CSAT Test6 Key

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C: P-SIA-D-UPGI PRESTORMINGTM
Serial: 737246 CSAT A
TEST 6
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C or D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box.
Provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 80 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.83) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Q.1)Find the next term in the series 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ____?
(a) 17
(b) 23
*(c) 21
(d) 18
Solution:
Each successive term is the sum of the previous two terms.
Q.2)Find the next term in the series FG, HE, JC, LA, ___?
(a) XT
(b) NC
*(c) NY
(d) MX
Solution:
For the first letter, skip one letter and move ahead. While for the second letter, skip one letter and move
back.
Q.3)Find the next term in the series 2, 3, 4, 9, 16, 81, ___?

(a) 6561
(b) 32
(c) 243
*(d) 256
Solution:
It is an alternating sequence of squares. The 1st term is 2, 3rd term is 22 = 4, 5th term is 42 = 16. Therefore,
the 7th term must be 162 = 256. Similarly, the 2nd term is 3, 4th term is 32 and so on.
Q.4)Poverty: Employment: : Sickness : ?

(a) Health
*(b) Treatment
(c) Hospital
(d) Doctor
1
Solution:
Employment is a solution for poverty. Similarly, treatment is a solution for sickness.
Q.5)In a certain language, DEMAND is written as FGOCPF, which word would be written as ECOGTC?
*(a) CAMERA
(b) SUNSET
(c) RANSOM
(d) PRETTY
Solution:
Skip one letter and move forward to convert from English to code and back to convert from code to
English.
Q.6)In a certain language, ERTANEEGDE is the code for DEGENERATE, which word would be coded as
MEDNAD?
(a) DEEMED
(b) DAMMED
*(c) DEMAND
(d) MENDED
Solution:
The coded word is an anagram for the English word. We have to unscramble it.
S.7-9) Directions for the following 3 (Three) items: Read the following Passage and answer the items that
follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 1
The health-care system across the world has witnessed a phenomenal improvement so that the life
expectancy in almost every country has increased significantly. Besides improvements in public hygiene, the
newer non-invasive methods of diagnosis, newer drugs and unprecedented technological advances in
treatment and patient-care have all contributed to the longer life span. This puts further demands on applied
research for developing new drugs, tests, imaging techniques, surgical modalities etc., especially because the
increasing population burden and longer lifespan have generated novel health issues that were not so critical
even a few decades ago.
The recent unprecedented progresses in our understanding of Nature, biological systems and the amazing
technologies now available to common man give an impression that we have solved most mysteries of the
2
Nature’s laws and principles that govern us. Armed with this belief, most of the economically advanced
countries have placed priorities on “applied research”, especially in the bio-medical field, in order to
ameliorate the increasing load of old age and life-style diseases. With detectable improvements in the overall
performance of scientific research in India, it is often asked if India should also not place greater priorities on
applied research in medical institutions.
Q.7)Which of the following statements are correct according to the passage?

I. Modern life-spans are longer than the life-spans in older generations on average.
II. Our understanding of Nature has improved over the years.
III. Applied research is not a priority for a majority of developing countries.
(a) Only II
*(b) Only I & II
(c) Only II & III
(d) Only I & III
Solution:
The passage states that now life-spans are longer and that we have made unprecedented progresses in
understanding Nature.
Q.8)What is the most logical inference that can be drawn from the passage above?
(a) India will soon shift its focus to applied research in its medical institutions
(b) Performing surgeries on aged people entails an element of risk
*(c) Modern health issues are new and have become an important area of research
(d) Diagnosing an ageing population is a complicated process
Solution:
The passage states that” the increasing population burden and longer lifespan have generated novel
health issues that were not so critical even a few decades ago.”
Q.9)What is the most logical, rational and critical message that is given in the passage above?
*(a) Developments in the medical field may make India consider focusing on applied research
(b) The population of the world will continue increasing in the future
(c) Older people are happier now than they were in the past
(d) People’s life-spans have increased over the last few generations
Solution:
3
The author ends by posing the question “it is often asked if India should also not place greater priorities
on applied research in medical Institutions,” which is the main point of writing this passage.
S.10-11) Directions for the following 2 (Two) items: Read the following Passage and answer the items that
PASSAGE 2
Perhaps the most significant geopolitical force is the continuing rise of China as an economic and politically
influential power, especially as multilateral institutions decline in power. In the future, China’s soft power will
likely become increasingly important, and its state-owned enterprises are expected to have different
objectives and operations than conventional multinationals. For example, consider China’s massive Belt and
Road Initiative (BRI) to promote investment in developing infrastructure and trade along the historic Silk Road
trade routes. The BRI will likely spur significant cross-border economic activity between more than 70
countries across Asia, Europe, the Middle East and Oceania. It will open new trade routes and connections
between China and many developing countries, especially in Eurasia.
Q.10)What is the most logical, rational and critical inference that can be drawn from the passage above?
(a) China will become the largest superpower in the world
(b) China has strong diplomatic ties with Asian and European countries
(c) Silk Road was an important part of Chinese trade in history
*(d) Chinese investments will lead to an increase in trading activities
Solution:
The passage states that “The BRI will likely spur significant cross-border economic activity between more
than 70 countries across Asia, Europe, the Middle East and Oceania.”
Q.11)Which of the following statements is a valid assumption made by the author of the passage?
I. Chinese state-owned companies may differ in their function from traditional multi-national companies.
II. The economic and political rise of China will fuel international trade.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
*(c) Both I & II
(d) Neither I nor II
Solution:
4
Both the statements are implied because the author mentions that “its state-owned enterprises is
expected to have different objectives and operations than conventional multinationals’ and that “the
most significant geopolitical force is the continuing rise of China as an economic and politically influential
power’ which is tied to an increase in global trading activities.
S.12) Directions for the following 1 (One) item: Read the following Passage and answer the items that follow.
Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
PASSAGE 3
Advanced liquid biofuels are a key part of low-carbon transport development to meet emission-reduction
targets and international climate commitments. Liquid biofuels, requiring minimal changes to fuel distribution
infrastructure or the transport fleet, can be deployed rapidly to cut greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions.
*(a) Liquid biofuels have the potential to be instrumental in reducing greenhouse gas emissions
(b) Transport development is essential for the future
(c) Advanced biofuels take very less time to be deployed
(d) It is imperative to follow international climate commitments
Solution:
The passage states that “Advanced liquid biofuels are a key part of low-carbon transport development to
meet emission-reduction targets and international climate commitments” and highlight the role they can
play in reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
PASSAGE 4
The Parsis were the first Indian civilian community to take to cricket. They set up the Oriental Cricket Club in
Mumbai in 1848. It died a premature death, but the community then established the Young Zoroastrians Club
in 1850. They were followed by the Hindus, who formed the Hindu Gymkhana in 1866. The scene of the
cricketing activities of the Mumbai locals was the Esplanade 'maidan,' which was situated in front of the
western ramparts of the erstwhile Bombay 'Fort' (demolished in 1860). At the far end of this 'maidan' was a
plot of land called the Bombay Gymkhana.
5
Cricket was also gaining in popularity in other cities at around the same time. 1884 was an eventful year, in
that a team from Sri Lanka played a match in Kolkata. It was the country's first shot at international cricket.
The Parsi Gymkhana was set up in Mumbai in the same year. A year later, Kolkata hosted a match between
the Presidency Club and a team from Australia.
Q.13)Which of the following is the most suitable title for the passage above?
(a) Cricket in olden days Bombay
(b) International cricket in India
*(c) Nascent developments of cricket in India
(d) Cricket in modern-day India
Solution:
The passage traces the historical introduction and early developments of cricket in India.

I. The Parsi community was a pioneer in cricketing activities in India
II. Bombay was the only place where cricket was played in 19th century India
III. Indian cricket has a long and storied history.
*(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) I, II & III
Solution:
The passage only mentions that “The Parsis were the first Indian civilian community to take to cricket.”
Q.15)What is the area of the region inside the square that is not covered by the circle if the square has an area
of 36 cm2?
(a) 9π cm2
6
(b) 27π cm2
*(c) 36 – 9π cm2
(d) 36 - 27π cm2
Solution:
Area of square = 36 cm2 Side of square = 6 cm
 Side of square = Diameter of circle  Radius = 6 cm / 2 = 3 cm
 Area of Circle = πr2 = π*(3)2 = 9π cm2
 Area of remaining portion = 36 – 9π cm2
Q.16)If 82/a is a positive integer, then how many integer values are possible for a?
*(a) Four
(b) Six
(c) Eight
(d) Ten
Solution:
If 82/a is a positive integer, it means that 82 is perfectly divisible by a and that a is a positive integer.
 82 = 1 * 82 or 2 * 41
 The factors of 82 are 1, 2, 41 and 82. Hence, there are 4 possible integer values for a.
Q.17)What is the sum of all the even integers from -188 to 400?
(a) 30,500
*(b) 31, 270
(c) 33,500
(d) 42,430
Solution:
Number of even integers = [400 – (-188)]/2 + 1 = 588/2 + 1 = 294 + 1 = 295
Average = (-188 + 400)/2 = 212/2 = 106
Sum = 295 * 106 = 31,270
Q.18)If x2y5z11> 0, then which of the following must be true?

(a) x > 0
(b) z > 0
(c) yz < 0
7
*(d) yz > 0
Solution:
If x2y5z11> 0, it means that both y and z must be positive. This is because all squares are ≥ 0, so x 2> 0
and (+) * (+) = (+).
Q.19)After giving a discount of 25%, a laptop was sold for Rs. 12,000. What was the price of the laptop before
giving the discount?
(a) Rs. 15,000
(b) Rs. 18,000
(c) Rs. 20,000
*(d) Rs. 16,000
Solution:
Let the pre-discount price = Rs. x
 x * 75/100 = 12000
 x = 12000 * 100/75 = Rs. 16,000
Q.20)If a/3 is an integer and b/4 is an integer, then which of the following must be a multiple of ab?
(a) 34
(b) 50
*(c) 48
(d) 66
Solution:
a is perfectly divisible by 3 and b is perfectly divisible by 4. Considering that a and b do not have any
common factors, ab must be perfectly divisible by 3*4 = 12. Hence, all multiples of 12 will be multiples
of ab.
Q.21)How many zeroes are there in 2563 * 25631?

*(a) 126
(b) 248
(c) 170
(d) 199
Solution:
8
The number of zeroes are determined by the number of 2*5 combinations. In 2563 * 25631, there are
more 2s than 5s, so the number of combinations is limited by the number of 5s.
2563 * 25631 = 5126 * 2248 There are 126 fives and hence there are 126 combinations of 2*5.
Q.22)Jagat has gone to take his driving test at the RTO. He notices that 5 people are going for the test at a
time and each group takes 10 minutes to complete the test. If there are 40 people ahead of him in the
queue, for how long will Jagat have wait before taking his test?
*(a) 1 h 20 m
(b) 1 h 30 m
(c) 2 h
(d) 2 h 45 m
Solution:
40 people = 40/5 = 8 groups of test-takers. Since, each group takes 10 minutes, Jagat will have to wait
8*10 = 80 minutes or 1 hour and 20 minutes to take his test.
S.23-24)Directions for Questions 23 to 24:Study the information given below to answer these questions.
A, B, C, D, E went together to attend a wedding. The people present at the wedding know that A is the son of B
but B is not the father of A. C is the son of D, who is the brother of A. E is the wife of D.
Q.23)How is A related to D?
(a) Uncle
(b) Father
*(c) Brother
(d) Son
Solution:
Questions 23 to 24:
B (mother)
A (son) D (A’s brother) E (D’s wife)
C (son)
Q.24)How many males are present in this group?

*(a) 3
(b) 4
9
(c) 5
(d) 6
Solution:
S.25-27) Directions for Questions 25 to 27:Study the information given below to answer these questions
(a) If only I follows
(b) If only II follows
(c) If both I and II follow
(d) If neither I nor II follows
Q.25)Problem: There is a problem of unemployment in India.

Solutions: I. The government should increase industrial investment to create jobs.
II. The government should establish more vocational training institutes in the country.
Solution:(c)
Solution I will create more jobs while solution II will make people more employable.
Q.26)Problem:Processing documents takes too much time in public sector offices in the country.
Solutions: I. A centralized online portal should be created to streamline the process of documentation.
II. People should learn to be patient if they want to get their work done in a public sector office.
Solution:(a)
Solution I provides a way to reduce processing times, but solution II does not address the problem.
Q.27)Problem:Road accidents are extremely high in India and lead to thousands of deaths each month.
Solutions: I. Speed-breakers should be placed on national highways at regular intervals to ensure that
people do not cross the speed limit.
II. People should be educated about traffic rules and fines for violation should be increased.
Solution:(b)
Solution I might aggravate the problem instead of solving it by having vehicles constantly speed up
and slowdown in the fast-moving traffic on national highways. Solution II provides a practical agenda
to solve the problem.
Q.28)Which number is incorrect in the series: 4, 7, 13, 26, 49?

(a) 4
10
(b) 7
*(c) 26
(d) 49
Solution:
Multiply each number by 2 and then subtract 1 to find the next term. 13*2 – 1 should be equal to 26 –
1 = 25
Q.29)Which number is incorrect in the series: -1, 7, 15, 23, 30, 39?
(a) -1
(b) 15
*(c) 30
(d) 39
Solution:
The series is an arithmetic progression with a gap of 8 between two consecutive terms. Therefore, the
5th term should be 31 instead of 30.
PASSAGE 1
Climate change deniers have argued that there has been a “pause” or a “slowdown” in rising global
temperatures, but several recent studies, including a 2015 paper published in the journal Science, have
disproved this claim. And scientists say that unless we curb global-warming emissions, average U.S.
temperatures could increase by up to 10 degrees Fahrenheit over the next century.
Q.30)Which of the following is the best explanation of the passage above?

(a) Climate change has been proven to be a hoax
(b) Global temperatures have not been rising for the last few years
(c) Several studies have been done on climate change
*(d) The claims of climate change deniers have been contradicted
Solution:
The author mentions that “a 2015 paper published in the journal Science, have disproved this claim”
of climate change deniers.
11
S.31-33) Directions for the following 3 (Three) items: Read the following Passage and answer the items that
PASSAGE 2
Various government initiatives are being adopted to boost the growth of distance education market besides
focusing on new education techniques, such as E-learning and M-learning. Education sector has seen a host of
reform and improved financial outlays in recent years that could possibly transform the country into a
knowledge haven. With human resource increasingly gaining significance in the overall development of the
country, development of education infrastructure is expected to remain the key focus in the current decade.
In this scenario, infrastructure investment in the education sector is likely to see a considerable increase in the
current decade. The Government of India has taken several steps including opening of IITs and IIMs in new
locations as well as allocating educational grant for research scholars in most Government institutions.
Furthermore, with online mode of education being used by several educational organisations, the higher
education sector in India is set for major change and development in the years to come.
*(a) New methods of education are leading to a transformation in the higher education sector in India
(b) Many new IITs and IIMs have been opened in the country
(c) Online education will be the predominant mode of education in the future
(d) M-learning is more effective than E-learning
Solution:
The main focus of the passage is how new educational techniques will transform the education sector
in India.
Q.32)The author of the passage makes which of the following assumptions?

I. New education techniques will spur a transformation in the education sector in India
II. The government is only focusing on online educational initiatives.
*(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
Solution:
12
The passage states that “with online mode of education being used by several educational
organisations, the higher education sector in India is set for major change and development in the
years to come” but does not state that the online mode is the only mode.
Q.33)Which of the following statements is the author most likely to disagree with?
(a) The education sector will attract more investment in the future
*(b) Research in the education field is unlikely to be productive in India
(c) India can become a hub for knowledge in the future
(d) Funding in the education sector has improved significantly in India
Solution:
The author will disagree with option B because the passage states that “The Government of India has
taken several steps including opening of IITs and IIMs in new locations as well as allocating
educational grant for research scholars in most Government institutions’ and there is no indication
that this initiative will be unsuccessful.
PASSAGE 3
Although South India has always been considered the cradle of motor sports in the country, there wasn’t
much happening even there. People raced for fun. Not for glory or prize money. Participants were in fact
requested to “contribute” towards the race expenses. Clearly motor sports suffered from lack of financial aid.
And in 1969, all that began to change. In 1970, the Western India Automobile Association (WIAA) at Mumbai
conducted the 7000 km long All India Highway Motor Rally based on the Monte Carlo Rally. It was to be
completed in a week’s time and formed part of the silver jubilee celebrations of India’s independence. It was
sanctioned by the Federation International Automobile (FIA) and backed by all motor sport clubs in India. The
rally attracted 120 entries and the competition started simultaneously from Chennai, Kolkata, Delhi and
Mumbai. They were all Nagpur-bound. This was the first time that big prize money was offered.
Q.34)Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Motor sports received significant government funding in India
(b) There are no motor sports in North India
*(c) Until recently, motor sports was treated as a hobby in India
(d) Rally racing is the primary form of motor sports in India
13
Q.35)Which of the following is the most appropriate tone of the passage above?
(a) Skeptical
(b) Laudatory
*(c) Analytical
(d) Persuasive
Q.36)What is the probability that it will rain on Monday and Wednesday next week in five days from Monday
to Friday, given that the probability of rain on any given day is ½?
(a) 5/16
(b) 1/16
*(c) 1/32
(d) 5/32
Solution:
The probability of rain on any given day is ½, so the probability that it will not rain is also ½.
 P (rain on M and W) = (1/2)5 = 1/32
Q.37)In a class of 250 students, 137 play cricket and 188 play hockey. There are 15 students who play neither
sport. How many students play only hockey?
*(a) 98
(b) 188
(c) 47
(d) 90
Solution:
C H
137 188
98
90
15
Total = Cricket + Hockey – Both + Neither  250 = 137 + 188 – Both + 15

 250 = 340 – Both  Both = 90
14
 Only Hockey = 188 – 90 = 98 students
Q.38)Ajay sells his goods 25% cheaper than Vijay, but 20% costlier than Sujay. By what percentage are Vijay’s
goods costlier than Sujay’s goods?
(a) 40%
*(b) 60%
(c) 45%
(d) 75%
Solution:
Let Sujay = 100
 Ajay = 100*120/100 = 120
Vijay * 75/100 = Ajay
 Vijay = 120*100/75 = 160
 Vijay’s goods are (160 – 100)/100 * 100 = 60% costlier than Sujay
Q.39)In how many years will a sum of Rs. 50,000 become Rs. 54,000 at the rate of 8% p.a. compound interest?
(a) 3 years
(b) 2 years
(c) 6 years
*(d) 1 year
Solution:
𝑥
108
50000 ∗ = 54000
100
27 𝑥
 25 ∗ 25
= 27
27 𝑥 27
 =
25 25
 𝑥 = 1 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟
Q.40)A distributor mixes water in milk and thereby ends up gaining 20%. What is the percentage of water in
the mixture of milk and water?
(a) 20%
*(b) 16.67%
(c) 25%
15
(d) 33.33%
Solution:
Let the milk = 100 litres
Let the new quantity = 100*120/100 = 120 litres
 Water = (20/120)*100 = 16.67%
I. Six friends Padmini, Qutub, Rahul, Shilpa, Tanuj and Uday were playing games of Counter Strike
and Super Mario.
II. The total scores of Padmini in Counter Strike were just above Rahul and in Super Mario just above
Uday.
III. Qutub was just above Rahul in Super Mario but he scored less than Shilpa in Counter Strike.
IV. Uday got higher scores than Shilpa and Tanuj in Super Mario but did not perform as well in
Counter Strike as in Super Mario as compared to Shilpa and Tanuj.
V. No one is in between Rahul and Shilpa in Counter Strike and Rahul and Padmini in Super Mario
Q.41)Who got the highest scores in Super Mario?

(a) Padmini
*(b) Qutub
(c) Rahul
(d) Insufficient Information
Solution:
Questions 41 to 44:
Counter Strike:
P
R
S
Q/U
(Cannot determine the position of T)
Super Mario:
Q
R
P
16
U
S/T
Q.42)Which of the following friends has scored the least in Super Mario?
(a) Only Shilpa
(b) Only Tanuj
*(c) Only Shilpa or Tanuj
(d) Insufficient Information
Q.43)Who was just below Shilpa in Counter Strike?

(a) Qutub
(b) Tanuj
(c) Rahul
*(d) Insufficient Information
Q.44)Which of the given statements is not required to answer the questions?

(a) II
(b) IV
(c) III
*(d) All of them are required
Q.45)A and B are two towns 450 km away from each other. A bus starts from A towards B at a speed of 60
km/hr. Two hours later, another bus starts from B for A at a speed of 50 km/hr. How far from A will they
be when they cross each other?
*(a) 300 km
(b) 150 km
(c) 200 km
(d) 250 km
Solution:
Distance covered by A in 2 hours = 60*2 = 120 km
 Remaining Distance = 450 – 120 = 330 km
 Relative Speed = 60 + 50 = 110 km/hr
 Time taken to meet = 330/110 = 3 hours
17
 In 3 hours A will cover 60*3 = 180 km
 Distance from A = 120 + 180 = 300 km
Q.46)A solid right-circular cylindrical block (no air inside) of radius 3 m and height 4 m is cut in half. What is
the new total surface area of both the blocks combined?
(a) 48 m2
*(b) 60π m2
(c) 78π m2
(d) 54π m2
Solution:
Original surface area = 2πr2 + 2πrh = 2*π*9 + 2*π*3*4 = 18π + 24π = 42π m2
New surface area = 42π + 2 new discs = 42π + 9π + 9π = 60π m2
Q.47)2/3 of all the students are boys and 1/5 of all the boys play the guitar. What fraction of the total students
are boys who play the guitar?
(a) 1/3
(b) 4/7
(c) 3/8
*(d) 2/15
Solution:
Let total students = x
 Boys = 2x/3
 Boys who play guitar = (2x/3)*(1/5) = 2x/15
 Fraction of students who play guitar = (2x/15)/x = (2x/15)*(1/x) = 2/15
Q.48)a + b = √28 and a – b = √7. What is the value of a2 – b2?

(a) 196
(b) 36
*(c) 14
(d) 25
Solution:
a2 – b2 = (a + b)(a – b) = √28 * √7 = √196 = 14
18
PASSAGE 1
Postwar Soviet expansionism in Eastern Europe fueled many Americans’ fears of a Russian plan to control the
world. Meanwhile, the USSR came to resent what they perceived as American officials’ bellicose rhetoric, arms
buildup and interventionist approach to international relations. In such a hostile atmosphere, no single party
was entirely to blame for the Cold War; in fact, some historians believe it was inevitable.
Q.49) What is the most logical, rational and important implication made in the passage above?
(a) Americans were afraid of the Soviet Union
(b) Intervention is a good approach to international ties
(c) USSR and USA have always had a hostile relationship
*(d) It is possible that the Cold War was an unavoidable outcome of geo-political actions
Solution:
The passage states that “no single party was entirely to blame for the Cold War; in fact, some
historians believe it was inevitable.”
PASSAGE 2
Wildlife corridors, used by various species to migrate, breed and feed, are increasingly becoming relevant as
essential tools for wildlife conservation. Rapid increase in industrial and infrastructural development,
especially around forests, has resulted in widespread habitat fragmentation and isolation. Added to this, the
growing development (for tourism, linear infrastructure etc.) around protected areas, and the altered de facto
boundaries of these, have exacerbated this need. There is, however, no ‘hard’ statutory recognition afforded
in India to wildlife corridors in spite of their established relevance in ecological conservation. Nor is there a
strict prohibition on development within and around important corridors in India. Even so, wildlife corridors
have found passing mention in certain conservation law and guidelines framed thereunder, which seek to
protect wildlife habitat and reduce human – wildlife conflict. These extant legal spaces have largely proved
ineffective in the protection and conservation of corridors, and corridor protection and management
continues to be a dormant legal space in India.
19
*(a) Wildlife corridors do not have adequate legal protection in India
(b) Forests are being developed rapidly in India
(c) Human-wildlife contact is inevitable even if wildlife corridors are given sufficient protection
(d) Entering wildlife corridors is illegal according to Indian law
Solution:
The author mentions that “These extant legal spaces have largely proved ineffective in the protection
and conservation of corridors, and corridor protection and management continues to be a dormant
legal space in India.”
Q.51)Which of the following statements provides the best explanation for the passage above?
(a) Tourism is growing at a rapid pace around wildlife corridors in India
(b) Wildlife in India lives in a fragmented manner spread out all over the country
(c) There are several endangered species and wildlife corridors in India
*(d) India needs better legislation for wildlife corridors to enable more effective wildlife conservation
Solution:
The passage highlights the lack of firm laws to protect wildlife corridors in India.
PASSAGE 3
A clean energy revolution is taking place across America, underscored by the steady expansion of the U.S.
renewable energy sector. The clean energy industry generates hundreds of billions in economic activity, and is
expected to continue to grow rapidly in the coming years. There is tremendous economic opportunity for the
countries that invent, manufacture and export clean energy technologies. Responsible development of all of
America’s rich energy resources -- including solar, wind, water, geothermal, bioenergy & nuclear -- will help
ensure America’s continued leadership in clean energy. Moving forward, the Energy Department will continue
to drive strategic investments in the transition to a cleaner, domestic and more secure energy future.
(a) Solar energy is the most popular source of energy in USA
(b) The clean energy industry is bigger than the thermal energy industry in America
*(c) There has been an increase in investment in the clean energy sector in America
20
(d) The Energy Department holds the highest responsibility for ensuring the successful implementation of
energy plans in USA
Solution:
Investments are highlighted in the part of the passage that mentions “the Energy Department will
continue to drive strategic investments in the transition to a cleaner, domestic and more secure
energy future.”
Q.53)Which of the following statements is a valid assumption made by the author of the passage?
I. America is a leader in the clean energy sector.
II. Renewable energy will provide a secure source of energy for the future.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
*(c) Both I & II
Solution:
Evidence that both the assumptions are implied can be found in the lines “the Energy Department will
continue to drive strategic investments in the transition to a cleaner, domestic and more secure
energy future.”
PASSAGE 4
India follows the dual polity system, i.e., a double government (federal in nature) that consists of the central
authority at the centre and states at the periphery. The constitution defines the organisational powers and
limitations of both central and state governments, and it is well recognised, fluid and considered supreme; i.e.,
the laws of the nation must confirm to it.
*(a) The constitution supersedes all authority and is supreme in India
(b) The state governments are more powerful than the central government in India
(c) The constitution of India is a rigid entity
(d) India has two governments functioning at the same time by taking turns
Solution:
21
The author states that the constitution “is well recognised, fluid and considered supreme.”
Q.55)What is the remainder when 2467 is divided by 7?

*(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 6
(d) 4
Solution:
2467/7 can be re-written as 367/7 if we consider only the remainders.
Cyclicity of powers of 3 when divided by 7:
31/7 = 3 ; 32/7 = 2 ; 33/7 = 6 ; 34/7 = 4 ; 35/7 = 5 ; 36/7 = 1 ; 37/7 = 3
 Cycle of 6 numbers = (3, 2, 6, 4, 5, 1)
 67/6 = 11 complete cycles and 1 extra number to begin a new cycle
 Remainder = 3
Q.56)If f(x) = 2x2 – 1 and g(x) = 4*√x, then what is the value of f(g(9))?
(a) 144
(b) 288
(c) 143
*(d) 287
Solution:
g(x) = 4*√x = 4*√9 = 4*3 = 12
 f(x) = 2*122 – 1 = 2*144 – 1 = 288 – 1 = 287
his
Q.57)Ranganathan is a 42-year-old man and son Rohit is 12 years old. After how many years will
Ranganathan be twice as old as Rohit?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 14
*(d) 18
Solution:
Let the number of years remaining till Ranganathan is twice as old as Rohit = x
22
42+𝑥 2
 12+𝑥
=1
 42 + 𝑥 = 24 + 2𝑥
 x = 18
Q.58)If Shikhar drives 20 km/hr faster, he can reduce the time he takes to commute by ¼. What is Shikhar’s
current average speed during his commute?
(a) 45 km/hr
*(b) 60 km/hr
(c) 75 km/hr
(d) 80 km/hr
Solution:
Both the distances will remain the same
 s*t = (s + 20)*(3t/4)
 s = (s + 20)*3/4
 4s = 3s + 60
 s = 60 km/hr
Q.59)If A = (2, 3, 5, 11, b, 17), then which of the following values is not possible for the range of set A?
(a) 15
*(b) 11
(c) 19
(d) 23
Solution:
Range = Max – Min
Since we already have 2 and 17 in the set, the range must at least be 17 – 2 = 15. Any number lower
than this is not possible.
Q.60)Split Rs. 3000 among w, x, y and z so that w and x together get three times as much as y and z
together, x gets four times of y and y gets 2 times as much as z. How much does x receive?
(a) Rs. 1500
(b) Rs. 1200
23
*(c) Rs. 2000
(d) Rs. 1800
Solution:
x = 4y ; y = 2z ; w + x + y + z = 3000  w + x = 3000 – y - z
w + x = 3 (y + z)  w + x = 3y + 3z  3y + 3z = 3000 – y – z  4y + 4z = 3000  y + z = 750
 y + z = 750 & y = 2z  3z = 750  z = 250 and y = 500
 x = 4y = 2000
Q.61)What percent higher than the cost price should a pair of shoes be marked (MP), so that after giving a
discount of 25%, the profit generated is 20%?
*(a) 60%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 41.67%
Solution:
Let the CP = Rs. x
 SP = 1.2x
SP is after 25% discount
 1.2x = MP*75/100
 MP = 1.2x*4/3 = 1.6x
MP – CP = 0.6x
 Percentage difference = (0.6x/x)*100 = 60%
Q.62)Shatabdi Express goes from Lucknow to New Delhi at an average speed of 120 km/hr and returns along
the same railway track at an average speed of 80 km/hr. What is the average speed of the train?
(a) 100 km/hr
*(b) 96 km/hr
(c) 88 km/hr
(d) 108 km/hr
Solution:
Let the one-way distance = d
Average Speed = Total Distance / Total Time
24
2𝑑 2𝑑 240
 Speed = 𝑑 𝑑 = 5𝑑 = 2𝑑 ∗ 5𝑑
= 96 𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟
+
120 80 240
Q.63)Rahul walks 20 m south from his office, turns left and walks 50 m, again turns left and walks 30 m, then
turns right and walks 10 m to reach his house. In which direction is the house from his office?
*(a) North-East
(b) North-West
(c) South-East
(d) South-West
Solution:
Q.64)A grandfather clock shows the time as 5:30 pm. If the minute hand is pointing towards the North, in
which direction is the hour hand pointing?
(a) North-East
*(b) North-West
(c) South-East
(d) South-West
Solution:
The directions are inverted if the minute hand is pointing to the North
 The hour hand must be pointing in the north-west direction
(a) If only assumption I is implicit
(b) If only assumption II is implicit
(c) If both I and II are implicit
(d) If neither I nor II is implicit
25
Q.65)Statement: Join our institute if you want to do well in the exam.
Assumptions: I. Our students do well in the exam.
II. Only our institute can help you do well in the exam.
Solution: (a)
The statement implies that the institute’s students do well in the exam but it does not imply that only
that institute’s students do well.
Q.66)Statement: Drink bottled water to avoid falling sick when you travel abroad.
Assumptions: I. If you do not drink bottled water when abroad, you will definitely fall sick.
II. Bottled water guarantees that you will not fall sick when travelling abroad.
Solution: (d)
The statement does not mean that those people who do not drink bottled water are definitely going
to fall sick and neither does it mean that bottled water is a guarantee against sickness, a person can
still fall sick due to other reasons.
Q.67)Statement: Credit card companies are using collection agents to recover their dues.
Assumptions: I. Collection agents are useful in recovering dues.
II. Credit card companies are using only collection agents.
Solution: (a)
Collection agents are being used because they are effective, but the statement does not imply that the
credit card companies are only using collection agents.
PASSAGE 1
In a democratic country, elections make a fundamental process. In simple terms, we can say that election is
the process of voting to choose someone as your political leader or representative in the government. As the
right to vote is a legal right of the citizen of India which can influence the decisions about how their country is
governed. It gives choice of leadership, political participation, through this a person can also raise their voice
or resentment against a ruling party and also it is a self-corrective system. Through this system, after every
five years, the ruling parties are kept in check and made to consider the demand of the public.
*(a) Elections help in keeping political parties in check in a democracy
26
(b) Voting should be made a legal right in India
(c) External corrections are required in a democracy like India
(d) Political participation is mandatory in every democracy
Solution:
The passage states that “the ruling parties are kept in check and made to consider the demand of the
public.”
Q.69) Which of the following statements are valid assumptions made by the author of the passage?
I. Elections are a cornerstone of democracy.
II. Elections ensure that the needs of the public are heard by political parties.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
*(c) Both I & II
Solution:
Both the assumptions are in the statements that “In a democratic country, elections make a
fundamental process” and “the ruling parties are kept in check and made to consider the demand of
the public” respectively.
PASSAGE 2
The high burden of death and disease due to air pollution and its associated substantial adverse economic
impact from loss of output could impede India's aspiration to be a $5 trillion economy by 2024. Successful
reduction of air pollution in India through state-specific strategies would lead to substantial benefits for both
the health of the population and the economy.
(a) Air pollution will remain a problem in India for the foreseeable future
*(b) Economic output suffers as a result of air pollution
(c) The health of the people has a direct impact on their aspirations
(d) It is more important to control pollution at the state level than at the central level
Solution:
27
The passage highlights “The high burden of death and disease due to air pollution and its associated
substantial adverse economic impact from loss of output.”
PASSAGE 3
According to current estimates, India’s population will peak in the early 2060s at 1.7 billion, putting additional
pressure on the environment and natural resources and boosting greenhouse gas emissions —though the
average Indian generates a fraction of the planet-warming emissions produced by the average American or
European. Most of India’s population increase by mid-century will be due to demographic momentum,
meaning that even as fertility rates fall below replacement levels, the large numbers of young people will
continue to boost the country’s population, says P. Arokiasamy, head of the Department of Development
Studies at the Indian Institute of Population Sciences in Mumbai.
This scenario parallels global trends. With the exception of a few regions, notably sub-Saharan Africa, fertility
levels have been falling worldwide in the past two decades, resulting in slowing population growth. The
United Nations has even lowered estimates of future population growth, projecting this year that, under a
medium growth scenario, global population will hit 10.9 billion in 2100, down from an estimated 11.2 billion a
few years ago. Other demographers are even more optimistic, with some mid-range estimates putting global
population at 9.5 billion and falling in 2100 due to improved education and better access to family planning
services.
*(a) Global population will enter a perpetual fall by 2100
(b) Indians produce more emissions than Americans and Europeans per capita
(c) India is the most populous country in the world
(d) Global population is likely to grow at an unprecedented rate
Solution:
The passage talks about global population estimates “with some mid-range estimates putting global
population at 9.5 billion and falling in 2100.”

I. Population in India will grow due to the pre-existing number of young people in India.
II. India’s population growth will be faster than that of Africa.
28
*(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I & II
Solution:
The passage only states that “Most of India’s population increase by mid-century will be due to
demographic momentum, meaning that even as fertility rates fall below replacement levels, the large
numbers of young people will continue to boost the country’s population.” There is no support for
statement II.
Q.73)Amit buys 12 pairs of socks at an average price of Rs. 90. If he again buys another pair of socks for Rs.
150, then what is the new average price?
(a) Rs. 120
(b) Rs. 105
*(c) Rs. 100
(d) Rs. 135
Solution:
Total price = 90*5 + 150 = 450 + 150 = Rs. 600
New average = 600/6 = Rs. 100
Q.74)A ladder is resting against a vertical wall at an angle of 60 degrees and the horizontal distance between
the base of the ladder and the wall is 5 m. What is the length of the ladder?
*(a) 10 m
(b) 8 m
(c) 5√3 m
(d) 5√2 m
Solution:
It is a 30 : 60 : 90 triangle  Ratio of sides = x : x√3 : 2x in the order of 30 : 60 : 90
The length of the ladder is the hypotenuse (2x) and the base of the ladder is opposite 30 degrees  x
= 5 m  2x = 10 m
29
Q.75)There are 50 students in a class and the ratio of boys to girls is 3 : 2. 20% of the boys are wearing a white
shirt. If a student is picked randomly from the class, what is the probability that he is a boy who is not
wearing a white shirt?
(a) 4/5
*(b) 12/25
(c) 6/25
(d) 8/15
Solution:
Number of boys = 50*3/5 = 30
 Boys wearing a white shirt = 30*20/100 = 6
 Boys not wearing a white shirt = 30 – 6 = 24
 P (boy not wearing a white shirt) = 24/50 = 12/25
Q.76) If 6a + 2 = 3600; then what is the value of 6a + 2?

(a) 3602
(b) 600
(c) 100
*(d) 102
Solution:
6a + 2 = 3600  6a * 62 = 3600  6a = 100  6a + 2= 102
Q.77)If |4x - 11| = 13, then what could be the value of x2?
(a) 49
(b) 16
*(c) 0.25
(d) 0.5
Solution:
|4x - 11| = 13
 4x - 11 = 13  4x = 24  x = 6 and x2 = 36
or 4x – 11 = -13  4x = -2  x = -0.5 and x2 = 0.25
30
In a family, there are seven members A, B, C, D, E, F and G among whom there are two couples. G is a designer
and her husband is a farmer. B is C’s husband, A is a student and is the granddaughter of G, while D is the
father-in-law of C, a teacher and father of E, a doctor. F is the brother of A and the son of B.
Q.78)How is E related to B?
(a) Son
(b) Brother
(c) Daughter
*(d) Insufficient information
Solution:
G (wife, designer) D (husband, farmer)
E (son/daughter of G and D) B (son of G and D) C (B’s wife, teacher)
A (B and C’s daughter, student) F (B and C’s son)
Q.79)How is F related to D?
(a) Grandfather
(b) Uncle
*(c) Grandson
(d) Insufficient information
Q.80)Who is B’s father?

*(a) D
(b) G
(c) C
(d) Insufficient information
31

CSAT Test6 Key

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

CSAT Test6 Key

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

CSAT Test6 Key

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Q.3)Find the next term in the series 2, 3, 4, 9, 16, 81, ___?

Q.4)Poverty: Employment: : Sickness : ?

Q.7)Which of the following statements are correct according to the passage?

Q.14)Which of the following statements are correct according to the passage?

Q.18)If x2y5z11> 0, then which of the following must be true?

Q.21)How many zeroes are there in 2563 * 25631?

Q.24)How many males are present in this group?

Q.25)Problem: There is a problem of unemployment in India.

Q.28)Which number is incorrect in the series: 4, 7, 13, 26, 49?

Q.30)Which of the following is the best explanation of the passage above?

Q.32)The author of the passage makes which of the following assumptions?

Q.34)Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

Total = Cricket + Hockey – Both + Neither  250 = 137 + 188 – Both + 15

Q.41)Who got the highest scores in Super Mario?

Q.43)Who was just below Shilpa in Counter Strike?

Q.44)Which of the given statements is not required to answer the questions?

Q.48)a + b = √28 and a – b = √7. What is the value of a2 – b2?

Q.55)What is the remainder when 2467 is divided by 7?

Q.72)Which of the following statements are correct according to the passage?

Q.76) If 6a + 2 = 3600; then what is the value of 6a + 2?

Q.80)Who is B’s father?

You might also like