QUESTIONS (Simulation)

Trial version of ABC Amber XML Converter
http://www.processtext.com/abcxml.html
elecquestions:
challenge: 4
question: What is the ratio of electron's charge to its mass?
option1: a. 9.58 x 10^7 coul/kg
option2: b. infinite
option3: c. 0
option4: d. 1.759 x 10^11 coul/kg
challenge: 1
question: "What composes all matter whether a liquid, solid or
gas?"
option1: a. Atoms
option2: b. Electrons
option3: c. Protons
option4: d. Neutrons
challenge: 4
question: What is the smallest element of a matter?
option1: a. neutron
option2: b. electron
option3: c. proton
option4: d. atom
challenge: 3
question: The lightest kind of atom of element
option1: a. Titanium
option2: b. Helium
option3: c. Hydrogen
option4: d. Oxygen
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is not a basic part of an atom?
option1: a. Coulomb
option2: b. Proton
option3: c. Neutron
option4: d. Electron
challenge: 2
question: Electric charge of neutron is the same as
option1: a. proton
option2: b. atom
option3: c. electron
option4: d. current
challenge: 3
question: The definite discrete amount of energy required to move
an electron from a lower shell to a higher shell
option1: a. quanta
option2: b. negative energy
option3: c. quantum
option4: d. positive energy
challenge: 2
question: What will happen to an atom if an electron is either
taken out or taken into the same atom?
option1: a. becomes negative ion

option2: b. becomes an ion
option3: c. becomes positive ion
option4: d. nothing will happen
challenge: 2
question: Ion is ____________?
option1: a. nucleus without protons
option2: b. an atom with unbalanced charges
option3: c. proton
option4: d. free electron
challenge: 4
question: A process of constant loses of free electrons and then
regaining them is called _________.
option1: a. electron gaining
option2: b. induction
option3: c. polarization
option4: d. ionization
challenge: 3
question: __________ is the procedure by which an atom is given a
net charge by adding or taking away electron
option1: a. Doping
option2: b. Polarization
option3: c. Ionization
option4: d. Irradiation
challenge: 3
question: "In electricity, positive charge refers to ______"
option1: a. Atoms
option3: c. Protons
challenge: 3
question: "When an atom gains an additional ______, it results to
a negative ion"
option1: a. atom
option2: b. neutron
option4: d. proton
challenge: 1
question: Protons are about ______ heavier than electrons
option1: a. 1800 times
option2: b. twice
option3: c. les than thrice
option4: d. less
challenge: 3
question: Find the charge in coulombs of the dielectric that has
a positive charge of 14.5 x 10 to the 18th power protons
option1: a. 29 x 10 to the 16th coulombs
option2: b. 29 x 10 to the 18th coulombs
option3: c. 14.5 x 10 to the 16th coulombs
option4: d. 14.5 x 10 to the 18th coulombs

challenge: 2
question: amount of additional energy required for electronic
emmission of metals
option1: a. electronvolt
option2: b. work function
option3: c. band gap
option4: d. MeV
challenge: 4
question: It is the energy of the highest energy electron of a
metal at 0 degree Kelvin
option1: a. 1 eV
option2: b. work function
option3: c. 1 joule
option4: d. Fermi characteristic energy
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following constants is needed to calculate
the wavelength of and electron when is treated as a wave?
option1: a. Boltzmann's constant
option2: b. Planck's constant
option3: c. acceleration due to gravity
option4: d. Faraday's constant
challenge: 4
question: What is the atomic number of copper?
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 14
option3: c. 27
option4: d. 29
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following is the heaviest?
option1: a. electron
option2: b. deuterium
option3: c. protium
option4: d. tritium
challenge: 1
question: How many neutrons does Uranium 238 have?
option1: a. 146
option2: b. 148
option3: c. 147
option4: d. 149
challenge: 4
question: Which if the following is NOT an internal digital IC
fault?
option1: a. open signal lines
option2: b. shorted signal lines
option3: c. faulty power supply
option4: d. poor solder connections
challenge: 2
question: This type of fault has the same effect as an internal
short between IC pins.
option1: a. open signal lines

option2: b. shorted signal lines
option3: c. broken wire
option4: d. poor solder connection
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following does not describe a flip-flop
circuit?
option1: a. latch
option2: b. memory
option3: c. bistable multivibrator
option4: d. ROM
challenge: 1
question: What is the normal resting state of the SET and CLEAR
inputs in a NAND gate latch?
option1: a. SET = CLEAR = 1
option2: b. SET = 0, CLEAR = 1
option3: c. SET = 1, CLEAR = 0
option4: d. SET = CLEAR = 0
challenge: 1
question: Add the hex numbers 58 and 24.
option1: a. 7C
option2: b. 7D
option3: c. C7
option4: d. 2C
challenge: 2
question: Add 3AF to 23C.
option1: a. BE5
option2: b. 5EB
option3: c. A3B
option4: d. 101A
challenge: 4
question: How many inputs does a full adder have?
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 8
option4: d. 3
challenge: 2
question: How many inputs does a half adder have?
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 2
option3: c. 3
option4: d. 4
challenge: 2
question: A computer programming language in which groups of 1s
and 0s are used to represent instructions. It is also the only language
a computer actually understood.
option1: a. application software
option2: b. machine language
option3: c. high-level language
option4: d. programming language

challenge: 2
question: A digital circuit that produces an output code
depending on which of its inputs is activated.
option1: a. decoder
option2: b. encoder
option3: c. multiplexer
option4: d. demultiplexer
challenge: 2
question: A result which is obtained when a one is added to the
least significant bit position of a binary number in the 1's
complement.
option1: a. spike
option2: b. 2's complement form
option3: c. complement
option4: d. signed binary numbers
challenge: 2
question: A binary counter that counts from 0000 to 1001 before
it recycles.
option1: a. buffer
option2: b. BCD counter
option3: c. ring counter
option4: d. ripple counter
challenge: 1
question: A shift register in which the output of the last flip-
flop is connected to the input of the first flip-flop.
option1: a. ring counter
option2: b. ripple counter
option3: c. parallel counter
option4: d. BCD counter
challenge: 1
question: A term synonymous with CLEAR in computer systems.
option1: a. reset
option2: b. set
option3: c. toggle
option4: d. load
challenge: 4
question: That part of a computer instruction that defines what
type of operation the computer is to execute on a specified data.
option1: a. machine language
option2: b. mnemonic
option3: c. assembly language
option4: d. Op code
challenge: 2
question: An abbreviation that represents the op code of a
computer instruction.
option1: a. ASCII
option2: b. Mnemonic
option3: c. Octets
option4: d. Instruction
challenge: 3

question: A property whereby the output of a digital-to-analog
converter either increases or stays the same as the input is increased.
option1: a. Volatility
option2: b. Immunity
option3: c. Monotonicity
option4: d. Parity
challenge: 3
question: Class of mass memory devices that uses a laser beam to
write and read onto a specified coated disk.
option1: a. mass storage
option2: b. RAM
option3: c. optical disk memory
option4: d. non-volatile memory
challenge: 2
question: A term used to describe the logic function created when
open-collector outputs are tied together.
option1: a. Wire-OR
option2: b. Wired-AND
option3: c. totem-pole
option4: d. tristate
challenge: 2
question: A technique often used to eliminate decoding spikes.
option1: a. wired-AND
option2: b. strobing
option3: c. tristate
option4: d. wired-NAND
challenge: 1
question: A momentary, narrow, spurious and sharply defined
change in volume.
option1: a. glitch
option2: b. strobe
option3: c. toggle
option4: d. clock
challenge: 3
question: A single bit comparator is usually implemented using
option1: a. exclusive OR
option2: b. NOR gate
option3: c. exclusive NOR
option4: d. wire AND
challenge: 1
question: An equivalent boolean equation for an exclusive NOR is
option1: a. xy + x'y'
option2: b. xy + xy'
option3: c. x'y +xy'
option4: d. xy' + x'y'
challenge: 1
question: Data storage in a memory is termed as
option1: a. writing
option2: b. memorizing
option3: c. loading

option4: d. reading
challenge: 3
question: Data retrieval from a memory is termed as
option1: a. writing
option2: b. memorizing
option3: c. loading
option4: d. reading
challenge: 4
question: In BCD, the code 1111 is
option1: a. letter F
option2: b. A
option3: c. 11
option4: d. invalid
challenge: 3
question: A decoder with 4 inputs can have a maximum of how many
outputs?
option1: a. 4
option2: b. 8
option3: c. 16
option4: d. 32
challenge: 1
question: Another name for a digital multiplexer is
option1: a. data selector
option2: b. compressor
option3: c. encoder
option4: d. decoder
challenge: 3
question: An astable multivibrator has
option1: a. one stable state
option2: b. two stable states
option3: c. no stable state
challenge: 2
question: A bistate multivibrator has
challenge: 1
question: A monostable multivibrator has
challenge: 1
question: A type of multivibrator circuit which generates a
square wave of its own is the
option1: a. astable
option2: b. monostable

option3: c. bistable
option4: d. flip-flop
challenge: 1
question: A situation when a circuit's output level for a given
set of input conditions can be assigned as either a 1 or a 0.
option1: a. don't care
option2: b. totem pole
option3: c. low level
option4: d. high level
challenge: 3
question: Circuits made up of combination of logic gates, with no
feedback from outputs to inputs.
option1: a. Latch
option2: b. Sequential logic circuit
option3: c. Combinational logic circuit
option4: d. memory
challenge: 2
question: A digital circuit that takes 4-bit BCD inputs and
activates the required outputs to display the equivalent decimal digit
on a 7-segment display.
option1: a. BCD-to-decimal decoder
option2: b. BCD-to-7 segment driver
option3: c. decimal to BCD driver
option4: d. 7-segment display
challenge: 2
question: Asynchronous flip-flop line used to clear Q immediately
to 0.
option1: a. DC set
option2: b. DC clear
option3: c. DC reset
option4: d. DC toggle
challenge: 2
question: A counter that counts from a maximum count downward to
zero.
option1: a. synchronous counter
option2: b. down counter
option3: c. up counter
option4: d. up/down counter
challenge: 2
question: Small circles on the input or output lines of logic
circuit symbols which represent inversion of a particular signal.
option1: a. bootstrap
option2: b. bubble
option3: c. strobe
option4: d. code
challenge: 3
question: A multiplexer is described by its size through _____,
where n = number of bits.
option1: a. n x 2^n
option2: b. 1 x 2^n

option3: c. 2^n x 1
option4: d. 2^n x m
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of state
tables in sequential logic circuit design?
option1: a. they are the systematic approach to a design problem
option2: b. the number of variables is limited
option3: c. they minimize the gating required
option4: d. they result in synchronous circuit
challenge: 2
question: A situation in a system where it can never leave or
progress to another state.
option1: a. rest
option2: b. hang-up state
option3: c. no change in state
option4: d. toggle
challenge: 4
question: A diagram consisting of a set of circles, where each
circle contains a number of state within it.
option1: a. state table
option2: b. transition diagram
option3: c. Karnaugh map
option4: d. bubble diagram
challenge: 3
question: A counter that counts sequentially but does not step
through all possible states, it returns to zero after a particular
state.
option1: a. ripple counter
option2: b. decade counter
option3: c. truncated counter
option4: d. binary counter
challenge: 1
question: A circuit that produces an output pulse for a fixed
period of time in response to a trigger and then returns to its
quiescent state.
option1: a. monostable circuit
option2: b. astable circuit
option3: c. bistable circuit
option4: d. discriminator
challenge: 2
question: A small change made in resistance or capacitance to
time a circuit precisely.
option1: a. trigger
option2: b. tweaking
option3: c. bounce
option4: d. squeaking
challenge: 1
question: A square wave oscillator or clock generator.
option1: a. astable circuit
option2: b. monostable circuit

option3: c. bistable circuit
option4: d. debouncing circuit
challenge: 4
question: A circuit designed to produce a clean output in
response to a switch closure.
option1: a. monostable circuit
option2: b. filter circuit
option3: c. attenuator
option4: d. debouncing circuit
challenge: 1
question: Duty cycle for repetitive waveform is defined as
option1: a. the ratio of the ON time to the total time
option2: b. the sum of the ON time and the OFF time
option3: c. the ratio of the OFF time to the ON time
option4: d. the ratio of the total time to the ON time
challenge: 1
question: The state of a flip-flop when Q = 0 and Q' = 1.
option1: a. reset
option2: b. set
option3: c. trigger state
challenge: 3
question: The state of a flip-flop when Q = 1 and Q' = 0.
option1: a. reset
option2: b. latch
option3: c. set
option4: d. glitch
challenge: 3
question: A state causing the flip-flop to change or reverse its
state.
option1: a. reset
option2: b. set
option3: c. toggle
option4: d. non-toggle
challenge: 3
question: How many flip-flops should be used to realize 32-count
capacity?
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 5
option4: d. 6
challenge: 4
question: The time difference which results when a clock may not
arrive at all flip-flops precisely at the same time.
option1: a. glitch
option2: b. spike
option3: c. hold
option4: d. clock skew
challenge: 4

question: A _____ condition that exists if a circuit output
depends on which of two nearly simultaneous inputs arrive at a point in
the circuit first.
option1: a. glitch
option2: b. skew
option3: c. clear
option4: d. race
challenge: 2
question: A one-input JK flip-flop is the _____ flip-flop.
option1: a. D
option2: b. T
option3: c. S-R
option4: d. C
challenge: 1
question: A JK flip-flop can be made to function like a T flip-
flop by simply
option1: a. connecting the J and K inputs together as one-input
option2: b. connecting J = 0 and K = 0
option3: c. resetting all inputs of the JK
option4: d. connecting earth ground the JK inputs
challenge: 2
question: The one-input RS flip-flop is the _____ flip-flop.
option1: a. T
option2: b. D
option3: c. R
option4: d. Latch
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following does not describe a flip-flop?
option1: a. it is a one-bit memory device
option2: b. its interval circuitry are usually symmetrical
option3: c. it is a bistable device
option4: d. it is equivalent to a one-short circuit
challenge: 3
question: In clock circuits, SWG means
option1: a. square wave glitches
option2: b. standard wire gauge
option3: c. square wave generators
option4: d. standard wave ground
challenge: 1
question: An input signal that can activate or disable a gate.
option1: a. strobe
option2: b. glitch
option3: c. tristate
option4: d. wired-AND
challenge: 2
question: A ring counter where the output is inverted and tied
back to the input.
option1: a. shift counter
option2: b. decade counter
option3: c. BCD counter

option4: d. Johnson counter
challenge: 4
question: A circuit that goes through 2^(n-1) states in a random
fashion.
option1: a. random generator
option2: b. pseudo-random sequence generator
option3: c. counting circuit
option4: d. register
challenge: 1
question: An input that disables multiplexers or demultiplexers
when it is HIGH.
option1: a. strobe
option2: b. keyboard
option3: c. decoder
option4: d. binary input
challenge: 2
question: Application of excessive current to a fuse in order to
open it.
option1: a. shorting
option2: b. blowing
option3: c. breaking
option4: d. disconnecting
challenge: 3
question: An outstanding advantage of LCDs from LEDs.
option1: a. LCDs are organized as a 7-segment display for
numerical read out
option2: b. LCDs can be multiplexed
option3: c. LCDs essentially act as a capacitor and consume
almost no power
option4: d. LCDs generates light
challenge: 2
question: A computer language that enables Programmable Array
Logic (PAL) users to generate a file that can be used to blow a PAL.
option1: a. JEDEC
option2: b. PALASM
option3: c. Turbo C++
option4: d. Visual C
challenge: 1
question: A type of computer bus which is bidirectional.
option1: a. data bus
option2: b. address
option3: c. control bus
option4: d. calling bus
challenge: 3
question: A table used by a PLD language, such as PALASM, to
calculate the expected outputs for a set of inputs.
option1: a. excitation table
option2: b. state table
option3: c. simulation table
option4: d. truth table

challenge: 3
question: A programmable block of logic within a gate array, that
contains a flip-flop for storage and also allows the user to specify
logic functions on its inputs.
option1: a. programmed block
option2: b. PLD
option3: c. configurable logic block
option4: d. block diagram
challenge: 2
question: This type of bus carries the memory address from the
computer to the memory.
option2: b. address bus
option4: d. parallel bus
challenge: 3
question: This type of bus carries lines that control the
operation of the memory from the microprocessor to the memory.
option2: b. address bus
option4: d. bus lines
challenge: 2
question: A register which holds the address of the word
currently being accessed.
option1: a. hold register
option2: b. memory address register
option3: c. memory data register
option4: d. access register
challenge: 2
question: A register which holds the data being written into or
read out of the addressed memory location.
option1: a. hold register
option2: b. memory data register
option3: c. memory address register
option4: d. glitch register
challenge: 3
question: A preproduction model of a system built for testing and
debugging.
option1: a. wire list
option2: b. maybe (colloquial)
option3: c. prototype
option4: d. sample
challenge: 2
question: Correcting the faults in a circuit or system.
option1: a. buzz-out
option2: b. debugging
option3: c. trap
option4: d. fault corrector

challenge: 2
question: There are _____ flip-flops for a 3-bit binary counter.
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 3
option3: c. 4
option4: d. 5
challenge: 2
question: A sequential logic circuit where the storage elements
commonly used are time-delay devices (usually gates).
option1: a. Synchronous SLC
option2: b. Asynchronous SLC
option3: c. Counter
option4: d. Register
challenge: 4
question: A block added to the combinational logic circuit to
form a sequential logic circuit is the
option1: a. ROM
option2: b. counter
option3: c. clock
option4: d. memory
challenge: 1
question: The state of the flip-flop before the occurrence of
clock pulse is called as its
option1: a. present state
option2: b. next state
option3: c. current input
option4: d. present output
challenge: 3
question: The state of the flip-flop after the occurrence of a
clock pulse is called as its
option1: a. current state
option2: b. present state
option3: c. next state
option4: d. current input
challenge: 1
question: It is said to be a universal gate because any digital
system can be implemented with it.
option1: a. NAND
option2: b. AND
option3: c. OR
option4: d. exclusive OR
challenge: 2
question: A flip-flop which follows its input in the next state.
option1: a. T
option2: b. D
option3: c. JK
option4: d. RS
challenge: 3
question: An n-bit binary parallel adder requires _____ in its
least design.

option1: a. n half adders
option2: b. n half subtractor
option3: c. n full adders
option4: d. n half subtractors and n full adder
challenge: 2
question: A magnitude comparator has 2^(2n) entries in the truth
table where n =
option1: a. number of inputs
option2: b. number of comparator bits
option3: c. number of outputs
option4: d. number of inputs and outputs
challenge: 2
question: An included input terminal in a magnitude comparator IC
which is significant when both inputs compared are equal is called as
its
option1: a. setting
option2: b. cascading inputs
option3: c. input terminals
option4: d. address
challenge: 2
question: In designing a 16 x 1 multiplexer, how many selection
lines are needed?
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 15
option4: d. 32
challenge: 3
question: If F = xy + x'y' boolean expression is to be
implemented using decoders and OR gates, the connection involves
option1: a. 2 to 4 line decoder with 3 OR gates
option2: b. 3 to 8 line decoder with 2 OR gates
option3: c. 2 to 4 line decoder with 1 OR gates
option4: d. 3 to 8 line decoder with 4 OR gates
challenge: 4
question: How many AND gates and 4-bit binary adders are needed
to implement a 2-bit to 3-bit binary multiplier?
option1: a. 15 AND gates and three 4-bit binary adders
option2: b. 2 AND gates and one 4-bit binary adder
option3: c. 9 AND gates only
option4: d. 6 AND gates and one 4-bit binary adder
challenge: 3
question: From a 3-bit binary counter design using T flip-flops,
determine the number of T flip-flops needed in its circuit
implementation.
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 2
option3: c. 3
option4: d. 4
challenge: 2
question: A system coordinating I/O between the transmitting and

receiving devices.
option1: a. charging
option2: b. handshaking
option3: c. interfacing
option4: d. polling
challenge: 4
question: An area of memory that holds the ASCII characters that
are being displayed on a monitor.
option1: a. space
option2: b. start bit
option3: c. terminal
option4: d. screen image
challenge: 1
question: An IC that transforms parallel data to serial in the
asynchronous format and vice versa.
option1: a. UART
option2: b. USART
option3: c. MODEM
option4: d. RS232C
challenge: 3
question: An instruction that alters the normal course of a
program by causing it to jump to another instruction.
option1: a. rotate instruction
option2: b. skip instruction
option3: c. jump
option4: d. ACC
challenge: 1
question: An instruction that causes data to be brought from
memory into an accumulator register.
option1: a. LOAD
option2: b. LOOP
option3: c. FETCH
option4: d. JUMP
challenge: 3
question: The portion of an instruction cycle where the
instruction is sent from memory to the instruction register.
option1: a. LOAD
option2: b. ACCUMULATE
option3: c. FETCH
option4: d. EXECUTE
challenge: 2
question: An instruction that causes data in the accumulator to
be moved to the memory or a peripheral register.
option1: a. FETCH
option2: b. STORE
option3: c. LOOP
option4: d. LOAD
challenge: 3
question: This occurs when the result of an arithmetic operation
is a more negative number than the output register can accommodate.

option1: a. error
option2: b. overflow
option3: c. underflow
option4: d. don't care
challenge: 1
question: This occurs when the result of an arithmetic operation
is a larger number than the output register can accommodate.
option1: a. overflow
option2: b. inflow
option3: c. underflow
option4: d. look-ahead carry
challenge: 1
question: A representation of numbers when negative numbers are
obtained by complementing their positive equivalent and adding 1.
option1: a. 2's complement
option2: b. inversion
option3: c. signed numbers
option4: d. indeterminate
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following is the language used in making
an internet web page?
option1: a. highertext mark-up language
option2: b. hypertext mark-up language
option3: c. hightech mark-up language
option4: d. hypertext make-up language
challenge: 4
question: A program which can be executed on several different
computers to compare their speed and performance.
option1: a. compiler
option2: b. assembler
option3: c. diagnostic program
option4: d. benchmark
challenge: 2
question: A single word memory location used to temporarily hold
data during program execution.
option1: a. accumulator
option2: b. register
option3: c. buffer
option4: d. stack
challenge: 3
question: Refer to the debugging method in which the program is
executed one instruction at a time and the register contents can be
examined after each step?
option1: a. text editing
option2: b. syntax analyzing
option3: c. trace
option4: d. semantic tracing
challenge: 4
question: In a computer system, it is a unit of hardware where
the control keys are located.

option1: a. CPU
option2: b. keyboard
option3: c. I/O section
option4: d. console
challenge: 1
question: If a certain circuit acts as an AND gate when used with
positive logic (H=1, L=0), what function will it perform when used with
negative logic (H=0, L=1).
option1: a. OR
option2: b. AND
option3: c. NAND
option4: d. NOR
challenge: 4
question: TTL, DTL, and ECL, which are frequently used to refer
to certain "families" of digital integrated circuits, are actually
names of
option1: a. alternatives to positive and negative logic
option2: b. varieties of positive and negative logic
option3: c. companies that originated the families
option4: d. general varieties of electronic circuits used as
logic gates, from which, in essence, the building blocks in each series
are constructed
challenge: 3
question: In the data sheet of a digital building block,
operating speed is typically expressed in terms of
option1: a. capacitance C
option2: b. transition frequency
option3: c. propagation delay times for both possible output
transitions
option4: d. miles per hour or centimeters per second
challenge: 1
question: The fan out capability of a digital building block
depends on the current capability of its output and the current
requirement of each input driven by that output, and maybe defined as
option1: a. the number of inputs that one output can transmit to
option2: b. the number of other inputs that can transmit to one
input
option3: c. the maximum power dissipation that the unit can stand
option4: d. the amount of cooling required
challenge: 3
question: Noise margin, which is one indication of how likely is
it that information communicated between digital building blocks will
be incorrect due to noise, depends on
option1: a. output current capabilities and input current
requirements
option2: b. output power and required input power for the two
logic states
option3: c. the "safety margin" between the output voltage
produced by the transmitting block and input voltage required by the
receiving block for each of the two logic state
option4: d. the "safety margin" between the noise level and the
noise figure

challenge: 3
question: Typical propagation delay range for modern digital
integrated circuits is
option1: a. 1 to 100 milliseconds
option2: b. 1 to 100 microseconds
option3: c. 1 to 100 nanoseconds
option4: d. 1 to 100 picoseconds
challenge: 3
question: The most commonly used IC package for digital
integrated circuits is the
option1: a. CMOS pack
option2: b. DIP ceramic
option3: c. DIP plastic
option4: d. Flat pack
challenge: 2
question: A multiwire connection between digital circuits is
usually called a
option1: a. ribbon
option2: b. bus
option3: c. wire wrap
option4: d. multiplexed line
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following is a form of De Morgan's
theorem?
option1: a. A + B = (AB)'
option2: b. AB = (A + B)'
option3: c. (A + B)' = A' . B'
option4: d. A . B = A' . B'
challenge: 3
question: "Limbo" state of a flip-flop occurs when
option1: a. both outputs are low
option2: b. both outputs are high
option3: c. both outputs are the same
option4: d. the outputs are inverse
challenge: 2
question: A logic circuit that is triggered by a clock signal is
option1: a. sequential
option2: b. synchronous
option3: c. asynchronous
option4: d. pulsed
challenge: 3
question: Another name for a decade counter
option1: a. frequency divider
option2: b. ripple shift counter
option3: c. BCD counter
option4: d. binary counter
challenge: 1
question: Which of the items below can perform parallel-to-serial
data conversion?

option1: a. shift register
option2: b. binary counter
option3: c. multiplexer
option4: d. decoder
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following does not form DAC's?
option1: a. counter
option2: b. resistor network
option3: c. current switches
option4: d. reference
challenge: 1
question: What digits are used in the binary number system?
option1: a. 0 and 1
option2: b. high and low
option3: c. true and false
option4: d. all of the choices
challenge: 1
question: How does a CMOS integrated circuit respond to a
floating input?
option1: a. Unpredictable, may overheat and be destroyed
option2: b. open
option3: c. shorted
option4: d. acts just like a logic 1
challenge: 1
question: What will be the state of Q and Q' after a flip-flop
has been reset?
option1: a. Q = 0, Q' = 1
option2: b. Q = 1, Q' = 0
option3: c. Q = 0, Q' = 0
option4: d. Q = 1, Q' = 1
challenge: 2
question: All arithmetic operations take place in the _____ of a
computer.
option1: a. CPU
option2: b. ALU
option3: c. microprocessor
option4: d. ROM
challenge: 2
question: How many outputs does a full adder have?
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 2
option3: c. 4
option4: d. 8
challenge: 1
question: What are the three basic parts of a BCD adder circuit?
option1: a. two 4-bit adders and connection logic
option2: b. two connection logic and one 4-bit adder
option3: c. two full adders and one AND gate
option4: d. one connection logic and 4 full adders

challenge: 4
question: What is the principal register of an arithmetic logic
unit?
option1: a. controller
option2: b. buffer
option3: c. actuator
option4: d. accumulator
challenge: 3
question: An IC that contains a large number of interconnected
logic functions wherein the user can program the IC for a specific
function by selectively breaking the appropriate interconnections.
option1: a. RAM
option2: b. ROM
option3: c. PLD
option4: d. PLC
challenge: 1
question: Class of programmable logic devices wherein its AND
array is programmable while its OR array is hard-wired.
option1: a. PAL
option2: b. PLA
option3: c. PLD
option4: d. PROM
challenge: 1
question: Class of programmable logic devices wherein both its
AND and its OR arrays are programmable.
option1: a. Field Programmable Logic Array
option2: b. Programmable Logic Controller
option3: c. Programmable Logic Circuit
option4: d. Programmable Array Logic
challenge: 2
question: A digital circuit that oscillates between two unstable
output states.
option1: a. monostable multivibrator
option2: b. astable multivibrator
option3: c. bistable multivibrator
challenge: 3
question: An electrical connection common to all segments of an
LCD.
option1: a. dual slope
option2: b. bootstrap
option3: c. backplane
option4: d. cascade
challenge: 1
question: How many bits are in a byte?
option1: a. 8
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 2
option4: d. 16
challenge: 3

question: What binary number follows 1110?
option1: a. 1010
option2: b. 0111
option3: c. 1111
option4: d. 1000
challenge: 4
question: What capital letter corresponds to 1000101 in the ASCII
code?
option1: a. A
option2: b. C
option3: c. D
option4: d. E
challenge: 2
question: What is the binary ASCII code for a question mark?
option1: a. 0111110
option2: b. 0111111
option3: c. 0111000
option4: d. 0100011
challenge: 1
question: In the 7400 family of TTC devices, Quad 2-input NAND
gates has a device number equal to
option1: a. 7400
option2: b. 7402
option3: c. 7432
option4: d. 7486
challenge: 2
question: Quad 2-input XOR gates in the 7400 family of TTL
devices has a device number equivalent to
option1: a. 7402
option2: b. 7486
option3: c. 7408
option4: d. 7404
challenge: 3
question: A JK flip-flop will operate in the toggle mode when
option1: a. J = 0, K = 0
option2: b. J = 1, K = 0
option3: c. J = 1, K = 1
option4: d. J = 0, K = 1
challenge: 4
question: A digital circuit test equipment which is a
troubleshooting tool that generates a short-duration pulse when
activated manually, usually by pressing a button is the _____.
option1: a. logic probe
option2: b. VOM
option3: c. logic clip
option4: d. logic pulser
challenge: 1
question: An RS flip-flop will not change in state when
option1: a. R = 0, S = 0
option2: b. R = 1, S = 0

option3: c. R = 0, S = 1
option4: d. R = 1, S = 1
challenge: 1
question: A T flip-flop can be derived by
option1: a. connecting two inputs of the JK flip-flop together
option2: b. by inverting the inputs of a JK flip-flop
option3: c. connecting the RS flip-flop's input to ground
option4: d. securing an integrated circuit with three inputs
challenge: 2
question: The number of digits used by a number system.
option1: a. base
option2: b. radix
option3: c. 2^n
option4: d. n
challenge: 1
question: What is the condition of the flip-flop when Q = 0 and
Q' = 1?
option1: a. reset
option2: b. set
option3: c. undetermined
option4: d. preset
challenge: 1
question: How many logic gates are in an SSI chip?
option1: a. less than 12 gates
option2: b. between 12 to 99 gates
option3: c. anywhere from 100 to 9999 gates
option4: d. 10,000 or more
challenge: 2
question: How many logic gates are in an MSI chip?
challenge: 4
question: How many logic gates are in an VLSI chip?
challenge: 4
question: Which of the items below is not part of the hardware
organization in a computer?
option1: a. architecture
option2: b. implementation
option3: c. hardware realization
option4: d. assembler
challenge: 1
question: It consists of the instructions and data that the
computer hardware manipulates to perform useful work.

option1: a. software
option2: b. program
option3: c. file
option4: d. data
challenge: 4
question: The data manipulated by a program is called _____
depending on its nature and extent.
option1: a. data base
option2: b. file
option3: c. input
challenge: 2
question: The most primitive instructions that can be given to a
computer are those interpreted directly by the hardware in _____ form.
option1: a. assembly language
option3: c. high-level language
option4: d. simulator
challenge: 3
question: It represents machine instructions by mnemonic names
and allows memory addresses and other constants to be represented by
symbols rather than bit strings.
option1: a. assembler
option3: c. assembly language
option4: d. interpreter
challenge: 3
question: It is needed to translate a high-level program into a
sequence of machine instructions that performs the desired task.
option2: b. interpreter
option3: c. compiler
option4: d. debugger
challenge: 2
question: Text editors and formatters belong to the area of
computing known as _____.
option1: a. software
option2: b. word processing
option3: c. compilers
option4: d. assemblers
challenge: 1
question: The processor or central processing unit is
option1: a. the heart of the computer
option2: b. employed RISC
option3: c. communicates with the user
option4: d. supports floating point numbers
challenge: 2
question: Processors with more than two registers for arithmetic
and logical operations are classified as
option1: a. specific register processors

option2: b. general register processors
option3: c. accumulator based
option4: d. serial register processor
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is a non-volatile device?
option1: a. ROM
option2: b. RAM
option3: c. PLA
option4: d. PLD
challenge: 1
question: With a _____ a processor can store data at any address
and read back the stored information at any time
option1: a. RAM
option2: b. ROM
option3: c. PLA
option4: d. PROM
challenge: 1
question: The system program used to translate directly an
assembly language to machine language is called
option2: b. compiler
option3: c. text editor
option4: d. debugger
challenge: 1
question: A command to an ADC to start conversion.
option1: a. SOC
option2: b. EOC
option3: c. PAC
option4: d. EAR
challenge: 2
question: Speeds of modems are generally classified by the number
of _____ they can transmit.
option1: a. cycles per second
option2: b. bits per second
option3: c. frequency per second
challenge: 3
question: High speed modems transmit between
option1: a. 300 and 2400 bps
option2: b. 2400 and 9600 bps
option3: c. between 2400 and 9600 bps
option4: d. between 300 an d2400 bps
challenge: 3
question: Low speed modems method of modulation is usually
option1: a. phase-shift modulation
option2: b. dibit modulation
option3: c. frequency shift keying
option4: d. amplitude modulation
challenge: 2

question: Low speed modems generally handle data rates between
option1: a. 3000 and 9000 bps
option2: b. 300 and 2400 bps
option3: c. 2400 and 9600 bps
option4: d. 100 and 2400 bps
challenge: 3
question: The most important memory element which is made of an
assembly of logic gates is called
option1: a. latch
option2: b. bistable multivibrator
option3: c. flip-flop
challenge: 1
question: What is the normal resting state of the SET and CLEAR
inputs in a flip-flop?
option1: a. low, high
option2: b. high, low
option3: c. high, high
option4: d. low, low
challenge: 2
question: What will be the states of Q and Q' after a flip-flop
has been cleared?
option1: a. Q = 1, Q' = 0
option2: b. Q = 0, Q' = 1
option3: c. Q = 0, Q' = 0
option4: d. Q = 1, Q' = 1
challenge: 2
question: When power is first applied to any flip-flop circuit,
it is impossible to predict the initial state of Q and Q'. What could
be done to ensure that NAND latch always started off in the Q = 1
state?
option1: a. apply momentary HIGH to PRESRT input
option2: b. apply momentary LOW to SET input
option3: c. apply momentary LOW to CLEAR input
option4: d. apply momentary HIGH to CLEAR input
challenge: 1
question: When a flip-flop is set, what are the states of Q and
Q'?
option1: a. Q = 1, Q' = 0
option2: b. Q = 0, Q' = 1
option3: c. Q = 0, Q' = 0
option4: d. Q = 1, Q' = 1
challenge: 1
question: Two types of inputs that clocked flip-flop has.
option1: a. synchronous control inputs and clock input
option2: b. asynchronous control inputs and clock input
option3: c. pulsed control inputs and clock input
challenge: 1
question: The flip-flop can change only when the appropriate

clock transition occurs. It is a condition called
option1: a. edge triggered
option2: b. latching
option3: c. clocking
option4: d. pulsing
challenge: 3
question: It is the required interval immediately following the
active edge of the clock signal during which the control inputs must be
held stable.
option1: a. hold time
option2: b. pulsing time
option3: c. set up time
option4: d. all the time
challenge: 2
question: It is the required interval immediately following the
active edge held of clocks during which the control inputs must be
held.
option1: a. set-up time
option2: b. hold time
option3: c. pulsing time
option4: d. propagation time
challenge: 2
question: What JK input condition will always set Q upon the
occurrence of the active clock transition?
option1: a. J = 0, K = 0
option2: b. J = 1, K = 0
option3: c. J = 0, K = 1
option4: d. J = 1, K = 1
challenge: 1
question: How does the operation of an asynchronous input differ
from that of a synchronous input?
option1: a. it works independently of the clock input
option2: b. it is very dependent on the clock transition
option3: c. it is mutually the same in function
option4: d. not determined by ordinary operation
challenge: 3
question: The triangle inside the rectangle which is part of the
IEEE/ANSI symbology at clock input
option1: a. indicates the function of those inputs that are
common to more than one circuit on the chip
option2: b. indicates triggering on a NGT
option3: c. indicates edge-triggered operation
challenge: 4
question: Which type of flip-flop is best suited for synchronous
transfer because it required the fewest interconnections from one flip-
flop to the other?
option1: a. JK
option2: b. T
option3: c. RS
option4: d. D

challenge: 2
question: The fastest method for transferring data from one
register to another is the
option1: a. serial transfer
option2: b. parallel transfer
option3: c. hybrid transfer
option4: d. FIFO
challenge: 3
question: What is the major advantage of serial transfer over
parallel transfer?
option1: a. large interconnections between gates
option2: b. one at a time transmission
option3: c. fewer interconnections between registers
option4: d. speed
challenge: 2
question: A 20KHz signal is applied to a JK flip-flop when J = 1,
K = 1. What is the frequency of the flip-flop waveform?
option1: a. 20 kHz
option2: b. 10 kHz
option3: c. 40 kHz
option4: d. 5 kHz
challenge: 4
question: How many flip-flops are required for counter that will
count 0 to 255?
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 16
option4: d. 8
challenge: 3
question: It converts a non-electrical physical quantity to an
electrical quantity.
option1: a. converter
option2: b. inverter
option3: c. transducer
option4: d. compiler
challenge: 4
question: What does a computer do with the data it receives from
an ADC?
option1: a. stores the data
option2: b. performs calculation
option3: c. processes the data
challenge: 2
question: An actuator in the DAC performs
option1: a. conversion of digital data to its analog
representation
option2: b. controls a physical variable according to an
electrical input signal
option3: c. converts a non-electrical physical quantity to an
electrical quantity

option4: d. performs calculation
challenge: 1
question: The maximum deviation of DAC output from its ideal
value, expressed as percentage of full scale.
option1: a. full scale error
option2: b. deviation ratio
option3: c. percentage error
option4: d. none of the choices
challenge: 1
question: The time it takes for the DAC output to settle to
within the 1/2 step size of its full scale value when the digital input
changes from zero to full scale.
option1: a. setting time
option2: b. set-up time
option3: c. hold time
option4: d. full scale time
challenge: 1
question: Why are voltage DAC's generally slower than current
DAC's?
option1: a. because of the response time of the op-amp current-
to-voltage converter
option2: b. because of its internal construction
option3: c. because voltage DAC's have many heat losses
challenge: 1
question: What is the function of the comparator in the ADC?
option1: a. tells control logic when the DAC output exceeds the
analog input
option2: b. compares two parameters only
option3: c. addition and multiplication
option4: d. arithmetic operation
challenge: 1
question: Meaning of checksum in ROM's
option1: a. it is a code placed in the last one or two ROM
locations that represents the sum of the expected ROM data from all
other locations
option2: b. used as a means to test for leakage in one or more
ROM locations
option3: c. prevents decoding glitches
option4: d. regulates ROM
challenge: 2
question: What is meant by interfacing in a computer system?
option1: a. synchronization of data information in a computer
option2: b. synchronization of digital information transmission
between the computer and external I/O devices
option3: c. connection of computers
option4: d. finding the fault in a network
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following below is not one of the three
major sections of an MPU?

option1: a. timing and control
option2: b. ALU
option3: c. register
option4: d. inversion
challenge: 2
question: What is an operand address?
option1: a. the binary code that represents the operation to be
performed by the CPU
option2: b. the address of the data to be operated as the CPU
executes the instruction called for by the opcode
option3: c. a short abbreviation for the operation
challenge: 2
question: What device puts data on the data bus during a write
operation?
option1: a. ALU
option2: b. CPU
option3: c. keyboard
option4: d. accumulator
challenge: 1
question: Instruction mnemonic means
option1: a. a short abbreviation for the operation
option2: b. a binary code that represents the operation to be
performed by the CPU
option3: c. technical term sometimes added to an IC's description
option4: d. representation of a quantity that varies in discrete
steps
challenge: 3
question: Arrival of a clock signal at the clock inputs of
different flip-flops at different times as a result of propagation
delays.
option1: a. clock transition
option2: b. buffer address
option3: c. clock skew
challenge: 2
question: A logic circuit that depending on the status of its
selected inputs will channel its data input to one of several data
outputs.
option1: a. MUX
option2: b. DMUX
option3: c. RAM
option4: d. ROM
challenge: 4
question: Add 74(8) with 1.1(2)
option1: a. 700(10)
option2: b. 70.5(8)
option3: c. 10101.01(2)
option4: d. 75.4(8)
challenge: 3

question: An analog memory circuit used to eliminate aperture
error is called a
option1: a. MUX
option2: b. DMUX
option3: c. Track/store amplifier
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following is not a dynamic test
instrument?
option1: a. logic probe
option2: b. oscilloscope
option3: c. logic analyzer
option4: d. logic monitor
challenge: 2
question: A translated program in machine language is called
option1: a. a source program
option2: b. an object program
option3: c. machine program
option4: d. user program
challenge: 2
question: Performing binary subtraction to 6 1/4 minus 4 1/2
results to
option1: a. 1001.01
option2: b. 1.11
option3: c. 10.11
option4: d. 1.00
challenge: 2
question: A circuit made up of combinations of logic gates, with
no feedback from outputs to input.
option1: a. sequential logic circuit
option2: b. combinational logic circuit
option3: c. clocked circuits
option4: d. asynchronous logic circuit
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following involves digital quantities?
option1: a. Ten position switch
option2: b. Current meter
option3: c. Temperature
option4: d. Radio volume control
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following choices is NOT a characteristic
of analog quantity
option1: a. varied amplitude
option2: b. one quantity is represented by another which is
proportional to the first
option3: c. is considered discrete
option4: d. they can vary over a continuous range of values
challenge: 2
question: The decimal system is composed of _____ numerals or
symbols.

option1: a. 2
option2: b. 10
option3: c. 8
option4: d. 16
challenge: 4
question: Change in state is
option1: a. same state
option2: b. reset
option3: c. set
option4: d. toggle
challenge: 1
question: What is the decimal equivalent of (1101011)2 ?
option1: a. 107
option2: b. 108
option3: c. 96
option4: d. 100
challenge: 4
question: What is the next binary number following (10111)2 in
the counting sequence?
option1: a. 11100
option2: b. 110011
option3: c. 10110
option4: d. 11000
challenge: 3
question: What is the largest decimal value that can be
represented using 12 bits?
option1: a. 144
option2: b. 2048
option3: c. 4095
option4: d. 4096
challenge: 1
question: What is the largest number that can be represented
using 8 bits?
option1: a. 11111111
option2: b. 10111011
option3: c. 10111111
option4: d. 11011111
challenge: 2
question: A digital circuit is also referred to as a/an _____
circuit.
option1: a. arithmetic
option2: b. logic
option3: c. electrical
option4: d. sequential
challenge: 2
question: CMOS means
option1: a. Complementary Main-Oxide Semiconductor
option2: b. Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor
option3: c. Complements Main-Oxidation Semiconductor
option4: d. Correlation in Metal Oxidized Semiconductor

challenge: 4
question: What is the smallest type of semiconductor in terms of
their physical size?
option1: a. minicomputer
option2: b. mainframe
option3: c. maxicomputer
option4: d. microcomputer
challenge: 3
question: Equivalent of decimal value of 178 in straight binary
code is _____ and in BCD is _____.
option1: a. 11000, 11111111
option2: b. 10111101, 100000
option3: c. 10110010, 101111000
option4: d. 111111, 1100000
challenge: 3
question: If each digit of a decimal number is represented by its
binary equivalent, the result is a code called
option1: a. Morse code
option2: b. binary system
option3: c. binary-coded decimal
option4: d. straight binary coding
challenge: 4
question: Convert (614)8 to decimal.
option1: a. 400
option2: b. 384
option3: c. 392
option4: d. 396
challenge: 2
question: BCD code has always _____ bits per number.
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 8
option4: d. 16
challenge: 2
question: Convert (B2F)16 to octal.
option1: a. 5547
option2: b. 5457
option3: c. 7547
option4: d. 11010
challenge: 3
question: Convert 1000 1001 0111 (BCD) to its decimal equivalent.
option1: a. 798
option2: b. 457
option3: c. 897
option4: d. 101
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following items below is NOT one of the
three basic operations in Boolean algebra?
option1: a. logical addition

option2: b. logical complementation
option3: c. logical subtraction
option4: d. logical multiplication
challenge: 4
question: How many bits are required to represent an eight digit
decimal number in BCD?
option1: a. 256
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 255
option4: d. 32
challenge: 4
question: The _____ belongs to a class of codecs called the
minimum-change codes, in which only one bit in the code group changes
when going from one step to the next.
option1: a. Morse code
option2: b. BCD code
option3: c. Excess-3 code
option4: d. Gray code
challenge: 1
question: The most widely used 7-bit alphanumeric code is the
option1: a. ASCII
option2: b. EBCDIC
option3: c. straight binary code
option4: d. Gray code
challenge: 1
question: What is the hex equivalent of an ASCII code which means
"HELP"?
option1: a. 48 45 4C 50
option2: b. 4C 50 51 52
option3: c. 58 57 58 48
option4: d. 48 45 50 50
challenge: 4
question: A _____ takes the complete decimal number and
represents it in binary.
option1: a. BCD
option2: b. gray code
option3: c. excess-3 code
option4: d. straight binary code
challenge: 3
question: The number of input combinations will equal _____ for
an N-input truth table.
option1: a. 2^(N-1)
option2: b. N
option3: c. 2^N
option4: d. N - 1
challenge: 3
question: The _____ operation result will be 1 if any one or more
variables is a 1.
option1: a. NOT
option2: b. AND

option3: c. OR
option4: d. NOR
challenge: 4
question: A circuit that operates in such a way that its output
is high when all its inputs are high.
option1: a. or
option2: b. nand
option3: c. nor
option4: d. and
challenge: 4
question: What is the only input combination that will produce a
high at the output of a five-input AND gate?
option1: a. at least one low input
option2: b. at least one high input
option3: c. all inputs should be low
option4: d. all inputs should be high
challenge: 2
question: The output of an inverter is connected to the input of
a second inverter. Determine the output level of the second inverter.
option1: a. output level is the complement of the input level
option2: b. output level is the same as the input level
option3: c. high output is observed
option4: d. undetermined state
challenge: 2
question: Given: x = A'BC(A+D)'. Determine the output of the
circuit x if A = 0, B = 1, C = 1, and D = 0.
option1: a. 0
option2: b. 1
option3: c. 2
option4: d. 10
challenge: 1
question: With OR operation, 1 + 1 =
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 0
option3: c. 10
option4: d. 2
challenge: 2
question: Use the expression for x = D + [(A+B)C]' . E to
determine the output of the circuit for conditions A = B = E = 1, C = D
= 0.
option1: a. 0
option2: b. 1
option3: c. 2
option4: d. 10
challenge: 3
question: The boolean expression for a six-input OR gate.
option1: a. A + B + C
option2: b. A.B.C.D.E.F
option3: c. A+B+C+D+E+F
option4: d. U+V+W+X+Y+Z

challenge: 2
question: What type of gate is equivalent to a NAND gate followed
by an inverter?
option1: a. OR
option2: b. AND
option3: c. XOR
option4: d. NOR
challenge: 4
question: Simplify the expression y = AB'D + AB'D'.
option1: a. AB
option2: b. D'
option3: c. BCD
option4: d. AB'
challenge: 4
question: How many different ways can we implement the inversion
operation in a logic circuit?
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 2
option3: c. 3
option4: d. 4
challenge: 3
question: In boolean algebra, B.B' =
option1: a. B
option2: b. B'
option3: c. 0
option4: d. 1
challenge: 2
question: In boolean algebra, G + GF =
option1: a. GF
option2: b. G
option3: c. F
option4: d. 1
challenge: 4
question: In boolean algebra, X + 1 =
option1: a. X + 1
option2: b. X
option3: c. 0
option4: d. 1
challenge: 2
question: A circuit with no memory characteristic, and so its
output depends only on the current value of its inputs.
option1: a. SLC
option2: b. Boolean circuits
option3: c. CLC
option4: d. Multiplexers
challenge: 1
question: Determine the sum-of-products expression for a circuit
with four inputs and an output that is HIGH only when input A is low at
the same time that exactly two inputs are low.

option1: a. A'B'C'D + A'B'CD' + A'BC'D'
option2: b. A'B'C' + C'D'
option3: c. A'B'C' + A'C'D' + A'B'D'
option4: d. 10
challenge: 1
question: A graphical device used to convert a truth table to its
corresponding logic circuit in a simple, orderly process.
option1: a. Karnaugh map
option2: b. state table
option3: c. truth table
option4: d. state diagram
challenge: 3
question: What is the output of an EX-NOR gate when a logic
signal and its exact inverse are connected to its input?
option1: a. X'
option2: b. X
option3: c. 1
option4: d. 0
challenge: 4
question: One of the standard levels of complexity of integrated
circuits which contains 100,000 and more number of gates.
option1: a. SSI
option2: b. MSI
option3: c. VLSI
option4: d. ULSI
challenge: 1
question: What is the most common type of digital IC package?
option1: a. DIP
option2: b. Metal type
option3: c. CMOS
option4: d. TTL
challenge: 2
question: An acceptable voltage range of a logic 0 for TTL.
option1: a. 2 to 5 V
option2: b. 0 to 0.8V
option3: c. 0 to 1.5V
option4: d. 3.5 to 5 V
challenge: 1
question: An acceptable voltage range of a logic 1 for TTL.
challenge: 3
question: An acceptable voltage range of a logic 0 for CMOS
operating at Vdd = 5V.

challenge: 4
question: An acceptable voltage range of a logic 1 for CMOS
operating at Vdd = 5V.
challenge: 1
question: What happens when the input to a digital IC is left
unconnected for TTI Ics?
option1: a. it acts like a logic 1
option2: b. it becomes overheated
option3: c. it acts just like a logic 0
option4: d. it eventually destroys itself
challenge: 4
question: An unconnected input is termed as _____.
option1: a. open
option2: b. close
option3: c. disconnected
option4: d. floating
challenge: 4
question: Effects of capacitance
option1: a. It opposes any change in the amount of voltage
option2: b. Voltage is lagged behind the current by a quarter
cycle
option3: c. Electric energy is stored in the capacitor in the
form of electrostatic field
option4: d. All of the above
challenge: 4
question: Points to be considered in choosing a capacitor.
option1: a. working voltage
option2: b. type of dielectric
option3: c. capacitance
option4: d. all of the above
challenge: 1
question: Permeability is otherwise known as
option1: a. magnetic conductivity
option2: b. magnetic susceptibility
option3: c. electric conductivity
option4: d. electric susceptibility
challenge: 4
question: The impedance in the study of electronics is
represented by resistance and
option1: a. inductance
option2: b. capacitance
option3: c. inductance and capacitance
option4: d. reactance
challenge: 4
question: Loop currents should be assumed to flow in which

direction?
option1: a. straight
option2: b. clockwise
option3: c. counter-clockwise
option4: d. either b or c arbitrarily selected
challenge: 4
question: What determines the direction of induced emf in a
conductor or coil?
option1: a. cork screw rule
option2: b. Fleming's left hand rule
option3: c. ampere's circuital law
option4: d. Fleming's right hand rule
challenge: 2
question: The reason why electrical appliances are connected in
parallel.
option1: a. It is a simple circuit
option2: b. this makes the operation of appliances independent of
each other
option3: c. this results in reduced power consumption
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following does not affect resistance?
option1: a. resistivity
option2: b. cross-sectional area
option3: c. mass
option4: d. length
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following is not considered a physical
factor in affecting resistance?
option1: a. length
option2: b. material type
option3: c. temperature
option4: d. cross-sectional area
challenge: 3
question: A 0.09 microfarad capacitor is charged to 220 volts.
How long in milliseconds will it discharge to a level of 110 V if the
discharged resistor has a resistance of 20 kohms?
option1: a. 1.5
option2: b. 2.5
option3: c. 1.25
option4: d. 0.5
challenge: 2
question: A trigger circuit consisting of a capacitor of 0.01 uF
is connected in series with a resistor. If the circuit requires 100 Vdc
to operate, determine the value of the resistor when time constant is
0.009 s.
option1: a. 900 ohms
option2: b. 900 kohms
option3: c. 900 Mohms
option4: d. 900 Gohms

challenge: 3
question: The graph between an alternating quantity and time is
called
option1: a. sinewave
option2: b. curve
option3: c. waveform
option4: d. a plot
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is the most popular waveform?
option1: a. sinusoidal
option2: b. square wave
option3: c. triangular
option4: d. sawtooth
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following does not refer to electrical
energy?
option1: a. volt-ampere
option2: b. joule
option3: c. watt-second
option4: d. volt-coulomb
challenge: 2
question: What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L of
25 microhenrys and C of 10 picofarads are in parallel?
option1: a. 10.1 kHz
option2: b. 10.1 MHz
option3: c. 101 MHz
option4: d. 101 kHz
challenge: 3
question: An ideal current source has an internal conductance of
_____ siemen/s.
option1: a. infinite
option2: b. one
option3: c. zero
option4: d. one million
challenge: 1
question: A capacitance of 6 uuF means
option1: a. 6 pF
option2: b. 6 nF
option3: c. 6 fF
option4: d. 6 aF
challenge: 1
question: The voltage cannot be exactly in phase with the current
in a circuit that contains
option1: a. only capacitance
option2: b. only resistance
option3: c. inductance and capacitance
option4: d. inductance, capacitance, and resistance
challenge: 2
question: The charge in the capacitor is stored at the
option1: a. terminals

option2: b. plates
option3: c. dielectric
option4: d. air
challenge: 1
question: The resonance curve is a plot of frequency versus _____
for a series RLC circuit.
option1: a. current
option2: b. voltage
option3: c. gain
option4: d. impedance
challenge: 2
question: For a series circuit, the higher the quality factor
option1: a. the greater the bandwidth
option2: b. the narrower the passband
option3: c. the broader the resonance curve
option4: d. the wider the passband
challenge: 1
question: "Any resistance R in a branch of network in which a
current I is flowing can be replaced by a voltage equal to IR." This
states
option1: a. compensation theorem
option2: b. reciprocity theorem
option3: c. Millman's theorem
option4: d. superposition theorem
challenge: 1
question: The internal resistance of an ideal current source is
option2: b. zero
option3: c. equal to the load resistance
option4: d. to be determined
challenge: 4
question: If three 100-pf capacitors are connected in series,
then the total capacitance is
option1: a. 300 pF
option2: b. 100 pF
option3: c. 50 pF
option4: d. 33.3 pF
challenge: 1
question: An inductance of 1 mH is
option1: a. 0.001 H
option2: b. 0.01 H
option3: c. 0.0001 H
option4: d. 0.10 H
challenge: 1
question: A capacitor is basically constructed of
option1: a. two conductors separated by a dielectric
option2: b. two dielectric separated by a conductor
option3: c. conductors and dielectric
option4: d. conductors and semiconductors

challenge: 1
question: In an inductive coil, the rate of rise of current is
maximum
option1: a. near the final maximum value of current
option2: b. at mid-value of current
option3: c. at half-power points
option4: d. after one time constant
challenge: 1
question: Two complex numbers or phasors are said to be conjugate
if they
option1: a. differ only in the algebraic sign of their quadrature
components
option2: b. differ only in the algebraic sign of their real
components
option3: c. are equal in their real and quadrature components
including algebraic signs
option4: d. are equal in their real components but differ in
their quadrature components including algebraic signs
challenge: 2
question: In an ac circuit with a resistive branch and an
inductive branch in parallel, the
option1: a. voltage across the inductance leads the voltage
across the resistance by 90 deg
option2: b. resistive branch current is 90 deg out-of-phase with
the inductive branch current
option3: c. resistive and inductive branch currents have the same
phase
option4: d. resistive and inductive branch currents are 180 deg
out-of-phase
challenge: 2
question: In an ac circuit with Xl and R in series, the
option1: a. voltage across R and Xl are in phase
option2: b. voltage across R lags the voltage across Xl by 90 deg
option3: c. voltage across R and Xl are 180 deg out of phase
option4: d. voltage across R leads the voltage across Xl by 90
deg
challenge: 1
question: Leakage resistance in a capacitor results to
option1: a. internal heating
option2: b. internal bleeding
option3: c. shorter useful file
option4: d. short-circuiting
challenge: 1
question: Voltage resonance means
option1: a. series resonance
option2: b. parallel resonance
option3: c. current magnification
option4: d. gain magnification
challenge: 2
question: The unit of elastance is
option1: a. farad

option2: b. daraf
option3: c. siemens
option4: d. henry
challenge: 1
question: The farad is not equivalent to which of the following
combination of units.
option1: a. CV^2
option2: b. C^2 / J
option3: c. C / V
option4: d. J / V^2
challenge: 3
question: Which component opposes voltage change?
option1: a. resistor
option2: b. inductor
option3: c. capacitor
option4: d. transistor
challenge: 1
question: What is the peak factor for alternating current or
voltage varying sinusoidally
option1: a. 1.4142
option2: b. 0.707
option3: c. 0.636
option4: d. 1.11
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is not a factor affecting
dielectric strength?
option1: a. mass
option2: b. moisture content
option3: c. temperature
option4: d. thickness
challenge: 3
question: The superposition theorem is used when the circuit
contains a/an
option1: a. reactive elements
option2: b. active elements
option3: c. number of voltage sources
option4: d. single voltage source
challenge: 1
question: What refers to such work at very low temperatures, near
absolute zero?
option1: a. cryogenics
option2: b. superconductivity
option3: c. subsonic
option4: d. thermionic
challenge: 4
question: A factor that states how much the resistance changes
for a change in temperature.
option2: b. specific resistance
option3: c. coefficient of temperature change

option4: d. temperature coefficient of resistance
challenge: 1
question: An alloy composed of 80% copper
option1: a. Manganin
option2: b. Constantan
option3: c. Nichrome
option4: d. German silver wire
challenge: 4
question: At parallel resonance, the currents flowing through L
and C are
option2: b. zero
option3: c. unequal
option4: d. equal
challenge: 4
question: In a rectangular wave, the peak factor is
option1: a. 1.16
option2: b. 1.73
option3: c. 1.11
option4: d. 1.0
challenge: 1
question: In an RL series circuit
option1: a. current lags voltage by less than 90 degrees
option2: b. current leads voltage by 180 degrees
option3: c. current lags voltage by 90 degrees
option4: d. current lags voltage by 180 degrees
challenge: 1
question: In a pure capacitance,
option1: a. current leads voltage by 90 degrees
option2: b. current lags voltage by 90 degrees
option3: c. current lags voltage by 90 degrees
option4: d. current lags voltage by 180 degrees
challenge: 2
question: The ohmic value of a resistor with negative temperature
coefficient
option1: a. increases with increasing temperature
option2: b. increases with decreasing temperature
option3: c. stays unchanged with temperature change
option4: d. stays unaffected even with increasing temperature
challenge: 3
question: Which of the statements below is true?
option1: a. current source is an active element
option2: b. resistor is a linear element
option3: c. voltage source is a passive element
option4: d. diode is a non-linear element
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following elements is active?

option3: c. capacitor
option4: d. ideal voltage source
challenge: 4
question: What is the complex impedance of a circuit with an
absolute resistance of 300 ohm(s)?
option1: a. 0 + j300 ohm(s)
option2: b. 300 + j90 ohm(s)
option3: c. 0 - j300 ohm(s)
option4: d. 300 + j0 ohm(s)
challenge: 2
question: A law which states that when a constant electromotive
force is applied to a circuit consisting of a resistor and a capacitor
connected in series, the time taken for the potential on the plates of
the capacitor to rise to any given fraction of its final value depends
only on the product of capacitance and reactance.
option1: a. Child's law
option2: b. CR law
option3: c. Coulomb's law
option4: d. Debye T^3 law
challenge: 1
question: Conventional flow assumes charges flow from
option1: a. positive to negative
option2: b. positive to positive
option3: c. negative to positive
option4: d. negative to negative
challenge: 1
question: Electron flow assumes charges flow from
option1: a. negative to positive
option2: b. negative to negative
option3: c. positive to negative
option4: d. positive to positive
challenge: 4
question: Series resonance occurs when
option1: a. Xl=Xc
option2: b. Xl=R
option3: c. Z=R
option4: d. Both A and C
challenge: 2
question: The symbol Q refers to
option1: a. resonance quotient
option2: b. quality factor
option3: c. power quotient
option4: d. qualification test
challenge: 1
question: The ratio of W/VA in an ac circuit means
option1: a. power factor
option2: b. reactive factor
option3: c. quality factor
option4: d. load factor

challenge: 3
question: What is the reciprocal of quality factor?
option2: b. reactive factor
option3: c. dissipation factor
option4: d. 1/Q factor
challenge: 2
question: In liquids and gases, ionization current results from a
flow of
option1: a. positive or negative ions
option2: b. free electrons
option3: c. ions that are lighter in weight than electrons
option4: d. protons
challenge: 1
question: Vl = Vc in a series RLC circuit when
option1: a. the value of the impedance is minimum
option2: b. the power factor is zero
option3: c. the current leads the total voltage by 90 degrees
option4: d. the total voltage is zero
challenge: 1
question: At what frequency will an inductor of 5mH have the same
reactance as a capacitor of 0.1 uF?
option2: b. 7.12 Hz
option3: c. 7.12 MHz
option4: d. 7.12 GHz
challenge: 3
question: Property of an electric circuit that dissipates
electric energy.
option1: a. reactance
option2: b. impedance
option3: c. resistance
option4: d. conductance
challenge: 4
question: What is the other name of relative permittivity?
option1: a. dielectric strength
option2: b. potential gradient
option3: c. breakdown voltage
option4: d. specific inductive capacity
challenge: 1
question: In a series RLC circuit
option1: a. the current lags Vl by 90 degrees
option2: b. the current leads Vl by 90 degrees
option3: c. Xl leads Xc by 90 degrees
option4: d. Z = jXl at resonance
challenge: 2
question: Resistor with color bands in the body.
option1: a. wire-wound resistor
option2: b. carbon-composition resistor
option3: c. potentiometer

option4: d. rheostat
challenge: 1
question: In a resonant circuit, if Q is >= 10, resonant
frequency _____ bandwidth.
option1: a. bisects
option2: b. exceeds
option3: c. is less than
option4: d. is equal to
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following conditions is not true for a
series RLC circuit at resonance?
option1: a. Z=jXl
option2: b. Xl=Xc
option3: c. the power factor is one
option4: d. the magnitude of Z is sqrt [ R^2 + ( Xl - Xc )^2 ]
challenge: 1
question: The current is _____ times the maximum current at half-
power points of a resonance curve.
option1: a. 0.707
option2: b. 1.414
option3: c. 0.5
option4: d. 0.632
challenge: 3
question: A gang capacitor is a variable capacitor in which
capacitance is varied by changing the
option1: a. dielectric
option2: b. number of plates
option3: c. plate area
option4: d. distance between plates
challenge: 3
question: In an ac circuit with inductive reactance, the
option1: a. phase angle of the circuit is always 45 degrees
option2: b. voltage across the inductance must be 90 degrees out
of phase with the applied voltage
option3: c. current through the inductance lags its induced
voltage by 90 degrees
option4: d. current through the inductance and voltage across it
are 180 degrees out-of-phase
challenge: 1
question: If three 9 mH inductors are connected in parallel
without mutual inductance, then the total inductance is
option1: a. 3-mH
option2: b. 9-mH
option3: c. 27-mH
option4: d. 18-mH
challenge: 1
question: What is the specific resistance of a pure germanium?
option1: a. 55 ohm-cm
option2: b. 55 ohm-m
option3: c. 55 ohm-mm

option4: d. 55 kohm-m
challenge: 3
question: Two capacitors of capacitance 9 uF and 19 uF in series
will have a total capacitance of
option1: a. 27 uF
option2: b. 162 uF
option3: c. 6 uF
option4: d. 180 uF
challenge: 3
question: In a series RLC circuit
option1: a. increasing the frequency decreases the resistance
option2: b. increasing the frequency increases the resistance
option3: c. both Xl and Xc changes as frequency changes
option4: d. impedance will always decrease
challenge: 4
question: A series RLC circuit has a _____ power factor at its
half-power points.
option1: a. unity
option2: b. leading
option3: c. lagging
option4: d. either B or C
challenge: 3
question: Kirchoff's laws (KCL and KVL) are applicable to
option1: a. dc circuits alone
option2: b. ac circuits alone
option3: c. dc as well as ac circuits
option4: d. passive networks alone
challenge: 1
question: A tank circuit is a
option1: a. parallel LC circuit
option2: b. series LC circuit
option3: c. a resonant circuit
option4: d. a non-resonant circuit
challenge: 1
question: A capacitive load always has a _____ power factor.
option1: a. leading
option2: b. lagging
option3: c. factor
option4: d. unity
challenge: 3
question: What is the temperature coefficient of resistance of
Eureka?
option1: a. infinity
option2: b. negative
option3: c. almost zero
option4: d. positive
challenge: 3
question: As applied to a series RLC circuit, bandwidth means
option1: a. the frequency range for maximum power transfer

option2: b. the difference between the highest and lowest
frequencies of the oscillator
option3: c. the separation of the half-power points
option4: d. the frequency at which Xl=Xc
challenge: 1
question: What is considered the effect of dielectric material?
option1: a. increasing capacitance
option2: b. decreasing capacitance
option3: c. reducing the work voltage
option4: d. increasing the distance between the plates
challenge: 4
question: The open-circuit voltage at the terminal of load Rl is
60 V. Under the condition of maximum power transfer, the load voltage
will be
option1: a. 60 V
option2: b. 15 V
option3: c. 20 V
option4: d. 30 V
challenge: 3
question: If a capacitor is rated for 200 Vdc, what is the
effective ac working voltage?
option1: a. 50 V
option2: b. 100 V
option3: c. 200 V
option4: d. 400 V
challenge: 1
question: If resonant frequency is 10 kHz and quality factor is
50, then
option1: a. bandwidth is 200 Hz
option2: b. Xl is 50000 ohms
option3: c. R is 50 ohms
option4: d. Xc is 50000 ohms
challenge: 3
question: Which statement is true?
option1: a. A series resonant circuit is of high impedance
option2: b. A parallel resonant circuit is of low impedance
option3: c. A series resonant circuit is inductive if it operates
at a frequency higher than the resonant frequency
option4: d. A parallel resonant circuit is inductive if it
operates at a frequency higher than the resonant frequency
challenge: 1
question: What is considered as the most important value of a
sine wave?
option1: a. effective value
option2: b. peak value
option3: c. average value
option4: d. instantaneous value
challenge: 2
question: An ac series circuit is composed of a resistance of 20
ohms, inductive reactance of 40 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 15

ohms. If a current of 1 ampere is flowing, what is the applied voltage?
option1: a. 320 V
option2: b. 32 V
option3: c. 220 V
option4: d. 22 V
challenge: 1
question: An intermittent and non-symmetrical alternating current
like that obtained from the secondary winding of an induction coil.
option1: a. Faradic current
option2: b. Transient ac current
option3: c. Inductive current
option4: d. Capacitive current
challenge: 1
question: The value of temperature coefficient, alpha, is
dependent upon
option1: a. the nature of material and temperature
option2: b. the length of material
option3: c. the cross-sectional area of the material
option4: d. the volume of the material
challenge: 1
question: At what frequency will the current in a series RLC
circuit reach its maximum value for an applied voltage of 15 V with R =
500 ohms, L = 100 uH and C = 0.001 uF?
option1: a. 503 kHz
option2: b. 403 kHz
option3: c. 603 kHz
option4: d. 303 kHz
challenge: 4
question: If two equal resistances connected in series across a
certain supply are now connected in parallel across the same supply,
the power produced will be _____ the series connection.
option1: a. 1/2
option2: b. 1/4
option3: c. 2x
option4: d. 4x
challenge: 3
question: The voltage lags the current by pi/2 cycle in a
option1: a. purely resistive circuit
option2: b. purely inductive circuit
option3: c. purely capacitive circuit
option4: d. circuit containing resistance, capacitance, and
inductance
challenge: 3
question: What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant
circuit which has a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and Q of 218?
option2: b. 16.5 MHz
option3: c. 16.5 KHz
option4: d. 165 KHz
challenge: 1

question: Which of the following materials serves as protection
against overload?
option1: a. fuse
option2: b. switch
option3: c. resistor
option4: d. relay
challenge: 1
question: Transient period is considered over after
option1: a. 5 time constants
option2: b. 1 time constant
option3: c. 100 time constants
option4: d. 6 time constants
challenge: 1
question: What rating of a resistor determines its ability to
absorb heat?
option1: a. wattage
option2: b. ohmic
option3: c. current
option4: d. voltage
challenge: 2
question: An open inductor has
option1: a. zero resistance and infinite inductance
option2: b. infinite resistance and zero inductance
option3: c. infinite resistance and infinite inductance
option4: d. zero resistance and zero inductance
challenge: 1
question: What is the reading of an ohmmeter for a shorted
capacitor?
option1: a. zero
option2: b. infinity
option3: c. k ohms
option4: d. M ohms
challenge: 2
question: _____ capacitance exists not through design but simply
because two conducting surfaces are relatively close to each other.
option1: a. surge
option2: b. stray
option3: c. natural
option4: d. normal
challenge: 2
question: The average value of a sawtooth or triangular wave is
_____ times its peak value.
option1: a. 0.577
option2: b. 0.500
option3: c. 0.318
option4: d. 0.637
challenge: 1
question: A series RLC circuit consists of a 10-ohm resistor in
series with L = 10 uH, and C = 100 uF. Determine a new value of L for
which the resonant frequency is 1/2 the original value.

option1: a. 40 uH
option2: b. 40 mH
option3: c. 40 pH
option4: d. 40 nH
challenge: 2
question: What is the peak factor of a triangular wave?
option1: a. 1.16
option2: b. 1.73
option3: c. 1.41
option4: d. 1.11
challenge: 2
question: Parallel resonant circuit is sometimes called as
option1: a. acceptor circuit
option2: b. rejector circuit
option3: c. inductive circuit
option4: d. capacitive circuit
challenge: 3
question: When two pure sine waves of the same frequency and the
same amplitude which are exactly 180 degrees out of phase are added
together, the result is
option1: a. a wave with twice the amplitude
option2: b. a wave with half the amplitude
option3: c. zero signal
option4: d. a wave with twice the frequency
challenge: 1
question: If two complex conjugates are added, _____ component
results.
option1: a. in-phase
option2: b. quadrature
option3: c. complex
option4: d. out of phase
challenge: 3
question: If an emf in circuit A produces a current in circuit B,
then the same emf in circuit B produces the same current in circuit A.
This theorem is known as
option1: a. Maximum power transfer theorem
option2: b. Millman's theorem
option3: c. Reciprocity theorem
option4: d. Norton's theorem
challenge: 1
question: According to Gauss' theorem, flux can be equated to
option1: a. charge
option2: b. field intensity
option3: c. current
option4: d. voltage
challenge: 2
question: An open resistor when checked with an ohmmeter reads
option1: a. zero
option3: c. high but within the tolerance

option4: d. low but not zero
challenge: 2
question: Norton's theorem is _____ Thevenin's theorem.
option1: a. the same as
option2: b. the converse of
option3: c. older than
option4: d. more accurate than
challenge: 4
question: What value of R is needed with a 0.05 µF C for an RC
time constant of 0.02 s ?
option1: a. 400 ohm(s)
option2: b. 400 Mohm(s)
option3: c. 400 Gohm(s)
option4: d. 400 kohm(s)
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following is the statement of Ohm's law?
option1: a. Electric current is directly proportional to both
voltage and resistance
option2: b. Electric current varies directly as the voltage and
inversely as the resistance
option3: c. Electric power is directly proportional to the
resistance and inversely as the current squared
option4: d. Electrical power is directly proportional to both
voltage squared and the resistance
challenge: 4
question: The admittance of a parallel RLC circuit is found to be
the _____ sum of conductance and susceptances.
option1: a. algebraic
option2: b. arithmetic
option3: c. vector
option4: d. phasor
challenge: 1
question: A wire of one kilometer length has a resistance of 20
ohm(s). If the length is halved, then the new resistance is _____ the
original resistance.
option1: a. half
option2: b. twice
option3: c. 1/4
option4: d. three times
challenge: 1
question: A series-parallel combination of identical resistors
will
option1: a. increase the power rating compared with one resistor
alone
option2: b. increase the voltage rating compared with one
resistor alone
option3: c. reduce the voltage rating compared with resistor
alone
option4: d. result in an expensive circuit
challenge: 1

question: The _____ of an alternating current is defined as the
fractional part of a period or cycle through which the quantity has
advanced from selected origin.
option1: a. phase
option2: b. frequency
option3: c. amplitude
option4: d. waveform
challenge: 2
question: An inductive circuit of resistance 16.5 ohm(s) and
inductance of 0.14 H takes a current of 25 A. If the frequency is 50
Hz, find the supply voltage.
option1: a. 1501 V
option2: b. 1174 V
option3: c. 1877 V
option4: d. 991 V
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following has a positive temperature
coefficient?
option1: a. mica
option2: b. manganin
option3: c. silicon
option4: d. carbon
challenge: 1
question: The ratio of the flux density to the electric field
intensity in the dielectric is called
option1: a. permittivity
option2: b. field intensity
option3: c. permeability
option4: d. elasticity
challenge: 1
question: It is impossible to change the voltage across a
capacitor instantly, as this would produce _____ current.
option2: b. zero
option3: c. low
option4: d. high
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following is not a factor affecting
capacitance of a basic capacitor?
option1: a. area of plates
option2: b. number of plates
option3: c. distance between plates
option4: d. dielectric material used
challenge: 1
question: When voltage is applied across a ceramic dielectric the
electrostatic field produced is 50 times greater than air dielectric.
The dielectric constant of ceramic therefore is
option1: a. 50
option2: b. 100
option3: c. 16.67
option4: d. 5

challenge: 4
question: The reason why alternating current can induce voltage
is
option1: a. it has a high peak value
option2: b. it has a stronger magnetic field than direct current
option3: c. it has a constant magnetic field
option4: d. it has a varying magnetic field
challenge: 2
question: When two unequal values of resistors are connected in
parallel across a dc source, greater current flows through the
option1: a. higher resistance
option2: b. lower resistance
option3: c. higher wattage resistance
option4: d. lower wattage resistance
challenge: 3
question: A real current source has
option1: a. infinite internal resistance
option2: b. zero internal resistance
option3: c. large internal resistance
option4: d. small internal resistance
challenge: 4
question: What is the cross-sectional area of a conductor whose
diameter is 0.001 inch?
option1: a. one micron
option2: b. one angstrom
option3: c. one steradian
option4: d. one circular mil
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following describes the action of a
capacitor?
option1: a. stores electrical energy
option2: b. opposes changes in current flow
option3: c. creates a dc resistance
option4: d. converts ac to dc
challenge: 3
question: High resistance values are a consequence of the _____
of the film.
option1: a. thickness
option2: b. length
option3: c. thinness
option4: d. area
challenge: 1
question: For parallel capacitors, total charge is
option1: a. the sum of individual charges
option2: b. equal to the charge of either capacitors
option3: c. equal to the product of the charges
option4: d. the quotient of the charges
challenge: 1
question: Which waveform in which the rms value and the mean

value are equal?
option1: a. square wave
option2: b. triangular wave
option3: c. sine wave
option4: d. sawtooth
challenge: 1
question: In a series circuit with unequal resistances
option1: a. the highest R has the highest V
option2: b. the lowest R has the highest V
option3: c. the lowest R has the highest I
option4: d. the highest R has the highest I
challenge: 2
question: In a parallel bank with unequal branch resistances
option1: a. the highest R has the highest I
option2: b. the lowest R has the highest V
option3: c. the lowest R has the highest I
option4: d. the highest R has the highest V
challenge: 1
question: A rheostat is a form of
option1: a. variable resistor
option2: b. variable capacitor
option3: c. potentiometer
option4: d. thermocouple
challenge: 2
question: Metal tin becomes superconductor at approximately
option1: a. 6 K
option2: b. 3.7 K
option3: c. 5 K
option4: d. 4.7 K
challenge: 3
question: In a complex resistance-reactance plane, Xl is
represented
option1: a. by an axis opposite the R axis
option2: b. by an axis perpendicular to the Xc axis
option3: c. by an axis opposite the Xc axis
option4: d. by an axis parallel to the R axis
challenge: 1
question: When the net reactance in a series coil-capacitor
circuit is zero at frequency f, the nature of its reactance of
frequency 2f is
option1: a. inductive
option2: b. capacitive
option3: c. resistive
option4: d. infinite
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following is a way of decreasing mutual
inductance?
option1: a. moving the coils closer
option2: b. moving the coils apart
option3: c. decreasing the number of turns of either coil

option4: d. increasing the number of turns of either coil
challenge: 1
question: The charging of a capacitor through a resistance obeys
option1: a. exponential law
option2: b. logarithmic law
option3: c. linear law
option4: d. square law
challenge: 2
question: The Q-factor of a parallel resonant circuit is also
known as
option1: a. voltage magnification factor
option2: b. current magnification factor
option3: c. fain magnification factor
option4: d. resonance magnification factor
challenge: 3
question: What is the specific resistance of a pure silicon?
option1: a. 55 ohm(s).mm
option2: b. 55 ohm(s).m
option3: c. 55 ohm(s).cm
option4: d. 55 kohm(s).m
challenge: 2
question: A capacitance of 0.05 µF equals
option1: a. 0.05 x 10^6 F
option2: b. 0.05 x 10^-6 F
option3: c. 0.05 x 10^-12 F
option4: d. 0.05 x 10^12 F
challenge: 3
question: A 5 µF capacitor charge to 5V has a stored charge equal
to
option1: a. 1 µC
option2: b. 5 µC
option3: c. 25 µC
option4: d. 200 µC
challenge: 4
question: The factor 0.707 for converting peak to rms applies
only to
option1: a. square waves
option2: b. triangle waves
option3: c. sawtooth waves
option4: d. sine waves
challenge: 2
question: When two in-phase sine waves that have identical
frequency and amplitude are added together, then the result is a sine
wave with _____ the amplitude of either.
option1: a. half
option2: b. twice
option3: c. four times
option4: d. 1/4
challenge: 4

question: Liquids that are good conductors because of ionization
are called
option1: a. electrolytic
option2: b. bases
option3: c. acids
option4: d. electrolytes
challenge: 1
question: Tungsten filament of bulbs has a hot resistance higher
than its cold resistance due to its temperature coefficient which is
option1: a. positive
option3: c. zero
challenge: 1
question: A term used to express the amount of electrical energy
stored in electrostatic field.
option1: a. joules
option2: b. coulombs
option3: c. watts
option4: d. electron-volt
challenge: 4
question: With double the number of turns by the same length and
area, the inductance is
option1: a. the same
option2: b. doubled
option3: c. quartered
option4: d. quadrupled
challenge: 1
question: The temperature coefficient of resistance of
electrolytes is
option1: a. negative
option2: b. positive
option3: c. zero
challenge: 3
question: _____ refers to the lowest voltage across any insulator
that can cause current flow.
option1: a. conduction voltage
option2: b. critical voltage
option4: d. voltage capacity
challenge: 1
question: Capacitance increases with
option1: a. larger plate area and less distance between plates
option2: b. larger plate area and greater distance between plates
option3: c. smaller plate area and less distance between plates
option4: d. higher values of applied voltage
challenge: 3
question: What is the resonant frequency of a circuit when L of 3
microhenrys and C of 40 picofarads are in series?

option2: b. 145 MHz
option3: c. 14.5 MHz
option4: d. 145 kHz
challenge: 2
question: For a triangular and sawtooth waveform the rms voltage
or current equals
option1: a. 0.707 times peak value
option2: b. 0.577 times peak value
option3: c. 0.577 times average value
option4: d. 0.707 times rms value
challenge: 4
question: If two resistances of 9 ohm(s) and 6 ohm(s) are
connected in parallel, the total resistance is
option2: b. 0.3 ohm(s)
option3: c. 15 ohm(s)
option4: d. 3.6 ohm(s)
challenge: 4
question: Refers specifically to steady state values of
quantities in ac circuits which are complex numbers.
option1: a. domain
option2: b. scalar quantity
option3: c. vector quantity
option4: d. phasor quantity
challenge: 1
question: A capacitor is used to
option1: a. block dc current
option2: b. pass dc current
option3: c. open voltage source
option4: d. short the voltage source
challenge: 1
question: The usual load of a dc circuit is a/an
option2: b. capacitor
option3: c. inductor
option4: d. both inductor and capacitor
challenge: 2
question: The second strip of an electronic resistor color code
represents
option1: a. the multiplier
option2: b. the second digit of the value
option3: c. the temperature
option4: d. the tolerance
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following is a preferred resistor value?
option1: a. 520
option2: b. 47
option3: c. 43000
option4: d. 54321

challenge: 3
question: A three-by-three, series-parallel matrix of resistors,
all having the same ohmic value, would have a net resistance of
option1: a. one-third the value of a single resistor
option2: b. three times the value of a single resistor
option3: c. the same value as a single resistor
option4: d. nine times the value of a single resistor
challenge: 2
question: In an ac wave, 30 degrees of phase is _____ of a cycle.
option1: a. 1/2
option2: b. 1/12
option3: c. 1/3
option4: d. 1/30
challenge: 2
question: What is the value of a carbon composition resistor with
the following color code: brown, white, orange, red
option1: a. 190 ohm(s); 10 %
option2: b. 19 kohm(s); 2%
option3: c. 19 kohm(s); 20%
option4: d. 1.9 kohm(s); 2%
challenge: 1
question: The electric field strength between capacitor plates
has a unit of
option1: a. volts per meter
option2: b. volts per mil
option3: c. amperes per meter
option4: d. amperes per mil
challenge: 1
question: For multi-plate capacitor, capacitance is proportional
to
option1: a. number of plates less than one (n-1)
option2: b. number of plates plus one (n+1)
option3: c. number of plates less two (n-2)
option4: d. number of plates (n)
challenge: 3
question: A capacitor consists of two
option1: a. conductors only
option2: b. dielectric only
option3: c. conductors separated by a dielectric
option4: d. dielectric separated by a conductor
challenge:1
question: How many coulombs are delivered by a storage battery in
24 hours if it is supplying current at the rate of 3 A?
option1: a. 2.592 x 10^5 C
option2: b. 2.592 x 10^3 C
option3: c. 2.592 x 10^8 C
option4: d. 2.592 x 10^12 C
challenge: 1
question: When frequency of an ac wave decreases, the value of Xl

in a coil
option1: a. approaches zero
option2: b. gets larger positively
option3: c. gets larger negatively
option4: d. stays constant
challenge: 1
question: The temperature-resistance coefficient of pure gold is
option1: a. 0.0034
option2: b. 0.0037
option3: c. 0.0038
option4: d. 0.0039
challenge: 3
question: The capacitor opposes any change in voltage across it
by
option1: a. passing a voltage proportional to the rate of change
of current
option2: b. acting as a short circuit at time equal to zero
option3: c. passing a current proportional to the rate of change
of voltage
option4: d. acting as a short voltage at time equal to infinity
challenge: 1
question: What is the most common non-sinusoidal waveform?
option2: b. triangular wave
option3: c. trapezoidal wave
option4: d. sawtooth wave
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following capacitors is suitable for dc
filter circuits?
option1: a. mica
option2: b. ceramic
option3: c. paper
option4: d. electrolytic
challenge: 1
question: A series RLC circuit has R of 10 ohm(s) and Xl of 5
ohm(s). Its impedance in rectangular form is given by
option1: a. 10 + j 5 ohm(s)
option2: b. 10 + j 10 ohm(s)
option3: c. 10 - j 5 ohm(s)
option4: d. 10 - j 10 ohm(s)
challenge: 3
question: What is the reciprocal of capacitance?
option1: a. reluctance
option2: b. susceptance
option3: c. elastance
challenge: 1
question: If the output resistance of a voltage source is 4
ohm(s), its internal resistance should be

option2: b. 8 ohm(s)
challenge: 4
question: The curve between current and frequency is termed as
option1: a. voltage curve
option2: b. gain curve
option3: c. power curve
option4: d. resonance curve
challenge: 1
question: What is the total effective capacitance of two 0.25
microfarad capacitors connected in series?
option1: a. 0.125 microfarad
option2: b. 1.25 microfarad
option3: c. 0.50 microfarad
option4: d. 2.5 microfarad
challenge: 2
question: _____ can be used to estimate resonant frequency and to
find reactance at any frequency for any value of capacitor or inductor.
option1: a. Smith chart
option2: b. reactance chart
option3: c. impedance chart
option4: d. resonance curve
challenge: 1
question: For a parallel AC circuit, _____ is used as a reference
phasor.
option1: a. voltage
option2: b. power
option3: c. current
option4: d. resistance
challenge: 1
question: For a series AC circuit, _____ is not used as a
reference phasor.
option1: a. voltage
option2: b. impedance
option3: c. current
challenge: 3
question: If a certain circuit has a current that is lagging the
voltage by 45 degrees, then it displays
option1: a. pure inductive reactance
option2: b. resistance and capacitive reactance
option3: c. resistance and inductive reactance
option4: d. pure capacitive reactance
challenge: 2
question: _____ is the maximum voltage that can be applied across
the capacitor for very short period of time.
option1: a. working voltage
option2: b. surge voltage
option3: c. stray voltage

option4: d. peak voltage
challenge: 3
question: What is expected when two 20 kohm(s), 1 W resistor in
parallel are used instead of one 10kohm(s), 1 watt?
option1: a. provides higher current
option2: b. provides less power
option3: c. provides more power
option4: d. provides wider tolerance
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following materials has the lowest
option1: a. glass
option2: b. paper
option3: c. mica
option4: d. teflon
challenge: 3
question: The distance between the capacitor plates increases two
times, then its capacitance
option1: a. increases two times
option2: b. increases four times
option3: c. decreases two times
option4: d. decreases four times
challenge: 2
question: The ratio between the active power and the apparent
power of a load in an ac circuit is called
option1: a. quality factor
option2: b. power factor
option3: c. power ratio
option4: d. power reactive
challenge: 3
question: When the power factor of a circuit is zero,
option1: a. power absorbed is maximum
option2: b. power absorbed is minimum
option3: c. power absorbed is zero
option4: d. the impedance is minimum
challenge: 1
question: How many degrees of phase represents one full cycle?
option1: a. 360
option2: b. 180
option3: c. 270
option4: d. 90
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following does not generally affect the
value of a capacitor?
option1: a. the dielectric material used
option2: b. the surface are of the plates
option3: c. the thickness of the dielectric
option4: d. the voltage applied to the plate
challenge: 3

question: What is the purpose of a load in an electric circuit?
option1: a. to increase the circuit current
option2: b. to decrease the circuit current
option3: c. to utilize the electrical energy
option4: d. to make the circuit complete
challenge: 1
question: The power factor of a certain circuit in which the
voltage lags behind the current is 80%. To increase the power to 100%,
it is necessary to add _____ to the circuit.
option2: b. capacitance
challenge: 3
question: Refers to the outward-curving distortion of the lines
of force near the edges of two parallel metal plates that form a
capacitor.
option1: a. skin effect
option2: b. night effect
option3: c. edge effect
option4: d. hall effect
challenge: 4
question: If voltage across the plates of 2-farad capacitor is
increased by 4 V, then charge on the plates will
option1: a. decrease by 2 C
option2: b. increase by 2 C
option3: c. decrease by 4 C
option4: d. increase by 4 C
challenge: 2
question: What does a capacitor store?
option1: a. voltage
option2: b. charge
option3: c. current
option4: d. power
challenge: 2
question: The mutual inductance between two coils is _____ the
reluctance of magnetic path.
option1: a. directly proportional to
option2: b. inversely proportional to
option3: c. independent of
option4: d. equal to
challenge: 4
question: The result of rust in electrical (wire) connection is
option2: b. conductance
option3: c. impedance
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is a disadvantage of wire-wound
resistors?

option1: a. it has reactance in radio-frequency circuits
option2: b. it cannot handle much power
option3: c. it draws a large amount of current
option4: d. it cannot handle high voltage
challenge: 1
question: The resistance of an insulator _____ when its
temperature is increased
option1: a. decreases
option2: b. remains the same
option3: c. increases
option4: d. varies
challenge: 3
question: The wavelength of an alternating waveform depends upon
the _____ of the variation.
option1: a. period
option2: b. number
option3: c. frequency
option4: d. amplitude
challenge: 3
question: Delta to wye or wye to delta transformation technique
is applied to a _____ network.
option1: a. one-terminal
option2: b. two-terminal
option3: c. three-terminal
option4: d. complex
challenge: 2
question: For greater accuracy, the value of phase angle theta
should be determined from
option1: a. cos theta
option2: b. tan theta
option3: c. sin theta
option4: d. sec theta
challenge: 3
question: Inductance reactance applies only to sine waves because
it
option1: a. increases with lower frequencies
option2: b. increases with lower inductance
option3: c. depends on the factor 2pi
option4: d. decreases with higher frequencies
challenge: 3
question: _____ increases the resistance of wire at high
frequencies.
option1: a. temperature
option2: b. voltage
option3: c. skin effect
option4: d. insulation
challenge: 1
question: An inductor carries 2 A dc. If its inductance is 100
µH, then what is its inductive reactance?
option1: a. zero

option2: b. 1.3 kohm(s)
option4: d. -629 ohm(s)
challenge: 1
question: Barium-strontium titanite dielectric material is also
called
option1: a. ceramic
option2: b. polyester
option3: c. electrolytic
option4: d. bakelite
challenge: 1
question: In the 5-band method of capacitor color coding, the
first band indicates
option1: a. temperature coefficient
option2: b. tolerance
option3: c. 1st digit
option4: d. capacitance value
challenge: 1
question: What is the most convenient way of achieving large
capacitance?
option1: a. by using multiplate construction
option2: b. by using air as dielectric
option3: c. by decreasing distance between plates
option4: d. by using dielectric of low permittivity
challenge: 3
question: A linear circuit is one whose parameters
option1: a. change with change in voltage
option2: b. change with change in current
option3: c. do not change with voltage and current
option4: d. change with change in voltage and current
challenge: 1
question: For a linear, _____ voltage or current is used to
calculate average power
option1: a. rms
option2: b. peak
option3: c. average
option4: d. instantaneous
challenge: 1
question: When two coils of identical reactance are in parallel
without mutual inductance, the reactance of the combination is _____
the reactance of each coil.
option1: a. 1/2
option2: b. twice
option3: c. four times
option4: d. 1/4
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is also known as anti-resonant
circuit?
option1: a. parallel resonant circuit
option2: b. series resonant circuit

option3: c. tuned circuit
option4: d. tank circuit
challenge: 1
question: In a complex number 5 + j10, 10 is called _____ part.
option1: a. imaginary
option2: b. real
option3: c. conjugate
option4: d. integer
challenge: 2
question: The presence of an electric current is made known by
option1: a. electric shock
option2: b. effects produced
option3: c. magnetic shock
option4: d. flashing
challenge: 1
question: The reciprocal of a complex number is
option1: a. a complex number
option2: b. a real number
option3: c. an imaginary number
option4: d. a whole number
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following has negative temperature
coefficient?
option1: a. carbon
option2: b. nickel
option3: c. brass
option4: d. constantan
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is a common material used in
wire-wound resistors?
option1: a. manganin
option2: b. carbon
option3: c. bronze
option4: d. german silver wire
challenge: 1
question: If one resistance in a series connection is open, then
option1: a. the current is zero in all other resistances
option2: b. the current is maximum in all the other resistances
option3: c. the voltage is zero across the open resistance
option4: d. the voltage is infinite across the open resistance
challenge: 4
question: What determines the magnitude of electric current?
option1: a. the rate at which electrons are produced
option2: b. the type of material used
option3: c. the current carrying capacity of the circuit
option4: d. the rate at which electrons pass a given point
challenge: 1
question: For a carbon composition resistor, typical resistance
values range from

option1: a. 2.7 ohm(s) to 22 Mohm(s)
option2: b. 1000 ohm(s) to 10000 ohm(s)
option3: c. 10 ohm(s) to 10 Mohm(s)
option4: d. 2.7 ohm(s) to 2.7 Gohm(s)
challenge: 1
question: A lead conductor has a resistance of 25 ohm(s) at 0
degrees Celsius. Determine its resistance at - 30 degrees Celsius
option1: a. 22ohm(s)
option2: b. 24ohm(s)
option3: c. 12ohm(s)
option4: d. 11ohm(s)
challenge: 4
question: An impedance given by 90 cis (-45 deg) is a/an _____
impedance.
option1: a. inductive
option2: b. conductive
option3: c. resistive
option4: d. capacitive
challenge: 1
question: If a coil has a Q of 10, it means that
option1: a. the energy stored in the magnetic field of the coil
is 10 times the energy wasted in its resistance
option2: b. the energy wasted in its resistance is 10 times the
energy stored in the magnetic field of the coil
option3: c. it is a low Q coil
option4: d. it is a high Q coil
challenge: 1
question: What is the rms value of the square value?
option1: a. equals its peak value
option2: b. equals its peak-to-peak value
option3: c. peak divided by square root of two
option4: d. peak divided by pi
challenge: 1
question: The rms value of a triangular or sawtooth waveform is
_____ times its peak value.
option1: a. 0.577
option2: b. 0.500
option3: c. 0.25
option4: d. 0.707
challenge: 1
question: In a multiple capacitor, the plate area is
option1: a. increased
option2: b. the same
option3: c. decreased
option4: d. variable
challenge: 1
question: What is the time constant for L of 240 mH in series
with R of 20 ohm(s)?
option1: a. 12 ms
option2: b. 4.9 s

option3: c. 83.3 s
option4: d. 12 s
challenge: 3
question: In an ac circuit, the power dissipated as heat depends
on
option1: a. impedance
option2: b. capacitive reactance
option4: d. inductive reactance
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following dielectric materials makes the
lowest-capacitance capacitor?
option1: a. paper
option2: b. mica
option3: c. air
option4: d. electrolyte
challenge: 2
question: In adding or subtracting phasor quantities, _____ form
is the most convenient.
option1: a. polar
option2: b. rectangular
option3: c. trigonometric
option4: d. exponential
challenge: 1
question: In dividing or multiplying phasor quantities, _____
form is used.
option1: a. polar
option2: b. rectangular
option3: c. trigonometric
challenge: 4
question: The power factor of a circuit is equal to
option1: a. RZ
option2: b. Xc/Z
option3: c. Xl/Z
option4: d. R/Z
challenge: 1
question: The capacitance of a capacitor is _____ relative
permittivity.
option3: c. equal to
option4: d. inversely proportional to the square of
challenge: 3
question: If a multiple capacitor has 10 plates, each of area 10
square cm, then
option1: a. 10 capacitors will be in parallel
option2: b. 10 capacitors will be in series
option3: c. 9 capacitors will be in parallel
option4: d. 9 capacitors will be in series

challenge: 1
question: Of the equivalent combination of units, which one is
not equal to watt?
option1: a. ohm(s)^2/V
option2: b. AV
option3: c. A^2 * ohm(s)
option4: d. J/s
challenge: 1
question: A neon glow lamp used as a night light ionizes at
approximately
option1: a. 70 V
option2: b. 80 V
option3: c. 90 V
option4: d. 100 V
challenge: 2
question: What dielectric is generally employed by a variable
capacitor?
option1: a. mica
option2: b. air
option3: c. electrolyte
option4: d. ceramic
challenge: 3
question: A switch designed to have low capacitance between its
terminal when open.
option1: a. LOCAP switch
option2: b. AntiLOCAP switch
option3: c. Anticapacitance switch
option4: d. capacitance switch
challenge: 1
question: A resistor wound with a wire doubled back on itself to
reduce the inductance.
option1: a. bifilar resistor
option2: b. wire-wound resistor
option3: c. anti-inductive resistor
option4: d. bleeder resistor
challenge: 3
question: _____ is a fusion of elements, without chemical action
between them.
option1: a. mixture
option2: b. compound
option3: c. alloy
challenge: 1
question: In calculating maximum instantaneous power _____
voltage or current is used.
option1: a. peak
option2: b. average
option3: c. rms

challenge: 1
question: The area of capacitor plates increases two times, then
its capacitance
option3: c. decreases two times
challenge: 3
question: If the inductance is decreased, the impedance of the
circuit containing a resistor, a capacitor and an inductor connected in
series to an ac source
option2: b. increases
option3: c. decreases or increases
option4: d. decreases, increases or remains the same
challenge: 2
question: When the movable plates of a gang capacitor completely
overlaps the fixed plates, the capacitance of the capacitor is
option1: a. halfway between the maximum and the minimum
option2: b. maximum
option3: c. minimum
option4: d. zero
challenge: 2
question: In a circuit, a passive element is one which
option1: a. supplies energy
option2: b. receives energy
option3: c. both supplies and receives energy
option4: d. attenuates signal
challenge: 1
question: Rationalizing the denominator of a complex number means
option1: a. eliminating the j component in the denominator
option2: b. adding j component in the denominator
option3: c. eliminating the j component in the numerator
option4: d. adding the j component in the numerator
challenge: 1
question: When two complex conjugates are subtracted, the result
is a
option1: a. quadrature component only
option2: b. complex component
option3: c. in-phase component
option4: d. real component
challenge: 1
question: A coil of inductance L has an inductive reactance of Xl
in an ac circuit in which the effective current is I. The coil is made
from a superconducting material. The rate at which the power is
dissipated in the coil is
option1: a. 0
option2: b. I^2 * Xl
option3: c. I * Xl
option4: d. I * Xl^2

challenge: 2
question: If the capacitance of mica capacitor is 5 times the
capacitance of air capacitor, then the relative permittivity of mica is
option1: a. 2.5
option2: b. 5
option3: c. 10
option4: d. 25
challenge: 1
question: The hot resistance of an incandescent lamp is about
_____ times its cold resistance.
option1: a. 10
option2: b. 5
option3: c. 50
option4: d. 100
challenge: 1
question: When the temperature of a copper wire is increased, its
resistance is
option1: a. increased
option2: b. decreased
option3: c. constant
option4: d. zero
challenge: 3
question: A trimmer is a variable capacitor in which capacitance
is varied by changing the
option1: a. number of plates
option2: b. dielectric
option3: c. distance between the plates
option4: d. plate area
challenge: 3
question: The reason why electrical appliances are not connected
in series.
option1: a. greater electrical power saving
option2: b. power loss is minimum
option3: c. appliances have different current ratings
challenge: 4
question: From its definition, the unit of electric field, E is
the N/C and the equivalent of E is the
option1: a. V(m)^2
option2: b. v(m)
option3: c. V/m^2
option4: d. V/m
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following is the peakiest?
option2: b. sinusoidal wave
option3: c. triangular wave
option4: d. rectangular wave
challenge: 4
question: Why are inductance and capacitance not relevant in a dc

circuit?
option1: a. because it is a simple circuit
option2: b. because dc circuits only require resistance as load
option3: c. because they do not exist in a dc circuit
option4: d. because frequency of dc is zero
challenge: 1
question: When capacitors are connected in parallel, the total
capacitance is
option1: a. greater than the largest capacitor
option2: b. smaller than the largest capacitor
option3: c. smaller than the smallest capacitor
option4: d. greater than the smallest capacitor
challenge: 2
question: When current and voltage are in phase in an ac circuit,
the _____ is equal to zero.
option1: a. resistance
option2: b. reactance
option3: c. inductance
option4: d. capacitance
challenge: 2
question: Thevenin's theorem is what form of an equivalent
circuit?
option1: a. current
option2: b. voltage
option3: c. both current and voltage
option4: d. neither current nor voltage
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following combination of length and cross-
sectional area will give a certain volume of copper the least
resistance?
option1: a. 2L and A/2
option2: b. does not matter because the volume of copper remains
the same
option3: c. L and A
option4: d. L/2 and 2A
challenge: 4
question: The ratio between the reactive power and the apparent
power of an ac load is called
option1: a. quality factor
option2: b. power factor
option3: c. power ratio
option4: d. reactive factor
challenge: 1
question: What is the efficiency under the conditions of maximum
power transfer?
option1: a. 50 %
option2: b. 100 %
option3: c. 25 %
option4: d. 75 %
challenge: 4

question: The charging of a capacitor through a resistance
follows what law?
option1: a. linear law
option2: b. hyperbolic law
option3: c. inverse-square law
option4: d. exponential law
challenge: 2
question: Norton's theorem is what form of an equivalent circuit?
option1: a. voltage
option2: b. current
option3: c. both voltage and current
option4: d. neither voltage nor current
challenge: 2
question: What is the total capacitance of 10 capacitors, each of
20 µF, in series?
option1: a. 200 µF
option2: b. 2 µF
option3: c. 100 µF
option4: d. 0.5 µF
challenge: 2
question: An inductive load always has a _____ power factor.
option1: a. leading
option2: b. lagging
option3: c. zero
option4: d. unity
challenge: 1
question: When resistances are connected in parallel, the total
resistance is
option1: a. less than the smallest resistance in the connection
option2: b. greater than the smallest resistance in the
connection
option3: c. between the smallest and greatest resistance in the
connection
option4: d. increasing or decreasing depending upon the supply
voltage
challenge: 1
question: The arc across a switch when it opens an RL circuit is
a result of the
option1: a. large self-induced voltage across L
option2: b. long time constant
option3: c. low resistance of the open switch
option4: d. surge of resistance
challenge: 4
question: _____ is a rotating vector whose projection can
represent either current of voltage in an ac circuit.
option1: a. polar diagram
option2: b. scalar quantity
option3: c. velocity
option4: d. phasor
challenge: 4

question: Which factor does not affect resistance?
option1: a. length
option2: b. resistivity
option3: c. cross-sectional area
option4: d. mass
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following capacitors are used only in dc
circuits?
option1: a. mica
option2: b. ceramic
option3: c. mylar
challenge: 2
question: The maximum power transfer theorem is used in
option1: a. power system
option2: b. electronics circuits
option3: c. refrigeration
option4: d. air conditioning
challenge: 2
question: In Norton's theorem, the short circuit current is
obtained by
option1: a. operating the load terminals
option2: b. shorting the load terminals
option3: c. opening the voltage source
option4: d. shorting the voltage source
challenge: 3
question: For maximum power transfer, what is the relation
between load resistance Rl and the internal resistance of the voltage
source?
option1: a. Rl = 2 r
option2: b. Rl = 1.5 r
option3: c. Rl = r
option4: d. Rl = 3 r
challenge: 3
question: A capacitor of 0.5 µF charged to 220 V is connected
across an uncharged 0.5 µF capacitor. What is the voltage across each
capacitor?
option1: a. 220 V
option2: b. 150 V
option3: c. 110 V
option4: d. 22 V
challenge: 1
question: When capacitors are connected in series, the total
capacitance is
option1: a. smaller than the smallest capacitor
option2: b. smaller than the largest capacitor
option3: c. greater than any of the capacitor
option4: d. greater than the largest capacitor
challenge: 3
question: What theorem is generally used in the analysis of

vacuum tubes?
option1: a. superposition theorem
option3: c. Thevenin's theorem
challenge: 1
question: Another term of the quality factor of the resonant
circuit.
option1: a. figure of merit
option2: b. figure of demerit
option3: c. noise factor
option4: d. noise figure
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following represents the energy stored in
a capacitor?
option1: a. (CV^2)/2
option2: b. (2Q^2)/C
option3: c. (C^2)/V
option4: d. CV
challenge: 4
question: What theorem is usually used in the analysis of
transistor circuit?
option1: a. superposition theorem
option3: c. Thevenin's theorem
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following capacitors has the highest cost
per µF?
option1: a. plastic
option2: b. air
option3: c. mica
challenge: 2
question: Under the conditions of maximum power transfer, a
voltage source is delivering a power of 15 W to the load. What is the
power generated by the source?
option1: a. 60 W
option2: b. 30 W
option3: c. 15 W
option4: d. 4 W
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is neither a basic physical law
nor derivable from one?
option1: a. ohm's law
option2: b. coulomb's law
option3: c. kirchoff's first law
option4: d. kirchoff's second law
challenge: 4
question: Another term for superconductor.

option1: a. generic conductor
option2: b. ultraconductor
option3: c. cryotron
option4: d. cryogenic conductor
challenge: 1
question: A circuit whose parameters change with voltage or
current.
option1: a. non-linear circuit
option2: b. linear circuit
option3: c. complex circuit
option4: d. passive circuit
challenge: 1
question: The potential gradient in a cable is maximum in
option1: a. conductor
option2: b. outer sheath
option3: c. insulation
option4: d. uniformly all over
challenge: 1
question: The Q-factor of a parallel resonant circuit is also
known as
option1: a. current magnification factor
option2: b. voltage magnification facto
option3: c. load factor
option4: d. leakage factor
challenge: 2
question: The Q-factor of a series resonant circuit is also known
as
option1: a. current magnification factor
option2: b. voltage magnification factor
option3: c. load factor
challenge: 1
question: What is the form factor of a triangular wave?
option1: a. 1.16
option2: b. 1.11
option3: c. 1.73
option4: d. 1.41
challenge: 4
question: In a rectangular wave, the form factor is
option1: a. 1.11
option2: b. 1.16
option3: c. 1.0
option4: d. 1.73
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following dielectric materials makes the
highest-capacitance capacitor?
option1: a. air
option2: b. barium-strontium titanite
option3: c. mica
option4: d. electrolyte

challenge: 1
question: In a circuit, an active element is one which
option1: a. supplies energy
option2: b. receives energy
option3: c. both supplies and receives energy
option4: d. amplifies signal
challenge: 3
question: An electric circuit contains
option1: a. passive elements
option2: b. active elements
option3: c. both active and passive elements
option4: d. reactive elements
challenge: 3
question: What is the hot resistance of a 100 W, 220 V
incandescent lamp?
option1: a. 2.2 ohm(s)
option4: d. 4.84 ohm(s)
challenge: 1
question: Which statement is true about a passive circuit?
option1: a. A circuit with neither a source of current nor a
source of potential difference
option2: b. A circuit with voltage source
option3: c. A circuit with a current source
option4: d. A circuit with only resistance as load
challenge: 4
question: _____ is a closed path made of several branches of the
network.
option1: a. junction
option2: b. node
option3: c. terminal
option4: d. loop
challenge: 3
question: The internal resistance of an ideal voltage source is
option2: b. equal to the load resistance
option3: c. zero
option4: d. to be determined
challenge: 1
question: What is the conductance of a circuit having three 10
ohm(s) resistors in parallel?
option1: a. 0.30 S
option2: b. 3.33 S
option3: c. 0.33 S
option4: d. 30 S
challenge: 3
question: Electric energy refers to
option1: a. volt divided by coulomb

option2: b. volt-ampere
option3: c. volt-coulomb
option4: d. watt divided by time
challenge: 4
question: A capacitor requires 12 µC of charge to raise its
potential to 3 V. What is the capacitance of the capacitor?
option1: a. 36 µF
option2: b. 15 µF
option3: c. 0.25 µF
option4: d. 4 µF
challenge: 1
question: A capacitor opposes change in
option1: a. voltage
option2: b. current
option3: c. voltage and current
option4: d. neither voltage or current
challenge: 3
question: What is the total resistance of a two equal valued
resistors in series?
option1: a. the difference of both
option2: b. the product of both
option3: c. twice as one
option4: d. the sum of their reciprocals
challenge: 2
question: The ratio of maximum value to the effective value of an
alternating quantity is called
option1: a. form factor
option2: b. peak factor
option3: c. dynamic factor
challenge: 2
question: For series capacitors, total charge is
option1: a. the sum of individual charges
option2: b. equal to the charge of either capacitors
option3: c. equal to the product of the charges
option4: d. the quotient of the charges
challenge: 2
question: Series resonant circuit is sometimes known as
option1: a. rejector circuit
option2: b. acceptor circuit
option3: c. inductive circuit
option4: d. capacitive circuit
challenge: 4
question: The force of attraction or repulsion between two poles
is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
This is known as
option1: a. Newton's first law
option2: b. Faraday's first law of electromagnetic induction
option3: c. Coulomb's first law
option4: d. Coulomb's second law

challenge: 3
question: Whenever a conductor cuts magnetic flux, an emf is
induced in it. This is known as
option1: a. Coulomb's Law
option2: b. Joule's Law
option3: c. Faraday's Law
option4: d. Ohm's Law
challenge: 4
question: A law that states that the polarity of the induced
voltage will oppose the change in magnetic flux causing the induction
option1: a. Joule's Law
option2: b. Faraday's Law
option3: c. Coulomb's Law
option4: d. Lenz' law
challenge: 3
question: States that current in a thermionic diode varies
directly with three-halves power of anode voltage and inversely with
the square of the distance between the electrodes when operating
conditions are such that the current is limited only by the space
charge
option1: a. Hall's Law
option2: b. Joule's Law
option3: c. Child's Law
option4: d. Coulomb's Law
challenge: 4
question: States that the ratio of the thermal conductivity to
the electric conductivity is proportional to the absolute temperature
of all metals
option1: a. Wien's displacement law
option2: b. Hartley's Law
option3: c. Hall's Law
option4: d. Wiedemann-Franz law
challenge: 3
question: A law establishing the fact that the algebraic sum of
the rises and drops of the mmf around a closed loop of a magnetic
circuit is equal to zero
option1: a. Kirchoff's circuital law
option2: b. Maxwell's circuital law
option3: c. Ampere's circuital law
option4: d. Coulomb's circuital law
challenge: 1
question: "The net electrical charge in an isolated system
remains constant". This is known as the
option1: a. Law of conservation of charge
option2: b. Coulomb's first law
option3: c. Coulomb's second law
option4: d. Law of conservation of energy
challenge: 1
question: Lenz's law is the consequence of the law of
conservation of

option1: a. energy
option2: b. charge
option3: c. field lines
option4: d. momentum
challenge: 4
question: Lenz' law states that the direction of the induced emf
and hence current
option1: a. is determined by the rate of current flux
option2: b. is found by the right hand rule
option3: c. is found by the left hand rule
option4: d. always opposes the cause producing it
challenge: 4
question: If you hold a conductor with right hand so that the
stretched thumb points in the direction of the current, then,
encircling fingers will give the direction of magnetic lines of force
round the conductor. This is known as
option1: a. left hand cork screw rule
option2: b. right hand cork screw rule
option3: c. left hand rule
option4: d. right hand rule
challenge: 3
question: If a right-handed bottle opener cork screw is assumed
to be along the conductor so as to advance in the direction of current
flow, the motion of the handle will indicate the direction of magnetic
flux produced around the conductor. This is known as
option1: a. right hand rule
option2: b. left hand rule
option3: c. cork screw rule
option4: d. end rule
challenge: 4
question: If in looking at any one end of a solenoid, the
direction of current flow is found to be clockwise then the end under
observation is a south pole. This is known as
option2: b. left hand rule
option3: c. cork screw rule
option4: d. end rule
challenge: 2
question: If the solenoid is gripped by the right hand with the
fingers pointing to the direction of the current flow, the outstretched
thumb will then point the north pole. This is known as
option2: b. helix rule
option3: c. end rule
option4: d. cork screw rule
challenge: 1
question: The process by which an emf and hence current is
generated or induced in an inductor when there is a change in the
magnetic flux linking the conductor is called
option1: a. electromagnetic induction
option2: b. mutual induction

option3: c. Faraday's law
option4: d. electromagnetic interference
challenge: 4
question: The emf induced in a coil due to the change in its own
flux linked with it is called
option1: a. mutually induced emf
option2: b. dynamically induced emf
option3: c. statically induced emf
option4: d. self induced emf
challenge: 1
question: The emf induced in a coil due to the changing current
of another neighboring coil is called
option1: a. mutually induced emf
option2: b. self induced emf
option3: c. statically induced emf
option4: d. dynamically induced emf
challenge: 1
question: When a conductor is stationary and the magnetic field
is moving or changing, the emf induced is called
option1: a. statically induced emf
option2: b. mutually induced emf
option3: c. self induced emf
option4: d. dynamically induced emf
challenge: 1
question: The magnetic potential in a magnetic circuit can be
measured in terms of
option1: a. mmf
option2: b. emf
option3: c. farad
option4: d. coulomb
challenge: 3
question: A substance that attracts pieces of iron
option2: b. semiconductor
option3: c. magnet
challenge: 1
question: The phenomenon by which a substance attracts pieces of
iron
option1: a. magnetism
option2: b. electromagnetism
option3: c. naturalism
option4: d. materialism
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following is a natural magnet?
option1: a. steel
option2: b. magnesia
option3: c. lodestone
option4: d. soft iron

challenge: 3
question: Defined as the pole which when placed in air from a
similar and equal pole repels it with a force of 1/(4*pi*Uo) newtons
option1: a. north pole
option2: b. south pole
option3: c. unit pole
option4: d. magnetic pole
challenge: 1
question: The point in a magnet where the intensity of magnetic
lines of force is maximum
option1: a. magnetic pole
option2: b. south pole
option3: c. north pole
option4: d. unit pole
challenge: 3
question: The straight line passing through the two poles of a
magnet is called
option1: a. real axis
option2: b. Cartesian axis
option3: c. magnetic axis
option4: d. imaginary axis
challenge: 2
question: The branch of engineering which deals with the magnetic
field of electric current is known as
option1: a. magnetism
option2: b. electromagnetism
option3: c. electrical engineering
option4: d. electronics engineering
challenge: 1
question: The space outside the magnet where its poles have a
force of attraction or repulsion on magnetic pole is called
option1: a. magnetic field
option2: b. electric field
option3: c. electromagnetic field
option4: d. free space field
challenge: 1
question: The total number of magnetic lines of force in a
magnetic field is called
option1: a. magnetic flux
option2: b. magnetic flux density
option3: c. magnetic flux intensity
option4: d. magnetic potential
challenge: 3
question: The phenomenon by which a magnetic substance becomes a
magnet when it is placed near a magnet
option1: a. magnetic effect
option2: b. magnetic phenomenon
option3: c. magnetic induction
option4: d. electromagnetic induction
challenge: 1

question: Which of the following magnetic materials which can be
easily magnetized in both directions?
option1: a. soft magnetic materials
option2: b. hard magnetic materials
option3: c. high hysteresis loss materials
option4: d. low hysteresis loss materials
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following materials has permeability
slightly less than that of free space?
option1: a. paramagnetic
option2: b. non-magnetic
option3: c. ferromagnetic
option4: d. diamagnetic
challenge: 1
question: Materials whose permeabilities are slightly greater
than that of free space
challenge: 3
question: Materials that have very high permeabilities (hundred
and even thousand times that of free space).
challenge: 2
question: The current of the electric circuit is analogous to
which quantity of a magnetic circuit.
option1: a. mmf
option2: b. flux
option3: c. flux density
option4: d. reluctivity
challenge: 1
question: What is the diameter of an atom?
option1: a. about 10^-10 m
option2: b. about 10^-10 cm
option3: c. about 10^-10 mm
option4: d. about 10^-10 um
challenge: 2
question: Defined as a closed path in which magnetic induction or
flux flows.
option1: a. electric circuit
option2: b. magnetic circuit
option3: c. electronic circuit
option4: d. electromagnetic circuit
challenge: 4
question: The force which sets up or tends to set up magnetic
flux in a magnetic circuit

option1: a. dynamic force
option2: b. electromotive force
option3: c. potential difference
option4: d. magnetomotive force
challenge: 2
question: Referred to as the specific reluctance of a material.
option2: b. reluctivity
option3: c. conductivity
option4: d. permeability
challenge: 2
question: The property of a material which opposes the creation
of a magnetic flux in it.
option2: b. reluctance
option3: c. permeance
challenge: 3
question: It is the reciprocal of reluctance and implies the ease
of readiness with which magnetic flux is developed
option3: c. permeance
option4: d. inductance
challenge: 4
question: The ability of a material to conduct magnetic flux
through it.
option1: a. permittivity
option3: c. conductivity
option4: d. permeability
challenge: 1
question: The ratio of the permeability of a material to the
permeability of air or vacuum.
option1: a. relative permeability
option2: b. relative permittivity
option3: c. relative conductivity
option4: d. relative reluctivity
challenge: 1
question: Permeance is analogous to
option1: a. conductance
option2: b. reluctance
option3: c. admittance
challenge: 1
question: The property of the magnetic materials of retaining
magnetism after withdrawal of the magnetizing force is known as
option1: a. retentivity
option3: c. resistivity

option4: d. conductivity
challenge: 3
question: The quantity of magnetism retained by a magnetic
material after withdrawal of the magnetizing force is known as
option1: a. leftover magnetism
option2: b. hysteresis
option3: c. residual magnetism
option4: d. coercivity
challenge: 1
question: The amount of magnetizing force to counter balance the
residual magnetism of a magnetic material is referred to as
option1: a. reluctivity
option2: b. susceptibility
option3: c. coercivity
option4: d. retentivity
challenge: 4
question: The ratio of the total flux (flux iron path) to the
useful flux (flux in air gap).
option1: a. leakage flux
option2: b. leakage current
option3: c. leakage coefficient
challenge: 3
question: Defined as the number of lines per unit area through
any substance in a plane at right angles to the lines of force
option1: a. flux
option2: b. flux lines
option3: c. flux density
option4: d. flux intensity
challenge: 4
question: Defined as the flux density produced in it due to its
own induced magnetism
option1: a. magnetic field intensity
option2: b. electric field intensity
option3: c. electromagnetic field intensity
option4: d. intensity magnetization
challenge: 1
question: The force acting on a unit n-pole placed at that point
is called
option1: a. magnetic field intensity
option2: b. electric field intensity
option3: c. electromagnetic field intensity
option4: d. intensity magnetization
challenge: 3
question: The ratio between the intensity of magnetization
produced in substance to the magnetizing force producing it
option1: a. magnetic reluctivity
option2: b. magnetic resistivity
option3: c. magnetic susceptibility
option4: d. magnetic conductivity

challenge: 3
question: The lagging effect between flux density of the material
and the magnetizing force applied.
option1: a. permeance
option2: b. eddy current
option3: c. hysteresis
option4: d. reluctance
challenge: 1
question: Refers to the magnetic lines of force
option1: a. flux
option3: c. current
challenge: 1
question: Refers to the non-metallic materials that have the
ferromagnetic properties of iron.
option1: a. ferrites
option2: b. ferromagnetic
option3: c. diamagnetic
option4: d. paramagnetic
challenge: 1
question: The air space between poles of magnets
option1: a. air gap
option2: b. free space
option3: c. vacuum
option4: d. atmosphere
challenge: 2
question: One that has magnetic poles produced by internal atomic
structure with no external current necessary
option1: a. diamagnetic
option2: b. permanent magnet
option3: c. paramagnetic
option4: d. electromagnetic
challenge: 3
question: Magnetic fields of the earth as a huge magnet with
north and south poles.
option3: c. terrestrial magnetism
option4: d. terrestrial ferromagnetism
challenge: 3
question: Used to maintain strength of magnetic field.
option1: a. Container
option2: b. Air gap
option3: c. Keeper
option4: d. Source
challenge: 1
question: All magnetic field originates from
option1: a. moving electric charge

option2: b. iron atoms
option3: c. magnetic domain
option4: d. permanent magnets
challenge: 4
question: Magnetic fields do not interact with
option1: a. moving permanent magnets
option2: b. stationary permanent magnets
option3: c. moving electric charges
option4: d. stationary electric charges
challenge: 2
question: The magnetic field inside a solenoid
option1: a. is zero
option2: b. is uniform
option3: c. increases with distance from the axis
option4: d. decreases with distance from the axis
challenge: 2
question: When the ferromagnetic substance is inserted in a
current-carrying solenoid, the magnetic field is
option1: a. greatly decreased
option2: b. greatly increased
option3: c. slightly decreased
option4: d. slightly increased
challenge: 4
question: The magnetic field of a bar magnet most closely
resembles that of
option1: a. a horseshoe magnet
option2: b. a straight current-carrying wire
option3: c. a stream of electrons moving parallel to one another
option4: d. a current-carrying wire loop
challenge: 1
question: The magnetic field of a magnetized iron bar when
strongly heated
option1: a. becomes weaker
option2: b. becomes stronger
option3: c. reverses direction
option4: d. is unchanged
challenge: 4
question: A permanent magnet does not exert force on
option1: a. an unmagnetized iron bar
option2: b. a magnetized iron bar
option3: c. a moving electric charge
option4: d. a stationary electric charge
challenge: 1
question: A current is flowing east along a power line. If the
earth's field is neglected, the direction of the magnetic field below
it is
option1: a. north
option2: b. south
option3: c. east
option4: d. west

challenge: 1
question: The emf produced in a wire by its motion across a
magnetic field does not depend upon
option1: a. the diameter of the wire
option2: b. the length of the wire
option3: c. the orientation of the wire
option4: d. the flux density of the field
challenge: 1
question: The induced emf in a wire loop that is moved parallel
to a uniform magnetic field is
option1: a. zero
option2: b. dependent on the area of the loop
option3: c. dependent on the shape of the loop
option4: d. dependent on the magnitude of the field
challenge: 2
question: When a wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field, the
direction of the induced emf changes one in every _____ revolution.
option1: a. 1/3
option2: b. 1/2
option3: c. 1/4
option4: d. 2/3
challenge: 3
question: The magnetic flux through a wire loop in a magnetic
field does not depend on
option1: a. the area of the loop
option2: b. the magnitude of the loop
option3: c. the shape of the loop
option4: d. the angle between the plane of the loop and the
direction
challenge: 1
question: Steel is hard to magnetize because of its
option1: a. low permeability
option2: b. high permeability
option3: c. high density
option4: d. high retentivity
challenge: 3
question: Paramagnetic substance has a relative permeability of
option1: a. slightly less than one
option2: b. equal to one
option3: c. slightly greater than one
option4: d. very much greater than one
challenge: 3
question: A group of magnetically aligned atoms is called
option1: a. range
option2: b. lattice
option3: c. domain
option4: d. crystal
challenge: 4
question: The force between two magnetic poles varies with

distance between them. The variation is _____ to the square of that
distance
option1: a. equal
option2: b. greater than
option3: c. directly proportional
option4: d. inversely proportional
challenge: 1
question: Permeability means
option1: a. the conductivity of the material for magnetic lines
of force
option2: b. the magnetization test in the material after exciting
field has been removed
option3: c. the strength of an electromagnet
option4: d. the strength of the permanent magnet
challenge: 3
question: _____ is an electromagnet with its core in the form of
a close magnetic ring.
option1: a. solenoid
option2: b. paraboloid
option3: c. toroid
option4: d. cycloid
challenge: 1
question: A magnetic material loses its ferromagnetic properties
at a point called
option1: a. curie temperature
option2: b. inferred absolute temperature
option3: c. room temperature
option4: d. absolute temperature
challenge: 3
question: Small voltages generated by a conductor with current in
an external magnetic field.
option2: b. magnetic effect
option3: c. hall effect
option4: d. flywheel effect
challenge: 2
question: The emission of electrons from hot bodies is called
option1: a. radiation effect
option2: b. Edison effect
option3: c. skin effect
option4: d. hall effect
challenge: 3
question: The ability of a mechanically stressed ferromagnetic
wire to recognize rapid switching of magnetization when subjected to a
dc magnetic field.
option1: a. Wartheim effect
option2: b. Wiedemann effect
option3: c. Wiegand effect
option4: d. Edison effect
challenge: 3

question: An effect which is generally used in the gaussmeter to
measure flux density.
option2: b. magnetic effect
option3: c. Hall effect
option4: d. flywheel effect
challenge: 2
question: The contribution to the ionization in an ionization
chamber by electrons liberated from the walls.
option2: b. wall effect
option3: c. Hall effect
option4: d. Edison effect
challenge: 1
question: The tiniest element of matter.
option1: a. atom
option2: b. proton
option4: d. neutron
challenge: 4
question: All matters (gas, liquid, and solid) are composed of
option1: a. neutrons
option2: b. particles
option3: c. electrons
option4: d. atoms
challenge: 2
question: The simplest type of atom to exist is the _____ atom.
option1: a. helium
option2: b. hydrogen
option3: c. boron
option4: d. oxygen
challenge: 3
question: What revolves around the positive nucleus in a definite
orbit?
option1: a. atom
option2: b. proton
option4: d. neutron
challenge: 4
question: The uncharged particles which have no effect on its
atomic charge?
option1: a. nucleons
option2: b. electrons
option3: c. protons
option4: d. neutrons
challenge: 3
question: The diameter of a hydrogen atom is approximately _____
cm.
option1: a. 1.1 x 10^-6
option2: b. 1.1 x 10^-7

option3: c. 1.1 x 10^-8
option4: d. 1.1 x 10^-9
challenge: 2
question: The K shell or the first shell has how many permissible
number of orbiting electrons?
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 2
option3: c. 3
option4: d. 4
challenge: 1
question: Germanium atom has _____ protons and _____ electrons.
option1: a. 32, 32
option2: b. 32, 42
option3: c. 42, 32
option4: d. 34, 34
challenge: 2
question: A germanium atom has an atomic weight of 72. How many
neutrons are these?
option1: a. 32
option2: b. 40
option3: c. 34
option4: d. 36
challenge: 3
question: How many neutrons does a copper atom have?
option1: a. 32
option2: b. 33
option3: c. 34
option4: d. 29
challenge: 4
question: Bonding of atoms that is due to the attraction between
positive ions and a group of negative ions.
option1: a. ionic bonding
option2: b. covalent bonding
option3: c. electrostatic bonding
option4: d. metallic bonding
challenge: 1
question: An alloy of 22 percent iron and 78 percent nickel.
option1: a. permalloy
option2: b. alnico
option3: c. constantan
option4: d. manganin
challenge: 3
question: An alloy of 40 percent iron and 60 percent nickel.
option1: a. alnico
option2: b. permalloy
option3: c. hipernik
challenge: 1
question: A commercial alloy of aluminum, nickel, and iron, with

cobalt, copper, and titanium added to produce about 12 grades.
option1: a. alnico
option2: b. brass
option3: c. aluminum
challenge: 3
question: The idea of preventing one component from affecting
another through their common electric and magnetic field is referred to
as
option1: a. Hall effect
option2: b. grounding
option3: c. shielding
option4: d. limiting
challenge: 1
question: The physical motion resulting from the forces of
magnetic fields is called
option1: a. motor action
option2: b. rotation
option3: c. repulsion
option4: d. torque action
challenge: 4
question: Flux linkages equals
option1: a. flux times area of core
option2: b. flux times number of turns times area of core
option3: c. flux times number of turns times length of core
option4: d. flux times number of turns
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following is a vector quantity?
option1: a. magnetic potential
option2: b. magnetic field intensity
option3: c. magnetic permeability
option4: d. flux density
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following electric quantities is vector in
character?
option1: a. field
option2: b. charge
option3: c. energy
option4: d. potential difference
challenge: 1
question: The quantity 10^8 maxwells is equivalent to one
option1: a. Weber
option2: b. gauss
option3: c. Gilbert
option4: d. tesla
challenge: 3
question: What is the unit of reluctance?
option1: a. Maxwell
option2: b. gauss
option3: c. At/Wb

option4: d. Weber
challenge: 2
question: What is the SI unit of magnetic flux?
option1: a. Tesla
option2: b. Weber
option3: c. Maxwell
option4: d. Gauss
challenge: 3
question: What is the unit of magnetomotive force?
option1: a. volt
option2: b. tesla
option3: c. ampere-turn
option4: d. Weber
challenge: 1
question: What is the cgs unit of magnetomotive force?
option1: a. Gilbert
option2: b. Ampere-turn
option3: c. Maxwell
option4: d. Weber
challenge: 3
question: The unit of flux is _____ in cgs system.
option1: a. Tesla
option2: b. Gilbert
option3: c. Maxwell
option4: d. Oersted
challenge: 1
question: Flux density is measured in
option1: a. Tesla
option2: b. Weber
option3: c. Ampere-turn
option4: d. Maxwell
challenge: 3
question: The customary energy unit in atomic and nuclear physics
is
option1: a. joule
option2: b. volt-coulomb
option3: c. electron-volt
option4: d. watt-second
challenge: 2
question: One ampere-turn is equivalent to _____ gilberts.
option1: a. 1.16
option2: b. 1.26
option3: c. 1.36
option4: d. 1.46
challenge: 2
question: The magnetic flux of 2000 lines is how many in
maxwells?
option1: a. 1000
option2: b. 2000

option3: c. 4000
option4: d. 8000
challenge: 1
question: How much is the magnetic flux of 2000 lines in weber?
option1: a. 2 x 10^-5
option2: b. 2 x 10^-3
option3: c. 2 x 10^5
option4: d. 2 x 10^3
challenge: 1
question: One Oersted (Oe) is equivalent to _____ Gb/cm.
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 10
option3: c. 100
option4: d. 1000
challenge: 4
question: One electron volt (1 eV) is equivalent to _____ joules.
option1: a. 1.3 x 10^-19
option2: b. 1.4 x 10^-19
option3: c. 1.5 x 10^-19
option4: d. 1.6 x 10^-19
challenge: 1
question: An electron-volt (eV) is a unit of
option1: a. energy
option2: b. potential difference
option3: c. charge
option4: d. momentum
challenge: 4
question: The unit of electrical energy is
option1: a. joule
option2: b. watt-second
option3: c. kilowatt-hour
option4: d. all of these
challenge: 4
question: Electrons at the outer shell are called
option1: a. outer shell electrons
option2: b. inner shell electrons
option3: c. semiconductor electrons
option4: d. valence electrons
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following has the least number of valence
electrons?
option3: c. insulator
option4: d. semi-insulator
challenge: 1
question: A good conductor has how many valence electrons?
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 4

option3: c. 2
option4: d. 8
challenge: 3
question: Which element has four valence electrons?
option2: b. insulator
option3: c. semiconductor
option4: d. semi-insulator
challenge: 1
question: A negative ion results when an atom gains an additional
option2: b. proton
option3: c. neutron
option4: d. atom
challenge: 3
question: An atom or a group of atoms that carries a net electric
charge.
option1: a. positive ion
option2: b. negative ion
option3: c. ion
option4: d. electron
challenge: 4
question: Hysteresis refers to the _____ between flux density of
the material and the magnetizing force applied.
option1: a. leading effect
option2: b. ratio
option3: c. equality
option4: d. lagging effect
challenge: 2
question: Hydrogen is an example of a _____ material.
option2: b. diamagnetic
option4: d. non-magnetic
challenge: 3
question: Cobalt is an example of a _____ material.
option2: b. diamagnetic
challenge: 3
question: The evaporation of electrons from a heated surface is
called
option1: a. radiation
option2: b. convection
option3: c. thermionic emission
option4: d. conduction
challenge: 1
question: Electron is a Greek word for

option1: a. amber
option2: b. fire
option3: c. stone
option4: d. heat
challenge: 4
question: Gases whose particles are charged are known as
option1: a. conductors
option2: b. insulators
option3: c. gaseous conductors
option4: d. plasma
challenge: 2
question: What principle states that each electron in an atom
must have a different set of quantum numbers?
option1: a. inclusion principle
option2: b. exclusion principle
option3: c. quantum principle
option4: d. electron principle
challenge: 3
question: The energy stored in an electrostatic field or
electromagnetic field is called
option1: a. electromagnetic energy
option2: b. kinetic energy
option3: c. potential energy
option4: d. rest energy
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following statements is TRUE?
option1: a. Silicon dioxide is a good conductor
option2: b. the current carriers in conductors are valence
electrons
option3: c. for conductors, the valence electrons are strongly
attracted to the nucleus
option4: d. the valence electrons are located in the nucleus of
an atom
challenge: 1
question: How many electrons are needed in the valence orbit to
give a material stability?
option1: a. 8
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 6
option4: d. 5
challenge: 2
question: Residual magnetism refers to the flux density, which
exists in the iron core when the magnetic field intensity is
option1: a. minimized
option2: b. reduced to zero
option3: c. maximize
option4: d. unity
challenge: 4
question: Magnetic intensity is a
option1: a. phasor quantity

option2: b. physical quantity
option3: c. scalar quantity
option4: d. vector quantity
challenge: 4
question: The core of a magnetic equipment uses a magnetic
material with
option1: a. least permeability
option2: b. low permeability
option3: c. moderate permeability
option4: d. high permeability
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following is a paramagnetic material?
option1: a. carbon
option2: b. copper
option3: c. bismuth
option4: d. oxygen
challenge: 1
question: The permeability of permalloy is
option1: a. very much greater than the permeability of air
option2: b. slightly greater than permeability of air
option3: c. slightly less than permeability of air
option4: d. equal to the permeability of air
challenge: 4
question: A-t/m is a unit of
option1: a. mmf
option2: b. emf
option3: c. reluctance
option4: d. magnetizing force
challenge: 2
question: The force between two magnetic poles is _____ their
poles strength.
option1: a. equal to
option2: b. directly proportional to
option3: c. inversely proportional to
option4: d. directly proportional to the square root of
challenge: 3
question: The magnetic energy stored in an inductor is _____
current.
option3: c. directly proportional to the square of
option4: d. inversely proportional to the square of
challenge: 1
question: One of the main application of an air-cored choke.
option1: a. radio frequency
option2: b. audio frequency
option3: c. power supply
option4: d. power transformer
challenge: 3

question: How is the mutual inductance between two coils
decreased?
option1: a. by using a common core
option2: b. by moving the coils closer
option3: c. by moving the coils apart
option4: d. by increasing the number of turns of either coil
challenge: 1
question: _____ bond is formed when one or more electrons in the
outermost energy orbit of an atom are transferred to another.
option1: a. ionic
option2: b. covalent
option3: c. metallic
option4: d. Van der Waals
challenge: 1
question: In electro-mechanical conversion devices like
generators and motors, the reason why a small air gap is left between
the rotor and stator is to
option1: a. permit mechanical clearance
option2: b. increase flux density in air gap
option3: c. decrease the reluctance of magnetic path
option4: d. complete the magnetic path
challenge: 2
question: _____ bond is formed when electrons in the outermost
energy orbits of the atoms are shared between two or more electrons.
option1: a. ionic
challenge: 4
question: Why is it that the magnitude of magnetomotive force
required for air gap is much greater than that required for iron part
of magnetic circuit?
option1: a. because air is a gas
option2: b. because air has the highest relative permeability
option3: c. because air is a conductor of magnetic flux
option4: d. because air has the lowest relative permeability
challenge: 3
question: What type of bond is formed when there exists some form
of collective interactions between the (negatively charged) electrons
and the (positively charged) nuclei in a solid?
option1: a. ionic
challenge: 1
question: Permeance of a magnetic circuit is _____ the cross-
sectional area of the circuit.
option3: c. dependent of
option4: d. independent of

challenge: 4
question: Formed when there exist distant electronic interactions
between (opposite) charges present in the neighboring atoms or
molecules.
option1: a. ionic bond
option2: b. covalent bond
option3: c. metallic bond
option4: d. Van der Waals bond
challenge: 1
question: Defined as the ratio of the volume occupied by the
atoms or ions in a unit cell divided by the volume of the unit cell and
is used to measure the compactness of a crystal.
option1: a. atomic packing factor (APF)
option2: b. ionic packing ratio (IPR)
option3: c. atomic compacting factor (ACF)
option4: d. ionic compacting ratio (ICR)
challenge: 4
question: A factor used to correct for electrostatic forces of
the more distant ions in an ionic solid.
option1: a. Avogadro's number
option2: b. Planck's constant
option3: c. Boltzmann's constant
option4: d. Madelung constant
challenge: 1
question: The conduction of electricity across the surface of a
dielectric is called.
option1: a. creepage
option2: b. skin effect
option3: c. surface effect
option4: d. crosstalk
challenge: 1
question: A magnetic circuit carries a flux phi(i) in the iron
part and flux phi(g) in the air gap. What is the leakage coefficient?
option1: a. phi(i) / phi(g)
option2: b. phi(i) x phi(g)
option3: c. phi(g) / phi(i)
option4: d. phi(i) + phi(g)
challenge: 1
question: A law stating that the magnetic susceptibilities of
most paramagnetic substances are inversely proportional to their
absolute temperatures.
option1: a. Curie's law
option2: b. Child's law
option3: c. CR law
option4: d. Curie-Weiss law
challenge: 2
question: The reluctance of the magnetic circuit is _____
relative permeability of the material comprising the circuit.

option3: c. independent of
option4: d. dependent of
challenge: 4
question: A law relating between the magnetic and electric
susceptibilities and the absolute temperatures which is followed by
ferromagnets, antiferromagnets, non-polar ferroelectrics, anti-
ferroelectrics and some paramagnets.
option1: a. Curie's law
option2: b. CR law
option3: c. Child's law
option4: d. Curie-Weiss law
challenge: 1
question: Theory of ferromagnetic phenomena which assumes each
atom is a permanent magnet which can turn freely about its center under
the influence of applied fields and other magnets.
option1: a. Ewing's theory of ferromagnetism
option2: b. Oersted's ferromagnetism theory
option3: c. Maxwells' magnetic theory
option4: d. Ampere's circuital law
challenge: 3
question: The reluctance of a magnetic circuit varies with
option1: a. length X area
option2: b. area / length
option3: c. length / area
option4: d. length + area
challenge: 4
question: A theorem which states that an electric current flowing
in a circuit produces a magnetic field at external points equivalent to
that due to a magnetic shell whose bounding edge is the conductor and
whose strength is equal to the strength of the current.
option1: a. Joule's law
option2: b. Faraday's law
option3: c. Volta's theorem
option4: d. Ampere's theorem
challenge: 4
question: What is the usual value of the leakage coefficient for
electrical machines?
option1: a. 0.5 to 1
option2: b. 1 to 5
option3: c. 5 to 10
option4: d. 1.15 to 1.25
challenge: 4
question: The science of adapting electronics to aerospace
flight.
option1: a. avionics
option2: b. aerotronics
option3: c. aerodynamics
option4: d. astrionics
challenge: 3
question: The reluctance of a magnetic circuit is not dependent

on which of the following?
option1: a. number of turns of coil
option2: b. magnetomotive force
option3: c. flux density in the circuit
option4: d. current in the coil
challenge: 3
question: Another term for corona discharge.
option1: a. lightning
option2: b. sparking
option3: c. aurora
option4: d. corona effect
challenge: 2
question: The B-H curve for _____ is a straight line passing
through the origin.
option1: a. cobalt
option2: b. air
option3: c. hardened steel
challenge: 1
question: The phenomenon that when an electric current passes
through an arisotropic crystal, there is an absorption or liberation of
heat due to the nonuniformity in the current distribution.
option1: a. Bridgman effect
option2: b. Corona effect
option3: c. Dember effect
option4: d. Destriau effect
challenge: 4
question: The B-H curve of _____ is not a straight line.
option1: a. air
option2: b. wood
option3: c. silicon steel
challenge: 1
question: If a magnetic flux cuts across 200 turns at a rate of 2
Wb/s, the induced voltage according to Faraday's law is about
option1: a. 400 V
option2: b. 100 V
option3: c. 200 V
option4: d. 600 V
challenge: 4
question: What is the SI unit of reluctance?
option1: a. AT
option2: b. AT/m
option3: c. N/Wb
option4: d. AT/Wb
challenge: 1
question: A magnetizing force of 1000 At/m will produce a flux
density of _____ in air.
option1: a. 1.257 mWb/sq m
option2: b. 0.63 Wb/sq m

option3: c. 1.257 Wb/sq m
option4: d. 0.63 mWb/sq m
challenge: 2
question: Hysteresis loss can be reduced by the following.
option1: a. increasing mmf of the circuit
option2: b. using material of narrow hysteresis loop
option3: c. using ferromagnetic core
option4: d. laminating the magnetic circuit
challenge: 4
question: The core of a transformer heats up when its primary is
fed from an ac source because of
option1: a. permeability of core
option2: b. ferromagnetism
option3: c. reluctance of core
option4: d. hsyteresis loss
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following materials has the least
hysteresis loop area?
option1: a. soft iron
option2: b. silicon steel
option3: c. hard steel
option4: d. wrought iron
challenge: 2
question: Core materials of a good relay have _____ hysteresis
loop.
option1: a. large
option2: b. narrow
option3: c. very large
option4: d. very narrow
challenge: 3
question: The magnetic materials should have a large hysteresis
loss for one of the following applications.
option1: a. transformers
option2: b. AC motors
option3: c. permanent magnets
option4: d. DC generators
challenge: 1
question: If the magnetic material is located within a coil
through which alternating current (60 Hz frequency) flows, then _____
hysteresis loops will be formed every second.
option1: a. 60
option2: b. 120
option3: c. 30
option4: d. 180
challenge: 4
question: There are how many compounds available in nature?
option1: a. 105
option2: b. 1000
option3: c. 300,000
option4: d. unlimited

challenge: 2
question: Hysteresis is a phenomenon of _____ in a magnetic
circuit.
option1: a. setting up constant flux
option2: b. lagging of H behind B
option3: c. lagging of B behind H
option4: d. leading of B ahead H
challenge: 1
question: What is a measure of the density and sign of the
electric charge at a point relative to that at some time?
option1: a. electric potential
option2: b. electric charge
option3: c. electric current
option4: d. electric intensity
challenge: 3
question: _____ is a substance whose molecules consist of the
same kind of atom.
option1: a. mixture
option2: b. compound
option3: c. element
option4: d. isotope
challenge: 1
question: Hipernik is an alloy containing _____ iron and _____
nickel.
option1: a. 40% ; 60 %
option2: b. 60% ; 40 %
option3: c. 50% ; 50 %
option4: d. 70% ; 30 %
challenge: 2
question: The mass of proton is _____ the mass of an electron.
option2: b. about 1837 times
option3: c. less than
option4: d. 200 times
challenge: 3
question: What is the maximum number of electrons that can be
accommodated in the last orbit of an atom?
option1: a. 4
option2: b. 2
option3: c. 8
option4: d. 18
challenge: 2
question: The electrons in the last orbit of an atom are called
_____ electrons.
option1: a. free
option2: b. valence
option3: c. bound
option4: d. thermionic
challenge: 1

question: If the number of valence electrons of an atom is less
than 4, the substance is called
option1: a. a conductor
option2: b. a semiconductor
option3: c. an insulator
option4: d. a superconductor
challenge: 3
question: If the number of valence electrons of an atom is more
than 4, the substance is called
option1: a. a semiconductor
option2: b. a conductor
option4: d. a semi-insulator
challenge: 1
question: If the number of valence electrons of an atom is
exactly 4, then the substance is called
option1: a. a semiconductor
option2: b. a conductor
option4: d. a cryogenic conductor
challenge: 1
question: If the number of valence electrons of an atom is less
than 4, then the substance is probably
option1: a. a metal
option2: b. an insulator
option3: c. a non-metal
option4: d. a semiconductor
challenge: 1
question: One coulomb of charge consists of _____ electrons.
option1: a. 624 x 10^16
option2: b. 62.4 x 10^16
option3: c. 6.24 x 10^16
option4: d. 0.624 x 10^16
challenge: 2
question: A one cubic cm. of copper has how many free electrons
at room temperature?
option1: a. 80 x 10^18
option2: b. 8.5 x 10^22
option3: c. 20 x 10^10
option4: d. 50 x 10^20
challenge: 1
question: Electric current in a wire is the flow of _____
electrons.
option1: a. free
option2: b. valence
option3: c. bound
option4: d. loose
challenge: 1
question: Electromotive force in a circuit
option1: a. causes free electrons to flow

option2: b. increases the circuit resistance
option3: c. maintains circuit resistance
option4: d. is needed to make the circuit complete
challenge: 3
question: The resistance of a material is _____ its area of
cross-section.
option1: a. directly proportional
option2: b. independent of
challenge: 3
question: If the length and area of cross-section of a wire are
doubled, then its resistance
option1: a. becomes four times
option2: b. becomes sixteen times
option3: c. remains the same
option4: d. becomes two times
challenge: 3
question: A length of wire has a resistance of 10 ohms. What is
the resistance of a wire of the same material three times as long and
twice the cross-sectional area?
option1: a. 30 ohms
option2: b. 20 ohms
option3: c. 15 ohms
option4: d. 7 ohms
challenge: 3
question: What is the SI unit of specific resistance or
resistivity?
option1: a. Ohm-circular mil per inch
option2: b. Ohm-circular mil per foot
option3: c. ohm-m
option4: d. ohm-cm
challenge: 1
question: The resistivity of a conductor _____ with an increase
in temperature.
option1: a. increases
option2: b. decreases
option4: d. becomes zero
challenge: 1
question: What is the SI unit of conductance?
option1: a. Siemens
option2: b. Mhos
option3: c. Ohms
option4: d. 1/Ohms
challenge: 2
question: If the resistance of a material 2 m long and 2 sq m in
area of cross-section is 1.6 x 10^-18, then its resistivity is
option1: a. 3.2 x 10^-18 ohm-m
option2: b. 1.6 x 10^-18 ohm-m

option3: c. 0.64 x 10^-18 ohm-m
option4: d. 0.16 x 10^-18 ohm-m
challenge: 4
question: What is the SI unit of conductivity?
option1: a. Ohms/m
option2: b. Ohms-m
option3: c. Siemens-m
option4: d. Siemens/m
challenge: 1
question: The temperature coefficient of resistance of conductors
is
option2: b. zero
option3: c. negative
challenge: 3
question: The temperature coefficient of resistance of
semiconductors is
option2: b. zero
option3: c. negative
challenge: 4
question: What determines the value of the temperature
coefficient of resistance of a material?
option1: a. length
option2: b. cross-sectional area
option3: c. volume
option4: d. nature and temperature
challenge: 2
question: The temperature coefficient of resistance of a
conductor _____ with an increase in temperature.
option4: d. becomes negative
challenge: 2
question: The temperature coefficient of resistance of insulators
is
option1: a. zero
option3: c. positive
challenge: 3
question: The temperature coefficient of resistance of eureka is
option3: c. almost zero

challenge: 2
question: If the value of alpha(o) of a conductor is 1/234 per
degree Celsius, then the value of alpha(18) is
option1: a. 1/218 per degree Celsius
option2: b. 1/252 per degree Celsius
option3: c. 1/272 per degree Celsius
option4: d. 1/273 per degree Celsius
challenge: 2
question: If the value of alpha(25) of a conductor is 1/255 per
challenge: 1
question: If the value of alpha(50) of a conductor is 1/230 per
challenge: 3
question: Ohm's law cannot be applied to which material?
option1: a. copper
option2: b. silver
option3: c. silicon carbide
option4: d. aluminum
challenge: 2
question: What is the practical unit of electrical energy?
option1: a. watt
option2: b. kilowatt-hour
option3: c. kilowatt-second
option4: d. megawatt-hour
challenge: 2
question: A 200-watt lamp working for 24 hours will consume
approximately _____ units.
option1: a. 50
option2: b. 5
option3: c. 24
option4: d. 0.5
challenge: 1
question: The hot resistance of an incandescent lamp is about
_____ its cold resistance.
option1: a. 10 times
option2: b. 100 times
option3: c. 5 times
option4: d. 50 times
challenge: 2
question: Under ordinary conditions, a body is considered
option1: a. positively charged

option2: b. neutral
option3: c. negatively charged
option4: d. stable
challenge: 1
question: A positively charged body has
option1: a. deficit of electrons
option2: b. excess of neutrons
option3: c. excess of electrons
option4: d. deficit of protons
challenge: 3
question: A negatively charged body has
option1: a. deficit of electrons
option2: b. excess of protons
option3: c. excess of electrons
option4: d. deficit of neutrons
challenge: 1
question: This paper does not exhibit electricity because it
contains the same number of
option1: a. protons and electrons
option2: b. neutrons and electrons
option3: c. neutrons and positrons
option4: d. atoms
challenge: 3
question: What is the value of the absolute permittivity of air?
option1: a. 8.854 uF/m
option2: b. 8.854 x 10^-12 mF/m
option3: c. 8.854 x 10^-12 F/m
option4: d. 8.854 x 10^-12 uF/m
challenge: 2
question: What is the relative permittivity of air?
option1: a. 0
option2: b. 1
option3: c. 8.854 x 10^-12
option4: d. 4*pi x 10^-7
challenge: 2
question: If two similar charges 1 coulomb each, are placed 1 m
apart in air, then the force of repulsion is
option1: a. 8 x 10^6 N
option2: b. 9 x 10^9 N
option3: c. 10^6 N
option4: d. 5 x 10^6 N
challenge: 3
question: If the relative permittivity of a material is 10, then
its permittivity is
option1: a. 4*pi x 10^-7 F/m
option2: b. 4*pi x 10^-6 F/m
option3: c. 8.854 x 10^-11 F/m
option4: d. 8.854 x 10^-12 F/m
challenge: 2

question: The force between two charges placed a given distance
apart _____ as the relative permittivity of the medium is increased.
option3: c. remains unchanged
option4: d. becomes infinite
challenge: 4
question: What is another name for relative permittivity?
option1: a. dielectric strength
option2: b. electric intensity
option3: c. potential gradient
option4: d. dielectric constant
challenge: 4
question: The relation between absolute permittivity of air,
epsilon(o), absolute permeability of air, mu(o), and velocity of light,
c, is given by
option1: a. mu(o) * epsilon(o) = c^2
option2: b. mu(o) * epsilon(o) = c
option3: c. 1/(mu(o) * epsilon(o)) = c
option4: d. 1/(mu(o) * epsilon(o)) = c^2
challenge: 1
question: The dielectric constant of most material lies between
option1: a. 1 and 100
option2: b. 10 and 20
option3: c. 20 and 50
option4: d. 50 and 100
challenge: 3
question: A test charge means a charge of
option1: a. -1 C
option2: b. 1 electron
option3: c. +1 C
option4: d. -20 C
challenge: 3
question: Electric lines of force leave or enter the charge
surface at an angle of
option1: a. 30 degrees
option2: b. 45 degrees
option3: c. 90 degrees
option4: d. depending upon the angle of launch and entry
challenge: 1
question: Electric field intensity is measured in
option1: a. volts/meter
option2: b. newtons/meter
option3: c. newton-meter
option4: d. amperes/meter
challenge: 3
question: Electric field intensity is a _____ quantity.
option1: a. scalar
option2: b. phasor
option3: c. vector

challenge: 3
question: Electric field intensity at a point due to a given
charge _____ if the relative permittivity of the medium decreases.
option2: b. remains unchanged
challenge: 3
question: The electric field intensity between the parallel plate
capacitor is 2o N/C. If an insulating slab of relative permittivity 5
is placed between the plates, then electric field intensity will be
option1: a. 20 N/C
option2: b. 100 N/C
option3: c. 4 N/C
option4: d. 40 N/C
challenge: 2
question: The electric field density is a _____ quantity.
option1: a. phasor
option2: b. vector
option3: c. scalar
challenge: 4
question: The permittivity of a given material is given by one of
the following formulas.
option1: a. DE
option2: b. E/D
option3: c. D^2/E
option4: d. D/E
challenge: 4
question: Electric field intensity at a point is numerically
equal to _____ at that point.
option1: a. potential gradient
option2: b. potential difference
option3: c. dielectric constant
option4: d. the force
challenge: 1
question: Three charges of +5 C, -6 C, and +9 C are placed inside
a sphere. What is the total flux passing through the surface of the
sphere?
option1: a. 8 C
option2: b. 14 C
option3: c. 20 C
option4: d. -6 C
challenge: 1
question: The potential at a point due to a charge is 15 V. If
the distance is increased three times, the potential at the point will
be
option1: a. 5 V
option2: b. 18 V

option3: c. 45 V
option4: d. 15 V
challenge: 1
question: Electric potential is a _____ quantity.
option1: a. scalar
option2: b. phasor
option3: c. vector
challenge: 3
question: The electric potential at a point in air due to a
charge is 21 V. If air is replaced by a medium of relative permittivity
of 3, then electric potential will be
option1: a. 63 V
option2: b. 21 V
option3: c. 7 V
option4: d. 42 V
challenge: 2
question: The electric potential across part AB of a circuit is
5V; point A being at higher potential. If a charge of 5 C moves from a
A to B, then energy released is
option1: a. 5 joules
option2: b. 25 joules
option3: c. 10 joules
option4: d. 100 joules
challenge: 1
question: What is the other name for dielectric strength?
option1: a. breakdown voltage
option2: b. electric intensity
option3: c. potential gradient
option4: d. dielectric constant
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following materials has the highest
option1: a. glass
option2: b. oiled paper
option3: c. mica
option4: d. air
challenge: 2
question: What is used as the insulating material or dielectric
in an electric iron?
option1: a. oiled paper
option2: b. mica
option3: c. paraffin
option4: d. titanate compound
challenge: 3
question: What is used as the dielectric material in high voltage
transformers?
option1: a. mica
option2: b. paraffin
option3: c. porcelain

option4: d. oiled paper
challenge: 1
question: One farad equals
option1: a. 1 coulomb/volt
option2: b. 1 newton/coulomb
option3: c. 1 newton-meter
option4: d. 1 volt/second/ampere
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following is used by permanent magnets as
the magnetic material?
option1: a. iron
option2: b. nickel
option3: c. soft steel
option4: d. hardened steel
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following is used by temporary magnets as
the magnetic material?
option1: a. hardened steel
option2: b. cobalt steel
option3: c. soft iron
option4: d. tungsten steel
challenge: 1
question: What is the main advantage of temporary magnets?
option1: a. the magnetic flux can be changed
option2: b. hysteresis can be decreased
option3: c. magnetic materials can be used
option4: d. abundance of ferromagnetic material that can be
temporarily magnetized
challenge: 2
question: Permanent magnets can be found in
option1: a. electric bells
option2: b. earphones
option3: c. relays
option4: d. dynamic loudspeakers
challenge: 2
question: Temporary magnets are commonly employed in
option1: a. electric instruments
option2: b. motors
option3: c. moving coil loudspeakers
option4: d. magnetos
challenge: 1
question: The force between two magnetic poles is _____ their
pole strengths.
option2: b. the sum of
option4: d. the product of
challenge: 2
question: If the distance between two magnetic poles decreases by

2 times, the force between them
option1: a. decreases two times
option3: c. increases two times
challenge: 3
question: The force between two magnetic poles is _____ the
relative permeability of the medium.
option2: b. independent of
challenge: 1
question: Two similar poles, each of 1 Wb, placed 1 m apart in
air will experience a repulsive force of
option1: a. 63000 N
option2: b. 63 x 10^-3 N
option3: c. 8 x 10^12 N
option4: d. 796 kN
challenge: 4
question: One weber of flux is equal to _____ magnetic lines of
force.
option1: a. 10^6
option2: b. 10^10
option3: c. 4*pi X 10^7
option4: d. 10^8
challenge: 2
question: The unit of flux density is
option1: a. Wb/m
option2: b. tesla
option3: c. AT/m
option4: d. N/Wb
challenge: 4
question: What is the typical saturation flux density for most
magnetic materials?
option1: a. 4 Wb/sq m
option2: b. 5 Wb/sq m
option3: c. 1 Wb/ sq m
option4: d. 2 Wb/sq m
challenge: 3
question: Magnetic field intensity is a _____ quantity.
option1: a. scalar
option2: b. phasor
option3: c. vector
challenge: 1
question: The force acting on a pole of 5 Wb is 25 N. What is the
intensity of the magnetic field?
option1: a. 5 N/Wb
option2: b. 25 N/Wb

option3: c. 125 N/Wb
option4: d. 0.2 N/Wb
challenge: 3
question: The relative permeability of a magnetic material is
10^5. What is its permeability?
option1: a. 4*pi x 10^5 H/m
option2: b. 4*pi x 10^-12 H/m
option3: c. 4*pi x 10^-2 H/m
option4: d. 4*pi x 10^-7 H/m
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following has the highest permeability?
option1: a. soft iron
option2: b. steel
option3: c. air
option4: d. permalloy
challenge: 1
question: A magnetic pole produces 5000 field lines. How much is
the flux in Webers?
option1: a. 50 x 10^-6
option2: b. 5 x 10^-6
option3: c. 500 x 10^-6
option4: d. 500 x 10^-5
challenge: 3
question: As the magnetic intensity decreases, the relative
permeability of a magnetic material
challenge: 2
question: The permeability of a material having a flux density of
5 Wb/sq m is 10^-5 H/m. What is the value of the magnetizing force?
option1: a. 5 x 10^-5 N/Wb
option2: b. 500 x 10^3 N/Wb
option3: c. 4*pi x 10^-7 N/Wb
option4: d. 4*pi x 10^7 N/Wb
challenge: 1
question: When the relative permeability of a material is
slightly less than 1, it is called _____ material.
challenge: 3
question: When the relative permeability of a material is
slightly more than 1, it is called _____ material.

challenge: 3
question: Which of the following is a diamagnetic material?
option1: a. aluminum
option2: b. silver
option3: c. air
option4: d. cobalt
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following is a paramagnetic material?
option1: a. carbon
option2: b. bismuth
option3: c. copper
option4: d. oxygen
challenge: 2
question: The greater percentage of materials are _____.
option2: b. paramagnetic
challenge: 2
question: When the relative permeability of a material is much
greater than 1, it is called _____ material.
challenge: 4
question: The flux density in an air-cored coil is 10^-3 Wb/sq m.
With a cast iron core of relative permeability 100 inserted, the flux
density will become.
option1: a. 10^-3 Wb/sq m
option2: b. 10^-2 Wb/sq m
option3: c. 10^3 Wb/sq m
option4: d. 0.1 Wb/sq m
challenge: 2
question: AT/m is a unit of
option1: a. mmf
option2: b. magnetizing force
option3: c. reluctance
option4: d. magnetic flux density
challenge: 2
question: The direction of force on a current carrying conductor
placed in a magnetic field can be found by
option1: a. cork screw rule
option2: b. fleming's left hand rule
option3: c. fleming's right hand rule
option4: d. using a compass
challenge: 4
question: When a current carrying conductor is placed in a
magnetic field, the maximum force will act on the conductor when the

conductor is at an angle of _____ to the magnetic field.
option1: a. 45 deg
option2: b. 60 deg
option3: c. 30 deg
option4: d. 90 deg
challenge: 2
question: A magnetic field is
option1: a. the current flow through space around a permanent
magnet
option2: b. the force set up when current flows through a
conductor
option3: c. the force that drives current through a resistor.
option4: d. the force between the plates of a charged capacitor.
challenge: 4
question: Ohm's law can be used only to a _____ circuit or
component.
option1: a. unilateral
option2: b. exponential
option3: c. trivalent
option4: d. linear
challenge: 4
question: When the current flows, the magnetic field about a
conductor is in what direction?
option1: a. the same as the current direction
option2: b. opposite the current direction
option3: c. omnidirectional
option4: d. in the direction determined by the left hand rule
challenge: 2
question: The magnetic field around the conductor is determined
by the
option1: a. size of the conductor
option2: b. amount of current
option3: c. current divided by the resistance
option4: d. resistance divided by the current
challenge: 4
question: Back emf refers to the
option1: a. current equal to the applied emf
option2: b. opposing emf
option3: c. current opposing the applied emf
option4: d. voltage opposing the applied emf
challenge: 1
question: The magnetic flux through a coil changes. This results
to the induced emf acting in a direction as to
option1: a. oppose the change
option2: b. aid the change
option3: c. either oppose or aid the change
option4: d. neither oppose nor aid the change
challenge: 2
question: A magnetic flux of 2.5 x 10^-4 Wb through and area of 5
x 10^-4 square meters results in

option1: a. 5 Wb of flux
option2: b. 0.5 Tesla of flux density
option3: c. 5 x 10^-5 Wb of flux
option4: d. 5000 Tesla of flux density
challenge: 4
question: If a 20 V potential is applied across a relay coil with
50 turns having 1 ohm of resistance, the total magnetomotive producing
magnetic flux in the circuit is
option1: a. 10 Wb
option2: b. 50 T
option3: c. 1000 A-t/m
option4: d. 1000 A-t
challenge: 1
question: What is the reluctance of a magnetic path having a
length of 2 x 10^-3 m and cross-sectional area of 2.5 x 10^-3 sq. m.
The relative permeability is 100.
option1: a. 6366 A-t/Wb
option2: b. 6000 A-t/Wb
option3: c. 8 x 10^-3 A-t/Wb
option4: d. 0.8 A-t/Wb
challenge: 1
question: Calculate the permeability (in T/A*t/m) of a magnetic
material that has a relative permeability of 300.
option1: a. 3.78 x 10^-4
option2: b. 3.78 x 10^-5
option3: c. 3.78 x 10^-3
option4: d. 3.78 x 10^-6
challenge: 3
question: Calculate the flux density that will be produced by the
field intensity of 2000 A-t/m for a permeability of 126 x 10^-6 T/A-
t/m.
option1: a. 0.252 G
option2: b. 0.252 x 10^-2 T
option3: c. 0.252 T
option4: d. 0.252 x 10^-2 G
challenge: 3
question: How many turns are needed to produce a magnetomotive
force of 1000 A.t for a coil with 6 amperes?
option1: a. 6000 turns
option2: b. 600 turns
option3: c. 167 turns
option4: d. 67 turns
challenge: 3
question: A 6-V battery is connected across a solenoid of 100
turns having a resistance of 2 ohms. Calculate the number of ampere-
turns.
option1: a. 100
option2: b. 50
option3: c. 300
option4: d. 600

challenge: 1
question: What determines the atomic number of an element?
option1: a. the number of protons
option2: b. the number of electrons
option3: c. the number of neutrons
option4: d. the number of neutrons and protons
challenge: 1
question: One of the solid structures in which the position of
the atoms or ions are predetermined.
option1: a. crystalline solid
option2: b. amorphous solid
option3: c. polycrystalline solid
option4: d. poly-amorphous solid
challenge: 1
question: MMF in a magnetic circuit corresponds to _____ in an
electric circuit.
option1: a. emf
option2: b. voltage drop
option3: c. electric field intensity
option4: d. potential gradient
challenge: 2
question: _____ solid has no defined crystal structure except
perhaps in the arrangement of the nearest neighboring atoms or ions.
option1: a. crystalline
option2: b. amorphous
option3: c. polycrystalline
option4: d. poly-amorphous
challenge: 2
question: Amorphous solid is also called
option1: a. crystalline
option2: b. non-crystalline
option3: c. polycrystalline
option4: d. homogenous
challenge: 2
question: A principle that states that only two electrons with
different spins are allowed to exist in a given orbit.
option1: a. Bohr's principle
option2: b. Pauli exclusion principle
option3: c. Avogadro's principle
option4: d. Coulomb's principle
challenge: 2
question: Who discovered the relationship between magnetism and
electricity that serves as the foundation for the theory of
electromagnetism?
option1: a. Luigi Galvani
option2: b. Hans Christian Oersted
option3: c. Andre Ampere
option4: d. Charles Coulomb
challenge: 1
question: Who demonstrated the theory of electromagnetic

induction in 1831?
option1: a. Michael Faraday
option2: b. Andre Ampere
option3: c. James Clerk Maxwell
challenge: 3
question: Who developed the electromagnetic theory of light in
1862?
option1: a. Heinrich Rudolf Hertz
option2: b. Wilhelm Roentgen
option3: c. James Clerk Maxwell
option4: d. Andre Ampere
challenge: 1
question: Who discovered that a current-carrying conductor would
move when placed in a magnetic field?
option1: a. Michael Faraday
option2: b. Andre Ampere
option3: c. Hans Christian Oersted
option4: d. Gustav Robert Kirchoff
challenge: 1
question: Who discovered the most important electrical effects
which is the magnetic effect?
option1: a. Hans Christian Oersted
option2: b. Sir Charles Wheatstone
option3: c. Georg Ohm
option4: d. James Clerk Maxwell
challenge: 4
question: Who demonstrated that there are magnetic effects around
every current-carrying conductor and that current-carrying conductors
can attract and repel each other just like magnets?
option1: a. Luigi Galvani
option2: b. Hans Christian Oersted
option3: c. Charles Coulomb
option4: d. Andre Ampere
challenge: 1
question: Who discovered superconductivity in 1911?
option1: a. Kamerlingh Onnes
option2: b. Alex Muller
option3: c. Geory Bednorz
challenge: 2
question: The magnitude of the induced emf in a coil is directly
proportional to the ratio of the change of flux linkages. This is known
as
option2: b. Faraday's second law of electromagnetic induction
option3: c. Faraday's first law of electromagnetic induction
option4: d. Coulomb's Law
challenge: 3
question: Whenever the flux linking a coil or current changes, an

emf is induced in it. This is known as
option2: b. Coulomb's Law
option3: c. Faraday's first law of electromagnetic induction
option4: d. Faraday's second law of electromagnetic induction
challenge: 3
question: The force of attraction or repulsion between two
magnetic poles is directly proportional to their strengths is called
option1: a. Newtons' first law
option2: b. Faraday's first law of electromagnetic induction
option3: c. Coulomb's first law
option4: d. Coulomb's second law
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following amplifiers is considered linear?
option1: a. Class A
option2: b. Class B
option3: c. Class C
option4: d. Either A or B
challenge: 1
question: The voltage gain of a common collector configuration is
option1: a. unity
option2: b. zero
option3: c. very high
option4: d. moderate
challenge: 1
question: A two-transistor class B amplifier is commonly called
option1: a. push-pull amplifier
option2: b. dual amplifier
option3: c. symmetrical amplifier
option4: d. differential amplifier
challenge: 2
question: If a transistor is operated in such a way that output
current flows for 160 degrees of the input signal, then it is _____
operation.
option1: a. class A
option2: b. class C
option3: c. class B
option4: d. class AB
challenge: 1
question: Which coupling has the best frequency response?
option1: a. direct
option2: b. RC
option3: c. transformer
challenge: 3
question: A transistor amplifier has high output impedance
because
option1: a. emitter is heavily doped
option2: b. collector is wider than emitter or base
option3: c. collector has reverse bias

option4: d. emitter has forward bias
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is considered an amplifier
figure of merit?
option1: a. gain-bandwidth product
option2: b. beta(ß)
option3: c. alpha(a)
option4: d. temperature
challenge: 4
question: A piece of equipment in an oscilloscope used to
indicate pulse condition in a digital logic circuit.
option1: a. probe
option2: b. test prods
option3: c. connector
option4: d. logic probe
challenge: 1
question: A linear circuit that compares two input signals and
provides a digital level output depending on the relationship of the
input signals.
option1: a. comparator
option2: b. controller
option3: c. compressor
option4: d. switch
challenge: 1
question: What type of coupling is generally used in power
amplifiers?
option1: a. transformer
option2: b. direct
option3: c. RC
option4: d. inductive
challenge: 1
question: Which amplifier whose output current flows for the
entire cycle?
option1: a. Class A
option2: b. Class B
option3: c. Class C
option4: d. Class AB
challenge: 3
question: The coupling capacitor Cc must be large enough to _____
in an RC coupling scheme?
option1: a. pass dc between stages
option2: b. dissipate high power
option3: c. prevent attenuation of low frequency
option4: d. prevent attenuation of high frequency
challenge: 1
question: What is the point of intersection of dc and ac load
lines called?
option1: a. operating point
option2: b. cut off point
option3: c. saturation point

option4: d. breakdown
challenge: 3
question: An oscillator produces _____ oscillations.
option1: a. damped
option2: b. modulated
option3: c. undamped
option4: d. sinusoidal
challenge: 1
question: _____ is the operating point in the characteristic
curve.
option1: a. quiescent point
option2: b. load point
option3: c. biasing point
option4: d. saturation point
challenge: 1
question: Oscillators operate on the principle of
option1: a. positive feedback
option2: b. negative feedback
option3: c. signal feedthrough
option4: d. attenuation
challenge: 2
question: In class A amplifier, the output signal is
option1: a. distorted
option2: b. the same as input
option3: c. clipped
option4: d. smaller in amplitude than the input
challenge: 1
question: What happens if the input capacitor of a transistor
amplifier is short-circuited?
option1: a. biasing conditions will change
option2: b. transistors will be destroyed
option3: c. signals will not reach the base
option4: d. biasing will stabilize
challenge: 1
question: Which is used to establish a fixed level of current or
voltage in a transistor?
option1: a. biasing
option2: b. loading
option3: c. load line
option4: d. coupling
challenge: 2
question: Which power amplifier has the highest collector
efficiency?
option1: a. class A
option2: b. class C
option3: c. class B
challenge: 1
question: _____ is a non-linear type of amplifier.

option1: a. class C
option2: b. class AB
option3: c. class B
option4: d. class A
challenge: 2
question: An AF transformer is shielded to
option1: a. keep the amplifier cool
option2: b. prevent induction due to stray magnetic fields
option3: c. protect from rusting
option4: d. prevent electric shock
challenge: 2
question: Amplitude distortion is otherwise known as _____
distortion.
option1: a. intermodulation
option2: b. harmonic
option3: c. phase
option4: d. resonant
challenge: 1
question: What represents common-emitter small signal input
resistance?
option1: a. hie
option2: b. hfe
option3: c. hib
option4: d. hoe
challenge: 1
question: The ear is not sensitive to _____ distortion.
option1: a. frequency
option2: b. amplitude
option3: c. harmonic
option4: d. phase
challenge: 1
question: Class C is an amplifier whose output current flows for
option1: a. less than one half of the entire input cycle
option2: b. the entire input cycle
option3: c. twice the entire input cycle
option4: d. greater than one half the entire input cycle
challenge: 2
question: If gain without feedback and feedback factor are A and
ß respectively, then gain with negative feedback is given by
option1: a. A/(1 - Aß)
option2: b. A/(1 + Aß)
option3: c. (1 + Aß)/A
option4: d. (1 + Aß) x A
challenge: 1
question: The collector current in a common base configuration is
equal to
option1: a. alpha times emitter current plus leakage current
option2: b. alpha times base current plus leakage current
option3: c. beta times emitter current plus leakage current
option4: d. beta times collector current plus leakage current

challenge: 1
question: Which is not a basic BJT amplifier configuration?
option1: a. common-drain
option2: b. common-base
option3: c. common-emitter
option4: d. common-collector
challenge: 3
question: The value of collector load resistance in a transistor
amplifier is _____ the output impedance of the transistor.
option2: b. more than
option4: d. not related to
challenge: 2
question: What is the purpose of RC or transformer coupling?
option1: a. to block ac
option2: b. to separate bias of one stage from another
option3: c. to increase thermal stability
option4: d. to block dc
challenge: 3
question: The bandwidth of a single stage amplifier is _____ that
of multistage amplifier.
option2: b. less than
option3: c. more than
option4: d. independent
challenge: 1
question: _____ is the time taken by the electrons or holes to
pass from the emitter to the collector.
option1: a. transit time
option2: b. recombination
option3: c. transient time
option4: d. duty cycle
challenge: 2
question: To obtain good gain stability in a negative feedback
amplifier, Aß is
option1: a. equal to 1
option2: b. very much greater than 1
option3: c. less than 1
option4: d. zero
challenge: 1
question: The basic concept of the electric wave filter was
originated by
option1: a. Campbell and Wagner
option2: b. Norton
option3: c. Foster
option4: d. Bode and Darlington
challenge: 1
question: Which configuration has the lowest current gain?

option1: a. common-base
option2: b. common-collector
option4: d. emitter follower
challenge: 4
question: What transistor configuration offers no phase reversal
at the output?
option1: a. common-base
option2: b. common-collector
option4: d. Both A and B
challenge: 1
question: The number of stages that can be directly coupled is
limited because
option1: a. change in temperature can cause thermal instability
option2: b. circuit becomes heavy and costly
option3: c. it becomes difficult to bias the circuit
option4: d. circuit's resistance becomes too large
challenge: 1
question: The input capacitor in an amplifier is called _____
capacitor.
option1: a. coupling
option2: b. stray
option3: c. bypass
challenge: 3
question: AC load line has a/an ______ slope compared to that of
dc load line.
option1: a. zero
option2: b. smaller
option3: c. bigger
challenge: 4
question: A multistage amplifier uses at least how many
transistor?
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 3
option3: c. 4
option4: d. 2
challenge: 1
question: RC coupling is used for _____ amplification.
option1: a. voltage
option2: b. current
option3: c. signal
option4: d. power
challenge: 1
question: An ammeter's ideal resistance should be
option1: a. zero
option2: b. unity
option3: c. infinite

option4: d. the same with the circuit's resistance
challenge: 3
question: _____ is the circuit that can increase the peak-to-peak
voltage, current, and power of a signal?
option1: a. power supply
option2: b. attenuator
option3: c. amplifier
option4: d. filter
challenge: 1
question: When a non-linear distortion in an amplifier is D
without feedback, with negative voltage feedback it will be
option1: a. D/(1 + Aß)
option2: b. (1 + Aß)/D
option3: c. D x (1 + Aß)
option4: d. D x (1 - Aß)
challenge: 3
question: A tuned amplifier uses what load?
option1: a. resistive
option2: b. capacitive
option3: c. LC tank
challenge: 2
question: The voltage gain over mid-frequency range in an RC
coupled amplifier
option1: a. changes instantly with frequency
option2: b. is constant
option3: c. is independent of the coupling
option4: d. is maximum
challenge: 3
question: The input impedance of an amplifier _____ when negative
voltage feedback is applied.
option2: b. becomes zero
option4: d. is unchanged
challenge: 2
question: The input impedance of an amplifier _____ when negative
current feedback is applied.
option1: a. remains unchanged
challenge: 1
question: To obtain the frequency response curve of an amplifier
_____ is kept constant.
option1: a. generator output level
option2: b. amplifier output
option3: c. generator frequency
option4: d. amplifier frequency

challenge: 3
question: A type of oscillator wherein the frequency is
determined by the charge and discharge of resistor-capacitor networks
used in conjunction with amplifiers or similar devices.
option1: a. sinewave oscillator
option2: b. beta generating circuit
option3: c. relaxation oscillator
option4: d. simply an oscillator
challenge: 2
question: The driver transformer has center-tapped secondary to
provide
option1: a. forward bias to transistors of push-pull circuit
option2: b. two signals 180 degrees out of phase to transistors
of push-pull circuit
option3: c. impedance matching
option4: d. two signals in phase with each other
challenge: 2
question: What is the advantage of RC coupling scheme?
option1: a. good impedance matching
option2: b. economy
option3: c. high efficiency
option4: d. simplicity
challenge: 4
question: A type of filter which is having a single continuous
transmission band with neither the upper nor the lower cut-off
frequencies being zero or infinite is called
option1: a. band stop filter
option2: b. low pass filter
option3: c. high pass filter
option4: d. band pass filter
challenge: 1
question: An instrument use to measure ones location in terms of
coordinates
option1: a. GPS
option2: b. ILS
option3: c. FANS
option4: d. GSM
challenge: 2
question: Transformer coupling is used for ______ amplification.
option1: a. current
option2: b. power
option3: c. voltage
option4: d. signal
challenge: 3
question: What is the typical voltage of coupling capacitor Cc in
RC coupling?
option1: a. about 100 pF
option2: b. about 0.1 µF
option3: c. about 10 µF
option4: d. about 0.01 µF

challenge: 3
question: An electronic transfer from one stage to the next is
termed as _____.
option1: a. doping
option2: b. mixing
option3: c. coupling
option4: d. connecting
challenge: 1
question: An amplifier configuration where the input signal is
fed to the emitter terminal and the output from the collector terminal
is called
option1: a. common base
option2: b. common emitter
option3: c. clipper
option4: d. common collector
challenge: 1
question: If the noise factor of an ideal amplifier expressed in
dB, then it is
option1: a. 0
option2: b. 0.1
option3: c. 1
option4: d. 10
challenge: 1
question: A feedback circuit is _____ frequency.
option1: a. independent of
option2: b. strongly dependent on
option3: c. moderately dependent on
option4: d. relatively dependent on
challenge: 2
question: What is the basic purpose of applying negative feedback
to an amplifier?
option1: a. to increase gain
option2: b. to reduce distortion
option3: c. to keep the temperature within limits
option4: d. to increase input signal
challenge: 3
question: The capacitors are considered _____ in the dc
equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier.
option1: a. short
option2: b. partially short
option3: c. open
option4: d. partially open
challenge: 1
question: Which frequency produces the highest noise factor?
option1: a. 10 kHz
option2: b. 500 Hz
option3: c. 1 kHz
option4: d. 100 Hz
challenge: 3
question: Power amplifiers handle _____ signals.

option1: a. very small
option2: b. small
option3: c. large
option4: d. very large
challenge: 1
question: The operating point is generally located _____ of dc
load line in class A operation.
option1: a. at the middle
option2: b. at saturation point
option3: c. at cut off point
option4: d. at end point
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following describes a common collector
amplifier
option1: a. low voltage gain
option2: b. low current gain
option3: c. low power gain
option4: d. low input resistance
challenge: 1
question: The general characteristics of a common base amplifier
are
option1: a. high voltage gain, low current gain, high power gain
and very low input resistance
option2: b. high voltage, high current gain, high power gain and
low input resistance
option3: c. low voltage gain, high current gain, very high power
gain and low input resistance
challenge: 2
question: To amplify dc signals, multistage amplifier uses what
coupling?
option1: a. RC
option2: b. direct
option4: d. resistor
challenge: 3
question: What oscillator is used in order to produce frequencies
in the microwave region?
option1: a. Wien bridge
option2: b. Hartley
option3: c. Klystron
option4: d. Crystal
challenge: 2
question: Practically, the voltage gain of an amplifier is
expressed
option1: a. in volts unit
option2: b. in dB unit
option3: c. as an absolute value
option4: d. as a whole number
challenge: 3

question: What coupling provides maximum voltage gain?
option1: a. RC
option2: b. direct
challenge: 3
question: The gain of an amplifier _____ when negative feedback
is added.
option3: c. reduces
challenge: 1
question: Feedback factor is always
option1: a. less than 1
option2: b. equal to 1
option3: c. more than 1
option4: d. zero
challenge: 1
question: _____ operation is used for general amplification where
no distortion can be tolerated.
option1: a. class A
option2: b. class B
option3: c. class AB
option4: d. class C
challenge: 2
question: _____ operation is used either where the signal needs
to be cut in half, such as in pulse detector or noise detectors or
where the push-pull operation of two stages is required.
option1: a. class A
option2: b. class B
option4: d. class C
challenge: 3
question: _____ operation is used where a portion of a signal
only is required, such as the synchronizing pulse separator of a
television receiver.
option1: a. class A
option2: b. class B
option4: d. class C
challenge: 4
question: _____ operation has little use in general purpose
amplifiers, but is used in high frequency oscillators
option1: a. class A
option2: b. class AB
option3: c. class B
option4: d. class C
challenge: 1
question: Why is it that transformer coupling provides high

frequency?
option1: a. DC resistance is low
option2: b. collector voltage is stepped up
option3: c. collector voltage is stepped down
option4: d. AC resistance is high
challenge: 1
question: For constant-k high-pass filter, cut-off frequency (in
Hz) is given by
option1: a. 1/(4pi sqrt(LC))
option2: b. 1/(pi sqrt(LC))
option3: c. 1/(2pi sqrt(LC))
option4: d. pi/ sqrt(LC)
challenge: 1
question: Class C operation can have _____ percent efficiency.
option1: a. 100%
option2: b. 78.5%
option3: c. 50%
option4: d. 70%
challenge: 3
question: The efficiency of class AB operation has a maximum of
between _____ percent
option1: a. 90 to 100 %
option2: b. 60 to 80 %
option3: c. 50 to 78.5 %
option4: d. 40.5 to 60 %
challenge: 3
question: Transformer coupling is generally employed when load
resistance is
option1: a. large
option2: b. very large
option3: c. small
option4: d. zero
challenge: 2
question: A dc voltage supply provides 60 V when the output is
unloaded. When connected to a load the output drops to 56 V. Calculate
the value of the voltage regulation.
option1: a. 8.1%
option2: b. 7.1%
option3: c. 5%
option4: d. 12%
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following amplifier below is a choice when
higher power gain is a requirement.
option3: c. common collector
option4: d. hybrid connection
challenge: 2
question: The signal generator generally used in laboratories is
_____ oscillator.

option1: a. crystal
option2: b. Wien-bridge
option3: c. Hartley
option4: d. phase-shift
challenge: 2
question: A buffer amplifier is used for
option1: a. maximum loading and minimum mismatch
option2: b. minimum loading and minimum mismatch
option3: c. maximum loading and maximum mismatch
option4: d. minimum loading and maximum mismatch
challenge: 4
question: Parasitic oscillations are caused by
option1: a. output negative feedback
option2: b. push-pull operation
option3: c. poor interstage coupling
option4: d. transistor interelectrode capacitance
challenge: 4
question: Which is a fixed-frequency oscillator?
option1: a. phase-shift oscillator
option2: b. Colpitt's oscillator
option3: c. Hartley oscillator
option4: d. Crystal oscillator
challenge: 2
question: The approximate operating frequency of a phase shift
oscillator is given by
option2: b. 1/(2piRC sqrt6)
option3: c. 1/(2piRC)
option4: d. 1/(29RC)
challenge: 1
question: The frequency of the ripple voltage at the output of a
full-wave rectifier at 60 cycles.
option1: a. 120 cycles
option2: b. 60 cycles
option3: c. 240 cycles
option4: d. 480 cycles
challenge: 2
question: Cascaded amplifiers total decibel gain is equal to
option1: a. the sum of the individual gains
option2: b. the product of the individual gains
option3: c. the difference of the individual gains
option4: d. the quotient of the individual gains
challenge: 1
question: In an LC oscillator, if the value of L is increased
four times, then frequency of oscillations is
option1: a. decreased 2 times
option2: b. decreased 4 times
option3: c. increased 2 times
option4: d. increased 4 times

challenge: 1
question: A class A power amplifier is otherwise known as
option1: a. single ended amplifier
option2: b. Darlington amplifier
option3: c. symmetrical amplifier
challenge: 3
question: The power input to a power amplifier is _____ quantity.
option1: a. ac
option2: b. pulsating dc
option3: c. dc
challenge: 2
question: When shock-excited, a crystal will produce alternating
emf longer than an LC circuit because crystal
option1: a. has greater mechanical strength
option2: b. has fewer losses
option3: c. is small-sized
option4: d. is very rigid
challenge: 1
question: The stability of a regulated power supply is equivalent
to
option1: a. change of output voltage over the change in supply
voltage
option2: b. change in supply voltage over the change of output
voltage
option3: c. product of the output voltage and the supply voltage
option4: d. the difference of an output voltage to its supply
voltage
challenge: 1
question: An oscillator circuit that uses a tapped coil in the
tuned circuit is called
option1: a. Hartley
option2: b. Colpitts
option3: c. crystal
option4: d. pierce
challenge: 1
question: If you move towards an oscillating circuit, its
frequency changes because of
option1: a. hand capacitance
option2: b. movement of body
option3: c. noise of foot
option4: d. stray capacitance
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is not a FET amplifier
configuration
option1: a. common base amplifier
option2: b. common drain amplifier
option3: c. common source amplifier
option4: d. common gate amplifier

challenge: 3
question: The number of transistor in a single stage amplifier is
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 3
option3: c. 1
option4: d. 4
challenge: 3
question: Series current negative feedback occurs when the
feedback voltage is proportional to the
option1: a. output voltage
option2: b. output impedance
option3: c. output current
option4: d. output power
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is NOT an oscillator
requirement?
option1: a. attenuator
option2: b. amplifier
option3: c. tank circuit
option4: d. feedback
challenge: 4
question: An amplifier with efficiency 85% is likely to be
option1: a. class A
option2: b. class B
option4: d. class C
challenge: 1
question: What is the phase difference between the output and
input voltage of a CE amplifier?
option1: a. 180 deg
option2: b. 270 deg
option3: c. 0 deg
option4: d. 90 deg
challenge: 1
question: Class C operation is preferred in oscillators because
option1: a. it is more efficient
option2: b. it gives larger outputs
option3: c. it produces square waves
option4: d. it increases stability
challenge: 1
question: A type of oscillator which are composed of one or more
amplifying devices with some frequency-determining networks introducing
positive feedback at a particular frequency so that oscillation is
sustained at that frequency.
option1: a. sinewave oscillator
option2: b. square-wave oscillator
option3: c. relaxation oscillator
option4: d. limiter
challenge: 3
question: What is the desired input impedance of a transistor?

option1: a. low
option2: b. very low
option3: c. high
option4: d. very high
challenge: 4
question: What is the maximum efficiency of class B?
option1: a. 50%
option2: b. 90%
option3: c. 60.5%
option4: d. 78.5%
challenge: 3
question: When a transistor is cut off
option1: a. maximum current flows
option2: b. maximum voltage appears across load
option3: c. maximum voltage appears across transistor
option4: d. minimum current flows
challenge: 2
question: In an LC circuit, when the capacitor energy is maximum,
the inductor energy is
option1: a. maximum
option2: b. minimum
option3: c. half-way between maximum and minimum
option4: d. zero
challenge: 3
question: What is the approximate gain of an amplifier with
negative feedback?
option1: a. the feedback factor
option2: b. the reciprocal of feedback factor plus one
option3: c. the reciprocal of feedback factor
option4: d. the feedback factor plus one
challenge: 2
question: The operating point in a transistor amplifier moves
along _____ when an ac signal is applied.
option1: a. dc load line
option2: b. ac load line
option3: c. both dc and ac load lines
option4: d. cut-off
challenge: 2
question: An oscillator converts
option1: a. ac power into dc power
option2: b. dc power into ac power
option3: c. mechanical power into ac power
option4: d. electrical power into mechanical power
challenge: 3
question: What is the active device in a transistor oscillator?
option1: a. LC tank circuit
option2: b. biasing circuit
option3: c. transistor
option4: d. feedback circuit

challenge: 4
question: When the collector supply is 5 V, then collector cut
off voltage under dc conditions is
option1: a. 20V
option2: b. 10V
option3: c. 2.5V
option4: d. 5V
challenge: 1
question: The common base amplifier has _____ compared to CE and
CC amplifier.
option1: a. a lower input resistance
option2: b. a larger current gain
option3: c. a larger voltage gain
option4: d. a higher input resistance
challenge: 2
question: When a FET with a lower transconductance is substituted
into a FET amplifier circuit, what happens?
option1: a. the current gain does not change
option2: b. the voltage gain decreases
option3: c. the circuit disamplifies
option4: d. the input resistance decreases
challenge: 1
question: In the zero signal conditions, a transistor sees _____
load.
option1: a. dc
option2: b. ac
option3: c. both dc and ac
option4: d. resistive
challenge: 3
question: What is the gain of an amplifier with negative feedback
if the feedback factor is 0.01?
option1: a. 10
option2: b. 1000
option3: c. 100
option4: d. 500
challenge: 3
question: The current gain of an emitter follower is
option1: a. equal to 1
option2: b. greater than 1
option3: c. less than 1
option4: d. zero
challenge: 2
question: The current in any branch of a transistor amplifier
that is operating is
option1: a. ac only
option2: b. the sum of ac and dc
option3: c. the difference of ac and dc
option4: d. dc only
challenge: 1
question: An ideal differential amplifiers common mode rejection

ratio is
option2: b. zero
option3: c. unity
option4: d. undetermined
challenge: 4
question: An open fuse circuit has a resistance equal to
option1: a. zero
option2: b. unity
option3: c. at least 100ohm(s) at standard temperature
option4: d. infinity
challenge: 3
question: What is the purpose of dc conditions in a transistor?
option1: a. to reverse bias the emitter
option2: b. to forward bias the emitter
option3: c. to set up the operating point
option4: d. to turn on the transistor
challenge: 1
question: The ac variation at the output side of power supply
circuits are called _____.
option1: a. ripples
option2: b. pulses
option3: c. waves
option4: d. filters
challenge: 3
question: What is the purpose of emitter capacitor?
option1: a. to forward bias the emitter
option2: b. to reduce noise in the amplifier
option3: c. to avoid voltage drop in gain
option4: d. to stabilize emitter voltage
challenge: 1
question: A common emitter circuit is also called _____ circuit.
option1: a. grounded emitter
option2: b. grounded collector
option3: c. grounded base
option4: d. emitter follower
challenge: 2
question: The output signal of a common-collector amplifier is
always
option1: a. larger than the input signal
option2: b. in phase with the input signal
option3: c. out of phase with the input signal
option4: d. exactly equal to the input signal
challenge: 4
question: Calculate the ripples of the filter output if a dc and
ac voltmeter is used and measures the output signal from a filter
circuit of 25 Vdc and 1.5 Vrms.
option1: a. 5%
option2: b. 10%
option3: c. 50%

option4: d. 6%
challenge: 1
question: What is the ideal maximum voltage gain of a common
collector amplifier?
option1: a. unity
option3: c. indeterminate
option4: d. zero
challenge: 2
question: The output power of a transistor amplifier is more than
the input power due to additional power supplied by
option1: a. transistor
option2: b. collector supply
option3: c. emitter supply
option4: d. base supply
challenge: 1
question: When a transistor amplifier feeds a load of low
resistance, its voltage gain will be
option1: a. low
option2: b. very high
option3: c. high
challenge: 3
question: The capacitors are considered _____ in the ac
equivalent circuit of a transistor amplifier.
option1: a. open
option2: b. partially open
option3: c. short
option4: d. partially short
challenge: 3
question: For highest power gain, _____ configuration is used.
option1: a. CC
option2: b. CB
option3: c. CE
option4: d. CS
challenge: 2
question: What is the most important characteristic of a common
collector amplifier?
option1: a. has high input voltage
option2: b. has high input resistance
option3: c. has high output resistance
option4: d. it is an amplifier circuit
challenge: 4
question: Which of the item below does not describe a common
emitter amplifier.
option1: a. high voltage gain
option2: b. high current gain
option3: c. very high power gain
option4: d. high input resistance

challenge: 1
question: CC configuration is used for impedance matching because
its
option1: a. input impedance is very high
option2: b. input impedance is very low
option3: c. output impedance is very low
option4: d. output impedance is zero
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following is the other name of the output
stage in an amplifier?
option1: a. load stage
option2: b. audio stage
option3: c. power stage
option4: d. RF stage
challenge: 3
question: When amplifiers are cascaded
option1: a. the gain of each amplifier is increased
option2: b. a lower supply voltage is required
option3: c. the overall gain is increased
option4: d. each amplifier has to work less
challenge: 2
question: In a common emitter amplifier, the capacitor from
emitter to ground is called the
option1: a. coupling capacitor
option2: b. bypass capacitor
option3: c. decoupling capacitor
option4: d. tuning capacitor
challenge: 2
question: A class A power amplifier uses _____ transistor/s.
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 1
option3: c. 3
option4: d. 4
challenge: 3
question: What is the maximum collector efficiency of a
resistance loaded class A power amplifier?
option1: a. 50%
option2: b. 78.5%
option3: c. 25%
option4: d. 30%
challenge: 4
question: What is the maximum collector efficiency of a
transformer coupled class A power amplifier?
option1: a. 30%
option2: b. 80%
option3: c. 45%
option4: d. 50%
challenge: 3
question: Class C amplifiers are used as
option1: a. AF amplifiers

option2: b. small signal amplifiers
option3: c. RF amplifiers
option4: d. IF amplifiers
challenge: 2
question: Find the voltage drop developed across a D'Arsonval
meter movement having an internal resistance of 1 kohm(s) and a full
scale deflection current of 150 microamperes.
option1: a. 150 microvolts
option2: b. 150 mV
option3: c. 150 V
option4: d. 200 mV
challenge: 2
question: If the capacitor from emitter to ground in a common
emitter amplifier is removed, the voltage gain
option3: c. becomes erratic
option4: d. remains the same
challenge: 3
question: Comparatively, power amplifier has _____ ß.
option1: a. large
option2: b. very large
option3: c. small
option4: d. very small
challenge: 1
question: The driver stage usually employs _____ amplifier.
option1: a. class A power
option2: b. class C
option3: c. push-pull
challenge: 2
question: The push-pull circuit must use _____ operation.
option1: a. class A
option2: b. class B
option3: c. class C
challenge: 1
question: A complementary-symmetry amplifier has
option1: a. 1 PNP and 1 NPN transistor
option2: b. 2 PNP transistors
option3: c. 2 NPN transistors
option4: d. 2 PNP and 2 NPN transistors
challenge: 3
question: Power amplifiers generally use transformer coupling
because coupling provides
option1: a. cooling of the circuit
option2: b. distortionless output
option3: c. impedance matching
option4: d. good frequency response

challenge: 2
question: The output transformer used in a power amplifier is
a/an _____ transformer.
option1: a. 1:1 ratio
option2: b. step-down
option3: c. step-up
option4: d. isolation
challenge: 3
question: Transformer coupling can be used in _____ amplifiers.
option1: a. only power
option2: b. only voltage
option3: c. either power or voltage
option4: d. neither power nor voltage
challenge: 1
question: When negative current feedback is applied to an
amplifier, its output impedance
option3: c. decreases
challenge: 3
question: The quiescent current of a FET amplifier is
option1: a. Ids
option2: b. id
option3: c. ID
option4: d. Id
challenge: 2
question: The total decibel voltage gain of two cascaded voltage
amplifier where individual voltage gains are 10 and 100 is
option1: a. 20
option2: b. 60
option3: c. 800
option4: d. 1000
challenge: 4
question: The frequency response of the combined amplifier can be
compared with
option1: a. an OR gate
option2: b. a negative feedback amplifier
option3: c. a positive filter
option4: d. an AND gate
challenge: 1
question: Minimum interference with frequency response can be
given by
option1: a. direct coupling
option2: b. RC coupling
option3: c. transformer coupling
option4: d. instrumentation and control
challenge: 4
question: The impedance of a load must match the impedance of the
amplifier so that

option1: a. minimum power is transferred to the load
option2: b. the efficiency can be maintained at a low level
option3: c. the signal-to-noise ratio is maximized
option4: d. maximum power is transferred to the load
challenge: 3
question: The ratio of output rms power in watts to the input dc
power in watts in the different amplifier class is called _____.
option1: a. gain
option2: b. amplification factor
option3: c. efficiency
option4: d. phase power
challenge: 2
question: Consider a zener diode with a slope resistance of
10ohm(s) in series with a 90ohm(s) resistor fed from dc supply
containing a ripple voltage of 20 mV peak-to-peak. Compute for the
ripple voltage in load.
option1: a. 1 mVp-p
option2: b. 2 mVp-p
option3: c. 1 Vp-p
option4: d. 6 mVp-p
challenge: 1
question: The _____ of a common collector configuration is unity.
option1: a. voltage gain
option2: b. current gain
option3: c. power gain
option4: d. input impedance
challenge: 1
question: Transmit time is the time taken by the electrons or
holes to pass from
option1: a. emitter to collector
option2: b. collector to emitter
option3: c. base to emitter
option4: d. base to collector
challenge: 1
question: The _____ the voltage regulation, the better the
operation of the voltage supply circuit.
option1: a. smaller
option2: b. bigger
option3: c. moderate
option4: d. biggest
challenge: 3
question: In transistor amplifier, what transformer is used for
impedance matching?
option1: a. step up
option2: b. power
option3: c. step down
option4: d. isolation
challenge: 3
question: If an amplifier has a power gain of 100, then its dB
gain is

option1: a. 10
option2: b. 40
option3: c. 20
option4: d. 100
challenge: 2
question: In order to have more voltage gain from a transistor
amplifier the transistor used should have
option1: a. thin collector
option2: b. thin base
option3: c. wide emitter
option4: d. thin emitter
challenge: 3
question: The final stage of an amplifier uses _____ coupling.
option1: a. direct
option2: b. RC
challenge: 3
question: The largest theoretical voltage gain obtained with a
common collector amplifier is
option1: a. 100
option2: b. 10
option3: c. unity
challenge: 3
question: Increasing the overall Beta is an advantage of
option1: a. clap oscillator
option2: b. crystal oscillator
option3: c. Darlington pair
option4: d. CE amplifier
challenge: 1
question: The frequency of oscillation is _____ L and C in an LC
oscillator.
option1: a. inversely proportional to square root of
option2: b. directly proportional to square root of
option3: c. directly proportional to
option4: d. independent of the values of
challenge: 1
question: An oscillator employs ______ feedback.
option3: c. both positive and negative
option4: d. neither positive nor negative
challenge: 2
question: The reason why RC coupling is not used to amplify
extremely low frequencies.
option1: a. there is considerable power loss
option2: b. electrical size of coupling capacitor becomes very
large
option3: c. there is hum in the output

option4: d. electrical size of coupling capacitor becomes very
small
challenge: 3
question: Given three amplifiers with a gain of 10 and are
connected in cascade. How much is the overall gain?
option1: a. 24
option2: b. 10,000
option3: c. 30
option4: d. 20
challenge: 3
question: A pair of filter common on high fidelity system which
separate audio frequency band signals into two separate groups, where
one is fed to the tweeter and the other to the woofer is called
option1: a. equalizer
option2: b. synthesizer
option3: c. cross over network
option4: d. hybrid
challenge: 3
question: The frequency response of transformer coupling is
option1: a. good
option2: b. excellent
option3: c. poor
option4: d. very good
challenge: 3
question: The simplest variable-frequency sinusoidal oscillator
is
option1: a. the complicated Colpitts circuit
option2: b. the crystal circuit
option3: c. the Armstrong circuit
option4: d. the phase shift circuit
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following is provided by a CB transistor
amplifier?
option1: a. voltage gain
option2: b. power gain
option3: c. current gain
option4: d. gain stability
challenge: 2
question: In the initial stages of a multistage amplifier, _____
coupling is used.
option1: a. link
option2: b. RC
challenge: 1
question: In three amplifiers are connected in a multistage
arrangement, each with a voltage gain of 30; compute for the overall
voltage gain?
option1: a. 90
option2: b. 27,000

option3: c. 10
option4: d. 30
challenge: 2
question: If Av is 50 and Ai is 200, what is the power gain of a
common emitter amplifier?
option1: a. 1,000
option2: b. 10,000
option3: c. 100
option4: d. 100,000
challenge: 1
question: The gain of an amplifier with feedback is known as
_____ gain.
option1: a. closed loop
option2: b. resonant
option3: c. open loop
option4: d. unity
challenge: 3
question: Negative feedback is employed in
option1: a. oscillators
option2: b. rectifiers
option3: c. amplifiers
option4: d. receivers
challenge: 3
question: The gain of an amplifier is expressed in dB unit
because
option1: a. it is a simple unit
option2: b. calculations become easy
option3: c. human ear response is logarithmic
option4: d. it is the most appropriate unit
challenge: 2
question: What is the typical value of the emitter bypass
capacitor Ce in a multistage amplifier?
option1: a. about 0.1 µF
option2: b. about 50 µF
option3: c. about 100 pF
option4: d. about 0.01 µF
challenge: 3
question: In a multistage amplifier, if the stages have R and C
component only, _____ operation is apparent.
option1: a. class B
option2: b. class C
option3: c. class A
challenge: 1
question: In practice, what is normally varied in order to change
frequency of oscillations?
option1: a. capacitance
option2: b. inductance

challenge: 3
question: What is the main consideration in the output stage of
an amplifier?
option1: a. power output
option2: b. voltage gain
option3: c. power gain
option4: d. current gain
challenge: 2
question: Transformer coupling provides high gain because
option1: a. transformer is very efficient
option2: b. transformer matching can be achieved
option3: c. transformer steps up the voltage
option4: d. transformer steps up the current
challenge: 2
question: When negative voltage feedback is applied to an
amplifier, its output impedance
challenge: 4
question: An LC oscillator cannot be used to produce _____
frequencies.
option1: a. high
option3: c. audio
option4: d. very low
challenge: 1
question: A transistor converts
option1: a. dc power into ac power
option2: b. ac power into dc power
option3: c. high resistance into low resistance
option4: d. low resistance into high resistance
challenge: 1
question: Hartley oscillator is commonly used in which of the
following?
option1: a. radio receivers
option2: b. TV receivers
option3: c. radio transmitters
option4: d. CATV
challenge: 2
question: An oscillator oscillates due to
option1: a. negative feedback
option2: b. positive feedback
option3: c. both positive and negative feedback
option4: d. neither positive and negative feedback
challenge: 1
question: Generally, tuned amplifiers are operated in
option1: a. class C

option2: b. class A
option3: c. class B
challenge: 1
question: A tuned amplifier is used in what application?
option1: a. radio frequency
option2: b. audio frequency
option3: c. intermediate frequency
option4: d. low frequency
challenge: 3
question: What is the ratio of output to input impedance of a CE
amplifier?
option1: a. very low
option4: d. approximately 1
challenge: 1
question: For a constant output frequency, the simplest
sinusoidal oscillator circuit due to construct is _____.
option1: a. the crystal circuit
option2: b. the phase-shift circuit
option3: c. the Colpitts circuits
option4: d. the Hartley circuit
challenge: 4
question: The frequency stability of the oscillator output is
maximum in _____ oscillator.
option1: a. LC
option2: b. crystal
option3: c. phase-shift
option4: d. Wien bridge
challenge: 2
question: Transformer coupling introduces what type of
distortion?
option1: a. amplitude
option3: c. phase
option4: d. intermodulation
challenge: 2
question: A pulsating dc applied to power amplifiers causes
option1: a. burning of transistor
option2: b. hum in the circuit
option3: c. excessive forward voltage
option4: d. excessive reverse voltage
challenge: 1
question: What is the disadvantage of impedance matching?
option1: a. it gives distorted output
option2: b. it requires a transformer
option3: c. it gives low power output
option4: d. it is expensive

challenge: 1
question: In a phase-shift oscillator, _____ RC sections are
generally used.
option1: a. 3
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 2
option4: d. 5
challenge: 3
question: In a phase shift oscillator, what are the frequency
determining elements?
option1: a. L and C
option2: b. R, L and C
option3: c. R and C
option4: d. R and L
challenge: 1
question: When the gain is 20 without feedback and 12 with
negative feedback, feedback factor is
option1: a. 0.033
option2: b. 3/5
option3: c. 5/3
option4: d. 1/5
challenge: 2
question: The input impedance of which amplifier depends strongly
on load resistance?
option1: a. CE
option2: b. CC
option3: c. CB
option4: d. CD
challenge: 2
question: What capacitors are used in transistor amplifiers?
option1: a. paper
option2: b. electrolytic
option3: c. mica
option4: d. mylar
challenge: 1
question: An important limitation of crystal oscillator is
option1: a. its low output
option2: b. its high Q
option3: c. less availability of quartz crystal
option4: d. its high output
challenge: 3
question: What type of feedback is used in Wien bridge
oscillator?
option1: a. +
option2: b. -
option3: c. both + and -
option4: d. either + or -
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following below is not a description of
the two-stage amplifiers

option1: a. the input resistance is equal to the input resistance
of the first stage unless feedback is applied
option2: b. its output resistance is equal to the output
resistance of the final stage unless feedback is applied
option3: c. its noise level is equal to the accumulated noise of
the two stages, either by multiplying the noise voltage amplitudes
together or by adding the noise decibel levels together
option4: d. the output resistance is equal to the output
resistance of the first stage unless feedback is applied
challenge: 3
question: What is the most costly coupling?
option1: a. RC coupling
option2: b. direct
challenge: 3
question: When the output of an amplifier is 10 V and 100 mV from
the output is fed back to the input, feedback factor is
option1: a. 10
option2: b. 0.1
option3: c. 0.01
option4: d. 0.15
challenge: 1
question: What is the piezoelectric effect in a crystal?
option1: a. voltage is developed because of mechanical stress
option2: b. change in resistance because of temperature
option3: c. change of frequency because of temperature
option4: d. current is developed due to force applied
challenge: 1
question: The input resistance of a common emitter amplifier is
affected by
option1: a. Re, re, and ß
option2: b. Rc and re
option3: c. ß and re
option4: d. a and re
challenge: 4
question: What is the typical Q of a crystal?
option1: a. 100
option2: b. 50
option3: c. 1000
option4: d. more than 10,000
challenge: 1
question: What is the axis that connects the corners of a
crystal?
option1: a. X
option2: b. mechanical
option3: c. Y
option4: d. Z
challenge: 1
question: Determine the attenuation in dB for a T-pad for which

R1 = R2 = 40 ohm(s) and R3 = 36 ohm(s). The pad connects a 50 ohm(s)
generator to a 50 ohm(s) load.
option1: a. 9.83 dB
option2: b. 8.93 dB
option3: c. 10.83 dB
option4: d. 11.93 dB
challenge: 2
question: _____ is usually employed at the output stage of an
amplifier.
option1: a. class A power amplifier
option2: b. push-pull amplifier
option3: c. pre-amplifier
challenge: 2
question: Why is it that the size of a power transistor is made
considerably large?
option1: a. to provide easy handling
option2: b. to dissipate more heat
option3: c. to simplify construction
option4: d. to facilitate connections
challenge: 1
question: When crystal frequency increases with temperature, it
has _____ temperature co-efficient.
option1: a. +
option2: b. -
option3: c. 0
challenge: 1
question: What is the purpose of the bypass capacitor in a
common-emitter amplifier?
option1: a. it increases voltage gain
option2: b. it decreases voltage gain
option3: c. it provides ac grounding
option4: d. no effect in the circuit
challenge: 2
question: An emitter follower is equivalent to
option1: a. common emitter amplifier
option2: b. common collector amplifier
option3: c. common base amplifier
option4: d. hybrid connection
challenge: 3
question: The crystal oscillator frequency is very stable due to
_____ of the crystal.
option1: a. rigidity
option2: b. ductility
option3: c. high Q
option4: d. low Q
challenge: 4
question: The bandwidth of an amplifier ______ when negative
feedback is applied.

option3: c. becomes infinite
option4: d. increases
challenge: 2
question: The term 1 + Aß in the expression for gain with
negative feedback is known as
option1: a. gain factor
option2: b. sacrifice factor
option3: c. feedback factor
option4: d. quality factor
challenge: 4
question: Emitter follower employs _____ negative feedback.
option1: a. 50 %
option2: b. 25 %
option3: c. 75 %
option4: d. 100 %
challenge: 1
question: What application where one would most likely find a
crystal oscillator?
option1: a. radio transmitter
option2: b. AF generator
option3: c. radio receiver
option4: d. oscilloscope
challenge: 1
question: What is the most important consideration in power
amplifiers?
option1: a. collector efficiency
option2: b. biasing the circuit
option3: c. to keep the transformer cool
option4: d. amplifier distortion
challenge: 2
question: When the gain versus frequency curve of a transistor
amplifier is not flat, _____ distortion is present.
option1: a. amplitude
option3: c. intermodulation
option4: d. phase
challenge: 3
question: In a Colpitt's oscillator, feedback is obtained
option1: a. by magnetic induction
option2: b. by a tickler coil
option3: c. from the center of split capacitors
option4: d. from the center of split capacitors
challenge: 1
question: When the collector resistor in a common emitter
amplifier is increased in value the voltage gain

option4: d. becomes erratic
challenge: 1
question: The output signal of a CE amplifier is always
option1: a. out of phase with the input signal
option2: b. equal to the input signal
option3: c. in phase with the input signal
option4: d. larger than the input signal
challenge: 3
question: What is the purpose of capacitors in a transistor
amplifier?
option1: a. to protect the transistor
option2: b. to cool the transistor
option3: c. the couple or bypass ac component
option4: d. to provide biasing
challenge: 1
question: What is the phase difference between voltage across
collector load and signal voltage in a common emitter amplifier?
option4: d. 90 degrees
challenge: 1
question: When CE configuration is used for an oscillator, the
voltage fed back must
option1: a. be inverted by 180 degrees
option2: b. be taken from a capacitor
option3: c. have a 0 degree phase shift
option4: d. taken from an inductor
challenge: 2
question: Class B operation has a maximum possible efficiency of
_____ percent.
option1: a. 100%
option2: b. 78.5%
option3: c. 75%
option4: d. 2.2%
challenge: 1
question: The most stable sine-wave oscillator which uses piezo-
electric quartz crystal.
option1: a. Crystal oscillator
option2: b. Wien-bridge oscillator
option3: c. DC restorer
option4: d. Hartley and Colpitts oscillator
challenge: 3
question: To sustain oscillations, the power gain of the
amplifier may be
option1: a. between 0.1 and 0.5
option2: b. any value from 0.5 upward
option3: c. equal to or greater than 1

challenge: 3
question: In a phase-shift oscillator, 180 degrees phase shift is
obtained by
option1: a. a transformer
option2: b. LC tank circuit
option3: c. three RC sections
option4: d. three LC sections
challenge: 1
question: Feedback circuit usually employs _____ network.
option1: a. resistive
option2: b. inductive
option3: c. capacitive
option4: d. active
challenge: 1
question: Emitter follower is used for
option1: a. impedance matching
option2: b. voltage gain
option3: c. current gain
option4: d. power gain
challenge: 3
question: One of the items below is a characteristic of cascaded
amplifiers?
option1: a. doubled transconductance
option2: b. total gain is lessen
option3: c. increased overall gain
option4: d. increased overall amplification ratio
challenge: 3
question: Logic analyzer is used to
option1: a. verify the logic operation of the gates in a circuit
option2: b. to display the fall time
option3: c. to sample and display systems signal
option4: d. to analyze the logic operation of the system
challenge: 2
question: Quartz crystal is most commonly used in crystal
oscillator because
option1: a. it is easily available
option2: b. it has superior electrical properties
option3: c. it is quite inexpensive
option4: d. it is very rugged
challenge: 2
question: The operating frequency of a Wien-bridge oscillator is
given by
option2: b. 1/(2piRC)
option3: c. 1/(4piLC)
option4: d. 1/(29RC)
challenge: 2
question: Which operation gives the maximum distortion?
option1: a. class A
option2: b. class C

option3: c. class B
challenge: 3
question: Low efficiency of a power amplifier results in
option1: a. low forward bias
option2: b. less battery consumption
option3: c. more battery consumption
option4: d. low power output
challenge: 1
question: In an LC oscillator, the frequency of oscillations is
given by
option2: b. 2pi/ sqrt(LC)
option3: c. sqrt(LC)/2pi
option4: d. 2pi/ sqrt(LC)
challenge: 2
question: Class A operation has a maximum possible efficiency of
_____ percent
option1: a. 100%
option2: b. 50%
option3: c. 75%
option4: d. 25%
challenge: 1
question: Is a nucleonic sensing method employing usually one or
more radioisotope sources and radiation detectors
option1: a. Radiation sensing
option2: b. Sonic level sensing
option3: c. Conductivity level sensing
option4: d. Dielectric variation sensing
challenge: 2
question: Concerned with the measurement of electric signals on
the scalp which arise from the underlying neural activity in the brain
(including synaptic sources).
option1: a. ECG
option2: b. EEG
option3: c. Ultrasound
option4: d. EKG
challenge: 2
question: In therapeutic radiology and in nuclear medicine, the
energies of interest range from about
option1: a. 10 to 100 keV
option2: b. 100 to 10000 keV
option3: c. 10000 to 100000 keV
option4: d. 1 to 10 keV
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is a four-layer diode with an
anode gate and a cathode gate?
option1: a. SCS
option2: b. SCR
option3: c. SBS

option4: d. SUS
challenge: 1
question: _____ is basically a two terminal parallel-inverse
combination of semiconductor layers that permits triggering in either
direction.
option1: a. diac
option2: b. triac
option3: c. quadrac
option4: d. shockley diode
challenge: 4
question: What is the typical value of the interbase resistance
of a UJT?
option1: a. 20 kohm(s)
option2: b. between 4 to 4 kohm(s)
option3: c. 4 kohm(s)
option4: d. between 4 to 10 kohm(s)
challenge: 1
question: PUT stands for
option1: a. programmable unijunction transistor
option2: b. programmable universal transistor
option3: c. pulse unijunction transistor
option4: d. pulse universal transistor
challenge: 1
question: Which thyristor conducts current in both direction when
turned on?
option1: a. diac
option2: b. SCR
option3: c. quadrac
option4: d. SCS
challenge: 1
question: _____ is a 3 terminal device used to control large
current to a load.
option1: a. SCR
option2: b. SCS
option3: c. GTO
option4: d. thyristor
challenge: 1
question: Another term for thermoelectric effect.
option1: a. Seebeck effect
option2: b. Hall effect
option3: c. photoelectric effect
option4: d. thermal effect
challenge: 4
question: _____ are the regions corresponding to open circuit
condition for the controlled rectifier which block the flow of charge
from anode to cathode.
option1: a. forward blocking region
option2: b. reverse blocking region
option3: c. breakdown region
option4: d. both A and B above

challenge: 1
question: The V-I characteristics of a triac in the first and
third quadrants are essentially identical to those of _____ in the
first quotation.
option1: a. SCR
option2: b. UJT
option4: d. SCS
challenge: 2
question: When temperature increases, the inter-base resistance
of a UJT
option4: d. is zero
challenge: 2
question: The 3 terminals of a triac are
option1: a. drain, source, gate
option2: b. two main terminals and a gate terminal
option3: c. cathode, anode, gate
option4: d. anode, source, gate
challenge: 2
question: A triac is equivalent to two SCRs
option1: a. in parallel
option2: b. in inverse-parallel
option3: c. in series
option4: d. in inverse-series
challenge: 2
question: In diagnostic radiology and for superficial therapy
purposes, the energy spectrum of radiation varies from about
option1: a. 1 to 10 keV
option2: b. 10 to 100 keV
option3: c. 100 to 10000 keV
option4: d. 10000 to 100000 keV
challenge: 1
question: The x-ray region of the electromagnetic spectrum has a
corresponding range of wavelengths from
option1: a. 0.1 to 0.0001 nm
option2: b. 0.1 to 0.0001 pm
option3: c. 0.1 to 0.0001 µm
option4: d. 0.1 to 0.0001 mm
challenge: 2
question: The 3 terminals of an SCR are the
option1: a. anode, cathode, grid
option2: b. cathode, anode, gate
option3: c. anode, cathode, drain
option4: d. drain, source, gate
challenge: 1
question: If a body is considered as a conducting sphere of 0.5m

radius, its capacitance to infinity is
option1: a. 55 pF
option2: b. 55 nF
option3: c. 55 µF
option4: d. 55 F
challenge: 1
question: How many semiconductor layers does an SCR have?
option1: a. 4
option2: b. 2
option3: c. 3
option4: d. 5
challenge: 3
question: A triac is a _____ switch.
option1: a. unidirectional
option3: c. bidirectional
option4: d. omnidirectional
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following is the normal way to turn on an
SCR?
option1: a. by breakover voltage
option2: b. by appropriate anode current
option3: c. by appropriate cathode current
option4: d. by appropriate gate current
challenge: 3
question: A triac can pass a portion of _____ half-cycle through
the load.
option1: a. only +
option2: b. only -
option3: c. both + and -
option4: d. neither + nor -
challenge: 1
question: A diac has how many terminals?
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 3
option4: d. 5
challenge: 3
question: An SCR combines the features of
option1: a. a rectifier and resistance
option2: b. a rectifier and capacitor
option3: c. a rectifier and transistor
option4: d. a rectifier and inductor
challenge: 3
question: Which is the control element in an SCR?
option1: a. anode
option2: b. cathode
option3: c. gate
option4: d. cathode supply

challenge: 2
question: How many semiconductor layers does a triac have?
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 3
option4: d. 1
challenge: 1
question: A diac has how many semiconductor layers?
option1: a. 3
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 2
option4: d. 5
challenge: 3
question: The p-type emitter of ac UJT is _____ doped.
option1: a. lightly
option2: b. moderately
option3: c. heavily
option4: d. not
challenge: 3
question: A diac has
option1: a. one pn junction
option2: b. three pn junctions
option3: c. two pn junctions
option4: d. four pn junctions
challenge: 1
question: A UJT is sometimes is called _____ diode.
option1: a. double-based
option2: b. single-based
option3: c. a rectifier
option4: d. a switching
challenge: 1
question: A diac is _____ switch.
option1: a. an ac
option2: b. a mechanical
option3: c. a dc
option4: d. both ac and dc
challenge: 2
question: An effect that reduces the possibility of accidental
triggering of the SCS.
option1: a. Miller effect
option2: b. Rate effect
option3: c. End effect
option4: d. Flywheel effect
challenge: 4
question: Which device does not have a gate terminal?
option1: a. triac
option2: b. SCR
option3: c. FET
option4: d. diac

challenge: 1
question: An SCR is a _____ triggered device.
option1: a. current
option2: b. power
option3: c. voltage
option4: d. noise
challenge: 3
question: When a UJT is turned on the resistance between emitter
terminal and lower base terminal
challenge: 3
question: A UJT has
option1: a. two pn junction
option2: b. three pn junctions
option3: c. one pn junction
option4: d. four pn junctions
challenge: 3
question: The UJT may be used as
option1: a. an amplifier
option2: b. a rectifier
option3: c. a sawtooth generator
option4: d. a multivibrator
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is the normal way to turn on a
diac?
option1: a. by breakover voltage
option2: b. by gate voltage
option3: c. by gate current
option4: d. by anode current
challenge: 4
question: Essentially, power electronics deals with the control
of ac power at what frequencies?
option1: a. 20kHz
option2: b. 1,000 kHz
option3: c. frequencies less than 10 Hz
option4: d. 60 Hz frequency
challenge: 3
question: When the emitter terminal of a UJT is open, the
resistance between base-terminals is generally
option1: a. low
option2: b. extremely low
option3: c. high
option4: d. extremely high
challenge: 3
question: AC power in a load can be controlled by connecting
option1: a. two SCRs in series
option2: b. two SCRs in parallel

option3: c. two SCRs in parallel opposition
option4: d. two SCRs in series opposition
challenge: 1
question: Which equation defines the intrinsic stand off ratio
(aeta) of a UJT?
option1: a. Rb1/(Rb1+Rb2)
option2: b. (Rb1+Rb2)/Rb1
option3: c. (Rb1+Rb2)/Rb2
option4: d. Rb1 + Rb2
challenge: 3
question: To turn off an SCR, which of the following is done?
option1: a. reduce gate voltage to zero
option2: b. reverse bias the gate
option3: c. reduce anode voltage to zero
option4: d. reduce cathode voltage to zero
challenge: 2
question: Control system that maintains a speed, voltage, or
other variable within specified limits of a preset level.
option1: a. controller
option2: b. regulator
option3: c. sensor
option4: d. computer
challenge: 1
question: To turn on a UJT, the forward bias on emitter diode
should be _____ the peak point voltage.
option1: a. more than
option3: c. equal to
option4: d. twice
challenge: 3
question: When temperature increases, the intrinsic stand off
ratio
option3: c. essentially constant
challenge: 1
question: Dimensionless parameter of the second-order
characteristic equation.
option1: a. damping ratio
option2: b. accuracy
option3: c. efficiency ratio
option4: d. transfer function ratio
challenge: 1
question: _____ is the ratio of two exponential functions of
time.
option1: a. transfer function
option2: b. damping ratio
option3: c. efficiency
option4: d. gain

challenge: 1
question: A diac is turned on by
option1: a. breakover voltage
option2: b. gate current
option3: c. gate voltage
option4: d. anode current
challenge: 4
question: An SCR whose state is controlled by the light falling
upon a silicon semiconductor layer of the device.
option1: a. SCS
option2: b. GTO
option3: c. thyristor
option4: d. LASCR
challenge: 3
question: A diac is simply
option1: a. a single junction
option2: b. a three junction device
option3: c. a triac without a gate terminal
option4: d. an SCR
challenge: 3
question: What region lies between the peak point and valley
point of UJT emitter characteristics?
option1: a. saturation
option2: b. cut-off
option3: c. negative-resistance
option4: d. positive resistance
challenge: 4
question: Refers to the application of electronic theory,
technology, instrumentation and computing system to biological research
and medical problems.
option1: a. medical electronics
option2: b. genetics electronics
option3: c. biomedical engineering
option4: d. biomedical electronics
challenge: 4
question: Which device exhibits negative resistance region?
option1: a. diac
option2: b. triac
option4: d. UJT
challenge: 2
question: The UJT operates in what region after peak point?
option1: a. cut off
option2: b. negative resistance
option3: c. saturation
option4: d. positive resistance
challenge: 4
question: SCR is rectifier constructed of silicon material.
Silicon is chosen because

option1: a. it is the most abundant material
option2: b. of its strength and ruggedness
option3: c. it is much cheaper than any other material
option4: d. of its high temperature and power capabilities
challenge: 2
question: A transconduction principle used primarily in optical
sensors.
option1: a. photoconductive transconduction
option2: b. photovoltaic transconduction
option3: c. electromagnetic transconduction
option4: d. piezoelectric transconduction
challenge: 3
question: Is a solid state equivalent of gas-filled triode.
option1: a. TRIAC
option2: b. thyristor
option3: c. SCR
option4: d. SCS
challenge: 2
question: The supply voltage is generally ____ that of breakover
voltage in an SCR.
option3: c. greater than
option4: d. twice
challenge: 4
question: The triac is fundamentally a/an _____ with a gate
terminal for controlling the turn-on conditions of the bilateral device
in either direction.
option1: a. SCR
option2: b. quadrac
option3: c. Shockley diode
option4: d. diac
challenge: 1
question: When the supply voltage exceeds the breakover voltage
of an SCR, it
option1: a. starts conducting
option2: b. stops conducting
option3: c. conducts leakage current
option4: d. conducts thermal current
challenge: 4
question: The step response of a first order system is given by
option1: a. y(t) = A(0)
option2: b. y(t) = A(0) + A(1)e^(s1 t) + A(2)e^(s2 t) + A(3)e^(s3
t)
option3: c. y(t) = A(0) + A(1))e^(s1 t) + A(2)e^(s2 t)
option4: d. y(t) = A(0) + Ae^(s t)
challenge: 3
question: A feedback control system in which the controlled
variables is mechanical position.
option1: a. closed-loop feedback control system

option2: b. open-loop feedback control system
option3: c. servomechanism
option4: d. mechanical servomechanism
challenge: 2
question: What is that voltage above which the SCR enters the
conduction region?
option1: a. reverse breakover voltage
option2: b. forward breakover voltage
option3: c. holding voltage
option4: d. trigger voltage
challenge: 1
question: A locus or path of the roots traced out on the s-plane
as a parameter is changed.
option1: a. root locus
option2: b. hyperbola
option3: c. parabola
option4: d. circle
challenge: 1
question: A control system in which the output is related to the
input by device parameters only.
option1: a. open loop control system
option2: b. closed loop control system
option3: c. servomechanism
option4: d. feedback control system
challenge: 1
question: What is the value of current below which the SCR
switches from forward blocking region under stated conditions?
option1: a. holding current
option2: b. forward current
option3: c. reverse current
option4: d. trigger current
challenge: 1
question: What is the value of the zener or avalanche region of
the fundamental two-layer semiconductor diode?
option1: a. reverse breakdown voltage
option2: b. forward breakdown voltage
option4: d. breakover voltage
challenge: 1
question: The required gate triggering current of GTO is
option1: a. 20 mA
option2: b. 10 mA
option3: c. 30 mA
option4: d. 40 mA
challenge: 2
question: An automatic speed control device using the centrifugal
force on rotating flyweights as the feedback element.
option1: a. regulator
option2: b. flywheel governor
option3: c. field control

option4: d. throttle valve
challenge: 3
question: What is the sensing element of acceleration transducer?
option1: a. damper
option2: b. spring
option3: c. seismic mass
option4: d. crystal
challenge: 4
question: Some areas where GTO is applicable.
option1: a. counters
option2: b. pulse generators
option3: c. multivibrators
challenge: 3
question: A Greek work which means "switch".
option1: a. ristor
option2: b. trans
option3: c. thy
option4: d. thyristor
challenge: 1
question: What is the typical turn-on time of an SCR?
option1: a. 1µs
option2: b. 5µs
option3: c. 10µs
option4: d. 3µs
challenge: 2
question: An SCR is a solid state equivalent of which tube?
option1: a. triode
option2: b. gas-filled triode
option3: c. pentode
option4: d. tetrode
challenge: 1
question: The gate of an SCR is _____ with respect to its
cathode.
option1: a. +
option2: b. at zero potential
option3: c. -
option4: d. at infinite potential
challenge: 2
question: A normally operated SCR has an anode which is _____
with respect to cathode.
option1: a. -
option2: b. +
option3: c. at zero potential
challenge: 1
question: A device which can measure humidity directly, with a
single sensing element. It is usually calibrated in terms of relative
humidity.

option1: a. hygrometer
option2: b. tachometer
option3: c. Venturi meter
option4: d. hydrometer
challenge: 2
question: One of the most widely used sensing elements,
particularly for pressure ranges higher than 2 MPa.
option1: a. bellows
option2: b. bourdon tube
option3: c. capsule
option4: d. straight tube
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following can change the angle of
conduction in an SCR?
option1: a. changing anode voltage
option2: b. changing gate voltage
option3: c. reverse biasing the gate
option4: d. changing cathode voltage
challenge: 3
question: An SCR is a member of the _____ family.
option1: a. thyrector
option2: b. thyratron
option3: c. thyristor
challenge: 3
question: How many pn junction does an SCR have?
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 3
option4: d. 5
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following is NOT a method primarily used
for density sensing?
option1: a. sonic
option2: b. radiation
option3: c. vibrating element
option4: d. differential
challenge: 1
question: When SCR starts conducting, then _____ loses all
control.
option1: a. gate
option2: b. anode
option3: c. cathode
option4: d. anode supply
challenge: 4
question: An SCR when turned on has a typical voltage across of
option1: a. zero
option2: b. 0.1 V
option4: d. 1 V

challenge: 2
question: The typical turn off time of an SCR is about
option1: a. 20 to 40 µs
option2: b. 5 to 30 µs
option3: c. 1 to 5 µs
option4: d. 15 to 25 µs
challenge: 1
question: An SCR is made of what material?
option1: a. silicon
option2: b. carbon
option3: c. germanium
option4: d. gallium-arsenide
challenge: 3
question: ECG stands for electrocardiography while EEG stands for
option1: a. electroextracellugraphy
option2: b. electroemyography
option3: c. electroencephalography
option4: d. electrovectorcardiography
challenge: 4
question: Acceleration transducers are called
option1: a. gyros
option2: b. force transducers
option3: c. tachometers
option4: d. accelerometers
challenge: 3
question: When an SCR is compared to a switch, it is considered
as a _____ switch.
option1: a. bidirectional
option3: c. unidirectional
challenge: 1
question: When the firing angle of an SCR is increased, its
output
option3: c. remains unchanged
option4: d. doubles
challenge: 3
question: When an SCR is OFF, the current in the circuit is
option1: a. exactly zero
option2: b. large leakage current
option3: c. small leakage current
option4: d. thermal current
challenge: 1
question: An SCR can exercise control over _____ of ac supply.
option1: a. + or - half cycles
option2: b. both + and - half cycles
option3: c. only + half cycle

option4: d. only - half cycle
challenge: 3
question: What is the most widely used attitude and attitude-rate
transducers?
option1: a. flowmeter
option2: b. psychometer
option3: c. gyro
option4: d. hygrometer
challenge: 2
question: A sensing element which is typically made from a thin-
walled tube formed into deep convolutions and sealed at one end, whose
displacement can then be made to act on a transduction element.
option1: a. diaphragm
option2: b. bellow
option3: c. capsule
option4: d. bourdon tube
challenge: 3
question: The voltage across an SCR when it is turned on is about
option1: a. 0.5 V
option2: b. 0.1 V
option3: c. 1 V
option4: d. 5 V
challenge: 2
question: An SCR is made of silicon and not germanium because
silicon
option1: a. is inexpensive
option2: b. has low leakage current
option3: c. is mechanically strong
option4: d. is tetravalent
challenge: 1
question: What is the control element of an SCR?
option1: a. gate
option2: b. anode
option3: c. grid
option4: d. cathode
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following is a common application of UJT?
option1: a. amplifier
option2: b. rectifier
option3: c. multivibrator
option4: d. sawtooth generator
challenge: 3
question: The integrated circuit was invented at Texas Instrument
in 1958 by
option1: a. Jonathan Kurtz
option2: b. James Faug
option3: c. Jack Kilby
option4: d. Harold Lanche
challenge: 3

question: Which component cannot be fabricated into Ics?
option1: a. diode
option2: b. resistor
challenge: 3
question: The purpose of a comparator in op-amps
option1: a. detect the occurrence of a changing input voltage
option2: b. maintain a constant output when the dc input voltage
changes
option3: c. produce a change in output when an input voltage
equals a reference voltage
option4: d. amplify an input voltage
challenge: 4
question: The op-amp comparator circuit uses
option1: a. negative feedback
option2: b. a resistor
option3: c. positive feedback
option4: d. no feedback
challenge: 1
question: _____ is a complete electronic circuit, containing
transistors, diodes, resistors, and capacitors processed on and
contained entirely within a single chip of silicon.
option1: a. integrated circuit (IC)
option2: b. monolithic IC
option3: c. linear IC
option4: d. digital IC
challenge: 4
question: A process used to produce IC semiconductor elements.
option1: a. alloy junction
option2: b. mesa diffusion
option3: c. grown junction
option4: d. planar diffusion
challenge: 4
question: Which integrated circuit has more than 1,000 gates?
option1: a. small-scale integration (SSI)
option2: b. medium-scale integration (MSI)
option3: c. large-scale integration (LSI)
option4: d. very large-scale integration (VLSI)
challenge: 1
question: A characteristic that does not apply to an op-amp.
option1: a. low power
option2: b. high gain
option3: c. high input impedance
option4: d. low output impedance
challenge: 1
question: An integrator op-amp uses what element in the feedback
path?
option1: a. capacitor
option2: b. resistor

challenge: 3
question: Which integrated circuit has more than 100 gates?
option1: a. small scale integration (SSI)
option2: b. medium scale integration (MSI)
option3: c. large scale integration (LSI)
option4: d. very large scale integration (VLSI)
challenge: 1
question: Which of the choices below are sources of output offset
voltage
option1: a. the differences in Vbe values
option2: b. the differences in Vce values
option3: c. the differences in transistor voltage
challenge: 1
question: The voltage gain of a differential amplifier
option1: a. equal the AC collector resistance divided by two
times the AC resistance of the emitter diode
option2: b. sum of two emitter current
option3: c. equals the difference between two base currents
option4: d. is half of either collector current
challenge: 2
question: Which integrated circuit has 10 to 100 gates?
challenge: 1
question: Integrated circuits having up to 9 gates is called
challenge: 1
question: What is a VCO?
option1: a. exhibits a frequency that can be varied with a dc
control voltage
option2: b. a single pole low pass filter
option3: c. is the terminal of the op-amp where input resistors
are placed
challenge: 4
question: The reason why integrated circuits are divided into
digital and linear categories is because
option1: a. they either possess analog or digital signals
option2: b. they are either used as input or output components
option3: c. up to the present these are the only two known
categories
option4: d. they are simply circuits that happen to be

constructed integrally and like all circuits, are either switching type
or amplifying type
challenge: 1
question: How is the output of a differentiator related to the
input in an op-amp?
option1: a. the output of a differentiator is proportional to the
rate of change of the input
option2: b. the output of a differentiator is inversely
proportional to the rate of change of the input
option3: c. the two parameters are not related
option4: d. the two parameters are equal to each other
challenge: 4
question: I.Cs have advantages over discrete device circuits
which is
option1: a. lower cost
option2: b. high reliability
option3: c. smaller size
challenge: 4
question: Dual in line package (DIP) is the most popular IC
package because
option1: a. it is low in cost
option2: b. it is one of the tiniest packages known
option3: c. it ruggedly resists vibration due to its solid
construction
challenge: 1
question: What is the typical input resistance of the op-amp when
measured under open-loop?
option1: a. 2 MO
option2: b. 3 MO
option3: c. 1.5 MO
option4: d. 2.5 MO
challenge: 3
question: After assembly, the I.Cs are tested and classified as
either
option1: a. military
option2: b. industrial
option3: c. military or industrial
option4: d. military and industrial
challenge: 4
question: For a constant input voltage to an integrator, why is
the voltage across the capacitor linear?
option1: a. capacitor does not dissipate heat
option2: b. capacitor current is constantly changing
option3: c. capacitor current is linear
option4: d. capacitor current is constant
challenge: 2
question: Upon what principle does a relaxation oscillator
operate?

option1: a. resistors in cascade
option2: b. the charging and discharging of a capacitor
option3: c. the rectification process of a diode
option4: d. switching transistors
challenge: 2
question: I.Cs for military and space applications are tested in
the temperature range of
option1: a. 0 C to 70 C
option2: b. -55 C to 125 C
option3: c. -173 C to 100 C
option4: d. -10 C to 25 C
challenge: 1
question: For most commercial and industrial applications, I.Cs
are tested in the temperature range of
option1: a. 0 C to 70 C
option2: b. -55 C to 125 C
option3: c. -173 C to 100 C
option4: d. -10 C to 25 C
challenge: 1
question: An IC op amp that combines FETs and bipolar transistors
option1: a. BIFET
option2: b. MOSFET
option3: c. CMOS
option4: d. IGFET
challenge: 2
question: A mass of metal attached to the case of a transistor to
allow the heat to escape more easily.
option1: a. flag
option2: b. heat sink
option3: c. op amp
option4: d. photodiode
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following IC processes digital signals?
option1: a. digital IC
option2: b. discrete IC
option4: d. monolithic IC
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following IC processes analog signals?
option1: a. digital IC
option2: b. discrete IC
option4: d. monolithic IC
challenge: 4
question: A signal that is applied with equal strength to both
inputs of a differential amplifier or an op amp.
option1: a. common emitter circuit
option2: b. common ratio signal
option3: c. CMRR
option4: d. common mode signal

challenge: 2
question: A basic circuit that a designer can modify to get more
advanced circuits.
option1: a. experimental
option2: b. prototype
option3: c. peak detector
option4: d. loading
challenge: 3
question: What is the most commonly used type of linear IC?
option1: a. 741
option2: b. 555 timer
option3: c. operational amplifier
option4: d. LM340
challenge: 2
question: What has been considered as the industry standard of
linear I.Cs?
option1: a. 555 timer
option2: b. 741 op amp
option3: c. LM340
option4: d. LM317
challenge: 1
question: What type of response characterizes the single pole,
low pass filter?
option1: a. flat from dc to the critical frequency
option2: b. current downward up to the maximum frequency
option3: c. curved upward up to the maximum frequency
option4: d. no response characteristics
challenge: 1
question: Which of the item below is an advantage of a shunt
regulator over a series type?
option1: a. has an inherent current limiting
option2: b. efficient than series regulator because of its
component used
option3: c. a non regulating device
challenge: 1
question: The most popular IC used in timing circuits is the
option1: a. 555 timer
option2: b. 741
option3: c. LM317
option4: d. LM340
challenge: 3
question: The total power dissipated by the operational amplifier
is typically
option1: a. 5 mW
option2: b. 0.5 mW
option3: c. 50 mW
option4: d. 500 mW
challenge: 1

question: In the standard letter-number identification code of
operational amplifiers, the letter prefix which normally consists of
two or three letters identifies the
option1: a. manufacturer
option2: b. type of packaging
option3: c. type of op amp
option4: d. temperature range of operation
challenge: 4
question: An op amp circuit that has its output tied directly to
the inverting input terminal is called a
option1: a. current follower
option2: b. inverting amplifier
option3: c. non-inverting amplifier
option4: d. voltage follower
challenge: 2
question: Most op amp circuits use
option1: a. positive feedback
option2: b. negative feedback
option3: c. open loop operation
option4: d. closed loop operation
challenge: 1
question: The three most common package suffix code are the
following except one.
option1: a. A
option2: b. D
option3: c. J
option4: d. N
challenge: 1
question: What is the package suffix code for a plastic dual in
line for surface mounting on a pc board?
option1: a. D
option2: b. J
option3: c. N
option4: d. P
challenge: 2
question: What is the approximate short circuit current output of
741 op amp?
option1: a. 15mA
option2: b. 25mA
option3: c. 30mA
option4: d. 35mA
challenge: 1
question: A circuit whose components are soldered or otherwise
connected mechanically
option1: a. discrete circuit
option2: b. non discrete circuit
option3: c. biasing circuits
option4: d. integrated circuits
challenge: 4
question: MPP value in an op amp is synonymous with

option1: a. output voltage swing
option2: b. equal to the difference of the two supply voltages
option3: c. the maximum unclipped peak to peak output of an
amplifier
challenge: 1
question: What is the highest undistorted frequency out of an op
amp for a given slew rate and peak voltage?
option1: a. power bandwidth
option2: b. cut off frequency
option3: c. critical frequency
option4: d. 3 dB bandwidth
challenge: 4
question: What is summing point in op-amps?
option1: a. simulates mathematical integration
option2: b. acts as a scaling differentiator
option3: c. determines the rate of change of the integrator
output voltage
option4: d. a terminal of the op amp where the input resistors
are commonly connected
challenge: 2
question: In terms of circuit component, what does the term pole
refer to?
option1: a. a single RL circuit
option2: b. a single RC circuit
option3: c. a cascaded amplifier
option4: d. a summing amplifier
challenge: 1
question: What is the slew rate of a 741 op amp?
option1: a. 0.5 V/µs
option2: b. 1 V/µs
option3: c. 0.5 V/ms
option4: d. 1 V/ms
challenge: 3
question: What specification of an operational amplifier which
tells how fast the output voltage can change?
option1: a. frequency response
option2: b. common mode rejection ratio
option3: c. slew rate
option4: d. open loop voltage gain
challenge: 2
question: What is the typical input bias current of a 741 op amp?
option1: a. 70 nA
option2: b. 80 nA
option3: c. 90 nA
option4: d. 100 nA
challenge: 4
question: The _____ of an op amp is its voltage gain when there
is no negative feedback.
option1: a. CMRR

option2: b. unity gain
option3: c. close loop
option4: d. open loop
challenge: 3
question: The term 'monolithic' is derived from the combination
of the Greek words 'monos' and 'lithos' which means
option1: a. single element
option2: b. single wafer
option3: c. single stone
option4: d. single chip
challenge: 4
question: A technique used to eliminate the need for inductive
elements in monolithic integrated circuits.
option1: a. projection printing
option2: b. photolithographic
option3: c. LC synthesis
option4: d. RC synthesis
challenge: 3
question: Most linear I.Cs are low power devices with power
dissipation ratings of
option1: a. 5 W
option2: b. 1 µW
option3: c. less than 1 W
option4: d. more than 1 W but less than 2 W
challenge: 4
question: An integrated circuit for both astable and monostable
applications.
option1: a. 741 op amp
option2: b. discrete I.Cs
option3: c. monolithic I.Cs
option4: d. 555 timer
challenge: 1
question: Astable multivibrator is
option1: a. a square wave clock
option2: b. equivalent to a flip-flop
option3: c. a one shot multivibrator
option4: d. monostable in nature
challenge: 3
question: In a 5 level detector circuit
option1: a. the noninverting input is connected to +5V
option2: b. the input signal is limited to 5V peak value
option3: c. the inverting input is connected to +5V
option4: d. the input signal must be riding on a +5Vdc level
challenge: 2
question: To convert a summing amplifier to an averaging
amplifier
option1: a. all inputs must be of the same value
option2: b. the ratio of Rf/R must be equal to the reciprocal of
the number of inputs
option3: c. all input resistors must be of different value

option4: d. the ratio of Rf/R must equal to the number of inputs
challenge: 4
question: An oscillator is described by
option1: a. regenerative feedback
option2: b. no feedback
option3: c. an integrator or differentiator
option4: d. unity gain and zero phase shift around the feedback
loop
challenge: 1
question: To use a comparator for zero level detection, the
inverting input is connected to
option1: a. ground
option2: b. a positive reference voltage
option3: c. the dc supply voltage
option4: d. a negative reference voltage
challenge: 2
question: In most modern IC op amps, the 741 requires _____ power
supplies.
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 2
option3: c. 3
option4: d. 4
challenge: 1
question: In an op amp integrator, the feedback path consist of
option1: a. a capacitor
option2: b. an inductor
option3: c. a resistor and a capacitor in series
option4: d. a resistor and capacitor in parallel
challenge: 1
question: Microwave I.Cs cover the range from
option1: a. 0.5 to 15 GHz
option2: b. 15 to 30 GHz
option3: c. 30 to 45 GHz
option4: d. 45 to 100 GHz
challenge: 4
question: Considered as the fundamental form of IC.
option1: a. hybrid
option2: b. MSI
option3: c. VLSI
option4: d. monolithic
challenge: 3
question: Plastic dual in line for insertion into sockets has a
package suffix code of
option1: a. N
option2: b. P
option3: c. both A and B
option4: d. J
challenge: 1
question: What is the specific application of µA741C op amp?

option1: a. for commercial
option2: b. for industrial
option3: c. for military
option4: d. for experimental
challenge: 2
question: What is the most common method used for the growth of
single crystals for IC fabrication?
option1: a. epitaxial growth
option2: b. Czochralsky pulling technique
option3: c. film deposition
option4: d. photolithography
challenge: 1
question: The charge coupled device (CCD) is a unique and
versatile semiconductor structure invented in 1969 by
option1: a. W.S. Boyle and G.E. Smith
option2: b. W.F. Davis and R.C. Huntington
option3: c. D. Cave and W. Blood Jr.
option4: d. H.H Stellrecht and C.S. Meyer
challenge: 1
question: The value of the input voltage that switches the output
of a comparator or Schmitt trigger.
option1: a. trip point
option2: b. firing voltage
option3: c. threshold voltage
challenge: 4
question: A type of ground that appears at the inverting input of
an op amp that uses negative feedback.
option1: a. earth ground
option2: b. equipment ground
option3: c. true ground
option4: d. virtual ground
challenge: 1
question: The Intel i486 32-bit microprocessor incorporates _____
transistors on a single chip.
option1: a. 1 million
option2: b. 100 thousand
option3: c. 2 million
option4: d. 200 thousand
challenge: 1
question: In IC op amps, the input bias circuit is defined as
option1: a. the average of the two base currents
option2: b. the total of the base currents
option3: c. the inverse of the base currents
option4: d. the difference of the base currents
challenge: 3
question: CMRR means
option1: a. common mode rejection ratio
option2: b. the ratio of differential voltage gain to common mode
voltage gain

option3: c. A and B choices
option4: d. the difference between the two base voltages
challenge: 4
question: The typical dimension of a MOSFET in a single IC chip
is
option1: a. 4 mils x 6.5 mils
option2: b. 2 mils x 12 mils
option3: c. 3 mils x 4.5 mils
option4: d. 1.5 mils x 3 mils
challenge: 1
question: The maximum rate that an output voltage of an op amp
can change
option1: a. slew rate
option2: b. CMRR
option3: c. input offset voltage
option4: d. tail current
challenge: 2
question: The unwanted capacitance between connecting wires and
ground
option1: a. summer capacitor
option2: b. stray wiring capacitance
option3: c. biasing capacitance
option4: d. feedback capacitance
challenge: 1
question: The typical dimension of a BJT in a single IC chip is
challenge: 3
question: The typical dimension of a diode in a single IC chip is
challenge: 1
question: Which of the items below is equivalent to a relaxation
oscillator.
option1: a. astable multivibrator
option2: b. flip-flop
option3: c. monostable multivibrator
option4: d. bistable multivibrator
challenge: 4
question: The unity gain frequency of an op amp
option1: a. is the frequency where the voltage gain of an op amp
is 1
option2: b. indicates the highest usable frequency
option3: c. it equals the gain bandwidth product

challenge: 3
question: If the base 10 is called decimal number system, then
base 12 is called
option1: a. bidecimal number system
option2: b. dodecimal number system
option3: c. duodecimal number system
challenge: 4
question: What is the principal method used in the fabrication of
semiconductor devices for hybrid and monolithic I.Cs?
option1: a. epitaxial growth
option2: b. photolithographic process
option3: c. isolation diffusion
option4: d. planar technology
challenge: 1
question: The gain reduction in operational amplifier is known as
option1: a. roll off
option2: b. back off
option3: c. gain off
option4: d. attenuation
challenge: 4
question: The rate of gain reduction in operational amplifiers.
option1: a. 5 dB per decade (-5 dB/decade)
option2: b. 6 dB per decade (-6 dB/decade)
option3: c. 10 dB per decade (-10 dB/decade)
option4: d. 20 dB per decade (-20 dB/decade)
challenge: 1
question: A capacitor inside an op amp that prevents
oscillations.
option1: a. compensating capacitor
option2: b. limiting capacitor
option3: c. biasing capacitor
option4: d. coupling capacitor
challenge: 1
question: A device that contains its own transistors, resistors,
and diodes.
option1: a. IC
option2: b. CMOS
option3: c. logic gates
challenge: 2
question: _____ provides a parameter specifying the maximum rate
of change of the output when driven by a large step-input signal.
option1: a. step rate
option2: b. slew rate
option3: c. step rate
option4: d. dynamic rate
challenge: 1
question: The absolute maximum rating for op-amps internal power
dissipation is

option1: a. 500mW
option2: b. 300mW
option3: c. 200mW
option4: d. 100mW
challenge: 3
question: What is the absolute maximum rating for an op amp
differential input voltage?
option1: a. ± 10V
option2: b. ± 20V
option3: c. ± 30V
option4: d. ± 50V
challenge: 2
question: The maximum CMRR of µA741 op amp is
option1: a. 60 dB
option2: b. 70 dB
option3: c. 80 dB
option4: d. 90 dB
challenge: 1
question: The letter prefix LM identifies which of the following
manufacturers?
option1: a. National Semiconductor Corporation
option2: b. Texas Instruments
option3: c. Motorola
option4: d. Signetics
challenge: 1
question: What is the letter prefix used by Fairchild
semiconductor on their op amp product?
option1: a. µA
option2: b. FS
option3: c. SG
option4: d. NE
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is not part of the 3
temperature-range codes of op amps for commercial, industrial and
military applications?
option1: a. -30 to 200 C
option2: b. 0 to 70 C
option3: c. -25 to 85 C
option4: d. -55 to 125 C
challenge: 1
question: What identifies the package style that houses the op
amp chip?
option1: a. letter suffix
option2: b. letter prefix
option3: c. circuit designator
option4: d. military specification code
challenge: 1
question: The package suffix code for ceramic dual in line is
option1: a. J
option2: b. D

option3: c. N
option4: d. P
challenge: 2
question: The summing amplifier has two or more inputs, and its
output voltage is proportional to the _____ of the algebraic sum of its
input voltages
option3: c. reciprocal
option4: d. inverse
challenge: 4
question: When higher power I.Cs are needed, we can use
option1: a. monolithic I.Cs
option2: b. thin film I.Cs
option3: c. thick film I.Cs
option4: d. B and C only
challenge: 2
question: In IC op amps, one of the most important input
characteristics is the _____ which is defined as the difference between
the base currents.
option1: a. input bias current
option2: b. input offset current
option3: c. total base currents
challenge: 1
question: Monolithic I.Cs are
option1: a. forms of discrete circuits
option2: b. combination of thin film and thick film circuits
option3: c. also called hybrid I.Cs
option4: d. used for high power application
challenge: 1
question: A _____ is a group of cells that generate electric
energy from their internal chemical reaction
option1: a. battery
option2: b. regulator
option3: c. power supply
option4: d. solar array
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is the main function of a
battery?
option1: a. to provide a source of steady dc voltage of fixed
polarity
option2: b. to provide a source of steady dc voltage of variable
polarity
option3: c. to provide a source of variable dc voltage of fixed
polarity
option4: d. to provide a source of variable dc voltage of
variable polarity
challenge: 1
question: The volt is a unit of

option1: a. electromotive force
option2: b. energy
option3: c. force
challenge: 1
question: A transformer will work on
option1: a. ac only
option2: b. ac as well as dc
option3: c. dc only
option4: d. pulsating dc
challenge: 1
question: In a chemical cell, current is the movement of
option1: a. positive and negative ions
option2: b. positive charges
option3: c. positive ions only
option4: d. negative ions only
challenge: 1
question: What is the nominal output of an automotive battery
having six lead-acid cells in series?
option1: a. 12 V
option2: b. 24 V
option3: c. 6 V
option4: d. 3 V
challenge: 2
question: The speed of a dc motor is
option1: a. directly proportional to flux per pole
option2: b. inversely proportional to flux per pole
option3: c. inversely proportional to applied voltage
option4: d. inversely proportional to armature current
challenge: 1
question: Low-speed alternators are driven by
option1: a. hydraulic turbines
option2: b. diesel engines
option3: c. hydraulic engines
option4: d. diesel engines
challenge: 2
question: High-speed alternators are driven by
option1: a. diesel engines
option2: b. stream turbines
option3: c. hydraulic turbines
option4: d. diesel engines
challenge: 3
question: The common 9-V flat battery for transistor radio has
_____ cells connected in series.
option1: a. twelve
option2: b. three
option3: c. six
option4: d. nine
challenge: 3

question: For the same rating, the size of low-speed alternator
is _____ that of high-speed alternator.
option1: a. about the same as
option4: d. twice
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following is not a secondary cell?
option1: a. Silver-Zinc
option2: b. Nickel-iron
option3: c. silver oxide
option4: d. lead-acid
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following is not a primary cell?
option1: a. carbon-zinc
option2: b. zinc chloride
option3: c. edison cell
option4: d. mercuric acid
challenge: 2
question: The brush voltage drop in a dc machine is about
option1: a. 0.1 V
option2: b. 2 V
option3: c. 10 V
option4: d. 20 V
challenge: 1
question: Carbon brushes are used in a dc machine because
option1: a. carbon lubricates and polishes the commutator
option2: b. contact resistance is decreased
option3: c. carbon is cheap
option4: d. carbon is abundant
challenge: 2
question: Considered as the main types of battery
option1: a. lithium cell and alkaline
option2: b. carbon-zinc dry cell and lead-sulfuric wet cell
option3: c. leclanche cell and carbon-zinc
option4: d. voltaic cell and lithium cell
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following is the main function of a dc
motor?
option1: a. to generate power
option2: b. to change mechanical energy to electrical energy
option3: c. to change electrical energy to mechanical energy
option4: d. to change chemical energy to mechanical energy
challenge: 2
question: Which motor has the best speed regulation?
option1: a. series
option2: b. shunt
option3: c. commulatively compounded
option4: d. differentially compounded

challenge: 3
question: A method of converting chemical energy into electrical
energy by dissolving two different conducting materials in an
electrolyte.
option1: a. battery
option2: b. cell
option3: c. voltaic cell
option4: d. charging
challenge: 1
question: A commulatively compounded motor does not run at
dangerous speed at light loads because of the presence of
option1: a. shunt winding
option2: b. interpoles
option3: c. series
option4: d. compensating windings
challenge: 3
question: DC shunt motors are used in those applications where
_____ is required.
option1: a. high starting torque
option2: b. high no-load speed
option3: c. practically constant speed
option4: d. variable speed
challenge: 1
question: Galvanic cell is the other name of
option1: a. voltaic cell
option2: b. primary cell
option3: c. secondary cell
option4: d. solar cell
challenge: 4
question: For the same rating _____ motor has the highest
starting torque.
option1: a. shunt
option2: b. differentially compounded
option4: d. series
challenge: 1
question: The voltage regulation of an alternator with a power
factor of 0.8 lagging is _____ at unity power factor.
option1: a. greater than
option2: b. the same as
option3: c. smaller than
option4: d. 100 %
challenge: 4
question: Which is the most suitable for punch presses?
option1: a. shunt motor
option2: b. differentially compounded motor
option3: c. series motor
option4: d. commulatively compounded motor
challenge: 2
question: In a vacuum cleaner, _____ motor is generally used.

option1: a. shunt
option2: b. series
challenge: 1
question: A type of secondary cell that can be recharged but with
an electrolyte that cannot be refilled.
option1: a. sealed rechargeable cell
option2: b. sealed secondary cell
option3: c. leclanche cell
option4: d. alkaline cell
challenge: 1
question: Silver-cadmium is a secondary cell with a nominal open-
circuit voltage of
option1: a. 1.1 V
option2: b. 1.2 V
option3: c. 1.5 V
option4: d. 1.35 V
challenge: 1
question: Which is a variable speed motor?
option1: a. series
option2: b. commulatively compounded
option3: c. shunt
challenge: 2
question: The most commonly used method of speed control of a dc
motor is by varying
option1: a. voltage applied to the motor
option2: b. field strength
option3: c. effective number of conductors in series
option4: d. armature circuit resistance
challenge: 4
question: _____ give the relative activity in forming ion charges
for some of the chemical elements
option1: a. electrochemical series
option2: b. electrical series
option3: c. electromotive series
option4: d. both a and c above
challenge: 1
question: The ac armature winding of an alternator is
option1: a. always star-connected
option2: b. star-delta connected
option3: c. generally delta-connected
option4: d. pi-connected
challenge: 3
question: The air-gap in an alternator is _____ in an induction
machine.
option1: a. much shorter than
option2: b. about the same as
option3: c. much longer than

option4: d. one-half than
challenge: 4
question: Nickel-iron cell is a secondary cell with a nominal
open-circuit voltage output of 1.2 and is otherwise known as
option1: a. leclanche cell
option2: b. galvanic cell
option3: c. voltaic cell
option4: d. edison cell
challenge: 1
question: A dc series motor is suitable for
option1: a. cranes
option2: b. lathes
option3: c. pump
option4: d. punch presses
challenge: 4
question: Which is the most suitable motor for elevators?
option1: a. series
option3: c. shunt
option4: d. commulatively compounded
challenge: 1
question: The voltage output of a cell depends on
option1: a. its elements
option2: b. electromotive series
option3: c. its electrodes
option4: d. electrochemical series
challenge: 2
question: The alternators driven by _____ do not have a tendency
to hunt.
option1: a. diesel engines
option2: b. steam turbines
option3: c. water turbines
option4: d. prime movers
challenge: 1
question: Damper windings are used in alternators to
option1: a. prevent hunting
option2: b. achieve synchronism
option3: c. reduce windage losses
option4: d. reduce eddy current loss
challenge: 3
question: Leclanche's cell is the other name of
option1: a. lead-acid cell
option2: b. zinc chloride
option3: c. carbon-zinc cell
option4: d. mercuric oxide
challenge: 1
question: The primary leakage flux links
option1: a. primary winding only
option2: b. secondary winding only

option3: c. both primary and secondary windings
option4: d. neither primary nor secondary windings
challenge: 2
question: Overheating of a dc motor is due to
option1: a. insufficient end play
option2: b. overloads
option3: c. loose parts
option4: d. rough commutator
challenge: 2
question: A small 9-V battery might be used to provide power to
option1: a. an electric stove
option2: b. an electronic calculator
option3: c. a personal computer
option4: d. a radio transmitter
challenge: 3
question: The frequency of the system with which several
alternators are paralleled can be increased by simultaneously _____ of
all generators.
option1: a. increasing the field excitation
option2: b. decreasing the field excitation
option3: c. increasing the speed of prime movers
option4: d. decreasing the speed of prime movers
challenge: 1
question: A transformer is an efficient device because it
option1: a. is a static device
option2: b. uses capacitive coupling
option3: c. uses inductive coupling
option4: d. uses electric coupling
challenge: 2
question: The amount of back emf of a shunt motor will increase
when
option1: a. the load is increased
option2: b. the field is strengthened
option3: c. the field is weakened
option4: d. the load is decreased
challenge: 1
question: Three cells connected in series form a
option1: a. battery
option2: b. voltage divider
option3: c. voltage multiplier
option4: d. hybrid
challenge: 2
question: What can be found in a transformer with open-circuit
test?
option1: a. copper losses
option2: b. turns ratio
option3: c. total equivalent resistance
option4: d. total equivalent leakage reactance
challenge: 3

question: Transformers having ratings less than 5kVA are
generally
option1: a. oil cooled
option2: b. water cooled
option3: c. natural air cooled
option4: d. self-cooled
challenge: 4
question: An example of a rechargeable dc source is a/an
option1: a. lithium battery
option2: b. photovoltaic cell
option3: c. optoisolator
option4: d. lead-acid battery
challenge: 1
question: The voltage of the bus-bar to which several alternators
are paralleled may be raised by simultaneously _____ of all
alternators.
option1: a. increasing field excitation
option2: b. decreasing field excitation
option3: c. increasing input to prime movers
option4: d. decreasing input to prime movers
challenge: 2
question: The rating of an alternator is expressed in
option1: a. kW
option2: b. kVA
option3: c. HP
option4: d. kVAR
challenge: 3
question: Commulatively compounded motors are used in
applications where _____ is required.
option1: a. variable speed
option2: b. poor speed regulation
option3: c. sudden heavy loads for short duration
option4: d. constant speed
challenge: 1
question: Which motor never uses belt-connected loads?
option1: a. series
option3: c. shunt
challenge: 2
question: A stand-alone solar power system
option1: a. relies on the electric utility at night
option2: b. uses solar panels and batteries
option3: c. requires the use of dry cells
option4: d. needs a full-wave rectifier
challenge: 3
question: A transformer will have zero efficiency at
option1: a. full-load
option2: b. half full-load
option3: c. no-load

option4: d. twice the load
challenge: 3
question: The efficiency of a transformer will be maximum when
option1: a. leakage reactances of the two windings are equal
option2: b. resistances of the two windings are equal
option3: c. copper loss is equal to constant loss
option4: d. copper loss is zero
challenge: 2
question: The armature winding of a dc machine is _____ winding.
option1: a. an open-circuit
option2: b. a closed-circuit
option3: c. partly open-circuit and partly closed-circuit
option4: d. lap
challenge: 3
question: The speed at which a 6-pole alternator would be driven
to generate 50 cycles per second is
option1: a. 1500 rpm
option2: b. 500 rpm
option3: c. 1000 rpm
option4: d. 1200 rpm
challenge: 4
question: A 12-V battery is rated at 48 Ah. If it must deliver an
average of 2.0 A, how long will the battery last before it needs
recharging?
option1: a. 48 hours
option2: b. 4 hours
option3: c. 96 hours
option4: d. 24 hours
challenge: 4
question: Connecting batteries of equal voltage in parallel
option1: a. multiplies the voltage available
option2: b. increases the internal resistance
option3: c. reduces the power available
option4: d. multiplies the current available
challenge: 3
question: A storage battery in which the electrodes are grids of
lead containing lead oxides that change in composition during charging
and discharging and the electrolyte is dilute sulfuric acid.
option1: a. leclanche battery
option2: b. nickel-cadmium battery
option3: c. lead-acid battery
option4: d. faure storage battery
challenge: 1
question: The common dry cell, which a primary cell having a
carbon positive electrode and a zinc negative electrode in an
electrolyte of sal ammoniac and a depolarizer.
option2: b. faure storage cell
option3: c. lead-acid cell
option4: d. lithium cell

challenge: 2
question: The maximum flux produced in the core of a transformer
is
option1: a. directly proportional to supply frequency
option2: b. inversely proportional to supply frequency
option3: c. inversely proportional to primary voltage
option4: d. inversely proportional to secondary voltage
challenge: 2
question: A transformer is so designed that primary and secondary
windings have
option1: a. loose magnetic coupling
option2: b. tight magnetic coupling
option3: c. critical magnetic coupling
option4: d. good electric coupling
challenge: 2
question: Four carbon-zinc cells in series will provide about
option1: a. 2 Vdc
option2: b. 6 Vdc
option3: c. 9 Vdc
option4: d. 8 Vdc
challenge: 2
question: _____ refers to a method in which the charger and the
battery are always connected to each other for supplying current to the
load.
option1: a. continuous charging
option2: b. float charging
option3: c. infinite charging
option4: d. on-line charging
challenge: 3
question: A series motor designed to operate in dc or ac.
option1: a. shunt motor
option2: b. series motor
option3: c. universal motor
option4: d. compound motor
challenge: 1
question: Combination of ac motor, dc generator, and exciter to
provide adjustable voltage dc power to a dc motor.
option1: a. Ward-Leonard system
option2: b. Half-wave SCR adjustable voltage supply
option3: c. compound motor
option4: d. universal motor
challenge: 2
question: A motor takes a large current at starting because
option1: a. the armature resistance is high
option2: b. back emf is low
option3: c. back emf is high
option4: d. shunt field is producing the weak field
challenge: 4
question: A series motor will overspeed when

option1: a. the load is increased
option2: b. the armature current is opened
option3: c. the field is opened
option4: d. load is removed
challenge: 2
question: When the load on an alternator is increased, the
terminal voltage increases if the load power factor is
option1: a. unity
option2: b. leading
option3: c. lagging
option4: d. zero
challenge: 3
question: The efficiency of the turbo-alternator _____ with
increase in speed.
option4: d. becomes 100%
challenge:1
question: What is the output of a lead-acid cell?
option1: a. 2.1 V
option2: b. 1.5 V
option3: c. 1.35 V
option4: d. 1.25 V
challenge: 2
question: One of the following is a false statement.
option1: a. storage cell has a reversible chemical reaction
option2: b. carbon-zinc has unlimited shelf life
option3: c. lead-acid cell is rechargeable
option4: d. primary cell is not rechargeable
challenge: 4
question: In an alternator, the effect of armature reaction is
minimum at power factor of
option1: a. 0.866 lagging
option2: b. 0.5 lagging
option3: c. 0.866 leading
option4: d. unity
challenge: 1
question: For given number of poles (>2) and armature conductors,
lap winding will carry _____ a wave winding.
option1: a. more current than
option2: b. same current as
option3: c. less current than
option4: d. half the current than
challenge: 4
question: An 8-pole duplex lap winding will have _____ parallel
paths
option1: a. 8
option2: b. 32
option3: c. 4

option4: d. 16
challenge: 4
question: To increase voltage output, cells are connected in
option1: a. parallel
option2: b. series-parallel
option3: c. parallel-series
option4: d. series
challenge: 1
question: To increase current capacity, cells are connected in
option1: a. parallel
option2: b. series
option3: c. series-parallel
option4: d. parallel-series
challenge: 1
question: Two things which are same for primary and secondary of
a transformer are
option1: a. ampere-turns and voltage per turn
option2: b. resistance and leakage reactances
option3: c. current and induced voltages
option4: d. number of turns and power
challenge: 2
question: A transformer operates poorly at very low frequencies
because
option1: a. permeability of core is increased
option2: b. magnetizing current is abnormally high
option3: c. primary reactance is too much increased
option4: d. permeability of core is reduced
challenge: 2
question: In auto transformer, the primary and secondary are
_____ coupled.
option1: a. only magnetically
option2: b. magnetically as well as electrically
option3: c. only electrically
option4: d. directly
challenge: 4
question: A storage battery in which the plates consist of lead-
antimony supporting grids covered with a lead oxide paste, immersed in
weak sulfuric acid.
option2: b. primary cell
option3: c. secondary battery
option4: d. faure storage battery
challenge: 4
question: One of the following is a dry storage cell.
option1: a. Leclanche cell
option2: b. Edison cell
option3: c. Mercury cell
option4: d. Nickel-cadmium cell
challenge: 1

question: The field structure of a dc machine uses
option1: a. salient-pole arrangement
option2: b. non-salient pole arrangement
option3: c. silicon steel
option4: d. cast steel
challenge: 2
question: Small dc machine generally have _____ poles.
option1: a. 4
option2: b. 2
option3: c. 6
option4: d. 8
challenge: 1
question: The armature of a dc machine is laminated in order to
reduce
option1: a. eddy current loss
option2: b. copper loss
option3: c. hysteresis loss
option4: d. frictional loss
challenge: 2
question: To produce an output of 7.5V, how many carbon-zinc
cells are connected in series
option1: a. 4
option2: b. 5
option3: c. 6
option4: d. 3
challenge: 3
question: The demand for a large increase in torque of a dc
series motor is met by a
option1: a. large decrease in current
option2: b. large increase in speed
option3: c. large decrease in speed
option4: d. small decrease in speed
challenge: 4
question: As the load increases, a _____ motor will speed up.
option1: a. series
option3: c. shunt
challenge: 1
question: The flux in the core of a single-phase transformer is
option1: a. purely alternating one
option2: b. purely rotating one
option3: c. partly alternating and partly rotating
option4: d. constant
challenge: 4
question: When the primary of a transformer is connected to a dc
supply,
option1: a. primary draws small current
option2: b. primary leakage resistance is increased
option3: c. core losses are increased

option4: d. primary may burn out
challenge: 4
question: A constant-source has
option1: a. high internal resistance
option2: b. minimum efficiency
option3: c. minimum current capacity
option4: d. low internal resistance
challenge: 1
question: If the excitation of an alternator operating in
parallel with other alternators is increased above the normal value of
excitation, its
option1: a. power factor becomes more lagging
option2: b. output current decreases
option3: c. power factor becomes more leading
option4: d. output kW decreases
challenge: 2
question: The synchronous reactance of an alternator is generally
_____ armature resistance.
option1: a. 5 times smaller than
option2: b. 10 to 100 times greater than
option3: c. 5 times greater than
option4: d. 10 times smaller than
challenge: 1
question: DC series motors are used in those applications where
_____ required.
option1: a. high starting torque
option2: b. low no-load speed
option3: c. constant speed
option4: d. variable speed
challenge: 2
question: A dc motor is still used in industrial applications
because it
option1: a. is cheap
option2: b. provides fine speed control
option3: c. is simple in construction
option4: d. has no replacement
challenge: 2
question: The stator of an alternator is wound for _____ on the
rotor.
option1: a. more number of poles than
option2: b. the same number of poles as
option3: c. less number of poles than
option4: d. twice the number of poles than
challenge: 4
question: Why are carbon brushes preferable compared to copper
brushes?
option1: a. they have longer life
option2: b. they have lower resistance
option3: c. are cheaper
option4: d. they reduce sparking

challenge: 1
question: The synchronous reactance of an alternator _____ as the
iron is saturated.
option4: d. becomes doubled
challenge: 2
question: A 4-pole dc machine has _____ magnetic circuits.
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 8
option4: d. 6
challenge: 2
question: The current in armature conductors of a dc machine is
option1: a. pure dc
option2: b. ac
option3: c. pulsating dc
option4: d. pure dc plus pulsating dc
challenge: 2
question: The ac armature winding of an alternator operates at
_____ the field winding.
option1: a. the same voltage as
option2: b. much higher voltage than
option3: c. much lesser voltage than
option4: d. half the voltage than
challenge: 2
question: Why are the field poles and armature of a dc machine is
laminated?
option1: a. to reduce the weight of the machine
option2: b. to reduce eddy current
option3: c. to decrease the speed
option4: d. to reduce armature current
challenge: 1
question: The back emf or counter emf in a dc motor
option1: a. opposes the applied voltage
option2: b. aid the armature current
option3: c. aids the applied voltage
option4: d. opposes the armature current
challenge: 2
question: The synchronous reactance of an alternator is due to
option1: a. leakage flux
option2: b. armature reaction
option3: c. dc field excitation
option4: d. hysteresis loss
challenge: 1
question: Back emf in a dc motor is maximum at
option1: a. no load
option2: b. half full-load

option3: c. full load
option4: d. 3/4 full load
challenge: 3
question: The mechanical power developed in a dc motor is maximum
when back emf is equal to _____ the applied voltage.
option1: a. twice
option2: b. 1/3
option3: c. 1/2
option4: d. 1/4
challenge: 1
question: The core-type transformer is generally suitable for
option1: a. high voltage and small output
option2: b. low voltage and high output
option3: c. high voltage and high output
option4: d. low voltage and low output
challenge: 4
question: The transformer that should never have the secondary
open-circuited when primary is energized is
option1: a. power transformer
option2: b. auto transformer
option3: c. voltage transformer
option4: d. current transformer
challenge: 1
question: The field winding of an alternator is _____ excited.
option1: a. dc
option2: b. ac
option3: c. both ac and dc
option4: d. battery
challenge: 2
question: The salient-pole construction for field structure of an
alternator is generally used for _____ machine.
option1: a. 2 pole
option2: b. 8 pole
option3: c. 4 pole
option4: d. 6 pole
challenge: 3
question: When the speed of a dc motor increases, its armature
current
challenge: 3
question: The frequency of emf generated in an 8 pole alternator
running at 900 rpm is
option1: a. 50 Hz
option2: b. 120 Hz
option3: c. 60 Hz
option4: d. 240 Hz

challenge: 1
question: In case of a 4-pole machine, 1 mechanical degree
corresponds to _____ electrical degrees.
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 8
option3: c. 4
option4: d. 6
challenge: 1
question: The torque developed by a dc motor is directly
proportional to
option1: a. flux per pole x armature current
option2: b. armature resistance x applied voltage
option3: c. armature resistance x armature current
option4: d. flux per pole x applied voltage
challenge: 4
question: AC machine in which the torque is produced by the
interaction of ac currents in the stator and dc currents in the rotor
turning in synchronism.
option1: a. squirrel-cage motor
option2: b. stepper motor
option3: c. synchronous motor
option4: d. induction motor
challenge: 1
question: Machine in which torque is produced by the interaction
of ac currents in the stator and dc currents in the rotor turning in
synchronism.
option1: a. synchronous motor
option2: b. induction motor
option3: c. squirrel-cage motor
option4: d. stepper motor
challenge: 1
question: The main drawback of a dc shunt generator is that
option1: a. terminal voltage drops considerably with load
option2: b. shunt field circuit has high resistance
option3: c. generated voltage is small
option4: d. it is expensive
challenge: 2
question: DC machines which are subjected to abrupt changes of
load are provided with
option1: a. interpole windings
option2: b. compensating windings
option3: c. equalizers
option4: d. copper brushes
challenge: 2
question: The shaft torque in a dc motor is less than the total
armature torque because of _____ in the motor
option2: b. iron and friction losses
option3: c. field losses
option4: d. hysteresis loss

challenge: 1
question: Armature reaction in a dc motor is increased
option1: a. when the armature current increases
option2: b. when the armature current decreases
option3: c. when the field current increases
option4: d. by interpoles
challenge: 1
question: An ideal transformer is one in which
option1: a. has no losses and leakage reactance
option2: b. does not work
option3: c. has same number of primary and secondary turns
option4: d. has the same primary and secondary voltage
challenge: 3
question: If a power transformer is operated at very high
frequencies, then
option1: a. primary reactance is too much increased
option2: b. primary will draw power
option3: c. core losses will be excessive
option4: d. core loss is negligible
challenge: 3
question: With respect to the direction of rotation, interpoles
on a dc motor must have the same polarity as the main poles
option1: a. ahead of them
option2: b. in parallel with them
option3: c. behind them
option4: d. beside them
challenge: 1
question: The open circuit test on a transformer is always made
on
option1: a. low-voltage winding
option2: b. high-voltage winding
option3: c. either low or high voltage windings
option4: d. neither low or high voltage windings
challenge: 2
question: In the short circuit test in a transformer, winding is
generally short-circuited.
option1: a. high-voltage
option2: b. low-voltage
option3: c. either low or high-voltage winding
option4: d. neither low nor high-voltage winding
challenge: 2
question: In a dc motor, the brushes are shifted from the
mechanical neutral plane in a direction opposite to the rotation to
option1: a. decrease speed
option2: b. reduce sparking
option3: c. increase speed
option4: d. produce flat characteristics
challenge: 1
question: The number of cycles generated in a 6-pole alternator
in one revolution is

option1: a. 3
option2: b. 5
option3: c. 6
option4: d. 2
challenge: 2
question: If the lagging load power factor of an alternator is
decreased, the demagnetizing effect of armature reaction
option1: a. remains the same
option2: b. is increased
option3: c. is decreased
challenge: 2
question: In very large dc motors with severe heavy duty,
armature reaction effects are corrected by
option1: a. using interpoles only
option2: b. using compensatory windings in addition to interpoles
option3: c. shifting the brush position
option4: d. fixing the brush position
challenge: 1
question: The amount of copper in the primary is _____ that of
secondary.
option1: a. about the same as
option2: b. smaller than
option3: c. greater than
option4: d. twice
challenge: 2
question: The open-circuit test on a transformer gives
option2: b. iron losses
option3: c. friction losses
option4: d. total losses
challenge: 4
question: The speed of a _____ motor is practically constant.
option1: a. commulatively compounded
option3: c. series
option4: d. shunt
challenge: 3
question: The running speed of a dc series motor is basically
determined by
option1: a. field excitation
option2: b. armature resistance
option3: c. load
option4: d. applied voltage
challenge: 1
question: If the excitation of an alternator operating in
parallel with other alternators is decreased, its
option1: a. power factor becomes more leading
option2: b. output kW will change
option3: c. power factor becomes more lagging

option4: d. power factor becomes unity
challenge: 3
question: The distribution of load between two alternators
operating in parallel can be changed by changing
option1: a. phase sequence
option2: b. field excitation of alternators
option3: c. driving torques of prime movers
option4: d. current direction
challenge: 2
question: After a shunt motor is up to speed, the speed may be
increased considerably by
option1: a. increasing field circuit resistance
option2: b. decreasing field circuit resistance
option3: c. increasing armature circuit resistance
option4: d. reducing the load
challenge: 1
question: When the secondary of a transformer is short-circuited,
the primary inductance
option1: a. is decreased
option3: c. is increased
challenge: 2
question: For the same rating, _____ motor has the least starting
torque.
option1: a. commulatively compounded
option2: b. shunt
option3: c. series
challenge: 1
question: The deciding factor in the selection of a dc motor for
a particular application is its _____ characteristic.
option1: a. speed-torque
option2: b. torque-armature current
option3: c. speed-armature current
option4: d. speed
challenge: 2
question: The rotor of a turbo-alternator is made cylindrical in
order to reduce
option2: b. windage losses
option4: d. copper loss
challenge: 3
question: The disadvantage of a short-pitched coil is that
option1: a. harmonics are introduced
option2: b. waveform becomes non-sinusoidal
option3: c. voltage round the coil is reduced
option4: d. voltage round the coil is increased

challenge: 2
question: The demand for a large increase in torque of a dc shunt
motor is met by a
option1: a. large decrease in speed
option2: b. large increase in current
option3: c. large increase in speed
option4: d. small increase in current
challenge: 2
question: For 20% increase in current, the motor that will give
the greatest increase in torque is _____ motor.
option1: a. shunt
option2: b. series
option3: c. differentially compounded
challenge: 1
question: A cell used to detect infrared radiation, either its
generated voltage or its change of resistance may be used as a measure
of the intensity of the radiation.
option1: a. lead sulfide cell
option2: b. faure storage cell
option3: c. infrared cell
option4: d. leclanche cell
challenge: 3
question: A galvanic cell resulting from difference in potential
between adjacent areas on the surface of a metal immersed in an
electrolyte.
option1: a. NiCd cell
option2: b. Lead-acid cell
option3: c. local cell
option4: d. Lithium cell
challenge: 1
question: Which motor is used to start heavy loads?
option1: a. series
option3: c. shunt
challenge: 3
question: When load is removed, the motor that will run at the
highest speed is the _____ motor.
option1: a. shunt
option3: c. series
challenge: 1
question: The friction and windage losses in a dc motor depends
upon
option1: a. speed
option2: b. armature current
option3: c. flux
option4: d. field and armature resistance

challenge: 3
question: If a transformer core has air gaps, then
option1: a. reluctance of the magnetic path is decreased
option2: b. hysteresis loss is decreased
option3: c. magnetizing current is greatly increased
option4: d. eddy current is increased
challenge: 3
question: The effect of leakage flux in a transformer is to
option1: a. increase copper losses
option2: b. decrease copper losses
option3: c. cause voltage drop in the windings
option4: d. reduce eddy current losses
challenge: 2
question: The iron losses in a dc motor depend upon
option1: a. flux only
option2: b. both flux and speed
option3: c. speed only
option4: d. temperature
challenge: 3
question: The greatest percentage of power loss in a dc motor is
due to
option1: a. windage loss
option2: b. core loss
option3: c. copper loss
option4: d. friction loss
challenge: 1
question: Excessive sparking at the brushes may be caused due to
option1: a. dirt on the commutator
option2: b. misalignment of machine
option3: c. loose coupling
option4: d. worn bearings
challenge: 1
question: The temperature rise of a transformer is directly
proportional to
option1: a. apparent power
option2: b. leakage reactance
option3: c. reactive power
option4: d. true power
challenge: 4
question: A graphical relation between the generated emf and the
field current of a machine.
option1: a. current generation curve
option2: b. voltage generation curve
option3: c. voltage-current curve
option4: d. magnetization curve
challenge: 3
question: Majority of alternators in use have
option1: a. revolving ac armature winding
option2: b. stationary field type construction
option3: c. revolving field type construction

option4: d. stationary ac armature winding
challenge: 3
question: The stator of an alternator is identical to that of a
option1: a. dc generator
option2: b. 1-phase induction motor
option3: c. 3-phase induction motor
option4: d. Rosenberg generator
challenge: 3
question: Excessive motor vibration is caused by
option1: a. too much brush tension
option2: b. open armature coil
option3: c. worn bearings
option4: d. bent shaft
challenge: 4
question: Hot bearings of a dc motor may be caused by
option1: a. poor ventilation
option2: b. loose coupling
option3: c. incorrect voltage
option4: d. lack of or dirty lubricant
challenge: 1
question: Intermittent sparking at the brushes of a dc motor may
be caused due to
option1: a. an open armature coil
option2: b. loose coupling
option3: c. intermittent load
option4: d. incorrect voltage
challenge: 2
question: When load on a transformer is increased, the eddy
current loss
option1: a. is decreased
option3: c. is increased
challenge: 4
question: The yoke of a dc machine is made of
option1: a. silicon steel
option2: b. aluminum
option3: c. soft iron
option4: d. cast steel
challenge: 1
question: The armature of a dc machine is made of
option1: a. silicon steel
option2: b. cast steel
option3: c. wrought iron
challenge: 2
question: The voltage per turn of the primary of a transformer is
_____ the voltage per turn of the secondary
option1: a. more than

option2: b. the same as
option4: d. twice
challenge: 1
question: The winding of the transformer with greater number of
turns will be
option1: a. high-voltage winding
option2: b. low-voltage winding
option3: c. either high or low voltage winding
option4: d. high power
challenge: 3
question: The coupling field between electrical and mechanical
systems of a dc machine is
option1: a. electric field
option2: b. both electric and magnetic fields
option3: c. magnetic field
option4: d. electromagnetic field
challenge: 2
question: The real working part of a dc machine is the
option1: a. commutator
option2: b. armature winding
option3: c. field winding
option4: d. stator
challenge: 3
question: Which dc machines are most common?
option1: a. 2 pole
option2: b. 6 pole
option3: c. 4 pole
option4: d. 8 pole
challenge: 3
question: The core-type transformer provides
option1: a. much longer magnetic path
option2: b. lesser average length per turn
option3: c. shorter magnetic path
option4: d. longer magnetic path
challenge: 2
question: A machine with field excitation by both shunt and
series windings.
option1: a. complex machine
option2: b. compound machine
option3: c. universal machine
option4: d. shunt/series machine
challenge: 2
question: The armature winding of a dc machine is placed on the
rotor to
option1: a. save iron
option2: b. facilitate commutation
option3: c. reduce losses
option4: d. reduce armature reaction

challenge: 3
question: The yoke of a dc machine carries _____ pole flux.
option1: a. 1/3 of
option2: b. two times of
option3: c. 1/2 of
option4: d. 1/4 of
challenge: 4
question: The greatest eddy current loss occurs in the _____ of a
dc machine.
option1: a. field poles
option2: b. commutating poles
option3: c. yoke
option4: d. armature
challenge: 2
question: The commutator pitch for a simplex lap winding is equal
to
option1: a. number of poles on the machine
option2: b. 1
option3: c. pole pairs
option4: d. 2
challenge: 2
question: In a simplex wave winding, the number of parallel paths
is equal to
option1: a. number of poles in the machine
option2: b. 2
option3: c. number of pole pairs
option4: d. 1
challenge: 3
question: In a practical transformer, copper losses account for
how many percent of the total losses?
option1: a. 75 %
option2: b. 25 %
option3: c. 85 %
option4: d. 95 %
challenge: 2
question: By laminating the core of a transformer, _____
decreases.
option1: a. leakage reactance
option2: b. eddy current loss
option4: d. copper loss
challenge: 2
question: The number of parallel paths in a simplex lap winding
is equal to
option1: a. 2
option2: b. number of poles
option3: c. number of pair of poles
option4: d. 1
challenge: 2
question: In a dc machine, the number of commutator segments is

equal to
option1: a. number of conductors
option2: b. number of coils
option3: c. twice the number of poles
option4: d. twice the number of coils
challenge: 2
question: A dc compound generator having full-load terminal
voltage equal to the no-load voltage is called _____ generator.
option1: a. under-compounded
option2: b. flat-compounded
option3: c. over-compounded
option4: d. uncompounded
challenge: 1
question: The terminal voltage of a_____ generator varies widely
with changes in load current.
option1: a. series
option2: b. flat-compounded
option3: c. shunt
option4: d. over-compounded
challenge: 3
question: The nature of armature winding of a dc machine is
decided by
option1: a. front pitch
option2: b. back pitch
option3: c. commutator pitch
option4: d. number of coils
challenge: 3
question: The voltage regulation of an alternator is larger than
that of a dc generator because of
option1: a. large armature resistance
option2: b. large leakage reactance
option3: c. complex effects of armature reaction
option4: d. small armature resistance
challenge: 2
question: High-voltage dc machines use what winding?
option1: a. lap
option2: b. wave
option3: c. either lap or wave
option4: d. open-circuit
challenge: 1
question: In a lap winding, the number of brushes required is
equal to
option1: a. number of poles
option2: b. commutator pitch
option3: c. number of pair of poles
option4: d. number of coils
challenge: 4
question: What is the approximate efficiency of a large
transformer?
option1: a. 65%

option2: b. 80%
option3: c. 50%
option4: d. 95%
challenge: 3
question: In a wave winding, the commutator pitch is
approximately equal to
option1: a. pole pitch
option2: b. thrice the pole pitch
option3: c. twice the pole pitch
option4: d. half the pole pitch
challenge: 1
question: A triplex wave winding will have _____ parallel paths.
option1: a. 6
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 2
option4: d. 8
challenge: 2
question: For a given dc generator, the generated voltage depends
upon
option1: a. flux only
option2: b. both speed and flux
option3: c. speed only
option4: d. armature rotation
challenge: 3
question: For the same rating, a dc machine has _____ an ac
machine.
option1: a. the same weight as
option2: b. less weight than
option3: c. more weight than
option4: d. half the weight than
challenge: 3
question: Difference between the speeds of a rotating magnetic
field and the associated rotor.
option1: a. split
option2: b. salient pole
option3: c. slip
option4: d. pull-out torque
challenge: 1
question: The field winding of a dc shunt machine usually carries
_____ of the rated current of the machine.
option1: a. 2% to 5%
option2: b. more than 20%
option3: c. 15% to 20%
option4: d. less than 0.5%
challenge: 2
question: A separately excited dc generator is not used because
option1: a. it is costly
option2: b. a separate dc source is required for field circuit
option3: c. voltage drops considerably with load
option4: d. it is bulky

challenge: 1
question: The effect of armature reaction is to
option1: a. decrease the total flux
option2: b. make the air-gap flux uniform
option3: c. increase the total flux
option4: d. make the flux constant
challenge: 2
question: In a dc generator, armature reaction _____ pole tip
option1: a. weakens the flux at the trailing
option2: b. weakens the flux at the leading
option3: c. strengthens the flux at the leading
option4: d. strengthens the flux at the trailing
challenge: 2
question: The greatest percentage of heat loss in a dc machine is
due to
option2: b. copper loss
option4: d. frictional loss
challenge: 4
question: The size of a dc generator can be reduced by using
option1: a. lap winding
option2: b. high-resistance winding material
option3: c. iron commutator
option4: d. magnetic material of high permeability
challenge: 1
question: How many electrons are there in the fourth orbit of a
copper electron
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 2
option3: c. 3
option4: d. 4
challenge: 1
question: The maximum permissible number of electrons in the
third orbit is
option1: a. 18
option2: b. 8
option3: c. 32
option4: d. 2
challenge: 1
question: Varactor diodes are commonly used
option1: a. as a voltage controlled capacitance
option2: b. as a constant current source
option3: c. as a voltage multiplier
option4: d. as a constant voltage source
challenge: 1
question: The reason why electrons are not pulled into the
nucleus of an atom.
option1: a. because of the centrifugal or outward force created

by their orbital motion
option2: b. because of the force of attraction between them and
the nucleus is weak
option3: c. because they are not being attracted by the positive
nucleus.
option4: d. because of the strong bonding between them that
resists any force pulling them towards the nucleus
challenge: 1
question: The electrons in the largest orbit travel _____ than
the electrons in the smaller orbits.
option1: a. move slowly
option2: b. faster
option3: c. in the same velocity
option4: d. a little bit slower
challenge: 1
question: A transistor configuration with the lowest current gain
option3: c. common collector
option4: d. emitter-follower
challenge: 3
question: A semiconductor in its purest form is called
option1: a. pure semiconductor
option2: b. doped semiconductor
option3: c. intrinsic semiconductor
option4: d. extrinsic semiconductor
challenge: 1
question: Valence orbit is the other term for
option1: a. outer orbit
option2: b. 3rd orbit
option3: c. 4th orbit
option4: d. 2nd orbit
challenge: 1
question: K shell means
option1: a. first orbit
option2: b. 2nd orbit
option3: c. 3rd orbit
option4: d. 4th orbit
challenge: 4
question: For either germanium or silicon diodes, the barrier
potential decreases _____ for each Celsius degree rise.
option1: a. 1 mV
option2: b. 3 mV
option3: c. 4 mV
option4: d. 2 mV
challenge: 3
question: A diode modeling circuit which considers, the threshold
voltage, average resistance and switch as the diode's equivalent
circuit.
option1: a. ideal model

option2: b. simplified model
option3: c. piecewise linear model
option4: d. real model
challenge: 2
question: There are two mechanisms by which holes and electrons
move through a silicon crystal. They are
option1: a. covalent bond and recombination
option2: b. diffusion and drift
option3: c. free and charge particles
option4: d. forward and reverse bias
challenge: 1
question: A semiconductor is an element with a valence of
option1: a. 4
option2: b. 8
option3: c. 2
option4: d. 1
challenge: 1
question: What orbit controls the electrical properties of the
atom?
option1: a. valence orbit
option2: b. first orbit
option3: c. fourth orbit
option4: d. M shell
challenge: 2
question: _____ is a substance that contains atoms with several
bands of electrons but with only one valence electron.
option1: a. insulator
option2: b. conductor
challenge: 3
question: Pure silicon crystal atoms contain how many valence
electrons as a result of covalent bonding?
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 4
option3: c. 8
option4: d. 16
challenge: 2
question: The peak inverse voltage of a full wave center tapped
rectifier circuit is equal to _____ of the input signal.
option1: a. thrice the peak
option2: b. twice the peak
option3: c. 1/2
option4: d. 1/3
challenge: 2
question: Diffusion or storage capacitance is the term used to
refer to
option1: a. the reverse bias capacitance of a diode
option2: b. the forward bias capacitance of a diode
option3: c. the breakdown capacitance of a diode

option4: d. the breakdown capacitance of the rectifier
challenge: 1
question: What is considered as the key to electrical
conductivity?
option1: a. the number of electrons in the valence orbit
option2: b. the number of protons in the nucleus
option3: c. the number of neutrons in the nucleus
option4: d. the number of protons plus the number of electrons in
the atom
challenge: 1
question: Each atom in a silicon crystal has how many electrons
in the valence orbit
option1: a. 8
option2: b. 32
option3: c. 2
option4: d. 4
challenge: 1
question: Lifetime is the amount of time between the creation and
disappearance of a/an
option1: a. free electron
option2: b. proton
option3: c. ion
option4: d. neutron
challenge: 1
question: A silicon crystal is an intrinsic semiconductor
option1: a. if every atom in the crystal is a silicon atom
option2: b. if majority of the atoms in crystal is a silicon atom
option3: c. if the crystal contains 14 silicon atoms
option4: d. if the crystal is undamped
challenge: 1
question: At room temperature, a silicon crystal acts
approximately like a/an
option3: c. conductor
option4: d. superconductor
challenge: 1
question: An extrinsic semiconductor is a
option1: a. doped semiconductor
option2: b. pure semiconductor
option3: c. good insulator
option4: d. good conductor
challenge: 2
question: _____ is associated with random motion due to thermal
agitation in the movement of holes and electrons in a silicon crystal.
option1: a. drift
option2: b. diffusion
option3: c. doping
option4: d. recombination

challenge: 1
question: The peak inverse voltage of a half wave rectifier
circuit is approximately equal to the _____ of the input signal.
option1: a. peak amplitude
option3: c. voltage sinusoidal
option4: d. current
challenge: 1
question: Silicon that has been doped with a trivalent impurity
is called a/an
option1: a. p-type semiconductor
option2: b. n-type semiconductor
challenge: 1
question: Silicon that has been doped with a heptavalent impurity
is called a/an
option1: a. p-type semiconductor
option2: b. n-type semiconductor
challenge: 1
question: _____ is another term for a pn crystal.
option1: a. junction diode
option2: b. PN junction
option3: c. diode
option4: d. lattice
challenge: 2
question: An acceptor atom is also called
option1: a. pentavalent atom
option2: b. trivalent atom
option3: c. minority carrier
option4: d. majority carrier
challenge: 4
question: A donor atom.
option1: a. trivalent atom
option3: c. boron
option4: d. pentavalent atom
challenge: 3
question: In an n-type semiconductor, free electrons are called
option1: a. minority carriers
option2: b. valence electrons
option3: c. majority carriers
option4: d. charge carriers
challenge: 1
question: In an n-type semiconductor, holes are called
option1: a. minority carriers
option2: b. majority carriers
option3: c. protons

option4: d. charge carriers
challenge: 2
question: What is the barrier potential of germanium at 25
degrees Celsius?
option1: a. 0.7 V
option2: b. 0.3 V
option3: c. 0.5 V
option4: d. 0.4 V
challenge: 3
question: The barrier potential for a silicon diode at 25 degrees
Celsius is approximately
option1: a. 0.4 V
option2: b. 0.3 V
option3: c. 0.7 V
option4: d. 0.5 V
challenge: 4
question: Each pair of positive and negative ions at the junction
is called a/an
option1: a. anion
option2: b. positron
option3: c. cation
option4: d. dipole
challenge: 2
question: When temperature increases, barrier potential _____ .
option4: d. either increases or decreases depending on the
semiconductor material used
challenge: 1
question: Avalanche effects occurs at
option1: a. higher reverse voltages
option2: b. lower reverse voltages
option3: c. higher forward voltages
option4: d. lower forward voltages
challenge: 4
question: The creation of free electrons through zener effect is
also known as
option1: a. avalanche emission
option2: b. thermionic emission
option3: c. low-field emission
option4: d. high-field emission
challenge: 3
question: Zener effect depends only on the
option1: a. high-speed minority carriers
option2: b. high-speed majority carriers
option3: c. intensity of the electric field
option4: d. intensity of the magnetic field
challenge: 1

question: _____ is the temperature inside the diode, right at the
junction of the p and n-type materials.
option1: a. junction temperature
option2: b. ambient temperature
option3: c. internal temperature
option4: d. absolute temperature
challenge: 1
question: What is the input control parameter of a FET?
option1: a. gate voltage
option2: b. source voltage
option3: c. drain voltage
option4: d. gate voltage
challenge: 3
question: One of the important diode parameters which gives the
magnitude of current the diode can handle without burning.
option1: a. reverse saturation current
option2: b. reverse current
option3: c. forward current
option4: d. forward breakdown current
challenge: 4
question: The maximum reverse voltage that can be applied before
current surges is called
option1: a. reverse recovery time
option2: b. maximum junction voltage
option3: c. forward voltage
option4: d. reverse breakdown voltage
challenge: 4
question: Another name for Esaki diode
option1: a. diac
option2: b. hot-carrier diode
option3: c. shockley diode
option4: d. tunnel diode
challenge: 1
question: The most important application of Schottky diodes is in
option1: a. digital computers
option2: b. power supplies
option3: c. amplifier circuits
option4: d. voltage regulators
challenge: 2
question: A diode is a nonlinear device because
option1: a. it produces a nonlinear graph
option2: b. its current is not directly proportional to its
voltage
option3: c. it has a built-in barrier potential
option4: d. it can rectify alternating current
challenge: 4
question: The sum of the resistances of the p-region and the n-
region is called
option1: a. junction resistance
option2: b. extrinsic resistance

option3: c. intrinsic resistance
option4: d. bulk resistance
challenge: 1
question: What is the typical bulk resistance of rectifier
diodes?
option1: a. less than 1ohm(s)
option2: b. greater than 1ohm(s)
option3: c. equal to 1ohm(s)
option4: d. it depends on the doping level
challenge: 1
question: The reverse bias diode capacitance is termed as
option1: a. transition region capacitance
option2: b. diffusion capacitance
option3: c. storage capacitance
option4: d. reverse capacitance
challenge: 2
question: The time taken by the diode to operate in the reverse
condition from forward conduction.
option1: a. maximum power time
option2: b. reverse recovery time
option3: c. lifetime
option4: d. time allocation
challenge: 3
question: Approximately, the atomic weight of germanium is
option1: a. 32
option2: b. 28.09
option3: c. 72.6
option4: d. 16
challenge: 1
question: Atomic weight of silicon at 300 K is
option1: a. 28.09
option2: b. 72.6
option3: c. 5.32
option4: d. 16
challenge: 3
question: An LED and a phototransistor is equivalent to a/an
option1: a. thermocouple
option2: b. FET
option3: c. optocoupler
option4: d. regulator
challenge: 3
question: Optocoupler is otherwise known as
option1: a. laser
option2: b. photodiodes
option3: c. optoisolator
option4: d. photoconductive cell
challenge: 3
question: When the emitter junction is forward biased while the
collector junction is reverse biased, the transistor is at _____

region.
option1: a. cut-off
option2: b. saturation
option3: c. active
option4: d. breakdown
challenge: 4
question: When both the emitter and collector junction are
forward biased, the transistor is said to be at _____ region.
option1: a. active
option2: b. cut-off
option3: c. breakdown
option4: d. saturation
challenge: 2
question: An equivalent circuit of a diode in which it is
represented as a switch in series with a barrier potential.
option1: a. first approximation
option2: b. second approximation
option3: c. third approximation
option4: d. fourth approximation
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following is the equivalent circuit for a
diode for third approximation?
option1: a. a switch only
option2: b. a switch in series with a battery in series with a
resistance
option3: c. a switch in series with a battery
option4: d. a switch in series with a resistance
challenge: 2
question: A silicon crystal is a/an _____ of a semiconductor if
every atom in the crystal is a silicon atom.
option1: a. extrinsic
option2: b. intrinsic
option3: c. p-type
option4: d. n-type
challenge: 2
question: With pnp voltage divider bias, you must use
option1: a. ground
option2: b. negative power supplies
option3: c. positive power supplies
option4: d. resistors
challenge: 3
question: Two pn silicon diodes are connected in series opposing.
A 5V voltage is impressed upon them. Find the voltage across each
junction at room temperature when nVt - 0.052 V.
option1: a. 0.236 V, 3.2 V
option2: b. 4.764 V, 0.236 V
option3: c. 0.036 V, 4.964 V
option4: d. 3.21 V, 1.79 V
challenge: 1
question: A half-wave signal has a period of

option1: a. 16.7 ms
option2: b. 8.3 ms
option3: c. 16.7 µs
option4: d. 8.3 µs
challenge: 3
question: A full-wave signal has a period of
option1: a. 16.7 µs
option2: b. 8.3 µs
option3: c. 8.3 ms
option4: d. 16.7 ms
challenge: 3
question: When doping increases, _____ of a semiconductor
decreases.
option1: a. impurity
option2: b. conductivity
option3: c. bulk resistance
option4: d. minority carrier
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following has the least noise level?
option1: a. FET
option2: b. BJT
option3: c. triode
option4: d. tetrode
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following has the highest input impedance?
option1: a. FET
option2: b. BJT
option3: c. MOSFET
option4: d. crystal diode
challenge: 2
question: The frequency of a half-wave signal is
option1: a. twice the line frequency
option2: b. equal to the line frequency
option3: c. one-half the line frequency
option4: d. one-fourth the line frequency
challenge: 3
question: For a full-wave rectifier, the output frequency
option1: a. equals one-half the input frequency
option2: b. equals the line frequency
option3: c. equals two times the input frequency
option4: d. is three times the line frequency
challenge: 2
question: The average dc voltage of a half wave rectifier circuit
is _____ of the value of the peak input voltage.
option1: a. 63.6 %
option2: b. 31.8 %
option3: c. 4.8 %
option4: d. 6.2 %
challenge: 3

question: The average dc voltage of a full wave rectifier circuit
is _____ of the value of the peak input voltage.
option1: a. 31.8 %
option2: b. 48.1 %
option3: c. 63.6 %
option4: d. 1 %
challenge: 1
question: Typical leakage current in a pn junction is in the
order of
option1: a. µA
option2: b. mA
option3: c. nA
option4: d. pA
challenge: 1
question: The resistance of a forward biased pn junction is in
the order of
option1: a. ohm(s)
option2: b. mohm(s)
option3: c. µohm(s)
option4: d. kohm(s)
challenge: 4
question: The removal by electronic means of one extremity of an
input waveform is called _____ .
option1: a. filtering
option2: b. clamping
option3: c. amplifying
option4: d. clipping
challenge: 4
question: Which of the choices below does not describe a clipper
circuit?
option1: a. limiter
option2: b. amplitude selector
option3: c. slicer
option4: d. baseline stabilizer
challenge: 4
question: The varactor diode is also called as
option1: a. voltage-variable capacitance
option2: b. varicap
option3: c. epicap
challenge: 4
question: A type of diode with no depletion layer.
option1: a. varactor
option2: b. varistor
option3: c. Schottky diode
option4: d. Shockley diode
challenge: 4
question: Varistors are used for line filtering to eliminate
spikes and dips and is also called
option1: a. transient regulator

option2: b. transient limiter
option3: c. transient filter
option4: d. transient suppressor
challenge: 3
question: Defined as the random motion of holes and free
electrons due to thermal agitation.
option1: a. fission
option2: b. fusion
option3: c. diffusion
challenge: 2
question: The temperature coefficient of resistance of a
semiconductor is
option3: c. zero
option4: d. infinity
challenge: 1
question: A large signal amplifier which is biased so that
collector current flow continuously during the complete electrical
cycle of the signal as well as when no signal is present.
option1: a. Class A
option2: b. Class B
option3: c. Class AB
option4: d. Class C
challenge: 2
question: A large signal amplifier which is biased so that
current is non-zero for less than one-half cycle.
option1: a. Class AB
option2: b. Class C
option3: c. Class A
option4: d. Class B
challenge: 3
question: A class _____ amplifier stage operates with a small
forward bias on the transistor so that some collector current flows all
the time.
option1: a. A
option2: b. B
option3: c. AB
option4: d. C
challenge: 2
question: A factor shown on a data sheet that tells how much you
have to reduce the power rating of a device.
option2: b. derating factor
option3: c. reactive factor
option4: d. reduction factor
challenge: 2
question: The time it takes to turn off a forward-biased diode is
called the

option1: a. forward recovery time
option2: b. reverse recovery time
option3: c. recombination
option4: d. turn-off time
challenge: 4
question: A heavily doped semiconductor has
option1: a. high resistance
option2: b. no effect on the semiconductor characteristics
option3: c. more heat dissipation
option4: d. low resistance
challenge: 2
question: Gallium arsenide, aluminum arsenide, and gallium
phospide are classified as
option1: a. elementary semiconductor
option2: b. compound semiconductor
option3: c. intrinsic material by doping
option4: d. insulators
challenge: 2
question: A lightly doped semiconductor has
option1: a. low resistance
option2: b. high resistance
option3: c. no effect on the semiconductor
option4: d. more heat dissipated behaviors
challenge: 2
question: The property or ability of a material to support charge
flow or electron flow.
option3: c. resistivity
option4: d. permeance
challenge: 1
question: Also known as photodiffusion effect.
option1: a. Dember effect
option3: c. Destriau effect
option4: d. night effect
challenge: 3
question: An effect that occurs within the entire bulk of a
semiconductor material rather than in a localized region or junction.
option1: a. silicon effect
option2: b. dember effect
option3: c. bulk effect
option4: d. destriau effect
challenge: 2
question: Photoconductive effect means
option1: a. the decreased conductivity of an illuminated
semiconductor junction
option2: b. the increased conductivity of an illuminated
semiconductor junction
option3: c. the conversion of photonic energy to electromagnetic

energy
option4: d. the conversion of an electromagnetic energy to
photonic energy
challenge: 4
question: What happens to a photoconductive material when light
strikes on it?
option1: a. the conductivity of the material decreases
option2: b. nothing important happens
option3: c. the conductivity of the material stays the same
option4: d. the conductivity of the material increases
challenge: 3
question: A type of diode for tuning receivers; operate with
reverse bias and derived its name from voltage-variable capacitor.
option1: a. zener diode
option2: b. tunnel diode
option3: c. varactor diode
challenge: 4
question: What semiconductor material is used in the construction
of LED?
option1: a. silicon
option2: b. germanium
option3: c. gallium
option4: d. gallium arsenide
challenge: 1
question: _____ is approximately the sum of the number of protons
and neutrons of an atom.
option1: a. atomic mass
option2: b. atomic number
option3: c. atomic subscript
option4: d. valence shell
challenge: 3
question: _____ is the number of protons in the nucleus or the
number of electrons in an atom.
option1: a. atomic mass
option2: b. atomic weight
option3: c. atomic number
option4: d. free electrons
challenge: 1
question: The charge of a proton has the same value to that of an
electron but.
option1: a. opposite in sign
option2: b. greater in some cases
option3: c. lesser than in some cases
option4: d. usually not important
challenge: 3
question: Mass of proton or neutron is _____ times that of an
electron.
option1: a. 1,386
option2: b. 2,000

option3: c. 1,836
option4: d. 10
challenge: 1
question: A photodiode which conducts current only when forward
biased and is exposed to light.
option1: a. LAD
option2: b. LED
option3: c. PIN
option4: d. photoconductor
challenge: 3
question: What is the most commonly used color for an LED?
option1: a. orange
option2: b. blue
option3: c. red
option4: d. green
challenge: 2
question: If the temperature of a semiconductor material
increases, the number of free electrons
challenge: 3
question: Varactor diode's transition capacitance is directly
proportional to the product of the permittivity of the semiconductor
material and the PN junction area but inversely proportional to its
option2: b. voltage
option3: c. depletion width
option4: d. threshold voltage
challenge: 2
question: A _____ is a light-sensitive device whose number of
free electrons generated is proportional to the intensity of the
incident light.
option1: a. varicap
option2: b. photodiode
option3: c. Schottky diode
option4: d. LED
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following is NOT one of the three distinct
regions in the characteristic curve of a diode?
option1: a. forward bias region
option2: b. reverse bias region
option3: c. breakdown region
option4: d. saturation region
challenge: 4
question: Another name for saturation current in a diode, which
arises from the fact that it is directly proportional to the cross-
sectional area of the diode.
option1: a. steady-state current

option2: b. constant current
option3: c. thermal current
option4: d. scale current
challenge: 4
question: How much voltage would you measure across the base-
emitter junction of a silicon transistor at class A?
option1: a. 0 V
option2: b. 0.3 V
option3: c. 3.6 V
option4: d. 0.7 V
challenge: 1
question: In an amplifier, the emitter junction is
option1: a. forward biased
option2: b. reverse biased
option3: c. grounded
option4: d. shorted
challenge: 3
question: A manufacturer quotes in his specifications that a
germanium diode conducts 50 mA at 1 V. Determine its bulk resistance
option1: a. 100 ohms
option2: b. 60 ohms
option3: c. 14 ohms
option4: d. 20 ohms
challenge: 2
question: A silicon diode has a maximum allowable junction
temperature at 150 degrees Celsius. Find the maximum allowable power
dissipation at 25 degrees Celsius ambient temperature if the diodes
thermal resistance is 0.4 degrees Celsius/mW
option1: a. 238 mW
option2: b. 313 mW
option3: c. 600 mW
option4: d. 117 mW
challenge: 3
question: What is the principal characteristic of a zener diode?
option1: a. a constant current under conditions of varying
voltage
option2: b. a high forward current rating
option3: c. a constant voltage under condition of varying current
option4: d. a very high PIV
challenge: 4
question: A device whose internal capacitance varies with the
applied voltage.
option2: b. photodiode
option3: c. tunnel diode
option4: d. varactor diode
challenge: 4
question: The _____ transistor configuration has the highest
value of input resistance.

option3: c. emitter-stabilized
option4: d. common collector
challenge: 2
question: A method of connecting amplifiers in cascade.
option1: a. configuration
option2: b. coupling
option3: c. link
option4: d. stages
challenge: 3
question: What is the largest region of a bipolar transistor?
option1: a. base
option2: b. emitter
option3: c. collector
option4: d. P-region
challenge: 2
question: A diode that has a negative resistance region and
widely used in the design of oscillators, switching networks and pulse
generators.
option1: a. hot-carrier diode
option2: b. tunnel diode
option3: c. LED
option4: d. Schottky diode
challenge: 3
question: Refers to a three-layer diode.
option1: a. Shockley diode
option2: b. Schottky diode
option3: c. diac
option4: d. triac
challenge: 3
question: Another name for a metal-oxide semiconductor field
effect transistor is
option1: a. JFET
option2: b. GFET
option3: c. IGFET
challenge: 4
question: In enhancement-type MOSFET's, the ____ region is used
if the FET is to operate as an amplifier.
option1: a. triode region
option2: b. diode region
option3: c. cut-off region
option4: d. saturation region
challenge: 1
question: In enhancement-type MOSFET's, the ____ regions are used
for operation as a switch.
option1: a. triode and saturation
option2: b. cut-off and saturation
option3: c. saturation and active
option4: d. cut-off and triode

challenge: 3
question: Unijunction transistor has three terminals, namely
option1: a. gate, cathode, and anode
option2: b. grid, plate, and cathode
option3: c. base 1, base 2, and emitter
option4: d. gate, base 1, and base 2
challenge: 4
question: What happens to the voltage drop across the diode when
current flow increases rapidly in a forward-biased diode?
option3: c. becomes zero instantly
option4: d. remains relatively constant
challenge: 4
question: What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices
exhibit both metallic and nonmetallic characteristics?
option1: a. gold and silicon
option2: b. germanium and gold
option3: c. bismuth and galena
option4: d. silicon and germanium
challenge: 1
question: What are the majority current carriers in the N-type
silicon?
option1: a. free electrons
option2: b. holes
option3: c. bounded electrons
option4: d. protons
challenge: 2
question: A/an _____ is a diode that gives off light when
energized.
option1: a. photodiode
option2: b. LED
option3: c. photoconductive cell
option4: d. tunnel diode
challenge: 3
question: Are solid state gallium arsenide devices that emit a
beam of radiant flux when forward biased.
option1: a. LEDs
option2: b. photoconductive cells
option3: c. IR emitters
option4: d. photodiodes
challenge: 2
question: A graphical representation in transistor wherein the
emitter current is plotted against the variable emitter base voltage
Veb for constant value of collector-base voltage Vcb.
option1: a. static curve
option2: b. input characteristic curve
option3: c. output characteristic curve
option4: d. semilog curve

challenge: 1
question: When the collector current Ic is plotted against the
collector base voltage at constant emitter current Ie, the curve
obtained is called.
option1: a. output characteristic curve
option2: b. linear curve
option3: c. V-I curve
option4: d. semilog curve
challenge: 1
question: Eg for silicon is 1.12 eV and for Germanium is 0.72 eV.
It can be concluded that
option1: a. less number of electron hole pairs will be generated
in silicon than in germanium at room temperature
option2: b. more number of electrons and hole pairs will be
generated in silicon than in germanium at room temperature
option3: c. high energy of charges is a property of silicon
option4: d. the relationship of the two is not significant
challenge: 1
question: Junction diodes are commonly rated by its
option1: a. maximum forward current and PIV
option2: b. inductance and PIV
option3: c. capacitance and maximum reverse current
option4: d. circuits resistance and maximum forward current
challenge: 2
question: A special type of diode which is often used in RF
switches, attenuators, and various types of phase shifting devices is
called
option2: b. PIN diode
option4: d. varactor diode
challenge: 2
question: A volt-ampere characteristic curve that describes the
relationship of the output voltage of a transistor to its output
current at a step input current.
option1: a. input characteristic
option2: b. output characteristic
option3: c. load line
option4: d. saturation curve
challenge: 3
question: The use of _____ coupling is particularly desirable in
low level, low noise audio amplifier stages to minimize hum pick up
from stray magnetic fields.
option1: a. transformer
option2: b. direct
option3: c. RC
option4: d. LC
challenge: 2
question: The way in which the gain of an amplifier varies with
the frequency is called
option1: a. logarithmic response

option2: b. frequency response
option3: c. voltage response
option4: d. phase response
challenge: 2
question: The maximum rectification efficiency of a half wave
rectifier is
option1: a. 81.2 %
option2: b. 40.6 %
option3: c. 20.6 %
option4: d. 25 %
challenge: 2
question: The maximum rectification efficiency of a full-wave
rectifier is
option1: a. 40.6 %
option2: b. 81.2 %
option3: c. 110 %
option4: d. 92 %
challenge: 2
question: A coupled amplifier which has the major advantage of
permitting power to be transformed from the relatively high output
impedance of the first stage to the relatively low input impedance of
the second stage.
option2: b. Transformer coupling
option3: c. direct coupling
option4: d. stabilized coupling
challenge: 2
question: Electron mobility property of silicon at 300 K is
approximately equal to _____ sq m/v-s
option1: a. 1.1
option2: b. 0.135
option3: c. 0.048
option4: d. 45
challenge: 2
question: In a push-pull power amplifier, an input transformer
can be used as a _____ providing equal amplitude input signals opposite
in polarity.
option1: a. phase reversal
option2: b. phase-splitter
option3: c. limiter
option4: d. discriminator
challenge: 3
question: If the line frequency is 60 Hz, the output frequency of
a bridge rectifier is
option1: a. 30 Hz
option2: b. 60 Hz
option3: c. 120 Hz
option4: d. 240 Hz
challenge: 4
question: Diode that operates in the reverse breakdown voltage

and is used as a voltage regulator.
option1: a. varactor diode
option2: b. PIN diode
option4: d. zener diode
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following is considered a unipolar device?
option1: a. capacitor
option3: c. FET
option4: d. BJT
challenge: 3
question: Invented the feedback amplifier in 1928.
option1: a. Henry Brattain
option2: b. Mark Twain
option3: c. Harold Black
option4: d. Bell Labs
challenge: 2
question: The arrow in a semiconductor symbols
option1: a. always points towards the P region and away from the
N region
option2: b. always points toward the N region and away from the P
region
option3: c. is not a significant symbol
option4: d. always points toward the PN junction
challenge: 4
question: If the input power of a half wave rectifier has a
frequency of 400 Hz, then the ripple frequency will be equal to _____
option1: a. 800 Hz
option2: b. 200 Hz
option3: c. 100 Hz
option4: d. 400 Hz
challenge: 1
question: If the input frequency of a full-wave rectifier is 400
Hz, the ripple frequency will be _____.
option1: a. twice as the input frequency
option2: b. equal to the input frequency divided by two
option3: c. quadruple of the input frequency
option4: d. equal to a quarter of its input frequency
challenge: 4
question: Also called as the conventional amplifier.
option1: a. common-collector circuit
option2: b. emitter follower circuit
option3: c. common base circuit
option4: d. common emitter circuit
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following is true about emitter follower
circuits?
option1: a. the output signal is 180 degrees out of the phase
with the input signal

option2: b. the output signal is in phase with the input signal
option3: c. the input signal is always equal to the output signal
option4: d. an emitter follower circuit is equivalent to a common
emitter connection
challenge: 1
question: The equation for JFET's transconductance.
option1: a. gm = delta Ic / delta Vgs
option2: b. gm = Ig/Vg
option3: c. gm = Vgs/Ic
option4: d. gm = Ic/Vds
challenge: 3
question: Another name for a light activated diode (LAD) is
option1: a. IR emitter
option2: b. LED
option3: c. photodiode
option4: d. LCD
challenge: 3
question: The semiconductor devices that radiate light or utilize
light are called
option1: a. active devices
option2: b. photoelectric devices
option3: c. optoelectronic devices
option4: d. passive devices
challenge: 2
question: Structural category of a semiconductor diode can either
be
option1: a. electrolytic and point contact
option2: b. junction and point contact
option3: c. electrolytic and vacuum
option4: d. vacuum and gaseous
challenge: 3
question: Zener diodes can be primarily classified as
option1: a. forward and reverse biased
option2: b. varactor and rectifying
option3: c. voltage regulation and voltage reference
option4: d. gaseous and hot carrier
challenge: 2
question: The principal characteristics of a tunnel diode.
option1: a. a constant current under conditions of varying
voltage
option2: b. a negative resistance region
option3: c. a very high PIV device
option4: d. an internal capacitance that varies with the applied
voltage
challenge: 1
question: A special type of semiconductor diode which varies its
internal capacitance as the voltage applied to its terminal varies.
option1: a. varactor diode
option2: b. point contact diode
option3: c. zener diode

option4: d. silicon controlled rectifier
challenge: 4
question: The maximum forward current in a junction diode is
limited by its
option1: a. peak inverse voltage
option2: b. maximum forward voltage
option3: c. leakage current
option4: d. junction temperature
challenge: 1
question: What are the three terminals of FET?
option1: a. gate, source, and drain
option2: b. plate, cathode, and grid
option3: c. gate, source, and grid
option4: d. input, output, and ground
challenge: 4
question: When a transistor is fully saturated,
option1: a. the emitter current is at its minimum value
option2: b. the transistor alpha is at its maximum value
option3: c. the beta of the transistor is at minimal value
option4: d. the collector current is at its maximum value
challenge: 1
question: A FET without a channel and no current occurs with zero
gate voltage is
option1: a. enhancement-mode FET
option2: b. depletion-mode FET
option3: c. CMOS
option4: d. metal-oxide transistor
challenge: 3
question: Which of the items below is a special precaution
necessary in handling FET and CMOS devices?
option1: a. they have fragile leads that might break off
option2: b. they are light sensitive
option3: c. they are susceptible to damage from static charges
option4: d. they have microwelded semiconductor junctions that
are suscpetible to breakage
challenge: 3
question: A data sheet gives these JFET values: Idss = 20 mA and
pinch of voltage is 5 volts. What is the gate-source cut-off voltage?
option1: a. 15 volts
option2: b. 10 volts
option3: c. -5 volts
option4: d. 5 volts
challenge: 2
question: What is the dc resistance of the JFET in the ohmic
region if the drain to source current at gate shorted is equal to 20 mA
and the pinch off voltage is 5 volts?
option3: c. 1 kohm(s)
option4: d. 100 ohm(s)

challenge: 1
question: Suppose a JFET has Idss = 7mA and Vgs(off) = -3 V.
Calculate the drain current for a gate-source voltage of -1 V.
option1: a. 3.1 mA
option2: b. 0.445 A
option3: c. 4.45 mA
option4: d. 31.2 mA
challenge: 4
question: _____ are often called square law devices.
option1: a. transistors
option2: b. diodes
option3: c. SCRs
option4: d. JFETs
challenge: 2
question: Equivalent of transistor at saturation in JFET's is
_____
option1: a. breakdown
option2: b. constant-current
option3: c. pinch-off
option4: d. ohmic
challenge: 1
question: When a JFET is cut-off, the depletion layers are
option1: a. touching
option2: b. separated
option3: c. very far apart
option4: d. close together
challenge: 3
question: The voltage that turns on an enhancement-mode device is
the
option1: a. gate-source cut-off voltage
option2: b. pinch off voltage
option3: c. threshold voltage
option4: d. knee voltage
challenge: 1
question: Depletion-mode MOSFET acts mostly as
option1: a. a JFET
option2: b. a voltage source
option3: c. a resistor
option4: d. enhancement-mode MOSFET
challenge: 3
question: JFET's input impedance is
option1: a. approaches unity
option2: b. approaches zero
option3: c. approaches infinity
option4: d. is unpredictable
challenge: 1
question: The current gain of an emitter follower circuit is
option1: a. high
option2: b. low

option4: d. very low
challenge: 3
question: The drift transistor has a high frequency cut off
option1: a. due to the high resistance of the base area
option2: b. since high voltage can be used
option3: c. due to its inherent internal capacitance and low
electron transit time through the base
option4: d. due to the large area
challenge: 4
question: The maximum operating frequency of a transistor should
be _____ percent of the frequency cut-off of the transistor to ensure
best performance.
option1: a. 100
option2: b. 20
option3: c. 80
option4: d. 50
challenge: 3
question: When transistor applications call for a temperature
operating condition which exceeds 185 degrees Fahrenheit, which element
is most suitable?
option1: a. gallium
option2: b. antimony
option3: c. silicon
option4: d. impossible to operate transistor above 185 degrees
Farenheit
challenge: 2
question: _____ is the most important factor of a power
transistor
option1: a. output resistance
option2: b. heat dissipation
option3: c. input voltage
option4: d. output parameter
challenge: 3
question: When the electron transit time through the base region
is very short, this
option1: a. creates a higher potential barrier
option2: b. makes the transistor unable to amplify its signal
option3: c. provides a higher cut-off frequency
option4: d. provides a zener effect
challenge: 2
question: When the transistors are used in video amplifiers, its
main limitation is
option1: a. low peak voltage
option2: b. poor frequency response
option3: c. low peak current
option4: d. poor filtering of signals
challenge: 3
question: Impedance matching in circuit is important for _____
transfer of energy.

option1: a. minimum
option2: b. enough
option3: c. maximum
option4: d. limited
challenge: 1
question: An amplifier has an output power of 3 watts. Determine
the power output level with reference to 1 mW.
option1: a. 34.77 dBm
option2: b. 40 dBm
option3: c. -30 dBm
option4: d. -40.1 dBm
challenge: 2
question: A unijunction transistor is a three-terminal device
consisting of _____ semiconductor layers.
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 2
option3: c. 3
option4: d. 4
challenge: 1
question: It is the process by which atoms are constantly losing
and regaining free electrons.
option1: a. ionization
option2: b. covalent bond
option4: d. parasitism
challenge: 2
question: Termed as unwanted oscillation that may occur in almost
any type of circuits, oscillator, amplifier, power supply, receiver and
transmitters.
option1: a. white noise
option2: b. parasitic oscillators
option3: c. ripples
option4: d. pulsating dc signal
challenge: 2
question: Which of the items below describes an RF amplifier
which amplify a weak signal voltage in relatively the same proportion
as it will amplify a stronger signal voltage?
option1: a. Class A amplifier
option2: b. Linear amplifier
option3: c. Non-linear amplifier
option4: d. Inverting amplifier
challenge: 2
question: It is the maximum amount of reverse voltage which can
be applied on a diode before the breakdown point is reached.
option1: a. Zener voltage
option2: b. peak inverse voltage
option4: d. threshold voltage
challenge: 1
question: It refers to any of the over 100 different substances

which have never been separated into simpler substances by chemical
means and which alone or in combination constitute all matter.
option1: a. element
option2: b. atom
option3: c. holes
option4: d. electrons
challenge: 2
question: It is also known as a solid state lamp which utilizes
the fall of an electron from the conduction level to the valence level
to develop an energy release in the form of heat or light.
option1: a. LCD
option2: b. LED
option3: c. photodiode
option4: d. photoconductive cell
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following is not true with alpha of a
transistor.
option1: a. it is the current gain of a common-base configuration
option2: b. it is the ratio of the change in collector current to
the change in emitter current
option3: c. it is usually having a value of unity in some
approximations
option4: d. it is the ratio of the change in collector current to
the change in base current
challenge: 3
question: Present atomic theories place the mass and positive
charge of an atom in a central nucleus composed of protons and
option1: a. holes
option2: b. core
option3: c. neutrons
option4: d. magnetron
challenge: 3
question: The _____ as a fundamental particle is considered as a
bundle of radiant energy or light, the amount of energy being related
to the frequency.
option1: a. protons
option2: b. LED
option3: c. photons
option4: d. comet
challenge: 2
question: Electron emitted by the mechanical impact of an ion
striking a surface is called
option1: a. primary electrons
option2: b. secondary electrons
option3: c. moderately doped electrons
option4: d. polarized charge
challenge: 1
question: The break up of nuclei into nuclear fragments that are
themselves nuclei is called
option1: a. fission
option2: b. isotope

option3: c. neutrino
option4: d. atom
challenge: 2
question: Particles of zero charge and zero mass.
option1: a. fusion
option2: b. neutrinos
option3: c. fission
option4: d. isotopes
challenge: 1
question: Approximate mass of an electron at rest.
option1: a. 9.1096 x 10^-31 kg
option2: b. 1.6726 x 10^-27 kg
option3: c. 1.6726 x 10^-31 kg
option4: d. 1.7588 x 10^11 kg
challenge: 1
question: A term used to describe the outermost shell of an atom.
option1: a. valence shell
option2: b. free shell
option3: c. electron shell
option4: d. conductive shell
challenge: 1
question: Are the electrons at the outermost shell which are
usually weakly attracted by the core such that an outside force can
easily dislodge these electrons from the atom.
option2: b. orbiting electrons
option3: c. bound electrons
option4: d. loose electrons
challenge: 3
question: The reason why electrons are not pulled in the
positively charged nucleus is because of the _____ which usually became
exactly equals the inward attraction of the nucleus.
option1: a. kinetic energy
option2: b. energy at rest
option3: c. centrifugal force
option4: d. frictional force
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following items is not a type of material?
option4: d. diode
challenge: 1
question: The highest energy band of an atom which can be filled
with electrons.
option1: a. valence band
option2: b. conduction band
option3: c. insulation band
option4: d. energy level

challenge: 2
question: An energy band in which electrons can move freely.
option1: a. valence band
option2: b. conduction band
option3: c. energy gap
option4: d. insulation band
challenge: 1
question: Approximate energy gap in insulator is
option1: a. Eg => 5 eV
option2: b. Eg = 1.1 eV
option3: c. Eg = 0.67 eV
option4: d. Eg = 4 eV
challenge: 2
question: The energy gap for semiconductors made of silicon is
option1: a. Eg = 5 eV
option4: d. Eg = 4 eV
challenge: 3
question: The energy gap for germanium made semiconductors is
option1: a. Eg = 5 eV
option4: d. no energy gap
challenge: 3
question: A type of material which usually has one valence
electron.
challenge: 2
question: A type of material which usually has four valence
electrons.
option4: d. IGFET
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is considered as the best
conductor?
option1: a. gold
option2: b. silicon
option4: d. mica
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following below is not taking place inside
a silicon crystal?
option1: a. some free electrons and holes are being created by
thermal energy

option2: b. other free electrons and holes are recombining
option3: c. some free electrons and holes exist in an in-between
state
option4: d. some free electrons disappears in the lattice due to
vaporization
challenge: 1
question: It is an arrangement of silicon atoms combined to form
a solid such that there are now 8 electrons in the valence shell.
option1: a. crystal
option2: b. bonding
option4: d. solid silicon
challenge: 3
question: The sharing of valence electrons to produce a
chemically stable atom.
option1: a. bound electrons
option2: b. crystal
option3: c. covalent bond
option4: d. recombination
challenge: 3
question: The eight electrons which are tightly held by the atom
are called
option1: a. valence electrons
option2: b. outermost shell
option3: c. bound electrons
option4: d. covalent electrons
challenge: 3
question: When an atom has bound electrons, it is described as
option1: a. all charges do recombination
option2: b. valence electrons disappear due to vapor
option3: c. filled or saturated since valence orbit can hold not
more than 8 electrons
option4: d. merging of electrons and other particles
challenge: 2
question: Refers to the temperature of the surrounding air.
option1: a. atmospheric temperature
option2: b. ambient temperature
option3: c. freezing point
option4: d. cooling temperature
challenge: 1
question: The term used to describe the released electrons
dislodged from its original shell due to increase in temperature which
joins into a larger orbit.
option2: b. bound electrons
option3: c. covalent electrons
option4: d. merge electrons
challenge: 2
question: The term used to refer to the vacancy left by the free
electron when it departs from its original shell.

option1: a. proton
option2: b. hole
option3: c. neutron
option4: d. nucleus
challenge: 2
question: The merging of a free electron and a hole inside the
silicon crystal.
option1: a. covalent bond
option3: c. merged electron
option4: d. valence bond
challenge: 3
question: The amount of time between the creation and
disappearance of a free electron.
option1: a. recombination time
option2: b. bounding time
option3: c. lifetime
option4: d. propagation time
challenge: 2
question: The purpose of adding an impurity atom to an intrinsic
crystal is
option1: a. to alter its insulating property
option2: b. to increase its electric conductivity
option3: c. to stop conduction
option4: d. to increase the resistivity of the semiconductor
material
challenge: 3
question: An extrinsic semiconductor produces _____ when a
pentavalent atom are added to the molten silicon
option1: a. intrinsic
option2: b. p-type
option3: c. n-type
option4: d. hybrid type
challenge: 2
question: Which of the items below is not a pentavalent atom?
option1: a. phosphorous
option3: c. antimony
option4: d. arsenic
challenge: 2
question: The reduction of power handling capability of the diode
due to the increase of ambient temperature from room temperature.
option1: a. maximum junction temperature
option2: b. linear power derating factor
option3: c. power factor
option4: d. amplification factor
challenge: 2
question: The maximum temperature the diode can operate before
burning.
option1: a. maximum dissipation factor

option2: b. maximum junction temperature
option3: c. ambient temperature
option4: d. boiling temperature rating
challenge: 1
question: Reverse recovery time of the diode is computed as the
_____ of the storage time and transition interval from the forward to
reverse bias.
option1: a. sum
option2: b. product
option3: c. quotient
option4: d. difference
challenge: 4
question: The nucleus of a copper atom contains how many protons?
option1: a. 2
option2: b. 1
option3: c. 18
option4: d. 29
challenge: 4
question: How many protons does the nucleus of a silicon atom
contain?
option1: a. 4
option2: b. 14
option3: c. 29
option4: d. 32
challenge: 2
question: An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room
temperature. What causes these holes?
option1: a. doping
option2: b. thermal energy
option3: c. free electrons
option4: d. valence electrons
challenge: 4
question: When a diode is forward biased, the recombination of
free electrons and holes may produce _____ .
option1: a. heat
option2: b. light
option3: c. radiation
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following doping elements have a valence
of 5?
option1: a. gallium
option2: b. boron
option4: d. phosphorous
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following doping elements have a valance
of 4?
option1: a. arsenic
option2: b. gallium

option4: d. silicon
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following doping elements have a valance
of 3?
option1: a. gallium
option2: b. boron
option4: d. phosphorous
challenge: 3
question: A positive charge outside the nucleus which is present
only in semiconductor due to unfilled covalent bonds.
option2: b. proton
option3: c. hole
option4: d. neutron
challenge: 2
question: When charges are forced to move by the electric field
of a potential difference, _____ current is said to flow.
option1: a. reverse
option2: b. drift
option3: c. leakage
option4: d. threshold
challenge: 1
question: When a PN junction is connected to a battery in such a
way that P-side is connected to positive terminal of the battery and
the negative terminal to N-side, this connection is known as
option1: a. forward bias
option2: b. reverse bias
option3: c. back bias
option4: d. knee bias
challenge: 2
question: When a PN junction is connected to a battery in such a
way that P-side is connected to negative terminal of the battery and
positive terminal to N-side, this connection is known as
option1: a. forward bias
option2: b. reverse bias
option3: c. depletion connection
option4: d. positive bias
challenge: 3
question: An electron in the conduction band
option1: a. losses its charge easily
option2: b. jumps to the tip of the crystal
option3: c. has higher energy than the electron in the valence
band
option4: d. has lower energy than the electron in the valence
band
challenge: 3
question: An ideal diode
option1: a. should have a zero resistance in the forward bias as

well in the reverse bias
option2: b. should have an infinitely large resistance in the
forward bias and zero resistance in reverse bias
option3: c. should have zero resistance in the forward bias and
an infinitely large resistance in reverse bias
option4: d. should have infinitely large resistance in forward as
well as reverse bias
challenge: 1
question: Thermal voltage (VT) is approximately equal to _____ at
room temperature (20 degrees Celsius).
option1: a. 25 mV
option2: b. 25 V
option3: c. 100 mV
option4: d. 100 V
challenge: 2
question: Boltzmann's constant is equivalent to
option1: a. 1.62 x 10^-18 Celsius
option2: b. 8.62 x 10^-5 eV/Kelvin
option3: c. 0.7 V
option4: d. 1.3 x 10^8 V/m
challenge: 3
question: The preferred form of biasing a JFET amplifier is
through the
option1: a. voltage divider bias
option2: b. gate bias
option3: c. self bias
option4: d. source bias
challenge: 4
question: The gate-to-source on voltage of an n-channel
enhancement mode MOSFET is
option1: a. less than Vth
option2: b. equal to Vgs(off)
option3: c. greater than Vds(on)
option4: d. greater than Vgs(th)
challenge: 2
question: A mechanism for carrier motion in semiconductor which
occurs when an electric field is applied across a piece of silicon.
option1: a. carrier diffusion
option2: b. carrier drift
option4: d. diffusivity
challenge: 2
question: _____ occurs in pn diodes when the minority carriers
that cross the depletion region under the influence of the electric
field, gain sufficient kinetic energy to be able to break covalent
bonds in atoms with which they collide.
option1: a. drift
option2: b. avalanche breakdown
option4: d. saturation

challenge: 3
question: An extrinsic semiconductor which is produced when a
trivalent atom are added to the molten silicon.
option1: a. aluminum
option2: b. N-type
option3: c. P-type
option4: d. holes
challenge: 2
question: It is a stable positive charge in the nucleus that is
not free to move.
option1: a. hole
option2: b. proton
option3: c. neutron
option4: d. electron
challenge: 1
question: The creation of a voltage in a conductor or
semiconductor by illumination of one surface.
option1: a. dember effect
option3: c. destriau effect
option4: d. night effect
challenge: 2
question: _____ uses a material catwhisker as its anode and is
classified as a hot-carrier diode.
option1: a. PIN
option2: b. point-contact diode
option3: c. shockley diode
challenge: 2
question: What is the typical operating current of an LED?
option1: a. 50 mA
option2: b. 10 mA
option3: c. 20 mA
option4: d. 5 mA
challenge: 3
question: At absolute zero temperature, a semiconductor behaves
as a/an
option1: a. good conductor
option2: b. superconductor
option4: d. variable resistor
challenge: 3
question: Avalanche breakdown in a semiconductor takes place
option1: a. when forward current exceeds a certain value
option2: b. when potential barrier is reduced to zero
option3: c. when reverse bias exceeds a certain value
option4: d. when forward bias exceeds a certain value
challenge: 3
question: A cold-cathode glow-discharge diode having a copper
anode and a large cathode of sodium or other material.

option1: a. tunnel diode
option2: b. BARITT diode
option3: c. anotron
option4: d. READ diode
challenge: 3
question: A microwave diode in which the carriers that transverse
the drift region are generated by minority carrier injection from a
forward-biased junction instead of being extracted from the plasma of
an avalanche region.
option1: a. IMPATT
option2: b. TRAPATT
option3: c. BARITT diode
option4: d. Esaki diode
challenge: 1
question: A _____ is an electronic circuit that converts AC to DC
but where the DC output peak value can be greater than the AC input
peak value.
option1: a. voltage multiplier
option3: c. clamper
option4: d. clipper
challenge: 4
question: Which of the item below does not mean a VARACTOR diode?
option1: a. VOLTACAPS
option2: b. VARICAPS
option3: c. voltage variable capacitor
option4: d. variable resistance diode
challenge: 1
question: What is the charge of a hole?
option1: a. equal to that of a proton
option2: b. equal to that of an electron
option3: c. equal to that of a neutron
option4: d. equal to zero
challenge: 2
question: It is the current gain for the common-emitter
configuration.
option1: a. alpha
option2: b. beta
option3: c. delta
option4: d. gamma
challenge: 1
question: When a factor of a junction transistor is 0.98, the
factor would be equivalent to _____ value of transistor's beta.
option1: a. 49
option2: b. 60
option3: c. 20
option4: d. 38
challenge: 2
question: An emitter resistor is used for _____ in most amplifier
circuits.

option1: a. temperature stabilization
option2: b. biasing a bipolar junction transistor
option3: c. current limitation
option4: d. voltage amplification
challenge: 2
question: _____ is a line drawn between the open-circuit voltage
and the short-circuit current on a JFET characteristic curve.
option1: a. operating point
option2: b. load line
option3: c. tangent line
option4: d. quiescent point
challenge: 3
question: Which of the choices below is another name for a
photoconductive cell?
option1: a. varicap
option2: b. varistor
option3: c. photoresistive device
challenge: 2
question: When both the emitter and collector junctions are
reversed biased, the transistor is said to be at _____ region.
option1: a. active
option2: b. cut-off
option3: c. saturation
option4: d. amplifying
challenge: 2
question: A type of diode used for tuning receivers and is
normally operated with reverse bias and derived its name from voltage
variable capacitor.
option1: a. hot-carrier diode
option2: b. varactor diode
option4: d. zener diode
challenge: 2
question: A silicon npn tetrode that serves as a bistable
negative-resistance device.
option1: a. BJT
option2: b. binistor
option3: c. FET
option4: d. thermistor
challenge: 4
question: A multiple-terminal solid-state device similar to a
transistor that generates frequencies up to about 10,000 MHz by
injecting electrons or holes into a space-charge layer which rapidly
forces these carriers to a collecting electrode.
option1: a. magnetron
option2: b. IMPATT
option3: c. klystron
option4: d. spacistor
challenge: 3

question: Which of the items below is not a good conductor?
option1: a. electrolytes
option2: b. ionized gases
option3: c. silicon
option4: d. silver
challenge: 1
question: What is the net charge if a certain semiconductor
losses all 4 valence electrons?
option1: a. +4
option2: b. -4
option3: c. +8
option4: d. -8
challenge: 2
question: What is the net charge if a certain semiconductor gains
one valence electron?
option1: a. +1
option2: b. -1
option3: c. +4
option4: d. -4
challenge: 3
question: What is the approximate voltage drop of LED?
option1: a. 0.3 V
option2: b. 0.7 V
option3: c. 1.5 V
option4: d. 3.8 V
challenge: 1
question: Under standard conditions, pure germanium has a
resistivity of
option1: a. 60 ohm(s)-cm
option2: b. 60 ohm(s)-m
option3: c. 60 ohm(s)-mm
option4: d. 60 x 10^-4 ohm(s)-cm
challenge: 4
question: The holding of one extreme amplitude of the input
waveform to a certain amount of potential is called
option1: a. slicing
option2: b. limiting
option3: c. rectifying
option4: d. clamping
challenge: 1
question: Clamper is also known as
option1: a. DC restorer
option3: c. charger
option4: d. clipper
challenge: 3
question: Percentage ripple can be calculated by getting the
_____ and multiplying the result by 100%
option1: a. ratio of the input resistance and input voltage
option2: b. product of the ac current to the dc current

option3: c. ratio of the ac voltage to dc voltage
option4: d. addition of the ac and dc component of the given
signal
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following materials has the smallest
leakage current?
option1: a. germanium
option2: b. carbon
option3: c. sulphur
option4: d. silicon
challenge: 2
question: _____ refers to the annihilation of a hole and
electron.
option1: a. doping
option4: d. bonding
challenge: 4
question: What are the two possible breakdown mechanism in pn
junction diodes?
option1: a. reverse and breakdown effects
option3: c. zener breakdown
option4: d. zener and avalanche effects
challenge: 3
question: _____ occurs in pn diodes when the electric field in
the depletion layer increases to the point where it can break covalent
bonds and generate electron hole pairs.
option1: a. covalent breakdown
option3: c. zener breakdown
option4: d. avalanche effect
challenge: 3
question: The amount of additional energy required to emit an
electron from the surface of a metal is called
option1: a. potential barrier
option2: b. junction voltage
option3: c. work function
option4: d. knee voltage
challenge: 1
question: When the temperature of a pure semiconductor is
increased, its resistances
option4: d. cannot be estimated
challenge: 4
question: As a general rule, _____ are found only in
semiconductors.
option1: a. electrons

option2: b. bulk resistances
option3: c. depletion layers
option4: d. holes
challenge: 1
question: _____ in a semiconductor is defined as the incomplete
part of an electron pair bond.
option1: a. hole
option2: b. valence electron
option3: c. impurity
option4: d. ion
challenge: 1
question: When the number of free electrons is increased in a
doped semiconductor, it becomes a/an _____ semiconductor.
option1: a. n type
option2: b. p type
option3: c. pn type
option4: d. np type
challenge: 2
question: Reducing the number of free electrons in a doped
semiconductor forms a/an _____ semiconductor.
option1: a. n type
option2: b. p type
option3: c. pnpn type
option4: d. npn type
challenge: 3
question: Pure semiconductor atoms contain how many valence
electrons?
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 2
option3: c. 4
option4: d. 8
challenge: 3
question: An acceptor atom contains how many valence electrons?
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 2
option3: c. 3
option4: d. 4
challenge: 2
question: The resistivity of an extrinsic semiconductor is
option1: a. 1 ohm(s)-cm
option2: b. 2 ohm(s)-cm
option3: c. 3 ohm(s)-cm
option4: d. 4 ohm(s)-cm
challenge: 1
question: The forward resistance of a crystal diode is in the
order of
option1: a. ohm(s)
option2: b. mohm(s)
option3: c. µohm(s)
option4: d. kohm(s)

challenge: 1
question: What is the ideal value of stability factor?
option1: a. 1
option2: b. 0.5
option4: d. 100
challenge: 1
question: Approximate mass of a neutron at rest.
option1: a. 1.6726 x 10^-27 kg
option2: b. 9.1096 x 10^-31 kg
option3: c. 1.6022 x 10^-19 kg
option4: d. no mass
challenge: 2
question: Approximate mass at rest of a proton is _____ to that
of a neutron.
option1: a. greater than
option2: b. equal
option4: d. comparable
challenge: 3
question: Charge of an electron is approximately equal to
option1: a. 1.6022 x 10^-19 C
option2: b. -1.6726 x 10^-27 C
option3: c. -1.6022 x 10^-19 C
option4: d. no charge
challenge: 3
question: What capacitors are used in transistor amplifiers?
option1: a. mica
option2: b. air
option3: c. electrolytic
option4: d. paper
challenge: 4
question: What is the reason why a common collector is used for
impedance matching?
option1: a. its output impedance is very high
option2: b. its output impedance is very low
option3: c. its input impedance is very low
option4: d. its input impedance is very high
challenge: 3
question: In power supplies, circuits that are employed in
separating the ac and dc components and bypass the ac components around
the load, or prevent their generation are called
option1: a. filters
option2: b. limiters
option3: c. series capacitors
option4: d. diode circuits
challenge: 2
question: A nuclei with common number of protons, but with
different number of neutrons.

option1: a. fission
option2: b. isotopes
option3: c. atom
option4: d. core
challenge: 3
question: What is the reason why FET has a high input impedance?
option1: a. because its input is forward biased
option2: b. because of the impurity atoms
option3: c. because its input is reverse biased
option4: d. because it is made of semiconductor material
challenge: 4
question: A MOSFET is sometimes called _____ FET.
option1: a. open gate
option2: b. shorted gate
option3: c. metallic gate
option4: d. insulated gate
challenge: 2
question: Which of the choices is an advantage of a MOSFET over a
BJT in an RF amplifier circuit?
option1: a. low voltage operation
option2: b. low noise
option3: c. low amplification of signals
option4: d. compatibility
challenge: 2
question: The voltage gain of an emitter follower circuit is
option1: a. high
option2: b. low
option3: c. very high
challenge: 3
question: A _____ is considered a current controlled device.
option1: a. diode
option2: b. FET
challenge: 1
question: A _____ is considered a voltage controlled device.
option1: a. FET
option2: b. diode
option4: d. capacitor
challenge: 3
question: The value of a coupling capacitor, Cc in RC coupling is
about
option1: a. 0.01 µF
option2: b. 0.1 µF
option3: c. 10 µF
option4: d. 100 µF
challenge: 2

question: FET has a pinch off voltage of about
option1: a. 0.5 V
option2: b. 5 V
option3: c. 10 V
option4: d. 20 V
challenge: 4
question: What is the point of intersection between a diode
characteristic and a load line?
option1: a. Q point
option2: b. quiescent point
option3: c. operating point
challenge: 3
question: A measure of the ability of an LED to produce the
desired number of lumens generated per applied watt of electrical
energy.
option1: a. luminous intensity
option2: b. luminous efficiency
option3: c. luminous efficacy
option4: d. luminous ability
challenge: 1
question: What kind of instrument is an ammeter?
option1: a. An indicating
option2: b. A recording
option3: c. An integrating
option4: d. A dc meter
challenge: 2
question: As the deflection of the moving system increases, the
controlling torque in an indicating instrument.
challenge: 3
question: Which is the best type of ammeter movement?
option1: a. iron-wave
option2: b. dynamometer
option3: c. D'Arsonval
option4: d. Moving Iron
challenge: 1
question: Which dynamometer type has uniform scale?
option1: a. wattmeter
option2: b. voltmeter
option3: c. ammeter
option4: d. ohmmeter
challenge: 1
question: When both deflecting and controlling torque act, the
pointer of an indicating instrument comes to
option1: a. rest
option2: b. mid-position

option3: c. maximum position
option4: d. 3/4 position
challenge: 3
question: The output voltage of a thermocouple
option1: a. remains constant with temperature
option2: b. decreases with applied voltage
option3: c. increases with temperature
option4: d. increases with applied voltage
challenge: 1
question: An instrument in which the magnitude of the measured
quantity is indicated by means of a pointer.
option1: a. analog instrument
option2: b. digital instrument
option3: c. ammeter
option4: d. voltmeter
challenge: 3
question: If the pointer of an indicating instrument is in
motion, then what opposes deflecting torque?
option1: a. controlling torque
option2: b. damping torque
option3: c. damping and controlling torques
option4: d. frictional torque
challenge: 3
question: How can electric currents be induced with a coil and a
magnet?
option1: a. by placing the coil parallel to the magnetic field
option2: b. by placing the coil at right angles with the magnetic
field
option3: c. by moving either the magnet or the coil
option4: d. by keeping the coil and the magnet perfectly
stationary
challenge: 1
question: When should a fuse be replaced with a higher rated
unit?
option1: a. never
option2: b. when the original value is not available
option3: c. if it blows
option4: d. when fuses of the original value are small in size
challenge: 3
question: The pointer of an indicating instrument is generally
made of
option1: a. copper
option2: b. silver
option4: d. gold
challenge: 1
question: The time interval that a waveform is high (or low) is
the _____ of the signal.
option1: a. pulse width
option2: b. pulse length

option3: c. pulse position
challenge: 3
question: A Wheatstone bridge is balanced if
option1: a. the ratio of resistors on one side of the bridge is
one while the ratio of resistors on the other side is infinity
option2: b. the ratio of resistors on one side of the bridge is
greater than the ratio of resistors on the other side
option3: c. the ratio of resistors on one side of the bridge
equals the ratio of resistors on the other side
option4: d. the bridge uses identical resistors
challenge: 3
question: The pointer of an indicating instrument is in the final
deflected position, the _____ is zero.
option1: a. deflecting torque
option2: b. controlling torque
option3: c. damping torque
option4: d. frictional
challenge: 1
question: A moving system force in an analog instruments which
causes the moving system to deflect from its zero position.
option1: a. deflecting force
option2: b. damping force
option3: c. return-to-zero force
option4: d. controlling force
challenge: 2
question: A moving system force in analog instruments which
ensures that the deflection of the pointer for a given value of
measured quantity always has the same value.
option1: a. damping force
option2: b. controlling force
option3: c. NRZ force
option4: d. deflecting force
challenge: 3
question: All voltmeters except one of the following are operated
by the passage of current.
option1: a. moving-iron
option3: c. electrostatic
option4: d. permanent-magnet moving coil
challenge: 1
question: Disc is made of what material in eddy current damping?
option1: a. conductor and non-magnetic material
option2: b. conductor and magnetic material
option3: c. non-conductor and non-magnetic material
option4: d. non-conductor and magnetic material
challenge: 2
question: The time interval between pulses is called
option1: a. pulse frequency
option2: b. pulse delay

option3: c. pulse duration
option4: d. pulse period
challenge: 3
question: An oscilloscope provides easy measurement of _____
values.
option1: a. instantaneous
option2: b. rms
option3: c. peak to peak
option4: d. average
challenge: 4
question: An element in electronics which serves as a protection
against overload?
option2: b. transistor
option4: d. fuse
challenge: 1
question: What sensor provides a dc voltage approximately 1V at
10 mW?
option1: a. diode sensor
option2: b. thermocouple sensor
option3: c. thermal sensor
option4: d. thermistor sensor
challenge: 2
question: Hot-wire instrument has a/an _____ scale.
option1: a. uniform
option2: b. squared
option3: c. logarithmic
challenge: 1
question: For time measurements, _____ scale of the scope is
used.
option1: a. horizontal
option2: b. diagonal
option3: c. vertical
option4: d. both vertical and horizontal
challenge: 4
question: Fluid friction damping is employed in one of the
following.
option1: a. dynamometer wattmeter
option2: b. induction type energy meter
option3: c. hot-wire ammeter
option4: d. Kelvin electrostatic voltmeter
challenge: 1
question: Current range extension in moving coil instruments can
be achieved by placing a _____ in shunt with the instrument.
option1: a. low resistance resistor
option2: b. high resistance resistor
option3: c. high voltage transistor
option4: d. capacitor

challenge: 3
question: Permanent-magnet moving coil instrument can be used in
option1: a. ac work only
option2: b. both dc and ac work
option3: c. dc work only
option4: d. neither dc nor ac works
challenge: 2
question: What CRT element provides for control of the number of
electrons passing farther into the tube?
option1: a. cathode
option2: b. control grid
option3: c. anode
option4: d. phosphor screen
challenge: 2
question: _____ refers to garaging the two adjustments of an AC
bridge together in such a way that changing in one adjustment changes
the other in a special way, but changing the second adjustment does not
change the first.
option1: a. logarithmic nulling
option2: b. orthogonal nulling
option3: c. exponential nulling
option4: d. linear nulling
challenge: 2
question: When the vertical input is 0V, the electron beam may be
positioned at the _____ of the screen.
option1: a. top center
option2: b. vertical center
option3: c. horizontal center
option4: d. bottom center
challenge: 3
question: What is the reason why the scale of a permanent-magnet
moving coil instrument is uniform?
option1: a. because of effective eddy current damping
option2: b. because external magnetic field have no effect
option3: c. because it is spring controlled
option4: d. because it has no hysteresis loss
challenge: 1
question: A sensing element that provides a dc voltage less than
10mV with typical power range of 0.1 to 100 mW.
option1: a. thermal converters
option2: b. thermal sensors
option3: c. thermocouple sensors
option4: d. diode sensors
challenge: 3
question: Tank circuit frequency can be measured by _____.
option1: a. voltmeter
option2: b. signal generator
option3: c. grid-dip meter
option4: d. absorption meter

challenge: 4
question: Shunts are generally made of what material?
option1: a. constantan
option2: b. silver
challenge: 4
question: _____ meter is the most sensitive.
option1: a. 10 mA
option2: b. 1 mA
option3: c. 1 A
option4: d. 1 µA
challenge: 2
question: A dynamometer instrument is mainly used as a/an
option1: a. dc ammeter
option2: b. wattmeter
option3: c. dc voltmeter
option4: d. ohmmeter
challenge: 2
question: Which movement is the most expensive?
option1: a. D'Arsonval movement
option3: c. moving-iron
option4: d. iron-wave
challenge: 2
question: Attraction and repulsion instruments are considered as
option1: a. moving-cell instruments
option2: b. moving-iron instruments
option3: c. electrodynamic instruments
option4: d. dynamometer
challenge: 1
question: In wheatstone bridge, bridge balance is a condition
where
option1: a. there is no current that flows through the load
option2: b. there is current that flows through the load
option3: c. there is potential difference between load terminals
option4: d. the galvanometer reading is maximum
challenge: 1
question: The temperature coefficient of resistance of the shunt
material is
option1: a. negligible
option3: c. positive
challenge: 4
question: In VTVMS, _____ is used to balance both halves of the
difference amplifier or cathode-coupled amplifier.
option1: a. trigger adjust
option2: b. scale
option3: c. infinite adjust

option4: d. zero adjust
challenge: 1
question: In an oscilloscope, _____ adjusts the brightness of the
spot by changing the current on the control grid.
option1: a. intensity control
option2: b. focus control
option3: c. astigmatism control
option4: d. position control
challenge: 1
question: A force in analog instrument which quickly brings the
moving system to rest in its final position.
option1: a. damping force
option2: b. controlling force
option3: c. deflecting force
option4: d. force at rest
challenge: 1
question: The resistance of a moving-coil instrument is 10ohm(s)
and gives full-scale deflection at 10mA. Calculate the resistance of
the shunt required to convert the instrument to give full-scale
deflection when the circuit current is 5 A.
option1: a. 0.02004ohm(s)
option2: b. 0.20004ohm(s)
option3: c. 1ohm(s)
option4: d. 2.04ohm(s)
challenge: 1
question: A small swamping resistance is connected in series with
operating coil of a moving coil ammeter in order to compensate for the
effects of
option1: a. temperature variation
option3: c. external magnetic fields
option4: d. temperature inversion
challenge: 4
question: The typical power range of a diode sensor is
option1: a. 0.1µW to 10mW
option2: b. 0.1pW to 10mW
option3: c. 0.1mW to 100W
option4: d. 0.1nW to 10mW
challenge: 4
question: A _____ operates on the magnetic attraction-repulsion
principles.
option1: a. spectrum analyzer
option2: b. oscilloscope
option3: c. field strength meter
option4: d. milliameter
challenge: 4
question: A dc bridge widely used for the accurate measurements
of resistance.
option1: a. Owen bridge
option2: b. Hay bridge

option3: c. Potentiometer bridge
option4: d. Wheatstone bridge
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following is a dc bridge that is very
useful for making extremely accurate voltage measurements?
option1: a. Wheatstone bridge
option2: b. Potentiometer bridge
option3: c. Kelvin bridge
option4: d. Owen bridge
challenge: 3
question: Majority of analog measuring instrument utilizes one of
the following effects.
option1: a. heating effect
option2: b. electrostatic effect
option3: c. magnetic effect
option4: d. chemical effect
challenge: 2
question: Multimeter typically provides measurement of _____
values (for a sinusoidal waveform).
option1: a. peak
option2: b. rms
option3: c. average
challenge: 3
question: Dynamometer type instrument can be used for
option1: a. ac work only
option2: b. dc work only
option3: c. both dc and ac works
option4: d. neither dc nor ac works
challenge: 2
question: _____ is an instrument in which springs provide the
controlling torque as well as serve to lead current into and out of the
operating coil.
option2: b. permanent-magnet moving coil
option3: c. hot-wire
option4: d. iron-wire
challenge: 3
question: In VTVMS, _____ refers to the smallest signal that can
be reliably measured.
option1: a. threshold signal
option2: b. minimum signal
option3: c. sensitivity
option4: d. input signal
challenge: 4
question: The frequency of rotation in some rotating machinery
can be measured by a
option1: a. VTVM
option2: b. tachometer
option3: c. spectral meter

option4: d. stroboscope
challenge: 1
question: Which of the items below describes an absorption
meter's usage
option1: a. check the output frequency of a transmitter
option2: b. monitors the output current of a receiver
option3: c. monitors the frequency ratio of a device
option4: d. frequency generator
challenge: 3
question: An instrument used for observing voltage and current
waveforms is the _____.
option1: a. multimeter
option2: b. DMM
option3: c. oscilloscope
option4: d. telescope
challenge: 4
question: Which of the following forces does not act on the
moving systems of analog instruments.
option1: a. a deflecting force
option2: b. a controlling force
option3: c. a damping force
option4: d. an electrostatic force
challenge: 3
question: When current through the operating coil of a moving-
iron instrument is tripled the operating force becomes
option1: a. six times
option2: b. 1/2 time
option3: c. 9 times
option4: d. 3 times
challenge: 1
question: What is the typical full-scale deflection current of a
moving coil instrument?
option1: a. 50 mA
option2: b. 50 nA
option3: c. 50 µA
option4: d. 50 A
challenge: 2
question: An instrument used for measuring the amount of current
flowing in a circuit.
option1: a. voltmeter
option2: b. ammeter
option3: c. oscilloscope
option4: d. meter amperage
challenge: 3
question: A type of meter that gives a precise reading of
voltage, current or resistance where there is the generation of samples
at the input and then feeds it to a digital read-out.
option1: a. VOM
option2: b. VTVM
option3: c. DMM

option4: d. DTMF
challenge: 4
question: What is the typical full-scale voltage across a moving
coil voltmeter?
option1: a. 50 nV
option2: b. 50 µV
option3: c. 50 V
option4: d. 50 mV
challenge: 3
question: The period of a repetitive signal is
option1: a. 1/4 cycle of the waveform
option2: b. 2 cycles of the waveform
option3: c. 1 cycle of the waveform
option4: d. 1/2 cycle of the waveform
challenge: 1
question: An element of a CRT, that releases electrons when
heated indirectly by a filament.
option1: a. cathode
option2: b. grid
option3: c. anode
option4: d. phosphor screen
challenge: 3
question: Moving-iron instrument has a/an _____ scale.
option1: a. uniform
option2: b. logarithmic
option3: c. squared
challenge: 1
question: A pattern displayed by oscilloscopes which has a steady
characteristic is called
option1: a. Lissajous
option2: b. Nyquist pattern
option3: c. Barkhausen's criterion
option4: d. Fermat's pattern
challenge: 4
question: A galvanometer with 20 ohms coil resistance has a full-
scale deflection of 10 mA. A 0.02 ohm is placed across the meter to
increase its rating capacity. What is the new full scale current for
the meter?
option1: a. 1.01 A
option2: b. 100.1 A
option3: c. 10.10 A
option4: d. 10.01 A
challenge: 3
question: Which of the following extends the range of a moving-
iron ac ammeter?
option1: a. a shunt
option2: b. a multiplier
option3: c. changing number of turns of operating coil
option4: d. a series

challenge: 4
question: Which of the following is not a basic part of a CRT?
option1: a. electron gun
option2: b. focusing and accelerating elements
option3: c. horizontal and vertical deflecting plates
option4: d. sawtooth generator
challenge: 3
question: For amplitude measurements, _____ scale is calibrated
in either volts per centimeter (V/cm), or millivolts per centimeter
(mV/cm).
option1: a. horizontal
option2: b. diagonal
option3: c. vertical
option4: d. voltage
challenge: 4
question: _____ ammeter is used to measure high-frequency
currents.
option1: a. hot-wire
option2: b. moving-iron
option3: c. dynamometer
option4: d. thermocouple
challenge: 3
question: Which of the voltmeter is used for measuring high
direct voltage (say 10kV)?
option1: a. permanent-magnet moving coil
option2: b. hot-wire
option3: c. electrostatic
option4: d. moving iron
challenge: 3
question: A common technique for measuring power at high
frequency is to
option1: a. employ high power meter
option2: b. use microwave meters
option3: c. employ a sensing element that converts the RF power
to a measurable dc or low-frequency signal
option4: d. use thermocouples
challenge: 4
question: The _____ provides the visual display showing the form
of the signal applied as a waveform on the front screen of a cathode
ray oscilloscope.
option1: a. television
option2: b. computer
option3: c. meter face
option4: d. CRT
challenge: 1
question: Electrostatic instruments are exclusively used as
option1: a. voltmeters
option2: b. ohmmeters
option3: c. ammeters
option4: d. wattmeters

challenge: 2
question: What is the typical power range for thermocouple
sensors?
option1: a. 0.1 mW to 100W
option2: b. 0.1 µW to 100mW
option3: c. 0.1 nW to 100µW
option4: d. 0.1 pW to 100nW
challenge: 2
question: An electric pyrometer is an instrument used to measure
option1: a. phase
option2: b. high temperatures
option3: c. frequency
option4: d. power
challenge: 4
question: Which instrument is the most sensitive?
option3: c. hot-wire
option4: d. permanent-magnet moving coil
challenge: 2
question: Which is the most commonly used induction type
instrument?
option1: a. induction voltmeter
option2: b. induction watt-hour meter
option3: c. induction wattmeter
option4: d. induction ammeter
challenge: 1
question: What type of instrument is the watt-hour meter?
option1: a. an integrating
option2: b. a recording
option3: c. an indicating
option4: d. a power meter
challenge: 1
question: A certain pulse measures 10ms and has a period of 50
ms. The duty cycle is
option1: a. 20%
option2: b. 10%
option3: c. 5%
option4: d. 100%
challenge: 2
question: Indicating instrument is assumed to be most accurate at
what part of the scale?
option1: a. At beginning
option2: b. at half or full
option3: c. at ending
option4: d. any part
challenge: 3
question: On a simple ohmmeter, the 0 ohm(s) mark is located
_____ of the scale.

option1: a. at far left
option2: b. in the middle
option3: c. at far right
option4: d. anywhere
challenge: 1
question: One of the basic functions of electronic circuit is
option1: a. the generation and manipulation of electronic
waveshapes
option2: b. the creation of a signal
option3: c. the transmission of electric signal
option4: d. the reception of electric signal
challenge: 1
question: What provides a visual representation of any waveform
applied to the input terminals?
option1: a. cathode ray oscilloscope (CRO)
option2: b. cathode ray tube (CRT)
option3: c. spectrum analyzer
option4: d. VTVMs
challenge: 1
question: The interval of a pulse from start to end is the _____
of the pulse.
option1: a. period
option2: b. width
option3: c. position
challenge: 1
question: Considered as the "heart" of the cathode ray
oscilloscope.
option1: a. cathode ray tube (CRT)
option2: b. sawtooth generator
option3: c. horizontal amplifier
option4: d. vertical amplifier
challenge: 4
question: A material that glows when struck by the energetic
electrons in a CRT.
option1: a. aquadag
option2: b. silicon
option4: d. phosphor
challenge: 4
question: What sensor provides a change of resistance with
typical power range of 1µW to 10mW and with maximum frequency greater
than 100GHz?
option1: a. thermal converter
option2: b. diode sensor
option3: c. thermocouple sensor
option4: d. thermiston sensor
challenge: 3
question: An ammeter with an internal resistance of 50 ohm(s) is
used to measure a current through a load resistor Rl = 1 kohm(s).

Determine the percentage error of the reading due to ammeter insertion.
option1: a. 67.4 %
option2: b. 6.74%
option3: c. 4.76%
option4: d. 47.6%
challenge: 4
question: Most AC voltmeters have an rms scale which is valid
only if the input signal being measured is a _____ signal.
option2: b. triangular
option3: c. sawtooth
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following bridges measures dc resistance?
option1: a. wheatstone bridge
option2: b. maxwell bridge
option3: c. hay bridge
option4: d. schering bridge
challenge: 3
question: What bridge is used to measure high-Q inductors (Q >
10)?
option1: a. wheatstone bridge
option2: b. wien bridge
option3: c. hay bridge
option4: d. maxwell bridge
challenge: 4
question: Maxwell bridge measures an unknown inductance in terms
of known
option3: c. inductance
option4: d. capacitance
challenge: 1
question: _____ is used for measuring medium Q coils (1 < Q <
10).
option1: a. maxwell bridge
option2: b. wheatstone bridge
option3: c. kelvin bridge
option4: d. hay bridge
challenge: 1
question: _____ has a series RC combination in one arm and a
parallel RC combination in the adjoining arm and used as a notch filter
in harmonic distortion analyzer.
option1: a. wien bridge
option2: b. maxwell bridge
option3: c. kelvin bridge
option4: d. hay bridge
challenge: 1
question: Sensitivity of a voltmeter is expressed in
option1: a. ohm(s)/V

option2: b. ohm(s)/A
option3: c. V/ohm(s)
option4: d. A/ohm(s)
challenge: 3
question: The smallest change in applied stimulus that will
indicate a detectable change in deflection in an indicating instrument
is called
option1: a. sensitivity
option2: b. accuracy
option3: c. resolution
option4: d. precision
challenge: 4
question: Insulation resistance is measured by which meter?
option1: a. ohmmeter
option2: b. insulation meter
option3: c. wien bridge
option4: d. megger
challenge: 3
question: What are the two principal electrodes in every tube?
option1: a. Plate and control grid
option2: b. Cathode and screen grid
option3: c. Plate and cathode
option4: d. Screen grid and control grid
challenge: 1
question: For given plate voltage, if negative potential on the
control grid of a triode is increases, the plate current
challenge: 3
question: A vacuum diode can be used as
option2: b. an oscillator
option4: d. a regulator
challenge: 1
question: Which generates the least noise in operation?
option1: a. triode valve
option2: b. tetrode valve
option3: c. pentode valve
option4: d. octode valve
challenge: 1
question: A vacuum tube will conduct only if its plate is _____
with respect to cathode.
option1: a. +
option2: b. -
option4: d. an infinite potential

challenge: 3
question: Saturation in a tube is a condition where an increase
in plate voltage will produce
option1: a. a rise in electron emission
option2: b. a decrease in electron emission
option3: c. no appreciable change in plate current
option4: d. an appreciable change in plate current
challenge: 3
question: A vacuum diode can be used as
option2: b. an oscillator
option4: d. an attenuator
challenge: 3
question: Which tube generates the greatest noise?
option1: a. triode
option2: b. tetrode
option3: c. pentode
option4: d. diode
challenge: 1
question: Before ionization, a gas-filled tube has a ______
resistance.
option1: a. very high
option2: b. very small
option3: c. small
option4: d. zero
challenge: 1
question: The negative resistance characteristics of the tetrode
is due to
option1: a. secondary emission
option2: b. plate being + with respect to cathode
option3: c. control grid being - with respect to cathode
option4: d. screen grid being - with respect to cathode
challenge: 3
question: What emitter is used in X-ray tubes?
option1: a. thoriated tungsten
option2: b. oxide-coated
option3: c. tungsten
option4: d. nickel
challenge: 3
question: When the temperature of an emitter is increased two
times, the electron emission
option3: c. increases several million times
option4: d. decreases two times
challenge: 4
question: What is the typical life span of an oxide coated
emitter?
option1: a. 500 hours

option2: b. 200 hours
option3: c. 1,000 hours
option4: d. 10,000 hours
challenge: 3
question: The cathode heating time of a thermionic gas diode is
______ that of a vacuum diode.
option2: b. much less than
option3: c. much more than
option4: d. related to
challenge: 2
question: What is the solid state equivalent of thyratron?
option1: a. FET
option2: b. SCR
option3: c. BJT
option4: d. UJT
challenge: 3
question: The grid to plate capacitance is least in ______ valve
option1: a. triode
option2: b. tetrode
option3: c. pentode
option4: d. diode
challenge: 2
question: The peak inverse voltage of a diode is defined as the
maximum allowable
option1: a. negative voltage across the load resistor
option2: b. negative voltage applied to plate with respect to
cathode
option3: c. positive voltage to plate with respect to cathode
option4: d. positive voltage applied across the load resistor
challenge: 1
question: The equation that defines the dc plate resistance of a
vacuum tube.
option1: a. Eb/Ib
option2: b. Ib^2 x Eb
option3: c. Ib x Eb
option4: d. Ib/Eb
challenge: 3
question: The voltage on the suppressor grid of a pentode is
generally
option1: a. + cathode
option2: b. - cathode
option3: c. zero cathode
option4: d. at zero potential
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following defines the amplification factor
of a vacuum tube?
option1: a. deltaEb/deltaEc
option2: b. deltaIb/deltaEb
option3: c. deltaEc/deltaEb

option4: d. deltaEb/deltaIb
challenge: 3
question: Which is the best tube for high frequency
amplification?
option1: a. triode valve
option2: b. tetrode valve
option3: c. pentode valve
option4: d. diode valve
challenge: 4
question: A triode is normally operated with control grid at
_____ potential with respect to cathode.
option1: a. +
option2: b. high +
option3: c. zero
option4: d. -
challenge: 1
question: Once a thyratron is fired, its control grid _____ over
plate current.
option1: a. loses all control
option2: b. exercises rough control
option3: c. exercises fine control
option4: d. becomes helpless
challenge: 3
question: The _____ voltage should be reduced to zero to stop
conduction in a thyratron.
option1: a. grid
option2: b. filament
option3: c. plate
option4: d. heater
challenge: 1
question: What is the typical value of ac plate resistance for a
triode?
option2: b. 100 kohm(s)
option3: c. 1,000 kohm(s)
option4: d. 10 ohm(s)
challenge: 1
question: Direct coupling is used for _____ amplification.
option1: a. very low frequency
option2: b. radio frequency
option3: c. audio frequency
option4: d. ultra high frequency
challenge: 1
question: A vacuum diode acts as a rectifier because of its _____
conduction.
option1: a. unidirectional
option2: b. bidirectional
option3: c. isotropic

challenge: 3
question: Directly heated cathodes require _____ amount of
heating power.
option1: a. very small
option2: b. large
option3: c. small
challenge: 4
question: A hard tube is defined as a tube with
option1: a. a tungsten filament
option2: b. a gas in the envelope
option3: c. a metal envelope
option4: d. no gas in the envelope
challenge: 1
question: What operation results in severest distortion?
option1: a. Class C
option2: b. Class B
option3: c. Class A
challenge: 3
question: What is the typical plate efficiency of class A
amplifier?
option1: a. 50%
option2: b. 75%
option3: c. 30%
option4: d. 10%
challenge: 4
question: For the same plate dissipation, the output power of a
class B push-pull circuit is nearly _____ that of class A operation.
option1: a. 2 times
option2: b. 4 times
option3: c. 3 times
option4: d. 5 times
challenge: 1
question: The screen grid potential is kept _____ plate
potential.
option1: a. somewhat lower than
option2: b. same as
option3: c. somewhere higher than
option4: d. at zero potential with respect to
challenge: 2
question: The output stage of a practical amplifier always
employs what coupling?
option2: b. Transformer coupling
option3: c. Direct coupling
option4: d. Impedance coupling
challenge: 1
question: The plate resistance of a tube is mainly due to
option1: a. space charge

option2: b. electrodes of the tube
option3: c. vacuum in the tube
option4: d. gas in the tube
challenge: 3
question: A vacuum tube is a _____ device
option1: a. linear
option2: b. exponential
option3: c. non-linear
option4: d. bilateral
challenge: 4
question: What is the unit of transconductance?
option1: a. ohm
option2: b. Siemens/m
option3: c. volt
option4: d. siemens
challenge: 3
question: Which provides the best frequency response?
option1: a. transformer coupling
option2: b. RC coupling
option3: c. Direct coupling
option4: d. Impedance coupling
challenge: 1
question: Voltage amplifiers are operated as _____ amplifiers.
option1: a. Class A
option2: b. Class B
option3: c. Class C
challenge: 2
question: The PIV of hot cathode gas diode is _____ the
equivalent vacuum diode.
option1: a. the same as that of
option4: d. independent that of
challenge: 1
question: The anode-to-cathode potential of a gas-filled tube at
which gas de-ionizes and stops conduction is called _____ potential.
option1: a. extinction
option2: b. ionizing
option3: c. striking
option4: d. reverse
challenge: 3
question: For the same plate voltage, a gas diode can conduct
_____ the equivalent vacuum diode.
option1: a. less current than
option2: b. same current as
option3: c. more current than
option4: d. one-half the current than
challenge: 2

question: A thyratron can be used as
option1: a. an oscillator
option2: b. a controlled switch
option3: c. an amplifier
option4: d. an attenuator
challenge: 1
question: A pentode is a _____ device.
option1: a. constant current
option2: b. linear
option3: c. constant voltage
option4: d. bilateral
challenge: 2
question: The actual voltage gain of a triode amplifier is less
than µ due to
option1: a. grid being negative with respect to cathode
option2: b. voltage drop in ac resistance of the tube
option3: c. plate being positive with respect to cathode
option4: d. voltage drop in dc resistance of the tube
challenge: 2
question: For faithful amplification, the control grid should be
_____ with respect to cathode.
option1: a. +
option2: b. -
challenge: 1
question: Which valve has the lowest amplification factor?
option1: a. triode
option2: b. pentode
option3: c. tetrode
option4: d. diode
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following would have the most effect on
decreasing the life of a vacuum tube?
option1: a. too much of a grid excitation
option2: b. an excessive filament voltage
option3: c. a grid current that is too low
option4: d. a plate resistance value that is too high
challenge: 2
question: Valves in a radio receiver generally employ _____
heated cathodes.
option1: a. directly
option2: b. indirectly
option3: c. oxide
option4: d. nickel
challenge: 2
question: A vacuum diode acts as a _____ switch.
option1: a. bidirectional
option2: b. unidirectional
option3: c. controlled

challenge: 3
question: What can be used for proper high frequency
amplification?
option1: a. triode
option2: b. tetrode
option3: c. pentode
option4: d. diode
challenge: 4
question: The indirectly heated cathode of the diode is coated
with
option1: a. thoriated tungsten
option2: b. nickel
option3: c. carbon
option4: d. strontium or barium oxide
challenge: 2
question: What started the conduction in a cold cathode tube?
option1: a. thermionic emission
option2: b. natural sources
option3: c. secondary emission
option4: d. thermal sources
challenge: 2
question: Which emitter is most commonly used in the tubes of a
radio receiver?
option1: a. tungsten
option2: b. oxide coated
option3: c. thoriated tungsten
challenge: 2
question: What is the real measure of a valve's amplification
capability?
option1: a. plate resistance
option2: b. transconductance
option3: c. amplification factor
option4: d. gain
challenge: 3
question: Field emission is utilized in the mechanism of
option1: a. vacuum tubes
option2: b. gas-filled tubes
option3: c. mercury pool devices
option4: d. TV picture tubes
challenge: 1
question: A vacuum tube is normally operated in the temperature
saturation region.
option1: a. to protect against filament aging
option2: b. to keep the tube envelope hot
option3: c. to disperse the space charge
option4: d. keep the tube envelope cold
challenge: 2

question: Plate saturation results when
option1: a. filament voltage is too high
option2: b. space-charge region is depleted
option3: c. plate temperature is too low
option4: d. space-charge region is saturated
challenge: 1
question: When the control grid of a triode is operated with
positive potential with respect to cathode
option1: a. the grid resistance decreases
option2: b. the grid may overheat
option3: c. the plate current decreases sharply
option4: d. the grid resistance increases
challenge: 1
question: What is the solid state equivalent of cold cathode
diode?
option1: a. Zener diode
option2: b. LED
option3: c. varactor
challenge: 3
question: The noise in a gas-filled tube is _____ that of a
vacuum tube.
option4: d. very much smaller than
challenge: 4
question: What is the phase difference of the output and input
voltage of a grounded-cathode amplifier?
option4: d. 180 degrees
challenge: 1
question: A grid controlled vacuum tube acts as
option2: b. a controlled switch
option4: d. an oscillator
challenge: 1
question: The filament voltage is a direct measure of
option1: a. filament temperature
option2: b. amplification
option3: c. plate temperature
option4: d. filament resistance
challenge: 3
question: The equation that defines the ac plate resistance of a
vacuum tube?
option1: a. deltaEb/deltaEc
option2: b. deltaIb/deltaEc

option3: c. deltaEb/deltaIb
option4: d. deltaEc/deltaIb
challenge: 2
question: The transconductance of a pentode _____ a triode
option1: a. is more than that of
option2: b. is about the same as for
option3: c. is less than that of
option4: d. is not comparable to that of
challenge: 2
question: The electrons emitted by a thermionic emitter are
called
option2: b. thermionic electrons
option3: c. loose electrons
option4: d. bound electrons
challenge: 3
question: The unit of work function of metals.
option1: a. Joules
option2: b. Watt-hour
option3: c. Electron-volt
option4: d. Watt
challenge: 1
question: What is the typical operating temperature of an oxide
coated cathode?
option1: a. 750 degrees C
option2: b. 500 degrees C
option3: c. 1200 degrees C
option4: d. 1000 degrees C
challenge: 3
question: What is the amount of additional energy required to
emit an electron from the surface of a metal?
option1: a. surface barrier
option2: b. threshold level
option3: c. work function
option4: d. potential
challenge: 4
question: Oxide coated emitters have electron emission of _____
per watt of heated power.
option1: a. 5-10 A
option2: b. 50-100 A
option3: c. 50-150 A
option4: d. 150-1000 A
challenge: 2
question: What is a pentragrid converter?
option1: a. a tube with a total of five electrodes
option2: b. a tube with a total of five grids
option3: c. a tube that can be used for frequency conversion
option4: d. a tube that requires twice as much plate voltage as a
singe triode

challenge: 3
question: Which emission is most widely used in practice?
option1: a. field
option2: b. secondary
option3: c. thermionic
option4: d. photo
challenge: 4
question: What is the work function of an oxide coated cathode?
option1: a. 4.0 electron-volts
option2: b. 2.63 electron-volts
option3: c. 4.52 electron-volts
option4: d. 1.1 electron-volts
challenge: 1
question: A directly heated cathode has _____ warm-up time.
option1: a. zero
option2: b. large
option3: c. small
challenge: 2
question: Which thermionic emitter has the highest operating
temperature?
option1: a. oxide coated
option2: b. tungsten
option3: c. thoriated-tungsten
option4: d. eureka
challenge: 1
question: The internal resistance after ionization of a gas-
filled tube is
option1: a. low
option3: c. high
option4: d. 0
challenge: 3
question: One advantage of a mercury vapor diode over the high
rectifier is
option1: a. its higher peak inverse voltage rating
option2: b. its reduced rf interference effect
option3: c. its lower voltage drop when the plate current is
flowing
option4: d. the elimination of the need for a warm up period
challenge: 2
question: The screen grid is used to
option1: a. increase the capacitance between the second grid and
the plate
option2: b. decrease the capacitance between the control grid and
the plate
option3: c. reduce the secondary emission effect
option4: d. lower the tube's plate resistance
challenge: 2
question: A tube tester is used to check a triode's

transconductance, which is the ratio of
option1: a. a small change in cathode current to the
corresponding small change in grid current
option2: b. a small change in plate current to the corresponding
small change in grid current
option3: c. a small change in plate voltage to the corresponding
small change in plate current
option4: d. a small change in plate voltage to the corresponding
small change in plate current
challenge: 1
question: Which emitter is used in high voltage (> 10 kV)
applications?
option1: a. tungsten
option2: b. oxide coated
option3: c. thoriated-tungsten
challenge: 2
question: Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of
an emitter?
option1: a. large work function
option2: b. small work function
option3: c. very large work function
option4: d. very small work function
challenge: 4
question: When a thyratron tube has fired, one thing that will
cause it to stop conducting is
option1: a. a more positive voltage on the plate
option2: b. a more negative voltage on the control electrode
option3: c. a more positive voltage on the control electrode
option4: d. a negative voltage on the plate
challenge: 1
question: Secondary emission effects are undesirable in
option1: a. vacuum tubes
option2: b. gas-filled tubes
option3: c. I.Cs
option4: d. transistors
challenge: 1
question: What would cause the plate current to increase in a
pentode tube?
option1: a. a short circuit between the plate and the screen grid
option2: b. an open circuit in the lead that is connected to the
control grid
option3: c. a short circuit between the suppressor grid and the
cathode
option4: d. a short circuit between the control grid and the
cathode
challenge: 2
question: Iin directly heated cathode, filament and cathode are
option1: a. separate components
option2: b. same components
option3: c. made of metals

option4: d. made of alloys
challenge: 1
question: What is provided by transformer coupling?
option1: a. impedance matching
option2: b. step-up in voltage
option3: c. good frequency response
option4: d. stability of gain
challenge: 4
question: What is one advantage of a pentode tube over a triode?
option1: a. lower input impedance
option2: b. lower output impedance
option3: c. less noise internally generated
option4: d. less control grid to plate capacitance
challenge: 2
question: The load resistance Rl in a triode amplifier should be
nearly _____ for good amplification.
option1: a. 1/2 rp
option2: b. 3 rp
option3: c. rp
option4: d. 2 rp
challenge: 1
question: A voltage amplifier is designed to have
option1: a. high µ and Rl
option2: b. low µ and high Rl
option3: c. high rp and low Rl
option4: d. high µ and low Rl
challenge: 1
question: What transformer secondary voltage is utilized in a
center tapped circuit?
option1: a. 1/2
option2: b. 1/3
option3: c. full
option4: d. 1/8
challenge: 2
question: Class C amplifiers are used as _____ amplifiers.
option1: a. audio-frequency voltage
option2: b. radio-frequency
option3: c. audio-frequency power
option4: d. audio-frequency current
challenge: 1
question: The typical application of a cold cathode tube is a
option1: a. diode
option2: b. tetrode
option3: c. triode
option4: d. pentode
challenge: 1
question: Vacuum tube rectifiers are _____ affected by the
changes in temperatures.
option1: a. not

option2: b. highly
option3: c. greatly
option4: d. severely
challenge: 2
question: The internal resistance of a gas-filled tube is _____
that of a vacuum tube.
option4: d. dependent
challenge: 4
question: The ionization potential in a gas diode depends upon
option1: a. plate current
option2: b. size of the tube
option3: c. cathode construction
option4: d. type and pressure of gas
challenge: 2
question: When the gas pressure in a gas-filled diode is
increased, its PIV rating.
challenge: 3
question: Ionization of cold cathode diode takes place at _____
plate potential compared to hot cathode gas diode.
option1: a. the same
option2: b. much lower
option3: c. much higher
option4: d. zero
challenge: 2
question: A cold cathode diode is used as _____ tube.
option1: a. a rectifier
option2: b. a regulating
option3: c. a power-controlled
option4: d. an amplifying
challenge: 1
question: For a conventional vacuum tube used in the uhf band.
option1: a. the electron transit time becomes critical
option2: b. the distance between the control grid and the plate
must be increased
option3: c. the physical size of the tube must be increased
option4: d. only a pentode can be used because of noise effects
challenge: 1
question: Ionization current which is a positive-ion current
produced by collision between electrons and residual gas molecules in
an electron tube is also called
option1: a. plasma current
option2: b. gas discharge
option3: c. gas current

option4: d. plasma discharge
challenge: 4
question: What is the ratio of electron's charge to its mass?
option1: a. 9.58 x 10^7 coul/kg
option3: c. 0
option4: d. 1.759 x 10^11 coul/kg
challenge: 1
question: "What composes all matter whether a liquid, solid or
gas?"
option1: a. Atoms
option3: c. Protons
challenge: 4
question: What is the smallest element of a matter?
option1: a. neutron
option2: b. electron
option3: c. proton
option4: d. atom
challenge: 3
question: The lightest kind of atom of element
option1: a. Titanium
option2: b. Helium
option3: c. Hydrogen
option4: d. Oxygen
challenge: 1
question: Which of the following is not a basic part of an atom?
option1: a. Coulomb
option2: b. Proton
option3: c. Neutron
option4: d. Electron
challenge: 2
question: Electric charge of neutron is the same as
option1: a. proton
option2: b. atom
option4: d. current

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