PHILIPPINE SOCIETY OF AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERS

REGION IV
AE BOARD REVIEW CLASS 2007

BOARD OF AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING

AGRICULTURAL ENGINEERING Pre-board Examination

Thursday, July 26, 2007
8-12 nn and 1-5 pm

RURAL ELECTRIFICATION, FARM PROCESSING, FARM STRUCTURES, AE, LAWS, ETHICS,

SPECIFICATIONS and FARM SHOP

INSTRUCTIONS: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by drawing a
line as indicated on the answer sheet corresponding to the letter of your choice. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED.

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. If the total electric load of a certain farm residence is 145,500 watts, find the total demand load to be
considered in selecting the size of conductor wire?
a. 50, 325 b. 53,250 c. 52,000 d. 50,200 e. 50,350

2. There are 42 general purpose outlets in a farm building. If 15-ampere branch circuits are desired, how
many branch circuits are needed?
a. 6 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8 e. 4

3. In an 18-Volt circuit, the current passing through four resistors are 1.6 mA, 0.8 mA, 1.5 mA, and 0.65
mA, respectively. Calculate the total equivalent resistance if the resistors are connected in parallel.
a. 3.9 b. 3.96 c. 3.8 d. 2.95 e. 2.97

4. In AC installation, a factor called power factor must be included in the computation of power. This
“safety” factor could take a value of:
a. 0.75 b. 0.9 c. 0.95 d. 0.99 e. all of the choices

5. There are three circuit components connected in series. These are 0.075 Henry inductor, 21 ohm resistor,
and 415 microFarad capacitor. Find the total impedance of the circuit to be considered if the source
frequency is 60 Hz.
a. 31.32 b. 32.31 c. 40.33 d. 41.2 e. 30.33

6. The percent voltage drop must not exceed 2% for a 230 Volt feeder line at 20 ampere rating. If No. 14
AWG wire of 2.58 resistance in ohm/1000 ft. is to be used, compute for the allowable wire length for a
2-wire feeder line.
a. 18 meters b. 12 meters c. 10 meters d. 25 meters e. 60 meters

7. Electrical equipment such as alternators, generators, and electric mot ors operate based on what law(s):
a. Kirchoff’s laws b. electromagnetism c. Ohm’s law d. Newton’s law e. all of the choices

8. For a given voltage source of 220 V at 50 Hz, a special electric motor required 1.962 kW and 9.5
amperes. Find the power factor of the motor.
a. 0.96 b. 0.84 c. 0.94 d. 0.86 e. 0.75
9. This wire has a diameter smaller than a No. 12 AWG wire.
a. No. 8 AWG b. No. 6 AWG c. No. 10 AWG d. 3.5mm2 e. none of the choices

10. A complete electrical circuit must have:

a. switch b. power source c. complete wires d. electrical load e. all of the choices

11. It is a device which serves as the first link between the service entrance entrance switch and the
generator.
a. transmission line b. distribution line c. fuse d. transformer e. none of the choices

12. These are materials where the electrons in the outer shells have low resistance to movement.
a. conductors b. insulators c. semi-conductors d. capacitors e. inductors

13. A classification of electric current where electricity flows in one direction only.
a. alternating current b. direct current c. current source d. voltage source e. all of the choices

14. Any wall space greater than this linear distance must have a wall outlet.
a. 1.8 meters b. 0.6 meter c. 2.0 meters d. 0.75 meter e. 1.9 meters

15. According to the guideline, for each area of this size one 20-ampere circuit must be provided.
a. 32 mm2 b. 24 mm2 c. 46 mm2 d. 48 mm2 e. 52 mm2

16. The rules say that this number of outlets must be allowed for a 15-ampere circuit.
a. 8 to 10 b. 8 to 12 c. 6 to 10 d. 6 to 8 e. 10 to 12

17. A factor of this value in watts per square meter must be used for all floor area excluding porches,
garages, basements or unused or unfinished spaces not adaptable for future use.
a. 24 b. 36 c. 32 d. 42 e. 46

18. For small appliance circuit in residence a load of this amount must be assumed.
a. 1,500 kW b. 1,550 watts c. 1.5 kW d. 1.6 amperes e. 1.2 amperes

19. If 4 or more fixed appliances are included, this demand factor can be used on the total of the fixed
appliances.
a. 35% b. 65% c. 45% d. 50% e. 75%

20. For electric ranges over 12 kW, this number of kW must be added to 8 kW for each one kW over 12 kW
to get the demand load.
a. 0.2 b. 0.3 c. 0.4 d. 0.5 e. 0.1

21. Service entrance must have ampacity rate equal to or greater than the calculated value. Common sizes
includes the following except:
a. 200 b. 50 c. 60 d. 150 e. 100

22. Light intensity at a given point is measured in

a. lumens b. candela c. foot-candle d. flouresence e. lux

23. When the resistance of a certain circuit is zero or almost zero, the circuit is called
a. series b. shorted c. grounded d. open e. overloaded

24. It is a basic electrical element which prevents the current from changing instantly.
a. inductor b. resistor c. capacitor d. insulator e. conductor
25. When a 2-ohm, a 4-ohm, and a 6-ohm resistors are in delta connection, the equivalent resistors in Wye
connection are:
a. 7.3, 22, 12 ohms b. 7.3, 12, 11 ohms c. 8.3, 22, 11 ohms d. 8.3, 11, 13 ohms e. 7.3, 22, 11 ohms

26. A 2-ampere current source in parallel with a 4-ohm resistor can be represented by an equivalent voltage
source consisting of a 0.25-mho conductance in series with source of:
a. 2 Volts b. 4 Volts c. 6 Volts d. 8 Volts e. 10 Volts

27. Four resistors connected in parallel have resistances equal to 3, 6, 9, and 12 ohms, respectively. The
equivalent single resistor is
a. 1. 44 ohms b. 1 and 11/25 ohms c. 36/35 ohms d. 72/50 ohms e. all of the choices

28. A 1-ohm and a 2-ohm resistors connected in series are in turn connected in parallel with the series
/combination of a 4-ohm and 6-ohm resistors. What is the total current flowing through the circuit when
the voltage source is 10 V?
a. 3.5 amperes b. 4 amperes c. 2.5 amperes d. 3.0 amperes e. 4.5 amperes

29. Since it is required that lighting controls should be located to be able to light the path ahead and turn off
lights without retracing steps, if a big room has two doors then the appropriate switches to use are:
a. three-way switches b. two-way switches c. four-way switches d. one-way switches

30. The instrument used to measure the speed of the electric motor is:
a. wattmeter b. tachometer c. velocimeter d. kW-hr meter e. Vernier meter

31. It is the measure of the resistance of materials to bending stresses

a. elasticity c. modulus of rupture
b. modulus of elasticity d. moment of inertia

32. Suppose that the wooden beam to be used is circular in shape, what will be its section modulus if its
diameter is 20 cm?
a. 785.4 cm3 b. 98.2 cm3 c. 7068.6 cm3 d. 14137.17 cm3

33-36. A farmer would like to cement the flooring of his palay warehouse with a total volume of 100 m3.
Determine the material required using 20 liters of water for every bag of cement and a 1:2:3 mixture.

33. How many bags of cement are needed?

a. 10 b. 500 c. 950 d. 10,000

34. How many cu. meters of sand are needed?

a. 1 b. 55 c. 100 d. 580

35. How many cu. meters of gravel are needed?

a. 45 b. 80 c. 300 d. 850

36. How many liters of water are needed?

a. 200 b. 5,000 c. 10,000 d. 19,000

37. This stonework is made from squared stones, with thin mortar joints.
a. ashlar b. Flagg c. mortar d. rubble
38. The total building floor area requirement for 1,000 fattening hogs is:
a. 3000 – 3500 sq ft b. 5000 – 5200 sq ft
c. 4000 – 4500 sq ft d. 6000 – 10000 sq ft

39. The allowable load and lateral resistance for wood screws in the side grain of seasoned wood is
expressed by the following formula:
a. P = KD3/2 b. P = KD2 c. P = 115060D5/6 d. P = KD5

40. Which feature of construction does not necessarily refer to the use of concrete?
a. comparatively stronger and more durable than bricks
b. especially adaptable to watertight constructions
c. higher strength in tension
d. particularly suitable for foundations, pillars, walls, floors and for constructing water tanks

41. The process of strengthening concrete through hydration is known as:

a. annealing b. tempering c. hydrolysis d. curing

42 - 44. A 10 cm x 15 cm wooden column with an unbraced length of 5 m is used to carry an axial load P.
The allowable compressive stress parallel to grain and modulus of elasticity are 8 MPa and 30 GPa,
respectively

42. The column above is classified as:

a. intermediate b. long c. short d. special

43. The modified allowable compressive stress is equal to:

a. 2.35 MPa b. 3.60 MPa c. 5.58 MPa d. 8.55 MPa

44. The maximum load P the column can support is:

a. 54.00 kN b. 87.63 kN c. 95.2 kN d. 52.9 kN

45. The allowable load that can be supported by a 10” x 12” simple wood beam having a span of 4 m if it is
designed to resist bending stress only (allowable bending stress = 16.5 MPa).
a. 30 kN-m b. 40 kN-m c. 32.4 kN-m d. 64.8 kN-m

46. A man would like to build a rectangular room having a 6 m x 4 m x 3m (l-w-h) dimension. Estimate the
no. of concrete hollow blocks needed (exclude the foundations).
a. 375 b. 450 c. 750 d. 900

47. The recommended distance of a septic tank from a well is:

a. 10-11 meters b. 12 – 14 meters c. 15 meters or more d. none of the above

48 - 49. A solid aluminum shaft 2 in. in diameter is subjected to two torques as shown in the figure.

200 lb-ft 800 lb-ft

2 ft 3ft
48. Determine the maximum shearing stress in each segment.
a. seg A = 47.7 psi; seg B = 63.7 psi b. seg A = 763 psi; seg B = 1.02 ksi
c. seg A = 573 psi; seg B = 763.9 psi d. seg A = 9.17 ksi, seg B = 12.22ksi

49. Determine the angle of rotation at the free end. Use G = 4 x 10 6 psi.
a. 0.03° b. 0.08° c. 4.73° d. 14.85°

50. Determine the beam deflection at 1.5 m from the left support of the simply supported beam loaded as
shown below:

20 KN/m
10 KN

A B C D E

1m 1m 2m 1m

a. 341.57 KN-m3 b. 463.05 KN-m3 c. 683.14 KN-m3 d. 724.08 KN-m3

51. A detailed, exact statement of particulars, especially a statement describing materials, dimensions,
and quality of work for something to be built, installed, or manufactured.
a. Contracts b. Bids c. Specifications d. Laws e. standards

52. A technical drawing that defines fully and clearly the requirements for engineered items.
a. Engineering Drawing b. Technical Specifications
c. Engineering specifications d. Published specifications

53. Well prepared specifications based on the experiences of engineers through time.
a. Engineering specifications b. Published specifications
c. Technical specifications d. Detailed specifications

54. The first Agricultural Engineering Law that was enacted by the Philippine Congress
a. RA 8559 b. RA 3927 c. RA 8293 d. RA 8435

55. This is implemented to attain and maintain the highest standards and quality in the practice of
agricultural engineering profession.
a. Agricultural Engineering Standards b. Continuing Professional Education
c. Agricultural Engineering Code of Ethics d. Intellectual Property Code

56. They are rules of conduct of any organized society, however simple or small, that are enforced by threat
of punishment if they are violated
a. Contracts b. Laws c. Specifications d. Bids e. none of the choices

57. The Agricultural and Fishery Modernization Act of 1997.

a. RA 8559 b. RA 3927 c. RA 8293 d. RA 8435 e. none of the choices
59. Absolute zero is
a. the same as zero on the Centigrade scale
b. the same as zero on the Rankine scale
c. 144 ° below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
d. 460 ° below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
e. 970 ° below zero on the Fahrenheit scale

60. Heat normally flowing from a high temperature body to a low temperature body wherein it is impossible to
convert heat without other effects is referred to as the
a. zeroth law of thermodynamics b. first law of thermodynamics
c. second law of thermodynamics d. third law of thermodynamics
e. fourth law of thermodynamics

61. At critical point, the latent enthalpy of vaporization is

a. zero b. mimimum
b. maximum d. cannot be determined
e. maybe minimum, maximum or zero

62. In sensible cooling process, the moisture content

a. does not change b. decreases
b. increases d. may increase or decrease
e. cannot be determined

63. It is the proportionality constant which when multiplied by the heat transfer area and the mean temperature
difference between the fluids that produce the rate of heat transfer.
a. conductivity of tube metal b. heat transfer coefficient
c. refrigerating capacity d. heat capacity
e. Reynolds number

64. What is another term for the heat transfer coefficient?

a. thermal conductivity b. thermal diffusivity
c. film coefficient d. molecular diffusivity
e. thermal efficiency

65. Water flows inside the tubes (8 mm ID) of an evaporator at 10 °C at a velocity of 2 m/s. Calculate Reynolds
number. The properties of water at 10 °C are μ=0.00131 Pa-s, ρ=1000 kg/m3, k = 0.573 W/m.K, cp = 4190
J/kg.K
a. 12.21 b. 6,106 c. 12,214 d. 6,106,870 e. 12,213,740

66. The wall of a furnace consists of a 9” thick layer firebrick (k= 0.8 Btu/ft.hr.°F), a ½ steel frame (k = 25
Btu/ft.hr.°F) and an outer 2” thick layer of insulation (k = 0.05 Btu/ft.hr.°F). The outer surface of the
insulation is exposed to air at 100 °F and the heat transfer coefficients is estimated to be9.1 Btu/ft.hr.°F. If
the temperature of the steel must not exceed about 500 °F, what is the maximum temperature that the inner
surface of the firebrick can be allowed to reach?
a. 500 °F b. 527 °F c. 587 °F d. 875 °F e. 937 °F

67. The temperatures on the faces of a plane wall 15 cm thick are 370 and 93 °C. The wall is constructed of a
special glass with the following properties: k = 0.78 W/m. °C, ρ=2,700 kg/m3, cp=0.84 kJ/kg.°C. What is the
heat flow through the wall at steady-state conditions?
a. 277.0 W/m2 b. 1440.4 W/m2 c. 1551.2 W/m2 d. 3240.9 W/m2 e. 747,900 W/m2
68. What is the enthalpy of the air-vapor mixture at 65% relative humidity and 34 °C when the barometric
pressure is 101.3 kPa.
a. 34.0 kJ/kg b. 86.7 kJ/kg c. 87.3 kJ/kg d. 90.4 kJ/kg e. 95.5 kJ/kg

69. The highest pressure drop in the refrigeration cycle occurs at the
a. compressor b. condenser
c. expansion valve d. evaporator
e. liquid receiver

70. The drinking water needs of an office are met by cooling tap water in a refrigerated water fountain from 22
°C to 8 °C at an average rate of 8 kg/hr. If the EER of this refrigerator is 11.2, the required power input to
this refrigerator is
a. 28 W b. 42 W c. 88 W d. 130 W e. 403 W

71. A refrigeration system using refrigerant 22 is to have a refrigerating capacity of 60 kW. The evaporating
temperature is -10°C and the condensing temperature is 42°C. Determine the power required by the
compressor. Enthalpy condenser entrance = 440 kJ/kg, condenser exit = 252.4 kJ/kg, evaporator exit =
401.6 kJ/kg, evaporator entrance = 252.4 kJ/kg.
a. 12.34 kW b. 15.44 kW c. 17.35 kW d. 19.85 kW e. 21.42 kW

72. A refrigeration system is to be used to cool 45,000 kg of water from 29°C to 18°C in 5 hours. The
refrigerant is ammonia and the operating conditions are 616 kPa evaporating pressure and 1737 kPa
liquefaction pressure. Determine the quantity of cooling water in the condenser for an increase in
temperature of 7°C. Enthalpy at condenser entrance = 1650 kJ/kg, condenser exit = 410.4 kJ/kg, evaporator
entrance = 410.4 kJ/kg, evaporator exit = 1471.6 kJ/kg.
a. 3.02 kg/s b. 4.59 kg/s c. 5.94 kg/s d. 6.32 kg/s e. 8.45 kg/s

73. The halocarbon group includes refrigerants which contain one or more of the three halogen chlorine,
fluorine, and bromine. Monochlorodifluoromethane, CHClF2, has a numerical designation
a. R-11 b. R-12 c. R-22 d. R-134a e. R-501

74. It is the ratio of mass of water vapor in moist air to mass of water vapor in saturated air at the same
temperature and pressure.
a. absolute humidity b. humidity ratio
c. moisture content d. relative humidity
e. specific humidity

75. The specific measurement of moisture content in air:

a. degree of saturation b. percent saturation
b. relative humidity c. specific humidity
d. water activity

76. At which temperature would air be able to hold the most water vapor?
a. 0 °C b. 10°C c. 25°C d. 30°C e. 40°C

77. An air stream at a specified temperature and relative humidity undergoes evaporative cooling by spraying
water into it at about the same temperature. The lowest temperature the air stream can be cooled to is
a. the dry bulb temperature at the given state
b. the wet bulb temperature at the given state
c. the dew point temperature at the given state
d. the saturation temperature corresponding to the humidity ratio at the given state
e. the triple point temperature of water
78. The most abundant constituent in fresh fruits and vegetables is water, which exists as a continuous liquid
phase within the fruit or vegetable. The process by which fresh fruits and vegetable lose some of this water
is called
a. latent heat loss b. transpiration heat loss
c. refrigeration heat loss d. respiration heat loss
e. sensible heat loss

79. What is an air chamber maintained under pressure (positive or negative) usually connected to one or more
distributing ducts in a drying or aeration system called? The term is also used to designate the air chamber
under the perforated floor in a grain bin and the pressure chamber between grain columns in some type of
batch or continuous dryer.
a. plenum b. orifice c. valve d. ventilation front e. void space

80. One bushel is equal to

a. 1.25 ft3 b. 1.25 ft3/min c. 1.25 lb d. 1.25 lb/min e. 1.25 m3

81. If 2,200 lb of palay at 23% moisture content wet basis is loaded in the dryer and dried to 14%, calculate the
amount of moisture removed, in kg.
a. 100 kg b. 105 kg c. 220 kg d. 230 kg e. 895 kg

82. A farmer-trader pays P9.00 per kilogram for a palay with moisture content of 24% wet basis and purity
80%. After passing it through the cleaner, the purity became 95%. Moreover, the former used open
sundrying to dry the palay to 14% wet basis. Determine how much should the farmer-trader sell her clean
dried palay if she wants to have a profit of P0.40 per kilogram clean dried palay. Assume a processing fee of
P0.30 per kilogram clean dried palay.
a. P10.80/kg b. P10.50/kg c. P11.50/kg d. P12.50/kg e. P12.80/kg

83. How many cubic meter of 1.045% tomato puree can be made from one cubic meter 30% tomato paste?
a. 28.2 m3 b.28.7 m3 c. 29.2 m3 d.29.7 m3 e. 30.0 m3

84. Shelled corn is to be stored at a depth of 16 ft in a 36 ft diameter bin. An airflow rate of 0.5 cfm/bu is
required to aerate the grain, requiring a 3 hp fan. The grain is to stored for 32 weeks and the aeration fan is
to be operated 24 h every 2 weeks. The cost of electricity is P9.60/kWh.
a. P515.65 b. P1,031.30 c. P8,246.85 d. P79,407.85 e. P115, 502.30

85. Bucket elevators are one of the commonly used conveyors of grain. The typical bucket elevator conveys
grain vertically using buckets attached along a belt. The grain exists the bucket elevator by centrifugal force
as the bucket begin their downward movement. Determine the power requirement of an 80 percent efficient
bucket elevator to transport shelled corn (56 lb/bu) to a height of 30 ft at a rate of 1,000 bu/h.
a. 92 hp b. 96 hp c. 100 hp d. 106 hp e. 116 hp

86. Belt conveyors are very efficient but relatively expensive means of transporting grains. Grain damage is low
so this type of conveyor is often used in seed processing and conditioning systems. Determine the capacity
of a belt conveyor given a cross-sectional area of 0.1 ft2 and a belt speed of 100 ft/min?
a. 10 bu/h b. 48 bu/h c. 100 bu/h d. 480 bu/h e. 1,000 bu/h

87. The major advantage of flat storage as compared with conventional metal grain silos is:
a. easier to load and unloading b. easier to aerate
c. easier to build d. easier to control pest
e. economical
88. Which is not a fixed cost?
a. Depreciation b. Interest on Investment
c. Labor d. Staff housing
d. Taxes and insurance

89. Tools that operate in principle similar with hand tools but power is derived from an electric motor are
called:
a. power machine tool b. hand tools
c. portable power tools d. reciprocating tools
e. all of the above

90. __________ often called mild steel bars in rectangular, angular and square shapes is useful in bench metal
work. The bars can be pounded, twisted and bent into many shapes. Mild steel is often used as replacement
for wrought iron, because it is less expensive.
a. round bars b. cast iron bars c. pig iron bars d. angular bars e. hot rolled iron bars

91. The process of joining metals by fusing their surfaces together with an alloy of tin and lead.
a. soldering b. paste-core solder c. flux-core solder d. plain bar solder e. none of the choices

92. A common flux that can be used on most metals.

a. cut acid b. rosin c. sal ammoniac d. muriatic acid e. none of the choices

93. This forging operation involves the application of heat and knowing th corresponding color of the given
metal.
a. heating metal b. bending and shaping metal
c. cutting metal d. twisting metal

94. A type of composition board made from wood chips.

a. lumber b. plywood c. veneer products d. particle board e. none of the above

95. This is made by gluing layers of wood to form panels.

a. lumber b. plywood c. veneer products d. particle board e. none of the choices

96. Small dimension construction units bonded together with cement.

a. concrete b. masonry c. veneer products d. particle board e. none of the choices

97. Fasteners used to attach wood to wood.

a. screw b. nail c. bolt d. nuts e. none of the choices

98. Threaded shaft enable this fastener to have greater holding power.
a. screw b. nail c. bolt d. nuts e. none of the choices

99. Used for boring holes less than ¼ inch in diameter.

a. bit brace b. electric drill c. power drill d. press e. none of the choices

100. This type of hand saw is used to cut across the grain of wood.
a. rip saw b. power saw c. coping saw d. cross-cut saw e. none of the choices

------------------------END OF EXAMINATION---------------
“ The thing that differentiates between a successful and the unsuccessful one is not the
lack of knowledge nor wealth but will, power and determination”
☺Melai☺