Professional Documents
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CFAS Problems
CFAS Problems
1. All events and transactions of an entity are recognized the books of accounts.
2. The accounting process of assigning numbers, commonly in monetary term, to the
economic
transactions and events is referred to as classifying.
3. The basic purpose of accounting is to provide information about economic activities intended to be
useful in making economic decision.
4. Financial accounting is the branch of accounting that focuses on general purpose reports of
financial position and operating results known as the financial statements.
5. General purpose financial statements are those statements that cater to the common and specific
needs of a wide range of external users.
6. The financial statements are the only source of information when making economic decisions.
7. All information presented in the financial statements are sourced from the accounting records of
the entity.
8. Entity A’s accounting period starts on July 1 and ends on June 30 of the following year. Entity A
uses a fiscal year period.
9. Once promulgated, accounting standards are never changed.
10. The entity’s management is responsible for the selection of appropriate accounting policies, not the
accountant.
Keys:
1. 6. F
2. F 7.
3. T 8.
4. T 9.
5. F 10.
MULTIPLE CHOICE: Read carefully the items below and choose the letter of the correct answer. (1piont
each)
1. It refers to the process of incorporating the effects of an accountable event in the statement of
financial position or the statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income through a journal
entry.
a. Realization c. Recognition
b. Derecognition d. Posting
2. All of the following are events considered as exchange or reciprocal transfer, except
a. Purchase of investment in equity securities
b. Sale of equipment for non-interest bearing note
c. Subscription of the entity’s own equity instrument (i.e., contributions by owners)
d. Exchange of a note payable for an account payable
e. Borrowing of money from a bank
5. It is the accounting process of assigning numbers, commonly in monetary terms, to the economic
transactions and events.
a. Analyzing c. Classifying
b. Measuring d. Interpreting
16. During the lifetime of an entity, accountants produce financial statements at arbitrary points in time in
accordance with which basic accounting concept?
a. Cost/benefit constraint c. Conservatism constraint
b. Periodicity assumption d. Matching principle
18. The assumption that a business enterprise will not be sold or liquidated in the near future is known as
the
a. Economic entity assumption. c. Conservatism assumption.
b. Monetary unit assumption. d. Going concern.
19.Valuing assets at their liquidation values rather than their cost is inconsistent with the
a. Periodicity assumption. c. Materiality constraint.
b. Matching principle. d. Historical cost principle.
20.When products or other assets are exchanged for cash or claims for cash, they are said to be
a. Allocated. c. Recognized.
b. Realized. d. Earned.
Answer Key
1. c 11.b
2. c 12.b
3. c 13.d
4. a 14.d
5. b 15.a
6.b 16.b
7.d 17.a
8.d 18.d
9.c 19.c
10.d 20.b
6. Entity A values its fixed assets at their historical costs and does not restate them for changes in
the purchasing power of the Philippine pesos due to inflation. Entity A is applying which of the
following accounting concepts?
a. prudence c. stable monetary unit
b. accrual basis d. time period
7. Entity A engages in importing and exporting activities. At the end of the period, Entity A has
assets and liabilities denominated in foreign currencies. When preparing its financial statements,
Entity A translates these assets and liabilities to pesos. Entity A is most likely' to be applying
which of the following accounting concepts?
a. double entry c. stable monetary unit
b. accrual basis d. time period
9. Entity A acquires merchandise inventory. Entity A initially records the acquisition cost of the
inventory as asset rather than an outright expense. When the inventory is subsequently sold,
Entity A recognizes the cost of the inventory sold as expense, in the same period the sale revenue
is recognized. This is an application of which of the following accounting concepts?
a. stable monetary unit c. matching
b. materiality d. proprietary
10. On Day 1, a customer buys goods from Entity A and promises to pay the sale price on Day
30. Entity A recognizes sales revenue on Day 1 rather than on Day 30. This is an application of
which of the following accounting concepts?
a. prudence c. consistency
b. accrual basis d. materiality
keys:
1. a. An entity includes the effects of an event in the financial statements through a journal entry.
2. D. payments of taxes
3. b. donation
4. b. a common denominator.
5. c. Measuring inventories at net realizable value.
6. c. stable monetary unit
7. c. stable monetary unit
8. d. time period
9. c. matching
10. b. accrual basis
2. Which of the following is considered an internal user of Entity A's financial reports?
a. Entity B, a bank, requires Entity A to submit audited financial statements in conjunction
to a loan being applied for by Entity A.
b. Mr. I is deciding whether to invest in Entity A. Mr. I uses Entity A's financial statements
in making its investment decision.
c. Ms. S, a shareholder of Entity A, is deciding whether to hold or sell her shareholdings in
Entity A. Ms. S uses Entity A's financial statemenTSTnriakingits "hold or sell" decision.
d. Mr. X, a member of Entity A's board of directors, uses financial reports to make
decisions regarding the financial and operational affairs of Entity A.
3. When resolving accounting problems not specifically addressed by current standards, an entity
shall be guided by the hierarchy of financial reporting standards. The correct sequence of the
hierarchy of financial reporting standards in the Philippines is
I. PASs, PFRSs and Interpretations
H. Conceptual Framework.
III. Judgment
IV. Pronouncement of other standard-setting bodies
a. I, HI, II and IV c. I, IV, 11 and 111
b. I, H, IV and III
c. I, IV, 11 and 111
d. I, H, III and IV
9. Mr. John Doe, CPA, is a professor in a university where he teaches mainly home economics,
music and physical education. Those subjects require that the teacher must be awesome. Mr. Doe
is also frequently invited as a judge in beauty pageants and singing contests and as a referee in
mixed martial arts competitions. Mr. Doe is considered to be
practicing accountancy in which of the following sectors?
a. Academe c. Commerce and industry
b. Public accounting d. None of these
Measurement Bases
3. Which of the following is not one of the several measurement bases used in accounting?
a. historical cost c. present value
b. fair value d. all of these are used
Accounting Concept
4. Entity A is owned by Mr. X and Ms. Y. Which of the following transactions does not violate
the separate entity concept and therefore is appropriately recorded in the accounting records of
Entity A?
a. Mr. X purchases groceries for his home consumption.
b. Mr. X gives Ms. Y chocolate and flowers on Valentine's Day.
c. Ms. Y provides capital to Entity A.
d. Ms. Y provides capital to Entity B, another business entity
5. Mr. A is assessing the ability of Entity A to generate future cash and cash equivalents. In
making the assessment, Mr. A uses not only the statement of cash flows but also the other
components of a complete set of financial statements. This is because of which of the following
concepts?
a. Going concern c. Intercalation
b. Time period d. Articulation
6. Entity A acquires a stapler. Instead of recognizing the cost of the stapler as an asset to be
subsequently depreciated, Entity A immediately charges it as expense. This is an application of •
which of the following concepts?
a. Prudence c. Cost-benefit
b. Materiality d. b and c
Accounting standards
9. The Philippine Financial Reporting Standards (PFRSs) comprise:
I. Philippine Financial Reporting Standards
II. Philippine Accounting Standards
III. Interpretations
IV. Accounting Practice Statements and Implementation Guidance
a. I, II and III c. I and II
b. I, II, III and IV d. I and HI
PROBLEMS
PROBLEM 1: TRUE OR FALSE
1. All changes in an entity's economic resources and claims to those resources result from
the entity's financial performance.
2. The qualitative characteristics of useful information apply only to the financial
information provided in the financial statements.
3. According to IFRS® Practice Statement 2 Making Materiality Judgments, cost is an
important consideration when making materiality judgments.
4. When making materiality judgments, a quantitative assessment alone is not always
sufficient to conclude that an item of information is not material.
5. Materiality judgments apply only to items that are recognized but not to those that are
unrecognized.
6. The more significant the qualitative factors are, the lower the quantitative thresholds
will be. Thus, an item with a zero amount can be material in light of qualitative thresholds.
7. When making materiality judgments, an entity should judge an item's materiality only
on its own and not in combination with other information in the complete set of financial
statements.
8. The Conceptual Framework and the Standards specify a uniform quantitative
threshold for materiality.
9.To meet the objectives of general-purpose financial reporting, a Standard sometimes
contains requirements that depart from the Conceptual Framework.
10.The Conceptual Framework is concerned with the provision of financial information
to both external users and-internal users.
4. This qualitative characteristic is unique in the sense that it necessarily requires at least two
items.
a. Verifiability c. Timeliness
b. Faithful representation d. Comparability
7. The Conceptual Framework uses the term "claims" against the reporting entity to refer to
a. expenses. C. equity
b. liabilities. D. both b and c
8. Entity A is assessing whether an item meets the definition of a financial statement element.
Entity A considers the transaction's substance and economic reality rather than merely its legal
form. Entity A is applying which of the following accounting concepts?
a. Substance over form c. accrual
b. Form over substance d. Verifiability
9. Which of the following is not one of the aspects in the revised definition of an asset?
a. Right
b. Potential to produce economic benefits
c. Probability of the expected inflows of economic benefits from the asset
d. Control
10. The new definition of an asset (a liability) focuses on the asset (liability) being
a. a present right (obligation) that has resulted from past events and has the potential
to produce (cause a transfer of) economic benefits.
b. the expected inflows (outflows) of economic benefits that are both probable and can be
measured reliably.
c. a physical object (a duty to pay cash or other resources).
d. All of these.
11. Which of the following is not an indication of an economic resource's potential to produce
economic benefits?
a. The economic resource can be used in combination with other resources to produce
goods for sale.
b. The economic resource can be used to pay liabilities.
c. The economic resource can be distributed to the owners.
d. The resource has no use in the entity's operations and has no resale value.
12. Which of the following does not meet the definition of an asset?
a. Equipment that the entity intends, and is very certain, to acquire in the future.
b. Inventories purchased and received but not yet paid.
c. Land received from a donation.
d. A publishing title for a college textbook. The publishing title has no physical substance,
meaning you cannot see or touch it.
13. Entity A determined that an asset exists. However, the asset's low probability .of inflows
of economic benefits and its very high level of measurement uncertainty affected Entity A's
recognition decisions about the asset, as these raised doubt on whether the asset's recognition
would result in useful information. Consequently, Entity A did not recognize the asset, but
because Entity A deemed it relevant, information about the asset was nonetheless provided in the
notes. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Entity A's accounting treatment is grossly incorrect because, according to the
Conceptual Framework, all items that meet the definition of an asset should always be
recognized, regardless of the asset's potential to produce economic benefits and its
measurement uncertainty.
b. Entity A's treatment for the asset is acceptable. The asset is
referred to as an 'unrecognized' asset.
c. Entity A's treatment for the asset is acceptable. The asset is
referred to as anon-existent' asset.
d. Entity A's non-recognition of the asset is correct. However, the asset should have been completely
ignored as providing information about unrecognized
items in the notes is not acceptable under the Conceptual Framework.
14. Which of the following will most likely affect the determination of whether an asset or a
liability exists?
a. A low probability that the asset or liability win cause inflows or outflows of future
economic benefits.
b. A high level of measurement uncertainty regarding the
asset or liability.
c. An unresolved dispute over a right or obligation.
d. All of these are relevant in determining the existence of an asset or a liability,
according to the Conceptual Framework.
15. An increase in the carrying amount of an asset could not possibly result in
a. the recognition of an income.
b. the recognition of an expense.
c. an increase in total equity.
d. no change in total equity.
3. These are users of financial information who are not in a position to require areporting entity
to prepare reports tailored to their particular information needs.
a. Primary users
b. Secondary users
c. heavy users
d. slight users
4. Which of the following is not one of the primary users listed in the Conceptual Framework?
a. Investors
b. Lenders
c. creditors
d. debtors
5. Which of the following would least likely to need general purpose financial statements in
making economic decisions?
a. Stockholders c. Management
b. Potential investors d. Lenders
6. Which of the following is not a factor to consider when applying the qualitative
characteristics?
a. The information must be both relevant and faithfully represented for it to be useful.
b. The enhancing qualitative characteristics only enhance the usefulness of information but
cannot make irrelevant information or erroneous information to be useful.
c. Sometimes, it may be necessary to make trade-offs between the qualitative characteristics
in order to provide useful information.
d. To be useful, information need only to meet one, but not necessarily all, of the
qualitative characteristics.
8. According to the Conceptual Framework, this information provides a direct indication of how
well management has discharged its responsibilities to make efficient and effective use of the
reporting entity's resources.
a. The changes in the' entity's economic resources
and claims to those resources.
b. The return that the entity has produced from its economic
resources.
c. The level of the entity's economic resources in relation to
the claims thereof.
d. The entity's liquidity and solvency.
9. Which of the following statements about the concepts in the Conceptual Framework is least
accurate?
a. General purpose financial reports are intended to meet equally the needs of all types of
external users.
b. A low probability of expected inflows or outflows of economic benefits resulting from an
asset or liability may affect the recognition of that asset or liability, but not necessarily its
existence.
c. A high level of measurement uncertainty associated with an asset or liability can affect
the faithful representation of that asset or liability, but not necessarily its relevance.
d. Recognition means including an item in the totals of the financial statements when
that item meets the definition of a financial statement element and recognizing it would
result in useful information.
10. According to the revised Conceptual Framework, the degree of uncertainty in the expected
inflows or outflows of economic benefits from an asset or liability or the degree of measurement
uncertainty associated with that asset or liability a. does not necessarily affect the conclusion that
an asset or a
liability exists, although it may affect recognition decisions about the asset or liability.
a. does not necessarily affect the conclusion that an asset or a liability exists, although it may
affect recognition decisions about the asset or liability.
b. greatly affects the conclusion that an asset or a liability exists if the expectation of inflows or
outflows is lowor the measurement uncertainty is high.
c. may not always affect the conclusion that an asset or a liability exists, but will most
certainly result to the non¬recognition of an asset or liability if the expectation of
inflows or outflows is low or the measurement uncertainty is high.
d. is irrelevant, both in determining the existence of an asset
or a liability and in making recognition decisions about that asset or liability.
Status
2. The Conceptual Framework (choose the incorrect statement)
a. is not a PFRS.
b. in the absence of a PFRS, shall be considered by
management when making its judgment in developing
and applying an accounting policy that results in useful
information.
c. is concerned with general purpose financial reporting
only.
d. prevails over the PFRSs in cases of conflicts.
Scope
3. Which of the following is excluded from the scope of the Conceptual Framework?
a. The objective of financial reporting. financial information.
b. Qualitative characteristics of useful of financial statements
c. The components of a complete set
and their presentation requirement s.
and derecognition of
d. Definitions, recognition criteria
financial statement elements.
e. Descriptions of the measurement bases used in financial reporting.
Primary users
5. Which of the following statements best explains why government regulators are the reporting
entity's management and government not considered primary users under the Conceptual
Framework? a. These users are considered related parties, and hence do not make relevant
decisions.
a. These users have the ability to curtail the operations of the reporting entity and therefore have
the ability to affect the entity's going concern.
b. These users have the ability to curtail the operations of the reporting entity and therefore have
the ability to affect the entity's going concern.
c. These users have the power to demand information they need directly from the reporting
entity.
d. All of these.
Qualitative characteristics
7. Entity A deliberately overstated its liabilities from PM to 01.2M. What qualitative
characteristic is violated?
a. Relevance c. Timeliness
b. Faithful representation d. Understandability
8. Two primary users are using the financial information of Entity A. If User #1 concludes that
Entity A's sales has increased while User #2 concludes that it has decreased, Entity A's financial
information is not
a. relevant.
b. faithfully represented.
c. comparable
d. verifiable.
Materiality
9. Entity A is making a materiality judgment. Entity A considers the size of the impact of an item
to be material if it exceeds 5% of total assets. What type of materiality assessment is this?
a. Quantitative c. Requirement of a Standard
b. Qualitative d. Relevance
13. Which of the following is correct when determining the existence of an asset or a liability?
a. An asset or a liability exists if the associated right or obligation arises from legal or contractual
requirements.
b. An asset or a liability exists only if the expected inflows or outflows of economic benefits
from the asset or the liability are probable, meaning they are more likely than not to occur,
c. An asset or a liability can exist even if its potential to produce, or cause a transfer of,
economic benefits is not certain or even likely — what is important is that the right or the
obligation exists in the present and that in at least one circumstance it will produce, or
cause a transfer of, economic benefits.
d. All of these are correct.
15. An asset is an economic resource and an economic resource is a right that has the potential to
produce economic benefits. Which. of the following is not one of the potentials of an economic
resource to produce economic benefits for an entity?
a. Service potential, i.e., the resource can be used to provide services in the entity's normal
business activities.
b. The resource can be converted into cash.
c. The resource has the ability to provide cost-savings to the entity.
d. The resource causes more outflows of cash from the entity than inflows.
Executory contracts
16. Entity A enters into a purchase commitment with Entity B (a seller). Neither party performs
its obligation on the contract, i.e., Entity A did not yet pay the purchase price, while Entity B did
not yet deliver the goods. Which of the following is incorrect?
a. The contract is executory. Entity A has a combined right to receive the goods and an
obligation to pay for them.
b. Entity A recognizes neither an asset nor a liability except when the contract becomes
burdensome, such as when the goods become obsolete before they are delivered.
c. If Entity B performs its obligation first, Entity A's combined right and obligation
changes to a liability.
d. If Entity A performs its obligation first, Entity A's combined right and obligation changes
to a liability.
Recognition and Derecognition
17. According to the revised Conceptual Framework, an item is recognized if
a. it meets the definition of a financial statement element.
b. recognizing it would provide useful information.
c. it is probable that the item will result to an inflow or
outflow of economic benefits and its cost can be measured reliably.
d. a and b
18. According to the Conceptual Framework, an item is recognized if it meets the definition of an
asset, liability, equity, income or
expense, and recognizing it would provide relevant and faithfully represented information.
Which of the following relates faithful representation rather than relevance?
a. It is uncertain whether the asset exists.
b. The asset exists but the probability that it will produce inflows of economic benefits is low.
c. A high level of measurement uncertainty associated with the asset.
d. None of these. An item that meets the definition of an asset is always recognized as an asset.
19. Which of the following will most likely to cause the non-recognition of an asset or a
liability?
a. The probability of an inflow (outflow) of future economic benefits from the asset
(liability) is low.
b. There is a measurement uncertainty regarding the asset or liability.
c. It is uncertain whether the asset or liability exists.
d. Recognizing the asset or liability would not provide relevant and faithfully represented
information.
20. Which of the following would not result to the recognition of a liability?
a. Receipt of the proceeds of a bank loan.
b. Receipt of delivery of equipment purchased on credit.
c. A commitment for future execution becomes burdensome.
d. Paying in advance the purchase price of inventories for future delivery.
21. Entity A determined that a previously recognized asset no longer meet the definition of an
asset. Accordingly, Entity A removed the carrying amount of the asset from the statement of
financial position and recognized it as an expense. Entity A is applying which of the following
principles?
a. Matching
b. Recognition
c. Derecognition
d. Presentation and disclosure
22. Recognizing a financial statement element requires measuring it in monetary terms. Which of
the following statements is incorrect regarding measurement?
a. The Conceptual Framework only describes the measurement bases used in financial reporting
but does not specify how a particular statement element should be measured- this is addressed by
the Standards.
b. The Conceptual Framework broadly classifies the measurement bases used in financial reporting into
two, namely, historical cost and current value.
c. Measurement uncertainty will always cause the non-recognition of a financial statement element.
d. Measuring a financial statement element often requires estimation.
24. According to the revised Conceptual' Framework, income and expenses are classified as
either
a. recognized in profit or loss or in other comprehensive
b. gains and revenues and expenses and losses, respectively
c. contributions form, or distributions to the entity’s owners.
d. increases or decreases in the entity's assets or liabilities.