succinatethiokinase
(B) Alanineracemase
(C) Fumarase
(D) Aldolase
14Anexampleoflyasesis
(A) Glutaminesynthetase
(B) Fumarase
(C) Cholinesterase
(D) Amylase
15. Activation or inactivation of certain
keyregulatoryenzymesisaccomplishedby
covalentmodificationoftheaminoacid:
(A) Tyrosine(B)Phenylalanine
(C)Lysine (D)Serine
16. Theenzymewhichcanaddwatertoacarbon
-carbondoublebondorremovewaterto
2565
createadoublebondwithoutbreakingthe
bondis
(A) Hydratase (B)Hydroxylase
(C)Hydrolase (D)Esterase
17. Fischer’s‘lockandkey’modeloftheenzyme
actionimpliesthat
(A) The active site is complementaryin
shapetothatofsubstanceonlyafter
interaction.
(B) The active site is complementaryin
shapetothatofsubstance
(C) Substrateschangeconformationprior
toactivesiteinteraction
(D) Theactivesiteisflexibleandadjusts
tosubstrate
18. From theLineweaver-BurkplotofMichaelis-
Menten equation,Km and Vmax can be
determinedwhenVisthereactionvelocity
atsubstrate concentration S,the X-axis
experimentaldataareexpressedas
(A) 1/V (B)V(C)1/S(D)S
19. Asigmoidalplotofsubstrateconcentration
([S]) verses reaction velocity (V) may
indicate
(A) Michaelis-Mentenkinetics
(B) Co-operativebinding
2566
(C) Competitiveinhibition
(D) Non-competitiveinhibition
20. TheKm oftheenzymegivingthekineticdata
asbelowis
(A) –0.50 (B)–0.25
(C)+0.25 (D)+0.33
21. The kinetic effect of purely
competitiveinhibitorofanenzyme
(A) IncreasesKm withoutaffectingVmax
(B) DecreasesKm withoutaffectingVmax
(C) IncreasesVmaxwithoutaffectingKm
(D) DecreasesVmaxwithoutaffectingKm
22. IfcurveXinthegraph(below)representsno
inhibitionforthereaction oftheenzyme
withitssubstrates,thecurverepresenting
the competitive inhibition,of the same
reactionis
(A) A (B)B(C)C (D)D
23. Aninducerisabsentinthetypeofenzyme:
(A) Allostericenzyme
(B) Constitutiveenzyme
(C) Co-operativeenzyme
(D) Isoenzymicenzyme
24. Ademonstrableinducerisabsentin
(A) Allosteric enzyme (B) Constitutive
enzyme
2567
(C)Inhibitedenzyme(D)Co-operativeenzyme1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
256. Inreversiblenon-competitiveenzymeactivity
inhibition
(A) Vmaxisincreased(B)Km isincreased
(C) Km isdecreased
(D) Concentration of active enzyme is
reduced
26. Inreversiblenon-competitiveenzymeactivity
inhibition
(A) Inhibitorbears structuralresemblance
tosubstrate
(B) Inhibitor lowers the maximum
velocityattainablewithagivenamountof
enzyme
(C) Km isincreased
(D) Km isdecreased
27. Incompetitiveenzymeactivityinhibition
(A) The structure of inhibitor generally
resemblesthatofthesubstrate
(B) InhibitordecreasesapparentKm
(C) Km remainsunaffective
(E)InhibitordecreasesVmaxwithoutaffecting
Km
28. InenzymekineticsVmaxreflects
(A) The amountofan active enzyme(B)
2568
Substrateconcentration
(C) Halfthesubstrateconcentration
(D) Enzymesubstratecomplex
29. InenzymekineticsKmimplies
(A) Thesubstrateconcentrationthatgives
onehalf
Vmax
(B) The dissocation constant for the
enzymesubstratecomples
(C) Concentrationofenzyme
(D) Half of the substrate concentration
requiredtoachieveVmax
30. Incompetitiveenzymeactivityinhibition
(A) ApparentKm isdecreased
(B) ApparentKm isincreased
(C) Vmaxisincreased
(D) Vmaxisdecreased
31. Innoncompetitiveenzymeactivityinhibition,
inhibitor
(A) IncreasesKm (B)DecreasesKm
(C)DoesnoteffectKm(D)IncreasesKm
32. Anenzymecatalyzingoxidoreduction,using
oxygenashydrogenacceptoris
(B) Lactate dehydrogenase(C) Malate
dehydrogenase
2569
(D)Succinatedehydrogenase
33. Theenzymeusingsomeothersubstance,not
oxygenashydrogenacceptoris
(A) Tyrosinase
(C) Uricase
(D) Cytochromeoxidase
34. Anenzymewhichuseshydrogenacceptoras
substrateis
(A) Xanthineoxidase
(B) Aldehydeoxidase
(C) Catalase
(D) Tryptophanoxygenase
35. Enzyme involved in joining together
twosubstratesis
(A) Glutaminesynthetase(B)Aldolase
(C) Gunainedeaminase
(D) Arginase
36. ThepHoptimaofmostoftheenzymesis
(A) Between2and4(B)Between5and9
(C)Between8and12(D)Above12
37. Coenzymesare
(A) Heat stable,dialyzable,non protein
organicmolecules
(B) Soluble,colloidal,proteinmolecules
(C) Structuralanalogueofenzymes
2570
(D) Differentformsofenzymes
38. An example of hydrogen
transferringcoenzymeis
(A) CoA (B)NAD
(C)Biotin (D)TPP
39. Anexampleofgrouptransferringcoenzyme
isENZYMES 137
(A) NAD
(B)NADP
(C)FAD (D)CoA
40. Cocarboxylaseis
(A) Thiaminepyrophosphate
(C) Biotin
(D) CoA
41. Acoenzymecontainingnonaromatichetero
ringis
(A) ATP (B)NAD
(C)FMN (D)Biotin
42. Acoenzymecontainingaromaticheteroring
is
(A) TPP (B)Lipoicacid
(C)CoenzymeQ (D)Biotin
2571
43. Isoenzymesare
(A) Chemically, immunologically and
electrophoreticallydifferentformsofan
enzyme
(B) Differentformsofanenzymesimilarin
allproperties
(C) Catalysingdifferentreactions
(D) Havingthesamequaternarystructures
liketheenzymes
44. Isoenzymescanbecharacterizedby
(A) Proteinslackingenzymaticactivitythat
arenecessary for the activation of
enzymes
(B) Proteolytic enzymes activated by
hydrolysis
(C) Enzymeswithidenticalprimarystructure
(D) Similar enzymes that catalyse
differentreaction
45. TheisoenzymesofLDH
(A) Differonlyinasingleaminoacid
(B) Differincatalyticactivity
(C) Existin5formsdependingonM and
Hmonomercontents
(D) Occurasmonomers
46. The normal value of CPK in serum
variesbetween
2572
(A) 4–60IU/L (B)60–250IU/L
(C)4–17IU/L (D)>350IU/L
47. Factorsaffectingenzymeactivity:
(A) Concentration(B)pH
(C)Temperature (D)Allofthese
48. ThenormalserumGOTactivityrangesfrom
(A) 3.0–15.0IU/L(B)4.0–17.0IU/L
(C)4.0–60.0IU/L (D)0.9–4.0IU/L
49. ThenormalGPTactivityrangesfrom
(A) 60.0–250.0IU/L(B)4.0–17.0IU/L
(C)3.0–15.0IU/L (D)0.1–14.0IU/L
50. Thenormalserum acidphosphataseactivity
rangesfrom
(A) 5.0–13.0KAunits/100ml(B)1.0–5.0KA
units/100ml
(C) 13.0–18.0KAunits/100ml
(D) 0.2–0.8KAunits/100ml
51. The normal serum alkaline
phosphataseactivityrangesfrom
(A) 1.0–5.0KAunits/100ml
(B) 5.0–13.0KAunits/100ml
(C) 0.8–2.3KAunits/100ml
(D) 13.0–21.0KAunits/100ml
52. In early stages of myocardialischemia
themost sensitive indicator is the
measurementoftheactivityof
2573
(A) CPK(B)SGPT
(C)SGOT (D)LDH
53. Serumacidphosphataselevelincreasesin
(A) Metastaticcarcinomaofprostate
(C) Wilson’sdisease
(D) Liverdiseases
54. Serum alkalinephosphataselevelincreases
in
(A) Hypothyroidism
(B) Carcinomaofprostate
(C) Hyperparathyroidism
(D) Myocardialischemia
55. Serumlipaselevelincreasesin
(A) Paget’sdisease (B)Gaucher’sdisease
(C)Acutepancreatitis(D)Diabetesmellitus
56. Serumferroxidaseleveldecreasesin1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
6 (A) Gaucher’sdisease(B)Cirrhosisofliver
(C)Acutepancreatitis(D)Wilson’sdisease
57. TheisoenzymesLDH5iselevatedin
(B) Pepticulcer
(C) Liverdisease
(D) Infectiousdiseases
58. Onthethirddayofonsetofacutemyocardial
2574
infarctiontheenzymeelevatedis
(A) SerumAST (B)SerumCK
(C)SerumLDH (D)SerumALT
59. LDH1andLDH2areelevatedin
(B) Liverdisease
(C) Kidneydisease
(D) Braindisease
60. The CK isoenzymes present in
cardiacmuscleis
(A) BBandMB (B)MMandMB
(C)BBonly (D)MBonly
61. Inacutepancreatitis,theenzymeraisedin
firstfivedaysis
(A) Serumamylase
(B) Serumlacticdehydrogenase
(C) Urinarylipase
(D) Urinaryamylase
62. Acutepancreatitisischaracterisedby
(A) Lackofsynthesisofzymogenenzymes
(B) Continuous release of zymogen
enzymesintothegut
(C) Premature activation of zymogen
enzymes
(D) Inactivationofzymogenenzymes
63. Anexampleoffunctionalplasmaenzymeis
2575
(A) Lipoproteinlipase(B)Amylase
(C) Aminotransferase
(D) Lactatedehydrogenase
64. Anon-functionalplasmaenzymeis
(A) Psudocholinesterase
(B) Lipoproteinlipase
(C) Proenzymeofbloodcoagulation
(D) Lipase
65. ThepHoptimaforsalivaryanalyseis
(A) 6.6–6.8 (B)2.0–7.5
(C)7.9 (D)8.6
66. ThepHoptimaforpancreaticanalyseis
(A) 4.0 (B)7.1
(C)7.9 (D)8.6
67. ThepHoptimaforsucraseis
(A) 5.0–7.0 (B)5.8–6.2
(C)5.4–6.0 (D)8.6
68. ThepHoptimaformaltaseis
(A) 1.0–2.0 (B)5.2–6.0
(C)5.8–6.2 (D)5.4–6.0
69. ThepHoptimaforlactaseis
(A) 1.0-2.0 (B)5.4–6.0
(C)5.0–7.0 (D)5.8–6.2
70. Thesubstrateforamylaseis
(A) Canesugar (B)Starch
(C)Lactose (D)Ribose
2576
71. The ion which activates salivary
amylaseactivityis
(A) Chloride (B)Bicarbonate
72. Thepancreaticamylaseactivityisincreased
inthepresenceof
(A) Hydrochloricacid(B)Bilesalts
(C)Thiocyanateions(D)Calciumions
73. Acarbohydratewhichcannotbedigestedin
humangutis
(A) Cellulose(B)Starch
(C)Glycogen (D)Maltose
74. Thesugarabsorbedbyfacilitateddiffusion
andrequiringNaindependenttransporteris
(C)Galactose (D)Ribose
75. In the intestine the rate of absorption
ishighestfor
(A) Glucoseandgalactose
(B) Fructoseandmannose
(C) Fructoseandpentose
(D) Mannoseandpentose
76. GlucoseabsorptionispromotedbyENZYMES 139
(A) VitaminA(B)Thiamin
(C)VitaminC (D)VitaminK
77. The harmone acting directly on
2577
intestinalmucosa and stimulating glucose
absorptionis
(C)Thyroxine (D)Vasopressin
78. Giventhatthestandardfreeenergychange
(∆G°)forthehydrolysisofATP is–7.3K
cal/moland that for the hydrolysis of
Glucose6-phosphateis–3.3Kcal/mol,the
∆G°forthephosphorylationofglucoseis
Glucose+ATP→ Glucose6–Phosphate+
ADP.
(A) –10.6Kcal/mol (B)–7.3Kcal/mol
(C)–4.0Kcal/mol (D)+4.0Kcal/mol
79. Atlowbloodglucoseconcentration,brainbut
notliverwilltakeupglucose.Itisduetothe
(A) LowKm ofhexokinase
(B) LowKm ofglucokinase
(C) Specificityofglucokinase
(D) Bloodbrainbarrier
80. Inthereactionbelow,NuTPstandsforNuTP
+glucose→ Glucose6–Phosphate+NuDP.
(A) ATP (B)CTP
(C)GTP (D)UTP
81. In the figures shown below, fructose
1,6biphosphateislocatedatpoint:
(A) A (B)B(C)C (D)D
2578
82. Theenzymeoftheglycolicpathway,sensitive
toinhibitonbyfluorideionsis
(A) Hexokinase (B)Aldolase
(C)Enolase (D)Pyruvatekinase
83. Inglycolyticpathway,iodacetateinhibitsthe
activityoftheenzyme:
(A) Phosphotrioseisomerase
(B) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
dehydrogenase
(C) Pyruvatekinase
84. In the glycolytic pathway,enolpyruvateis
convertedtoketopyruvateby
(A) Pyruvatekinase
(B) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(C) Pyruvatedehydrogenase
(D) Spontaneously
85. In erythrocytes,2,3-biphosphoglycerateis
derivedfromtheintermediate:
(A) Glyeraldehyde-3-phosphate
(B) 1,3-Biphosphoglycerate
(C) 3-Phosphoglycerate
(D) 2-Phosphoglycerate
86. 2, 3-Biphosphoglycerate in high
concentrations,combineswithhemoglobin,
causes
2579
(A) Displacement of the
oxyhemoglobindissociationcurvetothe
left
(B) Displacement of the
oxyhemoglobindissociationcurvetothe
right
(C) No change in oxy hemoglobin
dissociationcurve(D)Increasedaffinity
foroxygen
87. Erythrocytes under normal conditions
andmicroorganisms under anaerobic
conditionsmayaccumulate
(A) NADPH
(B) Pyruvate
(C) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(D) Lactate
88. Enzymes leading to the high
energyphosphorylationofsubstratesduring
glycolysisincludewhichofthefollowing?
(A) Phosphoglyceratekinase
(B) Enolase
(C) PyruvateKinase
(D) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
dehydrogenase
89. Lineweaver– Burkdoublereciprocalplotis
relatedto
2580
(A) Substrateconcentration
(B) Enzymeactivity
(C) Temperature
(D) Both(A)and(B)
90. Phosphofructokinase key enzyme
inglycolysisisinhibitedby1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
6 (A) CitrateandATP (B)AMP
(C)ADP (D)TMP
91. Oneoftheenzymesregulatingglycolysisis
(A) Phosphofructokinase
dehydrogenase
(C) Phosphotrioseisomerase
(D) Phosphohexoseisomerase
92. Hexokinase is inhibited in an
allostericmannerby
(A) Glucose-6-Phosphate
(B) Glucose-1-Phosphate(C) Fructose-6-
phosphate
(D)Fructose-1,6-biphosphate
93. A reaction which may be considered
anisomerisationis
(A) Glucose6-Phosphate fructose 6
phosphate
(B) 3-Phosphoglycerate 2-
2581
phosphoglycerate
(C) 2-phosphoglycerate
phosphoenolpyruvate
(D) Pyruvate Lactate
94. ThenetnumberofATPformedpermoleof
glucoseinanaerobicglycolysisis
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)6 (D)8
95. Pyruvate dehydrogenase a
multienzymecomplex is required for the
productionof
(A) Acetyl-CoA
(B) Lactate
(C) Phosphoenolpyruvate
(D) Enolpyruvate
96. Dietary deficiency of thiamin inhibits
theactivityoftheenzyme:
(A) Pyruvatekinase
(B) Pyruvatedehydrogenase
(D) Enolase
97. Pyruvatedehydrogenaseactivityisinhibited
by
(A) Mercury (B)Zinc
(C)Calcium (D)Sodium
98. Inthenormalrestingstateofhumans,most
2582
ofthe blood glucose burned as fuelis
consumedby
(A) Liver(B)Adiposetissue
(C)Muscle (D)Brain
99. All the enzymes of glycolysis pathway
arefoundin
(A) Extramitochondrialsoluble fraction of
thecell
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Nucleus
100. Most major metabolic pathways are
considered mainly either anabolic or
catabolic.Whichofthefollowingpathwayis
mostcorrectlyconsideredtobeamphibolic?
(A) Citricacidcycle (B)Gluconeogenesis
(C)Lipolysis (D)Glycolysis
101. The enzymesofthe citricacid cycle are
locatedin
(A) Mitochondrialmatrix
(B) Extramitochondrialsoluble fraction of
thecell
(C) Nucleus
102. Theinitialstepofthecitricacidcycleis
(A) Conversionofpyruvatetoacetyl-CoA
2583
(B) Condensation of acetyl-CoA with
oxaloacetate(C)Conversionofcitrateto
isocitrate
(D)Formationofα-ketoglutaratecatalysedby
isocitratedehydrogenase
103. Thesubstancewhichmaybeconsideredto
playacatalyticroleincitricacidcycleis
(A) Oxaloacetate(B)Isocitrate
(C)Malate (D)Fumarate
104. Anenzymeofthecitricacidcyclealsofound
outsidethemitochondriais
(B) CitratesynthetaseENZYMES 141
(C) α-Ketoglutaratedehydrogenase
105. The reaction catalysed by α-ketoglutarate
dehydrogenase in the citric acid cycle
requires
(A) NAD(B)NADP
(C)ADP (D)ATP
106. If all the enzymes, intermediates
andcofactorsofthecitricacidcycleaswell
as an excess of the starting substrate
acetylCoAarepresentandfunctionalinan
organellefreesolutionattheappropriatepH,
whichofthefollowingfactorsofthecitric
2584
acidcyclewouldprovetoberatelimiting?
(A) Molecularoxygen
(B) Halflifeofenzyme
(C) Turnoverofintermediates
(D) Reductionofcofactors
107. InTCAcycle,oxalosuccinateisconvertedtoα
-ketoglutaratebytheenzyme:
(A) Fumarase
(C) Aconitase
(D) Succinase
108. Theenzyme-ketoglutaratedehydrogenasein
thecitricacidcyclerequires
(A) Lipoate (B)Folate
(C)Pyridoxine (D)Inositol
109. Theexampleofgenerationofahighenergy
phosphateatthesubstratelevelinthecitric
acidcycleisthereaction:
(A) Isocitrate α-Ketoglutarate
(B) Succinate α-fumarate
(C) Malate α-oxaloacetate
(D) SuccinylCoA α-Succinate
110. Fluoroacetateinhibitsthereactionofcitric
acidcycle:
(A) Isocitrate α-Ketoglutarate
(B) Fumarate α-Malate
2585
(C) Citrate α-cis-aconitate
(D) Succinate α-fumarate
111. Formation of succinyl-CoA from α-
Ketoglutarateisinhibitedby
(A) Fluoroacetate(B)Arsenite
(C)Fluoride (D)Iodoacetate
112. ThenumberofATPmoleculesgeneratedfor
eachturnofthecitricacidcycleis
(A) 8 (B)12
(C)24 (D)38
113. Oxidationofonemoleculeofglucoseyields
(A) 12ATP (B)24ATP
(C)38ATP (D)38ATP
114. Which ofthe following intermediates of
metabolism canbebothaprecursoranda
productofglucose?
(A) Lactate (B)Pyruvate
(C)Alanine (D)Acetyl-CoA
115. Mitochondrialmembraneisfreelypreamble
to
(A) Pyruvate(B)Malate
(C)Oxaloacetate (D)Fumarate
116. ThereactionofKreb’scyclewhichdoesnot
requirecofactorofvitaminBgroupis
(A) Citrate isocitrate
(B) α-Ketoglutarate succinate
2586
(C) Malate oxaloacetate
(D) Succinate fumarate
117. Thecoenzymenotinvolvedintheformation
ofacetyl-CoAfrompyruvateis
(A) TPP (B)Biotin
(C)NAD (D)FAD
118. Acarriermoleculeinthecitricacidcycleis
(A) Acetyl-CoA (B)Citrate
(C)Oxaloacetate (D)Malate
dehydrogenaseis
(A) Arsenine(B)Arsenite(C)Citrate (D)
Fluoride 120.The rate ofcitric acid
cycle is controlled by the allosteric
enzyme:
(A)Aconitase1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
6 (B)Fumarase
(C)Fumarase
(D)Malatedehydrogenase
121. Intheerythrocytes,thenetproductionofATP
moleculesbytheRapport-Leuberingpathway
is
(A) 0 (B)2
(C)4 (D)8
122. Theratiothatmostcloselyapproximatesthe
2587
numberofnetmoleculesofATPformedper
mole of glucose utilized under aerobic
conditionstothenetnumberformedunder
anaerobicconditionsis
(A) 4:1 (B)13:1
(C)18:1 (D)24:1
123. The pathway of glycogen biosynthesis
involvesaspecialnucleotideofglucose.In
thereactionbelow,NuDPstandsfor
NuDP Glucose + glycogenn → NuDP +
glycogenn+1
(A) ADP(B)GDP
(C)UDP (D)CDP
124. Glucose6-phosphateisconvertedtoglucose
1-phosphateinareactioncatalysedbythe
enzymephosphoglucomutase,whichis
(A) Phosphorylated
(B) Dephosphorylated
(C) Phosphorylated-dephosphorylated
(D) Phosphorylated-
dephosphorylatedrephosphorylated
125. Theglycogencontentoftheliverisupto
(A) 6% (B)8%
(C)10% (D)12%
126. In glycogenesis a branch point in
themoleculeisestablishedbytheenzyme
2588
(A) Amylo[1→ 4][1→ 6]transglucosidase
(B) α[1→ 4]α[1→ 4]Glucantransferase
(C) Amylo[1→ 6]glucosidase
(D) Glycogensynthase
127. In glycogenolysis, the enzyme which
transfers a trisaccharide unit from one
branchtotheotherexposing1→ 6branch
pointis
(A) Phosphorylase
(B) α-[1→ 4]→ α-[1→ 4]→ Glucan
transferase
(C) Amylo[1→ 6]glucosidase
(D) Amylo[1→ 4]→ [1→ 6]transglucosidase
128. Inthesynthesisofglycogenfrom glucosethe
reversiblestepis
(A) Glucose→ glucose6-phosphate
(B) Glucose 6-phosphate → glucose 1-
phosphate
(C) Glucose1-phosphate→ UDPglucose
(D) UDPglucose→ glycogen
129. The enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase which
catalyses the conversion of glucose 6-
phosphatetoglucoseisnotfoundin
(A) Liver (B)Muscle
(C)Intestine (D)Kidney
130. Allostericactivatorofglycogensynthaseis
2589
(A) Glucose(B)Glucose-6-Phosphate
(C)UTP (D)Glucose-1-phosphate
131. Actionofglycogensynthaseisinhibitedby
(A) Insulin (B)Glucose
(C)Mg
2+
(D)CyclicAMP
132. The hormone activating the glycogen
synthaseactivityis
(C)Epinephrine (D)ACTH
133. Characteristicfeaturesofactivesiteare
(A) Flexibleinnature(B)Siteofbinding
(C)Acidic (D)Both(A)and(B)
134. VonGierke’sdiseaseischaracterizedbythe
deficiencyof
(A) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(B) α-1→ 4Glucosidase
(C) 1→ 6Glucosidase
(D) Liverphosphorylase
135. Coridisease(Limitdextrinosis)iscaused
duetoabsenceof
(A) Branchingenzyme
(B) DebranchingenzymeENZYMES 143
(C) Glycogensynthase
(D) Phosphorylase
2590
136. McArdle’ssyndromeischaracterizedbythe
absenceof
(A) Liverphosphorylase
(B) Musclephosphorylase
(C) Branchingenzyme
(D) Debranchingenzyme
137. Pompe’sdiseaseiscausedduetodeficiency
of
(A) Lysosomal α-1→4 and 1→6-
glucosidase
(B) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(C) Glycogensynthase
138. Amylopectinosisiscausedduetoabsenceof
(A) Debranchingenzyme
(B) Branchingenzyme
(C) Acidmaltase
139. Her’sdiseaseischaracterizedbydeficiency
of
(A) Muscle phosphorylase(B) Liver
phosphorylase
(C) Debranchingenzyme
(D) Glycogensynthase
140. Tarui disease is characterized by the
deficiencyoftheenzyme:
2591
(A) Liverphosphorylase
(B) Musclephosphorylase
(C) Muscle and erythrocyte
phosphofructokinase(D) Lysosomal acid
maltase
141. The hexose monophosphate pathway
includestheenzyme:
(A) Maltasedehydrogenase
(B) Hexokinase
(C) α-Ketoglutaratedehydrogenase
142. The hydrogen acceptorused in pentose
phosphatepathwayis
(A) NAD (B)NADP
(C)FAD (D)FMN
143. The enzymes ofthe pentose phosphate
pathwayarefoundinthe
(A) Cytosol
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Nucleus
144. Inpentosephosphatepathway,D-ribulose5-
phosphate is converted to D-ribose-
5phosphatebytheenzyme:
(A) Fumarase (B)Ketoisomerase
(C)G-6-PD (D)Epimerase
2592
145. The transketolase enzyme in the pentose
phosphatepathwayrequirestheBvitamin.
(A) Pantothenicacid(B)Thiamin
(C)Riboflavin (D)Nicotinicacid
146. Xylulose-5-phosphateservesasadonarof
activeglycolaldehyde,theacceptoris
(A) Erythrose4-phosphate
(B) Ribose5-phosphate
(C) Glyceraldehyde3-phosphate
(D) Sedoheptulose7-phosphate
147. Pentose phosphate pathway is of
significancebecauseitgenerates
(A) NADPHforreductivesynthesis
(B) Regeneratesglucose6-phosphate
(C) Generatesfructose6-phosphate
(D) Formsglyceraldehyde3-phosphate
148. The pentose phosphate pathwayprotects
erythrocytesagainsthemolysisbyassisting
theenzyme:
(A) Superoxidedismutase
(B) Catalase
(C) Glutathionicperoxidase
149. Hemolytic anemia is caused by the
deficiencyofcertainenzymesofthepentose
phosphate pathway,the principalenzyme
2593
involvedis
(A) Glucose-6-phosphatedehydrogenase
(B) Aldolase
(C) Fructose1,6-bisphosphatase
(D) Phosphohexoseisomerase1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
1560. Thesitesforgluconeogenesisare
(A) Liverandkidney
(B) Skinandpancreas
(C) Lungandbrain
(D) Intestineandlensofeye
151. Anenzymeinvolvedingluconeogenesisis
(A) Pyruvatekinase
(C) Hexokinase
(D) Phosphohexoseisomerase
152. Theenzymepyruvatecarboxylaseispresent
in
(A) Cytosol(B)Mitochondria
(C)Nucleus (D)Golgibodies
153. The enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate
carboxykinasecatalysestheconversionof
oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate
requires
(A) ATP(B)ADP
(C)AMP (D)GTP
2594
154. The enzyme glucose 6-phosphatase is
presentin
(A) Liver (B)Muscle
(C)Adiposetissue (D)Brain
155. In gluconeogensis, an allosteric
activatorrequired in the synthesis of
oxaloacetatefrom bicarbonateandpyruvate,
whichiscatalysedbytheenzymepyruvate
carboxylaseis
(A) AcetylCoA (B)Succinate
(C)Isocitrate (D)Citrate
156. ThenumberofATPmoleculesrequiredto
convert2moleculesoflactateintoglucose
inmammalianliveris
(A) 2 (B)4
(C)5 (D)6
157. Forconjugationwithmanyenogenousand
exogenoussubstancesbeforeeliminationin
urine,theuronicacidpathwayprovides
(A) Activeglucuronate(B)Gulonate
(C)Xylulose (D)Xylitol
158. UDP glucose is converted to UDP
glucurronate,areactioncatalysedbyUDP
glucosedehydrogenaserequires
(A) NAD
2595
(B)FAD
(C)NADP (D)FMN
159. Pentosuria is a rare hereditary disease
ischaracterized by increased urinary
excretionof
(A) L-xylulose
(B) Xylitol
(C) Xylulose5-phosphate
(D) Ribose5-phosphate
160. Theenzymeinvolvedinessentialpentosuria
is
(A) Reductase (B)Hydroxylase
(C)Isomerase (D)Racemase
161. Galactoseissynthesizedfromglucosein
(A) Mammarygland(B)Intestine
(C)Kidney (D)Adiposetissue
162. Galactoseisreadilyconvertedtoglucosein
(A) Liver (B)Intestine
(C)Kidney (D)Adiposetissue
163. Galactose 1-phosphate is converted to
uridinediphosphategalactose,thereaction
iscatalysedbytheenzyme:
(A) Glactokinase
(B) Galactose 1-phosphate uridyl
transferase
(C) Uridine diphospho galactose 4-
2596
epimerase
(D) UDPglucosepyrophosphorylase
164. Thebestknowncauseofgalactosemiaisthe
deficiencyof
(A) Galactose 1-phosphate and uridyl
transferase
(B) Phosphoglucomutase
(C) Galactokinase
(D) Lactosesynthase
165Conversionoffructosetosorbitoliscatalysed
bytheenzyme:
(A) Sorbitoldehydrogenase
(B) Aldosereductase
(C) Fructokinase
(D) HexokinaseENZYMES 145
166. Aspecificfructokinasepresentinliverhasa
veryhighaffinityforitssubstratebecause
(A) Km forfructoseisveryhigh
(B) Km forfructoseisverylow
(C) Activityisaffectedbyfasting
(D) Activityisaffectedbyinsulin
167. Insulinhasnoeffectontheactivityofthe
enzyme:
(A) Glycogensynthetase
(B) Fructokinase
(C) Pyruvatekinase
2597
(D) Pyruvatedehydrogenase
168. The pathogenesis of diabetic cataract
involvesaccumulationof
(A) Galactose (B)Mannitol
(C)Sorbitol (D)Pyruvate
169. Hereditaryfructoseintoleranceinvolvesthe
absenceoftheenzyme:
(A) AldaloseB
(B) Fructokinase
(C) Triokinase
(D) Phosphotrioseisomerase
170. Essentialfructosuriaischaracterizedbythe
lackofthehepaticenzyme:
(A) Phosphohexoseisomerase(B)Aldalose
(C) AldolaseB
(D) Fructokinase
171. Innormalindividualsglycosuriaoccurswhen
the venous blood glucose concentration
exceeds
(A) 5–6mmol/L(B)7–8mmol/L
(C) 8.5–9mmol/L
(D) 9.5–10mmol/L
172. Phlorizininhibits
(A) Renaltubularreabsorptionofglucose
(B) Glycolysis
2598
(C) Gluconeogenesis
(D) Glycogenolysis
173. Renalglycosuriaischaracterizedby
(A) Hyperglycemia
(B) Hyperglycemiawithglycosuria
(C) Normal blood glucose level with
glycosuria
(D) Hyperglycemiawithketosis
174. Acutehemolyticanemiainperson’ssensitive
totheFavabeansisduetothedeficiencyof
theenzyme:
(B) G-6-PD
(C) Aconitase
(D) Transketolase
175Acutehemolyticepisodeafteradministrationof
antimalarial,primaquin,isduetodeficiencyof
theenzyme:
(A) 6-Phosphogluconatedehydrogenase
(B) Glucose-6-phosphatedehydrogenase
(C) Epimerase
(D) Transketolase
176. ThepHoptimaofgastriclipaseis
(A) 3.0–6.0 (B)1.0–2.0
(C)8.0 (D)8.6
177. TheoptimumpHofpancreaticlipaseis
2599
(A) 2.0 (B)4.0
(C)6.0 (D)8.0
178. Gastriclipaeisactivatedinthepresenceof
(A) Bilesalts(B)Cu
++
(C)K
(D)Na
179. Anexampleofenzymeinhibition:
(A) Reversibleinhibition
(B) Irreversibleinhibition
(C) Allostericinhibition
(D) Allofthese
180. The formation of∆
-trans-enoyl-CoA from
acyl-CoArequirestheenzyme:
(A) Acyl-CoAsynthetase
(B) Acyl-CoAdehydrogenase
(C) 3-Hydroxyacyl-CoAdehydrogenase
(D) Thiolase
181. Inβ-oxidation3-ketoacyl-CoA issplittedat
the2,3positionbytheenzyme:
(A) Hydratase (B)Dehydrogenase
(C)Reducatse (D)Thiolase1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2600
1862. Fatty acids with odd numberofcarbon
atomsyieldacetyl-CoAandamoleculeof
(A) Succinyl-CoA (B)Propionyl-CoA
(C)Malonyl-CoA (D)Acetoacetyl-CoA
183Foreachofthefirst7-acetyl-CoA molecules
formedbyα-oxidationofpalmiticacid,the
yieldofhighenergyphosphatesis
(A)12 (B)24
(C)30 (D)35
184. ThenetgainofATP/molofpalmiticacidon
completeoxidationis
(A) 88 (B)105
(C)129 (D)135
185. ω-oxidationisnormallyaveryminorpathway
and is broughtby hydroxylase enzymes
involving
(A) Cytochromea (B)Cytochromeb
(C)Cytochromec (D)Cytochromep-450
186. α-Oxidationi.e.,theremovalofonecarbonat
atimefrom thecarboxylendofthemolecule
hasbeendetectedin
(A) Braintissue (B)Liver
(C)Adiposetissue (D)Intestine
187. Inβ-oxidation,thecoenzymeforacyl-CoA
dehydrogenaseis
(A) FMN (B)NAD
2601
(C)NADP (D)FAD
188. Thecoenzymeinvolvedindehydrogenation
of3-hydroxyacyl-CoAis
(A) FAD(B)FMN
(C)NAD (D)NADP
189. Theconcentrationofketonebodiesinthe
blooddoesnotnormallyexceed
(A) 0.2mmol/L (B)0.4mmol/L
(C)1mmol/L (D)2mmol/L
190. Inhumansundernormalconditionslossof
ketonebodiesviaurineisusuallylessthan
(A) 1mg/24hr (B)4mg/24hr
(C)8mg/24hr (D)10mg/24hr
191. The structure which appears to be the
onlyorgan to add significantquantitiesof
ketonebodiestothebloodis
(A) Brain (B)Erythrocytes
(C)Liver (D)Skeletalmuscle
192. Thestartingmaterialforketogenesisis
(A) Acyl-CoA (B)Acetyl-CoA
(C)Acetoacetyl-CoA (D)Malonyl-CoA
193. Enzymes responsible for ketone body
formationareassociatedmainlywiththe
(A) Mitochondria
(C) Nucleus
2602
(D) Golgiapparatus
194. Thesynthesisof3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-
CoAcanoccur
(A) Onlyinmitochondriaofallmammalian
tissues
(B) Onlyinthecytosolofallmammalian
tissue
(C) Inbothcytosolandmitochondria
(D) Inlysosomes
195. In the pathway leading to biosynthesisof
acetoacetatefrom acetyl-CoA in liver,the
immediateprecursorofaceotacetateis
(A) Acetoacetyl-CoA
(B) 3-Hydroxybutyryl-CoA
(C) 3-Hydroxy-3-methyl-glutaryl-CoA
(D) 3-Hydroxybutyrate
196. Ketonebodiesserveasafuelfor
(A) Extrahepatictissues
(B) Hepatictissues
(C) Erythrocytes
(D) Mitochondria
197. Inextrahepatictissues,onemechanismfor
utilizationofacetoacetateinvolves
(A) Malonyl-CoA(B)Succinyl-CoA
(C)Propionyl-CoA (D)Acetyl-CoA
198. Ketosisreflects
2603
(A) Increasedhepaticglucoseliberation
(B) Increasedfattyacidoxidation
(C) Increasedcarbohydrateutilisation
(D) Incresedgluconeogenesis
199. Ketosisisassociatedwiththedisease:
(A) NephritisENZYMES 147
(C) Edema
(D) Coronaryarterydiseases
200. Themainpathwayfordenovosynthesisof
fattyacidsoccurin
(A) Cytosol(B)Mitochondria
(C)Microsomes (D)Nucleus
201. Chain elongation of fatty acids in
mammalianliveroccursin
(A) Nucleus(B)Ribosomes
(C)Lysosomes (D)Microsomes
202. Acetyl-CoAistheprincipalbuildingblockof
fatty acids. It is produced within the
mitochondriaanddoesnotdiffusereadily
intocytosol.TheavailabilityofacetylCoA
involves
(A) Carnitineacyltransferase
(B) Pyruvatedehydrogenase
(C) Citratelyase
(D) Thiolase
2604
203. The synthesis of fatty acids is often
termedreductivesynthesis.
(A) NADP
(B)NADH
(C)FADH2 (D)NADPH
204. Theprotein,whichisinfactamultifunctional
enzymecomplexinhigherorganismis
(A) Acetyltransacylase
(B) Malonyltransacylase
(C) 3-Hydroxyacyl-ACPdehyratase
(D) Fattyacidsynthase
205. Thefattyacidsynthasecomplexcatalyses
(A) 4sequentialenzymaticsteps
(B) 6 sequentialenzymatic steps(C) 7
sequentialenzymaticsteps
(D)8sequentialenzymaticsteps
206. Themainsourceofreducingequivalents
(NADPH)forlipogenesisis
(A) Pentosephosphatepathway
(B) Citricacidcycle
(C) Glycolysis
(D) Glycogenolysis
207. Infattyacidssynthaseofbothbacteriaand
mammals,ACP(acylcarrierprotein)contain
thevitamin:
2605
(A) Thiamin(B)Pyridoxine
(C)Riboflavin (D)Pantothenicacid
208. Carboxylationofacetyl-CoAtomalonylCoA
requirestheenzyme:
(A) Acetyl-CoAcarboxylase
(C) Acetyltransacylase
(D) AcylCoA-synthetase
209. Theratelimitingreactioninthelipogenic
pathwayis
(A) Acetyl-CoAcarboxylasestep
(B) Ketoacylsynthasestep
(C) Ketoacylreductasestep
(D) Hydratasestep
210. Conversionoffattyacyl-CoAtoanacylCoA
derivative having 2 more carbon atoms
involvesasacetyldonar:
(A) Acetyl-CoA (B)Succinyl-CoA
(C)Propionyl-CoA (D)Malonyl-CoA
211. A cofactor required for the conversion
ofacetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA in
extramitochondrialfattyacidsynthesisis
(A) Biotin (B)FMN
(C)NAD (D)NADP
212. Theglycerolforfattyacidesterificationin
adipocytesis
2606
(A) Forthemostpart,derivedfromglucose
(B) Obtained primarily from
phosphorylationofglycerolbyglycerolkinase
(C) Formedfromgluconeogenesis
(D) Formedfromglycogenolysis
213. In the biosynthesis of triglycerides
fromglycerol3-phosphateandacyl-CoA,the
firstintermediateformedis
(A) 2-Monoacylglycerol
(B) 1,2-Diacylglycerol
(C) Lysophosphatidicacid
(D) Phosphatidicacid
214. Theenzymeglycerolkinaseislowactivityin
(A) Liver (B)Kidney
(C)Intestine (D)Adiposetissue
215. Thecommonprecursorinthebiosynthesis1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
6 oftriacylglycerolandphospholipidsis
(A) 1,2-Diacylglycerolphosphate
(B) 1-Acylglycerol3-phosphate
(C) Glycerol3-phosphate
(D) Dihydroxyacetonephosphate
216. Synthesis of polyunsaturated fatty acids
involvestheenzymesystems:
(A) Acyltransferaseandhydratase
(B) Desaturaseandelongase
2607
(C) Ketoacyl-CoAreductaseandhydratase
(D) Dihydroxyacetonephosphate
217. The desaturation and chain elongation
system ofpolyunsaturated fatty acid are
enhancedby
(C)Epinephrine (D)Thyroxine
218. Higherrateoflipogenesisisassociatedwith
(A) Highproportionofcarbohydrateindiet
(B) Restrictedcaloricintake
(C) Highfatdiet
(D) Deficiencyofinsulin
219. Exampleofenzymespecificity:
(A) Stereospecificity(B) Reaction
specificity
(C)Substratespecificity(D)Allofthese
220. Phospholipase C attacks the esterbond
liberating 1, 2-diacylglycerol and a
phosphorylbaseatposition
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)Both(A)and(B) (D)3
221. Synthesisofphosphatidylinositolbytransfer
ofinositoltoCDPdiacylglyceroliscatalysed
bytheenzyme:
(A) CTP phosphatidate cytidyl
transferase(B) Phosphatidate
2608
phosphohydrolase
(C) CDP-diacylglycerolinositoltransferase
(D) Cholinekinase
222. Synthesis of sphingosine requires the
cofactor
(A) NAD (B)NADP
(C)NADPH
(D)ATP
223. Ceramideisformedbythecombinationof
sphingosineand
(A) Acetyl-CoA (B)Acyl-CoA
(C)Malonyl-CoA (D)Propionyl-CoA
224. The amino alcohol sphingosine is
synthesizedin
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Cytosol
(C) Nucleus
225. The output of free fatty acids from
adiposetissueisreducedby
(A) Insulin (B) Glucagon (C) Growth
hormone(D)Epinephrine
226. The principalaction ofinsulin in adipose
tissueistoinhibittheactivityofthe
(A) Hormonesensitivelipoproteinlipase
2609
(B) Glycerolphosphateacyltransferase
(C) Acetyl-CoAcarboxylase
227. Innonshiveringthermogenesis
(A) Glucoseisoxidizedtolactate
(B) Fatty acids uncouple oxidative
phosphorylation
(C) Ethanolisformed
(D) ATPisburnedforheatproduction
228. Brownadiposetissueis
(A) Aprominenttissueinhuman
(B) Characterised by high content of
mitochondria
(C) Associated withhighactivityofATP
synthase(D)Characterisedbylowcontentof
cytochromes229.Fattyliveriscauseddueto
accumulationof
(A)Fattyacids (B)Cholesterol
(C)Phospholipids (D)Triacylglycerol
230. Alipotropicfactoris
(A) Choline (B)Palmiticacid
(C)Calcium (D)VitaminC
231. Fattyliverisalsocausedby
(A) CH3Cl (B)CCl4
(C)Na2SO4 (D)RiboflavinENZYMES 149
232. Alltheenzymesinvolvedinthesynthesisof
2610
cholesterolarefoundin
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Golgiapparatus
(C) Nucleus
(D) Endoplasmicreticulumandcytosol
233. The source ofallthe carbon atoms in
cholesterolis
(A) Acetyl-CoA (B)Bicarbonate
(C)Propionyl-CoA (D)Succinyl-CoA
234. Two molecules of acetyl-CoA condense
toformacetoacetyl-CoAcatalysedby
(A) Thiolase (B)Kinase
(C)Reductase (D)Isomerase
235. Acetoacetyl-CoA condenseswithonemore
moleculeofacetyl-CoAtoform
(A) Mevalonate
(B) Acetoacetate
(C) β-Hydroxybutyrate
(D) 3-Hydroxy3-methyl-glutaryl-CoA
236. HMG-CoA is converted to mevalonate by
reductioncatalysedby
(A) HMG-CoAsynthetase
(B) HMG-CoAreductase
(C) Mevalonatekinase
(D) Thiolase
237. For reduction enzyme HMG-CoA
2611
reductaserequirescofactor:
(A) NADPH (B)NADP
(C)NAD (D)FAD
238. In the biosynthesis of cholesterol, the
stepwhich controlsthe rate and locus of
metabolicregulationis
(A) Geranyl pyrophosphate farnesyl
pyrophosphate
(B) Squalene→ lanosterol
(C) HMGCoA→ mevalonate
(D) Lanosterol→ 1,4-desmethyllanosterol
239. The cyclisation ofsqualene in mammals
resultsinthedirectformationofthesterol.
(A) Cholesterol (B)Lanosterol
(C)Sistosterol (D)Zymosterol
240. In the biosynthesis of cholesterol, the
ratelimitingenzymeis
(A) Mevalonatekinase
(B) HMG-CoAsynthetase
(C) HMG-CoAreductase
(D) Cis-prenyltransferase
241. Cholesterolby a feed back mechanism
inhibitstheactivityof
(A) HMG-CoAsynthetase
(B) HMG-CoAreductase
(C) Thilase
2612
(D) Mevalonatekinase
242. The activity of HMG-CoA reductase is
inhibitedby
(A) Afungalinhibitormevastatin
(B) Probucol
(C) Nicotinicacid
(D) Clofibrate
243. Hypolipidemic drugs reduce
serumcholesteroland triacylglycerol.The
effectofclofibrateisattributedto
(A) BlockinabsorptionfromG.I.T.
(B) Decreaseinsecretionoftriacylglycerol
andcholesterolcontainingVLDLbyliver
(C) Blockinthereabsorptionofbileacids
(D) Decreasedsynthesisofcholesterol
244. In biosynthesis of cholesterol
triparanolinhibitstheactivityoftheenzyme:
(A) ∆
24
Reductase
(B) Oxidosqualene-lanosterolcyclase
(C) Isomerase
(D) Squaleneepoxidase
245. HMG-CoAreductaseactivityisincreasedby
administrationofthehormone:
2613
(C)Epinephrine (D)Glucocorticoids
246. Theprincipalsterolexcretedinfecesis
(A) Coprostanol (B)Zymosterol
(C)Lanosterol (D)Desmosterol
247. The principal rate limiting step in the
biosynthesisofbileacidsisatthe
(A) 7-Hydroxylasereaction
(B) 12α-Hydroxylasereaction1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
6 (C) Conjugationreaction
(D) Deconjugationreaction
248. Hypercholesterolemiaisfoundin
(A) Xanthomatosis
(B) Thyrotoxicosis
(C) Hemolyticjaundice
(D) Malabsorptionsyndrom
249. Hypocholesterolemiaisfoundin
(A) Thyrotoxicosis
(D) Nephroticsyndrome
250. Themajorsourceofextracellularcholesterol
forhumantissueis
(A) Verylowdensitylipoprotein
(B) Highdensitylipoprotein
(C) Lowdensitylipoprotein
2614
(D) Albumin
251. Correct ordering of lipoprotein
moleculesfrom lowesttothegreaterdensity
is
(A) LDL,IDL,VLDL,chylomicron
(B) Chylomicron,VLDL,IDL,LDL
(C) VLDL,IDL,LDL,chylomicron
(D) LDL,VLDL,IDL,chylomicron
252. In Hurler’s syndrome, urine shows
thepresenceof
(A) KeratansulphateI
(C) Dermatan sulphate and heparan
sulphate
(D) KeratansulphateII
253. DefectiveenzymeinHunter’ssyndromeis
(A) α-L-iduronidase (B) Iduronate
sulphatase
(C)ArylsulphataseB(D)C-acetyltransferase
254. InHunter’ssyndrome
(A) Thereisprogressivecornealopacity
(B) Keratansulphateisexcretedintheurine
(C) EnzymedefectiveisarylsulphataseB
(D) Hearinglossisperceptive
255. AnimportantfeatureofVon-Gierke’sdisease
is
2615
(A) Musclecramps (B)Cardiacfailure
(C)Hypoglycemia (D)Respiratoryalkalosis
256. TheaffectedorganinMcArdle’ssyndromeis
(A) Liver(B)Kidney(C)LiverandHeart(D)
Skeletalmuscle
257. Refsum’sdiseaseisduetodeficiencyofthe
enzyme:
(A) Pytantate-α-oxidase
(C) Galactocerebrosidase
(D) Ceramidetrihexosidase
258. AnimportantfindinginRefsum’sdiseaseis
(A) Accumulationofceramidetrihexosidein
thekidney
(B) Accumulation ofphytanic acid in the
bloodandtissues
(C) Accumulation ofgangliosidesin brain
andspleen
(D) Skineruptions
259. α-Galactosidaseenzymeisdefectivein
(A) Tay-sach’sdisease(B)Refsum’sdisease
(C) Sandhoff’sdisease
(D) Fabry’sdisease
260. The hypothesis to explain enzyme–
substratecomplexformation:
(A) Lockandkeymodel
2616
(B) Inducedfittheory
(C) Proenzymetheory
(D) Both(A)and(B)
261. AnimportantfindinginTay-sach’sdiseaseis
(A) Renalfailure
(B) Accumulation ofgangliosidesin brain
andspleen
(C) Cardiacfailure
(D) Anemia
262. TheenzymedeficientinKrabbe’sdiseaseis
(A) HexosaminidaseA(B)ArylsuphataseA
(C)β-Galactosidase (D)α-Fucosidase
263. Theenzymeceramidaseisdeficientin
(A) Farber’sdisease (B)Fabry’sdisease
(C)Sandhoff’sdisease(D)Refsum’sdiseaseENZYMES 151
264. Niemann-Pickdiseaseisduetodeficiencyof
theenzyme
(A) Ceramidase
(C) Galactocerebrosidase
(D) Sphingomyelinase
265. Wolman’sdiseaseisduetodeficiencyof
(A) Cholesterylesterhydrolase
(B) HexosaminidaseA
(C) α-Fucosidase
(D) ArylsulphataseA
2617
266. TheenzymedeficientinSandhoff’sdiseaseis
(A) α-Fucosidase
(B) HexosaminidaseAandB
(C) β-Galactosidase
(D) β-Glucosidase
267. Jamaican vomiting sickness is due to
inactivationoftheenzyme
(B) Acyl-Co-Asynthetase
(C) Acyl-Co-Adehydrogense
(D) Thiolase
268. Zellweger’s syndrome is due to inherited
absenceof
(A) Peroxisomes
(B) PhospholipaseA1
(C) Acyl-Co-Adehydrogenase
(D) Thiolase
269. Bassen-Kornzweigsyndromeisdueto
(A) AbsenceofApo-C-II
(B) DefectinApo-Bsynthesis
(C) AbsenceofApo-E
(D) AbsenceofApo-D
270. EnzymedeficientinHyperammonemiatypeII
is
(A) Glutaminesynthetase
(B) Glutaminase
2618
(D) Carbamoylphosphatesynthetase
271. An importantfinding in Hyperammonemia
typeIIis
(A) Increasedserumgluatminelevel
(B) Enlargedliver
(C) Mentalretardation
(D) Increased carbamoyl phosphate
synthetaselevel
272. Absence ofthe enzyme argininosuccinate
synthetasecauses
(A) Argininosuccinicaciduria
(B) Hyperargininemia
(C) Tricorrhexisnodosa
(D) Citrullinemia
273. Tricorrhexis nodosa is a characteristic
findingof
(A) Argininosuccinicaciduria
(B) Citrullinemia
(C) Phenylketonuria
(D) Hyperargininemia
274. Elevated blood argininosuccinate level
isfoundin
(A) Hyperargininemia
(B) Argininosuccinicaciduria
(C) Citrullinemia
2619
(D) Tyrosinosis
275. Hyperargininemia,adefectinureasynthesis
developsduetodeficiencyoftheenzyme:
(A) Ornithinetranscarbamoylase
(B) Argininosuccinase
(C) Arginase
(D) Argininosuccinatesynthetase
276. Albinismisduetodeficiencyoftheenzyme:
(B) Tyrosinase
(C) p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvicacidoxidase
(D) Tyrosinedehydrogenase
277. Neonataltyrosinemiaisduetodeficiencyof
theenzyme:
(A) p-Hydroxyphenylpyruvatehydroxylase
(B) Fumarylacetoacetatehydrolase
(C) Phenylalaninehydroxylase
(D) Tyrosinedehydrogenase
278. Whichofthefollowingisasubstratespecific
enzyme?
(A) Hexokinase (B)Thiokinase
(C)Lactase (D)Aminopeptidase1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2769. Coenzymescombinewith
(A) Proenzymes (B)Apoenzymes
(C)Holoenzymes (D)Antienzymes
2620
280. Coenzymes are required in which ofthe
followingreactions?
(A) Oxidation-reduction
(B) Transamination
(C) Phosphorylation
(D) Allofthese
281. Whichofthefollowingcoenzymetakespart
inhydrogentransferreactions?
(A) Tetrahydrofolate (B)CoenzymeA
(C)CoenzymeQ (D)Biotin
inoxidation-reductionreactions?
(A) Pyridoxalphosphate(B)Lipoicacid
(C) Thiamindiphosphate
(D) Noneofthese
283. In conversion of glucose to glucose-
6phsophate,thecoenzymeis
(A) Mg
++
(B) ATP
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
284. A coenzyme required in
transaminationreactionsis
(A) CoenzymeA (B)CoenzymeQ
(C)Biotin (D)Pyridoxalphosphate
2621
285. CoenzymeAcontainsavitaminwhichis
(A) Thiamin (B)Ascorbicacid
(C)Pantothenicacid(D)Niacinamide
286. Cobamidescontainavitaminwhichis
(A) Folicacid(B)Ascorbicacid
(C)Pantothenicacid(D)VitaminB12
287. A coenzyme required in
carboxylationreactionsis
(A) Lipoicacid (B)CoenzymeA
(C)Biotin (D)Allofthese
intissuerespiration?
(A) CoenzymeQ (B)CoenzymeA
(C)NADP (D)Cobamide
289. Theenzymehexokinaseisa
(A) Hydrolase (B)Oxidoreductase
(C)Transferase (D)Ligase
290. Which of the following is a proteolytic
enzyme?
(A) Pepsin (B)Trypsin
(C)Chymotrypsin (D)Allofthese
291. Enzymes which catalyse binding oftwo
substratesbycovalentbondsareknownas
(A) Lyases (B)Hydrolases
(C)Ligases (D)Oxidoreductases
292. Theinducedfitmodelofenzymeactionwas
2622
proposedby
(A) Fischer (B)Koshland
(C)Mitchell (D)Markert
293. Allostericinhibitionisalsoknownas
(A) Competitiveinhibition
(B) Non-competitiveinhibition
(C) Feedbackinhibition
(D) Noneofthese
294. Anallostericenzymeisgenerallyinhibitedby
(A) Initialsubstrateofthepathway
(B) Substrateanalogues
(C) Productofthe reaction catalysed by
allostericenzyme
(D) Productofthepathway
295. When the velocity of an enzymatic
reactionequalsVmax,substrateconcentration
is
(A) HalfofKm (B)EqualtoKm
(C)TwicetheKm (D)FarabovetheKm
296. In Lineweaver-Burk plot, the y-
interceptrepresents
(A) Vmax (B)Km
(C)Km (D)1/Km
297. Incompetitiveinhibition,theinhibitor
(A) Competeswiththeenzyme
(B) Irreversiblybindswiththeenzyme
2623
(C) Bindswiththesubstrate
(D) CompeteswiththesubstrateENZYMES 153
298Competitiveinhibitors
(A)DecreasetheKm (B)DecreasetheVmax
(C)IncreasetheKm (D)IncreasetheVmax
299. Competitive inhibition can be relieved
byraisingthe
(A) Enzymeconcentration
(B) Substrateconcentration
(C) Inhibitorconcentration
(D) Noneofthese
300. Physostigmineisacompetitiveinhibitorof
(A) Xanthineoxidase
(B) Cholinesterase
(C) Carbonicanhydrase
(D) Monoamineoxidase
301. Carbonicanhydraseiscompetitivelyinhibited
by
(A) Allopurinol (B)Acetazolamide
(C)Aminopterin (D)Neostigmine
302. Serumlactatedehydrogenaserisesin
(A) Viralhepatitis
(C) Carcinomatosis
(D) Allofthese
303. Whichofthefollowingserum enzymerises
2624
inmyocardialinfarction:
(A) Creatinekinase (B)GOT
(C)LDH (D)Allofthese
304. From thefollowingmyocardialinfarction,the
earliestserumenzymetoriseis
(A) CreatineKinase (B)GOT
(C)GPT (D)LDH
305. Proenzymes:
(A) Chymotrysinogen(B)Pepsinogen
306. Alkalinephosphataseispresentin
(A) Liver(B)Bones
(C)Placenta (D)Allofthese
307. Whichofthefollowingisoenzymeoflactate
dehydrogenase is raised in serum in
myocardialinfarction:
(A) LD1 (B)LD2
(C)LD1andLD2 (D)LD5
308. Enzymeswhich are alwayspresentin an
organismareknownas
(A) Inducibleenzymes
(B) Constitutiveenzymes
(C) Functionalenzymes
(D) Apoenzymes
309. Inactiveprecursorsofenzymesareknownas
(A) Apoenzymes (B)Coenzymes
2625
(C)Proenzymes (D)Holoenzymes
310. Whcihofthefollowingisaproenzyme?
(A) Carboxypeptidase
(B) Aminopeptidase
(C) Chymotrypsin
(D) Pepsinogen
311. Allostericenzymesregulatetheformationof
productsby
(A) Feedbackinhibition
(D) Repression-derepression
312 Regulation ofsome enzymes by covalent
modificationinvolvesadditionorremovalof
(A)Acetate (B)Sulphate
(C)Phosphate (D)Coenzyme
313. Covalent modification of an enzyme
generallyrequiresa
(A) Hormone(B)cAMP
(C)Proteinkinase (D)Allofthese
314. Aninorganicionrequiredfortheactivityofan
enzymeisknownas
(A) Activator(B)Cofactor
(C)Coenzyme (D)Noneofthese
315. Thefirstenzymefoundtohaveisoenzymes
was
2626
(A) AlkalinePhosphatase
(B) Lactatedehydrogenase
(C) AcidPhosphatase
(D) Creatinekinase
316. Lactatedehydrogenaseislocatedin
(A) Lysosomes (B)Mitochondria1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
6 (C)Cytosol (D)Microsomes
317. Lactatedehydrogenaseisa
(A) Monomer(B)Dimer
(C)Tetramer (D)Hexamer
318. Ceruloplasminisabsentin
(A) Cirrhosisofliver (B)Wilson’sdisease
(C)Menke’sdisease(D)Copperdeficiency
319. Ceruloplasminoxidizes
(A) Copper (B)Iron
320. Creatine kinase is presentin allofthe
followingexcept
(A) Liver(B)Myocardium
(C)Muscles (D)Brain
321. Alkalinephosphataseispresentin
(A) Liver(B)Bones
(C)Intestinalmucosa(D)Allofthese
322. Allof the following are zinc-containing
enzymesexcept
2627
(A) AcidPhosphatase
(B) AlkalinePhosphatase
(C) Carbonicanhydrase
(D) RNApolymerase
323. Allof the following are iron-containing
enzymesexcept
(A) Carbonicanhydrase
(B) Catalase
(C) Peroxidase
324. Biotinisacoenzymefor
(C) PEPcarboxykinase
(D) Glutamatepyruvatetransminase
325. Enzymesacceleratetherateofreactionsby
(A) Increasingtheequilibrium constantof
reactions
(B) Increasingtheenergyofactivation
(C) Decreasingtheenergyofactivation
(D) Decreasingthefreeenergychangeof
thereaction
326. Kinetics of an allosteric enzyme are
explainedby
(A) Michaelis-Mentenequation
(B) Lineweaver-Burkplot
2628
(C) Hillplot
(D) Allofthese
327. Covalentmodificationofanenzymeusually
involves phosphorylation /
dephosphorylationof
(A) Serineresidue
(B) Prolineresidue
(C) Hydroxylysineresidue
(D) Hydroxyprolineresidue
328. Vmaxofanenzymemaybeaffectedby
(A) pH
(B) Temperature
(C) Non-competitiveinhibitors
(D) Allofthese
329. Inenzymeassays,allthefollowingarekept
constantexcept
(A) Substrateconcentration
(B) Enzymeconcentration
(C) pH
(D) Temperature
330. Ifthesubstrateconcentrationismuchbelow
thekm oftheenzyme,thevelocityofthe
reactionis
(A) Directly proportional to substrate
concentration
(B) Notaffectedbyenzymeconcentration
2629
(C) NearlyequaltoVmax
(D) Inversely proportional to substrate
concentration
331. EnzymesrequiringNADasco-substratecan
be assayed by measuring change in
absorbanceat
(A) 210nm (B)290nm
(C)340nm (D)365nm
332. Differentisoenzymesofanenzymehavethe
same
(A) AminoacidsequenceENZYMES 155
(B) Michaelisconstant
(C) Catalyticactivity
(D) Allofthese
333. From the pentapeptide,phe-ala-leu-lysarg,
phenylalanineresidueissplitoffby
(C)Aminopeptidase (D)Carboxypeptidase
334. Ahigh-energyphosphateamongthefollowing
is
(A) Glucose-6-phosphate
(B) Glucose-1-phosphate
(C) 1,3-Biphoglycerate
(D) Allofthese
335. Thehighestenergylevelispresentamongst
thefollowingin
2630
(A) 1,3-Biphosphoglycerate
(B) Creatinephosphate
(D) Phosphoenolpyruvate
336. Dailyurinaryurobilinogenexcretioninadult
menis
(A) 0–4mg (B)5–8mg
(C)9–12mg (D)13–20mg
337. Inobstructivejaundice,faecalurobilinogenis
(A) Absent (B)Decreased
(C)Increased (D)Normal
338. Acetyl-CoAcanbeformedfrom
(A) Pyruvate(B)Fattyacids
(C)ketonebodies (D)Allofthese
339. Pyruvateisconvertedintoacetyl-CoAby
(A) Decarboxylation
(B) Dehydrogenation
(C) Oxidativedecarboxylation
(D) Oxidativedeamination
340. ConversionofpyruvateintoacetylCoA is
catalysedby
(B) Didrolipoylacetyltransferase
(D) Allthe3actinginconcert
341. Pyruvatedehydrogenasecomplexislocated
2631
in
(A) Cytosol
(B) Lysosomes
(C) Mitochondria
342. A flavoprotein in pyruvate dehydrogenase
complexis
(B) Didrolipoylacetyltransferase
(D) Noneofthese
343. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is
regulatedby
(A) Covalentmodification
(B) Allostericregulation
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
344. An allosteric inhibitor of pyruvate
dehydrogenaseis
(A)AcetylCoA (B)ATP
(C)NADH
345.Ribozymes:
(D)Pyruvate
(A)RNAenzyme (B) Non-protein
enzymes
(C)Catalystfunction (D)Allofthese
2632
346. Incitricacidcycle,NADisreducedin
(A) Onereactions (B)Tworeactions
(C)Threereactions (D)Fourreactions
347. Among citric acid cycle enzymes, a
flavoproteinis
(A) Malate
(B) Fumarase
(C) Succinatedehrogenase
(D) Isocitratedehrogenase
348. Incitricacidcycle,GDPisphosphorylatedby
(B) Aconitase
(D) Fumarse
349. Malonateisaninhibitorof
(B) α-Ketoglutaratedehydrogenase1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
6 (C) Succinatedehydrogenase
(D) Isocitratedehydrogenase
350. Isocitrate dehydrogenase is allosterically
inhibitedby
(A) Oxalosuccinate (B)α-Ketoglutarate
(C)ATP (D)NADH
351. Allofthefollowingareallostericenzymes
except
2633
(A) Citratesynthetase
(B) a-Ketoglutaratedehdrogenase
(D) Succinatedehydrogenase
352. Allofthefollowingareintermediatesofcitric
acidcycleexcept
(A) Oxalosuccinate (B)Oxaloacetate
(C)Pyruvate (D)Fumarate
353. Allofthefollowingintermediatesofcitric
acidcyclecanbeformedfrom aminoacids
except
(A) α-Ketoglutarate (B)Fumarate
(C)Malate (D)Oxaloacetate
354. Glycolyticpathwayislocatedin
(A) Mitochondria(B)Cytosol
(C)Microsomes (D)Nucleus
355. Endproductofaerobicglycolysisis
(A) AcetylCoA (B)Lactate
(C)Pyruvate (D)CO2andH2O
356. During fasting,glucose is phosphorylated
mainlyby
(A) Hexokinase(B)Glucokinase(C)Both(A)
and(B)(D)Noneofthese
357. Glucokinaseisfoundin
(A) Muscles(B)Brain
(C)Liver (D)Allofthese
2634
358. In anaerobicglycolysis,energyyield from
eachmoleculeofglucoseis
(A) 2 ATP equivalents (B) 8 ATP
equivalents
(C)30ATPequivalents(D)38ATPequivalents
359. Which of the following is an allosteric
enzyme?
(A) Phosphohexoseisomerase
(B) Phosphotrioseisomerase
(C) Lactatedehydrogenase
360. Glycolysisisanaerobicin
(A) Liver (B)Brain
(C)Kidneys (D)Erythrocytes
361. Phosphofructokinase is allosterically
inhibitedby
(A) Fructose-1,6-biphosphate
(B) Lactate
(C) Pyruvate
(D) Citrate
362. Glucose-6-phosphateisanallostericinhibitor
of
(A) Glucokinase
(B) Hexokinase
(C) Phosphohexoseisomerase
(D) Noneofthese
2635
363. ATPisaco-substrateaswellasanallosteric
inhibitorof
(A) Phosphofructokinase(B)Hexokinase
(C) Glucokinase
(D) Noneofthese
364. Complete oxidation of one molecule of
glucoseintoCO2andH2Oyields
(A) 8ATPequivalents
equivalents
(D)38ATPequivalents
365. A unique by-product of glycolysis in
erythrocytesis
(A) Lactate
(B) 1, 3-Biphosphoglycerate(C) 2, 3-
Biphosphoglycerate
(D)Allofthese
366. Whichofthefollowingenzymesincorporates
inorganicphosphateintothesubstrate?
(A) Phosphoglyceratekinase
dehydrogenase
(C) Pyruvatekinase
(D) EnolaseENZYMES 157
367. Rapoport-Lueberingcycleislocatedin
(A) Liver (B)Muscles
2636
(C)Brain (D)Erythrocytes
368. Glycerolcanenterglycolyticpathwayvia
(A) Dihydroxyacetonephosphate
(B) 1,3-Biphospoglycerate
(C) 3-Phosphoglycerate
(D) 2-Phosphoglycerate
369. HMPshuntispresentin
(A) Erythrocytes(B)Liver
(C)Testes (D)Allofthese
370. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is
inducedby
(A) 6-Phosphogluconolactone(B)Glucose-6
-phosphate
(C) Ribose-5-phosphate
(D) Insulin
371. ThedecarboxylationreactioninHMPshunt
iscatalysedby
(A) Gluconolactonehydrolase
(B) 6-Phosphogluconatedehydrogenase
(C) 6-Phosphogluconatedecarboxylase
(D) Transaldolase
372. ThefirstpentoseformedinHMPshuntis
(A) Ribose-5-phosphate (B)Ribulose-5-
phosphate
(C) Xylose-5-phosphate (D)Xylulose-5-
phosphate
2637
373. TheregulatoryenzymeinHMPshuntis
(A) Glucose-6-phosphatedehydrogenase
(B) 6-Phosphogluconatedehydrogenase
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
374. TherateofHMPshuntreactionsis
(A) IncreasedbyInsulin
(B) Increasedindiabetesmellitus
(C) Increasedbyglucagons
(D) Increasedinstarvation
375. Glycogenesisrequires
(A) GTP(B)CTP
(C)UTP (D)Noneofthese
376. Glycogensynthetasecatalysestheformation
of
(A) α−1,4-Glycosidicbonds
(B) α−1,6-Glycosidicbonds
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
377. Glycogenoloysisisincreasedby
(A) Glucagon (B)Insulin
(C)Epinephrine (D)cAMP
378. Hepaticglycogenoloysisisincreasedby
(C)Epinephrine (D)Glucocorticoids
379. Glycogen phosphorylase liberates the
2638
followingfromglycogen
(A) Glucose
(B) Glucose-6-phosphate(C) Glucose-1-
phosphate
(D)Maltose
380. Aftertheactionofphosphorylase,glycogen
isconvertedinto
(A) Amylopectin(B)dextrin
(C)Amylose (D)Maltose
381. Glucose-1-phosphate liberated from
glycogen cannot be converted into free
glucosein
(C)Muscles (D)Brain
382. Acoenzymepresentinphosphorylaseis
(A) NAD
(C) Thiaminpyrophosphate
(D) CoenzymeA
383. If glucose-1-phosphate formed by
glycogenoloysisin musclesisoxidized to
CO2andH2O,theenergyyieldwillbe
(A) 2 ATP equivalents (B) 3 ATP
equivalents
(C)4ATPequivalents(D)8ATPequivalents
384. Amoleculeofphosphorylasekinaseismade
2639
upof
(A) 4subunits (B)8subunits
(C)12subunits (D)16subunits1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
3865. CyclicAMPbindsto
(A) Catalyticsubunitsofproteinkinase
(B) Regulatorysubunitsofproteinkinase
(C) Catalytic subunits of phosphorylase
kinase
(D) Regulatorysubunitsofphosphorylase
kinase
386. Glucoseistheonlysourceofenergyfor
(A) Myocardium (B)Kidneys
(C)Erythrocytes (D)Thrombocytes
387. Glycerol-3-phosphate forthe synthesis of
triglyceridesinadiposetissueisderivedfrom
(A) Phosphatidicacid(B)Diacylglycerol
(C)Glycerol (D)Glucose
388. Gluconeogenesisdoesnotoccurin
(A) Brain (B)Kidneys
(C)Muscles (D)Liver
389. Glucosecannotbesynthesizedfrom
(A) Glycerol(B)Lactate
(C)Alanine (D)Leucine
390. Coenzyme for phosphoenolpyruvate
carboxykinaseis
2640
(A) ATP(B)ADP
(C)GTP (D)GDP
391. Therapeuticenzymes:
(A) Streptokinase (B)Asparaginase
(C)Riboflavinase (D)Both(A)and(B)
392. A gluconeogenic enzyme among the
followingis
(A) Phosphofructokinase
(B) Pyruvatekinase
(C) Phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase
(D) Glucokinase
393. Glucose-6-phosphatase and PEP carboxy
kinaseareregulatedby
(B) Allostericregulation
(C) Inductionandrepression
(D) Allofthese
394. Themaximum possiblechainlengthoffatty
acidsformed in the pathwayofde novo
synthesisis
(A) 16Carbonatoms(B)18Carbonatoms
(C)20Carbonatoms(D)24Carbonatoms
395. AcetylCoArequiredfordenovosynthesisof
fattyacidsisobtainedfrom
(A) Breakdownofexistingfattyacids
(B) Ketonebodies
2641
(C) Acetate
(D) Pyruvate
396. FormationofacetylCoAfrompyruvateforde
novosynthesisoffattyacidsrequires
(A) Pyruvatedehydrogenasecomplex
(B) Citratesynthetase
(C) ATPcitratelyase
(D) Allofthese
397. The majorsite forelongation ofmedium
chainfattyacidsis
(C)Microsomes (D)Allofthese
398. β-oxidationoffattyacidsisinhibitedby
(A) NADPH (B)AcetylCoA
(C)MalonylCoA (D)Noneofthese
399. The enzyme regulating extramitochondrial
fattyacidsynthesisis
(A) Thioesterase
(B) AcetylCoAcarboxylase
(C) Acyltransferase
(D) Multi-enzymecomplex
400. AcetylCoAcarboxylaseisactivatedby
(A) Citrate (B)Insulin
401. Allthe following statements aboutacetyl
CoAcarboxylasearetrueexcept:
2642
(A) Itisactivatedbycitrate
(B) ItisinhibitedbypalmitoylCoA
(C) Itcanundergocovalentmodification
(D) Itsdephosphorylatedformisinactive
402. Allthe following statements aboutacetyl
CoAcarboxylasearetrueexcept
(A) Itisrequiredfordenovosynthesisof
fattyacids
(B) It is required for mitochondrial
elongationoffattyacidsENZYMES 159
(C) Itisrequiredformicrosomalelongation
offattyacids
(D) Insulinconvertsitsinactiveformintoits
activeform
403. BothAcylcarrierprotein(ACP)offattyacid
synthetaseandcoenzyme(CoA)are
(A) Containreactivephosphorylated
(B) Containthymidine
(C) Contain phosphopantetheine reactive
groups(D)Containcystinereactivegroups
404. Whichoneofthefollowingtransfersacyl
groups?
(B) Lipomide
(C) ATP
(D) NADH
2643
405. Whichoneofthefollowingcofactorsmust
beutilizedduringtheconversionofacetyl
CoAtomalonylCoA?
(A) TPP(B)ACP
(C)NAD
(D)Biotin
406. Whichoneofthefollowingenzymesrequires
acoenzymederivedfrom thevitaminwhose
structureisshownbelow?
(A) EnoylCoAhydratase
(C) Glucose-6-phosphatase
407. Coenzymesderivedfrom thevitaminshown
below arerequiredbyenzymesinvolvedin
thesynthesisofwhichofthefollowing?
(A) ATP(B)UTP
(C)CTP (D)NADH
408. Coenzymesderivedfrom thevitaminshown
belowarerequiredbywhichofthefollowing
enzymes?
(A) Lactatedehydrogenase
(B) Glutamatedehydrogenase
2644
409. Allthefollowingarecoenzymesexcept
(A) Ubiquinone
(B) CoA
(D) Lipoicacid
410. Whichofthefollowingisnotacofactor?
(A) Mg(B)Iron
(C)Cu (D)Methylcobalamine
411. Allthefollowingcompoundsaremembersof
theelectrontransportchainexcept
(A) Ubiquinone (B)Carnitine
(C)NAD (D)FAD
412. Thiamineisessentialfor
(C) Succinatedehydrogenase
(D) AcetylCoAsynthetase
413. Adenylatecyclaseisactivatedby
(C)ProstaglandinE1(D)Ca
2+
ions
414. Maximumenzymeactivityisobservedat
(A) AcidicpH (B)NeutralpH
(C)BasicpH (D)OptimumpH
415. Whichofthefollowingisknownasbone
2645
formingenzyme?
(A) Alkalinephosphatase
(B) Acidphosphatase
(C) Leucineaminopeptidase
(D) γ-glutamyltranspeptidase
416. Conversionofpepsinogentopepsinis
(A) Intramolecularrearrangement
(B) Breakingofhydrogenbonds
(C) Covalentmodification
(D) Polymerisation
417. Which ofthe following is nothaving an
apoenzymeandcoenzyme?
(C) Malatedehydrogenase
(D) Pepsin
418. Pyruvatedehydrogenaseisa/an
(A) Isomerase (B)Lyase
(C)Ligase (D)Oxidoreductase
419. Homogentisicoxidaseisan1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
6 (A) Oxidase
(B) Monooxygenase
(C) Dioxygenase
(D) Anaeroticdehydrogenase
420. Isocitratedehydrogenasecanuse
2646
__________asacofactor.
(A) NAD
only (B)NADP
only
(C)NAD
orNADP
(D)FMNandFAD
421. Therateofmostenzymecatalysedreactions
changeswithpH.AsthepHincreases,this
rate
(A) reachesaminimum,thenincreases
(B) reachesamaximum,thendecreases
(C) increases
(D) decreases
422. Asubstratefortheenzymealdolaseis
(A) galactose-6-phosphate
(B) isocitricacid
(C) Glucose-1-phosphate
(D) Fructose1,6diphosphate
423. Decarboxylationofα-ketoacidsrequires
(A) Thiaminepyrophosphate,FAD,NAD
(B) Flavinmononucleotide(C)NADP
2647
+
(D)NAD
only
424. CoenzymeAcontainsthevitamin:
(A) Riboflavin (B)Pantothenicacid
(C)Pyridoxine (D)Thiamine
425. Whichofthefollowingisnotacomponentof
coenzymeA?
(A) Adenylicacid
(B) Pantothenicacid
(C) β-mercaptoethylamine
(D) Deoxyadenylicacid
426. Malic enzyme convers malic acid,in the
presence ofNADP
to Pyruvic acid.This
reactionisa/an
(A) Decarboxylation
(B) DecarboxylationandDehydrogenation
(C) Dehydrogenation
(D) Oxidation
427. Thefollowingreactionischaracteristicof
whattypeofenzymes?
2H2O2→ 2H2O+O2
(A) Peroxides
(B) Catalase
2648
(C) Dehydrogenase
(D) Coppercontainingoxidases
428. OfWhichwarburg’syellow enzymecontains
asaprostheticgroup?
(B) Biotin
(C) NAD
(D) Riboflavin-5-phosphate
429. Dehydrogenasesutilize,ascoenzymes,allof
thefollowingexcept
(A) NAD
(B)NADP
(C)FAD (D)FH4
430. Urea is produced physiologically by the
actionoftheenzyme:
(A)Urease (B)Glutaminase
(C)Arginase
431.Ureaseisa
(D)Noneofthese
(A)Lyase (B)Ligase
(C)Isomerase (D)Hydrolase
432. Velocitymaximum foranenzymeathalfthe
substrateconcentrationgives
2649
(A) Themolecularweightoftheenzyme
(B) Kmvalue
(C) IsoelectricpH
(D) Pkvalue
433. Whichofthefollowingaminoacidhasbeen
shown as one of the active site of
phosphoglucomutase?
(A) Lysine (B)Tyrosine
(C)Serine (D)Histidine
434. Theinhibitionofsuccinatedehydrogenaseby
malonateby
(C) Uncompetitiveinhibition
(D) Feedbackinhibition
435. Cobamidecoenzymesare
(A) VitaminB1 (B)Riboflavin
(C)Pyridoxine (D)VitaminB12ENZYMES 161
436. TheisozymeCK-MBisspecificallyincreased
inthebloodofpatientswhohad
(A) Skeletalmuscledisease
(B) Recentmyocardialinfarction
(C) Infectivehepatitis
(D) Myxoedema
437. FADcontainingenzyme,catalyzingformation
ofα,βunsaturatedfattyacylCoAderivative.
2650
(A) AcylCoAdehydrogenase
(B) Enoylhydrase
(C) β-OHacylCoAdehydrogenase
(D) Thiolase
438. Immobilizedenzymes:
(A) Potentiationofactivity
(B) Presentationofactivity
(C) Preparationofactivity
(D) Allofthese
439. ThiscatalyzesformationofCoAderivatives
fromfattyacid,CoAandATP:
(A) AcylCoAdehydrogenase
(B) Enoylhydrase
(C) β-OHacylCoAdehydrogenase
(D) Thiokinase
440. Fructose2,3 biphosphateisapowerful
allostericactivatorof
(A) Fructose1,6diphosphatase
(C) Hexokinase
(D) Fructokinase
441. ‘Clearingfactor’is
(A) Lipoproteinlipase
(B) Crotonase
(D) β-sitosterol
2651
442. Maltaseattacksonly
(A) α-glucosides (B)β-glucosides
(C)Starch (D)Dextrins
443. Pepsinis
(A) Exo-peptidase(B)Endo-peptidase
(C)Carboxypeptidase(D)Aminopeptidase
444. Anenzymeinsalivawhichhydrolyzesstarch
is
(A) Pepsinogen (B)Chymotrysin
(C)α-Amylase (D)Malate
445. If a coenzyme is required in an
enzymereaction,theformerusuallyhasthe
functionof
(A) Actingasanacceptorforoneofthe
cleavageproductsofthesubstrate
(B) Enhancing the specificity ofthe apo
enzyme
(C) Increasingthenumberofreceptorsites
oftheapoenzyme
(D) Activatingthesubstrate
446. TheMichaehis-Mentenhypothesis:
(A) Postulates the formation of an
enzymesubstratecomplex
(B) Enablesustocalculatetheisoelectric
pointofanenzyme
(C) States thatthe rate of a chemical
2652
reaction maybe independent of
substrateconcentration
(D) States that the reaction rate is
proportionaltosubstrateconcentration
447. Schardinger’senzymeis
(B) Xanthinedehydrogenase
(C) Uricoxidase
(D) Laminoaciddehydrogenase
448. Tryptophanpyrolaseiscurrentlyknownas
(A) Tryptophandeaminase
(B) Tryptophandioxygenase
(C) Tryptophanmonooxygenase
(D) Tryptophandecarboxylase
449. An enzyme which brings about lysis
ofbacterialcellwallis
(A) Amylase(B)Lysozyme
(C)Trypsin (D)Lipase
450. Trypsinhasnoactionon
(A) Hemoglobin (B)Albumin
(C)Histone (D)DNA
451. Multipleformsofthesameenzymesare
knownas
(A) Zymogens (B)Isoenzymes1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
6 (C)Proenzymes (D)Pre-enzymes
2653
452. Innon-competitiveenzymeaction
(A) Vmaxisincreased
(B) Apparentkm isincreased
(C) Apparentkm isdecreased
(D) Concentration of active enzyme
moleculeisreduced
453. Anallostericenzymeinfluencestheenzyme
activityby
(A) Competitingforthecatalyticsitewith
thesubstrate
(B) Changingthespecificityoftheenzyme
forthesubstrate
(C) Changing the conformation of the
enzymebybindingtoasiteotherthan
catalyticsite
(D) Changing the nature ofthe products
formed
454. Whichofthefollowingregulatoryreactions
involvesareversiblecovalentmodificationof
anenzyme?
(A) Phosphorylation ofserine OH on the
enzyme(B)Allostericmodulation
455. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme
haswhichofthefollowingproperties?
2654
(A) Itisfrequentlyafeedbackinhibitor
(B) Itbecomescovalentlyattached to an
enzyme
(C) ItdecreasestheVmax
(D) Itinterfereswith substratebinding to
theenzyme
456. When [s]is equalto Km,which ofthe
followingconditionsexist?
(A) Halftheenzymemoleculesarebound
tosubstrate
(B) Thevelocityofthereactionisequalto
Vmax
(C) The velocity of the reaction is
independentofsubstrateconcentration
(D) Enzyme is completely saturated with
substrate
457. Whichofthefollowingstatementsaboutan
enzyme exhibiting allosteric kinetics with
cooperativeinteractionisfalse?
(A) AplotofV-Vk[s]hasasigmaidalshape
(B) Aninhibitormayincreasetheapparent
Km
(C) Line weaverBnrk plotis usefulfor
determiningKm andVmax
(D) Removalofallostericinhibitormayresult
inhyperbolicV-S[s]plot
2655
458. Pantothenicacidactson
(A) NADP (B)NADPH
(C)FAD (D)CoA
459. Vitamin deficiencythatcauses fattyliver
includesallexcept
(A) VitaminE(B)Pyridoxine
(C)Retionicacid (D)Pantothenicacid
460. Inwhichofthefollowingtypesofenzymes
aninducerisnotrequired?
(A) Inhibited enzyme (B) Cooperative
enzyme
(C)Allostericenzyme(D)Constitutiveenzyme
461. In which of the following types of
enzymewatermaybeaddedtoaC—Cdouble
bondwithoutbreakingthebond?
(A) Hydrolase (B)Hydratase
(C)Hydroxylase (D)Esterase
462. ‘Lock’ and ‘Key’ model of enzyme
actionproposedbyFisherimpliesthat
(A) Theactivesiteisflexibleandadjusts
tosubstrate
(B) TheactivesiterequiresremovalofPO4
group
(C) The active site is complementary in
shapetothatofthesubstrate
(D) Substrateschangeconformationpriorto
2656
activesiteinteraction
463. Incompetitiveinhibitionofenzymeaction
(A) TheapparentKm isdecreased
(B) TheapparentKm isincreased
(C) Vmaxisdecreased
(D) Apparent concentration of enzyme
moleculesdecreasedENZYMES 163
464. In competitive inhibition which of
thefollowingkineticeffectistrue?
(A) DecreasesbothKm andVmax
(B) IncreasesbothKm andVmax
(C) DecreasesKm withoutaffectingVmax
(D) IncreasesKm withoutaffectingVmax
465. Enzymesincreasetheratesofreactionsby
(A) Increasingthefreeenergyofactivation
(B) Decreasingtheenergyofactivation
(C) Changing the equilibrium constantof
thereaction
(D) Increasing the free energychange of
thereaction
466. Themostusefultestforthediagnosisof
acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis during the
firstfewdaysis
(A) Urinarylipasetest(B)Serumcalcium
(C)Urinaryamylase (D)Serumamylase
467. Thebesttestforacutepancreatitisinthe
2657
presenceofmumpsis
(A) Aserologicaltestformumps
(B) Serumamylase
(C) Urinaryamylase
(D) Serumlipase
468. TheslowmovingfractionofLDHistypically
increasedinpancreaswith
(A) Cerebrovascularaccidents
(B) Acutemyocardialinfarction
(C) Acutepancreatitis
(D) Acuteviralhepatits
469. Which ofthe following enzyme typically
elevatedinalcoholism?
(A) SerumALP
(B) SerumGOT(C)Serumγ-GT
(D)Serumacidphosphatase
470. Patients with hepatocellular jaundice,as
comparedtothosewithpurelyobstructive
jaundicetendtohave
(A) LowerserumALP,LDHandASTactivity
(B) Lowerserum ALP,HigherLDHandAST
activity(C)Higherserum ALP,LDH and
ASTactivity
(D)Higherserum ALP,LowerLDHandAST
activity
471. Ifresults ofthe serum bilirubin,serum
2658
ALP,LDH and AST determinationssuggest
obstructivejaundice,thebestconfirmatory
testwouldbetheestimationof
(A) SerumALT
(B) Serum5’nucleotidase
(C) SerumPseudocholinesterase
(D) Noneofthese
472. Whichenzymeestimationwillbehelpfulin
differentiatingtheelevatedserum ALPfound
in obstructive jaundice as wellas bone
disorders?
(A) SerumAST (B)SerumALT
(C)SerumLDH (D)Serumγ-GT
473. Cardiac muscle contains which of the
followingCKosoenzyme?
(A) BBonly (B)MMandBBonly
(C)MM,BBandMB(D)MMandMBonly
474. Liverand skeletolmeasle disorders are
characterized by on disk proportionate
increase in which ofthe LDH isoenzyme
fraction?
(A) LDH-1 (B)LDH-1andLDH-2
(C)LDH-3andLDH-4(D)LDH-2andLDH-3
(E)LDH-5
475. On the third day following onset of
acutemyocardialinfarction,which enzyme
2659
estimationwillhavethebestpredictivevalue?
(A) SerumAST (B)SerumCK
(C)SerumALT (D)SerumLDH
476. Serum ASTactivityisnotcharacteristically
elevatedastheresultof
(B) Passivecongestionofliver
(C) Musculardystrophies
(D) Pepticulcer
477. On which day following acute
myocardialinfarctiontheestimationofserum
ASTwillbeofgreatestsignificance?
(A) Firstday(B)Secondday
(C)Thirdday (D)Fourthday
478. In which diseases of the following1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
6 organs,isoenzymesLDH-1andLDH-2willbe
releasedinplasma?
(A) Kidney,R.B.CandLiver
(B) Heart,KidneyandR.B.C
(C) Heart,KidneyandLiver
(D) Heart,LungsandBrain
479. Plasmanon-functionalenzymesare
(A) totallyabsent
(B) lowconcentrationinplastic
(C) important for diagnosis of several
2660
disease
(D) Allofthese
480. Pyruvatedehydrogenasecontainsallexcept
(A) Biotin (B)NAD
(C)FAD (D)CoA
481. AnincreaseinLDH-5enzymeisseeninthe
followingexcept
(A) Acutehepatitis (B) Muscular
distrophies
(C) Breast carcinoma (D) Pulmonary
embolism
482. Diastasecanbeusedforthehydrolysiscan
beusedforthehydrolysisof
(A) Sucrose (B)Starch
(C)Cellulose (D)Maltose
483. Whichofthefollowingstatementsistrue?
(A) Enzymeshavenamesendingase
(B) Enzymes are highly specific in their
action
(C) Enzymesarelivingorganisms
(D) Enzymesgetactivatedonheating
484. Enzymesactivityiscontrolledby
(A) pHofthesolution
(B) Temperature
(C) Concentrationoftheenzyme
(D) Concentrationofthesubstrate
2661
(E) Allofthese
485. Whichofthefollowingisnottrueregarding
enzymes?
(A) Theycatalyzeonlyaparticulartypeof
reaction
(B) Theyremainactiveevenafterseparation
fromthesource
(C) Theyaredestroyedafterthecompletion
ofthereactiontheycatalyse
(D) They are irreversibly destroyed at
hightemperature
(E) TheiractivitydependsonthepHofthe
solution
486Thenumberofenzymesknownisabout
(A)10,000 (B)100
(C)50 (D)26
487. Nicotinepresentintobaccoisa/an
(A) Alkaloid (B)Terpene
(C)Steroid (D)Protein
488. Thepoisonousalkaloidpresentintheoilof
hemlockis
(A) Cocaine (B)Nicotine
(C)Quinine (D)Morphine
489. Alkaloidsareusuallypurifiedbyextraction
with
(A) Ether(B)DilHCl
2662
(C)NaOH (D)Chloroform
490. ThenumberofN-MCgroupsinalkaloidsis
bestestimatewiththehelpof
(A) HI (B)H2SO4
(C)(CH3CO)2CO (D)CH3MgI
491. Acompetitiveinhibitorofanenzyme
(A) IncreasesKm withoutaffectingVmax
(B) DecreasesKm withoutaffectingVmax
(C) IncreasesVmaxwithoutaffectingKm
(D) DecreasesbothVmaxandKm
492. TheMichaelisconstant,Km is
(A) Numericallyequalto½ Vmax
(B) Dependentontheenzymeconcentration
(C) IndependentofpH
(D) Numerically equal to the substrate
concentration thatgiveshalfmaximal
velocity
493. Therateofanenzymecatalyzedreaction
was measured using several substrate
concentrationsthatweremuchlowerthanKm,
the dependence of reaction velocity on
substrate concentration can best be
describedasENZYMES 165
(A) Independentofenzymeconcentration
(B) AconstantfractionofVmax
(C) EqualtoKm
2663
(D) Proportional to the substrate
concentration
494. Thepresenceofanoncompetitiveinhibitor
(A) LeadstobothanincreaseintheVmaxof
areactionandanincreaseinKm
(B) Leadsto adecreasein theobserved
Vmax
(C) LeadstoadecreaseinKm andVmax
(D) Leads to an increase in Km without
affecting
Vmax
495. Whichoneofthefollowingstatementsisnot
characteristicofallostericenzymes?
(A) Theyfrequentlycatalyzea committed
stepearlyinametabolicpathway
(B) Theyareoftencomposedofsubunits
(C) TheyfollowMichaelis-Mentenkinetics
(D) They frequently show cooperativity
forsubstratebinding
496. Theabnormalisoenzymeneednot
(A) Beanoxidoreductase
(B) Haveanycoenzyme
(C) RequireATP
(D) Belocalizedintracellularly
(E) Beacatalyst
497. LDH assays are most useful in
2664
diagnosingdiseasesofthe
(A) Heart (B)Pancreas
(C)Brain (D)Kidney
498. The chemical forces that bind most
coenzymesandsubstratestoenzymessuch
asLDHare
(C)Coordinatebonds(D)Covalentbonds
499. Howmanydifferentproteinsmaybepresent
innormalLDH?
(A) One (B)Two
(C)Three (D)Four
500. All the isoenzymes function with the
coenzyme:
(A) NADP
(B)FAD
(C)Lipoate (D)NAD
501. ‘Lock’and‘Key’theorywasproposedby
(A) Sorenson(B)Fischer
(C)Mehler (D)Sanger
502. Which of the following forms part of
acoenzyme?
(A) Zn
2+
2665
(B)Lipase
(C)VitaminB2 (D)Lysine
503. Theshapeofanenzymeandconsequently
itsactivitycan bereversiblyaltered from
momenttomomentby
(A) Heat(B)Aminoacidsubstrate
(C)Allostericsubunits(D)Sulfursubstitutions
504. Whichoneofthefollowingregulatoryactions
involvesareversiblecovalentmodificationof
theenzyme?
(A) Phosphorylation of ser-OH on the
enzyme(B)Allostericmodulation
505. Anenzymeisa
(A) Carbohydrate(B)Lipid
(C)Protein (D)Nucleicacid
506. Anenzymepromotesachemicalreactionby
(A) Loweringtheenergyofactivation
(B) Causingthereleaseofheatwhichacts
asaprimer
(C) Increasingmolecularmotion
(D) Changing the free energy difference
betweensubstrateandproduct
507. In most metabolic pathways, all
neededenzymesarearrangedtogetherina
2666
multienzymecomplexwithina
(A) SolutionofATP
(B) Membrane
(C) Quanternaryprotein
(D) Coenzyme
508. An enzyme catalyzes the conversion of
analdosesugartoaketosesugarwouldbe
classifiedasoneofthe1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
6 (A) Transferases(B)Isomerases
(C)Oxidoreductases(D)Hydrolases
509. Thefunctionofanenzymeisto
(A) Cause chemicalreactions thatwould
nototherwisetakeplace
(B) Changetheratesofchemicalreactions
(C) Control the equilibrium points of
reactions
(D) Changethedirectionsofreactions
510. Inwhichofthefollowingtypesofenzymes,
watermaybeaddedtoaC—Cdoublebond
withoutbreakingthebond?
(A) Hydrolase (B)Hydratase
(C)Hydroxylase (D)Oxygenase
511. Enzymesincreasestherateofreactionsby
(A) Increasingthefreeenergyofactivation
(B) Decreasingtheenergyofactivation
2667
(C) Changing the equilibrium constantof
thereaction
(D) Increasing the free energychange of
thereaction
512. Theactivesiteofanenzymeisformedbya
fewoftheenzymes:
(A) Rgroupsoftheaminoacids
(B) Aminogroupsoftheaminoacids
(C) Carboxylgroupoftheaminoacids
(D) Exposedsulfurbonds
513. Allostericenzymescontain
(A) Multiplesubunits (B)Singlechain
(C)Twochains (D)Threechains
514. Isoenzymes oflactate dehydrogenase are
usefulforthediagnosisof
(A) Heartdisease(B)Kidneydisease
(C)Liverdisease (D)Both(A)and(C)
515. IUB had divided enzymesinto how many
classes?
(A) 6 (B)5
(C)8 (D)4
516. The first enzyme isolated,purified and
crystallied from Jackbean (Canavalia)by
summerin1926was
(A) Urease (B)Insulin
(C)Ribonuclease (D)Zymase
2668
517. Who suggested that enzymes are
proteinaceous?
(A) Buchner(B)Kuhne
(C)Sumner (D)Pasteur
518. Feedback inhibition ofenzyme action is
affectedby
(A) Enzyme (B)Substrate
(C)Endproducts (D)Noneofthese
glucose-6-phosphateis
(A) Phosphatase(B)Hexokinase
(C)Phosphorylase (D)Glucosesynthetase
520. Enzymesarerequiredintracesbecausethey
(A) Havehighturnovernumber
(B) Remainunusedattheendofreaction
andarereused
(C) Showcascadeeffect
(D) Allcorrect
521. Anorganicsubstanceboundtoanenzyme
andessentialfortheactivityofenzymeis
called
(A) Holoenzyme (B)Apoenzyme
(C)Coenzyme (D)Isoenzyme
522. Enzymecatalysedreactionsoccurin
(A) Picoseconds(B)Microseconds
(C)Milliseconds (D)Noneofthese
2669
523. Anenzymecanaccelerateareactionupto
(A) 10
10
times (B)10
times
(C)10
100
times (D)10times
524. Inplants,enzymesoccurin
(A) Flowersonly (B)Leavesonly
(C)Alllivingcells (D)Storageorgansonly
525. Zymogenisa
(A)Vitamin (B) Enzyme
precursor
(C)Modulator (D)Hormone
526. Cofactor(Prosthetic group)is a partof
holoenzyme,itis
(A) Inorganicpartlooselyattached
(B) Accessory non-protein substance
attachedfirmlyENZYMES 167
(C) Organicpartattachedloosely
(D) Noneofthese
527. A protein having both structural and
enzymatictraitsis
(A) Myosin (B)Collagen
2670
(C)Trypsin (D)Actin
528. Enzymesaredifferentfromcatalystsin
(A) Beingproteinaceous
(B) Notusedupinreaction
(C) Functionalathightemperature
(D) Havinghighrateofdiffusion
529. Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are
commonin
(A) Beingproteinaceous
(B) Being synthesized in the body of
organisms
(C) Enhancingoxidativemetabolism
(D) Regulatingmetabolism
530. Dryseedsendurehighertemperaturethan
germinatingseedsas
(A) Hydration is essential for making
enzymessensitivetotemperature
(B) Dryseedshaveahardcovering
(C) Dryseedshavemorereservefood
(D) Seedlingsaretender
531. CoenzymesFMNandFADarederivedfrom
vitamin
(A) C (B)B6
(C)B1 (D)B2
532. Template/lock and key theory of
enzymeactionissupportedby
2671
(A) Enzymesspeedupreaction
(B) Enzymes occurin living beings and
speedupcertainreactions
(C) Enzymes determine the direction of
reaction
(D) Compoundssimilartosubstrateinhibit
enzymeactivity
533. Combinationofapoenzymeandcoenzyme
produces
(A) Prostheticgroup
(B) Holoenzyme
(C) Enzymesubstratecomplex
(D) Enzymeproductcomplex
534. Enzyme inhibition caused bya substance
resemblingsubstratemoleculeis
(C) Feedbackinhibition
(D) Allostericinhibition
535. Anenzymebringsabout
(A) Decreaseinreactiontime
(B) Increaseinreactiontime
(C) Increaseinactivationenergy
(D) Reductioninactivationenergy
536. Feedbackinhibitionofenzymeisinfluenced
by
2672
(A) Enzyme (B)Externalfactors
(C)Endproduct (D)Substrate
537. Coenzymeis
(A) Oftenavitamin (B) Always an
inorganiccompound
(C)Alwaysaprotein(D)Oftenametal
538. Geneticengineeringrequiresenzyme:
(A) DNAase
(B) Amylase
(C) Lipase
(D) Restrictionendonuclease
539. Whichisnottrueaboutinorganiccatalysts
andenzymes?
(A) Theyarespecific
(B) Inorganic catalysts require specific
notneededbyenzymes
(C) TheyaresensitivetopH
(D) Theyspeed up the rate ofchemical
reaction
540. Key and lock hypothesis of enzyme
actionwasgivenby
(A) Fischer (B)Koshland
(C)Buchner (D)Kuhne
541. Anexampleoffeedbackinhibitionis
(A) Allosteric inhibition ofhexokinase by
glucose-
2673
6-phosphate1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
6 (B) Cyanideactiononcytochrome
(C) Sulpha drug on folicacid synthesizer
bacteria
(D) Reaction between succinic
dehydrogenaseandsuccinicacid
542. Feedbacktermrefersto
(A) Effect of substrate on rate of
enzymaticreaction
(B) Effectofendproductonratereaction
(C) Effectofenzymeconcentrationonrate
ofreaction
(D) Effectofexternalcompound on rate
ofreaction
543. Allostericinhibition
(A) Makesactivesiteunifitforsubstrate
(B) Controls excess formation and end
product
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
544. Theratioofenzymetosubstratemolecules
canbeaslowas
(A) 1:100,000 (B)1:500,000
(C)1:10,000 (D)1:1,000
545. VitaminB2iscomponentofcoenzyme:
2674
(A) Pyridoxalphosphate
(B) TPP
(C) NAD
(D) FMN/FAD
546. Km value of enzyme is substrate
concentrationat
(A) ½ Vmax (B)2Vmax
(C)½ Vmax (D)4Vmax
547. Part of enzyme which combines with
nonproteinparttoformfunctionalenzymeis
(A) Apoenzyme (B)Coenzyme
(C)Prostheticgroup (D)Noneofthese
548. WhogotNobelPrizein1978forworkingon
enzymes?
(A) Koshland(B)ArberandNathans
(C)NassandNass (D)H.G.Khorana
549. Siteofenzymesynthesisinacellis
(A) Ribosomes (B)RER
(C)Golgibodies (D)Allofthese
550. Thefruitwhenkeptisopen,tastesbitter
after2hoursbecauseof
(A) Lossofwaterfromjuice
(B) Decreasedconcentrationoffructosein
juice
(C) Fermentationbyyeast
(D) Contaminationbybacterialenzymes
2675
551. Hexokinase(Glucose+ATP→ Glucose-6–P
+ADP)belongstothecategory:
(A) Transferases(B)Lysases
(C)Oxidoreductases(D)Isomerases
552. Whichenzymeisconcernedwithtransferof
electrons?
(A) Desmolase (B)Hydrolase
(C)Dehydrogenase (D)Transaminase
553. Thebestexampleofextracellularenzymes
(exoenzyme)is
(A) Nucleases
(B) Digestiveenzymes
(C) Succinicdehydrogenase
(D) Noneofthese
554. Whichmineralelementcontrolstheactivity
ofNitratereductase?
(A) Fe (B)Mo
(C)Zn (D)Ca
555. Name the enzyme that acts both as
carboxylaseatonetimeandoxygenaseat
anothertime.
(A) PEPcarboxylase
(B) RuBPcarboxylase
(C) Carbonicanyhdrase
(D) Noneofthese
556. Ametabolicpathwaysisa
2676
(A) Routetakenbychemicals
(B) Sequence of enzyme facilitated
chemicalreactions
(C) Routetaken byan enzymefrom one
reactiontoanother
(D) Sequenceoforiginoforganicmolecules
557. Theenergyrequiredtostartanenzymatic
reactioniscalledENZYMES 169
(A) Chemicalenergy(B)Metabolicenergy
(C)Activationenergy(D)Potentialenergy
558. Outofthetotalenzymespresentinacell,a
mitochondrionalonehas
(A) 4% (B)70%
(C)95% (D)50%
559. Creatine phosphokinase isoenzyme is a
markerfor
(A) Kidneydisease
(B) Liverdisease
(C) Myocardialinfarction
(D) Noneofthese
560. Whichinactivatesanenzymebyoccupying
itsactivesite?
(A) Competitiveinhibitor
(B) Allostericinhibitor
(C) Non-competitiveinhibitor
(D) Allofthese
2677
561. Whichoneiscoenzyme?
(A) ATP (B)VitaminBandC
(C)CoQandCoA (D)Allofthese
562. Theactivesiteofanenzymeisformedby
(A) Rgroupofaminoacids
(B) NH2groupofaminoacids
(C) COgroupofaminoacids
(D) Sulphurbondswhichareexposed
563. Carbonicanhydraseenzymehasmaximum
turnovernumber(36million).Minimum turn
overnumberforanenzyme:
(A) DNApolymerase
(B) Lysozyme
(C) Penicillase
(D) Lactasedehydrogenase
564. Incell,digestiveenzymesarefoundmainlyin
(A) Vacuoles(B)Lysosomes
(C)Ribosomes (D)Lomasomes
565. Substrateconcentrationatwhichanenzyme
attainshalfitsmaximumvelocityis
(A) Thresholdvalue
(B) Michaelis-Mentonconstant
(C) Concentrationlevel
(D) Noneofthese
566. Whichenzymehydrolysesstarch?
(A) Invertase(B)Maltase
2678
(C)Sucrase (D)Diastase
567. Enzymes functional in cell or
mitochondriaare
(A) Endoenzymes(B)Exoenzymes
(C)Apoenzymes (D)Holoenzymes
568. Theenzymespresentinthemembraneof
mitochondriaare
(A) Flavoproteinsandcytochromes
(B) Fumaraseandlipase
(C) Enolaseandcatalase
(D) Hexokinaseandzymase
569. Amitochondrialmarkerenzymeis
(A) Aldolase
(B) Amylase
(C) Succinicdehydrogenase
570. The enzyme used in polymerase chain
reaction(PCR)is
(A) Taqpolymerase (B)RNApolymerase
(C)Ribonuclease (D)Endonuclease
571. Which ofthe following is a microsomal
enzymeinducer?
(A) Indomethacin(B)Clofibrate
(C)Tolbutamide (D)Glutethamide
572. Identifythecorrectmoleculewhichcontrols
the biosynthesis of proteins in living
2679
organisms.
(A) DNA(B)RNA
(C)Purines (D)Pyrimidines
573. Thetearsecretioncontainsanantibacterial
enzymeknownas
(A) Zymase (B)Diastase
(C)Lysozyme (D)Lipase
574. Identify one of the canbonic anhydrase
inhibitorthatinhibitonlyluminalcarbonic
anhydraseenzyme.
(A) Methazolamide (B)Acetazolamide
(C)Dichlorphenamide(D)Benzolamide1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
5765. GrouptransferringCo-enzymeis
(A) CoA (B)NAD
(C)NADP
(D)FAD
576. The co-enzyme containing an automatic
heteroringinthestructureis
(A) Biotin (B)TPP
(C)SugarPhosphate(D)Co-enzyme
577. TheexampleofhydrogentransferringCo-
enzymeis:
2680
(A) B6-PO4 (B)NADP
(C)TPP (D)ATP
578. Enzyme catalyzed hydrolysis of proteins
producesaminoacidoftheform
(A) D (B)DL
(C)L (D)Racemic
579. TransaminaseactivityneedstheCoenzyme:
(A) ATP (B)B6-PO4
(C)FADT (D)NAD
580. Thebiosynthesisofureaoccursmainlyinthe
liver:
(A) Cytosol (B)Mitochondria
(C)Microsomes (D)Nuclei
581. Bilesaltsmakeemulsificationwithfatforthe
actionof
(A) Amylose(B)Lipase
(C)Pepsin (D)Trypsin
582. All of the following compounds are
intermediatesofTCAcycleexcept
(A) Maleate (B)Pyruvate
(C)Oxaloacetate (D)Fumarate
583. Inconversionoflacticacidtoglucose,three
reactions of glycolytic pathway are
circumvented, which of the following
2681
enzymesdonotparticipate?
(B) Phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase
(C) Pyruvatekinase
584. Inthenormalrestingstateofhumanmostof
thebloodglucoseburntasfuelisconsumed
by
(A) Liver(B)Brain
(C)Adiposetissue (D)Muscles
585. Aregulatoroftheenzymeglucogensynthase
is
(A) CitricAcid (B)Pyruvate
(C)Glucose-6-PO4 (D)GTP
dehydrogenaseis
(A)Arsenite (B)Malonate
(C)Citrate (D)Fluoride
ANSWERS
1.A2.B3.A4.D5.C6.D7.C8.A9.B10.D11.C12.D13.A14.B15.D16.A17.B18.C
19.B 20.D 21.A 22.A 23.B 24.B
25.D 26.B 27.A 28.A 29.A 30.B
31.C 32.A 33.B 34.C 35.A 36.B
37.A 38.B 39.D 40.C 41.D 42.A
43.A 44.B 45.C 46.A 47.D 48.B
49.C 50.B 51.B 52.A 53.A 54.C
2682
55.C 56.D 57.C 58.C 59.A 60.B
61.A 62.C 63.A 64.D 65.A 66.D
67.A 68.C 69.B 70.B 71.A 72.B
73.A 74.B 75.A 76.B 77.C 78.C
79.A 80.A 81.C 82.C 83.B 84.D
85.B 86.B 87.D 88.D 89.D 90.A
91.A 92.A 93.A 94.B 95.A 96.B97.A 98.A 99.A 100.A 101.AENZYMES 171
102.B103.A104.C 105.A 106.D 107.B 108.A
109.D 110.C 111.B 112.B 113.D 114.A
115.B 116.A 117.B 118.C 119.B 120.C
121.A 122.C 123.C 124.D 125.A 126.A
127.B 128.B 129.B 130.B 131.C 132.A
133.D 134.A 135.B 136.B 137.A 138.B
139.B140.C141.D142.B143.A144.B145.B146.A147.A148.C149.A150.A
151.B 152.B 153.D 154.A 155.A 156.D
157.A 158.A 159.A 160.A 161.A 162.A
163.B 164.A 165.A 166.B 167.B 168.C
169.A170.D171.D172.A173.C174.B175.B176.A177.C178.A179.D180.B181.
D182.B
183.D184.C185.C186.A187.D188.C189.A190.A191.C192.C193.A194.C195.A
196.A
197.B198.B199.B200.A201.D202.C203.D204.D
205.B206.A 207.D 208.A 209.A 210.D211.A212.A 213.D 214.D 215.A 216.A
217.A218.A 219.D 220.D 221.C 222.C
223.B224.D 225.A 226.A 227.B 228.B229.D230.A 231.B 232.D 233.A 234.A
235.D236.B237.A238.C239.B240.C241.B242.A243.B244.A245.A246.A247.
A248.A
2683
249.A250.C251.B252.C253.B254.D255.C256.D257.A258.B259.D260.C261.B
262.C
263.A264.D265.A266.B267.C268.A269.B270.C
271.C272.A273.D274.A275.B276.C277.B278.C279.B280.D281.C282.B
283.B284.D285.C286.D287.C288.A289.C290.D291.C292.B293.C294.D
295.D 296.B 297.D 298.C 299.B 300.B
301.B302.D303.D304.A305.B306.D307.C308.B309.C310.D311.A312.C
313.D 314.B 315.B 316.C 317.C 318.B
319.B320.A321.D322.A323.A324.B325.C326.C327.A328.D329.B330.A331.C
332.C
333.C334.C335.D336.A337.A338.D339.C340.D341.C342.C343.C344.A345.D
346.C
347.C348.C349.C350.C351.C352.C353.C354.B
355.C356.A357.C358.A359.D360.D361.D362.B363.A364.D365.C366.A367.
D368.A
369.D370.D371.C372.B373.C374.A375.C376.A377.B378.B
379.C 380.B 381.C 382.B 383.B 384.D
385.B386.C387.D388.C389.D390.C391.D392.C393.C394.A395.D396.D397.C
398.C
399.B400.C401.D402.B403.C404.B405.D406.D407.A408.C409.C410.D411.B
412.B
413.B414.D415.A416.C417.D418.D419.C420.C
421.B 422.D 423.A 424.B 425.D 426.B
427.B428.D429.D430.C431.D432.B433.C434.A435.D436.B437.A438.B439.
D440.B
441.A442.A443.B444.C445.A446.A447.B448.B449.B450.D451.B452.C453.C
454.A
455.D456.A
2684
457.D 458.B 459.C 460.D 461.B 462.C
463.B464.D465.B466.D467.D468.D469.C470.B471.B472.D473.D474.C475.
D476.D
477.B478.B479.D480.A481.D482.B483.B484.C485.C486.C487.A488.A489.B
490.A
491.A492.D493.C494.B495.C496.A497.A498.D499.D500.D501.D502.C503.
C504.A
505.C 506.A 507.B 508.B 509.B 510.A511.B512.C 513.A 514.D 515.A
516.A517.C518.C 519.B 520.D 521.C 522.C523.A524.C 525.B 526.B 527.A
528.A529.D530.A 531.D 532.D 533.B 534.A535.D536.C 537.A 538.D 539.B
540.A541.A542.B 543.C 544.A 545.D 546.D547.C548.A 549.B 550.D 551.C1

MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2 552.A
553.C 554.A 555.B 556.B 557.C 558.B
559.C 560.A 561.D 562.A 563.B 564.B
565.B566.D 567.A 568.A 569.C 570.D571.D572.A 573.C 574.B 575.A 576.C
577.D578.C 579.B 580.B 581.B 582.B
583.B 584.B 585.C 586.BENZYMES 173
4.DThefunctionalunitofanenzymeisreferredto
asaholoenzyme.Itisoftenmadeupofan
apoenzyme (the protein part) and a
coenzyme(thenon-proteinpart).
47.D Concentration ofenzyme,concentration of
substrate,temperature,pH,presence of
products,activatorsandinhibitorsaresome
2685
of the important factors that influence
enzymeactivity.
89.D Itisa straightline graphicrepresentation
depicting the relation between substrate
concentrationandenzymevelocity.Thisplot
iscommonlyemployedforthecalculationof
Kmvaluesforenzymes.
133.DActivesiteisthesmallregionofanenzyme
wheresubstratebinds.Itisflexibleinnature
anditexistsduetothetertiarystructureof
proteins.Acidic,basicandhydroxylamino
aicdsarefrequentlyfoundattheactivesite.
179.D Therearethreebroadcategoriesofenzyme
inhibition:
(a) Reversible inhibition:The inhibitorbinds
noncovalently with the enzyme and the
inhibition is reversible.Competitive,non-
competitiveanduncompetitivecomeunder
thiscategory.
(b) Irreversible inhibition: The inhibitor
covalentlybindswiththeenzymewhichis
irreversible.
(c) Allosteric inhibition: Certain enzymes
possessingallostericsitesareregulatedby
allostericeffectors.
219.D Enzymesarehighlyspecificintheiraction
2686
compared with chemicalcatalysts.Three
types of enzyme specificities are well-
recognized.
(a) Stereospecificity:Theenzymesactonlyon
one isomer and therefore exhibit
stereoisomerism.
e.g.,L-aminoacidoxidaseonL-aminoacids;
hexokinaseonD-hexose(Note:isomerases
donotexhibitstereospecificity).
(b) Reaction specificity:The same substrate
can undergo differenttypes ofreactions,
eachcatalysedbyaseparateenzymee.g.,
amino acids undergoing transamination,
decarboxylationetc.(c)Substratespecifity:
Thismaybeabsolute,relativeorbroade.g.,
urease,ligase,hexokinase.
260.D
(a) LockandKeymodel(Fischer’sTemplate
theory):Thesubstratefitstoactivesiteofan
enzymejustasakeyfitsintoaproperlock.
Thus,theactivesiteoftheenzymeisrigid
andpreshapedwhereonlyaspecific
substratecanbind.
(b) Inducedfittheory(Koshlandmodel):Asper
this,thesubstrateinducesaconformational
changeintheenzymeresultinginthe
2687
formationofsubstratebinding(active)site.
305.CSomeenzymesaresynthesizedinaninactive
form whicharereferredtoasproenzymes
(orzymogens).They undergo irreversible
modificationtoproduceactiveenzymes.e.g.,
proenzymes – chymotrypsinogen and
pepsinogen are respectively converted to
chymotrypsinandpepsin.
345.DTheRNAsthatcanfunctionasenzymesare
referred to as ribozymes.Theyare thus
nonproteinenzymes.ItisbelievedthatRNAs
were functioning as catalysts before the
occuranceofproteinsduringevolution.
391.DStreptokinaseisusedforclearingbloodclots.
Asparaginaseisemployedinthetreatment
ofleukemias.
438.B Certain enzymescan bemadeto bind to
insolubleinorganicmatrix(e.g.,cyanogens
bromideactivated sepharose)to preserve
theircatalyticactivityforlongperiods.Such
enzymes are referred to as immobilized
enzymes.
479.D Theseenzymesareeithertotallyabsentor
presentatalow concentrationinplasma
comparedtotheirlevelsfoundintissues.
Estimation of plasma non-functional
2688
enzymesisimportantforthediagnosisand
prognosisofseveraldiseases.
514.DLactatedehydrogenase(LDH)gasfivedistinct
isoenzymes(LDH1 …LDH5).Eachoneisan
oligomericproteincomposedof4subunits
(N and/orH).Isoenzymes ofLDH are
importantforthediagnosisofheartandliver
relateddisordersi.e.,serum LDH1iselevated
in myocardial infarction while LDH5 is
increasedinliverdiseases.
559.CCreatinekinase(CK)orcreatinephosphokinase
(CPK) exists as 3 isoenzymes. Each
isoenzymeisadimmercomposedoftwo
subunits(M orBorboth).ElevationofCPK2
(MB)inserum isanearlyreliablediagnostic
indicationofmyocardialinfarction. This page
intentionallyleft
blankCHAPTER7
MINERALMETABOLISM
2689
1. WhenATPformsAMP
(A) Inorganicpyrophosphateisproduced
(B) Inorganicphosphorousisproduced
(C) Phsophagenisproduced
(D) Noenergyisproduced
2. Standardfreeenergy(∆G°)ofhydrolysisof
ATPtoADP+Piis
(A) –49.3KJ/mol (B)–4.93KJ/mol
(C)–30.5KJ/mol (D)–20.9KJ/mol
ADPtoAMP+Piis
phosphoenolpyruvateis
creatinephosphateis
(A) -–51.4KJ/mol (B)–43.1KJ/mol
6. The oxidation-reduction system havingthe
highestredoxpotentialis
(A) Ubiquinoneox/red
(B) Fe
3+
2690
cytochromea/Fe
2+
(C) Fe
3+
cytochromeb/Fe
2+
(D) NAD
/NADH
7. If∆G°=–2.3RTlogKeq,thefreeenergyfor
thereactionwillbe
(A) +B C
10moles10moles 10moles
(A)–4.6RT (B)–2.3RT
(C)+2.3RT (D)+4.6RT
8. Redoxpotential(EOvolts)ofNAD
/NADHis
(A) –0.67 (B)–0.32
(C)–0.12 (D)+0.03
9. Redox potential(EO volts)ofubiquinone,
ox/redsystemis
(A) +0.03 (B)+0.08
(C)+0.10 (D)+0.29
10. Redoxpotential(EO volts)ofcytochromeC,
Fe
3+
2691
/Fe
2+
is
(A) –0.29 (B)–0.27
(C)–0.08 (D)+0.22
11. The prosthetic group of aerobic
dehydrogenasesis
(A) NAD (B)NADP
(C)FAD (D)Pantothenicacid
12. Alcoholdehydrogenasefromlivercontains
(A)Sodium (B)Copper
(C)Zinc (D)Magnesium
13. Amolybdenumcontainingoxidaseis
(B) Xanthineoxidase
(C) Glucoseoxidase
(D) L-Aminoacidoxidase
14. Acoppercontainingoxidaseis
(B) Flavinmononucleotide1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
6 (C) Flavinadeninedinucleotide
(D) Xanthineoxidase
15. The mitochondrial superoxide
dismutasecontains
(A) Mg
2692
++
(B)Mn
++
(C)Co
++
(D)Zn
++
16. Cytosolicsuperoxidedismutasecontains
(A) Cu
2+
andZn
2+
(B)Mn
2+
(C)Mn
2+
andZn
2+
(D)Cu
2+
andFe
2+
17. Cytochromeoxidasecontains
(A) Cu
2+
andZn
2+
(B)Cu
2+
andFe
2693
2+
(C)Cu
2+
andMn
2+
(D)Cu
2+
18. Characteristicabsorptionbandsexhibitedby
ferrocytochrome:
(A) αband (B)βband
(C)αandβbands (D)α,βandγbands
19. Monooxygenasesarefoundin
(A) Cytosol(B)Nucleus
(C)Mitochondira (D)Microsomes
20. A component of the respiratory chain
inmitochondriais
(A) CoenzymeQ
(B) CoenzymeA
(C) Acetylcoenzyme
(D) Coenzymecontainingthiamin
21. Theredoxcarriersaregroupedintorespiratory
chaincomplex
(A) In the inner mitochondrial
membrane(B)Inmitochondiralmatrix
(C) Ontheoutermitochondrialmembrane
(D) On the inner surface of outer
2694
22. The sequence of the redox carrier
inrespiratorychainis
(A) NAD—FMN—Q—cyt b—cyt c1—cyt
c—cytaa3 → O2
(B) FMN—Q—NAD—cytb—cytaa3—cytc1—
cytc → O2
(C) NAD—FMN—Q—cyt c1—cyt c—cyt
b—cytaa3 → O2
(D) NAD—FMN—Q—cyt b—cyt aa3—cyt
c—cytc1 → O2
23. Thecorrectsequenceofcytochromecarriers
inrespiratorychainis
(A) Cytb—cytc—cytc1—cytaa3
(B) Cytaa3—cytb—cytc—cytc1
(C) Cytb—cytc1—cytc—cytaa3
(D) Cytb—cytaa3—cytc1—cytc
24. Reducingequivalentsfrom pyruvateenterthe
mitochondrialrespiratorychainat
(A) FMN (B)NAD
(C)CoenzymeQ (D)Cytb
25. Reducingequivalentsfromsuccinateenterthe
mitochondrialrespiratorychainat
(A) NAD (B)CoenzymeQ
(C)FAD (D)Cytc
26. The respiratory chain complexes acting
asprotonpumpare
2695
(A) I,IIandIII (B)I,IIandIV
(C)I,IIIandIV (D)IandII
27. Ifthereducingequivalentsenterfrom FADin
therespiratorychain,thephosphate.oxygen
ration(P:O)is
(A) 2 (B)1
(C)3 (D)4
28. IfthereducingequivalentsenterfromNADin
therespiratorychain,thephsphate/oxygen
(P:O)is
(A)1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4MINERALMETABOLISM 177
29. One of the site of phsosphorylation
inmitochondrialrespiratorychainis
(A) BetweenFMNandcoenzymeQ
(B) BetweencoenzymeQandcytb
(C) Between cytochrome b and
cytochromec1
(D) Between cytochrome c1 and
cytochromec
30. Rotenoneinhibitstherespiratorychainat
(A) FMN→ coenzymeQ(B)NAD→ FMN
(C) CoenzymeQ→ cytb
(D) Cytb→ Cytc1
31. Activityofcytochromeoxidaseisinhibitedby
(A) Sulphite(B)Sulphate
2696
(C)Arsenite (D)Cyanide
32. Transfer of reducing equivalents
fromsuccinatedehydrogenasetocoenzymeQ
isspecificallyinhibitedby
(A) Carboxin (B)Oligomycin
(C)PiericidinA (D)Rotenone
33. Chemiosmotic theory for
oxidativephosphorylationhasbeenproposed
by
(A) ChanceandWilliams
(B) PaulingandCorey
(C) S.Waugh
(D) P.Mitchell
34. ThenumberofATPproducedintheoxidation
of 1 molecule of NADPH in oxidative
phosphorylationis
(A) Zero (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
35. Thecouplingofoxidationandphosphorylation
inintactmitochondria:
(A) Puromycin (B)Oligomycin
(C)Streptomycin (D)Gentamycin
36. Anuncouplerofoxidativephosphorylationis
(A) Carboxin (B)Atractyloside
(C)Amobarbital (D)Dinitrocresol
37. The chemical inhibiting oxidative
2697
phosphorylation,Adependentonthetransport
of adenine nucleotides across the inner
mitochondrialmembraneis
(A) Oligomycin (B)Atractyloside
(C)Dinitrophenol (D)Pentachlorophenol
38. Porphyrinsaresynthesizedin
(A) Cytosol
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Cytosolandmitochondria
(D) Roughendoplasmicreticulum
39. Hemeissynthesizedfrom
(A) Succinyl-CoAandglycine
(B) Activeacetateandglycine
(C) Activesuccinateandalanine
(D) Activeacetateandalanine
40. Inthebiosynthesisoftheironprotoporphyrin,
the productofthe condensation between
succinyl-CoAandglycineis
(A) α-Aminoβ-ketoadipicacid
(B) δ-Aminolevulinate
(C) Hydroxymethylbilane
(D) UroporphyrinogenI
41. Porphyrinsynthesisisinhibitedin
(A) Mercurypoisoning
(B) Leadpoisoning
(C) Manganesepoisoning
2698
(D) Bariumpoisoning
42. Duringsynthesisofporphyrins,synthesisofδ-
aminolevulinicacidoccursin
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Cytosol
(C) Bothinmitochondriaandcytosol
(D) Ribosomes
43. In the biosynthesis of heme,
condensationbetween succinyl CoA and
glycinerequires
(A) NAD
(B)FAD
(C)NADH+H
(D)B6-phosphate
44. Inmammalianlivertheratecontrollingenzyme
inporphyrinbiosynthesisis
(A) ALAsynthase1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 (B) ALAhydratase
(C) UroporphyrinogenIsynthase
(D) UroporphyrinogenIIIcosynthase
45. The condensation of 2 molecules ofδ-
aminolevulinatedehydratasecontains
(A) ALAsynthase
2699
(B) ALAhydratase
(C) UroporphyrinogensynthaseI
(D) UroporphyrinogensynthaseIII
46. The enzyme δ-aminolevulinate dehydratase
contains
(A) Zinc (B)Manganese
(C)Magnesium (D)Calcium
47. A cofactor required for the activity of
theenzymeALAdehydrataseis
(A) Cu(B)Mn
(C)Mg (D)Fe
48. Thenumberofmoleculesofporphobilinogen
requiredfortheformationofatetrapyrrolei.e.,
aporphyrinis
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
49. Conversion of the linear
tetrapyrrolehydroxymethylbilane to
uroporphyrinogenIII
(A) Occursspontaneously
(B) Catalysed by uroporphyrinogen I
synthase
(C) Catalysed by uroporphyrinogen III
cosynthase
(D) Catalysed by combined action of
uroporphyrinogen I synthase and
2700
uroporphyrinogenIIIcosynthase
50. Conversion of uroporphyrinogen III
tocoprophyrinogen IIIis catalysed by the
enzyme.:
(A) Uroporphyrinogendecarboxylase
(B) Coproporphyrinogenoxidase
(C) Protoporphyrinogenoxidase
(D) Ferrochelatase
51. Thesynthesisofhemefrom protophyrinIIIis
catalysedbytheenzyme:
(A) ALAsynthase (B)Ferroreductase
(C)Ferrooxidase (D)Ferrochelatase
52. Manyxenobiotics
(A) IncreasehepaticALAsynthase
(B) DecreasehepaticALAsythase
(C) IncreasehepaticALAdehydrase
(D) DecreasehepaticALAdehydrase
53. Acute intermittent porphyria
(paraoxymalporphyria) is caused due to
deficiencyof
(A) Uroporphyrinogen Isynthase(B)ALA
synthase
(C) Coproporphyrinogenoxidase
(D) Uroporphyrinogendecarboxylase
54. The major symptom of acute
intermittentporphyriaincludes
2701
(A) Abdominalpain
(B) Photosensitivity
(C) Noneuropsychiatricsigns
(D) Dermatitis
55. The characteristic urinary finding in
acuteintermittentporphyriais
(A) Increasedquantityofuroporphyrin
(B) IncreasedquantityofcoproporphyrinI
(C) IncreasedquantityofcoproporphyrinIII
(D) Massivequantitiesofporphobilinogen
56. The enzyme involved in congenial
erythropoieticporphyriais
(A) UroporphyrinogenIsynthase
(B) UroporphyrinogenIIIcosynthase
(D) Ferrochelatase
57. Mainsymptomsofcongenitalerythropoietic
porphyriais
(A) Yellowishteeth (B)Photosensitivity
(C)Abdominalpain (D)Brownishurine
58. Theprobablecauseofporphyriacutaneatarda
isdeficiencyof
(A) Uroporphyrinogenoxidase
(D) UroporphyrinogenIsynthaseMINERALMETABOLISM 179
2702
59. Thecharacteristicurinaryfindinginporphyria
cutaneatardais
(A) Increasedquantityofporphobilinogen
(B) Increased quantity of red cell
protoporphyrin
(C) Increasedquantityofuroporphyrin
(D) Increasedquantityofδ-ALA
60. Hereditary coproporphyria is caused dueto
deficiencyof
(A) Protoporphyrinogenoxidase
(B) ALAsynthase
(C) ALAdehydratase
(D) Coproporphyrinogenoxidase
61. Theenzymeinvolvedinvariegateporphyriais
(A) Protoporphyrinogenoxidase
(C) Uroporphyrinogendecarboxylase
(D) ALAdecarboxylase
62. Protoporphyria (erythrohepatic) is
characterizedbythedeficiencyof
(A) ALAsynthase
(B) ALAhydratase
(C) Protophyrinogenoxidae
(D) Ferrochelatase
63. Theamountofcoproporphyrinsexcretedper
dayinfecesisabout
2703
(A) 10–50µgs (B)100–150µgs
(C)200–250µgs (D)300–1000µgs
64. The immunoglobulins are differentiatedand
alsonamedonthebasisof
(A) Electrophoreticmobility
(B) Heatstability
(C) Molecularweight
(D) Sedimentaitoncoefficientlike7S,19S
etc.
65. The immunoglobulins are classified on
thebasisof
(A) Lightchains
(B) Heavychains
(C) Carbohydratecontent
(D) Electrophoreticmobility
66. Allimmunoglobulinscontain
(A) 4Lchains
(B) 4Hchains
(C) 3Lchains
(D) 2Lchainsand2Hchains
67. Animmunoglobulinmoleculealwayscontains
(A) 1κand3λtypeofchains(B)2κand2
λtypeofchains
(C) 3κand1λtypeofchains
(D) 2κand2λchains
68.ThenumberoftypesofHchainsidentifiedin
2704
humanis
(A)2 (B)3
(C)4 (D)5
69. ThenumberofhypervariableregioninLchain
is
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
70. The number of hypervariable region in
Hchainis
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
71. TypeγHchainispresentin
(A) IgG(B)IgA
(C)IgM (D)IgD
72. TypeαHchainispresentin
(A) IgE(B)IgA
(C)IgM (D)IgD
73. TypeµHchainispresentin
(A) IgG(B)IgA
(C)IgM (D)IgD
74. TypeδHchainispresentin
(A) IgG(B)IgA
(C)IgM (D)IgD
75. TypeεHchainispresentin
(A) IgA(B)IgM
(C)IgD (D)IgE
2705
76. A‘J’chainispresentin
(A) IgD(B)IgM
(C)IgG (D)IgE
77. A secretory protein T chain (T protein)1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 ispresentin
(A) IgA(B)IgM
(C)IgD (D)IgE
78. Apentamerimmunoglobulinis
(A) IgG(B)IgA
(C)IgM (D)IgE
79. Theportionoftheimmunoglobulinmolecule
thatbindsthespecificantigenisformedby
(A) VariableregionsofHandLchains
(B) ConstantregionofHchain
(C) ConstantregionofLchain
(D) Hingeregion
80. The class specific function of the
differentimmunoglobulin molecules is
constitutedby
(A) VariableregionofLchain
(B) ConstantregionofHchain
(C) VariableregionofHchain
(D) ConstantregionparticularlyCH2andCH3
ofHchain
81. Hingeregion,theregionofIgmoleculewhich
2706
isflexibleandmoreexposedtoenzymesis
the
(A) Region between first and second
constantregionsofH chain (domains
CH1andCH2)
(B) Region between second and third
constantregionsofH chain(CH2 and
CH3)
(C) VariableregionsofHchain
(D) VariableregionsofLchain
82. Thesmallestimmunoglobulinis
(A) IgG(B)IgE
(C)IgD (D)IgA
83. ThenumberofsubclassesofIgGis
(A) 2 (B)3
(C)4 (D)8
84. MostabundantIgGsubclassintheserumis
(A)IgG1 (B)IgG2
(C)IgG3 (D)IgG4
85. The immunoglobulin which can cross
theplacentais
(A) IgA(B)IgM
(C)IgG (D)IgD
86. The immunoglobulin possessing
lowestconcentrationofcarbohydrateis
(A) IgA(B)IgE
2707
(C)IgM (D)IgG
87. ThenormalserumlevelofIgGis
(A) 1200mg% (B)500mg%
(C)300mg% (D)200mg%
88. ThehalflifeofIgGis
(C)19–24days (D)6days
89. Mostheatlabileimmunoglobulinis
(A) IgG(B)IgA
(C)IgM (D)IgD
90. The immunoglobulin possessing
highestconcentrationofcarbohydrateis
(A) IgG(B)IgM
(C)IgA (D)IgD
91. ThenormalserumlevelofIgDis
(A) 1mg% (B)2mg%
(C)3mg% (D)5mg%
92. ThehalflifeofIgDis
(A) 1day (B)2–8days
93. ThecarbohydratecontentofIgMisabout
(A) 2.8%(B)6.4%
(C)8.0% (D)10.2%
94. The immunoglobulin having
highestsedimentationcoefficientis
(A) IgG(B)IgA
2708
(C)IgM (D)IgD
95. The immunoglobulin having
highestmolecularweightis
(A) IgG(B)IgM
(C)IgE (D)IgA
96. ThehalflifeofIgMis
(A) 2days (B)4daysMINERALMETABOLISM 181
(C)5days (D)8days
97. ThenormalserumlevelofIgMis
(A) 50mg% (B)120mg%
(C)200mg% (D)300mg%
98. Theimmunoglobulinassociatedwithreginic
antibodyis
(A) IgE(B)IgD
(C)IgM (D)IgA
99. The immunoglobulin having least
concentrationinserumis
(A) IgA(B)IgM
(C)IgD (D)IgE
100. ThehalflifeofIgEproteinis
(C)10days (D)20days
101. Theimmunoglobulinwhichprovideshighest
antiviralactivityis
(A) IgD(B)IgE
(C)IgA (D)IgG
2709
102. ThehalflifeofIgAis
(A) 6days (B)2–4days
103. ThenormalserumlevelofIgAis
(A) 100mg%(B)200mg%
(C)300mg% (D)400mg%
104. Calciumisexcretedby
(A) Kidney
(B) Kidneyandintestine
(C) Kidneyandliver
(D) Kidneyandpancreas
105. A decrease in the ionized fraction of
serumcalciumcauses
(A) Tetany (B)Rickets
(C)Osteomalacia (D)Osteoporosis
106. Ariseinbloodcalciummayindicate
(A) Paget’sdisease (B)Rickets
(C)Osteomalacia (D)HypervitaminosisD
107. Thenormalserum levelofphosphorusin
humanadultis
(A) 1–2mg (B)2–3mg
(C)3–4.5mg (D)5–7mg
108. An increasein carbohydratemetabolismis
accompanied by temporary decrease in
serum:
(A) Calcium (B)Phosphate
2710
(C)Iron (D)Sodium
109. In rickets of the common low-
phosphatevariety,serum phosphatevalues
maygoaslowas
(A) 1–2mg/100ml (B)2–3mg/100ml
(C)3–4mg/100ml (D)4–5mg/100ml
110. Thenormalserum levelofphosphorousin
childrenvariesfrom
(A) 1–2mg/100ml (B)2–3mg/100ml
(C)3–4mg/100ml (D)4–7mg/100ml
111. Aninheritedoracquiredrenaltubulardefect
in the reabsorption ofphosphate (VitD
resistantricket)ischaracterizedwith
(A) NormalserumPhosphate
(B) Highserumphosphate
(C) A low blood phosphorous with
elevatedalkalinePhosphate
(D) A high blood phosphorous with
decreasedalkalinephosphatase
112. The totalmagnesium contentin gms of
humanbodyisabout
(A) 5 (B)10
(C)15 (D)21
113. Ironisacomponentof
(A) Hemoglobin (B)Ceruloplasmin
(C)Transferase (D)Transaminase
2711
114. Dailyrequirementofironfornormaladult
maleisabout
(A) 5mg (B)10mg
(C)15mg (D)20mg
115. Thenormalcontentofproteinboundiron
(PBI)intheplasmaofmalesis
(A) 120–140µg/100ml
(B) 200–300µg/100ml
(C) 120–140µg/100ml1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 (D) 200–300µg/100ml
116. Inirondeficiencyanemia
(A) Theplasmaboundironislow
(B) Theplasmaboundironishigh
(C) Totalironbindingcapacityislow
(D) Boththeplasmaboundironandtotal
ironbindingcapacityarelow
117. Thetotalironcontentofthehumanbodyis
(A) 400–500mg(B)1–2g
(C)2–3g (D)4–5g
118. Inhepaticdiseases
(A) Both the bound iron and totaliron
bindingcapacityoftheplasmamaybe
low
(B) Both the bound iron and totaliron
bindingcapacityoftheplasmamaybe
2712
high
(C) Onlyboundironmaybehigh
(D) Onlythetotalironbindingcapacitymay
behigh
119. Therecommendeddailyrequirementofiron
forwomenof18–55yrsageis
(A) 5mg (B)8mg
(C)10mg (D)15mg
120. The percent of total iron in body in
hemoglobinis
(A) 10–20 (B)20–30
(C)30–40 (D)60–70
121. A hypochromic microcytic anemia
withincreasedironstoresinthebonemarrow
maybe
(A) Ironresponsive
(B) Pyridoxineresponsive
(C) VitaminB12responsive
(D) Folateresponsive
122. Agoodsourceofironis
(A) Spinach (B)Milk
(C)Tomato (D)Potato
123. Thebestsourceofironis
(A) Organmeats(B)Milk
(C)Tomato (D)Potato
124. Anincreasedserum ironanddecreasediron
2713
bindingcapacityisfoundin
(A) Fe deficiencyanemia(B)Sideroblastic
anemia
(C) Folatedeficiencyanemia
(D) Sicklecellanemia
125. Theabsorptionofironisincreased 2–10
timesofnormalin
(A) Irondeficiencyanemia
(B) Pregnancy
(C) Spherocytosis
(D) Sicklecellanemia
126. Ironismainlyabsorbedfrom
(A) Stomachandduodenum
(B) Ileum
(C) Caecum
(D) Colon
127. Theironcontainingnonporphyrinis
(A) Hemosiderin(B)Catalase
(C)CytochromeC (D)Peroxidase
128. Molecularironis
(A) Storedprimarilyinthespleen
(B) ExretedintheurineasFe
2+
(C) Storedinthebodyincombinationwith
ferritin(D)Absorbedintheferricform
129. In hemochromatosis, the liver is
2714
infiltratedwith
(A) Iron(B)Copper
(C)Molybdenum (D)Fats
130. Anacquiredsiderosis-Bantusiderosisisdue
to
(A) Foodscookedinironpots
(B) Diethighinphosphorous
(C) Diethighincalcium
(D) Highfatdiet
131. Theamountofcopperinthehumanbodyis
(A) 50–80mg (B)100–150mg
(C)400–500mg (D)500–1000mg
132. Theamountofcopperinmusclesisabout
(A) 10mg (B)30mg
(C)64mg (D)100mgMINERALMETABOLISM 183
133. Theamountofcopperinbonesisabout
(A) 5mg (B)10mg
(C)15mg (D)23mg
134. The normalserum of concentration of
copperinmg/100mlvariesbetween
(A) 0–5(B)50–100
(C)100–200 (D)200–300
ceruloplasmininmg/100mlvariesbetween
(A) 5–10 (B)10–20
(C)25–43 (D)50–100
2715
136. Recommendeddailydietaryrequirementof
copperforadultsis
(A) 0.5–1mg (B)1.5–3.0mg
(C)3.5–4.5mg (D)4.5–5.5mg
137. Therichestsourceofcopperis
(A) Liver
(B) Milk
(C) Legumes
(D) Greenleafyvegetables
138. Thecytosolicsuperoxidedismutaseenzyme
contains
(A) Cu
2+
(B)Cu
2+
andZn
2+
(C)Zn
2+
(D)Mn
2+
139. The deficiency ofcopperdecreases the
(A) Lysineoxidase (B) Lysine
hydroxylase
(C)Tyrosineoxidase (D)Prolinehydroxylase
140. Wilson’sdiseaseisaconditionoftoxicosisof
2716
(A) Iron(B)Copper
(C)Chromium (D)Molybdenum
141. InWilson’sdisease
(A) Copperfailstobeexcretedinthebile
(B) Copperlevelinplasmaisdecreased
(C) Ceruloplasminlevelisincreased
(D) Intestinal absorption of copper is
decreased
142. Menke’sdiseaseisduetoanabnormalityin
themetabolismof
(A) Iron(B)Manganese
(C)Magnesium (D)Copper
143. Menke’sdisease(Kinkyorsteelhairdisease)
isaX-linkeddiseasecharacterizedby
(A) Highlevelsofplasmacopper
(B) Highlevelsofceruloplasmin
(C) Low levelsofplasmacopperand of
ceuloplasmin
(D) Highlevelofhepaticcopper
144. The trace elementcatalyzing hemoglobin
synthesisis
(A) Manganese (B)Magnesium
(C)Copper (D)Selenium
145. The totalbodycontentofmanganese is
about
(A) 2mg (B)4mg
2717
(C)8mg (D)10mg
146. Inbloodthevaluesofmanganeseinµg/
100mlvariesbetween
(A) 0–4(B)2–4
(C)3–5 (D)4–20
147. Theadequatedailydietaryrequirementof
manganeseis
(A) 1–2mg (B)2–5mg
(C)5–10mg (D)10–20mg
148. Mitochondrial superoxide dismutase
contains
(A) Zinc(B)Copper
(C)Magnesium (D)Manganese
149. Mitochondrialpyruvatecarboxylasecontains
(A) Zinc(B)Zinc
(C)Manganese (D)Magnesium
150. Theadequatedailydietaryrequirementof
molybdenumfornormalhumanadult
is
(A) 10–20µg (B)25–50µg
(C)50–70µg (D)75–200µg
151. In human beings molybdenum is
mainlyabsorbedfrom
(A) Liver(B)Kidney
(C)Intestine (D)Pancreas1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2718
1582. In human beings molybdenum is
mainlyexcretedin
(A) Feces (B)Sweat
(C)Urine (D)Tears
153. Molybdenumisaconstituentof
(A) Hydroxylases(B)Oxidases
(C)Transaminases (D)Transferases
154. Safeand adequatedailydietaryintakeof
chromiuminadultsinmgis
(A) 0.01–0.02 (B)0.02–0.03
(C)0.03–0.04 (D)0.05–0.2
155. Richestsourceofchromiumis
(A) Brewer’syease
(B) Milkandmilkproducts
(C) Yellowvegetables
(D) Greenvegetables
156. Metallicconstituentof“Glucose tolerance
factor”is
(A) Sulphur (B)Cobalt
(C)Chromium (D)Selenium
157. Intestinalabsorptionofchromium isshared
with
(A) Mn (B)Mg
(C)Ca (D)Zn
158. Serum levelofchromium inhealthyadultis
about
2719
(A) 2-5µg/100ml (B)6-20µg/100ml
(C)30-60µg/100ml(D)50-100µg/100ml
159. Chromiumispotentiatorof
(C)Thyroxine (D)Parathromone
160. Recommended daily dietary allowance of
seleniumforadulthumaninµgis
(A) 20 (B)40
(C)50 (D)70
161. Totalbodycontentofseleniumisabout
(A) 1–2mg (B)2–4mg
(C)4–10mg (D)50–100mg
162. Normalserumlevelofseleniumis
(A) 5µg/100ml(B)8µg/100ml
(C)10µg/100ml (D)13µg/100ml
163. Seleniumisaconstituentoftheenzyme:
(A) Glutathioneperoxidase
(B) Homogentisateoxidase
(C) Tyrosinehydroxylase
(D) Phenylalaninhydroxylase
164. Anonspecificintracellularantioxidantis
(A) Chromium (B)Magnesium
(C)Selenium (D)Nickel
165. Cobaltformsanintegralpartofthevitamin:
(A) B1 (B)B6
(C)B12 (D)Folate
2720
166. Cobaltmayactascofactorfortheenzyme:
(A) Glycl-glycinedipeptidase
(B) Elastase
(C) Polynucleotidases
(D) Phosphatase
167. Excessintakeofcobaltforlongerperiods
leadsto
(A) Polycythemia
(B) Megaloblasticanemia
(D) Microcyticanemia
168. Thetotalsulphurcontentofthebodyis
(A) 25–50gm (B)50–75gm
(C)100–125gm (D)150–200gm
169. Sulphurismadeavailabletothebodybythe
aminoacids:
(A) Cystineandmethionine
(B) Taurineandalanine
(C) Prolineandhydroxyproline
(D) Arginineandlysine
170. Sulphurcontainingcoenzymeis
(A) NAD
(B) FAD
(D) Biotin
171. Iodineisstoredin
2721
(A) ThyroidglandasthyroglobulinMINERALMETABOLISM 185
(B) Liver
(C) Intestine
(D) Skin
172. Iodineistheconstituentof
(A) T3andT4(B)PTH
(C)Insulin (D)Adrenaline
173. Goitrogenicsubstancepresentincabbageis
(A) 5-vinyl-2thiooxalzolidone
(B) Pyridine-3-carboxylicacid
(C) 3-Hydroxy-4, 5-dihydroxymethyl1–2-
methylpyridine
(D) δ-ALAdehydratase
174. Foranadultmaledailyrequirementofiodine
is
(A) 25–50µg (B)50–100µg
(C)100–150µg (D)200–250µg
175. Recommendeddailyintakeoffluoridefora
normaladultis
(A) 1.5–4.0mg (B)0–1mg
(C)5–10mg (D)10–20mg
176. Thepercentageoffluoridepresentinnormal
boneis
(A) 0.01–0.03 (B)0.04–0.08
(C)0.10–0.12 (D)0.15–0.2
177. Thepercentageoffluoridepresentindental
2722
enamelis
(A) 0.01–0.02 (B)0.05–0.10
(C)0.15–0.20 (D)0.20–0.40
178. Fluorosisoccursdueto
(A) Drinkingwatercontaininglessthan0.2
ppmoffluorine
(B) Drinkingwatercontaininghighcalcium
(C) Drinkingwatercontaininggreaterthan
1.2ppmoffluroine
(D) Drinkingwatercontainingheavymetals
179. Dentalcariesoccurdueto
(A) Drinkingwatercontaininglessthan0.2
ppmoffluorine
(B) Drinkingwatercontaininggreaterthan
1.2ppmoffluorine
(C) Drinkingwatercontaininghighcalcium
(D) Drinkingwatercontainingheavymetals
180. Totalzinccontentofhumanbodyisabout
(A) 800mg (B)1200mg
(C)2000mg (D)3200mg
181. Metalrequiredforpolymerizationofinsulinis
(A) Copper (B)Chromium
(C)Cobalt (D)Zinc
182. Metalloenzyme-retinene forpolymerization
ofinsulinis
(A) Copper (B)Zinc
2723
(C)Cobalt (D)Manganese
183. Animportantzinccontainingenzymeis
(A) CarboxypeptidaseA
(C) Cholinesterate
(D) Lipoproteinlipase
184. Acrodermatitis enteropathica is due to
defectiveabsorptionof
(A) Manganese (B)Molybdenum
(C)Iodine (D)Zinc
185. Hypogonadismdevelopsduetodeficiencyof
(A) Sulphur (B)Cobalt
(C)Zinc (D)Manganese
186. Psychoticsymptomsandparkinsonism like
symptoms develop due to inhalation
poisoningof
(A) Manganese (B)Phosphorous
(C)Magnesium (D)Zinc
187. One gram ofcarbohydrate on complete
oxidationinthebodyyieldsabout
(A) 1Kcal (B)4Kcal(C)6Kcal (D) 9
Kcal188.Onegram offatoncomplete
oxidationinthebodyyieldsabout
(A)4Kcal (B)6Kcal
(C)9Kcal (D)12Kcal
189. Onegram ofproteinoncompleteoxidation
2724
inthebodyyieldsabout
(A) 2Kcal (B)4Kcal
(C)8Kcal (D)12Kcal
190. R.Q.ofmixeddietisabout
(A) 0.70(B)0.801 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 (C)0.85 (D)1.0
191. R.Q.ofproteinsisabout
(A) 0.70(B)0.75
(C)0.80 (D)0.85
192. R.Q.ofcarbohydratesisabout
(A) 0.75(B)0.80
(C)0.85 (D)1.0
193. R.Q.offatsisabout
(A) 0.75(B)0.80
(C)0.85 (D)1.0
194. ProteinshavetheSDA:
(A) 5% (B)10%
(C)20% (D)30%
195. Humansmosteasilytoleratealackofthe
nutrient:
(A) Protein (B)Lipid
(C)Iodine (D)Carbohydrate
196. The basal metabolic rate (B.M.R.) is
measurementof
(A) Energyexpenditureduringsleep
2725
(B) Energyexpenditureafter100mwalk
(C) Energyexpenditureafterameal
(D) Energyexpenditureundercertainbasal
(Standard)conditions
197. B.M.R.israisedin
(A) Polycythemia(B)Starvation
(C)Lipidnephrosis (D)Hypothyroidism
198. B.M.R.isloweredin
(A) Hypothyroidism (B)Leukemia
(C)Cardiacfailure (D)Hyperthyroidism
199. B.M.R.issubnormalin
(A) Addison’sdisease
(B) Adrenaltumour
(C) Cushing’ssyndrome
(D) Fever
200. A healthy 70 kg man eats a well
balanceddietcontainingadequatecalories
and62.5gofhighqualityproteinperday.
Measured ingramsofnitrogen,hisdaily
nitrogenbalancewouldbe
(A) +10g (B)+6.25g
(C)0g (D)–6.25g
201. The percentage of nitrogen retained in
thebodyafterabsorptionofdietrepresents
(A) Digestibilitycoefficientofproteins
(B) Biologicalvalueofproteins
2726
(C) Proteinefficiencyratio
(D) Netproteinutilisation
202. Inapersonincreaseinweightingmspergm
ofproteinconsumptionrepresents
(A) Proteinefficiencyratio
(B) Digestibilityvalueofproteins
(C) Biologicalvalueofproteins
203. The percentage offood nitrogen thatis
retainedinthebodyrepresents
(A) Digestibilitycoefficient
(B) Biologicalvalueofproteins
(C) Proteinefficiencyratio
204. Thechemicalscoreofdifferentproteinsis
calculatedintermsof
(A) Eggproteins (B)Milkproteins
(C)Fishproteins (D)Wheatproteins
205. Biologicalvalueofeggproteinis
(A) 94 (B)60
(C)51 (D)40
206. Biologicalvalueofproteinofcow’smilkis
(A) 95 (B)60
(C)71 (D)67
207. Biologicalvalueofsoyabeanproteinis
(A) 86 (B)71
2727
(C)64 (D)54
208. Plasmabicarbonateisdecreasedin
(A) Respiratory alkalosis(B) Respiratory
acidosis
(C) Metabolicalkalosis
(D) Metabolicacidosis
209. Plasmabicarbonateisincreasedin
(A) Respiratory alkalosis(B) Metabolic
alkalosis
(C) RespiratoryacidosisMINERALMETABOLISM 187
(D) Metabolicacidosis
210. TotalCO2isincreasedin
(A) Respiratoryacidosis
(B) Metabolicalkalosis
(C) Both respiratory acidosis and
metabolicalkalosis
(D) Respiratoryalkalosis
211. Respiratoryacidosisiscausedby
(A) Increase in carbonic acid relative
tobicarbonate
(B) Decreaseinbicarbonatefraction
(C) Increaseinbicarbonatefraction
(E)Decreaseinthecarbonicacidfraction
212. Respiratoryalkalosisiscausedby
(A) Anincreaseincarbonicacidfraction
(B) Adecreaseinbicarbonicfraction
2728
(C) Adecreaseinthecarbonicacidfraction
(D) Anincreaseinbicarbonatefraction
213. Meningitisandencephalitiscause
(A) Metabolicalkalosis
(B) Respiratoryalkalosis
(C) Metabolicacidosis
(D) Respiratoryacidosis
214. Metabolicacidosisiscausedin
(A) Uncontrolleddiabeteswithketosis
(B) Pneumonia
(C) IntestinalObstruction
(D) Hepaticcoma
215. Metabolicacidosisiscausedin
(A) Pneumonia
(B) Prolongedstarvation
(C) Intestinalobstruction
(D) Bulbarpolio
216. Respiratoryacidosisoccursin
(A) Anydiseasewhichimpairsrespiration
likeemphysema
(B) Renaldisease
(C) Poisoningbyanacid
(D) Pyloricstenosis
217. Metabolicalkalosisoccurs
(A) As consequence of high intestinal
obstruction
2729
(B) Incentralnervoussystemdisease
(C) Indiarrhoea
(D) Incolitis
218. Respiratoryalkalosisoccursin
(A) Hystericalhyperventilation
(B) Depressionofrespiratorycentre
(C) Renaldiseases
(D) Lossofintestinalfluids
219. Morphinepoisoningcauses
(A) Metabolicacidosis
(B) Respiratoryacidosis
220. Salicylatepoisoninginearlystagescauses
(A) Metabolicacidosis
(B) Respiratoryacidosis
221. The compound having the lowest
redoxpotentialamongstthefollowingis
(A) Hydrogen(B)NAD
(C)Cytochromeb (D)Cytochromea
222. Alltheoxidasescontainametalwhichis
(A) Copper (B)FAD
(C)Manganese (D)Noneofthese
223. Isocitratedehydrogenasesis
2730
(A) Aerobicdehydrogenase
(B) Anaerobicdehydrogenase
(C) Hydroperoxidase
(D) Oxygenase
224. Iron-pophyrinispresentasprostheticgroup
in
(A) Cytochromes(B)Catalases
(C)Peroxidase (D)Noneofthese
225. Microsomalhydroxylasesystemcontainsa
(A) Di-oxygenase(B)Mono-oxygenase
(C)Both(A)and(B) (D)Noneofthse
226. Superoxideradicalscanbedetoxifiedby
(A) Cytochromec(B)Cytochromeb1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 (C)Cytochromea (D)Noneofthese
227. Acoppercontainingcytochromeis
(A) Cytochromea(B)CytochromeP-450
(C)Cytochromea3 (D)Noneofthese
228. Rateoftissuerespirationisraisedwhenthe
intracellularconcentrationof
(A) ADPincreases (B)ATPincreases
(C)ADPdecreases (D)Noneofthese
229. Which of the following component of
respiratorychainisnotattachedtotheinner
mitochondrialmembrane?
(A) CoenzymeQ (B)Cytochromec
2731
230. Insomereactions,energyiscapturedinthe
formof
(A) GTP (B)UTP
(C)CTP (D)Noneofthese
231. Substrate-linkedphosphorylationoccursin
(A) Glycolyticpathway(B)Citricacidcycle
232. Hydrogenperoxidemaybedetoxifiedinthe
absenceofanoxygenacceptorby
(A) Peroxidase (B)Catalase
233. Superoxideradicalscanbedetoxifiedby
(A) Cytochromec
(B) Superoxidedismutase
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
234. Theporphyrinpresentinhaemis
(A) Uroporphyrin (B)ProtoporphyrinI
(C)Coproporphyrin (D)ProtoporphyrinII
235. An amino acid required for
porphyrinsynthesisis
(A) Proline (B)Glycine
(C)Serine (D)Histidine
236. Whichofthefollowingcoenzymeisrequired
forporphyrinsynthesis?
2732
(A) CoenzymeA
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
237. Theregulatoryenzymeforhaem synthesis
is
(A) ALAsynthetase
(B) haemsynthetase
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
238. Regulationofhaemsynthesisoccursby
(B) Repression-derepression
(C) Induction
(D) Allostericregulation
239. Sigmoidaloxygen dissociation curveisa
propertyof
(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Carboxyhaemoglobin
(C) Myoglobin
(D) Methaemoglobin
240. Cyanmethaemoglobincanbeformedfrom
(A) OxyHb (B)MetHb
(C)CarboxyHb (D)Allofthese
241. In thalassemia, an amino acid is
substitutedin
2733
(A) Alphachain(B)Betachain
(C) Alphaandbetachains
(D) Anychain
242. Haemsynthetaseiscongenitallydeficientin
(A) Congenitalerythropoieticporphyria
(B) Protoporphyria
(C) Hereditarycoproporphyria
(D) Variegateporphyria
243. During breakdown of haem, the
methenylbridgebetweenthefollowingtwo
pyrroleringsisbroken:
(A) IandII (B)IIandIII
(C)IIIandIV (D)IVandI
244. Pre-hepaticjaundiceoccursbecauseof
(A) Increasedhaemolysis
(B) Liverdamage
(C) BiliaryobstructionMINERALMETABOLISM 189
(D) Noneofthese
245. kernicteruscanoccurin
(B) Hepaticjaundice
(D) Allofthese
246. Bilepigmentsarenotpresentinurinein
(B) Hepaticjaundice
2734
247. Serum alkaline phosphatase is greatly
increasedin
(B) Hepaticjaundice
(D) Noneofthese
248. The active transportsystem forhepatic
uptakeofbilirubiniscongenitallydefective
in
(A) Gilbert’sdisease
(B) Crigler-Najjarsyndrome
(C) Rotor’ssyndrome
(D) Dubin-Johnsonsyndrome
249. Bilirubin UDP-glucuronyl transferase is
absentfromliverin
(A) Crigler-Najjar syndrome, type I(B)
Gilbert’sdisease
(C) Crigler-Najjarsyndrome,typeII
250. Unconjugatedbilirubininserumissolublein
(A) Water (B)Alkalis
(C)Acids (D)Methanal
251. Excretion of conjugated bilirubin from
livercellsintobiliarycanaliculiisdefectivein
2735
(A) Gilbert’sdisease
(B) Crigler-Najjarsyndrome
(C) Lucey-Driscollsyndrome
252. Breakdownof1gmhaemoglobinproduces
(A) 20mgofbilirubin(B)35mgofbilirubin
(C)50mgofbilirubin(D)70mgofbilirubin
253. Variableregionsarepresentin
(A) Immunoglobulins
(B) α-ChainsofTcellreceptors
(C) β-ChainsofTcellreceptors
(D) Allofthese
254. The total amount of calcium in an
averageadultmanisabout
(A) 100gm (B)500gm
(C)1kg (D)10kg
255. Thefollowingproportionofthetotalbody
calciumispresentinbonesandteeth:
(A) 75% (B)90%
(C)95% (D)99%
256. Thenormalrangeofplasmacalciumis
(A) 3-5mg/dl(B)5-10mg/dl
(C)9-11mg/dl (D)11-15mg/dl
257. Which of the normalrange of ionized
calciuminplasmais
(A) 2-4mg/dl(B)2-4mEq/L(C)4-5mg/dl
2736
(D)4-5mEq/L258.Tetanycanoccurin
(A) Hypocalcaemia
(B) Hypercalcaemia
(C) Alkalosis
(D) Hypocalcaemiaandalkalosis
259. Intestinalabsorptionofcalciumoccursby
(A) Activetakeup
(B) Simplediffusion
(C) Facilitateddiffusion
(D) Endocytosis
260. Intestinalabsorptionofcalcium ishampered
by
(A) Phosphate (B)Phytate
(C)Proteins (D)Lactose
261. Calcitriolfacilitatescalcium absorption by
increasingthesynthesisofthefollowingin
intestinalmucosa:
(A) CalciumBindingProtein
(B) AlkalinePhosphatase
(C) Calcium-dependentATPase1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 (D) Allofthese
262. A high plasma calcium level
decreasesintestinalabsorptionofcalciumby
(A) Stimulating the secretion of
parathormone(B)Inhibitingthesecretionof
2737
parathormone
(C) Decreasing the synthesis of
cholecalciferol
(D) Inhibitingthesecretionofthyrocalcitonin
263. Thedailycalcium requirementofanadult
manisabout
(A) 400mg (B)600mg
(C)800mg (D)1,000mg
264. Thedailycalcium requirementinpregnancy
andlactationisabout
(A) 600mg (B)800mg
(C)1,200mg (D)1,500mg
265. Hypercalcaemiacanoccurinallthefollowing
except
(A) Hyperparathyroidism(B)
HypervitaminosisD
(C) Milkalkalisyndrome
(D) Nephroticsyndrome
266. Hypocalcaemiacanoccurinallthefollowing
except
(A) Rickets
(B) Osteomalacia
(D) Intestinalmalabsorption
267. Themajorcalciumsaltinbonesis
(A) Calciumcarbonate(B)Calciumchloride
2738
(C) Calciumhydroxide
(D) Calciumphosphate
268. The correct statement about serum
inorganicphosphorousconcentrationis
(A) Itishigherinmenthaninwomen
(B) Itishigherinwomenthaninmen
(C) Itishigherinadultsthaninchildren
(D) Itishigherinchildrenthaninadults
269. Theproductofserum calcium concentration
(mg/dl)andserum inorganicphosphorous
concentration(mg/dl)inadultsisabout
(A) 30 (B)40
(C)50 (D)60
concentration(mg/dl)inchildrenisabout
(A) 30 (B)40
(C)50 (D)60
concentration(mg/dl)isdecreasedin
(A) Rickets
(B) Hypoparathyroidism
(D) Renalfailure
272. Serum inorganicphosphorousrisesinallthe
2739
followingconditionsexcept
(A) Hypoparathyroidism(B)
HypervitaminosisD
(C) Chronicrenalfailure
(D) Afteracarbohydrate-richmeal
273. Serum inorganicphosphorousdecreasesin
allthefollowingconditionsexcept
(A) Hyperparathyroidism
(B) Intestinalmalabsorption
(C) Osteomalacia
(D) Chronicrenalfailure
274. Serummagnesiumlevelrangesbetween
(A) 2–3mg/dl (B)3–5mg/dl
(C)6–8mg/dl (D)9–11mg/dl
275. Magnesium ionsarerequiredinthereactions
involving
(A) NAD (B)FAD
(C)ATP (D)CoA
276. Normalrangeofserumsodiumis
(A) 30–70mEq/L (B)70–110mEq/L
(C)117–135mEq/L(D)136–145mEq/L
277. Sodiumisinvolvedintheactiveuptakeof
(A) D-Glucose (B)D-Galactose
(C)L-Aminoacids (D)Allofthese
278. Aldosterone increases reabsorption of
sodiuminMINERALMETABOLISM 191
2740
(A) Proximalconvolutedtubules
(B) AscendinglimbofloopofHenle
(C) DescendinglimbofloopofHenle
(D) Distalconvolutedtubules
279. Restrictionofsodium intakeiscommonly
advisedin
(A) Addison’sdisease(B)Diarrhoea
(C)Hypertension (D)Noneofthese
280. Serum sodium levelrises in allofthe
followingexcept
(A) Renalfailure
(B) Prolongedsteroidtherapy
(C) Aldosteronism
(D) Dehydration
281. Hyponatraemia occurs in the following
condition:
(A) Addison’s disease (B)Chronic renal
failure
(C)Severediarrhoea(D)Allofthese
282. Serumpotassiumleveldecreasesin
(A) Familialperiodicparalysis
(B) Addison’sdisease
(C) Renalfailure
(D) Allofthese
283. Concentrationofthefollowingishigherin
intracellularfluidthaninextracellularfluid:
2741
(A) Sodium (B)Potassium
(C)Chloride (D)Bicarbonate
284. Normalrangeofserumpotassiumis
(A) 2.1-3.4mEq/L (B)3.5-5.3mEq/L
(C)5.4–7.4mEq/L (D)7.5–9.5mEq/L
285. Normalrangeofserumchlorideis
(A) 24–27mEq/L (B)70–80mEq/L
(C)100–106mEq/L(D)120–140mEq/L
286. An extracellular fluid having a
higherconcentrationofchloridethanserum
is
(A) Bile(B)Sweat
(C)CSF (D)Pancreaticjuice
287Totalamountofironinanadultmanisabout
(A)1–2gm (B)2–3gm
(C)3–4gm (D)6–7gm
288. Haemoglobincontainsabout
(A) 30%ofthetotalbodyiron
(B) 50%ofthetotalbodyiron(C)75%ofthe
totalbodyiron
(D)90%ofthetotalbodyiron
289. About5%ofthetotalbody,ironispresentin
(A) Transferrin (B)Myoglobin
(C)Cytochromes (D)Haemosiderin
290. Eachhaemoglobinmoleculecontains
(A) Oneironatom(B)Twoironatoms
2742
(C)Fourironatoms (D)Sixironatoms
291. Eachmyoglobinmoleculecontains
(A) Oneironatom(B)Twoironatoms
(C)Fourironatoms (D)Sixironatoms
292. Apoferritinmoleculeismadeupof
(A) Foursubunits(B)Eightsubunits
(C)Tensubunits (D)Twenty-foursubunits
293. Ferritinispresentin
(A) Intestinalmucosa(B)Liver
(C)Spleen (D)Allofthese
294. Ironisstoredintheformof
(A) Ferritinandtransferrin
(B) Transferrinandhaemosiderin
(C) Haemoglobinandmyoglobin
(D) Ferritinandhaemosiderin
295. Ironistransportedinbloodintheformof
(A) Ferritin (B)Haemosiderin
(C)Transferrin (D)Haemoglobin
296. Molecularweightoftransferrinisabout
(A) 40,000 (B)60,000
(C)80,000 (D)1,00,000
297. Normalplasmaironlevelis
(A) 50100µg/dl (B)100150µg/dl
(C)50175µg/dl (D)250400µg/dl
298. Ironispresentinallthefollowingexcept
(A) Peroxidase (B)Xanthineoxidase
2743
(C)Aconitase (D)Fumarase1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2989. Totaldailyironlossofanadultmanisabout
(A) 0.1mg (B)1mg
(C)5mg (D)10mg
300. Ironabsorptionishamperedby
(A) Ascorbicacid(B)Succinicacid
(C)Phyticacid (D)Aminoacid
301. Ironabsorptionishamperedby
(A) Inachlorhydria
(B) When ferritin content of intestinal
mucosaislow
(C) Whensaturationofplasmatransferring
islow
(D) Whenerythropoieticactivityisincreased
302. Dailyironrequirementofanadultmanis
about
(A) 1mg(B)5mg
(C)10mg (D)18mg
303. Daily iron requirement of a woman
ofreproductiveageisabout
(A) 1mg(B)2mg
(C)10mg (D)20mg
304. Allthefollowingaregoodsourcesofiron
except
(A) Milk(B)Meat
2744
(C)Liver (D)Kidney
305. Relativelymoreironisabsorbedfrom
(A) Greenleafyvegetables
(B) Fruits
(C) Wholegraincereals
(D) Organmeats
306. Ironabsorptionfromamixeddietisabout
(A) 1–5% (B)5–10%
(C)20–25% (D)25–50%
307. Irondeficiencycauses
(A) Normocyticanaemia
(B) Microcyticanaemia
(C) Megaloblasticanaemia
(D) Perniciousanaemia
308. Prolonged and severe iron deficiencycan
causeastrophyofepitheliumof
(A) Oralcavity (B)Oesophagus
(C)Stomach (D)Allofthese
bronzeddiabetesaretrueexcept
(A) Itis caused by excessive intake of
copper
(B) Skinbecomespigmented
(C) ThereisdamagetoβcellsofIsletsof
Langerhans(D)Liverisdamaged
310. Thetotalamountofiodineinthebodyofan
2745
averageadultis
(A) 10–15mg (B)20–25mg
(C)45–50mg (D)75–100mg
311. Iodinecontentofthyroidglandinanadultis
about
(A) 1–3mg (B)4–8mg
(C)10–15mg (D)25–30mg
312. Dailyiodinerequirementofanadultisabout
(A) 50µg (B)100µg
(C)150µg (D)1mg
313. Consumption of iodised salt is
recommendedin
(A) Patientswithhyperthyroidism
(B) Patientswithhypothyroidism
(C) Pregnantwomen
(D) Goitrebeltareas
314. Allthefollowingstatementsaboutendemic
goiteraretrueexcept
(A) Itoccursinareaswheresoilandwater
havelowiodinecontent
(B) Itleadstoenlargementofthyroidgland
(C) Itresultsultimatelyinhyperthyroidism
(D) Itcan be prevented by consumption
ofiodisedsalt
315. Thetotalamountofcopperinthebodyofan
averageadultis
2746
(A) 1gm(B)500mg
(C)100mg (D)10mg
316. Thenormalrangeofplasmacopperis
(A) 25–50µg/dl (B)50–100µg/dl
(C)100–200µg/dl (D)200–400µg/dlMINERALMETABOLISM 193
317. Copperdeficiencycancause
(A) Polycythaemia (B)Leukocytopenia
(C) Thrombocytopenia (D) Microcytic
anaemia
318. Daily requirementofcopperin adults is
about
(A) 0.5mg (B)1mg
(C)2.5mg (D)5mg
ceruloplasminarecorrectexcept
(A) Itisacopper-containingprotein
(B) Itpossessesoxidaseactivity
(C) Itissynthesisedinintestinalmucosa
(D) Its plasma level is decreased
inWilson’sdisease
320. AllthefollowingstatementsaboutWilson’s
diseasearecorrectexcept
(A) Itisageneticdisease
(B) Thedefectinvolvescopper-dependentP-
typeATPase
(C) Copper is deposited in liver,basal
2747
gangliaandaroundcornea
(D) Plasmacopperlevelisincreasedinit
321. Which ofthe following statements about
Menke’sdiseasearetrue.
(A) Itis an inherited disorderofcopper
metabolism
(B) Itoccursonlyinmales
(C) Plasmacopperisincreasedinit
(D) Hairbecomessteelyandkinkyinit
322. Thetotalamountofzincinanaverageadult
is
(A) 0.25–0.5gm (B)0.5–1.0gm
(C)1.5–2.0gm (D)2.5–5.0gm
323. Plasmazinclevelis
(A) 10–50µg/dl (B)50–150µg/dl
(C)150–250µg/dl (D)250–500µg/dl
324. Zincisacofactorfor
(A) Acidphosphatase
(B) Alkalinephosphatase
(C) Amylase
(D) Lipase
325. Zincisinvolvedinstorageandreleaseof
(A) Histamine (B)Acetylcholine
326. Intestinalabsorptionofzincisretardedby
(A) Calcium (B)Cadmium
2748
(C)Phytate (D)Allofthese
327. Thedailyzincrequirementofan average
adultis
(A) 5mg(B)10mg
(C)15mg (D)25mg
328. Zincdeficiencyoccurscommonlyin
(A) Acrodermatitisenteropathica
(B) Wilson’sdisease
(C) Xerodermapigmentosum
(D) Menke’sdisease
329. Hypogonadismcanoccurindeficiencyof
(A) Copper (B)Chromium
(C)Zinc (D)Manganese
330. Healing ofwounds may be impaired in
deficiencyof
(A) Selenium (B)Copper
(C)Zinc (D)Cobalt
331. Hypochromicmicrocyticanaemiacanoccur
in
(A) Zinc(B)Copper
(C)Manganese (D)Noneofthese
332. The daily requirementformanganese in
adultsisabout
(A) 1–2mg (B)2–5mg
(C)2–5µg (D)5–20µg
333. Molybdenumisacofactorfor
2749
(A) Xanthineoxidase(B)Aldehydeoxidase
(C)Sulphiteoxidase (D)Allofthese
334. Atraceelementhavingantioxidantfunction
is
(A) Selenium (B)Tocopherol
(C)Chromium (D)Molybdenum
335. Seleniumisaconstituentof
(A) Glutathionereductase
(B) Glutathioneperoxidase1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 (C) Catalase
(D) Superoxidedismutase
336. Seleniumdecreasestherequirementof
(A) Copper (B)Zinc
337. Uppersafelimitoffluorineinwateris
(A) 0.4ppm (B)0.8ppm
(C)1.2ppm (D)2ppm
338. Thedailyfluorideintakeshouldnotexceed
(A) 0.5mg (B)1mg
(C)2mg (D)3mg
339. Inadults,waterconstitutesabout
(A) 50% ofbodyweight(B)55% ofbody
weight(C)60%ofbodyweight(D)75%
ofbodyweight340.1kcalisroughly
equalto
2750
(A)4.2J (B)42J
(C)4.2KJ (D)42KJ
341. Calorificvalueofproteinsasdeterminedin
abombcalorimeteris
(A) 4kcal/gm (B)4.8kcal/gm
(C)5.4kcal/gm (D)5.8kcal/gm
342. Calorificvalueofproteinsinalivingperson
is less than thatin a bomb calorimeter
because
(A) Digestionandabsorptionofproteinsis
lessthan100%
(B) Respiratoryquotientofproteinsisless
than1
(C) Specificdynamicactionofproteinsis
high
(D) Proteinsarenotcompletelyoxidizedin
livingpersons
343. Calorificvalueofalcoholis
(A) 4kcal/gm (B)5.4kcal/gm
(C)7kcal/gm (D)9kcal/gm
344. Energy expenditure ofa person can be
measuredby
(A) Bombcalorimetry
(B) Directcalorimetry
(C) Indirectcalorimetry
(D) Directorindirectcalorimetry
2751
345. Respiratory quotientofcarbohydrates is
about
(A) 0.5 (B)0.7
(C)0.8 (D)1.0
346. Respiratoryquotientoffatsisabout
(A) 0.5 (B)0.7
(C)0.8 (D)1.0
347. Respiratoryquotientofproteinsisabout
(A) 0.5 (B)0.7
(C)0.8 (D)1.0
348. Respiratory quotient of an average
mixeddietisabout
(A) 0.65(B)0.7
(C)0.75 (D)0.85
349. Atarespiratoryquotientof0.85,everylitreof
oxygen consumed represents an energy
expenditureof
(A) 5.825kcal (B)4.825kcal
(C)3.825kcal (D)2.825kcal
350. BMRofhealthyadultmenisabout
(A) 30kcal/hour/squaremetre
(B) 35kcal/hour/squaremetre
(C) 40kcal/hour/squaremetre
(D) 45kcal/hour/squaremetre
351. BMRofhealthyadultwomenisabout
(A) 32kcal/hour/squaremetre
2752
(B) 36kcal/hour/squaremetre
(C) 40kcal/hour/squaremetre
(D) 44kcal/hour/squaremetre
352. BMRishigherin
(A) Adultsthaninchildren
(B) Menthaninwomen
(C) Vegetariansthaninnon-vegetarians
(D) Warmerclimatethanincolderclimate
353. BMRisdecreasedin
(A) Pregnancy (B)Starvation
(C)Anaemia (D)Fever
354. BMRisincreasedin
(A) Starvation (B)HypothyroidismMINERALMETABOLISM 195
(C)Addison’sdisease(D)Pregnancy
355. BMR isdecreasedinallofthefollowing
except
(A) Fever (B)Addison’sdisease
(C)Starvation (D)Hypothyroidism
356. BMR isincreased in allofthe following
except
(A) Hyperthyroidism (B)Anaemia
(C)Addison’sdisease(D)Pregnancy
357. Specificdynamicactionofcarbohydratesis
about
(A) 5% (B)13%
(C)20% (D)30%
2753
358. Specificdynamicactionofproteinsisabout
(A)5% (B)13%
(C)20% (D)30%
359. Allfollowingareessentialtraceelements
except
(A) Iron(B)Iodine
(C)Zinc (D)Cadmium
360. Maximum quantityofsodium isexcreted
through
(A) Urine (B)Faeces
(C)Sweat (D)Noneofthese
361. All followings are rich sources of
magnesium,except
(A) Milk(B)Eggs
(C)Meat (D)Cabbage
362. Allfollowings are poorsources ofiron
except
(A) Milk(B)Potatoes(C)Wheatflour (D)
Liver
363. TheIron deficientchildren,absorption of
IronfromGITis
(A) Unaltered
(B) Doublethaninnormalchild
(C) Manifoldthaninnormalchild
(D) Lesserthaninnormalchild
364. Mainsourceoffluorideforhumanbeingsis
2754
(A) Milk(B)Water
(C)Vegetables (D)Eggs
365. Quantityofcopperpresentinthebodyofan
adultis
(A) 0–50mg (B)50–100mg
(C)100–150mg (D)150–250mg
366. Alevelof310–340mgper1000mlofblood
isnormalforthe
(A) Copper(B)Iron
(C)Potassium (D)Sodium
367. Dailyrequirementofphosphorousforan
infantis
(A) 240–400mg(B)1.2gms
(C)800mg (D)800–1200mg
368. Maximum quantityofZincispresentinthe
bodyin
(A) Prostate(B)Choroid
(C)Skin (D)Bones
369. Average concentration of chloride ions
incerebrospinalfluidper100mlis
(A) 40mg (B)440mg
(C)160mg (D)365mg
370. Totalironcontentofthenormaladultis
(A) 1-2gm (B)3-4gm
(C)4-5gm (D)7-10gm
371. Absorption ofphosphorous from dietis
2755
favouredby
(A) Moderate amount of fat(B) Acidic
environment
(C) Highcalciumcontent
(D) Highphyticacid
372. Daily intake ofpotassium fora normal
personshouldbe
(A) 1gm (B)2gm
(C)3gm (D)4gm
373. Absorptionofcalcium decreasesifthereis
highconcentrationinthedietof
(A) Copper(B)Sodium
(C)Magnesium (D)Cadmium
374. Of the following highest concentration
ofcalciumisseenin
(A) Blood (B)CSF
(C)Muscle (D)Nerve1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
3785. Cobaltisessentialcomponentof
(C)VitaminB12 (D)Allofthese
376. Iodineisrequiredinhumanbodyfor
(A) Formationofthyroxine
(B) FormationofGlutathione
(C) Formationofpotassiumiodide
(D) Adrenalin
2756
377. A hypochromic necrocytic anaemia
withincreaseFestoresinthebonemarrow
maybe
(A) Folic acid responsive(B)Vitamin B12
responsive
(C) Pyridoxineresponsive
(D) VitaminCresponsive
378. A deficiency of copper effects the
formationofnormalcollagenbyreducingthe
activityofwhichofthefollowingenzyme?
(A) Prolylhydroxylase(B)Lysyloxidase
(C) Lysylhydroxylase
(D) Glucosyltransferase
379. Moleculariron(Fe)is
(A) Storedprimarilyinspleen
(B) Absorbedintheintestine
(C) Absorbedintheferric,Fe
+++
form
(D) Storedinthebodyincombinationwith
ferritin
380. All the following statements regarding
calciumarecorrectexcept
(A) Itdiffusesasadivalentcation
(B) It freely diffuses across the
endoplasmicreticulumofmusclecells
2757
(C) Itcanexistinthebloodasionicform
andalsoproteinbound
(D) Itis found in high concentration in
bones
381. Ironisabsorbedfrom
(A) Stomach
(B) Duodenumandjejunum
(C) Ileum
(D) Noenoftheabove
382. Thenormalrouteofcalciumexcretionis
(A) Kidney
(B) KidneyandLiver
(C) KidneyandIntestine
(D) Kidney,IntestineandPancreas
383. Hypocalcaemiaaffects
(A) Skeletalmuslces(B)Smoothmuscles
(C) Cardiacmuscles
(D) Skeletalmuscles+smoothmuscles+
cardiacmuscles
384. Transferrinisatypeof
(A)Albumin (B)α-globulin
(C)β1globulin (D)γ-globulin
385. In case of wilson’s disease, the
featuresincludeallofthefollowingexcept
(A) Progressivehepaticcirrhosis
(B) KeyserFleisherring
2758
(C) Aminoaciduria
(D) UrinaryexcretionofCuisdecreased
386. InVitaminDpoisoning(hyper-vitaminosis)
(A) Bothserumandurinary“Ca”
(B) The serum Ca is low and urinary
calciumhigh
(C) Theserum“Ca”isincreasedandurinary
“Ca”isnormal
(D) Bothserumandurinary“Ca”arelow
387. The%of‘K’inExtracellularfluidisabout
(A) 1% (B)2to3%
(C)10% (D)15%
388. TheFecontainingpigmentsis
(A) Haematoidin(B)Bilirubin
(C)Hemasiderin (D)Urobilinogen
389. Allofthe following are true ofWilson’s
diseaseexcept
(A) LowtotalplasmaCu
(B) Elevatedurinarycopper
(C) Arthritis
(D) Aminoaciduria
390. Anincreasedserum‘Iron’anddecreased
‘Fe’bindingcapacityarefoundin
(A) Fe-deficiencyanaemiaMINERALMETABOLISM 197
(B) Sideroblasticanaemia
(C) Thalassaemia
2759
(D) Anaemiaofchromicdisorders
391. Irontherapyisineffectiveinwhichofthe
followingconditions:
(A) Chronicbloodloss
(B) InadequateFeintake
(C) Hypochromicanaemiaofpregnancy
(D) Thalassaemiaminor
392. Inhoemochromatosis,theliverisinfiltrated
with
(A)Copper (B)Iron
(C)Manganese (D)
Chromium
393. Whichofthefollowingistrue?Hypochromic
anaemiaisnotduetoirondeficiencyexcept
(A) Serum‘Fe’ishigh
(B) Normal/lowtransferrin
(C) Stainableironinbonemarrow
(D) Irontherapyisaffective
394. Cytosolicsuperoxidedismutasecontains
(A) Znonly (B)Cuonly
(C)ZnandCu (D)Mn
395. Ariseinblood‘Ca’mayindicate
(A) Paget’sdisease (B) Vitamin D
deficiency
(C)Cushing’sdisease(D)HypervitaminosisD
396. Theessentialtraceelementwhichcatalyzes
2760
theformationofHbinthebodyis
(A) Mn(B)Se
(C)Mg (D)Cu
397. Zincisaconstituentoftheenzyme:
(B) Carbonicanhydrase
(C) Mitochondrialsuperoxidedismutase
(D) Aldolase
398. Theactivetransportof‘Ca’isregulatedby
__________whichissynthesizedinkidnyes.
(A) Cholecalciferol
(B) Ergosterol
(C) 25-OHcholecalciferol
(D) 1,25-diOH-Cholecalciferol
399. Ceruloplasminshowstheactivity
(A) Asferroxidase (B)Asreductase
(C)Asligase (D)Astransferase
400. Theprincipalcationofextracellularfluid:
(A) K
(B)Na
(C)H
(D)Ca
2+
401. What is the principal cation of
2761
intracellularfluid?
(A)K
(B)Na
(C)Ca
2+
(D)Mg
2+
402. WhatisthenormallevelofK
intheserum?
(A) 137–148mEq/L(B)120–160mEq/L
(C)3.9–5.0mEq/L (D)0.3–0.59mEq/L
403. Thegeneralfunctionsofmineralsare
(A) The structuralcomponents ofbody
tissues
(B) Intheregulationofbodyfluids
(C) Inacid-basebalance
(D) Allofthese
404. Whatarethefunctionsofpotassium?
(A) Inmusclecontraction
(B) Cellmembranefunction
(C) Enzymeaction
(D) Allofthese
405. Thedailyrequirementofcalciumis
(A) 200mg (B)400mg
2762
(C)800mg (D)600mg
406. The normal serum inorganic
phosphorouslevelis
(A) 1.5–2.5mg/100ml
(B) 2.5–4.5mg/100ml(C)4.5–6.5mg/100
ml
(D)0.5–1.5mg/100ml
407. Whenphosphorouslevelislowered?
(A) Inhyperthyroidism(B)Cirrosisofliver
(C)Leukemia (D)Hypothyroidism
408. Ferritinis
(A) Coenzyme
(B) One of the component of1 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
8 photophosphorylation
(C) Itisthestoredformofiron
(D) Non-proteinmoiety
409. Whatisceruloplasmin?
(A) Plasma protein (B)Stored form of
copper(C)BothAandB(D)Noneofthese
410. Thefollowingarethefunctionsofcopper:
(A) Constituentofcytochromes
(B) Catalase
(C) Tyrosinase
(D) Allofthese
411. Zn is present as prosthetic group in
2763
thisenzyme:
(B) Carboxypeptidase
(C) Lactatedehydrogenase
(D) Allofthese
412. Fluorosisiscauseddueto
(A) Excessiveintakeoffluorine
(B) Lowintakeoffluorine
(C) Discolorationoftheteethduetolow
intake
(D) Allofthese
413. Whatisthestateofironintransferrin?
(A) Ferrousform(B)Ferricform
(C)BothAandB (D)Noneofthese
414. Haemoglobinformationneedsboth
(A) IronandZinc(B)IronandCalcium
(C)IronandCopper(D)IronandMagnesium
ANSWERS
1.A 2.C3.C4.A5.B6.B7.C8.B9.C10.D 11.C 12.C
13.B 14.A 15.B 16.A 17.B 18.D
19.D 20.A 21.A 22.A 23.C 24.B
25.C 26.C 27.A 28.C 29.C 30.A
31.D 32.A 33.D 34.A 35.B 36.D
37.B 38.C 39.A 40.A 41.B 42.A
43.D 44.A 45.B 46.A 47.A 48.D
49.D 50.A 51.D 52.A 53.A 54.A
2764
55.D 56.B 57.B 58.A 59.C 60.D
61.A 62.D 63.D 64.D 65.B 66.D
67.D 68.D 69.C 70.D 71.A 72.B
73.C 74.D 75.D 76.B 77.A 78.C
79.A 80.D 81.A 82.A 83.C 84.A
85.C 86.D 87.A 88.C 89.D 90.D
91.C92.B93.D94.C95.B96.C97.B98.A99.D100.A101.C102.A103.B104.B105.A
106.
D107.C108.B109.A110.D111.C112.D113.A114.B
115.A 116.A 117.D 118.A 119.D 120.D
121.B122.A123.A124.B125.A126.A127.A128.C129.A130.A131.B132.C133.
D134.C
135.C136.C137.A138.B139.A140.B141.A142.D143.C144.C145.D146.D147.B
148.D
149.C150.D151.C152.C153.B154.D155.A156.C157.D158.B159.A160.D161.C
162.D
163.A164.C165.C166.A167.A168.D
169.A 170.D 171.A 172.A 173.A 174.A
175.B 176.A 177.A 178.C 179.A 180.C
181.D182.B183.A184.D185.C186.A187.B188.C189.B190.C191.C192.D193.A
194.D
195.D196.D197.A198.A199.A200.C201.B202.A203.D204.A205.A206.B207.
C208.D
209.B210.C211.A212.C213.B214.A215.B216.A217.A218.A219.B220.D221.
A222.A
223.B224.D225.B226.A227.C228.A229.C230.A231.C232.B233.C234.D235.A
236.C
2765
237.A238.B239.A240.B241.D242.B243.A244.A245.A246.A247.C248.A249.
A250.DMINERALMETABOLISM 199
251.D252.B253.D 254.C 255.D 256.C 257.C 258.D
259.A260.B261.D262.B263.C264.C265.D266.C267.D268.D269.A270.C271.A
272.D
273.D274.A275.C276.D
277.D278.D279.C280.A281.D282.A283.B284.B285.C286.C287.C288.C
289.B290.C291.A292.D293.D294.D295.C296.C297.C298.D299.B300.C
301.A 302.C 303.D 304.A 305.D 306.B
307.B308.D309.A310.C311.C312.C313.D314.C315.C316.C317.D318.C319.C
320.D
321.C322.C323.B324.B
325.D 326.D 327.C 328.D 329.C 330.C
331.B332.B333.D334.A335.B336.D337.C338.D339.C340.C341.C342.D
343.C 344.D 345.D 346.B 347.C 348.D
349.B350.C351.B352.B353.B354.D355.A356.C357.A358.D359.D360.A361.C
362.D
363.B364.B365.C366.D367.A368.C369.B370.C371.B372.D373.C374.C375.C
376.A
377.C378.B
379.D380.B381.B382.C383.D384.B385.D386.A387.A388.C389.C390.B
391.D 392.B 393.D 394.C 395.D 396.D
397.B398.D399.A400.B401.A402.C403.D404.D405.C406.B407.A408.C409.C
410.D
411.D412.A413.B414.C1. Hormones
(A) Actascoenzyme
(B) Actasenzyme
2766
(C) Influencesynthesisofenzymes
(D) BelongtoB-complexgroup
2. Hormonethatbindstointracellularreceptor
is
(A) Adrenocorticotropic hormone(B)
Thyroxine
(C) Folliclestimulatinghormone
(D) Glucagon
3. Hormone that bind to cell surface
receptorandrequirethesecondmessenger
campis
(A) Antidiuretichormone
(B) Cholecystokinin
(C) Calcitriol
(D) Gastrin
4. Ahormonesecretedfromanteriorpituitaryis
(A) Growthhormone(B)Vasopressin
(C)Oxytocin (D)Epinephrine
5. A hormone secreted from posterior
pituitaryis
(A) Vasopressin
(B) Thyrotropichormone
(C) Prolactin
(D) Adrenocorticotropichormone
CHAPTER8
2767
HORMONEMETABOLISM
6. Thenumberofaminoacidsinhumangrowth
hormoneis
(A) 91 (B)151(C)191 (D)291
7. Growthhormonecauseshyperglycemia.
Itisaresultof
(A) Decreased peripheral utilization of
glucose
(B) Decreased hepatic production via
gluconeogenesis
(C) Increasedglycolysisinmuscle
(D) Decrersedlipolysis
8. Acromegalyresultsduetoexcessiverelease
of
(A) Thyroxine (B)Growthhormone
(C)Insulin (D)Glucagon
9. Growthhormoneisreleasedby
(A) Somatostatin
(B) Growthhormonereleasinghormone
(C) Prolactinreleaseinhibitinghormone
(D) Luteinizingreleasinghormone
10. Thenumberofaminoacidsinprolactinis
(A) 134(B)146
(C)172 (D)199
11. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is
2768
asinglepolypeptidecontaining
(A) 25aminoacid (B)39aminoacid(C)
49aminoacid (D)52aminoacid
12. BiologicalactivityofACTHrequires
(A) 10-N-terminalaminoacid
HORMONEMETABOLISM 207HORMONEMETABOLISM 201
(B) 24-N-terminalaminoacid
(C) 24-C-terminalaminoacid
(D) 15-C-terminalaminoacid
13. ACTHstimulatesthesecretionof
(A) Glucocorticoids (B)Epinephrine
(C)Thyroxine (D)Luteinizinghormone
14. ExcessivesecretionofACTHcauses
(A) Cushing’ssyndrome
(B) Addison’sdisease
(C) Myxoedema
(D) Thyrotoxicosis
15. InCushing’ssyndrome-atumourassociated
diseaseofadrenalcortex,thereis
(A) Decreasedepinephrineproduction
(B) Excessivecortisolproduction
(C) Excessiveepinephrineproduction
(D) Decreasedcortsoilproduction
16. ACTHinducesrisein
(A) CyclicAMP (B)CyclicGMP
(C)Calcium (D)Magnesium
2769
17. The circulating concentration of ACTH
inplasmais
(A) 0.05mµ/100ml
(B) 0.1–2.0mµ/100ml(C)2.5–3.5mµ/100
ml
(D)3.0–5.0mµ/100ml
18. Hyperglycemic effect of glucocorticoids
isdueto
(A) Inactivationofproteinphosphatase
(B) Inactivation of fructose 1,6-
biphosphatase
(C) Stimulation ofsynthesis ofpyruvate
carboxylase
(D) Stimulationofsynthesisofeltroxykinase
19. Thepredominantglucocorticoidis
(A) Cortisol
(B) Aldosterone
(C) Dehydroephiandrosterone
(D) Androstenedione
20. A specific cortisol binding protein,
transcortinisa
(A) Albumin(B)α1-Globulin
(C)α2-Globulin (D)β-Globulin
21. Cortisolissynthesizedin
(A) Zonafasiculata (B)Zonaglomerulosa
2770
(C)Zonareticularis (D)Chromaffincells
22. Allmammaliansteroidhormonesareformed
from
(A) Purine (B)Pyrimidine
(C)Cholesterol (D)Pyrrole
23. A very efficient inhibitor of
steroidbiosynthesisis
(A) Aminoglutethimide
(B) Aminoimidazole
(C) Aminoimidazolesuccinylcarboxamine
(D) Aminopterin
24. Inadrenalglandthecholesterolisstored
(A) Mostlyinthefreeform
(B) Mostlyinesterifiedform
(C) Large amountoffree form and less
amountofesterifiedform
(D) Equalamountsoffree and esterified
form
25. Aldosteronesynthesisoccursin
(A) Zonareticularis (B)Zonafasciculata
(C)Zonaglomerulosa(D)Chromaffiancells
26. Inthebiosynthesisofcortiol,thesequenceof
enzymesinvolvedis
(A) Hydroxylase–dehydrogenase +
isomerase–hydroxylase
(B) Dehydrogenase–hydroxylase–isomeras
2771
e
(C) Hydroxylase–lyase–dehydrogenase
isomerase
(D) Isomerase–lyase–hydroxylase–dehydro
genase
27. Thedefectinadrenalcortexresponsiblefor
lackofglucocorticoidsandmineralcorticoids
is
(A) Androstenedionedeficiency
(B) 17α-OHprogesteronedeficiency
(C) C-21hydroxylasedeficiency
(D) Testosteronedeficiency2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
282. 3-β-Hydroxysteroiddehydrogenaseand∆
5,4
isomerasecatalysetheconversion ofthe
weakandrogenDHEAto
(A) Androstenedione(B)Testosterone
(C)Progesterone (D)Estrone
29. Intherestingstateplasmaconcentrationof
cortisolis
(A) 0.4–2.0µg/100ml
(B) 2.0–4.0µg/100ml
(C) 5.0–15.0µg/100ml
(D) 18.0–25.0µg/100ml
30. Themostimportanteffectofaldosteroneis
2772
to
(A) Increasetherateoftubularreabsorption
ofsodium
(B) Decrease the rate of tubular
reabsorptionofpotassium
(C) Decreasethereabsorptionofchloride
(D) Decrease the renal reabsorption of
sodium
31. Oneofthepotentstimulatorsofaldosterone
secretionis
(A) Increasedsodiumconcentration
(B) Decreasedpotassiumconcentration
(C) Increasedpotassiumconcentration
(D) IncreasedECFvolume
32. Intherennin-angiotensinsystem theprimary
hormoneis
(A) Angiotensinogen (B)AngiotensinI
(C)AngiotensinII (D)AngiotensinIII
33. Aldosteronereleaseisstimulatedby
(A) α2-Globulin (B)Renin
(C)AngiotensinII (D)Growthhormone
34. InthesynthesisofAngiotensinI,renninacts
onAngiotensinogenandcleavesthe
(A) Leucine – leucine at 10 and 11
position(B)Valine–tyrosineat3and4
position
2773
(C) Isoleucine–histidineat5and6position
(D) Proline–histidineat7and8position
35. Catecholaminehormonesaresynthesizedin
the
(A) Chromaffincellsofadrenalmedulla
(B) Zonaglomerulosaofadrenalcortex
(C) Zonafasciculateofadrenalcortex
(D) Zonareticularisofadrenalcortex
36. Catecholaminehormonesare
(A) 3, 4-Dihydroxy derivatives of
phenylethylamine
(B) p-Hydroxyderivativesofphenylacetate
(C) p-Hydroxyderivativesofphenylpyruvate
(D) p-Hydroxyderivativesofphenyllactate
37. The sequentialsteps in the conversion
oftyrosinetoepinephrineare
(A) Ring hydroxylation-decarboxylation-side
chainhydroxylation-N-methylation
(B) Sidechainhydroxylation-decarboxylation
-ringhydroxylationN-methylation
(C) Decarboxylation-ring hydroxylation-side
chainhydroxylation-N-methylation
(D) N-methylation-decarboxylation-ring and
sidechainhydroxylation
38. The hormone required for uterine
musclecontractionforchildbirthis
2774
(A) Progesterone(B)Estrogen
(C)Oxytocin (D)Vasopressin
39. The number of amino acids in the
hormoneoxytocinis
(A) 7 (B)9
(C)14 (D)18
40. Vasopressinandoxytocincirculateunbound
toproteinsandhaveveryshortplasmahalf
lives,ontheorderof
(A) 1–2minutes(B)2–4minutes
(C)5–8minutes (D)10–12minutes
41. Melanogenesisisstimulatedby
(A) MSH (B)FSH
(C)LH (D)HCG
42. The number of amino acids in
antidiuretichormoneis
(A)9 (B)18
(C)27 (D)36
43. ADH
(A) ReabsorbswaterfromrenaltubulesHORMONEMETABOLISM 203
(B) Excreteswaterfromrenaltubules
(C) Excreteshypotonicurine
(D) Causeslowspecificgravityofurine
44. Increased reabsorption of water from
thekidneyisthemajorconsequenceofthe
secretionofthehormone?
2775
(A) Cortisol(B)Insulin
(C)Vasopressin (D)Aldosterone
45. Anincreaseintheosmolalityofextracellular
compartmentwill
(A) InhibitADHsecretion
(B) StimulateADHsecretion
(C) CausenochangeinADHsecretion
(D) Stimulatethevolumeandosmoreceptor
andinhibitADHsecretion
46. For Catecholamine biosynthesis the
ratelimitingenzymeis
(A) DOPAdecarboxylase
(B) DOPAMINEβ-hydroxylase
(C) Tyrosinehydroxylase
(D) Phenylalaninehydroxylase
47. A hormone which cannot cross the
bloodbrainbarrieris
(A) Epinephrine (B)Aldosterone
(C)ACTH (D)TSH
48. Theplasmalevelofepinephrineislessthan
(A) 0.1ng/ml (B)0.2ng/ml
(C)0.4ng/ml (D)0.8ng/ml
49. Epinephrineisrapidlymetabolizedby
(A) Monoamineoxidase
(B) Deaminase
(C) Transminase
2776
(D) Decarboxylase
50. Pheochromocytomasaretumoursof
(A) Adrenalcortex (B)Adrenalmedulla
(C)Pancreas (D)Bone
51. A characteristic of pheochromocytoma
iselevatedurinaryexcretionof
(A) Dopamine
(B) Tyrosine
(C) Vinylmandelicacid
(D) Phenylalanine
52. In the synthetic pathway of
epinephrine,disulfiram (antabuse) inhibits
theenzyme:
(A) Tyrosinehydroxylase
(B) Dopamineβ-hydroxylase
(C) DOPAdecarboxylase
(D) N-methyltransferase
53. ThebiosynthesisofbothCatecholamineand
serotoninrequire
(A) Tyrosinehydroxylase
(B) N-methyltransferase
(C) Aromaticaminoaciddecarboxylase
(D) Tryptophanpyrrolase
54. Epinephrinestimulatesglycogenolysisin
(A) Liver(B)Muscle
(C)Liverandmuscle(D)Kidney
2777
55. Acupofstrongcoffeewouldbeexpectedto
(A) Interfere with the synthesis of
prostaglandins(B)Decreasetheeffectof
glucagon
(C) Enhancetheeffectofepinephrine
(D) Providethevitaminnicotinicacid
56. Epinephrineisderivedfrom norepinephrine
by
(A) Decarboxylation (B)Hydroxylation
(C)Oxidation (D)N-methylation
57. 5HIAAtestisnegativeifpatientistaking
(A) Aspirin (B)Colchicine
(C)Phenothiazone (D)Methotrexate
58. Presenceofsignificantamountof5-HIAAin
urineindicates
(A) Carcinoidinliver
(B) Carcinoidinappendix
(C) Metastasisofcarcinomaofliver
(D) Hepatoma
59. Thenormalserum leveloftriiodothyronine
(T3)is
(A) 0.2–0.5ng/ml (B)0.7–2.0ng/ml(C)
2.0–4.0ng/ml (D)5.0–8.0ng/ml2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
602. Thenormalserumlevelofthyroxine(T4)is
(A) 2.0–4.0µg/100ml
2778
(B) 5.5–13.5µg/100ml
(C) 14.0–20.3µg/100ml
(D) 20.0–25.0µg/100ml
61. Excesssecretionofthyroidhormonescauses
(A) Hyperthyroidism (B)Myxoedema
(C)Cretinism (D)Cushingsyndrome
62. InsufficientfreeT3andT4resultsin
(A) Grave’sdisease (B)Mysoedema
(C)Cushingsyndrome(D)Gigantism
63. In primary hypothyroidism the
usefulestimationisof
(A) T3 (B)T4
(C)TBG (D)Autoantibodies
64. WheniodinesuppliesaresufficienttheT3
andT4ratiointhyroglobulinis
(A) 1:2(B)1:4
(C)1:7 (D)1:10
65. A substance which competes with
iodideuptakemechanismbythyroidglandis
(A) Thiocynate (B)Iodoacetate
(C)Fluoride (D)Fluoroacetate
66. Thyroperoxidaseenzymecontains
(A) Heme (B)Copper
67. Thyroproxidase requires hydrogenperoxide
asoxidizingagent.TheH2O2isproducedby
2779
(A) FADH2 dependentenzyme (B)NADH
dependentenzyme
(C) NADPdependentenzyme
(D) NADPHdependentenzyme
68. Thyroidstimulatinghormoneisadimer.The
α-subunitsofTSH,LH,FSH areidentical.
Thus the biological specificity must
thereforebeβsubunitinwhichthenumber
ofaminoacidsis
(A) 78 (B)112(C)130 (D)199
69. TSHstimulatesthesynthesisdelete
(A) Thyroxine (B)Adrenocorticoids
70. Thyroid hormones are synthesized by
theiodinationoftheaminoacid:
(A) Glycine (B)Phenylalanine
(C)Alanine (D)Tyrosine
71. The tyrosine residues per molecule
ofthyroglobulinis
(A) 85 (B)95
(C)115 (D)135
72. The percentage of inactive
precursors(monoidotyrosine and
diiodotyrosine)inthyroglobulinis
(A) 30 (B)40
(C)50 (D)70
2780
73. Thenumberofaminoacidsinparathormone
is
(A) 65 (B)84
(C)115 (D)122
74. The sequence of amino acid in which
thebiologicalvalueofparathormoneis
(A)1–15 (B)1–34
(C)30–50 (D)50–84
75. PTH
(A) Reducestherenalclearanceorexcretion
ofcalcium
(B) Increasesrenalphosphateclearance
(C) Increasestherenalclearanceofcalcium
(D) Decreases the renal phosphate
clearance
76. The number of amino acids in the
peptidehormonecalcitoninis
(A) 16 (B)24
(C)32 (D)40
77. Calcitonincauses
(A) Calcinuriaandphosphaturia
(B) Decreaseinurinarycalcium
(C) Decreaseinurinaryphosphorous
(D) Increaseinbloodcalciumlevel
78. Thecharacteristicofhyperparathyroidismis
(A) Lowserumcalcium
2781
(B) Highserumphosphorous
(C) Low serum calcium and high serumHORMONEMETABOLISM 205
phosphorous
(D) High serum calcium and low
serumphosphate
79. Parathyroidhormone
(A) IsreleasedwhenserumCa
++
istoohigh
(B) InactivatesvitaminD
(C) IssecretedwhenCa
++
istoolow
(D) Depends on vitamin K foradequate
activity
80. δ-Cellsofisletoflangerhansofpancreas
produce
(A) Pancreaticpolypeptide
(B) Pancreaticlipase
(C) Somatostatin
(D) Steapsin
81. β-cellsofisletoflangerhansofthepancreas
secrete
(A) Insulin
(B) Glucagon
(C) Somatostatin
2782
(D) Pancreaticpolypeptide
82. Targettissueofinsulinis
(A) Redbloodcells
(B) Renaltubularcells
(C) GItractepithelialcells
(D) Liver
83. Insulin is a dimmer. The number of
aminoacidsintheAandBchainrespectively
is
(A) 19and28 (B)21and30
(C)25and35 (D)29and38
84. In A chain ofthe insulin molecule the
Nterminalaminoacidis
(A) Glycine (B)Valine
(C)Serine (D)Phenylalanine
85. In the A chain ofinsulin molecule the
Cterminalaminoacidis
(A) Asparagine (B)Threonine
(C)Valine (D)Tyrosine
86. In the B chain ofinsulin molecule,the
Nterminalaminoacidis
(A) Proline (B)Threonine
(C)Phenylalanine (D)Lysine
87. In theB chain ofinsulin molecule,theC-
terminalaminoacid:
(A) Threonine (B)Tyrosine
2783
(C)Glutamate (D)Valine
88. In the insulin molecule, the number
ofinterchaindisulphidebridesis
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
89. In the insulin molecule, the number
ofintrachaindisulphidebridgesis
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
90. Insulin exists in polymeric forms,
forpolymerizationitrequires
(A) Calcium (B)Magnesium
(C)Manganese (D)Zinc
91. Thenumberofaminoacidsinpre-proinsulin
is
(A) 51 (B)86
(C)109 (D)132
92. Proinsulinhas
(C)105aminoacids(D)109aminoacids
93. Daily secretion of insulin in a normal
adultmanisabout
(A) 10units(B)20units
(C)30units (D)50units
94. Theinsulincontentofpancreasisabout
(A) 50–70units (B)100–150units
2784
(C)150–180units (D)200–250units
95. Thehalflifeofinsulinis
(A) <3–5minutes (B)<8–10minutes
(C)<15minutes (D)<15minutes
96. Insulinstimulates
(A) Hepaticglycogenolysis
(B) Hepaticglycogenesis
(C) Lipolysis
(D) Gluconeogenesis2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
972. Actionofinsulinonlipidmetabolismis
(A) It increases lipolysis and increases
triglyceridesynthesis
(B) It decreases lipolysis and increases
(C) Itdecreases lipolysis and decreases
(D) Itincreasessynthesisoftriglycerideand
increasedketogenesis
98. Insulinincreasestheactivityof
(A) Pyruvatekinase
(B) Phosphorylase
(C) Triacylglycerolkinase
(D) Fructose2,6-bisphosphatase
99. Insulindecreasestheactivityof
(A) cAMPdependentproteinkinase
2785
(B) HMGCoA-reductas
(C) Phosphodiesterase
(D) AcetylCoA-carboxylase
100. Thehumaninsulingenelocatedontheshort
armofchromosome:
(A) 11 (B)17
(C)18 (D)20
101. Normalseruminsulinlevelvariesbetween
(A) 4–25µU/ml(B)25–50µU/ml
(C)70–90µU/ml (D)100–120µU/ml
102. Followingisanormalovernightfastanda
cupofblackcoffee,adiabeticwomanfeels
slightly nausious and decides to skip
breakfast.Howevershedoestakehershot
ofinsulin.Thismayresultin
(A) Heightenedglycogenolysis
(B) Hypoglycemia
(C) Increasedlipolysis
(D) Glycosuria
103. Deficiencyofinsulinresultsin
(A) Rapiduptakeofsugar
(B) Lowbloodglucoselevel
(C) Decreaseurineoutput
(D) Presenceofglucoseinurine
104. Theprimarystimulusforinsulinsecretionis
increased.
2786
(A) Bloodlevelofepinephrine
(B) Bloodlevelofglucagon
(C) Bloodlevelofglucose
(D) Waterintake
105. Theα-cellsofpancreasisletsproduce
(A) Insulin
(B) Glucagon
(C) Somatostatin
106. Thenumberofaminoacidsinsinglechain
polypeptideglucagonsis
(A) 21 (B)29
(C)31 (D)39
107. Thehalflifeofglucagonsis
(A) ~5 (B)~7
(C)~10 (D)~12
108. Glucagonenhances
(A) Hepaticglycogenolysis
(B) Muscleglycogenolysis
(C) Hepaticglycogenesis
(D) Lipogenesis
109. Normalserum glucagons levelin fasting
statevariesbetween
(A) 0-–10pg/ml(B)20–100pg/ml
(C)200–300pg/ml(D)400–500pg/ml
110. Glucagon
2787
(A) Increasesproteinsynthesis
(B) Inhibitslipolysisinadipocytes
(C) Increasesgluconeogenesisinliver
(D) Stimulatesmuscleglycogenolysis
111. Normalserumfreetestosteroneinadultmen
variesbetween
(A) 1–5ng/dl (B)6–9ng/dl
(C)10–30ng/dl (D)50–100ng/dl
112. Normalserum free testosterone in adult
womenvariesbetween
(A) 0.0–0.2ng/dl(B)0.3–2ng/dl
(C)10–30ng/dl (D)50–100ng/dl
113. Theprepubertaltotalserumtestosteroneis
(A) <100ng/100ml(B)<200ng/100ml
(C)<300ng/100ml(D)<400ng/100mlHORMONEMETABOLISM 207
114. Thetotalserumtestosteroneinadultmenis
(A) 50–100ng/100ml
(B) 150–250ng/100ml
(C) 300–1000ng/100ml
(D) 1000–3000ng/100ml
115. Thetotalserumtestosteroneinadultwomen
is
(A) 0–5ng/100ml
(B) 10–15ng/100ml(C)20–80ng/100ml
(D)100–200ng/100ml
116. Theserumestradiollevelinmenis
2788
(A) 0–5pg/ml (B)5–10pg/ml
(C)24–68pg/ml (D)40–60pg/ml
117. Theserumestradiollevelinwomenduring
1–10daysofmenstrualcycleis
(A) 0–10pg/ml(B)12–20pg/ml
(C)24–68pg/ml (D)80–100pg/ml
(A) 5–30pg/ml(B)50–300pg/ml
(C)500–900pg/ml(D)1000pg/ml
(A) 10-20pg/ml(B)22-66pg/ml
(C)73-149pg/ml (D)1000pg/ml
120. Theserum progesteronelevelinfollicular
phaseisabout
(A) 0.2–1.5ng/100ml(B)2.0–2.5ng/100ml
(C) 3.5–4.5 ng/100 ml(D) 5.0–6.5
ng/100 ml121.Serum progesterone
levelduringpregnancyis
(A)<12ng/ml (B)>12ng/ml
(C)<20ng/ml (D)>24ng/ml
122. Serum progesteronelevelduringlutealphase
is
(A) 0.2–203ng/ml (B)3.0–5.0ng/ml
(C)6.0–30ng/ml (D)750ng/ml
2789
123. Androgensareproducedby
(A) Cellsofsertoli
(B) Leydigcells
(C) Retetestis
(D) Efferentductules
124. Theleydingcellactivityiscontrolledby
(A) Intestitialcellstimulatinghormone
(B) Adernocortexstimulatinghormone
(C) Thyroidstimulatinghormone
(D) Melanocytestimulatingharmone
125. Stein-leventhal syndrome is due to
overproductionof
(A) Estrogens (B)Androgens
(C)Gastogens (D)Ethinylestradiol
126. Theproductionofprogesteronebycorpus
luteumcellisstimulatedby
(A) LH (B)TSH
(C)ACTH (D)MSH
127. Inthebiosynthesisoftestosteronetherate
limitingstepisconversionof
(A) Cholesteroltopregnenolone
(B) Pregnenolonetoprogesterone
(C) Progesterone to 17 α-hydroxy
progesterone
(D) 17 α-Hydroxy progesterone to
androstenedione
2790
128. The enzyme catalyzing conversion of
androstenedionetotestosteroneisa
(A) Oxygenase (B)Dehydrogenase
(C)Isomerase (D)Decarboxylase
129. Conversion of testosterone to estradiol
requirestheenzyme:
(A) Aromatase (B)Dehydrogenase
(C)Lyase (D)Isomerase
130. Theprecursoroftestosteroneis
(A) Aldosterone (B)Methyltestosterone
(C)Estrone (D)Pregnenolone
131. Urinary17ketosteroids
(A) Arenotfoundinwomen
(B) Reflect the total production of
androgenicsubstances
(C) Indicate the totalproduction of sex
hormone
(D) Arehighlyactiveandrogens2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
1322. The hormone measured in urine to test
pregnancyis
(A) Anteriorpituitaryluteinizinghormone
(B) Androgen
(C) Progesterone
(D) Choroinicgonadotropin
133. Total number of amino acids in
2791
humanchorionicgonadotropinis
(A) 53 (B)92
(C)145 (D)237
134. A hormoneproducedbycorpusluteumand
placenta,concernedwithrelaxationofpelvis
tissueis
(A) HCG
(B) Chorionicsomatommotropin
(C) Relaxin
(D) Progestins
135. Synthetic progesterone used in oral
contraceptiveis
(A) Norethindrone(B)Pregnenolone
(C)Androstenodione(D)Stilbestrol
136. Young women are protected
againstmyocardialinfaracation because of
theactivityof
(A) Estrogen(B)Progesterone
(C)Growthhormone(D)Oxytocin
137. Hormonereceptorspossessallthefollowing
propertiesexcept
(A) Allofthemareproteins
(B) Theypossessarecognitiondomain
(C) Theybindhormoneswithahighdegree
ofspecificity
(D) Numberofreceptorsinatargetcellis
2792
constant
hormonereceptorsis
(A) Receptors for protein hormones are
presentincytosol
(B) Receptors for steroid hormones are
membranebound
(C) Hormone-receptorbindingisirreversible
(D) Receptorscanundergodownregulation
andupregulatoin
139. Downregulationis
(A) Increaseddestructionofahormone
(B) Feed back inhibition of hormone
secretion
(C) Decreasedconcentrationofahormone
inblood
(D) Decrease in numberofreceptors for
ahormone
140. Allthefollowingstatementsabouthormones
aretrueexcept
(A) Allofthem requirespecificcarriersin
plasma
(B) Allofthem requirespecificreceptorsin
targetcells
(C) Some of them are subject to
feedbackregulation
2793
(D) Someofthem increasethetranscription
ofcertaingenes
steroidhormonesaretrueexcept
(A) Theyarehydrophobic
(B) Theyrequirecarrierstotransportthem
incirculation
(C) Theirreceptorsareintracellular
(D) They require cyclic AMP as second
messenger
142. CyclicAMPactsasthesecondmessenger
for
(A) ADH(B)Glucagon
(C)Calcitonin (D)Allofthese
143. CyclicAMPactsasthesecondmessenger
forallofthefollowingexcept
(A) Oxytocin(B)TSH(C)ACTH(D)FSH144.
Cyclic GMP acts as the second
messengerfor
(A) Nervegrowthfactor
(B) Atrialnatriureticfactor
(C) Epinephrine
(D) Norepinephrine
145. Somehormonesproducetheirintracellular
effectsbyactivating
(A) PhospholipaeA1(B)PhospholipaseBHORMONEMETABOLISM 209
2794
(C)PhospholipaseC(D)Allofthese
146. Inositol triphosphate is the second
messengerfor
(A) Gastrin (B)Cholecystokinin
(C)Oxytocin (D)Allofthese
147. G-proteinsactas
(A) Hormonecarriers
(B) Hormonereceptors
(C) Secondmessengers
(D) Signaltransducers
148. Signaltransducerforglucagonsisa
(A) Cyclicnucleotide
(B) Phosphoinositide
(C) StimulatoryG-protein
(D) InhibitoryG-protein
149. G-proteinsare
(A) Monomers (B)Dimers
(C)Trimers (D)Tetramers
150. G-proteinshaveanucleotidebindingsitefor
(A) ADP/ATP(B)GDP/GTP
(C)CDP/CTP (D)UDP/UTP
151. ThenucleotidebindingsiteofG-proteinsis
presentontheir
(A) α-Subunit(B)β-Subunitα-andβ-
(C)γ-Subunit (D)δ-Subunit
152. Adenylatecyclaseisactivatedby
2795
(A) GDP-bearingα-SubunitofG-protein(B)
GTP-bearingα-SubunitofG-protein
(C) GDP-bearingγ-SubunitofG-protein
(D) GTP-bearingγ-SubunitofG-protein
153. Tyrosinekinaseactivityispresentin
(A) α-Adrenergicreceptors
(B) β-Adrenergicreceptors
(C) Cholinergicreceptors
(D) Insulinreceptors
154. Insulinreceptorisa
(A) Monomer(B)Dimer
(C)Trimer (D)Tetramer
155. Tyrosinekinaseactivityispresentin
(A) Acetylcholinereceptor
(B) PDGFreceptor
(C) ADHreceptor
(D) Allofthese
156. ProteinkinaseCisactivatedby
(C)Diacylglycerol (D)Inositoltriphosphate
157. Melatoninissynthesisedin
(A) Hypothalamus
(B) Posteriorpituitarygland
(C) Pinealgland
(D) Melanocytes
158. Melatoninissynthesisedfrom
2796
(A) Phenylalanine(B)Tyrosine
(C)Tryptophan (D)Noneofthese
159. Melanocytestimulatinghormoneissecreted
by
(A) Pinealgland
(B) Anteriorlobeofpituitarygland
(C) Posteriorlobeofpituitarygland
(D) Intermediatelobeofpituitarygland
160. MSHcauses
(A) Dispersal of melanin granules in
melanocytes
(B) Increase in melanin concentration in
melanocytes
(C) Decereasein melanin concentration in
melanocytes
(D) Increaseinnumberofmelanocytes
161. SecretionofMSHisregulatedby
(A) Feedbackmechanism
(B) Melatonin
(C) Hypothalamichormones
(D) ACTH
162. Ahormonesynthesisedinthehypothalamus
is
(A) Melatonin
(B) Melanocytestimulatinghormone
(C) Vasopressin
2797
(D) Prolactin
163. Posteriorpituitaryglandsecretes2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2 (A) Catecholamines
(B) Oxytocin
(C) Folliclestimulatinghormone
(D) Serotonin
164. Anonapeptideamongthefollowingis
(B) Insulin
(C) ACTH
(D) Thyrotropinreleasinghormone
165. Diabetes insipidus is caused bydeficient
secretionof
(C)Vasopressin (D)Oxytocin
166. Peripheralvasoconstrictioniscausedbyhigh
concentrationsof
(B) Melatonin(C)Glucagon
(D)Oxytocin
167. Somatotropinissecretedby
(A) Hypothalamus (B)Anteriorpituitary
(C)Posteriorpituitary(D)Thyroidgland
168. SecretionofInsulin-likeGrowthFactor-Iis
promotedby
2798
(C)Growthhormone(D)SomatomedinC
169. Growthhormoneincreases
(A) Proteinsynthesis (B)Lipogenesis
(C)Glycogenolysis (D)Allofthese
170. Secretionofgrowthhormoneisinhibitedby
(A) SomatomedinC (B)Somatostatin
(C)Feedbackinhibition(D)Allofthese
171. Secretionofsomatotrophinispromotedby
(A) SomatomedinC
(B) Somatostatin
(C) Growthhormonereleasinghormone
(D) Hypoglycaemia
172. Humangrowthhormonehas
(A) One polypeptide chain and one intra-
chaindisulphidebond
(B) One polypeptide chain and two intra-
chaindisulphidebond
(C) Two polypeptide chains joined by
onedisulphidebond
(D) Two polypeptide chains joined by
twodisulphidebond
173. Numberofaminoacidresiduesinhuman
growthhormoneis
(A) 51 (B)84
(C)191 (D)198
2799
174. Numberofaminoacidresiduesinprolactin
is
(A) 51 (B)84
(C)191 (D)198
175. Secretionofprolactinisregulatedby
(A) Feedbackinhibition
(B) Prolactinreleasinghormone
(C) Prolactinreleaseinhibitinghormone
(D) Allofthese
176. PrecursorofACTHis
(A) Cholesterol (B)Pregnenolone
(C)Corticotropin (D)Pro-opiomelanocortin
177. Allofthefollowingcanbeformedfrom pro-
opiomelanocortinexcept
(A) α-andβ-MSH (B)β-andγ-Lipotropins
(C)α-andβ-Endorphins(D)FSH
proopiomelanocortinaretrueexcept
(A) Itismadeupof285aminoacids
(B) It is synthesised in pars intermedia
andanteriorlobeofpituitarygland
(C) ItistheprecursorofACTHandmelatonin
(D) It is the precursor of corticotropin
likeintermediate lobe peptide and
endorphins
179. AllthefollowingstatementsaboutACTHare
2800
trueexcept
(A) Itisatropichormone
(B) Itstargetcellsare located in adrenal
cortex
(C) Its receptors are located in the cell
membrane
(D) Its second messenger is inositol
triphosphateHORMONEMETABOLISM 211
180. Regulation of ACTH secretion occurs
through
(A) Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH)
andcorticotropin release inhibiting
hormone(CRIH)ofhypothalamus
(B) Feedbackinhibitionbycortisol
(C) CRHandfeedbackinhibitionbycortisol
(D) CRIHandfeedbackinhibitionbycortisol
181. ACTHisapolypeptidemadeupof
182. CRHisapolypeptidemadeupof
183. HormonalactivityofACTHiscompletelylost
onremovalof
(A) 5C-terminalaminoacids
(B) 10 C-terminalamino acids(C) 15 C-
2801
terminalaminoacids
(D)Noneofthese
184. AllthefollowingstatementsaboutTSHare
trueexcept
(A) Itisaglycoprotein
(B) Itismadeupofα-andβ-subunits
(C) Receptorrecognitioninvolvesboththe
subunits
(D) ItssubunitisidenticalwiththoseofFSH
andLH
185. AllthefollowingstatementsaboutTSHare
trueexcept
(A) Itisatropichormone
(B) Itactsonpara-follicularcellsofthyroid
glands
(C) Itsreceptorsaremembrane-bound
(D) ItssecondmessengeriscyclicAMP
thyrotropin releasing hormone are true
except
(A) Itissecretedbyhypothalamus(B)Itisa
pentapeptide
(C) ItincreasesthesecretionofTSH
(D) Itssecretionisinhibitedbyhighlevelof
T3andT4inblood
187. Inmales,luteinisinghormoneactson
2802
(A) Leydigcells (B)Sertolicells
(C)Prostategland (D)Allofthese
188. AllthefollowingstatementsaboutFSHare
trueexcept
(A) It is a tropic hormone secreted by
anteriorpituitary
(B) Its secretion is increased by
gonadotropinreleasinghormone
(C) ItactsonSertolicells
(D) Itincreasesthesynthesisoftestosterone
189. Inmales,secretionofluteinisinghormoneis
inhibitedby
(A) Gonadotropinreleasinghormone
(B) FSH
(C) Highbloodleveloftestosterone
(D) Inhibin
190. Secretion of luteinising hormone is
increasedby
(A) GnRH (B)FSH
(C)Testosterone (D)Noneofthese
191. Instructureandfunction,HCGresembles
(A) FSH (B)LH
(C)GnRH (D)Progesterone
192. Acromegalyresultsfromoverproductionof
(A) ACTHduringchildhood
(B) TSHduringadultlife
2803
(C) Growthhormoneduringchildhood
(D) Growthhormoneduringadultlife
193. Acromegaly results in allthe following
except
(A) Overgrowthofthebonesofface,hands
andfeet
(B) Increasedstature
(C) Enlargementsofviscera
(D) Impairedglucosetolerance
194. Overproductionofgrowthhormoneduring
childhoodcauses
(A) Acromegaly (B)Gigantism
(C)Cushing’sdisease(D)Simmond’sdisease2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
1925. Decreased secretion ofgrowth hormone
duringchildhoodcauses
(A) Simmond’s disease (B) Cushing’s
disease
(C)Dwarfism (D)Cretinism
196. Statureisincreasedin
(A) Gigantism (B)Acromegaly
(C)Simmond’sdisease(D)Cushing’sdisease
197. An amino acid used for the synthesis
ofthyroidhormoneis
(C)Histidine (D)Proline
2804
198. An enzyme required for the synthesis
ofthyroidhormonesis
(A) Iodinase (B)Deiodinase
(C)Thyroperoxidase (D)Thyroxinesynthetase
199. Thyroperoxidaseiodinates
(A) Freetyrosineinthyroidgland
(B) Tyrosineresiduesofthyroglobulin
(C) Tyrosine residuesofthyroxine binding
globulin
(D) Tyrosine residues of thyroxine
bindingprealbumin
200. Inthyroxine,tyrosineresiduesareiodinated
atpositions:
(A) 1and3 (B)2and4
(C)3and5 (D)4and6
201. Thyroidglandtakesupcirculatingiodine
(A) Bysimplediffusion
(B) Byfacilitateddiffusion
(C) Byactiveuptake
(D) Inexchangeforchloride
202. Thyroidhormonesarepresentinblood
(A) Infreeform
(B) In association with thyroxine binding
globulin(TBG)
(C) In association with thyroxine binding
prealbumin(TBPA)
2805
(D) MainlyinassociationwithTBG,partlyin
freeform andsometimesinassociation
withTBPAalso
203. When thyroxine binding globulin and
thyroxinebindingpre-albuminaresaturated
with thyroxine,the excess hormone is
transportedby
(A) Albumin (B)Gammaglobulins
(C)Transcortin (D)Noneofthese
204. Receptorsforthyroidhormonesarepresent
(A) Onthecellmembrane
(B) Acrossthecellmembrane
(C) Insidethecells
(D) InassociationwithG-proteins
205. Bindingofthyroxinetoitsreceptors
(A) ActivatesAdenylatecyclase
(B) Activatesguanylatecyclase
(C) ActivatesastimulatoryG-protein
(D) Increasestranscription
206. Themostpowerfulthyroidhormoneis
(A) ReverseT3 (B)DIT
(C)T3 (D)T4
207. Themostabundantthyroidhormoneinblood
is
(A) FreeT3 (B)T3boundtoTBG
(C)FreeT4 (D)T4boundtoTBG
2806
208. Secretionofthyroidhormonesisregulatedby
(A) Hypothalamus
(B) Anteriorpituitary
(C) Feedbackregulation
(D) Allofthese
209. Clinicalfeaturesofhyperthyroidisminclude
(A) Goitre,heat intolerance,weight loss
andtachycardia
(B) Goitre, tremors, tachycardia and
coldintolerance
(C) Exophthalmos,goiter,tachycardia and
lossofappetite
(D) Exophthalmos, goiter, tremors and
obesity
210. All the following may occur in
hyperthyroidismexcept
(A) Goitre (B)IncreasedappetiteHORMONEMETABOLISM 213
(C)Lossofweight (D)LowBMR
211. Allthefollowingmayoccurinmyxoedema
except
(A) Coldintolerance (B)LowBMR
(C)Tachycardia (D)Dryandcoarseskin
212. Mentalretardationcanoccurin
(A) Cretinism
(B) Juvenilemyxoedema
(C) Myxoedema
2807
(D) Juvenilethyrotoxicosis
213. Parathyroidhormone(PTH)issynthesisedin
(A) Chiefcellsofparathyroidglands
(B) Oxyphilcellsofparathyroidglands
(C) Parafollicularcellsofthyroidglands
(D) Follicularcellsofthyroidgland
214. ThenumberofaminoacidresiduesinPTH:
(A) 51 (B)84
(C)90 (D)115
215. Aminoacidresidueswhichareessentialfor
thebiologicalactivityofPTHare
(A) N-terminal34aminoacids
(B) N-terminal50aminoacids
(C) C-terminal34aminoacids
(D) C-terminal50aminoacids
216. Half-lifeofPTHis
(A) Afewseconds (B)Afewminutes
(C)Afewhours (D)Afewdays
217. ThesecondmessengerforPTHis
(C)Diacylglycerol (D)Inositoltriphosphate
218. PTHcausesallofthefollowingexcept
(A) Increased intestinal absorption of
calcium
(B) Increased intestinal absorption of
phosphate(C) Increased tubular
2808
reabsorptionofcalcium
(D) Increased tubular reabsorption of
phosphate
219. SecretionofPTHisregulatedby
(A) Hypothalamus
(C) FeedbackeffectofplasmaPTH
(D) Feedbackeffectofplasmacalcium
220. AhighconcentrationofPTHinbloodcauses
(A) Increase in plasma calcium and
inorganicphosphorous
(B) Decrease in plasma calcium and
inorganicphosphorous
(C) Increaseinplasmacalciumanddecrease
inplasmainorganicphosphorous
(D) Decreaseinplasmacalciumandincrease
inplasmainorganicphosphorous
221. Tetanycanoccur
(A) Inprimaryhyperparathyroidism
(B) Insecondaryhyperparathyroidism
(C) Inidiopathichypoparathyroidism
(D) Afteraccidentalremovalofparathyroid
glands
222. Crystallisation of insulin occurs in the
presenceof
(A) Chromium (B)Copper
2809
(C)Zinc (D)Calcium
223. Dailysecretionofinsulinisaboutδ–
(A) 10–20mg (B)40–50mg
(C)10–20units (D)40–50units
224. Insulinreceptorsaredecreasedinnumberin
(A) Obesity (B)Starvation
(C)Hyperinsulinism (D)Kwashiorkor
225. Insulinbindingsitesarepresentonthe
(A) α-subunits ofinsulin receptor(B)β-
subunits of insulin receptor (C) γ-
subunitsofinsulinreceptor
(D)α-andβ−subunitsofinsulinreceptor
226. α-Subunitsofinsulinreceptorarepresent
(A) Outsidethecellmembrane(B)Inthecell
membrane
(C) Acrossthecellmembrane
(D) Inthecytosol
227. β-Subunitsofinsulinreceptorarepresent
(A) Outsidethecellmembrane(B)Inthecell
membrane2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2 (C) Acrossthecellmembrane
(D) Inthecytosol
228. In the insulin receptor, tyrosine
kinasedomainispresentin
(A) α-Subunits (B)β-Subunits
2810
(C)γ-Subunits (D)δ-Subunits
229. Bindingofinsulintoitsreceptoractivates
(A) Adenylatecyclase(B)Guanylatecyclase
(C)PhospholipaseC(D)Tyrosinekinase
230. Insulinreceptorismadeupof
(A) Oneα-andoneβ-subunit
(B) Twoα-andtwoβ-subunit
(C) Two,αtwoβ-andtwoγ-subunit
(D) Oneα,oneβ-oneγ-andoneδ-subunit
231. Insulinisrequiredfortheactiveuptakeof
glucosebymostofthecellsexcept
(A) Musclecells (B)Renaltubularcells
(C)Adipocytes (D)Livercells
232. Insulindecreases
(A) Glycogenesis
(B) Glyolysis
(C) Gluconeogenesis
(D) Tubularreabsorptionofglucose
233. Insulinincreases
(A) Glycogenesis(B)Gluconeogenesis
(C)Lipolysis (D)Bloodglucose
234. Insulinincreases
(A) Proteinsynthesis (B) Fatty acid
synthesis
(C)Glycogensynthesis(D)Allofthese
235. Insulindecreasesthesynthesisof
2811
(A) Hexokinase (B)Glucokinase
(C) PEP carboxykinase(D) Glycogen
synthetase
236. Diabetesmellituscanoccurduetoallofthe
followingexcept
(A) Deficientinsulinsecretion
(B) Tumourofβ−cells
(C) Decreaseinnumberofinsulinreceptors
(D) Formationofinsulinantibodies
237. Hypoglycaemiccomacanoccur
(A) Inuntreateddiabetesmellitus
(B) Instarvation
(C) Afteroverdose oforalhypoglycaemic
drugs
(D) Afteroverdoseofinsulin
238. Secondmessengerforglucagonsis
(A) CyclicAMP (B)Diacylglycerol
(C)CyclicGMP (D)Inositoltriphosphate
239. Numberofaminoacidresiduesinglucagons
is
(A) 29 (B)34
(C)51 (D)84
240. Glucagonsecretionincreases
(A) Afteracarbohydrate-richmeal
(B) Afterafat-richmeal
(C) Whenbloodglucoseishigh
2812
(D) Whenbloodglucoseislow
241. The maineffecting of glucagons is to
increase
(A) Glycolysisinmuscles
(B) Glycogenolysisinmuscles
(C) Glycogenolysisinliver
(D) Glycogenesisinliver
242. Tyrosineisrequiredforthesynthesisofallof
thefollowingexcept
(A) Melatonin(B)Epinephrine
(C)Norepinephrine (D)Thyroxine
243. Dopamineissynthesisedfrom
(A) Dihydroxyphenylalanine
(B) Epinephrine
(C) Norepinephrine
(D) Metanephrine
244. Bloodbrainbarriercanbecrossedby
(A) Epinephrine (B)Dopamine
(C)Dopa (D)Allofthese
245. Epinephrineissynthesisedin
(A) Chromaffincellsofadrenalmedulla
(B) Sympatheticganglia
(C) Brain
(D) AlloftheseHORMONEMETABOLISM 215
246. Immediateprecursorofepinephrineis
(A) Metanephrine(B)Norepinephrine
2813
(C)Dopa (D)Dopamine
247. Thechiefmetaboliteofcatecholaminesis
(A) Metanephrine
(B) Normetanephrine
(C) 3,4-Dihydroxymandelicacid
(D) Vanillylmandelicacid
248. An enzyme involved in catabolism of
catecholaminesis
(A) Dopadecarboxylase
(B) Aromaticaminoaciddecarboxylase
(C) Monoamineoxidase
(D) Catecholoxidas
249. Norepinephrinebindsmainlyto
(A) α-Adrenergicreceptors
(B) β-Adrenergicreceptrors
(C) Muscarinicreceptors
(D) Nicotinicreceptors
250. Astimulatory G-protein transduces the
signalsfrom
(A) α1-andβ1-adrenergicreceptors
(B) α2-andβ2-adrenergicreceptors
(C) α1-andα2-adrenergicreceptors
(D) β1-andβ2-adrenergicreceptors
251. Bindingofcatecholaminestoα2−adrenergic
receptors
(A) Increasestheintracellularconcentration
2814
ofcAMP
(B) Increasestheintracellularconcentration
ofcGMP
(C) Decreasestheintracellularconcentration
ofcAMP
(D) Decreasestheintracellularconcentration
ofcGMP
252. Phosphoinositide cascade is activated on
bindingofcatecholaminesto
(A) α1-Adrenergicreceptors
(B) α2-Adrenergicreceptors
(C) β1-Adrenergicreceptors
(D) β2-Adrenergicreceptors
253. Epinephrinedecreases
(A) Glycogenesis(B)Glycogenolysis
(C)Gluconeogenesis(D)Lipolysis
254. Epinephrineincreasestheconcentrationof
freefattyacidsinplasmabyincreasing
(A) Extramitochondrialfattyacidsynthesis
(B) Mitochondrialfattyacidchainelongation
(C) Microsomalfattyacidchainelongation
(D) Lipolysisinadiposetissue
255. Epinephrineincreasesallofthefollowing
except
(A) Glycogenolysisinmuscles
(B) Lipolysisinadiposetissue
2815
(C) Gluconeogenesisinmuscles
(D) Glucagonsecretion
256. Secretionofcatecholaminesisincreasedin
(A) Cushing’s syndrome(B) Addison’s
disease
(C) Phaeochromocytoma
(D) Simmond’sdisease
257. Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex
synthesises
(A) Glucocorticoids
(B) Mineralocorticoids
(C) Androgens
(D) Estrogenandprogesterone
258. Cortisolisa
(A) Glucocorticoid (B)Mineralocorticoid
(C)Androgen (D)Estrogen
259. Themajormineralcorticoidis
(A) Hydrocortisone (B)Aldosterone
(C)AldactoneA (D)Androstenedione
260. Steroidhormonesaresynthesisedinallof
thefollowingexcept
(A) Testes (B)Ovaries
(C)Adrenalmedulla(D)Adrenalcortex
261. Steroidhormonesaresynthesisedfrom
(A) Cholesterol
(B) 7-Dehydrocholesterol
2816
(C) Calcitriol2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2 (D) 7-Hydroxycholesterol
262. Acommonintermediateinthesynthesisof
allthesteroidhormonesis
(A) Pregnenolone
(B) 17-Hydroxypregnenolone
(C) Corticosterone
(D) Progesterone
cortisolandaldosteroneis
(A) Progesterone(B)Testosterone
(C)Estradiol (D)Noneofthese
estrogensis
(A) Cortisol
(B) Andostenedione
(C) Corticosterone
(D) 11-Deoxycorticosterone
265. Glucocorticoidsaretransportedinblood
(A) Inassociationwithtranscortinchiefly
(B) In association with albumin to some
extent
(C) Infreeformpartly
(D) Allofthese
2817
transcortinaretrueexcept
(A) Itissynthesisedinliver
(B) Ittransportsglucocorticoids
(C) Ittransportsaldosterone
(D) Ittransportsprogesterone
267. Thesecondmessengerforglucocorticoids
is
(A) CyclicAMP
(B) CyclicGMP
(C) Inositoltriphosphate
(D) Nosecondmessengerisrequired
268. Glucocorticoidsincreaseallofthefollowing
except
(A) Gluconeogenesis
(B) Lipolysisinextremities
(C) Synthesisofelcosanoida
(D) Hepaticglycogenesis
269. Glucocorticoidsincreasethesynthesisofall
ofthefollowingexcept
(A) Glucokinase
(B) Glucose-6-phosphatase
(C) Fructose-1,6-biphosphatase
(D) Pyruvatecarboxylase
270. Secretionofglucocorticoidaisregulatedby
allthefollowingexcept
(A) Hypothalamus
2818
(C) Feedbackcontrolbybloodglucose
(D) Feedbackcontrolbyglucocorticoids
271. Excessive secretion of glucocorticoids
raisesbloodglucoseby
(A) Decreasingglycogenesis
(B) Increasingglycogenolysis
(C) Increasinggluconeogenesis
(D) InhibitingHMPshunt
272. Mineralcorticoidsregulatethemetabolismof
allofthefollowingexcept
(C)Calcium (D)Chloride
273. Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular
reabsorptionof
(A) Sodiumandcalcium
(B) Sodiumandpotassium
(C) Sodiumandchloride
(D) Potassiumandchloride
274. Mineralocorticoids increase the tubular
secretionof
(C)Chloride (D)Bicarbonate
275. Secretionofmineralcorticoidsisincreased
by
(A) ACTH (B)Angiotensin
2819
(C)Hypokalaemia (D)Hypernatraemia
276. In Addison’s disease, there is
excessiveretentionof
(A) Potassium (B)Sodium
(C)Chloride (D)Water
277. In adrenogenital syndrome due to
totalabsence of21-hydroxylase in adrenal
cortex,thereisHORMONEMETABOLISM 217
(A) Deficientsecretionofglucocorticoids
(B) Deficientsecretionofmineralcorticoids
(C) Excessivesecretionofandrogens
(D) Allofthese
278. Spironolactoneisanantagonistof
(A) Cortisol (B)Hydrocortisone
(C)Aldosterone (D)Testosterone
279. Androgensaresynthesisedin
(A) Leydigcellsintestes(B)Sertolicellsin
testes
(C) Seminiferoustubules
(D) Prostategland
280. Testosteroneistransportedinbloodby
(A) Transcortin
(B) Testosteronebindingglobulin
(C) Testosteroneestrogenbindingglobulin
(D) Albumin
281. Themetabolitesofandrogensare
2820
(A) 17-Hydroxysteroids(B)17-Ketosteroids
(C) 11-Hydroxysteroids
(D) 11-Ketosteroids
282. An androgen which ismorepowerfulthan
testosteroneis
(A) Androstenedione(B)Dihydrotestosterone
(C)Androsterone (D)Epiandrosterone
283. Secretionofandrogensisincreasedby
(A) LH (B)FSH
(C)ACTH (D)Growthhormone
284. Duringlatepregnancy,themajorsourceof
progesteroneis
(A) Adrenalcortex (B)Placenta
(C)Corpusluteum (D)Graafianfollicles
285. Progesteroneistransportedinbloodby
(A) Transcortin
(B) Sexhormonebindingglobulin
(C) Albumin
(D) Testosteroneestrogenbindingglobulin
286. Themajormetaboliteofprogesteroneis
(A) Pregnenolone(B)Pregnanediol
(C)Estradiol (D)Norethindrone
287. Secretionofprogesterone
(A) Ismoreinfirsthalfofmenstrualcycle
thaninsecondhalf
(B) Ismoreinsecondhalfofmenstrualcycle
2821
thaninfirsthalf
(C) Remainsconstantduringmenstrualcycle
(D) Decreasesduringpregnancy
288. Womenbecomesusceptibletoosteoporosis
aftermenopauseduetodecreased
(A) SecretionofParathormone
(B) ConversionofvitaminDintocalcitriol
(C) Secretionofestrogen
(D) Secretionofprogesterone
289. Ahormoneusedfordetectionofpregnancy
is
(A) Estrogen
(B) Progesterone
(C) Oxytocin
(D) Chorionicgonadotropin
290. Placentasecretesallofthefollowingexcept
(A) FSH
(B) Progesterone
(C) Estrogen
(D) Chorionicgonadotropin
291. Gastrinisapolypeptidemadeupof
(A) Fiveaminoacids
(B) Twelveaminoacids
(C) Seventeenaminoacids
(D) Twentyaminoacids
292. Biologicalactivityofgastrinispresentinthe
2822
(A) FourN-terminalaminoacids(B)FourC-
terminalaminoacids(C)FiveN-terminal
aminoacids
(D)FiveC-terminalaminoacids
βendorphinaretrueexceptµ:
(A) Itisapolypeptide
(B) Itsprecursorispro-opio-melanocortin
(C) Itsreceptorsarerepresentinbrain
(D) Itsactionisblockedbymorphine
294. Allthefollowingstatementsaboutepidermal2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2 growthfactoraretrueexcept
(A) Itisaprotein
(B) Itpossessquaternarystructure
(C) Its receptoris made up ofa single
polypeptidechain
(D) Itsreceptorpossessestyrosinekinase
domain
295. Met-enkephalinisa
(A) Tripeptide (B)Pentapeptide
(C)Octapeptide (D)Decapeptide
296. VasoconstrictoreffectofADHismediatedby
(A) cAMP (B)cGMP
(C)ProteinkinaseC (D)AngiotensinII
297. The rate limiting step in catecholamine
2823
synthesisiscatalysedby
(B) Tyrosinehydroxylase
(C) Dopadecarboxylase
(D) Phenylethanolamine N-methyl
transferase
298. Dopadecarboxylaseisinhibitedby
(A) Epinephrine (B)Norepinephrine
(C)α−Methyldopa (D)Noneofthese
299. Tyrosinehydroxylaseisinhibitedby
(A) Catecholamines (B)α−Methyldopa
(C)Phenylalanine (D)Vanillylmandelicacid
300. Urinaryexcretionofvanillylmadelicacidis
increasedin
(A) Phaeochromocytoma(B) Cushing’s
syndrome
(C) Carcinoidsyndrome
(D) Aldosteronism
301. Iodideuptakebythyroidglandisdecreased
by
(A) Thicyanate (B)Thiouracil
(C)Thiourea (D)Methimazole
302. Bindingofgrowthhormonetoitsreceptor
resultsinphosphorylationof
(A) JAK-2
(B) Growthhormonereceptor
2824
(C) STATs
(D) Allofthese
303. Bindingofgrowthhormonetoitsreceptor
resultsinincreasedtranscriptionof
(A) c-fosgene (B)c-mycgene
(C)p-53gene (D)Noneofthese
304. ActivationofIRS-1,PI-3kinaseandGRB-
2isbroughtaboutby
(A) Glucagon(B)Insulin
(C)Prolactin (D)IGF-2
305. TheproteinIRS-1isphosphorylatedby
(A) ProteinkinaseA
(B) ProteinkinaseC
(C) Tyrosine kinase activity of insulin
receptor
(D) TyrosinekinaseactivityofIGF-1receptor
306. PhosphorylatedIRS-1activatesGRB-2which
is
(A) G-proteinreceptorbindingprotein-2
(B) Growthfactorreceptorbindingprotein-2
(C) Growthhormonereceptorbindingprotein
-2
(D) Glucocorticoidreceptorbindingprotein-2
307. STATproteinsare
(A) Thermostatproteinsofbrain
(B) Glucostat proteins of hepatocyte
2825
cellmembrane
(C) Shorttermactivatorsoftranslation
(D) Signal transduction and activators
oftranscription
308. ActivatedphospholipaseCactson
(A) Phosphatidylinositol-4,5-biphosphate
(B) Inositol-1,4,5-triphosphate
(C) ProteinkinaseC
(D) Pl-3kinase
309. PhospholipaseCisactivatedby
(A) Gsproteins (B)Giproteins
(C)Gqproteins (D)G12proteins
310. Proteoglycansaremadeupofproteinsand
(A) Glucosamine(B)Mannosamine
(C)Sialicacid (D)Mucopolysaccharides
311SweatchloridesareincreasedinHORMONEMETABOLISM 219
(A)Cysticfibrosis (B)Pancreaticcancer
(C)Acutepancreatitis(D)Noneofthese
312. Allthe following statements aboutcystic
fibrosisarecorrectexcept
(A) It is inherited as an autosomal
recessivedisease
(B) Itaffectsanumberofexocrineglands
(C) Itcausesincreasedsweating
(D) Sweatchloridesareabove60mEq/Lin
thisdisease
2826
313. Radioactiveiodineuptakebythyroidgland24
hoursofatestdoseis
(A) 1.5–15%ofthetestdone(B)15–20%of
thetestdone(C)20–40% ofthetest
done
(D)50–70%ofthetestdone
314. Radioactiveiodineuptakebythyroidglandis
increasedin
(A) Endemicgoitre (B)Hyperthyroidism
(C)Myxoedema (D)Creatinism
315. Normalrangeoftotalthyroxineinserumis
(A) 0.8–2.4ng/dl(B)0.8–2.4µg/dl
(C)5–12ng/dl (D)5–12µg/dl
316. Normalrange of totaltri-iodothyroninein
serumis
(A) 0.1–0.2ng/dl(B)0.1–0.2µg/dl
(C)0.8–2.4ng/dl (D)0.8–2.4µg/dl
317. AdministrationofTSH increasesserum T3
andT4in
(A) Hyperthyroidism of pituitary origin(B)
Hyperthyroidismofthyroidorigin
(C) Hypothyroidismofpituitaryorigin
(D) Hypothyroidismofthyroidorigin
318. HighlevelofT3andT4andlowTSHinserum
indicates
(A) Hyperthyroidismofpituitaryorigin
2827
(B) Hypothyroidismofpituitaryorigin
(C) Hyperthyroidismofthyroidorigin
(D) Hypothyroidismofthyroidorigin
319. BMRisincreasedin
(A) Endemicgoitre (B)Thyrotoxicosis
(C)Myxoedema (D)Cretinism
correctlydescribeseukaryoticDNA?
(A) If uses DNA polymerase with
nucleaseactivities
(B) Itisreplicated bidirectionallyatmany
points
(C) ItcontainsnorepetitiveDNA
(D) Itisnonlinear
321. Whichoneofthefollowingcausesframeshift
mutation?
(A) Transition
(B) Transversion
(C) Deletion
(D) Substitutionofpurinetopyrimidine
322. Thesecondmessengerformanyhormones
is
(A)ATP (B) cyclic
AMP
(C)cGMP (D)UTP
323. Themostpotenthormoneconcernedwiththe
2828
retentionofsodiuminthebodyis
(A) Cortisone(B)Aldosterone
(C)Corticosterone (D)Cortisol
324. Aspirinblocksthesynthesisof
(A) Prostaglandinsonly(B)Prostacyclinsonly
(C) Thromboxanesonly
(D) Allofthese
325. Retentionofsodium inthebodyleadstoa
retentionof
(A) Potassium
(B) Water
(C) Potassiumandwater
(D) Neitherpotassiumnorwater
326. cAMPissocalledbecauseitisformedduring
(A) TCAcycle
(B) Ureacycle
(C) Rhodopsincycle
(D) Ithasacyclicstructure
327. Proteinboundiodineis_________boundto
protein.2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2 (A) Iodine (B)Thyroidhormones
(C)Thyroxine (D)Triiodothyronine
328. In hypophysectonized animals,
fastingproduces
(A) Severehyperglycemia
2829
(B) Hypoglycemia
(C) Nochangeinbloodsugar
(D) Mildhyperglycemia
329. Calcitomicaisantagonistto
(A) Serotonin
(B) Thyroxine
(C) Triiodothyronine
(D) Parathyroidhormone
330. Thereispolyuriawithoutglycosuriainthis
disorder
(A) Diabetesinsipidus(B)Diabetesmillitus
(C)Bronzediabetes (D)Juvenilediabetes
331. Inhyperparathyroidismthereis
(A) Hypocalcemia(B)Hypophophatemia
(C)Hypokalemia (D)Hyperkalemia
332. Insulinresistanceisencounteredin
(A) Addison’sdisease(B)Hypothyroidism
(C)Hypopituctarism (D)Acromegaly
333. Richestsourceofprostaglandinsinahuman
maleis
(A) Blood (B)Urine(C)Semen (D)C.S.F.
334. Oneofthefollowingisnotusedasasecond
messengerbyhormones:
(A) mRNA
(B) cAMP
(C) Calciumions
2830
(D) Myoinisotol1,4,5triphosphate
335. Thispancreatichormoneincreasestheblood-
sugarlevel:
(A) Insulin
(B) Glucagon
(C) Pancreozymin
336. Whichoneofthefollowingstatementsisfully
correct?
(A) Hormonesareneededinthediet
(B) Hormones can be elaborated only
byendocrineglands
(C) Allthe hormones enterthe cells and
performtheirfunction
(D) Hormonesaresubstancesynthesizedin
thebodyinsmallquantitiesandcontrol
andregulatemetabolicevents
337. T3is
(A) Thyroxine
(B) Triodothyronine
(C) Triodotyrosine
(D) Reversetriiodothyronine
338. Whcihofthefollowinghormoneisapeptide
oflessthantenaminoacids?
(A) Insulin (B)Growthhormone
(C)Oxytocin (D)Parathyroidhormone
2831
339. Tyrosine ofthyroglobulin is acted uponby
________togivemonoanddiiodotyrosines.
(A) PotassiumIodide
(B) Iodine
(C) IodideI
(D) Highervalencystateofiodine(I
340. Whcihofthefollowing hormonedoesnot
activateadenylatecyclase?
(A) Epinephrine
(B) Glucagon
(C) Parathyroidhormone
(D) Insulin
341. Pheochromacytomaisatumorof
(A) adrenalmedulla(B)bone
(C) headofPancreas
(D) pituitary
342. Which oneofthefollowing statementsis
incorrect?
(A) Insulin increases glucose
phosphorylation
(B) Insulinincreasesglycolysis
(C) InsulinaugmentsHMPshunt
(D) Insulinpromotesgluconeogenesis
343. Whichofonering inthestructureofthe
2832
followingisaromatic?
(A) Androgens (B)EstrogensHORMONEMETABOLISM 221
(C)Cholesterol (D)Bileacids
344. WhichofoneofthefollowingisnotGUT
hormone?
(A) Motiline (B)Secretion
(C)Gastrin (D)Calcitonin
345. Which of the following hormones are
synthesizedasprehormones
(A) Vasopressinandoxytocin
(B) Growthhormoneandinsulin
(C) Insulinandparathyroidhormone
(D) InsulinandGlucagon
346. Thishormonehasdisulphidegroup:
(A) Glucagon(B)Insulin
(C)T4 (D)Epinephrine
347. The blood sugar raising action of the
hormoneofsuprarenalcortexisdueto
(A) Glyconeogenesis
(B) Glycogenolysis
(C) Glucagonlikeactivity
(D) duetoinhibitionofglomerularfiltration
ofglucose
348. Hyperinsulinismcancausecomasince
(A) Thechiefnutrientforthebrainisglucose
(B) Thechiefnutrientfortheheartisglucose
2833
(C) The glucostatic role of the liver is
damaged
(D) Thekidneysaredamaged
349. Which of the following property
ofprostaglandins has been utilized by
chiniciansinhospitalfor
(A) Inducingfever
(B) Causinginflammation
(C) Effectingsmoothmusclecontraction
(D) Disaggregationofspermatozoa
350. A major structural difference
betweenestrogensandandrogensisthefact
that
(A) TheandrogensareusuallyC21steroids
(B) The estrogens are usually digitonin
precipitable
(C) Theandrogenshaveanaromaticring
(D) Theestrogenshaveanaromaticring
351. Alloxancanexperimentallyinducediabetes
mellitusdueto
(A) Stimulation ofαcells ofthe islets of
langerhans
(B) Necrosisoftheβcellsoftheislets
(C) Potentiationofinsulinaseactivity
(D) Epinephrinelikeaction
352. Whichofthefollowingalleviatesasthma?
2834
(A) PGE1only(B)PGE1andPGE2
(C)PGF2 (D)PGA
353. Thyroxineisderivedfrom
(A) Tyrosine(B)Tyranine
(C)Taurine (D)Tryptaine
354. Adrnealcorticalresponseispoorin
(A) Kwashiorkor (B)Marasmus
(C)Fattyliver (D)Atherosclerosis
355. Proteinboundiodineinbloodispresentto
theextentof_______/dL
(A) 3–8mg (B)4–8mg
(C)3–8gm (D)4–8gm
356. Prostaglandinsare
(A) C2unsaturatedacids
(B) C27saturatedalcohols
(C) C20saturatedacids
(D) C27saturatedalcohols
357. Whichoftneofthefollowingscientistshas
notworkedinthefieldofprostaglandins?
(A) Voneuler(B)SultanKarim
(C)Andrerobet (D)Kendal
358. The suffix number in the names of
prostaglandinsgivesthenumberof
(A) OHgroups (B)Doublebonds
(C)Acidgroups (D)Ketoacids
359. One of the important functions of
2835
prostacyclinsis
(A) Inhibition of platelet aggregation(B)
Contractionofuterus
(C) Decreaseofgastricsecretion
(D) Relievingosthma2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
3602. Vasopressinisalsoknownas
(A) Antidiabetogenichormone
(B) Antidiuretichormone
(C) Somatotropichormone
(D) Pitoxin
361. Which of the following is used for
inducinglabour?
(A) Prostaglandins (B)Prostacyclins
(C)Vasopressin (D)Thromboxanes
362. Which of the following does not have
disulphidebond?
(A) Oxytocin(B)Vasopressin
363. Whichisincorrect?Epinephrinpromotesthe
glycogenolysisin
(A) Muscle (B)Liver
(C)Heart (D)Noneofthese
364. Whichofoneofthefollowingisreleasedby
hypothalamus?
(A) Somatostatin
2836
(B) Somatotropichormone
(C) SomatomedinC
(D) Luteinisinghormone
365. Whichoneofthefollowingisnotliberatedby
theadenohypophysis?
(A) Growthhormone (B)TSH
(C)ACTH (D)Gonadotropin
366. Whichofthefollowinghormoneisnotunder
thecontrolofACTH?
(A) Aldosterone (B)Cortisol
(C)Corticosterone (D)Deoxycorticosterone
367. Whichofthefollowingorganprefersfructose
toglucose
(A) Liver(B)Testes
(C)Pancreas (D)Heart
368. Totalsynthesisofcreatinecanbedoneby
(A) Liver(B)Kidneys
(C)Pancreas (D)Heart
369. Thyrotropinreleasinghormoneisa
(A) Dipeptide(B)Tripeptide
(C)Octapeptide (D)Decapeptide
370. Hypthalamo_________gonadaloxis,fillupthe
blankwiththesuitableword.
(A) Adrenal (B)Thyroid
(C)Hypophyseal (D)Pancreatic
371. The sequence ofamino acids in human
2837
growthhormoneandthesynthesisweredone
by
(A) Sanger (B)Krebs
(C)ChahHoli (D)Molisch
372. Proopiomelanocortinistheprecussorof
(A) ACTH (B)β-tropin
(C)Endorphins (D)Allofthese
373. Adrenalinissynthesizedfrom
(A) Adenine (B)Adenosine
374. Corticotropinreleasinghormonecontrolsthe
directreleaseof
(A) Pro-opiomelanocortin
(B) αMSH(C)βMSH
(D)Endorphins
375. The immediate parent of α,β and γ
endorphinsis
(A) Pro-opiomelanocortin
(B) β-lipotropin
(C) ATCH
(D) Lipoprotein
376. Prolactin release inhibiting hormone is
believedtobe
(A) Serotonin(B)Norepinephrine
(C)Dopanine (D)Acetylcholine
377. Whcihoneofthefollowingisnotasymptom
2838
ofcushing’sdisease?
(A) Hyperglycemia (B)Hypernatremia
(C)Hirsutism (D)Hyperkalemia
378. Insulinincreasesthepermeabilityofglucose
acrosstheplasmamembraneofmusclecells
by
(A) Actingonadenylatecycle
(B) By loosening the integrity of the
membrane
(C) ThroughCa
2+
ionsHORMONEMETABOLISM 223
(D) Bymembranecrutingthehexosecarries
ofintracellular organelles and making
themfusewiththeplasmamembrane
379. Somatostatinisproducedby
(A) Hypothalamus
(B) Pancreas
(C) Hypothalamusandpancreas
(D) HypothalamusandAdrenals
380. Insulinlikegrowthhormonesareproducedby
(A) Hypophysis (B)Liver
(C)Pancreas (D)Thyroid
381. Inpheochromocytoma,urinewillhave
(A)FILGU (B)VMA
(C)5HIAA (D)LysineandArginine
2839
382. Aldosteronism willpresent the chemical
pathologyof
(A) Addison’s(B)Cushing’s
(C)Grave’s (D)Hartnup’s
383. OneofthefollowingdoesnotbindT3and
T4:
(A) Albumin (B)TBG(C)TBPA(D)
Haptoglobin
384. Epinephrinecausesinmuscle:
(A) Gluconeogenesis(B)Glycogenesis
(C)Glycolysis (D)Glycogenolysis
385. ReverseT3is
(A) Asyntheticcompoundgivencounterthe
effectsofT3
(B) Formed from T4 buthasno hormone
function
(C) FormedbyisomerisationofT3
(D) Formed from T4 and has hormone
function
386. This pancreatic hormone promotes
hypogenesis:
(C)Stomatostation (D)Pancreozymine
387. It is unique that the following
singleantidiabetogenic hormone effectively
counter acts the several diabetogenic
2840
hormones:
(A) Glucagon(B)Glucocorticoids
(C)Insulin (D)Growthhormone
388. Whichofthefollowingstatementsiscorrect?
(A) Thyroxineinhibitsutilizationofglucose
(B) Insulinincreasesutilizationofglucose
(C) Glucagon promotes muscle
glycogenolysis
(D) Insulin inhibits lipogenesis from
carbohydrates
389. Steroidhormonesaresynthesizedfrom
(A) Adenine (B)Protein
(C)Vitamin (D)Cholesterol
390. Hormones actonlyon specific organs or
tissues.Thesearecalled
(A) Activesites (B)Reactioncentre
(C)Targetorgan/Tissue(D)Physiologicalsite
391. __________ hormone is a single chain
polypeptide having 32 amino acids with
molecularweightof3,600.
(A) Testosteron (B)Thyroxine
(C)Calcitonine (D)Vasopressin
392. Whichofthefollowingisnotedincushing’s
syndrome,atumorassociateddiseaseofthe
adrenalcortex?
(A) Decreasedproductionofepinephrine
2841
(B) Excessiveproductionofepinephrine
(C) Excessiveproductionofvasopressin
(D) Excessiveproductionofcortisol
393. Acupofstrongcoffeewouldbeexpectedto
(A) Interferewithsynthesisofprostaglandins
(B) DecreasetheeffectsofGlucagon
(C) Enhancetheeffectsofepinephrine
(D) Providethevitaminnicotinicacid
394. Increased reabsorption ofwaterfrom the
kidneyisthemajorconsequenceofwhichof
thefollowinghormones?
(A) Cortisol (B)Insulin
(C)Vasopressin (D)Aldosterone
395. Lack of Glucocorticoids and mineral
corticoidsmightbeconsequenceofwhichof
thefollowingdefectsintheadrenalcortex?2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2 (A) Androstenadionedeficiency
(B) Estronedeficiency
(C) 17α-OHprogesteronedeficiency
(D) C-α-Hydroxylasedeficiency
396. ADPribosylationisthemodeofactionof
(A) Choleratoxin
(B) Acetylcholine
(C) Muscerinicreceptors
(D) CyclicAMP
2842
397. Which one ofthe following hormones is
derivedmostcompletelyfromtyrosine?
(A) Glucagon(B)Thyroxine
(C)Insulin (D)Prostaglandins
398. Insulinregulatesfattyacidsynthesisby
(A) Dephosphorylating of acetyl CoA
carboxylase
(B) Activatingphosphorylase
(C) InhibitingmalonylCoAformation
(D) Controlling carnitine-Acyl CoA
transferaseactivity
399. Hormonalstimulationoftheformationofthe
secondmessengerinositol1,4,5triphosphate
(IP3)quicklyleadstothereleaseofwhich
otherintracellularmessenger?
(A) cAMP (B)Prostaglandin
(C)Calcinon (D)Leukotriene
400. Hormone receptors that stimulate cAMP
production
(A) arepartofacomplexoftwoproteins
thattransform the externalsignalinto
internal
cAMPproduction
(B) areproteinsdistinctandseparatefrom
thosethat catalyze the production of
cAMP
2843
(C) causerelease ofthe catalyticsubunit
uponbindingofthehormone
(D) arenotveryspecificandbindanumber
ofdifferenthormones
401. AllthefollowinghormonesusecAMPasa
secondmessengerexcept
(A) Estrogen(B)FSH
(C)Luteinizing (D)Glucagon
402. All the following hormones promote
hyperglycemiaexcept
(A) Epinephrine (B)Norepinephrine
403. Glucagon activates the enzyme
adenylcyclasewhichcausestheincreaseof
blood sugarlevel.Hence thishormone is
called
(A) Hypoglycemicfactor
(B) Hyperglycemicfactor
(C) Antidiauriticfactor
(D) Thyrotropin-releasingfactor
404. TSHhormonebiochemicallyisa
(A) Protein (B)Fat
(C)Glycoprotein (D)Carbohydrate
405. Thesecondarysexualcharactersinfemales
iseffectedby
(A) Estrogens (B)Glucocorticoids
2844
(C)MIS (D)Noneofthese
406. A hypochromic microcytic anaemia
whichincreasesFe,storeinthebonemarrow
maybe
(A) Folicacidresponsive
(B) VitaminB12responsive
(C) Pyridoxineresponsive
(D) VitaminCresponsive
407. GastricSecretionisregulatedbythehormone:
(A) Glucagon(B)Gastrin
(C)Epinephrin (D)ACTH
408. Anessentialagentforconvertingglucoseto
glycogeninliveris
(A) Laticacid(B)GTP
(C)UTP (D)Pyruvicacid
409. Which ofthe following hormones is not
involvedincarbohydratemetabolism?
(A) ACTH (B)Glucagon
(C)Vasopressin (D)Growthhormone
410. Intheprocessoftranscription,theflowof
geneticinformationisfrom
(A) DNAtoDNA (B)DNAtoprotein
(C)RNAtoprotein (D)DNAtoRNAHORMONEMETABOLISM 225
411. Anticodonregionisanimportantpartofthe
structureof
(A) r-RNA (B)t-RNA
2845
(C)m-RNA (D)z-DNA
412. Thyroidfunctionisdeterminedbytheuseof
isotopes:
(A) Na
24
(B)K
42
(C)Ca45 (D)I131
413. Perniciousanaemiaisdiagnosedbytheradio
activesubstance:
(A) Cl
36
(B)P
32
(C)CO
60
(D)Fe
ANSWERS
59
1.C2.B3.A4.A5.A6.C7.A8.B9.B10.D11.B12.B
13.A 14.A 15.B 16.A 17.B 18.C
19.A 20.C 21.A 22.C 23.A 24.B
25.C 26.A 27.C 28.A 29.C 30.A
31.C 32.C 33.C 34.A 35.A 36.A
37.A 38.C 39.B 40.B 41.A 42.A
43.A 44.C 45.B 46.C 47.A 48.A
49.A 50.B 51.C 52.B 53.B 54.C
55.C 56.D 57.C 58.C 59.B 60.B
2846
61.A 62.B 63.D 64.C 65.A 66.A
67.D 68.B 69.A 70.D 71.C 72.D
73.B 74.B 75.A 76.C 77.A 78.D
79.C 80.C 81.A 82.D 83.B 84.A
85.A 86.C 87.A 88.B 89.A 90.D
91.C 92.B 93.D 94.D 95.A 96.B
97.B98.A99.A100.A101.A102.B103.D104.C105.B106.B107.A108.A
109.B110.C111.C112.B113.A114.C115.C116.C117.C118.B119.C120.A121.D
122.C
123.B124.A125.B126.A127.A128.B129.A130.D131.B132.D133.D134.C135.
A136.A
137.D138.D139.D140.A141.D142.D143.A144.B145.C146.D147.D148.C149.
C150.B
151.A152.B153.D154.D155.B156.C
157.C 158.C 159.D 160.B 161.C 162.C
163.B164.A165.C166.A167.B168.C169.A170.B171.C172.B173.C174.D175.C
176.D
177.D178.C179.D180.C181.A182.B183.D184.D185.B186.B187.A188.D189.
C190.A
191.B192.D193.B194.B195.C196.A197.A198.C
199.B200.C201.C202.D203.A204.C205.D206.C207.D208.D209.A210.D211.C
212.A
213.A214.B215.A216.B217.A218.D219.D220.C221.D222.C223.D224.A225.
A226.A
227.C228.B229.D230.B231.D232.C233.A234.D235.C236.B237.D238.A239.
A240.D
241.C242.A243.A244.C245.D246.B247.D248.C249.A250.D251.C252.A253.
A254.D
2847
255.C256.C257.A258.B259.C260.A261.A262.A263.A264.B265.D266.C267.D
268.C
269.A270.C271.C272.C273.C274.B275.B276.A277.D278.C279.A280.C281.B
282.B
283.A 284.B 285.A 286.B 287.B 288.C
289.D 290.A 291.C 292.B 293.D 294.B
295.B296.C297.B298.C299.A300.A301.A302.D303.A304.B305.B306.B307.D
308.A
309.C310.D311.A312.C
313.C314.B315.D316.B317.C318.C319.B320.C321.C322.B323.B324.D325.B
326.D
327.B328.B329.D330.A331.B332.D333.C334.A335.B336.D337.B338.C339.
D340.D
341.A342.D
343.B 344.D 345.C 346.B 347.A 348.A
349.C350.D351.B352.B353.A354.A355.A356.A357.D358.B359.A360.A
361.A 362.D 363.C 364.A 365.D 366.A
367.B368.C369.B370.C371.C372.D373.C374.A375.B376.C377.D378.D
379.C 380.B 381.B 382.B 383.D 384.D
385.B 386.A 387.C 388.B 389.D 390.CHORMONEMETABOLISM 227
391.C392.D393.C394.C395.D396.A397.B398.A399.C400.B401.A402.C403.B
404.C
405.A406.D407.B408.C
409.C 410.D 411.B 412.D 413.C1. Anucleosideconsistsof
(A) Nitrogenousbase
(B) Purineorpyrimidinebase+sugar
(C) Purineorpyrimidinebase+phosphorous
2848
(D) Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar+
phosphorous
2. Anucleotideconsistsof
(A) Anitrogenousbaselikecholine
(B) Purine + pyrimidine base + sugar+
phosphorous
(C) Purineorpyrimidinebase+sugar
(D) Purineorpyrimidinebase+phosphorous
3. Apurinenucleotideis
(A) AMP(B)UMP
(C)CMP (D)TMP
4. Apyrimidinenucleotideis
(A) GMP(B)AMP
(C)CMP (D)IMP
5. Adenineis
(A) 6-Aminopurine
(B) 2-Amino-6-oxypurine
(C) 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine
(D) 2,4-Dioxypyrimidine
6. 2,4-Dioxypyrimidineis
(A) Thymine(B)Cystosine
(C)Uracil (D)Guanine
CHAPTER9
NUCLEICACIDS
2849
7. Thechemicalnameofguanineis
(A) 2,4-Dioxy-5-methylpyrimidine
(B) 2-Amino-6-oxypurine
(C) 2-Oxy-4-aminopyrimidine
(D) 2,4-Dioxypyrimidine
8. Nucleotides and nucleic acids
concentrationare often also expressed in
termsof
(A) ng (B)mg
(C)meq (D)ODat260nm
9. Thepyrimidinenucleotideactingasthehigh
energyintermediateis
(A) ATP(B)UTP
(C)UDPG (D)CMP
10. The carbon of the pentose in ester
linkagewith thephosphatein anucleotide
structureis
(A) C1 (B)C3
(C)C4 (D)C5
11. Uracilandriboseform
(A) Uridine (B)Cytidine
(C)Guanosine (D)Adenosine
12. The most abundant free nucleotide
inmammaliancellsis
NUCLEICACIDS 235NUCLEICACIDS 229
(A) ATP(B)NAD
2850
(C)GTP (D)FAD
13. ThemeanintracellularconcentrationofATP
inmammaliancellisabout
(A) 1mM (B)2mM
(C)0.1mM (D)0.2mM
14. ThenucleicacidbasefoundinmRNAbutnot
inDNAis
(A) Adenine(B)Cytosine
(C)Guanine (D)Uracil
15. InRNAmoleule‘Caps’
(A) AllowtRNAtobeprocessed
(B) AreuniquetoeukaryoticmRNA
(C) Occuratthe3’endoftRNA
(D) Allowcorrecttranslationofprokaryotic
mRNA
16. IncontrasttoeukaryoticmRNA,prokaryotic
mRNA
(A) Canbepolycistronic
(B) Issynthesizedwithintrons
(C) Canonlybemonocistronic
(D) HasapolyAtail
17. ThesizeofsmallstableRNArangesfrom
(A) 0–40nucleotides
(B) 40–80nucleotides
(C) 90–300nucleotides
(D) Morethan320nucleotides
2851
18. The number of smallstable RNAs per
cellrangesfrom
(A) 10–50,000
(B) 50,000–1,00,000
(C) 1,00,000–10,00,000
(D) Morethan10lakhs
19. Molecular weight of heterogenous
nuclearRNA(hnRNA)is
(A) Morethan10
(B)10
to10
(C)10
to10
(D)Lessthan10
20. In RNA molecule guanine content does
notnecessarilyequalitscytosinecontentnor
doesitsadeninecontentnecessarilyequal
itsuracilcontentsinceitisa
(A) Singlestrandmolecule
(B) Doublestrandedmolecule
(C) Doublestrandedhelicalmolecule
2852
(D) Polymer of purine and pyrimidine
ribonucleotides
21. The nitrogenous base present in the
RNAmoleculeis
(A) Thymine(B)Uracil
(C)Xanthine (D)Hypoxanthine
(A) Uracil (B)Adenine
(C)Thymine (D)Ribose
23. ThesugarmoietypresentinRNAis
(A) Ribulose(B)Arabinose
24. InRNAmolecule
(A) Guanine content equals cytosine(B)
Adeninecontentequalsuracil
(C) Adeninecontentequalsguanine
(D) Guanine content does not necessarily
equalitscytosinecontent.
25. Methylated purines and pyrimidines
arecharacteristicallypresentin
(A) mRNA (B)hnRNA
(C)tRNA (D)rRNA
26. Thymineispresentin
(A) tRNA (B)RibosomalRNA
(C)MammalianmRNA(D)ProkaryoticmRNA
27. The approximate numberofnucleotidesin
2853
tRNAmoleculeis
(A) 25 (B)50
(C)75 (D)100
28. Ineverycell,thenumberoftRNAmolecules
isatleast
(A) 10 (B)20
(C)30 (D)40
29. ThestructureoftRNAappearslikea
(A) Helix (B)Hairpin
(C)Cloverleaf (D)Coil
30. Although each specific tRNA differs from
theothersinitssequenceofnucleotides,all
tRNAmoleculescontainabasepairedstem2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 thatterminatesinthesequenceCCAat
(A) 3′Termini (B)5′Termini
(C)Anticodonarm (D)35′′-Termini
31. TransferRNAsareclassifiedonthebasisof
thenumberofbasepairsin
(A) Acceptorarm (B)Anticodonarm (C)
Darm (D)Extraarm
32. In tRNA molecule D arm is named for
thepresenceofthebase:
(A) Uridine (B)Pseudouridine
(C)Dihydrouridine (D)Thymidine
2854
33. TheacceptorarminthetRNAmoleculehas
(A) 5Basepairs(B)7Basepairs
(C)10Basepairs (D)20Basepairs
34. In tRNA molecule, the anticodon
armpossesses
(A) 5Basepairs(B)7Basepairs
(C)8Basepairs (D)10Basepairs
35. The T ψ C arm in the tRNA molecule
possessesthesequence
(A) T,pseudouridineandC(B)T,uridineand
(C) T,dihydrouridineandC
(D) T,adenineandC
36. Double helical structure model of the
DNAwasproposedby
(A) PaulingandCorey(B)PeterMitchell
(C) WatsonandCrick
(D) KingandWooten
37. DNAdoesnotcontain
(A) Thymine(B)Adenine
(C)Uracil (D)Deoxyribose
38. ThesugarmoietypresentinDNAis
(A) Deoxyribose(B)Ribose
(C)Lyxose (D)Ribulose
39. DNArichinA-Tpairshave
(A) 1Hydrogenbond(B)2Hydrogenbonds
2855
(C)3Hydrogenbonds(D)4Hydrogenbonds
40. InDNAmolecule
(A) Guanine content does not equal
cytosinecontent
(B) Adenine content does not equal
thyminecontent
(C) Adeninecontentequalsuracilcontent
(D) Guanine content equals cytosine
content
41. DNArichinG-Cpairshave
(A) 1Hydrogenbond(B)2Hydrogenbonds
(C)3Hydrogenbonds(D)4Hydrogenbonds
42. The fact that DNA bears the
geneticinformationofanorganism implies
that
(A) Basecompositionshouldbeidentical
fromspeciestospecies
(B) DNA basecompositionshouldcharge
withage
(C) DNA from different tissues in the
sameorganism shouldusuallyhavethesame
basecomposition
(D) DNA base composition is altered
withnutritionalstateofanorganism
43. The width (helical diameter) of the
doublehelixinB-formDNAinnmis
2856
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
44. ThenumberofbasepairinasingleturnofB-
formDNAabouttheaxisofthemoleculeis
(A) 4 (B)8
(C)10 (D)12
45. ThedistancespannedbyoneturnofBform
DNAis
(A) 1.0nm (B)2.0nm
(C)3.0nm (D)3.4nm
46. InaDNAmoleculethethymineconcentration
is30%,theguanosineconcentrationwillbe
(A) 10%(B)20%
(C)30% (D)40%
47. INaDNAmolecule,theguanosinecontentis
40%,theadeninecontentwillbe
(A) 10%(B)20%
(C)30% (D)40%
48. Anincreasedmeltingtemperatureofduplex
DNAresultsfromahighcontentofNUCLEICACIDS 231
(A) Adenine + Guanine(B) Thymine +
Cytosine
(C) Cytosine+Guanine
(D) Cytosine+Adenine
49. A synthetic nucleotide analogue, 4-
hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine is used in the
2857
treatmentof
(A) Acutenephritis
(B) Gout
(C) Cysticfibrosisoflung
(D) Multiplemyeloma
50. Asyntheticnucleotideanalogue,usedinthe
chemotherapyofcancerandviralinfections
is
(A) Arabinosylcytosine
(B) 4-Hydroxypyrazolopyrimidine
(C) 6-Mercaptopurine
(D) 6-Thioguanine
51. Histamine is formed from histidine by
theenzyme histidine decarboxylase in the
presenceof
(A) NAD (B)FMN
(C)HS-CoA (D)B6-PO4
52. Infantileconvulsionsduetolesserformation
ofgammaaminobutyricacidfrom glutamic
acidisseeninthedeficiencyof
(A) Glutamate-dehydrogenase
(B) Pyridoxine
(C) Folicacid
(D) Thiamin
53. Whichofthefollowingaminoacidsproduce
avasoconstrictorondecarboxylation?
2858
(A) Histidine(B)Tyrosine
(C)Threonine (D)Arginine
54. The degradation of RNA by
pancreaticribonucleaseproduces
(A) Nucleoside2-Phosphates
(B) Nucleoside5′-phosphates
(C) Oligonucleosides
(D) Nucleoside 3′-phosphate and
oligonucleotide
55. Intestinalnucleosidasesactonnucleosides
andproduce
(A) Purinebaseonly(B)Phosphateonly
(C)Sugaronly(D)Purineorpyrimidinebases
andsugars
56. Inpurinebiosynthesiscarbonatomsat4and
5positionandNat7positionarecontributed
by
(A) Glycine (B)Glutamine
(C)Alanine (D)Threonine
57. N
10
-formyl and N
10
-methenyl
tetrahydrofolate contributes purine carbon
2859
atomsatposition
(A) 4and6 (B)4and5
(C)5and6 (D)2and8
58. Inpurinenucleusnitrogenatom at1position
isderivedfrom
(A) Aspartate (B)Glutamate
(C)Glycine (D)Alanine
59. Thekeysubstanceinthesynthesisofpurine,
phosphoribosylpyrophosphateisformedby
(A) α-D-ribose5-phosphate
(B) 5-phosphoβ-D-ribosylamine
(C) D-ribose
(D) Deoxyribose
60. In purine biosynthesis ring closure in
themolecule formyl glycinamide ribosyl-
5phosphaterequiresthecofactors:
(A) ADP(B)NAD
(C)FAD (D)ATPandMg
++
61. Ring closure of
formimidoimidazolecarboxamide ribosyl-5-
phosphateyieldsthefirstpurinenucleotide:
(A) AMP (B)IMP
(C)XMP (D)GMP
62. The cofactors required for synthesis
ofadenylosuccinateare
2860
(A) ATP,Mg
++
(B)ADP
(C)GTP,Mg
++
(D)GDP
63. Conversion of inosine monophosphate
toxanthinemonophosphateiscatalysedby
(A) IMPdehydrogenase
(B) Formyltransferase
(C) Xanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 transferase
(D) Adeninephosphoribosyltransferase
64. Phosphorylation of adenosine to AMP
iscatalysedby
(A) Adenosinekinase
(B) Deoxycytidinekinase
(C) Adenylosuccinase
(D) Adenylosuccinatesynthetase
65. Themajordeterminantoftheoverallrateof
denovopurinenucleotidebiosynthesisisthe
concentrationof
(A) 5-phosphoribosyl1-pyrophosphate
(B) 5-phosphoβ-D-ribosylamine
(C) Glycinamideribosyl-5-phosphate
2861
(D) Formylglycinamideribosyl-5-phosphate
66. Anenzymewhichactsasallostericregulator
and sensitive to both phosphate
concentrationandtothepurinenucleotides
is
(A) PRPPsynthetase
(B) PRPPglutamylmidotransferase
(C) HGPRTase
(D) Formyltransferase
67. PRPP glutamyl amidotransferase, the
firstenzyme uniquelycommitted to purine
synthesisisfeedbackinhibitedby
(A) AMP (B)IMP
(C)XMP (D)CMP
68. Conversion offormylglycinamide ribosyl5-
phosphate to formyl-glycinamide ribosyl-5-
phosphateisinhibitedby
(A) Azaserine (B)Diazonorleucine
(C)6-Mercaptopurine(D)Mycophenolicacid
69. Inthebiosynthesisofpurinenucleotidesthe
AMPfeedbackregulates
(A) Adenylosuccinase
(B) Adenylosuccinatesynthetase
(C) IMPdehydrogenase
(D) HGPRTase
70. 6-Mercaptopurineinhibitstheconversionof
2862
(A) IMP→ XMP
(B) Ribose5phosphate→ PRPP
(C) PRPP→ 5-phospho→β-D-ribosylamine
(D) Glycinamide ribosyl 5-phosphate →
formylglycinamideribosyl-5-phosphate
71. Purinebiosynthesisisinhibitedby
(A) Aminopterin(B)Tetracyclin
(C)Methotrexate (D)Chloramphenicol
72. Pyrimidine and purine nucleoside
biosynthesisshareacommonprecursor:
(A) PRPP (B)Glycine
(C)Fumarate (D)Alanine
73. Pyrimidine biosynthesis begins with
theformationfrom glutamine,ATPandCO2,
of
(A) Carbamoylaspartate(B)Orotate
(D) Dihydroorotate
74. Thetwonitrogenofthepyrimidineringare
contributedby
(A) Ammoniaandglycine
(B) Asparateandcarbamoylphosphate
(C) Glutamineandammonia
(D) Aspartateandammonia
75. A cofactor in the conversion of
dihydroorotatetooroticacid,catalysedby
2863
theenzymedihydroorotatedehydrogenaseis
(A) FAD(B)FMN
(C)NAD (D)NADP
76. The first true pyrimidine
ribonucleotidesynthesizedis
(A) UMP (B)UDP
(C)TMP (D)CTP
77. UDPandUTPareformedbyphosphorylation
from
(A) AMP (B)ADP
(C)ATP (D)GTP
78. Reduction of ribonucleotide
diphosphates(NDPs)totheircorresponding
deoxyribonucleotidediphosphates(dNDPs)
involves
(A)FMN (B)FAD
(C)NAD (D)NADPH
79. Conversionofdeoxyuridinemonophosphate
tothymidinemonophosphateiscatalysedby
theenzyme:NUCLEICACIDS 233
(A) Ribonucleotidereductase
(B) Thymidylatesynthetase
(C) CTPsynthetase
(D) Orotidylicaciddecarboxylase
80. d-UMPisconvertedtoTMPby
(A) Methylation (B)Decarboxylation
2864
(C)Reduction (D)Deamination
81. UTPisconvertedtoCTPby
(A) Methylation (B)Isomerisation
(C)Amination (D)Reduction
82. Methotrexate blocks the synthesis
ofthymidinemonophosphatebyinhibitingthe
(A) Dihydrofolatereductase
(B) Orotatephosphoribosyltransferase
(C) Ribonucleotidereductase
(D) Dihydroorotase
83. A substrate for enzymes of
pyrimidinenucleotidebiosynthesisis
(A) Allopurinol (B)Tetracylin
(C)Chloramphenicol(D)Puromycin
84. An enzyme of pyrimidine nucleotide
biosynthesissensitivetoallostericregulation
is
(A) Aspartate transcarbamoylase(B)
Dihydroorotase
(C) Dihydroorotatedehydrogenase
(D) Orotidylicaciddecarboxylase
85 An enzyme of pyrimidine nucleotides
biosynthesisregulatedatthegeneticlevelby
apparently coordinate repression and
derepressionis
2865
(B) Dihydroorotatedehydrogenase
(C) Thymidinekinase
(D) Deoxycytidinekinase
86. Theenzymeaspartatetranscarbamoylaseof
pyrimidinebiosynthesisisinhibitedby
(A) ATP (B)ADP
(C)AMP (D)CTP
87. Inhumansendproductofpurinecatabolism
is
(A) Uricacid(B)Urea
(C)Allantoin (D)Xanthine
88. Inhumanspurinearecatabolisedtouricacid
duetolackoftheenzyme:
(A) Urease (B)Uricase
(C)Xanthineoxidase(D)Guanase
89. Inmammalsotherthanhigherprimatesuric
acidisconvertedby
(A) Oxidationtoallantoin
(B) Reductiontoammonia
(C) Hydrolysistoammonia
(D) Hydrolysistoallantoin
90. The correct sequence of the reactions
ofcatabolismofadenosinetouricacidis
(A) Adenosine→hypoxanthine→xanthine→u
ricacid
2866
(B) Adenosine→xanthine→inosine→uric
acid
(C) Adenosine→inosine→hypoxanthine→
xanthineuricacid
(D) Adenosine→xanthine→inosine→hypoxa
nthineuricacid
91. Goutisametabolicdisorderofcatabolismof
(A) Pyrimidine (B)Purine
(C)Alanine (D)Phenylalanine
92. Gout is characterized by increased
plasmalevelsof
(A) Urea(B)Uricacid
(C)Creatine (D)Creatinine
93. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, the sex
linkedrecessivedisorderisduetothelackof
theenzyme:
(A) Hypoxanthine-guanine
phosphoribosyltransferse
(B) Xanthineoxidase
(C) Adeninephosphoribosyltransferase
(D) Adenosinedeaminase
94. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, the sex
linked,recessiveabsenceofHGPRTase,may
leadto
(A) Compulsive selfdestructive behaviour
withelevatedlevelsofurateinserum
2867
(B) Hypouricemiaduetoliverdamage2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 (C) Failure to thrive and megaloblastic
anemia
(D) Protein intolerance and hepatic
encephalopathy
95. Themajorcatabolicproductofpyrimidinesin
humanis
(A) β-Alanine(B)Urea
(C)Uricacid (D)Guanine
96. OroticaciduriatypeIreflectsthedeficiency
ofenzymes:
(A) Orotate phosphoribosyl transferase
andorotidylatedecarboxylase
(B) Dihydroorotatedehydrogenase
(C) Dihydroorotase
(D) Carbamoylphosphatesynthetase
97. OroticaciduriatypeIIreflectsthedeficiency
oftheenzyme:
(A) Orotatephosphoribosyltransferase
(B) Orotidylatedecarboxylase
(C) Dihydroorotase
(D) Dihydroorotatedehydrogenase
98. Anautosomalrecessivedisorder,xanthinuria
isduetodeficiencyoftheenzymes:
(A) Adenosinedeaminase
2868
(B) Xanthineoxidase
(C) HGPRTase
(D) Transaminase
99. Enzymic deficiency in β-aminoisobutyric
aciduriais
(B) Xanthineoxidase
(C) Orotidylatedecarboxylase
(D) Transaminase
100. Polysomeslackin
(A) DNA(B)mRNA
(C)rRNA (D)tRNA
101. Geneticinformationflowsfrom
(A) DNAtoDNA
(B) DNAtoRNA
(C) RNAtocellularproteins
(D) DNAtocellularproteins
102. Geneticcodeis
(A) Collectionofcodon
(B) Collectionofaminoacids
(C) Collectionofpurinenucleotide
(D) Collectionofpyrimidinenucleotide
103. Degeneracyofgeneticcodeimpliesthat
(A) Codonsdonotcodeforspecificamino
acid
(B) Multiplecodonsmustdecodethesame
2869
aminoacids
(C) NoanticodonontRNAmolecule
(D) Specific codon decodes many amino
acids
104. Geneticcodeis
(A) Overlapping (B)Non-overlapping
(C)Notuniversal (D)Ambiguous
105. mRNA iscomplementarytothenucleotide
sequenceof
(A) Codingstrand(B)RibosomalRNA
(C)tRNA (D)Templatestrand
106. InDNAreplicationtheenzymerequiredinthe
firststepis
(A) DNAdirectedpolymerase
(B) Unwindingproteins
(C) DNApolymerase
(D) DNAligase
107. ThesmallestunitofDNAcapableofcoding
forthesynthesisofapolypeptideis
(A) Operon (B)Repressorgene
(C)Cistron (D)Replicon
108. Termination of the synthesis of the
RNAmoleculeissignaledbyasequencein
thetemplatestrandoftheDNAmolecule,a
signalthatisrecognizedbyatermination
protein,the
2870
(A)Rho(ρ)factor (B) σ
factor
(C)δfactor (D)εfactor
109. AfterterminationofthesynthesisofRNA
molecule,thecoreenzymesseparatefrom
theDNAtemplate.Thecoreenzymesthen
recognizeapromoteratwhichthesynthesis
ofanewRNAmoleculecommences,withthe
assistanceofNUCLEICACIDS 235
(A) Rho(ρ)factor(B)δfactor
(C)βfactor (D)σfactor
110. In the process of transcription in
bacterialcells
(A) Initiationrequiresrhoprotein
(B) RNA polymerase incorporates
methylatedbasesincorrectsequence
(C) Boththesigmaunitandcoreenzymesof
RNApolymerase are required for
accuratepromotorsitebinding
(D) Primaseisnecessaryforinitiation
111. The correct statement concerning RNA
andDNApolymerasesis
(A) RNA polymerase use nucleoside
diphosphates
(B) RNA polymerase require primers and
addbases at5’end ofthe growing
2871
polynucleotide
chain
(C) DNApolymerasescanaddnucleotidesat
bothendsofthechain
(D) AllRNA and DNA polymerases can
addnucleotidesonlyatthe3’endofthe
growingpolynucleotidechain
112. TheeukaryoticnuclearchromosomalDNA
(A) Isalinearandunbranchedmolecule
(B) Is not associated with a specific
membranousorganelle
(C) Isnotreplicatedsemiconservatively
(D) Is aboutofthe same size as each
prokaryoticchromoses
113. Thefunctionofarepressorproteininan
operonsystem isto preventsynthesisby
bindingto
(A) Theribosome
(B) A specific region of the operon
preventingtranscription of structural
genes
(C) TheRNApolymerase
(D) A specific region of the mRNA
preventingtranslationtoprotein
114. All pribnow boxes are variants of the
sequence:
2872
(A) 5′–TATAAT–3′ (B)5′–GAGCCA–3′
(C)5′–UAACAA–3′(D)5′–TCCTAG–3′
115. 5’-TerminusofmRNA moleculeiscapped
with
(A) Guanosinetriphosphate
(B) 7-Methylguanosinetriphophate
(C) Adenosinetriphosphate
(D) Adenosinediphosphate
116. ThefirstcodontobetranslatedonmRNAis
(A) AUG(B)GGU
(C)GGA (D)AAA
117. AUG,theonlyidentifiedcodonformethionine
isimportantas
(A) Areleasingfactorforpeptidechains
(B) Achainterminatingcodon
(C) RecognitionsiteontRNA
(D) Achaininitiatingcodon
118. In biosynthesis of proteins the chain
terminatingcodonsare
(A) UAA,UAGandUGA
(B) UGG,UGUandAGU
(C) AAU,AAGandGAU
(D) GCG,GCAandGCU
119. The formation of initiation complex
duringproteinsynthesisrequiresafactor:
(A) IF-III(B)EF-I
2873
(C)EF-II (D)IF-I
120. Theaminoterminalofallpolypeptidechain
atthetimeofsynthesisinE.coliistaggedto
theaminoacidresidue:
(A) Methionine (B)Serine
(C)N-formylmethinine(D)N-formalserine
121. Initiation ofprotein synthesis begins with
bindingof
(A) 40SribosomalunitonmRNA
(B) 60Sribosomalunit
(C) ChargingoftRNA withspecificamino
acid
(D) AttachmentofaminoacyltRNAonmRNA
122. Initiationofproteinsynthesisrequires
(A) ATP (B)AMP
(C)GDP (D)GTP
123. TheenzymeaminoacyltRNAsynthetaseis2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 involvedin
(A) Dissociation ofdischarged tRNA from
80Sribosome
(B) ChargingoftRNA withspecificamino
acids(C) Termination of protein
synthesis
(D)Nucleophilicattackonesterifiedcarboxyl
groupofpeptidyltRNA
2874
124. Intheprocessofactivationofaminoacidsfor
proteinsynthesis,thenumberofhighenergy
phosphatebondequivalentutilisedis
(A) 0 (B)1
(C)2 (D)4
125Translationresultsinaproductknownas
(A)Protein (B)tRNA
(C)mRNA (D)rRNA
126. Intheprocessofelongationofchainbinding
ofaminoacyltRNAtotheAsiterequires
(A) Apropercodonrecognition
(B) GTP
(C) EF-II
(D) GDP
127. ThenewlyenteringaminoacyltRNAintoA
siterequires
(A) EF-II(B)RibosomalRNA
(C)mRNA (D)EF-I
128. Theα-aminogroupofthenew aminoacyl
tRNAintheAsitecarriesoutanucleophilic
attackontheesterifiedcarboxylgroupofthe
peptidyltRNA occupying the P site.This
reactioniscatalysedby
(A) DNApolymerase
(B) RNApolymerase
(C) Peptidyltransferase
2875
(D) DNAligase
129. The nucleophilic attack on the esterified
carboxyl group of the peptidyl-tRNA
occupyingthePsiteandtheα-aminogroup
ofthenewaminoacyltRNA,thenumberof
ATP required by the amino acid on the
chargedtRNAis
(A) Zero(B)One
(C)Two (D)Four
130. Translocation ofthenewlyformedpeptidyl
tRNA attheA siteintotheemptyP site
involves
(A) EF-II,GTP
(B) EF-I,GTP
(C) EF-I,GDP
(D) Peptidyltransferase,GTP
131. Ineukaryoticcells
(A) Formylated tRNA is important for
initiationoftranslation
(B) Cyclohexamide blocks elongation
duringtranslation
(C) Cytosolic ribosomes are smallerthan
thosefoundinprokaryotes
(D) Erythromycin inhibits elongation
duringtranslation
132. The mushroom poison amanitin is an
2876
inhibitorof
(A) Proteinsynthesis (B)mRNAsynthesis
(C)DNAsynthesis (D)Adenosinesynthesis
133. Tetracylinpreventssynthesisofpolypeptide
by
(A) BlockingmRNAformationfromDNA
(B) Releasing peptides from mRNA-tRNA
complex
(C) Competing with mRNA forribosomal
bindingsites
(D) PreventingbindingofaminoacyltRNA
134. Inprokaryotes,chloramphenicol
(A) Causes premature release of the
polypeptidechain
(B) CausesmisreadingofthemRNA
(C) DepolymerisesDNA
(D) Inhibitspeptidyltransferaseactivity
135Streptomycinpreventssynthesisofpolypeptide
by
(A) Inhibitinginitiationprocess
(B) Releasingprematurepolypeptide
(C) Inhibitingpeptidyltransferaseactivity
(D) Inhibitingtranslocation
136. Erythromycinactsonribosomesandinhibit
(A) Formationofinitiationcomplex
(B) BindingofaminoacyltRNANUCLEICACIDS 237
2877
(C) Peptidyltransferaseactivity
(D) Translocation
137. ThebindingofprokaryoticDNA dependent
RNApolymerasetopromotersitesofgenes
isinhibitedbytheantibiotic:
(A) Puromycin (B)Rifamycin
(C)Terramycin (D)Streptomycin
138. The gene which is transcribed during
repressionis
(A) Structural(B)Regulator
(C)Promoter (D)Operator
139Thegeneoflacoperonwhichhasconstitutive
expressionis
(A)i (B)c
(C)z (D)p
140.Theminimum effectivesizeofanoperatorfor
lacrepressorbindingis
(A)5basepairs (B)10basepairs
(C)15basepairs (D)17basepairs
141Tocommencestructuralgenetranscriptionthe
regionwhichshouldbefreeonlacoperation
is
(A)Promotersite (B)Operatorlocus(C)Y
gene(D)Agene
142. Inthelacoperonconcept,aproteinmolecule
is
2878
(A) Operator(B)Inducer
(C)Promoter (D)Repressor
143. Thecataboliterepressionismediatedbya
catabolite gene activatorprotein (CAP)in
conjunctionwith
(A) AMP(B)GMP
(C)cAMP (D)Cgmp
144. TheenzymeDNAligase
(A) Introducessuperhelicaltwists
(B) ConnectstheendoftwoDNAchains
(C) Unwindsthedoublehelix
(D) SynthesisesRNAprimers
145. Restrictionendonucleases
(A) CutRNAchainsatspecificlocations
(B) ExciseintronsfromhnRNA
(C) RemoveOkazakifragments
(D) Actasdefensiveenzymestoprotectthe
hostbacterialDNAfrom DNAofforeign
organisms
146. Themostlikelylethalmutationis
(A) Substitutionofadenineforcytosine
(B) Insertionofonenucleotide
(C) Deletionofthreenucleotides
(D) Substitutionofcytosineforguanine
147. InthefollowingpartialsequenceofmRNA,a
mutationofthetemplateDNA resultsina
2879
changeincodon91toUAA.Thetypeof
mutationis
88 89 90 91 92 93 94
GUCGAC CAG UAG GGC UAACCG
(A) Missene (B)Silent
(C)Nonsense (D)Frameshit
148. Restrictionendonucleasesrecognizeandcut
acertainsequenceof
(A) SinglestrandedDNA
(B) DoublestrandedDNA
(C) RNA
(D) Protein
149. Positive control of induction is best
describedasacontrolsystem inwhichan
operonfunctions
(A) Unless it is switched off by a
derepressedrepressorprotein
(B) Only after a repressor protein is
inactivatedbyaninducer
(C) Onlyafteraninducerprotein,whichcan
beinactivatedbyacorepressor,switches
iton
(D) Only afteran inducerprotein,which
isactivatedbyaninducer,switchiton
150. Interferon
(A) Isvirusspecific
2880
(B) Isabacterialproduct
(C) Isasyntheticantiviralagent
(D) Requiresexpressionofcellulargenes
151. Repressor binds to DNA sequence and
regulatethetranscription.Thissequenceis
called
(A) Attenuator (B)Terminator
(C)Antiterminator (D)Operator2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
1502. Okazakifragmentisrelatedto
(A) DNAsynthesis (B)Proteinsynthesis
(C)mRNAformation(D)tRNAformation
153. TheregionofDNAknownasTATABOXis
thesiteforbindingof
(A) DNApolymerase
(B) DNAtopoisomerase
(C) DNAdependentRNApolymerase
(D) Polynucleotidephosphorylase
154. Reverse transcriptase is capable of
synthesising
(A)RNA→ DNA (B)DNA→ RNA
(C)RNA→ RNA
155.Atetrovirusis
(D)DNA→ DNA
(A)Poliovirus (B)HIV
(C)Herpesvirus (D) Tobacco mosaic
2881
virus
156. Peptidyltransferaseactivityislocatedin
(A) Elongationfactor
(B) AchargedtRNAmolecule
(C) Ribosomalprotein
(D) Asolublecytosolicprotein
157. Ultraviolet light can damage a DNA
strandcausing
(A) Two adjacentpurine residue to form
acovalentlyboundeddimer
(B) Two adjacentpyrimidine residues to
formcovalentlybondeddimer
(C) Disruptionofphosphodiesteraselinkage
(D) Disruptionofnon-covalentlinkage
158. DefectiveenzymeinHurler’ssyndromeis
(A) α-L-diuronidase
(B) Iduronatesulphatase
(C) ArylsulphataseB
(D) C-acetyltransferase
159. Presenceofargininecanbedetectedby
(A) Sakaguchireaction
(B) Million-Nassereaction
(C) Hopkins-Colereaction
(D) Gaschromatography
160. A nitrogenousbasethatdoesnotoccurin
mRNAis
2882
(A) Cytosine(B)Thymine
(C)Uracil (D)Allofthese
161. In nucleotides, phosphate is attached
tosugarby
(A) Saltbond(B)Hydrogenbond
(C)Esterbond (D)Glycosidicbond
162. CyclicAMPcanbeformedfrom
(A) AMP(B)ADP(C)ATP(D)Allofthese
163. A substituted pyrimidine base of
pharmacologicalvalueis
(A) 5-Iododeoxyuridine
(B) Cytisinearabinoside
(C) 5-Fluorouracil
(D) Allofthese
164The‘transformingfactor’discoveredbyAvery,
McLeodandMcCartywaslaterfoundtobe
(A)mRNA(B)tRNA(C)DNA(D)None
ofthese
165. InDNA,thecomplementarybaseofadenine
is
(A) Guanine (B)Cytosine
(C)Uracil (D)Thymine
166. InDNA,threehydrogenbondsareformed
between
(A) Adenine and guanine(B)Adenine and
thymine
2883
(C) Guanineandcytosine
(D) Thymineandcytosine
167. Lefthandeddoublehelixispresentin
(A) Z-DNA (B)A-DNA
(C)B-DNA (D)Noneofthese
168. NuclearDNAispresentincombinationwith
(A) Histones(B)Non-histones
169. Numberofguanineandcytosineresiduesis
equalin
(A) mRNA (B)tRNA
(C)DNA (D)Noneofthese
170. Alkaliscannothydrolyse
(A) mRNA (B)tRNA
(C)rRNA (D)DNANUCLEICACIDS 239
171. Codonsarepresentin
(A) TemplatestrandofDNA
(B) mRNA
(C) tRNA
(D) rRNA
172. AminoacidisattachedtotRNAat
(A) 5’-End (B)3’-End
(C)Anticodon (D)DHUloop
173. Inprokaryotes,theribosomalsubunitsare
(A) 30Sand40S(B)40Sand50S
(C)30Sand50S (D)40Sand60S
2884
174. Ribozymesare
(A) Enzymespresentinribosomes
(B) Enzymes which combine the
ribosomalsubunits
(C) Enzymeswhichdissociate
(D) EnzymesmadeupofRNA
175. ThesmallestRNAamongthefollowingis
(A) rRNA(B)hnRNA
(C)mRNA (D)tRNA
176. Thenumberofadenineandthyminebasesis
equalin
(A)DNA (B)mRNA
(C)tRNA (D)rRNA
177. The numberofhydrogen bonds between
adenineandthymineinDNAis
(A) One (B)Two
(C)Three (D)Four
178. Thecomplementarybaseofadeninein
RNAis
(A) Thymine(B)Cystosine
(C)Guanine (D)Uracil
179. ExtranuclearDNAispresentin
(A) Ribosomes
(C) Lysosomes
(D) Mitochondria
2885
180. MitochondrialDNAispresentin
(A) Bacteria (B)Viruses
(C)Eukaryotes (D)Allofthese
181. Ribothymidineispresentin
(A) DNA(B)tRNA
(C)rRNA (D)hnRNA
182. Tenbasepairsarepresentinoneturnofthe
helixin
(A) A-DNA (B)B-DNA
(C)C-DNA (D)Z-DNA
183. TransferRNAtransfers
(A) InformationfromDNAtoribosomes
(B) InformationfrommRNAtocytosol
(C) Aminoacidsfromcytosoltoribosomes
(D) Proteinsfromribosomestocytosol
184. Ceramidaseisdeficientin
(A) Fabry’sdisease (B)Farber’sdisease
(C)Krabbe’sdisease(D)Tay-Sachsdisease
185. Ceramide is present in all of the
followingexcept
(A) Plasmalogens(B)Cerebrosides
(C)Sulphatides (D)Sphingomyelin
186. Nucleotides required forthe synthesis of
nucleicacidscanbeobtainedfrom
(A) Dietarynucleicacidsandnucleotides
(B) Denovosynthesis
2886
(C) Salvage of pre-existing bases and
nucleosides
(D) Denovosynthesisandsalvage
187. De novo synthesis of purine
nucleotideoccursin
(C)Microsmes (D)Ribosomes
188. Thenitrogenatomsfordenovosynthesisof
purinenucleotidesareprovidedby
(A) Aspartateandglutamate
(B) Aspartateandglycine
(C) Aspartate,glutamineandglycine
(D) Aspartate,glutamateandglycine
189Fordenovosynthesisofpurinenucleotides,
glycineprovides
(A) Onenitrogenatom
(B) Onenitrogenandonecarbonatom
(C) Twocarbonatoms
(D) Onenitrogenandtwocarbonatoms
190. Fordenovosynthesisofpurinenucleotides,2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 aspartateprovides
(A) Nitrogen1 (B)Nitrogen3
(C)Nitrogen7 (D)Nitrogen9
191. Inthepurinenucleus,carbon6iscontributed
by
2887
(A) Glycine (B)CO2
(C)Aspartate (D)Glutamine
192. 5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate is
requiredforthesynthesisof
(A) Purine nucleotides (B) Pyrimidine
nucleotides(C)Both (A)and (B)(D)
Noneofthese
193. Inosine monophophate is an intermediate
duringthedenovosynthesisof
(A) AMPandGMP (B)CMPandUMP
(C)CMPandTMP (D)Allofthese
194. Xanthosine monophosphate is an
intermediateduringdenovosynthesisof
(A) TMP(B)CMP
(C)AMP (D)GMP
195. Inthepathwayofdenovosynthesisofpurine
nucleotides,allthefollowingareallosteric
enzymesexcept
(A) PRPPglutamylamidotransferase
(B) Adenylosuccinatesynthetase
(D) Adenylosuccinase
196. Allofthefollowingenzymesareuniqueto
purinenucleotidesynthesisexcept
(A) PRPPsynthetase
(B) PRPPglutamylamidotransferase
2888
(C) Adenylosuccinatesynthetase
(D) IMPdehydrogenase
197. PRPPsynthetaseisallostericallyinhibitedby
(A) AMP(B)ADP
(C)GMP (D)Allofthese
198. An allosteric inhibitor of PRPP
glutamylamidotransferaseis
(A) AMP(B)ADP
(C)GMP (D)Allofthese
199. An allosteric inhibitor of
adenylosuccinatesynthetaseis
(A) AMP(B)ADP
(C)GMP (D)GDP
200. AnallostericinhibitorofIMPdehydrogenase
is
(A) AMP(B)ADP
(C)GMP (D)GDP
201. GMP is an allosteric inhibitorofallthe
followingexcept
(A) PRPPsynthetase
(B) PRPPglutamylamidosynthetase
(D) Adenylosuccinatesynthetase
202. AMPisanallostericinhibitorof
(A) PRPPsynthetase
(B) Adenylosucciantesynthetase
2889
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
203. Thefirstreactionuniquetopurinenucleotide
synthesisiscatalysedby
(A) PRPPsynthetase
(B) PRPPglutamylamidotransferase
(C) Phosphoribosylglycinamidesynthetase
(D) Formyltransferase
204. Freepurinebaseswhichcanbesalvagedare
(A) Adenineandguanine
(B) Adenineandhypoxanthine
(C) Guanineandhypoxanthine
(D) Adenine,guanineandhypoxanthine
205. The enzyme required forsalvage offree
purinebasesis
(A) Adeninephosphoribosyltransferase
(B) Hypoxanthine guanine
phosphoribosyltransferase
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
206. Deoxycytidinekinasecansalvage
(A) Adenosine
(B) Adenosineanddeoxyadenosine
(C) Adenosineandguanosine
(D) Adenineandadenosine
207. AdenosinekinasecansalvageNUCLEICACIDS 241
2890
(A) Adenosine
(B) Adenosineanddeoxyadenosine
(C) Adenosineandguanosine
(D) Adenineandadenosine
208. Salvageofpurinebasesisregulatedby
(A) Adenosinephosphoribosyltransferase
(B) Hypoxanthine guanine
phosphoribosyltransferase
(C) AvailabilityofPRPP
(D) Noneofthese
209. TheavailablePRPPisusedpreferentiallyfor
(A) Denovosynthesisofpurinenucleotides
(B) De novo synthesis of pyrimidine
nucleotides
(C) Salvageofpurinebases
(D) Salvageofpyrimidinebases
210. Theendproductofpurinecatabolisminman
is
(A) Inosine (B)Hypoxanthine
(C)Xanthine (D)Uricacid
211. Theenzymecommontocatabolism ofallthe
purinesis
(B) Purinenucleosidephosphorylase
(C) Guanase
(D) Noneofthese
2891
212. Uricacidistheendproductofpurineaswell
asproteincatabolismin
(A) Man(B)Fish
(C)Birds (D)Noneofthese
213. Dailyuricacidexcretioninadultmenis
(A) 2–6mg (B)20–40mg
(C)150–250mg (D)40–600mg
214. Dietarypurinesarecatabolisedin
(A) Liver(B)Kidneys
(C)Intesitnalmucosa(D)Allofthese
215. Denovosynthesisofpyrimidinenucleotides
occursin
(C)Microsomes (D)Ribosomes
216. Anenzymecommontodenovosynthesisof
pyrimidinenucleotidesandureais
(A) Urease
(B) Carbamoylphosphatesynthetase
(C) Aspartatetranscarbamoylase
(D) Argininosuccinase
217. Thenitrogenatomsofpyrimidinenucleus
areprovidedby
(A) Glutamate
(B) Glutamateandaspartate(C)Glutamine
(D)Glutamineandaspartate
218. Thecarbonatomsofpyrimidinenucleusare
2892
providedby
(A) Glycineandaspartate
(B) CO2andaspartate
(C) CO2andglutamate
(D) CO2andglutamine
219. Nitrogenatposition1ofpyrimidinenucleus
comesfrom
(A) Glutamine (B)Glutamate
(C)Glycine (D)Aspartate
220. Nitrogenatposition3ofpyrimidinenucleus
comesfrom
(A) Glutamine (B)Glutamate
(C)Glycine (D)Aspartate
221. Thecarbonatom atposition2ofpyrimidine
nucleusiscontributedby
(A) CO2 (B)Glycine
(C)Aspartate (D)Glutamine
222. Aspartatecontributesthefollowingcarbon
atomsofthepyrimidinenucelus:
(A) C2andC4(B)C5andC6
(C)C2,C4andC6 (D)C4,C5andC6
223. Thefirstpyrimidinenucleotidetobeformed
indenovosynthesispathwayis
(A) UMP(B)CMP
(C)CTP (D)TMP
224. Conversion of uridine diphosphate into
2893
deoxyuridine diphosphate requires allthe
followingexcept
(A) Ribonucleotidereductase
(B) Thioredoxin2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 (C) Tetrahydrobiopterin
(D) NADPH
225. Amethopterinandaminopterindecreasethe
synthesisof
(A) TMP(B)UMP(C)CMP(D)Allofthese
226. ForsynthesisofCTPandUTP,theamino
groupcomesfrom
(A) Amidegroup ofAsparagine(B)Amide
groupofglutamine
(C) α-Aminogroupofglutamine
(D) α-Aminogroupofglutamate
227. CTPsynthetaseformsCTPfrom
(A) CDPandinorganicphosphate
(B) CDPandATP
(C) UTPandglutamine
(D) UTPandglutamate
228. For the synthesis of TMP from dump,
acoenzymeisrequiredwhichis
(A) N
10
-Formyltetrahydrofolate
2894
(B) N
-Methyltetrahydrofolate
(C) N
,N
10
-Methylenetetrahydrofolate
(D) N
-Formiminotetrahydrofolate
229. Allthe enzymes required for de novo
synthesis of pyrimidine nucleotides are
cytosolicexcept
(B) Aspartatetranscarbamoylase
(C) Dihydro-orotase
(D) Dihydro-orotatedehydrogenase
230. During de novo synthesis of pyrimidine
nucleotides,thefirstringcompoundtobe
formedis
(A) Carbamoylasparticacid
(B) Dihydro-oroticacid
(C) Oroticacid
(D) Orotidinemonophosphate
231. Tetrahydrofolateisrequiredasacoenzyme
forthesynthesisof
2895
(A) UMP(B)CMP
(C)TMP (D)Allofthese
thioredoxinreductasearetrueexcept:
(A) ItrequiresNADHasacoenzyme
(B) ItssubstratesareADP,GDP,CDPand
UDP
(C) ItisactivatedbyATP
(D) ItisinhibitedbydADP
233. Denovosynthesisofpyrimidinenucleotides
isregulatedby
(B) Aspartatetranscarbamoylase
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
234. Cytosoliccarbamoylphosphatesynthetase
isinhibitedby
(A)UTP (B)CTP
(C)PRPP (D)TMP
235. Cytosoliccarbamoylphosphatesynthetase
isactivatedby
(A) Glutamine (B)PRPP
(C)ATP (D)Aspartate
236. Aspartatetranscarbamoylaseisinhibitedby
(A) CTP(B)PRPP
(C)ATP (D)TMP
2896
237. Thefollowingcannotbesalvagedinhuman
beings:
(A) Cytidine (B)Deoxycytidine
(C)Cytosine (D)Thymidine
238. β-Aminoisobytyrate is formed from
catabolismof
(A) Cytosine(B)Uracil
(C)Thymine (D)Xanthine
239. Free ammonia is liberated during the
catabolismof
(A) Cytosine(B)Uracil
(C)Thymine (D)Allofthese
240. β-Alanineisformedfromcatabolismof
(A) Thymine
(B) Thymineandcytosine
(C) Thymineanduracil
(D) Cytosineanduracil
241. The following coenzyme is required for
catabolismofpyrimidinebases:NUCLEICACIDS 243
(A) NADH (B)NADPH
(C)FADH2 (D)Noneofthese
242. Inheritanceofprimarygoutis
(A) Autosomalrecessive
(B) Autosomaldominant
(C) X-linkedrecessive
(D) X-linkeddominant
2897
243. The following abnormality in PRPP
synthetasecancauseprimarygout:
(A) HighVmax
(B) LowKm
(C) Resistancetoallostericinihbition.(D)All
ofthese
244. Allthefollowing statementsaboutprimary
goutaretrueexcept
(A) ItsinheritanceisX-linkedrecessive
(B) Itcanbeduetoincreasedactivityof
PRPPsynthetase
(C) Itcanbeduetoincreasedactivityof
hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl
transferase
(D) De novo synthesis of purines is
increasedinit
245. Allofthefollowingstatementsabouturic
acidaretrueexcept
(A) Itisacataboliteofpurines
(B) Itisexcretedbythekidneys
(C) ItisundissociatedatpHabove5.8
(D) Itislesssolublethansodiumurate
246. In inherited deficiency of
hypoxanthineguanine phosphoribosyl
transferase
(A) Denovosynthesisofpurinenucleotides
2898
isdecreased
(B) Salvageofpurinesisdecreased
(C) Salvageofpurinesisincreased
(D) Synthesisofuricacidisdecreased
247. Allofthefollowingstatementsabouturic
acidaretrueexcept
(A) Itcanbeformedfromallantoin
(B) Formationofuricacidstonesinkidneys
canbe decreased by alkalinisation of
urine
(C) Uric acid begins to dissociate atpH
above5.8
(D) It is present in plasma mainly as
monosodiumurate
248. Allofthefollowingstatementsaboutprimary
goutaretrueexcept
(A) Uric acid stones may be formed in
kidneys(B) Arthritis of small joints
occurscommonly
(C) Urinary excretion of uric acid is
decreased
(D) Itoccurspredominantlyinmales
allopurinolaretrueexcept
(A) Itisastructuralanalogueofuricacid
(B) Itcanpreventuricacidstonesinthe
2899
kidneys
(C) Itincreases the urinary excretion of
xanthineandhypoxanthine
(D) Itisacompetitiveinhibitorofxanthine
oxidase
250. Oroticaciduriacanbecontrolledby
(A) Oraladministrationoforoticacid
(B) Decreasingthedietaryintakeoforotic
acid
(C) Decreasing the dietary intake of
pyrimidines(D)Oraladministration of
uridine
251. All of the following occur in orotic
aciduriaexcept
(A) Increased synthesis of pyrimidine
nucleotides(B)Increased excretion of
oroticacidinurine
(C) Decreased synthesis of cytidine
triphosphate(D)Retardationofgrowth
252. Inheriteddeficiencyofadenosinedeaminase
causes
(A) Hyperuricaemiaandgout
(B) Mentalretardation
(C) Immunodeficiency
(D) Dwarfism
253. Completeabsenceofhypoxanthineguanine
2900
phospharibosyltransferasecauses
(A) Primarygout(B)Immunodeficiency2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 (C)Uricacidstones(D)Lesh-Nyhansyndrome
254. Increasedurinaryexcretionoforoticacidcan
occurindeficiencyof
(A) Orotatephosphoribosyltransferase
(B) OMPdecarboxylase
(C) Mitochondrial ornithine
transcarbamoylase
(D) Anyoftheabove
255. AllofthefollowingcanoccurinLeschNyhan
syndromeexcept
(A) Goutyarthritis
(B) Uricacidstones
(C) Retartedgrowth
(D) Self-mutiliatingbehaviour
256. Inherited deficiency ofpurine nucleoside
phosphorylasecauses
(A) Dwarfism (B)Mentalretardation
(C)Immunodeficiency(D)Gout
257. Deoxyribonucleotides are formed by
reductionof
(A) Ribonucleosides
(B) Ribonucleosidemonophosphates
(C) Ribonucleosidediphosphates
2901
(D) Ribonucleosidetriphosphates
258. An alternate substrate for orotate
phosphoribosyltransferaseis
(A) Allopurinol (B)Xanthine
(C)Hypoxanthine (D)Adenine
259. Mammalsotherthanhigherprimatesdonot
sufferfromgoutbecausethey
(A) Lackxanthineoxidase
(B) Lackadenosinedeaminase
(C) Lackpurinenucleosidephosphorylase
(D) Possessuricase
260. Hypouricaemiacanoccurin
(A) Xanthineoxidasedeficiency
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Leukaemia
(D) Noneofthese
261. SynthesisofDNAisalsoknownas
(A) Duplication (B)Replication
(C)Transcription (D)Translation
262. ReplicationofDNAis
(A) Conservative(B)Semi-conservative
(C)Non-conservative(D)Noneofthese
263. DirectionofDNAsynthesisis
(A) 5’→ 3’ (B)3’→ 5’
264. FormationofRNAprimer:
2902
(A) Precedesreplication
(B) Followsreplication
(C) Precedestranscription
(D) Followstranscription
265. Okazakipiecesaremadeupof
(A) RNA(B)DNA
(C)RNAandDNA (D)RNAandproteins
266. Okazaki pieces are formed during the
synthesisof
(A) mRNA (B)tRNA
(C)rRNA (D)DNA
267. Afterformationofreplicationfork
(A) Boththenew strandsaresynthesized
discontinuously
(B) Onestrandissynthesizedcontinuously
andtheotherdiscontinuously
(C) Both the new strands are
synthesizedcontinuously
(D) RNA primeris required only forthe
synthesisofonenewstrand
268. AnOkazakifragmentcontainsabout
(A) 10Nucleotides
(B) 100Nucleotides
(C) 1,000Nucleotides
(D) 10,000Nucleotides
269. RNAprimerisformedbytheenzyme:
2903
(A) Ribonuclease(B)Primase
(C)DNApolymeraseI(D)DNApolymeraseIII
270. InRNA,thecomplementarybaseofadenine
is
(A) Cytosine(B)Guanine
(C)Thymine (D)Uracil
271. During replication,the template DNA isNUCLEICACIDS 245
unwound
(A) Atoneoftheends(B)Atboththeends
(C)Atmultiplesites (D)Nowhere
272. Duringreplication,unwindingofdoublehelix
isinitiatedby
(A) DNAAprotein(B)DnaBprotein
(C)DNACprotein (D)Repprotein
273. ForunwindingofdoublehelicalDNA,
(A) EnergyisprovidedbyATP
(B) EnergyisprovidedbyGTP
(C) EnergycanbeprovidedbyeitherATPor
GTP
(D) Noenergyisrequired
274. HelicaseandDNABproteincause
(A) RewindingofDNAandrequireATPas
asourceofenergy
(B) RewindingofDNA butdonotrequire
anysourceofenergy
(C) UnwindingofDNAandrequireATPas
2904
asourceofenergy
(D) UnwindingofDNA butdonotrequire
anysourceofenergy
275. TheunwoundstrandsofDNAareheldapart
by
(A) Singlestrandbindingprotein
(B) Doublestrandbindingprotein
(C) Repprotein
(D) DNAAprotein
276. Deoxyribonucleotides are added to RNA
primerby
(A) DNApolymeraseI
(B) DNApolymeraseII
(C) DNApolymeraseIIIholoenzyme
(D) Allofthese
277. RibonucleotidesofRNAprimerarereplaced
bydeoxyribonucleotidesbytheenzyme:
(A) DNApolymeraseI
(B) DNApolymeraseII
(C) DNApolymeraseIIIholoenzyme
(D) Allofthese
278. DNAfragmentsaresealedby
(A) DNApolymeraseII
(B) DNAligase
(C) DNAgyrase
(D) DNAtopoisomeraseII
2905
279. NegativesupercoilsareintroducedinDNAby
(A) Helicase
(B) DNAligase
(C) DNAgyrase
(D) DNApolymeraseIIIholoenzyme
280. Reversetranscriptaseactivityispresentin
theeukaryotic:
(A) DNApolymeraseα
(B) DNApolymeraseγ(C)Telomerase
(D)DNApolymeraseII
281. DNApolymeraseIIIholoenzymepossesses
(A) Polymeraseactivity
(B) 3’→5’Exonucleaseactivity
(C) 5’→3’ Exonuclease and polymerase
activities
(D) 3’→5’ Exonuclease and polymerase
activities
282. DNApolymeraseIpossesses
(A) Polymeraseactivity
(B) 3’→5’Exonuclease activity (C)5’→3’
Exonucleaseactivity
(D)Allofthese
283. 3’→5’ Exonuclease activity of DNA
polymeraseI
(A) Removesribonucleotides
(B) Addsdeoxyribonucleotides
2906
(C) Correctserrorsinreplication
(D) HydrolysesDNAintomononucleotides
284. AllofthefollowingstatementsaboutRNA-
dependentDNApolymerasearetrueexcept:
(A) Itsynthesizes DNA using RNA as a
template
(B) Itisalsoknownasreversetranscriptase
(C) ItsynthesizesDNAin5’→3’direction
(D) Itispresentinalltheviruses
285. Reversetranscriptasecatalyses
(A) SynthesisofRNA
(B) BreakdownofRNA2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 (C) SynthesisofDNA
(D) BreakdownofDNA
286. DNAAproteincanbindonlyto
(A) PositivelysupercoiledDNA
(B) NegativelysupercoiledDNA
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
287. DNAtopoisomeraseIofE.colicatalyses
(A) Relaxation of negatively supercoiled
DNA
(B) RelaxationofpositivelysupercoiledDNA
(C) Conversion of negatively supercoiled
DNAintopositivelysupercoiledDNA
2907
(D) Conversion of double helix into
supercoiled
DNA
288. In mammalian cell cycle, synthesis of
DNAoccursduring
(A)Sphase (B)G1phase
(C)MitoticPhase (D)G2phase
289. Melting temperature of DNA is the
temperatureatwhich
(A) SolidDNAbecomesliquid
(B) LiquidDNAevaporates
(C) DNA changes from double helix
intosupercoiledDNA
(D) NativedoublehelicalDNAisdenatured
290. MeltingtemperatureofDNAisincreasedby
its
(A) AandTcontent (B)GandCcontent
(C)Sugarcontent (D)Phosphatecontent
291. BuoynatdensityofDNAisincreasedbyits
(A) AandTcontent (B)GandCcontent
(C)Sugarcontent (D)Noneofthese
292. RelativeproportionsofGandCversusAand
TinDNAcanbedeterminedbyits
(A) Meltingtemperature
(B) Buoyantdensity
(C) Both(A)and(B)
2908
(D) Noneofthese
293. SomeDNAispresentinmitochondriaof
(A) Prokaryotes (B)Eukaryotes
294. SatelliteDNAcontains
(A) Highlyrepetitivesequences
(B) Moderatelyrepetitivesequences
(C) Non-repetitivesequences
(D) DNA-RNAhybrids
295. SynthesisofRNA andaDNA templateis
knownas
(A) Replication (B)Translation
(C)Transcription (D)Mutation
296. DirectionofRNAsynthesisis
(A) 5′→ 3’ (B)3′→ 5’
297. DNA-dependentRNApolymeraseisa
(A) Monomer (B)Dimer
(C)Trimer (D)Tetramer
298. DNA-dependentRNApolymeraserequiresthe
followingforitscatalyticactivity:
(A) Mg
++
(B)Mn
++
2909
299. The initiation site for transcription is
recognizedby
(A) α−Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA
polymerase
(B) β−Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA
polymerase
(C) Sigmafactor
(D) Rhofactor
300. The termination site fortranscription is
recognizedby
(A) α−Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA
polymerase
(B) β−Subunit of DNA-dependent RNA
polymerase
(C) Sigmafactor
(D) Rhofactor
301. MammalianRNApolymeraseIsynthesises
(A) mRNA (B)rRNA
(C)tRNA (D)hnRNA
302. MammalianRNApolymeraseIIIsynthesisesNUCLEICACIDS 247
(A) rRNA (B)mRNA
(C)tRNA (D)hnRNA
303. Inmammals,synthesisofmRNAiscatalysed
by
(A) RNApolymeraseI(B)RNApolymeraseII
(C)RNApolymeraseIII(D)RNApolymeraseIV
2910
304. HeterogeneousnuclearRNAistheprecursor
of
(A) mRNA(B)rRNA(C)tRNA(D)Noneof
these
305. Post-transcriptional modification of
hnRNAinvolvesallofthefollowingexcept
(A) Addition of 7-methylguanosine
triphosphatecap
(B) Additionofpolyadenylatetail
(C) Insertionofnucleotides
(D) Deletionofintrons
306. Newly synthesized tRNA undergoes
posttranscriptional modifications which
includeallthefollowingexcept(A)Reduction
insize
(B) Methylationofsomebases
(C) Formationofpseudouridine
(D) AdditionofC-C-Aterminusat5’end
307. Post-transcriptionalmodification does not
occurin
(A) EukaryotictRNA (B)ProkaryotictRNA
(C)EukaryotichnRNA(D)ProkaryoticmRNA
308. A consensus sequence on DNA,called
TATAbox,isthesiteforattachmentof
(A) RNA-dependentDNApolymerase
(B) DNA-dependentRNApolymerase
2911
(C) DNA-dependentDNApolymerase
(D) DNAtopoisomeraseII
309. PolyadenylatetailisnotpresentinmRNA
synthesising
(A) Globin (B)Histone
(C)Apoferritin (D)Growthhormone
310. IntronsarepresentinDNAof
(A) Viruses (B)Bacteria
(C)Man (D)Allofthese
311. A mammalian DNA polymeraseamongthe
followingis
(A) DNApolymeraseα
(B) DNApolymeraseI
(C) DNApolymeraseII
(D) DNApolymeraseIV
312. MammalianDNApolymeraseγislocatedin
(A) Nucleus(B)Nucleolus
(C)Mitochondria (D)Cytosol
313. ReplicationofnuclearDNAinmammalsis
catalysedby
(A) DNApolymeraseα
(B) DNApolymeraseβ(C)DNApolymerase
(D)DNApolymeraseIII
314. Primaseactivityispresentin
(A) DNApolymeraseII
2912
(B) DNApolymeraseα(C)DNApolymerase
(D)DNApolymeraseδ
315. ThemammalianDNApolymeraseinvolvedin
errorcorrectionis
(A) DNApolymeraseα(B)DNApolymeraseβ
(C) DNApolymeraseγ
(D) DNApolymeraseδ
316. Novobicininhibitsthesynthesisof
(A) DNA(B)mRNA
(C)tRNA (D)rRNA
317. Ciprofloxacininhibitsthesynthesisof
(A) DNA(B)mRNA
(C)tRNA (D)rRNA
318. Ciprofloxacininhibits
(A) DNA topisomerase II(B) DNA
polymeraseI
(C) DNApolymeraseIII
(D) DNAgyrase
319. Rifampicininhibits
(A) Unwinding of DNA(B) Initiation of
replication
(C) Initiationoftranslation
(D) Initiationoftranscription2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
3200. ActinomycinDbindsto
2913
(A) DoublestrandedDNA(B)Singlestranded
DNA
(C) SinglestrandedRNA
(D) DNA-RNAhybrid
321. DNA contains some palindromic
sequenceswhich
(A) Mark the site forthe formation of
replicationforks
(B) DirectDNA polymerase to turn back
toreplicatetheotherstrand
(C) Arerecognizedbyrestrictionenzymes
(D) ArefoundonlyinbacterialDNA
322. Intronsingenes
(A) Encode the amino acids which are
removedduring post-translational
modification
(B) Encode signalsequences which are
removedbeforesecretionoftheproteins
(C) Arethenon-codingsequenceswhichare
nottranslated
(D) Are the sequences that intervene
betweentwogenes
323. Allofthefollowingstatementsaboutpost-
transcriptionalprocessingoftRNAaretrue
except
(A) IntronsofsometRNA precursorsare
2914
removed(B)CCAisaddedat3′end
(C) 7-Methylguanosine triphosphate cap
isaddedat5′end
(D) Somebasesaremethylated
324. α-Amanitininhibits
(A) DNA polymerase IIofprokaryotes(B)
DNApolymeraseαofeukaryotes
(C) RNApolymeraseIIofeukaryotes
(D) RNA-dependentDNApolymerase
325. Ciprofloxacininhibitsthesynthesisof
(A) DNAinprokaryotes
(B) DNAinprokaryotesandeukaryotes
(C) RNAinprokaryotes
(D) RNAinprokaryotesandeukaryotes
bacterialpromotersaretrueexcept
(A) They are smaller than eukaryotic
promoters
(B) Theyhavetwo consensussequences
upstreamfromthetranscriptionstarsite
(C) TATAboxisthesiteforattachmentof
RNApolymerase
(D) TATA box has a high melting
temperature
eukaryoticpromotersaretrueexcept
2915
(A) Theymaybelocatedupstream ordown
streamfromthestructuralgene
(B) Theyhavetwoconsensussequences
(C) One consensus sequence binds
RNApolymerase
(D) Mutations in promoter region can
decreasetheefficiencyoftranscription
ofthestructuralgene
328. In sanger’s method of DNA sequence
determination,DNAsynthesisisstoppedby
using
(A) 1′, 2′- Dideoxyribonucleoside
triphosphates
(B) 2′, 3′- Dideoxyribonucleoside
triphosphates (C) 2′, 4′-
Dideoxyribonucleosidetriphosphates
(D) 2′, 5′ - Dideoxyribonucleoside
triphosphates
329. tRNAgeneshave
(A) Upstreampromoters
(B) Downstreampromoters
(C) Intragenicpromoters
(D) Nopromoters
330. AllofthefollowingstatementsabouttRNA
aretrueexcept
(A) Itissynthesizedasalargeprecursor
2916
(B) Itisprocessedinthenucelolus
(C) Ithasnocodonsoranticodons
(D) GenesforrRNA arepresentinsingle
copies
331. Anticodonsarepresenton
(A) CodingstrandofDNA
(B) mRNA
(C) tRNANUCLEICACIDS 249
(D) rRNA
332. Codonsarepresenton
(A) Non-codingstrandofDNA
(B) hnRNA
(C) tRNA
(D) Noneofthese
333. Nonsensecodonsarepresenton
(A) mRNA (B)tRNA
(C)rRNA (D)Noneofthese
334. Genetic code is said to be degenerate
because
(A) Itcanundergomutations
(B) AlargeproportionofDNAisnon-coding
(C) Onecodoncancodeformorethanone
aminoacids
(D) Morethanonecodonscancodeforthe
sameaminoacids
2917
geneticcodearecorrectexcept
(A) Itisdegenerate (B)Itisunambigous
(C)Itisnearlyuniversal(D)Itisoverlapping
nonsensecodonsaretrueexcept
(A) Theydonotcodeforaminoacids
(B) Theyactaschainterminationsignals
(C) They are identical in nuclear
andmitochondrialDNA
(D) They have no complementary
anticodons
337. ApolycistronicmRNAcanbeseenin
(C)Mitochondria (D)Allofthese
338. Non-coding sequence are presentin the
genesof
(A) Bacteria(B)Viruses
339. Non-codingsequencesinageneareknown
as
(A) Cistrons(B)Nonsensecodons
(C)Introns (D)Exons
340. Splicesitesarepresentin
(A) ProkaryoticmRNA(B)EukaryoticmRNA
(C)EukaryotichnRNA(D)Allofthese
341. Thecommonfeaturesofintronsincludeall
2918
thefollowingexcept
(A) ThebasesequencebeginswithGU
(B) ThebasesequenceendswithAG
(C) TheterminalAGsequenceispreceded
byapurinerichtractoftennucleotides
(D) An adenosine residue in branch site
participatesinsplicing
342. A splice some contains all the
followingexcept
(A) hnRNA (B)snRNAs
(C)Someproteins (D)Ribosome
343. Self-splicingcanoccurin
(A) SomeprecursorsofrRNA
(B) SomeprecursorsoftRNA
(C) hnRNA
(D) Noneofthese
344. Pribnowboxispresentin
(A) Prokaryoticpromoters
(B) Eukaryoticpromoters
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
345. Hognessboxispresentin(A)Prokaryotic
promoters
(B) Eukaryoticpromoters
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
2919
346. CAATboxispresentin
(A) Prokaryoticpromoters10bpupstream
oftranscriptionstartsite
(B) Prokaryoticpromoters35bpupstream
(C) Eukaryoticpromoters25bpupstream
(D) Eukaryotic promoters 70–80 bp
upstreamoftranscriptionstartsite
347. Eukaryoticpromoterscontain
(A) TATA box 25bp upstream of
transcriptionstartsite
(B) CAAT box 70-80 bp upstream of2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 transcriptionstartsite
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
348. AllthefollowingstatementsabouttRNAare
correctexcept
(A) AgiventRNAcanbechargedwithonly
oneparticularaminoacid
(B) The amino acid is recognized by
theanticodonoftRNA
(C) Theaminoacidisattachedtoendof
tRNA
(D) The anticodon of tRNA finds the
2920
complementarycodononmRNA
349. Allthefollowingstatementsaboutcharging
oftRNAarecorrectexcept
(A) Itis catalysed by amino acyltRNA
synthetase
(B) ATP isconvertedintoADP andPiin
thisreaction
(C) TheenzymerecognizesthetRNA and
theaminoacid
(D) Thereisaseparateenzymeforeach
tRNA
recognition ofa codon on mRNA byan
anticodonontRNAarecorrectexcept
(A) Therecognitionofthethirdbaseofthe
codonisnotveryprecise
(B) Impreciserecognitionofthethirdbase
resultsinwobble
(C) Wobble is partly responsible for
thedegeneracyofthegeneticcode
(D) Wobble results in incorporation of
incorrectaminoacidsintheprotein
351. Thefirstamino acyltRNA whichinitiates
translationineukaryotesis
(A) MehtionyltRNA
(B) FormylmethionyltRNA
2921
(C) TyrosinyltRNA
(D) AlanyltRNA
352. Thefirstamino acyltRNA whichinitiates
translationinprokaryotesis
(A) MehtionyltRNA
(B) FormylmethionyltRNA
(C) TyrosinyltRNA
(D) AlanyltRNA
353. Ineukaryotes,the40Spre-initiationcomplex
containsallthefollowinginitiationfactors
except
(A) eIF-1A (B)eIF-2
(C)eIF-3 (D)eIF-4
354. Eukaryoticinitiationfactors4A,4Band
4Fbindto
(A) 40Sribosomalsubunit
(B) 60Sribosomalsubunit
(C) mRNA
(D) AminoacyltRNA
355. Thecodonwhichservesastranslationstart
signalis
(A) AUG(B)UAG
(C)UGA (D)UAA
356. ThefirstaminoacyltRNAapproaches40S
ribosomalsubunitinassociationwith
(A) eIF-1AandGTP (B)eIF-2andGTP
2922
(C)eIF-2CandGTP (D)eIF-3andGTP
357. eIF-1AandeIF-3arerequired
(A) ForbindingofaminoacyltRNAto40
Sribosomalsubunit
(B) For binding of mRNA to 40 S
ribosomalsubunit
(C) Forbindingof60S subunitto 40S
subunit
(D) Topreventbindingof60Ssubunitto40
Ssubunit
358. eIF-4Apossesses
(A) ATPaseactivity (B)GTPaseactivity
(C)Helicaseactivity (D)Noneofthese
359. eIF-4B
(A) Bindsto 3’chain initiation codon on
mRNA
(B) Bindsto3’endofmRNA(C)Bindsto5’
endofmRNA
(D)UnwindsmRNAnearits5’end
360. Peptidyltransferaseactivityispresentin
(A) 40Sribosomalsubunit
(B) 60SribosomalsubunitNUCLEICACIDS 251
(C) eEF-2
(D) AminoacyltRNA
361. Afterformationofapeptidebond,mRNAis
translocatedalongtheribosomeby
2923
(A) eEF-1andGTP
(B) eEF-2andGTP
(C) PeptidyltransferaseandGTP
(D) PeptidyltransferaseandATP
362. Binding offormylmehtionyltRNA to 30 S
ribosomalsubunitofprokaryotesisinhibited
by
(A) Streptomycin(B)Chloramphenicol
(C)Erythromycin (D)Mitomycin
363. Tetracyclines inhibit binding of amino
acyltRNAsto
(A) 30Sribosomalsubunits
(B) 40 S ribosomal subunits(C) 50 S
ribosomalsubunits
(D)60Sribosomalsubunits
364. Peptidyl transferase activity of 50 S
ribosomalsubunitsisinhibitedby
(A) Rifampicin (B)Cycloheximide
(C)Chloramphenicol(D)Erythromycin
365. Erythromycin binds to 50 S ribosomal
subunitand
(A) InhibitsbindingofaminoacyltRNA
(B) InhibitsPeptidyltransferaseactivity
(C) Inhibitstranslocation
(D) Causesprematurechaintermination
366. Puromycin causes premature chain
2924
terminationin
367. Diphtheriatoxininhibits
(A) ProkaryoticEF-1 (B)ProkaryoticEF-2
(C)EukaryoticEF-1 (D)EukaryoticEF-2
368. Theproteinsdestinedtobetransportedout
ofthecellhaveallthefollowingfeatures
except
(A) Theypossessasignalsequence
(B) Ribosomessynthesizingthemarebound
toendoplasmicreticulum
(C) Aftersynthesis,theyaredeliveredinto
Golgiapparatus
(D) Theyaretaggedwithubiquitin
369. SRPreceptorsinvolvedinproteinexportare
presenton
(A) Ribosomes
(C) Golgiappartus
(D) Cellmembrane
370. Thesignalsequenceofproteinsiscleaved
off
(A) On the ribosomes immediately after
synthesis
(B) Intheendoplasmicreticulum
2925
(C) DuringprocessinginGolgiapparatus
(D) During passage through the cell
membrane
371. Thehalf-lifeofaproteindependsuponits
(A) Signalsequence
(B) N-terminusaminoacid
(C) C-terminusaminoacid
(D) Prostheticgroup
372. Besides structural genes that encode
proteins,DNA contains some regulatory
sequenceswhichareknownas
(A) Operons(B)Cistrons
(C) Cis-acting elements (D) Trans-acting
factors
373. Inducersandrepressorsare
(A) Enhancer and silencer elements
respectively
(B) Trans-actingfactors
(C) Cis-actingelements
(D) Regulatoryproteins
374. cis-actingelementsinclude
(A) Steroidhormones(B)Calcitriol
(C)Histones (D)Silencers
375. Silencerelements
(A) Aretrans-actingfactors
(B) Are presentbetween promoters and
2926
thestructuralgenes
(C) Decrease the expression of some2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 structuralgenes
(D) Encodespecificrepressorproteins
376. trans-actingfactorsinclude
(A) Promoters (B)Repressors
(C)Enhancers (D)Silencers
377. Enhancerelementshave allthe following
featuresexcept
(A) Theyincreasegeneexpressionthrough
apromoter
(B) Each enhancer activates a specific
promoter
(C) Theymaybe located farawayfrom
thepromoter
(D) Theymaybeupstream ordownstream
fromthepromoter
378. Amplification of dihydrofolate reductase
genemaybebroughtaboutby
(A) High concentrations of folic acid(B)
Deficiencyoffolicacid
(C) Lowconcentrationofthymidylate
(D) Amethopterin
379. ProteinswhichinteractwithDNAandaffect
the rate of transcription possess the
2927
followingstructuralmotif:
(A) Helix-turn-helix motif(B) Zinc finger
motif
(C) Leucinezippermotif
(D) Allofthese
380. Lacoperonisaclusterofgenespresentin
(A) Humanbeings (B)E.coli
(C)Lambdaphage (D)Allofthese
381. Lacoperonisaclusterof
(A) Threestructuralgenes
(B) Three structural genes and their
promoter
(C) A regulatory gene,an operatorand
apromoter
(D) A regulatory gene, an operator, a
promoterandthreestructuralgenes
382. Theregulatoryigeneoflacoperon
(A) Isinhibitedbylacotse
(B) Is inhibited by its own product,the
repressorprotein
(C) Forms a regulatory protein which
increasestheexpressionofdownstream
structuralgenes (D)Is constitutively
expressed
383. RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to
lacoperonatthefollowingsite:
2928
(A) igene (B)zgene
(C)Operatorlocus (D)Promoterregion
384. Trancriptionofz,yandagenesoflacoperon
ispreventedby
(A) Lactose (B)Allo-lactose
(C)Repressor (D)cAMP
385. Transcription of structural genes of
lacoperon is prevented bybinding ofthe
repressortetramerto
(A) igene (B)Operatorlocus
(C)Promoter (D)zgene
386. Theenzymesencodedbyz,yandagenesof
lacoperonareinducible,andtheirinduceris
(A) Lactose
(B) Allo-lactose
(C) Catabolitegeneactivatorprotein
(D) Allofthese
387. BindingofRNApolymeraseholoenzymeto
the promoter region of lac operon is
facilitatedby
(A) Catabolitegeneactivatorprotein(CAP)
(B) cAMP
(C) CAP-cAMPcomplex
(D) Noneofthese
388. Lactose or its analogues act as
positiveregulatorsoflacoperonby
2929
(A) Attaching to igene and preventing
itsexpression
(B) Increasing thesynthesisofcatabolite
geneactivatorprotein
(C) Attaching to promoter region and
facilitatingthe binding of RNA
polymeraseholoenzyme
(D) Bindingtorepressorsubunitssothat
therepressor cannot attach to the
operatorlocus
389. ExpressionofstructuralgenesoflacoperonNUCLEICACIDS 253
isaffectedbyallthefollowingexcept
(A) Lactoseoritsanalogues
(B) Repressortetramer
(C) cAMP
(D) CAP-cAMPcomplex
390. Thecodingsequencesinlacoperoninclude
(A) igene
(B) igene,operatorlocusandpromoter
(C) z,yandagenes
(D) i,z,yandagenes
391. Mutationscanbecausedby
(A) Ultravioletradiation
(B) Ionisingradiation(C)Alkylatingagents
(D)Allofthese
392. Mutationscanbecausedby
2930
(A) Nitrosamine (B)Dimethylsulphate
(C)Acridine (D)Allofthese
393. Nitrosaminecandeaminate
(A) Cytosinetoformuracil
(B) Adeninetoformxanthine
(C) Guaninetoformhypoxanthine
(D) Allofthese
394. ExposureofDNAtoultravioletradiationcan
leadtotheformationof
(A) Adeninedimers (B)Guaninedimers
(C)Thyminedimers (D)Uracildimers
395. Damage to DNA caused by ultraviolet
radiationcan berepaired by(A)uvrABC
excinuclease
(B) DNApolymeraseI
(C) DNAligase
(D) Allofthese
396. Xeroderma pigmentosum results from a
defectin
(A) uvrABCexcinuclease
(B) DNApolymeraseI
(C) DNAligase
(D) Allofthese
xerodermapigmentosumaretrueexcept
(A) Itisageneticdisease
2931
(B) Itsinheritanceisautosomaldominant
(C) uvrABC excinuclease is defective in
thisdisease
(D) Itresultsinmultipleskincancers
398. Substitutionofanadeninebasebyguanine
inDNAisknownas
(A) Transposition(B)Transition
(C)Transversion (D)Frameshiftmutation
399. Substitutionofathyminebasebyadeninein
DNAisknownas
((A)Transposition (B)Transition
(C)Transversion (D)Frameshiftmutation
400. Apointmutationresultsfrom
(A) Substitutionofabase
(B) Insertionofabase
(C) Deletionofabase
(D) Allofthese
401. Substitutionofabasecanresultina
(A) Silentmutation (B) Mis-sense
mutation
(C)Nonsensemutation(D)Allofthese
402. Asilentmutationismostlikelytoresultfrom
(A) Substitutionofthefirstbaseofacodon
(B) Substitutionofthethirdbaseofacodon
(C) Conversionofanonsensecodonintoa
sensecodon
2932
(D) Conversion ofa sense codon into a
nonsensecodon
403. Theeffectofamis-sensemutationcanbe
(A) Acceptable (B)Partiallyacceptable
(C)Unacceptable (D)Allofthese
404. Aminoacidsequenceoftheencodedprotein
isnotchangedin
(A) Silentmutation
(B) Acceptablemis-sensemutation
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
405. HaemoglobinSisanexampleofa/an
(A) Silentmutation
(C) Unacceptablemis-sensemutation
(D) Partiallyacceptablemis-sensemutation2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
4006. IfthecodonUAConmRNAchangesintoUAG
asaresultofabasesubstitutioninDNA,it
willresultin
(A) Silentmutation
(C) Nonsensemutation
(D) Frameshiftmutation
407. Insertionofabaseinagenecancause
(A) Changeinreadingframe
2933
(B) Garbled amino acid sequence in
theencodedprotein
(C) Prematureterminationoftranslation
(D) Allofthese
408. Aframeshiftmutationchangesthereading
framebecausethegeneticcode
(A) Isdegenerate
(B) Isoverlapping
(C) Hasnopunctuations
(D) Isuniversal
409. Suppressormutationsoccurin
(A) Structuralgenes (B)Promoterregions
(C)Silencerelements(D)AnticodonsoftRNA
410. SuppressortRNAscanneutralizetheeffects
ofmutationsin
(A) Structuralgenes (B)Promoterregions
(C)Enhancerelements(D)Allofthese
411. Mutationsinpromoterregionsofgenescan
cause
(A) Prematureterminationoftranslation
(B) Change in reading frame of
downstreamstructuralgene
(C) Decreasedefficiencyoftranscription
(D) Allofthese
412. Mitochondrial protein synthesis is
inhibitedby
2934
(A) Cycloheximide (B)Chloramphenicol
(C)Diptheriatoxin (D)Noneofthese
puromycinaretrueexcept
(A) ItisanalanyltRNAanalogue
(B) It causes premature termination of
proteinsynthesis
(C) It inhibits protein synthesis in
prokaryotes
(D) It inhibits protein synthesis in
eukaryotes
414. Leucine zipper motif is seen in some
helicalproteinswhenleucineresiduesappear
atevery
(A) 3rdposition (B)5thposition
(C)7thposition (D)9thposition
415. Zincfingermotifisformedinsomeproteins
bybindingofzincto
(A) Twocysteineresidues
(B) Twohistidineresidues
(C) Twoarginineresidues
(D) Twocysteineandtwohistidineresidues
ortwopairs oftwo cysteine residues
each
416. Restrictionendonucleasesarepresentin
(A) Viruses (B)Bacteria
2935
417. Restrictionendonucleasessplit
(A) RNA
(B) SinglestrandedDNA
(C) DoublestrandedDNA
(D) DNA-RNAhybrids
418. Restrictionendonucleasescanrecognise
(A) Palindromicsequences
(B) ChimericDNA
(C) DNA-RNAhybrids
(D) Homopolymersequences
restrictionendonucleasesaretrueexcept:
(A) Theyarepresentinbacteria
(B) TheyactondoublestrandedDNA
(C) Theyrecognizepalindromicsequences
(D) Theyalwaysproducestickyends
420. Which ofthe following is a palindromic
sequence
(A) 5′−ATGCAG−3′
(B) 3′−TACGTC−5′
(C) 5′−CGAAGC−3′
(D) 3′−GCTTCG−5′NUCLEICACIDS 255
421. In sticky ends produced by
restrictionendonucleases
(A) The2strandsofDNAarejoinedtoeach
2936
other
(B) The DNA strands stick to the
restrictionendonuclease
(C) Theendsofadoublestrandedfragment
areoverlapping
(D) Theendsofadoublestrandedfragment
arenonoverlapping
422. Allof the following may be used as
expressionvectorsexcept
(A) Plasmid (B)Bacteriophage
(C)Baculovirus (D)E.coli
423. Aplasmidisa
(A) SinglestrandedlinearDNA
(B) SinglestrandedcircularDNA
(C) DoublestrandedlinearDNA
(D) DoublestrandedcircularDNA
424. Fragments ofDNA can be identified by
thetechniqueof
(A) Westernblotting (B)Easternblotting
(C)Northernblotting(D)Southernblotting
425. A particular RNA in a mixture can
beidentifiedby
(A) Westernblotting (B)Easternblotting
(C)Northernblotting(D)Southernblotting
426. AradioactiveisotopelabeledcDNAprobeis
usedin
2937
(A) Southernblotting(B)Northernblotting
427. Anantibodyprobeisusedin
(C)Westernblotting (D)Noneofthese
428. A particular protein in a mixture can
bedetectedby
(C)Westernblotting (D)Noneofthese
429. Thefirstproteinsynthesizedbyrecombinant
DNAtechnologywas
(A) Streptokinase
(B) Humangrowthhormone
(C) Tissueplasminogenactivator
(D) Humaninsulin
430. For production of eukaryotic protein by
recombinantDNAtechnologyinbacteria,the
templateusedis
(A) Eukaryoticgene (B)hnRNA
(C)mRNA (D)Allofthese
431. Monoclonal antibodies are prepared
bycloning
(A) Myelomacells (B)Hybridomacells
(C)T-Lymphocytes (D)B-Lymphocytes
432. Myelomacellsarelackingin
(A) TMPsynthetase
2938
(B) Formyltransferase
(C) HGPRT
(D) Allofthese
433. Hybridomacellsareselected byculturing
theminamediumcontaining
(A) Adenine, guanine, cytosine and
thymine(B)Adenine,guanine,cytosine
anduracil
(C) Hypoxanthine,aminopterinandthymine
(D) Hypoxanthine, aminopterin and
thymidine
434. Myelomacellsandlymphocytescanbefused
byusing
(A) Calciumchloride (B)Ethidiumbromide
(C)Polyethyleneglycol(D)DNApolymerase
435. Trialsforgenetherapyinhumanbeingswere
firstcarriedout,withconsiderablesuccess,
inageneticdiseasecalled
(A) Cysticfibrosis
(B) Thalassemia
(C) Adenosinedeaminasedeficiency
(D) Lesch-Nyhansyndrome
436. ChimericDNA
(A) Isfoundinbacteriophages
(B) Containsunrelatedgenes
(C) Hasnorestrictionsites
2939
(D) Ispalindromic
437. Which ofthe following maybe used as2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 acloningvector?
(A) Prokaryoticplasmid(B)Lambdaphage
(C)Cosmid (D)Allofthese
438. TheplasmidpBR322has
(A) Ampicillinresistancegene
(B) Tetracyclineresistancegene
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
439. LambdaphagecanbeusedtocloneDNA
fragmentsofthesize
(A) Upto3kilobases (B)Upto20kilobases
(C) Upto 45 kilobases (D) Upto 1,000
kilobases
440. DNAfragmentsupto45kilobasesinsizecan
beclonedin
(A) Bacterialplasmids
(B) Lambdaphage
(C) Cosmids
(D) Yeastartificialchromosomes
441. Acosmidisa
(A) Largebacterialplasmid
(B) Viralplasmid
(C) Hybridofplasmidandphage
2940
(D) Yeastplasmid
442. Polymerase chain reaction can rapidly
amplifyDNAsequencesofthesize
(A) Upto10kilobases(B)Upto45kilobases
(C) Upto 100 kilobases(D) Upto 1,000
kilobases
443. The DNA polymerase commonly used in
polymerasechainreactionisobtainedfrom
(A) E.coli (B)Yeast(C)T.aquaticus (D)
Eukaryotes
444. BasesequenceofDNAcanbedeterminedby
(A) Maxam-Gilbertmethod
(B) Sanger’sdideoxymethod
(C) Both(A)and(B)
(D) Noneofthese
445. From a DNA-RNA hybrid,DNA can be
obtainedbyadditionof
(A) DNABproteinandATP
(B) HelicaseandATP
(C) DNAtopoisomeraseI
(D) Alkali
446. Optimum temperatureofDNApolymeraseof
T.aquaticusis
(A) 30°C(B)37°C
(C)54°C (D)72°C
447. InadditiontoTaqpolymerase,polymerase
2941
chainreactionrequiresallofthefollowing
except
(A) AtemplateDNA
(B) Deoxyribonucleosidetriphosphates
(C) Primers
(D) Primase
448. DNApolymeraseofT.aquaticusispreferred
tothatofE.coliinPCRbecause
(A) ItreplicatesDNAmoreefficiently
(B) Itdoesn’trequireprimers
(C) It is not denatured at the melting
temperatureofDNA
(D) Itdoesn’tcauseerrorsinreplication
449. TwentycyclesofPCRcanamplifyDNA:
(A) 2
20
fold (B)20
fold
(C)20x2fold (D)20fold
450. Transgenic animals may be prepared
byintroducingaforeigngeneinto
(A) Somaticcellsofyounganimals
(B) Testesandovariesofanimals
(C) Aviralvectorandinfectingtheanimals
withtheviralvector
2942
(D) Fertilisedeggandimplantingtheegg
intoafostermother
451. Yeastartificialchromosomecanbeusedto
amplifyDNAsequencesofthesize
(A) Upto10kb (B)Upto45kb
(C)Upto100kb (D)Upto1,000kb
452. DNAfingerprintingisbasedonthepresence
inDNAof
(A) Constantnumberoftandemrepeats
(B) Varibalenumberoftandemrepeats
(C) Non-repititivesequencesineachDNA
(D) IntronsineukaryoticDNA
453. Allthefollowingstatementsaboutrestriction
fragment length polymorphism are trueNUCLEICACIDS 257
except
(A) Itresultsfrom mutationsinrestriction
sites
(B) Mutationsinrestrictionsitescanoccur
incodingornon-codingregionsofDNA
(C) ItisinheritedinMendelianfashion
(D) It can be used to diagnose any
geneticdisease
454. Inbornerrorsofureacyclecancauseallthe
followingexcept
(A) Vomiting(B)Ataxia
(C)Renalfailure (D)Mentalretardation
2943
455. Hyperammonaemia type I results from
congenitalabsenceof
(A) Glutamatedehydrogenase
(B) Carbamoylphosphatesynthetase
(D) Noneofthese
456. Congenital deficiency of ornithine
transcarbamoylasecauses
(A) HyperammonaemiatypeI
(B) HyperammonaemiatypeII
(C) Hyperornithinaemia
(D) Citrullinaemia
457. Aketogenicaminoacidamongthefollowing
is
(A) Leucine (B)Serine
(C)Threonine (D)Proline
458. Carbonskeletonofthefollowingaminoacid
can serve as a substance for
gluconeogenesis
(A) Cysteine(B)Aspartate
(C)Glutamate (D)Allofthese
459. N-Formiminoglutamateisametaboliteof
(A) Glutamate (B)Histidine
460. MethylmalonylCoAisametaboliteof
(A) Valine (B)Leucine
2944
(C)Isoleucine (D)Allofthese
461. Homogentisicacidisformedfrom
(A) Homoserine (B)Homocysteine
462. Maple syrup urine disease results from
absenceorservedeficiencyof
(A) Homogentisateoxidase
(B) Phenylalaninehydroxylase
(C) Branched chain amino acid
transaminase
(D) Noneofthese
463. Whichofthefollowingispresentasamarker
inlysosomalenzymestodirectthem totheir
destination?
(A) Glucose-6-phosphate
(B) Mannose-6-phosphate
(C) Galactose-6-phosphate
(D) N-Acetylneuraminicacid
464. Marfan’ssyndromeresultsfrom amutation
inthegenecoding:
(A) Collagen(B)Elastin
(C)Fibrillin (D)Keratin
fibronectinaretrueexcept
(A) Itisglycoprotein
(B) Itisatriplehelix
2945
(C) Itispresentinextracellularmatrix
(D) Itbindswithintegrinreceptorsofcell
466. Fibronectinhasbindingsitesforallofthe
followingexcept
(A) Glycophorin (B)Collagen
(C)Heparin (D)Integrinreceptor
467. Fibronectinisinvolvedin
(A) Celladhension (B)Cellmovement
468. Glycoproteinsaremarkedfordestructionby
removaloftheir
(A) Oligosaccharideprostheticgroup
(B) Sialicacidresidues
(C) Mannoseresidues
(D) N-terminalaminoacids
469. Glycophorinispresentincellmembranesof
(A) Erythrocytes (B)Platelets
(C)Neutrophils (D)Liver
470. Selectins are proteins that can
recognisespecific2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 (A) Carbohydrates (B)Lipids
(C)Aminoacids (D)Nucleotides
471. Hunter’ssyndromeresultsfromabsenceof
(A) HexosaminidaseA
(B) Iduronatesulphatase
2946
(C) Neuraminidase
(D) ArylsulphataseB
472. Acancercellischaracterizedby
(A) Uncontrolledcelldivision
(B) Invasionofneighbouringcells
(C) Spreadtodistantsites
(D) Allofthese
473. IfDNA ofacancercellisintroducedinto
anormalcell,therecipientcell
(A) DestroystheDNA
(B) Losesitsabilitytodivide
(C) Dies
(D) Changesintoacancercell
474. A normalcellcan be transformed into
acancercellbyallofthefollowingexcept
(A) Ionisingradiation
(B) Mutagenicchemicals
(C) Oncogenicbacteria
(D) Someviruses
475. Proto-oncogensarepresentin
(A) Oncoviruses
(B) Cancercells
(C) Healthyhumancells
(D) Prokaryotes
protooncogenesaretrueexcept
2947
(A) Theyarepresentinhumanbeings
(B) Theyarepresentinhealthycells
(C) Proteinsencodedbythemareessential
(D) Theyareexpressedonlywhenahealthy
cellhasbeentransformedintoacancer
cell
477. Various oncogens may encode all of
thefollowingexcept:
(A) Carcinogens
(B) Growthfactors
(C) Receptorsforgrowthfactors
(D) Signaltransducersforgrowthfactors
478. Ras proto-oncogene is converted into
oncogeneby
(A) Apointmutation
(B) Chromosomaltranslocation
(C) Insertionofaviralpromoterupstreamof
thegene
(D) Geneamplification
479. Rasproto-oncogeneencodes
(A) Epidermalgrowthfactor(EGF)
(B) ReceptorforEGF
(C) SignaltransducerforEGF(D)Nuclear
transcriptionfactor
480. P53gene:
(A) Aproto-oncogene
2948
(B) Anoncogene
(C) Atumoursuppressorgene
(D) Noneofthese
481. Retinoblastomacanresultfrom amutation
in
(A) rasproto-oncogene
(B) erbBproto-oncogene
(C) p53gene
(D) RB1gene
482 Allthe following statements aboutretino
blastomaaretrueexcept
(A) Atleasttwomutationsarerequiredfor
itsdevelopment
(B) Onemutationcanbeinheritedfrom a
parent
(C) Children who have inherited one
mutationdevelop retinoblastoma at a
youngerage
(D) RB 1genepromotesthedevelopment
ofretinoblastoma
483. Amesassayisarapidmethodfordetection
of
(A) Oncoviruses
(B) Retroviuses
(C) Chemicalcarcinogens
(D) Typhoid
2949
484. Amplification of dihydrofolate reductase
geneinacancercellmakesthecellNUCLEICACIDS 259
(A) Susceptible to folic acid deficiency(B)
Lessmalignant
(C) Resistanttoamethopterintherapy
(D) Responsivetoamethopterintherapy
485. Conversion of a procarcinogen into a
carcinogenoftenrequires
(A) Proteolysis
(B) Microsomalhydroxylation
(C) Exposuretoultravioletradiation
(D) ExposuretoX-rays
oncovirusesis
(A) AlltheoncovirusesareRNAviruses
(B) Reverse transcriptase is present in
alloncoviruses
(C) Viral oncogenes are identical to
humanprotooncogens
(D) Both DNA and RNA viruses can
beoncoviruses
487. RB1geneis
(A) Atumoursuppressorgene
(B) Oncogene
(C) Proto-oncogene
(D) Activatedproto-oncogene
2950
488. Cancer cells may become resistant to
amethopterinby
(A) Developing mechanisms to destroy
amethopterin
(B) Amplificationofdihydrofolatereducatse
gene
(C) Mutationinthedihydrofolatereductase
geneso thattheenzymeisno longer
inhibitedbyamethopterin
(D) Developing alternate pathway of
thymidylatesynthesis
489. ThemajorsourceofNH3 producedbythe
kidneyis
(A) Leucine (B)Glycine
(C)Alanine (D)Glutamine
490. Which ofthese methyldonors is nota
quanternaryammoniumcompound?
(A) Methionine (B)Choline
(C)Betain (D)Betainaldehyde
491. L-glutamic acid is subjected to oxidative
deaminitionby
(A) L-aminoaciddehydrogenase
(B) L-glutamatedehydrogenase
(C) Glutaminase
(D) Glutaminesynthetase
492. A prokaryotic ribosome is made up
2951
of________subunits.
(A) 20Sand50S (B)30Sand50S
493. AN Eukaryotic ribosome is made up
of________subunit.
(A) 40Sand60S (B)40Sand50S
494. GTPisnotrequiredfor
(A) CappingLofmRNA
(B) Fusionof40Sand60Sofribosome
(C) AccommodationoftRNAaminoacid
(D) FormationoftRNAaminoacidcomplex
495. TheantibioticwhichinhibitsDNAdependent
RNApolymeraseis
(A) Mitomycin C (B) Actinomycin d (C)
Streptomycin(D)Puromycin
496. TheantibioticwhichcleavesDNAis
(A) Actinomycind(B)Streptomycin
(C)Puromycin (D)MitomycinC
497. Theantibioticwhichhasastructuresimilarto
theaminoacylendoftRNAtyrosineis
(A) Actinomycind(B)Streptomycin
(C)Puromycin (D)Mitomycinc
498. ATPisrequiredfor
(A) Fusionof40Sand60Sofribosome
(B) AccommodationtRNA aminoacidina
2952
siteofribosome
(C) MovementofribosomealongmRNA
(D) formationoftRNAaminoacidcomplex
499. What is the subcellular site for the
biosynthesisofproteins?
(A) Chromosomes (B)Lymosomes
(C)Ribosomes (D)Centrosomes
500. An animal is in negative nitrogen
balancewhen2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 (A) Intakeexceedsoutput
(B) Newtissueisbeingsynthesized
(C) Outputexceedsintake
(D) Intakeisequaltooutput
501. WhenNH3 isperfusedthroughadog’sliver
______isformed,while______isformedinthe
birdsliver.
(A) Urea,Uricacid(B)Urea,allantoin
(C) Uricacid,creatinine
(D) Uricacid,Urea
502. Aspartate amino transferase uses the
followingfortransamination:
(A) Glutamicacidandpyruvicacid
(B) Glutamicacidandoxaloaceticacid
(C) Asparticacidandpyruvicacid
(D) asparticacidandketoadipicacid
2953
503. Whichamongthefollowingcompoundsis
notaprotein?
(A) Insulin (B)Hheparin
(C)Mucin (D)Pepsin
504. Almostalltheureaisformedinthistissue:
(A) Kidney (B)Urethra
(C)Uterus (D)Liver
505. A polyribosome will have about
_______individualribosomes.
(A) 20 (B)10
(C)5 (D)2
506. Progressive transmethylation of
ethanolaminegives
(A) Creatinine(B)Choline
(C) Methionine
(D) N-methylnicotinamide
507. Geneticinformationoriginatesfrom
(A) CistronofDNA
(B) CodonsofmRNA
(C) AnticodonsoftRNA
(D) Histonesofnucleoproteins
508. Thegeneticcodeoperatesthrough
(A) TheproteinmoietyofDNA
(B) CistromofDNA
(C) NucleotidesequenceofmRNA
(D) TheanticodonsoftRNA
2954
509. DNA synthesis in laboratory was first
achievedby
(A) Watsonandcrick(B)Khorana
(C)A.Kornberg (D)Ochoa
510. AmongthedifferenttypesofRNA,whichone
hasthehighestM.W.?
(A) mRNA (B)rRNA
(C)yeastRNA (D)tRNA
511. From DNA the genetic message is
transcribedintothiscompound:
(A) Protein (B)mRNA
(C)tRNA (D)rRNA
512. This compound has a double helical
structure.
(A) Deoxyribonucleicacid
(B) RNA
(C) Flavine-adevinedinucleotide
(D) Nicotinamideadaminedinucleotide
513. Thestructuralstabilityofthedoublehelixof
DNAisascribbedlargelyto
(A) Hydrogen bonding between adjacent
purinebases
(B) Hydrophobic bonding between staked
purineandpyrinuidinenuclei
(C) Hydrogen bonding between
adjacentpyrimidinebases
2955
(E)Hydrogen bonding between purineand
pyrimidinebases
514. Which ofthe following statements about
nucleicacidismostcorrect?
(A) Both pentose nucleic acid and
deoxypentosenucleic acid contain the
samepyrimidines
(B) Both pentose nucleic acid and
deoxypentosenucleic acid and
deoxypentosenucleicacidContainthe
samepurines
(C) RNAcontainscytosineandthymine
(D) DNAandRNAarehydrolysedbyweak
alkali
515. Acid hydrolysis ofribonucleic acid would
yieldthefollowingmajorproducts:
(A) d-deoxyribose,cytosine,adenine(B)d-NUCLEICACIDS 261
ribose,thymine,Guanine
(C) d-ribose,cytosine,uracil,thymine
(D) d-ribose, uracil, adenine, guanine,
cytosine
(A) adenine (B)OHmethylcytosine
(C)d-ribose (D)Uracil
517. Whichofthefollowingstatementsiscorrect?
(A) anucleoproteinusuallycontaindeoxy
2956
sugarsofthehexosetype
(B) Nucleoproteinsareusuallyabsentfrom
thecytoplasm
(C) Nucleoproteins usually are presentin
thenucleusonly
(D) Nucleoproteins usually occur in the
nucleusandcytoplasm
518. Whcihofthefollowingcompoundispresent
inRNAbutabsentfromDNA?
(A) Thymine(B)Cytosine
(C)Uracil (D)Guanine
519. Nucleicacidscanbedetectedbymeansof
theirabsorptionmaximanear260nm.Their
absorptioninthisrangeisdueto
(A) Proteins
(B) Purinesandpyrimidines
(C) Ribose
(D) Deoxyribose
520. Which ofthe following contains a deoxy
sugar?
(A) RNA(B)DNA
(C)ATP (D)UTP
521. DNAis
(A) Usuallypresentintissuesasanucleo
proteinandcannotbeseparatedfrom its
protein
2957
component
(B) A long chain polymer in which
theinternucleotide linkages are ofthe
diestertypebetweenC-3’andC-5’
(C) Differentfrom RNA sinceinthelatter
theinternucleotidelinkagesarebetween
C-2’andC-5’
(D) Hydrolyzedbywealalkali(pH9to100°C)
522. Nobodyisthenamegivento
(A) Ribosome (B)Microsome
(C)Centrosome (D)Nucleosome
523. Transcriptionistheformationof
(A) DNAfromaparentDNA
(B) mRNAfromaparentmRNA
(C) premRNAfromDNA
(D) proteinthroughmRNA
524. Translationistheformationof
(A) DNAfromDNA
(B) mRNAfromDNA
(C) ProteinthroughmRNA
(D) mRNAfrompremRNA
525. SigmaandRhofactorsarerequiredfor
(A) Replication (B)Transcription
(C)Translation (D)Polymerisation
526. The genine of φ×174 bacteriophage is
interestinginthatifcontains
2958
(A) NoDNA
(B) DNAwithuracil
(C) SinglestrandedDNA
(D) TriplestandardDNA
527. Okasakifragmentsaresmallbitsof
(A) RNA
(B) DNA
(C) DNAwithRNAheads(D)RNAwithDNA
heads528.InadditiontotheDNA of
nucleusthereDNAis
(A) Mitochondrian
(C) Golgiapparatus
(D) Plasmamembrane
529. ThemitochondrialDNAis
(A) LikethenuclearDNAinstructure
(B) Singlestranded,linear
(C) Doublestranded,circular
(D) Singlestranded,circular
530. A synthetic RNA having the sequence
ofUUUUUU(PolyU)willgiveaproteinhaving
poly______.
(A) Alamine (B)Phenylalanine
(C)Glycine (D)Methionine2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
5301. Lacoperon ofE.colicontains_______is
2959
continuity.
(A) Regulatorandoperatorgenesonly
(B) Operatorandstructuralgenesonly
(C) Regularandstructuralgenesonly
(D) Regulator,operatorandstructuralgenes
532. AmRNAofeukaryotescancodefor
(A) Onlyonepolypeptide
(B) Twopolypeptides
(C) Threepolypeptides
(D) Fivepolypeptides
533. mRNAofprokaryotescancodefor
(A) Morethanonepolypeptide
(B) Onlyonepolypeptide
(C) Manyexonsandintrons
(D) Intronsonly
534. DNAdirectedRNApolymeraseis
(A) Replicase
(B) Transcriptase
(C) Reversetranscriptase
(D) PolymeraseIII
535. RNAdirectedDNApolymeraseis
(A) Replicase
(B) Transcriptase
(C) Reversetranscriptase
(D) Polymerase–III
Q536.RNAsynthesisrequires
2960
(A)RNAprimer (B)RNAtemplate
(C)DNAtemplate (D)DNAprimer
537. ThemRNAreadyforproteinsynthesishasthe
________cap.
(A) ATP (B)CTP
(C)GTP (D)UTP
538. mRNA readyforproteinsynthesishasthe
poly_______toil.
(A) G (B)A
(C)U (D)C
539. ThecodonforphenylAlanineis
(A) AAA(B)CCC
(C)GGG (D)UUU
540. Blueprintforgeneticinformationresiduesin
(A) mRNA (B)tRNA
(C)rRNA (D)DNA
541. Genesare
(A) RNA(B)DNA
(C)lipoproteinsand (D)Chromoproteins
542. Codonsarein
(A) DNA(B)mRNA
(C)tRNA (D)rRNA
543. Thegeneticcodeoperatesvia
(A) TheproteinmoietyofDNA
(B) ThebasesequencesofDNA
(C) ThenucleotidesequenceofmRNA
2961
(D) ThebasesequenceoftRNA
544. Urine bases with methyl substituents
occurringinplantsare
(A) Caffeine (B)Theophylline
(C)Theobromine (D)Allofthese
545. Genetic information in human beings is
storedin
(A) DNA(B)RNA
546. All following are naturally occurring
nucleotidesexcept
(A) CyclicAMP
(B) ATP
(C) DNA
(D) Inosinemonophosphate
547. Iftheaminogroupandacarboxylicgroupof
theaminoacidareattachedtosamecarbon
atom,theaminoacidiscalledas
(A) Alpha (B)Beta
(C)Gamma (D)Epsilon
548. Ifinanucleicacidtherearemorethan
8000nucleotidesitismostlikely
(A) RNA(B)DNA
549. Genetic information in human beings is
storedin
2962
(A) RNA(B)DNA
(C)Both(A)and(B) (D)mRNA
550. InRNA,apartfrom riboseandphosphate,allNUCLEICACIDS 263
followingarepresentexcept
(A) Adenine (B)Guanine
(C)Thymine (D)Cytosine
551. Which ofthe following gives a positive
Ninhydrintest?
(A) Reducingsugar (B)Triglycerides
(C)α-aminoacids (D)Phospholipids
552. AGeneis
(A) Asingleproteinmolecule
(B) Agroupofchromosomes
(C) An instruction formaking a protein
molecule
(D) AbitofDNAmolecule
553. InDNA,geneticinformationislocatedin
(A) Purinebases
(B) Pyrimidinebases
(C) Purineandpyrimidinebases
(D) sugar
554. Which one of the following is not a
constituentofRNA?
(A) Deoxyribose (B)Uracil
(C)Adenine (D)Thymine
555. Whichofthefollowingarenucleoproteins?
2963
(A) Protamines
(B) Histones
(C) DeoxyandRibonucleoproteins
(D) Allofthese
556. ThetotalRNAincelltRNAconstitutes
(A) 1–10% (B)10–20%
(C)30–50% (D)50–80%
557. Unitofgeneticinformation:
(A) DNA(B)RNA
(C)Cistron (D)Noneofthese
558. Anticodonsequenceareseenin
(A) tRNAandtranscribedDNAstrand
(B) tRNAandcomplementaryDNAstrand
(C) mRNA
(D) mRNAandcomplementaryDNAstrand
559. cAMDisdestroyedby
(A) Adenylatecyclase
(B) Phosphodiesterase
(C) Synthetasephosphatase
(D) Synthetasekinase
560. Restrictionenzymeshavebeenfoundin
(A) Humans (B)Birds
(C)Bacteria (D)Bacteriophase
561. Sulphurisnotpresentin
(A) Thiamine(B)Lipicacid
(C)Thymine (D)Biotin
2964
562. Whichoneofthefollowingbindstospecific
nucleotidesequences?
(A) RNApolymerase(B)Repressor
(C)Inducer (D)Restriction
563. Using written convertion which one of
thefollowingsequencesiscomplimentaryto
TGGCAGCCT?
(A) ACCGTCGGA(B)ACCGUCGGA
(C)AGGCTGCCA (D)TGGCTCGGA
564. Ribosomes similarto those ofbacterial
foundin
(A) Plantnucei
(B) Cardiacmusclecytoplasm
(C) Liverendoplasmicreticulum
(D) Neuronalcytoplasm
565Themechanism ofsynthesisofDNAandRNA
aresimilarinallthefollowingwaysexcept
(A) Theyinvolvereleaseofpyrophosphate
fromeachnucleotideadded
(B) They require activated nucleotide
precursorandMg
2+
(C) Thedirectionofsynthesisis5’→ 3’
(D) Theyrequireaprimer
566. Template-directed DNA synthesis occurs
inallthefollowingexcept
2965
(A) Thereplicationfork
(B) Polymerasechainreaction
(C) GrowthofRNAtumorviruses
(D) Expressionofoneogenes
correctlydescribeseukaryoticDNA?
fromeachnucleotideprecussorandMg
2+ 2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 (B) Thedirectionofsynthesisis
(C) Theyrequireaprimer5’→ 3’
(D) Noneofthese
568. Whichoneofthefollowingcausesframeshift
mutation?
(A) Transition
(B) Transversion
(C) Deletion
(D) Substitutionofpurinetopyrimidine
569. Catabolismofthymidylategives
(A) α-alanine(B)β-alanine
(C) α-aminoisobutyrate
(D) β-aminoisobutyrate
570. Glycinegives__________atomsofpurine.
(A) C2,C3 (B)C4,C5andN7
(C)C4,C5andN9 (D)C4,C6andN7
2966
571. A common substrate of HGPRTase,
APRTaseand PRPP glutamyl
amidotransferaseis
(A) Ribose5phosphate
(B) Phosphoribosylpyrophosphate
(C) Hypoxanthine
(D) Adenosine
572. Carbon6-ofpurineskeletoncomesfrom
(A) AtmosphericCO2
(B) 1carboncarriedbyfolate
(C) Betoine
(D) Methionine
573. Uricacidisthecatabolicendproductof
(A) Porphyrine (B)Purines
(C)Pyrimidines (D)Pyridoxine
574. Diphenylamine method is employed in
thequantitationof
(A) Nucleicacid (B)RNA(C)DNA (D)
Proteins
575. Orcinol method is employed in the
quantitationof
(A) Nucleicacid (B)DNA(C)RNA (D)
Proteins
576. Nucleicacidshow strongabsorptionatone
ofthewavelength:
(A) 280nm (B)220nm
2967
(C)360nm (D)260nm
577. tRNAhas
(A) Cloverleafstructure
(B) anticodonarm
(C) poly‘A’tay3’
(D) Capat5’end
578. Which one of the following contributes
nitrogenatomstobothpurineandpyrimidine
rings?
(A) Aspartate
(B) Carbanoylphosphate
(C) Carbondioxide
579. The fournitrogen atoms ofpurines are
derivedfrom
(A) UreaandNH3
(B) NH3,GlycineandGlutamate
(C) NH3,AsparateandGlutamate
(D) Aspartate,GlutamineandGlycine
580. Adrugwhichpreventsuricacidsynthesisby
inhibitingtheenzymeXanthineoxidaseis
(A) Aspirin (B)Allopurinal
(C)Colchicine (D)Phenylbenzoate
581. GlycinecontributestothefollowingCandN
ofpurinenucleus:
(A) C1,C2andN7 (B)C8,C8andN9
2968
(C)C4,C5andN7 (D)C4,C5andN9
582. Insoinicacidisthebiologicalprecursorof
(A) CytosineandUricacid
(B) AdenylveacidandGlucineflocacid
(C) OroticacidandUridylicacid
(D) AdenosineacidThymidine
583. Theprobablemetabolicdefectingentsis
(A) A defectin excretion ofuricacid by
kidney
(B) Anoverproductionofpyrimidines
(C) Anoverproductionofuricacid
(D) Riseincalcium leadingtodepositionof
calciumurate
584. Inhumans,theprincipalbreakdownproduct
ofpurinesisNUCLEICACIDS 265
(A) NH3 (B)Allantin
(C)Alanine (D)Uricacid
585. A key substance in the committed step
ofpyrimidinesbiosynthesisis
(A) Ribose-5-phosphate
(B) Carbamoylphosphate
(C) ATP
(D) Glutamine
586. Inhumans,theprincipalmetabolicproductof
pyrimidinesis
(A) Uricacid(B)Allantoin
2969
(C)Hypoxanthine (D)β-alanine
587. Inmostmammals,exceptprimates,uricacid
ismetabolizedby
(A) Oxidation to allantoin(B)Reduction to
NH3
(C) Hydrolysistoallantoin
(D) HydrolysistoNH3
588. Two nitrogen of the pyrimidines ring
areobtainedfrom
(A) GlutamineandCarbamoyl-p
(B) AsparateandCarbamoyl-p
(C) GlutamateandNH3
(D) GlutamineandNH3
589. Allare true aboutlesch-nyhan syndrome
except
(A) Producesself-mutilation
(B) Geneticdeficiencyoftheenzyme
(C) Elevatedlevelsofuricacidinblood
(D) Inheritanceisautosomalrecessive
590. Synthesis ofGMP and IMP requires the
following:
(A) NH3NAD
,ATP
(B) Glutamine,NAD
2970
,ATP
(C) NH3,GTP,NADP
(D) Glutamine,GTP,NADP
591. Whichpathwayiscorrectforcatabolismof
purinestoformuricacid?
(A) Guanylate→Adenylate→Xanthine→hypo
xanthine→Uricacid
(B) Guanylate→inosinate→Xanthine→hypox
anthine→Uricacid
(C) Adenylate→Inosinate→Xanthine
hypoxanthine→Uricacid
(D) Adenylate→Inosinate→hypoxanthine
Xanthine→Uricacid
592. Polysemesdonotcontain
(A) Protein (B)DNA
(C)mRNA (D)rRNA
593. Theformationofapeptidebondduringthe
elongationstepofproteinsynthesisresults
in thesplitting ofhow manyhigh energy
bonds?
(A) 1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)4
594. Translocase is an enzyme required in
theprocessof
2971
(A) DNAreplication
(B) RNAsynthesis
(C) Initiationofproteinsynthesis
(D) Elongationofpeptides
595. Nonsensecodonsbringabout
(A) Aminoacidactivation
(B) Initiationofproteinsynthesis
(C) Terminationofproteinsynthesis
(D) Elongationofpolypeptidechains
596. WhichofthefollowinggenesoftheE.coli
“Lacoperon”codesforaconstitutiveprotein?
(A) The‘a’gene (B)The‘i’gene
(C)The‘c’gene (D)The‘z’gene
597. Intheprocessoftranscription,theflowof
geneticinformationisfrom
(A) DNAtoDNA (B)DNAtoprotein
(C)RNAtoprotein (D)DNAtoRNA
598. Theanticodonregionisanimportantpartof
thestructureof
(A) rRNA(B)tRNA
(C)mRNA (D)hrRNA
599. TheregionoftheLacoperonwhichmustbe
free from structuralgene transcription to
occuris
(A) Theoperatorlocus
(B) Thepromotersite
2972
(C) The‘a’gene2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
0 (D) The‘i’gene
600. Anothernameforreversetranscriptaseis
(A) DNAdependentDNApolymerase(B)DNA
dependentRNA polymerase (C)RNA
dependentDNApolymerase
(D)RNAdependentRNApolymerase
601. In the ’lac operon’ concept, which of
thefollowingisaprotein?
(A) Operator(B)Repressor
(C)Inducer (D)Vector
602. Degeneracyofthegeneticcodedenotesthe
existenceof
(A) Basetripletsthatdonotcodeforany
aminoacids
(B) Codonsconsistingofonlytwobases
(C) Codons thatinclude one ormore of
theunusualbases
(D) Multiplecodonsforasingleaminoacid
603. The normal function of restriction
endonucleasesisto
(A) ExciseintronsfromhrRNA
(B) PolymerizenucleotidestoformRNA
(C) Removeprimerfromokazakifragments
(D) ProtectbacteriafromforeignDNA
2973
604. IncontrasttoEukaryoticmRNA,prokaryotic
mRNAischaracterizedby
(A) Having7-methylguanosinetriphosphate
atthe5’end
(B) Beingpolycystronic
(C) Beingonlymonocystronic
(D) Beingsynthesizedwithintrons
605. DNAligaseofE.colirequireswhichofthe
followingco-factors?
(A) FAD (B)NAD
(C)NADP
(D)NADH
606. Whichofthefollowingistranscribedduring
repression?
(A) Structuralgene (B)Promotergene
(C)Regulatorgene (D)Operatorgene
607. mRNAiscomplementarycopyof
(A) 5′-3′strandofDNA
(B) 3′-5′strandofDNA
(C) AntisensestrandofDNA
(D) tRNA
608. SynthesisofRNAmoleculeisterminatedbya
signalwhichisrecognisedby
2974
(A) α-factor (B)β-factor
(C)δ-factor (D)ρ
609. ThebindingofprokaryoticDNA dependent
RNApolymerasetopromotersitsofgenesis
inhibitedbytheantibiotic:
(A) Streptomycin(B)Rifamcin
(C)Aueromycin (D)Puromycin
610. In E.colithe chain initiating amino acid
inproteinsynthesisis
(A) N-formylmethionine(B)Methionine
(C)Serine (D)Cysteine
611. Amanitinthemushroompoisoninhibits
(A) Glycoproteinsynthesis
(B) ATPsynthesis
(C) DNAsynthesis
(D) mRNAsynthesis
612. How many high-energy phosphate bond
equivalents are required for amino acid
activationinproteinsynthesis?
(A) One (B)Two
(C)Three (D)Four
613. Translationresultsintheformationof
(A) mRNA (B)tRNA
(C)rRNA (D)Aproteinmolecule
614. Elongationofapeptidechaininvolvesallthe
followingexcept
2975
(A) mRNA (B)GTP
(C)Formyl-Met-tRNA(D)Tu,TSandGfactors
615. The‘rho’(ρ)factorisinvolved
(A) ToincreasetherateofRNAsynthesis
(B) In binding catabolite repressorto the
promoterregion
(C) Inproperterminationoftranscription
(D) Toallowproperinitiationoftranscriptide
616. In the biosynthesis of c-DNA, theNUCLEICACIDS 267
joiningenzymeligaserequires
(A) GTP (B)ATP
(C)CTP (D)UTP
617. Whichoneofthefollowingbindstospecific
nucleotidesequencesthatareupstream and
mostdistantfromthestartsite?
(A) RNApolymerase(B)Repressor
(C)Inducer (D)Restriction
618. Using written convention which one of
thefollowingsequencesiscomplimentaryto
TGGCAGCCT?
(A) ACCGTCGGA (B)ACCGUCGGA
(C)AGGCTGCCA (D)TGGCTCGGA
619. Ribosomessimilartothoseofbacteriafound
in
(A) Plantnuclei
(B) Cardiacmusclecytoplasm
2976
(C) Liverendoplasmicreticulum
(D) Neuronalcytoplasm
620. ThemechanismofsynthesisofDNAandRNA
aresimilartoallthefollowingwaysexcept
fromeachnucleotideadded
(B) They require activated nucleotide
precursorandMg
2+
(C) Thedirectionofsynthesisis
(D) Theyrequireaprimer
621. Template-directed DNA synthesis occurs
inallthefollowingexcept
(A) Thereplicationfork
(B) Polymerasechainreaction
(C) GrowthofRNAtumorviruses
(D) Expressionofoncogenes
ANSWERS
1.B2.B3.A4.C5.A6.C7.B8.D9.C10.D11.A12.A
13.A 14.D 15.B 16.A 17.C 18.C
19.A 20.A 21.B 22.C 23.C 24.D
25.C 26.A 27.C 28.B 29.C 30.A
31.D 32.A 33.B 34.A 35.A 36.C
37.C 38.A 39.B 40.D 41.C 42.C
43.B 44.C 45.D 46.B 47.A 48.C
49.B 50.A 51.D 52.B 53.B 54.D
2977
55.D 56.A 57.D 58.A 59.A 60.D
61.B 62.C 63.A 64.A 65.A 66.A
67.A 68.A 69.B 70.A 71.A 72.A
73.C 74.B 75.C 76.A 77.C 78.D
79.B 80.A 81.C 82.A 83.A 84.A
85.A 86.D 87.A 88.B 89.A 90.C
91.B92.B93.A94.A95.A96.A97.B98.B99.D100.A101.B102.A103.B104.B105.A
106.
B107.C108.A
109.D 110.C 111.D 112.A 113.B 114.A
115.B116.A 117.D 118.A 119.A 120.C121.A122.D 123.B 124.C 125.A 126.A
127.D128.C 129.A 130.A 131.B 132.B133.D134.A 135.A 136.D 137.B 138.B
139.A140.D 141.B 142.D 143.C 144.B145.D146.B 147.B 148.B 149.D 150.D
151.D 152.A 153.C 154.A 155.B 156.C
157.B158.A159.A160.A161.C162.C163.C164.C165.D166.C167.A168.C169.C
170.D
171.B172.B173.C174.D
175.D176.A 177.B 178.D 179.D 180.C181.B182.B 183.C 184.B 185.A 186.D
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A200.C2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
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intentionallyleft
CHAPTER10
WATER&ELECTROLYTEBALANCE
1.Thetotalbodywaterinvarioussubjectsis
relatively constant when expressed as
percentageofthelean bodymassand is
about
(A).30%(B)40%(C)50%(D)70%
2..Thepercentageofwatercontainedinthebody
ofanindividualislessbecauseof
(A)Highfatcontent (B)Lowfatcontent
(C) High protein content(D) Low protein
content
3. In intracellular compartment the
fluidpresentinml/kgbodyweightisabout
(A)100(B)200
(C)200 (D)330
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4. In extra cellular compartment, the
fluidpresentin ml/kg ofbody weightis
about
(A)120(B)220
(C)270 (D)330
5. Fluidpresentindenseconnectivetissueand
cartilageinml/kgbodyweightisabout
(A)10 (B)20
(C)45 (D)55
6. Thetotalbodywaterinml/kgbodyweightin
averagenormalyoungadultmaleisabout
(A)200(B)400
(C)600 (D)1000
7. Thefluidpresentinboneswhichcannotbe
exchanged readily because of relative
avascularityisabout
(A)20ml/kg(B)25ml/kg
(C)45ml/kg (D)60ml/kg
8. Waterderivedingmfromcompleteoxidation
ofeachgmofcarbohydrateisabout
(A)0.15(B)0.25
(C)0.35 (D)0.55
9. Theoxidationof100gmoffatyields
(A)50gmwater(B)107gmwater
(C)150gmwater (D)200gmwater
10. Each gm of protein on complete
2982
oxidationyields
(A)0.21gmwater (B)0.31gmwater
(C)0.41gmwater (D)0.51gmwater
11. The daily total body water derived
fromoxidationoffoodstuffsisabout
(A)100ml (B)300ml
(C)600ml (D)1000ml
12. Thedailywaterallowancefornormalinfant
isabout
(A)100–200ml(B)250–300ml
(C)330–1000ml (D)1000–2000ml
13. Thedailywaterallowancefornormaladult
(60kg)isabout
(A)200–600ml(B)500–800ml
(C)800–1500ml (D)1800–2500ml
14. Insensiblelossofbodywaterofnormaladult
isabout
(A)50–100ml (B)100–200ml
(C)300–500ml (D)600–1000ml15. Thepredominantcationofplasmais
(A)Na
(B)K
(C)Ca
(D)Mg
++
2983
16. Thepredominantactionofplasmais
(A)HCO3–(B)Cl–(C)HPO4––(D)SO4––
17. Vasopressin(ADH)
(A)Enhancefacultativereabsorptionofwater
(B)Decreasesreabsorptionofwater
(C)Increasesexcretionofcalcium
(D)Decreasesexcretionofcalcium
18. Enhancedfacultativereabsorptionofwater
byVasopressinismediatedby
(A)CyclicAMP (B)Ca
++
(C)CyclicGMP (D)Mg
++
19. Actionofkininsisto
(A)Increasesaltexcretion
(B)Decreasesaltretention
(C)Decreasewaterretention
(D)Increasebothsaltandwaterexcretion
20. Theactivityofkininsismodulatedby
(A)Prostaglandins
(B)Ca
++
(C)IncreasedcAMPlevel
(D)IncreasedcGMPlevel
21. Animportantcauseofwaterintoxicationis
(A)Nephrogenicdiabetesinsipidus
2984
(B)Renalfailure
(C)Gastroenteritis
(D)Fanconisyndrome
22. Minimum excretoryurinaryvolumeforwaste
productseliminationduring24hrs
is
(A)200–300ml(B)200–400ml
(C)500–600ml (D)800ml
23. Inprimarydehydration
(A)Intracellularfluidvolumeisreduced
(B)Intracellularfluidvolumeremainsnormal
(C)Extracellularfluidvolumeismuchreduced
(D)Extracellular fluid volume is much
increased
24. An important cause of secondary
dehydrationis
(A)Dysphagia
(B)Oesophageal varices(C) Oesophageal
varices
(D)Gastroenteritis
25. Importantfindingofsecondarydehydration
is
(A)Intracellularoedema
(B)Cellulardehydration
(C)Thirst
(D)Musclecramps
2985
26. Urineexaminationinsecondarydehydration
shows
(A)Ketonuria
(B)Lowspecificgravity
(C)Highspecificgravity
(D)Albuminuria
27. The totalcalcium of the human body
isabout
(A)100–150g (B)200–300g
(C)1–1.5kg (D)2–3kg
28. Daily requirement of calcium for
normaladulthumanis
(A)100mg (B)800mg
(C)2g (D)4g
29. Normal total serum calcium level
variesbetween
(A)4–5mg(B)9–11mg
(C)15–20mg (D)50–100mg2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
230. The element needed in quantities
greaterthan100mgforhumanbeingsis
(A)Calcium (B)Zinc
(C)Selenium (D)Cobalt
31. Themineralpresentinthehumanbodyin
largeramountsthananyothercationis
(A)Sodium (B)Calcium
2986
(C)Potassium (D)Iron
32. The percentage of the total body
calciumpresentinbonesis
(A)1 (B)11(C)55(D)99
33. The percentage of calcium present
inextracellularfluidis
(A)1 (B)5
(C)10 (D)50
34. Thephysiologicallyactiveformofcalciumis
(A)Proteinbond
(B)Ionised
(C)Complexedwithcitrate
(D)Complexedwithcarbonate
35. Thenormalconcentrationofcalciumin
C.S.Fis
(A)1.5–2.5mg/100ml
(B)2.5–4mg/100ml(C)4.5–5mg/100ml
(D)9–10mg/100ml
36. Absorptionofcalciumisincreasedona
(A)Highproteindiet(B)Lowproteindiet
(C)Highfatdiet (D)Lowfatdiet
37. Calciumabsorptionisinterferedby
(A)Proteinindiet
(B)Phyticacidincereals
(C)AlkalineintestinalpH
(D)VitaminD
2987
38. Calciumabsorptionisincreasedby
(A)VitaminD (B)VitaminC
(C)VitaminK (D)VitaminE
39. Inserum productofCaxp(inmg/100ml)in
childrenisnormally
(A)20 (B)30
(C)50 (D)60
40. Inricket,theproductofCaxp(inmg/
100ml)inserumisbelow
(A)30 (B)50
(C)70 (D)100
41. Inman,theamountofcalcium ingmsfiltered
in24hrsperiodbytherenalglomeruliis
(A)5 (B)10(C)15(D)20
42. Thepercentageofthecalcium eliminatedin
fecesis
(A)10–20 (B)30–40
(C)50–60 (D)70–90
43. The maximal renal tubular
reabsorptivecapacityforcalcium (Tmca)in
mg/minisabout
(A)1.5±0.1(B)4.99±0.21
(C)5.5±1.2 (D)10.2±2.2
44. Renalricketiscausedbyrenaltubulardefect
(usually inherited) which interferes with
2988
reabsorptionof
(A)Calcium (B)Phosphorous
(C)Sodium (D)Chloride
45. Afteroperativeremovaloftheparathyroid
glandsresultingintohypoparathyroidism the
concentration ofthe serum calcium may
dropbelow
(A)11mg (B)10mg
(C)9mg (D)7mg
46. Oneoftheprincipalcationsofsofttissueand
bodyfluidsis
(A)Mg(B)S
(C)Mn (D)Co
47. Thenormalconcentrationofmagnesiumin
wholebloodis
(A)0–1mg/100ml (B)1–2 mg/100 ml(C)
2–4mg/100ml(D)4–8mg/100ml
48. Thenormalconcentrationofmagnesiumin
C.S.Fisabout
(A)1mg/100ml(B)3mg/100ml
(C)5mg/100ml (D)8mg/100ml
49. ThemagnesiumcontentofmuscleisaboutWATERANDELECTROLYTEBALANCE
273
(A)5mg/100ml(B)10mg/100ml
(C)21mg/100ml (D)50mg/100ml
50. Intestinal absorption of magnesium
2989
isincreasedin
(A)Calciumdeficientdiet
(B)Highcalciumdiet
(C)Highoxalatediet
(D)Highphytatediet
51. Deficiencyofmagnesiummayoccurwith
(A)Alcoholism
(B)Diabetesmellitus
(C)Hypothyroidism
(D)Advancedrenalfailure
52. Hypermagnesemiamaybeobservedin
(A)Hyperparathyroidism
(B)Diabetesmellitus
(C)Kwashiorkar
(D)Primaryaldosteronism
53. Na
/K
-ATPasealongwithATPrequires
(A)Ca (B)Mn
(C)Mg (D)Cl
54. Theprincipalcationinextracellularfluidis
(A)Sodium (B)Potassium
55. The normal concentration of sodium
2990
(inmg/100ml)ofhumanplasmais
(A)100(B)200
(C)250 (D)330
56. Adecreaseinserumsodiummayoccurin
(A)Adrenocorticalinsufficiency
(B)Hypoparathyroidism
(C)Hyperparathyroidism
(D)Thyrotoxicosis
57. Hypernatremiamayoccurin
(A)Diabetesinsipidus
(B)Diureticmedication
(C)Heavysweating
(D)Kidneydisease
58. Themetabolismofsodiumisregulatedbythe
hormone:
(A)Insulin (B)Aldosterone
(C)PTH (D)Somatostatin
59. Theprincipalcationinintracellularfluidis
60. The normalconcentration of potassium
inwholebloodis
(A)50mg/100ml (B)100mg/100ml
(C)150mg/100ml(D)200mg/100ml
inhumanplasmainmeq/Iisabout
2991
(A)1 (B)2
(C)3 (D)5
incellsinng/100mlisabout
(A)100(B)200
(C)350 (D)440
63. Potassiumcontentofnervetissueinmg/
100mlisabout
(A)200(B)330
(C)400 (D)530
64. Potassium content of muscle tissue
inmg/100mlisabout
(A)50–100(B)100–150
(C)250–400 (D)150–200
65. One of the symptoms of low
serumpotassiumconcentrationincludes
(A)Muscleweakness
(B)Confusion
(C)Numbness
(D)Tinglingofextremities
66. Potassium metabolism is regulated by
thehormone:
(A)Aldosterone(B)PTH
(C)Somatostatin (D)Estrogen
67. Ahighserum potassium,accompaniedbya
highintracellularpotassiumoccursin
2992
(A)Adrenalinsufficiency(B)Anyillness
(C) Gastrointestinallosses
(D) Cushing’ssyndrome2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
268. Hypokalemiaoccursin
(A)Cushing’ssyndrome
(B)Addison’sdisease
(C)Renalfailure
(D)Advanceddehydration
69. Cardiacarrestmayoccurduetooverdoses
of
70. The normal concentration of chloride
inmg/100mlofwholebloodisabout
(A)200(B)250
(C)400 (D)450
71. The normal concentration of chloride
inmg/100mlofplasmaisabout
(A)100(B)200
(C)365 (D)450
72. The normal concentration of chlorine
inmg/100mlofC.S.Fisabout
(A)200(B)250
(C)300 (D)440
73. Hypokalemia with an
2993
accompanyinghypochloremicalkalosismay
beobservedin
(A)Cushing’ssyndrome(B)Addison’sdisease
(C)Hyptothyroidism (D)Malnutrition
74. Hypercholremiaisassociatedwith
(A)Hyponatremia (B)Hypernatremia
(C) Metabolic alkalosis(D) Respiratory
acidosis
75. Theexclusivefunctionofironinthebodyis
confinedtotheprocessof
(A)Muscularcontraction
(B)Nerveexcitation
(C)Cellularrespiration
(D)Bloodcoagulation
76. ThenormalpHofthebloodis
(A)7.0 (B)7.1
(C)7.2 (D)7.4
77. Thenormalconcentrationofbicarbonatein
bloodis
(A)21meq/L (B)24meq/L
(C)26meq/L (D)30meq/L
78. AtthepHofblood7.4,theratiobetweenthe
carbonicacidandbicarbonatefractionsis
(A)1:10 (B)1:20
(C)1:30 (D)1:40
79. A0.22Msolutionoflacticacid(pKa3.9)was
2994
foundtocontain0.20M inthedissociated
form and0.02M undissociatedform,thepH
ofthesolutionis
(A)2.9 (B)3.3
(C)4.9 (D)5.4
80. Importantbuffersystem ofextracellularfluid
is
(A)Bicarbonate/carbonicacid
(B)Disodium hydrogen
phosphate/sodiumdihydrogenphosphate
(C)Plasmaproteins
(D)OrganicPhosphate
81. ThepHofbodyfluidsisstabilizedbybuffer
systems.Thecompoundwhichwillbethe
mosteffectivebufferatphysiologicpHis
(A)Na2HPO4pKa=12.32
(B)Na2HPO4pKa=7.21
(C)NH4OHpKa=7.24
(D)CitricacidpKa=3.09
82. ThepercentageofCO2 carryingcapacityof
whole blood by hemoglobin and
oxyhemoglobinis
(A)20 (B)40
(C)60 (D)80
83. ThenormalserumCO2contentis
(A)18–20meq/L (B)24–29meq/L
2995
(C)30–34meq/L (D)35–38meq/L
84. The carbondioxide carrying power of
thebloodresidingwithintheredcellsis
(A)50%(B)60%
(C)85% (D)100%
85. Within the red blood cells theWATERANDELECTROLYTEBALANCE 275
bufferingcapacity contributed by the
phosphatesis
(A)5% (B)10%
(C)20% (D)25%
86. The normal ratio between the
alkalinephosphate and acid phosphate in
plasmais
(A)2:1(B)1:4
(C)20:1 (D)4:1
87. The oxygen dissociation curve
forhemoglobinisshiftedtotherightby
(A)DecreasedO2tension
(B)DecreasedCO2tension
(C)IncreasedCO2tension
(D)IncreasedpH
88. Bohreffectis
(A)Shifting of oxyhemoglobin dissociation
curvetotheright
(B)Shifting of oxyhemoglobin dissociation
curvetotheleft
2996
(C)AbilityofhemoglobintocombinewithO2
(D)Exchangeofchloridewithcarbonate
89. Chlorideshiftis
(A)HionsleavingtheRBCinexchangeofCl(B)
Cl
leavingtheRBCinexchangeofbicarbonate
(C) Bicarbonate ion returns to plasma
andexchangedwithchloridewhichshifts
intothe
cell
(D) Carbonicacidtotheplasma
90. Of the total body water,
intracellularcompartmentcontainsabout
(A)50%(B)60%
(C)70% (D)80%
91. Osmoticallyactivesubstancesinplasmaare
(A)Sodium (B)Chloride
(C)Proteins (D)Allofthese
92. Osmoticpressureofplasmais
(A)80–100milliosmole/litre
(B)180–200 milliosmole/litre(C) 280–300
milliosmole/litre
(D)380–400milliosmole/litre
93. Contribution of albumin to colloid
osmoticpressureofplasmaisabout
2997
(A)10%(B)50%
(C)80% (D)90%
94. The highest concentration of proteins
ispresentin
(A)Plasma (B)Interstitialfluid
(C)Interstitialfluid (D)Transcellularfluid
95. Oncoticpressureofplasmaisdueto
(A)Proteins(B)Chloride
(C)Sodium (D)Allofthese
96. Oncoticpressureofplasmaisabout
(A)10mmofHg(B)15mmofHg
(C)25mmofHg (D)50mmofHg
97. Oedemacanoccurwhen
(A)PlasmaNaandClaredecreased
(B)PlasmaNaandClareincreased
(C)Plasmaproteinsaredecreased
(D)Plasmaproteinsareincreased
98. Colloidosmoticpressureofintracellularfluid
is
(A)Equaltothatofplasma
(B)Morethanthatofplasma(C)Morethanthat
ofplasma
(D)Nearlyzero
99. The water produced during
metabolicreactionsinanadultisabout
(A)100ml/day (B)300ml/day
2998
(C)500ml/day (D)700ml/day
100. Thedailywaterlossthroughgastrointestinal
tractinanadultisabout
(A) Lessthan100ml/day
(B) 200ml/day(C)300ml/day
(D)400ml/day
101. Recurrentvomitingleadstolossof
(A)Potassium (B)Chloride
(C)Bicarbonate (D)Allofthese
102. Obligatoryreabsorptionofwater2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2 (A) Is about 50% of the total tubular
reabsorptionofwater
(B) Isincreasedbyantidiuretichormone
(C) Occursindistalconvolutedtubules
(D) Issecondarytoreabsorptionofsolutes
103. Antidiuretichormone
(A) Issecretedbyhypothalamus
(B) Secretionisincreasedwhenosmolality
ofplasmadecreases
(C) Increases obligatory reabsorption of
water
(D) Acts on distal convoluted tubules
andcollectingducts
104. Urinarywaterlossisincreasedin
2999
(C) Chronicglomerulonephritis
(D) Allofthese
105. Diabetesinsipidusresultsfrom
(A) Decreasedinsulinsecretion
(B) DecreasedADHsecretion
(C) Decreasedaldosteronesecretion
(D) Unresponsivenessofosmoreceptors
106. Thiazidediureticsinhibit
(B) Aldosteronesecretion
(C) ADHsecretion
(D) Sodiumreabsorptionindistaltubules
107. Furosemideinhibitsreabsorptionofsodium
andchloridein
(A) Proximalconvolutedtubules
(B) LoopofHenle
(C) Distalconvolutedtubules
(D) Collectingducts
108. Adiureticwhichisanaldosteroneantagonist
is
(A)Spironolactone (B)Ethacrynicacid
(C)Acetazolamide (D)Chlorothiazide
109. InasolutionhavingapHof7.4,thehydrogen
ionconcentrationis
(A)7.4nmol/L (B)40nmol/L
3000
(C)56nmol/L (D)80nmol/L
110. AtpH7.4,theratioofbicarbonate:dissolved
CO2is
(A)1:1 (B)10:1
(C)20:1 (D)40:1
111. Quantitatively,the mostsignificantbuffer
systeminplasmais
(A) Phosphatebuffersystem
(B) Carbonicacid-bicarbonatebuffersystem
(C) Lacticacid-lactatebuffersystem
(D) Proteinbuffersystem
112. Inasolutioncontainingphosphatebuffer,the
pHwillbe7.4,iftheratioofmonohydrogen
phosphate:dihydrogenphosphateis
(A)4:1 (B)5:1
(C)10:1 (D)20:1
113. pKaofdihydrogenphosphateis
(A)5.8 (B)6.1
(C)6.8 (D)7.1
114. Bufferingactionofhaemoglobinismainly
duetoits
(A) Glutamineresidues
(B) Arginine residues(C)
Histidineresidues
(D)Lysineresidues
115. Respiratoryacidosisresultsfrom
3001
(A) Retentionofcarbondioxide
(B) Excessiveeliminationofcarbondioxide
(C) Retentionofbicarbonate
(D) Excessiveeliminationofbicarbonate
116. Respiratoryacidosiscanoccurinallofthe
followingexcept
(A)Pulmonaryoedema(B)
Hystericalhyperventilation
(C) Pneumothorax
(D) Emphysema
117. Theinitialeventinrespiratoryacidosisis
(A) DecreaseinpH
(B) IncreaseinpCO2
(C) IncreaseinplasmabicarbonateWATERANDELECTROLYTEBALANCE 277
(D) Decreaseinplasmabicarbonate
118. Respiratoryalkalosiscanoccurin
(A) Bronchialasthma
(B) Collapseoflungs
(C) Hystericalhyperventilation
(D) Bronchialobstruction
119. Theprimaryeventinrespiratoryalkalosisis
(A) RiseinpH
(B) DecreaseinpCO2
(C) Increaseinplasmabicarbonate
(D) Decreaseinplasmachloride
120. Aniongapisthedifferenceintheplasma
3002
concentrationsof
(A) (Chloride)–(Bicarbonate)
(B) (Sodium)–(Chloride)
(C) (Sodium+Potassium)–(Chloride+
Bicarbonate)
(D) (Sumofcations)–(Sumofanions)
121. Normalaniongapinplasmaisabout
(A)5meq/L (B)15meq/L
(C)25meq/L (D)40meq/L
122. Aniongapisnormalin
(A) Hyperchloraemicmetabolicacidosis
(B) Diabeticketoacidosis
(C) Lacticacidosis
(D) Uraemicacidosis
123. Aniongapisincreasedin
(A) Renaltubularacidosis
(B) Metabolic acidosis resulting from
diarrhoea
(C) Metabolic acidosis resulting from
intestinalobstruction
(D) Diabeticketoacidosis
124. Aniongapinplasmaisbecause
(A) Ofdifferentialdistributionofionsacross
cellmembranes
(B) Cationsoutnumberanionsinplasma
(C) Anionsoutnumbercationsinplasma
3003
(D) Ofunmeasuredanionsinplasma
125. Salicylatepoisoningcancause
(A) Respiratoryacidosis
(B) Metabolicacidosiswithnormalanion
gap
(C) Metabolicacidosiswithincreasedanion
gap(D)Metabolicalkalosis
126. Anion gap ofplasma can be due to the
presenceofallthefollowingexcept
(A)Bicarbonate (B)Lactate
(C)Pyruvate (D)Citrate
127. Allthefollowingfeaturesarefoundinblood
chemistryinuncompensatedlacticacidosis
except
(A) pHisdecreased
(B) Bicarbonateisdecreased
(C) pCO2isnormal
(D) Aniongapisnormal
128. Allthe following statements aboutrenal
tubularacidosisarecorrectexcept
(A) Renal tubules may be unable to
reabsorbbicarbonate
(B) Renal tubules may be unable to
secretehydrogenions
(C) Plasmachlorideiselevated
(D) Aniongapisdecreased
3004
129. Allthefollowingchangesinbloodchemistry
canoccurinseverediarrhoeaexcept
(A) DecreasedpH
(B) Decreasedbicarbonate
(C) IncreasedpCO2
(D) Increasedchloride
130. Duringcompensationofrespiratoryalkalosis,
allthefollowingchangesoccurexcept
(A) Decreased secretionofhydrogenions
byrenaltubules
(B) Increasedexcretionofsodiuminurine
(C) Increased excretion ofbicarbonate in
urine
(D) Increasedexcretionofammoniainurine
131. Blood chemistry shows the following
changes in compensated respiratory
acidosis:
(A) IncreasedpCO2
(B) Increasedbicarbonate
(C) Decreasedchloride2 MCQsINBIOCHEMISTRY
2 (D) Allofthese
132. Metabolicalkalosiscanoccurin
(A) Severe diarrhoea
(B)Renalfailure
(C) Recurrentvomiting
3005
(D) Excessive use ofcarbonic anhydrase
inhibitors
133. Whichofthefollowingfeaturesarepresent
in blood chemistry in uncompensated
metabolicalkalosisexcept?
(A) IncreasedpH
(B) Increasedbicarbonate
(C) Normalchloride
(D) NormalpCO2
134. Onejouleistheenergyrequiredto
(A) Raisethetemperatureof1gm ofwater
by1°C
(B) Raisethetemperatureof1kgofwater
by
1°C
(C) Moveamassof1gm by1cm distance
byaforceof1Newton
(D) Moveamassof1kgby1m distanceby
aforceof1Newton
135. Organiccompoundofsmallmolecularsizeis
(A)Urea (B)Uricacid
(C)Creatinine (D)Phosphates
136. Organicsubstanceoflargemolecularsizeis
(A)Starch (B)Insulin
(C)Lipids (D)Proteins
137. Bodywaterisregulatedbythehormone:
3006
(A)Oxytocin (B)ACTH
(C)FSH (D)Epinephrine
138. Calcium isrequiredfortheactivationofthe
enzyme:
(B) Fumarase
(D) ATPase
139. Cobaltisaconstituentof
(A)Folicacid (B)VitaminB12
(C)Niacin (D)Biotin
140. Calciumabsorptionisinferredby
(A)Fattyacids (B)Aminoacids
(C)VitaminD (D)VitaminB12
141. TheaverageofpHofurineis
(A)5.6 (B)6.0
(C)6.4 (D)7.0
ANSWERS
1.D 2.A3.D4.C5.C6.C7.C8.D9.B10.C 11.B 12.C
13.D 14.D 15.A 16.B 17.A 18.A
19.D20.A21.B22.C23.A24.D25.A26.B27.C28.B29.B30.A
31.B 32.D 33.A 34.B 35.C 36.A
37.B 38.A 39.C 40.A 41.B 42.D
43.B 44.B 45.D 46.A 47.C 48.B
49.C 50.A 51.A 52.B 53.C 54.A
55.D 56.A 57.A 58.B 59.B 60.D
3007
61.D 62.D 63.D 64.C 65.A 66.A
67.A 68.A 69.B 70.B 71.C 72.D
73.A 74.B 75.C 76.D 77.C 78.B
79.C 80.A 81.B 82.C 83.B 84.C
85.D 86.D 87.C 88.A 89.C 90.C
91.D92.C93.C94.C95.A96.C97.C98.B99.B100.A101.B102.D103.D104.D105.B
106.
D107.B108.A
109.B 110.C 111.B 112.A 113.C 114.C
115.A 116.B 117.B 118.C 119.B 120.CWATERANDELECTROLYTEBALANCE

279
121.B122.A123.B124.B125.C126.A127.D128.D129.C130.D131.D132.C133.
D134.D
135.A136.D137.A138.D
139.B 140.A 141.B
1.Toevaluatethefunctionalstateoftheliverinpatients,itis
necessarytostudyanimalindicanexcretionintheurine.Itisformed
duringdetoxificationofaminoacidputrefactionproducts.Selectthis
aminoacid.
Serine.
Tryptophan.
3008
Cysteine.
Glycine.
2.Pointoutthebiologicalroleofbiogenicamineformedin
decarboxylationofglutamate:
Coenzymeofcomplexenzymes.
MediatorofinhibitioninCNS.
Activatorofproteinsynthesis.
Inhibitoroflipolysis.
3.Achildhasmentalretardation,proteinintolerance,severe
hyperammonemiaagainstthebackgroundofreducedureainblood
plasmaduetocongenitaldeficiencyofthemitochondrialenzyme
called:
Succinatedehydrogenase.
3009
Malatedehydrogenase.
Monaminooxidase.
Carbamoylphosphatesynthetase.
4.DecarboxylationofglutamateinCNSresultsintheformationof
neurotransmittercalled:
Asparagine.
Serotonin.
GABA.
Glutathione.
3010
5.Whichofthebelowmentionedproteinasesbelongto
exopeptidases?
Elastase,collagenase.
Carboxypeptidases,aminopeptidases.
Chymotrypsin,carboxypeptidases.
Aminopeptidases,elastase.
6.Awomansuffersfrominsufficientpacreaticfunction.Which
nutrientsarehydrolyzedimproperly?
Proteins,carbohydrates.
Proteins,lipids,carbohydrates.
Fats,carbohydrates.
3011
Proteins,lipids.
7.Nitrogenofureaconstitutesabout90%oftotalnitrogenofurine.
Whichenzymeactivitydecreaseresultsininhibitionofureasynthesis
andammoniaaccumulationinbloodandtissues?
Urease.
Amylase.
Aspartateaminotransferase
Carbamoylphosphatesynthetase
8.Ammoniaisatoxicsubstance,especiallyforthenervoussystem.
Whichcompoundtakespartinammoniadetoxificationinthebrain?
Lysine.
Proline.
3012
Glutamate.
Alanine.
9.Pancreaticjuicecontainsenzymes:
Trypsin,chymotrypsin,rennin.
Elastase,carboxypeptidases,aminopeptidases.
Chymotrypsin,elastase,pepsin.
Chymotrypsin,trypsin,carboxypeptidases
10.Pointoutthetransportformofammoniainblood:
Tryptophan.
3013
Ammoniumsalts.
Glutamine.
Urea.
11.Apatientwithbraininjuryhasepilepticconvulsions,whichare
regularlyrepeated.Whichbiogenicamineisformedimproperly?
GABA.
Histamine.
Serotonine.
Dopamine.
12.Whichenzymecatalyzesthedeaminationofglutamate?
3014
Glutamatedehydrogenase.
Glutamatedecarboxylase.
γ-Glutamyltransferase.
Cystathionine-γ-lyase.
13.Whichpathologyisthemostprobableintheincreaseofaspartate
aminotransferaseactivityinbloodserum?
Chronichepatitis.
Diabetesinsipidus.
Myocardialinfarction.
Renalinsufficiency.
3015
14.Pointoutthetransportformofammoniainblood:
Aspartate
Urea
Glutamine
Glutamate
15.Themainfinalproductofproteinmetabolismexcretinginthe
greatestamountwithurineis:
Glutamine.
Ammoniasalts
Uricacid
3016
Urea
16.Howtheamountofcholesterolchangesatparenchymatous
damagesofaliver?
increases
decreases
doesn'tchange
increasesonlycholesterolesters
17.Chooseasecondmessengerthatparticipatesinactivationof
hormone-sensitivetriacylglycerollipase:
cGMP
cAMP
3017
Diacylglycerol
Ca2+
18.Lovastatinisa
CompetitiveinhibitorofacetylCoAcarboxylase
CompetitiveinhibitorofHMGCoAsynthetase
Non-competitiveinhibitorofHMGCoAreductase
CompetitiveinhibitorofHMGCoAreductase
19.Eachcycleoffattyacidoxidationincludesfoursuccessive
reactions.Whatsubstancesareformedperonecycle?a.b.c.d.
NADHonly
FADH2only
3018
Acetyl-CoA,NADH,FADH2
NADHandFADН2only
20.Whichofthefollowingconditionischaracterizedbyketonuriabut
withoutglycosuria?
Diabetesmellitus
Diabetesinsipidus
Prolongedstarvation
Addison’sdisease
21.Thetriacylglycerolpresentinplasmalipoproteinsarehydrolyzed
by
3019
Linquallipase
Pancreaticlipase
Colipase
Lipoproteinlipase
22.Pointoutaplaceofketonebodiessynthesisinorganism:
Liver
Muscles
Pancreas
Lungs
23.AcylCarrierProteincontainsthevitamin
3020
Biotin
Lipoicacid
Pantothenicacid
Folicacid
24.ApathwaythatrequiresNADPHasacofactoris
Fattyacidoxidation
Extramitochondrialdenovofattyacidsynthesis
Ketonebodiesformation
Glycogenesis
3021
25.Whichpancreaticenzymeisactivatedbybileacids?
Trypsin
Chymotrypsin
Amylase
Lipase
26.Anexampleofasaturatedfattyacidsis
Palmiticacid
Oleicacid
Linoleicacid
Erucicacid
3022
27.Whichenzymeinsufficiencyleadstoincompletedigestionoffats
inthegastrointestinaltractandappearanceofneutralfatsinfeces?
Phospholipases
Enterokinases
Pancreaticlipases
Аmylases
28.Inadiposetissue,glycerol-3-phosphaterequiredforthesynthesis
oftriglyceridescomesmainlyfrom
Hydrolysisofpre-existingtriglycerides
Hydrolysisofphospholipids
Dihydroxyacetonephosphateformedinglycolysis
3023
Freeglycerol
29.Cholesterolperformsallthefunctionsmentionedbelowexcept
for:
Itisacomponentofcellmembranes
Itisasubstrateforbileacidsynthesis
ItisasubstrateforvitaminD3synthesis
Itisasourceofenergy
30.Oxidationoffattyacidsoccurs
Inthecytosol
Inthematrixofmitochondria
3024
Oninnermitochondrialmembrane
Onthemicrosomes
31.Whichofthefollowingarenon-essentialaminoacids?
isoleucine
cysteine
methionine
tyrosine
32.Participateintheornithinecycle
citrulline,aspartate
3025
lysine,pepsin
alanine,methionine
alanine,creatine
33.Whichofthefollowingenzymesisproducedinthepancreasto
digestproteins?
pepsin
trypsin
amylase
collagenase
34.Compoundsformedfromtyrosine
beta-aminobutyricacid
3026
adrenaline
norepinephrine
phenylalanine
35.Skatolandindoleareneutralizedintheliverby
glycine
glutamate
alfa-ketoglutarate
uridinediphosphoglucuronicacid
1.Inapatientsufferingfromchronicalcoholism,whichenzyme
activityisincreased:
3027
acidphosphatase
aspartateaminotransferase
alpha-hydroxibutiratdehydogenase
glutamatedehydrogenase
creasedconcentrationsof:
urea
acetaldehyde
hydrogenions
3028
activeformofoxygen
2.Whichofthefollowingisglobularprotein?
elastin
myoglobin
histidine
keratin
3.Structuralproteinsare
keratin,collagen,elastine
hemoglobin,albumin,globulins
actin,myosin
3029
ovalbumin,casein
4.Whichofthefollowingaminoacidscontainshydroxylgroup?
tyrosine
tryptophan
alanine
arginine
5.Hemoglobinepossess
primarystructure
secondarystructure
3030
tertiarystructure
quaternarystructure
6.Whichofthefollowingaminoacidsarenegativelycharged?
tyrosine
aspartate
glutamine
histidine
7.Whichtypeofbondischaracteristicofprimarystructureof
proteins?
hydrogenbond
disulfidebond
3031
hydrophobicbond
peptidebond
8.Inthemoleculeofaprotein,aminoacidsarejoinedby:
hydrogenbond
ionicbond
disulfidebond
peptidebond
9.Whichofthefollowingbondsstabilizetertiarystructureinglobular
proteins?
glycosidicbond
3032
peptidebond
hydrophobicinteractions
phosphodiesterbond
10.Contractileproteinsare
actin,myosin
ovalbumin,casein
11.Whichofthefollowingaminoacidsarepositivelycharged?
leucine
3033
histidine
tryptophan
asparagine
12.Indenaturationofproteins,whichphenomenonisobserved?
lossofbiologicalactivity
cleavageofpeptidebonds
destructionofprimarystructure
decreaseofmolecularmassofprotein
13.Whichofthefollowingisthedrivingforceintheformationof
3034
tertiarystructureofproteins?
opticalactivity
interactionofside-chainradicalswithwater
abilityfortheformationofmetallicbond
thermolabilityoftheproteinmolecule
14.Whatisthenameofiron-containingproteinthatgivesredblood
vesselstheircolour?
hemocyanine
pyrite
hemoglobin
3035
myoglobin
15.Whichofthefollowingisconjugatedprotein?
albumin
protamine
histones
myoglobin
16.Themoleculeofapeptideiscomposedof:
fattyacids
glucose
nucleotides
3036
aminoacids
17.α-Amineacidexistsinformofzwitter-ionin
acidicmedium
neutralmedium
basicmedium
anymedium
18.Thebondsinproteinstructurethatarenotbrokenondenaturation
disulfidebonds
hydrogenbonds
peptidebonds
3037
ionicbonds
19.Hydrolysisofproteinsmaybecausedby:
heavymetalsalts
lipids
ammoniumsulfate
trypsin
20.Regulatoryproteinsare
3038
actin,myosin
insulin,glucagon
21.Whichofthefollowingaminoacidsaresulfur-containing?
serine
alanine
methionine
threonine
22.Catalyticproteinsare
pepsin,chymotrypsin
3039
actin,myosin
insulin,glucagon
23.Naturalanticoagulants:
heparin
antithrombin
pelentan
sincumar
24.Whichofthefollowingproteinismetalloprotein?
albumin
3040
collagen
casein
ceruloplasmin
25.Whichofthefollowingisthedrivingforceintheformationof
secondarystructureofproteins?
electrostaticrepulsion
interactionofside-chainradicalswithwater
abilityfortheformationofhydrogenbonds
thermolabilityoftheproteinmolecule
26.Immunoglobulinsareclassifiedas:
lipoproteins
3041
glycoproteins
nucleoproteins
phosphoproteins
27.Whichofthefollowingaminoacidsareessential?
alanine
glycine
lysine
serine
28.Bondsstabilizingsecondarystructureofproteins
3042
coordination
ionic
hydrogen
hydrofobic
29.Thenitrogen-freeorganicsubstancesofthebloodinclude:
Urea,creatinine,uricacid
carbohydrates,fats,lipids
Urea,Fat,Creatine
carbohydrates,fats,uricacid
30.Insulinepossess
3043
primarystructure
secondarystructure
tertiarystructure
quaternarystructure
31.Whichofthefollowingcationsisrequiredfortheconversionof
prothrombinintoactivethrombinbythromboplastin?
Ca2
Fe2
Mg2
3044
Mn2
32.ThelifespanofRBC
100days
110days
120days
130days
33.Choosepeptidebond
-CO-NH-
–S-S-
H2N–CH2–
3045
-C-C-
34.Normalcontentofthetotalserumproteinis:
20–30g/L
40–50g/L
65–85g/L
90–100g/L
35.Thepercentageofformedelementsintheblood
45%
50%
55%
3046
65
36.Proteinsarepolymersmadeof
α–aminoacids
β-aminoacids
α–fattyacids
monosaccharide’s
37.Whichofthefollowingcompoundsareclassifiedasa
metalloprotein?
glucagon
transferrin
3047
hemoglobin
methionine
38.Whichpropertiesarecharacteristicofhistones?
arecomponentsoflipoproteins
isoelectricpointiswithinacidicpH
containmanyresiduesofarginineandlysine
arepresentinthecytoplasm
39.Theaminoacidsareorganiccompoundscontain
–NH2and–COOHgroups
–NH2group
3048
–COOHgroup
–NH2and–COHgroups
40.Howyouthink,whatisobservedatdecreasenumberof
gaptoglobininblood?
gemoglobinuriya
kreatinuriya
glukosuriya
hypernitrogenemiya.
41.Storageproteinsare
3049
actin,myosin
ovalbumin,casein
42.Typesofsecondarystructureofproteins:
globular
fibrous
subunit
β-pleatedsheet
43.Thephenomenofdisorganizationofnativeproteinstructureis
3050
denaturation
renaturation
replication
glycolysis
44.Underanaerobicconditions,accumulateintheblood:
lactate;
glucose;
pyruvate;
aminoacids;
45.Whichofthefollowingarefibrousproteins?
3051
insulin
hemoglobin
albumin
collagen
46.Ariseinthebloodcholesterolmayleadtoadepositionof
cholesterolonthewallsofbloodvessels.Thiscausesthearteriesto
losetheirelasticityandgetstiffened.Thisiscalled
Hypertension
Hypotension
Atherosclerosis
3052
Systolicpressure
47.Whichofthefollowingproteinshavequaternarystructure?
myoglobin
albumin
hemoglobin
lactatedehydrogenase
48.Duringbloodcoagulation,thromboplastinisreleasedby
RBC
bloodplasma
leucocytes
3053
clumpedplateletsanddamagedtissues
49.Transportproteinsare
actin,myosin
ovalbumin,casein
50.Normalbloodglucoselevelis:
3,3-5,5mmol/l
5.5-7.5mmol/l
3054
1,5-3,5mmol/l
7,5-8,9mmol/l
1.Specifictransportproteinsarerequiredfortranslocationofallof
thefollowingsubstancesintothecellsormatrixofmitochondria
EXCEPT
Glucose
Fattyacids
Aminoacids
Oxygen
2.Parkinson’sdiseasecanbecausedbyaproblemwiththe
metabolismof
Glycogen
3055
Collagen
Dopamin
Galactose
3.Catabolicprocessis
Glycogenolysis
Lipogenesis
Gluconeogenesis
Ketogenesis
4.Alkaptonuriacanbecausedbyaproblemwiththemetabolismof
Tyrosine
3056
Collagen
Thiamine
Fructose
5.Creutzfaldt-Jakobdisease(CJD)canbecausedbyaproblemwith
themetabolismof
Glycogen
Collagen
Dopamin
Prion
6.Whichoneofthefollowingcompoundsistransportedintheblood
inthefree(unboundwithprotein)form?
3057
Triacylglycerides
Cholesterol
Glutamine
Fat-solublevitamin
7.AcetylCoAisNOTneededforsynthesisof
Cholesterol.
Ketonebodies.
Pyruvate.
Citricacid.
3058
8.Patientswithanorexianervosa,uncontrolledinsulin-dependent
diabetesmellitus,hyperthyroidismallwill
Haveahighbasicmetabolicrate(BMR)
Experienceweightloss
Sufferfrommalabsorption
Haveahighinsulinlevelsintheblood
9.Whichoneofthefollowingisaminoacid?
Aceticacid
Oleicacid
Asparticacid
3059
Ascorbicacid
10.Liversynthesizesallofthefollowing,EXCEPT
Bloodclottingfactors.
Immunoglobulins.
Albumin.
Lipoproteins.
11.WhatmetalionisspecificallyboundbyvitaminB12?
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
3060
Iron
12.Whatelementformstheskeletonoforganicmolecules?
Nitrogen
Hydrogen
Carbon
Phosphorus
13.LiverdegradatesallofthefollowingEXCEPT
Proteins
RemnantLDL
3061
Insulin
Creatinine
14.Turaidiseasecanbecausedbyaproblemwiththeoxidationof
Fattyacids
Glucose
Alcohol
Aminoacids
15.Thesumofallchemicalreactionsthattakeplacewithinan
organismisknownas
Feedback
Dynamicequilibrium
3062
Biologicaladaptation
Metabolism
16.Whatmetalionisspecificallyboundbysuperoxidedismutase
(SOD)?
Cobalt
Selenium
Zinc
Iron
17.Refsumediseasecanbecausedbyaproblemwiththe
metabolismof
3063
Glycogen
Collagen
Fattyacid
Fructose
18.Whichofthefollowingrepresentstherelationshipbetweenthe
termsanabolism(A),catabolism(C)andmetabolism(M)?
M=A-C
C=A+M
A=C+M
M=A+C
3064
19.LiversynthesizedallofthefollowingsubstancesEXCEPT
Nucleotides
Urea
Ceruloplasmin
Immunoglobulins
20.Whichoneofthefollowingstatementsregardingmetabolic
associationistrue?
Brain:ketogenesis
Muscles:gluconeogenesis
Erythrocytes:HMPshunt
3065
Kidney:ureacycle
21.LiversynthesizedallofthefollowingsubstancesEXCEPT?
Cholesterol
Glucose
Starch
Complement
22.Whichoneofthefollowingstatementsregardingmetabolic
associationisFALSE?
Brain:fixationoftoxicammoniabyglutamate
Muscles:creatine-Pusesasprimarysourcesofenergy
Adrenalcortex:HMPshunt
3066
Erythrocytes:ATPproductionbyoxidativephosphorylation
23.Allofthefollowingcompoundscancrossallmembranesfreely,
EXCEPT
Glucose.
Ketonebodies.
Oxygen.
Carbondioxide.
24.Eachorganismhasuniquecombinationofcharacteristics
encodedinmoleculesof
Vitamins.
Carbohydrates.
3067
Lipids.
Proteins.
25.Whatmetalionisspecificallyboundbyceruloplasmin?
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
Iron
26.Allofthefollowingaremajorobjectivesofbiochemistry,EXCEPT
Structureandfunctionsofbiomolecules
3068
Diagnostictestingofmarkersinpracticalmedicine
Metabolicpathwaysofbiomolecules
Developmentofspecializedcells
27.Whichofthefollowingisanexampleofcatabolicprocess?
Proteogenesis
Glycolysis
Glycogenesis
Lipogenesis
28.Whatisthecollectivetermforallofthechemicalprocesses
occurringwithinacell?
3069
Metabolism
Catabolism
Anabolism
Oxidation
29.Organwherepepsinhydrolysesproteins
Pancreas
Liver
Gallbladder
Stomach
30.Matureerythrocytesdonotcontain
3070
Glycolyticenzymes.
HMPshuntenzymes.
Carbonicanhydrase.
Nucleotidesyntheticenzymes.
31.TheMETABOLICALLYmostactiveorganinthebodyisthe
Pancreas
Spleen
Liver
Lungs
3071
32.LiversynthesizedallofthefollowinglipidsEXCEPT
Fat
Cholesterol
Ketonebodies
Tocopherol
33.Entero-hepaticcirculationallofthefollowingcompoundstakes
place,EXEPT:
Urea
Bileacids
Bilesalts
3072
Ketonebodies
34.Specifictransportproteinisrequiredfortranslocationintothe
cellsof
Neutralaminoacids
Beta-hydroxybutyricacid
Acetoaceticacid
Oxygen
35.AcetylCoAisNOTusedforthesynthesisof
Cholesterol
Citricacid
3073
Acetoacetate
Urea
36.McArdle’sdiseasecanbecausedbyaproblemwiththe
metabolismof
Glycogen
Collagen
Elastin
Galactose
37.Allofthefollowingmetabolicpathwaystakeplaceintheliver
EXCEPT
Utilizationofketonebodies
3074
Plasmaproteinssynthesis
Formationofurea
Synthesisdenovoofnucleotides
38.Themainfunctionofmineralsinthehumanbodyisto
Coenzymesofenzymes.
Excretionofnon-solublesubstances.
Transportsubstancesintocells.
Storeenergy.
39.Ehlers-Danlossyndromecanbecausedbyaproblemwiththe
metabolismof
Glycogen
3075
Collagen
Dopamin
Galactose
40.Whatmetalionisspecificallyboundbykinases?
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
Magnesium
41.Whatmetalionisspecificallyboundbyferritin?
3076
Cobalt
Copper
Zinc
Iron
42.LiverstoresallofthefollowingEXCEPT
Iron
Folicacid
VitaminD
Ascorbicacid
3077
43.Whichofthefollowingwouldbeconsideredapartofmetabolism?
BiosyntheticpathwaysthatbuildDNA
Catabolicpathwaysthatbreakdowncomplexcarbohydrates
Thecaptureoflightenergyforuseinmakingglucose
Alloftheabove
44.TheconnectinglinkbetweenHMPshuntandcholesterol
synthesisis
NADPH
Ribose-5-phosphate
3078
45.Alzheimerdiseasecanbecausedbyaproblemwiththe
metabolismof
Glycogen
Collagen
Dopamin
Protein
46.Tangierdiseasecanbecausedbyaproblemwiththemetabolism
of
Glycogen
Lipoprotein
3079
Dopamin
Prion
47.Regardinganabolicpathways
Donotrequirethepresenceofenzymes
Donothavebranchesorinteractions
Areoftensynthesisofcomplexcompoundsfromsmallersubstances
Areoftenregulatedbyconcentrationofprotons
48.Themusclefatigueoccursduetoincreaseallofthefollowing
processesEXCEPT
Anaerobicglycolysis
Hypoxia
3080
Carbonmonoxideintoxication
Ketolysis
49.Whichoneofthefollowingisanexampleofanabolicprocess?
Ketolysis
Glycogenesis
Glycolysis
Proteolysis
50.Hereditaryoroticaciduriacanbecausedbyaproblemwiththe
metabolismof
Glycogen
3081
Collagen
Pyrimidines
Galactose
1.NADHisrequiredfortheone-stepreactionbywhichpyruvateis
convertedto
Lactate.
AcetylCoA.
SuccinylCoA.
2.Apostoperativepatientonintravenousfluidsdevelopsangular
stomatitis.Urinalysisindicatesanexcretionof15μgriboflavin/mg
3082
creatinine(Normal>30μgriboflavin/mgcreatinine).Whichofthe
followingTCAenzymesismostlikelytobeaffected?
α-ketoglutaratedehydrogenase
Citratesynthase
Fumarase
Succinatedehydrogenase
3.Oxidativephosphorylationis
GenerationofATPs.
Utilizationofheat.
GenerationofNADH.
3083
UtilizationofATPs.
4.Whichofthestatementbestcharacterizeglucose?
Itusuallyexistsinfuranoseform
Itisaketose
Itisanunitofglycogenandstarch
Itisoxidizedtosorbitol
5.WhichofthefollowingcompoundsofTCAcycleisanintermediate
intheconversionofcitratetoSuccinylCoA?
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
3084
Citrate
6.ForformationofATPinmitochondrionrequiresallofthefollowing,
EXCEPT
Catalatycβ-subunitofATP-ase.
Lowprotonmotiveforce.
Rotationofγ-subunitofAT-ase.
ADPΠ.
7.Adisaccharidelinkedbyα(1→4)glycosidicbondis
Lactose.
Sucrose.
3085
Cellulose.
Maltose.
8.Theflowofwhichofthefollowingintomitochondrialmatrix
providesthechemiosmoticenergyforthesynthesisofATP?
Inorganicphosphate.
Electrons.
Protons.
ADP.
9.ProductsofETCworkingare
AcetylCoA,CO2,ATP
3086
ATP,NADH
H2O,NAD+,FAD
ATP,H2O2,FADH2
10.Thefinalelectronacceptorintheelectrontransportsystemis
CoenzymeQ.
CoenzymeA.
Oxygen.
ATP-synthase.
11.Riboflavinisapartofthestructureofwhichofthefollowing?
FAD
3087
NAD+
CoA
ATP
12.AllofthefollowingstatementsaboutNAD+&FADarecorrect,
EXCEPT
Theyarevitaminderivatives.
Theyaretransportsystemforoxygenradicals.
Theycontainnucleotides.
Theyaretransportsystemforprotonsandelectrons.
13.WhichoneisNOTthemainproteininelectrontransportchain?
3088
NADHdehydrogenase
Cytochromebc1complex
Cytochromeoxidase
Citratesynthase
14.Starchandglycogenarepolymersof
α-D-Galactose
β-D-Fructose
α-D-Glucose
β-D-Ribose
3089
15.Wastingsyndromemayseeninpatientssufferingfromall
EXCEPT
Hyperthyroidism
Multiplemyeloma
Malnutrition
Highcaloricintake
16.SelectthemoleculethatcontainstheLEASTstoredchemical
energyincells
Oxygen
Lactate
Glucose
3090
Glucose-6-phosphate
17.Patientwithinheriteddefectofmitochondriainvolving
componentsofelectrontransportchainandoxidative
phosphorylationpresentwithallEXCEPT
Myopathy
Encephalopathy
Fattyliver
Lacticacidosis
18.TheenergyofelectrontransferfromNADHandFADH2is
efficientlyconvertedinwhatform?
Protongradient
3091
Glycogen
Osmoticgradient
Glucose
19.Monosaccharideis
Ribose
AcetylCoA
Acetoacetate
Glycerol
20.HowmanymolesofATPsareproducedbyoxidative
phosphorylationfromonemoleofNADH?
Zero
3092
2
21.Energystatusiscontrolthecellularrateof
Glycolysis
Oxidativephosphorylation
Citricacidcycle
Alloftheabove
22.Ahighratioofinsulintoglucagoncan
3093
Promoteketogenesis
Occurringinstarvation
Promoteglycogenolysis
Promoteglycogenesis
23.MitochondrialATPsareformedbyaprocessknownas
Glycolysis.
Chemiosmosis.
Krebscycle.
Dephosphorylation.
24.WhichofthefollowingcompoundsofTCAcycleisconvertedto
3094
itsisomerbytheenzymeaconitase
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
Citrate
25.WhichofthefollowingcompoundsofTCAcycleisgeneratedin
thereactionthatproducesGTP?
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
3095
Citrate
26.AllofthefollowingareelectroncarriersinElectronTransport
Chain,EXCEPT
Cytochromes.
CoenzymeQ.
NADPH.
NADH.
27.Energy-requirementpathway
Ketolysis
Krebscycle
3096
Glycogenesis
HMPshunt
28.Duringoxidativephosphorylationtheprotonmotiveforcethatis
generatedbyelectrontransportisusedto
Createaporeintheinnermitochondrialmembrane.
ActivateATPsynthase.
Reduceoxygentowater.
InduceaconformationalchangeofETC.
29.Energyreleasedfromtheoxidationofglucoseisstoredin
ATPonly
ATPandNADH
3097
NADHonly
NADPHonly
30.Hexokinaseactivityisinhibitedby
Glucose6-phosphate
Fattyacids
Citricacid
Wateroverload
31.Afterexcessivedrinkingoveraprolongedtimewitheatingpoorly,
a45-year-oldmanisadmittedtothehospitalwithheartfailure.Which
ofthefollowingenzymesofTCAcycleismostlikelyaffected?
Aconitase
3098
Malatedehydrogenase
Citratesynthase
α-ketoglutaratedehydrogenase
32.Ineukaryotesfattyacidoxidationoccursin
Mitochondrialmatrix.
Cytosol.
Cellmembrane.
Endoplasmicreticulum.
33.Oxidationofwhichsubstancesintheerythrocytesleadssynthesis
ofATP?
3099
Glucose-6-P
AcetylCoA
Iron
NADH
34.Mostofmetabolicpathwaysareeitheranabolic(synthetic)or
catabolic(degradation).Whichoneofthefollowingpathwaysis
consideredas“amphibolic”innature?
Glycogenesis
Lipolysis
Rapoport-Leuberingshunt
3100
Citricacidcycle
35.WhichofthefollowingisNOTadisaccharide?
Pectin
Sucrose
Lactose
Maltose
36.Electrontransportchainisinvolvedintransportofelectronsfrom
to
AcetylCoA/NADH
NADH/oxygen
3101
FADH2/proton
NADH/FAD
37.Reducedparticleis
NADH.
FAD.
Oxygen.
Proton(H+).
38.Inheartcellsdeprivedofoxygenduringamyocardialinfarction
TheTCAwillacceleratetoprovidemoreelectronsforATPsynthesis.
TheETCwillacceleratetoprovidemoreprotonsforATPsynthesis.
3102
Themitochondrialprotonpumpsslowsdown,preventingATP
synthesis.
AnaerobicglycolysiswilldecreaseandconversionofglucosetoCO2
willincrease.
39.Duringcellularrespiration,mostoftheATPmade,isgeneratedby
Oxidativephosphorylation
Glycolysis
Substrate-levelphosphorylation
40.WhichoneofthefollowingvitaminsisNOTacomponentof
electrontransportchain?
Nicotinamide
3103
Ubiquinone
Biotin
Riboflavin
41.WhichoneofthefollowingisNOToneofthestagesoftheaerobic
respirationofglucose?
Hydrolysis
ElectronTransportChain
Krebscycle
Glycolysis
42.HigherrateofATPsproductionisseenin
3104
Heart
Erythrocytes
Cornea
Spleen
43.WhichofthefollowingcompoundsofTCAcycleisformedbythe
additionofwatertofumarate?
Succinate
Malate
α-Ketoglutarate
3105
Citrate
44.Storagepolysaccharidemadebyanimalsis
Amylopectin
Glycogen
Cellulose
Collagen
45.Incardiomyocytesdeprivedofoxygenduringmyocardial
infarction
Thecitricacidcyclewillaccelerate
Themitochondrialprotonpumpsslowsdown
ETCwillaccelerate
3106
Anaerobicglycolysswilldecrease
46.AntimycinAblocksETCbetweencytochromebandcytochrome
c1.WhichoneofthefollowingwouldbeNOTfoundinoxidizedform?
FAD
NAD
Cyta3
CoQ
47.Whichoneofthefollowingproductsofcitricacidcycleremoves
throughrespiratorysystem?
Carbondioxide
Acetone
3107
AcetylCoA
Water
48.WhatarefinalproductsofAcetylCoAoxidationinmitochondrion?
Hydrogen&oxygen
Carbon&water
Carbondioxide&protons
Carbonmonoxide&hydrogen
49.AcetylCoAisaproductofallofthefollowingmoleculesoxidation
EXCEPT
Pyruvate
3108
Aldosterone
Acetoacetate
Alanine
50.Electrontransportchainoxidize
NADH
NADPH
1.Refsume’sdiseaseisduetoaccumulationof
Phytanicacidinbrain.
Glycogeninmuscles.
Carnitineinliver.
3109
Choestrolingallbladder.
2.DeficiencyofLDL-receptorsisriskfactorfordevelopmentof
Livercirrhosis
Coronaryheartdisease(CHD)
Mentalretardation
Musclesatrophy
3.Hyperlipidemiacanoccurinallofthefollowingconditions,EXCEPT
Enteritis.
Diabetesmellitus.
3110
Nephroticsyndrome.
Hypothyroidism.
4.A25-year-oldmanis178cmtallandweighs101kg.Laboratory
studiesshowtotalserumcholesterolof550mg/dlwithanHDL
cholesterolcomponentof25mg/dl.Heisworriedaboutthese
findingsbecausehisbrotherdiedofamyocardialinfarctionatage3
Diabetesmellitus,typeII
Malignanthypertension
Familialhypercholesterolemia
Cushingsyndrome
5.A56-year-oldsmokes2packsofcigarettesperday.Heisfoundto
havea bloodpressure of155/95mmHg.His bodymassindex is30.
Laboratoryfindingsincludetotalserum cholesterol of245mg/dland
HDL cholesterol is22mg/dl.Whichofthefollowingva
3111
Hyperplasticarteriolosclerosis
Deepvenousthrombosis
Medialcalcificsclerosis
Atherosclerosis
6.AnimportantfeatureofZellweger’ssyndromeis
Hypoglycemia.
Skineruption.
Accumulationofpolyenoicacidsinbrain.
Ectopicdepositionoffatinthepancreas
3112
7.Whichoneofthefollowingapoproteinissynthesizedintheliveras
integralpartofVLDL?
AI
B-100
CII
B–48
8.Theofficialmedicalmeasurementofobesityis
Basalmetabolicrate.
Bodymassindex.
Proportionofbonedensitytoweight.
3113
Heightofaperson.
9.Increasedlevelofbloodcholesterolareriskfactorsfor
developmentof
Gallstones.
Fattyliver.
Anemia.
Atherosclerosis.
10.Thefollowingisanactivatoroflecithin-cholesterol
acyltransferase(LCAT)
ApoB-100
ApoAI
3114
ApoB-48
ApoE
11.Thebuildingblocks(monomers)thatmakeupHDL:
Lipids
Minerals
Monosaccharides
Nucleotides
12.Obesepersonhas
Hypoadiponectinemia
Hyporesistinemia
3115
Hypolipoproteinemia
Hypoglycemia
13.VitaminEdeficiencycancause
Increasingbloodlevelofoxidativelymodifiedlipids.
Decreasingoxidantsactivity.
Decreasingamountofradicalsinthetissues.
Activationofreceptor-mediatedendocytosis.
14.Adipokinethatactivateseffectofinsulinis
Adiponectin.
3116
Resistin.
Leptin.
Grenilin.
15.A44-year-oldwomanhasafamilyhistoryofheartdisease.Her
fatherandmotherbothdevelopedcongestiveheartfailureand
myocardialinfarctionasaresultofextensivecoronary
atherosclerosis. Adietarymodificationtoincludeconsumptionof
whichof
40%oftotalcaloricintakeasfat
Adiethighinsaturatedfat
Fatfoundinbeefproducts
Fishoil
3117
16.NormalbloodHDLlevelis
40-60mg/dl
>200mg/dl
10-15mg/dl
>350mg/dl
17.Allofthefollowingstatementsaboutlipoproteinlipasearecorrect,
EXCEPT
Synthesizedbyadipocytes
Synthesizedbymyocytes
Deficiencyleadshypertriglyceridemia
3118
Deficiencyleadshypercholesterolemia
18.Patienthasgeneticdisordercharacterizedbymalabsorptionof
dietarylipid,steatorrhea,andaccumulationofintestinaltriglycerides.
Adeficiencyofwhichproteinwouldmostlikelyaccountforthis
clinicalpresentation?
ApoB100
AcylCoAsynthetase
Pancreaticlipase
Colipase
19.Allofthefollowingarefunctionsofapoproteins,EXCEPT
Activatorsorinhibitorsofenzymes.
Helpinaggregationoflipoproteinparticles.
3119
Determinestabilityoflipoproteinparticles.
Recognizeofspecificreceptorsforutilizationoflipoproteins.
20.AlaboratorydataofpatientwithTangierdiseaseis
AbsenceofApoAIandlowbloodHDLlevel.
AbsenceofLDLreceptorandhighbloodLDLlevel.
LowactivityofLPLandhighlevelofbloodVLDL.
AbsenceofApoBandlowlevelofbloodchylomicrons
21.AllofthefollowingarefunctionsofHDL,EXCEPT
DonatesApoCII&ApoE.
3120
Removesexcessofcholesterolfromthetissues.
Convertscholesteroltocholesterolester.
Istransporterofdietarylipids.
22.Synthesisoflipoproteinlipaseisactivatedby
Cortisol
Glucagon
Insulin
Epinephrine
23.Anautopsystudyrevealsthatevidenceforatheromaformation
canbegineveninchildren.Thegrossappearancesoftheaortasare
recordedandcomparedwithmicroscopicfindingsofatheroma
formation.Whichofthefollowingismostlikelytobethefirst
3121
Thrombus
Fattystreak
Calcification
Ulceration
24.VLDLtransport
Triacylglyceridesfromliver.
Triacylglyceridesfromintestine.
Cholesteroltotissues.
Cholesteroltoliver.
3122
25.Whichoneofthefollowingchangeswouldyouexpectinapatient
withdecreasedactivityoflipoproteinlipase?
Elevationofplasmachylomicronsonly
ElevationofbothplasmachylomicronsandVLDLs
ElevationofplasmaLDLonly
ElevationofbothplasmaHDLandLDL
26.Plasmabecomemilkyduetoincreaselevelof
Lipoproteins
Glucose
Ketonebodies
3123
Urea
27.AdrugwhichpreventscholesterolbyinhibitingtheenzymeHMG
CoAreductaseis
Aspirin.
Allopurinol.
Digitonin.
Lavostatin.
28.WhichstatementfromofthefollowingaboutZellweger’s
syndromeisFALSE?
Resultsfromtheabsenceoffunctionalperoxisomes
Characterizedbyhypoglycemiaandketosis
3124
Causedbyadefectintheimportofenzymesintotheperoxisomes
Deathoccurswithin6yearsoflife.
29.Physiologicalconditionswhichpromotethesynthesisofketone
bodieswouldalsopromotethe
Oxidationoffattyacidsinerythrocytes.
Synthesisoffattyacidsintheliver.
Synthesisofaminoacidsinthebrain.
Synthesisofglucoseintheliver.
30.SpecificscavengerreceptorSR-B1presentonthesurfaceof
extrahepatictissueincludingvesselsfor
LDL
3125
HDL
VLDL
IDL
31.Whatisthecorrectorderingoflipoproteinparticlesfromlowestto
thehighestdensity?
LDL-IDL–VLDL-chylomicrons
VLDL-IDL-LDL-chylomicrons
Chylomicrons–LDL-IDL-VLDL
32.Thepatienthasunusualredcellsmorphology(acanthocytosis-
thorny-appearingcells)duetomembraneabnormalitiesintheir
3126
erythrocytes.Thismembranopathywouldmostlikelyfrom
malabsorptionofwhichfromthefollowingessentialfattyacid?
Linolenic(C18:3)
Palmitic(C16:0)
Ascorbic
Folic
33.WheredoesVLDLsynthesistakeplace?
Liver
Intestinallumen
Intestinalmucosalcell
3127
Adiposetissue
34.Whichofthefollowingstatementregardingchylomicronsis
correct?
Containpolysaccharides
Aremadeintheliver
Haveashellofwater
Containalipidmaterials
35.NormalbloodLDLlevelis
<150mg/dl
>200mg/dl
3128
>500mg/dl
<300mg/dl
36.HDLtransport
Triacylglyceridesfromintestine.
Cholesteroltoliver.
37.Allofthefollowingarecomponentsoflipoproteins,EXCEPT
Phospholipids.
Cholesterol.
3129
Fat-solublevitamins.
Carbohydrates.
38.Allareplasmaadipokinesprofileofobeseperson,EXCEPT
Leptinresistance.
Hypoestrogenism.
Hyperresistinemia.
39.InsulinresistanceinDMtypeIIleadshyperlipidemiasdueto
excessive
Mobilizationoffattyacids
3130
Utilizationofchylomicrons
Lipogenesisinadiposetissue
UtilizationofVLDL
40.Whichoneofthefollowingstatementsaboutlipoproteinsis
correct?
Chylomicronsaresynthesizedprimarilyinadiposetissueandtransport
triacylglyceridestotheliver
HDLparticlesareproducedfromLDLinthecirculationbytheactionof
lipoproteinlipase
VLDLsareprecursorsofLDLinthecirculation
HDLcompeteswithLDLforbindingtoreceptorsonthesurfaceofcells
inextrahepatictissues.
3131
41.Wastingsyndromeischaracterizedby
Increasecatabolism
Increaseanabolism
Increaseenergyproduction
Increaseappetite
42.Dietaryfatsafterabsorptionappearinthebloodcirculationas
HDL
VLDL
LDL
Chylomicrons
3132
43.LDLtransport
Tricylglyceridesfromintestine.
Cholesteroltoliver.
44.Thefollowingisanactivatoroflipoproteinlipase
ApoE
ApoCII
ApoAI
3133
ApoB-48
45.An11yearoldboypresentswithbalanceanddifficultywithnight
vision.Hismothersayshehadfoulsmellingstoolsandfailureto
thriveasaninfant.Physicalexaminationrevealspoormuscle
coordination,ataxia.Labtestsshowlowtotalcholesterol
7-α-hydrohylase
MicrosomalTransferProtein(MTP)
HormoneSensitiveLipase(HSL)
Lipoproteinlipase(LPL)
46.Hypoglycemichypoketonicbloodisseeninpatientssuffering
fromimpairedwhichmetabolicpathway?
DiabetesmellitustypeI
3134
Prolongedstarvation
Alcoholabuse
Carnitinedeficiency
47.Whiteadiposetissuehasallofthefollowingfunctions,EXCEPT
Endocrine.
Helpsinimmunity.
Metabolic.
Homeostasisregulation.
48.Ayounggirlwithahistoryofsevereabdominalpainwastakento
herlocalhospitalat5a.m.inseveredistress.Bloodwasdrawn,and
theplasmaappearedmilkywiththeTGlevel2000mg/dl(normal4-50
mg/dl).Whichoneofthefollowingenzymesdeficie
3135
Pancreaticlipase
Lecithin-cholesterolacyltransferase
Lipoproteinlipase
Hormone-sensitivelipase
49.Lecithin-cholesterolacyltransferase(LCAT)isenzymethatbinds
with
HDL
Proteoglycansofcapillarywalls
LDL
ScavengerreceptorB1
3136
50.A35-year-oldmanhasahistoryofrecurringattacksof
pancreatitis,eruptivexathomasandincreasedplasmatriacylglyceride
levels:2000mg/dlassociatedwithchylomicronemias.Deficiencyof
whichofthefollowingisthelikelycauseofthesesymptoms?
HMGCoAreductase
Lipoproteinlipase(LPL)
Lecithin-cholesterolacyltransferase(LCAT)
1.Intheco-enzymeB12thepositionoccupiedbyacyanideionin
vitaminB12isbondeddirectlyto_______oftheriboseofadenosine.
Adenine
5-6dimethylbenzimidazole
Hydroxycobalamin
3137
Cyanocobalamin
2.VitaminB12(Cobalamin)isonlysynthesizedby
Fishes
Micro-organisms
Plants
Animals
3.Cystinuriaisdueto
Increasedlevelofbloodcysteine
Defectiverenalreabsorption
AlkalizationofurinarypH
3138
Excessendogenousproduction
4.Whichofthefollowingaminoacidsisconsideredasbothketogenic
andglucogenic?
Valine
Tryptophan
Lysine
Noneofthese
5.Maplesyrupurinediseaseisaninbornerrorofmetabolismof
Aromaticaminoacids
Saturatedfattyacids
3139
Branchedchainaminoacids
Polyenicfattyacids
6.Phenylalaninerichdietare
Fruits
Vegetables
Juice
Meat
7.Ascorbicacidactsasan
Reducingagent
Oxidizingagent
3140
Oxidizingandreducingagentboth
Noneoftheabove
8.Rho-dependentterminationoftranscriptioninE.coli
RequiresATP
Requiresabout50nucleotidesofuncomplexedmRNA
Both(a)and(b)
RemovesmRNAandholoenzymefromtheDNA
9.VitaminsB12isusefulinthepreventionandtreatmentof
Perniciousanemia
3141
Scurvy
Cataract
Beri-beri
10.Whenproteinbindstwoligandsinanon-cooperativemanner,then
thex-interceptoftheScatchardPlotis
Notdefined
Noneoftheabove
11.Aglucogenicaminoacidisonewhichisdegradedto
3142
Keto-sugars
EitheracetylCoAoracetoacetylCoA
Pyruvateorcitricacidcycleintermediates
Noneoftheabove
12.TheHillcoefficient(nH)formyoglobinandhemoglobinare
respectively
2.8and1.0
1.0and2.8
1.2and4.5
4.5and1.2
3143
13.Thesymptomsofretinolexcessare
Bonefragility
Nausea
Weakness
Allofthese
14.Anexampleofadigestivehormoneis
Lipase
Pepsin
Amylase
Gastrin
3144
15.Catecolaminesarederivedfrom
Bilirubin
Tyrosine
Palmiticacid
Cholesterol
16.Lipoicacidexistsin
Oxidizedform
Reducedform
Oxidizedandreducedfromboth
3145
Noneofthese
17.Theprostheticgroupbiotinisacarrierofwhichtypeofmolecule?
Activatedcarbondioxide(CO2)
Ammonia
Methylgroup
Sulfhydrylgroup
18.Vitaminsareessentialbecausetheorganism
Can'tsynthesizethesecompoundsatall
Cansynthesizethesecompoundspartially
Can'tsynthesizethesecompoundsintheadequateamounts
3146
Noneoftheabove
19.Enhancersareregionsthat
BindRNApolymerase
AreadjacenttotheTATAbox
AreCATboxbindingproteins
Modulatetranscription
20.BacterialDNArichbynucleotides?
A-T
G-C
3147
A-U
Noneoftheabove
21.Anallostericactivator
Increasesthebindingaffinity
Decreasesthebindingaffinity
DecreasestheRstateoftheprotein
StabilizestheMstateoftheprotein
22.ThebindingoflacrepressortoDNAcouldbeconsideredtobe
analogousto
Competitiveinhibitionofanenzyme
Mixed-typeinhibitionofanenzyme
3148
Uncompetitiveinhibitionofanenzyme
Allostericeffortsinenzymeregulation
23.O2bindingtohemoglobinresultsin
100-foldhigheraffinityforthelastO2boundthanforthefirst
Extensivelipidconfirmationalchange
50-foldloweraffinityforthelastO2boundthanforthefirst
100-foldloweraffinityforthelastO2boundthanforthefirst
24.Whichofthefollowingisthebestdescribedglucogenicamino
acid?
Lysine
3149
Tryptophan
Valine
Noneofthese
25.Acylcarrierprotein(ACP)playsanimportantroleinthe
biosynthesisof
Fattyacids
Aminoacids
Sugars
Carbohydrates
26.Whichofthefollowingarereducedcoenzymes?
3150
NADHandFADH2
NAD+andFAD
ATPandGTP
CoenzymeAandubiquinone
27.RNApolymeraseinprokaryoteshasaremovable
Alphasubunit
Betasubunit
Gammasubunit
Sigmasubunit
28.Bisphosphoglycerate(BPG)cannotbindtotheoxygenatedRstate
3151
ofhemoglobinbecause
Itisdisplacedfromthehemebyoxygen
Itisdisplacedfromthehemebymovementoftheproximalhistidine
ItsbindingpocketbecomestoosmalltoaccommodateBPG
BPGbindstotheRstatewiththesameaffinityastheTstate
29.Aproteinthatshowsinfinitecooperativeforbindingofnligands
will
ShowaHillcoefficient(nH)ofo.o
Onlybefoundineithertheunligandedformorthefullyligandedform
ShowaHillcoefficient(nH)ofn
3152
Both(b)and(c)
30.PromotersfortRNAsarelocated
Upstreamfromthestartcodon
Downstreamfromthestartcodon
Both(a)and(b)
Noneofthese
31.Thespecificityofaligandbindingsiteonaproteinisbasedon
Theabsenceofcompetingligands
Theaminoacidresiduesliningthebindingsite
Thepresenceofhydratingwatermolecules
3153
Theoppositechiralityofthebindingligand
32.TheconformationalchangesfromtheTtotheRstateisinitiated
by
Bindingofoxygentotheheme
Movementoftheproximalhistidinetowardstheheme
MovementoftheF-helix,whichcontainstheproximalHis
Reorganizationofprotein-proteincontactsbetweentheindividual
subunits
33.Purinebaseis?
Uracil
Thymine
3154
Guanine
Cytosine
34.Adeficiencyofthiaminproducesthediseaseknownas
Beri-beri
Scurvy
Cataract
Anemia
35.Theabsenceofascorbicacidinthehumandietgivesriseto
Rickets
3155
Perniciousanemia
Cataract
Beri-beri
36.Apersonwithphenylketonuriaisadvisednottoconsumewhichof
thefollowingproducts?
Aspartam
Glucose
Fat
Cholesterol
37.Aproteinthatbindstwoligandsinanon-cooperativemannerwill
show
3156
Asigmodialbindingcurve
Ahyperbolicbindingcurve
AcircularScatchardPlot
A'L'shapedbindingcurve
38.Histidineisdegradedtoa-ketoglutarateandisdescribedasa
Glucoaminoacid
Glucogenicaminoacid
Ketogenicaminoacid
Keto-glucoaminoacid
3157
39.WhatarerepeatingunitsofDNA
Bases
Nucleotides
Sugars
Phosphates
40.ThecomplexofRNApolymerase,DNAtemplateandnewRNA
transcriptiscalled
Transcriptionbubble
Replicationbubble
Atranslationbubble
3158
Noneofthese
41.Smallmoleculesaffecthemoglobin(Hb)by
DecreasingHbaffinityfor02
Increasing[H+]
IncreasingHbaffinityfor02
Increasing[H+]anddecreasingHbaffinityfor02
42.Anexampleofatransaminationprocess
Glutamate=hexanoicacid+NH3
Aspartate+hexanoicacid=glutamate+oxaloacetate
Aspartate+aketoglutarate=glutamate+oxaloacetate
3159
Glutamate=a-ketoglutarate+NH3
43.Inhemoglobin,allostericeffectsoccur
Onlyinhumans
FormaintainingFeintheFe2+state
Tominimizeoxygendeliverytothetissues
Tomaximizeoxygendeliverytothetissues
44.Apurinenucleotideis?
AMP
UMP
CMP
3160
TMP
45.Apersonwithphenylketonuriacannotconvert
Phenylalaninetotyrosine
Phenylalaninetoisoleucine
Phenolintoketones
Phenylalaninetolysine
46.Mainfunctionofinsulinhormoneisto
Increaseglycogeninliver
Decreaseglycogeninliver
3161
Increasebloodsugar
Decreasebloodsugar
47.Ochronosisisafeatureof?
Albinism
Alkaptonuria
Phenylketonuria
Tyrosinosis
48.Oxidativedeaminationistheconversionofanamino,
Groupfromanaminoacidtoaketoacid
Acidtoacarboxylicacidplusammonia
3162
Acidtoaketoacidplusammonia
Groupfromanaminoacidtoacarboxylicacid
49.Whichoneofthefollowingstatementsaboutalbinicpersonis
false?
Skinishypopigmented
Mentalretarded
Autoimmunedestructionofmelanocytes
Decreaseactivityoftyrosinehydroxylase
50.HumanDNArichbynucleotides?
A-T
3163
G-C
A-U
Noneoftheabove
1.Initiationofproteinsynthesisrequires
ATP
AMP
GDP
GTP
2.CyclicAMPcanbeformedfrom
AMP
3164
ADP
ATP
allofthese
3.NegativesupercoilsareintroducedinDNAby
Helicase
DNAligase
DNAgyrase
DNApolymeraseIIIholoenzyme
4.Afterformationofreplicationfork
3165
Boththenewstrandsaresynthesizeddiscontinuously
Onestrandissynthesizedcontinuouslyandtheotherdiscontinuously
Boththenewstrandsaresynthesizedcontinuously
RNAprimerisrequiredonlyforthesynthesisofonenewstrand
5.Thenucleophilicattackontheesterifiedcarboxylgroupofthe
peptidyl-tRNAoccupyingthePsiteandtheα-aminogroupofthenew
aminoacyltRNA,thenumberofATPrequiredbytheaminoacidon
thechargedtRNAis
Zero
One
Two
3166
Four
6.Theα-aminogroupofthenewaminoacyltRNAintheAsitecarries
outanucleophilicattackontheesterifiedcarboxylgroupofthe
peptidyltRNAoccupyingthePsite.Thisreactioniscatalysedby
DNApolymerase
RNApolymerase
Peptidyltransferase
DNAligase
7.InDNAmolecule
Guaninecontentdoesnotequalcytosinecontent
Adeninecontentdoesnotequalthyminecontent
3167
Adeninecontentequalsuracilcontent
Guaninecontentequalscytosinecontent
8.AlthougheachspecifictRNAdiffersfromtheothersinitssequence
ofnucleotides,alltRNAmoleculescontainabasepairedstemthat
terminatesinthesequenceCCAat
3′Termini
5′Termini
Anticodonarm
3′5′-Termini
9.Geneticcodeis
Overlapping
3168
Non-overlapping
Notuniversal
Ambiguous
10.DirectionofRNAsynthesisis
3′→ 5’
5′→ 3’
Both(A)and(B)
Noneofthese
11.AminoacidisattachedtotRNAat
5’-End
3169
3’-End
Anticodon
DHUloop
12.TheunwoundstrandsofDNAareheldapartby
Singlestrandbindingprotein
Doublestrandbindingprotein
Repprotein
DNAAprotein
13.Intronsingenes
3170
Encodetheaminoacidswhichareremovedduringpost-translational
modification
Encodesignalsequenceswhichareremovedbeforesecretionofthe
proteins
Arethenon-codingsequenceswhicharenottranslated
Arethesequencesthatintervenebetweentwogenes
14.InRNAmoleculeguaninecontentdoesnotnecessarilyequalits
cytosinecontentnordoesitsadeninecontentnecessarilyequalits
uracilcontentsinceitisa
Singlestrandmolecule
Doublestrandedmolecule
Doublestrandedhelicalmolecule
3171
Polymerofpurineandpyrimidineribonucleotides
15.RibonucleotidesofRNAprimerarereplacedby
deoxyribonucleotidesbytheenzyme:
DNApolymeraseI
DNApolymeraseII
DNApolymeraseIII
Allofthese
16.Geneticinformationflowsfrom
DNAtoDNA
DNAtoRNA
3172
RNAtoDNA
DNAtocellularproteins
17.Theaminoterminalofallpolypeptidechainatthetimeof
synthesisinE.coliistaggedtotheaminoacidresidue:
Methionine
N-formylmethinine
Serine
N-formalserine
18.ThefirstcodontobetranslatedonmRNAis
GGU
3173
AUG
GGA
AAA
19.Thecarbonofthepentoseinesterlinkagewiththephosphateina
nucleotidestructureis
C1
C2
C4
C5
20.Erythromycinactsonribosomesandinhibit
Formationofinitiationcomplex
3174
BindingofaminoacyltRNA
Peptidyltransferaseactivity
Translocation
21.Inbiosynthesisofproteinsthechainterminatingcodonsare
UGG,UGUandAGU
UAA,UAGandUGA
AAU,AAGandGAU
GCG,GCAandGCU
22.Themostabundantfreenucleotideinmammaliancellsis
3175
NAD
GTP
ATP
FAD
23.InRNAmolecule‘Caps’
AllowtRNAtobeprocessed
AreuniquetoeukaryoticmRNA
Occuratthe5’endoftRNA
AllowcorrecttranslationofprokaryoticmRNA
3176
24.Peptidyltransferaseactivityislocatedin
Elongationfactor
AchargedtRNAmolecule
Ribosomalprotein
Asolublecytosolicprotein
25.Innucleotides,phosphateisattachedtosugarby
Saltbond
Hydrogenbond
Esterbond
Glycosidicbond
3177
26.InDNAreplicationtheenzymerequiredinthefirststepis
DNAdirectedpolymerase
Unwindingproteins
DNApolymerase
DNAligase
27.Okazakifragmentisrelatedto
DNAsynthesis
Proteinsynthesis
mRNAformation
3178
tRNAformation
28.ThenucleicacidbasefoundinmRNAbutnotinDNAis
Adenine
Guanine
Cytosine
Urasil
29.UltravioletlightcandamageaDNAstrandcausing
Twoadjacentpurineresiduetoformacovalentlyboundeddimer
Twoadjacentpyrimidineresiduestoformcovalentlybondeddimer
Disruptionofphosphodiesteraselinkage
3179
Disruptionofnon-covalentlinkage
30.DeoxyribonucleotidesareaddedtoRNAprimerby
DNApolymeraseI
DNApolymeraseII
DNApolymeraseIII
Allofthese
31.Uracilandriboseform
Uridine
Cytidine
Guanosine
3180
Adenosine
32.Anucleosideconsistsof
Nitrogenousbase
Purineorpyrimidinebase+sugar
Purineorpyrimidinebase+phosphorous
Purine+pyrimidinebase+sugar+phosphorous
33.Reversetranscriptaseiscapableofsynthesising
DNA→ RNA
RNA→ DNA
3181
RNA→ RNA
DNA→ DNA
34.ThecorrectstatementconcerningRNAandDNApolymerasesis
RNApolymeraseusenucleosidediphosphates
RNApolymeraserequireprimersandaddbasesat5’endofthe
growingpolynucleotidechain
DNApolymerasescanaddnucleotidesatbothendsofthechain
AllRNAandDNApolymerasescanaddnucleotidesonlyatthe3’end
ofthegrowingpolynucleotidechain
35.TheenzymeDNAligase
Introducessuperhelicaltwists
3182
ConnectstheendoftwoDNAchains
Unwindsthedoublehelix
SynthesisesRNAprimers
36.ReplicationofDNAis
Conservative
Semi-conservative
Non-conservative
Noneofthese
37.Okazakipiecesaremadeupof
RNA
3183
DNA
RNAandDNA
RNAandproteins
38.DNAdoesnotcontain
Thymine
Adenine
Uracil
Deoxyribose
39.Degeneracyofgeneticcodeimpliesthat
3184
Codonsdonotcodeforspecificaminoacid
Multiplecodonsmustdecodethesameaminoacids
NoanticodonontRNAmolecule
Specificcodondecodesmanyaminoacids
40.Translationresultsinaproductknownas
tRNA
mRNA
rRNA
Protein
41.Anucleotideconsistsof
3185
Anitrogenousbaselikecholine
42.Geneticcodeis
Collectionofcodon
Collectionofaminoacids
Collectionofpurinenucleotide
Collectionofpyrimidinenucleotide
3186
43.mRNAiscomplementarytothenucleotidesequenceof
tRNA
RibosomalRNA
Codingstrand
Templatestrand
44.AUG,theonlyidentifiedcodonformethionineisimportantas
Areleasingfactorforpeptidechains
Achainterminatingcodon
RecognitionsiteontRNA
3187
Achaininitiatingcodon
45.5’-TerminusofmRNAmoleculeiscappedwith
Guanosinetriphosphate
7-Methylguanosinetriphophate
Adenosinetriphosphate
Adenosinediphosphate
46.DNA-dependentRNApolymeraserequiresthefollowingforits
catalyticactivity:
Mg++
Mn++
Both(A)and(B)
3188
Noneofthese
47.Streptomycinpreventssynthesisofpolypeptideby
Inhibitinginitiationprocess
Releasingprematurepolypeptide
Inhibitingpeptidyltransferaseactivity
Inhibitingtranslocation
48.Anticodonsarepresenton
CodingstrandofDNA
mRNA
3189
tRNA
rRNA
49.Thecarbonofthepentoseinesterlinkagewiththenitrogenouse
baseinanucleotidestructureis
C1
C2
C3
C4
50.DNAfragmentsaresealedby
DNApolymeraseII
DNAligase
3190
DNAgyrase
DNAtopoisomeraseII
1.Aminoacidsequenceisnotfoundby:
Sanger’sreagent
Benedictsreagent
Trypsin
Cyanogenbromide
2.Whichofthefollowingisthestructureofmyoglobin?
Monomer
3191
Homodimer
Heterodimer
Tetramer
3.RossmanfoldassociatedNADHdomainisfoundinwhichenzyme
PyruvateDehydrogenase
Lactatedehydrogenase
AlphaketoglutarateDehydrogenase
IsocitrateDehydrogenase
4.Proteinsarelinearpolymersofaminoacids.Theyfoldinto
compactstructures.Sometimes,thesefoldedstructuresassociated
toformhomo-or-heterodimers.Whichoneofthefollowingreferto
thisassociatedform?
3192
Denaturedstate
Molecularaggregation
Precipitation
Quaternarystructure
5.Polypeptideformationinaminoacidisby
Primarystructure
Secondarystructure
Tertiarystructure
Quaternarystructure
3193
6.Analphahelixofaproteinismostlikelytobedisruptedifa
missensemutationintroducesthefollowingaminoacidwithinthe
alphahelicalstructure:
Alanine
Asparticacid
Tyrosine
Glycine
7.Denatrurationisresistedbtwhichofthefollowingbond?
Peptidebond
Hydrogenbondy
Disulphidebond
3194
Electrostaticbond
8.Sanger’sreagentischemically:
2,4Dinitrobenzene
2,4DinitroCresol
1,Flouro2,4DinitroBenzene
1,Flouro2,4DinitroBenzenel
9.Whichofthefollowingaboutproteinstructureiscorrect?
Proteinconsistingofonepolypeptidecanhavequaternarystructure
Theformationofdisulphidebondinaproteinrequirethatthetwo
participatingcysteineresiduesbeadjacenttoeachotherintheprimary
sequenceoftheprotein
3195
Theformationofdisulphidebondinaproteinrequirethatthetwo
participatingglycineresiduesbeadjacenttoeachotherintheprimary
sequenceoftheprotein
Theinforamtionrequiredforthecorrectfoldingofaproteinis
containedinthespecificsequenceofaminoacidalongthepolypeptide
chain
10.Methodusedtostudythestructureofproteinsincludeallexcept?
UVSpectroscopy
NMRSpectroscopy
X-raycrystallography
Edman’stechnique
1.AllareTRUEaboutchaperonesexcept?
3196
Manyofthemareknownasheatshockproteins
Theyuseenergyduringtheprotein-chaperoneinteraction
Ubiquitinisoneofthemostimportantchaperone
Theyarepresentinwiderangeofspeciesfrombacteriatohuman
2.Whichofthefollowinggroupsofproteinsassistinthefoldingof
otherproteins?
Proteases
Proteosomes
Templates
Chaperones
3197
3.Thesequencethattargetproteinstolysosomeis:
Mannose6phosphate
PTS
KDEL
NLS
4.Whichisnotaproteinmisfoldingdisease
Priondisease
Alzheimer’sdisease
Betathalassemia
3198
Ehler’sdanlossyndrome
5.Amyloidproteininhumanbeingis:
Anaturallypresentproteininnormalindividuals
Involvesselectivelybloodvessels
Isvisiblebynakedeyesaswhitishcheesymaterial
Amaterialwhichgetsdepositedinnextra-cellularspaces
1.Immunoglobulinsare:
Proteins
Glycoproteins
Proteoglycan
3199
Glycoside
gamma-aminobutyricacid
adrenaline
insulin
dopamine
2.Whichofthefollowingareessentialaminoacids?
serine
tryptophan
3200
tyrosine
glycine
3.Participateintheornithinecycle
citrulline,aspartate
lysine,pepsin
alanine,methionine
alanine,creatine
4.Theserumaspartateaminotransferaseactivityincreases
dramaticallywith
kidneydisease
pancreatitis
3201
prostatitis
myocardialinfarction
5.Inputrefactionofphenylalanineintheintestineareformed
phenol,glycine
Skatole,indole
cresol,phenol
6.Biogenicaminesaresynthesizedin:
α-decarboxylationofaminoacids
reductiveamination
3202
deaminationofamides
transamination
7.Hydrolysisofproteinsinthestomachcatalyzes
chymotrypsin
carboxypeptidase
dipeptidase
pepsin
8.Negativenitrogenbalanceisobservedin:
agedpersons
children
3203
theabsenceofessentialfattyacidsinfood
theabsenceofnon-essentialaminoacidsinfood
9.Whichofthefollowingenzymesisproducedinthepancreasto
digestproteins?
pepsin
trypsin
amylase
collagenase
10.Reductiveaminationisaprocessinwhich:
ammoniaisformed
3204
biogenicaminesareformed
participatesglutamatedehydrogenase
detoxificationofammoniatakesplace
11.Whichofthefollowingisthepathwayforsynthesisofurea?
reductiveamination
degradationofpurines
degradationofpyrimidines
ornithinecycle
12.Exopeptidaseinclude:
pepsin
3205
trypsin
rennin
carboxypeptidase
13.Proteinsaredegradedinthestomachby:
pepsin
trypsin
amylase
gastrin
3206
a.arginine
b.cysteine
c.lysine
d.asparagine
15.Whatisthebiologicalroleofdecarboxylationofaminoacidsin
humans?
energyproduction
synthesisofessentialaminoacids
biosynthesisofbiogenicamines
synthesisofNADPН2
3207
16.Whichofthefollowingisthepathwayfordetoxificationof
ammoniainthebrain?
synthesisofalanineA
synthesisofurea
formationofammoniumsalts
synthesisofglutamine
17.Whichofthefollowingisthemajorformofnitrogenexcretionin
humans?
ammonia
urea
uricacid
3208
ammoniumsalts
18.Endopeptidaseinclude
dipeptidase
pepsin
carboxypeptidase
aminopeptidase
19.Inputrefactionoftryptophanintheintestineareformed
phenol,glycine
skatole,indole
cresol,phenol
3209
20.Specifywhichenzymeisactivatedbyhydrochloricacid?
pepsin
trypsin
amylase
lipase
21.Whichofthefollowingbiogenicaminescausesvasodilatation?
tryptamine
serotonin
histamine
3210
GABA
22.Whichofthefollowingaminoacidsparticipateinthesynthesisof
creatine?
lysine
arginine
methionine
glutamate
23.Hydrochloricacidinthestomach
denaturesproteins
hasabactericidaleffect
3211
activatespepsinogen
allabove
24.Hydrolysisofproteinsinthestomachofnewborncatalyzes
trypsin
carboxypeptidase
rennin
elastase
25.Whichofthefollowingbiogenicaminescausesvasoconstriction?
tryptamine
serotonin
3212
histamine
GABA
26.Non-essentialaminoacidsarecompoundswhich:
arenotsynthesizedintheorganismandhavetobeingestedwithfood
inthecourseofmetabolism,maybereplacedbytheothercompounds
aresynthesizedinhumansfromotheraminoacids
27.Themajoraminoacidwhichundergoesoxidativedeaminationin
humansis:
glutamicacid
asparticacid
3213
glutamine
asparagine
28.Theendproductofproteindigestioninthegastrointestinaltractis
denaturedproteins
fattyacids
carbohydrates
aminoacids
29.Theornithinecycleis:
themajorpathwayfordetoxificationofammoniainthebody
thepathwayforureaformation
3214
mechanismfortransportaminoacidsthroughmembrane
thepathwayforATPformation
30.Ureasynthesisoccurs
muscle
inthebrain
liver
inthekidneys
31.Whichofthefollowingcoenzymesisrequiredfordecarboxylation
ofaminoacids?
a.FAD
3215
b.NADP
c.NAD
d.pyridoxalphosphate
32.Krebscyclemetaboliteinvolvedintransaminationreactions
citrate
alfa-ketoglutarate
succinate
fumarate
33.Thefirstreactionoftheornithinecycleissynthesisof:
citrate
3216
carbamoylphosphate
ornithine
citrulline
34.Indicatewhichoftheaminoacidundertheinfluenceofthe
intestinalmicrofloraisformedphenol,cresol?
alanine
tyrosine
serine
phenylalanine
35.Aminopeptidasesisproducedin
3217
stomach
inthepancreas
smallintestine
largeintestine
36.Whichofthefollowingareessentialaminoacids?
Isoleucine
cysteine
glutamine
methionine
3218
isoleucine
cysteine
methionine
tyrosine
38.Skatolandindoleareneutralizedintheliverby
glycine
glutamate
alfa-ketoglutarate
uridinediphosphoglucuronicacid
3219
39.WhichofthefollowingenzymesrequirevitaminB6ascofactor?
a.glutamatedecarboxylase
b.glutamatedehydrogenase
c.transaminase
d.monoamineoxidase
40.Whichofthefollowingisthepredominanttypeofdeaminationof
aminoacidsinhumantissues?
reductivedeamination
hydrolyticdeamination
oxidativedeamination
3220
intramoleculardeamination
41.Whichofthefollowingischaracteristicofγ-aminobutyricacid?
isthemajorinhibitoryneurotransmitterintheCNS
isthemajorstimulatoryneurotransmitterintheCNS
isformedfrombutyricacid
isformedindecarboxylationofglutamate
42.StimulatesthesecretionofHClinthestomachbiogenicamine
dopamine
histamine
3221
putrescine
cadaverine
43.Whichofthefollowingsubstratesareformedasaresultof
transmethylation?
creatine
methionine
noradrenaline
beta-aminobutyricacid
adrenaline
3222
norepinephrine
phenylalanine
45.Inwhichorganssynthesisofcreatinetakeplace?
liver,lung
liver,muscle
kidney,liver
kidney,muscle
46.Ureabiosynthesisoccursin
kidney
3223
gallbladder
pancreas
livers
47.Serotonin-productofdecarboxylation
histidine
tyrosine
proline
5-hydroxytryptophan
48.Inthesynthesisofcreatineareinvolved
arginine,glycine,methionine
3224
leucine,alanine,serine
asparagine,glutamic
serine,ornithine,histidine
49.Whichofthefollowingiscoenzymeofglutamatedehydrogenase?
FAD
pyridoxaminephosphate
NAD
pyridoxalphosphate
50.Derivativeofwhichvitaminiscoenzymeofdecarboxylasesof
aminoacids?
3225
B1
PP
B6
B2
1.EnzymedeficientinIcelldisease:
GlcNAcphosphotransferase
MannosePhosphotranferase
Phosphodiesterase
Mannose6phosphatetransferase
3226
2.Whichofthefollowingaminoacidcanhaveo-glycoxylationlinkage
inoligosaccharidemolecule:
Asparagine
Glutamine
Serine
Cysteine
1.Collagenofwhichtypeisfoundinhyalinecartilage?
TypeI
TypeII
TypeIII
3227
TypeIV
2.Majortypeofcollageninbasementmembrance:
TypeI
TypeII
TypeIII
TypeIV
3.Thestructuralproteinsareinvolvedinmaintainingtheshapeofa
cellorintheformationofmatricesinthebody.Theshapeofthese
proteinis:
Globular
Fibrous
3228
Stretchofbeadas
Planar
4.Quarterstaggeredarrangementisseenin:
Immunoglobulin
Hemoglobin
Collagen
Keratin
5.Allofthefollowingarerequiredforhydroxylationofprolinein
collagensynthesisexcept?
O2
VitaminC
3229
Monooxygenases
Monooxygenases
6.Keratinispresentinbothskinandnail.Butnailisharderthanskin.
Thereasonis:
Increasednumberofdisulphidebonds
Decreasednumberofwatermolecules
IncreasedNacontent
Increasedhydrogenbond
1.Trueaboutureacycle:
3230
Nitrogenoftheureacomesfromalanineandammonia
UsesATPduringconversionofarginosuccinateto
Onconsumptionofhighamountofprotein,excessofureaformed
Occurmainlyincytoplasm
2.Ureaisformedfrom:
Citrulline
Aspatrate
Ornithine
Arginine
3.AUareureacycleenzymesexcept
3231
Ornithinetranscarbamoylase
CPS-1(carbamoylphosphatesynthetase-!)
Citrullinesynthase
4.Apatientpresentedtocasualtywithnausea,vomiting.Intravenous
glucosewasgivenandthepatientrecovered.Afterfewmonths,
patientpresentedwithsamecomplaints.Bloodglutaminewasfound
tobeincreased.Alsouracillevelswereraised.Whatisth
CPS-Ideficiency
Arginosuccinatesynthetasedeficiency
CPS-IIdeficiency
3232
Ornithinetranscarbamoylasedeficiency
5.TrueaboutNitricOxideareallexcept
OtherwisecalledEndotheliumderivedRelaxingFactor
NitricOxideSynthasehasthreeisoforms
Producedfromarginine
ActsthroughcAMP
6.Nontoxicformofstorageandammonia:transportation
Asparticacid
Glutamate
Glutamine
3233
Glutamicacid
7.AUaretrueregardingUreacycleexcept
Ureaformedfromammonia
Ratelimitingenzymeisornithinetranscarbamoylase
RequireEnergyexpenditure
Malateisbyproductofureacycle
8.Isoelectricpointiswhen:
Netchargeofproteininzero
Massofproteininzero
3234
Protein
Denaturationofproteinoccurs
9.EDRFis
S02
NO
Np
N02
10.WhichofthefollowingdoesnotcontainP-alanine1
Carnosine
Anserine
3235
Homocarnosine
Pantothenicacid
11.WhichofthefollowingenzymeisaregulatorofUREAcycle?
Dehydrogenase
CPS-I
CPS-II
Ornithinetranscarbamoylase
12.Theprocessinwhichaminogroupofaminoacidistransferredto
ketoacidandketogroupofketoacidistransferredtotheaminoacid
iscalled
Phosphorylation
3236
Transamination
Deamination
Decarboxylation
13.Inureacycle,hydrolysisoccursduring
CleavageofArginine
Formationofornithine
FormationofArgininosuccinate
Formationofcitrulline
14.WhattypeofproteininCasein?
3237
Lipoprotein
Phosphoprotein
Glycoprotein
Flavoprotein
15.Ammoniafrombrainistrappedby
Urea
Glutamate
Glutamine
Glycine
16.Trueaboutureacycle:
3238
Nitrogenofureacomesfromalanineandammonia
Carbonofureacomesfrombicarbonate
Occurmainlyincytoplasm
Malateisabyproductofureacycle
17.Inureasynthesis,Carboncomesfrom:
Bicarbonate
MethylTHF
Formate
NS,NlOmethyleneTHF
3239
18.Glutamateisformedfromwhichaminoacid
Threonine
Alanine
Proline
Lysine
19.Ureacycleenzymesare:
Glutaminase
Asparginase
Ornithinetranscarboxylase
3240
Glutamatedehydrogenase
20.Phenylbutyratebecauseitisusedinureacycledisorders
Scavengesnitrogen
Activatesenzymes
Maintainsrenaloutput
Maintainsenergyproduction
21.Whichofthefollowingenzyme(s)is/arenotinvolvedinureacycle:
Glutamatedehydrogenase
Argininosucinatesynthetase
A-KGdehydorogenase
3241
Isocitratedehydrogenase
22.HyperammonemiainhibitTCAcyclebydepleting
Oxaloacetate
Alpha-ketoglutarate
Citrate
SuccinylCo-A
23.Biurettestisusedfordetectionof:
Protein
Cholesterol
Steroid
3242
Sugar
24.Whichoneofthefollowingcanbehomologoussubstitutionfor
isolecuineinaproteininsequence?
Methionine
Asparticacid
Valine
Arginine
25.CarbamoylPhosphateSynthetaseI(CPS-I)iswhichoneofthe
following?
Cytosolicenzyme
Hepaticmitochondrialenzyme
3243
Lysosomalenzyme
Alloftheabove
26.Whichintermediateofcitricacidcycleisusedindetoxificationof
ammoniainbrain?
Citrate
Succinate
Alpha-ketoglutarate
Oxalo-acetate
27.Inthebiosynthesisofurea,onenitrogenatomisderivedfrom
ammoniawhiletheothernitrogenatomisfrom
Glcyine
3244
Alanine
Aspartate
Glutamate
28.Whichis/arenottransportprotein?
Transferrin
Collagen
Ceruloplasmin
Hemoglobin
29.Whichprocessinvolvesformationofnonessentialaminoacid
3245
fromketoacid?
Oxidation
Transamination
Dehydrogenation
Demination
30.Nitricoxideinsynthesizedfrom?
L-arginine
Aspartate
L-citrulline
Lysine
3246
31.Notametabolicproductofureacycle
Ornithine
Alanine
Citrulline
Arginine
32.NOissecretedby
Endothelium
Ectoderm
Endoderm
3247
Bones
33.Sourceofnitrogeninureacycleis
GlutamateandNH3
Glutamateandaspartate
Arginineandaspartate
NH3andaspartate
1.Vitamindeficiencycausingcircumcornealvascularizationis:
Biotin
Riboflavin
Thaimine
3248
VitaminD
2.VitaminBisnotrequiredfor:
Glycogenphosphorylase
Methioninesynthase
MethylmalonylCoAmutase
Leucineammomutase
3.SiteofabsorptionofVitaminB12:
Ileum
Jejunum
Duodenum
3249
Stomach
4.Thiaminrequirementincreasesinexcessiveintakeof:
Carbohydrate
Aminoacid
Fat
Lecithin
5.Vitamindeficiencycausingmentaldisorder?
Thiamine
Riboflavin
3250
Niacin
Biotin
6.Vitamindeficiencycausingdementia:
Biotin
Thiamine
Pyridoxine
VitaminB12
7.Whichofthevitamindeficiencyleadtolacticacidosis?
Riboflavin
Thiamine
3251
Niacin
Panthothenicacid
8.Avitaminderivedfromaminoacidis:
Biotin
Pantothenicacid
Niacin
Folicacid
9.WhichofthefollowingstatementaboutThiaminetrue?
Itisacoenzymeoflactatedehydrogenase
Itsdeficiencyisassociatedwithscurvy
3252
Itscoenzymefunctionisdonebythiaminemonophoshate
Itiscoenzyrneforpyruvatedehydrogenaseanda-keto¬glutarate
dehydrogenase
10.Vitaminwhichlsexcretedinurineis?
VitaminE
VitaminC
VitaminD
VitaminK
11.Biotinactasacoenzymeforallexcept:
Pyruvatetooxaloacetae
3253
AcetylCoAtomalonylCoA
PropionylCoAtomethylmalonylCoA
Glutamatetogammacarboxyglutamate
12.Vitamingiveninpregnantwomentopreventneuraltubedefect:
Folicacid
VitaminB12
VitaminB2
VitaminB2
13.Falseaboutfolicacid:
Itispresentinallthegreenleafyvegetables
3254
Itisproventodecreasetheoccurrenceofneuraltubedefectswhen
takenpreconceptionally
WheatflourinIndiaisfortifiedwithfolateasinUSA
Methylfolatetrapisbecauseofmethioninesynthasedefect
14.Vitamin812actsascoenzymetowhichoneofthefollowing
enzymes?
Lsocitratedehydrogenase
Homocysteinemethyltransferase
Glycogensynthase
Glucose-6-Phosphatedehydrogenase
3255
15.VitaminB12deficiencycausesallexcept:
Neuraltubedefect
PeripheralneuropathY
Megaloblasticanaemia
Demyelination
16.InonocarbonmetabolismwhenserineconvertedtoGlycino,
WhichcarbonatomisaddedtoTHFE?
Alphacarbon
Betacarbon
Deltacarbon
3256
Gammacarbon
17.Thiaminedeficiencycausesdecreasedenergyproduction
because:
Itisrequiredfortheprocessoftransamination
Itisacofactorinoxidativereduction
Itisacoenzymefortransketolaseinpentosephosphatepathway
Itisacoenzymeforpyruvatedehydrogenaseandalphaketoglutarate
dehydrogenase
18.TheproxidantactionofVitaminCispotentiatedby:
Selenium
Copper
3257
Calcium
Iron
19.NotneededinTCAcycle:
Pyridoxine
Thiamine
Riboflavin
Niacin
20.Severethiaminedeficiencylsassociatedwith:
DecreasedRBCtransketolaseactivity
Increasedclottingtime
3258
DecreasedRSCtransaminaseactivity
Increasedxanthurenicacidexcretion
21.VitaminforwhichRDAisbasedonproteinintakeis:
Niacin
Riboflavin
Pyridoxine
Thiamine
22.Amineralwhichcangeneratefreeradicalareallexcept:
Copper
3259
Cobalt
Selenium
Nickel
23.Excessofavidlncausesdeficiencyof:
Biotin
Choline
VitaminB12
Folate
24.Post-translationmodificationofhydroxylysineandhydroxyproline
isby:
3260
VitC
VitK
VitE
VitD
25.Neurologicalworseningwithanemiawhatisthetreatmenttobe
given?
Folicacidalone
Folicacidalongwithhydroxycobalamin
Iron
Pyridoxine
3261
26.AntioxidantinVitaminis:
Betacarotene
Thiamine
Niacin
Riboflavin
27.Megaloblasticanaemiaseenin:
Ornithinetranscarbamoylasedefect
MSUD
Citrullinemia
Oroticaciduria
3262
28.A50-yrs-oldmalewithsymptomsoffatigueandhehasswelling
offeetandlossofsensationsinlegsandanaemia.Healsohas
dilationofventricleandhighcardiacoutputstate.Whatisthevitamin
deficiencyassociatedwiththispresentation
VitaminB1
VitaminB2
VitaminB12
VitaminB3
29.PantothenateKinaseassociatedneurodegenerationis:
Wilson'sdisease
Hallervorden-Spatzsyndrome
3263
Mcleodsyndrome
Mcleodsyndrome
30.Cobaltispresentinwhichvitamin?
VitaminB12
VitaminB3
VitaminB2
VitaminB1
31.Biotinisacofactorof:
Carboxylase
Oxidase
3264
Hydrolase
Oecarboxylase
32.Pantothenicacidcontainingcoenzymeisinvolvedin:
Decarboxylation
Dehydrogenation
Acetylation
Carboxylation
33.SebhorreicDermatitisIsproducedbydeficiencyof:
VitaminA
3265
VitaminB1
VitaminB2
VitaminC
34.Lsoniazidtoxicitycanbepreventedb.
VitaminB6
VitaminB3
VitaminB12
VitaminB1
35.Whichamongthefollowingcausegeneralizedoedema?
VitaminB1
3266
VitaminB2
VitaminB12
VitaminA
36.Thiamineactasacofactorin
Pyruvatetooxaloacetate
Malonatetooxaloacetate
Succinatetofumarate
PyruvatetoacetylCoA
3267
Phosphodiesterase
Asparagine
Glutamine
Serine
Cysteine
3268
Phosphodiesterase
Asparagine
Glutamine
Serine
3269
Cysteine
1.Inthedistaltubules,sodiumreabsorptionisincreaseddirectlybyincreased:sympatheti
cnervestimulationofthekidney.
atrialnatriuretichormonesecretion
antidiuretichormonesecretion
aldosteronesecretion+
2.Urinemaychangeitscolourduetopresenceof:
urea
glucose
ketonbodies
bilirubin+
3.WhichofthefollowingarefunctionsofangiotensinII?
increasesreabsorptionofNa+inkidney+
decreasesreabsorptionofNa+inkidney
decreasesreabsorptionofCa++inkidney
causesvasodilatation
.4K+excretionismarkedlyinfluencedby:
aldosterone+
amountofNa+deliveredtotubules
rateoftubularsecretionofH
alloftheabove.
5Onewayofacid-basebalancemaintenanceinorganismbymeansofkidneyisammonia
saltsformation.Pointouttheenzymeinkidneythattakespartinthisprocess:
Arginase
3270
Glutaminase+
Alanineaminotransferase
6 Selectthecorrectansweraboutproximaltubules:
K+issecretedinexchangewiththeNa+whichisreabsorbedundertheeffectofaldosterone
glucose,aminoacids&proteinsarecompletelyreabsorbed+
only10%ofthefilteredwaterisreabsorbed
parathormoneincreasephosphatereabsorption.
07 WhichofthefollowingisnotthefunctionsofСа2+ionsintheorganism?
regulationoftheacid-basebalance+
participationinthetransmissionofnerveimpulses
participationintheprocessofbloodcoagulation
participationintheactivationofhormones
08 Whichisaphysiologicalconstituentofurine
Globulins
Glucose
Albumin
Creatinine+
09Increasedcontentofketonebodiesintheurineisobservedin:
high-carbohydratediet
low-carbohydratediet+
proteinfreediet
proteinrichdiet
10Whichoneofthefollowingstatementsaboutaldosteroneiscorrect?
itproducesitseffectbyactivatingC-AMP.
itproducesitseffectbyincreasingmembranepermeabilitytopotassium+
itissecretedinresponsetoanincreaseinblithasitsmaineffectontheproximaltubule.
3271
11Mostoftheglucosethatisfilteredthroughtheglomerulusundergoesreabsorptioninthe
:
descendinglimpoftheloopofHenle
proximaltubule+
ascendinglimboftheloopofHenledistaltubule
12.Whichofthefollowingsubstanceswillbemoreconcentratedattheendoftheproximal
tubulethanatthebeginningoftheproximaltubule?
glucose
creatinine+
sodium
bicarbonate
13.Pointoutthepathologicalurinecomponentthatappearsintheurineduringnephritis
Aminoacids
Urea
Uricacid
Protein+
14.Onewayofacid-basebalancemaintenanceinorganismbymeansofkidneyisammonia
saltsformation.Pointouttheenzymeinkidneythattakespartinthisprocess:
Arginase
Glutaminase+
Alanineaminotransferasec
15K+excretionismarkedlyinfluencedby:
aldosterone+
amountofNa+deliveredtotubules
rateoftubularsecretionofH+
3272
alloftheabove.
16 Nameorganiccompoundwhichisterminalforhumansandnotreabsorbedinrenal
tubules:
Globulins
Glucose
Albumin
Creatinine+
17Theeffectofantidiuretichormone(ADH)onthekidneyisto:
increasethepermeabilityofthedistalnephrontowater.+
increasetheexcretionofNa+
increasetheexcretionofwater
increasethediameteroftherenalartery
18 Urinemaychangeitscolourduetopresenceof:
urea
glucose
ketonbodies
bilirubin+
19mostoftheglucosethatisfilteredthroughtheglomerulusundergoesreabsorptioninthe
:
proximaltubule+
descendinglimpoftheloopofHenle
ascendinglimboftheloopofHenle
distaltubule
20Aminoacidsarealmostcompletelyreabsorbedfromtheglomerularfiltrateviaactive
transportinthe:
proximaltubule+
3273
loopofHenle
distaltubule
collectingduct
21.Kidneyinsufficiencydevelopmentwillcausetheinfringementsinthoseprocesses:
Erythropoietinsynthesisandsecretion
Calcitriolsynthesis
Creatinesynthesis
Allthatisplacedabove+
22.Theamountofpotassiumexcretedbythekidneywilldecreasesif:distaltubularflowinc
reases
Na+reabsorptionbythedistalnephrondecreases+
theexcretionoforganicionsincrease.
dietaryintakeofpotassiumincrease
23ThehypothalamuswilleffectthereleaseofADHinresponsetoallthefollowingstimuli
except:
dehydration
severehemorrhage
decreasedbloodosmolarity
nicotine+
24Anincreaseintheconcentrationofplasmapotassiumcausesincreasein:
releaseofrenin+
secretionofaldosterone
secretionofADH
releaseofnatriuretichormone
productionofangiotensinII.
.25 Proteinuriaisobservedin:
3274
increasedbloodpressure
diabetesmellitus
nephrosis+
diabetesinsipidus
26Whichofthefollowingareeffectsofatrialnatriureticpeptide?
decreasesdiuresis
decreasesreabsorptionofNa+inthekidney+
causesvasoconstriction
causesvasodilatation
27Abouturea,allaretrueexcept:
concentrationrisesintubularfluidastheglomerularfiltratepassesdownthenephron.
isactivelysecretedbytherenaltubularcells+
concentrationinthebloodrisesslightlyafterahighproteindiet
causesosmoticdiuresiswhenitsbloodconcentrationisincreased.
28Abiochemicalurineanalysishasbeenperformedforapatientwithprogressivemuscula
r
dystrophy.Inthegivencasemusclediseasecanbeconfirmedbythehighcontentofthe
followingsubstanceinurine:
Hippuricacid
Creatine+
Creatinine
Urea
29DecreaseofpHoftheurineisobservedin:
liverdisorders
diabetesinsipidus
starvation+
3275
cystitis
Whichofthefollowingcationsisrequiredfortheconversionofprothrombineintoactive
thrombine?
Ca2+
Whichphysicalandchemicalpropertyofproteinisthebaseofthemethodofelectrochemic
al
determinationofbloodproteinspectrum?
Presenceofcharge
Thecontentoftotalproteininbloodplasmaisnormal.Whichofthebelow-mentioned
parameterscorrespondstophysiologicalnorms?
65-85g/LMetabolicacidosisisobservedinpatientòrganismduetotheaccumulationof:
Pyruvate
AllofbloodplasmaproteinsaretransportersEXCEPToneinthislist.Chooseit:
Fibrinogen
Whichbloodplasmaproteinbindsandtransportscopper?
Ceruloplasmin
Apatientwithacutepancreatitishadathreatofpancreaticnecrosis,whichwasaccompan
ied
bythereleaseofactivepancreaticproteinasesintothebloodstreamandtissuesand
breakdownoftissueproteins.Whichprotectivefactorcaninhibitsuchprocesses?
α1-antitrypsin
Pointoutthemainbloodplasmaprotein,participatinginthebloodoncoticpressure
maintaining:
Albumin
Whichphysicalandchemicalpropertyofproteinisthebaseofthemethodofelectrochemic
al
3276
Presenceofcharge
Humanredbloodcellsdonotcontainmitochondria.WhatisthemainpathwayforATP
productioninthesecells?A.B.C.CyclasereactionD.E.Oxidativephosphorylation
AnaerobicglycolysisSymptomsoflivercirrhosiswithascitesandedemaoflowerextremiti
esappearedina
patientwhohadhepatitisCandconstantlyconsumedalcohol.Whichchangesinblood
compositionunderliededemadevelopment?
Hypoalbulinemia
Indiabetesmellitustheactivationoffattyacidoxidationleadstoketosis.Whichdisordersof
acid-basebalancecanleadtoexcessiveaccumulationofketonebodiesintheblood?
Metabolicacidosis
Choosetheanticoagulantnormallypresentinthebloodplasma:
Heparin
Thereareseveraldozensofproteinsinbloodplasmaofhealthyindividuals.Newproteins
mayappearinbloodduringvariousdiseases,inparticular"acutephaseproteins."Oneofthe
followingproteinsbelongstothisgroup:
С-Reactiveprotein
Metabolismofnucleoproteinsandproteinbiosynthesis.
1.Whichpropertyofthegeneticcodecorrespondstotheexpression:a
singleaminoacidcanencodeseveraltriplets:
thedegeneracy
3277
i
le
3278
i
2.ProteinKinaseisactivated
cAMP
MAGE
DAG
TAG
3.Propertiesofthegeneticcode?linearity,continuity,unambiguity,degen
eracy,versatility,availabilitynonce
codons
non-linearity,continuity,unambiguity,degeneracy,versatility,availabil
ity
ofnonsensecodonslinearity,continuity,unambiguity,degeneracy,the
presenceofanonsensecodonlinearity,continuity,degeneracy,
versatility
4.Whatisthecontinuityofthegeneticcode?
theabsenceofsignalsindicativeoftheendandthestartcodonofone
anotherinm-RNAabsenceofsignalsindicativeoftheendandthestart
codonofoneanotherinthetRNAthepresenceofsignalsindicatingtheend
andthestartcodonofoneanotherinm-RNA
3279
theabsenceofsignalsindicatingtheendofasinglepolypeptidechainand
thestartofanother
5.Thepartofthelargesubunitoftheribosome,whichlocalizesthe
growingpeptidechainiscalled:
the
TATA
portio
peptid
yl
amino
acyl
initiation
6.Thefinaldecayproductofadenosineinhumans.
ric
3280
t
in
3281
i
7.Whatisthesequenceofstepsofproteinsynthesis?
initiation→ elongation→ activationofaminoacids→termination→
postsyntheticmodificationofproteins
initiationofanactiveaminoacids→ elongation→ termination→
postsyntheticmodificationofproteins
activationofaminoacids→ initiation→ elongation→ termination→
postsyntheticmodificationofproteinspostsyntheticmodificationof
proteins→termination→ elongation→initiation
8.Whichenzymeiscatalyzedreactionoftheactivationofaminoacids
intheproteinbiosynthesis?
replicase
carbamoylan
aminoacyl-tRNA
synthetase
DNAsynthetase
9.Thegeneticcode-asequenceof:nucleotidesin
3282
tRNAamino
acidsinthe
proteinH1
nucleotidesin
rRNA
nucleotidesin
theDNA
10.Whichsubstanceisasecondmessengerintheactionofglucagon?
d-
d-
d-
c-
3283
M
P11.Translation-isprocess:biosynthesisofproteinonmRNA.transportof
mRNAtoribosomes;biosynthesisofdaughterchainofDNA;transport
ofaminoacidstotheribosomes;
12.Hyperuricemiaoccurs
beriberi
Lesch-Nyana
syndrome
phenylpyruvic
oligophrenia
gout
glycogenosis
13.Whatisthemutation?changesinthet-RNAachangeinthegenome
changesinthemRNAchangesinthep-RNA
14.Forwhatpropertiesofthegeneticcodeischaracteristicexpression:
"themeaningofcodonsisthesameforalllivingthings":
linearity
unambiguity
specificit
universali
ty
3284
15.Specifythefunctionofreversetranscriptase/reversetranscriptase
catalyzesthebiosynthesisofDNAontemplateDNAcatalyzesthe
biosynthesisofRNAontemplateDNAcatalyzesthebiosynthesisofan
RNAtemplateRNAcatalyzesthebiosynthesisofDNAonatemplateof
RNA16.Thethirdstageofthetranslationprocessiscalled:processin
terminatio
recognizin
elongation
17.Theproductsofthexanthineoxidasereactioncanbeureauricacid
adeninehydrogenperoxide
18.Synthesisofpyrimidinenucleotidesoccursin
ribosom
es
cytoplas
mitocho
ndria
nucleus
19.Thenucleosideisguanosineadenosinetriphosphate
3285
ur
cil
cy
to
si
ne
20.Theendproductofthebreakdownofpurinenucleosidesinhumansis
hypoxanthinexanthineuricacidurea
21.ThestructuralcomponentsofDNAare:
thymine
deoxyrib
ose
phosph
oricacid
dihydrox
yuracil
22.Theprocessofproteinsynthesistermed:
reparatio
replicati
on
3286
translati
on
transcrip
tion
23.Theendproductofthebreakdownofpurinenucleosidesinhumansis
uric
acid
xant
hinehypo
xant
hine
24.RestorationofthestructureofDNAwhenitisdamagediscalled:
replicatio
transcrip
tion
reparatio
translati
on
25.Finalstepinthetranslation–isbindingOkazakifragmentselongation
ofthepolypeptidechainoftheproteinmodificationofthepolypeptide
3287
chainterminationofproteinsynthesis;
initiationofproteinsynthesis
Biochemistry-Biosynthesisofnucleicacids
1.TheenzymeDNAligase
ConnectstheendoftwoDNAchains
2.Thecarbonofthepentoseinesterlinkagewiththephosphateina
nucleotidestructureis
C4C1
C2
C5
3.ThenucleicacidbasefoundinmRNAbutnotinDNAis
Uracil
Cytosine
Guanine
Adenine
4.InRNAmoleculeguaninecontentdoesnotnecessarilyequalits
cytosinecontentnordoesitsadeninecontentnecessarilyequalits
uracilcontentsince
itisa
3288
Singlestrandmolecule
5.Anucleosideconsistsof
Nitrogenousbase
6.Innucleotides,phosphateisattachedtosugarby
Glycosidicbond
Esterbond
Saltbond
Hydrogenbond
7.GeneticcodeisNotuniversal
Ambiguous
Non-overlapping
Overlapping
8.Theaminoterminalofallpolypeptidechainatthetimeofsynthesis
inE.coliistaggedtotheaminoacidresidue:
Serine
N-formalserine
3289
N-formylmethinine
Methionine
9.Thecarbonofthepentoseinesterlinkagewiththenitrogenouse
baseinanucleotidestructureis
C4
C1
C2
C3
10.InDNAmolecule
Adeninecontentequalsuracilcontent
Adeninecontentdoesnotequalthyminecontent
Guaninecontentdoesnotequalcytosinecontent
Guaninecontentequalscytosinecontent
11.AUG,theonlyidentifiedcodonformethionineisimportantas
Achaininitiatingcodon12.Thenucleophilicattackontheesterifiedcarbox
ylgroupofthe
peptidyltRNAoccupyingthePsiteandtheα-aminogroupofthe
newaminoacyltRNA,thenumberofATPrequiredbytheamino
acidonthechargedtRNAis
Zero
3290
Two
One
Four
13.ReplicationofDNAis
Non-conservative
Semi-conservative
Noneofthese
Conservative
14.DNA-dependentRNApolymeraserequiresthefollowingforits
catalyticactivity:
Mg++
Noneofthese
Both(A)and(B)
Mn++
15.DNAfragmentsaresealedby
DNAtopoisomeraseII
DNAgyrase
DNAligase
DNApolymeraseII
16.AminoacidisattachedtotRNAat
DHUloop
Anticodon3’-End
3291
5’-End
17.Geneticinformationflowsfrom
RNAtoDNA
DNAtoDNA
DNAtoRNA
18.DNAdoesnotcontain
Adenine
Uracil
Deoxyribose
Thymine
19.DeoxyribonucleotidesareaddedtoRNAprimerby
Allofthese
DNApolymeraseII
DNApolymeraseIII
DNApolymeraseI
20.Initiationofproteinsynthesisrequires
AMP
GTP
ATP
GDP
21.UltravioletlightcandamageaDNAstrandcausing
3292
Disruptionofphosphodiesteraselinkage
TwoadjacentpurineresiduetoformacovalentlyboundeddimerTwoadjac
entpyrimidineresiduestoformcovalentlybondeddimer
Disruptionofnon-covalentlinkage
22.NegativesupercoilsareintroducedinDNAby
DNAgyrase
DNAligase
Helicase
23.ThefirstcodontobetranslatedonmRNAis
AAA
AUG
24.CyclicAMPcanbeformedfrom
allofthese
ADP
AMP
ATP
3293
25.5’-TerminusofmRNAmoleculeiscappedwith
Adenosinediphosphate
Adenosinetriphosphate
7-MethylguanosinetriphophateGuanosinetriphosphate
26.Uracilandriboseform
Cytidine
Adenosine
Uridine
Guanosine
27.ThecorrectstatementconcerningRNAandDNApolymerasesis
RNApolymeraserequireprimersandaddbasesat5’endofthegrowing
polynucleotidechain
AllRNAandDNApolymerasescanaddnucleotidesonlyatthe3’endofthegr
owing
polynucleotide
chain
28.Intronsingenes
Encodetheaminoacidswhichareremovedduringpost-translational
modification
Arethenon-codingsequenceswhicharenottranslated
Encodesignalsequenceswhichareremovedbeforesecretionofthe
3294
proteins
Arethesequencesthatintervenebetweentwogenes
29.DirectionofRNAsynthesisis
Both(A)and(B)
Noneofthese
3′→ 5’
5′→ 3’
30.Streptomycinpreventssynthesisofpolypeptideby
ReleasingprematurepolypeptideInhibitingpeptidyltransferaseactivity
Inhibitinginitiationprocess
Inhibitingtranslocation
31.Anucleotideconsistsof
32.InDNAreplicationtheenzymerequiredinthefirststepis
DNApolymerase
DNAligase
DNAdirectedpolymerase
Unwindingproteins
33.TranslationresultsinaproductknownasrRNAmRNA
3295
Protein
tRNA
34.mRNAiscomplementarytothenucleotidesequenceofRibosomal
RNAtRNA
Codingstrand
Templatestrand
35.RibonucleotidesofRNAprimerarereplacedby
deoxyribonucleotidesbytheenzyme:
Allofthese
DNApolymeraseIII
DNApolymeraseII
DNApolymeraseI36.Inbiosynthesisofproteinsthechainterminatingcodo
nsare
UAA,UAGandUGA
UGG,UGUandAGU
AAU,AAGandGAU
GCG,GCAandGCU
37.TheunwoundstrandsofDNAareheldapartby
Repprotein
DNAAprotein
Singlestrand
bindingprotein38.
3296
Anticodonsare
presentontRNA
Coding
strandof
DNA
rRNA
mRNA
39.Afterformationofreplicationfork
Onestrandissynthesizedcontinuouslyandtheotherdiscontinuously
Boththenewstrandsaresynthesizedcontinuously
RNAprimerisrequiredonlyforthesynthesisofonenewstrand
Boththenewstrandsaresynthesizeddiscontinuously
40.Reversetranscriptaseiscapableofsynthesising
DNA→ RNADNA→ DNA
RNA→ RNA
RNA→ DNA
41.DegeneracyofgeneticcodeimpliesthatNoanticodonontRNA
molecule
Multiplecodonsmustdecodethesameaminoacids
Specificcodondecodesmanyaminoacids
42.AlthougheachspecifictRNAdiffersfromtheothersinitssequence
3297
ofnucleotides,alltRNAmoleculescontainabasepairedstemthat
terminatesinthesequenceCCAat
5′Termini
Anticodonarm
3′5′-Termini
3′Termini
43.Geneticcodeis
Collectionofcodon
44.Theα-aminogroupofthenewaminoacyltRNAintheAsitecarries
outanucleophilicattackontheesterifiedcarboxylgroupofthe
peptidyltRNAoccupyingthePsite.Thisreactioniscatalysedby
Peptidyltransferase
DNAligase
RNApolymerase
DNApolymerase45.Erythromycinactsonribosomesandinhibit
Translocation
3298
46.InRNAmolecule‘Caps’
AreuniquetoeukaryoticmRNA
AllowtRNAtobeprocessed
Occuratthe5’endoftRNA
AllowcorrecttranslationofprokaryoticmRNA
47.Peptidyltransferaseactivityislocatedin
Ribosomalprotein
Elongationfactor
48.Themostabundantfreenucleotideinmammaliancellsis
ATP
NAD
GTP
FAD
49.Okazakipiecesaremadeupof
DNA
RNAandDNA
RNAandproteins
RNA50.OkazakifragmentisrelatedtotRNAformationmRNAformation
Proteinsynthesis
DNAsynthesis
3299
Biochemistry-Dnareplicationandrepair
1.Incorrectstatementare:
RestrictionendonucleasecutDNAchainsatspecificlocation
EndonucleasecutDNAat5'terminus
KienowfragmentofDNApolymeraseIfunctionisalmosts1m1lartoT4
DNApolymerase
T4DNApolymerasehas3'->5'exonucleaseactivity
2.DNAPolymerasewithbothreplicationandrepairfunctionis
III
IV
II
3.Inwhichofthefollowingphase,DNAdoublingoccurs
GIphase
Sphase
Mphase
G2phase
4.CorrectsequenceofenzymesrequiredforDNAformationis:
RNApolymerase-->DNApolymeraseIll-->DNAligase-->exonuclease--
>
DNApolymeraseI
Proteinunwindingenzyme-->polymeraseI-->DNAligase-->DNA
isomerase-->DNApolymerase
3300
RNApolymerase-->DNApolymeraseIll-->DNApolymeraseI-->DNA
ligaseDNApolymerase-->proteinunwindingenzyme-->DNAligase-->
DNA
lsomerase->Polymerase
5.TheprimarydefectinXerodermapigmentosais:
Formationofadeninedimers
Formationofthymidinedimers
Exonucleaseisdefective
PolyADPribosepolymeraseisdefective
6.Okazakifragmentsareformedduringthesynthesisof:
TRNA
Ss
Ds
3301
7.Whichenzymaticmutationisresponsibleforimmortalityofcancer
cells?
RNApolymerase
Telomerase
DNApolymeraseDNAreversetranscriptase
8.UVlightdamagetotheDNAleadsto:
Formationofpyrimidinedimers
NodamagetoDNA
DNAhydrolysis
Doublestrandedbreaks
9.UnwindingEnzymeinDNAsynthesis:
DNAPolymerase
Helicase
Transcriptase
Primase
10.ActionofTelomeraseis:
Breakdownoftelomere
none
longetivityofcell
DNArepair
11.Allofthefollowingcelltypescontaintheenzymetelomerasewhich
protectsthelengthoftelomeraseattheendofchromosomes,
3302
except:
Somatic
Germinal
Hemopoietic
Tumor
12.TrueaboutDNAGyrase
Restrictionendonuclease
ProkaryoticTopoisomeraseIProkaryoticDNATopoisomerase11
Reversetranscriptase
13.SCIOisduetodefectin:
HomologousRecombination
Mismatchrepair
NHEJ
Nucleotideexcisionrepair
14.ThegapsbetweensegmentsofDNAonthelaggingstandproduced
byrestrictionenzymesarejoinedsealedby:
DNALigases
DNAtopoisomerase
DNAHelicase
DNAPhosphorylase
15.WhichofthefollowingistrueaboutDNAPolymeraseIll?
Itisneededfortranslation
3303
Bacteriacanfunctionwithoutit
ItformsOkazakifragmntsanitneedsRANprimer
HasDNArepairfunction
16.Endsofchromosomesreplicatedby
Centromere
Telomerase
Exonuclease
17.DuringreplicationofDNA,whichoneofthefollowingenzymes
polymerizestheOkazakifragments?
DNAPolymeraseIIIRNAPolymerase1
DNAlygase
DNAPolymeraseI
18.RadiolabelledDNAwasallowedtoreplicatetwiceina
non-radioactiveenvironment.Whichofthefollowingistrue?
Allthestrandswillhaveradioactivity
HalfoftheDNAwillhavenoradioactivity
Nostrandswillhaveradioactivity
Three-fourthoftheDNAreplicatedwillhaveradioactivity
19.WhichDNApolymeraseisinvolvedinrepairofmammalianDNA?
Gamma
Epsilon
3304
Alpha
Beta
20.Excessiveultraviolet(UV)radiationisharmfultolife.Thedamage
causedtothebiologicalsystembyultra-violetradiationIby:
InhibitionofDNAsynthesis
Ionization
DNAfragmentation
21.Xerodermapigmentosaisdueto:
Baseexcisiondefect
SOSrepairdefect
Crosslinkingdefect
Nucleotideexcisionrepair
Biochemistry-Waterandsaltmetabolism1.Thedailywaterlossthroughg
astrointestinaltractinanadultis
about
200ml/day
400ml/day
Lessthan100ml/day
300ml/day
2.Thedailywaterallowancefornormaladult(60kg)isabout
800-1500ml
200–600ml
3305
1500-2000ml
500-800ml
3.Theprincipalcationinintracellularfluidis
Sodium
Magnesium
Calcium
Potassium
4.Theprincipalcationinextracellularfluidis
Calcium
Potassium
Magnesium
Sodium
5.Themetabolismofsodiumisregulatedbythehormone:
Aldosterone
Somatostatin
PTH
Insulin6.Thepredominantcationofplasmais
Na+
K+
Ca++
Mg++
7.Thephysiologicallyactiveformofcalciumis
3306
Complexedwithcitrate
Complexedwithcarbonate
Ionised
Proteinbound
8.Whichofthefollowingaretargettissuesforaldosterone?adrenal
glandskidney
liver
hypothalamus
9.Vasopressin(ADH)
Decreasesreabsorptionofwater
Increasesexcretionofcalcium
Enhancefacultativereabsorptionofwater
Decreasesexcretionofcalcium
10.EnhancedfacultativereabsorptionofwaterbyVasopressinis
mediatedby
Ca++
CyclicGMP
Mg++
CyclicAMP
11.ThepredominantanionofplasmaisHCO3–
Cl-
HPO4-
3307
SO4--
12.Thewaterproducedduringmetabolicreactionsinanadultisabout
400ml/day
100ml/day
600ml/day
700ml/day
13.Whichofthefollowinghormoneparticipateinregulationofwater
balance?
aldoster
one
vasopre
ssin
oxitocin
cortisol
Biochemistry-Transciption
1.Reversetranscriptaseis:
RNAdependentRNApolymerase
DNAdependentDNApolymerase
DNAdependentRNApolymerase
RNAdependentDNApolymerase
2.5'TTACGTAC3'aftertranscriptionwhatwillbetheRNA?
5'-TIACGTAC3'3'-TIACGTAC5'
3308
5,-GUACGUAA3'
3'-CATGCATI5'
3.AllaretheprocessingreactionintRNA,except:
Methylationofbases
Trimmingof5'end
PolyAtailing
CCAtailing
4.Immunoglobulinmoleculeissynthesizedbyinmixedorseparate
dueto:
DifferentialRNAprocessing
Geneswitching
Alleleexclusion
Codominance
5.RNApolymerasedoesnotrequire:
Activatedprecursors(ATP,GTP,UTP,CTP)
Primer
Template(dsDNA)
Divalentmetalions(Mn2.Mg)
6.AnenzymethatmakesadoublestrandedDNAcopyfromasingle
strandedRNAtemplatemoleculeisknownas:
DNApolymerase
3309
Phosphokinase
RNApolymerase
7.Lntronsareexisedby:DNAase
RNAsplicing
RNAediting
8.InconversionofDNAtoRNA,enzymerequired:
DNALigase
DNApolymerase111
RNApolymerase
DNA-polymerase
9.Splicingactivityisafunctionof
RRNA
TRNA
SnRNA
MRNA
10.Cytoplasmicprocessduringprocessingis
5'capping
MefhylationoftRNA
PolyAtailing
AttachmentofCCAintRNA
11.Whichofthefollowingistrueregardingtranscriptionexcept:
3310
Eukaryotespossess3differenttypesofRNApolymerase
MRNAformed
RNApolymeraseenzymeisused
DNApolymeraseenzymeisused
12.OnwhichofthefollowingtRNAactsspecifically?Ribosome
ATP
Golgibody
Specificaminoacid
13.Apo848&Apo8100issynthesizedfromthemRNA-thedifference
betweenthemisdueto
Deaminationofcytidinetouridine
Upstreamrepression
Allelicexclusion
RNAsplicing
14.Afour-year-oldchildisdiagnosedwithDuchennemuscular
dystrophy,anX-linkedrecessivedisorder,Geneticanalysisshows
thatthepatient'sgeneforthemuscleproteindystrophincontainsa
mutationinitspromoterregion.Whatwouldbethemostlikely
CappingofdystrophinmRNAwillbedefective
TailingofdystrophinmRNAwillbedefective
Terminationofdystrophintranscriptionwillbedeficient
Initiationofdystrophintranscriptionwillbedeficient
3311
15.FunctionofPseudouridinearmoftRNA:
RecognisesthetriplenucleotidecodonpresentinthemRAN
ServesastherecognitionsiteofaminoacyltRNAsythetase
Helpsininitiationoftranslation
Helpsininitiationoftranscription
16.InaDNAthecodingregionreads5'-CGT-3'.This'wouldcodeinthe
RNAas:
5'-ACG-3'
5'-UGC-3'5'-CGU-3'
5'-GCA-3'
17.WhichtypeofRNAhasthehighestpercentageofmodifiedbase?
RRNA
TRNA
MRNA
SnRNA
18.StrandofDNAfromwhichmRNAisformedbytranscriptionis
called:
Coding
Transcript
Template
Anti-template
19.Thesigma(s)submitofprokaryoticRNApolymerase:
3312
Ispartofthecoreenzyme
Specificallyrecognizesthepromotersite
Isinhibitedbya-amanitin
Bindstheantibioticrifampicin
20.DNAdependentRNApolymeraseisseenin:
DNAgyrase
DNApolymeraseI
Primase
DNApolymeraseIll
21.ThebasesequenceofthestrandofDNAusedasatemplatehas
thesequence5'GATCTAC3'.Whatwouldbethebasesequenceof
RNAproduct?5'GUAGAUC3'
5'GTAGATC3'5'GAUCUAC3'
5'CTAGATG3'
22.Asegmentofeukaryotlcgenethatisnotrepresentedinthemature
mRNAisknownas:
Lntron
Plasmid
Exon
TATAbox
Biochemistry-Transciption
1.Reversetranscriptaseis:
3313
RNAdependentRNApolymerase
DNAdependentDNApolymerase
DNAdependentRNApolymerase
RNAdependentDNApolymerase
2.5'TTACGTAC3'aftertranscriptionwhatwillbetheRNA?
5'-TIACGTAC3'
3'-TIACGTAC5'
5,-GUACGUAA3'
3'-CATGCATI5'
3.AllaretheprocessingreactionintRNA,except:
Methylationofbases
Trimmingof5'end
PolyAtailing
CCAtailing
4.Immunoglobulinmoleculeissynthesizedbyinmixedorseparate
dueto:DifferentialRNAprocessing
Geneswitching
Alleleexclusion
Codominance
5.RNApolymerasedoesnotrequire:
Activatedprecursors(ATP,GTP,UTP,CTP)
Primer
3314
Template(dsDNA)
Divalentmetalions(Mn2.Mg)
6.AnenzymethatmakesadoublestrandedDNAcopyfromasingle
strandedRNAtemplatemoleculeisknownas:
DNApolymerase
Phosphokinase
RNApolymerase
7.Lntronsareexisedby:
DNAase
RNAsplicing
RNAediting
8.InconversionofDNAtoRNA,enzymerequired:
DNALigase
DNApolymerase111
RNApolymerase
DNA-polymerase
9.SplicingactivityisafunctionofRRNA
TRNA
SnRNA
MRNA
3315
10.Cytoplasmicprocessduringprocessingis
5'capping
MefhylationoftRNA
PolyAtailing
AttachmentofCCAintRNA
11.Whichofthefollowingistrueregardingtranscriptionexcept:
Eukaryotespossess3differenttypesofRNApolymerase
MRNAformed
RNApolymeraseenzymeisused
DNApolymeraseenzymeisused
12.OnwhichofthefollowingtRNAactsspecifically?
Ribosome
ATP
Golgibody
Specificaminoacid
13.Apo848&Apo8100issynthesizedfromthemRNA-thedifference
betweenthemisdueto
Deaminationofcytidinetouridine
Upstreamrepression
Allelicexclusion
RNAsplicing
14.Afour-year-oldchildisdiagnosedwithDuchennemusculardystrophy,
anX-linkedrecessivedisorder,Geneticanalysisshows
3316
thatthepatient'sgeneforthemuscleproteindystrophincontainsa
mutationinitspromoterregion.Whatwouldbethemostlikely
CappingofdystrophinmRNAwillbedefective
TailingofdystrophinmRNAwillbedefective
Terminationofdystrophintranscriptionwillbedeficient
Initiationofdystrophintranscriptionwillbedeficient
15.FunctionofPseudouridinearmoftRNA:
RecognisesthetriplenucleotidecodonpresentinthemRAN
ServesastherecognitionsiteofaminoacyltRNAsythetase
Helpsininitiationoftranslation
Helpsininitiationoftranscription
16.InaDNAthecodingregionreads5'-CGT-3'.This'wouldcodeinthe
RNAas:
5'-ACG-3'
5'-UGC-3'
5'-CGU-3'
5'-GCA-3'
17.WhichtypeofRNAhasthehighestpercentageofmodifiedbase?
RRNA
TRNA
MRNA
SnRNA
3317
18.StrandofDNAfromwhichmRNAisformedbytranscriptionis
called:
Coding
TranscriptTemplate
Anti-template
19.Thesigma(s)submitofprokaryoticRNApolymerase:
Ispartofthecoreenzyme
Specificallyrecognizesthepromotersite
Isinhibitedbya-amanitin
Bindstheantibioticrifampicin
20.DNAdependentRNApolymeraseisseenin:
DNAgyrase
DNApolymeraseI
Primase
DNApolymeraseIll
21.ThebasesequenceofthestrandofDNAusedasatemplatehas
thesequence5'GATCTAC3'.Whatwouldbethebasesequenceof
RNAproduct?
5'GUAGAUC3'
5'GTAGATC3'
5'GAUCUAC3'
5'CTAGATG3'
3318
22.Asegmentofeukaryotlcgenethatisnotrepresentedinthemature
mRNAisknownas:
Lntron
Plasmid
Exon
TATAboxBiochemistry-Complexproteins
1.Nucleoproteinscontainsignificantamountofalkalineproteins.What
propteinscarryoutstructuralfunctioninchromatin?
Protaminesandhistones
Prolaminesandglutenins
Albuminesandglobulines
Hemoglobinandmyoglobin
2.Whatmetalionisspecificallyboundbyceruloplasmin?
Na+
Ca2+
Cu2+
Fe2+ +++++++++++++
3.Foodrichincarbohydratesatfirstincreasesthebloodsugarandthen
decreasesitsrateduetotheinsulinaction.Whatprocessisactivated
bythishormone?
Gluconeogenesis
Breakdownoflipids
3319
Breakdownofproteins
Breakdownofglycogen
Synthesisofglycogen+
4.Thenumberofhemegroupspresentinmyoglobin:
4+
5.Hemoglobincatabolismresultsinreleaseofironwhichistransported
tothebonemarrowbyacertaintransferproteinandisusedagainfor
thesynthesisofhemoglobin.Specifythistransferprotein:Albumin
Transcorrin
Haptoglobin
Transferrin(siderophilin)+
Transcobalamin
Ceruloplasmin
Biochemistry-Dnareplicationandrepair
1.Incorrectstatementare:
RestrictionendonucleasecutDNAchainsatspecificlocation
EndonucleasecutDNAat5'terminusKienowfragmentofDNApolymerase
Ifunctionisalmosts1m1lartoT4
DNApolymerase
T4DNApolymerasehas3'->5'exonucleaseactivity
3320
2.DNAPolymerasewithbothreplicationandrepairfunctionis
III+
IV
II
3.Inwhichofthefollowingphase,DNAdoublingoccurs
GIphase
Sphase+
Mphase
G2phase
4.CorrectsequenceofenzymesrequiredforDNAformationis:
RNApolymerase-->DNApolymeraseIll-->DNAligase-->exonuclease
-->DNApolymeraseI
Proteinunwindingenzyme-->polymeraseI-->DNAligase-->DNA
isomerase-->DNApolymerase
RNApolymerase-->DNApolymeraseIll-->DNApolymeraseI-->DNA
ligase
DNApolymerase-->proteinunwindingenzyme-->DNAligase-->DNA
lsomerase-->
Polymerase
5.TheprimarydefectinXerodermapigmentosais:
Formationofadeninedimers
3321
Exonucleaseisdefective+
PolyADPribosepolymeraseisdefective
6.Okazakifragmentsareformedduringthesynthesisof:
TRNA
Am
7.Whichenzymaticmutationisresponsibleforimmortalityofcancer
cells?
RNApolymerase
Telomerase+
3322
DNApolymerase
DNAreversetranscriptase
8.UVlightdamagetotheDNAleadsto:
Formationofpyrimidinedimers+
NodamagetoDNA
DNAhydrolysis
Doublestrandedbreaks
9.UnwindingEnzymeinDNAsynthesis:
DNAPolymerase
Helicase+
Transcriptase
Primase
10.ActionofTelomeraseis:Breakdownoftelomere+none
longetivityofcell
DNArepair
11.Allofthefollowingcelltypescontaintheenzymetelomerasewhich
protectsthelengthoftelomeraseattheendofchromosomes,except:
Somatic+
Germinal
Hemopoietic
Tumor
12.TrueaboutDNAGyrase
3323
ProkaryoticTopoisomeraseI
ProkaryoticDNATopoisomerase11+
13.SCIOisduetodefectin:
HomologousRecombination+
Mismatchrepair
NHEJ
Nucleotideexcisionrepair14.ThegapsbetweensegmentsofDNAonthelag
gingstandproduced
byrestrictionenzymesarejoinedsealedby:
DNALigases+
DNAtopoisomerase
DNAHelicase
DNAPhosphorylase
15.WhichofthefollowingistrueaboutDNAPolymeraseIll?
Itisneededfortranslation
Bacteriacanfunctionwithoutit
ItformsOkazakifragmntsanitneedsRANprimer
HasDNArepairfunction+
16.Endsofchromosomesreplicatedby
Centromere
Telomerase+
3324
Exonuclease
17.DuringreplicationofDNA,whichoneofthefollowingenzymes
polymerizestheOkazakifragments?DNAPolymeraseIII
RNAPolymerase1
DNAlygase
DNAPolymeraseI+
18.RadiolabelledDNAwasallowedtoreplicatetwiceinanon-radioactive
environment.Whichofthefollowingistrue?
Allthestrandswillhaveradioactivity
HalfoftheDNAwillhavenoradioactivity
Nostrandswillhaveradioactivity
Three-fourthoftheDNAreplicatedwillhaveradioactivity
19.WhichDNApolymeraseisinvolvedinrepairofmammalianDNA?
Gamma
Epsilon
Alpha+
Beta
20.Excessiveultraviolet(UV)radiationisharmfultolife.Thedamage
causedtothebiologicalsystembyultra-violetradiationIby:
InhibitionofDNAsynthesis
3325
Ionization
DNAfragmentation
21.Xerodermapigmentosaisdueto:Baseexcisiondefect
SOSrepairdefect
Crosslinkingdefect
Nucleotideexcisionrepair+
Biochemistry-Chemsitryofnucleotides
1.Whichofthefollowingisnotanitrogenousbase?
Cytosine
Adenine
Thymine+
Guanosine
2.WhichisnotfoundinDNA?
Ad
eni
ne
Gu
ani
ne
Adenine
Uracil+
3.AtthephysiologicalpHtheDNAmoleculesare:
3326
Negativelycharged+
Amphipathic
Neutral
Positivelycharged
4.Thefollowingscorrectlyarranged
GMP-Guaninemonophosphate
TMP-Thyminemonophosphate
CMP-Cytidinemonophosphate
UMP-Uracilmonophosphate+Nucleoproteinscontainsignificantamountofa
lkalineproteins.Whatpropteinscarryout
structuralfunctioninchromatin?
Thenumberofhemegroupspresentinmyoglobin:
Foodrichincarbohydratesatfirstincreasesthebloodsugarandthendecreasesitsr
atedueto
theinsulinaction.Whatprocessisactivatedbythishormone?
Synthesisofglycogen
Whatmetalionisspecificallyboundbyceruloplasmin?
Cu2+
Hemoglobincatabolismresultsinreleaseofironwhichistransportedtothebonem
arrowbya
certaintransferproteinandisusedagainforthesynthesisofhemoglobin.Specifyt
histransfer
3327
protein:
Transferrin(siderophilin)
Whichofthefollowingcationsisrequiredfortheconversionofprothrombineintoa
ctive
thrombine?Ca2+
Whichphysicalandchemicalpropertyofproteinisthebaseofthemethodofelectro
chemical
Presenceofcharge
Thecontentoftotalproteininbloodplasmaisnormal.Whichofthebelow-mention
ed
65-85g/L
Metabolicacidosisisobservedinpatientòrganismduetotheaccumulationof:
Pyruvate
Fibrinogen
Ceruloplasmin
Apatientwithacutepancreatitishadathreatofpancreaticnecrosis,whichwasac
companied
breakdown
oftissueproteins.Whichprotectivefactorcaninhibitsuchprocesses?α1-antitryp
sin
3328
Pointoutthemainbloodplasmaprotein,participatinginthebloodoncoticpressur
emaintaining:
Albumin
chemical
Presenceofcharge
Humanredbloodcellsdonotcontainmitochondria.Whatisthemainpathwayfor
ATP
Anaerobicglycolysis
Symptomsoflivercirrhosiswithascitesandedemaoflowerextremitiesappearedi
napatient
whohadhepatitisCandconstantlyconsumedalcohol.Whichchangesinbloodcom
position
underliededemadevelopment?
Hypoalbulinemia
Indiabetesmellitustheactivationoffattyacidoxidationleadstoketosis.Whichdiso
rdersof
Metabolicacidosis
Heparin
Thereareseveraldozensofproteinsinbloodplasmaofhealthyindividuals.Newpro
teinsmay
3329
appearinbloodduringvariousdiseases,inparticular"acutephaseproteins."Oneof
the
С-Reactiveprotein
Forwhatpropertiesofthegeneticcodeischaracteristicexpression:"themeaningo
fcodonsis
thesameforalllivingthings":
universality+
Finalstepinthetranslation–isbindingOkazakifragments
elongationofthepolypeptidechainoftheprotein+
RestorationofthestructureofDNAwhenitisdamagediscalled
reparation+
Theprocessofproteinsynthesistermed:translation+
Thethirdstageofthetranslationprocessiscalled:
elongation+
Theendproductofthebreakdownofpurinenucleosidesinhumansis
uricacid+
Whatisthesequenceofstepsofproteinsynthesis?

postsyntheticmodification
ofproteins+
Whichsubstanceisasecondmessengerintheactionofglucagon?
c-AMP+
Thegeneticcode-asequenceof:
nucleotidesintheDNA+
3330
Hyperuricemiaoccursgout+
Propertiesofthegeneticcode?
linearity,continuity,unambiguity,degeneracy,thepresenceofanonsensecodon
+
Thefinaldecayproductofadenosineinhumans.c
uricacid+
Whatisthemutation?
achangeinthegenome+
ProteinKinaseisactivated
cAMP+
Thenucleosideis
guanosine+
Specifythefunctionofreversetranscriptase/reversetranscriptase
catalyzesthebiosynthesisofDNAonatemplateofRNA+Thestructuralcomponen
tsofDNAare:
deoxyribose+
Synthesisofpyrimidinenucleotidesoccursin
cytoplasm+
Whatisthecontinuityofthegeneticcode?
theabsenceofsignalsindicativeoftheendandthestartcodonofoneanotherinm-R
NA+
Thepartofthelargesubunitoftheribosome,whichlocalizesthegrowingpeptidech
ainis
called:
peptidyl+
3331
Translation-isprocess:
biosynthesisofproteinonmRNA.+
Whichpropertyofthegeneticcodecorrespondstotheexpression:asingleaminoac
idcan
encodeseveraltriplets:thedegeneracy+
Theproductsofthexanthineoxidasereactioncanbe
uricacid+
Whichenzymeiscatalyzedreactionoftheactivationofaminoacidsintheproteinbi
osynthesis?
anaminoacyl-tRNAsynthetase+
ctive
thrombine?
Ca2+
chemical
Presenceofcharge
ed
65-85g/L
Metabolicacidosisisobservedinpatientòrganismduetotheaccumulationof:Pyr
uvate
Fibrinogen
3332
Ceruloplasmin
companied
breakdown
oftissueproteins.Whichprotectivefactorcaninhibitsuchprocesses?
α1-antitrypsin
emaintaining:
Albumin
chemical
Presenceofcharge
ATPproductioninthesecells?A.B.C.CyclasereactionD.E.Oxidativephosphorylat
ion
Anaerobicglycolysis
Symptomsoflivercirrhosiswithascitesandedemaoflowerextremitiesappearedi
napatient
position
Hypoalbulinemia
3333
rdersof
Metabolicacidosis
Heparin
teinsmay
the
С-ReactiveproteinThephysiologicallyactiveformofcalciumis
Complexedwithcarbonate
Ionised+
Complexedwithcitrate
Proteinbound
Whichofthefollowingaretargettissuesforaldosterone?
kidney+
hypothalamus
adrenalglands
liver
Thedailywaterallowancefornormaladult(60kg)isabout
1500-2000ml+
800-1500mlTheprincipalcationinintracellularfluidis
Sodium
3334
Potassium+
Magnesium
Calcium
Whichofthefollowinghormoneparticipateinregulationofwaterbalance?
oxitocin
aldosterone
vasopressin+
cortisol
Thewaterproducedduringmetabolicreactionsinanadultisabout
700ml/day600ml/day
400ml/day+
100ml/day
Thepredominantanionofplasmais
HPO4-
SO4--
Cl-+
HCO3–
Thepredominantcationofplasmais
K+
Ca++
Mg++
Na+ +Thedailywaterlossthroughgastrointestinaltractinanadultisabout
Lessthan100ml/day+
400ml/day
3335
300ml/day
200ml/day
Theprincipalcationinextracellularfluidis
Calcium
Magnesium
Potassium
Sodium+
Themetabolismofsodiumisregulatedbythehormone:
PTHSomatostatin
Insulin
Aldosterone+
EnhancedfacultativereabsorptionofwaterbyVasopressinismediatedby
CyclicGMP
CyclicAMP+
Mg++
Ca++
Vasopressin(ADH)
Increasesexcretionofcalcium
Enhancefacultativereabsorptionofwater+
Decreasesexcretionofcalcium
DecreasesreabsorptionofwaterRibonucleotidesofRNAprimerarereplacedbyde
oxyribonucleotidesbytheenzyme:
DNApolymeraseI+
DNApolymeraseII
3336
DNApolymeraseIII
AlloftheseDNAdoesnotcontain
Thymine
Adenine
Uracil+
Deoxyribose
ReplicationofDNAis
Conservative
Semi-conservative+Non-conservative
Noneofthese
Uracilandriboseform
Uridine+
Cytidine
Guanosine
Adenosine
TheaminoterminalofallpolypeptidechainatthetimeofsynthesisinE.coliistagge
dtothe
aminoacidresidue:
Methionine
N-formylmethinine+
Serine
N-formalserine
CyclicAMPcanbeformedfromAMP
ADP
3337
ATP+
allofthese
Anucleotideconsistsof
Purine+pyrimidinebase+sugar+phosphorous+
AminoacidisattachedtotRNAat
5’-End
3’-End+Anticodon
DHUloop
ThefirstcodontobetranslatedonmRNAis
GGA
AAA
AUG+
GGU
Streptomycinpreventssynthesisofpolypeptideby
Inhibitinginitiationprocess+
InhibitingtranslocationPeptidyltransferaseactivityislocatedin
Elongationfactor
3338
Ribosomalprotein+
DirectionofRNAsynthesisis
3′→ 5’
5′→ 3’+
Both(A)and(B).
Noneofthese
Thenucleophilicattackontheesterifiedcarboxylgroupofthepeptidyl-tRNAoccu
pyingtheP
siteandtheα-aminogroupofthenewaminoacyltRNA,thenumberofATPrequire
dbythe
aminoacidonthechargedtRNAis
Zero+One
Two
AlthougheachspecifictRNAdiffersfromtheothersinitssequenceofnucleotides,al
ltRNA
moleculescontainabasepairedstemthatterminatesinthesequenceCCAat
3′Termini+
5′Termini
Anticodonarm
3′5′-Termini
Four
dtothe
aminoacidresidue:
Methionine
3339
N-formalserine
N-formylmethinine+Serine
Geneticcodeis
Collectionofcodon+
TheunwoundstrandsofDNAareheldapartby
Singlestrandbindingprotein+
Repprotein
DNAAprotein
ThenucleicacidbasefoundinmRNAbutnotinDNAisAdenine
Guanine
Cytosine
Urasil+
Innucleotides,phosphateisattachedtosugarby
Esterbond
Glycosidicbond+
Saltbond
Hydrogenbond
Thecarbonofthepentoseinesterlinkagewiththephosphateinanucleotidestructu
reis
C5+
3340
C1
C2C4
ThecorrectstatementconcerningRNAandDNApolymerasesis
RNApolymeraserequireprimersandaddbasesat5’endofthegrowingpolynucleo
tidechain
+AllRNAandDNApolymerasescanaddnucleotidesonlyatthe3’endofthegrowin
g
polynucleotidechain+
Intronsingenes
Encodetheaminoacidswhichareremovedduringpost-translationalmodificati
on
Encodesignalsequenceswhichareremovedbeforesecretionoftheproteins
Arethenon-codingsequenceswhicharenottranslated+
Arethesequencesthatintervenebetweentwogene
TranslationresultsinaproductknownastRNA
mRNA
rRNA
Protein+
Geneticinformationflowsfrom
DNAtoDNA
RNAtoDNA
DNAtoRNA+
3341
degeneracyofgeneticcodeimpliesthat
Multiplecodonsmustdecodethesameaminoacids+
SpecificcodondecodesmanyaminoacidsNoanticodonontRNAmolecule
AUG,theonlyidentifiedcodonformethionineisimportantas
Achaininitiatingcodon+
Reversetranscriptaseiscapableofsynthesising
RNA→ DNA+
DNA→ RNA
DNA→ DNA
RNA→ RNA
NegativesupercoilsareintroducedinDNAbyHelicase
DNAligase
DNAgyrase+
Themostabundantfreenucleotideinmammaliancellsis
NAD
GTP
ATP+
FAD
Nonsensecodonsarepresenton
3342
mRNA+
tRNA
rRNANoneofthese
Hydrogenbond
Esterbond
Glycosidicbond+
Saltbond
TheenzymeDNAligase
ConnectstheendoftwoDNAchains+
inRNAmoleculeguaninecontentdoesnotnecessarilyequalitscytosinecontentno
rdoesits
adeninecontentnecessarilyequalitsuracilcontentsinceitisaSinglestrandmolecu
le+
Theα-aminogroupofthenewaminoacyltRNAintheAsitecarriesoutanucleophili
cattackon
theesterifiedcarboxylgroupofthepeptidyltRNAoccupyingthePsite.Thisreactio
nis
catalysedby
3343
DNApolymerase
RNApolymerase
Peptidyltransferase+
DNAligase
Okazakipiecesaremadeupof
RNA
RNAandDNA+DNA
RNAandproteins
Okazakifragmentisrelatedto
DNAsynthesis+
Proteinsynthesis
mRNAformation
tRNAformation
Erythromycinactsonribosomesandinhibit
Translocation+Whichofthefollowingcationsisrequiredfortheconversionofprot
hrombineintoactive
thrombine?
Ca2+
chemical
3344
Presenceofcharge
ed
65-85g/L
Pyruvate
Fibrinogen
Ceruloplasmin
companied
breakdown
α1-antitrypsin
emaintaining:
Albumin
chemical
Presenceofcharge
ATP
3345
AnaerobicglycolysisSymptomsoflivercirrhosiswithascitesandedemaoflowerex
tremitiesappearedinapatient
position
Hypoalbulinemia
rdersof
Metabolicacidosis
Heparin
teinsmay
the
С-ReactiveproteinRibonucleotidesofRNAprimerarereplacedbydeoxyribonucl
eotidesbytheenzyme:
DNApolymeraseI+
DNApolymeraseII
DNApolymeraseIII
AlloftheseDNAdoesnotcontain
Thymine
Adenine
3346
Uracil+
Deoxyribose
ReplicationofDNAis
Conservative
Semi-conservative+
Non-conservative
Noneofthese
Uracilandriboseform
Uridine+
Cytidine
Guanosine
Adenosine
dtothe
aminoacidresidue:
Methionine
N-formylmethinine+
Serine
N-formalserine
CyclicAMPcanbeformedfromAMP
ADP
ATP+
allofthese
Anucleotideconsistsof
3347
Purine+pyrimidinebase+sugar+phosphorous+
AminoacidisattachedtotRNAat
5’-End
3’-End+
Anticodon
DHUloop
ThefirstcodontobetranslatedonmRNAis
GGA
AAA
AUG+
GGU
Streptomycinpreventssynthesisofpolypeptideby
Inhibitinginitiationprocess+
InhibitingtranslocationPeptidyltransferaseactivityislocatedin
Elongationfactor
Ribosomalprotein+
DirectionofRNAsynthesisis
3348
3′→ 5’
5′→ 3’+
Both(A)and(B).
Noneofthese
Thenucleophilicattackontheesterifiedcarboxylgroupofthepeptidyl-tRNAoccu
pyingtheP
siteandtheα-aminogroupofthenewaminoacyltRNA,thenumberofATPrequire
dbythe
aminoacidonthechargedtRNAis
Zero+
One
Two
AlthougheachspecifictRNAdiffersfromtheothersinitssequenceofnucleotides,al
ltRNA
moleculescontainabasepairedstemthatterminatesinthesequenceCCAat
3′Termini+
5′Termini
Anticodonarm
3′5′-Termini
Four
dtothe
aminoacidresidue:
Methionine
N-formalserineN-formylmethinine+
3349
Serine
Geneticcodeis
Collectionofcodon+
TheunwoundstrandsofDNAareheldapartby
Singlestrandbindingprotein+
Repprotein
DNAAprotein
ThenucleicacidbasefoundinmRNAbutnotinDNAis
Adenine
Guanine
Cytosine
Urasil+
Esterbond
Glycosidicbond+
Saltbond
Hydrogenbond
Thecarbonofthepentoseinesterlinkagewiththephosphateinanucleotidestructu
reis
C5+
3350
C1C2
C4
ThecorrectstatementconcerningRNAandDNApolymerasesis
RNApolymeraserequireprimersandaddbasesat5’endofthegrowingpolynucleo
tidechain
+AllRNAandDNApolymerasescanaddnucleotidesonlyatthe3’endofthegrowin
g
polynucleotidechain+
Intronsingenes
Encodetheaminoacidswhichareremovedduringpost-translationalmodificati
on
Encodesignalsequenceswhichareremovedbeforesecretionoftheproteins
Arethenon-codingsequenceswhicharenottranslated+
Arethesequencesthatintervenebetweentwogene
Translationresultsinaproductknownas
tRNA
mRNA
rRNA
Protein+
Geneticinformationflowsfrom
DNAtoDNA
RNAtoDNA
3351
DNAtoRNA+
degeneracyofgeneticcodeimpliesthat
Multiplecodonsmustdecodethesameaminoacids+Specificcodondecodesmany
aminoacids
NoanticodonontRNAmolecule
AUG,theonlyidentifiedcodonformethionineisimportantas
Achaininitiatingcodon+
Reversetranscriptaseiscapableofsynthesising
RNA→ DNA+
DNA→ RNA
DNA→ DNA
RNA→ RNA
NegativesupercoilsareintroducedinDNAby
Helicase
DNAligase
DNAgyrase+
Themostabundantfreenucleotideinmammaliancellsis
NAD
GTP
3352
ATP+
FAD
Nonsensecodonsarepresenton
mRNA+
tRNArRNA
Noneofthese
Hydrogenbond
Esterbond
Glycosidicbond+
Saltbond
TheenzymeDNAligase
ConnectstheendoftwoDNAchains+
inRNAmoleculeguaninecontentdoesnotnecessarilyequalitscytosinecontentno
rdoesits
adeninecontentnecessarilyequalitsuracilcontentsinceitisa
Singlestrandmolecule+
3353
Theα-aminogroupofthenewaminoacyltRNAintheAsitecarriesoutanucleophili
cattackon
theesterifiedcarboxylgroupofthepeptidyltRNAoccupyingthePsite.Thisreactio
nis
catalysedby
DNApolymerase
RNApolymerase
Peptidyltransferase+
DNAligase
Okazakipiecesaremadeupof
RNARNAandDNA+
DNA
RNAandproteins
Okazakifragmentisrelatedto
DNAsynthesis+
Proteinsynthesis
mRNAformation
tRNAformation
Erythromycinactsonribosomesandinhibit
Translocation+
ctive
3354
thrombine?
Ca2+
chemical
Presenceofcharge
ed
65-85g/L
Pyruvate
Fibrinogen
Whichbloodplasmaproteinbindsandtransportscopper?Ceruloplasmin
companied
breakdown
α1-antitrypsin
emaintaining:
Albumin
chemical
3355
Presenceofcharge
ATP
AnaerobicglycolysisSymptomsoflivercirrhosiswithascitesandedemaoflowerex
tremitiesappearedinapatient
position
Hypoalbulinemia
rdersof
Metabolicacidosis
Heparin
teinsmay
the
С-Reactiveprotein
Nucleoproteinscontainsignificantamountofalkalineproteins.Whatpropteinsc
arryout
structuralfunctioninchromatin?
3356
Thenumberofhemegroupspresentinmyoglobin:
Foodrichincarbohydratesatfirstincreasesthebloodsugarandthendecreasesitsr
atedueto
theinsulinaction.Whatprocessisactivatedbythishormone?
Synthesisofglycogen
Whatmetalionisspecificallyboundbyceruloplasmin?
Cu2+
Hemoglobincatabolismresultsinreleaseofironwhichistransportedtothebonem
arrowbya
certaintransferproteinandisusedagainforthesynthesisofhemoglobin.Specifyt
histransfer
protein:
Transferrin(siderophilin)
Forwhatpropertiesofthegeneticcodeischaracteristicexpression:"themeaningo
fcodonsis
thesameforalllivingthings":universality+
Finalstepinthetranslation–isbindingOkazakifragments
elongationofthepolypeptidechainoftheprotein+
RestorationofthestructureofDNAwhenitisdamagediscalled
reparation+
Theprocessofproteinsynthesistermed:
translation+
Thethirdstageofthetranslationprocessiscalled:
3357
elongation+
Theendproductofthebreakdownofpurinenucleosidesinhumansis
uricacid+
Whatisthesequenceofstepsofproteinsynthesis?

postsyntheticmodification
ofproteins+
Whichsubstanceisasecondmessengerintheactionofglucagon?
c-AMP+
Thegeneticcode-asequenceof:
nucleotidesintheDNA+
Hyperuricemiaoccurs
gout+
Propertiesofthegeneticcode?
linearity,continuity,unambiguity,degeneracy,thepresenceofanonsensecodon
+
Thefinaldecayproductofadenosineinhumans.c
uricacid+
Whatisthemutation?
achangeinthegenome+ProteinKinaseisactivated
cAMP+
Thenucleosideis
guanosine+
Specifythefunctionofreversetranscriptase/reversetranscriptase
3358
catalyzesthebiosynthesisofDNAonatemplateofRNA+
ThestructuralcomponentsofDNAare:
deoxyribose+
Synthesisofpyrimidinenucleotidesoccursin
cytoplasm+
Whatisthecontinuityofthegeneticcode?
theabsenceofsignalsindicativeoftheendandthestartcodonofoneanotherinm-R
NA+
Thepartofthelargesubunitoftheribosome,whichlocalizesthegrowingpeptidech
ainis
called:
peptidyl+
Translation-isprocess:
biosynthesisofproteinonmRNA.+
Whichpropertyofthegeneticcodecorrespondstotheexpression:asingleaminoac
idcan
encodeseveraltriplets:
thedegeneracy+
Theproductsofthexanthineoxidasereactioncanbe
uricacid+
Whichenzymeiscatalyzedreactionoftheactivationofaminoacidsintheproteinbi
osynthesis?
anaminoacyl-tRNAsynthetase+Topic: Water-salt metabolism (50
вопросов)
3359
A. protective
B. nutritional
*C. transportation
D. hormonal

arteries?
A. histamine
B. serotonin
*C. adrenaline
D. angiotensin


A. calcitriol
*Bn. Calcitoni
C. insulin
D. aldosterone

are involved:
3360
*B. aldosterone;
C. prostaglandins;
D. erythropoietin;
.

body?




urine
*A. calcitonin
B. Parathormone
C. insulin
D. aldosterone
3361
*A. AlAT
B. Acid Phosphatase

exchange:
A. fluorine;
B. sodium;
*C. calcium.
D. chlorine;

organism:



salts?
1. uric acid
2. urea
3362
3.Hypuric acid
*4. ammonia

2. penetrating

understand:

cell by passive
transport?
1. kali
2. iron
3. calcium
*4. sodium


3363

b) 6.0 - 8.0 liters
*c) 1.5 - 2.5 liters
d) 3-6 liters

*1.in the kidneys

2. in the liver
3. in the heart
4. in the lungs


c) transferrin
d) interferon
*1.ammonium salts
2. ketone bodies
3. alpha ketoacids
3364
4. uric acid

exchange

*1) vegetables
2) meat
3) milk
4) flour products

*1. 5.3 - 6.5

2. 1.2-2.0
3. 3.5-5.5
4. 9,5- 10

the kidney?
2. trypsinogen
3. pepsinogen
4. urobilinogen
3365
*1) meat
2) milk
3) vegetables


cell?

2. active transport
4. due to water
*1.active transport
4. due to water
3366

stimulating the

nature?
B. Carbohydrate
*D. Peptide
*1. 6.5-8.5
2. 5.0-5.5
3. 10-11
4. 1-3

4. lipase, aldolase

3367
1. iron
2. calcium
*3. copper
4. magnesium
thing?

1. calcitonin
4. insulin


3368


homeostasis

a) methylation
b) phosphorylation
*d) hydroxylation
hydroxylation:
A. threonine;
B. serine;
C. glutamate;
*D. lysine;
3369
A. lipoproteins
V. metalloproteins
C. Chromoprotein
*D. Proteoglycans
*A. elastin
V. Collagen
S. ferritin
D. rhodopsin
B. serine;
C. glutamate;
*D. lysine;
collagen
A. Co 2+
B. Zn 2+
*C. Cu 2+
D. Na +
3370
A. lipoproteins
B. metalloproteins
C. Chromoprotein
*D. Proteoglycans
D. is a lipoprotein
*A. elastin
V. Collagen
S. ferritin
D. rhodopsin
*A. elastin
B. collagen
C. ferritin
D. rhodopsin

A. alanine, glycine
3371
*A. collagen
B. cholesterol
C. fatty acids
D. pyruvate
*A. desmosine
B. myoglobin
C. actin
D. myosin
A . alanine
B . leucine
*C. lysinnorrleusin
D . serine


3372
tissue?
A . phosphoproteins
B . nucleoproteins
*C. proteoglycans
D. hemoproteins
A . methylation
B . phosphorylation


a) alanine
b) leucine
3373
physical activity?
A. Glycolysis
B. Glycogenolysis
*C..Gluconeogenesis
D. Glycogenesis

body:
A. skeletal muscle
*B. the liver
C. brain
D. kidney
A. transport
B. catalytic
C. regulatory
*D. contractile


3374

d) bind to actin

c) store of lipids
a) blood
b) muscles
*c) liver
d) heart
*A. monooxygenase
B. dioxygenase
C. catalase
D. peroxida



detected in urine.
3375
D) sepsis.

this disease:
A) does not change
*B) decreased
C) increased


A) feces dark brown

3376
a) cobalt
*b) iron
c) magnesium
d) manganese

2) Hyperglycees
4) glucosuria
b) hexokinase
c) pyruvate kinase
*1. 0.1–0.2 g/day

2. 1.0–2.0 g/day
3. 10–20 g/day
4.1.0–2.0 mg/day
5. 10–20 mg/day

1) phenylketonuria
*3) alkaptonuria
4) albinism
3377
5) homocystinuria
*a) ammonium salts

b) ketone bodies
c) alpha-keto
d) uric acid
*a) 5,3- 6,5

b) 1,2- 2,0
c) 3,5-5,5
d) 9,5- 10

*A. kidney
B. liver
C. heart
D. lung
C. alpha-keto
D. uric acid
*A. К
3378
B. Nа
C. Мg
D. Мп
*A. 5,3- 6,5
B. 1,2- 2,0
C. 3,5-5,5
D. 9,5- 10
in the kidneys?
*A. angiotensinogen
B. trypsinogen
C. pepsinogen
D. urobilinogen

C. absence of urine

*A . anuria
B . oliguria
3379
C . polyuria
D. nicturia
*A . nicturia
B . oliguria
C . Polyuria
D. anuria

*A. isostenuria
D. anuria

homeostasis
in the kidneys?
*A. angiotensinogen
B. trypsinogen
C. pepsinogen
D. Urobilinogen
A. thyroxine
B. testosterone
3380
*C. vasopressin
D. oxytocin
A. pancreas
*B. adrenal cortex

in the kidneys?
*a) angiotensinogen
b) trypsinogen
c) pepsinogen
d) urobilinogen.
*a) 5,3- 6,5

b) 1,2- 2,0
c) 3,5-5,5
d) 9,5- 10
*a) kidney
b) liver
c) heart
3381
*A. in the brain
B . kidney
C . spleen
D . heart
*a) in the brain

b) kidney
c) spleen
d) heart
A. Calcium
B. Phosphate
C. carbonate
*D. cystine
*A. Phosphate
B. potassium
C. oxalate
a. glucose
b. amino acids
c. fatty acids

in humans?
a. glucose
3382
b. glycogen
c. triacylglycerols
d. +ATP

of
a. +Н2О, ATP
b. O2, H2O
c. ATP, Н2О2
d. Н2О2, O2

chain
located?
a. in microsomes

transport of
b. lygase
c. isomerase
3383

one pair
a. 12
b. 2
c. 38
d. +3
a. В1
b. В2
c. В6
d. +РР
a. В1
b. +В2
c. B6

electron transport
chain?
b. NAD, NADPH2.
3384
d. NAD, CoА.
a. lipoproteins
b. glycolipids
c. nucleoproteins
d. +hemoproteins
a. c1
b. c
c. +aa3
d. b

one pair
a. 38
b. 12
c. +2
d. 3

ATP
synthesized?
d. cytoplasm
3385
a. Gluconeogenesis
d. Glycolysis

ETC?
a. ATP
b. ADP
c. CO2
d. +cyanide
b. catalase
d. peroxidase
3386
+cytochrome oxidase
b. CoQ
c. Complex I
a. adenine
b. pentose
c. +nicotinamide
a. adenine
b. nicotinamide
c. iron

participate?
a. glycolysis
a. protons Н+
b. hydrogen atoms
c. +electrons
d. oxygen
3387
cytochromeoxidase?
a. simple enzyme
b. contains iodine
c. +contains copper
d. contains NAD
d. xanthine oxidase
a. Cu2+ and Zn2+

b. +Cu2+ and Fe2+
c. Cu2+ and Mn2+
d. Cu2+

is
a. +coenzyme Q
b. coenzyme A

complex
3388



mitochondrial
a. FMN
b. +NAD
c. Coenzyme Q
d. Cyt b

mitochondrial
a. NAD
b. Coenzyme Q
c. +FAD
d. (D) Cyt c

are
a. I, II and III
3389
b. I, II and IV
c. +I, III and IV
d. I and II

respiratory chain,
a. + 2
b. 1
c. 3d. 4

respiratory chain,
a. 1
b. 2
c. +3
d. 4

respiratory chain
is

a. sulphite
3390
b. sulphate
c. arsenite
d. +cyanide

been proposed
by

c. S. Waugh

a. +Zero
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

the
a. protons
b. +electrons
c. hydrogen atoms
d. oxygen
a. adenine
3391
b. nicotinamide
c. +iron
protein
isimpaired?
a. albumins
b. globulins
c. +hemoglobin
d. immunoglobulins

transport of
a. +Chylomicrons

3392



prosthetic group is
a. lipids
b. +carbohydrates
c. nucleic acids
d. Me ions

prosthetic group is
a. lipids
b. carbohydrates
c. +nucleic acids
d. Me ions
3393
a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. +Urasil
c. Cytosine
d. +Thymine
a. +nucleotides
b. amino acids
c. nucleosides


ribosome
3394
ribosome

(rRNA)

ribosome
due to

a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. +Thymine
a. Adenine
b. Guanine
c. Cytosine
d. +Urasil
3395



22. Myoglobine

23. Hemoglobine

3396
a. +HbA1, HbA2, HbF
c. HbA1, HbA2, HbS
a. HbA1, HbA2, HbF

c. HbA1, HbA2, HbS
d. HbA2, HbF, HbS
a. +HbO2, HbCO2,
b. HbS, HbA1, HbA2
c. HbCO, metHbOH
d. HbCO, HbCO2
a. HbO2, HbCO2,
b. HbS,HbA1, HbA2
c. +HbCO, metHbOH
d. HbCO, HbCO2


3397



compounds of
a. +iron
b. copper
c. manganese
d. zinc
a. hemoglobin
b. myoglobin
c. cytochromes
d. +All of them

34. Ferritin is a
3398

a. hemosiderine
b. +transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
d. ferritin

transports oxygen

in this
compound:
a. +Iron
b. Zinc
c. Magnesium
d. Calcium
a. hemosiderine
b. transferrine
c. ceruloplasmin
3399
d. +ferritin

nervous systems

vitamin B12
a. Mn
b. Mg
c. Cu

A) acid phosphatase

A) urea
3400
in blood?
*A) gemoglobinuriya
B) kreatinuriya
C) glukosuriya
*1. lactate;
2. glucose;
3. pyruvate;
4. amino acids;
*a) 3,3 - 5,5 mmol/l

b). 5.5 - 7.5 mmol/l
c) 1,5 - 3,5 mmol/l
d) 7,5 - 8,9 mmol/l
*a) heparin
b) antithrombin
c) pelentan
d) sincumar
*a) 45%
b) 50%
c) 55%
a) 100days
b) 110days
3401
*c) 120days
d) 130days

*a) Ca2+
b) Fe2+
c) Mg2+
d) Mn2+

This is called
a) Hypertension
b) Hypotension
c) Atherosclerosis
a) RBC
b) blood plasma
c) leucocytes
a) hemocyanine
b) pyrite
*c) hemoglobin
d) myoglobin
3402
a. +A, D, E, K
d. A, D, B1, B2
a. cholecalciferol
b. ergocalciferol
d. +calcitriol
3. Vitamins are


3403
c. +stored in liver
a. painful joints
b. +night blindness
c. loss of hair
a. +xeropthalmia

a. iodopsin
b. +rhodopsin
c. cardiolipin
d. glycoproteins
a. iodopsin
b. +rhodopsin
3404
c. glycoprotein
b. cis-retinal
c. retinol
d. retinoic acid
a. +Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. +Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. +Vitamin K
a. Vitamin A
b. +Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin K
3405

c. Hypthyroidism

a. Infrared light
b. Dim light

b. Intestine
c. Adipose tissue
d. Muscle
a. Vitamin D
b. +Vitamin E
c. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin K
3406

b. meat
c. fish
d. milk

c. Cell growth

intestine is
a. A
b. C
c. D
d. +K

of the blood
a. +Carboxylase
b. Decarboxylase
c. Hydroxylase
d. Oxidase

3407
a. Riboflavin
b. Retinol
c. +Menadione
d. Tocopherol

is
a. +Vitamin C
b. Vitamin A
administrating
a. Retinol
b. +Thiamin
c. Pyridoxine
d. Vitamin B12
b. Hydroxylation
c. Transamination
d. Carboxylation
3408
a. +cheilosis
b. loss of weight
d. dermatitis

vitamin
a. +riboflavin
b. thiamin
c. nicotinic acid
d. pyridoxine

a. B1
b. B2c. +PP
d. B6
a. riboflavin
b. pantothenic acid
c. +niacin
d. pyridoxine
a. ascorbic acid
b. pantothenic acid
c. pyridoxine
3409
d. +niacin

are
a. +dehydrogenases
b. transaminases
c. decarboxylases
d. carboxylases
a. +pyruvate
b. xanthurenic acid
c. glucose
d. phenylpyruvate

amines is

(PLP)

3410
d. vitamin B12
a. +beri-beri
b. pellagra
c. demencia
d. scurvy
a. ferrodoxin
b. +FAD
d. pyrophosphate

dinucleotide (FAD)
a. +vitamin B1
d. vitamin B6


the corners of
3411
dermatitis?
a. Vitamin B1
b. +Vitamin B2
c. Vitamin PP
d. Vitamin B6


amino acids is
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin PP
d. +vitamin B6

and

a. ferredoxin
3412
c. pyrophoaphate
d. +NAD+

the vitamin
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. +vitamin PP
d. vitamin B6
a. FMN, FAD
b. +NAD+, NADP+
c. ADP, ATP
d. THF, FH4
a. beri-beri
b. +pellagra
c. demencia
d. scurvy

b. +pellagra
c. night blindness
d. scurvy
3413
a. ferredoxin
c. pyrophosphate
d. NAD+
a. ferredoxin
c. +FAD
d. NAD+
a. +15-20 mg
b. 1-1.5 mg
c. 75 mg
d. 3-5 mg
a. +water soluble
b. fat soluble
d. none of these

a. beri-beri
3414
b. pellagra
c. demencia
d. +scurvy

cabbage, spinach,
a. +vitamin C
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin A
60.Biotin serves as

a. +coenzymes A

3415
c. night blindness
d. osteomalacia
a. Osteoporosis
b. +Night blindness
d. Infertility
a. +xerophthalmia
b. rickets


total
blindness.
a. +Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
3416
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin E


by
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin E
c. +vitamin D
d. vitamin K
a. +night blindness
b. keratinization
c. rickets
d. scurvy
a. scurvy
b. cataract
a. +antioxidants
b. reducing agent
3417
d. all of these
a. +protrombin
b. thrombin
c. fibrin
d. fibrinogen
a. +Cobalt
b. Copper
c. Zinc
d. Iron
a. vitamin A
b. +vitamin K
c. vitamin C
d. niacin
a. Cobalamin
b. Pyrodoxine

В1?
a. NAD
b. +TPP
3418
d. FAD



symptoms are
observed?
d. +polyneuritis

В2?
a. TPP
b. +FADc. NAD
d. НSCоА
3419

c. hydrolysis

symptoms are
observed?

d. xerophthalmia

РР?
a. TDP
b. FAD
c. +NAD
d. НSCоА

symptoms are
observed?
a. diarhhea
b. dementia
c. dermatitis
3420
observed?
a. night blindness
b. +dementia
d. hemeralopia

В6?
a. FAD, FMN
b. NAD, NADP
d. НSCоА

reactions:
a. fatty liver
c. +polyneuritis
d. night blindness
3421
a. thymine
b. thymidine
c. thioredoxin
a. biotin
b. pyridoxine
c. +riboflavin
d. thiamine

acid
(vitamin C)?
a. 10 – 15 mg/day
b. +60 – 70 mg/day
c. 1 – 2 g/day
d. 30 – 40 mg/day
a. +niacine
b. riboflavin
c. tiamine
d. pyridoxine
a. +pyridoxine
b. nicotinic acid
c. pyrimidine
d. riboflavin
3422
observed?
a. pellagra
b. rickets
c. +scurvy

the body?

synthesis
1) albumin;
2) globulin;
3) myosin;
a) serine
b) aspartic acid
c) valine
d) methionine
*1. biogenic amine

3423
hydroxylase) causes
*1) phenylketonuria
2) homocystinuria
3) alkaptonuria
4) albinism
1. histidine
2. tyrosine
3. proline
2. adrenaline
3. norepinephrine
*4. phenylalanine

*2. adrenaline
3. insulin
4. dopamine

involved1. NADP +
*2 .NADPH (H +)
3. FADH2
4. FMNH2
3424
1. phenol, glycine
2. Skatole, indole
*3. cresol, phenol
1. kidney
2. bladder
3. pancreas
*4. livers
1. tryptophan
2. histidine
3. methionine
*4. tyrosine
*1. glu with val

2. glu with asp
3. val with leu
4. val with cys

dramatically with
1) kidney disease
2) pancreatitis
3) prostatitis
3425
b) citrulline
c) arginine
d) ornithine
1 methionine
2 serine
3 cysteine
*4 tyrosine
the reaction:
*a) deamination
b) transamination
c) hydroxylation
d) decarboxylation

groups from:

1) lysine
2) valine
3) tyrosine
3426
*4) serine

from the N-terminal
amino acids:
a) carboxypeptidase
*b) aminopeptidase
c) pepsin
d) gastricsin
1. glycine
2. glutamate
1. 25–45 mg
2 .0.25–0.35 g
3. 2.5–3.5 g
*4. 20 – 25 g
1) citrate
3) succinate
4) fumarate
a) stomach
b) in the pancreas
*c) small intestine
d) large intestine
3427
a) dopamine
*b) histamine
c) putrescine
d) cadaverine
1) amylases
a) muscle
b)in the brain
*c) liver
d) in the kidneys
a) urea synthesis

enzyme of gastric
a) trypsin
b) pepsin
c) chymotrypsin
*d) rennin

2) lysine, pepsin,
3428

action of:
a) chymotrypsin
b) trypsin
c) elastase

*a) enterokinase
b) pepsin
d) gastricine
*1. 0.1–0.2 g/day

2. 1.0–2.0 g/day
3. 10–20 g/day
4.1.0–2.0 mg/day
*a) pepsin
b) trypsin
c) amylased) lipase
3429
a. pepsin
b. trypsin
c. rennin
a) dipeptidase
*b) pepsin
c) carboxypeptidase
d) aminopeptidase
1) 1,5 – 2,0
2) 3,8 – 5,8
*3) 7,5 – 8,0
4) 1,5 – 3,0
a) pepsin
b) carbon dioxide
c) fiber
*d) a bile acid

organic
3430



d) citrulline

and protons in the


c) In the cytoplasm

organic

3431
a) transport
b) catalytic
c) regulatory
*d) contractile
a) 1,5 – 2,0
b) 3,8 – 5,8
*c) 7,5 – 8,0
d) 1,5 – 3,0

B. lipolysis
A. NAD
B. FMN
C. cytochromes
*D. oxygen
A. glutamic acid;
D. histidine;
3432
*A. enterokinase;
B. pepsin;
D. gastriksina;

action of:
A. chymotrypsin;
B. trypsin;
C. elastase;

from the N-terminal
amino acids:
*B. aminopeptidase;
C. pepsin;
D. gastricsin;

the enzyme
A. enterokinase;
B. pepsin;
*C. trypsin;
D. elastase.
A. dopamine;
*B. histamine;
C. putrescine;
3433
D. cadaverine;
A . stomach
B . in the pancreas
*C. small intestine
D . large intestine
A. trypsin;
*C. rennin;

A. alanine
*B. tyrosine
C. serine
D. phenylalanine
A. chymotrypsin;
C. dipeptidase;
*D. pepsin;

is:
B. fatty acids;
C. carbohydrates;
3434
*D. amino acids;
A. muscle
B. in the brain
*C. liver
D. in the kidneys
A. liver, lung
B . liver, muscle
*C. kidney, liver
D. kidney, muscle
C. tyrosinase;
CH2
CН CH2 -NH2 CH2
CH2
ПФ-вит.В6
СООН
C=О
СООН
3435
СООН
СООН
CН-NH2
СООН
CH2
СООН
C=О
СООН
CH2
СООН
A. glutaminase


urea cycle?
A. citrulline
B. arginine
C. fumaric acid

(GABA)?

3436

groups from:

the reaction:
A. deamination;
B. transamination;
C. hydroxylation;

formation. This
B. citrulline
C. arginine
*D. ornithine
*A. thyroxine
B. growth hormone
3437
D. calcitonin
A. glucagon
*B. adrenaline
C. insulin

of phenylalanine to
tyrosine
C. glutamateoxidase
D. ALT
A. in the kidney;
*B. in the liver;

D. in the muscle;

alanine:


CH2
CH2 CН-NH2
3438
CH3
C=О CH2
CH2
ПФ-вит.В6
Аланин
СООН
C=О
СООН
СООН
СООН
CН-NH2
СООН
СООН
CH3

A) 20-40 КЕ
*B) 10-20 КЕ
3439
C) 40-50 КЕ

A. trypsin
B. pepsin
C. chymotrypsin
*D. rennin
A) 50-70 КЕ
B) 40-60 КЕ
C) 10-20 КЕ
*D) 20-40 КЕ
A) pH=12,0-14,0
B) pH=8,0-9,5
*C) pH=1,5-2,0
D) pH=5,0-7,0
A) серина
C) валина
A) oral cavity
B) colon
C) esophagus
3440
*D) small intestine
A) Lipase
*B) Pepsin
C) Maltase
D) Amylase
A) fatty acids
B) monosaccharides
C) glycerine
*A. oxsaloacitate
B. citrate
C. isocitrate
D. fumarate


and protons in the


3441

C. glycolysis;
A. FAD
B. NAD
C. FMN
*D. Heme

from components:
*A. ADP + H3PO4

B. AMP 2 H3PO4
D. AMP + GMP
A . cobalt
*B . iron
C . magnesium
D . manganese

3442
*A. 6,5-8,5
B. 5,0-5,5C. 10-11
D. 1-3

B. aldolase amylase
D. lipase, aldolase
A. iron
B. calciu
*C. copper
D. magnesium

blood?

C. urea, fat

creatine?
D. citrulline
3443



A. рН = 12 -14
B. рН = 8 - 9,5
C. рН = 2 5 - 7
*D. рH = 1,5 – 2
B. trypsin
C. rennin

A. serotonin
B. tryptamine
*C. indole
D. benzene
3444
A. 1,5 – 2,0;
*B. 3,8 – 5,8;
C. 7,5 – 8,0;
D. 1,5 – 3,0;
A. dipeptidase;
*B. pepsin;
D. aminopeptidase;

skatole and indole?
A. leucine,
B. alanine
C. tyrosine
*D. tryptophan
*A. pepsin
B. trypsin
C. amylase
D. lipase
*A) chymosin
B) trypsinogen
C) sucrase
D) dehydrogenase
3445
A) 1-2 min.
B) 5-10 min.
C) 10-60 sec.
*D) 15-20 sec.
*A) the proteolytic
B) lypolitich
C) amylitich
D) nuclease


everything except:
A) lipase
B) protease
C) nuclease
*D) enterokinase.
3446
*a) 6,5-8,5
b) 5,0-5,5
c) 10-11
d) 1-3.

d) lipase, aldolase
a) ironb) calcium
*c) copper
d) magnesium

creatine?

glucagon?
A. d-AMP
B. d-CMP
*C. c-AMP
D. d-GMP
3447
1. adenine
*2. uric acid
3. urea
1. nucleus
2mitochondria
3. ribosomes
*4. cytoplasm
1. beta alanine
2. xanthine
3. inosinic acid
*4. uric acid
*1. gout
2. glycogenosis
4. beriberi
1. cytosine
2. uracil
*3. guanosine

is
3448
1) xanthine
2) hypoxanthine
*4) uric acid

is
3. urea
*4. uric acid
a) dihydroxyuracil
*b) deoxyribose
c) phosphoric acid
d) thymine
1. TAG
2. MAGE
3. DAG
*4. cAMP


3449
A. replication;
B. transcription;
*C. translation;
D. reparation
called:
A. aminoacyl;
*B. peptidyl;
C. initiation;

transcriptase /



postsynthetic

modification of
proteins

postsynthetic
3450

biosynthesis?
A. carbamoyl
B. DNA synthetase
D. replicase

"the meaning of
*A. universality;
B. specificity;
C. unambiguity;
D. linearity

*A. the degeneracy;
B. the triplet;
C. flexibility;
3451
D. specificity;

nonsense
codons
codons
m-RNA
of another
tRNA

A. translation;
B. replication;
C. transcription;
*D. reparation;
A. termination;
3452
B. recognizing;
*C. elongation;
A. protective
B. nutritional
*C. transportation
D. hormonal

arteries?
A. histamine
B. serotonin
*C. adrenaline
D. angiotensin


A. calcitriol
*Bn. Calcitoni
3453
C. insulin
D. aldosterone

are involved:
*B. aldosterone;
C. prostaglandins;
D. erythropoietin;
.

body?




urine
*A. calcitonin
B. Parathormone
3454
C. insulin
D. aldosterone

*A. AlAT
B. Acid Phosphatase

exchange:
A. fluorine;
B. sodium;
*C. calcium.
D. chlorine;

organism:


3455
salts?
1. uric acid
2. urea
3.Hypuric acid
*4. ammonia

2. penetrating

understand:

cell by passive
transport?
1. kali
2. iron
3. calcium
*4. sodium

3456

b) 6.0 - 8.0 liters
*c) 1.5 - 2.5 liters
d) 3-6 liters

*1.in the kidneys

2. in the liver
3. in the heart
4. in the lungs


c) transferrin
d) interferon
3457
*1.ammonium salts
2. ketone bodies
3. alpha ketoacids
4. uric acid

exchange

*1) vegetables
2) meat
3) milk
4) flour products

*1. 5.3 - 6.5

2. 1.2-2.0
3. 3.5-5.5
4. 9,5- 10

the kidney?
3458
2. trypsinogen
3. pepsinogen
4. urobilinogen
*1) meat
2) milk
3) vegetables


cell?

2. active transport
4. due to water
*1.active transport
3459
4. due to water


stimulating the

nature?
B. Carbohydrate
*D. Peptide
*1. 6.5-8.5
2. 5.0-5.5
3. 10-11
4. 1-3

4. lipase, aldolase

3460

1. iron
2. calcium
*3. copper
4. magnesium
thing?

1. calcitonin
4. insulin

3461


homeostasis


synthesis
of cholesterol:
b) Acylsynthase
c) Acylase
composition:
a) citrate +
b) oxaloacetate;
c) succinate;
3462
d) fumarate.
cycle
used?
a) ATP synthesis
c) propionyl-CoA;
d) acetyl CoA
a) Vitamin D3 +
b) hippuric acid;
c) animal indican;
d) Acetyl CoA;
b. Acylsynthase
3463
c. Acylase
of FA
a) cytoplasm+
b) mitochondria;
c) lysosomes;
d) the core;
a) 2) malate;
b) 3) citrate; +
c) 4) glycerate;
d) 5) ATP.
occurs
in the liver +
a. alanine
3464
b. methionine
occur?
b) 2. in lysosomes
synthesis of
higher fatty acids:
a) glycolysis;
a) 2) malonyl-CoA;
b) 3) acetyl CoA;
a. chylomicrons;
3465
b. VLDL;
c. LDL;
d. HDL +
the
a. Micelles
b. Chylomicrons +
a. serine
b) 2.methionine
b. ethanolamine
a. insulin;
b. androgens;
c. glucagon; +
phosphotylcholine?
a. serine
3466
b) 2.methionine
b. ethanolamine
transport
a) LDL;
b) VLDL; +
c) bile acids;
d) proteolipids.
b. acetyl CoA; +
c. ADP;
d. methionine.
are:a. FADH2;
b. FMNH2;
c. NADPH2 +
d. KoQ.
a. FADH2;
b. FMNH2;
3467
c. NADH2;
d. NADPH2; +
transformation of
a. HMG-CoA.
c. NADH2
followed by
a. citrate +
b. carnitine
c. malate
d. succinate
d. thiolase.
which
3468
uses CO2:
the hormone:
a. glucagon;
b. thyroxin;
c. cortisol;
d. insulin +
phospholipids?
a. GMP
b. CTP +
c. UDP
d. UTP
synthesis of
mole of
palmitic acid?
a. 12 moles
b. 14 moles +
3469
c. 36 moles
phosphatidylcholine
phosphatidylcholine
d. β-ketothiolase.
a) FAD.
b) NADPH. +
c) FADN2.
liver.
3470
c. Glycerolkinase
of
triacylglycerides:
triglycerides in
tissues.
a) glyceric acid
d) malonyle CoA
c. UDP-glucose;
synthesis of ketone
a) Squalene
b) lanosterol
c) mevalonic acid
3471
the
a. malate; +
b. citrate;
c. creatine;
d. aspartate
d) NOOS-CH-CO-S-APB
during the
b. glycerin; +
a. the kidneys;
b. liver; +
c. the intestines;
d. adrenal cortex;
glycerol-3-
in the
intestinal wall?
3472
d. glycerolkinase +
during the
b. glycerin;
c. glyceric acid;
from
d. acetyl CoA
a. Crotonyl-CoA;
b. Palmitoyl-CoA;
c. acetyl CoA; +
d. butyryl CoA.
a. cytoplasm; +
b. mitochondria;
c. the core;
d. lysosomes.
3473
oxidized
a) 12
b) 24
c) 38 +
d) 28
a. Ribose
b. NADPH +
c. NADd. ATP
a) liver +
b) Kidney
c) Erythrocytes
d) Brain
a) 20%
b) 30%
c) 85%
d) 60%
b) hexokinase
d) lipase
a. MG
3474
b. DG
c. TG
a. adrenaline
b. glucagon
c. thyroxine
d. insulin +
a. palmitate
b. arahinate
c. arachidonate +
d. stearate
a. NADH
b. FADH2
c. NADPH +
d. TPP
a. glycerin
b. acetoacetate. +
c. pyruvate
introduction
a) insulin +
b) adrenaline
c) somatotropin
d) glucocorticoids
3475
a. biotin.
b. ATP
c. palmitate +
d. avidin
out.
a. NAD and FAD
b. CTP and UTP
a. bile acids +
b. sex hormones
c. glucocorticoids
a) catecholamines
b) prostaglandins
3476
d) glucagon
a. serine
b. methionine +
PDH
b. succinyl-CoA
d. TG
a) lipoxygenation +
b) methylations
c) decarboxylase
a) butiryl CoA +
b) palmitic acid
c) stearic acid
d) oleic acid
a) HDL +
b) LDL
c) LDL
3477
a) core
b) ribosomes
c) cytoplasm +
d) Golgi complex
a) structure
b) immune +
c) energy
a) core
b) lysosomes
c) cytoplasm +
d) Golgi complex
3478
c. sphingolipids
a. oleic
b. palmitic
c. stearic
the tissue:
a) VLDL
b) LDL
c) HDL
d) chylomicrons +
mother's milk
in infants:
a) an amylase
b) lingual lipase +
c) phospholipase
d) a bile acid
performed
a) HDL +
b) LDL
c) VLDL
d) bile acids
3479
the large
intestine:
a. serotonin
b. tryptamine
c. indole +
a) globulins
b) hemoglobin
c) β-lipoproteins
d) albumins. +
a) glycerol
b) Choline
c) triglycerides
d) cholesterol +
supplied
mainly due to
a. glycolysis
b. cycles of Krebs
a) vitamin K
b) vitamin D +
c) vitamin E
3480
a) in the stomach
b) in lymph
c) in blood
a) soluble in water
a) liver +
b) kidney
c) muscle
d) the spleen
b) cerebrosides
c) triglycerides
blood
b) muscles
c) liver +
d) heart
1. adrenalin
2. somatotropin
3. testosterone +
3481
4. triiodtrionin
a. Can
b. Can not +
d. I don’t know
a) cholic acid
b) cholesterol +
c) chenodeoxycholic
d) lanosterol
c) fatty acid
d) triacylglycerols
a) phospholipids
b) cholesterol
c) waxes
a) LDL
b) HDL
c) VLDL
d) Chylomicrons +
intestine into
3482
the tissue:
a) VLDL
b) LDL
c) HDL
d) chylomicrons +
a) NADHb) biotin
c) sphingosine
d) NADPH (H) +
a) lipoprotein +
b) flavoproteins
c) phosphoproteins
d) hemoprotein
a) lecithin
d) Serine +
a) the oral cavity
b) the stomach +
c) the esophagus
d) small intestine
3483
b) lipolysis
d) protein synthesi
A. phospholipids
B. cholesterol
C. waxes
e) pH =3,0-4,0
a. pH =12,0-14,0
b. pH =1,0-2,0c. pH =8,0-8,5 +
A) in lungs
B) in the brain
C) in the liver +
D) in the blood
of a
liver?
3484
A) increases
B) decreases +
C) doesn't change
ATP:
a) the cytosol
b) lysosomes
d) mitochondria +
a) NAD
b) FMN
c) cytochromes
a) oxaloacitate +
b) citrate
c) isocitrate
d) fumarate
a. diacylglycerols
b. fatty acids
c. cholesterol
d. Phospholipids +
digestion of
dietary fat are:
3485
digestion of
b) insulation; +
a) lipoprotein +
b) flavoproteins
c) phosphoproteins
d) hemoprotein
a) the oral cavity;
b) the stomach; +
c) the esophagus;
d) small intestine;
intestine into
the tissue:
3486
a) VLDL;
b) LDL;
c) HDL;
a) phospholipids; +
c) fatty acid.
a) glycerol
b) choline
c) triglycerides
d) cholesterol +
a) blood
b) muscles
c) liver +
d) heart
a) structure;
b) immune; +
c) energy;
mother's
3487
c) phospholipase;
d) a bile acid;
a) globulins;
b) hemoglobin;
c) β-lipoproteins;
d) albumins. +
a) cholic acid
b) cholesterol +
c) chenodeoxycholic
d) lanosterol
membranes
d) triacylglycerol
a) pepsin;
b) carbon dioxide;
c) fiber;
d) a bile acid +
3488
a) in the stomach
b) in lymph
c) in blood
b) cerebrosides;
c) triglycerides;
a. linoleic
d. oleic +
ATP:
a) the cytosol;
b) lysosomes;
d) mitochondria. +
fatty acids
3489
a) 3;
b) 4;
c) 2; +
d) 1;
a) acetoacetyl-CoA
b) acetoacetate +
c) butyrate
a) liver; +
b) kidney;
c) muscle;
d) the spleen;
b) pepsinogen
c) amylase
d) lactate
proteases is -
b. monosaccharides
c. glycerol
3490
1. Hormones
a. Act as coenzyme
b. Act as enzyme
b. +Thyroxine
d. Glucagon

the second
messenger cAMP is
b. cortisol
c. calcitriol
d. progesteron
a. +growth hormone
b. vasopressin
c. oxytocin
d. epinephrine
a. +vasopressin
3491

a. thyroxine
b. +growth hormone
c. insulin
d. glucagon
a. somatostatin

major
a. Cortisol
b. Insulin
c. Vasopressin
d. +Aldosterone
3492
completely from
tyrosine?
a. Glucagon
d. Prostaglandins

messenger except
a. +estrogen
b. FSH
d. glucagon

except
a. epinephrine
b. norepinephrine
c. +insulin
d. glucagon

causes the increase
3493
a. +protein
b. fat
c. glycoprotein
d. carbohydrate
d. None of these
a. +androgens
b. glucocorticoids
d. None of these

liver is
a. +lactic acid
b. GTP
c. UTP
d. oxaloacetate

carbohydrate
metabolism?
a. Cortisol
b. Glucagon
3494
c. +Vasopressin
d. Growth hormone

Ca and
phosphate?
b. Aldosterone

water balance?
a. Oxitocin
b. +Vasopressin
c. Calcitonin
d. Aldosterone
a. Oxitocin
b. Vasopressin
c. Calcitonin
d. +Aldosterone
a. +Insulin
b. Thyroxine
c. Adrenaline
d. Cortisol
3495
acids?
a. testosterone
b. vasopressin
c. +adrenaline
d. glucagon
a. glucagon
b. +cortisol
c. corticotropin

c. in ribosomes
d. in microsomes

b. in ribosomes
messenger is:
b. protein kinase
c. +cyclic AMP
d. GTP
3496


thyroid gland?

b. adrenaline
c. +thyroxine
a. pancreas
b. +thyroid gland
d. adrenal medulla

features of
thyroxine?

b. cretinism
3497
c. +myxedema
d. Pheochromocytoma


c. obesity
a. tachycardia
c. loss of wheight
a. protruded eyes
b. goitre
3498
hormone?
a. muscle
b. kidney
c. thyroid gland
d. +bone
a. pancreas
b. adrenal cortex

a. +insulin
b. glucagon
c. glucocorticoids
3499
d. thyroxine

a. adrenal cortex
a. glucagon
b. +hydrocortisone
c. aldosterone
d. progesteron
a. adrenaline
b. vasopressin
c. +aldosterone

the liver?
3500


of:


b. Kohn’s disease
3501

hormone?
a. +estradiol
b. prostaglandins
c. corticosterone

disease?
a. +hypoglycemia
b. hyperglycemia

Addison’s
disease?

d. hyperglycemia
a. thyroid gland
3502
b. hypophysis
c. adrenal medulla
d. +adrenal cortex
b. +adrenal medulla

b. protein
d. steroid hormone

3503

ions
vitamins

metal ions
vitamins
3. Isoenzymes are

a. Transferases
b. +Ligase
c. Hydrolyses
3504
a. Transferases
b. Ligase
c. Hydrolyses
d. +Isomerases

reaction
a. Transferases
b. Ligase
c. Hydrolyses
d. +Isomerases

b. Ligase
c. +Hydrolase
d. Isomerases

reaction
a. Transferases
b. Ligases
c. +Lyases
d. Isomerases

reaction
3505
a. Transferases
b. +Ligases
c. Lyases
d. Isomerases

b. Ligases
c. +Oxidoreductases
d. Isomerases

a. +transferases
b. ligase
c. hydrolyses
d. isomerases

group within a

form are
a. oxidoreductases
b. ligases
c. hydrolyses
d. +isomerases
3506
from one molecule
to another are
a. +oxidoreductases
b. ligases
c. hydrolyses

a. +transferases
b. ligase
c. hydrolyses
d. isomerases

70OC due to
a. +denaturation
b. renaturation
c. activation
d. inhibition
a. active site
b. binding site
c. catalytic site
d. +allosteric site
3507
a. active site
b. binding site
c. catalytic site
d. +allosteric site
a. Transferases
b. Ligase
c. +Hydrolyses

a. amylase
a. amylase

or toxic origin,
a. amylase
3508
a. +8,5
b. 2
c. 10
d. 5
a. 8,5
b. +2
c. 10

in a molecule.
substrate.

in a molecule.
substrate.
3509

in a molecule
substrate

molecules
substrate
28.Zymogen is a
a. Vitamin
c. Modulator
d. Hormone

d. none of these
3510
a. C
b. B6
c. B1

supported by

a. Prosthetic group
b. +Holoenzyme

substrate molecule
is
3511

36.Coenzyme is
a. +Often a vitamin
c. Always a protein
a. often a vitamin
c. always a protein
d. +often a metal
a. +Fischer
b. Koshland
c. Buchner
d. Kuhne
a. Fischer
b. +Koshland
c. Buchner
d. Kuhne
3512

c. Both (A) and (B)
d. None of these
b. TPP
c. NAD

a. +Apoenzyme
b. Coenzyme
c. Prosthetic group
d. None of these

belongs to the
category:
a. +Transferases
b. Lysases
c. Oxidoreductases
d. Isomerases
a. Desmolase
3513
b. Hydrolase
c. +Dehydrogenase
d. Transaminase

called
a. Chemical energy
b. Metabolic energy
d. Potential energy
a. Kidney disease
d. None of these

site?
d. All of these
a. ATP
b. +Vitamin B and C
d. All of these
3514
a. Invertase
b. Maltase
c. Sucrase
d. +Amylase
a. ATP
b. +PLPc. FAD
d. NAD+

of
a. +Transferases
b. Oxidoreductases
c. Isomerases
d. Lyases


physico-chemical
properties?
3515
a. +Isoenzymes
b. Holoenzymes
c. Zymogens
d. Cofactors
a. Protein
b. +Starch
c. Sucrose
d. Glucose

type of reactions:
a. Hydrolysis
b. Oxidation
c. Reduction

a. Prosthetic group
b. Cofactor
c. Coenzyme
d. +Holoenzyme

only, but it

of
3516
a. +Stereochemical
b. Absolute
c. Absolute group
d. Relative group

in patient’s
a. +Amylase
b. Protein kinase
c. Cholinesterase

blood plasma
a. Pepsin
b. Trypsin
c. Amylase

a. +LDH1 and LDH2

b. LDH3 and LDH4
c. LDH3
d. LDH4 and LDH5
3517
caused by:
a. decarboxylation
b. renaturation
d. +Denaturation

reactivated after
inhibitor removal:
a. Substrate
b. Noncompetitive
c. Reversible
d. +Irreversible

parameters are

3518
disturbance of
metabolism of
a. histamin
b. glycine
c. tryptophan
d. +phenylalanine

lactose degradation
in the intestine?
a. Peptidase
b. Saccharase
c. Maltose
d. +Lactase

hydroxylase,

excessive
production of
a. tyrosine
b. phenol
c. cresol
d. +phenylpyruvate
3519
hepatic enzyme
b. tyrosinase

tyrosine
a. +phenylketonuria
b. citrullinemia
d. alkaptonuria

b. glucosoisomerase
c. hexokinase

developing of
a. Glucosoisomerase
b. Hexokinase
a. Arsenite
3520
b. +Malonate
c. Citrate
d. Fluoride
d. Fumarase

b. +Hexokinase
c. Phosphorylase

glucose is
b. Hexokinase
c. Phosphorylase

b. Glucosoisomerase
c. Hexokinase
3521
b. +fructokinase

human tissues?
a. maltose
b. starch
c. +glycogen
d. cellulose

a. fructose
b. +galactose
c. glucose
d. maltose

intestine?
a. +glucose
b. sucrose
c. lactose
3522
d. glycogen

intestine?
a. starch
b. maltose
1c. galactose
d. +fructose

for humans?
a. starch, maltose

b. +In muscles
c. In liver
d. In brain

c. +Liver
d. Brain

3523
b. In the stomach
c. In the duodenum
d. In the intestine

digestion of
carbohydrates?
a. +α-amylase
2b. pepsin
d. hexokinase

the body?
b. +hexokinase
c. phosphorylase
d. isomerase

from pyruvate?
3524
b. +oxaloacetate
c. lactose
d. malate
a. lactase
c. phosphorylase

3b. +fructokinase

lactose?
a. Lysosomes
b. Mitochondria
c. +Cytoplasm
d. Ribosomes
3525
are catalyzed by
a. hexokinase
d. +pyruvate kinase

glycolysis?
a. Pyruvate
c. +Lactate
d. Acetyl CoA

of anaerobic
4a. +2
b. 3
c. 12
d. 38

of aerobic
a. 2
b. 3
c. 12
3526
d. +38

is its conversion
to:
a. lactate
b. +acetyl CoA
c. glyceraldehyde
d. oxaloacetate
a. brain
b. muscles
c. +liver
d. adrenal cortex
a. Peptide bond
56

3527
glycogen synthesis?
a. +Glucose
b. Fructose
c. Galactose
d. Sucrose

glycogen?
a. glucokinase
b. +phosphorylase
c. protease
of glycogen?
d. intake of food
as glycogenoses?

d. Cushing syndrome
3528

of gluconeogenesis?
c. aldolase
of glycolysis?


3529
phosphate?
a. fructokiase
b. +glucokinase
d. phosphorylase
b. +pyruvate kinase

decarboxylation
of pyruvate?
a. oxaloacetate
b. lactate
d. +acetyl CoA

6- phosphate
dehydrogenase?
c. FAD
d. +NADP
3530



pyruvate to
oxaloacetate?

b. pyruvate kinase
a. obesity
b. bone fragility
c. +cataract
of maltose?
3531
ofsucrose?

of glycolysis?
a. enolase
c. aldolase
of glycogen?
a. N-glycoside bond
a. glucose
3532
d. UDP-glucose

adults is:
a. 1.5 – 2.5 mmol/L

b. +3.35 – 5.55 mmol/L
c. 7.5 – 12.5 g/L11
d. 8.55 – 20.52 μmol/L

d. Pheochromocytoma
a. hepatitis
b. nephritis
of gluconeogenesis?
a. hexokinase
c. pyruvate kinase

of glucose in the
3533
blood?
a. adrenaline
b. glucagon
c. thyroxine
d. +insulin

form of glucose in
animals?12
a. lactose
b. starch
c. proteoglycans
d. +glycogen
to hyperglycemia?
a. glycolysis
a. aldosteron
b. glucagon
c. +insulin
d. cortisol

substrate-level
3534

a. +insulin
b. glucagon
c. cortisol
d. aldosteron13
a. Sanger
b. Watson and Crick
c. Mitchell
d. +Crebs

cycle located?
a. In the cytoplasm
b. +In mitochondria
c. In the nucleus
d. In ribosomes

cycle?
a. Ammonia
b. Glucose
3535
c. +Acetyl CoA
d. ATP
dehydrogenase?
a. FAD
b. +NAD+
c. TDP
d. HSCоА
a. citrate synthase

of 1 molecule
a. 2
b. 3
c. +12
d. 38
a. citrate synthase
3536
d. fumarase

vitamin В2
deficiency?
d. aconitase
b. aconitase



succinate
dehydrogenase?
a. TDP
b. NAD
3537
c. HSCoA
d. +FAD

pathways?
a. gluconeogenesis
b. glycolysis
d. transamination

pathways?
a. glycogenolysis
d. Gluconeogenesis

d. Hexokinase

disease?
b. Gluconeogenes
3538
c. Glucogenesis
d. +Glycogenolysis
a. hypothyrodism
b. hypothyrosis

starvation is

3539



hypoglycemia and
b. Cory's disease

a. fructosuria
3540
b. +galactosemia
17c. hyperglycemia
d. hypoglycemia

cataract, mental
a. +Galactosemia
d. Fructosuria

a. Pepsine
b. Maltase
c. Isomerase
d. +Lactase
d. All of these
a. Glycolysis
3541
d. +Gluconeogenesis

liver is by
1. Which of the following amino acid can have o-glycoxylation linkage in

oligosaccharide molecule:
a) Asparagine
b) Glutamine
[[c) Serine]]
d) Cysteine
Correct = Serine
2. Enzyme deficient in I cell disease:
[[a) GlcNAc phosphotransferase]]
3542
b) Mannose Phosphotranferase
c) Phosphodiesterase
d) Mannose 6 phosphate transferase
Correct = GlcNAc phosphotransferase
1. Immunoglobulins are:
a) Proteins
[[b) Glycoproteins]]
c) Proteoglycan
d) Glycoside
Correct = Glycoproteins
a) Prion disease
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) Beta thalassemia
[[d) Ehler’s danlos syndrome]]
Correct = Ehler’s danlos syndrome
3543
2. Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other
proteins?
a) Proteases
b) Proteosomes
c) Templates
[[d) Chaperones]]
Correct = Chaperones
3. All are TRUE about chaperones except?
a) Many of them are known as heat shock proteins
b) They use energy during the protein-chaperone interaction
[[c) Ubiquitin is one of the most important chaperone]]
d) They are present in wide range of species from bacteria to human
Correct = Ubiquitin is one of the most important chaperone
a) A naturally present protein in normal individuals
b) Involves selectively blood vessels
c) Is visible by naked eyes as whitish cheesy material
[[d) A material which gets deposited inn extra-cellular spaces]]
Correct = A material which gets deposited inn extra-cellular spaces
5. The sequence that target proteins to lysosome is:
[[a) Mannose 6phosphate]]
b) PTS
c) KDEL
d) NLS
3544
Correct = Mannose 6phosphate
1. Collagen of which type is found in hyaline cartilage?
a) Type I
[[b) Type II]]
c) Type III
d) Type IV
Correct = Type II
2. Keratin is present in both skin and nail. But nail is harder than skin. The
reason is:
[[a) Increased no of disulphide bonds]]
b) Decreased no of water molecules
c) Increased Na content
d) Increased hydrogen bond
Correct = Increased no of disulphide bonds
3. The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell or

in the formation of matrices in the body. The shape of these protein is:
a) Globular
[[b) Fibrous]]
c) Stretch of beadas
d) Planar
3545
Correct = Fibrous
a) Immunoglobulin
b) Hemoglobin
[[c) Collagen]]
d) Keratin
Correct = Collagen
5. All of the following are required for hydroxylation of proline in collagen

synthesis except?
a) O2
b) Vitamin C
[[c) Monooxygenases]]
[[d) Monooxygenases]]
Correct = Monooxygenases
a) Type I
b) Type II
c) Type III
[[d) Type IV]]
Correct = Type IV
3546
1. Precipitation of proteins occurs in all except?
a) Adding, alcohol and acetone
[[b) PH changes is moved awy from isoelectirc pH]]
c) With Trichloro acetic acid
d) With Heavy metals
Correct = PH changes is moved awy from isoelectirc pH
2. In HbS, Glutamic acid replaced by valine. What will be its electrophoretic

mobility?
a) Increased
[[b) Decreased]]
c) No change
d) Dependson level of concerntration of HbS
Correct = Decreased
a) Single nucleotide change results in change of Glutamine to Valine
b) RFLP result from a single base change
[[c) ‘sticky patch’ is generated as a result of replacement of a nonpolar

residue with a polar residue]]
d) HbS confers resistance against malaria in heterozygotes
Correct = ‘sticky patch’ is generated as a result of replacement of a nonpolar

residue with a polar residue
3547
4. Following SDS PAGE electrophoresis, proteins is found to be 100kDa. After
treatment with mercaptoethanol, it shows 2 bands of 20 kDa and 30 KDa widely
separated. True statement is:
a) Protein has undergone hydrolysis of S-S linkage
b) It is a dimer of 3 subunits of 20 and 30 KDa
[[c) It is a dimer of 2 subunits of 20 and 30 KDa]]
d) Protein break down due to non convalent linkage
Correct = It is a dimer of 2 subunits of 20 and 30 KDa
5. Protein is purified using ammonium sulphate by:
[[a) Salting out]]
b) Ion exchange chromatography
c) Mass chromatography
d) Molecular size exclusion
Correct = Salting out
6. All of the following can determine the protein structure except?
[[a) High performance liquid chromatography]]
b) Mass spectrometry
c) X-ray crystallography
d) NMR spectrometry
Correct = High performance liquid chromatography
a) Ultra filtration
[[b) Native gel electrophoresis]]
c) 2D gel electrophoresis
3548
d) Gel filtration chromatography
Correct = Native gel electrophoresis

selectively released from stationary phase into the positively charged molecules
a) Affinity chromatography
[[b) Ion- exchange chromatography]]
c) Adsorption chromatography
d) Size- exclusion chromatography
Correct = Ion- exchange chromatography
a) FISH
[[b) FRAP]]
c) Confocal microscopy
d) DNA microscopy
Correct = FRAP
10. Molecules up to size 4 KD is identified by:
a) Gene array chip
b) Electron spray ionization
[[c) Quadruple mass spectromtery]]
d) Matrix assisted laser desorption ionisation
Correct = Quadruple mass spectromtery
3549
a) Sanger’s reagent
[[b) Benedicts reagent]]
c) Trypsin
d) Cyanogen bromide
Correct = Benedicts reagent
2. Method used to study the structure of proteins include all except?
a) UV Spectroscopy
b) NMR Spectroscopy
c) X-ray crystallography
[[d) Edman’s technique]]
Correct = Edman’s technique
3. Sanger’s reagent is chemically:
a) 2,4 Dinitro benzene
b) 2,4 Dinitro Cresol
[[c) 1,Flouro 2,4 Dinitro Benzene]]
d) 1,Flouro 2,4 Dinitro Benzenel
Correct = 1,Flouro 2,4 Dinitro Benzene
a) Protein consisting of one polypeptide can have quaternary structure
3550
b) The formation of disulphide bond in a protein require that the two
participating cysteine residues be adjacent to each other in the primary sequence
of the protein
c) The formation of disulphide bond in a protein require that the two

participating glycine residues be adjacent to each other in the primary sequence
of the protein
[[d) The inforamtion required for the correct folding of a protein is

contained in the specific sequence of amino acid along the polypeptide chain]]
Correct = The inforamtion required for the correct folding of a protein is

contained in the specific sequence of amino acid along the polypeptide chain
5. An alpha helix of a protein is most likely to be disrupted if a missense

mutation introduces the following amino acid within the alpha helical structure:
a) Alanine
b) Aspartic acid
c) Tyrosine
[[d) Glycine]]
Correct = Glycine
a) Denatured state
b) Molecular aggregation
c) Precipitation
[[d) Quaternary structure]]
Correct = Quaternary structure
[[a) Monomer]]
3551
b) Homodimer
c) Heterodimer
d) Tetramer
Correct = Monomer
[[a) Peptide bond]]
b) Hydrogen bond y
c) Disulphide bond
d) Electrostatic bond
Correct = Peptide bond
9. Polypeptide formation in amino acid is by
[[a) Primary structure]]
b) Secondary structure
c) Tertiary structure
d) Quaternary structure
Correct = Primary structure
10. Rossman fold associated NADH domain is found in which enzyme
a) Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
[[b) Lactate dehydrogenase]]
c) Alpha ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase
d) Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
Correct = Lactate dehydrogenase
3552
1. Which one of the following can be homologous substitution for isolecuine in
a protein in sequence?
a) Methionine
b) Aspartic acid
[[c) Valine]]
d) Arginine
Correct = Valine
2. Isoelectric point is when:
[[a) Net charge of protein in zero]]
b) Mass of protein in zero
c) Protein
d) Denaturation of protein occurs
Correct = Net charge of protein in zero
3. Biuret test is used for detection of:
[[a) Protein]]
b) Cholesterol
c) Steroid
d) Sugar
Correct = Protein
4. What type of protein in Casein?
3553
a) Lipoprotein
[[b) Phosphoprotein]]
c) Glycoprotein
d) Flavoprotein
Correct = Phosphoprotein
5. Which is/are not transport protein?
a) Transferrin
[[b) Collagen]]
c) Ceruloplasmin
d) Hemoglobin
Correct = Collagen
6. The process in which amino group of amino acid is transferred to keto acid
and keto group of keto acid is transferred to the amino acid is called
a) Phosphorylation
[[b) Transamination]]
c) Deamination
d) Decarboxylation
Correct = Transamination
7. Which intermediate of citric acid cycle is used in detoxification of ammonia

in brain?
a) Citrate
b) Succinate
[[c) Alpha-ketoglutarate]]
d) Oxalo-acetate
3554
Correct = Alpha-ketoglutarate
8. True about urea cycle:
a) Nitrogen of urea comes from alanine and ammonia
[[b) Carbon of urea comes from bicarbonate]]
c) Occur mainly in cytoplasm
d) Malate is a byproduct of urea cycle
Correct = Carbon of urea comes from bicarbonate
9. A patient presented to casualty with nausea, vomiting. Intravenous glucose

was given and the patient recovered. After few months, patient presented with
same complaints. Blood glutamine was found to be increased. Also uracil levels
were raised. What is the diagnosis?
a) CPS-I deficiency
b) Argino succinate synthetase deficiency
c) CPS-II deficiency
[[d) Ornithine trans carbamoylase deficiency]]
Correct = Ornithine trans carbamoylase deficiency
10. In urea synthesis, Carbon comes from:
[[a) Bicarbonate]]
b) Methyl THF
c) Formate
d) NS, NlO methylene THF
Correct = Bicarbonate
3555
a) Oxidation
[[b) Transamination]]
c) Dehydrogenation
d) Demination
Correct = Transamination
12. Glutamate is formed from which amino acid
a) Threonine
[[b) Alanine]]
c) Proline
d) Lysine
Correct = Alanine
13. Ammonia from brain is trapped by
a) Urea
b) Glutamate
[[c) Glutamine]]
d) Glycine
Correct = Glutamine
14. Phenylbutyrate because it
[[a) Scavenges nitrogen]]
b) Activates enzymes
c) Maintains renal output
d) Maintains energy production
Correct = Scavenges nitrogen
3556
15. Nontoxic form of storage and ammonia:
a) Aspartic acid
b) Glutamate
[[c) Glutamine]]
d) Glutamic acid
Correct = Glutamine
16. In urea cycle, hydrolysis occurs during
[[a) Cleavage of Arginine]]
b) Formation of ornithine
c) Formation of Argininosuccinate
d) Formation of citrulline
Correct = Cleavage of Arginine
a) Dehydrogenase
[[b) CPS-I]]
c) CPS-II
d) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
Correct = CPS-I
a) Cytosolic enzyme
[[b) Hepatic mitochondrial enzyme]]
c) Lysosomalenzyme
d) All of the above
3557
Correct = Hepatic mitochondrial enzyme
19. Source of nitrogen in urea cycle is
a) Glutamate and NH3
b) Glutamate and aspartate
c) Arginine and aspartate
[[d) NH3 and aspartate]]
Correct = NH3 and aspartate
20. In the biosynthesis of urea, one nitrogen atom is derived from ammonia while
the other nitrogen atom is from
a) Glcyine
b) Alanine
[[c) Aspartate]]
d) Glutamate
Correct = Aspartate
a) Carnosine
b) Anserine
[[c) Homocarnosine]]
d) Pantothenic acid
Correct = Homocarnosine
a) Citrulline
3558
[[b) Aspatrate]]
c) Ornithine
d) Arginine
Correct = Aspatrate
23. Not a metabolic product of urea cycle
a) Ornithine
[[b) Alanine]]
c) Citrulline
d) Arginine
Correct = Alanine
[[a) Endothelium]]
b) Ectoderm
c) Endoderm
d) Bones
Correct = Endothelium
25. Nitric oxide in synthesized from?
[[a) L-arginine]]
b) Aspartate
c) L-citrulline
d) Lysine
Correct = L-arginine
3559
a) Otherwise called Endothelium derived Relaxing Factor
b) Nitric Oxide Synthase has three isoforms
c) Produced from arginine
[[d) Acts through cAMP]]
Correct = Acts through cAMP
27. EDRF is
a) S02
[[b) NO]]
c) Np
d) N02
Correct = NO
a) Urea formed from ammonia
[[b) Rate limiting enzyme is ornithine transcarbamoylase]]
c) Require Energy expenditure
d) Malate is byproduct of urea cycle
Correct = Rate limiting enzyme is ornithine transcarbamoylase
29. True about urea cycle:
a) Nitrogen of the urea comes from alanine and ammonia
b) Uses ATP during conversion of arginosuccinate to
[[c) On consumption of high amount of protein, excess of urea formed]]
d) Occur mainly in cytoplasm
Correct = On consumption of high amount of protein, excess of urea formed
3560
[[a) Glutamate dehydrogenase]]
b) Argininosucinate synthetase
c) A- KG dehydorogenase
d) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Correct = Glutamate dehydrogenase
a) Glutaminase
b) Asparginase
[[c) Ornithine transcarboxylase]]
d) Glutamate dehydrogenase
Correct = Ornithine transcarboxylase
32. Hyperammonemia inhibit TCA cycle by depleting
a) Oxaloacetate
[[b) Alpha-ketoglutarate]]
c) Citrate
d) Succinyl Co-A
Correct = Alpha-ketoglutarate
33. AU are urea cycle enzymes except
a) Ornithine transcarbamoylase
b) CPS -1 (carbamoyl phosphate synthetase-!)
c) Arginosuccinatelyase
3561
[[d) Citrulline synthase]]
Correct = Citrulline synthase
1. Vasodilator produced by decarboxylation of:
[[a) Histidine]]
b) Glutamic acid
c) Aspertic acid
d) Lysine
Correct = Histidine
2. Nitric oxide synthesised from:
[[a) Arginine]]
b) Citrulline
c) Alanine
d) Cysteine
Correct = Arginine
3. Histidine load test is used for:
[[a) Folate deficiency]]
b) Histidine deficiency
c) Histamine deficiency
d) Cysteine
Correct = Folate deficiency
3562
4. True about Nitric Oxide are all except:
a) Produced from arginine
b) Nitric Oxide Synthase has three isoforms
c) Otherwise called endothelium derived relaxing factor
[[d) Acts through c AMP]]
Correct = Acts through c AMP
[[a) Arginine]]
b) Lysine
c) Leucine
d) Histamine
Correct = Arginine
6. Histidine is converted to Histamine by which reaction?
a) Carboxylation
b) Oxidation
[[c) Decarboxylation]]
d) Amination
Correct = Decarboxylation
7. Branched chain ketoacid decarboxylation is defective in:
[[a) Maple syrup urine disease]]
b) Hartnup disease
c) Alkaptonuria
3563
d) GMI Gangliosidosis
Correct = Maple syrup urine disease
[[a) E I alpha]]
b) E I
c) E 2
d) E 3
Correct = E I alpha
9. Which is not formed from branched chain amino acid?
[[a) Xanthurenate]]
b) Tiglyl CoA
c) Acetoacetyl CoA and acetyl CoA
d) Acetyl CoA and CoA
Correct = Xanthurenate
10. Treatment used in isovaleric aciduria:
a) Arginine
b) Lysine
[[c) Glycine]]
d) Methionine
Correct = Glycine
11. Which of the following amino acid is excreted in urine in maple syrup urine
disease?
3564
a) Tryptophan
b) Phenylalanine
[[c) Leucine]]
d) Arginine
Correct = Leucine
[[a) Choline]]
b) Niacin
c) Pantothenic acid
d) Riboflavin
Correct = Choline
13. Proline is formed from
a) Alpha ketoglutarate
[[b) Glutamate]]
c) Pyruvate
d) Alanine
Correct = Glutamate
14. The nitrogen atom of aspartate formed from asparagines using enzyme
asparaginase is from:
a) Ammonium
b) Glutamate
[[c) Glutamine]]
d) Alpha ketoglutarate
Correct = Glutamine
3565
15. Oxaloacetate is formed from:
a) Proline
b) Histidine and arginine
c) Glutamate and glutamine
[[d) Aspartate and asparagine]]
Correct = Aspartate and asparagine
16. Amino acid responsible for Thioredoxin reductase activation:
a) Serine
[[b) Selenocysteine]]
c) Cysteine
d) Alanine
Correct = Selenocysteine
a) Glutamine and glutamate
[[b) Asparagine and aspartate]]
c) Histidine and arginine
d) Glutamine and proline
Correct = Asparagine and aspartate
a) Phenyl Ketonuria
b) Homocystinuria
[[c) Glutaric acidemia]]
3566
d) MSUD
Correct = Glutaric acidemia
19. During the formation of hydroxyl proline and hydroxyl lysine, the essential
factor required is/are:
a) Pyridoxal phosphate
[[b) Ascorbic acid]]
c) Thiamine pyrophosphate
d) Methylcobalamine
Correct = Ascorbic acid
a) Histidine
b) Leucine
[[c) Valine]]
d) Lysine
Correct = Valine
a) Alpha
[[b) Beta Carbon atom]]
c) Gamma
d) Delta
Correct = Beta Carbon atom
3567
a) Lysine
b) Ornithine
[[c) Cysteine]]
d) Cystine
Correct = Cysteine
2. Tripeptide is:
[[a) Glutathione]]
b) Anserine
c) Carnosline
d) Homocarnosine
Correct = Glutathione
3. In a case of classic homocystinuria what should be supplemented in the diet

to prevent heart attacks?
[[a) Pyridoxine]]
b) Methionine
c) Methyl cobalamine
d) Niacin
Correct = Pyridoxine
4. Sulphur of cysteine are not used/utilised in the body for the following
process/ product:
3568
a) Help in the conversion of cyanide to thiocyanate
b) Thisoulphate formation
[[c) Introdction of sulphur in methionine]]
d) Disulphide bond formation b/w two adjacent peptide
Correct = Introdction of sulphur in methionine
a) Glutathione
b) Glycine
[[c) Glutamate]]
d) GABA
Correct = Glutamate
a) Glutamic acid
b) Glycine
[[c) Cysteine]]
d) Alanine
Correct = Cysteine
1. Serotonin is:
a) 5hydroxy Tryptophan
[[b) 5 Hydroxy Tryptamine]]
3569
c) 5 carboxy Tryptamine
d) 5 carboxy Tryophan
Correct = 5 Hydroxy Tryptamine
[[a) Fumaryl aceto acetate hydrolase]]
b) Tyrosine transaminase
c) Para hydroxy phenyl pyuvate hydroxylase
d) Homogentisate oxidase
Correct = Fumaryl aceto acetate hydrolase
a) Pheochromocytoma
[[b) Carcinoid Syndrome]]
c) Phenyl Ketouria
d) Alkaptonuria
Correct = Carcinoid Syndrome
[[a) Pheochromocytoma]]
b) Carcinoid syndrome
c) Phenyl ketonuria
d) Alkptonuria
Correct = Pheochromocytoma
3570
a) Tryptophan
[[b) Tyrosine]]
c) Methionine
d) Alanine
Correct = Tyrosine
6. Melatonin derived from:
[[a) Tryptophan]]
b) Tyrosine
c) Methionine
d) Alanine
Correct = Tryptophan
[[a) NTBC]]
b) Vitamin B6
c) Large neutral amino acids
d) Tyrosin restricted diet
Correct = NTBC
a) FIGLU
[[b) Xanthurenic acid]]
c) Methyl malonic acid
d) VMA
Correct = Xanthurenic acid
3571
a) Tryptophan
b) Threonine
[[c) Tyrosine]]
d) Lysine
Correct = Tyrosine
a) Replacement of the defective enzyme
b) Replacement of the deficient product
[[c) Limiting the substrate for deficient enzyme]]
d) Giving the missing amino acid by diet
Correct = Limiting the substrate for deficient enzyme
11. A 40-years- old women presents with progressive palmoplantar pigmentation.

X-ray spine shows calcification of IV disc. On adding benedicts reagent to urine,
it gives greenish brown precipitate and blue-black supernatant fluid. What is
the diagnosis?
[[a) Alkaptonuria]]
b) Tyrosinemia type 2
c) Argininosuccinic aciduria
d) Phenylketonuria
Correct = Alkaptonuria
[[a) Dopamine --> Norepinephrine]]
b) Dopa to dopamine
3572
c) Nor epinephrine to epinephrine
d) Tyrosine to dopa
Correct = Dopamine --> Norepinephrine
a) Tyrosine transaminase
[[b) Fumaryl aceto acetate hydrolase]]
c) 4 hydroxy phenyl pyruvate hydroxylase
d) Maleyl acetoacetate isomerase
Correct = Fumaryl aceto acetate hydrolase
14. Enzyme deficiency in albinism is:
[[a) Tyrosinase]]
b) Tyrosine hydroxylase
c) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
d) Homogentisate oxidase
Correct = Tyrosinase
15. Mousy body odour is due to:
a) Phenylalanine
[[b) Phenyl Acetate]]
c) Phenyl Butazone
d) Phenyl Acetyl Glutamine
Correct = Phenyl Acetate
3573
a) Glycine
[[b) Tryptophan]]
c) Phenylalanine
d) Lysine
a) Glycine
b) Methionine
c) Threonine
[[d) Tyrosine]]
Correct = Tyrosine
18. Tyrosinemics are more susceptible to develop
a) Adenocarcinoma colon
b) Melanoma
c) Retinoblastoma
[[d) Hepatic carcinoma]]
Correct = Hepatic carcinoma
[[a) Glycine]]
b) Serine
c) Threonine
d) Lysine
Correct = Glycine
3574
20. Which of the following is true about glycine?
a) Glycine is an essential amino acid
b) Sulphur containing at 4th position
c) Has a guanidine group
[[d) Optically inactive]]
Correct = Optically inactive
21. Which of the following would not act as source of glycine by transamination?
a) Alanine
[[b) Aspartate]]
c) Glutamate
d) Glyoxylate
Correct = Aspartate
22. Glycine cleavage system in liver mitochondria is associated with which

enzyme?
[[a) Glycine Dehydrogenase]]
b) Glycine transaminase
c) Glycine Decarboxlase
d) Glycine dehydratase
Correct = Glycine Dehydrogenase
23. Guanido acetic acid is formed in
[[a) Kidney; Arginine+ Glycine]]
b) Liver; Methionine+ Glycine
c) Liver; Cysteline+ Arginine
3575
d) Muscle; citrulline+ Aspartate
Correct = Kidney; Arginine+ Glycine
24. N Methyl Glycine is known as:
a) Ergothionine
[[b) Sarcosine]]
c) Carnosine
d) Betaine
Correct = Sarcosine
a) Glycine cleavage system
b) Alanine glyoxalate amino transferase
[[c) D glycerate dehydrogenase]]
d) Excess vitamin C
Correct = D glycerate dehydrogenase
26. All are true about glutathione except?
a) It is a tripeptide
[[b) It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin]]
c) It conjugates xenobiotics
d) It is co-factor of various enzyme
Correct = It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin
3576
1. Which enzyme is deficient in c/c alcoholics?
a) Aconitase
b) Citrate Synthase
c) Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
[[d) Alpha Ketogultarate Dehydrogenase]]
Correct = Alpha Ketogultarate Dehydrogenase
2. Alcohol Dehydrogenase comes under which class of enzyme?
[[a) Oxidoreductase]]
b) Dehydrogenase
c) Hydrolase
d) Oxidase
Correct = Oxidoreductase
3. Suicidal enzyme is:
a) Lipoxygenase
[[b) Cyclooxygenase]]
c) Thromboxane
d) Nucleotidase
Correct = Cyclooxygenase
4. Which of the following is Lyase?
[[a) Aldolase B]]
b) Acetyl- CoA Synthetase
c) Fatty Acetyl- CoA Dehydrogenase
3577
d) Acetyl- CoA carboxylase
Correct = Aldolase B
5. All are true about oxygenases, except:
a) Can incorporate 2 atoms of O2 in a substance
b) Can incorporate 1 atom of O2 in a substance
c) Important in hydroxylation of steroids
[[d) Catalyse carboxylation of drugs]]
Correct = Catalyse carboxylation of drugs
6. All of the following enzymes are involved in oxidation reduction, except:
a) Dehydrogenase
[[b) Hydrolases]]
c) Oxygenases
d) Peroxidases
Correct = Hydrolases
7. Enzyme which cleave C-C bond:
[[a) Lyase]]
b) Oxidoreductase
c) Ligase
d) Isomerase
Correct = Lyase
8. Velocity at Km is:
a) Half the substrate concentration
3578
b) Same as Vmax
c) Quarter the Vmax
[[d) Half the Vmax]]
Correct = Half the Vmax
9. Coenzyme in decarboxylaton reaction:
a) Niacin
b) Biotin
[[c) Pyridoxine]]
d) Riboflavin
10. The type of enzyme inhibition in which succinate dehydrogenase reaction is

inhibited by malonate is an example of:
a) Non- competitive
b) Un competitive
[[c) Competitive]]
d) Allosteric
Correct = Competitive
11. Which is true about enzyme kinetics for competitive inhibition?
a) Low km high affinity
b) High km high affinity
[[c) High km low affinity]]
d) Low k low affinity
Correct = High km low affinity
3579
12. Non- competitive enzyme inhibition leads to:
[[a) Vmax?]]
[[b) Vmax?]]
c) Vmax unchanged
d) Km?
Correct = Vmax?
13. Non- competitive reversible inhibitors:
a) Raise Km
b) Lower Km
[[c) Lower Vmax]]
d) Raise both Vmax and Km
Correct = Lower Vmax
14. Km changes and Vmax remains the same. What is the type of enzyme inhibition?
[[a) Competitive inhibition]]
b) Non- Competitive inhibition
c) Uncompetitive inhibition
d) Suicide inhibition
Correct = Competitive inhibition
15. Allosteric regulation true is?
[[a) Binds to site other than active site]]
b) Regulated by acting on catalytic site
c) Follow Michelis maintain Kinetics
d) Substrate and modifier are structural analogues
3580
Correct = Binds to site other than active site
16. All of the covalent modification regulate enzyme kinetic except:
a) Phosphorylation
b) Acetylation
c) ADP Ribosylation
[[d) Glycosylation]]
Correct = Glycosylation
17. The following affect enzyme activity except:
a) Methylation
b) Acetylation
[[c) Induction]]
d) Phosphorylation
Correct = Induction
18. Chymotrypsinogen is a:
[[a) Zymogen]]
b) Carboxpeptidase
c) Transaminase
d) Exopeptidase
Correct = Zymogen
19. A common feature of all serine proteases is:
a) Autocatalytic activation of zymogen precursor
b) Tight binding of pancreatic trypsin inhibitor
3581
c) Cleavage protein on the arboxyl site of serine site
[[d) Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the active site]]
Correct = Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the active site
20. Trypsin is a:
[[a) Serine protease]]
b) Lecithinase
c) Phospholipase
d) Elastase
Correct = Serine protease
21. Marker enzyme for Golgi apparatus
[[a) Galactosyl transferase]]
b) Glucoses 6 Phosphates
c) 5 Nucleotidase
d) Catalase
Correct = Galactosyl transferase
22. Enzyme activity is expressed as
a) Millimoles/lit
[[b) Micromoles/min]]
c) Mg/dl
d) Millimoles/lit
Correct = Micromoles/min
23. Enzymedoesnotactby
3582
a) Forming non-covalent interactions
b) Catalyzing the reaction
[[c) Increasing activation energy]]
d) Increasing the rate of reaction
Correct = Increasing activation energy
24. Mechanism of action of enzymes is all EXCEPT
a) Acid - Base catalysis
b) Catalysis by proximity
[[c) Catalysis by denaturation]]
d) Catalysis by strain
Correct = Catalysis by denaturation
25. Specific activity of enzyme is-
a) Ll mol of enzyme per gram of substrate
[[b) Enzyme units per mg of protein]]
c) Cone. of substrate transformed per minute
d) None
Correct = Enzyme units per mg of protein
26. Serine of chymotrypsin is changed with proline. Which of the following will
happen ?
a) Chymotrypsin can catalyze the protein but cannot bind
[[b) Chymotrypsin can bind the protein but cannot catalyze]]
c) Chymotrypsin can bind the protein as well as can catalyze
d) Cannot decide from given information
Correct = Chymotrypsin can bind the protein but cannot catalyze
3583
27. Trypsin cleaves carboxy terminal of:
a) Glutamate
[[b) Arginine]]
c) Glycine
d) Proline
Correct = Arginine
28. Non vitamin coenzyme is
a) Niacin
b) Coenzyme A
[[c) Lipoic acid]]
d) SAM
Correct = Lipoic acid
29. Coenzymes are ..... organic compounds-
a) Lipoprotein
b) Proteinaceous
[[c) Non-protein]]
d) Any of the above
Correct = Non-protein
30. Apoenzyme is
a) Cofactor
b) Conezyme
[[c) Proein moiety]]
3584
d) None
Correct = Proein moiety
31. Aldehyde dehydrogenase requires NAD+ to act. Here NAD+ is termed as
a) Cofactor
[[b) Coenzyme]]
c) Hypoenzyme
d) Abenzyme
Correct = Coenzyme
32. FAD linked dehydrogenase is
a) Snyol reducatase
b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
[[c) Succinate dehydrogenase]]
Correct = Succinate dehydrogenase
33. Kinases require:
a) Mn2+
b) Inorganic phosphate
c) Cu2+
[[d) Mg2+]]
Correct = Mg2+
34. Zinc is cofactor for
[[a) Carbonic anhydrase]]
3585
b) Phospho fructo kinase
c) Hexokinase
d) Aldolase B
Correct = Carbonic anhydrase
35. Alkaline phosphatase contains
a) Copper
[[b) Zinc]]
c) Iron
d) Cobalt
Correct = Zinc
36. Copper contining enzymes are all except
a) Ascorbic acid oxidase
[[b) Xanthine oxidase]]
c) Amine oxidase
d) Superoxide dismutase (SOD)
Correct = Xanthine oxidase
37. Activator of enzyme sulfite oxidase is:
a) Iron
b) Copper
c) Zinc
[[d) Molybdenum]]
Correct = Molybdenum
3586
38. Carboxylases require-
[[a) Vitamin B7]]
b) Vitamin B2
c) Vitamin Bl2
d) Vitamin Bl
Correct = Vitamin B7
39. Cofactor for glutathione peroxidase
a) Ca+2
[[b) Se]]
c) Mn+2
d) Mg+2
Correct = Se
40. Other name of AST
[[a) SGOT]]
b) Alkaline phosphatase
c) Acid phosphatase
d) SGPT
Correct = SGOT
41. LDH has how many isoenzymes
a) 3, based on B and M polypeptide subunits
b) 5, based on B and M polypeptide subunits
c) 5, based on B and M polypeptide subunits
[[d) 5, based on H and M polypeptide subunits]]
Correct = 5, based on H and M polypeptide subunits
3587
42. The predominant isoenzyme of LDH occurring in liver injury is-
a) LDH- 1
b) LDH- 2
c) LDH- 4
[[d) LDH-5]]
Correct = LDH-5
43. Which isoform of LDH is raised in hemolytic anemia
a) LDH5
b) . LDH3
c) LDH4
[[d) LDH2]]
Correct = LDH2
44. Abzyme is a/an
a) . Isoenzyme
b) Abnormal enzyme
[[c) Antibody with a catalytic activity]]
d) Allosteric enzyme
Correct = Antibody with a catalytic activity
45. Definition ofRibozyme
a) T-RNA
[[b) RNA molecule that acts catalytically to change it self or another RNA
molecule]]
3588
c) Ribonucleoprotein
d) Ribsome
Correct = RNA molecule that acts catalytically to change it self or another RNA
molecule
46. Enzymes found in CSF
a) GGT+ALP
b) ALP+CK
c) MB
[[d) CK+LDH]]
Correct = CK+LDH
47. Chymotrypsin cleaves carbonyl terminal of:
[[a) Phenylalanine]]
b) Arginine
c) Lysine
d) Tryptopha
Correct = Phenylalanine
48. Trypsin cleaves:
[[a) Arginine]]
b) Glutamate
c) Lysine
d) Proline
Correct = Arginine
3589
49. Hydrolase belongs to enzyme category number
[[a) 1]]
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Correct = 1
50. Hydroxylase belongs to enzyme category number
[[a) 1]]
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Correct = 1
51. Which of the following is a lyase
a) Aldolase
b) Fumarase
c) Decarboxylase
[[d) All of the above]]
Correct = All of the above
52. Fumarase is an example of
[[a) Lyase]]
b) Hydrolase
c) Ligase
d) None
Correct = Lyase
3590
53. Digestive enzymes are
[[a) Hydro lases]]
b) Oxidoreductases
c) Dehydrogenases
d) Ligases
Correct = Hydro lases
54. Carbon mono-oxide (CO) is released in reaction catalyzed by-
a) Decarboxylases
b) Carboxylases
[[c) Heme oxygenase]]
d) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Correct = Heme oxygenase
55. The difference in MW between Phenylalanine and Tyrosine is by :
a) 17
[[b) 16]]
c) 64
d) 32
Correct = 16
56. Hydratase belongs to enzyme category number
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
3591
[[d) 4]]
Correct = 4
57. In Hydroxylation reactions, the change in MW is by:
a) 17
[[b) 16]]
c) 64
d) 32
Correct = 16
58. Enzyme which cleaves C-C bond :
[[a) Lyase]]
b) Ligase
c) Transferase
d) Isomerase
Correct = Lyase
59. All are true about oxygenase except
a) Incorporate one atom of 0
b) Incorporate both atoms of 0 2
c) Hydroxylation of steroids
[[d) Help in carboxylation of drugs]]
Correct = Help in carboxylation of drugs
60. Which ofthe following enzymes does not participate in oxidation-reduction

reactions
3592
a) Oxygenases
b) Peroxidases
[[c) Hydro lases]]
d) Dehydrogenases
Correct = Hydro lases
61. Competitive inhibition - characteristic feature is
a) Km decreased
b) Vmax decreased
[[c) Km increased]]
d) Vmax increased
Correct = Km increased
62. Which among the following is a feature of non competetive inhibition
a) Increased Km
[[b) Decreased V max]]
c) Decreased Km
d) Increased V max
Correct = Decreased V max
63. Km of an enzyme is
a) Numerically identical for all isoenzymes that catalyze a given reaction
b) Dissociation constant
[[c) The substrate concentration at half maximum velocity]]
d) The normal physiological substrate concentration
Correct = The substrate concentration at half maximum velocity
3593
64. Which of the following is a functional plasma enzyme!
a) LDH
b) Acid phosphatase
[[c) Prothrombin]]
d) Amylase
Correct = Prothrombin
65. All are non-functional Plasma enzymes, except
[[a) Lipoprotein lipase]]
[[b) Lipoprotein lipase]]
c) Prostate specific phosphatase
d) Alkaline phosphatase
Correct = Lipoprotein lipase
66. Which statementisfalse about covalent modification
a) . It is reversible
b) It is slower than allosteric regulation
[[c) It uses the same enzyme for activation and inactivation]]
d) Phosphorylation is a common covalent modification
Correct = It uses the same enzyme for activation and inactivation
67. Allosteric modulators seldom resemble the substrate or product of the enzyme.
What does this observation show:
[[a) Modulators likely bind at a site other than the active site]]
b) Modulators always act as activators
c) Modulators bind and inhibit the enzyme
3594
d) The enzyme catalyzes more than one reaction
Correct = Modulators likely bind at a site other than the active site
68. Which statement is false about allosteric regulation
[[a) It is usually the mode of regulation for the last step in reaction
pathways]]
b) Cellular response is faster with allosteric control than by controlling

enzyme concentration in the cell
c) The regulation usually is important to the conservation of energy and

materials in cells
d) Allosteric modulators bind non-covalently at sites other than the active

site and induce conformational
Correct = It is usually the mode of regulation for the last step in reaction
pathways
69. Defective proteins are degraded after attaching covalently to-
a) Pepsin
b) Laminin
c) Clathrin
[[d) Ubiquitin]]
Correct = Ubiquitin
70. True regarding ubiquitin is
a) Protein synthesis
[[b) Involved in protein destruction]]
c) Product of purine metabolism
d) Present in prokaryotes
Correct = Involved in protein destruction
3595
71. Proteins which are bound to ubiquitin are degraded in-
[[a) Proteosomes]]
b) Lysosomes
c) Smooth ER
d) Golgi apparatus
Correct = Proteosomes
72. Ubiquitin is involved in
a) Electron transport chain
b) Transport of ATP
[[c) Intracellular proteolysis]]
d) Protein folding
Correct = Intracellular proteolysis
73. Ubiquitin protein is degraded by
[[a) Proteosomes]]
b) Cathepsins
c) Vesicles
d) Golgi apparatus
Correct = Proteosomes
74. Which of the following is a suicide enzyme?
a) Thromboxane synthase
b) 5' Nucleotidase
c) Lipoxygenase
3596
[[d) Cyclooxygenase]]
Correct = Cyclooxygenase
75. Suicidal enzyme is
a) Lipoxygenase
[[b) Cycloxygenase]]
c) Nitric oxide synthase
d) Nuclease
Correct = Cycloxygenase
76. Enzyme inhibited by allopurinolis
a) 5-phosphoribosyl amido transferase
b) Glutathione reductase
c) PRPP synthetase
[[d) Xanthine oxidase]]
Correct = Xanthine oxidase
77. Mechanism of conversion of trypsinogen to trypsin
a) Hydrolysis
b) Removal of Carboxyl group
c) Phosphorylation
[[d) Removal of part of protein]]
Correct = Removal of part of protein
78. All of the following are covalent modifications of enzyme regulation EXCEPT:
a) Phosphorylation
3597
b) ADP Ribosylation
c) Acetylation
[[d) Glycosylation]]
Correct = Glycosylation
79. Which of the following method is for regulating the enzyme's quantity
a) Phosphorylation
[[b) Induction]]
c) Acetylation
d) Glycosylation
Correct = Induction
80. Mechanisms for regulating enzyme activity is/are
[[a) Covalent modification]]
b) Allosteric activation
c) Competitive inhibition
d) Induction of genes for enzyme synthesis
Correct = Covalent modification
81. True about competitive inhibition of enzyme
[[a) Km]]
b) Vmax remain same
c) Tvmax
d) No change in Km & Vmax
Correct = Km
3598
82. Non-competitive enzyme inhibition leads to:
a) Vmaxt
[[b) Vmax,J,]]
c) Vmax unchanged
d) Kmt
Correct = Vmax,J,
83. True about reversible non-competetive inhibitors
a) Lower Vmax
b) LowerKm
[[c) Not affect Km]]
d) Not affect Vmax
Correct = Not affect Km
84. True about Km:
a) Half the substrate concentration at which velocity is maximum
[[b) Substrate concentration at which reaction rate is half the maximum]]
c) Michaelis constant
d) Dissociation constant of enzyme-substrate complex
Correct = Substrate concentration at which reaction rate is half the maximum
1. Ammonia from brain is detoxified as:
a) Glutamate
3599
[[b) Glutamine]]
c) Alanine
d) Urea
Correct = Glutamine
2. True about Glutamate Dehydrogenase:
[[a) Can use NADH or NADPH]]
b) PLP is the coenzyme
c) Enzyme of transamination
d) Ammonium ion is not released in the free form
Correct = Can use NADH or NADPH
[[a) Increased breakdown of muscle proteins]]
b) Impaired renal function
c) Decreased utilization of amino acid from gluconeogenesis
d) Leakage of amino acids from cells due to plasma membrane damage
Correct = Increased breakdown of muscle proteins
4. Transfer of an amino group from an amino acid to an alpha keto acid is done
by:
[[a) Transaminases]]
b) Aminases
c) Transketolases
d) Deaminases
Correct = Transaminases
3600
5. The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to
liver is
[[a) Alanie]]
b) Methionine
c) Arginine
d) Glutamine
Correct = Alanie
[[a) Ammonia transporter]]
b) Toxic element
c) Toxic element
d) Abnormal metabolite
Correct = Ammonia transporter
7. Amino acid absorption is by:
a) Facilitated transport
b) Passive transport
[[c) Active transport]]
d) Pinocytosis
Correct = Active transport
8. The transporter gene defective in Hartup
[[a) SLA 6A 19]]
b) SLA 6A 18
c) SLA 36 A2
3601
d) SLA 7A7
Correct = SLA 6A 19
9. Nontoxic form of storage and transportation of ammonia:
a) Aspartic acid
b) Glutamic acid
[[c) Glutamine]]
d) Glutamate
Correct = Glutamine
10. CPS-I used in which pathway?
a) Pyrimidine synthesis
b) Purine synthesis
[[c) Urea cycle]]
d) TCA cycle
Correct = Urea cycle
11. Urea cycle occurs in
[[a) Liver]]
b) GIT
c) Spleen
d) Kidney
Correct = Liver
12. In which of the following condition there is increased level of ammonia in

blood?
3602
[[a) Ornithine thranscarbamylase deficiency]]
b) Galactosemia
c) Histidinemia
d) Phenylketonuria
Correct = Ornithine thranscarbamylase deficiency
13. Urea cycle occurs in:
a) Cytoplasm
b) Mitochondria
[[c) Both]]
d) Endoplasmic reticulum
Correct = Both
a) ATP
b) GTP
c) NADH
[[d) ADP]]
Correct = ADP
[[a) Ammonium and aspartate]]
b) Ammonium and glutamate
c) Ammonium and glycine
d) Ammonium and asparagine
Correct = Ammonium and aspartate
3603
16. Phenyl butyrate is used in cycle disorder because:
[[a) Scavenges nitrogen]]
b) Increased enzyme activity
c) Maintain energy level
d) Increases renal output of ammonia
Correct = Scavenges nitrogen
17. A 6-month-old boy admitted with failure to thrive with high glutamine and
uracil in urine. Hypoglycemia, high blood ammonia. Treatment given for 2 months.
At 8 months again admitted for failure to gain weight. Gastric tube feeding was
not tolerated. Child became comatose. Parenteral Dextrose given. Child recovered
from coma with 24hrs. What is the enzyme defect?
a) CPS1
[[b) Ornitinetranscarbamoylase]]
c) Arginase
d) Argininosuccinate Synthetase
Correct = Ornitinetranscarbamoylase
18. A baby presents with refusal to feed, skin lesions, seizures, ketosis,
organic acids in urine with normal ammonia, likely diagnosis:
a) Proprionic aciduria
[[b) Multiple carboxylase deficiency]]
c) Maple syrup urine disease
d) Urea cycle enzyme deficiency
Correct = Multiple carboxylase deficiency
3604
a) L-amino acid Oxidase
b) Glutamate Dehydrogenase
c) Glutaminase
[[d) Amino acid Dehydratase]]
Correct = Amino acid Dehydratase
20. Which of these is a conservative mutation?
a) Glutamic acid-glutamine
b) Histidine-glycine
[[c) Alanine-leucine]]
d) Arginine-aspartic acid
Correct = Alanine-leucine
1. What happens to LDH 1 & 2 ration in MI?
[[a) LDH1 > LDH 2]]
b) LDH2 > LDH 1
c) LDH2 > LDH 1
d) Remains the same
Correct = LDH1 > LDH 2
2. True about isoenzymes is:
[[a) Catalyse the same reaction]]
b) Same quaternary structure
3605
c) Same distribution in different organs
d) Same enzyme classification with same number and name
Correct = Catalyse the same reaction
3. Non- functional enzyme are all except?
a) Alkaline phosphatase
b) Alkaline phosphatase
[[c) Lipoprotein lipase]]
d) Gamma-glutamy transpeptidase
4. Peroxidase enzyme is used in estimating:
a) Hemoglobin
b) Ammonia
c) Creatinine
[[d) Glucose]]
Correct = Glucose
5. Which of the following estimate blood creatinine level most accuracy?
a) Jaffe method
b) Kinetic jaffe method
c) Technicon method
[[d) Enzyme assay]]
Correct = Enzyme assay
6. LDH-5 level elevated in which cell injury?
3606
[[a) Liver]]
b) Heart
c) Muscle
d) RBC
Correct = Liver
7. Which of the following LDH is having fastest electrophoretic mobility?
[[a) LDH-1]]
b) LDH-2
c) LDH-3
d) LDH-3
Correct = LDH-1
1. Proteins are sorted by:
[[a) Golgi bodies]]
b) Mitochondria
c) Ribosomes
d) Nuclear Membrane
Correct = Golgi bodies
2. Not true among the following is:
a) Sec61 translocon complex form passage way
b) SRP-R is a docking protein
3607
c) SRP blocks elongation
[[d) SRP-R is ATP bound]]
Correct = SRP-R is ATP bound
3. Endoplasmic reticulum signal transduction isthrough
[[a) Translocon]]
b) Chaperones
c) Ubiquitin
d) Mannose 6 phosphate
Correct = Translocon
4. Not a function of endoplasmic reticulum:
a) Protein synthesis
[[b) Muscle contraction]]
c) Protein sorting
d) Glycoproteins
Correct = Muscle contraction
5. Targeting sequence that direct endoplasmic reticulum resident protein inn

retrograde flow to ER in COP-I vesicles
[[a) KDEL]]
b) KDAL
c) DALK
d) KDUL
Correct = KDEL
3608
a) Cytoplasm
[[b) Endoplasmic reticulum]]
c) First in cytoplasmand then in endoplasmic reticulum
d) First in endoplasmic reticulum and then in cytoplasm
Correct = Endoplasmic reticulum
1. Assay for lipid peroxidation is:
a) MTT assay
b) Ame's test
c) Guthrie test
[[d) FOX assay]]
Correct = FOX assay
2. Pro-oxidant action of vitamin A is potentiated by:
[[a) Copper]]
b) Selenium
c) Iron
d) Cobalt
Correct = Copper
3. Free radical with highest activity:
a) O2
3609
[[b) OH+]]
c) Hypochlorite
d) Peroxynitrite
Correct = OH+
4. Enzyme which catalyse the reaction Hp2 give Hp+02:
[[a) Catalase]]
c) Glutathione peroxidase
d) Glutathione s-transferase
Correct = Catalase
5. Which of the following is not a free radical?
a) Hydroxyl radica
[[b) Hydrogen peroxide]]
c) Superoxide
d) O2
Correct = Hydrogen peroxide
6. Toxicity of ethanol is due to:
[[a) Increased NADH/NAD+ ratio]]
b) Decreased lactate/pyruvate ratio
c) Inhibition of gluconeogenesis
d) Stimulation of fatty acid oxidation
Correct = Increased NADH/NAD+ ratio
3610
7. Best explained pathogenesis of fatty liver in alcoholic liver disease:
a) Increased hydrolysis of fat from adipocytes
b) Decreased synthesis of fatty acids
c) Decreased (NADH]/(NAD+] ratio
[[d) Impaired beta oxidation of fatty acids]]
Correct = Impaired beta oxidation of fatty acids
8. Which of the following is having maximum thermic effect food?
a) Fat
[[b) Protein]]
c) Carbohydrate
d) Does not
Correct = Protein
a) RE site
b) FTR site
[[c) Lox P site]]
d) INT site
Correct = Lox P site
2. Restriction Endonuclease is used in:
[[a) RFLP]]
3611
b) PCR
c) PCR
d) SOS-PAGE
Correct = RFLP
3. Function of endonucleases:
[[a) Cut DNA at specific DNA sequences]]
b) To point out the coding regions
c) Enhancers
d) To find out antibiotic resistance
Correct = Cut DNA at specific DNA sequences
4. Enzymes used in DNA research programme are, except:
a) Polymerase
b) Exonuclease
c) Nuclease
[[d) None]]
Correct = None
5. In DNA transfer the vectors used from smallest to largest is:
a) Cosmids, Plasmids, Bacteriophage
[[b) Plasmids, Bacteriophage, Cosmids]]
c) Bacteriophage, Cosmids, Plasmids
d) Cosmids, Bacteriophage, Plasmids
Correct = Plasmids, Bacteriophage, Cosmids
3612
6. In gene cloning, largest fragment can be incorporated in:
a) Plasmid
b) Bacteriophage
[[c) Cosmid]]
d) Retrovirus
Correct = Cosmid
7. Function of restriction 11 enzyme:
a) Prevents protein folding
b) Removing formed DNA
[[c) Cleaves DNA at palindromic recognition site]]
d) Negative supercoiling
Correct = Cleaves DNA at palindromic recognition site
8. After digestion by restriction endonuclease DNA strands can be joined again

in:
a) DNA polymerase
[[b) DNA ligase]]
c) DNA topoisomerase
d) DNA gyrase
Correct = DNA ligase
9. Starting material for production of insulin from bacteria is:
a) Genomic DNA of lymphocytes
b) M RNA of lymphocytes
c) Genomic DNA of beta cell of pancreas
[[d) MRNA of beta cells of pancreas]]
3613
Correct = MRNA of beta cells of pancreas
10. Correct statements regarding restriction e ase is/are:
[[a) Restriction endonuclease recognizes specific sites of DNA sequence]]
b) Restriction endonuclease recognizes short of DNA
c) It acts at 5' - 3' direction
d) It acts at 3' - 5' direction
Correct = Restriction endonuclease recognizes specific sites of DNA sequence
1. Best explained pathogenesis of fatty liver in alcholic liver disease:
a) Increased hydrolysis of fat from adipocytes
b) Decreased synthesis of fatty acids
c) Decreased [NADH]/[NAD+] ratio
[[d) Impaired beta oxidation of fatty acids]]
Correct = Impaired beta oxidation of fatty acids
1. Real time PCR is used for:
a) Multiplication of RNA
b) Multiplication of specific segment of DNA
3614
c) Multiplication of Protein
[[d) To know how much amplification has occurred]]
Correct = To know how much amplification has occurred
2. Quantitative DNA analysis/estimation is done by:
a) PH meter
b) Sphymometer
c) Sphymometer
[[d) Spectrometer]]
Correct = Spectrometer
3. All are added to PCR, except:
a) Deoxynucleotide
[[b) Dideoxynucleotide]]
c) Thermostat DNAP
d) Template DNA
Correct = Dideoxynucleotide
4. For PCR which of the following is not required?
a) Taq polymerase
b) D-NTP
c) Primer
[[d) Radiolabelled DNA probe]]
Correct = Radiolabelled DNA probe
5. SYBR Green Dye Is used for:
3615
a) HPLC
b) Lmmunofluorescence
[[c) PCR]]
d) ELISA
Correct = PCR
6. Enzyme(s) used in polymerase chain reaction ls/are:
a) Restriction endonuclease
[[b) DNA polymerase]]
c) Alkaline phosphate
d) RNA polymerase
Correct = DNA polymerase
7. True about PCR all except:
a) Carried out by thermostable DNA-polymerase
b) Exponential amplification
[[c) Additive amplification]]
d) Specific amplification
Correct = Additive amplification
8. PCR is used in:
a) Medicolegal cases
b) Amplification of gene
c) Identification of organism
3616
9. Which of the following is used in PCR?
a) Ca ++
[[b) Mg ++]]
c) Li +
d) Na +
Correct = Mg ++
10. In PCR Acquaticus thermophilus is preferred over E.coli, because:
[[a) Thermostable at temperature at which DNA liquefies]]
b) Proof reading done
c) Done in more precisely
d) Does not require primer
Correct = Thermostable at temperature at which DNA liquefies
11. Western blot detects:
a) DNA
b) DNA
[[c) Protein]]
d) MRNA
Correct = Protein
12. Which is the test used to Identify mRNA?
a) Southern Blot
[[b) Northern Blot]]
c) Western Blot
d) South Western Blot
3617
Correct = Northern Blot
1. Correct statment about membrane:
[[a) Phospholipids undergo rapid lateral diffusion]]
b) Tranverse movement of lipids across the membrane is faster than protein
c) Impaired beta oxidation of fatty acids
d) Phospholipid span the whole bilayer
Correct = Phospholipids undergo rapid lateral diffusion
2. Which of the following is having maximum thermic effect food?
a) Fat
[[b) Protein]]
c) Carbohydrate
d) Does not depend on type of food/macronutrient content
Correct = Protein
1. Which method is used to locate a known gene locus?
[[a) FISH]]
b) CGH
3618
c) Chromosome painting
d) RT-PCR
Correct = FISH
2. Light microscopy resolution to visualize chromosomes;
a) 500 kb
b) 5mb
c) 50 mb
[[d) 5kb]]
Correct = 5kb
3. Test to differentiate in the chromosome of normal and cancer cell:
a) PCR
[[b) Comparative genomic hybridization]]
c) Western Blotting
d) Southern Blotting
Correct = Comparative genomic hybridization
4. Karyotyping under light microscopy is done by
a) R banding
b) Q banding
[[c) G banding]]
d) C banding
Correct = G banding
5. Rapid method of chromosome identification in intersex is:
3619
[[a) FISH]]
b) PCR
c) SSCP
d) Karyotyping
Correct = FISH
6. Which of following techniques is used for detection of variation in DNA

sequence and Gene expression?
a) Northern Blot
b) Southern Blot
c) Western Blot
[[d) Microarray]]
Correct = Microarray
7. Which of the following tests in not used for detection of specific aneuploidy?
a) FISH
[[b) RT-PCR]]
c) QF- PCR
d) Microarray
Correct = RT-PCR
8. For isolating a gene of long DNA molecules (50·100 KB) following Is used:
[[a) Chromosome walking]]
b) Sanger's sequencing
c) RFLP
d) SSLP
Correct = Chromosome walking
3620
1. An example of Anaplerotic rection is:
a) Pyruvate to acetaldehyde
[[b) Pyruvate to oxaloacetate]]
c) Pyruvate to lactate
d) Pyruvate to acetyl CoA
Correct = Pyruvate to oxaloacetate
2. A chronic alcoholic have low energy product" because of Thiamine deficiency

as it is:
[[a) Acting as a cofactor for alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and pyruvate

dehydrogenase]]
b) Acting as cofactor for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
c) Interferes with energy production from amino acids
d) Act as cofactor for oxidation reduction
Correct = Acting as a cofactor for alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase and pyruvate

dehydrogenase
3. In which step of TCA cycle ATP is generated
a) Succinate dehdrogenase
[[b) Succinate thiokinase]]
c) Fumarase
d) Malate dehydrogenase
Correct = Succinate thiokinase
3621
4. All of the following amino acids forms Acetyl CoA via Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
a) Glycine
[[b) Tyrosine]]
c) Hydroxyproline
d) Alanine
Correct = Tyrosine
5. Which of the following is not an intermediate of TCA cycle?
[[a) Acetyl CoA]]
b) Citrate
c) Citrate
d) Alpha ketoglutarate
Correct = Acetyl CoA
6. Which of the following is true about Krebs cycle?
a) Pyruvate condenses with oxaloacetate to form citrate
[[b) Alpha ketoglutarate is a five carbon compound]]
c) Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the cytoplasm only
d) Krebs cycle can operate in anaerobic condition
Correct = Alpha ketoglutarate is a five carbon compound
7. Which of the following substance binds to CoA and condenses oxaloacetate to

inhibit the TCA cycle?
a) Malonate
b) Arsenite
3622
[[c) Fluoroacetate]]
d) Fumarate
Correct = Fluoroacetate
8. First substrate of Krebs cycle is:
[[a) Oxaloacetate]]
b) Acetyl CoA
c) Pyruvate
d) Lipoprotein
Correct = Oxaloacetate
9. Hyperammonemia inhibits TCA cycle by depleting:
a) Oxaloacetate
[[b) Alpha ketoglutarate]]
c) Citrate
d) Succinyl CoA
Correct = Alpha ketoglutarate
10. What is liberated when citrate converted to Cis Aconitate?
[[a) H2O]]
b) H2.
c) H2O2
d) CO2
Correct = H2O
11. False about reducing equivalents is:
3623
a) They are NADH and NADPH
[[b) Only produced during primary metabolic pathway]]
c) Formed in TCA cycle
d) Formed in mitochondria
Correct = Only produced during primary metabolic pathway
12. High energy phosphate is not produced in:
a) TCA cycle
[[b) Hexose Monophosphate pathway]]
c) Glycolysis
d) Beta oxidation of fatty acid
Correct = Hexose Monophosphate pathway
13. Which of the following statement about Link reaction is CORRECT?
a) This is a Link between TCA and ETC
b) This is Oxidative Deamination of Pyruvate
c) This is Oxidative decarboxylation of Acetyl CoA
[[d) This reaction requires Lipoic acid and four B-complex Vitamins]]
Correct = This reaction requires Lipoic acid and four B-complex Vitamins
14. Major source of Acetyl CoA
a) Triglycerides
b) Fatty acids
[[c) Pyruvate]]
d) Alanine
Correct = Pyruvate
3624
15. Thiamine deficiency results in decrease energy production, because TPP:
a) Interferes with Alcohol metabolism
b) Interferes with Transketolase activity
[[c) Is cofactor for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha ketoglutarate

dehydrogenase]]
d) Interferes with Energy production from amino acids
Correct = Is cofactor for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha ketoglutarate

dehydrogenase
16. Which ofthe following is/ are incorrect
[[a) Fats can be converted to carbohydrates]]
b) Carbohydrates can be converted to fats
c) Glycerol can be converted to glucose
d) Beri-Beri leads to Lactic acidosis
Correct = Fats can be converted to carbohydrates
17. Pyruvate Dehydrogenase complex has all enzyme components EXCEPT
a) Decarboxylase
[[b) Dehydrogenase]]
c) Carboxylase
d) Transacetylase
Correct = Dehydrogenase
18. Which ofthe following is reversible enzyme ?
a) Pyruvate kinase
3625
[[c) Lactate dehydrogenase]]
d) Hexokinase
19. Congenital Lactic Acidosis may occur due to defect in
a) Pyruvate carboxylase
b) Pyruvate decarboxylase
[[c) Pyruvate dehydrogenase]]
d) Transketolase
Correct = Pyruvate dehydrogenase
20. Pyruvate dehydrogenase contains all except:
a) CoA
[[b) Biotin]]
c) NAD
d) FAD
Correct = Biotin
21. Acetyl CoA can be directly converted to all except
[[a) Glucose]]
b) Ketone bodies
c) Fatty acids
d) Cholesterol
Correct = Glucose
22. Cyanide taken up by child. First one to be affected in Kreb's cycle is
3626
a) Aconitase
[[b) NAD]]
c) Citrate
d) Acetyl CoA
Correct = NAD
23. Thiokinase ofTCAproduces
a) ATP
b) GTP
[[c) Both a and b]]
d) NADH
Correct = Both a and b
24. Which among the following controls is an allosteric inhibitor ofTCA cycle?
[[a) !so-citrate dehydrogenase]]
b) Malate dehydrogenase
c) Keto-glutarate dehydrogenase
d) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
Correct = !so-citrate dehydrogenase
25. Which ofthe following is anaplerotic reaction:
a) Conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid
[[b) Conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate]]
c) Conversion of pyruvate to acetyl co A
d) Conversion of pyruvate to acetaldehyde
Correct = Conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate
3627
26. WhyTCA cycle is called amphibolic cycle'
a) It can proceed both in forward and backward direction
[[b) It is both endothermic and exothermic]]
c) Metabolites are used in both amino acid and ketone body synthesis
d) Same enzyme can be used in reverse direction
Correct = It is both endothermic and exothermic
27. Succinate dehydrogenase is inhibited by'?
a) Fluoroacetate
b) Arsenite
c) ~yanide
[[d) Malonate]]
Correct = Malonate
28. What is liberated when Citrate converted to Cis Aconitate'
[[a) H20]]
b) C02
c) H202
d) H2
Correct = H20
29. Which of the following enters the TCA cycle at succinyl-CoA step 1
a) Histidine
[[b) Methionine]]
c) Tryptophan
d) Tyrosine
3628
Correct = Methionine
30. Which ofthe following is NOT required in TCA cycle
a) Riboflavin
b) Niacin
[[c) Pyridoxine]]
d) Thiamine
31. In TCA cycle of tricarboxylic acid, which is first formed'?
a) Succinate
[[b) Citrate]]
c) Lsocitrate
d) None
Correct = Citrate
32. How many ATPs are formed in the TCA cycle from acetyl coenzyme A (one molecule)
[[a) 10]]
b) 11
c) 12
d) 15
Correct = 10
33. A ketoglutarate dehydrogenase is inhibited by(
[[a) Arsenite]]
b) Lodoacetate
3629
c) . Fluoroacetate
d) Fluride
Correct = Arsenite
34. Citrate synthase is inhibited by
[[a) ATP]]
b) Glucagon
c) Insulin
d) ADP
Correct = ATP
35. The net ATP yield when one molecule of pyruvate is completely oxidized to
C02 and H20 is:
[[a) 12.5]]
b) 12
c) 15
d) 30
Correct = 12.5
36. Which one of the following can be converted to an intermediate of citric

acid cycle or can enter urea cycle:-
a) Leucine
b) Lysine
[[c) Aspartate]]
d) Tyrosine
Correct = Aspartate
3630
37. Enzyme responsible for complete oxidation of glucose to C02 and H20 is present
in :
a) Cytosol
b) Lysosomes
[[c) Mitochondria]]
Correct = Mitochondria
38. Unaltered final product of TCA:
a) Acetyl CoA
[[b) Oxaloacetate]]
c) C02
d) Pyruvate
39. In TCA, C02 is released by:
a) Citrate synthase
[[b) Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenas]]
c) Citrate dehydrogenase
Correct = Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenas
40. Source of energy in TCA is :
a) NAD
[[b) NADH]]
c) FAD
3631
d) NADPH
Correct = NADH
41. Rate limiting step ofTCA
a) Citrate synthase
b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase
c) Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
[[d) All]]
Correct = All
42. Oxalo-acetate + Acetyl-Co-A -> Citrate + Co-ASH This reaction is
a) Reversible
[[b) Irreversible]]
c) Endergonic
d) None
Correct = Irreversible
43. 2,3-BPG binds to_ sites of hemoglobin and __ the affinity for oxygen?
a) 4, decreases
[[b) 1, decreases]]
c) 4, increases
d) 1, increases
Correct = 1, decreases
44. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex uses following coenzymes/cofactors:
a) Biotin
3632
[[b) Lipoic acid]]
c) NAD
d) FMN
45. In conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA and C02, which ofthe following
coenzyme is used:
a) Biotin
[[b) Lipoic acid]]
c) TPP
d) Pyridoxal phsphate
46. High energy phosphate compound is/ are:
[[a) ATP]]
b) Creatine phosphate
c) Glucose- 1- phosphate
d) Glycerol-3-phosphate
Correct = ATP
47. True about Acetyl CoA:
a) Precursor for synthesis of cholesterol and other steroids.
b) Form ketone bodies
c) Starting material for synthesis of fatty acid
[[d) All are correct]]
Correct = All are correct
3633
48. Enzyme catalyzing reversible step in glycolysis is I are
a) Phosphofructokinase
[[b) Enolase]]
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Phosphoglyceromutase
Correct = Enolase
49. NAD acts as a cofactor for:
a) Citrate synthase
[[b) Isocitrate dehydrogenase]]
c) A-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
Correct = Isocitrate dehydrogenase
50. Which of the following is not a glucogenic substrate in humans
a) Lactate
b) Oxaloacetate
c) Pyruvate
[[d) Acetyl CoA]]
1. DNA finger printing was founded by:
3634
a) Watson
b) Gaitan
[[c) Jeffrey]]
d) Sanger
Correct = Jeffrey
2. The following methods can be used to detect the point mutation in the beta
globulin globulin gene that causes sickle cell anemia, except:
a) Polymerase chain reaction with allele-specific oligonucleotide

hybridization
b) Southern blot analysis
c) DNA sequencing
[[d) Northern blot analysis]]
Correct = Northern blot analysis
3. DNA fingerprinting is based on possessing in DNA of
a) Constant tandem repeat
[[b) Variable Number Tandem Repeat]]
c) Non-repetitive sequence
d) Exon
Correct = Variable Number Tandem Repeat
4. RNAi in gene expression denotes:
[[a) Knock down]]
b) Knock up
c) Knock in
d) Knock out
3635
Correct = Knock down
5. The function of a gene is determined by:
a) Southern blot
b) Western blot
[[c) Inserting in transgenic mice]]
[[d) Inserting in transgenic mice]]
Correct = Inserting in transgenic mice
1. Respiratory quotient after exclusive carbohydrate meal is:
[[a) 1]]
b) 1.2
c) 0.8
d) 0.7
Correct = 1
2. Which of the following is a physiological uncoupler?
[[a) Thyroxine]]
b) Insulin
c) Glucagon
d) Norepinephrine
Correct = Thyroxine
3636
3. True about effect of 2,4 Dinitrophenol is:
[[a) Oxygen consumption is increased]]
b) ATP is produced
c) Respiration decreased
d) Electron transfer is decreased
Correct = Oxygen consumption is increased
4. Transport of ADP in and ATP out of mitochondria Is inhibited by:
[[a) Atractyloside]]
b) Oligomycin
c) Rotenone
d) Cyanide
Correct = Atractyloside
5. The electron flow in cytochrome C oxidase can be blocked by:
a) Rotenone
b) Antimycin-A
[[c) Cyanide]]
[[d) Cyanide]]
Correct = Cyanide
6. Cytosolic cytochrome C mediates:
[[a) Apoptosis]]
b) Electron transport
c) Krebs cycle
d) Glycolysis
3637
Correct = Apoptosis
7. Electron transport chainInvolves all except
[[a) NADP]]
b) NAO
c) Coenzyme Q
d) FAD
Correct = NADP
8. FO-F1complex, ATP synthase inhibitor is:
a) Atractyloside
[[b) Oligomycin]]
c) Antimycin
d) Rotenone
Correct = Oligomycin
9. Respiratory Quotient 0.7is seen in:
a) Carbohydrates
[[b) Fat]]
c) Protein
d) Alcohol
Correct = Fat
10. Dinitrophenol inhibits the electron transport chain by:
a) Cytochrome b
b) Inhibits ATP synthesis and electron transport chain
3638
[[c) Inhibits ATP synthesis but not electron transport chain]]
d) Inhibits electron transport chain but not ATP synthesis
Correct = Inhibits ATP synthesis but not electron transport chain
11. Malate shuttle is required for:
[[a) Glycolysis]]
b) Pyruvate Dehydrogenase complex
c) TCA
d) All
Correct = Glycolysis
12. If Aerobic glycolysis uses glycerol-3-phosphate shuttle, How many ATPs are
produced?
a) 2ATP
[[b) 5ATP]]
c) 7ATP
d) 3ATP
Correct = 5ATP
13. NADPH via glycerol phosphate shuttle gives how manyATPs?
a) 2.5
b) 1.5
c) 3
[[d) Zero]]
Correct = Zero
3639
14. Glycerol-P-shuttle is more important in:
a) Brain and heart
b) Skeletal muscles
c) Liver and heart
[[d) Brain and skeletal muscles]]
Correct = Brain and skeletal muscles
15. Cytochrome c oxidase requires:
[[a) Cu]]
b) Mg
c) Ca++
d) Zn
Correct = Cu
16. Most important source of ATP 1
[[a) Oxidative phosphorylation]]
b) Substrate level phosphorylation
c) Aerobic glycolysis
d) TCA
Correct = Oxidative phosphorylation
17. True about NADP-
a) Not involved in glycolysis
b) Acts as coenzyme form of Niacin
c) Involved in HMP shunt
[[d) All are true]]
Correct = All are true
3640
18. In malate shuttle, NADH produces how many ATPs?
a) 1
b) 1.5
c) 2
[[d) 2.5]]
Correct = 2.5
19. Uncoupler of oxidative phosphorylation
a) CN
b) H2S
[[c) 2DNP]]
d) Co
Correct = 2DNP
20. Mechanism of action of uncouplers
[[a) Inhibition of ATP synthesis only not ETC]]
b) Inhibition of both ATP synthesis and ETC
c) Inhibition of only ETC not ATP synthesis
d) None of the above
Correct = Inhibition of ATP synthesis only not ETC
21. Barbiturates act on which step of mitochondrial respiratory chain?
[[a) Complex I to Co-enzyme Q]]
b) Co-enzyme Q to complex 3
c) Complex II to co-enzyme Q
3641
d) Cytochrome C to complex IV
Correct = Complex I to Co-enzyme Q
22. CO binds with which complex of the electron transport chain?
a) Complexl
b) Complex III
c) Complex II
[[d) Complex IV]]
Correct = Complex IV
23. ATP is generated in ETC by
a) ADP kinase
b) Na+ Cl ATPase
[[c) FoFl ATPase]]
d) NA+ K+ ATPase
Correct = FoFl ATPase
24. Enzyme involved in oxidative phosphorylation
a) Succinyl CoA thiokinase
b) Pyruvate kinase
[[c) NADH dehydrogenase]]
d) None
Correct = NADH dehydrogenase
25. Which of the component of respiratory chain reacts directly with molecular
oxygen
3642
a) Cyt b
b) CoQ
c) Cyt C
[[d) Cyt aa3]]
Correct = Cyt aa3
26. Last electron acceptor in Electron Transport Chain is
[[a) Oxygen]]
b) Tetrachloroethylene
c) Nitrate
d) Iron
Correct = Oxygen
27. Atractyloside act as-
a) Inhibitor of complex III of ETC
[[b) Inhibitor of oxidative phosphorylation]]
c) Uncoupler
d) Nitrate
Correct = Inhibitor of oxidative phosphorylation
28. Chemi-osmotic coupling of oxidative phosphorylation is related to
a) Formation of ATP at substrate level
b) ATP formation by transport of 02
c) ATP generation by pumping of neutron
[[d) ATP generation by pumping of proton]]
Correct = ATP generation by pumping of proton
3643
29. Hydrogen sulphide acts on which complex of cytochrome oxidase?
a) Complex!
b) Complex III
c) Complex II
[[d) Complex IV]]
Correct = Complex IV
30. Main source of ATP production is
b) Substrate level phosphorylation
c) Non-oxidative metabolism
d) None ofthe above
31. NADH via glycerolphosphate shuttle makes how many ATPs
a) 1
[[b) 1..5]]
c) 2
d) 2.5
Correct = 1..5
32. In ETC NADH generates
a) 3ATP
[[b) 2.5ATPs]]
c) 2ATPs
3644
Correct = 2.5ATPs
33. Creatinine is the breakdown product of
a) Adenosine triphosphate
b) Purine nucleotides
c) Pyrimide nucleotides
[[d) Creatine phosphate]]
Correct = Creatine phosphate
34. Complex I of ETC is inhibited by
[[a) Amobarbital]]
b) CD
c) Cyanide
d) H2S
Correct = Amobarbital
35. Barbiturate act on ETC complex
[[a) I]]
b) II
c) III
d) IV
Correct = I
36. Which is the inhibitor of Cytochrome oxidase?
a) BAL
b) Malonate
3645
c) Oligomycin
[[d) Cyanide]]
Correct = Cyanide
37. Cyanide is toxic because it
[[a) Inhibits cytochrome oxidase]]
b) Forms cyan meth Hb
c) Inhibits Na-K ATPase
d) Inhibits ATP carrier in mitochondria
Correct = Inhibits cytochrome oxidase
38. Cyanide affects respiratory chain by
a) Non-competitive reversible inhibition
b) Competitive reversible inhibition
c) Suicide irreversible inhibition
[[d) Non-competitive irreversible inhibition]]
Correct = Non-competitive irreversible inhibition
39. The following poisions act by causing inhibition of d. Carboxin complex IV

of respiratory chain except
a) Co
[[b) Malonate]]
c) Cyanide
d) H2S
Correct = Malonate
3646
40. True about 2, 4- Dinitrophenols is?
a) Prevents ATP synthesis and electron transport chain
[[b) Prevents ATP synthesis and electron transport chain s increased]]
c) Blocks electron transport chain but ATP synthesis is
d) Blocks ATP synthesis but electron transport chain is
Correct = Prevents ATP synthesis and electron transport chain s increased
41. Electrons in electron transport chain travel from
a) One way irrespective of the potential
[[b) Low to high potential]]
c) Two way
d) High to low potential
Correct = Low to high potential
42. Which vitamin is used in ETC!
a) Thiamine
b) Biotin
[[c) Nicotinic acid]]
d) Pyridoxal phosphate
Correct = Nicotinic acid
43. Which of the following vitamin is a component of ETC!
a) Vitamin Bl2
[[b) Riboflavin]]
c) Nicotinic acid
d) Thiamine
Correct = Riboflavin
3647
44. MELAS inhibit all ETC Complexes except
a) I
[[b) II]]
c) III
d) IV
Correct = II
45. Oxidative phosphorylation not inhibited by
[[a) Fluoride]]
b) 2, 4-dinitrophenol (DNP)
c) Oligomycin
d) Carboxin
Correct = Fluoride
46. In ETC, Oxidative phosphylartion (ATP formation) is regulated by:
[[a) NADH Co-Q reductase]]
b) Cytochrome C oxidase
c) Glutathione reductase
Correct = NADH Co-Q reductase
47. Which of the following is high energy phosphate bond (produce ATP on
hydrolysis
a) Fructose-6-phosphate
[[b) Creatine phosphate]]
3648
c) Carbamoyl phosphate
d) Glucose-1-phosphate
Correct = Creatine phosphate
48. Number of ATPs produced from adipose tissue from I NADH (NAD+ /NADH) through
respiratory chain:
a) OATP
b) LATP
c) 2ATP
[[d) 2.6ATP]]
Correct = 2.6ATP
49. Which component transfers four protons
[[a) NADH-Q Oxidoreductase]]
b) Cytochrome -C Oxidase
c) CoQ Cytochrome c Reductase
d) Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
Correct = NADH-Q Oxidoreductase
50. Which of the following releases/provide energy
a) Conversion of ADP to ATP
[[b) Breaking of high energy bond to low energy bond a]]
c) Conversion of Pyruvate to lactate
d) . Electrical gradient across inner and outer side of mitochondrial

membrane
Correct = Breaking of high energy bond to low energy bond a
3649
1. Gene editing can be done by various methods like hypermethyation and
amplification. Which of the following will not change the genetic code?
[[a) Epigenetics]]
b) CRISPR
c) GenXpert
d) TALEN
Correct = Epigenetics
2. RFLP used in surgical ICU to identify staph aureus. The restriction site of
the restriction endonuclease HIND 111 be:
a) AAGAAG TTAGGT
b) AAGAGA GAAGCA
[[c) AAGCTT TTCGAA]]
d) AAGGAA CCTTGA
Correct = AAGCTT TTCGAA
3. Methods of introducing gene in target cells are all except:
a) Electroporation
b) Transfection
c) Site directed recombination
[[d) FISH]]
Correct = FISH
3650
4. The first gene therapy (somatic enzyme) was successfully done in:
[[a) SCIO]]
b) Phenylketonuria
c) Thalassemia
d) Cystic fibrosis
Correct = SCIO
5. Purpose of gene therapy
[[a) Replacement of abnormal gene by normal gene]]
b) Replacement of normal gene by abnormal gene
c) Knock out of abnormal gene
d) Introduction of viral gene
Correct = Replacement of abnormal gene by normal gene
6. The following are used to study pathological genome except:
a) Genbank
b) Entrez gene
c) Hapmap
[[d) BLAST]]
Correct = BLAST
7. Study of structure and products of gene is:
[[a) Genomics]]
b) Proteomics
c) Bioinformatics
d) Cytogenetics
3651
Correct = Genomics
8. What biologist uses to diagnose and treat diseases with disorders with
multlgenic Inheritance?
a) Gene card
[[b) Tag SNPs]]
c) Flipped card
d) Virtual Cell
Correct = Tag SNPs
9. Which of the following statement is true about Linkage analysis?
[[a) Detection of characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family associated

with disorders]]
b) useful to make pedigree chart to show affected and non- affected family
members
c) Used to make a pedigree chart to show non- paternity
d) Non gene mapping method of genetic study
Correct = Detection of characteristic DNA polymorphism in a family associated

with disorders
1. A girl licks paint that is peeled of from the toys develop acute abdominal
pain, tingling sensation of hands and legs and weakness. Which enzyme is
inhibited in this child?
a) ALA synthase
b) Heme oxygenase
3652
c) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
[[d) ALA dehydratase]]
Correct = ALA dehydratase
2. Heme biosynthesis does not occur in:
a) Osteocyte
b) Liver
[[c) RBC]]
d) Erythroid cells of bone marrow
Correct = RBC
3. In lead poisoning which of the following is seen in urine?
[[a) Delta ALA]]
b) Uroporphyrin
c) Coproporphyrin
d) Protoporphyrin
Correct = Delta ALA
4. Which of the following porphyrias does not present with photosensitivity?
a) Urophorphyrin decarboxylase
[[b) HMB synthase]]
c) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
d) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
Correct = HMB synthase
3653
5. A boy with staining of teeth and raised Coproporphy rin-1 levels and
increased risk of photosensitivity, the enzyme deficient is:
a) Uroporphyrinogen synthase
[[b) Uroporphyrinogen Ill synthase]]
c) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
d) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
Correct = Uroporphyrinogen Ill synthase
6. No. of pyrrole rings in Porphyrins:
[[a) 2]]
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Correct = 2
7. No of iron in ferritin:
a) 4
b) 40
c) 400
[[d) 4000]]
Correct = 4000
8. Noof iron in transferrin:
a) 1
[[b) 2]]
c) 3
d) 4
3654
Correct = 2
9. Variegate porphyria enzyme defect is:
[[a) Protoporphyrinogen oxidase]]
b) Coproporphyrinogen oxidase
c) Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
d) Uroporphyrinogen synthase
Correct = Protoporphyrinogen oxidase
10. Acute lntennittent Porphyria is caused by:
a) ALA synthase
b) ALA dehydratase
c) ALA dehydratase
[[d) Uroporphyrinogen I synthase]]
Correct = Uroporphyrinogen I synthase
1. Which of the following are situated away from the coding region:
a) Promoter
[[b) Enhancer]]
c) Operator
d) Structural gene
Correct = Enhancer
3655
2. Housekeeping genes are:
a) Inducible
b) Required only when inducer is present
c) Mutant
[[d) Not regulated]]
Correct = Not regulated
3. False statement is:
a) Repressor binds operator gene
b) Regulator genes produce repressor subunits
c) IPTG is inducer but not substrate
[[d) Regulator gene is inducible]]
Correct = Regulator gene is inducible
4. Lac operon transcription is induced by:
a) Glucose
b) Glucose with inducer
[[c) Inducer without glucose]]
d) Both lactose and Glucose
Correct = Inducer without glucose
5. All of the following statements about Lambda phage are true, except
a) I n Lysogenic phase it fuses with host chromosome and remains dormant
b) In Lytic phase it fuses with host chromosome and replicates
[[c) Both Lytic and Lysogenic phase occur together.]]
d) In Lytic phase it causes cell lysis and releases virus particles
3656
Correct = Both Lytic and Lysogenic phase occur together.
1. A 10-year-old bo presents with increase bilirubin, increased bilirubin in

urine and no urobilinogen. Diagnosis is:
a) Gilbert syndrome
b) Hemolytic jaundice
c) Viral hepatitis
[[d) Obstructive jaundice]]
Correct = Obstructive jaundice
1. Normal role of Micro RNA is:
[[a) Gene Regulation]]
b) RNA splicing
c) Initiation of Translation
d) DNA conformation change
Correct = Gene Regulation
2. CpG island in human genome is related to:
a) TRNA synthesis
3657
[[b) DNA methylation]]
c) DNA Acetylation
d) Replication initiation
Correct = DNA methylation
3. Genes in CpG Island is inactivated by:
[[a) Methylation]]
b) Metrylation
c) Ubiquitisation
d) Acetylation
Correct = Methylation
4. All are true DNA methylation except:
a) It usually occurs in the cytosine
b) Can alter the gene expression pattern in cells
c) Role in genomic imprinting
[[d) No role in carcinogenesis]]
Correct = No role in carcinogenesis
5. All are true regarding epigenetics mechanisms except:
[[a) Non inheritable]]
b) Acetylation
c) Hereditary
d) Methylation of DNA
Correct = Non inheritable
3658
6. Random inactivation of X-chromosome is:
[[a) Lyonisation]]
b) Allelic Exclusion
c) Randomisation
d) Genomic imprinting
Correct = Lyonisation
7. Histone acetylation cause:
[[a) Increased Heterochromatin formation]]
b) Increased Euchromatin formation
c) Methylation of cystine
d) DNA replication
Correct = Increased Heterochromatin formation
8. Differential expression of same gene depending on parent of origin is referred

to as:
[[a) Genomic imprinting]]
b) Mosaicism
c) Anticipation
d) Nonpenetrance
Correct = Genomic imprinting
9. Epigenetics is a:
[[a) Chemical modification of DNA]]
b) Irreversible modification of DNA
c) Change in nucleotide sequence
d) Normal variation of nucleotides
3659
Correct = Chemical modification of DNA
10. Methylation of Cytidine residues of DNA will cause:
a) No Change
[[b) Decrease gene expression]]
c) Mutation
d) Increase in gene expression
Correct = Decrease gene expression
1. HbA1c is:
a) Glucose to N terminal 13 globin
b) Glucose to lysine residue of 13 globin
[[c) Glucose to valine residue of 13 globin]]
d) Glucose to glutamine residue of 13 globin
Correct = Glucose to valine residue of 13 globin
2. Structure of Hemoglobin and Myoglobinare similar in:
a) Primary structure
[[d) Both secondary and tertiary structure]]
Correct = Both secondary and tertiary structure
3660
3. 2,3 DPG binds to _ sites in hemoglobin and causes In its oxygen affinity:
a) Four, increases
b) Four, decreases
c) One, increases
[[d) One, decreases]]
Correct = One, decreases
1. CRISPR is:
[[a) It is a type of bacterial defense mechanism in bacteria against

phages/viruses]]
b) It is a type of bacterial defense mechanism in virus against bacteria
c) It is an anticaspase used against bacteriophages in humans
d) Methods of Introducing gene in target cells are all
Correct = It is a type of bacterial defense mechanism in bacteria against

phages/viruses
2. Study of multiplication of proteins in disease process is called:
[[a) Proteomics]]
b) Genomics
c) Glycomics
d) Nucleomics
Correct = Proteomics
3661
3. Choose the true statement about mit DNA:
a) Few mutation compared to nuclear DNA
b) It has 3X10 9 base pairs
c) It receives 23 chromosomes from each parent
[[d) It codes for less than 20% of the proteins involved in respiratory
chain]]
Correct = It codes for less than 20% of the proteins involved in respiratory
chain
4. All are true about mitochondrial DNA except:
a) Contains 37 gene
b) Transmit from mother to offsprings
[[c) Transmit in classical Mendelina fashion]]
d) Cause leber hereditary optic neuropathy
Correct = Transmit in classical Mendelina fashion
5. Mitochondrial DNA is:
[[a) Closed circular]]
b) Nicked circular
c) Linear
d) Open circular
Correct = Closed circular
3662
1. Most abundant form of Pro Vit A is:
a) Alpha carotene
[[b) Beta carotene]]
c) Cryptoxanthine
d) Lycopene
Correct = Beta carotene
2. Which of the following is true about Vitamin K?
a) It is a water soluble vitamin
b) It helps in the carboxylation of factor VIII
[[c) Chronic use of antibiotics lead to deficiency of Vitamin K]]
d) Vitamin K deficiency manifest as multiple thrombotic episodes
Correct = Chronic use of antibiotics lead to deficiency of Vitamin K
3. Which vitamin is synthesized in the body?
a) Thiamine
b) Vitamin B12
[[c) Vitamin B3]]
d) Riboflavin
4. Tocopheryl radical is converted to Tocopherol by which vitamin?
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin E
c) Niacin
[[d) Vitamin C]]
3663
Correct = Vitamin C
5. In the crystalline lens, level of tocopherol and Ascorbate is maintained by
[[a) Glutathione]]
b) Glycoprotein
c) Fatty acid
d) Glucose
6. All are true about vitamin D metabolism, except:
a) 1-alpha hydroxylation occurs in kidney
b) 25-alpha hydroxylation occurs in liver
c) In absence of sun light, the daily requirement is 400- 600 IU per day
[[d) Williams syndrome is associated with mental retardation,

precocious puberty and obesity]]
Correct = Williams syndrome is associated with mental retardation,

precocious puberty and obesity
7. Vitamin K is required for:
a) Hydroxylation
b) Chelation
c) Transamination
[[d) Carboxylation]]
Correct = Carboxylation
8. Vitamin A intoxication cause injury to:
3664
[[a) Lysosomes]]
b) Mitochondria
c) Endoplasmic reticulum
d) Microtubules
Correct = Lysosomes
9. Active form of Vitamin D is:
a) Cholecalciferol
b) 24, 25(0H) 2vit-D
[[c) 1, 25(0H) 2vit-D]]
d) 25-0H vit-D
Correct = 1, 25(0H) 2vit-D
10. Vitamin K is involved in the post-translational modification of:
a) Glutamate
b) Aspartate
c) Lysine
[[d) Proline]]
Correct = Proline
11. Which Vitamin is required for carboxylation of clot ting factors?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin E
[[d) Vitamin K]]
Correct = Vitamin K
3665
12. All the following have antioxidant action except:
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin E
c) Selenium
[[d) Vitamin D]]
Correct = Vitamin D
13. Which of the following is true about vitamin K?
a) Vit K dependent factors undergo post-transcriptional modification
[[b) Prothrombin is a vitamin K dependent factor]]
c) Stuart-Prower factor is not vitamin K dependent
d) Menadione is a natural water insoluble vitamin K used in clinical

practice
Correct = Prothrombin is a vitamin K dependent factor
14. Vitamin E deficiency causes all except:
a) Ataxia
b) Areflexia
c) Ophthalmoplegia
[[d) None]]
Correct = None
15. Which coenzyme acts as reducing agent in anabolic reaction?
a) FADH2
b) FMNH2
[[c) NADPH]]
3666
d) NADH
Correct = NADPH
16. Most powerful chain breaking antioxidant:
a) Glutathione peroxidase
[[b) Alpha tocopherol]]
c) Superoxide dismutase
d) Vitamin C
Correct = Alpha tocopherol
1. No loss of genetic material occur in:
a) Deletion
b) Insertion
c) Substitution
[[d) Inversion]]
Correct = Inversion
2. Base substitution mutations can have the following molecular consequence

except:
a) Changes one codon for an amino acid into another codon for that same
amino acid
b) Codon for one amino acid is changed into a codon of another amino acid
[[c) Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant site]]
3667
d) Codon for one amino acid is changed into a translation termination codon
Correct = Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant site
3. Frame shift mutation is caused by:
[[a) Deletion]]
b) Point mutation
c) Substitution
d) Transversion
Correct = Deletion
4. Cystic fibrosis mutation chloride conductance is:
a) Class-1
b) Class-2
c) Class-3
[[d) Class-4]]
Correct = Class-4
5. One of the following mutation is mutation is potentially lethal:
a) Substitution of adenine for cytosine
b) Substitution of methyl cytosine for cytosine
c) Substitution of guanine for cytosine
[[d) Insertion of one base]]
Correct = Insertion of one base
3668
6. Sickle cell anemia is the clinical manifestation of homozygous genes for an
abnormal hemoglobin molecule. The event responsible for the mutation m the B
chain is:
a) Insertion
b) Deletion
c) Nondisjunction
[[d) Point mutation]]
Correct = Point mutation
7. Null mutation is:
a) Mutation occurring in non-coding region
b) Mutation that does not change the amino acid or end product
c) Mutation that codes for a change in progeny without a chromosomal change
[[d) Mutation that leads to no functional gene product]]
Correct = Mutation that leads to no functional gene product
8. A mutation in the codon which causes a change in the coded amino acid, is
known as:
a) Mitogenesis
b) Somatic mutation
[[c) Missense mutation]]
d) Recombination
Correct = Missense mutation
9. In a mutation if valine is replaced by which of the following would not result

in any change in the function of protein?
a) Praline
[[b) Leucine]]
3669
c) Glycine
d) Aspartic acid
Correct = Leucine
10. Which of the following can - be a homologous substitution for valine in the
hemoglobin?
[[a) Lsoleucine]]
b) Glutamic acid
c) Phenyl alanine
d) Lysr.ne
Correct = Lsoleucine
11. Pyrimidine dimers are seen in:
a) UV rays
[[b) Xeroderma Pigmentosa]]
c) Alkylating agents
d) X-rays
Correct = Xeroderma Pigmentosa
1. Fulminant Hepatitis is associated with which vitamin toxicity?
a) Vitamin B1
b) Vitamin B2
[[c) Vitamin B3]]
3670
d) Vitamin B6
2. Vitamin deficiency causing mental disorder?
[[a) Thiamine]]
b) Riboflavin
c) Niacin
d) Biotin
Correct = Thiamine
3. Site of absorption of Vitamin B12:
[[a) Ileum]]
b) Jejunum
c) Duodenum
d) Stomach
Correct = Ileum
4. Vitamin B12 deficiency causes all except:
[[a) Neural tube defect]]
b) Peripheral neuropathY
c) Megaloblastic anaemia
d) Demyelination
Correct = Neural tube defect
5. Lsoniazid toxicity can be prevented b .
[[a) Vitamin B6]]
3671
b) Vitamin B3
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin B1
6. Which among the following cause generalized oedema?
[[a) Vitamin B1]]
b) Vitamin B2
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin A
7. A 50-yrs-old male with symptoms of fatigue and he has swelling of feet and
loss of sensations in legs and anaemia. He also has dilation of ventricle and
high cardiac output state. What is the vitamin deficiency associated with this
presentation
[[a) Vitamin B1]]
b) Vitamin B2
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin B3
8. Cobalt is present in which vitamin?
[[a) Vitamin B12]]
b) Vitamin B3
c) Vitamin B2
d) Vitamin B1
3672
9. Antioxidant in Vitamin is:
[[a) Beta carotene]]
b) Thiamine
c) Niacin
d) Riboflavin
Correct = Beta carotene
10. The proxidant action of Vitamin C is potentiated by:
a) Selenium
[[b) Copper]]
c) Calcium
d) Iron
Correct = Copper
11. A mineral which can generate free radical are all except:
a) Copper
b) Cobalt
[[c) Selenium]]
d) Nickel
Correct = Selenium
12. Biotin act as a coenzyme for all except:
a) Pyruvate to oxaloacetae
b) Acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA
c) Propionyl CoA to methyl malonyl CoA
3673
[[d) Glutamate to gamma carboxy glutamate]]
Correct = Glutamate to gamma carboxy glutamate
13. Vitamin B is not required for:
[[a) Glycogen phosphorylase]]
b) Methionine synthase
c) Methyl malonyl CoA mutase
d) Leucine ammo mutase
Correct = Glycogen phosphorylase
14. A vitamin derived from amino acid is:
a) Biotin
b) Pantothenic acid
[[c) Niacin]]
d) Folic acid
Correct = Niacin
15. Vitamin for which RDA is based on protein intake is:
a) Niacin
b) Riboflavin
[[c) Pyridoxine]]
d) Thiamine
16. Megaloblastic anaemia seen in:
a) Ornithine transcarbamoylase defect
3674
b) MSUD
c) Citrullinemia
[[d) Orotic aciduria]]
Correct = Orotic aciduria
17. In ono carbon metabolism when serine converted to Glycino, Which carbon atom
is added to THFE?
a) Alpha carbon
[[b) Beta carbon]]
c) Delta carbon
d) Gamma carbon
Correct = Beta carbon
18. Vitamin deficiency that cause oro oculo genital syndrome:
[[a) Vitamin B2]]
b) Vitamin B12
c) Zinc
d) Vitamin B3
19. Vitamin deficiency causing circum corneal vascularization is:
a) Biotin
[[b) Riboflavin]]
c) Thaimine
d) Vitamin D
3675
20. False about folic acid:
a) It is present in all the green leafy vegetables
b) It is proven to decrease the occurrence of neural tube defects when taken

preconceptionally
[[c) Wheat flour in India is fortified with folate as in USA]]
d) Methyl folate trap is because of methionine synthase defect
Correct = Wheat flour in India is fortified with folate as in USA
21. Which of the vitamin deficiency lead to lactic acidosis?
a) Riboflavin
[[b) Thiamine]]
c) Niacin
d) Panthothenic acid
Correct = Thiamine
22. Thiamin requirement increases in excessive intake of:
[[a) Carbohydrate]]
b) Amino acid
c) Fat
d) Lecithin
Correct = Carbohydrate
23. Which of the following statement about Thiamine true?
a) It is a coenzyme of lactate dehydrogenase
b) Its deficiency is associated with scurvy
c) Its coenzyme function is done by thiamine monophoshate
3676
[[d) It is coenzyrne for pyruvate dehydrogenase and a-keto glutarate
dehydrogenase]]
Correct = It is coenzyrne for pyruvate dehydrogenase and a-keto glutarate

dehydrogenase
24. Vitamin which ls excreted in urine is?
a) Vitamin
[[b) Vitamin C]]
c) Vitamin D
d) Vitamin K
Correct = Vitamin C
25. Thiamine deficiency causes decreased energy production because:
a) It is required for the process of transamination
b) It is a cofactor in oxidative reduction
c) It is a coenzyme for transketolase in pentose phosphate pathway
[[d) It is a coenzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha ketoglutarate

dehydrogenase]]
Correct = It is a coenzyme for pyruvate dehydrogenase and alpha ketoglutarate

dehydrogenase
26. Vitamin 812 acts as coenzyme to which one of the following enzymes?
a) Lsocitrate dehydrogenase
[[b) Homocysteine methyl transferase]]
c) Glycogen synthase
d) Glucose-6- Phosphate dehydrogenase
Correct = Homocysteine methyl transferase
3677
27. Biotin is a cofactor of:
[[a) Carboxylase]]
b) Oxidase
c) Hydrolase
d) Oecarboxylase
Correct = Carboxylase
28. Post-translation modification of hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline is by:
[[a) Vit C]]
b) Vit K
c) Vit E
d) Vit D
Correct = Vit C
29. Pantothenic acid containing coenzyme is involved in:
a) Decarboxylation
b) Dehydrogenation
[[c) Acetylation]]
d) Carboxylation
Correct = Acetylation
30. Vitamin given in pregnant women to prevent neural tube defect:
[[a) Folic acid]]
b) Vitamin B12
c) Vitamin B2
d) Vitamin B2
3678
Correct = Folic acid
31. Not needed in TCA cycle:
[[a) Pyridoxine]]
b) Thiamine
c) Riboflavin
d) Niacin
32. Neurological worsening with anemia what is the treatment to be given?
a) Folic acid alone
[[b) Folic acid along with hydroxycobalamin]]
c) Iron
d) Pyridoxine
Correct = Folic acid along with hydroxycobalamin
33. Vitamin deficiency causing dementia:
a) Biotin
b) Thiamine
c) Pyridoxine
[[d) Vitamin B12]]
34. Pantothenate Kinase associated neurodegeneration is:
a) Wilson's disease
[[b) Hallervorden-Spatz syndrome]]
3679
c) Mcleod syndrome
d) Mcleod syndrome
Correct = Hallervorden-Spatz syndrome
35. The form of THFA used in treatment is:
[[a) N5 Formyl THFA]]
b) N10 Formyl THFA
c) N5 Formimino THFA
d) N5 methyl THFA
Correct = N5 Formyl THFA
36. Excess of avidln causes deficiency of:
[[a) Biotin]]
b) Choline
c) Vitamin B12
d) Folate
Correct = Biotin
37. Thiamine act as a cofactor in
a) Pyruvate to oxaloacetate
b) Malonate to oxaloacetate
c) Succinate to fumarate
[[d) Pyruvate to acetyl CoA]]
Correct = Pyruvate to acetyl CoA
38. Sebhorreic Dermatitis Is produced by deficiency of:
3680
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B1
[[c) Vitamin B2]]
d) Vitamin C
39. Severe thiamine deficiency ls associated with:
[[a) Decreased RBC transketolase activity]]
b) Increased clotting time
c) Decreased RSC transaminase activity
d) Increased xanthurenic acid excretion
Correct = Decreased RBC transketolase activity
1. Microsatellite sequence is:
a) Small satellite
b) Extra chromosomal DNA
[[c) Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA]]
d) Looped-DNA
Correct = Short sequence (2-5) repeat DNA
3681
1. The form of glucose predominantly seen is as:
a) A D Glucopyanose
b) A D Glucofuranose
[[c) ~ D Glucopyranose]]
d) Glucofuranose
Correct = ~ D Glucopyranose
2. The glycemic index is highest for:
[[a) Glucose]]
b) Fructose
c) Sucrose
d) Sugar alcohols
Correct = Glucose
3. Glucose detection can be done by the all except?
a) Glucose oxidase
[[b) Ferric chloride test]]
c) Dextrostix
d) Folin and Wu method
Correct = Ferric chloride test
4. Which of the following carbohydrate metabolism is used for liver function

assessment?
[[a) Galactose tolerance test]]
b) Sucrose tolerance test
c) Glucose tolerance test
3682
d) Lactose tolerance test
Correct = Galactose tolerance test
5. Which deposition result in cataract?
a) Glucose
b) Galactose
c) Sugar amines
[[d) Sugar alcohols]]
Correct = Sugar alcohols
6. Cellulose is:
a) Complex lipoprotein
b) Starch polysaccharide
[[c) Non starch polysaccharide]]
d) Complex glycoprotein
Correct = Non starch polysaccharide
7. A 4-yrs-boy with mental retardation, dysostosis multiplex, coarse facial

feature, clear cornea. What is the diagnosis?
a) MPS type IV
[[b) Hunter's Disease]]
c) Hurler
d) Zellweger syndrome
Correct = Hunter's Disease
8. Mucopolysaccharide that does not contain uronic acid residue is:
3683
a) Heparan sulphate
b) Heparin
c) Chondroitin sulphate
[[d) Keretan sulphate]]
Correct = Keretan sulphate
9. Mucopolysacchridoses which is a lysosomal storage disease, occur due to

abnormally in:
[[a) Hydrolase enzyme]]
b) Dehydrogenase enzyme
c) Lipase enzyme
d) Phosphatase
Correct = Hydrolase enzyme
10. Complex polysaccharides which are converted to glucose are absorbed by the
helo of
[[a) Na + K+ ATPase]]
b) Sucrase
c) Enterokinase
d) Carboxypeptidase
Correct = Na + K+ ATPase
11. After overnight fasting, level of glucose transporters reduced in:
a) Brain cells
b) RBCs
[[c) Adipocyte]]
d) Hepatocyte
3684
Correct = Adipocyte
12. Glucose transporter in myocyte stimulated by insulin is:
a) GLUT-1
b) GULT-2
c) GULT-3
[[d) GULT-4]]
Correct = GULT-4
13. Defect in renal glucosuria:
a) GLUT-1
b) GULT-2
c) SGLT 1
[[d) SGLT 2]]
Correct = SGLT 2
14. Facilitated transport of glucose that is insulin insensitive (non- dependent)

takes place in:
a) Skeletal muscle
[[b) Liver]]
c) Adipose tissue
d) Heart
Correct = Liver
15. Glucose transporter presents in the RBC:
[[a) GLUT-1]]
3685
b) GULT-2
c) GULT-3
d) GULT-4
Correct = GLUT-1
16. The monosaccharide with maximum rate of absorption in intestine is:
a) Glucose
[[b) Galactoss]]
c) Fructose
d) Mannose
Correct = Galactoss
17. Mitochondria are involved in all of the following except:
a) ATP production
b) Apoptosis
c) Tri-carboxylic acid cycle
[[d) Cholesterol synthesis]]
Correct = Cholesterol synthesis
18. Which offollowing does not occur in mitochondria?
a) Beta -oxidation
b) DNA synthesis
[[c) Fatty acid synthesis]]
d) Protein synthesis
Correct = Fatty acid synthesis
3686
19. Which of the following is active in dephosphorylated state?
[[a) Glycogen synthase]]
b) Pyruvate carboxylase
c) Glycogen phosphorylase
d) Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Correct = Glycogen synthase
20. Insulin promotes lipogenesis by all except
a) Decreasing cAMP
b) Increase glucose uptak
[[c) Inhibiting pyruvate dehydrogenase]]
d) Increasing acetyl CoA
Correct = Inhibiting pyruvate dehydrogenase
21. Hormone sensitive lipase is not activated by-
[[a) Insulin]]
b) Glucagon
c) Catecholamines
d) T4
Correct = Insulin
22. Which of the following is not seen in low insulin glucagon ratio?
a) Gluconeogenesis
b) Glycogen breakdown
c) Ketogenesis
[[d) Glycogen storage]]
Correct = Glycogen storage
3687
23. Which of the following biochemical reaction isinvolved in conversion of
Histidine is to histamine
[[a) Decarboxylation]]
b) Carboxylation
c) Amination
d) Oxidation
24. Entropy is a measure of the:
a) Reversibility of reaction
[[b) Randomness in a system]]
c) Exothermicity
d) Free energy for an enzymatic reaction
Correct = Randomness in a system
25. Glowing of firefly is due to
[[a) ATP]]
b) NADH
c) Gtp
d) Phosphocreatinine
Correct = ATP
26. Storage form offree eneragy in the cell
a) NADH
[[b) ATP]]
3688
c) G-6-P
d) . Creatine phosphate
Correct = ATP
27. Thermogenic food is which ofthe following
[[a) High protein diet]]
b) High carbohydrate diet
c) High fat diet
d) It does not depend on the macro nutrients
Correct = High protein diet
28. Which is required in Anabolic reactions:
a) NAD
[[b) NADP]]
c) Fad
d) Fadp
Correct = NADP
29. Rossman fold associated NADH domain is found in which of the following enzyme
[[a) Isocitrate Dehydrogenase]]
b) Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
c) Malate Dehydrogenase
d) Succinate Dehydrogenase
Correct = Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
30. All occur in mitochondria except-
3689
[[a) Glycolysis]]
b) TCAcycle
c) ETC
d) Ketogenesis
31. The biosynthesis ofthe enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is repressed by
[[a) Insulin]]
b) Cortisol
c) Glucagon
d) Epinephrine
Correct = Insulin
32. Preferred fuel for body in fasting state ?
[[a) Carbohydrate]]
b) Fats
c) Proteins
d) Amino acids
33. The enzyme activated with low Insulin: Glucagon ratio is?
a) Hexokinase
b) Glucokinase
c) Pyruvate kinase
[[d) Glucose 6 phosphatase]]
Correct = Glucose 6 phosphatase
3690
34. NADPH is produced by:
a) Pyruvate dehydrogense
[[b) Isocitrate dehydrogense]]
c) A-ketoglutaryl Dehydrogense u
Correct = Isocitrate dehydrogense
35. Which of the following enzymes are activated in dephosphorylated state:
[[a) HMG Co A reductase]]
b) Glycogen phosphorylase
c) Glycogen phosphorylase kinase
d) Citrate lyase
Correct = HMG Co A reductase
36. Enzyme regulated by phosphorylation:
a) Fat
[[b) Glycogen]]
c) Lactate
d) Ketone
Correct = Glycogen
37. What is effect of cortisol on metabolism:
[[a) T Gluconeogenesis]]
b) T Lipogenesis
c) T Proteolysis
d) T Export of amino acid to liver
3691
Correct = T Gluconeogenesis
38. Source of energy for a running race athlete for the initial3 minutes of
running
a) Free fatty acid
b) Creative phosphate
c) Muscle glycogen
[[d) Blood glucose]]
Correct = Blood glucose
39. Cellulose is not broken due to beta anomerism at :
[[a) Cl]]
b) C2
c) C5
d) C6
Correct = Cl
40. Inulin is not broken due to beta anomerism at:
a) Cl
[[b) C2]]
c) C5
d) C6
Correct = C2
41. Which of the following is not correct 1
3692
[[a) Parent carbohydrate which gives rise to other carbohydrates is
Glycerol]]
b) Minimum number of carbons possible in a carbohydrate is 3
c) Minimum number of 'OH' group possible in a carbohydrate is 2
d) Minimum number of functional group possible in a carbohydrate is l 4
Correct = Parent carbohydrate which gives rise to other carbohydrates is Glycerol
42. Dextrose is:
[[a) D + glucose]]
b) . D - glucose
c) L + glucose
d) L - glucose
Correct = D + glucose
43. Which is correct!
a) Racemic mixture contains both D and L
b) Racemic mixture contains both D and D
[[c) Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L]]
[[d) Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L]]
Correct = Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L
44. Number of isomers possible for glucose are:
a) 32
b) 64
[[c) 16]]
d) 8
Correct = 16
3693
45. Which of the following statement about Isomerism is NOT CORRECT
a) Racemic mixture is equal D and L isomers present
b) Racemic mixture is optically inactive
[[c) Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L isomers into each other]]
d) Enantiomerism is also known as D and L-Isomerism
Correct = Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L isomers into each other
46. Parent alcohol in carbohydrates is:
[[a) Glycerol]]
b) Ethanol
c) Methanol
d) Cholesterol
Correct = Glycerol
47. Which enzyme is deficient in Hunter's syndrome
a) Liduronase
b) Glucokinase
c) Galactokinase
[[d) Iduronate sulfatase]]
Correct = Iduronate sulfatase
48. The monosaccharide with maximum rate of absorption in intestine is
a) Glucose
[[b) Galactose]]
c) Mannose
3694
d) Fructose
Correct = Galactose
49. Glucosamines used in following condition:
[[a) Arthritis]]
b) Niemann pick disease
c) Alzheimer's disease
d) Cancer
Correct = Arthritis
50. Heparin is a:
[[a) Glycosa amino glycan (GAG)]]
b) Protein
c) Glycolipid
d) Polysaccharide
Correct = Glycosa amino glycan (GAG)
51. Which form of carbohydrate is present in Glycoprotein 1
[[a) Monosaccharide]]
b) Disaccharide
c) Homo Polysaccharide
d) Hetero Polysaccharide
Correct = Monosaccharide
52. A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels very
uncomfortable. His stomach becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhoea
3695
frequently. These symptoms do not appear when he eats food other than dairy
products. Which of the following is most likely enzyme in which this young man
is deficient:
a) Alpha amylase
[[b) Beta galactosidase]]
c) Alpha glucosidase
d) Sucrase
Correct = Beta galactosidase
53. Which test is given positive by Glyceraldehyde?
[[a) Benedicts test]]
b) Molisch test
c) Seliwanoff's test
d) Gerhard's test
Correct = Benedicts test
54. Which of the following is branched:
[[a) Starch]]
b) Cellulose
c) Heteropolysaccharide
d) All
Correct = Starch
55. Non-reducing disaccharide is
a) Fructose
[[b) Sucrose]]
c) Maltose
3696
d) Lactose
Correct = Sucrose
56. Sucrose is hydrolyzed by
a) Saccharase
b) Surcose phosphorylase
[[c) Invertase]]
d) Amylase
Correct = Invertase
57. Which is NOT a hexose sugar!
a) Glucose
b) . Galactose
c) Fructose
[[d) Ribose]]
Correct = Ribose
58. Which of the following is a component of polysaccharide Chitin
a) Ascorbic acid
[[b) Glucosarnine]]
c) Synovium
d) Glucoronic acid
Correct = Glucosarnine
59. Hyaluronic acid is a mucopolysaccharide present in
a) Vitreous humor
3697
b) Synovial fluid
[[c) Both]]
d) Dermis
Correct = Both
60. Which disaccharide is NOT broken down in GIT'!
[[a) Lactulose]]
b) Maltose
c) Sucrose
d) Lactose
Correct = Lactulose
61. The rate of absorption of sugars by the small intestine is highest for
a) Polysaccharides
b) Disaccharides
[[c) Hexoses]]
d) Pentoses
Correct = Hexoses
62. D-Xylose test is used in diagnosis of
a) Zinc deficiency
[[b) Malabsorption syndrome]]
c) Coeliac sprue
d) Bacterial overgrowth syndrome
Correct = Malabsorption syndrome
3698
63. Number of -OH groups in ribose '?
[[a) 4]]
b) 5
c) 62
d) 2
Correct = 4
64. Which of the following enzyme helps in catalyzing conversion of aldose sugars
to ketose sugars'?
a) Oxidoreductase
b) Aldolase
c) Decarboxylase
[[d) Isomerase]]
Correct = Isomerase
65. Most common dietary fibre is
[[a) Cellulose]]
b) Pectin
c) Starch
d) Proteoglyan
Correct = Cellulose
66. Cellulose is a:
a) Fructose polymer
[[b) Non starch polysaccharide]]
c) Starch polysaccharide
d) Glycosaminoglycan
3699
67. Glycosaminoglycans present in cornea:
a) Dermatan sulfate
b) Chondroitin Sulfate
c) . Hyaluronic acid
[[d) Keratan Sulfate]]
Correct = Keratan Sulfate
68. Excess of which of the following can result in cataract'
[[a) Sugar alcohol]]
b) Glucose
c) Sugar amines
d) Galactose
Correct = Sugar alcohol
69. All are functions of glycosaminoglycans except
a) Anticoagulant
b) . Wound healing
c) Lubrication
[[d) Transport of lipids]]
Correct = Transport of lipids
70. Side chain linkage in proteoglycons-
[[a) Covalent]]
b) Hydrogen bond
3700
c) Van-darWaal's force
Correct = Covalent
71. Identify the correct statement:
a) Glut-2 responsible for glucose and fructose absorption
b) Glucose is absorbed independent ofNa
c) Fructose requires sodium for absorption
[[d) SGLT-2 is specific for glucose]]
Correct = SGLT-2 is specific for glucose
72. Defect in renal glucosuria
a) GLUT
b) GLUT 2 c
c) SGLT I
[[d) SGLT 2]]
Correct = SGLT 2
73. Secondary active Glucose transport occurs along with
a) HC03
[[b) Na+]]
c) CI
d) K+
Correct = Na+
74. Glucose is transported in pancreas through which receptor-
3701
a) GLUT
[[b) GLUT 2]]
c) GLUT 3
d) GLUT 4
Correct = GLUT 2
75. GLUT-5 is transporter for-
a) Galactose
[[b) Fructose]]
c) Mannose
d) Glucose
Correct = Fructose
76. Which of the following does not depend on insulin for glucose uptake
[[a) Brain]]
b) Cardiac muscles
c) Sketetal muscles
d) Adipose tissue
Correct = Brain
77. Glucose transporter present in erythrocytes {RBCs}:-
[[a) GLUT- I]]
b) GLUT- 2
c) GLUT-3
d) GLUT-4
Correct = GLUT- I
3702
78. GLUT responsible for secretion of insulin from beta cells of pancreas
a) 4
b) 3
[[c) 2]]
d) 1
Correct = 2
79. Mutation in GLUT-2 causes-
a) Menke's disease
[[b) Fanconi-Bickel syndrome]]
c) Beckwith syndrome
d) Dandy walker syndrome
Correct = Fanconi-Bickel syndrome
80. Which out of the following is Insulin dependent'?
a) GLUT-I
b) GLUT-2
c) GLUT-3
[[d) GLUT-4]]
Correct = GLUT-4
81. Which of the following is not correct'?
a) Sodium dependent glucose transporter (SGLT) is unidirectional
b) SGLT-2 is in kidneys only for glucose transport , SGLT-I is in kidneys

and intestine for glucose and galactose transport
c) This sodium-glucose symport carries 2 Na+ for each glucose
3703
[[d) This sodium-glucose symport carries 3 Na+ for each glucose]]
Correct = This sodium-glucose symport carries 3 Na+ for each glucose
82. After an overnight fast, GLUTs are reduced in
a) Brain
b) RBC
c) Kidney
[[d) Adipose Tissues]]
Correct = Adipose Tissues
83. GLUT (glucose transporter) present in neurons is:
a) . GLUT-I
b) GLUT-2
[[c) GLUT-3]]
d) GLUT-4
Correct = GLUT-3
84. Which ofthe following are epimers:
[[a) D-Galactose and D-Glucose]]
b) D-Galactose and L-Glucose
c) D-Mannose and L-Mannose
d) D-Mannose and L-Glucose
Correct = D-Galactose and D-Glucose
85. Which form of glucose and fructose is predominant '?
a) A
3704
[[b) P]]
c) Both
d) Variable
Correct = P
86. Which ofthe following is a keto sugar?
a) Glucose
b) Sorbitol
[[c) Fructose]]
d) Sedoheptulose
Correct = Fructose
87. Active uptake of glucose is inhibited by
a) Insulin
[[b) Phlorizin]]
c) Indoacetate
d) Fluoride
Correct = Phlorizin
88. All are true about glycosaminoglycans except:
a) Protein associated with glycosaminoglycans is called core proteins
b) May be associated with connective tissues
[[c) Highly positively charged]]
d) Negatively charged
Correct = Highly positively charged
3705
89. Hyaluronic acid is composed of:
[[a) Longest glycosaminoglycan]]
b) N-acetyl galactosamine
c) Has Glucuronic acid
d) N-acetylneuramic acid
Correct = Longest glycosaminoglycan
90. In Benedict test, red colour is/are produced by:
a) Sucrose
b) . Inositol
[[c) Fructose]]
d) Lactose
Correct = Fructose
91. Mucopolysacchidosis, which is a lysosomal storage disease, occurs due to

abnormality in: Hydrolase enzyme
b) Dehydorgenase enzyme
c) Lipase enzyme
d) Phosphatase
92. Danaparoid contains:
[[a) Keratin sulphate]]
b) Chitin
c) Derma tan sulphate
d) Heparan sulphate
3706
Correct = Keratin sulphate
93. Reilly bodies are seen in?
a) Bechet's disease
b) Gangliosidosis
c) Gaucher's disease
[[d) Hurler disease]]
Correct = Hurler disease
94. Which of the following has highest glycemic index
[[a) Glucose]]
b) Sucrose
c) Fructose
d) Sorbitol
Correct = Glucose
95. Which ofthe following test cannot be done for glucose estimation 1
a) Glucose oxidase
b) Dextrostix
[[c) Ferric chloride test]]
d) Nelson somogyi method
96. Which of the following carbohydrate test is used for assessment of liver
function 1
[[a) Galactose]]
3707
b) Glucose
c) Sucrose
d) Fructose
Correct = Galactose
97. A five year old boy with coarse facial features, mental retardation ,
dysostosis multiplex. Corneal clouding was not present. What is the diagnosis
1
a) MPS Type IV
b) Hurler disease
[[c) Hunter disease]]
d) Gaucher's disease
Correct = Hunter disease
1. Which RNA contain abnormal purine and Pyrimidine?
[[a) tRNA]]
b) 23 SrRNA
c) 16 S rRNA
d) mRNA
Correct = tRNA
2. A codon consist of:
a) One molecule of amino acyl-t RNA
3708
b) Two complementary base pairs
[[c) Three consecutive nucleotide units]]
d) Four individual nucleotides
Correct = Three consecutive nucleotide units
3. All are true of genetic code except:
a) Degenerate
b) Universal
[[c) Punctuation]]
d) Non overlapping
Correct = Punctuation
4. Wobble hypothesis-regarding the variation true is
a) Degenerate
[[b) 5 -end of anticodon]]
c) Mrna
d) TRNA
Correct = 5 -end of anticodon
5. There are 20 amino acids with three codons In Spite of the no of amino acids
could be formed is 64 leading to that an amino acid Is represented by more than
a) Transcription
[[b) Degeneracy]]
c) Mutation
d) Frame shift
Correct = Degeneracy
3709
6. Genetic code has triplet of nucleotides each for one amino acid. When an amino
acid is specified by than one codon, it is called:
a) Transcription
[[b) Degeneracy]]
c) Mutation
d) Frameshift
Correct = Degeneracy
7. The polyeptide from poly (A) is:
[[a) Polylysine]]
b) Polyglycine
c) Polyproline
d) Polyalanine
Correct = Polylysine
8. If constitutive sequence of 4 nucleotide codes for 1 ammo acid, how many amino
acid can be theoretically
a) 4
b) 64
c) 16
[[d) 256]]
Correct = 256
9. Termination process of protein synthesis is performed by all except:
a) Releasing factor
3710
b) Stop codon
c) Peptidyl transferase
[[d) AUG codon]]
Correct = AUG codon
10. True about Ribozyme:
[[a) Peptidyl Transferase activity]]
b) Cuts DNA at specific site
c) Participate in DNA Synthesis
d) GTPase activity
Correct = Peptidyl Transferase activity
11. Part of eukaryotlc DNA contributing to polypeptide synthesis:
[[a) Exon]]
b) Enhancer
c) Leader sequence
d) tRNA
Correct = Exon
12. Met-tRNA would recognize: GCA AUG
[[a) AUG]]
b) UAG
c) GUA
d) UAC
Correct = AUG
3711
13. Which of the following statement Is true?
a) N formyl methionine is the precursor of eukaryot1c polypeptide synthesis
b) Eukryotic ribosomes are smaller than prokaryot1c
[[c) Identification of 5' cap of mRNA by IF4E is the rate limiting step]]
d) Elongation factor 2 shuttles between ADP and ATP
Correct = Identification of 5' cap of mRNA by IF4E is the rate limiting step
14. RNA polymerase differs from DNA polymerase:
a) It edits and synthesis
[[b) Synthesise RNA primers]]
c) Synthesis only in 5 to 3 direction
d) Uses RNA templates
Correct = Synthesise RNA primers
15. The cellular component for protein synthesis is:
a) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
[[c) Ribosomes]]
d) Mitochondria
Correct = Ribosomes
16. Amber codon refers to:
a) Mutant codon
[[b) Stop codon]]
c) Initiating codon
d) Codon for more than one amino acids
Correct = Stop codon
3712
17. Shine-Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:
[[a) AUG codon]]
b) UAA codon
c) UAG codon
d) UGA codon
Correct = AUG codon
18. True regarding amino acyl tRNA synthetase is A/E:
a) Is accepting tRNA
b) Implement genetic code
[[c) Attachment of amino group to 5' end of tRNA]]
d) Editing function
Correct = Attachment of amino group to 5' end of tRNA
19. In translation process, done by:
a) RNA polymerase synthetase
[[b) Amino synthetase]]
c) Leucine zipper
d) DNA
Correct = Amino synthetase
20. Which enzyme Involved In translation is often referred to as 'Fidelity

enzyme'?
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
3713
[[c) Amino acyl tRNA synthetase]]
d) Amino acyl
Correct = Amino acyl tRNA synthetase
21. About peptidyl transferase true is:
[[a) Used in elongation and cause attachment of peptide chain to A- site

of tRNA]]
b) Used in elongation and cause attachment peptide chain to P site
c) Used in initiation and cause 435 complex formation
d) Used in initiation and cause 485 complex formation
Correct = Used in elongation and cause attachment of peptide chain to A- site

of tRNA
22. Termination is caused by all except:
a) RF-1
b) UAA
c) Peptidyl transferase
[[d) 48S complex]]
Correct = 48S complex
23. 435 preinitiation complex include all except:
a) IF3
b) IF1A
c) IF2
[[d) IF-4F]]
Correct = IF-4F
3714
24. IF 4F include all except:
a) 4A
b) 4G
c) 4E
[[d) 4S]]
Correct = 4S
25. For 1 peptide bond formation how many high energy phosphate bonds are
required?
[[a) 0]]
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Correct = 0
26. Vitamin required for post translational modification of coagulants is:
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin C
c) Vitamin 8s
[[d) Vitamin K]]
Correct = Vitamin K
27. Initiator tRNA is in which site of ribosome?
a) A site
[[b) P site]]
3715
c) E site
d) B site
Correct = P site
1. 5'TTACGTAC 3' after transcription what will be the RNA?
a) 5'-TIACGTAC 3'
b) 3'-TIACGTAC 5'
c) 3'-CATGCATI 5'
[[d) 5,-GUACGUAA 3']]
Correct = 5,-GUACGUAA 3'
2. Immunoglobulin molecule is synthesized by in mixed or separate due to:
a) Codominance
b) Gene switching
c) Allele exclusion
[[d) Differential RNA processing]]
Correct = Differential RNA processing
3. A four-year-old child is diagnosed with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an

X-linked recessive disorder, Genetic analysis shows that the patient's gene for
the muscle protein dystrophin contains a mutation in its promoter region. What
would be the most likely effect of this mutation?
a) Tailing of dystrophin mRNA will be defective
b) Capping of dystrophin mRNA will be defective
3716
c) Termination of dystrophin transcription will be deficient
[[d) Initiation of dystrophin transcription will be deficient]]
Correct = Initiation of dystrophin transcription will be deficient
4. Splicing activity is a function of
a) MRNA
[[b) SnRNA]]
c) TRNA
d) RRNA
Correct = SnRNA
5. Reverse transcriptase is:
a) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
[[b) RNA dependent DNA polymerase]]
c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
d) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
Correct = RNA dependent DNA polymerase
6. Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base?
a) MRNA
[[b) TRNA]]
c) RRNA
d) SnRNA
Correct = TRNA
7. The sigma (s) submit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase:
3717
a) Binds the antibiotic rifampicin
b) Is inhibited by a-amanitin
[[c) Specifically recognizes the promoter site]]
d) Is part of the core enzyme
Correct = Specifically recognizes the promoter site
8. The base sequence of the strand of DNA used as a template has the sequence
5'GATCTAC 3'. What would be the base sequence of RNA product?
a) 5' CTAGATG 3'
b) 5' GAUCUAC 3'
c) 5' GTAGATC 3'
[[d) 5' GUAGAUC 3']]
Correct = 5' GUAGAUC 3'
9. DNA dependent RNA polymerase is seen in:
[[a) Primase]]
b) DNA polymerase I
c) DNA polymerase Ill
d) DNA gyrase
Correct = Primase
10. Strand of DNA from which mRNA is formed by transcription is called:
[[a) Template]]
b) Anti-template
c) Coding
d) Transcript
Correct = Template
3718
11. On which of the following t RNA acts specifically?
a) ATP
b) Golgi body
[[c) Specific amino acid]]
d) Ribosome
Correct = Specific amino acid
12. In conversion of DNA to RNA, enzyme required:
a) DNA- polymerase
b) DNA polymerase 111
c) DNA Ligase
[[d) RNA polymerase]]
Correct = RNA polymerase
13. RNA polymerase does not require:
a) Template (ds DNA)
b) Activated precursors (ATP, GTP, UTP, CTP)
c) Divalent metal ions (Mn2 . Mg )
[[d) Primer]]
Correct = Primer
14. In a DNA the coding region reads 5'-CGT-3 '. This ' would code in the RNA
as:
[[a) 5'-CGU-3 ']]
b) 5'-GCA-3'
3719
c) 5'-ACG-3 '
d) 5'-UGC-3'
Correct = 5'-CGU-3 '
15. Cytoplasmic process during processing is
a) 5' capping
b) Poly A tailing
c) Mefhylation of t RNA
[[d) Attachment of CCA in t RNA]]
Correct = Attachment of CCA in t RNA
16. All are the processing reaction in t RNA, except:
a) CCA tailing
b) Methylation of bases
[[c) Poly A tailing]]
d) Trimming of 5' end
Correct = Poly A tailing
17. Lntrons are exised by:
[[a) RNA splicing]]
b) RNA editing
c) Restriction endonuclease
d) DNAase
Correct = RNA splicing
3720
18. A segment of eukaryotlc gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA is
known as:
[[a) Lntron]]
b) Exon
c) Plasmid
d) TATA box
Correct = Lntron
19. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA
template molecule is known as:
a) DNA polymerase
b) RNA polymerase
[[c) Reverse transcriptase]]
d) Phosphokinase
Correct = Reverse transcriptase
20. Function of Pseudouridine arm of tRNA:
[[a) Helps in initiation of translation]]
b) Serves as the recognition site of amino acyltRNA sythetase
c) Recognises the triple nucleotide codon present in the mRAN
d) Helps in initiation of transcription
Correct = Helps in initiation of translation
21. Which of the following is true regarding transcription except:
a) MRNA formed
[[b) DNA polymerase enzyme is used]]
c) RNA polymerase enzyme is used
3721
d) Eukaryotes possess 3 different types of RNA polymerase
Correct = DNA polymerase enzyme is used
22. Apo 848 & Apo 8100 is synthesized from the mRNA- the difference between
them is due to
a) RNA splicing
b) Allelic exclusion
[[c) Deamination of cytidine to uridine]]
d) Upstream repression
Correct = Deamination of cytidine to uridine
1. Most common RNA is:
[[a) RRNA]]
b) MRNA
c) TRNA
d) HnRNA
Correct = RRNA
2. Thymidylated RNA present in:
a) MRNA
b) R RNA
[[c) T RNA]]
d) 16-s-RNA
3722
Correct = T RNA
3. Met-tRNA would recognize
[[a) AUG]]
b) GCA
c) GUA
d) UAC
Correct = AUG
1. Which of the following is true about DNA Polymerase Ill?
[[a) It forms Okazaki fragm nts an it needs RAN primer]]
b) It is needed for translation
c) Bacteria can function without it
d) Has DNA repair function
Correct = It forms Okazaki fragm nts an it needs RAN primer
2. True about DNA Gyrase
a) Prokaryotic Topoisomerase I
[[b) Prokaryotic DNA Topoisomerase 11]]
c) Reverse transcriptase
d) Restriction endonuclease
Correct = Prokaryotic DNA Topoisomerase 11
3723
3. Incorrect statement are:
a) T4 DNA polymerase has 3'->5' exonuclease activity
b) Kienow fragment of DNA polymerase I function is almost s1m1lar to T4

DNA polymerase
c) Restriction endonuclease cut DNA chains at specific location
[[d) Endonuclease cut DNA at 5' terminus]]
Correct = Endonuclease cut DNA at 5' terminus
4. Which DNA polymerase is involved in repair of mammalian DNA?
a) Alpha
[[b) Beta]]
c) Gamma
d) Epsilon
Correct = Beta
5. The gaps between segments of DNA on the lagging stand produced by restriction
enzymes are joined sealed by:
[[a) DNA Ligases]]
b) DNA Helicase
c) DNA topoisomerase
d) DNA Phosphorylase
Correct = DNA Ligases
6. During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymes polymerizes

the Okazaki fragments?
a) DNA Polymerase I
b) DNA Polymerase II
3724
[[c) DNA Polymerase 111]]
d) RNA Polymerase 1
Correct = DNA Polymerase 111
7. All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telomerase which protects
the length of telomerase at the end of chromosomes, except:
a) Germinal
[[b) Somatic]]
c) Hemopoietic
d) Tumor
Correct = Somatic
8. DNA Polymerase with both replication and repair function is
[[a) I]]
b) II
c) III
d) IV
Correct = I
9. Radiolabelled DNA was allowed to replicate twice in a non-radioactive

environment. Which of the following is true?
a) All the strands will have radioactivity
[[b) Half of the DNA will have no radioactivity]]
c) No strands will have radioactivity
d) Three-fourth of the DNA replicated will have radioactivity
Correct = Half of the DNA will have no radioactivity
3725
10. In which of the following phase, DNA doubling occurs
a) GI phase
[[b) S phase]]
c) G2 phase
d) M phase
Correct = S phase
11. Unwinding Enzyme in DNA synthesis:
[[a) Helicase]]
b) Primase
c) DNA Polymerase
d) Transcriptase
Correct = Helicase
12. Action of Telomerase is:
a) DNA repair
[[b) longetivity of cell]]
c) Breakdown of telomere
d) none
Correct = longetivity of cell
13. Ends of chromosomes replicated by
[[a) Telomerase]]
b) Centromere
c) Restriction endonuclease
d) Exonuclease
3726
Correct = Telomerase
14. Which enzymatic mutation is responsible for immortality of cancer cells?
a) DNA reverse transcriptase
b) RNA polymerase
[[c) Telomerase]]
d) DNA polymerase
Correct = Telomerase
15. Okazaki fragments are formed during the synthesis of:
[[a) DsDNA]]
b) SsDNA
c) mRNA
d) TRNA
Correct = DsDNA
16. Correct sequence of enzymes required for DNA formation is:
a) DNA polymerase --> protein unwinding enzyme --> DNA ligase -->
DNA lsomerase --> Polymerase
b) Protein unwinding enzyme --> polymerase I --> DNA ligase -->

DNA isomerase --> DNA polymerase
[[c) RNA polymerase --> DNA polymerase Ill --> DNA polymerase I-->
DNA ligase]]
d) RNA polymerase --> DNA polymerase Ill --> DNA ligase -->
exonuclease --> DNA polymerase I
Correct = RNA polymerase --> DNA polymerase Ill --> DNA polymerase I-->
DNA ligase
3727
17. SCIO is due to defect in:
[[a) NHEJ]]
b) Homologous Recombination
c) Mismatch repair
d) Nucleotide excision repair
Correct = NHEJ
18. Xeroderma pigmentosa is due to:
a) Base excision defect
[[b) Nucleotide excision repair]]
c) SOS repair defect
d) Cross linking defect
Correct = Nucleotide excision repair
19. UV light damage to the DNA leads to:
[[a) Formation of pyrimidine dimers]]
b) No damage to DNA
c) DNA hydrolysis
d) Double stranded breaks
Correct = Formation of pyrimidine dimers
20. Excessive ultraviolet (UV) radiation is harmful to life. The damage caused
to the biological system by ultra-violet radiation I by:
a) Inhibition of DNA synthesis
[[b) Formation of thymidine dimers]]
c) Ionization
3728
d) DNA fragmentation
Correct = Formation of thymidine dimers
21. The primary defect in Xeroderma pigmentosa is:
[[a) Formation of thymidine dimers]]
b) Poly ADP ribose polymerase is defective
c) Exonuclease is defective
d) Formation of adenine dimers
Correct = Formation of thymidine dimers
1. Two strands of the DNA are joined by:
a) Glycosidic bond
[[b) Hydrogen bond]]
c) Convalent bond
d) Ionic bond
Correct = Hydrogen bond
2. True about DNA structure:
a) Purines are adenine, guanine and pyrimidines are uracil and cytosine
b) Watson and crick discovered structure in 1973
[[c) Deoxyribose- phosphate backbone with bases stacked inside]]
d) Mainly consists of left handed helix
Correct = Deoxyribose- phosphate backbone with bases stacked inside
3729
3. If a sample of DNA if adenine is 23% what will be the amount of gunine present?
a) 23%
b) 25%
c) 46%
[[d) 27%]]
Correct = 27%
4. The two stands of DNA are held together by:
a) Van der Waal bond
[[b) Hydrogen bond]]
c) Covalent bond
d) Ionic interaction
Correct = Hydrogen bond
5. Which form of DNB is predominantly seen?
a) A
[[b) C]]
c) B
d) Z
Correct = C
6. Chargaff rule state that:
[[a) A +G =T +C]]
b) A/T =G/C
c) A=U = T=G=C
3730
d) A+T =G+C
Correct = A +G =T +C
7. A nucleic acid was analyzed and found to contain 32% adenine, 18% guanine,
17% cytosine and 33% thymine. The nucleic acid must be
a) Singlestranded RNA
b) Singlestranded DNA
c) Doublestranded RNA
[[d) Doublestranded DNA]]
Correct = Doublestranded DNA
8. Triple bonds are found between which base pairs?
a) A-T
[[b) C-G]]
c) A-G
d) C-T
Correct = C-G
9. At the physiological pH The DNA molecular are:
a) Positively charged
[[b) Negatively charged]]
c) Neutral
d) Amphipathic
Correct = Negatively charged
10. Total number of genes in a human being is:
3731
a) 800,000
b) 50,000
c) 100,000
[[d) 30,000]]
Correct = 30,000
11. Triplex DNA is due to:
[[a) Hoogsteen pairing]]
b) Palindromic sequences
c) Large no. of guanosine repeats
d) Polyprimidine tracts
Correct = Hoogsteen pairing
12. About DNA which of the following is true:
[[a) The nucleotide of one strand form bonds with nucleotide of opposite
strand]]
b) Cytosine and uracil differ by one ribose sugar
c) The information from DNA is copied in the form of tRNA
d) Each nucleotide pair incudes two purines
Correct = The nucleotide of one strand form bonds with nucleotide of opposite
strand
13. Which model of DNA was discovered by Watson and crick?
a) A DNA
[[b) B DNA]]
c) C DNA
d) Z DNA
3732
Correct = B DNA
14. Total number of base pair in human haploid set of chromosome:
a) 3 million
[[b) 3 billion]]
c) 33 billion
d) 5 million
Correct = 3 billion
15. Proteins seen in chromosomes are called:
a) Nucleotides
[[b) Histones]]
c) Apoproteins
d) Glycoproteins
Correct = Histones
16. Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively:
[[a) Uncondensed]]
b) Condensed
c) Over condensed
d) Partially condensed
Correct = Uncondensed
17. The long and short arms of chromosomes ar designated respectively as;
a) P and q arms
b) M and q arms
3733
[[c) Q and p arms]]
d) I and s arms
Correct = Q and p arms
18. Y-chromosome is:
a) Metacentric
b) Sub- metacentric
[[c) Acrocentic]]
d) Longer than the X-chromosome
Correct = Acrocentic
19. The protein rich in basic amino acids, which functions in the packaging of
DNA in chromosome, is:
[[a) Histones]]
b) Collagen
c) Hyaluronic acid binding proteins
d) Fibrinogen
Correct = Histones
20. Random inactivation of X chromosome is:
[[a) Lyonisation]]
b) Allelic exclusion
c) Randomization
d) Genomic imprinting
Correct = Lyonisation
3734
21. In the entire genome, the coding DNA constitutes how much?
[[a) 0.01]]
b) 0.02
c) 0.25
d) 0.4
Correct = 0.01
1. Regarding synthesis of triacylglycerol in adipose tissue, all of the following

are true except:
a) Synthesis from dihydroxy acetone phosphate
[[b) Enzyme glycerol kinase plays an important role]]
c) Enzyme glycerol 3-phosphate dehydrogenase plays an important role
d) Phosphatldate is hydrolysed
Correct = Enzyme glycerol kinase plays an important role
2. The storage triacylglycerol are hydrolysed by:
a) Pancreatic lipase
b) Lipoprotein lipase
c) Lysosomal lipase
[[d) Hormone sensitive lipase]]
Correct = Hormone sensitive lipase
3. Hormone sensitive lipase 1cts on
3735
[[a) Triglycerides]]
b) Cholesterol ester
c) Phospholipids
d) Gangliosides
Correct = Triglycerides
1. Most abundantly synthesised Fatty acid in the body is?
[[a) Palmitic acid]]
b) Oleic acid
c) Arachidonic acid
d) Stearic acid
Correct = Palmitic acid
2. Which of the following is not a part of fatty acid synthase Complex?
a) Ketoacyl reductase
b) Enoylreductase
[[c) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase]]
d) Ketoacyl synthase
Correct = Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
3. Mitochondria is Involved in A/E:
[[a) Fatty acid synthesis]]
b) DNA synthesis
3736
c) Fatty acid oxidation
4. Fatty acid synthase complex contain the following enzymes except:
a) Enoylreductase
b) Ketoacylreductase
[[c) Acetyl: CoA carboxylase]]
d) Dehydratase
Correct = Acetyl: CoA carboxylase
5. NADH is required for:
a) Gluconeogenesis
b) Glycolysis
d) Glycogenolysis
6. The first step in fatty acid synthesis involves
[[a) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase]]
b) β-Hydroxyl-CoA dehydrogenase
c) Acetyl dehydrogenase
d) Pyruvate kinase
Correct = Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
7. In fatty acid synthesis C02 loss occurs in which step?
3737
a) Hydration
b) Dehydration
[[c) Condensation reaction]]
d) Reduction
Correct = Condensation reaction
8. Carbon atoms added in fatty acid synthesis:
a) 2 in 1st cycle and 4 in llnd cycle
[[b) 4 in 1st cycle and 2 in llnd cycle]]
c) 2 in 1st cycle and 2 in llnd cycle
d) 4 in 1st cycle and 4 in llnd cycle
Correct = 4 in 1st cycle and 2 in llnd cycle
9. PAN-SH site of fatty acid synthase complex accepts:
a) Acetyl-CoA
[[b) Malonyl-CoA]]
c) Propionyl-CoA
d) All
Correct = Malonyl-CoA
10. Acetyl CoA acts as a substrate for all the enzymes except:
a) HMG-CoA synthese
[[b) Malic enzyme]]
c) Malonyl CoA synthetase
d) Fatty acid synthetase
Correct = Malic enzyme
3738
1. In well fed state, the activity of Carnitine Palmitoyl Transferase-1 in outer
mitochondrial membrane is inhibited by:
a) Glucose
b) Acetyl-CoA
[[c) Malonyl-CoA]]
d) Pyruvate
Correct = Malonyl-CoA
2. Number of ATP formed by oxidation of one molecule of palmitic acid (16 c):
a) 146
[[b) 106]]
c) 135
d) 34
Correct = 106
3. Beta oxidation in peroxisome generate:
a) NADPH
[[b) H20 2]]
c) Long chain fatty acid
d) FADH2
Correct = H20 2
3739
4. All are features of Refsum's disease except:
[[a) Deficiency of alpha hydroxylase]]
b) Defect of beta oxidation
c) Accumulation of phytanic acid
d) Peripheral neuropathy
Correct = Deficiency of alpha hydroxylase
5. Enzyme defect in Refsum's disease:
[[a) Phytanoyl alpha oxidase]]
b) Acyl-Co A dehydrogenase
c) Thiolase
d) Thiokinase
Correct = Phytanoyl alpha oxidase
6. Adrenoleukodystrophy is associated with:
[[a) Accumulation of very long chain fatty acids]]
b) Accumulation of medium chain fatty acid
c) Lncre13sed plasmalogen
d) Decreased pipecolic acid
Correct = Accumulation of very long chain fatty acids
7. Beta-oxidation of palmitic acid yields:
a) 3-acetylCoA
[[b) 129 ATP net]]
c) 131 ATP net
d) 16-acetylCoA
Correct = 129 ATP net
3740
8. Beta-oxidation in peroxisome is differentiated from that occurring in
mitochondria by:
a) AcetylCoA
[[b) H20 2 formed]]
c) Different enzymes are found in different site
d) NADH is required
Correct = H20 2 formed
9. One of the following is obtained oxidation of odd chain fatty acids:
a) Acetyl-CoA + Acetyl-CoA
[[b) Acetyl-CoA + Propionyl-CoA]]
c) Propionyl CoA + Propionyl-CoA
d) Acetyl-CoA alone
Correct = Acetyl-CoA + Propionyl-CoA
1. Which of the following takes place in low insulin/ glucagon ratio?
a) Cholesterol synthesis
b) Glycogen synthesis
[[c) Ketogenesis]]
d) Fatty acid synthesis
Correct = Ketogenesis
3741
2. Which of the following organs do not utilise ketone bodies?
a) Brain
[[b) RBC]]
c) Muscle
d) Heart
Correct = RBC
3. Ketone bodies can be utilised by all, except:
[[a) RBC]]
b) Brain
c) Skeletal muscle
d) Renal cortex
Correct = RBC
4. Rothera's test used for detection of:
a) Proteins
b) Glucose
c) Fatty acid
[[d) Ketones]]
Correct = Ketones
5. Which organ does not utilize ketone bodies?
[[a) Liver]]
b) Brain
c) Skeletal muscle
d) Cardiac muscle
3742
Correct = Liver
6. The immediate precursor in the formation of acetoacetate from acetyl-CoA in

the liver is:
a) Mevalonate
[[b) HMG-CoA]]
c) Acetoacetyl-CoA
d) 3-hydroxyl-butyryl-CoA
Correct = HMG-CoA
7. In a well fed state, acetyl-CoA obtained from diet is least used in the
synthesis of:
a) Palmitoyl-CoA
b) Citrate
[[c) Acetoacetate]]
d) Oxalosuccinate
Correct = Acetoacetate
8. The major fuel in the brain after several weeks of starvation is:
a) Glucose
b) Fatty acid
[[c) 13-Hydroxy butyrate]]
d) Glycerol
Correct = 13-Hydroxy butyrate
3743
1. Common enzyme in cholesterol and ketone body metabolism:
a) HMG-CoA reductase
[[b) HMG-CoA synthase]]
c) Cholesterol and ketone body
d) Thiolase
Correct = HMG-CoA synthase
2. All are derived from cholesterol except:
a) Vitamin D
b) Bile salt
[[c) Bile pigment]]
d) Steroid
Correct = Bile pigment
3. Which of the following does not have cholesterol?
a) Vitamin D
b) Estrogen
[[c) Adrenaline]]
d) Progesterone
Correct = Adrenaline
4. Which coenzyme act as reducing agent in anabolic reaction?
a) FADH2
b) FMNH2
3744
[[c) NADPH]]
d) NADH
Correct = NADPH
5. Enzyme common for synthesis of both ketone bodies and cholesterol:
a) HMG-CoA reductase
[[b) HMG-CoA synthase]]
c) Acetyl-CoA carboxylase
d) HMG-CoA lyase
Correct = HMG-CoA synthase
6. Bile acids are derived from:
a) Fatty acids
[[b) Cholesterol]]
c) Bilirubin
d) Proteins
Correct = Cholesterol
7. Bile acids synthesised in liver (primary bile acids):
a) Lithocolic acid
[[b) Cholicacid]]
c) Chenodeoxycholic acid
d) Deoxycholic acid
Correct = Cholicacid
3745
1. Triglycerides are maximum in
[[a) Chylomicrons]]
b) VLDL
c) LDL
d) HDL
Correct = Chylomicrons
2. Which of the following types of hypertriglyceridemia is associated with an

increase in chylomicron and VLDL remnants?
a) Type I
b) Type Il
[[c) Type Ill]]
d) Type IV
Correct = Type Ill
3. Which of the following is an activator of LCAT?
a) Apo 8100
b) Apo 848
c) Apo E
[[d) Apo A-I]]
Correct = Apo A-I
4. Defect In familial hypercholesterolemia
[[a) LDL receptor defect]]
3746
b) lipoprotein lipase defect
c) Increased HDL
d) Defect in apo E
Correct = LDL receptor defect
5. Absence of this apo lipoprotein is responsible for the genetic disorder,

familial type Ill hyperlipoproteinemia
a) Apo B100
b) Apo B48
[[c) Apo E]]
d) Apo Cll
Correct = Apo E
6. Full form of LCAT:
[[a) Lecithin cholesterol acyl-transferase]]
b) Lecithin choline acyl-transferase
c) Lecithin cholesterol alkyl-transferase
d) Lecithin choline alcohol-transferase
Correct = Lecithin cholesterol acyl-transferase
7. Scavenger receptor is used in the metabolism of:
[[a) HDL]]
b) LDL
c) IDL
d) VLDL
Correct = HDL
3747
8. HDL has highest content of:
a) Saturated fatty acid
b) Triglycerides
c) Cholesterol
[[d) Apolipoproteins]]
Correct = Apolipoproteins
9. Lipase that is regulated by glucagon:
a) Lipoprotein lipase
[[b) Hormone sensitive lipase]]
c) Gastric lipase
d) Pancreatic lipase
Correct = Hormone sensitive lipase
10. A patient has total cholesterol 300, TG 150, and HDL25. What would be the
LDL value? (All values in mg/ dL)
[[a) 245]]
b) 125
c) 55
d) 35
Correct = 245
11. Regarding LDL receptors, all are true except
a) Found in Ciathrin coated pits of cell membrane
[[b) Found only in extrahepatic tissue]]
c) Internalized by endocytosis
3748
d) High levels of cellular cholesterol down regulate LDL receptors
Correct = Found only in extrahepatic tissue
12. Which is the ligand for receptors present in liver for uptake of LDL?
a) Apo E
b) Apo A and apo E
c) Apo E and apo 8100
[[d) Apo 8100]]
Correct = Apo 8100
13. Increased level of lipoprotein (a) predisposes to
a) Liver cirrhosis
[[b) Atherosclerosis]]
c) Nephritic syndrome
d) Pancreatitis
Correct = Atherosclerosis
14. Main transporter of cholesterol to peripheral tissue:
a) HDL
[[b) LDL]]
c) VLDL
d) Chylomicron
Correct = LDL
15. Which of the following lipoproteins does not move towards charged end in
electrophoresis:
3749
a) HDL
b) LDL
c) VLDL
[[d) Chylomicron]]
Correct = Chylomicron
16. All of the following statement about lipoprotein Lipase are true, except:
a) Found in adipose tissue
b) Found in myocytes
c) Deficiency leads to hypertriacylglycero
[[d) Does not require Cll as cofactor]]
Correct = Does not require Cll as cofactor
17. All of the following statements about apoproteins true except:
a) Apoprotein A-I activates LCAT
b) Apoprotein C-1 activates lipoprotein lip
[[c) Apoprotein C-11 inhibits lipoprotein lipase]]
d) Apoprotein C-11 activates lipoprotein lipase
Correct = Apoprotein C-11 inhibits lipoprotein lipase
18. The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of

triacylglycerol by weight is:
a) VLDL
[[b) Chylomicron]]
c) HDL
d) LDL
3750
19. Cholesterol from dietary sources is transported to the peripheral tissue
by:
a) Chylomicron
b) VLDL
c) HDL
[[d) LDL]]
Correct = LDL
20. Action of lipoprotein lipase is:
[[a) To form remnant lipoprotein]]
b) Promote lipolysis in adipose tissue
c) To form mature chylomicron
d) To form HDL
Correct = To form remnant lipoprotein
21. In coronary artery disease the cholesterol level (mg/dl) recommended is
[[a) Below 200]]
b) <250
c) <220
d) <280
Correct = Below 200
22. Lipoprotein X Is an indicator of:
a) Atherosclerosis
[[b) Cholestatsis]]
3751
c) Hepatitis
d) Myocardial infarction
Correct = Cholestatsis
23. Which is the lipoprotein with lowest density?
a) HDL
b) LDL
[[c) VLDL]]
d) Lp a
Correct = VLDL
24. Which of the following has highest electrophoretic mobility and least lipid
content?
a) Chylomicrons
[[b) HDL]]
c) VLDL
d) IDL
Correct = HDL
25. Which helps in the transport of chylomicrons from intestine to liver?
a) Apoprotein B
b) Apoprotein A
c) Apoprotein C
[[d) Apoprotein E]]
Correct = Apoprotein E
3752
26. Cholesterol presents ln LDL
a) Represents primarily cholesterol that 1s being removed from peripheral

cells
b) Binds to a receptor and cholesterol diffuses across the cell membrane
[[c) On accumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDL receptors]]
d) When enters a cell, suppresses activity of acyl-CoA: cholesterol

acyltransferase ACAT
Correct = On accumulation in the cell inhibits replenishment of LDL receptors
27. A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which
of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood?
a) Chylomicrons
[[b) VLDL]]
c) LDL
d) HDL
Correct = VLDL
28. Which of the following is false about heparin?
a) Releases lipoprotein lipase
[[b) Releases hormone sensitive lipase]]
c) It is an anticoagulant
d) It is a glycosaminoglycan
Correct = Releases hormone sensitive lipase
29. Lipoprotein a resembles:
[[a) Plasminogen]]
b) Plasmin
c) Thrombin
3753
d) Prothrombin
Correct = Plasminogen
30. In uncontrolled diabetes mellitus what is the cause of high level of VLDL
and TAG
a) Increased hepatic lipase
b) Increased LDL receptors
c) Increased activity of lipoprotein lipase and decreased activity of

hormone sensitive lipase
[[d) Increased activity of hormone sensitive lipase and decreased

lipoprotein lipase activity]]
Correct = Increased activity of hormone sensitive lipase and decreased

lipoprotein lipase activity
31. A patient with eruptive xanthomas drawn blood milky in appearance. Which
lipoprotein is elevated in the plasma?
[[a) Chylomicron]]
b) Chylomicron remnants
c) LDL
d) HDL
32. Very high total cholesterol, elevated LDL, normal level of LDL receptors.
What is the probable cause?
[[a) Apo 8100 mutation]]
b) Complete deficiency of lipoprotein lipase
c) Cholesterol acyltransferase deficiency
d) Apo E defect
Correct = Apo 8100 mutation
3754
33. Fish oil ls not used in the treatment of:
[[a) Type 2A Hyperlipoproteinemia]]
b) Type 28 Hyperlipoproteinemia
c) Type 3 Hyperlipoproteinemia
d) Type 5 Hyperlipoproteinemia
Correct = Type 2A Hyperlipoproteinemia
34. Which of the following is increased in lipoprotein lipase deficiency?
a) VLDL
b) LDL
c) HDL
[[d) Chylomicrons]]
35. Familial hypercholesterolemia is:
[[a) Deficient LDL receptors]]
b) Deficient HDL receptors
c) HMG-CoA reductase deficiency
d) Deficient VLDL receptors
Correct = Deficient LDL receptors
36. Hypertriglyceridemia not seen in:
[[a) Hypothyroidism]]
b) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
c) Cushing's syndrome
3755
d) Hepatitis
Correct = Hypothyroidism
37. A patient was diagnosed with Isolated Increase in LDL. His father and brother
had the same disease with increased cholesterol. The likely diagnosis is:
a) Familial type Ill hyperlipoproteinemia
b) Abetalipoproteinemia
c) Familial LPL deficiency (type1)
[[d) LDL receptor mutation]]
Correct = LDL receptor mutation
38. Both Triglycerides and HDL Increased:
a) Smoking
b) Athletes
c) Statin/Anabolic steroid abusers
[[d) Alcoholism]]
Correct = Alcoholism
39. Apolipoprotein of chylomicron is:
a) Apo B100
[[b) Apo B48]]
c) Apo E
d) Apo Cll
Correct = Apo B48
3756
1. Which of the following produces 3 ATP by anaerobic glycolysis?
a) Glucose
b) Fructose
c) Galactose
[[d) Glycogen]]
Correct = Glycogen
2. In anaerobic glycolysis, pyruvate is converted to lactate for:
a) Removal of Pyruvate
[[b) Generation of NAO+]]
c) Generation of H+
d) Conversion of Pyruvate
Correct = Generation of NAO+
3. The supplement used in FSGS is :
a) Fructose
[[b) Galactose]]
c) Mannose
d) Glucose
Correct = Galactose
4. Which of the following is suitable test performed for diagnosis of Intestinal

malabsorption?
a) D-Xylose test
3757
[[b) Stool fat estimation]]
c) BT-PABA test
d) Hydrogen breath
Correct = Stool fat estimation
5. A 27-year lady developed severe hyperglycemia in pregnancy and it returned

to normal after delivery. Her blood sugar is well under control without any
medications. Her sisters and mother also have history of increased blood glucose
during pregnancy, all were euglycemic after delivery. What is the enzyme defect?
a) Glucokinase
[[b) PFK]]
c) Aldolase
d) Enolase
Correct = PFK
6. Irreversible steps of Glycolysis are catalysed by:
[[a) Hexokinase, Phosphofructokinase, Pyruvate Kinase]]
b) Glucokinase, Pyruvate Kinase, Glyceraldehyde 3 Phosphate Dehydrogenase
c) Hexokinase, Phospho Glycerate Kinase, Pyruvate Kinase
d) Pyruvate Kinase, Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase, Phospho FructoKinase
Correct = Hexokinase, Phosphofructokinase, Pyruvate Kinase
7. Glycolysis occurs in:
[[a) Cytosol]]
b) Mitochondria
c) Nucleus
d) Lysosome
Correct = Cytosol
3758
8. Irreversible step(s) in Glycolysis is/are:
a) Enolase
[[b) Phosphofructokinase]]
c) Pyruvate Kinase
d) Glyceraldehyde 3 Phosphate Dehydrogenase
Correct = Phosphofructokinase
9. Enzyme catalyzing reversible step in glycolysis is are:
a) Phosphofructokinase
[[b) Enolase]]
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Phospho-glycerate mutase
Correct = Enolase
10. In which of the following steps ATP is released?
[[a) Phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvate]]
b) Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate to 1,3 bisphosphoglycerate
c) Fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1,6 bisphosphate.
d) Glucose to Glucose 6 phosphate.
Correct = Phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvate
11. What activate Kinases of glycolysis?
a) ATP
b) CAMP
[[c) Insulin]]
3759
d) Glucagon
Correct = Insulin
12. About glycolysis true is:
a) Occurs in mitochondria
b) Complete breakdown of glucose
[[c) Conversion of glucose to 3C units]]
d) 3 ATPs are used in anaerobic pathway.
Correct = Conversion of glucose to 3C units
13. Compound that joins glycolysis with glycogenesis and glycogenolysis:
a) Glucose 1,6 bisphosphate
b) Glucose 1 P04
[[c) Glucose 6 P04]]
d) Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate
Correct = Glucose 6 P04
14. Key glycolytic enzymes:
[[a) Phosphofructokinase]]
b) Hexokinase
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Glucose 1,6 bisphosphatase
15. In glycolysis the first committed step is catalysed by:
a) 2,3-DPG
3760
b) Glucokinase
c) Hexokinase
[[d) Phosphofructokinase]]
16. The rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis is:
[[a) Phosphofructokinase]]
b) Glucose- 6-dehydrogenase
c) Glucokinase
d) Pyruvate kinase
17. Cancer cells derive nutrition from:
a) Anaerobic glycolysis
b) Oxidative phosphorylation
c) Increase in mitochondria
[[d) Aerobic Glycolysis]]
Correct = Aerobic Glycolysis
18. True statements about glucokinase is/are:
[[a) Km value is higher than normal blood sugar]]
b) Found in liver
c) Glucose 6 phosphate inhibit it
d) Has both glucose 6 phosphatase and kinase activity
Correct = Km value is higher than normal blood sugar
3761
19. Within the RBC, hypoxia stimulates glycolysis by which of the following
regulating pathways:
a) Hypoxia stimulates pyruvate dehydrogenase by increased 2, 3-DPG
b) Hypoxia inhibits hexokinase
[[c) Hypoxia stimulates release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on

RBC membrane]]
d) Activation of the regulatory enzymes by high pH
Correct = Hypoxia stimulates release of all glycolytic enzymes from Band 3 on

RBC membrane
20. All except occurs on decrease in blood glucose level:
a) Inhibition of PFK-11
b) Activation of Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphatase.
c) Increase in glucagon.
[[d) Increase in Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphate.]]
Correct = Increase in Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphate.
21. The number of ATPs produced by Rapaport-leubering Cycle in RBC from Glucose:
a) 1
[[b) 2]]
c) 3
d) 4
Correct = 2
22. Enzyme responsible for complete oxidation of glucose to co2 and water is
present in:
a) Cytosol
[[b) Mitochondria]]
3762
c) Lysosomes
23. The enzyme not involved in substrate level phosphorylation:
a) Pyruvate kinase
[[b) Phosphofructokinase]]
c) Succinate thiokinase
d) Phosphoglycerate kinase
24. The major metabolic product produced under normal circumstances by

erythrocytes and by muscle cells during intense exercise is recycled through
liver in the Cori cycle. The metabolite is:
a) Oxaloacetate
b) Alanine
c) Glycerol
[[d) Lactate]]
Correct = Lactate
25. Lactate produced anaerobically is used by
a) TCA cycle and Glycogenolysis
[[b) Cori cycle and gluconegenesis]]
c) Gluconeogenesis and Glycolysis
d) Cori cycle only
Correct = Cori cycle and gluconegenesis
3763
26. Cori's cycle is concerned with transport of
a) Alanine
b) Glutamate
[[c) Lactate]]
d) None
Correct = Lactate
27. Lactate is formed in all except
a) Testis
b) Lens
[[c) Brain]]
d) RBCs
Correct = Brain
28. PFK-1 inhibitor
a) Insulin
[[b) Citrate]]
c) Glucose 6 phosphate
d) AMP
Correct = Citrate
29. RatelimitingstepinglycolysisisPFK-1. Which among the following is the most

potent allosteric activator of PFK-H
a) LowpH
b) Citrate
c) ATP
3764
[[d) Fructose 2, 6 bisphosphate]]
Correct = Fructose 2, 6 bisphosphate
30. The major role of 2,3 bisphospholycerate in RBCs is
a) Acid-base balance
b) Binding of oxygen
[[c) Release of oxygen]]
d) Reversal of glycolysis
Correct = Release of oxygen
31. How many ATPs are used in energy investment phase of glycolysis !
[[a) 2]]
b) 3
c) 4
d) ZERO
Correct = 2
32. In Anaerobic glycolysis, end product is
a) 2ATP+2NAD
b) 2ATP
[[c) 2ATP+2NADH]]
d) 4ATP+2FADH2
Correct = 2ATP+2NADH
33. In Anaerobic glycolysis, there is gain of
[[a) 2 ATP + 2 NAD]]
3765
b) 2 ATP
c) 2 ATP + 2 NADH
d) 4 ATP + 2 FADH2
Correct = 2 ATP + 2 NAD
34. No. of ATP produced in RBC in fed state !
[[a) 2ATP]]
b) 4ATP
c) 7 ATP
d) 6ATP
Correct = 2ATP
35. No. of ATP produced in RBC in aerobic state!
[[a) 2ATP]]
b) 4ATP
c) 7 ATP
d) 6ATP
Correct = 2ATP
36. All tissues convert glucose to predominantly lactate EXCEPT:
[[a) Brain]]
b) Lens
c) Cornea
d) RBCs
Correct = Brain
3766
37. Which of the following is incorrect about RBCs
a) RBCs cannot use Fatty acids, amino acids and ketone bodies for energy
b) RBCs does not contain enzyme Isocitrate dehydrogenase
[[c) Lactate dehydrogenase is absent in RBCs]]
d) Production of 2,3 BPG does not yield any ATP
Correct = Lactate dehydrogenase is absent in RBCs
38. Which is a negative heterotropic allosteric modulator of glycolysis !
[[a) Citrate]]
b) ATP
c) ADP
d) AMP
Correct = Citrate
39. What activate Kinase of glycolysis!
a) ATP
b) CAMP
[[c) Insulin]]
d) Glucagon
Correct = Insulin
40. What is the end product of anaerobic glycolysis
a) Pyruvate
[[b) Lactate]]
c) Cholesterol
d) Fats
Correct = Lactate
3767
41. Sodium fluoride inhibits which enzyme in Glycolysis
a) Hexokinase
b) Pyruvate kinase
c) Aconitase
[[d) Enolase]]
Correct = Enolase
42. In Glycolysis which of the ion is most important!
a) Zn
[[b) Mg]]
c) Cu
d) Ca
Correct = Mg
43. The number of ATPs produced by Rapaport leu bering Cycle in RBC from Glucose!
a) 1
[[b) 2]]
c) 3
d) 4
Correct = 2
44. Example of allosteric inhibiton-
a) Decreased synthesis of glucokinase by glucagon
b) Inactivation of glycogen synthase byphosphorylation
[[c) Inhibition of PFK-1 by citrate]]
3768
d) All of the above
Correct = Inhibition of PFK-1 by citrate
45. Substrate level phosphorylation is by:
a) ATP Synthase
b) Phosphofructokinase
[[c) Pyruvate kinase]]
d) Hexokinase
Correct = Pyruvate kinase
46. All of the following enzymes catalyze irreversible steps in glycolysis

EXCEPT:
a) Hexokinase
b) Phosphofructokinase-! (PFK-I)
[[c) Enolase]]
d) Pyruvate kinase
Correct = Enolase
47. The regulatory steps in glycolysis are all EXCEPT
a) Pyruvate kinase
[[b) Enolase]]
c) Gucokinase
d) Phophofructokinase
Correct = Enolase
48. Net ATP yield of substrate level phosphorylation is
3769
a) 5
b) 6
[[c) 4]]
d) 3
Correct = 4
49. ATP's formed in anaerobic glycolysis of glucose are:
[[a) 2]]
b) 8
c) 10
d) 15
Correct = 2
50. Post prandial utilization of glucose is by which enzyme
a) Fructokinase
[[b) Glucokinase]]
c) Hexokinase
d) All of above
Correct = Glucokinase
51. Which of the following is NOT true
a) Glucokinase has high km
[[b) Hexokinase is found in all cells]]
c) Glucokinase is induced by insulin
d) Hexokinase is specific for glucose
Correct = Hexokinase is found in all cells
3770
52. Inhibition of glycolysis by increase supply of 0 2 is called
a) Carbtree effect
[[b) Pasteur effect]]
c) Lewis effect
d) None
Correct = Pasteur effect
53. Immediate metabolic products during conversion of Fructose 1-6 bisphosphate

to 2 molecules of pyruvate
a) 3-phosphoglycerate and 1,3 bisphosglycerate
b) Glyceraldehyde -3-phosphate and l, 3-bisphosphoglycerate
c) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate
[[d) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate]]
Correct = Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate and dihydroxyacetone phosphate
54. The purpose of extra step of anaerobic glycolysis is :
a) Production of 2 Lactate
b) Production of one lactate
[[c) Replenishment of NAD]]
d) Replenishment ofNADH
Correct = Replenishment of NAD
55. Zero ATP in RBC in glycolysis occurs in
a) Arsenic poisoning
b) RL shunt
[[c) Both a and b]]
3771
d) NONE
Correct = Both a and b
1. The number of high energy bond require to get 1 mol of Glucose from 2 mols
of lactate:
a) 2
b) 4
[[c) 6]]
d) 12
Correct = 6
2. Which of the following is an activator of Pyruvate carboxylase?
a) Oxaloacetate
b) Citrate
[[c) Acetyl CoA]]
d) Glucose
3. All of the following amino acids forms acetyl CoA via pyruvate dehydrogenase
except:
a) Glycine
[[b) Tyrosine]]
c) Hydroxyproline
3772
d) Cysteine
Correct = Tyrosine
4. For gluconeogenesis which of the following reaction is more effective?
a) Citrate stimulation of Acetyl CoA Carboxylase
[[b) Acetyl CoA stimulation of Pyruvate Carboxylase]]
c) Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphate stimulates PFK-1
d) Fructose 1,6 Bisphosphate stimulation of Pyruvate Kinase
Correct = Acetyl CoA stimulation of Pyruvate Carboxylase
5. A baby is hypotonic and shows increased ratio of Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA.

Pyruvate cannot form Acetyl CoA in fibroblast. He also shows features of lactic
a) Biotin
b) Pyridoxine
c) Free fatty acid
[[d) Thiamin]]
Correct = Thiamin
6. Which of the following does not contribute to glucose by gluconeogenesis?
a) Lactate
[[b) Acetyl CoA]]
c) Pyruvate
d) Oxaloacetate
3773
7. In fasted state gluconeogenesis is promoted by which enzyme?
[[a) Acetyl CoA induced stimulation of Pyruvate Carboxylase]]
b) Citrate induced stimulation of Acetyl CoA Decarboxylase
c) Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate induced stimulation of Phosphofructokinase-1
d) Stimulation of Pyruvate kinase by Fructose 1,6 Bis phosphate
Correct = Acetyl CoA induced stimulation of Pyruvate Carboxylase
8. During prolonged fasting, rate of gluconeogenesis is determined by:
a) Essential fatty acid in liver
[[b) Alanine in liver]]
c) Decreased cGMP
d) ADP in liver
Correct = Alanine in liver
9. True about gluconeogenesis is/are:
[[a) Prevent hypoglycemia during prolonged fasting]]
b) Occur in both muscle and liver
c) Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate stimulate it
d) Excess of acetyl CoA stimulate it
Correct = Prevent hypoglycemia during prolonged fasting
10. Common enzyme for gluconeogenesis and glycolysis is:
[[a) Glyceraldehyde 3 P04 dehydrogenase]]
b) Hexokinase
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Pyruvate carboxylase
Correct = Glyceraldehyde 3 P04 dehydrogenase
3774
11. Phosphofructokinase-1 is activated by all except:
a) S'AMP
b) Fructose 2,6 Bisphosphate
c) Fructose 6 Phosphate
[[d) Citrate]]
Correct = Citrate
12. Not a substrate for gluconeogenesis:
[[a) Acetyl CoA]]
b) Lactate
c) Glycerol
d) Propionyl CoA
13. Glyconeogenic capability of cell is determined by the presence of:
a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
[[b) Glucose-6-phosphatase]]
c) Pyruvate carboxylase
d) Fructose 1,6- bisphosphatase
Correct = Glucose-6-phosphatase
14. Step of Gluconeogenesis is:
a) Pyruvate to Lactate
b) Glucose 6 Phospahate to Fructose 6 Phosphate
c) Pyruvate to Acetyl CoA
3775
[[d) Oxaloacetate to Phosphoenol Pyruvate]]
Correct = Oxaloacetate to Phosphoenol Pyruvate
15. Major contribution towards gluconeogenesis is by:
a) Lactate
b) Glycerol
c) Ketones
[[d) Alanine]]
Correct = Alanine
16. Glucose can be synthesised from all except:
a) Amino acids
b) Glycerol
[[c) Acetoacetate]]
d) Lactic acid
17. Gluconeogenesis does not occur significantly from in humans:
a) Lactate
[[b) Fatty acids]]
c) Pyruvate
d) Amino acid
Correct = Fatty acids
18. Acetyl CoA can be converted into all of the following except:
[[a) Glucose]]
3776
b) Fatty acids
c) Cholesterol
d) Ketone bodies
Correct = Glucose
19. A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6- bisphosphatase in liver less

sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6-biphosphate. All of the following
metabolic changes are observed in this disorder except:
a) Level of fructose 1,6-biphosphate is higher than normal
[[b) Level of fructose 1,6-biphosphate is lower than normal]]
c) Less pyruvate is formed
d) Less ATP is generated
Correct = Level of fructose 1,6-biphosphate is lower than normal
20. All are substrates of gluconeogenesis except:
a) Lactate
b) Alanine
[[c) Leucine]]
d) Lysine
Correct = Leucine
21. Which is not Glucogenic?
[[a) Acetyl CoA]]
b) OAA
c) Pyruvate
d) Lactate
3777
22. Which of the following substrates cannot contribute to net Gluconeogenesis
in mammalian liver
a) Alanine
[[b) Palmitate]]
c) Pyruvate
d) Odd chain fatty acids
Correct = Palmitate
23. A 15-year-old male presents with increased thirst, hunger, urination, and
weight loss. His fasting blood glucose level is 400 mg/ dl and is diagnosed with
type 1 diabetes mellitus. What is the reason for this patient's inability to
maintain a normal blood glucose level?
a) Increased ketone body production
b) Abnormal response to glucagon
c) Decreased glucagon to insulin ratio
[[d) . Decreased uptake of glucose by peripheral cells]]
Correct = . Decreased uptake of glucose by peripheral cells
24. Which of the following is the sequence of compartments of gluconeogenesis?
[[a) Mitochondria ~ Cyto ~ ER]]
b) Cyto ~ ER ~ Mitochondria
c) ER ~ Mitochondria ~ Cyto
d) Only in mitochondria and Cytoplasm
Correct = Mitochondria ~ Cyto ~ ER
25. Which of the following is most effective for gluconeogenesis:
3778
a) Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate inhibits fructose 1,6 Bisphosphatase
[[b) Acetyl CoA activates Pyruvate carboxylase]]
c) Citrate stimulates Acetyl CoA carboxylase
d) Citrate activates Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Correct = Acetyl CoA activates Pyruvate carboxylase
26. A child having hypoglycemia is unable to use both glycogenolysis and

gluconeogenesis pathways. Which of the following enzyme is affected?
a) Glucokinase
b) Phospho-fructokinase -1
[[c) Glucose-6-phosphatase]]
d) Transketolase
27. Pyruvate can be converted directly into all of the following EXCEPT:
[[a) Phosphoenol Pyruvate]]
b) Alanine
c) Acetyl CoA
d) Lactate
Correct = Phosphoenol Pyruvate
28. Which pathway can use propionic acid
a) Glycolysis
[[b) Gluconeogenesis]]
c) Glycogenolysis
d) Glycogenesis
Correct = Gluconeogenesis
3779
29. Glucose may be synthesized from:
[[a) Glycerol]]
b) Adenine
c) Palmitic acid
d) Guanosine
Correct = Glycerol
30. Amino acid which cannot be used for glycogen synthesis
a) Alanine
b) Threonine
c) Phenylalanine
[[d) Leucine]]
Correct = Leucine
31. Gluconeogenesis occurs in:
a) Muscles
b) Kidney
[[c) Liver]]
d) Intestine
Correct = Liver
32. The biosynthesis of enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is repressed by:
[[a) Insulin]]
b) Glucagon
c) Cortisol
3780
d) Epinephrine
Correct = Insulin
33. Conversion oflactate to glucose requires all EXCEPT
[[b) PFK-1]]
c) PEP carboxykinase
d) Glucose-6-Phosphatase
Correct = PFK-1
34. Regulatory enzymes in gluconeogenesis are all EXCEPT:
[[b) Aldolase B]]
c) PEP carboxykinase
35. Enzymes involved in gluconeogenesis are all EXCEPT
a) Phosphoglycerate kinase
b) Fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase
[[c) Phosphogluco mutase]]
d) Pyruvate carboxylase
Correct = Phosphogluco mutase
36. Glyconeogenesis is:
a) Synthesis of glucose from non -carbohydrate sources
3781
b) Synthesis of glycogen from glucose
c) Synthesis of glucose from glycerol
[[d) Synthesis of glycogen from non-carbohydrate sources]]
Correct = Synthesis of glycogen from non-carbohydrate sources
37. Glyconeogenic capability is determined by the presence of
[[b) Pyruvate carboxylase]]
c) Pyruvate carboxykinase
Correct = Pyruvate carboxylase
38. A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6 bisphosphatase in liver less

sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6- bisphosphate. All of the following
metabolic changes occur EXCEPT:
[[a) Level of fructose 1,6 bisphosphate is higher than normal]]
b) Level of fructose 1,6 bisphosphate is lower than normal
c) Less pyruvate formed
d) Less ATP formed
Correct = Level of fructose 1,6 bisphosphate is higher than normal
39. During gluconeogenesis, oxaloacetate is transported from mitochondria to

cytoplasm by
[[a) Malate]]
b) Pyruvate
c) Glutamate
d) Phosphoenol Pyruvate
Correct = Malate
3782
40. Malate shuttle is important in:
[[a) Glycogenesis]]
b) Glycolysis
c) Gluconeogenesis
d) Glycogenolysis
Correct = Glycogenesis
41. During prolonged starvation, rate of gluconeogenesis depends on:
[[a) Increased alanine levels in liver]]
b) Decreased cGMP levels in liver
c) ADP in liver
d) Decreased essential fatty acids in liver
Correct = Increased alanine levels in liver
42. Increased levels of alanine in serum after fasting suggests:
[[a) Increased release of alanine from muscle]]
b) Reduced amino acid utilization for gluconeogenesis
c) Break in continuity of plasma membrane resulting in leakage of amino

acids
d) Decreased uptake of alanine by liver
Correct = Increased release of alanine from muscle
43. Which of the following reactions takes place in two compartments?
a) Glycogenesis
[[b) Gluconeogenesis]]
3783
c) Glycolysis
d) Glycogenolysis
Correct = Gluconeogenesis
44. Most important amino acid transported from muscle to liver for
gluconeogenesis
a) Methionine
b) Tryptophan
[[c) Alanine]]
d) Arginine
Correct = Alanine
45. Which of the following metabolites is involoved in glycogenolysis,

glycolysis and gluconeogensis
a) Fructose - 6- phosphate
[[b) Glucose - 6 - phosphate]]
c) Uridine diphosphoglucose
d) Galactose- 1- phosphate
Correct = Glucose - 6 - phosphate
46. Substrate for gluconegenesis
a) Fatty acid
b) Acetyl-CoA
[[c) Pyruvic acid (pyruvate]]
d) All of the above
Correct = Pyruvic acid (pyruvate
3784
47. Which is not a substrate for gluconeogenesis
a) Lactate
[[b) Fatty acid]]
c) Pyruvate
d) Alanine
Correct = Fatty acid
48. Which of the following hormones can cause hyperglycemia without known effects
on glycogen or gluconeogenesis::
a) Epinephrine
b) Epinephrine
[[c) Thyroxine]]
d) Glucocorticoids
Correct = Thyroxine
49. Gluconeogenesis is favoured in fasting state by:
[[a) Activation of pyruvate carboxylase by acetyl CoA]]
b) Increased conversion of phosphoenol pyruvate to pyruvate by activation

of pyruvate kinase
c) Increased fatty acid oxidation in liver
d) Inhibition of PFK-II
Correct = Activation of pyruvate carboxylase by acetyl CoA
50. True about gluconeogenesis:
[[a) Prevent hypoglycemia during prolonged fasting]]
b) Fructose 2,6-biphosphate stimulate it
3785
c) Fructose 2,6-biphosphate stimulate it
d) Excess of acetyl CoA cause stimulation
Correct = Prevent hypoglycemia during prolonged fasting
51. Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are involved in gluconeogenesis
[[a) Pyruvate carboxylase]]
b) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
c) Phosphofructokinase-I
d) Glucose 6-phosphatase
Correct = Pyruvate carboxylase
1. A four-year-old child with exercise intolerance. On investigation Blood pH

7.3, FBS 60 mg%, hypertriglyceridemia, ketosis and lactic acidosis. The child
had hepatomegaly and renomegaly. Biopsy of liver and kidney showed increased
glycogen content. What is the diagnosis?
a) McCardle's disease
b) Cori's Disease
[[c) Von Gierke's Disease]]
d) Pompe's Disease
Correct = Von Gierke's Disease
2. Glycogen Phosphorylase, coenzyme is:
[[a) Pyridoxal Phosphate]]
b) Thiamin
3786
c) Biotin
d) Pantothenic acid
Correct = Pyridoxal Phosphate
3. Glycogenin primer is glucosylated by:
[[a) UDP Glucose]]
b) Glucose 1 P04
c) UDP Glucose 1 P04
d) UDP Glucose 6 P04
Correct = UDP Glucose
4. A female infant appeared normal at birth but developed signs of liver disease
one month of age and muscle weakness at 3 months and severe hypoglycemia on early
morning awakening. Examination revealed hepatomegaly, laboratory analysis
showed ketoacidosis, pH 7 .2, increased AST and ALT over 1000 IU. Intravenous
administration glucagon followed by meals normalised blood levels, but glucose
levels did not rise when glucagon was administered overnight fast. Liver biopsy
was done and glycogen constituted (8%) of wet weight. With the above clinical
picture which of the following enzyme is deficient?
[[a) Debranching enzyme]]
b) Glucose 6 phosphatase
c) Muscle phosphorylase
d) Branching enzyme
Correct = Debranching enzyme
5. Why Glucose 6 Phosphate in the cytoplasm of hepatocyte is not acted upon by

Glucose 6 Phosphatase as soon as it is formed?
a) Thermodynamically possible only when gluconeogenesis occur
b) Need Protein Kinase for its activation
3787
[[c) Enzyme is present in SER, Glucose 6 Phosphate need to be transported
into SER]]
d) Steric inhibition of Phosphatase by albumin
Correct = Enzyme is present in SER, Glucose 6 Phosphate need to be transported

into SER
6. The reason for ketosis in von Gierke's Disease are all except:
a) Hypoglycemia
b) Oxaloacetate is necessary for gluconeogenesis
c) Low blood glucose less than 40 mg%
[[d) Fatty acid mobilisation is low]]
Correct = Fatty acid mobilisation is low
7. A child with low blood glucose is unable to do glycogenolysis or

gluconeogenesis. Which of the following enzyme is missing in the child?
a) Fructokinase
b) Glucokinase
[[c) Glucose 6 Phosphatase]]
d) Transketolase
Correct = Glucose 6 Phosphatase
8. In which of the following tissues, is glycogen incapable of contributing

directly to blood glucose:
a) Liver
[[b) Muscle]]
c) Both
d) None
Correct = Muscle
3788
9. In humans carbohydrates are stored as:
a) Glucose
[[b) Glycogen]]
c) Starch
d) Cellulose
Correct = Glycogen
10. Glycogen is released from the muscle due to increased cAMP due to:
[[a) Epinephrine]]
b) Thyroxine
c) Glucogon
d) Growth hormone
Correct = Epinephrine
11. Pancreatic alpha amylase:
a) Convert starch to glycogen
[[b) Hydrolyses starch to limit dextrin]]
c) Hydrolyses Starch to Monosaccharides
d) Convert maltose to glucose
Correct = Hydrolyses starch to limit dextrin
12. A 5 years old boy presents with hepatomegaly, hypoglycaemia, ketosis. The
diagnosis is:
a) Mucopolysaccharidosis
[[b) Glycogen storage disorder]]
3789
c) Lipopolysaccharidosis
d) Diabetes mellitus
Correct = Glycogen storage disorder
13. Glycogen Phosphorylase can be regulated by all following EXCEPT:
a) CAMP
b) Calmodulin
c) Protein Kinase A
[[d) Glycogenin]]
Correct = Glycogenin
14. Cofactor for Glycogen Phosphorylase:
a) Thiamine Pyrophosphate
[[b) Pyridoxal Phosphate]]
c) Citrate
d) FAD
Correct = Pyridoxal Phosphate
15. Pompe's disease is due to deficiency of:
a) Debranching enzyme
b) Muscle Phosphorylase
[[c) Acid Maltase]]
d) Branching enzyme
Correct = Acid Maltase
16. Glycogen storage disorder is/are:
3790
a) Niemann pick disease
b) Gaucher disease
c) Taysach's disease
[[d) McCardles disease]]
Correct = McCardles disease
17. How many hours for depletion of glycogen?
a) 9
[[b) 18]]
c) 24
d) 48
Correct = 18
18. In the fed state, major fate of glucose-6-phosphate in tissues is:
a) Storage as fructose
b) Storage as glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
c) Enters HMP shunt via ribulose-5-phosphate
[[d) Storage as glycogen]]
Correct = Storage as glycogen
19. Which of the following is a debranching enzyme?
a) Glycogen synthetase
b) Glucose-6-phosphatase
[[c) Amylo(1,6) glucosidase]]
d) Amylo1,4-1,6 transglycosylase
Correct = Amylo(1,6) glucosidase
3791
20. Sequence of events in glycogenolysis:
[[a) Phosphorylase, glucan transferase, debranching, phosphorylase]]
b) Debranching, phosphorylase, transferase, phosphorylase
c) Transferase, phosphorylase, debranching, phosphorylase
d) Any of the above
Correct = Phosphorylase, glucan transferase, debranching, phosphorylase
21. Muscles are not involved in which glycogen storage disease?
[[a) I]]
b) II
c) III
d) IV
Correct = I
22. An infant has hepatosplenomegaly, hypoglycaemia, hyperlipidemia, acidosis

& normal structured glycogen deposition in liver. What is the diagnosis:
a) Her's disease
[[b) Von Gierke's disease]]
c) Cori's disease
d) Anderson's disease
Correct = Von Gierke's disease
23. Glycogen storage diseases include all the following except:
a) Von Gierke's disease
[[b) Fabry's disease]]
c) McArdle's disease
3792
d) Fragile X syndrome
Correct = Fabry's disease
24. The cause of hyperuricemia and gout in glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency is:
[[a) More formation of pentose]]
b) Decreased availability of glucose to tissues
c) Increased accumulation of sorbitol
d) Impaired degradation of free radicals
Correct = More formation of pentose
25. A 10year old boy rapidly develops hypoglycemia after moderate activity. Blood
examination reveals raised levels of ketone bodies, lactic acid and
triglycerides. On examination, liver and kidneys were enlarged. Histopathology
of liver shows deposits of glycogen in excess amount. What is the diagnosis?
[[a) Von Gierke's disease]]
b) Cori's disease
c) Me Ardle's disease
d) Pompe's disease
Correct = Von Gierke's disease
26. Which vitamin is required for glycogen phosphorylase?
a) TPP (Thiamine pyrophosphate
[[b) PLP (Pyridoxal phosphate)]]
c) Riboflavin
d) Lipoic acid
Correct = PLP (Pyridoxal phosphate)
3793
27. Glycogen phosphorylase is regulated by all except:
a) Protein kinase
b) Calmodulin
c) CAMP
[[d) Glycogenin]]
Correct = Glycogenin
28. A 28-year-old professional cyclist has been training for an opportunity to

go for a long race. His coach strongly suggests the intake of carbohydrates after
the work out to ensure a muscle glycogen storage. The activity of muscle glycogen
synthase in resting muscles is increased by the action of which of the following?
a) Epinephrine
b) Glucagon
[[c) Insulin]]
d) Phosphorylation
Correct = Insulin
29. Muscle cannot make use of glycogen because of deficiency of:
[[a) Glucose-6-phosphatase]]
c) Hexokinase
d) Phospho-gluco-mutase
30. Muscle cannot maintain blood glucose because of deficiency of
[[a) Glucose-6-phosphatase]]
c) Hexokinase
3794
d) Hexokinase
31. Major carbohydrate store in the body is
[[a) Hepatic glycogen]]
b) Blood glucose
c) Glycogen in adipose tissue
Correct = Hepatic glycogen
32. A 15-year-old type 1 diabetic faints after injecting himself with insulin.
He is administered Glucagon and rapidly recovers consciousness. Glucagon induces
activity of
a) Glycogen synthase
[[b) Glycogen phosphorylase]]
c) Glucokinase
d) Hexokinase
33. Glycogen synthase is the regulatory enzyme for c.-.,..&L, glycogen

synthesis. It adds glucose residues to the nonreducing ends of a glycogen primer
from
a) Glucose-1-P
b) Glucose-6-P
[[c) UDP- Glucose]]
d) UTP e) ATP
Correct = UDP- Glucose
3795
34. Glycogenin is a:
a) Lipid
[[b) Polypeptide]]
c) Polysaccharide
d) Glycosa amino glycans (GAGs)
Correct = Polypeptide
35. The enzymes of glycogenesis are present in
a) Lysosomes
[[b) Cytosol]]
c) Mitochondria
d) Nucleus
Correct = Cytosol
36. Pyridoxine is required in
[[a) Glycogenesis]]
b) TCA cycle
c) Glycolysis
d) Glycogenolysis
37. Coenzyme associated with enzyme glycogen phosphorylase
a) Flavin mononuleotide
b) Tetrahydrofolate
c) Thiamine pyrophosphate
[[d) Pyridoxal phosphate]]
3796
Correct = Pyridoxal phosphate
38. If muscle glycogen is used for anaerobic glycolysis, how many ATPs are formed
a) 1
b) 2
[[c) 3]]
d) 4
Correct = 3
39. Which of the yields 3 molecules of ATP under anaerboic metabolism
a) Glucose
b) Galactose
[[c) Glycogen]]
d) Amino Acid
Correct = Glycogen
40. All are sources of glucose EXCEPT
a) Liver glycogen
b) Gluconeogenesis
[[c) Muscle glycogen]]
d) Alanine
Correct = Muscle glycogen
41. In glycogen, the linkage at branch points is
a) Alpha -1,4
b) Alpha-2,3
3797
[[c) Alpha-1,6]]
d) B-1,4
Correct = Alpha-1,6
42. A 30-year-old presents with intractable vomiting and inability to eat or

drink for the past 3 days. His blood glucose level is normal. Which of the
following is most important for maintenance of Blood glucose
[[a) Liver]]
b) . Heart
c) Skeletal muscle
d) Lysosome
Correct = Liver
43. Glycogen phosphorylase degrades glycogen to produce:
a) Glucose
[[b) Glucose-1-P]]
c) Glucose-6-P
d) UDP Glucose
Correct = Glucose-1-P
44. Which enzyme is not present in muscles?
a) Phosphorylase
b) Hexokinase
[[c) Glucose-6-phosphatase]]
d) Glycogen synthase
3798
45. Glycogenolysis is best described by which of the following statements ?
a) It involves enzymes cleaving beta(l-4) glycosidic cleaving linkage
b) Requires activation of glycogen synthase
[[c) Requires a bifunctional enzyme (debranching and transferase)]]
d) Requires inactivation of phosphorylase kinase
Correct = Requires a bifunctional enzyme (debranching and transferase)
46. Which of the following statements explains the synthesis of glycogen directly
from D- Glucose
a) It does not use glucose-!-P
b) It requires a debranching enzyme
c) It occurs in erythrocytes
[[d) It requires UDP-Glucose]]
Correct = It requires UDP-Glucose
47. During the breakdown of glycogen, free glucose is formed from which of the
following
a) Glucose residues in a-1,4 glycosidic linkages
b) The reducing end
c) The non reducing end
[[d) Glucose residues in a -1,6 glycosidic linkages]]
Correct = Glucose residues in a -1,6 glycosidic linkages
48. Glycogenesis from Glucose-I-P requires which of the following
a) Phosphoglucomutase
[[b) Uridine triphosphate (UTP)]]
3799
c) Alpha-1,6 glucosidase
d) Glycogen primer
Correct = Uridine triphosphate (UTP)
49. Glycogen catabolism is best described by which of the following statements-
a) In the brain, it yields glucose for skeletal muscle consumption
b) It requires a de branching enzyme in the erythrocytes
[[c) It is not a major pathway in the brain]]
d) It uses phosphorylase for glucose residue cleavage from the reducing

end of glycogen in liver
Correct = It is not a major pathway in the brain
50. The degradation of glycogen normally produces which of the following
a) More glucose than Glucose-1-P
[[b) More Glucose-1-P than Glucose]]
c) Equal amount of Glucose and Glucose-!-P
d) Neither Glucose nor Glucose-1-P
Correct = More Glucose-1-P than Glucose
51. The energy for glycogenesis is derived from :
a) GTP
b) ATP
c) UDP
[[d) UTP]]
Correct = UTP
3800
52. UDP-glucose is not used in:
[[a) HMP]]
b) Galactose metabolism
c) Glycogen synthesis
d) Uronic acid pathway
Correct = HMP
53. In starvation how many hours needed for depletion ofglycogen
a) 9
[[b) 18]]
c) 24
d) 48
Correct = 18
54. Glycogen is released from muscle due to increased cAMP due to:
a) Glucagon
b) Insulin
[[c) Epinephrine]]
d) Growth hormone
Correct = Epinephrine
55. Alpha amylase secreted by pancreas digest starch into which ofthe following
major products?
a) Amylose, amylopectin, and maltose
b) Glucose, galactose, and fructose
c) Glucose, sucrose, and maltotriose
[[d) Limit dextrins, maltose, and maltotriose]]
3801
Correct = Limit dextrins, maltose, and maltotriose
56. A 3-month-old infant presents with hepatosplenomegaly and failure to thrive.

A liver biopsy reveals glycogen with an abnormal, amylopectin like structure
with long outer chains and missing branches. Which of the following enzymes would
most likely be deficient?
a) Alpha Amylase
[[b) Branching enzyme]]
c) De branching enzyme
d) Glycogen phosphorylase
Correct = Branching enzyme
57. A 30-year-old male presents with severe muscle cramps. His blood lactate
levels did not increase after exercise. His blood glucose by GOD-POD levels was
[[a) Me Ardle's disease]]
b) Glycogen storage disease type 3
c) Von Gierke's disease
d) Glycogen storage disease type 6
Correct = Me Ardle's disease
58. All of the following are associated with non-ketotic hypoglycemia, EXCEPT
[[a) Von gierke's disease]]
b) Insulinoma
c) Carnitine deficiency
d) MCAD deficiency
Correct = Von gierke's disease
3802
59. Increased uric acid levels are seen in which glycogen storage disease
[[a) Type I]]
b) Type II
c) Type III
d) Type IV
Correct = Type I
60. Most common glycogen storage disease presenting with hypoglycemia and normal
glycogen structure
[[a) Von Gierke disease]]
b) Pompe's disease
c) Me Ardle's disease
d) Forbe's disease
Correct = Von Gierke disease
61. Enzyme deficient in Hers disease
a) Muscle phosphorylase
[[b) Acid maltase]]
c) Liver phosphorylase
d) De branching enzyme
Correct = Acid maltase
62. Me Ardle's disease is due to deficiency of
a) Myophosphorylase
[[b) Liver phosphorylase]]
c) Acid maltase
3803
d) Glucuse-6-phosphatase
Correct = Liver phosphorylase
63. Glycogen storage disease which presents as lysosomal storage disease
a) Andersen's disease
[[b) Pompe's disease]]
c) Mcardle's disease
d) Von gierke's disease
Correct = Pompe's disease
64. Hypoglycemia is more severe in type 1 Glycogen storage disease as compared

to type 6 Glycogen storage disease because:
[[a) No gluconeogenesis in type 1 disease]]
b) No gluconeogenesis in type 6 disease
c) Both
d) Type 1 disease affects muscles and liver both
Correct = No gluconeogenesis in type 1 disease
65. Baby has hypoglycaemia, specially early morning hypoglycaemia. Glucagon

given. It raises blood glucose if given after meals But does not raises blood
glucose if given during fasting. Liver biopsy shows increased glycogen deposits.
Enzyme defect is ?
a) Muscle phosphorylase
b) Glucose-6-phosphatase
c) Branching enzyme
[[d) Debranching enzyme]]
Correct = Debranching enzyme
3804
66. In VonGierke's disease, the levels of ketone bodies are increased due to
all except:
a) The patients have hypo glycaemia
b) The patients have low blood glucose
c) Less mobilization of fats
[[d) OAA is required for gluconeogenesis]]
Correct = OAA is required for gluconeogenesis
67. Glycogen synthesis and breakdown takes place in the same cell, having enzymes
necessary for both pathways. Why is Glucose-6-phosphate produced during
glycogenesis in the cytoplasm of liver cells, not acted upon by
Glucose-6-phosphatase enzyme?
a) Steric inhibition of phosphatase by albumin
[[b) Glucose-6-phosphatase is present in endoplasmic reticulum while

glycogen is in the cytoplasm]]
c) It is thermodynamically viable only when gluconeogenesis has stated
d) Require protein kinase for activation
Correct = Glucose-6-phosphatase is present in endoplasmic reticulum while

glycogen is in the cytoplasm
68. Enzyme involved in both glycogenesis and glycogenolysis is?
a) Glycogen synthase
[[b) Phosphoglucomutase]]
c) Phosphorylase
d) Glycogen transferase
Correct = Phosphoglucomutase
3805
69. In glycogen metabolism, some metabolically active important enzymes found
in the liver are converted from their inactive dephosphorylated state to active
a) Always activates the enzyme
b) Catecholamines directly stimu
[[c) More commonly seen in fasting state than in fed state]]
d) Always activated by cAMP dependent Protein kinase
Correct = More commonly seen in fasting state than in fed state
70. Glycogen storage disorder (s) is/are:
a) Glycogen storage disorder (s) is/are:
b) Gaucher disease
c) Tay-Sachs Disease
[[d) Pompe's disease]]
Correct = Pompe's disease
1. Metabolites in HMP shunt are all except:
[[a) Glycerol-3- phosphate]]
b) Sedopeptulose-7 phosphate
c) Glyceraldehyde -3-phosphate
d) Xylulose- 5-phosphate
Correct = Glycerol-3- phosphate
3806
a) Glycolysis
b) Citric acid cycle
[[c) HMP Shunt]]
d) Glycogenesis
Correct = HMP Shunt
3. Reduced NADPH produced from which pathway:
a) Kreb
b) Anaerobic glycolysis
c) Uronic acid pathway
[[d) Hexose monophosphate pathway]]
Correct = Hexose monophosphate pathway
4. Which of the following metabolic pathways does not generate ATP?
a) Glycolysis
b) TCA cycle
c) Fatty acid oxidation
[[d) HMP pathway]]
Correct = HMP pathway
5. Severe thiamine deficiency is associated with:
[[a) Decreased RBC transketolase activity]]
b) Increased clotting time
c) Decreased RBC transminnase activity
d) Increased xanthic acid excretion
3807
6. Product of uronic acid pathway inn human-beings are all except?
[[a) Vitamin C]]
b) Glucuronic acid
c) Pentoses
d) NADH
Correct = Vitamin C
7. Uronic acid pathway is not involved in:
a) Conjugation of bilirubin
b) GAG synthesis
[[c) Vitamin C synthesis]]
d) Biotransformation
Correct = Vitamin C synthesis
8. A baby boy 10 month old comes with vomiting severe jaundice, hepatomegaly
and feature of irritability on starting weaning with fruit juice. Which of the
[[a) Adolase B]]
b) Fructokinase
c) Glucose 6 phosphates
d) Galactose 1 phosphate uridyl transferase
Correct = Adolase B
9. Fate of fructose 6 phosphate:
a) Glucuronic acid
3808
[[b) N Acetyl glucosamine]]
c) Hyaluronic acid
d) Heparin sulphate
Correct = N Acetyl glucosamine
10. Hereditary fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of
[[a) Aldolase B]]
b) Aldolase A
c) Fructokinase
d) Sucrase
11. False about fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of:
a) Deficiency of fructose1- phosphate in aldolase
b) Accumulation of fructose 1-phosphate in tissues
[[c) Hyperglycaemia]]
d) Liver and kidney are involved
Correct = Hyperglycaemia
12. Enzyme deficiency in glactosemia:
[[a) Galactose 1 phosphate uridyl transferase]]
b) Aldolase B
c) UDP galactose 4 Epimerase
d) Fructokinase
Correct = Galactose 1 phosphate uridyl transferase
3809
13. E coil sepsis commonly seen in:
a) Urea cycle disorder
[[b) Galactosemia]]
c) Glycogen storage disorder
d) Lysosomal storage disorders
Correct = Galactosemia
14. A patient has normal blood glucose level as estimated by glucose-oxidase

peroxidase method, shows positive Benedicts test in urine. Which of the following
is likely cause?
a) Fructosemia
[[b) Galactosemia]]
c) Latent diabetes mellitus
d) Glucose intolerance
15. Galactosemia enzyme defect;
a) Fructokinase
b) Glucokinase
[[c) Galactose 1 phosphate uridly transferase]]
d) Glucose 6 phosphatase
Correct = Galactose 1 phosphate uridly transferase
16. A newborn baby refuses breast milk since the second day of birth, vomits
on force-feeding but accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on third day, by
fifth day she is jaundiced with liver enlargement and eyes show cataract. Urinary
reducing sugar was positive but blood glucose estimated by glucose oxidation
[[a) Galactose 1]]
3810
b) Beta galactosidase
c) Glucose 6-phosphate
d) Galactokinase
Correct = Galactose 1
17. A child presents with hepatomegaly ad bilateral lenticular opacities.

Deficiency of which of the following enzyme will not cause such features
a) Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
b) UDP galactose 4-epimerase
c) Galactokinase
[[d) Lactase]]
Correct = Lactase
18. Fatty acid is not utilized by:
[[a) RBC]]
b) Skeletal muscle
c) Liver
d) heart
Correct = RBC
19. All of the following are increased inn fasting except:
a) Lipolysis
b) Ketogenesis
c) Gluconeogenesis
[[d) Glycogenesis]]
3811
20. Substrate used by RBC in fasting state is:
[[a) Glucose]]
b) Amino acids
c) Ketone body
d) Fatty acid
Correct = Glucose
21. Lactic acidosis in thiamine deficiency is due to which enzyme dysfunction?
a) Phosphoenol pyruvate carboxykinase
[[b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase]]
c) Pyruvate carboxylase
d) Aldolase
Correct = Pyruvate dehydrogenase
22. During exercise, most rapid way to synthesize ATP is:
a) Glycogenolysis
b) Glycolysis
[[c) Phosphocreatine]]
d) TCA cycle
Correct = Phosphocreatine
23. The enzyme deficient in Galactosemia is:
a) Sphingomyelinase
b) Hexosaminidase
[[c) Galactose 1- phosphate uridyl transferase]]
d) Glucocerebrosidase
3812
Correct = Galactose 1- phosphate uridyl transferase
24. Products ofHMP shunt are all except:
a) Glyceraldehyde-3-P
[[b) Glycerol-3- P]]
c) 2 NADPH
d) 3 NADPH
Correct = Glycerol-3- P
25. HMP is the only source for:
a) NADPH
b) NADH
[[c) Ribose-5-P]]
d) C02
Correct = Ribose-5-P
26. NADPH is produced from:
a) HMP
b) Malic enzyme
c) Cytoplasmic Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
[[d) All]]
Correct = All
27. Which pathway does not generate ATP ?
a) Glycolysis
[[b) HMP]]
3813
c) TCA
d) Fatty acid oxidation
Correct = HMP
28. Severe thiamine deficiency is associated with
a) Increased clotting time
[[b) Decreased RBC transketolase activity]]
c) Decreased RBC Glutathione activity
d) Increased Xanthic acid excretion
29. Which of the following metabolic pathway in carbohydrate metabolism is

required for nucleic acid synthesis ?
a) Glycolysis
b) Glycogenesis
[[c) HMP]]
d) Gluconeogenesis
Correct = HMP
30. Rate limiting step in HMP ?
a) Transketolase
[[c) Glucose-6-P Dehydrogenase]]
d) Transaldolase
Correct = Glucose-6-P Dehydrogenase
3814
31. HMP shunt occurs in all organs EXCEPT :
a) Liver
[[b) Non Lactating mammary glands]]
c) Adipose tissues
d) RBCs
Correct = Non Lactating mammary glands
32. Glutathione is a
a) Dipeptide
b) Polypeptide
[[c) Tripeptide]]
d) Oligopeptide
Correct = Tripeptide
33. Reduced NADPH is produced by:
a) Krebs cycle
[[b) Hexose monophosphate pathway]]
c) Uronic acid pathway
d) Anerobic glycolysis
Correct = Hexose monophosphate pathway
34. Source of ribose is-
[[a) HMP shunt]]
b) Uronic acid pathway
c) Glycolytic pathway
d) Beta Oxidation
Correct = HMP shunt
3815
35. Pentose pathway produces-
a) Acetyl CoA
b) ADP
c) ATP
[[d) NADPH]]
Correct = NADPH
36. Glutamate dehydrogenase requires cofactor
a) NADP+
[[b) NAD+]]
c) Both a and b
d) None
Correct = NAD+
37. Dehydrogenases ofHMP shunt are specific for
a) TPP
[[b) NADP]]
c) FMN
d) FAD
Correct = NADP
38. Most important factor which causes lactic acidosis in alcoholics
a) Production of NADH
b) Formation of acetaldehyde
c) Production of acetate
3816
[[d) . None of the above]]
Correct = . None of the above
39. NADPH is generated in the reaction catalysed by
a) LDH
[[b) G6PD]]
c) G3PD
d) . Alcohol dehydrogenase
Correct = G6PD
40. NADPH in extramitochondrial site helps in the production of
a) Ketone bodies
[[b) Steroids]]
c) Glycogen
d) . None
Correct = Steroids
41. Reducing substance used in Anabolic reactions
[[a) NADPH + H+]]
b) NADH
c) FAD
d) FADH2
Correct = NADPH + H+
3817
42. A breast-fed infant began to vomit frequently and lose weight. Several days
later she developed jaundice, hepatomegaly and bilateral cataract. What is the
[[a) Galactosemia]]
b) Von-Gierke's disease
c) Juvenile diabetes Mellitus
d) Hereditary fructose intolerance
43. Galactosemia commonly is due to deficiency of:
a) Epimerase
b) Galactokinase
c) Glucokinase
[[d) Galactose-!-P Uridyl transferase]]
Correct = Galactose-!-P Uridyl transferase
44. Reducing sugar in urine is seen in:
[[a) Galactosemia]]
b) Lactose intolerance
c) Phenylketonuria
d) Alkaptonuria
45. Oil drop cataract is produced because of the activity of which enzyme?
[[a) Aldose reductase]]
b) Galactose reductase
c) Fructose dehydrogenase
3818
d) Sorbitol dehydrogenase
Correct = Aldose reductase
46. Oil drop cataract is due to accumulation of
a) Sorbitol
[[b) Dulcitol]]
c) Aldonic acid
d) Galactose
Correct = Dulcitol
47. A child presents with hepatomegaly and bilateral lenticular opacities.

Deficiency of which of the following enzyme will not cause such features
a) UDP-galactose-4-epimerase
b) Galactokinase
c) Glucokinase
[[d) Gal-1-P uridyl transferase]]
Correct = Gal-1-P uridyl transferase
48. E.coli sepsis is commonly seen in:
a) Urea cycle disorder
b) . Glycogen storage diseases
[[c) Galactosemia]]
d) Fructose intolerance
49. Enzyme deficiency in galactosemia-
3819
a) Alobase- B
[[b) Galactokinase]]
c) Glucokinase
d) All of the above
Correct = Galactokinase
50. Familial fructokinase deficiency causes no symptoms because
[[a) Hexokinase can phosphorylate fructose]]
b) Liver Aldolase can metabolize it
c) Excess fructose does not escape in to urine
d) Excess fructose is excreted through feces
Correct = Hexokinase can phosphorylate fructose
51. Which will cause post-prandial hypoglycemia'?
[[a) Fructose]]
b) Galactose
c) Glucose
d) Sorbitol
Correct = Fructose
52. Fructose intolerance is due to deficiency of'?
[[a) Aldolase B]]
b) Triokinase
c) Fructokinase
d) . Aldolase A
3820
53. Which of the following is not metabolised in our body'
a) Glucose
b) Fructose
[[c) Sucrose]]
d) Sorbitol
Correct = Sucrose
54. An enzyme involved in fructose metabolism is :
a) Glucokinase
[[b) Glyceraldehyde-3-P Dehydrogenase]]
c) Aldolase
d) PFK-1
Correct = Glyceraldehyde-3-P Dehydrogenase
55. Essential fructosuria occurs due to deficiency of
a) Aldolase A
b) Aldolase B
[[c) Fructokinase]]
d) Enolase
Correct = Fructokinase
56. A patient has blood glucose levels by GOD-POD method to be normal. But urine
shows positive Benedict's test. The Reason is:
a) False positive
b) Fructosemia
[[c) Galactosemia]]
3821
d) Glucose intolerance
57. Snow flake cataract is produced because of which enzyme'
[[a) Aldose reductase]]
b) Galactose reductase
c) Fructose dehydrogenase
d) . Sorbitol dehydrogenase
Correct = Aldose reductase
58. What can be prevented in a Diabetic patient by giving c--~ar_, drugs which
are Aldose Reductase inhibitors 1
a) Diabetic retinopathy
[[b) Cataract]]
c) Neuropathy
d) Deafness
Correct = Cataract
59. Products ofuronic acid pathway in human beings are all except:
[[a) Vitamin C]]
b) Pentoses
c) NADH
d) Glucuronic acid
Correct = Vitamin C
60. Glucose is converted to glucuronic acid by
3822
a) Oxidation of aldehyde group
[[b) Oxidation of terminal alcohol]]
c) Oxidation of both
d) None
Correct = Oxidation of terminal alcohol
61. Essential pentosuria is due to deficiency of(
a) Fructokinase
b) Phosphogulocmutase
[[c) Xylulose reductase]]
d) Gulonolactone oxidase
Correct = Xylulose reductase
62. All are true about Hexose monophosphate pathway (HMP) except:
a) Produce NADPH in oxidative phase of pathway
b) Doesn't produce ATP
c) Occurs in testes, ovaries, placenta and adrenal cortex
[[d) Produces ribose 5-phosphate in oxidative phase of pathway]]
Correct = Produces ribose 5-phosphate in oxidative phase of pathway
63. All are true about galactosemia except:
a) Deficiency of galactokinase
[[b) Disease manifest only at adolescence]]
c) Accumulation of galactose-1-phosphate
d) Accumulation of galactitol
Correct = Disease manifest only at adolescence
3823
64. UDP glucose is used for:-
[[a) Glycogen synthesis]]
b) Galactose metabolism
c) Heparin synthesis
d) Bilirubin metabolism
Correct = Glycogen synthesis
1. A baby boy 10-month-old comes with vomiting severe jaundice, hepatomegaly

and features of irritability on starting weaning with fruit juice. Which of the
[[a) Aldolase 8]]
b) Fructokinase
c) Glucose 6 phosphatase
d) Galactose 1 Phosphate Uridyl Transferase
Correct = Aldolase 8
2. Hereditary fructose Intolerance is due to deficiency of:
[[a) Aldolase B]]
b) Aldolase A
c) Fructokinase
d) Sucrase
3824
3. False about hereditary fructose intolerance:
a) Deficiency of fructose 1-phosphate aldolase
b) Accumulation of fructose 1-phosphate in tissues
[[c) Hyperglycaemia]]
d) Liver and kidneys are involved
Correct = Hyperglycaemia
1. Enzyme deficiency in Galactosemia:
[[a) Galactose 1 Phosphate Uridyl Transferase]]
b) Aldolase B
c) UDP galactose 4 Epimerase
d) Fructokinase
Correct = Galactose 1 Phosphate Uridyl Transferase
2. E Coli sepsis commonly seen in:
a) Urea Cycle disorder
[[b) Galactosemia]]
c) Glycogen storage disorder
d) Lysosomal storage disorder
3. Galactosemia enzyme defect:
3825
a) Fructokinase
b) Glucokinase
[[c) Galactose 1 Phosphate Uridyl Transferase]]
d) Glucose 6 Phosphatase
Correct = Galactose 1 Phosphate Uridyl Transferase
4. A newborn baby refuses breast milk since the second day of birth, vomits on
force-feeding but accepts glucose-water, develops diarrhea on third day , by
fifth day she is jaundiced with liver enlargement and eyes show cataract. Urinary
reducing sugar was positive but blood glucose estimated by glucose oxidation
[[a) Galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase]]
b) Beta galactosidase
c) Glucose 6-phosphate
d) Galactokinase
Correct = Galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase
5. A child presents with hepatomegaly and bilateral lenticular opacities.

Deficiency of which of the following enzymes will not cause such features?
a) Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase
b) UDP galactose 4-epimerase
c) Galactokinase
[[d) Lactase]]
Correct = Lactase
6. True regarding galactosemia:
[[a) Mental retardation occurs]]
b) Absent disaccharidase in intestine
3826
c) Defect in epimerase
d) Defect in galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase
Correct = Mental retardation occurs
1. Which is used for energy?
a) Ketone bodies
b) Glucose
c) Free fatty acids
2. All the following are increased in fasting except:
a) Lipolysis
b) Ketogenesis
c) Gluconeogenesis
[[d) Glycogenesis]]
3. Which enzyme is active when insulin: glucagon ratio is low?
a) Glucokinase
b) Hexokinase
[[c) Glucose 6 Phosphatase]]
d) Pyruvate Carboxylase
3827
Correct = Glucose 6 Phosphatase
4. During exercise, most rapid way to synthesize ATP is:
a) Glycogenolysis
b) Glycolysis
[[c) Phosphocreatine]]
d) TCAcycle
Correct = Phosphocreatine
1. All of the following are major objectives of biochemistry, EXCEPT
a) Structure and functions of biomolecules
b) Diagnostic testing of markers in practical medicine
c) Metabolic pathways of biomolecules
[[d) Development of specialized cells]]
Correct = Development of specialized cells
2. What is the collective term for all of the chemical processes occurring within
a cell?
[[a) Metabolism]]
b) Catabolism
c) Anabolism
d) Oxidation
Correct = Metabolism
3828
3. The main function of minerals in the human body is to
[[a) Coenzymes of enzymes.]]
b) Excretion of non-soluble substances.
c) Transport substances into cells.
d) Store energy.
Correct = Coenzymes of enzymes.
4. The METABOLICALLY most active organ in the body is the
a) Pancreas
b) Spleen
[[c) Liver]]
d) Lungs
Correct = Liver
5. Which of the following represents the relationship between the terms anabolism
(A), catabolism (C) and metabolism (M)?
a) M= A-C
b) C = A + M
c) A = C + M
[[d) M = A + C]]
Correct = M = A + C
6. Which of the following would be considered a part of metabolism?
a) Biosynthetic pathways that build DNA
b) Catabolic pathways that break down complex carbohydrates
3829
c) The capture of light energy for use in making glucose
7. The sum of all chemical reactions that take place within an organism is known
as
a) Feedback
b) Dynamic equilibrium
c) Biological adaptation
[[d) Metabolism]]
Correct = Metabolism
8. Which of the following is an example of catabolic process?
a) Proteogenesis
[[b) Glycolysis]]
c) Glycogenesis
d) Lipogenesis
9. Catabolic process is
[[a) Glycogenolysis]]
b) Lipogenesis
c) Gluconeogenesis
d) Ketogenesis
Correct = Glycogenolysis
3830
10. Which one of the following is an example of anabolic process?
a) Ketolysis
[[b) Glycogenesis]]
c) Glycolysis
d) Proteolysis
11. Regarding anabolic pathways
a) Do not require the presence of enzymes
b) Do not have branches or interactions
[[c) Are often synthesis of complex compounds from smaller substances]]
d) Are often regulated by concentration of protons
Correct = Are often synthesis of complex compounds from smaller substances
12. Which one of the following statements regarding metabolic association is

FALSE?
a) Brain: fixation of toxic ammonia by glutamate
b) Muscles: creatine-P uses as primary sources of energy
c) Adrenal cortex: HMP shunt
[[d) Erythrocytes: ATP production by oxidative phosphorylation]]
Correct = Erythrocytes: ATP production by oxidative phosphorylation
13. The connecting link between HMP shunt and cholesterol synthesis is
[[a) NADPH]]
b) Ribose-5-phosphate
c) Fructose-6-phosphate
d) Sedoheptulose-7-phosphate
3831
Correct = NADPH
14. Which one of the following compounds is transported in the blood in the free
(unbound with protein) form?
a) Triacylglycerides
b) Cholesterol
[[c) Glutamine]]
d) Fat-soluble vitamin
Correct = Glutamine
15. What element forms the skeleton of organic molecules?
a) Nitrogen
b) Hydrogen
[[c) Carbon]]
d) Phosphorus
Correct = Carbon
16. Which one of the following is amino acid?
a) Acetic acid
b) Oleic acid
[[c) Aspartic acid]]
d) Ascorbic acid
Correct = Aspartic acid
17. Organ where pepsin hydrolyses proteins
a) Pancreas
3832
b) Liver
c) Gall bladder
[[d) Stomach]]
Correct = Stomach
18. Which one of the following statements regarding metabolic association is

true?
a) Brain: ketogenesis
b) Muscles: gluconeogenesis
[[c) Erythrocytes: HMP shunt]]
d) Kidney: urea cycle
Correct = Erythrocytes: HMP shunt
19. Each organism has unique combination of characteristics encoded in molecules

of
a) Vitamins.
b) Carbohydrates.
c) Lipids.
[[d) Proteins.]]
Correct = Proteins.
20. All of the following metabolic pathways take place in the liver EXCEPT
[[a) Utilization of ketone bodies]]
b) Plasma proteins synthesis
c) Formation of urea
d) Synthesis de novo of nucleotides
Correct = Utilization of ketone bodies
3833
21. Liver stores all of the following EXCEPT
a) Iron
b) Folic acid
c) Vitamin D
[[d) Ascorbic acid]]
Correct = Ascorbic acid
22. Liver degradates all of the following EXCEPT
a) Proteins
b) Remnant LDL
c) Insulin
[[d) Creatinine]]
Correct = Creatinine
23. Liver synthesized all of the following substances EXCEPT
a) Nucleotides
b) Urea
c) Ceruloplasmin
[[d) Immunoglobulins]]
Correct = Immunoglobulins
24. Liver synthesizes all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Blood clotting factors.
[[b) Immunoglobulins.]]
c) Albumin.
3834
d) Lipoproteins.
Correct = Immunoglobulins.
25. Liver synthesized all of the following lipids EXCEPT
a) Fat
b) Cholesterol
c) Ketone bodies
[[d) Tocopherol]]
Correct = Tocopherol
26. Liver synthesized all of the following substances EXCEPT?
a) Cholesterol
b) Glucose
[[c) Starch]]
d) Complement
Correct = Starch
27. All of the following compounds can cross all membranes freely, EXCEPT
[[a) Glucose.]]
b) Ketone bodies.
c) Oxygen.
d) Carbon dioxide.
Correct = Glucose.
28. Specific transport proteins are required for translocation of all of the
following substances into the cells or matrix of mitochondria EXCEPT
3835
a) Glucose
b) Fatty acids
c) Amino acids
[[d) Oxygen]]
Correct = Oxygen
29. Specific transport protein is required for translocation into the cells
of
[[a) Neutral amino acids]]
b) Beta-hydroxybutyric acid
c) Acetoacetic acid
d) Oxygen
Correct = Neutral amino acids
30. What metal ion is specifically bound by vitamin B12?
[[a) Cobalt]]
b) Copper
c) Zinc
d) Iron
Correct = Cobalt
31. What metal ion is specifically bound by kinases?
a) Cobalt
b) Copper
c) Zinc
[[d) Magnesium]]
Correct = Magnesium
3836
32. What metal ion is specifically bound by ceruloplasmin?
a) Cobalt
[[b) Copper]]
c) Zinc
d) Iron
Correct = Copper
33. What metal ion is specifically bound by ferritin?
a) Cobalt
b) Copper
c) Zinc
[[d) Iron]]
Correct = Iron
34. What metal ion is specifically bound by superoxide dismutase (SOD)?
a) Cobalt
[[b) Selenium]]
c) Zinc
d) Iron
Correct = Selenium
35. Mature erythrocytes do not contain
a) Glycolytic enzymes.
b) HMP shunt enzymes.
c) Carbonic anhydrase.
3837
[[d) Nucleotide synthetic enzymes.]]
Correct = Nucleotide synthetic enzymes.
36. Entero-hepatic circulation all of the following compounds takes place,

EXEPT:
a) Urea
b) Bile acids
c) Bile salts
[[d) Ketone bodies]]
Correct = Ketone bodies
37. Patients with anorexia nervosa, uncontrolled insulin-dependent diabetes

mellitus, hyperthyroidism all will
a) Have a high basic metabolic rate (BMR)
[[b) Experience weight loss]]
c) Suffer from malabsorption
d) Have a high insulin levels in the blood
Correct = Experience weight loss
38. The muscle fatigue occurs due to increase all of the following processes
EXCEPT
a) Anaerobic glycolysis
b) Hypoxia
c) Carbon monoxide intoxication
[[d) Ketolysis]]
Correct = Ketolysis
3838
39. Acetyl CoA is NOT needed for synthesis of
a) Cholesterol.
b) Ketone bodies.
[[c) Pyruvate.]]
d) Citric acid.
Correct = Pyruvate.
40. Acetyl CoA is NOT used for the synthesis of
a) Cholesterol
b) Citric acid
c) Acetoacetate
[[d) Urea]]
Correct = Urea
41. Mc Ardle’s disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
[[a) Glycogen]]
b) Collagen
c) Elastin
d) Galactose
Correct = Glycogen
42. Parkinson’s disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
a) Glycogen
b) Collagen
[[c) Dopamin]]
d) Galactose
Correct = Dopamin
3839
43. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
a) Glycogen
[[b) Collagen]]
c) Dopamin
d) Galactose
Correct = Collagen
44. Hereditary orotic aciduria can be caused by a problem with the metabolism
of
a) Glycogen
b) Collagen
[[c) Pyrimidines]]
d) Galactose
Correct = Pyrimidines
45. Refsume disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
a) Glycogen
b) Collagen
[[c) Fatty acid]]
d) Fructose
46. Alkaptonuria can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
[[a) Tyrosine]]
b) Collagen
3840
c) Thiamine
d) Fructose
Correct = Tyrosine
47. Alzheimer disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
a) Glycogen
b) Collagen
c) Dopamin
[[d) Protein]]
Correct = Protein
48. Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) can be caused by a problem with the

metabolism of
a) Glycogen
b) Collagen
c) Dopamin
[[d) Prion]]
Correct = Prion
49. Tangier disease can be caused by a problem with the metabolism of
a) Glycogen
[[b) Lipoprotein]]
c) Dopamin
d) Prion
Correct = Lipoprotein
3841
50. Turai disease can be caused by a problem with the oxidation of
a) Fatty acids
[[b) Glucose]]
c) Alcohol
d) Amino acids
Correct = Glucose
51. Deficiency disease of Ca2+ and Pi is
a) Anemia.
b) Cretinism
[[c) Rickets.]]
d) Edema
Correct = Rickets.
52. Amyloidosis is characteristic of
a) Von Girke disease
[[b) Alzheimer disease]]
c) Refsume disease
d) Wilson disease
Correct = Alzheimer disease
53. The minimum amount of energy necessary for a molecule(s) to react is the
[[a) Activation energy]]
b) Free energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Potential energy
Correct = Activation energy
3842
54. The main function of enzymes in the human body?
a) Identify and destroy microbes
b) Regulate body function
c) Transport nutrients to cells
[[d) Catalyze all chemical reactions]]
Correct = Catalyze all chemical reactions
55. Which of the following is NOT true about enzymes?
[[a) Enzymes decrease the rate of a chemical reactions]]
b) Enzymes are proteins
c) Enzymes demonstrate specificity
d) Enzymes decrease the activation energy of a chemical reaction
Correct = Enzymes decrease the rate of a chemical reactions
56. Enzymes are sensitive to ?
a) Pressure
[[b) Heat]]
c) Cell wall
d) Hexose sugar
Correct = Heat
57. Which of the following statement is true of enzyme catalysts?
a) To be effective they must be present at the same concentration as their

substrate
3843
[[b) They lower the activation energy for conversion of substrate to
product]]
c) Their catalytic activity is independent of pH
d) They can increase the equilibrium constant
Correct = They lower the activation energy for conversion of substrate to product
58. Regarding of the mechanism of enzyme action is true ?
a) To change the direction of reaction
b) To allow substrates to move more freely in solution
c) To change energy-requiring reactions into energy-releasing reactions
[[d) To lower the energy of the activation of a reaction]]
Correct = To lower the energy of the activation of a reaction
59. The molecule that is acted upon by an enzyme is a
a) Reactant
b) Product
[[c) Substrate]]
d) Catalyst
Correct = Substrate
60. The maximum activity of the most enzymes in organism is at the optimum
temperature ?
a) Between 60-100oC
b) Higher 50oC
[[c) Between 36-45oC]]
d) Higher 100oC
Correct = Between 36-45oC
3844
61. Which of these is an enzyme name?
[[a) Urease]]
b) Lactose
c) Sucrose
d) Glycogenin
Correct = Urease
62. Hydrolyses catalyze?
[[a) Splitting a molecules using water]]
b) Interconversion of isomers
c) Double bond formation
d) Hydration of substrates
Correct = Splitting a molecules using water
63. Part of enzyme that interacts with a substrate is known as?
a) Cofactor
[[b) Active site]]
c) Orientation site
d) Coenzyme
Correct = Active site
64. The area of an enzyme into which a substrate fits is called the
a) Catalyst
b) Product
[[c) Active site]]
3845
d) Activated complex
Correct = Active site
65. “Lock and key” model of enzyme action proposed by Fisher implies that
a) The active site is flexible and adjusts to substrate
b) The active site requires removal of PO4 group
[[c) The active site is complementary in shape to that of the substrate]]
d) Substrates change conformation prior to active site interaction
Correct = The active site is complementary in shape to that of the substrate
66. What of the following is a coenzyme?
[[a) Thiamine]]
b) Amylase
c) Lipase
d) Salt
Correct = Thiamine
67. The first step in the cycle of an enzyme is
[[a) Substrate binds to enzyme]]
b) Products released
c) Substrate converted to product
d) Enzyme become free
Correct = Substrate binds to enzyme
68. What is the most common coenzyme molecules used to activate an enzyme?
a) Hormones
3846
[[b) Vitamins]]
c) Proteins
d) Minerals
Correct = Vitamins
69. Most of enzymes secreted in human gastro-intestinal tract are
a) Transferases
b) Lyases
[[c) Hydrolases]]
d) Oxidoreductases
Correct = Hydrolases
70. Enzyme catalyzing rearrangement of atomic grouping without altering

molecular weight or number of atoms is
a) Ligase
[[b) Isomerase]]
c) Oxidoreductase
d) Hydrolase
Correct = Isomerase
71. Zymogen or proenzyme is a
a) Activator of enzyme
b) Vitamin derivative
[[c) Enzyme precursor]]
d) Hormone like factors
Correct = Enzyme precursor
3847
72. Zymogen is
a) An intracellular enzyme
b) Cofactor of enzyme
[[c) An inactive enzyme]]
d) Inhibitor of enzyme
Correct = An inactive enzyme
73. How is trypsinogen converted to trypsin?
a) Two inactive trypsinogen dimmers pair to form an active trypsin tetramer
b) A protein kinase-catalyzed phosphorylation converts trypsinogen to

trypsin
[[c) Enterokinase-catalyzed proteolysis converts trypsinogen to trypsin]]
d) Trypsinogen dimmers bind an allosteric modulator CAMP, causing

dissociation into active trypsin monomers
Correct = Enterokinase-catalyzed proteolysis converts trypsinogen to trypsin
74. Trypsinogen primary is activated by
a) HCl
[[b) Enterokinase]]
c) HCO3-
d) Trypsin
Correct = Enterokinase
75. In enzyme vitamin complex acts as
a) Inhibitor
b) Zymogen
3848
[[c) Cofactor]]
d) Isoenzyme
Correct = Cofactor
76. Trypsinogen is
[[a) Pancreatic proenzyme]]
b) Growth factor
c) Pancreatic protease inhibitor
d) Intrinsic factor
Correct = Pancreatic proenzyme
77. Which of the following influence feedback inhibition of enzyme?
[[a) End product]]
b) External factors
c) Enzyme
d) Substrate
Correct = End product
78. Which one of the following statements, regarding enzyme classification is

INNCORECT?
a) Oxidoreductases are catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions
b) Ligases are catalyze the addition of NH3, CO2, H2O to substrate and
requires energy
[[c) Hydrolases are catalyze cleavage C-C bonds]]
d) Kinases are catalyze the transfer of phosphate group from ATP to

substrate
Correct = Hydrolases are catalyze cleavage C-C bonds
3849
79. NAD+/NADH binds with the enzyme called
a) Hydrolase
b) Kinase
c) Isomerase
[[d) Dehydrogenase]]
Correct = Dehydrogenase
80. Most of the members of vitamin B complex act as
[[a) Cofactor]]
b) Prosthetic group
c) External factor
d) Isoenzymes
Correct = Cofactor
81. Enzymes are classified by the
a) Size of enzyme
b) Size of substrate
c) Rate of reaction
[[d) Type of reaction]]
Correct = Type of reaction
82. The molecules that fits into the enzyme’s active site is the
a) Codon
b) Vitamin
[[c) Substrate]]
d) Coenzyme
3850
Correct = Substrate
83. The model that explain that the active site is flexible and the catalytic
group(s) of the enzyme is(are) brought into proper alignment by substrate is
called
a) Concepted mode
[[b) Induced fit model]]
c) Lock and key model
d) Sequential model
Correct = Induced fit model
84. Enzymes mediating transfer of one molecule to another are:
[[a) Transferases]]
b) Oxidases
c) Lysases
d) Peptidases
Correct = Transferases
85. What do kinases do?
[[a) Transfer of phosphoric group from ATP to substrates are]]
b) Transfer electrons from substrate to electron acceptor
c) Transfer H+ from one compartment to other
d) Transfer substrates across membrane
Correct = Transfer of phosphoric group from ATP to substrates are
86. What do anaerobic dehydrogenases do?
3851
a) Transfer of phosphoric group from ATP to substrates are
[[b) Transfer electrons and H+ from substrate to oxidant]]
c) Transfer H+ from one compartment to other
d) Transfer substrates across membrane
Correct = Transfer electrons and H+ from substrate to oxidant
87. Enzyme of which class catalyze the following process:
a) Hydrolase
[[b) Transferase]]
c) Isomerase
d) Oxidase
Correct = Transferase
88. The following is a substrate-specific enzyme:
a) Hexokinase
b) Thiokinase
[[c) Lactase]]
d) Aminopeptidase
Correct = Lactase
89. The following is not a substrate-specific enzyme:
a) Glucokinase
b) Fructokinase
[[c) Hexokinase]]
d) Phospofructokinase
Correct = Hexokinase
3852
90. NADH would function as a cofactor for a
a) Transferase
b) Ligase
[[c) Oxidoreductase]]
d) Isomerase
Correct = Oxidoreductase
91. Which of the following is function of protein kinase (PKA)?
a) Transport
[[b) Regulatory]]
c) Defense
d) Structural
Correct = Regulatory
92. All of the following factors will decrease the function of most enzymes EXCEPT
a) Radiation
b) Temprature
c) PH
[[d) Osmotic pressure]]
Correct = Osmotic pressure
93. Substrate concentration increases the rate of enzymatic reaction up to a

certain point, but has no further effect and reaction rate level off. This is
because
a) Excess product is not released from the active site
b) Accumulation of end product shuts down the reaction
3853
c) Excess substrate makes the enzymes change conformation
[[d) All the active sites are saturated with substrate]]
Correct = All the active sites are saturated with substrate
94. L-amino acids dehydrogenase is an enzyme that can catalyze the oxidation
of different L-amino acids. It cannot catalyze the oxidation of D-amino acids
or other L-compounds. Based on these characteristics we can say that this enzyme
shows
a) Allosteric regulation
b) Relative specificity over substrate
[[c) Specificity of action]]
d) Specific inhibition
Correct = Specificity of action
95. A small molecule that DECRESES the activity of an enzyme by binding to a

site other than the catalytic site is termed a(n)
a) Alternative inhibitor
[[b) Allosteric inhibitor]]
c) Stereospecific agent
d) Competitive inhibitor
Correct = Allosteric inhibitor
96. A zymogen is
a) Amylase
b) Trypsin
[[c) Pepsinogen]]
d) Lipase
Correct = Pepsinogen
3854
97. A reaction catalyzed by a human enzyme was carried out at 200C. If there
is an excess of substrate, which of the following would cause the greatest
increase in the rate of the reaction?
[[a) Adding more enzyme and raising the temperature to 30C]]
b) Lowering the temperature to 100C
c) Adding more substrate and raising the temperature to 300C
d) Adding more enzyme and lowering the temperature to 100C
Correct = Adding more enzyme and raising the temperature to 30C
98. Optimum of pH for most of the human enzyme ranges from:
a) 0-2
b) 02-Apr
[[c) 04-Sep]]
d) > 10
Correct = 04-Sep
99. Km value refers to
a) Enzyme concentration
[[b) Substrate concentration]]
c) Product concentration
d) Effector concentration
Correct = Substrate concentration
100. Which one of the following is kinetic characteristic of enzyme?
a) Optimum of pH
3855
b) Optimum of temperature
[[c) Michaelis-Menthen constant (Km)]]
d) Concentration of enzyme
Correct = Michaelis-Menthen constant (Km)
101. Km value of enzyme is substrate concentration at
[[a) ½ Vmax]]
b) 2 Vmax
c) ¼ Vmax
d) 4 Vmax
Correct = ½ Vmax
102. Elevated blood total transaminases (ALT/AST) 100 x ULN (upper limit normal)
occur in
[[a) Acute liver failure]]
b) Chronic renal disease
c) Crush muscles injury
d) Alzheimer’s disease
Correct = Acute liver failure
103. A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme has which of the following properties?
a) It is frequently a feedback inhibitor
b) It becomes covalently attached to an enzyme
[[c) Interferes with substrate binding to the enzyme]]
d) It causes irreversible inactivation of the enzyme
Correct = Interferes with substrate binding to the enzyme
3856
104. Cellular enzyme is
[[a) Citrate synthase]]
b) Lipoprotein lipase
c) C3-convertase
d) Amylase
Correct = Citrate synthase
105. Blood enzyme is
a) Protein kinase
[[b) C3-convertase]]
c) Hexokinase
d) Citrate synthase
Correct = C3-convertase
106. NADPH-dependent enzyme is
[[a) Methemoglobin reductase]]
b) Cytochrome oxidase
c) Pyruvate kinase
d) Pancreatic lipase
Correct = Methemoglobin reductase
107. Isoenzymes are enzymes that characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Coded by the different gene
b) Localize in different tissue
c) Catalyze same reaction
[[d) Have same kinetic properties]]
3857
Correct = Have same kinetic properties
108. These enzymes have different structure but same catalytic function.
Frequently they are oligomers made from different polypeptides chains. These
enzymes are called
a) Allosteric enzymes
[[b) Isoenzymes]]
c) Lyases
d) Proenzymes
Correct = Isoenzymes
109. Structure that produces most of hydrolytic enzymes that are active in the
small intestine
[[a) Pancreas]]
b) Liver
c) Gall bladder
d) Stomach
Correct = Pancreas
110. Creatine phosphokinase localizes predominantly in
a) Pancreas
b) Spleen
c) Kidney
[[d) Muscles]]
Correct = Muscles
111. Coenzyme for transaminase is:
3858
a) FAD
b) NAD+
[[c) Vitamin B6]]
d) Vitamin B1
112. Alanine transaminase activity in plasma increases in acute
[[a) Liver disease]]
b) Renal failure
c) Hemorrhage
d) Pancreatitis
Correct = Liver disease
113. A 56-year-old man dies in an ambulance while on way to the hospital. His
postmortem chemistry studies are remarkable for an elevation of the creatine
phosphokinnase isoenzyme CPK-BB. This laboratory finding would suggest acute
damage of which organ?
[[a) Brain]]
b) Lungs
c) Heart
d) Kidney
Correct = Brain
114. The patient was diagnosed with Wilson’s disease. To confirm the diagnosis
it is necessary to study the activity of the following enzyme in blood
a) α1- antitrypsin
b) Carbonic anhydrase
c) Alcohol dehydrogenase
3859
[[d) Ferroxidase]]
Correct = Ferroxidase
115. A 56-year-old man dies in an ambulance while on way to the hospital. His
postmortem chemistry studies are remarkable for an elevation of the CPK-MB. This
a) Brain
b) Lungs
[[c) Heart]]
d) Kidney
Correct = Heart
116. Mutations that affect the stability of enzymes are often found to affect
RBCs more than other cell types. The best explanation for this fact is that
a) Hemoglobin causes instability of these enzymes
b) RBCs have leaky membrane
c) Most RBC’s enzymes are unique to RBCs
[[d) RBCs are unable to replace defective enzyme]]
Correct = RBCs are unable to replace defective enzyme
117. A patient presents high activity LDH5, AST and ALT. In what organ is the
development of a pathological process the most probable?
a) Heart
b) Kidney
[[c) Liver]]
d) Adrenal
Correct = Liver
3860
118. Digestive enzyme is
a) Lipoprotein lipase
b) Cytochrome oxidase
c) Protein kinase
[[d) Pancreatic amylase]]
Correct = Pancreatic amylase
119. Globular in shape protein is
a) Elastin
b) Collagen
[[c) Myoglobin]]
d) Keratin
Correct = Myoglobin
120. All of the following enzymes require for collagen synthesis EXCEPT
a) Lysyl hydroxylase
b) Prolyl hydroxylase
c) Lysyl oxidase
[[d) Protein kinase]]
Correct = Protein kinase
121. Which one of the following statements regarding protein classification is

correct?
[[a) Myoglobin: fibrous protein]]
b) Myoglobin: globular proti
c) Elastin is conjugated protein
3861
d) Elastin: chromoprotein
Correct = Myoglobin: fibrous protein
122. All of the following organs and tissues are rich by Elastin, EXCEPT
a) Lung
b) Uterus
c) Aorta
[[d) Bone]]
Correct = Bone
123. Which of the following substances below is found in richest content in aorta,
pereosteum, ligaments, and lungs?
[[a) Elastin]]
b) Collagen
c) Keratin
d) Fibrin
Correct = Elastin
124. The number of heme groups present in myoglobin:
[[a) 1]]
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Correct = 1
125. Which of the following vitamins required for formation of hydroxyproline?
3862
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin A
[[c) Vitamin C]]
d) Vitamin E
Correct = Vitamin C
126. Synthesis of collagen is impaired due to deficiency of
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin A
[[c) Vitamin C]]
d) Vitamin E
Correct = Vitamin C
127. The collagen defect present in scurvy is
a) Decreased protein stability due to increased glycosylation
[[b) Decreased protein stability due to decreased hydroxylation of proline

and lysine]]
c) Increased formation of imino-cross links
d) Increased number of glycine in the collagen sequence
Correct = Decreased protein stability due to decreased hydroxylation of proline

and lysine
128. In fibrous proteins polypeptide chains are held together by
a) Hydrogen bonds
b) Disulfide bonds
c) Hydrophobic interaction
3863
129. The major protein presents in vessel’s wall
a) Keratin
b) Hemoglobin
[[c) Elastin]]
d) Albumin
Correct = Elastin
130. One of the following is NOT about collagen
a) Every third amino acid is glycine
b) Contain hydroxylysine and hydroxyproline
c) Structure is triple-helical
[[d) Soluble in water]]
Correct = Soluble in water
131. Morfan syndrome is due to mutation affecting synthesis of
a) Hemoglobin
[[b) Elastin]]
c) Microtubules
d) Peroxisomes
Correct = Elastin
132. Morfan syndrome results in the molecular defect of
a) Kinin
[[b) Fibrilin]]
3864
c) Fibrinogen
d) Plasminogen
Correct = Fibrilin
133. An important feature of Morfan’s syndrome is
[[a) Skin hyperelasticity]]
b) Skin eruption
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Ectopic deposition of fat in the pancreas
Correct = Skin hyperelasticity
134. Osteogenesis imperfecta is due to mutation affecting synthesis of
a) Hemoglobin
b) Microtubules
[[c) Collagen]]
d) Peroxisomes
Correct = Collagen
135. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a group of hereditary disease due to abnormal
a) Osteoblastic activity
[[b) Development of collagen type I]]
c) Osteoclastic activity
d) Development of glycosaminoglycans
Correct = Development of collagen type I
136. Hemoglobin is example of
3865
[[a) Conjugated protein]]
b) Simple protein
c) Complex lipids
d) Oligossacharides
Correct = Conjugated protein
137. On which chromosome is located gene which coded hemoglobin β-chain

synthesis?
a) 4
[[b) 11]]
c) 16
d) 20
Correct = 11
138. Carboxyhemoglobin is formed as result of its combination with
[[a) CO]]
b) CO2
c) HCO3-
d) HCN
Correct = CO
139. Hemoglobin consists of:
a) 1 mole of heme + 2 moles of globin
b) 1 mole of heme + 4 moles of globin
[[c) 4 mole of heme + 4 moles of globin]]
d) 4 mole of heme + 2 moles of globin
Correct = 4 mole of heme + 4 moles of globin
3866
140. In mature RBCs all of the following substances are dialyzable EXCEPT
[[a) Hemoglobin]]
b) Chloride
c) Bisphosphoglycerate
d) Hydrocorbanate
Correct = Hemoglobin
141. Trivalent iron present in compound
a) Carboxyhemoglobin
b) Fetal hemoglobin
[[c) Methemoglobin]]
d) Embrionic hemoglobin
Correct = Methemoglobin
142. Methemoglobin has
a) Protonated globin
[[b) Ferric state iron]]
c) Protonated heme
d) Ferrous state iron
Correct = Ferric state iron
143. Methemoglobin is
a) Oxydized (T-) form of hemoglobin
b) Reduced (R-) form of hemoglobin
[[c) Hemoglobin with oxidized iron (Fe3+)]]
3867
d) Hemoglobin that is separated from heme
Correct = Hemoglobin with oxidized iron (Fe3+)
144. A toxic effect of methemoglobinemia is
a) Fever
b) Vomiting
[[c) Cyanosis]]
d) Dehydration
Correct = Cyanosis
145. High level of glycosylated HbA1 is seen in the blood of patient with
a) Nephrotic syndrome
[[b) Diabettes mellitus]]
c) Cirrhosis of the liver
d) Pancreatic carcinoma
Correct = Diabettes mellitus
146. A 1-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because he is having

difficulty breathing after drinking water that contains nitrate. He is cyanotic.
Blood drawn for laboratory studies is chocolate-colored. His hemoglobin most
likely has which of the following properties?
a) Increased binding of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate
[[b) Increased proportion of Fe3+]]
c) Presence of Bart hemoglobin (β4)
d) Sickle cell mutation
Correct = Increased proportion of Fe3+
3868
147. Which one from the following factors inhibits binding of hemoglobin with
oxygen?
a) Increased body temperature
b) Chronic hypoxia
c) Anemia
[[d) Metabolic acidosis]]
Correct = Metabolic acidosis
148. Which of the following is correct about hemoglobin?
a) Each molecule can carry one molecule of oxygen
[[b) Fetal type has more affinity for oxygen]]
c) Methemoglobin hs more affinity for oxygen
d) Heme is protein in nature
Correct = Fetal type has more affinity for oxygen
149. Which of the following statements about adult hemoglobin is TRUE?
a) HbA is composed of two β- and two γ-subunits
b) Four subunits combine to form the primary structure of HbA
[[c) Each subunit of HbA contains one heme]]
d) HbA binds 1 mole of O2
Correct = Each subunit of HbA contains one heme
150. Which of the following is NOT a part of normal hemoglobin?
a) Vinyl group
b) Propionic acid
[[c) Ferric ion]]
d) Pyrrole ring
3869
Correct = Ferric ion
151. Heme-containing proteins are all of the following EXCEPT
a) Hemoglobin
[[b) Ceruloplasmin]]
c) Cytochrome b
d) Myoglobin
Correct = Ceruloplasmin
152. Which of the hemoglobin designations below best describes the relationship
of subunits in the quaternary structure of adult hemoglobin?
a) (α1-α2) – ( β2-β1)
b) (α1-α2-α3-α4)
c) (β1-β2-β3-α1)
[[d) (α1-β1) – (α2-β2)]]
Correct = (α1-β1) – (α2-β2)
153. Iron-containing protein is
a) Ubiquinone (CoQ)
b) Cytochrome a3
c) Ceruloplasmin
[[d) Cytochrome b]]
Correct = Cytochrome b
154. Component of hemoglobin is ion of
[[a) Iron]]
3870
b) Copper
c) Magnesium
d) Potassium
Correct = Iron
155. Major component of deoxy-Hemoglobin is
a) Pyruvate
[[b) 2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate]]
c) Fructose-1,6 bisphosphate
d) Acetyl CoA
Correct = 2,3 Bisphosphoglycerate
156. High concentration of 2,3BPG in RBCs leads
a) Rupture of RBC membrane
b) Saturation of hemoglobin by oxygen
c) Denaturation of hemoglobin
[[d) Releasing of oxygen from hemoglobin]]
Correct = Releasing of oxygen from hemoglobin
157. High concentration of CO2 in RBCs leads
[[b) Releasing of oxygen from hemoglobin]]
c) Precipitation of hemoglobin
d) Change of RBCs shape
Correct = Releasing of oxygen from hemoglobin
3871
158. High concentration of HCO3- in RBCs leads
[[b) Saturation of hemoglobin by oxygen]]
c) Denaturation of hemoglobin
d) Change of RBCs shape
Correct = Saturation of hemoglobin by oxygen
159. The high level of all of the following molecules decrease the affinity of
hemoglobin to oxygen, EXCEPT
a) 2.3-Bisphosphoglycerate(2,3- BPG)
b) Hydrogen ions(H+)
[[c) Hydroxyl ions (OH-)]]
d) Carbon dioxide CO2
Correct = Hydroxyl ions (OH-)
160. Oxygen binding to hemoglobin increases as the
a) CO2 level is increased
[[b) 2,3 BPG level is reduced]]
c) PH is reduced
d) Temperature is increased
Correct = 2,3 BPG level is reduced
161. The characteristic red color of hemoglobin is due to
a) β-globin
b) α-globin
[[c) Heme]]
d) 2,3 BPG
3872
Correct = Heme
162. Sickle cell anemia is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Presence of Hb-S.
b) Increased osmotic fragility of RBCs.
c) Sickling of erythrocytes.
[[d) Increased half life of RBCs.]]
Correct = Increased half life of RBCs.
163. In HbS the position 6 glutamyl residue of the β-globin chain is replaced
by
[[a) Valine]]
b) Phenylalanine
c) Glutamate
d) Lysine
Correct = Valine
164. The FUNDAMENTAL CAUSE of sickle cell disease is a change in structure of:
[[a) Hemoglobin]]
b) Leukocytes
c) Capillaries
d) Blood
Correct = Hemoglobin
165. Which of the following best explains why neonates with sickle cell disease
do not have symptoms at birth?
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a) Maternal erythrocytes protect neonatal erythrocytes against sickling
b) The spleen of the neonates effectively filter out the sickled cells
c) Maternal antibodies coat the neonatal cells and inhibit the sickling
phenomen
[[d) The concentration of HbS is low but fetal hemohlobin HbF is high]]
Correct = The concentration of HbS is low but fetal hemohlobin HbF is high
166. Which one of the following inherited disorders is a quantitative abnormality

of hemoglobin?
a) Sickle cell anemia
b) Porphyries
c) Methemoglobinemia
[[d) Thalassemias]]
Correct = Thalassemias
167. Thalassemia is characterized by decreased production of
[[a) Globin chains of hemoglobin]]
b) Intestinal chylomicrons
c) Liver glycogen
d) Arterial elastic membrabnes
Correct = Globin chains of hemoglobin
168. Iron therapy (I.V.infusion) is ineffective in which of the following

conditions:
a) Chronic blood loss.
[[b) Thalassemia minor.]]
c) Hypochromic anemia.
d) Impaired absorption of iron.
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Correct = Thalassemia minor.
169. One of the official medical measurement of anemia is
a) Blood color
b) Body mass index
[[c) Count of RBC and hemoglobin]]
d) Blood volume
Correct = Count of RBC and hemoglobin
170. Heterozygous sickle cell anemia gives protection against
a) Thalassemia
[[b) Malaria]]
c) Hemolysis
d) Oxidative stress
Correct = Malaria
171. Which one of the following statements about water soluble vitamins is FALSE?
a) They are hydrophilic molecules
b) They are easily absorbed
[[c) They are toxic in overdose]]
d) They are excreted in urine
Correct = They are toxic in overdose
172. Vitamins are
a) Produced in endocrine glands
[[b) Accessory food factors]]
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c) Proteins in nature
d) Generally synthesized in the body
Correct = Accessory food factors
173. Excess intake of fat soluble vitamins is stored in which part of the body?
a) Stomach
[[b) Adipose tissue]]
c) Duodenum
d) Gall bladder
Correct = Adipose tissue
174. Which one of the following incorporates into chylomicrons and

transferred to the lymph
[[a) Retinol]]
b) Folic acid
c) Biotin
d) Thiamine
Correct = Retinol
175. Prolonged deficiency of vitamin A can lead to
a) Beri beri
b) Pellagra
[[c) Keratomalacia]]
d) Rickets
Correct = Keratomalacia
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176. Continued intake of excessive amounts of vitamin A especially in children
produces:
a) Hemolytic anemia
b) Bleeding from GIT
[[c) Skin desquamation]]
d) Muscular dystrophy
Correct = Skin desquamation
177. Vitamin A helps
a) Activity of enzymes.
b) Energy production.
c) Maintaining blood minerals level.
[[d) Visual cycle.]]
Correct = Visual cycle.
178. Which of these is a vitamin A precursor?
a) Cobalamin.
b) Pyridoxine
[[c) Beta-Carotene.]]
d) Thiamine.
Correct = Beta-Carotene.
179. Vitamin helps night vision and health skin is
a) B12
[[b) A]]
c) K
d) D
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Correct = A
180. Vitamin D helps
[[a) The bones absorb the calcium they need]]
b) Blood clotting
c) The health of the skin
d) Protect the body from damage
Correct = The bones absorb the calcium they need
181. Vitamin E have protective role against the following EXCEPT
a) Oxidative stress
b) Atherosclerosis
c) Cardiac attack
[[d) Hypovolemia]]
Correct = Hypovolemia
182. Vitamin E protects against
a) Hypersensitivity to sunlight
b) Blood clotting
[[c) Atherosclerosis]]
d) Decrease basal metabolic rate
183. Which vitamin is derived from cholesterol?
a) A
b) E
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[[c) D]]
d) K
Correct = D
184. The following form of vitamin A is used in the visual cycle
a) Retinol
[[b) Retinaldehyde]]
c) Retinoic acid
d) Retinyl palmitate
Correct = Retinaldehyde
185. A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause night blindness?
[[a) Vitamin A]]
b) Niacin
c) Vitamin D
d) Biotin
Correct = Vitamin A
186. Which form of vitamin A has hormone-like properties?
a) Retinol
b) Retinal
[[c) Retinoic acid]]
d) β-carotene
Correct = Retinoic acid
187. Retinol
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a) Can be formed from retinoic acid .
b) Is phosphorylated and dephosphorylated during the visual cycle .
c) Is the non-protein part of rhodopsin .
[[d) Exists as an ester with higher fatty acids in the liver.]]
Correct = Exists as an ester with higher fatty acids in the liver.
188. Which compound binds to protein in cell nucleus and regulates gene
transcription?
[[a) Retinoic acid.]]
b) α-tocopherol.
c) Linoleate.
d) Biotin.
Correct = Retinoic acid.
189. Antirachitic vitamin is
[[a) D]]
b) K
c) A
d) E
Correct = D
190. Vitamin K
[[a) Plays an essential role in preventing thrombosis.]]
b) Therapy increases the coagulation time in newborn infants with

hemorrhagic disease.
c) Is synthesized by intestinal bacterial flora.
d) Is a water-soluble vitamin
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Correct = Plays an essential role in preventing thrombosis.
191. Vitamin C
a) Is synthesized by intestinal bacterial flora .
[[b) Plays an essential role in synthesis of collagen and bone

mineralization.]]
c) Is a fat-soluble vitamin .
d) The non-protein part of all reductases.
Correct = Plays an essential role in synthesis of collagen and bone

mineralization.
192. Vitamin E
[[a) Prevents the oxidation of various cell components by free radicals.]]
b) Plays important role in the post-translation modification of

GLA-proteins.
c) Helps in the synthesis of glycogen from lactate.
d) Is required for visual cycle
Correct = Prevents the oxidation of various cell components by free radicals.
193. Choline
a) Is maintain plasma Ca2+.
[[b) Prevents accumulation of fat in the liver.]]
c) Is required for cholesterol synthesis.
d) Regulates the synthesis of blood clotting factor.
Correct = Prevents accumulation of fat in the liver.
194. In calcitriol synthesis involves following organs/tissues
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a) Intestine – pancreas.
[[b) Skin – liver – kidney.]]
c) Adipose tissue – liver – kidney.
d) Muscles- adipose tissue.
Correct = Skin – liver – kidney.
195. Calcitriol acts on the bone (hypercalciemia) and activate
a) Mineralization of osteoid.
[[b) Osteoclastic activity.]]
c) Resorption of bone .
d) Demineralization of bone.
Correct = Osteoclastic activity.
196. Conversion of Vit D2 to Vit D3 (active form) take place in
a) Intestine.
b) Adipose tissue.
c) Liver.
[[d) Kidney.]]
Correct = Kidney.
197. To prevent rickets in a case of chronic renal disorders, which of the

following substances should be administered?
a) High dietary calcium.
b) Ergocholecalciferol .
c) 25 (ОН) cholecalciferol .
[[d) 1, 25(OH)2 - cholecalciferol .]]
Correct = 1, 25(OH)2 - cholecalciferol .
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198. Osteomalacia is a deficiency disease of
a) Infants due to protein energy malnutrition.
b) Infants due to vitamin K deficiency.
[[c) Adult due to vitamin D deficiency.]]
d) Adult due to protein malnutrition.
Correct = Adult due to vitamin D deficiency.
199. Synthesis of Ca2+-binding protein is activated by vitamin
a) A
[[b) D]]
c) E
d) K
Correct = D
200. Which of the following are rich by PTH and vitamin D receptors?
[[a) Osteocytes]]
b) Hepatocytes
c) Adipocytes
d) Myocytes
Correct = Osteocytes
201. Renal rickets develops in child with deficiency of
[[a) 1-α-hydroxylase.]]
b) 7-α-hydroxylase.
c) 17-α-hyroxylase.
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d) 21-α-hydroxylase.
Correct = 1-α-hydroxylase.
202. 1-α-hydroxylase is directly activated by
a) Hypocalciemia.
b) Insulin.
c) Hyperphosphatemia .
[[d) Parathyroid hormone.]]
Correct = Parathyroid hormone.
203. Deficiency of 1-α-hydrolase causes
a) Osteomalacia.
[[b) Resistance rickets.]]
c) Beriberi.
d) Pellagra.
Correct = Resistance rickets.
204. Which one of the following clinical abnormalities is recorded in dietary

deficiency of vitamin D?
a) Scurvy.
[[b) Osteomalacia.]]
c) Xerophtalmia.
d) Weakness.
Correct = Osteomalacia.
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205. Some authors recommends that all newborns receive a single intramuscular
dose of vitamin K, since vitamin K is a vitamin necessary for
a) The prevention of oxidative damage.
b) Calcium and phosphate metabolism.
c) The vision process.
[[d) The synthesis of clotting factors.]]
Correct = The synthesis of clotting factors.
206. Vitamin K metabolic role is
a) Component of membrane.
[[b) Cofactor of enzyme.]]
c) Detoxificator of xenobiotics.
d) Transporter of divalent ions.
Correct = Cofactor of enzyme.
207. A fat-soluble vitamin that regulates blood clotting is
a) Vitamin A.
[[b) Vitamin K.]]
c) Vitamin C.
d) Niacin.
Correct = Vitamin K.
208. Which vitamin is required for carboxylation of clotting factors?
a) A
b) E
c) D
[[d) K]]
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Correct = K
209. Deficiency of vitamin K leads all of the following, EXCEPT
[[a) Decreases synthesis of liver’s prothrombin.]]
b) Decreases synthesis of bone’s osteopontin.
c) Increases time of blood coagulation.
d) Increases permeability of RBC’s membrane.
Correct = Decreases synthesis of liver’s prothrombin.
210. Vitamin E function in the body is
a) To maintain vision and skin integrity, as well as growth of nails and

bones.
[[b) As an antioxidant to prevent cell damage.]]
c) To calcify bones and teeth.
d) To supply energy and spare protein.
Correct = As an antioxidant to prevent cell damage.
211. Antioxidant is
a) Vitamin K.
[[b) Vitamin E.]]
c) Vitamin A.
d) Vitamin D.
Correct = Vitamin E.
212. Similarity of vitamin C and vitamin K is
a) Fat soluble.
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b) Water soluble.
[[c) Both are antioxidants.]]
d) Essential for visual cycle.
Correct = Both are antioxidants.
213. Calcitriol acts on the intestinal cells increases absorption of
a) Fe2+.
b) Vit B12.
[[c) Ca2+.]]
d) Vit D.
Correct = Ca2+.
214. Pantothenic acid is a constituent of the coenzyme involved in
a) Dehydrogenation.
b) Decarboxylation.
c) Oxidation.
[[d) Acetylation.]]
Correct = Acetylation.
215. Which one of the following compounds can be synthesized in humans?
a) Ascorbic acid.
b) Linoleic acid.
c) Riboflavin.
[[d) Niacin.]]
Correct = Niacin.
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216. The symptoms of dietary deficiency of niacin (pellagra) will be less severe
if the diet has a high content of
[[a) Tryptophan.]]
b) Tyrosine.
c) Phenylalanine.
d) Pantotenic acid.
Correct = Tryptophan.
217. A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause pellagra?
a) Vitamin C.
[[b) Niacin.]]
c) Vitamin D.
d) Biotin.
Correct = Niacin.
218. A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause scurvy?
[[a) Vitamin C.]]
b) Niacin.
c) Vitamin D.
d) Biotin.
Correct = Vitamin C.
219. Vitamin B6 deficiency has been observed in humans during the treatment of
tuberculosis with high doses of drugs:
a) Sulfonamide.
[[b) Isoinosid.]]
c) Phenobarbital.
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d) Fluorineuracil.
Correct = Isoinosid.
220. Egg is rich in all of the following EXCEPT
a) Cholesterol.
b) Calcium.
c) Fatty acids.
[[d) Ascorbic acid.]]
Correct = Ascorbic acid.
221. Which of these molecules is vitamin H?
[[a) Biotin.]]
b) Carnitine.
c) Folic acid.
d) None of these.
Correct = Biotin.
222. Milk is a good source of all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Calcium and phosphorus.
b) Galactose.
c) Fat with medium chain fatty acids.
[[d) Vitamin B12.]]
Correct = Vitamin B12.
223. Consumption of raw eggs cause deficiency of
[[a) Biotin]]
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b) Riboflavin
c) Thiamin
d) Ascorbic acid
Correct = Biotin
224. Cobamide coenzyme is
a) Vitamin B6
[[b) Vitamin B12]]
c) Vitamin B9
d) Vitamin B3
225. Vitamin folic acid (B9) is essential for synthesis of
a) Amino acids.
[[b) Nucleotides.]]
c) Ribose-5-phosphate.
d) Ketone bodies.
Correct = Nucleotides.
226. Which vitamin is essential for formation of dTMP?
a) Tocopherol.
b) Thiamin.
c) Cholecalciferol.
[[d) Folic acid.]]
Correct = Folic acid.
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227. Folate as coenzyme is involved in the transfer and utilization of
a) Amino group.
b) Hydroxyl group.
[[c) One carbon moiety.]]
d) Sulfur group.
Correct = One carbon moiety.
228. Megaloblastic anemia due to deficiency vitamin
a) Tocopherol.
b) Biotin.
c) Thiamine.
[[d) Folic acid.]]
Correct = Folic acid.
229. A population group that would be at increased risk of vitamin B12 deficiency
a) Infants.
b) Pregnant women.
[[c) Strict vegetarians.]]
d) Athletic men.
Correct = Strict vegetarians.
230. Which vitamin is required for utilization of homocysteine & production

of SAM (S-adenosyl methyanine)?
a) Thiamine.
b) Niacin.
[[c) Tetrahydrofolate.]]
d) Cyanocobalamin.
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Correct = Tetrahydrofolate.
231. A dietary deficiency of which vitamin can cause Beriberi?
a) Vitamin C.
[[b) Thiamine.]]
c) Vitamin D.
d) Biotin.
Correct = Thiamine.
232. The disease pellagra is due to a deficiency of
a) Vitamin B12.
[[b) Niacin.]]
c) Pantothenic acid.
d) Folic acid.
Correct = Niacin.
233. Pellagra occurs in population dependent on
a) Maize
[[b) Rice]]
c) Milk
d) Meat
Correct = Rice
234. Magenta tongue is found in the deficiency of the vitamin
[[a) Riboflavin]]
b) Nicotinic acid
3892
c) Thiamin
d) Pyridoxine
235. Antioxidants are all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Vitamin E.
b) Vitamin C.
c) NADPH.
[[d) Thiamine-PP.]]
Correct = Thiamine-PP.
236. The vitamin required as coenzyme for the action of transaminases is
a) Niacin
[[b) Pyridoxal phosphate]]
c) Thimine pyrophosphate
d) Tetrahydrofolate
Correct = Pyridoxal phosphate
237. Transketolase activity testing is used for detection deficiency of
[[a) Thiamine]]
b) Biotin
c) Niacin
d) Lipoic acid
Correct = Thiamine
238. Thiamine level is best monitored by:
3893
[[a) Transketolase level in RBC .]]
b) Thiamine level in blood .
c) Glucose-6-Phosphatase activity .
d) Reticulocytosis .
Correct = Transketolase level in RBC .
239. The vitamin used in the treatment of convulsion in alcoholism is
a) Riboflavin.
[[b) Thiamine.]]
c) Folic acid.
d) Niacin.
Correct = Thiamine.
240. The requirement of vitamin B1 is increased when energy metabolism is

elevated. During which one of the following conditions requirements of vitamin
B1 is NOT increased?
a) Fever.
b) Hyperthyroidism.
c) Increased muscular activity.
[[d) Hypothyroidism.]]
Correct = Hypothyroidism.
241. Liver stores all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Vitamin D
b) Vitamin A
c) Vitamin B12
[[d) Vitamin C]]
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Correct = Vitamin C
242. Biochemical indication of vitamin В12 deficiency can be obtained by

measuring the urinary excretion of
a) Pyruvic acid
b) Lactic acid
c) Malic acid
[[d) Methyl malonic acid]]
Correct = Methyl malonic acid
243. The grows factor of intestinal bacteria is:
[[a) Tetrahydrofolate]]
b) Coenzyme A
c) Lipoate
d) Vitamin D
Correct = Tetrahydrofolate
244. Ascorbic acid is involved in which of the following types of reactions?
a) Deamination.
b) Hydroxylation .
[[c) Oxidation-Reduction .]]
d) Carbo xylation.
Correct = Oxidation-Reduction .
245. Vitamin B6 involved in:
a) Lipid metabolism
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[[b) Amino acids metabolism]]
c) Mineral metabolism
d) Carbohydrate metabolism
Correct = Amino acids metabolism
246. What is common reaction for folate and vitamin B12?
a) Isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA.
b) Synthesis of the NAD+ and NADP+.
c) Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate.
[[d) Methionine synthesis.]]
Correct = Methionine synthesis.
247. Sulfa drugs are antimetabolites of
a) Pyridoxine.
[[b) P-amino benzoic acid.]]
c) Pantothenic acid.
d) Riboflavin.
Correct = P-amino benzoic acid.
248. Methylmolonic aciduria is seen in a deficiency of vitamin
a) B1
b) B4
c) B9
[[d) B12]]
Correct = B12
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249. Formaminoglutamate test (FIGLU) is used for detection
a) Vitamin B12deficiency
[[b) Vitamin B9 deficiency]]
c) Vitamin B3 deficiency
d) Vitamin B1 deficiency
Correct = Vitamin B9 deficiency
250. Which one of the following diseases is due to vitamin deficiency?
[[a) Pernicious anemia]]
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Fructose intolerance
d) Cystinuria
Correct = Pernicious anemia
251. Which one of the following is NOT a function of any hormone?
a) Affects membrane transport of substances
b) Regulates water balance in the body
[[c) Acts as a source of energy]]
d) Promotes transcription of messenger RNA
Correct = Acts as a source of energy
252. Which of the following statements relating to the properties of hormones

is correct?
a) A paracrine hormone exerts its action on the cell that secretes it.
[[b) Steroid hormones bind to intracellular/nuclear receptors.]]
c) All hormones enter the general circulation.
d) Peptide hormones are lipid-soluble.
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Correct = Steroid hormones bind to intracellular/nuclear receptors.
253. Which of the following statements relating to the properties of hormones

and hormone actions is NOT correct?
a) Epinephrine travels in the blood in free form.
[[b) Peptide hormones travel in the blood in combination with carrier

proteins.]]
c) Many anterior pituitary hormones are under feedback regulation.
d) A circadian rhythm is an hourly rhythm.
Correct = Peptide hormones travel in the blood in combination with carrier

proteins.
254. G-protein acts as
[[a) Signal transducer.]]
b) Hormone carrier.
c) Second messenger.
d) Hormone inhibitor.
Correct = Signal transducer.
255. The nucleotide (GDP)- binding site of G-protein is present on the
[[a) α-subunit.]]
b) β–and γ- subunits.
c) γ-subunit.
d) α– and β- subunits.
Correct = α-subunit.
256. Hormone that binds to intracellular receptor
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[[a) Thyroxine]]
b) Insulin
c) Follicule stimulating hormone (FSH)
d) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Correct = Thyroxine
257. Prolonged low level of plasma thyroid-binding globulin (TBG) leads
[[a) Decrease plasma total thyroid hormones level.]]
b) Increased plasma total thyroid hormones level.
c) No effect on plasma total thyroid hormone level.
d) Increase the plasma thyroxin (T4) level only.
Correct = Decrease plasma total thyroid hormones level.
258. Which of the following recognizes the signal?
a) Hormone
[[b) Receptor]]
c) Effector
d) Messenger
Correct = Receptor
259. Receptors for insulin is localized in(on)
[[a) Plasma membrane.]]
b) Intracellular matrix.
c) Interstitial space.
d) Nucleus.
Correct = Plasma membrane.
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260. Receptors for testosterone is localized in(on)
a) Plasma membrane.
[[b) Intracellular matrix.]]
c) Interstitial space.
d) Golgi apparatus.
Correct = Intracellular matrix.
261. Adenylate cyclase cascade transduces
[[a) CAMP]]
b) DAG & Ca2+
c) IP3
d) CGMP
Correct = CAMP
262. Protein kinase is
a) Activated by covalent binding of cAMP
[[b) Allosterically activated by cAMP]]
c) Competitively inhibited by cAMP
d) Non-competitively inhibited by cAMP
Correct = Allosterically activated by cAMP
263. Secretion of insulin is regulated by
a) Hypothalamic releasing peptides.
b) Anterior pituitary hormones.
[[c) Positive feedback effect of plasma glucose.]]
d) Negative feedback effect of plasma insulin.
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Correct = Positive feedback effect of plasma glucose.
264. Insulin secretion inhibited by
a) High level of blood glucose.
b) Short-term rising of blood fatty acids.
[[c) Prolonged elevation of blood fatty acids.]]
d) High level of blood amino acids.
Correct = Prolonged elevation of blood fatty acids.
265. Target organ/tissue for insulin effect is
a) Brain
b) Kidney
[[c) Adipose]]
d) Uterus
Correct = Adipose
266. Correct statement about steroid hormones
a) Activate adenylate cyclase.
b) Transducer of signals through second messengers.
[[c) Act as transcriptional factors.]]
d) Activate phosphorylation of enzymes.
Correct = Act as transcriptional factors.
267. Which from the following statements regarding G-proteins is CORRECT?
[[a) Activated by the binding of an extracellular ligand to a membrane

receptor.]]
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b) Mediate the action of glucocorticoid hormone.
c) Bind to DNA to regulate gene expression.
d) Phosphorylate proteins.
Correct = Activated by the binding of an extracellular ligand to a membrane

receptor.
268. PTH is involved in the regulation of
a) Sodium and magnesium metabolism.
b) Carbohydrate metabolism.
[[c) Calcium and phosphorus metabolism.]]
d) Amino acids and lipids metabolism.
Correct = Calcium and phosphorus metabolism.
269. After 10-days starvation which compound in the tissues completely absent?
a) Protein
b) Lipids
[[c) Glycogen]]
d) Nucleic acid
Correct = Glycogen
270. Starvation leads activation of all of the following metabolic processes

EXCEPT
a) Proteolysis in muscles
b) Ketogenesis in the liver
[[c) Glycogenesis in the liver & muscles]]
d) Lipolysis in adipose tissue
Correct = Glycogenesis in the liver & muscles
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271. Starvation leads all of the following EXCEPT
a) Ketogenesis
b) Lipolysis
c) Proteolysis
[[d) Glycogenesis]]
272. During prolonged starvation the major source of blood glucose
a) Hepatic glycogenolysis
[[b) Hepatic gluconeogenesis]]
c) Muscle glycogenolysis renal
d) Reabsorption of glucose
Correct = Hepatic gluconeogenesis
273. Regarding starvation
[[a) Amino acids utilized for glucose production]]
b) Glucose transport into adipose tissue increased
c) Glycogen synthesis is activated
d) Lipogenesis is activated
Correct = Amino acids utilized for glucose production
274. What is the major form of caloric storage in human body?
[[a) Triacylglycerides]]
b) Glycogen
c) Protein
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d) Cholesterol
Correct = Triacylglycerides
275. In well-fed state
a) Lipolysis is activated.
b) Glucose synthesis is activated.
c) Glucose transport into adipose tissue is inhibited.
[[d) Glycogen synthesis is activated.]]
Correct = Glycogen synthesis is activated.
276. In fasting state
a) Proteogenesis is activated.
[[b) Glucose synthesis is activated.]]
c) Glycogen synthesis is activated.
d) Lipogenesis is activated.
Correct = Glucose synthesis is activated.
277. After fasting for 12 hours, a student consumes a large bag of pretzels.
This meal will
[[a) Replenish liver glycogen stores.]]
b) Increase the rate of gluconeogenesis.
c) Reduce the rate of lipogenesis.
d) Increase blood glucagon level.
Correct = Replenish liver glycogen stores.
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278. When compared to his state after an overnight fast, a person who fasts for
2 week will have
a) Higher levels of blood glucose
[[b) Less muscle protein]]
c) More adipose tissue
d) Lower level of blood acetoacetate
Correct = Less muscle protein
279. Which one of the following is essential in the human diet
a) Glutamate.
b) Tyrosine.
c) Palmitic acid.
[[d) Lysine.]]
Correct = Lysine.
280. Milk is a good source of all of the following,
a) Calcium and phosphorus.
b) Galactose.
[[c) Vitamin B12 .]]
d) Fat with medium chain fatty acids.
Correct = Vitamin B12 .
281. The First Law of Thermodynamics implies that living organisms cannot create
their own energy but can only convert one form of energy into another. What,
a) Chemical energy from the glucose molecule made by plants during

photosynthesis
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b) The chemical energy released by the numerous hydrolytic reactions in
a cell
[[c) Light energy from the sun]]
d) ATP made in the mitochondria of both plants and animals
Correct = Light energy from the sun
282. All the energy that passes along a food chain comes originally from:
a) Oxygen
b) Air gases
c) Carbon dioxide
[[d) Solar light]]
Correct = Solar light
283. Oxidation of organic compounds’ carbon skeleton is source of
a) Minerals & water
b) Electrolytes and bases
c) Organic polymers
[[d) Energy & ATPs]]
Correct = Energy & ATPs
284. Excellent short term storage material for immediately providing of energy
in the body is
a) Fat
b) Nucleic acid
[[c) Glycogen]]
d) Protein
Correct = Glycogen
3906
285. Which of the following is the major energy fuel for the brain?
a) Acetaldehyde
b) Glycine
[[c) Glucose]]
d) Cholesterol
Correct = Glucose
286. Excellent long term storage material for immediately providing of energy
in the body is
[[a) Fat]]
b) Nucleic acid
c) Glycogen
d) Protein
Correct = Fat
287. High concentration of oxygen radicals in RBCs leads the oxidation all of
the following EXCEPT
a) Lipids of membrane
b) Iron (Fe2+)
c) Hemoglobin
[[d) Ketone bodies]]
288. All of the following nutrients provide energy EXCEPT
[[a) Minerals]]
3907
b) Proteins
c) Fats
d) Carbohydrates
Correct = Minerals
289. In the normal adult, the fuel store that contains the fewest calories is
a) Adipose tracylglycerides
b) Liver glycogen
c) Muscle glycogen
[[d) Muscle protein]]
Correct = Muscle protein
290. The major carrier of chemical energy in all cells is
a) Adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
b) Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP)
[[c) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)]]
d) Inorganic phosphate (Pi)
Correct = Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
291. For this cells fatty acids are NOT a fuel source at any time
a) Myocytes
b) Enterocytes
c) Hepatocytes
[[d) Astrocytes]]
Correct = Astrocytes
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292. The active organ that utilizes predominantly fatty acids for energy
production is
a) Pancreas
b) Liver
[[c) Heart]]
d) Brain
Correct = Heart
293. Final common oxidative pathway which integrates oxidation of fat, proteins
and carbohydrate is also known as
[[a) Citric acid cycle.]]
b) Urea cycle.
c) Cori cycle.
d) Myester cycle.
Correct = Citric acid cycle.
294. Acetyl CoA is a product of all of the following molecules oxidation EXCEPT
a) Pyruvate.
[[b) Aldosterone.]]
c) Acetoacetate.
d) Alanine.
Correct = Aldosterone.
295. The common intermediate of carbohydrate, amino acids & fatty acids
carbon skeleton oxidation is
[[a) Acetyl CoA.]]
b) Ammonia.
c) Glycerol.
3909
d) Ethanol.
Correct = Acetyl CoA.
296. Synthesis of which compound is stimulated in the liver of a patient exhausted

by starvation?
a) Protein
[[b) Glucose]]
c) Lipids
d) Glycogen
Correct = Glucose
297. The most rapid method of ATP formation during intensive exercise is through
[[a) Breakdown of creatine-phosphate (PC-ATP system).]]
b) Oxidation of glucose to lactate (anaerobic system).
c) Breakdown of glycogen (aerobic system).
d) Cyclization of creatine-phosphate to creatinine.
Correct = Breakdown of creatine-phosphate (PC-ATP system).
298. Mitochondria has all of the following EXCEPT
a) Membrane-bound electron transport chain.
b) ATP-synthase.
[[c) Enzymes of glycolysis.]]
d) Mitochondrial DNA.
Correct = Enzymes of glycolysis.
299. Energy-releasing pathway is
3910
a) Lipogenesis.
b) Glycogenesis.
c) Glyconeogenesis.
[[d) Ketolysis]]
Correct = Ketolysis
300. Major sources for ATP synthesis in the cells are reactions of
a) Reduction of carbonic acids.
[[b) Oxidation of carbon skeleton .]]
c) Transamination.
d) Deamination.
Correct = Oxidation of carbon skeleton .
301. Which of the following is NOT a part of ATP?
a) Ribose
b) Adenosine
c) Phosphate
[[d) Methylene]]
Correct = Methylene
302. Which one of the following organs can metabolize glucose, fatty acids, and
ketone bodies for ATP production?
a) Liver
b) RBCs
[[c) Muscle]]
d) Brain
Correct = Muscle
3911
303. Organ where glucose only uses for energy production is
a) Pancreas.
[[b) Brain.]]
c) Muscles.
d) Liver.
Correct = Brain.
304. All of the following vitamins is required for full intracellular glucose
oxidation, EXCEPT
[[a) Ascorbic acid .]]
b) Pantothenic acid.
c) Thiamine.
d) Niacin.
Correct = Ascorbic acid .
305. The catabolism of glucose and fatty acids is similar because
a) Both of these compounds are funneled through the TCA cycle.
b) Both of these compounds generate redox energy during catabolism.
c) Both of these compounds generate chemical energy during catabolism.
[[d) All of the above.]]
Correct = All of the above.
306. The maximum energy per gram on oxidization is yielded from
[[a) Fat]]
b) Alcohol
3912
c) Protein
d) Starch
Correct = Fat
307. FAD is reduced to FADH2 during
a) Electron transport phosphorylation.
b) Lactate fermentation.
[[c) Krebs cycle.]]
d) Glycolysis.
Correct = Krebs cycle.
308. What is the next step after glycolysis in aerobic condition?
[[a) Pyruvate is oxidized to AcetylcoA.]]
b) FADH2 is produced.
c) Fermentation.
d) Oxidative phosphorylation.
Correct = Pyruvate is oxidized to AcetylcoA.
309. In what form does the product of glycolysis enter the TCA cycle?
[[a) AcetylCoA]]
b) Pyruvate
c) NADH
d) Glucose
Correct = AcetylCoA
310. The enzymes of the TCA cycle in a eukaryotic cell are located in the
3913
[[a) Mitochondria]]
b) Plasma membrane
c) Lysosomal bodies
d) Nucleous
311. Citric acid cycle occurs in
a) Cytoplasm
[[b) Mitochondria]]
d) Golgi bodies
312. Why is the TCA cycle the central pathway of metabolism of the cell?
a) It occurs in the center of the cell.
[[b) Its intermediates are commonly used by other metabolic reactions.]]
c) All other metabolic pathways depend upon it.
d) None of the above.
Correct = Its intermediates are commonly used by other metabolic reactions.
313. The oxidation of Acetyl CoA by the citric acid cycle plays a major role
in providing energy in each of the following tissues EXCEPT
a) Muscle
b) Brain
c) Liver
[[d) Red blood cells]]
Correct = Red blood cells
3914
314. Which one of the following is NOT the intermediate of Kreb's cycle?
a) Isocitrate.
b) Succinate.
c) Fumarate.
[[d) Stearate.]]
Correct = Stearate.
315. Substrate - level phosphorylation in citric acid cycle is seen in the

conversion of
a) Oxaloacetate to citrate.
[[b) Succinyl CoA to succinate .]]
c) Fumarate to malate .
d) Succinate to fumarate .
Correct = Succinyl CoA to succinate .
316. Which of the following releases most energy when completely oxidized in
the body?
a) 10grams of glucose
[[b) 10 grams of palmitic acid]]
c) 10 grams of alcohol
d) 10 grams of leucine
Correct = 10 grams of palmitic acid
317. How many ATPs are produced by the complete oxidation of 1 mole of Acetyl
CoA in TCA cycle?
a) 8
3915
[[b) 12]]
c) 24
d) 36
Correct = 12
318. All of the following statements are true, EXCEPT
a) The citric acid cycle is amphibolic in nature.
[[b) The citric acid cycle is major transporter of glucose into

mitochondria.]]
c) The citric acid cycle is stopped when level of Acetyl CoA increases.
d) NADH is formed during oxidation of Acetyl CoA in citric acid cycle.
Correct = The citric acid cycle is major transporter of glucose into

mitochondria.
319. Which of the following statement is true about TCA cycle?
a) It requires coenzyme biotin, FAD, NAD and coenzyme A.
[[b) Three NADH are produced per turn.]]
c) It participates in the synthesis of ketone bodies.
d) Enzymes are located in cytosol.
Correct = Three NADH are produced per turn.
1. Acetyl CoA is a product of all of the following molecules oxidation EXCEPT
a) Pyruvate
3916
[[b) Aldosterone]]
c) Acetoacetate
d) Alanine
Correct = Aldosterone
2. In eukaryotes fatty acid oxidation occurs in
[[a) Mitochondrial matrix.]]
b) Cytosol.
c) Cell membrane.
d) Endoplasmic reticulum.
Correct = Mitochondrial matrix.
3. The flow of which of the following into mitochondrial matrix provides the
chemiosmotic energy for the synthesis of ATP?
a) Inorganic phosphate.
b) Electrons.
[[c) Protons.]]
d) ADP.
Correct = Protons.
4. Energy-requirement pathway
a) Ketolysis
b) Krebs cycle
[[c) Glycogenesis]]
d) HMP shunt
3917
5. How many moles of ATPs are produced by oxidative phosphorylation from one
mole of NADH?
a) Zero
b) 2
[[c) 3]]
d) 4
Correct = 3
6. During cellular respiration, most of the ATP made, is generated by
b) Photophosphorylation
c) Glycolysis
d) Substrate-level phosphorylation
7. In cardiomyocytes deprived of oxygen during myocardial infarction
a) The citric acid cycle will accelerate
[[b) The mitochondrial proton pumps slows down]]
c) ETC will accelerate
d) Anaerobic glycolyss will decrease
Correct = The mitochondrial proton pumps slows down
8. Which one is NOT the main protein in electron transport chain?
a) NADH dehydrogenase
b) Cytochrome bc1 complex
c) Cytochrome oxidase
3918
[[d) Citrate synthase]]
Correct = Citrate synthase
9. Select the molecule that contains the LEAST stored chemical energy in cells
[[a) Oxygen]]
b) Lactate
c) Glucose
d) Glucose-6-phosphate
Correct = Oxygen
10. Higher rate of ATPs production is seen in
[[a) Heart]]
b) Erythrocytes
c) Cornea
d) Spleen
Correct = Heart
11. Most of metabolic pathways are either anabolic (synthetic) or catabolic

(degradation). Which one of the following pathways is considered as “amphibolic”
in nature?
a) Glycogenesis
b) Lipolysis
c) Rapoport-Leubering shunt
[[d) Citric acid cycle]]
Correct = Citric acid cycle
3919
12. The energy of electron transfer from NADH and FADH2 is efficiently converted
in what form?
[[a) Proton gradient]]
b) Glycogen
c) Osmotic gradient
d) Glucose
Correct = Proton gradient
13. Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages of the aerobic respiration
of glucose?
[[a) Hydrolysis]]
b) Electron Transport Chain
c) Krebs cycle
d) Glycolysis
Correct = Hydrolysis
14. Energy status is control the cellular rate of
a) Glycolysis
b) Oxidative phosphorylation
c) Citric acid cycle
15. Which one of the following vitamins is NOT a component of electron transport
chain?
a) Nicotinamide
b) Ubiquinone
[[c) Biotin]]
3920
d) Riboflavin
Correct = Biotin
16. The final electron acceptor in the electron transport system is
a) Coenzyme Q.
b) Coenzyme A.
[[c) Oxygen.]]
d) ATP- synthase.
Correct = Oxygen.
17. Electron transport chain oxidize
[[a) NADH]]
b) NADPH
c) THF (tetrahydrofolate)
d) H4B (tetrahydrobyopterin)
Correct = NADH
18. Electron transport chain is involved in transport of electrons from to
a) Acetyl CoA / NADH
[[b) NADH/oxygen]]
c) FADH2/proton
d) NADH/FAD
Correct = NADH/oxygen
19. Which one of the following products of citric acid cycle removes through
respiratory system?
3921
[[a) Carbon dioxide]]
b) Acetone
c) Acetyl CoA
d) Water
Correct = Carbon dioxide
20. Products of ETC working are
a) Acetyl CoA, CO2, ATP
b) ATP, NADH
[[c) H2O, NAD+, FAD]]
d) ATP, H2O2, FADH2
Correct = H2O, NAD+, FAD
21. Patient with inherited defect of mitochondria involving components of

electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation present with all EXCEPT
a) Myopathy
b) Encephalopathy
[[c) Fatty liver]]
d) Lactic acidosis
Correct = Fatty liver
22. Wasting syndrome may seen in patients suffering from all EXCEPT
a) Hyperthyroidism
b) Multiple myeloma
c) Malnutrition
[[d) High caloric intake]]
Correct = High caloric intake
3922
23. All of the following statements about NAD+ & FAD are correct, EXCEPT
a) They are vitamin derivatives.
[[b) They are transport system for oxygen radicals.]]
c) They contain nucleotides.
d) They are transport system for protons and electrons.
Correct = They are transport system for oxygen radicals.
24. All of the following are electron carriers in Electron Transport Chain,
EXCEPT
a) Cytochromes.
b) Coenzyme Q.
[[c) NADPH.]]
d) NADH.
Correct = NADPH.
25. A postoperative patient on intravenous fluids develops angular stomatitis.

Urinalysis indicates an excretion of 15 μg riboflavin/mg creatinine (Normal >
30 μg riboflavin/mg creatinine). Which of the following TCA enzymes is most
likely to be affected?
a) α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
b) Citrate synthase
c) Fumarase
[[d) Succinate dehydrogenase]]
Correct = Succinate dehydrogenase
3923
26. After excessive drinking over a prolonged time with eating poorly, a
45-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with heart failure. Which of the
following enzymes of TCA cycle is most likely affected?
a) Aconitase
b) Malate dehydrogenase
c) Citrate synthase
[[d) α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase]]
Correct = α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
27. What are final products of Acetyl CoA oxidation in mitochondrion?
a) Hydrogen & oxygen
b) Carbon & water
[[c) Carbon dioxide & protons]]
d) Carbon monoxide & hydrogen
Correct = Carbon dioxide & protons
28. For formation of ATP in mitochondrion requires all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Catalatyc β-subunit of ATP-ase.
[[b) Low proton motive force.]]
c) Rotation of γ-subunit of AT-ase.
d) ADP & Pi.
Correct = Low proton motive force.
29. Reduced particle is
[[a) NADH.]]
b) FAD.
c) Oxygen.
3924
d) Proton (H+).
Correct = NADH.
30. Antimycin A blocks ETC between cytochrome b and cytochrome c1. Which one
of the following would be NOT found in oxidized form?
a) FAD
b) NAD
[[c) Cyt a3]]
d) CoQ
Correct = Cyt a3
31. Energy released from the oxidation of glucose is stored in
a) ATP only
[[b) ATP and NADH]]
c) NADH only
d) NADPH only
Correct = ATP and NADH
32. Mitochondrial ATPs are formed by a process known as
a) Glycolysis.
[[b) Chemiosmosis.]]
c) Krebs cycle.
d) Dephosphorylation.
Correct = Chemiosmosis.
33. Oxidative phosphorylation is
3925
[[a) Generation of ATPs.]]
b) Utilization of heat.
c) Generation of NADH.
d) Utilization of ATPs.
Correct = Generation of ATPs.
34. During oxidative phosphorylation the proton motive force that is generated
by electron transport is used to
a) Create a pore in the inner mitochondrial membrane.
[[b) Activate ATP synthase.]]
c) Reduce oxygen to water.
d) Induce a conformational change of ETC.
Correct = Activate ATP synthase.
35. Oxidation of which substances in the erythrocytes leads synthesis of ATP?
[[a) Glucose-6-P]]
b) Acetyl CoA
c) Iron
d) NADH
Correct = Glucose-6-P
36. Riboflavin is a part of the structure of which of the following?
[[a) FAD]]
b) NAD+
c) CoA
d) ATP
Correct = FAD
3926
37. In heart cells deprived of oxygen during a myocardial infarction
a) The TCA will accelerate to provide more electrons for ATP synthesis.
b) The ETC will accelerate to provide more protons for ATP synthesis.
[[c) The mitochondrial proton pumps slows down, preventing ATP synthesis.]]
d) Anaerobic glycolysis will decrease and conversion of glucose to CO2 will

increase.
Correct = The mitochondrial proton pumps slows down, preventing ATP synthesis.
38. Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is formed by the addition of
water to fumarate?
a) Succinate
[[b) Malate]]
c) α-Ketoglutarate
d) Citrate
Correct = Malate
39. Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is converted to its isomer
by the enzyme aconitase
a) Succinate
b) Malate
c) α-Ketoglutarate
[[d) Citrate]]
Correct = Citrate
40. Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is an intermediate in the

conversion of citrate to Succinyl CoA?
3927
a) Succinate
b) Malate
[[c) α-Ketoglutarate]]
d) Citrate
Correct = α-Ketoglutarate
41. Which of the following compounds of TCA cycle is generated in the reaction
that produces GTP?
[[a) Succinate]]
b) Malate
c) α-Ketoglutarate
d) Citrate
Correct = Succinate
42. NADH is required for the one-step reaction by which pyruvate is converted
to
[[a) Lactate.]]
b) Acetyl CoA.
c) Phosphoenolpyruvate.
d) Succinyl CoA.
Correct = Lactate.
43. A disaccharide linked by α(1→4) glycosidic bond is
a) Lactose.
b) Sucrose.
c) Cellulose.
[[d) Maltose.]]
3928
Correct = Maltose.
44. Storage polysaccharide made by animals is
a) Amylopectin
[[b) Glycogen]]
c) Cellulose
d) Collagen
Correct = Glycogen
45. Which of the following is NOT a disaccharide?
[[a) Pectin]]
b) Sucrose
c) Lactose
d) Maltose
Correct = Pectin
46. A high ratio of insulin to glucagon can
a) Promote ketogenesis
b) Occurring in starvation
c) Promote glycogenolysis
[[d) Promote glycogenesis]]
Correct = Promote glycogenesis
47. Hexokinase activity is inhibited by
[[a) Glucose 6- phosphate]]
b) Fatty acids
3929
c) Citric acid
d) Water overload
Correct = Glucose 6- phosphate
48. Monosaccharide is
[[a) Ribose]]
b) Acetyl CoA
c) Acetoacetate
d) Glycerol
Correct = Ribose
49. Which of the statement best characterize glucose?
a) It usually exists in furanose form
b) It is a ketose
[[c) It is an unit of glycogen and starch]]
d) It is oxidized to sorbitol
Correct = It is an unit of glycogen and starch
50. Starch and glycogen are polymers of
a) α-D-Galactose
b) β-D-Fructose
[[c) α-D-Glucose]]
d) β-D-Ribose
Correct = α-D-Glucose
51. Which one of the following contains glycosidic bond?
3930
[[a) Lactose]]
b) Glucose
c) Fat
d) Alanine
Correct = Lactose
52. Which one of the following enzymes is digestive enzyme of carbohydrates?
a) Aconitase
b) Arginase
[[c) Amylase]]
d) Aldolase
Correct = Amylase
53. Which of the following carbohydrates would be most abundant in the diet of
strict vegetarians?
[[a) Cellulose]]
b) Glycogen
c) Lactase
d) Sucrose
Correct = Cellulose
54. Iodine test is positive for
[[a) Glucose.]]
b) Glycogen.
c) Protein.
d) Cholesterol.
Correct = Glucose.
3931
55. Humans are unable to digest
a) Starch
b) Complex carbohydrates
c) Denatured proteins
[[d) Cellulose]]
Correct = Cellulose
56. Hydrolysis of lactose yields
a) Galactose and fructose
[[b) Galactose and glucose]]
c) Glucose and fructose
d) Fructose and galactose
Correct = Galactose and glucose
57. Two major products of HMP pathway are
[[a) NADPH and ribose 5-phosphate]]
b) FADH2 and glucose 6-phosphate
c) FAD and CoA
d) Erythrose and sederoheptulose
Correct = NADPH and ribose 5-phosphate
58. A catabolic intermediate which stimulates phosphofructokinase would

stimulate
a) Gluconeogenesis
[[b) Glycolysis]]
3932
d) Glycogen breakdown
59. Which one from the following transporters for glucose is involved in it
reabsorption from lumen into tubular cells?
a) SGLT-1
b) GLUT-1
[[c) SGLT-2]]
d) GLUT-4
Correct = SGLT-2
60. Which one of the following glucose transporter is insulin-dependent?
a) SGLT-1
b) GLUT-1
c) SGLT-2
[[d) GLUT-4]]
Correct = GLUT-4
61. Pancreatic amylase breaks down
a) β (1→4) glycosidic bond
b) α (1→6) glycosidic bond
[[c) α (1→4) glycosidic bond]]
d) β (1→6) glycosidic bond
Correct = α (1→4) glycosidic bond
3933
62. Intestinal isomaltase breaks down
[[b) α (1→6) glycosidic bond]]
c) α (1→4) glycosidic bond
63. Intestinal sucrase breaks down
[[c) α (1→2) glycosidic bond]]
64. Intestinal lactase breaks down
[[a) β (1→4) glycosidic bond]]
c) α (1→4) glycosidic bond
Correct = β (1→4) glycosidic bond
65. All of the following factors stimulate insulin secretion, EXCEPT
a) Increase blood glucose level.
b) Increase intracellular Ca2+ -ions.
c) Paracrine effect of glucagon.
[[d) Decrease intracellular pH.]]
Correct = Decrease intracellular pH.
3934
66. Vitamin thiamine (B1) is essential for metabolism of
a) Lipids
b) Proteins
[[c) Carbohydrates]]
d) Amino acids
Correct = Carbohydrates
67. Which one from the following statements is describing glycolysis correctly?
a) Occurs in the mitochondria
b) Requires presence of oxygen
[[c) Cytoplasmic energy-releasing pathway]]
d) Produces NADH and Acetyl CoA
Correct = Cytoplasmic energy-releasing pathway
68. In mammalian cells during anaerobic condition increase level of
[[a) Lactate]]
b) Pyruvate
c) Acetyl CoA
d) Glucose
Correct = Lactate
69. Transport of glucose into cells may requires all of the following EXCEPT
a) Transport carrier protein
b) Insulin
[[c) Osmotic gradient]]
3935
d) ATP
Correct = Osmotic gradient
70. Active transport of glucose into cells requires all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Transport carrier protein
b) ATP
c) Na+ ions
[[d) Osmotic gradient]]
Correct = Osmotic gradient
71. Cramps are caused by heavy exercise resulting in the accumulation of
[[a) Lactate]]
b) Ethanol
c) Heat
d) Carbon dioxide
Correct = Lactate
72. Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes the reaction of ATP formation
by substrate level phosphorylation?
a) Aldolase A
[[b) Pyruvate kinase]]
c) Hexokinase
d) Lactate dehydrogenase
73. This organ converts lactate from muscle to a fuel for other tissue
3936
[[a) Liver]]
b) Brain
c) Skeletal muscle
d) Red blood cells
Correct = Liver
74. Lactic acid is produced by human RBCs because of lack of
a) Oxygen
[[b) Mitochondrions]]
c) Glucose
d) ADP and Pi
Correct = Mitochondrions
75. Each of the following metabolites provides carbon for glucose synthesis by
the process of gluconeogenesis EXCEPT
a) Amino acids from muscle protein
b) Lactate from red blood cells
c) Glycerol from adipose fat
[[d) Even-chain fatty acids from adipose fat]]
Correct = Even-chain fatty acids from adipose fat
76. In RBCs a pyruvate kinase deficiency would be expected to increase
a) The life span of the cells
b) ATP production
c) The NADH/NAD+ ratio
[[d) Lysis of the cells]]
Correct = Lysis of the cells
3937
77. In RBCs how many net molecules of ATP are generated when one molecule of
glucose is oxidized?
a) 1
[[b) 2]]
c) 12
d) 24
Correct = 2
78. Which one of the following pathways takes place in the RBCs for energy
production?
[[a) Anaerobic glycolysis]]
b) Aerobic glycolysis
c) β-oxidation of fatty acids
d) Gluconeogenesis
Correct = Anaerobic glycolysis
79. Muscle glycogen is not available for maintenance of blood glucose level
because:
[[a) Muscle lacks glucose-6-phosphatase activity.]]
b) There is insufficient glycogen in muscle
c) Muscle lacks glucose transporter GLUT-4.
d) Muscle lacks glucagon receptors.
Correct = Muscle lacks glucose-6-phosphatase activity.
80. Muscle glycogen will NOT serve as a precursor of blood glucose due to absence
of
3938
a) Glycogen phosphorylase.
b) Receptor for glucagon.
[[c) Glucose-6-phosphatase.]]
d) Receptor for insulin.
Correct = Glucose-6-phosphatase.
81. During a myocardial infarction the oxygen to an area of the heart is

dramatically reduced, forcing the cardiac myocytes to switch to anaerobic
metabolism. Under this condition, which of the following enzyme would be
activated by increasing intracellular cAMP?
a) Malate dehydrogenase
[[b) Phosphofructokinase-1]]
c) ATP- synthase
d) Succinate dehydrogenase
Correct = Phosphofructokinase-1
82. The primary metabolic fate of lactate released from muscle into blood during
intense exercise is:
a) Excretion of lactate in urine.
[[b) Transported to liver for gluconeogenesis.]]
c) Degradation by lactase.
d) Reuptake by muscle for conversion to pyruvate.
Correct = Transported to liver for gluconeogenesis.
83. All of the following can lead intracellular lactic acidosis, EXCEPT
a) Intracellular hypoxia.
[[b) Pyruvate kinase deficiency.]]
c) Thiamine deficiency.
3939
d) Poisoning by heavy metal ions.
Correct = Pyruvate kinase deficiency.
84. Synthesis of 2,3-biphosphoglycerate occurs in
a) Liver.
b) Kidney.
[[c) Erythrocytes.]]
d) Brain.
Correct = Erythrocytes.
85. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate is:
a) A high energy substrate
b) Involved in substrate level phosphorylation
c) An intermediate in pentose phosphate pathway
[[d) An allosteric effector that decreases affinity of hemoglobin for

oxygen]]
Correct = An allosteric effector that decreases affinity of hemoglobin for oxygen
86. Glucose can synthesize from which amino acid?
a) Histidine
b) Proline
c) Tyrosine
[[d) Alanine]]
Correct = Alanine
87. Glucose cannot be synthesized from
3940
a) Glycerol
b) Lactate
c) Amino acids
[[d) Fatty acids]]
88. The negative allosteric effector for pyruvate dehydrogenase is
[[a) Acetyl CoA]]
b) Isocitrate
c) Oxaloacetate
d) Fumarate
89. Acetyl CoA synthesis from pyruvate requires all of the following, EXCEPT
a) NAD+
b) PDH complex
c) Coenzyme A
[[d) Oxygen]]
Correct = Oxygen
90. Insulin-stimulatory process is
a) Glycogenolysis.
b) Ketogenesis.
c) Gluconeogenesis.
[[d) Glycogenesis.]]
Correct = Glycogenesis.
3941
91. Glycolysis is the name given to the pathway involving the conversion of
a) Glycogen to glucose-6-phosphate.
b) Glycogen or glucose to fructose.
[[c) Glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or lactate.]]
d) Glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or Acetyl CoA.
Correct = Glycogen or glucose to pyruvate or lactate.
92. 20 mol glucose → X mol pyruvate
a) 10
b) 20
[[c) 40]]
d) 60
Correct = 40
93. Glycolysis is activated by increasing level of cytoplasmic
a) Citrate
b) Protons (H+)
c) NADH
[[d) Fructose-2,6-BP]]
Correct = Fructose-2,6-BP
94. Glycolysis is anaerobic in
[[a) Renal medullar part]]
b) Renal cortical part
c) Neurons
d) Liver
3942
Correct = Renal medullar part
95. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is added to pyruvate to make
a) Butyric acid
b) Lactic acid
c) Acetyl CoA
[[d) Oxaloacetic acid]]
Correct = Oxaloacetic acid
96. What is enzyme of citric acid cycle?
a) Pyruvate kinase
[[b) Fumarase]]
c) Arginase
d) Carbomoyl phosphate
Correct = Fumarase
97. Pyruvate → Oxaloacetate is reaction of
a) Ketogenesis.
b) Glycolysis.
[[c) Gluconeogenesis.]]
d) Kreb’s cycle.
Correct = Gluconeogenesis.
98. Which of the following vitamins does not participate in the oxidative
decarboxylation of pyruvate to Acetyl-CoA?
a) Thiamine
3943
b) Niacin
[[c) Biotin]]
d) Riboflavin
Correct = Biotin
99. Following are substances for gluconeogenesis, EXCEPT
a) Glycerol.
[[b) Adenine.]]
c) Alanine.
d) Lactate.
Correct = Adenine.
100. Endogenous glucose synthesis increases in the persons with all of the
following endocrinopathy, EXCEPT
a) Thyroxin excess (hyperthyroidism).
b) Cortisol excess (Cushing syndrome/disease).
c) Glucagon excess (glucagonoma).
[[d) Insulin excess (insulinoma).]]
Correct = Insulin excess (insulinoma).
101. Which compound in the tissues completely absent after 10 days of starvation?
a) Protein
b) Lipids
c) Glycogen
[[d) Nucleic acid]]
Correct = Nucleic acid
3944
102. Synthesis of endogenous glucose stimulated by
a) Well-fed.
[[b) Starvation.]]
c) Alcohol.
d) Carbohydrate-rich diet.
Correct = Starvation.
103. Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydrogenase deficient patient can develop
a) Liver cirrhosis.
[[b) Hemolytic crisis.]]
c) Renal failure.
d) Decrease bone density.
Correct = Hemolytic crisis.
104. HMP shunt in RBCs is major sources of components of
a) Membrane
[[b) Antioxidant system]]
c) Transport system
d) Hemoglobin
Correct = Antioxidant system
105. Which of the following is NOT a function of NADPH?
a) Energetic
b) Biosynthetic
c) Antioxidantic
[[d) Phagocytic]]
3945
Correct = Phagocytic
106. Enzyme glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogense is required for the synthesis of
a) Glycogen
b) Nucleotides
[[c) Ribose-5-phosphate]]
d) Triacylglycerides
Correct = Ribose-5-phosphate
107. The glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency causes hemolytic anemia

due to lack of
a) ATP
b) Pentose
c) Iron
[[d) NADPH]]
Correct = NADPH
108. A 4-year-old-girl has been unable to eat for 2 days, because of GIT disorder.
Which of the following is the NOT major source of energy for her skeletal muscles
after 2 days?
[[a) Muscle glycogen]]
b) Serum fatty acids
c) Serum glucose
d) Muscle triacylglyceride
Correct = Muscle glycogen
3946
109. A person who accidentally ingested a compound that completely inhibited
fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase could still form substantial amounts of blood
glucose from
a) Muscle glycogen stores
b) Lactate produced by red blood cells
[[c) Ingested galactose]]
d) Ingested fructose
Correct = Ingested galactose
110. A person who accidentally ingested a compound that completely inhibited

phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase could still form substantial amounts of
blood glucose from
a) Muscle glycogen stores
b) Lactate produced by red blood cells
c) Ingested galactose
[[d) Ingested fructose and galactose]]
Correct = Ingested fructose and galactose
111. Insulin resistance can lead all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Hyperglycemia.
b) Decrease uptake of glucose by muscles.
[[c) Hypoketonic hypoglycemia.]]
d) Glucosuria.
Correct = Hypoketonic hypoglycemia.
112. Which one of the following tissues can clear lactic acid by own mechanism?
a) Brain
b) RBCs
3947
c) Cornea
[[d) Kidney]]
Correct = Kidney
113. Accumulation of lactic acid inside the cells can lead all of the following,
EXCEPT
a) Denaturation of intrcellular proteins.
b) Decrease pH.
c) Decrease activity of some enzymes.
[[d) Dissolve intracellular cholesterol.]]
Correct = Dissolve intracellular cholesterol.
114. After overnight fasting level of glucose transporters are reduced in
a) Brain.
b) Liver.
[[c) Adipose tissue.]]
d) Erythrocytes.
Correct = Adipose tissue.
115. During overload of some tissues by glucose, glucose is converted to
a) Glucuronic acid.
[[b) Sorbitol.]]
c) Gluconic acid.
d) Ethanol.
Correct = Sorbitol.
3948
116. Lack of liver glycogen phosphorylase would lead all following symptoms
EXCEPT
a) Stable hypoglycemia
b) Wasting syndrome
[[c) Chronic hyperglycemia]]
d) Hepatomegaly
Correct = Chronic hyperglycemia
117. All of the following are examples of glycogenosis, EXCEPT
a) Cori’s disease
b) Pomp’s disease
c) Her’s disease
[[d) Wilson disease]]
Correct = Wilson disease
118. Which one of the following requires for glycogenesis?
a) Mitochondrion
b) Debranching enzymes
[[c) UDP-glucose]]
d) Gucagon
Correct = UDP-glucose
119. Glycogen is short-term storage form of
a) Glycerol.
[[b) Glucose.]]
c) Glyceraldehyde.
d) Glucuronate.
3949
Correct = Glucose.
120. Which one of the following hormones stimulates liver gluconeogenesis,

glycogenolysis and lipolysis?
a) Insulin
b) Calcitonin
[[c) Glucagon]]
d) Cortisol
Correct = Glucagon
121. The presence of ketonemia is associated with which endocrine disorder?
a) Thyrotoxicosis (excess TH)
[[b) Diabetes mellitus I (abs.insulin)]]
c) Acromegaly (incr.GH)
d) Addison disease (decr.cortisol)
Correct = Diabetes mellitus I (abs.insulin)
122. The accumulation of this specific compound in the lens produces cataract
in diabetic patient. This compound is
a) Glucose.
b) Fructose.
c) Galactose.
[[d) Sorbitol.]]
Correct = Sorbitol.
123. When excess amount of carbohydrates or proteins consumed they are stored
in the body as
3950
[[a) Triacylglycerides.]]
b) Glucose.
c) Glycogen.
d) Protein.
Correct = Triacylglycerides.
124. Both Fructose and Galactose are phosphorylated by specific kinases in liver
at position
[[a) C1]]
b) C2
c) C4
d) C6
Correct = C1
125. Food L-glucose does NOT give energy because
a) It cannot be digested.
b) It cannot be absorbed.
[[c) Glucokinase is specific for D-glucose only.]]
d) It is fermentated by colon bacteria.
Correct = Glucokinase is specific for D-glucose only.
126. Which is NOT a function of the main products of the pentose phosphate
pathway?
a) To provide reducing power for the synthesis of fatty acids
b) To maintain the reduced form of iron in hemoglobin
c) To serve as precursors in the biosynthesis of RNA and DNA
[[d) To raises the concentration of cAMP]]
3951
Correct = To raises the concentration of cAMP
127. Arsenic ions inhibit all, EXCEPT
b) Lipoic acid
c) α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
[[d) Aldolase]]
Correct = Aldolase
128. Each of the following metabolites provides carbon skeleton for glucose
synthesis, EXCEPT
[[a) Even-chain fatty acid from remnant chylomicrons.]]
b) Glycerol from adipose triacylglycerides.
c) Lactate from muscles and RBCs.
d) Alanine from muscle protein.
Correct = Even-chain fatty acid from remnant chylomicrons.
129. All of the following carbohydrate metabolic pathways occur in the liver
EXCEPT
a) Maintenance of blood glucose
b) Glycogen synthesis & its storage
c) Gluconeogenesis
[[d) Insulin-dependent uptake of glucose]]
Correct = Insulin-dependent uptake of glucose
130. Gluconeogenesis is conversion of
3952
a) N Glucose 1-P → Glycogen
[[b) Glycerol → Glucose]]
c) Galactose-1-P →Glucose-1-P
d) Glucose → Glucose-6-P
Correct = Glycerol → Glucose
131. Which of the following is NOT needed for glycogen synthesis?
[[a) Glycogen phosphorylase]]
b) Glucose-1-phosphate
c) Branching enzymes
d) Uridine triphosphate (UTP)
132. Which one of the following metabolites is connected between gluconeogenesis

and glycolysis?
a) Alanine
[[b) Pyruvate]]
c) Fumarate
d) Malate
Correct = Pyruvate
133. Which one of the following products accumulates in the cells if major Leloir
pathway of galactose catabolism is blocked?
a) Fructose
[[b) Galactitol]]
c) Lactose
d) Glucose
3953
Correct = Galactitol
134. Galactosemia is due to deficiency of all enzymes, EXCEPT
a) Galaktokinase.
[[b) Phosphoglucomutase.]]
c) Galactose-1-P-Uridyltransferase.
d) UDP-galactose epimerase.
Correct = Phosphoglucomutase.
135. Galactosemic baby can develop hypoglycemia due to all of the following,
EXCEPT
a) Stimulation of insulin secretion by galactose.
[[b) Blockage of gluconeogenesis by galactose.]]
c) Accumulation of galactitol.
d) Osmotic injury of hepatocytes.
Correct = Blockage of gluconeogenesis by galactose.
136. Precursor for glycogen synthesis is
a) Galactose-1-P.
[[b) Glucose-1-P.]]
c) Glycerol.
d) Glucagon.
Correct = Glucose-1-P.
137. Gluconeogenesis is increased in
a) In well fed state
3954
b) Hyperinsulinism
[[c) Diabetes mellitus]]
d) Hyperparathyroidism
Correct = Diabetes mellitus
138. Key regulatory enzyme of glycogenesis is
a) UDP-Glucose phosphorylase.
b) Glycogen phosphorylase.
[[c) Glycogen synthase.]]
d) Amylo α(1-4): α(1-6) glucotransferase.
Correct = Glycogen synthase.
139. Hormone that activates synthesis of glycogen in the liver is
a) Cortisol
b) Glucagon
[[c) Insulin]]
d) Epinephrine
Correct = Insulin
140. Amylo α(1-6) glucosidase is located in
[[a) Lysosomes.]]
b) Proteosomes.
c) Mitochondria.
d) Cytoplasm.
Correct = Lysosomes.
3955
141. Glycogen is polymer of
[[a) Glucose only.]]
b) Galactose only.
c) Glucose and fructose.
d) Pectin.
Correct = Glucose only.
142. Core of glycogen granules is composed from
[[a) Protein rich by tyrosine.]]
b) Protein rich by glutamic acid.
c) Lipid-like material.
d) Steroid-ring components.
Correct = Protein rich by tyrosine.
143. Primary role of muscle glycogen is to supply glucose to:
a) Synthesize lactose
b) Plasma for regulation of insulin level
[[c) Formation of energy needs for muscle contraction]]
d) Plasma for maintain brain energy during starvation
Correct = Formation of energy needs for muscle contraction
144. Increased level of Glucose-6-phosphate in the hepatocytes inhibits and

activates
a) Glycolysis/ Gluconeogenesis
[[b) Glycolysis/ Glycogenesis]]
c) Glycogenesis/ Gluconeogenesis
d) Glycogenolysis/Glycolysis
3956
Correct = Glycolysis/ Glycogenesis
145. During night sleeping in the liver of human more higher activity of
[[a) Glycogen phosphorylase.]]
b) Glycogen synthase
c) Pyruvate carboxylase.
d) Pyruvate dehydrogenase.
Correct = Glycogen phosphorylase.
146. Person can develop hypoglycemic crisis after prolonged consumption of

alcoholic drinking. This can be explained by
a) Increased glycogenesis.
b) Increased gluconeogenesis
[[c) Decreased gluconeogenesis.]]
d) Decreased glycogenlysis.
Correct = Decreased gluconeogenesis.
147. Which enzyme is deficient in the liver in cases of hereditary fructose

intolerance?
a) Hexokinase
[[b) Aldolase B]]
c) Glucokinase
d) Phosphofructokinase
148. Cori's, McArdle's, von Gierke's and Andersen's diseases are all examples
of:
3957
a) Glycogenolysis.
b) Gluconeogenesis.
[[c) Glycogenosis.]]
d) Glycogenesis.
Correct = Glycogenosis.
149. Glucose in the glycogen is held by
a) Hydrogen bonds
b) Coordinate bonds
c) Ionic bonds
[[d) Glycosidic bonds]]
Correct = Glycosidic bonds
150. Ketogenesis and gluconeogenesis are activated when level of mitochondrial

increases in the liver
a) NADH
b) FADH2
[[c) Acetyl CoA]]
d) Citric acid
151. The significance of Cori cycle is to produce
[[a) Liver glucose from muscle lactate]]
b) Liver NADPH for lipid synthesis
c) Blood glutamine from tissue ammonia
d) Testicular testosterone from LDL-cholesterol
Correct = Liver glucose from muscle lactate
3958
152. Which factor requires for following process: Pyruvate → Lactate?
a) ATP
[[b) NADH]]
c) NAD+ + H+
d) FADH2
Correct = NADH
153. All of the following are pathogenic factors for development of

a) Vitamin deficiency.
b) Decrease phospholipids synthesis.
c) Decrease VLDL formation.
[[d) Increase oxidation of fatty acids.]]
Correct = Increase oxidation of fatty acids.
154. Enzyme of glycolysis is
[[a) Lactate dehydrogenase]]
c) NADH dehydrogenase
155. The building blocks (monomers) that make up starch, glycogen, cellulose
are:
a) Nucleotides
3959
b) Amino acids
[[c) Monosaccharides]]
d) Isoprenoids
Correct = Monosaccharides
156. Warburg effect is
[[a) Anaerobic glycolysis is increased in neoplastic cells]]
b) HMP shunt is increased in erythrocytes during hypoxia
c) Decrease pH of the blood leads liberation of oxygen from RBCs into tissues
d) Glycolysis is decreased when fatty acid oxidation is increased
Correct = Anaerobic glycolysis is increased in neoplastic cells
157. A patient has increased blood pyruvate level. A large amount of it is

excreted with the urine. What is vitamin lacking in this patient?
a) Tocopherol
[[b) Thiamine]]
c) Naiacin
d) Folic acid
Correct = Thiamine
158. Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus type I patient has high risk factor for
development of acute complication:
[[a) Ketoacidotic coma]]
b) Acute renal failure
c) Ischemic heart attack
d) Autoimmune hemolysis
Correct = Ketoacidotic coma
3960
159. Irreversible reaction of glycolysis:
[[a) Phosphoenolpyruvate → Pyruvate]]
b) Glucose -6-P → Fructose-6-P
c) Pyruvate → Lactate
d) Glyceraldehyde-3-P → DHAP
Correct = Phosphoenolpyruvate → Pyruvate
160. All of the following would lead lactic acidosis EXCEPT
a) High altitude
b) Heart failure
[[c) LDH deficiency]]
d) Thiamine deficiency
Correct = LDH deficiency
161. A patient has a genetic defect that causes intestinal epithelial cells to
produce disaccharidases of much lower activity than normal. Compared to a normal
person, after eating a bowl of milk and cake this patient will have higher level
of
a) Galactose and fructose in the blood.
[[b) Disaccharides in the stool.]]
c) Glycogen in the muscles.
d) Starch in the stool.
Correct = Disaccharides in the stool.
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162. A newborn develops diarrhea after milk feeding. When the milk is replaced
by the glucose solution the diarrhea disappears. Which of the following enzymes
is inactive in this newborn?
a) Invertase
b) Amylase
[[c) Lactase]]
d) Maltase
Correct = Lactase
163. A 43-year old man was presented with symptoms of weakness, fatigue,
shortness of breath and dizzies. His hemoglobin levels were between 5 to 7 g/dl
(normal 13.5 g/dl). RBCs isolated from the patient showed abnormally low level
of lactate production. A deficiency of which one of the following enzymes would
be the most likely cause of this patient’s pathology?
a) Fructose-1,6-BP-phosphatase
b) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase
c) Glucose-6-P-phosphatase
[[d) Pyruvate kinase]]
164. A 43-year old man was presented with symptoms of weakness, fatigue,
shortness of breath and dizzies. His hemoglobin levels were between 5 to 7 g/dl
(normal 13.5 g/dl). RBCs isolated from the patient showed abnormally low level
of lactate production. Which one of the following features also predominant in
this patient?
a) Lactic acidosis
[[b) Hemolytic anemia]]
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Hyperthermia
Correct = Hemolytic anemia
3962
165. A 30-year-old man has been fasting for religious reason for several days.
His brain has reduced its need for glucose by using which of the following
substances as an alternative source of energy?
a) Glycerol
b) Acetone
c) Fatty acids
[[d) β-hydroxybutyrate]]
Correct = β-hydroxybutyrate
166. Pyruvate kinase deficient patient can develop
[[a) Hemolytic crisis]]
b) Renal failure
c) Bleeding
d) Xanthomas
Correct = Hemolytic crisis
167. A newborn baby experienced abdominal distension, severe bowel cramps and
diarrhea after being fed milk. A hydrogen analysis of his exhaled breath
discovered an eight time increase in the production of hydrogen (H2) 90 minutes
after milk feeding. The infant most probably suffers from deficiency of
a) Galactokinase
[[b) Lactase]]
c) Isomaltase
d) Galactose-1 –P-uridyltransferase
Correct = Lactase
168. Which of the following laboratory test would help you determine whether
patient has type I or type II diabetes mellitus?
3963
[[a) C-peptide levels]]
b) Insulin levels
c) Fasting blood glucose
d) Hemoglobin A1c
Correct = C-peptide levels
169. Diabetes mellitus type II predominantly binds with
a) Glucagon resistance
b) Cortisol excess
[[c) Insulin resistance]]
d) Insulin excess
Correct = Insulin resistance
170. Von Girke disease is due to mutation affecting degradation of
a) Hemoglobin
[[b) Glycogen]]
c) Cholesterol
d) Collagen
Correct = Glycogen
171. A two year old boy was brought into the emergency room, suffering from severe
fasting hypoglycemia. In physical examination he was found to have hepatomegaly.
A liver biopsy indicated that hepatocytes contained greater than normal amount
of glycogen that was abnormal structure with limit dextrin type. Muscles and
other organs were not affected. A deficiency of which one of the following
enzymes would be the most likely cause of this patient’s pathology?
a) Lysosomal maltase
b) Liver phosphorylase
3964
c) Muscles phosphorylase
[[d) Liver debranching enzyme]]
Correct = Liver debranching enzyme
172. A two year old boy was brought into the emergency room, suffering from severe
fasting hypoglycemia. In physical examination he was found to have hepatomegaly.
A liver biopsy indicated that hepatocytes contained greater than normal amount
of glycogen that was abnormal structure with limit dextrin type. Muscles and
other organs were not affected. Your diagnosis is:
a) Von Girke disease
[[b) Cori’s disease]]
c) Mc Ardle disease
d) Anderson disease
Correct = Cori’s disease
173. All of the following are laboratory data of uncontrolled Diabetes Mellitus,
EXCEPT
a) Ketonemia
b) Glucosuria
c) Hyperglycemia
[[d) Proteinuria]]
Correct = Proteinuria
174. 3-month old boy presents with poor growth, low muscle tone (hypotonia),
elevation of blood lactate (lactic academia), and mild acidosis (blood pH =
7.30-7.35). The ratio of pyruvate to lactate in serum is elevated. Which of the
following compounds might be recommended for therapy?
a) Ascorbic acid
b) Vitamin D
3965
c) Free fatty acids
[[d) Thiamine]]
Correct = Thiamine
175. A patient has a tumor of α-cells of the islet of Langerhans which of the
following findings would result from the excessive hormone secretion from this
tumor?
a) Increased glycolysis
[[b) Decreased blood glucose level]]
c) Increased HMP shunt
d) Increased blood glucose concentration
Correct = Decreased blood glucose level
176. A child’s blood presents high content galactose, glucose concentration is

low. There are such presentations as cataract, mental deficiency, fatty liver.
What disease is it?
[[a) Galacosemia]]
b) Diabetes mellitus
c) Lactosemia
d) Steroid diabetes (Cushing’s syndrome)
Correct = Galacosemia
177. Galactosemia is due to deficiency of
a) Galactokinase.
b) Galactose-1-P-uridyltransferase.
c) UDP-Galactose-epimerase.
[[d) All of the above.]]
Correct = All of the above.
3966
178. Deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B1) leads decrease activities of all of
the following enzymes, EXCEPT
a) Pyruvate carboxylase.
b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase.
c) Isocitrate dehydrogenase.
[[d) Transketolase.]]
Correct = Transketolase.
179. A person with Galactosemia is advised not to consume which of the following
products?
a) Caffeine-containing food
b) Sucrose-containing food
c) Corn syrup
[[d) Milk –containing food]]
Correct = Milk –containing food
180. Normal fasting blood glucose level
a) 140 mg/dl
[[b) 60-100 mg/dl]]
c) < 60 mg/dl
d) > 160 mg/dl
Correct = 60-100 mg/dl
181. Glucosuria in uncontrolled DM occurs when the venous glucose concentration

exceeds
a) 100 mg/dl
3967
b) 140 mg/dl
[[c) 180 mg/dl]]
d) 60 mg/dl
Correct = 180 mg/dl
182. Insulin resistance can lead all of the following EXCEPT
a) Hyperglycemia
[[b) Hypoketonic hypoglycemia]]
c) Decrease uptake of glucose by muscles
d) Glucosuria
Correct = Hypoketonic hypoglycemia
183. Patient with large mesenchymal tumor develop fasting hypoglycemia due to
a) Loss of glucose through the urine.
b) Decrease uptake of blood glucose by all cells.
[[c) Increase uptake of blood glucose by neoplastic cells.]]
d) Loss insulin through its inactivation by inhibitors
Correct = Increase uptake of blood glucose by neoplastic cells.
184. Patients who suffer from severe diabetes type I and don’t receive insulin
have metabolic acidosis. This is caused by increased concentration of the
following metabolites
[[a) Ketone bodies]]
b) Triacylglycerides
c) Unsaturated fatty acids
d) Cholesterol
3968
185. A male infant failed to gain weight and showed metabolic acidosis in the
neonatal period. A physical examination at 6 month showed hypotonia, small muscle
mass, lethargy, motor dysfunction, optic atrophy.
[[a) Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency]]
b) Glucokinase deficiency
c) Phosphofructokinase I deficiency
d) Pyruvate kinase deficiency
Correct = Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
186. Best explanation of Gestational Diabetes is increasing level of that block

insulin receptors
[[a) Placental lactogen.]]
b) Maternal serum estrone.
c) Milk progesterone-like compounds.
d) Maternal serum α-fetoprotein.
Correct = Placental lactogen.
187. Screening test for Geststional DM is
[[a) O’Sullivan test]]
b) Benedict’s test
c) Seliwanoff’s test
d) Shilling test
Correct = O’Sullivan test
188. In Turai syndrome enzyme deficient is
[[a) PK]]
3969
b) PFK-1
c) G6PDH
d) HGPRT
Correct = PK
189. After a sprint an untrained person develops muscle hypoxia. This leads
accumulation of metabolite in muscle known as
a) Oxaloacetate.
b) Uric acid.
[[c) Lactate.]]
d) Citric acid.
Correct = Lactate.
190. A 3-month-old boy presents with poor feeding and growth, low muscle tone,
elevation of blood lactate. There is decreased conversion of pyruvate to Acetyl
CoA in fibroblasts. Which of the following compounds should be considered for
therapy?
a) Ascorbic acid
b) IV glucose solution
[[c) Vitamin B1 injection]]
d) Biotin injection
Correct = Vitamin B1 injection
191. Which of the following is the most sensitive test of pancreatic β-cell
insulin secretory reserve?
[[a) Oral Glucose Tolerance Test]]
b) Urine Glucose excretion
c) Random blood glucose
3970
d) Fasting level blood glucose
Correct = Oral Glucose Tolerance Test
192. Following are causes of hyperglycemic glucosuria EXCEPT
a) Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic β-cells
b) Damage of pancreatic islet by alloxan
c) Prolonged glucocorticoid therapy
[[d) Renal reabsorption defect]]
Correct = Renal reabsorption defect
193. A 18-month-old child is left unattended in the kitchen and ingests a small
portion of rat poison that contains fluoroacetate. Fluoroacetate reacts with
oxaloacetate to form fluorocitrate. Which pathway of the body is inhibited by
this poison?
a) Fatty acid oxidation
b) HMP shunt
[[c) TCA cycle]]
d) Glycolysis
Correct = TCA cycle
194. The level of what plasma protein would be increased in Diabetes mellitus
patient?
a) C-reactive protein
b) Fibrinogen
[[c) Glycosylated hemoglobin]]
d) Ceruloplasmin
Correct = Glycosylated hemoglobin
3971
195. How are lipids absorbed during digestion?
a) They are hydrolyzed by amylase in the mouth.
[[b) They are emulsified in the small intestine by bile salts.]]
c) They are digested in the stomach by stomach acids.
d) They are transported directly through blood
Correct = They are emulsified in the small intestine by bile salts.
196. Which one of the following is NOT a component of pancreatic juice?
a) Phospholipase A
b) Lipase
d) Cholesterol esterase
197. In the intestine, the dietary fats are hydrolysed by
[[a) Triacylglycerol lipase]]
b) Adenylate cyclase
c) Pancreatic lipase
d) Protein kinase
Correct = Triacylglycerol lipase
198. Phospholipid contains
[[a) Hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails]]
b) Long water-soluble carbon chains
c) Positively charged functional groups
d) Hydrophobic heads and hydrophilic tails
3972
Correct = Hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails
199. The dietary lipids are transported in blood as
a) Micells.
[[b) Chylomicrons.]]
c) Complex with albumin.
d) Liposomes.
Correct = Chylomicrons.
200. The component of the waxes is:
a) Adenine
b) Glutamine
c) Glucose
[[d) Fatty acid]]
201. The component of the fat is:
a) Adenine
b) Glutamine
c) Glucose
[[d) Glycerol]]
Correct = Glycerol
202. Which bond is formed when a hydroxyl group of alcohol joints the carboxylic
group of fatty acid?
a) Peptide
3973
b) Glycosidic
[[c) Ester]]
d) Hydrogen
Correct = Ester
203. Lipids are compounds that are soluble in
a) Distilled water.
[[b) Organic solvent.]]
c) Glucose solution.
d) Saline solution.
Correct = Organic solvent.
204. Fatty acids are component of all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Phospholipids.
b) Triacylglycerides.
c) Cholesterol esters.
[[d) Cholecalciferol.]]
Correct = Cholecalciferol.
205. The main function of fat in the human body is to
a) Increase rate of chemical reactions
b) Transport substances into cells
c) Regulate body function
[[d) Long-term store of energy]]
Correct = Long-term store of energy
3974
206. Which of the following is NOT a function of lipids in human body?
a) Energy storage
[[b) PH regulation]]
c) Insulation
d) Homeostasis regulation
Correct = PH regulation
207. The compound that derived from sterols is
[[a) Cholesterol ester.]]
b) Arachidonic acid.
c) Triacylglyceride.
d) Phophatidyl glyceride.
Correct = Cholesterol ester.
208. Which of the following is a lipid?
a) Collagen
b) Lactose
c) Nicotine
[[d) Lecithine]]
Correct = Lecithine
209. Steroid is
a) Pyruvate
b) Glycerol
c) Acetyl CoA
[[d) Cholesterol]]
3975
210. Rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis
a) Squalene → Lanosterol
b) Isoprenoid unit →Squalene
c) Acetoacetyl CoA→ HMG CoA
[[d) HMG CoA →Mevalonate]]
Correct = HMG CoA →Mevalonate
211. The surface tension in intestinal lumen between fat droplets and aqueous
medium is decreased by
a) Gastric HCl.
b) Ammonium-ions.
[[c) Bile salts.]]
d) Pancreatic juice.
Correct = Bile salts.
212. Which one of the following compounds is added to diacylglyceride for

re-synthesis of specific human triacylglycerides in small intestinal mucosal
cells?
a) Glycerol
[[b) Fatty acyl CoA]]
c) Acetyl CoA
d) Glycerol-3-phosphate
Correct = Fatty acyl CoA
213. Pancreatic insufficiency may result in
a) Increased pH in the intestinal lumen.
3976
b) Decreased formation of bile salt micelles.
[[c) Increased of fat in the stool.]]
d) Increased of blood chylomicrons.
Correct = Increased of fat in the stool.
214. Chylomicrons function is
a) Store form of lipids.
b) Emulsified agent.
c) Intestinal enzyme.
[[d) Blood lipid transporter.]]
Correct = Blood lipid transporter.
215. Hydrolysis of 1 mole of lipid yields 2 moles of fatty acids, one mole of
glycerol & 1 mole of phosphoric acid This lipid is
a) Triacylglyceride.
[[b) Phosphotidic acid.]]
c) Arachidonic acid.
d) Cholesterol.
Correct = Phosphotidic acid.
216. In mammals, the major lipid of membrane
[[a) Phospholipids.]]
b) Fatty acids.
c) Vitamin E.
d) Triacylglyceride.
Correct = Phospholipids.
3977
217. Which of the following statements about how dietary fat can be utilized
by the body is FALSE?
[[a) It can be stored in the form of glycogen for later use]]
b) It can be stored as a triglyceride for later use
c) It can be used to make lipid-containing compounds
d) It can be used as an immediate source of energy for cells
Correct = It can be stored in the form of glycogen for later use
218. Hormone-sensetive lipase is activated through
[[a) Adenylate cyclase.]]
b) Phosphatidyl/inositol.
c) NO.
d) Ca2+/calmodulin.
Correct = Adenylate cyclase.
219. The complete oxidation of long odd chain fatty acids produces which of the
following?
a) Acetyl CoA only
[[b) Acetyl CoA and Propionyl CoA]]
c) Butyryl CoA
d) Propionyl CoA and Formyl CoA
Correct = Acetyl CoA and Propionyl CoA
220. Each cycle of β-oxidation produces
a) 1 FADH2, 1 NAD+, and 1 AcetylCoA
[[b) 1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 1 AcetylCoA]]
3978
c) 1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 2 CO2 molecules
d) 1 FAD, 1 NAD+ and 2 CO2 molecules
Correct = 1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 1 AcetylCoA
221. Propionyl CoA is produced during oxidation of
[[a) C19-chain fatty acid.]]
b) C16-chain fatty acid.
c) C14-chain fatty acid.
d) C22-chain fatty acid.
Correct = C19-chain fatty acid.
222. Propionyl CoA is metabolized to
a) Glycerol-3-phosphate.
[[b) Succinyl CoA.]]
c) Malonyl CoA.
d) Triacylglyceride.
Correct = Succinyl CoA.
223. Palmitate has 16 carbon atoms with
a) 2 double bonds
b) 3 double bonds
c) 1 double bond
[[d) Single bonds only]]
Correct = Single bonds only
224. The role of hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL) is to
3979
[[a) Hydrolyze triacylglycerides stored in adipose tissue]]
b) Hydrolyze lipids stores in the liver
c) Hydrolyze membrane phospholipids
d) Synthesize lipids in adipose tissue
Correct = Hydrolyze triacylglycerides stored in adipose tissue
225. When does NOT β-oxidation occur?
a) In a fast
b) Intense physical activity
c) In a starvation
[[d) In well-fed state]]
Correct = In well-fed state
226. What mitochondria do NOT perform α-oxidation?
a) Mitochondria in cardiomyocytes
b) Mitochondria in hepatocytes
c) Mitochondria in intestinal mucosal cells
[[d) Mitochondria in brain cells]]
Correct = Mitochondria in brain cells
227. A very long chain fatty acids are oxidized in
a) Mitochondria
b) Ribosomes
[[c) Peroxisomes]]
d) Golgi apparatus
Correct = Peroxisomes
3980
228. What is the role of thiolase in the β-oxidation of fatty acids?
[[a) Cleaves the bond between α- and β-carbons]]
b) Generates NADH
c) Activates fatty acids
d) Adds water to β- double bond of Acyl CoA
Correct = Cleaves the bond between α- and β-carbons
229. Carnitine involves in
a) Activation of fatty acids.
b) Translocation of fatty acids across cell membrane.
c) Oxidation of fatty acids.
[[d) Translocation of fatty acids across mitochondrial membrane.]]
Correct = Translocation of fatty acids across mitochondrial membrane.
230. Patients with abnormal oxidation of fatty acids develop symptom
[[a) Hypoketonic hypoglycemia.]]
b) Hyperketonic hypoglycemia.
c) Ketoacidosis only.
d) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemia.
Correct = Hypoketonic hypoglycemia.
231. A 16-year-old marathon runner trains by running 15 miles every morning,

requiring a constant supply of ATP that predominantly is formed by
a) Anaerobic oxidatiob of glucose.
b) Aerobic oxidation of glucose.
[[c) Lipolysis and oxidation of fatty acids.]]
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d) Creatine-phosphate dephosphorylation
Correct = Lipolysis and oxidation of fatty acids.
232. How many carbons are removed from Acyl CoA in one turn of β-oxidation?
a) 1
[[b) 2]]
c) 3
d) 4
Correct = 2
233. How many molecules of Acetyl CoA are produced in oxidation of C18 fatty
acid?
a) 2
b) 8
[[c) 9]]
d) 18
Correct = 9
234. A fatty acid with 14 carbon atoms will undergo how many cycles of beta
oxidation?
a) 4
b) 5
[[c) 6]]
d) 7
Correct = 6
3982
235. Plasma free fatty acids are increased due to deficiency of which hormone?
[[a) Insulin]]
b) Glucagon
c) Cortisol
d) Epinephrine
Correct = Insulin
236. Thiolase is enzyme of
a) Ketone bodies oxidation.
b) Thyrosine synthesis.
[[c) Fatty acid oxidation.]]
d) Cholesterol degradation.
Correct = Fatty acid oxidation.
237. The activation of long chain fatty acids requires which of the following
components?
a) 2 ATPs only
b) Coenzyme A only
[[c) 2 ATP s & coenzyme A]]
d) Fatty acyl-carnitine
Correct = 2 ATP s & coenzyme A
238. Which one from the following enzymes catalyze energy - requirement reaction?
a) Thiolase
[[b) Thiokinase]]
c) Acyl CoA dehydrogenase
d) β-hydroxyacyl CoA dehydrogenase
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Correct = Thiokinase
239. Carnitine is required for the transport of
a) Triacylglycerides out of liver.
b) Triacylglycerides into mitochondria.
c) Short chain fatty acids into cells.
[[d) Long chain fatty acids into mitochondria.]]
Correct = Long chain fatty acids into mitochondria.
240. Carnitine-containing drug was recommended to sportsman for improving

results. What processes is activated by this supplement?
a) Synthesis of steroid hormones
[[b) Transport of fatty acids to the mitochondria]]
c) Synthesis of proteins
d) Increased number of mitochondria
Correct = Transport of fatty acids to the mitochondria
241. β- oxidation of fatty acids occurs in
a) Erythrocytes.
[[b) Heart.]]
c) Brain.
d) Lens.
Correct = Heart.
242. Which one of the following tissues can metabolize glucose, fatty acids,
and ketone bodies for ATP production?
3984
a) Liver
[[b) Muscles]]
c) Brain
d) Red blood cells
Correct = Muscles
243. Acetyl CoA is formed during β-oxidation of fatty acids
[[a) Goes on to further oxidation in TCA cycle]]
b) Recycles back into β-oxidation
c) Is further metabolized into acetate
d) Used as a cholesterol precursor
Correct = Goes on to further oxidation in TCA cycle
244. The β-oxidation of palmitic acid (C15H31COOH):
a) Yields 16 molecules of Acetyl CoA
b) Yields carbon dioxide and water only
c) Repeats 8 cycles
[[d) Yields 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA]]
Correct = Yields 8 molecules of Acetyl CoA
245. After an overnight fast the blood levels of which of the following will
be higher in a person with a carnitine deficiency than in normal person?
[[a) Fatty acids]]
b) Glucose
c) Bile acids
d) Glycerol
3985
246. A low ratio of insulin to glucagon can
[[a) Promote ketogenesis]]
b) Occurring in well fed state
c) Promote glycogenesis
d) Promote lipogenesis
Correct = Promote ketogenesis
247. All of the following statements regarding ketone bodies are true, EXCEPT
a) They are produced during starvation.
[[b) They are formed in kidneys.]]
c) They include acetoacetate, acetone, hydroxybutirate.
d) They may be excreted in urine.
Correct = They are formed in kidneys.
248. Which of the following condition is characterized by ketonuria but without

glucosuria?
a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Carnitine deficiency
[[c) Prolonged starvation]]
d) Wilson’s diseases
Correct = Prolonged starvation
249. All of the following conditions promote increasing blood glycerol level ,
EXCEPT
a) Fasting.
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b) Lipid-rich diet.
c) Carbohydrate –rich diet.
[[d) Increase blood insulin.]]
Correct = Increase blood insulin.
250. HMG CoA is formed in the metabolism of
[[a) Cholesterol, ketone bodies.]]
b) Triaylglycerides, cholesterol.
c) Fatty acids only.
d) Phospholipids only.
Correct = Cholesterol, ketone bodies.
251. Glycerol can catabolized by
[[a) Liver.]]
b) Brain.
c) Erythrocytes.
d) Muscles.
Correct = Liver.
252. All of the following are intermediates of glycerol catabolism, EXCEPT
a) Glycerol-3-phsphate.
b) Glyceraldehyde-3-Phosphate.
c) Dehydroxyacetone phosphate.
[[d) β- hydroxybutyrate.]]
Correct = β- hydroxybutyrate.
3987
253. Glycerol released by hydrolysis of lipoproteins triacylglycerides is mainly
a) Taken up by extrahepatic tissues.
[[b) Taken up by the liver.]]
c) Reutilized in adipose tissue.
d) Excreted from the body.
Correct = Taken up by the liver.
254. Cholesterol contains carbons
[[a) 21]]
b) 23
c) 27
d) 29
Correct = 21
255. Best source of cholesterol is
a) Butter.
[[b) Egg yolk.]]
c) Milk.
d) Black gram (urd).
Correct = Egg yolk.
256. Dietary cholesterol is carried from intestine to the liver by
[[a) Chylomicrons.]]
b) Through portal vein.
c) VLDL
d) LDL
Correct = Chylomicrons.
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257. Which of the following compound is precursor of acetone?
a) Propionyl CoA
b) Urea
[[c) Acetyl CoA]]
d) Cholesterol
258. Which of the following is the primary ketone body?
a) Acetone
[[b) Acetoacetate]]
c) β-hydroxybutyrate
d) Hydroxymethyl glutarate
259. Increased level of blood ketone bodies is risk factor for development of
a) Edema
[[b) Acidosis]]
c) Anemia
d) Atherosclerosis
Correct = Acidosis
260. Thiophorase is enzyme of which pathway?
a) Gluconeogensis
b) TCA cycle
[[c) Ketolysis]]
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d) Glycolysis
Correct = Ketolysis
261. The key enzyme for the utilization of ketone bodies is
a) Thiolase.
[[b) Thiophrase.]]
c) Thiokinase.
d) Thioesterase.
Correct = Thiophrase.
262. All of the following conditions promote increase synthesis of ketone

bodies, EXCEPT
a) Starvation.
b) Uncontrolled diabetes mellitus.
c) Von Girke’s disease.
[[d) High carbohydrate diet.]]
Correct = High carbohydrate diet.
263. A high omega-3 fatty acid diet is associated with reduced incidence of
a) Skin disease
[[b) Cardiovascular disease]]
c) Kidney disease
d) Endocrine disease
Correct = Cardiovascular disease
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264. In cystic fibrosis the pancreatic ducts become obstructed by viscous mucus.
Consequently, digestion of which of the following substances would be most
impaired?
[[a) Lipids]]
b) Nucleotides
c) Lactose
d) Sucrose
Correct = Lipids
265. Laboratory investigation of patient revealed a high level of plasma low

density lipoprotein. What disease can be diagnosed?
a) Acute pancreatitis
b) Acute renal failure
c) Obstructive jaundice
[[d) Atherosclerosis]]
266. Which one of the following situations would result in an increase ketone
bodies synthesis by the liver?
a) After meal
b) Decrease oxygen concentration
[[c) Prolonged fasting]]
d) Increase blood glucose
Correct = Prolonged fasting
267. Severe ketoacidosis is seen primarily in individuals with
a) Atherosclerosis
b) Chronic pancreatitis
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[[c) Type I diabetes mellitus]]
d) Myopathic carnitine deficiency.
Correct = Type I diabetes mellitus
268. Physiological conditions promote the synthesis of ketone bodies would also
promote the
a) Oxidation of fatty acids in the RBCs
[[b) Synthesis of glucose in the liver]]
c) Synthesis of TG in the liver
d) Oxidation of glucose in adipose tissue
Correct = Synthesis of glucose in the liver
269. Which one of the following effects of insulin is NOT found in adipose tissue?
a) Decreased hormone sensitive lipase activity
[[b) Increased ketone bodies synthesis]]
c) Increased lipoprotein lipase synthesis
d) Stimulate uptake of glucose
Correct = Increased ketone bodies synthesis
270. Which of the following is NOT a function of cholesterol?
a) Steroid hormone synthesis
b) Structural component of membrane
c) Synthesis of bile acid
[[d) Oxidation for ATP synthesis]]
Correct = Oxidation for ATP synthesis
3992
271. Cholestrol
[[a) Contains a methyl group]]
b) Is a primary alcohol
c) Is a precursor of adrenal medullar hormones
d) Is a major constituent of plants and fungi
Correct = Contains a methyl group
272. Cholesterol is absent in:
a) Fish
b) Cow’s milk
c) Liver
[[d) Vegetable oils]]
Correct = Vegetable oils
273. Cholestrol is a precursor of
a) Adrenal medullar hormones
[[b) Adrenal cortical hormones]]
c) Hypothalamic releasing hormones
d) Pancreatic hormones
Correct = Adrenal cortical hormones
274. Cholestrol is the precursor of
[[a) Steroid hormones]]
b) Vitamin A
c) Bile pigments
d) Uric acid
Correct = Steroid hormones
3993
275. All following statements about cholesterol are correct EXCEPT
a) Can be synthesized extrahepatically
b) Is a precursor of bile acids
c) Key regulatory enzyme HMG CoA reductase
[[d) Transport in the blood in the free form]]
Correct = Transport in the blood in the free form
276. Hydroxymethylglutaryl CoA
a) Is formed by catabolism of glutamic acid
b) Serves as a precursor of cholesterol
c) Intermediate of ketone bodies synthesis
[[d) Correct b) and c)]]
Correct = Correct b) and c)
277. Glycerol in the liver is metabolized to intermediate
[[a) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)]]
b) Glycine
d) Coproporphyrin
Correct = Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)
278. Which of the following is NOT involved in the biosynthesis of cholesterol?
a) Energy
b) Acetyl CoA
[[c) Aldolase]]
3994
d) NADPH
Correct = Aldolase
279. Important function of cholesterol is to
[[a) Modulate fluidity of membrane]]
b) Enhance blood circulation
c) Prevent bile salts formation
d) None of these
Correct = Modulate fluidity of membrane
280. Sex hormones are derived from
a) Bilirubin
[[b) Cholesterol]]
c) Palmitic acid
d) Leucine
281. Major organ for synthesis of cholesterol is
a) Pancreas.
b) Spleen.
[[c) Liver.]]
d) Uterus.
Correct = Liver.
282. Cholesterolemia means
[[a) Lack of functional LDL receptors]]
3995
b) Lack of functional HDL receptor
c) High sensitivity to fatty food intake
Correct = Lack of functional LDL receptors
283. Regarding bile salts all statements are correct EXCEPT
a) Play an important role in the absorption of lipids
b) Are conjugates of bile acids with taurine or glycine
c) Reabsorbed from intestine through portal vein
[[d) Catabolized in intestine by bacterial flora to CO2 & H2O]]
Correct = Catabolized in intestine by bacterial flora to CO2 & H2O
284. Cholesterol is the precursor of the all of the following compounds, EXCEPT
a) Bile acids.
[[b) β-hydroxybutyrate.]]
c) Testosterone
d) Cortisol
Correct = β-hydroxybutyrate.
285. Cholesterol is precursor of all of the following hormones, EXCEPT
a) Calcitriol.
[[b) Calcitonin.]]
c) Estradiol.
d) Cortisol.
Correct = Calcitonin.
3996
286. All of the following are intermediates of cholesterol biosynthesis, EXCEPT
a) Squalene.
[[b) β-hydroxybutyrate.]]
c) Farnesylpyrophosphate.
d) β-hydroxy-β-methylglutaryl CoA
Correct = β-hydroxybutyrate.
287. Animal fed high cholesterol diet shows decreased cholesterol by the liver
due to inhibition of which of the following enzyme?
a) HMG CoA lyase
b) Mevalonate kinase
[[c) HMG CoA reductase]]
d) HMG CoA synthase
Correct = HMG CoA reductase
288. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about cholesterol?
a) Cholesterol circulates in the body as a lipoprotein complex
b) Cholesterol is an important constituent of plasma membrane
c) Steroid hormones are synthesized from cholesterol
[[d) Most of cholesterol used by the body is derived from the diet]]
Correct = Most of cholesterol used by the body is derived from the diet
289. All of the following are intermediates of cholesterol biosynthesis, EXCEPT
a) Mevalonate.
[[b) Taurocholate.]]
c) Farnesyl PPi.
d) Squalene.
3997
Correct = Taurocholate.
290. Which one of the following compounds is competitive inhibitor of key

regulatory enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis?
a) Squalene
[[b) Cholesterol]]
c) Acetoacetyl CoA
d) HMG CoA
291. The major source of cholesterol in smooth muscle cells is
a) VLDL
[[b) LDL]]
c) HDL
d) IDL
Correct = LDL
292. Lavostatin and mevastatin lowers serum levels of
a) Triglycerides
[[b) Cholesterol]]
c) Free fatty acids
d) Glucose
293. Which of the following hydroxylases is involved in bile acid formation?
a) 1-α-hydroxylase
3998
[[b) 7-α-hydroxylase]]
c) 17-α-hydroxylase
d) 21-α-hydroxylase
Correct = 7-α-hydroxylase
294. Regarding bile salts all statements are correct, EXCEPT
a) Play an important role in the absorption of lipids.
b) Are conjugates of bile acids with taurine or glycine.
c) Reabsorbed from intestine through portal vein.
[[d) Catabolized in intestine by bacterial flora to CO2 & H2O.]]
Correct = Catabolized in intestine by bacterial flora to CO2 & H2O.
295. All of the following are required for bile salts synthesis, EXCEPT
a) 7-α-hydroxylase.
b) Cholesterol.
c) Glycine.
[[d) 1-α-hydroxylase.]]
Correct = 1-α-hydroxylase.
296. Which of the following is a major function of lipoproteins?
a) Donors of amino acids to the tissues
[[b) Carriers of lipids in the blood]]
c) Determine viscosity of the blood
d) Determine oncotic pressure of the blood
Correct = Carriers of lipids in the blood
3999
297. How many types of lipoproteins in the blood?
a) 2
[[b) 5]]
c) 6
d) 8
Correct = 5
298. What is the major protein constituent of high-density lipoprotein (HDL)?
[[a) Apo A-l]]
b) Apo C-l
c) Apo E
d) Apo B48
Correct = Apo A-l
299. Initiator for fatty steak formation in intima of arteries is
a) Oxidized high density lipoprotein
b) Reduced low density lipoprotein
[[c) Oxidized low density lipoprotein]]
d) Reduced high density lipoprotein
Correct = Oxidized low density lipoprotein
300. Which lipoprotein transports cholesterol to intima of artery?
a) HDL
[[b) LDL]]
c) Chylomicrons
d) VLDL
Correct = LDL
4000
301. Deficiency of apoprotein CII leads increase in blood
a) Glucose
[[b) Lipids]]
c) Protein
d) Sodium
Correct = Lipids
302. Carbon atoms of cholesterol are derived from
a) Propionyl CoA.
[[b) Acetyl CoA.]]
c) Succinyl CoA.
d) Malonyl CoA.
Correct = Acetyl CoA.
303. All of the following statements about farnesyl pyrophosphate are correct,
EXCEPT
a) It is intermediate of cholesterol biosynthesis.
b) It is precursor for Coenzyme Q synthesis.
[[c) It is intermediate of prostaglandins synthesis.]]
d) It is precursor for dolichol pyrophosphate.
Correct = It is intermediate of prostaglandins synthesis.
304. Rate controlling step of cholesterol biosynthesis is
a) Lanosterol → Cholesterol
[[b) HMG-CoA → Mevalonic acid + CoA]]
4001
c) Acetoacetyl-CoA + Acetyl-CoA → HMG-CoA +CoA
d) Squalene → Lanosterol
Correct = HMG-CoA → Mevalonic acid + CoA
305. The precursor for vitamin D is
[[a) Cholesterol.]]
b) Arachidonic acid.
c) Triacylglycerol.
d) Phospholipids.
Correct = Cholesterol.
306. A gall stone that blocked the upper part of the bile duct would cause increase
in which of the followings?
[[a) Excretion of fats in the feces]]
b) Formation of chylomicrons
c) Excretion of bile salts
d) Recycling of bile salts
Correct = Excretion of fats in the feces
307. LCAT is
a) Lactose choline alanine transferase
[[b) Lecithin -cholesterolacyl transferase]]
c) Lecithine carnitine translocase
d) Lanoleate carbomoyl acyl transferase
Correct = Lecithin -cholesterolacyl transferase
4002
308. Chylomicrons are synthesized in
a) Blood
b) Liver
[[c) Intestine]]
d) Pancreas
Correct = Intestine
309. Where does chylomicrons synthesis take place?
a) Liver
b) Intestinal lumen
[[c) Intestinal mucosal cell]]
d) Adipose tissue
Correct = Intestinal mucosal cell
1. All of the following are components of lipoproteins, EXCEPT
a) Phospholipids.
b) Cholesterol.
c) Fat-soluble vitamins.
[[d) Carbohydrates.]]
Correct = Carbohydrates.
2. All of the following are functions of apoproteins, EXCEPT
a) Activators or inhibitors of enzymes.
4003
[[b) Help in aggregation of lipoprotein particles.]]
c) Determine stability of lipoprotein particles.
d) Recognize of specific receptors for utilization of lipoproteins.
Correct = Help in aggregation of lipoprotein particles.
3. Which one of the following statements about lipoproteins is correct?
a) Chylomicrons are synthesized primarily in adipose tissue and transport

triacylglycerides to the liver
b) HDL particles are produced from LDL in the circulation by the action
of lipoprotein lipase
[[c) VLDLs are precursors of LDL in the circulation]]
d) HDL competes with LDL for binding to receptors on the surface of cells
in extrahepatic tissues.
Correct = VLDLs are precursors of LDL in the circulation
4. Which one of the following changes would you expect in a patient with decreased
a) Elevation of plasma chylomicrons only
[[b) Elevation of both plasma chylomicrons and VLDLs]]
c) Elevation of plasma LDL only
d) Elevation of both plasma HDL and LDL
Correct = Elevation of both plasma chylomicrons and VLDLs
5. What is the correct ordering of lipoprotein particles from lowest to the

highest density?
a) LDL- IDL – VLDL- chylomicrons
b) VLDL-IDL-LDL- chylomicrons
[[c) Chylomicrons-VLDL-IDL-LDL]]
4004
d) Chylomicrons – LDL-IDL-VLDL
Correct = Chylomicrons-VLDL-IDL-LDL
6. Which one of the following apoprotein is synthesized in the liver as integral

part of VLDL?
a) A I
[[b) B-100]]
c) C II
d) B – 48
Correct = B-100
7. All of the following statements about lipoprotein lipase are correct, EXCEPT
a) Synthesized by adipocytes
b) Synthesized by myocytes
c) Deficiency leads hypertriglyceridemia
[[d) Deficiency leads hypercholesterolemia]]
Correct = Deficiency leads hypercholesterolemia
8. Dietary fats after absorption appear in the blood circulation as
a) HDL
b) VLDL
c) LDL
[[d) Chylomicrons]]
9. Where does VLDL synthesis take place?
4005
[[a) Liver]]
b) Intestinal lumen
c) Intestinal mucosal cell
d) Adipose tissue
Correct = Liver
10. Plasma become milky due to increase level of
[[a) Lipoproteins]]
b) Glucose
c) Ketone bodies
d) Urea
Correct = Lipoproteins
11. LDL transport
a) Triacylglycerides from liver.
b) Tricylglycerides from intestine.
c) Cholesterol to liver.
[[d) Cholesterol to tissues.]]
Correct = Cholesterol to tissues.
12. The building blocks (monomers) that make up HDL :
[[a) Lipids]]
b) Minerals
c) Monosaccharides
d) Nucleotides
Correct = Lipids
4006
13. Which of the following statement regarding chylomicrons is correct?
a) Contain polysaccharides
b) Are made in the liver
c) Have a shell of water
[[d) Contain a lipid materials]]
Correct = Contain a lipid materials
14. Synthesis of lipoprotein lipase is activated by
a) Cortisol
b) Glucagon
[[c) Insulin]]
d) Epinephrine
Correct = Insulin
15. A laboratory data of patient with Tangier disease is
[[a) Absence of Apo AI and low blood HDL level.]]
b) Absence of LDL receptor and high blood LDL level.
c) Low activity of LPL and high level of blood VLDL.
d) Absence of Apo B and low level of blood chylomicrons
Correct = Absence of Apo AI and low blood HDL level.
16. The patient has unusual red cells morphology (acanthocytosis-

thorny-appearing cells) due to membrane abnormalities in their erythrocytes.
This membranopathy would most likely from malabsorption of which from the
following essential fatty acid?
[[a) Linolenic (C18:3)]]
b) Palmitic (C16:0)
4007
c) Ascorbic
d) Folic
Correct = Linolenic (C18:3)
17. The following is an activator of lipoprotein lipase
a) Apo E
[[b) Apo C II]]
c) Apo A I
d) Apo B-48
Correct = Apo C II
18. The following is an activator of lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)
a) Apo B-100
[[b) Apo AI]]
c) Apo B-48
d) Apo E
Correct = Apo AI
19. All of the following are functions of HDL, EXCEPT
a) Donates Apo CII & Apo E.
b) Removes excess of cholesterol from the tissues.
c) Converts cholesterol to cholesterol ester.
[[d) Is transporter of dietary lipids.]]
Correct = Is transporter of dietary lipids.
20. VLDL transport
4008
[[a) Triacylglycerides from liver.]]
b) Triacylglycerides from intestine.
c) Cholesterol to tissues.
d) Cholesterol to liver.
Correct = Triacylglycerides from liver.
21. HDL transport
a) Triacylglycerides from liver.
b) Triacylglycerides from intestine.
[[c) Cholesterol to liver.]]
d) Cholesterol to tissues.
Correct = Cholesterol to liver.
22. Specific scavenger receptor SR-B1 present on the surface of extrahepatic

tissue including vessels for
a) LDL
[[b) HDL]]
c) VLDL
d) IDL
Correct = HDL
23. Normal blood LDL level is
[[a) < 150 mg/dl]]
b) > 200 mg/dl
c) > 500 mg/dl
d) <300 mg/dl
Correct = < 150 mg/dl
4009
24. Normal blood HDL level is
[[a) 40-60 mg/dl]]
b) > 200 mg/dl
c) 10-15 mg/dl
d) > 350 mg/dl
Correct = 40-60 mg/dl
25. A 35-year-old man has a history of recurring attacks of pancreatitis,

eruptive xathomas and increased plasma triacylglyceride levels: 2000 mg/dl
associated with chylomicronemias. Deficiency of which of the following is the
likely cause of these symptoms?
a) HMG CoA reductase
[[b) Lipoprotein lipase (LPL)]]
c) Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT)
d) Scavenger receptors (SR-1) for HDL
Correct = Lipoprotein lipase (LPL)
26. Hypoglycemic hypoketonic blood is seen in patients suffering from impaired

which metabolic pathway?
a) Diabetes mellitus type I
b) Prolonged starvation
c) Alcohol abuse
[[d) Carnitine deficiency]]
Correct = Carnitine deficiency
27. Increased level of blood cholesterol are risk factors for development of
4010
a) Gall stones.
b) Fatty liver.
c) Anemia.
[[d) Atherosclerosis.]]
Correct = Atherosclerosis.
28. Insulin resistance in DM type II leads hyperlipidemias due to excessive
[[a) Mobilization of fatty acids]]
b) Utilization of chylomicrons
c) Lipogenesis in adipose tissue
d) Utilization of VLDL
Correct = Mobilization of fatty acids
29. Deficiency of LDL-receptors is risk factor for development of
a) Liver cirrhosis
[[b) Coronary heart disease (CHD)]]
c) Mental retardation
d) Muscles atrophy
Correct = Coronary heart disease (CHD)
30. Lecithin-cholesterolacyltransferase (LCAT) is enzyme that binds with
[[a) HDL]]
b) Proteoglycans of capillary walls
c) LDL
d) Scavenger receptor B1
Correct = HDL
4011
31. Hyperlipidemia can occur in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT
[[a) Enteritis.]]
b) Diabetes mellitus.
c) Nephrotic syndrome.
d) Hypothyroidism.
Correct = Enteritis.
32. A young girl with a history of severe abdominal pain was taken to her local
hospital at 5 a.m. in severe distress. Blood was drawn, and the plasma appeared
milky with the TG level 2000 mg/dl (normal 4-50 mg/dl). Which one of the
following enzymes deficiency is most likely responsible for the appearance of
this patient’s plasma?
a) Pancreatic lipase
b) Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase
d) Hormone-sensitive lipase
33. Patient has genetic disorder characterized by malabsorption of dietary lipid,

a) Apo B100
b) Acyl CoA synthetase
[[c) Pancreatic lipase]]
d) Colipase
Correct = Pancreatic lipase
4012
34. An 11 year old boy presents with balance and difficulty with night vision.
His mother says he had foul smelling stools and failure to thrive as an infant.
Physical examination reveals poor muscle coordination, ataxia. Lab tests show
low total cholesterol and Vitamin A levels. The patient most likely has an
inherited mutation in which of the following?
[[a) 7-α-hydrohylase]]
b) Microsomal Transfer Protein (MTP)
c) Hormone Sensitive Lipase (HSL)
d) Lipoprotein lipase (LPL)
Correct = 7-α-hydrohylase
35. The official medical measurement of obesity is
a) Basal metabolic rate.
[[b) Body mass index.]]
c) Proportion of bone density to weight.
d) Height of a person.
Correct = Body mass index.
36. All are plasma adipokines profile of obese person, EXCEPT
a) Hypoadiponectinemia.
b) Leptin resistance.
[[c) Hypoestrogenism.]]
d) Hyperresistinemia.
Correct = Hypoestrogenism.
37. White adipose tissue has all of the following functions, EXCEPT
a) Endocrine.
b) Helps in immunity.
4013
c) Metabolic.
[[d) Homeostasis regulation.]]
Correct = Homeostasis regulation.
38. Adipokine that activates effect of insulin is
[[a) Adiponectin.]]
b) Resistin.
c) Leptin.
d) Grenilin.
Correct = Adiponectin.
39. An important feature of Zellweger’s syndrome is
a) Hypoglycemia.
b) Skin eruption.
[[c) Accumulation of polyenoic acids in brain.]]
d) Ectopic deposition of fat in the pancreas
Correct = Accumulation of polyenoic acids in brain.
40. Which statement from of the following about Zellweger’s syndrome is FALSE?
a) Results from the absence of functional peroxisomes
[[b) Characterized by hypoglycemia and ketosis]]
c) Caused by a defect in the import of enzymes into the peroxisomes
d) Death occurs within 6 years of life.
Correct = Characterized by hypoglycemia and ketosis
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41. Physiological conditions which promote the synthesis of ketone bodies would
also promote the
a) Oxidation of fatty acids in erythrocytes.
b) Synthesis of fatty acids in the liver.
c) Synthesis of amino acids in the brain.
[[d) Synthesis of glucose in the liver.]]
Correct = Synthesis of glucose in the liver.
42. Refsume’s disease is due to accumulation of
[[a) Phytanic acid in brain.]]
b) Glycogen in muscles.
c) Carnitine in liver.
d) Choestrol in gall bladder.
Correct = Phytanic acid in brain.
43. A drug which prevents cholesterol by inhibiting the enzyme HMG CoA reductase
is
a) Aspirin.
b) Allopurinol.
c) Digitonin.
[[d) Lavostatin.]]
Correct = Lavostatin.
44. A 56-year-old smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day. He is found to have

a blood pressure of 155/95 mm Hg. His body mass index is
30. Laboratory findings include total serum cholesterol of 245 mg/dl
and HDL cholesterol is 22 mg/dl.Which of the following vascular
abnormalities is most likely to be his most serious health risk?
a) Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis
4015
b) Deep venous thrombosis
c) Medial calcific sclerosis
[[d) Atherosclerosis]]
45. Obese person has
[[a) Hypoadiponectinemia]]
b) Hyporesistinemia
c) Hypolipoproteinemia
d) Hypoglycemia
Correct = Hypoadiponectinemia
46. Wasting syndrome is characterized by
[[a) Increase catabolism]]
b) Increase anabolism
c) Increase energy production
d) Increase appetite
Correct = Increase catabolism
47. A 44-year-old woman has a family history of heart disease. Her father and
mother both developed congestive heart failure and myocardial infarction as a
result of extensive coronary atherosclerosis. A dietary modification to
include consumption of which of the following is most likely to reduce her risk
for ischemic heart disease?
a) 40% of total caloric intake as fat
b) A diet high in saturated fat
c) Fat found in beef products
[[d) Fish oil]]
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Correct = Fish oil
48. An autopsy study reveals that evidence for atheroma formation can begin even
in children. The gross appearances of the aortas are recorded and compared with
microscopic findings of atheroma formation. Which of the following is most likely
to be the first visible gross evidence for the formation of an atheroma?
a) Thrombus
[[b) Fatty streak]]
c) Calcification
d) Ulceration
Correct = Fatty streak
49. A 25-year-old man is 178 cm tall and weighs 101 kg. Laboratory studies show
total serum cholesterol of 550 mg/dl with an HDL cholesterol component of 25
mg/dl. He is worried about these findings because his brother died of a myocardial
infarction at age 34. Which of the following conditions is this man most likely
to have?
a) Diabetes mellitus, type II
b) Malignant hypertension
[[c) Familial hypercholesterolemia]]
d) Cushing syndrome
Correct = Familial hypercholesterolemia
50. Vitamin E deficiency can cause
a) Increasing blood level of oxidatively modified lipids.
b) Decreasing oxidants activity.
[[c) Decreasing amount of radicals in the tissues.]]
d) Activation of receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Correct = Decreasing amount of radicals in the tissues.
4017
51. Hyperlipoproteinemia with maximum of cholesterol level in the blood is
a) Type I
[[b) Type II]]
c) Type III
d) Type IV
Correct = Type II
52. All of the following are major risk factors for Coronary Heart Disease (CHD),
EXCEPT
a) Smoking.
[[b) Increased HDL level.]]
c) Increased LDL level.
d) Hypertension.
Correct = Increased HDL level.
53. Lipidemic lowering therapy includes all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Diet rich by the polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA).
b) Statins.
c) Fibrates.
[[d) Diet rich by the saturated fat.]]
Correct = Diet rich by the saturated fat.
54. What is the major organ for alcohol detoxification?
a) Brain
[[b) Liver]]
4018
c) Kidney
d) Spleen
Correct = Liver
55. Alcohol abuse leads in the liver all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Activation of microsomal pathway of alcohol oxidation and formation of

toxic adducts.
b) Activation of inflammatory response.
[[c) Activation of VLDL synthesis.]]
d) Depression of TCA cycle and activation of fat synthesis.
Correct = Activation of VLDL synthesis.
56. Which nutritional factor stimulates alcohol oxidation?
[[a) Well-fad state]]
b) Fasting
c) Low protein diet
d) Low lipid diet
Correct = Well-fad state
57. Aldehyde dehydrogenase oxidizes ethanol to
a) Acetic acid.
b) Oxalic acid.
c) Carbon dioxide.
[[d) Acetyldehyde.]]
Correct = Acetyldehyde.
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58. Cytochrome P450 system involves in oxidation of ethanol in organism of
a) Healthy person.
[[b) Heavy drinkers.]]
c) Obese person.
d) Mild drinker.
Correct = Heavy drinkers.
59. Microsomal oxidation of alcohol is accompanying with formation of all of

the following, EXCEPT
a) Hydrogen peroxide.
b) Superoxide radicals.
c) Acetaldehyde.
[[d) Acetate.]]
Correct = Acetate.
60. Alcohol-induced cirhotic patient can has following blood analysis
[[a) ↓ ALT & ↑GGT]]
b) ↑ elastase & ↓ AST
c) ↑plasma proteins & ↓ Igs
d) ↑ glucose & ↓ lactic acid
Correct = ↓ ALT & ↑GGT
61. Which one of the following methods uses in practical medicine for
purification of blood by artificial kidney?
a) Electrophoresis
b) Salting out
c) Hemodilution
4020
[[d) Dialysis]]
Correct = Dialysis
62. Chromatography is method of separation mixture of
a) Ions
[[b) Amino acids]]
c) Salts
d) Ketone bodies
Correct = Amino acids
63. What one of the following patients may be put on the hemodialysis?
a) Patient with mental retardation
[[b) Patient with end stage of renal disease (ESRD)]]
c) Patient with acute myocardial infarction (AMI)
d) Patient with vomiting and diarrhea
Correct = Patient with end stage of renal disease (ESRD)
64. The following technique is used for separation of proteins according their
difference in net charges at a given pH:
a) Thin layer chromatography.
b) Paper chromatography.
[[c) Electrophoresis.]]
d) Dialysis.
Correct = Electrophoresis.
4021
65. The solubility of most proteins is lowered at high salt concentration is
known as
a) Isoelectric focusing
[[b) Salting out process]]
c) Solubility curve
d) Chromatography
Correct = Salting out process
66. The movement of charged particles towards one of the electrodes under the
influence of electrical current is
a) Gel filtration
b) Chromatography
c) Dialysis
[[d) Electrophoresis]]
Correct = Electrophoresis
67. For separation of mixture charged high molecular weight and low molecular
weight compounds can use all following techniques EXCEPT
a) Electrophoresis
[[b) Dialysis]]
c) “salting out” precipitation
d) Cedimentation rate
Correct = Dialysis
68. The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of
a) Elimination of non-electrolyte waste product.
[[b) Dehydration of protein molecule by salt.]]
c) Diminished protein-protein interaction.
4022
d) Neutralization of protein molecule by salt.
Correct = Dehydration of protein molecule by salt.
69. A protein with molecular weight of 100 kD is subjected to SDS PAGE

electrophoresis. SDS PAGE electrophoretic pattern show two widely separated
bands of 20 kD and 30 kD after addition of merkaptoethanol. The true statement
regarding this will be
a) The protein has complete lysis.
b) The protein is a monomer of 20 kD and 30kD.
c) The protein is a dimmer of two 20 kD and 30 kD proteins.
[[d) The protein is a tetramer of 20 kD and 30kD proteins.]]
Correct = The protein is a tetramer of 20 kD and 30kD proteins.
70. Chromatography is used for separation of
a) Mixture of lipids and minerals
[[b) Mixture of proteins]]
c) Colloids only
d) Mixture of minerals only
Correct = Mixture of proteins
71. Ultrafiltration of plasma in kidney is example of
a) Chromatography.
[[b) Dialysis.]]
c) Electrophoresis.
d) Precipitation.
Correct = Dialysis.
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72. Ultrafiltration of plasma by choroid plexus of ventricular system of the
brain is example of
a) Chromatography.
b) Electrophoresis.
[[c) Dialysis.]]
d) Precipitation.
Correct = Dialysis.
73. All of the following are functions of proteins, EXCEPT
a) Catalytic.
b) Defense.
[[c) Osmotic.]]
d) Structural.
Correct = Osmotic.
74. Which of the following IS NOT protein in nature?
a) Albumin
[[b) Cortisol]]
c) Complement C3
d) Lipase
Correct = Cortisol
75. Protein is
[[a) Ceruloplasmin]]
b) Pyruvate
c) Acetoacetate
d) Glycerol
4024
76. Which class of biomolecules is used for activation of catalytic function

of proteins?
a) Carbohydrates
b) Water shell
[[c) Minerals]]
d) Fatty acids
Correct = Minerals
77. Molecules of protein are composed of long chain of
a) Fatty acids
b) Nucleotides
c) Sugar
[[d) Amino acids]]
78. Alpha-helix and beta-sheet folding in protein is stabilized by
a) Ester bond.
[[b) Hydrogen bond.]]
c) Peptide bond.
d) Ionic bond.
Correct = Hydrogen bond.
79. Which one of the following IS NOT a secondary structural feature of proteins?
a) Alpha-helix
4025
b) Beta-sheet
[[c) Triple-helix]]
d) Beta-turn
Correct = Triple-helix
80. Each polypeptide has specific amino acids sequence, linked with each other
by peptide bond. This sequence of amino acids is said to be
[[a) Priamary]]
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary
Correct = Priamary
81. Tertiary structure of a protein is formed by all of the following EXCEPT
a) Hydrogen bonds
b) Ionic bonds
[[c) Peptide bonds]]
d) Disulfide bonds
Correct = Peptide bonds
82. All of the following have quaternary structure EXCEPT
a) Immunoglobulin
[[b) Albumin]]
c) Lactate dehydrogenase
d) Hemoglobin
Correct = Albumin
4026
83. A protein reacts with biuret reagent which indicates two or more
a) Alpha-helix
[[b) Peptide bonds]]
c) β- sheet
d) Disulfide bonds
Correct = Peptide bonds
84. Which of the following is the best example of conformational changes?
a) Denaturation of protein by heat
b) Conversion of cysteine to cystine in oxidative conditions
[[c) Conversion of rich α-helix isoform of protein into rich β-sheet

isoform]]
d) Hydrogenation of aromatic side chain of the protein
Correct = Conversion of rich α-helix isoform of protein into rich β-sheet isoform
85. Daily production of proteins in adult healthy person approximately is
a) 50 g
b) 200 g
[[c) 400 g]]
d) 1000 g
Correct = 400 g
86. Daily excretion of proteins into the urine in adult healthy person
approximately is
[[a) Less than 150 mg]]
b) 250 mg per day
4027
c) More than 250 mg
d) 10 g per day
Correct = Less than 150 mg
87. Transcription is synthesis of
a) ATP
[[b) RNA]]
c) DNA
d) NADH
Correct = RNA
88. Which molecule contains the genetic code?
a) Protein
[[b) DNA]]
c) ATP
d) Adenine base
Correct = DNA
89. In the process of transcription, the flow of genetic information is from
a) DNA to DNA
b) DNA to protein
c) T-RNA to protein
[[d) DNA to m-RNA]]
Correct = DNA to m-RNA
90. Translation is synthesis of
4028
a) RNA
b) DNA
[[c) Polypeptides]]
d) Polysaccharides
Correct = Polypeptides
91. The most active site of protein synthesis is the
a) Nucleous
b) Mitochondria
[[c) Ribosomes]]
d) Cell membrane
Correct = Ribosomes
92. Which one of the following enzymes would digest proteins?
a) Amylase
b) Lactase
c) Lipase
[[d) Trypsin]]
Correct = Trypsin
93. Dietary protein could provide precursors for the de novo synthesis in humans
of all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Albumin.
b) Oxaloacetic acid.
[[c) Linoleic acid.]]
d) Glutamic acid.
Correct = Linoleic acid.
4029
94. Which from the following regarding protein composition is correct?
[[a) Hemoglobin is chromoprotein]]
b) Albumin is conjugated protein
c) Collagen is globular protein
d) Histone: acidic amino acids prevalent
Correct = Hemoglobin is chromoprotein
95. In denaturized proteins the bond which IS NOT broken
[[a) Peptide]]
b) Disulfide
c) Hydrogen
d) Ionic
Correct = Peptide
96. Proteases produce amino acids from protein by
a) Reducing
[[b) Hydrolyzing]]
c) Oxidizing
d) Saturation
Correct = Hydrolyzing
97. Which of the following IS NOT a conjugated protein?
a) Hemoglobin
b) Low density lipoprotein
c) Immunoglobulin G
4030
[[d) Collagen]]
Correct = Collagen
98. Metalloprotein is
a) Collagen
b) Albumin
c) Immunoglobulin
[[d) Ferritin]]
Correct = Ferritin
99. Negative nitrogen balance has following person
a) Children.
[[b) Elderly.]]
c) Pregnant women.
d) Athletic men.
Correct = Elderly.
100. In protein structure the α-helix and β-sheet are examples of
[[b) Secondary structure]]
d) Quaternary structure
Correct = Secondary structure
101. Biologically active proteins in human beings are
a) D-and L-form
4031
[[b) L-form only]]
c) D-form only
d) Racemic form
Correct = L-form only
102. All hormones increase the amount of proteins in tissues EXCEPT
a) Growth hormone
b) Testosterone
c) Insulin
[[d) Cortisol]]
Correct = Cortisol
103. What is the major function of chaperones in the cells?
a) Regulate of intracellular medium
b) Transport of proteins to site of their action
c) Sorting of misfolding proteins
[[d) Promote folding of proteins]]
Correct = Promote folding of proteins
104. Inracellular folding of protein is mediated by
a) The protein itself
[[b) Chaperons]]
c) Ribosome
d) Proteases
Correct = Chaperons
4032
105. Which one from the following protects proteins that have been denaturized
by decreased pH in cells?
[[a) Heat shock proteins (Hsp70 & 40)]]
b) Protease inhibitor
c) Specific lipid envelope
d) Endogenous ions
Correct = Heat shock proteins (Hsp70 & 40)
106. All of the following are functions of chaperones, EXCEPT
a) Promote folding of unfolded proteins.
b) Promote correct folding of misfolded proteins.
[[c) Prevent overtranslation of specific proteins.]]
d) Prevent aggregation of unfolded or misfolded proteins.
Correct = Prevent overtranslation of specific proteins.
107. The building blocks (monomers) that make up hypothalamic releasing hormones
are :
a) Nucleotides
[[b) Amino acids]]
c) Monosaccharides
d) Isoprenoids
108. Which bond is formed when an amino group of one amino acid joints the
carboxylic group of another amino acid?
[[a) Peptide]]
b) Glycosidic
c) Ester
4033
d) Hydrogen
Correct = Peptide
109. Bonds that are formed between two cysteine residues is
a) Peptide
b) Hydrophilic
[[c) Disulphide]]
d) Ionic
Correct = Disulphide
110. Biologically active proteinogenic amino acids present in human organism

in
a) D- and L-form
[[b) L-form only]]
c) D-form only
d) Racemic form
Correct = L-form only
111. Which one of the following sets consists of essential amino acids only?
a) Alanine, Tyrosine
[[b) Phenylalanine, Tryptophan]]
c) Glutamate, Lysine
d) Aspartate, Glycine
Correct = Phenylalanine, Tryptophan
112. Some amino acids are termed NON-ESSENTIAL as
4034
a) Have no role in metabolism.
b) Are not components of tissue proteins.
[[c) May be synthesized in the body.]]
d) All of the above.
Correct = May be synthesized in the body.
113. All α-amino acids give positive
[[a) Ninhydrin test]]
b) Biuret test
c) Fusher test
d) Xanthoproteic test
Correct = Ninhydrin test
114. A compound gives positive test with ninhydrin is a(an)
a) Lipid
b) Glucose
[[c) Amino acids]]
d) Ketone bodies
115. Biuret test is mainly done for
a) Lipids
b) Carbohydrates
c) Amino acids
[[d) Proteins]]
Correct = Proteins
4035
116. An amino acid that may form a disulphide bond
a) Tryptophan
[[b) Cystein]]
c) Phenylalanine
d) Proline
Correct = Cystein
117. Which one of the following amino acids is ionizable in protein?
a) Glycine
b) Alanine
c) Valine
[[d) Aspartate]]
Correct = Aspartate
118. Which of the following amino acids is highly likely to be localized within
the interior of the plasma globular protein?
a) Aspartic acid
b) Glutamic acid
[[c) Valine]]
d) Arginine
Correct = Valine
119. Which of the following amino acids is highly likely to be localized exterior
of the plasma globular protein?
[[a) Aspartic acid]]
b) Glycine
4036
c) Valine
d) Isoleucine
Correct = Aspartic acid
120. Disulfide bonds most often stabilize the native structure of
[[a) Extracellular proteins.]]
b) Intracellular proteins
c) Membrane proteins
d) Connective tissue proteins
Correct = Extracellular proteins.
121. Which one of the following tripeptides contains the largest number of
non-polar R-group?
a) Tyr-Lys-Met
b) Gly-Pro-Arg
c) Asp-Phe-Tyr
[[d) Leu-Val-Gly]]
Correct = Leu-Val-Gly
122. At certain pH amino acid behaves neither as an acid nor as a base and does
not migrate to anode or cathode and this pH known as:
a) Nitrogenous equilibrium medium
[[b) Isoelectric point]]
c) Cationic pH
d) Anionic pH
Correct = Isoelectric point
4037
123. Isoelectric point is
a) Specific temperature
b) Suitable concentration of amino aids
c) Melting point of amino acids
[[d) PH at which amino acid is dipolar]]
Correct = PH at which amino acid is dipolar
124. Isoelectric point (pI) for an amino acid is
[[a) PH at which an amino acid is electrically neutral]]
b) PKa value of the functional groups attached to the alpha-carbon
c) Net pKa value for the ionizable side chains
d) Ratio of the number of oxygen atoms to carbon atoms in the amino acid
Correct = PH at which an amino acid is electrically neutral
125. Non-proteinogenic amino acid is
a) α-alanine
b) Aspartate
[[c) β-alanine]]
d) Histidine
Correct = β-alanine
126. Which one of the following tripeptides most positively charged at pH=7.0?
a) Tyr-Lys-Met
[[b) Lys-Pro-Arg]]
c) Asp-Glu-Asp
d) Leu-Val-Gly
4038
Correct = Lys-Pro-Arg
127. Which one of the following tripeptides contains sulfur?
a) Gly-Pro-Arg
[[b) Cys-Lys-Met]]
c) Asp-Phe-Tyr
d) Leu-Val-Gly
Correct = Cys-Lys-Met
128. Which one of the following proteins exists as CATION in physiological

conditions?
a) β-globulin (pI=5.5.)
b) Albumin (pI = 4.9.)
c) Hemoglobin (pI= 7.0)
[[d) Histone (pI = 9.8)]]
Correct = Histone (pI = 9.8)
129. Which one of the following proteins exists as neutral particle in

physiological condition?
a) β-globulin (pI= 5.5)
b) Albumin (pI = 4.9)
[[c) Hemoglobin (pI=7.0)]]
d) Fibrinogen (pI=5.4)
Correct = Hemoglobin (pI=7.0)
4039
130. Toxic effects of heavy metals result in inactivation of specific proteins
by denaturation. Which of the following proteins can supply orally for the
a) Clupellin (pI= 12.4)
b) Protein of soya (pI= 7.9 )
c) Papain (pI=9.0)
[[d) Ovalbumin of egg (pI=4.8)]]
Correct = Ovalbumin of egg (pI=4.8)
131. A 24-year old woman prepares for her wedding day. Her hair dresser uses
rollers to create a new style for her hair. To create a “permanent wave”, the
stylist then applies thoglucollate to break apart the S-S bonds in cysteine units,
reducing them to –SH groups.
[[d) Quaternary structure]]
Correct = Quaternary structure
132. Glutathione is important
a) Absorbent
[[b) Antioxidant]]
c) Enzyme
d) Protein
Correct = Antioxidant
133. Glutathione prevents cells against accumulation of
a) Ammonia
4040
b) Nitrogen monoxide
[[c) Hydrogen peroxide]]
d) Carbon monoxide
Correct = Hydrogen peroxide
134. If glutathione level in the erythrocytes decrease
a) Production of NADPH decreases
b) Oxy-hemoglobin content increases
[[c) Radical level increases]]
d) PH decreases
Correct = Radical level increases
135. In RBCs hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) is converted to water (H2O) by
a) Hemoglobin
[[b) Glutathione]]
c) Glutamate
d) Cytochrome
136. All are true about glutathione EXCEPT
a) Contain sulfhydryl group
b) Anti-oxidant
c) Transport amino acids across cell membrane
[[d) Made all essential amino acids]]
Correct = Made all essential amino acids
4041
137. Kwashiorkor babies would have all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Fatty liver.
b) Hypoalbuminemia.
c) Edema.
[[d) Severe myopathy.]]
Correct = Severe myopathy.
138. Kwashiorkor result from
a) Vitamin D deficiency
b) Deficiency of minerals in diet
c) Vitamin A deficiency
[[d) Deficiency of protein in diet]]
Correct = Deficiency of protein in diet
139. Marasmic babies have
[[a) Depletion of muscle protein]]
b) Depletion of liver protein
c) Hypoalbuminemia
d) Fatty liver
Correct = Depletion of muscle protein
140. Amyloid is form of
a) Bacterium
b) Viruses
c) Primitive life form
[[d) Protein]]
Correct = Protein
4042
141. Amyloidosis is accumulation of
a) Glycogen
[[b) Misfolding protein]]
c) Gangliosides
d) Colloids
Correct = Misfolding protein
142. Mad cow disease may be due to invasion of
a) Specific virus
b) Specific bacteria
[[c) Abnormal prion protein]]
d) Abnormal gluten
Correct = Abnormal prion protein
143. Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by the deposition of one of the

following substances in the tissues
a) Glycogen
b) Neurolipids
[[c) Amyloid]]
d) Copper
Correct = Amyloid
144. Which from the following processes is NOT involved in pathogenesis of

amyloidosis?
a) Conformational changes of protein
4043
[[b) Partial hydrolysis of polysacharides]]
c) Polymerization of partial proteolyzed residues
d) Formation of polyglutmic part in protein
Correct = Partial hydrolysis of polysacharides
145. Alzheimer’s disease is due to
[[a) Misfold amyloid precursor protein]]
b) Transmitters deficiency
c) Defect in glucose transporters
d) Decreased integrity of blood brain barrier
Correct = Misfold amyloid precursor protein
146. A 80-year-old man presented with impairment of higher intellectual function

and alterations in mood and behavior. His family reported progressive
disorientation and memory loss over the last six month. The patient was diagnosed
with Alzheimer’s disease. Which one of the following best describes the disease?
a) It results from accumulation of denatured proteins in the neurons
b) It is associated with abnormal Aβ-amyloid with altered amino acid

sequence
[[c) It is associated with abnormal Aβ-amyloid with altered secondary

structure]]
d) It is result from accumulation of lipids with long chain fatty acids
Correct = It is associated with abnormal Aβ-amyloid with altered secondary

structure
147. In etiopathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease the following may be implicated
a) Tau protein
b) Amyloid precursor protein (APP)
c) Alpha-secretase
4044
148. Alzheimer’s Aβ-amyloid is major component of
[[a) Extracellular plaques.]]
b) Intracellular neurofibrillary tangles.
c) Cerebrospinal fluid.
d) Intravascular steaks.
Correct = Extracellular plaques.
149. Prions are type of
[[a) Proteins]]
b) Bacterium
c) Primitive life form
d) Viruses
Correct = Proteins
150. Origin of prion is
a) RNA
b) DNA
c) Virus
[[d) Protein]]
Correct = Protein
151. All of the following statements about Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) are
correct EXCEPT
4045
a) It is caused by prion
b) It is a neurodegenerative disease
[[c) It caused by Aβ-amyloid]]
d) Progressive dementia is a clinical sign
Correct = It caused by Aβ-amyloid
152. In Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease (CJD) patients pathological study of brain

tissue shows spongiosis (vacuolation of cortical grey matter) with neuronal loss,
amyloid plaques. These amyloid plaques contain:
a) Amylin
[[b) Prion]]
c) Immunoglobulins
d) Tau-protein
Correct = Prion
153. Progressive dementia is seen in
a) Alzheimer’s disease
b) Creutzfaldt-Jacob disease
c) Mad cow disease
154. Localization of normal PrPC in nervous system
[[a) Nerve cell membrane]]
b) Protein of blood-brain barrier (BBB)
c) Protein of cerebrospinal fluid
d) In synaptic cleft
4046
Correct = Nerve cell membrane
155. All of the following are the properties of abnormal prion PrPSC EXCEPT
a) It is stable
b) It is insoluble
c) Protease insensitive
[[d) It is rich by of α-helix]]
Correct = It is rich by of α-helix
156. Which of the following is NOT a prion associated disease?
a) Mad cow disease
b) Kuru
c) Creutzfaldt-Jakob disease
[[d) Alzheimer disease]]
Correct = Alzheimer disease
157. Neurofibrillary tangles that accumulate in the brain of Alzheimer’s patient

is result of defect in_______ structure of _______
[[a) Secondary/ tau protein]]
b) Secondary/ amyloid precursor protein
c) Tertiary/ tau protein
d) Qaternary/Bence-Jones protein
Correct = Secondary/ tau protein
158. In pathogenesis of Alzheimer’s disease all of the following may be

implicated, EXCEPT
4047
a) Decrease alpha-secretase activity.
b) Microtubular tau protein polyphosphorylation.
c) Partial proteolysis of membrane APP protein.
[[d) Osmotic injury of neurons.]]
Correct = Osmotic injury of neurons.
159. Protein that precipitates on heating to 450C and redisolves on boling is
[[a) Bence-Jones protein]]
b) Albumin
c) Myosin
d) Microtubular tau- protein
Correct = Bence-Jones protein
160. Plasma differs from serum by
a) Lipid content
[[b) Protein content]]
c) RBCs count
d) Glucose level
Correct = Protein content
161. Plasma albumin performs all of the following functions, EXCEPT:
a) Maintenance of oncotic pressure.
b) Transport.
c) Nutritive.
[[d) Maintenance of water-electrolyte balance.]]
Correct = Maintenance of water-electrolyte balance.
4048
162. Which one of the following substances does not require plasma protein for
transport?
a) Vitamin D
b) Fat
[[c) Glycerol]]
d) Copper ion
Correct = Glycerol
163. Level of which blood proteins fraction is higher?
[[a) Albumin]]
b) α-globulins
c) γ-globuins
d) Fibrinogen
Correct = Albumin
164. How many distinct bands of serum proteins are separated by paper
electrophoresis?
[[a) 5]]
b) 10
c) 15
d) 20
Correct = 5
165. When a serum is electrophoresed, which of the following bands is normally

absent?
a) α1- globulin
b) α2-globulin
4049
c) Albumin
[[d) Fibrinogen]]
Correct = Fibrinogen
166. Plasma proteins are separated to individual proteins by all of the following
methods, EXCEPT
a) Electrophoresis
b) Salting out precipitation
c) Chromatography
[[d) Dialysis]]
Correct = Dialysis
167. Defense protein in plasma is
a) Albumin
b) Angiotensinogen
c) Erythropoietin
[[d) Complement factor]]
Correct = Complement factor
168. Hypoalbuminemia is clinical feature of all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Chronic liver disease.
b) Protein malnutrition.
[[c) Acute liver disease.]]
d) Nephrotic syndrome.
Correct = Acute liver disease.
4050
169. Hypoproteinemia leads
[[a) Decrease blood oncotic pressure.]]
b) Increase viscosity of blood.
c) Decrease blood ultrafiltration.
d) Increase time of coagulation.
Correct = Decrease blood oncotic pressure.
170. Simple plasma protein is
a) Cerruloplasmin
b) Transferrin
[[c) Albumin]]
d) Immunoglobulin
Correct = Albumin
171. Which substance is in higher concentration in blood than in glomerular

filtrate?
a) Glucose
b) Urea
[[c) Proteins]]
d) Water
Correct = Proteins
172. Ceruloplasmin is
[[a) Ferroxidase]]
b) Protein of ETC
c) Final product of purine catabolism
d) Protein of the nucleus
4051
Correct = Ferroxidase
173. Major transporter of drugs and lipophilic substances in plasma is
[[a) Albumin]]
b) Fibrinogen
c) Complement
d) Immunoglobulin
Correct = Albumin
174. Plasma protein is
a) Protein kinase
b) Creatinine
d) Carnitine
175. Which one of the following plasma proteins is NOT synthesized by the liver?
a) Albumin
[[b) Immunoglobulin]]
c) Complement
d) Fibrinogen
Correct = Immunoglobulin
176. Which one of the following plasma proteins has catalytic function?
a) Transferrin
[[b) Ceruloplasmin]]
4052
c) Albumin
d) Haptoglobin
177. Hemoglobin excretion into urine during hemolysis is prevented by
a) T-cells
b) Albumin
[[c) Haptoglobin]]
d) Ceruloplasmin
Correct = Haptoglobin
178. Haptoglobin is
a) The free hemoglobin-protein carrier in the blood.
[[b) The iron-protein carrier in the blood.]]
c) The enzyme ferroxidase.
d) Serine protease inhibitor (SERPINS).
Correct = The iron-protein carrier in the blood.
179. Transferrin is
a) Storage form of iron.
b) Other form of hemoglobin.
[[c) The iron-protein carrier in the blood.]]
d) Types of red blood cells.
Correct = The iron-protein carrier in the blood.
180. Major transporter of iron in the plasma to bone marrow
4053
a) Ferritin
b) Fibrinogen
[[c) Transferrin]]
d) Hemoglobin
Correct = Transferrin
181. What is a diagnostic test for hepatocellular carcinoma?
a) α1-Antitrypsin
[[b) α1-Fetoprotein]]
c) Haptoglobin
d) Transferrin
Correct = α1-Fetoprotein
182. All of the following are about α1- fetoprotein correct EXCEPT
[[a) It is blue colored, copper containing plasma protein]]
b) Present in high concentration in fetal blood
c) It is not present in healthy individual
d) Disappears from blood soon after birth
Correct = It is blue colored, copper containing plasma protein
183. α1-antitripsin is
[[a) Inhibitor of neutrophilic elastase.]]
b) Anticoagulant.
c) Antioxidant of RBCs.
d) Activator of blood trypsinogen.
Correct = Inhibitor of neutrophilic elastase.
4054
184. Which of the following plasma proteins is protease inhibitor?
a) Transferrin
b) α1-fetoprotein
[[c) α1- antitrypsin]]
d) Ceruloplasmin
Correct = α1- antitrypsin
185. What is major function of Alpha1-antitrypsin ?
a) Protease activator
[[b) Protease inhibitor]]
c) Stimulator of DNA repair
d) Inhibitor of thrombin
Correct = Protease inhibitor
186. Smokers tend to develop emphysema more readily than non-smokers. This is
due to oxidation of methionine residue in
a) Pulmonary collagen.
b) Neutrophil elastase.
[[c) α1-antytrypsin.]]
d) Alveolar elastin.
Correct = α1-antytrypsin.
187. α1-antitrypsin deficiency has been implicated in
a) Kwashiorkor.
b) Acute and chronic inflammatory diseases.
[[c) Cirrhosis and emphysema.]]
4055
d) Multiple myeloma.
Correct = Cirrhosis and emphysema.
188. Patient was diagnosed with Wilson’s disease. To confirm the diagnosis it
is necessary to study the activity of the following enzyme in blood
a) Alcohol dehydrogenase
b) α1-antitrypsin
[[c) Ceruloplasmin]]
d) Catalase
189. Willson’s disease is due to
a) Deficiency of copper in diet
[[b) Abnormal accumulation of copper in liver]]
c) Defective copper absorption
d) Deficiency of copper in blood
Correct = Abnormal accumulation of copper in liver
190. Kayser-Fleicher rings (KF-rings) are seen in
a) Hematochromatosis
[[b) Wilson disease]]
c) Wernike syndrome
d) Spina bifida
Correct = Wilson disease
191. Pandey’s & Nonne-Appelt’s tests detect in cerebrospinal fluid
4056
a) Glucose
b) Chloride ion
c) Neutrophils
[[d) Globulins]]
Correct = Globulins
192. Pandey’s and Nonne-Appelt’s tests are used techniques
a) Colorimetric
[[b) Salting out precipitation]]
c) SDS electrophoresis
d) Paper chromatography
Correct = Salting out precipitation
193. The albumin quotient AQ = 40. This index indicates the following degree
of blood-brain barrier (BBB) damage
a) Slightly
b) Moderate
[[c) Severe]]
d) Complete
Correct = Severe
194. Antibodies are
a) Carbohydrates.
[[b) Glycoproteins.]]
c) Nucleic acids.
d) Lipids.
Correct = Glycoproteins.
4057
195. All of the following about antibodies are true, EXCEPT
a) They are glycoproteins.
[[b) They have same amino acids sequences.]]
c) They are synthesized by plasma cells.
d) They can bind antigen.
Correct = They have same amino acids sequences.
196. Each of the following is characteristic of antibodies, EXCEPT
a) They are proteins with variable and constant regions.
b) They contain carbohydrates.
c) They can combine with antigen specifically.
[[d) They are secreted by the liver only.]]
Correct = They are secreted by the liver only.
197. All of the following about the Fc region of immunoglobulins are true, EXCEPT
a) It can be disattached by papain from the Fab region
[[b) It is responsible for antigen binding.]]
c) It contains heavy chain.
d) It contains heavy chain.
Correct = It is responsible for antigen binding.
198. Which plasma protein has two heavy chains and two light chains?
a) Albumin
b) Fibrinogen
c) Globulin
4058
[[d) Antibody]]
Correct = Antibody
199. Following substance may act as an antigen
a) Polysaccharides rich by glucose.
b) Polyunsaturated fatty acids.
c) Polyols such as glycerol.
[[d) Polysaccharides rich by mannose.]]
Correct = Polysaccharides rich by mannose.
200. Which of the following is responsible for opsonization of bacteria in the

blood?
[[a) Complement C3b]]
b) Albumin
c) Cytokines
d) Monocyte
Correct = Complement C3b
201. Immunoglobulin is example of
a) Complex lipids.
b) Simple protein
c) Oligossacharides
[[d) Conjugated protein]]
Correct = Conjugated protein
202. The largest immunoglobulin in size is
4059
a) IgA
[[b) IgM]]
c) IgE
d) IgG
Correct = IgM
203. In an immunoglobulin molecule the antigen binding capacity resides at the
a) Constant region
[[b) Variable region]]
c) Joining (J) zone
d) Fraction crystallizable region (Fc)
Correct = Variable region
204. Major function of variable N-terminal region of immunoglobulin is
a) Activating of complement.
[[b) Recognizing of antigen.]]
c) Binding with other antibodies.
d) Activating of bacterial proteases.
Correct = Recognizing of antigen.
205. Which one of the following immunoglobulins can cross the placenta and
transfers mother’s immunity to the fetus?
a) IgA
[[b) IgG]]
c) IgE
d) IgD
Correct = IgG
4060
206. Which one of the following isotypes of immunoglobulins is synthesized in
response to allergen action?
a) IgG
b) IgD
[[c) IgE]]
d) IgA
Correct = IgE
207. All of the following about IgE are true, EXCEPT
a) It is the principal immunoglobulin involved in allergic reactions.
b) Low plasma level in healthy.
c) It can affect the release chemical mediators.
[[d) It activates complement.]]
Correct = It activates complement.
208. Antibody present in colostrums is
a) IgG
b) IgE
[[c) IgA]]
d) IgD
Correct = IgA
209. Which isotype of immunoglobulin is above?
a) IgG
[[b) IgE]]
4061
c) IgA
d) IgD
Correct = IgE
210. Agglutination reaction is strongest with the immunoglobulin
a) IgG
[[b) IgM]]
c) IgE
d) IgA
Correct = IgM
211. All of the following about IgM are true, EXCEPT
a) It is pentamer.
b) It is glycoprotein.
[[c) It mediates allergic reaction.]]
d) It is major antibody n the primary response to antigen.
Correct = It mediates allergic reaction.
212. Antibody having high valency is
a) IgG
[[b) IgM]]
c) IgE
d) IgD
Correct = IgM
213. Ochronosis is a feature of
4062
a) Albinism
[[b) Alkaptonuria]]
c) Phenylketonuria
d) Tyrosinosis
214. What are repeating units of DNA?
a) Bases
[[b) Nucleotides]]
c) Sugars
d) Phosphates
Correct = Nucleotides
215. Human DNA rich by nucleotides
[[a) A-T]]
b) G-C
c) A-U
Correct = A-T
216. Bacterial DNA rich by nucleotides
a) A-T
[[b) G-C]]
c) A-U
Correct = G-C
4063
217. Purine base is
a) Uracil
b) Thymine
[[c) Guanine]]
d) Cytosine
Correct = Guanine
218. A purine nucleotide is
[[a) AMP]]
b) UMP
c) CMP
d) TMP
Correct = AMP
219. Which metabolic pathway is passes in the nucleus?
[[a) DNA replication]]
b) Protein synthesis
c) Cholesterol synthesis
d) Nucleotide synthesis
Correct = DNA replication
220. Genetic information of nuclear DNA is transmitted to the site of protein

synthesis by
a) Polysomes.
b) TRNA.
[[c) MRNA.]]
4064
d) Proteosomes.
Correct = MRNA.
221. DNA makes DNA by
a) Repair.
[[b) Replication.]]
c) Transcription.
d) Translation.
Correct = Replication.
222. DNA makes RNA by
a) Repair.
b) Replication.
[[c) Transcription.]]
d) Translation.
Correct = Transcription.
223. MRNA makes polypeptide by
a) Repair.
b) Replication.
c) Transcription.
[[d) Translation.]]
Correct = Translation.
224. In sickle cell anemia the defect can be explained by the mutation
[[a) Single point.]]
4065
b) Frameshift.
c) Stop codon.
d) Trinucleotides repeat.
Correct = Single point.
225. In human the main product of purine catabolism is
a) Urea
[[b) Uric acid]]
c) β-alanine
d) Guanine
Correct = Uric acid
226. Uric acid is final product degradation of
[[a) Purines.]]
b) Amino acids.
c) Proteins.
d) Creatine.
Correct = Purines.
227. Nucleosides are composed from nitrogen base and
a) Protein.
[[b) Pentose.]]
c) Alcohol.
d) Fatty acid.
Correct = Pentose.
4066
228. Pyrimidine base is
[[a) Thymine]]
b) Thiamine
c) Cysteine
d) Tocopherol
Correct = Thymine
229. All of the following about IgG are true, EXCEPT
a) Freely crosses the placenta.
b) Contains two antigen-binding sites.
c) The most abundant plasma immunoglobulin.
[[d) Is the main immunoglobulin in normal conjunctiva.]]
Correct = Is the main immunoglobulin in normal conjunctiva.
230. The major role of complement proteins in plasma
a) Nutritional
b) Transport
[[c) Defense]]
d) Oncotic
Correct = Defense
231. Which of the following is correct about complement?
a) The classical pathway is activated by antigen-antibody complexes
b) C5-C9 attacks the cell membrane of pathogens
c) The alternative pathway is activated by the membrane components of

pathogens
[[d) All of the above are correct]]
4067
Correct = All of the above are correct
232. Pyrimidine base is
a) Thiamine
b) Cysteine
[[c) Cytosine]]
d) Tocopherol
Correct = Cytosine
233. All of the following are principal functions of complement, EXCEPT
a) Mediate the release of histamine.
b) Activate lysis of pathogens by MAC formation.
c) Opsonize pathogens.
[[d) Activate plasma cells to produce Ig.]]
Correct = Activate plasma cells to produce Ig.
234. C4b-C2b-C3b is composition of
a) C1 convertase
b) C3 convertase
[[c) C5 convertase]]
d) C9 convertase
Correct = C5 convertase
235. The principal nitrogenos urinary excretion product in human resulting

from the catabolism of AMP is
a) Urea
4068
[[b) Uric acid]]
c) Creatinine
d) Carnitine
Correct = Uric acid
236. C4b-C2b is composition of
a) C1 convertase
[[b) C3 convertase]]
c) C5 convertase
d) C9 convertase
Correct = C3 convertase
237. Inosine monophosphate is an intermediate during de novo synthesis of
[[a) AMP & GMP]]
b) CMP & TMP
c) CMP & UMP
d) All of these
Correct = AMP & GMP
238. 5-Phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate is required for the synthesis of
a) Glycogen.
[[b) Nucleotides.]]
c) Histones.
d) Triacylglycerides.
Correct = Nucleotides.
4069
239. Carbomoyl phosphate II is required for synthesis of
[[a) Orotic acid]]
b) Uric acid
c) Cholesterol
d) Citric acid
Correct = Orotic acid
240. Hereditary orotic aciduria may accompanying with
a) Osteomalacia.
b) Hyperelasticity of skin.
[[c) Megaloblastic anemia.]]
d) Photophobia.
Correct = Megaloblastic anemia.
241. Increased level of blood uric acid are risk factors for development of
a) Tumor
[[b) Tophi]]
c) Anemia
d) Fatty liver
Correct = Tophi
242. All of the following statements about uric acid are true EXCEPT
a) It is a catabolite of purines
b) It is excreted by the kidneys
[[c) It is catabolite of pyrimidines]]
d) It is present in plasma mainly as monosodium urate
Correct = It is catabolite of pyrimidines
4070
243. Allopurinol prevents the conversion of
a) IMP to GMP
b) Cytosine to uracil
[[c) Xanthine to uric acid]]
d) Ammonia to urea
Correct = Xanthine to uric acid
244. Allopurinol lowers serum levels of
[[a) Uric acid.]]
b) Glutamine.
c) Cholesterol
d) Urea
Correct = Uric acid.
245. A 42-year-old male cancer patient undergoing radiation therapy develops

severe pain in his right big toe. Laboratory analysis indicates an elevated serum
urate level and urate crystals in his urine. Which one of the following metabolic
pathway is activated in this patient?
a) Cholesterol degradation
[[b) Purine nucleotides degradation]]
c) Proteins degradation
d) Pyrimidine nucleotides degradation
Correct = Purine nucleotides degradation
246. Hyperuricemia leads
a) Obesity.
4071
b) Hypoglycemia.
c) Goiter.
[[d) Gout.]]
Correct = Gout.
247. The salvage pathway for purines involves enzyme
[[a) Hypoxanthine-guanosine phosphribosyl transferase (HGPRT).]]
b) Xanthine oxidase.
c) Phosphoribosylpyrophosphate (PRPP) synthase.
d) Adenosine deaminase (ADA).
Correct = Hypoxanthine-guanosine phosphribosyl transferase (HGPRT).
248. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with deficiency of enzyme
a) CPK
b) ADA
[[c) HGPRT]]
d) AST
Correct = HGPRT
249. A 10-year-old child with aggressive behavior is brought with presenting

complaints of joint pain and reduced urinary output. Mother gives history of
self-mutilitative behavior (he tends to mutilate his fingers and lips).
[[a) HGPRT]]
b) ADA
c) PRPP
d) AST
Correct = HGPRT
4072
250. A 10-year-old child with aggressive behavior is brought with presenting
complaints of joint pain and reduced urinary output. Mother gives history of
self-mutilitative behavior (he tends to mutilate his fingers and lips). Which
of the following enzymes is likely to be deficient in this child?
[[a) HGPRT]]
b) ADA
c) PRPP
d) AST
Correct = HGPRT
251. An important feature of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is
a) Photophobia
b) Skin eruption
[[c) Hyperuricemia]]
d) Hyperammoniemia
Correct = Hyperuricemia
252. Complement C3b is major
[[a) Opsonin]]
b) Allergen
c) Allergen
d) Chemoattractant
Correct = Opsonin
253. Killer disease (SCID) disease is due to mutation affecting degradation of
a) Hemoglobin.
4073
b) Cholesterol.
c) Collagen.
[[d) Purines.]]
Correct = Purines.
254. The major opsonin is
[[a) C3b]]
b) C5b
c) C5b
d) C5b
Correct = C3b
255. Killer disease (SIDS) is due to deficiency of enzyme
[[a) Adenosine deaminase.]]
b) Xanthine oxidase.
c) HGPRT.
d) PDH.
Correct = Adenosine deaminase.
256. Complement C5b is major for
a) Opsonization
b) Activation of leukocytes
c) Membrane attack complex
[[d) Chemotaxis]]
Correct = Chemotaxis
4074
257. All of the following components are involved in classical pathway activation
of complement factors, EXCEPT
[[a) Adipsin]]
b) Complement C4
c) Complement C1
d) Immunoglobulins
Correct = Adipsin
258. All of the following components are involved in alternative pathway

activation of complement factors, EXCEPT
a) Factors B &D (adipsin).
b) Factor P (properdin)
c) Liopolysaccharides.
[[d) Immunoglobulins.]]
Correct = Immunoglobulins.
259. All of the following statements about phenylketonuria are correct EXCEPT
a) It can be controlled by giving a low-phenylalanine diet
b) Urinary excretion of phenylpyruvate and phenyllactate are increased
[[c) It leads to increased synthesis of thyroid hormones, catecholamines

and melanin]]
d) Phenylalanine cannot be converted to tyrosine
Correct = It leads to increased synthesis of thyroid hormones, catecholamines

and melanin
260. Formation of MAC on the surface of pathogen’s membrane is result of
a) Cascade clotting reactions
b) Cloning of plasma cells
4075
c) Differentiation T-cells
[[d) Cascade complements reactions]]
Correct = Cascade complements reactions
261. Complement C3a is major
a) Opsonin
b) Allergen
c) Antigen
[[d) Chemoattractant]]
Correct = Chemoattractant
262. Tyrosine would be essential amino acids in the diet of a child with
a) Lesch Nyhan syndrome
b) Huler’s syndrome
c) Killer disease (SIDS)
[[d) Classical phenylketonuria]]
Correct = Classical phenylketonuria
263. One of the clinical features of multiple myeloma patients is renal failure
that may be due to
a) Formation of antibodies against tubular cells.
[[b) AL-amyloidosis of tubular cells.]]
c) Acidification of urine
d) Increasing of glomeruli integrity
Correct = AL-amyloidosis of tubular cells.
4076
264. Myeloma M-protein is
[[a) Paraprotein]]
b) Misfolding protein
c) Complement 9
d) Fibrous unstable protein
Correct = Paraprotein
265. For a substance to be classified as mutagen it must cause
[[a) A change in DNA]]
b) Enzyme to denature
c) Enzyme inhibition
d) MRNA be produced
Correct = A change in DNA
266. What is specific biochemical profile of multiple myeloma patients?
[[a) Presence of Bence-Jones protein in the urine]]
b) Presence of Heinz bodies in RBCs
c) Hypocalciemia and vitamin D deficiency
d) Increase alkaline phosphatase activity
Correct = Presence of Bence-Jones protein in the urine
267. Regarding structure of protein
a) Polypeptide is branched chain protein
b) Proteins are polymers of α- and β-amino acids
c) “ Salt bond” is the synonym for peptide bond
[[d) Peptide bond is stabilized by resonance]]
Correct = Peptide bond is stabilized by resonance
4077
268. Bence-Jones proteinuria can appear in patient with
a) Ochronosis
b) Wilson disease
[[c) Multiple myeloma]]
d) Morfan syndrome
Correct = Multiple myeloma
269. The confirm the multiple myeloma diagnosis it is necessary to determine

the following substance in the patient’s urine
a) Ceruloplasmin
[[b) Bence-Jones protein]]
c) Tamm-Horsfall protein
d) Bilirubin
Correct = Bence-Jones protein
270. The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of.
[[a) The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of

(A)Dehydration of protein molecule by salt (B)Diminished protein-protein
interaction (C)Neutralization of protein molecule by salt Elimination of
non-electrolyte waste product]]
b) Diminished protein-protein interaction
c) Neutralization of protein molecule by salt
d) Elimination of non-electrolyte waste product
Correct = The phenomenon “salting out” is explained on the basis of

(A)Dehydration of protein molecule by salt (B)Diminished protein-protein
interaction (C)Neutralization of protein molecule by salt Elimination of
non-electrolyte waste product
4078
271. Bence-Jones protein is detected in the urine by
a) Nitroprusside test
[[b) Heat test]]
c) Biuret test
d) Salting out test
Correct = Heat test
272. True about ATP synthase are all, EXCEPT
a) On rotation produce 5 ATP
b) F0 unit functions as proton channel
[[c) γ subunit rotate]]
d) It is blocked by oligomycin
Correct = γ subunit rotate
273. A 70-year old man presented with back pain, osteoporosis, hypercalciemia
and loss of weight. On examination he has anemic.
[[a) Multiple myeloma]]
b) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
c) Carcinoma of the pancreas
d) Cystic fibrosis
Correct = Multiple myeloma
274. Coenzyme Q in the Electron transport chain
a) Oxidizes glucose
[[b) Transfers electrons]]
c) Transfers phosphate to ADP
4079
d) Reduced NADH
Correct = Transfers electrons
275. In chemiosmosis, ATP is produced as H+ pass through:
[[a) ATP synthase]]
b) ATP decarboxylase
c) A series of electron carriers
d) The outer mitochondrial membrane
Correct = ATP synthase
276. During aerobic respiration oxygen is
a) Oxidized
b) Catabolized
[[c) Reduced]]
d) Formed
Correct = Reduced
277. Cytochrome oxidase is inhibited by
[[a) Cyanide]]
b) Aluminium phosphatide
c) Phenobarbital
d) Carbonated beverage
Correct = Cyanide
278. 35 – year-old woman has normal blood glucose level, but increase
concentration of glucose in the urine. This condition may be bind with
4080
a) Decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
b) Decrease integrity of tubular cells
[[c) Defect in SGLT-2]]
d) Defect in SGLT-1
Correct = Defect in SGLT-2
279. Diffusion of glucose inside the RBCs requires
[[a) Specific transporter GLUT]]
b) ATP
c) Concentration gradient
d) Proton gradient
Correct = Specific transporter GLUT
280. Patient with defect of GLUT -1 has all of the following EXCEPT
a) Decrease level of CSF glucose
b) Hemolytic anemia
[[c) Decrease insulin secretion]]
d) Episodes of seizures
Correct = Decrease insulin secretion
281. Defect in SGLT - 1 may accompanying with decrease absorption of
[[a) Glucose]]
b) Fatty acids
c) Amino acids
d) Cholesterol
Correct = Glucose
4081
282. Which of the following bacteria act by increasing cAMP?
a) Salmonella
[[b) Vibrio cholera]]
c) Staphyloccus aureus
d) L-coli stable
Correct = Vibrio cholera
283. High concentration of glucose content in oral rehydration drugs is necessary

for
a) Activation of GLUT-4
b) Inhibition of G-protein
[[c) Activation of SGLT-1]]
d) Activation of SGLT-2
Correct = Activation of SGLT-1
284. After overnight fasting levels of glucose transporters is decreased in
a) Neurons
[[b) Adipocytes]]
c) Hepatocytes
d) Erythrocytes
Correct = Adipocytes
285. Peptide bonds present in
[[a) Lactase]]
b) Lactose
c) Glucose
4082
d) Cholesterol
Correct = Lactase
286. Each organism has unique combination of characteristics encoded in

molecules of.
a) Vitamins
b) Carbohydrates
c) Lipids
[[d) Protein]]
Correct = Protein
287. Phenylalanine is precursor of
a) Histamine
[[b) Tyrosine]]
c) Aspartate
d) Methionine
Correct = Tyrosine
288. MRNA is copied from DNA during a process called
a) Replication
[[b) Transcription]]
c) Translation
d) Processing
Correct = Transcription
289. The sugar found in DNA is
4083
a) Xylose
[[b) Ribose]]
c) Ribulose
d) Erythrose
Correct = Ribose
290. Dietary protein could provide precursors for the de novo synthesis in humans
of all of the following, EXCEPT.
a) Albumin
b) Oxaloacetic acid
[[c) Linoleic acid]]
d) Glutamic acid
Correct = Linoleic acid
291. Free ammonia is released during
[[a) Oxidative deamination]]
b) Transamination
c) Amination
d) All of these
Correct = Oxidative deamination
292. Extremely sensitive to ammonia toxicity
[[a) Nervous system]]
b) Erythrocytes
c) Gastrointestinal system
d) Reproductive system
Correct = Nervous system
4084
293. Ammonia transported from the muscle to liver mainly in the form of
a) Aspartate
b) Albumin-ammonia complex
[[c) Alanine]]
d) Ammonia-binding globulin
Correct = Alanine
294. Excess ammonia in the cells inhibits TCA cycle due to depletion of
a) Fumarate
b) Malonate
c) Citrate
[[d) α-ketoglutarate]]
Correct = α-ketoglutarate
295. The liver only is able to form urea because in other tissues absent enzyme
a) Carbomoyl phosphate synthase I
b) Arginosuccinate synthase
[[c) Arginase]]
d) Ornithine transcarbomoylase
Correct = Arginase
296. In response to metabolic acidosis biosynthesis of enzyme glutaminase

increases in
a) Liver
b) Brain
4085
[[c) Kidney]]
d) Skin
Correct = Kidney
297. NH3 is detoxified in muscles to
a) Urea
b) Creatinine
[[c) Alanine]]
d) Uric acid
Correct = Alanine
298. NH3 is detoxified in brain to
a) Urea
b) Creatinine
c) Uric acid
[[d) Glutamine]]
Correct = Glutamine
299. Liver’s specific enzyme is
a) Protein kinase
b) Hexokinase
[[c) Arginase]]
d) Citrate synthase
Correct = Arginase
4086
300. Organ that produces ammonia that is involved in the maintenance of acid-base
balance
a) Pancreas
b) Liver
[[c) Kidney]]
d) Stomach
Correct = Kidney
301. The significance of urea cycle is to
[[a) Detoxify ammonia]]
b) Solubilize of steroids before their excretion
c) Transport of alanine into cells
d) Pack lipid- like material into protein’s shell
Correct = Detoxify ammonia
302. Increased level of blood ammonia is risk factor for development of
[[a) Encephalopathy]]
b) Edema
c) Anemia
d) Fatty liver
Correct = Encephalopathy
303. All of the following statements about glutamine is correct EXCEPT
a) Sources of ammonia
[[b) Toxic compounds]]
c) Major aminoacid in blood
d) Present in brain
4087
Correct = Toxic compounds
304. Blood urea increase in all of the following EXCEPT
a) Renal failure
[[b) Liver cirrhosis]]
c) Decrease volume of the blood (hypovolemia)
d) Decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Correct = Liver cirrhosis
305. Which of the following compound is precursor of urea?
a) Pyrimidines
b) Cholesterol
c) Purines
[[d) Ammonia]]
Correct = Ammonia
306. Oxidative deamination is the conversion of an amino
a) Group from an amino acid to a keto acid
b) Acid to a carboxylic acid plus ammonia
[[c) Acid to a ketoacid plus ammonia]]
d) Group from an amino acid to a carboxylic acid
Correct = Acid to a ketoacid plus ammonia
307. Depletion of α-ketoglutarate during increased ammonia influx leads

formation of
a) Arginine
4088
[[b) Glutamine]]
c) Histamine
d) Ornithine
Correct = Glutamine
308. Dietary deficiency of vitamin B6 significantly affects the metabolism
[[a) Amino acids by decreasing transamination reactions]]
b) Nucleic acids by increasing synthesis
c) Fatty acids by decreasing their activation
d) Carbohydrates by increasing glucosamine synthesis
Correct = Amino acids by decreasing transamination reactions
309. An example of a transamination process is
a) Gutamate = oxaloacetate + NH3
b) Aspartate + alanine = pyruvate + oxaloacetate
[[c) Aspartate + α ketoglutarate = glutamate + oxaloacetate]]
d) Glutamate = α-ketoglutarate + NH3
Correct = Aspartate + α ketoglutarate = glutamate + oxaloacetate
310. Transamination is the process where
a) Carboxyl group is transferred from amino acid
b) α-amino group is removed from the amino acid
c) Polymerisation of amino acid takes place
[[d) None of the above]]
Correct = None of the above
4089
311. The most toxic compounds is
a) Tyrosine
[[b) Phenylpyruvate]]
c) Lysine
d) Phenylalanine
Correct = Phenylpyruvate
312. In the normal metabolism of phenylalanine, it is initially converted to
a) Fumarate
[[b) Tyrosine]]
c) Lysine
d) Phenylpuruvate
Correct = Tyrosine
313. Melanine is derived from
a) Cholesterol
[[b) Tyrosine]]
c) Bilirubin
d) Leucine
Correct = Tyrosine
314. All of the following are synthesized from tyrosine, EXCEPT
a) Melanin
[[b) Aldosterone]]
c) Thyroxin
d) Epinephrine
Correct = Aldosterone
4090
315. Homogentisic oxidase deficiency leads all of the following, EXCEPT
a) Black urine
[[b) Albinism]]
c) Arthritis
d) Ochronosis
Correct = Albinism
316. Phenylketonuria (PKU) patient can not convert
a) Phenol to ketones
[[b) Phenylalanine to tyrosine]]
c) Phenylalanine to isoleucine
d) α-ketoglutarate to glutamate
Correct = Phenylalanine to tyrosine
317. A person with phenylketonuria cannot convert phenylalanine to
a) Isoleucine
b) Lysine
[[c) Tyrosine]]
d) Serine
Correct = Tyrosine
4091
1. A person with phenylketonuria is advised not to consume which of the
following products?
[[a) Aspartam]]
b) Glucose
c) Fat
d) Cholesterol
Correct = Aspartam
2. Catecolamines are derived from
a) Bilirubin
[[b) Tyrosine]]
c) Palmitic acid
d) Cholesterol
Correct = Tyrosine
3. Phenylalanine rich diet are
a) Fruits
b) Vegetables
c) Juice
[[d) Meat]]
Correct = Meat
4. Which one of the following statements about albinic person is false?
a) Skin is hypopigmented
[[b) Mental retarded]]
c) Autoimmune destruction of melanocytes
d) Decrease activity of tyrosine hydroxylase
4092
Correct = Mental retarded
5. Maple syrup urine disease is an inborn error of metabolism of
a) Aromatic amino acids
b) Saturated fatty acids
[[c) Branched chain amino acids]]
d) Polyenic fatty acids
Correct = Branched chain amino acids
6. Cystinuria is due to
a) Increased level of blood cysteine
[[b) Defective renal reabsorption]]
c) Alkalization of urinary pH
d) Excess endogenous production
Correct = Defective renal reabsorption
7. Ochronosis is a feature of ?
a) Albinism
[[b) Alkaptonuria]]
c) Phenylketonuria
d) Tyrosinosis
8. What are repeating units of DNA
a) Bases
[[b) Nucleotides]]
4093
c) Sugars
d) Phosphates
9. Human DNA rich by nucleotides ?
[[a) A-T]]
b) G-C
c) A-U
Correct = A-T
10. Bacterial DNA rich by nucleotides?
a) A-T
[[b) G-C]]
c) A-U
Correct = G-C
11. Purine base is ?
a) Uracil
b) Thymine
[[c) Guanine]]
d) Cytosine
Correct = Guanine
12. A purine nucleotide is ?
4094
[[a) AMP]]
b) UMP
c) CMP
d) TMP
Correct = AMP
13. The symptoms of retinol excess are
a) Bone fragility
b) Nausea
c) Weakness
[[d) All of these]]
Correct = All of these
14. Main function of insulin hormone is to
a) Increase glycogen in liver
b) Decrease glycogen in liver
c) Increase blood sugar
[[d) Decrease blood sugar]]
Correct = Decrease blood sugar
15. Ascorbic acid acts as an
[[a) Reducing agent]]
b) Oxidizing agent
c) Oxidizing and reducing agent both
Correct = Reducing agent
4095
16. A deficiency of thiamin produces the disease known as
[[a) Beri-beri]]
b) Scurvy
c) Cataract
d) Anemia
Correct = Beri-beri
17. Acyl carrier protein (ACP) plays an important role in the biosynthesis of
[[a) Fatty acids]]
b) Amino acids
c) Sugars
d) Carbohydrates
18. Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) is only synthesized by
a) Fishes
[[b) Micro-organisms]]
c) Plants
d) Animals
Correct = Micro-organisms
19. Which of the following are reduced coenzymes?
[[a) NADH and FADH2]]
b) NAD+and FAD
c) ATP and GTP
d) Coenzyme A and ubiquinone
4096
Correct = NADH and FADH2
20. The absence of ascorbic acid in the human diet gives rise to
a) Rickets
[[b) Pernicious anemia]]
c) Cataract
d) Beri-beri
21. Vitamins are essential because the organism
[[a) Can't synthesize these compounds at all]]
b) Can synthesize these compounds partially
c) Can't synthesize these compounds in the adequate amounts
Correct = Can't synthesize these compounds at all
22. The prosthetic group biotin is a carrier of which type of molecule?
[[a) Activated carbon dioxide (CO2)]]
b) Ammonia
c) Methyl group
d) Sulfhydryl group
Correct = Activated carbon dioxide (CO2)
23. Lipoic acid exists in
a) Oxidized form
b) Reduced form
4097
[[c) Oxidized and reduced from both]]
d) None of these
Correct = Oxidized and reduced from both
24. Vitamins B12 is useful in the prevention and treatment of
[[a) Pernicious anemia]]
b) Scurvy
c) Cataract
d) Beri-beri
25. An example of a digestive hormone is
a) Lipase
b) Pepsin
c) Amylase
[[d) Gastrin]]
Correct = Gastrin
26. In the co-enzyme B12 the position occupied by a cyanide ion in vitamin B12
is bonded directly to _______ of the ribose of adenosine.
[[a) Adenine]]
b) 5-6 dimethylbenzimidazole
c) Hydroxycobalamin
d) Cyanocobalamin
Correct = Adenine
4098
27. The complex of RNA polymerase, DNA template and new RNA transcript is called
[[a) Transcription bubble]]
b) Replication bubble
c) A translation bubble
d) None of these
Correct = Transcription bubble
28. RNA polymerase in prokaryotes has a removable
a) Alpha subunit
b) Beta subunit
c) Gamma subunit
[[d) Sigma subunit]]
Correct = Sigma subunit
29. Promoters for tRNAs are located
a) Upstream from the start codon
[[b) Downstream from the start codon]]
c) Both(a) and (b)
d) None of these
Correct = Downstream from the start codon
30. The binding of lac repressor to DNA could be considered to be analogous to
[[a) Competitive inhibition of an enzyme]]
b) Mixed-type inhibition of an enzyme
c) Uncompetitive inhibition of an enzyme
d) Allosteric efforts in enzyme regulation
Correct = Competitive inhibition of an enzyme
4099
31. Rho-dependent termination of transcription in E. coli
a) Requires ATP
b) Requires about 50 nucleotides of uncomplexed mRNA
[[c) Both(a) and (b)]]
d) Removes mRNA and holoenzyme from the DNA
Correct = Both(a) and (b)
32. Enhancers are regions that
a) Bind RNA polymerase
b) Are adjacent to the TATA box
c) Are CAT box binding proteins
[[d) Modulate transcription]]
Correct = Modulate transcription
33. The conformational changes from the T to the R state is initiated by
[[a) Binding of oxygen to the heme]]
b) Movement of the proximal histidine towards the heme
c) Movement of the F-helix, which contains the proximal His
d) Reorganization of protein-protein contacts between the individual

subunits
Correct = Binding of oxygen to the heme
34. An allosteric activator
[[a) Increases the binding affinity]]
b) Decreases the binding affinity
4100
c) Decreases the R state of the protein
d) Stabilizes the M state of the protein
Correct = Increases the binding affinity
35. Bisphosphoglycerate (BPG) cannot bind to the oxygenated R state of hemoglobin

because
a) It is displaced from the heme by oxygen
b) It is displaced from the heme by movement of the proximal histidine
[[c) Its binding pocket becomes too small to accommodate BPG]]
d) BPG binds to the R state with the same affinity as the T state
Correct = Its binding pocket becomes too small to accommodate BPG
36. The Hill coefficient (nH) for myoglobin and hemoglobin are respectively
a) 2.8 and 1.0
[[b) 1.0 and 2.8]]
c) 1.2 and 4.5
d) 4.5 and 1.2
Correct = 1.0 and 2.8
37. When protein binds two ligands in a non-cooperative manner, then the
x-intercept of the Scatchard
a) 1
[[b) 2]]
c) Not defined
Correct = 2
4101
38. O2 binding to hemoglobin results in
[[a) 100-fold higher affinity for the last O2 bound than for the first]]
b) Extensive lipid confirmational change
c) 50-fold lower affinity for the last O2 bound than for the first
d) 100-fold lower affinity for the last O2 bound than for the first
Correct = 100-fold higher affinity for the last O2 bound than for the first
39. In hemoglobin, allosteric effects occur
a) Only in humans
b) For maintaining Fe in the Fe2+ state
c) To minimize oxygen delivery to the tissues
[[d) To maximize oxygen delivery to the tissues]]
Correct = To maximize oxygen delivery to the tissues
40. A protein that binds two ligands in a non-cooperative manner will show
a) A sigmodial binding curve
[[b) A hyperbolic binding curve]]
c) A circular Scatchard Plot
d) A 'L ' shaped binding curve
Correct = A hyperbolic binding curve
41. Small molecules affect hemoglobin (Hb) by
a) Decreasing Hb affinity for 02
b) Increasing [H +]
c) Increasing Hb affinity for 02
[[d) Increasing [H +] and decreasing Hb affinity for 02]]
4102
Correct = Increasing [H +] and decreasing Hb affinity for 02
42. The specificity of a ligand binding site on a protein is based on
a) The absence of competing ligands
[[b) The amino acid residues lining the binding site]]
c) The presence of hydrating water molecules
d) The opposite chirality of the binding ligand
Correct = The amino acid residues lining the binding site
43. Histidine is degraded to a-ketoglutarate and is described as a
a) Gluco amino acid
[[b) Glucogenic amino acid]]
c) Ketogenic amino acid
d) Keto-gluco amino acid
Correct = Glucogenic amino acid
44. Which of the following amino acids is considered as both ketogenic and
glucogenic?
a) Valine
[[b) Tryptophan]]
c) Lysine
d) None of these
45. A glucogenic amino acid is one which is degraded to
a) Keto-sugars
4103
b) Either acetyl CoA or acetoacetyl CoA
[[c) Pyruvate or citric acid cycle intermediates]]
Correct = Pyruvate or citric acid cycle intermediates
46. Which of the following is the best described glucogenic amino acid?
a) Lysine
b) Tryptophan
[[c) Valine]]
d) None of these
Correct = Valine
47. A person with phenylketonuria cannot convert
[[a) Phenylalanine to tyrosine]]
b) Phenylalanine to isoleucine
c) Phenol into ketones
d) Phenylalanine to lysine
Correct = Phenylalanine to tyrosine
48. Oxidative deamination is the conversion of an amino,
a) Group from an amino acid to a keto acid
b) Acid to a carboxylic acid plus ammonia
[[c) Acid to a keto acid plus ammonia]]
Correct = Acid to a keto acid plus ammonia
4104
49. An example of a transamination process
a) Glutamate = hexanoic acid + NH3
b) Aspartate + hexanoic acid = glutamate + oxaloacetate
[[c) Aspartate + a ketoglutarate = glutamate + oxaloacetate]]
d) Glutamate = a-ketoglutarate + NH3
Correct = Aspartate + a ketoglutarate = glutamate + oxaloacetate
50. Transamination is the process where.
a) Carboxyl group is transferred from amino acid
[[b) A-amino group is removed from the amino acid]]
c) Polymerisation of amino acid takes place
Correct = A-amino group is removed from the amino acid
51. The most toxic compounds is.
a) Tyrosine
c) Lysine
d) Phenylalanine
52. A person with phenylketonuria is advised not to consume which of the following
products?
a) Glycine containing foods
b) Fat containing food
c) Glucose
[[d) Aspartame]]
4105
Correct = Aspartame
53. Tyrosine is degraded to acetoacetyl CoA and fumarate and is described as

a
a) Glucogenic amino acid
b) Ketogenic amino acid
[[c) Ketogenic and glucogenic amino acid]]
d) Keto-gluco amino acid
Correct = Ketogenic and glucogenic amino acid
54. Transaminase enzymes are present in
[[a) Liver]]
b) Pancreas
c) Intestine
d) None of these
Correct = Liver
55. An example of the oxidative deamination is
a) Glutamate = hexanoic acid + NH3
b) Aspartate + a-ketoglutarate = glutamate + oxaloacetate
[[c) Glutamate = a-ketoglutarate + NH3]]
d) Aspartate + hexanoic acid = glutamate + Oxaloacetate
Correct = Glutamate = a-ketoglutarate + NH3
56. In the normal breakdown of phenylalanine, it is initially degraded to
a) Fumarate
4106
[[b) Tyrosine]]
c) Lysine
d) Phenylpuruvate
Correct = Tyrosine
57. Transamination is the transfer of an amino
a) Acid to a carboxylic acid plus ammonia
[[b) Group from an amino acid to a keto acid]]
c) Acid to a keto acid plus ammonia
Correct = Group from an amino acid to a keto acid
58. Lysine is degraded to acetoacetyl CoA and is described as a
[[a) Ketogenic amino acid]]
b) Glucogenic amino acid
c) Keto-gluco amino acid
d) None of these
Correct = Ketogenic amino acid
59. A ketogenic amino acid is one which degrades to
a) Keto-sugars
[[b) Either acetyl CoA or acetoacetyl CoA]]
c) Pyruvate or citric acid cycle intermediates
d) Multiple intermediates including pyruvate or citric acid cycle

intermediates and acetyl CoA or acetoacetyl CoA
Correct = Either acetyl CoA or acetoacetyl CoA
4107
60. A best described ketogenic amino acid is
[[a) Lysine]]
b) Tryptophan
c) Valine
d) None of these
Correct = Lysine
61. A person suffering from phenylketonuria on consumption food containing high

a) Phenylalanine
c) Tyrosine
d) Isoleucine
62. Which of those immunoglobulin classes is mainly found in external secretions?
[[a) IgA]]
b) IgD
c) IgM
d) IgE
Correct = IgA
63. Cleavage of an lgG molecule by a specific protease can produce
a) An antigen-binding site and two constant regions
b) Two heavy chain-light chain dimers
c) An inactive mixture of oligopeptides
4108
[[d) Two Fab fragments and one Fe fragment]]
Correct = Two Fab fragments and one Fe fragment
64. Papain digest lgG into
[[a) Two Fab fragments and one Fe fragment]]
b) Three Fab fragments and two Fe fragments
c) Two Fab fragments and two Fe fragments
d) Three Fab fragments and three Fe fragments
Correct = Two Fab fragments and one Fe fragment
65. Antibodies can be used
a) For the localization of proteins in the cell
b) For protein purification
c) To catalyze chemical reactions
66. Type A blood
[[a) Can be used to donate to type AB individuals]]
b) Can be used to donate to type B individuals
c) Contains type B antigens on the surface of red blood cells
d) Can always be used to donate to an Rh+ individual
Correct = Can be used to donate to type AB individuals
67. Which of the following are responsible for immune specificity?
a) Antigens
4109
[[b) Antibodies]]
c) T lymphocytes
d) Macrophage
Correct = Antibodies
68. Which species lack immunoglobulin light chains?
[[a) Camels]]
b) Humans
c) Cows
d) Buffalo
Correct = Camels
69. Monoclonal refers to
a) A single clone of antibody-producing cells
b) All the antibody molecules which are identical
c) The binding with same antigenic site with identical binding affinities
70. β-Lymphocytes are often called simply
[[a) B cells]]
b) Tcells
c) T Lymphocytes
d) None of these
Correct = B cells
4110
71. IgE provides
[[a) Immunity against some parasites]]
b) Complement killings of the cells and phagocytosis
c) Secretions in the body
d) All of the above
Correct = Immunity against some parasites
72. Fab fragment has
[[a) One antigen binding site]]
b) Two antigen binding site
c) One antibody binding site
d) Two antibody binding site
Correct = One antigen binding site
73. The main function of antibodies is to
a) Kill all the foreign bodies
b) Generate antigens, thus conferring immunization
c) Protect the circulatory system
[[d) Chemically combine with the antigen which induces it, inactivate the
antigen and protect the body from disease]]
Correct = Chemically combine with the antigen which induces it, inactivate the
antigen and protect the body from disease
74. Alum is an effective adjuvant because it
a) Disaggregates the antigen.
b) Is immunogenic for stem cells
[[c) Is immunogenic for T cells]]
4111
d) Slows the release of antigen
Correct = Is immunogenic for T cells
75. A secondary antibody is an antibody that
a) Has been used in prior experiments
b) Is synthetically produced
[[c) Binds to another antibody]]
d) Is produced in boostered animals
Correct = Binds to another antibody
76. The immunoglobulin fold is
a) Found only in IgG molecules
[[b) A fl-barrel composed of a three- and a four-stranded antiparallel

fl-sheet]]
c) Found only in IgM molecules
d) Found six times in the IgG molecule
Correct = A fl-barrel composed of a three- and a four-stranded antiparallel

fl-sheet
77. For specific antigen recognition by T cells,
a) Antigen is bound by a T cell membrane antibody
[[b) Denaturation of antigen does not reduce epitope recognition]]
c) MHC molecules are not required
d) Antigen exposure during T cell maturation is required
Correct = Denaturation of antigen does not reduce epitope recognition
4112
78. Antigen, when injected in the body activates its specific lymphocytes in
the
a) Blood circulation
[[b) Draining lymph nodes]]
c) MALT (mucosa associated
d) Spleen lymphoid tissue
Correct = Draining lymph nodes
79. A molecule that can be covalently linked to a non-immunogenic antigen to

make it an immunogen is called a (n)
a) Adjuvant
[[b) Carrier]]
c) Hapten
d) Mitogen
Correct = Carrier
80. Which of the following is incorrect with regard to antigen epitopes?
a) An epitope may be shared by two different antigens
b) A protein molecule usually contains multiple epitopes
[[c) B cells bind only processed antigen epitopes]]
d) Epitopes may be linear or assembled
Correct = B cells bind only processed antigen epitopes
81. Very low doses of antigen may induce
a) Hypersensitivity
b) Immunological ignorance
[[c) Low zone tolerance]]
4113
d) Low zone immunity
Correct = Low zone tolerance
82. During the lag period between antigen contact and detection of adaptive
immunity,
a) Antigen is hidden from the immune system in macrophages
[[b) Innate immune effectors are eliminating antigen]]
c) Innate immunity blocks the activation of adaptive immune effector cells
d) New B and T cells with the appropriate antigen specificity must be

produced in the bone marrow
Correct = Innate immune effectors are eliminating antigen
83. Lymphocytes are activated by antigen in the
a) Blood stre
b) Bone marrow
c) Liver
[[d) Lymph nodes]]
Correct = Lymph nodes
84. A pathogen can be a (n)
a) Agent that causes a disease
b) Virus
c) Bacteria
[[d) All of All of these]]
Correct = All of All of these
4114
85. CD antigens
a) Allow leukocytes to recognize antigen
b) Are each expressed on only one cell type
c) Are expressed on immune cells to mark them for separation
[[d) Function as receptors for cytokine and CAMs]]
Correct = Function as receptors for cytokine and CAMs
86. A virus vaccine that can activate cytotoxic T cells must contain
a) A high dose of virus particles
b) An adjuvant to stimulate T cell division
[[c) Live virus]]
d) Virus peptides
Correct = Live virus
87. The ability of an antigen to induce an immune response does not depend on
the antigen's
[[a) Ability to enter the thyroid]]
b) Degree of aggregation
c) Dose
d) Size
Correct = Ability to enter the thyroid
88. The antibiotic penicillin is a small molecule that does not induce antibody
formation. However, penicillin binds to serum proteins and forms a complex that
in some people induces antibody formation resulting in an allergic reaction.
Penicillin is therefore
a) An antigen
b) Ahapten
4115
c) An immunogen
[[d) Both an antigen and a hapten]]
Correct = Both an antigen and a hapten
89. Membrane potential and the proton gradient
[[a) Are both required to make ATP]]
b) Are sufficient, separately, to make ATP from ADP + Pi;
c) Reinforce one another when respiratory inhibitors are present
d) Cancel one another when uncouplers are present
Correct = Are both required to make ATP
90. The irreversibility of the thiokinase reactions (formation of initial

acyl-CoA?
[[a) Make this activation reaction the committed step on the pathway]]
b) Is NOT due to the subsequent hydrolysis of the product
c) Applies only to even-chain fatty acids
d) Applies only to even-chain amino acids
Correct = Make this activation reaction the committed step on the pathway
91. Long-chain fatty acids are oxidized step-wise in one carbon units starting
from the
[[a) Carboxyl end]]
b) Aliphatic end
c) Aromatic end
d) Amino end
Correct = Carboxyl end
4116
92. How many molecules of acetyl-CoA are produced in oxidation of palmitic acid
(C16), which involves seven rounds of oxidation?
a) 6
b) 7
[[c) 8]]
d) 9
Correct = 8
93. The oxidation of methanol ( wood alcohol) in human retina tissue leads
directly to the formation of
[[a) Formaldehyde]]
b) Sugars
c) C02
d) None of these
Correct = Formaldehyde
94. The maximum energy per gram on oxidization is yielded from.
[[a) Fat]]
b) Protein
c) Glycogen
d) Starch
Correct = Fat
95. The oxidation of methanol (wood alcohol) in human retina tissue indirectly
leads to
a) Pressure builds up
b) Colour blindness
4117
[[c) Blindness]]
d) All of these
Correct = Blindness
96. Each cycle of fl-oxidation produces
a) 1 FADH2, 1 NAD+, and 1 acetyl-CoA
[[b) 1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 1 acetyl-CoA]]
c) 1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 2 CO2 molecules
d) 1 FAD, 1 NAD+ and 2 CO2 molecules
Correct = 1 FADH2, 1 NADH and 1 acetyl-CoA
97. The three identical b subunits of the F1, complex during ATP synthesis have
a) Different affinities for ATP but not for ADP
b) Different affinities for ADP but not for ATP
[[c) Different affinities for ATP and for ADP]]
d) Similar affinities for ADP and ATP
Correct = Different affinities for ATP and for ADP
98. Where the acyl-CoA formed in the cytosol is transported for oxidation?
[[a) Mitochondrial matrix]]
b) Microsomes
d) Remains in cytosol
Correct = Mitochondrial matrix
4118
99. The transport of acyl-CoA for oxidation using a shuttle involves formation
of the intermediate
a) 3 acetyl-CoA
b) Aldehyde-coenzyme A
[[c) Acyl-coenzyme A]]
d) None of these
Correct = Acyl-coenzyme A
100. Fructose is metabolized by
[[a) Fructose I-phosphate pathway]]
b) Fructose 8-phosphate pathway
c) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate pathway
d) Galactose pathway
Correct = Fructose I-phosphate pathway
101. A common way that cells capture the energy released during the breakdown
of large molecules is to add electrons to smaller, specialized molecules that
can accept them. This process of electron acceptance is otherwise known as
a) Biosynthesis
b) Metabolism
[[c) Reduction]]
d) Catalysis
Correct = Reduction
102. Humans are unable to digest.
a) Starch
b) Complex carbohydrates
c) Denatured proteins
4119
[[d) Cellulose]]
Correct = Cellulose
103. How many ATP equivalents per mole of glucose input are required for
gluconeogenesis?
a) 2
[[b) 6]]
c) 8
d) 4
Correct = 6
104. Which of the following compounds is responsible for coordinated regulation

of glucose and glycogen metabolism?
a) NAD+
[[b) Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate]]
c) Acetyl-CoA
d) Fructose 1,6 bisphosphate
Correct = Fructose 2,6 bisphosphate
105. Gluconeogenesis requires a higher amount of ATP equivalents as compared

to that produced by glycolysis because
a) Gluconeogenesis releases energy as heat
[[b) Glycolysis releases energy as heat]]
c) Glycolysis occurs in the mitochondria while gluconeogenesis occurs in

the cytosol
d) All of the above
Correct = Glycolysis releases energy as heat
4120
106. Which of the following is carried out when cAMP functions as a second
messenger?
a) Acts second in importance to AMP
b) Activates all cytosolic protein kinases
[[c) Activates the cAMP-dependent protein kinase]]
d) Acts outside the cell to influence cellular processes
Correct = Activates the cAMP-dependent protein kinase
107. The production or break down of ______ is often coupled with the metabolic
reactions of biosynthesis and catabolism.
a) Aspirin
b) DNA
[[c) ATP]]
d) C02
Correct = ATP
108. The cells dependent solely on glucose as an energy source are
a) Muscle cells
[[b) Brain cells]]
c) Kidney cells
d) Liver cells
Correct = Brain cells
109. The main site for gluconeogenesis is
a) Kidney
[[b) Liver]]
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c) Brain
d) Muscle
Correct = Liver
110. Which of the following statements about the energy needs of cells is false?
a) Without a continuous input of energy, cell disorder will increase
b) The laws of thermodynamics force cells to acquire energy
c) Many cellular reactions have an associated activation energy
[[d) The most usable energy for cells comes from the rapid combustion of
glucose]]
Correct = The most usable energy for cells comes from the rapid combustion of
glucose
111. In lysozyme catalysis, which of the following does not contribute?
a) The abnormally high pKa of Glu35
b) The strained conformation of the D sugar
c) Formation of a covalent intermediate at Asp52
[[d) Formation of a covalent intermediate at Ser195]]
Correct = Formation of a covalent intermediate at Ser195
112. Cellulose fibers resemble with the protein structure in the form of
[[a) B-sheets]]
b) A-helices
c) B-turns
d) None of these
Correct = B-sheets
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113. During vigorous exercise, pyruvate produced by glycolysis is converted to
a) Acetate
[[b) Lactate]]
c) Monosodium phosphate
d) Pyruvic acid
Correct = Lactate
114. Glucagon and epinephrine
a) Inhibits gluconeogenesis and stimulates glycolysis
b) Stimulates gluconeogenesis and glycolysis
[[c) Stimulates gluconeogenesis and inhibits glycolysis]]
d) Inhibits gluconeogenesis and glycolysis
Correct = Stimulates gluconeogenesis and inhibits glycolysis
115. The NAG6 substrate is hydrolyzed by human lysozyme to form
a) 6 glucosamines + 6 acetic acids
[[b) NAG4 + NAG2]]
c) NAG3 + NAG3
d) NAG3
Correct = NAG4 + NAG2
116. Gluconeogenesis uses
a) ATPs and 2 GTPs per glucose
b) 2 ATPs and 1 GTPs per glucose
c) 3 ATPs and 3 GTPs per glucose
[[d) 4 ATPs and 2 GTPs per glucose]]
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Correct = 4 ATPs and 2 GTPs per glucose
117. Saliva contains all of the following EXCEPT :
[[a) Hormones]]
b) Amylase
c) Bacteria-killing enzymes
d) Antibodies
Correct = Hormones
118. The conversion ofpyruvate to oxaloacetate
[[a) Requires biotin]]
b) Involves the fixation of carbon dioxide
c) Occurs in the mitochondria
d) All of the above
Correct = Requires biotin
119. Gluconeogenesis is the
a) Formation of glycogen
b) Breakdown of glucose to pyruvate
c) Breakdown of glycogen to glucose
[[d) Synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors]]
Correct = Synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors
120. Hydrolysis oflactose yields
a) Galactose and fructose
[[b) Galactose and glucose]]
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c) Glucose and fructose
d) Fructose and galactose
Correct = Galactose and glucose
121. Two major products of pentose phosphate pathway are
[[a) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide and ribose 5-phosphate]]
b) Flavine adenine dinuclueotide and glucose 5-phosphate
c) FAD and CoA
d) NADPH and NAD
Correct = Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide and ribose 5-phosphate
122. A catabolic intermediate which stimulates phosphofructokinase would

stimulate.
a) Gluconeogenesis
[[b) Glycolysis]]
d) None of these
123. Pyruvate is initially converted to which of the following in the

gluconeogenesis?
a) Glycerol
b) Phosphoenol pyruvate
[[c) Oxaloacetate]]
d) Acetyl CoA
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124. Boat and chair conformations are found
[[a) In pyranose sugars]]
b) In any sugar without axial -OH groups
c) In any sugar without equatorial-OH groups
d) Only in D-glucopyranose
Correct = In pyranose sugars
125. The conversion of pyruvate to lactate is catalysed by
[[b) Lactate dehydrogenase]]
c) Pyruvate dismutase
d) Pyruvate decarboxylase
126. Which of the following can act as precursors for gluconeogenesis?
a) Lactate
b) Glycerol
c) Alanine
[[d) All of these]]
127. A-amylose is similar to
a) B-sheets
b) B-turned coils
[[c) A-helices]]
d) The hydrophobic core
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Correct = A-helices
128. Storage polysaccharide made by animals is.
a) Amylopectin
[[b) Glycogen]]
c) Cellulose
d) Collagen
Correct = Glycogen
129. The glycosidic bond
a) In maltose is not hydrolyzed in lactose intolerant humans
b) In sucrose is not hydrolyzed by bees
[[c) Joins glucose and fructose to form sucrose]]
d) In maltose is not hydrolyzed in fructose intolerant humans
Correct = Joins glucose and fructose to form sucrose
130. The sugar which forms major component of nucleic acids is
[[a) Ribose]]
b) Galactose
c) Mannose
d) Maltose
Correct = Ribose
131. Under aerobic condition pyruvate is converted by pyruvate dehydrogenase

to
a) Phosphoenol pyruvate
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[[b) Acetyl CoA]]
c) Lactate
d) Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate
132. Which of the following is not a disaccharide?.
[[a) Amylose]]
b) Cellobiose
c) Lactose
d) None of these
Correct = Amylose
133. Hexokinase activity in glycolysis is inhibited by
[[a) Glucose 6- phosphate]]
b) Fructose 6-phosphate
c) Fructose 1,6 biphosphate
d) Phosphofructokinase
Correct = Glucose 6- phosphate
134. The ultimate source of energy that sustains living systems is
a) Glucose
b) Oxygen
[[c) Sunlight]]
d) Carbon dioxide
Correct = Sunlight
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135. Citric acid accumulation would
a) Stimulate phosphofructokinase activity
[[b) Stimulate fructose 1,6 diphosphatase activity]]
c) Do not Inhibit phosphofructokinase activity
d) Stimulate phosphoglycerate activity
Correct = Stimulate fructose 1,6 diphosphatase activity
136. Which of the following is not involved in the biosynthesis of DNA?
a) Energy from ATP
b) Mononucleotides
[[c) Carbonic anhydrase]]
d) Enzymes
Correct = Carbonic anhydrase
137. Which of the following would be considered a part of metabolism?.
a) Biosynthetic pathways that build DNA
b) Catabolic pathways that break down complex carbohydrates
c) The capture of light energy for use in making glucose
138. INSULIN
a) Stimulates gluconeogenesis and glycolysis
b) Stimulates gluconeogenesis and inhibits glycolysis
c) Inhibits gluconeogenesis and glycolysis
[[d) Inhibits gluconeogenesis and stimulates glycolysis]]
Correct = Inhibits gluconeogenesis and stimulates glycolysis
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139. What is present in the stomach to prevent self-digestion?
[[a) Mucus]]
b) Acid
c) Enzymes
d) Hormones
Correct = Mucus
140. Small charged molecules, often biogenic amines function as
[[a) Hormones]]
b) Neuroinhibitors
c) Enzyme associations
d) Enzyme denaturation
Correct = Hormones
141. SH2 domains specifically bind to
a) Phosphorylated serine residues
[[b) Phosphorylated tyrosine residues]]
c) GDP
d) Ca2+
Correct = Phosphorylated tyrosine residues
142. Simple nerve reflexes use signaling molecules called
[[a) Neurotransmitters]]
b) Nitric oxides
c) G proteins
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d) Proteases
Correct = Neurotransmitters
143. Which of the following is not a type of signaling molecule
a) Testosterone
b) Insulin
c) Thyroxin
[[d) Adenylate cyclas]]
Correct = Adenylate cyclas
144. Self-phosphorylation is an excellent mechanism for triggering specific

catalytic function of the proteins involved in signal cascades because it
[[a) Changes the shape and thus the enzymatic activity of the proteins
involved]]
b) Makes the receptor more likely to capture the signaling, molecule
c) Allows hydrophilic signaling molecules to cross the plasma membrane
Correct = Changes the shape and thus the enzymatic activity of the proteins
involved
145. Which of the following statements about G proteins is false?
a) They are involved in signal cascades
b) They bind to and are regulated by guanine nucleotides
[[c) They become activated when bound to GDP]]
d) They must be active before the cell can make needed cAMP
Correct = They become activated when bound to GDP
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146. When a................. reaches its......................here is a
specific means of receiving it and acting on the message.
a) Signaling molecule; receptor; G proteins
b) Signaling molecule; target cell; G proteins
[[c) Signaling molecule; target cell; receptors]]
d) Kinase; receptor; proteases
Correct = Signaling molecule; target cell; receptors
147. Why is it that inhaling nitric oxide reduces blood pressure only in the
lung tissue and not elsewhere in the body*?
a) Because other body tissues use a different signaling molecule
b) Because nitric oxide cannot cross cell membranes and enter the blood
[[c) Because nitric oxide breaks down quickly and thus cannot travel far]]
Correct = Because nitric oxide breaks down quickly and thus cannot travel far
148. Which of the following comes under the category of cell surface receptor?
a) Enzyme linked receptors
b) Ion-channel linked receptors
c) G protein linked receptors
[[d) All of these]]
149. Which of the following is true about a hydrophilic signaling molecule?
a) Its receptor is located in the cytosol of the target cell
[[b) It might trigger a signal cascade that causes some effect in a cell]]
c) Since it can enter the cell, it directly affects some specific cell
process
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d) It is a steroid
Correct = It might trigger a signal cascade that causes some effect in a cell
150. CAMP and cGMP are derived from
[[a) ATP and GTP by the actions of adenylate cyclase and guanylate cyclase
respectively]]
b) GTP and ATPnone of the above by the actions of adenylate cyclase and
guanylate cyclase respectively
c) ATP and GTP by the actions of guanylate cyclase and adenylate cyclase
respectively
Correct = ATP and GTP by the actions of adenylate cyclase and guanylate cyclase
respectively
151. Nitroglycerin has long been administered to human patients suffering from
chronic chest pain (angina). This medication works because it
a) Mimics the action of signal receptors
b) Is broken down into hormones that affect the heart
c) Interferes with chemical cascades that trigger contraction of heart

muscle
[[d) Breaks down into nitric oxide, which increases blood flow to the heart]]
Correct = Breaks down into nitric oxide, which increases blood flow to the heart
152. If a disease of the blood vessels caused the endothelial cells of the vessel
to die, what effect would that have on the cellular activities associated with
vasodilation?
a) Nitric oxide would no longer be produced
b) Smooth muscle cells could not be made to relax
c) It would be more difficult to increase blood flow and reduce blood

pressure
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153. In terms of cell communication, what do bacterial pathogens such as cholera

and anthrax have in common?
a) They destroy the receptors for key signaling molecules
b) They prevent the production of key signaling molecules
c) They alter the chemical structure of key signaling molecules
[[d) They block the normal functioning of signal transduction mechanisms]]
Correct = They block the normal functioning of signal transduction mechanisms
154. What is the name of the protein signaling molecule that alters glucose uptake,
and where would its receptors be located?
[[a) Insulin; many different cell types that use glucose for fuel]]
b) Insulin; beta cells of the pancreas
c) PDGF; the blood
d) NGF; the nerves involved in simple reflexes
Correct = Insulin; many different cell types that use glucose for fuel
155. In the signal transduction mechanism known as protein phosphorylation
a) The signaling molecule binds to a surface receptor
b) Receptor kinases play a key role in triggering the signal cascade
c) Phosphorylated proteins act with enzymes to trigger the signal cascade
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156. Cell signaling can be classified into
[[a) Three distinct types based on the distance over which the signaling
molecules act]]
b) Two distinct types based on the distance over which the signaling
molecules act
c) Three distinct types based on the signaling molecules
Correct = Three distinct types based on the distance over which the signaling
molecules act
157. Which of the following statement is correct?
[[a) Cell communicate with one another in multicellular organisms using

extracellular signaling molecules or hormones]]
b) Cell communicate with one another in unicellular organisms using

extracellular signaling antigen and antibody
c) Cell communicate with one another in multicellular organisms using

intracellular signaling molecules only
d) Cell communicate with one another in unicellular organisms using

intracellular signaling antigen and antibody
Correct = Cell communicate with one another in multicellular organisms using

extracellular signaling molecules or hormones
158. In vasodilation, proper nerve signals sent to blood vessels cause
a) The release of nitric oxide from endothelial cells
b) Relaxation of smooth muscle cells
c) Reduced blood pressure
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159. A cell is known to respond to a particular signaling molecule. Which of
the following must be true of this cell?
a) It is in the heart muscle
b) It is also the site of production for the signaling molecule
[[c) It contains the receptor for the signaling molecule]]
d) It is incapable of signal transduction
Correct = It contains the receptor for the signaling molecule
160. The enzyme that catalyzes the splitting of PIP2 into two molecules of
inositol triphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol in cell signaling, is
a) Phosphokinase C
[[b) Phospholipase C]]
c) Phosphodiesterase C
d) Lipokinase
Correct = Phospholipase C
161. The binding ofligands to many G-proteins linked receptors leads to

shortlived
[[a) Increase in the concentration of certain intracellular signaling

molecules called second messenger]]
b) Decrease in the concentration of certain intracellular signaling

molecules called second messenger
c) Increase in the concentration of certain extracellular signaling

molecules called first messenger
d) Decrease in the concentration of certain extracellular signaling

molecules called first messenger
Correct = Increase in the concentration of certain intracellular signaling

molecules called second messenger
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162. Which of the following processes involve the combining of a message from
one signaling molecule with that of another o either enhance or inhibit a cellular
effect?
a) Signal transduction
b) Signal reception
[[c) Signal integration]]
d) Signal amplification
Correct = Signal integration
163. A signal cascade induced by adrenaline or thyroxine
a) Must begin with receipt of the signal molecule by a surface receptor
b) Involves the activation of a G protein
c) Results in the activation of a sequence of enzymes needed for the cell

effect
164. Which of the following is a second messenger?
[[a) Lnositol 1,4,5-triphosphate]]
b) Diacyl inositol
c) Phospholipase C
d) Deoxy acetophosphate C
Correct = Lnositol 1,4,5-triphosphate
165. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
a) The principal lipophilic hormones that binds to receptors located in

the plasma membranes are prostaglandins
b) Prostaglandins are synthesized from arachidonic acid
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c) Prostaglandins act as paracrine signaling molecules
166. Two key organizing principles for large multicellular organisms are
a) Prokaryotic cell structure and cell specialization
b) Cell specialization and communication between cells
[[c) Communication between cells and simple nerve reflexes]]
d) Simple nerve reflexes and cell specialization
Correct = Communication between cells and simple nerve reflexes
167. Which of the following is a hormone whose action requires a cell surface
receptor?
a) Nitric oxide
b) Progesterone
[[c) Adrenaline]]
d) Growth factors
Correct = Adrenaline
168. The hormone or ligand can be considered as
[[a) First messenger]]
b) Second messenger
c) Third messenger
d) Fourth messenger
Correct = First messenger
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169. The major second messengers are
a) CAMP
b) CGMP
c) DAG
[[d) All of these]]
170. The signaling molecules called steroid hormones
[[a) Are made in one location of the body but have their effects some distance
away]]
b) Are hydrophilic and so cannot penetrate the plasma membrane
c) Bind to cell surface receptors to trigger chemical cascades
d) Never enter the blood of humans
Correct = Are made in one location of the body but have their effects some distance
away
171. Which of the following two organelles look most alike structurally?
a) Nucleus and vesicle
[[b) Golgi apparatus and smooth endoplasmic reticulum ER]]
c) Vacuole and cytoskeleton
d) Lysosome and chloroplast
Correct = Golgi apparatus and smooth endoplasmic reticulum ER
172. In terms of basic cell structure, what do an elephant and an oak tree have
in common?
a) They both are eukaryotes
b) They both have a cell nucleus
c) They both have mitochondria
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173. Where in a eukaryotic cell, DNA can be found?
[[a) Nucleus]]
b) Cytoplasm
c) Vacuole
d) Cell junction
Correct = Nucleus
174. Which of the following structures is expected in a bacterium?
a) Nucleus
[[b) Plasma membrane]]
c) Golgi apparatus
Correct = Plasma membrane
175. Which of the following organelles is directly connected to the outer

membrane of the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?
a) Mitochondrion
b) Lysosome
c) Golgi apparatus
[[d) Endoplasmic reticulum]]
Correct = Endoplasmic reticulum
176. Microtubules, motor proteins, and actin filaments are all part of
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a) The mechanism of photosynthesis that occurs in chloroplasts
b) The rough ER (endoplasmic reticulum) in prokaryotic cells
[[c) The cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells]]
d) The process that moves small molecules across cell membranes
Correct = The cytoskeleton of eukaryotic cells
177. A certain cell organelle which is made of a double phospholipid bilayer

that has many large pores in it, is most likely
[[a) The nuclear envelope]]
b) The plasma membrane
c) The mitochondrion
d) The cytoskeleton
Correct = The nuclear envelope
178. Which of the following cell organelles are expected to be associated with
motor proteins?
a) Smooth ER
[[b) Vesicles]]
c) Plasma membrane
d) Chloroplasts
Correct = Vesicles
179. Eukaryotic cells are more efficient than prokaryotes because their internal
a) Makes each compartment nutritionally independent of all others
[[b) Allows for specialization through the subdivision of particular tasks]]
c) Allows for specialization through merging of different tasks
d) Reduces overall cell size
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Correct = Allows for specialization through the subdivision of particular tasks
180. An organism’s first line of defense against attack by an invader such as

a virus or bacterium is usually
a) To flee or hide
[[b) Its body wall]]
c) A specific immune response
d) A nonspecific immune response
Correct = Its body wall
181. The simplest way to differentiate a prokaryotic cell from a eukaryotic one
is to
a) Look for a plasma membrane
[[b) See if a nucleus is present]]
c) Check for the presence of DNA
d) Determine if the cell is an entire organism or not
Correct = See if a nucleus is present
182. Which of the following is the best criterion for deciding whether a cell
is prokaryotic or eukaryotic?
a) The cell came from a single-celled or multicelled organism
[[b) The cell has a nucleus or not]]
c) The cell has cytosol or not
d) DNA is present in the cell or not
Correct = The cell has a nucleus or not
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183. Lysosomes are specialized vesicles in __________ that contain digestive
enzymes for the breakdown of food. A related organalle known as a vacuole, which
is found in __________ , also contains enzymes but in addition may act as a storage
organelle for nutrients or water.
[[a) Animals; plants and fungi]]
b) Plants; animals and fungi
c) Plants and fungi; animals
d) Animals and plants; fungi
Correct = Animals; plants and fungi
184. The highly folded membranes found in such eukaryotic organelles as

mitochondria and chloroplasts
[[a) Increase the surface area where key chemical processes can occur]]
b) Help the cell against physical damage
c) Make it possible to package large amounts of DNA within the cell
d) Assist with cell movement
Correct = Increase the surface area where key chemical processes can occur
185. Thin layer chromatography is
a) Partition chromatography
b) Electrical mobility of ionic species
[[c) Adsorption chromatography]]
Correct = Adsorption chromatography
186. In gas chromatography, the basis for separation of the components of the
volatile material is the difference in
[[a) Partition coefficients]]
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b) Conductivity
c) Molecular weight
d) Molarity
Correct = Partition coefficients
187. In reverse phase chromatography, the stationary phase is made
[[a) Non-polar]]
b) Polar
c) Either non-polar or polar
d) None of these
Correct = Non-polar
188. Ion exchange chromatography is based on the
[[a) Electrostatic attraction]]
b) Electrical mobility of ionic species
c) Adsorption chromatography
d) Partition chromatography
Correct = Electrostatic attraction
189. The general expression for the appearance of a solute in an effluent is

(where V is the elution volume of a
[[a) V = V0 + kDVi]]
b) V = V0/Vi
c) V = V0 – kDVi
d) V/V0 = kDVi
Correct = V = V0 + kDVi
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190. The HIV virus infects primarily
a) Brain cells
[[b) Cells in the immune system]]
c) Red blood cells
d) Liver cells
Correct = Cells in the immune system
191. Chronic granulomatous disease results from a failure to perform oxidative

burst. This deficiency would be most likely to
a) CTL killing of viruses
b) Dendritic cell activation to become a mature APC
c) Infected cell processing of virus peptides
[[d) Macrophage intracellular killing of bacteria]]
Correct = Macrophage intracellular killing of bacteria
192. Difficulties with somatic gene therapy arise from all of the following
except
[[a) GVHD caused by mature T cells in the transplanted cells]]
b) Inserting a gene so that it will function properly
c) Limited life span of more mature hematopoietic cells
d) Transducing genetic material into stem cells
Correct = GVHD caused by mature T cells in the transplanted cells
193. A monoclonal antibody (mAb) specific for the 2,4-dinitrophenyl (DNP) hapten
might also bind
a) Leu or Ileu
b) His or Pro
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[[c) Tyr or Phe]]
d) Ser or Thr
Correct = Tyr or Phe
194. Retinoblastoma is due to a mutation in a
a) Kinase
[[b) Tumor supressor]]
c) Cyclin
d) Viral gene
Correct = Tumor supressor
195. An autoimmune disease is
a) AIDS
b) Measles.
[[c) Lupus]]
d) Mumps
Correct = Lupus
196. If Class IIMHC is not expressed in the thymus, the resulting immune
deficiencies would include all of the following except
[[a) Alternative complement activation.]]
b) CD8 T cell-mediated cytotoxicity
c) Macrophage activation to vesicular pathogens
d) IgG synthesis
Correct = Alternative complement activation.
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197. Specific translocations are associated with
a) Colon cancer
b) Breast cancer
c) Pancreatic cancer
[[d) Some leukemias]]
Correct = Some leukemias
198. To treat HIV infections using drugs, the major problem is that
a) The drugs that are good inhibitors cannot by synthesized
b) The drugs interfere with normal digestion
[[c) The virus particles with altered (mutant) proteases arise]]
d) The drugs are rapidly degraded
Correct = The virus particles with altered (mutant) proteases arise
199. The primary reason for AIDS, a deadly disease is that it
a) Is caused by a virus
b) Is caused by a bacterium
[[c) Destroys key components of the body’s internal defense system]]
d) Causes a breakdown of the body’s inflammatory response
Correct = Destroys key components of the body’s internal defense system
200. A selective IgA deficiency would be expected to result in problems with
a) Bacterial infections
b) Infections following dental work due to bacteria entering the

bloodstream
[[c) Mucosal pathogens]]
d) Pathogens which can survive inside macrophages
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Correct = Mucosal pathogens
201. Combined cellular and humoral immune deficiencies result from lack of all
of the following except
a) A thymus
b) Class II MHC
c) HIV infection of CD4+ T cells
[[d) Transporter of antigen peptides (TAP)]]
Correct = Transporter of antigen peptides (TAP)
202. An example of an immunodeficiency disorder is
a) Thyroiditisthyroiditis
b) Rheumatic fever
c) Systemic lupus erythematosus
[[d) AIDS]]
Correct = AIDS
203. Bone marrow given to an infant with SCID must
a) Be irradiated to eliminate GVHD
b) Contain mature T cells that can begin making immune responses immediately
[[c) Come from a donor that shares some MHC alleles with the recipient]]
d) Come from one of the child’s parents
Correct = Come from a donor that shares some MHC alleles with the recipient
204. X-linked hyper IgM syndrome, resulting in high levels of serum IgM and low
levels of serum IgG, is caused by a defect in CD40L expression. The specific
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a) Activation of B cells by T-independent antigens
b) Failure of B cells to provide co-stimulation for Th2 activation
[[c) Failure of Th2 cells to provide co-stimulation for B cell isotype

switching]]
d) Failure of Th2 cells to provide co-stimulation for B cell proliferation
Correct = Failure of Th2 cells to provide co-stimulation for B cell isotype

switching
205. DiGeorge’s syndrome is characterized by the lack of a thymus The mouse model
closest to this human disease would be a
a) Knock-out mouse for RAG-1 and RAG-2
b) Knock-out mouse for a thymus
[[c) Nude mouse]]
d) Recombinant mouse for CD3
Correct = Nude mouse
206. Which of the Rous sarcoma virus has a homologous cellular protein?
[[a) C-src]]
b) V-src
c) V-ha-src
d) V-ha-ras
Correct = C-src
207. Infants are most susceptible to bacterial infection due to low circulating
levels of IgG
a) In utero (before birth)
b) At 0-3 months of age
[[c) At 3-12 months of age]]
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d) At 12-24 months of age
Correct = At 3-12 months of age
208. The chemical, typically released by the body in an allergic response is
[[a) Histamine]]
b) Allergens
c) Antihistamines
d) Perforins
Correct = Histamine
209. The accepted hypothesis for DNA replication is
a) Conservative theory
b) Dispersive theory
[[c) Semi-conservative theory]]
d) Evolutionary theory
Correct = Semi-conservative theory
210. When DNA polymerase is in contact with guanine in the parental strand, what
does it add to the growing daughter strand?
a) Phosphate
[[b) Cytosine]]
c) Uracil
d) Guanine
Correct = Cytosine
211. Telomeres are usually rich in which nucleotide?
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a) Adenine
[[b) Guanine]]
c) Thymine
d) Cytosine
Correct = Guanine
212. Which is the largest among the followings?
[[a) Nucleotide]]
b) Nitrogenous base
c) Phosphate
d) Carbon
Correct = Nucleotide
213. The chromosomal DNA complexes with
a) Three types of histone as H1, H2A and H4
[[b) Five types of histone as H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4]]
c) Four types of histone as H1, H2A, H3 and H4
d) Two types of histone as H1 and H4
Correct = Five types of histone as H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
214. Taylor, Woods and Hughes labeled Vicia DNA by allowing new DNA synthesis
in the presence of radioactive thymine. After DNA replication (S phase of the
a) Only one chromatid of a chromosome was labeled
[[b) Both chromatids of a chromosome were labeled]]
c) Only one chromatid of two chromosome was labeled
d) Neither chromatid was labeled
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Correct = Both chromatids of a chromosome were labeled
215. In DNA double helix, the two DNA chains are held together by
a) Covalent bonds between the pair of bases
[[b) Hydrogen bonds between the pair of bases]]
c) Ionic bonds between the pair of bases
Correct = Hydrogen bonds between the pair of bases
216. The 5′ and 3′ numbers are related to the
a) Length of the DNA strand
[[b) Carbon number in sugar]]
c) The number of phosphates
d) The base pair rule
Correct = Carbon number in sugar
217. Messelsen and Stahl model of replication was called
a) Conservative replication
[[b) Semi-conservative replication]]
c) Dispersive replication
d) Cri du Chat
Correct = Semi-conservative replication
218. The most common liquid volumes in molecular biology are measured in
a) Ml
[[b) µl]]
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c) Nl
d) 1
Correct = µl
219. DNA replication takes place in which direction?
a) 3′ to 5′
[[b) 5 ‘to 3’]]
c) . Randomly
d) Vary from organism to organism
Correct = 5 ‘to 3’
220. DNA gyrase in E. coli
a) Adds positive supercoils to chromosomal DNA
[[b) Can be inhibited with antibiotics]]
c) Is required only at the oriC site
d) Performs the same function as helicase in eukaryotes
Correct = Can be inhibited with antibiotics
221. In DNA, there are
a) Five bases known as adenine, guanine, thymine, tryptophan and cytosine
[[b) Four bases known as adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine]]
c) Three bases known as adenine, guanine and cytosine
d) Only two bases known as adenine and cytosine
Correct = Four bases known as adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine
222. In DNA, guanine pairs with
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a) Adenine
[[b) Cytosine]]
c) Thymine
d) Uracil
Correct = Cytosine
223. Which of the following is incorrect?
a) In DNA double helix, two strands of the DNA are bound with each other
with the bases
b) Adenine always pairs with thymine
c) Guanine always pairs with the cytosine
224. What is the only common methylation in the DNA of eukaryotes?
a) Adenosine in GpA dinucleotides
b) Guanosine in ApGpA trinucleotides
[[c) Cytosine in CpG dinucleotides]]
Correct = Cytosine in CpG dinucleotides
225. DNAs when charged, migrate in a gel towards the
[[a) Positive pole]]
b) Negative pole
c) Will not migrate
d) None of these
Correct = Positive pole
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226. What is the approximate size (in kb) of the E. coli genome?
a) 3000 kilobase
[[b) 4500 kilobase]]
c) 5500 kilobase
d) 6500 kilobase
Correct = 4500 kilobase
227. In the study of one experiment it was found that the value of Tm for DNA
is = 40° C. If the cell has 20% GC at the above Tm, then what will be value of
‘Tm’ if the GC% increases to 60%?
a) Remains same
[[b) Increases]]
c) Decreases
d) Can not be compared
Correct = Increases
228. What is the range of melting point temperatures (Tm) for most DNA molecules?
a) 50 to 60°C
b) 60 to 80°C
c) 70 to 90°C
[[d) 80 to l00°C]]
Correct = 80 to l00°C
229. Enzyme-driven metabolic pathways can be made more efficient by
a) Concentrating enzymes within specific cellular compartments
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b) Grouping enzymes into free-floating, multienzyme complexes
c) Fixing enzymes into membranes so that they are adjacent to each other
230. Which of the following (s) is/are serine proteases?
a) Chymotrypsin
b) Trypsin
c) Elastase
[[d) All of these]]
231. Which of the following statements about enzymes or their function is true?
a) Enzymes do not alter the overall change in free energy for a reaction
b) Enzymes are proteins whose three-dimensional form is key to their

function
c) Enzymes speed up reactions by lowering activation energy
232. Tryprotophan synthetase of E.coli, a typical bifunctional oligomeric enzyme

consist of
a) A protein designated A
[[b) Two proteins designated A and B]]
c) A protein A and one-subunit a
d) A protein designated B
Correct = Two proteins designated A and B
4156
233. What is the specificity of the Clostripain protease?
[[a) It cleave after Arg residues]]
b) It cleave after His residues
c) It cleave after Lys residues
Correct = It cleave after Arg residues
234. The proteolysis rate enhancement by chymotrypsin (~1010 folds) corresponds

to a reduction in activation energy of about
a) 40 kJ/mol
b) 49 kJ/mol
[[c) 58 kJ/mol]]
d) 88 kJ/mol
Correct = 58 kJ/mol
235. Which of the following is false statement with regard to comparison between
Serine and HIV proteases?
a) Both use nucleophilic attack to hydrolyze the peptide bond
b) Both require water to complete the catalytic cycle
[[c) Both forms an acyl-enzyme intermediate]]
d) Both show specificity for certain amino acid sequences
Correct = Both forms an acyl-enzyme intermediate
236. In the enzyme-catalyzed reaction shown below, what will be the effect on
substances A, B, C, and D of inactivating the enzyme labeled E2?
a) A, B, C, and D will all still be produced
4157
b) A, B, and C will still be produced, but not D
[[c) A and B will still be produced, but not C or D]]
d) A will still be produced, but not B, C, or D
Correct = A and B will still be produced, but not C or D
237. The nucleophile in serine proteases is
[[a) Serine]]
b) Threonine
c) Aspartate
d) Asparagine
Correct = Serine
238. The role of Asp 102 and His 57 during trypsin catalysis is to
a) Neutralize the charge on the other’s side chain
b) Keep the specificity pocket open
[[c) Function as a proton shuttle]]
d) Clamp the substrate into the active site
Correct = Function as a proton shuttle
239. The cleavage specificity of trypsin and chymotrypsin depend in part on the
a) Proximity of Ser 195 to the active site or specificity pocket
[[b) Size, shape, and charge of the active site or specificity pocket]]
c) Presence of a low-barrier hydrogen bond in the active site or specificity

pocket
d) Absence of water in the active site
Correct = Size, shape, and charge of the active site or specificity pocket
4158
240. The E.coli pyruvic acid dehydrogenase complex is reported to
a) Decatalyze the oxidation of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co A and CO2
[[b) Catalyze the oxidation of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co A and CO2]]
c) Retard the reduction of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co A and CO2
d) Catalyze the reduction of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co A and CO2
Correct = Catalyze the oxidation of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co A and CO2
241. Which of the common features are shared between serine and aspartate
proteases?
a) Both require water to complete the catalytic cycle
b) Both use a base to activate the nucleophile
c) Both show specificity for certain amino acid sequences
242. Before they can react, many molecules need to be destabilized. This state
is typically achieved through
a) Changing the three-dimensional shape of the molecule
b) Oxidizing the molecules by removing electrons
c) Changing the reaction from a biosynthetic to a catabolic pathway
[[d) The input of a small amount of activation energy]]
Correct = The input of a small amount of activation energy
243. Common feature in all serine proteases is a
a) Hydrophobic specificity pocket
b) Hydrophilic specificity pocket
4159
c) Cluster of reactive serine residues
[[d) Single reactive serine residue]]
Correct = Single reactive serine residue
244. Which of the following is the basis of first dimension of separation for
two-dimensional electrophoresis?
a) Molecular mass
b) Solubility
[[c) Isoelectric point]]
d) Folding
Correct = Isoelectric point
245. What is meant by rotating frame of reference?
a) That the sample is spun rapidly in the applied field
[[b) If the laboratory itself is imagined to be rotated at the Larmor

frequency, viewing that individual magnetic moment vectors are fixed in space]]
c) That the detector rotates around the sample
Correct = If the laboratory itself is imagined to be rotated at the Larmor

frequency, viewing that individual magnetic moment vectors are fixed in space
246. The sequence of amino acids in proteins can be determined by means of
a) Identification of the -NH2 terminal amino acids
b) Identification of the -COOH terminal amino acids
c) Partial cleavage of the original polypeptide into smaller polypeptides
4160
247. Why is it advantageous to record many FID signals from the same sample and
then add them together?
a) To ensure that all target nuclei in the sample have been excited
b) To remove inaccuracies caused by fluctuations in the applied magnetic

field
[[c) To increase sensitivity]]
Correct = To increase sensitivity
248. In FT-NMR, how are nuclei excited?
[[a) By radio-frequency radiation whose frequency is swept across a

predetermined range]]
b) By an intense pulse of radiation which contains a wide range of

frequencies
c) By an intense pressure
Correct = By radio-frequency radiation whose frequency is swept across a

predetermined range
249. What is the name given to the relaxation process due to an interaction
between an excited nucleus and the magnetic fields caused by nuclei in molecules
moving around in the sample?
[[a) Spin – lattice relaxation]]
b) Spin – spin relaxation
c) Spin – spin – spin relaxation
d) None of these
Correct = Spin – lattice relaxation
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250. Cytochrome C has an isoelectric pH of
a) 8.5
[[b) 10.05]]
c) 7.5
d) 11.05
Correct = 10.05
251. What does the Michelson interferometer do?
a) Split a polychromatic beam of radiation into its component wavelengths
b) Selectively filter certain wavelengths from a beam of I.R. radiation
[[c) Modulate the I.R. signal at a lower frequency, so that it can be observed
by a detector]]
Correct = Modulate the I.R. signal at a lower frequency, so that it can be observed
by a detector
252. In scanning electron microscopy
[[a) A specimen is fixed and then coated with thin layer of a heavy metal]]
b) A specimen is fixed and then coated with transition metal
c) A specimen is not fixed and then coated with thin layer of a heavy metal
Correct = A specimen is fixed and then coated with thin layer of a heavy metal
253. The frequency of precession, the transition frequency and the Larmor
frequency are
[[a) Different terms for the same frequency]]
b) Same terms for the same frequency
c) Different terms for the different frequency
4162
d) Same terms for the different frequency
Correct = Different terms for the same frequency
254. How do you turn a signal recorded in the time domain into a frequency domain
signal?
[[a) Fourier transformation]]
b) Measurement of peak areas
c) By use of a Michelson interferometer
Correct = Fourier transformation
255. How many possible orientations do spin 1/2 nuclei have when they are located
in an applied magnetic field?
[[a) 2]]
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6
Correct = 2
256. In immunofluroscence microscopy, fluroscent compounds are attached to
[[a) An antibody specific for the subcellular structure]]
b) An antigen specific for the subcellular structure
c) Bound antibody specific for the subcellular structure
d) None of these
Correct = An antibody specific for the subcellular structure
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257. An FT-IR instrument record a signal in the
[[a) Time domain]]
b) Frequency domain
c) Wavelength domain
d) Obstructive domain
Correct = Time domain
258. When radiation energy is absorbed by a spin 1/2 nucleus in a magnetic field,
what happens?
a) The processional frequency of the nucleus increases
b) The nucleus spins faster
[[c) The angle of precession flips so that the magnetic moment of the nucleus
opposes the applied field]]
Correct = The angle of precession flips so that the magnetic moment of the nucleus
opposes the applied field
259. Negative staining is a technique used in
[[a) Electron microscopy]]
b) Gel electrophoresis
c) Immunocytochemistry
d) Light microscopy
Correct = Electron microscopy
260. Which of the following is not used for detection in GC?
a) Infrared spectroscopy
[[b) NMR]]
c) Flame ionisation
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d) Electrical conductivity
Correct = NMR
261. Which of these effects result from slow injection of a large sample volume?
a) Increased resolution
[[b) Decreased resolution]]
c) Non-linear detector response
d) Constant resolution
Correct = Decreased resolution
262. The GC trace obtained after an experiment is called a
a) Chromatograph
[[b) Chromatogram]]
c) Chromatophore
d) Graph
Correct = Chromatogram
263. Which of the following detectors give concentration-dependent signals?
a) Electron-capture detector
b) Thermal conductivity
c) Infra-red detector
[[d) All of these]]
264. What useful information can be found from a Van Deemter plot?
a) The selectivity factor
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[[b) Optimum mobile phase flow rate]]
c) Optimum column temperature
d) Optimum column length
Correct = Optimum mobile phase flow rate
265. What is the typical internal diameter of fused silica capillary columns?
[[a) 0.2-0.3 mm]]
b) 0.3-0.5mm
c) 0.5-1.0 mm
d) 1.0-2.0 mm
Correct = 0.2-0.3 mm
266. Resolution is proportional to the
a) Number of theoretical plates in a column
[[b) Square root of the number of theoretical plates in a column]]
c) Square of the number of theoretical plates in a column
d) Cube root of the number of theoretical plates in a column
Correct = Square root of the number of theoretical plates in a column
267. Derivatisation of a sample is carried out to
a) Reduce polarity of the analytes
b) Increase the detector response
c) Increase volatility of the analytes
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268. Which of the statements is correct?
a) Gas chromatography is used to analyse gases
b) Gas chromatography is used to analyse solids
c) Gas chromatography is used to analyse gases, solutions and solids
269. In column switching chromatography
[[a) Compounds trapped on one column are eluted to another column]]
b) One column is removed and replaced by another
c) The flow to the column is switched on and off repeatedly
d) Any of the above
Correct = Compounds trapped on one column are eluted to another column
270. A retention gap is placed between the injector and the front of the column
to
[[a) Retain contaminants and prevent them from reaching the column]]
b) Retain the sample and release it gradually to the column
c) Prevent backflush of the injected solution
d) All of the above
Correct = Retain contaminants and prevent them from reaching the column
271. Which of the following detectors give mass flow-dependent signals?
a) Electron capture detector
[[b) Field ionisation detector]]
c) Thermal conductivity detector
d) All of the above
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Correct = Field ionisation detector
272. Headspace analysis is carried out in order to
[[a) Analyse volatile compounds from solid or liquid samples]]
b) Determine the psychological state of the tutor
c) Analyse the column contents ahead of the sample
d) Determine non-volatiles
Correct = Analyse volatile compounds from solid or liquid samples
273. Split injection is carried out by
a) Splitting the sample into smaller portions to inject sequentially
b) Splitting the sample into smaller portions to inject at the same time
through parallel ports
[[c) Splitting off some of the sample so that it does not enter the column]]
Correct = Splitting off some of the sample so that it does not enter the column
274. Theoretical plates are used to
[[a) Estimate the efficiency of a column]]
b) Determine the thickness of the stationary phase
c) Measure the distribution of the analyte between mobile and stationary

phases
Correct = Estimate the efficiency of a column
275. What does the selectivity factor describe?
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a) The proportional difference in widths of two chromatographic peaks
b) The maximum number of different species which a column can separate

simultaneously
[[c) The relative separation achieved between two species]]
Correct = The relative separation achieved between two species
276. Helium is generally preferred as carrier gas over nitrogen and hydrogen
because
a) It is inert
b) It has a lower viscosity
c) It doubles up as a party gas for balloons and funny voices
[[d) All of above]]
Correct = All of above
277. What are the benefits of decreasing the column internal diameter?
a) Increased sample capacity
[[b) Increased resolution]]
c) Reduced risk of column overloading
d) All of the above
Correct = Increased resolution
278. Sample retention in the column is measured by
a) Retention time
b) Retention factor
c) Retention index
[[d) All of these]]
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279. Column bleeding occurs when
a) Elution of the analyte is extended over time
b) The column is cracked and stationary phase leaks out
[[c) Traces of the stationary phase are eluted]]
d) The column breaks during installation and causes personal injury
Correct = Traces of the stationary phase are eluted
280. Which of the following are not used as stationary phases in a GC column?
a) Polysiloxanes
[[b) Silica]]
c) Cyclodextrins
d) None are used as stationary phases
Correct = Silica
281. Doubling the column’s length increases resolution by a factor of
[[a) (2)0.5]]
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Correct = (2)0.5
282. Sample injection is considered successful if
a) All of the sample in the injector has been added to the column
[[b) The sample is concentrated at the start of the column]]
4170
c) The sample is spread evenly along the column
d) He sample is homogenously spread along the column
Correct = The sample is concentrated at the start of the column
283. Which of the following gases is unsuitable for use as a GC carrier gas?
a) Nitrogen
b) Helium
[[c) Oxygen]]
d) All of the above
Correct = Oxygen
284. In an SDS-PAGE
a) Proteins are denatured by the SDS
b) Proteins have the same charge-to-mass ratio
c) Smaller proteins migrate more rapidly through the gel
285. Proteins can be visualized directly in gels by
[[a) Staining them with the dye]]
[[b) Staining them with the dye]]
c) Measuring their molecular weight
d) None of these
Correct = Staining them with the dye
286. In SDS-PAGE, the protein sample is first
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[[a) Treated with a reducing agent and then with anionic detergent followed
by fractionation by electrophoresis]]
b) Fractionated by electrophoresis then treated with an oxidizing agent

followed by anionic detergent.
c) Treated with a oxidizing agent and then with anionic detergent followed
by fractionation by electrophoresis
Correct = Treated with a reducing agent and then with anionic detergent followed
by fractionation by electrophoresis
287. Electrophoresis of histones and myoglobin under non-denaturing conditions

(pH = 7.0) results in
a) Both proteins migrate to the anode
b) Histones migrate to the anode and myoglobin migrates to the cathode
[[c) Histones migrate to the cathode and myoglobin migrates to the anode]]
d) Both proteins migrate to the cathode
Correct = Histones migrate to the cathode and myoglobin migrates to the anode
288. In isoelectric focusing, proteins are separated on the basis of their
a) Relative content of positively charged residue only
b) Relative content of negatively charged residue only
c) Size
[[d) Relative content of positively and negatively charged residue]]
Correct = Relative content of positively and negatively charged residue
289. In a native PAGE, proteins are separated on the basis of
a) Net negative charge
[[b) Net charge and size]]
4172
c) Net positive charges size
d) Net positive charge
Correct = Net charge and size
290. The subunit molecular weight as well as the number of subunits in the
quaternary structure can be determined by
a) SDS-PAGE electrophoresis
b) Gel filtration chromatography
[[c) Combining information from (a)and (b)]]
d) Isoelectric focusing
Correct = Combining information from (a)and (b)
291. Proteins are separated in an SDS-PAGE experiment on the basis of their
a) Positively charged side chains
[[b) Molecular weight]]
c) Negatively charged side chains
d) Different isoelectric points
Correct = Molecular weight
292. Which of the following techniques was carried out by Nirenberg and Matthaei
in 1961 to determine the first codon?
[[a) In vitro synthesis of a polypeptide using UUUUU]]
b) Labeled peptide binding to a ribosome
c) Mixed co-polymer mRNA synthesis
Correct = In vitro synthesis of a polypeptide using UUUUU
4173
293. Bacterial protein called catabolic activator protein (CAP) is an example
of
a) Negative control of gene expression
b) Positive control of gene expression
[[c) Second type of positive control of gene expression]]
Correct = Second type of positive control of gene expression
294. How many different codons are possible?
a) 3
b) 20
[[c) 64]]
d) An infinite number
Correct = 64
295. The genetic code is
a) Universal
[[b) Universal except for rare exceptions in mitochondria and some

protozoa]]
c) Species-specific
d) Kingdom-specific
Correct = Universal except for rare exceptions in mitochondria and some protozoa
296. Which of the following has been used as an evidence that primitive life
forms lacked both DNA and enzymes?
[[a) RNA can both code genetic information and act as a catalyst]]
b) DNA and enzymes are only present in the most advanced cells
4174
c) Advanced cells lack RNA
d) All of the above
Correct = RNA can both code genetic information and act as a catalyst
297. Crick demonstrated that the genetic code involved three bases and suggested
that the code was degenerated. What experimental
a) Gel electrophoresis
b) Density gradient centrifugation
[[c) Frameshift mutagenesis]]
d) Restriction digests of the rII gene
Correct = Frameshift mutagenesis
298. Codon that specify the amino acids often differs in the
a) First base
b) Second base
[[c) Third base]]
d) None of these
Correct = Third base
299. In some organelles in eukaryotes, the genetic code for some codons
[[a) Differs from that used in prokaryotes]]
b) Are same
c) Are partially same
Correct = Differs from that used in prokaryotes
4175
300. The codons which do not specify an amino acid are called
a) Initiation code
[[b) Termination code]]
c) Propagation code
d) None of these
Correct = Termination code
301. The genetic code is degenerated. Which of the following codons represents
the principle of degeneracy?
a) UAA and UAC
b) AUG and AUA
[[c) CAU and CAC]]
d) UUA and UUC
Correct = CAU and CAC
302. The sequence of one strand of DNA is: 5′ ATTGCCA 3′, what is the sequence
of the other strand?
a) 5′ TAACGGT 3′
[[b) 5′ TGGCAAT 3′]]
c) 5′ ATTGCCA 3′
d) 5′ UAAGCCU3′
Correct = 5′ TGGCAAT 3′
303. In prokaryotes, AUG encodes
a) Methionine
[[b) N-formyl methionine]]
c) A stop codon
4176
d) Alanine
Correct = N-formyl methionine
304. How many amino acids will be encoded by 5′ GAU GGU UGA UGU 3′ sequence?
a) One
[[b) Two]]
c) Three
d) Four
Correct = Two
305. In protein synthesis in prokaryotes
[[a) The initiating amino acid is N- formyl methionine]]
b) The initiating amino acid is methionine
c) The initiating amino acid is phenyl alanine
Correct = The initiating amino acid is N- formyl methionine
306. AUG codes for methionine act as a
[[a) Initiation code]]
b) Elongation code
c) Termination code
d) Propagation code
Correct = Initiation code
307. Glycolytic pathway regulation involves
a) Allosteric stimulation by ADP
4177
b) Allosteric inhibition by ATP
c) Feedback, or product, inhibition by ATP
308. During catabolism, only about 40% of the energy available from oxidizing
glucose is used to synthesize ATP. Remaining 60%
[[a) Is lost as heat]]
b) Is used to reduce NADP
c) Remains in the products of metabolism
d) Is stored as fat.
Correct = Is lost as heat
309. Why does the glycolytic pathway continue in the direction of glucose
catabolism?
[[a) There are essentially three irreversible reactions that act as the
driving force for the pathway]]
b) High levels of ATP keep the pathway going in a forward direction
c) The enzymes of glycolysis only function in one direction
d) Glycolysis occurs in either direction
Correct = There are essentially three irreversible reactions that act as the
driving force for the pathway
310. The released energy obtained by oxidation of glucose is stored as
a) A concentration gradient across a membrane
b) ADP
[[c) ATP]]
d) NAD+
4178
Correct = ATP
311. A kinase is an enzyme that
a) Removes phosphate groups of substrates
[[b) Uses ATP to add a phosphate group to the substrate]]
c) Uses NADH to change the oxidation state of the substrate
d) Removes water from a double bond
Correct = Uses ATP to add a phosphate group to the substrate
312. For every one molecule of sugar glucose which is oxidized __________
molecule of pyruvic acid are produced.
a) 1
[[b) 2]]
c) 3
d) 4
Correct = 2
313. In the glycogen synthase reaction, the precursor to glycogen is
a) Glucose-6-P
b) UTP-glucose
[[c) UDP-glucose]]
d) Glucose-1-P
Correct = UDP-glucose
314. The active form of glycogen phosphorylase is phosphorylated, while the

dephosphorylation of which active form occurs?
4179
[[a) Glycogen synthase-P]]
b) Glycogen semisynthase
c) Glycogen hydrolase
d) Glycogen dehydrogenase
Correct = Glycogen synthase-P
315. The enzymes of glycolysis in a eukaryotic cell are located in the
a) Intermembrane space
b) Plasma membrane
[[c) Cytosol]]
d) Mitochondrial matrix
Correct = Cytosol
316. When concentration of the reactants is higher than the equilibrium

concentration then
a) The gibbs free energy will be positive
[[b) The gibbs free energy will be negative]]
c) Less products will be formed
d) The gibbs free energy will be both positive and Negative
Correct = The gibbs free energy will be negative
317. Which of the following is not true of glycolysis?
a) ADP is phosphorylated to ATP via substrate level phosphorylation
b) The pathway does not require oxygen
[[c) The pathway oxidizes two moles of NADH to NAD+ for each mole of glucose
that enters]]
d) The pathway requires two moles of ATP to get started catabo-lizing each
mole of glucose
4180
Correct = The pathway oxidizes two moles of NADH to NAD+ for each mole of glucose
that enters
318. In glycolysis, ATP is formed by the transfer of a high-energy phosphate

from 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to ADR No such highenergy
a) The techniques for isolating the phosphate donor are not refined enough
[[b) No such phosphate donor exists]]
c) The high-energy phosphate donor is very short-lived and difficult to

isolate
Correct = No such phosphate donor exists
319. ATP is from which general category of molecules?
a) Polysaccharides
b) Proteins
[[c) Nucleotides]]
d) Amino acids
320. The glycolytic pathway (glucose ? 2 pyruvate) is found
[[a) In all living organisms]]
b) Primarily in animals excluding particles
c) Only in eukaryotes
d) Only in yeast
Correct = In all living organisms
4181
1. The form of glucose predominantly seen is as:
a) A D Glucopyanose
b) A D Glucofuranose
[[c) ~ D Glucopyranose]]
d) Glucofuranose
Correct = ~ D Glucopyranose
2. The glycemic index is highest for:
[[a) Glucose]]
b) Fructose
c) Sucrose
d) Sugar alcohols
Correct = Glucose
3. Glucose detection can be done by the all except?
a) Glucose oxidase
[[b) Ferric chloride test]]
c) Dextrostix
d) Folin and Wu method
4. Which of the following carbohydrate metabolism is used for liver function

assessment?
[[a) Galactose tolerance test]]
4182
b) Sucrose tolerance test
c) Glucose tolerance test
d) Lactose tolerance test
Correct = Galactose tolerance test
5. Which deposition result in cataract?
a) Glucose
b) Galactose
c) Sugar amines
[[d) Sugar alcohols]]
Correct = Sugar alcohols
6. Cellulose is:
a) Complex lipoprotein
b) Starch polysaccharide
[[c) Non starch polysaccharide]]
d) Complex glycoprotein
7. A 4-yrs-boy with mental retardation, dysostosis multiplex, coarse facial

feature, clear cornea. What is the diagnosis?
a) MPS type IV
[[b) Hunter's Disease]]
c) Hurler
d) Zellweger syndrome
Correct = Hunter's Disease
4183
8. Mucopolysaccharide that does not contain uronic acid residue is:
a) Heparan sulphate
b) Heparin
c) Chondroitin sulphate
[[d) Keretan sulphate]]
Correct = Keretan sulphate
9. Mucopolysacchridoses which is a lysosomal storage disease, occur due to

abnormally in:
b) Dehydrogenase enzyme
c) Lipase enzyme
d) Phosphatase
10. Complex polysaccharides which are converted to glucose are absorbed by the
helo of
[[a) Na + K+ ATPase]]
b) Sucrase
c) Enterokinase
d) Carboxypeptidase
Correct = Na + K+ ATPase
11. After overnight fasting, level of glucose transporters reduced in:
a) Brain cells
b) RBCs
4184
[[c) Adipocyte]]
d) Hepatocyte
Correct = Adipocyte
12. Glucose transporter in myocyte stimulated by insulin is:
a) GLUT-1
b) GULT-2
c) GULT-3
[[d) GULT-4]]
Correct = GULT-4
13. Defect in renal glucosuria:
a) GLUT-1
b) GULT-2
c) SGLT 1
[[d) SGLT 2]]
Correct = SGLT 2
14. Facilitated transport of glucose that is insulin insensitive (non- dependent)

takes place in:
a) Skeletal muscle
[[b) Liver]]
c) Adipose tissue
d) Heart
Correct = Liver
4185
15. Glucose transporter presents in the RBC:
[[a) GLUT-1]]
b) GULT-2
c) GULT-3
d) GULT-4
Correct = GLUT-1
16. The monosaccharide with maximum rate of absorption in intestine is:
a) Glucose
[[b) Galactoss]]
c) Fructose
d) Mannose
Correct = Galactoss
17. Mitochondria are involved in all of the following except:
a) ATP production
b) Apoptosis
c) Tri-carboxylic acid cycle
[[d) Cholesterol synthesis]]
Correct = Cholesterol synthesis
18. Which offollowing does not occur in mitochondria?
a) Beta -oxidation
b) DNA synthesis
4186
19. Which of the following is active in dephosphorylated state?
[[a) Glycogen synthase]]
b) Pyruvate carboxylase
c) Glycogen phosphorylase
d) Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Correct = Glycogen synthase
20. Insulin promotes lipogenesis by all except
a) Decreasing cAMP
b) Increase glucose uptak
[[c) Inhibiting pyruvate dehydrogenase]]
d) Increasing acetyl CoA
Correct = Inhibiting pyruvate dehydrogenase
21. Hormone sensitive lipase is not activated by-
[[a) Insulin]]
b) Glucagon
c) Catecholamines
d) T4
Correct = Insulin
22. Which of the following is not seen in low insulin glucagon ratio?
a) Gluconeogenesis
b) Glycogen breakdown
c) Ketogenesis
4187
[[d) Glycogen storage]]
Correct = Glycogen storage
23. Which of the following biochemical reaction isinvolved in conversion of

Histidine is to histamine
[[a) Decarboxylation]]
b) Carboxylation
c) Amination
d) Oxidation
24. Entropy is a measure of the:
a) Reversibility of reaction
[[b) Randomness in a system]]
c) Exothermicity
d) Free energy for an enzymatic reaction
Correct = Randomness in a system
25. Glowing of firefly is due to
[[a) ATP]]
b) NADH
c) Gtp
d) Phosphocreatinine
Correct = ATP
26. Storage form offree eneragy in the cell
4188
a) NADH
[[b) ATP]]
c) G-6-P
d) . Creatine phosphate
Correct = ATP
27. Thermogenic food is which ofthe following
[[a) High protein diet]]
b) High carbohydrate diet
c) High fat diet
d) It does not depend on the macro nutrients
Correct = High protein diet
28. Which is required in Anabolic reactions:
a) NAD
[[b) NADP]]
c) Fad
d) Fadp
Correct = NADP
29. Rossman fold associated NADH domain is found in which of the following enzyme
[[a) Isocitrate Dehydrogenase]]
b) Pyruvate Dehydrogenase
c) Malate Dehydrogenase
d) Succinate Dehydrogenase
Correct = Isocitrate Dehydrogenase
4189
30. All occur in mitochondria except-
[[a) Glycolysis]]
b) TCAcycle
c) ETC
d) Ketogenesis
31. The biosynthesis ofthe enzyme pyruvate carboxylase is repressed by
[[a) Insulin]]
b) Cortisol
c) Glucagon
d) Epinephrine
Correct = Insulin
32. Preferred fuel for body in fasting state ?
[[a) Carbohydrate]]
b) Fats
c) Proteins
d) Amino acids
33. The enzyme activated with low Insulin: Glucagon ratio is?
a) Hexokinase
b) Glucokinase
c) Pyruvate kinase
[[d) Glucose 6 phosphatase]]
4190
Correct = Glucose 6 phosphatase
a) Pyruvate dehydrogense
[[b) Isocitrate dehydrogense]]
c) A-ketoglutaryl Dehydrogense u
Correct = Isocitrate dehydrogense
35. Which of the following enzymes are activated in dephosphorylated state:
[[a) HMG Co A reductase]]
c) Glycogen phosphorylase kinase
d) Citrate lyase
Correct = HMG Co A reductase
36. Enzyme regulated by phosphorylation:
a) Fat
[[b) Glycogen]]
c) Lactate
d) Ketone
Correct = Glycogen
37. What is effect of cortisol on metabolism:
[[a) T Gluconeogenesis]]
b) T Lipogenesis
4191
c) T Proteolysis
d) T Export of amino acid to liver
Correct = T Gluconeogenesis
38. Source of energy for a running race athlete for the initial3 minutes of
running
a) Free fatty acid
b) Creative phosphate
c) Muscle glycogen
[[d) Blood glucose]]
Correct = Blood glucose
39. Cellulose is not broken due to beta anomerism at :
[[a) Cl]]
b) C2
c) C5
d) C6
Correct = Cl
40. Inulin is not broken due to beta anomerism at:
a) Cl
[[b) C2]]
c) C5
d) C6
Correct = C2
4192
41. Which of the following is not correct 1
[[a) Parent carbohydrate which gives rise to other carbohydrates is

Glycerol]]
b) Minimum number of carbons possible in a carbohydrate is 3
c) Minimum number of 'OH' group possible in a carbohydrate is 2
d) Minimum number of functional group possible in a carbohydrate is l 4
Correct = Parent carbohydrate which gives rise to other carbohydrates is Glycerol
42. Dextrose is:
[[a) D + glucose]]
b) . D - glucose
c) L + glucose
d) L - glucose
Correct = D + glucose
43. Which is correct!
a) Racemic mixture contains both D and L
b) Racemic mixture contains both D and D
[[c) Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L]]
[[d) Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L]]
Correct = Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L
44. Number of isomers possible for glucose are:
a) 32
b) 64
[[c) 16]]
d) 8
4193
Correct = 16
45. Which of the following statement about Isomerism is NOT CORRECT
a) Racemic mixture is equal D and L isomers present
b) Racemic mixture is optically inactive
[[c) Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L isomers into each other]]
d) Enantiomerism is also known as D and L-Isomerism
Correct = Racemase enzyme interconverts D and L isomers into each other
46. Parent alcohol in carbohydrates is:
[[a) Glycerol]]
b) Ethanol
c) Methanol
d) Cholesterol
Correct = Glycerol
47. Which enzyme is deficient in Hunter's syndrome
a) Liduronase
b) Glucokinase
c) Galactokinase
[[d) Iduronate sulfatase]]
Correct = Iduronate sulfatase
48. The monosaccharide with maximum rate of absorption in intestine is
a) Glucose
[[b) Galactose]]
4194
c) Mannose
d) Fructose
Correct = Galactose
49. Glucosamines used in following condition:
[[a) Arthritis]]
b) Niemann pick disease
c) Alzheimer's disease
d) Cancer
Correct = Arthritis
50. Heparin is a:
[[a) Glycosa amino glycan (GAG)]]
b) Protein
c) Glycolipid
d) Polysaccharide
Correct = Glycosa amino glycan (GAG)
51. Which form of carbohydrate is present in Glycoprotein 1
[[a) Monosaccharide]]
b) Disaccharide
c) Homo Polysaccharide
d) Hetero Polysaccharide
Correct = Monosaccharide
4195
52. A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels very
uncomfortable. His stomach becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhoea
frequently. These symptoms do not appear when he eats food other than dairy
products. Which of the following is most likely enzyme in which this young man
is deficient:
a) Alpha amylase
[[b) Beta galactosidase]]
c) Alpha glucosidase
d) Sucrase
Correct = Beta galactosidase
53. Which test is given positive by Glyceraldehyde?
[[a) Benedicts test]]
b) Molisch test
c) Seliwanoff's test
d) Gerhard's test
Correct = Benedicts test
54. Which of the following is branched:
[[a) Starch]]
b) Cellulose
c) Heteropolysaccharide
d) All
Correct = Starch
55. Non-reducing disaccharide is
a) Fructose
[[b) Sucrose]]
4196
c) Maltose
d) Lactose
Correct = Sucrose
56. Sucrose is hydrolyzed by
a) Saccharase
b) Surcose phosphorylase
[[c) Invertase]]
d) Amylase
Correct = Invertase
57. Which is NOT a hexose sugar!
a) Glucose
b) . Galactose
c) Fructose
[[d) Ribose]]
Correct = Ribose
58. Which of the following is a component of polysaccharide Chitin
a) Ascorbic acid
[[b) Glucosarnine]]
c) Synovium
d) Glucoronic acid
Correct = Glucosarnine
59. Hyaluronic acid is a mucopolysaccharide present in
4197
a) Vitreous humor
b) Synovial fluid
[[c) Both]]
d) Dermis
Correct = Both
60. Which disaccharide is NOT broken down in GIT'!
[[a) Lactulose]]
b) Maltose
c) Sucrose
d) Lactose
Correct = Lactulose
61. The rate of absorption of sugars by the small intestine is highest for
a) Polysaccharides
b) Disaccharides
[[c) Hexoses]]
d) Pentoses
Correct = Hexoses
62. D-Xylose test is used in diagnosis of
a) Zinc deficiency
[[b) Malabsorption syndrome]]
c) Coeliac sprue
d) Bacterial overgrowth syndrome
Correct = Malabsorption syndrome
4198
63. Number of -OH groups in ribose '?
[[a) 4]]
b) 5
c) 62
d) 2
Correct = 4
64. Which of the following enzyme helps in catalyzing conversion of aldose sugars
to ketose sugars'?
a) Oxidoreductase
b) Aldolase
c) Decarboxylase
[[d) Isomerase]]
Correct = Isomerase
65. Most common dietary fibre is
[[a) Cellulose]]
b) Pectin
c) Starch
d) Proteoglyan
Correct = Cellulose
66. Cellulose is a:
a) Fructose polymer
[[b) Non starch polysaccharide]]
c) Starch polysaccharide
4199
d) Glycosaminoglycan
67. Glycosaminoglycans present in cornea:
a) Dermatan sulfate
b) Chondroitin Sulfate
c) . Hyaluronic acid
[[d) Keratan Sulfate]]
Correct = Keratan Sulfate
68. Excess of which of the following can result in cataract'
[[a) Sugar alcohol]]
b) Glucose
c) Sugar amines
d) Galactose
Correct = Sugar alcohol
69. All are functions of glycosaminoglycans except
a) Anticoagulant
b) . Wound healing
c) Lubrication
[[d) Transport of lipids]]
Correct = Transport of lipids
70. Side chain linkage in proteoglycons-
[[a) Covalent]]
4200
b) Hydrogen bond
c) Van-darWaal's force
Correct = Covalent
71. Identify the correct statement:
a) Glut-2 responsible for glucose and fructose absorption
b) Glucose is absorbed independent ofNa
c) Fructose requires sodium for absorption
[[d) SGLT-2 is specific for glucose]]
Correct = SGLT-2 is specific for glucose
72. Defect in renal glucosuria
a) GLUT
b) GLUT 2 c
c) SGLT I
[[d) SGLT 2]]
Correct = SGLT 2
73. Secondary active Glucose transport occurs along with
a) HC03
[[b) Na+]]
c) CI
d) K+
Correct = Na+
4201
74. Glucose is transported in pancreas through which receptor-
a) GLUT
[[b) GLUT 2]]
c) GLUT 3
d) GLUT 4
Correct = GLUT 2
75. GLUT-5 is transporter for-
a) Galactose
[[b) Fructose]]
c) Mannose
d) Glucose
Correct = Fructose
76. Which of the following does not depend on insulin for glucose uptake
[[a) Brain]]
b) Cardiac muscles
c) Sketetal muscles
d) Adipose tissue
Correct = Brain
77. Glucose transporter present in erythrocytes {RBCs}:-
[[a) GLUT- I]]
b) GLUT- 2
c) GLUT-3
d) GLUT-4
Correct = GLUT- I
4202
78. GLUT responsible for secretion of insulin from beta cells of pancreas
a) 4
b) 3
[[c) 2]]
d) 1
Correct = 2
79. Mutation in GLUT-2 causes-
a) Menke's disease
[[b) Fanconi-Bickel syndrome]]
c) Beckwith syndrome
d) Dandy walker syndrome
Correct = Fanconi-Bickel syndrome
80. Which out of the following is Insulin dependent'?
a) GLUT-I
b) GLUT-2
c) GLUT-3
[[d) GLUT-4]]
Correct = GLUT-4
81. Which of the following is not correct'?
a) Sodium dependent glucose transporter (SGLT) is unidirectional
b) SGLT-2 is in kidneys only for glucose transport , SGLT-I is in kidneys

and intestine for glucose and galactose transport
4203
c) This sodium-glucose symport carries 2 Na+ for each glucose
[[d) This sodium-glucose symport carries 3 Na+ for each glucose]]
Correct = This sodium-glucose symport carries 3 Na+ for each glucose
82. After an overnight fast, GLUTs are reduced in
a) Brain
b) RBC
c) Kidney
[[d) Adipose Tissues]]
Correct = Adipose Tissues
83. GLUT (glucose transporter) present in neurons is:
a) . GLUT-I
b) GLUT-2
[[c) GLUT-3]]
d) GLUT-4
Correct = GLUT-3
84. Which ofthe following are epimers:
[[a) D-Galactose and D-Glucose]]
b) D-Galactose and L-Glucose
c) D-Mannose and L-Mannose
d) D-Mannose and L-Glucose
Correct = D-Galactose and D-Glucose
85. Which form of glucose and fructose is predominant '?
4204
a) A
[[b) P]]
c) Both
d) Variable
Correct = P
86. Which ofthe following is a keto sugar?
a) Glucose
b) Sorbitol
[[c) Fructose]]
d) Sedoheptulose
Correct = Fructose
87. Active uptake of glucose is inhibited by
a) Insulin
[[b) Phlorizin]]
c) Indoacetate
d) Fluoride
Correct = Phlorizin
88. All are true about glycosaminoglycans except:
a) Protein associated with glycosaminoglycans is called core proteins
b) May be associated with connective tissues
[[c) Highly positively charged]]
d) Negatively charged
Correct = Highly positively charged
4205
89. Hyaluronic acid is composed of:
[[a) Longest glycosaminoglycan]]
b) N-acetyl galactosamine
c) Has Glucuronic acid
d) N-acetylneuramic acid
Correct = Longest glycosaminoglycan
90. In Benedict test, red colour is/are produced by:
a) Sucrose
b) . Inositol
[[c) Fructose]]
d) Lactose
Correct = Fructose
91. Mucopolysacchidosis, which is a lysosomal storage disease, occurs due to

abnormality in: Hydrolase enzyme
b) Dehydorgenase enzyme
c) Lipase enzyme
d) Phosphatase
92. Danaparoid contains:
[[a) Keratin sulphate]]
b) Chitin
c) Derma tan sulphate
4206
d) Heparan sulphate
Correct = Keratin sulphate
93. Reilly bodies are seen in?
a) Bechet's disease
b) Gangliosidosis
c) Gaucher's disease
[[d) Hurler disease]]
Correct = Hurler disease
94. Which of the following has highest glycemic index
[[a) Glucose]]
b) Sucrose
c) Fructose
d) Sorbitol
Correct = Glucose
95. Which ofthe following test cannot be done for glucose estimation 1
a) Glucose oxidase
b) Dextrostix
[[c) Ferric chloride test]]
d) Nelson somogyi method
96. Which of the following carbohydrate test is used for assessment of liver
function 1
4207
[[a) Galactose]]
b) Glucose
c) Sucrose
d) Fructose
Correct = Galactose
97. A five year old boy with coarse facial features, mental retardation ,
dysostosis multiplex. Corneal clouding was not present. What is the diagnosis
1
a) MPS Type IV
b) Hurler disease
[[c) Hunter disease]]
d) Gaucher's disease
Correct = Hunter disease
1. Which among the following is a cardioprotective fatty acid
a) Palmitic acid
b) Stearic acid
c) Oleic acid
[[d) Omega-3 fatty acid]]
Correct = Omega-3 fatty acid
2. Which among the following is not a saturated fatty acid?
4208
a) Myristic acid
b) Stearic acid
c) Palmitic acid
[[d) Linoleic acid]]
3. Most essential fatty acid is:
a) Linolenic acid
[[b) Linoleic acid]]
c) Arachidonic acid
d) Eicosapentaenoic acid
4. All are true except
a) Linoleic acid is found in soyabean oil
b) Linolenic and linoleic acids are cis derivatives containing double bonds
[[c) Arachidonic acid contains five double bonds]]
d) Monoenoic acids contain one double bond at 9th position
Correct = Arachidonic acid contains five double bonds
5. Maximum source of linolelc acid Is:
a) Coconut oil
[[b) Sunflower oil]]
c) Palm oil
d) Vanaspati
Correct = Sunflower oil
4209
6. Which of these fatty acids is found exclusively in breast milk?
a) Linoleate
b) Linoleate
c) Linoleate
[[d) Docosahexaenoic acid]]
Correct = Docosahexaenoic acid
7. The following fatty acid does not belong to W6 series:
a) Linoleic acid
b) Arachidonic acid
c) Gamma linoleic acid
[[d) Alpha linolenic acid]]
Correct = Alpha linolenic acid
8. An example of Omega 6 fatty acid is:
a) Cervonic acid
b) α Linolenic acid
[[c) Arachidonic acid]]
d) Tirnnodonic acid
Correct = Arachidonic acid
9. Which is not present in plants?
[[a) Cholesterol]]
b) Linolenic acid
c) Linoleic acid
d) Laurie acid
4210
1. Which of the following is a glycolipid?
[[a) Cerebroside]]
b) Plasmalogen
c) Sphingomyelin
d) Lecithin
Correct = Cerebroside
2. Second messenger is produced from:
[[a) Phosphatidylinositol]]
b) Phosphatidylserine
c) Phosphatidylcholine
d) None
Correct = Phosphatidylinositol
3. A child presents with hepatosplenomegaly and pancytopenia. Bone

marrow shows "crumbled tissue paper appearance". It is due to accumulation of:
[[a) Glucocerebroside]]
b) Sphingomyelin
c) Ganglioside
d) Galactocerebroside
Correct = Glucocerebroside
4211
4. Sphingomyelinase deficiency is seen in:
[[a) Niemann-Pick disease]]
b) Farber's disease
c) Tay-Sa.ch's disease
d) Krabbe's disease
Correct = Niemann-Pick disease
5. Deficiency of phosphorylating enzymes for the formation of which of the

following recognition marker leads to 1- cell disease?
a) GM2 ganglioside
[[b) Mannose 6 phosphate]]
c) Galactose
d) Globoside
Correct = Mannose 6 phosphate
6. Which of the following disease occurs due to the deficiency of

glucocerebrosidase?
[[a) Gaucher 's disease]]
b) Pompe's disease
c) Fabry's disease
d) Krabbe's disease
Correct = Gaucher 's disease
7. Accumul ation of sphingomyelin in phagocytic cells is feature of:
a) Tay-Sach's disease
4212
b) Gaucher's disease
[[c) Niemann-Pick disease]]
d) Down's syndrome
Correct = Niemann-Pick disease
8. Tay-Sachs disease is due to accumulation of:
[[a) GM2 ganglioside]]
b) GM1 ganglioside
c) Glucocerebroside
d) Galactocerebrosi de
Correct = GM2 ganglioside
1. The followings correctly arranged
a) GMP-Guanine monophosphate
b) UMP-Uracil monophosphate
c) TMP-Thymine monophosphate
[[d) CMP-Cytidine monophosphate]]
Correct = CMP-Cytidine monophosphate
2. Apart from occurring in nucleic acid, pyrimidines are also found 1:
a) Theophylline
b) Theobromine
c) Flavin mononucleotide
4213
[[d) Allantoin]]
Correct = Allantoin
3. Which of the following is not a nitrogenous base?
a) Adenine
[[b) Guanosine]]
c) Cytosine
d) Thymine
Correct = Guanosine
4. Which is not found in DNA?
a) Adenine
b) Adenine
c) Guanine
[[d) Uracil]]
Correct = Uracil
5. At the physiological pH the DNA molecules are:
a) Positively charged
[[b) Negatively charged]]
c) Neutral
d) Amphipathic
Correct = Negatively charged
4214
1. Enzyme deficiency in Lesch Nyhan Syndrome?
[[a) HGPRtase]]
b) APRTase
c) Adeosine ceaminase
d) Purine Phosphorylase
Correct = HGPRtase
2. A child presents with hyperuricemia and delayed developmental milestones.

He also has the habit of biting fingers and nails. What is the most probable
enzyme deficiency?
[[a) HGPRtase deficiency]]
b) Phenyl Alanine Hydroxylase
c) Adenine Deaminase
d) Hexosaminidase A
Correct = HGPRtase deficiency
3. End product of purine metabolism in non-primate mammals is:
a) Uric acid
b) Ammonia
c) Urea
[[d) Allantoin]]
Correct = Allantoin
4. Deoxy ribonucleic acid is formed from:
a) Ribonuclease
4215
b) Ribonucleotide monophosphate
[[c) Ribonucleotide diphosphate]]
d) Ribonucleotide triphosphate
Correct = Ribonucleotide diphosphate
5. lnosinic acid is biological precursor:
a) Uracil and thymine
b) Purines and thymine
[[c) Adenylic acid and guanylic acid]]
d) Orotic acid and uridylic acid
Correct = Adenylic acid and guanylic acid
6. False regarding gout is:
[[a) Due to increased metabolism of pyrimidines]]
b) Due to increased metabolism of purines
c) Uric acid levels may not be elevated
d) Has a predilection for the great toe
Correct = Due to increased metabolism of pyrimidines
7. The enzyme deficient in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is:
a) GTRT
b) Glutaminase
c) Transcarboxylase
[[d) HGPRT]]
Correct = HGPRT
4216
8. A 1O-year-old child presents with history of rashes self-mutilation family
history positive. Which of the following investigations do you think may be
a) Lead
b) Alkaline Phosphatase
c) LDH
[[d) Uric acid]]
Correct = Uric acid
9. A ten-year-old child with aggressive behavior and poor concentration is

brought with presenting complaints of joint pain and reduced urinary output.
Mother gives history of self-mutilate his finger. Which of the following enzymes
is likely to be deficient in this child?
[[a) HGPRT ase]]
b) Adenosine Deaminase
c) APRTase
d) Acid Maltase
Correct = HGPRT ase
10. A patient with increased Hypoxanthine and Xanthine in blood with hypouricemia
which enzyme is deficient?
a) HGPRtase
[[b) Xanthine Oxidase]]
c) Adenosine Deaminase
d) APRtase
Correct = Xanthine Oxidase
11. Choose the incorrect statement Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome:
a) Affects young boys
4217
b) Presents with gouty arthritis
[[c) The enzyme defect enhances the reutilization of purine bases]]
d) Bizzare behavior of self-mutilation
Correct = The enzyme defect enhances the reutilization of purine bases
12. Hyperuricemia is not found in:
a) Cancer
b) Psoariasis
c) Von gierke's disese
[[d) Xanthinuria]]
Correct = Xanthinuria
1. Fibropeptidase A&B are highly negative due to presence of which amino

acids?
[[a) Glutamate and Aspartate]]
b) Serine and threonine
c) Lysine and Arginine
d) Valine and Lysine
Correct = Glutamate and Aspartate
modification?
a) Triiodothyronine
4218
b) Hydroxyproline
c) Hydroxy lysine
[[d) Selenocysteine]]
[[a) Arginine]]
b) Aspartic acid
c) Isoleucine
d) Valine
Correct = Arginine
4. What is the pH of the solution if the Hydrogen ion concentration is mill

moles/L
[[a) 2.3]]
b) 3.7
c) 6.6
d) 3.5
Correct = 2.3
a) UAG
[[b) UGA]]
c) UAA
d) GUA
Correct = UGA
4219
a) Methionine
b) Lysine
[[c) Alanine]]
d) Leucine
Correct = Alanine
a) Tyrosine
[[b) Arginine]]
c) Histidine
d) Lysine
Correct = Arginine
[[a) Cysteine]]
b) Leucine
c) Arginine
d) Threonine
Correct = Cysteine
a) Phenylalanine
b) Lysine
[[c) Threonine]]
d) Methionine
4220
Correct = Threonine
a) Tryptophan
b) Threonine
c) Histidine
[[d) Cysteine]]
Correct = Cysteine
a) Phenylalanine
b) Tyrosine
c) Tryptophan
[[d) Valine]]
Correct = Valine
[[a) Acidic amino acid]]
b) Basic amino acid
c) Aromatic amino acid
d) Branched chain amino acid
Correct = Acidic amino acid
a) Glutamate
b) Glutamic acid
4221
[[c) Glutamine]]
d) Aspartate
Correct = Glutamine
14. Which of the following is semi essential amino acid?
[[a) Arginine]]
b) Histidine
c) Glycine
d) Phenylalanine
Correct = Arginine
[[a) Hydroxyproline]]
b) Methionine
c) Cysteine
d) Lysine
Correct = Hydroxyproline
16. PKA=Ph when:
a) Solute is completely ionized
[[b) When the concerntration of ionized and unionized form is same]]
c) Solute is completely unionized
d) All of the above
Correct = When the concerntration of ionized and unionized form is same
17. HCO3-/H2Co3 is considered most effective buffer at physiological pH because:
4222
a) It has pKa close to physiological pH
b) It is formed a weak acid and base
[[c) Its components can be increased or decreased by the body]]
d) It can donate and accept H+
Correct = Its components can be increased or decreased by the body
18. Replacing alanine by which amino acid will increase UV absorbance of protein
are 280 nm wavelength?
a) Leucine
b) Proline
c) Arginine
[[d) Tryptophan]]
19. Which of the following protein cannot be phosphorylated using protein kinase
in prokaryotic organisms?
a) Threonine
b) Tyrosine
c) Serine
[[d) Asparagine]]
Correct = Asparagine
20. Carboxylation of clotting factors by vitamin K is required to be biologically

active. Which of the following amino acid is carboxylated?
a) Histidine
b) Histamine
[[c) Glutamate]]
d) Aspartate
4223
Correct = Glutamate
21. Property of photochromisity is seen amongst the following amino aids:
a) Unsaturated amino acid
[[b) Aromatic amino acid]]
c) Monocarboxylic acid
d) Dicarboxylic acid
Correct = Aromatic amino acid
a) Peptide bond
b) Lmino group
c) Disulphide bond
[[d) Aromatic amino acid]]
Correct = Aromatic amino acid
23. All biologically active amino acids are:
[[a) L-forms]]
b) D-forms
c) Mostly D-forms
d) D and L forms
Correct = L-forms
24. Flexibility of protein depends on:
[[a) Glycine]]
b) Tryptophan
4224
c) Phenyalalnine
d) Histidine
Correct = Glycine
25. Which amino acid can protonate deprotonate at neutral pH?
[[a) Histidine]]
b) Leucine
c) Glycine
d) Arginine
Correct = Histidine
26. Which of the following amino acid is purely glucogenic?
a) Valine
b) Lysine
[[c) Alanine]]
d) Glycine
Correct = Alanine
a) Triiodothyronine
c) Hydroxyproline
d) Hydroxylysine
4225
a) Blood sugar
[[b) Inborn errors of metabolism]]
c) Hepatitis
d) Cataract
Correct = Inborn errors of metabolism
29. Nitric oxide is synthesized from which amino acid
[[a) Arginine]]
b) Serine
c) Threonine
d) Lysine
Correct = Arginine
30. Fibrinopeptide A and 8 are highly negative charged proteins made up of:
a) Serine and Threonine
b) Lysine and Histidine
[[c) Aspartate and Glutamate]]
d) Leucine and Lysine
Correct = Aspartate and Glutamate
31. In Cystinuria, all of the following amino acids are excreted, except:
a) Cystine
b) Ornithine
[[c) Leucine]]
d) Arginine
Correct = Leucine
4226
32. Phenylketonuria is due to deficiency of
a) Phenylalanine
[[b) Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH]]
c) Phenylene
d) Allofthese
Correct = Phenylalanine hydroxylase (PAH
33. Nitric oxide acts by increasing
a) BRCA 1
b) BRCA 2
c) Interleukin
[[d) CGMP]]
Correct = CGMP
34. Serotonin is also known as
[[a) 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)]]
b) N-methyl phenylamine
c) 3-Methoxytyramine
d) Phenethylamine
Correct = 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)
35. Tyrosinosis is caused due to deficiency of which enzyme?
[[a) Fumaryl acetoacetate hydrolase]]
b) P-hydroxy phenyl pyruvate dehydrogenase
c) Tyrosine transaminase
d) Tyrosine ligase
4227
Correct = Fumaryl acetoacetate hydrolase
36. Non-essential amino acid group is
[[a) Acidic Amino Acid]]
b) Branched chain amino Acid
c) Basic Amino Acid
d) Aromatic Amino Acid
Correct = Acidic Amino Acid
37. Which is 21st amino acid
a) Alanine
b) Arginine
c) Cystine
[[d) Seleno cysteine]]
Correct = Seleno cysteine
38. Amino acid present in thioredoxin reductase:
a) Alanine
c) Cysteine
d) Serine
39. Glucogenic amino acid is
a) Leucine
b) Lysine
4228
c) Phenylalanine
[[d) Valine]]
Correct = Valine
40. Both glucogenic and ketogenic amino-acids are all except-
[[a) Leucine]]
b) Tryptophan
c) Phenylanine
d) Tyrosine
Correct = Leucine
41. Indole ring is present in-
[[a) Tyrosinase]]
b) Phenylalanine
c) Tyroxine
d) Threonine
Correct = Tyrosinase
a) Produced in liver
b) Break down from muscle
[[c) From external source]]
d) Synthesis in muscle
Correct = From external source
4229
a) Histidine
[[b) Arginnine]]
c) Tyrosine
d) Lysine
Correct = Arginnine
44. Amino acid which is not stable in (incompatible with) alpha-helix is
[[a) Proline]]
b) Glutamine
c) Alanine
d) Tryptophan
Correct = Proline
45. Amino acid with double chiral carbon
a) Tyrosine
[[b) Threonine]]
c) Tryptophane
d) Phenyalanine
Correct = Threonine
46. Substitution of which one ofthe following amino acids in place of alanine
would increase the absorbance of protein at 280 nm
a) Leucine
b) Arginine
[[c) Tryptophan]]
d) Proline
4230
a) Arginine
[[b) Alanine]]
c) Methionine
d) Glycine
Correct = Alanine
a) Cysteine
[[b) Tyrosine]]
c) Glutamine
d) Tryptophan
Correct = Tyrosine
49. Disulphide bond is seen between-
a) Lysine and cysteine
b) Arginine and cysteine
[[c) Cysteine and cysteine]]
d) Arginine and histidine
Correct = Cysteine and cysteine
50. Sulphur containing amino acids metabolism needs
a) Pyridoxine
b) Folic acid
c) Vitamin Bl2
4231
51. In phenylketouria, diet restriction is advised for
a) Maize
[[b) Phenylalanine]]
c) Tyrosine
d) All
a) Purines
b) Creatine
c) Heme
[[d) Pyrimidines]]
Correct = Pyrimidines
53. Sulfhydryl group containing amino acid{s)
a) Methionine
[[b) Cysteine]]
c) Cystine
d) ALL
Correct = Cysteine
[[a) Tryptophan]]
4232
b) Serotonin
c) Phenyllanine
d) Histidine
55. Which of the following amino acid has positive charge at physiological pH?
a) Aspartate
[[b) Arginine]]
c) Valine
d) Isoleucine
Correct = Arginine
56. Which vitamin can be synthesized in body
a) Pantothenic acid
[[b) Niacin]]
c) Folic acid
d) Bl2
Correct = Niacin
57. After a point mutation, glutamic acid replaced byvaline, which leads to
formation of sickle cell Hb. mobility of HbS as compared to normal Hb on gel
[[a) Decreased]]
b) Increased
c) Dependent on HbS concentration
d) Unchanged
Correct = Decreased
4233
58. All of the following amino acids forms acetyl CoA via pyruvate dehydrogenase
except :
a) Glycine
b) Hydroxyproline
[[c) Tyrosine]]
d) Alanine
Correct = Tyrosine
59. A child with pellagra like symptoms, amino acids in urine, family history
of two siblings affected and two normal. Parents are normal. What is the diagnosis
a) Phenylketonuria
b) Alkaptonuria
c) Maple syrup urine disease
[[d) Hartnup's disease]]
Correct = Hartnup's disease
60. What is Isoelectric point?
a) WhenpH=pl
b) When zwitterion exists
c) Protein precipitation occurs
[[d) All]]
Correct = All
61. Which is elevated in PLP deficiency
a) FIGLU
4234
b) Homocystine
c) Methylmalonic acid
[[d) Xanthurenic acid]]
Correct = Xanthurenic acid
62. Hormone synthesized from Tyrosine is
a) Cortisol
b) Calcitonin
[[c) Thyroxine]]
d) Calcitriol
Correct = Thyroxine
63. Type I Tyrosinemia is caused by:
a) Maleylacetoacetate Isomerase
[[b) Fumaryl Acetoacetate Hydrolase]]
c) Tyrosine Transaminase
d) 4-Hydroxy Phenylpyruvate Hydroxylase
Correct = Fumaryl Acetoacetate Hydrolase
64. Which amino acid's deamination takes place in liver
a) Aspartic acid
[[b) Alanine]]
c) Glycine
d) Glutamine
Correct = Alanine
4235
a) Betaine
[[b) Sarcosine]]
c) Carnosine
d) Ergothionine
Correct = Sarcosine
66. Amino acid used in Carnitine synthesis is
a) Alanine
b) Tyrosine
c) Arginine
[[d) Lysine]]
Correct = Lysine
a) Aspartate
b) Uracil
c) Guanosine
[[d) Arginine]]
Correct = Arginine
a) Carnitin
b) Inositol
c) Glycine
[[d) Serine]]
Correct = Serine
4236
69. In Maple syrup urine disease, the amino acids excreted in urine are all except
a) Leucine
[[b) Phenylalanine]]
c) Isoleucine
d) Valine
a) S-adenosyl methionine
[[b) Tetrahydrobiopterin]]
c) Tetrahydrofolate
d) Pyridoxal phosphate
Correct = Tetrahydrobiopterin
71. Which of following is polar
a) Tryptophan
b) Methionin
[[c) Glutamic acid]]
d) Isoleucine
Correct = Glutamic acid
a) Valine
b) Histidine
c) Methionine
4237
[[d) Tyrosine]]
Correct = Tyrosine
a) Histidine
b) Aspartate
[[c) Lysine]]
d) Alanine
Correct = Lysine
74. Xanthurenic acid is the metabolite in the metabolism
a) Uric acid
b) Xanthine
[[c) Tryptophan]]
d) Uronic acid I
a) Tryptophan
b) Phenylalanine
[[c) Cysteine]]
d) Alanine
Correct = Cysteine
a) Pyridoxal phosphate
4238
b) Biotin
c) Cytochrome P450
[[d) S-adenosyl methionine]]
Correct = S-adenosyl methionine
77. Ochronosis is caused by
a) Tyrosinemia Type 1
b) Maple syrup urine disease
[[c) Alkaptonuria]]
d) Phenylketonuria
78. In Alkaptonuria, which of the following accumulates abnormally in urine
a) Phenylalanine
[[b) Homogentisate]]
c) Fumarate
d) Acetoacetate
Correct = Homogentisate
79. Strength and rigidity in keratin is due to
a) Leucine
[[b) Cysteine]]
c) Lithium
Correct = Cysteine
4239
80. Which of the following is not a selenoprotein
a) Glutathione peroxidase
b) Thioredoxin reducta
c) Iodothyronine deiodinase
[[d) Glutathione reductase]]
Correct = Glutathione reductase
81. Which amino acid does not include post translational modification 1
[[a) Selenocysteine]]
b) Triiodothyronine
c) Hydroxy-proline
d) Hydroxy-lysine
82. Which amino acid has maximum tendency to bind phosphate
[[a) Serine]]
b) Alanine
c) Phenylalanine
d) Tryptophan
Correct = Serine
[[a) Glycine]]
b) Lysine
c) Methionine
d) Glutamate
Correct = Glycine
4240
84. Hyperphenylalaninemia occurs due to
[[a) Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency]]
b) Phenylalanine hydroxylase overactivity
c) Dihydrobiopterin reductase deficiency
d) Tyrosine hydroxylase deficiency
Correct = Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency
[[a) Threonine]]
b) Tyrosine
c) Serine
d) Tryptophan
Correct = Threonine
a) -1
b) 0
c) -2
[[d) +1]]
Correct = +1
87. Codon for transcription of Selenocysteine is?
a) UAA
[[b) UGA]]
c) UAG
4241
d) GUA
Correct = UGA
88. Sulphur of cysteine not used in body for the following
a) Help in conversion of cyanide to thiocyanate
b) Thiosulphate formation
[[c) Introduction of sulphur atom in methionine]]
d) Disulfide bond formation b/w two adjacent peptide
Correct = Introduction of sulphur atom in methionine
89. Which of the following is true regarding phenylketonuria
[[a) Dietary phenylalanine restriction is used in treatment]]
b) Occur due to deficiency ofPhenyalanine hydroxylase enzyme
c) Occur due to increase activity of phenyalanine hydroxylase enzyme
d) Tyrosine must be supplied in diet
Correct = Dietary phenylalanine restriction is used in treatment
90. Terminal product( s) of phenylalanine is:
[[a) Fumarate]]
b) Acetyl CoA
c) Oxaloacetate
d) Acetoacetate
Correct = Fumarate
91. Optically inactive amino acid is/ are:
a) Threonine
4242
b) Thyronine
c) Valine
[[d) Glycine]]
Correct = Glycine
92. Disease of branched chain amino acid includes
a) Phenylketonuria
[[b) Maple syrup disease]]
c) Taysach's disease
d) Isovaleric acidemia
Correct = Maple syrup disease
93. Correct combination of Urine odour in various metabolic disorders
[[a) Phenylketonuria -Mousy odour]]
b) Tyrosinemia-Rotten cabbage
c) Hawkinsuria- Potato smell
d) Maple syrup disease-Rotten tomato
Correct = Phenylketonuria -Mousy odour
[[a) Serine]]
b) Tryptophan
c) Tyrosine
d) Valine
Correct = Serine
4243
95. Hydrophobic amino acids are:
[[a) Methionine]]
b) Isoleucine
c) Lysine
d) Alanine
Correct = Methionine
96. Non-polar amino acids are:
[[a) Alanine]]
b) Tryptophan
c) Isoleucine
d) Lysine
Correct = Alanine
97. Basic amino acid (s) is/are:
[[a) Arginine]]
b) Proline
c) Lysine
d) Histidine
Correct = Arginine
98. PKU is a congenital amino acid metabolic disorder. In one of the following
rare variants of PKU Dihydro Biopterin synthesis is affected. The enzyme
deficient is:
a) Histidine decarboxylase
b) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
[[c) Dihydropterin reductase]]
4244
d) Tyrosine deficiency
Correct = Dihydropterin reductase
a) Endothelium
[[b) Platelets]]
c) Neuron
d) Macrophages
Correct = Platelets
100. Non polar amino acids are:
a) Proline
b) Lysine
[[c) Isoleucine]]
d) Arginine
Correct = Isoleucine
101. Kinks in alpha structure are formed by which amino acid:
[[a) Glycine]]
b) Lysine
c) Methionine
d) Glutamate
Correct = Glycine
4245

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Topic: Water-salt metabolism (50 вопросов)

1. What is the function of albumin?

2. What hormone increases blood pressure in the kidneys due to

3. The incentive for increasing the secretion of vasopressin is

A. increased osmotic blood pressure

4. The incentive for increasing the secretion of vasopressin is

*A. formation of angiotensin II

5.What hormones promote calcium resorption from bones

7. How does mineralcorticoid effect on the exchange of salts in the

*A. Detains Na + and enhances urinary excretion of K +

8. What is the role of angiotensin?

A. stimulates the development of secondary sexual characteristics in men

9. The incentive for increasing the secretion of aldosterone isA. lowering

10. What hormones contribute to the excretion of phosphate in the

A. lower blood pressure

12. Which serum enzyme belongs to the indicator

13. The exchange of phosphorus is regulated in parallel with the

14. Choose a function that is not suitable for water in a living

a) participates in the formation of intracellular structures;

15. What is the role of aldosterone?

*1. increases reabsorption of Na in the kidney tubules

17. All substances of primary urine are divided into

*1. threshold and threshold less

3. non-penetrating18. Under the metabolic water of water balance

a) water coming from food

20. What are the processes of urine formation?

*1. filtration, reabsorption, secretion

21. What is the role of vasopressin?

22. One day in the urine is excreted:

a) 0.5 - 1.0 liters of water

*1. in the renal corpuscle

24. Where is renin enzyme produced?

*1.in the kidneys

25. Properties of angiotensin

*1. vasoconstrictor effect

26. Which plasma protein contains copper ions in its composition?

*a) ceruloplasminb) transcortin

28.The effect of calcitriol (a derivative of vitamin D3) on mineral

1) stimulation of calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestine

29. What food causes alkalization of urine

30. The development of antidiuretic hormone stimulates:

*a) increase in osmotic pressure of blood;

31. What is urine pH normal?

*1. 5.3 - 6.5

32. What is the substrate of the enzymatic action of renin enzyme in

33. Effect of parathyroid hormone on mineral metabolism

34. What food causes acidification of urine

4) flour products35. Among those listed, find a function that is not

*a) regulation of osmotic pressure;

*1. passive transport

37. How does Na get from kidney cells to extracellular fluid?

38. Effect of calcitonin on mineral metabolism

1. inhibition of calcium mobilization from bones

39. Vasopressin is a hormone that has a powerful antidiuretic effect,

reverse flow of water through the membranes of the renal tubules.

40. What is the percentage of plasma proteins in (percent)?

41. Specify which enzymes are indicator?

*1. lactate dehydrogenase, aldolase

42. Choose normal urine components