Cdi Assessment

BATCH 11
BOARD EXAM TRIAL ON CRIME DETECTION AND

INVESTIGATION
Prepared by: Prof. Al-Nashrin Mindug, June 2022 CLE Top 5
FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION 3. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to

AND INTELLIGENCE capabilities, vulnerabilities and probable course of action
of foreign nations?
1. It deals with the identity, location and arrest of a
person who commits a crime and simultaneously identify, a. Combat intelligence
collect, preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of
bringing criminal offender to justice. b. National intelligence
a. Investigation c. Investigative process b. Criminal c. Police intelligence
investigation d. Criminal inquest d. Strategic intelligence
2. It is the product resulting from the collection, 4. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible
evaluation, analysis, integration, and interpretation of all things maybe used to detect crimes, identify the criminals,
available information which concerns one or more aspects facilitate, and assist the investigator in its task in
of criminal activity and which is immediately or potentially achieving the objectives of criminal investigation.
significant to police planning:
a. Information c. Instrumentation b.
a. Investigation C. Data Criminalistics d. Interview/Interrogation
b. Information D. Intelligence
5. Which phase of criminal Investigation that the B. Active Informant
investigator apprised the person of his right under
Republic Act 7438? C. Jailhouse Informant
a. During the identification of criminal offender D. Voluntary Informant
b. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of 9. Intelligence on the enemy and the characteristics of the
the offender operation used in the planning and conduct of tactical
operations.
c. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt of
criminal offender a. strategic intelligence
d. During police line-up b. military intelligence
6. What specific offence has been committed? Who c. combat intelligence

committed it? When it was committed? Where it was
d. counter intelligence
committed? Why it was committed? And how it was
committed? This are called_______________________ of 10. They are referred to as justice collaborators or
criminal investigation. cooperating witnesses.
a. Cardinal Points c. Golden Rule A. Informants
b. Three I’s d. Bridges burn B. Private Detective
7. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the C. Special Investigator

identification of criminals, which can be done in any or a
combination of the following, except: D. Voluntary Informant
a. By confession or admission by the criminal 11. Which of the following is not an element of corpus
delicti?
b. By corpus delicti
a. Proof of the occurrence of certain event
c. By circumstantial evidence
b. Person’s criminal responsibility for the acts
d. By eyewitness
c. Additional evidence of a different character to
8. It is a term used by the FBI to describe everybody who the same point
is an informant.
d. Proper chain of custody
A. Cooperative Witness
Amici Review Center Page 1
12. It is the questioning of a person with the main focus

of obtaining a valid and lawful confession or admission of
guilt.
A. Interview
B. Interrogation
C. Invitation
D. All of the above

13. What is the type of reasoning whereby the collected C. Serial Murder
D.
information is analyzed carefully to develop a theory of Sensational murder

the crime.
17. Intelligence should be essential and pertinent to the
a. Inductive c. Systematic b. Deductive d. Logical purpose at hand. This refers to the principle of _____.
14. The knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes a. Continuity C. Selection

and the investigation, arrest, and prosecution of criminal
b. Objective D. Timeliness
offenders is called _____.
18. This segment of the intelligence process deals with
a. Criminal intelligence
what happens when information is received, processed
b. External intelligence and now integrates with current holdings. This phase is
called _____.
c. Internal intelligence
a. Data Analysis C. Data evaluation
d. Public safety intelligence
b. Data collation D. Data dissemination
15. Which of the following must be done to maintain the
legal integrity of evidence? 19. The following are the threefold aim of criminal
investigation, except;
a. Evidenced must be properly documented
a. To locate the whereabout of the victim
b. Maintain its chain of custody
b. To locate the perpetrator
c. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
c. To identify the felon
d. Photographed and packaged the evidence
d. To provide evidence to prove the guilt of the
16. The commission of four or more murders in a single offender
incident within a short span of time.
20. He was the most famous THIEF-CATCHER in 1720s.
A. Mass Murder He conceived the idea of charging a fee for locating and
returning stolen property to its rightful owners.
B. Manslaughter
a. JONATHAN WILD
b. HENRY FIELDING b. 18x12
c. JOHN FIELDING c. 20x15
d. PATRICK COLQUHOUN d. Nota
21. This is the forerunner of the Federal Bureau of 24. Refers to the warrant of arrest issued by a judge to
Investigation (FBI). the peace officer after returning the original warrant of
arrest after the lapse of the 10-day validity period
a. NYPD
a. Richard Doe/ John (Jane) Doe Warrant
b. BOSTON POLICE DEPARTMENT
b. Scattershot warrant
c. TEXAS RANGERS
c. General warrant
d. ILONG RANGERS
d. Alias warrant
22. Criminal investigation is more an art than a science
because ___ 25. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the
crime,except
a. it involves the application of knowledge of forensic
sciences in the processing of evidence a. Over-All and environment’s photograph
b. it is not governed by rigid rules, but more b. Photographs of articles of evidence and
often rule by intuition photographs of the deceased
c. It is the collection of facts in order to accomplish c. Photographs of the scene of the crime
the three-fold aims operatives showing their identity
d. All of the above d. all of the above
23. As a general rule, all crime incidents must be recorded 26. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime, the
in the official police blotter or logbook with a size of ____ investigator rational theory of the crime may begins
a. 15x20

with deductive logic and later on inductive logic;
Statement no. 2. A rational theory of crime is more than
a learned guess, but less than a certainty, but have very
high order of probability.
a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
b. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true d.
Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false

27. Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the 30. Who is NOT considered as the immediate family of a
physical appearance of the crime scene is reconstructed person under custodial investigation?
from the description, of the witnesses and the indication
of A. Fiancé
the
B.
physical evidence. Statement no. 2. In mental Guardian/Ward

reconstruction after physical reconstruction, conclusions
are made about the consistency of the accounts of the C. Child/Children
various witnesses. No assumption is made without
D. All of the above
supporting evidence.
e. nota
a. Statement no. 1 is correct
31. Who among the following may not be allowed to visit
b. Statement no. 2 is incorrect
or conference with a person under custodial investigation?
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct d.
A. Uncle
Statements no. 1 and 2 are both incorrect
B. Nephew
28. In instances where a suspect would like to waive his C. His fancy woman
rights under custodial investigation, what must be done?
D. Doctor
A. Waiver must be reduced in writing
32. A system or plan whereby information of intelligence
B. Waiver must be done in the presence of the value is obtained through the process of direct
investigator C. Waiver need not be signed by the suspect intercommunication in which one or more of the parties to
the communication is unaware of the specific purpose of
D. None of the above the conversation.
a. Casing C. Surveillance
29. A biographical data through fictitious which will
portray the personality of the agent which is to assume is b. Elicitation D. Surreptitious entry
better known as _____.
33. Which of the following must be done to maintain the
a. Cover C. Cover support physical integrity of evidence?
b. Cover story D. Undercover a. Evidence must be photographed and packaged

b. Evidence must be properly documented evaluated as B-5. What does that mean?
c. Maintain its chain of custody a. Information is usually from a reliable source and is
possibly true.
d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
b. Information is usually from a reliable source and is
34. In the absence of any lawyer, no custodial probably true.
investigation shall be conducted and the suspected person
can only be detained by the investigating officer in c. Information is usually from a reliable source
accordance with what provisions of the Revised Penal and is improbable.
Code?
d. Information is usually form a reliable source and is
A. Article 124 doubtfully true.
B. Article 125 37. What is meant by evaluation of C-1?
C. Article 225 a. Information comes from a fairly reliable

source and is confirmed from other sources
D. Article 212
b. Information comes from an unreliable source and
35. The methodology involving the systematic searching, is improbably true
handling, distribution and accountability of all evidence
found at the crime scene, including the documentation of c. Information comes from an unreliable source and
every article of evidence from the point of initial discovery is probably true
at the scene, to its collection and transport to the point of
examination, its temporary storage and its final disposal is d. Information comes from a fairly reliable source
referred to us. and is doubtfully true
a. Corpus delicti c. Blotter 38. A method of collecting information wherein the

investigator mere uses his different senses.
b. Necropsy report d. Chain of custody
a. observation C. research
36. Patrolman Gaudiano submitted an intelligence report
b. casing D. interrogation
39. The term used for the object of surveillance is subject

while the investigator conducting the surveillance is:
a. Rabbit C. decoy
b. Surveillant D. target
40. In counterintelligence, surveillance is categorized

according to intensity and sensitivity. When there is
intermittent observation varying in occasions, then this
surveillance is called:
a. Loose C. open b. Discreet D. close 44. In recording information while conducting
investigation, it is a question as to possible intents,
41.
A
biographical data through fictitious which will portray the consents, or motive in the commission of the crime.
personality of the agent which is to assume is better
known as _____. A. Who
A. Cover C. Cover support b. Cover story B. How
D. Undercover C. When
42. The interview of a witness can be described by the D. Why

acronym IRONIC, which stands for:
45. It is traditionally defined as “treasure island.”
a. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, A. Crime scene
Continuity
B. Corpus delicti
b. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry,
Conclusion C. Whereabout of criminal
c. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, D. All of the above

Inquiry, Conclusion
46. Articles and materials which are found in connection
d. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, with the investigation and which aid in establishing the
Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion identity of the perpetrator or the circumstances which the
crime was committed or which, in general assist in the
43. Which of the following is the most common reason
prosecution of the criminal.
why an informer gives information to the police?
A. Tracing evidence C. Corpus delicti
a. wants to be known to the police
B. Associative evidence D. Physical or
b. monetary reward material evidence
c. as a good citizen 47. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to avoid

contamination of the specimen?
d. revenge
A. Formaldehyde C. Saline solution b. social assignment
B. Alcohol D. Distilled water c. work assignment
48. A person who provides an investigator with d. dwelling assignment

confidential information concerning a past or projected
crime and does not wish to be known as a source of 51. In the debriefing, the intelligence agent is asked to
information. discuss which of the following:
A. Informant C. Witness a. His educational profile and school attended b. His

personal circumstances such as his age, religious
B. Informer D. Confidential informant affiliation, address, etc.
c. His political inclination and/or party affiliation. d.
49. Which of the following statement is FALSE? His observations and experiences in the
intelligence function
a. Classified information must not be discussed with
friends and members of the family. 52. Sometimes called “roping”. An investigation technique
whereby the operative conceals his true identity and
b. Classified information should be known only
adopts an assumed role to obtain information or
by one person.
accomplish a specific mission.
c. Cabinets with classified documents must be
a. Undercover assignment c. Work assignment and
secured with padlocks and security measures at
social assignment
all times.
b. Dwelling assignment d. Personal contact assignment
d. All classified documents must be safeguarded.
53. You are an investigator tasked to investigate a
50. PATROLMAN JOSE get employed at a restaurant
suspected murder case which the there is no known
where he can observe the activities of the crew who
suspect, no witnesses nor any other circumstantial
happens to be subject in his undercover assignment.
evidence, except physical evidence. Where can you get
PATROLMAN JOSE’s undercover assignment is called.
these pieces of evidence that may lead you to the identity
a. multiple assignment of the suspect?

a. The Crime Scene c. The Suspect b. The Victim d.
All of the above
54. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct the

crime scene. What are the components of the crime scene
situation which you would analyzed?
a. Suspect arrival at the scene and place of entry
b. Movement of suspect from point of entry and his

contact with the victim
c. Place of exit
d. All of the above

55. b.
Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape, Statement No. 2 is incorrect

damaged or lost because of:
c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
a. Improper packaging
d. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect
b. Corruption of investigator
Statement no. 1 -Any physical evidence obtained
c. Non-maintenance of chain of custody must tagged BEFORE its submission to the evidence
d. A and C are true custodian.
56. Statement No. 1-The systematic procedure for verbal Statement No. 2-Marking or labeling of physical
description of a person after a short period of visual
evidence should be made after tagging the
observation is termed Portrait Parle; Statement No. 2-
Description of police characters which a witness may refer evidence.
and that is kept by police unit for purpose of references is
58. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’
Rogue’s Gallery
custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter
a. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda
incorrect doctrine which cannot be waived?
b. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is a. At the time of custodial investigation c. During the
announcement that he is under arrest
incorrect c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
b. During the actual questioning d. At the moment
d. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect that he is invited for questioning
59. What is the principal psychological factor that
57. Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence aside contributes to a successful interrogation?
from the marking should be made immediately after
receipt by the evidence custodian; Statement no. 2- a. Privacy
Marking or labeling of physical evidence should be made
b. Rapport between the interrogator and the subject
at the crime scene upon collection.
c. Legality
a. Statement No. 1 is correct
d. It should be done in the interrogation room with one
way mirror from the regular, cultivated and grapevine sources
60. Statement no. 1- In spiral method of search, the c. Persons and things
searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along
radius or spokes. Statement no. 2- In wheel method, the d. A and B only
searchers follow each other along the path of a spiral,
63. Crimes involving destruction of life, except: a.
beginning on the outside and spiraling in toward the
center. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape b.
a. Statement No. 1 is correct Duel, abortion and infanticide
b. Statement No. 2 is incorrect c. Homicide and murder

c. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correct d. Parricide
d. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect 64. Vincent killed his adoptor after the rendition of
judgment of the petition for adoption. What was the crime
61. “Eavesdropping the crime scene” means: a.
committed by Vincent?
Extent the estimate of the scene
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Search physical evidence at the scene
b. Murder d. None of the above
c. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix
65. Principles in homicide investigation that should be
with the crowd to listen to their conversation
borne in mind are, mistakes of the homicide investigator
d. None of the above cannot be corrected and the homicide investigator should
not cross the three bridges which he burns behind him.
62. Criminal investigative activities virtually deals with: Which of the following is not one of this so called “Burned
bridge”?
a. Recognition and collection of facts which may be
sensory, documentary and physical forms a. When the dead person has been moved
b. Preservation and evaluation of information gathered b. When the dead body has been embalmed

c. When the dead body has been contaminated and
the chain of custody was not properly accounted
d. When the body is burned or cremated
66. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide

investigation is:
a. Process of establishing the accurate cause of

death
b. Process of determining who is responsible for the
death c Process of determining how the victim was killed
d. Process of determining when the victim was killed

67. In a case of dead person, when autopsy should be 70. You were a police officer responded in a violent crime
performed? just recently occurred. How would you determine signs of
death?
a. Death has been caused by violence
a. By detecting signs of breathing and
b. At once when there is the slightest reason to respiratory movement
suspect the probability of homicide.
b. By hearing heart sounds
c. Upon the request of the dead person’s
c. By applying pressure in the fingernails of a person
family d. In all cases involving death
d. Any of the above
68. Which of the following is the primary role of the
investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene? 71. Which of the following body system coincide the
stopping of a mental organ function of a person to
a. Verification of death medically “dead”?
b. Identification of the person who is responsible for the A. cardiac C. central nervous B. respiratory
death
D. digestive
c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of
72. Identification of a dead body through examination of
death d. All of the above
the teeth:
A. Forensic pathology C. Forensic odontology
69. Legally, when does death considered to have
occurred? B. Forensic chemistry D. Forensic medicine 73. This is
a. Respiratory system is no longer performing within the known as the Anti-Plunder Act:
body
A. RA 7080 C. RA 7610 B. RA 10054 D. RA 3019 74.
b. Cardiac activity is no longer performing within the body
Which of the following is not a crime against persons? A.
c. Central nervous system activity is no longer performing
within the body Physical injury C. Abduction -chastity B. Mutilation D.
d. All of the above Parricide 75. This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:
A. RA 8049 C. RA 3553 B. RA 4200 D. RA C. schools they are enrolled
7877 D. all of them
76. The notion, which declares that human behavior 79. This check is done to verify a person’s record entries
tends to repeat itself, can serve as basis of the like an application for loan, employment, and others.
investigator in determining:
A. Personal record check
A. Criminal behavior C. Nature of the crime B. Modus
B. security check
operandi D. Criminal intent 77. IR in intelligence
C. Background investigation
parlance literally means what? A. Information
D. Security investigation
requirements
80. A conference held among the team members before
B. information requirement dispatching the agents for intelligence operation
C. Intelligence requirement A. Debriefing
D. Intelligence reservation B. team conference
78. AIEI stands for analysis, integration, evaluation and C. Pre-surveillance conference
interpretation. Its purpose is to determine that
D. All of them
information is
81. The process wherein the informant reveals all
A. true and reliable information he gathered to the intelligence officer.
B. true and accurate A. Briefing

B. Debriefing
C. Report
D. All of them
82. A place or building where agents meet their

informants or assets.
A. Apartment house
B. empty house
C. Safe house
D. All of them
83.
One reason why our agent failed in their job. A. intelligence, one is police intelligence must be useful,
which mean
Friendship
A. It must be capable of changing operatives depending
B. disloyalty upon the situation
C. Bribery B. Logical decision can be made if relevant
intelligence is available
D. Tong collection
C. There must be initiative and imagination
84. Intelligence fund is a potent source of corruption
among offices of the intelligence units because of D. Timeliness is essential
A. It is too big that detection is difficult 87. Which of the four below is common in treating best, a
suspected captures terrorist under tactical interrogation.
B. It is not subject to audit by government auditor
A. Use of sex and charm
C. It is discretionary on the part of intelligence officers to
use the fund B. giving favors
C. Tact and diplomacy

D. All of the above
D. Giving monetary consideration
85. Through the years, intelligence has earned and has
been identified to have many and varied meanings, 88. The primary purpose of police counter intelligence is
whatever it is in, in total is
A. Detection of criminal
A. Network
B. protection of life and property
B. Profession
C. Security
C. Tradecraft
D. Background information
D. Activity
89. Suppose your police station will be overrun by the
86. There are six applicable principles of police enemy, what among the item below will you destroy first
as it will be of value for the enemies’ intelligence C. Laboratory Photos
A. Cache of bullets D. All of the above
B. Radio 93. It is the questioning of a person who is suspected to

have committed a crime.
C. Troop deployment report
A. Interview
D. Grenades
B. Interrogation
90. In the selection and recruitment of informers, the best
factor to be considered is C. Tactical interrogations
A. Educational attainment D. Custodial investigation
B. charm and sex 94. It includes the practice of issuing an “invitation” to a

person who is investigated in connection with an offense
C. age he is suspected to have committed, without prejudice to
the liability of the “inviting” officer for any violation of law.
D. access
A. Interview
91. It refers to a picture of a person in police custody kept
for identification purposes. B. Interrogation
A. Fingerprinting C. Tactical interrogations
B. Criminal Profiling D. Custodial investigation
C. Roques Gallery 95. In a custodial investigation, it refers to any lawyer,
except those directly affected by the case,
D. Mug Shot
those charged with conducting preliminary investigation,
92. It is another term for mug shots.
or those charged with the prosecution
A. Booking Photos
of crimes.
B. Line Up Photos

A. Attorney
B. Corporate Lawyer
C. Assisting Counsel
D. Personal Lawyer
96. It is an identification process which is done by placing

the suspect within a group of people who matches the
general description of the suspect with the purpose of
allowing the witness to view them and identify the
suspect.
A. Police line-up
B. Fingerprint Identification
C.
Rogues gallery preserved and protected.
D. All of the above A. Trace Evidence
97. This is otherwise known as the police line-up. B. Transient Evidence
A. Rogues gallery C. Impression Evidence
B. Identification Parade D. All of the above
C. identification line up SPECIALIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION 1 WITH

LEGAL MEDICINE
D. identification Display
1. This is the investigation of cases that are unique and
98. It refers to the unwanted transfer of material between often require special training to fully understand their
two or more sources of physical evidence. broad significance.
A. Cross-Contamination a. Criminal investigation
B. Deterioration b. Homicide investigation
C. Contamination c. Special crime investigation
D. All of the above d. All of the above
2. A branch of medicine dealing with the application of
99. It is the unwanted transfer of material from another
medical knowledge for legal purposes. The application of
source to a piece of physical evidence.
medicine to legal cases.
A. Cross-Contamination
a. Medical jurisprudence
B. Deterioration
b. Legal medicine
C. Contamination
c. Forensic medicine
D. All of the above
d. All of the above
100. A type of evidence which by its very nature or the
3. The Highest form of Evidence
conditions at the scene will lose its evidentiary value if not
a. Real Evidence b. Circumstantial Evidence
b. Autoptic c. Object evidence
c. Expert Witness d. Documentary evidence
d. Either A or B 6. Which of the following are the questions in incidents

involving assaults that CANNOT be answer by a medico
e. nota legal?
4. These are articles and materials which are found in A. How many are the victims?
connection with the investigation and which aid in
establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the B. What is the position of the victim when he
circumstances under which the crime was committed, or was assaulted
in general assist in the prosecution of a criminal.
C. Was there evidence of defense mark or
a. Corpus Delicti struggle
b. Associative Evidence D. From what direction was the force applied

coming from
c. Tracing Evidence
7. Instantaneous rigidity of the muscle of the body right
d. Nota after death.
Correct Answer: Physical evidence a. Rogor Mortis
5. Evidence which proves the fact in dispute without the b. Migor Rortis
aid of any inference or presumption. The evidence
presented corresponds to the precise or actual point at c. Rigor mortis
issue.
d. Ragor Mortis
a. Direct Evidence

8. The fall of a body temperature that shows a conclusive
sign of death.
a. 15 degree Celsius to 20 degree Celsius
b. 20 degree Fahrenheit to 25 degree Fahrenheit
c. 10 degree Fahrenheit to 15 degree Celsius d.
Either a or B
e. Nota
9. With treachery, taking advantage of superior strength, c. The above statement is partly correct
with the aid of armed men, or employing means to
weaken the defense or of means or persons to insure or d. The above statement is inadmissible
afford impunity are some of the elements of the crime of
Murder. As such, are all these circumstances necessary to

be present during the commission of the crime, for the 12. What aggravating circumstance is present when the
killing to be considered a consummated murder? offended party was not given the opportunity to make a
defense?
a. Murder
a. Employing means to weaken the defense
b. Homicide
b. Taking advantage of superior strength
c. No
c. Means to afford impunity
d. Definitely yes
d. Treachery
10. A man who suddenly casts sand upon the eyes of the
victim and then stabs him to death is liable for what 13. Mr. Police Officer, as a general rule, can you arrest a
offense? person with a warrant of arrest?
a. Murder a. No, because that would be a violation of the 1987

Philippine Constitution, Article III, Section 1
b. Parricide
b. Yes, by means of In Flagrante Delicto or Caught in the
c. Physical Injuries act
d. Homicide c. No, because you must have a warrant of arrest to

apprehend a suspect.
11. He who kills an illegitimate grandfather, or an
illegitimate grandson is not guilty of parricide, but of d. Yes
homicide or murder. 14. In R.A. 8353, Carnal knowledge refers to what?
a. The above statement is erroneous a. Knowledge of sex
b. The above statement is true b. Forcible sex

c. Sexual knowledge 14. In a case of dead person, when autopsy should be
performed?
d. Sexual Penetration
a. Death has been caused by violence
11. It usually takes _________ for the stomach to empty
its contents after meals. b. At once when there is the slightest reason to
suspect the probability of homicide.
A. 1-2 hours
c. Upon the request of the dead person’s family
B. 2-3 hours
d. In all cases involving death
C. 3-4 hours
15. Which of the following is the primary role of the
D. 4-5 hours investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene?
12. The transient loss of consciousness with temporary a. Verification of death
cessation of the vital functions of the body is known as?
b. Identification of the person who is responsible for the
a. death death
b. state of suspended animation
c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death
c. coma d. All of the above
d. rigor mortis
16. Post-mortem change that is characterized by the
13. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide discoloration of the body after death.
investigation is:
a. livor mortis
a. Process of establishing the accurate cause of
b. rigor mortis
death
c. algor mortis
b. Process of determining who is responsible for the
d. all of the above
death c. Process of determining how the victim was killed
17. Identification of a dead body through examination of
d. Process of determining when the victim was killed
the teeth: (Nov- Dec 2019 Board Exam Question)

a. Forensic pathology
b. Forensic chemistry
c. Forensic odontology
d. Forensic medicine
18. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the

mother’s womb:
a. Infanticide c. Abortion
b. Parricide d. Murder
19. In what circumstances change murder to 22. Characteristics of gunshot wound of entrance
homicide? a. Treachery A. Inverted edge B. Bigger size C. Protrusion of
b. Absence of qualifying circumstances tissue D. No definite shape
c. Lack of intent 23. What refers to the cutting of a body part of another
person to weaken his defense?
d. Taking advantage of superior strength
A. Castration B. Mayhem
20. Rape is committed either by sexual intercourse or by
sexual assault. Which of the following is not a rape by C. Mutilation D. Amputation
sexual assault?
24. it is the official inquiry made by the police on the facts
A. Inserting penis into another person's anal orifice and circumstances surrounding the death of a person
which is expected to be unlawful.
B. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping
a. Murder Investigation
C. Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital
b. Homicide Investigation
or anal orifice of another person
c. Death Investigation
D. Inserting penis into another person's mouth
d. Criminal investigation
25. Why is there a need to conduct a careful inspection on

21. He is considered as the Father of Toxicology. a dead person’s hand holding the gun?
a. Mathieu Orfila a. to check if there is lividity
b. to check if there is presence of smudging and tattooing
b. Hippocrates
c. to check if the fingers are complete
c. Paracelsus
d. to check if there is the presence of cadaveric
d. Edmond Locard
spasm
26. The body of a person cools following death at d. Nota
approximately _______ under normal conditions and
assuming that temperature at death is 37 degrees Celsius. 29. It is a proof of facts from which, taken collectively, the
existence of a particular fact in dispute may be inferred as
a. 1.5 degrees/hour a necessary or probable consequence.
b. 2.5 degrees/hr a. prima facie evidence
c. 1.5 degrees/half hour b. circumstantial evidence
d. 2.5 degrees/half hour c. corpus delicti
d. primary evidence
27. How many hours does blood remain fluid inside the 30. it is the best method to use for searching wide areas.
blood vessel?
a. zone method
a. 3-4 hours
b. wheel method
b. 5-7 hors
c. spiral method
c. 6-8 hours
d. strip search method
d. 10-12 hours
31. It is the condition of a woman where the hymen of
28. It is the act of killing of large cattle, or taking its meat her vagina is still intact or unruptured
or hide without the consent of owner/raiser.
a. Virginity
a. cattle rustling
b. Defloration
b. bestiality
c. Hymen
c. violation of animal welfare act
d. none of the above

32. A police officer have the legal authority to pronounce
death.
a. true
b. false
c. yes
d. no
33. Suppose that the child is Kian’s legitimate grandson,

what crime will he be liable for killing the 2- day old child?
a. murder
b. parricide
c.
infanticide
death D. Physiologic death
d. homicide
38. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit
34. Rigor mortis can be first seen on what muscle? found in the body of the victim is even, the presumption is
that no bullet is lodged in the body, but if the number of
a. jaw
gunshot wounds entrance and exit is odd, the
b. back presumption is that one or more bullets might have been
lodged in the body. What principle is this?
c. chest
A. Presumption of Similarity B. Odd Even Rule
d. foot
C. Principle of Infallibility D. Numbering Principle
35. A test best for determining the presence of nitrates in
cloth fiber. 39. Mr. Yoso suffered from external hemorrhage of its left
ear after Mr. Jeson hit him at the back with a baseball bat
a. Paraffin test after the latter defamed him infront of their classmates.
What particular injury is greatly described?
b. Flourence test
A. Coup in jury B. Contre coup injury
c. Walkers test C. Locus Minoris Resistencia D. Extensive
injury
d. Nota
40. A victim of homicide was found lying on the floor at
36. Mr. Yoso walks like a robot. His legs are held together
his own apartment. On the deductive process of the
and the steps are dragged and short. It is the best
investigation, the cause of the victim’s death is asphyxia
description of what manner of walking?
by applying pressure to the latter’s neck while the
A. Cerebellar B. Ataxic C. Paretic D. Spastic assailant using his arms was on the back of the
victim. The statement best describes:
37. Mr. Yoso was abandoned by the family, unvisited and
let alone to die. This is the best example of what type of A. strangulation
clinical death?
B. burking
A. Sociological death B. Psychic death C. Biologic
C. throttling - using hands to compress the neck, D.
mugging not more than 24 hours
41. Several tests could be administered to the victim’s 44. Which of the following is true about post mortem
body in order to ascertain if there is still sign of life. What rigidity?
is that test in which a ligature will be applied around the
A. It is the instant stiffening of the muscles in a certain
victim’s finger?
group
A. Icard’s test B. finger webs test
B. It is characterized by hardening of the muscles due to
C. Magnus test D. Winslov test the coagulation of proteins
42. Approximately, height can be measure by extending C. It lasts from 12-36 hours
the middle fingers of both hands laterally. What age when
D. It is characterized by hardening of the muscles due to
a person ceases to increase in height?
the solidification of proteins
A. 24 B. 23
45. It is mostly associated with violent death due to
extreme nervous tension and injury to the central nervous
C. 25 D. 26 system, the statement is referring to the spontaneous
rigor what if all the muscles of the body totally stiffed due
43. What would be the presumption if fleas were still alive to death?
on the clothing of a dead person that allegedly drowned?
A. cadaveric spasm B. cold stiffening
A. fleas could not survived for more than 24 hour on the
water C. heat stiffening D. rigor mortis
B. fleas would indicate that person was drowned 46. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that
death has occurred not more than 24 hours hence are
C. indicates that the person was in the water for useful to approximate the time of death.

A. Flies B. Bees 48. It is a physical injury wherein the victim is ill-treat or
incapacitated for work or require medical attendance for a
C. Earthworms D. Butterflies
47. Stab wound is produced by:
A. Sharp-pointed instrument
B. Sharp-edged and sharp-pointed instrument
C. Sharp-edged instrument
D. Blunt instrument
period of one to nine days. D. Agents of Persons in Authority
53. It is qualified theft when the coconuts stolen are taken
A.
Slight physical injury B. Serious physical injury from the:
C. Less serious physical injury D. None of these A. Marketplace C. Residence B. Premises of the
49. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of coconut plantation

tissues and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained
that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of D. Police Station
the body to the gun is approximately.
54. Removing, concealing or destroying any court record
A. 6 inches B. 18 inches C. 12 inches D. 24 inches 50. is:
Accident classified according to severity are A. Death, A. Malicious Mischief C. Estafa or Swindling B.
property damage Theft D. Falsification 55. A concubine once proven
B. Fatal, non-fatal, property damage guilty is punishable by: A. Two (2) years
C. Physical injuries and death imprisonment C. Destierro B. Six (6) months
imprisonment
D. Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries
D. Fine of P3, 000.00
51. When a public officer deprives a person of his liberty
without any legal ground, such officer may be held 56. Those directly vested with the jurisdiction to govern
answerable for: and execute the laws whether as individuals or as
members of some court or government corporations
A. Illegal Detention C. Arbitrary Detention
board or commission.
B. Expulsion D. Abuse of Power
A. Public officer C. False testimony B. Persons in
52. Persons directly vested with jurisdiction, whether as
authority D. None of the above
individuals or as members of some court or government
corporations, board or commission, are denominated:
57. Three men broke into a National Authority
A. Governmental Officers C. Public Officers
B. Persons in Authority (Government Entity) forcibly destroyed the lock of the
warehouse and lamented sufferings of the people within Non-passenger of the vessel
the area. Thus, they called on the people to help them by b. Crew members of the vessel
eating all they could and then to empty the warehouse of c. All of the above
all the goods stored therein. The 3 men did not even help d. None of the above
themselves to a single grain or any good. What crime was
committed? 62. Under R.A. 7659, PD 532 and Art. 122, RPC, the crime
of Piracy shall be committed by:
A. Direct assault C. Sedition
a. Member of the crew
B. Indirect assault D. All of the foregoing b. Non-members of the vessel
c. Passenger of the vessel
d. B & C only
59.. When a woman is kidnapped with lewd or unchaste
designs, the crime committed is: 63. Considered as the golden hour of homicide and
A. Forcible abduction kidnapping investigation
C. Illegal detention
B. Kidnapping a. First 36 hrs
D. Coercion b. First 48 hrs
60. When the kidnapping is without lewd designs, the c. First 72 hrs
crime committed is: d. First 24 hrs
A. Illegal detention C. Forcible abduction 64. Swindling or estafa shall be considered as syndicated
if there are ___
B. Coercion D. All of the above
a. Two or more victims
61. Under Art. 122, Revised Penal Code, the crime of
Piracy is committed by: b. Atleast 5 victims
c. Two or more offenders
a. Non-member of the complement of the vessel & d. Atleast 5 offenders

65. Mr. Yoso, by force upon things entered inside the
house of Kardo and stole the brand new Bicycle of the
latter. What was the crime committed?
a. Robbery by force upon things
b. robbery by threat, violence and intimidation
c. qualified theft
d. nota
66. Mr. Yoso surreptitiously entered to the house of Kardo b. Theft
through the open door and stole cash and gadgets once c. Robbery
inside. The investigator found out that the perpetrator left d. None
by breaking and jumping from the window to avoid arrest.
What is the crime committed?

69. Breaking the window of the car parked at the garden
a. Robbery by force upon things then stealing what is inside is ___
b. robbery by threat, violence and intimidation a. theft

b. robbery with force upon things
c. qualified theft
c. qualified theft
d. nota d. carnapping
Correct Answer: Theft 70. Mario entered the dwelling of another thru an open
door. Once inside, he broke the door of master’s bedroom
67. Kardo wants to get fair with Mr. Yoso so the former and stole all cash there. What is the crime commited?
went to the house of the latter and burned it without
knowing that the former was inside. Mr. Yoso died a. Theft
because of asphyxia. What is the crime commited by b. robbery with force upon things
Kardo? c. robbery with malicious mischief
d. nota
a. Arson with homicide
b. Arson 71. What if Mario did not break the door, however, once
c. Homicide inside of the room, he cannot make the combination of
d. Murder vault, so he just brought it with him outside to break it
with his axe. What is the crime commmited?
68. The scenario above was just an imagination, instead
of burning the house of Mr. Yoso, Kardo broke the door of a. Theft
Kardo’s house merely just to caused damage, but he did b. robbery with force upon things
realized that the he can somehow use the door so he c. robbery with malicious mischief
brought it with him. What is the crime committed? d. nota
Art. 299 (b) The robbery be committed under any of
a. Malicious mischief the following circumstances:
1. By the breaking of doors, wardrobes, chests, or Heat temperature
any other kind of locked or sealed furniture or
receptacle; 75. It is mostly associated with violent death due to
extreme nervous tension and injury to the central nervous
2. By taking such furniture or objects to be system, the statement is referring to the spontaneous
broken or forced open outside the place of the rigor what if all the muscles of the body totally stiffed due
robbery. to death?
72. Which of the following is not included in the essential A. cadaveric spasm B. cold stiffening C. heat
elements of sketching?
stiffening D. rigor mortis
A. Measurements must be accurate
76. Which of the following is true about post mortem
B. Compass direction may be indicated to rigidity?
facilitate proper orientation in the case of crime
scene. A. It is the instant stiffening of the muscles in a
certain group
C. Essential item that has bearing in the
investigation must be included. B. It is characterized by hardening of the muscles
due to the coagulation of proteins
D. There must be a title and legend to tell what
it is and then meaning of certain marks indicated C. It lasts from 12-36 hours
73. A person who habitually intakes beverages containing D. It is characterized by hardening of the
alcohol and impose risk to himself and to other person muscles due to the solidification of proteins
while under the influence of it.
A. alcoholic B. drunkard C. addict D. chronic drunkard

77. It is an increase of temperature due to fast, early
74. It is a painful contraction of the skeletal muscles putrefactive and chemical changes in the body, which
usually seen among manual workers in hot environment occur 1-3 hours after death.
whose bodily fluids have been depleted of sodium chloride
A. Post- mortem caloricity B. Post- mortem rigidity
not replaced by heavy loses of sweat.
C. Instantaneous rigor D. Putrefaction
A. Sensible heat B. Heat cramp C. Specific heat D.

78. This is an interlacing discoloration commonly purplish
brown that forms a network on the large part of the
cadaver such as the chest and abdomen.
A. putrefaction B. marbolization C. livor mortis D.
maceration
79. An open wound produced by the penetration of shots

that usually lodge on the body of the victim is categorized
as shotgun wound which is generally under the
investigative process of:
A. shotgun wound B. ballistics C. firearms identification
D. gunshot wounds
80.
What would be the presumption if fleas were still alive on 84. It is the system used in the Philippines at present
the clothing of a dead person that allegedly drowned? which is handled by a medico-legal officer who is a
registered physician duly qualified to practice medicine in
A. fleas could not survived for more than 24 hour the Philippines.
on the water
A. Medical Jurisprudence B. Medico Legal
B. fleas would indicate that person was drowned System
C. indicates that the person was in the C. Medical Evidence D. Physical Evidence
water for not more than 24 hours
89. A Daughter above twenty one but below twenty three
D. fleas indicates that early stage of putrefaction years of age cannot leave the parental home without the
81. In a tropical country, if the blood is found to be soft consent of the father or mother in whose company she
with the abdomen distended with gases without the lives, except to become a wife, or when she exercise a
presence of rigor mortis, it may have been dead for about professional calling. This statement pertains to a legal
importance of sex determination which is…
A. 24 hours B. 12 hours C. 36 hours D. 48 hours
A. To determine whether an individual can exercise certain
82. This is the second stage of death investigation that obligations vested by law to one sex only.
involves thorough and meticulous examination of the B. Marriage or the union of a man and a woman.
cadaver
C. Rights granted by law are different to different
A. Autopsy B. Post-mortem Investigation C. Exhumation sexes.
D. Crime scene investigation D. There are certain crimes wherein a specific sex can
only be the offender or victim.
83. A condition characterized by hardening of the muscles 90. Gavino Ang was found dead in the garage with a deep
due to solidification of fats, muscles and fluids due to stab wound on the neck. Kim Pang was found with a
exposure to ice or snow. kitchen knife, his hand stained with blood. Examination of
the weapon showed that the stain was blood of human
A. Cold stiffening B. rigor mortis origin and belonging to the same group as that of the
deceased Gavino Ang, with such result of the examination,
C. Heath stiffening D. algor mortis the investigating authorities have a very strong
presumption that Kim Pang was the one who committed the police should do so that the saliva can be used in the
the crime. This case would help us evaluate the legal process of investigation?
importance of blood and blood stain as to:
A. secretor test
A. Determination of the direction of the escape of the
victim or the assailant. B. microscopic test for saliva analysis
B. Circumstantial or corroborative evidence against C. test the saliva if it is really of the suspect
or in favor of the perpetrator of the crime.
D. DNA analysis to determine if the saliva
C. Determination of the approximate time the crime was is of the suspect
committed.
93. A victim of homicide was found lying on the floor at
D. Determination of the place of commission of the crime. his own apartment. On the deductive process of the
investigation, the cause of the victim’s death is asphyxia
91. Mr. Xanzo was caught stealing the personal by applying pressure to the latter’s neck while the
belongings of Mr. Zanny particularly a pale of paint. assailant using his arms was on the back of the victim.
When Mr. Xanzo fled together with the stolen item, he The statement best describes:
did not noticed that there was a hole in the pale that
cause a continues dropping of the paint. These drops of A. strangulation B. burking
paint are example of physical evidence which can be
C. throttling D. mugging
considered as…
94. Pedro A. Laskado suffered from external hemorrhage
A. Corpus Delicti Evidence B. Associative evidence C.
of its left ear after Jose T. Angaon hit him at the back with
Tracing evidence D. None of these a baseball bat after the latter defamed him infront of their
classmates. What particular injury is greatly described?
92. Police Investigator found on a crime scene dried liquid
A. Coup in jury B. Contre coup injury C. Locus Minoris
purporting to be saliva. They have a suspect by a name of
James McKay, an American boyfriend of the victim. What Resistencia D. Extensive injury

95. Mr. Sengiam walks like a robot. His legs are held
together and the steps are dragged and short. It is the
best description of what manner of walking?
A. Cerebellar B. Ataxic C. Paretic D. Spastic
96. Mr. Calimutan was abandoned by the family, unvisited

and let alone to die. This is the best example of what type
of clinical death?
A. Sociological death B. Psychic death C. Biologic
death D. Physiologic death

97. If you are an investigator, how would you know that wound D.justifying circumstance
the
crime of homicide was committed during night time?

SPECIALIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION 2 WITH
A. if the body was discovered at night time INTERROGATION AND INTERVIEW
B. if the victim is a prostitute 1. In robbery by force upon things, the offender must
enter the house or building in which the robbery was
C. if the victim was wearing her lingerie
commited, by any of the following means, except;
D. all of these
a. Through a opening not intended for entrance or
98. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit egress.
found in the body of the victim is even, the presumption is
b. By breaking any wall, roof, or floor or breaking
that no bullet is lodged in the body, but if the number of
any door or window.
gunshot wounds entrance and exit is odd, the
presumption is that one or more bullets might have been c. By using any fictitious name or pretending the
lodged in the body. What principle is this? exercise of public authority.
A. Presumption of Similarity B. Odd-Even Rule C. d. By using keys borrowed from the owner
Principle of Infallibility D. Numbering Principle 2. Important for robbery by use of force upon things, it is
necessary that offender ______
99. It is the recognition of an individual as determine, by
characteristics which distinguish that individual from all a. Broke anything as a means of entry
others.
b. enters the building or where object may be
A. Recognition B. Identification C. Investigation D. found.
c. applied force upon things
Interpretation
d. Applies force, threat or violence
100. A wound that is produced as a result of a sharp
edged instrument under an eminent danger and act of 3. Mario entered thru the fire exit to rob the house. The
restoring of one’s safety. fire exit is not intended for entrance. Will it qualify for
robbery?
A. incised wound B. lacerated wound C. defense
a. Yes because entry thru an opening not intended 6. Mario entered the house of Juan because the latter left
for entrance to rob is robbery it open. While inside, Mario uses his false key to open a
receptacle where cash and jewelries are being kept. what
b. No. The entry is thru an opening intended is the crime committed by Mario?
for egress.
a. Robbery
c. It must be theft
b. Theft
d. No idea
c. Qualified theft
4. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the wall. The
wall collapsed. There was a small opening there. At night, d. Qualified robbery
a man entered through that opening without breaking the
same and rob the store. What is the crime committed? 7. If A and B told the occupant of the house that they
were the nephews of the spouse of the owner of the
a. Theft house and once inside, they robbed. What is the crime
committed?
b. Robbery
a. Robbery
c. Trespass to dwelling
b. Theft
d. none
c. Qualified theft
5. If accused entered the house through a door, and it
was while escaping that he broke any wall, floor or d. Qualified robbery
window after taking personal property inside the house,
then there is ___ 8. A, B, C and D robbed a bank. When they were about
to flee, policemen came, and they traded shots with them.
a. Robbery If one of the policemen was killed, the offense is______
b. Theft a. Robbery with homicide
c. Malicious mischief b. Robbery and murder
d. none c. Robbery only and homicide is aggravating

d. Homicide and the robbery is only aggravating
9. From the scenario above, If one of the robbers was the

one killed, the remaining robbers shall be_____
a. Robbery with homicide
b. Robbery and murder
c. Robbery only and homicide is aggravating d.
Homicide and the robbery is only aggravating
10. What if a bank employee was the one killed either by

the robbers or by the policemen in the course of the
latter’s action of arresting or trying to arrest the robbers,
the crime is______
a. Robbery with homicide element of surprise.
b. Robbery and murder a. The selective raid
c. Robbery only and homicide is aggravating d. b. The ambush
Homicide and the robbery is only aggravating c. The planned operation
11. If, on the occasion or by reason of the robbery, d. Nota

somebody is killed, and there are also physical injuries
14. A robbery which involves a minimum of planning but
inflicted by reason or on the occasion of the robbery
some casing of the robbery scene.
a. Robbery with homicide and physical injury
a. The selective raid
b. Robbery with homicide and the physical
b. The ambush
injury shall be aggravating
c. The planned operation
c. Robbery with physical injury, homicide is separate
crime d. Nota
d. Only robbery, homicide and physical injury 15. They are robbers described as those persons who
aggravate the crime. worked at robbery as a trade making it their living and
having no other means of income.
12. The robbers enter the house. In entering through the
a. Amateurs
window, one of the robbers stepped on a child less than
three days old. The crime is_____ b. Professionals
a. Robbery and homicide c. Organized
b. Robbery with homicide d. nota
c. Robbery with infanticide 16. the burglar is an aerialist, the stopover robber steps
from a fire escape, balcony or other building to a nearby
d. Robbery with murder
window. The “human fly” robber can progress upward or
13. The tactics and style of the robbery includes this one downward or the sides of a building to a selected point of
which is the least planned of all and is based on the entry.
a. The open door or window entry 19. “Never conduct or let anyone conduct an interview if
the interviewer has not gone to the crime scene.”
b. The jimmy entry
a. The cardinal rule of interview
c. The celluloid entry
b. The golden rule of interrogation
d. The stopover or human fly entry
c. The cardinal rule interrogation
17. All but one are special aggravating circumstance in
arson. d. The golden rule interview
a. Committed with intent to gain 20. It is the friendly relation between the interviewer and
the interviewee which is conducive to a fruitful result.
b. Committed to conceal a crime.
a. The interviewer must be in a respectable civilian
c. Committed for the benefits of others attire.
d. Offender is motivated by spite, revenge or hatred b. RAPPORT
towards the owner or occupant of the house;
c. CONVERSATIONAL TONE OF VOICE
18. Is a conversation with a purpose, motivated by a
desire to obtain certain information from the person d. KNOWLEDGE OF HUMAN BEHAVIOR
being interviewed as to what was done, seen, felt, heard,
tasted, smell or known. 21. He/she must be courteous, sympathetic and humble,
ready to ask apologies for the inconvenience of the
a. Interview interview.
b. Interrogation a. COMMON INTEREST
c. Elicitation b. ACTING QUALITIES
d. Survey

c. HUMILITY
d. KNOWLEDGE OF HUMAN BEHAVIOR
22. It is a form or technique in the conduct of interview

upon willing and cooperative witnesses, where they are
given the full opportunity to narrate their accounts without
intervention.
a. PRELIMINARY INTERVIEW
b. OPEN INTERVIEW
c. UNSTRUCTURED INTERVIEW
d. COGNITIVE INTERVIEW
23.
This is the uncooperative and indifferent subject. To deal a. Deceitful Witness

with them is to find out their field of interest
b. Honest Witnesses
a. The Drunken Type
c. Timid Witnesses
b. Know-Nothing Type
d. Talkative Type
c. Disinterested Type
27. All but one are the Purposes/Objectives of
d. NOTA Interrogation
24. These are the reluctant type of witnesses. They are a. To obtain valuable facts.
found among uneducated and of low level of intelligence.
b. Eliminate the innocent.
a. The Drunken Type
c. To determine the veracity of the statement
b. Know-Nothing Type of the subject
c. Disinterested Type d. Identify the guilty party; and
d. NOTA e. Obtain confession/admission
25. These are the truthful and cooperative witnesses 28. Is the skillful questioning of a hostile person
where the investigator could rely upon, with little or no suspecting of having committed an offense or a person
problem in handling them. who is reluctant to make a full disclosure of information
in his possession which is pertinent to the investigation.
a. Deceitful Witness a. Interview
b. Honest Witnesses b. Investigative interview
c. Timid Witnesses c. Interrogation
d. Talkative Type d. Custodial investigation
26. These are witnesses who are prone to exaggerate, 29. The questioning of the suspect or person believed to
adding irrelevant or new matters to their narration. have been committed a crime after he was taken into
custody. 32. The investigator indicates he does not consider his
subject’s indiscretion a grave offense.
a. Interview
a. SHIFTING THE BLAME
b. Investigative interview
b. EXTENUATION
c. Interrogation
c. BLUFF ON A SPLIT PAIR
d. Custodial investigation
d. Nota
30.The interrogation of a friendly interrogee who has
information at the direction of or under the control of the 33. This is applicable when there is more than one
friendly intelligence service. suspect. The suspects are separated and one is informed
that other has talked.
a. Debriefing
a. SHIFTING THE BLAME
b. Briefing
b. EXTENUATION
c. Orientation
c. BLUFF ON A SPLIT PAIR
d. Nota
d. Nota
31. This is a technique where the investigator, combining
his skills of an actor and a psychologist, addresses the 34. Subject Interrogee is placed in a longer period of
suspect with an emotional appeal to confess. Devotees of interrogation without rest or sleep. The interrogator
a religion may belong to this type. permits the source to go to sleep and subsequently
awaken for another series of questioning (this is done
a. FRIENDLINESS repeatedly).
b. SYMPATHETIC APPROACH a. OPPOSITE PERSONALITY TECHNIQUE
c. EMOTIONAL APPEAL b. EXASPERATION
d. Nota c. THE MUTT AND JEFF/ SWEET AND SOUR
METHOD

d. nota
35. These can be questions such as; “What happened?”

or questions that begin by asking the suspect to “tell”,
“explain” or “describe” some event or situation
a. Open-ended Questions
b. Closed Questions
c. Forced-choice Questions
d. Multiple Questions
36. This can easily confuse an interviewee and make the 39. It is an inductive approach where each individual
answers given equally confusing to the interviewer. An suspect is evaluated with respect to specific observations
example would be to ask, “When did he say that and relating to the crime.
what did he do ‘and who else was present?

a. Factual Analysis
b. Behavior Analysis Interview
b. Closed Questions
c. Reid Method
c. Forced-choice Questions
d. Nota
d. Multiple Questions
40. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’
37. An example would be to ask, “You wanted to injure custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter
him, didn’t you?” is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda
doctrine which cannot be waived?
a. At the time of custodial investigation
b. Closed Questions
b. During the announcement that he is under
c. Forced-choice Questions arrest
d. Nota c. During the actual questioning
38. Such questions allow more control over what the
d. At the moment that he is invited for
suspect says and are useful where the suspect has left questioning
out information that you need. However, they can limit 41. What interrogation techniques when the investigator
the account given indicates he does not consider his subject’s indiscretion a
a. Open-ended Questions grave offense.
b. Closed Questions A. Sympathetic Appeal C. Mutt and Jeff
c. Forced-choice Questions B. Extenuation D. Emotional Appeal
d. Nota 42. Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence

in court; it should be taken from ____.
A. General View c. custodial investigation
B. Mid-range d. custodial interrogation
C. Close-up view 46. Is the act of any person, who, with intent to gain, for
himself or for another shall buy, possess, keep, acquire,
D. General to Specific concealed, sell or in any other way, deal on any articles,
items, objects, or anything of value which he knows to
43. One of the qualities of a good investigation report
have been derived from the proceeds of crime or robbery
states that it must short but concise, meaning, the report
or theft.
must be -
a. Cattle rustling
A. Fair C. Clear
b. Fencing
B. Brief D. Impartial
c. Lending
44. It is existing between the investigator and the subject,
and it is usually determines the success of the d. Fence
investigation.
47. Refers to small bruises or punctuate wounds on the
a. rapport skin
b. personality a. Stippling
c. breadth of interest b. Tattooing
d. the approach c. Either a or b
45. It is the investigation conducted by the investigator on d. Neither a nor b
the suspect who is under police custody.
48. It is the carrying away of someone else's property
a. investigation that is an element of larceny. The taking away is
accomplished
b. interrogation

without violence or intimidation against a person or force
upon things.
a. Lost Property
b. Damage to Property
c. Asportation
d. Hunting or Gathering
49. Anti-Bouncing Check Law punishes the acts of making

and issuing a check is issued, he does not have sufficient
funds, and the failure to keep sufficient funds to cover the
full amount of the check if presented within a period
of_______
homicide
a. 30 days from the date appearing on the check
a. computer crime
b. 60 days from the date appearing on the check b. Cyber Dependent Crimes
c. Cyber Enabled Crimes
c. 90 days from the date appearing on the
d. Cyber Assisted Crimes
check
53. Traditional crimes that are increased in their scale or
d. 180 days from the date appearing on the check
reach by the use of computers, computer networks or
50. known as the new Principles on Effective Interviewing other ICT. Examples are: Child pornography, cyber
for Investigations and Information Gathering. It is a stalking, criminal copyright infringement and fraud
concrete alternative to interrogation methods that rely on
a. computer crime
coercion to extract confessions.
b. Cyber Dependent Crimes
a. Mendez Method c. Cyber Enabled Crimes
d. Cyber Assisted Crimes
b. Reid Method
54. Crimes that can only be committed through computer,
c. PEACE Method computer networks, or other form of ICT. Examples of
these are hacking malware, and Dos Attacks
d. Nota
a. computer crime
51. The use of a computer as an instrument to further
b. Cyber Dependent Crimes
illegal ends.
c. Cyber Enabled Crimes
a. computer crime d. Cyber Assisted Crimes
b. Cyber Dependent Crimes 55. Refers to the totality of the electronic means
c. Cyber Enabled Crimes employed to systematically collect, process, store,
d. Cyber Assisted Crimes present and share information to end-users in support of
their activities.
52. Crimes in which the use of computer in an incidental
aspect of the commission of the crime but many afford a. Directorate for Information and Communication
evidence of the crime Example, address found in the Technology Management (DICTM)
computer of the murder suspect, or records of messages b. Information and Communication
sent between the victim and the suspect before the Technology (ICT)
c. Information and Communication System d. Cyber-Trespass
d. Nota
60. Refers to the instruction, communication with, storing
56. This refers to the kind of emotional violence that can data in, retrieving data from, or otherwise making use of
be enacted online such as bullying or harassment. a. any resources of a computer system or communication
Cyber-Violence network
b. Cyber-Deception and Theft
c. Cyber-Porn and Obscenity a. Access
d. Cyber-Trespass b. Alteration
c. Data Interference
57. Crimes that involve crossing or violating boundaries of d. System Interference
other people digitally. For example, hacking, accessing
data without consent. 61. refers to any device or group of interconnected or
related devices, one or more of which, pursuant to a
a. Cyber-Violence program, performs automated processing of data.
b. Cyber-Deception and Theft
c. Cyber-Porn and Obscenity a. Computer system
d. Cyber-Trespass b. Computer data
58. this involves offenses such as online fraud and IP theft. c. Data Interference
d. System Interference
a. Cyber-Violence
b. Cyber-Deception and Theft 62. This refers to the interception made by technical
c. Cyber-Porn and Obscenity means without the right of any non-public transmission of
d. Cyber-Trespass computer data to, form, or within a computer system
including electromagnetic emissions from a computer
59. This involves the exploitation of children and system carrying such computer data
distribution of pron materials through the internet.
a. Illegal Interception
a. Cyber-Violence b. Data Interference
b. Cyber-Deception and Theft c. System Interference
c. Cyber-Porn and Obscenity d. computer virus

63. refers to any representation of facts, information, or
concepts in a form suitable for processing in a computer
system
a. Computer system
b. Computer data
c. Data Interference
d. System Interference
64. This refers to the intentional or reckless alteration,

damaging, deletion or deterioration of computer data
b. Data Interference
c. System Interference
d.
d. computer virus Boot Sector Virus
65. Refers to the modification or change, in form or 69. changes its code each time an infected file is
substance, of an existing computer data or program executed. It does this to evade antivirus programs
a. Access a. Polymorphic Virus

b. Alteration b. Resident Virus
c. Data Interference c. Web Scripting Virus
d. System Interference d. Boot Sector Virus
66. The intentional alteration or reckless hindering or 70. This type of virus “hijacks” certain web browser
interference with the functioning of a computer network functions, and you may be automatically directed to an
unintended website
b. Data Interference a. Browser virus
c. System Interference b. Browser Hijacker
d. computer virus c. Browser malware
d. Browser worm
67. is a type of malicious code or program written to alter
the way a computer operates and is designed to spread 71. This type of viruses exploits the code of web browsers
from one computer to another. and web pages. If you access such a web page, the virus
can infect your computer
a. computer virus
b. worm a. Polymorphic Virus
c. trojan horse b. Resident Virus
d. malware c. Web Scripting Virus
d. Boot Sector Virus
68. This type of virus can take control when you start-or
boot- your computer. One way it can spread is by 72. This type of virus comes into action when you execute
plugging an infected USB drive into your computer a file containing a virus. Otherwise, it remains dormant
a. Polymorphic Virus a. Action virus

b. Resident Virus b. Direct action virus
c. Web Scripting Virus c. Action worm
d. Direct action worm b. Cybersquatting
c. Cyber theft
73. written in the same macro language used for software d. Cyber fraud
applications. Such viruses spread when you open an
infected document, often through email attachments 77. The input, alteration, or deletion of any computer data
without right resulting in inauthentic data with the intent
a. File Infector Virus that it be considered or acted upon for legal purposes as
b. Multipartite Virus if it were authentic
c. Macro Virus
d. Nota a. Computer-related Forgery
b. Computer-related Fraud
74. This common virus inserts malicious code into c. Computer-related Identity Theft
executable files or files used to perform certain functions d. CONTENT-RELATED OFFENSE
or operations on a system
78. This is the intentional acquisition, use, misuse,
a. File Infector Virus transfer, possession, alteration or deletion of identifying
b. Multipartite Virus information belonging to another, whether natural or
c. Macro Virus juridical, without right
d. Nota
a. Computer-related Forgery
75. This kind of virus infects and spreads in multiple ways. b. Computer-related Fraud
It can infect both program files and system sectors c. Computer-related Identity Theft
a. File Infector Virus d. CONTENT-RELATED OFFENSE
b. Multipartite Virus
c. Macro Virus
d. Nota 79. This refers to the unauthorized input, alteration, or
deletion of computer data or program or interference in
76. This refers to the acquisition of a domain name over the functioning of a computer system, causing damage
the internet in bad faith to profit, mislead, destroy thereby with fraudulent intent
reputation, and deprive others from registering the same
a. Computer-related Forgery
a. Misuse of Devices b. Computer-related Fraud

c. Computer-related Identity Theft
d. CONTENT-RELATED OFFENSE
80. This refers to the willful engagement, maintenance,

control, or operation, directly or indirectly, of any
lascivious exhibition of sexual organs or sexual activity,
with the aid of a computer system, for favor or
consideration
a. Cybersex
b. Cyber voyeurism
c. Child Sexual Exploitation
d. Cyber libel
81. Every defamatory imputation is____________, if no b. Skimming
good intention and justifiable motive for making it is c. Hacking
shown, d. Cracking
a. Presumed to be false even if it be true 85. Refers to an authorized access into or interference in
b. presumed to be a warning even if it be true c. a computer system or server, or information and
presumed to be malicious even if it be true d. communication system, or axis in order to corrupt, alter,
presumed to be true even if with malice steal, or destroy using a computer
82. This refers to the acts of hiring, employing, using, a. Phishing

persuading, inducing or coercing child perform in obscene b. Skimming
exhibition and indecent shows c. Hacking
d. Cracking
a. Child Trafficking
b. Obscene Publications and Indecent Shows 86. Refers to a system for generating, sending, receiving,
c. Child Prostitution and Other Sexual Abuse d. nota storing or otherwise processing electronic data messages
or electronic documents and includes the computer
83. refers to any card, plate or other means of account system
access that can be used to obtain money, good, services,
or any other thing value or to initiate a transfer of funds a. Directorate for Information and Communication
Technology Management (DICTM)
a. Access program
b. Information and Communication Technology (ICT)
b. Access Devices
c. Information and Communication System
c. Access regulation d. Nota
d. Nota 87. This refers to any personal information controller or
personal information processor or any of its officials,
84. Copying or counterfeiting any credit card, payment
employees or agents, who, with malice or in bad faith,
card or debit card, and obtaining information there in with
discloses unwarranted or false information relative to any
the intent of accessing the account and operating the personal information or personal sensitive information
same whether or not cash is withdrawn or monetary injury obtained by him or her.
is caused by a perpetrator against the account holder or a. Malicious Disclosure
the depositary bank. b. Unauthorized Disclosure
c. Fraudulent disclosure
a. Phishing
d. Nota
88. It is the focus of the preliminary investigation and b. A lay witness
also the primary source of physical evidence
c. An expert witness or a specialist
a. The Crime Scene
b. The Victim d. Nota
c. The Suspect
d. Sana all 92. Tasked to investigate all cyber related crimes
punishable under Cybercrime Prevention Act and related
89. It’s admissible win it fairly and accurately reflects the laws, and to establish and maintain an Incident Response
witness testimony is more probative than prejudicial. Team and Digital Forensic Section that will be responsible
for responding to the current and emerging cyber threats,
a. Documentary Evidence and conducting digital forensic examination and analysis.
b. Demonstrative Evidence a. National Bureau of Investigation

c. Physical Evidence Cybercrime Division (NBI-CCD)
d. All of the above
b. PNP Anti- Cybercrime Group (PNP-ACG)
90. Is used to refer to a declaration that is made at an
event that proves the event happened because the words
c. Department of Justice – Office of Cybercrime
were uttered upon witnessing the event.
(DOJ-OOC)
a. Res gestae
b. Part of res gestae
d. All of the above
c. Common Reputation
d. Nota
93. Central Authority in all matters relating to international
mutual assistance and extradition for cybercrime and
91. This is the most common type of witness. It is a
cyber-related matters.
person who watched certain events and describes what
they saw.
a. National Bureau of Investigation Cybercrime
Division (NBI-CCD)
a. A character witness

c. Department of Justice – Office of
Cybercrime (DOJ-OOC)
d. All of the above
94. Is a National Operational Support Unit primarily

responsible for the implementation of pertinent Philippine
laws on cybercrimes and advocating the anti-cybercrime
campaign
a. National Bureau of Investigation Cybercrime

Division (NBI-CCD)

service,
but not
content,
nor
c. Department of Justice – Office of Cybercrime identities.

(DOJ-OOC)
a. traffic data
d. All of the above
b. Content data
95.is the actual police intervention in a computer crime
incident where the acquisition of matters of evidentiary c. All of the above
value is traceable within the computer’s hardware,
software, and its network. d. Nota
a. Computer Crime Response 98. Assessment of truth and deception through the use of
verbal cues coupled with methods of human recall and
b. Digital Forensic symptoms made self-evident in the statement taking
process.
c. Cyber Security
a. Body Language Cues
d. Cyber Response
b. Verbal Cues
96. The traffic data and subscriber information relating to
communication services provided by a service provider c. Practical Kinesic Statement Analysis
shall be preserved for a minimum period of______
d. Kinesic Subject Control
a. 3 months from the date of the transaction. b. 12
99.It refers to the various techniques available to the
months from the date of the transaction. c. 6 interviewer to take control and command of the interview
environment. From proxemics to mirroring or the use of
months from the date of the transaction. d. 1 enhanced information gathering skills.
month from the date of the transaction. a. Body Language Cues
97. Refers only to the communication’s origin, destination, b. Verbal Cues

route, time, date, size, duration, or type of underlying
c. Practical Kinesic Statement Analysis B. He surrenders to proper authority
d. Kinesic Subject Control C. He summons the assistance of a physician or nurse to

aid the victim
100. Involves the interviewer determining the subject’s
D. He hides from the police for justifiable cause
frame of mind in response to the interview stress. It also
helps the interviewer in determining if the subject is 3. Friction mark on a pavement made by a tire, which is
suffering from personality disorder or psychosis.
both rotating a slipping is called:
a. Practical Kinesic Interrogation phase A. Centrifugal skid C. Scuff mark B. Centrifugal
b. Practical Kinesic Statement Analysis force D. Skid mark
4. The chronological arrangement of the color of the

c. Kinesic Subject Control
traffic lights from the top.
d. Practical Kinesic Analysis Phase A. Yellow, red, green C. Red, yellow, green
TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT B. Green, red, yellow D. Green, yellow, red
INVESTIGATION WITH DRIVING
5. Separation of traffic units in a vehicular accident is
1. The minimum age for non-professional driver’s license referred to as:
applicant is:
A. final position C. hazards B. disengagement D.
A. 16 C. 18
stopping
B. 17 D. 21
6. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved
2. A driver who was in traffic accident is justified to leave arrest due to
from the accident area, if any of the circumstances below
are present, except: traffic violation, the following procedures are followed
except:
A. He is in imminent danger of being harmed by other
persons by reason of an accident A. bring the suspended person before the court

B. detention of the arrested person may take place C.
arrest can be effected even without a warrant
D. impose the probable penalty that might be

imposed
7. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of

the following evidence will show how the accident
happened?
A. hole on the road pavement

B. the driver under the influence of liquor C. engine shall be equipped with a ____ as said motor
vehicle passes through a street of any city, municipality
point of impact or thickly populated district or barrio.
D. vehicle has break failure A. wiper
8. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in B. light

traffic control is
C. muffler
A. selection of geographical areas for strict
D. windshield
enforcement
11. Originally meant “trade
B. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic
hours a. TRAFICO
C. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations b. TRAFIGA
D. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive c. TRAFALGAR SQUARE
measure for future violation
d. TRAFFIC
9. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is
to 12. Who issued TVR or Traffic Violation Report?
A. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather a. MMDA

than as causes KVB
b. LGU
B. consider violation as primary causes and any other
factors as secondary causes c. LTO
d. HPG
C. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately
prior to the accident as a cause 13. Early Warning Device must be installed___________
to the front and at the rear of the motor vehicle whenever
D. look for the "key event" that cause the the motorcycle is stationary for any reason, or it is
accident compelled to stop on an area where standing or parking is
prohibited.
10. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion
a. At least at least 3 meters b. Gouge
b. At least at least 4 meters c. Paint Strips
c. At least at least 5 meters d. Furrows
d. At least at least 6 meters 17. It is the first action taken by a traffic nit to escape
from a collision course or otherwise avoid a hazard.
14. A traffic citation issued by Local Government
a. Perception of Hazard
Unit. a. TVR
b. Start of the evasive action.
b. OVR
c. Initial Contact.
c. TOP
d. Maximum Engagement
d. SOP
18. It is greatest collapse or overlap in a collision. The
15. liability as a result of civil negligence or tort or quasi force between the traffic unit and the object collided with
delict. are greatest at maximum engagement.
a. Culpa Contractual a. Initial Contact.
b. Culpa Aquiliana b. Disengagement
c. Culpa Criminal c. Key event
d. All of the above d. Nota
16. A groove made by a hard part of a motor vehicle to 19. The place and time of which the hazard could have
another car after side sweeping each other or it may be been perceived by a normal person. It precedes actual
left on a road surface by a motor vehicle which overturned perception and is the beginning of perception delay.
then slid on the road surface.
a. Perception Delay
a. Ruts
b. Point of Possible Perception

c. Point of no Escape
d. Final Position
20. It is the adjusting of speed, position on the road, and

direction of motion, giving signals of intent to turn or slow
down, or any other action in situations involving potential
hazards.
a. Strategy
b. Tactic
c. Safe Speed
d. Nota
21.
Any circumstance contributing to a result without which except

the result could not have occurred or it is an element
necessary to produce the result, but not by itself a. Economy
sufficient.
b. Engineering
a. Factor
c. Enforcement
b. Cause
d. Education
c. Attribute
e. Nota
d. Modifier.
26. Provides that where both parties are negligent but the
23. The combination of simultaneous and sequential negligent act of one is appreciably later in point of time
factors without any one of which result could not have than that of the other, or where it is impossible to
occurred. determine whose fault or negligence brought about the
occurrence of the incident.
a. Factor
a. The doctrine of right of way
b. Cause
b. The doctrine of last clear chance
c. Attribute
c. Last clear chance
d. Modifier. d. Right of way
24. Any person using a traffic way for travel, parking or

other purposes as a pedestrian or driver, including any
vehicle, or animal which he is using. 27. This principles refers to the legal or customary
precedence which allows one vehicle to cross or pass in
a. Pedestrian front of another.
b. Motorists a. The doctrine of right of way
c. Traffic users b. The doctrine of last clear chance
d. Traffic unit c. Last clear chance
25. The following are the three E’s of traffic management, d. Right of way
28. Whenever the load of any vehicle extends A. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police
_____beyond the bed or body, there shall be displayed at officer contact his superior and obtains decisions
every projecting end of such load a red flag not less than
thirty centimeters both in length and width B. stop the parade long enough to permit
the ambulance to cross the street
a. More than two meter
C. hold up the ambulance in accordance with
b. More than one meter the superior's order
c. More than two centimeter D. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest
detour which will add at least then minutes to
d. More than one centimeter run
29. In lieu of the required red flags from the question 31. A person can escape from the scene of the accident
above, there shall be displayed red lights on one of the following ground:
visible_________
A. offense committed is serious
a. at least ten meters away
B. bringing the person to your custody
b. at least thirty meters away
C. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge
c. at least fifty meters away of violation
d. at least 100 meters away D. if the person is under the imminent danger
30. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a parade 32. Before making a U-turn, make a right turn signal
has been ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross _______before you start moving to the right side of the
the route. While the parade is in progress, an ambulance road
driver on an emergency run attempts to drive his
ambulance across the route while the parade is passing. a. at least 100 m
Under these circumstances the traffic police officer should.
b. at least 100 ft.

c. at least 10 ft.
d. at least 10m
33. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more

traffic accidents than any other part in the area. The
Police unit assignment to the area should.
A. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and

wait for violators.
B. Park your motorcycle at the center of

intersection to caution motorist
C. Park near the intersection, more or less

hidden from view
D.
detain
any
person
found
using
or
D. Cruise all the assigned area but give attempting to use any of these plates.
extra attention to the intersection
34. The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned

with accidents that involves one or both of the elements 38. One of the following statements that best indicates
namely the main purpose of traffic law enforcement is
A. motor vehicles and traffic way a. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules B.
keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottleneck

B. motor vehicle and victim
C. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
C. victim and traffic way
D. victim and traffic unit D. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow
of traffic
35. Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other
than fatal to one or more persons. 39. Human errors as one of the cause of traffic congestion
is best characterized by, except:
A. non-fatal injury accident
A. Poor legislative activities
B. fatal accident
B. Slow drivers or bad driving habit
C. traffic law enforcer
C. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
D. property damage accident
D. Presence of traffic officers
36. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or
stolen automobile license plates. The best reason for this 40. The entire width between boundary lines of every way
practice is to or place of which any part is open to the use of the public
for purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter of right or
A. permit the promote issuance of new plate custom.
B. prevent cards from being stolen A. Traffic way C. Traffic units B. Road way D. Subway
C. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use 41. What is the primary aim of driver instruction
programs? A. To teach the rudiments of driving

B. To instill awareness of one’s legal and moral b. Provincial Roads
responsibilities in traffic
c. City Roads
C. To teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for
a driving license d. Municipal Roads
D. To help the learners know the basic of traffic rules and 46. Traffic lights were first introduced on______
regulations
a. Subway
42. Used when traffic enforcer observed a minor violation
b. Railway
but preoccupied at a moment.
c. Airport
A. visual warning C. verbal warning B. written warning
d. Highway
D. oral warning 43. Considered as emergency vehicle,
47. One of the world’s first electric traffic lights was
except: A. Police car on call C. Ambulance on call B. Fire
developed in 1912 in Utah, USA by _______a detective on
truck on call D. Physician’s car the city police force.
44. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes a. Wester Lire
were applied strongly, hence the wheels locked, and not
b. Lester Wire
free to rotate.
c. Lester lire
A. skid marks C. scuff marks B. key event D.
d. Wester Wire
debris
48. The first state in U.S that put up the first automatic
45. The linkages between two municipalities with right of
(three colored) lights
way from 15 meters to 60 meters.
a. Boston
a. National Roads

b. Massachusetts
c. Philadelphia
d. New York
49. A state or condition of severe road congestion arising

when continuous queues of vehicles block an entire
network of intersecting streets bringing traffic in all
directions to a complete standstill.
a. Traffic Build-up
b. Traffic Congestions
c. Traffic Jams (snarl-up)

B.
d. Gridlocks Sidewalk
50. These are conditions on road networks that occurs as C. Highway

use increases, and is characterized by slower speeds,
longer trip times and increased vehicular queueing. D. All of the above
a. Traffic Build-up 53. It is a motor vehicle with a trailer having no front axle
and so attached that part of the trailer rests upon the
b. Traffic Congestions motor vehicle and a substantial part of the weight of the
trailer and of its load is borne by the motor vehicle. Such
c. Traffic Jams (snarl-up) a trailer shall be called a “semi-trailer”.
d. Gridlocks A. Passenger Automobiles
51. It is a building in which two or more motor vehicles, B. Articulated Vehicle
either with or without drivers, are kept ready for hire to
the public, but shall not include street stands, public C. Motor Vehicle
service stations, or other public places designated by the
proper authority as parking spaces for motor vehicles for D. All of the above
hire while waiting or soliciting business.
54. All pneumatic-tire vehicles of types similar to those
A. Car outlet usually known under the following terms: touring car,
command car, speedster, sports car, roadster, jeep, cycle,
B. Garage car (except motor wheel and similar small outfits which
are classified with motorcycles), coupe, landaulet, closed
C. Parking car, limousine, cabriolet, and sedan.
A. Passenger Automobiles
D. All of the above
B. Articulated Vehicle
52. Every public thoroughfare, public boulevard, driveway,
avenue, park, alley and callejon, but shall not include C. Motor Vehicle
roadway upon grounds owned by private persons,
colleges, universities, or other similar institutions. D. All of the above
A. Street 55. In case of violation of R.A. 10930 by a driver’s license

applicant by reason of misinterpretation, connivance, twenty thousand pesos (P20,000.00)
falsification or cheating for the first time, what is the
additional penalty imposed aside from the fine? C. Revocation of the applicant’s driver’s license for a
period of four (4) years and a fine of
I. Revocation of the applicant’s driver’s license
twenty thousand pesos (P20,000.00)
II. Prohibition from applying for driver’s license for a
period of two (2) years D. Perpetual disqualification from being granted a
driver’s license and a fine oftwenty thousand pesos
III. Revocation of the applicant’s driver’s license for a (P20,000.00)
period of four (4) years
57. What is the reckoning period in counting the validity
IV. Perpetual disqualification from being granted a driver’s of a driver's license?
license
A. Date of issuance
A. I and II only
B. Date of Birth
B. II and III only
C. Date of Application
C. II and IV only
D. Date first used
D. I and III only
58. In cases of motor vehicles with 3-digits plate number,
56. In case of repetition of offense by a driver’s license the middle number being number 4,
applicant, what is the penalty imposed under R.A. 10930?
within which working days shall the motor vehicle be
A. Revocation of the applicant’s driver’s license and a fine registered?
of twenty thousand pesos
A. First week
(P20,000.00)
B. Second week
B. Prohibition from applying for driver’s license for a
period of two (2) years and a fine of C. Third week
D. Fourth week

59. A motor vehicle with plate number AAK 595 must be
registered in what month?
A. June
B. May
C. July
D. April
60. It is a device used to limit the top speed of a vehicle

through the employment of a mechanical, electronic or
communications system or the combination of these
systems or similar devices capable of performing the same
function.
A.
Speed Limiter Period by Mozi and Lu Ban, two philosophers who came
after the teachings of Confucius. The first of these were
B. Speedometer used for measuring distances, which was useful
C. Speed Limit information for moving large armies across difficult
terrain. They were also used to calculate and record wind
D. All of the above readings and provided a unique form of communication
similar to ship flags at sea.
61. The following are tests conducted in case a driver is
suspected of driving under the influence of liquor, except: A. Ancient Chinese Kites
A. Eye Test B. Baden-Powell Kites
B. Walk-and-Turn C. Da Vinci’s Ornithopter
C. One-Leg Stand D. Montgolfier Balloon
D. Question and Answer Test 64. Who are the siblings, born into a family of paper
manufacturers in France, who were able to demonstrate
62. When two vehicles approach or enter an intersection their hot-air balloon before the French King and sent a
at approximately the same time, what is the proper course sheep, a duck, and a rooster into the air? They were able
of action? to make two men make the first successful human Ascent
into the air.
A. The driver of the vehicle on the right shall yield the
right of way to the vehicle on the left A. Leonardo Da Vinci
B. Joseph-Michel and Jacques-Etienne Montgolfier
B. The driver of the vehicle on the front shall yield the
right of way to the vehicle on the back C. Monsieur Charles
C. The driver of the vehicle on the left shall yield the back D. Wright brothers
of way to the vehicle on the front
65. The first person to fly a heavier-than-air machine, a
D. The driver of the vehicle on the left shall yield full sized vehicle that could be controlled
the right of way to the vehicle on the right
by its pilot.
63. These were invented in the early Warring States
A. Wilbur Wright 68. These are highways with limited access, normally with
interchanges, and may include
B. Orville Wright
facilities for levying tolls for passage in an open or closed
C. Bishop Wright system.
D. All of the above A. National Roads
66. A Scottish engineer and later prominent in road design B. Expressways
and building in England who
C. Provincial Roads
invented the process known as macadamisation in the
construction of roads, and he made them D. All of the above
more durable. 69. These are roads directly connecting major cities of at
least around 100,000 people but do
A. KirkPatrick MacMillan
not include cities within the metropolitan areas.
B. Karl von Drais
A. National Tertiary Roads
C. John Loudon McAdam
B. National Secondary Roads
D. John Palmer
C. Expressways
67. The following are the classification of national roads,
which does not belong to the group? D. National Primary Roads
A. Primary 70. Which of the following does not fall within the road
classification, National Secondary
B. Tertiary
Roads?
C. Provincial
A. Directly Connects Cities to National Primary Rodas,
D. None of the above except in Metropolitan Areas

B. Directly Connects Major Airports to National Primary
Roads
C. Connect to Major Provincial Government

Infrastructure
D. Directly Connects Provincial Capitals within the same

Region
71. It refers to all roads that connect to Provincial and

National Roads.
A. Municipal and City Roads
B. Provincial Roads
C. Barangay Roads
D.
Nota
B. Right to know the exact alleged traffic violation
C. Right to contest within the prescribed period

72. It is defined as a manner of driving motor vehicles by
preventing crashes before they occur. D. All of the above
It is the demonstration of an attitude, awareness and E. None of the above

driving skills.
75. Which of the following is not a right of a driver during
A. Race Driving an apprehension for any traffic violation?
B. Road Rage A. Right to contest the alleged traffic violation within the
prescribed period
C. Road Courtesy
B. Right to request and see traffic mission/deployment
D. Defensive Driving order
73. These are road hazards that are permanent conditions C. Right to explain the circumstances behind the
and situations along the roadway which includes apprehension
restrictive vision areas such as curves, hills, and hidden
driveways, intersections, and merging highways. D. None of the above
A. Dynamic Hazards E. All of the above

76. This license cannot be used by the driver as authority
B. Nuisance to drive a motor vehicle even in emergencies and to be an
alternative to the driver who is not feeling well.
C. Fixed Hazards
A. Professional Driver’s License
D. All of the above
B. Conductor’s License
74. The following are the rights of a driver during an
apprehension for any traffic violation, except: C. Non-Professional Driver’s License
A. Right to know the complete name and rank of the D. All of the above
apprehending traffic officer
78. Having a driver’s license is a:
A. Constitutional Right B. Breath Analyzer
B. Statutory Right C. Chemical Test
C. Privilege D. All of the above
D. None of the above 82. It is equipment that can determine the blood alcohol
concentration level of a person through
79. Green light at an intersection means:
testing of his breath.
A. Pedestrians are not allowed to cross the
pedestrian lanes A. Field Sobriety Test
B. Stop at the designated line B. Breath Analyzer
C. Proceed through the intersection with caution C. Chemical Test
D. Stop and yield to pedestrians D. All of the above
80. A “crossbuck” sign means that you are approaching 83. It refers to breath, saliva, urine, or blood tests to
determine the blood alcohol concentration level and/or
a: A. Railway Crossing positive indication of dangerous drugs and similar
substances in a person’s body.
B. Intersection
A. Field Sobriety Test
C. Dangerous Highways
B. Breath Analyzer
D. None of the above
C. Chemical Test
81. It refers to the standardized tests to initially assess
and determine intoxication of drivers. D. All of the above
A. Field Sobriety Test

84. If the driver drives a private motor vehicle with a
gross vehicle weight not exceeding 4,500 kg, what is the
minimum BAC level required by law to be conclusive proof
that said driver is driving under the influence of alcohol?
A. 0.05%
B. 0.50%
C. 5%
D. 50%
85. If a driver drives a truck, what is the BAC level

required in order to constitute as a conclusive proof that
said driver is driving under the influence of alcohol?
A. B.
More than 0.05% Expired Driver’s License
B. More than 0.50% C. Revoked Driver’s License
C. More than 0.0% D. Suspended Driver’s License
D. None of the above 89. It is an assault provoked by an incident that occurred

on a roadway where there is an aggressive driver and a
86. It is the organization, arrangement, guidance, and victim.
control of both stationary and moving traffic, including
pedestrians, bicyclists, and all types of vehicles. A. Road Rage
A. Traffic Education B. Direct Assault
B. Traffic Engineering C. Reckless Driving
C. Traffic Enforcement D. Hit and Run
D. Traffic Management 90. The traffic sign that warns drivers of the presence of
school children within the vicinity.
87. It is a driver’s license that may allow a driver to
operate any vehicle except a public utility A. Octagon
vehicle and without compensation. B. Nonagon

C. Pentagon
A. Professional Driver’s License
D. Hexagon
B. Non-Professional Driver’s License
91. What hand signal must a driver give when he wants to
C. Student Permit stop?
D. Conductor’s License A. Left arm held down and hand pointing at the
ground
88. It is an expired driver’s license not renewed for more
than two (2) years after the expiry date. B. Left arm bent at elbow, hand point up
A. Delinquent Driver’s License C. Left arm held straight horizontally
D. All of the above C. Photograph the traffic accident scene
92. What hand signal must a driver give when he wants to D. Notify the police station upon arrival at the
turn left? scene
A. Left arm held down and hand pointing at the ground 95. This is also known as the Land Transportation and
Traffic Code.
B. Left arm bent at elbow, hand point up
A. Republic Act No. 4136
C. Left arm held straight horizontally
B. Republic Act No. 6374
D. All of the above
C. Republic Act No. 10586
93. In traffic direction and control, when both traffic lights
and law enforcer are directing traffic, D. Republic Act No. 10913
which will the driver follow to avoid confusion? 96. It is the movement of goods and persons from place
to place and the various means by which such movement
A. Traffic Light is accomplished.
B. Traffic Law A. Traffic
C. Traffic Enforcer B. Transportation
D. None of the above C. Movement
94. What should a police officer do first and foremost D. None of the above
upon arrival at the traffic accident scene?
97. It is a vehicle propelled by any power other than
A. Cordon the area muscular power using the public highways,
B. Identify the drivers but accepting road rollers, trolley cars, street-sweepers,
sprinklers, lawnmowers, bulldozers,

graders, forklifts, amphibian trucks, and cranes if not
used on public highways, vehicles which
run only on rails or tracks, and tractors, trailers and

traction engines of all kinds used exclusively
for agricultural purposes.
C. Motor Vehicle
D. All of the above

98. It is a motor vehicle with a trailer having no front axle 100. Every and any driver hired or paid for driving or
and so attached that part of the trailer operating a motor vehicle, whether for privateuse or for
hire to the public.
rests upon the motor vehicle and a substantial part of the
weight of the trailer and of its load is A. Owner
borne by the motor vehicle. Such a trailer shall be called a B. Professional Driver
“semi-trailer”.
C. Dealer
D. All of the above
C. Motor Vehicle
FIRE PROTECTION AND ARSON INVESTIGATION
D. All of the above
1. Government’s office mandated by RA 6975 to suppress
99. All pneumatic-tire vehicles of types similar to those destructive fires, implements the fire code and
usually known under the following terms: investigates all fires cases in the Philippines
touring car, command car, speedster, sports car, roadster, a. BFP c. BJMP
jeep, cycle, car (except motor wheel
b. PNP d. Bureau of Fire in the Phillippines
and similar small outfits which are classified with
motorcycles), coupe, landaulet, closed car, 2. Product of combustion which combustible materials and
oxidizing agents react to heat.
limousine, cabriolet, and sedan.
a. Fire c. Smoke
A. Passenger Automobiles b. Fire Gases d. Flame 3. Means employed to avoid the
B. Articulated Vehicle occurrence of fire. a. Fire Suppression c. Fire Inspection
C. Motor Vehicle b. Fire Control d. Fire prevention 4. Fires involving
D. All of the above flammable liquids.

a. Class C c. Class D 9. Means employed to pacify the fire.
a. Fire prevention c. Fire control

b. Class B d. Class A 5. Caused by volcanic
b. Fire safety d. Fire suppression
eruption or humidity.
a. Providential fire c. Unnatural fire b. Intentional

10. Rate of temperature of fire.
fire d. Accidental fire
a. Heat c. Magnitude
b. Intensity d. Ignition point

6. Fire stage that has the highest rate of
intensity. a. Incipient c. Smoldering b. Free

11. It is performed to assess the safety of an installation
burning d. Initial from destructive fires.
a. Fire control c. Fire prevention b. Fire safety d. Fire
7. Decomposition of matter in reaction to heat. inspection
a. Thermal balance c. Burning b. Oxidation d.
Pyrolysis 12. It refers to the size of fire which is determined by the

size of flame and the area of fuel that is burning.
a. Temperature c. Intensity
8. Composed of tiny solid particles.
b. Heat d. Magnitude
a. Fire gases c. Smoke
13. Which of the following will not cause the investigator
b. Flames d. Heat to hypothesize that the series of fires are not performed
by a serial arsonist?

a. There is a significant difference in modus
operandi in all series of fire
b. There is significant variations as to the time of the

commission of arson
c. There is a significant similarity in manner of commission

of offense
d. Similar devices were used to propagate the fire
14. They are liquids having a flash point of 37.8 °C

(100°F) and a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 psia.
a. Flammable liquids
b. Combustible Liquids
b.
c. Corrosive liquid Combustion
d. All of the above c. Spontaneous Combustion
15. A gas in which at all normal temperature inside its d. Fire

container; exist solely in the gaseous state under
pressure. 18. A flame when there is complete combustion of fuel
and has relatively high temperature. It does not deposit
a. Liquefied Gas soot because it is a product of complete combustion
b. Compressed Gas a. Luminous Flame
c. Cryogenic Gas b. Non-Luminous Flame
d. Nota c. Premixed Flame
16. a liquefied gas which exists in its container at d. Diffusion Flame

temperature far below normal atmospheric temperature,
usually slightly above its boiling point and correspondingly 19. This flame is exemplified by a Bunsen-type laboratory
low to moderate pressure. burner where hydrocarbon is thoroughly mixed with air
before reaching the flame zone.
a. Liquefied Gas
a. Luminous Flame
b. Compressed Gas
b. Non-Luminous Flame
c. Cryogenic Gas c. Premixed Flame
d. Nota d. Diffusion Flame
17. It is a phenomena in which a combustible materials 20. Describes the period when the four elements of the
generates or produces heat because of internal chemical fire tetrahedron come together and combustion begins.
action (oxidation) and eventually ignites without any
exposure to external sources of fire, spark or abnormal a. IGNITION
heat. b. GROWTH
a. Pyrolysis c. FLASHOVER
d. FULLY-DEVELOPED d. nota
21. As the fire consumes the available fuel in the 24. The minimum temperature to which the substance in
compartment, the rate of heat released begins to decline. the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause self
contained combustion without addition of heat from
a. DECAY outside sources
b. FULLY-DEVELOPED a. Temperature
c. FLASHOVER b. Ignition temperature
d. Nota c. Boiling Point
22. The force exerted by the molecules on the surface of d. Nota
the liquid at the equilibrium
25. The temperature at which the material will give off
a. Specific gravity ample vapors to keep burning
b. Vapor density a. Temperature
c. Vapor pressure b. Ignition temperature
d. nota c. Boiling Point
23. The weight of volume of pure gas compared to weight d. Nota
of a volume of dry air at the same temperature and
pressure 26. These are changes whereby energy is absorbed or is
added before the reaction takes place
a. Specific gravity
a. Exothermic reaction
b. Vapor density
b. Endothermic reaction
c. Vapor pressure
c. Oxidation

d. Combustion or flame
27. A lightning that is shorter in duration, capable of

splintering a property or literally blowing apart an entire
structure, produces electrical current with tremendous
amperage and very high temperature
a. Hot Bolt
b. Cold Bolt
c. Lightning
d. Bolt east five

28. A form of static electricity; a natural current with a fire investigator in determining the exact point where the
great magnitude, producing tremendous amperage and fire originated.
voltage.
a. Thermal Balance
a. Hot Bolt
b. Thermal imbalance
b. Cold Bolt
c. Backdraft
c. Lightning
d. Biteback
d. Bolt east five
32. A fatal condition that takes place when the fire resists
29. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate extinguishment operations and become stronger and
flame propagation. bigger instead.
a. Accelerant a. Thermal Balance
b. Plant b. Thermal imbalance
c. Trailer c. Backdraft
d. Nota d. Biteback
30. The preparation of flammable substances in order to 33. Better known as dust explosion. This may happen
spread the fire. when the metal post that is completely covered with dust
is going to be hit by lightning.
a. Accelerant
a. Flash fire
b. Plant b. Flashmob
c. Trailer c. Flashlight
d. Nota d. Flash amber
e. Nota
31. Is the abnormal movement of fire and confuses the 34. This activity involves developing and defining
systematic course of actions that maybe performed in 37. This the activity of transferring people, livestock, and
order to realize the objectives of fire protection: involves property away from the burning area to minimize damage
the process of establishing the SOP in case fire breaks or destruction that the fire might incur in case it
out. propagates to other adjacent buildings.
a. PRE-FIRE PLANNING a. SALVAGE
b. EVALUATION – SIZE – UP b. RESCUE
c. EVACUATION c. EVACUATION
d. ENTRY d. Nota
35. Any action taken by the firefighters to remove 38. This is the activity of restricting the fire at the place
occupants/ persons from building/ hazards to a safety (room) where it started : the process of preventing fire
place from extending from another section or form one section
to another section of the involved building.
a. SALVAGE
a. EXPOSURE
b. RESCUE
b. CONFINEMENT
c. EVACUATION
c. ABATEMENT
d. Nota
d. FIRE PROTECTION
36. The activity of protecting the properties from
preventable damage other than the fire. 39. A method whereby a device such as smoke ejector is
utilized to remove faster excessive heat and dense smoke
a. SALVAGE
a. Vertical ventilation
b. RESCUE
b. Cross or horizontal ventilation
c. EVACUATION
c. Mechanical force ventilation
d. Nota
d. NOTA

41. Shall have the full responsibility and power to
investigate fire incidents with a total amount of damage
not exceeding to thirty million pesos.
a. Municipal Fire Marshal
b. City Fire Marshal
c. District Fire Marshal Level
d. Provincial Fire Marshal

42. The Chief, BFP or his/her duly authorized c. Summary abatement
representative shall issue notice/order to owner to comply
upon the report that a violation of RA 9514 regulations is d. Abatement
being committed, the period within which compliance shall

be effected, which shall be_____ 45. If the assessed value of the nuisance or the amount to
be spent in abating the same is more than One hundred
a. Within 15 days to 30 days after the receipt of the thousand pesos (P100,000.00), the owner, administrator
notice or occupant thereof shall abate the hazard within ______
b. Within 10 to 15 days after the receipt of the a. 10 days

notice
b. 15 days
c. Within 30 days to 1 month after the receipt of the
notice c. 30 days
d. Within 1 month after the receipt of the notice d. 60 days
43. Any building or structure causing clear and present 46. If the owner, administrator or occupant fails to
imminent fire danger to adjoining establishments and reimburse the government of the expenses incurred in the
habitations shall be declared ____ summary abatement within ________from the completion
of such abatement, the building or structure shall be sold
a. Firetrap at public auction.
b. public nuisance a. 60 days
c. Danger b. 90 days
d. Closed c. 120 days

d. 180 days
44. Failure to abate such nuisance by the owner, the Chief
BFP or his/her duly authorized representative shall 47. The process of first raising the temperature in
forthwith cause its____ separate the more volatile from the less volatile parts and
then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to
a. Demolition produce a nearly purified substance.
b. Bidding
a. Distillation a. Latent heat
b. Refining b. Specific Heat
c. Smelting c. Absorbed heat
d. Nota d. Heat
48. The heat capacity or the measure of the amount of 51. If the investigator did not found any trace of
heat required raising the temperature of a unit mass of a incendiarism, which of the following will be the
substance one-degree assumption?
a. Latent heat a. The fire was intentional c. The fire was providential
b. Specific Heat b. The fire was accidental d. The fire was not
accidental
c. Absorbed heat
52. System of interconnected pipe that supplies water for
d. Heat fire suppression system in a particular installation.
49. The change of fuel from solid to gas a. Wet pipe c. Stand pipe b. Dry pipe d. Sprinkler
a. VAPORIZATION
53. Product of fire that is detected by gas chromatogram
b. SUBLIMATION and ion spectrometer.
c. VAPORIZATION a. Flames c. Soot
d. CONDENSATION b. Heat d. Fire gases
e. PRECIPITATION 54. To point out the difference between the incendiary

cause of fire and natural cause the fire investigator must
50. The amount of heat to produce a change of phase is photograph the natural fire pattern and:
called____
a. Arson fire pattern c. Providential fire pattern

b. Accidental fire pattern d. Suspicious fire pattern
55. Most arson cases are proved by__________________

evidence rather than that direct evidence.
a. Circumstantial c. Testimonial
b. Documentary d. Physical
56. To establish the prima facie evidence of arson, the

total insurance carried on the building and/or goals is
more than ________ of the value of such building and/or
goods at the time of the fire.
a.
60% c. 80% b. 50% d. 90%

c. Intense charring of the whole body
57. When carbon monoxide is absent in the blood of the
dead body found in a burned structure, this will be a d. None of the above
strong circumstantial evidence that the person:
61. When fire occurred, the first action upon discovery is:
a. Was dead when the fire began
a. Run for life c. Pack up personal belongings
b. Was killed by someone else during the blaze
b. Raise the alarm d. Call an ambulance
c. Was still alive before the fire
62. It is any substance that ignites spontaneously when
d. Died due to suffocation exposed to air.
58. A popular chemical element used by the arsonist to A. Pyrophoric

hide the odor of flammable liquids.
B. Flammable Liquid
a. Sulfides c. Sulfur b. Nitrates d. Ammonia
C. Combustible Gas
59. It is used to include not only architects responsible for D. None of the above
the design and erection of a complete building but also 63. These are liquids having a flashpoint below thirty
the various specialist engineers who may be concerned seven and eight-tenths degrees Celsius
with the structure, the electrical installation, the heating
ventilation system and so on. (37.8 ० C).
a. Building contractors c. Office of building permits
A. Class I Solvents
b. Designers d. Building planners
B. Class II Solvents
60. Which of the following shall cause the investigator to
C. Class IIIA Solvents
assume that the victim died of direct contact with flame?
D. Class IIIB Solvents
a. Presence of soot and fire gases at respiratory tract b.
E. Class IV Solvents
Prominence of trauma that is probably caused by a stab
64. He/she conducts site verification and inspection on A. Fire Point
buildings under construction to determine
B. Flash Over
compliance with the approved plans and specifications.
C. Backdraft
A. Building permit inspector
D. Flameover
B. Fire safety inspector
67. It is a process in which a material increases in
C. Plan evaluator temperature without drawing heat from the
D. None of the above surrounding area.
65. Those of such low combustibility that no self A. Spontaneous Combustion

propagating fire therein can occur and that,
B. Spontaneous Heating
consequently, the only probable danger requiring the use
C. Spontaneous Vaporization
of emergency exits will be from panic,
fumes or smoke or fire from some external source.
A. High Standard 68. It is a natural phenomenon where the fire attains such
intensity that it creates and sustains
B. Moderate Hazard
its own wind system.
C. Low Hazard
A. Fire Ball
B. Fire Storm
66. It is the point at which a flame propagates across the
C. Roll Over
undersurface of a thermal layer.
D. Mushrooming

69. It is an assembly of two or more ladder sections that
fit together and can be extended or
retracted to adjust the length of the ladder.
A. Combination ladder
B. Extension ladder
C. Fresno ladder
D. Folding ladder
70. It is a narrow, two-section extension ladder designed

to provide attic access.
A. Combination ladder
B. C.
Extension ladder Other Cases of Arson
C. Fresno ladder D. None of the above
D. Folding ladder 74. It is a motive in arson characterized by social,

political, or religious causes.
71. It is a device used to compress a fire hose so as to
stop water flow. A. Excitement
A. Hose Jacket B. Vandalism
B. Hose Liner C. Crime Concealment
C. Hose Clamp D. Extremism
D. Hose Roller 75. It is a piece of metal or an electrical conductor used

to bypass a safety device in an electrical
72. It is a device used to stop leaks in a fire hose or to
joint hoses that have damaged couplings. system.
A. Hose Jacket A. Jumper
B. Hose Liner B. Damper
C. Hose Clamp C. Hose Box

D. Smelting
D. Hose Roller
73. The act of burning any archive, museum, whether

public or private or any edifice devoted to 76. It is a normally open device installed inside an air duct
system which automatically closes to
culture, education, or social services shall be prosecuted
as: restrict the passage of smoke or fire.
A. Destructive Arson A. Jumper
B. Simple Arson B. Damper

C. Hose Box C. Inflammable
D. Smelting D. all of the above
77. It is any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and 80. It is a building unsafe in case of fire because it will
oxidizer used to set off explosives. burn easily or because it lacks adequate
A. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose exits or fire escapes.
B. Blasting Agent A. Duct System
C. Combustible Fiber B. Electrical Arc
D. Corrosive Liquid C. Curtain Board
78. It is any plastic substance, materials or compound D. Fire Trap

having cellulose nitrate (nitro cellulose)
as base.
81. It is a finely powdered substance which, when mixed
A. Cellulose Nitrate or Nitro Cellulose with air in the proper proportion and
B. Blasting Agent ignited will cause an explosion.
C. Combustible Fiber A. Dust
D. Corrosive Liquid B. soot
79. It is descriptive of materials that are easily set on C. ash
fire. A. Combustible D. smoke
B. Flammable 82. These are materials used as the final coating of a

surface for ornamental or protective

purposes.
A. Finishes
B. Fire Alarm
C. Fire Door
D. Fire wall
83. It is a fire resistive door prescribed for openings in fire

separation walls or partitions.
A. Finishes
B. Fire Alarm
C.
Fire Door designed to achieve, among others, safe and rapid

evacuation of people through means of egress sealed
D. Fire Hazard from smoke or fire, the confinement of fire or smoke in
84. It is any device intended for the protection of the room or floor of origin and delay their spread to other
buildings or persons to include but not limited parts of the building by means of smoke sealed and fire-
resistant
to built-in protection system such as sprinklers and other doors, walls and floors.
automatic extinguishing system,
A. Fire Lane
detectors for heat, smoke, and combustion products and
other warning system components, B. Fire Safety Constructions
personal protective equipment such as fire blankets, C. Fire Protective And Fire Safety Device
helmets, fire suits, gloves and other D. Hypergolic Fuel
garments that may be put or worn by persons to protect 86. It is the proportion of a roadway or public way that
themselves during fire. should be kept open and unobstructed at
A. Fire Lane all times for the expedient operation of firefighting units.
B. Fire Safety Constructions A. Fire Lane
C. Fire Protective And Fire Safety Device
B. Forcing
D. Hypergolic Fuel
C. Fulminate
D. Hypergolic Fuel
85. It refers to the design and installation of walls, 87. It is a kind of a stable explosive compound which
barriers, doors, windows, vents, means of egress, etc. explodes by percussion.
integral to and incorporated into a building or structure in
A. Fire Lane
order to minimize danger to life from fire, smoke, fumes
or panic before the building is evacuated. These features B. Forcing
are also
C. Fulminate area protected even without human intervention.
D. Hypergolic Fuel A. Automotive Service Station
88. It is a rocket or liquid propellant which consists of B. Automatic Fire Suppression System (AFSS)
combinations of fuels and oxidizers which
C. City/Municipal Fire Marshal (C/MFM)
ignite spontaneously on contact with each other.
A. Fire Lane
91. It is an assembly of equipment, such as oxygen
B. Forcing storage containers, pressure regulators,
C. Fulminate safety devices, vaporizers, manifolds and interconnecting

piping, for supplying a regulated flow
D. Hypergolic Fuel
of oxygen to a pipeline.
89. It is a place where flight operations (takeoff, landing
and maintenance of civil aircrafts) can A. Brush
take place. B. Cellulose Nitrate/ Nitrocellulose
A. Aerodrome C. Blasting Agent
B. Aircraft D. Bulk Oxygen System
C. Airport 92. Chemical decomposition of matter through the action

of heat.
D. Airfoil
a. Flash over c. Ignition
90. It is an integrated system of underground or overhead
piping connected to a source of extinguishing agent or b. Pyrolysis d. Combustion
medium, designed in accordance with fire protection
engineering standards to include, but not limited to 93. As the product of combustion rises in a building or
Automatic Fire Sprinkler System which when actuated by flows out of an opening an equal volume of air replaces
its automatic detecting device suppresses fire within the them. If during extinguishments, water is distributed in

such a manner as to upset the thermal balance, a
condition will appear known as:
a. Explosion of steam c. Thermal imbalance
b. Thermostat c. Sudden burst of fire
94. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends

from floor to floor as well as from the base to the top of
the building?
A. vertical shaft C. standpipe B. sprinkler
system D. flash point

95.
Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers b. Jessie committed malicious mischief but is exempt from
through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer is: criminal liability
A. conduction C. combustion B. radiation D. c. Jessie committed arson and is criminally liable
convection d. Jessie committed arson but is exempt from criminal

liability under Article 332 of the Revised Penal Code
96. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam
where rungs are connected horizontally to the beam VICE AND DRUG EDUCATION AND CONTROL
forming ascent or descent?
1. The noun "drug" is thought to originate from DROGE
A. rope C. hydrant B. ladder D. nozzle VATE which means ____
97. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known a. dry substance

as:
b. dry barrels
A. heel C. butt
c. Poison
B. bed ladder D. fly ladder
d. Nota
98. What type of ladder is best suited for firefighting 2. Any chemical substance, other than food, which is
operation involving high-rise building? intended for used in the diagnosis, treatment, cure,
mitigation or prevention of disease or symptoms.
A. attic C. extension B. aerial D. hook 99. It refers
a. Drugs
to the law on arson.
b. Dangerous drugs
a. PD 1612 c. Revised Penal Code b. PD 1613 d. RA
c. Prescription drugs
7659
d. Over the counter drugs
100. Jessie is the step father of Jean. One day, Jessie and
3. Example of this are Raw Opium, Marijuana, Coca Bush.
Jean quarreled. Because of anger, Jessie put the clothes
of Jean in a luggage and burned them. a. Synthetic Drugs
a. Jessie committed malicious mischief and is liable b. Natural Drugs
c. HERBAL DRUGS a. TOXIC DOSE
d. Nota b. LETHAL DOSE
4. Are commercially produced drugs that may be c. ABUSIVE DOSE

purchased legally without prescription. These drugs are
also known as "propriety drugs". d. MAXIMAL DOSE
a. Synthetic Drugs 7. Drug is administered by injecting the drug just below

the surface of the skin; this is sometimes called “skin
b. HERBAL DRUGS popping.”
c. OVER-THE-COUNTER DRUGS a. INJECTION
d. PRESCRIPTION DRUGS b. Subcutaneous
5. largest amount of a drug that will produce a desired c. Intramuscular

therapeutic effect, without any accompanying symptoms
of toxicity. d. Intravenous
a. TOXIC DOSE 8. The most efficient means of administration which

involves depositing drug directly into the bloodstream, this
b. LETHAL DOSE is also the most rapid method of drug administration.
c. ABUSIVE DOSE a. INJECTION
d. MAXIMAL DOSE b. Subcutaneous
6. Amount needed to produce the side effects and action c. Intramuscular

desired by an individual who improperly uses.\
d. Intravenous

9. Drug in gaseous form enter the lungs and are quickly
absorbed by the rich capillary system, it is probably the
second most commonly used route of drug administration
a. ORAL INGESTION
b. INHALATION
c. SNORTING
d. BUCCAL
10. Drugs that control or combat allergic reactions.
a. Analgesics
b. Antipyretics
d.
c. Antihistamines Hippies
d. Antibiotics 14. This is the most prevalent factor that prompt pushers
and abusers alike to indulge in dangerous drugs.
a. POVERTY
11. Drugs that stimulate defecation and encourage bowel
movement. b. IGNORANCE
a. Decongestants c. PARENTAL INFLUENCES
b. Expectorants d. PEER INFLUENCES
c. Laxatives 15. Occurs when the body becomes accustomed to a drug

as the drug is repeatedly taken in the same dose.
d. Nota
a. Addiction
12. Those who are addicted to drugs believing that drug
is an integral part of life. b. Tolerance
a. Situational Users c. Habituation
b. Spree Users d. All of the above

16. A person believes that the drug is needed to function
c. Hard Core Addicts at work or home because drugs often produce an elated/
excited emotional state.
d. Hippies
a. Addiction
13. Those whose activities revolve almost entirely around
the drug experience and securing supplies. They show b. Tolerance
strong psychological dependence on the drug.
c. Habituation
a. Situational Users
d. All of the above
b. Spree Users
17. In Southeast Asia the “Golden Triangle” approximately
c. Hard Core Addicts produced how many percent of opium in the world?
a. 50 d. Philippines
b. 60 20. Known as the drug paradise of drug abusers in Asia
c. 70 a. CHINA
d. 80 b. INDIA
e. 90 c. PHILIPPINES
18. Considered as the green triangle of the d. MIDDLE EAST
Philippines a. BENGUET, KALINGA APAYAO and 21. It is known in the world to be the number one
producer of marijuana.
BAGUIO
a. MEXICO
b. BENGUET, KALINGA APAYAO and MT.
PROVINCE b. PHILIPPINES
c. TUGUEGARAO, KALINGA APAYAO and MT. c. SOUTH AMERICA

PROVINCE
d. CHINA
d. NOTA
22. The center of the world's drug map, leading to rapid
19. This is known as the major transshipment point from addiction among its people.
international drug traffickers in Europe and became “the
paradise of drug users” in Europe. a. CHINA
a. MIDDLE EAST b. INDIA
b. Spain c. PHILIPPINES
c. South America d. MIDDLE EAST

23. Also known as “downers”, are drugs which act on and
depresses the central nervous system causing initial
relaxation leading to drowsiness and sleep.
a. DEPRESSANTS
b. STIMULANTS
c. HALLUCINOGENS
d. NARCOTICS
24. Also known as Diacetylmorphine
a. HEROIN
b. CODEINE
a.
c. METHADONE Marijuana
d. MORPHINE b. Coca bush
25. It is one of the strongest short acting stimulants that c. Cannabis Sativa
only lasts 15-20 minutes.
d. Peyote Cactus
a. COCAINE
29. Believed to be the oldest cultivated plant.
b. AMPHETAMINES
a. Psilocybe Mexicana
c. Methamphetamine
b. Coca bush
d. METHYLENEDIOXYMETHAMPHETAMINE
c. Cannabis Sativa L.
26. Who introduced the first medicinal use of cocaine as
authentic agent? d. Peyote Cactus
a. Albert Newman 30. They are the permanent consultant of DDB.
b. Alexander Bennet a. IBP president and PNP chief
c. ALBERT HOFFMAN b. IBP president and chairman of NGO
d. FRIEDRICH SERTURNER c. Director of NBI and Pres of IBP

d. NBI director and Police General
27. Morphine is the most important alkaloids and
constitutes about______ 31. The two regular members of DDB
a. 15% of the use raw opium. a. IBP president and PNP chief
b. 10 % of the use raw opium. b. IBP president and chairman of NGO
c. 5 % of the use raw opium. c. Director of NBI and Pres of IBP
d. 12 % of the use raw opium. d. NBI director and Police General
28. Considered as the divine plant. 32. The three permanent members of DDB must have at
least how many years of training and experience in the d. 2 days
field of law, medicine, criminology, psychology or social
work? 35. Authorized drug testing shall employ, among others,
how many method/s of testing?
a. 5 years
a. 1
b. 7 years
b. 2
c. 8 years
c. 3
d. 10 years
d. 4
33. Upon confiscation or seizure of drugs, it shall undergo
quantitative and qualitative examination within how many 36. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for
day/s? the first time shall be punished with:
a. 24 hours A. Imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years B.
b. 1 day Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months C.
c. 48 hours Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
d. 2 days D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months
34. After filling of criminal case, court shall conduct ocular 37. Possession of 10g marijuana resin oil shall be
inspection within how many hours? punished with_____
a. 72 hours a. Life imprisonment and a fine of 500k – 10

million
b. 3 days
b. 20 years and 1 day to life imprisonment and a fine
c. 24 hours of 400k – 500k

c. 20 years and 1 day to 40 years and a fine of 400k
– 500k
d. Reclusion temporal and a fine of 300k – 400k
38. Prescribing by any practitioner authorized by law any

dangerous drug to any person whose physical or
physiological condition does not require the use or in the
dosage prescribed therein.
a. Unlawful Prescription of Dangerous Drugs
b. Unnecessary Prescription of Dangerous

Drugs
c. Improper Prescription of Dangerous Drugs 42. In drug cases, the information shall be filed within
d. Illegal Prescription of Dangerous Drugs how many days by the MTC judge who conduct
preliminary investigation to the proper prosecutor?
39. Any person, who, unless authorized by law, shall
make or issue a prescription or any other writing a. 24 hours
purporting to be a prescription for any dangerous drug
b. 24 days
shall be liable with ___
c. 2 days
a. Unlawful Prescription of Dangerous Drugs
d. 48 hours
b. Unnecessary Prescription of Dangerous Drugs c.
Improper Prescription of Dangerous Drugs d. Illegal 43. It is an analytical test using a devise, tool or
equipment with a different chemical or physical principle
Prescription of Dangerous Drugs that is more specific which will validate the initial result:
40. Who shall designate special courts from among the a. validity test C. confirmatory test
existing RTC in each judicial region to exclusively try and
b. screening test D. preliminary test
hear cases involving violation of RA 9165.
44. Any person found in possession of _____ grams of
a. DOJ
cocaine shall be punished with an imprisonment of twelve
b. Supreme court years and one day to twenty years:
a. More than 5 C. more than 10
c. Judicial Branch of the government
b. Less than 5 D. less than 10
d. Executive branch of the government
45. He was the first who made reports about plant
41. National campaign strategy against illegal drugs, focus peyote. He was the first to describe the eating of parts of
of which is through law enforcement, prosecution and Peyote Cactus and resulting visions and mental changes.
judicial actions.
a. King Legaspi of Spain
a. Demand reduction c. Inter agency coordination
b. Dr. Francisco Hernandez
b. Supply reduction d. International cooperation
c. Akira Ogata a. CALL GIRLS
d. Nagai Nagayoshi b. HUSTLER
46. These are the part-time prostitutes. They have their c. DOOR KNOCKER
own legitimate work or profession but works as a
prostitutes to supplement their income d. FACTORY GIRLS
a. CALL GIRLS 49. Degree of intoxication where The mind is confused,

behavior is irregular and the movement is uncontrolled.
b. HUSTLER The speech is thick and the behavior is uncontrollable
c. DOOR KNOCKER a. Moderate Inebriation
d. FACTORY GIRLS b. Drunk
47. Usually operated by an experienced “madam” who c. Very Drunk

rent rooms to legitimate roomers in order to maintain an
appearance of responsibility Purposely, the madam leaves d. Coma
several rooms not rented to legitimate roomers for ready
50. This method of control and prevention of prostitution
use of the prostitution.
maintains the idea that we cannot do away with
a. DISORDERLY HOUSES prostitution unless we consider the problems and remove
the causes of prostitution.
b. FURNISHED ROOM HOUSE
a. THE SCHOOL OF REGULATORY CONTROL
c. FACTORY
b. THE SCHOOL OF TOTAL REPRESSION
d. MASSAGE CLINICS
c. All of the above
48. This is the occasional or selective type of prostitute.
She is usually a newcomer in the business. d. Nota

51. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a group of "designer"
drugs closely related in chemical form to the amphetamine
family of illicit drugs. Its scientific name is:
a. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride c.
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
b. Papaver somniferum d. Cannabis sativa
52. A laboratory examination is only required to

apprehended offender within 24 hours if the person
arrested has:
A.
Visible manifestation that suspect was under the A. Probable cause that the possessor has smoked,
influence of drugs consumed, administered to himself/herself, injected,
ingested or used a dangerous drug and shall be presumed
B. Physical sign of drug abuse to have violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of
dangerous drugs
C. Symptoms of Drug abuse
B. Prima facie evidence that the possessor has
D. All of the above
smoked, consumed, administered to
53. Known as the “Father of Medicine” . He prescribed himself/herself, injected, ingested or used a
opium poppy juice in surgery which was cultivated by the dangerous drug and shall be presumed to have
Summerrians during 7000 BC. violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of
dangerous drugs
a. Hippocrates c.
Confucious C. Conclusive evidence that the possessor has smoked,
consumed, administered to himself/herself, injected,
b. Morpreus d. Socrates ingested or used a dangerous drug and shall be presumed
to have violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of
54. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading of opium
dangerous drugs
in China by the British Indies that lead to the Opium War
of 1840. D. Circumstantial evidence that the possessor has
smoked, consumed, administered to himself/herself,
A. Lao Tzu C. Yung Chen B. Sun Tzu D. Mao Zedong
injected, ingested or used a dangerous drug and shall be
55. Considered as the most powerful natural stimulant. presumed
to have violated Section 15 of R.A. 9165 as to the use of
A. Tetrahydrocannabinnol C. dangerous drugs
Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
B. Cocaine hydrochloride D.
57. What will be the disposition in a case where minor is
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
convicted for the possession of dangerous drugs?
56. The possession of equipment, instrument, apparatus
A. Judgment will be suspended C. Sentence will be
and other paraphernalia fit or intended for any of the
suspended
purposes enumerated under R.A. 9165 shall be:
B. Turn-over to DSWD D. None of the above B. Disguised operation D. Confidential
58. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for 61. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered
the first time shall be punished with: as the mother drugs of other narcotics substance.
A. Imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years B. A. Codeine C. Morphine B. Heroin D. Opium Poppy
Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months C. 62. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing
according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT.
Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
A. Officers and Employee of public and private
D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months offices.
B. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry

59. What drug classification are solvents, paints and firearms outside residence.
gasoline which are examples of substances that are
C. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other
sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?
law enforcement agencies.
A. Depressants C. Energizers
D. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with
B. Tranquilizers D. Inhalants a criminal offense having an imposable penalty of not less
than six (6) years and one (1) days.
60. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made
secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. Various
techniques were made by its operator in concealing their 63. White crystalline powder with very bitter numbering
activities. taste and said to be one of the strongest derivatives of
A. Hide –out operation C. Clandestine Operation Opium poppy.
A. Morphine C. Codeine B. Heroin D. Cocaine

64. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of a. The Golden Crescent c. Hongkong b. The Golden
which leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of
the minds and body. Triangle d. Silver Triangle 66. Transhipment point of all
A. Prostitution C. Drug addiction B. Gambling D. Vice forms of heroin in the world. a. Japan c. Philippines b.
65. Cocaine is
from South
America; ivory
white heroin is
from;
Hongkong d. Burma b. The DDB cause the filing of the appropriate
civil action for violation of RA 9165 while the PDEA takes
67. Cocaine has originated from Columbia; Shabu care to criminal aspects
originated from:
c. The DDB promulgates rules and
a. Japan c. Mexico b. China d. India regulations related to drugs which are usually
implemented by PDEA
68. The Golden Triangle is controlled by the Triad; the

Colombian and Peruvian drug trafficking was controlled d. . The DDB is the implementing arm of the
by: PDEA in the enforcement of the prohibitory provisions of
RA 9165
a. The Mafia c. Medellin Cartel b. La Cosa Nostra d.
72. Who shall handle the prosecution of drug related
Chinese Mafia cases?
69. Principal source of all forms of cocaine a. Public Attorney’s Office
a. South East Asia c. Middle East b. Ombudsman
b. South America d. South West Asia c. National Prosecution Service

d. Special Prosecutor designated by the
70. The major transshipment point for international drug DOJ
traffickers in Europe and known to be the “Paradise of
Drug Users” in this continent 73. What court has the jurisdiction to hear and try drug
cases?
a. Portugal c. Germany b. Spain d. Turkey
a. Heinous Crime Court designated by the SC
among the existing RTC
b. Special Court designated by the SC

71. Which of the following is not untrue? c. Sandiganbayan
a. The DDB shall have the custody of all d. Special Court designated by the SC
dangerous drugs confiscated among the existing RTC
74. Samples of the seized dangerous drugs shall be Chinese Mafia
destroyed_________ after the promulgation of judgment.
79. Principal source of all forms of cocaine
a. 2 days c. 24 hours b. 1 day d. 48 hours
a. South East Asia c. Middle East
75. Decision of the court whether the person is guilty or
not guilty for drug trafficking shall be rendred within the b. South America d. South West Asia
period of ___________ after the trial.
80. The major transshipment point for international drug
a. 15 days c. 10 days b. 30 days d. 6 days 76. traffickers in Europe and known to be the “Paradise of
Drug Users” in this continent
Transhipment point of all forms of heroin in the world. a.
a. Portugal c. Germany b. Spain d. Turkey
Japan c. Philippines b. Hongkong d. Burma
81. it is a club drug popularly known as Special K, Vitamin
K and Kitkat developed in the 1970’s as an anesthetics
mainly used by veterinarians.
77. Cocaine has originated from Columbia; Shabu
originated from: a. Flunitrazepam
b. Gamma hydroxybutyrate
a. Japan c. Mexico b. China d. India
c. Ketamine hydrochloride
d. All of the above
78. The Golden Triangle is controlled by the Triad; the
Colombian and Peruvian drug trafficking was controlled 82. A French researcher named Dr. Henry Laborit was the
by: first to synthesize this substance which was found to
a. The Mafia c. Medellin Cartel b. La Cosa Nostra d. occur

naturally in many mammalian cells. It has the street
names Blue Nitro, EZ Lay and Zonked.
a. Flunitrazepam
d. All of the above
83. A powerful benzodiazepine developed in the 1960’s by

Hoffman Laroche inc., and first marketed under the trade
name Rohypnol in Switzerland in 1975.
a. Flunitrazepam
d. All of the above
84.
it
is
the
compulsive, excessive and self-damaging use of habit a. Confusion phase

forming drugs or substances leading to addiction or b. Coma phase
dependence causing serious physiological injury and c. Stupor phase
harm or death. d. Excitement phase
a. Drug addiction 89. it is a synthetic narcotic analgesic approximately 50 to

b. Drug dependence 100 times as potent as morphine with its origin in
c. Substance abuse Belgium.
d. All of the above
a. GHB
85. A type of alcoholic beverage with an alcohol content b. Fentanyl
ranging from 4 to 8 percent. c. Ritalin
d. Rohypnol
a. Beer
b. Cider 90. This pertains to a condition of drug users where
c. Wine tolerance to one drug can produce tolerance to other
d. Liqueurs similar drugs.
86. This is a class of depressants, a drug that reduces a a. Multi-tolerance

persons ability to think rationally and distorts his or her b. Semi-tolerance
judgment. Ethyl or ethanol is used in this kind of c. Cross-tolerance
depressant, d. Pseudo-tolerance
a. Barbiturates 91. it is commonly used ultra-short acting barbiturates.

b. Benzodiazepines
a. Amobarbital
c. Alcohol
b. Secobarbital
d. tobacco
c. Goodnight
87. Valium, Librium and Xanax are ordinary types of: d. Thiopental sodium
a. Benzodiazepines 92. It is a psychosis that is caused by amphetamine abuse.

b. Barbiturates
a. Paranoia
c. Opiates
b. Delusional parasitosis
d. Nota
c. Amphetamine psychosis
88. it is a stage of alcoholic intoxication characterized by d. ADHD
being sociable, talkative and increased self-confidence.
93. Psychoactive substances that legally mimic the effects b. Peripheral effects
of traditional drugs of abuse. c. Tweaking
d. Track marks
a. Novel psycho active drugs
b. Opioids 97. a term that refers to rashes that develop on the skin
c. Novel stimulants of stimulant users that appear where drugs have been
d. Novel cannabinoids injected but can also be found anywhere in the user’s
body.
94. A type of delusion that is common in meth users in
which they believe that they are covered in bugs. a. Speed bumps
b. Peripheral effects
a. Paranoia c. Tweaking
b. Delusional parasitosis d. Track marks
c. Amphetamine psychosis
d. ADHD 98. a volatile substance, usually a liquid, in which things
dissolve.
95. A behavior that occurs when people are high on
stimulants where the user feels the need to repeat certain a. Solvent
actions over and over again b. Inhalants
c. Gases
a. Speed bumps d. Nitrites
b. Peripheral effects
c. Tweaking 99. this generally refers to more than a thousand
d. Track marks household and commercial products that can be abused
by inhaling them thru one’s mouth or nose for an
96. It refers to bruises and needle marks left on the body intoxicating effect.
by repeated injections of drugs.
a. Solvent
a. Speed bumps

b. Inhalants
c. Gases
d. Nitrites
100. which of the following is not a type of inhalant?
a. Volatile solvents
b. Aerosols
c. Anesthetics/gases
d. Volatile nitrates
e. Cigarettes
TECHNICAL ENGLISH
(Legal Forms and Investigative Report Writing)

1.
Is
a
type of writing where the author is writing about a b. LEGAL PLEADINGS AND CITATIONS
particular subject that requires direction, instruction or
explanation. c. JUDICIAL ORDERS
a. Technical Writing d. STUDIES AND RESEACH
b. Writing
c. Legal Writing 5. are formal pieces of writing submitted to the court,

such as motions for summary judgement and complaints
d. Legal Form for damages.
2. A document written for experts will be very different a. NARRATIVES AND REPORTS
from one written for the general public.
b. LEGAL PLEADINGS AND CITATIONS
a. SIMPLICITY AND CONCISENESS
c. JUDICIAL ORDERS
b. ACCURACY
d. STUDIES AND RESEACH
c. AUDIENCE FOCUSED
6. Are binding written documents that serve as means for
d. Nota putting into effect legal proceedings, court orders and
notices.
3. There is no room for ambiguity or errors in a technical a. Technical Writing
document.
b. Writing
a. SIMPLICITY AND CONCISENESS
c. Legal Writing
b. ACCURACY
d. Legal Form
c. AUDIENCE FOCUSED
8. Is a meeting of minds between two persons whereby
d. Nota one binds himself, with respect to the other, to give
4. It tells the story if the crime; what happened and why something or to render some service
it happened. a. Agreement
a. NARRATIVES AND REPORTS b. Resolution
c. Contract as the seller is legally bound to fulfill their obligations.
d. Award a. CONTRACT
9. Is a public official whose duty is to attest the b. CONVEYANCE

genuineness of any deed or writing in order to render
them available as evidence of the facts that contains. c. DEED
a. Notarization D. Nota
b. Notarial acts 12. It is a legal document that grants its holder ownership
of a piece of real estate or other assets, such as an
c. Notary automobile.
d. Nota a. CONTRACT
10. These are written forms used in conveyancing or of b. CONVEYANCE

the forms of deeds, instruments or documents creating,
transferring, modifying or limiting rights to real as well as c. DEED
personal properties, and other forms related to business
d. Nota
contracts or transactions.
13. “Verbosity should be avoided” meaning____
a. Commercial forms
a. Must be precise
b. Trade forms
b. Must be accurate
c. Business forms
c. Direct to the point
d. Nota
d. Be courteous
11. Refers to a contract, meaning that the buyer, as well

14. It is a legal document which is prepared with certain
formalities, and under which a person directs what will
happen to his/her property after his/her death.
a. CONTRACT
b. CONVEYANCE
c. DEED
d. Nota
15. Is that part of an affidavit in which the officer certifies

that the instrument was sworn to before him.
a. Will
b.
b. Deed SUMMON
c. Contract c. Subpoena ad testificandum
d. Jurat d. Subpoena ducestecum
16. This one is to authenticate an agreement between 19. Is detailed account of an event, situation, etc., usually
two or more persons, or where the document contains a based on observation or inquiry.
disposition of property.
a. Story
a. Will
b. Narrative
b. Acknowledgement
c. Report
c. Affidavit
d. Report writing
d. Sworn statements
20. Is a communication that lends itself to a useful tool
17. Is a sworn statement prepared by someone who for people in a free society to express their thoughts and
wishes to file a legal complaint. It becomes the basis for ideas and to obtain what they need or want
the case, providing basic information about the facts of
the matter and outlining the nature of the case. a. Story
a. AFFIDAVIT OF UNDERTAKING b. Narrative
b. AFFIDAVIT OF DISINTERESTED PERSONS c. Report

d. Report writing
c. COMPLAINT AFFIDAVIT
21. Reports that Are usually short messages with natural
d. Nota casual use of language.
18. An order in the court that requires someone to testify a. Formal

as a witness.
b. Informal reports
a. SUBPOENA
c. Short or long reports.
D. Nota c. Annual report
22. Reports that provide facts, data, feedback, and other d. Functional reports
types of information, but they also provide analysis,
interpretation, and recommendations. 25. This classification includes accounting reports,
marketing reports, financial reports, and a variety of other
a. Informational reports that take their designation from the ultimate use
of the report.
b. Proposal report.
a. Vertical report
c. Analytical report
b. Periodic reports
d. Nota
c. Annual report
23. A report that assists in the coordination in the
organization. d. Functional reports
a. Vertical report 26. Here elements (components) such as location,

geography, division, product or parts are used to present
b. Lateral report the data
c. Informational a. TIME
d. Analytical report b. COMPONENT
24. Also known as status reports Are similar to progress c. IMPORTANCE
reports. They are generally upward directed and serve
management control and issued on regularly scheduled d. CRITERIA
dates.
27. These are reports created using a prescribed
a. Vertical report template. Many short information reports use convention
as their organizing principle.
b. Periodic reports
a. CONVENTION

b. CRITERIA
c. IMPORTANCE
d. COMPONENT
28. It is an official record of information relevant to the

investigation which the investigator submits to his or her
superior. it is a document that details the findings or
evidence related to the formal complaint or allegation.
a. Investigative reporting
b. Investigative report
c. Investigative report writing

d. Investigative writing describe something, but to give it a reality, an
interpretation and ideas on what that thing means.
29. After the reader has absorbed all of the information,
the memo needs to close with a courteous ending that a. Narration
states what action the writer wants his/her reader to take
b. Description
a. OPENING SEGMENT
c. Exposition
b. TASK SEGMENT
d. Nota
c. SUMMARY SEGMENT
34. Refers to the grammatical concept that the subject of
d. CLOSING SEGMENT a sentence must align with the main verb of that same
sentence.
30. The report should be a true representation of the facts
to the best of the investigators ability a. Passive and active voice
a. SPECIFIC b. Grammar
b. BREVITY c. Subject- verb agreement
c. CLARITY d. Nota
d. ACCURACY 35. When the subject of the sentence is composed of two

or more nouns or pronouns connected by and, use a____
31. Irrelevant or unnecessary materials should be a. Singular verb
omitted. a. SPECIFIC b. Plural verb
b. BREVITY c. Either singular or plural
c. CLARITY d. Neither singular nor plural
d. ACCURACY
33. Is the act of expounding or explaining a person, place, 36. When a compound subject contains both a singular
thing, or event. The purpose of the author is not to just
and a plural noun or pronoun joined by "or" or "nor," the 39. Are building block of all documents. It is a series of
verb should agree with the part of the subject that is sentences that are organized and coherent, and are
closest to the verb. This is also called the_____ related to a single topic.
a. Rule of closeness a. Sentence
b. Rule of proximity b. Paragraph
c. Nota c. Verb
d. All of the above D. Noun
37. If the clause depends on another part of the sentence 40. A police report which contains information as to the
to complete the thought it expresses, it’s called_____ status of an activity/ies or operation.
a. subordinate clause a. PROBLEM SOLUTION REPORT
b. independent clause b. TECHNICAL REPORT
c. Phrase c. FACT-FINDING REPORT
d. Nota d. PERFORMANCE REPORT
38. A sentence that contains two independent clauses 41. A police report which represents data on a specialized
linked by a conjunction. subject
a. Simple Sentence a. PROBLEM SOLUTION REPORT
b. Compound Sentence b. TECHNICAL REPORT
c. Compound-Complex Sentence c. FACT-FINDING REPORT
d. Complex Sentence d. PERFORMANCE REPORT

42. This report can simply be an accomplishment report
which may be analytical and may be comparatively longer
than spot report.
a. SPOT REPORT
b. PROGRESS REPORT
c. FINAL REPORT
d. AFTER OPERATION REPORT
42. This report can simply be an accomplishment report

which may be analytical and may be comparatively longer
than spot report.
a. SPOT REPORT
an
b. PROGRESS REPORT incident. It is similar to Police Reports, an Incident Report

is a victim’s statement regarding a crime.
c. FINAL REPORT
a. FORMAL REPORT
b. INCIDENT REPORT
43. Is a form of status reporting that provides decision
makers and readers a quick understanding of the current c. ACCIDENT REPORT
situation. It provides a clear, concise understanding of the
situation – focusing on meaning or context, in addition to d. MEMORANDUM
the facts.
46. Is an informal letter about a thing or thins to be
a. SPOT REPORT remembered or a brief written outline of the terms of a
transaction especially in legal matters.
b. PROGRESS REPORT
a. FORMAL REPORT
c. FINAL REPORT
b. INCIDENT REPORT
c. ACCIDENT REPORT
e. Nota
d. MEMORANDUM
44. It contains the daily registry of all crime incident 47. One essential portion of a memo is the task statement
reports, official summaries of arrest, and other significant where the writer describes what should be done to help
events reported in a Police station/Unit solve the problems.
a. BLUE BLOTTER a. HEADING SEGMENT
b. WHITE BLOTTER b. OPENING SEGMENT
c. PINK BLOTTER c. TASK SEGMENT
d. BLACK BLOTTER d. SUMMARY SEGMENT
e. RAINBOW BLOTTER 48. It is an optional part of the memo. This segment

provides a brief statement of the key points of the memo,
45. Is a formal document that details the facts related to and the recommendations of the writer has reached
a. HEADING SEGMENT 51. PRONOUNS Are used to refer to particular people,
places, and Things; specifically
b. OPENING SEGMENT
refer to the person speaking, the person spoken to, or the
c. TASK SEGMENT places or thing spoken about.
d. SUMMARY SEGMENT a. Personal Pronouns
b. Reflexive Pronouns
49. The word "Technical” comes from the Greek word
'techne' that means____ c. Demonstrative Pronouns
d. Relative Pronouns
a. FORMAT
52. Pronouns Used to begin a subordinate clause and
b. TECHNIQUE relate it to another idea in the sentence
c. SKILL a. Personal Pronouns

b. Reflexive Pronouns
d. NOTA c. Demonstrative Pronouns
d. Relative Pronouns
50. THESE are words that help writers avoid awkward
repetition of nouns. They are used in replacement of 53. Pronouns that are used to begin a direct or indirect
nouns. question
a. NOUN a. Interrogative Pronoun
b. PRONOUN b. Indefinite Pronouns
c. Personal Pronouns
c. VERB d. Reflexive Pronouns
D. ADVERB

54. These are part of speech that express the relationship
between words and phrases of the sentence.
a. Conjunction
b. Preposition
c. Interjections
d. Nota
55. Interjections are words that have no grammatical

connection to other words in a sentence; they are just
statements that express feelings or emotions.
a. Conjunction
b. Preposition
c. Interjections
d. Nota
56.
these are words used to join or connect other words in a 60. The police report must be considered classified, hence
sentence. Below are the descriptions and examples of the transmission. handling and access to these reports should
three kinds of conjunctions. be limited only to police personnel who are granted by
higher authority security clearance.
a. Conjunction
b. Preposition a. Completeness
c. Interjections b. Timelines
d. Nota c. Security
d. Impartiality
57. used to connect similar parts of speech or group of
words. 61. Include those relating to the reporting of police
incidents. investigation, arrests, identification of persons,
a. Coordinating conjunction and a mass of miscellaneous reports necessary to the
b. Subordinating conjunction conduct of routine police operations.
c. Correlative conjunction
d. Nota a. Internal Business Reports
b. Summary Reports
58. used to join elements of equal grammatical weight in c. Operational Reports
sentences; they always work in pairs. d. Nota
a. Coordinating conjunction 62.These are records, which do not relate recorded

b. Subordinating conjunction complaints and investigation reports but are informational
c. Correlative conjunction in character.
d. Nota a. ARREST AND BOOKING RECORDS
b. IDENTICATION RECORDS
59. used to join two complete ideas by making one of the
ideas subordinate to or dependent upon the other. c. ADMINISTRATIVE RECORDS
a. Coordinating conjunction d. MISCELLANEOUS RECORDS
b. Subordinating conjunction
c. Correlative conjunction 63.is a thorough and systematic analysis of the future that
d. Nota will affect the posibility of success of proposed
project/undertaking.
a. PROJECT SUMMARY
b. FEASIBILITY STUDY examined, the target markets analyzed, and the marketing
program formulated.
c. IDENTICATION RECORDS
d. ADMINISTRATIVE RECORDS a. MARKET FEASIBILITY
b. TECHNICAL FEASIBILITY
64. Discuss the nature of the product line, the technology c. Financial Feasibility
necessary for production, its availability, the product mix d. SOCIO-ECONOMIC FEASIBILITY
of production resources, and the optimum production
volume.
67. The heart of any police records system. It is the basis
a. MARKET FEASIBILITY for an analysis of offenses and the methods by which they
b. TECHNICAL FEASIBILITY are committed.
c. Financial Feasibility
d. SOCIO-ECONOMIC FEASIBILITY a. Case Records
b. Complaint/Assignment Sheet
c. Booking report
d. Incident report
65. What are the effects of the project on society and the 68. The foundation record of the police department.
economy as a whole? Is it generally beneficial to the
people? Is it in line with the economy's development a. Case Records
programs?
b. Complaint/Assignment Sheet
a. MARKET FEASIBILITY c. Booking report
b. TECHNICAL FEASIBILITY d. Incident report
c. Financial Feasibility
d. SOCIO-ECONOMIC FEASIBILITY 69. It is usually a written communication unless otherwise
specifies to be verbal; verbal should be confirmed by
66. Discuss the nature of the unsatisfied demand which written communication.
the project seeks to meet, its growth and manner in which
it is to be met. Here, the supply-demand situation is a. Data

b. Record
c. Report
d. Files
70. Describes the procedures and defines the duties of

officers assigned to specified post or position.
a. Duty book rules
b. Department rules
c. Police handbook
d.
Duty manual c. Records destruction

d. Records filing
71. records to be kept for not less than ten (10) years
74. Records that are “top protection priority”, consists of
a. Permanent Record all essential records considered as mission critical and
b. Semi-Permanent irreplaceable.
c. Temporary
d. Nota a. Vital
b. Important
72. Temporary record shall be kept ___ c. Useful
d. All of the above
a. for not lessthan ten (10) years
b. for five (5) years 75. the period during which the record is created or
c. no specified period but usually less than (5) comes into existence.
years.
d. For 3 years a. Birth or Creation
b. Records Maintenance and Use
72. places all record series in one central location in an c. Classification
office. Most useful when the majority of individuals within d. Storage
an office require access to majority of files.
76. refers to the period when the records serve its purpose
a. Centralized Filing a. Birth or Creation
b. Decentralized Filing b. Records Maintenance and Use
c. Numerical c. Classification
d. Chronological Order d. Storage
73. is the systematic transfer on non-current records from 77. the act of taking out of record from the storage for
an office to any records storage area, the identification reference purposes.
and preservation of permanent records and the outright
destruction of valueless records. a. Transfer
b. Purging or Retention
a. Records Disposition c. Retrieval
b. Records production d. Classification
78. the act of determining if the record is for retention or a. Wanted Persons Report
ready for disposal. b. Accident Report
c. Daily Record of Events
a. Transfer d. Technical Report
c. Retrieval 82. a report on persons who are wanted by the police.
d. Classification
a. Wanted Persons Report
79. refers to the filing of records according to classification. b. Accident Report
c. Daily Record of Events
a. Transfer d. Technical Report
c. Retrieval 83. a record needed to keep all members of the police
d. Classification force informed concerning police operations, assignments,
e. Nota and administrative functions.
80. a report on the laboratory examination of the a. Wanted Persons Report

physical evidence gathered in order to supplement the b. Accident Report
findings of the investigator. c. Daily Record of Events
d. Technical Report
a. Wanted Persons Report
b. Accident Report 84. these records maintain the arrest and jail booking
c. Daily Record of Events report which is required for all persons arrested.
d. Technical Report
a. Arrest Report
81. an investigation report regarding an accident which b. Arrest and Booking Records
includes vehicular accident and damage to property. c. Booking Report
d. Identification Records

85. it contains the list of the prisoners in custody which
indicates the status and disposition thereof.
a. Arrest Report
b. Arrest and Booking Records
c. Booking Report
86. – it contains the information regarding the full name

of the offender, charges and circumstances of arrest.
a. Arrest Report
b. Arrest and Booking Records
c. Booking Report
87.
third major division of police records. It provides d. Numerical

identification criminals which includes names, physical
characteristics and in some cases photograph. 91. files are arranged alphabetically by geographical name
of the place.
a. Arrest Report
b. Arrest and Booking Records a. Chronological Order
c. Booking Report b. Geographical
d. Identification Records c. Numerical
d. Nota
88. essential in administering personnel matters and
designed to aid in assignment, promotion, and disciplinary 92. the subjects are grouped into major headings;
action of personnel. individual folders are filed in alphabetical order behind
each heading.
a. Management records
b. Hr records a. Encyclopedic Order
c. Administrative Records b. Alphabetical
d. Executive records c. Chronological Order
d. Numerical
89. – these are records which are not related to the
recorded complaints and investigation reports but are 93. – folders are arranged by sequential date order. It is
essential to the daily police activities. useful for records that are created and monitored on a
daily basis.
a. Administrative Records a. Encyclopedic Order
b. Miscellaneous Records b. Alphabetical
c. Identification Records c. Chronological Order
d. Nota d. Numerical
90. all materials are filed in dictionary order. It is the most 94. – assigning of numerical value or number into a
widely used form of filing. specific file
a. Encyclopedic Order a. Encyclopedic Order

b. Alphabetical b. Alphabetical
c. Chronological Order c. Chronological Order
d. Numerical or duplicates.
95. it physically locates record series in different places a. Duplication

within an office. Most useful when only one individual b. Dispersal
requires access to a specific record series. c. Vaulting
d. Evacuation
a. Centralized Filing
b. Decentralized Filing 99. records shall be created with additional copies or
c. Chronological Order duplicates depending on the needs and circumstances.
d. Numerical
a. Duplication
96. places all record series in one central location in an b. Dispersal
office. Most useful when the majority of individuals within c. Vaulting
an office require access to majority of files. d. Evacuation
a. Centralized Filing 100. the systematic transfer of non-current records from

b. Decentralized Filing the office to any storage area or archives for long term
c. Chronological Order storage, the identification of preservation of permanent
d. Numerical records and the destruction of valueless records.
97. original and older records considered to be vital shall a. Purging or Retention
be transferred to a secured location. b. Archival Storage or Records Disposition
c. Classification
a. Duplication d. Records management
b. Dispersal
c. Vaulting INTRODUCTION TO CYBERCRIME AND
d. Evacuation ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS
98. records shall be distributed without additional copies 1. Typically defined as the protection of confidentiality,
integrity and availability of computer data and systems in

order to enhance security, resilience, reliability and trust
in ICT.
a. Cyber crime
b. Cyber security
c. Computer crime
d. Computer security
2. Offences committed against computer data, computer

data storage media, computer systems, service providers.
a. Cyber crime
b. Cyber security
c. Computer crime
d. Computer security
3.
Is
an
organized way of using all of the laws in our legal system c. Illegal access
to minimize, prevent, punish, or remedy the d. Nota
consequences of actions which damage or threaten the
environment, public health and safety. 7. The shielding of one’s identity to enable individuals to
engage in activities without revealing themselves and/or
a. Environmental crimes. their actions to others.
b. Environmental Law System
c. Environmental law a. Anonymity
d. All of the above b. Anonymizers
c. Anonymous proxy servers
4. Is the process of methodically examining computer d. Nota
media for evidence.
8. These proxy servers enable users to hide identity data
a. Computer science by masking their IP address and substituting it with a
b. Computer information different IP address. Also known as anonymous proxy
c. Computer forensics servers.
d. All of the above
a. Anonymity
5. Measures that establish privileges, determine b. Anonymizers
authorized access, and prevent unauthorized access. c. Anonymous proxy servers
d. Nota
a. Access 9. The use of a script or bot to guess user credentials.
b. Access controls
c. Illegal access a. Back-tracing
d. Nota b. Botcode
c. Botherder
6. Refers to the instruction, communication with, storing d. Brute force attack
data in, retrieving data from, or otherwise making use of
any resources of a computer system or communication 10. The process of tracing illicit acts back to the source of
network. the cybercrime. Also known as trace back.
a. Access a. Back-tracing
b. Access controls b. Botcode
c. Botherder d. Nota
d. Brute force attack
14. Malware that infects a user’s digital device, encrypts
11. Controller of bot-infected digital devices. the user’s documents, and threatens to delete files and
data if the victim does not pay the ransom.
a. Back-tracing
b. Botcode a. Cryptojacking
c. Botherder b. Cybersmearing.
d. Brute force attack c. Cryptoransomware.
d. Nota
12. Refers to an electronic, magnetic, optical,
electrochemical, or other data processing or 15. Birth of Philippine Internet
communications device, or grouping of such devices,
capable of performing logical, arithmetic, routing or a. 1960
storage functions. b. 1993
c. 2011
a. Technology d. Nota
b. Computer
c. Electronics 16. The first computer system in the Philippines — an IBM
d. Nota 650 — is installed at the______ to handle the country’s
land survey computations in 1960.
13. A tactic whereby the processing power of infected
computers is used to mine cryptocurrency for the financial a. Bureau of agrarian Reform
benefit of the person controlling the bot- infected digital b. DTI
devices. c. Bureau of Lands
d. Nota
a. Cryptojacking
b. Cybersmearing. 17. In 2011, Philippines named __________with a
c. Cryptoransomware. percentage of 93.9 for Facebook alone.

a. Cyber-networking Capital of the World
b. Social Networking Capital of the World
c. Networking Capital of the World
d. Nota
18. It became the Landmark and placed the country on

the global cyber-map and pushed congress to pass the
first “cybercrime law.
a. I don’t love you virus

b. Love is virus
c. She loves you virus
d. Nota
29. The first Filipino to be convicted of cybercrime, which people live or in which something happens or
particularly hacking. develop
a. JJ Helterbrand a. Built Environment

b. JJ Maria Osawa b. Natural Environment
c. JJ Maria Clara c. Social Environment
d. JJ Maria Giner d. All of the above
30. Who was the Judge that convicted JJ Marie Giner? 34. The first important legislation that formed the basis of
the current system of national parks and protected areas
a. Thomas Dewey in the Philippines
b. Rosalyn Mislos-Loja
c. Alexander Gesmundo – 27th Chief justice a. Philippine Commission Act No.468
d. Nota b. Philippine Commission Act No.648
c. Philippine Commission Act No. 864
d. Nota
31. The first use of computer.
35. It became the first national park in the Philippines

a. Entertainment
established on June 27,1933 following the National Parks
b. Computation
Act no. 3195.
c. Communication
d. Nota
a. Mt. Makiling
b. Mt. Arayat
32. Refers to the human-made surroundings that provide
c. Mt. Apo
the setting for human activity.
d. Mt. Everest
36. Are relatively large areas not materially altered by
a. Built Environment human activity where extractive resource uses are not
b. Natural Environment allowed and maintained to protect outstanding natural
c. Social Environment and scenic areas of national or international significance
d. All of the above for scientific, educational and recreational use.
33. Refers to the immediate physical and social setting in a. Natural Parks
b. National Parks b. Brazil
c. People’s park c. Canada
d. Park d. UK
37. refer to forest reservations essentially of natural 40. Is considered to be the world’s largest rainforest with
wilderness character which have been withdrawn from biggest biological diversity.
settlement, occupancy or any form of exploitation except
in conformity with approved management plan and set a. Africa
aside as such exclusively to conserve the area or preserve b. Amazon
the scenery, the natural and historic objects, wild animals c. Europe
and plants therein and to provide enjoyment of these d. Brazil
features in such areas.
41. According to the Conservation International, it is is the

a. Natural Parks biggest nation in terms of the most biodiversity per
b. National Parks square kilometer than any other nation.
c. People’s park
d. Park
a. Ecuador
b. Venezuela
38. Manila’s most air polluted district due to open dump c. Peru
sites and industrial waste. d. Madagascar
a. Paco 42. Famous as the birthplace of Darwin’s theory of

b. Binondo evolution and has a vast number of endemic species.
c. Tondo
d. Ermita
a. Green Island
b. Greed Island
39. The largest country in Latin America and South c. Galapagos Island
America and the fifth largest country in the world. Due to d. Nota
this vastness, there are different types of ecosystems,
which prevail all over the country.
43. Is a practice of protecting the natural environment on
individual, organization controlled or governmental levels,
a. Mexico for the benefit of both the environment and humans.

a. Environmental preservation
b. Environmental protection
c. Environmental conservation
d. Nota
44. Fishing method that requires diving and other physical

or mechanical acts to pound the coral reefs and other
habitat to entrap, gather or catch fish and other fishery
species.
a. Scuba diving
b. Muro-Ami
c. Muro-Sita
d. Muro-kana
45.
refers to the shifting and/or permanent slash-and-burn c. Oikios

cultivation of forest land having little or no provision to d. Kioske
prevent soil erosion.
49. It broke a new ground by defining three innovative
a. Kaingin “flexibility mechanisms” to lower the overall costs of
b. Kainin achieving its emissions targets.
c. Kaigin
d. Deforestation a. Tyoko Protocol
b. Kyoto Protocol
46. Those gases that can potentially or can reasonably be c. Kiyoto Protocol
expected to induce global warming, which includes carbon d. Nota
dioxide, methane, oxides of nitrogen, chorofluorocarbons,
and the like. 50. is the misuse and also the pollution of water supplies.
Often, individuals throughout the world have to deal with
a. Green Gases either limited water supplies, or polluted water, often
b. Greenhouse Gases causes by human actions.
c. House gases
d. House green gases a. Water contamination
b. Water degradation
47. Means the ecological community considered together c. Water pollution
with non-living factors and its environment as a unit. d. Nota
51. generally refers to the variety and variability of Life
a. Ecology on Earth, and is represented by the number of different
b. Solar system species there are on the planet.
c. Ecosystem
d. Environment a. Biodiversity
b. Biodiversification
48. The words “economy” and “ecology” both came from c. Bioeconomy
the Greek word ______which means “home. d. Nota
a. Okios 52. Tools and techniques used to obfuscate cybercrime

b. Oikos investigation and digital forensics efforts.
a. Anti- forensics b. Censorship.
b. Anti-digital forensics c. Botherder
c. Antimalware or Antivirus d. Buffer
d. Both a and b
e. Nota 56. refers to a computer or a computer network, the
electronic medium in which online communication takes
53. This is a memory area allocated to an application. place;
a. Botnet a. Cyber
b. Botcode b. website
c. Botherder c. internet
d. Buffer d. electronics
54. The prohibition of information, visual depictions, and 57. A cybercrime facilitated by the Internet and digital
written or oral communications that are prohibited by law technologies.
and/or their suppression by a government, community or
group because they are unlawful and/or viewed as a. Cyber-dependent crime.
harmful, unpopular, undesirable, or politically incorrect. b. Cyber-enabled crimes.
c. Cyber organized crime.
a. Catphishing. d. Cyber organized criminals.
b. Censorship.
c. Botherder 58. A cybercrime that would not be possible without the
d. Buffer Internet and digital technologies.
55. False or misleading promises of love and a. Cyber-dependent crime.

companionship designed to scam individuals out of their b. Cyber-enabled crimes.
time, money and/or other items. c. Cyber organized crime.
d. Cyber organized criminals.
a. Catphishing.

59. A term used to describe a continuing criminal
enterprise that rationally works to profit from illicit
activities that are in demand online.
a. Cyber-dependent crime.
b. Cyber-enabled crimes.
c. Cyber organized crime.
d. Cyber organized criminals.
e. nota
60. A structured group of three or more persons, existing

for a period of time and acting in concert with the aim of
committing one or more serious crimes or offences.
a. Cyber-dependent crime.
c.
b. Cyber-enabled crimes. Cyberstalking.

c. Cyber organized crime. d. Cyberterrorism.
d. Cyber organized criminals. e. nota
e. nota
64. The use of information and communication technology
61. The use of information and communication technology to commit a series of acts over a period of time designed
to intentionally humiliate, annoy, attack, threaten, alarm, to harass, annoy, attack, threaten, frighten, and/or
offend and/or verbally abuse an individual verbally abuse an individual
a. Cyberbullying. a. Cyberbullying.
b. Cyberharassment. b. Cyberharassment.
c. Cyberstalking. c. Cyberstalking.
d. Cyberterrorism. d. Cyberterrorism.
e. nota e. nota
62. The use of information and communication technology 65. Cyber acts that compromise and disrupt critical
by children to annoy, humiliate, insult, offend, harass, infrastructure systems, which amount to an armed attack.
alarm, stalk, abuse or otherwise attack another child or
children. a. Cyberbullying.
b. Cyberharassment.
a. Cyberbullying. c. Cyberstalking.
b. Cyberharassment. d. Cyberterrorism.
c. Cyberstalking. e. Nota
d. Cyberterrorism. 66. The part of the World Wide Web, which is known for
e. nota its obscure and hidden websites that host illicit activities,
goods, and services, and can only be accessed using
63. The cyber-dependent crimes perpetrated against specialized software.
critical infrastructure to cause some form of harm and to
provoke fear in the target population. a. Deep web
b. Illicit web
a. Cyberbullying. c. Underground web
b. Cyberharassment. d. Dark web
67. The part of the World Wide Web that is not indexed against victims that releases the user’s data if ransom is
by search engines and is not easily accessible and/or not paid to decrypt the files and data.
available to the public.
a. Dogpiling.
a. Deep web b. DoS attack.
b. Illicit web c. Doxware.
c. Underground web d. Disinhibition.
d. Dark web
71. The process whereby an individual demonstrates a
68. A tactic whereby users within an online space lack of social restraint with regards to online behavior.
bombard victims with offensive, insulting, and
threatening messages to silence the target, force them to a. Dogpiling.
take back what they said and/or apologize, or to force b. DoS attack.
them to leave the platform. c. Doxware.
d. Disinhibition.
a. Dogpiling.
b. DoS attack. 72. The sending of an email to targets with a website link
c. Doxware. for users to click on, which might either download
d. Disinhibition. malware onto the users’ digital devices or sends users to
a malicious website that is designed to steal users’
69. A cybercrime that interferes with systems by credentials.
overwhelming servers with requests to prevent legitimate
traffic from accessing a site and/or using a system. Also a. Pharming.
known as denial of service attack. b. Phishing.
c. Hacking
a. Dogpiling. d. Cracking
b. DoS attack.
c. Doxware. 73. The creation of a fake, duplicate website that is
d. Disinhibition. designed to trick users to input their login credentials.
70. A form cryptoransomware that perpetrators use a. Pharming.

b. Phishing.
c. Hacking
d. Cracking
74. An intermediary server that is used to connect a client

with a server that the client is requesting resources from.
a. Ransomware.
b. Xc6
c. Both a and b
d. Nota
75. Malware designed to take users’ system, files, and/or

data hostage and relinquish control back to the user only
after ransom is paid.
a.
a. Ransomware. Sextortion.
b. Xc6 b. Smishing.
c. Both a and b c. Sexting.
d. Nota d. Spam.
76. Self-generated sexually explicit material. 80. Malware designed to surreptitiously monitor infected
systems, and collect and relay information back to creator
a. Sextortion. and/or user of the spyware.
b. Smishing.
c. Sexting. a. Spearphishing.
d. Spam. b. Spyware.
c. Stalkerware.
77. Phishing via text messaging. Also known as SMS d. Swappers.
phishing.
81. The sending of emails with infected attachments or
a. Sextortion. links that are designed to dupe the receiver into clicking
b. Smishing. on the attachments or links.
c. Sexting.
d. Spam. a. Spearphishing.
b. Spyware.
78. A form of cyber harassment whereby the victim is c. Stalkerware.
threatened with the release of sexually explicit content if d. Swappers.
the demands of the perpetrator are not met. Situational 82. A form of spyware that can run on a victim’s
crime prevention. Measures used to prevent and reduce computer, smartphone or other Internet-enabled digital
crime. device and collect and relay all the user’s actions on
these devices, from emails and text messages sent and
received, to photographs taken and keystrokes.
a. Sextortion.
b. Smishing.
c. Sexting. a. Spearphishing.
d. Spam. b. Spyware.
c. Stalkerware.
d. Swappers.
79. Sending of unsolicited emails.
83. Semi-automated cryptocurrency exchanges. d. Web crawlers.
a. Spearphishing. 87. Stand-alone malicious software that spreads without

b. Spyware. the need for user activity.
c. Stalkerware.
d. Swappers. a. Virus.
b. Worm.
84. Malware that requires user activity to spread. c. Whaling.
d. Web crawlers.
a. Virus.
b. Worm. 88. designed and constructed the first working mechanical
c. Whaling. calculator in 1623
d. Web crawlers.
a. Wilhelm Schickard
85. Pretending to be higher level executives in a company, b. Blaise Pascal and Goffried Liebnits
lawyers, accountants, and others in positions of authority c. Gottfried Leibniz
and trust, in order to trick employees into sending them d. Thomas de Colmar
funds.
89. In 1820 he launched the mechanical calculator
a. Virus. industry when he released his simplified arithmometer,
b. Worm. which was the first calculating machine strong enough
c. Whaling. and reliable enough to be used daily in an office
d. Web crawlers. environment.
86. Applications designed to traverse the World Wide Web a. Wilhelm Schickard
to achieve specific objectives. b. Blaise Pascal and Goffried Liebnits
c. Gottfried Leibniz
a. Virus. d. Thomas de Colmar
b. Worm.
c. Whaling. 90. demonstrated a digital mechanical calculator, called
the Stepped Reckoner 1673. He may be considered the

first computer scientist and information theorist, for,
among other reasons, documenting the binary number
system.
a. Wilhelm Schickard
b. Blaise Pascal and Goffried Liebnits
c. Gottfried Leibniz
d. Thomas de Colmar
91. Environment is derived from
a. Environ
b. Environner
c. Envirner
d. environr
92. the development that meets the needs of the present
without compromising the ability of future generations to
meet their own needs is called?
a. Mutual development
b. Integrated development
c. Reasonable development
d. Sustainable development
93. refers to any method which can be used to gather

information about an object without coming in contact
with it?
a. Database
b. remote sensing
c. WWW
d. GIS
94. It is the permanent destruction of indigenous forests

and wood lands
a. Afforestation
b. Deforestation
c. Forestation
d. Reforestation
95. Genetic diversity is defined as
a. Diversity within flora

b. Diversity within the fauna
c. Diversity within the species
d. Diversity within the fauna and flora
96. a biosphere reserve has following parts: d. Ex-situ – conservation
99. it is the study of a region’s plants and their practical
a. Input, process and output zone uses through the traditional knowledge pf a local culture
b. In and ex-zone and people.
c. Core, buffer and transition zone
d. Legal and illegal zone a. Botany
b. Ethnography
97. diversity at species level is called c. Ethnobotany
d. Ethology
e.
a. Genetics diversity
b. Species diversity
c. Diversity 100. It is the deterioration of the environment through
d. Integration depletion of resources such as air, water and soil; the
destruction of ecosystems; habitat destruction; the
extinction of wildlife;
98. it is the preservation of components of biological
diversity outside their natural habitats
a. Pollution
b. Environmental degradation
a. In - conservation c. Biodegradation
b. Ex - conservation d. Genetic degradation
c. Inside - conservation

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BATCH 11

BOARD EXAM TRIAL ON CRIME DETECTION AND

FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION 3. What is referred to as the knowledge pertaining to

a. Investigation c. Investigative process b. Criminal c. Police intelligence

investigation d. Criminal inquest d. Strategic intelligence

a. During the identification of criminal offender D. Voluntary Informant

d. During police line-up b. military intelligence

6. What specific offence has been committed? Who c. combat intelligence

a. Cardinal Points c. Golden Rule A. Informants

b. Three I’s d. Bridges burn B. Private Detective

7. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the C. Special Investigator

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12. It is the questioning of a person with the main focus

D. All of the above

information is analyzed carefully to develop a theory of Sensational murder

14. The knowledge essential to the prevention of crimes a. Continuity C. Selection

c. JOHN FIELDING c. 20x15

d. PATRICK COLQUHOUN d. Nota

d. All of the above d. all of the above

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a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false

b. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true

c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true d.

Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false

physical evidence. Statement no. 2. In mental Guardian/Ward

b. Cover story D. Undercover a. Evidence must be photographed and packaged

B. Article 125 37. What is meant by evaluation of C-1?

C. Article 225 a. Information comes from a fairly reliable

a. Corpus delicti c. Blotter 38. A method of collecting information wherein the

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39. The term used for the object of surveillance is subject

40. In counterintelligence, surveillance is categorized

A. Cover C. Cover support b. Cover story B. How

42. The interview of a witness can be described by the D. Why

c. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, D. All of the above

c. as a good citizen 47. If blood is in fluid condition, what is added to avoid

B. Alcohol D. Distilled water c. work assignment

48. A person who provides an investigator with d. dwelling assignment

A. Informant C. Witness a. His educational profile and school attended b. His

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All of the above

54. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct the

a. Suspect arrival at the scene and place of entry

b. Movement of suspect from point of entry and his

d. All of the above

Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape, Statement No. 2 is incorrect

a. Statement No. 1 is correct Duel, abortion and infanticide

b. Statement No. 2 is incorrect c. Homicide and murder

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d. When the body is burned or cremated

66. Considered to be the beginning of any homicide

a. Process of establishing the accurate cause of

b. Process of determining who is responsible for the

death c Process of determining how the victim was killed

d. Process of determining when the victim was killed

7877 D. all of them

C. Intelligence requirement A. Debriefing

D. Intelligence reservation B. team conference

B. true and accurate A. Briefing

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82. A place or building where agents meet their

use the fund B. giving favors