Acoustics & Lighting Design: Institute of Architecture and Fine Arts

Institute of Architecture and Fine Arts
Acoustics &
Lighting
Design
Building Utilities 3
Roi Cipriano, Kailo Morpe

10/11/2018
C ONTENTS
Acoustics Design ............................................................................................................................................................2

Lighting Design ..............................................................................................................................................................6
Introduction ...............................................................................................................................................................7
Light Measurement: Luminous Intensity, Luminous Flux, Illuminance .....................................................................8
Definition of Terms ....................................................................................................................................................9
Physics of Light ........................................................................................................................................................10
Inverse Square Law ..............................................................................................................................................10
Quantity of Light ..................................................................................................................................................11
Light Sources: Characteristics and Application ........................................................................................................12
Incandescent........................................................................................................................................................12
Fluorescent ..........................................................................................................................................................12
High Intensity Discharge (HID) .............................................................................................................................13
Light Emitting Diodes (LED) .................................................................................................................................13
Lighting Design.........................................................................................................................................................14
Illumination Methods ..........................................................................................................................................14
Lighting Fixtures and its Distribution ...................................................................................................................15
Luminaire Efficiency: Coefficient of Utilization (CU) ............................................................................................17
Illumination Calculation ...........................................................................................................................................18
References ...................................................................................................................................................................19
A COUSTICS D ESIGN
1.The science that studies the waves that are conducted through matter due to the motion
of the matter.
a. Acoustics b. Sound Level c. Loudness d. Flutter Echo
2. Pressure fluctuations in the air that are heard when an acoustic wave passes by.
a. Reverberation b. Diffusion c. Flutter Echo d. Sound (waves)
3. The measure of the strength of sound. Units are decibels (dB) and usually measured
with a dB meter.
a. Flutter Echo b. Sound Level c. Reflections d.

Diffusion
4. The apparent strength of the sound to the listener.
a. Sound Level b. Flutter Echo c. Loudness d. Acoustics
5. The part of a sound wave that travels directly along the line of sight path between the
speaker or sound source and the listener.
a. Direct Sound b. Sound Level c. Loudness d. Reflections
6. Sound waves that strike a surface and bounce off are reflected sounds.
a. Reflections b. Sound Level c. Diffusion d.

Reverberation
7. Reflections that are heard within 1/20 of a second of the direct sound.
a. Reflections b. Late reflections c. Sound Level

d. Early Reflections
8. A distinct reflection that arrives at the listener later than 1/20th of a second after the
direct sound is heard.
a. Reflections b. Late reflections c. Sound Level d. Early

Reflections
9. This type of echo is most easily heard as one claps their hands out in front of them,
while standing in a hallway.
a. Loudness b. Flutter Echo c. Reflections

d. Sound Level
10. It is due to the accumulation of many reflections, compounding one upon the other, so
much that the sound no longer seems composed of echoes but rather just a sound of
noise.
a. Loudness b. Reverberation c. Intelligibility d.
Decay
11. measurement of the intensity of sound
a. Decibel b. Phon c. Frequency d. Noise
12. The dying out of sound. Usually referring to the steady decline in the
loudness of the reverberation.
a. Decay b. Late reflections c. Intelligibility d. Boomy
13. The time it takes for reverberation to change from very loud to imperceptibly quiet.
a. Decay b. Diffusion c. Decay Rate d. Dark/Dead
14. The science and practice of amplifying or otherwise improving how well a person
hears sound.
a. Audiology b. Acoustician c. Psychoacoustics

d. Voicing
15. The repetition of a sound produced by the reflection of sound waves from an
obstructing surface, loud enough and received late enough to be perceived
as distinct from the source.
a. Echo b. Flutter Echo c. Resonance d.

Sound
16. The intensification and prolongation of sound produced by sympathetic

vibration.
a. Sabin b. Phon c. Resonance d. Noise
17. It is expressed in hertz and the number of cycles of vibrations executed per
second.
a. Noise b. Decay time c. Decibel d. Frequency
18. Speed of sound
a. Amplitude b. Intensity c. Velocity d. Wavelength
19. distance between two crests of a sound wave.
a. Frequency b. Wavelength c. Resonance d. Intensity

20. The sound phenomenon that happens to sound when it strikes a surface is
that the sound is absorbed by the surface.
a. Sound absorption b. Velocity c. Wavelength d. Noise
21. a process or method of making a room invulnerable against the entry of

noise.
a. Sound absorption b. Sound Insulation c. Noise control

d. Phon
22. a process of elimination or limiting the propagation of noise.
a. Noise control b. Sound absorption c. Sound

Insulation d. Wavelength
23. It is the term applied to the direct sound which if the originating body stops,
vibrating also stops.
a. Sound absorption b. Sound Insulation c. Noise control d.

Transient Sound
24. States that the intensity of sound is inversely proportional to distance from
the source.
a. Intensity b. Sound level c. Inverse square law d.

Resonance
25. near large obstructions such as walls and is dominant and approaches a
diffused condition.
a. Reverberation b. Free field c. Reverberant field d. Near

field
.
26. Insulation against noise is originating in the air.
a. Sound absorption b. Air borne sound insulation c.

Sound Insulation d. Noise
27. The maximum wavelength for the male human voice
a. 10ft b. 15ft c. 9ft d.11ft
28. Basic requirements for room intended for speech.
The direct sound shall be as strong as possible because the sound
weakens as the distance from the source increases.
It is also important that the direct sound shall not be obstructed
by any means.
Because speech is directional, in plan, the seats should be positioned
so that none falls outside an angle of 140º, the sound intensity will
decay rapidly.
All of the above
29. It exist between the near and reverberant field and the intensity varies as
pressure squared and inversely with the distance.
Near field b. free field d. Reverberant field.
30. limit for comfortable hearing.
a.35db b. 40db c.28db d. 60db

L IGHTING D ESIGN
1.1. Introduction
1.2. Luminous Intensity, Luminous Flux, Illuminance
1.3. Definition of Terms
1.4. Physics of Light
1.4.1. Inverse Square Law
1.4.2. Quantity of Light
1.5. Light Sources: Characteristics and Application
1.5.1. Incandescent Lamp
1.5.2. Fluorescent Lamp
1.5.3. High Intensity Discharge (HID) Lamp
1.6. Lighting Design
1.6.1. Illumination Methods Types of Lighting Systems
1.6.2. Lighting Fixtures and its Distribution
1.6.3. Luminaire Efficiency: Coefficient of Utilization (CU)
1.7. Illumination Calculation
1.7.1. Calculation of Average Illuminance
1.7.2. Calculation of Loss Factor (LLF)
1.7.3. Calculation of Horizontal Illuminance by Lumen
1.7.4. Coefficient of Utilization (CU) Calculatioin
I NTRODUCTION
1. It is the most important source of light.

a. Sun
b. Artificial Light
c. Electric Light
d. Infrared and Ultraviolet
2. These lights are made by humans.

a. Sun
b. Artificial Light
c. Electric Light
3. The most convenient form of artificial light.

a. Sun
b. Artificial Light
c. Electric Light
4. These lights are invisible to the human eye.

a. Sun
b. Artificial Light
c. Electric Light
L IGHT M EASUREMENT : L UMINOUS I NTENSITY ,
L UMINOUS F LUX , I LLUMINANCE
1. It is the quantity of the energy of the light emitted per second in all directions.
a. Luminous Flux
b. Luminous Intensity
c. Illuminance
d. Luminance
2. It is the ability to emit light into a given direction.

a. Luminous Flux
c. Illuminance
d. Luminance
3. Determines the amount of light that covers a surface.

a. Luminous Flux
c. Illuminance
d. Luminance
4. It is the luminous intensity emitted by the surface area of 1 sq. cm. of the light
source.
a. Luminous Flux
c. Illuminance
d. Luminance
D EFINITION OF T ERMS
1. When we shine a light on an object from a single point source of light it is called
_____; it highlights contours on the object and creates shadows; the exact effect
depends on the angle of the beam of light. Most of the time we want to light the
object to we can see its front. In these cases, the light source may be best place in
front of and to the side of the object at an angle of 45°.
a. Key Light
b. Fill Light
c. Silhouetting
d. Uplighting
2. While this scene effects drama, for our purposes we will assume we need_____. It
can either be directional or diffused. In our example we could shine a directional
light on the object from the opposite direction of the key light, softening or
eliminating shadows depending on the strength of the _____ relative to the
strength of the key light. We could also place _____ sources behind the object to
light the entire room evenly.
a. Key Light
b. Fill Light
c. Silhouetting
d. Uplighting
3. Suppose we wanted to emphasize the shape of the object as a ______. In this event,
we would soften or even eliminate the key light and directional fill light, and instead
provide only fill light, either intense or diffused, depending on the clarity of the
______ and the drama we want to produce.
a. Key Light
b. Fill Light
c. Silhouetting
d. Uplighting
4. The effect of _____ is either very desirable or very undesirable because it is unusual.
Effects range from intimate to eerie. A lot of landscape lighting includes _____ to
accentuate bushes and trees.
a. Key Light
b. Fill Light
c. Silhouetting
d. Uplighting
P HYSICS OF L IGHT
1. It is a transverse, electromagnetic wave that can be seen by humans. The wave

nature of this was first illustrated through experiments on diffraction and
interference. Like all electromagnetic waves, this can travel through a vacuum. The
transverse nature of this can be demonstrated through polarization.
a. Light
b. Physics of Light
c. Incandescence
d. Luminescence
2. Is the emission of light from “hot” matter”.

a. Light
b. Physics of Light
c. Incandescence
d. Luminescence
3. Is the emission of light when excited electrons fall to lower energy levels (in matter
that may or may not be “hot”).
a. Light
b. Physics of Light
c. Incandescence
d. Luminescence
I NVERSE S QUARE L AW
4. Any point source which spreads its influence equally in all directions without a limit
to its range will obey this. This comes from strictly geometrical considerations. The
intensity of the influence at any given radius r is the source strength divided by the
area of the sphere. Being strictly geometric in its origin, this applies to diverse
phenomena. Point sources of gravitational force, electric field, light, sound or
radiation obey this.
a. Inverse Square Law
b. Quantity of Light
c. Physics of Light
d. Light
Q UANTITY OF L IGHT
5. Luminous energy that is the product of mean Luminous flux by time.

a. Inverse Square Law
b. Quantity of Light
c. Physics of Light
d. Light
L IGHT S OURCES : C HARACTERISTICS AND
A PPLICATION
I NCANDESCENT
1. They produce light when an electric current passes through a filament and causes it
to glow. Because they are less energy efficient than other light sources, they are
best used for task lighting that demands high levels of brightness.
a. Incandescent Bulbs
b. Fluorescent Bulbs
c. High Intensity Discharge (HID) Bulbs
d. Light Emitting Diodes (LED) Bulbs
2. Application: They are commonly used in desk lamps, table lamps, hallway lighting,
closets, accent lighting, and chandeliers. They provide good color rendering and, in
fact, serve as the color standard by which all other lamps are measured. They are
also easily dimmable. These lamps have the lowest initial cost and require no ballast.
F LUORESCENT
3. They produce light when an electric arc passes between cathodes to excite mercury
and other gasses producing radiant energy, which is then converted to visible light
by a phosphor coating.
H IGH I NTENSITY D IS CHARGE (HID)
4. They produce light when an arc passes between cathodes in a pressurized tube,
causing metallic additives to vaporize. They have long lives and are extremely
energy efficient, but – with the exception of metal halides – they do not produce
pleasing light colors.
5. Application: In residential settings, they are most often used for outdoor security
and area lighting.
L IGHT E MITTING D IODES (LED)
6. They produce light when voltage is applied to negatively charged semiconductors,

causing electrons to combine and create a unit of light (photon). In simpler terms, it
is a chemical chip embedded in a plastic capsule. Because they are small, several of
them are sometimes combined to produce a single light bulb.
L IGHTING D ESIGN
I LLUMINATION M ET HODS
1. A light illuminates objects directly.

a. Direct Front
b. Diffuse Bright-Field
c. Diffuse Dark-Field
d. Dark-Field
2. The image appears more uniform. There is a strong contrast between the object
and background.
a. Direct Front
d. Dark-Field
3. Light with an oblique angle of incidence from a ring light with an angle between the
front illumination unit and the object.
a. Direct Front
d. Dark-Field
4. Shallow angle of incidence of the light on the object plane.

a. Direct Front
d. Dark-Field
L IGHTING F IXTURES AND ITS D ISTRIBUTION
1. Distribution: 100% of the light directed downward.

a. Direct
b. Semi-Direct
c. General Diffuse
d. Direct - Indirect
2. Distribution: Smaller portion direct upwards, Most of the light directed downwards.
a. Direct
b. Semi-Direct
c. General Diffuse
3. Distribution: Light is directed evenly around.

a. Direct
b. Semi-Direct
c. General Diffuse
4. Distribution: 50% of the light is directed upwards, 50% of the light is directed
downwards.
a. Direct
b. Semi-Direct
c. General Diffuse
5. Distribution: 100% of the light is directed upwards.

a. Indirect
b. Semi-Indirect
c. General Diffuse
6. Distribution: Most of the light is directed upwards, Small portion of the light is
directed downwards.
a. Indirect
b. Semi-Indirect
c. General Diffuse
7. It is also called luminaire, an electrical device used to create artificial light by use of
an electric lamp.
a. Light Fixture
b. Recessed Light
c. Fluorescent Lamp
d. Pendant Light
8. Lighting Fixture: Down light, also called pot light in Canadian English, and
sometimes can light (for canister light). It is a light fixture that is installed into a
hollow opening in a ceiling.
Light Distribution: Direct Lighting
a. Light Fixture
b. Recessed Light
c. Fluorescent Lamp
d. Pendant Light
9. Lighting Fixture: It is a low pressure mercury-vapor gas-discharge lamp that uses

fluorescence to produce visible light.
Light Distribution: Semi-Direct
a. Light Fixture
b. Recessed Light
c. Fluorescent Lamp
d. Pendant Light
10. Lighting Fixture: It is sometimes called a drop of suspender. It is a lone light fixture
that hangs from the ceiling usually suspended by a cord, chain, or metal rod. They
are often used in multiples, hung in a straight line over kitchen countertops and
dinette sets or sometimes in bathrooms.
Light Distribution: General Diffuse
a. Light Fixture
b. Recessed Light
c. Fluorescent Lamp
d. Pendant Light
L UMINAIRE E FFICIENCY : C OEFFICIENT OF U TILIZATION
(CU)
11. It is the ration of light output emitted by the luminaire to the light output emitted
by its lamps. Another way of looking at it. It is the percentage of light output
produced by the lamps that are in turn emitted by the luminaire.
a. Luminaire Efficiency
b. Coefficient of Utilization
12. It allows us to compare luminaire efficiencies in a given environment. It shows the

percentage of light output produced by the lamps that reaches the work plane after
light is lost due to the luminaire’s efficiency at transmitting light, the room
proportions, and the ability of room surfaces to reflect light.
a. Luminaire Efficiency
b. Coefficient of Utilization
I LLUMINATION C ALCULATION
1. LLF = LLD * ATF * HE * VE * BF * CD

a. Light Loss Factor
b. Horizontal Illuminance
c. Coefficient of Utilization
2. The illuminance is calculated by describing the distance (d) between the light source
and the calculation point by means of the vertical height (h) of the light source above
the surface.

3.
R EFERENCES
 Lighting Definitions
http://home.tir.com/~ms/lightingdefinitions/lightingdefinitions.html
 Illumination Techniques
https://www.stemmer-imaging.com/en/technical-tips/illumination-techniques/
 Light Guide
http://www.lightsearch.com/resources/lightguides/design.html
 Horizontal Illuminance
http://internal.schreder.com/en-au/learningcentre/lightingbasics/horizontal-
illuminance
 Coefficient of Utilization
https://www.slideshare.net/shanidbakkar/coefficient-of-utilization-cu
 BGUTIL 3 Notes
Faculty: Ar. Louie Gan
BUILDING UTILITIES 1 (Sanitary System)
Questions 1-70
1. In Excreta Drainage System materials: No b. Same diameter as the piping served

galvanized wrought iron or galvanized steel c. Compatible of the type of pipe used
pipe shall be used underground and shall be d. None of the above
kept at least ___ mm above ground. Answer: None of the above. All answers are
a. 127 correct and true to drainage FITTINGS.
b. 172 5. Which NOT an appropriate sweep or bend
c. 152 direction for a drainage piping?
d. 178 a. 90 degrees
Answer discussion: 152 mm or 6 inches in b. 45 degrees
imperial unit. This is probably because common c. 60 degrees
measurements of modular materials like d. 180 degrees
concrete hollow blocks are also 152 mm (6 Answer: 90 degrees.
inches) in height. 6. Which shall NOT be used for connecting
2. For excreta drainage system materials of horizontal drainage branch line to a vertical
high-rise buildings, this type of piping stack?
installation (material) shall be used, a. 45 degree wye
provided that its use shall be the discretion b. 60 degree wye
of the Master Plumber/Designer and also c. Sanitary tee
with the full consent of the owner. d. None of the above
a. Copper and brass Answer: None of the above
b. Lead and brass 7. Which shall NOT be used for connecting
c. ABS and PVC DWV horizontal drainage line to another
d. ABS and cast iron horizontal drainage line?
Answer: ABS and PVC DWV. Section 701, a. Combination wye
Item 1.2. b. one-eight bend branch
3. When using vitrified clay pipes or fittings c. Forty-five degree branch
for building excreta drain or sewer, what is d. Cross tee
not recommended nor allowed by the Answer: Cross tee.
NPCP? 8. When is the ONLY time you can connect
a. When piping is above ground or vertical drainage lines with horizontal
whenever the piping is pressurized. drainage lines with sixty (60) degree branch
b. When piping is on ground or whenever as per National Plumbing Code of the
the piping is pressurized. Philippines?
c. When piping is above ground or a. When the horizontal branch is in a true
whenever the piping is not pressurized. horizontal position.
d. When piping is on ground or whenever b. When the vertical branch is in a true
the piping is not pressurized. vertical position
4. Which is NOT a characteristic of drainage c. When the horizontal branch is not in a
FITTINGS? true horizontal position.
a. Smooth interior waterway
d. When the vertical branch is not in a true Answer: 72.0. 72 degrees or an angle ⅕ bend)
vertical position. 13. Additional cleanot shall be provided on a
Answer: When the vertical branch is in a true horizontal line with an aggregate offset
vertical position. Section 705, Item 4. angle of direction exceeding ____ degrees.
9. Each run of drainage piping which is more a. 135
than 15 meters in total developed length b. 145
shall be provided with a cleanout and at c. 155
every ___ length or a fraction thereof? d. 165
a. 15 cm Answer: 135 degrees.
b. 15000 mm 14. When shall cleanouts be provided for
c. 100 cm pressure drainage systems?
d. 10 m a. Whenever the piping is made of PVC
Answer: 15000 mm. Actual provision by the law DWV.
is in ‘meter’– 15 meters thus 15000 mm. b. Whenever the piping is not made of
10. Which drainage pipes situation shall be PVC DWV.
provided with cleanouts? c. Always.
a. Each horizontal pipes/lines d. Never.
b. Each vertical pipe that are 1 meter Answer: Each time. As concluded from Section
length or more 706 item 9, “Cleanouts shall be provided for
c. Each pipe that goes outside the building pressure drainage systems.”
footprint 15. Horizontal drainage piping shall be run in
d. Each and every situation provided practical alignment and at a uniform slope of
above. not less than ___ towards the point of
Answer discussion: Each horizontal pipes/lines. disposal.
It is ‘each’ not ‘all’ since you can omit cleanouts a. 1%
when horizontal pipes are less than 1.5 meter in b. 1.2%
length except when it is serving sinks or urinals. c. 2%
11. Cleanouts may be omitted on a horizontal d. 2.1%
drain line less than 1.5 meters in length Answer: 2% or 20mm per meter
unless such line is serving ______________. 16. The minimum size of any pump discharge or
a. Toilets or floor drains any discharge pipe from a sump having a
b. Toilets and urinals water closet connected thereto shall not be
c. Urinals or sinks less than ____ diameter.
d. Sinks and floor drains a. 25.4 mm
Answer: Urinals or sinks. It is “sinks or urinals” b. 50.8 mm
as per revised NPCP. c. 76.2 mm
12. Cleanouts may be omitted on short d. 101.6 mm
horizontal drainage pipe installed at a slope 17. An approved tank or pit which receives
of ____ degrees or less from the vertical sewage or wastewater and is located below
line. the normal grade of the gravity system and
a. 71.0 must be emptied by mechanical means.
b. 72.0 a. Sump
c. 73.8 b. Cesspool
d. 71.8 c. Seepage pit
d. Privy appliance or appurtenance outlet and the rim
18. An outhouse or structure used for the of the floor sink or receptor.
deposition of excrement. a. 15mm
a. Sump b. 20mm
b. Cesspool c. 25mm
c. Seepage pit d. 30mm
d. Privy 24. Any pipe provided to ventilate a house
19. A loosely lined excavation in the ground, drainage system and to prevent trap
which receives the discharge of a septic tank siphonage and back pressure.
and designed to permit the effluent from the a. Vent pipe
septic tank to seep through pit bottom and b. Stack Pipe
sides. c. Soil Pipe
a. Sump d. None of the above
b. Cesspool 25. Any pipe which conveys the discharge of
c. Seepage pit water closets, with or without the discharge
d. Privy from other fixtures, to the house drain.
20. A non-watertight lined excavation in the a. Vent pipe
ground which receives the discharge of a b. Stack Pipe
sanitary drainage system or part thereof, c. Soil Pipe
designed to retain the organic matter and d. None of the above
solids discharging therefrom, ut permitting 26. Which is TRUE for the disposal of
the liquid to seep through the bottom and “Sacrarium” or waste of holy water and
sides. wash water at church altar services?
a. Sump a. Disposed off directly into the ground
b. Cesspool b. Dischargeable into the sanitary drainage
c. Seepage pit system
d. Privy c. Shall be boiled dry as per tradition and
21. A pit beneath the privy where excrement not into the sanitary system.
collects d. Shall be disposed into potted plants.
a. Privy vault 27. Which is the only waste water that can be
b. Privy pool disposed directly into the ground?
c. Privy bank a. Waste from urinal
d. Privy basin b. Waste from lavatories
22. What shall be the distance for fixture outlets c. Waste of Sacrarium
connected from any vertical to horizontal d. No waste shall be disposed off the
change of direction of a stack containing ground.
sude-producing fixtures? 28. That portion of the rainfall or other
a. 2.4 meters precipitation which runs off over the earth
b. 2.5 meters surface after a storm.
c. 2.6 meters a. Storm water
d. 3.6 meters b. Flood water
23. The airgap for drainage shall be not less than c. Surface water
___ mm between the plumbing fixture, d. Ground water
29. A device design and installed to separate wastes by discharging into a plumbing
and retain deleterious, hazardous or fixture, interceptor or receptacle directly
undesirable matters from normal wastes and connected to the drainage system.
permits normal sewage or liquid wastes to a. Indirect waste pipe
discharge into the disposal terminal by b. Direct waste pipe
gravity. c. Semidirect waste pipe
a. Interceptor d. None of the above.
b. Grease trap 36. The piping network within the building
c. Air gap which conveys from the plumbing fixtures
d. Cesspool all wastes and fecal matter as well as
30. How much distance shall a building sewer rainwater (storm drainage) to a point of
be from outside face of wall of building or disposal or a treatment facility.
structure? a. The plumbing system
a. 0.2 meters b. The drainage system
b. 0.4 meters c. Sanitary layout
c. 0.6 meters d. None of the above
d. 0.8 meters 37. A fixture providing an opening in the floor
31. No building sewer shall be smaller than ___ to drain water into the plumbing system.
diameter nor less in size than the building a. Floor drain
drain. b. Cleanout
a. 150 mm c. Sink
b. 150 cm d. Drainage
c. 160 cm 38. A pipe fitting with a removable plug which
d. 160 mm provides for inspection or cleaning of the
32. What is NOT TRUE to a wet vent? pipe run; also called an access eye or
a. Portion of vent pipe cleaning eye.
b. Wastewater passes through a. Floor drain
c. Made of smooth inner diameter b. Cleanout
d. Always made of PVC pipe c. Sink
33. A pipe, which conveys only wastewater or d. Drainage
liquid waste, free of fecal matter. 39. A branch vent which serves two or more
a. Clean pipe traps and extends from infront of the last
b. Vent Pipe fixture connection of a horizontal branch to
c. Waste Pipe the stack.
d. Stack Pipe a. Vent pipe
34. A common sewer directly controlled by b. Stack vent
public authority to which all abutters have c. Circuit vent
equal rights of connection. d. Vent stack
a. Privy 40. A pipe attached to drainage pipes near one or
b. Chalets more traps which leads to outside air.
c. Public Sewer a. Vent pipe
d. Community Drain b. Stack vent
35. Is a pipe that doesn't connect directly with c. Circuit vent
the drainage system but conveys liquid d. Vent stack
41. A fitting used to connect a branch pipe into a d. Vent stack
straight run of piping at 45 degrees. 47. A vertical pipe installed in order to provide
a. Wye fitting circulation of air to and from the drainage
b. Elbow fitting system.
c. Coupling a. Soil stack
d. Tee fitting b. Stack vent
42. A fitting or device so constructed as to c. Circuit vent
prevent the passage of foul air, gases and some d. Vent stack
vermin without affecting the flow of sewage 48. A pipe that only conveys liquid waste, free
inside the pipe. from fecal matter.
a. Trap a. Drain pipe
b. Bushing b. Service pipe
c. Reducer c. Suction pipe
d. Valve d. Return pipe
43. A watertight receptacle which receives the 49. An artificial conduit, usually underground,
discharge of a plumbing system or part for carrying off waste water and refuse.
thereof and is designed and constructed so a. Cesspool
as to separate solids from liquid, digest the b. Privy
organic matter through a period of detention c. Sewer
and allow the effluent to discharge into a d. Manhole
drainage system. 50. An arrangement of venting so installed that
a. Septic tank one vent pipe serve two traps.
b. House sewer a. Twin vent
c. Main sewer b. Combined vent
d. Manhole c. Dual vent
44. A receptacle for wastes which are ultimately d. Mirror-vent
discharged into the sanitary drainage system. 51. Used for fixtures where grease may be
a. Area drain introduced into the drainage or sewer system
b. Cistern in quantities that can affect line stoppage or
c. Sanitary sewer hinder sewage treatment or private sewage
d. Storm sewer disposal.
45. A vertical line of piping that extends one or a. Grease basin
more floors and receives the discharge of b. Grease trap
water closets, urinals and similar fixtures. c. Catch basin
a. Soil stack d. None of the above
b. Stack vent 52. A plumbing fixture used to convey organic
c. Circuit vent body waste to the plumbing system.
d. Vent stack a. Lavatory
46. The extension of a soil or waste stack above b. Water closet
the highest horizontal drain connection to c. Urinal
the stack. d. Bathtub
a. Soil stack 53. Vertical portion of rainwater conductor.
b. Stack vent a. Catch basin
c. Circuit vent b. Down pipe
c. Horizontal pipe d. Lacks evidence
d. Downspout 59. Septic tanks should be located not less than
54. In inspection and testing of house sewer, it __ meters away from potable water to
shall be the duty of the _______ doing the prevent contamination.
work authorized by the permit to notify the a. 15
Plumbing Inspector, in writing that his work b. 10
is ready for inspection. Such notification c. 8
shall be given not less than eight (8) d. 12
working hours before the work is to be 60. That portion of a vent pipe through which
inspected. liquid waste flow.
a. Architect a. Unit vent
b. Sanitary Engineer b. Wet vent
c. Master Plumber c. Branch vent
d. Client d. Waste pipe
55. It serves as a clean-out and an access for 61. An arrangement of venting so installed that
inspection and repair. Installed on a public one vent pipe will serve two (2) traps.
sewer line at an interval of 75 to 150 meters a. Unit vent
diameter from 0.90 to 1 .20 meters and b. Wet vent
provided with iron rungs as ladders to the c. Branch vent
bottom. A well fitted steel cover is provided d. Waste pipe
in level with the road. 62. Sediments that settles out of sewage forming
a. Manhole a semi-solid mass on the bottom of a septic tank
b. Public sewer a. Crest
c. Septic tank b. Sludge
d. Catch basin c. Coaling
56. A receptacle in which liquids are retained for d. Sediment
a sufficient period to the deposit settleable 63. A vent pipe connecting from a branch of the
material. drainage system to a vent stack.
a. Manhole a. Unit vent
b. Public sewer b. Wet vent
c. Septic tank c. Branch vent
d. Catch basin d. Waste pipe
57. This carries storm water and terminates into 64. A vent that the primary function of which is
a natural drainage such as to provide circulation of air between
lakes & rivers. drainage and vent system.
a. Area drain a. Relief vent
b. Cistern b. Unit vent
c. Sanitary sewer c. Wet vent
d. Storm Sewer d. Branch vent
58. In locating a septic tank, it shall be installed 65. PPr is resistant to aqueous solutions of acids,
within or under a house. alkalis and salts, and to a large number of
a. True organic solvents. What does PPr stands for?
b. False a. Polypropylene
c. Depends b. Polyprophylene
c. Polyethylene a. True
d. Polybrutylene b. False
66. A pipe connected from building gutter to the c. Depends
downspout or conductor. d. Lacks evidence
a. Leader pipe 69. According to the National Plumbing Code,
b. Head pipe each family dwelling shall have at least how
c. End pipe many water closet(s)?
d. Connecting pipe a. 1
67. On June 28, 1955, R.A. 1378 known as the b. 2
“Plumbing Code of the Philippines was c. 3
signed by which president? d. 1/2
a. Ramon Magsaysay 70. Fixtures directly connected to the drainage
b. Joseph Ejercito Estrada system shall be equipped with a water sealed
c. Carlos P. Garcia trap.
d. Elpidio Quirino a. True
68. Vent terminals shall extend to the outer air b. False
and installed to prevent clogging and return c. Depends
of foul air to the building. d. Lacks evidence
Links/ References:
● Revised National Plumbing Code of the Philippines - NaMPAP
● Plumbing Design Data Handbook (1st edition) - Ar. Rommel O Aldaba, rmp
● Salvan, G. (1986). Architectural Utilities 1: Plumbing and Sanitary. Rizal Avenue, Manila:
Goodwill Bookstore
● Plumbing Facilities & Systems Design: A Guide in the Preliminary Design of Plumbing Facilities
- Arch. Raffy Cueva Alli, msarch
Cayomba, Francis Daniel T. c. Water Process
Estoce, Nelson S. d. Water
Water – BGUTIL 1
6. Refers to an individual who worked in the
1. The art and technique of installing pipes, sanitation field of ancient rome. –
fixtures, and other apparatuses in buildings Plumbarius
for bringing in the supply of liquids, a. Plumber
substances and ingredients and removing b. Plumbium
them. - Plumbing System c. Plumbarius
a. Building Utility d.Plumbae
b. Plumbing System
c. Water Distribution System 7. A main pipe or conduit through which a
d. Sanitary System public or community water system conveys
water to all service connections. – Water
2. Addition of chemicals, such as ferrous Main
sulfate and lime, to the water which cause the a. Water Pipe
larger suspended particles to form a b. Water Distribution Pipe
gelatinous mass which precipitates readily. c. Water Meter
- Coagulation and precipitation d. Water Main
a. Coagulation and Precipitation
b. Sublimation and Coagulation 8. A pipe which conveys potable water from
c. Precipitation and Osmosis the building supply pipe to the plumbing
d. Coagulation and Condensation fixtures and other outlets. - Water
distribution pipes
3. Water is injected with hypo-chlorite or a. Water Pipe
chlorine gas to kill harmful bacteria. – b. Water Distribution Pipe
Chlorination c. Water Meter
a. Acidity d. Water Main
b. Alkalinity
c. Base
d. Chlorination 9. Simple mechanism that produces a vacuum
within itself and permits the lifting of water
4. Water is passed through layers of sand and from the source supply by atmospheric
gravel in concrete basins in order to remove pressure. – Pump
the finer suspended particles. – Filtration a. Valve
a. Chlorination b. Water Meter
b. Distillation c. Pump
c. Filtration d. Water Lift
d. Mineralized
10. Most common type of well, shaft is
5. Water falls to the earth in the form of excavated and installed with a casing;
precipitation. It drains into rivers, lakes and shallow construction. – Dug Well
streams either naturally or via constructed a. Deep Well
storm water drainage system. – Water Cycle b. Water Well
a. Hydrology Cycle c. Dug Well
b. Water Cycle d. Dig Well
d. Shower
11. A hole is made by rotary drilling machine
installing a casing and a screen. Can reach up 17. Waste water with the exception of human
to 1000 meters. – Drilled Well wastes. – Grey Water
a. Hydraulic Well a. Dirty Water
b. Drilled Well b. Grey Water
c. Deep Well c. Black Water
d. Water Mining d. Water waste
12. Associated with distribution systems of 18. Articles of matters that are suspended in
tall buildings; build with an impeller/ water the water are allowed to stay in a container so
wheel. – Centrifugal Pump that they will settle in the bottom, then
a. Lift Pump drawing the water out, leaving these
b. Centrifugal Pump sediments in the container. – Sedimentation
c. Force Pump a. Chlorination
d. Rotary Pump b. Distillation
c. Filtration
13. A device for controlling the flow of a d. Sedimentation
liquid from a pipe by opening or closing an
orifice. – Faucet 19. Water are given chemical treatments to
a. Pipe kill the harmful bacteria’s present and to cure
b. Check Valve the turbid taste or mud taste, remove clay,
c. Lock salts, iron etc. commonly used chemical is
d. Faucet chlorine. – Chemical Treatments
a. Filtration
14. The column of water that is retained b. Sedimentation
between the overflow and the dip of the trap. c. Porosity
– Back Flow d. Chemical treatments
a. Up flow
b. Overflow 20. Water are filtered on various processes,
c. Down flow so as to remove the particles of vegetable
d. Backflow matter, mud, and other particles of matter
present in the water, most commonly used
15. A plumbing fixture used to convey materials are sand and gravel. – Filtration
organic body waste to the plumbing system. a. Chlorination
– Water Closet b. Distillation
a. Bidet c. Filtration
b. Water Closet d. Sedimentation
c. Pozo Negro
d. Sump Pit 21. Is a type of a water distribution system
wherein water comes from a normal water
16. A plumbing fixture designed for cleaning pressure from public water main for low rise
the most precious, delicate parts. – Bidet buildings. – Upfeed System
a. Bidet a. Upfeed System
b. Water Closet b. Pneumatic System
c. Lavatory c. Downfeed System
d. Plumbing System a. Angle Valve
b. Globe Valve
22. Is a type of water distribution system c. Check Valve
wherein water comes from air pressure from d. Gate Valve
suction tank for tall buildings which cannot
27. Consists of a wedge-shaped plug which is
be reached by normal water pressure. –
screwed flown to sea t between two brass rings
Pneumatic Tank
surrounding the inlet pipe so that a double seal is
a. Upfeed Tank
obtainer. - Gate Valve
b. Pneumatic Tank
c. Downfeed Tank a. Gate Valve
d. Plumbing System b. Globe Valve
c. Check Valve
d. Angle Valve
23. Is a type of water distribution system
28. It is used when it is desired that the flow
wherein water comes from gravity from
through a pipe be always in one direction and
overhead tanks and are supported either by
there is a possibility of a flow taking place in the
structural frames or on the roof decks. –
opposite direction. - Check Valve
Downfeed system
a. Upfeed System a. Angle Valve
b. Pneumatic System b. Gate Valve
c. Downfeed System c. Globe Valve
d. Plumbing System d. Check Valve
29. It has a pivoted flap which is readily pushed
24. Consist of a piston traveling up and down open by the pressure of water from one side but
within a cylinder which is connected with a is tightly closed by the force of a reverse flow. -
Swing Check Valve
pipe extending down into the source. – Lift
Pump a. Globe Check Valve
a. Lift Pump b. Angle Valve
b. Centrifugal Pump c. Swing Check Valve
c. Force Pump d. Automatic Check Valve
d. Rotary Pump
30. Consist of a loose disk which closes by
25. Used to deliver water at a point higher gravity when the pressures on both sides are
than the position of the pump itself. – Force equal. - Horizontal or Lift Check Valve
Pump a. Horizontal or Lift Check Valve
a. Lift Pump b. Vertical of Push Check Valve
b. Centrifugal Pump c. Diagonal or Pull Check Valve
c. Force Pump d. Globe Valve
d. Rotary Pump
31. Changes the direction of the flow of water as
26. Type of valve used for regulating flow in a well as control it. Acts somewhat like globe
pipeline, consisting of a movable disk-type valve but are usually used for a right angle turn.
element and a stationary ring seat in a generally – Angle Valve
spherical body. - Globe Valve a. Check Valve
b. Butterfly Valve
c. Angle Valve a. Water Meter
d. Disk Valve b. Flush Valve
c. Flushometer
32. Operate by means of a round, tapering plug,
d. Flush Bibb
perforated in one direction perpendicular to its
axis and ground to fit a metal seat. - Key Cock 40. Arranged to discharge water while they are
held open by the hand and to close by a spring
a. Key Cock
inside the Faucet as soon as the pressure of the
b. Corporation Cock
hand is removed. - Self Closing Faucet
c. Compression Cock
d. Hose Bibb a. Spring Faucet
b. Gate Valve
33. A stop valve placed in a service pipe close to
c. Compression Cock
its connection with a water main. - Corporation
d. Self Closing Faucet
Cock
41. A disc around a plumbing pipe at the wall
a. Key Cock
penetration that seals the wall opening. –
b. Corporation Cock
Escutcheon
c. Compression Cock
d. Hose Bibb a. Escutcheon
b. Seal Plate
34. Operate by the compression of soft packing
c. Disc Plate
upon a metal sheet. - Compression Cock
d. None of the above
a. Key Cock
42. The minimum air gap for lavatories & other
b. Corporation Cock
fixtures with effective openings not greater than
c. Compression Cock
13mm in diameter if not affected by wall. –
d. Hose Bibb
25mm
35. Similar to a compression cock but has a
a. 25mm
screw outside for connection of water hose. -
b. 38mm
Hose Bibb
c. 19mm
a. Key Cock d. 50mm
b. Corporation Bibb
43. All piping of plumbing systems shall be of
c. Pipe Bibb
durable ________-APPROVED materials, free
d. Hose Bibb
from defective workmanship, designed and
37. A fitting used to connect a branch pipe into a constructed by Registered Master Plumbers to
straight run of piping at 45 degrees. - Wye ensure satisfactory service. – NAMPAP
fitting
a. DENR
a. Pipe Fitting b. PPAP
b. Wye Fitting c. NAMPAP
c. Coupling d. PPA
d. Seal Fitting
44. Used in pipe systems to connect straight pipe
39. A device which discharges a predetermined or tubing sections, adapt to different sizes or
quantity of water to fixtures for flushing shapes. – Fitting
purposes. -Flushometer
a. Escutcheon
b. Fitting
c. Sealant c. Water Meter
d. None of the above d. Flushometer
45. Installed between two lengths of pipe (or 51. A valve consisting of a pair of semicircular
tubing) to allow a change of direction, usually a plates that are attached to a spindle across a pipe
90° or 45° angle. - Elbow and hinge to allow flow only one way. –
Butterfly Valve
a. Coupling
b. Tee a. Check Valve
c. Union b. Butterfly Valve
d. Elbow c. Globe Valve
d. Gate Valve
46. Connects two pipes with different sizes, also
known as reducer or adapter. - Coupling 52. A valve opening automatically to relieve
excessive pressure, especially in a boiler. -
a. Coupling
Safety Valve
b. Tee
c. Union a. Check Valve
d. Elbow b. Butterfly Valve
c. Safety Valve
47. Similar to coupling, it allows convenient
d. Foot Valve
future disconnection of pipes for maintenance or
fixture replacement. It consists of three parts: a 53. A type of check valve that is typically
nut, a female and male end. - Union installed at a pump or at the bottom of a pipe
line. – Foot Valve
a. Coupling
b. Tee a. Check Valve
c. Union b. Butterfly Valve
d. Elbow c. Safety Valve
d. Foot Valve
48. The most common pipe fitting used to
combine or divide fluid flow. - Tee 54. Considered as universal solvent. - Water
a. Water
a. Coupling
b. Vinegar
b. Tee
c. Solvent
c. Union
d. Fire
d. Elbow
49. Applied to PVC, CPVC, ABS or other 55. Property of water that enables to climb up
plastic piping to partially dissolve and fuse the a surface against the pull of gravity. –
adjacent surfaces of piping and fitting. - Solvent Capillarity
a. Levitation
a. Brazing
b. Capillarity
b. Solvent
c. Gravitational Pull
c. Glue
d. Gravity
d. Soldering
50. A device that measure the volume of water 56. Property of water that enables to stick
delivered to a property. – Water Meter itself together and pull itself together. –
Surface Tension
a. Water Pressure Meter a. Surface Compression
b. Pneumatic Meter b. Capillarity
c. Surface Tension a. Centrifugal Pump
d. Viscosity b. Reciprocating Pump
c. Turbine Pump
57. Water quality problem wherein the cause d. Submersible Pump
is the presence of carbon dioxide. – Acidity
a. Hardness 63. A water supply pipe that extends one full
b. Turbidity story or more to convey water to branches or
c. Acidity to a group of fixtures. – Riser
d. Viscosity a. Feeder
b. Riser
58. Water quality problem wherein the cause c. Fixture Supply
is the presence of magnesium and calcium d. Vent Stack
salts. – Hardness
64. The water supply pipe between the fixture
a. Hardness supply pipe & the water distributing pipe. –
b. Turbidity Fixture Branch
c. Acidity a. Riser
d. Viscosity b. Feeder
c. Fixture branch
59. Water quality problem wherein the cause d. Fixture Supply
is the presence of silt or mud in surface or in
ground. – Turbidity 65. A water supply pipe connecting the
a. Hardness fixture with the fixture branch. – Fixture
b. Turbidity Supply
c. Acidity a. Fixture Branch
d. Viscosity b. Fixture Supply
c. Fixture Pipe
60. Water is sprayed into the air to release any d. Fixture Feeder
trapped gases and absorb additional oxygen
for better taste. - Aeration 66. The pipe from the water main or other
a. Aeration source of potable water supply to the water
b. Spraying distribution system of the building served. –
c. Gasification Service Pipe
d. Chlorination a. Supply pipe
b. Sewer Pipe
61. Use extreme water pressure so as not to c. Service Pipe
affect existing foundation in the vicinity. – d. All of the above
Jetted Wells
a. Dug Wells 67. A pipe within the structure or on the
b. Drilled Wells premises which conveys water from the water
c. Bored Wells service pipe or meter to the point of
d. Jetted Wells utilization. – Distribution pipe/Supply Pipe
a. Service Pipe
62. Pump having a plunger that move back b. Distribution pipe/Supply Pipe
and forth within a cylinder equipped with c. Sewer Pipe
check valves. – Reciprocating Pump d. Riser
68. Plumbing Code of the Philippines is also
known as_________. – R.A. 1378
a. R.A.1378
b. P.D.1096
c. R.A.1076
d. P.D.1378
69. The portion of the rainwater which has

percolated into the earth to form underground
deposits called aquifers. – Ground Water
a. Surface Water
b. Ground Water
c. Cistern
d. Dug Well
70. A mixture of surface run-off and ground
water. Sources includes rivers, lakes, ponds
and impounding reservoirs. – Natural
Surface Water
a. Artificial Surface Water
b. Surface Water Run-off
c. Natural Surface Water
d. Watershed
PD 1096
1. Art, Science or Profession of planning, designing and constructing buildings in their totality
taking into account their environment, in accordance with the principles of utility, strength and
beauty.
a. Engineering b. Construction c. Architecture d. Interior Design
2. In PD 1096, what is the minimum width of an exit doorway?

a. 1200 millimeters b. 900 millimeters c. 800 millimeters d. 700 millimeters
3. What is the base of the building that is on the ground outermost part of the wall?
a. Building footprint b. Parameter c. Property Line d. Perimeter
4. What is the least dimension of a kitchen?

a. 3.00 meters b. 1.50 meters c. 1.20 meters d. 700 millimeters
5. Arcades pedestrian walkways shall have a clear height of?

a. 2.40 meters b. 2.70 meters c. 3.00 meters d. 3.20 meters
6. What is the number of exits to accommodate more than 1000 occupant load?
a. 4 exits b. 1 exit c. 2 exits d. 5 or more exits
7. What type of construction is “shall be of wood construction with protective fire-resistant

materials and one-hour fire-resistive throughout?”
a. Type I Construction b. Type II Construction c. Type III Construction d. Type IV Construction
8. Eaves over required windows shall not be less than how many millimeters from the side and
rear property lines?
a. 1200 millimeters b. 750 millimeters c. 800 millimeters d. 700 millimeters
9. How many days given to the owner to appeal for re-inspection or re-investigation of his/her
building to the Secretary?
a. 7 working days b. 30-day period c. 10-day period d. 15-day period
10. Works in buildings or structures involving changes in the materials used, partitioning,
location/size of openings, structural parts, existing utilities and equipment but does not increase
the building height and/or floor area.
a. Renovation b. Demolition c. Addition d. Alteration
11. Refers to the Executive Officer of the OBO appointed by the Secretary.
a. Architect b. Building Admin c. Building Official d. Building Manager
12. MACA stands for?

a. Minimum Allowable Construction Area
b. Minimum Allowable Congestion Area
c. Maximum Allowable Construction Area
d. Maximum Allowable Congestion Area
13. How many percent of open area for a Corner-through lot?
a. 5% b. 8% c. 4% d. 6%
14. What is the minimum rear setback for R-2 Occupancy?

a. 3 meters b. 4 meters c. 2.5 meters d. 2 meters
15. What is the minimum front setback for Commercial, Industrial, Institutional and Recreational
buildings with 20.00 to 24.00 meters RROW width?
a. 8 meters b. 4 meters c. 5 meters d. 6 meters
16. What is the minimum air space per person in workshops, factories and offices?
a. 12 cu meters b. 10 cu meters c. 13 cu meters d. 11 cu meters
17. Noise as an unwanted sound both in quality and intensity and excessive vibration whose sources
in building/structure construction shall conform to acceptable limits the required emission
standards of what government agency?
a. DPWH b. DENR c. DOST d. NEDA
18. Aside from PD1096, what law shall setbacks must also comply?
a. PD 957 b. RA 455 c. BP 344 d. PD 1185
19. All pipe materials to be used in buildings/structures shall conform to the standard specifications
of the?
a. DTI b. DENR c. DPWH d. DOST
20. What is the total minimum width of planting strip within 30 meters and above RROW?
a. 1.5 meters b. 1.3 meters c. 1.2 meters d. 1.6 meters
21. Occupancies are assigned to _________, while zones are assigned to _________.
a. people, buildings b. occupants, buildings c. occupants, lands d. buildings, lands
22. What is C in Occupancies?

a. Education and Recreation b. Commercial c. Residential d. Institutional
RA 9266
1. What is “THE ARCHITECTURE ACT OF 2004”?

a. PD 1096 b. RA 9266 c. BP 344 d. BP 220
2. Means the architect registered and licensed or permitted to practice under R.A. No. 9266, who
is professionally and academically qualified and with exceptional or recognized expertise or
specialization in any branch of architecture.
a. Architect b. Architect-in-charge c. Consulting Architect d. Architect of record
3. Means a sole proprietorship, a partnership or a corporation registered with the DTI AND/OR SEC
and then with the Board of Architecture and PRC.
a. Architectural group b. Architectural firm c. BP 344 d. BP 220
4. Refers to physical planning at site, community or urban level by an Architect.

a. Designing b. Drawing c. Organizing d. Planning
5. Any formal grouping of two or more architects or architectural firms working in joint venture on
a project basis.
a. Association b. Partnership c. Firm d. Corporation
6. In RA 9266, what refers to the Professional Regulatory Board of Architecture?

a. Architecture b. Regulator c. Board d. Commission
7. One qualification to be a Member of Professional Regulatory Board shall be an active

practitioner for how many years?
a. 15 years b. 5 years c. 1-year d. 10 years
8. In order for a foreigner architect to practice architecture in the Philippines, what do you call to
the permit that is given to the architect?
a. Architectural permit b. Test Permit c. Practice permit d. Special Permit
9. Refers to a sustaining and progressive learning process that maintains, enhances or increases
the knowledge and continuing ability of architects.
a. Review b. Master’s Degree
c. Continuing Professional Development d. None of the above
10. Refers to the author or authors of a set of architectural plans and specifications whoa are in
charge of their preparation, whether made by them personally or under their immediate
supervision.
a. Owner b. Authorship c. Writer d. Author
PD 957
1. The minimum lot area for Single detached under Open market housing project.
a. 120sqm b. 100sqm c. 96sqm d. 80sqm
2. The minimum lot area for Duplex under Medium cost housing project.
3. The minimum lot area for Single Attached under Open market housing project.
4. The minimum lot area for Rowhouse under Medium cost housing project.
5. In PD 957, Minimum RROW width for Major road.

a. 8m b. 10m c. 12m d. 15m
6. In PD 957, Minimum RROW width for Minor road.

a. 8m b. 10m c. 12m d. 15m
7. Minimum floor area for Subdivision (Medium cost housing).

8. Minimum floor area for Subdivision (Open market housing).

9. Floor area for Condominiums (Single occupancy).

10. Floor area for Condominiums (Family occupancy; Medium cost).

BP 344
1. _____ long extension of handrail should be provided at start and end of ramps and stairs.
a. 100mm b.150mm c. 200mm d. 300mm
2. Accessible parking slots should have a minimum width of _____.

a. 3.50m b. 3.60m c. 3.70m d. 3.80m
3. Walkways from accessible spaces of ____ clear width shall be provided between front ends of
parked cars.
a. 0.8m b. 1.0m c. 1.2m d. 1.5m
4. Entrance with vestibules shall be provided a level area with at least ____ depth and a ____
width.
a. 1.5m, 1.5m b. 1.5m, 1.8m c. 1.8m, 1.5m d. 1.8m, 1.8m
5. Length of the ramp should not exceed __ if the gradient is ____.

a. 5m, 1:10 b. 5m, 1:12 c. 6m, 1:10 d. 6m; 1:12
6. Ramps exceeding 6m whose gradient is 1:12 shall be provided with landings not less than ____.
a. 1.0m b. 1.2m c. 1.5m d. 1.8m
7. Turnabout spaces should be provided at or within ____ of every dead-end.
a. 3.0m b. 3.2m c. 3.5m d. 3.6m
8. A turning space of _______ with a minimum dimension of ____ for wheelchairs shall be
provided outside water closet stalls.
a. 2.25sqm, 1.5m b. 2.25sqm, 1.8m c. 2.50sqm, 1.5m d. 2.50sqm, 1.8m
9. A ____ wide tactile strip shall be provided before hazardous areas such as sudden change in
elevation and at the top and bottom of stairs.
a. 150m b. 200m c. 250m d. 300m
10. Accessible elevators should be located not more than ___ from the entrance.
a. 10m b. 15m c. 20m d. 30m
BP 220
1. Housing projects undertaken by the government for the underprivileged and homeless citizens.
a. Socialized housing b. Economic housing
c. Single-family dwelling d. Multiple-family dwelling
2. Housing projects provided to average income families.

a. Socialized housing b. Economic housing
c. Single-family dwelling d. Multiple-family dwelling
3. A building designed/used as a residence for one or more families.

a. Dwelling b. Single-family dwelling
c. Multiple-family dwelling d. Community facilities
4. In BP 220, Minimum size of a Major road.

a. 6.5m b. 8.0m c. 10m d. 12m
5. In BP 220, Minimum size of a Minor road.

a. 6.5m b. 8.0m c. 10m d. 12m
6. It breaks a block. It must not be used as access to a property.

a. Alley b. Pathwalk c. Pathway d. Sidewalk
7. Minimum floor area for Socialized housing.

8. Minimum floor area for Economic housing.

9. Minimum front setback of dwelling unit both for economic and socialized housing project.
a. 1.0m b. 1.5m c. 2.0m d. 3.0m
10. A wall with no openings or only minimal openings for comfort rooms.
a. Firewall b. Party wall c. Blank wall d. Partition wall
PD 1185
1. What is Fire code of the Philippines?

a. PD 1185 b. RA 1185 c. RA 9514 d. PD 9514
2. What is Revised Fire code of the Philippines?

a. PD 1185 b. RA 1185 c. RA 9514 d. PD 9514
3. Any act that would remove or neutralize a fire hazard.

a. Abatement b. Distillation c. Refining d. Smelting
4. Any visual or audible signal produced by a device or system to warm the occupants of the
building or fire fighting elements of the presence or danger of fire to enable them to undertake
immediate action to save life and property and to suppress the fire.
a. Fire Alarm b. Fire hazard c. Damper d. Fire signal
5. Any condition or act which increases or may cause an increase in the probability of the
occurrence of fire, or which may obstruct, delay, hinder or interfere with fire fighting operations
and the safeguarding of life and property.
a. Fire alarm b. Fire hazard c. Damper d. Fire signal
6. The portion of a roadway or public way that should be kept opened and unobstructed at all
times for the expedient operation of fire fighting units.
a. Fire lane b. Fire door c. Public way d. Horizontal exit
7. A building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or because it lacks adequate exits or
fire escapes.
a. Danger zone b. Fire zone c. Fire trap d. Public assembly building
8. The purpose for which a building or portion thereof is used or intended to be used.
a. Occupant b. Owner c. Occupancy d. Public assembly building
9. An integrated network of hydraulically designed piping installed in a building, structure or area

with outlets arranged in a systematic pattern which automatically discharges water when
activated by heat or combustion products from a fire.
a. Plumbing system b. Sprinkler system c. Standpipe system d. Duct system
10. A system of vertical pipes in a building to which fire hoses can be attached on each floor,
including a system by which water is made available to the outlets as needed.
a. Plumbing system b. Sprinkler system c. Standpipe system d. Duct system
BOT LAW
1. What is “Build-Operate-Transfer Law”?

a. RA 7718 b. RA 8293 c. RA 8981 d. RA 3571
2. A contractual arrangement whereby the project proponent undertakes the construction,

including financing, of a given infrastructure facility, and the operation and maintenance
thereof.
a. Build-and-transfer c. Rehabilitate-operate-and-transfer
b. Build-operate-and-transfer d. Develop-operate-and-transfer
3. A contractual arrangement whereby favorable conditions external to a new infrastructure

project which is to be built by a private project proponent are integrated into the arrangement
by giving that entity the right to develop adjoining property, and thus, enjoy some of the
benefits the investment creates such as higher property or rent values.
a. Build-transfer-and-operate c. Rehabilitate-operate-and-transfer
4. A contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contracts out the building of an
infrastructure facility to a private entity such that the contractor builds the facility on a turn-key
basis, assuming cost overrun, delay and specified performance risks.
a. Build-transfer-and-operate c. Rehabilitate-operate-and-transfer
5. The BOT project proponent transfers the facility to the government agency or local government
unit concerned at the end of the fixed term which shall not how many years?
a. 20 years b. 50 years c. 60 years d. 30 years
6. The rate of return that reflects the prevailing cost of capital in the domestic and international
markets shall be determined by existing laws, which in no case shall exceed how many percent?
a. 10% b. 13% c. 12% d. 11%
7. The private sector entity which shall have contractual responsibility for the project.
a. Contractor b. Facility operator c. Project Proponent d. Client
EO 1008
1. What is Executive Order 1008?

a. Conciliation Law b. Arbitration Law
c. Arbitration Construction Law d. Construction Arbitration Law
2. Executive Order 1008 date.

a. February 4, 1985 b. February 4, 1895
c. February 5, 1984 d. February 5, 1894
3. Meaning of CIAC.
a. Conciliation Industry Arbitration Commission
b. Construction Industry Arbitration Company
c. Conciliation Industry Arbitration Company
d. Construction Industry Arbitration Commission
4. Definite date for rendition of award (_______ from the time the case is submitted for resolution
but not more than ________ from the date the terms of reference was signed)
a. 30 days, 6 months b. 60 days, 3 months c. 3 days, 6 months d. 6 days, 3 months
5. It is defined as the investigation and determination of matters of differences between

contending parties by one or more unofficial persons, called arbitrators or referees, chosen by
the parties. It is intended to avoid the formalities, the delay, the expense and vexation of
ordinary litigation.
a. Conciliation b. Construction c. Mediation d. Arbitration
RA. 9285
1. What is RA 9285?
a. Construction Arbitration Law
b. Architecture Act of 2004
c. Alternative Dispute Resolution Act of 2004
2. Means to sign, execute or adopt a symbol, or encrypt a record in whole or in part, intended to
identify the authenticating party and to adopt, accept or establish the authenticity of a record or
term.
a. Authenticate b. Authorize c. Confirm d. Sign
3. Means a voluntary process in which a mediator, selected by the disputing parties, facilitates
communication and negotiation, and assists the parties in reaching a voluntary agreement
regarding a dispute.
a. Medical b. Mediation c. Medication d. Mediate
4. In RA 9285, what does refer to a judicial, administrative, or other adjudicative process, including
related pre-hearing or post-hearing motions, conferences and discovery?
a. Law b. Hearing c. Processing d. Proceeding
5. Means the person appointed to render an award, alone or with others, in a dispute that is the
subject of an arbitration agreement.
a. Association b. Awardee c. Arbitrator d. Jury
RA 9184
1. Refers to the construction, improvement, rehabilitation, demolition, repair, restoration or

maintenance of roads and bridges, railways, airports, seaports, communication facilities, civil
works components of information technology projects, irrigation, flood control and drainage,
water supply, sanitation, sewerage and solid waste management systems, shore protection,
energy/power and electrification facilities, national buildings, school buildings, hospital buildings
and other related construction projects of the government.
a. Residential Projects
b. Environmental Projects
c. Private Projects
d. Infrastructure Projects
2. What does BAC stand for?

a. Bid and Architecture Commission
b. Bids and Award Committee
c. Board and Architecture Commission
d. Board and Award Committee
3. How many components does the bids have?

a. 2 components; technical and financial components
b. 2 components; physical and chemical components
c. 2 components; social and emotional components
d. No component
4. Minimum number of pre-bid conference shall be conducted for each procurement, unless
otherwise provided in the IRR. Subject to the approval of the BAC, a pre-bid conference may also
be conducted upon the written request of any prospective bidder.
a. None b. 1 c. 4 d. 3
5. Refers to a signed offer or proposal submitted by a supplier, manufacturer, distributor,

contractor or consultant in response to the Bidding Documents.
a. Documents b. Permit c. Bid d. Contract
CIAP Documents 101 & 102
1. refers to any acceptable form of bond accompanying the Bid submitted by the bidder as a
guarantee that the bidder will enter into the Contract with the Owner for the construction of
the Work, if the Contract is awarded to him.
a. Bid Documents b. Performance Bond c. Guarantee Bond d. Bid Bond
2. is the approved form of security furnished by the Contractor and his Surety as a guarantee of
good faith on the part of the Contractor to execute the Work in accordance with the Contract.
3. is the approved form of security furnished by the Contractor and his Surety as a guarantee of
the quality of the materials provided, the equipment installed, and the workmanship performed
by the Contractor.
4. No payment shall be made in excess of how many percent of the Contract Price?
a. 90% b. 80% c. 85% d. 70%
5. Unless specified to the contrary or unless the Contractor’s submission is deficient, equipment,
samples or materials submissions shall be acted upon by the Owner within how many days of
submission __ working days
a. 7 working days b. 5 working days c. 6 working days d. 8 working days
Environmental Laws
1. What is “Prohibition Against Cutting of Trees in Public Roads, Plazas, etc."?

a. RA 7718 b. RA 8293 c. RA 8981 d. RA 3571
2. What is “The Indigenous Peoples Rights Act of 1997”?

a. RA 8749 b. RA 8371 c. RA 9729 d. RA 9275
3. What is “Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004”?

a. RA 8749 b. RA 8371 c. RA 9729 d. RA 9275
4. What is “Clean Air Act of 1999”?

a. RA 8749 b. RA 8371 c. RA 9729 d. RA 9275
5. What is “Climate Change Act of 2009”?

a. RA 8749 b. RA 8371 c. RA 9729 d. RA 9275
RA8981
1. What is the “PRC Modernization Act of 2000”?

a. RA 7718 b. RA 8293 c. RA 8981 d. RA 3571
2. Persons to teach subjects for licensure exams should be ____________________.

a. Degree holder b. Holders of valid COR c. Doctoral degree d. 30 years old and above
3. Penalty for manipulation of results, revealing questions and tampering of grades ____ years
imprisonment or Php _______________ fine
a. 6-13 years imprisonment or Php 50,000-80,000
b. 6-12 years imprisonment or Php 50,000-100,000
c. 6-12 years imprisonment or Php 40,000-80,000
d. 5-13 years imprisonment or Php 50,000-100,000
4. The Commission shall be headed by 1 full-time Chairperson and 2 full-time Commissioners, all to
be appointed by the President without reappointment for a term of how many years?
Civil code
1. What is "Civil code of the Philippines"?

a. RA 386 b. PD 386 c. BP 386 d. EO 386
2. When was the date when Civil code of the Philippines was enacted?
a. June 18, 1949 b. June 18, 1849 c. June 18, 1848 d. June 18, 1948
3. Article 1723 of the Civil Code states tht the engineer or architect who drew up the plans and
specifications is liable for ________ from completion of the building should it collapse due to
defects in the plans or the ground.
RA 8293
1. What is the "Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines."?

a. RA 8293 b. RA 7718 c. RA 8981 d. RA 3571
2. When was the date when Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines was enacted?
a. June 6, 1997 b. June 7, 1996 c. July 6, 1997 d. July 7, 1996
RA 455
1. An act to amend section 2702, and 2703 of the revised administrative code.
a. RA 455 b. PD 455 c. BP 455 d. EO 455

HLURB Guidelines
1. What is the meaning of HLURB?
a. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board b. House and Land Use Regulatory Board
c. Housing and Land Use Regulating Board d. House and Land Use Regulating Board
Electrical- BGUTIL 2
1. The form of energy resulting from the existence of charged particles (such as electrons or
protons), either statically as an accumulation of charge or dynamically as a current.
a. Electricity
b. Power
c. Electrical energy
d. Electric Current
2. is a flow of electric charge. In electric circuits this charge is often carried by moving electrons in a
wire. It can also be carried by ions in an electrolyte, or by both ions and electrons such as in a
plasma.
a. Electricity
b. Power
c. Electrical energy
d. Electric Current
3. is a type of electrical current, in which the direction of the flow of electrons switches back and
forth at regular intervals or cycles
a. Power
b. Direct current
c. Alternating current
d. Curved current
4. an electric current flowing in one direction only
a. Power
b. Direct current
c. Alternating current
d. Curved current
5. complete; continuous path
a. Close circuit
b. Open circuit
c. Circuit diagram
d. Electrical diagram
6. broken, incomplete, and disconnected
a. Close circuit
b. Open circuit
c. Circuit diagram
d. Electrical diagram
7. pressure or force; unit of electrical pressure or potential. Pressure makes electricity flow through
a wire
a. Voltage
b. Ampere
c. Ohms
d. Resistance
8. unit used to measure the magnitude of an electric current; the specific quantity of electrons
passing a point in one second
a. Voltage
b. Ampere
c. Ohms
d. Resistance
9. friction; inherent in insulator; Electricity flowing through a material always meets with some
resistance.
a. Voltage
b. Ampere
c. Ohms
d. Resistance
10. rate of power; power consumption; The amount of power required to light lamps, heat water, turn
motors, and do all types of work is measured
a. Watts
b. Voltage
c. Rate
d. Ampere
11. A _______ circuit has two or more paths for current to flow through
a. Series
b. Parallel
c. Electrical
d. Energy
12. A _____ circuit is one with all the loads in a row. There is only ONE path for the electricity to flow
a. Series
b. Parallel
c. Electrical
d. Energy
13. Watts/ Volts = ________
a. Current
b. Power
c. Amperes
d. Resistance
14. Electrical Energy to Mechanical Energy
a. Solar
b. Battery
c. Motor
d. Generator
15. Mechanical Energy to Electrical Energy
a. Solar
b. Battery
c. Motor
d. Generator
16. In electrical power generation, the use of _________current is the preferred and natural form of
electricity
a. Circular
b. Alternating
c. Direct
d. Diffused
17. When a single-phase alternating current is rectified in the simplest manner, the reverse half of
the cycle is blocked out entirely
a. Half-Wave Rectified AC:
b. Single-Phase Alternating Current
c. Full-Wave Rectified Three-Phase AC:
d. Full-Wave Rectified Single-Phase AC
18. This rectified alternating current for which the rectifier is so connected that the reverse half of the
cycle is “turned around”, and fed into the circuit flowing in the same direction as the first half of
the cycle
19. This term refers to a simple current, alternating in direction
20. When three-phase alternating current is rectified the full-wave rectification system is used
21. It is used as a raceway system for electrical conductors; The wall thickness and strength of steel
provide the most mechanical protection to the enclosed conductors. An additional benefit of using
steel conduit is that it is used as an equipment grounding conductor.
a. Steel Conduit
b. Flexible Metal
c. Pipes
d. Tubings
22. The power driving the rotor, from a power source, eg a steam or gas turbine, is transferred to
electrical power in the stator winding. In the case of a large generator in a coal or nuclear power
station, to achieve 50 hertz the 'rotor' has two poles of a magnet N & S which rotate past the top
red winding of the 'stator' 50 times a second
a. Generator
b. Alternator
c. Genset
d. Battery
23. Why did the circuit breaker fail to detect the short circuit/ overloading?
The owner hired an electrician to prepare and install the electrical wiring for his house. The
electrician with the owner's consent, decided to use a larger size of wiring for the circuit breaker
to anticipate overload. After some time, the house was on fire. After the investigation, it has
proven that the cause of the fire was faulty wiring.
a. The circuit breaker is defective
b. The capacity of the wire is too large
c. The circuit breaker was too far away from where the short circuit happened
d. All of the above
24. What should be done by the electrician? The owner hired an electrician to prepare and install the
electrical wiring for his house. The electrician with the owner's consent, decided to use a larger
size of wiring for the circuit breaker to anticipate overload. After some time, the house was on fire.
After the investigation, it has proven that the cause of the fire was faulty wiring. Why did the
circuit breaker fail to detect the short circuit/ overloading.
A. Use the appropriate wiring capacity

B. None, his plans and actions were appropriate
C. Take a professional exam
D. None of the above
25. It is the Philippine Electrical Code.

a. RA 184
b. RA 7920
c. RA 1378
d. EC F2F1
26. Individual Conductors used for circuit wiring up to No. 8 AWG

a.Wire
b.cable
c.bus bars
friction; inherent in insulator; Electricity flowing through a material always meets with some
resistance. Insulators like wood, glass, and plastic have a high resistance. Copper, aluminum,
and silver have low resistance and are therefore good conductors of electricity.
a. Voltage
b. Ohms
c. Amperes
d. Ampacity
27. Prevents flow of electric current
a. Conductor
b. Insulator
c. Ohms
d. Voltage
28. Are connected to lighting outlets for the entire building. Different lights in each room are usually
on different circuits so that if one circuit breaker trips, the room will not be in total darkness
a. Lighting Circuits
b. Basic
c. Insulator
d. Voltage
29. These circuits provide power to outlets wherever small appliances are likely to be connected.
a. Small appliances Circuits
b. Lighting circuits
c. Electrical circuits
d. Individual circuits
30. Individual dedicated circuits are designed to serve a single large electrical appliance or device,
such as electric ranges, automatic heating units, built-in electric heaters, and workshop outlets.
a. Small appliances Circuits
b. Individual circuits
c. Electrical circuits
d. Lighting circuits
31. system furniture application/cable management
a. Flat cable assemblies
b. Round cable assemblies
c. Busbar
d. Flexible metal cable
32. Complete electrical plans ensure that electrical equipment and wiring are installed exactly as
planned.
a. ELECTRICAL WORKING DRAWINGS
b. Electrical plan
c. Individual electrical circuits
d. Transformer
33. Used for both exposed and concealed work in normally dry locations at temperatures not to
exceed 90 Celsius degrees as specified in the Philippine Electrical Code
a. Nonmetallic Sheated Cable (NMC/NM) – ROMEX
b. Flexible Metal Clad (FMC)/Metal Clad (MC)/Armored Cable
c. THERMOPLASTIC
d. 5 Shielded Nonmetallic Sheated Cable
34. Telecommunication/submarine cable; originally developed for use in mines, but they are now
widely used in primary and secondary industries, chemical plants, refineries and general factory
environments.
a. THERMOPLASTIC
b. Shielded Nonmetallic Sheated Cable
c. chemical plants
d. Flexible Metal Clad (FMC)/Metal Clad (MC)/Armored Cable
35. Actual use Fixtures, Switches, Convenience Outlets, Branch Circuits
a. BRANCH CIRCUITS
b. LIGHTING CIRCUITS
c. UTILIZATION EQUIPMENTS
d. individual circuits.
36. Typical architectural wiring diagrams identify the various electrical fixtures and devices and trace
the control of each fixture to a switch.
a. Room Wiring Drawings
b. Electrical layout
c. Power layout
d. Plumbing layout
37. Positions and connections of doorbells, chimes, music, and any communication units need to be
included on the floor plan.
a. COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
b. INTEGRATED SYSTEMS
c. System
d. Electrical Layout
38. argon and low pressure mercury vapor
a. Cathode
b. Cylindrical Glass Tube
c. Rapid Start
d. Starter
39. Is used to allow voltage to pass the length of the fluorescent tube in order for it to ignite and emit
light. Once ignited the starter is no longer required for the tube's continued operation.
a. STARTER
b. Rapid start
c. Cathode
d. Integrated system
MECHANICAL- BGUTIL2
1. Is in common use in the heating and cooling industry. It stands for "heating, ventilation and air
conditioning," three functions often combined into one system in today's modern homes and
buildings.
a. HVAC
b. ventilation
c. room with ventilation
d. electrical room
2. HVAC systems can provide____________, reduce air infiltration, and maintain pressure
relationships between spaces.
a. heat
b. space
c. light
d. ventilation
3. It removes contaminants that could cause health problems.
a. ventilation
b. light filtration
c. Air Filtration
d. dirt
4. It is a type of heating, ventilating, and air-conditioning (HVAC) system. In a simple CAV system, the
supply air flow rate is constant, but the supply air temperature is varied to meet the thermal loads of
a space.
a. Constant Air Volume (CAV)
b. Terminal Reheat System
c. Air filtration
d. HVAC
5. It cools the air in the air handling unit down to the lowest possible needed temperature within its
zone of spaces. This supplies a comfortable quality to the space, but wastes energy.
a. thermal comfort
b. Terminal Reheat System
c. terminal view system
d. air system
6. it has two air streams, typically one for the coldest and one for the hottest needed air temperature in
the zone. The two air streams are strategically combined to offset the space's load
a. air system
b. cold air system
c. Mixed Air System
d. mechanical system
7. The air used for cooling the room or space is directly passed over the cooling coil of the refrigeration
plant
a. Direct expansion
b. DX centralized air conditioning plant
c. A and B
d. none of the above
8. Chilled water air conditioning plant used to first chill the water, which is then used to chill the air used
for cooling the rooms or spaces
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
9. The plant room comprises of the important parts of the refrigeration system, the compressor and the
condenser. The condenser is of shell and tube type and is cooled by the water.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
10. The refrigerant leaving the condenser in the plant room enters the thermostatic expansion valve and
then the air handling unit, which is kept in the separate room.
a. HVAC
b. The Plant Room
c. The Air Handling Unit Room
11. This is the space that is to be actually cooled. It can be residential room, room of the hotel, part of
the office or any other suitable application.
a. Air Conditioned Room
b. split type room
c. hvac room
d. electrical room
12. Enhance the heating and cooling in your home with the addition of a multi-split air conditioning
system.
a. split type
b. dual slipt type
c. MULTI-SPLIT
13. A split system is a combination of an indoor air handling unit and an outdoor condensing unit. The
indoor air handling unit contains a supply air fan and an air-to-refrigerant heat exchanger (or cooling
coil), and the expansion device.
a. true
b. false
c. maybe
14. Which is not included to the types of condensers?
a. Air cooled
b. Water cooled
c. Evaporative
15. This type of condenser are usually used in ice plants.
a. Water cooled
b. Evaporative
c. Air cooled
d. Condenser coil
16. ______________ are used in small units like household refrigerators, deep freezers, water coolers,
window air-conditioners, split air-conditioners, small packaged air-conditioners etc.
a. Air cooled
b. Water cooled
c. Evaporative
d. Condenser coil
17. It is the most popular type of AC compressor. A piston compresses the air by moving up and down
inside of a cylinder.
a. Scroll AC Compressor
b. Screw AC Compressor
c. Reciprocating Compressor
d. Centrifugal Air Conditioning Compressor
18. The___________ do not control the flow of the air through the air conditioning systems; rather they
act as the fan safety cut-off devices.
a. Airstats
b. Humidistat
c. Thermostat
19. This type of evaporators are made up of copper tubing or steel pipes. The copper tubing is used for
small evaporators where the refrigerant other than ammonia is used, while the steel pipes are used
with the large evaporators where ammonia is used as the refrigerant.
a. Plate type of Evaporators
b. Bare Tube Evaporators
c. Shell and Tube type of Evaporators
d. Finned Evaporators
20. It is considered as the next generator of window units. This type of air conditioning unit takes in air
from the room and cools it, then directs it back into the room.
a. Window air conditioner
b. Hybrid air conditioner
c. Portable air conditioner
d. Central air conditioning
21. _____________are most common in parts of the home that have been retro-fitted. Like central air
conditioning systems, these systems have an outdoor compressor/condenser and an indoor
handling unit.
a. Portable air conditioner
b. Window air conditioner
c. Central air conditioning
d. Ductless, Mini-Split air conditioner
22. The chilled water types of central air conditioning plants are installed in the place where whole large
buildings, shopping mall, airport, hotel, etc, comprising of several floors are to be air conditioned.
a. True
b. False
23. Window type air conditioners shall be provided with drainpipe or plastic tubing for discharging
condensate water into a suitable container or discharge line.
a. True
b. False
24. Uses either baseboard or air handler mounted electric resistance strips.
a. Electric Strip
b. Heat Pump
c. Gas Furnace
d. Electric Resistance Strip
25. The plant room comprises of the important parts of the refrigeration system, the compressor and the
condenser.
a. True
b. False
26. An air conditioner cools and dehumidifies the air as is passes over a cold coil surface.
a. True
b. False
27. ___________ is a moving staircase, a conveyor transport device for carrying people between floors
of a building.
a. Escalator
b. Roller Bed
c. Elevator
d. Wire mesh Belt Conveyor
28. What is the most economical angle in degrees for an escalator?
a. 30 degrees
b. 35 degrees
c. 20 degrees
d. 25 degrees
29. A type of escalator that minimizes structural space requirements by "stacking" escalators that go in
one direction, frequently used in department stores or shopping centers.
a. Multi Parallel
b. Crisscross
c. Parallel
d. Diagonal
30. A type of escalator that two or more escalators together that travel in one direction next to one or two
escalators in the same bank that travel in the other direction. This are used in mass-purchasing
facilities and malls and are mostly limited to two stories.
a. Multi Parallel
b. Crisscross
c. Parallel
d. Diagonal
31. A type of escalator that use more floor space than crisscross arrangements but have an impressive
appearance.
a. Multi Parallel
b. Crisscross
c. Parallel
d. Diagonal
32. _________ are devices that move people and goods vertically within a dedicated shaft that connects
the floors of a building.
a. Escalator
b. Roller Bed
c. Elevator
d. Wire mesh Belt Conveyor
33. __________ are lifted by ropes, which pass over a wheel attached to an electric motor above the
elevator shaft.
a. Hydraulic Elevator
b. Freight Elevator
c. Holed Hydraulic Elevator
d. Traction Elevator
34. _____________ is operated using a pump that moves non-compressible liquid (such as oil) from a
fluid reservoir into a cylinder through an open valve.
a. Hydraulic Elevator
b. Freight Elevator
c. Holed Hydraulic Elevator
d. Traction Elevator
35. ____________ include glass car walls and glass hoistway, and are used in a wide variety of
environments, from office buildings, hotels, and retail centers to transportation hubs and cruise
ships.
a. Passenger Elevator
b. Service Elevator
c. Scenic Elevator
d. Dumbwaiter Elevator
36. They are small freight elevators intended to carry objects rather than people, whenever groceries or
laundry need to be sent up and down the stairs without making unnecessary trips that can quickly
tire people, people can simply place what needs to be transported.
a. Passenger Elevator
b. Service Elevator
c. Scenic Elevator
d. Dumbwaiter Elevator
37. A light usually at the entrance to an elevator on each floor of a multistory building, that signals the
approach of the elevator.
a. Annunciator
b. Signal
c. Lantern
d. Button
38. The horizontal section of railing at the upper or lower end of an escalator.
a. Combplate
b. Newel
c. Lantern
d. Post
39. An opening through a building/structure for the travel of elevators, dumbwaiters, or material lifts,
extending from the pit floor to the roof of flow above.
a. Hoist
b. Hoistway
c. Post
d. Lantern
40. An apparatus for raising or lowering a load by the application of a force, but does not include a
car or platform.
a. Hoist
b. Hoistway
c. Post
d. Lantern
41. It is an arrangement where Up and down escalators "side by side or separated by a distance,"
seen often in metro stations and multilevel motion picture theaters)
a. Parallel
b. Crisscross
c. Multiple Parallel
d. “Up” escalator next to staircase
42. Minimizes structural space requirements by "stacking" escalators that go in one direction,
frequently used in department stores or shopping centers.
a. Parallel
b. Crisscross
c. Multiple Parallel
d. “Up” escalator next to staircase
43. The __________ are yellow strips or may be in bold color around the step tread but mostly
located at the front and at the rear ends of the tread.
a. Demarcations
b. Yoke
c. Step Hook
d. Newel
44. Guided by vertical guide rails, the _________ conveys passenger or freight between floors.
a. Hoist
b. Elevator Car
c. Lobby
d. Elevator Pit
45. Elevator waiting areas which are designed to allow free circulation of passengers, rapid access to
elevator cars, and clear visibility of elevator signals.
a. Lobby
b. Elevator Pit
c. Hallway
d. Hoistway
46. Normally located directly over the top of the hoistways- it could also be below at side or rear. It is
designed to contain elevator hoisting machine and control equipment.
a. Elevator Pit
b. Machine Room
c. Elevator Car
d. Lobby
47. According to the NBC, the angle of inclination of an escalator shall not exceed ______ degrees
from the horizontal.
a. 40
b. 30
c. 35
d. 25
48. Elevators shall be provided with _________, over load switch and reverse polarity relay
a. Emergency Button
b. Fall-Free Safety Device
c. Emergency Break
d. Call Device
49. The rated speed, measured along the angle of inclination, shall be not more that _____ meters
per minute
a. 38
b. 40
c. 28
d. 35
50. In apartments or residential condominiums of five (5) storeys or more, at least one (1) passenger
elevator shall be kept on twenty-four-hour constant service.
a. True
b. False
51. The minimum and maximum width between balustrades.
a. 560 mm, 1200 mm
b. 600 mm, 1200 mm
c. 560 mm, 1500 mm
d. 600 mm, 1500 mm
Planning 1
MULTIPLE CHOICE.
1. It refers to the art of arranging structures on land and shaping spaces.

a. Contours
b. Slope Analysis
c. Site Planning
d. Site Analysis
2. Sets of imaginary lines that connect all points of some arbitrary equal elevation on the ground?
a. Contours
b. Slope Analysis
c. Site Planning
d. Site Analysis
3. It is useful for making decision if the land is buildable or not.
a. Contours
b. Slope Analysis
c. Site Planning
d. Site Analysis
4. A graphic and numerical scale is displayed along at the base of the drawing.
a. Topography
b. Contours
c. Slope Analysis
d. Slope Terrain
5. The ability of the surface and subsurface material to carry the weight of the structure.
a. Geophysical Condition
b. Slope Terrain
c. Landscaping
d. Soil Bearing Capacity
6. The underground “reservoir” of water.
a. Deep Well
b. Aquifers
c. Underground Water Source
d. Liquefiers
7. These are line of weakness caused by previous movements of the earth's crust and always have a
potential for further movement.
a. Normal Fault
b. Lateral Slip
c. Geological Fault
d. Quiescent Fault
8. Can be identified by such characteristics as the kind and numbers of horizons or layers that have
developed in them.
a. Stone
b. Gravel
c. Soil
d. Clay
9. The interacting variables including temperature, water vapor, wind, solar radiation, precipitation.
a. Wind Cycle
b. Climate
c. Weather
d. Temperature
10. How many percent does the slope have that is usable for all kinds of activities?
a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 4%
11. Preliminary phase of architectural and urban design process dedicated to the study of the climatic,
geographical, historical, legal and infrastructural context of a specific site.
a. Contour
b. Slope Analysis
c. Site Analysis
d. Site Development Plan
12. Selecting the most suitable available site for a land development or redevelopment project.
a. Site Selection
b. Site Development
c. Site Analysis
d. Site Planning
13. Is distinct, and often symmetrical natural pattern of geometric shapes formed by ground material
in periglacial regions.
a. Polygons
b. Circles
c. Patterned Ground
d. Step
14. Which among the choices is not an example of patterned ground?
a. Circle
b. Rectangular
c. Steps
d. Stripes
15. The natural science that studies the earth – its composition; the processes that shaped its surface;
and its history.
a. Biology
b. Geology
c. Meteorology
d. Ecology
16. This rock can be weathered and eroded, and then redeposited and lithified (petrify) into a
sedimentary rock, or turned into a metamorphic rock due to heat and pressure.
a. Granite
b. Metamorphic Rocks
c. Igneous Rocks
d. Sedimentary Rocks
17. This rock can be subsequently turned into a metamorphic rock due to heat and pressure.
a. Granite
c. Igneous Rocks
18. When sedimentary rocks are pushed to deeper level of the earth, they transform into due to
changes in pressure and temperature.
a. Granite
c. Igneous Rocks
19. Which of the following are not included in the composition of soil properties?
a. Plants
b. Mineral Particles
c. Organic Matter
d. Water
20. Comprise 50% to 80% of the volume of the soil and form the all-important skeletal structure of
the soil.
a. Plants
c. Organic Matter
d. Water
21. Varies radically in soil and usually imposes a limitation to any building structure.
a. Plants
c. Organic Matter
d. Water
22. Content varies with particle sizes, local drainage, topography and climate.
a. Plants
c. Organic Matter
d. Water
23. Which of the following is not a type of soil?
a. Dust
b. Sand
c. Silt
d. Clay
24. A naturally occurring granular material composed of finely divided rock and mineral particles.
a. Dust
b. Sand
c. Silt
d. Clay
25. A granular material of a size between sand and clay, whose mineral origin is quartz and feldspar.
a. Dust
b. Sand
c. Silt
d. Clay
26. A fine-grained natural rock or soil material that combines one or more clay minerals with traces
of metal oxides and organic matter.
a. Dust
b. Sand
c. Silt
d. Clay
27. A type of well that can be constructed by hand tools/power tools. It can have the greatest diameter
that a space may allow.
a. Dug Wells
b. Driven Wells
c. Drilled Wells
d. Bored Wells
28. A construction designed to bridge a large vertical distance by dividing it into smaller vertical
distances.
a. Vertical Linkages
b. Horizontal Linkages
c. Circulation Linkages
d. Linkages
29. A vehicular circulation pattern that connects flow between two point and is illustrated by railroad
lines or canals.
a. Grid
b. Radial
c. Curvilinear
d. Linear
30. The systems that forms a hierarchy of flow or change of scale from major to minor roads.
a. Curvilinear System
b. RROW
c. Vehicular Circulation System
d. Road Layout
31. Forms an important linkage in relating human activities on a site.
a. Traffic
b. Flow
c. Pedestrian Circulation
d. CLUP
32. Use of land for a specific land development and proper utilization of land.
a. Traffic
b. Flow
c. Land use
d. CLUP
33. The process of dividing land in a municipality into zones in which certain land uses are permitted
or prohibited.
a. Traffic
b. Zoning
c. Pedestrian Circulation
d. CLUP
34. A document designed to guide the future development of a community.
a. CLUP
b. Zone
c. Land-Use
d. Land-Use Conversion
35. Which one of these is not included in processing of creating new spaces that breaks down the
spatial grammar into manageable bits.
a. Attitude
b. Personality
c. Action
d. Properties
36. This is the principal place for individual or group creative work.
a. Home Base
b. Support Base
c. Thresholds
d. Base
37. The atmospheric quality of an environment and its effect on the mood of an audience.
a. Space
b. Aura
c. Ambience
d. Climate
38. Spatial Characteristics that can be used to transform behavior and mood.
a. Attitude
b. Properties
c. Surface
d. Actions
39. Arranging environment to incite and support specific behaviors is precisely the intent of space
design.
a. Actions
b. Surface
c. Space
d. Orientation
40. It is process of inspiration that is restored to display and broadcast information, express emotion
and immerse a team in the environment of a problem.
a. Focus
b. Saturate
c. Reflect
d. Realize
41. A process that involves creating clarity from complexity.
a. Synthesize
b. Saturate
c. Flare
d. Focus
42. Ignoring constraints and suspending disbelief in favor of creating something new.
a. Synthesize
b. Saturate
c. Flare
d. Focus
43. Rectangular Arrangement of Elements into rows and columns.
a. Matrix
b. Criteria Matrix
c. Table
d. Size
44. Part of the pre-design process as it represents graphic abstraction or interpretation of the problem
information.
a. Matrix Diagram
b. Relationship Diagram
c. Bubble Diagram
d. Space Program
45. Type of circulation directs flow to or from a common center?
a. Radial
b. Grid
c. Linear
d. Curvilinear
46. Type of circulation responds to the topography of the land and aligns with natural contours?
a. Radial
b. Grid
c. Linear
d. Curvilinear
47. Consists of equally spaced streets or roads which are perpendicular to each other.
a. Radial
b. Grid
c. Linear
d. Curvilinear
48. A circulation that connects flow between two points, either along a single line or along a series of
parallel lines.
a. Radial
b. Grid
c. Linear
d. Curvilinear
49. A divided highway for through traffic with full control of access, always with grade separations at
all intersections and serves long trips and smooth traffic flow.
a. Expressway
b. Arterial
c. Major Collector
d. Minor Collector
50. A continuous road with partial access control for through traffic within urban areas.
a. Expressway
b. Arterial
c. Major Collector
d. Minor Collector
51. The basic network of the road transportation system within a District or Regional Development
Area.
a. Expressway
b. Arterial
c. Major Collector
d. Minor Collector
52. A road with partial access control designed to serve on a collector or distributor or traffic between
major collector and the local road system.
a. Expressway
b. Arterial
c. Major Collector
d. Minor Collector
53. What is the implementation of all improvements that are needed for a site before construction
begins?
a. Site Analysis
b. Site Plan
c. Site Selection
d. Site Development
54. is to reduce the total length of impervious streets and driveways?
a. RROW
b. Sidewalk
c. Parking
d. Setback
55. An area of ground on which town building or monument is constructed?
a. Site
b. Parking
c. Road
d. Driveway
56. A graphic representation of the arrangement of buildings, parking, drives, landscaping and any
other structure that is part of a development project.
a. Site Plan
b. Site Analysis
c. Site Selection
d. Site Development
57. An extension of the theoretical or practical aspects of a concept, design, discovery or invention?
a. Development
b. Extension
c. Renovation
d. Alteration
58. Is used to reduce the amount of impervious surface cover associated with parking lots.
a. Setback
b. Parking Lot
c. Parking Lot Footprint
d. Lot
59. What is the design of outdoor and public spaces to achieve environmental, socio-behavioral
and/or aesthetics outcome?
a. Urban Planning
b. Road Layout
c. Land Use & Zoning
d. Landscape Architecture
60. Plants that are used to produce dense shades and are particularly suitable for neighborhoods with
hot, humid summers.
a. Screens
b. Hedges
c. Specimens
d. Shade Trees
61. These plants are used to block an undesirable view, noise, wind or dusts and debris?
a. Screens
b. Hedges
c. Specimens
d. Shade trees
62. What type of soil is best used for vegetation?
a. Sandy Soil
b. Clay
c. Loam soil
d. Dirt
63. A branch of landscape architecture that is concerned with reconciling, competing land uses while
protecting natural processes, significant cultural, natural resources.
a. Landscape Ecology
b. Cultural Landscape
c. Landscape Planning
d. Landscape Architecture
64. An activity that modifies the visible features of an area of land.
a. Landscaping
b. Planning
c. Planting
d. Site Visitation
65. It is a design and construction with the environment in mind.
a. Green Architecture
b. Landscape Architecture
c. Landscape Planning
d. Urban Planning
66. It may incorporate sustainable materials in their construction.
a. Green Building
b. Commercial Building
c. Landscaping
d. Resilient Building
67. During the construction period, the cost of materials, tools, labors, equipment etc. may vary from
time to time. These variations in the prices should be considered during cost estimation process.
a. Construction Material costs
b. Wage Rates
c. Price for Construction Project
d. Inflation Factor
68. How many percentages should the total project costs add?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
69. What is the requirement that can have additional requirements which may have additional costs?
a. Insurance
b. Regulatory
c. Materials
d. Projects
70. Increase in project duration can increase the construction project cost due to increase in indirect
costs, while reduction in construction cost also increases the project cost due to increase in direct
cost. What factor of the construction cost estimate will get affected?
a. Inflation Factor
b. Construction Material Cost
c. Project Schedule
d. Quality of Plans & Specifications
FAR EASTERN UNIVERSITY
CORRCOURSE QUESTIONNAIRE – ARCH. PINEDA
Topic: Planning 3
-ANSWER KEY-
1.0 Introduction (Humans in their ecological setting)
_____1. It is the interdisciplinary or transdisciplinary study of the relationship between humans and
their natural, social and built environments.
a. Ecology b. Human Ecology c. Sociology d. Theory of Architecture
_____2. A field that expanded a person’s “environment” to include their mental representation
between humans and their natural, social and built environments.
a. Environmental Ecology b. Gestalt Perspective
c. Built Environment d. Psychological Ecology
_____3. Also known as Holistic Viewpoint. It is important to human ecology because it recognizes
that we can gain understanding of a system by looking at it as a whole.
a. Environmental Ecology b. Gestalt Perspective
c. Built Environment d. Psychological Ecology
_____4. A variety of subjects studied concurrently; a liberal arts degree requires students to study
a variety of subjects in order to prepare them to be effective citizens in a complex society.
a. Inter – disciplinary b. Environmental Ecology c. Multi – disciplinary d. Ecology
_____5. It is one way to understand human ecology, however many topics are more complex and
it is important to realize that systems analysis is only one way.
a. Systems Analysis b. Spatial Analysis c. Monodisciplinary d. Transdisciplinary
_____6. They had long been interested in humans’ direct relationships with their environments so
it was easy for them to incorporate human ecology into their discipline.
a. Anthropologist b. Ecologist c. Environmentalist d. Environmental Planner
_____7. It is the Science of Human ecology, emphasizing its study of humans’ relationships with
the land instead of just a regional study of physical land.
a. Environmental Ecology b. Land Ecology c. Geography d. Geology
_____8. He was an urban sociologist who considered human ecology as the study of the
relationship between biotic balance and social equilibrium.
a. Kurt Lewin b. Kenneth E. Boulding c. Robert Ezra Park d. Julian Steward
2.0 Ekistics: The Science of Human Settlements

_____9. A term coined by Greek Architect and Urban Planner Konstantinos Apostolos Doxiadis?
a. Planning b. Ekistics c. Gridiron d. Urban Planning
_____10. Which is not a basic part of Composite Human Settlements?
a. Homogenous Parts b. Central part c. Auxiliary parts d. Circulatory Parts
Cayomba, Francis/ Estoce, Nelson Page | 1

Topic: Planning 3
_____11. What are the circulatory parts of a composite human settlements?
a. Landscapes b. Buildings c. Roads and Paths d. Pedestrians
_____12. It refers to the built environment or the traditional domain of the architectural and
engineering professions.
a. Synthesis b. Nature c. Society d. Shells
_____13. It is a consideration of the interactions of all the ekistic elements in terms of a single
ekistic unit.
a. Synthesis b. Nature c. Society d. Shells
3.0 Location Theory: The Foundation of Planning
_____14. It indicates a solution to the problem of what is the most rational use of land suggesting
ways in which the current pattern can be improved.
a. Land Use Theory b. Location Theory c. Urban Planning d. Planning Theory
_____15. Who postulated that around a central town: a rural land of constant fertility assumed in
different forms? (the type of land use varies with distance away from the market)
a. Le Corbusier b. Ebenezer Howard
c. Johann Heinrich von Thunen d. Daniel Burnham
_____16. Established a distance – cost relationship which recently became the basis of urban
location theory.
a. Location Theory b. Linear City c. Garden City d. Von Thunen Model
4.0 Definition of Planning

_____17. The process of planning a future community, or the guidance and shaping of the
expansion of a current community, in an organized manner and with an organized lay-out.
a. Urban Planning b. Community Planning
c. Environmental Planning d. Planning
_____18. The art and science if analyzing, specifying, clarifying, harmonizing, managing and
regulating the use of development of land and water resources.
a. Urban Planning b. Community Planning
c. Environmental Planning d. Planning
_____19. He was called an architect who valued a site’s natural features.
a. Lawrence Halprin b. Ian Mcharg c. Frederick Law Olmstead d.James Corner
_____20. It is one of the aspects of urban planning wherein a city’s physical environment includes
its location, its climate and its proximity to sources of food and water.

Topic: Planning 3
a. Physical Environment b. Social Environment
c. Economic Environment d. Built Environment
_____21. It includes the groups to which a city’s residents belong, the neighborhoods in which they
live, the organization of its workplaces.
_____22. What is the technique used by Ian Mcharg which considered the varied features of an
environment?
a. Base Maps b. Thematic Maps c. Overlay d. Mcharg Theory
_____23. It consists of primary employers, such a manufacturing as well as research and
development companies, retail businesses, etc.
5.0 Historical Overview and Influences

_____24. Who is the father of urban planning?
a. Aristotle b. Alexander the Great c. Hippodamus of Miletus d. Filippo Brunelleschi
_____25. Who introduced the principle of straight wide street and made provision for the proper
grouping of dwelling – houses?
a. Aristotle b. Alexander the Great c. Hippodamus of Miletus d. Filippo Brunelleschi
_____26. Basic plan consisted of a central forum with city service, surrounded by a compact,
rectilinear grid of street
a. Greek Planning b. Roman Planning c. Medieval Planning d. Spanish
Planning
_____27. The growth of the town around the monasteries and castles were naturally started from
gateways extending along roadways and then fanning out.
a. Ecocentric b. Concentric c. Radiocentric d. Medieval Planning
6.0 Basic Planning Concepts

_____28. Who conceptualize the garden city concept?
a. Daniel Burnham b. Ebenezer Howard c. Soria Y Mata d. Le Corbusier
_____29. A concept in urban planning that refers essentially to miniature metropolitan areas on a
fringe of a larger ones
a. Meso-settlements b. Urban Area c. CBD d. Satellite Town

Topic: Planning 3
_____30. It was a reform philosophy of North American architecture and urban planning that
flourished during the 1890s and 1900s with the intent of introducing beautification and monumental
grandeur in cities.
a. Garden City b. City Beautiful Movement c. Linear City d. Broadacre City
_____31. The design is typified by the backyards of homes facing the street and the fronts of homes
facing one another, over common yards.
a. Radburn Theory b. Geddes Theory c. Ribbon Development d. Linear City
_____32. Refers to a line of houses built along existing highways (or railways or similar linear
barriers), each being served by individual accesses. The land to the rear of the houses is not
developed.
a. Radburn Theory b. Geddes Theory c. Ribbon Development d. Linear City
_____33. It was an urban or suburban development concept proposed by Frank Lloyd Wright
throughout most of his lifetime.
a. Geddisian Triad b. Neighborhood Unit c. Linear City d. Broad Acre
City
_____34. Who proposed the neighborhood unit concept?
a. Patrick Geddes b. Le Corbusier c. Clarence Perry d. Daniel Radburn
_____35. A region comprising a number of cities, large towns, and other urban areas that, through
population growth and physical expansion, have merged to form one continuous urban and
industrially developed area.
a. Urban b. Megalopolis c. Conurbation d. Metropolis
7.0 Overview of Urban and Regional Planning Theories

_____36. Of, relating to, characteristic of, or constituting a city.
a. Urban b. Rural c. Environmental d. Semi-Urban
_____37. The body of scientific concepts, definitions, behavioral relationships, and assumptions
that define the body of knowledge of urban planning.
a. Synoptic Planning b. Built Environment c. Planning d. Planning Theory
_____38. To identify and design for these spatial factors, rational planning relied on a small group
of highly specialized technicians, including architects, urban designers, and engineers.
a. Planning Movement b. Professional Planning
c. Planning Specialization d. Blueprint Planning
_____39. It is a stream of urban planning which seeks to manage development in an equitable and
community-based manner.

Topic: Planning 3
a. Radical Planning b. Empirical Planning
c. Community Planning d. Social Planning
_____40. It is the center of Homer Hoyt’s sector model which he developed in 1939.
a. Transportation and Industry b. Central business district
c. High – class residential d. Open spaces
_____41. Provided an explanation on why slums and squatter settlements proliferate in areas close
to the CBD or commercial centers.
a. CBD Theory b. Demolition Theory
c. Land – Rent Theory d. Privatization
_____42. It provides an economic and spatial development of regions through provision of
appropriate goods and services, with establishments according to scale.
a. Land – Rent Theory b. Economic Theory
c. Central Place Theory d. Urban
8.0 The Comprehensive Planning Process

_____43. What is the Step 1 in CLUP Process?
a. Identifying Stakeholders b. Getting Organized
c. Setting the Vision d. Setting Goals & Objectives
_____44. Are those who can significantly influence the project, or are the most important if the
CLUP objectives are met.
a. Stakeholders b. Primary Stakeholders
c. Secondary Stakeholders d. Tertiary Stakeholders
_____45. A process that engages an entire organizational community in integrating its best
hindsight and foresight in aligned direction.
a. Community Process b. Organizational Process
c. Strategic Visioning d. Planning Process
_____46. What are the different kinds of thematic maps?
a. External Boundaries b. Road Network
c. Slope Map d. Protected Areas Map
_____47. Are negative aspects external to the entity.
a. Threats b. Opportunities c. Strengths d. Weaknesses
_____48. It is a broad statement of something that the group expects to attain or achieve.
a. Objectives b. Strategy c. Goal d. Problem
_____49. The purpose of____________ is to isolate key issues and to facilitate a strategic
approach.

Topic: Planning 3
a. Objectives b. Strategy c. SWOT Analysis d. Goal
_____50. A land development scheme wherein project site is comprehensively planned as an entity
via unitary site plan.
a. Land – Use Planning b. CLUP c. PUD d. HLURB
9.0 Planning of Particular Projects

9.1 Land Use Planning
_____51. Viewed as property- a private commodity which can be owned, used, bought or sold
personal comfort and profit.
a. Land Use b. Land Use Planning c. Land d. Plan
_____52. Refers to a document embodying specific proposals for guiding and regulating growth
and development of a municipality.
a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan b. Land
c. Land Use Planning d. Comprehensive development Plan
_____53. The document that pertains to the multi-sectoral plan formulated at the city/municipal
level, which embodies the vision, sectoral goals, objectives, development strategies and
policies within the term of LGU officials and the medium-term.
a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan b. Land
c. Comprehensive Development Plan d. Annual Investment Plan
_____54. Constitutes the annual slice of the LDIP, referring to the indicative yearly expenditure
requirements of the LGU’s programs, project and activities (PPAs) to be into the annual
budget.
a. Local Development Investment Plan b. Annual Investment Program
c. Land Use Planning d. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
_____55. A basic document linking the local plan to the budget. It contains a prioritized list of PPAs
which are derived from the CDP in the case of cities and municipalities, and the PDPFP
in the case of the provinces, matched with financing resources and to be implemented
annually within a 3 to 6 year- period.
a. Land Use Planning b. Annual Investment Program
c. Comprehensive Land Use Plan d. Local Development Investment Plan
_____56. The CLUP covers a minimum planning period of ____ years.
a. 10 years b. 3 to 6 years c. 6 years d. 3 years
_____57. The broad allocation of land uses in the level of physical framework plans are treated in
detail in the _____.
a. CLUP b. LDIP c. LEC d. CLP
_____58. Term-based counterpart of the Comprehensive Development Plan (CDP).

Topic: Planning 3
a. Local Development Investment Plan b. Executive and Legislative Agenda
c. Comprehensive Land Use Plan d. Annual Investment Program
_____59. Provides policy guidelines and political insights in the local level.
a. Non-Government Organizations b. Local Development Council
c. Local Planning and Development Office d. Local Legislative Council
_____60. In the local level, is the technical arm of the Local Development Council (LDC).
a. Local Development Council b. Non-Government Organizations
c. Local Legislative Council d. Local Planning and Development Office
9.2 Physical Planning

_____61. The plan document formulated at the provincial level that merges the traditionally
separate provincial physical framework plan and provincial development plan.
a. Provincial Development and Physical Framework Plan
b. Provincial Development Investment Plan
c. City Development Investment Plan
9.3 Transportation and Public Facilities Planning (Infrastructure)

_____62. The process of understanding, assessing and designing transport systems to provide for
safe and efficient movement of people, goods, and services in an environmentally
responsible manner.
a. Land Use Planning b. Act of Planning
c. Transportation Planning d. Urban Planning
_____63. Introduced Transit Oriented Development (TOD).
a. Homer Hoyt b. Peter Calthorpe
c. Robert Garin and Ira-Lowry d. None of these
_____64. Vehicle use is restrained through user taxes imposed on fuel, tires, spare parts, etc. thus
adding to the operating cost in relation to the distance traveled.
a. Vehicular ownership restraints b. User taxes
c. Traffic Cell System d. Area Licensing
_____65. Ride sharing technique of two or more commuters on a single car for commuting.
a. bus pooling b. Van pooling c. Motor City d. Car pooling
_____66. A system suitable for a non-motorized transport system.
a. Bikeway System b. Shuttle System
c. Mass Transit d. Traffic Control System

Topic: Planning 3
_____67. Is the art of influencing travel behavior in order to reduce or redistribute travel demand.
a. Passenger Car Units b. Travel Demand Management
c. Transit Oriented Development d. Local Government Unit
_____69. Charges are applied to low-occupancy vehicles entering the congested area during peak
periods.
a. User taxes b. traffic cell system
c. area licensing d. Vehicular ownership restraints
_____70. Minimum pathwalk width in meters.
a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. 2
_____71. Minimum road right of way of highway in an urban area.
a. 10 meters b. 30 meters c. 15-20 meters d. 40-60meters
_____72. Per National Building Code, provide 1 parking slot per 1 living unit if unit size is more
than ____s.q.m.
a. 100 b. 80 c. 50 d. 60
9.4 Environmental Planning (Agrarian, Forest, Coastal)
_____73. Refers to activities connected with the management and development of land, as well as
the preservation, conservation and management of the human environment.
a. Comprehensive Land Use Planning b. Environmental Planning
c. Land Use Planning d. Conservation Planning
_____74. PD 705 is also known as _____.
a. Revised Forestry code b. National Building Code of the Philippines
c. Water Code d. Fire Code
_____75. National Integrated Protected Areas System (NIPAS) is also known as ____.
a. PD1096 b. PD957 c. RA 7586 d. RA 7916
_____76. According to RA 7586, _____ is a forest reservation essentially of natural wilderness
character which has been withdrawn from settlement, occupancy or any form of
exploitation except in conformity with approved management plan.
a. Natural Monument b. Cultural Heritage Site
c. Eco Park d. National Park
_____77. According to RA 7586, _____ is a relatively small area focused on protection of small
features to protect or preserve nationally significant natural features on account of their
special interest or unique characteristics.
a. Natural Monument b. Cultural Heritage Site
c. Eco Park d. National Park
_____78. PD 856 is also known as ____.

Topic: Planning 3
a. Fire Code b. National Building Code
c. Electrical Code d. Sanitation Code
_____79. PD 1067 is also known as ____.
a. Electrical Code b. National Building Code
c. Water Code d. Sanitation Code
9.5 Tourism Planning

_____80. An act declaring a national policy for tourism as an engine of investment, employment,
growth and national development, and strengthening the department of tourism and its
attached agencies to effectively and efficiently implement that policy, and appropriating
funds.
a. RA 9266 b. RA 9593 c. PD 1096 d. None of the above
9.6 Historic Preservation

_____81. A building or an are of the unspoilt natural environment, considered to be important to a
country or area’s history.
a. Preserved Site b. Endangered Site c. Potential Site d. Heritage Site
_____82. RA No. 10066 is also known as ________.
a. Natural and Cultural Heritage Law of 2012
b. National Committee of Heritage Law of 2012
c. National Cultural Heritage Act of 2009
d. National Culture and Historic Act of 2008
9.7 Fiscal Planning

_____83. It is defined as a continuous process which involves decisions or choices about alternate
ways of using available resources with the aim of achieving particular goals.
a. Land Use Planning b. Fiscal Planning
c. Comprehensive Land Use Planning d. Goal Planning
10.0 Plans related to urban and regional planning

_____84. A planned community under-development located in Capas, Tarlac managed by BCDA.
a. New Clark Green City b. Vigan City
c. Capas Global City d. None of the above
_____85. A mixed-used development to be built on a reclaimed land in Manila.

Topic: Planning 3
a. City of Coral b. City of Orient
c. City of Pearl d. Manila Global City
11.0 The State of Philippine Urban and Regional Planning

_____86. Which of does not describe the current state of local planning in the Philippines?
a. Lack of vertical linkages b. Lack of horizontal linkages
c. Inactive Local Development d. None of the above
_____87. What is the political unit which is in-charge of the management of its entire geographical
territory for and in behalf of the national government?
a. LGU b. NEDA c. PNP d. None of the above
12.0 Institutions in Planning

_____88. ________ provides policy guidelines and political insights.
a. Local Development Council b. Local Legislative Council
c. Local Planning and Development Office d. NGOs
_____89. ________ provides legal force.
_____90. ________ is the technical arm of the LDC.
_____91. ________ provide technical inputs and advice.
a. National Government Agencies b. NGOs
c. Local Planning and Development Office d. Local Legislative Council
_____92. Which of the following is not a national level planning organization?
a. NGOs b. NEDA c. HLURB d. None of the above
13.0 Pertinent Planning Laws (HLURB Guidelines, BP957, NEDA, Local Government Units,
MMDA, DILG, NHA, etc.)
_____93. Minimum carriageway in meters for a motor court in a subdivision based on HLURB.
a. 3 b. 5 c. 4 d. 6
_____94. Minimum right of way in meters for a motor court in a subdivision based on HLURB.
a. 3 b. 5 c. 4 d. 6

Topic: Planning 3
14.0 Environmental Impact Assessment

_____95. The document(s) of studies on the environmental impacts of a project including the
discussions on direct and indirect consequences upon human welfare and ecological and
environmental integrity.
a. EIA- Environmental Impact Assessment b. ECC- Environmental Compliance Certificate
c. EIS- Environmental Impact Statement d. ECA- Environmentally Critical Area
_____96. The process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing
projects or undertakings and designing appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement
measures.
_____97. The document issued by the DENR Secretary or the Regional Executive director
certifying that the proposed project or undertaking will not cause a significant negative
environmental impact.
_____98. An area that is environmentally sensitive and is so listed under Presidential Proclamation
No. 2146, Series of 1981 as well as other areas which the President of the Philippines proclaim as
environmentally critical.
15.0 Current State: Challenges and Issues

_____99. The process by which a previously functioning city, or part of a city, falls into disrepair
and decrepitude.
a. Urban Chaos b. Urban Decay c. Conurbation d. Assimilation
_____100. Expansion of human populations away from central urban areas into low-density area.
a. Urban Decay
b. Rural Expansion
c. Suburban Inclination
d. Urban Sprawl

Nicanor Reyes St., Sampaloc, Manila
Correlations Course
Planning 2 Questionnaire
HISTORICAL BACKGROUND
1. What is the first documented settlement with streets?

a. Khirokitia c. Eridu
b. Catalhoyuk d. Damascus
2. What is the largest Neolithic city?
3. It is acknowledged as the oldest city.
4. What is the oldest continually inhabited city?
5. What is the male population for an ideal sized polis?
a. 500 c. 5, 000
b. 50, 000 d. 500, 000
6. Necropolis is for new town, as ____________ is for old town.
a. Paleopolis c. Acropolis
b. Megalopolis d. Metropolis
7. The first noted urban planner who introduced the grid system.
a. Hippotamus c. Hippopotamus
b. Hippodamus d. Hippodumas
8. Which period did arts and architecture become a major element of town planning and urban design?
a. Renaissance c. Medieval
b. Classical d. Colonial
9. The period that introduced the development of railway system.
a. Renaissance c. Medieval
b. Baroque d. Industrial Revolution
10. What is the first garden city which was designed by Raymond Unwin and Barry Parker?
a. Welwyn c. Hampstead
b. Letchworth d. New Lamark
11. Movement that believed cities should be planned two generations ahead to keep sufficient breathing
spaces.
a. City Beautiful c. Parks
b. Garden City d. Social Reform
12. Who designed New Delhi’s plan?
a. Oscar Niemeyer c. Edward Lutyens
b. Albert Mayer d. Walter Griffin
13. What was the non-conventional design idea proposed by Kiyonori Kikutake?
a. Floating City c. Science City
b. Arcology Alternative d. Motopia
14. Who designed the walled city of Intramuros?
a. Miguel Lopez del Rosario c. Miguel Lopez de Vera
b. Miguel Lopez dela Cruz d. Miguel Lopez de Legazpi
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15. What is the Presidential Decree that created the Intramuros Administration for the purpose of
restoring and administrating its development?
a. PD 1784 c. PD 1616
b. PD 1516 d. PD 1749
ELEMENTS OF URBAN DESIGN
16. What are these urban design elements that serve as connections between spaces and places?
a. Public Space c. Streets
b. Transport d. Landscape
17. What urban design elements do green spaces and urban parks represent?
a. Public Space c. Streets
b. Transport d. Landscape
18. These are the most pronounced elements of urban design.
a. Buildings c. Public Spaces
b. Transport d. Streets
19. These urban design elements enable movement throughout the city.
a. Public Spaces c. Streets
b. Transport d. Landscapes
20. Which urban design element serves as the living room of the city?
a. Buildings c. Public Spaces
b. Transport d. Landscapes
URBAN DESIGN AND COMMUNITY PLANNING

1.1 CONTEXTUALIZATION OF URBAN DESIGN AND COMMUNITY ARCHITECTURE
21. Urban design deals with the plan of the city, the various component parts of urban space, and their
functional and aesthetic aspects.
a. Community Architecture c. Urban Design
b. Urban Planning d. Regional Planning
22. Urban Design concerns the arrangement, appearance and functionality of towns and cities, and in
particular the shaping and uses of urban public space.
a. Urban Design c. Community Architecture
b. Regional Planning d. Urban Planning
23. Urban Design Framework- strategic planning that gives direction to areas in need of repair and
undergoing changes.
a. Community Architecture Framework c. Social Architecture
b. Urban Planning d. Urban Design Framework
RESPONSIVE ENVIRONMENT
24. The idea that the built environment should provide its users with an essentially democratic setting,
enriching their opportunities by maximizing the degree of choice available to them. These places are
called RESPONSIVE.
a. Progressive c. Active
b. Responsive d. Urban Design
25. It affects where people can go, and where they cannot: the quality is called PERMEABILITY.
a. Variety c. Personalization
b. Permeability d. Legibility
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26. It affects the range of uses available to people; the quality is called VARIETY
b. Permeability d. Legibility
27. It affects how easily people can understand what opportunities it offers: the quality is called
LEGIBILITY
b. Visual Appropriateness d. Legibility
28. It affects the degree to which people can use a given place for different purposes; the quality is called
ROBUSTNESS.
a. Legibility c. Robustness
b. Richness d. Visual Appropriateness
29. it affects whether; the detailed appearance of the place makes people aware of the choices available;
the quality is called VISUAL APPROPRIATENESS
30. It affects people's choice of sensory experience; the quality is called RICHNESS
31. It affects the extent to which people can put their own stamp on the place; this is called
PERSONALIZATION.
a. Robustness c. Richness
b. Personalization d. Legibility
COMMUNITY ARCHITECTURE
32. The Community Design Architecture (CDA) is a systemic, highly scalable and robust methodology for
the facilitated co-evolution of communities of practice, other forms of c-learning communities, and
knowledge networks, with their virtual learning environments.
a. Community Design Architecture c. Urban Design Architecture
b. Urban Planning d. Regional Planning
33. Social Architecture – the network of relationships, collaboration, communication and coordination,
with supporting agreements, principles, metrics, leadership roles, decision making etc, need to create open
and trusting interactions.
a. Technology Architecture c. Business Architecture
b. Knowledge Architecture d. Social Architecture
34. Knowledge Architecture – the body of available knowledge (intellectual capital) to be upgraded to
meet new challenges, by orientation, exploration, reflection, sense-making, and shared memory.
35. Business Architecture - financing, attracting and allocating resources (two-way value propositions),
business model to ensure sustainability.
36. Technology Architecture – an advanced online environment with a wide range of tools to support
collaboration, communication and coordination in an efficient, effective and enjoyable way.
SETTLEMENT PLANNING IN THE PHILIPPINES
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37. Sampaloc- centered on two churches (Our Lady of Loreto and Saint Anthony of Padua)
a. Sampaloc c. Paco
b. Ermita d. Binondo
38. San Miguel (Malacanang)- where rest-houses were built for the Spanish government
a. Malate c. San Miguel
b. Paco d. Sampaloc
39. Malate- the early “summer resort” of wealthy and cultured Filipinos. Then became the first fishing
and salt-making town.
a. San Miguel c. Malate
b. Ermita d. Pandacan
40. Ermita- early tourist belt (red-light district)
a. Sampaloc c. Paco
41. Paco- First town built around a train station
a. Sampaloc c. Paco
42. Pandacan- town built by the Americans for Oil depots. The first “Industrial Town”
a. San Miguel c. Malate
b. Ermita d. Pandacan
43. Quiapo- the illustrado territory; the enclave of the rich and powerful; the manifestation of folk
religiosity
a. Paco c. Pandacan
b. Quiapo d. Binondo
44. Tondo- coastal town adjacent to main city
a. Sampaloc c. Tondo
45. Binondo- the trading port developed by the Chinese and Arabs
a. Quiapo c. Paco
b. San Miguel d. Binondo
46. San Nicolas- a commercial town built by the Spanish with streets of “specialized” categories (i.e.
ceramics, soap, etc.)
a. San Miguel c. Binondo
b. Tondo d. San Nicolas
47. Sta. Cruz- The main commercial district with swirls of shops, movie houses, restaurants, etc.
a. Sta. Cruz c. Recto
48. Daniel Burnham- Designer of Chicago, San Francisco, and parts of Washington D.C.
a. Ebenezer Howard c. William Paul
b. Daniel Burnham d. Nicholas Radburn
49. Philamlife Homes- Icon of middle class suburbanization
a. Letchworth c. Philamlife Homes
b. Welwyn d. Los Angeles
50. Manila CBD- this traditional CBD is a center of business and commerce, has a population nucleus,
and seats the national government.
a. Ayala CBD c. Manila CBD
b. Ortigas CBD d. Makati CBD
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51. Makati CBD- a business, financial, commercial, convention, and recreational center to the
Metropolitan Region covering and area of 979 hectares. Begun by the Ayala conglomerate in 1948.
a. Manila CBD c. Ortigas CBD
b. Makati CBD d. Fort Bonifacio
52. Ortigas CBD- another business, financial, convention, shopping, and recreational node. Developed by
the Ortigas conglomerate in the 1950s, its present configuration fully developed only in the late 80s. The
area covers 600 hectares.
a. Makati CBD c. Ortigas CBD
b. Fort Bonifacio d. Manila CBD
53. Cubao CBD- Developed in the 1960s by the Araneta Family, Cubao was intended as an alternative
business center in the Eastern side of the metropolis. With small individual shops and throngs of vendors
and hawkers, this 37-hectare property reflected a bazaar economy.
a. For Bonifacio c. Makati CBD
b. Ortigas CBD d. Cubao CBD
54. Fort Bonifacio Global City- 500 has of prime land intended to be the first intelligent and ecological
city in the country.
a. Makati CBD c. Cubao CBD
b. Ortigas CBD d. Fort Bonifacio Global City
55. Boulevard 2000, Pasay- built under the auspices of the Philippine Estates Authority, this 1167 has
reclaimed land is intended to revive Manila as a city of commerce and tourism.
a. Boulevard 2000, Pasay c. Makati CBD
b. Fort Bonifacio Global City d. Ortigas CBD
56. Filinvest Corporate City- joint venture of government and private sector. Accessible to industrial
estates and technological parks.
a. Boulevard 2000 c. Fort Bonifacio Global City
b. Corporate City d. Filinvest Corporate City
EARLY PLANNING THEORIES
57. Planning concept that is one of the most well-known planning ideas, by an English court stenographer
by the name Ebenezer Howard
a. The City Beautiful b. Concentric Zone Theory
c. The Garden City d. Arterial Expansion
58. The first American who is known in literature of Architecture and Urban Planning and for his successful
propagation of mass housing in the United States?
a. William Levitt b. Ebenezer Howard
c. Le Corbusier d. Daniel Burnham
59. Who was the lead proponent of “The City Beautiful Movement”?
a. Le Corbusier b. Ebenezer Howard
c. Frank Lloyd Wright d. Daniel Burnham
60. Who is the proponent of the location theory called “Concentric Zone”?
a. Ernest Burgess b. Le Corbusier
c. Homer Hoyt d. Mann
61. What theory suggests this thought? “The inner-city housing was largely occupied by immigrants and
households with low socio-economic status. As the city grew and the CBD expanded outward, lower status
residents moved further from the CBD.”
a. Concentric Zone Theory b. Multiple Nuclei Theory
c. Arterial Expansion d. Multiple Nuclei Sector Theory
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62. What theory suggest this thought? “The twilight zone was not concentric around the CBD.”
63. What theory suggest this thought? “The cities tended to grow in wedge shaped patterns or sectors
emanating from the central business district and centered or major transportation routes.”
HISTORICAL BACKGROUND
64. Who is the “Father of Urban Planning” and introduced “Grid Planning”?
a. Alexander the Great b. Hippodamus of Miletus
c. Aristotle d. Leonardo Da Vinci
65. What ancient cities that did not follow a single pattern?
a. Egyptian b. Greek
c. Roman d. Babylonian
66. What is a defense in regions periodically swept by conquering armies?
a. Citadel b. city
c. wall d. Market
67. What is the system that divides urban land into uniform rectangular lots suitable for development?
a. Grid b. Linear
c. Organic d. Composite
68. What do you call to the rule codified the Spanish colonial cities in the New World?
a. Beautiful City Movement b. Laws of Spanish Planning
c. Laws of the Indies d. New Urbanism
69. What is the grandest example of idealized Urban Planning of the ancient Mediterranean World?
a. Alexandria b. Miletus
c. Kahun d. Italian Hilltown
URBAN FORM AND FUNCTION
70. What layout of the principle of Ideal Cities that is devised for hillside and flat lands?
a. Central Layout b. Quadralectic Layout
c. Plygon Lay-out d. Star-shaped
71. What is the starting point of the town under the Laws of the Indies?
a. Church b. Government Building
c. Plaza d. Marketplace
72. What do you call the street in Ancient Roman town planning that run through North-South?
a. Decumanus b. Cardo
c. Insula d. Mercado
73. What do you call the street in Ancient Roman town planning that run through West-East?
a. Decumanus b. Cardo
c. Insula d. Mercado
74. A shape of Urban Form and Function that describes a large circle with radial corridors of intense
development emanating from the center
a. Radiocentric b. Star
c. Linear d. Sheet
75. A shape of Urban Form and Function that describes usually with two corridors of intense development
crossing the center; usually found in small cities
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a. Articulated Sheet b. Branch

c. Ring d. Rectilinear
76. A shape of Urban Form and Function that describes a radiocentric form with open spaces between the
outreaching corridors of development
c. Linear d. Sheet
77. A shape of Urban Form and Function that describes a city built around a large open space
78. A shape of Urban Form and Function that describes usually the result of natural topography which
restricts growth and may also be a transportation spine
c. Linear d. Sheet
79. A shape of Urban Form and Function that describes a linear span with connecting arms
80. A shape of Urban Form and Function that describes a vast urban area with little or no articulation
a. Satellite b. Branch
c. Linear d. Sheet
81. A shape of Urban Form and Function that describes a sheet accented by one or more central clusters
and several subclusters
a. Articulated Sheet b. Linear
c. Ring d. Constellation
82. A shape of Urban Form and Function that describes a constellation of cities around a main center
a. Satellite b. Articulated Sheet
c. Constellation d. Radiocentric
83. A shape of Urban Form and Function that describes a series of nearly equal sized cities in close
proximity
a. Satellite b. Articulated Sheet
c. Constellation d. Radiocentric
84. A type of urban ecological process defined as the entrance of a new population and/or facilities in an
already occupied area
a. Invasion b. Block-boosting
c. Adaptive Reuse d. Suburbanization
85. An urban ecological process in the city land use patterning referring to an increase in population at a
certain geographic center
a. Adaptive Reuse b. Gentrification
c. Centralization d. Invasion
86. An urban ecological process “forcing” the old population out of the area because of social or racial
differences
a. Suburbanization b. Block-boosting
c. Centralization d. Gentrification
87. An urban ecological process improving the physical set-up and consequently affecting the market for
previously run-down areas
a. Invasion b. Adaptive Reuse
c. Suburbanization d. Gentrification
88. A type of Urban Ecological Process of converting old, usually historic buildings, sections of, or entire
districts to new uses other than their original purpose
a. Block-boosting b. Adaptive Reuse
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c. Centralization d. Suburbanization
89. A type of Urban Ecological Processes of moving to the outskirts/hinterlands to escape the “ills” of the
inner city
a. Gentrification b. Invasion
c. Suburbanization d. Block-boosting
IMAGE OF THE CITY
90. Who is the lead proponent of the Image of the City?

a. Ebenezer Howard b. Alexander the Great
c. Kevin Lynch d. Daniel Burnham
91. In 5 major elements of imageability what describes the channels along which the observer moves
a. Paths b. Edges
c. Districts d. Nodes
92. In 5 major elements of imageability what describes linear elements not used or considered as paths
a. Nodes b. Districts
c. Edges d. Paths
93. In 5 major elements of imageability what describes medium to large sections of a city, conceived of as
two dimensional
a. Landmarks b. Edges
c. Districts d. Paths
94. In 5 major elements of imageability what describes points or tstrategic spots by which an observer can
enter
a. Districts b. Nodes
c. Paths d. Edges
95. In 5 major elements of imageability what describes point references considered to be external to the
observer
a. Edges b. Nodes
c. Landmarks d. Paths
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PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE 2
Questions:
1. Which is ethical practice?
a. The design architect also supplies the construction materials.

b. An architect offers free design services for a church.
c. The design architect takes part in a paid ad for the project.
d. The architect offers free design services to friends.
2. If an Architect owns a company of specific materials for construction, he/she is allowed to

recommend it to his/her client.
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. I don’t know
3. Which is an unethical action with respect to the Architect’s responsibility to his colleagues
and subordinates?
a. Provides fee professional service for a charitable project.

b. Donates to obtain advantage in a religious project.
c. Undertakes a commission from another Architect duly notified.
d. Serving as professional adviser, accepts employment as Design Architect for a
competition project.
4. Which is ethical action with respect to the Architect’s responsibility to his manufacturer’s,
dealers and agents?
a. Accepts market discounts credited to client.

b. Avails of technical services by manufacturer accompanied by an obligation.
c. Receives gifts or favors from agents.
d. Receives commissions placing him in a reciprocal frame of mind.
5. Which is an unethical action with respect to the Architects responsibility to the people?
a. Seek constructive civic service

b. Shares technical information.
c. Take part in paid endorsement of building material.
d. Promote professional organization.
6. Which is an unethical action with respect to the Architect’s responsibility to his client?
a. Undertakes construction for a fixed contract sum under design-build dervice.

b. Does not offer preliminary sketches without an agreement.
c. Advises client to forego unviable project.
d. Guarantee any estimates or cost of the work.
7. Which is an unethical action with respect to the Architect’s responsibility to the contractor?
a. Knowingly call upon the contractors to correct or remedy errors in the contract
document.
b. Reject any offer of fee professional engineering or allied design service.
c. Promptly inspect each phase of the work completed.
d. Give the contractor every reasonable assistance to enable him/her to fully understand the
contents of the contract documents.
8. In the Architect’s Code of Ethics, to whom does the Architect have responsibility to consider
the needs and aesthetic and functional requirements?
a. Contractor
b. Public
c. Manufacturer’s/dealers
d. Client
9. With regards to responsibilities to his client, which of the following is/are expected of the
Architect?
a. Presents examples of professional experience.

b. Explains conditions of project cost estimates.
c. Ascertains exact nature/scope of services/professional fees.
d. All of the above.
10. The Architect may exhibit his/her professional shingle outside his/her office.
a. True
b. False
11. Complete the statement. The Architect shall not ______ in his/her name, advertisements or
other support towards the cost of any publication presenting his/her work.
a. promote
b. solicit
c. undertake
d. compensate
12. What is/are the traits of an Architect?
a. Responsive
b. Sensible
c. Artistic
d. All of the above
13. Which of the following is not part of the duties and responsibilities of an Architect?
a. He/she is engaged in a profession which carries with it grave responsibilities to the

public.
b. He/she acts as professional adviser to his/her client.
c. He/she has an unethical action.
d. None of the above.
14. Any registered and licensed Architect shall recite with ________, ________, and ________
the Architect’s Credo during special or important occasion.
a. vigor, passion and hope

b. fair, hope and gratitude
c. passion, gratitude and knowledge
d. vigor, responsibility and hope
15. True or False. The Architect’s responsibilities in relation to his/her colleagues and
subordinates, shall not maliciously, or unfairly criticize or discredit another Architect or the
latter’s work.
a. True
b. False
16. Code of Ethics discuss about the:
a. The Architects responsibilities.

b. Architects Credo.
c. Both a and b
d. None of the Above
17. True or False. Any registered and licensed Architect shall recite with fair, hope and gratitude
the Architect’s Credo during special or important occasion.
a. True
b. False
18. True or False. The relations with manufacturer’s, dealers and agents is an exchange of
technical information between them and the Architects.
a. True
b. False
19. Is it possible for the Architect to undertake a commission even if he/she knows that another
Architect has been previously employed?
a. Yes
b. Maybe
c. No
d. I don’t know
20. True or False. The Architects shall abide by the Basic Minimum fee prescribed under the
“Standards of Professional Practice”.
a. True
b. False
21. True or False. The Architect shall be compensated for his/her services solely through his/her
professional fee billed directly to the Client.
a. True
b. False
22. Which of the following is correct? The Architect’s has responsibilities with:
a. The people, his/her client, contractor, manufacturers, dealers and agents and to
his/her colleagues and subordinates.
b. The people, client and contractor.
c. The client only.
d. None of the Above.
23. Which is not included in pre-design services?
a. Architectural research
b. Consultation
c. Evaluation
d. Space planning
24. These involve the procurement, analysis and use of secondary information gathered for
the project to aid the Client in early decision-making.
a. Consultation
b. Pre-feasibility studies
c. Architectural research
d. Architectural programming
25. These studies will set the project against present and future trends to forecast how it will
perform over time.
a. Case study
b. Feasibility studies
d. Pre-feasibility studies
26. This entails the formulation of site criteria, assistance to the Client in site evaluation as
well as analysis to determine the most appropriate site/s for a proposed project or building
program.
a. Site selection and analysis

b. Site utilization and land-use studies
c. Space planning
d. Site zoning
27. This involves the identification of a site’s development potentials
a. Site zoning
b. Site selection
c. Site utilization
d. Site planning
28. _________ entails the conduct of primary and secondary researches and assembled facts
used as basis for conclusion.
a. Architectural research
b. Case study
c. Interview
d. Consultation
29. This analytical problem-seeking process will lead to the statement and identification of
both horizontal and vertical requirements in offering a solution.
a. Space planning
b. Architectural programming
d. Design solution
30. The _______ determines the adequate size and appropriate configuration and assemblage
for a proposed project in consideration of the use, allocation and interface of spaces for given
activities.
a. Structural engineer
b. Interior designer
c. Architect
d. Civil engineer
31. In space management studies, the formulation of the __________ will serve as the basis
for the development of the architectural plan/design.
a. Space planning
b. Space program
c. Matrix diagram
d. Bubble diagram
32. This technique is applied in the cost management process to minimize the negative effect
of simplified operations associated with many cost-reduction programs.
a. Estimate
b. Design management
c. Bidding phase
d. Value management
33. The goal of value management is to achieve an impaired program at minimum cost.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. I don't know
34. Under design brief preparation, the Architect states the project _________ including the
concept, objectives and other necessary requirements to bid out architectural services (whether
public or private).
a. Terms of reference
b. Reference
c. Criteria
d. Interface
35. The Architect can act as the ________ of the Owner by producing and coordinating the
additional activities necessary to complete the services.
a. Consultant
b. Agent
c. Project manager
d. Construction manager
36. The Architect’s compensation is based on the Architect’s / architectural firm’s talents,
skill, experience, imagination, and on the type and level of professional services provided.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. I don’t know
37. This method of compensation is based on technical hours spent and does not account for
creative work since the value of creative design cannot be measured by the length of time the
designer has spent on his work.
a. Lump sum or fixed fee

b. Professional fee plus expenses
c. Per Diem, Honorarium Plus Reimbursable Expenses
d. Multiple of Direct Personnel Expenses
38. This method of compensation is frequently used where there is continuing relationship
involving a series of Projects.

39. This method may be applied to government projects since they entail more paper work
and time-consuming efforts.

40. The architect consults with the Owner to ascertain the ___________ and related
requirements of the project and confirms such requirements with him.
a. Conceptual framework
b. Theoretical framework
c. Design concept
d. Space requirements
41. The architect reviews and refines the owner’s ___________ and translates them into an
architectural program.
a. Conceptual framework
b. Theoretical framework
c. Design concept
d. Space requirements
42. Under the schematic design phase, which is not included on the responsibilities of the
architect.
a. Evaluates the Owner’s program, schedule, budget, project site and proposes methods of project
deliveries.
b. Prepares the initial line drawings representing design studies leading to a recommended
solution, including a general description of the project for approval by the Owner.
c. Prepares an initial statement of probable construction cost.
d. Submits to the Owner a Statement of the Probable Project Construction Cost (SPPCC) based on
current cost parameters.
43. This phase consists of the preparation of schematic design studies derived from the Project
Definition Phase, leading to conceptual plans.
a. Project definition phase

b. Schematic design phase
c. Design development phase
d. Contract document phase
44. Which of the following architectural drawings is included in design development document
a. Sections
b. Architectural plans
c. Elevations
d. All of the above
45. In contract document phase, the architect submits to the Owner ___ sets of all construction
drawings and technical specifications for purposes of obtaining a building permit.
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
46. The _______ makes decisions on all claims of the Owner and Contractors on all matters
relating to the execution and progress of work or the interpretation of the Contract Documents
a. Project manager
b. Construction manager
c. Architect
d. Civil engineer
47. The Architect shall be required to make exhaustive or continuous 8-hour on-site supervision
to check on the quality of the work involve.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. I don’t know
48. The architect is responsible for the Contractor's failure to carry out the Construction work in
accordance with the Contract Document.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. I don’t know
49. When the Architect is requested by the Owner to do the full-time supervision, his services and
fees shall be covered separately in conformance with the applicable and appropriate SPP
Document.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. I don’t know
50. ___________ is a holder of a valid Specialist Architect that has been issued by the Board
and/or the Commission, upon due qualification or accreditation of the IAPOA.
a. Architect
b. Consulting Architect
c. Architect-of-Record
d. Architect in charge of construction
51. The consulting architect in this area of practice must know the detailed planning and design to
control sound transmission for compatibility with the architectural design concept.
a. Acoustic Design
b. Architectural Interior
c. Facilities Maintenance Support
d. Building Components
52. Road and transit networks, land-sea-air linkages, the movement of people and goods from one
place to another.
a. Socio-Cultural Component
b. Economic Component
c. Physical Component
d. Transport Component
53. The Architect in this area of practice undertakes a scientific study on the built environment’s
well-being, which allows the Architect to focus on the ways in which the building/structure
can best maintain itself and prolong its life in a cost-efficient manner.
a. Forensic Architecture
b. Building Systems Design
c. Structural Conceptualization
d. Special Building /Facility Planning and Design
54. It refers to the orderly arrangement of the vertical structures such as buildings and
monuments, as well as the horizontal developments such as right-of-way and open spaces in a
piece of land or property.
a. Site Planning
b. Site Development Plan
c. Physical Planning
d. Comprehensive Development Planning
55. Specifically mentioned under Sec. 3 and 14 of R.A. 9266, involves the detailed planning and
design of the indoor/enclosed areas of any proposed building/structure, including retrofit,
renovation, rehabilitation or expansion work which shall cover all architectural and utility
aspects, including the architectural lay-outing of all building engineering systems found
therein.
a. Site Development Planning
b. Architectural Interior
c. Acoustic design
d. Forensic Architecture
56. How many percentage of the total cost should the architect get from a specialized
architectural services?
a. 20 %
b. 5 %
c. 15 %
d. 10 %
57. Its the space planning, architectural lay-outing and utilization of spaces within and
surrounding a specific building/structure in relation with the existing natural and/or built
environments have to be a well-coordinated effort so that both the building/structure and the
host environment shall act as one.
a. Site Development Planning
b. Comprehensive Development Planning
c. Site and Physical Planning
58. The Consulting Architect in this area of practice must have more than the basic knowledge of
knowing the materials, its types, categories, etc., also he/she must be aware of the
specifications and know the science of materials.
a. Building Components
b. Structural Conceptualization
c. Building Appraisal
59. Which Consulting Architect identifies existing land use, resources, social behavior and
interaction; undertakes environmental analysis, demographic analysis and feasibility studies;
examines existing laws, ordinances, political/social constraints; and prepares the conceptual
development plans, policies, implementing strategies to arrive at the desired comprehensive
and/or master planning solutions.
a. Comprehensive Development Planning Services
b. Site and Physical Planning Services
c. Architectural Research Methods
d. Post-Design Services
60. The suitably trained and experienced consulting architect in this area of architectural practice
provides research assessment, recording, management, interpretation, and conservation of
historical heritage.
a. Site development planning
b. Security evaluation and planning
c. Historic and heritage conservation and planning
d. Management of Architectural Practices
61. Scientific study on the built environment's well-being.
a. Building testing and commissioning
b. Architectural interiors
c. Facilities Maintenance Support
62. The Architect in this area of practice recommends the systematic process of ensuring that a
building/structure’s array of systems is planned, designed, installed and tested to perform
according to the design intent and the building’s operational needs.
a. Building Environment Certification
b. Building Testing and Commissioning
c. Building System Design
d. Security Evaluation and Planning
63. What does the document 204-a all about?
a. Construction Management c. Full-Time Supervision

b. Post-Construction Services d. Design Services
64. In Doc 204-a the _____________ who orders for the implementation of the project.
a. Project Manager c. Contractor
b. Owner d. Architect
65. Who will be notify if there is any material or any portion of the work does not conform to
specifications or if unacceptable in quality in construction?
a. Project Manager c. Contractor
66. Which is not the function of construction supervision group?

a. Quality Control
b. Budget of the Project
c. Evaluation and Construction work
d. Keeping of Record, Reports and Contract Documents
67. The Construction Supervision Group is paid by the owner either on a salary basis or on an
agreed flat rate per month and over time work is paid on a higher rate.
a. True c. Sometimes
b. False d. None of the above
68. The Construction Manager could be a member of the staff of the owner or he could be
independent individual or firm hired by the owner to manage the construction of particular
project.
a. True c. Sometimes
b. False d. None of the above
68. The ________________________ is the one who is responsible of Programing,

Coordination, Quality Control of the work and cost control.
a. Project Manager c. Contraction manager

69. Which is not a qualification of an Contraction Manager?
a. Professional
b. Has a long experience in construction
c. An Architect or Engineer
71. Up to what percent of basic fixed fee of estimated construction cost is the total
compensation?
a. 1-2% c. 1 ½ -3%
b.1 ½ - 2% d. 1-3%
72. It is one function of Construction Management.
a. Budget of the whole project
b. Cost and Time control
c. Plans and specs.
73. What is the rate of the Management Fee for Post Construction Services based on percentage
of gross rentals?
a. 2-5 %
b. 3-4 %
c. 3-5 %
d. 4-6%
74. Which is not part of the scope of services on SPP 205?
a. Grounds and Landscaping Supervision.

b. Building Equipment Maintenance.
c. Preparation of Daily Inspection Reports.
d. Business Development and Mangement.
75. The Architect may enter into contract with the Owner in how many possible ways?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 1
d. 3
76. Which of the fllowing statement is true? Upon the request of the Owner, the Architect shall:
a. Determine the effectiveness of the various building systems and the materials system
in use.
b. Evaluate the initial design program vs. the actual use of the facility.
c. Assist the proper third parties in evaluating the functional effectiveness of the design and
construction process undertaken.
d. All of the above.
77. In the Architect’s post-construction services, under which services does the Architect evaluate
the plan’s functional and construction design effectiveness?
a. A building/equipment maintenance.
b. Post-construction evaluation.
c. Comprehensive services
d. Building/grounds administration.
78. Aside from the Architect, who else can have prime responsibility for the plan/design of the
project.
a. Project manager
b. Specialist consultant
c. Contractor
d. Civil engineer
79. The _______ makes decisions on the project and assures that funds are available to complete
the project.
a. Architect
b. Project manager
c. Owner
d. Specialist consultant
80. He/she will plan, program and monitor the various activities, and will act as an adviser on
material costs and construction methods.
a. Architect
b. Project manager
c. Owner
d. Specialist consultant
81. The architect may expand his staff by hiring the experts needed, or he may form a team
consisting of professionals except:
a. Engineers
b. Market analysis
c. Psychologist
d. Lawyer
82. Upon completion of the project, if there is realized savings from the estimated project
construction cost; the whole savings will be going back to the owner.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. I don’t know
83. The project construction cost is guaranteed by the Architect not to exceed at what percentage
of the estimated project construction cost.
a. 5 %
b. 10%
c. 15 %
d. 20 %
84. The Architect does not advance any money for payment of expenditures connected with the
work.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. I don’t know
85. The Architect may be involved in construction, including that of his own design, by adopting
a/an ___________.
a. Partnership
b. Arrangement
c. Collaboration
d. Communication
86. The Architect may appoint, subject to the Owner/ Client’s approval, aside from the usual labor
personnel required.
a. Construction superintendent,
b. Time keeper
c. Property clerk
d. All of the above
87. An Architectural Design Competition can be classified as, except for:
a. For actual Projects proposed for implementation
b. Ideas competition
c. According to degree of complexity based on the project classification
88. The people are appointed by the owner to assess the entries to the competition.
a. Professional Adviser
b. Jury
c. Technical Adviser
d. Competition Secretariat
89. The Professional Advisor supervises the conduct of ADC and the preparation of the
conditions. He will assist the Jury and is allowed to vote.
a. True
b. False
90. All designs, including those disqualified by the Jury, shall be exhibited. The exhibition shall
be open to the public free of charge.
a. True
b. False
91. Which law covers the ownership and copyright provisions of worked done?
a. R.A. No. 8293 Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines
b. R.A. No. 8927 Intellectual Property Code of the Philippines
c. R.A. No. 8927 Intellectual Code of the Philippines
d. R.A. No. 8293 Intellectual Code of the Philippines
92. The prizes awarded for ADC must be related to the following except for:
a. The amount of work
b. Size and complexity of work
c. The time of work
d. The expenses incurred
93. The competitors are allowed to name themselves during the competition. They are identified
during the ADC for better judgement and background.
a. True
b. False
94. The condition for National ADC, whether single or two (2)-stage, upon or limited shall state
clearly the following except for:
a. The purpose of the ADC and the intentions of the Owner
b. The nature of the problem to be solved
c. All the requirements which competitors must meet
95. What does the document 209 all about?
a. Construction Management c. Full-Time Supervision

b. Professional Architectural Consultant d. Design Services
96. A foreign Architect needs to acquire _____________________ to engage in the practice of

any branch of Architecture.
a. Registration permit
b. Temporary/Special permit
c. Clearance Permit
d. Building permit
97. It refers to an individual not a citizen of the Philippines who wants to work as an Architect
consultant.
a. Foreign Student
b. Construction Manager
c. Foreign Consultant/Architect
d. Architect of Record
98. What is (PCA) stands for?
a. Professional Consulting Architect
b. Professional Consultant Architect
c. Professional Consulting Agencies
d. Project Consulting Architect
99. Generally refers to any organization under the umbrellas of the CBNE and PTC.
a. APO c. PCA
b. PACS d. RLA
100. Consulting Architect must fix his/her _____________ and seal on all Architectural
documents.
a. Picture c. Signature
b. Professional license number d. Name

Acoustics & Lighting Design: Institute of Architecture and Fine Arts

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Acoustics & Lighting Design: Institute of Architecture and Fine Arts

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Institute of Architecture and Fine Arts

Roi Cipriano, Kailo Morpe

Acoustics Design ............................................................................................................................................................2

a. Acoustics b. Sound Level c. Loudness d. Flutter Echo

a. Reverberation b. Diffusion c. Flutter Echo d. Sound (waves)

a. Flutter Echo b. Sound Level c. Reflections d.

4. The apparent strength of the sound to the listener.

a. Sound Level b. Flutter Echo c. Loudness d. Acoustics

a. Direct Sound b. Sound Level c. Loudness d. Reflections

a. Reflections b. Sound Level c. Diffusion d.

a. Reflections b. Late reflections c. Sound Level

a. Reflections b. Late reflections c. Sound Level d. Early

a. Loudness b. Flutter Echo c. Reflections

11. measurement of the intensity of sound

a. Decibel b. Phon c. Frequency d. Noise

a. Decay b. Diffusion c. Decay Rate d. Dark/Dead

a. Audiology b. Acoustician c. Psychoacoustics

a. Echo b. Flutter Echo c. Resonance d.

16. The intensification and prolongation of sound produced by sympathetic

a. Sabin b. Phon c. Resonance d. Noise

a. Noise b. Decay time c. Decibel d. Frequency

18. Speed of sound

a. Amplitude b. Intensity c. Velocity d. Wavelength

19. distance between two crests of a sound wave.

a. Frequency b. Wavelength c. Resonance d. Intensity

a. Sound absorption b. Velocity c. Wavelength d. Noise

21. a process or method of making a room invulnerable against the entry of

a. Sound absorption b. Sound Insulation c. Noise control

22. a process of elimination or limiting the propagation of noise.

a. Noise control b. Sound absorption c. Sound

a. Sound absorption b. Sound Insulation c. Noise control d.

a. Intensity b. Sound level c. Inverse square law d.

a. Reverberation b. Free field c. Reverberant field d. Near

26. Insulation against noise is originating in the air.

a. Sound absorption b. Air borne sound insulation c.

27. The maximum wavelength for the male human voice

a. 10ft b. 15ft c. 9ft d.11ft

28. Basic requirements for room intended for speech.

The direct sound shall be as strong as possible because the sound

weakens as the distance from the source increases.

It is also important that the direct sound shall not be obstructed

Because speech is directional, in plan, the seats should be positioned

All of the above

Near field b. free field d. Reverberant field.

30. limit for comfortable hearing.

a.35db b. 40db c.28db d. 60db

1. It is the most important source of light.

2. These lights are made by humans.

3. The most convenient form of artificial light.

4. These lights are invisible to the human eye.

2. It is the ability to emit light into a given direction.

3. Determines the amount of light that covers a surface.

1. It is a transverse, electromagnetic wave that can be seen by humans. The wave

2. Is the emission of light from “hot” matter”.

5. Luminous energy that is the product of mean Luminous flux by time.

L IGHT E MITTING D IODES (LED)

6. They produce light when voltage is applied to negatively charged semiconductors,

1. A light illuminates objects directly.

4. Shallow angle of incidence of the light on the object plane.

1. Distribution: 100% of the light directed downward.

3. Distribution: Light is directed evenly around.

5. Distribution: 100% of the light is directed upwards.

5. Length of the ramp should not exceed if the gradient is __.