Question 1: Leadership is the ability to influence a group toward the achievement of a vision

and set of goals.

A. True
B. False

Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a reason for why organizations need leaders ?

A. Organizations need leader to challenge the status quo

B. Leaders are the one who can create visions of the organizations
C. Leaders are the one who can formulate the plans of the organizations
D. Inspiring members to achieve visions and goals are the things that leaders can do
effectively.

Question 3: What is the biggest difference between trait and behavioral theories of leadership ?

A. Behavioral theory differentiates leaders from non-leaders in terms of observable personal

characteristics and inherent qualities while trait theory differentiates in terms of trainable
qualities that can be developed over time
B. Trait theory differentiates leaders from non-leaders in terms of observable personal
characteristics and inherent qualities while behavioral theory differentiates in terms of
trainable qualities that can be developed over time
C. Behavioral theory differentiates extraordinary leaders from leaders in terms of observable
personal characteristics and inherent qualities while trait theory differentiates in terms of
trainable qualities that can be developed over time
D. Trait theory differentiates extraordinary leaders from leaders in terms of observable
personal characteristics and inherent qualities while behavioral theory differentiates in
terms of trainable qualities that can be developed over time

Question 4: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic in the Big Five Model of trait
leadership ?

A. Extraversion
B. Emotional Stability
C. Self-motivation
D. Conscientiousness

Question 5: Which of the following traits is usually considered as the opposite of emotional
stability in the Big Five Trait Model of leadership ?

A. Neuroticism
B. Introversion

1
 C. Agreeableness
D. Openness to experience

Question 6: Which of the following is the core component of emotional intelligence (EI) ?

A. Social skills
B. Self-awareness
C. Self-management
D. Empathy

Question 7: Trait theories are far bigger predictor of leadership emergence than leadership
effectiveness.

A. True
B. False

Question 8: Trait theories select the right people for leadership but behavioral theories train
people to be leaders.

A. True
B. False

Question 9: The quality of initiating structure is most closely associated to the human-oriented
approach of leadership behavior

A. True
B. False

Question 10: Which of the following is NOT an action implemented by a leader that is
characterized by higher level of initiating structure ?

A. Assigned group members to particular tasks

B. Express appreciation and support
C. Emphasizes the meetings of deadlines
D. Expect workers to maintain define standards of performance

2
Question 11: A leader who emphasizes interpersonal relations, takes personal interest in the
needs of employees, and accepts individual differences among members

A. Task-oriented leader
B. Production-oriented leader
C. Employee-oriented leader
D. Human-oriented leader

Question 12: Which leadership theory is premised on the notion that leaders establish close
working relationships with an in-group of followers?

A. Leader-member exchange theory

B. Leader-participation theory
C. Path-goal theory
D. Situational leadership theory

Question 12: The leadership approach in which the way a leader makes a decision must be
aligned with what they actually decide is path-goal theory

A. True
B. False

Question 13: Which leadership theory is premised on proposes that effective group performance
depends on the proper match between the leader’s style and the degree to which the situation
gives the leader control.

A. Fielder leadership model

B. Path-goal leadership theory
C. Leader-participation leadership theory
D. Situational leadership theory

Question 14: Which of the following best describes one of the downsides of the charismatic
leadership style?

A. Charisma is overrated
B. Charismatic leadership always leads to inflated stock prices

3
 C. Charismatic leaders may not always act in the best interests of the organisation
D. Charismatic leadership is usually ineffective in most modern organizations

Question 15: How does the affiliative leadership style build resonance?

A. By connecting what a person wants with the organization’s goals

B. By moving people toward shared dreams
C. By valuing people’s input and getting commitment through participation
D. By creating harmony by connecting people to each other

Question 16: The quality of consideration is most closely associated with which approach to
leadership?

A. Task-oriented leadership

B. Production-oriented leadership

C. Structure-oriented leadership

D. Human-oriented leadership

Question 17: Which of the following best describes the value of trait theories of leadership?

A. They are good at predicting leader effectiveness, but not leader emergence.
B. They are good at predicting leader emergence, but not leader effectiveness.
C. They are good at predicting both leader effectiveness and leader emergence.
D. They are not good at predicting leader emergence, nor leader effectiveness

Question 18: Production-oriented leadership is the practice in which the leaders emphasizes
technical and task aspects of the jobs.

A. True
B. False

Question 19: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of authentic leadership ?

A. Being ethical
B. Practicing servant leadership

4
 C. Universal effectiveness
D. Creating trust

Question 20: Which of the following is NOT an aspect of creating trust in authentic leadership
approach ?

A. Fairness
B. Intergrity
C. Benevolence
D. Ability

Question 21: Coaching leadership style has positive climate on the team and it builds resonance
by valuing people’s inputs and getting commiment through participation

A. True
B. False

Question 22: Which of the following is NOT a component of job attitudes ?

A. Affective
B. Cognitive
C. Assonance
D. Behavioral

Question 23: Which component of attitude describes an intention to behave desired action in a
certain way toward someone or something ?

A. Behavioral
B. Cognitive
C. Satisfaction
D. Affective

Question 24: Job involvement is the degree to which an employee identifies with a particular
organization and its goals and wishes to maintain membership in the organization.

A. True

5
 B. False

Question 25: Job involvement connects perceived personal performance with what individual
quality?

A. Self-esteem
B. Self-concept
C. Self-improvement
D. Self-worth

Question 26: Which concept is usually closely related to job involvement ?

A. Job satisfaction
B. Organizational commitment
C. Psychological empowerment
D. Psychological flexibility

Question 27: Which of the following is correct about the difference between job involvement
and organizational commitment ?

A. Job involvement is major predictor of job performance while organizational commitment

is major predictor of job productivity
B. Job involvement is major predictor of job productivity while organizational commitment
is major predictor of job performance
C. Both job involvement and organizational commitment are major predictors of job
performace and job productivity
D. Neither job involvement nor organizational is major predictor of job performance and job
productivity

Question 28: According to the textbook, which is the main cause of job dissatisfaction?

A. Pay
B. Job security
C. Promotion
D. Job stress

6
Question 29: Which of the following is true about job dissatisfaction in the US ?

A. 75% of US employees feel unsatisfied about their jobs

B. Employees with lower pay feel unsatisfied with all aspects of their job
C. Lack of participation in leadership is one of the main causes for job dissatisfaction in the
US
D. US employees feel satisfied with their jobs due to the high degree of adhocracy

Question 30: According to job dissatisfaction in VietNam, which of the following is NOT a
reason for why employees feel unsatisfied about their jobs ?

A. Lack of independent work opportunities

B. Lack of opportunities to improve skills
C. Lack of work-life balance
D. Lack of participation in leadership

Question 31: Dissatisfaction expressed through active and constructive attempts to improve
conditions is “Voice” response method

A. True
B. False

Question 32: Which of the following is incorrect about Emtional intelligence (EI) ?

A. EI is the single biggest predictor of leadership effectiveness and performance

B. EI is based on: perceiving emotions in yourself and in others, understanding the meaning
of emotions, regulating own emtions
C. Everyone contribute equally to the overall level of EI, including leader when developing
group EI
D. People develop strong EI competencies as they get older and more experienced and have
spent more time working and leading others.

Question 33: What gender differences have been demonstrated to exist with respect to the
experience of emotion?

7
A. There is insufficient evidence to determine any gender differences in the experience of
emotion
B. There are no gender differences in the experience of emotion
C. Women generally experience and express emotions more intensely than men
D. Men generally experience and express emotions more intensely than women

Question 34: Why is determining Emotional Intelligence (EI) so important in an organization’s

selection processes?

A. Because people in jobs are always highly emotional

B. Because jobs often involve a high degree of social interaction
C. Because people are unlikely to succeed in a job unless they demonstrate high EI during the
selection process
D. Because jobs are always highly emotional

Question 35: Which of the following is not a characteristic when applying psychological
flexibility to develop emotion intelligence (EI) ?

A. Trust
B. Long-term thinking
C. Fair and inclusive decision making
D. Social orientation value

Question 36: Which of the following is NOT one of the leadership styles included in the
leadership repertoire in Primal Leadership?

A. Transactional

B. Pacesetting

C. Democratic

D. Commanding

Question 37: Which of the following best describes one of the downsides of the charismatic
leadership style?

8
 A. Charisma is overrated
B. Charismatic leadership always leads to inflated stock prices
C. Charismatic leaders may behave out of narrow self-interest
D. Charismatic leadership is usually ineffective in most modern organizations

Question 39: What is the best way of familiarizing yourself with the core design principles of
the Prosocial process?

A. By applying them to a group that you have obligations toward

B. By applying them to a group that you can effect harmonious relations with
C. By applying them to a group that you care about
D. By applying them to a group that pays you

Question 40: Which of the following concepts best captures the essence of leadership?

A. Position
B. Volition
C. Precision
D. Vision

Question 41: Charismatic leadership is usually a combination of traits (“leaders are born”) and
behaviours (“leaders are made”).

A. True
B. False

Question 42: According to Primal Leadership, empathy can be built over time through practice.
Which of the following is NOT one of the practices that allows this process to occur?

A. Undertaking training programmes

B. Motivation
C. Emotional commitment
D. Intentional effort

Question 43: According to Prosocial, what is one of the key capabilities required in order to
develop well-being?

9
 A. Integrating what is actually happening and the interpretations and meanings we attach to
what is happening.
B. Consolidating what is actually happening and the interpretations and meanings we attach to
what is happening.
C. Differentiating between what is actually happening and the interpretations and meanings
we attach to what is happening.
D. Ignoring what is actually happening and the interpretations and meanings we attach to what
is happening.

Question 44: Emotions and moods are both sub-categories within which larger category of
psychological phenomena:

A. Aspiration
B. Antagonism
C. Awareness
D. Affect

Question 45: Which of the following is NOT one of the four major employee responses to job
dissatisfaction?

A. Neglect
B. Exit
C. Labour
D. Voice

Question 46: Personality is determined by two components: heredity and personality traits

A. True
B. False

Question 47: What is the best conclusion that can be drawn about the current state of the
scientific evidence of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) with respect to its usefulness in
organizations?

A. The MBTI has moderately-supportive evidence to support its usefulness in organizations

10
 B. The MBTI has conclusive evidence to support its usefulness in organizations
C. The MBTI has strong evidence to support its usefulness in organizations
D. The MBTI has extremely weak-to-no evidence to support its usefulness in organization

Question 48: People who have high level in neuroticism/ emotional stability will be less likely
to suffer mood swings, anxiety, irritability, and sadness.

A. True
B. False

Question 49: Which of the following traits is considered the opposite of emotional stability
among the Big Five Personality Model traits?

A. Conscientiousness
B. Extraversion
C. Openness to experience
D. Neuroticism

Question 50: Which of the following qualities is typically NOT associated with
Machiavellianism?

A. Pragmatism
B. A belief that the ends always justify the means
C. Emotional closeness
D. Emotional distance

Question 51: Which of the following qualities is typically NOT associated with Narcissism?

A. Arrogant
B. Self-importance
C. Admiration
D. Persevere untill meaningful change occurs (Proactive personality)

Question 52: Values are not fluid and flexible but tend to be relatively stable and enduring

A. True

11
 B. False

Question 53: Which of the following best describes the concepts of terminal and instrumental
values?:

A. Both terminal values and instrumental values are about the “what”
B. Terminal values are about the “how”; instrumental values are about the “what”
C. Terminal values are about the “what”; Instrumental values are about the “how”
D. Both terminal values and instrumental values are about the “how”

Question 54: Which of the following is considered “desired end-states” ?

A. Accomplishment values
B. Instrumental values
C. Terminal values
D. Proactive personality

Question 55: The value of “work-life balance” is thought to have first emerged with which
generation’s entry into the workforce?

A. Baby Boomers
B. Gen-Z
C. Gen-X
D. Gen-Y / Millennials

Question 56: Baby boomers value workplaces that have flat hierarchies, democratic cultures,
humane values, equal opportunities, and warm and friendly environments

A. True
B. False

Question 57: What is the term used to describe the alignment between the values of an
organization and the values of a particular person performing a particular job in the organization?

A. Job-person fit
B. Job-organization fit

12
C. Person-person fit
D. Person-organization fit

Question 58: Which of the following is NOT a component under Hofstede’s Five Value
Dimensions of a National Culture ?

A. Power distance
B. Performance orientation
C. Individualism
D. Uncertainty advoidance

Question 59: Frameworks like Hofstede and GLOBE are becoming less useful and meaningful
in an increasingly global business landscape

A. True
B. False

Question 60: The GLOBE framework for assessing cultures: retains five Hofstede’s values and
adds performance orientation and humane-orientation.

A. True
B. False

Question 61: What is the most accurate comparison of “surface-level” and “deep-level”
diversity with “demographic” and “individual” diversity?

A. Individual diversity is similar to both surface-level and deep-level diversity

B. Demographic diversity is similar to neither deep-level nor surface-level diversity
C. Deep-level and individual diversity are similar, and surface-level and demographic
diversity are similar
D. Surface-level and individual diversity are similar, and deep-level and demographic
diversity are similar

Question 62: Practicing diversity in mordern organizations does NOT have which of the
following:

13
 A. It leads to greater fairness and equity in the workplace, and better representation of
marginalized or underrepresented population groups in organization
B. It gives a diversification of the range of individual approaches to problem-solving;
creativity; solutions analysis; innovation; strategic thinking; and other qualities that
organizations value when trying to recruit the best talent in diversity background
C. The ethical and business cases for diversity are totally inextricably seperated.
D. Demographic and individual diversity work hand-in-hand

Question 63: What is one of the downsides of focusing on fairness in groups and teams?

A. It causes people to focus on how they are benefiting themselves from the group, rather than
the actual shared purpose of the group.
B. It causes people to stop focusing on group productivity.
C. It causes people to stop focusing on organizational profitability.
D. It causes people to focus on how the group is benefiting, rather than on how the organization
is performing.

Question 64: According to Prosocial, what quality most notably increases among employees
when all people are treated with fairness?

A. Remuneration
B. Communication
C. Diversification
D. Motivation

Question 65: In an organization with well-functioning diversity and inclusion policies, and
equal-opportunity recruitment and selection policies, what is the single-most important
characteristic that should be identified in potential new job candidates?

A. Their gender
B. Their age
C. Their sexual orientation
D. Their qualifications

14
Question 66: Person-organization fit should be assessed during selection process to predict
performance and job knowledge

A. True
B. False (Person-job fit)

Question 67: Which of the following statement is correct when mentioning the application of
person-job-organization fit for a adaptable firm ?

A. Adaptable firm should focus more on creating personal-job fit to maximize efficiency
B. Adaptable firm should concentrate on fit between employees’values and corporate culture
to maintain organizational commitment.
C. Adaptable firm should let employee’s personalities fit with the overall organization’s
culture rather than with the characteristics of any specific job
D. Adaptable firm should create harmony between person-job-fit and person-organization-fit
to reduce turnover

Question 68: Which of the following is NOT correct about individual diversity ?

A. It is also known as deep-level diversity

B. Idiosyncratic diversity is reffered to individual diversity
C. Individual diversity is about the combination of all the different variables which make
you you. No other person on Earth – past, present, or future – has the exact same
combination of variables
D. Open dialogue is the key thing to develop ones’ individual diversity to match with the
team in organization.

Question 69: Which is the following is FALSE?

A. By promoting a greater commitment to demographic diversity in hiring, selection and

recruitment processes, organizations will widen their talent pool and increase the degree
of individual diversity available to them
B. Demographic diversity is an increasing source of concern for modern organizations and
leadership; particularly since more cultures are striving to achieve greater workplace

15
 equality and inclusion for people of different e.g. genders; ethnicities; sexual orientation;
region of origin
C. Group diversity represent what people can offer an organization in terms of improving its
performance and effectiveness
D. Demographic underrepresentation is remaining a big problem in many organizations at
present.

Question 70: Diversity training programmes have been proven to be especially effective to
promote group and individual diversity level in the organization

A. True
B. False (have not been proven)

Question 71: Which of the following is NOT a challenge of workplace diversity ?

A. People’s attitudes are often a product of the generation they are from and generational
changes can take time. Therefore, the wide application of diversity and inclusion is costly
for organizations
B. There are sometimes innocent, non-discriminatory explanations for demographic
underrepresentation
C. The topic of demographic diversity in workplace is very controversial and inflammatory
and it can not yet approach this issue in a measured, democratic, and humane manner.
D. Biases in attitudes and discrimination in policies and practice can sometimes prevent
demographic minorities from being given the chance to prove they are the best candidate

Question 72: What is the fundamental attribution error?

A. Under-estimating internal factors and over-estimating external factors in one’s own

failures
B. Over-estimating internal factors and under-estimating external factors in one’s own
failures
C. Under-estimating internal factors and over-estimating external factors in other’s failures
D. Over-estimating internal factors and under-estimating external factors in others’ failures

Question 73: Selective perception’s greatest advantage is:

16
 A. Efficiency
B. Accuracy
C. Comprehensiveness
D. Universality

Question 74: What is the self-serving bias?

A. Under-estimating internal factors and over-estimating external factors in other’s failures

B. Over-estimating internal factors and under-estimating external factors in others’ failures
C. Under-estimating internal factors and over-estimating external factors in one’s own failures
D. Over-estimating internal factors and under-estimating external factors in one’s own failures

Question 75: What is a major downside of involving a lot of people in making a decision?

A. Increased risk of group crisis

B. Increased risk of group compromise
C. Increased risk of group conflict
D. Increased risk of group challenges

Question 76: Why is rationality bounded?

A. Because all forms of rationality have limits

B. Because we cannot process all the information we absorb
C. Because we are bounded by our perceptions of other people
D. Because we cannot expect people to be rational

Question 77: What makes inclusive decision-making systems more resilient over time?

A. Heightened dependence upon individuals and their specific preferences

B. Lowered dependence upon groups and their collective preferences
C. Heightened dependence upon groups and their collective preferences
D. Lowered dependence upon individuals and their specific preferences

Question 78: What is the hindsight bias (also known as retrospective illusion)?

A. The tendency to over-estimate our predictive capacities after an outcome is known

17
 B. The tendency to under-estimate our predictive capacities before an outcome is known
C. The tendency to over-estimate our predictive capacities before an outcome is known
D. The tendency to under-estimate our predictive capacities after an outcome is known

Question 79: What is the relationship between mental ability and perceptual errors?

A. People with higher mental abilities almost always avoid perceptual errors
B. People with higher mental abilities can be prone to perceptual errors, and are just as likely
as people with lower mental abilities to overcome them
C. People with higher mental abilities are almost always subject to perceptual errors
D. People with higher mental abilities can be prone to perceptual errors, but are better
positioned to overcome them

Question 80: “Tell and sell” is synonymous with which decision-making style?

A. Consultative
B. Content-based decision-making
C. Facilitative
D. Autocratic

Question 81: What is the most dominant philosophy of ethical decision making in business?

A. Justice and fairness

B. Deontology
C. Collectivism
D. Utilitarianism

Question 82: Which of the following is correct about how we perceive the information on the
reality arround us ?

A. Our behaviors are determined by our perception about the reality but not the reality itself
B. What we perceive about the reality is the same as what the reality actually is
C. Our behaviors are determined by the fact of reality but not our perception about the
reality

18
 D. Knowing and suffering the reality does not provide any linkage to what we organize and
interpret our perception about itself

Question 83: Which of the following is one of the factors that influence perception ?

A. Stimulus
B. Target
C. Affective
D. Behavioral

Question 85: The approach in which we judge others based on attributions we make about their
behaviour, and whether it was internally- or externally-caused is attribution theory

A. True
B. False

Question 86: Internally-caused behaviors in attribution theory are the ones we attribute to
situational factors

A. True
B. False (internal control not situational factors)

Question 87: We make attributions of internally- or externally-caused behaviour based on which

of the following EXCEPT:

A. Distinctiveness
B. Consensus
C. Consistency
D. Expertise

Question 88: The cognitive bias and perceptual shortcut characterized by the tendency to rely
heavily upon the first piece of information that individuals receive is

A. Hindsight bias
B. Halo effect
C. Anchoring bias

19
 D. Confirmation bias

Question 89: The cognitive bias and perceptual shortcut characterized by the preferency to
ignore negative information is

A. Endowment effect
B. Ostrick effect
C. Sailence bias
D. Observer Expectancy Effect

Question 90: Which of the following is NOT a component of individual differences in decision-
making ?

A. Energy and metabolism

B. Personality
C. Perception
D. Cultural differences

Question 91: Which of the following is correct when mentioning about differences in individual
decision-making by genders ?

A. Females are more likely to make risky decisions with low information based on perceived
short-term gain
B. Males are more likely to overanalyze problems before making a decision and to try to
change a decision once it has been made
C. Males are more likely to make risky decisions with low information based on perceived
short-term gain
D. There is no evidence-based on how gender can influence decision-making of a person

Question 92: Which of the following is NOT a constraint in decision-making process in the
organization ?

A. Historical Precedents
B. Cognitive biases
C. Time Constraints

20
 D. Performance evaluation

Question 93: Which of the following is NOT a type of decision-making process to practice with
risk and uncertainty ?

A. Nominal decision making

B. Rational decision making
C. Bounded rationality
D. Intuitive decision making

Question 94: Which of the following is NOT a component in the 3-Component Model of
Creativity for better decision-making

A. Deontology
B. Expertise
C. Creative-thinking skills
D. Intrinsic task motivation

Question 95: Inclusive decision-making systems are more resilient over time because they are
less dependent upon individuals and their specific preferences

A. True
B. False

Question 96: Which of the following terms best helps to differentiate teams from groups?

A. Synthesis
B. Syndication
C. Synergy
D. Symbiosis

Question 97: Which of the following is NOT one of the perceived benefits of monitoring group
behaviour?

A. Decreased cheating
B. Decreased conflict

21
 C. Improved coordination
D. Increased shared identity

Question 98: Which of the following does a shared purpose in a group NOT create?

A. Motivation
B. Empowerment
C. Belonging
D. Reduced personal benefits

Question 99: Group norms have what effect on the external control of the group?

A. They reduce the necessity of external control

B. They increase the necessity of external control
C. They increase the incidence of external control
D. They reduce the incidence of external control

Question 100: With respect to group formation, what does uncertainty avoidance help to provide
for individuals joining a group?

A. Fairness
B. Frankness
C. Freedom
D. Fit

Question 101: When considering the contribution all group members make to group Emotional
Intelligence (EI) what is the role of the leader?

A. EI cannot be understood in terms of the leader; only the group

B. The leader alone contributes to group EI
C. Everyone contributes to the overall leader of group EI, but particularly the leader
D. Everyone contributes equally to the overall level of group EI, including the leader

Question 102: Approximately how often should monitoring meetings be held among groups?

A. Every week

22
 B. Every 1-2 weeks
C. Every 2-4 weeks
D. Every 6 months

Question 103: Which of the following categories best describes a team which has a norm of
listening to everyone’s perspective?

A. Self-confident team
B. Self-managed team
C. Self-inclusive team
D. Self-aware team

Question 104: What are the two “faces” of group cohesion?

A. Social cohesion and structure cohesion

B. Task cohesion and social cohesion
C. Structure cohesion and equity cohesion
D. Task cohesion and structure cohesion

Question 105: Team size and effectiveness are related in which way?

A. Smaller teams are usually less effective

B. Larger teams are usually more effective
C. Larger teams are usually ineffective
D. Smaller teams are usually more effective

Question 106: Formal group is natural formations in the work environment that appear in
response to the need for social contact

A. True
B. False (Informal group)

Question 107: Based on social identity theory to explain why do people form groups, which of
the following is NOT a characteristic of the theory ?

A. Uncertainty reduction

23
 B. Similarity
C. Group involvement
D. Status

Question 108: Which of the following is NOT one of stages in group development model ?

A. Norming
B. Reforming
C. Performing
D. Adjourning

Question 109: Which of the stage in group development model that characterized by high level
of uncertainty about purpose, identity and leadership ?

A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing

Question 110: Which of the following is NOT a property of groups ?

A. Cohesiveness
B. Diversity
C. Roles
D. Generation

Question 111: Which is the implication for job productivity based on the correlation of
performance norms and degree of cohesiveness in groups ? (Difficult)

A. Both low level of performance norms and cohesiveness will result in low productivity
B. High level of performance norms and low cohesiveness will result in low productivity
C. Both high level of performance norms and cohesiveness will result in low productivity
D. Low level of performance norms and high level of cohesiveness will result in low
productivity

24
Question 112: According to the Primal Leadership, to build emotional reality for teams, all of
the following is necessary EXCEPT:

A. Self-aware
B. Self-managed
C. Self-motivation
D. Empathic

Question 113: Which of the following is correct about the effectiveness and efficiency of group
decision-making ?

A. High effectiveness and high efficiency

B. High effectiveness and low efficiency
C. Low effectiveness and high efficiency
D. Low effectiveness and low efficiency

Question 114: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic when defining and creating
effective teams ?

A. Context
B. Performance
C. Composition
D. Process

Question 115: Which of the following can be the ways to monitoring teams’ behaviors well ?

A. Holding periodic meetings

B. Using project-management tools
C. Processing for performance evaluation and management
D. All of the above are correct

Question 116: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of monitoring teams’ behaviors ?

A. Increased statisfaction
B. Increased prosociality
C. Decrease cheating

25
 D. Increased motivation and shared identity

Question 117: All of the “official leaders” in an organization are defined by the emotional
leaders

A. True B. False

Question 118: Which of the following is true regarded to meritocracy as a challenge in

workplace diversity ?

A. The best individual candidate for the job should be hired if their personalities fit with
organizational demographic qualities

B. The best individual candidate for the job should be hired regardless of their demographic
qualities

C. The best individual candidate for the job should not be hired if their personalities fit with
organizational demographic qualities

D. The best individual candidate for the job still should not be hired regardless of their
demographic qualities

Question 119: Which of the following is the best comparison of the experiences of responding
to helpful behaviour compared with responding to unhelpful behaviour?

A. They are somewhat similar

B. They are very different

C. They are very similar

D. They are somewhat different

Question 120: Which of the following is one of the principal advantages of written
communication?

A. The “personal touch”

B. The “primary message”

26
 C. The “paper trail”

D. The “pony express”

Question 121: An effective approach for evaluating an individual’s role or responsibility in a

problematic is to try and adopt which of the following:

A. Their perceptual outlook

B. Their perspective

C. Their personality

D. Their performance outlook

Question 122: When communicating a sanction or penalty to someone, it’s usually helpful to
accompany this communication with which of the following:

A. A suggestion of a more helpful behaviour

B. A suggestion of a more effective communication style

C. A suggestion of a less troublesome outlook

D. A suggestion of a less incomprehensible communication style

Question 123: The essence of communication is the transfer and understanding of which of the
following:

A. Meaning

B. Emotional expression

C. Information

D. Data

Question 124: In the process of selective perception, the receivers of a communication project
what into their understanding of the message?

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 A. Their voice and hearing

B. Their interests and expectations

C. Their speaking characteristics

D. Their job qualities and characteristics

Question 125: Which of the following best represents the understanding of the concept of
“lying”?

A. Lying is only ever about deliberate misrepresentation of truth

B. Lying is only ever about the mere withholding of information

C. Lying is understood to mean the same thing by all peoples across the world

D. Lying is based on different definitions and interpretations across people and cultures

Question 126: Which kind of processing of communication is most closely related to the
concepts of cognitive biases and perceptual shortcuts?

A. Cognitive processing

B. Controlled processing

C. Automatic processing

D. Autonomous processing

Question 127: How can having psychological flexibility help you in a situation in which you
have to communicate with someone who has performed a negative behaviour?

A. It will prevent any emotional feelings in your response from occurring

B. It will ensure that you punish the person appropriately but fairly

C. It guarantees that you will treat that person fairly

D. It will allow you to become more open and receptive to that person

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Question 128: Which of the following best captures the important of communication in business
and management to achieve desired organizational outcomes ?

A. Meaning

B. Motivation and persuasion

C. Emotional expression

D. Goal-oriented

Question 129: Using force, or the threat of force, in order to establish power represents what
kind of power?

A. Reward power

B. Reference power

C. Coercive power

D. Legitimate power

Question 130: When conflict is healthy, nothing about the conflict itself is:

A. Perfect

B. Permanent

C. Personal

D. Perspective-dependent

Question 131: Which of the following is NOT one of the three constitutive features of
dependence as it relates to power?

A. Importance

B. Status

C. Scarcity

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 D. Non-substitutability

Question 132: Organizational factors influence organizational politics mostly as a function of

what:

A. Inclinations

B. Incentives

C. Interests

D. Indiscriminateness

Question 133: “Bad faith” negotiations should never be:

A. Tolerated

B. Abandoned

C. Completely rejected

D. Recognized

Question 134: Under good conflict management practices, which of the following is
emphasized:

A. Harmony

B. Unity

C. Agreement

D. Solutions

Question 135: When people have good political skills, they will typically view office politics as
what:

A. A temporary imposition

B. A necessary inconvenience

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 C. An opportunity to grow personally

D. An opportunity to secure more power

Question 136: Power achieved as the result of charisma has what kind of formality?

A. Formality

B. Informality

C. Misformality

D. Proformality

Question 137: Under poor conflict management practices, perspectives are considered:

A. Anonymously

B. Selectively

C. Universally

D. Invariantly

Question 138: The features of an individual’s contracted job profile represent what kind of
power?

A. Reward power

B. Coercive power

C. Legitimate power

D. Referent power

Question 139: Which of the following is NOT one of six elements of organization structure ?

A. Work specialization

B. Formilization

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C. Task required skills

D. Departmentalization

Question 140: Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which jobs can be
departmentalized?

A. Based on process requirements

B. Based on geographic location

C. Based on governance concerns

D. Based on customer needs

Question 141: Which of the following is NOT one of advantages in jobs involved high level of
decentralization ?

A. Quick decision and response times

B. Clarity in decision-making

C. Greater leveraging of skill specialization

D. Better use of lower and middle management

Question 142: Which of the following is NOT one of the problems created by a misaligned
organizational structure?

A. Disorganization and improper staffing

B. Despairing constitutional separation

C. Diminished capacity, capability, and agility

D. Declining workforce engagement

Question 143: In modern management, is more or less centralization and decentralization

recommended?

32
A. There is no universal recommendation for centralization and decentralization

B. More centralization, less decentralization

C. Less of both centralization and decentralization

D. More decentralization, less centralization

Question 144: The concept of an organization that isn’t limited by structural boundaries
originated with the head of which American company?

A. Ford

B. General Electric

C. IBM

D. Berkshire Hathaway

Question 145: Matrix-based organizational structures are mainly designed based on differences
in what:

A. Departmental dysfunctionality

B. Departmental formalization

C. Departmental informalization

D. Departmental functionality

Question 146: The great advantage of organically-designed organizations lies in their greater:

A. Formalization and centralization

B. Mechanism and structure

C. Stability and rigidity

D. Flexibility and adaptability

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Question 147: Which of the following is NOT one of the effects of the relative absence of
separation of ownership and control in Vietnamese corporate governance?

A. The uncommonness of directors and chairmen serving concurrently

B. Inadequate representation of information to non-insiders

C. Poor accountability

D. A lack of harmony in inter-party transactions

Question 148: What is thought to be the main conceptual difference between organizational
structure and design?

A. Structure is static, design is dynamic

B. Structure is informal, design is formal

C. Structure is formal, design is informal

D. Structure is dynamic, design is static

Question 149: Consider a task force in the context of the Five Stage Team Development model
(Class 5). Which of the following best describes the process of a task force:

A. A task force is not required to adjourn at any point.

B. A task force performs, then adjourns, then returns to the norming stage.

C. A task force performs, then adjourns.

D. A task force performs, then adjourns, then returns to perform again.

Question 150: Which of the following is NOT an aspect of managerial complexity to determine
the number of subordinates a manager can efficiently and effectively direct ?

A. Time allocation

B. Motivation potential

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C. Process standardization

D. Work variety

Question 151: Which of the following is NOT a core value in which the organization are
designed ?

A. People

B. Process

C. Structure

D. Compensation

Question 152: In which organization structure do employees are spread across multiple
functions, working in one department while having responsibilities in another ?

A. Matrix structure

B. Divisional structure

C. Bottom-up structure

D. Hierarchy structure

Question 153: Which of the following is NOT true regarding structural boundaries within a
organization ?

A. It seeks to eliminate the chain of command

B. It includes entire chain of command responsible for tasks and decisions

C. It has limitless spans of control

D. It replaces departments with empowered teams

Question 154: Which of the following is correct when comparing the sharing value in strong and
weak organization culture ?

35
A. In strong culture, values are widely shared while in weak culture, values only accepted by a
few people

B. In weak culture, values are widely shared while in strong culture, values only accepted by a
few people

C. Regardless of the strong or weak culture level, values are widely shared to ensure employees
to work toward common goals

D. Regardless of the strong or weak culture level, values only accepted by a few people, usually
top management

Question 155: Which of the following best describes organization culture and climate ?

A. Organizational culture is “in practice” while organization climate is “on paper”

B. Organizational culture is “on paper” while organization climate is “in practice”

C. Organizational culture is “vision” while organization climate is “experience”

D. Organizational culture is “experience” while organization climate is “vision”\

Question 156: Which of the following is NOT a component of mechanistic approach of

organization structure ?

A. High specialization

B. Rigid departmentalization

C. Low formalization

D. Narrow spans of control

Question 157: Which of the following is NOT a dimension to consider the fit between strategy
and structure in organization environment ?

A. Capacity

B. Volatility

36
C. Complexity

D. Technology

Question 158: Which of the following is NOT a way to build an ethical culture in the
organization ?

A. Be a visible role model

B. Provide protective mechanisms

C. Explicitly define values

D. Visibly reward ethical acts and punish unethical ones

Question 159: Which of the following is considered as a way to establish a strong and positive
culture within an organization ?

A. Communicate ethical expectations

B. Build psychological safety and flexibility

C. Provide ethical training

D. Provide protective mechanisms

Question 160: Which of the following is NOT a component of workplace spirituality ?

A. Flexibilty and creativity

B. Benevolence

C. Strong sense of purpose

D. Open-mindedness

Question 161: Which of the following is global implications for practicing organization culture
when it appears to multi-national corporations (MNCs) ?

A. Decentralization are always promoted regardless the differences in values in global context.

37
B. Different countries have same perspectives on values, thus MNCs do not necessary to adapt a
new value into other cultures.

C. Values don’t always neatly translate from one national or cultural context to another, thus
MNCs need to consider and adapt appropriate values to best fit with with the other cultures.

D. MNCs are forced to make their subordinates in other cultures fit with the values in their home
nations due to the fact that value is static, not fluid and flexible.

Question 162: The organizational structure of working with many groups at a given locality is
referred to as:

A. Egalitarianism

B. Ecosystem

C. Equal economy

D. Externality economy

Question 163: “Scale independence” is a feature of what kind of organizational structural

feature:

A. Polycentric governance

B. Unicentric governance

C. Tricentric governance

D. Bicentric governance

Question 164: What is the term which denotes the basis by which jobs are grouped?

A. Specialization

B. Formalization

C. Departmentalization

D. Naturalization

38
Question 165: In highly centralized organizational structures, lower-level managers are
responsible for what with respect to decision making?

A. Executing decisions

B. Planning decisions

C. Defining decisions

D. Authorizing decisions

Question 166: What kind of structure employees dual lines of authority to streamline workplace
performance?

A. Hierarchical structure

B. Boundaryless structure

C. Matrix structure

D. Organic structure

Question 167: What can top management most effectively do with regard to creating an ethical
culture within their organization?

A. Undertake ethical training

B. Eliminate all possible ethical difficulties from the company

C. Have uniform ethical expectations of all people

D. Be a public role model

Question 168: Which of the following is NOT one of the ways in which employees learn
organizational culture?

A. Language

B. Training

39
C. Stories

D. Rituals

Question 169: “Managing upward” can be particularly difficult within which kind of
organizational structure:

A. Adhocracy

B. Boundaryless

C. Matrix

D. Hierarchy

Question 170: The term “formalization” is largely interchangeable with which other
organizational structure term?

A. Centralization

B. Standardization

C. Decentralization

D. Informalization

Question 171: In a boundaryless organization, what theoretical quality do spans of control

possess?

A. Tightness

B. Limitlessness

C. Looseness

D. Limitedness

Question 172: Although the market today is dynamic and changeable, there are still companies
that have a particularly stable environment.

40
A. True

B. False

Question 173: What is the rallying cry among today's managers worldwide?

A. Change is constant

B. Risk is better than regret

C. Change or die

D. Management is an art

Question 174: Which one of these is NOT a force of change?

A. Nature of the workforce

B. Economic shocks

C. Globalization

D. World politics

Question 175: Who in an org is responsible for managing change activities?

A. HRM Department.

B. Everyone in the organization.

C. The shareholders

D. Change agents

Question 176: How do you explain the principle that Connelly calls "launch hard and ramp
fast."?

A. Continuously selling products with lower costs compared to the market price

B. Launch new products and derive as much of its revenues as possible

41
C. Launch as many marketing campaigns as possible to attract new customers

D. Launch as many new projects as possible to genera

Question 177: Which one is NOT an individual source of resistance to change?

A. Security

B. Fear of the unknown

C. Selective information processing

D. Favoritism

Question 178: Which one is NOT an organizational source of resistance to change?

A. Structural inertia

B. Limited focus of change

C. Organizational culture

D. Threat to established power relationships

Question 179: What are the three steps in Lewin's Change Model?

A. Unfreezing -> Movement -> Refreezing

B. Defrosting -> Movement -> Freezing

C. Freezing -> Unfreezing -> Refreezing

D. Freezing -> Defrosting -> Refreezing

Question 180: What are the steps of action research in order?

A. Diagnosis, action, analysis, feedback, evaluation and action

B. Diagnosis, analysis, feedback, action and evaluation

C. Diagnosis, analysis, action, feedback and evaluation

42
D. Diagnosis, analysis, action, evaluation and feedback

Question 181: Which approach to managing organizational change whose focus is on how
individuals make sense of their work environment?

A. Lewin's Change Model

B. Kotter's Eight-step Plan

C. Action Research

D. Organizational Development

Question 182: Which is NOT an underlying value in most OD efforts?

A. Trust and support

B. Power equalization

C. Gender equality

D. Participation

Question 183: Appreciative inquiry (AI) focuses on an organization's problems.

A. True

B. False

Question 184: Which step is included in Appreciative Inquiry (AI)?

A. Discovery, dreaming, design and destiny

B. Discovery, design, dreaming and action

C. Discovery, design, action and evaluation

D. Discovery, dreaming, design and action

Question 185: How long is AI played in a large-group meeting?

43
A. 1 week to 1 month

B. Over a 2- or 3-day time period

C. Over a year

D. Over a 4- or 5-day time period

Question 186: Which is NOT a source of innovation?

A. Organic structure

B. Long tenure in management

C. Abundant resources

D. Interunit communication

E. Flexible working time

Question 187: Which is NOT one of the three fundamental problems of traditional organization
that proponents of the learning organization envision it as a remedy?

A. Fragmentation

B. Specialization

C. Competition

D. Reactiveness

Question 188:"They correct errors by modifying objectives, policies, and standard routines" is
the definition of:

A. Single-loop learning

B. Double-loop learning

C. Idea champions

D. Process Consultation

44