Fundamental of Nursing MCQ

01. Dyspnea is defined as:

a) Pallor b) Absence of breathing
c) Cyanosis d) Difficult respiration

02. Mrs Ahmed age 53, her pulse rate is found to be 52 per minute. Her heart rate could be
described as:
a) Tachypnea b) Tachycardia
c) Bradypnea d) Bradycardia

03. When you assess the respiratory rate for the patient, you should do all of the following
EXCEPT:
a) Instruct the patient to breath in and out from his mouth.
b) Count each inspiration followed by expiration as one breath.
c) Make sure that the patient is not aware that you are counting his respiratory rate.
d) Count the respiratory rate for 30 seconds.

04. To examine the ear canal of the child, this is done by:
a) Pull the ear down and back
b) Pull the ear up and back
c) Pull the ear only back
d) Do not pull the ear, direct examine the ear by otoscope

05. The advantage of use head to toe approach when you assess the patient:
a) It increase the number of position changes
b) It helps to prevent overlooking some aspect of data collection
c) It takes more time
d) It is difficult to detect the disease or problem

06. Discharge planning for hospitalized patient begins:

a) When the treating Dr. gives discharge order
b) When all of the specific needs of the patient have been identified
c) When the patient begins to ask about his discharge plans
d) From the first day of admission

07. Abnormal skin color which indicates yellowish color is called:

a) Erythema b) Ecchymosis
c) Jaundice d) Pallor

08. Which of the following is considered as subjective data?

a) Anxiety b) Skin color
c) Height d) Temperature

09. The physician has ordered an indwelling urinary catheter inserted in a hospitalized
patient, the nurse is aware that:
a) The procedure requires surgical asepsis
b) Lubricant not needed for catheter insertion
c) Smaller catheters are used for male catheter
d) Normally a clean technique is required for catheter insertion
10. Diarrhea is best described by its:
a) Amount b) Consistency
c) Frequency d) Odor

11. Medication is instilled between the skin & the muscle and used to administer Heparin.
a) Intravenous b) Intramuscular
c) Intradermal d) Subcutaneous

12. The angle of the syringe and needle for intramuscular injections is:
a) 90 degrees b) 45 degrees
c) 15 degrees d) 10 degrees

13. Is the term used to administered undiluted medication quickly into a vein:
a) Bolus b) Secondary infusion
c) Intermittent d) Continuous

14. A primary concern when giving heparin subcutaneously to prevent bleeding is:
a) Don’t make massage on the injection site
b) To make massage on the injection site
c) Use the smallest gauge needle that is appropriate
d) Use Z technique

15. To ensure that medications are prepared and administered correctly, the nurse should:
a) Give the medication without question
b) Use the patient's rights
c) Give the medication only when requested
d) Use the FIVE rights

16. The doctor order is 300 cc of normal saline solution, to be finished within 4 hours, how
many drop/min you will regulate this IV (drop factor is 20 drop/minute).
a) 10 drop/min b) 15 drop/min
c) 25 drop/min d) 35 drop/min

17. All of the following is used Central Venous Catheter, EXCEPT:

a) Clients require long term IV medication
b) IV medications are irritating to peripheral veins
c) Clients require short term IV medication
d) Difficult to insert peripheral catheter

18. A pre-operative check list form that should be completed before surgery, it should be
including which of the following?
a) The surgical consent form b) All laboratory test
c) Vital Signs d) All of above

19. The process of removing poisonous substance through gastric intubation is called:
a) Gastric Lavage b) Gastric Gavage
c) Gastric Decompression d) Gastric Tamponade

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20. Of the following, which is the earliest signs of excessive pressure:
a) Pale appearance of the skin
b) Reddened appearance of the skin
c) Ulcer formation on the skin
d) Dark or cyanotic color to the skin

21. To prevent the formation of thrombi in the postoperative patient, the nurse should
a) Teach foot and leg exercises
b) Have the patient lie still
c) Place pillows under the knee
d) Lie in lateral position

22. Which of the following is used to determine the activity of the brain:
a) Electrocardiography b) Electromyography
c) Electroencephalography d) Echocardiography

23. An infection that the patient acquires in the hospital is called:

a) A local infection b) An endogenous infection
c) A nosocomial infection d) A secondary infection

24. The nursing activity most likely to prevent the clogging of a nasogastric feeding tube is:
a) Attaching the tubing to suction after each feeding
b) Clamping the tubing after formula feeding
c) Flushing the tubing with water and clamping it after each feeding
d) Aspirate as much as possible from the tubing using a 50 ml syringe

25. When an order reads that a drug be administered t.i.d, how often should this drug be
given?
a) Every three hours b) Three times a day
c) Four times a day d) Every other day

26. Dorsal recumbent position is used when performing the following procedures EXCEPT:
a) Suppository insertion b) Cystoscopic examination
c) Urinary catheter insertion d) Vaginal examination

27. Which action is believed to be the most useful in preventing wound infections?:
a) Using sterial dressing supplies b) Performing careful hand hygiene
c) Suggesting dietary supplements d) All of the above

28. The single most effective way to prevent nosocomial infections is to:
a) Isolate patients with infections b) Cover the mouth and nose when coughing
c) Wash all equipment detergents d) Practice continuous hand washing

29. Vitamin K. 10 mg given IM, is ordered. Vitamin K is available as 5 mg/ml. How much
would the nurse administer?
a) 2 ml b) 6 ml
c) 4 ml d) 8 ml

30. Nonverbal communication includes all of the following Except?

a) Facial expression b) Grooming and crying
c) Posture and mode of dress d) Speaking in low voice
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31. The condition in which a person is aware of his or her own heart contraction without
having to feel the pulse is called:
a) Arrhythmia b) Dysrhythmia
c) Pulse rhythm d) Palpitation
32. Cyanosis is blue color of skin, is caused by:
a) Fever b) Hypertension
c) Low tissue oxygenation d) Kidney disease
33. Instrument which is used to examine the eye structure is called:
a) Ophthalmoscope b) Laryngoscope
c) Otoscope d) Bronchoscope
34. A pattern in which the nursing personnel divide the patient into groups and complete
their care together is called:
a) Primary method b) Team nursing
c) Nursing managed care case method d) Case method
35. The term used to describe blood in the urine.
a) Glycosuria b) Hematuria
c) Pyuria d) Albuminuria
36. The normal color of urine is:
a) Dark amber b) Reddish brown
c) Cloudy d) Light yellow
37. When a person has a fever or diaphoresis, the urine output will be which of the
following:
a) Increased and diluted b) Increased and concentrated
c) Decreased and highly diluted d) Decreased and highly concentrated
38. When administering medication via nasogastric tubing, clamp the tube for at least:
a) One half hour prior to medication administration to prevent complication
b) One half hours after instilling medication to allow for absorption
c) One hour prior to medication administration to prevent complication
d) One and one half hours after instilling medication to allow for absorption
39. The nurse chooses to inject a prescribed intramuscular medication into the
ventrogluteal site. If the nurse selects the site correctly, the injection is administered
into the.
a) Hip b) Arm
c) Thigh d) Buttock
40. 500 mg of a drug is order. It is supplied in tablets of 1 gm per tablet. How many tablets
should be administered?
a) 0.5 tablet b) 1 tablet
c) 1.5 tablet d) 2 tablet
41. One of your patients complains of difficulty of breathing, all of the following
measurment which help improve breathing EXCEPT:
a) Put your patient in semi- fowler's position
b) Teach patient breathing techniques
c) Put the patient in prone position
d) Give oxygen therapy
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42. The process of removing poisonous substance through gastric intubation is called:
e) Gastric Lavage f) Gastric Gavage
g) Gastric Decompression h) Gastric Tamponade

43. During the inflammation process, which of the following characteristics occur first:
a) Swelling b) Pain
c) Redness d) Decreased functioning

44. Paracentesis is best described as:

a) The removal of fluid from the lung
b) The removal of fluid or air from pleural cavity
c) The removal of body fluid from the abdominal cavity
d) The removal of secretion from the stomach

45. Which of the following is used to determine the activity of the brain:
e) Electrocardiography f) Electromyography
g) Electroencephalography h) Echocardiography

46. When planning Mr. Asem care (50 years) who demonstrates difficulty in breathing.
Which of the following positions is most appropriate?
a) On either side b) Flat on his back
c) On his abdomen d) Mid-Flower's position

47. The following manifestations are commonly associated with a fever, EXCEPT:
a) Headache b) Pinkish and red skin color
c) Bradycardia d) Convulsions in infants and child

48. Dorsal recumbent position is used when performing the following procedures EXCEPT:
e) Suppository insertion f) Cystoscopic examination
g) Urinary catheter insertion h) Vaginal examination

49. If a vial of Gentamycin contains 80 mg in 2 ml, the physician order is 16 mg every 8 hr.,
the nurse should give every time:
a) 0.1 ml b) 0.2 ml
c) 0.3 ml d) 0.4 ml

50. If a nasogastric tube has been misplaced in the trachea during preparation to obtain a
gastric specimen, the nurse should anticipate that the patient will:
a) Have difficulty in breathing b) Swallow every few seconds
c) Gage without relief d) Complain of feeling nauseated
51. Blood and urine analysis confirm a diagnosis of salicylate overdose. The client is treated
with gastric lavage. Which of the following positions would be most appropriate for the
client during this procedure?
a) Lateral b) Trednelenburg’s
c) Supine d) Lithotomy
52. All of the followings are signs of HYPOXIA Except:
a) Rapid pulse
b) Cyanosis
c) Rapid shallow respiration
d) Diarrhea.
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53. Hypercabnia is:
a) Bluish discoloration of the skin nails beds and mucosal membrane.
b) Inadequate alveolar ventilation can lead to hypoxia.
c) Accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood.
d) Slow respiration rate.

54. Which position allow maximum chest expansion to the client:

a) Prone.
b) Semifolwer.
c) Supine.
d) Lateral

55. Which one of the following its major function to supply energy:
a) Protein
b) Carbohydrates
c) Fats
d) Minerals
56. What number 18 indicate, regarding body mass index scale (BMI):
a)Underweight
b) Morbidly obese
c) Malnourished
d) Normal

57. Constipation is:

a) Fewer than 5 bowel movement per week.
b) Fewer than three bowel movement per week.
c) Passage of liquid feces and increased frequency of defecation.
d) air or gas in GI tract
58. All of the followings are normal characteristics of feces Except:
a) Brown color.
b) Very hard and solid.
c) Amount: varies with diet.
d) Odor: affected by digested food
59. Oliguria is:
a) Production of abnormally large amount of urine by kidneys.
b) Lack of urine production, with no effective urine production.
c) voiding that either painful or difficult.
d) Low urine output, usually less than 500 ml a day, or 30 ml an hour.

60. All of the followings are normal characteristics of urine Except:

a) Volume: 1200- 1500 ml per day
b) Straw color.
c) Sterile, no microorganisms.
d) Cloudy.

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61. Medical asepsis includes:
a) Hand washing.
b) Personal protective equipment (uniform, gown, gloves, face mask).
c) Cleaning, Disinfecting, Sterilizing.
d) All of the above.

62. Acute infection is:

a) Infection may occur slowly and takes long time.
b) is limited to the specific part of the body where micro-organisms remain.
c) Infection appears suddenly or in short time.
d) When microorganisms spread and damage different part of body.

63. Indirect transmission of infection includes:

a) Vehicle born transmission.
b) Vector borne transmission.
c) A only correct.
d) A and B are correct.

64. Incubation period of infection is:

a) Person is most infectious and nonspecific sign and symptom.
b) Organism growing and multiplying.
c) Recovery from infection.
d) Presence of specific sign and symptom.

65. All of the following laboratory data indicating infection EXCEPT:

a) Increased specific type of leukocyte.
b) Increased in body temp.
c) Decreased WBC.
d) Positive culture in blood, urine or sputum.

66. Health is defined as:

a) State of complete physical, social, mental, and spiritual wellbeing and not merely absence of
disease.
b) Felling of wellbeing.
c) Absence of disease.
d) State of complete physical and mental wellbeing only.

67. The patient should be fasts (NPO) before the surgery for:
a) 24 hours.
b) 16 hours.
c) 6 to 8 hours.
d) 12 hours.
68. Complications of wound healing include:
a) Hematoma.
b) Nausea.
c) Hypertension.
d) All of the above

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69. Which of the following vital signs are normal:
a) Temp: 37, RR: 22, HR: 90, BP: 135/85.
b) Temp: 36.7, RR: 18, HR: 75, BP: 125/80.
c) Temp: 38, RR: 12, HR: 110, BP: 155/90.
d) Temp: 37.2, RR: 16, HR: 50, BP: 115/65

70. Hyperthermia is:

a) Body temperature between 36.4 – 37.4
b) Body temperature between 39 – 41
c) Body temperature below 36.
d) Body temperature between 38 – 40.

71. All of the following are clinical sign of fever except:

a) Palled.
b) Shivering.
c) Decrease thirst.
d) Increase heart rate.

72. All of the following factors are increase respiratory rate except:
a) Decrease temp.
b) Stress.
c) Exercise.
d) Increase altitude.

73. The most safe and non invasive site to measure the temperature is:
a) Oral site.
b) Auxiliary site.
c) Rectal site.
d) Tympanic site.

74. The difference between rectal and auxiliary temp is:

a) 0.5 c
b) 0.8 c
c) 2 c
d) 1 c.

75. In which phase of nursing process the nurse collect data about the client:
a) Diagnosis.
b) Assessment.
c) Implementation.
d) Evaluation.

76. Chief complain includes:

a) Immunization and childhood illness.
b) Hoppies and sleep pattern.
c) Risk factor for certain diseases.
d) The answer given to question “what brought you to the hospital”
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77. The chief complain should be record using:
a) Nurse words.
b) Patient words.
c) Physician words.
d) None of the above.

78. Nursing diagnosis is:

a) A statement that describes actual health problem only.
b) A statement that describes potential health problem only.
c) A statement that describes actual and potential health problems.
d) Puts the nursing care plan into action.

79. The nursing diagnosis include all the following except:

a) Problem.
b) Time.
c) Sign.
d) Etiology.

80. Pressure ulcer risk factors include:

a) Immobility and inactivity.
b) Fecal and urinary incontinence.
c) Decreased mental status.
d) All of the above.

81. All of the following are clinical manifestations of fluid volume excess except:
a) Edema
b) Oliguria
c) Distended neck veins
d) Increased CVP

82. Signs and symptoms of Hypovolemic shock are all of the following except:
a) Tachycardia
b) Hypertension
c) Pallor and cyanosis
d) Tachypnea

83. Normal Saline 0.9% solution is considered as which of the following:

a) Isotonic solution
b) Hypotonic solution
c) Hypertonic solution
d) None of the above

84. Apnea is medical term means:

a) Rapid pulse
b) Increase body temperature
c) Stop breathing
d) Low blood pressure

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85. When blood sugar level is above normal range, this means that patient has:
a) Hypotension
b) Hypoglycemia
c) Hyperglycemia
d) Bradycardia

86. The most important thing should be done after any nursing action is:
a) Documentation
b) Nursing diagnosis
c) Planning
d) All of the above

87. All of the following are assessment sites for body temperature except:
a) Oral Site.
b) Rectal Site.
c) Axillary Site.
d) Apical

88. Mr. Ashraf aged 35 years old, his pulse rate is found to be 120 bpm. His heart rate
could be described as:
a) Tachypnea.
b) Tachycardia.
c) Bradypnea
d) Bradycardia.

89. Which of the following factors are affecting body temperature:

a) Food intake.
b) Age and Gender
c) Climate.
d) All of the above

90. The condition in which the body temperature is above the average normal is called:
a) Bradypnea
b) Fever.
c) Hypertension.
d) Hypothermia.

91. Which of the following best describes the technique of palpation:

a) The use of the sense of hearing to listen for sounds.
b) The use of tapping on a particular part of the body to produce sounds.
c) The use of the senses to evaluate general appearance of the patient.
d) The sense of touch to feel the body by slight or deep pressure.

92. Inhalation or inspiration means:

a) Stop breathing.
b) Difficult breathing.
c) Breathing out.
d) Breathing in

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93. Normal body temperature is ranging from:
a) 35.8 – 37.4 C
b) 34.5 – 36.5 C
c) 35.0 – 38.0 C
d) 36.5 – 38.5 C
94. Pulse pressure is defined as which of the following:
a) Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure.
b) Expansion of the artery as blood moves through it.
c) Difference between arterial and venous pressure.
d) Difference between venous and systolic pressure.
95. Unoccupied bed making means:
a) Changing linen when the patient remains in the bed.
b) Changing linen when the bed empty.
c) State in which a person is relieved of distress.
d) None of the above.
96. The most accurate time for measuring pulse rate is:
a) 30 seconds.
b) 15 seconds.
c) 60 seconds.
d) 45 seconds.
97. Practices that promote health through personal cleanliness is called:
a) General appearance.
b) Self-image.
c) Insomnia.
d) Hygiene.
98. All of the following are therapeutic bathes except:
a) Shampooing bath.
b) Whirlpool bath,
c) Medicated bath.
d) Sitz bath.
99. Orthopnea is defined as:
a) Breathing facilitated by sitting or standing up.
b) Absence of breathing.
c) Rapid breathing.
d) Difficult breathing.
100. Which of the following is a form of radiograhpy:
a) Fluoroscopy.
b) Contrast medium.
c) C.T. Scan
d) All of the above
101. The examination that indicates physical inspection of the vagina and cervix with
palpation of uterus and ovaries is called:
a) A Pap test.
b) Electrocardiography.
c) Pelvic examination.
d) Paracentesis.

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102. Procedure that involves the insertion of a needle between lumber vertebra in the spine
but below the spinal cord itself is called:
a) Lumber puncture.
b) Paracentesis.
c) Pelvic Examination.
d) Electromyography.

103. Which of the following is considered as a benefit of bathing:

a) Improving self-image.
b) Eliminating body odor.
c) Stimulating circulation.
d) All of the above.

104. Ventilation means:

a) Movement of air in and out of the chest.
b) Movement of air out of the chest.
c) Movement of air in the chest.
d) None of the above.

105. All of the following are common factors that invalidated examination or test results
except:
a) Inadequate specimen volume.
b) Failure to send the specimen in a timely manner.
c) Correct diet preparation.
d) Insufficient bowel cleansing.

106. All of the following are physical assessment techniques except:

a) Inspection.
b) Percussion.
c) Puncturing.
d) Palpation

107. All of the following are post procedural nursing responsibilities except:
a) The nurse has to attend the patient for comfort and rest.
b) Care of specimens.
c) Assist the examiner.
d) Record and report of information.

108. A patient is prepared for hemodialysis. He receives heparin before therapy before
primarily to help:
a) Relieve discomfort
b) Prevent blood clotting
c) Maintain blood pressure
d) Stimulate the production of urine

109. Another name for a stone in the urinary tract is:

a) Calix
b) Calculus
c) Calcemia
d) Calcitonin

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110. Urine that remains in pt's bladder after he voids is called:
a) Reflux urine
b) Over flow urine
c) Retention urine
d) Residual urine

111. For a normal person the urine specific gravity is ranged between:
a) 1.000 and 1.010
b) 1.015 and 1.025
c) 1.025 and 1.050
d) 1.050 and 1.070

112. Which of the following is a OBJECTIVE data?

a. Dizziness
b. Chest pain
c. Anxiety
d. Blue nails

113. Among the following statements, which should be given the HIGHEST priority?
a. Client is in extreme pain
b. Client’s blood pressure is 60/40
c. Client’s temperature is 40 degree Centigrade
d. Client is cyanotic.

114. Considered as the most accessible and convenient method for temperature taking is:
a. Oral
b. Rectal
c. Tympanic
d. Axillary

115. In cleaning the thermometer after use, The direction of the cleaning to follow Medical
Asepsis is :
a. From bulb to stem
b. From stem to bulb
c. From stem to stem
d. From bulb to bulb.

116. Which is a preferable arm for BP taking?

a. An arm with the most contraptions
b. The left arm of the client with a CVA affecting the right brain
c. The right arm
d. The left arm.

117. In palpating the client’s breast, Which of the following position is necessary for the patient to assume
before the start of the procedure?
a. Supine
b. Dorsal recumbent
c. Sitting
d. Lithotomy.

118. When is the best time to collect urine specimen for routine urinalysis and culture and sensitivity?
a. Early morning
b. Later afternoon
c. Midnight
d. Before breakfast.
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119. This is a process of removing pathogens but not their spores:
a. Sterilization c. Disinfection
b. Autoclaving d. Medical asepsis

120. This is the single most important procedure that prevents cross contamination and infection
a. Cleaning
b. Disinfecting
c. Sterilizing
d. Hand washing.

121. The best example of the nursing order is:

a. Encourage fluids.
b. Change patient position every 2 hours on even hours.
c. Provide oral fluid.
d. All of the above.

122. The term holism refers to:

a. Reactions that occur when equilibrium is disturbed.
b. How an organism responds to change.
c. A relatively stable state of physiologic equilibrium.
d. The sum of physiological, emotional, social, and spiritual health, and determines how whole person feels.

123. When the nurse changes the client's dressing which nursing action is correct:
a. The nurse removes the solid dressing with sterile gloves.
b. The nurse frees the tape by pulling it away from the incision.
c. The nurse encloses the solid dressing within a latex gloves.
d. The nurse clean the wound in circles toward the incision.

124. Which of the following IS NOT true about preparing medication:

a. Prepare medication under well-lighted area.
b. Work alone without interruptions.
c. Do not use medication with a missing label.
d. Check the label of the drug two times.

125. How often should an inactive patient's positions be changed?

a. At least every 3 hours.
b. At least every 2 hours.
c. At least every 4 hours.
d. At least once a shift.

126. Hypertonic saline (fleet) enema works by:

a. Distending the rectum.
b. Irritating the rectum.
c. Lubricating and softening stool.
d. Moistening stool.

127. The physician orders dextrose 5% in water, 1,000 ml to be infused over 8 hours. The I.V. tubing delivers
15 drops/ml. The nurse should run the I.V. infusion at a rate of:
a) 15 drops/minute
b) 21 drops/minute.
c) 32 drops/minute.
d) 125 drops/minute

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128 .Hypertension is defined as persistent blood pressure levels in which the systolic and
diastolic above
a) 110/60 mmHg b) 130/80 mmHg
c) 120/70 mmHg d) 140/90 mmHg
129. Of the following, which is the earliest signs of excessive pressure:
a) Pale appearance of the skin
b) Reddened appearance of the skin
c) Ulcer formation on the skin
d) Dark or cyanotic color to the skin

130. When an order reads that a drug be administered q.i.d, how often should this drug
be given?
a) Every three hours b) Three times a day
c) Four times a day d) Every other day

131. Which action is believed to be the most useful in preventing wound infections?:
a) Using sterial dressing supplies b) Performing careful hand hygiene
c) Suggesting dietary supplements d) All of the above

132. The single most effective way to prevent nosocomial infections is to:
a) Isolate patients with infections b) Cover the mouth and nose when coughing
c) Wash all equipment detergents d) Practice continuous hand washing

133. Vitamin K. 10 mg given IM, is ordered. Vitamin K is available as 5 mg/ml. How much
would the nurse administer?
a) 2 ml b) 6 ml
c) 4 ml d) 8 ml

134. Which one of the following diets include only water, tea, coffee, clear juice:
a) Clear liquid diet
b) Soft diet
c) Full liquid diet
d) Diabetic diet

135. The intentional wound is:

a) Occur during therapy.
b) Occur accidentally.
c) The mucous membrane or skin surface is broken.
d) The tissue is traumatized without a break in the skin.

136. The abrasion is:

a) Open wound involving skin only
b) It is due to surface scrape.
c) It is painful wound.
d) All of the above.

137. All of the followings are risk factors for nosocomial infections EXCEPT:
a) Poor hand washing.
b) Using sterile techniques.
c) Contamination of closed drainage system.
d) Improper procedure technique (dressing, suctioning, catherization).

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138. Acute infection is:
a) Infection may occur slowly and takes long time.
b) is limited to the specific part of the body where microorganisms remain.
c) Infection appears suddenly or in short time.
d) When microorganisms spread and damage different part of body.

139. Indirect transmission of infection includes:

a) Vehicle born transmission.
b) Vector borne transmission.
c) A only correct.
d) A and B are correct.

140. Incubation period of infection is:

a) Person is most infectious and non-specific sign and symptom.
b) Organism growing and multiplying.
c) Recovery from infection.
d) Presence of specific sign and symptom.
141. All of the followings are Signs of systematic infection EXCEPT:
a) Fever.
b) Vomiting.
c) Fatigue and loss of energy.
d) Enlargement and tenderness of lymph node.

142. All of the followings are etiologies of self care deficit EXCEPT:
a) scar and abrasions.
b) Activity intolerance or weakness.
c) Mental impairment.
d) Visual impairment.
143. Skin turgor is:
a) Decrease sensation in extremities due to nerves system disease.
b) Collection of fluids inside the tissue.
c) Elasticity by lifting and pulling the skin on an extremity.
d) Non of the above.
144. Pressure ulcer risk factors include:
a) Immobility and inactivity.
b) Fecal and urinary incontinence.
c) Decreased mental status.
d) All of the above.
145. Scrub nurse role includes:
a) Assist the surgeons.
b) Draping the client with sterile drapes.
c) Handling sterile equipments and supplies.
d) All of the above.
146. Example of health promotion:
a) Immunization.
b) Direct care (give medication).
c) Stop cigarette smoking.
d) All of the above is correct.
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147. Immunization is an example of:
a) Health promotion.
b) Prevent illness.
c) Restoring health.
d) Care of the dying.
148. The primary methods used to examine the skin, mucus membrane and hair are:
a) Inspection and palpation
b) Percussion and inspection
c) Palpation and auscultation
d) Auscultation and percussion
149. Hemoptysis is:
a) Cough with secretions.
b) Cough without secretions.
c) Difficult breathing.
d) Blood in the sputum.
150. Which of the following best define pulse deficit?
a) The difference between the apical and radial pulse rates.
b) The difference between the systole and diastole values.
c) The difference between the brachial and radial pulse rates.
d) The difference between the temporal and femoral pulse rates.

151. When the blood pressure is 140 / 100 mmHg, the pulse pressure is:
a) 40 mmHg c) 100 mmHg
b) 142 mmHg d) 242 mmHg
152. The relationship between the pulse and respiratory rate is represented by
Which of the following ratios:
a) One respiration to 2 or 3 heartbeat.
b) One respiration to 3 or 4 heartbeat.
c) One respiration to 4 or 5 heartbeat.
d) One respiration to 5 or 6 heartbeat.
153. All the following can cause hypertension except:
a) Excessive exercise and activity
b) Pain and emotions
c) Diseases such as atherosclerosis
d) Hemorrhage
154. The type of pulse that is strong and doesn’t disappear with moderate pressure
is known as:
a) Absent pulse
b) Thready pulse
c) Weak pulse
d) Bounding pulse
155. A process of heat loss which involves the transfer of heat from one surface to
Another without contact is:
a) Radiation
b) Conduction
c) Convection
d) Evaporation
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 Some Common Poisons and the First Aid for them

Poison Source First Aid

Arsenic Rat Poisons, Weed Killers Induce vomiting and give soothing drinks.
Aspirin Aspirin Tablets Induce vomiting. drink of soda bicarbonate
(one tsp. to a tumbler of Water) to be given.
Strong coffee or tea may be given.
Carbon- Charcoal Stove, Gas Stove, Apply artificial respiration. Give Oxygen.
Monoxide Exhaust gases of cars
Sleeping Chemists Induce Vomiting. Give Magnesium Sulphate.
Tablets (2tsp. in water). Give hot coffee. Keep the
patient awake.
Mercury Calomel, Teething Powders, Give white of egg in water. Later give milk.
Mercury Then induce vomiting.
Lead Paints, Hair Dyes, Pencils Induce vomiting. Then give Magnesium
Sulphate in water.
Opium and Hospitals, Some Chemical Put a few crystals of Potassium Permanganate
Morphia Mixtures, Opium addicts. in a tumbler of water and give as a drink. Give
hot coffee. Keep the patient awake.
Petrol, Houses, Garages, Oil Industry Induce Vomiting. Give a large quantity of
Paraffin, water or tender coconut. Liquid Paraffin if
Kerosene available is preferable to water in cases of
Kerosene Oil poisoning.
Phosphorous Rat Poisons and Match Heads Induce vomiting. Give a large quantity of
water or tender coconut. Never give oils as
they will dissolve the phosphorous and
increase the effect of the poison.
Prussic Acid Photography or Electroplating Emergency. Act at once. Induce vomiting.
Industries, Oil of Bitter Begin artificial Begin artificial respiration.
Almonds, Tender Bamboo
shoots
Strychnine Some vermin killers Induce vomiting if there are no spasms. If
breathing is irregular or has stopped, give
artificial respiration.
Follidol Bug Killers and Cockroach Induce vomiting. Give water or or tender
Killers coconut. Start artificial respiration if required.

In all the cases please remember that it is essential to get the

patient to a doctor or hospital as soon as possible.
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