Professional Documents
Culture Documents
2023 - Act - Bills
2023 - Act - Bills
2023 - Act - Bills
GS Score Prelims Sampoorna Current affair Yearly compilation for UPSC CSE
prelims 2023 offers holistic Coverage of the last 1.5 years of Current affairs
with a special focus on Preliminary examination along with practice questions
to validate your learning. The compilation offers pointed and quick notes for
effective revision saving you the effort to make separate notes. We have also
provided Previous Years Prelims Question at the end of each sectionn to give
insight into the type of questions that come in the exam and the way the UPSC
expects the aspirants to prepare the topics. The practice questions not only
simulate the pattern of the questions asked in the examination but also season
you better to navigate through the challenges which one might encounter in the
real examination.
These notes are not just quick and handy but covers almost everything that one
requires to get a good hold on the area of Current Affairs. With this much effort,
current affairs would become a cakewalk for you! This compilation provides lucid
and effective content making your learning easy, effective and efficient. A hassle-
free logically arranged bouquet of current affairs to master the news in sync with
concepts. So that you shine on May 28th, 2023 and beam with confidence that
you know it all and how. Face the examination with confidence and attempt to
win.
This edition covers current affairs from October 2021 to January 2023. We will
release the second edition in the 1st week of May, covering the current affairs of
February to April.
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1 ACTS & BILLS
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Background
India in 2021, replaced its decade-old regulations on social media intermediaries (SMIs) with the
IT Rules, 2021 that were primarily aimed at placing obligations on SMIs to ensure an open, safe
and trusted internet.
The safe harbour provisions have been defined under Section 79 of the IT Act, and protect social
media intermediaries by giving them immunity from legal prosecution for any content posted on
their platforms.
Due Diligence to be followed by Intermediaries: In case, due diligence is not followed by the
intermediary, safe harbour provisions will not apply to them.
Ensuring Online Safety and Dignity of Users: The Information Technology (Intermediary
Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Amendment Rules, 2022, provide a shorter timeline
of 24 hours to act on sensitive content, and require significant social media intermediaries to
“respect all the rights accorded to the citizens under the Constitution, including in Articles 14,
19 and 21.”
" They also give a breather to intermediaries on some aspects, such as due diligence.
Additional Due Diligence for the Significant Social Media Intermediaries:
" Appointments: Need to appoint a Chief Compliance Officer, a Nodal Contact Person and a
Resident Grievance Officer, all of whom should be residents of India.
" Compliance Report: Need to publish a monthly compliance report mentioning the details of
complaints received and action taken on the complaints as well as details of contents removed
proactively.
Enabling Identity of the Originator:
" Significant social media intermediaries providing services primarily in the nature of messaging
shall enable the identification of the first originator of the information.
" Required only for the purposes of prevention, detection, investigation, prosecution or
punishment of an offence related to the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the
State, friendly relations with foreign States, or public order,
" Or of incitement to an offence relating to the above or in relation to rape, sexually explicit
material or child sexual abuse material punishable with imprisonment for a term of not less
than five years.
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Removal of Unlawful Information:
" An intermediary upon receiving actual knowledge in the form of an order by a court or being
notified by the Appropriate Govt. or its agencies through an authorized officer should not host
or publish any information which is prohibited under any law in relation to the interest of the
sovereignty and integrity of India, public order, friendly relations with foreign countries etc.
OTT Platforms
OTT stands for “over-the-top”.
It refers to the productized practice of streaming content to customers directly over the
web.
An “over-the-top” media service is any online content provider that offers streaming media
as a standalone product.
The term is commonly applied to video-on-demand platforms, but also refers to audio
streaming, messaging services, or internet-based voice calling solutions.
Key features of the new Bill: Under the previous bill, the
Fines and Penalties: For breach of Law; the Companies penalty proposed on a company
dealing with the personal data of consumers that fail for violation of the law was 15
to take reasonable safeguards to prevent data breaches crore or 4 percent of its annual
could end up facing penalties as high as around Rs.200 turnover, whichever is higher.
crore.
For intimidating: Penalties are expected to vary on the basis of the nature of non-compliance by
data fiduciaries, entities that handle and process the personal data of individuals.
Companies failing to notify people impacted by a data breach could be fined around Rs.150
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" Those who are failing to safeguard children’s personal data could be fined close to Rs.100
crore.
Administration body: The Data Protection Board, an adjudicating body proposed to enforce the
provisions of the Bill, is likely to be empowered to impose the fine after giving the companies
an opportunity of being heard.
Scope of Data being protected: The new Bill will only deal with safeguards around personal
data and is learned to have excluded non-personal data from its ambit.
" Non-personal data essentially means any data that cannot reveal an individual’s identity.
Seven principles
The bill has been based on seven principles around the data economy.
The first and second principles call for organisations to be more transparent with users’
personal data in a way that is lawful and fair to individuals as well as “purpose limitation”
which is using the data for which it is collected.
Third Principle calls for “data minimisation” which is collecting those items of personal data
only for what is needed.
Fourth principle is about the accuracy of personal data and that a “reasonable effort” is made
that the individual’s personal data is “accurate and kept up to date”.
Fifth one calls for a “storage limitation” so that personal data is not being “stored perpetually
by default”.
Sixth and Seventh principles call for “reasonable safeguards” to prevent data breaches and
ensure there is no unauthorised collection or processing of personal data and the person who is
in charge of such processing should be held accountable for it.
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Key provisions of the Bill: Some Acts that are amended by the Bill
include: the Indian Post Office Act,
Decriminalizing Certain Offences:
1898, the Environment (Protection)
" Under the Bill, several offences with an Act, 1986, the Public Liability
imprisonment term in certain Acts have been Insurance Act, 1991, and the
decriminalised by imposing only a monetary Information Technology Act, 2000.
penalty.
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For example:
Under the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937, counterfeiting grade
designation marks is punishable with imprisonment of up to three years and a fine of up to
five thousand rupees. Grade designation mark indicates the quality of an article under the 1937
Act.
" The Bill replaces this with a penalty of eight lakh rupees.
Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, disclosing personal information in breach of
a lawful contract is punishable with imprisonment of up to three years, or a fine of up to five
lakh rupees, or both.
" The Bill replaces this with a penalty of up to 25 lakh rupees.
In certain Acts, offences have been decriminalised by imposing a penalty instead of a fine.
" For instance, under the Patents Act, 1970, a person selling a falsely represented article as
patented in India is subject to a fine of up to one lakh rupees.
" The Bill replaces the fine with a penalty, which may be up to ten lakh rupees. In case of
a continuing claim, there shall be an additional penalty of one thousand rupees per day.
Revision of Fines and Penalties:
" The Bill increases the fines and penalties for various offences in the specified Acts.
" Further, these fines and penalties will be increased by 10% of the minimum amount every
three years.
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Repealing of Law
Laws can be repealed in two ways — either through an ordinance, or through legislation.
Article 245 of the Constitution which gives Parliament the power to make laws also gives
the legislative body the power to repeal them through the Repealing and Amending Act.
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Tamil Nadu: The Bill includes the Narikoravan and Kurivikkaran communities in the list of
Scheduled Tribes in Tamil Nadu.
Karnataka: In relation to the state of Karnataka, the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order
(Fourth Amendment) Bill, 2022, was also passed unanimously in Rajya Sabha.
" The Bill will include Betta-Kuruba as a synonym for the Kadu Kuruba community in the
list of Scheduled Tribes in Karnataka.
" The bill was earlier passed by the Lok Sabha.
Uttar Pradesh: The Bill will include the transfer of Gond community from list of SCs to STs
and inclusion of Dhuria, Nayak, Ojha, Pathari and Rajgond in the list of STs of Uttar Pradesh
in the four districts of Sant Kabir Nagar, Kushinagar, Chandauli and Bhadohi.
Key provisions:
To plug Loopholes in the MSCS Act: Bill seeks to amend the 2002 law for more “transparency”
and “ease of doing business”.
To strengthen governance, reform the electoral process, improve the monitoring mechanism,
and ensure ease of doing business in Multi-State cooperative societies.
To improve the composition of boards and ensure financial discipline, besides enabling the
raising of funds in the Multi-State cooperative societies.
Creation of a central Cooperative Election Authority: The Bill provides for the creation of a
Central Cooperative Election Authority to supervise the electoral functions of the MSCSs.
Its composition:
" A Chairperson
" Vice Chairperson
" Up to three members appointed by the Centre
Insertion of a new Section related to the “establishment of the Cooperative Rehabilitation,
Reconstruction and Development Fund” for the revival of “sick multi-state cooperative
societies”.
The merger of “any cooperative society” into an existing multi-state cooperative society.
Article 43B says the government shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous
functioning, democratic control, and professional management of cooperative societies.
Cooperative federalism should have been followed before the preparation of this Bill.
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No provision of the Constitution makes way for merging a cooperative society, which is
incorporated under State law with a Multi-State Cooperative Society.
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Background:
There is no standalone legislation for mediation in India.
The Mediation Bill, 2021 was introduced in Rajya Sabha in December 2021, with an aim to reduce
the pendency of cases in courts.
Later, the Parliamentary Standing Committee was tasked with a review of the Bill.
The committee’s report to the Rajya Sabha was submitted on July 13, 2022.
Mediation India is divided into two categories which are commonly followed:
Court referred Mediation: The court may refer a pending case for mediation in India
under Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
This type of mediation is frequently used in Matrimonial disputes, particularly divorce
cases.
Private Mediation: In Private Mediation, qualified personnel works as mediators on a fixed-
fee basis. Anyone from courts, to the general public, to corporates as well as the government
sector, can appoint mediators to resolve their dispute through mediation.
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Introduction of ‘deal value thresholds’ under which ‘large-value’ transactions will require the
approval of the Competition Commission of India (CCI):
Relaxations for implementation of open offers and stock exchange purchases;
Shortened timelines for review of ‘combinations’;
Amendment of the definition of ‘control’ to include ‘material influence’;
Introduction of ‘settlement’ and ‘commitment’ to resolve investigations in respect of anti-
competitive vertical agreements and abuse of dominance; and
Facilitation of exchange of New Delhi International Arbitration Centre (Amendment) Bill, 2022
information between departments of the Government of India and the CCI.
Key Changes:
Introduction of ‘deal value thresholds’:
" The Bill introduces ‘deal value thresholds’, under which transactions of a value exceeding
INR 2,000 crore will require the prior approval of the CCI, provided that the parties to such
transaction have “substantial business operations in India” (“Deal Value Thresholds”).
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" The Bill proposes that open offers and acquisitions of shares or securities on a regulated
stock exchange may be implemented prior to the receipt of the CCI’s approval.
Introduction of ‘settlement’ and ‘commitment’:
" The Bill proposes that enterprises facing investigations relating to;
" Anti-competitive vertical agreements under Section 3(4) of the Competition Act, or
" Abuse of dominant position under Section 4 of the Competition Act, may settle such
proceedings or offer commitment(s) to the CCI in the following manner:
Settlement: An application for ‘settlement’ may be submitted by an enterprise at any time after
the receipt of the Director General of the CCI’s (“DG”) report in respect of its investigation into
the relevant matter, but before the CCI passes a final order; and
Commitment: An offer for ‘commitment’ may be submitted by an enterprise at any time after
the CCI has initiated an investigation but before receipt of the DG’s report.
Penalty for gun-jumping:
" Currently, the penalty for gun-jumping (i.e., the penalty for non-furnishing of information
on combinations) may extend to one percent of the total turnover or the assets, whichever is
higher of the relevant combination.
" The Bill proposes that the penalty for gun-jumping may extend to one percent of the
total turnover or the assets or, value of the transaction, whichever is higher, of the relevant
combination.
About
The Central Universities (Amendment) Bill 2022, which seeks to create the Gati Shakti
Vishwavidyalaya, will generate appropriate human resources to meet the needs of the growing
infrastructure of the country.
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The bill’s main objective was to convert the National Rail and Transportation University based in
Vadodara into Gati Shakti Vishwa Vidyalaya, a Central University.
It will be under the control of the Ministry of Railways.
This bill was introduced under India’s National Education Policy (NEP).
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" Women with physical disabilities (major disability as per criteria laid down under the Rights
of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016)
" Mentally ill women including mental retardation,
The foetal malformation that has a substantial risk of being incompatible with life or if the child
is born it may suffer from such physical or mental abnormalities to be seriously handicapped,
and
Women with pregnancy in humanitarian settings or disasters or emergencies may be declared by
the Government.
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About
In India, the copyright regime is governed by the Copyright Act, 1957, and the Copyright Rules,
2013.
The Copyright Rules, 2013 was last amended in the year 2016.
The amendments have been introduced to bring the existing rules in parity with other relevant
legislations.
It aims to ensure smooth and flawless compliance in the light of the technological advancement
in the digital era by adopting electronic means as the primary mode of communication and
working in the Copyright Office.
Intellectual property (IP) is a category of property that includes intangible creations of the
human intellect.
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Key Provisions
Dissolution of Existing Bodies: It seeks to eliminate certain appeal bodies and transfer their
functions to other existing judicial bodies. For example, disputes heard by the Film Certification
Appellate Tribunal will be resolved by the Supreme Court.
Consolidation of Existing Bodies: The Finance Act, 2017 includes court-based courts. For
example, the Competition Appellate Tribunal is affiliated with the National Company Law
Appellate Tribunal.
Candidate Selection Committees: The Chairperson and Members of the Courts will be elected
by the Central Government on the recommendations of the Search-cum-Selection Selection
Committee. The Committee will consist of:
" The Chief Justice of India or the Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him, as Chairperson
(by casting vote).
" Two secretaries were nominated by Central Governments.
" The incumbent Chairperson, or a retired High Court Judge, or a retired Chief Justice of the
High Court, and
" Secretary of the Department under which the Tribunal is located (excluding the right to
vote).
State Administrative Courts: Will have separate search electoral committees and the Chief
Justice of the Supreme Court of the country concerned, such as the Chairperson (by a casting
vote).
Eligibility and Term of Office: It provides for a term of four years (subject to a maximum of 70
years for the Chairperson, and a maximum of 67 years for members).
" In addition, it specifies a minimum age requirement of 50 years for the appointment of a
chairperson or member.
Removal of Councillors: It states that the central government, on the recommendation of the
Select Committee of Investigators, removes the Chairperson or Member.
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
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Constitutional Provisions:
They were not part of the Constitution at first.
Amendment Act 42 introduces these provisions in accordance with the recommendations of
the Swaran Singh Committee.
The amendment introduces Part XIV-A in the Constitution, which deals with ‘courts’ and
contains two articles:
" Article 323A deals with administrative courts. These are judicial institutions that resolve
disputes related to employment and the conditions of service of public servants.
" Article 323B deals with the courts of other jurisdictions such as Tax, industrial and labor,
Foreign Exchange, Import and Export, Land Reform, Food, Urban Roofing, Elections in
Parliament and State Legislatures, Employment and Employment Rights.
Objective:
The government of India is committed to reducing the emissions from the shipping sector and
promoting the development of net zero and low-emission solutions.
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By 2030, all the Major Ports are to be made fully self-sustainable on electricity.
All the energy requirements of the port are to be met through renewable sources.
The initiative also includes Green Warehousing utilizing green/ natural solutions such as natural
light or energy efficiency lighting, automated and compact storage systems, rooftop solar, using
HVLS fans, and rainwater harvesting.
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" The Board will constitute a National Anti-Doping Disciplinary Panel for determining the
consequences of anti-doping rule violations.
" This Panel will consist of a chairperson and four Vice-Chairpersons (all legal experts), and ten
members (medical practitioners and retired eminent athletes).
Dope Testing Laboratories:
" The National Dope Testing Laboratory will be deemed to be the principal dope testing
laboratory.
" The central government may establish additional national drug testing facilities across the
country.
Dam failure
Globally, about 2.2% of dams built before 1950 have failed mainly due to flooding, inadequate
spillway capacity, bad workmanship, etc.
Although India ranks third globally with above 5000 large dams in operation and about 500
under construction, India too has had its share of dam failures.
There have been more than 36 reported failures cases so far. The major failure is as given
below:
" The first failure was recorded in Madhya Pradesh in 1917 when the Tigra Dam failed due
to overtopping.
" The worst dam disaster is, however, associated with the failure of Machu dam (Gujarat) in
1979 in which more than 2000 people died.
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Scope of education: The Bill provides that Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya will take measures
to provide quality teaching, research, and skill development in disciplines related
to transportation, technology, and management.
" If required, the University may also establish centres in India and abroad.
" According to the Statement of Objects and Reasons, establishment of the Vishwavidyalaya
will address the need of trained talent in the transportation sector.
Appointment of a new Vice-Chancellor (VC): The existing VC of the National Rail and
Transportation Institute will hold office for:
" Six months from when the Act is notified, or
" Until a new VC for the Gati Shakti Vishwavidyalaya is appointed, whichever is earlier.
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" While companies have to seek permission from the regulator to conduct trials even now, this
is not specifically mentioned in the existing law.
" The draft provides for debarring the investigators and sponsors of a trial or investigation if the
laid-down provisions are not followed.
Medical devices:
" A Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB) and a Medical Devices Technical Advisory
Board (MDTAB) are planned to submit recommendations to the government from time to
time on policy matters.
" Under the ambit of medical devices defined by the draft Bill are diagnostic equipment, their
software, implants, and devices for assistance with disabilities, life support, instruments
used for disinfection, and reagents or kits.
" The 1940 Act has medical devices as one of four categories of “drugs”.
" The draft proposes to allow the Union government to waive the requirement of conducting
clinical investigations for the manufacture or import of a new medical device in public
interest.
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The police as per Section 53 or Section 53A of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, can
collect Data.
Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973 is the primary legislation regarding the procedural
aspects of criminal law.
Any person convicted, arrested or detained under any preventive detention law will be required
to provide “measurements” to a police officer or a prison official.
The National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) will be the central agency to maintain the
records.
" It will share the data with law enforcement agencies.
" States/UTs may notify agencies to collect, preserve, and share data in their respective
jurisdictions.
" The data collected will be retained in digital or electronic form for 75 years.
" Records will be destroyed in case of persons who are acquitted after all appeals or released
without trial.
" However, in such cases, a Court or Magistrate may direct the retention of details after
recording reasons in writing.
It aims to ensure the unique identification of those involved with crime and to help to investigate
agencies solve cases.
Under both the 1920 Act and the 2022 Bill, resistance or refusal to give data will be considered
an offence of obstructing a public servant from doing his duty.
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" Note: At present, the government has to hold 51% in PSBs at all times according to the Banking
Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1970.
Benefits of Reduced Government Shareholding in PSBs: This will enable institutional and
public investment in PSBs in turn helping the exchequer with better receipts. This would also help
in privatisation and meeting the disinvestment targets, besides reducing lenders’ dependence on
the government for capital infusion.
Scheme for privatisation of PSBs: The Bill would empower the government to make a scheme
for privatisation of PSBs in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Auditors of PSBs: The bill seeks to replace provisions of the Companies Act, 1956, with the
Companies Act, 2013 for conditions for auditors of PSBs, among others.
Disqualification of Directors: The Bill will have provisions regarding the disqualification of
directors. It will include terms and conditions for service of the chairman, whole-time directors
and board of directors.
Remuneration of Directors: The bill will insert clauses to determine the remuneration and
compensation for whole-time directors and officers carrying out material risk-taking and control
functions of new privatised banks.
Protection of Officers: To protect the decision-making of bank executives, a new provision will
also be included in the law to protect them for action taken in good faith.
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It will amend Articles 342 A and introduces clause 342 A (3) that will specifically authorize
states to maintain their State List.
" Seventh Schedule of Indian constitution: There are three lists—Union, Concurrent and
State.
" Respective State Governments have exclusive power to legislate on matters relating to items
listed in the State list.
Besides, there will be an amendment in
" Article 366(26C)
" Article 338B (9)
A Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed in each House by a majority of the total
membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that
House present and voting.
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Key-highlights
The bill will amend the Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India Act, 2008.
The Bill intends to aide government’s plan for privatisation of smaller airports as part of its asset
monetisation programme announced during the budget for 2021-22.
The Bill also promises to help in the faster development of the smaller airports and expediting the
regional air connectivity UDAN scheme by expanding the air connectivity to relatively remote
areas.
Key-highlights
It repeals the Identification of Prisoners Act of 1920, a colonial-era statute that allowed police
to measure suspects who had been convicted, detained, or were awaiting trial.
The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022 provides legal sanction to law enforcement
agencies for “taking measurements of convicts and other persons for the purposes of identification
and investigation of criminal matters”.
Context The General Insurance Business (Nationalisation) Amendment Bill, 2021 was passed
by the Rajya Sabha.
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EIA links environment with development for environmentally safe and sustainable
development.
EIA provides a cost-effective method to eliminate or minimize the adverse impact of developmental
projects.
EIA enables the decision makers to analyse the effect of developmental activities on the
environment well before the developmental project is implemented.
EIA encourages the adaptation of mitigation strategies in the developmental plan.
EIA makes sure that the developmental plan is environmentally sound and within the limits of
the capacity of assimilation and regeneration of the ecosystem.
EIA does not give decisions but its findings should be considered in policy- and decision-making
and should be reflected in final choices. Thus it should be part of the decision-making process.
The findings of EIA should be focused on the significant and essential issues. It is also required
to provide a sufficient explanation on why they are important, and study its validity in order to
facilitate a basis for policy decisions.
Background:
India’s Biological Diversity Act is rooted in the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), an
international treaty that India ratified in 1994.
The treaty calls on its signatories to conserve their biodiversity and sustainably use their biological
resources in a fair and equitable manner.
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Bring more foreign investments in biological The last bit is formally derived from
resources, research, patent and commercial the ‘Access and Benefit Sharing’
utilisation, without compromising the national model defined by the Nagoya
interest. Protocol.
Biological Diversity Act establishes a three-tier, decentralised system to achieve its goals:
Local level: Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) at the level of local self-
government bodies such as Panchayats implement conservation activities.
These include developing ‘Peoples’ Biodiversity Registers’ that document the flora, fauna
and associated traditional knowledge of people in the area.
State level: State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs) advise their respective state governments on
issues related to biodiversity conservation and sustainable use.
National level: The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) performs “facilitative, regulatory
and advisory functions” to conserve genetic resources and ensure benefits are shared fairly
– including issue permits to use certain resources
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Sale of minerals by captive mines: The Bill provides that captive mines (other than atomic
minerals) may sell up to 50% of their annual mineral production in the open market after meeting
their own needs.
" The central government may increase this threshold through a notification.
Auction by the central government in certain cases: Under the Act, states conduct the auction
of mineral concessions (other than coal, lignite, and atomic minerals).
" The Bill empowers the central government to specify a time period for completion of the
auction process in consultation with the state government.
" If the state government is unable to complete the auction process within this period, the
auctions may be conducted by the central government.
Transfer of statutory clearances: Upon expiry of a mining lease (other than coal, lignite, and
atomic minerals), mines are leased to new persons through auction.
Allocation of mines with expired leases: The Bill adds that mines (other than coal, lignite, and
atomic minerals), whose lease has expired, may be allocated to a government company in certain
cases.
" This will be applicable if the auction process for granting a new lease has not been completed,
or the new lease has been terminated within a year of the auction.
" The state government may grant a lease for such a mine to a government company for a period
of up to 10 years or until the selection of a new lessee, whichever is earlier.
Extension of leases to government companies: The Act provides that the period of mining
leases granted to government companies will be prescribed by the central government.
" The Bill provides that the period of mining leases of government companies (other than leases
granted through auction) may be extended on payment of additional amount prescribed in
the Bill.
Conditions for lapse of mining lease: The Act provides that a mining lease will lapse if the
Lessee: (i) is not able to start mining operations within two years of the grant of a lease, or (ii)
has discontinued mining operations for a period of two years.
" The Bill adds that the threshold period for lapse of the lease may be extended by the state
government only once and up to one year.
Non-exclusive reconnaissance permit: The Act provides for a non-exclusive reconnaissance
permit (for minerals other than coal, lignite, and atomic minerals).
" Reconnaissance means preliminary prospecting of a mineral through certain surveys. The
Bill removes the provision for this permit.
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" Article 14: It provides for equality before the law or equal protection of the laws within the
territory of India.
" Article 16: It talks about the right of equal opportunity in the matters of public
employment.
" Article 39(c): It specifies that the economic system should not result in the concentration of
wealth and means of production to the detriment of the entire society.
Legislative Framework: There have been several legislative and administrative initiatives taken
by the government to improve working conditions and simplify labour laws. Most recent is the
consolidated sets of 4 labour codes which are yet to be implemented.
Labour Codes:
" Code of Wages, 2019
" Industrial Relations Code, 2020
" Social Security Code, 2020
" Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020
" The implementation process is delayed as states are yet to finalise their rules under these
codes.
The Madras Labour Union, set up in 1918, is considered the first trade union in India to be
formed systematically.
Today, there are more than 75,000 registered and an unaccounted number of unregistered
trade unions scattered across a large spectrum of industries in India.
Trade unions in India are governed by the Trade Unions Act (TU Act). The TU Act legalizes the
formation of trade unions and provides adequate safeguards for trade unions’ activities.
It defines a “trade union” as “any combination, whether temporary or permanent, formed primarily
for the purpose of regulating the relations between workmen and employers or between workmen
and workmen, or between employers and employers, or for imposing restrictive condition on the
conduct of any trade or business, and includes any federation of two or more trade unions.”
The TU Act is administered by the Ministry of Labour through its Industrial Relations Division
(IRD) as well as by state governments.
The IRD is concerned with improving the institutional framework related to settlement of
disputes and amendment of labour laws regarding industrial relations; state governments are
concerned with monitoring adherence to the law by all involved parties.
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It includes the prohibition of financing any activity related to WMD and their delivery systems
and gives the central government the power to crack down on financial sources suspected of
catering to the same.
Municipal body:
The system of Municipalities or Urban Local Governments was constitutionalised through
the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992.
The provisions in this amendment are included in Part IXA which came into force on June
1, 1993. Therefore, it gave a constitutional foundation to the local self-government units in
urban areas.
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The Bill is aimed to bring large residential buildings, with a minimum connected load of 100
kilowatt (kW) or contract demand of 120 Kilovolt Ampere (kVA), within the fold of Energy
Conservation regime.
According to the section 124A, the charges could be put on whoever, by words, either spoken
or written, or by signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring
into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts to excite disaffection towards, the Government
established by law in India.
He/She shall be punished with imprisonment for life, to which a fine may be added; or, with
imprisonment which may extend to three years, to which a fine may be added; or, with fine.”
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Government obligation Under RTI Act, liability is on the officer to find out who is
holding the information and transfer the RTI application.
Maintenance of public
record Large numbers of denials where people are just told that this
information cannot be provided to them, which is an illegal
denial.
Maintaining datasets and information: putting information
in the public domain has become a big problem.
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PRACTICE MCQS
1. With reference to Rashtriya Aarogya Which of the statements given above are
Nidhi, consider the following correct?
statements:
(a) 1 and 3 only
1. The ration card is the only document
required to avail the scheme benefits. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. The financial assistance of Rs. 2 Lakh (c) 1 and 2 only
is to be provided for every individual (d) 1, 2 and 3
under the scheme.
3. Rashtriya Aarogya Nidhi has been 4. Consider the following statements
registered under the Societies regarding the provisions of Criminal
Registration Act, 1860. Amendment Act, 2013:
Which of the statements given above are 1. It increases the age of consent for a
correct? sexual intercourse from 16 to 18 years.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Section 376(2) of the Act does not
include rape committed by a member
(b) 2 and 3 only
of armed forces deployed by the Central
(c) 1 and 3 only or a State Government.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. The amendments in the Act were made
in lines with the Justice Verma committee
2. Consider the following statements
report which suggested marital rape as
regarding foreign funded religious
conversions in India: an offence.
1. Article 15(3) of the constitution allows Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
the state to make special provisions for correct?
women and children. (a) 1 only
2. Rules under Foreign Contribution (b) 2 and 3 only
Regulation Act (FCRA) scrutinises
funding of NGOs particularly for (c) 1, 2 and 3
fraudlent religious conversion. (d) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct? 5. India enacted the Geographical
Indications of Goods (Registration and
(a) 1 only
Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply
(b) 2 only with the obligations to:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) International Labour Organization
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) International Monetary Fund
3. Consider the following statements (c) United Nations Conference on Trade and
regarding the National Food Security Development
Act, 2013: (d) World Trade Organisation
1. Public Distribution System (PDS) is
governed by provisions of the Act. 6. Consider the following statements:
2. The Act entitles 35 kg of food grains per 1. Article 345 of the Constitution ensures
Antodaya Anna Yojana Household per power to the State government for
year. choosing an official language of their
3. State/UT Government are independent choice.
to frame its own criteria for identification 2. Hindi is the official language as per the
of beneficiaries. Official language Act, 1963.
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Which of the statement (s) given above is/ Which of the statements given above is/are
are correct? correct?
8. With reference to legal provisions regarding 11. With reference to the personal data
protection bill 2019, consider the following
forests in India, consider the following
statements:
statements:
1. Data localization rights from the big tech
1. State governments require statutory
companies have been transferred to the
clearance from the centre before
Government.
forests can be used for any non-forest
2. The Bill has been abolished after
purpose such as industry, mining, or
the recommendations of the Joint
construction.
parliamentary committee.
2. Under the Forest Conservation Act, 1980,
centre can define any land area as forest Which of the statements given above is/are
incorrect?
which is not already classified as forest in
the Central or state records. (a) 1 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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3. No person accused of an offence under 3. Under section 24A of the RPA 1951, there
the act can be released on bail. is no legal inquiry for funding of political
Which of the above statement(s) is/are parties up to 20,000.
correct? Which of the statement given above are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
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