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Psychology AQA 1 Workbook Answers 1
Psychology AQA 1 Workbook Answers 1
Psychology AQA 1 Workbook Answers 1
Where a question calls for a specific response, a detailed answer is provided. For questions that
could elicit a range of answers, a list of the most probable responses is included. Use your
discretion when marking unexpected responses by assessing whether the question has been
answered.
Topic 1
Social influence
1 a Internalisation
b Identification
c Compliance
d Majority influence
g Minority influence
h social roles
i characteristics situation
j deindividuation
b TRUE
c TRUE
d TRUE
e TRUE
f TRUE
h TRUE
i FALSE (they were not told the true purpose of the study)
j TRUE
k TRUE
d The person giving the order has no legitimate authority, the person giving the order has
low social status, the person giving the order is not physically present, other people refuse to
obey.
e C
f The students would not have obeyed because the boy from year 7 has no legitimate
authority, and in a school year 7 students have low social status.
g Sami cheered when Liverpool scored a goal because of normative social influence — he
wants to be liked by his friends and because they all cheered, he complied and cheered as
well.
b An influential minority is consistent; they enter into discussion and avoid being too
dogmatic; they take action in support of their principles (e.g. take part in protest marches).
c The Moscovici study is a laboratory experiment that has low mundane validity and people
may not be influenced to change their opinions about social situations as easily as they are
about the colour of a slide.
Trust your intuition if and when you feel there is ‘something wrong’.
Don’t just accept the definition of a situation given to you by a person whose interests
may conflict with yours.
Consider the ‘worst case’ scenario (what could happen if you obey?) and act on that
possibility.
Don’t worry about ‘what the other person may think of you’ — if you are mistaken, you
can always apologise when it is safe to do so.
6 Example answer:
4 marks awarded. The outline of the authoritarian personality is clear and accurate and the
evaluation relevant to obedience is coherent and clear.
7 The answer should contain the application of social influence research to changing people’s
opinion about women priests. It could include details of:
an explanation that social change happens when the minority view supporting women
priests challenges a majority view until it becomes accepted as the majority
obedience to the legitimate authority of changed laws making equal rights for women
the social norm will occur
5–6 marks will be awarded if the knowledge of social influence as related to social change is
clear and detailed. To be awarded a top-band mark the issue of women priests as raised in
the source must be explicitly referred to.
8 Example answer:
Asch carried out research to measure normative social influence. In a laboratory experiment
that used a repeated measures design, groups of seven or eight male students were shown a
stimulus line (S) and then three other lines (A, B and C). There was only one ‘real’ participant
in each group, the others were confederates. All the participants were asked to say out loud
which line (A, B or C) matched the stimulus line and the real participant always answered last
or last but one. The confederates all gave the same wrong answer. In the critical trials, the real
participants gave incorrect answers that conformed to the majority view 37% of the time and
75% conformed at least once. When they were asked why some said that they had not
wanted to look different. Asch concluded that normative social influence had taken place —
the real participants agreed with (complied with) the wrong answers because they wished to
be accepted by the rest of the group.
A strength of this research is that the experimental method was used, and standardised
procedures and controls, such as all participants seeing the same stimulus lines, meant that
Asch could show cause and effect and the study could be replicated. Another strength is that
quantitative data, as percentages of conformity, were collected and backed up by the
qualitative data derived from the post-experiment interviews with the real participants.
However, the study broke ethical guidelines as the real participants were deceived and
embarrassed. Also, the study has low external validity as it does not represent a realistic
social situation and, in most situations, people may be less willing to comply with the opinion
of others than they are about trivial line lengths.
5–6 marks awarded. The knowledge of the study is accurate and detailed and the evaluation
is effective.
9 Example answer:
Milgram studied obedience to authority and when the context in which the order was given
was one of high social status, 26 of the 40 participants (65%) followed orders and
administered 450 volt electric shocks. Only 9 of the 40 participants (22.5%) stopped at 315
volts. The participants showed signs of extreme tension, they were observed to sweat and
tremble and a few laughed nervously. One advantage of the Milgram study is that it explains
why usually ‘good’ people may follow immoral orders. Another strength is that Milgram
collected both objective quantitative data, the level of electric shock each participant ‘stopped’
at, as well as qualitative data, how the participants behaved and what they said. The
recordings of the verbal comments of the participants show how they refused to take
responsibility for the outcomes of their obedient behaviour. Also, although the research
situation would be unlikely to occur in everyday life the participants clearly believed that the
electric shocks were harming Mr Wallace and to this extent the research findings have high
ecological validity.
4 marks awarded. The answer gives an accurate description of the findings of the Milgram
study and an effectively argued evaluation.
Example suggestions:
To support Amil — you could describe Milgram’s research suggesting a situational explanation
for obedience to authority, including the theory of ‘agentic state’ and the ‘slippery slope’
argument. Also mention social conformity, and the idea that if the majority of others are also
obeying then conformity to social roles and obedience is more likely. You could also mention
that if others are seen to disobey then resistance to authority is more likely.
To support Anne — you could describe Adorno’s theory of the authoritarian personality, and
possibly the theory that those having an external locus of control are more likely to obey.
To argue against Amil — you could mention levels of moral reasoning, and point out that not
all Milgram’s participants administered 450v electric shocks. You could also suggest that
Milgram’s research procedures have low mundane realism.
To argue against Anne — you could point out the weaknesses of the theory of the
authoritarian personality and discuss the problems of gaining a valid measure of personality.
Topic 2
Memory
1 a The capacity for memory in STM is approximately ‘seven plus or minus two’ pieces of
information.
b STM has limited capacity, approximately seven to nine pieces of information, but LTM
has unlimited capacity. Information in STM has limited duration, about 30 seconds, but
information in LTM may last a lifetime.
c The primacy effect is when the first items from a list of information are remembered better
and the recency effect is when the last items of information from a list are remembered better.
d The primacy-recency effect supports the multi-store model because the primacy effect
happens because the first items of information have been transferred to LTM, and the recency
effect happens because the last items of information are still in STM.
f Episodic memory is the memory of autobiographical events that are the collection of past
personal experiences that occurred at particular times and places. For example, remembering
your 16th birthday is an episodic memory.
g Procedural memory
h Semantic memory allows us to give meaning to words and sentences and to understand
language.
2 a Short-term memory
the visuospatial working area where spatial and visual information is processed
d The working memory model assumes that the articulatory–phonological loop has limited
capacity. The interference task involves a participant being asked to perform two tasks that
use the articulatory–phonological loop at the same time, such as reading a book while singing
a song. If performance on both tasks is affected, this is because the articulatory–phonological
loop cannot cope with both tasks at the same time and suggests that the working memory
model is accurate.
e The articulatory–phonological loop and the visuospatial scratchpad both pass information
to the central executive which has limited capacity to process sensory information. Talking on
the mobile phone means the articulatory–phonological loop passes speech-based information
to the central executive and watching the road means that the visuospatial working area also
passes information to the central executive so short-term memory may become overloaded
with information.
f The working memory model is more realistic than the multi-store model.
3 a C
b B
c Retroactive interference occurs when you forget a previously learned task due to the
learning of a new task. After Marie revised her French she revised her Italian vocabulary.
French and Italian are similar languages and revising the Italian vocabulary may have
disrupted Marie’s memory of the French causing retroactive interference as Marie forgot the
French due to the learning of the Italian.
d When we store a new memory we also store information about the situation called
retrieval cues and when we come to the same situation again, these retrieval cues can trigger
the memory of the situation.
e External retrieval cues are in the environment, for example the smell of the place where
the memory was formed, but internal retrieval cues are the state inside the person such as the
mood you were in when the memory was formed.
f The students who were tested in the same room where they learned the animal words
would have had the same external retrieval cues to help them remember the words, but the
students who were tested in a different room would have had no matching retrieval cues to
help them remember the animal words.
4 a A leading question is a question that suggests a certain kind of answer. For example,
‘Was the cat you saw black or ginger?’ suggests that there actually was a cat.
b In experiment 1, the participants who were asked the question using the verb ‘smashed’
reported the cars travelling at 9mph faster than the participants asked how fast the cars were
travelling when they ‘contacted’ each other.
c The meaning of the verb smashed implies breakage. Loftus and Palmer suggest that
when the students were asked to estimate ‘how fast the cars were travelling when they
smashed into each other’ the meaning of the word smashed as breakage was added to the
memory, creating a false memory that broken glass was shown on the film.
Control group: there was no control group in experiment 1, but in experiment 2 there
was a control group who were not asked a question about speed.
Measuring the DV: in experiment 1 the effect of the leading question was measured
immediately, in experiment 2 there was a delay and the effect of the leading question
was measured a week later.
e There was low real-world realism. The witnesses were questioned immediately, the film
was a two-dimensional event rather than a three-dimensional event and there would have
been no shock or surprise as there would have been for a witness to a real car crash. Also the
participants were all university students who may have had better memories than most due to
continual learning, thus a biased sample. All of these factors lead to low ecological validity.
Duration of event — the longer we watch, the more likely we are to remember details.
The amount of time between an event and recall — the longer the time, the worse the
recall.
Anxiety — highly emotional events may be either more memorable or less memorable
than everyday events.
g The cognitive interview is a procedure used by the police to help eyewitnesses recall
information more accurately. During the interview the witness is encouraged to relax and recall
everything they can remember, no matter how trivial the information appears. During recall the
police do not ask questions or interrupt the witness.
Exam-style questions: AS
5 Procedural memory
6 Semantic memory
One technique used during a cognitive interview is when the witness is encouraged to
recall the event from other perspectives, for example imagining what someone in a
different place may have seen.
One technique used during a cognitive interview is when the witness is encouraged to
report every detail of the event, no matter how seemingly unimportant.
The witness is asked to mentally reconstruct the environmental and personal context
of the event, the sights, sounds and feelings etc.
The interviewee is asked to describe the event using a different timeline, for example
from end to start.
Possible strengths:
No order or practice effects, as participants only take part in one condition and do not
get bored.
The same film could be used in each condition, if a repeated measures design had
been used a different film would be needed for each condition otherwise the
participants would see the film twice which would increase their memory scores.
Possible weaknesses:
c Question injunction = outline and evaluate. This question assesses AO1, AO2 and AO3
skills.
For the ‘outline’ (AO1) part of the question, you could include:
For 7–8 marks the knowledge of the research into short-term memory should be detailed and
accurate. Possible evaluation points may include the question of validity of laboratory
experiments, methodological issues such as sampling, replication, ethical issues and the
usefulness of research. Specialist terminology should be used effectively. You are not
expected to provide more than about 7 minutes of writing.
Outline
Jacobs (1987) studied the capacity of short-term memory (STM). In a laboratory experiment
participants were presented with strings of letters or digits and were asked to repeat them
back in the same order. The length of the string was increased, from three to four, five, six etc.
until the participant was unable to repeat the sequence accurately. On average, participants
recalled nine digits and seven letters and this increased with age of the participant. Jacobs
concluded that STM has a limited storage capacity of between five and nine items, but that
memory techniques such as chunking may increase capacity as people get older.
Evaluation
One of the advantages of using laboratory experiments to research STM is that standardised
procedures and high levels of control increase both validity and reliability. Reliability is
increased through the use of standardised procedures and validity is increased because extra
variables that could affect what is being measured are controlled. However, much of the
research into STM has been laboratory experiments and this research can be criticised as
having low ecological validity. Ecological validity (external validity) is the extent to which the
procedures used in research could happen in real life, and the extent to which the sample of
participants is representative of the population to whom the findings are to be applied. In
research by Jacobs, the task of repeating back a meaningless string of digits is not one which
has much everyday realism and participants would not be very motivated to try to recall the
digits. In addition, much research into STM involves student samples, which reduces the
ecological validity because students spend much of their time memorising information, which
would not be the case with the majority of the adult population. Also, as with research by
Jacobs, laboratory experiments into STM only involve memory of facts rather than memory of
experiences, thus because the findings apply only to limited aspects of memory, they have low
external validity.
OR
1 mark is awarded for identifying the median. 1 mark is awarded for justifying the use of the
median. For example, for stating that the median could be used because there are only 10
scores in each data set and thus high or low scores can skew the mean.
b For 4 marks you should calculate the measure of central tendency you identified in Q8a
accurately and show your calculation for both groups.
The mean was: different room 5.7; same room 11.0. The calculations should be shown as:
If the median was suggested in Q8a, 4 marks are awarded if the answers are correct, and
scores are shown arranged in ascending order with the middle value(s) indicated.
c 1 mark for stating that this is due to retrieval cues. 1 mark for explaining the effect of
retrieval cues.
Example answer:
The students who were interviewed in the same room could have used retrieval cues to
remember. Retrieval cues may be based on the context in which information is encoded and
retrieved. For example, evidence indicates that retrieval is more likely when the context at
encoding matches the context at retrieval. Baddeley (1975) found that those who had recalled
in the same environment in which they had learned recalled 40% more than those recalling in
a different environment. This suggests that the students who were interviewed in a different
room could not recall the film because they lacked retrieval cues.
d Question injunction = describe and evaluate, so this question assesses AO1, AO2 and
AO3 skills.
For the ‘describe’ (AO1) part of the question, you should describe the multi-store model of
memory.
For the ‘evaluate’ (AO2/AO3) part of the question, you might focus on the strengths and
weaknesses of the model, or of the research on which the model is based. For high marks you
need to express your ideas clearly, using appropriate psychological terminology, to
demonstrate a clear understanding. You can address either a broad range of issues in
reasonable depth or a narrower range of issues in greater depth. Make sure you focus on the
question of the effect of leading questions on eyewitness testimony.
For this question you should write a quick plan before you write your answer. You need to
provide about 7 minutes of content for the AO1 section and 7 minutes of critical argument for
the AO2/AO3 section and your answer should provide as much evaluation as content.
Example description:
The multi-store model suggests that memory consists of different stores, sensory memory,
short-term memory (STM) and long-term memory (LTM). Sensory memory is where
information enters the system through our senses (e.g. our eyes and ears). If the information
in sensory memory is attended to, it will be passed to the STM store which has limited
capacity for about seven chunks of information. Verbal rehearsal maintains information in
STM, but STM has limited duration, thus the information may be lost if it is displaced by new
incoming information. Information is passed from STM to LTM by rehearsing the information
and LTM has unlimited capacity and duration so the information may be remembered for a
lifetime.
The multi-store model is simple and can be tested. Research evidence supports the
idea that STM and LTM are qualitatively different types of memory.
In real life, memories are created in contexts rather different from laboratory-based
‘free recall’ experiments, so perhaps this model does not explain fully the complexities
of human memory.
The model does not explain why some information is easier to remember than other
information.
The model does not explain why retrieval cues help recall.
Topic 3
Attachment
1 a Attachment is a close emotional relationship between two persons characterised by
mutual affection and a desire to maintain closeness.
c Interactional synchrony is when an infant moves in time with the conversation and seems
to take turns with the caregiver. This reciprocal behaviour is produced as a response to the
behaviour of the caregiver.
e Isabella et al. studied mother-infant pairs and found that infants who were developing
secure attachments were observed to interact in a well-timed, reciprocal and mutually
rewarding manner, but those developing insecure relationships were characterised by
interactions in which mothers were minimally involved or unresponsive to infant signals.
After 4 months the infant shows preference for certain people and distinguishes
primary and secondary caregivers.
After 7 months the infant shows special preference for a single attachment figure and
shows fear of strangers and unhappiness when separated from a special person
(separation anxiety).
After 9 months the infant becomes increasingly independent and forms several
attachments.
2 a i FALSE
ii FALSE
iii TRUE
iv FALSE
b Imprinting appears to be innate and happens instantly after birth (hatching), while
attachment develops in stages. A baby duckling imprints on the first object it sees and
‘recognises’ this as its mother, a human infant learns to recognise its mother.
d This is a nature theory — as Harlow suggests the need for comfort from the caregiver is
innate.
f The function of imprinting is to enable the parent bird to ‘know’, immediately after
hatching, which baby birds are ‘its’ offspring and to enable each baby bird to know which adult
is ‘its’ mother. From an evolutionary point of view, the parent bird does not want to waste
energy caring for the young of others and if the baby bird followed the ‘wrong’ adult it might
get attacked and killed.
3 a A child’s bond with his or her caregiver can be explained in terms of learning and
reinforcement, because the caregiver relieves the physical needs of hunger and thirst and the
child learns to associate pleasure with the caregiver.
b Feeding cannot fully explain the development of attachments because Harlow’s baby
monkeys showed a preference for the cloth-covered mother, especially when they were
distressed which shows that attachment is not just about a learned association between food
and pleasure.
f Factors include:
The age of the child. Bowlby proposed that unless attachments have developed by
between 1 and 3 years, they will not develop ‘normally’.
The child’s temperament. A child’s temperament may make it easier or harder for
him or her to form attachments.
The quality of care. Psychologists suggest that the sensitivity of the caregiver can
also affect the development of attachments.
h Securely attached infants show some anxiety when their caregiver departs but are easily
soothed and greet the caregiver’s return with enthusiasm. They play independently and return
to the caregiver regularly for reassurance.
i The infant is distressed when the caregiver goes and when the caregiver returns rushes
to the caregiver but is not easily consoled and may resist contact with the caregiver.
j Ratio = 68:32. Simplify by dividing both sides by 4. The ratio of secure to insecure
attachments is 17:8.
k D (Russia)
4 a Maternal deprivation occurs when a child has formed an attachment but then experiences
the loss of the mother or other attachment figure so the attachment bond is broken. Maternal
privation is when a child has never been able to form a close relationship and develop an
attachment with any one caregiver.
d On adoption, the Romanian children had an average IQ of 63 and when these children
were assessed again the average IQ for those adopted before the age of 6 months had
increased to 107.
e One advantage of using a longitudinal method is that it is possible to study the long-term
effect of early childhood experience. In the Romanian orphan studies Rutter studied children
who had been adopted after maternal deprivation or privation. He studied 111 Romanian
children who were adopted in England before they were 2 years old. On adoption, the
Romanian children had an average IQ of 63 and when these children were assessed again
the average IQ for those adopted before the age of 6 months had increased to 107, but for
those adopted after the age of 6 months the average IQ had only increased to 90. By studying
the children for a long period of time Rutter was able to measure changes in IQ and see how
the age at which the children had been adopted influenced their future development.
g Adopted calculation: (24 divided by 65) x 100 = 36.9230, rounded to two decimal places
is 36.92%.
‘Restored’ calculation: (15 divided by 65) x 100 =23.0769, rounded to 2 decimal places is
23.08%.
Exam-style questions: AS
5 B
6 B
7 A
8 C
9 Example answer:
10 Possible points:
11 For a top-band mark knowledge of the strange situation is accurate and generally well detailed
and discussion is thorough and effective. Application to the source is appropriate and links
between theory and source content are explained. The answer is clear, coherent and focused.
Specialist terminology is used effectively.
The strange situation may not be a reliable way to assess attachment. If infants do not
behave in the same way if they are retested, then the findings of the procedures are
not reliable. How do we know that if Abba, Basil and Charley were tested again they
would behave in the same way?
Is the attachment between the child and his/her caregiver being measured or is the
situation measuring personality differences in the children that might have more
influence on attachment than how their caregiver behaves? If the latter is the case,
then the strange situation is not a valid measure of attachment. Abba, Basil and
Charley may have different temperaments.
The strange situation is based on US culture and observed behaviour may not have
the same meaning in different cultures. The use of a procedure developed in one
culture may not be a valid measure of behaviour in another culture — it may be an
imposed etic. For example, an infant who demonstrates behaviour classified as
insecure–avoidant in the strange situation may be described as ‘showing
independence’ in Germany. Perhaps Basil is just a very independent child.
In strange situation research sample sizes are often small. For example, in the Van
Ijzendoorn and Kroonenberg cross-cultural review of strange situation studies in eight
countries although large numbers of children were studied overall, in some countries
sample sizes were small. For example, in the Chinese study only 36 children were
used, making it unsafe to generalise the findings to whole populations.
In the strange situation ethical issues arise when young children are observed in
situations in which they are deliberately distressed.
One problem that arises when researching caregiver-infant interaction is making sure the
research takes place in a natural setting such as the child’s home. If caregiver-infant
interaction is observed in an unfamiliar setting the observed behaviour will not be a valid
reflection of how the caregiver and infant interact in their everyday lives.
Another problem that arises is making sure the ethical guidelines are followed, that the parent
has given informed consent to be observed and that neither parent nor child is distressed in
any way.
Also, when observing caregivers and infants researchers must reduce observer bias by having
more than one observer, and when more than one observer is used procedures must be put in
place to ensure inter-observer reliability.
Finally, the descriptions of the behaviour observed during caregiver-infant interaction will be
qualitative data and these are less easy to analyse than quantitative data — the researcher
will need to establish a coding scheme before the study can begin.
13 2 AO1 marks and 6 AO2 marks: for a top-band mark knowledge of research into the effects of
disruption of attachment is accurate and discussion is thorough and effective.
Probably out of date — in the A strength is that the control Genie shows that
1950s childrearing practices groups allowed comparison researchers can behave
were very different from to be made increasing unethically and can add to
today validity the effect of privation
Summary/conclusion Summary/conclusion Summary/conclusion
Not very useful and may Useful — suggests that the Useful because it shows that
cause mothers to feel guilt effects of privation can be with love and attention the
overcome effects of privation can be
overcome
14 This question awards 6 AO1 marks and 10 AO3 marks. You need to demonstrate your
understanding of the features of learning theory as an explanation of attachment and your
outline should demonstrate that you understand the behaviourist learning theories.
Attachment bonds are developed because of the association between the pleasure of
receiving food and the person who is feeding the infant.
Behaviourist theories cannot explain why there are different types of attachment.
Example answer:
The learning explanation proposes that a child’s attachment bond with his or her caregiver can
be explained in terms of operant conditioning. Based on operant conditioning, infants feel
discomfort when they are hungry and so desire food to remove the discomfort. They learn that
if they cry, their caregiver feeds them and the discomfort is removed. This is negative
reinforcement: the consequences of behaviour (crying) lead to something unpleasant ceasing
(feeling hungry stops). Thus, the behaviour of ‘being close’ to the caregiver is reinforced, the
attachment bond is learned and the attachment behaviour of distress is shown if the child is
separated from the caregiver.
However, learning theory, or operant conditioning as a result of the provision of food, cannot
fully explain the development of attachment. In a study of monkeys, Harlow demonstrated that
even though the wire mother provided food the baby monkeys did not become attached to it,
preferring to cling to the cloth covered monkey for comfort which suggests that factors other
than the provision of food as a reward are important.
Another factor that learning theory tends to ignore is the quality of the care provided and
Ainsworth suggests that sensitivity of the caregiver can also affect the development of
attachments.
Finally, there are individual differences in the type of attachment developed which would not
be the case if attachment bonds were learned only as a result of feeding/reinforcement.
Topic 4
Psychopathology
1 a It means that if a behaviour is normally distributed, then people whose behaviour is more
than two standard deviations above or below the mean will be defined as ‘abnormal’.
b If we define abnormality as behaviour that deviates from the social norm it means that a
person whose behaviour does not fit in with social norms, or meet social expectations, will be
described as abnormal.
c C
e Those who suffer from phobic disorders have a persistent fear of a specific object or
situation, recognise that the fear experienced is excessive, exposure to the fear-provoking
stimulus produces a rapid anxiety response and the phobic stimulus is avoided to the extent to
which the phobic reactions interfere with the person’s life.
f Diagnosis of unipolar depression requires five or more symptoms, including for at least 2
weeks extreme sadness, tearfulness, depressed mood and loss of interest in, and pleasure in,
usual activities as well as social withdrawal.
iii True
iv True
v True
b The patient is confronted with his or her phobic stimulus. The patient panics, but
eventually calms due to lack of adrenaline.
c It could be argued that even with the informed consent of the patient flooding (or
exposure therapy) is unethical as the patient will experience stress, anxiety and panic during
exposure to a stimulus that causes extreme fear.
e A fear hierarchy is a list that the phobic patient makes, starting at stimuli that create the
least anxiety (e.g. looking at a picture of a snake) and building up in stages to the most fear-
provoking situation. The patient and the therapist ‘work through’ through each stressful
situation in the ascending hierarchy.
f The two processes in the learning and maintenance of a phobia are classical and operant
conditioning. Classical conditioning because the fear is first learned by association. Operant
conditioning because avoiding the fear-provoking stimulus prevents us from unlearning the
fear so the phobia persists.
3 a B and E
b Cognitive behavioural therapy is treatment which aims to change both the way people
think and their behaviour. It assumes that it is the way people think about events, rather than
the events themselves, that is important.
d One advantage of behavioural and cognitive treatment for disorders is that both are
hopeful. Behavioural treatments have shown that people can unlearn their phobias giving a
long-term cure, and cognitive treatments such as CBT have shown that depressed
people can learn to control and change the way they think leading to recovery.
e CBT may cause an ethical issue because, if the treatment is not effective, the patient
may be blamed for not ‘trying hard enough’.
OR
The suggestion that with CBT people can change the way they think and thus ‘cure
themselves’ of mental disorders raises an ethical issue as it suggests people have the free will
not to suffer from mental disorders.
f One disadvantage of cognitive treatment for disorders is that the treatment may only be
effective for people who can ‘take control’ of their situation and express their thoughts verbally.
The treatment takes time and may not be the most effective treatment for very anxious or
depressed people.
4 a Classical conditioning is involved because the fear (e.g. of spiders) is first learned by
association and operant conditioning because as the person avoids every fear-provoking
stimulus (e.g. spiders) this prevents him/her from unlearning the fear so operant conditioning
explains why the phobia persists.
of the therapist is to help the patient recognise the reason for the fear, and whether the fear is
rational or not. The therapy consists of the construction of a hierarchy of fears, training in
relaxation, graded exposure (in imagination) and relaxation and practice in real life until
eventually the fear is unlearned.
c In classical conditioning the stimulus for the behaviour is before the behaviour, but in
operant conditioning the stimulus for the behaviour is the consequence of the behaviour.
Classical conditioning involves reflex behaviour, but operant conditioning involves behaviour
we can control.
d One advantage of the behavioural approach is that it is hopeful as it predicts that people
can change (relearn) their behaviour.
e The behavioural approach assumes that all behaviour is learned; that what has been
learned can be unlearned; that abnormal behaviour is learned in the same way as normal
behaviour.
f Beck believes that in the cognitive triad there are three processes and that depressed
people get drawn into a negative pattern of viewing (1) themselves, (2) the world and (3) the
future.
h Strengths:
Biological treatments, such as drugs, act rapidly to reduce symptoms so that patients
can lead a normal life.
Drug treatments are easy to administer and do not involve patients changing their
lifestyle or behaviour.
Limitations:
Drugs may suppress symptoms but not cure the disorder so that when treatment ends
the disorder reappears.
Exam-style questions: AS
5 a Depression is a mood disorder and OCD is an anxiety disorder.
b Example answer:
The behavioural approach assumes that all behaviour is learned, that what has been learned
can be unlearned and that abnormal behaviour is learned in the same way as normal
behaviour. Behaviourists propose that depression is learned by operant conditioning in which
behaviour is learned through the consequences of our actions. If the behaviours associated
with depression have rewarding consequences (positive reinforcement) the behaviours will be
repeated and continued. Behavioural psychologists suggest that depression is a form of
learned helplessness.
c Beck’s cognitive triad can be applied to Patient A. Beck proposes that patients develop a
negative view of themselves, the world and the future and develop a negative set of schemas
upon which their expectations about life are based. For example, they may have developed a
self-blame schema which makes them feel responsible for all the things in their life that go
wrong. Depressed people also overgeneralise, drawing negative conclusions about all
situations based on a single event. Beck would not be surprised by the quote from Patient A
because ‘I know I am a loser’ demonstrates a negative view of self, ‘no one would want to be
my friend’ demonstrates a negative view of the world, and ‘I have nothing to live for’
demonstrates a negative view of the future.
e Question injunction = outline and evaluate: 6 AO1 marks and 6 AO3 marks.
an outline of CBT
For the evaluation you should write a plan and then write four paragraphs.
The cognitive approach to treating depression assumes that people are able to control how
they select, store and think about information. In the cognitive approach, depression is caused
when people have negative thoughts about themselves and the future. Beck found that
irrational beliefs were common in patients suffering depression and that depressed people
believe that they are unloved and that nothing good will ever happen in the future. The
cognitive treatment is cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) during which the therapist tries to
get the patient to recognise their irrational perceptions, to agree on a more realistic approach
and finally to put this into practice in a real-life situation. In CBT the role of the therapist is to
help patients to identify their irrational thoughts, to change their interpretations of themselves,
the world and the future, and to help the patients to change both their thinking and their
behaviour.
The approach and treatment is hopeful as it assumes people have the free will to
change their behaviour.
The cognitive approach focuses on how the individual experiences the world and on
his or her feelings and beliefs rather than relying on interpretations by other people.
The treatment may raise ethical issues because it encourages the idea that people
are responsible for their own psychological problems, and that they could be ‘normal’
if they chose to. This could lead to people being blamed for psychological
abnormalities if patients have the free will to choose whether to be depressed.
Treatments based on the cognitive approach may not be appropriate or effective for
all patients.
This is a top-band answer worth the full 4 marks — it is accurate, detailed and thorough.
b An appropriate inferential test to analyse the data and calculate the correlation co-
efficient is Spearman’s Rho.
c Example answer:
Milo should be encouraged to continue with the therapy because his fear of spiders score at
the end of 15 therapy sessions is 7, which on a scale of 0 to 20, where 0 is no fear and 20 is
high fear, is still quite a high fear score. Milo should continue his systematic desensitisation
until his fear of spider score is much lower than 7.
d Most likely answers include: informed consent; no deception; right to withdraw; patient
confidentiality.
e The therapy was effective for Milo because his fear of spiders is reduced, but this is just
one case study, and from this small sample we cannot assume that the same treatment would
lead to the same outcomes for a different patient or a different type of phobia.
f The weekly fear score is ordinal level data, because the fear scores can be ranked lowest
fear score to highest fear score.
g Milo’s fear scores are primary data as these data are obtained by self-report first hand
from Milo.
h The question injunction is discuss. This question assesses AO2 skills, and marks are
awarded if you apply your knowledge and understanding of how drugs are used to treat OCD.
the advantage that drug treatment can quickly relieve conditions such as OCD so that
people are able to lead normal lives
the advantage that drugs may allow a patient to be well enough to receive
psychological treatment
the disadvantage that drugs may result in addiction or may cause unwanted side
effects
the disadvantage that drugs may hide the cause of the problem, which may reoccur
when the patient stops taking the drug
drug treatment being based on the assumption that OCD has an underlying biological
cause
the ethical problems that arise when drug therapy is used to control behaviour that we
do not understand
Example answer:
It can be argued that if the cause of OCD is known to be biological, then drug treatment is
appropriate. Research looking at the human serotonin transporter gene found that six out of
seven people in two separate families who had one gene mutation had OCD and the four
people with the most severe OCD symptoms had a second mutation in the same gene. This
suggests a biological cause for OCD and that the neurotransmitter serotonin may be involved
in causing OCD. If this is the case then drug treatment should be effective because drugs
quickly relieve symptoms, enabling patients to manage their lives more easily. For example,
selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) drugs such as Prozac, that increase levels of the
neurotransmitter serotonin have been found to be an effective treatment for anxiety disorders
such as OCD. Another reason why drug treatment may be effective is that taking anti-anxiety
drugs only requires the patient to remember to take the drugs, and does not involve changes
of lifestyle.
However, unless there is a clearly understood biological cause for the problem, drug treatment
may not be effective because drugs may only provide temporary relief from symptoms, and
when the patient stops taking the drugs the symptoms of OCD may recur.
A further problem is that it may be difficult to separate the effect of the drug from any placebo
effect, so it may be difficult to gain a valid measure of the effectiveness of treatment. That
said, an advantage of drug treatment is that drugs can be used either to prepare people for, or
together with, psychological therapy such as CBT. Finally, ethical issues may arise because, if
we do not know what effect a drug will have, it will be difficult to obtain fully informed consent
to the treatment, and as each patient with OCD will have different obsessions and
compulsions, patients may respond differently to the same drug treatment and treating drug-
induced side effects can be problematic.
This is a top-band answer. The material is used effectively and a broad range of issues are
evaluated in some depth. The student expresses ideas clearly using a range of specialist
terms accurately to demonstrate relevant and sound knowledge and understanding. The
strength of the answer is the use of evidence to support the argument about the effectiveness
of drug treatment and the demonstration of knowledge of drug treatment for treating OCD is
accurate and detailed. The answer is clear, coherent and focused on the use of drugs to treat
OCD.