BIOPHARMACEUTICS

B 1. In LADMER system, L stands for liberation as the first step which determines the following aspects, except:
a. onset of action c. rate of absorption
b. type of preparation d. bioavailability

C 2. The ultimate evaluation of dosage forms or delivery system is in:

a. disintegration time c. clinical effectiveness
b. thickness d. taste

D 3. Factor that contributes to patient’s difference in drug concentration in the body, except:
a. body weight c. age
b. obesity d. climate

A 4. A rate limiting factor in the dissolution of drugs is:

a. disintegration of the tablet c. content uniformity
b. thickness d. local effect

A 5. The effect of reduced particle size of a drug is:

a. increased absorption c. increased hardness
b. increased disintegration d. all of them

D 6. A cause of patient to patient variability of time course of the drug in the plasma is:
a. disease c. genetic in origin
b. concomitant drug therapy d. all of the above

A 7. Dissolution rate tests can be used to predict bioavailability if:

a. dissolved drug remains free in the GIT
b. dissolved drug is decomposed in the GIT
c. drug is hydrolyzed in the GIT
d. all of them

A 8. Elimination half-life of a drug is the time in hours needed to reduce drug concentration to:
a. half of the parent drug c. all or taken dose
b. one fourth of the initial dose d. a & b

C 9. Tmax means:
a. time of great solubility of the drug c. time of peak concentration
b. peak height concentration d. AUC values

D 10. To generally increase the solubility of a poorly soluble drug in an aqueous medium, the process is:
a. complexation c. prepare into a derivative
b. adsorption d. a & c

D 11. The ionization constant of a drug is important in bioavailability since it determines the following, except:
a. its aqueous solubility c. pH of the medium
b. dissolution rate d. extent of protein binding

D 12. The difference in bioavailability of a drug product of the same therapeutic agent is due to:
a. difference in formulation ingredients c. difference in methods of manufacture
b. difference in packaging d. a & c

B 13. Which of the crystal forms give the best dissolution rate?
a. meta-stable polymorph c. stable polymorph
b. amorphous d. a and b

D 14. The termination of action of a drug is determined by:

a. excretion of intact active molecule c. tissue redistribution
b. excretion of active molecule d. a & c

D 15. Pharmaceutical equivalents are drug products that contain:

a. identical amounts of active drugs
b. identical amounts of inactive ingredients
c. identical amounts of excipients
d. all of the above

D 16. The purpose of biotransformation reaction is:

a. deactivate the drug c. promote elimination of inactive drug
b. preserve the drug from destruction d. a & c

D 17. The advantage of sublingual/buccal administration is:

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a. no occurrence of gastrointestinal degradation

b. drug directly in the circulation
c. not pass to the liver
d. a & c

B 18. The integral of the drug level over time from zero to infinity is:
a. biologic half-life c. bioavailability
b. area under the curve d. biopharmaceutics

C 19. The rate and extent at which the drug appears in the bloodstream is known as:
a. biopharmaceutics c. bioavailability
b. area under the curve d. biologic half-life

D 20. An inactive or much less active substance which is transformed to active drug in the body is:
a. dosage form c. asp
b. drug product d. prodrug

C 21. A site in the biophase to which drug molecules can be found is:
a. fluid compartment c. receptor
b. unit membrane d. none of the above

C 22. A branch of science which deals with physical and chemical properties of drug substance, the dosage form, and
the biological effectiveness of a drug product upon administration is:
a. pharmacology c. biopharmaceutics
b. pharmacokinetics d. pharmacy

B 23. The dose size required maintaining effectiveness or therapeutic concentration according to dosage regimen is:
a. priming dose c. loading dose
b. maintenance dose d. any of the above

C 24. The ability of the substance to exist in different crystalline forms is:
a. amphoterism c. polymorphism
b. sating in d. precipitation

C 25. Differences in bioavailability are most frequently observed with drugs are administered by which of the ff.
routes?
a. subcutaneous c. oral
b. intravenous d. sublingual

D 26. A drug can exert its pharmacologic effect only when it is:
a. protein bound c. free drug
b. protein unbound d. b & c

A 27. Which of the following factors delays transit time?

a. increasing viscosity c. water
b. liquid diet d. b & c

D 28. The principal site of drug metabolism is:

a. kidney c. gut wall
b. muscle tissue d. liver

B 29. The mechanism for drug excretion via the kidney is:
a. facilitated diffusion c. pinocystosis
b. glomerular filtration d. ion transport

A 30. The major plasma protein involved in the distribution of weak acids is:
a. albumin c. glycine
b. glycoprotein d. gelatin

C 31. For faster absorption, what type of diluent or filler is needed if the drug is hydrophobic?
a. hydrophilic c. amphilic
b. water repellant d. b & c

D 32. The route of administration which will be by-pass the GIT degradation and hepatic metabolism is:
a. intravenous injection c. buccal
b. sublingual d. b & c

B 33. A branch of science which deals with the changes of drug concentration and its metabolites in the human or
animal body after administration is:
a. bioavailability c. biopharmaceutics
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b. pharmacokinetics d. a & b

A 34. The first step which determines the onset of action, rate of absorption, availability is:
a. liberation c. excretion
b. distribution d. absorption

B 35. Liberation is a process controlled by:

a. age of the patient c. both a & b
b. characteristic of the drug d. none of the above

D 36. Which is the following factors affect the dissolution in the lipid membrane of the lipid soluble unionized fluid
compartment:
a. pH c. lipid/water partition coefficient
b. pKa d. all of the above

A 37. Those multiple source drug products that contains identical amount o the identical active ingredients in identical
dose forms are called:
a. chemical equivalents d. pharmaceutical alternates
b. biological equivalents e. therapeutic alternates
c. therapeutic equivalents

C 38. When considering drug transport, ‘a passive transport process’ implies that:
a. all of the drug will pass from one compartment to another
b. the process requires energy
c. The net transfer of drug is from an area of high concentration to an area low concentration
d. the net transfer of drug is from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration

C 39. The prerequisites of the binding of a drug to a receptor are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. chemical reactivity c. absence of functional group
b. electronic distribution d. none if the above

C 40. The following compounds are absorbed via convective transport EXCEPT:
a. ions of opposite charge of pore lining
b. ionized sulfonamides
c. weak organic acids
d. none of the above

D 41. The following mechanism of absorption required the presence of drug in aqueous solution, EXCEPT:
a. passive diffusion c. facilitated transport
b. convective transport d. pinocyctosis

C 42. Reabsorption of the drugs and its metabolite occurs in the

a. kidney c. both a & b
b. intestines d. none of the above
B 43. A type of transport whereby drug molecules dissolved in aqueous medium at the absorption site moves along
with the solvent through the pore:
a. active transport c. convective transpor
b. ion-pair transport d. facilitated transport

C 44. When a substance is half-ionized and half-nonionized at a certain pH, its pKa is:
a. greater than pH c. equal to pH
b. less than the pH d. negligible as compared to pH

D 45. The Noyes-Whitney equation determines:

a. particle size measurement c. dissolution constant
b. actual drug solubility d. dissolution rate

D 46. Studies of bioavailability are generally not required when:

a. drug is intended solely for IV use
b. the drug is for local therapeutic use
c. the drug is an oral product not required to be absorbed
d. all of the above

D 47. Gastric emptying is slowed down by the following except:

a. a vigorous exercise c. hot meals
b. fatty foods d. hunger

D 48. The ratio of the concentration of a drug in two immiscible phases is known as the:
a. concentration ratio c. partial miscibility
b. miscibility ratio d. lipid/water partition co-efficient
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C 49. The metabolism of drugs generally results in:

a. less acidic cpds.
b. more acidic cpds
c. more polar cpds
d. cpds. Having a higher oil/water partition coefficient

A 50. Drugs that poorly lipid soluble or extensively ionized at the pH of the blood generally
a. penetrate the CNS very slowly and may essentially be eliminated from the body before a significant
concentration in the CNS is reached
b. achieve adequate CNS concentration only if given IV
c. must be metabolized to a more polar form before they can gain
d. access to the CNS

D 51. Which of the following events modify drug absorption?

a. physiological constituent of digestion
b. drug interaction
c. certain disease state
d. all of the above

D 52. The following statements are true EXCEPT:

a. amorphous form is more soluble that of the crystalline form
b. the amorphous from has a higher dissolution rate than the crystalline form
c. the crystalline form requires a higher amount of energy to free a molecule of the drug from it than does
the amorphous form
d. the amorphous form requires a higher amount of energy to free a drug molecule from it than does the
crystalline form

C 53. The displacement of drug from protein binding site causes:

a. decrease in the intensity of pharmacological response
b. decrease in the intensity of side effects
c. toxicity
d. all of the above

B 54. These are addition compounds of drug and organic solvents:

a. hydrates c. polymorphous
b. solvates d. none of the above

A 55. The Vd of drug is related to:

a. the amount f drug in the body d. the volume of the small intestine
b. the volume of the liver e. the volume of the large intestine
c. the volume of the heart

B 56. The major pathway of excretion

a. via the liver c. via the circulation system
b. via the kidney d. via the large intestines

A 57. Which of the following propertied of surfactants tend to increase the rate of dissolution?
a. surface tension lowering effect
b. increased surface tension
c. absence of peptizing action
d. all of the above

B 58. The rate of diffusion of drug across biological membranes is most commonly:
a. independent on the concentration gradient
b. directly proportional to the concentration gradient
c. dependent on the availability of carrier substrate
d. dependent on the route of administration

C 59. In general, various oral dosage forms can be ranked in which of the following expected order of availability
(fastest to slowest)
a. aqueous capsule, tablet, powder, coated tablet, suspension
b. capsule, tablet, coated tablet, powder, suspension, aqueous, solution
c. aqueous solution, suspension, powder, capsule, tablet, coated tablet
d. suspension, aqueous solution, powder, capsule, coated tablet, tablet

C 60. The rectal route of administration may be preferred over the oral route for some drug because:
a. the drug does not have to be absorbed
b. absorption is predictable and complete
c. a portion of the absorbed drug does not pass through the liver before entering the systemic circulation
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d. the dissolution process is involved

A 61. Renal clearance depends on:

a. urinary pH c. absorption
b. glomerural filtration d. distribution

D 62. Application of clinical pharmacokinetics as to management of the individual patient is the:

a. safety c. therapeutic
b. overdosage d. a & c

A 63. The time in hours necessary to reduce the drug concentration in the blood, the plasma, or serum to half its
original concentration after equilibrium is reaced:
a. biological half-life c. bioavailability
b. area under the curve d. a & b

A 64. The breakdown of ingested foreign compounds to simpler structures:

a. catabolism c. homeostasis
b. anabolism d. none of the above

A 65. If the extent and rate of absorption is similar to the standard drug, it has achieved:
a. bioequivalence of a drug c. pharmaceutical alternative product
b. pharmaceutical equivalence d. a &b

A 66. The magnitude of bile production depends on:

a. type of food c. the enzyme activity
b. the amount of bile emptied d. all of the above

B 67. Biotransformation of a drug takes place in the liver in the presence of:
a. energy from the body c. substance destroyed in the
b. enzymes which act as catalysts d. a & c

C 68. Due to their anatomical structure, the organ that is considered as the most important site of drug absorption is:
a. large intestine c. small intestine
b. stomach d. mucous membrane of the mouth

A 69. Biliary excretion principle:

a. through the bile duct into the duodenum
b. major portion of the bile is excreted
c. as metabolite
d. any of the above

D 70. Factor determining the biological activity of the drug:

a. formulation of the dosage form c. dose
b. individual d. all of the above

D 71. Factor affecting gastric emptying time of a drug:

a. age of the person c. body posture
b. time of the day d. all of them

B 72. The hyphotetical plasma volume in mL of the unmetabolized drug which is cleared in one minute via the kidney:
a. volume of distribution c. total clearance
b. renal clearance d. area under the curve

A 73. The process that determines absolute bioavailability are the first pass effect and:
a. absorption c. distribution
b. liberation d. metabolism

A 74. Factor affecting difference between loading and maintenance dose:

a. half-life of a drug c. adverse effect
b. effectiveness of the dose d. b & c

D 75. A relative bioavailability study is necessary when there is:

a. a change in gelenic of the dru
b. a change in the method of manufacture
c. a change in the means of preservation
d. all of the above

B 76. In organs and tissues that are well perfused:

a. distribution is lower c. distribution rate is negligible
b. distribution is faster d. none of the above
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D 77. The following pathological state influences the volume of distribution EXCEPT:
a. renal disease c. cardiac insufficiency
b. hepatic disease d. vertigo

A 78. The volume of distribution of a drug is:

a. mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug in body and the concentration of drug in
the blood
b. a measure of an individual's blood volume
c. an expression of total body volume
d. a measure of the individual fluid volume

D 79. The biologic half-life of many drugs is often prolonged in new born infants because of:
a. a higher decrease of protein binding
b. microsomal enzyme induction
c. more complete absorption of drugs
d. incompletely developed enzyme system

A 80. Drugs are usually released much more slowly from fat because:
a. fat has relatively limited blood supply
b. drugs are fat bound that plasma bound
c. fat-bound-drugs bind to itself more
d. all of the above

D 81. Which of the following factos increase the rate if gastric emptying:
a. fats c.anticholinergic
b. increasing viscosity d. none of the above

D 82. Possible approaches to measure bioavailability:

a. blood level data c. clinical data
b. urinary excretion data d. all of the above

D 83. The force of attraction which binds drugs to albumin:

a. Van der Waal's c. hydrogen bond
b. hydrophobic bond d. all of the above

A 84. The metabolism and/or the elimination of a drug by gastrointestinal and hepatic drug metabolizing enzyme
which can occur after oral administration of a drug:
a. first pass effect c. hepatic clearance
b. biliary recycling d. BUN

B 85. The administration of the same dose of active ingredient in different Galenic forms:
a. always leads to the same therapeutic effect
b. does not necessarily lead to the same therapeutic effect
c. always lead to different therapeutic effect
d. none of the above

A 86. The theory which states that the cell membrane is made up of a bi-lipid layer and fluid protein molecules
interspersed between the 2 layers of lipid:
a. fluid-mosaic d. nicholson
b. Monsanto e. none of the above
c. Davidson

D 87. Cumulative urinary excretion is often used in the pharmacokinetic and clinical studies in man and animals to
learn about the disposition of the drug and to determine the following:
a. Ka c. % of drug absorbed
b. fraction of drug absorbed d. all of the above

B 88. Is the loss of drug from the central compartment due to transfer into other compartments and/or elimination or
metabolism:
a. dosage regimen d. creatinine clearance
b. disposition e. circadian rhythm
c. depot phase

A 89. An entity which can be described by a definite volume and a concentration of drug contained in that volume:
a. compartment c. receptor
b. serum level d. bloodstream

B 90. A cell or a cell component where the final interaction between drug and receptor takes place:
a. receptor c. unit membrane
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b. biophase d. muscle

A 91. Drugs that are absorbed in the GIT are generally:

a. absorbed into the portal circulation and pass through the liver
before entering the general circulation
b. filtered from the bloody by the kidney, then reabsorbed into the
general circulation
c. not affected by the liver enzymes
d. stored in the liver

C 92. The speed of blood perfusion in an organ, usually expressed in mL/100 g organ weight/min.
a. accumulation c. blood flow rate
b. bioavailability d. absorption

A 93. Drugs in which the pharmacological action depends directly on the chemical structure of the drug:
a. structure specific drugs c. drug agonist
b. structure non-specific drugs d. none of the above

A 94. Phosporous poison reacting with cupric sulfate in the intestines (so as to prevent the absorption of the poison )
is an example of _____antagonism.
a. chemical c. non-equilibrium
b. competitive d. none of the above

C 95. The ratio of creatinine excreted in urine to the concentration of creatinine

In plasma:
a. creatinine concentration c. creatinine clearance
b. creatinine excretion d. renal clearance

A 96. If drug A is more lipophilic than drug B, then

a. drug A will be better distributed that drug B
b. drug B will be better distributed that drug A
c. drug agonist
d. none of the above

C 97. Drugs of low solubility may be brought into solution by the use of:
a. solvent c. surfactants
b. vehicle d. all of the above

D 98. The LADME system is employed in:

a. the development of new active compounds
b. the determination of effective dose sizes
c. the adjustment of dosage regimen
d. all of the above

C 99. A type of antagonism whereby the agonist and the antagonist bind to different receptor and have opposite
pharmacologic actions:
a. partial antagonism c. non-competitive antagonism
b. non-equilibrium antagonism d.competitive antagonism

C 100. A type of antagonism whereby the antagonist formsirreversible receptor binding:

a. partial antagonism c. non-equilibrium antagonism
b. non-competitive antagonism d. competitive antagonism

C 101. Is the hyphotetical volume of distribution in mL of the unmetabolized drug which is cleared per unit time by any
pathway of drug removal:
a. diffusion layer d. clinical pharmacokinetics
b. diurnal variation e. none of the above
c. clearance

B 102. Obtained when the drug product is administered at the site where the pharmacological response is desired and
when the drug released from the acts by adsorption to the skin or mucosa or penetrates into the skin or
mucosa, but does not enter the systemic circulation or lymphatic system.
a. systemic effect c. mean transit time
b. local effect d. micro constants

A 103. Tissue distribution of drugs is highly dependent on

a. organ perfusion c. both a & b
b. type of dosage form d. none of the above

C 104. Maintenance of a steady state which characterized the interval environment of the healthy organism:
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a. steady state c. homeostasis

b. depot phase d. maintenance dose
A 105. An entity which can be described by a definite volume and a concentration of drug obtained in that volume
a. compartment c. receptor
b. serum level d. none of these

B 106. Membrane potential is due to the:

a. adsorption of protein to the outside of the lipid layer
b. different distribution of ions in the extracellular and intracellular fluid
c. both a & b
d. pH of the medium

D 107. The cell membrane is capable of forming vesicles which may engulf drug substances outside the cell
membrane to transport the drug (via the engulfed drug) into the compartment:
a. ion-pair d. pinocytosis
b. passive diffusion e. active transport
c. convective transport

D 108. In the diffusion controlled system, the initial rate of dissolution is directly proportional to the:
a. pKa c. quantity of free acid present
b. pH d. solubility of the drug in the dissolution medium

D 109. Refers to a change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic parameters during absorption, distribution,
metabolism, and excretion by over-loading of processes due to increased dose sizes:
a. nonlinear kinetics d. both a & c
b. linear kinetics e. both b & c
c. saturation kinetics

B 110. The concentration of the ionic moiety of weak acids increases with:
a. decreasing pH of aqueous solution c. increasing pOH of aqueous solution
b. increasing pH of aqueous solution d. all of the above

E 111. Which of the following drugs is not listed as a candidate for routine therapeutic drug monitoring programs?
a. theophylline d. digoxin
b. aminoglycosides e. penicillin
c. phenytoin

D 112. The ff. are the mechanism by which drugs containing sorption promoters penetrate the skin
a. decrease viscosity of the medium
b. chelation of intercellular groups
c. widening of either lipid or aqueous phase or both phases found in the intercellular matrix
d. all of the above

B 113. Type of antagonism which is dependent on concentration (of either agonist antagonist or both) and this
antagonism is reversible:
a. chemical d. non-equilibrium
b. competitive e. partial
c. non-competitive

A 114. Structural nonspecific drugs act by

a. physicochemical processes c. biochemical processes
b. physical processes d. none of the above

D 115. The ff. characterize transport of a drug solution across a membrane by passive diffusion except:
a. membrane thickness c. partition coefficient
b. volume of outside compartment d. membrane length

C 116. The physical barrier to transport in the body:

a. carrier molecule d. any of the above choices
b. inactive complex e. none of the above
c. unit membrane

A 117. That portion of a prolonged release dosage form which liberates the drug
From the form at a slower rate that its unrestricted absorption rate:
a. depot phase d. all of the above
b. release phase e. none of the choices
c. dissolve phase

A 118. The determination and recording of drug concentrations during the course of therapy in order to adjust, if
necessary, the dosage regimen:
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a. monitoring c. metabolizing
b. patient charting d. all of the above

E 119. The ff. are the characteristics of active transport, except :

a. against a concentration gradient d. all of the above
b. follows saturation kinetics e. none of the above
c. carrier mediated

A 120. When active transport system become saturated, the rate process will be
a. zero order c. first order
b. pseudo-zero order d. pseudo-first order

B 121. A drug which possesses little or does not possess intrinsic activity:
a. agonist d. toxins
b. antagonist e. none of the above
c. non specific drugs

A 122. Plasma protein binding is of significant influence in the distribution equilibrium

a. the drug is polar c. the drug is oil soluble
b. the drug is nonpolar d. all of the above

D 123. A type of absorption mechanism which requires the expenditure of ATP

a. convective transport c. ion-pair transport
b. pinocytosis d. active transport

B 124. The biosynthesis of more complex compounds

a. catabolism c. homeostasis
b. anabolism d. none of the above

B 125. The value of particle size reduction to enhance drug absorption is limited to the situation in which the:
a. absorption process occurs by active transport
b. absorption process is rate limited by the dissolution of the drug in the GI
c. drug is very soluble
d. drug is very potent

D 126. Gastric emptying is slowed by all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. vigorous exercise d. hunger
b. fatty food e. emotional stress
c. hot meals
D 127. Membranes are responsible for which of the following processes
a. uptake of liquid material c. extrusion of waste materials
b. uptake of solid material d. all of the above

C 128. A theory which states that effectiveness lasts as long as the receptor is occupied
a. hypothesis of Paton c. hypothesis of Ariens & Stephenson
b. lock & key hypothesis d. hypothesis of clark

D 129. The systematized dosage schedule for therapy

a. dose size c. dosage form
b. loading dose d. dosage regimen

D 130. Example of sorption promoters:

a. surfactants c. viscosity-decreasing agents/thinners
b. chelating agents d. all of the above

C 131. This pharmacokinetic parameter is representative of the amount of drug absorbed:

a. T1/2 d. Kel
b. T90 e. Vd
c. AUC

C 132. A term defined as the combination of a drug molecule with a receptor

a. antagonism c. affinity
b. intrinsic activity d. none of the above

A 133. The primary proof of a drug's availability is:

a. clinical efficacy d. appearance of metabolites in urine
b. production of high blood levels e. appearance of metabolites in blood
c. production of high urine levels

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C 134. These are formed when a substance is capable of forming channels or cages which can take in another
substance into the intraspace of the structure:

a. salting in d. solid-in-solid solution complex

b. salting out e. none of the above
c. clathrate

D 135. The final elimination from the body's systemic circulation via the kidney into the urine via bile, and saliva into
intestines and into feces, via sweat, via skin, via milk:
a. metabolism c. absorption
b. distribution d. excretion

C 136. Lipid/water partition coefficient permits:

a. convective transport c. passive transport
b. active transport d. ion-pair transport

C 137. Salts of electrolytes:

a. higher solubility c. both
b. more rapid dissolution rate d. none of the above

C 138. Reasons for chemical variations:

a. change the structure of the active compound in order to increase pharmacologic response
b. maintain the basic structure but change solubility by the formation of either salts, esters, ethers, or
complexes
c. both a & b
d. none of the above

E 139. Factors affecting biological performance of drugs:

a. viscosity d. adsorption
b. polymorphism e. all of the above
c. solubilizing agents

B 140. Is the phenomenon observed if the rate of absorption is slower than the rate of elimination, or one of the
distribution rate is slower than the rate elimination:
a. feathering d. dose dumping
b. flip-flop model e. none of the above
c. residual

B 141. Mechanism of absorption of drugs in order of their importance:

a. active transport-passive diffusion-convective transport
b. passive diffusion-convective transport-active transport
c. convective transport-active transport-passive diffusion

D 142. The distribution of law of true partition coefficient is exact only for ideal solution under the following conditions:
a. when the two liquid phases are completely immiscible
b. when the solute neither associates nor dissociate in either phase
c. when the solute concentration is relatively low
d. all of the above

B 143. A change of pH in the aqueous phase alters the_______ of electrolytes

a. degree of ionization c. degree of acidification
b. degree of dissociation d. degree of purification

B 144. Sodium pump is a special type of:

a. convective transport c. passive transport
b. active transport d. ion-pair transport

A 145. The capacity of the body to eliminate the drug after it has reached the general circulation is reflected by:
a. total clearance c. AUV
b. biliary recycling d. volume of distribution

A 146. A dosage form for which the drug release characteristics of time course and/or drug release location are chosen
to accomplish therapeutic or convenience objectives:
a. modified release dosage forms c. conventional dosage forms
b. sustained release dosage forms d. all of the above

D 147. Factors affecting pharmacokinetic variability:

a. dosage form c. particle size
b. viscosity d. all of the above
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D 148. Biliary recycling is influenced by:

a. rate of excretion of drug into the bile
b. rate of loss of drug with feces
c. type of food intake
d. all of the above

C 149. What is the specific organ of the animal used for In vivo test of active transport mechanism?
a. duodenum c. ileum
b. ascending colon d. transverse colon

C 150. The ratio of the drug concentration in the lipid phase over the concentration of the drug in the aqueous phase is
equal to the:
a. APC c. partition coefficient
b. TPC d. none of the above
D 151. The sum of all the chemical reactions for biotransformation of endogenous and exogenous substances which
take place in the living cell:
a. excretion c. elimination
b. absorption d. metabolism

C 152. If the drug permeates through the capillary walls and enter the blood stream:
a. adsorption d. sorption
b. permeation e. all of the above
c. absorption

A 153. Facilitated transport is similar to active transport in that it:

a. is carrier mediated d. none of the above
b. utilizes ATP e. all of the above
c. is against a concentration gradient

D 154. The lipid phase which is usually employed in the determination of apparent partition coefficient:
a. water c. cotton seed oil
b. corn oil d. octanol

B 155. A property of drug which has an affinity and generates an impulse with a receptor:
a. antagonism c. affinity
b. intrinsic activity d. none of the above

A 156. Highly lipid soluble drugs are predominantly distributed in:

a. nervous tissues c. fluid compartments
b. blood d. all of the above

B 157. The term "prodrug" refers to:

a. a chemical substance that is part of the synthesis of another drug
b. compound that liberates an active drug in the body
c. compound which nay be therapeutically active but still under clinical trials
d. drug that is classified as being "probably effective"

B 158. The value of particle size reduction to enhance drug absorption is limited to those situations in which the:
a. absorption process occurs by active transport
b. absorption process is rate limited by dissolution of drugs in GI fluids
c. drug is very soluble
d. drug is very potent

D 159. A pre-requisite of drug absorption is that the drug be in aqueous solution except in the absorption mechanism
of:
a. passive diffusion c. facilitated transport
b. ion-pair transport d. pinocyctosis

A 160. A theory which states the effectiveness does not depend on the actual occupation of receptor by the drug, but
upon obtaining the proper stimulus.
a. hypothesis of Paton c. hypothesis of clark
b. hyphotesis of Ariens and Stephenson d. lock & key Stephenson

C 161. Equation followed by passive diffusion:

a. Noyes-Whitney d. Henderson-Hasselbalch
b. Van Slyke e. none of the above
c. Fick's Law

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B 162. The relative amount of drug from an administered dosage form which enters the systemic circulation and the
rate at which the drug appears in blood streams

a. accumulation c. blood flow rate

b. bioavailability d. absorption

C 163. To produce its characteristic pharmacologic action(s), a drug must always:

a. reach high blood levels
b. be absorbed from the gastrointestinal tact
c. achieve adequate concentration at its site (s) of action
d. be excreted unchanged in the urine

C 164. A term defined as the combination of a drug molecule with a receptor:

a. antoganism c. affinity
b. intrinsic activity d. none of the above

B 165. Dose dumping is defined as:

a. an intended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic circulation
b. an intended sudden release of large amount of drugs into systemic circulation
c. slow release of the drug into systemic circulation
d. slow absorption of the drug into the systemic circulation

B 166. Antagonist has a high affinity but low intrinsic activity.

a. chemical antagonism c. competitive antagonism
b. partial antagonism d. all of the above

D 167. A theory which advances the idea that maximum pharmacologic effect can be obtained if all the receptors are
occupied:
a. Hypothesis of Paton c. Lock & Key Hypothesis
b. Hypothesis of Ariens&Stephnson d. Hypothesis of Clark

D 168. Which of the ff. properties of surfactants tend to increase the rate of dissolution:
a. surface tension lowering effect
b. production of micelles with the parent drug
c. absence of peptizing action
d. all of the above

C 169. Cholekinesis is a process which involves the:

a. formation of bile in the liver
b. formation of bile in the gallbladder
c. emptying of bile from the gallbladder
d. emptying of bile from the liver

D 170. The pharmacologic action of structurally nonspecific drugs depend directly on:
a. chemical structure c. presence of a functional group
b. physical properties of the drug d. a & c

A 171. A transport of absorption that does not proceed against a concentration gradient:
a. facilitated transport c. ion-pair transport
b. active transport d. none of the above

A 172. It deals with physical and chemical properties of the drug substance, the dosage form and drug product upon
administration:
a. biopharmaceutics c. both a & b
b. pharmacokinetics d. none of the above

D 173. The following mechanisms of absorption require the presence of drug in aqueous solution except:
a. passive diffusion c. facilitated transport
b. convective transport d. pinocytosis

D 174. Gastric emptying is slowed by all of the following except:

a. vigorous exercise c. hot meals
b. fatty foods d. hunger

D 175. A relative bioavailability study is necessary when there is:

a. change in the ionic form of the drug
b. change in the method of manufacture
c. change in the means of preservation
d. all of them

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B 176. The following are the common drug metabolism reactions, except:
a. oxidation c. reduction
b. carboxylation d. conjugation

C 177. The application of pharmacokinetic principles in the safe and effective treatment of individual patients and in the
optimization of drug therapy:
a. clinical pharmacy c. clinical pharmacokinetics
b. clinical pharmacology d. clinical biopharmaceutics

A 178. A drug which possesses affinity and intrinsic activity:

a. agonist d. toxins
b. antagonist e. none of the above
c. non-specific drugs

A 179. A phenomenon that occurs when drugs filtered through the glomeruli are reabsorbed from the tubuli into the
systemic circulation:
a. urinary recycling c. reabsorption
b. biliary recycling d. a & b

A 180. Drugs that are absorbed in the GI tract are generally:

a. absorbed into the portal circulation
b. filtered from the blood by the kidney, then reabsorbed into the general circulation
c. not affected by the liver enzymes
d. stored in the live

A 181. Which body muscle causes more rapid absorption when given intramuscular injection is:
a. deltoid c. intravenous
b. gluteal d. a & b

D 182. In percutaneous administration, absorption of the drug is delayed due to:

a. presence of horny layer of the skin c. presence of oil in the skin
b. thickness of the skin d. a & b

A 183. The volume of distribution of a drug is:

a. mathematical relationship between the total amount of drug
in the body and the concentration of drug in the blood
b. a measure of an individual's blood volume
c. an expression of total body volume
d. a measure of the individual's fluid volume

D 184. In ophthalmic administration, the permeability of the drug onto the cornea depends on:
a. aqueous solubility of the drug c. rate of permeability
b. Lipid solubility d. a & b

D 185. Compartments of body water includes:

a. vascular fluid c. salivary fluid
b. extra cellular fluid d. a & b

D 186. Types of Carrier mediated transport:

a. active mechanism c. passive mechanism
b. facilitated diffusion d. a & b

A 187. Cmax is the peak drug concentration in the:

a. plasma c. muscle
b. urine d. bile

D 188. Characteristic of aerosol particles to be absorbed is:

a. impact in the alveolar sac c. dissolves in the stomach fluid
b. dissolves in the lung fluids d. a&b

B 189. In general, the form of a drug that can be absorbed faster is:
a. ionized form c. bound form
b. unionized form d. a & c

D 190. When can absorption of a drug be slower than its elimination?

a. when drugs are rapidly metabolized or excreted
b. when drugs are poorly soluble in water
c. when drugs are soluble in fats and oils
d. a & b

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D 191. Absorption is not involve when a drug is administered by which of the following routes:
a. intravenous c. intraspinal
b. inta-arterial d. all of the above

B 192. In organs and tissues that are well perfused:

a. distribution lower c. distribution rate is negligible
b. distribution is faster

D 193. Which of the following is the first process to occur before a drug can become available for absorption from
tablet dosage form
a. dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids
b. ionization of the drug
c. dissolution of the drug in the blood
d. disintegration of the tablet

C 194. Drug products can also be evaluated by comparing curves of serum concentration vs. time (blood level curve).
The most important parameters that can be obtained from such curves are:
a. peak concn., biologic concn. Half-life, elimination rate constant
b. biologic halftime, peak concn, total AUC
c. peak concn, peak time, total AUC
d. average serum concn, AUC, absorption rate constant

D 195. A disadvantage of inert diluents for powders as a dosage form is:

a. adsorbs onto the active drug substance
b. high cost
c. drugs may not be released immediately
d. a & c

D 196. A test to evaluate dosage forms is:

a. chemical content c. sensitivity test
b. content uniformity d. a & b

B 197. Two different oral formulation of the same drug having equal areas under their respective serum concentration
time curve:
a. deliver the same total amount of drug to the body and are therefore bioequivalent
b. deliver the same total amount of drug to the body but are not necessarily bioequivalent
c. are bioequivalent by definition
d. are bioequivalent if they meet USP standards

D 198. The area under the serum concentration time curve represents:
a. biologic half-life of the drug
b. amount of drug that is clear by the kidney
c. amount of drug in the original dosage form
d. amount of drug absorbed
A 199. The intensity of the pharmacologic action of a drug is most dependent upon the:
a. concentration of the drug at the receptor area
b. onset time of the drug at the receptor area
c. minimum toxic drug concentration (MTC) in the plasma

B 200. Drug concentration in systemic circulation rises to a peak followed by a steep fall:
a. open one compartment intravenous
b. open one compartment extravascular
c. open two compartment IV
d. open two compartment EV

D 201. Which of the following refers to the intensity of pharmacologic response?

c
a. max c. AUC
t
b. max d. MEC

A 202. The advantage of solid dosage form for administration is:

a. most stable c. faster disintegration
b. faster dissolution d. faster absorption than other forms

C 203. Which of the following is the first process that must occur before a drug can become available for absorption
from a tablet dosage form?
a. dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids
b. ionization of the drug
c. disintegration of the tablet
d. dissolution of the drug in the blood

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B 204. An important characteristic of a dosage form being manufactured is:

a. aesthetic value c. fast selling
b. acceptable to the patient d. b & c

B 205. The peak of the serum concentration vs. time curve approximates the:
a. point when the maximum pharmacological effect occurs
b. point when absorption and elimination of the drug have equalize
c. maximum concentration of the drug in the urine
d. point when the drug begins to be metabolized

A 206. The primary proof of drug's availability is the:

a. production of its pharmacologic effect
b. production of high levels in the blood
c. production of high urine levels
d. appearance of metabolite in the blood

B 207. Suspensions provide better absorption of drugs than:

a. solutions c. intravenous injections
b. tablets d. intramuscular preparations

B 208. An absorption process is not involved when a drug is given by which of the following routes:
a. Oral d. Rectal
b. IV e. SubQ
c. IM

A 209. One of the current major problems in drug therapy is:

a. patient's non-compliance with prescribed regimen
b. wrong environment
c. absence of doctors
d. high incidence of diseases

D 210. The purpose of biotransformation reaction is:

a. deactivate the drug c. promote elimination of the inactivated drug
b. preserve the drug from destruction d. a& c

B 211. Contaminants in a formulation maybe the following except:

a. dust c. microorganisms
b. drug substance d. heavy metals from the machine

B 212. The function of the bile and bile salts is:

a. solubilize the drug molecules after a meal
b. solubilize fatty/oily substances
c. dissolves inorganic salts
d. a & b

D 213. A condition that may increase the rate of gastric emptying is:
a. depression c. lying on the left side
b. trauma d. a & b

D 214. The purpose of enteric coating the tablet may be:

a. protect the gastric mucosa from irritant drug
b. protect the drug action of gastric fluids
c. protect the drug patient from sensitization
d. a & b

C 215. In coated tablets, the portion which may interfere with disintegration and dissolution is:
a. drug substance c. coating
b. inactive substance d. a & b

C 216. Factors which may influence the bioavailability of drugs from the GIT, except:
a. age of the patient b. healthy individual
b. stress being felt d. if patient is bedridden

D 217. A factor affecting dissolution rate to correlate with bioavailability is:

a. particle size of the drug b. patient acceptance
c. presence of surfactant d. a & b

D 218. Bioavailability of a drug through dissolution rate tests can be predicted if:
a. dissolved drug remains free in the GIT
b. dissolved drug remains intact in the GIT
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c. the drug decomposes in the GIT

d. a & b

D 219. The form of drug excreted after administration is as:

a. free drug c. complex
b. metabolite d. a & b

B 220. The rate of diffusion of drugs across biologic membranes is most commonly:
a. independent of the concentration gradient
b. directly proportional to the concentration gradient
c. dependent on the availability of carrier substrate
d. dependent on the route of administration

C 221. A route of administration giving a fast action is:

a. rectal c. intravenous
b. oral d. intramuscular

B 222. The problem in content uniformity of the drug in a dosage form is:
a. insufficient disintegration
b. insufficient mixing of a small amount of the drug in large batches
c. insufficient amount of the drug in the formulation
d. a & c

C 223. Differences is bioavailability are most frequently observed with drugs administered by which of the following
routes:
a. SQ d. IM
b. IV e. Oral
c. SL

D 224. The controlled release dosage form is sometimes necessary for action of some drugs for the purpose of:
a. prolonging absorption of the drug itself
b. delay the absorption of the drug
c. for immediate action
d. a & b

A 225. In all quantitative work for bioavailability, the concentration of the drug is measured in the:
a. blood plasma c. gastric fluids
b. urine d. a & b

D 226. The term systemic circulation refers primarily to:

a. veins c. hepatic portal vein
b. arteries d. a & b

B 227. Comparative bioavailability involves the determination of the relative bioavailability of an active drug in:
a. one formulation c. one inactive drug present
b. two formulation d. two excipients present

B 228. As to the nature of the drug for intravenous injection, the best form of dosage form is:
a. suspension form c. emulsion form
b. solution form d. a & c

B 229. Mechanisms determining the excretion of drugs, except:

a. glomerural filtration c. tubular reabsorption
b. protein binding d. tubular secretion
A 230. From the graph below, which of the ff. statements is correct

Drug A is more potent than Drug B

a. Drug A is less effective than drug C
b. Drug C is more potent than A
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c. Drug B is more potent than A

From nos. 231-235, choose from the ff.

a. Bioequivalent drug products
b. Pharmaceutic equivalents
c. Pharmeceutic alternatives
d. Therapeutic equivalents

B 231. Chemical equivalents.

C 232. Same therapeutic moiety but different salts, esters or complexes

D 233. Different active ingredients, same use:

A 234. Pharmaceutic equivalents having similar rate & extent of absorption

A 235. Same active drug, same effect & have equal potential for adverse effects

D 236. The following are high risk potential drugs

a. warfarin c. aminophyllin and aspirin
b. digoxin and prednisone d. all of the above

B 237. The equilibrium between free and bound drug acts as:
a. an equilibrium system c. a transport system
b. a buffer system d. a way for releasing the bound drug
B 238. The rate of the metabolic processes the drug undergoes depends on
a. absorption in gastric juice c. presence of another drug
b. drug concentration at a given time d. food interaction
C 239. Process of transferring chemical substances from the GI tract through its wall into the blood and lymphatic
stream
a. diffusion c. absorption
b. adsorption d. convective transport

B 240. The ratio of the concentration at equilibrium between a lipid phase (usually n-octanol) and aqueous phase
(usually buffer pH 7.4)
a. bioavailability c. bioequivalence
b. apparent pertition coefficient d. half-life
B 241. In the oral administration of drugs for aged people, the possible consequence/s when the gastric emptying time
is increased is/are
a. reduce mixing of intestinal content d. a and c
b. delayed transfer to small intestine e. a and b
c. change in epithelial transfer

B 242. Arterial blood is:

a. non-oxygenated blood c. both
b. oxygenated blood d. none of the above

D 243. Instability which could lead to the rejection of a drug product:

a. extensive chemical degradation of the active drug
b. problem of bioavailability
c. a, b, and c
d. a & c only

B 244. Measured from the product's data of manufacture until its chemical or biological activity is not less than usually
accepted USP 90% of the labeled potency, provided physical, microbiological therapeutic and toxicological
characteristics have not deleteriously change within this period.
a. labeled claim c. bioavailability
b. acceptance stability d. bioequivalence

A 245. The rate of the metabolic processes the drug undergoes depends on:
a. drug concentration at a given time c. absorption in gastric juice
b. presence of another drug d. food interaction
B 246. Anesthetics are drugs which are stored in which body tissues:
a. albumin d. muscle
b. adipose e. neurons
c. globulin

C 247. The least significant organ for excretion is the ___________.

a. kidneys c. mammary gland
b. rectum d. salivary gland
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A 248. The half life of a pharmaceutical product, with a K value at 30 degrees Celsius of 3.66721337 x 10-5 hours is:
a. 18897.18329 hrs. d. 18997.18439 hrs.
b. 2863.209454 hrs. e. none of the above
c. 3.667 days

B 249. Passive diffusion involves drug movement from an area of:

a. high concentration to an area of higher concentration
b. high concentration to an area of lower concentration
c. low concentration to an area of higher concentration
d. high concentration to an area of equally high concentration
e. no concentration to an area of higher concentration

D 250. It is the phenomenon when organic substituted ammonium salts or salts various inorganic acids are added to
mixture of organic non-electrolytes causing the dissolution of the undissolved solutes:
a. chelation c. salvation
b. clathrate formation d. salting in

C 251. To produce its characteristic pharmacologic effect a drug must always:

a. reach high blood levels
b. be absorbed from the GIT
c. achieve adequate concentration at the site of action
d. excreted unchanged in the urine

C 252. If the particle size decreases:

a. dissolution rate increases c. a & b
b. surface area increases d. none

B 253. The resulting solid when a drug and polymer like PVP or PEG are dissolved in a solvent with the drug, then the
solvent is evaporated/
a. hydrates c. complex
b. co-precipitates d. crystals

C 254. Drug emptied via bile into the small intestine can be reabsorbed from the intestinal lumen into systemic
circulation is the phenomenon of:
a. enterohepatic recirculation c. a & b
b. biliary recycling d. none of the choices

B 255. The ratio of the amount of the drug present in the body over the plasma concentration.
a. intrinsic clearance c. renal clearance
b. volume of distribution d. metabolic clearance

B 256. Which of the following is considered as structurally specific drug?

a. halothane c. nitrous oxide
b. sulfonamides d. phenol

C 257. As soon as drug has passed the epithelium of the gastrointestinal mucosa, it can reach the systemic circulation
by:
a. entering through the villi c. both
b. entering through the leacteals d. none

B 258. The ions of added electrolytes require water for hydration reducing amount of water available for the solution of
the non-electrolyte is the phenomenon of:
a. salting in c. clathrate formation
b. salting out d. chelation

A 259. Drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety, or its precursor but not necessarily in the same
amount or dosage forms or as the same salt ester:
a. pharmaceutical alternate c. bioequivalent drug products
b. pharmaceutical equivalents d. none of the above

A 260. Inactive enzymes:

a. zymogens c. apoenzymes
b. haloenzymes d. all of the choices sodium

D 261. Which of the ff. pairs is not correct?

a. sodium carboxymethylcellulose - suspending agent
b. xantham gum - thixotropic suspending agent
c. alcohol - preservative
d. sesame - vechicle for suspension
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D 262. Which of the ff. relationship is not correct?

a. reduce particle size: increase rate of bioavailability
b. increase retention time in the GIT: increase amount of the drug absorbed
c. retard drug dissolution: reduce drug absorption
d. increase solubility: decrease rate of absorption

A 263. An interaction that occurs through receptor-mediated events, as in atropine blocking the effects of acetylcholine
at muscarinic receptor sites:

a. pharmacologic antagonism d. physiologic antagonism

b. dispositional antagonism e. chemical antagonisms
c. functional antagonism

C 264. Characterizes the clearing of the hypothetical plasma volume of a drug per unit time
a. hepatic clearance d. intrinsic clearance
b. renal clearance e. genital clearance
c. total clearance

C 265. The term that is used to tell the maximum capacity of the kidneys for active secretion
a. minimum transport d. transport maximum
b. minimal transport e. maximal transport
c.

D 266. Drug dosing problems in obese patients are often due to:
a. large deviation of body composition from that of the normal adult
b. the lipid solubility
c. the distribution of the drug between fat tissue and body water
d. all of the above

B 267. Drugs used in very critical therapeutic situations and which have documented evidence of inequivalency:
a. moderate risk potential d. low risk potential
b. high risk potential e. bioequivalence

B 268. In what part of GIT, no absorption of food takes place but large amount of water are absorbed.
a. rectum c. small intestine
b. large intestine d. stomach

C 269. A second substance tends to accumulate to the surface of a first substances due to intermolecular forces or
attraction is a phenomenon of:
a. chemisorption c. adsorption
b. absorption d. all of the above

C 270. The following are factors affecting GIT absorption, except:

a. pKa value of drug c. none of the choices
b. pH of drug product e. both a and b only

B 271. The protein binding has the following characteristics, expect:

a. selective c. reversible
b. pharmacologically active d. specific

D 272. These are formed if a substance is capable of forming channels, or cages which can take up another substance
into the interspace of the structure:
a. metal complexation d. clathrate
b. coordination e. chelate
c. ligand field

D 273. The drug molecule must fit the receptor like a key and lock
a. occupation theory c. both
b. rate theory d. none

B 274. If the two liquid phases are completely immiscible, this is an assumption for:
a. true system c. real system
b. ideal system d. all the above

A 275. If the drug appears in the feces after oral administration

a. the drug was not completely absorbed in the GIT
b. the drug was not completely dissolved in the GI fluids
c. the drug formed complex with other materials in the GIT
d. metabolites are excreted therefore, will not produce toxic effects on the individual
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D 276. The drug metabolism may take place in:

a. the liver c. the lungs and kidney
b. GI content d. all of the above

A 277. Biliary recycling is influenced by:

a. rate of excretion of the drug into the bile
b. rate of absorption of the drug
c. any of the given choices
d. none of the given choices
C 278. In drug metabolism, the following is true:
a. drug metabolism is often termed detoxification or detoxication
b. it refers solely to the chemical bio-transformation of a drug by the biological environment
c. both
d. none of the choices

A 279. Venous blood is:

a. non- oxygenated blood c. all of the choices
b. oxygenated blood d. none of the choices

E 280. Factor/s influencing renal clearance of a drug are/is

a. age d. a and b
b. sex e. a, b and c
c. disease

A 281. Double blind study would mean that:

a. both subject and proctor do not know the controlled population
b. the sample is taken from the population by the proctor
c. both a and b
d. none of the above

A 282. The lesser the gastric emptying time, the faster the gastric emptying rate.
a. true c. erroneous
b. false d. not valid

D 283. The instability which could lead to the rejection of a drug product.
a. problem of bioavailability
b. substantial changes in the appearance of the dosage forms
c. extensive chemical degradation of the active drug
d. all of the above

D 284. Used in calculating dose size for children based on age:

a. Young d. a & b
b. Cowling e. b & c
c. Clark

E 285. Factors affecting membrane transport, except:

a. pKa d. presence or absence of a charge
b. diffusivity e. surfactants
c. partition coefficient

C 286. Formation of pairs (for highly ionized compounds) with endogenous substrate present at the GIT to form neutral
complexes that are absorbed by passive diffusion
a. pinocytosis c. ion pair
b. convective transport d. facilitated transport

B 287. Chemical variation:

a. change the structure of the pharmaceutic ingredient to increase the pharmacologic response
b. change the structure of the active ingredient to increase pharmacologic
c. both a & b
d. none of the choices

B 288. Metabolites can have the ff. properties except:

a. produce therapeutic activity c. can be reactivated
b. cannot produce toxicity d. can be in its inactive form

D 289. Which of the ff. correct?

a. reduced binding to protein by the drug molecule will decrease the
therapeutic effect of the drug
b. saturation of binding produces linear pharmacokinetics
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c. bound drugs can diffuse into the tissues

d. only the unbound drug may be available for metabolism

D 290. The pharmacokinetic characteristics of a are primarily determined by considering the changes in the blood or
plasma concentration as a function of time. The analysis of the experimental data is done by:
a. feathering c. methods of residuals
b. exponential stripping d. all of the above

D 291. The partition coefficient can be considered as:

a. an index of the relative affinity of a drug for two immiscible solvents
b. an index of comparative solubilities in solvents
c. a parameter of the relative rate of partitioning from one phase into another
d. all of the above
e. only a & b

E 292. To be able for the DOTS Method to be precise the following pharmacokinetic parameter/s must be known:
a. c max after a single dose d. a & b
b. time to reach the plateu e. all of the above
c. ka and ke

C 293. Phase I drug study poses a problem which should be considered from the following except:
a. safety c. pharmacodynamics
b. analytic sensitivity d. pharmacokinetics

E 294. Chief cells is to pepsin, while parietal cells is to:

a. mucous d. zymogen
b. serious secretions e. HCL
c. cholecystikinin

E 295. Which of the ff. can be considered as less perfused organ?

a. skin d. b & c
b. fat tissue e. a & b
c. kidney

D 296. The bioavailability or bioequivalence problems may depend on the following except:
a. manufacturing method employed d. complex
b. change in manufacturing practice e. blood flow
c. environment

A 297. As the polarity of drug increases due to the presence of hydrophilic functional groups, water solubility:
a. increases c. no change
b. decreases d. polarity is not related to

A 298. All phenomenon characteristics are associated with the process of facilitated diffusion of drugs, except:
a. the drug crosses the membrane against a concentration
b. the process is selective for certain ionic or structural configuration of the drug
c. if two compounds are transported by the same mechanism
d. the transport mechanism becomes saturated at high drug solubility

B 299. "A group of iron-containing isoenzymes that activate molecular oxygen to form capable of interacting with
organic substrates. The component of microsomal mixed-function oxidase system which this description is
most/closely associated is:
a. cyclooxygenase c. ATP
b. cytochrome d. NADPH

C 300. Alpha-1-glycoprotein binds with:

a. acidic, highly lipophilic drugs c. basic, highly lipophilic drugs
b. acidic, highly lipophobic drugs d. basic, highly lipophobic drugs

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1. This corresponds to the time required for
a drug to reach the a minimum effective
concentration (MEC)
5. For most drugs, which part of the
gastrointestinal tract is the optimum site for
drug absorption after the oral administration?
A. Buccal cavity

A. onset of action B. stomach

B. intensity C. duodenum

C. duration od action D. jejunum

D. Cmax E. colon

E. AUC 6. Which of the following can increase gastric

emptying rate?
2. It is the delivery of the active
pharmaceutical ingredients from a dosage A. administration of metoclopramide
form into solution
B. vigorous exercise
A. Dissolution
C. cold beverages
B. Absorption
D. lying in the left side
C. Liberation
E. consumption of high fat meal
D.Permeation
7. Route of administration in which the drug
D. Disposition (in lotion, ointment, cream, paste, or patch) is
placed on the skin for systemic absorption
3. How much of a 500 mg dose is bioavailable
if the administered drug has F of 75% A. Topical

A. 375 mg B. intracutaneous
B. 500 mg
C. 125 mg C. Transdermal
D. d.50 mg
E. 5 mg D. Buccal
4. Which of the following is the major process
of absorption for most drugs? E. epidermal

A. Passive Diffusion 8. Metered dose aerosols are examples of

which route of administration?
B. Active transport
A. intranasal
C. Facilitated Diffusion
B. inhalational
D. Vesicular transport
C. alveolar
E. Convective transport
D. peroral

E. respiratory
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Disintegration

D. inhalational C. Gastric Emptying

9. Which of the following routes of D. Dissolution

administration has/have no first-pass effect
E. Dispersion
I. buccal
13.For most conventional solid drug products,
II. sublingual which of the following is the rate limiting step
for bioavailability?
III. oral
A. Liberation
IV. rectal
B. Disintegration
A. I only
B. II only C. Solubility
C. I & II
D. d.III only D. Dissolution
E. I, II and IV
10. Which of the following is the plasma level E. Attrition
time curve of an open intravascular two-
compartment model 14. These products are the first ones to be
patented or granted certain exclusivities

A. generic medicines

B. innovator products

C. multi source drug products

D. market leader

E. reference
11. If the AUC for the Phenobarbital 15. Which of the following products are
administered orally by tablet is 6.5 mcg/mL x considered to be pharmaceutical equivalents?
hr and the AUC for the Phenobarbital solution
can give the same dose and route is 8.4 A. Mefenamic acid 250 mg cap &
mcg/mL calculate the relative bioavailability of mefenamic acid 500 mg cap
the drug.
B. amlodipine besylate (innovator) 10
a. 129.23% d. 56. 38% mg tab & amlodipine besylate
(generic) 10 mg tab
b. 100% e. 43.62%
C. amoxicillin 500 mg cap & amoxicillin
c. 77.38% 250 mg/mL susp.
12. This is the process by which a solid drug D. Clindamycin HCl 300 mg cap &
substance becomes dissolved in a solvent clindamycin phosphate 150 mg/mL
amp x 4 mL
A. Liberation
 E. Paracetamol (Brand A) 500 mg tab &
paracetamol (Brand B) 500 mg cap
16. Which of the following drug products are
considered to be pharmaceutical alternatives?
E. e. I to IV
19. Among the following oral drug formulation,
which is considered to be the most
bioavailable?

A. cephalexin 500 mg cap & cefalexin A. Solution

500 mg cap
B. Suspension
B. propranolol 10 mg tab (branded) &
propranolol 10 mg tab (unbranded) C. Emulsion

C. nifedipine 5 mg cap & nifedipine 20 D. Powder

mg mg GITS tab
E. Granule
D. ranitidine HCl (local) 150 mg tab &
20. Dispensing ibuprofen instead of naproxen
ranitidine HCl (imported) 150 mg tab
is an example of:
17. This describes the passive diffusion of the
A. generic dispensing
drugs across the gastrointestinal blood barrier
B. pharmaceutical substitution
A. Fick’s First law
C. pharmaceutical equivalence
B. Noye’s-Whitney equation
D. therapeutic equivalence
C. Henderson-Hasselbach Equation E. therapeutic substitution
21. A drug has high solubility but low
D. Clausius-Clapeyron Equation
permeability may be classified based on the
E. Raoult’s law Biopharmaceutics classification system as:

18. Bioequivalence can be assessed using A. Class 1

which of the following methods?
B. Class 2
I. in vivo pharmacokinetics studies involving
C. Class 3
plasma or urine drug concentrations as a
function of time D. Class 4

II. In vivo pharmacodynamic studies E. Class 5

III. Comparative clinical trials 22. Which of the following physicochemical

properties of a drug will result to a faster
IV. Comparative in vitro studies
dissolution rate?
A. a.I only
A. small surface area
B. unionized form
B. b. I,II
C. high partition coefficient
C. c. III only D. amorphous form
E. large particle size
D. d. I to II 23. in the BCS class the drug dissolves rapidly
and is well absorbed and bioavailability
problem is not expected for immediate-release E. partition coefficient
drug products
26. This refers to the systemic availability of a
A. Class 1 drug after extravascular administration
compared to IV dosing.
B. Class 2
A. bioavailability
C. Class 3
B. bioequivalence
D. Class 4
C. relative bioavailability
E. Class 5
D. absolute bioavailability
24. Enteric coating used to:
E. therapeutic equivalence
I. mask the taste or odor of a drug
27. Parameters used to assess bioavailability/
II. Minimize irritation of gastric mucosa by the biotaquivalence using plasma drug
drug concentration
III. Protect the drug from moisture, light, air A. tmax, Cmax
IV. Prevent inactivation or degradation of the B. tmax, Cmax, AUC
drug in the stomach
C. tmax, Emax
V. delay the release of the drug until the
dosage from the reaches the small intestine, D. t, Du
where the condition for absorption may be
optimal E. t,Du dDu /dt

A. I & II 28.Drugs given by this route of administration

are considered to be 100% bioavailable
B. II & IV
A. Oral
C. V only
B. Sublingual
D. II, IV & V
C. Intravenous
E. I to V
D. Subcutaneous
25. This is an indication of the lipid solubility of
a drug and its likelihood of being transported E. intramuscular
across membrane.
29. Which of the following is NOT an
A. polymorphism extended-release drug product?

B. permeability A. sustained release capsule

C. pH B. enteric-coated tablet

D. pKa C. slow-release tablet

D. prolonged-action drug product

E. repeat-action tablet 33. Pharmaceutical Equivalents are drug
products that have the same
30. This term is applied to a regulatory
approval process in which an application is I. active pharmaceutical ingredients (API)
approved based on experience of equivalence
of a generic drug bioequivalence/in vivo II. Chemical form of the API
equivalence testing.
III. Dosage form
A. dossier
IV. Dosage strength
B. abbreviated new drug application
(ANDA)
V. route of administration
C. in vivo-in vitro correlation (IVIVC)
D. biowaiver
VI. Standards of identity, strength, quality and
E. e. clinical trials
31. This refers to the trade name of the drug purity
product which is privately qwned by the
A.I, II
manufacturer or distributor and is used to
distinguish is the specific drug product from B.II, III, IV
those of competitors.
C.I, II, III
A. generic name
D.I to V
B. chemical name
E. I to VI
C. brand name
34. This reference identifies drug products
D. market name approved on the basis of safety and
effectiveness by the US FDA and contains
E. INN therapeutic equivalence evaluation for
32. In the generalized plasma level time curve approved multisource prescription drug
shown below, which letter corresponds to the products
intensity of action?
A. USP/NF

B. Orange book

C. PNDF

D. Essential Drug list

In C
E. International pharmacopeia

CORRECT ANSWER:

B. Orange Book

CORRECT ANSWER: 35. Which of the following methods is

used to determine AUC?
C.
a. feathering d. analysis of variance
(ANOVA)
 b. back-extrapolation e. two one sided B. B
test
C. C I
c. trapezoidal rule
D.D
36. Pharmaceutical alternatives are products
that have the same E.E

I. active pharmaceutical ingredients (API) 37. It refers to the finished dosage form that
contains the active drug ingredient generally,
II. chemical form of the API but not necessarily in association with inactive
ingredients
III. dosage form
A. formulation
IV. dosage strength
B. therapeutic moiety
V. route of administration
C. drug product
VI. standards of identity, strength, quality and
purity D. Drug delivery system

A.I only E. reference listed drug

B.III, IV, V 39. This must be filed by generic drug

manufacture for approval to market a generic
C.I, III, IV drug product
D. I, V A. abbreviated new drug application
(ANDA)
E. I to IV
B. new drug application (NDA)
37.It refers to the unfinished dosage form that
contains the active drug ingrdient ,generally C. investigational new drug application
,but not necessarily ,in association with active (INDA)
ingredients.
D. biowaiver
A. formulation
E. BA/BE study
B. therapeutic moiety
40. The processes of drug metabolism and
C. drug product excretion constitute
D. drug delivery system A. deposition
E. reference drug list B. elimination
38.In the given plasma-level time curve below C. accumulation
,identify the letter that corresponds to the
onset of action. D. biotransformation

A. A E. clearance
41. It is the term used to describe the B. maximum plasma drug concentration
accidental fast release of drug from a (Cmax)
sustained release dosage form
C. bioavailability
A. liberation
D. bioequivalence
B. steady state
E. therapeutic equivalence
C. dose dumping

D. flip flop model

45. Therapeutic equivalence is established
E. first pass effect when the drug prosuct being compared are:

42. This is the rate and extent to which the I. approved as safe and effective
active pharmaceutical ingredient or active
moiety is absorbed from a drug product and II. pharmaceutical equivalents or alternatives
becomes available at the site of action
III. bioequivalent
A. area under the curve (AUC)
IV. manufactured in compliance to cGMP
B. maximum plasma drug concentration
IV. adequately labeled
(Cmax)
A.I only
C. bioavailability
B.III only
D. bioequivalence
C.I, II, III
E. therapeutic equivalence
D. I to IV
43. This is a measure of the quantity of the
drug in the body and ref;ects the total amount E.I to V
of active drug that reaches the systemic
circulation. 46 .To establish bioequivalence the calculated
confidence interval should fail within the
A. area under the curve (AUC) usually prescribed limit of ___ for the ratio of
the product averages
B. maximum plasma drug concentration
(Cmax) A.50-100%

C. bioavailability B.90-110%

D. bioequivalence C.80-120%

E. therapeutic equivalence D. 95-100%

44. This established when pharmaceutical E. 80-125%

equivalents or alternatives display comparable
bioavailabilities when studied under similar
experimental conditions
A. area under the curve (AUC)
47. Generally, two drug product formulations
whose rate and extent of absorption differ by
__% or less are considered bioequivalent.
A. 50 D. 20 B. Recirculation E. Residence

B.40 E. 10 C. Reactivation

C. 30 52. It is the study of how the physicochemical

properties of a drug, dosage forms and route s
48. For drugs that have very poor aqueous of administration affect the rate and extent of
solubility the rate limiting step on drug drug absorption.
bioavailability is:
A. LADMER system D. Biopharmaceutics
A. disintegration
B. Pharmaceutics E. Pharmacokinetics
B. dissolution
C. Physical Pharmacy
C. permeation
53. This is actual site of pharmacologic action
D. gastric emptying of drugs in the body
E. disaggregation A. compartment D. cytosol
49. Which of the following is NOT true? B. biophase E. plasma
A. The amorphous form of the drug C. cell membrane
generally dissolves faster
54. Which of the following absorption
B. Polymorphs have the same chemical mechanism operate along concentration
structures and physical properties gradient?
C. Some excipients are intentionally I. passive diffusion II. Active transport
added to delay drug absorption
III. facilitiated diffusion IV, vesicular transport
D. smaller particles size increases
dissolution rate A.I only

E. a basic drug is more soluble in an B.III only

acidic medium
C.I and III
50. The tmax of a drug refers to its time:
D. II and IV
A. of the fastest dissolution
E.I to IV
B. to reach maximum drug concentration
55. This is the fraction of an administered
C. of highest solubility dose of a drug that reaches the systemic
circulation in the unchanged form.
D. to reach maximum toxic concentration
A. bioavailable dose D. dumped dose
E. of maximum effectiveness
B. loading dose E. oral dose
51. In the LADMER system, R stands for?
C. maintenance dose
A. Reabsorption D. Response
56. a 125 mg/mL drug suspension decompose
with a zero order rate constant of 0.5
mg/mL/hr. What is the concentration of the
active drug remaining after 3 days
A. 125 D. 89
D. fluid mosaic
E. unit membrane
60. This refers to the ability of a drug to exixt
in more than one crystalline form.

B. 123.5 E. 62 A. amphoterism

C. 100 B. crystallization

57.In the generalized plasma level –time C. polymorphism

curve given below ,what corresponds to the
D. ionization
broken line E.
E. complexation
A. Maximum drug concentration
61. Dissolution rate differ for hydrated and
(Cmax)
anhydrous forms of a drug however, the most
B. Onset of action usual situation is:

C. Minimum effective A. the anhydrous form dissolves faster

concentration(MEC)
B. the hydrated form dissolves faster
D. Duration of action
C. the anhydrous and hydrated forms
E. Intensity have equal dissolution rates

58. Example of a targeted drug delivery D. the hydrated form has no effect on
system dissolution

A. osmotic pumps E. the anhydrous form has no effect on

dissolution
B. enteric-coated tablets
62. Equivalence are not necessary for which
C. liposomes of the following products

D. cyclodextrins I. Parenteral aqueous solution

E. implants II. Pharmaceutically equivalent oral solutions

59. This concept views the cell membrane as
being composed of a non-rigid lipid matrix with
which are associated relatively mobile protein
masses that penetrate wholly or partially
through the lipid layer
III. pharmaceutically equivalents topical
solutions
IV. products containing drugs with narrow
therapeutic indices

A. lipid bilayer model A. I only

B. phospolipid matrix theory B. IV only

C. lipoprotein compartment C. II and III

 D. I to III
E. I to IV
63. Which of the following transport
mechanism does not require a drug to be in
aqueous solution in order to be absorbed?
A. passive diffusion
B. convective transport
C. carrier mediated transport
D. ion transport
E. vesicular transport
64. These are added to a formulation to
provide certain functional properties to the
drug and dosage form
A. prodrugs
B. xenobiotics
C. probiotics
D. excipients
E. active ingredients
65. The LADMER system is essential in the :
A. development of dosage forms
B. determinations of pharmacokinetic
parameters
C. evaluation of bioavailability
D. adjustment of dosage regimen
E. all of the given choices
66. This is the most common and popular
route of the drug administration
A. oral
B. parenteral
C. rectal
D. buccal
E. topical
67. Which of the following is NOT an enteral
route of drug administration
A. sublingual
B. buccal
C. rectal
D. Peroral
E. None of the previous choices
68. Which of the following compounds may be
absorbed via convective transport?
A. Vitamin B12
B. inorganic and organic electrolytes with
molecular weights up to 400
C. most weal organic acids and bases
D. fats
E. quaternary ammonium compounds
69. Determine the half-life of an
antihypertensive drug if it appears to be
eliminated from the body at a rate constant of
0.07 hour. Assume first order kinetics occurs.
A. 12
B. 9.9
C. 7
D. 4
E. 1.5
70. Which of the following statements is NOT
true?
A. a cell membrane is a semi permeable
structure composed of lipids and
proteins
 B. Drugs bound to protein do not easily 74. Which of the following is NOT a
cross cell membranes characteristic of active transport?

C. Ionic or polar, water- soluble drugs A. drug moves along concentration

cross cell membrane more easily than
do nonpolar, lipid soluble drugs. B. process requires expenditure of
energy
D. low molecular weights drugs diffuse
across cell membrane more easily C. requires a carrier
than do high molecular weight drugs
D. saturable at high drug concentration
E. drugs may transported by passive
E. process is subject to competition
diffusion, carrier-mediated,
paracellular or vesicular transports 75. These are addition compounds of drugs
and organic solvents
71. Most drugs are:
A. hydrates
A. strong electrolytes
B. solvates
B. non electrolytes
C. polymorphs
C. weak acids
D. clathrates
D. weak bases
E. chelates
E. C and D
76. Which of the following statements is false?
72. Which of the following is/are forms of
vesicular transport that differ by the type of A. In general, salts of electrolytes
material ingested? dissolve faster than the free acids or
bases
A. I only
B. the most stable polymorphs has the
B. III only
lowest dissolution rate
C. I and II
C. Increasing amounts of binders in
D. III and IV grabukes and tablets prolong
dissolution time.
E. I to IV
D. Increasing amounts of lubricants
73. The drug is injected into the spinal fluid shortens dissolution time

A. intraarticular E. particle size reduction is not a

universal answer to all drugs of low
B. epidural solubility
C. Intracranial 77. The enormous surface are of the
gastrointestinal tract is due to presence of:
D. Intrathecal
A. enzymes
E. intrasynovial
 B. microvilli E. transdermal

C. parietal cells 81. Type of parenteral administration in which

the drug is injected slowly into the plasma at a
D. tight junctions constant or zero-order rate
E. gastric pits A. IV push
78. In oral drug administration, the drug is B. IV bolus
swallowed undergoes absorption from the
gastrointestinal tract through the mesenteric C. IV infusion
circulation to the ___ into the liver and then to
the systemic circulation D. IM

A. hepatic portal vein E. SQ

B. biliary duct 82. The pharmacological effect of a drug

depends on the percentage of receptors
C. aorta occupied

D. jugular vein A. Lock and key hypothesis

E. superior vena cava B. Hypothesis of paton

79. A condition in which the rate of drug C. Hypotheses of Ariens and Stephenson
leaving the body is equal to the rate of drug
entering the body. D. Hypothesis of clark

A. double-peak phenomenon E. Occupation theory

B. flip-flop model 83. the drug molecules is bound to the surface

of the skin or mucosa by ion-binding,
C. first-pass effect hydrogen-binding or van der waals forces:

D. steady state a. absorption

E. therapeutic window b. penetration

80. The route of drug administration that is c. Adsorption

preffered when rapid absorption is essential,
when patients are inconscious or unable to d.Permeation
accept medications by mouth or when drugs
e. leaching
are destroted, inactivated or poorly absorbed
in the GIT. 84. It describes the diffusion-controlled rate of
drug dissolution
A. peroral
A. Henderson-hasselbach equation
B. sublingual
B. fick’s law of diffusion
C. parenteral
C. Michaelis-menten equation
D. Rectal
 D. Noyes-whitney equation 88. This is the time from drug administration to
reach the minimum effective concentration
E. Van slyke’s equation (MEC)
85. which of the following parameters will a. onset d. therapeutic window
determine the degree of drug ionizations?
b. intensity e.area under the curve(AUC)
I. lipid/ water coefficient of the drug
c. duration of action
II. pH at the absorption rate
90. This refers to the drug concentration range
III. pKa of the drug between the minimum effective concentration
(MEC) and the minimum toxic concentration
A. I only
(MTC)
B. I and II
a. onset
C. I and III
b. intensity
D. II and III
c. duration of action
E. I,II and III
d. therapeutic window
86. What is the minimum percent of drug that
e. area under curve
must be in the nonionized form at the small
intestine in order to be absorbed via passive 91. This describes the relationship between
diffusion the ionized and the nonionized forms of a drug
as a function of pH and pKa.
a. 0.1% to 1% d. 50% to 60%
a. Law of Multiple proportions
b. 1 to 5% e. 80% to 90%
b. Nernst Distribution Law
c. 10 to 20%
c. Henderson-Hasselbach equation
87. The partition coefficient is a/an:
d. common-ion effect
A. in vitro guide to the absorption
potential of a drug e. partition coefficient
B. measure of the relative affinity of a 92. Which of the following is a common site
drug for two immiscible phases for IM injection?
C. indicator for storage of drugs in fat a. gluteus medius
D. parameter of the relative rate of b. thigh e. ebdomen
partitioning from one phase into
another c. Gastrocnemius

E. all of the given choices d. gluteus maximus

e. abdomen
93. It refers to the time for which the drug 98. Cmax represents the maximum drug
concentration remains above the minimum concentration obtained after oral
effective concentration (MEC) administration of a drug in the:

a. duration of action d. Cmax A. plasma D.feces

b. intensity e. onset B. urine E. sweat

c. tmax C. saliva

94. Which of the following oil phases is most 99. This is an entity which can be described
commonly used in partition coefficient by a definite volume and a concentration of
determination? drug contained in that volume

a. chloroform d. mineral oil A. biophase D. compartment

b. cyclohexane e. octanol B. bulk phase E. depot phase

c. isopropyl myristate C. diffusion layer

95. Maximum volume to be injected via the 100. Order reaction in which the concentration
intramuscular route: of a drug is decreasing at a rate that is
proportional to the concentration of the drug
a. 0.5 mL d. 5 mL remaining:
b. 1 mL e. 10 mL A. zero D. third
c. 2 mL B. first E. fourth
96. This is the dose used in initiating therapy C. second
so as to yield therapeutic concentration which
will result in clinical effectiveness 101. Facilitated diffusion is similar to active
transport since it:
A. daily dose D. loading dose
A. operates against concentration
B. First dose E. effective dose gradient
C. prophylactic dose B. utilizes energy in the form of ATP
97. This is the dose required to maintain the C. is carrier mediated
clinical effectiveness or therapeutic
concentration according to the dosage D. None of the choices
regimen.
E. all of the given choices
A. therapeutic dose D. priming dose
102. Decreased particle size results to:
B. maintenance dose E. effective dose
A. increased particle surface area
C. steady-state dose
B. enhanced water penetration into particles

C. increased dissolution rate

D. none of the choices A. zero-order kinetics

E. all of the above B. first-order kinetics

103. When drug is half ionized and half C. half-life

nonionized at a certain pH, its pKa is:
D. rate-limiting step
A. greater than pH
E. clearance
B. less than pH
107. These are inactive substances that must
C. equal to pH be biotransformed in the body to metabolites
that have pharmacologic activity
D. of no value
A. xenobiotics
E. constant
B. lead compounds
104. This is obtained when the drug product is
administered at the site where the C. prodrugs
pharmacological response is desired and
when the drug released from the products D. therapeutic moieties
acts by adsorption to the skin or mucosa, but
E. orphan drugs
does not enter the systemic blood circulations
108. Reabsorption of drugs can occur in the
A. systemic effect
I. kidneys
B. local effect
II. Liver
C. therapeutic response
III. Small intestines
D. Biological response
A. I only
E. dermal effect
B. II only
105. This is obtained when the drug released
the drug product enters the bloodstream and C. III only
is distributed within the body regardless of the
site and route of administration D. I and II

A. systemic effect E. I and III

B. local effect 109. The form of the drug that is absorbed:

C. therapeutic effect I. nonionized

D. biological response II. Ionized

E. dermal effect III. lipid-soluble

106. This is the process with the slowest rate IV. Water-soluble
constant in a system of simultaneous kinetic
a. I only
processes.
 b. II only A. independent of the concentration
gradient
c. I and III
B. inversely proportional to the surface
d. II and IV area of the membrane
e. I to IV C. inversely proportional to the
membrane thickness
110. What is the % of ionized species of a
weak acid with a pKa of 4.2 in a urine pH of D. inversely proportional to the partition
6.2? coefficient of the drug
a. 0.1 E. independent of the diffusion coefficient
of the drug
b. 1
115. Highly lipid soluble drugs are
c. 10
predominantly distributed in which of the
d. 90 following tissues?

e. 99 A. bone

111. Which of the following is devoid of B. adipose

clotting proteins?
C. muscle
A. blood
B. plasma D. hepatic

C. serum E. renal

D. both B and C 116. These are substances that have no

E. all of the given choices
112. Drug entering the body does not instantly
distribute between the blood and those other
body fluids or tissues which it eventually
reaches
A. open one-compartment model
B. open two-compartment model
C. multi-million compartment model
D. central compartment
E. peripheral compartment
113. According to the Fick’s Law, the rate of
diffusion of a drug is:
pharmacological properties of their own in the
concentration used, but which can improve
the penetration of drugs into the skin or
mucosa.
A. humectants
B. emollients
C. sorption promoters
D. wetting agents
E. solubilizers
117. Absorption mechanism in which drug
molecules dissolved in aqueous medium at
the absorption site move along with the
solvent through membrane pores:
A. passive diffusion
 B. active transport 121. Which of the following is the correct rank
order (from the most bioavailable to the least)
C. facilitated diffusion for the given conventional oral formulations?
D. convective transport A. coated tablet> uncoated tablet>
capsule> suspension> solution
E. ion-pair transport
B. solution> suspension> capsule>
118. Which of the following absorption
coated tablet> uncoated tablet
mechanisms operate(s) against concentration
gradient? C. suspension> solution> uncoated
tablet> coated tablet> capsule
I. passive diffusion
D. solution> suspension> capsule>
II. Facilitated diffusion
uncoated tablet> coated tablet
III. Active transport
E. capsule> uncoated tablet> coated
A. I only tablet> solution> suspension

B. II only 122. Excipients are added to product

formulations to:
C. III only
A. facilitate preparation
D. I and II
B. improve patient acceptability of the
E. II and III product

119. Rate constants in pharmacokinetics are C. improve functioning of the dosage

usually: form as a drug delivery system

A. zero-order D. all of the choices

B. first-order E. none of the choices

C. second-order 123. An aqueous phase (pH 7.4 buffer)

D. third-order
E. fourth-order
120. Cyancobalamin is a classical example of
a drug that is absorbed via:
A. convective transport
B. facilitated diffusion
C. vesicular transport
D. passive diffusion
E. ion-pair transport
containing a drug, was shaken with an oil
phase (octanol) and the mixture was then left
to reach equilibrium. The two phases were the
separated and the concentration of the drug in
each phase was measured. The resulting
values were as follows: C octanol = 18; C
buffer = 2. Based from the results, calculate
the partition coefficient of the drug.
A. 36
B. 20
C. 16
D. 9
 E. 0.11 C. solubilization

124. These are drugs in which the D. all of the choices

pharmacological action is not directly
dependent on the chemical structure of the E. none of the choices
drug.
128. Which of the following is/are the effect/s
A. structural nonspecific drugs of food on the bioavailability of a drug from a
drug product?
B. structural specific drugs
A. delay in gastric emptying
C. drug-receptor complexes
B. stimulation of bile flow
D. ligands
C. physical or chemical interaction of the
E. substrates meal with the drug product or drug
substance
125. If the volume of distribution of a drug in
an adult is approximately 5L, it means that the D. a change in the pH of the GIT
drug is confines to the:
E. all of the given choices
A. circulatory system
129. In passive diffusion, the term passive
B. extracellular fluid pertains to what characteristic of this
absorption mechanism?
C. intracellular fluid
A. moves along concentration gradient
D. whole body fluid
B. a carrier mediated process
E. deep tissues
C. does not require the expenditure of
126. Surfactants are used: in dosage forms energy
as:
D. is subject to competition
A. emulsifying agents
E. has saturation point
B. solubilizing agents
130. This is the loss of drug from the central
C. suspending agnets compartment due to transfer into other
compartments and/or elimination
D. wetting agents
A. absorption
E. all of the given choices
B. distribution
127. Which of the following is/are technique/s
used to increase the aqueous solubility of C. penetration
poorly water-soluble drugs?
D. disposition
A. cosolvency
E. permeation
B. complex formation
131. Which of the following is/are the D. III to V
equation/s of a first-order reaction?
E. II to V
I. C= -k0 t + C0
134. Which of the following processes occurs
II. In C= -kt + In C0 mostly in the proximal convoluted tubule
(PCT)?
III. log C = -(k/2.3)t + log C0
A. glomerular infiltration
IV. C = C0e –kt
B. tubular secretion
A. I only
C. tubular reabsorption
B. II only
D. both B and C
C. III only
E. all of the given choices
D. II to IV
135. In order to excrete amphetamine more
E. I to IV quickly in the urine, which of the following may
be used intravenously?
132. The half-life of a given drug is 6 hours.
How many half-lives have passed 24 hours A. urinary acidifier
after administration?
B. urinary alkanizer
A. 24
C. inulin
B. 12
D. creatinine
C. 10
E. all of the choices
D. 6
136. If the AUC for an oral dose of a drug
E. 4 administered by tablet is 4.5 mcg/mL/hr, and
the intravenous dose is 11.2 mcg/mL/hr,
133. Which of the following is NOT an
calculate the absolute bioavailability (in %) of
extravascular route of drug administration?
the oral dose of the drug.
I. oral
A. 2.5
II. rectal
B. 10
III. intramuscular
C. 15
IV. subcutaneous
D. 40
V. intravenous
E. 62
A. I only
137. The normal glomerular filtration rate
B. V only (GFR) is:

C. I and II A. 125-130 mL/min

 B. 90-100 mL/min B. 56.9%

C. 60-90 mL/min C. 42.2%

D. 30-59 mL/min D. 23.6%

E. ,15 mL/min 141. If the volume of distribution exceeds the

body weight, it is assumed that the drug is:

A. stored in body fat

138. A patient received a single intravenous
dose of 300mg of a drug substance that B. bound to body tissues
produced an immediate blood concentration of
8.2 mcg/mL. Calculate the volume of C. distributed to deep tissues in
distribution in liters(L). peripheral compartments

A. 36.6 D. A and B

B. 27.3 E. all of the above

C. 20.5 142. If the half-life for decomposition of a drug

is 12 hours, compute for the first-order rate
D. 10.6 constant.

E. 8.7 A. 0.693/hr

139. The peripheral compartment is B. 0.510/hr

subdivided into:
C. 0.267/hr
A. central compartment
D. 0.058/hr
B. shallow compartment
E. 0.012/hr
C. deep compartment
143. Vegetables and fruits, and diets rich in
D. both A and B carbohydrates result to a/an:

E. both B and C A. decrease in urinary pH

140. The bioavailability of a new B. increase in urinary pH

investigational drug was studied in 24
volunteers. Each volunteer received either a C. increase GFR
single oral tablet (200mg), 5ml of a pure
D. decrease GFR
aqueous solution (200mg) or a single IV bolus
injection (50mg). The average AUC values are E. none of the choices
given below. From these data, calculate the
absolute bioavailability of the drug. 144. The central compartment refers to the:

104% A. body fluids or tissues into which the

drug distributes slowly
A. 59.2%
 B. compartment that is not accessible by
blood sampling
C. body fluids or tissues which are in
equilibrium with the circulatory system
D. both A and B
E. both B and C
145. The differences in bioavailabilities of drug
products may be due to:
A. physiological factors
B. drug factors
C. dosage from design
D. both B and C
E. all of the given choices
146. Which of the following is/are eliminated in
the body solely by filtration?
148. This concept in pharmacokinetics is a
hypothetical structure which can be used to
characterize with reproducibility, the behavior
and the fate of a drug in biological systems
when given by a certain route of
administration and in a particular dosage form.
A. biophase
B. compartment
C. model
D. order
E. rate constant
149. If the bioavailability of digoxin in a
0.25-mg tablet is 0.60 compared to the
bioavailability of 0.75 in a digoxin elixir
(0.05mg/mL), calculate the dose (in mL) of the
elixir equivalent to the tablet.

A. inulin A. 0.0375

B. creatinine B. 0.15

C. electrolytes C. 0.5

D. both A and B D. 3

E. both B and C E. 4

147. A solution of a drug was freshly prepared 150. The concentration of a drug remaining
at a concentration of 300mg/ml. After 30 days after 180 min was 5mg/dL from an initial conc.
at 25°C, the drug concentration in the solution of 60mg/dL. Compute for the first-order rate
was 75mg/mL. Assuming first-order kinetics, constant.
when will the drug decline to one-half of the
A. 0.001/min
original concentration?
B. 0.02/min
A. 0.046 day
C. 0.0138/min
B. 0.5 day
D. 0.693/min
C. 7 days
E. 0.05/min
D. 10 days

E. 15 days
151. In IV infusion, it is essential to administer 155. It refers to the net transfer of a drug from
the dose in order to immediately reach the the circulating fluids of the body to various
steady state. tissues and organs.

A. Loading dose A. Absorption

B. Distribution
B. Maintainance dose
C. Metabolism
C. Titered dose
D. Excretion
D. Priming dose
E. NOTA
E. Choices A and D
156. This refers to the extent of fraction of
152. This is the dose used in initiating therapy drug absorbed upon extravascular
so as to yield therapeutic concentration which administration in comparison to the dose size
will result in clinical effectiveness. administered.

A. Loading dose A. Relative bioavailabilty

B. Priming dose B. Absolute Bioavailability

C. Initial dose C. Pharmacokinetics

D. Choices A,B or C D. Biopharmaceutics

E. NOTA E. NOTA

153. Passive diffusion follows 157. This method to estimate the area under
the curve is used if no curve fitting has been
A. Noyes Whitney
done for a set of blood level curve is not
B. Graham’s smooth if no pharmacokinetic data have been
determined.
C. Fick’s
A. Counting rule
D. Hess
B. Weighing rule
E. NOTA
C. Trapezoidal rule
154. Cyanocobalamine can be absorbed
through this transport mechanism. D. Jelliffe Rule

A. Passive Diffusion E. Crock’s Rule

B. Convective 158. These processes are collectively referred

to as elimination.
C. Active
A. Absorption
D. Facilitated
B. Metabolism
E. Ion pair
C. Excretion
 D. Choices A and B C. Biotrans

E. Choices B and C D. Biophase

159. This is the sum of all body regions in E. Microsomes

which the drug concentration is in
instantaneous equlibrium with that in blood or
plasma.
A. Central Compartment
163. This refers to the hypothetical volume of
distribution in mL of the unmetabolized drug
which is cleared per unit of time by any
pathway of drug removal

B. Peripheral Compartment A. Volume of Distribution

C. Compartment B. Clearance

D. Tissues C. Concentration gradient

E. System D. Half-life

160. This type of intravenous administration E. Absorption

can be considered as multiple dosing with
infinitely small dosing intervals. 164. Albumin concentration is reduced in
newborns and infants.This may result in
A. IV bolus ______volume of distribution and______in
free drug concentration in plasma
B. IV infusion
A. Increased,decreased
C. IV Bolus(Multiple dose)
B. Decreased,increased
D. IV push
C. Increased,increased
E. NOTA
D. Decreased,decreased
161. These processes are collectively called
disposition E. NOTA

A. Distribution 165. Half-life depends on

B. Metabolism A. Volume of distribution

C. Excretion B. Clearance

D. Choices A and B C. Absorption rate

E. AOTA D. Choices A and B

162. This refers to the anatomical location of E. Choices B and C

the receptors for a drug.
166. In clinical terms ,it is defined as the
A. Enzymes millimeters of blood cleared of drug per minute

B. Proenzyme A. Absorption
 B. Half-life
C. Volume of distribution
D. Clearance
E. NOTA
167. The enzyme capacity in newborns and
infants is reduced.Hence,drugs being
metabolized exhibit usually _____elimination
half-life and_____clearance.
A. Increased,decreased
B. Decreased,increased
C. Increased,increased
D. Decreased,decreased
E. NOTA
168. In intravenous multiple dose
administraton ,the longer the elimination half-
life and the shorter the dosing interval.
A. the lower will be the accumulation
B. the faster will be the accumulation
C. the slower will be the accumulation
D. the higher will be the accumulation
E. NOTA
169. This can be determined from
experiments in which a subject is given the
same dose bolus IV dose and an oral dose
and the ratio of the AUC of the two is
calculated
A. Fraction dissolved
B. Fraction expelled
C. Fraction absorbed
D. Fraction excreted
E. Fraction distributed
170. This is a term used to describe the
achievement of sustained drug concentration
by simply increasing the dose size or by
accidental fast release of drug from a
sustained release dosage form
A. Dose Curve
B. Accumulation
C. Dose Dumping
D. Dose Dependency
E. Dose Attrition
171. This is the first step in oral absorption
process
A. Drug enters the systemic circulation
B. Drug dissolved in the intestinal fluid
C. Drug crosses the epithelial tissues of
the GI tract
D. Drug crosses the hepatoportal system
E. Drug enters the inferior vena cava
172. A drug is considered completely when
absorbed when
A. Drug enters the systemic circulation
B. Drug dissolved in the intestinal fluid
C. Drug crosses the epithelial tissues of
the GI tract
D. Drug crosses the hepatoportal system
E. Drug enters the inferior vena cava
173.This is a phenomenon in which the drug
is completely subjected to liver metabolism
A. Pre-systemic metabolism
B. First pass effect
C. Enterohepatic recycling
 D. Choices A and B
E. Choices B and C
174. This refers to the time in hours necessary
to reduce the drug concentration in the blood,
plasma , or serum to one-half equilibrium is
reached
A. Half-life
B. Clearance
C. Elimination
D. Hepatic Clearance
E. Gastric Emptying
175. This is used to describe the process of
taking drug concentrations ,basic
,pharmacokinetic principles , and the person’s
clinical response and combining them to
optimize drug therapy for the patient
A. Clinical Pharmacokinetics
B. Therapeutic Drug Monitoring
C. Applied Pharmacokinetics
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
176. At steady state ,the longer the elimination
half-life and the shorter the dosing interval,
A. the less will be the fluctuation
B. the higher will be the fluctuation
C. the more will be the fluctuation
D. Choices B and C
E. NOTA
177. Blood level determinations are done
when a medication has a
A. Toxicity
B. Adverse effects
C. Side effects
D. Therapeutic failure
E. Narrow therapeutic index
178. Why do pharmacokineticists measure
drug levels?
A. Design of a dosage regimen
B. Maintain drug at optimum drug levels
C. Confirm patient compliance
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
179. Drug levels are measured at this time
period to assess the current therapy
A. Minimum therapeutic concentration
B. Maxinum toxic cocentration
C. Steady State Level
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
180. This is the final elimination of a drug from
the body’s systemic circulation via the kidney
into urine ,via bile and saliva into the
intestines,and into feces,via sweat,skin,and
milk.
A. Enterohepatic recycling
B. Metabolism
C. Excretion
D. Urination
E. Clearance
181. These are usually measured if a drug is
given by extravascular administration or
intermittent infusion and it demonstrates a
significant difference in concentration before
end after dosing.
A. Peak concentration
B. Trough concentration
C. Steady State concentration
D. Choices A and B
E. AOTA
182. This is the increase in enzyme content or
rate of enzymatic processes resulting in faster
metabolism of a compound.
A. Enzyme Restriction
B. Enzyme Inhibition
C. Enzyme Imbibition
D. Enzyme Induction
E. Enzyme Coagulation
183. The peak for an intravenous bolus dose
would be obtained.
A. Immediately after the dose is given
B. Right after the infusion stops
C. After the distribution
D. After the elimination phase
E. NOTA
184. The peak concentration following an IV
infusion of a drug usually occur
A. Immediately after the dose is given
B. Right after the dose stops
C. After the distribution phase
D. After the elimination phase
E. NOTA
185. Drug concentrations are obtained by
A. Venipuncture of the venous blood
B. Venous of arterial blood
C. Venipuncture of jugular blood
D. Choices A and B
E. Choices B and C
186. The larger amount of total body fluid and
the very small amount of fat tissue in infants
make it likely that the volume of distribution of
hydrophilic compounds is_____ and that of
lipophilic ones is_____
A. Increased, decreased
B. Decreased, increased
C. Increased, increased
D. Decreased, decreased
E. NOTA
187. If a drug stimulates its own metabolism.it
is called
A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Auto oxidation
D. Auto induction
E. Enzyme Inhibition
188. This refers to a graphical method for
separation of exponents such as separating
the absorption rate constant from the
elimination rate constant.
A. Residual Method
B. Feathering
C. Interpolation
 D. Extrapolation D. Minimum therapeutic concentration

E. Choices A and B E. Maximum therapeutic concentration

189. This is the most frequently used assay 193. This refers to a change of one or more of
method for therapeutic drug monitoring. the pharmacokinetic parameters during
absorption,metabolism and excretion by
A. Radioimmunoassay saturation or overloading of processes due to
increase dose size.
B. Gas Chromatography
A. Saturation kinetics
C. Microbiological assay
B. Non-linear kinetics
D. Enzyme multiplied immunoassay
C. Linear kinetics
E. NOTA
D. First pass effect
190. It is the sum of all chemical reactions for
biotransformation of endogenous and E. Choices A and B
exogenous substances which take place in
the living cell 194. This is observed upon topical or rectal
route of administration where the absorption is
A. Absorption slower than the elimination.
B. Elimination A. Flip-Stock Model
C. Metabolism B. Flip-Top Model
D. Excretion C. Flip-Flop Model
E. Clearance D. Flip-Stop Model
191. It can be determined using a person’s E. Flip-Stoop Model
weight in kilograms and height in centimeterss
195. It is a measure of the rate and extent of
A. Creatinine clearance drug absorption
B. Lean Body weight A. Cmax
C. Average Body weight B. AUC
D. Body Surface Area C. BA
E. NOTA D. F
192. It is the lowest concentration of a drug E. Ka
that arrests or inhibits the growth of a bacteria
196. Determinations which can directly the
A. Maximum inhibitory concentration rate and extent of absorption
B. Minimum inhibitory concentration A. F
C. Minimum effective concentration
 B. Ka
C. AUC
D. Choices A and B
E. Choices B and C
197. The FDA lists these products if they
pharmaceutical equivalents that are
bioequivalent
A. Pharmaceutical Equivalents
B. Pharmaceutical alternatives
C. Bioequivalent drug products
D. Therapeutic equivalents
E. Ion pair
200. This term compares the extent of
absorption of a test product (i.e.,generic)to a
standard or reference product,which is often
an oral solution or an immediate-release tablet
,but not an IV product.
A. Absolute Bioavailability
B. Relative Bioavailability
C. Intermediate Bioavailability
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
201. This principle states that the
concentration of the drug remainingin the
body at any time is added to the concentration
remaining from the previous dose

198. This transport mechanism is formed A. Multiple dosing

through the complex of an organic anion of a
B. IV Bolus
substance with a cation of medium or
membrane C. Superposition
A. Passive diffusion D. Exponentiation
B. Convective transport E. Potentiation
C. Active 202. This measure of creatinine can be
expressed directly by measuring urine output
D. Facilitated
for 24hours and dividing this volume by
E. Ion pair measurement of serum creatinine drawn at
the midpoint of the 24-hour collection period
199. The transport mechanism happens
against concentration and electrochemical A. Hepatic clearance
potential
B. Nephrotic clearance
A. Passive diffusion
C. Creatinine clearance
B. Convective transport
D. Clearance
C. Active
E. Cockcroft and Gault
D. Facilitated
203. This transport mechanism is mediated by
E. Ion pair means of carriers under expenditure of energy
and along a concentration gradient.

A. Passive diffusion
 B. Convective 207. The primary goal of Phase 1 in drug
development
C. Active
A. Safety of the drug candidate
D. Facilitated
B. Efficacy of the drug candidate
204. Vitamins A, D, E and K can be
transported via the mechanism C. Quality of the drug candidate

A. Pinocytosis D. Stability of the drug candidate

B. Active E. AOTA

C. Passive Diffusion 208. The initial administration of an

investigational new drug to humans is usually
D. Facilitated accomplished in
E. Ion Pair A. Patients
205. This equation allows the determination of B. Healthy subjects
the differences in creatinine clearance based
on patients’ weight ,age and gender C. Rodents

A. Jellife D. Choices A and B

B. Cockcroft and Gault E. Choices B and C

C. Noyes Whitney 209. It is the only transport mechanism in

which the drug or compound does not have to
D. Fick’s be in aqueous solution in order to be
absorbed
E. NOTA
A. Endocytosis
206. This is a result of saturation of a
metabolic carrier mediated system because B. Passive diffusion
the enzyme involved in the metabolic process
can no longer C. Active

Accept drug resulting in an increase in plasma D. Facilitated

drug concentration and possible toxicity
A. Linear pharmacokinetics
B. Nonlinear pharmacokinetics
E. Ion pair
210. In the treatment design ,both an active
and a placebo are given to the same subject

C. Saturated pharmacokinetics A. Time series design

D. Unsaturated pharmacokinetics B. Cohort

E. NOTA C. Crossover

D. Placebo
 E. Causal 214. The blood level time curve should have
at least hoe many blood level points during
211.If rats were the most sensitive species the absorptive phase?
,the starting dose for human acute dose
tolerance study would be________of the A. 2
largest no-observable-effect dose (mg/kg)from
the chronic rat toxicity study B. 3

A. One-third C. 4

B. One-sixth D. 5

C. One-eight E. 6

D. One-tenth 218. In phase 1 clinical trial the occurrence

of a dose limiting adverse event can be
E. One-sixteenth grounds for
A. Discontinuing the volunteer
212. If the dogs were the most sensitive
species, the starting dose for human acute B. Terminating the study
dose tolerance study would be ________of C. Increasing sample size
the largest no-observable-effect dose (mg/kg)
from the chronic rat toxicity study D. Decreasing sample size

A. One-third E. Choices B and D

B. One-sixth 219. These are sources of pharmacokinetic

variability, EXCEPT
C. One-eight
A. Saturable first pass metabolism
D. One-tenth
B. Diurnal variation
E. One-sixteenth
C. Autoinduction
212. If nonhuman primate were the most
sensitive species, the starting dose for human D. Genetic polymorphism
acute dose tolerance study would be
________of the largest no-observable-effect E. NOTA
dose (mg/kg) from the chronic rat toxicity
220. These studies are the first to include
study
patients with the disease intended for
A. One-third treatment

B. One-sixth A. Phase I

C. One-eight B. Phase II

D. One-tenth C. Phase III

E. One-sixteenth D. Phase IV

E. NOTA
221. This part of Phase II clinical trial proves D. Mass balance studies
whether a drug works in patients
E. NOTA
A. Phase IIa
225. For the determination of current
B. Phase IIb pharmacokinetic parameters from blood level
curves, sampling should be continued for at
C. Phase IIIc least how many elimination half-lives?
D. Phase IVd A. 2
E. NOTA B. 3
222. This part of Phase II clinical trial C. 4
determines the best dose ,dose range,
titration, scheme, and dose interval. D. 5

A. Phase IIa E. 6

B. Phase IIb 226. This cultured cell model to predict drug

absorption is capable of secreting mucin,the
C. Phase IIIc primary agent of the mucous barrier in the
intestinal mucosa.
D. Phase IVd
A. HT-29
E. NOTA
B. T84
223. It is an increase in drug effect over time
despte constant drug concentrations at the C. Caco-2
effect site,which is manifested by a
counterclockwise hysteresis loop of plot of D. PAMPA
effect vs.concentraton
E. Mast cells
A. Tolerance
227.This computer simulation aids in the
B. Threshold identification of optimal dosage
regimen,evaluation of effective PK/PD models
C. Sensitization ,placebo response ,disease progression
,adverse effect development ,and ultimately
D. Downregulation
,the expedition of the decision making,
E. Side effect regulatory review ,and commercialization of
new drug processes.
224. The following are performed in phase II
clinical trials, EXCEPT A. Computer-aided clinical trial design

A. Reproductive toxicology B. GastroPlus

B. Placental transfer C. PK/PD Modelling

C. carcinogenicity D. GC-MS

E. ELISA
228. This cultured cell model is valuable in B. Phase II
predicting the role of p-glycoprotein in
transport drugs C. Phase III

A. HT-29 D. Phase IV

B. T84 E. NOTA

C. Caco-2 233.This step is analyzing population

pharmacokinetics uses graphical and
D. PAMPA statistical techniques to reveal patterns in the
data ,identify potential outliers,and provide a
E. Mast cells diagnostic tool for confirming assumptions or
suggesting corrective action if assumptions
229. This cultured line allows for
are not met.
characterization of mucosal to serosal and
serosal to mucosal transport and can b=e A. Exploratory data analysis
used to study transcellular and paracellular
transport B. Population pharmacokinetic model
analysis
A. HT-29
C. Model validation
B. T84
D. Compartmental analysis
C. Caco-2
E. Abstract
D. PAMPA
234.Subcutaneous injection of octreotide
E. Mast cells acetate leads to symptomatic control in
patients with acromegaly and some gastro-
230. In this method to evaluate the transport
entero-pancreatic tumors .However to be fully
of drugs ,a small section of intestinal mucosa
effective ,a regimen of three times daily
is sandwiched between two chambers
dosing is warranted.To improve patient
containing buffer.
convenience and compliance ,octreotide
A. Clinical safety acetate has been reformulated into
microspheres of a biodegradable polumer.
B. Clinical efficacy This warrants

C. Clinical outcome A. Slow drug release of octreotide

D. Clinical surrogate B. Sustained release of octreotide

E. Clinical identity C. Single monthly intragluteal injection

232. For this particular [hase in the drug D. AOTA

development ,the drug candidate is tested
under conditions and in patients more closely E. NOTA
resembling those who would be encountered
235. Intragluteal injection is a form of
if the drug were approved
A. Intravenous injection
A. Phase I
 B. Subcutaneous injection
C. Intramuscular injection
D. Intrathecal injection
E. NOTA
236.This is the step in population
pharmacokinetics evaluates the predictive
ability of the model by testing it agaisnt a
different data set ,either data from another
study or data from the study in question which
a portion of (e.g.20%)of the total data set has
been set aside for just such purposes
A. Exploratory data analysis
B. Population pharmacokinetic model
analysis
C. Model validation
D. Compartmental analysis
E. Abstract
237. Other than the intended disease to be
treated ,separate studies are usualy
conducted for the following conditions during
Phase III clinical trial to examine the effects on
these factors on pharmacokinetics
A. Renal disease
B. Hepatic disease
C. Elderly populations
D. Pediatric populations
E. AOTA
238. This is the document through which the
active ingredient or active moiety is absorbed
from the drug product and becomes available
at the site of action
A. IND
B. ANDA
C. NDA
D. Choices B and C
E. NOTA
239. This refers to the rate and extent to
which the active ingredient or active moiety is
absorbed from the drug product and becomes
available at the site of action
A. Bioequivalence
B. Bioavailability
C. Biotransformation
D. Biotechnology
E. Biosimilar
240. Drug products that contain identical
amounts of active ingredient ,i.e.,the same
salt or ester of the same therapeutic moiety ,in
identical dosage forms ,but not necessarily
containing the same inactive ingredients
A. Therapeutic alternatives
B. Pharmaceutical alternatives
C. Bioequivalent
D. Pharmaceutical equivalent
E. Pharmacotherapeutic alternative
241. Drug products that contain identical
therapeutic moiety or its precursor, but not
necessarily in the same amount or dosage
form or as the same salt or ester
A. Therapeutic alternatives
B. Pharmaceutical alternatives
C. Bioequivalent
D. Pharmaceutical equivalents
E. Pharmacotherapeutic alternative
242. This drug product category can only be 245.It is a measure of the extent of drug
met if the drug products are pharmaceutical absorption
equivalents and if they can be expected to
have the same clinical effect and safety profile A. Half-life
when administered to patients under the
B. Volume of Distribution
conditions specified in the labeling
C. AUC
A. Therapeutic equivalents
D. Cmax
B. Pharmaceutical alternatives
E. tmax
C. Bioequivalence
246. This method of assessing the
D. Pharmaceutical equivalence
bioavailabilty of a drug can only be used if
E. Pharmacotherapeutic alternative urinary excretion is the main pathway of
elimination
243. This refers to the absence of a significant
difference in the rate and extent to which the A. Urinary excretion data
active ingredient or active moiety in
B. Plasma data
pharmaceutical equivalents for
pharmaceutical alternatives becomes C. Serum data
available at the site of action when
administered at the same molar dose under D. Half-life
similar conditions in an appropriately designed
E. Volume of distribution
study
247. Gastric emptying depends on the
A. Therapeutic equivalence
following factors,EXCEPT
B. Pharmaceutical alternatives
A. Viscosity of the stomach
C. Bioequivalence
B. pH of the stomach
D. Pharmaceutical equivalents
C. Volume of liquid intake
E. Pharmacotherapeutic alternative
D. Disease state
244. Bioavailability and /or bioequivalence are
E. pKa of the drug
essential for the following situations ,EXCEPT
248. This occurs when absorbed drug passes
A. For all new molecular entities
directly through the liver before reaching the
B. For a new dosage form of a drug systemic circulation after oral administration.

C. For a new salt or ester of a drug A. First-pass metabolism

D. For a new indication B. Intestinal metabolism

E. AOTA C. Hydrolysis of the drug in the stomach

D. Transported by p-glycoprotein
 E. Complexation A. Dialysis

249. This is the usual research design for B. Ultracentrifugation

conducting bioavailabilty and bioequivalence
studies C. Agar plate test

A. two-formulation , two-period ,two- D. AOTA

sequence non-replicate crossover
E. NOTA
design
253. Drug binding to protein can be
B. two-formulation, three-period ,three-
considered as a
sequence non-replicate crossover
design A. Reversible process

C. two- formulation, two-period ,three- B. Irreversible process

sequence non-replicate crossover
design C. Linear

D. two-formulation ,two-period ,two- D. Nonlinear

sequence non-replicate cohort design
E. Saturated
E. AOTA
254. These are the known importance of drug-
250. This occurs when the drug is protein binding
metabolized in the intestine itself or during the
A. Buffer
passage through the intestinal wall
B. Transport
A. First-pass metabolism
C. Protection
B. Intestinal metabolism
D. Choices A and B
C. Hydrolysis of the drug in the stomach
E. Choices B and C
D. Transported by p-glycoprotein
255. This physiological importance of drug-
E. Complexation
protein binding is reflected by its capacity to
251. The main protein fraction blood plasma is maintain a relatively constant concentration of
free drug over a long period of time
A. Histidine
A. Buffer function
B. Arginine
B. Transport function
C. Proline
C. Protection function
D. Lysine
D. Choices A and B
E. Albumin
E. Choices B and C
252. The extent of protein binding is
determined in vitro by the following methods,
EXCEPT
256. This physiological importance drug- E. NOTA
protein binding is reflected with drugs of low
solubility in water 260. Bound drugs cannot be metabolized and
are not excreted, therefore
A. Buffer function
A. Increases urinary excretion of drugs
B. Transport function
B. Increases elimination half-life of drugs
C. Protection function
C. Decreases binding of hydrophilic
D. Choices A and B drugs

E. Choices B and C D. Increases glomerular filtration

257. Free drug concentration ____ of plasma E. AOTA

binding, but is ______ on tissue binding
261. Biotransformation converts drug into
A. Independent , dependent
A. Polar
B. Dependent , independent
B. Water soluble
C. Dependent , dissociative
C. Ionized structures
D. Dissociative , Independent
D. AOTA
E. AOTA
E. NOTA
258.This condition is found in patients with
burns , cancer, cardiac failure , cystic fibrosis, 262. The biotransformation of Protonsil results
liver impairment, and enteropathy. to____ which is a more pharmacologically
active compound.
A. Hyperalbubinemia
A. Imipramine
B. Hypoalbuminemia
B. Methyldopa
C. Hypochondria
C. Sulphanilamide
D. Hyperchondria
D. Pyridine
E. NOTA
E. Phenacetin
259. This condition is found in patients with
benign tumour, myalgia, neuroses, 263. The oxidation of chloral hydrate produces
psychoses, schizophrenia, and paranoia
A. Pentobarbital
A. Hyperalbubinemia
B. Phenobarbital
B. Hypoalbuminemia
C. Acetic acid
C. Hypochondria
D. Dichloroacetic acid
D. Hyperchondria
E. Trichloroacetic acid
264. The principal site of drug metabolism is 268. This metabolism phase reaction is
the responsible for the formation of the final
metabolic product of the drug to be excreted
A. Kidney
A. Phase 1
B. Liver
B. Phase 2
C. Lungs
C. Phase 3
D. Heart
D. Phase 4
E. Intestine
E. Phase 5
265. The cytochrome enzymes originate from
269. Kernicterus is a condition which results
A. Cytoplasm from
B. Cell membrane A. Inability to conjugate albumin
C. Golgi apparatus B. Inability to conjugate bilirubin
D. Microsomes C. Inability to conjugate acetic acid
E. Ribosome D. Inability to conjugate glucose
266.The following are phase 1 E. Inability to conjugate lipids
biotransformation reactions,EXCEPT
270. A one month old infant already develops
A. Oxidation the following metabolic processes, EXCEPT
B. Reduction A. Sulfation
C. Hydrolysis B. Conjugation
D. Deamination C. Oxidation
E. methylation D. Acetylation
267. The following are phase 2 E. Glucoronidation
biotransformation reactions, EXCEPT
271. Phenobarbital and hexobarbital are
A. Dealkylation stimulated in their metabolism by auto and
foreign induction .This phenomenon is termed
B. Glycine conjugation
A. Link-induction
C. Acetylation
B. Time series induction
D. Ethereal sulphate conjugation
C. Scratchard induction
E. Choices B and C
D. Cross induction

E. Repulsive induction
272. If a drug stimulates the rate of D. Locations
metabolism of another drug ,this phenomenon
is called E. Models

A. Auto-induction 276. A blood level versus time curve for an

extravascular administration can be fitted to a
B. Foreign-induction
A. One compartment model
C. Cross-induction
B. Two compartment model
D. Anti-induction
C. Three compartment model
E. Focus-induction
D. Multi compartment model
273. First pass effect cannot be observed in
the following routes of administration,EXCEPT E. NOTA

A. Oral 277. A blood level versus time curve for an

intravascular administration can be fitted to a
B. Buccal
A. One compartment model
C. Intravenous
B. Two compartment model
D. Sublingual
C. Three compartment model
E. Choices A and B
D. Multi compartment model
274. It is a hypothetical structure which can be
used to characterize wih reproducibility the E. NOTA
behaviour and the fate of drug in biological
278. This compartment model describes a
systems
situation in which a drug entering the body
A. Concepts distributes instantly between the blood and
other body fluids or tissues
B. Constructs
A. One compartment model
C. Compartments
B. Two compartment model
D. Locations
C. Three compartment model
E. Models
D. Multi compartment model
275. It is an entity which can be described by
a definite volume and a concentration of drug E. NOTA
contained in the volume
279. If a drug entering the body does not
A. Concepts instantly distributes instantly between the
blood and other body fluids or tissues it
B. Constructs eventually reaches, this can be described by

C. Compartments A. One compartment model

 B. Two compartment model
C. Three compartment model
D. Multi compartment model
E. NOTA
280. This body fluids or tissues which are in
equilibrium with the circulatory system
comprise the
A. Central compartment
B. Peripheral compartment
C. Tissue compartment
D. Enteral compartment
E. Deep compartment
281. Those body fluids or tissues into which
the drug distributes slowly comprise the
A. Central compartment
B. Peripheral compartment
C. Tissue compartment
D. Enteral compartment
E. Deep compartment
282. To know whether a one or two
compartment models applies, the terminal
slope of the line is back-extrapolated to the
ordinate. If no concentration-time data points
lie above the line, this model is applicable
A. One compartment model
B. Two compartment model
C. Three compartment model
D. Open Multi compartment model
E. NOTA
283. This pharmacokinetic parameter gives
the speed at which a drug enters a
compartment, distributes between a central
and peripheral compartments and is
eliminated from the systemic circulation.
A. Half-life
B. Volume of distribution
C. Rate constant
D. AUC
E. Cmax
284. Alcohol in the body is eliminated by
A. Zero-order reaction
B. First-order reaction
C. Third-order reaction
D. Fourth-order reaction
E. NOTA
285. Dose dependent kinetics can occur due
to the following situations, EXCEPT
A. Over loading of metabolic processes
when large doses are given
B. Competition for one type of metabolic
process by two drugs
C. When active transport mechanisms
are overloaded
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
286. This is the rate constant describing the
loss of unchanged drug from the systemic
circulation by either excretion or metabolism
A. Absorption rate constant
B. Distribution rate constant
 C. Elimination rate constant
D. Excretion rate constant
E. Metabolism rate constant
287. If a drug is given extravascularly ,this
rate constant describes the rate of input of
drug into systemic circulation.
A. Absorption rate constant
B. Distribution rate constant
A. Different drug release rate from
dosage form
B. Disease
C. Viscosity of gastric content
D. Fasting or fed conditions
E. AOTA
291. In obesity, the volume of hydrophilic
drugs is _____ expected from the body weight

C. Elimination rate constant A. Higher than

D. Excretion rate constant B. Lower than

E. Metabolism rate constant C. Deeper than

288. With this drug product ,a solution results D. Insufficient data

in a smaller total amount of drug absorbed
than when it is given in the form of capsules E. NOTA
and tablets.
292. In the edematic patients, the volume of
A. Aspirin distribution of hydrophilic drug is ___expected
from the body weight
B. Paracetamol
A. Higher than
C. Nifedipine
B. Lower than
D. Griseofulvin
C. Deeper than
E. Metoprolol
D. Insufficient data

289. The following are methods to estimate
the absorption rate constant , EXCEPT
A. Cmax- Truncated AUC method
E. NOTA
294.If the volume of distribution in an adult is
approximately 5 liters,it means that the drug is
in

B. Nomogram method A. Circulatory system

C. Absorption time method B. Extracellular fluid

D. Ritschel method C. Intracellular fluid

E. NOTA D. Whole body fluid

290. Absorption rate constant may be different E. Fats

due to
295. If the volume of distribution in an adult is 299. These are the compounds which are
approximately between 25-30 liters, the drug filtered through the glomeruli only and are
is distributed in the used as test substances for kidney function
test to determine the glomerular filtration rate
A. Circulatory system
A. Inulin
B. Extracellular fluid
B. Creatinine
C. Intracellular fluid
C. Reserpine
D. Whole body fluid
D. Choices A and B
E. Fats
E. Choices B and C
296. If the volume of distribution in an adult is
approximately 40 liters, the drug is distributed 300. This test is used for determination of
in the liver’s capacity for active transport and biliary
excretion
A. Circulatory system
A. Phenolphthalein Test
B. Extracellular fluid
B. Iodosulpthalein Test
C. Intracellular fluid
C. Bromosulhthalein Test
D. Whole body fluid
D. Arabinogalactose Test
E. Fats
E. Methylated Resin Test
297. Volumes of distribution can be estimated
in vitro by

A. Apparent partition coefficients

B. Extent of protein binding

C. pKa and pH ratio

D. Choices A and B

E. Choices B and C

298. The most important organ for excretion

is

A. Heart

B. Lungs

C. Kidney

D. Liver

E. Intestine
BIOPHARMACEUTICS (PACOP BLUE)

1. Passive diffusion of a drug molecule across a cell membrane depends on the

I. Lipid solubility of the drug
II. Extent of ionization of the drug
III. Concentration difference on either side of the cell membrane
a. I only d. II and III
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II

2. The rate of dissolution of a weakly acidic drug may be increased by

I. Increasing the pH of the medium
II. Increasing the particle size of the solid drug
III. Increasing the viscosity of the medium
a. I only d. II and III
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II

3. The initial degradation of drug by liver enzymes after oral administration of a drug is
known:
a. Enzymatic degradation d. Fick’s degradation
b. First pass metabolism e. absolute bioavailability
c. Relative bioavailability

4. Which of the following parameters can evaluate bio equivalency of drugs?

I. Time to reach peak concentration
II. AUC
III. Concentration of drug at plateau level
a. I only d. II only
b. I and II only e. I,II and III
c. II and III only

5. The following statements are not true except:

a. Amorphous form is more soluble than crystallized form d. hydrates are equivalent to
solvates
b. Hydrous form is more soluble then anhydrous e. none of the above
c. Polymorph is more soluble then enantiomorph

6. A measure of the quantity of drug in the body:

a. Vd d. Ko/w
b. AUC e. t1/2
c. pH

7. Study of what the body does to the drug:

a. Biopharmaceutics d. pharmacology
b. Pharmacokinetics e. pharmaceutics
c. Pharmacodynamics

8. Two different oral formulations of the same drug having equal areas under respective
serum-concentration time curves
a. Deliver the same total amount of drug d. are bioequivalent if they both
meet
to the body and are, therefore bioequivalent USP disintegration standards
b. Deliver the same total amount of drug e. are therapeutically equivalent
in the body but are not necessarily bioequivalent
c. Are bioequivalent by definition

9. Gastric emptying rate is slowed down by all of the ff. except:

a. Vigorous exercise d. hunger
b. Fatty foods e. lying on the left side
c. Hot meals

10. An absorption mechanism for Sabin pollo vaccine:

a. Passive diffusion d. convective transport
b. Ion-pair transport e. vesicular
c. Active transport

11. Drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety, the same dosage form with
the same strength and administered by the same route:
a. Pharmaceutical equivalents d. frequency
b. Bioequivalents e. Half-life
c. Pharmaceutical alternatives

12. A drug given intravenously results in an identical therapeutic moiety, the same dosage
form with the same strength and administered by the same route:
a. 50% d. 30%
b. 20% e. 60%
c. 100%

13. The time required to reach the minimum effective drug concentration in the blood is
known as:
a. Duration of action d. Frequency
b. Onset of action e. Half-life
c. Intensity of action

14. The phenomenon where a drug could exist in more than one crystal form
a. Thixothropy d. complexation
b. Polymorphism e. amorphism
c. Solvate formation

15. The following is true about the ko/w of β-estradiol:

a. Decreases being a nonpolar drug d. increases being a polar drug
b. Decreases being a polar drug e. decreases being a neutral
substance
c. Increases being a nonpolar drug

16. Drugs can be administered by IM route except:

a. When the drug cannot be administered IV d. for prolonged formulation
b. For drugs with high solubility e. for hydrophilic drugs
c. When rapid rate of absorption is desired

17. Indication for IV rout

a. Blood transfusion d. for kidney dialysis
b. For self-medication e. for peritoneal administration
c. For administration of small volumes in tissues

18. Best route for liquefying thick empyemas

a. IV d. inhalation
b. Intrapleural e. intrathecal
c. IM

19. The following promotes better absorption except:

a. Longer residence time in the small intestine d. decreased peristalsis
b. Longer residence time in the stomach e. enhance propulsive contractions
c. Mixing movements

20. True about pharmaceutical equivalents

I. Same active ingredient
II. Same dosage form
III. Same dosage strength
a. I only d. II and III
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II

21. The following best describes the effect of propantheline on the absorption of
paracetamol:
a. Delayed GER d. increased intestinal transit
b. Increased GER decreased acid secretion
c. Enhanced absorption

22. Describes diffusion of drug solutions across biological membranes

a. Henderson-Hasselbach d. ideal Gas Law
b. Fick’s Law e. pH partition theory
c. Noyes-Whitney Equation
23. Which of the following is/are considered carrier-mediated transport process/es?
I. Facilitated diffusion
II. Active transport
III. Passive diffusion
a. I only d. I and III only
b. I and II only e. I, II and III only
c. II and III only

24. True for all drug products administered by all routes except IV:
a. Absorption d. excretion
b. Liberation e. toxic kinetics
c. Metabolism

25. Describes the relationship between dissolution rate and drug particle surface area
a. Henderson-Hasselbach d. ideal Gas Law
b. Fick’s Law e. pH partition theory
c. Noyes-Whitney Equation

26. Route of drug administration where hepatic metabolism is completely by passed:

a. Buccal d. rectal
b. Sublingual e. both A&B
c. Topical

27. Non-linear pharmacokinetics:

I. First order kinetics
II. Michaelis-Menten kinetics
III. Enzyme kinetics
IV. Saturation kinetics
a. I only d. II, III and IV only
b. I and IV only e. all of the above
c. II and III only

28. These are drugs that primarily undergo Phase II metabolism:

I. Phenols
II. Barbiturates
III. Corticosteroids
IV. Sulfonamides
a. I only d. II, III and IV only
b. I and IV only e. all of the above
c. II and III only
29. This is the route of administration employed for chemotherapeutic drugs in order to
maximize drug concentrations at the tumor site before distribution occurs throughout the
body.
a. Intravenous d. intracardiac
b. Intramuscular
c. Intraarterial

30. The maximum dose of drug that can be administered subcutaneously is:
a. 0.5 ml d. 2.0 ml
b. 1.0 ml
c. 1.5 ml

31. This type of membrane allows the passage of lipophilic drugs only:
I. Blood capillaries
II. Blood-brain barrier
III. Renal glomerular membrane
IV. Renal tubule
a. II and IV only d. I, II and III only
b. II and III only
c. II only

32. This is the only transport process that does not require a drug to be in aqeous solution to
be adsorbed:
a. Passive diffusion d. carrier-mediated transport
b. Convective transport e. Vesicular Transport
c. Ion-pair formation

33. The following factors increase gastric emptying thereby increases absorption of most
drugs:
I. Intake of warm food instead of cold food
II. Lying on the left side
III. Exercise
IV. Stress
a. I only d. II and III only
b. I and III only e. II, III and IV
c. I and IV only

34. The following statements about drug absorption are true:

I. In order to maximize drug absorption, the drug needs to be highly
soluble.
II. In order to maximize drug absorption, the drug needs to be in the
unionized form.
III. In order to maximize drug available for absorption, the drug needs to
be highly soluble.
 IV. In order to maximize drug available for absorption, the drug needs to
be in the unionized.
a. I and III d. II and III
b. II and IV e. I only
c. I and IV

35. In general, the salt form of weak acids and weak bases:
I. Faster dissolution and faster absorption
II. Longer duration of action
III. Greater stability
IV. Less local irritation and less systemic toxicity
a. I, III and IV d. II, III and IV
b. I, II and III e. AOTA
c. I, II and IV

36. For conventional oral dosage forms, this is the slowest and rate-limiting step in the
series of processes of drug absorption:
a. Liberation d. Diffusion
b. Disintegration
c. Dissolution

37. The following pathological factors decrease drug absorption:

I. Diarrhea
II. Constipation
III. Parkinson’s Disease
IV. Hyperthyroidism
a. III and IV d. II only
b. II, III and IV e. I only
c. II and IV only

38. Pharmaceutically equivalent drugs should have similar

I. Active chemical ingredient
II. Dosage strength of active chemical ingredient
III. Dosage form
IV. Intensity and duration of action
V. Therapeutic effect
a. II, IV, and V d. AOTA
b. I, II and III e. NOTA
c. I, II, III and V

39. Therapeutically equivalent drugs should have similar:

I. Active chemical ingredient
II. Dosage strength of active chemical ingredient
III. Dosage form
 IV. Intensity and duration of action
V. Therapeutic effect
a. II, IV, and V d. AOTA
b. I, II and III e. NOTA
c. I, II, III and V

40. Pharmaceutical alternatives drugs should have similar:

I. Active chemical ingredient
II. Dosage strength of active chemical ingredient
III. Dosage form
IV. Intensity and duration of action
V. Therapeutic effect
a. II, IV, and V d. AOTA
b. I, II and III e. NOTA
c. I, II, III and V

41. Therapeutic alternatives should have similar:

I. Active chemical ingredient
II. Dosage strength of active chemical ingredient
III. Dosage form
IV. Intensity and duration of action
V. Therapeutic effect
a. II, IV, and V d. AOTA
b. I, II and III e. NOTA
c. I, II, III and V

42. Bioequivalent drugs should have similar:

I. Active chemical ingredient
II. Dosage strength of active chemical ingredient
III. Dosage form
IV. Intensity and duration of action
V. Therapeutic effect
d. II, IV, and V d. AOTA
e. I, II and III e. NOTA
f. I, II, III and V

43. The ff. statements are true for plasma albumin:

I. Major binding protein for acidic drugs
II. Concentration is low and saturation may occur
III. Concentration is increased in MI and RA
a. I only d. II and III
b. I and III e. AOTA
c. I and II
44. The ff. statements are true for α-acid glycoprotein:
I. Major binding for acidic drugs
II. Concentration is low and saturation may occur
III. Concentration is increased in MI and RA
a. I only d. II and III
b. I and III e. AOTA
c. I and II

45. The ff. statements are true regarding drug protein binding:
I. A tightly bound drug has α value.
II. The fraction unbound is determined by concentration of both the drug
and binding protein and affinity of the drug for the protein.
III. Highly protein bound drugs require more frequent dosage
administration.
a. I only d. II and III
b. I and III e. AOTA
c. I and II

46. The renal clearance of a drug that is filtered, secreted and reabsorbed is approximately:
a. 120 ml/min d. NOTA
b. <120 ml/min
c. >120 ml/min

47. For adults with unstable renal function, creatinine clearance may be computed using this
equation:
a. Cockroft & Gault d. Levey
b. Jellife
c. Salazar and Corcoran

48. A creatinine clearance of 40 is indicative of:

a. Normal kidney function d. severe renal failure
b. Mild renal failure
c. Moderate renal failure

49. Half-life of a drug may be decreased by:

I. Hepatic insufficiency
II. Cardiogenic shock, heart failure and hemorrhage
III. Increased extraction ratio
IV. Displacement of the drug by another substance
a. I only d. I and IV
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. II and III

50. Phase II Clinical Studies deal with:

a. Pharmacokinetics in healthy participants d. Dosage ranging and linearity
b. Drug interactions
c. Formulation Development

51. The Biopharmaceutics Classification System (BCS) is a drug development tool that
allows correlation of in vitro drug dissolution and in vivo bioavailability correlation. It is
based on the following parameters which affect the rate and extent of drug absorption
from solid oral dosage forms:
I. Liberation
II. Dissolution
III. Solubility
IV. Permeablity
a. I and II d. II, III and IV
b. II and III e. all of the above
c. I and III

52. Biopharmaceutics is the study of :

I. Factors that influence the release of drug from a drug product, the
rate of dissolution of the drug, and the eventual bioavailability of drug.
II. Interrelationship of the physicochemical properties of the drug, the
dosage form in which the drug is given, and the route of
administration on the rate and extent of systemic drug absorption.
III. Kinetics of drug absorption, distribution, and elimination
a. I and II d. AOTA
b. II and III
c. I and III

53. Compared to normal adults, infants have:

I. Slower absorption
II. Smaller Vd
III. Slower metabolism
IV. Shortened elimination time
a. I and II d. I, II and IV
b. III and IV e. AOTA
c. I and III

54. The only metabolic process present in an infant is:

a. Redox d. Glucoronidation
b. Sulfation
c. Acetylation

55. The following statements describe the pharmacokinetic profile of geriatric patients:
I. Decreased absorption rate
II. Increased Vd
 III. Decreased metabolism
IV. Decreased half-life
a. I and II d. I, II and IV
b. III and IV e. AOTA
c. I and III

56. Compared to normal adults, renally impaired patients have:

I. Decreased absorption rate
II. Increased Vd
III. Decreased metabolism
IV. Decreased half-life
a. II only d. I, II and IV
b. III and IV e. AOTA
c. I and III

57. Bioavailability of these drugs is decreased in patients with renal disease:

I. Erythromycin
II. Digoxin
III. Furosemide
IV. D-xylose
a. I and II d. I and IV
b. II and III e. AOTA
c. III and IV

58. Compared to normal adults, obese patients have:

I. Increased renal blood flow
II. Increased GFR
III. Increased Vd
IV. Decreased metabolism
a. I and II d. I, II and IV
b. III and IV e. AOTA
c. I and III

59. Theraputic Drug monitoring (TDM) is employed for drugs with :

I. Marked pharmacokinetic variability
II. Narrow therapeutic window
III. Undefined therapeutic range
IV. Desired therapeutic effect that is difficult to monitor
a. II and IV d. I, II and IV
b. I and II e. AOTA
c. II, III and IV

60. Aspirin is best absorbed by this transport mechanism

a. Passive diffusion d. Convective Transport
b. Carrier-Mediated Transport e. Vesicular Transport
c. Ion-Pair Formation

61. Drug penetration is enhanced if the drug

I. Is in solution
II. Has a high lipid-water partition coefficient
III. Is ionized
a. I only d. I, II, III
b. I and II
c. I and III

62. In Fick’s Law, the slope indicates the rate of

a. Absorption d. adsorption
b. Diffusion
c. Penetration

63. Which of the following is/are true about passive diffusion?

I. It is the principal process for movement of drugs across membranes
II. The driving force is electrochemical gradient.
III. It involves a carrier protein as a component of the membrane
a. All of the above d. I only
b. I and II
c. II and III

64. These are drugs that undergo extensive first pass effect:
I. PABA
II. Terbutaline
III. Verapamil
IV. Cimetidine
a. I and II d. AOTA
b. II and III
c. I, II and IV

65. These are drugs that inhibit metabolism of other drugs:

I. Allopurinol
II. Warfarin
III. Meperidine
IV. Phenytoin
a. I and II d. I, II and III
b. II and III e. AOTA
c. I, II and IV

66. Transdermal route of administration is administered in/through/on the:

a. Epicutaneous d. subcutaneous
b. Intracutaneous
c. Percutaneous

67. At physiologic pH, a drug with pKa=5.4 is approximately

a. 100% unionized, 0% ionized d. 91% unionized, 9% ionized
b. 100% ionized, 0% unionized e. 91% ionized, 9% unionized
c. 50% unionized, 50% ionized

68. The ff. diagram shows the comparative of rate of drug absorption from oral dosage forms
fastest to slowest:
a. Suspensions>emulsions>uncoated tablets>capsules
b. Emulsions>suspensions>uncoated
tablets>capsules
c. Emulsions>suspensions>capsules>
uncoated tablets
d. suspensions>emulsions>uncoated tablets>capsules

69. What is the administration rate of theophyliine, representing 0.8 of the administered
dose, when aminophylline is infused at 75 mg/hr?
a. 40mg/h d. 70mg/h
b. 50mg/h
c. 60mg/h

70. Four hours following the IV administration of a drug, a patient (70kg) was found to havea
plasma concentration of 5.6 mcg/ml. assuming the Vd is 10% of body weight, what is the
amount of drug, in mg. present in body fluids?
a. 35.7 d. 32.9
b. 37.5
c. 39.2

71. What is the rate of IV administration for aminophylline which would produce a steady
state plasma theophylline concentration of 15mg/L if the estimated theophylline
clearance is 2.8 L/h?
a. 50.5 d. 53.5
b. 51.5
c. 52.5

72. If Lidocaine IV is infused continually at a rate of 2mg/min and if the steady state
concentration of lidocaine is 3mg/L, what is the total clearance?
a. 0.67 L/min d. 0.47 L/min
b. 0.57 L/min
c. 0.87 L/min
73. The extent of distribution of drugs is affected by:
I. Blood perfusion
II. Plasma protein binding
III. Membrane permeability
IV. pH
a. I and III d. AOTA
b. II and IV
c. II, III, and IV

74. The rate of distribution of drugs is affected by:

I. Blood perfusion
II. Plasma protein binding
III. Membrane permeability
IV. pH
a. I and III d. AOTA
b. II and IV
c. II, III, and IV

75. The rate of zero-order reactions

a. Changes constantly d. holds only for light-catalyzed
reaction
b. Is independent temperature e. holds only for radioactive
compounds
c. In independent of concentration

76. What will result if the distribution of drugs is slower than the process of biotransformation
and elimination?
a. High blood levels of drug d. potentiation
b. Low blood levels of drug e. failure to attain diffusion
equilibrium
c. Synergism

77. Which of the following types of tissues frequently stored drugs?

a. Fatty tissues d. A and B
b. Muscle tissue e. A and C
c. Protein tissue

78. Which of the following drugs undergoes marked hydrolysis in the GI tract?
a. ASA d. Hydrocortisone
b. Penicillin G e. Chlortetracycline
c. Acetaminophen

79. If a CNS drug is extensively ionized at pH of blood, it will

a. Penetrate the BBB slowly d. be eliminate slowly
b. Penetrate the BBB rapidly e. not be distributed to any tissue
sites
c. Not penetrate the BBB barrier

80. The buffer equation is also known as

a. Young’s equation d. Stoke’s Law
b. Charle’s Law e. AOTA
c. Henderson-Hesselbach equation

81. To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine

a. Half-life d. Vd
b. Body clearance e. AOTA
c. ]fraction protein bound

82. To achieve the same steady-state plasma concentration (for a drug that is excreted by
the kidney) in renal failure patients with normal renal function, you should
a. Increasing the dosing interval d. do any of the above, depending
on pharmacodynamic properties of the drug
b. Decrease the dose e. not adjust the dosing regimen
unless the patient shows sign of toxicity
c. Adjust both the dose and dosing interval

83. Which of the following factors make it necessary to give lower doses of drugs to geriatric
patients?
a. Reduced enzyme activity d. A and B only
b. Reduced kidney function e. A, B and C
c. Enhanced absorption

84. The Noyes-Whitney Equation describes

a. Zero-order kinetics d. dissolution rate
b. First-order kinetics e. renal clearance
c. Mixed-order kinetics
85. A prime consideration in biopharmaceutics is a drug’s “bioavailability” which refers to the
relative amount of drug that reaches the
a. Small intestine d. liver
b. Stomach e. kidneys
c. Systemic circulation

86. The AUC can be described as

I. A theoretical value
II. A measure of drug concentration-time curve
III. Having units of weight and time.volume
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. AOTA
c. I and II only

87. What is the potentially first rate-limiting process when a tablet dosage form is
administered?
a. Ionization of the drug d. dissolution of the drug in the blood
b. Diffusion of the through the GI epithelium e. disintegration in the tablet
c. Dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids

88. Which of the following could be the rate-limiting steps for drug absorption from an orally
administered drug product?
I. Disintegration of the unit
II. Dissolution of the active drug
III. Diffusion of the active drug through the intestinal wall
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. AOTA
c. I and II only

89. The AUC of a drug can be determined from a graph by using which of the following
methods?
I. Law of diminishing returns
II. Rule of nines
III. Trapezoidal rule
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. AOTA
c. I and II only

90. The peak of the serum concentration versus time curve approximates the
a. Point in time when the maximum pharmacologic d. time required for essentially all of
the
pharmacologic effect occurs. Drug to be absorbed from the GI
tract.
b. Point in time when absorption and elimination e. point in time when the
drug begins to
have equalized be metabolized.
c. Maximum concentration of free drug in the urine.
91. In which of the following sites may drugs be metabolized?
I. Skin
II. Lungs
III. Liver
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. AOTA
c. I and II only

92. When compared to their parent compound, metabolites usually have

a. Greater water solubility d. no therapeutic activity
b. Lower water solubility e. greater diffusion through
c. Greater therapeutic activity the blood brain barrier

93. Differences in bioavailability are most frequently observed with drug products
administered by which one of the following routes?
a. Subcutaneous d. sublingual
b. Intravenous e. intramuscular
c. Oral

94. When graphed, nonlinear pharmacokinetics are characterized by dat that

a. Does not yield a straight line at any time d. follows first-order kinetics
b. Exhibits a straight line only when plotted e. will have a negative slope
as log-log functions
c. Is dose-dependent

95. The “F” value for a drug product is ideally compared to its
a. Absolute bioavailability d. relative bioavailability
b. Dosing rate e. route of administration
c. Clearance rate

96. If an oral capsule formulation of the drug A produces a serum-concentration time curve
having the same AUC as that produced by an equivalent dose of drug A given IV, it can
generally be concluded that
a. The IV route is preferred to the oral route. d. All oral forms of drug A will be
b. The capsule formulation is essentially completely bioequivalent
absorbed
c. The drug is very rapidly absorbed. e. there is no advantage to the IV
route

97. The term therapeutic window refers to the

a. Time interval between administration d. concentration versus time curve
And the beginning of activity
b. Concentration differential between drug’s e. time period before administration
of
MTC and MEC the next dose
c. Concentration which must be reached
Before activity begins

98. For two drug products to be considered “pharmaceutical equivalents” the products must
have
I. Have the same active drug (therapeutic moiety)
II. Consist of the same salt
III. Contain the same excipients
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. all
c. I and II only

99. Requirements for the drug products to be considered “pharmaceutical alternatives”

includes having the same
I. Active drug
II. Dosage form
III. Salt or ester
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. all
c. I and II only

100. Based upon the pH partition theory, weakly acidic drugs are most likely to be absorbed
from the stomach because
a. The drugs will exist primarily in the d. the ionic form of the drug
facilitates
unionized, more lipid soluble form dissolution
b. The drugs will exist primarily in the ionized, e. weak acids will further depress pH
more water soluble form
c. Weak acids are more soluble in acid media

101. Gastric emptying time except:

a. Vigorous exercise d. hunger
b. Fatty foods e. emotional stress
c. Hot meals

102. Reducing drug particle size to enhance drug absorption is limited to those situations in
which the

a. Absorption process occurs by active transport d. drug is very potent

b. Absorption process is rate limited by e. drug is irritating to the GI tract
the dissolution of drug in the GI fluids
c. Drug is very water soluble

103. Drugs that are absorbed from the GI tract are generally

a. Absorbed into the portal circulation and d. not affected by liver

enzymes
pass through the liver before entering the general circulation
b. Filtered form the blood by the kidney, e. Stored in the liver
then reabsorbed into the general circulation
c. Absorbed into the portal circulation
and are distributed by an enterohepatic cycle

104. The volume of distribution (Vd) of a particular drug will be

a. Greater for drugs that concentrate in d. independent of plasma
concentration
tissues rather than in plasma
b. Greater drugs that concentrate in plasma e. approximately the same for all
drugs
rather than in tissues. In a giiven individual
c. Independent of tissue concentration

105. A knowledge of Vd for a given drug is useful because it alloews to

a. estimate the elimination rate constant d. determine the best dosing

interval

b determine the biological half-life e. determine the peak plasma

c. calculate a reasonable loading dose concentration

106. Estimate the plasma concentration of a drug when 50 mg is given by IV bolus to a 140
lb patien if her volume of distribution is 1.6 L/kg

a. 0.1 mg/L d. 5 mg/L

b. 0.5 mg/L e. 31 mg/L
c. 1 mg/L

107. the time needed to achieve a steady-state plasma level for a drug administered by
infusion will depend upon

I. Amount of drug being infused

II. Volume of distribution of drug
III. Half-life of drug
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. all of the above
c. I and II only

108. the time needed to reach optimum drug blood levels (the plateau portion of curve III)
during constant rateintravenous infusion is

a. Directly proprtiona to the rate of infusion d. independent of the biological half-

life
b. Inversely proportional to the rate of infusion e. not related to either the infusion
rate
c. Independent of rate of infusion or the biological half-life

109. What factor besides the desired steady-state concentration (Css) is most important for
determining an infusion rate of a parenteral solution?

a. half-life of the drug d. total clearance

b. Metabolism rate e. volume of distribution
c. Renal elimination

110. Compartmental models are often used to illustrate the various principles of
pharmacokinetics. a compartment is best definded as

a. any anatomic entity that is capable of absorbing drug d. any body fluid-such as
blood or urine
b. a kinetically distinguishable pool of drug that may contain drug
c. specific body organs or that e. any component of the
blood, tissues can be assayed for drug including
blood proteins that would
have tendency to absorb drug

111. which of the following is/are true of non-linear pharmacokinetics

I. follows zero order kinetics

II. elimination half-life will change as the dose is increased
III. half-life is expressed in terms of fraction per unit time
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II only

112. The difference between peak and trough concentrations greatest when the is given at
dosing intervals

a. Much longer than the half-life
b. About equal to the half-life
c. Much shorter than the half-life
reach
d. equal to the half-life times serum
creatinine
e. equal to the time it takes to
peak concentration following a single
oral dose

113. which of the following pharmacokinetic parameters is (are) likely to decrease) in the
geriatric population when compared to average population?

I. Renal elimination
II. Drug metabolism
III. Volume of the distribution
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II only

114. the pharmacokinetic property known as clearance is essentially the

a. Rate at which the plasma is cleared of d. rate at which the drug is

removed
 all waste materials and foreign substances (e.g drug) (cleared) from its site of
absorption
b. Volume of blood that passes through the e. volume of blood that is completely
kidneys per unit of time cleared of drug per unit of
time
c. Volume of blood that passes through the liver
per unit of time

115. a knowledge of the clearance (CL) of a given drug is useful because it allows the

a. Calculation of the maintenance dose required to d. decision whether a loading dose

sustain a desired average steady-state plasma
concentration
b. Determination of a loading dose but not the
maintainance dose
c. Determination of the ideal dosing interval
is necessary
e. determination if the drug is
metabolized or excreted unchanged

116. In dosing drugs that are primarily excreted by the kidneys, one must have an idea of
the patient’s renal function. A calculated pharmacokinetic parameter that gives us a
reasonable estimate of renal function is the

a. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) d. urine creatinine (Ucr)

b. Serum creatinine (Scr) e. free water clearance
c. Creatinine clearance (CLcr)

117. if the rate of elimination of a drug is reduced because of impaired renal function, the
effect on the drug half-life and the time required to reach steady-state concentrations
(Css) will

a. Both increase d. be a decrease in half-life but an

b. Both decrease increase in the time to reach Css
c. Be an increase in half-life and a e. be negligible
decrease in the time to reach Css

118. For many drugs, bioavalibilty can be evaluated using urinary excretion data. This is
based on the assumption that

a. Bioavailability studies can be done only d. all of the administered

dose can be
on drugs that are completely excreted recovered from the urine
unchanged by the kidneys
b. Drug levels can be measured more accurately e. only drug metabolites are
excreted in
in urine than in blood the urine
c. A drug must first be absorbed into the systemic
circulation before it can be appear in the urine
 119. Estimating bioavailability from urinary excretion data is less satisfactory than
estimated based on blood level data because accurate urinary excretion studies require

I. Complete urine collections

II. Normal or near normal renal function
III. That the drug be completely excreted unchanged by the
kidney
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II only

120. The half-life of an anti-bacterial drug has been reported as ranging between 4 and 10
h. what is the estimated clearance of this drug in a patient receiving a 50-mg bolus dose
of a drug at 1000? A blood sample drawn at 1400 assays at 10 mg/L

a. 0.8 L/h d. 2.5 L/h

b. 1.25 L/h e. 5 L/h
c. 1.6 L/h

121. Which of the following factors is (are) included in the Cockroft and Gault equation for
estimating creatinine clearance?

I. Patient’s age
II. Patient’s height and weight
III. Patient’s calculated BEE
a. I only d. II and III only
b. III only e. I, II and III
c. I and II only

122. What is the approximate creatinine clearance in a 140-lb, 50yr old patient if the lab
reports a serum creatinine value of 1.5 mg/dL?

a. 50-55 mL d. 120-125 mL
b. 100-105 mL e. 130-140 mL
c. 110-118 mL

123. The patient in the previous problem is a female. What correction, if any should be
made in calculating her creatinine clearance value?

a. The value will be 50% of the male value d. the value will be 85% of
the male
b. The value will be 75 % of the male value value
c. The value will be 80% of the male value e. no correction is needed

124. all of the following drugs are believed to undergo significant First-Pass hepatic
metabolism EXCEPT:

a. Lidocaine d. phenytoin
 b. Morphine e. propranolol
c. NTG

125. The science that examines the inter-relationship of the physicochemical propertis of the
drug, the dosage form in which the drug is given, and the route of administration on
drug’s bioavaibility

a. Pharmacology
b. Biopharmaceutics
c. Pharmacokinetics
d. Toxicolgy

126. The application of pharmacokinetic principles in the safe and effective treatment of
individual patients, and in the optimization of drug therapy.

a. Clinical pharmacy
b. Clinical pharmacology
c. Clinical pharmacokinetics
d. Clinical biopharmaceutics

127. The IV route of administration may be preferred over the preoral route for some
systemic-acting drugs because:

a. The drug does not have to be absorbed

b. Absorption is predictable and complete
c. A portion of the absorbed drug pass through the liver before entering the systemic
circulation
d. First-pass effect is avoided

128. The route of administration which will by-pass the GIT degradation and hepatic
metabolism is

a. IV injection d. b and c
b. Sublingual e. all of the above
c. Buccal

129. Advantages of systemic drug administration by rectal suppository

a. Partial avoidance of first-pass effects

b. Suitability when the oral route is not feasible
c. Predictable drug release and absorption
d. a and b only
e. all of the above

130. The process with the slowest rate constant in a system of simultaneous kinetic process

a. lag time
b. rate limiting step
c. bioequivalence
d. accumulation

131. A rate limiting step factor in the dissolution of tablet is

a. disintegration of the tablet

b. thickness
c. content uniformity
d. local effect

132. Which of the following series in kinetic processes may be the rate-limiting step for
drugs that are poorly soluble in aqeous media?

a. Disintegration and dissolution of the unit

b. Diffusion of active drug through the intestinal wall
c. Dissolution of the active drug
d. Disintegration only
e. All of the above

133. The equation that best describe the overall rate of drug dissolution

a. Henderson-Hasselbach equation d. Fick’s law of diffusion

b. Michelis-Menten equation e. NOTA
c. Noyes-Whitney equation

134. Which of the following factor/s is inversely proportional to the rate of dissolution in the
lipid membrane of lipid soluble unionize substances?

a. Particle size d. diffusion coefficient

b. Lipid/water partition coefficient e. NOTA
c. Surface area

135. Dissolution rate tests can be used to predict bioavailability if

a. Dissolved drug remains free in the GIT

b. Dissolved drug is decomposed in the GIT
c. Drug is hydrolyzed in the GIT
d. AOTA

136. Which of the following factors affect the dissolution in the lipid membrane of the lipid
soluble unionized fluid compartment

a. pH
b. pKa
c. lipid/water partition coefficient
d. AOTA
137. The ratio of drug concentration in the lipid phase over the concentration of the drug in
the aqueous phase is equal to

a. APC
b. pKa
c. pH
d. Concentration gradient

138. The lipid phase which is usually employed in the determination of apparent partition
coefficient

a. Buffer solution at pH 7.4

b. Corn oil
c. Cottonseed oil
d. Octanol

139. Decreasing oil/water partition coefficient, the polarity of drug increases due to the
presence of hydrophilic functional groups, thus water solubility

a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. No change
d. Polarity is not related

140. The ionization constant of a drug is important in bioavailability since it determines the
following except

a. Its aqeous solubility

b. Dissolution rate
c. pH of the medium
d. extent of protein binding

141. The extent of ionization of a weak electrolyte drug is dependent on the

a. pH of the media and pKa of the drug d. Noyes-Whitney equation of the

drug
b. particle size and surface area of the drug e. polymorphic form of the drug
c. oil water partition coefficient of the drug

142. The pH of a buffer system can be calculated with the

a. Noyes-Whitney equation d. Young equation

b. Henderson-hasselbach equation e. Stokes equation
c. Michealis-Menten equation

143. The pH value is calculated mathematically as the

a. log of the Hydroxyl ion (OH-) d. negative log of the H+ concn

b. negative log of the OH- concn e. Ratio of H+ / OH-
c. log of the hydrogen ion (H+)

144. A change of pH in the aqueous phase alters the _______ of electrolytes

a. Degree of dissociation d. NOTA

b. Degree of acidification e. AOTA
c. Degree of purification

145. The mathematical equation used in determining the ratio between ionized and
unionized drug include

a. Noyes-Whitney equation d. NOTA

b. Fick’s First Law of diffusion e. AOTA
c. Henderson Hasselbach equation

146. Which of the following alkaloids exhibits good water solubility?

a. Morphine SO4 d. lidocaine

b. Cocaine e. AOTA
c. Atropine

147. pH is equal to pKa when the ionized form is

a. Greater than unionized

b. Less than unionized
c. Neither greater or less than unionized
d. Equal to unionized
e. AOTA

148. Which of the following is a characteristic of strong electrolytes?

a. Exist entirely as ions

b. Exist both as ionic and a molecular form
c. Exist entirely in molecular form
d. May be undissociated

149. Characteristics of salts of electrolytes include

a. Higher solubility
b. More rapid dissolution rate
c. Both
d. NOTA

150. Acids are ______ , when nonprotonated

a. Charged d. non polar

b. Unchanged e. NOTA
c. unionized
151. Significant site of absorption of many acidic and neutral compounds but not for basic
compounds.

a. Kidney c. Stomach
b. Liver d. AOTA

152. According to pH partition theory, q weakly acidic drug will most likely be absorbed from
the stomach because.

a. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized, more lipid soluble form
b. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized, more water-soluble form
c. Weak acids are more soluble in acid medium
d. The ionic form of the drug facilities dissolution

153. What is the pH does weak acids greatly ionized?

a. High pH c. Neutral pH
b. Low pH d. AOTA

154. The excretion of weak acid will be more rapid in alkaline urine than in acidic urine
because:

a. All drugs are excreted in alkaline urine

b. The drug will exist primarily in the unionized form
c. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized form
d. Weak acids cannot be reabsorbed from the kidney tubules

156. When does weak acids reabsorbed not the bloodstream?

a. If the urinary pH is high

b. If the urine is made alkaline
c. If the urinary pH is low
d. All situations apply

157. Based on the relation between the degree of ionization and the gastric solubility of a
weak aced, the drug aspirin (pKa 3.49) will be most soluble at.

a. pH 1.0 d. pH 4.0
b. pH 2.0 e. pH 6.0
c. pH 3.0

158. The concentration of the ionic moiety of weak acids increases with
 a. Decreasing pH of aqueous solution c. Increasing pOH of aqueous
solution
b. Increasing pH of aqueous solution d. AOTA

159. What is the reason behind why Morphine sulfate most likely absorbed is the small
intestine

a. The molecular form will be more lipid soluble

b. The drug will exist primarily in the ionized and more water soluble form
c. The ionic form of the drug facilitates dissolution
d. Basic drugs are lipid soluble in alkaline media

160. Which condition usually increases the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet?

a. Increases in the particle size of the drug

b. Use of Ionized or salt form of the drug
c. Decrease in the surface area of the drug
d. Use of free acid or free base form of the drug
e. Use of sugar coating around the tablet

161. It is the phenomenon when organic substituted ammonium salts or salts of various
inorganic acids are added to mixtures of organic non-electrolytes causing the dissolution of the
undissolved solutes

a. Chelation c. Solvation
b. Clathrate formation d. Salting-In

162. These are formed when a substance is capable of forming channels or cages which
can take up another substance into the intraspace of the structure

a. Co – precipitates d. Hydrates
b. Solvates e. NOTA
c. Drug – Clathrate complexes

163. Which of the following is a clathrate forming substance

a. Urea c. Melt of mannitol

b. Mucin d. Theobroma oil

164. Polymorphism is generally defined as

a. Substance that may exist in more than one crystalline form or amorphous form
b. Substance that may exists only in metastable form
 c. Substance that has different viscosity time to time
d. Substance that reduces interfacial tension

165. Different polymorphs of the same drug exhibit differences in all aspects except

a. Chemical structure d. Molecular sizes

b. Melting points e. None
c. Solubilities

166. These are addition compounds of drug and water

a. Hydrates c. polymorphs
b. Solvates d. Chelates

167. Which of the following crystal form gives the best dissolution rate?

a. Meta-stable polymorph c. Stable polymorph

b. Amorphous d. a and b

168. Ability of chemical compound to exist as optically active stereoisomers or enantiomers

is known as.

a. Polymorphism c. Chemical Variation

b. Chirality d. Chelation

169. Which of the given properties has the property of absorbing moisture from the
atmosphere?

a. Micronization c. Viscosity
b. Hygroscopicity d. Ionization

170. The following is/are factor/s affecting biological performance of drugs

a. Viscosity d. Adsorption
b. Polymorphism e. AOTA
c. Solubilizing agents

171. Those multiple source drug products that contain identical amount of the identical
active ingredients in identical dose forms are called

a. Chemical equivalents or pharmaceutical equivalents

b. Biologic equivalents
c. Therapeutic equivalents
d. Pharmaceutical alternates
 e. Therapeutic alternates

172. Drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety, or its precursor but not
necessarily in the same amount or dosage forms or as the same salt ester

a. Pharmaceutical alternates c. Bioequivalent drug products

b. Pharmaceutical equivalents d. NOTA

173. Dose pumping is defined as

a. An intended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic circulation

b. Unintended sudden release of large amounts of drugs into systemic circulation
c. Slow release of the drug into systemic circulation
d. Slow absorption of the drug into the systemic circulation

174. A portion of a prolonged release dosage form which liberates the drug from the form at
a slower rate that is unrestricted absorption rate

a. Depot phase d. AOTA

b. Release phase e. NOTA
c. Dissolve phase

175. In general, various oral dosage forms can be ranked in which of the following expected
order of availability (fastest to slowest)

a. Aqueous solution, capsule, tablet, powder, coated tablet, suspension

b. Capsule, tablet, coated tablet, powder, suspension, aqueous solution
c. Aqueous solution, suspension, powder, capsule, tablet, coated tablet
d. Suspension, aqueous solution, powder, capsule, coated tablet, tablet

176. Process of transferring chemical substances from the GIT through its wall into the
blood and lymphatic stream

a. Distribution c. Absorption
b. Adsorption d. Exocytosis

177. Collective term used to describe penetration and permeation include

a. Disposition c. Sorption
b. Distribution d. Adsorption
178. If drug moves into the deeper layers of the skin or mucosa and yet does not reach the
capillary walls

a. Adsorption c. Penetration
 b. Permeation d. Absorption

179. One of the mechanism by which drugs containing sorption promoters penetrate the
skin is by widening of either lipid or aqueous phase or both phases found in the intercellular
matrix. Which of the following sorption is used?

a. Surfactants c. Viscosity-decreasing
agents/thinners
b. Absorption d. AOTA

180. A second substance tends to accumulate to the surface of a first substance due to
intermolecular forces of attraction is a phenomenon of

a. Penetration c. Adsorption
b. Absorption d. AOTA

181. Obtained when the drug product is administered at the site where pharmacological
response is desired and when the drug released from the product acts by absorption to the skin
or mucosa or penetrates into the skin or mucosa, but does not enter the systemic circulation or
lymphatic system

a. Systemic effect c. Mean transit time

b. Local effect d. Micro constants

182. The theory which states that cell membrane is made up of bi-lipid layers and fluid
protein molecules interspersed between 2 layers of lipid layer

a. Fick’s law d. Stroke’s law

b. Fluid Mosaic e. NOTA
c. Ariens and Stephenson

183. Membranes are responsible for which of the following process?

a. Uptake of fluid material c. Extrusion of waste material

b. Uptake of solid material d. OATA

184. Membrane potential is due to the:

a. Adsorption of protein to the outside of lipid layer

b. Different distribution of ions in the extracellular and intracellular fluid
c. Both a and b
d. pH of the medium
 185. Absorption is not involved when a drug is administered by which of the following
routes?

a. IV c. Intracardiac
b. Intra – arterial d. AOTA

186. Which of the following is the first process that must occur before a drug can become
available for GI absorption from a tablet dosage form?

a. Dissolution of the drug in the GI fluids

b. Ionization of the drug
c. Disintegration of the tablet
d. Dissolution of the drug in the blood
e. Adsorption of the drug on the mucosal surface of the skin

187. The value of particle size reduction to enhance drug absorption is limited to the
situation in which the

a. Absorption process occurs by active transport

b. Absorption process is rate limited by the dissolution of the drug in the GIT
c. Drug is very soluble
d. Drug is very potent

188. In general, the form of a drug that can be absorbed faster is a/an

a. Ionized form c. Bound form

b. Unionized form d. A and C

189. In general, the form of a drug that can be absorbed faster

a. pKa value of the drug and pH of the drug product

b. Perfusion rate
c. Osmotic pressure
d. Both a and b
e. NOTA

190. Due to their anatomical structure, the organ that is considered as the most important
site of drug absorption is

a. Large intestine c. Small intestine

b. Stomach d. Mucus membrane of the mouth

191. In what part of GIT, is where no absorption of food takes place but large amount of
water are absorbed
 a. Rectum d. Small intestine
b. Large intestine e. Stomach

192. What is the specific organ of animal used for In vivo testing of active transport
mechanism

a. Duodenum c. Iluem
b. Ascending colon d. Transverse colon

193. As soon as drug has passed the epithelium of the GI mucosa, it can reach the systemic
circulation by

a. Entering through the villi c. Both

b. Entering through the lacteals d. None

194. Drugs that are absorbed in the GIT are generally

a. Absorbed in the portal of circulation and passed through the liver before entering the
general circulation
b. Filtered from the blood by the kidney, the reabsorbed into the general circulation
c. Not affected by the liver enzymes
d. Stored in the liver

195. Absorption of Vitamin A from the GI tract depends on

a. The presence of bile in the intestine d. Needs of the patient

b. By which salt is used e. pH of the intestine
c. Acid-base balance

196. Factor affecting gastric emptying time of a drug

a. Age of a person d. AOTA

b. Time of the day e. a and c only
c. Body pressure

197. Rate of gastric emptying is slowed down by the following except

a. Vigorous exercise d. Hunger

b. Fatty foods e. Emotional stress
c. Hot meals

198. In the oral administration of drugs for aged people, the possible consequence/s when
the gastric emptying time is increased is/are
a. Reduce mixing of intestinal content d. A and C
b. Delayed transfer to small intestine e. A and B
c. Change in epithelial transfer

199. A condition that may increase the time of gastric emptying

a. Depression c. lying on the left side

b. Stressful d. A and C

200. Which of the following statement is the least that could increase drug absorption?

a. Increase blood flow to the site of administration

b. Decrease particle size
c. Increase surface area dedicated to absorption
d. Increase lipid solubility
e. Decreased pH when the drug is a weak base

200. Which of the following statement is the least that could increase drug absorption?

d. Increased blood flow to the site of administration

e. Decreased particle size
f. Increased surface area dedicated to absorption
g. Increased lipid solubility
h. Decreased pH when the drug is a weak base

201. Factors affecting membrane transport include all except

d. pKa d. Presence or absence of a change

e. Diffusivity e. Surfactants
f. Partition coefficient

202. The transfer of most drugs across biologic membranes occurs by

d. Passive diffusion d. Pinocytosis

e. Active transport e. Ion-pair transport
f. Facilitated transport

203. Equation followed by passive diffusion

d. Noyes-whitney d. Henderson-Hasslebalch
e. Van Slyke e. NOTA
f. Fick’s law

204. In the diffusion controlled system, the initial rate of dissolution is directly proportional to
the

d. pKa d. Solubility of the drug in the dissolution medium

e. pH
f. Quantity of the free acid

205. All of the following statements about Fick’s law as it pertain to simple diffusion are true
except

d. The greater the concentration gradient, the greater the rate of absorption
e. The smaller the surface area the greater the drug flux
f. The greater the lipid-water partition coefficient, the greater the drug flux
g. Diffusion constant is directly proportional to the temperature
h. Diffusion constant is inversely related to the molecular size

206. The driving force for passive absorption of a drug is the

d. Specific carrier of proteins and shows saturation kinetics Pharmacokinetics

e. Concentration gradient across a membrane separating body compartment

f. Both
g. NOTA

207. The ratio of drug concentration in two phases separated by a semi-permeable

membrane fluid is called:

d. APC d. Elimination half-life

e. pKa e. AOTA
f. Concentration gradient

208. The rate of diffusion of drugs across biological membrane is:

a. Independent on the concentration gradient

b. Directly proportional to the concentration gradient

c. Dependent on the availability of carrier substrate

g. Dependent on the route of administration

209. The cell membrane is capable of forming vesicles which may engulf drug substances
outside the cell membrane to transport drug (via the engulfed drug) into the compartmen

d. Ion-pair d. Pinocytosis
e. Passive diffusion e. Active transport
f. Convective transport

210. A transport mechanism in which drugs moves from an area of high concentration to an
area of low concentration include except

d. Passive transport d. Facilitated diffusion

e. Active transport e. Ion-pair
f. Convective transport

211. Arrange the mechanism of absorption of drugs in order their importance

d. Active-passive-convective transport
e. Passive diffusion-convective-active transport
f. Convective-active-passive transport
g. Active-pinocytosis-passive

212. Sodium pump is special type of

d. Convective transport d. Ion-pair

e. Active transport
f. Passive transport

213. When active transport system becomes saturated, the rate process will be

d. Zero order d. Pseudo-first order

e. Pseudo-order
f. First order

214. The following are characteristics of active transport except

d. Against concentration gradient d. Requires expenditure of ATP

e. Follows saturation kinetics e. NOTA
f. Carrier mediated

215. A carrier mediated transport of absorption that does not proceed against a
concentration gradient includes:

d. Facilitated transport d. Ion-pair transport

e. Active transport e. NOTA
f. Active transport

216. The following are the characteristics of facilitated diffusion transport except

d. Against concentration gradient d. AOTA

e. Follows saturation kinetics e. NOTA
f. Carrier mediated

217. All phenomenon characteristics are associated with the process of facilitated diffusion
of drugs, except

d. The drug crosses the membrane against a concentration gradient

e. The process is selective for certain ionic or structural configuration of the drug

f. Competitive inhibition if two compounds are transported by the same mechanism

g. The transport mechanism becomes saturated at high drug

218. Facilitated transport is similar to active transport in a sense that it:

d. Is a carrier mediated
e. Utilizes ATP
f. Is against concentration gradient
g. Is moving from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration

219. Which of the following is a feature common to all carrier-mediated transport process?

a. Movement is along the concentration gradient d. Display a Michaelis-

Menten kinetics
b. Involve non-specific binding to carriers e. Non-energy requiring
c. Can be characterizes by allosteric inhibition

220. Formation of pairs (For highly ionized compounds) with endogenous substrate present
at the GIT to form a neural complexes that are absorbed by passive diffusion

d. Pinocytosis d. Facilitated transport

e. Convective transport
f. Ion-pair transport

221. Which of the following statement is/are Carrier-mediated transport systems

characteristic/s?

d. Consume energy d. AOTA

e. Are structure specific
f. May be adversely affected by certain chemicals

222. A type of transport where by drug molecules dissolved in aqueous medium at the
absorption site move along with the solvent through the pore.

d. Active transport d. Facilitated transport

e. Convective transport
f. Ion-pair

223. When considering drug transport, passive diffusion involves drug movement from area
of

d. High concentration to an area of higher concentration

e. High concentration to an area of lower concentration
f. Low concentration to an area of higher concentration
g. High concentration to an area of equally high concentration
h. No concentration to an area of higher concentration

224. Lipid/water partition coefficient permits

d. Convective transport c. Passive transport

e. Active transport d. Ion-pair transport

225. Which statement best describes bioavailability?

d. Relation between the physical and chemical properties of a drug and its systemic
absorption
e. Measurement if the rate and amount of therapeutically active drug that reaches the
systemic circulation
f. Movement of drug into the body tissue over period of time
g. Dissolution of the drug in the GIT E. amount of drug destroyed by the liver before
systemic absorption from the GIT occurs

226. The primary proof of a drug’s bioavailability is

d. Production of its pharmacologic effect d. Appearance of metabolites in

urine
e. Production of high blood levels e. Appearance of metabolites in
blood
f. Production of high urine levels
227. To determine the relative bioavailability of a drug given as an oral extended-release
tablet, the bioavailability of the drug must be compared to the bioavailability of the drug form

d. An immediate-release oral tablet containing the same amount of active ingredient

e. An oral solution of the drug in the same dose
f. A parenteral solution of the drug given by IV bolus or IV infusion
g. A reference drug that is bioequivalent
h. An immediate-release HGC containing the same amount of active drug and lactose

228. If the extent and rate of absorption is similar to the standard drug, it has achieved the

d. Bioequivalence of the drug d. a and b

e. Pharmaceutical equivalence
f. Pharmaceutical alternative

229. Possible approaches to measure the bioavailability:

d. Blood level data d. AOTA

e. Urinary excretion data
f. Clinical data

230. In all quantitative work for bioavailability, the concentration at the site of action and
pharmacologic response.

g. Blood/plasma d. a and b
h. Urine
i. Gastric fluid

231. The relation between the drug concentration at the site of action and pharmacologic
response

d. Pharmacokinetics d. none
e. Pharmacology
f. Pharmacodynamics

232. These conditions require immediate increase in the blood levels of the drug except:

d. Hypertensive attack d. none

e. Chronic asthma
f. Sudden increase in blood glucose
233. In vitro dissolution rate studies for drug products are useful for evaluating bioavailability
only if they can be correlated with

d. Disintegration rates
e. The chemical stability
f. In vivo studies in humans
g. In vivo studies in at least 3 species of animals
h. none

234. Drug products can be also evaluated by comparing curves of serum concentration vs.
time (blood level curve). The most important parameters that can be obtain from such
curves are

d. Peak concentration, biologic concentration, half life, elimination rate constant

e. Biologic half time, peak concentration, total AUC

f. Peak concentration, peak time, total AUC
g. Average serum concentration, AUC, absorption rate constant

235. Is the difference between the EMC and MTC

d. Minimum effective concentration

e. Minimum toxic concentration
f. Minimum inhibitory concentration
g. Therapeutic plasma concentration
h. none

236. Which of the following equations may be useful to find out the plasma concentration of
drug?

d. VD x DB = CP d. VD = CP/DB
e. DB x CP =VD
f. VD = DB/ CP

237. Clinical effectiveness often depends on

d. Maximum serum drug concentration

e. Minimum serum drug concentration
f. Time after the administration to reach the onset of concentration
g. AOTA
h. NOTA

238. The intensity of the pharmacologic action of a drug is most dependent on the
d. Concentration of the drug at the receptor site
e. t ½ of the drug
f. MTC of the drug in plasma
g. Onset time of the drug after oral administration
h. MEC of the drug in the body

239. Which of the following refers to the intensity of pharmacologic response?

d. Cmax d. AUC
e. Tmax
f. AUC

240. Cmax is the peak drug concentration in the

g. Plasma d. Bile
h. Urine
i. Muscle

241. The onset time for a drug given orally is the time for

a. Drug to reach the peak plasma drug concentration

b. Drug to reach the MEC
c. Drug to begin to be eliminated from the body
d. Drug to reach the MTC
e. Drug to begin to be absorbed from the small intestine

242. For drugs that are given at constant rate, the time to reach steady state concentration
is dependent on

d. I only d. II and III

e. I and III e. AOTA
f. I and II

243. The Biological half-life of a

d. Is a constant physical property of a drug

e. Is the time for one half of the therapeutic activity to be lost
f. Is a constant chemical property of the drug
g. Depends entirely on the route of administration

244. Which of the following is a half-life equation for first-order reaction?

d. t½= 0.0693/k d. t½= 1/ak
e. t½= 0.963/k e. t½= 0.693/k
f. t½= a/2k

245. In which kinetic reaction, the rate of reaction is dependent on concentration?

d. First order d. Second order

e. Zero order
f. Pseudo first order

246. Which equation is true for a zero-order reaction rate of a drug?

d. dA/dt= -k d. dC/dt= -kC

e. t½= 0.693/k e. C= -k0t + C0
f. A=A0e-kt

247. Refers to a change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic parameters during

absorption, distribution metabolism, and excretion by overloading of processes due to
increased dose sizes

d. Nonlinear kinetics d. both a and b

e. Linear kinetics e. both b and c
f. Saturation kinetics

248. Which equation is true for absorption rate constant of a drug?

d. kA= 0.693
t1/2 d. log C = -kt
e. kA= In C1diff – In C2diff 2.3
t2 – t1
f. kA= log v2 – log v2
t2 - t1

249. Tmax means

d. Time of great solubility of the drug d. AUC values

e. Peak height concentration
f. Time of peak concentration

250. This pharmacokinetic property is representative of the amount of a drug absorbed

d. t1/2 d. Kel
e. T90 e. VD
f. AUC

251. The integral of drug level over time from zero to infinity is

d. Biologic half-life d. Biopharmaceutics

e. Area under the curve
f. Bioavailability

252. Two different formulation of the same drug having equal areas under their respective
serum concentration time curve

d. Deliver the same total amount of drug to the body and are therefore bioavailability
e. Deliver the same total amount of drug to the body but are not necessarily bioavailability
f. Are bioequivalent by definition
g. Are bioequivalent if they meet USP standards

253. An entity which can be described by a definite volume and concentration of drug
contained in that volume

d. Compartment d. Blood stream

e. Serum level
f. receptor

254. Drug concentration in systemic circulation rises to a peak followed by steep fall

d. Open one compartment IV d. Open two compartment EV

e. Open one compartment EV
f. Open two compartment IV

255. In compartmental analysis of serum drug concentration versus time plots, which of the
following findings confirm a one compartment model of drug behavior?

d. An AUC above the extrapolated line that is less than 10% of the total AUC
e. An AUC above the extrapolated line that is less than 5% of the total AUC
f. Slope of the last 3 terminal points differing by more than 10% from the first 3 terminal
points
g. Slope of the last 3 terminal points differing by more than 20% from the first 3 terminal
points
h. Cmax that is above the line extrapolated from terminal points

256. If VD is 40 liters, the drug is confined in?

d. Intracellular fluid d. Whole body fluid
e. Circulatory system e. Deeper tissues
f. Extracellular fluid

257. The dose size used in initiating therapy so as to yield therapeutic concentration which
will result in clinical effectiveness include all the following except

d. I and II d. I, II and IV
e. III and IV e. AOTA
f. I and III

258. The term systemic circulation refers primarily to

d. Veins d. a and b
e. Arteries e. b and c
f. Hepatic portal Vein

259. The term oftenly used to described drug distribution and elimination

d. Elimination only d. Metabolism only

e. Disposition e. NOTA
f. Absorption

260. The principal place for exchange and interchange of biological fluid include

d. Heart d. Body fluids

e. Capillary network e. Lymphatic system
f. Lymphatic vessels

261. The whole body fluid in man comprises approximately

d. 10% of the body weight d. 20% of the total body weight

e. 60% of the total body weight e. 40% of the total body weight
f. 90% of the total body weight

262. Compartments of total body water include

d. Vascular fluid d. Intracellular fluid

e. Extracellular fluid e. AOTA
f. Salivary fluid

263. Test used for determination of plasma volume include

d. Thiosulfate d. Evans blue
e. VD of any nonelectrolyte dissolved in water e. Inulin
f. Bromsulpthalein

264. Test used for determination of whole body fluid include

d. Bromolein
e. VD of any nonelectrolyte dissolved in water
f. Bromsulfthalein
g. Evans Blue
h. Inulin

265. A chemical indicator used in determination of ECF whose action of this drug is
dependent on a colligative property include

d. Mannitol d. Thiosulfate
e. Evans blue e. inulin

131
f. l-albumin

266. The system concerned with the recirculation of the interstitial fluid to the bloodstream
and the maintenance of the consistency of the blodd

d. Lymphatic system d. Circulatory system

e. Respiratory system e. AOTA
f. Digestive system

267. Which of the following physiologic factor is the least influencing drug distribution?

e. Osmotic pressure
f. Particle size
g. Tissue perfusion
h. Diffusional barrier
i. NOTA

268. Maintenance of a steady state which characterized the internal environment of the
healthy organism

d. Steady state d. Maintenance dose

e. Depot phase e. Distribution equilibrium
f. Homeostasis
269. The most common entry of drug into the cell is through:

d. Infusion c. Active transport

e. Levigation d. Diffusion

270. Which of the following statement concerning hydrostatic pressure and absorptive
pressure is true?

d. Represents a pressure gradient between the arterial end of the capillaries entering the
tissue and the venous capillaries leaving the tissue

e. Responsible for the penetration of relatively ionized drugs

f. Allows small drug molecules to be filtered at the glomerulus
g. A and B only
h. AOTA

271. Drugs that are poorly lipid soluble. Polar, or extensively ionized at the pH of the blood
generally

a. Penetrate the CNS very slowly and may essentially be eliminated from the body before a
significant concentration in the CNS is reached
b. Achieved adequate CNS concentration only if given IV
c. Must be metabolized to a more polar form before they can gain access to the CNS
d. Can gain access to the CNS if other drugs are used to modify the blood pH

272. If drug A is more lipophilic than drug B, then

a. Drug A will be better distributed than drug B

b. Drug B will be better distributed than drug A
c. Drug A is an agonist
d. NOTA
e. Either A and B

273. Which of the following poorly perfuse organ or tissues is potential site of drug
accumulation of drugs that has been ingested?

a. Liver d. Lungs
b. Brain e. Blood
c. Bone

274. All the following statements are true concerning drug distribution except
a. Brain capillaries are not fenestrated
b. Hydrophobic drugs given IV would be transported rapidly to the brain
c. A hydrophilic IV drug would be distributed rapidly to the kidneys
d. Fetal placenta limit drug distribution more than the blood brain barrier
e. NOTA
275. To produce its characteristic pharmacologic action/s, a drug must always

a. Reach high blood levels

b. Be absorbed from the GIT
c. Achieve adequate concentration at its site/s of action
d. Be excreted unchanged in the urine
e. NOTA

276. Which if the following factors does not affect the protein binding of drug?

a. The availability of protein for binding

b. The presence of competing substance for protein binding
c. Binding affinity of protein to the drug
d. The concentration of a drug at its receptor site
e. NOTA

277. The extent of protein binding is determined in vitro by the following mechanism except

a. Ultracentrifugation d. electrophoresis
b. Dialysis e. NOTA
c. Endocytosis

278. The major plasma protein involved in the distribution of weak acids is

a. Albumin d. Gelatin
b. Glycoprotein e. Ceruloplamin
c. Glycine

279. Weak bases generally bind to

a. Plasma albumin d. Erythrocytes

b. Alpha 1-acid glycoprotein e. LDL
c. Plasma lipoprotein

280. Which of the following statements is not true about displacement of drug from plasma
protein binding sites?

a. Results is transient increased volume of distribution

b. Makes more free drug available for glomerular filtration
c. Displacement of a potent drug that is normally more than 95% bound may cause toxicity
d. Increases tissue levels of the drug
e. Generally has a smaller VD compared with drugs that are highly bound to plasma
proteins
281. All of the following may shorten the duration of drug effects except

a. Extensive plasma protein binding of the drug

b. Renal excretion of the drug
c. Redistribution of the drug
d. Metabolism of the drugs
e. NOTA

282. Which of the following drugs do not bind to plasma protein to any significant extent

a. Lithium d. Diazepam
b. Digoxin e. AOTA
c. Amitriptyline

283. When comparing a highly protein-bound drug to its less- or nonprotein-bound analog,
the higly protein-bound drug will be probably

a. Have a shorter biologic half-life

b. Have delayed elimination from the body
c. Have decreased pharmacological response
d. Are free drug

284. Consequence resulting from an increased plasma protein binding include all except

a. Increased toxicity as result of displacement

b. Shorten elimination half-life
c. Provides a depot upon chronic dosing
d. Remain inactive until free
e. NOTA

285. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Reduced binding to plasma protein by the drug molecule will decrease the therapeutic
effect of the drug
b. Saturation of binding produces linear pharmacokinetics
c. Only the unbound drug may be available for metabolism and excretion
d. Increase binding will increase free drug concentration

286. If sulfonamide has greater affinity to plasma protein than tolbutamide, what will be the
consequence of taking the 2 drugs concomitantly
a. Increase plasma concentration of tolbutamide
b. Sulfonamide will be displaced bu tolbutamide
c. Increase pharmacologic effect of sulfonamide
d. Increase distribution of sulfonamides
e. AOTA

287. What is the major mechanism of interaction between digoxin and quinidine as a result
of competitive inhibition?

a. Decreased binding of digoxin from plasma protein binding sites

b. Decreased hepatic metabolism of digoxin
c. Decreased renal clearance of digoxin
d. Increased binding of digoxin with ion transporters in the myocardium
e. Increased intestinal absorption of digoxin

288. A neonate is given drug A, a compound with a high affinity for plasma proteins, in a
dose that does not exceed the binding capacity of albumin, Later, a second drug B that
binds strongly to albumin is given in amounts that greatly exceed albumin’s binding capacity.
Which of the following sentences is most likely to be true?

a. The free plasma concentration of drug A is decreased

b. The relative free drug concentration of both compounds is unchanged
c. The concentration of drug A in tissues is likely to be increased
d. The concentration of drug B in tissues is likely to be increased
e. The free plasma concentration of drug B would likely be markedly increased if a drug A
were given second rather than first

289. The volume of distribution of a particular drug will be

a. Greater for drugs that concentrate in the tissues rather than in plasma
b. Greater for drugs that concentrate in the Plasma rather than in plasma
c. Independent of tissue concentration
d. Independent of plasma concentration
e. Approximately the same for all drugs in a given individual

290. The larger the volume of distribution

a. The more extensive the distribution

b. The higher the physiological significance
c. The slower the distribution
d. a and b only
e. AOTA
Problem Solving:
For numbers 291-293
A. A drug with an elimination half-life of 1 hour was given to a male patient (80 kg) by IV infusion
at a rate of 300 mg/hr. At 7 hours after infusion, the plasma drug concentration was 11 µg/mL.

291. What is the rate constant of elimination?

a. 0.093/hr d. 0.693 mcg/hr

b. 1/hr e. none
c. 0.693 mg/hr

292. Calculate the VD

a. 39 L d. 3.9 L
b. 39 mL e. none
c. 3,935 mL

293. Predict what body compartment the drug might occupy

a. ECF d. Deep tissue

b. ICF e. Circulatory system
c. Whole body fluids

For Numbers 294-296

B. Following the IV administration of a drug, a patient weighing 70 kg was found to have 70,000
mcg/mL of drug present in the blood. Assuming apparent volume of distribution is 10% of body
weight, elimination rate constant is 0.231/hr and following first-order kinetics.

294. Calculate the plasma concentration after 4 hours

a. 700 mg/mL d. 700 mvg/mL

b. 27.785 mg/mL e. none
c. 10 mcg/mL

295. What is the half-life?

a. 0.231/h d. 3 hours
b. 3 days e. none
c. 2.310/day

296. Assuming the drug is no longer effective when levels decline to less than 10,00 ug/mL.
When should you administer the next dose?
a. 6 hours d. 10 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours

297. Immediately after an IV dose of 5 mg, the apparent volume of distribution of

chlordiazepoxide has been determined to be 34 liters. Calculate the expected drug plasma
concentration of the drug in mcg/mL.

a. 0.1471 mg/L d. 0.1471 mg/mL

b. 0.1471 mcg/L e. none
c. 0.1471 mcg/mL

298. Phenobarbital if the drug is given to a 60 kg patient as a 65mg tablet once daily with
bioavailablity of 90%. The drug has a volume of distribution of 0.5L/kg body weight and a
half-life of 100 hrs. What is the concentration at steady state?

a. 13.027 mcg/L d. 13.027 mg/mL

b. 13.027 mg/mL e. none
c. 13.027 mcg/mL

299. Mr. Jones is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia due to gram-negative bacteria.
The antibiotic tobramycin is ordered. The ClT andVD of tobramycin in Mr. Jones are 80
mL/min and 40 L respectively. What maintenance dose should be administered IV every 6
hours to eventually obtain average steady-state plasma concentrations at 4mg/L?

a. 115.2 mg d. 115.2 mg.min

b. 115.2 mcg
c. 115.2 g

300. A new broad- spectrum antibiotic was administered by rapid in injection to a 50-kg
woman at a dose of 3mg/kg. The apparent volume of distribution was equivalent to 5% of
the body weight. The elimination half-life for this drug is 2 hours. If 90% the total amount of
unchanged drug was recovered in the urine, what is the renal excretion rate constant?

a. 0.312/hr d. 0.021/hr
b. 0.0021/hr e. none
c. 0.0312/hr
 Biopharmaceutics and Pharmacokinetics (VIOLET PACOP)

1. It is the ability of a drug to exist in two or more crystalline form:

A. Chirality
B. Polymorphism
C. Stereoisomerism
D. A and C
E. None of these
2. Arrange the following dosage forms from highest to lowest dissolution rate:
I. Solution III. Suspension
II. Capsule IV. Tablet
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, III, II, IV
C. IV, III, II, I
D. IV, II, III, I
E. None of these
3. All of the following statements aretrye regarding particle size of a drug, EXCEPT:
A. Reducing the particle size can decrease the surface are the molecule exposed to the solvent.
B. Reduction of paticle size can be achieved by micronisation using jet mill, spray drying and air attrition
methods.
C. The dissolution of some drugs available in the market has been improved by reducing the particle
size.
D. Reducing the particle size of a drug may increase drug absorption.
E. None of these
4. Which of the following may increase drug dissolution rate?
I. Too muh binder
II. Insoluble diluents
III. High amount of lubricants
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I, II, AND III
E. None of these
5. Which of the following is not true regarding the purpose of tablet coating?
A. Improves palatability
B. Improve aesthetic value of tablet
C. Improve stability
D. Improve in-vivo degradation
E. None of these
6. A surface active agent that facilitates the absorption of lipophilic drug or water insoluble drugs
A. Bile
B. Albumin
C. Renin
D. Gastric acid
E. None of these
7. Phase 2 metabolism that protects the body against chemically reactive metabolites
A. Sulfate conjugation
B. Glutathione conjugation
C. Methylation
D. Acetylation
E. Glycine conjugation
8. All of the following listed below are processes of drug excretion, EXCEPT:
A. Glomerular filtration
B. Active secretion
C. Tubular secretion
D. Tubular reabsorption
E. None of these
9. It is the basic functional unit of the kidney
A. Glomerulus
B. Loop of henle
 C. Nephron
D. Collecting tubule
E. None of these
10. Creatinine clearance of a patient with kidney failure
A. 60-89 mL
B. 30-59 mL
C. 15-29 mL
D. <15 mL
E. None of these
11. Which of the following drugs listed belowwill increase its clearance at alkaline urine?
I. Amphetamine
II. Imipramine
III. Barbiturates
IV. Salicylic acid
A. I and II C. III and IV E. None of these
B. II and III D. All of these
12. Which of the following correctly describes ion trapping
A. Changing the pH of urine used to facilitate the elimination of drug that proved to be toxic to a patient
or has been taken in overdosed amount
B. Administration of acidic drug to neutralize am alkaline poison in the stomach
C. Alkalinizing the urine to facilitate excretion of weakly basic drugs
D. A and C
E. None of these
13. Discipline that applie Pharmacokinetic concepts and principles in humans in order to design individualized
dosage regimens that optimize the therapeutic response of a medication while minimizing the chance of an
adverse drug reaction
A. Clinical toxicology
B. Clinical pharmacy
C. Clinical Pharmacokinetics
D. Pharmacotherapeutics
E. None of these
14. Chemical conversion of the drug molecule, usually by an enzymatically mediated reaction, into another
chemical entity referred to as a metabolite
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
E. None of these
15. Volume of serum or blood completely cleared of the drug per unit time
A. Volume of distribution
B. Clearance
C. Elimination
D. Plasma concentration
E. None of these
16. Hypothetical volume that relates drug serum concentrations to the amount of drug in the body
A. Volume of distribution
B. Clearance
C. Drug Elimination
D. Plasma concentration
E. None of these
17. All of the following factors affects the volume of distribution of drug, EXCEPT
A. Volume of blood
B. Size of various organs and tissue in the body
C. Protein binding
D. Physicochemical properties of drug
E. None of these
18. The fraction of administered dose that is delivered to the systemic circulation is known as the
A. Loading of dose
B. Maintenance dose
C. Bioavailability
 D. Active dose
E. None of these
19. Below is an example of
A. Dose response curve
B. Plasma level time curve
C. Quantal dose response curve
D. A and B
E. None of these
20. After the first dose of gentamicin is given to a patient with renal failure the following serum concentrations are
obtained
Time after drug administration(h) Concentration (mcg/mL)
1 7.7
24 5.6
48 4.0

A. 30 hours and 0.0123/hr

B. 45 hours and 0.0146/hr
C. 55 hours and 0.0129/hr
D. 50 hours and 0.0139/hr
E. None of these
21. All of the following are true regarding the rate of drug distribution, EXCEPT:
A. The rate of drug distribution will be faster in highly perfuse tissues
B. The blood brain barrier(BBB) prevents the distribution of many polar compounds in the blood to the
brain tissues
C. Only the lipophilic compounds can distribute across BBB by passive diffusion
D. The equilibrium between the drug in the blood and the drug in highly perfused tissues is achieved
slower than the equilibrium between the drug in blood and the poorly perfused tissues
E. Non of these
22. Which of the following factors affect drug distribution?
1. Blood perfusion
2. Tissue composition
3. Plasma protein binding
4 Physicochemical properties of drug
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
E. None of these
23. Technique in the determination of drug plasma protein binding that utilize a special dialysis chamber that is separated
into two halves by a semipermeable membrane that allows the transfer of the free drug molecule but not the drug bound
to protein.
A. Ultrafiltration D. A and B
B. Equilibrium dialysis E. None of these
C. Hemodialysis
24. Which of the following statements are true regarding volume of distribution (Vd) ?
A. Relates the amount of absorbed drug D. Drugs that are highly bound to plasma
with the amount of eliminated drug. proteins have low Vd
B. Total volume of the drug absorbed E. All of these
C. Drugs that are highly distributed
into the tissues have low Vd
25. For nos. 25-29:
A single IV bolus of drug was administered to a patient and the amount of drug in the body was determined at different
time points after drug administration:
Time (h) Amount (mg)
0.5 396
1 315
2 198
4 79
 8 12.4
12 1.96

What is the order of the elimination process of this drug?

A. Zero order kinetics C. Second order kinetic E. None of these
B. First order kinetics D. A or B
26. What is the rate constant for elimination process?
A. 0.5712/hr D. 0.4617/hr
B. 0.3789/hr E. 0.2341/hr
C. 0.6234/hr
27. What is the dose of drug administered to this patient?
A. 500 mg D. 100 mg
B. 300 mg E. 700 mg
C. 200 mg

28. Calculate the amount of drug in the body 10h after administration
A. 5.32 mg D. 3.22 mg
B. 3.45 mg E. 6.55 mg
C. 4.94 mg
29. What is the half-life of the drug immediately after drug administration?
A. 3 hrs D. 1.5 hrs
B. 5 hrs E. 3.5 hrs
C. 2.5 hrs
30. For nos. 30-31
The following are the pharmacokinetic parameters for a group of drugs
Drug Vd (L/Kg) Elimination rate constant (h-¹)
Theophylline 0.45 0.11
Ampicillin 0.3 0.6
Quinidine 3 0.08
Gentamicin 2 0.08
Digoxin 20 0.01
Which drug has the highest Cl?
A. Theophylline D. Gentamicin
B. Ampicillin E. Digoxin
C. Quinidine
31. Which drug has the lowest Cl?
A. Theophylline D. A and B
B. Ampicillin E. B and C
C. Quinidine
32. Elimination of a drug refers to:
I. Excretion of unchanged drug in the urine
II. Renal excretion of drug
III. Uptake of a drug from the blood into the liver
IV. Metabolism of drug in the liver
V. Distribution of drug into fat
A. I and II D. III and V
B. II and III E. None of these
C. II and IV
33. The loading dose of a drug is determined by:
I. Drug clearance
II. Elimination rate
III. Target plasma drug concentration
IV. Volume of distribution
V. Duration of drug effect
A. I and II C. III and IV E. All of these
B. II and III D. IV and V
34. Half-life:
I. Increases as the clearance increases
II. Decreases as the volume of distribution increases
III. Decreases as clearance increases
IV. Increases as volume of distribution increases
V. Increases as the elimination rate increases
A. I and II D. IV and V
B. II and III E. None of these
C. III and IV
35. After a single dose of a drug which has a half-life of 12 hours, what percentage of the dose is still in the body after 1
day?
A. 87.5% D. 25%
B. 75% E. 12.5%
C. 50%
36. Which of the following routes of administration completely avoid first pass clearance?
I. Buccal
II. Sublingual
III. Rectal
IV. Oral
V. Transdermal
A. I and II D. I, II and V
B. I, II and III E. III and V
C. I, II and IV
37. The term linear pharmacokinetic means:
I. A plot of drug concentration vs. time is linear
II. Half-life increases proportionally with dose
III. A constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time
IV. Clearance is proportional to the dose
V. Steady state drug concentration is proportional to the dose
A. I only D. II and IV
B. I and II E. V only
C. III only
38. Which of the following process are saturable and can result in non-linear pharmacokinetics?
I. Drug metabolism
II. Glomerular filtration
III. Protein binding
IV. Renal tubular secretion
A. I only D. I, III and IV
B. II, III and IV E. None of these
C. I, II, and IV
39. The study of the time course of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion is called:
A. Pharmacodynamics D. Kinetics Homogeneity
B. Drug concentration E. Biopharmaceutics
C. Pharmacokinetics
40. The application of pharmacokinetic principles to the safe and effective therapeutic management of drugs in and
individual patient is known as:
A. Pharmacodynamics D. Biopharmaceutics
B. Pharmacokinetics E. None of these
C. Clinical pharmacokinetics

41. Pharmacodynamics refers to the relationship of drug:

A. Dose to drug concentration in plasma D. Dose to drug effect
B. Dose to drug concentration at the E. None of these
receptor site
C. Concentration to drug effect
42. The EC50 refers to the drug concentration at which:
A. One-half the maximum response is achieved. D. Minimum effective concentration
B. The maximal effect is achieved. E. Minimum toxic concentration
C. Tolerance is likely to be observed.
43. An example of a situation that would not support therapeutic drug concentration monitoring with plasma drug
concentrations would be one in which:
A. A wide variation in plasma drug concentrations D. A and B
is achieved in different patients given a standar
drug dose.
B. The toxic plasma concentration is many E. B and C
times the therapeutic concentration range.
C. Correlation between a drug's plasma
concentration and therapeutic response
is good.
44. The most commonly used model in clinical pharmacokinetic situations is the:
A. One-compartment model D. A and C
B. Two-compartment model E. All of these
C. Multicompartment model
45. Instantaneous distribution to most body tissues and fluids is assumed in
which of the following models?
A. One-compartment model D. A and C
B. Two-compartment model E. All of these
C. Multicompartment model
46. For a drug that has first-order elimination and follows a one-compartment model,
which of the following plots would result in a curved line?
A. Plasma concentration versus time D. A and B
B. Natural log of plasma concentration E. B and C
versus time
C. Common log of plasma concentration
versus time
47. For the body fluid compartments below, rank them from the lowest volume to the highest, in a typical 70-kg person.
A. Plasma < extracellular fluid < intracellular D. Total body water < plasma <
fluid < total body water intracellular fluid < extracellular fluid
B. Extracellular fluid < intracellular fluid < E. None of these
plasma < total body water
C. Intracellular fluid < extracellular fluid <
plasma < total body water
48. All of the following are true regarding clearance, EXCEPT
I. The unit for clearance is volume/time
II. Total body clearance is the sum of clearance by the kidneys, liver,
and other routes of elimination
III. To determine drug clearance, we must first determine whether a drug
best fits one or two compartment model
A. I only D. III only
B. II only E. None of these
C. II and III
49. With a drug that follows first-order elimination, the amount of drug eliminated per unit time:
A. Remains constant while the fraction of drug D. B or C
eliminated decreases
B. Decreases while the fraction of drug E. None of these
eliminated remains constant.
C. Increases while the fraction of drug
eliminated remains constant.
50. Which of the following is a proper unit for 1st order elimination rate constant?
A. Minutes D. mg/L
B. mg/minute E. A and B
C. hr¹
51. Trapezoidal rule method is used in the computation of:
A. K D. Vd
B. T½ E. Cl
C. AUC
52. Which of the following are true regarding AUC?
I. Can be used to determine drug clearance
II. Reflects the amount of drug absorbed
III. Dose administered divided by the drug's clearance
A. I only D. All of these
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III
53. Gentamicin has a t½ of:
A. 39 hours C. 7 hours E. 2-3 hours
B. 22 hours D. 20 hours
54. The time between administration of doses is the:
A. Onset time D. tmax
B. Dosing range E. None of these
C. Dosing interval
55. The point at which the amount of drug administered over a dosing interval equals the amount of drug being eliminated
over that same period and is totally dependent on the elimination rate constant
A. Rate constant D. Absorption phase
B. Steady state E. None of these
C. Elimination
56. Steady-state concentration can be increase by adjusting which of the following parameters?
I. t½
II. Dose administered
III. Dosing interval
A. I only D. All of these
B. II only E. None of these
C. II and III
57. To predict the plasma concentration of a drug at any time t after n number of doses, we therefore need to know which
among the following values?
I. Drug dose
II. Volume of distribution
III. Elimination rate constant
IV. Dosing interval
A. I and II D. All of these
B. II and III E. None of these
C. III and IV

58. This method of giving multiple doses by infusion at specified intervals is called:
A. IV bolus D. A and B
B. Intermittent IV infusion E. None of these
C. Multiple infusion
59. For a drug regimen, if the elimination rate (K) of a drug is reduced while volume of distribution, drug dose, and dosing
interval remain constant, the peak and trough concentrations will:
A. increase D. A or B
B. decrease E. None of these
C. remains the same
60. Method used in toxicokinetics and for the extrapolation of therapeutic drug doses in humans from nonclinical animal
drug studies.
A. Interspecies scaling D. A and C
B. Toxicological extrapolation E. None of these
C. Linear analysis
61. A condition in which glomerular filtration is impaired or reduced, leading to accumulation of excessive fluid and blood
nitrogenous products in the body.
A. Cystitis D. Hypovolemia
B. Uremia E. None of these
C. Pancreatitis
62. Common cause of kidney failure, EXCEPT:
I. Pyelonephritis
II. Hypotension
III. Diabetes mellitus
IV. Nephroallergens
A. I only C. II only E. IV only
B. I and II D. III and IV
63. A fructose polysaccharide used as a standard reference for the measurement of GFR:
A. Chitosan D. Chitin
B. Inulin E. A and B
C. Cellulose
64.
A. Creatinine clearance D. Detection of uric acid in urine
B. Measurement of blood urea nitrogen E. None of these
C. Detectionof kidney stone
65. The normal blood urea nitrogen for a patient is:
A. 1-10 mg/dL D. 30-40 mg/dL
B. 10-20 mg/dL E. 40-50 mg/dL
C. 20-30 mg/dL
66. Which of the following are true regarding creatinine clearance?
I. Volume of plasma cleared of creatinine per unit time
II. Calculated directly by dividing rate of urinary excretion of creatinine by the
patient's serum creatinine concentration
III. Creatinine clearance is expressed in mL/min and serum creatinine
concentration in mg/dL or mg%
A. I only D. All of these
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III
67. Stage of kidney disease with creatinine clearance of 30-59 mL/min
A. Stage 1 D. Stage 4
B. Stage 2 E. Stage 5
C. Stage 3
68. Patients with mild decrease in glomerular filtration rate has a creatinine clearance of:
A. > 90 mL/min D. 15-29 mL/min
B. 60-89 mL/min E. < 15 mL/min
C. 30-59 mL/min
69. An artificial process in which the accumulation of drugs or waste metabolites is removed by diffusion from the body
into the specialized fluid
A. Dialysis D. A and C
B. Hemodiffusion E. None of these
C. Ultrafiltration
70. Uses a dialysis machine and filters blood through an artificial membrane. It requires access to the blood vessels to
allow the blood to flow to the dialysis machine and back to the body.
A. Hemodialysis D. Hemoperfusion
B. Peritoneal dialysis E. Hemofiltration
C. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis
71. The process of removing drug by passing the blood from the patient through an adsorbent material and back to the
patient:
A. Hemodialysis D. Hemoperfusion
B. Peritoneal dialysis E. Hemofiltration
C. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis
72. A process by which fluids, electrolytes, and small molecular weight substances are removed from the blood by means
of low pressure flow through hollow artificial fibers or flat plate membranes
A. Hemodialysis D. Hemoperfusion
B. Peritoneal dialysis E. Hemofiltration
C. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis

73. Which of the following are true regarding dosing consideration on patients with hepatic impairments?
I. All liver diseases affect the pharmacokinetics of the drugs to the same extent
II. Drug-protein binding may be altered due to attention in hepatic synthesis o
albumin.
III. Metabolism of drugs with high intrinsic clearance may be impaired.
IV. Drugs with a wide therapeutic range will be less affected by moderate hepatic
impairment.
A. I, II and III D. All of these
B. II, III and IV E. None of these
C. I, II and IV
74. Hepatic metabolic marker found in liver and many other tissues, including cardiac and skeletal muscles:
A. ALT D. SGPT
B. ALP E. A and D
C. AST
75. Hepatic metabolic marker that is only specific on liver:
A. ALT D. SGPT
B. ALP E. A and D
C. AST
76. Patients having liver disease have the following pharmacokinetic characteristics except:
A. Increase drug protein binding D. Increase Vd for hydrophilic drugs
B. Decreased drug metabolism E. None of these
C. Increase drug half-life
77. Pregnancy category wherein there is a positive evidence of risk in taking the drug but the benefit in taking the drug
outweighs the risk.
A. Category A D. Category D
B. Category B E. Category X
C. Category C
78. Pharmacokinetic behavior of geriatric patients:
I. Impaired absorption
II. Slow metabolism
III. Prolonged drug half-life
A. I only D. All of these
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III
79. All of the following are true regarding capacity limited excretion, EXCEPT:
A. Passive secretion and passive reabsorption D. A and B
are saturable processes
B. Saturated tubular secretion decreases ClR E. None of these
C. Saturated tubular reabsorption increases ClR
80. Example of a drug that exhibits saturable protein binding:
I. Nicardipine
II. Propranolol
III. Amoxicillin
A. I only D. All of these
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III
81. The following parameters listed below can be adjusted when designing a multiple dosage regimen except:
A. Size of dose administered D. All of these
B. Drug protein binding E. None of these
C. Dosing interval
82. The initial step in the elimination process via the kidney occurs in the:
A. Glomerulus D. Proximal tubule
B. Nephron E. None of these
C. Distal Tubule
83. The capacity of the body to eliminate the drug after it has reached the general circulation is reflected by the:
A. Total clearance D. AUC
B. Volume of distribution E. None of these
C. Biliary recycling
84. The process of drug metabolism and excretion constitute:
A. Deposition D. Biotransformation
B. Elimination E. Clearance
C. Accumulation
85. True about enzyme induction:
I. Low therapeutic levels of active drug (decrease drug efficacy)
II. Prodrug (decrease in efficacy)
III. Toxic metabolite (decrease in toxicity)
A. I only D. IV only
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III
86. Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are utilized in Phase I Metabolism?
I. CYP3A4
II. UDP glucuronosyl acyltransferase
III. N-acetyltransferase
A. I only C. II and III E. All of these
B. I and II D. I and III
87. Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are utilized in Phase II Metabolism?
I. CYP3A4
II. UDP glucuronosyl acyltransferase
III. N-acetyltransferase
A. I only C. II and III E. All of these
B. I and II D. I and III
88. A lipophilic medicinal agent has the following property:
A. Low ability to penetrate through the D. High reabsorption in renal tubules
cell membrane lipids
B. Penetrate through membranes by E. None of these
means of endocytosis
C. Low permeatation through the
blood-brain barrier
89. The plasma level time curve below follows what compartment model?
A. One compartment D. A or B
B. Two compartment E. None of these
C. Three compartment
90. Two compartment model:
I. Resolves the body into central and peripheral compartment
II. Peripheral compartment is composed of less perfused organs
muscle, fat and lungs.
III. The difference from one compartment model is that the drug
does achieve instantaneous distribution.

92. Drug Clearance:

I. A measure of drug elimination from the body
II. Drug clearance refers to the volume of plasma fluid that is cleared of drug per unit
III. Clearance may also be considered as the fraction of drug removed per unit time
multiplied by the rte constant
A. I only D. I and III
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III
93. Volume of distribution:
I. The theoretical volume that would be necessary to contain the total amount of an
administered drug at the same concentration that is observed in the plasma
II. Indicator of the extent of drug distribution into body fluids and tissues
III. Important in calculation of drug dose
A. I only D. I and III
B. I and II E. All of these
C. II and III
94. Determine the half-life of an antihypertensive drug if it appears to be eliminated from the body at a rate constant of
0.07/hr. Assume frist-order kinetics occurs.
A. 12 hours D. 4 hours
B. 9.9 hours E. 1.5 hours
C. 7 hours
95. The amount of drug A is decreasing at a rate that is proportional to the amount of drug A
A. Non-linear pharmacokinetics D. Enzyme kinetics
B. 1st order E. B or C
C. Zero order

96. Procedures employing test apparatus and equipment without involving laboratory animals or humans.
A. In-vivo D. Ex-vivo
B. In-silico E. All of these
C. In-vitro
97. Release of the drug substance from the drug product either for local drug action or for drug absorption into the plasma
for systemic therapeutic activity
A. Drug product performance D. Pharmacodynamics
B. Pharmacokinetics E. A and B
C. Biopharmaceutics
98. Biopharmaceutics examines the interrelationship of the following, EXCEPT:
I. Physical/chemical properties of the drug
II. The dosage form (drug product) in which the drug is given
III. Route of administration
IV. Rate and extent of systemic drug absorption.
A. I only D. IV only
B. II only E. None of these
C. II and III
99. Oral, topical, parenteral, transdermal, inhalation are examples of:
A. Dosage form D. A and B
B. Route of administration E. None of these
C. Therapeutic effect
100. Application of pharmacokinetic principles to the design, conduct and interpretation of drug safety evaluation studies
and in validating dose related exposure in animals.
A. Toxicokinetics D. Pharmacokinetics
B. Biopharmaceutics E. A and B
C. Pharmacodynamics
101. Include sampling blood, spinal fluid, synovial fluid, tissue biopsy, or any biologic material that requires parenteral or
surgical intervention in the patient.
A. In-vitro methods D. Ex-vivo methods
B. Invasive methods E. None of these
C. Non-invasive methods
102. Include sampling of urine, saliva, feces, expired air, or any biologic material that can be obtained without parenteral
or surgical intervention.
A. In-vitro methods D. Ex-vivo methods
B. Invasive methods E. None of these
C. Non-invasive methods
103. The noncellular liquid fraction of whole blood and contains all the proteins including albumin
A. Platelet D. Fibrin
B. Serum E. None of these
C. Plasma
104. Liquid obtained from whole blood after the blood is allowed to clot and the clot is removed. Does not contain the
cellulr elements, fibrinogen, or the other clotting factors from the blood.
A. Platelet D. Fibrin
B. Serum E. None of these
C. Plasma
105. Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve
A. tmax D. MEC
B. Therapeutic range E. MTC
C. Cmax
106. Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve
A. Cmax C. Onset time E. Therapeutic range
B. tmax D. AUC
107. Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve
A. Duration of action D. MTC
B. Onset time E. tmax
C. MEC
108. Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve
A. Duration of action D. MTC
B. Onset time E. tmax
C. MEC
109. Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve
A. Cmax D. MTC
B. tmax E. AUC
C. MEC
110. Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve
A. tmax D. Duration of action
B. Cmax E. MEC
C. Onset time
111. Indicate the part of a plasma level-time curve
A. tmax D. MTC
B. Cmax E. MEC
C. Onset time
112. Difference between the onset time and the time for the drug to decline back to the MEC.
A. Duration of action D. Cmax
B. Onset time E. MTC
C. AUC

113. Corresponds to the time required for the drug to reach the MEC
A. Duration of action D. Cmax
B. Onset time E. MTC
C. AUC
114. The plasma level time curve below portrays a drug that is administered in what route of administration?
A. IV bolus D. Intramuscular
B. Oral E. None of these
C. IV infusion
115. Presence of drug in this sample may reflect drug that has not been absorbed after an oral dose or may relfect drug
that has been expelled by biliary secretion after systemic absorption.
A. Feces D. Milk
B. Urine E. Sweat
C. Saliva
116. Which of the following are functions of pharmacokinetic models?
 I. Predict plasma, tissue, and urine drug levels with any dosage regimen
II. Calculate the optimum dosage regimen for each patient individually
III. Evaluate differences in the rate or extent of availability between formulations
A. I only D. All of these
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III
117. Unit for zero order rate constant:
A. Concentration/time D. Concentration x time
B. Drug/volume E. 1/time
C. Volume/time

118. Unit for clearance:

A. Concentration/time D. Concentration x time
B. Drug/volume E. 1/time
C. Volume/time
119. Unit for plasma drug concentration
A. Concentration/time D. Concentration x time
B. Drug/volume E. 1/time
C. Volume/time
120. Unit for area under the curve
A. Concentration/time D. Concentration x time
B. Drug/volume E. 1/time
C. Volume/time
121. Unit for 1st order rate constant:
A. Concentration/time D. Concentration x time
B. Drug/volume E. 1/time
C. Volume/time
122. All of the following are included in the peripheral compartment/tissue compartment, EXCEPT:
I. Fat
II. Muscle
III. Cerebrospinal fluid
IV. Plasma
A. I and II D. IV only
B. II only E. None of these
C. III and IV

123. The curve that represents the initial, more rapid decline of drug from the central compartment into the tissue
compartment as seen in the plasma level time curve below is:
A. Absorption phase D. Metabolism phase
B. Distribution phase E. Elimination phase
C. Excretion phase
124. The pharmacokinetics of a drug given by constant IV infusion follows what input process?
A. Zero order D. A or B
B. 1st order E. None of these
C. 2nd order
125. Constant IV drug infusion are considered to have zero order drug absorption because of the direct input. Once the
drug is infused, most of the drug is eliminated by first order elimination.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct D. Both statement is correct
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct E. Cannot determine the validity
C. Both statement is incorrect
126. Drug elimination is usually divided into two major components: excretion and biotransformation. Drug excretion is the
removal of the interact drug.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct D. Both statement is correct
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct E. Cannot determine the validity
C. Both statement is incorrect
127. Nonvolatile and polar drugs are excreted mainly by renal excretion. Volatile drugs, such as gaseous anesthetics,
alcohol or drugs with hig volatility, are excreted via the lungs into expired air.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct D. Both statement is correct
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct E. Cannot determine the validity
C. Both statement is incorrect
128. Biotransformation is the process by which the drug is chemically converted in the body to a metabolite. Other name
for drug biotransformation is drug elimination.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct D. Both statement is correct
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct E. Cannot determine the validity
C. Both statement is incorrect
129. The two major drug eliminating organs in the body:
I. Heart
II. Lungs
III. Liver
IV. Kidney
A. I and II D. I and IV
B. II and III E. I and III
C. III and IV
130. Major route of elimination for many drugs:
A. Renal excretion D. B and C
B. Biliary excretion E. None of these
C. Fecal excretion
131. The processes by which a drug is excreted via the kidneys may include any combination of the following listed below,
EXCEPT:
I. Glomerular filtration
II. Active tubular secretion
III. Passive secretion
IV. Tubular reabsorption
A. I only D. II and III
B. I and II E. III only
C. II only
132. Unidirectional drug excretion process that occurs for most small molecules (MW < 500), including nonionized and
ionized drugs.
A. Glomerular filtration D. Enterohepatic recycling
B. Active tubular secretion E. None of these
C. Tubular reabsorption
133. A carrier mediated system that requires energy input, because the drug is transported against a concentration
gradient.
A. Glomerular filtration D. Enterohepatic recycling
B. Active tubular secretion E. None of these
C. Tubular reabsorption
134. Occurs after the drug is filtered through the glomerulus and can be an active or passive involving transporting back of
the drug into the plasma:
A. Glomerular filtration D. Enterohepatic recycling
B. Active tubular secretion E. None of these
C. Tubular reabsorption
135. All of the following listed below are characteristics of active tubular secretion process, EXCEPT:
I. Carrier mediated system that requires energy input
II. Drugs with similar structures may compete for the same carrier system
III. It can be a passive process
A. I only D. III only
B. I and II E. None of these
C. II and III
136. Active tubular secretion happens in this part of kidney:
A. Glomerulus D. Collecting Duct
B. Proximal tubule E. None of these
C. Distal tubule
137. Tubular reabsorption happens in this part of kidney:
A. Glomerulus D. Collecting Duct
B. Proximal tubule E. None of these
C. Distal tubule
138. Which renal elimination processes are influenced by protein binding?
A. Glomerular filtration D. Enterohepatic recycling
B. Active tubular secretion E. None of these
C. Tubular reabsorption
139. Which renal elimination processes are influenced by urinary pH?
A. Glomerular filtration D. Enterohepatic recycling
B. Active tubular secretion E. None of these
C. Tubular reabsorption
140. Which renal elimination processes are influenced by competitive inhibitors?
A. Glomerular filtration D. Enterohepatic recycling
B. Active tubular secretion E. None of these
C. Tubular reabsorption
141. For nos. 141-145
JPT is a 35-year-old male weighing 80 kg. The patient is to be given multiple IV bolus injections of an antibiotic
every 6hours. This effective concentration of this drug is 16 mcg/mL. After the patient is given a single IV dose, the
elimination half-life for the drug is determined to be 3.0 hr and the apparent VD is 196 mL/kg.
Determine a multiple IV dose regimen for this drug.
A. 255 mg every 6 hours D. 348 mg every 6 hours
B. 360 mg every 6 hours E. 445 mg every 6 hours
C. 362 mg every 6 hours
142. Assume that the antiboitic is 90% bioavailable and that the physician would like to continue oral medication every 6
hours. Determine the multiple oral dose regimen:
A. 386 mg every 6 hours C. 198 mg every 6 hours E. 401 mg every 6 hours
B. 252 mg every 6 hours D. 333 mg every 6 hours
144. What is the new drug plasma concentration if the patient takes a 500-mg dose every 6 hours?
A. 20.71 mcg/mL D. 21.12 mcg/mL
B. 19.2 mcg/mL E. 15.98 mcg/mL
C. 18.19 mcg/mL
145. What is the drug plasma concentration if a patient follows a dosage regimen of 500 mg tablet every 8 hiurs?
A. 16.12 mcg/mL D. 15.53 mcg/mL
B. 14.4 mcg/mL E. 18.11 mcg/mL
C. 25.39 mcg/mL
146. The purpose of giving a loading dose is to achieve desired plasma concentrations as quickly as possible. For a drug
with long elimination half-life, it may take a long time to achieve steady state levels.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct D. Both statement is correct
B. Only the 2nd statement is correct E. Cannot determine the validity
C. Both statement is incorrect
147. When several doses are administered for a drug with linear kinetics, drug accumulation may occur according to the
principle of superposition. The principle of superposition is used to examine the effect of an early, late, or missing dose on
steady state drug concentration.
A. Only the 1st statement is correct D. Both statement is correct
nd
B. Only the 2 statement is correct E. Cannot determine the validity
C. Both statement is incorrect
148. The physician wants the patient to take medication every 6 hours. What dose of theophylline would you recommend
(assume theophylline is 100% bioavailable)?
A. 289 mg D. 256 mg
B. 343 mg E. 450 mg
C. 315 mg

149. If you were to find that theophylline is available in 225mg capsules only, what dosage regimen would you
recommend?
A. 225 mg every 3 hours D. 225 mg every 6 hours
B. 225 mg every 4 hours E. 225 mg every 7 hours
C. 225 mg every 5 hours
150. Example of a drugs that undergo nonlinear pharmacokinetics thru saturable plasma protein binding:
I. Phenylbutazone
II. Warfarin
III. Levodopa
IV. Riboflavin
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. III and IV
E. IV only
151. Example of a drugs that undergo nonlinear pharmacokinetics thru saturable transport in GUT wall:
I. Phenylbutazone
II. Warfarin
III. Levodopa
IV. Riboflavin
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. III and IV
E. IV only
152. Drugs that demonstrate saturation kinetics usually shiw which of the following characteristics?
I. Elimination of drug does not follow simple first order kinetics
II. Elimination kinetics are linear
III. The area under the curve is not proportional to tge amount
IV. The elimination of half-life does not change as dose is increased.
A. I only D. II and III
B. I and III E. I and IV
C. II and III
153. Refers to a noncyclical change in the drug absorption or drug eliminationrate process over a period of time.
A. Chronopharmacokinetics D. Linear pharmacokinetics
B. Time-dependent pharmacokinetics E. A or B
C. Product inhibition
154. For a 70 kg male patient, the approximate volume of extracellular water is:
A. 27 L D. 5 L
B. 15 L E. 1 L
C. 12 L
155. For a 70 kg male patient, the approximate volume of intracellular water is:
A. 27 L D. 5 L
B. 15 L E. 1 L
C. 12 L
156. Represents the pressure gradient between the arterial end of the capillaries entering the tissue and the venous
capillaries leaving the tissue.
A. Osmotic pressure D. Arterial pressure
B. Concentration gradient E. Venous pressure
C. Hydrostatic pressure
157. Which of the following human tissues receives the highest blood flow?
A. Kidney D. Fat
B. Heart E. Muscle
C. Brain
158. Which of the following human tissues receives the least blood flow?
A. Kidney D. Fat
B. Heart E. Muscle
C. Brain
159. Physical property thay measures the ratio of the solubitity of the drug in the oil phase to solubility in aqueous phase
A. Osmotuc gradient D. Absorption coefficient
B. Partition coefficient E. Diffusion coefficient
C. Solubility gradient
160. The volume of blood that perfuses the liver which is cleared of drug per unit of time
A. Cardiac output D. Renal clearance
B. Regional blood flow E. Body clearance
C. Hepatic clearance
161. The total body clearance for a drug is 15 mL/min/kg. Renal clearance accounts for 10 mL/min/kg. What is the hepatic
clearance for the drug?
A. 15 mL/min/kg D. 3 mL/min/kg
B. 10 mL/min/kg E. 1 mL/min/kg
C. 5 mL/min/kg
162. Acetaminophen is converted to a reactive metabolite which causes hepatic necrosis thru what biotransformation
reaction?
A. Demethylation D. Deamination
B. Acetylation E. Conjugation
C. Aromatic hydroxylation
163. Codeine is converted to morphine thru what biotransformation reaction?
A. Demethylation D. Deamination
B. Acetylation E. Conjugation
C. Aromatic hydroxylation
164. These drugs are inactive and must be biotransformed in the body to metabolites that have pharmacologic activity:
A. Enteric coated drugs D. Xenobiotics
B. Prodrugs E. Lead drug
C. Orphan drug

165. Which of the following is under phasa I biotransformation reaction?

I. Aormatic hydroxylation
II. Deamination
III. Nitroreduction
IV. Glycine conjugation
V. Methylation
A. I, II, III D. III, V
B. I, II, IV E. IV, V
C. II, III, IV
166. Which of the following is under phasa II biotransformation reaction?
I. Aormatic hydroxylation
II. Deamination
III. Nitroreduction
IV. Glycine conjugation
V. Methylation
A. I, II, III C. II, III, IV E. IV, V
B. I, II, IV D. III, V
167. CYP450 enzyme responsible for metabolism of warfarin, phenytoin and losartan:
A. CYP2C9 D. CYP3A4
B. CYP2D6 E. CYP1A2
C. CYP2C19
168. Which of the following CYP450 enzyme is prone to genetic polymorphism?
I. CYP2C9
 II. CYP2D6
III.CYP2C19
IV.CYP3A4
A. I only D. I, II, III
B. I, II E. IV only
C. II, III
169. The most highly polymorphic CYP with more than 70 allelic variants reported
A. CYP2C9 D. CYP3A4
B. CYP2D6 E. CYP1A2
C. CYP2C19
170. The most abundant CYP450 in the liver and metabolizes over 50% of the clinically used drugs:
A. CYP2C9 D. CYP3A4
B. CYP2D6 E. CYP1A2
C. CYP2C19
171. Responsible for the metabolism of about 5% of marketed drugs including fluvoxamine, clozapine, olanzapine and
theophylline:
A. CYP2C9 D. CYP3A4
B. CYP2D6 E. CYP1A2
C. CYP2C19
172. Polymorphisms of this phase 1 enzyme result in a loss of enzymatic activity leading to the accumulation of the
chemotherapeutic agent 5-flourouracil, which leads to significant toxicity including leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and
stomatitis.
A. CYP450 D. Glutathione transferase
B. Plasma pseudocholinesterase E. N-acetyl transferase
C. Dihydropyrimidine
173. The metabolism of procainamide, hydralazine and isoniazid is dependent on this phase II enzyme:
A. Uridine Diphosphate D. N-acetyltransferase
B. Thiopurine S-methyltransferase E. CYP450 enzyme
C. Glutathione transferase
176. Genome wide analysis of the genetic determinants of drug effucacy and toxicity:
A. Pharmacogenomic test D. Pharmacogenetics
B. Pharmacogenomics E. Pharmacogenetic test
C. Polymorphism test

177. The systemic absorption of drug is dependent on the following factors, EXCEPT:
A. The physicochemical properties of drug D. Drug liberation from the dosage form
B. The nature of the drug product E. Distribution of drugs to target tissues/organ
C. The anatomy and physiology of the drug
absorption site
178. Which of the following is not an advantage of parenteral route of administration?
I. Drug is given for immediate effect
II. Plasma drug level more precisely controlled
III. Decrease chance for adverse drug reaction
IV. Prevents tissue damage at the site of injection
A. I and II C. III and IV E. IV only
B. II and III D. I and III
179. Which of the following is not an advantage of enteral route of administration?
I. No 1st pass effectfor buccal or sublingual route
II. Safest and easiest route of administration
III. Rectal route is useful for patient who cannot swallow
IV. Complete drug absorption
A. I and II D. I and III
B. II and III E. IV only
C. III and IV
180. This age group is the most medicated group of patients and receive the highest proportion of medications:
A. 15-24 yrs D. 45-65
B. 25-35 yrs E. >/= 65 yrs
C. 35-45 yrs
181. All of the following is/are drug absorption characteristics for older adults, EXCEPT:
I. Increased gastric pH
II. Delayed gastric emptying
III. Decreased absorption surface
IV. Increased gastrointestinal motility
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. III and IV
E. IV only
182. Which of the following is/are true regarding transdermal drug absorption?
I. Not advisable for older patients
II. There is significant difference in absorption of drugs between young and old individuals
III. Applicable for highly lipophilic chemicals
IV. Fentanyl is an example of drug administered thru transdermal route
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. III and IV
E. IV only
183. Which of the following are/is true regarding subcutaneous drug absorption?
I. Drug absorption is through the vascular capillaries and lymphatic channels
II. Molecular size of the drug primarily determines the passage across the capillary endothelium
III. Subcutaneous absorption of drugs is not affected by aging
IV. Most common route of administration for therapeutic peptides a d proteins
A. I only
B. I, II and III
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III, na d IV
E. IV only

184. All of the following are true regarding pulmonary drug absorption characteristic, EXCEPT:
A. Age is an important parameter that affects the pharmacokinetics of inhaled drugs
B. Lung anatomy and physiology change with age which can effect pulmonary drug absorption
C. Young adults show a decrease of the alveolar surface a variation of lung elasticity and a decrease of the alveolar
capillary volume
D. There has been very little research for the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamics characteristics of new inhaled
drugs in older patients
E. Decrements in cognition praxis and executive function that are highly prevalent in frail older individuals have a
profoundly detrimental effect on inhaler technique

185. Which of the following are the two major factors of aging on drug distribution?
A. Route of administration and GI motility
B. 1st pass metabolism and drug clearance
C. Tissue fluidpH and urine pH
D. Gastric emptying and intestinal metabolism
E. Plasma protein concentration and body composition

186. Which of the following are the two major drug binding proteins in plasma?
A. Albumin and alpha1 acid glycoprotein
B. Nucleoprotein and albumin
C. Glycoprotein and lipoprotein
D. Enzymes and bile
E. Albumin amd lipoprotein

187. Combination of clarithromycin and warfarin may result to:

A. Decreased warfarin exposure and decreased anticoagulant effect
B. Decreased clarithromycin exposure and decreased antibacterial effect
C. Risk increased warfarin exposure and increased anticoagulant effect
D. Increased clarithromycin exposure and increased antibacterial effect
E. Increased toxicity of clarithromycin and warfarin

188. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice related to aging?
A. Increased extracellular fluid volume
B. Increased hepatic blood flow
C. Increased amount of sleep required
D. Increased subcutaneous fat as a percentage of total body mass
E. Increased size of alveolar ducts in the lung

189. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice to describe age associated changes that can affect
pharmacokinetics in older patients?
A. Changes in gastrointestinal function that lead to reduced drug absorption
B. Increase in total body water
C. Decrease in body fat
D. Decrease in serum albumin concentrations with advancing age
E. Decrease in creatinine clearance with advancing age

190. Which of the following statement regarding renal function and Pharmacokinetics in older patients is most accurate?
A. Decreased muscle mass is the reason for normal or low serum creatinine concentration in older patients even in the
presence of decreased renal function
B. Renal tubular secretion is not changed with aging
C. Serum creatinine concentration of 1.5mg/dL reflects normal renal function in older men
D. Glomerular function always declines with aging
E. Gentamicin an be used safely in older patients with serum creatinine concentrations of 1.7mg/dL

191. Which of the following statements concerning the safety of medications used by older patients is wrong?
A. Chlorpropamide can cause hypoglycemia
B. Benzodiazepines have large volume of distribution and are thus relatively safe for use in older people
C. Amantadine excretion depends on renal function and may cause confusion and falls if the dose is not adjusted for renal
impairment
D. Diphenhydramine may exacerbate urinary retention of older men
E. Meperidine is not an effective oral analgesic in dosages commonly used and may cause naurotoxicity

192. BMI (kg/m2) of an obese patient

A. <18.5
B. 18.5 – 24.9
C. 25 – 29.9
D. 30 - 39.9

193. BMI (kg/m2) of an individual with a normal body weight

A. <18.5
B. 18.5 – 24.9
C. 25 – 29.9
D. 30 - 39.9

194. All of the following statements are true regarding obesity, EXCEPT
A. Defined as body mass index (BMI) of 30 or higher and already has recognized as a “disease”
B. Obesity related chronic conditions includes diabetes, hypertension, high cholesterol, stroke, heart disease certain
cancers and arthritis
C. Obesity was associated with significantly increased mortality from cardiovascular diseases and obesity related cancers
D. Clinically a patient may be considered obese when the total body weight (TBW) is equal to or greater than 20% of ideal
body weight (IBW)
E. Individuals with obesity also have significantly higher health related quality of life scores than those individuals with
normal weights

195. Which of the following factors listed below influence drug distribution in the body?
I. 1st pass metabolism
II. Tissue perfusion
III. Tissue membrane permeability
IV. Physicochemical property of drug
A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. I, III and IV
E. I and IV

196. All of the following are drug distribution characteristic for obese patient EXCEPT:
A. The obese individuals have an increased total tissue mass and adipose tissue mass thereby increasing volume of
distribution
B. Lipophilicity plays a major role in the drug distribution in obese individuals
C. In the obese patients, lipophilic medications show a high increased volume of distribution
D. The concentrations of plasma binding proteins, albumin, alpha 1 acid glycoprotein, and lipoprotein may be unchanged
(albumin) increased or decreased (alpha 1 acid glycoprotein) with obesity
E. Hydrophilic medications showed a high increased in volume of distribution in obese individuals

197. Which of the following ais true regarding pharmacokinetic characteristics of obese individuals?
I. For phase 1 metabolism CYP 3A4 activity was consistently higher in the obese group
II. Renal clearance is increased in the obese patients due to increased glomerular filtration and tubular secretion
III. Enzyme activities of CYP 2E1 and xanthine oxidase were consistently higher in the obese group
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
E. III only

198 For nos. 198 – 199

Anjellie, a 45 year old female was admitted to the hospital with chief complaints of shortness of breath, wheezing, chills,
and fever. Past medical history included hypertension arthritis and asthma. The patients weight and height were 300lb and
5’4 respectively:
Which of the following is correct for this patients body mass index (BMI)?
A. 35
B. 39.3
C. 60.9
D. 54.2
E. 51.6

199. If this patient has a serum creatinine of 1.0mg/dL calculate her estimated creatinine clearance in mL/min using
adjusted body weight in the Cockcroft gault equation
A. 115.3
B. 98
C. 61.3
D. 152.9
E. 120

200. Which of the following CYP450 isoenzymes showed a reduced activity in the obese patients?
A. CYP3A4
B. CYP2E1
C. CYP2C9
D. CYP2D6
E. Xanthine oxidase

201. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects the physiological changes commonly occurred with
obesity?
A. Glomerular filtration is usually increased in the obese patients
B. Tubular reabsorption is usually increased in the obese patients
C. Tubular secretion is usually decreased in the obese patients
D. The activity of uridine diphosphate glucoronosyltranferase is usually decreased in the obese patients
E. The size of the kidney is usually smaller in the obese patients

202. Which of the following statements most accurately reflects an appropriate drug dosing strategy for the obese
patients?
A. The TBW should always be used to calculate the Loading dose for the obese patients
B. The IBW should always be used to calculate the loading dose for the obese patients
C. The TBW should always be used to calculate the maintenance dose for the obese patients
D. The IBW should always be used to calculate the maintenance dose for the obese patients
E. Applying the pharmacokinetic principles and using modified weight strategies combining with therapeutic drug
monitoring

203. Which of the following are range is classified as infant?

A. Born at gestational age <38 weeks
B. 0-4 weeks postnatal age
C. 1 month to 2 years of age (1 month to <12 months old)
D. 2-12 years of age (1-12 years old)
E. 12-21 years of age (13-16, 18 or 19 years old)

204. Which of the following age range is classified as child?

A. Born at gestational age <38 weeks
B. 0-4 weeks postnatal age
C. 1 month to 2 years of age (1 month to <12 months old)
D. 2-12 years of age (1-12 years old)
E. 12-21 years of age (13-16, 18 or 19 years old)
205. Calculation of chid dose using Young’s rule is based on
A. Age
B. Weight
C. BSA
D. BMI
E. Dosage

206. Calculation of child dose using Clark’s rule is based on

A. Age
B. Weight
C. BSA
D. BMI
E. Dosage
207. All of the following are drug absorption characteristic of pediatric patients EXCEPT
A. In neonates, the Gastric pH is >4 and gastric emptying and intestinal transit are faster
B. In infants, the pH is 2-4 with increasing emptying and transit time but biliary function is near the adult pattern
C. Low gastric pH in neonates and infants result in higher Bioavailability (F) of acid labile drugs such as penicillin G,
ampicillin, and nafcillin
D. The fast GI transit reduces the rate and extent of absorption in neonates, infants and young children
E. The neonates are difficult to absorb fat soluble vitamins compared to infants and children due to the immature biliary
function

208. All of the following are drug distribution characteristic of pediatric patients EXCEPT
A. Changes in plasma protein concentration total body fat as well as total body water and extracellular water are the three
major factors exerting significant effects on drug distribution in pediatric population
B. The total body water is low in pediatric patients resulting to increase volume of distribution of hydrophilic drugs
C. The protein concentration are low in the neonates and infants up to one year old resulting to a high concentration of
unbound drug
D. In neonates and young infants phenytoin has a higher unbound fraction of the drug in circulation to exert activity
E. The age dependent Vd of lipophilic drugs is less apparent on pediatric population

209. Defined as those drugs where comparatively small differences in dose or concentration lead to dose and
concentration dependent, serious therapeutic failures and/or serious adverse drug reactions
A. Critical dose drugs
B. Narrow therapeutic index [NT] drugs
C. Prohibited and restricted drugs
D. A or B
E. A or C

210. Which of the following are functions of therapeutic drug monitoring services?
I. Design dosage regimen
II. Perform pharmacokinetic evaluation of drug concentrations
III. Monitor serum drug concentrations
IV. Compounding of intravenously administered drugs
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. II, III and IV
E. I, II and IV

211. The degree of reproducibility of the test results obtained by the analysis of the same samples by different analytical
laboratories or by different instruments
A. Precision
B. Sensitivity
C. Accuracy
D. Ruggedness
E. Specificity
212. The minimum detectable level or concentration of drug in serum that maybe approximated as the lowest drug
concentration that is two to three times the background noise:
A. Dynamic range
B. Sensitivity
C. Accuracy
D. Ruggedness
E. Linearity

213. Measurement of the variability or reproducibility of the data. Measurements are obtained by replication of various
drug concentrations and by replication of standard concentration curves prepared separately on different days
A. Precision
B. Sensitivity
C. Accuracy
D. Ruggedness
E. Specificity

214. Refers to the difference between the average assay values and the true or known drug concentrations
A. Precision
B. Sensitivity
C. Accuracy
D. Ruggedness
E. Specificity

215. Pharmaceutical product that delivers a recombinant gene to somatic cells in vivo
A. Monoclonal antibody
B. Gene therapy
C. Antisense drugs
D. RNAi
E. Biopharmaceuticals

216. Drugs that seek to block DNA transcription or RNA translation in order to moderate many disease processes
A. Monoclonal antibody
B. Gene therapy
C. Antisense drugs
D. RNAi
E. Biopharmaceuticals

217. Which of the following is not a requirement for effective oral drug delivery of protein and peptide drug?
A. Protection of the drug from degradation while in the harsh environment of the digestive tract
B. Consistent absorption of the drug in a manner that meets Bioavailability requirements
C. Consistent release of the drug so that it enters the bloodstream in a reproducible manner
D. Delivery of the drug through the GI tract or other organ and maintenance of pharmacologic effect similar to IV injection
E. None of these

218. What is the most frequent route of administration of biologic compounds?

A. Parenteral
B. Oral
C. Buccal
D. Sublingual
E. Rectal

219. A dosage form that allows at lead a two fold reduction in dosage frequency as compared to that drug presented as
an immediate release (conventional) dosage form:
A. Extended release drug products
B. Delayed release drug products
C. Targeted release drug products
D. Orally disintegrating tablets
E. Enteric coated tablets
220. Developed to disintegrate rapidly in the saliva after oral administration. The drug is dispersed in saliva and swallowed
with little or no water.
A. Extended release drug products
B. Delayed release drug products
C. Targeted release drug products
D. Orally disintegrating tablets
E. Enteric coated tablets

221. Dosage form that releases drug at or near the intended physiologic site of action:
A. Extended release drug products
B. Delayed release drug products
C. Targeted release drug products
D. Orally disintegrating tablets
E. Enteric coated tablets

222. Designed to release a drug at a predetermined rate for the constant drug concentration maintaining during a specific
period of time. The drug may release its medication properties over a controlled mode within a certain period where the
drug is released bit by bit in the body.
A. Extended release drug products
B. Delayed release drug products
C. Targeted release drug products
D. Orally disintegrating tablets
E. Enteric coated tablets

223. Drug product designed to produce an instant effect where once administered the effects took place immediately and
its extended effect would be often happened at an hourly basis. When the drug concentration goes down, this drug
product may have the capability to maintain the effectiveness by the formulation itself
A. Extended release drug products
B. Delayed release drug products
C. Targeted release drug products
D. Orally disintegrating tablets
E. Enteric coated tablets

224. Type of modified release drug product that is designed to release one dose of drug initially followed by a second or
more doses of drug at a later time
A. Extended release drug products
B. Delayed release drug products
C. Targeted release drug products
D. Orally disintegrating tablets
E. Enteric coated tablets

225. All of the following are advantage of extended release drug product EXCEPT
I. Sustained therapeutic blood levels of the drug
II. Improved patient compliance
III. Reduction in adverse side effects and improvement in tolerability
IV. Dose dumping
V. Less possibility for high dose
A. I and II
B. II nad III
C. III and IV
D. IV and V
E. I and V

226. Defined either as the release of more than the intended fraction of drug or as the release of drug at a greater rate
than the customary amount of drug per dosage interval such that potentially adverse plasma levels may be reached
A. Drug accumulation
B. Dose dumping
C. Prolonged drug release
D. Over-extended release
E. A or B
227. Extended release tablets foe treatment of angina and hypertension
A. Acutrim
B. Minipress XL
C. Procardia XL
D. Adalat CR
E. Volmax

228. Extended release tablets for the relief of bronchospasm in patients with reversible obstructive airway disease
A. DynaCirc CR
B. Minipress XL
C. Procardia XL
D. Adalat CR
E. Volmax

229. Extended release tablets indicated as an adjunct to diet for the control of hyperglycemia in patients with non insulin
dependent diabetes
A. Glucotrol XL
B. Covera HS
C. Procardia XL
D. Adalat CR
E. Efidac 24

230. Systemic, scientific, risk based, holistic, and proactive approach to pharmaceutical development that begins with
predefined objectives and emphasizes the understanding of product and processes and process control
A. Quality by design (QbD)
B. Process analytical technology (PAT)
C. Process development
D. Design space
E. Risk based regulation

231. The geometrical region suitable for quality manufacturing when two/more process/material variables are plotted in a
two dimensional or higher dimensional space to show the combined effects of the relevant processing variables during
manufacturing.
A. Quality by design (QbD)
B. Process analytical technology (PAT)
C. Process development
D. Design space
E. BioRAM

232. Optimizes drug product development and performance by using therapy driven target drug delivery profiles as a
framework to achieve the desired therapeutic outcome.
A. Quality by design (QbD)
B. Process analytical technology (PAT)
C. Process development
D. Design space
E. BioRAM

233. A system for designing, analysing and controlling manufacturing through timely measurements (ie,during processing)
of critical quality and performance attributes of raw and in process materials and processes with the goal of ensuring final
product quality.
A. Quality by design (QbD)
B. Process analytical technology (PAT)
C. Process development
D. Design space
E. Risk based regulation
234. Therapeutic equivalence of a generic drug product with an innovator drug is assumed when the following conditions
are met.
I. They are approved as safe and effective
II. They are pharmaceutical equivalents and bioequivalents
III. They are adequately labelled
IV. They are manufactured in compliance with current good manufacturing practice regulations
V. They have the same time
A. I, II and III
B. II, III nad IV
C. III, IV and V
D. I, II, III and IV
E. I, II, III, IV and V

235. Pharmaceutical equivalent products may differ in which of the following aspects?
I. Active ingredients
II. Excipients
III. Impurities
IV. Release mechanism
V. Dosage form
A. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV
C. III, IV and V
D. I, II and V
E. II, IV and V

236. The most common way to estimate the ability of the liver to metabolize drug is to determine the Child-Pugh score for
a patient. All of the following are laboratory tests / clinical symptoms included in this test EXCEPT
A. Serum albumin
B. Total albumin
C. Prothrombin time
D kidney encephalopathy
E . Ascites

237. Which of the following is not true for patients with heart failure?
A. There is a decline of hepatic clearance for drugs with moderate – high hepatic extraction ratio
B. Increase Bioavailability of drugs
C. The volume of distribution for some drugs decreases in patients with heat failure
D. There is change in drug pharmacokinetic due to change in renal blood flow
E. Half-life of drug is difficult to predict in patients with renal failure

238. The fluid portion of a sample of whole blood allowed to clot for 30 minutes before centrifugation is
A. Serum
B. Plasma
C. Serous fluid
D. Citrate blood
E. Platelet

239. The fluid portion of whole blood centrifuged before clot formation is called
A. Serum
B. Plasma
C. Serous fluid
D. Citrate blood
E. Platelet

240. Which of the following drugs listed below has the least percentage of protein binding?
A. Ampicillin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Lidocaine
D. Phenytoin
E. Vancomycin.

241. Which of the following drugs listed below has the highest percentage of protein binding?
A. Ampicillin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Lidocaine
D. Phenytoin
E. Vancomycin

242. Which of the following statements best describes F?

A. Rate of absorption of the administered drug into the systemic circulation
B. Amount of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation
C. Speed at which the administered drug reaches the systemic circulation
D. Fraction of the administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation
E. Amount of drug absorbed after drug dissolution

243. If 500mg of a drug is given orally and 250mg is absorbed into the systemic circulation, What is F?
A. 0.2
B. 0.3
C. 0.4
D. 0.5
E. 0.6

244. Antifungal drug used to treat systemic mycoses which is available in a liposomal formulation that is less nephrotoxic
and better tolerated than the conventional form
A. Heparin
B. Levodopa
C. Amphotericin
D. Nystatin
E. Griseofulvin

245. Which of the following drug is present in the extracellular fluid compartment of the body?
A. Phenytoin
B. Ethanol
C. Morphine
D. Gentamicin
E. Haloperidol

246. Which of the following drugs listed below Is a substrate of CYP2D6 isoenzyme?
A. Caffeine
B. Paclitaxel
C. Phenytoin
D. Alcohol
E. Codeine

247. Which of the following is not a prodrug?

A. Azathioprine
B. Prednisone
C. Zidovudine
D. Morphine
E. Enalapril

248. All of the following are true regarding drug elimination by the kidney EXCEPT
A. Most of drugs unless highly bound to plasma protein cross the glomerular filter freely
B. Many drugs especially weak acids and weak bases are reactively secreted into the renal tubule and thus more rapidly
excreted
C. Water soluble drugs are passively reabsorbed by diffusion across the tubule so are not efficiently excreted in the urine
D. Because of pH partition weak acids are more rapidly excreted in alkaline urine and vice versa
E. Several important drugs are removed predominantly by renal excretion and are liable to cause toxicity in elderly
persons and patients with renal disease

249. A requirement imposed by FDA for in vitro and/or in vivo testing of specified drug products which must be satisfied as
a condition of marketing
A. Bioavailability requirement
B. Bioequivalece requirement
C. Biowaiver
D. Regulatory requirement
E. Bioassay

250. Drug products that contain the identical therapeutic moiety or its precursor but not necessarily in the same amount or
dosage form or as the same salt or ester
A. Pharmaceutical equivalents
B. Bioequivalents
C. Pharmaceutical alternative
D. Therapeutic equivalence
E. Therapeutic alternative

251. Multisource drug product that has been approved by the FDA as a therapeutic equivalent to the reference listed drig
product (usually the brand or innovator drug product) and has proven equivalent drug product performance
A. Innovator drug product
B. Orphan drug
C. Experimental drug
D. Generic drug product
E. Pharmaceutical equivalent product

252. Defined as the rate and extent to which the active ingredient or active moietyis absorbed from a drug product and
becomes available at the site of action
A. Bioavailability
B. Bioequivalece
C. Drug absorption
D. Biowaiver
E. Drug liberation

253. Definedas the absence of a significant difference in the rate and extent to which the active ingredient or active moiety
becomes available at the site of drug action when administered at the same molar dose under similar conditions in an
appropriately designed study
A. Bioavailability
B. Bioequivalece
C. Relative Bioavailability
D. Biowaiver
E. Absolute Bioavailability

254. Compares the Bioavailability of the active drug in the systemic circulation following extra vascular administration with
the Bioavailability of the same drug following intravenous administration
A. Bioavailability
B. Bioequivalece
C. Relative Bioavailability
D. Biowaiver
E. Absolute Bioavailability

255. The systemic exposure of a drug in a designed formulation (generally reffered to as treatment A or reference
formulation) is compared with that of the same drug administered in a reference formulation (generally reffered to as
treatment B or reference formulation)
A. Bioavailability
B. Bioequivalece
C. Relative Bioavailability
D. Biowaiver
E. Absolute Bioavailability

256. The Bioavailability of a new investigational dryg was studied in 12 volunteers. Eacg volunteer received either a single
oral tablet containing 200 mg of the drug 5mL of a pure aqueous solution containing 200 mg of the drug or a single IV
bolus injection containing 50 mg of the drug. Plasma samples were obtained periodically up to 48 hours after the dose
and assayed for dru concentration. The average AUC values (0-48 hours) are given 8n the table below.
From these data calculate the relative Bioavailability of the drug from the tablet compared to the oral solution
A. 100%
B. 101%
C. 102%
D. 103%
E. 104%

257. The absolute drug Bioavailability from the tablet is calculated:

A. 35.9%
B. 45.5%
C. 59.2%
D. 61.9%
E. 70.1%

258. Which of the following is not a drug absorption rate limiting step for solid oral immediate release drug products?
A. Disintegration of the drug product
B. Subsequent release of the drug
C. Dissolution of the drug in an aqueous environment
D. Absorption across cell membranes into the systemic circulation
E. Drug protein binding

259. Which of the following is the slowest step and therefore exerts a rate limiting effect on drugs that have a very poor
aqueous solubility?
A. Disintegration of the drug product
B. Subsequent release of the drug
C. Dissolution of the drug in an aqueous environment
D. Absorption across cell membranes into the systemic circulation
E. Drug protein binding

260. For orally administered drug that has a high aqueous solubility whichis the rate limiting step for drug absorption?
A. Disintegration of the drug product
B. Subsequent release of the drug
C. Dissolution of the drug in an aqueous environment
D. Absorption across cell membranes into the systemic circulation
E. Drug protein binding

261. Solid drug products exempted from disintegration tests includes which of the following?
I. Troches
II. Tablets that are intended to be chewed
III. Drug products intended for sustained release
IV. Sugar coated tablet
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. III and IV
D. I, II, and III
E. II, III and IV
262. Defined by the USP NF (National Formulary) as "that statein which any residues of the tablet except fragments of
insoluble coating, remaining on the screen of the test apparatus in the soft mass have no palpably firm core"
A. Complete dissolution
B. Complete absorption
C. Complete drug liberation
D. Complete disintegration
E. A or B

263. The process by which a solid drug substance becomes dissolved in a solvent over time:
A. Dissolution
B. Disintegration
C. Absorption
D. Liberation
E. Solubilization

264. The Physicochemical property gives some indication of the relative affinity of the drug for oil and water. A drug that
has high affinity for oil may have poor release and dissolution from the drug product
A. Hygroscopicity
B. Polymorphism
C. pKa and pH
D. Particle size
E. Partition coefficient

265. Which of the following is true regarding solubility pH profile of a drug?

I. An acidic drug is more soluble in an acidic medium forming a soluble salt
II. A basic drug is more solublein the intestine forming a soluble salt
III. The solubility pH profilegives a rough estimation of the completeness of dissolution for a dose of a drug in the stomach
or in the small intestine
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
E. III only

266. Which of the following is trie regarding particle size and drug absorption
I. Dissolution rate is proportional to the surface area of the drug
II. The effective surface area of a drug is decreased enomously by a reduction in the particle size
III. Reduction of particle size increases the absorption of the drug
A. I only
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. I and III
E. III only

267. Which of the following drug Excipients increases the absorption rate constant of a drug?
A. Lubricants
B. Disintegrants
C. Enteric coating
D. Sustained release agents
E. Coating agent

268. USP NF dissolution apparatus for extended release drug products

A. Apparatus 1
B. Apparatus 2
C. Apparatus 3
D. Apparatus 4
E. Apparatus 5

269. USP NF dissolution apparatus for drug products containing low water soluble drugs
A. Rotating basket
B. Paddle
C. Reciprocating cylinder
D. Flow cell
E. Paddle over disk

270. Which of the following dissolution apparatus is/are used for transdermal drug products?
I. Paddle over disk
II. Cylinder
III. Diffusion cell
IV. Reciprocating
V. Reciprocating disk
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. II, III, and IV
E. V only
271. Static diffusion system that issued for characterizing drug permeation through a skin model. They are commonly
available to characterize in vitro drug release and drug permeation kinetics from topically applied dosage form (eg.
Ointment, Cream) or transdermal drug product
A. Paddle over disk
B. Reciprocating disk
C. Intrinsic dissolution method
D. Rotating bottle method
E. Franz diffusion cell

272. A scientific framework for classifying drug substances based on their aqueous solubility and intestinal permeability
A. Biopharmaceutics classification system (BCS)
B. Pharmacokinetics classification system (PCS)
C. Absorption classification system (ACS)
D. Permeation classification system (PCS)
E. Solubility classification system (SCS)

273. Biopharmaceutics classification system (BCS) class for drug substances with high solubility and low permeability
A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4
E. Class 5

274. Biopharmaceutics classification system (BCS) class for drug substances with low solubility and low permeability
A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4
E. Class 5

275. All of the following are true regarding colonic drug delivery EXCEPT
A. Drugs that are destroyed following oral administration by the acidic environment of the stomach or metabolized by
enzymes may only be slightly affected in the colon
B. Crohn's disease may be more effectively treated by direct drug delivery to the colon
C. Drig delivery to the colon is highly influenced by several factors including high bacterial level
D. Drugs such as metoprolol, NSAIDs, steroids, peptides, and vaccines are well absorbed in the colon
E. Not recommended for the delivery of proteins and therapeutic peptides

276. Which of the following is true for rectal route of administration?

A. Many drugs are poorly or erratically absorbed across the rectal mucosa
B. Release of drug from a suppository does not depend on the composition of the suppository base
C. Not applicable for systemic delivery
D. Slow absorption of low molecular weight drugs
E. Prone to 1st pass metabolism

277. This component of a transdermal patch is important for maintaining uninterrupted skin contact for drug diffusion
through the skin
A. Backing or support layer
B. Drug layer
C. Release controlling layer
D. Pressure sensitive adhesive
E. Protective strip

278. Ethyl vinyl copolymer is a component of which of the following part of transdermal patch?
A. Backing or support layer
B. Drug layer
C. Release controlling layer
D. Pressure sensitive adhesive
E. Protective strip

279. These Excipients are incorporated into the drug product to promote system drug absorption fron the application site.
A. Absorption enhancers
B. Permeation enhancers
C. Systemic enhancers
D. A or B
E. A or C

280. Part of the skin that is the major barrier to systemic drug absorption of transdermal products
A. Stratum granulosum
B. Stratum corneum
C. Stratum lucidum
D. Stratum spinosum
E. Stratum basale

281. Estraderm(brand name) , and estradiol transdermal contains ethanol which serves as which of the following?
A. Provide soothing effect to the skin
B. Promotes drug delivery to stratum corneum
C. Increases stability of the patch
D. Prevents microbial growth on the patch
E. Potentiate the effect ofthe patch

282. A technique using a small electric charge to deliver drug containing an ionic charge through the stratum corneum
A. Charge induction
B. Ionic charge delivery
C. Sonophoresis
D. Electrophoresis
E. Iontophoresis
283. This parenteral route of administration is often used for allergy and other diagnostic tests such as tuberculosis
A. Intradermal injection
B. Intra-arterial injection
C. Intrathecal injection
D. Subcutaneous injection
E. Intravenous infusion

284. Parenteral route of administration generally used for insulin injection

A. Subcutaneous injection
B. Intravenous injection
C. Intramuscular injection
D. Intravenous infusion
E. Intradermal injection

285. Which of the following is the safest and easiest route of drug administration?
A. Intravenous
B. Rectal (PR)
C. Oral (PO)
D. Inhalational
E. Intranasal

286. In drug absorption some polar molecules may not be able to traverse the cell membrane but instead go through gaps
or tight junctions between cells this process is known as
A. Transcellular absorption
B. Lipid diffusion
C. Facilitated diffusion
D. Paracellular drug diffusion
E. Active transport

287. Cell membrane structure theory that states that the plasma membrane is composed of two layers of phospholipid
between two surface layers of proteins with the hydrophilic "head" grouos of the phospholipids facing the protein layers
and the hydrophobic "tail" groups of the phospholipids aligned in the interior.
A. Unit membrane theory
B. Fluid mosaic theory
C. Drug absorption theory
D. Hydrophilic - lipophilic balance theory
E. Phospholipid theory

288. According to this, the cell membrane consists of globular proteins embedded in a dynamic fluid, lipid bilayer matrix.
These proteins provide a pathway for the selective transfer of certain polar molecules and charged ions through the lipid
barrier.
A. Unit membrane theory
B. Fluid mosaic theory
C. Drug absorption theory
D. Hydrophilic - lipophilic balance theory
E. Phospholipid theory

289. According to the pH partition hypothesis if the pH on one side of the cell membrane differs from the pH on the other
side of the membrane then:
A. The drug (weak acid or base) will ionize to different degrees on respective sides of the membranes
B. The total drug concentrations (ionized plus non ionized drug) on either side of the membrane will be equal
C. Compartment in which the drug is more highly ionized will contain the greater total drug concentration
D. A and B
E. A and C
290. A carrier mediated transport system differing from the active transport in the drug mibes along the concentration
gradient
A. Endocytosis
B. Passive diffusion
C. Pinocytosis
D. Facilitated diffusion
E. Connective transport

291. Defined as a series of structurally related chemical compounds that have shown interesting pharmacological activity
and from which drug candidates may be selected
A. Leads
B. Drug candidates
C. Drug substances
D. Active pharmaceutical ingredient
E. Drug product

292. Defined as pharmacologically active compounds undergoing evaluation of their potential as future drug substances
A. Leads
B. Drug candidates
C. Drug substances
D. Active pharmaceutical ingredient
E. Drug product

293. The most important class of hydrolysis reactions influencing the stability of pro-drug and drug candidates
A. Hydrolysis of esters
B. Hydrolysis of amides
C. Hydrolysis of carboxyl functional group
D. Hydrolysis of alcohols
E. Hydrolysis of imides

294. Which of the following hydrolysable carboxyl compound is present on acetyl salicylic acid (ASA)?
A. Imide
B. Amide
C. Alcohol
D. Ester
E. Lactam

295. Lipinski's rule of five is based on an analysis of key Physicochemical properties of drug substances in the world drug
index. The rule is based on four Physicochemical parameters that are globally associated with solubility and permeability
and it states that the drug substances are most likely to have good Bioavailability when the following four parameters
listed below are fullfilled EXCEPT
A. Number of hydrogen bond (H-bond)
B. Number of H bond acceptors <10
C. Molecular weight (MW) is <500
D. Logarithm of the calculated octano/water partition coefficient logP <5
E. Number of functional groups present <5

296. Carriers that have two or more substrates moving in one direction during the transport process are called
A. Antiports
B. Symports
C. Active transporters
D. Enzyme
E. Bioports
297. Cell culture which serves as an easy screen of drug permeation and for prediction of human intestinal permeability
and fraction of the oral dose absorbed in man
A. Caco-2 cells
B MDCK cell line
C. HepG2
D. MDCK-MDR1
E. HT-29

298. Which of the following is the pH of the stomach at fasting state?

A. 2.1 - 3.4
B. 4.2 - 5.1
C. 1.1 - 2.0
D. 4.1 - 5.2
E. 1.5 - 2.9

299. The most common dissolution theory. This theory assumes that the dissolution rateis transport rate controlled and in
fact most dissolution processes are controlled by this diffusion - convection - controlled step
A. Reaction rate theory
B. Film theory
C. Noyes whitney
D. Ficks theory
E. Transport rate theory

300. Cell lines used hepatic drug uptake and metabolism that have also been developed to serve as a tool for
biotransformation studies in conjunction with drug transport
A. Caco-2 cells
B MDCK cell line
C. HepG2
D. MDCK-MDR1
E. HT-29