EVALUATIVE EXAM IV

1. Which of the following ingredients is NOT normally found in the film

emulsion?
A. Silver iodide C. Silver halide
B. Silver nitrate D. Silver bromide

2. What stage of processing involves a synergistic reaction?

A. Washing C. Drying
B. Fixing D. Developing

3. Its function is to increase the efficiency of the IS, nearly doubling the
number of light photons reaching the film.
A. Protective coat C. Reflective layer
B. Adhesive layer D. Film

4. It only transmits light having wavelengths longer than about 550 nm.
A. Amber B. Blue C. Red D. Green

5. Which of the following is constructed so as to absorb much of the primary

radiation that would expose the low-tissue-density area, while allowing
the primary radiation to pass unaffected to the high-tissue-density area?
A. Filter C. Collimator
B. Grid D. Intensifying screen

6. Quantum mottle is MOST obvious when using:

A. Slow-speed screens C. Fine-grain film
B. Rare earth screens D. Minimal filtration

7. A criteria for viewing satisfactory radiographic quality would be:

A. Full usage of dense spot viewers
B. Variable intensity view-box
C. Sight development
D. Proper and adequate illumination

8. Aerial oxidation is controlled by the:

A. Fixer C. Restrainer
B. Activator D. Preservative

9. Which of the following is the LEAST important characteristic of screen

film?
A. Sensitivity C. Cost
B. Contrast D. Light Absorption

10. Artifacts caused by wet pressure sensitization usually occur

A. Before processing C. In the fixing tank
B. In the Drying chamber D. In the developing tank

11. What stage of processing is recommended to neutralize the alkaline

developer?
A. Stop bath C. Developing
B. Fixing D. Washing

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 12. What is the solution that provide acidic pH and stops reduction?
A. Activator C. Preservative
B. Hardener D. Neutralizer

13. Which of the following would principally reduce the production of scatter
radiation?
A. A decrease in kVp C. A decrease in SID
B. Use of a grid D. Use of a filter

14. Why does the manufacturer pack x-ray film in metal foil?
A. Protect it from moisture
B. Eliminate the risks of radiation fog
C. Prevent static
D. Keep film clean

15. Which of the following do NOT affect the speed of an intensifying screen?
A. Thickness of active layer of phosphor
B. Reflectance of cardboard
C. Screen contact
D. Size of phosphor crystal

16. What is the most common practice being used, in designing radiographic
techniques
A. Linear moving grid C. Focused moving grid
B. Linear stationary grid D. Focused stationary grid

17. When producing comparable radiographs, which of the following

combinations will result in the lowest patient dose?
A. Low kVp and low ratio grids
B. High kVp and high ratio grids
C. Low kVp and high ratio grids
D. High kVp and low ratio grids

18. What terms refers to the ability to accurately image an object?

A. Speed C. Latitude
B. Resolution D. Contrast

19. What equipment is required to provide an accurate reading of the amount

of light transmitted through the film?
A. Step wedge C. Sensitometer
B. Penetrometer D. Densitometer

20. The speed of an emulsion is governed by its

A. Average grain size C. Average shape
B. Grain distribution D. Emulsion thickness

21. A blue-sensitive film emulsion is

A. Panchromatic C. Orthochromatic
B. Monochromatic D. Polychromatic

22. Decreasing the developer temperature will

A. Increase contrast C. Lower oxidation
B. Decrease contrast D. Lower the density

23. Which of these is/are activator agent in the developer solution

1. Sodium theosulafate
2. Potassium hydroxide
3. Potassium aluminum

A. 2 & 3 only C. 2 only

B. 1 & 2 only D. 1,2 & 3

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 24. Which reduces sulphurization of the fixing agent to a minimum?
A. Preservative C. Acid
B. Solvent D. Hardener

25. Which causes a brownish stain on the film due to inadequate washing?
A. Thiosulfate C. Ammonium
B. Potassium D. Carbon

26. Assuring good screen-film contact also assures reduced in:

A. Radiographic noise C. Magnification
B. Patient dose D. Blur

27. Which of the following is NOT a required characteristic of base for an

intensifying screen?
A. Translucent C. Rugges
B. Chemically inert D. Flexible

28. If we wish to double the density of a given film we can

A. Half the distance factor C. Double mA factor
B. Double the kVp factor D. Double the distance factor

29. What is the flexible support of the emulsion?

A. Gelatin C. Base
B. Silver halide D. Protective coating

30. What beam restricting device which flares or diverges, with the upper
diameter smaller than the bottom flared end?
A. Cylinders C. Collimator
B. Cones D. Aperture diaphragms

31. SID affects recorded detail in which of the following ways?

A. Recorded detail is directly related to SID
B. Recorded detail is inversely related to SID
C. As SID increases, recorded detail decreases
D. SID is not a detail factor.

32. Foreshortening can be caused by

A. The radiographic object being placed at an angle to the IR
B. Excessive distance between the object and the IR
C. Insufficient distance between the focus and the IR
D. Excessive distance between the focus and the IR

33. Acceptable method(s) of minimizing motion unsharpness is (are)

1. Suspended respiration
2. Short exposure time
3. Patient instruction

A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

34. Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following except
when
A. Object shape does not coincide with the shape of x-ray beam
B. Object plane is not parallel with x-ray tube and/or IR
C. Anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR
D. Anatomic object(s) of interest is/are a distance from the IR

35. Types of shape distortion include

1. Magnification
2. Elongation
3. Foreshortening

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

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 36. All the following are related to recorded detail except
A. Milliamperage C. SID
B. Focal-spot size D. OID

37. Which of the following factors impact(s) recorded detail?

1. Focal-spot size
2. Subject motion
3. SOD

A. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

38. Focal-spot blur is greatest

A. Directly along the course of the central ray
B. Toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam
C. Toward the anode end of the x-ray beam
D. As the SID is increased

39. If the radiographer is unable to achieve a short OID because of the

structure of the body part or patient condition, which of the following
adjustments can be made to minimize magnification distortion?
A. A smaller focal-spot size should be used
B. A longer SID should be used
C. A shorter SID should be used
D. A lower-ratio grid should be used

40. Although the stated focal spot size is measured directly under the actual
focal spot, focal spot size actually varies along the length of the x-ray
beam. At which portion of the x-ray beam is the effective focal spot the
largest?
A. At its outer edge
B. Along the path of the central ray
C. At the cathode end
D. At the anode e

41. A focal-spot size of 0.3 mm or smaller is essential for

A. Small-bone radiography C. Tomography
B. Magnification radiography D. Fluoroscopy

42. OID is related to recorded detail in which of the following ways?

A. Radiographic detail is directly related to OID.
B. Radiographic detail is inversely related to OID.
C. As OID increases, so does radiographic detail.
D. OID is unrelated to radiographic detail.

43. Recorded detail/resolution is inversely related to

1. SID
2. OID
3. Part motion

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

44. Which of the following requires two exposures to evaluate focal-spot

accuracy?
A. Pinhole camera C. Star pattern
B. Slit camera D. Bar pattern

45. Why is a very short exposure time essential in chest radiography?

A. To avoid excessive focal-spot blur
B. To maintain short-scale contrast
C. To minimize involuntary motion
D. To minimize patient discomfort

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 46. Foreshortening of an anatomic structure means that
A. It is projected on the IR smaller than its actual size
B. Its image is more lengthened than its actual size
C. It is accompanied by geometric blur
D. It is significantly magnified

47. Exposure-type artifacts include

1. Double exposure
2. Motion
3. Image fading

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

48. Which of the following terms is used to describe unsharp edges of tiny
radiographic details?
A. Diffusion C. Blur
B. Mottle D. Umbra

49. Shape distortion is influenced by the relationship between the

1. X-ray tube and the part to be imaged
2. Part to be imaged and the IR
3. IR and the x-ray tube

A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

50. Geometric unsharpness is directly influenced by

1. OID
2. SOD
3. SID

A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

51. After predetermined processing period, which one is holted when the film
is place in the fixer:
A. Developing C. Development
B. Developer D. Developed

52. Which of the following DOES NOT greatly affect imaging quality but is
expensive?
A. Over replenishment of the developer
B. Replenishment of the fixer
C. Over replenishment of the fixer
D. Under replenishment of the developer

53. What is the primary purpose of the circulation system?

A. Replenish the chemistry
B. Agitate the film
C. Control the chemistry system
D. Agitate the chemistry

54. What developing agent helps to provide upper scale density?

A. Hydroquinone C. Phenidone
B. Metol D. Glutaraldehyde

55. What developing agent helps to provide intermediate densities?

A. Hydroquinone C. Gluteraldehyde
B. Phenidone D. Potassium bromide

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 56. What developer solution is used to maintain uniform film thickness and to
assist in transport through an automatic processor?
A. Hardener C. Preservative
B. Restrainer D. Activator

57. What is advisable time / period change processing solution in an

automatic processor?
A. Every three months C. Every week
B. Every month D. Every year

58. What device is used to evaluate the sensitometric readings from the
processed image?
A. Sensitometer C. Step-wedge
B. Densitometer D. Monitoring

59. What artifacts caused by raised dirt on roller sensitizing film as it

passes by?
A. Guide shoe scratches C. Pi lines
B. Temperature fluctuations D. Film fog

60. Which of the following is the LEAST important indicator of grid

performance?
A. Contrast improvement C. Grid ratio
B. Grid frequency D. Grid-strip height

61. What equipment is designed to expose reproducible, uniform, optical step-

wedge onto film?
A. Penetrometer C. Step-wedge
B. Densitometer D. Sensitometer

62. The sharpness of detail in a radiograph is best increased by the use of?
A. Medium speed screens C. Large effective focal spot
B. High speed screens D. Small effective focal spot

63. What is the color of the radiographic film base to minimize the effect of
ambient light passing through large unexposed areas of the radiograph?
A. Tinted blue C. Tinted blue-green
B. Tinted green D. Tinted yellow-orange

64. Orthochromatic emulsions are sensitive to wavelength:

A. Less than 620 nm C. More than 620 nm
B. Less than 610 nm D. More than 610 nm

65. Substratum also refers to:

A. Protective coating C. Gelatin
B. Polyester D. Adhesive material

66. Panchromatic emulsions are sensitive to which of the following

wavelengths:
1. Whole visible spectrum
2. Shorter wavelength
3. Wavelength less than 620 nm

A. 1 only C. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2 D. 1,2 and 3

67. What is the active ingredient of the radiographic film emulsion?

A. Polyester C. Silver nitrate
B. Gelatin D. Silver halide

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 68. What is/are the primary agent(s) of the developer?
1. Reducing
2. Phenidone
3. Hydroquinone

A. 1, 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3
B. 1 only D. 2 and 3

69. What do you call the invisible change in a radiographic film that is
caused either by light or x-radiation?
A. Exposure C. Visible image
B. Latent image D. Processing

70. Which of the following can cause oxidation of the developer and
diminishing its chemical activity?
A. Evaporation C. Exhaustion
B. Contamination D. Replenishment

71. According to the ANSI standards, the maximum amount of hyporetention

allowed is ______ µg/cm³
A. 2 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10

72. Which of the processing chemical is responsible for creating optical

densities above 1.2 on a diagnosis image?
A. Phenidone C. Elon
B. Hydroquinone D. Metol

73. Which system of the automatic processor consumes the greatest amount of
electrical power?
A. Transport C. Circulation
B. Replenishment D. Dryer

74. Which of the following is located at the bottom of each processing tank?
A. Entrance rack C. Turnaround rack
B. Vertical rack D. Crossover rack

75. Which of the following materials are used in the construction of an

entrance roller?
A. Acrylic plastic (Plexiglas) C. Polyester
B. Stainless steel D. Rubberized plastic

76. Hydrogen ions (Hᶧ) that constitute 1/10,000 of a molar of a liquid would
have which of the following pH values?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8

77. Which of the following units is used for measurement of precious metal
such as silver?
A. Standard ounce C. Troy ounce
B. Avoirdupois ounce D. None of the above

78. Which of the following is the largest worldwide consumer of silver?

A. Photographic industry C. Sterlingware industry
B. Electronics industry D. Space program

79. The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) of 1987 limits liquid
waste to a toxic level of no more than ____ppm
A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 100

80. From which of the following components do most silver recovery systems
reclaim the silver?
A. Developer solution C. Wash water
B. Fixer solution D. Dryer section

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 81. Distortion is a misrepresentation of _____.
A. Size only C. Size and shape
B. Shape only D. Detail

82. As size distortion decreases, the resolution of recorded detail ____.

A. Increases C. Is not affected
B. Decreases D. Is lost

83. Examination of body parts with a large inherent OID, use ____ whenever
possible.
A. Small SID C. Small SOD
B. Large SID D. None of the above

84. It is considered the major factor for magnification.

A. FFD B. OFD C. FSS D. IR

85. Unequal magnification of different portions of the same object is called

A. Size distortion C. Shape distortion
B. Distortion D. Magnification

86. It is the relationship between the focal spot and the film- screen
system.
A. FFD C. Central ray
B. OFD D. Object plane

87. Principal contributory of noise in many radiologic imaging.

A. Focal spot blur C. Quantum mottle
B. Geometric unsharpness D. Film graininess

88. Magnification is reduced by which of the following?

A. Increasing kVp
B. Increasing screen speed
C. Increasing SID and OID
D. Increasing SID and reducing OID

89. Which of the following does not affect image blur?

A. Focal-spot size C. OID
B. kVp D. SID

90. Which of the following is most influenced by focal-spot size?

A. Absorption blur C. Geometric blur
B. Contrast resolution D. Motion blur

91. Ensuring good screen-film contact also ensures reduced:

A. Blur C. Magnification
B. Contrast resolution D. Patient dose

92. Which of the following influences geometric unsharpness?

1. OID
2. Focal-object distance
3. SID

A. 1 only C. 1 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

93. Distortion can be caused by

1. Tube angle.
2. The position of the organ or structure within the body.
3. The radiographic positioning of the part.

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

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 94. Foreshortening can be caused by
A. The radiographic object being placed at angle to the film
B. Excessive distance between the object and the film
C. Insufficient distance between the focus and the film
D. Excessive distance between the focus and the film

95. Misalignment of the tube-part-film relationship results in

A. Shape distortion. C. Magnification.
B. Size distortion. D. Blur.

96. Recorded detail can be improved by decreasing

1. The SID.
2. The OID.
3. Motion unsharpness.

A. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only

B. 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

97. Inaccurate central ray will lead to

A. Shape distortion C. Magnification
B. Size distortion D. Distortion

98. Elongation and Foreshortening can be minimized by ensuring the proper CR

alignment of the following:
1. X-ray tube
2. Part
3. Image receptor
4. Entry or exit point of the CR

A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 3
B. 2 and 4 D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

99. Which occurs when the tube or the image receptor is not properly aligned?
A. Elongation C. Foreshortening
B. Magnification D. Minification

100. Which occurs when the part is improperly aligned?

A. Elongation C. Foreshortening
B. Magnification D. Minification

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