2023 FLT-1 Solutions

What a Test 2023 Full Length Test 1 (FLT-1)
1. Known as the ''Tamil Helmsman", he launched the first indigenous Shipping

service in India. He was quite active in the Swadeshi Movement. He was a
member of Indian National Congress and was later charged with sedition
and put under life imprisonment. He was
(a) Subramanian Bhartiya
(b) VO Chidambaram Pillai
(c) Vanchinathan Iyer
(d) Champakaraman Pillai
Answer: (b) VO Chidambaram (VOC) Pillai

In 1906, VOC won the support of merchants and industrialists in Tuticorin
and Tirunelveli for the idea of establishing a Swadeshi merchant shipping
outfit by the name of the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company (SSNCo).
He established many institutions like Swadeshi Prachar Sabha,
Dharmasanga Nesavu Salai, National Godown, Madras Agro-Industrial
Society Ltd and Desabimana Sangam.
2. Arrange the following events in chronological order of their occurrence:

1. Lees Mody Pact
2. Poona Pact
3. Gandhi Irwin Pact
4. Formation Of All India Anti Untouchability League
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3-2-4-1
(b) 3-1-4-2
(c) 3-4-2-1
(d) 3-2-1-4
Answer: (a)
• Gandhi Irwin Pact - March 1931
• Poona Pact - 24th September 1932
• All India Untouchability League - 30th September 1932
• Lees Mody Pact - October 1933
So, the answer is (a) 3-2-4-1
e-mail: contact@atishmathur.com www.atishmathur.com telegram: https://t.me/csepaper2atish

3. Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Dahsala Bandobast’:
1. It was a system of land taxation which was introduced under the
reign of Shah Jahan.
2. Under the system, lands were classified into Polaj, Parauti, Chachar
and Banjar.
3. Revenue collection was fixed according to yearly assessment.
Select the correct using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer :(b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Dahsala is system of land taxation which was
introduced in A.D. 1580 under the reign of Akbar. This system was
introduced by the finance minister of Akbar, Raja Todar Mal, and it helped
to make the system of tax collection more organised.
Statement 2 is correct: Under the Dahsala system lands were classified into
four different categories. One was Polaj land which was land which
cultivated and yield crops regularly. Second was the Parauti land which was
not cultivated as it was left to regain its productivity. Another was known as
Chachar land was left uncultivated for 3 to 4 years to make sure yielding a
crop once. Fourth type of land was the Banjar land was left for more than 4
years. These lands were of no use.
Statement 3 is not correct: The government had done surveys and research
to estimate the average produce of different crops and the average crop
which would last for 10 so the revenue which was collected by government
was fixed according to this ten-year assessment.
4.With reference to the three Battles of Panipat, consider the following

statements:
1. The First Battle of Panipat, in 1526, laid the foundation of the Mughal
Empire in India.
2. The Second Battle of Panipat, in 1556, was fought between Akbar and
Sher Shah Suri.
3. The Third Battle of Panipat, in 1761, was fought between the Maratha
forces and the Mughal forces.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

Answer :(a)
First Battle of Panipat, on 21 April 1526, was fought between the invading
forces of Babur and the Lodi dynasty. It marked the beginning of the Mughal
Empire and the end of the Delhi Sultanate.
Second Battle of Panipat was fought on 5 November 1556, between the
Hindu emperor of north India, Hemu, and the forces of the Mughal emperor
Akbar. Third Battle of Panipat took place on 14 January 1761 was fought
between the Maratha Empire and the invading Afghan army (of Ahmad Shah
Durrani).
5. With reference to Indian Independence Act 1947, consider the following:

1. It provided for creation of two independent dominions of India and
Pakistan with the right to secede from the British Commonwealth.
2. It provided, for each dominion, a governor-general, who was to be
appointed by the British King on the advice of the dominion cabinet.
3. Governance of each of the dominions and the provinces was to be carried
on in accordance with Government of India Act of 1935.

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: It provided for the partition of India and creation of
two independent dominions of India and Pakistan with the right to secede
from the British Commonwealth.
Statement 2 is correct: It abolished the office of Viceroy and provided, for
each dominion, a governor-general, who was to be appointed by the British
King on the advice of the dominion cabinet. Government in Britain was to
have no responsibility with respect to the Government of India or Pakistan.
Statement 3 is correct: It provided for the governance of each of the
dominions and the provinces by the Government of India Act of 1935, till the
new Constitutions were framed. The dominions were however authorised to
make modifications in the Act.
6. Consider the following pairs with reference to modern Indian history:

1. Introduction of Subsidiary Alliance: Richard Wellesley
2. Younghusband expedition: Curzon
3. First census: Mayo
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer:(d)
Subsidiary alliance policy was used by Richard Wellesley to increase British
area of influence in India
Census began in 1872 under British Viceroy Lord Mayo. It was made
decadal in 1881. Younghusband expedition to Tibet began in December
1903 and lasted until September 1904 and was initiated by Viceroy Curzon.
7. Consider the following statements:

1. Pandharpur is the main center of worship of the deity Vitthal, a local form
of Vishnu.
2. Warkari is a religious sect that worships the presiding deity of
Pandharpur.
3. Dnyaneshwar, Namdev, Eknath and Tukaram were associated with
Warkari sect.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and3
Answer: (d)
Statement 1 is correct: Pandharpur is main center of worship of the deity
Vitthal, a local form of Vishnu. It is located on the banks of Chandrabhaga
River in Solapur district, Maharashtra.
Statement 2 is correct: Warkari is a religious sect within the bhakti spiritual
tradition of Vaishnavite Hinduism, geographically associated with the state
of Maharashtra. Warkaris worship Vitthal, the presiding deity of
Pandharpur.
Statement 3 is correct: Saints associated with Warkari sect include
Dnyaneshwar, Namdev, Eknath and Tukaram.
8. Consider the following commissions formed during the colonial rule in

India:
1. Fowler Commission
2. Babington Smith Commission
3. Mansfield Commission
The above commissions were formed to investigate the matters of:

(a) Tribal Revolts
(b) Agricultural Revenue
(c) Currency
(d) Unemployment

Answer: (c) All were formed to look into matters of Currency
9. The book "Essence of Hinduism" was written by :

(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Aurobindo Ghosh
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer:(a) Published in 1933 by Navjian , Mahatma Gandhi wrote Essence

of Hinduism as an introduction to moral philosophies of Hindu religion
10. Which of the following Upanishads mentions the famous dialogue

between Yama and Nachiketa?
(a) Maha Upanishad
(b) Brihadaranyaka Upanishad
(c) Katha Upanishad
(d) Chandogya Upanishad
Answer : (c)
Katha Upanishad is the legendary story of a little boy, Nachiketa – the son of
Sage Vajasravasa, who meets Yama (the Hindu deity of death). Their
conversation evolves to a discussion of the nature of man, knowledge, Atman
(Self) and moksha (liberation)
11. With reference to ancient Indian history, which ruler is known by the
titles of ‘Chaityakari’ and ‘Chitrakarapuli’?
(a) Harshavardhan
(b) Mahendravarman I
(c) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
(d) Pulakeshin II
Answer: (b) Mahendravarman I was known as Gunabhara, Satyasandha,

Chaityakari (temple builder), Chitrakarapuli, (tiger among artists)
Vichitrachitta, and Mattavilasa.
12. Arrange the following historical events in their chronological order,

starting from the earliest:
1. Defeat of Prithviraj Chauhan at the hands of Mohammed Ghori.

2. Birth of Basavanna.
3. Completion of Brihadeshwara Temple at Thanjavur by Raja Raja Chola I.
4. Birth of Sri Ramanujcharya.

(a) 4-3-1-2
(b) 3-4-2-1
(c) 2-3-4-1
(d) 4-2-3-1

Answer: (b)
Brihadeshwara Temple Completed in 1010 AD
Birth of Ramanujcharya in 1017 AD
Birth of Basavanna in 1130 AD
Defeat of Prithvi Raj Chauhan in 1192 AD
So, answer is (b) 3-4-2-1
13. Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas is related to the birth of which of the following
tribal heroes
(a) Birsa Munda
(b) Jatra Bhagat
(c) Thakur Shiv Chand
(d) Govind Guru
Answer: (a) Government of India has decided to celebrate November 15 as

'Janjatiya Gaurav Diwas' to mark the birth anniversary of Tribal Freedom
Fighter "Birsa Munda" from year 2021 onwards, who was not only a freedom
fighter but also social reformer and led tribal movement, namely Ulgulan
(Revolt) against exploitative systems of British Colonial Govt. He is also
known as Dharti Abba as he encouraged tribals to understand their cultural
roots & observe unity.
14. Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Donyi Polo’:

1. Its literal meaning is ‘Sun Moon’.
2. It is a form of animistic religion.
3. It is predominant in the state of Mizoram.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)1 and 2 only

The Union Cabinet recently has approved the naming of Greenfield Airport at
Hollongi, Itanagar as “Donyi Polo Airport, Itanagar”.The resolution was
passed by the State Government of Arunachal Pradesh to name the airport
as ‘Donyi Polo Airport, Itanagar’, which reflect the people’s reverence of the
Sun (Donyi) and the Moon (Polo) to symbolize the traditions and rich cultural
heritage of the State.
Donyi-Polo is the name given to the indigenous religion, of the animist and
shamanic type, of the Tani and other Tibetan-Burman peoples of Arunachal
Pradesh and Assam.
“Donyi-Polo” is the epitome of wisdom, enlightenment, right conscience,
truthfulness and selflessness. Conscious people are called “Donyi Polo Ome”,
which means “sons of truth”. The elders are considered as “Donyi-Polo Abu”,
and “representatives of the truth”.
It is followed mainly in Arunachal Pradesh by the Apatani Tribals

15. Which of the following temples in India is famous for its 'hanging pillar'?
(a) Veerbhadra Temple, Lepakshi, Andhra Pradesh
(b) Sudama Temple, Porbandar, Gujarat
(c) Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakkal, Karnataka
(d) Airavatesvara Temple, Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu
Answer: (a)
The Lepakshi Temple is a fine spectacle of timeless art, with murals and
frescoes. It is also known as Veerabhadra Temple that boasts the amazing
hanging pillars and a cave that was home to Sage Agasthya. Amongst 70
stone pillars, there is one that hangs from the ceiling. Its base hardly
touches the ground which allows thin objects to pass from one side to
another
https://www.thehindu.com/features/metroplus/travel/The-hanging-pillar-
and-other-wonders-of-Lepakshi/article13383179.ece
16. Consider the following statements about Nayakas in the Vijayanagara

Empire:
1. Nayakas enjoyed both military and revenue powers.
2. The rise of Nayakas led to the considerable rise of village autonomy and
administration.
3. The Nayakaship was hereditary.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Among those who exercised power in the empire were military chiefs who
usually controlled forts and had armed supporters. These chiefs often moved
from one area to another, and in many cases were accompanied by peasants
looking for fertile land on which to settle. These chiefs were known as
Nayaks and they usually spoke Telugu or Kannada.
Many nayakas submitted to the authority of the kings of Vijayanagara but
they often rebelled and had to be subdued by military action.
The Amara-nayaka system was a major political innovation of the
Vijayanagara Empire. It is likely that many features of this system were
derived from the iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate.
The Amara-nayakas were military commanders who were given territories to
govern by the Raya.
Statement 1 is correct: They collected taxes and other dues from peasants,
craftspersons, and traders in the area. They retained part of the revenue for
personal use and for maintaining a stipulated contingent of horses and
elephants.
These contingents provided the Vijayanagara kings with an effective fighting
force with which they brought the entire southern peninsula under their
control. Some of the revenue was also used for the maintenance of temples

and irrigation works.
The amara-nayakas sent tribute to the king annually and personally,
appeared in the royal court with gifts to express their loyalty. Kings
occasionally asserted their control over them by transferring them from one
place to another.
However, during the course of the seventeenth century, many of these
nayakas established independent kingdoms. This hastened the collapse of
the central imperial structure.
17. Consider the following places:
1. Sankalp Bhoomi, Vadodara

2. Deeksha Bhoomi, Nagpur
These are associated with the life of which famous Indian personality?
(a) Swami Vivekananda
(b) BR Ambedkar
(c) Sri Aurobindo
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: (b) BR Ambedkar

At Sankalp bhoomi he vowed to end untouchability while at deeksha bhoomi
he converted to buddhism.

a. Madden–Julian oscillation (MJO) is a traveling pattern that
propagates westward through the atmosphere above the Indian
and Pacific oceans.
b. When MJO is over the Indian Ocean during the Monsoon season,
it brings good rainfall over the Indian subcontinent.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Madden–Julian oscillation (MJO) is a moving
band of rain clouds that propagates eastwards through the atmosphere
above the warm parts of the Indian and Pacific oceans.
Statement 2 is correct: When MJO is over the Indian Ocean during the
Monsoon season, it brings good rainfall over the Indian subcontinent. On the
other hand, when it witnesses a longer cycle and stays over the Pacific
Ocean, MJO brings bad news for the Indian Monsoon
19. During the Mauryan Age, the term ‘Sunadhyaksha’ used to denote:
(a) Chief Judge
(b) Slaughter House officer
(c) Metallurgy officer
(d) Officer of Factories

Answer: (b) Slaughter House Officer and Chief Protector of Animals was
called ‘Sunadhyaksha’ under the Mauryan rule.
20. Consider the following statements about Seismic Waves during an

Earthquake:
1. Shadow zone of P-waves is greater than S-waves.
2. Speed of P-waves is greater than S-Waves.
3. P-waves can travel in liquid medium while S-waves cannot.
4. P-waves are transverse waves while S-waves are longitudinal waves.
Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2,3 and 4 only
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 is incorrect. Shadow zone of S wave is larger
Statement 2,3 are correct
Statement 4 is incorrect. P waves are longitudinal while S waves are
transverse waves.

a. Insurance density is defined as ratio of premium underwritten in a
given year to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
b. Insurance penetration is the ratio of premium underwritten in a
given year to the total population.
c. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI)
is a statutory body that regulates insurance sector in India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Answer (b)
Statements 1 and 2 are not correct: Insurance penetration is defined as ratio
of premium underwritten in a given year to the Gross Domestic Product
(GDP). The insurance density is the ratio of premium underwritten in a given
year to the total number of population.
Statement 3 is correct: Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of

India is an autonomous, statutory body tasked with regulating and
promoting the insurance and re-insurance industries in India.

22. Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are
correct?
1. They are generally red in colour.
2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 4

Laterite soils are not rich in nitrogen and potash. Laterite soil is mainly
found in the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats. It is also found in the
southern part of Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal,
Orissa, Jharkhand, Kerala and Assam. Laterite soils lack fertility due to
intensive leaching. When manured and irrigated, some laterites are suitable
for growing plantation crops like tea, coffee, rubber, cinchona, coconut,
areca nut, etc.
23. With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following
statements:
1. PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring
whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by SSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the
same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. LVM3 is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using
solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket
engines.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 only
Answer: (a)1 only

PSLV has a 4-stage launch while LVM3 (Formerly called GSLV Mk III) is a 3-
stage launch. So Statement 3 is incorrect. SSLV on the other hand is still in
development stage and even when developed will primarily be used for lower
orbits. So, statement 2 is incorrect too. GSLV mainly puts satellites into
Geosynchronous or Geostationary orbits, where they are used for
communication services. PSLVs on other hand do have capability to launch
communication satellites but are used mainly for sending earth resource
monitoring satellites in space.
24. Which of the following countries are separated by ‘Wakhan Corridor’?

(a) Afghanistan and China
(b) Tajikistan and Pakistan
(c) Iran and Uzbekistan
(d) India and Afghanistan

Answer: (b) Pakistan and Tajikistan
Wakhan Corridor lies in Afghanistan and separates Pakistan from Tajikistan.
Wakhan Corridor touches China, Pakistan and Pakistan Occupied
Kashmir(India)

1. India engages in Malabar Naval Exercises with all the QUAD nations
only.
2. India engages in 2+2 dialogue with the all the QUAD nations only.
Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a) 1 only;

India has 2+2 with all Quad Countries and Russia, so Statement 2 is
incorrect. The Malabar series of exercises began as an annual bilateral naval
exercise between India and the US in 1992. Japan joined the Naval Exercises
in 2015. Malabar 2020 saw the participation of the Australian Navy also.
India has 2+2 dialogues with four key strategic partners: the US, Australia,
Japan, and Russia. Besides Russia, the other three countries are also India’s
partners in the Quad.
26. Consider the following pairs:

River Originates at
Indus Bokhar Chu Glacier
Brahmaputra Chemayungdung Glacier
Chenab Bara Shigri Glacier
Teesta Bichom Glacier
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs
Answer: (b) Only 3 pair

Indus originates from a glacier near Bokhar Chu (31°15’ N latitude and 81°40’
E longitude) in the Tibetan region at an altitude of 4,164 m in the Kailash
Mountain range. It is correctly matched.
The Brahmaputra’s source is the Chemayungdung Glacier, which covers the
slopes of the Himalayas about 60 miles (100 km) southeast of Lake Mapam in
southwestern Tibet. The three headstreams that arise there are the Kubi, the
Angsi, and the Chemayungdung. From its source the river runs for nearly 700
miles (1,100 km) in a generally easterly direction between the Great
Himalayas range to the south and the Kailas Range to the north. Throughout
its upper course the river is generally known as the Tsangpo (“Purifier”); it is
also known by its Chinese name (Yarlung Zangbo) and by other local Tibetan
names. It is correctly matched.
The Bara Shigri glacier, whose name signifies 'boulder-covered-ice', flows
northwards and debouches into the Chandra river where its southerly course
is deflected westwards, close to the Spiti border. Then Chandra meets Bhaga
river at Baralachla pass to form Chenab. Hence Chenab is correctly matched.
Teesta Originates at Zemu glacier. It is wrongly matched.
27. As per the classification of Indian soils done by Indian Council Of

Agricultural Research (ICAR), which of the following is the most
abundant soil type in India?
(a) Ultisols
(b) Entisols
(c) Inceptisols
(d) Alfisols
Answer :(c) Inceptisols ;Source : NCERT Class 11

28. Consider the following national parks:
1. Mouling National Park
2. Raimona National Park
3. Manas National Park
4. Kaziranga National Park
5. Orang National Park
6. Dibru Saikhowa National Park
7. Nameri National Park
The river Brahmaputra flows through which of the above?

(a) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 7 only
(b) 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 4, and 6 only
(d) 4, 5 and 6 only
Answer: (d) 4, 5 and 6 only

Brahmaputra passes via - Kaziranga, Dibru Saikhowa and Orang National
Parks.

29. Consider the following:
Volcano Location
Mauna Loa USA
Mount Semeru Indonesia
Cotopaxi Tanzania
Kilimanjaro Congo
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
Answer: (b) Only 2 pair
Cotopaxi is in Ecuador while Kilimanjaro is in Tanzania

Mauna Loa is in Hawaii , USA - It is world’s largest Volcano.
Semeru and Mauna Loa both saw eruptions in 2022
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/mauna-loa-mount-
semeru-volcanoes-erupted-within-a-week-will-they-impact-global-climate--
86385
30. Consider the following statements with regard to differences between

Consumer Price Index (CPI) and Wholesale Price Index (WPI):
1. While CPI is released by Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation, WPI is released by Ministry of Commerce and
Industry.
2. While CPI basket includes both goods and services, WPI basket
includes only goods and not services.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer :(c)
Statement 1 is correct: CPI data is published by the National Statistical
Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
WPI is released on a monthly basis by the Office of Economic Advisor (OEA),
Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of
Commerce and Industry.

Statement 2 is correct: WPI measures the average change in the prices of
commodities for bulk sale at the level of early stage of transactions. The
index basket of the WPI covers commodities falling under the three major
groups namely Primary Articles, Fuel and Power and Manufactured
products. WPI basket does not cover services.
CPI is a measure of change in retail prices of goods and services consumed
by defined population group in a given area with reference to a base year.
CPI is calculated for a fixed list of items including food, housing, apparel,
transportation, electronics, medical care, education, etc
31. Consider the following statements about Municipal Bonds:

1. Bangalore was the first city in India to issue municipal bonds in 1997.
2. India Municipal Bond Index (IBMX), India's first ever municipal bond
index, was recently launched by the National Stock Exchange (NSE).
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None Of the Above
Answer: (c) Both are correct

India’s first ever municipal bond index has been unveiled by the National
Stock Exchange (NSE). The India Municipal Bond Index (IBMX) will track the
performance of bonds issued by Indian Municipal Corporations. There is a
thriving municipal bond market in India that has seen a three-fold rise in
fund raising since 2017. Last year, fundraising through Municipal Bonds
stood at ₹6,252 crore through this route compared to ₹2,342 crore in 2017.
Bengaluru MC floated municipal bonds for the first time in India in 1997,
followed by Ahmedabad MC in 1998.
32. With reference to 'Gross Fixed Capital Formation', consider the following
statements:
1. It refers to the net increase in physical assets without accounting for
disposals of fixed assets.
2. It is a component of expenditure approach to calculating GDP.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct: Gross fixed capital formation (GFCF) refers to the net
increase in physical assets (investment minus disposals) within the

measurement period. It does not account for the consumption (depreciation)
of fixed capital, and also does not include land purchases.
Gross fixed capital formation measures the net increase in fixed capital.
Statement 2 is correct: It is a component of expenditure approach to
calculating GDP. GDP as defined by the expenditure method consider the
end use of incomes generated on expenditure and investments. GDP as
measured through the expenditure method is the sum of Private Final
Consumption Expenditure (PFCE), Government Final Consumption
Expenditure (GFCE), Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF), Change in
stocks or inventories, Valuables and the Net Exports (NX).
33. Consider the following statements regarding Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
and Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR):
1. While SLR is mandated under Banking Regulation Act, 1949, CRR is not
mandated by law.
2. While CRR has to be maintained in cash only, SLR can be maintained
either in cash or other liquid assets.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: SLR is mandated under Banking Regulation Act,
1949. CRR is mandated under Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Statement 2 is correct: CRR has to be maintained in cash while SLR can be
maintained either in cash or in assets that RBI suggests. Banks don’t earn
any returns from the money parked in the form of CRR. However, banks can
earn returns from SLR.
34. Which of the following constitute Capital Account?

1. Foreign Loans
2. Foreign Direct Investment
3. Private Remittances
4. Portfolio Investment

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (b) 1, 2, and 4

Private remittances are recorded under current account

35. Which of the following statements best describes “Liquidity Coverage
Ratio”?
(a) ratio used to measure a company's mix of operating expenses to get an
idea of how changes in output will affect operating income.
(b) ratio of a government's fiscal deficit to total revenue.
(c) ratio of a bank's available capital to the bank's risk-weighted credit
exposures.
(d) the stock of high-quality liquid assets that financial institutions can use
to withstand liquidity crisis.
Answer: (d)
LCR refers to the proportion of highly liquid assets held by financial
institutions, to ensure their ongoing ability to meet short-term obligations.
This ratio is essentially a generic stress test that aims to anticipate market-
wide shocks and make sure that financial institutions possess suitable
capital preservation, to ride out any short-term liquidity disruptions, that
may plague the market.

1. In India, Minimum Support Price (MSP) is fixed taking into consideration
the comprehensive cost which includes notional costs of family labour, rent
of owned land and interest on owned capital.
2. Government procures a fixed quantity of grains from the farmers at MSP
after which the procurement is denied.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer :(d)
Statement 1 is not correct: MSP is fixed taking into the costs A2+FL. A2
includes actual cost paid by the farmer for purchase of various inputs. FL
refers to family labour. MSP is then fixed at 1.5 times A2+FL.
Statement 2 is not correct: Procurement at MSP is open-ended i.e., whatever
foodgrains are offered by the farmers, within the stipulated procurement
period and which conforms to the quality specifications prescribed by
Government of India, are purchased.
37. 'World Investment Report' is published by:

(a) World Economic Forum
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(d) World Trade Organization
Answer: (c) It is published by UNCTAD

1. India is the top receiver of foreign remittances in the entire world.
2. Highest remittances to India come from USA followed by UAE.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c) Both are correct

Share in total Remittances: USA>UAE>UK>Singapore>Saudi Arabia>Kuwait
39. Which of the following measures should be taken to control high

inflation in an economy?
1. Increasing cash reserve ratio
2. Increasing public spending
3. Decreasing interest rate on loans 4. Increasing direct taxes

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: (c)

To control inflation, money supply in the economy should be reduced by:
• Increasing reserve ratios (CRR, SLR)
• Decreasing public spending
• Increasing interest rate on loans
• Increasing direct taxes
40. Consider the following statements with reference to banking regulation in

India:
1. Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) are not regulated by RBI
2. State and District Central Cooperative banks are regulated by RBI

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both are correct

Read below (Taken from RBI Website):
The rural co-operative credit system in India is primarily mandated to

ensure flow of credit to the agriculture sector. It comprises short-term and
long-term co-operative credit structures. The short-term co-operative credit
structure operates with a three-tier system - Primary Agricultural Credit
Societies (PACS) at the village level, Central Cooperative Banks (CCBs) at the
district level and State Cooperative Banks (StCBs) at the State level. PACS
are outside the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and hence not
regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. StCBs/DCCBs are registered under
the provisions of State Cooperative Societies Act of the State concerned and
are regulated by the Reserve Bank. Powers have been delegated to National
Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) under Sec 35 (6) of
the Banking Regulation Act (As Applicable to Cooperative Societies) to
conduct inspection of State and Central Cooperative Banks.

41. In India Chankana , Thigda Dhingla , Laiphadibi are names of
(a) Traditional Toys
(b) Varieties of Millet crops
(c) Harvest Festivals in North East
(d) Shifting Agricultural Practices
Answer: (a) Traditional Toys
42. With reference to Indian Agricultural Exports in 2021-22, consider the

following:
1. Agricultural exports crossed $50 billion mark for the first time.
2. Sugar exports earned the highest revenue as compared to other
agricultural products.
Which of the above statements are correct? :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)1 only;

Exports of agricultural products (including marine and plantation products)
for the year 2021-22 have crossed USD 50 billion, highest level ever achieved
for agriculture exports. As per the provisional figures released by DGCI&S,
the agricultural exports have grown by 19.92% during 2021-22 to touch
$50.21 billion. Rice (Both Basmati and Non-Basmati combined) was the
highest revenue earner, followed by Marine products.

43. Consider the following about Eklavya Model Residential Schools :
1. All seats in these schools are reserved for students coming from
Scheduled Tribes (ST)
2. They follow a unique curriculum designed especially for Tribal
communities.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d) None of the above ;10% non-ST candidates can be admitted to
these schools. So Statement 1 is incorrect. These schools follow the CBSE
curriculum only. So Statement 2 is incorrect as well.
44. Which among the following best describes the term ‘Sweat Equity’?
(a)Equity shares issued by a company to its employees or directors at a

discount or for consideration other than cash.
(b) Equity shares issued by the Public Sector Enterprises to its employees.
(c) Equity shares issued in the labour-intensive industries.
(d) Equity shares without voting power.
Correct answer: (a)

Sweat equity refers to the effort and toil a company‘s owners and employees
contribute to a project or enterprise—and the value it creates. In cash-
strapped startups, owners and employees typically accept salaries that are
below their market values in return for a stake in the company, which they
hope to profit from when the business is eventually sold
45. As per Article 13 of the Constitution of India, ‘law’ includes:

1. Parliamentary law
2. Ordinance issued by Governor
3. Bye-law
4. Constitutional Amendment under Article 368

(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer: (c)

Article 13 Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights

(1) All laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the
commencement of this Constitution, in so far as they are inconsistent with
the provisions of this Part, shall, to the extent of such inconsistency, be void
(2) The State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the rights
conferred by this Part and any law made in contravention of this clause
shall, to the extent of the contravention, be void
(3) In this article, unless the context otherwise requires law includes any
Ordinance, order, bye law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usages
having in the territory of India the force of law; laws in force includes laws
passed or made by Legislature or other competent authority in the territory
of India before the commencement of this Constitution and not previously
repealed, notwithstanding that any such law or any part thereof may not be
then in operation either at all or in particular areas
(4) Nothing in this article shall apply to any amendment of this Constitution
made under Article 368
46. Consider the following statements about state legislatures in India:

1. They have the power to establish legislative councils by passing a law.
2. Only three Union Territories have a state legislature in India.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b) 2 Only

Statement 1 is incorrect as Parliament has the power to establish State
legislative council. Statement 2 is correct. Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu
and Kashmir are 3 UT with state legislatures.

1. Anglo Indian Nominations have been discontinued in Lok Sabha
2. Anglo Indian Nominations have been discontinued in State Legislative
Assemblies
3. Lok Sabha, All State legislative assemblies and All Union Territories
with State Legislatures are now purely elected houses with no nominated
members in either of them.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

In January 2020, the Anglo-Indian reserved seats in the Parliament and
State Legislatures of India were abolished by the 104th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 2019.
Puducherry has 3 MLAs nominated by central government, so statement 3
is wrong. Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

1. As per the Constitution, Chief Election Commissioner serves a period of 6
years or till he/she attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
2. The manner of removal of Chief Election Commissioner is same as that of
a Supreme Court Judge.
3. The manner of removal of other Election Commissioners is same as that
of Chief Election Commissioner.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution does not mention the tenure of Chief

Election Commissioner. Chief Election Commissioner is removed in a
manner similar to that of Supreme Court Judge, while other Election
Commissioners are removed on recommendation of Chief Election
Commissioner. So, Statement 2 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect.
49. Consider the following statements regarding INTERPOL:

1.International Criminal Police Organisation (INTERPOL) is an international
organisation that facilitates worldwide police cooperation and crime control.
2.INTERPOL doesn't have law enforcement powers such as arrest.
3.Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the nodal authority that executes
and handles the issuance of all INTERPOL notices in India.

a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer (d)
Statement 1 is correct: INTERPOL is an international organisation that
facilitates worldwide police cooperation and crime control. Headquartered in
Lyon, France, it has seven regional bureaus worldwide and a National Central
Bureau in all 194 members states, making it the world's largest police
organization.

Statement 2 is correct: Contrary to frequent portrayals in popular culture,
INTERPOL doesn't have law enforcement powers such as arrest. When a
member nation approaches it with a specific request backed with court orders,
the INTERPOL sends it out to other countries. It is an international organization
that functions as a network of criminal law enforcement agencies from different
countries. The organization thus functions as an administrative liaison among
the law enforcement agencies of the member countries, providing
communications and database assistance. Statement 3 is correct: CBI is the
nodal authority for INTERPOL in India.

1. Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 does not make killing of animals
for religious purposes an offence.
2. Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory body set up under Prevention of
Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960
3. Animal Welfare Board of India functions under the aegis of the Ministry of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: (c)

Statement 1 is correct: Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960 does not make
killing of animals for religious purposes an offence. Section 28 of the Act - Saving
as respects manner of killing prescribed by religion.—Nothing contained in this Act
shall render it an offence to kill any animal in a manner required by the religion of
any community.
Statement 2 is correct: Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory body under
Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act
Statement 3 is not correct: Animal Welfare Board of functions under the aegis of
the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (MoFAH&D).
51 Consider the following statements:

1. Both the Parliament and State Legislatures have the power to make laws for
prescribing punishment for those acts that are declared to be offences under
the fundamental rights.
2. Both the Parliament and State Legislatures have the power to make laws for
enforcement of Directive Principles of State Policy.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer: (b)
Statement 1 is not correct: Article 35 Legislation to give effect to the provisions of
this Part Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution,
(a) Parliament shall have, and the Legislature of a State shall not have, power to
make laws (i) with respect to any of the matters which under clause ( 3 ) of Article
16, clause ( 3 ) of Article 32, Article 33 and Article 34 may be provided for by law
made by Parliament; and
(ii) for prescribing punishment for those acts which are declared to be offences
under this Part; and Parliament shall, as soon as may be after the commencement
of this Constitution, make laws for prescribing punishment for the acts referred to
in sub clause (ii).
Statement 2 is correct: Since 1950, the successive governments at the Centre and
in the states have made several laws and formulated various programmes for
implementing the Directive Principles.
52. Which of the following best describes the term ‘Civil Society’?
(a) Members of Society that are not part of Military

(b) Members of Society that contribute productively to the economy
(c) Societal groups that work for common good without the motive of profit
(d) Societal groups that work for securing political representation
Answer: (c) Civil Society Refers to NGOs or public-spirited individuals who want
to contribute to social good ; https://www.weforum.org/agenda/2018/04/what-is-
civil-society/
53 Consider the following statements:

1. Executive is responsible to the Legislature in India but not in the United
States.
2. While Prime Minister is the head of the state in India, President is the
head of the state in the United States.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: (a)

Statement 1 is correct: Collective Responsibility is the bedrock principle of
parliamentary government. In India, the ministers are collectively responsible to the
Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They act as a
team, and swim and sink together.
In the US, the President and his secretaries are not responsible to the Congress for
their acts. They neither possess membership in the Congress nor attend its
sessions.

Statement 2 is not correct: In India, the President is head of the State, while the
Prime Minister is head of the government. The American President is both the head
of the State and the head of government. As the head of State, he occupies a
ceremonial position. As the head of government, he leads the executive organ of
government.

1. The Constitution has prescribed a fixed term of office of six years for
members of the Rajya Sabha.
2. A member elected to fill a casual vacancy in the Rajya Sabha holds office for
the remainder of the term of his predecessor.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: (b)

Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of
members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parliament. Accordingly, the
Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951) provided that the term of
office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years.
Statement 2 is correct: The term of office of a member elected/nominated to Rajya

Sabha is six years. However, according to Section 154 of the Representation of the
People Act 1951, a Member elected/nominated to fill a casual vacancy holds office
for the remainder of the term of his predecessor
Answer: c) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective

activity
55. Which among the following Act was enacted by British in India to counter the
financial crisis caused by the Napoleon’s Continental Blockade?
(a) Charter Act, 1793
(b) Charter Act, 1813
(c) Charter Act, 1833
(d) Charter Act, 1853
Correct answer: (b)

Due to hardships caused by Continental Blockade policy of Napoleon I, the British
Traders demanded entry to the ports of Asia and dissolve the monopoly of the East
India Company. Apart from these hardships, the theory of Free trade policy of
Adam Smith had also become quite popular in those days. The supporters of this
policy started giving arguments on how ending the monopoly of East India
Company in trade with India could bring help the growth of British commerce and
industry. However, East India Company opposed these arguments giving logic that

its political authority and commercial privileges cannot be separated. Charter Act
1813 ended the monopoly of East India Company to trade in India (except the tea
trade). The company was thus reduced to the position of competitor competing for
Indian trade. It resulted in rise of British trade with 13 million pounds in 1813 to
100 million pounds in 1865. Thus the Britishers were in a position to face
effectively the financial crisis caused by the Napolean‘s Continental Blockade.
56. What is the maximum time period for which an ordinance promulgated by the
President of India stays valid?
(a) Less than 6 months
(b) Exactly 6 months
(c) More than 6 months
(d) As the President decides
Correct answer: (c)

Every ordinance issued by the President during the recess of Parliament must be
laid before both the Houses of Parliament when it reassembles. If the ordinance is
approved by both the Houses, it becomes an act. If Parliament takes no action at
all, the ordinance ceases to operate on the expiry of six weeks from the reassembly
of Parliament. The ordinance may also cease to operate even earlier than the
prescribed six weeks, if both the Houses of Parliament pass resolutions
disapproving it. If the Houses of Parliament are summoned to reassemble on
different dates, the period of six weeks is calculated from the later of those dates.
This means that the maximum life of an ordinance can be six months and six
weeks
57. Consider the following:

1. Oath of Office for the President of India is not provided in the Third Schedule
of the Constitution.
2. Oath of Secrecy is not administered to the President of India
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Answer: (c) Both are correct; Oath of office for president is given in article 60
and NOT schedule 3 ; and there is no provision for the oath of secrecy for him/her.
President is to be administered only the oath of office.
58. With reference to ‘Enforcement Directorate (ED)’ consider the following:

1. It is a statutory body established under Foreign Exchange Management Act,
1999
2. Unlike CBI, ED does not need state government consent to initiate
investigations in a state

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

Answer: (b) 2 only
Statement 1 in incorrect.
The Directorate of Enforcement or the ED is a multi-disciplinary organization
mandated with investigation of economic crimes and violations of foreign exchange
laws. The origin of this Directorate goes back to 1st May, 1956, when an
‘Enforcement Unit’ was formed in the Department of Economic Affairs for handling
Exchange Control Laws violations under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1947
(FERA ’47).
Unlike laws governing other agencies, particularly the CBI, the PMLA allows the ED
to take cognizance of any offence under its wide-ranging schedule across the
country, with or without the consent of state governments.
Statement 2 is correct
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/more-teeth-and-bigger-
muscles-eds-lengthening-arm-8162953/
59. Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer technology is used for?

(a) Production of biolarvacides
(b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
(c) Reproductive cloning of animals
(d) Production of organisms free of disease
Correct answer: (c)

In genetics and developmental biology, somatic cell nuclear
transfer (SCNT) is a laboratory strategy for creating a viable embryo from a body
cell and an egg cell. The technique consists of taking
an enucleated oocyte (egg cell) and implanting a donor nucleus from a somatic
(body) cell. It is used in both therapeutic and reproductive cloning. In 1996, Dolly
the sheep became famous for being the first successful case of the reproductive
cloning of a mammal.
60. Which of the following statements is correct about Bacteriophages?

(a) They are heterotrophic microorganisms which obtain nutrients from the
consumption of bacteria.
(b) They are synthetic species of bacterium which infects virus leading to the death
of the virus.
(c) They are viruses which parasitize a bacterium by infecting it and reproducing
inside it.
(d) They are bacteria which infect other bacteria and form a symbiotic relationship
to survive.
Correct answer: (c)

A bacteriophage is a type of virus that infects bacteria. The word "bacteriophage"
literally means "bacteria eater," because bacteriophages destroy their host cells. All
bacteriophages are composed of a nucleic acid molecule that is surrounded by a
protein structure. A bacteriophage attaches itself to a susceptible bacterium and
infects the host cell

61. Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, recently seen in news is
related to
(a) Safe harbour provisions for social media intermediaries for hosting content on
their platform
(b) Power of the Central government to block public access to a social media
intermediary
(c) Punishment for sending offensive messages through digital means
(d) Punishment for cyber terrorism
Correct answer: (a)

Section 79 of IT Act says any intermediary shall not be held legally or otherwise
liable for any third party information, data, or communication link made available
or hosted on its platform.
This protection, the Act says, shall be applicable if the said intermediary does not
in any way, initiate the transmission of the message in question, select the receiver
of the transmitted message and does not modify any information contained in the
transmission.
62. 'Karman Line', sometimes seen in news is related to:
(a) Defines the conflicted boundary between Azerbaijan and Armenia

(b) Defines the boundary between Earth's atmosphere and beginning of space
(c) Defines the boundary between a carbon positive and a carbon negative process
(d) Defines the boundary agreed upon by Russia and China after the Sino-Soviet
Border Conflict.
Answer: (b) It defines the point where space begins. Around 100km from mean
sea level.
63. Azotobacter and Clostridium convert

(a) gaseous molecular nitrogen into ammonia
(b) ammonia present in soil to gaseous nitrogen
(c) humus present in soil to mineralised constituents
(d) normal healthy soil to toxic soil
Correct answer: (a)

Nitrogen fixation is the process by which nitrogen is taken from its molecular form
(N2) in the atmosphere and converted into ammonia and other nitrogen compounds
useful for other biochemical processes. Fixation can occur through atmospheric
(lightning), industrial, or biological processes.
Azotobacter and Clostridium are nitrogen fixing bacteria.

64. Consider the following statements about Vande Bharat Express Trains:
1. They have been manufactured by Rail Coach Factory (RCF), Kapurthala
2. Unlike other trains, it does not have a separate locomotive - engine unit to
pull the chair car.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Answer: (b) 2 only; Vande Bharat Train sets are manufactured by ICF , Chennai
and have an inbuilt engine much like a metro/bullet train. Hence no need of a
separate engine locomotive unit.
65. In which of the following group of organisms, is food material broken outside the
body and absorbed?
(a) Yeast, mushroom, bread mould
(b) Mushroom, Amoeba, green plants
(c) Caserta, tapeworm, lice
(d) Paramecium, Amoeba, Caserta
Correct answer: (a)
66Consider the following statements.

1. Sea weeds are potential indicators of pollution in aquatic ecosystem,
particularly heavy metal pollution due to their ability to bind and
accumulate metals strongly.
2. Products like agar-agar and iodine can be extracted from seaweeds.
3. Rotting seaweed releases highly toxic gas.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: (d)

Sea weeds are macroscopic algae, which mean they have no differentiation of true
tissues such as roots, stems and leaves.
• They grow in, shallow coastal waters wherever sizable sub-strata is available.
• Seaweeds are important as food for humans, feed for animals, and fertilizer
for plants.
• Seaweeds are used as a drug for goitre treatment, intestinal and stomach
disorders.
• Products like agar-agar and alginates, iodine which are of commercial value,
are extracted from seaweeds.
• By the biodegradation of seaweeds methane like economically important
gases can be produced in large quantities.
• They are potential indicators of pollution in coastal ecosystem, particularly
heavy metal pollution due to their ability to bind and accumulate metals
strongly.
• Rotting seaweed is a potent source of hydrogen sulphide, a highly toxic gas.
67. Consider the following statements about UPI Payments:

1. UPI payments can only be funded by savings account. Credit lines cannot be
used to carry out UPI transactions.
2. For the last financial year ending March 2022, combined value of NEFT
(National Electronics Fund Transfer) retail payments was more than
combined value of UPI retail payments.
Which of the above statements are correct:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Answer :(b) 2 only

Statement 1 is incorrect.
Credit lines can now be used to fund UPI Payments.
https://www.livemint.com/companies/news/rbi-permits-use-of-pre-approved-
credit-lines-for-upi-payments-11680797989615.html
Statement 2 is correct. NEFT retail payments are more in value than UPI payments
Data Source - https://rbi.org.in/Scripts/PSIUserView.aspx?Id=10#

68. Consider the following about Tuberculosis:
1. It is a disease that attacks lungs but can also attack kidney, brain and
spine
2. India has the second highest TB caseload in the world.
3. Nikshay Poshan Yojana aims to deliver Nutritious Food to TB patients via
ASHA and Anganwadis
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
Answer: (c) 1 only;

Statement 1 is correct. TB usually affects the lungs, but it can also affect other
parts of the body, such as the brain, the kidneys, or the spine
India has the HIGHEST TB caseload in the world, so Statement 2 is false.
Nikshay poshan yojana does not deliver food, it gives money via DBT to buy food.
So Statement 3 is false too.
69. Consider the following statements about Lithium:

1. Lithium based drugs are used as antidepressants to treat bipolar disorder
2. Australia is the largest producer of Lithium in the world
3. Mineral Security Partnership (MSP) is an Indo-US initiative to bolster the
supply chain of critical minerals including Lithium.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only ; India is not part of US led initiative of MSP
Lithium Producer data from WEF

70. Consider the following statements about the tribe 'Kattunayakas':
1. They reside in Nilgiri Forests of Western Ghats.

2. They were the subject of a recent Oscar winning documentary named
'Elephant Whisperers'
3. They have been demanding their inclusion in the list of PVTGs (Particularly
Vulnerable Tribal Group)

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C) 1 and 2 only;

Kattunayakan also known as Jennu Kurumbas are scheduled tribes found
in south Indian states of Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala & Andhra Pradesh.
Kattunayakan means king of jungles in Tamil and Malayalam.
They are considered to be one of the earliest inhabitants of Western Ghats
and are engaged in the collection and gathering of forest produce, mainly
wild honey and wax.They are classified as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
Groups in Tamil Nadu & Kerala. The Movie Elephant Whisperers tells the
story of a couple (Bomman & Bellie) who adopts two orphan elephant babies
and rears them. The mother of the elephant babies died after being
electrocuted.The couple live in the Tamil Nadu’s Mudumalai Tiger Reserve
and National Park.Theppakadu Elephant Camp in Mudumalai Tiger Reserve
is the oldest elephant camp in Asia and was established 105 years back.
Situated on the banks of river Moyar, it presently has 28 elephants. A
dedicated bunch of Mahouts is providing training and care to these
elephants.Both Bomman and Bellie come from Kattunayakan tribe, the
traditional forest dwellers of Mudumalai forests.
So Statement 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 3 is incorrect as they already are a PVTG.
71. Chilika lake, Bharatpur , Gobind Sagar and Nalsarovar are ALL :
(a) Bird Sanctuaries in India

(b) Ramsar sites in India
(c) Biodiversity Heritage sites in India
(d) Marine Protected Areas in India
Answer: (a) All are Bird sanctuaries or Important Bird Areas in India.
Note: 3 of them except Gobind Sagar are also Ramsar sites

72. Which of the following was NOT a Panchamrit Pledge of India at COP 26 in
Glasgow?
(a) India will reach its non-fossil energy capacity to 500 GW by 2030.
(b) India will reduce the total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes
from now onwards till 2030.
(c) India will create an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of CO2
equivalent through additional forest and tree cover by 2030
(d) By 2030, India will reduce the carbon intensity of its economy by less than
45 percent.
Answer: (c)
Panchamrit pledge:
First- India will reach its non-fossil energy capacity to 500 GW by 2030.
Second- India will meet 50 percent of its energy requirements from renewable
energy by 2030.
Third- India will reduce the total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes
from now onwards till 2030.
Fourth- By 2030, India will reduce the carbon intensity of its economy by less than
45 percent.
And fifth- by the year 2070, India will achieve the target of Net Zero. These
panchamrits will be an unprecedented contribution of India to climate action.
73. Which of the following best describes the term 'Green Grabbing':
(a) Land allocated for rejuvenation of forests in compensation for allowing felling
of tress from another land parcel.
(b) Appropriation of land for purposes of advancing a “green” economy while
excluding indigenous people from natural resources.
(c) Climate change policies that result in an unjust pattern of development.
(d) A set of unfair policies used by nations to meet their targets under the Land
Degradation Neutrality framework to reverse desertification.
Answer:(b)
As schemes for Reduced Emissions from Deforestation and Degradation (REDD and
REDD+) are rolled out in forest areas across the world, concerns and evidence are
mounting that local forest users are being dispossessed of vital resource access. In
the Amazon region alone, more than 6.8 million hectares of forest are now held
within 7 REDD+ projects.These are all examples and dimensions of "green
grabbing" - the appropriation of land and resources for environmental ends. Green
grabbing builds on well-known histories of colonial and neo-colonial resource
alienation in the name of the environment - whether for parks, forest reserves or to
halt assumed destructive local practices.
https://www.greeneconomycoalition.org/news-and-resources/green-grabbing-
dark-side-green-economy

74. 'Fire Ready Formula' sometimes seen in News is related to:
(a) Prevention of Wildfires
(b) Combat readiness of Indian Army
(c) NDMA guidelines on Fire Safety
(d) Biomass Co-Firing in Thermal Power Plants
Answer: Designed by UNEP for wildfires, fire ready formula helps in

preparedness to tackle forest fires.
75. Phad, vav, Baoli and Dighi are types of:

(a) Medieval Mughal Paintings
(b) Traditional Water conservation systems
(c) Tribal Dialects of central India
(d) Official posts under Solankis of Gujarat
Answer: (b)
These are traditional names for ways of water conservation across India
• Phad – It is a community-managed irrigation system in the tapi river basin in
Maharashtra. It starts with check dam built across a river and canals to carry
water to agricultural blocks with outlets to ensure excess water is removed from
the canals.
• In Shahajanabad , a dighi was a square or circular reservoir of about 0.38 m by
0.38 m with steps to enter. Each dighi had its own sluice gates. People were not
allowed to bathe or wash clothes on the steps of the dighi. However, one was
free to take water for personal use. People generally hired a kahar or a mashki
to draw water from the dighis. Most of the houses had either their own wells or
had smaller dighis on their premises.
• Besides tanks, sultans and their nobles built and maintained many baolis
(stepwells). These baolis were secular structures from which everyone could
draw water. Gandak-ki-baoli (so named because its water has gandak or
sulphur) was built during the reign of Sultan Iltutmish
76. Consider the following statements about millets:

1. India is the largest producer of millets in the world
2. Millets take longer to digest than carbohydrates like wheat and rice
3. Millets are gluten free with higher glycaemic index than rice

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c) 1 And 2 only; India is the largest producer of millets in the world.
India's two varieties of millets namely Pearl Millet (Bajra) and Sorghum (Jowar)
together contribute approx 19 per cent in world production in 2020.

Millets have more fiber , thus take longer time to digest. Also, they have a lower
glycemic index than rice. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

1. Star Labelling of electrical appliances is done by Bureau Of Energy Efficiency
(BEE)
2. BEE is a statutory body under Electricity Act of 2003

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both are Correct
(d) Neither is Correct
Answer:(a) 1 only
BEE was established under Energy Conservation Act 2001. So Statement 2
is wrong
78. India’s first ‘Dark Sky Reserve’ has been notified in Ladakh. Which of the
following best describes the term ‘Dark Sky Reserve’?
(a) An Area demarcated to control Light Pollution

(b) An Eco sensitive zone where albedo levels are falling fast
(c) An Area which receives less less than 6 hours of sunlight everyday
(d) An area reserved for protecting nocturnal plants
Answer is (a)
The cluster of six hamlets—Bhok, Shado, Punguk, Khuldo, Naga & Tibetan Refugee
habitations within the Changthang Wildlife Sanctuary, has just been formally
notified as the Hanle Dark Sky Reserve. Effectively, an expanse of 1,073km
situated around the Indian Astronomical Observatory is now a sanctuary for
darkness, where light is managed so that scientists and astronomy enthusiasts can
access the night sky in its purest possible form.
To weed out light pollution at India’s first Dark Sky Reserve, there will be several
restrictions on use of light including placing curtains on windows and doors,
restricting the use of artificial illumination indoors and on vehicles. For a place to
qualify as a dark sky reserve, it has to be accessible for all or most part of the year–
and it has to be accessible to the general public.
79. Consider the following statements about diamonds :
1. Diamond is the hardest known natural material on Mohs Scale

2. It is a good conductor of heat but a poor conductor of electricity
3. Lab grown diamonds have a higher carbon footprint than natural diamonds
4. The famous Kohinoor diamond was mined near Panna Mines in Madhya
Pradesh.
5. India is the largest exporter of diamonds in the world.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1,2 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 5 only
(d) 1,2,3,4 and 5 only
Answer: (c) 1,2 and 5 only

Free electrons help in conduction of electricity. In the 3-D structure of diamond,
each carbon atom is covalently bonded to four other carbon atoms and thus, there
are no free electrons and hence, it does not conduct electricity.
Diamonds are good conductor of heat because of the strong covalent bonding of the
carbon atoms.
Lab grown diamonds have a lower carbon footprint than natural diamonds which
are obtained by mining the earth. Statement 3 is incorrect
Kohinoor was mined near Kollur mines in Andhra Pradesh. Statement 4 is incorrect
Rest statements 1,2 and 5 are correct
https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/business/budget/indias-bet-on-lab-grown-
diamonds-what-will-it-take-to-lead-the-world-10115201.html
80. In context of Sarus Crane, consider the following:

1. It is found mainly in Indian subcontinent and Australia
2. It is the tallest flying bird in the world.
3. It migrates to warmer areas in the winter season.
4. It is known for its ability to live in association with humans.

(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

On March 9, 2023 Mohammad Arif, a 35-year-old man from Mandkha, Uttar
Pradesh, was booked under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, for “illegally”
keeping and nursing an injured Sarus crane (Grus Antigone) he found in his
village. The Sarus crane is usually found in wetlands and is the state bird of
Uttar Pradesh.The Sarus crane is the tallest flying bird in the world. They are
found mostly in pairs or small groups of 3 or 4. They mate for life with a single
partner and its breeding season coincides with heavy rainfall in monsoon. They
are known for their ability to live in association with humans.
Sarus crane is a NON-Migratory bird.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

81. A political pamphlet called 'Bhawani Mandir' which illustrated the plan for
revolution against British was written by:
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Veer Savarkar
Answer: (b) Aurobindo Ghosh in 1905 wrote Bhawani Mandir
82. What is the best possible advantage of giving citizens the ‘Right to Repair’?
(a) More choice to consumer

(b) More revenue for manufacturers
(c) Less E-Waste
(d) Less destruction during earthquakes
Answer:(c) Less E waste will be generated if old electronic items are repaired by
manufacturers
83. Consider the following statements about Geological Survey of India (GSI):
1. It is a scientific agency concerned with providing earth sciences information

to the government.
2. It works under the Ministry of Mines
3. It was established a decade before the Archaeological Survey of India.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (d) All of the above; GSI provides information related to earth science,
earth deposits to the government And works under Ministry of Mines
It was established in 1851 while Archaeological Survey was estb in 1861
84. Consider the following about Sickle Cell Anemia:
1. The disease gets its name as in this condition the patient's White Blood Cells
change shape and begin to look like sickles used to cut wheat.
2. It is a purely inherited disease. A person who is born healthy cannot acquire
this disease later in his/her life.
3. People with Sickle Cell Trait have a better resistance against malarial
infections than perfectly healthy people.

Which of the above statements are correct? :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only; Statement 1 is wrong - it is a disease of RED blood cells
and not WHITE Statement 2 and 3 are correct.
Sickle cell trait (SCT) is caused by a gene mutation. This mutation changes a
protein (hemoglobin) in red blood cells. SCT is also referred to as HbAS.
Those with SCT often have no symptoms because they have 1 altered gene and 1
normal gene. SCT began in places where malaria is common.
SCT has a protective effect against malaria, a deadly disease affecting thousands of
people. Remember SCT (Sickle cell trait) and SCD (Sickle cell disease) are 2
different things. In SCT only 1 gene is defective while in SCD both genes are
defective. SCT patients can live a normal life while SCD ones cannot.
85. With reference to Sugar sector in India consider:

1. Indian raw sugar does not contain the bacterial compound Dextran
2. Indian raw sugar has low polarisation as compared to that of Brazil or
Australia
Which of the above statements are correct ? :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both are Correct
(d) Neither is Correct
Answer: (a)1 only

Two specific advantages of Indian raw sugar:
1. First, it is free of dextran, a bacterial compound formed when sugarcane
stays in the sun for too long after harvesting. Indian raw sugar has no
dextran, as it is produced from fresh cane crushed within 12-24 hours of
harvesting. The cut-to-crush time is 48 hours or more in Brazil
2. Second, Indian mills could supply raws with a very high polarisation of 98.5-
99.5%. Polarisation is the percentage of sucrose present in a raw sugar
mass. The more the polarisation — it is only 96-98.5% in raws from Brazil,
Thailand and Australia — the easier and cheaper it is to refine.
86. Biodiversity Heritage Sites are notified under which legislation?

(a) Forest Conservation Act , 1980
(b) Environment Protection Act , 1986
(c) Biological Diversity Act , 2002
(d) Forest Right Act , 2006
Answer: (c) Biodiversity heritage sites are provisioned under the Biological Diversity
Act 2002 - Notified by State governments in consultation with local bodies

87. PM SVANIDHI scheme aims to:
(a) Provide healthcare for poor

(b) Create jobs for street vendors
(c) Give pension to vulnerable sections
(d) Facilitate microcredit for working capital
Answer: (d) Microcredit for the poor

The Government of India has extended the PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi
(PM SVANidhi) Scheme beyond March, 2022 with the following provisions:
• Extension of lending period till December 2024;

• Introduction of 3rd loan of upto ₹50,000 in addition to 1st & 2nd loans of
₹10,000 and ₹20,000 respectively.
• To extend ‘SVANidhi Se Samriddhi’ component for all beneficiaries of PM
SVANidhi scheme across the country;
88 .5th Generation (5G) Telecom Services utilise millimetre wave technology to

deliver huge amounts of data at a blazing speed. Which of the following Indian
Scientists are associated with pioneering research in the field of shortwave
communication?
(a) SN Bose
(b) JC Bose
(c) Meghnad Saha
(d) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar
Answer: (b) JC Bose was one of the first scientists in the world to research on short
wavelength radio waves , which today are essential in implementation of 5G
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/people/indias-jagadish-chandra-bose-is-
the-reason-why-the-world-will-enjoy-super-fast-5g-internet/the-indian-behind-5g-
internet/slideshow/57736482.cms
89. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Al-Biruni identifies the Sufi doctrine of divine love as self-annihilation with
parallel passages from Bhagavad Gita.
(b) According to Al-Biruni, Sufi theories of Soul were similar to those of
Patanjali's Yoga Sutra.
(c) The Hatha Yogic treatise Amrita Kunda had a lasting impact on Sufism.
(d) Hujwiri’s conversation with the Yogis shows that he was impressed with
their theory of thedivision the human body.
Answer is (d); Hujwiri was also known as Datta Ganj Baksh or Data Sahib, He said
that Sufis believed in the Brahmanical theories. They do not deal with the theory of
the division of the human body. This is a PYQ from UPSC CDS 2018

90. Which of the following bodies is responsible for seismic zonation of the country:
(a) National Centre for Seismology (NCS)

(b) Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS)
(c) National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
(d) Indian Meteorological Department (IMD)
Answer: (b) BIS does the seismic mapping of India

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1740656
91.Arrange the following events in chronological order of their occurrence:

1. Formation Abhinav Bharat Mandal
2. Formation of Anushilan Samiti
3. Murder of AMT Jackson by Anant Kanhere at Nasik
4. Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki throw bombs at a vehicle in Muzaffarpur
Choose the correct option from below answer key:

(a) 2-1-3-4
(b) 1-2-3-4
(c) 2-1-4-3
(d) 1-2-4-3
Answer: (c)
Anushilan Samiti was formed in 1902 (2)
Abhinav Bharat was formed in 1904 (1)
Muzaffarpur bomb incident happened in 1908 (4)
Nasik murder happened in 1909 (3)
So the answer is 2-1-4-3
92. Consider following about Ahom Kingdom:

1. They ruled for more than 600 years in the Brahmaputra Valley
2. Town of Sivasagar was their first capital
3. Mughal- Ahom conflict began under the rule of Jehangir
4. Ahoms built temples in the Nilachal style of architecture
Which of the above statements are correct ? :
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2 ,3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only
Answer: (c) 1,3 and 4 are correct;

Their first capital was Charaideo. So Statement 2 is incorrect
Mughal Ahom Conflict began under Jehangir in 1616. So Statement 3 is correct.
The Ahom Kingdom ruled from 1228 to 1826, and they migrated to the Brahmaputra
valley in the 13th century from present-day Myanmar. Sukaphaa founded his first

little principality in Charaideo, sowing the seeds for the Ahom kingdom's future
growth. This principality ruler set up his capital in Charaidau, Assam, in 1253. Ahom–
Mughal conflicts refer to the period between the first Mughal attack on the Ahom
kingdom in 1615 and the final Battle of Itakhuli in 1682. The intervening period saw
the fluctuating fortunes of both powers. It ended with the Ahom influence extended to
the Manas river which remained the western boundary of the kingdom till the advent
of the British in 1826.
Nilachal is a style of Hindu temple architecture in Assam, India, that is characterized
by a bulbous polygonal dome over a cruciform ratha type bada. This hybrid style
developed first in the Kamakhya temple on the Nilachal hills under the Koch kingdom
and became popular as a style later under the Ahom kingdom.
93. The National Maritime Heritage Complex is being built at which of the following
cities:
(a) Lothal: To honour the rich ancient past of shipping in India

(b) Khanderi: To celebrate Naval Traditions of Maratha forces under Shivaji
Maharaj
(c) Visakhapatnam: To commemorate India’s ancient trade relations with Rome
and Middle East
(d) Calicut: To memorialise the port where Vasco Da Gama landed in 1498
Answer: (a) Lothal

https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1868932#:~:text=NMHC
%20would%20be%20developed%20in,project%20is%20%E2%82%B93%2C500
%20crore
94. ‘Schwarzschild radius’ is a term related to :
(a) Moon’s orbital distance from Earth

(b) Solution of Einstein’s field equations
(c) Maximum distance between 2 particles existing in a state of quantum
entanglement
(d) Measure of oscillator size in Atomic Clocks
Answer: (b) The Schwarzschild radius or the gravitational radius is a

physical parameter in the Schwarzschild solution to Einstein's field
equations that corresponds to the radius defining the event horizon of a
Schwarzschild black hole. It is a characteristic radius associated with any
quantity of mass.
95. Consider the following about Higher Education in India:

1. Maximum enrollments at undergraduate level are in the discipline of arts

2. During last 5 years number of foreign students coming to India has steadily
increased
3. Gross Enrollment Ratio of females is greater than that of males
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Source - AISHE Report 2020-21

Refer Below graphs for explanation of the 3 statements.

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only; Source - AISHE Report 2020-21
96. Originating from Nandi Hills in Karnataka this river flows as 2 different streams
in North and South direction, this gives it the shape of a bow and is thus named
after a famous bow in Hindu Mythology. The river is:
(a) Pennar river
(b) Markandeya river
(c) Tunga river
(d) Shimsha river
Answer: (a) Pennar or Penna River, it is named after Pinaka bow of lord shiva.
This river also forms the Gandikota Canyon (asked in Prelims 2022)
97. With reference to Lok Adalats set up under the Legal Services Authorities Act,
1987 consider the following:
1. There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat.

2. Lok Adalats do not have any jurisdiction in respect of non compoundable
offences
Which of the above statements are correct :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:(c) Both statements are correct

There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat. If a matter
pending in the court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled

subsequently, the court fee originally paid in the court on the complaints/petition
is also refunded back to the parties.
Nature of Cases to be Referred to Lok Adalat:
1. Any case pending before any court.
2. Any dispute which has not been brought before any court and is likely to be filed
before the court.
Provided that any matter relating to an offence not compoundable under the law
shall not be settled in Lok Adalat.
98. A Tribal hero and a freedom fighter, he led his forces against the British in the
Rampa Rebellion of 1922.He opposed the illegal eviction of forest dwellers and
reinstated their traditional 'Podu' system of shifting cultivation in face of bitter
oppression by British.A fearless revolutionary, he was honored for his valour and
fiery spirit with the title, “Manyam Veerudu” (Hero of the Jungle). His birthday is
celebrated as a state festival in Andhra Pradesh. This year marks 125th year of his
birth and was commemorated by the Prime Minister by unveiling a 30 feet bronze
statue at his birth place in Bhimavaram. Oscar winning movie RRR was inspired by
his life. He is:
(a) Komaram Bheem

(b) Alluri Sitharama Raju
(c) Vasudev Balwant Phadke
(d) Govind Guru
Answer is (b)
As part of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav, the Union Government is committed to
giving due recognition to the contribution of freedom fighters and making people
across the country aware of them. As part of the endeavour, Prime Minister Shri
Narendra Modi launched the year-long 125th birth anniversary celebration of
the legendary freedom fighter, Alluri Sitarama Raju, in Bhimavaram. Born on
4th July 1897, Alluri Sitarama Raju is remembered for his fight against the
British, in order to safeguard the interests of the tribal communities in the
Eastern Ghats region. He had led the Rampa rebellion, which was launched in
1922. He is referred to as “Manyam Veerudu” (Hero of the Jungles) by the local
people.
The government has planned a series of initiatives as part of the year-long
celebration. The birthplace of Alluri Sitarama Raju at Pandrangi in
Vizianagaram district and Chintapalli Police Station (to mark 100 years of
Rampa Rebellion - the attack on this police station marked the beginning of
Rampa Rebellion) will be restored. Government has also approved the
construction of Alluri Dhyana Mandir at Mogallu with a statue of Alluri
Sitarama Raju in Dhyana Mudra, depicting the life story of the freedom fighter
through mural paintings and AI-enabled interactive system.

99. With reference to Bharat Stage (BS) Emission Norms, Consider the following:
1. Indian Government Skipped BS 5 norms and directly jumped to BS 6 from
BS 4
2. BS 6 phase 2 real driving emission norms have been enforced all over India
from April 1, 2023
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c) Both statements are correct

Bharat stage emission standards (BSES) are emission standards instituted by the
Government of India to regulate the output of air pollutants from internal
combustion engines and Spark-ignition engines equipment, including motor
vehicles. The standards and the timeline for implementation are set by the Central
Pollution Control Board under the Ministry of Environment & Forests and climate
change. The standards, based on European regulations were first introduced in
2000. The Indian government decided to skip BS5 altogether and straight away
shifted from BS4 to BS6. It significantly impacted the automotive sector as the
vehicles became more expensive along with being, of course, eco-friendly but the
diesel cars vanished from the small car hatchback & sedan segments completely
due to high upgradation costs and low demand. BS6 phase 2 real driving emissions
(RDE) norms are coming into effect in India fromApril 1, 2023. All new vehicles,
including cars, two-wheelers and commercial vehicles, will have to comply with the
latest emission standards.
The BS6 norms introduced stricter limits on the emission of pollutants from
vehicles and they had to be equipped with advanced emission control technologies
such as particulate filters, selective catalytic reduction and improved engine
management systems. The BS6 phase 2 emission norm, which will come into effect
from April 1, 2023, focuses on real driving emissions and all the vehicles will now
come with an OBD (On Board Diagnostic) system to monitor real-time emission
levels.
100. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more
States at the same time
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the
Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the
President
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of
a Governor from his/her post
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is
appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support

Answer: (c)
In India – Same person can be appointed as a governor of 2 or more states.
Judges of High Court are appointed by President
Chief Minister of a UT with legislature is appointed by President
So only (c) is correct

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What a Test 2023 Full Length Test 1 (FLT-1)

1. Known as the ''Tamil Helmsman", he launched the first indigenous Shipping

Answer: (b) VO Chidambaram (VOC) Pillai

2. Arrange the following events in chronological order of their occurrence:

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

e-mail: contact@atishmathur.com www.atishmathur.com telegram: https://t.me/csepaper2atish

Select the correct using the code given below:

4.With reference to the three Battles of Panipat, consider the following

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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5. With reference to Indian Independence Act 1947, consider the following:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

6. Consider the following pairs with reference to modern Indian history:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

e-mail: contact@atishmathur.com www.atishmathur.com telegram: https://t.me/csepaper2atish

7. Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

8. Consider the following commissions formed during the colonial rule in

The above commissions were formed to investigate the matters of:

e-mail: contact@atishmathur.com www.atishmathur.com telegram: https://t.me/csepaper2atish

9. The book "Essence of Hinduism" was written by :

Answer:(a) Published in 1933 by Navjian , Mahatma Gandhi wrote Essence

10. Which of the following Upanishads mentions the famous dialogue

Answer: (b) Mahendravarman I was known as Gunabhara, Satyasandha,

12. Arrange the following historical events in their chronological order,

1. Defeat of Prithviraj Chauhan at the hands of Mohammed Ghori.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

e-mail: contact@atishmathur.com www.atishmathur.com telegram: https://t.me/csepaper2atish

Answer: (a) Government of India has decided to celebrate November 15 as

14. Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Donyi Polo’:

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer: (a)1 and 2 only

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16. Consider the following statements about Nayakas in the Vijayanagara

Which of the statements given above are correct?

e-mail: contact@atishmathur.com www.atishmathur.com telegram: https://t.me/csepaper2atish

17. Consider the following places:

1. Sankalp Bhoomi, Vadodara

Answer: (b) BR Ambedkar

18. Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

e-mail: contact@atishmathur.com www.atishmathur.com telegram: https://t.me/csepaper2atish

20. Consider the following statements about Seismic Waves during an

Which of the above statements are correct?

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

21. Consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Statement 3 is correct: Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of

e-mail: contact@atishmathur.com www.atishmathur.com telegram: https://t.me/csepaper2atish

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer: (c) 1 and 4

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: (a)1 only

24. Which of the following countries are separated by ‘Wakhan Corridor’?

e-mail: contact@atishmathur.com www.atishmathur.com telegram: https://t.me/csepaper2atish

25. Consider the following statements:

Which of the above are correct?

Answer: (a) 1 only;

26. Consider the following pairs:

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

e-mail: contact@atishmathur.com www.atishmathur.com telegram: https://t.me/csepaper2atish

Answer: (b) Only 3 pair

27. As per the classification of Indian soils done by Indian Council Of