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Practice
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HPAT
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Health Professions Admission Test – Ireland

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1
Introduction
HPAT – Ireland is a test of general reasoning ability and is designed to provide a measure of your
aptitude for the study of medicine and the health professions.
The purpose of HPAT – Ireland is to assess the general skills and abilities developed over the course
of your education and life experience that are considered by the universities to be important to the
study and practice of medicine and the health sciences. To operate most effectively in these career
areas graduates will need to be flexible; to have good thinking skills (critical and analytical); to be able
to respond quickly to new situations and problems; and to have a well developed ability to understand
and respond to patients’ needs and individual situations. For these reasons HPAT – Ireland has been

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developed as a test that is not based on learned academic curriculum or study of particular subjects,

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but as a test of your response to stimuli that will not necessarily be familiar. HPAT – Ireland is designed

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to complement academic achievement and to give universities a more rounded picture of applicants to
assist them in selection decisions.
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HPAT – Ireland is not based on any curriculum or subject areas; therefore you do not need any special

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knowledge. Intensive preparation is not advisable or necessary, although wide and critical reading may
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provide helpful preparation for Sections 1 and 2. However, as with any test, some practice in answering
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questions of a similar type, and under similar time constraints as those found in the real test, is helpful
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and reassuring to most candidates. It is also helpful to practise using a machine-readable answer sheet
similar to the one in the actual test.
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Structure and content of HPAT – Ireland
HPAT – Ireland is divided into three separately timed Sections designed to measure ability in the
following areas:

Section 1 – Logical Reasoning and Problem Solving

Questions in this Section are based on a brief text or piece of information presented graphically. For
each question you are to decide which of the options given is the correct answer, based only on the
information given. The questions assess your ability to comprehend, draw logical conclusions, reach

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solutions by identifying relevant facts, evaluate information, pinpoint additional or missing information,
and generate and test plausible hypotheses. In the test there are 44 questions to be answered in 65

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minutes.

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Section 2 – Interpersonal Understanding

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Questions in this Section assess the ability to understand and think about people. Questions are based
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on a scenario, dialogue or other text representing specific interpersonal situations. The questions
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assess your ability to identify, understand, and, where necessary, infer the thoughts, feelings, behaviour
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and/or intentions of the people represented in the situations. In the test there are 36 questions to be
answered in 45 minutes.
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Section 3 – Non-verbal Reasoning

Questions in this Section may be of several kinds. All are based on patterns or sequences of shapes and
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are designed to assess your ability to reason in the abstract and solve problems in non-verbal contexts.
In the test there are 30 questions to be answered in 40 minutes.
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All HPAT – Ireland questions are in multiple-choice format with four or five possible responses,
from which candidates are asked to select the most appropriate response. There is only one correct
response.

ii
General advice on taking HPAT – Ireland
In addition to gaining familiarity with actual HPAT – Ireland questions, working through the HPAT –
Ireland Practice Test will help you to build your general test-taking skills. It will help you to:
• build a positive attitude;
• be prepared and confident;
• use your time wisely;
• develop your test-taking strategies;
• apply strategies for answering multiple-choice questions; and

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• check your answers.

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Before the test day
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Build a positive attitude

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Part of your preparation for HPAT – Ireland is to develop a confident attitude. This will also help you in
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controlling any pre-test nerves and give you the best chance of doing well.
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Focus on positive thoughts about the test, not negative ones. Be aware that although the topic or
subject matter may be new to you, the questions will not depend on any knowledge of the particular
subject matter or information provided in the stimulus material. HPAT – Ireland questions are designed
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to assess your ability to respond to new and unknown situations and problems, and to use the skills you
have built up over the whole span of your life and education. You should keep in mind that questions
are not based on any particular subject knowledge that you might bring to the test. Questions are based
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solely on the information contained in the stimulus material, and success depends on your ability to use
your skills of reasoning and problem solving to reach a solution. So, even if the topic of a question is new
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to you, this should not affect your ability to apply your general skills to find the answer.
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Be prepared
There are two key aspects to being prepared:
1 Find out in advance as much as possible about the test.
Most importantly, you should read the HPAT – Ireland booklet thoroughly and consult the HPAT – Ireland
webpage at http://www.hpat-ireland.acer.edu.au as they contain all the essential information you need
to take the test as well as updates and answers to frequently asked questions.
You should know:
• how long the test takes (how much time allowed for each Section);
• the rules you will be expected to follow during the test; and
• the type and number of questions in each Section.

2 Make sure you know the practical details.

You should know:
• when you will receive your Admission Ticket;
• your test centre address and reporting time allowed (on the Admission Ticket);
• documents you must take with you on the day;
• equipment you will need for the test (pencils and eraser);
• items you are prohibited from taking into the test; and
• how to complete your answer sheet and mark your answers.

All this information can be found on the HPAT – Ireland website.

iii
On the day of the test
Allow yourself plenty of time to get to the test centre. This is particularly important if you are taking the
test in one of the major cities, which attract large numbers of candidates. Traffic congestion is likely
around the entrance to the test centre. Avoid arriving at the test centre feeling flustered or anxious.
Do not forget to eat breakfast and, depending on the reporting time at your designated centre, you may
wish to eat a small snack before you go into the test room. You will not be allowed to take any food or
drink, other than bottled water, into the test room.
Remember that the test will take 2½ hours, plus time for all candidates to be seated and instructions to
be read. You should expect to be at the test centre for 4 to 4½ hours in total.

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Once you are seated in the test room:

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Use your time wisely
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• Take a moment to settle in and focus on the task ahead; use the waiting time to consciously relax.

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• Listen carefully to instructions given by the test supervisor.

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• Read the written instructions on the front cover of your test book.
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•  ake note of the finishing time of each test Section as it is announced. Finishing times will be
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written up on the whiteboard at the front of the room. (Remember that each Section is separately
timed and you are not allowed to move to another Section until instructed to do so.)

Apply your test-taking strategies

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•  nce you have been told to begin work on a Section, scan through the whole Section first to
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familiarise yourself with the kinds and number of questions.
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• Note where on the answer sheet you must record your answers to the questions in this Section.
•  hen you are ready to begin, read each piece of stimulus material and its related question/s
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carefully before selecting your preferred answer. Be aware that there is only one correct response
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to each question.
• You may find it helpful to underline key information on the test book.
•  tart from the beginning, but do not spend too much time on any question you are finding
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difficult. You may choose to skip such questions and come back to them later to reconsider. If you
decide to skip a question, it would be a good idea to mark it in the test book so you can check it
later. (Do not put any stray marks on your machine-readable answer sheet.) If you skip a question
you should also make sure all subsequent answers are placed against the correct question
number on the answer sheet.
•  emember that if you mark two responses to any question it will be considered wrong. If you
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decide to change an answer, make sure to erase it completely before filling in your new choice on
the answer sheet.
• Keep track of the time and try to pace yourself evenly through the Section.
• If possible allow a few minutes at the end of the Section to review and check over your answers.
(The supervisor will announce when there are 10 minutes remaining.)
•  nswer as many questions as possible. (Remember that marks are not deducted for wrong
A
answers.)
•  ever mark your answers in the test book with the intention of transferring them to the answer
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sheet later. Answers should be recorded directly onto the answer sheet. Transferring answers
from the test book to the answer sheet wastes time, and there is the chance of not leaving
sufficient time at the end of the Section to complete the transfer.

iv
HPAT – Ireland Practice Test
The HPAT – Ireland Practice Test is made up of a range of questions selected to provide examples of the
kinds and style of questions you will find in the test. The HPAT – Ireland Practice Test is equivalent to a
full test and you are advised to allow yourself the following times to complete each Section:

Practice Test time: 150 minutes

The Practice Test consists of three sections:

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Section 1 44 questions 65 minutes

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Section 2 36 questions 45 minutes

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Tear out the answer sheet at the end of this book and mark your answers on this as you would in the
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real test. Do not look at the correct answers given on the final page until you have completed all three
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Sections.
When answering a question:
• read all response options carefully, even if you think you know the answer;
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• eliminate responses you know are wrong; and

• if none of the alternatives given seems to be correct, re-read the question and try to work out
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what you have missed. There is always one correct choice.

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HPAT
Health Professions Admission Test – Ireland

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Practice Test
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Practice Test time: 150 minutes

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Total number of questions: 110

Practice Test consists of three sections.

Section 1 44 questions 65 minutes

Section 2 36 questions 45 minutes
Section 3 30 questions 40 minutes

• Attempt all questions.

• Do not spend too much time on any one question.
• Mark the one answer you think is best for each question.
• Incorrect answers, unanswered questions and questions for which more than one answer has
been marked are given a score of zero.
• If you decide to change an answer, erase it out completely and mark your new answer clearly.
Section 1
Section 1

SECTION 1 Logical Reasoning and Problem Solving Questions 1 − 44

For each question, decide which answer is correct based only on the information given.

Question 1

Legumes are plants of the family Leguminosae, a large group characterised by the bearing of rows of seeds in
pods, and roots that bear nodules inhabited by bacteria that convert atmospheric nitrogen into compounds that can
be absorbed by plants. Lentils are a type of legume edible by humans, as are peas and beans. Edible legumes are

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collectively known as pulses.

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Clover is a kind of plant not generally considered edible by humans, but which bears its seeds in rows in pods and

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has nodules bearing nitrogen-converting bacteria.

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From this information it follows that

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A not all pulses bear their seeds in pods.

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B lentils do not have nodules on their roots.

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C clover would be classified as a legume, but not as a pulse.
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D clover is a valuable kind of legume that removes nitrogen from soil.

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Question 2
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This table shows the results of growing spangled snapdragon plants under varying conditions of daylight and
darkness.
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hours of light hours of darkness results

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14 10 doesn’t flower
15 9 flowers
15 10 doesn’t flower
16 9 flowers

2 Which of the following is most likely to trigger the flowering of the spangled snapdragon?
A more than 9 hours of darkness
B less than 10 hours of darkness
C more than 14 hours of light
D less than 15 hours of light

Question 3

A girl and a boy are sitting next to each other on a park bench. The girl says “I support the Demons”. The boy says
“I support the Panthers”. It is known that the girl supports one of these two teams, the boy supports the other, and
that at least one person is lying.

3 Which one of the following is correct?

A Both children are lying.
B The boy could not be lying.
C The girl supports the Demons.
D The girl may be telling the truth.

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 Section11
Section
Question 4

Consider the following table that shows how often adults in a particular western country attend church.

CHURCH ATTENDANCE BY ADULTS

never attend 33.5%

less than once a year 17.4%
once or twice a year 15.9%
several times a year 9.0%

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about once a month 2.6%

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two or three times a month 3.7%
nearly every week 4.7%

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tu -19 UD every week 9.8%
several times a week 2.8%

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every day 0.6%

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According to this table,
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A more people attend church at least 52 times a year than do so 48 or 50 times a year.
B the proportion of people who attend church once every three or four years is about 16.1%.
C the number who attend church just a few times a year is less than the number who attend about once
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every month.
D the number who attend church once every few years is greater than the number who do so more than
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three times a year.

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Question 5

Three glasses, labelled X, Y and Z, are on a table. Each is exactly half full of water. Two of the glasses can each
hold twice as much as the third one. The small glass may be X or Y or Z.

5 Half of the water in glass X is poured into glass Y. Then, half of the water now in glass Y is poured into
glass Z. Finally, half of the water now in glass Z is poured into glass X.
A This can be done without spilling any water if the small glass is glass X.
B This can be done without spilling any water if the small glass is glass Y.
C This can be done without spilling any water if the small glass is glass Z.
D This cannot be done without spilling any water.

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Section 1
Section 1

Question 6

In an experiment, different groups of people were given the same painful stimulus and their levels of pain and
anxiety measured. Before the painful stimulus, one group were given a pill that they were told would increase the
severity of any pain felt, i.e. the pill was a nocebo. In reality, but unknown to the people, the nocebo contained
nothing that would affect either pain or anxiety. A second group were given a drug called proglumide; and a third
group given both the nocebo and proglumide. A final group acted as a control and were not given anything before
the painful stimulus.

The results of the experiment are shown below, with the crosses indicating relative intensity of pain and anxiety.

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pain anxiety

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control + +
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nocebo ++ ++

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nocebo + proglumide + ++
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6 The results of the experiment suggest that proglumide on its own causes
A pain only.
B anxiety only.
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C pain and anxiety.

D neither pain nor anxiety.
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Question 7

A melanoma is a type of skin cancer.

7 Together, these two diagrams indicate that

A melanoma is more likely to cause death than most other types of cancer.
B melanoma makes up less than 10% of all skin cancers yet causes about 80% of all skin cancer deaths.
C melanoma contributes little to the total number of cancer deaths as it occurs in less than 10% of all
skin cancer cases.
D skin cancer deaths as a result of all types of skin cancer are four times more common than skin cancer
deaths from melanoma.

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 Section11
Section
Question 8

apparent motion of Mars

as viewed from Earth

Mars
Earth

Sun

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8 This diagram indicates that

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A Mars orbits Earth in an irregular fashion.
B
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C as Earth orbits the Sun, its distance from Mars decreases to a minimum and then increases once per
Earth orbit.

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D because Mars has an orbit further from the Sun than Earth, it appears to travel faster around its orbit
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than Earth travels around its orbit.
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Question 9
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The graph below indicates changes in the numbers of lone-mother families (families raised by a mother without
a partner) in different categories between 1971 and 1992. Single mothers are those who have never partnered. All
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families included in this study have at least one child younger than 16.

600
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500
number of families (thousands)

400 divorced
single
300 separated
widowed
200

100

0
1971 1981 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990 1991 1992

9 This graph shows that

A in 1988, there were just under 400 000 children below the age of 16 in families raised by a divorced
mother.
B the number of single-mother families increased more slowly in the five years after 1986 than in the
five years before it.
C in 1992, there was approximately five times the number of children under 16 in families raised by
single mothers than there was in 1971.
D the number of families with one or more children under 16 raised by divorced mothers was less than
the number of families raised by single mothers in the period 1991 to 1992.

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Section 1
Section 1

Question 10

Out of 28 cases of people who have been found guilty of an offence and then subsequently proved innocent
by evidence from DNA testing, 24 had been positively identified in police line-ups or ‘mug shots’ as being the
criminals concerned.

10 Which of the following is best supported by this information?

A DNA testing is a very inexact science.
B People’s memories of what took place at crime scenes are far from reliable.
C DNA testing should be restricted to confirming or denying the remembered evidence of eye-witnesses.
D If people are found guilty of a crime through the evidence of DNA testing, it is not necessarily true

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that they committed the crime.

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Question 11
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In Islandia, bullfighting has been carried on over centuries. Not everyone is in favour of bullfighting. There are
equal numbers of men and women in Islandia.

Ten per cent of Islandians are against bullfighting. Of these, seven out of ten are women. All others like bullfighting.
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11 The number of
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A men who do not like bullfighting, as a proportion of all men, is 3 out of 50.
B men who do not like bullfighting, as a proportion of all men, is 3 out of 47.
C women who do not like bullfighting, as a proportion of all women, is 7 out of 10.
H

D women who do not like bullfighting, as a proportion of all women, is 7 out of 43.
O

Question 12

Suppose that of the following four statements, just one of the statements is actually true.

Statement I None of these four statements is true.

Statement II The statement above is true.

Statement III The statement above is false.

Statement IV The statement above is false.

12 The true statement must be

A Statement I.
B Statement II.
C Statement III.
D Statement IV.

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 Section11
Section
Question 13

The life expectancy of Australian women has doubled to about 82 years since the 1850s. Whilst the average age
of menopause – generally between 40 and 60 – has remained steady, that of menarche (the onset of fertility) has
dropped markedly.

13 Which of the following is the best conclusion that can be drawn from the information above?
A The likelihood of women conceiving during their fertile years has decreased since the 1850s.
B Nowdays, women are, on average, having fewer children during their fertile years than they did in the
1850s.
C Australian women are living, on average, for about the same number of years after menopause as they

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did in the 1850s.

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D For women who have lived to menopause, the number of years during which they could have

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conceived children has increased since the 1850s.
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Question 14
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According to a study, the Patagonian glaciers of South America are melting at an accelerating pace and the water
from their melting now accounts for nearly 10% of the global sea-level rise caused by melting mountain glaciers.
The Patagonian glaciers lost ice equivalent to a sea-level rise of about 1.0 mm in the 25 years from 1975 to 2000.
bl B AD

From 1995 to 2000, however, the rate of Patagonian ice loss was equivalent to a sea-level rise of 0.1 mm per year.

14 Which one of the following statements is consistent with the information given?
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A The average annual rate of Patagonian glacier ice melting between 1995 and 2000 was about four
times that of the previous twenty years.
H

B From 1975 to 1995 the average rate of Patagonian glacier ice melting was equivalent to a sea-level
O

rise of about 0.01 mm per year.

C From 1975 to 2000, melting mountain glaciers around the world contributed water to the oceans
equivalent to a sea-level rise of about 1.0 mm each year.
D Patagonian glaciers caused the equivalent of a rise in sea-level of approximately 0.1 mm each year
between 1975 and 2000.

Question 15

Improperly washed hands are the cause of most cases of food poisoning in the food industry and of cross-infection
in hospitals. A study has shown that hands that are well washed but wet can transmit as many as 60 000 micro-
organisms on contact, whereas similarly washed hands that have been thoroughly dried with a paper towel transmit
a mere 200.

15 This information indicates that

A just washing hands has little effect on reducing the number of micro-organisms that hands carry.
B at least washing hands is a better method of preventing the transfer of disease than not washing hands
at all and keeping them dry all the time.
C moisture greatly assists in the transfer of micro-organisms from one site to another.
D as long as hands are thoroughly dried, there is little risk of transferring micro-organisms from them to
another site.

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Section 1
Section 1

Question 16

A study showed that when people had to choose between two rental properties, one of which (P) was fairly
expensive, but close to work, and another (Q) which was quite a bit cheaper, but further away from work, they
tended to choose equally between P and Q.

However, when a third property (R) was available, which was a little further than Q from work, and more expensive
even than P, about 70% consistently chose Q and 30% chose P.

16 Which of the following hypotheses best explains these results?

A A third choice simply confused people.

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B People chose Q because it was closer to work than R.

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C The simplest comparison to make between the three properties was between Q and R, so many chose
the better of those two.

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D Transport costs from R to work could be disproportionately higher than those from Q to work.
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Question 17

Researchers have found that the levels of most strong-smelling sulfides and other compounds in the breath of
bl B AD

garlic-eaters decline within a few hours of eating it. However, high levels of two sulfide compounds and of acetone
are found in the breath more than 30 hours after eating. After a day, for example, the acetone level in the breath
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is typically more than 5 parts per million. Acetone can be produced by the breakdown of fatty blood compounds,
including cholesterol. Crushed garlic gives off acetone at about 10 parts per billion.
H

17 Of the following, the researchers would be most justified in concluding that

O

A most of the acetone in a garlic-eater’s breath comes from the ingested garlic.
B in the body, acetone from garlic interacts with cholesterol to cause the breakdown of sulfides.
C after 24 hours, the body has broken down approximately 50% of the acetone ingested from the garlic.
D digested garlic causes the body to produce some sulfides.

Question 18

Many old trees have a spiral twist to their trunks. Those in the northern hemisphere that grow in areas with strong
prevailing westerly winds (winds blowing from west to east) most frequently twist anti-clockwise. One theory to
explain this is that northern hemisphere trees have more foliage on the side facing the sun – their southern side. As
a result, when winds blow from the west, an anti-clockwise twisting force is exerted.

18 If this theory were correct, it would be expected that trees normally exposed to prevailing
A northerly winds and growing in the northern hemisphere would not have twisted trunks.
B easterly winds and growing in the southern hemisphere would have trunks twisted clockwise.
C easterly winds and growing in the northern hemisphere would have trunks twisted anti-clockwise.
D northerly winds and growing in the southern hemisphere would have trunks twisted anti-clockwise.

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 Section11
Section
Questions 19 – 21

While some forms of cholesterol are not harmful to humans, an excess of the form known as LDL is believed to
increase the likelihood of heart disease, obesity and diabetes. A link between a high-fat diet and raised cholesterol
levels has long been noted. However, in the natives of Greenland a high-fat diet (seal, whale and fish) is not
associated with these conditions. These people have lower LDL levels than comparable groups of Danish people
eating a typical Western diet based on dairy foods and meat.
Nutritionists believe that there are substances, known as omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids, found in the food of the
Greenland natives that explain the difference. These fatty acids are also found in plant sterols. Two recent studies
have investigated the effect of plant sterols on LDL.

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Study I One hundred men and women with normal cholesterol levels or mild hypercholesterolaemia were given

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varying amounts of sterols, in food spreads, for 24 days: 0.0 g/day (as a placebo), 0.83 g/day, 1.61 g/day

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or 3.24 g/day.
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In the groups that took sterols, there was a reduction ranging from 6.6 to 9.9% in the level of LDL.

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There was no significant difference in the average reduction between those who took the three different

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levels of sterols. There was no significant reduction in LDL in the control group.
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Study II Twenty-two hypercholesterolaemic men and women were given, for 28 days, either a placebo or 2.4 g/day of
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sterols. The sterols were taken as a combination of food spread (0.8 g/day), bread (0.8 g/day) and cereal
(0.8 g/day).

There was an average 10.4% reduction in LDL for those that took sterols, but no significant reduction
bl B AD

for the others.

Note:
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• A placebo is a ‘pretend’ treatment, with no known effect on a particular disorder.

• The prefix ‘hyper-’ means ‘in an elevated or excessive amount’.
H

• The suffix ‘-aemia’ refers to the blood.

O

• A control group is used for comparison with groups who have some form of treatment.

19 A hypercholesterolaemic person has

A too much cholesterol in their diet.
B elevated blood pressure due to excessive cholesterol.
C too much cholesterol in their blood.
D lowered sterol levels due to excessive cholesterol.

20 In Study I, the control group

A was given the placebo.
B was given nothing at all.
C had normal cholesterol levels.
D had the same reduction in LDL as those who took sterols.

21 Considering the results of Study I and Study II, of the following, the best conclusion is that
A sterols are ineffective at lowering normal levels of LDL.
B the longer sterols are taken, the greater their effect on LDL levels.
C the minimum dose of sterols can have maximum impact on LDL levels.
D adding sterols to foods other than spreads greatly increases their effectiveness at
lowering LDL.

9
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Section 1
Section 1

Questions 22 and 23

A psychologist studied young children at primary school making judgements about the reactions of a balance
loaded with different weights at different distances from its fulcrum. Six examples of these balance problems are
shown in the figure. In each case, the child was asked to predict whether the balance would tip to the left, to the
right, or remain level, when the square blocks were removed from under the balance.
• Each of the weights shown in the following diagram has the same mass, and the pegs are evenly spaced along
the balances with the centre peg being directly over the fulcrum.

I II III

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IV V VI
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The psychologist proposed that children predict the movement of the balance by using either one of two rules:
Rule 1 consider just the number of weights on each side of the fulcrum (with no consideration of their distances
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from the fulcrum);

Rule 2 consider the number of weights on each side of the fulcrum, but if there are equal numbers, then consider
H

their distances from the fulcrum.

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22 How many of the six situations in the figure would a child using Rule 1 predict correctly?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D more than 3

23 A child using Rule 2 would be expected to say that in

A balance problem II, the right side would move down.
B balance problem III, the balance would stay level.
C balance problem IV, the left side would move down.
D balance problem V, the balance would stay level.

10
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 Section11
Section
Questions 24 – 28

Researchers in Holland conducted a study of 1200 newly elected politicians. The study noted whether the politicians
were only-children, first-born children, middle-born children or last-born children.

The study found that amongst these politicians only-children and first-born children were over-represented (i.e.
in greater proportion than in the general population). Middle-born children and last-born children were under-
represented.

om
N
24 Which of the following statements is most strongly supported by the study’s results?

@ 5 DI
Children who have

l.c
A early undivided attention from their parents are more likely to take up a career in politics.
tu -19 UD
B experience in giving orders to younger siblings are more likely to take up a career in politics.

ai
C early undivided attention from their parents are less likely to take up a career in politics.

tm
D experience in giving orders to younger siblings are less likely to take up a career in politics.
na 09 HI
re 9
ho
27 4- MO

25 Suppose that the experience of giving orders to younger siblings increases the likelihood of becoming a
politician, and early undivided parental attention has little effect.
bl B AD

Which of the following sets of results would be most likely?

A Only-children are under-represented, while first- and middle-born children are over-represented.
D AM

B Only-children are over-represented, while middle- and last-born children are under-represented.
ue : 1

C Only- and middle-born children are over-represented, while first-born children are under-represented.
D Only- and last-born children are under-represented, while first-born children are over-represented.
H
O

26 Of the following, the best title for this study would be

A ‘Politicians are more likely to have younger siblings.’
B ‘Birth order affects the likelihood of a career in politics.’
C ‘People from smaller families have a greater likelihood of becoming politicians.’
D ‘Only-children and first-born children are more likely to enter politics than other careers.’

27 If the data are to make sense, it must be assumed that last-born children
A include only-children.
B may include only-children.
C are from families with at least two children.
D are from families with at least three children.

28 Which of the following sets of results most strongly supports the proposition that the experience of giving
orders to younger siblings increases the likelihood of becoming a politician?
the results for
A only-children and first-born children
B middle-born children and last-born children
C first-born children and middle-born children
D first-born children and last-born children

11
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Section 1
Section 1

Questions 29 – 34

In the puzzle illustrated in Figure 1, there are three different-sized discs and three identical pegs. The puzzle starts
with all three discs stacked on any peg, with the largest at the bottom and the smallest at the top. The aim is to move
all three discs to one of the two vacant pegs.

There are two rules: A B C

• only one disc can be moved at a time;

• a disc cannot be placed on one smaller than itself.

om
Figure 1

N
@ 5 DI

l.c
The arrangement of the three discs can be represented by a sequence of three letters, representing the positions of
tu -19 UD
the smallest, middle-sized and largest discs respectively. Each letter refers to the peg (A, B or C) on which the disc

ai
sits. For example, the arrangement in Figure 1 is represented by [BBA].

tm
Figure 2 shows the three-letter sequences of all possible arrangements of the three discs. Each arrangement is linked
na 09 HI
re 9
to the two or three other arrangements that can be achieved on the next move. For example, from arrangement
ho
27 4- MO

[AAA], arrangements [BAA] or [CAA] can be achieved on the next move.

In Figure 2:
• two of the sequences (X and Y) are missing;
bl B AD

• three of the links between sequences are shown in bold.

D AM
ue : 1

AAA
H
O

BAA CAA

BCA CBA

CCA ACA Y BBA

CCB BBC

ACB BCB CBC ABC

X BAB CAC ACC

BBB CBB CAB AAB AAC BAC BCC CCC

Figure 2

29 Suppose all three discs are on one peg.

How many different arrangements can be achieved on the next move?
A one
B two only
C three only
D two or three, depending on the peg

12
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 Section11
Section
30 Starting with [AAA] and finishing with [CCC], what is the minimum number of moves required of the
smallest disc?
A one
B two
C three
D four

om
N
@ 5 DI
31 In Figure 2, the three bold links between sequences indicate the only moves in which

l.c
A Peg C is involved.
tu -19 UD
B the largest disc is moved.

ai
C the smallest disc remains on the middle peg.

tm
D only two pegs have discs on them, both before and after the move.
na 09 HI
re 9
ho
27 4- MO
bl B AD

32 According to the above rules, how many possible arrangements of two discs on Peg A are there?
A one
D AM
ue : 1

B two
C three
H

D six
O

33 To which of the two empty pegs should the first move be in order to complete the puzzle in the fewest
possible moves?
A Either vacant peg is suitable.
B The peg on which the three discs finally sit.
C The peg on which the three discs do not finally sit.
D It depends on which peg the three discs start.

34 Suppose the puzzle is played with four discs on three pegs.

Which one of the following arrangements cannot be achieved in one move from [ABCC]?
A [AACC]
B [ACCC]
C [BBCC]
D [CBCC]

13
13
Section 1
Section 1

Questions 35 − 38

The graph shows, for different age groups and in different years, the percentage of women in the USA who had
never been married.

Note: the data on women 30–34 years old is not shown for 1960.

18–19 years old

20–24 years old

om
N
25–29 years old
30–34 years old

@ 5 DI
100

l.c
83
Percent never married

tu -19 UD 76 77
75 71

ai
52

tm
50
na 09 HI

36 36 32
re 9
29
ho 25
27 4- MO

18
9 11 12 11
7
0
1960 1970 1980 1990
bl B AD

Year
D AM
ue : 1

35 Suppose that there were 4 000 000 women aged 20−24 in 1970.
Ignoring deaths, how many of these women married for the first time in the next ten years?
H
O

closest to
A 3 000 000
B 2 000 000
C 1 000 000
D 400 000

36 In 1970 the average age at which women had first been married
A was between 18 and 19 years old.
B was between 20 and 24 years old.
C was 25 years old or older.
D cannot be determined from just the information provided.

37 Which of the following is best supported by the information in the graph?

A Half of the women aged 20−24 in 1980 who had never been married were married in the next ten
years.
B Just over two-fifths of the women aged 18−19 in 1980 who had never been married were married in
the next ten years.
C Less than half of the women aged 20−24 in 1960 who had never been married were married in the
next ten years.
D Almost two-thirds of the women aged 18−19 in 1960 who had never been married were married in
the next ten years.

14
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 Section11
Section
38 Which of the following is best supported by the information in the graph?
A Women aged 18−19 in 1970 were twice as likely to have been married compared to women aged
20−24 in 1990.
B Women aged 30−34 in 1990 were twice as likely to have been married compared to women aged
20−24 in 1980.
C Women aged 20−24 in 1990 were twice as likely to have been married compared to women aged
18−19 in 1970.
D Women aged 20−24 in 1980 were twice as likely to have been married compared to women aged
30−34 in 1990.

om
N
@ 5 DI

l.c
tu -19 UD

ai
Questions 39 and 40

tm
na 09 HI
re 9
In a study to evaluate the effectiveness of acupuncture* in controlling pain, 300 migraine sufferers were divided
ho
27 4- MO

randomly into three groups. Group I was given acupuncture, Group II was given sham acupuncture** and Group
III was given no treatment. The participants then reported how their pain progressed. During the study, the
participants in Groups I and II did not know whether they were receiving acupuncture or sham acupuncture.
bl B AD

About 51% of participants in each of Groups I and II reported at least a halving of their level of pain, compared
with about 15% of Group III.
D AM
ue : 1

* Acupuncture is a process of inserting needles into specific body locations which is believed by some
practitioners to have desirable effects, such as pain reduction.
H

** In sham acupuncture, needles are inserted into body locations other than those believed to be effective.
O

39 Consider the following:

i Acupuncture relieves migraine pain through a psychologically mediated effect.
ii Acupuncture relieves migraine pain through a direct physiological effect due to the insertion of needles
into specific body locations.
iii Acupuncture relieves migraine pain through a direct physiological effect due to the insertion of needles,
regardless of the needles’ location.

The results of the study suggest that

A i is true but neither ii nor iii is true.
B iii is true but neither i nor ii is true.
C either i or iii is true but ii is not true.
D either ii or iii is true but i is not true.

40 In this study,
A there is no control group.
B both Groups II and III act as controls.
C Group II acts as a control but not Group III.
D Group III acts as a control but not Group II.

15
15
Section 1
Section 1

Questions 41 − 44

Bacteria have chemoreceptors that enable them to detect various chemicals to which they are attracted. Solutions
containing mixtures of such attractants are more attractive than solutions containing a single attractant.

Some chemoreceptors can detect more than one attractant. However, if such receptors are saturated with one
attractant, they cannot detect another.

In a series of experiments, Julius investigated how many chemoreceptors one species of bacterium has for three
different chemicals (I, II and III), known to be attractants for that species.

In each experiment, the bacteria were suspended in solutions of one of the attractants in each of two containers, as

om
N
shown in Figure 1. The concentration of the attractant in each container was high enough to saturate any appropriate

@ 5 DI
chemoreceptors. Tubes containing a mixture of the attractant in the container and one of the other two attractants

l.c
were then placed into the containers. The bacteria were monitored to determine if they were attracted to the tubes.
tu -19 UD

ai
attractants I and II attractants I and III

tm
na 09 HI
re 9
bacteria suspended
ho bacteria suspended
27 4- MO

in attractant I and in attractant I and

not attracted to tube attracted to tube
First Second
container container
bl B AD

Figure 1
D AM
ue : 1
H

41 The experiment represented in Figure 1 indicates that the bacteria has

O

A a different chemoreceptor for each of attractants I, II and III.

B one chemoreceptor for attractants I and II, and another for attractant III.
C one chemoreceptor for attractants I and III, and another for attractant II.
D one chemoreceptor for attractants II and III, and another for attractant I.

42 The most appropriate control for the experiment represented in Figure 1 would be a container with bacteria
A and attractant I, and a tube with no attractants.
B and attractant I, and a tube with only attractant I.
C but no attractant, and a tube with no attractants.
D but no attractant, and a tube with only attractant I.

16
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 Section11
Section
43 Suppose another experiment with the same species of bacterium was conducted. In this experiment, the first
container’s set-up and result were as represented in Figure 1 but the second container was different.
If Julius drew the same conclusion from both experiments, which of the following was the most likely set-up
and result for the second container?

II and III I and II II and III I and III

om
N
II III III III

@ 5 DI

l.c
A B C D
tu -19 UD

ai
tm
44 Suppose that another experiment was conducted with another species of bacterium. In this experiment it was
na 09 HI

concluded that all three attractants are detected by the same chemoreceptor.
re 9
ho
27 4- MO

If the first container’s set-up and result were as illustrated in Figure 1, which of the following was most likely
the set-up and result for the second container?

II and III I and II I and III II and III

bl B AD
D AM
ue : 1
H

II III III III

O

A B C D

END OF SECTION 1

17
17
Section 2
Section 2

SECTION 2 Interpersonal Understanding Questions 45 − 80

Questions 45 and 46

The following conversation is between a mother and her adopted son. The child has been recently
adopted and is about ten years old. He has a history of setting fires.

Mother: Do you know why your birthmother arranged for you to be adopted?

om
N
Child: Because I was bad.

@ 5 DI

l.c
Mother: What did you do that was so bad?

Child:
tu -19 UD
I set a fire in the basement.

ai
tm
Mother: How do you think your birthmother felt when she saw the basement on fire? 5
na 09 HI
re 9
Child: She was scared.
ho
27 4- MO

Mother: How do you think she felt after the fire was put out?

Child: I don’t know.

bl B AD

Mother: I think maybe she was scared in a different way. She was scared because she
could see that if you were setting fires you needed help and she didn’t know how 10
D AM
ue : 1

to give you the help you needed. So she found a way to see that you had parents
who could give you the help that she didn’t know how to give.
H
O

45 How does the mother respond to her adopted son’s perception that he did something bad?
A She acknowledges the incident and exaggerates the seriousness.
B She clarifies the incident and recognises its serious implications.
C She overlooks the incident and reassures her son he is now in loving hands.
D She absolves her son of responsibility for an incident the birthmother should have prevented.

46 What does the mother seem to believe will be most helpful for her adopted son at this point?
A to break connections with his birthmother
B to see his behaviour in a more positive light
C to understand that he is responsible for his behaviour but is not rejected
D to recognise that his adoptive mother will respond to his behaviour in the same way as the birthmother

18
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 Section
Section 22
Questions 47 – 50

The following extract is taken from a text that explores different individuals’ experiences of illness.
The patient has undergone major abdominal surgery.

If there is a distinction between experiencing and remembering, it is lost on doctors. When the chief
resident arrived, I repeated my request for pain killers. He said pain was an important indicator of
what was going on inside me and they needed to know when and where I hurt. He could apply a
local pain killer where the tube was inserted, which would help with the pain of the insertion; for
the rest, he would give me something to relax me that would also erase my memory of the pain. I
agreed to all this — again, I seemed to have no choice — but thought, ‘Great, I’ll suffer but I won’t

om
N
remember it and that’s supposed to make it okay?’

@ 5 DI

l.c
tu -19 UD

ai
tm
47 How does the patient feel as a result of the consultation with the doctor?
na 09 HI
re 9
A He feels concerned that the pain will become worse.
ho
27 4- MO

B He feels confident the doctor will minimise the pain.

C He feels convinced the doctor does not take his pain seriously.
D He feels powerless to affect the way his pain will be managed.
bl B AD
D AM
ue : 1

48 How does the doctor respond to the patient’s request for pain killers?
H

A He convinces the patient that he can cope with the pain.

O

B He explains how and why doctors monitor pain in a certain way.

C He addresses the patient’s fears and helps the patient to feel positive.
D He emphasises the skill of the doctors in avoiding painful procedures.

49 What is the patient most concerned about?

A that he is expected to put up with a certain amount of pain
B that he won’t be able to remember his experience of the pain
C that the pain he is experiencing may indicate serious problems
D that he will still remember the pain afterwards despite the medication

50 The doctor could have alleviated the patient’s concerns by

A emphasising his qualifications and experience.
B reassuring the patient that his concerns were unwarranted.
C imparting less information so as not to confuse the patient.
D acknowledging the patient’s concerns and exploring them in more detail.

19
19
Section 2
Section 2

Questions 51 − 55

The following extract is from a novel about a nine-year-old girl who is being mistreated by her
peers. She is in the kitchen, baking a cake with her mother when, suddenly and unexpectedly, her
mother raises the subject.

‘You don’t have to play with them,’ my mother says. ‘There must be other little girls you can play
with instead.’
I look at her. Misery washes over me like a slow wind. What has she noticed, what has she
guessed, what is she about to do? She might tell their mothers. This would be the worst thing she
could do. Also I can’t imagine it. My mother is not like the other mothers, she doesn’t fit in with the 5

om
N
rest of them. She does not inhabit the house, the way the other mothers do; she’s airy and hard to pin
down. The others don’t go skating on the neighbourhood rink, or walk in the ravine by themselves.

@ 5 DI
They seem to me grown up in a way that my own mother is not. I think of Carol’s mother in her twin

l.c
set1, her sceptical smile, Cordelia’s with her glasses on a chain and her vagueness, Grace’s and her
tu -19 UD
hairpins and drooping apron. My mother will turn up on their doorsteps, wearing slacks, carrying 10

ai
a bouquet of weeds, incongruous. They won’t believe her.

tm
‘When I was little and the kids called names, we used to say, “Sticks and stones will break my
na 09 HI
re 9
bones but names will never hurt me,” ’ she says. Her arm goes vigorously around, mixing, efficient
ho
27 4- MO

and strong.
‘They don’t call me names,’ I say. ‘They’re my friends.’ I believe this. 15
‘You have to learn to stand up for yourself,’ says my mother. ‘Don’t let them push you around.
Don’t be spineless. You have to have more backbone.’ She dollops the batter into the tins.
bl B AD

I think of sardines and their backbones. You can eat their backbones. The bones crumble
between your teeth; one touch and they fall apart. This must be what my backbone is like: hardly
there at all. What is happening to me is my fault, for not having more backbone. 20
D AM
ue : 1

My mother sets down the bowl and puts her arms around me. ‘I wish I knew what to do,’ she
says. This is a confession. Now I know what I’ve been suspecting: as far as this thing is concerned,
H

she is powerless.
O

1 twin set: a short-sleeved pullover with a matching cardigan.

51 What does the passage suggest about the mother’s attitude towards the treatment of her daughter?
A She is angry about the treatment of her daughter.
B She is trying to help her daughter but has little to offer.
C She is embarrassed at not being able to assist her daughter.
D She is confident that the advice she gives will help her daughter.

20
20
 Section
Section 22

52 Which one of the following best describes how the daughter is feeling?
A angry
B worried
C optimistic
D unconcerned

om
N
@ 5 DI

l.c
tu -19 UD

ai
53 The comment by the daughter that ‘My mother is not like the other mothers’ (line 5) is best described as

tm
na 09 HI

A proud and defiant.

re 9
B sarcastic and bitter.
ho
27 4- MO

C kind but misguided.

D critical but accepting.
bl B AD
D AM
ue : 1
H

54 Which one of the following would be of most help to the daughter at this stage?
O

A The daughter takes the mother’s advice to stand up to the bullies.

B The mother withdraws and lets the daughter resolve it by herself.
C The daughter recognises that she does not deserve to be mistreated.
D The daughter pretends that everything is all right and ignores the bullying.

55 Which one of the following is preventing the problem being solved?

A the mother’s inability to relate to the other mothers
B the daughter’s failure to hide the effects of bullying
C the mother’s lack of interest in her daughter’s welfare
D the daughter’s inability to accept that she is being mistreated

21
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Section 2
Section 2

Questions 56 – 60

In the following passage, a man relates his experience of being hospitalised after an accident.

The young doctors stood beside me discussing another patient as I lay looking at the ceiling. The
human relationship to surrounding space changes for an invalid. We have a closer relationship
with the floor and ceiling of a room when seen from a bed or wheelchair and decreased contact
with the doors, windows and walls at hand.
‘So you were hit by a lorry,’ said one. 5
‘Yes,’ I said, gazing at the corner angle of the room where three surfaces joined with perfect
precision.

om
N
‘I had a near miss once,’ he replied.

@ 5 DI
‘I had one last week,’ said his colleague joining in a sort of ‘near miss’ contest.

l.c
‘I was coming over a rise,’ continued the first, ‘only doing eighty, and found a huge lorry on 10
tu -19 UD
the wrong side of the road overtaking a car. I just got back in time. It could have been very nasty,’

ai
he said, feeling the muscle wasting in my thigh with incidental interest.
‘Mine happened on the freeway last Tuesday,’ continued the other. ‘Which day were you hit?’

tm
na 09 HI

he asked, turning his attention to me.

re 9
‘Thursday’, I said with rising fascination. 15
ho
27 4- MO

‘Mine was last Tuesday, busy traffic, wet road, all the lanes full and suddenly this huge lorry
changes lanes without any indication and nearly sends me into the next life. Really shook me up, I
can tell you,’ he said in a tone which expected my sympathy.
I remained silent.
bl B AD

‘How long has this plaster been on now?’ he asked vaguely. 20

‘Five weeks.’
D AM

‘Five. And then I watched him speeding off and thought, if you go on like that, mate, you’ll
ue : 1

finish up killing someone.’

‘Or worse,’ said the other.
H

‘Worse?’ I enquired, genuinely wondering how this keen medical mind worked. 25
O

‘Yes, finish up making someone a vegetable.’

‘I see,’ I said.
‘There are some crazy people out there,’ he concluded.
And there are some strange people in here, I thought, still remaining silent.

56 The first paragraph (lines 1 – 4) suggests that patients in hospital often feel
A secure.
B resentful.
C frightened.
D disoriented.

22
22
 Section
Section 22

57 The doctors’ conversation makes the patient feel

A neglected and insignificant.
B valued and the centre of attention.
C worse, as it re-lives the pain and horror of his own accident.
D better, as it helps him realise that the doctors understand his situation.

om
N
@ 5 DI

l.c
58
tu -19 UD
The patient’s behaviour during this conversation is best described as

ai
A petty and ungrateful.

tm
na 09 HI

B suspicious and fearful.

re 9
C reserved and disapproving.
ho
27 4- MO

D submissive and intimidated.

bl B AD
D AM
ue : 1

59 The doctors’ manner during the examination suggests

A an acute awareness of the patient’s feelings.
H

B a lack of sensitivity to the patient’s feelings.

O

C a genuine interest in the patient’s circumstances.

D a natural ability to make the patient feel comfortable.

60 The patient’s silence at points in the conversation (lines 19 and 29) indicates
A anxiety about his injuries.
B respect for the doctors’ status.
C displeasure at the doctors’ behaviour.
D confusion about the doctors’ questions.

23
23
Section 2
Section 2

Questions 61 − 66

The following extract is taken from a text that is written by a son about his dying father. The father
is a retired doctor.

In Room 2, Ward 19, I want to shake him. I want to put a bomb under him. I want him to be dead
rather than die like this.
‘I know you don’t feel right, Dad, but operations take it out of people, they feel flat afterwards,
and you are much stronger than you were three days ago.’
‘I am that.’ 5
‘And the doctors are happy. And once you’re eating properly and in your own home . . .’

om
N
I don’t know whether this blather is for his sake or mine — because it’s the sort of cheeriness
he goes in for himself and feels comfortable with; or because I can’t bear to admit he’s dying. I

@ 5 DI
know they have opened him up and closed him again without doing anything other than pass a tube

l.c
across his stomach. I know this can’t help him regain his appetite or health. I know that if he doesn’t
tu -19 UD 10
start peeing soon, his kidneys will become infected, and then pack up altogether. And I know that

ai
he knows all this, knows too much about the body to be deluded. Physician, diagnose thyself: well,

tm
he has, and that’s why he’s depressed.
na 09 HI
re 9
‘And you might not feel like visitors now, but there are lots of friends who want to see you,
ho 15
27 4- MO

and in a week you’ll be different.’

He looks at his watch and says: ‘Number One, your five minutes are up. Come in Number
Two. Your five minutes are up too, Two. Come in Number Three . . . No thanks.’
bl B AD
D AM
ue : 1

61 The word that best describes how the son feels when he first comes to visit his father (lines 1 and 2) is
H
O

A pity.
B sadness.
C frustration.
D aggression.

62 The father’s response in lines 16 and 17 shows he

A is offended by his son’s tone.
B is reassured by his son’s support.
C is determined to fight his condition.
D believes his son’s support is pointless.

63 The son repeats the phrase ‘I know’ four times between lines 8 and 11. He does this probably because he
A is trying to face up to his father’s condition.
B is confident that he knows exactly what is going on.
C does not know what else to think in such a situation.
D is trying to convince himself that his father is not that sick.

24
24
 Section
Section 22

64 The son’s comments to his father are an attempt to

A be honest about his father’s condition.
B suggest his father is exaggerating his condition.
C make light of the situation to take his father’s mind off it.
D hide his feelings while trying to make his father feel more positive.

om
N
@ 5 DI

l.c
tu -19 UD

ai
65 How does the son feel generally about his father’s illness?

tm
na 09 HI

A He prefers to focus on when his father will be well again.

re 9
B He avoids thinking about it because he can’t comprehend it.
ho
27 4- MO

C He appreciates that his father is ill but he does not want to dwell on it.
D He is aware that he needs to come to terms with it but is struggling to.
bl B AD
D AM
ue : 1
H

66 The son believes that the father is depressed (line 13) because
O

A he does not want visitors.

B it is common to feel depressed in hospital.
C he understands the extent of his own illness.
D he is confused about what’s happening to him.

25
25
Section 2
Section 2

Questions 67 – 70

Below is one woman’s perspective of recovering from depression.

Looking back, I think the road to recovery started one day some years ago when I took myself to
yet another doctor. My thoughts as I sat down in the waiting room were of fear, apprehension and
uncertainty. But somewhere inside myself I still had hope. I confided in the doctor and told her I felt
like a silly, neurotic woman. I told her I should be able to help myself and not need to come to her.
Just pick myself up with the help of family and friends. She sat back in her chair and said ‘I don’t 5
think you are a silly woman and I don’t expect you to do it on your own’.

om
N
@ 5 DI

l.c
tu -19 UD
67 The doctor’s response is best described as

ai
A supportive.

tm
na 09 HI

B insensitive.
re 9
C ambiguous.
ho
27 4- MO

D challenging.
bl B AD

68 What was it about the doctor’s response that the woman probably found most significant?
D AM
ue : 1

A The doctor seemed to take the woman seriously.

B The doctor promised the woman she would get better.
H

C The doctor played down the seriousness of the woman’s condition.

O

D The doctor confirmed the woman’s own thoughts about the condition.

69 The passage suggests that the woman’s previous consultations with doctors had
A left her feeling unsupported.
B helped her keep her illness in perspective.
C helped her more than she realised at the time.
D made her condition worse.

70 In thinking of herself as a ‘silly, neurotic woman’ (line 4), the woman reveals her
A self-insight.
B sense of hope.
C sense of shame.
D sense of humour.

26
26
 Section
Section 22
Questions 71 – 74

In the following passage the mother of a severely disabled son reflects on a recurring dream that
she has.

In this dream, it’s just like he’s normal, he speaks to me. It is not as if I think this would really
happen. He’s twenty-one! But I can lose myself in this dream. Wrenching myself awake is like
walking into a nightmare. I don’t mean that my son is a nightmare; I just mean that life is so
exhausting and all I want is some peace and quiet. For most other people, life is just the opposite
— they wake from their nightmares!

om
N
@ 5 DI

l.c
71
tu -19 UD
The mother regards the dream as representing her

ai
A profound belief in the healing power of dreams.

tm
B refusal to face the reality of her son’s condition.
na 09 HI
re 9
C deep yearning for something that will never happen.
ho
27 4- MO

D failure to fully understand her son’s influence on her life.

bl B AD

72 The mother finds the dream

D AM

A uplifting.
ue : 1

B perplexing.
C deeply disturbing.
H

D temporarily consoling.
O

73 Which one of the following best describes the mother’s attitude to caring for her son?
She feels
A committed but overwhelmed.
B dispassionate and quite calm.
C bewildered and unable to cope.
D sometimes irritated but mostly positive.

74 The mother regards the dream as offering her some form of

A hope.
B relief.
C inspiration.
D perspective.

27
27
Section 2
Section 2

Questions 75 − 80

Steve and Madeline are in their early 30s and have been married for three years. They have a
large mortgage and have borrowed heavily from Madeline’s parents. Here they are discussing their
finances.

Steve: I really hate it when you say we can’t afford to go out with our friends. It’s not as 1
if we go to fancy places and spend heaps of money. We have to have some fun in
our lives.

Madeline: It’s all very well for you to say we don’t spend a lot of money on going out, but 2

om
N
that’s money we’re not paying back to my parents.

@ 5 DI
Steve: Look Madeline, do you know how sick and tired I am with you going on and on 3

l.c
about how much we owe your parents? They’ve got heaps of money and were only
tu -19 UD
too happy to lend it to us.

ai
Madeline: That’s not the point, Steve. My parents worked hard for their money. They both 4

tm
na 09 HI

worked 12 to 14 hours a day. I want to repay them as soon as possible.

re 9
Steve: ho
Sorry Madeline. I’m not some sort of machine who can just work, work, work. I 5
27 4- MO

want a life. I value our friends and want to relax and have fun.

Madeline: How can you have that attitude when we owe them so much? It’s so embarrassing 6
for me to tell them we have been going out so much.
bl B AD

Steve: I can’t believe I’m hearing this. We only go out once a week, if that. That’s not 7
D AM

much. Before I met you I was out all weekend and some week nights too.
ue : 1

Madeline: But now that you are married you have other responsibilities. Especially to my 8
H

parents. When are we ever going to afford to be able to have a baby?

O

Steve: Look, we are just arguing in circles. Your parents’ money, having a baby. What 9
about what I want?

75 In Comment 5, Steve’s main point is that

A Madeline does not appreciate his work.
B Madeline’s expectations are too demanding.
C Madeline should recognise that he is already exhausted from working so hard.
D Madeline should recognise that it is impossible to juggle both work and leisure activities.

76 Madeline’s main reason for mentioning her parents’ work ethic is to

A strengthen Steve’s relationship with them.
B convince Steve that his own attitude is misguided.
C emphasise her pride in her parents’ financial status.
D help Steve overcome his personal sense of inadequacy.

28
28
 Section
Section 22

77 Overall, how does Steve seem to feel about Madeline’s concerns?

A resentful
B chastened
C indifferent
D sympathetic

om
N
@ 5 DI

l.c
78 In what way does Steve view Madeline’s attitude as unreasonable?
A
tu -19 UD
Madeline is using her family against him.

ai
B Madeline is trying to dictate how he should live his life.

tm
C Madeline is not prepared to make the same sacrifices herself.
na 09 HI

D Madeline is not making enough effort to socialise with his friends.

re 9
ho
27 4- MO
bl B AD

79 For Madeline and Steve, the issue of the borrowed money appears to be
A a point of on-going tension.
D AM

B an unfamiliar issue in their relationship.

ue : 1

C a relatively minor issue in their relationship.

D something they have made some progress towards solving.
H
O

80 How would Madeline most likely react to Steve’s final comment?

She would
A agree to disagree.
B be hurt and offended.
C be grateful for his honesty.
D accept blame and apologise.

END OF SECTION 2

29
29
Section 3
Section 3

SECTION 3 Non-verbal Reasoning Questions 81 − 110

Questions 81 − 92 Next in the Series

For each of the following items, select the alternative (A, B, C, D or E) that most logically and simply continues
the series.

81

om
N
?

@ 5 DI

l.c
tu -19 UD

ai
tm
na 09 HI
re 9
ho
27 4- MO

A B C D E
bl B AD

82
D AM
ue : 1

?
H
O

A B C D E

83

A B C D E

30
30
 Section
Section 3
3

84

om
N
?

@ 5 DI

l.c
tu -19 UD

ai
tm
na 09 HI
re 9
ho
27 4- MO

A B C D E
bl B AD

85
D AM
ue : 1

?
H
O

A B C D E

86
2 3 6 4 6 9 12 8

5 10 15 20
?

15 10 10 15 15 10 9 15 15 9

25 25 20 26 26

A B C D E

31
31
Section 3
Section 3

87 5 1 3 –1 4 0 2 –2

4 2 3 1
?

3 2 3 –1 2 8 2 –2 2 –2

om
–1

N
2 1 2 2

@ 5 DI
A B C D E

l.c
tu -19 UD

ai
tm
na 09 HI
re 9
ho
27 4- MO

88

?
bl B AD
D AM
ue : 1
H
O

A B C D E

89

A B C D E

32
32
 92
91
90
H

A
D AM
O
bl B AD

B
ue : 1

B
27 4- MO
na 09 HI
tu -19 UD C

33
33
re 9

C
@ 5 DI
ho N
tm
D

D
ai
l.c
om
?

?
E

E
?
Section 3
Section 3
Section 3
Section 3

Questions 93 − 100 Missing Segment

For each of the following items, select the alternative (A, B, C, D or E) that most logically and simply completes
the picture.

A C E
93

om
N
?

@ 5 DI
B D

l.c
tu -19 UD

ai
tm
na 09 HI
re 9
ho
27 4- MO
bl B AD

94 A C E
D AM
ue : 1
H

?
O

B D

95 A C E

B D

34
34
 98
97
96
H
D AM

?
O
bl B AD
ue : 1

?
27 4- MO
na 09 HI
tu -19 UD
B
A

B
A

35
35
re 9

B
@ 5 DI
ho N
tm
D
C

D
C
ai
l.c
om
E

E
Section 3
Section 3
 99

100
H
Section

D AM
Section 3
3

?
bl B AD

?
ue : 1
27 4- MO
na 09 HI
B
A

tu -19 UD

36
36
re 9

B
@ 5 DI
ho N
tm
D
C

D
C

ai
l.c
om
E
E
 Section
Section 3
3
Questions 101 − 110 Middle of the Sequence
For each of the following items, reorder the five figures to form the simplest and most logical sequence possible.
Then, select the alternative (A, B, C, D or E) that is in the middle of the sequence.

101

om
N
A B C D E

@ 5 DI

l.c
tu -19 UD

ai
102

tm
na 09 HI
re 9
ho
27 4- MO

A B C D E
bl B AD
D AM
ue : 1

103
H
O

A B C D E

104

A B C D E

105

A B C D E

37
37
Section 3
Section 3

106

A B C D E

107

om
N
@ 5 DI

l.c
A B
tu -19 UD C D E

ai
tm
na 09 HI
re 9
ho
27 4- MO

108
bl B AD

A B C D E
D AM
ue : 1
H
O

109

A B C D E

110

A B C D E

END OF PRACTICE TEST

38
38
 H
D AM
O
bl B AD
ue : 1
27 4- MO
na 09 HI
tu -19 UD

39
39
re 9
@ 5 DI
ho N
tm
ai
l.c
om
 ACER thanks rights holders who have kindly granted permission to reproduce the
material cited below. Every effort has been made to trace and acknowledge copyright.
However, should any infringement have occurred, ACER tenders its apology
and invites copyright owners to contact ACER at <permissions@acer.edu.au>.

om
N
@ 5 DI

l.c
tu -19 UD

ai
ACKNOWLEDGMENTS: P. 18: Lois Ruskai Melina, Making Sense of Adoption,
published by William Morrow Paperbacks, New York, 1989. Used with kind permission

tm
of the author; p. 19: Adapted from Young-Mason, Jeanine (1997). The Patient’s Voice:
na 09 HI
re 9
Experiences of Illness. F.A. Davis Company, Philadelphia, PA with permission; p. 20:
ho
27 4- MO

Reproduced with permission of Curtis Brown Group Ltd, London on behalf of O. W.

Toad. Copyright © Margaret Atwood 1988; p. 22: Extract from Cry of the Damaged
Man by Tony Moore reprinted by permission of Pan Macmillan Australia Pty Ltd.
Copyright © Tony Moore 1992; p. 24: Reproduced from © Blake Morrison 1993
bl B AD

by permission of United Agents Ltd. (www.unitedagents.co.uk) on behalf of Blake

Morrison; p. 26: Used with kind permission of UnitingCare Community: http://
uccommunity.org.au; p. 27: Elizabeth J. Bruce and Cynthia L. Schultz, Through Loss,
D AM
ue : 1

2004, Melbourne, page 37. Reproduced by permission of the Australian Council for
Educational Research.
H
O

41
40
 ANSWERS

Section 1

1 C 12 C 23 A 34 A
2 B 13 D 24 A 35 C
3 A 14 A 25 D 36 D

om
N
4 A 15 C 26 B 37 A

@ 5 DI
5 B 16 C 27 C 38 C

l.c
6 D 17 D 28 D 39 C
7 B 18
tu -19 UD
A 29 B 40 B

ai
8 B 19 C 30 D 41 B

tm
9 D 20 A 31 B 42 B
na 09 HI
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10 B 21 C 32 C 43 D
ho
27 4- MO

11 A 22 C 33 B 44 A
bl B AD

Section 2
D AM
ue : 1

45 B 54 C 63 A 72 D
H

46 C 55 D 64 D 73 A
O

47 D 56 D 65 D 74 B
48 B 57 A 66 C 75 B
49 A 58 C 67 A 76 B
50 D 59 B 68 A 77 A
51 B 60 C 69 A 78 B
52 B 61 C 70 C 79 A
53 D 62 D 71 C 80 B

Section 3

81 D 89 A 97 D 105 C
82 D 90 D 98 B 106 E
83 B 91 B 99 C 107 A
84 C 92 A 100 A 108 E
85 E 93 C 101 E 109 E
86 B 94 C 102 D 110 D
87 B 95 C 103 E
88 E 96 B 104 D

42
41
WORKED ANSWERS – SECTION 1
Section 1 is based on ideas about problem solving and critical thinking as key processes in making rational
decisions. The section considers elements of these reasoning processes, such as the ability to identify the problem
and relevant information; to comprehend, analyse, select, transform, synthesise and evaluate information; to
generate and test hypotheses and solutions; and to draw conclusions. Working memory is often important.

The questions have a common general reasoning focus and employ both text-based and text-free reasoning and
both inductive and deductive reasoning. Questions are based on information that is generally non-medical and
non-technical. No curriculum-specific knowledge is required (beyond basic literacy and numeracy) to understand
the materials and to arrive at the correct answers. However, non-specialist scientific contexts may be used and the

om
application of commonsense, everyday scientific methodology is expected.

N
@ 5 DI
Question 1 ups with 9 hours of darkness but not in the set-up with

l.c
tu -19 UD 10 hours of darkness. This suggests that more than 14
A Incorrect hours of light is not, at least by itself, the trigger.

ai
Pulses are defined as edible legumes. Legumes are
defined, in part, as plants that bear their seeds in pods. D Incorrect

tm
There was only one set-up with less than 15 hours of
na 09 HI

Thus, all pulses bear their seeds in pods.

re 9
light, and spangled snapdragons did not flower under
B Incorrect ho
27 4- MO

these conditions.
Legumes are defined, in part, as plants that have
nodules on their roots. Thus, because lentils are edible Question 3
legumes, lentils do have nodules on their roots.
In this question, it can help to recognise that options B,
bl B AD

C Correct C and D are essentially equivalent.

Clover has the characteristics of legumes (seeds in rows
A Correct
D AM

in pods and nodules inhabited by nitrogen-converting

ue : 1

It is known that the boy and the girl support different

bacteria), but is not a pulse as it is not generally
teams. As they claim support for different teams, either
considered edible.
H

both are telling the truth or both are lying (if only one
O

D Incorrect of them is lying, their claims would mean that both

Clover is a legume, and thus has bacteria that convert
nitrogen from the atmosphere. There is no information
about whether clover also removes nitrogen from the
soil, nor whether clover could be considered ‘valuable’.
Question 2
In this question, it is important to recognise that not all
set-ups are for a 24-hour light–dark cycle, allowing the
hours of light and the hours of darkness to be varied
independently.
A Incorrect
In two of the set-ups there were 10 hours of darkness.
Spangled snapdragons did not flower in either of them.
B Correct
In two of the set-ups there were 9 hours of darkness.
Spangled snapdragons flowered in both of them despite
different periods of light, so it can be concluded
that these conditions may have been the trigger for
flowering. When compared to the other options, this is
the most likely trigger.
C Incorrect
In three of the set-ups there were more than 14 hours
of light. Spangled snapdragons flowered in the two set-
support the same team). It is known that at least one of
them is lying. Thus, they must both be lying.
B Incorrect
If the boy is not lying, then the girl must be lying, as
it is known that at least one person is lying. However,
if the boy is telling the truth and the girl is lying, both
the boy and the girl would support the same team – the
Panthers. This is not possible, as it is known that they
support different teams.
C Incorrect
If the girl supports the Demons, then she is telling the
truth. If she is telling the truth, then the boy must be
lying as it is known that at least one person is lying.
However, this would mean that the boy must also
support the Demons. This is not possible, as it is known
that they support different teams.
D Incorrect
If the girl is telling the truth, then the boy is lying, as
it is known that at least one person is lying. However,
if the girl is telling the truth, both the boy and the girl
would support the same team – the Demons. This is
not possible, as it is known that they support different
teams.

43
42
Question 4
A Correct
To determine the percentage of people who attend
church at least 52 times per year, the percentages of
people who attend ‘every week’, ‘several times a week’
or ‘every day’ are added (13.2%). The percentage of
people who attend church 48 or 50 times per year best
equates to ‘nearly every week’ (4.7%); ‘two or three
times a month’ equates to only 24–36 times per year.
B Incorrect
om
N
The proportion who attend church ‘once every three or
@ 5 DI
four years’ cannot be determined from the data given.
l.c
The ‘less than once a year’ category would include
tu -19 UD
people who attend once every three or four years, but
ai
would further include people who attend more or less
tm
often than this.
na 09 HI
re 9
C Incorrect
ho
27 4- MO
The percentage of people (and therefore the number)
who attend church just a few times a year best equates
to either ‘once or twice a year’ (15.9%) or ‘several
times a year’ (9.0%), both of which are more than the
bl B AD
percentage who attend ‘about once a month’ (2.6%).
D Incorrect
D AM
ue : 1
The proportion (and therefore the number) of people
who attend church once every few years must be
included in ‘less than once a year’ (17.4%), and the
H
proportion who attend more than three times a year
O
comprises categories in the table from ‘several times a
year’ down (total 33.2%). The former is less than the
latter.
Question 5
To compare proportions in the three glasses, it is useful
to consider both larger glasses as holding, say, 100 mL,
while the smaller glass holds 50 mL.
A Incorrect
If X is the small glass, when half of the water from
X (12.5 mL) is poured into Y, Y will contain 50 +
12.5 = 62.5 mL. When half of this water (31.25 mL)
is poured into Z, Z will contain 81.25 mL. As half of
this water (40.625 mL) is poured back into X (which
now contains 12.5 mL), X will overflow its maximum
capacity of 50 mL.
B Correct
If Y is the small glass, when half of the water from X
(25 mL) is poured into Y, Y will be completely full (50
mL). When half of this water (25 mL) is poured into
Z, Z will contain 75 mL. When half of this (37.5 mL)
is poured back into X (which now contains 25 mL), X
will contain 37.5 + 25 = 62.5 mL. Thus, the operations
can be completed without any glass overflowing.
44
43
C Incorrect
If Z is the small glass, when half of the water from X
(25 mL) is poured into Y, Y will contain 50 + 25 = 75
mL. When half of this water (37.5 mL) is poured into
Z (which already contains 25 mL), Z will exceed its 50
mL capacity and overflow.
D Incorrect
The operations can be completed without spilling any
water, as detailed in B.
Question 6
A Incorrect
If proglumide causes pain, people given proglumide
should experience greater pain than people in the
control group. As there was no difference in the
intensity of pain experienced by these two groups, it
suggests that proglumide does not cause pain.
B Incorrect
If proglumide causes anxiety, people given proglumide
should experience greater anxiety than people in
the control group. As there was no difference in the
intensity of anxiety experienced by these two groups, it
suggests that proglumide does not cause anxiety.
C Incorrect
Since A and B are both incorrect, C must also be
incorrect.
D Correct
As the intensity of both pain and anxiety was the
same for the people given proglumide and the people
subjected to the control, it suggests that, on its own,
proglumide causes neither pain nor anxiety.
Question 7
In this question, it is important to recognise that there
is no information given on other types of cancers,
other types of cancer deaths, or about what proportion
of all cancers are skin cancers. The first graph shows
the proportion of all skin cancers that are melanoma.
The second graph shows the proportion of all deaths
from skin cancers that are due to melanoma.
A Incorrect
The two diagrams provide no information on cancers
other than skin cancers.
B Correct
The first graph shows that melanoma makes up less
than 10% of all skin cancers. The second graph shows
that about 80% of skin cancer deaths are due to
melanoma.
C Incorrect
The two diagrams provide no information on the
number of deaths due to melanoma, or about the total
number of cancer deaths.
D Incorrect
This statement is the opposite of what could be
concluded from the diagrams, which show that deaths
due to melanoma are about four times more common
than deaths due to other types of skin cancer.
Question 8
The question shows a schematic diagram of a portion
B Incorrect
The increase in the number of single-mother families
was faster, not slower, in the five years after 1986 than
in the five years before. Between 1981 and 1986, the
increase was approximately 110 000. Between 1986
and 1991, the increase was approximately 220 000.
C Incorrect
The graph indicates there was approximately five
times the number of families raised by single mothers.
As with A, no conclusions can be made regarding the

om
N
of the solar system. The relative positions of Earth and number of children in these families.
Mars are shown at different times during their orbits

@ 5 DI
D Correct
around the Sun. The straight lines drawn from Earth

l.c
The graph indicates that throughout the period from
to Mars show the position of Mars as seen from Earth.
tu -19 UD 1991 to 1992, the number of families raised by
This apparent motion of Mars from Earth is then

ai
divorced mothers (approximately 430 000) was less
traced out at the top of the diagram. This question can than the number of families raised by single mothers

tm
be answered on the basis of the information provided
na 09 HI

(between 450 000 and 500 000).

re 9
– prior knowledge of the phenomenon described is not
ho
27 4- MO

required. Question 10
A Incorrect In this question, it is important to recognise that
The diagram shows that both Earth and Mars orbit the ‘proved innocent’ indicates that DNA evidence is, in
Sun. Mars does not orbit Earth, in either a regular or this context, taken to be definitive.
bl B AD

irregular orbit.
A Incorrect
B Correct No information is provided on the accuracy of DNA
D AM
ue : 1

‘Apparent motion’ needs to be equated to ‘appears testing, although ‘proved innocent’ suggests that it is
to move’. ‘Irregularly’ needs to be equated to the considered to be definitive.
H

apparent zigzag motion.

B Correct
O

C Incorrect If the DNA evidence is taken as proof, it follows that

The wording of this option is somewhat ambiguous. the eye-witnesses must have been unreliable.
The pattern ‘decreases then increases’ is true for the
C Incorrect
part of the orbit shown, but the diagram does not
There is no information provided that suggests
provide information on the rest of the orbit. However,
DNA testing should be restricted to confirming or
as Mars and Earth are orbiting at different rates,
denying eye-witness accounts. Indeed, in 4 of the 28
the change in distance will not always follow this
cases, DNA testing proved the innocence of people
‘increase then decrease’ pattern, but it is not possible
found guilty despite not having positive eye-witness
to determine the relationship in any more detail. Given
identification, suggesting DNA testing should be used
these uncertainties, B is a better answer.
more broadly.
D Incorrect
D Incorrect
Although Mars has an orbit that is further from the
The information provided only refers to proving
Sun than Earth, it is apparent from the diagram that
innocence of people initially found guilty after positive
Earth has a faster orbit than Mars.
identification by eye-witnesses. The proof of guilt by
DNA testing is not addressed.
Question 9
In this question, it is important to recognise that the Question 11
scale on the horizontal axis is not completely regular.
In this question, it is important to recognise that there
A Incorrect are equal numbers of men and women in the given
The graph indicates that there were approximately population.
400 000 families raised by divorced mothers with at
A Correct
least one child under 16. It does not indicate how many
Of the 10 out of every 100 people (10%) who do not
children were in those families.
like bullfighting, 7 are women and, therefore, 3 are

45
44
men. As 50 out of 100 people on Islandia are men, 3
out of 50 men do not like bullfighting.
B Incorrect
This proportion would be most likely obtained by
mistakenly subtracting 3 from 50 in the ‘3 out of 50’
in A.
C Incorrect
This answer would be most likely obtained by
assuming that because 7 out of 10 people who do not
like bullfighting are women, 7 out of 10 women do not
menopause has remained constant, women are now
living longer after menopause than they did in the
1850s.
D Correct
As menarche is now at a younger age and the age of
menopause has remained constant, the interval during
which women can conceive children is now longer
than it was in the 1850s.
Question 14

om
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like bullfighting. The two are not equivalent. In this question, it is important to recognise that there
is a distinction between contributions to sea-level rise

@ 5 DI
D Incorrect by all mountain glaciers and by just the Patagonian

l.c
This proportion would be most likely obtained by
tu -19 UD glaciers.
mistakenly conflating elements of each of the other

ai
options. A Correct
The average loss of ice from the Patagonian glaciers

tm
na 09 HI

Question 12 during 1995–2000 was equivalent to a sea-level rise of

re 9
0.5 mm (0.1 mm/year for five years). In the 20 years
ho
In this question, the key is to recognise that
27 4- MO

from 1975 to 1995, ice equivalent to a sea-level rise of

the statements refer to each other and that the
0.5 mm was lost. Thus, the average over this 20-year
consequences of one of them being true need to be
period was 0.025 mm/year, one-quarter of the rate
followed through to see if a contradiction arises.
during 1995–2000.
bl B AD

A Incorrect
B Incorrect
A logical contradiction – I cannot be true as it states
As shown in A, the average ice loss during 1975–1995
D AM
ue : 1

that none of the statements (and therefore itself) are

was equivalent to a sea-level rise of 0.025 mm/year.
true.
C Incorrect
H

B Incorrect
The Patagonian glaciers only contributed to a sea-level
O

If II were true, then I must be true, which is shown

above to be impossible. Further, if II were true, it
would provide another contradiction to I.
C Correct
It is shown above that II is false. Therefore, III is true.
Further, if II is false, it follows that I is also false,
which is also shown above. As it is given that only one
statement is true, IV must be false, which is the case if
III is true.
D Incorrect
If IV were true, then III must be false. If III is false,
then II (and therefore I) must be true. But it is shown
above that II cannot be true.
Question 13
A Incorrect
No information is provided on the likelihood of
conception.
B Incorrect
No information is provided on the number of children
women are having during their fertile years.
C Incorrect
As life expectancy has increased but the age of
rise of about 1.0 mm during 1975–2000. This accounts
for about 10% of the global sea-level rise caused by
melting mountain glaciers. Thus, the total sea-level
rise over the 25-year period was about 10 mm, or about
0.4 mm/year.
D Incorrect
The average rate of 0.1 mm/year was for 1995–2000
only. The average rate over the 25-year period was
about 0.04 mm/year.
Question 15
A Incorrect
To determine the effectiveness of hand-washing it
is necessary to also consider the number of micro-
organisms transferred when hands are not washed, i.e.
a control. This information is not provided.
B Incorrect
As with A, no conclusion can be made concerning the
effect of washing hands compared with not washing
them.
C Correct
The information required to make this comparison is
provided: wet hands transmitted many more micro-

46
45
organisms (60 000) than hands that were dry (200),
indicating that moisture assists in the transfer of
micro-organisms.
D Incorrect
The information shows that even dry hands transmit
micro-organisms, albeit fewer than wet hands.
Question 16
A Incorrect
It is clear that the addition of a third property had an
breakdown of cholesterol, but there is no indication
that acetone, from garlic or elsewhere, interacts with
cholesterol to cause the breakdown of sulfides.
C Incorrect
There is no information provided to determine the rate
at which the acetone ingested from the garlic breaks
down. This option could be selected if the 5 parts per
million in the breath is misread/misunderstood as half
of the 10 parts per million in crushed garlic.
D Correct

om
N
effect, but it is not evident that the effect was mere Of the four options this is the only one that is

@ 5 DI
confusion, as the introduction of the third property consistent with the information provided. Most sulfides

l.c
resulted in an increase in the proportion selecting Q in the breath decline relatively soon after eating garlic,
tu -19 UD
over P, while none selected R. but the levels of two sulfides are high after more than

ai
a day. This is consistent with the possibility that some
B Incorrect
sulfides come directly from the consumed garlic, while

tm
People may have chosen Q over R due to its proximity
na 09 HI

others are a by-product of digestion.

to work, but they would also have chosen P over R.
re 9
ho
And therefore the choice is really between P and Q
27 4- MO

Question 18
as in the original scenario. The hypothesis needs to
In this question, it is important to understand the
account for the change in the proportion of people
proposition that a tree experiences more force on the
selecting P and Q after the introduction of R.
side with more foliage, due to the greater surface area
bl B AD

C Correct available to the wind. It is also important to recognise

This is the best explanation available. People chose that a corollary of the Sun being in the southern sky
D AM
ue : 1

equally between P and Q, when these were the only in the northern hemisphere is that the Sun is in the
options, presumably depending on whether they northern sky in the southern hemisphere.
most valued price or proximity to work. However,
H

comparing the three properties, P, Q and R, is more A Correct

O

difficult. Some people therefore restricted their Trees in the northern hemisphere would have more
comparison to the much simpler Q versus R, and foliage on their south side. Therefore, the force of
always chose Q as it is better on both proximity northerly winds would be spread evenly across the
and price. The remainder of the people made the tree, rather than being exerted mostly on one side.
comparison between all three properties, rejected R as
B Incorrect
the worst option and, as in the initial scenario, chose
Trees in the southern hemisphere experiencing easterly
equally between Q and P. The overall result was an
winds would have trunks twisted anti-clockwise.
apparent preference for Q.
C Incorrect
D Incorrect
Trees in the northern hemisphere experiencing easterly
No information is provided on relative transport costs.
winds would have trunks twisted clockwise.
Even if true, it simply reinforces that R is a poor
choice and therefore does not account for the change D Incorrect
in proportions choosing P and Q. Trees in the southern hemisphere experiencing
northerly winds would not have twisted trunks.
Question 17
Questions 19 – 21
A Incorrect
Understanding basic scientific methodology is
The ingested garlic could produce, at most, 10 parts
important in answering these questions.
per billion of acetone, yet the level in the breath is 500
times greater. The acetone must be produced by some Question 19
other mechanism.
A Incorrect
B Incorrect
The suffix in the word ‘hypercholesterolaemic’
This option is a conflation of different ideas in the
indicates that such a person has too much cholesterol
information provided. Acetone can be produced by the
in their blood, but it makes no reference to diet. No

47
46
other information provided suggests that this could be it is not possible to make any conclusion regarding the
the implied meaning. effectiveness of sterols over time.
B Incorrect C Correct
Blood pressure is not mentioned in the information Study I found no significant difference in LDL
given. reduction at three different levels of sterol
consumption, i.e. the minimum dose of sterols had
C Correct
as much effect as the maximum dose. Study II used a
The word ‘hypercholesterolaemic’, when broken down
different level of sterols to those used in Study I, but
into its constituent parts, refers to ‘elevated/excessive’,
its effect on LDL reduction was similar to that seen in
‘cholesterol’ and ‘blood’.
Study I.

om
N
D Incorrect
D Incorrect
This is a conflation of different ideas from the

@ 5 DI
If Study II (foods other than spreads), compared
information given. ‘Hyper’ refers to increased,

l.c
to Study I (spreads only), showed a significant
not lowered, levels; and ‘sterols’, as opposed to
tu -19 UD increase in the average reduction in LDL levels,
‘cholesterol’, are not referred to in the constituent

ai
then this would be a valid inference. However, the
parts of the word. No other information provided
percentage reductions were very similar in the two

tm
suggests that this could be the implied meaning.
na 09 HI

studies, suggesting that adding sterols to foods other

re 9
Question 20 than spreads does not increase their effectiveness at
ho
27 4- MO

lowering LDL.
A Correct
Giving a placebo to a control group is usual Questions 22 and 23
experiment methodology. Here it is necessary in order These questions require candidates to understand
bl B AD

to make conclusions regarding the effectiveness of the and apply two ‘rules’ proposed by psychologists that
different amounts of sterols. children could be using to predict the movement
D AM
ue : 1

of a balance. The candidates must view the six

B Incorrect
balance problems from the children’s perspective and
A placebo, rather than nothing at all, is generally given
compare this to what would happen in reality (neither
H

to control groups, in order to control for any effects

rule accurately predicts all possible situations).
O

(psychological or otherwise) of the treatment process

itself.
C Incorrect
This cannot be determined. All that is stated is
that participants in the study had normal levels of
cholesterol or mild hypercholesterolaemia. If the study
was well-designed, all groups would comprise both
types of people.
D Incorrect
It is clearly stated that ‘There was no significant
reduction in LDL in the control group’.
Understanding what would happen in reality requires
no specialised knowledge.
Question 22
C Correct
Applying Rule 1, the following would be predicted:
I As there is the same number of weights on both
sides, the child would predict no movement.
This is correct, even when weight distribution is
considered.

II As there are more weights on the right, the child

Question 21
A Incorrect
The opposite is true. Although Study II consisted
entirely of hypercholesterolaemic people, Study I
was made up of some people with normal cholesterol
levels. These people also experienced a reduction in
their levels of LDL.
B Incorrect
Neither study varied the length of time sterols were
taken and both studies were of similar duration. Thus,
would predict movement down on the right. This
is incorrect; the weight distribution would result in
no movement.
III As there is the same number of weights on both
sides, the child would predict no movement. This
is incorrect; the weight distribution would result in
movement down on the right.
IV As there are more weights on the right, the child
would predict movement down on the right. This
is incorrect; the weight distribution would result in
movement down on the left.

48
47
V As there are more weights on the right, the child early years, since there are no other children to divide
would predict movement down on the right. attention. Thus, early undivided attention is a possible
This is correct, even when weight distribution is explanation for the over-representation of only-
considered. children and first-born children among politicians.

VI As there are more weights on the right, the child B Incorrect

would predict movement down on the right.
This is correct, even when weight distribution is
considered.
Thus, the child would correctly predict the movement
As explained in A, first-born children are apparently
more likely to take up a career in politics. In general,
first-born children would have more experience at
giving orders to younger siblings and such experience
may help explain the over-representation of first-born

om
for three of the balance problems – I, V and VI.

N
children among politicians. However, middle-born
children would also have such experience and yet

@ 5 DI
Question 23 are not similarly over-represented. This factor also

l.c
tu -19 UD does not account for the over-representation of only-
A Correct
children among politicians, because they lack such

ai
As the number of weights on each side is different,
experience. Thus, this factor is, at best, only a partial
the child would make the same prediction as a child

tm
explanation of the survey results.
na 09 HI

using Rule 1; that is, both would (incorrectly) predict

re 9
movement down on the right (see Question 22). C Incorrect
ho
27 4- MO

The opposite of A. Only-children and first-born

B Incorrect
children appear more likely to become politicians, not
As the number of weights on each side is the same,
less likely.
this is what a child using Rule I would predict (see
bl B AD

Question 22). However, a child using Rule II would D Incorrect

take the weight distribution into account and predict The opposite of B. First-born children appear more
(correctly) that the balance would move down on the likely to become politicians, not less likely.
D AM
ue : 1

right.
Question 25
C Incorrect
H

This is what would happen in reality. However, as the This question requires the determination of
O

number of weights on each side is different, a child
using Rule II would (incorrectly) predict the same
as a child using Rule I; that is, both would predict
movement down on the right (see Question 22).
D Incorrect
As the number of weights on each side is different,
the child would make the same prediction as a child
using Rule 1 (see Question 22); that is, both would
(correctly) predict movement down on the right (see
Question 22).
Questions 24 – 28
These questions require some assumptions about
the likely childhood environment experienced by
politicians in the different categories: only-children,
first-born, middle-born and last-born children.
Question 24
A Correct
The finding that only-children and first-born children
are over-represented among politicians suggests these
groups are more likely to take up a career in politics.
In general, only-children and first-born children do
receive undivided attention from their parents in their
hypothetical results that support a particular hypothesis
about the over-representation of the various groups
among politicians. The hypothesis is different to that
most strongly supported by the actual results (see
Question 24).
It can be assumed that first-born children have the
most experience of giving orders to younger siblings,
and last-born and only-children would not have such
experience. Middle-born children would presumably
have some such experience. Thus, if giving orders
increases the likelihood of becoming a politician, it
would be expected that first-born children would be
over-represented amongst politicians and last-born and
only-children would be under-represented. It is not
clear how the limited experience of middle-children
in giving orders to younger siblings affects their
likelihood of becoming a politician, and thus no firm
predictions can be made for this category.
A Incorrect
This is consistent with expectations for first-born and
only-children. But there are no clear expectations for
middle-born.
B Incorrect
The opposite is expected for only-children.

49
48
C Incorrect
The opposite is expected for only-children and first-
born children.
D Correct
The hypothetical results given here for first-born,
last-born and only children are all consistent with
expectations if giving orders to younger siblings
increases the likelihood of becoming a politician.
Question 26
The term ‘last-born’ implies that there are older
children in the family. A family with two children has a
first-born and a last-born. Families with more children
will have a
first-born, one or more middle-born, and a last-born,
but two children is sufficient to give ‘last-born’
meaning.
D Incorrect
While a family of three children does have a last-born,
it is not necessary to assume that last-born children are

om
N
An appropriate title should highlight the main from families with at least three children.
conclusion of the study and should not be misleading

@ 5 DI
in any way. Question 28

l.c
tu -19 UD This question is similar to Question 25. The difference
A Incorrect here is that the hypothetical conclusion is to be

ai
First-born children are over-represented amongst supported by a subset of the actual results. Specifically,

tm
politicians, but so are only-children. Without knowing the results for just two categories, when considered
na 09 HI

what proportion of politicians come from these two

re 9
in isolation from the other results, should support
categories and how this compares to the general
ho
27 4- MO

the proposition that giving orders to younger siblings

population, it is not possible to determine whether they increases the likelihood of becoming a politician.
are in fact more likely, as a group, to have younger
siblings. It can be assumed that first-born children have the
most experience of giving orders to younger siblings,
bl B AD

B Correct middle-born children have some experience, and last-

The results clearly suggest that birth order influences born and only-children no such experience.
D AM

the likelihood of a career in politics.

ue : 1

Thus, if giving orders influences the likelihood of

C Incorrect becoming a politician, it would be expected that first-
H

The size of families is not mentioned, except in the born children would be over-represented amongst
O

case of only-children. Although it may be true that
only-children (= small families) are more likely to
become politicians, this title does not account for the
increased likelihood of first-born children (= any size
families) becoming politicians.
D Incorrect
No conclusion can be made about the likelihood of
entering politics compared with other careers. The fact
that politicians are more likely to be only-children or
first-born does not necessarily mean that such children
are more likely to enter politics than other careers.
Question 27
This question asks what ‘last-born children’ means.
The key here is recognising what ‘last’ implies. It is
also necessary to recognise that the categories given
cannot overlap.
A Incorrect
The categories ‘last-born’ and ‘only-children’ cannot
overlap.
B Incorrect
See A.
C Correct
politicians and last-born and only-children would
be under-represented. It is not clear how the limited
experience of middle-children in giving orders to
younger siblings affects their likelihood of becoming a
politician.
A Incorrect
In the actual results of the survey, first-born are over-
represented (consistent with expectations) and only-
children are also over-represented (inconsistent).
B Incorrect
In the actual results of the survey, last-born are under-
represented (consistent) and middle-born are also
under-represented (expectation not certain).
C Incorrect
In the actual results of the survey, first-born are over-
represented (consistent) but middle-born are under-
represented (expectation not certain).
D Correct
In the actual results of the survey, first-born are
over-represented (consistent) and last-born are under-
represented (consistent).

50
49
Questions 29 – 34
In these questions, it is not generally necessary to
apply the rules; the questions can be answered by
correctly interpreting the second figure.
Question 29
B Correct
Interpreting the second figure, the three arrangements
in which all discs are on a single peg are represented
at the three corners of the figure, [AAA], [BBB] and
om
[CCC]. From each of these arrangements, two others
N
can be achieved on the next move. Reasoning from the
@ 5 DI
rules, when all discs are on the same peg the topmost
l.c
disc can move to either of the two empty pegs, i.e. two
tu -19 UD
different arrangements can be achieved on the next
ai
move.
tm
na 09 HI
Question 30
re 9
ho
27 4- MO
D Correct
Each link in Figure 2 represents a single move.
Following the quickest ‘route’ (a straight line) from
[AAA] to [CCC] requires seven moves. The first
bl B AD
letter in each sequence indicates the peg on which the
smallest disc sits. Following the straight line, the first
D AM
letter is [A], [C], [C], [B], [B], [A], [A], [C]. Thus,
ue : 1
the smallest disc moves four times. Any other route
requires more moves of the smallest disc.
H
O
Question 31
B Correct
The one factor common to all three bold links is that
the third letter in a sequence changes. The third letter
does not change in any other links between sequences.
As the third letter represents the largest disc, the bold
links indicate the only moves that involve the largest
disc.
Question 32
C Correct
A disc cannot sit on top of one smaller than itself.
Therefore, peg A can only have the smallest disc on
top of the largest [A-A], the smallest on top of the
middle-sized [AA-], or the middle-sized on top of the
largest [-AA].
Question 33
Moving all discs from one peg to another is
represented in Figure 2 by moving from one corner
to another. The fewest moves required is seven, i.e. a
straight line from one corner to another.
B Correct
To follow the sequence of moves directly from one
51
50
corner to another, the first move is of the smallest disc
to the peg on which the three discs will finally sit, e.g.
moving from [CCC] to [AAA]. The first move should
therefore be [CAA]. This is true no matter which peg
the three discs start or end on.
Question 34
This question requires candidates to extend the rules
to a fourth disc. Note that the task is to select the
incorrect option, i.e. three of the options given can be
achieved on the next move.
A Correct
The sequence changes from [ABCC] to [AACC]. This
represents the second-smallest disc moving from Peg
B to Peg A. However, Peg A already has the smallest
disc on it. This move violates rule 2. None of the other
options violate this rule.
B Incorrect
The sequence changes from [ABCC] to [ACCC]. This
represents the second-smallest disc moving from Peg
B to Peg C, to sit on top of the third-smallest disc. This
move is allowed.
C Incorrect
The sequence changes from [ABCC] to [BBCC]. This
represents the smallest disc moving from Peg A to Peg
B, to sit on top of the second-smallest disc. This move
is allowed.
D Incorrect
The sequence changes from [ABCC] to [CBCC]. This
represents the smallest disc moving from Peg A to Peg
C, to sit on top of the third-smallest disc. This move is
allowed.
Questions 35 – 38
In these questions, it is important to recognise that the
women represented in one age group in one decade are
in an older age group in the next decade.
Question 35
C Correct
In 1970, 36% of the women aged 20–24 had never
married. Ten years later, in 1980, these women were
aged 30–34, and 11% of the cohort had never married.
Thus, 25% of the cohort married for the first time
between 1970 and 1980. And 25% of 4 000 000 is
1 000 000.
Question 36
D Correct
From the information provided, it is possible to
calculate the approximate age of marriage for most
cohorts (see Question 35), but not for all (e.g. not for aged 20–24 in 1980 were actually twice as likely as
the 20–24 cohort in 1970). women aged 30–34 in 1990 to be never married.

Question 37 Questions 39 and 40

A Correct
In 1980, 36% of the women aged 20–24 had never
married. Ten years later, in 1990, these women were
aged 30–34, and 18% of them had never married.
B Incorrect
Although it is indicated that 77% of the women aged
Question 39
C Correct
i may be true. As about 51% of both groups I and
II experienced the same reduction in levels of
pain, it may be that the effect of the acupuncture
is ‘psychologically mediated’, i.e. due to belief in

om
N
18–19 in 1980 had never married, this cohort were
aged 28–29 ten years later and information for this age the efficacy of the process rather than any direct

@ 5 DI
group is not given (and cannot be deduced). physiological effect.

l.c
C
tu -19 UD
Incorrect ii cannot be true. If it were true, there would be a

ai
In 1960, 29% of women aged 20–24 had never been difference in the percentage of groups I and II who had
married. Ten years later, in 1970, these women were experienced a reduction in levels of pain.

tm
na 09 HI

aged 30–34, and 7% of them had never married. Thus,

iii may be true. As about 51% of both groups I and
re 9
more than half of the women aged 20–24 who had
ho II experienced the same reduction in levels of pain,
27 4- MO

never been married in 1960 married in the next ten

it may be that the effect of acupuncture is due to
years.
the direct physiological effects of needle insertion,
D Incorrect regardless of where they are inserted.
bl B AD

Although it is indicated that 71% of the women aged

18–19 in 1960 had never married, this cohort were Question 40
aged 28–29 ten years later and information for this age B Correct
D AM
ue : 1

group is not given (and cannot be deduced). Group III acts as a control because it allows a
comparison between people who receive any form of
H

Question 38 acupuncture against those who do not. Without this

O

Note that the options here focus on women who had
been married (are married or used to be married) as
opposed to never married.
A Incorrect
The opposite of C. 24% (100% – 76%) of women aged
18–19 in 1970 had been married, compared with 48%
(100% – 52%) of women aged 20–24 in 1990. Thus,
women aged 18–19 in 1970 were half as likely to have
been married as women aged 20–24 in 1990.
B Incorrect
82% (100% – 18%) of women aged 30–34 in 1990
had been married, compared with 64% (100% – 36%)
of women aged 20–24 in 1980. Women aged 20–24
in 1980 were actually twice as likely as women aged
30–34 in 1990 to be never married.
C Correct
48% (100% – 52%) of women aged 20–24 in 1990 had
been married, compared with 24% (100% – 76%) of
women aged 18–19 in 1970.
D Incorrect
The opposite of B. 64% (100% – 36%) of women aged
20–24 in 1980 had been married, compared with 82%
(100% – 18%) of women aged 30–34 in 1990. Women
control, it is not possible to determine whether pain
levels would have decreased without acupuncture.
Group II also acts as a control because it allows
a comparison between people who receive real
acupuncture and those who receive sham acupuncture.
Without this control, it is not possible to determine
whether needle insertion needs to be in specific
acupuncture locations to be effective.
Questions 41 – 44
As given in the introduction, the bacteria are attracted
by attractants I, II and III. In the experimental set-up
in Figure 1, the chemoreceptors for I are saturated. In
this saturated state, this chemoreceptor cannot detect
any other attractants that it would normally detect.
However, chemoreceptors for attractants other than I
will not be affected. Thus, if the bacteria fail to move
towards a mix containing I and another attractant,
it indicates that the chemoreceptor for I is also the
chemoreceptor for the second attractant. Conversely,
if the bacteria do move towards a mix containing I
and another attractant, the two attractants must have
different chemoreceptors.

52
51
Question 41
A Incorrect
This would only be supported if the bacteria were
attracted to the tube in both containers (however, this
result would equally support option D).
B Correct
As the bacteria were not attracted to the tube in
the first container, the bacteria must have the same
chemoreceptor for I and II. As the bacteria were
attracted to the tube in the second container, the
om
N
bacteria must have a different chemoreceptor for III.
@ 5 DI
C Incorrect
l.c
This would only be supported if the bacteria were
tu -19 UD
attracted to the tube in the first container but were not
ai
attracted to the tube in the second container.
tm
na 09 HI
D Incorrect
re 9
This would only be supported if the bacteria were
ho
27 4- MO
attracted to the tube in both containers (however, this
result would equally support option A).
Question 42
bl B AD
B Correct
The most appropriate control would allow the
D AM
ue : 1
experimenter to be confident that the bacteria are
behaving as expected in the presence of all conditions
H
except the variable under consideration, i.e. the
O
attractant that is mixed in the tube with I. A control
identical in all respects except for the addition of a
second attractant to the mix allows the determination
of, for example, whether the bacteria is saturated with
I.
Question 43
In this experiment the first container has the same
set-up and result as that given in Figure 1, while the
second container is different. However, the same
conclusion was drawn from both experiments, i.e. that
there is one chemoreceptor for I and II and a second
for III. From the first container, it is apparent that I
and II have the same chemoreceptor. Therefore the
second container must support the conclusion that a
second chemoreceptor detects III.
In this question, it is important to recognise
the importance of good experimental design in
determining which option is the most likely set-up.
A Incorrect
This result would indicate that bacteria saturated with
II are not attracted to a mix of attractants II and III.
This is only possible if II and III have the same
53
52
chemoreceptor, which is contrary to the conclusion of
the first experiment.
B Incorrect
This result would indicate that bacteria saturated
with III are attracted to a mix of I and II. This is
only possible if III has a different chemoreceptor
to that of I and II – the same conclusion as for the
first experiment. Therefore, B is a potential correct
answer. However, the set-up in B is not ideal: if I
and II had different chemoreceptors, the bacteria in
the second container would always be attracted to
the tube, regardless of whether the chemoreceptor
for III is different to the chemoreceptor for either or
both of I and II. In this case, the first container would
indicate that I and II have different chemoreceptors,
but the second container would provide no further
information. Thus, in a carefully designed experiment,
the set-up in D is more likely than the set-up in B.
C Incorrect
This result would indicate that bacteria saturated with
III are not attracted to a mix of II and III. This is only
possible if II and III have the same chemoreceptor,
which is contrary to the conclusion of the first
experiment.
D Correct
This result would indicate that bacteria saturated with
III are attracted to a mix of I and III. This is only
possible if I and III have different chemoreceptors.
Thus, it can be concluded that I and II have the same
chemoreceptor and III a different chemoreceptor –
the same conclusion as for the first experiment. In
conjunction with the results from the first container,
the set-up in D allows the number and nature of the
chemoreceptors to be determined regardless of the
results (unlike the set-up in B).
Question 44
In this experiment the first container has the same
set-up and result as that given in Figure 1, while the
second container is different. In this experiment, it
was concluded that I, II and III all have the same
chemoreceptor. From the first container, it is apparent
that I and II have the same chemoreceptor. Therefore
the second container must support the conclusion
that III has the same chemoreceptor as the other two
attractants.
A Correct
This result would indicate that bacteria saturated with
II are not attracted to a mix of II and III. This is only
possible if II and III have the same chemoreceptor.
Thus, it can be concluded that I, II and III have the
same chemoreceptor. In conjunction with the results
from the first container, the set-up in A allows the
number and nature of the chemoreceptors to be
determined regardless of the results (unlike the set-up
in B).
B Incorrect
This result would indicate that bacteria saturated with
III are not attracted to a mix of I and II. This is only
possible if III has the same chemoreceptor as I and II.
Therefore, B is a potential correct answer. However,
the set-up in B is not ideal, for the same reason as

om
N
given for B of Question 43. In a carefully designed
experiment, the set-up in A is more likely than the

@ 5 DI
set-up in B.

l.c
C
tu -19 UD
Incorrect

ai
This result would indicate that bacteria saturated with

tm
na 09 HI

III are attracted to a mix of I and III. This is only

re 9
possible if I and III have different chemoreceptors.
ho
27 4- MO

D Incorrect
This result would indicate that bacteria saturated with
III are not attracted to a mix of II and III. This is only
bl B AD

possible if II and III have the same chemoreceptor.

D AM
ue : 1
H
O

54
53
WORKED ANSWERS – SECTION 2
This Section is entitled Interpersonal Understanding, an ability considered important for anyone intending to work
as a medical or health professional. Increasingly, patients, health professionals and the community are recognising
that to treat people effectively, doctors and health workers need a high level of personal interaction skills and ability.

Questions in this Section are generally based on texts or scenarios that feature personal reflections or interpersonal
situations. Some passages may involve interactions between health professionals and patients, but they are not
confined to health settings. No specialised knowledge is expected.

The questions test a candidate’s ability to identify, understand and, where necessary, infer the thoughts, feelings,
behaviour and/or intentions of the people represented in the situations.

om
N
@ 5 DI

l.c
Questions 45 and 46 prevented the fire-lighting.
tu -19 UD
This brief scenario describes a situation where a

ai
ten-year-old boy has been adopted. It seems that his Question 46
A to break connections with his birthmother

tm
birthmother has felt unable to control or help his
na 09 HI

tendency to light fires. Incorrect

re 9
There is no suggestion of breaking connections with
ho
27 4- MO

Question 45 the birthmother and there is no condemnation. The

A She acknowledges the incident and exaggerates explanation given is supporting and approving.
the seriousness. B to see his behaviour in a more positive light
Incorrect
bl B AD

Incorrect
The adoptive mother does not exaggerate the The adoptive mother stresses that the behaviour was
seriousness of the incident. The fact that the boy bad and asks the boy to reflect on the consequences:
D AM
ue : 1

lit several fires is serious. She handles this serious ‘How do you think your birthmother felt . . .?’ There is
situation in a straightforward manner without no suggestion of looking at it in a more positive light.
C to understand that he is responsible for his
H

exaggeration.
behaviour but is not rejected
O

B She clarifies the incident and recognises its

serious implications.
Correct
The mother clarifies the incident by asking, ‘What
did you do?’ She recognises its serious implications
by encouraging the boy to put himself in the place
of his birthmother, getting him to realise that she
would have been scared and that she felt incapable
of helping him: ‘she didn’t know how to give you the
help you needed’.
C She overlooks the incident and reassures her
son he is now in loving hands.
Incorrect
The adoptive mother directly addresses the incident
of the fire, she does not overlook it. The final
speech implies that the birthmother’s handing him
to someone who could help him was an act of love
– there is no suggestion that he was not in loving
hands before.
D She absolves her son of responsibility for
an incident the birthmother should have
prevented.
Incorrect
There is no absolution – nothing to suggest that
the seriousness of the fire is downplayed and
no suggestion that the birthmother should have
Correct
The adoptive mother believes that it is important for
the boy to understand that he is responsible for his
behaviour. There is no glossing over the fact that he
set the fire(s) and that this was bad. Such a situation
could have been interpreted by the boy as having
been rejected by his birthmother because he had
been so bad. However, the adoptive mother stresses
that his birthmother wanted to help him but didn’t
know how ‘she found a way to see that you had
parents . . .’ . It was certainly not a case of rejection.
D to recognise that his adoptive mother will
respond to his behaviour in the same way as
the birthmother
Incorrect
It is implied that the adoptive mother will be able
to help the boy – that is why she has adopted
him. So she won’t respond in the same way as the
birthmother, who was unable to help him.
Questions 47 – 50
These questions are based on an extract where a
patient describes his experience of wanting pain
relief after major abdominal surgery and finding that
the doctor in charge has no empathy for his situation.

55
54
Question 47
A He feels concerned that the pain will become
worse.
Incorrect
The pain is already bad – the patient repeated his
request for pain killers. His concern is to relieve the
pain he is already experiencing, not a concern that it
will get worse.
B He feels confident the doctor will minimise the
pain.
There is no attempt to convince the patient that he
can cope with the pain; indeed, there is an offer
to deaden the area of insertion, which might help
alleviate pain a little, but it is not the patient’s central
concern.
B He explains how and why doctors monitor pain
in a certain way.
Correct
The doctor explains how and why the pain is
monitored in a certain way – it is an important
indicator of what is going on. We are told that the

om
Incorrect

N
The patient initially hoped that the chief resident doctor did this in some detail, respecting the patient’s

@ 5 DI
would minimise the pain, but this does not happen request. A doctor might tell the patient not to worry,

l.c
and the patient ends up making an exasperated or some other response without explanation, but this
tu -19 UD
comment: ‘Great, I’ll suffer . . .’ This certainly does doctor explains.

ai
not suggest confidence in the doctor. C He addresses the patient’s fears and helps the
patient to feel positive.

tm
C He feels convinced the doctor does not take his
na 09 HI

pain seriously. Incorrect

re 9
Incorrect There is no evidence that the doctor has addressed
ho
27 4- MO

The patient’s concern is not that the doctor isn’t
taking his pain seriously. If the doctor didn’t take
the pain seriously, he might tell the patient not to
make a fuss. The doctor takes the pain seriously – he
bl B AD
the patient’s fears and indeed the patient does not
express fears as such, just a desire to be rid of the
pain.
D He emphasises the skill of the doctors in

does not deny it. He explains in some detail why he avoiding painful procedures.
can’t provide pain killers. He says that he wants to Incorrect
D AM
ue : 1

use the pain as an indicator of the patient’s progress. There is no evidence that the doctor has emphasised
The patient’s concern is that the doctor is not putting the skill of doctors in avoiding painful procedures.
In fact, he explains that the pain is needed so that
H

himself in the position of imagining what it would be

symptoms can be monitored.
O

like to have the pain.

D He feels powerless to affect the way his pain
will be managed.
Correct
The patient feels powerless: ‘I agreed to all this . . .
I seemed to have no choice’ We know that this is not
what the patient wants: ‘I repeated my request for
pain killers’. The patient’s final comment, ‘Great, I’ll
suffer . . .’, provides evidence that he feels powerless,
with no expectation that he can change the situation.
Question 48
A He convinces the patient that he can cope with
the pain.
Incorrect
Question 49
A that he is expected to put up with a certain
amount of pain
Correct
The patient is most concerned that he is, at that
moment, experiencing pain. He has already asked
for pain killers and repeats his request. He is thus
most concerned that he will be expected to put up
with the pain.
B that he won’t be able to remember his
experience of the pain
Incorrect
The extract is about the patient’s experience of
pain at the time. He does not express any wish to
remember the pain. His final statement about not
remembering pain is not intended literally and
is spoken with sarcasm, criticising the doctor’s
rationale of not remembering pain.

56
55
C that the pain he is experiencing may indicate
serious problems
Incorrect
The doctor suggests that pain is expected and is
indeed helpful in monitoring progress, so the patient
is not concerned that the pain indicates anything that
is not a normal part of the procedure. The patient’s
focus is on the fact that he is feeling pain, not on the
consequences of the pain.
D that he will still remember the pain afterwards
despite the medication
Incorrect
The mother doesn’t say anything to suggest that
she is angry. She tries to analyse the situation in a
rational way. She focuses more on the need for her
daughter to stand up for herself.
B She is trying to help her daughter but has little
to offer.
Correct
The mother tries to help her daughter (by suggesting
she needs more ‘backbone’), but realises that there is
little she can do: ‘I wish I knew what to do’.

om
N
Incorrect C She is embarrassed at not being able to assist

@ 5 DI
The patient is angry about the fact that he will her daughter.

l.c
experience the pain at the time. At this point he is Incorrect
tu -19 UD
not concerned about the future. There is no suggestion that the mother is

ai
embarrassed. In fact, from the daughter’s description
Question 50 it seems that the mother is comfortable with being

tm
na 09 HI

A emphasising his qualifications and experience quite unconventional (she would turn up carrying
re 9
Incorrect a bouquet of weeds) – so she is not the type to be
ho
27 4- MO

The patient expresses no anxiety about the doctor’s embarrassed by inadequacies. She seems to feel
qualifications. ineffectual rather than embarrassed.
B reassuring the patient that his concerns were D She is confident that the advice she gives will
unwarranted help her daughter.
bl B AD

Incorrect Incorrect
The patient is experiencing pain, so his concerns The mother says, ‘I wish I knew what to do’ – she is
D AM
ue : 1

won’t be alleviated by being told they are unable to give advice and is clearly not confident.
unwarranted, i.e. denying that his experience is valid.
C imparting less information so as not to confuse Question 52
H

the patient A angry

O

Incorrect
The patient does not appear to be confused – he
is in fact quite clear about the distinction between
‘experiencing’ and ‘remembering’.
D acknowledging the patient’s concerns and
exploring them in more detail
Correct
The patient’s final remark, ‘that’s supposed to make
it okay?’, suggests that he would have liked more
time spent on having his feeling acknowledged
and he would have appreciated a more detailed
explanation from the doctor.
Questions 51 – 55
This passage is in the voice of a nine-year-old girl,
reflecting about her mother. The girl has been being
mistreated by her peers and the mother suggests she
needs to stand up for herself. The girl sees her peers
as her friends and believes it is her fault that she is
bullied. She also comes to the realisation that her
mother is powerless to change this.
Question 51
A She is angry about the treatment of her
daughter.
Incorrect
The daughter does not express anger. She corrects
her mother: ‘They don’t call me names . . . They’re
my friends’. So she is not angry with the children or
the situation, more worried that she can’t cope with
it adequately.
B worried
Correct
There are various ways in which the daughter
expresses worry. She says, ‘What is happening to
me is my fault . . .’; she therefore acknowledges
that something is ‘happening’ and she expresses
concern that she is ‘spineless’, with a backbone
like a sardine. To say, ‘Misery washes over me’ also
suggests worry.
C optimistic
Incorrect
The daughter does not know how to overcome her
spinelessness and her mother has confessed that she
does not know what to do, so there is no optimism.
D unconcerned
Incorrect
The daughter is concerned that she is weak – she is
not unconcerned.

57
56
Question 53
A proud and defiant
Incorrect
The daughter does not have enough confidence to be
proud or defiant – she didn’t stand up to her peers.
B sarcastic and bitter
Incorrect
The daughter speaks of her mother in a matter-of-
fact tone, accepting her and confiding in her. Any
criticism she expresses is not bitter and the tone is
passage it seems that she has not yet fully recognised
this – she believes that the children are her ‘friends’
and that the situation is her fault. Only when she
recognises that something bad is happening, will she
change the situation. The mother understands the
problem more clearly than the daughter, who is yet
to acknowledge it.
D The daughter pretends that everything is all
right and ignores the bullying.
Incorrect
The situation would not change if it were ignored.

om
not sarcastic.

N
C kind but misguided

@ 5 DI
Incorrect Question 55

l.c
‘Kind but misguided’ does not accurately describe A the mother’s inability to relate to the other
tu -19 UD
the comment – there is no way in which it is a ‘kind’ mothers

ai
comment, and from the evidence we have, it is true Incorrect
The mother’s relationship with the other mothers

tm
that the mother is not like other mothers, so the
na 09 HI

comment is not misguided. does not directly affect the situation.

re 9
D critical but accepting
ho B the daughter’s failure to hide the effects of
27 4- MO

Correct bullying
The daughter runs through the ways that her Incorrect
mother differs from other mothers, thus there is an The mother has noticed a problem so she knows the
implication of criticism that she does not conform bullying is occurring. If the problem were hidden it
bl B AD

– ‘They won’t believe her.’ Yet, the daughter is would not go away.
accepting of her mother. There is no suggestion that C the mother’s lack of interest in her daughter’s
D AM
ue : 1

the mother has failed because she hasn’t been able welfare
to tell her how to become less spineless. And the Incorrect
The mother does not lack interest in her daughter’s
H

daughter confides in her mother, indicating that she

welfare; she talks about the situation and tries, albeit
O

sees her as accepting.

Question 54
A The daughter takes the mother’s advice to stand
up to the bullies.
Incorrect
It is clear that the daughter is not strong enough to
stand up to the bullies on her own; she does not have
the confidence yet to cope with such a situation.
She would have no reason to stand up to the bullies
unless she acknowledged that she was mistreated.
The daughter describes the children as her friends –
she doesn’t see them as bullies.
B The mother withdraws and lets the daughter
solve it by herself.
Incorrect
Even if the mother does not know what to do, it is
clear that she is concerned, and this will provide
comfort and protection that the daughter is likely to
need.
C The daughter recognises that she does not
deserve to be mistreated.
Correct
A first step will be for the daughter to recognise
that she does not deserve to be mistreated. In the
ineffectually, to make a suggestion.
D the daughter’s inability to accept that she is
being mistreated
Correct
Until a problem is acknowledged (the daughter
recognising that she is being mistreated) the
situation cannot be resolved. The daughter has not
acknowledged that there is a problem.
Questions 56 – 60
In this passage, a man describes his experience in
hospital after having been in a traffic accident.
Question 56
A secure
Incorrect
The description implies that it is a disturbing
experience. There is nothing to suggest that being in
a ‘closer relationship with the floor and ceiling of a
room’ provides security.
B resentful
Incorrect
In the tone of the first paragraph there is no
expression of negative emotion such as resentment.
C frightened

58
57
 Incorrect C worse, as it re-lives the pain and horror of his
In the tone of the first paragraph there is no own accident
expression of negative emotion such as fear. Incorrect
D disoriented In terms of relieving the pain and horror of his
Correct accident, there is no evidence to suggest that the
The man describes how one’s perspective changes conversation makes the patient feel worse.
when lying down, and from his perspective D better, as it helps him realise that the doctors
everything looks different from usual, an expression understand his situation
of disorientation. Incorrect
The doctors show no understanding of the patient’s
Question 57 situation – and certainly no empathy for him. One

om
N
A neglected and insignificant doctor asks ‘vaguely’ how long the plaster has been

@ 5 DI
Correct on and then continues where he left off describing

l.c
The patient describes the conversation, and his his own near-miss experience; they show no
tu -19 UD
feelings can be inferred from his sparse commentary understanding or interest in the patient’s situation.

ai
– when one young doctor describes his own near-
miss experience in a way that seems to invite Question 58

tm
na 09 HI

sympathy, the patient comments, ‘I remained silent’ A petty and ungrateful

re 9
that he does not feel sympathetic. Moreover, he does
ho Incorrect
27 4- MO

not agree that there are crazy people ‘out there’,
but rather that they are ‘in here’. In other words, he
suggests that the doctors are more concerned about
their own experiences than those of the patient they
bl B AD
It seems reasonable to expect that when doctors are
examining patients they will show some interest
in them. These doctors do not do so. The patient’s
response is therefore not petty or ungrateful; his

are meant to be caring for. Thus the patient feels disapproval is reasonable.
‘neglected and insignificant’. B suspicious and fearful
D AM
ue : 1

B valued and the centre of attention Incorrect

Incorrect The tone of the patient’s observations is low-key
The patient’s belief that he should be valued and and wry. He sees the doctors’ disregard for him
H

the centre of attention is implied in his responses as inappropriate, but not in any way sinister or
O

to the conversation, but he is clearly not the centre
of attention. The doctors are focusing on their own
experiences.
threatening, so he is not suspicious or fearful.
C reserved and disapproving
Correct
The patient says very little indeed (he is reserved)
and his few comments suggest disapproval: ‘there
are some strange people in here’.
D submissive and intimidated
Incorrect
The patient does not show any sense of being
intimidated by the doctors – he is silently critical
of them, not afraid. A ‘submissive’ person would be
unlikely to describe doctors as ‘strange people’ or to
make ironic observations ‘“Worse?” I enquired’.

Question 59
A an acute awareness of the patient’s feelings
Incorrect
The doctors show little awareness of any kind, let
alone acute awareness of the patient’s feelings.

59
58
B a lack of sensitivity to the patient’s feelings Question 61
Correct A pity
The doctors chatter about their own experiences, Incorrect
which shows a great lack of sensitivity for the Wanting to ‘shake’ or ‘put a bomb under’ his father
patient. are not expressions of a feeling of pity.
C a genuine interest in the patient’s circumstances B sadness
Incorrect Incorrect
The doctors make only a passing comment about Wanting to ‘shake’ or ‘put a bomb under’ his father
the patient’s situation: ‘so you were hit by a lorry’ are not expressions of a feeling of sadness.
– there is no genuine interest that could have been C frustration
shown by following this up with, ‘That must have

om
Correct

N
been frightening’, or ‘Do you remember any of the The sons’ reactions are consistent with frustration: ‘I

@ 5 DI
details?’ want to shake him’.

l.c
D a natural ability to make the patient feel D aggression
tu -19 UD
comfortable Incorrect

ai
Incorrect The expression, ‘I want to put a bomb under him’
The patient clearly does not feel comfortable. He is

tm
out of context might seem to suggest aggression,
na 09 HI

in unfamiliar surroundings, as described in the first but it is followed with, ‘I want him to be dead
re 9
four lines, and he is irritated by the doctors’ self- rather than die like this’, which refers to the father’s
ho
27 4- MO

centred conversation. attitude. The son is frustrated by the father’s state of

depression.
Question 60
A anxiety about his injuries Question 62
bl B AD

Incorrect A is offended by his son’s tone

If the patient were anxious he might ask questions; Incorrect
D AM
ue : 1

he might not be so controlled. The father’s response does not express offence;
B respect for the doctors’ status it is an indication of how such visits would be
Incorrect
H

meaningless.
The patient thinks, ‘there are some strange people in
O

B is reassured by his son’s support

here’. This does not suggest respect. Also, he uses
irony (in line 25) – this would be unlikely if he were
showing respect for the doctors’ status.
C displeasure at the doctors’ behaviour
Correct
The patient does not wish to express sympathy for
the doctors’ near-miss experiences and he does not
express agreement that there are ‘crazy people out
there’. The description suggests that the patient is in
control and has chosen to remain silent because of
his displeasure.
D confusion about the doctors’ questions
Incorrect
The doctors ask only two questions, and in
answering them the patient shows no confusion. To
‘So you were hit by a lorry’, the patient answers
‘yes’. To ‘How long has this plaster been on now?’,
the patient answers ‘Five weeks’.
Incorrect
There is no suggestion of reassurance in the words.
Reassurance might come from meaningful contact
and a sharing of feelings, whereas the father’s
words indicate that only a shallow and mechanical
connection would be possible.
C is determined to fight his condition
Incorrect
The words do not suggest that the father is
determined to fight his condition – the words imply
that such visits would be an artificial and shallow
ritual and therefore be futile. No determination or
hope of improvement is suggested.

Questions 61 – 66
In this passage a son describes his feelings when
he is confronted by the fact that his father, a retired
doctor, is dying.

60
59
D believes his son’s support is pointless
Correct
The words, ‘Number One, your five minutes are up.
Come in Number Two’ imply that a succession of
visits by friends would be an artificial and shallow
ritual, and therefore pointless.
Question 63
A is trying to face up to his father’s condition
Correct
Neither father nor son show any doubt about the
om
N
father’s imminent death. For example, the son’s
@ 5 DI
repetition of ‘I know’ is a means of outlining the
l.c
grim facts. There is no speculation, no expression of
tu -19 UD
hope that things might change. Thus the son is trying
ai
to come to terms with his father’s condition.
B is confident that he knows exactly what is
tm
na 09 HI
going on
re 9
Incorrect
ho
27 4- MO
It is a case of facing up to grim facts rather than
knowing exactly what is going on and it is not an
expression of confidence – confidence is irrelevant
here.
bl B AD
C does not know what else to think in such a
situation
D AM
ue : 1
Incorrect
This would suggest speculation or confusion. There
is no speculation or confusion. The son knows that
H
the father’s condition was found to be inoperable
O
and that it is therefore incurable. His difficulty is
in coming to terms with the situation, not with
understanding it.
D is trying to convince himself that his father is
not that sick
Incorrect
The son is running through the facts and he knows
that his father is aware of what the facts mean.
There is no suggestion of a softer option. Everything
expressed points to the father being terminally ill.
Question 64
A be honest about his father’s condition
Incorrect
The son doesn’t articulate the grim reality to his
father – he doesn’t say to his father that they had to
close him up ‘without doing anything’; he doesn’t
say to him that he is dying (the father knows this).
B suggest his father is exaggerating his condition
Incorrect
61
60
The son knows that the father is not exaggerating his
condition: ‘And I know that he knows all this . . .’
C make light of the situation to take his father’s
mind off it
Incorrect
The son says that his father knows too much to be
deluded. He is not making light of the situation; he is
simply not saying what both of them know.
D hide his feelings while trying to make his
father feel more positive
Correct
The son tries to hide his feelings of frustration: ‘I
want to put a bomb under him’ – he does not say
these things to his father. Whilst underneath the son
knows the grim reality, his actual comments are
encouraging and positive: ‘you are much stronger
than you were three days ago’; ‘the doctors are
happy . . .’; ‘there are lots of friends who want to see
you’.
Question 65
A He prefers to focus on when his father will be
well again.
Incorrect
The son knows that his father will never be well
again.
B He avoids thinking about it because he can’t
comprehend it.
Incorrect
The son demonstrates that he can comprehend
the situation and he is thinking deeply about it –
struggling with it.
C He appreciates that his father is ill but he does
not want to dwell on it.
Incorrect
The passage indicates that the son is dwelling on his
father’s situation – for example, he is not expressing
vain hopes that a miracle will occur. He is focusing
on his father, not on other matters.
D He is aware that he needs to come to terms
with it but is struggling to.
Correct
The son’s frustration, expressed in the opening lines,
shows an awareness of needing to come to terms
with his father’s condition. The use of strong words,
such as ‘put a bomb under him’, demonstrates the
son’s struggle. He is aware that he carries on with
‘blather’ possibly as much for his own sake as for his
father’s.
Question 66
A he does not want visitors
Incorrect
The fact of not wanting visitors is a consequence
of knowing the situation, not the cause of being There is no indication of promising the woman she
depressed. would get better.
B it is common to feel depressed in hospital C The doctor played down the seriousness of the
Incorrect woman’s condition.
There is no suggestion that this is merely because Incorrect
the father is in hospital. The doctor takes the woman seriously: ‘I don’t think
C he understands the extent of his own illness you are silly . . .’
Correct D The doctor confirmed the woman’s own
The son states that his father has diagnosed himself thoughts about the condition.
and therefore come up with the accurate and grim Incorrect
diagnosis – he understands the extent of his illness, The doctor denies the woman’s thoughts that she is

om
N
which is depressing. ‘silly . . .’, she doesn’t confirm them.

@ 5 DI
D he is confused about what’s happening to him

l.c
Incorrect Question 69
tu -19 UD
The son states that his father knows exactly what A left her feeling unsupported

ai
is happening to him – there is no suggestion of Correct
confusion. The woman was left feeling ‘silly’, and thus

tm
na 09 HI

unsupported.
re 9
Questions 67 – 70 B helped her keep her illness in perspective
ho
27 4- MO

In this passage, a woman describes her perspective Incorrect

on starting to recover from depression. There is nothing in the woman’s account that
suggests the other doctors helped her to keep her
Question 67 illness in perspective. All we know is that she went
bl B AD

A supportive away feeling silly and neurotic.

Correct C helped her more than she realised at the time
D AM
ue : 1

The doctor denies that the woman is silly and Incorrect

indicates that she would expect her to need support: There is no evidence to suggest that the doctors
helped the woman more than she realised – and the
H

‘I don’t expect you to do it on your own’.

fact that she is visiting ‘yet another doctor’ indicates
O

B insensitive
Incorrect that she was not helped.
The doctor’s response is very sensitive to the D made her condition worse
woman’s needs. Incorrect
C ambiguous There is also nothing to suggest that the other
Incorrect doctors made her condition worse.
The doctor’s response is straightforward and clear: ‘I
don’t think . . . I don’t expect . . .’, so the response is
not ambiguous.
D challenging
Incorrect
The doctor doesn’t challenge the woman – she
doesn’t ask her questions or deny her statements in
any way.

Question 68
A The doctor seemed to take the woman
seriously.
Correct
We know that the woman had tried many doctors but
still felt like ‘a silly, neurotic woman’. This doctor
denies that she is silly and thus appears to take the
woman seriously.
B The doctor promised the woman she would get
better.
Incorrect

62
61
Question 70 The mother describes ‘wrenching’ herself awake and
A self-insight that life is ‘so exhausting’. This indicates that she is
Incorrect aware of the influence of her son and that life with
The doctor denies that the woman is silly or neurotic, him will not change.
thus it seems that these descriptions are not correct
and therefore do not reveal self-insight. Question 72
B sense of hope A uplifting
Incorrect Incorrect
Such a negative description does not reveal a sense The dream provides the mother with nothing more
of hope. Although the woman does say ‘inside than a temporary escape; there is no suggestion that
the experience is uplifting.

om
myself I still had hope’ , this is contrasted with

N
her self-description, which suggests a feeling of B perplexing

@ 5 DI
inadequacy. Incorrect

l.c
C sense of shame The mother is quite clear: ‘It is not as if I think this
Correct
tu -19 UD would really happen’. She does not appear to be

ai
‘Silly’ and ‘neurotic’ are derogatory terms that reveal perplexed by the dream.
C deeply disturbing

tm
a sense of shame or inadequacy.
na 09 HI

D sense of humour Incorrect

re 9
Incorrect ho Although the mother has to wrench herself awake,
27 4- MO

‘Silly’ and ‘neurotic’ are not light-hearted or the dream itself is not disturbing; in fact it gives
amusing terms and do not reveal a sense of humour. momentary relief.
D temporarily consoling
Questions 71 – 74 Correct
bl B AD

In this passage, the mother of a severely disabled son The mother finds the dream temporarily consoling:
describes a recurring dream in which he does not ‘I can lose myself . . .’; ‘all I want is some peace
D AM
ue : 1

have disabilities. and quiet’. She suggests that she gets this peace and
quiet while she is having the dream, but afterwards
Question 71 will wrench herself back into reality.
H
O

A profound belief in the healing power of dreams

Incorrect
The mother doesn’t suggest that she or her son will
be healed by her dream.
B refusal to face the reality of her son’s condition
Incorrect
The mother indicates that she knows this will not
really happen, so it is not a case of refusing to accept
reality.
C deep yearning for something that will never
happen
Correct
The mother is realistic: ‘It is not as if I think this
would really happen’, but she says she can lose
herself in the dream – it is a yearning that will never
be fulfilled.
D failure to fully understand her son’s influence
on her life
Incorrect
Question 73
A committed but overwhelmed
Correct
The mother is clearly committed to care for her son:
‘I don’t mean that my son is a nightmare’. She has
obviously, over the twenty-one years, come to accept
the very challenging and exhausting task, but the
task (not the son) is a nightmare, suggesting it is
overwhelming.
B dispassionate and quite calm
Incorrect
The dream itself is evidence of emotional trauma
and to describe waking to a nightmare is not
dispassionate or calm.
C bewildered and unable to cope
Incorrect
It appears that the mother has been coping for
twenty-one years – she is not bewildered: ‘It is not as
if I think this would really happen’.

63
62
D sometimes irritated but mostly positive Steve is indeed wanting to balance work and leisure
Incorrect – he doesn’t suggest that it is impossible.
The mother does not describe irritation, and waking
into a nightmare does not suggest a positive outlook. Question 76
A strengthen Steve’s relationship with them
Question 74 Incorrect
A hope Suggesting that Steve should work as hard as her
Incorrect parents is not a way of strengthening his relationship
The mother states, ‘It is not as if I think this would with them, particularly since he is resistant to such
really happen’, so there is no expression of hope. long hours of work.
B relief B convince Steve that his own attitude is

om
N
Correct misguided

@ 5 DI
The dream offers a form of relief. While she is Correct

l.c
dreaming, the mother can have some ‘peace and Madeline is trying to convince Steve that his views
quiet’.
tu -19 UD about working are misguided. She holds her parents

ai
C inspiration up as an example.
Incorrect C emphasise her pride in her parents’ financial

tm
na 09 HI

The mother knows it is just a dream. It provides status

re 9
relief, but not inspiration.
ho Incorrect
27 4- MO

D perspective At this point Madeline is not needing to emphasise

Incorrect her pride in her parents’ financial status; she is
The dream does not offer perspective. It is only a making a point about obligation to pay them back
dream. money.
bl B AD

D help Steve overcome his personal sense of

Questions 75 – 80 inadequacy
D AM
ue : 1

In this passage, a couple who have been married for Incorrect

three years discuss their finances. There is no suggestion that Steve feels inadequate or
that Madeline wants to help him.
H

Question 75
O

A Madeline does not appreciate his work. Question 77

Incorrect A resentful
The discussion is not about the nature of Steve’s Correct
work. Steve feels resentful. This is apparent in many of
B Madeline’s expectations are too demanding. his comments: ‘how sick and tired I am . . .’; ‘Sorry
Correct Madeline . . .’; and particularly his final comment:
In the context of the discussion, Steve indicates that ‘What about what I want?’
Madeline’s expectations are too demanding – she B chastened
describes the hours that her hard-working parents Incorrect
worked and implies that Steve should do the same, There is nowhere that indicates that Steve feels
whereas he believes in a more balanced lifestyle. chastened. In fact the argument heats up as it
C Madeline should recognise that he is already progresses.
exhausted from working so hard. C indifferent
Incorrect Incorrect
Steve is not making the point that he is tired. He Steve’s final comment is not an expression of
wants a balanced life. indifference – if that were the case he might say,
D Madeline should recognise that it is impossible ‘okay, have a baby then’.
to juggle both work and leisure activities. D sympathetic
Incorrect Incorrect
The argument is heated, Steve is not sympathetic; he
is more concerned with himself.

Question 78
A Madeline is using her family against him.
Incorrect

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63
Steve is grateful for the money Madeline’s family
has provided, but he disagrees about the need to
pay them back quickly – it is not a case of using her
family against him.
B Madeline is trying to dictate how he should
live his life.
Correct
Steve considers that Madeline is dictating how he
should live his life – this comes out particularly
clearly in his final comment. He also resents her
implication that they go out too often.
Madeline is embarrassed that they are not repaying
her parents – she would not let this matter rest.
B be hurt and offended
Correct
The way the argument has been developing suggests
that Madeline’s only response could be one of being
hurt and offended. As far as she is concerned they
have been arguing about paying back money to her
parents and Steve’s comment implies that he is not
keen to have a baby, which would probably affect her
deeply – it seems to be something she has wanted for

om
N
C Madeline is not prepared to make the same some time: ‘When are we ever . . .’.

@ 5 DI
sacrifices herself. C be grateful for his honesty

l.c
Incorrect Incorrect
tu -19 UD
Steve is aware that Madeline would make the same Madeline won’t be grateful for Steve’s honesty – it

ai
sacrifices – for example, she thinks they go out too is possible that she would prefer not to know his true
often, implying that she is uncomfortable about this feelings about having a baby and for her the issue at

tm
na 09 HI

and would be prepared to go out less. hand is repaying her parents. She is not interested
re 9
D Madeline is not making enough effort to in what Steve wants to do unless it is a case of
ho
27 4- MO

socialise with his friends. changing his lifestyle so that they repay the parents
Incorrect more quickly.
The issue of Madeline socialising with Steve’s D accept blame and apologise
friends is irrelevant to the argument. Incorrect
bl B AD

There is nothing to suggest that Madeline would

Question 79 accept blame or apologise. She sees Steve as in the
D AM
ue : 1

A a point of on-going tension wrong.

Correct
This issue seems to be an on-going tension, as Steve
H

talks about arguing in circles and being ‘sick and

O

tired’ of her going ‘on and on’, in a way that implies

these arguments have been visited before.
B an unfamiliar issue in their relationship
Incorrect
If it were an unfamiliar issue there would be
more questioning, surprise and explanation, and
resentment might not have had time to build up.
C a relatively minor issue in their relationship
Incorrect
The borrowed money appears to be a very significant
issue in the relationship – a great deal hinges on it,
including starting a family, and the argument reveals
the existence of different values that the pair bring to
the relationship.
D something they have made some progress
towards solving
Incorrect
There is no evidence of progress having been made –
as Steve says, they are arguing around in circles.

Question 80
A agree to disagree
Incorrect
They are not in a mood to agree to disagree and the
matter is too significant to be left unresolved forever.

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64
WORKED ANSWERS – SECTION 3
Questions in this Section of HPAT – Ireland consist of a sequence or a pattern comprising a number of ‘frames’
composed of a number of elements. The questions require the identification of the rules that determine the patterns
and relationships between the elements from frame to frame, and the application of these rules to find the option
(out of a choice of five) that most simply and logically functions as the answer. This requires the generation of
appropriate hypotheses and evaluation of evidence to test these hypotheses. Note that different elements may be
related by different rules, and different aspects of an element (e.g. orientation and colour) may be governed by
different rules.

There are three types of item in Section 3:

om
N
1 – Next in the Series

@ 5 DI
For a sequence of four diagrams, identify the option that most simply and logically comes next in the sequence.

l.c
2 – Missing Segment
tu -19 UD
For a pattern composed of a number of segments, identify the option that most simply and logically fits the missing

ai
segment.

tm
na 09 HI

3 – Middle of the Sequence

re 9
In this variant of Next in the Series, determine the correct order for the five given stages of a sequence, and identify
ho
27 4- MO

the middle stage.

Rules involved in all three types of question may include:

bl B AD

• movement of elements that is either consistent (same amount each time) or progressive (by increasing amounts);
• changes in size, shape or pattern of elements (consistent or progressive);
• arithmetic relationships;
D AM
ue : 1

• combination or disassociation of elements; e.g. ‘black + white = white’; ‘like elements cancel when superimposed’;
• rotation (clockwise or anticlockwise) of elements (consistent or progressive);
H

• reflection of elements; and

O

• symmetry.

Some general hints for arriving at a solution

1 Identify the separate elements that make up the sequence or overall pattern.

2 Examine each element individually and observe how it is changing. For example:

• Is the element present in all frames, or does it disappear?

• Does the number and/or size of the element increase/decrease?
• Does the position and/or orientation of the element change?
• Are there changes in shading/pattern?

3 Formulate rules for different elements and check that they ‘work’ for the whole sequence. Rules should be
as ‘simple’ as possible, e.g. smallest increments in rotation or position; shortest sequence of pattern changes;
addition before multiplication.

4 For each element, use the rule to extend the pattern to determine how it will appear in the answer frame.

Note also:

• Determining rules for some elements may help eliminate some options as an answer.
• It may not always be necessary to determine rules for all elements to arrive at an answer.
• Sometimes, a definitive answer may only be arrived at by analysing the answer options.

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 NEXT IN THE SERIES
Question 81
In this sequence, note that the black and grey dots
are present in each frame; the white dot is present in
all but the 3rd frame. None of the three dots occurs
in the same position twice. The simplest explanation
of this pattern is that, between frames, the grey and
black dots both move anticlockwise two corners
om
N
(or clockwise three corners); the white dot moves
clockwise two corners and is covered by the grey dot
@ 5 DI
in the 3rd frame. Therefore, in the 5th frame, the grey
l.c
dot should be in the upper right corner, the black dot
tu -19 UD
should be in the upper left corner and the white dot
ai
should be in the upper left corner. The alternative
tm
that satisfies these conditions is D, and the white dot
na 09 HI
is covered by the black dot.
re 9
ho
27 4- MO
Question 82
In this sequence, note that each figure can be viewed
as consisting of a pair of outer lines and a single
bl B AD
inner line. The outer pair of lines is either horizontal
or vertical; the inner line occupies four different
positions. The simplest explanation of this pattern
D AM
ue : 1
is that, between frames, the outer pair alternates
between horizontal and vertical positions, while the
H
inner line rotates anticlockwise 45º. Therefore, in the
O
5th frame, the two outer lines should be horizontal
while the inner line should run diagonally from top
left to bottom right. The alternative that satisfies
these conditions is D.
Question 83
In this sequence, note that between frames, two
of the shapes change positions. The simplest
explanation of this pattern is that, starting from
bottom left and moving clockwise around the
points of the triangle, the shape at the point of the
large triangle swaps positions with the one in the
centre. In the first swap, the cross moves into the
centre while the circle moves to the left point; in the
second, the small triangle moves to the centre and
the cross moves to the apex, and so on. Therefore, in
the 5th frame, the circle should be in the centre, the
small triangle should be at the lower left point and
the cross should in the apex position. The alternative
that satisfies these conditions is B.
Question 84
In this sequence, note that between frames, each of
the five different shadings (grey, white, dots, black
and checks) occurs in a different part of the overall
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figure. For example, white occurs in the small central
circle in the 1st frame, in the large square in the
2nd frame, in the small square in the 3rd frame and
in the larger circle in the 4th frame. The simplest
explanation of this pattern is that the shadings flow
though the shapes, in the following order: small
central circle, large square, small square, larger
circle, triangles. Therefore, in the 5th frame, the
triangles should be white, the central circle should
be grey, the large square should be checked, the
small square should be black and the larger circle
should be dotted. The alternative that satisfies these
conditions is C.
Question 85
In this sequence, note that between frames, three
shapes (triangle, square and circle) change positions
in the ‘stack’; the triangle also flips vertically. The
triangle is in front twice; the square and the circle
are in front once. The simplest explanation of this
pattern is that, between frames, the topmost of the
three shapes moves to the back of the stack and
exposes the shape under it. Therefore, in the 5th
frame, the triangle should have moved to the back,
exposing the square; the circle should now be in
the middle. The triangle apex should point up. The
alternative that satisfies these conditions is E.
Question 86
In this sequence, note that between frames, the
number in each of the three positions changes
according to a different pattern. The bottom number
increases by the same amount each time, but the
lack of a simple arithmetic relationship between
frames for either the upper left or upper right
number suggests that an additional rule is involved.
The simplest explanation of the pattern is that the
numbers in each frame are successive multiples
(× 2, × 3 etc.) of those in the first, and the two upper
numbers swap positions between frames. (The
bottom number also equals the sum of the two upper
numbers.) Therefore, in the 5th frame, the numbers
should be five times those in the first frame: the upper
left number should be 10, the upper right number
should be 15, and the bottom number should be 25.
The alternative that satisfies these conditions is B.
Question 87
In this sequence, note that in each frame, the number
of squares in the bottom right corner is equal to the
sum of the numbers in the other corners (e.g. in the
2nd frame: 3 + 2 – 1 = 4). Between frames, each of the
numbers either decreases or increases by the same
amount. (There is no obvious relationship between
the three numbers). The simplest explanation of
this pattern is that, between frames, each number
alternatively decreases by 2 and increases by 1.
Therefore, in the 5th frame, there should be four
om
N
squares in the bottom right corner and each of the
@ 5 DI
numbers should have increased by 1, to become
l.c
(clockwise from the bottom left corner) 2, 3 and –1.
tu -19 UD
The alternative that satisfies these conditions is B.
ai
Question 88
tm
na 09 HI
In this sequence, note that in each frame, there is
re 9
always a single grey square, but increasing numbers
ho
27 4- MO
of black and dotted squares. In the 3rd and 4th
frames, the grey square occupies the same position;
in the 4th frame, a black square is missing. The
simplest explanation of this pattern is that, between
bl B AD
frames, starting at top right, the grey square moves
diagonally two grid-squares; when it reaches the
D AM
ue : 1
bottom left it retraces its path. The black and dotted
squares can be viewed as lengthening chains. The
number of dotted squares increases by one, with
H
the second square added below the first, the third
O
below and to the right of the second, and so on. The
number of black squares increases by two, with one
square added to each end of the chain; when the
chain reaches the 2nd and 6th columns the squares
turn. When both are in the same position, a dotted
square covers a black square (as occurs in the 4th
frame). Therefore, in the 5th frame, the grey square
should be in the 3rd column from the right, 4th row
from the top. Note that the sequence shown for the
black and dotted squares does not enable a definitive
prediction of their location in the 5th frame – since
each pattern has already had one change, another
is possible. However, once a square in a chain
appears it does not change position, and this clearly
established aspect of the pattern can be used to
eliminate ABCD as possible answers. Therefore the
answer is E.
Question 89
In this sequence, the letters can be viewed as
forming a sequence of their own, ABDGKPVC …
The simplest explanation of this pattern is that there
are ‘gaps’ in the standard alphabetic sequence that
become larger at each step. There are no missing
letters initially (AB), one at the second step (B–D),
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two at the third (D– –G), and so on. After the letter
C in the sequence, there should be seven missing
letters. Therefore, in the 5th frame, the first letter
should be K and the second one, separated from it
by eight letters, should be T. The alternative that
satisfies these conditions is A.
Question 90
In this sequence, note that between frames, the
arrowed shape appears to rotate, but not by equal
amounts. The simplest explanation of this pattern
is that, between frames, the shape oscillates by
increasing amounts. From its starting position, it
rotates 90º anticlockwise, then 135º clockwise, then
180º anticlockwise. Therefore, between the 4th and
5th frame, the arrow should rotate 225º clockwise.
The alternative that satisfies these conditions is D.
Question 91
In this sequence, note that between frames, each
of the ‘balls’ moves through a constant distance
but along a different path on the ‘pool table’. The
simplest explanation of this pattern is that, between
frames, the black ball moves horizontally, from left
to right, one-third the width of the table at each
step; after rebounding off the side it moves left.
The white ball moves similarly, but up and down
the table in increments of approximately one-tenth
the table length. The grey ball moves and rebounds
diagonally in steps one-sixth the width of the table.
Therefore, in the 5th frame, the black ball and the
white ball should be in the positions they occupied
in the 1st frame, and the grey ball should be close to
the bottom edge. The alternative that satisfies these
conditions is B.
Question 92
In this sequence, note that between frames, a new
shape appears and one shape disappears. Three of
the shapes from one frame to the next are present,
but change position and are altered. The simplest
explanation of this pattern is that, between frames, a
new shape enters the top right quadrant and moves
clockwise through the quadrants, first shrinking in
size, then stretching horizontally, then rotating
clockwise 90°, before exiting. Therefore, in the 5th
frame, there should be a new shape in the top right
quadrant, a small upright triangle at bottom right, a
horizontally elongated diamond at bottom left, and
a vertically oriented parallelogram at top left. The
alternative that satisfies these conditions is A.
 MISSING SEGMENT
Question 93
In this pattern, note that each of the component lines
of the figures occurs twice in each row and in each
column. The simplest explanation is that the left and
right columns combine to give the middle column,
or that the middle and bottom rows combine to give
the top row. Therefore, the missing frame must be
om
N
a combination of the left and right frames of the
middle row or, equivalently, the top frame minus the
@ 5 DI
bottom frame of the middle column. The alternative
l.c
that satisfies these conditions is C.
tu -19 UD
ai
Question 94
tm
In this pattern, note that there are four different
na 09 HI
re 9
shapes (peace sign, star, starburst and ring) in
ho
27 4- MO
three different sizes. Each completed row and
column contains three different shapes, and each
completed row contains shapes of the same size.
The background pattern within each frame in a row
bl B AD
(and column) is different. The simplest explanation
for this pattern is that, starting from top left, four
shapes zigzag through the squares and shrink in
D AM
ue : 1
each row. (The resulting pattern has a high degree
of symmetry). Therefore, the shape in the missing
H
frame should be a medium-sized star, with a
O
background that differs from other backgrounds
in the same row and column. The alternative that
satisfies these conditions is C.
Question 95
In this pattern, note that each shading (dots, stripes
and crosses) occurs once in each completed row and
column. The shapes with concave sides in the first
two columns can be viewed as altered versions of a
square and triangle, respectively. Thus, each shape
(rectangle, triangle and diamond) occurs once in
each completed row and column, but one of these
per row/column occurs in altered form. Therefore,
in the missing frame the shape should be an altered
rectangle with dots. The alternative that satisfies these
conditions is C.
Question 96
In this pattern, note that the overall figure consists
of a central group of four ‘jigsaw’ pieces; touching
the outer corner of each piece is an enlarged version
of it. One black dot is present on each of the larger
jigsaw pieces and a circle is positioned centrally.
The simplest explanation of this pattern is that it
operates on the basis of symmetry. Therefore, the
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missing frame should contain a curve that completes
the circle, a single dot, and a large jigsaw piece that
abuts the small bottom right piece and has the same
shape. The alternative that satisfies these conditions
is B.
Question 97
In this pattern, note that in moving up the ‘pyramid’
the number of circles decreases. The number of both
vertical and horizontal lines varies, suggesting an
arithmetic relationship between them. The simplest
explanation of this pattern is that the lines in two
adjacent circles in a row combine to give the lines
in the circle immediately above: horizontal lines are
added; vertical lines are subtracted. Therefore, the
missing frame should contain one vertical line and
nine horizontal lines. The alternative that satisfies
these conditions is D.
Question 98
In this pattern, note that in each row of frames from
left to right, and in each column from top to bottom,
the number of marked squares (heavy black borders)
increases. The marked squares occur only around
the perimeter of each frame. One marked square is
grey. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that
each marked square in the left column is the starting
point of a separate chain. In each row from left to
right, one square is added to the leading edge of each
chain and the chain advances one position clockwise
around the perimeter of the frame. Where squares
from separate chains overlap, they become grey.
Therefore, the missing frame should contain three
chains (which overlap), with marked squares along
the entire top, left and bottom of the frame, and grey
marked squares in the top and bottom left corners.
The alternative that satisfies these conditions is B.
Question 99
In this pattern, note that in each column (but not
each row), each of the component lines of the figures
occurs exactly twice. This in itself is the simplest
explanation of this pattern. Therefore, the missing
frame should contain those elements of the figures
above it that occur only once in the column – a
square and a diamond. The alternative that satisfies
these conditions is C.
Question 100
In this pattern, note that each square in the ‘pyramid’
is divided into shaded quadrants. Moving up the
pyramid, the number of squares decreases. The
simplest explanation of this pattern is that adjacent
MIDDLE OF THE SEQUENCE
om
N
Question 101
@ 5 DI
In this set of frames, note that the grey oval remains
l.c
in the centre, but its orientation changes (diagonal,
tu -19 UD
horizontal or vertical). The clear ovals do not
ai
change orientation but each occurs in five different
tm
positions within the frame. The simplest explanation
na 09 HI
re 9
of this pattern is that, between frames, the grey oval
ho
27 4- MO
rotates 45º anticlockwise, the horizontal clear oval
moves from top to bottom through five equidistant
positions, and the vertical oval moves from left to
right through five equidistant positions. Therefore,
bl B AD
the sequence is ADECB, and the answer is E.
Question 102
D AM
ue : 1
In this set of frames, note that the black square occurs
in three inside corners of the arrowed shape, and at
H
the ends of two arrows. A black spot occurs twice
O
in the bottom right corner of the arrowed shape but
only once in each of the other corners. A white spot
occurs on four of the arrow ends, and is absent in E.
The simplest explanation of this pattern is that,
between frames, the black dot moves anticlockwise
inside the arrowed shape, starting in the left corner,
by increasing amounts (one position, then two
positions, then three positions, etc.). The black square
clockwise around the arrowed shape, starting in the
moves
top right corner, one position at a time, and alternating
between internal corners and arrow ends. The white
spot alternates between left and bottom arrow ends,
and is hidden by the black square in E. Therefore, the
sequence is CBDEA, and the answer is D.
Question 103
In this set of frames, note that the different shapes
occur with differing frequencies. It is possible
to arrange the frames in order so that there is a
difference of just one shape from one frame to
the next. For example, there is an arrow in A and
a circle in B, but the other three shapes are the
same. The simplest explanation of this pattern is
that, between frames, one shape is replaced by a
different one, starting with A. In the first swap,
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69
squares in a row combine to produce the square
immediately above: quadrants are black in the
‘daughter’ square only if they are black in both
‘parents’. Therefore, in the missing frame only the
top left quadrant should be black. The alternative
that satisfies these conditions is A.
the arrow is replaced by a circle; then the arrowed
cross is replaced by a heart; then the straight cross
is replaced by a hexagon; and, finally, the arc is
replaced by a cube. Note that none of the new shapes
is replaced. Therefore, the sequence is ABEDC, and
the answer is E.
Question 104
In this set of frames, note that both the black dot and
the star occur twice in one quadrant and once in each
of the other quadrants. The simplest explanation
of this pattern is that, between frames, the black
dot moves one quadrant clockwise. The star also
moves clockwise, but by an increasing amount (one
quadrant, then two quadrants, then three quadrants,
etc.). Therefore, the sequence is BADCE, and the
answer is D.
Question 105
In this set of frames, note that each type of shaded
square(s) occurs in each column, and B and E are
exactly the same pattern. The simplest explanation of
this pattern is that, between frames, the black square
moves one position diagonally; when it reaches the
bottom right corner it returns to the top left corner.
The same pattern is followed by the two spotted
squares and two striped squares; when these double
squares reach the bottom right corner, in the next
frame the square ‘falling off’ the edge of the grid
wraps to the other end of the column. Therefore, the
sequence is BDCAE, and the answer is C.
Question 106
In this set of frames, note that three of the arrow
heads are shaded black while two are shaded white,
and that the shadings on the arrow ‘shaft’ (one white,
two grey and two black segments) change positions.
The simplest explanation of this pattern is that
between frames, the arrow head alternates between
white and black, and the three shades on the shaft
flow towards the arrow head by one segment, and
return through the arrow tail after reaching the arrow
head. Therefore, the sequence is DAEBC, and the
answer is E.

Question 107
In this set of frames, note that two frames contain
both a white and a black dot; two frames have dots
that are partly covered and two frames have only
one dot. As well, each frame contains a line that
appears to be the border of an opaque trapezium
covering a section of the hexagon. The simplest
explanation of this pattern is that, between frames,

om
N
the trapezium moves clockwise around the hexagon

@ 5 DI
120º, fully or partly covering any balls that occupy

l.c
the same space. The black ball moves clockwise
tu -19 UD
one corner, and covers the white ball. The white

ai
ball moves two corners anticlockwise, starting
under the black ball. Therefore, the sequence is

tm
na 09 HI

EBACD, and the answer is A.

re 9
ho
27 4- MO

Question 108
In this set of frames, note that the arrow occurs in
only two positions (top left or bottom right); the
spot occurs in three positions (once at middle right,
bl B AD

twice at top left, twice at bottom left) and the triangle

occurs in all positions except at bottom right. The
D AM
ue : 1

simplest explanation of this pattern is that, between

frames, the arrow alternates between bottom right and
H

top left, the triangle moves anticlockwise one corner,

O

and the spot moves clockwise two corners. Therefore,

the sequence is DAEBC, and the answer is E.

Question 109
In this set of frames, note that the inner shapes have 4,
5, 6, 7 and 8 corners and their associated outer shapes
have 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 corners. The simplest explanation
of this pattern is that the frames are ordered according
to the number of corners (either for the inner shape,
outer shape or the combined total). Note also that this
results in the inner shape in one frame becoming the
outer shape in the next frame. Therefore, the sequence
is DBEAC, and the answer is E.

Question 110
In this set of frames, note that the ‘wave’ in the flag
has two positions, and that two of the three different
combinations of shading (check, grey, black) occur
twice in the set while the third occurs once in the
set. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that,
between frames, the shadings move through the
flag right to left one segment (returning to the right
end). The flag’s wave alternates between its two
positions. Therefore, the sequence is CEDAB, and
the answer is D.

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 om
N
@ 5 DI

l.c
tu -19 UD

ai
tm
na 09 HI
re 9
ho
27 4- MO
bl B AD
D AM
ue : 1
H
O

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