HRT-2 Class X (2023) Paper

You might also like

Download as pdf or txt
Download as pdf or txt
You are on page 1of 12

30

3.0 Hour Review Test – 2 | Three Year Course - 2023

Date: 12 September, 2020 Timing: 04:00 PM to 08:00 PM Maximum Marks: 320

General Instructions

1. The test is of 3 hours duration.

2. The test consists of 80 questions. The maximum marks are 320.

3. This paper consists of two sections, Section - A (NCERT) and Section – B (Foundation). There are four
subjects in each section, Subject I, II, III and IV consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and
Biology respectively.

4. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.

5. Candidate will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 4 for correct response of each
question. 1 4 (one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the questions (i.e. 1 mark) will be

deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be
made if no response is indicated.

6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question
will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per
instruction 5 above.
Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

SECTION -A (NCERT)
SUBJECT I : PHYSICS 32 MARKS
This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
1. What is the current flowing through 1 resistance?

(1) 1A (2) 2A (3) 15 A (4) 3A


2. What is the current flowing through 1 resistor?

(1) 1A (2) 2A (3) 15 A (4) 3A


3. Which of the following graph satisfies ohm’s law?
{V = potential difference across conductor; I = current in conductor}

(1) (2) (3) (4)

4. If 5C charge flows from a crossection in 2 seconds, what is the current flowing through it?
(1) 2.5 A (2) 5A (3) 1A (4) 2A
5. What is the work done to move 3C charge across a potential difference of 10V?
(1) 30 J (2) 10 J (3) 20 J (4) 3J
6. On which of the following factors, does the resistivity of a material depend?
(1) Length of conductor
(2) Area of crossection of conductor
(3) Volume of conductor
(4) Temperature
7. What is the power of a concave lens of focal length 10cm?
(1) 1D (2) 1D (3) 10 D (4) 10 D
8. What is the equivalent resistance between points A and B.
{100 Resistances are connected as shown in the figure}

(1) 100  (2) 200  (3) 5050 (4) 10,100

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 2 3.0 Hour Review Test - 2 | Class – X | 2023


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

SUBJECT II : CHEMISTRY 32 MARKS


This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
9. What is the nature of metal carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonates ?
(1) Acidic (2) Basic (3) Neutral (4) Not any fixed nature
10. Which substance will change the colour of universal indicator from purple to red ?
(1) Milk of magnesia (2) Baking soda
(3) Washing soda (4) HCl
11. What is tooth enamel made up of ?
(1) Calcium phosphate (2) Calcium carbonate
(3) Calcium (4) Potassium
12. What is produced at cathode in chlor alkali process ?
(1) H2 (2) Cl2 (3) NaOH (4) None of these
13. What do milkman add to increase shelf life of milk ?
(1) Mild acid (2) Mild base (3) Neutral Salt (4) None of these
14. Mg can’t react with :
(1) Cold water (2) Hot water
(3) Steam (4) It can react with all of these
15. Complete the reaction :
Mn  dil HNO3 
 Mn(NO3 )2  ______
(1) H2 (2) H 2O (3) H 2 O (4) None of these
16. Which of the following is not a property of ionic compounds ?
(1) High melting point
(2) They are hard and brittle
(3) They are soluble in kerosene, petrol etc.
(4) All of above are properties of ionic compounds

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 3 3.0 Hour Review Test - 2 | Class – X | 2023


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

SUBJECT III : MATHEMATICS 64 MARKS


This Subject contains 16 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
17. The sum of first 38 odd natural numbers is :
(1) 1444 (2) 1900 (3) 741 (4) 862

18. If kth term of A.P. 1, 1.5, 2, 2.5.…. is 70 then (1  2  3  ......  k ) is equal to :


(1) 4970 (2) 139 (3) 19460 (4) 9730

19. The 18th term from end in the series 2, 5, 8, ......., 239 is :
(1) 191 (2) 53 (3) 188 (4) 185

20. The degree of expression (1  2 x)(2  3x2 )(3  4 x3 )......(9  10 x9 ) is :


(1) 55 (2) 45 (3) 9 (4) 50

21. Cube of an even number must be divisible by ' a ' then maximum value of ' a ' is :
(1) 2 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 16
22. The L.C.M. of two numbers P  2a  35 and Q  23  3b is 23  35 then number of ordered pairs (a, b)
is : [a and b are whole numbers]
(1) 15 (2) 20 (3) 8 (4) 24

23. The irrational number among the following is :


(1) 42 3  42 3
(2) Ratio of area and circumference of a circle with rational radius
(3) 0.120112011120111120…….
(4) ( 2  1)2  ( 2  1)2
24. Select the INCORRECT statement :
(1) Product of three consecutive natural numbers is always divisible by 6
(2) Product of two consecutive natural numbers is always divisible by 2
(3) Product of two consecutive natural numbers is always divisible by 4
(4) Product of three consecutive natural numbers is always divisible by 3
25. The sum of two natural numbers whose H.C.F. and L.C.M. are 14 and 63 respectively, is :
(1) 77 (2) 16 (3) 98 (4) Data given is incorrect
26. If x and y are two natural numbers not divisible by 4 but leave same remainders on division by 4 then
remainder obtained on dividing x2  y 2 by 8 is :
(1) 0 only (2) 2 only (3) 4 only (4) either 0 or 2
27.

Angle ADE  angle ACB  40


If AD  5 cm, BD  16 cm and AE  7 cm then EC is equal to :
(1) 15cm (2) 8cm (3) 22.4cm (4) 11.2cm

Code A | Page 4 3.0 Hour Review Test - 2 | Class – X | 2023


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success
28. D, E , F are mid points of sides BC , CA and AB respectively in a  ABC.

p
The ratio of areas of quadrilaterals BDEF and BCEF is where p & q are co-prime positive integers
q
then p  q equals :
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 6

29.

ABCD is trapezium where DE  x  1, CE  x2  2, BE  3x  1 and AE  3x2  3 then sum of possible


values of x is : [AB and CD are parallel]
1 3
(1) 3 (2) 1 (3) (4)
2 2
30. Perimeters of two similar triangles are in ratio 16 : 25 then ratio of their areas is :
(1) 16 : 25 (2) 4:5 (3) 64 : 125 (4) 256 : 625

31. PQR XYZ and angle PQR  60, angle XZY  40 then angle RPQ is equal to :
(1) 40° (2) 80° (3) 60° (4) 30°
32. Consider the following statements.
1. All equilateral triangles are similar to each other.
2. If any two angles of a triangle are equal to two angles of other triangle then triangles must be
similar to each other.
3. Ratio of intercepts made by two different transversal lines on three parallel lines is same.
4. Diagonal of a square is twice its side.
The correct statements are :
(1) Only 1 and 2 (2) Only 1 and 3
(3) All 1, 2, 3 and 4 (4) Only 1, 2 and 3

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 5 3.0 Hour Review Test - 2 | Class – X | 2023


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

SUBJECT IV : BIOLOGY 32 MARKS


This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
33. Match the following:

Column – I Column - II
a. Condoms (i) Phase in the reproductive
cycle of female
b. Testes (ii) Mechanical barrier
c. Menstruation (iii) Stamens
d. Androecium (iv) Petals
e. Corolla (v) Testosterone

(1) a(ii), b(v), c(i), d(iii), e(iv) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii), e(v)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(v), d(i), e(ii) (4) a(v), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii), e(i)
34. The only gaseous plant hormone :
(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin (3) Ethylene (4) ABA
35. The hormone which is associated with stress response in human body :
(1) Thyroid gland (2) Pancreas
(3) Liver (4) Adrenal Gland
36. The structural and functional unit of nervous system is:
(1) Neurons (2) Nephrons (3) Nephridia (4) Neutrons
37. Spore formation occurs in :
(1) Amoeba (2) Hydra (3) Rhizopus (4) Yeast
38. The site for fertilisation in female reproductive system is :
(1) Uterus (2) Ovary
(3) Vagina (4) Fallopian tube
39. One of the following is a viral STD.
(1) AIDS (2) Syphilis
(3) Gonorrhoea (4) None of the above
40. Onset of menstrual cycle in females is known as :
(1) Menopause (2) Menarche (3) Medulla (4) Memory

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 6 3.0 Hour Review Test - 2 | Class – X | 2023


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

SECTION - B (FOUNDATION)

SUBJECT I : PHYSICS 32 MARKS


This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:

41. The length of a current-carrying cylindrical conductor is l, its area of cross-section is A, the number
density of free electrons in it is n, and the drift velocity of electrons in it is vd . The number of electrons
passing through a particular cross-section of the conductor per unit time is given by:
(1) nA (2) nAvd (3) nvd (4) Avd
42. If there is 10 volts potential difference across a 5 resistor, what is the current passing through the
resistor?
(1) 0.5 A (2) 1A (3) 2A (4) 15 A
43. A convex lens of focal length 10cm is kept at a distance 15 cm from an object of height 3cm. Find the
height of image formed.
(1) 6 cm (2) 4 cm (3) 3 cm (4) 2cm

44. Six resistors, each of value 8 are connected as shown in the figure. A
cell of emf 8V is connected across AB. The effective resistance across
AB and the current passing through the arm AB will be :
(1) 4 ,1 A (2) 15 ,2 A
(3) 4 , 2 A (4) 1.5 ,1 A
45. In the circuit shown, the potential difference between A and B, V A  VB is equal to n V. Find n.

(1) 6 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 2


46. A heater coil is cut into four equal parts of equal length and only one part is now used in the heater. The
heat generated will now be :
(1) Doubled (2) Four times (3) One – fourth (4) Halved

47. A light ray is incident perpendicular to a face of a 90° prism and is totally
internally reflected at the glass - air interface. If the angle of reflection is 45°,
 1 
what can be concluded about the refractive index n? sin 45  
 2
1
(1) n (2) n 2
2
1
(3) n (4) n 2
2

Code A | Page 7 3.0 Hour Review Test - 2 | Class – X | 2023


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

48. In the circuit shown, the currents i1 and i2 are :


(1) i1  3 A i2 1A
(2) i1 1 A i2  3 A
(3) i1  0.5 A i2  1.5 A
(4) i1 1.5 A i2  0.5 A

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 8 3.0 Hour Review Test - 2 | Class – X | 2023


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

SUBJECT II : CHEMISTRY 32 MARKS


This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
49. Washing soda is prepared by which process ?
(1) Chlor alkali process (2) Haber process
(3) Solvay’s process (4) None of these
50. What will be the pH of mixture of 500 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 250 mL of 0.1 M Ca(OH) 2 solution at
25°C?
(1) 0 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 1
51. Which of the following is an organic acid ?
(1) Sulphuric acid (2) Sulphurous acid
(3) Citric acid (4) Nitric acid
52. The highly reactive metals like Sodium, Potassium, Magnesium, etc. are extracted by the :
(1) Electrolysis of their molten chloride (2) Electrolysis of their molten oxides
(3) Reduction by aluminium (4) Reduction by carbon
53. Which of the following will have pH  7 on dissolving in water ?
(1) CH 3COONa (2) NaCl (3) KCl (4) H 2SO 4
54. In thermite process, the reducing agent used is :
(1) C (2) Zn (3) Na (4) Al
55. Which of the following will not displace hydrogen from H 2SO 4 ?
(1) Cu (2) Zn (3) Fe (4) Al
56. Roasting is usually done for :
(1) Carbonate ores (2) Nitrogen ores
(3) Sulphide ores (4) None of these

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 9 3.0 Hour Review Test - 2 | Class – X | 2023


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

SUBJECT III : MATHEMATICS 64 MARKS


This Subject contains 16 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
57. Maximum sum of the series 50, 47, 44, ...... is :
(1) 884 (2) 442 (3) 887 (4) 439

58. The number of multiples of 3 or 5 but not 15 from 11 to 502 is :


(1) 262 (2) 229 (3) 196 (4) 33

59. In an A.P., nth term is given by Tn  3n(n  1)  ( n  2)(3n  1) then sum of first 50 terms is :
(1) 2450 (2)  2450 (3) 2500 (4)  2500

60. The sum of 300 terms of the series 2  5  7  4  10  10  6  15  13  8  20  16  ...... is :


(1) 118000 (2) 51000 (3) 50900 (4) Data insufficient

61. In a solid hemisphere the circumference of circular base, curved surface area and volume are in A.P. then
possible value of radius is :
3 6 3 6 6 6
(1) (2) (3) (4) 3 6
2 2 3

62. The number of proper factors of 17640 is :


(1) 36 (2) 34 (3) 70 (4) 72

63. The sum of exponents of 2, 3, 5 and 7 in (20)! is :


(1) 26 (2) 32 (3) 28 (4) 30

64. If [ x] is greatest integer less than or equal to x then the value of [1]  [1.5]  [2]  [2.5]  ......[76] is :
(1) 2926 (2) 2850 (3) 3002 (4) 5776

65. 4516  816 is divisible by two 2-digit prime numbers whose sum is :
(1) 53 (2) 90 (3) 37 (4) 83

66. The unit digit of (324)30  (325)30  (326)30  (327)30 is :


(1) 7 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4) 8

67. A toaster can grill a sandwich, a burger and garlic bread in 3 minutes, 4 minutes and 7 minutes
respectively. Three such toasters are used for ' n ' hours, one each for making sandwiches, burgers and
garlic breads. If a, b and c respectively are the number of sandwiches, burgers and garlic breads prepared
then a  b  c for minimum value of n is : (a, b, c, n are all positive integers)
(1) 206 (2) 305 (3) 235 (4) 385

68.

In  ABC : AB  9 cm, AC  3 cm and BC  8 cm. AD bisects angle BAC and I is incentre of  ABC. If
DI  2 cm then AI is equal to :
(1) 3cm (2) 4cm (3) 2cm (4) 6cm

Code A | Page 10 3.0 Hour Review Test - 2 | Class – X | 2023


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

69.

AD bisects BC and BE bisects AD. AB  8 cm, AC  10 cm and BC  6 2 cm then BE is equal to :


(1) 4cm (2) 3cm (3) 5cm (4) 3 2 cm

70. DA, EB and FC are parallel and A, B and C are collinear.

If AD  6 cm, FC  3cm then BE is equal to :


(1) 1cm (2) 2cm (3) 1.5cm (4) 2.5cm

71. ABCD is a square and AEB is an equilateral triangle, each having side length 1cm.

The length of DE is equal to :

(1)
 3 1

 2 
 cm (2)  
2  3 cm (3)  
3  1 cm (4)
2
3
cm

72. Diagonal of a rhombus are 80cm and 18cm then its perimeter is :
(1) 41cm (2) 82cm (3) 123cm (4) 164cm

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

Code A | Page 11 3.0 Hour Review Test - 2 | Class – X | 2023


Vidyamandir Classes: Innovating For Your Success

SUBJECT IV : BIOLOGY 32 MARKS


This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
73. How many among the following are the parts of fore brain?
Cerebral peduncles, Medulla oblongata, Pons, Cerebellum, Corporo quadrigemina, Cerebrum
diencephalon.
(1) Two (2) Three (3) One (4) Four
74. The movement shown by “Mimosa pudica” are more specifically called as :
(1) Thigmonasty (2) Photonasty (3) Seismonastic (4) All of these
75. Following are the advantage of vegetative propagation, except.
(1) It is a more rapid method of propagation than growing plants from seeds
(2) Seedless fruits can be obtained by this technique
(3) It can result in inheritable variations
(4) Helps to produce disease free and genetically similar plants.
76. How many number of spinal nerves are present :
(1) 62 (2) 31 (3) 24 (4) 12
77. Which one of the following shows multiple fission?
(1) Bread mould (2) Flatworm
(3) Kala-azar parasite (4) Malaria parasite
78. A sterilisation technique in females which blocks gamete transport and thereby prevent conception is :
(1) Vasectomy (2) Copper-T (3) Condom (4) Tubectomy
79. What is the end product of triple fusion in plants?
(1) Ovule (2) Endosperm (3) Pollen grain (4) Zygote
80. In grafting scion belongs to :
(1) Plant having superior or desirable characters
(2) Plant having well developed root system
(3) Plant resistant to disease
(4) Both (2) and (3)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

  3.0 Hour Review Test - 2 | Class – X | 2023  

Code A | Page 12 3.0 Hour Review Test - 2 | Class – X | 2023

You might also like