Q1.

With respect to the Preamble of the Constitution of India, consider the

following statements:
1. It preaches the notion of universal human rights through 'liberty'.
2. The word 'Socialist' talks about the Principles of Distributive Justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Answer: 1 only
Statement 1 is not correct: The Preamble preaches the notion of
universal human rights through 'equality'. Equality is the essence of modern
democratic ideology. Any discrimination based on caste, creed, birth,
religion, sex, etc., is prohibited by Law. Through Equality, equal
opportunities regardless of socio-economic situations are enshrined as a
part of universal human rights. 'Liberty' talks about the freedom of thoughts
and expressions of individuals.
Statement 2 is correct: The word 'Socialist' was added in the
42  Constitutional Amendment in 1976. It has been used in the Preamble in
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the context of economic planning. It also means a commitment to inculcate

ideals like removing inequalities, providing minimum basic necessities to
all, and equal pay for equal work. Principles of Distributive Justice provide
moral guidance for the political processes and structures that affect the
distribution of benefits and burdens in societies, and any principles which
do offer this kind of moral guidance on distribution are considered as
principles of distributive justice. Thus, the word 'Socialist' talks about the
Principles of Distributive Justice.

Q2. Which of the following statements is/are true in the context of

'Untouchability'?
1. It is defined in the Constitution of India under Article 17.
2. All the citizens of India are protected against the practice of
'untouchability' from the State and as well as from private individuals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer: 2 only
Statement 1 is not correct: Untouchability is not defined in the
Constitution of India under Article 17. It is merely mentioned. However,
Karnataka High Court, in Devarajiah vs B. Padmanna case, has defined it
and observed that the term 'untouchability' need not be understood in a
literal or grammatical sense, but as a practice, as it had evolved in the
country historically.
Statement 2 is correct: In the case of People's Union for Democratic
Rights vs Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the protections
enshrined in the Constitution under Article 15 and Article 17 (against the
practice of 'untouchability') is available against the State and private
individuals, thus, making the provisions under these Articles broader than
others.

Q3. Which of the following Parts of the Constitution of India gave rise to the
origin of the Doctrine of Harmonious Construction?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
4. The Preamble
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer: 1 and 3 only

The term Harmonious Construction refers to such construction by which
harmony or oneness amongst various provisions of an enactment is arrived
at. When the words of statutory provision bear more than one meaning,
and there is a doubt as to which meaning should prevail, then such
meaning should be adopted by which the words best harmonize with the
subject and the subject of the enactment. 
The legislature intends that every provision should remain operative.
However, where two provisions are contradictory, it may not be possible to
effectuate both of them. As a result, one shall be reduced to futility against
the settled basic principle of 'ut res magis valeat qauam pereat' (It is better
for a thing to have an effect than to be made void).
Option (b) is correct: The Doctrine of Harmonious Construction can be
traced back to the very first amendment made in the Constitution of India
with the landmark judgment of Shankari Prasad vs The Union of India. The
case handled with the conflict between Fundamental Rights (FR) and
Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which constitute basic features
of the Indian Constitution. The first amendment was to ensure that the
resources (land) are made available and distributed among the vulnerable
section in the society against the zamindari system. The conflict arose as
the Right to Property (under Article 19) was still a Fundamental Right
(enforceable), and the welfare scheme in Article 46 (DPSP) could not
override it.
As FR is available against the State and private individuals and DPSP is a
guideline for the State to implement welfare schemes, these two often
conflict. In these cases, the court applies the rule of Harmonious
Construction. It said that Fundamental Rights being rights given against the
State, can be taken away in certain situations and can be amended by the
Parliament to bring them in conformity with Constitutional provisions.
Inclination was provided to both, and it was decided that FRs and DPSPs
are just two distinct sides of the same coin that requires working together
for the public good.
Q4. A welfare state is not defined by:
a) having the protection of social well-being
b) an equal distribution of wealth
c) having just and humane conditions of work
d) having maternity relief for women

Answer: Option (b) only.

Option (b) is correct: The idea of a welfare state has been mentioned in
the Directive Principle of State Policy (under Article 38) of the Indian
Constitution. Having just and humane conditions of work, maternity relief
for women, protection and promotion of economic and social well-being of
citizens by the State, etc., are the mandates that direct a welfare state.
Equitable distribution of resources is preferred as it is need-based. For
example, an adult and a child do not need equal calories of food per day as
a basic requirement, and hence, equitable distribution (need-based) is
preferred. Hence, equitable distribution of wealth and not equal distribution
of wealth is the cornerstone of a welfare state.

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. Resolution to create a new All India Service can be passed in either
of the Houses (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha).
2. The nominated members of the Rajya Sabha can take part in the
election of the Vice-President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: 2 only
Statement 1 is not correct: As mentioned in Article 312 of the Indian
Constitution, only the Rajya Sabha has the power to create a new All India
Service by passing a resolution that must be supported by not less than
2/3  of the members present and voting.
rd

Statement 2 is correct: The nominated members of Rajya Sabha have a

right to vote in the election of the Vice-President of India, but they are not
entitled to vote in the election of the President of India.

Q6. The term 'Service Voter' refer to:

Answer: According to the Representation of People Act, 1950, a Service

Voter is a person who has service qualification, i.e., a member of the
Armed Forces of the Union, Government of India employee who is posted
outside India, Member of the Armed Forces of the State serving outside the
State, etc.
Due to the nature of their work, being able to vote on the election day
becomes impossible for service voters; hence, postal ballots facilities have
been provided to them to cast their vote. While an ordinary voter is
registered in the electoral roll of the constituency in which his/her place of
ordinary residence is situated, a person having service qualification can get
enrolled as a 'service voter' at his native place even though he may be
residing at a different place due to the nature of work.

Q7. Which of the following functions is/are under the purview of NALSA
(National Legal Services Authority)?
1. Printing and translation of documents in legal proceedings. 
2. To organize legal awareness camps in rural areas.
3. To arrange for amicable settlement of disputes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer: 1, 2 and 3
Option (d) is correct: National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has
been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to monitor
and evaluate the implementation of legal aid programmes and to lay down
policies and principles for making legal services available under the
Act. The main functions of NALSA are as follows:
 To provide free and competent legal services to eligible persons,
 To organize Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes, and
 To organize legal awareness camps in the rural areas.
Payment of court fee, process fees and all other charges payable or
incurred in connection with any legal proceedings and preparation of
appeal, paper book including printing and translation of documents in legal
proceedings are also a part of its functions.

Q8. WhatsApp privacy policy was seen in the news recently. In this context,
consider the following statements:
1. India does not have a standalone data protection law.
2. Information Technology Act, 2000 governs the data protection laws in
India. 
3. As per the reports of the Justice B. N. Srikrishna Committee, consent
will be a lawful basis for processing data.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

Answer: 1,2 and 3

Amid continuing concerns over its new privacy policy released recently,
WhatsApp had to clarify that the policy changes nothing for those
messaging friends and family. It also clarified that in some conditions,
business messages — "different than messaging with your family or
friends" — can be read by Facebook and could be used for marketing
purposes.
Option (d) is correct: Currently, India does not have a standalone data
protection law. Information Technology Act, 2000 governs the data
protection laws in India till now. After the Supreme Court judgement that
'privacy' is a Fundamental Right, the government set up a committee under
the Chairmanship of Justice B. N. Srikrishna to submit a draft map for a
data protection law. The Committee submitted its reports a year ago, and
the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019, has been introduced in the
Parliament. The report suggested that from now on, consent will be a lawful
basis for processing data. The Committee also noted that consent must be
treated as a pre-condition for processing personal data. Such consent
should be informed or meaningful. Further, for certain vulnerable groups,
such as children, and for sensitive personal data, a data protection law
must sufficiently protect their interests while considering their vulnerability
and exposure to risks online. Further, sensitive personal information should
require the explicit consent of the individual.

Q9. Consider the following pairs:

     International agreements               Related Organization
1. Bangkok Declaration:  Association of Southeast Asian Nations
2. Ottawa Declaration: North Atlantic Treaty Organization
3. Lisbon Treaty:  European Union
4. Fortaleza Declaration: Shanghai Cooperation Organization
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Answer: 1 and 3 only

Pair 1 is correctly matched: The ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian
Nations) Declaration, or Bangkok Declaration, was signed in Bangkok in
1967, which resulted in establishing the Association of Southeast Asian
Nations and is the organization's founding document.
Pair 2 is not correctly matched: Ottawa declaration resulted in the
establishment of the Arctic Council in 1996. In the declaration, the
representatives of the Governments of Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland,
Norway, the Russian Federation, Sweden and the United States of America
affirmed their commitment to the well-being of the inhabitants of the Arctic,
including special recognition of the special relationship and unique
contributions to the Arctic of indigenous people and their communities.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Lisbon Treaty updated regulations for
the European Union, establishing a more centralized leadership and foreign
policy, a proper process for countries that wish to leave the Union, and a
streamlined process for enacting new policies. The treaty was signed on
December 13, 2007, in Lisbon, Portugal, and amended the two previous
treaties that established the foundation for the European Union.
Pair 4 is not correctly matched: Fortaleza Declaration was signed at the
sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza, Brazil. It established a New Development
Bank (NDB) with an initial subscribed capital of $50 billion. The capital base
is to be used for funding infrastructure and "sustainable development"
projects. The declaration also created a $100 billion Contingent Reserve
Arrangement (CRA). This is to provide additional liquidity protection to
member-nations during the balance of payments problems.

Q10. With reference to Constitutional Government, consider the following

statements:
1. The government's authority is limited in certain aspects.
2. Political and Socio-economic freedom is the prime component of
Constitutional Government.
3. Popular Sovereignty is one of its main elements. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: 1,2 and 3

Essential Characteristics and Principles of Constitutional Democracy:
 Majority Rule and Minority Rights: People agree to abide by the
decisions of the majority, but there are effective protections for the
rights of minorities. Protection of minority rights assures the
legitimacy of government.
 Limited Government: There are limits on the powers of government
which elected and appointed officials obey. Legalized force and
power are restricted through delegated and enumerated authorities.
The power of the government is curtailed in many areas, and
procedures regarding that are defined in the Constitution. (Statement
1 is correct)
 Institutional and Procedural Limitation on Powers: There are
institutional and procedural devices that effectively limit the powers of
government to serving its proper ends.
 Political and Socio-economic freedom: In a Constitutional
Democracy, the prime component of Political and Socioeconomic
freedom is promoted by providing a legal structure and a law-
enforcement system that protect the rights of individuals and enforce
laws in favour of the Citizens. (Statement 2 is correct)
 Popular Sovereignty: The people are the ultimate source of
authority of the government, and their sovereignty is reflected in the
daily realities of the political system. (Statement 3 is correct)
  Federalism: In the federal system, specific powers are given to a
centralized government, while others are given to State and local
governments, a system that creates additional checks and balances.
 Protection of Individual Freedom, personal, political, and economical.
 Legal and Judicial Protection and ensuring the deliverance of Justice.

Q11. With reference to the funds under the Members of Parliament Local
Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. The fund released under the MPLAD scheme is non-lapsable.
2. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is
the nodal ministry responsible for policy formulation and release of
funds.
3. The funds under the MPLADS schemes are released in the form of
Grants-in-aid directly to the District Authorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Answer: 1,2 and 3

The Members of Parliament and Local Area Development (MPLAD)
Scheme was launched on 23 December 1993 to provide a mechanism for
rd 

the Members of Parliament to recommend works of developmental nature

for the creation of durable community assets and for provision of basic
facilities, including community infrastructure based on locally felt needs.
Statement 1 is correct: The funds released under the Scheme are non-
lapsable, i.e., the entitlement of funds not released in a particular year is
carried forward to the subsequent years, subject to eligibility.
Statement 2 is correct: The utilization of MPLADS funds can be made by
the concerned Nodal District Authority with the prior approval of the Ministry
of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) and not by any other
Ministry.
Statement 3 is correct: The funds under the MPLADS schemes are
released in the form of Grants-in-aid directly to the District Authorities. In
the projects under the MPLADS fund, the role of the Members of
Parliament is limited only up to the recommendation of works. Thereafter, it
is the responsibility of the district authority to sanction, execute and
complete the works recommended by Members of Parliament within the
stipulated time period. Moreover, the District Authority is empowered to
examine the eligibility of works, sanction funds and select the Implementing
Agencies, supervise the overall execution, and monitor the Scheme at the
ground level. 
Q12. Consider the following statements about the Inter-State Council:
1. It is a permanent Constitutional body established under the
recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission.
2. Chief Ministers of Union Territories are not the members of Inter-
State Council.
3. Its function is complementary to Supreme Court's jurisdiction under
Article 131 to decide a legal controversy between the governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Answer: 1 and 2
Inter-State Council is a recommendatory body with duties to investigate
and discuss the subjects of common interest between the Union and
State(s) or among the States, making recommendations particularly for
better coordination of policy and action on these subjects and deliberating
upon such other matters of general interest to the States which may be
referred to it by its Chairman.
Statement 1 is not correct: The Inter-State Council is not a permanent
Constitutional body, but it can be constituted at any time if the President
thinks that the public interests would be served by the establishment of
such a council. Justice R. S. Sarkaria Commission, in its report in 1988,
recommended the setting up of Inter-State Council. Finally, in 1990, Inter-
State Council was set up through a Gazette notification as per the
provisions laid in the Indian Constitution under Article 263.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Inter-State Council is composed of:
 Prime Minister as the Chairman.
 Chief Ministers of all the States.
 Chief Ministers of Union Territories having Legislative Assemblies.
 Administrators of the Union Territories not having Legislative
Assemblies.
 Governors of the States under the President's rule.
 Six Central Cabinet Ministers, including Home Minister, to be
nominated by the PM.
Statement 3 is correct: Its function is complementary to Supreme Court's
jurisdiction. Article 131 of the Indian Constitution vests the Supreme Court
with original jurisdiction over any dispute arising between the States or
between the Centre and State. This Article gives the Supreme Court the
power to take up such cases directly instead of going through a lower court
or reviewing a lower court's judgement.

Q13. Consider the following statements:

1. Disqualification of any member of the State Legislative Assembly on
the ground of defection is kept out of the purview of judicial review.
 2. The Parliament may create a Legislative Council only after a
resolution being passed by the respective State Assembly with a
special majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Answer: 1 only
Judicial review refers to the power of the Judiciary to review and determine
the validity of a Law or an Order. According to Article 13(2) of the Indian
Constitution, the Union of the States shall not make any Law that takes
away or abridges any of the Fundamental Rights, and any Law made in
contravention of the aforementioned mandate shall, to the extent of the
contravention, be void.
Statement 1 is not correct: If any member of the State Legislative
Assembly is disqualified on the ground of defection, then the decision of the
Presiding Officer is subject to judicial review. Initially, the decision of the
Presiding Officer was not subject to judicial review. This condition was
struck down by the Supreme Court in 1992, thereby allowing appeals
against the Presiding Officer's decision in the High Court and Supreme
Court.
Statement 2 is correct: Legislative Council is a permanent body in the
State Legislature. Under Article 169 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament
may by Law create or abolish the Second Chamber in a State if the
Legislative Assembly of that State passes a resolution to that effect by a
special majority.

Q14. Consider the following statements about Special Drawing Rights

(SDR):
1. It provides member countries with an alternative option to meet their
Balance of Payment crisis.
2. SDR cannot be held by a private corporation or individuals.
3. The value of SDR is determined based on a fixed exchange rate
system.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Answer: 3 only
The (Special Drawing Rights) SDR is an international reserve asset (or
interest-bearing reserve asset), created by the International Monetary Fund
(IMF) in 1969 to supplement its member countries’ official reserves.
Statement 1 is correct: Balance-of-Payments Crisis is a situation that
occurs when so much money is flowing outside a country (with more
imports) than inflow (through export), and the country ends up with no forex
reserves for international payments. This led to a Balance of Payment
crisis. SDR is a reserve asset created by IMF and allocated from time to
time to member countries. It can be used to settle international payments
between monetary authorities of two different countries, providing an
alternative option to the member countries to meet their balance of
payment crisis.
Statement 2 is correct: Private parties, private corporations or individuals
cannot hold SDR. It is usually held by a few organizations and IMF member
countries.
Statement 3 is not correct: The SDR value in terms of the U.S. dollar is
determined daily based on the spot exchange rates. Therefore, its value is
not determined based on the fixed exchange rate but on its market
exchange rate.

Q15. With reference to Public Accounts Committee, consider the following

statements:
1. The term of the committee is coterminous with the term of the Lok
Sabha.
2. The Chairman of the committee is appointed by the Speaker of the
Lok Sabha.
3. The committee is empowered to issue orders to the Finance Ministry
with respect to any misappropriation of funds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Answer: 2 only
Statement 1 is not correct: Public Accounts Committee was set up first in
1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has
since been in existence. At present, it consists of 22 members (15 from the
Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha). The members of the committee
are elected by the Parliament every year (the committee is constituted
every year) from amongst its members according to the principle of
proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. Thus,
all parties get due representation in it. The term of office of the members is
one year. A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the committee. 
Statement 2 is correct: The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee
is appointed from amongst its members by the Speaker. Until 1966-67, the
Chairman of the committee belonged to the ruling party. However, since
1967 a convention has developed whereby the Chairman of the committee
is selected invariably from the Opposition.
Statement 3 is not correct: Over a period of years, the Public Accounts
Committee has entirely fulfilled the expectation that it should develop into a
powerful force in the control of public expenditure. It may be claimed that
the traditions established and conventions developed by the Public
Accounts Committee conform to the highest traditions of parliamentary
democracy. However, the effectiveness of the role of the committee is
limited by the following: 
 It is not concerned with the questions of policy in a broader sense. 
 It conducts a post-mortem examination of accounts (showing the
expenditure already incurred). 
 It cannot intervene in the matters of day-to-day administration. 
 Its recommendations are advisory and not binding on the ministries. 
 It is not vested with the power of disallowance of expenditures by the
departments. 
 It is not an executive body and hence, cannot issue an order. Only
the Parliament can take a final decision on its findings.

The Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India

under its "Waste to Wealth" Mission launched the "Swachhta Saarthi
Fellowship" to recognize students, community workers/self-help groups,
and municipal/sanitary workers who are engaged in tackling the enormous
challenge of waste management, scientifically and sustainably. The Waste
to Wealth Mission is one of the nine national missions of the Prime
Minister's Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-
STIAC). 
The fellowship is an initiative to empower young innovators engaged in
community work of waste management/awareness campaigns/waste
surveys/studies, etc., as Swachhta Saarthis and implement actions to
reduce waste for a greener planet. The role of young students from schools
and colleges, and citizens working in the community through Self Help
Groups (SHGs) or independent capacity, is critical in sensitizing the
communities towards waste management and offering innovative solutions
for the conversion of waste value. This fellowship is aimed to empower
interested students and citizens to continuously engage in their attempts to
reduce waste in cities and rural areas.
Targeted to encourage community participation, the Swachhta Saarthi
Fellowships invites applications from students and community workers who
have done previous work or are currently engaged in waste management
activities, including awareness campaigns, surveys and studies. The three
categories of awards under the fellowships are as below:
 Category-A: Open to School students from 9th to 12th standards
engaged in waste management community work.
 Category-B: Open to College students engaged in waste
management community work.
 Category-C: Open to Citizens working in the community and through
Self Help Groups, municipal or sanitary workers working beyond
specifications of their job requirement/descriptions.